Book 8 Driving Manual Flashcards

1
Q

Who developed a drivers training program and drivers training manual?

A

IST and drivers training committee

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2
Q

What does the drivers training manual consist of? (4 parts)

A

Phase 1: classroom
Phase 2: drivers training course and driving rodeo
Class 1 (A) and 2 (B)drivers license
Video tapes

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3
Q

The drivers training program will be scheduled how many times a year by the division driver training coordinators and will be conducted in 2 different phases?

A

Once a year

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4
Q

Phase 1 will consist of how many classroom modules in the driver training manual and chapters 3, 4, and 22 from the AOTM?

A

8 modules

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5
Q

How many phases of the driving rodeo?

A

2 phases (1 for heavy apparatus, 1 for RAs)

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6
Q

The division driver training courses will consist of a predetermine route that will use the same basic criteria as the driving portion of what?

A

Apparatus operators and engineers practical exam

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7
Q

Members who presently maintain a class 2 (B) drivers license and do not complete the division driver training course and rodeo with a passing score will be re-examined within how many months?

A

3 months

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8
Q

Newly appointed members will be required to successfully complete both phase 1 and phase 2 of the driver training program in order to qualify for their initial what?

A

Class 2 (B) drivers license

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9
Q

The drivers training program shall be staffed by who within the department who have experience and expertise in teaching and evaluating a persons driving performance with both heavy and light apparatus?

A

Officers

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10
Q

Who from each division on each platoon shall be assigned the responsibility of the division driver training coordinator?

A

A captain II

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11
Q

Who from each battalion, on each platoon shall be assigned the responsibility of battalion driver training instructor?

A

A captain

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12
Q

The annual drivers training program shall be staffed by who?

A

3 officers (division driver training coordinator and/or battalion driver training instructors), a task force and appropriate EMS district supervisor

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13
Q

Who shall evaluate members driving performance during the division driver training course and coordinate the driving rodeos?

A

Division driver training coordinator/battalion driver, training instructors

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14
Q

Who developed a comprehensive derived training program and drivers training manual?

A

IST in conjunction with drivers training committee

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15
Q

Motor vehicle deaths occur more frequently in what areas?

A

Rural areas

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16
Q

More than how many deaths occur in urban places?

A

1/3

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17
Q

According to the national highway traffic safety administration, safety belts are what percent range effective in preventing fatalities and injuries?

A

50 to 65 percent

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18
Q

How many lives could be saved annually if all passenger car occupants used safety belts at all times?

A

12,000 to 16,000

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19
Q

If airbags were installed in all passenger cars for driver and right front passenger positions, an estimated how many lives could be saved annually?

A

3,000 to 7,000

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20
Q

The full lifesaving potential of air bags will not be realized for how many years after the initial year of installation?

A

10 years

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21
Q

If all states raised the limits to 65 or 70 mph, there would be a what percent range increase in motor vehicle fatalities annually?

A

10 to 15%

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22
Q

If the limit were raised to 65 or 70 mph on the interstate highways, how many additional deaths would result each year from motor vehicle accidents?

A

60,000 lives

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23
Q

Who carries the sole responsibility for the safety of themselves, fellow members, and the public in guiding a 20-ton fire apparatus, an ambulance of a sedan through traffic?

A

The driver

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24
Q

Members must respond in every type of weather, traffic, and terrain condition in achieving the goal of what at the scene of an incident?

A

Safe and timely arrival

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25
Q

Who governs the legal operation of emergency vehicles in the state of California?

A

California vehicle code

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26
Q

A working knowledge of what is necessary for proper operation, as well as good knowledge of and conformance to department requirements by all apparatus drivers?

A

California vehicle code

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27
Q

What sections of the California vehicle code apply to the LAFD that allow for some exemptions enacted under emergency response?

A

21055 and 21056

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28
Q

All probationary members must possess what valid license upon appointment?

A

Class 3 (C)

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29
Q

What is the minimum license required by LAFD to drive light apparatus?

A

Class 3 (C)

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30
Q

To obtain a class 2 (B) license and drive heavy apparatus the member must first secure what?

A

DL 170

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31
Q

After securing the DL 170, approved by the bureau of fire suppression and rescue, a member must complete what DMV requirements?

A

Written exam

DL 51-A

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32
Q

Are there any exemptions while driving non-emergency operations?

A

No, member is subject to full extent of all applicable laws, including civil action

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33
Q

Which laws are fully enforceable when driving non-emergency that apply to civilian driving?

A

Speed and right-of-way parking laws

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34
Q

What 4 reasons constitute an accident?

A

Department vehicle vs 3rd party or private property
Department vehicle vs another department vehicle or department property
Department vehicle vs animal (domesticated or not)
Personal vehicle involve in accident while member is on duty under official authorization

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35
Q

What is the first and second concern when involved in an accident as a civilian?

A

First: injury or death
Second: financial loss

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36
Q

What is our first and second concern when involved in an accident while on duty?

A

First: safety of person involved
Second: City’s liabilities

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37
Q

When shall an FG-88 be submitted after an accident?

A

Within 24 hours

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38
Q

Who must be notified telephonically after an accident in the event of serious death to a 3rd party?

A

City attorney

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39
Q

Section 21055 (exemption of authorized emergency vehicles) does not relieve the driver of a vehicle from the duty to drive with what for the safety of all persons driving or protect them from arbitrary exercise of privileges granted in that section?

A

Due regard

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40
Q

The automotive internal combustion engine delivers its horsepower to the flywheel in the form of what?

A

Torque

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41
Q

What are the 4 cycles of a 2 and 4 stroke engine?

A

Intake, compression, power stroke, exhaust

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42
Q

What is the 2 main difference between gasoline and Diesel engines?

A

Fuel and air mixed together before entering cylinder of gas engine

Mixture is compressed by upstroke of piston and is ignited within the cylinder by a spark plug

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43
Q

Does air and fuel mixture enter together on a Diesel engine?

A

No, air enter alone, Diesel fuel is injected into combustion chamber near the top of stroke (compression stroke)

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44
Q

Ignition in Diesel engine is made by what?

A

Contact of fuel with heated air in the compression stroke

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45
Q

What are “glow plugs” used for?

A

To assist in starting the Diesel engine

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46
Q

Pressure developed by the compression stroke in Diesel engines can be as commonly high as what psi?

A

500 psi

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47
Q

For each pound of pressure exerted on the air in Diesel engines, the temperature will increase how many degrees?

A

20 degrees

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48
Q

For Diesel engines, at the top of the compression stroke (when pressure is highest), the temperature in the chamber will be what degree?

A

1000 degree

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49
Q

The speed and the power output of Diesel engines are controlled by the quantity of what into the cylinder?

A

Fuel injected

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50
Q

Diesel engines control the quantity of what, while gasoline engines regulate the quantity of what?

A

Diesel: fuel
Gasoline: air

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51
Q

The cycle of the gasoline engine and Diesel engine is often referred to as having what type of constant combustion?

A

Gasoline: constant volume combustion
Diesel: constant pressure combustion

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52
Q

What 3 limitations must be overcome when a gas or Diesel engine is used to power apparatus?

A

Engine must rotate to develop power
Engine rotates in 1 direction only
Engine must operate within limit of effective torque range

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53
Q

What components allow the apparatus to be utilized in a number of capacities?

A

Drive train (power train)

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54
Q

What are the different capacities that an engines drive train can accomplish?

A

Driving, pumping, aerial operation

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55
Q

What is the purpose of the drive train?

A

Transmits power of engine to the drive wheels

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56
Q

What type of vehicles are designed have great pulling power, to move at high speeds, to travel in reverse as well as forward, and to operate on rough ground as well as on smooth roads?

A

Automotive vehicles

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57
Q

What stores up energy of rotation when the instantaneous torque on the crankshaft is greater than average and released this energy when the torque is less than average?

A

Flywheel

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58
Q

The size of the what varies with number of cylinders and construction of engine?

A

Flywheel

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59
Q

The flywheel can be relatively smaller with what size cylinders due to constant overlapping of power impulses?

A

Large cylinders

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60
Q

The operator can harness the power of the engine by connecting or disconnecting the engine from the power train with what component?

A

Clutch

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61
Q

What allows for starting of the engine, the vehicle to stand motionless while engine is running, gradual engagement of engine to power train, and allowing gear ratios to be changed to meet varying road conditions?

A

Clutch

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62
Q

The clutch operates on the principal of friction between what?

A

Driving members and the driven members

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63
Q

What are the driving members of the power train?

A

Flywheel, pressure plate, and intermediate plate

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64
Q

The clutch is not allowed to slip for more than how many seconds resulting in excessive heat and damage?

A

1 1/2

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65
Q

What is the purpose of the clutch brake?

A

To stop rotation of gears in road transmission (fully depress clutch)

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66
Q

What consists of 2 stationary members, 2 fiber discs, and a revolving member?

A

Clutch brake

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67
Q

The clutch brake must only be used when?

A

Apparatus at complete stop, low engine RPM, and in neutral

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68
Q

What is a force which will rotate or twist an object such as a shaft?

A

Torque

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69
Q

What can be used to increase or decrease the amount of torque?

A

Gears

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70
Q

What happens when a small gear drives a big gear and vice versa?

A

Small drives large: increases torque

Large drives small: decreases torque

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71
Q

If a gear with 10 teeth drives a gear with 20 teeth, the driven gear will turn at 1/2 the speed of the driving gear and produce how much torque?

A

Twice the torque

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72
Q

The manual transmission consists of what shafts?

A

Input shaft, counter shaft (some have 2), and main shaft (output shaft)

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73
Q

Which shaft in the transmission brings the power into it from the clutch assembly and drives the counter shaft?

A

Input shaft

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74
Q

Which shaft has several gears attached to it and are in constant mesh with the gears that ride on the main shaft?

A

Counter shaft

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75
Q

Gear ratios are selected by shifting mechanism, as it locks 1 gear at a time to which shaft?

A

Main shaft

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76
Q

The automatic transmission is connected to the engine by what?

A

Fluid shaft or torque converter

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77
Q

Is there a clutch or clutch brake on automatic transmissions?

A

No

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78
Q

It is important that the operator of heavy apparatus with an automatic transmission properly control the apparatus by using proper what?

A

Shifting techniques

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79
Q

What are the 2 functions of a torque converter?

A

Acts as fluid coupling, connects engine power through oil to the transmission gear train

Multiplied torque or twisting effort from engine when additional performance is desired

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80
Q

What are the 3 basic elements of a torque converter?

A

Pump (driving member), turbine (driven or output member), and stator (reaction member)

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81
Q

Which part of the torque converter is connected to the engine and turns at engine speed?

A

Converter pump

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82
Q

What on the torque converter acts a centrifugal pump, picking up oil at its center and discharging this oil at its rim between the blades?

A

Converter pump

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83
Q

Oil strikes the turbine blades and imparts force to the what causing it to turn?

A

Turbine

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84
Q

What is mounted between pump and turbine and is mounted on a one way or roller clutch which allows it to rotate clockwise but not counter clockwise?

A

Stator

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85
Q

The shape of the converter pump shells and blades cause the oil to leave the pump spinning in what type of direction toward the blades of the turbine?

A

Clockwise

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86
Q

The purpose of the stator is to redirect the what returning from the turbine and change its direction of rotation back to that of the pump?

A

Oil

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87
Q

Energy of the oil is used to assist the engine in turning the pump which increases the force of the oil driving the turbine resulting in what?

A

Multiplying the torque or twisting force

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88
Q

With the engine operating at full throttle, transmission in gear, and the vehicle standing still, the converter is capable of multiplying the engine torque by approximately what ratio?

A

2.2:1

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89
Q

Due to fluid slippage between the pump and turbine, a ratio of what can never be achieved unless we lock up 2 members (turbine-pump)?

A

1:1

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90
Q

What consists of a single clutch plate, back plate and piston located between the converter turbine assembly and the transmission flywheel assembly (or converter drive housing)?

A

Lockup clutch

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91
Q

Lock up occurs only in what gears?

A

Forward gears but not reverse

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92
Q

What gear train is made up of 4 constant mesh, straight spur gear planetary sets?

A

Planetary gear

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93
Q

By engagement of the clutches in various combinations, the planetary sets act singly or together to provide what?

A

(4) forward speeds and (1) reverse

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94
Q

What directs the flow of torque through transmission in accordance with gear selected?

A

Clutches

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95
Q

The engine cannot be started by towing or pushing, before towing or pushing beyond a few blocks, what must be disconnected?

A

The driveline

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96
Q

What is a flexible coupling between 2 shafts that permits one shaft to drive another shaft at an angle to it and provides flexibility in the power train as the vehicle travels over uneven surfaces?

A

Universal joints

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97
Q

What consists of a male and a female spline (fixed to u-joint), a grease seal and lubrication fitting that provides the necessary telescopic action in the driveline?

A

Slip joint

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98
Q

What serves the converter and transmission?

A

A single, pressurized hydraulic system

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99
Q

Oil for the hydraulic operations, lubrication and cooling comes from the what and is supplied by the same pump?

A

Sump

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100
Q

What is also known as a drive shaft or driveline and carried the torque from the transmission to the rear end?

A

Propelled shaft

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101
Q

A common final drive ratio for LAFD apparatus is what?

A

4.11:1, 4 revolutions of the propeller shaft to one revolution of the rear wheels

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102
Q

What is the unit that allows the axles to turn at different speeds from each other while still pulling the apparatus?

A

The differential

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103
Q

As a vehicle is driven around a curve, the outer wheels must travel at what rate in relation to the inner wheels?

A

Faster

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104
Q

What type of gears will cause one wheel to rotate twice as fast while the other is stopped?

A

Spider pinion gears

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105
Q

A what axle is one that supports part of the weight of the vehicle and also drives the wheels connected to it?

A

A live axle

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106
Q

A what axle is one that carries part of the weight of the vehicle but does not drive the wheels?

A

Dead axle

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107
Q

Most live axles use what type of drive containing a open propeller shaft, 2 u-joints and a slip joint?

A

Hotchkiss type drive

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108
Q

Although transmissions used by the LAFD are true automatic transmission, they will give much better performance, smoother operation, and more longevity if they are operated as if they were a what transmission?

A

“Clutchless”

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109
Q

Passenger vehicles such as emergency sedans, plug buggies which are related below 3/4 ton, have what type of drive axles, which means the wheels are attached directly to the end of the axles and the stress caused by turning, skidding, and shock are applied directly to the axle itself?

A

Semi-floating

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110
Q

Heavy apparatus, ambulances, and pick up trucks are rated at above 3/4 ton and have what type of drive axle, which means the wheels are not attached directly to end of axles but are attached to a hub which rides on the axle housing: turning, skidding and shock are applied directly to axle housing designed to carry heavy loads?

A

Full floating drive axles

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5
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111
Q

To shift gears properly, you must be able to coordinate the operation of what 3 things while maintaining proper road speed and engine RPM?

A

Accelerator, clutch, and gear shift

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112
Q

The what between gears refers to the difference between ratios of gears in the transmission, expressed in engine RPM?

A

The “split”

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113
Q

Never try to downshift to a lower gear when the apparatus is traveling faster than the what can move the apparatus in that lower gear?

A

Engine

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114
Q

For shifting gear contemplation, going upgrade the momentum decreases, downgrade the momentum increases and on level roadway, the momentum does what?

A

Changes very little

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115
Q

How much the road speed will change during the shift depends on what?

A

Momentum at start of shift, steepness of grade, and length of time it takes to make the shift

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116
Q

Engines take how many times longer to slow down from the proper max RPM to idling speed than it does to raise from idle speed to proper max RPM?

A

2 to 3 times

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117
Q

What term refers to a heavy truck requiring the clutch to be depressed 2 times during each gear shift?

A

“Double clutching”

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118
Q

What are the 2 uses of the clutch?

A

Must be slipped to get apparatus rolling from 0 MPH to the speed at engine is idling RPM

Disconnect the engine from drive train while shifting gears

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119
Q

If you are coming to a full stop, do not depress what until the engine is slowed down to idle speed and is on the verge of lugging from brake pressure?

A

Clutch

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120
Q

Take full advantage of engine compression without undue wear to what?

A

Engine, clutch, or running gear

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121
Q

For automatic transmission, the driver should manually shift up through gears and downshift when decelerating to make use of engine brake effect and any what such as jake brake or retarder?

A

Supplemental braking systems

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122
Q

Automatic transmissions used by the LAFD are adjusted for optimum what?

A

Full throttle shifts

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123
Q

For automatic transmissions, or generally smoothed out the down shift if the throttle is depressed or what slightly, before move the gear selector into the new range?

A

“Advanced”

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124
Q

Under no circumstances shall you allow the apparatus to coast in what position?

A

Neutral

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125
Q

When coasting in neural or being towed with the drive shaft disconnected, the what becomes the driving force causing the planetary gears in the transmission to overdrive?

A

The rear wheels

126
Q

Drivers should select a lower gear when descending, remain in that gear at all times and use a combination of what to prevent over speeding of the engine?

A

Brakes and gears

127
Q

When starting on sever grade, the engine should be accelerated until the converter is in what condition before the foot brake is released to eliminate any rollback?

A

Stall condition

128
Q

For safety to your apparatus you shall be completely what before changing gear ranges (forward to reverse and vice versa)?

A

Stopped

129
Q

Be conscious of what when downshifting?

A

Road and engine speed

130
Q

When cruising, choose a gear that will cruise the engine how many RPMs lower than the 90% speed?

A

200 to 300 RPM

131
Q

By cruising 200 to 300 RPM lower than the 90% speed it will do what?

A

Reduce engine wear
Reduce power loss by fan, driveline and accessories
Noise
Fuel consumption

132
Q

Daily maintenance pre checks on all apparatus shall be accomplished when?

A

At the beginning of each shift or at any time a change of relief occurs

133
Q

Preventative maintenance check includes hands on checks and basic maintenance procedures to insure what use of all department apparatus?

A

Proper, safe and efficient use

134
Q

Who is ultimately responsible for the condition of the apparatus?

A

Station commander, but each member shares equally in the responsibility of maintaining department apparatus

135
Q

Preventative maintenance schedules if followed, will greatly increase what of department apparatus?

A

Performance and life

136
Q

For daily pre checks, you may need assistance to check what lights?

A

Brake lights and back up lights

137
Q

On aerial ladders, for daily pre checks, which horns must you check?

A

Cab and tiller horns

138
Q

Fuel level should be kept at full level whenever possible because of what?

A

Condensation of moisture inside a partially filled fuel tank

139
Q

Pre heaters on apparatus maintain the engine coolant temperature above what degree?

A

120 degrees

140
Q

AC units should be operated once a week for how many minutes?

A

10 minutes

141
Q

For transmission fluid checks, if color is dark from usual red color and/or what type of odor may indicate a need for change?

A

Strong burnt odor

142
Q

When checking slack adjusters, the lever should never go beyond what degree?

A

90 degrees

143
Q

For steer wheel movement, move the steering wheel back and forth how many inches?

A

6 to 8 inches (40 to 60 rapid movements in logbook)

144
Q

Tread depth should no be less than how many inches or less?

A

1/8”

145
Q

Air compressor air filter unit should be cleaned how often?

A

Every 2 months ore more often if used in dust or dirt

146
Q

Improper use or excessive braking will cause the brakes to heat up, what is one of the worst consequences of heat due to excessive braking?

A

“Brake fade”

147
Q

Disc brake systems actually become what as they get hot and expand, making better contact with pads?

A

More efficient

148
Q

Due to brake lag, depending on the vehicle type, it will take between how many seconds for the air to reach the brakes after you press the foot pedal?

A

1/4 to 1 second

149
Q

What is affected by over or under inflated tires?

A

Steering, braking and cornering

150
Q

Tire pressure should be check when the tires are what temperature and maintained at recommended pressures?

A

Cold

151
Q

Tread patterns are designed to remove what from under the ribs?

A

Foreign matter (water, etc)

152
Q

The use of what mirrors greatly reduces the blind area on most apparatus?

A

Convex mirrors

153
Q

What 3 things in the apparatus can create blind spots?

A

Mirror placement (mirror itself creates blind spots at intersections), passenger placement, light glare (interior and exterior)

154
Q

The rear wheels will cut a what arc or path than the front wheels?

A

Tighter

155
Q

Average weight of an engine (triple) is how many tons?

A

16 tons (weight increased due to 500 gallon tanks)

156
Q

Average weight of a ladder truck is how many tons?

A

24 tons

157
Q

Average height of a triple?

A

10 feet

158
Q

Average height of a ladder truck?

A

10 feet, 6 inches

159
Q

Average width of newer trucks and triples?

A

9 feet, 9 inches

160
Q

Average length of a triple?

A

27 feet

161
Q

Average length of a truck?

A

52 feet

162
Q

What are the negatives of an enclosed cab?

A
Reduced overhead visibility
Increased blind spots
Reduction of member communication
Reduced nighttime visibility
Captain unable to stand up to check for obstructions
Lowered perception of actual road speed
163
Q

Modern fire apparatus are now equipped with more powerful engines of approximately what horsepower?

A

445

164
Q

Modern traffic situations dictate that fire department apparatus drivers possess what in order to drive safely and professionally?

A

Driving skill and proper attitude

Proper attitude is the most important component

165
Q

Safe driving can be broken down into what 3 basic categories?

A

Safe vehicle
Good physical condition of driver
Good attitude

166
Q

Good attitude makes up how much percent of safe driving practices?

A

60%

167
Q

Studies show that what percent of all vehicles accidents, emotional disturbance is a contributing cause?

A

80% to 90%

168
Q

What are the 5 factors that make a person a poor driver?

A
Individual differences 
Egotist
Show off
Over emotional
Focus fixation
169
Q

What are the 6 characteristics of a top-notch driver?

A
Acceptance of responsibility
Good judgement
Controlled attention
Foresight 
Alertness
Other factors (mechanical, limits of vehicle, features of roads and streets, other drivers, weather conditions, make up of driver)
170
Q

What is more important, the mental make up of a driver or their skill?

A

Mental make up

171
Q

Older drivers must use extra caution when driving during what due to reduced visibility?

A

Driving at night or during inclement weather

172
Q

The ability to see details clearly is know as?

A

Visual acuity

173
Q

The time from sighting a stimulation to the time that you recognize the situation is know as what?

A

Perception time

174
Q

Perception time is approximately how many seconds?

A

3/4 of a second

175
Q

The time a situation arises to the time the driver identifies the hazard, predicts its influence, decides on an action, and begins executing the action is know as?

A

Reaction time

176
Q

For the alert driver, reaction time

Is about how many seconds?

A

3/4 of a second

177
Q

What are the 5 components to the smith system?

A
Aim high in steering
Get the “big” picture
Keep your eyes moving
Leave yourself an “out”
Make sure they see you
178
Q

A series of what turns is usually safer and easier than a series of what turns?

A

Right turns over left turns

179
Q

What 3 factors is stopping distances determined by?

A

Vehicle braking, perception time, and reaction time

180
Q

A 30,000 pound fire apparatus traveling at 45 MPH produces a force of how many pounds?

A

61,000 pounds

181
Q

Members driving heavy apparatus should be concerned about emergency stops of apparatus traveling over how many MPH?

A

30 MPH

182
Q

What 2 factors are considered when determining adequate spacing between you and the vehicle in front of you?

A

Reaction time and stopping time

183
Q

For spacing and safe distances, how many car lengths should you leave between should and the vehicle in front of you for a heavy and light apparatus for every 10 MPH?

A

3 for heavy apparatus

2 for light apparatus

184
Q

A system for determine safe following distances is the what rule?

A

3 second rule

185
Q

What is a common maneuver, yet one of the most dangerous?

A

Passing

186
Q

What 3 factors affect the ability of a driver to pass safely?

A

Visibility, road information, vehicle characteristics

187
Q

Tires on a fire apparatus are designed for what as opposed to high speed driving capabilities?

A

Load carrying capability

188
Q

How often should you check your mirrors?

A

Every 5 seconds

189
Q

What percentage of accidents occur at night?

A

30%

190
Q

What percentage of accidents at night result in fatalities?

A

47%

191
Q

When driving at night avoid looking at oncoming traffic headlights, you should be looking at the white line painted along the side of most roads often called what?

A

Fog line

192
Q

High beams must be dimmed at least how many feet ahead of an approaching vehicles?

A

500 feet

193
Q

High beams must be dimmed at least how many feet behind a vehicle you are following?

A

300 feet

194
Q

Almost 1/3 of all accidents occur between what hours (twilight hours)?

A

4 pm to 8 pm

195
Q

How often do twighlight conditions occur a day?

A

Twice a day (sunrise and sunset)

196
Q

During fog conditions, an object at 15 yards will appear to be how many yards away?

A

30 yards

197
Q

Affects do what in the fog as the distance increases?

A

Increases

198
Q

When the eyes have nothing to look at, they tend to focus at a very short distance which is usually how many feet?

A

10 feet

199
Q

It takes how much longer to stop on wet streets as it does to stop on dry streets?

A

Twice as long

200
Q

When rain first begins, accidents increase dramatically during the first how many hours?

A

1/2 hour

201
Q

Extremely slick conditions usually last for approximately how long after the rain begins?

A

30 to 45 minutes (1/2 to 3/4 of an hour)

202
Q

If the tires on only one side of the vehicle enter deep water, the vehicle will be pulled in which direction?

A

Towards the water

203
Q

Backing accidents account for what percent of all single vehicle collisions?

A

85%

204
Q

An important technique of backing is the use of what?

A

Mirrors

205
Q

As a driver your best aid in backing heavy apparatus is who?

A

Safety spotter

206
Q

Who shall periodically review their procedure for rehousing apparatus from a safety standpoint and make certain all members understand and follow department approved procedures?

A

Station commanders

207
Q

Hazard zone is defined as the area how many feet behind the apparatus and how many feet to each side of the apparatus while backing?

A

15 feet behind, 3 feet to each side

208
Q

In adherence to California vehicle code, section 2801 and department policy, what shall be worn at all times when directing traffic?

A

A helmet

209
Q

If at night, use department approved traffic director flashlights, the motion of the flashlight should be what?

A

Up and down, not side to side

210
Q

Statistics point of that how many out of 4 drivers will be involved in a major vehicle accident sometime in their lives?

A

1 in 4

211
Q

What are 3 things a driver can do to avoid a collision?

A

Brake, accelerate, steer out of the way

212
Q

When steering to avoid a collision, drivers should be looking where?

A

At their intended path and the far outside of that path

213
Q

While driving, your hands should be properly placed at what positions on the steering wheel to avoid collision?

A

9 and 3

214
Q

In case of a blow out you should grasp the wheel firmly and attempt to steer only enough to maintain what position?

A

Your lane position

215
Q

The proper reaction to a blowout is to ease off of the what slowly?

A

Accelerator

216
Q

Steering failure can occur due to what 2 things?

A

Engine stall

Hydraulic fluid loss in power steering system

217
Q

The best action for most vehicles with stuck accelerators is to shift the transmission into what and get the vehicle off the road and stopped as quickly as possible?

A

Neutral

218
Q

As you are responding, never drive what or faster than you can safely operate the vehicle?

A

“Over your head”

219
Q

If you double your speed, perception-reaction distance is doubled and braking distance will be how many times greater?

A

4 times

220
Q

Some of our fire department apparatus weigh in excess of how many tons?

A

20 tons

221
Q

There is no substitute for what of your first in district?

A

Experience and knowledge

222
Q

When responding, the emergency vehicle should be driven as close to what as possible?

A

The center of the roadway as possible

223
Q

The number 1 rule of emergency driving is to what at all times?

A

Leave yourself an out

224
Q

Department policy states that the what in a convoy shall stop at all red lights and stop signs?

A

First apparatus

225
Q

You can anticipate a signal change when what flashed red?

A

“Walk don’t walk” pedestrian sign

226
Q

When responding as a taskforce, visibility of your apparatus can be increased if a what is used?

A

“Off set formation”

227
Q

The “off set formation” also reduces the danger of apparatus colliding with one another in what situation?

A

“Sudden stop”

228
Q

Tall buildings, hills, winding roads, blind intersections or heavy brush will reduce audibility by as much as what?

A

2/3

229
Q

Historically most department accidents involving emergency apparatus occurs in what?

A

Intersections

230
Q

To increase siren audibility to assist clearing traffic, use the what to keep the siren at its maximum volume range?

A

Full fluctuating high-low tones

231
Q

When driving the apparatus on a one-way street drive the apparatus as close to what side as possible?

A

Left side

232
Q

When following other vehicles on wet roadways, keep at least how many car lengths distance for every 10 mph of speed between your apparatus and vehicles in front of you?

A

2 vehicle lengths

233
Q

A wet concrete roadway will require approximately what percentage range more stopping distance than dry concrete roads?

A

35% to 40%

234
Q

Being s good driver on any roadways is a matter of what?

A

Good attitude and judgement

235
Q

What are the 3 basic guidelines for spotting an apparatus at an incident?

A

Is my crew safe?
Is the apparatus safe?
Can I operate effectively?

236
Q

Proper spotting of apparatus begins with what?

A

Receipt of alarm

237
Q

Who both share the responsibility for the positioning of the apparatus at the scene of an emergency?

A

Captain and apparatus driver

238
Q

What are 5 important factors in determining the proper placement of apparatus that must be communicated by the captain to the driver?

A
Type of incident
Location of fire exposures
Type of occupancy or contents
Life hazards
Directions or assignments given by MFC or IC
239
Q

An aerial ladder truck is roughly how much longer than a triple?

A

Twice the length

240
Q

Pre 33 buildings can collapse without warning and fall a horizontal distance of what than the vertical height of the original structure?

A

Equal to or greater

241
Q

With fire showing on a high rise, park rigs well back and away from the fire side of the building if possible a minimum of how many feet?

A

200 feet

242
Q

Never partially block a lane when spotting an apparatus, you should what?

A

Be all the way in the lane or all the way out of the lane

243
Q

Which apparatus is often the best for blocking the street to protect personnel?

A

Aerial ladder trucks

244
Q

What situations are most often encountered during non emergency operations when spotting?

A

Fire prevention, shopping, drills, move ups

245
Q

What 3 types of aerial ladder trucks are there?

A

Rear mount aerials and tractor drawn aerials (LAFD)

246
Q

What are the 5 reasons the LAFD prefers tractor drawn aerial ladder trucks?

A

Maneuverable on narrow streets
Greater stability in turns at higher speeds
Greater stability during aerial operations can be gained by jackknifing the truck
Tillerman assists AO in spotting the truck and observing for overhead obstructions
Tillerman increases safety during backing operations

247
Q

The tillerman must turn the wheels in what direction that the tractor turns?

A

Opposite direction

248
Q

The tillerman must keep there eyes how far ahead of the truck to help avoid being taken by surprise and reacting late to a decision made by the AO?

A

1/2 block

249
Q

Do not preposition the trailer for a turn without direct what with the AO?

A

Verbal communication

250
Q

What does oversteering mean for a tillerman?

A

Allowing the trailer to move well past an “in-line” position after a turn is completed

251
Q

What does overtillering mean?

A

When the tillerman turns the steering wheel unnecessarily

252
Q

An AO will drive the truck in a manner that limits the need for the tillerman to what?

A

Steer

253
Q

What is overhang?

A

The portion of the trailer that extends from the center of the tiller wheels to the rear of the trailer

254
Q

How much is the overhand on a 1962 seagrave?

A

15 feet

255
Q

How much is the overhang on a 1988 seagrave?

A

12 feet

256
Q

How far does the tillerman sit from the rear on a 1962 seagrave?

A

9 feet

257
Q

Where are the forward blind spots for the tillerman on an aerial ladder truck?

A

Area next to and before the tiller wheels

258
Q

Where are the rear blind spots for a tillerman on an aerial ladder truck?

A

Area directly behind tillerman that cannot be seen in rear mirrors

259
Q

How many signals will the AO give to the tillerman for backing?

A

3 beeps

260
Q

When backing, the tillerman shall place their hands on the bottom steering wheel how?

A

Palms up

261
Q

Which type of method is not recommended for steering the tiller wheels as it can cause confusion to inexperience member, they should “feed” the steering wheel?

A

Hand over hand

262
Q

If the trailer begins to move in the direction other than what is intended and there is any doubt to make corrections, immediately signal the AO to stop with how many beeps?

A

1 beep

263
Q

What should not be used in lieu of the tiller signal button?

A

800 mhz headsets

264
Q

Always check the direction of what before climbing into the bucket as a tillerman?

A

Directions of tiller wheels

265
Q

For the old style tiller “flip tiller bucket”, for security make sure the bucket locks are locked and that what is secured as additional safety?

A

Ladder strap

266
Q

How many beeps to signal to start the truck?

A

1 beep

267
Q

For tillering, place both hands where on the steering wheel as recommended?

A

9 and 3

268
Q

Training a new tillerman is the shared responsibility of who?

A

Student and instructor

269
Q

The trainee shall sit as an observer through a minimum of how many non emergency tillering sessions?

A

3

270
Q

Who allows the member to proceed beyond the 3 sessions after they feel the member has progressed sufficiently?

A

Captain

271
Q

The trainee will be observed by an instructor while driving non emergency until who feels comfortable with their progress?

A

Captain, AO and instructor

272
Q

For pre trip, steering wheel should not exceed how many degrees or about 2 inches of play on a 20” steering wheel?

A

10 degrees

273
Q

The air compressor must not cut in lower than what psi according to module 10?

A

85 psi

274
Q

The governor will cut out at a max psi of 130 psi, normal acceptance cut out range is what psi according to module 10?

A

110 to 120 psi

275
Q

A fully charged system on an apparatus for air pressure according to module 10 is what?

A

125 psi

276
Q

For air leakage test, according to module 10, the psi must not drop below what when holding the brake pedal for a minute?

A

3 psi for a single vehicle

4 psi for a combination vehicle

277
Q

According to module 10, the low pressure warning device must activate between what psi range?

A

55-75

278
Q

For slack adjusters, the push rod and adjuster arm should be a little over what degree when the brakes are released and less than this when applied?

A

90 degrees

279
Q

The department routinely experiences accidents which occur during when?

A

Rehousing the apparatus

280
Q

The light vehicle repair section, reports that some light vehicles have required pad replacement in front brakes after only how many miles?

A

5000 miles

281
Q

On most vehicles, vacuum boost begins operation when how many pounds of pressure is applied to the actuating shaft of the booster?

A

10 to 15 pounds

282
Q

What is a stale green light?

A

A light that has been green long enough to be ready to pop yellow and then quickly red

283
Q

Pedestrians walking at 2.5 to 3.5 mph take how many times longer to clear the intersection as cars going 25 to 35 mph?

A

10 times

284
Q

If the driver has not regained control of the car before it sounds how many degrees from center, the driver probably will be unable to keep the vehicle from spinning completely around?

A

15 to 25 degrees

285
Q

At what mph do your front tires lose all contact with the road when hydroplaning?

A

55 mph

286
Q

Hydroplaning May begin when you can hear your wheels splashing in how many inches of water or more?

A

1/5

287
Q

According to book 8, the springs apply brakes automatically when the brake air pressure is reduced to approximately what psi or less?

A

60 psi

288
Q

Fuel conservation of at least what percent is possible through proper vehicle operation, use, maintenance and trip planning?

A

10%

289
Q

What percentage improvement in fuel economy could be achieved through a combination of training, speed control, and rewards for utilizing proper driving habits?

A

17.4%

290
Q

What technique is the most important factor in fuel conservation?

A

Proper driving

291
Q

Most automobiles get about what percent better mileage on the highway at 50 mph than 65 mph?

A

18%

292
Q

The average vehicle on the road today gets its best fuel economy at approximately what mph?

A

45 mph

293
Q

Increasing speed from 40 to 70 mph, fuel economy dropped by what percent?

A

25%

294
Q

Avoid prolonged idling, if the delay is more than how long, turn off the engine?

A

1 minute

295
Q

The recommended time for warming up an engine is how long?

A

30 seconds to a minute

296
Q

“Jack rabbit” starts and fast “get always” can burn over what percent more gasoline than normal acceleration?

A

50%

297
Q

What are the greatest wastes in city driving?

A

Needless braking and re-acceleration

298
Q

On the highway, varying speed of 5 mph can reduce economy by as much as what percent?

A

10%

299
Q

Proper what is a side and easy way to improve fuel mileage?

A

Maintenance

300
Q

Tire pressure should be checked when the tires are what temperature?

A

Cold

301
Q

For every 2 psi under recommended tire pressure, you lose about how many percent in fuel economy?

A

1%

302
Q

An out-of-tune engine can drop mileage by a minimum of what percent?

A

10%

303
Q

Keeping track of what is an excellent way of monitoring vehicle condition?

A

Fuel consumption

304
Q

The 5 step smith system is designed so that if used by drivers they should be able to drive how many years without having to skid tires, or swerve to avoid an accident?

A

5-10 years (50,000 miles)

305
Q

When aiming high in steering, look at least how many seconds ahead and down the road for immediate path of travel?

A

5 seconds

306
Q

According to the smith system, you should look ahead at your intended path of travel of how many seconds?

A

10 plus

307
Q

After the rain tapers off after the first 1/2 hour to 3/4 hour rain, wet roads are only how many times slicker than if the road were dry?

A

Twice as slick

308
Q

If there is problem with water in the brake shoes, it can quickly be cleared by driving how many blocks with the left foot slightly depressing the brake pedal?

A

A block or 2

309
Q

Some apparatus are equipped with convex mirrors to widen the field of vision, convex mirrors are also known as “what”?

A

“Fish eyes”

310
Q

For backing, a safety officer is normally the company commander and the safety spotter is positioned opposite the safety officer, other available members shall perform the duties of what?

A

Traffic control

311
Q

When driving in the rain, fog, or other inclement weather, the key to a safe response is to what according the severity of the weather condition?

A

Slow down

312
Q

While backing, How far will the apparatus travel after a hazards has been noticed?

A

5 ft (rob didn’t know this one)