Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NURS 106 > Blood & the Heart > Flashcards

Blood & the Heart Flashcards

1
Q

Define hematocrit.

A

The percentage of blood occupied by cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the normal range & average hematocrit for females?

A

Normal range: 38-46%.

Average: 42%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the normal range & average hematocrit for males?

A

Normal range: 40-54%.

Average: 45%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why do males tend to have a higher hematocrit level?

A

Testosterone stimulates RBC production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Anemia is a condition where patients:

A

don’t have enough RBCs or hemoglobin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Polycythemia is a condition where patients:

A

have too many RBCs (over ~65%).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are 3 common causes of polycythemia? Why do they cause polycythemia?

A 
Dehydration: causes low plasma levels = higher ratio of plasma:cells.
Tissue hypoxia (not enough O2): stimulates production of hormones to create RBCs.
Blood doping (athletes): transfusing hematocrit before performance.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why is polycethemia dangerous?

A

Causes strain in the heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How are RBCs unique compared to other cells?

A

They have no nucleus, organelles or ribosomes because they are shed during differentiation.
Unique shape: biconcave discs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why is the shape and flexibility of a RBC advantageous (3)?

A

Larger surface area for O2 diffusion across membrane.
Thinness allows O2 to diffuse rapidly.
Can stack to go through a smaller vessel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the primary role of hemoglobin?

A

Carrying O2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are 4 other molecules that hemoglobin can combine with?

A

CO2.
H+ from carbonic acid.
CO.
NO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the two parts of hemoglobin.

A

Globin portion: protein composed of 4 highly folded polypeptide chains.
Heme groups: 4 iron-containing nonprotein groups, each bound to one globin polypeptide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the normal RBC counts (per drop) for males and females?

A

Males: 5.4 million/drop.
Females: 4.8million/drop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the 2 important erythrocyte enzymes.

A

Glycolytic enzymes: ATP formation.

Carbonic anhydrase: CO2 transport.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where are erythrocytes developed?

A

Prenatally: prenatal yolk sac, liver, spleen.
Later: bone marrow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which hormone is important in erythropoiesis?

A

Erythropoietin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Approximately how long is an RBC’s lifespan?

A

120 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do we classify leukocytes?

A

Granular or agranular, based on presence of cytoplasmic granules (seen through staining).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which 3 leukocytes are granulocytes?

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils & basophils.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe the role of neutrophils.

A

Bacteria-destroying, phagocytic specialists.
1st defenders on scene of infection.
Important to inflammatory response.
Call other WBCs to assist in response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Eosinophils are mostly associated with (2):

A

allergic conditions & parasitic infestations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Basophils are similar to ____ _____ & secrete/store _________.

A

mast cells; histamine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which 2 leukocytes are classified as agranulocytes?

A

Monocytes & lymphocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Differentiate between monocytes & macrophages.

A

Monocytes: immature, circulate for 1-2 days.
Macrophages: mature & enlarged after settling in tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the 2 types of lymphocytes?

A

B lymphocytes & T lymphocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the primary role of B lymphocytes?

A

Produce antibodies & are responsible for antibody/humoral immunity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the primary role of T lymphocytes?

A

Directly destroy target cells by releasing chemicals (cell-mediated immunity).
Target cells may include viral host cells & cancer cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Granulocytes & monocytes are produced in the:

A

bone marrow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

New lymphocytes are usually produced by:

A

existing lymphocytes in lymphoid tissue (ex: lymph nodes, tonsils).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is a differential WBC count and why is it clinically significant?

A

Tells us the number of different types of WBCs out of 100.
We can assess what is happening in the blood/body and determine if there are any types of WBCs that are too abundant or deficient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How are platelets structurally unique?

A

Disc-shaped cell fragments - not complete cells.

No nucleus, but contains smooth ER.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Where are platelets formed?

A

Bone marrow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which hormone stimulates platelet production & where is it produced?

A

Thrombopoietin, produced in the liver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the 3 named phases of blood clotting?

A
  1. Vascular phase (vascular spasm).
  2. Platelet phase (platelet aggregation).
  3. Coagulation phase.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What happens during the platelet phase of blood clotting?

A

Release of chemicals (ex: ADP, platelet activating factor), von Willebrand factor).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the ultimate outcome of the coagulation cascade?

A

Conversion of fibrinogen → stabilized fibrin mesh.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Differentiate between the extrinsic & intrinsic pathway in the coagulation cascade.

A

Extrinsic: requires contact with tissue factors external to the blood.
Intrinsic: activated by factor XII contact with exposed collagen or a foreign surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Describe the common pathway in the coagulation cascade.

A
  1. Factor X becomes prothrombin activator.
  2. Prothrombin activator causes prothrombin to convert to thrombin in the presence of Ca2+.
  3. Thrombin causes fibrinogen to convert to fibrin.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is thrombocytopenia and some common causes of it?

A

Too few platelets.

May be due to viral infections, chemo/treatments, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is von Willebrand’s disease and common symptoms?

A

Defect of vWF causing improper clotting.

Possible symptoms: frequent spontaneous nosebleeds, heavier menstrual cycles, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is hemophilia and what is it usually due to?

A

Severely reduced blood clotting ability.

Usually due to hereditary deficiencies of clotting factors (especially VIII).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Liver diseases tend to cause impaired production of:

A

blood clotting factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is a thrombus?

A

Abnormal intravascular clot attached to a vessel wall.

Can eventually completely occlude the vessel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are emboli?

A

Freely floating clots that can suddenly block blood flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are 4 factors causing thromboembolism?

A
  1. Roughed vessel surfaces due to atherosclerosis (hardening & narrowing of arteries).
  2. Imbalances in clotting-anticlotting systems.
  3. Slow-moving blood.
  4. Release of tissue thromboplastin into blood from large amounts of traumatized tissue (factor X).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Patients with Type A blood will have _ antigens and _ antibodies.

A

A; B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Patients with Type B blood will have _ antigens and _ antibodies.

A

B; A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Patients with Type O blood will have _ antigens and _ antibodies.

A

no; A and B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Patients with Type AB blood will have _ antigens and _ antibodies.

A

both A and B; no.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which blood type is considered the universal donor and why?

A

O-

Doesn’t have any antigens, so no antibodies will react to it and it can be given to anybody.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which blood type is considered the universal recipient and why?

A

AB+
Type AB+ patients have all the antigens on their cells and therefore no antibodies, so they can receive any kind of blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Do Rh- patients naturally contain any Rh- antibodies?

A

No: they only develop with exposure to the Rh antigen so they wouldn’t have a reaction to Rh+ blood until their second encounter with it.

54
Q

Describe hemolytic disease of the newborn.

A

An Rh- mother carries her first Rh+ child, causing her to develop Rh antibodies once she comes into contact with the fetus’ placenta.
If she carries a second Rh+ child, it her Rh antibodies will attach the fetus’ RBCs.

55
Q

What is done to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

Mother can receive a RhoGam shot shortly after first Rh+ deliver, miscarriage or abortion.

56
Q

The circulatory system contains 2 circuits:

A
  1. Pulmonary circuit to the lungs.

2. Systemic circuit to the rest of the body.

57
Q

The heart sits at an _______ angle & is slightly rotated to the ____.

A

oblique; left.

58
Q

Where is the heart located in the thoracic cavity relative to other structures?

A

Between the 2 lungs, slightly to the left of the midline.

59
Q

Which part of the heart forms the superior border?

A

The base.

60
Q

Which part of the heart is considered its base?

A

Superior part of the heart where all the vessels are attached.

61
Q

Which chamber of the heart forms its right border?

A

Right atrium.

62
Q

Which chambers of the heart form its left border?

A

Left atrium & left ventricle.

63
Q

Which chamber of the heart forms its inferior border?

A

Right ventricle.

64
Q

Where is the apex of the heart?

A

Tip of the heart forming the corner between the inferior & left borders of the heart.

65
Q

In which intercostal space is the apex of the heart usually located?

A

5th intercostal space, in the mid-clavicular line.

66
Q

What is the pericardium?

A

Membranes surrounding the heart.

67
Q

The heart is contained within the ___________ cavity, which is formed by the ___________ ___.

A

pericardial; pericardial sac.

68
Q

Describe the 2 layers of the pericardium.

A

Fibrous pericardium: outermost containing tough, fibrous connective tissue.
Serous: thin membrane with 2 parts.

69
Q

Describe the 2 parts of the serous pericardium.

A

Parietal: lines the inside of the fibrous pericardium.
Visceral: lines the outside of the heart, making up the external cardiac surface (epicardium).

70
Q

What is the function of pericardial fluid and where is it found?

A

Between the parietal & visceral membranes for lubrication.

71
Q

What are the 3 layers of the heart wall, from outermost to innermost?

A

Epicardium.
Myocardium.
Endocardium.

72
Q

What does the myocardium contain?

A

Cardiac muscle, connective tissue, nerves.

73
Q

What is the endocardium?

A

Epithelium lining the inner surfaces of the heart, including the valves.

74
Q

What is the function of the right atrium?

A

Receives deoxygenated blood from systemic circulation (vena cava) & coronary vessels.

75
Q

What separates the RA from the LA?

A

Interatrial septum.

76
Q

What does the blood pass through to get from the RA to RV?

A

Tricuspid valve (right AV valve).

77
Q

How is the tricuspid valve attached to the chambers of the heart?

A

3 cusps are attached to chordae tendinae, which arise from the papillary muscles in the RV.

78
Q

What are chordae tendinae?

A

Collagen fibre branches.

79
Q

What is the function of the right ventricle?

A

Receives deoxygenated blood from RA and pumps blood into the pulmonary valve → arteries.

80
Q

What separates the RV from the LV?

A

Interventricular septum.

81
Q

What is the function of the left atrium?

A

Receives oxygenated blood from pulmonary veins.

82
Q

What does blood pass through to get from the LA to the LV?

A

Mitral/bicuspid/left atrioventricular valve.

83
Q

What is the function of the left ventricle?

A

Receives oxygenated blood from the LA & pumps it across aortic (semilunar) valve into the aorta & into the coronary arteries via the coronary sinuses.

84
Q

Which chamber of the heart has the thickest muscular wall and why?

A

Left ventricle: muscle wall needs to be thick & strong enough to pump blood throughout the entire body.

85
Q

Describe the structures of the heart that blood passes through in order, beginning with deoxygenated blood from the body (systemic).

A
  1. Inferior/superior vena cava.
  2. RA.
  3. Right AV (tricuspid) valve.
  4. RV.
  5. Pulmonary semilunar valve.
  6. Pulmonary arteries.
  7. Pulmonary veins.
  8. LA.
  9. Left AV/mitral/bicuspid valv.
  10. LV.
  11. Aortic semilunar valves.
  12. Aorta.
86
Q

Where are the coronary arteries?

A

Originate in the aortic sinus at the base of the ascending aorta.

87
Q

Describe the 2 major coronary arteries.

A

Right coronary artery: supplies oxygenated blood to RA, RV, part of LA, part of LV, interatrial septum, part of interventricular septum & part of conduction system.
Left coronary artery: supplies oxygenated blood to LA, LV, parts of RV & parts of interventricular septum.

88
Q

Where does the impulse initiated by the SA node travel to?

A

AV node

89
Q

What is arrhythmia?

A

Variation from normal rhythm and sequence of excitation of the heart

90
Q

What are 3 examples of arrhythmia?

A

Atrial fibrillation, ventricular fibrillation & heart block

91
Q

What are the 2 abnormalities in heart rate?

A

Tachycardia & bradycardia

92
Q

What is the difference between tachycardia and bradycardia?

A

Tachycardia: rapid, >100 bpm
Bradycardia: slow, <60 bpm

93
Q

What event produces the P wave?

A

Atrial depolarization

94
Q

What event produces the PR segment?

A

AV nodal delay

95
Q

What event produces the QRS complex?

A

Ventricular depolarization & simultaneous atria repolarization

96
Q

What event produces the ST segment?

A

Ventricles contract and empty

97
Q

What event produces the T wave?

A

Ventricular repolarization

98
Q

What event produces the TP interval?

A

Ventricles relax and fill

99
Q

Why is summation and tetanus of cardiac muscle impossible?

A

Long refractory period occurs in conjunction with prolonged plateau phase

100
Q

The ability to generate + conduct its own impulses is called ____ or ____

A

autorhythmicity, automaticity

101
Q

What structure is the pacemaker of the heart?

A

SA node

102
Q

What is the function of the SA node?

A

Originate electrical impulse

103
Q

Where does the impulse initiated by the SA node travel to?

A

AV node

104
Q

Describe the events of action potentials in the heart.

A

Resting potential: -90mV.

  1. Massive Na+ influx (depolarization).
  2. Slow Ca2+ influx (plateau): lengthens action potential.
  3. Quick K+ efflux causing rapid repolarization.
105
Q

Describe the events of pacemaker potentials in the heart.

A

Threshold: -40mV.
No steady rising potential.
1. Ca2+ influx for depolarization.
2. K+ efflux for repolarization.

106
Q

As the impulse travels down the internodal pathways, it also travels through cardiac muscle, starting ____ contraction

A

atrial

107
Q

Where does the impulse travels to from the AV node?

A

AV bundle (Bundle of His)

108
Q

Where does the impulse travels to from the AV bundle?

A

Down the interventricular septum, then dividing into the right bundle branch (RBB) and left bundle branch (LBB), then the apex of the heart

109
Q

What do the bundle branches branch further into?

A

Purkinje fibers

110
Q

As the impulse travels down the conducting fibers, it also travels through ventricular myocardium, starting ____ contraction.

A

ventricular

111
Q

What is isometric ventricular relaxation?

A

Where the ventricles relax without any change in blood volume since the AV valves are not yet open.

112
Q

What 4 events occur during late ventricular diastole?

A
  1. SA node reaches the threshold, so it fires.
  2. AV valves open.
  3. Atrial systole.
  4. Blood flows from atrium to ventricle due to atrial pressure exceeding ventricular pressure.
113
Q

What is EDV and what is the average EDV value?

A

End diastolic volume: amount of blood in ventricles after ventricular diastole.
Average: 135 mL.

114
Q

What causes the beginning of ventricular systole?

A

The impulse reaches the AV node.

115
Q

When does isometric ventricular relaxation occur?

A

Between mid & late ventricular diastole.

116
Q

What is isometric ventricular contraction?

A

When the ventricles contract without any change in blood volume because of the brief period before semilunar valves open.

117
Q

What is ESV and what is the average ESV value?

A

End systolic volume: amount of blood in ventricles after ventricular systole.
Average: 65 mL.

118
Q

How do we calculate stroke volume?

A

EDV - ESV.

119
Q

What is the average stroke volume?

A

70 mL.

120
Q

What is stroke volume?

A

Amount of blood pumped out of each ventricle into major vessels with each contraction.

121
Q

What is the first heart sound caused by?

A

Closing of AV valves (contraction).

122
Q

What is the second heart sound created by?

A

Closing of semilunar valves (relaxation).

123
Q

Describe the 2 controls affecting stroke volume.

A

Intrinsic control: EDV & venous return.

Extrinsic control: sympathetic activity.

124
Q

Parasympathetic stimulation _____ heart rate.

A

slows.

125
Q

Sympathetic stimulation ______ heart rate.

A

quickens.

126
Q

What is the Frank Starling Law of the Heart?

A

The greater the heart muscle is stretched during filling, the greater the force of contraction & the greater the quantity of blood pumped into the aorta.

127
Q

What does preload refer to in the Frank Starling Law of the Heart?

A

The extent of stretching during filling.

128
Q

What does afterload refer to in the Frank Starling Law of the Heart?

A

Pressure required in ventricles for blood to push open the semilunar valves.

129
Q

High blood pressure or resistance will ________ afterload, therefore _________ stroke volume.

A

increase; decrease.

130
Q

What is decompensated heart failure?

A

The point at which the heart can no longer pump out a normal stroke volume despite compensatory measures.

131
Q

Left-sided heart failure will affect the _____.

A

lungs.

132
Q

Right-sided heart failure causes congestion in the _______ circuit.

A

systemic.

NURS 106 (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions