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RGC A/O > Book 37 Hazmat > Flashcards

Book 37 Hazmat Flashcards

1
Q

What is any substance or material capable of posing an unreasonable risk to health, safety and property?

A

Hazardous material

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2
Q

What factors/characteristics determine if a material is to be considered hazardous?

A

Quantity, concentration, and physical or chemical characteristics

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3
Q

A hazardous material becomes a what when it can no longer be used for the purpose it was originally intended?

A

Hazardous waste

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4
Q

Hazardous material and waste is regulated at the federal level and managed by what?

A

Environment protection agency (EPA)

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5
Q

Hazardous material and waste regulated in California is established by what?

A

California code of regulations (CCR)

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6
Q

The what (for LA) adopts portions of the CCR and, in some cases provided more restrictive guidelines for hazardous materials regulations?

A

Los Angeles municipal code (LAMC)

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7
Q

The LAFDs hazmat responsibilities are divided between what 2 bureaus?

A

Bureau of emergency services

Bureau of fire prevention and public safety

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8
Q

Who is the primary state oversight agency for most hazardous materials programs mandated by the CCR in California?

A

CalEPA

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9
Q

CalEPA managed the unified program (UP) that consolidates, coordinates, and makes consistent the administrative requirements, permits, inspections, enforcement activities and fees for how many programs?

A

6 programs

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10
Q

The city of Los Angeles’ primary emergency response plan is the what?

A

City of LA emergency operations master plan and procedures

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11
Q

LAFDs what and policy and procedures manuals (supplemented by training bulletins) delineate the responsibilities of department personnel in the prevention, pre planning and response to hazardous materials incidents?

A

Hazardous materials operational plan (HMOP)

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12
Q

The development of what allows emergency response personnel the opportunity to conduct area-wide hazard analysis, identify and assess available resources, establish the roles of various agencies, and develop standard operating procedures and action plans?

A

Area plan

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13
Q

At the operational level, a first responder to hazardous materials (FRO) responds to an incident in what type of fashion?

A

Defensive

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14
Q

Who responds to releases of potential releases for the purpose of stopping the release of hazmat and assume a more aggressive role than first responders?

A

Hazmat technicians

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15
Q

How many hours of instruction are required for certification as a hazardous materials technician within the state of California?

A

160 hours

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16
Q

To be a hazmat specialist, hazmat technicians must complete an additional how many hours of instruction?

A

80 hours

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17
Q

29 CFR 1910.120 states that all employees who are exposed to hazardous substances, health hazards or safety hazards in relation to hazardous sites shall receive how many hours of refresher training annually?

A

8 hours

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18
Q

Who provides the regulatory oversight, inspection and data management functions of the unified program which is responsible for implementing regulations governing hazmat storage and inventory through state and local regulations?

A

Bureau of fire prevention and public safety’s technical section

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19
Q

What are the 2 unified program functions performed by the technical section units?

A

Environmental unit

Hazmat programs unit

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20
Q

The implementation of unified program is a data-intensive effort with more than how many data elements required by state law?

A

400

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21
Q

What forms are provided to fire stations by the data management unit when businesses update inventories?

A

BP-1 (business information)

BP-8 (material inventory)

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22
Q

What is available during normal working hours by calling the hazmat programs unit which consists of 2 chemical engineers and 1 industrial hygienist?

A

Technical assistance

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23
Q

The LAFDs overall responsibility at hazmat incidents is described in what 3 main areas?

A

Assess incident
Notify proper agencies
Minimize effect of hazardous condition on people, environment and property

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24
Q

The first responder who recognizes hazmat or weapons of mass destruction shall establish an initial what surrounding the incident?

A

Isolation zone

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25
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to secure the scene, identify material, quantity of material, threat of contamination, exposures and contaminated individuals to prevent spread of contaminants?

A

IC

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26
Q

What companies are responsible for performing the tactical operations at a hazardous materials incident at the direction of the IC?

A

Hazmat task forces

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27
Q

The management of a what incident is legally a federal, state, county/city and private industry partnership?

A

Hazardous materials

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28
Q

Who’s main responsibility centers on assessing the hazard, notifying the proper agency, and providing necessary interim measures to minimize the impact of a hazardous condition on people and the environment?

A

Fire department

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29
Q

What are the 7 strategy elements for mitigating a hazmat?

A 
Assess the incident
Identify substance/product
Isolate
Rescue
Evacuate
Contain/control
Identify responsible parties
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30
Q

What does a hazmat assignment response consist of?

A 
1 BC
1 hazmat TF
1 EMS captain 
1 ALS RA
1 ALS engine
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31
Q

Who is required by state and federal regulations and is responsible for monitoring and assessing hazardous and unsafe situations and developing measures to ensure personnel safety?

A

Safety officer

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32
Q

Who reports to the incident safety officer and oversees the safety of hazardous materials group personnel and operations?

A

Assistant safety officer

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33
Q

An assistant safety officer must possess a high level of expertise in hazardous materials operations and shall normally be an officers assigned to where?

A

Hazmat TF

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34
Q

Who for hazardous materials incidents is normally a hazmat specialist II who responds from LA County Fire health/hazmat division?

A

Technical specialist

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35
Q

Who when implemented is a member of the general staff and is responsible for the management of all tactical operations directly applicable to the primary mission?

A

Operations chief

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36
Q

What group is under operations and is composed of the safe refuge, site control, entry team, decontamination team, technical support team and perimeter control and access?

A

Hazmat group

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37
Q

Who controls the activities of the perimeter control and access team and may be from any company assigned to the incident?

A

Perimeter control and access manager

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38
Q

Who is responsible for directing all operations of entry teams?

A

Entry team leader

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39
Q

How many entry teams minimum are there?

A

2 entry teams

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40
Q

Who does the monitor report to?

A

Entry team leader

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41
Q

Each entry team shall consist of 2 hazmat what?

A

Technicians

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42
Q

Who reports to the technical decon manager and provides decontamination to all response personnel exiting the exclusion zone?

A

Technical decon team

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43
Q

Who reports to the technical decon manger and assists in the technical decon of entry team members and will use a brush and decon solution to remove contaminants from entry team leaders?

A

The handler

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44
Q

Who assists in the technical decon of entry team members and used a long-handled wand with water to rinse decon solution and contaminants from entry team members?

A

The rinser

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45
Q

Who assists decontaminated entry team members in the removal of protective clothing and may be assisted by another technical decon team member in clothing removal?

A

The bagger

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46
Q

Who reports to the technical support team leader and is responsible for medical care of the hazmat taskforce?

A

ALS engine company

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47
Q

Who reports to the technical support team leader and is responsible for transportation of hazmat TF members and will also remain in the support zone?

A

ALS RA

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48
Q

The expanded ICS structure may also include what branch (law enforcement)?

A

Law branch

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49
Q

All responding department fire suppression companies are trained and equipped to perform what 2 decontamination of exposure victims?

A

Gross and secondary decon

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50
Q

Department policy requires all exposed patients to be completely what prior to transport?

A

Decontaminated

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51
Q

Within the ICS structure that has been expanded to accommodate mass casualties, patients will move from where and then on to the medical triage?

A

Safe refuge to gross decon, gross decon to secondary decon

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52
Q

Once first responders have arrived on scene, one of the initial considerations must be to establish what for the incident which will designate the initial isolation zone, evacuation boundaries and safe refuge?

A

Perimeters

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53
Q

Initial isolation zone should be established using recommendation of the ERG with what 3 factors into consideration?

A

Topography
Material released
Wind/weather

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54
Q

What dictates the location of the initial isolation zone?

A

Topography

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55
Q

A larger isolation zone will be required for what physical property?

A

Vapors

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56
Q

A small isolation zone may be possible for what type of physical property provided that the run off is contained in a fixed area?

A

Liquid

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57
Q

A what should be established within the outermost perimeter of the isolation area to contain people who have been exposed to hazmat?

A

Safe refuge area

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58
Q

What will impact the decision for consideration of initial evacuation perimeters?

A

Wind, weather and time of day

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59
Q

Hazmat responses should be approached from what?

A

Uphill, upwind, upstream

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60
Q

What should be placed on the apparatus antenna to keep a close watch on wind direction?

A

Fire line tape or other suitable material

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61
Q

At any incident stop short and evaluate the scene before committing yourself and others what provides first responders with an opportunity to view the scene from a safe distance?

A

Binoculars

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62
Q

Rapid removal of the contaminants from victims using what is the single most important action associated with effective decontamination?

A

Water streams (hand lines or master streams)

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63
Q

What is intended to limit the effect of hazardous materials on victims of exposure and prevent the spread of contaminants beyond the contaminated area?

A

Decontamination

64
Q

Prior to initiating decontamination efforts, first responders should triage patients by attempting to separate what types of patients?

A

Symptomatic and asymptomatic

65
Q

What is the initial decontamination intended to rapidly remove as much contamination as possible, by removing victims clothing to their undergarments and showering the victims utilizing the most expeditious process available?

A

Emergency decontamination (aka gross decon)

66
Q

What is the expansion of emergency decontamination to accommodate large numbers of contaminated people?

A

Mass decontamination

67
Q

What type of decon is a process that includes scrubbing with soap or other solution and thorough rinsing, following emergency decon?

A

Secondary decontamination

68
Q

What is the deliberate and precise cleansing using pools. special solutions, monitoring methods and specially trained personnel and is intended for emergency responders separate area from victims?

A

Technical decontamination

69
Q

What is the best PPE for first responders engaged in decontamination?

A

Level B ensemble

70
Q

Showering time will be incident specific, but should be between how many minutes per person?

A

1 to 3 minutes

71
Q

First arriving companies can initiate mass decon by using fog and spray streams using what appliances?

A

Ladder pipes, portable monitors, wagon batteries, discharge gates, and handlines

72
Q

Since the volume of water required for mass decon will exceed that carried in apparatus tanks, a what must be established?

A

Continuous source of water

73
Q

Engine companies used to form a corridor should be facing in what directions so that the panels are on the outside?

A

Opposite directions

74
Q

If possible, engines should pump in what setting to limit pressre?

A

Volume

75
Q

What percentage or more of contaminants will be removed by removing clothing?

A

80%

76
Q

Hazmat triage tags are constructed of 100% what and is completely waterproof?

A

Synthetic paper

77
Q

The term used to describe actions directed at retrieving civilian exposure victims is know as what?

A

Rapid extraction

78
Q

What 4 types of different extraction methods are there?

A

Self rescue (low risk/high benefit), bystander rescue (low risk/high benefit), responder rescue (low-high risk/unkown benefit), technical rescue (med-high risk/low benefit)

79
Q

Using remote methods to contact people in the unsafe area such as apparatus PA, bullhorn, or in place address system is how risky of a method to get people to leave an unsafe area?

A

Least risk

80
Q

The primary factor in determining whether the environment is appropriate for structural PPE and SCBA is the what of the victims?

A

Viability

81
Q

Extraction teams shall use no more than 1 what size SCBA bottle for rapid extraction?

A

45 minute bottle

82
Q

For rapid extraction, at minimum a charged hoseline should be established for decon, a rapid intervention crew following the what rule should be established?

A

2-in-2-out rule

83
Q

For rapid extraction, what 3 conditions would require personnel to exit and proceed to decontamination?

A

Signs and symptoms of exposure to team, encountering an area with only 1 viable victim, first SCBA audible alarm (approximately 25% reserve for exiting and decontamination)

84
Q

What is the minimum protection for all hazardous material incidents consist of?

A

Full PPE, SCBA, and personal dosimeter

85
Q

Statistically the most significant route of exposure for hazardous materials continues to be what?

A

Inhalation

86
Q

During extraction operations, the responders what are most at risk to become contaminated?

A

Feet and hands

87
Q

The personal dosimeter will detect and alarm to what types of radiation sources?

A

Gamma and beta

88
Q

LAPD is only responsible for evacuating which areas, whereas LAFD is responsible for evacuating and securing areas where work may be conducted?

A

No special protective clothing or equipment is required

89
Q

Level B splash suits are provided for performing what and do not enable firefighters to enter hazardous zones wearing them?

A

Decontamination

90
Q

Guide 124 in the ERG states isolate spill or leak area immediately at least how many meters/feet in all direction?

A

100 to 200 meters (330 to 660 feet)

91
Q

If the material has not been identified, officers may use what guide from the ERG as an initial estimate of minimum distances?

A

Guide 111

92
Q

Toxic inhalation hazards in the ERG are what color label found in the blue and yellow pages?

A

Green label

93
Q

A small hazmat spill is equivalent to a how many gallon drum whereas a large spill is greater than this?

A

55 gallon drum

94
Q

What 2 methods of protecting people during a hazardous materials incident are discussed in the ERG and may be employed downwind or downhill of a release?

A

Evacuation and shelter in place

95
Q

Evacuation of people is preferred were the material is what?

A

Flammable

96
Q

What is indicated where the process of evacuation would expose people to a greater level of risk than leaving them indoors, or an evacuation cannot be performed?

A

Shelter in place

97
Q

Who regulates the types of labels and placards that must be attached to hazardous materials transport containers and the vehicles that carry them?

A

DOT

98
Q

DOT placards are diamond shaped signs of how many inches on each side that are required to be affixed on each side and each end of vehicles carrying hazardous materials?

A

10 3/4 inches

99
Q

DOT labels (diamonds) are how many inches or smaller for cylinders affixed to non bulk packages of hazardous materials?

A

4 inches

100
Q

How many different classifications will be found on a DOT placard?

A

9 classifications

101
Q

Who has developed a placarding system for fixed facilities to indicate the dangers associated with various hazardous materials found at a location?

A

NFPA

102
Q

The North American Emergency Response Guidebook-NAERG is now known as what?

A

ERG

103
Q

A copy of their hazardous materials business plan, a hazardous materials inventory, and training program information must be maintained at which businesses in LA?

A

All

104
Q

Under federal requirements, businesses must also have what for documentation of hazardous materials?

A

MSDS

105
Q

What provides information of physical and chemical properties of the material, hazards associated with the material, and basic directions for response actions?

A

MSDS

106
Q

What was formerly referred to as a target hazard occupancy?

A

High hazard facilities

107
Q

Dike, dam, divert, disperse, dilute, cover, and foam are typical methods of what for first responders?

A

Containment

108
Q

What should you lay over a powder spill?

A

Salvage cover

109
Q

What 2 types of complex dams are there?

A

Underflow and Overflow

110
Q

Where can additional Mark 1 Auto Injectors be found (assigned to each position/member of the fire department)?

A

Squads, EMS sedans, hazmat tender, RA disaster cache

111
Q

A draeger emergency escape mask provides a minimum of how many minutes of protection time against chemical warfare agents?

A

15 minutes

112
Q

The mini radiacs shall be worn whenever the department is notified of a homeland security advisory system threat level is what?

A

“HIGH” (ORANGE/LEVEL 4) and “SEVERE” (RED/LEVEL 5)

113
Q

The mini radiacs shall be worn once determind by the departments administration upon notification from the homeland security advisory system when?

A

On any incident
When out of quarters
When away from apparatus
When in an enclosed space/building

114
Q

Exceptions for wearing the mini radiacs are not required while on what fire department property?

A

Frank Hotchkin Memorial Training Center or Headquarters (city hall)

115
Q

The level B hazmat suits is recommended to be donned using the what system?

A

Buddy system

116
Q

How many companies are required for most chemical investigation?

A

1 fire company

117
Q

What 3 zones are there which are divided up in the hazmat ICS?

A

Exclusion zone (hot zone), contamination reduction zone (area immediately outside hot zone), and support zone (all functions not part of hazmat group are located in this zone)

118
Q

Ideally a minimum distance of how many feet should be used for the depth of the contamination reduction zone?

A

100 feet

119
Q

A line may be established outside of the support zone for control of civilian traffic using what?

A

Fire line tape

120
Q

The line surrounding the exclusion zone is the what?

A

“Hot Line”

121
Q

The line surrounding the contamination reduction zone is the what?

A

“Perimeter Control Line”

122
Q

The initial consideration of first-arriving hazmat TF personnel is the locations of what lines?

A

Hot line and perimeter control line

123
Q

After arrival on scene of a hazardous materials incident, it is critical to initiate the development of what 3 things?

A

Site safety plan, technical support team, contamination reduction corridor

124
Q

Prior to entry into the exclusion zone, what must be established and ready to go into operation?

A

Technical decon

125
Q

What is positioned in the contamination reduction corridor just outside the boundary of the exclusion zone?

A

Technical decon

126
Q

The proper level of protection (PPE and respiratory protection) for technical decon team will be the same level as who or one level below?

A

Entry team

127
Q

The minimum equipment such as radiological meters, multi gas/atmosphere monitoring meter, and ph paper will be carried by who?

A

Entry team

128
Q

Entry team members should use what placed in the decon pools to help maintain their balance during decon operations?

A

Cones or other props

129
Q

How many decon pools will the entry team proceed through?

A

3

130
Q

When can the entry team remove their SCBA and proceed to the rehabilitation area?

A

Once they leave the decon area

131
Q

What will be located inside the contamination reduction zone at the perimeter of the exclusion zone?

A

Contamination reduction corridor

132
Q

Who supervises the activity of a handler, rinser, and bagger?

A

Technical decon manager

133
Q

There 3 pools in the CRC for washing and rinsing, a 4th pool just inside the hot line will only be needed for the removal of what?

A

Gross contaminants

134
Q

The first 2 pools of the 3 decon pools will be used where entry team members will be what?

A

Soaped, scrubbed, and rinsed

135
Q

The 3rd pool of the 3 decon pools will be a final rinse using only what?

A

Water

136
Q

Water in the decon pools must be checked for chemical content by who before released into the storm drain system or if ti needs to be removed by a hazardous waste disposal contractor?

A

LA County Health Hazmat Division

137
Q

What size bottles are pre mounted to hazmat SCBAs and designated for hazmat only?

A

60 minute bottles

138
Q

The hazmat SCBAs do not have redundant warning devices like normal SCBAs such as what?

A

Rear and front PASS, buddy breathing connection, or low air horn

139
Q

The only low air warning device on the hazmat SCBA is the what on the first stage regulator?

A

Bell

140
Q

The squads carry a what which is used to supply cooling and breathing air using a pass through device in the suit and uses 2 60 minute air bottle for supply?

A

Air cart

141
Q

Decon pools, shower wands. scrub brushes, neutralizing or disinfecting chemicals, chlorine kits, various patch and plug kits, non sparking tools and tanker rollover kit are all part of what equipment?

A

Technical Decon

142
Q

What 3 size patch kits specific to chlorine do the squads carry?

A

A Kit - 150 pound cylinders
B Kit - 1 ton cylinders
C Kit - railroad cars

143
Q

What are several other materials/products that terrorists may choose (CBRNE)?

A

Chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and explosive

144
Q

Biological incidents may be difficult to detect until the particular agent used reaches the end of what period and the signs and symptoms manifest themselves in the victims?

A

Incubation period

145
Q

Who chooses venues that have political, religious or cultural significance, or the potential for heavy casualties or infrastructure disruption?

A

Terrorists

146
Q

How many threat conditions/levels will be used by the Homeland Security Advisory System that are adopted by the LAFD?

A

5 levels

147
Q

What are the 5 levels of threat conditions?

A

Severe (red), high (orange), elevated (yellow), guarded (blue), low (green)

148
Q

The acronym CBRNE is also referred to as what and represents the classification of weapons of mass destruction?

A

B-NICE

149
Q

Nerve agents, vesicants (blister agents), cyanides or blood agents, pulmonary or chocking agents, irritants or riot control chemicals are known as what type of agents?

A

Chemical warfare agents

150
Q

The acronym for signs and symptoms of potential nerve agent exposure is SLUDGEM which stands for what?

A 
Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Defication
Gastrointestinal
Emesis
Muscle twitching
151
Q

What type of agents can be either disease causing organisms or toxins produced by living organisms such as bacteria, viruses, and toxins?

A

Biological warfare agents

152
Q

What type of agent includes the potential for release and dispersal of nuclear materials by packing the nuclear material around a conventional explosive device (dirty bomb)?

A

Radiological agents

153
Q

Of all the materials potentially deployed by terrorists, a detonation of fissionable device is considered the least likely threat which is what agent?

A

Nuclear

154
Q

What type of agent is the weapon of choice for terrorists?

A

Explosives (bombs)

155
Q

The PEK shall be worn by members when the department is notified of a Homeland Security Advisory System of what threat level?

A

Severe (Red/level 5) and High (Orange/level 4)

RGC A/O (45 decks)

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