Ch. 16

Question 1

Movement of air into and out of the lungs is defined as:

A) ventilation.
B) oxygenation.
C) respiration.
D) perfusion.

Answer 1

A) ventilation.

Page Ref: 368
Objective: 16.1 Define the key terms introduced in this chapter.

Question 2

What is the volume of air that reaches the alveoli each minute?

A) Minute volume
B) External ventilation
C) Alveolar ventilation
D) Internal ventilation

Answer 2

C) Alveolar ventilation

Page Ref: 373
Objective: 16.1 Define the key terms introduced in this chapter.

Question 3

What is the MOST common cause of widespread obstruction to airflow in the lower airway?

A) Bronchoconstriction
B) Stridor
C) External respiration
D) Internal ventilation

Answer 3

A) Bronchoconstriction

Page Ref: 374
Objective: 16.1 Define the key terms introduced in this chapter.

Question 4

What is used to assesses the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin in the peripheral tissues?

A) Capnometry
B) Pulse oximetry
C) Peak expiratory flow rate
D) Spirometry

Answer 4

B) Pulse oximetry

Page Ref: 382
Objective: 16.1 Define the key terms introduced in this chapter.

Question 5

The following are signs of hypoxia, EXCEPT:

A) noisy breathing.
B) cyanosis.
C) a decreasing level of patient responsiveness.
D) an SpO2 of more than 95 percent.

Answer 5

D) an SpO2 of more than 95 percent.

Page Ref: 379
Objective: 16.1 Define the key terms introduced in this chapter; 16.3 Give examples of complaints and conditions that are associated with risk of hypoxia and hypoventilation.

Question 6

What is an effective ventilator rate for an adult?

A) Greater than 20 per minute
B) 12 to 20 per minute
C) 10 to 12 per minute
D) Less than 10 per minute

Answer 6

C) 10 to 12 per minute

Page Ref: 401
Objective: 16.3 Give examples of complaints and conditions that are associated with risk of hypoxia and hypoventilation.

Question 7

All of the following are TRUE about the alveoli and gas exchange, EXCEPT:

A) carbon dioxide from the bloodstream diffuses into the pulmonary capillaries.
B) alveoli are tiny air sacs surrounded by pulmonary capillaries.
C) oxygen from inhaled air diffuses into the bloodstream.
D) effective external respiration requires a match between the amount of lung ventilated and the amount of lung perfused.

Answer 7

A) carbon dioxide from the bloodstream diffuses into the pulmonary capillaries.

Page Ref: 373
Objective: 16.2 Relate the anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system to oxygenation, perfusion, and removal of carbon dioxide.

Question 8

Aspirated foreign bodies tend to lodge in the:

A) esophagus.
B) right main stem bronchus.
C) terminal alveoli.
D) left main stem bronchus.

Answer 8

B) right main stem bronchus.

Page Ref: 373
Objective: 16.2 Relate the anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system to oxygenation, perfusion, and removal of carbon dioxide.

Question 9

Anything that interferes with ventilation to a lung or anything that interferes with distribution of blood through the pulmonary circulation result in what is called:

A) ventilation-respiration (VP) mismatch.
B) ventilation-alveolar (VA) mismatch.
C) ventilation-oxygenation (VO) mismatch.
D) ventilation-perfusion (VQ) mismatch.

Answer 9

D) ventilation-perfusion (VQ) mismatch.

Page Ref: 373
Objective: 16.3 Give examples of complaints and conditions that are associated with risk of hypoxia and hypoventilation.

Question 10

________ is the volume of air inhaled and exhaled in a single breath.

A) Alveolar ventilation
B) Minute volume
C) Tidal volume
D) Dead air volume

Answer 10

C) Tidal volume

Page Ref: 373
Objective: 16.2 Relate the anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system to oxygenation, perfusion, and removal of carbon dioxide.

Question 11

Course, liquid, lower airway sound associated with secretions in the bronchi are called:

A) rhonchi.
B) gurgling.
C) crackles.
D) stridor.

Answer 11

A) rhonchi.

Page Ref: 374
Objective: 16.4 Relate findings from the assessment of the airway and ventilation to the patient’s need for interventions in airway, ventilation, and respiration.

Question 12

Which of the following airway complaints would NOT cause bronchoconstriction?

A) Asthma
B) Partial upper airway obstruction
C) Anaphylaxis
D) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Answer 12

B) Partial upper airway obstruction

Page Ref: 374
Objective: 16.9 Describe the pathophysiological mechanisms associated with specific abnormal breathing sounds.

Question 13

If a patient is unresponsive, there is a high probability that there may also be an associated:

A) breathing problem.
B) circulation problem.
C) mental problem.
D) airway problem.

Answer 13

D) airway problem.

Page Ref: 375
Objective: 16.4 Relate findings from the assessment of the airway and ventilation to the patient’s need for interventions in airway, ventilation, and respiration.

Question 14

A position in which a patient leans forward, supporting himself with his arms when experiencing respiratory distress is called:

A) position of comfort.
B) semi-Fowler’s position.
C) Tripod position.
D) Fowler’s position.

Answer 14

C) Tripod position.

Page Ref: 376
Objective: 16.4 Relate findings from the assessment of the airway and ventilation to the patient’s need for interventions in airway, ventilation, and respiration; 16.5 Recognize signs and symptoms of mild, moderate, and severe hypoxia.

Question 15

If a patient is cyanotic or mottled and has no respiratory effort, he is said to be in:

A) respiratory arrest.
B) respiratory distress.
C) respiratory failure.
D) dyspnea.

Answer 15

A) respiratory arrest.

Page Ref: 376
Objective: 16.4 Relate findings from the assessment of the airway and ventilation to the patient’s need for interventions in airway, ventilation, and respiration; 16.5 Recognize signs and symptoms of mild, moderate, and severe hypoxia.

Question 16

All of the following are signs of inadequate breathing EXCEPT:

A) cyanosis.
B) ventilatory rate of 14.
C) apnea.
D) use of accessory muscles.

Answer 16

B) ventilatory rate of 14.

Page Ref: 379
Objective: 16.6 Distinguish between adequate and inadequate breathing.

Question 17

The respiratory rate is determined by counting the number of complete respirations (one inspiration plus one expiration) in ________ seconds and multiplying by ________.

A) 15; 4
B) 10; 6
C) 6; 10
D) 30; 2

Answer 17

D) 30; 2

Page Ref: 382
Objective: 16.5 Recognize signs and symptoms of mild, moderate, and severe hypoxia; 16.6 Distinguish between adequate and inadequate breathing.

Question 18

Pulse oximetry uses ________ technology to assess the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin in the peripheral tissues.

A) ultraviolet
B) x-ray
C) infrared
D) ultrasound

Answer 18

C) infrared

Page Ref: 382
Objective: 16.7 Use patient monitoring technology to guide decisions regarding management of airway, ventilation, and respiration.

Question 19

Capnometry is the measurement of carbon dioxide in exhaled air. A normal capnometry value is:

A) 35-45 mmHg.
B) 90-100 mmHg.
C) 20-30 mmHg.
D) 50-60 mmHg.

Answer 19

A) 35-45 mmHg.

Page Ref: 384
Objective: 16.7 Use patient monitoring technology to guide decisions regarding management of airway, ventilation, and respiration.

Question 20

Higher levels of exhaled carbon dioxide indicate hypercapnia, which is often due to:

A) hyperventilation syndrome.
B) inadequate ventilation.
C) excessive BVM ventilation.
D) adequate ventilation.

Answer 20

B) inadequate ventilation.

Page Ref: 384
Objective: 16.7 Use patient monitoring technology to guide decisions regarding management of airway, ventilation, and respiration.

Question 21

Auscultation of the lung fields usually begins high and works its way down to the low bases. Lung fields reach as high as the ________ and can reach as low as the level of the umbilicus.

A) lower sternum
B) xiphoid process
C) midnipple line
D) shoulders

Answer 21

D) shoulders

Page Ref: 382
Objective: 16.8 Demonstrate the proper technique of auscultating breath sounds.

Question 22

A nosebleed is also referred to as:

A) rhinitis.
B) hematosis.
C) epistaxis.
D) naseoitis.

Answer 22

C) epistaxis.

Page Ref: 386
Objective: 16.4 Relate findings from the assessment of the airway and ventilation to the patient’s need for interventions in airway, ventilation, and respiration.

Question 23

The peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is a measurement of the ________ flow rate of air during ________.

A) maximal; expiration
B) minimal; inspiration
C) maximal; inspiration
D) minimal; expiration

Answer 23

A) maximal; expiration

Page Ref: 385
Objective: 16.1 Define the key terms introduced in this chapter; 16.7 Use patient monitoring technology to guide decisions regarding management of airway, ventilation, and respiration.

Question 24

The trauma chin-lift and ________ airway maneuvers may be considered in patients in who the head-tilt/chin-lift and modified jaw-thrust maneuvers are ineffective.

A) difficult
B) triple
C) double
D) adequate

Answer 24

B) triple

Page Ref: 387
Objective: 16.11 Take immediate action to correct impaired airway, ventilation, and respiration; 16.12 Utilize manual positioning and suction (portable and fixed devices) to keep the airway clear in intubated and nonintubated patients.

Question 25

The harsh, crowing sound of stridor is an indication of:

A) lower airway obstruction.
B) alveolar airway obstruction.
C) bronchial airway obstruction.
D) upper airway obstruction.

Answer 25

D) upper airway obstruction.

Page Ref: 387
Objective: 16.9 Describe the pathophysiological mechanisms associated with specific abnormal breathing sounds.

Question 26

If a patient with a foreign body airway obstruction (FBAO) becomes unresponsive, lower the patient to the ground and begin:

A) abdominal thrusts.
B) modified Heimlich maneuver.
C) cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
D) blind finger sweeps.

Answer 26

C) cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

Page Ref: 388
Objective: 16.11 Take immediate action to correct impaired airway, ventilation, and respiration; 16.12 Utilize manual positioning and suction (portable and fixed devices) to keep the airway clear in intubated and nonintubated patients.

Question 27

In which patient population do you NOT perform a blind finger sweep on since you may push a foreign object deeper in the airway, worsening the obstruction?

A) Pediatric patients
B) Obstetric patients
C) Geriatric patients
D) Psychiatric patients

Answer 27

A) Pediatric patients

Page Ref: 387
Objective: 16.10 Identify the different presentations and needs of pediatric and geriatric patients with regard to airway, ventilation, and respiration; 16.12 Utilize manual positioning and suction (portable and fixed devices) to keep the airway clear in intubated and nonintubated patients.

Question 28

Rigid suction catheters are used to suction the oropharynx. Another name for a tonsil-tip catheter is a:

A) whistle-tip.
B) Yankauer.
C) DeLee.
D) soft catheter.

Answer 28

B) Yankauer.

Page Ref: 389
Objective: 16.12 Utilize manual positioning and suction (portable and fixed devices) to keep the airway clear in intubated and nonintubated patients; 16.13 Given a variety of scenarios, select and insert appropriate basic and advanced airway devices.

Question 29

Soft catheters come in various diameters, using French units (Fr.) of sizing. The larger the French size, the larger the diameter of the suction catheter. One Fr. unit is equal to:

A) 3.3 mm.
B) 33.0 mm.
C) 0.033 mm.
D) 0.33 mm.

Answer 29

D) 0.33 mm.

Page Ref: 390
Objective: 16.12 Utilize manual positioning and suction (portable and fixed devices) to keep the airway clear in intubated and nonintubated patients; 16.13 Given a variety of scenarios, select and insert appropriate basic and advanced airway devices.

Question 30

To measure an oropharyngeal airway measure the length from the:

A) teeth to the angle of the jaw.
B) nares to the tip of the earlobe.
C) corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw.
D) corner of the mouth to the tip of the earlobe.

Answer 30

C) corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw.

Page Ref: 394
Objective: 16.13 Given a variety of scenarios, select and insert appropriate basic and advanced airway devices.

Question 31

An AEMT should avoid inserting a nasopharyngeal airway in patients with severe head or mid-face trauma or other indications of a basilar skulls fracture such as:

A) CSF rhinorrhea.
B) battle signs.
C) CSF from ears.
D) all of the above.

Answer 31

D) all of the above.

Page Ref: 396
Objective: 16.13 Given a variety of scenarios, select and insert appropriate basic and advanced airway devices.

Question 32

What is the MOST effective method of airway management?

A) Any method that gets air into your patient with the fewest complications
B) An esophageal tracheal Combitube
C) A laryngeal mask airway (LMA)
D) A King LTD®

Answer 32

A) Any method that gets air into your patient with the fewest complications

Page Ref: 394
Objective: 16.13 Given a variety of scenarios, select and insert appropriate basic and advanced airway devices.

Question 33

Which of the following AEMT Advanced airways is NOT supraglottic?

A) LMA
B) Combitube
C) King LTD®
D) Cobra®

Answer 33

B) Combitube

Page Ref: 397
Objective: 16.13 Given a variety of scenarios, select and insert appropriate basic and advanced airway devices.

Question 34

Which devices have become widely available in the prehospital setting and may improve oxygenation enough that intubation can be avoided?

A) Bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP)
B) Nonrebreather (NRB)
C) Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
D) Automatic transport ventilator (ATV)

Answer 34

C) Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

Page Ref: 398
Objective: 16.15 Administer supplemental oxygen via devices suited to the individual patient’s needs; 16.17 Ventilate or assist the ventilations of patients using the ventilation equipment best suited to the individual patient’s needs.

Question 35

In normal breathing, air movement on inspiration is generated by:

A) positive intra-abdominal pressure.
B) positive intra-thoracic pressure.
C) negative intra-abdominal pressure.
D) negative intra-thoracic pressure.

Answer 35

D) negative intra-thoracic pressure.

Page Ref: 399
Objective: 16.2 Relate the anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system to oxygenation, perfusion, and removal of carbon dioxide.

Question 36

Which of the following is NOT a positive pressure ventilation (PPV) option available to the AEMT for assisting or providing ventilations?

A) NRB
B) CPAP
C) BVM
D) FROPVD

Answer 36

A) NRB

Page Ref: 399-403
Objective: 16.17 Ventilate or assist the ventilations of patients using the ventilation equipment best suited to the individual patient’s needs; 16.18 Modify techniques of managing airway and ventilation, and administering supplemental oxygen for patients with conditions that make standard approaches difficult or ineffective.

Question 37

With the use of a reservoir and 15 liters per minute of oxygen flow, bag-mask devices can deliver concentrations of oxygen approaching:

A) 90 percent.
B) 100 percent.
C) 95 percent.
D) 85 percent.

Answer 37

B) 100 percent.

Page Ref: 400
Objective: 16.15 Administer supplemental oxygen via devices suited to the individual patient’s needs; 16.17 Ventilate or assist the ventilations of patients using the ventilation equipment best suited to the individual patient’s needs.

Question 38

Both excessively high PaO2 and low PaCO2 result in:

A) cerebral vasoconstriction.
B) coronary vasoconstriction.
C) cerebral vasodilatation.
D) coronary vasodilatation.

Answer 38

Page Ref: 401
Objective: 16.19 Discuss the physiologic differences, including potential complications, of artificial ventilation compared to normal ventilation.

Question 39

Both low PaO2 and high PaCO2 lead to:

A) cerebral vasoconstriction.
B) coronary vasoconstriction.
C) cerebral vasodilation.
D) coronary vasodilatation.

Answer 39

C) cerebral vasodilation.

Page Ref: 401
Objective: 16.19 Discuss the physiologic differences, including potential complications, of artificial ventilation compared to normal ventilation.

Question 40

Which of the following is NOT a complication of excessive ventilatory volume in pediatric patients?

A) Gastric distention
B) Hypoxia
C) Bradycardia
D) Increased ventilation

Answer 40

D) Increased ventilation

Page Ref: 401
Objective: 16.10 Identify the different presentations and needs of pediatric and geriatric patients with regard to airway, ventilation, and respiration; 16.19 Discuss the physiologic differences, including potential complications, of artificial ventilation compared to normal ventilation.

Question 41

Which of the following devices allows the operator to set the rate and volume of ventilations, thereby reducing errors from over and under-ventilation?

A) FROPVD
B) ATV
C) BVM
D) CPAP

Answer 41

B) ATV

Page Ref: 403
Objective: 16.19 Discuss the physiologic differences, including potential complications, of artificial ventilation compared to normal ventilation.

Question 42

Maintaining positive pressure in the airway during expiration to prevent collapse of the smaller airways and alveoli would be called:

A) positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP).
B) positive pressure ventilation (PPV).
C) peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR).
D) continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).

Answer 42

A) positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP).

Page Ref: 403
Objective: 16.16 Describe the concept of positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP).

Question 43

Among the less serious side effects of oxygen administration is:

A) decreased respiratory drive.
B) blindness.
C) drying of mucus membranes.
D) diminished respirations.

Answer 43

C) drying of mucus membranes.

Page Ref: 404
Objective: 16.14 Employ appropriate safety precautions when handling, transporting, and administering oxygen.

Question 44

Oxygen cylinders are typically filled to pressures equal to:

A) 2,000 pounds per square foot (psf).
B) 3,000 pounds per square inch (psi).
C) 3,000 pounds per square foot (psf).
D) 2,000 pounds per square inch (psi).

Answer 44

D) 2,000 pounds per square inch (psi).

Page Ref: 404
Objective: 16.14 Employ appropriate safety precautions when handling, transporting, and administering oxygen.

Question 45

An oxygen cylinder is what colors?

A) Blue or gold with a blue band
B) Green or silver with a green band
C) Red or gold with a red band
D) Yellow or silver with a yellow band

Answer 45

B) Green or silver with a green band

Page Ref: 406
Objective: 16.14 Employ appropriate safety precautions when handling, transporting, and administering oxygen.

Question 46

A partial rebreather mask can deliver 40 to 60 percent oxygen at a flow rate of:

A) 5 to 10 L per minute.
B) 10 to 15 L per minute.
C) 2 to 6 L per minute.
D) 15 to 25 L per minute.

Answer 46

A) 5 to 10 L per minute.

Page Ref: 407
Objective: 16.15 Administer supplemental oxygen via devices suited to the individual patient’s needs.

Question 47

To suction an endotracheal tube the measurement of the soft catheter is from the tip of the endotracheal tube to the level of the carina, which lies at approximately the sternal notch. In the adult patient, typically a ________ Fr. suction catheter is used.

A) 4
B) 8
C) 14
D) 20

Answer 47

C) 14

Page Ref: 390
Objective: 16.11 Take immediate action to correct impaired airway, ventilation, and respiration; 16.12 Utilize manual positioning and suction (portable and fixed devices) to keep the airway clear in intubated and nonintubated patients.

Question 48

A breathing pattern characterized by short, gasping, irregular respirations separated by periods of apnea is known as:

A) Cheyne-Stokes.
B) Biot’s.
C) apneustic respirations.
D) Kussmaul’s respirations.

Answer 48

B) Biot’s.

Page Ref: 382
Objective: 16.3 Give examples of complaints and conditions that are associated with risk of hypoxia and hypoventilation; 16.6 Distinguish between adequate and inadequate breathing.

Question 49

A breathing pattern characterized by progressive increasing, then subsiding, rate and volume of respirations, interrupted by periods of apnea is known as:

A) Kussmaul’s respirations.
B) apneustic respirations.
C) Cheyne-Stokes.
D) Biot’s.

Answer 49

C) Cheyne-Stokes.

Page Ref: 382
Objective: 16.3 Give examples of complaints and conditions that are associated with risk of hypoxia and hypoventilation; 16.6 Distinguish between adequate and inadequate breathing.

Question 50

You arrive on the scene of a patient who is unconscious, with a history of diabetes mellitus. They present with very rapid, deep respirations that are known as:

A) Kussmaul’s respirations.
B) Biot’s.
C) Cheyne-Stokes.
D) apneustic respirations.

Answer 50

A) Kussmaul’s respirations.

Page Ref: 382
Objective: 16.3 Give examples of complaints and conditions that are associated with risk of hypoxia and hypoventilation; 16.6 Distinguish between adequate and inadequate breathing.

Question 51

Which is an appropriate method of initially opening the airway of an unconscious trauma patient?

A) Head-tilt/chin lift maneuver
B) Oral tracheal intubation
C) Jaw-thrust maneuver
D) Nasal tracheal intubation

Answer 51

C) Jaw-thrust maneuver

Page Ref: 387
Objective: 16.11 Take immediate action to correct impaired airway, ventilation, and respiration; 16.12 Utilize manual positioning and suction (portable and fixed devices) to keep the airway clear in intubated and nonintubated patients.

Question 52

Using a head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver opens the airway by:

A) lining up the internal structures of the airway and preventing obstruction of the glottic opening.
B) moving the pharynx to a more posterior position relative to the tongue.
C) aligning the posterior pharynx with the nasal passage.
D) reducing airway resistance by establishing a direct passage.

Answer 52

A) lining up the internal structures of the airway and preventing obstruction of the glottic opening.

Page Ref: 386
Objective: 16.11 Take immediate action to correct impaired airway, ventilation, and respiration; 16.12 Utilize manual positioning and suction (portable and fixed devices) to keep the airway clear in intubated and nonintubated patients.

Question 53

Manually ventilating an adult patient with a BVM should be done at a rate of:

A) 16-20 breaths per minute.
B) 12-20 breaths per minute.
C) 10-12 breaths per minute.
D) 8-10 breaths per minute.

Answer 53

C) 10-12 breaths per minute.

Page Ref: 401
Objective: 16.11 Take immediate action to correct impaired airway, ventilation, and respiration; 16.17 Ventilate or assist the ventilations of patients using the ventilation equipment best suited to the individual patient’s needs.

Question 54

The sound of gurgling usually indicates:

A) constricted bronchioles.
B) fluid in the upper airway.
C) foreign body airway obstruction.
D) fluid in the lower airway.

Answer 54

B) fluid in the upper airway.

Page Ref: 374
Objective: 16.4 Relate findings from the assessment of the airway and ventilation to the patient’s need for interventions in airway, ventilation, and respiration.

Question 55

Accurate assessment of a patient’s respirations includes which of the following?

A) Tidal volume
B) Respiratory pattern
C) Respiratory rate
D) All of the above

Answer 55

D) All of the above

Page Ref: 381-385
Objective: 16.4 Relate findings from the assessment of the airway and ventilation to the patient’s need for interventions in airway, ventilation, and respiration.

Question 56

Harsh, high pitched sounds heard on inspiration are known as:

A) stridor.
B) rhonchi.
C) snoring.
D) wheezes.

Answer 56

A) stridor.

Page Ref: 374
Objective: 16.4 Relate findings from the assessment of the airway and ventilation to the patient’s need for interventions in airway, ventilation, and respiration.

Question 57

Upper airway noises caused by a partial obstruction of the airway are known as:

A) rhonchi.
B) wheezes.
C) stridor.
D) snoring.

Answer 57

D) snoring.

Page Ref: 374
Objective: 16.4 Relate findings from the assessment of the airway and ventilation to the patient’s need for interventions in airway, ventilation, and respiration.

Question 58

Whistling sounds heard on exhalation is known as:

A) wheezing.
B) stridor.
C) snoring.
D) rhonci.

Answer 58

A) wheezing.

Page Ref: 374
Objective: 16.4 Relate findings from the assessment of the airway and ventilation to the patient’s need for interventions in airway, ventilation, and respiration.

Question 59

Signs of inadequate breathing include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) eupnea.
B) dyspnea.
C) hyperpnea.
D) tachypnea.

Answer 59

A) eupnea.

Page Ref: 382
Objective: 16.4 Relate findings from the assessment of the airway and ventilation to the patient’s need for interventions in airway, ventilation, and respiration.

Question 60

What are considered the FIRST and MOST critical steps in the primary assessment of every patient you will encounter?

A) Chest compressions and application of an AED
B) Establishing an intravenous line and administering fluids
C) Establishing unresponsiveness and check pulse
D) Airway management and ventilation

Answer 60

D) Airway management and ventilation

Page Ref: 376
Objective: 16.4 Relate findings from the assessment of the airway and ventilation to the patient’s need for interventions in airway, ventilation, and respiration; 16.5 Recognize signs and symptoms of mild, moderate, and severe hypoxia.

Question 61

You arrive on the scene to find a 23-year-old man unconscious. Initial attempts to ventilate are unsuccessful. What is the MOST probable cause of an airway obstruction?

A) Mucous
B) Regurgitated stomach contents
C) The tongue
D) Food

Answer 61

C) The tongue

Page Ref: 371
Objective: 16.4 Relate findings from the assessment of the airway and ventilation to the patient’s need for interventions in airway, ventilation, and respiration.

Question 62

When swallowing food, what leaf-shaped structure prevents it from entering the respiratory tract?

A) Epiglottis
B) Vallecula
C) Pharynx
D) Larynx

Answer 62

A) Epiglottis

Page Ref: 371
Objective: 16.2 Relate the anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system to oxygenation, perfusion, and removal of carbon dioxide.

Question 63

The ________ molecule carries the vast majority of oxygen in the blood.

A) hemoglobin
B) plasma
C) white blood cell
D) platelet

Answer 63

A) hemoglobin

Page Ref: 369
Objective: 16.2 Relate the anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system to oxygenation, perfusion, and removal of carbon dioxide.

Question 64

The ________ is the uppermost part of the pharynx.

A) nasopharynx
B) hypopharynx
C) laryngopharynx
D) oropharynx

Answer 64

A) nasopharynx

Page Ref: 371
Objective: 16.2 Relate the anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system to oxygenation, perfusion, and removal of carbon dioxide.

Question 65

The condition characterized by a decrease in the amount of oxygen perfusion in the tissues in called:

A) hypoxia.
B) hypoglycemia.
C) hypovolemia.
D) hypoxemia.

Answer 65

A) hypoxia.

Page Ref: 379
Objective: 16.5 Recognize signs and symptoms of mild, moderate, and severe hypoxia.

Question 66

Indications of airway obstruction include the following, EXCEPT:

A) stridor.
B) gurgling.
C) wheezing.
D) ventilatory rate of 10 per minute in an adult.

Answer 66

D) ventilatory rate of 10 per minute in an adult.

Page Ref: 379
Objective: 16.3 Give examples of complaints and conditions that are associated with risk of hypoxia and hypoventilation.

Question 67

A buildup of CO2 levels is referred to as what?

A) Hyperventilation
B) Hypercapnea
C) Hypoxia
D) Alkalosis

Answer 67

B) Hypercapnea

Page Ref: 384
Objective: 16.6 Distinguish between adequate and inadequate breathing.

Question 68

The reflex that prevents overexpansion of the lungs via signals from stretch receptors is known as:

A) ventilation-perfusion mismatch.
B) hypercarbic drive.
C) the hypoxic drive.
D) the Hering-Breuer reflexes.

Answer 68

D) the Hering-Breuer reflexes.

Page Ref: 370
Objective: 16.2 Relate the anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system to oxygenation, perfusion, and removal of carbon dioxide.

Question 69

The physiological goal of providing oxygen to the cells and eliminating carbon dioxide:

A) is never disrupted.
B) is completely controlled in the upper airway.
C) can be disrupted at any point from the upper airway to the cellular level.
D) is only disrupted in the upper airway.

Answer 69

C) can be disrupted at any point from the upper airway to the cellular level.

Page Ref: 373
Objective: 16.2 Relate the anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system to oxygenation, perfusion, and removal of carbon dioxide.

Question 70

Your patient is a 72-year-old man with a history of COPD. He is complaining of shortness of breath and his pulse oximeter reading is 74 percent on room air. You hear very little air movement upon auscultation over the lung fields. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the appropriate treatment for this patient?

A) Administer high flow oxygen and give ventilatory assistance if necessary.
B) Withhold oxygen due to the patient’s hypoxic drive.
C) Have the patient breathe into a paper bag to increase the PaCO2.
D) Immediately administer 1 amp of sodium bicarbonate to decrease acidosis.

Answer 70

A) Administer high flow oxygen and give ventilatory assistance if necessary.

Page Ref: 398-399/404
Objective: 16.4 Relate findings from the assessment of the airway and ventilation to the patient’s need for interventions in airway, ventilation, and respiration; 16.11 Take immediate action to correct impaired airway, ventilation, and respiration.

Question 71

You arrive on the scene of the local steak restaurant. You find a 34-year-old man that is standing by the table grabbing at his throat. He is trying to cough and you hear high-pitched sounds coming from his airway. Which of the following BEST describes his respiratory problem?

A) Complete airway obstruction
B) Partial airway obstruction with poor air exchange
C) Lower airway obstruction
D) Partial airway obstruction with adequate air exchange

Answer 71

B) Partial airway obstruction with poor air exchange

Page Ref: 387-388
Objective: 16.4 Relate findings from the assessment of the airway and ventilation to the patient’s need for interventions in airway, ventilation, and respiration; 16.9 Describe the pathophysiological mechanisms associated with specific abnormal breathing sounds.

Question 72

Which of the following is TRUE regarding complete airway obstruction?

A) The patient has difficulty speaking.
B) The patient is coughing to try to expel the object.
C) Airflow is neither felt nor heard from the nose or mouth.
D) All of the above

Answer 72

C) Airflow is neither felt nor heard from the nose or mouth.

Page Ref: 387
Objective: 16.4 Relate findings from the assessment of the airway and ventilation to the patient’s need for interventions in airway, ventilation, and respiration; 16.9 Describe the pathophysiological mechanisms associated with specific abnormal breathing sounds.

Question 73

The following can depress the respiratory center in the medulla, resulting in hypoventilation, EXCEPT:

A) drug overdoses.
B) neurologic trauma.
C) diseases.
D) hypocapnia.

Answer 73

D) hypocapnia.

Page Ref: 375
Objective: 16.3 Give examples of complaints and conditions that are associated with risk of hypoxia and hypoventilation.

Question 74

Your 54-year-old female patient is displaying deep, gasping, rapid respirations. What respiratory pattern is she exhibiting?

A) Kussmaul’s respirations
B) Cheyne-Stokes respirations
C) Biot’s respirations
D) Agonal respirations

Answer 74

A) Kussmaul’s respirations

Page Ref: 382
Objective: 16.3 Give examples of complaints and conditions that are associated with risk of hypoxia and hypoventilation; 16.4 Relate findings from the assessment of the airway and ventilation to the patient’s need for interventions in airway, ventilation, and respiration.

Question 75

Your partner is evaluating a 22-year-old man thrown from his motorcycle. He tells you he is observing Biot’s respirations. What pattern of ventilation would you expect to find?

A) Irregular breathing of rate and depth with periods of apnea
B) Shallow, rapid breathing
C) Slow, deep, gasping respirations
D) Progressively deeper, faster respirations alternating with slowing, shallower breathing

Answer 75

A) Irregular breathing of rate and depth with periods of apnea

Page Ref: 382
Objective: 16.3 Give examples of complaints and conditions that are associated with risk of hypoxia and hypoventilation; 16.4 Relate findings from the assessment of the airway and ventilation to the patient’s need for interventions in airway, ventilation, and respiration.

Question 76

A patient with Cheyne-Stokes respirations is likely suffering from what condition?

A) Increasing intracranial hemorrhage
B) Anxiety
C) Diabetic ketoacidosis
D) Brainstem injury

Answer 76

D) Brainstem injury

Page Ref: 382
Objective: 16.3 Give examples of complaints and conditions that are associated with risk of hypoxia and hypoventilation; 16.4 Relate findings from the assessment of the airway and ventilation to the patient’s need for interventions in airway, ventilation, and respiration.

Question 77

You are called to a rural hospital to transfer a patient to another facility. Your 68-year-old patient presents with a complaint of shortness of breath. The diagnosis is congestive heart failure with acute pulmonary edema. Which of the following breath sounds would you expect to hear?

A) Stridor
B) Snoring
C) Crackles
D) Wheezing

Answer 77

C) Crackles

Page Ref: 374
Objective: 16.3 Give examples of complaints and conditions that are associated with risk of hypoxia and hypoventilation; 16.9 Describe the pathophysiological mechanisms associated with specific abnormal breathing sounds.

Question 78

You arrive on the scene to find a 16-year-old girl with difficulty breathing. She has a history of asthma. She has an inhaler, but it is empty. Which of the following breath sounds would you expect to hear?

A) Wheezing
B) Stridor
C) Gurgling
D) Crackles

Answer 78

A) Wheezing

Page Ref: 374
Objective: 16.3 Give examples of complaints and conditions that are associated with risk of hypoxia and hypoventilation; 16.9 Describe the pathophysiological mechanisms associated with specific abnormal breathing sounds.

Question 79

What airway compromise results in gurgling respirations?

A) Laryngeal edema or constriction
B) Fluid in the alveoli and distal airway passages
C) Obstruction by blood, vomit, or other secretions
D) Obstruction by the tongue

Answer 79

C) Obstruction by blood, vomit, or other secretions

Page Ref: 374
Objective: 16.3 Give examples of complaints and conditions that are associated with risk of hypoxia and hypoventilation; 16.9 Describe the pathophysiological mechanisms associated with specific abnormal breathing sounds.

Question 80

Which of the following devices measures hemoglobin oxygen saturation in the blood?

A) The pulse oximeter
B) The capnometer
C) EtCO2 detectors
D) The esophageal tube detector

Answer 80

A) The pulse oximeter

Page Ref: 382
Objective: 16.7 Use patient monitoring technology to guide decisions regarding management of airway, ventilation, and respiration.

Question 81

Which of the following devices delivers low flow oxygen at concentrations between 24 and 44 percent?

A) The nasal cannula
B) The Venturi mask
C) The nonrebreather mask
D) The simple face mask

Answer 81

A) The nasal cannula

Page Ref: 407
Objective: 16.15 Administer supplemental oxygen via devices suited to the individual patient’s needs.

Question 82

Your 32-year-old man is having mild shortness of breath after exercising. His resting pulse oximeter reading is 94 percent and he has no other complaints. What method of oxygen delivery is BEST for this patient at this time?

A) The Venturi mask
B) The nonrebreather mask
C) The nasal cannula
D) The simple face mask

Answer 82

C) The nasal cannula

Page Ref: 408
Objective: 16.15 Administer supplemental oxygen via devices suited to the individual patient’s needs.

Question 83

The simple face mask will deliver oxygen concentrations of what percentages?

A) 35-60 percent
B) 40-60 percent
C) 80-100 percent
D) 21-44 percent

Answer 83

A) 35-60 percent

Page Ref: 407
Objective: 16.15 Administer supplemental oxygen via devices suited to the individual patient’s needs.

Question 84

What is the difference between the simple face mask and the nonrebreather face mask?

A) The nonrebreather may feel confining to the patient, the simple will not.
B) The nonrebreather has a reservoir bag and rubber flaps over the inlet/outlet ports, the simple does not.
C) The nonrebreather requires a tight face seal, the simple does not.
D) All of the above are correct.

Answer 84

B) The nonrebreather has a reservoir bag and rubber flaps over the inlet/outlet ports, the simple does not.

Page Ref: 407-408
Objective: 16.15 Administer supplemental oxygen via devices suited to the individual patient’s needs.

Question 85

Which oxygen delivery system delivers the highest concentration of oxygen?

A) The nasal cannula
B) The simple face mask
C) The Venturi mask
D) The nonrebreather mask

Answer 85

D) The nonrebreather mask

Page Ref: 407
Objective: 16.15 Administer supplemental oxygen via devices suited to the individual patient’s needs.

Question 86

Your 23-year-old patient fell 24 feet from a ladder. He is unconscious and has snoring respirations. What type of manual airway maneuver should be used to open his airway?

A) The modified jaw-thrust
B) The jaw-thrust
C) The Sellick maneuver
D) The head-tilt/chin-lift

Answer 86

A) The modified jaw-thrust

Page Ref: 376
Objective: 16.11 Take immediate action to correct impaired airway, ventilation, and respiration; 16.12 Utilize manual positioning and suction (portable and fixed devices) to keep the airway clear in intubated and nonintubated patients.

Question 87

Upon arrival, you find a 73-year-old man unconscious in his bathroom. After moving him to an open area, and suspecting no trauma, what is the preferred method of opening his airway?

A) The jaw-thrust maneuver
B) The jaw-lift maneuver
C) The head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver
D) The modified jaw-thrust maneuver

Answer 87

C) The head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver

Page Ref: 376
Objective: 16.11 Take immediate action to correct impaired airway, ventilation, and respiration; 16.12 Utilize manual positioning and suction (portable and fixed devices) to keep the airway clear in intubated and nonintubated patients.

Question 88

The tonsil-tip suction catheter is BEST used to suction:

A) the lower airway.
B) through an endotracheal tube.
C) the nasopharynx.
D) the upper airway.

Answer 88

D) the upper airway.

Page Ref: 389
Objective: 16.11 Take immediate action to correct impaired airway, ventilation, and respiration; 16.12 Utilize manual positioning and suction (portable and fixed devices) to keep the airway clear in intubated and nonintubated patients.

Question 89

The soft suction catheter is BEST used to:

A) suction the upper airway.
B) suction the lower airway.
C) remove larger particles from the upper airway.
D) remove large volumes of fluid secretions rapidly.

Answer 89

B) suction the lower airway.

Page Ref: 389
Objective: 16.11 Take immediate action to correct impaired airway, ventilation, and respiration; 16.12 Utilize manual positioning and suction (portable and fixed devices) to keep the airway clear in intubated and nonintubated patients.

Question 90

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the suctioning of patients?

A) Suction should be applied while withdrawing the catheter.
B) Effective suction units should generate at least 300 mmHg when the distal end is occluded.
C) Suction attempts should be limited to 10 seconds.
D) All of the above

Answer 90

D) All of the above

Page Ref: 389-393
Objective: 16.12 Utilize manual positioning and suction (portable and fixed devices) to keep the airway clear in intubated and nonintubated patients.

Question 91

Suctioning a patient should be limited to:

A) 45 seconds.
B) 30 seconds.
C) 60 seconds.
D) 10 seconds.

Answer 91

D) 10 seconds.

Page Ref: 390
Objective: 16.12 Utilize manual positioning and suction (portable and fixed devices) to keep the airway clear in intubated and nonintubated patients.

Question 92

The rigid tube used to suction the upper airway is known as the:

A) Yankauer catheter.
B) Magill catheter.
C) whistle-tip catheter.
D) Macintosh catheter.

Answer 92

A) Yankauer catheter.

Page Ref: 389
Objective: 16.12 Utilize manual positioning and suction (portable and fixed devices) to keep the airway clear in intubated and nonintubated patients.

Question 93

Which of the following is an indication for using an oropharyngeal airway?

A) To prevent vomiting in the conscious patient.
B) The teeth are clenched.
C) The patient needs ventilatory assistance but has a gag reflex.
D) The tongue is blocking the airway.

Answer 93

D) The tongue is blocking the airway.

Page Ref: 394
Objective: 16.13 Given a variety of scenarios, select and insert appropriate basic and advanced airway devices.

Question 94

Nasopharyngeal airways should NOT be used:

A) in patients with a gag reflex.
B) if suctioning of the airway is needed.
C) if the tongue is the airway obstruction.
D) in the presence of a basilar skull fracture.

Answer 94

D) in the presence of a basilar skull fracture.

Page Ref: 396
Objective: 16.13 Given a variety of scenarios, select and insert appropriate basic and advanced airway devices.

Question 95

What is the MOST effective method of delivering bag-valve-mask ventilations?

A) Three-rescuers
B) Two-rescuers
C) Four-rescuers
D) One rescuer

Answer 95

B) Two-rescuers

Page Ref: 400
Objective: 16.11 Take immediate action to correct impaired airway, ventilation, and respiration.

Question 96

The main advantage of the supraglottic airway over an endotracheal tube is it:

A) isolates and protects the trachea from aspiration.
B) eliminates the need for a face-to-mask seal.
C) does not require direct visualization of the larynx.
D) can only be passed orally.

Answer 96

C) does not require direct visualization of the larynx.

Page Ref: 397
Objective: 16.13 Given a variety of scenarios, select and insert appropriate basic and advanced airway devices.

Question 97

A fine, bubbling sound heard on inspiration and associated with fluid in the smaller bronchioles is called:

A) rhonchi.
B) snoring.
C) gurgling.
D) crackles.

Answer 97

D) crackles.

Page Ref: 374
Objective: 16.9 Describe the pathophysiological mechanisms associated with specific abnormal breathing sounds.

Question 98

Progressively deeper, faster breathing alternating gradually with shallow, slower breathing is called:

A) Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
B) Biot’s respirations.
C) Kussmaul’s respirations.
D) agonal respirations.

Answer 98

A) Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

Page Ref: 382
Objective: 16.3 Give examples of complaints and conditions that are associated with risk of hypoxia and hypoventilation; 16.4 Relate findings from the assessment of the airway and ventilation to the patient’s need for interventions in airway, ventilation, and respiration.

Question 99

The basic technique used to remove blood, other secretions, or vomit from a patient’s airway is:

A) suctioning.
B) compression.
C) distention.
D) debridement.

Answer 99

A) suctioning.

Page Ref: 374
Objective: 16.12 Utilize manual positioning and suction (portable and fixed devices) to keep the airway clear in intubated and nonintubated patients.

Question 100

The maximum flow rate to be used with a nasal cannula is:

A) 10 liters per minute.
B) 15 liters per minute.
C) 6 liters per minute.
D) 4 liters per minute.

Answer 100

C) 6 liters per minute.

Page Ref: 407
Objective: 16.15 Administer supplemental oxygen via devices suited to the individual patient’s needs.

Question 101

What is the highest flow rate on a flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation (demand valve) device?

A) 40 liters per minute
B) 15 liters per minute
C) 30 liters per minute
D) 20 liters per minute

Answer 101

A) 40 liters per minute

Page Ref: 402
Objective: 16.14 Employ appropriate safety precautions when handling, transporting, and administering oxygen.

Question 102

A dual-lumen airway with a ventilation port for each lumen is called a(n):

A) laryngeal mask airway.
B) esophageal obturator airway.
C) pharyngo-tracheal lumen airway.
D) esophageal tracheal Combitube.

Answer 102

D) esophageal tracheal Combitube.

Page Ref: 397
Objective: 16.13 Given a variety of scenarios, select and insert appropriate basic and advanced airway devices.

Question 103

You are assessing a patient who overdosed on a medication and is unresponsive. Given this situation, what is the greatest concern regarding potential airway occlusion?

A) Collapse of the bronchi
B) Relaxation of the tongue
C) Spasm of the epiglottis
D) Swelling of the carina

Answer 103

B) Relaxation of the tongue

Page Ref: 371
Objective: 16.3 Give examples of complaints and conditions that are associated with risk of hypoxia and hypoventilation.

Question 104

You have been called to a long-term nursing care facility for a 77-year-old female patient with Parkinson’s disease. According to the nursing staff, she is more confused than normal and is to be transported to the emergency department for evaluation. Since the patient neither understands nor can answer any of your questions, which one of the following signs provides the BEST evidence that her breathing is adequate?

A) Pulse oximeter reading at 98 percent
B) Respiratory rate of 18
C) Clear breath sounds
D) Strong radial pulse

Answer 104

A) Pulse oximeter reading at 98 percent

Page Ref: 382
Objective: 16.7 Use patient monitoring technology to guide decisions regarding management of airway, ventilation, and respiration; 16.10 Identify the different presentations and needs of pediatric and geriatric patients with regard to airway, ventilation, and respiration.

Question 105

You have been called for a patient who has overdosed on drugs and alcohol. The patient is responsive to painful stimuli and is breathing shallowly at eight times per minute, but exhibits no cyanosis. Which of the following best describes his condition and the appropriate intervention?

A) Inadequate breathing; administer oxygen at 15 lpm through a nonrebreather facemask.
B) Adequate breathing; administer oxygen at 15 lpm through a nonrebreather facemask.
C) Adequate breathing; initiate positive pressure ventilation with supplemental oxygen.
D) Inadequate respirations; start positive pressure ventilation with supplemental oxygen.

Answer 105

D) Inadequate respirations; start positive pressure ventilation with supplemental oxygen.

Page Ref: 381
Objective: 16.6 Distinguish between adequate and inadequate breathing; 16.7 Use patient monitoring technology to guide decisions regarding management of airway, ventilation, and respiration.

Question 106

Why is the jaw-thrust maneuver indicated for a patient with a possible spinal injury?

A) It is less painful for the patient since he is already in pain from the injury.
B) It manipulates the head and cervical spine less than the head-tilt/chin-lift.
C) It is the AEMT’s preference as to whether to use the head-tilt/chin-lift or jaw-thrust maneuver.
D) It is a permanent airway intervention that does not require a mechanical airway if performed correctly.

Answer 106

B) It manipulates the head and cervical spine less than the head-tilt/chin-lift.

Page Ref: 387
Objective: 16.14 Employ appropriate safety precautions when handling, transporting, and administering oxygen.

Question 107

The AEMT should use the jaw-thrust maneuver to open the airway for the patient with which one of the following?

A) Cardiac arrest in bed
B) Unresponsive after falling from a porch
C) Stroke with gurgling respirations
D) Overdose with snoring respirations

Answer 107

B) Unresponsive after falling from a porch

Page Ref: 376
Objective: 16.11 Take immediate action to correct impaired airway, ventilation, and respiration; 16.12 Utilize manual positioning and suction (portable and fixed devices) to keep the airway clear in intubated and nonintubated patients.

Question 108

You have arrived next to a patient who reportedly had a seizure. Assessment reveals him to be apneic with vomitus in the airway. He has a radial pulse, and his skin is cool and diaphoretic. Which one of the following should you do immediately?

A) Check breath sounds.
B) Apply a nonrebreather mask.
C) Start artificial ventilation.
D) Suction the airway.

Answer 108

D) Suction the airway.

Page Ref: 378
Objective: 16.12 Utilize manual positioning and suction (portable and fixed devices) to keep the airway clear in intubated and nonintubated patients.

Question 109

The AEMT shows that he is correctly using the flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device when he:

A) increases pressure if the air enters the stomach instead of the lungs.
B) ventilates the patient at a rate of 20 breaths per minute.
C) stops ventilating as soon as the patient’s chest begins to rise.
D) administers each ventilation over a two- to three-second period.

Answer 109

C) stops ventilating as soon as the patient’s chest begins to rise.

Page Ref: 402
Objective: 16.15 Administer supplemental oxygen via devices suited to the individual patient’s needs; 16.17 Ventilate or assist the ventilations of patients using the ventilation equipment best suited to the individual patient’s needs.

Question 110

You are observing an EMT insert an oropharyngeal airway into the airway of a 36-year-old man who has overdosed on a street drug. Which one of the following observations indicates CORRECT technique?

A) The airway is inserted into the mouth upside-down and is then turned 180-degrees once it contacts the soft palate.
B) The airway is inserted in its normal anatomic position until the flange of the airway is 1 cm above the lips.
C) The EMT uses a tongue depressor to press the back of the tongue downward, and then inserts the oral airway upside-down.
D) The oral airway is introduced sideways into the mouth, and then rotated 180-degrees once it has reached the base of the tongue.

Answer 110

A) The airway is inserted into the mouth upside-down and is then turned 180-degrees once it contacts the soft palate.

Page Ref: 394
Objective: 16.11 Take immediate action to correct impaired airway, ventilation, and respiration; 16.13 Given a variety of scenarios, select and insert appropriate basic and advanced airway devices.

Question 111

The AEMT is appropriately sizing the nasal airway when she measures the:

A) diameter of the patient’s little finger.
B) distance from the mouth to the angle of the jaw.
C) distance from the tip of the nose to earlobe.
D) diameter of the larger nostril.

Answer 111

C) distance from the tip of the nose to earlobe.

Page Ref: 396-397
Objective: 16.11 Take immediate action to correct impaired airway, ventilation, and respiration; 16.13 Given a variety of scenarios, select and insert appropriate basic and advanced airway devices.

Question 112

You are watching an EMT prepare the ambulance for the upcoming shift. In regards to oxygen cylinders and equipment, which one of the following requires immediate intervention?

A) He ensures that the temperature in the oxygen storage room is under 100°F.
B) He lays tanks on the floor when removed from the ambulance.
C) He makes certain that all valves on the empty oxygen tanks are closed.
D) He cleans a dirty oxygen tank with a petroleum-based agent.

Answer 112

D) He cleans a dirty oxygen tank with a petroleum-based agent.

Page Ref: 407
Objective: 16.14 Employ appropriate safety precautions when handling, transporting, and administering oxygen.

Question 113

You are checking the D oxygen tank in the ambulance and note that the reading on the pressure regulator reads 1000 psi. You should recognize that the tank is:

A) overfilled.
B) almost empty.
C) half full.
D) leaking.

Answer 113

C) half full.

Page Ref: 404
Objective: 16.14 Employ appropriate safety precautions when handling, transporting, and administering oxygen.

Question 114

Assessment findings for an alert and oriented patient complaining of shortness of breath reveal an open airway and strong radial pulse, accompanied by skin that is cool and diaphoretic. The depth of respirations is adequate, and breath sounds include wheezing throughout the lungs. Vital signs are a pulse of 124, respiratory rate of 24, and blood pressure of 146/82 mmHg. The patient has a history of asthma for which he takes medications. How should you administer oxygen to this patient?

A) Nonrebreather mask
B) Venturi mask
C) Bag-valve mask
D) Nasal cannula

Answer 114

A) Nonrebreather mask

Page Ref: 407-408
Objective: 16.15 Administer supplemental oxygen via devices suited to the individual patient’s needs.

Question 115

A 21-year-old woman has overdosed on an unknown drug. She has snoring respirations and an intact gag reflex. She has weak respiratory effort and is slightly cyanotic. Given these assessment findings, your care should include:

A) oxygen via nonrebreather face mask.
B) transport in a lateral recumbent (recovery) position.
C) placement of an oropharyngeal airway.
D) insertion of a nasal airway.

Answer 115

D) insertion of a nasal airway.

Page Ref: 394
Objective: 16.13 Given a variety of scenarios, select and insert appropriate basic and advanced airway devices.

Question 116

A patient who inhaled superheated steam in an industrial fire is MOST likely to exhibit which one of the following airway noises?

A) Stridor
B) Snoring
C) Gurgling
D) Wheezing

Answer 116

A) Stridor

Page Ref: 374
Objective: 16.9 Describe the pathophysiological mechanisms associated with specific abnormal breathing sounds.

Question 117

Which of the following is controlled by the levels of CO2 and O2 in the blood and cerebrospinal fluid?

A) Ventilation
B) Respiration
C) Cardiac output
D) Inspiration

Answer 117

A) Ventilation

Page Ref: 369
Objective: 16.2 Relate the anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system to oxygenation, perfusion, and removal of carbon dioxide.

Question 118

A common cause of upper airway obstruction is poor:

A) circulation.
B) gas exchange.
C) muscle tone.
D) tidal volume.

Answer 118

C) muscle tone.

Page Ref: 373
Objective: 16.2 Relate the anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system to oxygenation, perfusion, and removal of carbon dioxide.

Question 119

In the case of an unresponsive patient with significant head trauma who is vomiting and has irregular respirations, what decision seems most prudent?

A) Begin rapid transport to the hospital immediately.
B) Immediate aggressive care should be taken to manage the airway.
C) Assessment of the patient’s oxygen levels should be the top priority.
D) A simple airway adjunct should be used.

Answer 119

B) Immediate aggressive care should be taken to manage the airway.

Page Ref: 381
Objective: 16.4 Relate findings from the assessment of the airway and ventilation to the patient’s need for interventions in airway, ventilation, and respiration.

Question 120

To perform the head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver, the patient should be placed in a ________ position.

A) prone
B) supine
C) side reclined
D) lateral

Answer 120

B) supine

Page Ref: 386
Objective: 16.4 Relate findings from the assessment of the airway and ventilation to the patient’s need for interventions in airway, ventilation, and respiration.