WHY NOT SOME MORE REVIEW MWAHAHAHAH Flashcards

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1
Q

3 signs of hemangiothemioma

A

hepatomegaly
congestive heart failure
hemoperitoneum from rupture

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2
Q

Hepatoblastoma triad

A

Hepatic tumor, elevated AFP, thrombocytosis

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3
Q

E.Coli causes:

  • Amebic abscess
  • Pyogenic abscess
  • Fungal abscess
A

PYOGENIC

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4
Q

First sign of hepatitis

A

jaundice

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5
Q

Hepatic fibrosis associated with which kidney pathology?

A

ARPKD

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6
Q

Trv scan shows triangular echogenic area in the anterior aspect of the portal vein in the porta hepatis.

What is the most likely pathology?

A

biliary atresia

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7
Q

3 symptoms of choledochal cyst

A

pain, mass, jaundice

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8
Q

What biliary system pathology is strongly associated with IBD?

A

sclerosis cholangitis

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9
Q

3 main sono features of slcerosing cholangitis

A

thickened bile duct walls
choledocholithiasis
ductal strictures

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10
Q

main cause of obstructive jaundice in neonates

A

B.A.

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11
Q

main cause of obstructive jaundice in older children

A

choledochal cyst

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12
Q

2nd main cause of obstructive jaundice

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

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13
Q

AFP increase with rhabdomyosarcoma ?

A

no

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14
Q

are pancreatic carcinomas functioning

A

no

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15
Q

What is the cause of Panc Hemorrhage?

A

disruption of the vessels

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16
Q

3 Symptoms of Abscess

A

Spiking fevers
Chills
Abdo pain

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17
Q

m/c cause for evaluating Ao in neonates

A

thrombus

18
Q

diagnosis of pyloric stenosis when AP diameter exceeds

A

1.5 cm

19
Q

diagnosis of pyloric stenosis when length exceeds

A

1.8cm

20
Q

diagnosis of pyloric stenosis when length exceeds

A

4mm

21
Q

Mesoblastic Nephroma found in

A

neonates, often prenatally

22
Q

Identification of sonographycally normal adrenal glands rules out CAH. T/F?

A

no

23
Q

CAH caused by

A

enzyme deficency in adrenal cortex leading to the accumulation of androgenic precursors

24
Q

Which kidney pathology is associated with Tuberous Sclerosis?

A

AML

25
Q

Posterior Uretral Valves are found equally in boys and girls.
T/F?

A

False. only in boys

26
Q
What pathology is a well-recognized complication of indwelling umbilical artery catheters?
A) Aortic thrombus
B) Aortic aneurysms
C) Aortic calcification
D) Coarctation of the aorta
A

A) Aortic thrombus

27
Q
2. What abdominal organ is the most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma in
children?
A) Spleen
B) Pancreas
C) Liver
D) Kidney
A

C. Liver

28
Q
3. What is the best-known complication of pancreatitis?
A) Hemorrhage
B) Pseudocysts
C) Phlegmon
D) Abscess
A

B) pseudocyst

29
Q
4. What idiopathic condition most commonly affects first-born male infants?
A) Cystic fibrosis
B) Hyponatremia
C) Biloma
D) Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
A

D) Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

30
Q
5. Which pathology is an intrinsic cause of dilated duodenum and stomach?
A) Duodenal atresia
B) Duodenal duplication cyst
C) Annular pancreas
D) Malrotation
A

A) Duodenal atresia

31
Q
6. What is the most common condition requiring emergency surgical intervention in
children?
A) Polyps
B) Intussusception
C) Acute appendicitis
D) Malrotation and torsion
A

C Acute appendicitis

32
Q
  1. What sonographic finding contributes to a diagnosis of a perforated appendix?
    A) Appendicolith
    B) Complex focal collection
    C) Appendix greater than 6 mm in diameter
    D) Noncompressible structure with a target appearance
A

B) Complex focal collection

33
Q

What is the likely diagnosis for the sonographic appearance seen in the right lower
quadrant on a pediatric patient with abdominal tenderness and leukocytosis?
A) Intussusception
B) Anal atresia
C) Appendicitis
D) Rotation and torsion

A

C) Appendicitis

34
Q
9. What is the echo pattern of the cortex in a newborn?
A) Poorly defined
B) Isoechoic to the liver and spleen
C) Hypoechoic to the renal sinus
D) More echoic than the liver and spleen
A

D) More echoic than the liver and spleen

35
Q
10. What is the most common renal mass in infants and children that is frequently diagnosed
in utero?
A) Congenital hydronephrosis
B) Infantile polycystic disease
C) Multicystic dysplastic kidney
D) Duplication of the collecting system
A

A) Congenital hydronephrosis

36
Q
11. What observation can be used to separate posterior urethral valves from prune belly
syndrome?
A) Hypoplastic kidney
B) Loss of corticomedullary junction
C) Thickened bladder wall
D) Flaccid, dilated bladder
A

C) Thickened bladder wall

37
Q
  1. Which statement describes the sonographic appearance of infantile polycystic renal
    disease?
    A) Only a portion of the kidney is affected.
    B) The contralateral kidney appears always normal.
    C) Cysts are sonographically visualized.
    D) Cysts are not seen because they are microscopic.
A

D) Cysts are not seen because they are microscopic.

38
Q
13. What is the most likely diagnosis for a 2-year-old girl with hematuria, hypertension, and
a solid, palpable left flank mass?
A) Wilms tumor
B) Neuroblastoma
C) Hypernephroma
D) Infantile polycystic kidney disease
A

A) Wilms tumor

39
Q
14. What is the second most common solid pediatric abdominal tumor?
A) Seminoma
B) Wilms tumor
C) Neuroblastoma
D) Mesoblastic nephroma
A

C) Neuroblastoma

40
Q
  1. What congenital error of the metabolism involves a deficiency of one of several
    enzymes necessary for normal steroid biosynthesis?
    A) Cortical hypoplasia
    B) Chromatin cell deficiency
    C) Adrenal hyperplasia
    D) Medullary hypoplastic syndrome
A

C) Adrenal hyperplasia

41
Q
16. What term describes involuntary discharge of urine during sleep?
A) Diuresis
B) Enuresis
C) Nervous bladder
D) Nocturia
A

B) Enuresis

42
Q
17. What occurs when the ureter is narrowed at its distal insertion into the bladder?
A) Ureterocele
B) Posterior urethral valve
C) Urethral hypoplasia
D) Eagle-Barrett Syndrome
A

A) Ureterocele