Ch. 15 Flashcards

1
Q

The means by which energy, often mechanical forces, is transmitted to the body, producing the potential for trauma would be defined as the:

A) field impression.
B) mechanism of injury.
C) rapid trauma exam.
D) secondary assessment.

A

B) mechanism of injury.

Page Ref: 346
Objective: 15.2 Use information from the scene size-up and initial approach to the patient to formulate a general impression of the nature and seriousness of the patient’s condition.

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2
Q

During which essential component of patient assessment does the AEMT determine the safety of the scene and formulate a general impression of the nature of the situation?

A) Primary assessment
B) Reassessment
C) Secondary assessment
D) Scene size-up

A

D) Scene size-up

Page Ref: 345
Objective: 15.2 Use information from the scene size-up and initial approach to the patient to formulate a general impression of the nature and seriousness of the patient’s condition.

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3
Q

The energy of moving objects which can produce blunt or penetrating injuries is called:

A) kinetic energy.
B) chemical energy.
C) potential energy.
D) electrical energy.

A

A) kinetic energy.

Page Ref: 346
Objective: 15.1 Define key terms introduced in this chapter.

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4
Q

Impact with an object that has high surface area and relatively low velocity (speed) will result in:

A) penetrating trauma injury.
B) kinetic energy injury.
C) blunt force injury.
D) potential energy injury.

A

C) blunt force injury.

Page Ref: 346
Objective: 15.1 Define key terms introduced in this chapter.

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5
Q

________ occurs when an object impacting the body has a small surface area.

A) Penetrating trauma
B) Kinetic energy
C) Blunt trauma
D) Potential energy

A

A) Penetrating trauma

Page Ref: 346
Objective: 15.1 Define key terms introduced in this chapter.

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6
Q

Which of the following mechanism of injuries does NOT warrant spinal motion restriction?

A) Hanging patient
B) Lightning injuries
C) Unresponsive trauma patient
D) Burn injuries

A

D) Burn injuries

Page Ref: 346
Objective: 15.3 Use the primary assessment findings to identify immediate threats to life.

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7
Q

During which essential component of patient assessment does the AEMT identify and manage any immediate threats to the patient’s life and establish priorities for treatment and transport?

A) Primary assessment
B) Reassessment
C) Secondary assessment
D) Scene size-up

A

A) Primary assessment

Page Ref: 348-349
Objective: 15.3 Use the primary assessment findings to identify immediate threats to life.

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8
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the scene size-up phase of the patient assessment?

A) Mechanism of injury
B) Patient vital signs
C) Nature of illness
D) General impression

A

B) Patient vital signs

Page Ref: 345-348
Objective: 15.2 Use information from the scene size-up and initial approach to the patient to formulate a general impression of the nature and seriousness of the patient’s condition.

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9
Q

Which of the following mnemonics represent the components of the primary assessment for all patients?

A) SAMPLE
B) OPQRST
C) ABCD
D) AVPU

A

C) ABCD

Page Ref: 349
Objective: 15.3 Use the primary assessment findings to identify immediate threats to life.

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10
Q

10) A patient who appears to be unresponsive and not breathing or breathing ineffectively should be assessed using which mnemonic memory aid?

A) ABC
B) CBA
C) ACB
D) CAB

A

D) CAB

Page Ref: 349, 353
Objective: 15.7 Determine whether a patient has adequate circulation.

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11
Q

Which of the following essential minimum equipment is NOT required for performance of the primary assessment?

A) Tourniquet
B) Pulse oximeter
C) Oxygen cylinder
D) Bandage shears

A

B) Pulse oximeter

Page Ref: 349
Objective: 15.8 Integrate the use of manual airway maneuvers, simple airway adjuncts, bag-valve-mask ventilations, supplemental oxygen, CPR, defibrillation, and bleeding control into the primary assessment.

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12
Q

A yellowing of the skin, indicating severe liver disease would be called:

A) cyanosis.
B) pallor.
C) jaundice.
D) flushed.

A

C) jaundice.

Page Ref: 349
Objective: 15.1 Define key terms introduced in this chapter.

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13
Q

The mnemonic used to determine the patient’s BEST response to stimuli would be:

A) SAMPLE.
B) OPQRST.
C) ABCD.
D) AVPU.

A

D) AVPU.

Page Ref: 350
Objective: 15.4 Accurately assess a patient’s level of responsiveness using the AVPU approach.

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14
Q

Which of the following methods of eliciting a painful response from a patient is NOT an approved stimuli method?

A) Intraorbital pressure
B) trapezius pinch
C) Supraorbital pressure
D) Sternal rub

A

A) Intraorbital pressure

Page Ref: 351
Objective: 15.4 Accurately assess a patient’s level of responsiveness using the AVPU approach.

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15
Q

Higher mental abilities, such as memory, reasoning, and problem solving would be referred to as:

A) behavioral functions.
B) mental status.
C) cognitive functions.
D) psychomotor functions.

A

C) cognitive functions.

Page Ref: 352
Objective: 15.4 Accurately assess a patient’s level of responsiveness using the AVPU approach.

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16
Q

Devices inserted through the nose or mouth into the pharynx to maintain passage for airflow would be referred to as:

A) bag-mask device.
B) airway adjuncts.
C) nonrebreather device.
D) capnography adjuncts.

A

B) airway adjuncts.

Page Ref: 349
Objective: 15.8 Integrate the use of manual airway maneuvers, simple airway adjuncts, bag-valve-mask ventilations, supplemental oxygen, CPR, defibrillation, and bleeding control into the primary assessment.

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17
Q

Which airway sound is indicative of partial airway obstruction and is relieved by manually positioning the head and jaw to move the tongue?

A) Snoring
B) Stridor
C) Wheezing
D) Gurgling

A

A) Snoring

Page Ref: 354
Objective: 15.5 Determine whether a patient’s airway is patent.

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18
Q

Which airway sound is indicative of a partial airway obstruction from a foreign body or swelling of the airway?

A) Snoring
B) Stridor
C) Wheezing
D) Gurgling

A

B) Stridor

Page Ref: 354-355
Objective: 15.5 Determine whether a patient’s airway is patent.

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19
Q

Which airway sound is indicative of fluid in the upper airway?

A) Snoring
B) Stridor
C) Wheezing
D) Gurgling

A

D) Gurgling

Page Ref: 355
Objective: 15.5 Determine whether a patient’s airway is patent.

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20
Q

The inability to maintain adequate ventilation and oxygenation is defined as:

A) respiratory failure.
B) respiratory arrest.
C) respiratory distress.
D) agonal respirations.

A

A) respiratory failure.

Page Ref: 355
Objective: 15.1 Define key terms introduced in this chapter.

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21
Q

Which of the following is NOT an accessory muscle of breathing?

A) Neck muscles
B) Diaphragm muscle
C) Intercostal muscles
D) Abdominal muscles

A

B) Diaphragm muscle

Page Ref: 356
Objective: 15.6 Differentiate between adequate and inadequate breathing.

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22
Q

The amount of air (in mL) in a normal (unforced) exhalation following a normal inspiration would be referred to as:

A) minute volume.
B) alveolar volume.
C) tidal volume.
D) residual volume.

A

C) tidal volume.

Page Ref: 356
Objective: 15.1 Define key terms introduced in this chapter.

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23
Q

The average healthy adult has a strong radial pulse at regular rate of ________ times per minute.

A) 80 to 120
B) 40 to 70
C) 50 to 110
D) 60 to 100

A

D) 60 to 100

Page Ref: 356
Objective: 15.7 Determine whether a patient has adequate circulation.

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24
Q

Poor perfusion will present with paleness which is also known as:

A) cyanosis.
B) pallor.
C) flushed.
D) jaundice.

A

B) pallor.

Page Ref: 356
Objective: 15.7 Determine whether a patient has adequate circulation.

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25
Q

The CORRECT sequence to control significant external bleeding is:

A) direct pressure then tourniquet.
B) tourniquet then splinting.
C) direct pressure then elevation.
D) tourniquet then direct pressure.

A

A) direct pressure then tourniquet.

Page Ref: 356-357
Objective: 15.7 Determine whether a patient has adequate circulation; 15.8 Integrate the use of manual airway maneuvers, simple airway adjuncts, bag-valve-mask ventilations, supplemental oxygen, CPR, defibrillation, and bleeding control into the primary assessment.

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26
Q

Which of the following is NOT a sign of presumptive death?

A) Decapitation
B) Rigor mortis
C) Witnessed arrest
D) Dependent lividity

A

C) Witnessed arrest

Page Ref: 358
Objective: 15.9 Use the primary assessment findings to reevaluate the general impression and determine the priority for patient transport; 15.10 Use primary assessment findings to make a decision about the next step in the assessment and management of the patient.

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27
Q

Which of the following is NOT a high priority finding in the primary assessment?

A) Suspected internal bleeding
B) Respiratory arrest
C) Compromised airway
D) Adequate breathing

A

D) Adequate breathing

Page Ref: 358
Objective: 15.9 Use the primary assessment findings to reevaluate the general impression and determine the priority for patient transport; 15.10 Use primary assessment findings to make a decision about the next step in the assessment and management of the patient.

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28
Q

No part of the scene size-up or primary assessment can be overlooked, but the way the steps play out depends on the situation. You must balance concern for the patient’s BEST interest along with which of the following?

A) Prescribed approach
B) Common sense
C) Flexibility
D) All of the above are required.

A

D) All of the above are required.

Page Ref: 359-362
Objective: 15.11 Describe the processes of gaining and maintaining control of the scene, teamwork, and reducing the patient’s anxiety in preparation for obtaining the history and assessing the patient.

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29
Q

What serves as a baseline from which to track improvement or deterioration in the patient’s condition?

A) The initial findings
B) The latest findings
C) The field impression
D) The general impression

A

A) The initial findings

Page Ref: 362
Objective: 15.10 Use primary assessment findings to make a decision about the next step in the assessment and management of the patient; 15.11 Describe the processes of gaining and maintaining control of the scene, teamwork, and reducing the patient’s anxiety in preparation for obtaining the history and assessing the patient.

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30
Q

An AEMT’s verbal communication and documentation of ________ and ________ findings provide information that hospital staff otherwise might NOT have.

A) mechanism of injury; general impression
B) scene size-up; primary assessment
C) nature of illness; general impression
D) scene size-up; reassessment

A

B) scene size-up; primary assessment

Page Ref: 362
Objective: 15.11 Describe the processes of gaining and maintaining control of the scene, teamwork, and reducing the patient’s anxiety in preparation for obtaining the history and assessing the patient.

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31
Q

Immediately after arriving at an unconscious patient’s side the AEMT MUST:

A) identify a detailed understanding of events leading up to the EMS call.
B) identify threats to life, and treat those first.
C) identify patient’s medical history so as to understand the physical exam findings.
D) identify all injuries before beginning treatment.

A

B) identify threats to life, and treat those first.

Page Ref: 345-352
Objective: 15.3 Use the primary assessment findings to identify immediate threats to life.

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32
Q

Basic components of a scene size-up consist of determining all the following EXCEPT:

A) possible violent threats.
B) mechanism of injury or illness.
C) initial vital signs.
D) location of patient(s).

A

C) initial vital signs.

Page Ref: 345-350
Objective: 15.2 Use information from the scene size-up and initial approach to the patient to formulate a general impression of the nature and seriousness of the patient’s condition.

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33
Q

If the cause of a patient’s unresponsiveness is not immediately correctable, you must not delay:

A) inserting an appropriate airway.
B) performing ventilation.
C) transporting the patient.
D) all of the above

A

D) all of the above

Page Ref: 352
Objective: 15.9 Use the primary assessment findings to reevaluate the general impression and determine the priority for patient transport.

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34
Q

Regardless of other primary assessment findings, some chief complaints make patients a higher priority for transport, including:

A) abdominal pain.
B) difficulty breathing/shortness of breath.
C) acute, severe headache.
D) all of the above.

A

D) all of the above.

Page Ref: 353
Objective: 15.9 Use the primary assessment findings to reevaluate the general impression and determine the priority for patient transport.

35
Q

You are on the scene of a 34-year-old man who is breathing but not awake. After determining that he does NOT respond to verbal stimuli, your next action would be to:

A) place him on a backboard and perform a secondary assessment en route to the hospital.
B) open his airway.
C) apply a painful stimuli.
D) apply manual cervical spine immobilization.

A

C) apply a painful stimuli.

Page Ref: 350
Objective: 15.4 Accurately assess a patient’s level of responsiveness using the AVPU approach.

36
Q

What does the “U” in A-V-P-U stand for?

A) Uncooperative
B) Unresponsive
C) Unconscious
D) Unaccessible

A

B) Unresponsive

Page Ref: 350
Objective: 15.4 Accurately assess a patient’s level of responsiveness using the AVPU approach.

37
Q

You are on the scene of a 33-year-old patient who opens her eyes when you speak to her and is able to mumble a response. This patient’s mental status is BEST described as:

A) lethargic.
B) responsive to tactile stimulation.
C) semi-conscious.
D) responsive to verbal stimulation.

A

D) responsive to verbal stimulation.

Page Ref: 350
Objective: 15.4 Accurately assess a patient’s level of responsiveness using the AVPU approach.

38
Q

A patient who looks at you when you walk into the scene of an EMS call, but will NOT respond to you when you speak and responds aggressively when you touch them, has an assessed mental status of:

A) A.
B) V.
C) P.
D) U.

A

A) A.

Page Ref: 350
Objective: 15.4 Accurately assess a patient’s level of responsiveness using the AVPU approach.

39
Q

You are called to the scene of a 55-year-old woman lying on the side of the road. There are no bystanders present. You determine that she is unresponsive. You should next:

A) check if the patient is unconscious.
B) open her airway with a head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver.
C) open her airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver.
D) call for additional assistance.

A

C) open her airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver.

Page Ref: 355
Objective: 15.8 Integrate the use of manual airway maneuvers, simple airway adjuncts, bag-valve-mask ventilations, supplemental oxygen, CPR, defibrillation, and bleeding control into the primary assessment.

40
Q

Harsh, high pitched sounds heard on inspiration are known as stridor and:

A) these conditions respond to drainage of fluids from the mouth.
B) are indications of full upper airway obstruction.
C) are not an indication of airway obstruction.
D) can be an indication of epiglottitis.

A

D) can be an indication of epiglottitis.

Page Ref: 354-355
Objective: 15.5 Determine whether a patient’s airway is patent; 15.10 Use primary assessment findings to make a decision about the next step in the assessment and management of the patient.

41
Q

Whistling sounds heard on exhalation is known as:

A) wheezing.
B) rhonchi.
C) snoring.
D) stridor.

A

A) wheezing.

Page Ref: 355
Objective: 15.1 Define key terms introduced in this chapter.

42
Q

Which is an appropriate method of initially opening the airway of an unconscious trauma patient?

A) Head-tilt/chin-lift
B) Nasal tracheal intubation
C) Oral tracheal intubation
D) Jaw-thrust maneuver

A

D) Jaw-thrust maneuver

Page Ref: 346
Objective: 15.8 Integrate the use of manual airway maneuvers, simple airway adjuncts, bag-valve-mask ventilations, supplemental oxygen, CPR, defibrillation, and bleeding control into the primary assessment.

43
Q

All of the following are true about the head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver EXCEPT:

A) it requires hyperextension of the neck.
B) it is recommended rather than a modified jaw-thrust maneuver for patients where a cervical spine injury is suspected.
C) it may aggravate an existing cervical-spine injury.
D) is an easier maneuver to perform than the modified jaw-thrust maneuver.

A

D) is an easier maneuver to perform than the modified jaw-thrust maneuver.

Page Ref: 346
Objective: 15.8 Integrate the use of manual airway maneuvers, simple airway adjuncts, bag-valve-mask ventilations, supplemental oxygen, CPR, defibrillation, and bleeding control into the primary assessment.

44
Q

Normal heart rate for adults should be:

A) 60-90 beats per minute.
B) 60-100 beats per minute.
C) 80-120 beats per minute.
D) 80-100 beats per minute.

A

B) 60-100 beats per minute.

Page Ref: 356
Objective: 15.7 Determine whether a patient has adequate circulation.

45
Q

Once cardiac arrest is recognized, the AEMT should immediately:

A) start external chest compressions.
B) open the airway and ventilate with 100 percent oxygen by BVM.
C) assess for mechanism of injury or illness.
D) assess the cardiac rhythm.

A

A) start external chest compressions.

Page Ref: 346
Objective: 15.8 Integrate the use of manual airway maneuvers, simple airway adjuncts, bag-valve-mask ventilations, supplemental oxygen, CPR, defibrillation, and bleeding control into the primary assessment; 15.10 Use primary assessment findings to make a decision about the next step in the assessment and management of the patient.

46
Q

The Glasgow Coma Scale is BEST used to assess:

A) blood loss severity.
B) blood oxygenation levels.
C) the level of responsiveness.
D) trauma severity.

A

C) the level of responsiveness.

Page Ref: 351
Objective: 15.10 Use primary assessment findings to make a decision about the next step in the assessment and management of the patient; 15.11 Describe the processes of gaining and maintaining control of the scene, teamwork, and reducing the patient’s anxiety in preparation for obtaining the history and assessing the patient.

47
Q

Using the Glasgow Coma Scale what score would be assigned to a patient with eyes opening to voice, verbally confused, and obeys commands?

A) 4 / 5 / 6 = 15
B) 3 / 4 / 6 = 13
C) 3 / 4 / 5 = 12
D) 3 / 5 / 6 = 14

A

B) 3 / 4 / 6 = 13

Page Ref: 351
Objective: 15.11 Describe the processes of gaining and maintaining control of the scene, teamwork, and reducing the patient’s anxiety in preparation for obtaining the history and assessing the patient.

48
Q

While assessing a patient’s respiration, only a small decrease in ________ is tolerated.

A) Respiratory pattern.
B) Respiratory rate.
C) Tidal volume.
D) Sternocleidomastoid muscle use.

A

C) Tidal volume.

Page Ref: 355-356
Objective: 15.6 Differentiate between adequate and inadequate breathing.

49
Q

What is an example of an immediate intervention that should be performed before transport?

A) if the patient is in cardiac arrest, follow through with the initial sequence of resuscitation.
B) start an albuterol treatment for an asthmatic patient.
C) start an IV and give 50 percent dextrose to a diabetic patient with hypoglycemia.
D) all of the above

A

D) all of the above

Page Ref: 359
Objective: 15.9 Use the primary assessment findings to reevaluate the general impression and determine the priority for patient transport.

50
Q

Who or what is usually the BEST source of information about the nature of your patient’s illness if the patient is alert and oriented?

A) Family members and bystanders
B) The patient
C) Visual cues
D) Diagnostic tests

A

B) The patient

Page Ref: 352
Objective: 15.3 Use the primary assessment findings to identify immediate threats to life.

51
Q

In responding to calls of two car collisions, be prepared to look for:

A) multiple patients.
B) flail chest.
C) severe lower extremity injuries.
D) altered mental status patients.

A

A) multiple patients.

Page Ref: 345-346
Objective: 15.11 Describe the processes of gaining and maintaining control of the scene, teamwork, and reducing the patient’s anxiety in preparation for obtaining the history and assessing the patient.

52
Q

The general impression gives you an indication of how to:

A) approach the primary assessment.
B) administer proper medications.
C) stabilize the cervical spine.
D) determine baseline mental status.

A

A) approach the primary assessment.

Page Ref: 347
Objective: 15.2 Use information from the scene size-up and initial approach to the patient to formulate a general impression of the nature and seriousness of the patient’s condition.

53
Q

The sound of gurgling usually indicates:

A) constricted bronchioles.
B) foreign body airway obstruction.
C) fluid in the lower airway.
D) fluid in the upper airway.

A

D) fluid in the upper airway.

Page Ref: 355
Objective: 15.5 Determine whether a patient’s airway is patent.

54
Q

To determine if a patient is breathing, an AEMT should:

A) palpate the patient’s trachea.
B) hold a mirror to the patient’s mouth and nose.
C) look, listen, and feel for air movement through the airway.
D) auscultate at the 5th and 6th intercostal space.

A

C) look, listen, and feel for air movement through the airway.

Page Ref: 354-355
Objective: 15.6 Differentiate between adequate and inadequate breathing.

55
Q

You are assessing an unresponsive adult female patient. When assessing the pulse, you should:

A) check for an ulnar pulse.
B) check the opposite wrist for a radial pulse.
C) check the carotid pulse.
D) check the popliteal pulse.

A

C) check the carotid pulse.

Page Ref: 356-357
Objective: 15.7 Determine whether a patient has adequate circulation.

56
Q

Good perfusion is indicated by skin that is:

A) moist.
B) hot.
C) warm.
D) pale.

A

C) warm.

Page Ref: 356
Objective: 15.7 Determine whether a patient has adequate circulation.

57
Q

A patient has adequate circulation for the purposes of the primary assessment, if they:

A) have good skin color.
B) has no significant ongoing bleeding.
C) are alert.
D) all of the above.

A

D) all of the above.

Page Ref: 356
Objective: 15.7 Determine whether a patient has adequate circulation.

58
Q

The next steps in the primary assessment proceed differently, based on the patient’s level of:

A) respiration
B) responsiveness.
C) circulation.
D) Glasgow Coma Scale.

A

B) responsiveness.

Page Ref: 352
Objective: 15.10 Use primary assessment findings to make a decision about the next step in the assessment and management of the patient.

59
Q

Under which circumstance should the patient be transported without delay?

A) Patient is critical, but immediate intervention may improve the situation.
B) Patient is critical and has conditions that cannot be improved in the field.
C) Patient is not critical, but he needs additional assessment and treatment.
D) Patient is deceased and is not a candidate for resuscitation.

A

B) Patient is critical and has conditions that cannot be improved in the field.

Page Ref: 358-359
Objective: 15.9 Use the primary assessment findings to reevaluate the general impression and determine the priority for patient transport.

60
Q

You arrive at the scene of a fall, where a 42-year-old woman fell backward off a step ladder while cleaning windows in her kitchen. She is lying on the floor complaining of pain to her ankle. She tells you, “If I had just gone to work today instead of using vacation time, this never would have happened!” Based on information thus far, which one of the following can you conclude?

A) She does not have any other injuries.
B) She does not require rapid transport.
C) Her pulse rate is within normal limits.
D) She is alert with an open airway.

A

D) She is alert with an open airway.

Page Ref: 352
Objective: 15.10 Use primary assessment findings to make a decision about the next step in the assessment and management of the patient.

61
Q

Which one of the following patients should be classified as unresponsive?

A) 70-year-old woman who has suffered a stroke
B) 39-year-old woman who is confused
C) 52-year-old who cannot answer your questions
D) 46-year-old man who does not respond when his fingers are pinched

A

D) 46-year-old man who does not respond when his fingers are pinched

Page Ref: 350-351
Objective: 15.4 Accurately assess a patient’s level of responsiveness using the AVPU approach.

62
Q

You are by the side of a patient who is complaining of shortness of breath and has a history of heart failure. When assessing the airway, which one of the following observations BEST indicates a patent airway?

A) She can only speak in extremely short sentences.
B) She is lethargic and confused to person, place, and time.
C) She easily tells you that she is having chest pain.
D) She is sitting in an upright position because she cannot lie flat.

A

C) She easily tells you that she is having chest pain.

Page Ref: 353
Objective: 15.5 Determine whether a patient’s airway is patent.

63
Q

On-scene you find a 91-year-old woman who fell down two steps after suddenly complaining of a severe headache. She is unresponsive with gurgling respirations. What instruction should you immediately give your partner?

A) “Please perform the head-tilt/chin-lift to open the airway.”
B) “Let us move her to the stretcher and get moving to the hospital.”
C) “Get the suction out and clear out her airway.”
D) “Check her breathing and let me know the rate.”

A

C) “Get the suction out and clear out her airway.”

Page Ref: 355
Objective: 15.8 Integrate the use of manual airway maneuvers, simple airway adjuncts, bag-valve-mask ventilations, supplemental oxygen, CPR, defibrillation, and bleeding control into the primary assessment.

64
Q

During the primary assessment, how should you BEST determine the adequacy of a patient’s circulation?

A) Check that the patient has no ongoing bleeding.
B) Check that the patient is alert.
C) Calculate the number of breaths per minute.
D) For patients with a carotid pulse, the radial pulse should be 60 to 100 times per minute.

A

D) For patients with a carotid pulse, the radial pulse should be 60 to 100 times per minute.

Page Ref: 356
Objective: 15.7 Determine whether a patient has adequate circulation.

65
Q

If a modified jaw-thrust maneuver does not open the airway, the AEMT should use:

A) an oral pharyngeal airway.
B) the head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver.
C) the chin-lift-tilt.
D) the suspended jaw-chin thrust.

A

B) the head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver.

Page Ref: 346-347
Objective: 15.6 Differentiate between adequate and inadequate breathing.

66
Q

A patient has fallen through a large plate glass window. As you approach, you note the patient to be sitting up holding his hand over a large laceration that is spurting bright red blood. Which one of the following should you do immediately?

A) Provide oxygen at 15 liters per minute.
B) Assess the airway for patency.
C) Apply direct pressure to the laceration.
D) Determine the presence and rate of the pulse.

A

C) Apply direct pressure to the laceration.

Page Ref: 356
Objective: 15.8 Integrate the use of manual airway maneuvers, simple airway adjuncts, bag-valve-mask ventilations, supplemental oxygen, CPR, defibrillation, and bleeding control into the primary assessment.

67
Q

The patient’s family states that their 16-year-old daughter has a history of asthma and has been complaining of shortness of breath for the past two days. She has been taking her metered-dose inhaler with some relief, but today they found her lethargic and struggling to breathe in bed. Your assessment reveals her to be responsive to verbal stimuli with an open airway and respirations of 36 per minute. You hear minimal bilateral wheezing. Your immediate action in caring for this patient is to:

A) position her on her side.
B) insert an oral airway.
C) confirm the presence of a pulse.
D) administer oxygen.

A

D) administer oxygen.

Page Ref: 346-347
Objective: 15.9 Use the primary assessment findings to reevaluate the general impression and determine the priority for patient transport.

68
Q

Which of the following terms is defined as “a bluish or purple discoloration”?

A) Flushed
B) Cyanosis
C) Jaundice
D) Pallor

A

B) Cyanosis

Page Ref: 340
Objective: 15.1 Define key terms introduced in this chapter.

69
Q

An immediate and obvious sign of airway obstruction is the presence of:

A) stridor.
B) coughing.
C) unresponsiveness.
D) pallor.

A

A) stridor.

Page Ref: 354-355
Objective: 15.1 Define key terms introduced in this chapter.

70
Q

Which of the following airway maneuvers can open the airway without hyperextension of the neck?

A) Modified jaw-thrust
B) Head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver
C) Chin-lift-tilt
D) Suspended jaw-chin thrust

A

A) Modified jaw-thrust

Page Ref: 346
Objective: 15.1 Define key terms introduced in this chapter.

71
Q

A patient has called 911 for abdominal pain and generalized weakness. On arrival you note that the patient’s skin is a yellow-orange color. Which one of the following diseases revealed to you during the history would BEST correlate to this patient’s skin?

A) Liver disease
B) Stroke
C) Diabetes
D) Lung cancer

A

A) Liver disease

Page Ref: 349
Objective: 15.2 Use information from the scene size-up and initial approach to the patient to formulate a general impression of the nature and seriousness of the patient’s condition.

72
Q

Scene size-up continues alongside patient assessment and management, and does not end until:

A) your full report is submitted.
B) you leave the scene.
C) you hand over the patient’s care to the next health care provider.
D) you have reached the emergency department.

A

B) you leave the scene.

Page Ref: 348
Objective: 15.11 Describe the processes of gaining and maintaining control of the scene, teamwork, and reducing the patient’s anxiety in preparation for obtaining the history and assessing the patient.

73
Q

Which of the following is a more specific method for evaluating a patient’s level of responsiveness?

A) AVPU
B) GCS
C) ABCD
D) LTD

A

B) GCS

Page Ref: 350
Objective: 15.4 Accurately assess a patient’s level of responsiveness using the AVPU approach.

74
Q

Which of the following refers to the types and amounts of energy that a patient was subjected to, resulting in injury?

A) MOI
B) WVC
C) AVPU
D) GCS

A

A) MOI

Objective: 15.2 Use information from the scene size-up and initial approach to the patient to formulate a general impression of the nature and seriousness of the patient’s condition.

75
Q

Which of the following sounds are heard primarily during inspiration?

A) Snoring
B) Stridor
C) Gurgling
D) Gagging

A

B) Stridor

Page Ref: 354
Objective: 15.1 Define key terms introduced in this chapter.

76
Q

Most patients you encounter will be alert and obviously have an open airway. An adequate airway will be evident in the patient’s general appearance through the level of responsiveness, skin color, and ease of speaking and breathing. Your primary assessment of those patients is essentially completed by the time you:

A) have obtained the patient’s history.
B) reach the patient’s side.
C) leave the scene.
D) transport the patient.

A

B) reach the patient’s side.

Page Ref: 354
Objective: 15.2 Use information from the scene size-up and initial approach to the patient to formulate a general impression of the nature and seriousness of the patient’s condition.

77
Q

A patient who is unresponsive but has adequate breathing and no indications of cervical-spine trauma should be placed on his:

A) left side.
B) right side.
C) back.
D) stomach.

A

A) left side.

Page Ref: 355
Objective: 15.5 Determine whether a patient’s airway is patent.

78
Q

At what point on the GCS scale does the patient begin to have a decreased level of consciousness?

A) 3
B) 8
C) 10
D) 14

A

D) 14

Page Ref: 352
Objective: 15.10 Use primary assessment findings to make a decision about the next step in the assessment and management of the patient.

79
Q

In order for gas exchange at the lungs to occur, the passageway between the lungs and the environment must be open. This is sometimes referred to as:

A) having a patent airway.
B) responsive breathing.
C) airway circulation.
D) airway access.

A

A) having a patent airway.

Page Ref: 353
Objective: 15.5 Determine whether a patient’s airway is patent.

80
Q

Which of the following conditions can lead to airway obstruction?

A) Dyspnea
B) Apnea
C) Epiglottitis
D) Jaundice

A

C) Epiglottitis

Page Ref: 355
Objective: 15.1 Define key terms introduced in this chapter.

81
Q

When assessing a healthy adult, which of the following is considered the average tidal volume?

A) 200 mL
B) 350 mL
C) 500 mL
D) 800 mL

A

C) 500 mL

Page Ref: 356
Objective: 15.1 Define key terms introduced in this chapter.

82
Q

When assessing circulation, which of the following would be an indication of good perfusion?

A) Skin with pallor
B) Hot skin
C) Wet skin
D) Dry skin

A

D) Dry skin

Page Ref: 356
Objective: 15.2 Use information from the scene size-up and initial approach to the patient to formulate a general impression of the nature and seriousness of the patient’s condition.

83
Q

Adding an “E” to ABCD, creating the mnemonic ABCDE, serves as a reminder to:

A) examine the patient for trauma.
B) expose patients with significant trauma to check for bleeding.
C) enter additional data on the patient related to the dramatic event.
D) extend the time of the initial assessment.

A

B) expose patients with significant trauma to check for bleeding.

Page Ref: 357
Objective: 15.3 Use the primary assessment findings to identify immediate threats to life.