Book 29 Truck Manual Flashcards

1
Q

What is the systematic removal of heat, smoke, and fire gases from a structure and replacing it with cooler, clean, fresh air?

A

Ventilation

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2
Q

Effective ventilation will accomplish what 4 objectives?

A

Saves lives
Assist in firefighter access
Controls the horizontal spread of fire
Reduces possibility of flashover and backdraft

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3
Q

The removal of heated smoke and fire gases from a structure will increase the chances of survival to who?

A

Trapped or unconscious occupants

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4
Q

A properly placed what aids in the removal of super heated smoke and fire gases from the building, which in turn permits firefighters to safely and more rapidly locate and extinguish the fire?

A

Ventilation hole

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5
Q

Ventilation will also reduce the chance of what type of burns to firefighters from their hose stream?

A

Steam burns

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6
Q

Rapid extinguishment of fire will also reduce what type of damages (reduces property damage)?

A

Water, heat and smoke

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7
Q

Proper ventilation will also assist firefighters in fire extinguishment as well as what other operations?

A

Rescue, salvage, and overhaul

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8
Q

In a structure fire, heat, smoke, and fire gases travel where to the highest point of the building, usually the roof or ceiling?

A

Upward

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9
Q

Heat, smoke, and fire gases accumulating at the highest point and begin to bank down and spread laterally is known as what?

A

Mushrooming

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10
Q

What in conjunction with an offensive heat hole, can help stop the horizontal spread of fire?

A

Strip ventilation

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11
Q

What is a condition where all the contents of a room are heated to their ignition temperature?

A

Flashover

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12
Q

Each year in the US there is an average 100 deaths to firefighters, on average how many of those deaths are due to flashover?

A

85

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13
Q

What is it called if the structure’s contents reach their ignition temperature and there is not sufficient oxygen to support combustion, but occurs when oxygen is suddenly introduced?

A

Backdraft

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14
Q

To remove backdraft conditions, what type of ventilation must be provided to release the heat, smoke, and gases?

A

Vertical ventilation

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15
Q

What is the systematic removal of heat, smoke, and fire gases through wall openings such as doors and windows?

A

Horizontal ventilation

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16
Q

What 2 methods are usually performed to accomplish horizontal ventilation?

A

Natural and positive pressure

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17
Q

What ventilation is easily done by opening doors and windows and allowing the wind to ventilate the building?

A

Natural ventilation

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18
Q

Natural ventilation is limited due the location of the fire in relation the structures openings and what direction?

A

Wind

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19
Q

What ventilation is a method of forcing clean, fresh, pressurized air into a structure with blowers?

A

Positive pressure ventilation

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20
Q

What ventilation is the opening of the roof or existing roof openings (skylights, hatch covers, etc.) for the purpose of allowing heat, smoke, and fire gases to escape from the structure into the atmosphere?

A

Vertical ventilation

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21
Q

In order to properly and safely open a roof, you must have a good working knowledge of what?

A

Building construction

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22
Q

The key to safe and effective roof ventilation is the knowledge of what?

A

Rafter type and direction

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23
Q

Roofs built with conventional construction will usually withstand fire for a much greater length of time than what, resulting in a safer roof to operate on?

A

Lightweight truss construction

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24
Q

With conventional construction, if time and safety permits, the roof team “WILL” cut a what directly over the fire?

A

Heat hole

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25
Q

When operating on a lightweight truss roof (or suspected lightweight truss), the ventilation team shall never conduct ventilation operations directly over the what?

A

Fire

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26
Q

Members should employ the practice of what so that they may complete their roof-cutting operation prior to the fire impinging on a given ventilation hole?

A

“Trading space for time”

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27
Q

Rafter direction is important to know because we usually cut what size sheathing parallel to rafters?

A

1 x4 and 1 x 6

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28
Q

On roofs sheathed with plywood, what cut is made perpendicular to rafters?

A

Head cut

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29
Q

You need to know rafter direction in order to accomplish what types of holes?

A

Heat hole or strip

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30
Q

Which type of hole is offensive?

A

Heat hole

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31
Q

Which type of hole is defensive?

A

Strip

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32
Q

What type of hole should be placed well ahead of the fire and extend the entire width of the building, creating a firebreak?

A

Strip

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33
Q

What type of cut is a technique used when cutting plywood and 1 x 4 or 1 x 6 sheathed roof (4 cuts) and provides the largest hole with the minimum amount of cuts?

A

Center rafter

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34
Q

Sheathing removal such as what technique requires minimal effort?

A

Louvering

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35
Q

What is the material used to comprise the base and exterior covering for the roof and is attached to the rafters (wood sheathing, plywood type, corrugated metal)?

A

Decking

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36
Q

Plywood sheathing is installed so that the 8’ dimension of the plywood crosses the rafters or joists and the 4’ dimension parallels the rafters or joists. The sheets of plywood are then staggered much like a brick or block wall, which require what type of nailing?

A

Diaphragm nailing

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37
Q

What is a technique used to cut 1” x 4” or 1” x 6” solid, spaced, or diagonally sheathed roofs and are made parallel to rafters with no concern to locating rafters?

A

Dicing

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38
Q

What are metal clips used to hold the butted ends of plywood together and are common on pitched roofs?

A

“H” clips

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39
Q

What cut is a cut made through the roof decking that is made perpendicular to rafters, is used to locate rafters, rolling rafters and done on roofs with plywood or diagonal sheathing (first cut made on a center rafter cut)?

A

Head cut

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40
Q

Constantly evaluate the effectiveness of the roof-cutting operation and weigh the what allowing for a timely and safe exit from the roof?

A

Risk vs gain

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41
Q

The removal of sheathing is enhanced by a what motion with an appropriate tool (pick head axe) and more effective if the pulling tool is used near the rafters?

A

“J” hook

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42
Q

What cut is a single cut made through the roof decking, the same width as the chain saw blade and used as an alternative to a smoke indicator hole?

A

Kerf cut

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43
Q

Ground ladder should be thrown to uninvolved corners of the structure, the exception is what ladder?

A

Roof ladder

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44
Q

For roof ventilation, a minimum of how many ladders should be thrown to the involved structure?

A

2 ladders

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45
Q

What method is used for plywood once all 4 cuts have been completed due to the method plywood is nailed to the roof rafters?

A

Louver

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46
Q

What are usually made from a 2” x 4” laid flat between rafters to provide a nailing surface for the edge of the plywood sheathing and found every 4 feet underneath a 4 x 8 sheet of plywood?

A

Nailing blocks

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47
Q

What is a door leading from the interior stairwell to the roof and can be a quick way to clear smoke out of the stairwell and any hallway that is open to the stairwell?

A

Penthouse door

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48
Q

What cut is a small triangular piece of roof covering (composition), which is removed from the roof to expose the roof sheathing and used to determine sheathing type and roof composition thickness?

A

Plug cut

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49
Q

What is the normal and most common size of plywood?

A

4 x 8

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50
Q

What cut is a light cut of the roof covering, usually composition only and is used to facilitate the removal of multiple layers of roofing material (composition?

A

Score cut

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51
Q

What cut is a light cut made with the chain saw, cutting through the roof covering and plywood sheathing and used on a panelized roof when louvering off a purlin?

A

Skim cut

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52
Q

Skylights are usually constructed of what material?

A

Glass or plastic

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53
Q

Skylights will be placed over what on apartment buildings?

A

Hallways and stairwells

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54
Q

Skylights will be placed over where on commercial buildings?

A

Manufacturing area

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55
Q

What is a small triangular hole cut through the roof decking (sheathing and roofing material) made with the chain saw or an axe and used to indicate smoke and fire conditions?

A

Smoke indicator hole

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56
Q

Smoke indicator holes should be placed along the path of access and egress how often?

A

Every few yards

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57
Q

What is a technique used to assist the roof team to safely walk on a roof and helps determine roof conditions?

A

Sounding

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58
Q

If ventilators are working correctly leave them in place, they are what percent more effective when the turbine is spinning?

A

30%

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59
Q

What type of pipes can be constructed from ABS plastic, cast iron, or steel pipe?

A

Vent pipes

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60
Q

If vents appear to be growing out of the roof (growing vent pipes), this indicates that the roof has what?

A

Sagged or dropped

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61
Q

What is a series of cuts used to identify rafter direction only and is cut at a 45 degree angle toward or away from any exterior wall by intersecting a structural member and making the second cut parallel or perpendicular to exterior wall?

A

45 degree cut

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62
Q

What 5 things will a 45 degree inspection cut tell you/.

A

Rafter type
Rafter direction
Sheathing type
Composition thickness
Smoke indicator

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63
Q

For a 45 degree inspection cut, when the saw makes contact with a rafter, roll over the rafter and continue the cut approximately how many inches?

A

6 to 10 inches

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64
Q

What is directional and always allows roof team to work back towards their ladder?

A

Dicing

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65
Q

The chain saw operator should cut a minimum of how many dice cuts before the puller begins to remove sheathing?

A

3

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66
Q

For dicing, locations of rafters are not required, what is?

A

Rafter type and direction

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67
Q

Rafter type and direction can be accomplished with what diagnostics?

A

Plug cut, 45 degree inspection cut, and sounding

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68
Q

The length of the dice cut is determined by the what of the tool being used to pull the sheathing (rubbish hook or pick head axe)?

A

Reach

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69
Q

The chain saw operator should be aware of rafter spacing by not spanning how many rafters?

A

2 rafters

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70
Q

For dicing, always leave a minimum of how many un-pulled sections between the cutter and puller?

A

1

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71
Q

On a roof constructed with multiple layers of composition or diagonal sheathing, and additional what cut may be necessary?

A

Score or bottom cut

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72
Q

In order to make a center rafter louver, you must know rafter type and direction and determine the location of how many rafters?

A

3

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73
Q

When making a center rafter louver cut, you parallel cuts should be approximately how many inches inside the rafter?

A

2 to 3 inches

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74
Q

Center rafter louver cuts against construction are started with a head cut going which direction in relation to your ladder to locate the first outside rafter?

A

Away from ladder

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75
Q

Parallel cuts on a center rafter louver should be approximately how many feet long?

A

3 1/2 feet

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76
Q

What 5 cutting operations can be made on a panelized roof?

A

Drop method
Pull back method
Offensive louver
Louver off a purlin
Lover off a main/lam beam

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77
Q

When cutting on a panelized roof, cut how many inches inside of the purlins to avoid hitting metal hangers?

A

4 to 6 inches

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78
Q

For a drop method, cut completely through 2 x 4 rafters from what to what?

A

Lam beam to lam beam

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79
Q

For a drop method, first cut is made parallel to lam beam stopping at purlins, then cut small triangles to insert what tool?

A

Rubbish hooks

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80
Q

Offensive louvers are done from what to what?

A

Lam beam to lam beam

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81
Q

For louver off a main/lam beam, stand on the lam beam and reach out approximately how many feet and make first cut parallel to rafters from purlin to purlin?

A

3 1/2 feet

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82
Q

Because of work area limitations while louvering off a lam beam, who must exchange tools?

A

Cutter and puller

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83
Q

For louver off a purlin, start with a “skim cut” and reach out as far as you comfortable can approximately how many feet?

A

3 1/2 feet

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84
Q

Louvering off a lam beam should be done from what to what?

A

Parapet to parapet

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85
Q

Louvering off a purlin should be done from what to what?

A

Lam beam to lam beam

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86
Q

New construction methods are usually not designed to assist what type of operations?

A

Fire suppression

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87
Q

As architects reduce the mass and change the chemical composition of building materials, we are losing one of the most valuable factors which is what?

A

Time

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88
Q

A working what of building construction not only provides the necessary expertise to conduct a quick and accurate size-up of a structure, it also provides the foundation for effective, timely, and safe operations?

A

Knowledge

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89
Q

Structural integrity will determine what 4 factors?

A

Ladder placement
Forcible entry
Search and rescue
Ventilation feasibility

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90
Q

The integrity of a working surface (i.e., roof and floor decking) must be evaluated for what?

A

Safe operations

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91
Q

Special hazards such as what when considering ladder placement (i.e. strip malls) must be recognized and avoided?

A

Facades

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92
Q

The direction of what (rafters/joists) must be determined prior to initiating ventilation to enhance safe and effective cutting operations?

A

Structural members

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93
Q

The way we operate on a building is based off building construction, knowledge of this will dictate our approach, which 2 operations (modes) can be employed?

A

Offensive or defensive

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94
Q

A plan of action can be formulated based off what factors for building construction?

A

Occupancy type, exposure, and involvement in arrival

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95
Q

What is a mental evaluation that assists in determine a course of action and the methods necessary to accomplish a desired goal (estimate of situation)?

A

Size up

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96
Q

What 3 operations consists of a size up?

A

Analyze the situation
Decide a plan (strategy)
Put the plan into operation (tactics)

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97
Q

When “analyzing the situation” for your size up, type and construction of the building factors will indicate what 5 things?

A

Rate of burning
Possible avenues of fire spread
Problems on efforts to confine fire
Structural integrity
Time for safe operations

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98
Q

When conducting a building size up, look past the exterior of a building and visualize what’s inside (strengths and hazard) by doing “what” with the building in your mind?

A

“Undress”

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99
Q

For building construction, what 4 areas should our size up focus on?

A

Construction styles
Roof styles
Construction methods
Age of the building

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100
Q

Conventional construction utilized what that depend on size for strength (does not rely on total sum of members)?

A

Structural members (size for strength)

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101
Q

Conventional construction can be easily demonstrated by considering mill/timber construction and may be what dimension for strength?

A

8 x 8

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102
Q

Lightweight construction (truss) is obtained from what that are in compression and tension?

A

Multiple members

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103
Q

For lightweight construction, the strength of the individual structural member is dependent on the total sum of members, if how many members fail, others may fail?

A

1 member

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104
Q

A single lightweight truss structural member can span how many feet and may be comprised of 2 x 4s in compression and tension to form an integral unit?

A

70 feet

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105
Q

When the attic is exposed to fire, the rafters and roof may collapse on what thereby preventing collapse onto firefighting personnel below?

A

Ceiling joists

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106
Q

A lightweight truss fable in a dwelling when exposed to fire will cause what to collapse as a unit into the structure, exposing firefighting personnel to falling, burning debris?

A

Top (rafters) and bottom chord (ceiling joists), and roof decking

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107
Q

Lightweight construction utilized what size lumber as a standard?

A

2 x 3s and 2 x 4s

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108
Q

Convention construction utilized what size lumber as a minimum and up to mill/lumber construction?

A

2 x 4s

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109
Q

The ability to accurately estimate the amount of time that a structure can be considered structurally strong is dependent on what 3 factors?

A

Type of construction
Time of burning
Fire intensity

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110
Q

What 6 different roof styles are there according to book 29?

A

Gable
Hip
Flat
Bridge truss
Arch
Sawtooth

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111
Q

What style roof is a configuration of conventional or ordinary construction that consists of a ridge board and rafters that cross the outside walls?

A

Fable

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112
Q

Rafters in a fable roof are usually what size or larger and are usually spaced 16 to 24 inches on center?

A

2 x 6

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113
Q

Supporting of a gable roof is provided by what members?

A

Collar beams and ceiling joists

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114
Q

Gable roofs are what type of configuration?

A

Semi flat to steep pitch

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115
Q

Gable roofs can have rafters spaced up to how many inches on center for a steep pitched roof?

A

36 inches

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116
Q

The ridge board on a gable roof is what size?

A

1 x 6

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117
Q

Gable roofs without ridge boards resulting in 2 x 6 rafters placed on the roof how?

A

Butted together

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118
Q

Lightweight construction utilizes 2 x 3 or 2 x 4 inch wood trusses held together by what type of connectors?

A

Metal gusset plate

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119
Q

What are the 3 features of a truss system?

A

Top chord, bottom chord, and webbing

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120
Q

The most common metal gusset plate is 18 gauge steel with prongs that produce what inch penetration?

A

3/8 inch

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121
Q

Ceiling joists are typically what size or larger?

A

2 x 4

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122
Q

Lightweight construction (truss members, open web, wooden I beam) may only be supported at which edges (unless used as a cantilever truss)?

A

Outside edges

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123
Q

18 gauge “roof truss clips” may be found nailed to the bottom chord every how many trusses due interior wall partitions possibly not supporting the truss?

A

3 to 5 trusses

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124
Q

For non supportive interior wall partitions, they could be classified as what?

A

“Free standing”

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125
Q

Common on center spacing for truss rafters are how many inches?

A

24 inches

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126
Q

Where are the strongest parts of a gable roof?

A

The ridge area (conventional with ridge board) and outside walls (where rafters cross)

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127
Q

Gables without a ridgeboard or lightweight truss system (2 x 3 or 2 x 4 rafters) have a reduced what time and potential early failure rate and collapse of roof?

A

Burning time

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128
Q

Newer roofs use what size plywood as decking instead of 1 x 4 or 1 x 6 inch space sheathing?

A

3/8 or 1/2 inch

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129
Q

What else is used as decking in an effort to reduce building costs and can be more hazardous than plywood?

A

Particle, chip and strand board

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130
Q

What type of building lacks the A-configuration and terminates in a “hip” configuration?

A

Hip roof

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131
Q

For the hip roof, which rafters are utilized where 2 roof lines join together?

A

Valley rafters

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132
Q

What size rafters and ridge boards are found on a hip style roof (conventional style)

A

2 x 6

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133
Q

What is the typical spacing for a gable roof ?

A

16 to 24 inches, 36 inches for steep pitched

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134
Q

What size “rough cut” rafters were also utlized in older wood frame structures with steep pitched gable roofs?

A

2 x 3 or 2 x 4

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135
Q

What are the strengths of a hip style roof?

A

Ridge board, valley rafters, hip rafters, and areas where rafters cross outside wall

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136
Q

If the roof is covered with what, the roof will become slippery when wet and offers minimal footing when dry and should be removed prior to ventilation operations?

A

Tile or other similar materials

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137
Q

What type of roof is found on various types and sizes of commercial buildings primarily constructed during the 1930s and 1940s and easily identifiable by sloping ends?

A

Bridge truss

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138
Q

Wooden truss members on bridge truss roofs are what size lumber?

A

2 x 12

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139
Q

What is used on bridge truss roofs vertically for additional support?

A

Metal tie rods

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140
Q

What size rafters are found on a bridge truss roof?

A

2 x 6 or larger

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141
Q

What size of sheathing covers a bridge truss roof?

A

1 x 6 diagonal (post 33) or straight (pre 33)

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142
Q

What type of decking was installed over existing straight or diagonal sheathing when modified for the earthquake ordinance?

A

Plywood

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143
Q

Bridge truss roofs when exposed to fire, early collapse is not a primary concern, however the roof predictably fails how depending on type of fire?

A

In sections

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144
Q

Strengths of a bridge truss roof are depending on the size of lumber utilized and that what of trusses?

A

Span

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145
Q

The bottom chord of a bridge truss can be modified to allow storage in the what covered by sheathing or plywood and/or lath and plaster and can contribute to early collapse of trusses and roof?

A

Attic area or ceiling

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146
Q

If a bridge truss roof has been modified for the earthquake ordinance, you must be aware of plywood and what else?

A

Metal straps and supports

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147
Q

What type of roof is similar to a bridge truss and was built and popular in the 1930s, 1940s, and 1950s on both small and large commercials?

A

Bowstring Arch

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148
Q

Bowstring arches have what size lumber that comprise the trusses and related members and may have multiple beams forming 1 truss arch?

A

2 x 12 or 2 x 14

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149
Q

Rafters on a bowstring arch are what size?

A

2 x 6 or larger

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150
Q

Bowstring arches are covered with what size diagonal or straight sheathing?

A

1 x 6

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151
Q

How does a bowstring arch usually fail?

A

In sections

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152
Q

What type of roof is an egg crate, geometric or diamond-pattern roof and supported by exterior buttresses or internal ties rods with turnbuckles?

A

Lamella arch

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153
Q

Lamella arches are constructed with what size wood framing with steel plates and bolts at junctions of framing?

A

2 x 12

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154
Q

What size roof decking/sheathing do lamella arches have?

A

1 x 6

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155
Q

Lamella arches are common in what type of occupancies?

A

Gymnasiums, large buildings for recreational use, large supermarkets

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156
Q

Total collapse of a lamella arch can occur if fire removes more than what percentage of the roof?

A

20%

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157
Q

Total collapse of a lamella arch can result from what “effect”?

A

Domino effect

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158
Q

What roof is similar to a bowstring or lamella arch that uses tie rods to offer lateral support for the walls of the building?

A

Tied truss arch

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159
Q

Tie rods of what diameter with turn buckles (tension mantained) are used below each arch member to ensure arches do not push the exterior walls outward?

A

5/8 inch

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160
Q

Tie rods on a tied truss arch may pass through exterior walls outside what, which facilitate identification of this style roof?

A

Plates

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161
Q

Top chords of arch members on a tied truss utilize what size laminated lumber or larger?

A

2 x 12

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162
Q

Rafter size on a tied truss arch are what?

A

2 x 10 or larger

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163
Q

Tied truss arches utilize what size diagonal or straight sheathing?

A

1 x 6

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164
Q

What is the primary hazard of a tied truss arch and may push the walls outward?

A

Tie rods and turnbuckles

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165
Q

What type of roof is used on commercial buildings to yield additional light and ventilation for manufacturing type occupancies and is basically constructed the same today as it was during the 1930s and 1940s?

A

Saw tooth

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166
Q

What size rafters on a saw tooth roof?

A

2 x 8 or larger

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167
Q

Sawtooth roofs can be easily ventilated by utilizing the hinged what?

A

Panes of glass

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168
Q

What size diagonal or straight sheathing are saw tooths covered with?

A

1 x 6

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169
Q

Newer saw tooth roofs are covered with what size plywood?

A

1/2 inch

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170
Q

Conventional flat roofs will have what size rafters?

A

2 x 6

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171
Q

Newer style flat roofs are lightweight with what 3 types of construction options?

A

Wooden I beam, metal gusset plate truss, open web construction

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172
Q

Flat roof rafter spacing is how many inches on center?

A

24 inches

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173
Q

For newer conventional flat roofs, what size plywood are they covered with?

A

3/8 inch to 5/8 inch

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174
Q

What type of lightweight member consists of top and bottom parallel wood chords that are connected by a wooden stem and is prefabricated at the factory before installation?

A

Wooden I beam

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175
Q

What sizes are the dimensions for the top and bottom chord of a wooden I beam?

A

2 x 4, but 2 x 3 is common

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176
Q

The stem for the wooden I beam is joined by a continuous glue edge joint that may be what size plywood or chip board?

A

3/8 inch

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177
Q

What is the common on center spacing for wooden I beam?

A

24 inches

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178
Q

Nailing blocks are spaced how far apart that are joined to the top chord of the wooden I beam/open web/metal gusset plate to provide an additional nailing surface for the 4 x 8 sheets of plywood?

A

4 feet

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179
Q

For diaphragm nailing, the plywood sheets are placed so that the 8 foot dimension crosses the roofs what?

A

Structural members

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180
Q

What is the strongest part of a wooden I beam roof?

A

Perimeter where the roof ties into exterior wall

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181
Q

Common practice is to run what type of ducts of various sizes through the stems which removes a significant percentage of the stem and gives fire horizontal access to adjacent “I” beams, assisting the travel and spread of fire?

A

Heating and AC

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182
Q

Ventilation personnel must be aware of what on a wooden I beam, open web, and metal gusset plate roofs when cutting between and parallel to the top chords?

A

Nailing blocks

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183
Q

What construction consists of top and bottom parallel wooden chords that are cross-connected by steel tube web members, is prefabricated at the factory before installation, and is constructed with either parallel chord laid on edge or flat laid chords?

A

Open web

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184
Q

The steel tube web members on an open web are what diameter cold rolled steel tubing?

A

1 to 2 inch

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185
Q

The cold rolled steel tubing ends are pressed flat into a semicircular shape with a hole punched through the end and are inserted into slots with what size steel pins driven through chords and flat ends of webbing?

A

Up to 1 inch

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186
Q

How far can a open web member span?

A

70 feet

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187
Q

What size chords are on an open web?

A

2 x 4 or 2 x 3

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188
Q

A single 2 x 4 chord on an open web up to 70 feet is made possible by joining different lengths in glued, mitered what?

A

“Finger Joints”

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189
Q

What is common on center spacing for open web?

A

24 inches

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190
Q

What type of member is predominantly 2 x 4 wood trusses that are held together by metal plate connectors?

A

Metal gusset plate

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191
Q

What size plywood will be found on a metal gusset plate roof?

A

Common 1/2 inch, but also 3/8 inch

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192
Q

What type of roof may be found on wood, masonry or concrete tilt up slab buildings?

A

Panelized roof

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193
Q

What are the 4 major components of a panelized roof?

A

Beams, purlins, 2 x 4 inch joists, 2 inch plywood

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194
Q

What is a common size lam beams?

A

6 x 36

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195
Q

Beams on a panelized roof are supported at their ends by what?

A

Pilasters, wood or steel posts, or saddles

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196
Q

How far are beams spaced apart?

A

12 to 40 feet

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197
Q

Beams can be bolted together to provide lengths well in excess of how many feet?

A

100 feet

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198
Q

What are supported by beams and installed on hangers spaced 8 feet on center?

A

Purlins

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199
Q

What is a common size for purlins?

A

4 x 12

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200
Q

What are beginning to be substituted for conventional purlins?

A

Metal gusset plates

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201
Q

What is the hazard of the 2 x 4 rafters installed between the purlins, parallel to the beams?

A

Metal hangers

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202
Q

What size plywood covers a panelized roof?

A

1/2 inch

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203
Q

What are the strengths of a panelized roof?

A

Beams, purlins, and perimeter

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204
Q

Expect weakening and/or collapse of what which are 4 inch hollow steep pipes that support this member in large portions of the roof under heavy fire conditions?

A

Beam span supports

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205
Q

What type of foiling cover beneath panelized roof will give off flammable gases that rise and build up between the insulation paper and plywood decking?

A

Kraft paper

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206
Q

If what are utilized for the purlins, consider additional and rapid failure when the roof is exposed to fire?

A

Lightweight trusses

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207
Q

What type of members utilizes a popular building material (metal) in a wide variety of buildings, large and small?

A

Open web bar joist (steel bar joist)

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208
Q

Top and bottom chords for open web bar joist are usually made of what inch steel?

A

1/8 inch

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209
Q

Web supports on an open web bar joist are solid steel bar of what diameter?

A

5/8 inch

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210
Q

Large buildings may have open web bar joists used as girders spaced up to how many feet?

A

45 feet

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211
Q

Open web bar joists are spaced how many feet apart to accept corrugated metal decking covered by alternating layers of tar and tar paper?

A

8 feet

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212
Q

Additionally, 4 x 8 foot sheets of ½ inch plywood with what size rafters are gaining popularity on open web bar joist roofs?

A

2 x 4

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213
Q

What is the strongest part of an open web bar joist roof?

A

Perimeter

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214
Q

Metal exposed to fire or sufficient heat will expand, twist and possibly fail, steel loses its strength around what degree?

A

1000

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215
Q

What type of roof has a steel or wood sub structure covered by corrugated metal with an air-entrained mixture of sand, cement, and occasionally pea gravel is pumped on top of the corrugated metal decking?

A

Lightweight concrete roof (robertsons decking)

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216
Q

Lightweight concrete roofs have 4 x 4 or 6 x 6 inch wire mesh to a thickness of how many inches?

A

3 to 4

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217
Q

Lightweight concrete roofs are utilized when additional insulative properties are desired next to what?

A

Airport or freeways

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218
Q

What are the strengths of a lightweight concrete roof?

A

Strong hard surface (structurally sound and resistant to fire)

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219
Q

To ventilate a concrete roof, you will require which blades on the rotary saw?

A

Diamond blade or wood cutting carbide tipped blade

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220
Q

Corrugated metal structures utilize wood or steel, covered with what 3 options of materials?

A

Corrugated steel, aluminum, fiberglass

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221
Q

Roof ventilation on corrugated structures should be considered extremely what?

A

Dangerous

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222
Q

Metal beam structures have a sub structure of steel beams, usually coated with a spray on what?

A

Fire retardant material

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223
Q

Metal beam structures are finished with what options of materials?

A

Concrete, masonry, glass or similar materials

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224
Q

Metal beam structures vary from how many stories?

A

2 stories to the tallest high rise

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225
Q

What is a hazard for metal beam structures with glass paneling?

A

They could fall under fire conditions

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226
Q

When exposed to sufficient heat, metal beams can expand how many inches per 100 feet which can push out walls?

A

9 inches

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227
Q

What type of building is made of concrete slabs that have been raised into place to form exterior walls of a structure?

A

Tilt up

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228
Q

Tilt ups can be up to how many stories?

A

5 stories

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229
Q

One of the more popular building materials used in various types of buildings old and new is what?

A

Brick

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230
Q

Brick buildings (pre 33) constructed up until the 1930s are commonly classified as what type of masonry?

A

Unreinforced masonry (URM)

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231
Q

What does the mortar on a pre 33 building consist of?

A

Sand and lime (no cement)

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232
Q

How thick are the walls on a pre 33 building?

A

13 inches

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233
Q

Parapet walls on a pre 33 building can extend 3 feet above the roof line and how many feet or more if used as a facade on the front of the building?

A

5 feet or more

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234
Q

How are the floor and joist systems set inside the exterior walls on a pre 33?

A

“Let”

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235
Q

Roof and floor joists are what on a pre 33 so they would pull loose from the exterior walls during a fire and collapse into the interior of the building without pulling down the walls?

A

“Fire cut” (ends were cut with an angle)

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236
Q

What revisions were made to pre 33 buildings after the long beach earthquake of 1933 (included on post 33 buildings)?

A

9 inch thick walls
Masonry walls required to be reinforced (steel rebar)
Rafters and joists anchored to walls
Cement utilized in mortar
Diagonal roof sheathing

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237
Q

How were rafters and joists bolted to a masonry wall with metal hangers on post 33 buildings?

A

Ledger board

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238
Q

What revisions were made to pre 33 buildings after the Tehachapi earthquake of 1959?

A

4 to 6 inch concrete bond beam cap on top of lowered parapet walls along public ways and exits
Parapet walls not higher than 16 inches with bond beam cap
Exterior walls drilled at roof rafter level and steel anchor bar/rod installed every 4 feet and attached to roof rafter

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239
Q

Steel anchor bar/rods are secured to the exterior of the building by a plate/nut on a pre 33 after 1959 known as what which tied in the roof system to the walls?

A

Rafter tie plates

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240
Q

What revisions were made to pre 33 buildings after the 1971 sylmar earthquake?

A

Anchoring walls to floor and roof systems (tie plates and steel bracing from parapet walls to roof structural members)
Strengthening roof construction with plywood (1/2 inch) and metal straps

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241
Q

Concrete bond beams may also have been added to pre 33 buildings over windows and between what floors of multi story buildings?

A

2nd floor

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242
Q

For pre 33 characteristics, deeply recessed window frames are “set” to the inside of the wall exposing about how many inches of brick return on the exterior of a building?

A

8 inches

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243
Q

For pre 33 characteristics, windows may have arched or straight what?

A

Lintels

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244
Q

For pre 33 characteristics, King rows will have 1 row of bricks laid “on end” every how many rows for additional strength?

A

4 to 7 rows

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245
Q

What are the 7 characteristics of a pre 33 building?

A

Concrete cap
Rafter tie plates
Bond beam
Lintel
Shelf
Deep inset windows
King Row

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246
Q

For pre 33, what is primary concern or hazard?

A

Wall, roof, and floor collapse

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247
Q

For pre 33 bowstring and tied truss, the additional roof stability of plywood and metal straps can increase the potential for collapse of which walls?

A

Front and rear (primary danger)

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248
Q

Due to the presence of arch roofs that have been modified as per the Earthquake Ordinance and floor/joists rafters that have been anchored to the walls, exterior walls may suddenly collapse (during fire conditions) outward a distance that is what?

A

Equal to at least the height of the wall

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249
Q

The primary danger for pre 33 arch roofs are the front and rear wall, the secondary danger for collapse is what?

A

Side walls

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250
Q

What are the 2 safest areas for pre 33 arch roofs that may fail?

A

Corners of a building
Distance at least equal to height of the walls

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251
Q

Metal straps on roofs of buildings retrofitted for the earthquake ordinance can extend how many feet from wall?

A

3 to 4 feet (1/3 of the length of the building back from the front and rear walls running across width of roof as an additional requirement)

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252
Q

What type of buildings are primarily concrete block that form the exterior walls, strong and extensively utilized?

A

Block

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253
Q

What type of hazards are found on block construction?

A

Supporting of lightweight floor joists as well as fascades

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254
Q

What type of construction can be used on new and old style buildings which covers the exterior walls for extensive remodel additions?

A

Wood frame stucco

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255
Q

What are the hazards of wood frame stucco walls for vertical spread of fire if what type of construction is present?

A

Balloon

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256
Q

A what can be defined as an identifiable style of construction on the exterior of a building that will conceal and spread the travel (extension) of fire, which is an external attic?

A

Facade

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257
Q

Facades are used to conceal what on flat roofs?

A

Equipment and machinery

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258
Q

What 4 areas should be considered when confronted with a facade?

A

Overhang
Facade height
Supporter or unsupported
Height from roof

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259
Q

The size of a facade will have a direct effect on the what of a fire?

A

Area (what there is to burn)
Path of travel (extension)

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260
Q

The extension of fire will be affected by the presence or lack of what within a facade?

A

Fire stops

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261
Q

Facades are usually what in relation to an attic in a building?

A

Open or common

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262
Q

If a facade is exposed to fire, expect the facade to collapse outward at least what of the overhang of the facade?

A

The distance

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263
Q

For facade height, what to areas should be considered?

A

Roof line and laddering operations

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264
Q

The structural stability of a facade will be enhanced if what by pillars, posts or other means that are often used for style of decoration?

A

Supported

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265
Q

When laddering a building with a facade, ladder what portion?

A

One without facade

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266
Q

Roofs that are lower than a facade utilize what for draining and is the actual roof line?

A

Scupper

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267
Q

What on the walls of a building will also help identify the roof line with a facade?

A

Rafter tie plates

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268
Q

What buildings were constructed in the 1920s, 1930s, and 1940s, and are primarily utilized homes?

A

Bungalow and balloon construction

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269
Q

Bungalow and ballon construction is found single family dwellings and multi story habitational occupancies up to how many stories?

A

4 stories

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270
Q

What type of construction does not utilize horizontal fire blocking in the walls and plates between multiple floors separating the attic from open vertical runs in the walls?

A

Balloon construction

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271
Q

For bungalow and balloon construction, what size studs and rafters were commonly used?

A

Rough cut 2 x 4

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272
Q

2 x 3 and 2 x 4 inch rafters for roof structural members and ridge board comprised of what size can also be found in bungalow and balloon construction?

A

1 x 6 (ridge board was optional)

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273
Q

Prior to the use of conduit and romex, a pair of wires were run throughout a structure to provide electricity to the various rooms, wires were suspended on ceramic insulators and passed through ceramic tubes when necessary to pass through studs or plates, what type of wiring is this?

A

Knob and tube wiring

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274
Q

When what type of wiring is exists, particular emphasis must be placed on eliminating the electrical service to the involved structure due to exposed wires?

A

Know and tube wiring

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275
Q

What method has dramatically cut the time necessary to complete the multi-story and high-rise buildings by bolting pre-fabricated panels on the exterior of buildings?

A

Curtain construction

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276
Q

Depending on the particular method that is employed, “curtain” construction can be about what percent faster than conventional construction?

A

60%

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277
Q

Identification of curtain construction can be facilitated by what 2 things?

A

Pre fire planning and recognizing the “cube” or “smooth” look

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278
Q

What 3 general time periods can be used to characterize a building?

A

Pre 1933, 1933 to late 1950s, 1950s to present

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279
Q

Pre 1933 buildings will consist of what?

A

URM
Conventional roofs
Brick walls inclined to early collapse
Structures utilizing wood shiplap exterior, balloon and bungalow construction
Knob and tube wiring
Straight or diagonal decking

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280
Q

1933 to late 1950s buildings will consist of what?

A

Solid construction in compliance with building codes
Straight or diagonal sheathing

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281
Q

1950s to the present buildings consist of what?

A

Concrete tilt ups
Facades
Flat roofs with lightweight construction

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282
Q

The presence of what type of construction must be identified and is accomplished by pre-fire planning, familiarity with a district, recognizing the style and age of a building, and proper communications between fireground personnel?

A

Lightweight construction

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283
Q

Construction size and configuration directly effects what?

A

Fireground time

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284
Q

The primary goal of effective ventilation operations is the reduction or removal of what 3 things from a structure enclosed area in a timely manner?

A

Smoke, heat, and fire gases

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285
Q

Proper placement of blowers will assist in achieving what 5 things?

A

Assist in search, extinguishment, overhaul, and fire suppression
Reduce or eliminate products of combustion
Reduce interior temperature
Improve visibility
Increase safety
Reduce fire loss

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286
Q

Plans for ventilation operations should behind by identifying the direction (horizontal or vertical) what must travel to exit contaminated area?

A

Contaminants

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287
Q

What 2 methods are there to pressurize a a contaminated area to enhance or direct the travel of contaminants to the exterior?

A

Natural or mechanical ventilation

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288
Q

What is easily accomplished by opening floors, windows, skylights, and other similar openings?

A

Natural ventilation

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289
Q

Natural ventilation depends on what 6 factors?

A

Proximity of opening to contaminate removed
Ability of contaminants to travel unobstructed to ventilation opening
Number and size of ventilation openings
Direction of wind
Humidity
Temperature differential between interior and exterior of a building

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290
Q

What method of ventilation is used by utilizing portable blowers by forcing the movement of contaminants to exit a pre selected and/or controlled opening?

A

Pressure ventilation

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291
Q

The current methods that are utilized to provide pressurized ventilation with portable blowers are what 2 types?

A

Negative and positive pressure ventilation

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292
Q

Which method of pressurized ventilation required placing the blower inside the building to exhaust the contaminants?

A

Negative pressure

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293
Q

What are the 5 disadvantages of negative pressure ventilation?

A

Personnel exposed to contaminate to position blowers
Additional clean up and maintenance of blower
To be effective, blowers suspended utilizing straps, ladders, etc
Air flows normally in straight line from fresh air inlet to blower, limits flow of air in removing contaminants in top of room
Blocks doorways

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294
Q

Which pressurized ventilation method requires the door to be opened and a blower is positioned outside the building forcing clean, fresh, pressurized air inside (similar to blowing a balloon?

A

Positive pressure

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295
Q

The what will be equal at the top, bottom, and corners of the building common to the pressurized air?

A

Positive pressure

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296
Q

Compared to negative pressure ventilation, positive pressure is approximately how many times as effective at removing contaminants from a building?

A

Twice

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297
Q

The effective implementation of what method of pressurization is dependent on entrance opening, air flow between openings, exhaust opening, weather, training and communication?

A

Positive pressure

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298
Q

Blower must be positions so that the what of air issued from a blower will completely cover the entrance opening to eliminate contaminants brings forced back through the “unsealed portions” of the entrance opening?

A

Cone

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299
Q

Will opening multiple windows and/or doors facilitate a successful pressure ventilation operation?

A

No

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300
Q

Exhaust opening can be selected to provide what direction to ventilate contaminated?

A

Either horizontal or vertical

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301
Q

Positive pressure is most efficient when the exhaust opening is what size of the entrance opening?

A

3/4 to 1 3/4

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302
Q

If a blower is being utilized and an exhaust odor is noticeable inside the building or area to be ventilated, this is an indicator that the what is not large enough?

A

Exhaust opening

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303
Q

As in any ventilation operation, maximum efficiency can be obtained by utilizing the what direction to an advantage (windward to leeward)?

A

Prevailing wind

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304
Q

Wind can be effective on positive pressure ventilation dependent on what?

A

Wind direction and velocity

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305
Q

Positive pressure has proven effective against winds (leeward to windward) of up to how many mph?

A

25 mph

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306
Q

A single blower should be positions so that the cone of pressurized air covers the entrance opening how much?

A

JUST

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307
Q

Optimum placement of a blower is dependent on the size of the what and what of the blower?

A

Size of the opening and CFM of blower

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308
Q

Smaller blowers need to be moved where in relation to the entrance opening?

A

Back

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309
Q

Large blowers can be placed how far to the entrance opening to properly cover the opening with pressurized air?

A

Closer

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310
Q

Tilting blowers at angles more than the manufacturer designed will result in lack of what to the crank shaft?

A

Lubrication

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311
Q

Multiple blowers in series increase what?

A

CFM

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312
Q

Multiple blowers in parallel provide more what of the opening?

A

Coverage

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313
Q

For standard entrance opening maximum effectiveness is achieved by placing how many blowers in series (inline) with each other?

A

2 blowers

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314
Q

Using 2 blowers in series increases the capacity of the blower in front by what percentage?

A

10%

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315
Q

If 2 blowers of unequal CFM are used in series, place the larger blow about how many feet back from entrance and use the smaller blower behind large blower to cover entrance opening?

A

2 feet

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316
Q

If the area in front an an entrance is limited to 3 to 4 feet (raised porch) place smaller blower in entrance and larger blower how many feet back from the door using larger cone to seal entrance?

A

3 to 4 feet

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317
Q

How much more effective are blowers in parallel configuration than series configuration for a standard opening?

A

Less effective

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318
Q

For large opening, blowers should be placed in what configuration because of their ability to cover larger openings with pressurized air?

A

Parallel

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319
Q

If venting an area with no exit utilize how many blowers normally and if not effective utilize how many blowers to provide sufficient flow of air past the exhaust contaminants?

A

2 normally, 3 if not sufficient flow air past exhausting contaminants

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320
Q

Effective ventilation required what of a contaminated area within a building?

A

Systematic ventilation

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321
Q

Removing screens on windows prior to using these openings for ventilation purposes will increase the efficiency by what percent?

A

50%

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322
Q

Which multi habitations occupancy may require creative techniques for smoke removal do to lack of ponet doors?

A

2 story center hallway apartments

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323
Q

What type of blowers will produce considerably more cfm than the same size gasoline blowers and should be considered for metro rail tunnels, high rise, large underground parking structures, and very large commercial buildings?

A

Water powered blowers

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324
Q

Depending on the fire, concentrations of carbon monoxide within the range of how many PPM are easily obtainable during overhaul operations?

A

500 to 1200 PPM

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325
Q

500 PPM of carbon monoxide can be inhaled for how long without appreciable effects?

A

1 hour

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326
Q

700 ppm of carbon monoxide inhaled for how long will cause some appreciable effects?

A

1 hour

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327
Q

1200 ppm of carbon monoxide inhaled for how long is dangerous?

A

1 hour

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328
Q

Concentrations of 4000 ppm of carbon monoxide and over at fatal in less than how long?

A

1 hour

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329
Q

Measurements during actual overhaul operations have indicated that positive pressure can easily reduce carbon monoxide concentrations how many ppm to 130 to 220 ppm?

A

1000 ppm

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330
Q

An 18 inch blower is adequate for an average how many square foot home?

A

2000 square feet

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331
Q

If any fire does begin to accelerate or spread when using the blower, turn the blower hoe many degrees away from opening?

A

90 degrees

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332
Q

Positive pressure should never be utilized in place of what and should always be used when personnel encounter hazardous atmospheres?

A

SCBA

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333
Q

How many elevator manufacturers are there?

A

Over 60

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334
Q

It is not uncommon for a single elevator to have features and special equipment offered by how many manufacturers, resulting in a wide variety of elevators with unique characteristics?

A

Several

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335
Q

What 2 types of elevators are there?

A

Cable operated elevators and hydraulic elevators

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336
Q

Cable elevators are sometimes referred to as what kind of elevator?

A

Electric elevator

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337
Q

What type of elevator consist of a shaft, elevator car, cables, counterweights, vertical tracks, emergency safety brakes, and equipment room for electric motor and winding drum?

A

Cable elevator

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338
Q

What 2 types of cable elevators are there?

A

Drum type and traction type

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339
Q

What type of cable elevator is limited to 150 foot lifts and slow speeds with winding drum that have 1 or more cables that pass through it to a moving counterweight and attached to car and is no longer manufactured (more equipment, more space required)?

A

Drum type

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340
Q

Where is the equipment room located for a drum type elevator?

A

Basement or roof

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341
Q

What type of elevator is used for greater lifts and speed, use a traction sheave, cables attached to car and pass over traction sheave to counterweights?

A

Traction type

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342
Q

Cables passing over the traction sheave unwind as fast as they wind and car speed is dependent on size of what along with the electric motor speed?

A

Traction sheave

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343
Q

What 2 types of traction equipment are there?

A

High speed direct traction or gearless type traction
Geared traction type

344
Q

High speed direct traction or fearless type traction consists of a slow speed what type of voltage motor directly coupled to a traction sheave with a brake wheel mounted on the motor shaft?

A

Slow speed DC motor

345
Q

Geared traction type used a high speed motor, the motor is geared to a traction sheave through what type of gears with a brake wheel between the gears and motor?

A

Work gear

346
Q

Due to less weight, traction type elevator equipment rooms are located where?

A

On roof or above elevator shaft

347
Q

What type of elevator are generally limited to how many stories and use hydraulic power?

A

Hydraulic elevators

348
Q

Older hydraulic elevators are raised and lowered by a ram powered by what type of fluid to provide pressure?

A

Water

349
Q

Newer installations of hydraulic elevators use what type of pressure to power ram?

A

Oil pressure

350
Q

Some less modern hydraulic elevators that travel over how many stories may use cables and counterweights?

A

6 stories

351
Q

Equipment rooms for hydraulic elevators are normally located at lower level of building but can be at any floor level or how many feet away from shaft?

A

50 to 100 feet

352
Q

The equipment room for a hydraulic elevator will contain what?

A

Controller or relay panel (electronics)
Hydraulic power unit

353
Q

Reservoir supply, hydraulic pump, and valves to raise and lower car are all apart of what equipment in the equipment room for hydraulic elevators?

A

Hydraulic power unit

354
Q

What kind of elevator (cable and hydraulic) are designed to quickly move passengers to different levels within a multi story building?

A

Passenger elevators

355
Q

Passenger elevators are normally faster than freight elevators and are often used as what type of elevator that can not stop at all floors?

A

Express elevator

356
Q

What elevators are generally less complicated and are larger than passenger elevators?

A

Freight elevators

357
Q

Freight elevators can be as large as how many feet and have a carry capacity of 3 tons?

A

12 x 14 feet

358
Q

Freight elevators are generally separate from the main lobby and can have what 3 types of access?

A

Street, alley or loading dock access

359
Q

The door on the elevator car is referred to as what and travels with the car?

A

Inner or car door

360
Q

The door that is seen from the outside on each floor of the building is referred to as what door?

A

Outer or hoistway door

361
Q

Outer doors can be opened or closed by electric motors or what for emergency incidents?

A

Manually

362
Q

All types of doors are designed with a safety feature that will cause a car to stop whenever which door is opened?

A

Car door

363
Q

What 4 types of elevator doors are there?

A

Swing hall
Center opening
Single slide
2 speed

364
Q

For 2 speed doors one door moves how much faster than the other door so booth doors will meet concurrently in the open position?

A

2 speed

365
Q

Elevator doors are normally opened by a power unit that is located where where the elevator car is level with a floor landing?

A

On top of the car

366
Q

What contacts rollers on the hoistway door which released the door latch on the hoistway door?

A

Pick up arm (clutch, vane, bayonet, or cam)

367
Q

The bottom of the door is equipped with what made of various plastic or phenolic materials?

A

Gib blocks

368
Q

Gib blocks are how wide, high, and thick?

A

3” wide, 1” tall, 1/2” thick

369
Q

Gib blocks are installed every how many inches across the underside
Of the door panel?

A

18 inches

370
Q

Gib blocks provide stability to the hoistway door as it opens and closes, and can be expected to utilize how many gib blocks?

A

2

371
Q

A centrifugal force governor is provided on most elevators to guard against over speeding when the car travels in excess of what percentage of the top speed to stop device?

A

20%

372
Q

Safeties are installed where to provide positive emergency stopping when activated by the governor?

A

Bottom of elevator car and occasionally on counterweights

373
Q

On elevators capable of high speeds, what are forced between w jaws and the vertical rail is gripped with increasing force to slow a runaway elevator car to a gradual stop?

A

Wedges

374
Q

What 4 types of rescue procedures can be used to make an elevator rescue?

A

Moving an elevator
Adjacent car rescues
Forcing doors
Breathing elevator shafts

375
Q

When it has been determined that an occupant is trapped in an inoperative elevator, position personnel equipped with portable radios at what 2 locations?

A

Elevator equipment room and floor where elevator is inoperable

376
Q

When establishing communication with the occupants inside an elevator, have the trapped passengers verify the status of what button in the car?

A

Emergency stop button

377
Q

In the equipment room, personnel should verify if power is on or off to elevator by check what?

A

Electrical circuits (main switch and fuses)

378
Q

Occasionally circuits are tripped on an elevator due to what?

A

Overheating

379
Q

How long should you turn the power off to an elevator to recycle and reset the power?

A

30 seconds

380
Q

Do not attempt to rescue trapped passengers from an inoperative elevator unless what is disconnected?

A

Power to elevator

381
Q

Elevator doors on hydraulic elevators (some cable) will open if the elevator is how many inches above or below floor zone?

A

6 inches

382
Q

Elevator doors on cable elevators will open if elevator is within how many inches above or below floor zone?

A

18 inches

383
Q

How many valves are located in the hydraulic power unit to move the car?

A

3 (raise, lower, level car to floor landing)

384
Q

Most bleeder valves have a manual lowering screw built into the valve and are marked 1 of 3 ways?

A

ML, MAN, MANUAL

385
Q

When a inner car door is open and the outer door remains closed, instruct the passengers to the move the latching mechanism (metal rod) on the outer door in what direction?

A

Upward

386
Q

For a cable elevator rescue, how many members stay at the car and how many go to the equipment room?

A

1 at the car, 2 to the equipment room

387
Q

What 3 pieces of equipment should members take to the equipment room for a cable elevator rescue?

A

2 claw tools, pipe wrench (or large channel locks), chalk (to mark and show movement of hub)

388
Q

When moving an elevator, it is generally easier to move the car in which direction due to the counterweights?

A

Upward

389
Q

When an inoperative elevator shares a common shaft with an operational elevator, it is possible to do what from an adjacent elevator and should be used as a last resort?

A

Effect a rescue

390
Q

When doing a car to car rescue, position the operable elevator to the inoperable elevator and deactivate which button on both elevators?

A

Emergency stop button

391
Q

The top emergency exit panels are secured by what and are arranged so the cover can be opened from both the inside and outside of the elevator?

A

Thumb screws

392
Q

Does the emergency elevator cover open inward or outward?

A

Outward

393
Q

Frequently a what is provided in a metal box on top of the elevator which can be lowered through the exit opening after the cover is removed?

A

Rope or chain ladder

394
Q

Side emergency exits on elevators are usually what dimension?

A

16 inches wide, 5 feet high

395
Q

Side emergency exits open in which direction?

A

Inward

396
Q

Side emergency exits on elevators are held in place by how many fasteners so they can operated by from both inside and outside of an elevator?

A

4 fasteners

397
Q

The hinged emergency exit panel is provided with a lock arrangement so that it can be operated from what side of the elevator with a key kept on premises by person responsible for maintenance and operation of elevator?

A

Inside elevator car

398
Q

When performing a car to car rescue using side emergency exit doors use a short plank such as what through both cars?

A

Ladder

399
Q

What can be used to force open center opening doors when a patient is not stable?

A

Air bags

400
Q

For forcing elevator doors open? Insert a Hayward, crowbar, or other similar tool at which portion of the door enough to inset a small bag?

A

Top portion

401
Q

Removing gib blocks cannot be utilized when the inoperative elevator is located at what floor of the building?

A

Top floor

402
Q

For removing gib blocks, position personnel in the elevator room, floor landing where elevator is inoperative, and which other landing?

A

Floor above

403
Q

Access panels to blind shafts are located how often?

A

Every 3 floors or 80 feet apart

404
Q

When breaching an elevator shaft, the opening should be made on the what side of the shaft?

A

Elevator car door side

405
Q

Consider using the heavy rescue for wall breaching of an elevator, their jackhammers will go anywhere what size hose line will go?

A

1” hose line

406
Q

When breaching an elevator shaft, if necessary to use a ladder from the wall opening to the top of the car on a blind shaft, what should be considered for use on rescue personnel?

A

Life lines

407
Q

If life lines are used, consider use of what type of taskforce for any type of rope rescue?

A

USAR task force

408
Q

When a fire occurs in an elevator equipment room, the probably seat of the fire will be what?

A

The driving motors

409
Q

Whenever possible use of water on elevator equipment should be avoided or what?

A

Used sparingly

410
Q

For elevator shaft fires, the main source of fuel is debris in the what?

A

Put

411
Q

Due to the 1971 earthquake in Sylmar and the 1994 northridge earthquake, over how many elevators were put out of service due to initial shock and aftershocks?

A

1000 elevators

412
Q

What consists of steps, a driving motor, and gearing to form a continuous belt or track running on a set of gears?

A

Escalators

413
Q

An escalator traveling between 90 to 120 feet per minute can carry as many as how many passengers per hour?

A

5000

414
Q

For escalators, by clearing all escalator of all passengers, the treads can be moved backward by what pressure?

A

Hand pressure (older installation use crowbar or similar tool)

415
Q

When cover plate on escalator is removed, the plate screws should be completely removed from the plate and plate lifted in what direction rather than backwards or away from victim?

A

Straight up

416
Q

Part of an elevator shaft that is 3 or more consecutive floors has no hoistway doors to access the floors and is known as what?

A

Blind section

417
Q

What type of elevator is an elevator car that has no hoistway doors to access 3 or more consecutive floors?

A

Express elevator

418
Q

How long are pick up arms generally on a hydraulic elevator?

A

14 inches

419
Q

How long are pick up arms on a cable elevator generally?

A

36 inches

420
Q

Water covers about how much of the earths surface?

A

2/3

421
Q

Water is the what of every community, and is necessary to supply water for domestic usage and fire protection considerations?

A

Life blood

422
Q

Supply systems supply water to distribution systems, supply systems are what types?

A

Gravity or pump or both

423
Q

What water supply system used a source from lakes of reservoirs that are high elevation than the municipality?

A

Gravity system

424
Q

The pressure of water to a distribution system is determined by what of the source above the area of usage?

A

Elevation

425
Q

100 feet in height will create how much pressure of what?

A

43 psi (.433 psi per foot of elevation)

426
Q

What type of water supply system is provided when the source of water is below or same level of municipality?

A

Pump systems

427
Q

The city of LA used a combination system (gravity and pump) to supply an average of how many gallons of water per day to 4 million people?

A

600 million gallons

428
Q

What percentage of LAs water is supplied from 2 aqueducts from Sierra Nevada?

A

75%

429
Q

What percentage of LAs water is supplied from wells within the SFV?

A

15%

430
Q

What percentage of LAs water is supplied from the metropolitan water district (MWD) which supplies water from the Colorado river and state water project (Sacramento and feathers river)?

A

10%

431
Q

Pipelines within a what system can be classified as truck lines, main lines, service and customer lines?

A

Distribution system

432
Q

Trunk lines vary water from a primary source and can vary from how many inches to feet inside (constructed from iron or concrete)?

A

36 inches to 10 feet

433
Q

Mains normally run beneath a street and parallel to a curb and vary from how many inches in size (iron pipe)?

A

2 to 72 inches

434
Q

Mains can be cross connected to form what which allows shutting down a specific main within a distribution system for repairs?

A

Loop

435
Q

Water is delivered to individual structures by a combination of what lines?

A

Service and customer lines

436
Q

Service lines that run between a main and water meter can vary between how many inches in size (iron, copper, or galvanized pipe)?

A

1/2 inch to 12 inches

437
Q

Customer lines run between water meter and structures and can vary between how many inches in size (iron, copper, galvanized, or plastic)?

A

1/2 to 12 inches

438
Q

Water utility companies are normally responsible for maintenance and repair of a water distribution system including what 2 parts on the service/customer side?

A

Water meter device and shut off valves on either side of water meter

439
Q

Building owners are normally responsible for maintenance and repair of what plumbing?

A

Plumbing from output side of water meter and plumbing inside of structure

440
Q

Type and size of water service to a structure is determined by plumbing code requirements and consumption needs that result in what 3 water service configuration?

A

Domestic water only
Domestic water and water for fire protection through a single service
Domestic water and water for fire protection through separate services

441
Q

What systems are comprised of shut off valves, water meters and detector check valves, and pressure reducing valves?

A

Water service system

442
Q

What is often a centerpiece of lid that can be utilized to remove the cover?

A

A meterbox, vault, or manhole

443
Q

The centerpiece or lid normally identifies the type of utility with “WATER”, “DWP”, “LA WATER”, “LA DWP WATER”, or “CITY WATER METER” and are often marked with what color paint?

A

Blue

444
Q

Shut off valves (service, curb valves) are what 2 types of valves?

A

Non indicating and indicating valves

445
Q

What valves do not indicate open or closed and are ball or cone valves and gate valves?

A

Non indicating valve

446
Q

For non indicating valve, when closed, the valve-nut is what direction to the valve?

A

Perpendicular

447
Q

A ball or cone valve has what type of valve-but attachment on top of the valve?

A

Rectangular

448
Q

A gate valve is a non rising stem valve that has what type of valve-nut attachment at the top of the valve stem?

A

Square

449
Q

What types of valves indicate open or closed and are identified by OSY and Y valves and post indicator valves (PIV)?

A

Indicating valve

450
Q

What in the service or customer system is used to calculate water usage?

A

Water meters

451
Q

What in the service or customer system is used to allow the flow of water in 1 direction only?

A

Check valves

452
Q

Water meters are normally directly adjacent to shut off valves and vary in size from what inch?

A

1/2 to 10 inches (inlet-outlet size)

453
Q

Water meters are used to calculate water usage for what type of water service?

A

Domestic

454
Q

Compound meters are used to calculate water usage for domestic water services that can use what flows?

A

Low and high water flows

455
Q

A compound meter operated as a standard what for low water flows?

A

Water meter

456
Q

For high flows, what type of valve opens and allows the passage of large flows that are metered separately on a compound meter?

A

Check valves

457
Q

Compound meters are how many inches of larger and normally found directly adjacent to shut off valves?

A

4 inches or larger

458
Q

What type of valve and meter set are used to supply water for a closed fire protection system?

A

Detector check valve with bypass meter

459
Q

A what opens and allows water to flow straight through unmetered in a detection check valve with bypass meter?

A

Check valve

460
Q

Detector check valves can vary in size from how many inches?

A

2 to 10 inches

461
Q

Most detector check valves will use a small what in parallel with the check valves to detect leaks and unauthorized use of water?

A

Water meter

462
Q

What type of service has a domestic water meter and a detector check valve providing separate water services?

A

Combination water service

463
Q

A combination water service (water meter and check valve) may be located in the same vault or what?

A

Separate in adjacent vaults

464
Q

Pressure reducing valves used in domestic services reduce pressure, dwellings commonly use what psi?

A

40 to 80 psi

465
Q

In warm climates, water meters can be placed where?

A

Just below grade

466
Q

In warm climates, pressure reducing valves, shut off valves, and detector check valves can be located where?

A

Above or below grade

467
Q

Domestic water services will normally consist of what inch single water meter with shit off valve on one or both sides of meter in single family dwellings?

A

1/2 to 2 inch

468
Q

Water service for a domestic sprinkler system will normally be what size detector check valve that is located in a separate vault?

A

2 inch

469
Q

Hotels domestic water has what size water meter?

A

4 to 6 inch

470
Q

A hotels water for fire protection will have what size detector check valve?

A

4 to 8 inch

471
Q

Domestic water service will normally consists of what size customer lines and water meter with a shut off valve on 1 or both sides of a meter for apartments?

A

1 to 3 inch

472
Q

Water service for fire protection will vary between how many inches in apartments?

A

2 to 4 inches

473
Q

The water services for domestic water and fire protection are in what vaults located below or above ground?

A

Separate

474
Q

A common alternative to a single 1 to 3 inch water meter in an apartment is a what size equivalent water service?

A

3 inch

475
Q

The alternative 3 inch water meter in apartments consists of 2 what size water meters in adjacent vaults that are connected to a single 3 inch customer line?

A

2 inch

476
Q

If an apartment has dorthy Mae sprinkled, a separate what size fire service vault is used?

A

2 inch

477
Q

Water services to commercials depend on what requirements of a structure?

A

Water requirements and not size of structure

478
Q

A commercial occupancy with multiple occupancies such as a strip mall can be serviced with single water meter for domestic or by multiple what size water meter in separate vaults?

A

1 to 2 inch

479
Q

Multiple water meters in separate vaults that supply domestic water to a commercial is known as a what?

A

Battery

480
Q

Detector check valves will be what size for fire protection in separate vaults than domestic for a commercial?

A

2 to 4 inches

481
Q

High rise domestic and fire protection are provided by what type of service?

A

Combination (in the same vault)

482
Q

The water meter is what size in a high rise?

A

4 to 10 inches

483
Q

Detector check valves for fire protection in a high rise will be what size?

A

4 to 12 inches

484
Q

What type of sprinkler system has water in system at all times and when head is activated water immediately flows from activated heads?

A

Automatic wet pipe system

485
Q

Water is supplied by gravity tank, pressure tank, automatic fire pump or a water service system in what 3 sprinkler systems?

A

Automatic wet, automatic dry, and deluge system

486
Q

What sprinkler system has compressed air in pips and when head is activated, air is immediately released causing water to enter system to activated heads?

A

Automatic dry pipe system

487
Q

What type of sprinkler system has dry pipes at all times and required fire department apparatus to pump water into FDC to supply water to activated heads?

A

Non automatic system

488
Q

What type of sprinkler system may be open or closed and are supplied with water by heat actuated valves?

A

Deluge system

489
Q

When closing a ball, cone, or gate valve that is how many inches of larger, it may be necessary to exercise a valve to completely eliminate the flow of water as valves become encrusted with rust and scale?

A

3 inches or larger

490
Q

Occasionally a shut off valve may be encountered with a sign that says “life support machine in area” or “shut gate system divide”, do not turn them off unless what is obtained?

A

Appropriate approval

491
Q

If a stubborn cone valve is encountered, slightly loosen the but and the bottom of the valve and strike the threaded shaft with a what?

A

Hammer

492
Q

Do ball valves have a nut on the bottom of the valve?

A

No, cones do

493
Q

All shut off valves should be closed and opened slowly to avoid what?

A

Water hammer

494
Q

Shutting off water leaks that are located outside of structures are normally limited to leaks in mains, service lines or customer lines and normally handled by who?

A

Utility company personnel

495
Q

Leaks in customer lines between a water meter, detector check valve, and structure are normally handled by who?

A

Fire service personnel

496
Q

What PPE is recommended for sheared hydrants?

A

Helmet, goggles, turnouts or rain gear

497
Q

How large is the painted blue cap for the hydrant gate valve?

A

6 inches

498
Q

How many turns may be required to shut off a sheared fire hydrant?

A

18 to 26 turns

499
Q

Approximately what percent of the hydrants in LA will shut off in a clockwise direction?

A

98%

500
Q

The fire hydrant gate valve is normally found in direct line with the fire hydrant and perpendicular to what?

A

Curb

501
Q

When notifying MFC of a sheared hydrant, what 3 thing must you include in your message?

A

Fire hydrant location
State of hydrant has been shut off
Number of valves operated

502
Q

MFC notify who is a sheared hydrant?

A

DWP water operating trouble board

503
Q

Pure natural gas is odorless, for leak detection odorant is added so that as little as what percent of natural gas can be detected?

A

1%

504
Q

The common odorant that natural gas is laced with is what, which is used in a solution of 1 pint per million cubic feet of gas?

A

Mercapitan/thiophane mix

505
Q

Natural gas is non toxic and not considered hazardous in small concentrations, however large amount do what and asphyxiation can occur?

A

Displaced oxygen

506
Q

Natural gas is lighter or heavier than air?

A

Lighter

507
Q

Butane and propane are heavier or lighter than air?

A

Heavier

508
Q

Natural gas has an ignition temperature of what degree?

A

1100 degrees

509
Q

Natural gas has a flammable range between what percentages?

A

4% and 14%

510
Q

Most natural gas is initially distributed through over how many miles of transmission lines from Texas, Kansas, New Mexico, Oklahoma, Arizona and the Rocky Mountain area?

A

30,000 miles

511
Q

Transmission lines maintain pressures up to what psi?

A

1000 psi

512
Q

Natural gas is generally distributed by a combination of what?

A

Transmission lines and distribution mains

514
Q

Natural gas is distributed to customers from the gas company through what?

A

Distribution mains

515
Q

Service lines comes from distribution mains and do not exceed what psi?

A

60 psi

516
Q

The pressure at the meter set assembly (MSA) is reduced to low pressure which is approximately what psi?

A

1/3

517
Q

Distribution mains are made of what material?

A

Polyethylene

518
Q

Older existing distribution mains are made of what but rare to find?

A

Steel or copper

519
Q

Polyethylene mains are color coded to identify the pipe as transporting natural gas and are what color for the national color code for newer installations?

A

Yellow

520
Q

Older installations of plastic pipe can be what colors?

A

Pink (salmon beige) or orange

521
Q

Polyethylene will have what running the length of the pipe, for locating plastic gas lines below ground?

A

Wire

522
Q

Above ground gas lines must be made of what and cannot be plastic?

A

Steel

523
Q

What are normally located underneath city streets, parallel to curbs, under grassy parkways, between the curb and sidewalk, and occasionally alleys?

A

Distribution mains

524
Q

Where are 4 places MSAs can be located?

A

Outside structure (outside set)
Underneath structure, stairs (underneath set)
Vault underneath sidewalk (curb meter box)
In an enclosure (cabinet) on exterior of structure (cabinet set)

525
Q

Transmission lines bring natural gas into Southern California and vary in diameter from how many inches?

A

12 to 36 inches

526
Q

MSAs can be categorized into what 3 categories?

A

Residential, industrial, multiple gas meter

527
Q

The basic what consists of piping, shut off valve, and gas meter?

A

MSA

528
Q

The pipe rising vertically from the ground, close to exterior wall of a structure going into MSA is called a what?

A

Riser

529
Q

The first fitting from a riser is a shut off valve called a what?

A

Stopcock or service cock

530
Q

A ring on a stop cock valve indicates what?

A

Branch service

531
Q

A flat washer on a stop cock valve indicates what?

A

Service line is plastic inserted inside older metal pipe

532
Q

A band on the stop cock valve indicates what?

A

Service line is plastic

533
Q

A flat circular device on the riser is a what and reduces the medium 60 psi pressure to a low pressure of 1/3 psi?

A

Regulator

534
Q

Shut off valves can be located by finding what since they are always adjacent to each other?

A

MSA

535
Q

Look for a what that is either chiseled or painted on the curb, which marks the location where the service line passes beneath the curb and indicates which side of the building the MSA is located?

A

“G”

536
Q

A “G” is required to be chiseled or painted on the curb by who?

A

CalOSHA

537
Q

MSAs and shut off valves are normally located on an outside wall of the structure, easily accessible to who that reads the meters for billing purposes?

A

Gas company personnel

538
Q

If an MSA is not visible along an outside wall, it will be found in 7 other locations?

A

Crawl space under building
Beneath outside staircase
Outdoor cabinet (condos)
Underground garage
Sidewalk or parkway vault on side of building
Basement (shut off valve accessible from outside)
Subsurface in parkway or sidewalk

539
Q

Some MSAs may be equipped with an emergency vibration-sensitive shut off device known as what type of valve?

A

Earthquake valve

540
Q

Earthquake valves are marketed by private industry and are normally found on what side of the MSA?

A

Discharge side (right side)

541
Q

Earthquake valves may be shut off by doing what to shut of the flow of gas in the event of a damaged or frozen stop cock only?

A

Swift kicking earth quake valve

542
Q

To reset earthquake valve, turn the reset button how many turns?

A

1/4 turn

543
Q

What type of MSA is larger than a residential MSA due to the increaed flow (volume) of gas necessary?

A

Industrial MSAs

544
Q

Industrial MSAs are a curb valve and what can be used to control the flow of gas in the service main?

A

Curb valve extension handle

545
Q

Industrial shut of valves, known as what valves, are used for high pressure applications?

A

Nordstrom valves

546
Q

Some nordstrom valves have gate valves with wheel handles that may be turned in what direction to close?

A

Clockwise

547
Q

Industrial applications can use how many regulator in series to regulate gas pressure?

A

2

548
Q

What meter is used instead of a conventional MSA to regulate high pressure and handle quick surges?

A

Rotary meter

549
Q

Meters under a sidewalk are called what meters and common in commercial areas with the lid made of lightweight concrete or fiberglass set in a metal frame?

A

Curb meters

550
Q

Multiple habitational or commercial occupancies are often equipped with multiple what, which provide a master stopcock and a separate meter and stopcock for each unit?

A

MSAs

551
Q

Who is required to identify the individual MSA’s, as to which unit or building they serve. If the identification has worn away, notify them to have the meters properly marked?

A

Gas company

552
Q

In some commercial areas, multiple structures may be commonly serviced by a single service pipe called a standard service main and is identified by what that it is a branch line?

A

Metal ring

553
Q

In a branch service, the occupancy how far away from the supply main is a standard service while the other occupancies are branch services?

A

Further from supply main

554
Q

To turn off the flow of gas, turn the tang what direction the flow of gas and to the pipe?

A

Crosswise

555
Q

Tangs can be easily turned with what tool?

A

Crescent wrench

556
Q

If the tang is stuck do not apply too much pressure, who is recommended to service a stuck tang?

A

Gas company

557
Q

Stuck tangs can be approached in what type of conditions by the fire department?

A

Emergency

558
Q

For a stuck tang, use how many wrenches?

A

2 wrenches

559
Q

For a stuck tang, place 1 wrench on the backing nut and 1 on the tang, loosen the backing nut how many turns?

A

1/4 turn

560
Q

If backing nut is loosened too far, the core can fly out, leaking medium press gas of what psi?

A

40 to 60 psi

561
Q

Newer stop cocks have what driven into the backing nut and bolt and cannot be loosened?

A

Pin

562
Q

Once the backing nut is loosened tap it with what, freeing the core?

A

Non-metallic hammer

563
Q

Turn the tang 1/4 turn to stop the flow of gas, how many turns will continue to let gas flow?

A

1/2 turn

564
Q

Once the core is free, tighten the backing nut to lock the core in what position?

A

Off

565
Q

The tang on a Nordstrum valve can only be turned how many turns, in either direction, ensuring the “ON” and “OFF” positions are easy to locate

A

1/4 turn

566
Q

Curb valves are also referred to as what?

A

Emergency shut off valve

567
Q

Curb valves can be installed in addition to what at public assemblies such as school, hospitals, churches, etc and are normally located near the property line, by a sidewalk?

A

Stopcocks

568
Q

Some industrial meters are equipped with a gate valve that has a wheel handle to what type of indicating valve?

A

OS AND Y

569
Q

Curb valves are how many feet underground and under a small metal, concrete or fiberglass lid with “Gas Company” markings in raised letters?

A

2 to 3 feet

570
Q

What tool can be used to lift the lid on a curb valve by inserting it in the hole?

A

Common utility tool or screwdriver

571
Q

If the lid is stuck to gain access to a curb valve, insert the point of what tool in the hole and apply the proper leverage?

A

Pickhead axe

572
Q

Curb valves are ordinary gate valves with what type of handle?

A

“Faucet” type handle

573
Q

If the curb valve is too deep to reach with the hand, what type of key can be used for extra reach?

A

Sprinkler key (utility shut off tool)

574
Q

Natural gas emergencies can be divided into what 3 categories?

A

Inside leaks, outside leaks, leaks resulting in fires

575
Q

Of the 3 types of gas leaks, which is the greatest danger due to potential for ignition and explosion?

A

Inside leak

576
Q

What is the first priority upon arrival on the scene of a reported gas leak?

A

Safety

577
Q

A faint whiff of gas or a leak which has “what” for the past few days may allow more leeway to perform a leak examination as opposed to heavy odor of gas?

A

“Come and gone”

578
Q

For faint odors, always check the condition of what as a first action?

A

Pilot lights

579
Q

What can be used to check suspected areas to confirm a presence of a leak?

A

Soapy water

580
Q

Sometimes, turning the appliance valve near the problem how many turns, the leak can be stopped leaving the rest of the premises unaffected?

A

1/4 turn

581
Q

In multi-meter service occupancies, additionally the service pipe coming through the slab prior to the MSAs, there will be a master valve called what which stops the flow to all tenants in the building on the service pipe?

A

Isolation valve stop cock

582
Q

Multiple MSAs are referred to as what?

A

Header

583
Q

For inside leaks avoid operating what by turning them ON and OFF due to cause of sparking?

A

Electrical switches

584
Q

For inside leaks also avoid walking on what in dry weather to prevent sparks from static eletricity?

A

Carpets

585
Q

If it is determined to be unsafe to enter a structure due to a leak, turn off gas meter, spot apparatus in safe zones, and establish a water supply to prepare for what operations?

A

Fire suppression

586
Q

Outside leaks are often where?

A

Gas service pipe or other underground lines into buildings or manholes

587
Q

Gas that travels through the ground tens to deoderize as what filters out the odorant?

A

Soil

588
Q

For outside leaks, call who because they can only shut down transmission or distribution lines?

A

Gas company

589
Q

The fire departments role at the site of an outside gas leak is what?

A

Public safety

590
Q

For outside gas leaks, place apparatus upwind of the leak and away from what that contain trapped gas?

A

Manhole covers, storm drains, or structures

591
Q

How long can it take the gas company to shut off gas in a large, high pressure pipeline?

A

Several hours

592
Q

The only sure way to safely check suspected areas of gas leaks is to use what?

A

Combustible gas indicators

593
Q

Currently which companies carry equipment that can be used to detect the presence of natural gas and its LEL?

A

Hazmat companies

594
Q

The gas company used to teach its members a technique known as the what for controlling the flow of gas in small diameter pipes but is not against the gas companys policy?

A

Bend-back method

595
Q

Crimping plastic pipes is acceptable as long as all tools used to work on plastic pipes are what?

A

Grounded

596
Q

Redwood plugs can be driven into various diameter steel pipes with what?

A

Rubber mallet (Wooden, rubber, plastic or brass)

597
Q

Redwood plugs do not work on what type of piping?

A

Polyethylene pipe

598
Q

Pipelines on rare occasions can contain hazardous contaminats such as what?

A

Polychlorinated biphenyls

599
Q

The gas company states that its product is what percent free from impurities?

A

97%

600
Q

Whenever a gas travels through piping, it can create what type of charge on the pipe?

A

Static electric

601
Q

Fog down plastic gas pipes with a wetting agent such as what to prevent ignition from static electricity which will add an adhesive quality to water that helps insure that a static charge cannot form?

A

Wet water

602
Q

Some plastic pipes are equipped with a what that is used to help work crews locate the pipe from above ground and does not provide an electrical chage?

A

Wire

603
Q

What are the 4 considerations for a natural gas fire?

A

Protect exposures
Let gas burn until supply is shut off
Control evacuation and maintain site security
Notify gas company

604
Q

Small gas fires can be extinguished with what if necessary, approach fire at shut off valve?

A

Dry chemical or CO2 extinguisher

605
Q

For large gas fires, what type of stream can be used to approach any valves?

A

Fog stream

606
Q

What is the cylinder inside a stopcock that allows or blocks the flow of gas, it is connected to the tang and rotated by turning the tang and held in place by a backing nut?

A

Core

607
Q

What toxic gas that, on rare occasions, is present in leaks at natural gas compressor stations or at underground storage fields?

A

Hydrogen sulfide

608
Q

What is a meter that serves more than one unit, e.g., an apartment complex or mobile home park called?

A

Master meter

609
Q

The air rescue cushion is composed of how many cells?

A

2, larger upper cell and small lower cell

610
Q

Each cell on the rescue air cushion is inflated by a separate blower through a what?

A

Air tube or sock

611
Q

The cushion comes with 2 how many horsepower electric blowers?

A

1/2 horsepower

612
Q

What 3 sources can the electric blowers be connected to for a power source?

A

Truck on board generator, portable generator, and 110 supply (house current)

613
Q

The department has how many rescue cushions?

A

24

614
Q

How many rescue cushions are rated for 100 feet and 70 feet?

A

6 rated at 100 foot and 18 rated at 70 feet

615
Q

The rating of the air cushions reflect the height of what person?

A

Jumper

616
Q

The 24 air cushions have replaced how many life nets carried by truck companies?

A

47

617
Q

The assignment for a jumper incident consists of what companies?

A

1 BC
1 TF
1 ALS RA

618
Q

If an air cushion is needed, it must be specifically asked by who and the closest task force with an air cushion will be added?

A

IC

619
Q

Fire station 2, 11, 17, 85, 27, 37, 48, 50, 60, 63, 64, 69, 70, 72, 26, 93, 94, 98 all carry which rated air cushion?

A

70 feet

620
Q

Fire stations 10, 20, 58, 88, 95, and recruit training carry which rated air cushion?

A

100 feet

621
Q

What 2 situations will confront rescuers with a jumper incident?

A

Fire or industrial accident and potential suicide victim

622
Q

Every attempt must be made by the rescuers to break through what barrier and gain cooperation of the victim when confronted with a jumper in a fire or industrial situation?

A

“Fear barrier”

623
Q

For a suicide jumper, the fire department will work under the direction of who to mitigate the emergency?

A

Police department

624
Q

For a suicide jumper, rescuers should attempt to confine the jumper to what area if possible to reduce the size of the target area on the ground?

A

Small area

625
Q

The air rescue cushion is comprised of 2 separate cells, are they completely sealed off from each other?

A

No

626
Q

Air passes from lower small cell to larger upper cell by way of what between the 2 in the air cushion?

A

Small vent

627
Q

Which cell on the air cushion absorbs most of the energy generated by an impact?

A

Upper cell

628
Q

Where are the breather ports located on the air cushion which air dissipates out of from the upper cell?

A

Side and front

629
Q

The amount of air released from the air cushion is regulated by what over the breather ports?

A

Elastic cord tie

630
Q

For a former air cushion, the cord must be what so less air is released?

A

Tighter

631
Q

Does the lower cell on the air cushion have a breather port?

A

No

632
Q

The lower cell has how much more energy absorbing capability of the upper cell?

A

Twice

633
Q

Which cell provides the safety margin for the air cushion and determines the limiting height from which a person may safely fall?

A

Lower cell

634
Q

The air cushion is able to absorb and dissipate the energy of impact in less than how many seconds?

A

1/6 of a second

635
Q

What is the air cushion constructed with?

A

Vinyl reinforced fabric, fire retardant and water proof

636
Q

The tear strength of the material on the air cushion is over how many psi?

A

50 psi

637
Q

The seams of the air cushion are seen with what type of thread which is stronger than the material of the cushion

A

Heavy duty nylon thread

638
Q

If the air cushion is torn or punctured during an operation, will it seriously affect its capability?

A

No

639
Q

If the air cushion inches minor damage, what will easily compensate for the additional loss of air?

A

The electric blowers

640
Q

What 2 factors is the air cushion rating based on?

A

Max floor height and ability of person falling to properly hit the target

641
Q

The maximum floor height a person may fall is based on how many feet per floor with the person landing on the buttocks or back on the air cushion?

A

10 feet

642
Q

A person landing on the buttocks or back on the air cushion is safely below the human tolerance level as per who in “human tolerance to shock”?

A

US Air Force

643
Q

Air cushion and blowers should be moved to what area when setting up and not in target area?

A

Pre deployment area

644
Q

For suicide jumpers, the air cushion should be set up out of what?

A

View

645
Q

What are hazards that can damage the air cushion?

A

Sprinkler heads and broken glass

646
Q

Of the 3 sources of power to supply the electric blowers, which is the preferred source?

A

Truck on board generator

647
Q

The Onan on the truck has the capability of running how many blowers simultaneously?

A

2 blowers

648
Q

Portable generators carried by truck companies does not have the capability of starting how many blowers at the same time?

A

2 blowers

649
Q

The use of what is desirable (remote power sources) that add the advantage of reducing noise levels at incidents and aiding in communications?

A

110 AC power source

650
Q

As a last resort what else can be used to inflate the air cushion?

A

Portable gas blowers

651
Q

What are the 2 negatives when using gas blowers to inflate air cushion?

A

Significant amount of noise and produces
Carbon monoxide which causes long term degenerated effects to the material on air cushion

652
Q

The air cushion will full inflate in less than how many seconds?

A

20 seconds

653
Q

When the air cushion is inflated, walk around air cushion and insure that the breather port flanges are what?

A

Straight

654
Q

Drop bags should be attached to the eye of each corner of the cushion, a pre cut drop cord of how many feet works well?

A

6 feet

655
Q

The person falling into the air cushion should be instructed to fall as if they were what causing the person falling to land on the small of their back?

A

Sitting down

656
Q

If 2 people must fall at the same time into the air cushion, they should do what with each other tightly from the moment they jump until impact?

A

Hug each other

657
Q

If 2 people jumping into the air cushion fall how far apart, injury may occur?

A

Fraction of a second

658
Q

The air cushion will reinflate in how many seconds?

A

20 seconds

659
Q

Always have how many persons observing operation for reinflation and to direct movement of the air cushion?

A

1 company member

660
Q

When breaking the air cushion down, fold the air cushion into a width that will allow it to fit on the what?

A

Carrier

661
Q

When rolling the air cushion, roll it towards the what to allow residual air to be forced out of the air cushion?

A

Socks

662
Q

Never store the air cushion while what?

A

Wet (allow it to dry)

663
Q

For air cushion incidents (Task force) who is responsible for safety, supervised deployment, controls timing of jumper, ensures cushion is fully inflated and is the liaison with LAPD and IC?

A

TFC

664
Q

For air cushion incidents (task force) who is responsible for primary (portable generator) and secondary (fixed electrical) power sources and deploys lighting to target area at night?

A

AO

665
Q

For air cushion incidents (Task force) who is responsible for assisting in moving air cushion to target area and assist in deployment of air cushion?

A

Tiller, top, inside, nozzle and hydrant member

666
Q

For air cushion incidents (Task force) who is responsible for assisting in moving air cushion to target area, police target area for hazards, insure air rescue cushion is fully inflated, supervised deployment of air cushion in pre deployment area, coordinates movement of equipment?

A

Engine captain

667
Q

For air cushion incidents (Task force) who is responsible for assisting in deployment of blowers to target area, attaches blowers to sock, controls electric blower movement in coordinating with air cushion?

A

Engine engineer

668
Q

For air cushion incidents (Task force) who is responsible for assisting in deployment of blowers to target area, attaches blowers to sock, controls electric blower movement in coordinating with air cushion and moved 2 18 inch gas blowers to target areas as back up air source?

A

Pump engineer

669
Q

What 2 times should the air cushion be inspected?

A

After use and monthly

670
Q

Each air cushion comes with what for minor cuts and tears?

A

Repair kit

671
Q

If the stitching comes apart, can the air cushion be patched on a seam?

A

No

672
Q

The air cushion can be cleaned with what and should only be done if absolutely necessary to allow it to dry?

A

Cold water and deck brush

673
Q

For major damage and stitching coming apart at seams, the air cushion must be sent to who for repairs?

A

S and M

674
Q

What are the dimensions for the 70 foot (model 70A) air cushion?

A

15’x20’x8’ rated for 7th floor

675
Q

How much does the 70 foot air cushion weigh?

A

190 pounds

676
Q

How much does the 70 foot air cushion cost?

A

6,000

677
Q

What are the dimensions for the 100 foot (model 100A) air cushion?

A

20’x50’x9’, rated for 10th floor

678
Q

How much does the 100 foot air cushion weigh?

A

360 pounds

679
Q

How much does the 100 foot air cushion cost?

A

8,500

680
Q

What power is required for both air cushions in voltage AC?

A

115 V AC

681
Q

What size electric blowers power the 70 foot air cushion?

A

2 20” blowers 1/2 HP, 60 HZ

682
Q

What size electric blowers power the 100 foot air cushion?

A

1 20” and 1 24”, 1/2 HP, 60 HZ

683
Q

How long is the 1/2 static kernmantle life line, white in color with blue or red stripes stored in the red bag (mainline)?

A

300 feet

684
Q

How long is the 1/2 static kernmantle lifeline, orange in color, stored in an orange bag (belay line)?

A

200 feet

685
Q

How many class 3 harnesses (large) are carried on an engine company?

A

2

686
Q

How many class 3 harnesses (1 small/medium, 2 large) are carried on a truck company?

A

3

687
Q

How many 8mm 20’ LRHs are carried for the 2 line rope system?

A

2

688
Q

How many stainless steel brake bar racks, with 6 aluminum bars are carried in the 2 line rope system?

A

2

689
Q

How many carabiners are carried in the 2 line rope system?

A

8

690
Q

How many 8 mm 6 foot and 5 foot accessory cord are carried in the 2 line rope system?

A

2 of each

691
Q

How many blue 1” tubular webbing, 5 feet in length are carried in the 2 line rope system?

A

2

692
Q

How many yellow 1” tubular webbing, 12 feet in length are carried in the 2 line rope system?

A

2

693
Q

How many red 1” tubular webbing, 20 feet in length are carried in the 2 line rope system?

A

2

694
Q

How many inspection record sheets (F-975) are carried in each bag?

A

1

695
Q

How many 2”x7’ anchor strap with D rings at both ends are carried in the 2 line rope system?

A

1

696
Q

How many pieces of yellow multi-poop webbing, 3 foot in length are carried in the 2 line rope system?

A

2

697
Q

What percentage of the load is carried on (kern) core for the 1/2” static kernmantle rope?

A

90%

698
Q

What is the 1/2” kernmantle rope rated at?

A

10,000 pounds

699
Q

How much does the 1/2” kernmantle rope weight per 100 feet?

A

7 pounds

700
Q

The 1/2” kernmantle rope meets what NFPA standard for 1 and 2 person rescues?

A

1995

701
Q

What known as the rated breaking strength of the rope when pulled in a straight line, with no knots, under laboratory conditions to a point where it can be excoriated to break?

A

Tensile strength

702
Q

What will reduce the tensile strength of rope?

A

Age of rope and knots

703
Q

To determine the safe working load of a rope, you divide the manufacturers rated tensile strength by the NFPA safety factor of what?

A

15

704
Q

What is the working load of the 1/2” kernmantle rope?

A

666 pounds (10,000 divided by 15), exceeds NFPA standard of 600 pounds for a 2 person rope

705
Q

The best way to remove dirt particles from a rope is to place rope in what and placing it in washing machine on gentle cycle in cold water?

A

Mesh bag of pillow case

706
Q

What 3 approved cleaners can be used to wash lifeline rope?

A

Lifeline cleaner, ivory snow, or woolite

707
Q

Rope ends should be swapped end to end how often to reduce wear on the most used part of the rope?

A

Annually

708
Q

When ropes and software are not in use, store them in a cool dry location away from direct exposure to what due to UV radiation?

A

Sunlight

709
Q

Protect ropes and software from extended contact with what 4 types of chemicals?

A

Alkaline, oxidizing agents, bleaching compounds, and acids

710
Q

Static kernmantle rope has a melting point of what degree?

A

450 degrees

711
Q

What are the 3 approved markers for lifeline rope?

A

Carter’s MARKS-A-LOT, stanford SHARPIE, and binney-smith MAGIC MARKER

712
Q

What does 1 strip and 2 strips mean when marking lifeline rope?

A

1 strip is for odd years, 2 strips is for even years

713
Q

When are the 4 times the F-975 should be logged?

A

When receiving it, training, emergency incidents, monthly checks

714
Q

During monthly checks if any problems encountered call who and be guided by their direction?

A

USAR 88

715
Q

What 5 things do you inspect the lifeline rope for?

A

Sheath is abraded, fuzzy, exposing core
Rope is lumpy or hard
Rope has hourglass shape
Rope comes in contact with chemical
Rope has been shock loaded

716
Q

Rope can be damaged if left on floor due to what?

A

Concrete contains acid and stepping on rope grinds in dirt

717
Q

Rope can be damaged from wet or damp areas because it promotes growth of what?

A

Mold and mildew

718
Q

Stepping on or dragging the rope on ground will contaminate it with what which can work into core and damage fibers?

A

Dirt and grit

719
Q

One of the most convenient ways of storing, transporting and protecting lifeline rope is in what?

A

A bag

720
Q

Lifeline rope should be secured to the bottom of the bag by tying what knot?

A

Figure 8 stopper

721
Q

What are the 4 advantages of using lifeline rope inside of a bag?

A

Rope can be flaked faster than coiling
Protects rope from damage
Rope pays out if worn for rappelling
Rope is easy to deploy

722
Q

What type of webbing is constructed of single layer of material similar to ladder straps, less expensive, stiffer and more difficult to work with than tubular webbing?

A

Flat webbing

723
Q

What 2 types of tubular webbing is there?

A

Edge stitched and spiral weave (shuttle loom)

724
Q

Of the 2 types of tubular webbing, which one is the standard in rope rescue operations?

A

Spiral weave

725
Q

The 1” tubular webbing is rated at how many pounds?

A

4000

726
Q

What is accessory 8 mm nylon cord rated at to make LRHs and prusik loops?

A

3630 pounds

727
Q

“D” shaper carabiners are rated at how many pounds?

A

9000 pounds

728
Q

What are the 4 basic parts of a carabiner?

A

Spine, hinge, gate, latch

729
Q

The “D” shaped carabiner is designed to carry the load along what side?

A

Spine

730
Q

What 3 things should you never do to a carabiner?

A

Never tighten using channel locks
Never re-tighten under a load
Never side load a carabiner

731
Q

Carabiners should be placed in a system so that the gate is where and gravity keeps the unlocking screw closed?

A

Bottom

732
Q

What equipment is the preferred friction device among vertical cavers and rescue teams?

A

Brake bar racks

733
Q

How many aluminum bars are attached to the brake bar rack?

A

6

734
Q

The welded eye on the brake bar rack is rated at how many pounds?

A

10,000 pounds

735
Q

The rope is woven through the brake bar rack starting with the large bar that has what type of groove manufactured in it?

A

Training

736
Q

If the rope is woven through the bars incorrectly in the brake bar, and a load is applied to safety check it, what will the bars do?

A

“Pop” off and release rope

737
Q

For a single person load (rappel or lower) start with how many bars?

A

4

738
Q

For a 2 person load, start with how many bars?

A

5

739
Q

The maximum bars to be used in an operation on a brake bar is 6, what is the minimum?

A

3

740
Q

One method of adjusting the amount of friction in the system while using the brake bars is controlled by what?

A

Sliding bars on rack

741
Q

Tying off the brake bar rack required how many half hitched after wrapping the rope twice over the yoke?

A

2

742
Q

How often should checks be made of the welded eye of the brake bar rack and to ensure the rack is not bent?

A

Periodic

743
Q

The aluminum bars in the brake bar should be checked how often?

A

Routinely

744
Q

What frictioning/lowering/rappelling device comes with or without ears, tend to twist the rope during use, and once on the rope it is difficult to increase friction?

A

Figure 8 plate

745
Q

Rappelling or lowering operations over how many feet require a brake bar rack to be used due to twisting of the rope?

A

75 feet

746
Q

What are used to reduce friction on turns and allows you to build mechanical advantage systems?

A

Pulleys

747
Q

The strength of the rope is restored fully when placed over a turn of a pulley that is at least how many times the diameter of the rope?

A

4 times

748
Q

Pulleys can have what type of side plates with single or double sheaves?

A

Stainless steel or aluminum

749
Q

What 2 types of pulleys does the LAFD use?

A

2 1/2 aluminum prusik minding pulley and 4 inch stainless steel

750
Q

For the class 3 harnesses, the rear strap support should be adjusted to the middle of the back, just below what?

A

The shoulders

751
Q

For the class 3 harnesses, how many types of rear strap supports are there?

A

2, 1 with “D” ring for fall support and 1 with just back support

752
Q

What are the small loops used for on the waist of the class 3 harness?

A

Attachment for extra equipment (webbing and carabiners only), WILL NOT SUPPORT YOUR WEIGHT

753
Q

The straps for the class 3 harness should be secured by the keepers, if keeps brake off how can the straps be secured?

A

Electrical tape or tie off with overhand knot

754
Q

What is the proper tightening order for the straps on the class 3 harness?

A

Waist first, legs second, chest third

755
Q

When connecting the main and belay line, which line goes to the waist and which line goes to the chest on the class 3 harness?

A

Main to waist, belay to chest

756
Q

Main and belay line should be connected to the class 3 harness by what knot with a carabiner?

A

Figure 8 on a night

757
Q

If you do not have a carabiner to connect to the class 3 harness, what 2 knots can you use?

A

Figure 8 follow through or bowline backed up with a double overhand knot

758
Q

What efficiency is measured by the percentage of rope strength that remains after a knot is tied on the rope?

A

Knot efficiency

759
Q

Many of the knots used in the departments rope rescue systems belong to what family of knots?

A

Figure 8

760
Q

What knot can be used to tie off knots in webbing (seat harness) and in making other knots?

A

Overhand knot

761
Q

What knot can be used to make a double half hitch or single half hitch?

A

Half hitch

762
Q

What knot is used to create a load releasing hitch and supply friction in all types of rope systems?

A

Munter hitch

763
Q

What knot has a variety of uses to secure webbing/rope to an anchor and secure a nozzle using a drop bag?

A

Birth hitch/larks foot

764
Q

What knot is used in many applications such as securing an extinguisher or crow bar?

A

Clover hitch

765
Q

What knot is also a stopper knot, recommenced for the end of a throwbag, lifeline and drop bag and has a 75% knot efficiency?

A

Figure 8 stopper knot

766
Q

What knot is used to tie the end of a rope around an anchor and has an 80% knot efficiency?

A

Figure 8 follow through

767
Q

Which knot is on a bight and created a loop at the end of the rope for attaching anchors, hardware, and other ropes with the use of a carabiner and has an 80% knot efficiency?

A

Figure 8 on a bight

768
Q

What knot is used to tie 2 ropes of the same size together and has an 80% knot efficiency?

A

Figure 8 on a bend

769
Q

What knot is strong and has 2 loops to reduce wear and strength loss from the rope bending around the carabiner by splitting the load between 2 loops and has an 80% knot efficiency?

A

Double figure 8 on a bight

770
Q

Accessory cord is made from
Nylon kernmantle rope and ranges from what millimeters in diameter?

A

6 mm to 10 mm

771
Q

When using accessory cord for prusik loops, the cord used should not be less than how many inches or more than 2/3 the diameter of the rope it is to be tied on?

A

1/2 inch

772
Q

The LAFD used what size prusik loops (accessory cord) on all 1/2 inch static kernmantle rope?

A

8 mm

773
Q

What knot is used to tie 2 ends of accessory cord together to create a prusik loops, a good knot for attaching 2 equal or unequal diameter ropes together, used to back up bowlines, and has an 80% knot efficiency?

A

Double overhand bend or “double fisherman”

774
Q

The prusik on the main line acts as a what?

A

Brake

775
Q

The tandem prusik (2 prusik) on the belay do what?

A

Arrest a fall

776
Q

When placing the prusik on a lifeline, wrap it how many times?

A

3

777
Q

What knot is used to join 2 pieces of webbing together and has a knot efficiency of 65%

A

Water knot

778
Q

What knot is use to put a loop in the end of a length of webbing but can set very tight, making it difficult to untie?

A

Overhand loop

779
Q

What knot around any anchor point requires at least 3 wraps, has 100% knot efficiency?

A

Tensionless hitch or “no knot”

780
Q

When using a no knot, the rope should not cross over itself when wrapped, if anchor is above the load, the rope be should spiral wrapped up with the standing end where in case the load has to be lowered slightly?

A

At the top

781
Q

What knot should be backed up with a double overhand knot for safety and has a 65% knot efficiency?

A

Bowline

782
Q

What knot is used to tie a loop in the middle of a rope in situations where the ends of the rope may also be carrying a load and has a 75% knot efficiency?

A

Butterfly knot

783
Q

What type of hitch is utilized by the LAFD constructed of 8 mm accessory cord and is 20 feet long, designed to act as a shock absorber when main and belay line are shock loaded or to pass knots through the system?

A

Load releasing hitch (LRH)

784
Q

When making the LRH, take the 2 bitter ends and tie an overhand knot in them, leaving how long of a tail?

A

2 inch

785
Q

After making the Munter hitch on the LRH, pull slack on rope through the Munter hitch until carabiners touch, pull carabiners apart until Munter hitch flips over, how big should the space be between the carabiners?

A

4 to 5 inches

786
Q

For the LRH, how many wraps between the carabiners?

A

3 to 6 times

787
Q

When using a class 2 harness, what other harness should also be used?

A

Chest harness

788
Q

To tie a chest harness, use a piece of 1” tubular webbing approximately how many feet in length?

A

10 to 14 feet

789
Q

Can the main and belay line share the same anchor if it is bomb proof?

A

Yes, but must be attached by separate piece of webbing

790
Q

When considering if an anchor is bomb proof, compare it to measuring up to department what?

A

Apparatus

791
Q

Pockets are 1 inch round steel stacks and should be how many feet in length?

A

3 feet

792
Q

Pickets are pounded 2 feet into the ground at what degree away from the object?

A

15 degrees

793
Q

General guidelines were developed by who for loading picket anchor systems in “average” loamy soil?

A

US Army

794
Q

How many pounds is a single picket rated at?

A

700

795
Q

How many pounds is a 1-1 picket system rated at?

A

1400 pounds

796
Q

How many pounds is a 1-1-1 picket system rated at?

A

1800

797
Q

How many pounds is a 2-1 picket system rated at?

A

2000

798
Q

How many pounds is a 3-2-1 picket system rated at?

A

4000

799
Q

What type of PPE is required for the 2 line rope system?

A

Brush jacket, helmet, eye protection, and gloves

800
Q

What are the minimum members needed for a 2 line rope system operation?

A

4, one rescuer, one main line tender, one belay tender, one technical safety officer

801
Q

The Munter hitch on the LRH hitch goes towards what?

A

The anchor

802
Q

When tending to the belay line, the lead hand holds the belay line and puts what type of turn in the line?

A

“Z” turn

803
Q

Commands during a lowering operation are given by the member in charge which could be who?

A

TSO, rescuer, or member put into that position

804
Q

When working within how many feet to the edge, you must be tied off?

A

5 feet

805
Q

If you must see over the edge without a rope, do what and look over?

A

Crawl up slowly on your stomach

806
Q

Who shall inspect and approve all system components prior to starting any operation with ropes?

A

TSO

807
Q

The LAFD believes how many ropes should always be used in a system?

A

Two ropes

808
Q

What 3 tools can be used as a reaching device for grabbing a victim during a swift water operation?

A

D handled pike pole, D handled rubbish hook, or a 6 foot pole with a D handle at both ends

809
Q

The crossfire portable monitor is manufactured by what company?

A

Task force tips

810
Q

What 5 components make up the TFT crossfire portable monitor?

A

Cross fire upper assembly
Stow-a-way 800 base
Built in shut off
Master stream 1000 selectable spray tip
Tie down strap

811
Q

Low nozzle elevation angles can cause the portable monitors to slide or lift resulting in injury or death, do not operate the monitor on the portable base below the what?

A

Elevation safety stop

812
Q

To prevent the monitor from sliding, make sure base legs all locked in position and all what in contact with the ground?

A

Leg spikes

813
Q

To prevent the portable monitor from sliding, securely tie the monitor to an object capable of withstanding how many pounds of force?

A

900 pounds

814
Q

What type of streams are powerful and capable of causing injury and property damage?

A

Master streams

815
Q

What 3 safety headings does the portable monitor provide?

A

Danger, warning, caution

816
Q

How much does the crossfire upper assembly weigh?

A

17 pounds

817
Q

The stow-a-way 800 base weighs how much including the 4” inline shut off valve that weighs 23 pounds combined?

A

43.7 pounds

818
Q

The total weight of the portable monitor is approximately how many pounds?

A

61 pounds

819
Q

An automatic what empties the water from a low point in the portable monitor piping preventing freezing and helps empty the hose lines?

A

Drain

820
Q

The valve in the drain is designed to close automatically when the pressure in the monitor exceeds approximately what psi and opens again when the pressure drops to that point?

A

5 psi

821
Q

The legs of the portable monitor are made of what and will flex when in use to compensate for small ground irregularities?

A

Stainless spring steel

822
Q

The cross fire portable monitor is intended for max floor of 800 gpm, but TFT allows LAFD to flow up to how many gpm with as long as the portable base is attached to a loop of loaded 4” supply hose?

A

1000 gpm

823
Q

How many pawls actuated by the slide bar engage in the base swivel to make the quick connect joint on the portable monitor?

A

2 pawls

824
Q

What engages in the slide bar to prevent accidental unlocking of the slide bar when the monitor is under pressure?

A

Safety plunger

825
Q

What is provided to secure the portable monitor to an anchor point or to a loop of hose?

A

Tie down strap

826
Q

The tie down strap is made of nylon webbing and is how many feet long?

A

8 feet

827
Q

Each end of the tie down strap has a loop and how many carabiners is provided for attachment to the base of the portable monitor?

A

1

828
Q

To install the upper assembly of the portable monitor to the base, make sure the nozzle is above what degree safety stop?

A

35 degrees

829
Q

Side to side rotation on the portable monitor is accomplished by rotating which part of the monitor?

A

Upper assembly on its base

830
Q

When not rotating the upper assembly on the base of the portable monitor, keep the rotation lock in what position?

A

Locked

831
Q

When a nozzle is flowing water, the reaction force is in what type of line directly opposite the water flowing out the end of the nozzle?

A

Straight line

832
Q

If a nozzle on a portable monitor is pointed straight up, all of the reaction force is directed where and there is no sideways force that can cause the base to slide?

A

Straight down

833
Q

As the elevation angle of the nozzle is lowered, the downward component of force decreases while the horizontal component of the force does what, causing more tendency for the portable monitor to move sideways?

A

Increases

834
Q

When the nozzle is at an angle of what degree, the force acting sideways is equal to the force acting downward on the base of the portable monitor?

A

45 degrees

835
Q

At an angle of what degrees (angle at elevation stop), approximately 82% of the nozzle reaction force is acting sideways on the base of the portable monitor?

A

35 degrees

836
Q

When the nozzle is at what degree angle, the entire reaction force is acting sideways on the base and there is no downward force at all?

A

Zero degrees

837
Q

You should not operate the portable base below what because it is dangerous and injury or death can occur if the monitor and base slides or lifts off the ground?

A

Safety stop

838
Q

The crossfire portable monitor has how many tungsten carbide tipped spikes on the legs and the base to resist sliding by digging into the surface the monitor is sitting on?

A

5 or 6

839
Q

The amount of what the spikes can withstand depend on downward and sideways force that is on the base and the hardness and texture the spikes are in contact with?

A

Sliding force

840
Q

Spikes are essential to safe operations and must be in contact with the ground at all times, set the monitor on even surface so that how many spikes contact the ground?

A

All 3

841
Q

Replace and spike if the tip diameter exceeds how many inches?

A

1/16

842
Q

Spikes are sharp and exposed, use care around spikes to avoid injury and damage to what?

A

Clothing and property

843
Q

When anchoring the tie off strap to an object or hose, if the strap is too short to reach a suitable anchor, it may be extended with what?

A

Strong rope or chain

844
Q

When securing the tie down strap to the 4” hose, the diameter of the loop of hose should be how much?

A

10 feet

845
Q

A sliding monitor can cause injury, remove all slack between what before flowing water on the portable monitor?

A

Anchor and base

846
Q

As horizontal angle increases between the anchor strap and stream, the base can begin to slide in an arc around the anchor point which may require how many anchor points?

A

Multiple

847
Q

When connecting the hose to the portable monitor, extend the hose straight back from the portable monitor at least how many feet?

A

10 feet

848
Q

Because of the arched trajectory of a fire stream, it is recommended that what be used to accurately direct the stream from the monitor?

A

A spotter

849
Q

Safe operation of the monitor on the portable base begins with what selection?

A

Site selection

850
Q

Select a flat even surface within how many feet of the 4” hose that is looped around the monitor or a sturdy object that can be used as an attachment point for the anchor strap?

A

8 feet

851
Q

Make sure there is no damage to the appliance such as dents, cracks, corrosion, missing, broken or loose parts, damaged marking or other defect how often?

A

Before use

852
Q

When using the hose loop as anchor, place the first female coupling alongside the 4” hose approximately how many feet back from the male coupling of the monitor and the coupling to the hose at that point using a ladder strap?

A

10 feet

853
Q

What psi should be pumped to the portable monitor at 350, 500, 750, and 1000 gpm?

A

105 psi @ 350 gpm
110 psi @ 500 gpm
115 psi @ 750 gpm
125 psi @ 1000 gpm

854
Q

Which nozzle is the ONLY one that can be used with the crossfire portable monitor?

A

Master stream 1000 selectable volume spray tip

855
Q

The portable monitor should be kept clean and free of dirt by flushing with water after what?

A

Each use

856
Q

Do not make any alterations to monitor, any alterations to monitor and markings could diminish what and constitutes a misuse of this product?

A

Safety

857
Q

To lube the zerk fitting for the elevation worm gear, turn the elevation handwheel to move the nozzle to its highest elevation and pump what type of grease into fitting until excess appears?

A

Medium viscosity automotive grease