Units 1-4 Learning Objectives Flashcards

1
Q

Define the terms: anatomy and physiology and explain how anatomy and physiology
complement each other.

A

1) Anatomy: Examining the structure of the human body
2) Physiology: The study of function of the human body
3) Anatomy and physiology complement each other because of the unity of form and function

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2
Q

Describe gross anatomy and give 3 examples

A

Gross anatomy is a type of anatomy that studies structures that can be seen with the eyes. 3 examples of gross anatomy being applied in medicine are dissection, exploratory surgery, and medical imaging.

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3
Q

Name 3 areas of microscopic anatomy and describe them

A

3 areas of anatomy that study microscopic structures too small to see with your eye are histology, cytology, and ultrastructure.
Histology is the examination of tissues under a microscope.
Cytology is the study of structure and function of cells.
Ultrastructure is the study of viewing detail under an electron microscope.

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4
Q

Name 3 areas of physiology and describe them

A

3 subdisciplines of physiology are Neurophysiology (physiology of the nervous system) Endocrinology (physiology of hormones) and Pathophysiology (the study of the mechanisms of disease).

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5
Q

Describe the subdiscipline of comparative physiology and why it’s so important

A

Comparative physiology is another subdiscipline of physiology and is the study of another species to learn about body functions. Comparative physiology is important to physiology as a whole because physiology, unlike anatomy, requires live subjects due to the fact that you cannot observe function on a cadaver, so often relies on animals to perform research that will then become preliminary research for human medicine.

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6
Q

Describe some aspects of experimental design that help ensure objective and reliable
results.

A

Having a control group and an experimental group, replicating the experiment multiple times, and ensuring there’s no cross-contamination.

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7
Q

Give the levels of human structure from the most complex to the simplest (hierarchy of
complexity).

A

Organism, organ system, organ, tissue, cell, organelle, molecule, atom.
*Note: Organelles, molecules, and atoms are not considered to be alive; cells are the smallest unit of life

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8
Q

List the nine characteristics of life.

A

Organization, cellular composition, metabolism, responsiveness, movement, homeostasis, reproduction, development, and evolution of a population.

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9
Q

Define homeostasis

A

Maintaining relatively stable internal conditions [regardless of external conditions].

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10
Q

Define a gradient and give examples of gradients in the human body.

A

A gradient is defined as a difference in chemical concentration, charge, temperature, or pressure between two points.
Examples:
1) blood flowing from a place of higher pressure (near the heart) to a place of lower pressure, sodium-potassium gradients
2) heat flowing from an area of high heat (inside the body) to an area of low heat (outside the body)
3) dietary glucose flowing from an area of high concentration to low concentration (into intestinal cells).

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11
Q

Describe which direction do gradients flow naturally and what would be necessary if you
went “against” or “up” a gradient.

A

Molecules naturally flow down gradients (from areas of high concentration to low concentration). If you went against the gradient (from an area of low concentration to high), that would require a cell to use energy (ATP).

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12
Q

Define the terms: element, atom, molecule, and compound.

A

Element: The simplest form of matter with unique properties.
Atom: building blocks for each element.
Molecule: chemical particle composed of two or more atoms united by a chemical bond.
Compound: molecule composed of two or more different elements.

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13
Q

List the six elements that comprise 98.5% of our body weight.

A

Oxygen (O), Carbon (C ), Hydrogen (H), Nitrogen (N), Calcium (Ca), and Phosphorus (P).

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14
Q

Describe the three particles that make up an atom and their arrangement in an atom.

A

Neutrons have no charge, and they determine atomic mass (number of protons + number of neutrons = atomic mass). Atoms of an element with a different number of neutrons than protons are called isotopes.
Protons have a positive charge, and they determine the identity of an element as well as its atomic number (atomic number = number of protons the atom has).
Electrons have a negative charge. Atoms of an element with a different number of electrons than protons are called ions (or electrolyte), and they have a positive (cation) or negative charge (anion) (more electrons = more negative).
Neutrons and protons are found in the nucleus of an atom, whereas electrons are found in shells (or energy levels) around the nucleus. The first energy level is full with 2 electrons, and the second and third levels are full with 8 electrons. Electrons in the outermost level are called valence electrons.

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15
Q

Define the terms isotope and radioactive isotope.

A

Isotope: when an atom has a different number of neutrons than protons.
Radioactive isotope: an isotope that disintegrates over time and gives off energy.

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16
Q

Describe ways we can use radioactive isotopes in medicine

A

They can be used for radiation therapy and diagnostic procedures. This includes PET scans, using I-131 determine size and activity of the thyroid gland, Hida scans (Tc-99 technetium with a ½ life of 6 hours), Cobalt-60 for cancer.
Other examples of radioactive isotopes include UV radiation, X-rays, alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays.

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17
Q

Discuss how cations and anions are formed.

A

If an atom gains an electron, then it becomes an anion (negatively charged). If an atom loses an electron, then it becomes a cation (positively charged). This only happens to atoms without a full outer shell (i.e. atoms that are not noble gas elements).

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18
Q

List each type of chemical bond in order of relative strength from strongest to weakest.

A

Covalent bonds, ionic bonds, hydrogen bonds.

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19
Q

Discuss the “octet rule” and how we apply it to predict which type of chemical bond will
be formed.

A

The octet rule is the concept that atoms gain or lose electrons to have full outer shell. We use this rule to help figure out if two atoms are going to share electrons and form a covalent bond, or if one atom will donate an electron to the other atom and form an ionic bond. For example we can determine if two atoms are eligible to become a cation and an anion (i.e. if one atom only has one electron in an outer shell) and by using the octet rule, we know that the atom wants to get rid of that electron, so if it gets near an atom with one missing electron, it will donate that electron to the atom with the missing electron, and the one the electron was donated to becomes an anion and the one that did the donating becomes a cation (and now both atoms have full outer shells), and now those two atoms have formed an ionic bond.

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20
Q

Explain the mechanism of ionic bonds, non-polar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds,
and hydrogen bonds.

A

Ionic bonds: The donation of an electron from one atom to another; a bond between a cation and an anion.
Non-polar covalent bonds: Two or more atoms share electrons equally.
Polar covalent bonds: Two or more atoms share electrons unequally.
Hydrogen bonds: A weak charge attraction between a slightly positive hydrogen and a slightly negative oxygen (or nitrogen).

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21
Q

List a biological example of each type of bond

A

Hydrogen bonding: The bases in DNA form hydrogen bonds (ex: there’s two hydrogen bonds between A and T and three hydrogen bonds between C and G).
Ionic bonding: Ionic bonds help shape tertiary and quaternary structures of proteins, and NaCl is found in the human body and has an ionic bond.
Covalent bonding: Water molecules found in the human body are formed with covalent bonds, peptide bonds formed between amino acids, covalent bonds within each linear strand of DNA.

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22
Q

Define the terms mixture, solution, solute, solvent, colloid, and suspension.

A

Mixture: physically blended but not chemically combined (ex: body fluids are mixtures of chemicals).
Solution: A homogenous mixture of two or more substances (a solute and solvent) in relative amounts that can be varied continuously up to the limit of solubility.
Solute: the substance that dissolves in a solvent to produce a homogeneous mixture.
Solvent: the substance in which a solute dissolves to produce a homogeneous mixture.
Colloid: a mixture in which one substance consisting of microscopically dispersed insoluble particles is suspended throughout another substance.
Suspension: a heterogeneous mixture of a fluid that contains solid particles sufficiently large for sedimentation.

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23
Q

Describe the five biologically important properties of water.

A

– Solvency: ability to dissolve other chemicals; water is referred to as the ‘universal solvent’.
– Cohesion: water molecules cling to each other; water is very cohesive due to its hydrogen bonds. This in turn causes surface tension.
– Adhesion: water adheres to other substances (ex: water adheres to large membranes reducing friction around organs).
– Chemical reactivity: ability to participate in chemical reactions; water ionizes into and ionizes many other chemicals (acids and salts).
– Thermal stability:Water has high heat capacity (absorbs and releases large amounts of heat before changing temperature); this is because hydrogen bonds inhibit temperature increases by
inhibiting molecular motion. This property is what helps keep the internal temperature of our bodies stable.

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24
Q

Describe which types of molecules will easily mix with water and which will not.

A

Molecules with polar covalent bonds will easily mix with water, but molecules with nonpolar covalent bonds will not.

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25
Q

Define the terms pH, acid, base, and buffer.

A

pH: A measure of hydrogen ion concentration.
Acid: A chemical species that donates protons or hydrogen ions and/or accepts electrons. Has a low pH.
Base: A chemical species that donates electrons, accepts protons, or releases hydroxide (OH-) ions in aqueous solution. Has a high pH.
Buffer: A solution that can resist pH change upon the addition of an acid or a base by neutralizing small amounts of that acid or base.

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26
Q

Define energy and work.

A

Energy: The capacity to do work [move something].
Work: To move something.

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27
Q

Differentiate between potential energy and kinetic energy.

A

Potential energy is energy stored in an object, but not currently doing work, whereas kinetic energy is the energy of motion and doing work.

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28
Q

Differentiate between decomposition reactions and synthesis reactions and be able to
give examples of each

A

Decomposition reactions are where a large molecule breaks down into two or more smaller ones (ex: AB > A + B), whereas synthesis reactions are where two or more small molecules combine to form a larger one (A + B > AB).

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29
Q

List the three factors that will increase reaction rates.

A

Reaction rates increase when the reactants are more concentrated, the temperature rises, and when a catalyst is present.

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30
Q

Define metabolism and its two subdivisions.

A

Metabolism: all chemical reactions of the body.
Catabolism: energy-releasing decomposition reactions that break covalent bonds and produce smaller molecules.
Anabolism: energy-storing synthesis reactions that require energy input (ex the production of protein or fat)
Side note: Anabolism is driven by energy released by catabolism.

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31
Q

Define the term organic molecule.

A

compounds containing carbon.

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32
Q

Explain the relationship between macromolecules, monomers, and polymers.

A

Macromolecules are made up of polymers, and polymers are made up of monomers.

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33
Q

Describe hydrolysis and dehydration synthesis.

A

Hydrolysis is splitting a polymer by the addition of water. Dehydration synthesis is when monomers covalently bind together to form a polymer with the removal of a water molecule

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34
Q

Identify the monomers and polymers of carbohydrates and their functions.

A

Monomers: Monosaccharides: Glucose, galactose, and fructose are examples, and they are simple sugars that are produced by the digestion of complex carbohydrates. Glucose functions as blood sugar in the body.
Disaccharides: Sucrose (table sugar) = Glucose + fructose, Lactose (sugar in milk) = Glucose + galactose, Maltose (grain products) = Glucose + glucose.
Polysaccharides: Ex: Glycogen is a glucose polymer that is stored in the liver and skeletal muscles.

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35
Q

Describe how all lipids are related.

A

In all lipids, either part of or the entire molecule is hydrophobic.

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36
Q

Describe the structure and functions of triglycerides (neutral fats) and phospholipids.

A

Triglycerides are three fatty acids linked to glycerol, and their primary function is energy storage (contain 2x more energy than carbs or proteins), and they also help with insulation and padding (shock absorption (adipose tissue)).
Phospholipids are similar to neutral fats except one fatty acid is replaced by a phosphate group; consists of two hydrophobic fatty acid tails and a hydrophilic phosphate head. They make up the phospholipid bilayer of the cell membrane.

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37
Q

Describe how triglycerides are transported in the human body.

A

Because triglycerides are hydrophobic, they are packaged within intestinal cells along with cholesterol molecules in phospholipid vesicles called chylomicrons, which allows them to move within the aqueous environment of the lymphatic and circulatory systems.

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38
Q

Describe what “parent” steroid from which the other steroids are synthesized.

A

Cholesterol, which is important for nervous system function and structural integrity of all cell membranes; 15% of our cholesterol comes from our diet.

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39
Q

Describe the structure of an amino acid

A

Amino acids have a central carbon with three attachments (Amino group (NH2), carboxyl group (—COOH), and radical group (R group)). Amino acids only differ in the R group.

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40
Q

Describe the formation of peptide bonds

A

Peptide bonds are bonds between two amino acids that joins their carboxyl groups together, and they’re formed by dehydration synthesis; the resulting chain is called a peptide.

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41
Q

Explain the four levels of organization of protein structure and how these contribute to
so many different proteins.

A

Primary: Sequence of amino acids joined by peptide bonds.
Secondary: Alpha helix or beta sheet formed by hydrogen bonding
Tertiary: Folding and coiling due to interactions among R groups and between R groups and surrounding water. This is what makes proteins really unique.
Quaternary: Association of two or more polypeptide chains with each other.
These structures create what is called a conformation, which is the unique, three-dimensional shape of protein, which is crucial to function. So many proteins exist because there are many different ways proteins can fold in each level of organization of protein structure.

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42
Q

Differentiate between a fibrous protein and a globular protein.

A

Fibrous proteins are generally composed of long and narrow strands and have a structural role (they are something). Examples include keratin and collagen.
Globular proteins generally have a more compact and rounded shape and have functional roles (they do something). Examples include carriers, catalysis, motor proteins, etc.

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43
Q

Discuss the two major ways to denature a protein, and define denaturation.

A

Extreme heat or pH can denature proteins. Denaturation is an extreme conformational change that destroys a protein’s ability to function.

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44
Q

Describe some functions of proteins in the human body

A

Structure (ex: keratin and collagen)
Communication (ex: some hormones and receptors)
Membrane transport (ex: channel proteins in cell membranes govern what passes)
Carriers (ex: carrier proteins transport solutes to the other side of membranes)
Catalysis (ex: most enzymes are globular proteins)
Recognition and protection (ex: antibodies are proteins)
Movement (ex: motor proteins, which are molecules with the ability to change shape repeatedly)
Cell adhesion (ex: proteins bind cells together and keeps tissues from falling apart. ex: sperm to egg).

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45
Q

Define an enzyme and describe the characteristics of enzymes.

A

Enzyme: proteins that function as biological catalysts and allow reactions to occur rapidly at body temperature; they do this by lowering the activation energy. They’re named for the substrate it acts upon plus the suffix -ase. They’re reusable because enzymes are not consumed by the reactions and they work at an astonishing speed (one enzyme molecule can consume millions of substrate molecules per minute). However, temperature, pH and other factors can change enzyme shape and function, which can alter the ability of the enzyme to bind to the substrate

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46
Q

Describe the three nucleic acids in the human body and their basic function.

A

DNA: contain millions of nucleotides and constitutes genes.
RNA: follows DNA instructions to assemble proteins
ATP: the body’s energy currency.

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47
Q

Describe the composition of nucleotides.

A

They contain a nitrogenous base (Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Thymine or Uracil), a sugar (ribose or deoxyribose), and one or more phosphate groups.

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48
Q

The components of cell theory are:

A

–All organisms composed of cells and cell products; organisms that don’t contain cells do not exist.
–The cell is the simplest structural and functional unit of life; anything simpler than a cell is not considered to be alive.
–An organism’s structure and functions are due to the activities of cells.
–Cells come only from preexisting cells, they don’t just spontaneously appear
–Cells of all species exhibit biochemical similarities

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49
Q

List the three components of a cell that can be viewed with a light microscope.

A

You can see the nucleus, where the plasma membrane is, and the cytoplasm.

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50
Q

Define extracellular fluid, intracellular fluid, interstitial fluid.

A

Extracellular fluid: Fluid within the body outside of the cells.
Intracellular fluid: Fluid contained within cells.
Interstitial fluid: Fluid between cells and tissues; one of the two major extracellular fluids in the body (the other one is plasma).

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51
Q

Differentiate between cytoplasm and cytosol.

A

Cytoplasm contains the organelles; cytosol does not. Cytosol is the word used to describe only the aqueous components of the cytoplasm.

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52
Q

Describe the structure of the plasma membrane.

A

The plasma membrane is the border of the cell, and it is arranged in a bilayer of phospholipids, with the hydrophobic tails of the phospholipids facing the interior of the plasma membrane. It also can contain integral proteins, and integral transmembrane proteins like protein channels, as well as cholesterol, peripheral proteins, and carbohydrate chains (carbohydrate chains are attached to the exterior side). There is a fuzzy exterior to the plasma membrane called the glycocalyx as well, and it provides the cell with protection, immunity to infection, and defense against cancer.

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53
Q

Explain the functions of the lipid, protein, and carbohydrate components of the plasma membrane.

A

The lipid component makes up the phospholipid bilayer of the plasma membrane, which constitutes 75% of the plasma membrane.
Proteins are 2% of the molecules within the plasma membrane, but make up 50% of the membrane’s weight. Proteins can act in the plasma membrane as receptors, enzymes, channels, carriers, cell-identity markers, and cell-adhesion molecules.
The carbohydrate chains help with cell recognition and adhesion, and they allow for cell-cell signaling and help in cell-pathogen interactions.

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54
Q

List what types of molecules pass through the phospholipid bilayer and which types
must use a protein channel or carrier.

A

Types of molecules that can pass through: Non-polar molecules, hydrophobic molecules, small molecules,
Types that need to use a protein channel or carrier: Polar molecules, hydrophilic molecules, large molecules, and ions/ charged molecules.

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55
Q

Discuss how the fluid mosaic model describes the plasma membrane.

A

The plasma membrane is incredibly flexible and if poked, the phospholipids will move vertically, but they will always reorient themselves into a bilayer because of the hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tails.

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56
Q

Differentiate between integral proteins and peripheral proteins.

A

Integral proteins: penetrate the plasma membrane.

Peripheral proteins: lie on the surface of the plasma membrane.

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57
Q

Describe the types and functions of gated channels

A

Ligand-gated channels are needed to respond to chemical messengers (like neurotransmitters) by opening or closing, voltage-gated channels are needed to respond to electrical signals (like electrical nerve impulses) by opening or closing, and mechanically-gated channels are needed to respond to physical stress on the cell by opening or closing (they are also an example of a stretch receptor). Channel proteins within the plasma membrane in general govern what goes into and out of a cell (excluding things that can pass straight through the plasma membrane).

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58
Q

What do carrier proteins do?

A

Carrier proteins transport solutes to other side of membrane

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59
Q

Describe the structure and functions of microvilli

A

Microvilli are extensions of the membrane (1–2 μm) that give the membrane 15 to 40 times more surface area, which helps in absorption. Thus, they’re best developed in cells specialized in absorption. They can be very dense and appear as a fringe; known as “brush border”.

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60
Q

Describe the structure and functions of cilia

A

Cilia are hair-like processes that are 7–10 μm long. Motile cilia are found in the respiratory tract, uterine tubes, ventricles of brain, and ducts of testes; they beat in waves sweeping material across a surface in one direction.

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61
Q

Describe the structure and functions of flagella

A

Flagella have a whip-like structure and are much longer than cilium. The tail of a sperm is the only functional flagellum in humans. Their movement is undulating, snake-like, corkscrew, with no power stroke and recovery strokes.

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62
Q

Describe the structure and functions of pseudopods

A

Pseudopods are continually changing extensions of the cell that vary in shape and size, and can be used for cellular locomotion and capturing foreign particles.

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63
Q

Define simple diffusion and give an example

A

Simple diffusion is defined as the net movement of particles from place of high concentration to place of lower concentration; it happens because of constant, spontaneous molecular motion; molecules collide and bounce off each other. It does not require energy or a membrane, and only non-polar hydrophobic molecules can enter cells using this method. Ex: oxygen permeating the cell membranes of lung cells.

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64
Q

Define osmosis and give an example

A

Osmosis is similar to simple diffusion, but it requires a selectively permeable membrane to be present. It’s defined as the diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. It does not require energy, and does not use a carrier protein like facilitated diffusion. Ex: water moving into my interstitial cells after I drink water.

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65
Q

Define facilitated diffusion and give an example

A

Facilitated diffusion, like simple diffusion, is the net movement of something from areas of high concentration to low concentration. However, it moves a solute from a place of high concentration to a place of lower concentration using a carrier protein. It does not require energy. This is usually used to allow hydrophilic polar molecules to enter cells. Ex: the movement of glucose from the bloodstream and into cells, the diffusion of water into cells through aquaporins.

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66
Q

Define filtration and give examples

A

Filtration is where particles are driven through a membrane by physical pressure. Examples of this would be the filtration of water and small solutes through gaps in capillary walls, the delivery of water and nutrients to tissues, and the removal of waste from capillaries in the kidneys. It does not require energy from the cell either, like simple diffusion, osmosis, and facilitated diffusion.

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67
Q

Define primary active transport and give examples

A

Primary active transport is when a carrier protein moves the solute through a membrane up (against) its concentration gradient. Because it is moving against the concentration gradient (unlike simple diffusion, osmosis, facilitated diffusion, and filtration), this process requires energy. Examples would be the calcium pump (uniport) and the sodium–potassium pump (antiport).

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68
Q

Define vesicular transport and give examples

A

Vesicular transport is the movement of large particles, fluid droplets, or numerous molecules at once through the membrane in vesicles (bubble-like enclosures of membrane). Like primary active transport, it requires energy. Examples of this include phagocytosis (cells eating things), exocytosis (cells removing things), and pinocytosis (cells drinking things).

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69
Q

Describe the factors that influence the rate of diffusion.

A

1) Temperature: ^ temp = ^ motion of particles = ^ rate
2) Molecular weight: larger molecules move slower
3) Steepness of concentrated gradient: ^ difference = ^ rate
4) Membrane surface area: ^ area = ^ rate
5) Membrane permeability: ^ permeability = ^ rate

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70
Q

Define osmolarity and tonicity.

A

Osmolarity: The measure of total concentration of solute particles.
Tonicity: The concentration of non-permeating solutes.

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71
Q

Discuss the two conditions necessary for osmosis

A

Osmosis requires the presence of a concentration gradient, as well as the presence of a selectively permeable membrane.

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72
Q

Determine which type of solution (hypertonic, isotonic, or hypotonic) will cause crenation or cytolysis/hemolysis.

A

Hypertonic solutions cause crenation (cells shriveling from water leaving the cell), hypotonic solutions cause cytolysis/hemolysis (cells exploding from water entering the cell), and isotonic solutions do not do anything to cells since there is no concentration gradient.

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73
Q

Compare and contrast osmosis using simple diffusion versus facilitated diffusion (aquaporins).

A

Osmosis is very slow, like a dripping faucet, when using only simple diffusion. However, osmosis through facilitated diffusion allows water to pour into or out of a cell quickly. The more aquaporins a cell has, the faster water moves in and out of the cell.

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74
Q

Explain the difference between uniports, symports, and antiports and give examples of each.

A

Uniports moves molecules across the membrane independent of other molecules,
Antiports move two types of molecules across the membrane in opposite directions, and
Symports move two different molecules in the same direction.
Examples: calcium pump (uniport), the sodium–potassium pump (antiport), and moving glucose up its concentration gradient by using the energy from the movement of sodium ions that are moving down their gradient (symport).

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75
Q

Distinguish between phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and receptor-mediated endocytosis.

A

Phagocytosis: Cells eating things/ engulfing large particles; a type of endocytosis.
Pinocytosis: Cells drinking things; a type of endocytosis.
Receptor-mediated endocytosis: A more selective type of endocytosis that enables cells to take in specific molecules that bind to extracellular receptors.

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76
Q

Discuss the three types of protein fibers used for the cytoskeleton and the functions of each type.

A

Intermediate filaments are thicker and stiffer than microfilaments and participate in cell-to-cell adhesion; they give the cell its shape.
Microfilaments are about 6 nm thick and are made of the protein actin. They are widespread throughout the cell but especially concentrated in a fibrous mat called the terminal web (membrane skeleton) on the exterior side of the plasma membrane, and they provide support to the cell.
Microtubules (25 nm in diameter) are cylinders made of 13 parallel strands called protofilaments. Each protofilament is a long chain of globular proteins called tubulin. Microtubules radiate from an area of the cell called the centrosome. They hold organelles in place, form bundles that maintain cell shape and rigidity, and act somewhat like monorail tracks.

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77
Q

Discuss the structure and functions of peroxisomes

A

Detoxify certain harmful chemicals, enclose reactions that make toxic byproducts. Abundant in the cells found in the liver and kidneys.

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78
Q

Discuss the structure and functions of lysosomes

A

A package of enzymes bound by a membrane, they aid in intracellular hydrolytic digestion, phagocytosis, and autolysis.

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79
Q

Discuss the structure and functions of centrioles

A

They form the mitotic spindle during cell division, unpaired centrioles form basic structure of cilia and flagella.

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80
Q

Discuss the structure and functions of mitochondria

A

A kidney-bean shaped organelle specialized for synthesizing ATP.

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81
Q

Discuss the structure and functions of the golgi complex

A

It receives newly synthesized proteins from
rough ER, then sorts proteins, modifies proteins, and packages them into vesicles. Some vesicles become lysosomes, some vesicles migrate to plasma membrane and fuse to it, and some become secretory vesicles that store a protein product for later release.

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82
Q

Discuss the structure and functions of ribosomes

A

They’re small granules of protein and RNA that “read” coded genetic messages (messenger RNA) and assemble amino acids into proteins specified by the code.

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83
Q

Discuss the structure and functions of the smooth ER

A

A system of channels enclosed by a membrane, it synthesizes steroids and other lipids, detoxifies alcohol and other drugs, and stores calcium.

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84
Q

Discuss the structure and functions of the rough ER

A

It is composed of parallel, flattened sacs covered with ribosomes, and it synthesizes proteins and packages proteins for transport.

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85
Q

Discuss the structure and functions of the nucleus

A

Also known as the “brain of the cell”, it’s the largest organelle and it controls all cellular activity. It is enclosed in a the nuclear membrane, which is double membrane with pores surrounding the nucleus. Contains chromatin and chromosomes.

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86
Q

Discuss the structure and functions of the cytosol

A

The aqueous component of the cytoplasm of a cell; also called intracellular fluid/ ICF.

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87
Q

Discuss the structure and functions of the plasma membrane

A

Made up of phospholipids, proteins, and carbohydrate tails. Defines cell boundaries, governs interactions with other cells, and controls passage of materials in and out of the cell.

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88
Q

Discuss the structure and functions of the cytoplasm

A

Contains the organelles, cytoskeleton, inclusions (stored or foreign particles), and cytosol (intracellular fluid, ICF)

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89
Q

Define autolysis, autophagy, and phagocytosis

A

Phagocytosis: Cells eating things/ engulfing large particles; a type of endocytosis.
Autolysis: The destruction of cells or tissues by their own enzymes.
Autophagy: The digestion and disposal of surplus or nonvital organelles and other cell components in order to recycle their nutrients to more important cell needs.

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90
Q

Describe how lysosomes relate to the processes of autolysis, autophagy, and phagocytosis

A

Lysosomes help aid in phagocytosis (the cell eating things); after a neutrosome captures a bacteria in a phagosome, a lysosome merges with the phagosome, converting it to a phagolysosome, and contributes enzymes that destroy the invader. They also help aid in autolysis by releasing enzymes that will kill the cell. Lysosomes also digest and dispose of surplus or nonvital organelles and other cell components in order to recycle their nutrients to more important cell needs, which is autophagy.

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91
Q

Compare and contrast nuclear DNA and mitochondrial DNA.

A

Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is a small, circular molecule that is more visually similar to the circular DNA of bacteria, not the linear DNA found in the cell nucleus. mtDNA also replicates independently from nuclear DNA. Mitochondrial DNA consists of 16,569 base pairs, comprising 37 genes, which is quite small when compared to the over 3 billion base pairs and about 20,000 genes in nuclear DNA. Both DNA and mtDNA are heritable, but you only inherit mtDNA from your mother, whereas you inherit your nuclear DNA from both of your parents.

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92
Q

Describe the structure of DNA.

A

DNA has a double helix structure and it’s made up of nitrogenous bases united by
hydrogen bonds. A purine on one strand is always bound to a pyrimidine on the other;
also, A–T have two hydrogen bonds, whereas C–G have three hydrogen bonds.
The law of complementary base pairing states that one strand determines the base
sequence of the other.

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93
Q

Explain how DNA and histone proteins are organized to form the chromosomes.

A

The DNA first winds around spools of proteins called histones to form the little granules (core particles), then the chromatin then folds into successive zigzags, loops, and coils, getting thicker and shorter as it does so. Then the DNA, which is 2 nm in diameter, is consolidated into chromatin strands 150 times thicker and 1,000 times shorter than the naked DNA. Finally, each chromosome is packed into its own spheroidal region of the nucleus, called a chromosome territory

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94
Q

Discuss the three specific parts of a DNA nucleotide.

A

Each DNA nucleotide contains a sugar (deoxyribose), a phosphate group, and one nitrogenous base (A, T, C, or G).

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95
Q

List the purine nitrogenous bases and the pyrimidine nitrogenous bases and describe
which purine base will make hydrogen bonds with which pyrimidine base.

A

Purines: Adenine & Guanine
Pyrimidines: Thymine & Cytosine
The purine adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with the pyrimidine thymine, and the purine guanine forms three hydrogen bonds with the pyrimidine cytosine.

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96
Q

Define the terms chromatin, chromosomes, and sister chromatids.

A

Chromatin: fine filamentous DNA material complexed with proteins.
Chromosomes: A complex of DNA and protein carrying the genetic material of a cell’s nucleus; consists of two sister chromatids. Normally there are 46 chromosomes in the nucleus of each cell except germ cells.
Sister chromatids: Two parallel filaments of identical DNA

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97
Q

Discuss the fours differences between DNA and RNA.

A

RNA differs from DNA in that it’s single stranded (it consists of just one nucleotide chain and not a double helix like DNA), ribose replaces deoxyribose as the sugar, uracil replaces thymine as a nitrogenous base, and it functions mainly in cytoplasm.

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98
Q

State the current definition of a gene

A

An information-containing segment of DNA that codes for synthesizing one or more proteins.

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99
Q

Describe how DNA codes for protein structure.

A

DNA triplets relate to the mRNA codons and those, in turn, relate to the amino acids of a protein; in other words, the nucleotide sequence in the DNA determines the amino acid sequence of a protein.

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100
Q

Describe the assembly of amino acids into a protein.

A

1) DNA double helix exists.
2) There are seven base triplets on the template strand of DNA
3) The corresponding codons of mRNA are transcribed from the DNA triplets
4) The anticodons of tRNA then bind to the mRNA codons
5) The amino acids are carried by those six tRNA molecules
6) The amino acids are linked into a peptide chain through peptide bonds; this is the primary structure of a protein.
7) Secondary structure formation: Alpha helix or beta sheet formed by hydrogen bonding
8) Tertiary structure formation: Folding and coiling due to interactions among R groups and between R groups and surrounding water. This is what makes proteins really unique.
9) Quaternary structure formation: Association of two or more polypeptide chains with each other.

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101
Q

Discuss the roles of messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, and transfer RNA.

A

mRNA: carries code from nucleus to cytoplasm during translation.
tRNA: after the mRNA brings the code to the cytoplasm during translation, tRNA then delivers a single amino acid to the ribosome for it to be added to growing protein chain
rRNA: ribosomes are largely made up of rRNA and enzymes; after tRNA delivers the amino acid to the ribosome, the ribosome adds the amino acid to the protein chain.
The essential function of the three principal RNAs is to interpret the code in DNA and use those instructions to synthesize proteins

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102
Q

Describe where triplets, codons, and anticodons are found and be able to correctly give
the codon and anticodon if given a triplet code.

A

Seven base triplets are found in the template strand of DNA, and corresponding codons are found in the mRNA. Anticodons are found in tRNA.

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103
Q

Explain the process of transcription

A

In the nucleus, RNA polymerase reads bases from one strand of DNA, and then makes corresponding mRNA.

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104
Q

Describe the process of translation

A
1) Initiation
Initiator tRNA (bearing methionine) pairs with start codon. Ribosome pulls mRNA molecule through it like a ribbon. When start codon (AUG) is reached, protein synthesis begins
2) Elongation 
Next, tRNA (with its amino acid) binds to the ribosome while its anticodon pairs with the next codon of mRNA. A peptide bond forms between methionine and the second amino acid.
The ribosome slides to read the next codon.
Next, tRNA with the appropriate anticodon brings its amino acid to the ribosome.
Another peptide bond forms (between the 2nd and 3rd amino acids). Process continually repeats, extending the peptide into a protein
3) Termination
Ribosome reaches stop codon, finished protein breaks away from ribosome, ribosome dissociates into two subunit
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105
Q

Explain what happens to a protein after its amino acid sequence has been synthesized.

A

1) Protein is formed by ribosomes on rough ER.
2) Protein is packaged into transport vesicle, which buds from ER.
3) Transport vesicles fuse into clusters that unload the protein into the Golgi complex.
4) The golgi complex modifies the protein structure.
5) The golgi vesicle containing the finished protein is formed.
6) Lastly, secretory vesicles release the protein by exocytosis.

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106
Q

Describe the process of DNA replication.

A

DNA unwinds from histones
An enzyme unzips a segment of the double helix exposing its nitrogenous bases
DNA polymerase builds new DNA strands
Newly made DNA wraps around histones

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107
Q

Discuss the three phases of interphase and what occurs in each phase.

A

1) G1: first gap phase
The interval between cell birth (from division) and DNA replication. The cell carries out normal tasks and accumulates materials for next phase
2) S: synthesis phase
The cell replicates all nuclear DNA and duplicates centrioles
3) G2: second gap phase
The second gap phase; the interval between DNA replication and cell division. The cell repairs DNA replication errors, grows and synthesizes enzymes that control cell division

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108
Q

Distinguish between the process of mitosis and cytokinesis.

A

Mitosis does not include the cell membrane splitting into two.

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109
Q

Describe the four phases of mitosis and explain what occurs in each of the phases.

A

1) Prophase
Genetic material condenses into compact chromosomes
46 chromosomes are made of two sister chromatids
Nuclear envelope disintegrates
Centrioles sprout spindle fibers (long microtubules)
Spindle fibers push centriole pairs apart
Some spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of centromeres of chromosomes
2) Metaphase
Chromosomes are aligned on cell equator
Shorter microtubules from centrioles complete an aster which anchors itself to inside of cell membrane
3) Anaphase
Enzyme cleaves two sister chromatids apart at centromere
Single-stranded daughter chromosomes migrate to each pole of the cell as motor proteins in kinetochores crawl along spindle fibers
4) Telophase
Chromosomes cluster on each side of the cell
Rough ER makes new nuclear envelope around each cluster
Chromosomes uncoil to chromatin
Mitotic spindle disintegrates
Each nucleus forms nucleoli

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110
Q

Describe the prophase phase of mitosis

A

Genetic material condenses into compact chromosomes
46 chromosomes are made of two sister chromatids
Nuclear envelope disintegrates
Centrioles sprout spindle fibers (long microtubules)
Spindle fibers push centriole pairs apart
Some spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of centromeres of chromosomes

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111
Q

Describe the metaphase phase of mitosis

A

Chromosomes are aligned on cell equator

Shorter microtubules from centrioles complete an aster which anchors itself to inside of cell membrane

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112
Q

Describe the anaphase phase of mitosis

A

Enzyme cleaves two sister chromatids apart at centromere
Single-stranded daughter chromosomes migrate to each pole of the cell as motor proteins in kinetochores crawl along spindle fibers

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113
Q

Describe the telophase phase of mitosis

A

Chromosomes cluster on each side of the cell
Rough ER makes new nuclear envelope around each cluster
Chromosomes uncoil to chromatin
Mitotic spindle disintegrates
Each nucleus forms nucleoli

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114
Q

List the 4 stages of mitosis in order

A

Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase (PMAT)

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115
Q

Discuss factors that would inhibit cell division

A
  • They snugly contact neighboring cells
  • Nutrients or growth factors are withdrawn
  • They undergo contact inhibition—the cessation of cell division in response to contact with other cells
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116
Q

Discuss factors that would promote cell division

A
  • They have enough cytoplasm for two daughter cells
  • They have replicated their DNA
  • They have adequate supply of nutrients
  • They are stimulated by growth factors (chemical signals)
  • Neighboring cells die, opening up space
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117
Q

Name the four primary classes into which all adult tissues are classified.

A

Epithelial tissue, connective tissue, nervous tissue, and muscular tissue

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118
Q

Define histology

A

The study of tissues

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119
Q

Compare the general features of the four major tissue types.

A

All 4 tissues types are similar to each other in the following ways:
All tissue types are made up of cells.
All tissue types have an extracellular matrix
All cells and tissues occupy space

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120
Q

Contrast the general features of the four major tissue types.

A

The 4 tissue types vary in:
The types and functions of their cells
The characteristics of their matrix (extracellular material)
The relative amount of space occupied by their cells versus their matrix

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121
Q

Describe the unique functions of the epithelium

A
  • It covers body surfaces and lines body cavities
  • It protects deeper tissues from injury and infection
  • It produces and releases chemical secretions; also involved with excretion and absorption
  • It selectively filters substances
  • It makes up most glands
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122
Q

Describe the unique characteristics of epithelium

A
  • Its cells are very close together
  • Its cells have a high rate of mitosis (regenerative)
  • Has apical and basal surfaces
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123
Q

Name and describe the 4 types of simple epithelium

A

1) Simple squamous
Permits rapid diffusion or transport of substances
It secretes serous fluid
Found in: air sacs of lungs (alveoli), inner lining of blood vessels & heart (endothelium), and serosa
2) Simple cuboidal
It’s good at absorption and secretion, mucus production, and movement
Found in: Kidney tubules and certain glands (thyroid, mammary and salivary glands)
3) Simple columnar
Specializes in absorption and secretion; secretion of mucus
Has a brush border of microvilli, ciliated in some organs, and may possess goblet cells. It’s the only tissue with microvilli.
Made up of a single row of tall, narrow cells; oval nuclei in basal half of cell
Found in: the lining of the GI tract, the uterus, and uterine tubes
4) Pseudostratified columnar
Secretes and propels mucus
Has cilia and goblet cells
Looks multilayered, but all cells touch the basement membrane
Has nuclei at several layers
Found in the respiratory tract

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124
Q

Describe stratified squamous epithelium

A

The most widespread epithelium in the body
Deepest layers undergo continuous mitosis
Daughter cells push toward the surface and become flatter as they migrate upward, and the top layer is exfoliated

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125
Q

Name and describe the two types of stratified squamous epithelium

A

1) Keratinized stratified squamous epithelia
Resists abrasion; retards water loss through skin; resists penetration by pathogenic organisms.
Top layer of cells are dead.
Locations: epidermis; palms and soles heavily keratinized
2) Non-Keratinized stratified squamous epithelia
Resists abrasion and penetration of pathogens
Top layer of cells is not dead.
Locations: tongue, oral mucosa, esophagus, and vagina

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126
Q

Name the two main types of stratified epithelia. Can these be broken down into more types?

A

Stratified squamous epithelia and transitional epithelia. There are two types of stratified squamous epithelia: keratinized and non-keratinized.

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127
Q

Describe transitional epithelia and where it’s located

A

A type of stratified epithelia that permits stretching (distension); surface cells change from round to flat when stretched
Locations: ureter and urinary bladder

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128
Q

Describe the properties that most connective tissues have in common.

A

-Their cells occupy less space than matrix (usually there’s a large amount of extracellular matrix)
-Most of their cells are not in direct contact with each other
-They have a highly variable vascularity
(Loose connective tissues have many blood vessels whereas cartilage has few or no blood vessels)

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129
Q

What is the most diverse and abundant type of tissue

A

Connective tissue

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130
Q

Discuss the types of cells found in connective tissue.

A

1) Fibrous Connective Tissue (Connective Tissue Proper)
Made up of fibers (collagen, reticular, and elastic fibers) and ground substance of the matrix produced by fibroblasts.
2) Adipose Tissue
Adipocytes (fat cells) contain a large amount of space reserved for storing fats.
3) Cartilage
Chondroblasts form the matrix, which is then occupied by chondrocytes (cartilage cells)
4) Bone (Osseous tissue)
Osteoblasts form the matrix, which is then occupied by osteocytes.
5) Blood
Made up of plasma, platelets, WBCs, and RBCs.

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131
Q

What are the two main types of fibrous connective tissue? Can they be broken down into further categories.

A

Loose and dense connective tissue are the two main types. The two types of loose fibrous connective tissue are areolar and reticular. The two types of dense connective tissue are dense regular and dense irregular

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132
Q

Define and describe areolar tissue. Also, where is it found?

A
  • One of the two types of loose connective tissue, which is a type of fibrous connective tissue.
  • All 3 fibers/ 6 total cell types are found; loosely organized; abundant blood vessels; lots of empty space.
  • Mostly collagenous, but elastic and reticular also present
  • Wraps & cushions organs; underlies epithelia, in serous membranes, between muscles, passageways for nerves and blood vessels
  • Fibers run in random directions
  • Found in tissue sections from almost every part of the body
  • Surrounds blood vessels and nerves
  • Nearly every epithelium rests on a layer of areolar tissue
  • Blood vessels provide nutrition to epithelium and waste removal
  • Ready supply of infection-fighting leukocytes that move about freely in areolar tissue
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133
Q

Define and describe reticular tissue. Also, where is it found?

A
  • One of the two types of loose connective tissue, which is a type of fibrous connective tissue.
  • Mesh of reticular fibers and fibroblasts
  • Forms supportive framework for lymphatic organs
  • Found in lymph nodes, spleen, thymus, and bone marrow
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134
Q

Define and describe dense regular tissue

A
  • One of the two types of dense connective tissue, which is one of the types of fibrous connective tissue.
  • Densely packed, parallel collagen fibers
  • Tendons attach muscles to bones and ligaments hold bones together
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135
Q

Define and describe dense irregular tissue

A
  • Dense, randomly arranged, collagen fibers
  • Withstands unpredictable stresses
  • Locations: reticular layer of dermis; organ capsules
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136
Q

Describe adipose tissue

A
  • A type of connective tissue
  • Space between adipocytes occupied by areolar tissue, reticular tissue, and blood capillaries.
  • The quantity of stored triglyceride and the number of adipocytes are quite stable in a person.
  • Fat is recycled continuously; new triglycerides synthesized while old molecules hydrolyzed and released to blood
  • Functions: Energy storage, insulation, cushioning
  • Fat is the body’s primary form of energy storage.
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137
Q

Describe cartilage

A

Stiff connective tissue with flexible matrix; chondroblasts produce the matrix that will trap them in lacunae (cavities) and become chondrocytes.
Contains reserve population of chondroblasts

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138
Q

List and describe the 3 types of cartilage and where they can be found

A

1) Hyaline cartilage
Clear, glassy appearance because of fineness of collagen fibers
Surrounded by perichondrium
Locations: articular cartilage, costal cartilage, respiratory cartilage, fetal skeleton
2) Elastic cartilage
Contains abundant elastic fibers; covered with perichondrium
Provides flexible, elastic support
Locations: external ear and epiglottis
3) Fibrocartilage
Contains large bundles of collagen fibers; no perichondrium.
Resists compression and absorbs shock
Locations: pubic symphysis, menisci of knee, and intervertebral discs

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139
Q

Describe bone (osseous tissue)

A

Has a hard calcified matrix with collagen fibers; made by osteoblasts who build and become osteocytes in lacunae. A type of connective tissue

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140
Q

Describe the two types of bone (osseous tissue)

A

1) Spongy bone
Porous appearance with visible holes.
2) Compact bone
Compact bone is arranged in cylinders that surround central canals that run longitudinally through shafts of long bones

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141
Q

Describe blood

A

-A fluid connective tissue
-Transports cells and dissolved matter from place to place
-Plasma—blood’s ground substance
Formed elements—cells and cell fragments:
-Erythrocytes—red blood cells (RBCs)
-Leukocytes—white blood cells (WBCs)
-Platelets—cell fragments involved in clotting

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142
Q

Explain what distinguishes excitable tissues from other tissues.

A

They have the ability to respond to stimuli by changing membrane potential.

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143
Q

Name the cell types that compose nervous tissue.

A

Neurons and neuroglia.

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144
Q

Identify and describe the major parts of a nerve cell.

A
1) Neurosoma (cell body)
Contains nucleus & other organelles
Controls protein synthesis
2) Dendrites
Multiple short, branched processes
Receive signals from other cells
Transmit messages to neurosoma
3) Axon (nerve fiber)
Sends outgoing signals to other cells
Can be more than a meter long
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145
Q

Name the three kinds of muscular tissue and describe them

A

1) Skeletal:
Long thin cells called muscle fibers; multinucleate
Most skeletal muscles attach to bone
Striations—alternating dark and light bands
They only type of muscle that is voluntary, meaning conscious control over skeletal muscles.
2) Cardiac:
Cardiomyocytes are branched, shorter than skeletal muscle fibers; uninucleate
Intercalated discs join cardiomyocytes end to end
Provide electrical and mechanical connection
Striated and involuntary (not under conscious control)
3) Smooth:
Short, fusiform myocytes; uninucleate
Non-striated and involuntary
Most is visceral muscle—making up parts of walls of hollow organs

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146
Q

Define cell junctions and describe what they do

A

Cell junctions are connections between two cells; most cells are anchored to each other through a cell junction or their matrix
Cells communicate with each other, resist mechanical stress, and control what moves through the gaps between them

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147
Q

List and describe the 3 types of cell junctions

A

1) Tight junctions:
Seals off intercellular space, making it difficult for substance to pass between cells
Found in the epidermis, stomach, and small intestines
2) Desmosomes
A type of cell junction that keeps cells from pulling apart—resist mechanical stress.
Found in cardiac muscle, the uterine cervix, and the epidermis
3) Gap junctions
Formed by ring-like connexons; the cells now share part of their cell membrane.
Ions, nutrients, and other small solutes pass between cells
Found in cardiac and smooth muscle, embryonic tissue, lens and cornea

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148
Q

Describe the two main kinds of glands

A

1) Exocrine glands: maintain their contact with surface of epithelium by way of a duct
Their surfaces can be external (examples: sweat, tear glands) or internal (examples: pancreas, salivary glands)
Classified by duct shape and gland shape.
2) Endocrine glands: have no ducts; secrete hormones directly into blood
Examples: thyroid, adrenal, and pituitary glands.

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149
Q

Describe unicellular glands and give examples

A

Found in an epithelium that is predominantly nonsecretory; can be exocrine or endocrine
Examples: mucus-secreting goblet cells in trachea or endocrine cells of stomach

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150
Q

Define a gland and describe its typical anatomy

A
  • A gland is defined as a cell or organ that secretes substances for use elsewhere in the body or releases them for elimination from the body
  • They are usually composed of epithelial tissue with a connective tissue framework and capsule
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151
Q

Name and describe the three different modes of glandular secretion.

A

1) Merocrine
Uses vesicles that release their secretion by exocytosis.
Used by eccrine glands.
2) Apocrine
Lipid droplet covered by membrane and cytoplasm buds from cell surface
Mode of milk fat secretion by mammary gland cells
3) Holocrine
Cells accumulate a product until they disintegrate (entire cell dies and is secreted, hence why these glands’ substances are oily)
Secrete a mixture of cell fragments and synthesized substances
Ex: sebaceous glands of hair and skin, eyelid glands.

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152
Q

Describe the types and composition of the body’s membranes.

A

1) Cutaneous membrane (the skin)
Largest membrane in the body
Stratified squamous epithelium (epidermis) resting on a layer of connective tissue (dermis)
Relatively dry layer serves protective function
2) Mucosal membranes
Layers consists of epithelium, areolar tissue (lamina propria), and smooth muscle (muscularis mucosa)
An internal membrane that lines cavities/passages that open to the external environment
Produces mucus (thicker, stickier)
This membrane can be found in 4 organ systems: reproductive, digestive, respiratory, and urinary.
3) Serous membranes
Composed of simple squamous epithelium resting on a layer of areolar tissue
Internal membrane; lines cavities with no connection to the outside
Produces serous fluid
4) Membranes made of only epithelium:
Anterior surfaces of cornea and lens of eye
5) Membranes made of only connective tissue:
Dura mater (meninges), synovial membranes, periosteum, perichondrium

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153
Q

Name and describe the modes of tissue growth.

A

1) Hyperplasia: growth through cell multiplication
2) Hypertrophy: enlargement of preexisting cells
Examples: muscle growth through exercise, accumulation of body fat
3) Neoplasia: development of a tumor (neoplasm)
Tumor can be benign or malignant
Composed of abnormal, nonfunctional tissue

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154
Q

Name and describe the ways the body repairs damaged tissues.

A

1) Regeneration: replacement of dead or damaged cells by the same type of cell as before
Restores normal function
Examples: repair of minor skin or liver injuries
2) Fibrosis: replacement of damaged cells with scar tissue
Scar holds organs together, but does not restore function
Examples: repair of severe cuts and burns, scarring of lungs in tuberculosis

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155
Q

List the functions of the skin and relate them to its structure.

A

1) Resistance to trauma and infection:
- Keratin
- Dermacidin & defensins
- Acid mantle acts as an antimicrobial barrier.
- There are very few spaces between cells in the epidermis to protect against trauma and infection.
2) Other barrier functions
- Water (protects against dehydration): The stratum corneum is a layer of dead cell membranes, which provides a layer of protection against water.
- UV radiation: melanin aids in UV protection
- Harmful chemicals
3) Vitamin D synthesis
- Skin carries out first step; Liver & kidneys complete process
4) Sensation receptors
- Touch, temperature, pressure, vibration, tickle, itch, and pain sensations
5) Regulation of body temperature
- Thermoreceptors
- Vasoconstriction/vasodilation; if you are too warm, cutaneous blood vessels vasodilate
- Perspiration
6) Nonverbal communication
- Facial expressions
- The color of skin based on factors such as blood flow/ hemoglobin and carotene can display signs of illness without verbal communication.

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156
Q

Describe the histological structure of the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue.

A

1) The epidermis consists of keratinized stratified squamous epithelial tissue
2) The dermis consists of two layers:
- Papillary layer: A thin layer of areolar connective tissue
- Reticular layer: A thicker layer of dense irregular connective tissue.
3) Subcutaneous tissue: Consists primarily of adipose connective tissue, but also contains areolar connective tissue.

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157
Q

Describe the difference between thick and thin skin.

A

Unlike thin skin, thick skin does not contain hair follicles and it has an extra thin white/clear epidermal layer that is not present in thin skin called the stratum lucidum. This causes dermal papillae to be more pronounced in thick skin.

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158
Q

Describe the normal and pathological colors that the skin can have

A

1) Cyanosis: blueness due to oxygen deficiency
- Oxygen deficiency is usually due to events that cause respiratory distress. This includes things such as drowning, severe asthma attacks, lung failure, pertussis in infants, choking, etc.
2) Erythema: redness due to increased blood flow to skin.
- Increased blood flow to the skin can be caused by injuries such as heat burns, sunburns, consumption of alcohol, or strong emotions such as embarrassment or anger.
3) Pallor: paleness due to decreased blood flow to skin
- Decreased blood to the skin often happens during or immediately prior to syncope or during illness. Malnutrition can also be a cause of pallor.
4) Albinism: milky white skin and blue-gray eyes due to genetic lack of melanin synthesizing enzyme
- This is only due to genetic mutations and cannot develop during a person’s lifetime after birth.
5) Jaundice: yellowing due to bilirubin in blood (can be caused by compromised liver function)
- Often seen in newborn babies or those with liver failure.
6) Hematoma: bruising (clotted blood under skin)
- Usually happens due to blunt force to the skin

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159
Q

Describe the basic structure of a hair and its accessory structures (piloerector muscle, etc.)

A

1) Bulb: Contains matrix cells (mitotically active cells). Located beneath the surface of the skin and is wider than the rest of the hair.
2) Root: the remainder of the hair in the follicle
Located beneath the surface of the skin and is just above the bulb.
3) Shaft: the portion of the hair that’s above the skin surface
4) Three layers of a hair can be seen in a cross section: Medulla (core), Cortex, Cuticle (outer layer)
5) Hair receptors: Sensory nerve fibers that are entwined with follicles that detect hair movement
6) Piloerector muscle: Smooth muscle that attaches the follicle to dermis; contracts to make hair stand on its end, which causes goose bumps

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160
Q

Discuss the basic functions of hair.

A

1) Protection: The hair on your scalp provides your head with more protection against sunburns.
2) Light touch: Hair helps you sense light touch due to the presence of hair receptors.
3) Heat retention: The hair on your head provides an extra layer to trap warm air.
4) Excretion: Sebaceous glands found on hair follicles excrete sebum, which helps keep skin and hair from drying out.

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161
Q

Describe the basic structure and function of nails.

A

Nails are clear, hard derivatives of stratum corneum. They’re composed of thin, dead cells packed with hard keratin.
Provides the tops of our fingertips and toes with an extra layer of protection.

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162
Q

Name two types of sweat glands, and describe the structure and function of each

A

1) Merocrine sweat glands
- Most numerous type of skin glands
- The gland’s duct opens to the surface of the skin
- Regulates body temperature by allowing for perspiration
2) Apocrine sweat glands
- Found in the regions of the groin, anal region, axilla, areola, and beard (males)
- These glands are inactive until puberty; responds to stress and sexual stimulation
- Ducts lead to nearby hair follicles
- Believed to secrete pheromones

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163
Q

Describe the location, structure, and function of sebaceous glands.

A

Most sebaceous glands open into a hair follicle, meaning they aren’t present in thick skin.
They utilize a holocrine secretion style and secrete sebum, which is an oily secretion that keeps skin and hair from becoming dry, brittle, and cracked. It also inhibits the growth of bacteria & fungi (ringworm)

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164
Q

Name some other cutaneous glands

A

1

1) Ceruminous glands in external ear canal
- Modified apocrine sweat glands
- Forms earwax (cerumen)
2) Mammary Glands
- Milk-producing modified apocrine sweat glands that develop only during pregnancy
- Two rows of mammary glands can be found in most mammals

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165
Q

Describe the three most common forms of skin cancer.

A

1) Basal cell carcinoma
- Most common form of skin cancer, but the least malignant
- Most often on the head, neck, and hands
- Most common in fair-skinned people and the elderly
- Forms from cells in stratum basale
- Lesion is small, shiny bump with central depression and beaded edges
2) Squamous cell carcinoma
- May metastasize if not removed; tends to metastasize to lymph nodes and may become lethal. However, the chance of recovery is good with early detection and surgical removal
- Arises from keratinocytes of stratum spinosum
- Lesions usually found on the scalp, ears, lower lip, or back of the hand
- They typically have a raised, reddened, scaly appearance later forming a concave ulcer
3) Melanoma
- Least common (less than 5% of skin cancers) but very malignant. Can be successfully removed if caught early, but if it metastasizes it is usually fatal
- Skin cancer that arises from melanocytes
- Greatest risk factor: familial history of malignant melanoma
- Highest incidence in men, redheads, and people who had severe sunburn as a child

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166
Q

Describe melanomas

A

Least common (less than 5% of skin cancers) but very malignant. Can be successfully removed if caught early, but if it metastasizes it is usually fatal
Skin cancer that arises from melanocytes
Greatest risk factor: familial history of malignant melanoma
Highest incidence in men, redheads, and people who had severe sunburn as a child

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167
Q

Describe basal cell carcinoma

A

Most common form of skin cancer, but the least malignant
Most often on the head, neck, and hands
Most common in fair-skinned people and the elderly
Forms from cells in stratum basale
Lesion is small, shiny bump with central depression and beaded edges

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168
Q

Describe squamous cell carcinoma

A

May metastasize if not removed; tends to metastasize to lymph nodes and may become lethal. However, the chance of recovery is good with early detection and surgical removal
Arises from keratinocytes of stratum spinosum
Lesions usually found on the scalp, ears, lower lip, or back of the hand
They typically have a raised, reddened, scaly appearance later forming a concave ulcer

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169
Q

Describe the three classes of burns.

A

1) First-degree burn
- Involves only the epidermis and heals in days.
2) Second-degree burn
- A partial-thickness burn; involves part of dermis
- May appear red, tan, or white; often blistered and painful
- Takes two weeks to several months to heal and may leave scars
3) Third-degree burn
- A full-thickness burn; involves epidermis, all of dermis, and often some deeper tissues
- Often requires skin grafts
- Typically requires fluid replacement, infection control, and supplemental nutrition

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170
Q

Name the tissues and organs that compose the skeletal system.

A

Major organs: Bones.
Major tissues: Bones are made up of bone tissue, bone marrow, cartilage, adipose tissue, nervous tissue, and fibrous connective tissue

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171
Q

Describe the major functions of the skeletal system and give examples

A

1) Support: Limb bones and vertebrae support the body; jaw bone supports the teeth; bones support viscera
2) Protection: Cranial bones protect the brain, vertebrae protect the spinal cord, ribs protect the heart and lungs, etc
3) Movement: Allows for movement of limbs and breathing (requires action of muscles on bones).
4) Electrolyte balance: Helps regulate calcium & phosphate levels
5) Acid–base balance: Buffers the blood against large pH changes by altering phosphate and carbonate salt levels
6) Blood formation: Red bone marrow produces red blood cells.

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172
Q

Distinguish between bones as a tissue and as an organ.

A

Bones (organs) have multiple types of tissue; each individual bone in your body is a separate organ.
One of the types of tissue found in bones (organs) is called bone tissue, also called osseous tissue.

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173
Q

Describe the types of bones classified by shape and give examples

A

1) Flat bones: cranial bones, sternum, ribs, scapula, hip.
- These bones are usually for protection
2) Long bones: femur, humerus, radius and ulna, metatarsals, metacarpals, digits of manus and pedal regions, etc
- These bones are usually in appendages, for movement
3) Short bones: carpal (wrist) bones, tarsal (ankle) bones
4) Irregular bones: vertebrae, some skull bones (inner ear bones)
5) Sesamoid (type of short bone): patella
- Sesamoid bones develop in a tendon (or ligament) in response to a need for more leverage.
6) Sutural (wormian) bones
- Sutural bones are the extra bones in the sutures (especially the lambdoid suture) of the skull.
- Everyone has a different number of sutures in their cranium (i.e. some people only have 1, while others may have 4, depending on how their cranium formed).

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174
Q

Identify the internal structural components of compact bone

A
  • The dense outer shell of bone
  • Made up of subunits called osteons, which contain:
    1) Lamellae
  • Columns of the matrix (mainly collagen) that are weight bearing
  • Run concentric, circumferential, and interstitially
    2) Central (Haversian canal)
  • Contains blood vessels and nerves
    3) Perforating (Volkmann’s) canals
  • Channels that connect blood and nerves from periosteum to the central (Haversian) canal; run transverse or diagonal.
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175
Q

Osteons are made up of what 3 components?

A

Lamellae, central (haversian) canal, and perforating (volkmann’s) canals

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176
Q

Identify the internal structural components of spongy bone

A
  • A lattice of bone covered with endosteum and an internal honeycomb of trabeculae filled with red or yellow bone marrow
  • Trabeculae (thin plates of bone) develop along the bone’s lines of stress.
  • Spaces filled with red bone marrow
  • Few osteons and no central canals
  • Provides strength with minimal weight
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177
Q

Describe and distinguish between the two types of bone marrow.

A

1) Red marrow
- Contains hemopoietic tissue; produces blood cells.
- Found in almost all bones in children, and found primarily in the axial skeleton of adults.
2) Yellow marrow
- Found in adults
- Stores triglycerides; functions as energy storage.
- Can transform back to red marrow in the event of chronic anemia.

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178
Q

Describe the intramembranous ossification mode of bone formation

A
  • Bone develops within a fibrous connective tissue membrane
  • Mesenchymal cells&raquo_space;> osteoblasts&raquo_space;> osteocytes (spongy bone)
  • Forms the flat bones of the skull, clavicles, and ossifies the fontanels.
  • Most of these bones are remodeled (destroyed and reformed) as we grow to adult size.
  • Thickens long bones throughout our lives.
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179
Q

Describe the endochondral ossification mode of bone formation

A
  • Bone forms by replacing hyaline cartilage
  • Forms most the bones of the body below the skull (except the clavicle)
  • Mesenchyme&raquo_space;turns into» chondroblasts&raquo_space; die and are replaced by&raquo_space; osteoblasts&raquo_space;turn into» spongy bone&raquo_space;turn into» compact bone
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180
Q

Compare and contrast the function of osteoblasts and osteoclasts during bone growth, repair, and remodeling.

A
  • Osteoblasts: create bone
  • Osteoclasts: break down bone.
  • During bone growth, osteoblasts create bone. –During bone remodeling, osteoclasts break down bone and osteoblasts create bone.
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181
Q

Name and describe the process by which minerals are added to bone tissue.

A
  • Mineral deposition (mineralization): the process in which calcium, phosphate, and other ions are taken from blood and deposited in bone.
  • During this process, osteoblasts produce collagen fibers, and the collagen fibers then become encrusted with minerals.
  • The first few mineral crystals act as “seed crystals” that attract more calcium and phosphate
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182
Q

Name and describe the process by which minerals are removed from bone tissue.

A
  • Mineral resorption: the process of dissolving bone and releasing minerals into blood
  • This process is performed by osteoclasts; they pump hydrogen to extracellular fluid (chloride follows). Hydrochloric acid (pH 4) dissolves bone minerals.
  • They also produce an enzyme which digests collagen in an acidic environment.
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183
Q

Describe the role of the bones in regulating blood calcium and phosphate levels.

A
  • When blood calcium or phosphate is LOW, the process of mineral resorption takes place. For example, if blood calcium is low, then some of the calcium stored in the bones will be resorbed into the blood stream.
  • When blood calcium or phosphate is HIGH, the process of mineral deposition takes place. For example, if blood calcium is high, then some of the calcium from the blood stream will be deposited into the bones.
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184
Q

Explain the role of calcitriol in regulation of bone physiology and describe its effect

A
  • Calcitriol (aka vitamin D) is a hormone that raises blood calcium levels.
  • Mainly, it increases calcium absorption by the small intestine, but it also increases calcium resorption from the skeleton, and weakly promotes kidney reabsorption of calcium ions, so less are lost in urine.
  • It’s produced by actions of skin, liver, and kidneys.
  • Calcitriol is necessary for bone deposition, so lack of calcitriol results in abnormal softness of bones; in children, this causes rickets, and in adults, this causes osteomalacia.
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185
Q

Explain the role of calcitonin in regulation of bone physiology and describe its effect

A
  • Calcitonin is produced by the thyroid gland and lowers blood calcium levels; its release is triggered by high blood calcium.
  • It lowers blood calcium concentration in 2 ways; it inhibits osteoclasts and stimulates osteoblasts.
  • It’s important in children, but has a weak effect in adults (except may inhibit bone loss in pregnant and lactating women)
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186
Q

Explain the role of parathyroid hormone in regulation of bone physiology and describe its effect

A
  • Parathyroid hormone is produced by the parathyroid glands, and increases blood calcium; its release triggered by low blood calcium.
  • PTH increases blood calcium 4 ways; it stimulates osteoclast population and bone resorption, promotes calcium reabsorption by kidneys, promotes calcitriol synthesis, and inhibits osteoblasts, inhibiting bone deposition
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187
Q

Explain the hormonal regulation of skeleton growth.

A
  • Epiphyseal plate activity is stimulated by Human Growth Hormone (hGH); hGH stimulates growth at the epiphyseal plates in children.
  • Estrogen has a stronger effect on skeleton growth than testosterone; both of those hormones begin to affect bone growth during puberty, and they differentiate the male and female skeleton.
  • Males typically continue to grow for a longer period of time than females.
  • At least 20 or more hormones, vitamins, and growth factors affect osseous tissue.
  • Anabolic steroids administered during childhood/ adolescence can also prematurely stop bone growth.
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188
Q

Describe the bone disease ostoporosis

A
  • The most common bone disease
  • Affects spongy bone the most since it is the most metabolically active
  • Subject to pathological fractures of hip, wrist, and vertebral column
  • Kyphosis (widow’s hump): deformity of spine due to vertebral bone loss
  • Complications of loss of mobility are pneumonia and thrombosis
  • Estrogen maintains bone density in both sexes; inhibits resorption by osteoclasts
  • Postmenopausal white women are at the greatest risk; white women begin to lose bone mass as early as age 35. By age 70, their average loss is 30% of bone mass.
  • Osteoporosis also seen in young female athletes with low body fat causing them to stop ovulating and decrease estrogen secretion
  • Risk factors: race, age, gender, smoking, diabetes mellitus, diets poor which are poor in: calcium, protein, vitamins C and D
  • Treatments: Estrogen replacement therapy (ERT) (slows bone resorption, but increases risk of breast cancer, stroke, and heart disease); PTH derivative can also be used as a treatment but can cause bone cancer; certain medications destroy osteoclasts.
  • However, best treatment is prevention: exercise and a good bone-building diet between ages 25 and 40
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189
Q

Describe the bone disease osteomalacia

A

Caused by low levels of calcitriol (vitamin D) in adults; leads to abnormally soft bones. This is because calcitriol is necessary for bone deposition.

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190
Q

Describe the bone disease Ricket’s

A

Caused by low levels of calcitriol (vitamin D) in children; leads to abnormally soft bones. This is because calcitriol is necessary for bone deposition.

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191
Q

Describe the bone disease osteogenesis imperfecta

A

A deficit in collagen deposition.

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192
Q

Name and describe the types of fractures.

A
  • Non-displaced: A fracture where the bones remain aligned.
  • Displaced: A fracture where the bones become misaligned.
  • Comminuted: A fracture in which the bone breaks into several pieces
  • Greenstick: An incomplete fracture in which the bone is bent; occurs most often in children.
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193
Q

Explain the ways in which a fracture can be repaired.

A
  • Closed reduction: A procedure in which bone fragments are manipulated into their normal positions without surgery
  • Open reduction: Involves surgical exposure of the bone and the use of plates, screws, or pins to realign the fragments
  • Cast: normally used to stabilize and immobilize healing bone
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194
Q

Explain how the body heals fractures

A

The body repairs fractures by forming a hematoma, then a soft callus, then a hard callus, then bone remodeling.

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195
Q

Predict factors or situations affecting the skeletal system that could disrupt homeostasis.

A
  • Lack of vitamin D in your diet could lead to osteomalacia, disrupting homeostasis.
  • Radiation therapy can cause damage to red bone marrow, which can lead to decreased blood cell production, which can lead to disruption of homeostasis.
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196
Q

Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the skeletal system could not maintain homeostasis.

A

Lack of homeostatic control causes illness, injury, or death.

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197
Q

Describe the axial skeleton and list the general bone structures contained within it

A

The axial skeleton has 80 named bones, and includes structures such as the skull, vertebrae, sternum, ribs, sacrum, and hyoid.

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198
Q

Describe the appendicular skeleton and list the general bone structures contained within it

A

The appendicular skeleton has 126 named bones, and includes structures such as the pectoral and pelvic girdles and upper and lower extremities (limbs).

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199
Q

Name the cranial bones and describe their locations

A

There are 8 cranial bones; two parietal, two temporal, frontal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid.
The parietal bones are located at the apex of the head.
The frontal bone is located at the front of the head.
The temporal bones are located on the sides of the head (this is where the ears are located)
The sphenoid bone makes up the back of the eye socket
The ethmoid bone makes up the medial part of the eye socket.

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200
Q

Name the facial bones and describe their locations

A

There are 14 facial bones; two nasal, 2 maxilla, 2 lacrimal, 2 zygomatic, 2 inferior nasal concha, 2 palatine, vomer, and mandible.
The nasal bones are located towards the top of the nose.
The two maxillary bones are located superior to both the upper and lower teeth and inferior to the nose
The two zygomatic bones are located on either side of the face (often referred to as ‘cheekbones’)
The two lacrimal bones are located on the medial side of the eye sockets (superficial to the ethmoid bone).
The two inferior nasal concha are located on both lateral sides of the vomer.
The vomer makes up the middle of the nose and separates the left nostril from the right.
The mandible makes up the chin and lower jaw (inferior to the maxillary bone and teeth).

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201
Q

Describe the hyoid bone

A

This bone is located deep and inferior to the mandible, and it does not articulate with any other bones.

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202
Q

Describe the naming conventions of bone markings

A
  • As a general rule, anything named as a process, tubercle, tuberosity, trochanter, condyle, or crest are projections of bone and are generally used as attachment sites for muscles or ligaments.
  • Anything named as a foramen is a hole typically used for blood vessels or nerves.
  • Anything named as a fissure is a slit-like narrow opening.
  • Anything named as a notch is an indentation or large groove in a bone, and anything named a fossa is a shallow depression.
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203
Q

Describe the features/markings of the occipital bone (2)

A
  • The occipital bone contains the foramen magnum, which is a hole in the occipital bone where the brainstem enters.
  • The occipital condyles are round kidney bean shapes around the foramen magnum, which is where the skull articulates with vertebrae (this is what gives the us the ability to nod our heads vertically)
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204
Q

Describe the features/markings of the temporal bone (4)

A
  • The temporal bone contains the external acoustic meatus, which is the hole of the ear canal.
  • The mastoid process is a rather large bony projection that is located behind the ear.
  • The styloid process is a small bony projection that serves as an anchor point for muscles associated with the tongue and larynx.
  • The mandibular fossa is a shallow depression located just slightly anterior to the styloid process.
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205
Q

Describe the features/markings of the sphenoid bone (5)

A
  • The majority of the sphenoid bone is made up of the greater and lesser wings (the lesser wing is anterior to the greater wing).
  • The sella turcica is where the brain sits.
  • The superior orbital fissure is a spike/triangular shaped hole, and allows certain nerves to enter the orbit.
  • The optic canal lets the optic nerve into the orbit.
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206
Q

Describe the features/markings of the ethmoid bone (3)

A
  • The ethmoid bone has cribriform plates, the holes of which are what allow nerves entry to the nasal cavity.
  • The olfactory foramina lets bundles of nerve fibers of the olfactory nerve enter the nasal cavity. -The meninges anchor to the crista galli.
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207
Q

List the bones that contain the paranasal sinuses.

A

The frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, and maxillary bones.

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208
Q

Define and describe the purposes of fontanelles in a newborn skull

A

Fontanelles in the newborn skull are dense connective tissue membrane-filled spaces
(soft spots); they are unossified at birth but close early in a child’s life. They have two purposes: to allow the fetal skull to pass through the birth canal, and to allow rapid growth of the brain during infancy.

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209
Q

List the most common fontanelles found in the newborn skull

A

The most common fontanelles are the sphenoidal (aka anterolateral fontanel), the mastoid (aka posterolateral fontanel), the anterior fontanel, and the posterior fontanel.

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210
Q

Describe the general features of the vertebral column

A

The vertebral column typically consists of 7 cervical vertebrae (C1 is the atlas and C2 is the axis), 12 thoracic vertebrae, 5 lumbar vertebrae, sacrum (5, fused), and coccyx (3-5, fused).

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211
Q

Describe the general features of vertebrae

A

Typical vertebra consist of a body, vertebral foramen (where the spinal cord goes), and a spinous process (excluding the atlas).

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212
Q

Describe the general differentiating features of cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae.

A

The cervical vertebra have a transverse foramen to let the vertebral arteries travel up to the head and neck.
The thoracic vertebrae typically each attach to a pair of ribs.
The lumbar vertebrae typically have very large bodies.

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213
Q

Describe the structure of the intervertebral discs and their relationship to the vertebrae.

A

Intervertebral discs are made of fibrocartilage with a pulpy center and are located between each vertebrae, and their purpose is to absorb vertical shock and allow for the vertebral column to move.

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214
Q

Describe herniated discs

A

If the nucleus pulposus of an intervertebral disc herniates, it puts pressure on the nerves and causes pain.

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215
Q

Describe the primary normal curvatures of the vertebral column.

A

Primary curvatures: thoracic and sacral curves, which form during fetal development

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216
Q

Describe the secondary normal curvatures of the vertebral column

A

Secondary curvatures: cervical and lumbar curves; the cervical curve forms when infant raises head at 4 months, and the lumbar curve forms when an infant sits up & begins to walk.

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217
Q

Describe how the shape of the spine changes during the first 3 years of life.

A

The spine has a C-shaped curve at birth (convex) and is S-shaped past the age of 3 years.

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218
Q

Describe the three abnormal curvatures of the vertebral column.

A

Kyphosis (hunchback): exaggerated thoracic curvature, usually from osteoporosis, osteomalacia, spinal tuberculosis, or weightlifting and/or wrestling from a young age.
Lordosis (swayback): exaggerated lumbar curvature
Scoliosis: lateral bending of the spinal column; the most common abnormal curve, and is often seen in adolescent girls.

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219
Q

Describe the anatomy of the sternum and ribs and how the ribs articulate with the thoracic vertebrae.

A

Ribs 1-7 are true ribs (their cartilage directly connects to the sternum) 8-12 are false ribs (they indirectly connect to the sternum), and ribs 11-12 are floating ribs (they do not connect to the sternum). Each thoracic vertebrae articulates with a pair of ribs.

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220
Q

Identify the features of the scapula

A

Scapular spine, acromion process, coracoid process, glenoid cavity, supraspinous fossa, infraspinous fossa, subscapular fossa.

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221
Q

Scapula: Describe the scapular spine

A

The scapular spine is a horizontal line of protruding bone along the posterior side of the scapula.

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222
Q

Scapula: Describe the acromion process

A

The acromion process is a bulbous end found at the lateral side of the scapular spine.

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223
Q

Scapula: Describe the coracoid process

A

The coracoid process is a protrusion similar in appearance to the acromion process, but on the anterior side of the scapula.

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224
Q

Scapula: Describe the glenoid cavity

A

The glenoid cavity is a groove situated between the acromion and coracoid processes.

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225
Q

Scapula: Describe the supraspinous fossa

A

The supraspinous fossa is a shallow indentation superior to the scapular spine on the posterior side.

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226
Q

Scapula: Describe the infraspinous fossa

A

The infraspinous fossa is a shallow indentation inferior to the scapular spine on the posterior side.

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227
Q

Scapula: Describe the subscapular fossa

A

The subscapular fossa is a shallow indentation inferior to the scapular spine on the anterior side.

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228
Q

List the proximal and distal features of the humerus

A

Proximal end: head, surgical neck, anatomical neck, greater tubercle, lesser tubercle, intertubercular groove, deltoid tuberosity
Distal end: olecranon fossa, coronoid fossa, radial fossa, capitulum, trochlea, medial epicondyle, lateral epicondyle.

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229
Q

Humerus: Describe the head, surgical neck, and anatomical neck

A
  • The head of the humerus is a the rounded side of the proximal end, and is pointed medially.
  • The surgical neck is the thinner area below the anatomical neck of the proximal end of the humerus where the humerus is cut during amputations.
  • The anatomical neck is located just inferior to the head of the humerus on the proximal end; it is where the head of the humerus ends.
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230
Q

Humerus: Describe the greater tubercle and lesser tubercle

A

The greater tubercle is a small, rounded projection that is located on the lateral side of the humerus on the proximal end.
The lesser tubercle is a small, rounded projection that is located on the medial side of the humerus on the proximal end.

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231
Q

Humerus: Describe the intertubercular groove

A

The intertubercular groove is located between the greater and less tubercles, and is an indentation in the bone on the proximal end.

232
Q

Humerus: Describe the deltoid tuberosity

A

The deltoid tuberosity is the only feature of the humerus located on the diaphysis, and is the attachment site for the deltoid muscle.

233
Q

Humerus: Describe the olecranon fossa

A

The olecranon fossa is a large indentation located on the posterior distal end of the humerus.

234
Q

Humerus: Describe the coronoid fossa and the radial fossa

A
  • The coronoid fossa is a small indentation located on the medial anterior side of the distal end.
  • The radial fossa is a small indentation (smaller than the coronoid fossa) located on the lateral anterior side of the distal end.
235
Q

Humerus: Describe the capitulum

A

The capitulum is a rounded portion of the lateral anterior side of the distal end that articulates with the head of the radius, and is just inferior to the radial fossa.

236
Q

Humerus: Describe the trochlea

A

The trochlea is a rounded portion of the medial anterior side of the distal end that articulates with the trochlear notch of the ulna, and is just inferior to the coronoid fossa.

237
Q

Humerus: Describe the medial and lateral epicondyles

A
  • The medial epicondyle is a rounded articular projection that the pronator teres and some ligaments attach to, and is located on the medial side of the distal end.
  • The lateral epicondyle is a rounded articular projection that ligaments attach to, and is located on the lateral side of the distal end.
238
Q

List the proximal and distal features of the radius

A

Proximal end: head, neck, radial tuberosity

Distal end: ulnar notch.

239
Q

Describe the proximal features of the radius

A

The head is a round, circular part of the radius at the proximal end.
The neck is located just below the head of the radius at the proximal end.
The radial tuberosity is an elevated portion of the radius on the diaphysis located near the proximal end.

240
Q

Radius: Describe the ulnar notch

A

The ulnar notch is a notch located on the distal end of the radius, and is where the ulna and radius articulate.

241
Q

List the proximal and distal features of the ulna

A

Proximal end: olecranon process, coronoid process, trochlear notch, radial notch.
Distal end: styloid process.

242
Q

Ulna: Describe the olecranon process

A

The olecranon process is a large, bony projection located on the posterior side of the ulna on the proximal end.

243
Q

Ulna: Describe the coronoid process

A

The coronoid process is a large, bony projection located on the anterior side of the ulna on the proximal end; it is barely visible from the posterior view.

244
Q

Ulna: Describe the trochlear notch and the radial notch

A

The trochlear notch is a large notch on the proximal end of the ulna that articulates with the humerus.
The radial notch is a large notch on the lateral anterior side of the proximal end of the ulna, and articulates with the radius.

245
Q

Ulna: Describe the styloid process

A

The styloid process is a smaller bony projection on the distal end of the ulna.

246
Q

Carpals: Describe the scaphoid, trapezium, and lunate bones.

A
  • The scaphoid bone is just proximal to the trapezium.
  • The trapezium is proximal to the thumb and superior to the scaphoid bone.
  • The lunate is located directly lateral to the scaphoid bone, and is inferior to the IV metacarpal.
247
Q

Bones of the hand: Describe the metacarpals and phalanges

A
  • Metacarpals: 5 bones labeled as I, II, III, IV, and V; the I metacarpal is located just inferior to the pollux.
  • Phalanges: proximal, middle, and distal in each finger; proximal and distal phalanx in thumb.
248
Q

The _____ is immediately superior to the coccyx

A

Sacrum

249
Q

List the features of the coxal bone

A

Acetabulum, ilium (iliac crest, auricular surface, greater sciatic notch), ischium (ischial tuberosity, obturator foramen), and pubis (pubic symphysis).

250
Q

Coxal bone: Describe the acetabulum

A

The acetabulum is located on either lateral side of the anterior coxal bone, and is where the head of the femur articulates.

251
Q

Coxal bone: Describe the ilium and its features

A
  • The ilium is the biggest and most superior portion of the coxal bone; located on either lateral side on both the posterior and anterior sides of the coxal bone.
  • The iliac crest is located mostly on the anterior side of the ilium, and is where the ilium “folds over”
  • The auricular surface is the rough surface located on the lateral side of the coxal bone, and is superior to the greater sciatic notch.
  • The greater sciatic notch is located just inferior to the auricular surface.
252
Q

Coxal bone: Describe the ischium and its features

A
  • The ischium is located on the lateral side of the coxal bone, and is lateral to the pubis and inferior to the ilium.
  • The ischial tuberosity is a rough, elevated area located on the lower anterior lateral side of the coxal bone.
  • The obturator foramen is a large hole in the ischium and pubis of the coxal bone that allows nerves and blood vessels to pass through it.
253
Q

Coxal bone: Describe the pubis and its features

A
  • The pubis is located on the medial side of the coxal bone, and is medial to the ischium and inferior to the ilium.
  • The pubis symphysis is the most medial feature of the coxal bone, and is where the pubic bones articulate.
254
Q

List the proximal and distal features of the femur

A

Proximal end: head, neck, greater trochanter, lesser trochanter
Distal end: lateral condyle, medial condyle, lateral epicondyle, medial epicondyle.

255
Q

Femur: Describe the head and neck

A
  • The head of the femur is a round bulbous end located on the proximal end of the femur, and is where it articulates with the acetabulum.
  • The neck of the femur is located just below the head on the proximal end.
256
Q

Femur: Describe the greater and lesser trochanters

A
  • The greater trochanter is a large, rounded projection located on the posterior side of the proximal end of the femur, and is superior to the lesser trochanter.
  • The lesser trochanter is a large, rounded projection located on the posterior side of the proximal end of the femur, and is inferior to the greater trochanter.
257
Q

Femur: Describe the lateral and medial condyles.

A
  • The lateral condyle is a rounded articular projection located on the lateral distal end of the femur; it is inferior to the lateral epicondyle and visible from both the anterior and posterior views.
  • The medial condyle is a rounded articular projection located on the medial distal end of the femur; it is inferior to the medial epicondyle and visible from both the anterior and posterior views.
258
Q

Femur: Describe the lateral and medial epicondyles

A
  • The lateral epicondyle is a rounded projection located on the lateral distal end of the femur; it is superior to the lateral condyle and visible from both the anterior and posterior views.
  • The medial epicondyle is a rounded projection located on the medial distal end of the femur; it is superior to the medial condyle and visible from both the anterior and posterior views.
259
Q

List the proximal and distal features of the tibia

A

Proximal end: articular surface of medial and lateral condyles, anterior border
Distal end: medial malleolus

260
Q

Tibia: Describe the articular surfaces of the lateral and medial condyles

A
  • The articular surface of the medial condyle is located on the medial side of the proximal end of the tibia; it is more visible from the posterior view.
  • The articular surface of the lateral condyle is located on the lateral side of the proximal end of the tibia; it is more visible from the posterior view.
261
Q

Tibia: Describe the anterior border

A

The anterior border is the vertical ridge on the anterior side of the tibia’s diaphysis.

262
Q

Tibia: Describe the medial malleolus

A

The medial malleolus is located on the medial side of distal end of the tibia, and is a bony hook-shaped process.

263
Q

List and describe the features of the fibula

A

Fibula: Lateral malleolus

The lateral malleolus is located on the lateral side of the distal end of the fibula, and is a slightly curved process.

264
Q

Tarsals: Describe the talus and calcaneus

A

The talus is a large bone that is the most proximal bone of the foot.
The calcaneus is a large bone located distally to the talus.

265
Q

Describe the metatarsals and phalanges

A
  • Metatarsals (5 bones): The metatarsals are numbered I-V, with the metatarsal I located just proximally to the hallux’s phalangeal bones.
  • Phalanges (proximal, middle, and distal in each toe; proximal and distal phalanx in hallux)
266
Q

Compare the anatomy of the male and female pelvic girdles and explain the functional significance of the differences.

A
  • Male pelvic girdle: heavier and thicker with larger acetabula closer to each other.
  • Female pelvic girdle: wider and shallower, tilted more forward, and adapted to the needs of pregnancy and childbirth, larger pelvic inlet (brim) and outlet for passage of infant’s head.
  • These differences are important because the female pelvic girdle needs to be adapted to allow for an infant’s head to pass through it during child birth.
267
Q

Explain what joints are and what functions they serve.

A

A joint, or articulation, is defined as any point where two bones meet, whether or not the bones are movable at that interface.

268
Q

Name the four major structural categories of joints

A
  • Bony (synostoses)
  • Cartilaginous (amphiarthroses)
  • Fibrous (synarthroses)
  • Synovial (diarthroses)
269
Q

Describe bony (synostoses) joints

A

Immobile; when the gap between two bones ossifies (becomes one bone). Examples: Left and right mandibular bones in infants, cranial sutures in elderly, attachment of first rib and sternum with old age.

270
Q

Describe cartilaginous (amphiarthroses) joints and list the two kinds

A

A slightly movable joint; two types are symphyses and syndesmoses

271
Q

Describe fibrous (synarthroses) joints and list the three different kinds

A
  • Type of joint which permits very little or no movement. Bones are bound by collagen fibers that emerge from one bone and penetrate into the other.
  • Three kinds of fibrous joints: Sutures, gomphoses, and syndesmoses
272
Q

Describe synovial (diarthrosis) joints

A

Freely movable joints (has a joint capsule)

273
Q

Describe the three types of fibrous joints and give an example of each.

A
  • Sutures: Immobile or slightly mobile; uses short collagen fibers. Ex: sagittal suture of the skull.
  • Gomphoses: Attachment of a tooth to its socket; the tooth is held in place by fibrous periodontal ligament (collagen). This allows the tooth to move a little under the stress of chewing. Ex: teeth.
  • Syndesmoses: Two bones are bound by long collagen fibers. Example of a very mobile syndesmosis: interosseus membrane joining radius to ulna (allows supination & pronation). An example of a less mobile syndesmosis: joint between tibia to fibula
274
Q

Describe the two types of cartilaginous joints and give an example of each

A

1) Synchondrosis: bones joined by hyaline cartilage.
Examples: Epiphyseal plates in children (temporary joints), first rib attachment to sternum (other costal cartilages joined to sternum by synovial joints).
2) Symphysis: two bones joined by fibrocartilage
Examples: Pubic symphysis, bodies of vertebrae joined by intervertebral discs

275
Q

Identify and describe the anatomical components of a typical synovial joint.

A

1) Articular cartilage (usually 2 or 3 mm thick)
-Absorbs shock and made of hyaline cartilage
2) Joint (articular) cavity
3) Synovial fluid: slippery lubricant in joint cavity
-Rich in albumin and hyaluronic acid
-Gives it a viscous, slippery texture like raw egg whites and nourishes articular cartilage and removes waste
-Makes movement of synovial joints almost friction free
4) Joint (articular) capsule
-Outer fibrous capsule: continuous with periosteum
-Inner, cellular, synovial membrane:
fibroblast-like cells that secrete synovial fluid and macrophages that remove debris from the joint cavity

276
Q

Explain the beneficial effects of exercise on articular cartilage.

A
  • Exercise warms synovial fluid; it becomes less viscous, more easily absorbed by cartilage
  • Cartilage then swells; becomes a more effective cushion
  • Repetitive compression and decompression of cartilage (during exercise) moves synovial fluid in and out of the cartilage like a sponge.
  • Oxygen and nutrients are brought to chondrocytes; wastes are taken away
  • Without exercise, cartilage deteriorates more rapidly from inadequate nutrition and waste removal
  • A warm-up period before vigorous exercise helps protect cartilage from undue wear and tear
277
Q

Define range of motion (ROM)

A

Defined as the degrees through which a joint can move. An aspect of joint performance; a physical assessment of a patient’s joint flexibility

278
Q

List and describe the factors that determine range of motion

A

1) Shape of the articular surfaces
- Elbow: olecranon of ulna fits into olecranon fossa of humerus
2) Strength and tautness of ligaments and joint capsules
- Stretching of ligaments increases range of motion
- Double-jointed means people have very long or slack ligaments.
3) Action of the muscles and tendons
- Nervous system monitors joint position and muscle tone
- Muscle tone: state of tension maintained in resting muscles

279
Q

Describe the primary axes of rotation that a bone can have and relate this to the different movements that are possible.

A
  • Multiaxial joint: shoulder joint has three degrees of freedom or axes of rotation
  • –This allows the shoulder to abduct, internally rotate, and flex.
  • Monoaxial: 1 degree of freedom
  • Biaxial: 2 degrees of rotation
280
Q

Name the six classes of synovial joints

A

1) Ball-and-socket joints
2) Condylar (ellipsoid) joints
3) Plane (gliding) joints
4) Saddle joints
5) Hinge joints
6) Pivot joints

281
Q

Describe ball-and-socket joints and condylar (ellipsoid) joints

A

1) Ball-and-socket joints
- Only multiaxial joints in body
- Example: humeroscapular joint

2) Condylar (ellipsoid) joints
- Oval convex surface of one bone fits into a complementary-shaped depression on the other
- Biaxial
- Examples: radiocarpal joint, metacarpophalangeal joints, atlanto-occipital joint

282
Q

Describe plane (gliding) joints and saddle joints

A

1) Plane (gliding) joints
- Flat articular surfaces, bones slide over each other
- Usually biaxial joints
- Examples: intercarpal; intertarsal; between articular processes of vertebrae

2) Saddle joints
- Both bones have an articular surface that is shaped like a saddle, one concave, the other convex
- Biaxial joints
- Example: trapeziometacarpal (opposable thumb)

283
Q

Describe hinge and pivot joints

A

1) Hinge joints
- One bone with convex surface fits into a concave depression of another bone
- Monoaxial joints—move freely in one plane
- Examples: elbow, knee, joints within fingers, toes

2) Pivot joints
- A bone spins on its longitudinal axis
- Monoaxial joints
- Examples: atlantoaxial joint (C1 and C2), radioulnar joint at the elbow

284
Q

Describe flexion vs extension, and abduction vs adduction

A

Flexion: “bending”; decreasing the angle between two bones.
Extension: “straightening”; increasing the angle between two bones

Abduction: moving [a limb] away from the midline
Adduction: moving [a limb] toward the midline

285
Q

Describe protraction vs retraction, and supinate vs pronate

A

Protraction: pulling the scapula forward
Retraction: pulling the scapula backward

Supinate: turning the palms upward in anatomical position
Pronate: turn the palms downward, not in anatomical position.

286
Q

Identify the major anatomical features of the jaw joint (TMJ)

A
  • Articulation of the condyle of the mandible with the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone
  • Combines elements of condylar, hinge, and plane joints
  • Synovial cavity of the TMJ is divided into superior and inferior chambers by an articular disc
  • Deep yawn or strenuous depression can dislocate the TMJ
  • Condyles pop out of fossa and slip forward; relocated by pressing down on molar teeth while pushing the jaw backward
287
Q

Describe TMJ syndrome (occurrence, symptoms, causes, and treatment)

A
  • May affect as many as 75 million Americans
  • Signs and symptoms: Clicking sounds in the jaw, imitation of jaw movement; pain radiating from jaw down the neck, shoulders, and back; can cause moderate intermittent facial pain, or severe headaches, vertigo (dizziness), tinnitus (ringing in the ears)
  • Caused by: a combination of psychological tension and malocclusion (misalignment of teeth)
  • Treatment: Psychological management, physical therapy, analgesic and anti-inflammatory drugs, corrective dental appliances to align teeth properly
288
Q

Identify the major anatomical features of the shoulder joint (glenohumeral/humeroscapular)

A
  • Bones: humerus, scapula
  • Most freely mobile joint in body
  • Sacrifices stability for freedom of movement
  • Glenoid labrum: fibrocartilage ring that deepens glenoid cavity
  • Joint stabilized by tendons fused to joint capsule: Biceps brachii tendon and Rotator cuff tendons
  • Stabilized in all directions except inferiorly
289
Q

Describe what type of joint the elbow joint is

A

Combination of a hinge and a pivot joint

290
Q

Describe the hinge joint portion of the elbow joint

A

Hinge joint includes two articulations:
-Humeroulnar joint: trochlea of the humerus joins trochlear notch of the ulna
-Humeroradial joint: capitulum of humerus meets head of radius
Both articulations enclosed in one joint capsule

291
Q

Describe the pivot joint portion of the elbow joint

A
  • Pivot joint consists of the proximal radioulnar joint
  • Head of radius fits into radial notch of ulna
  • Held in place by anular ligament encircling radial head
  • Allows for pronation and supination
292
Q

Describe the major features of the hip (coxal) joint

A
  • Coxal (hip) joint—head of femur inserts into acetabulum of hip bone
  • More stable than shoulder
  • Acetabular labrum—horseshoe-shaped ring of fibrocartilage that deepens socket
  • Dislocations are rare
293
Q

Describe the general structure of the knee joint

A
  • Tibiofemoral (knee) joint: largest and most complex diarthrosis of the body
  • Primarily a hinge joint
  • Capable of slight rotation and lateral gliding when knee is flexed
  • Patellofemoral joint: gliding joint
  • Popliteal (posterior) region: extracapsular ligaments, and intracapsular ligaments cross each other to form X
  • Lateral meniscus and medial meniscus: C-shaped cartilages within joint capsule that absorb shock and prevent side-to-side rocking
294
Q

What stabilizes the knee?

A

Quadriceps tendon in front

Tendon of semimembranosus muscle on rear of thigh

295
Q

Describe knee injuries

A

Highly vulnerable to rotational and horizontal stress; most common injuries are to the menisci and anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
Heal slowly due to scanty blood flow

296
Q

Knee joint: Describe the ACL and PCL

A
  • Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL): prevents hyperextension of knee when ACL is pulled tight; common site of knee injury
  • Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL): prevents femur from sliding off tibia
297
Q

Describe the major features of the knee (talocrural) joint

A
  • Medial joint: between tibia and talus
  • Lateral joint: between fibula and talus
  • Both articulations are enclosed by one joint capsule
  • Malleoli of tibia and fibula overhang the talus on either side and prevent side-to-side motion
  • Calcaneal (Achilles) tendon: extends from the calf muscles to the calcaneus
  • Sprains (torn ligaments and tendons) are common at the ankle
298
Q

Describe the two basic types of arthritis (osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis).

A

1) Osteoarthritis (OA)—most common form of arthritis
- “Wear-and-tear arthritis”
- Results from years of joint wear
- Articular cartilage softens and degenerates
- Accompanied by crackling sounds called crepitus
- Bone spurs develop on exposed bone tissue causing pain
2) Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)—autoimmune attack against the joint tissues
- Misguided antibodies (rheumatoid factor) attack synovial membrane, enzymes in synovial fluid degrade the articular cartilage, joint begins to ossify
- Ankylosis: solidly fused, immobilized joint
- Remissions occur, steroids and aspirin control inflammation

299
Q

List the functions of muscles.

A

Movement, stability, control of openings, heat production, and glycemic control

300
Q

Describe how muscles help with movement

A

Move body parts (through pulling, never pushing); move body contents in breathing, circulation, and digestion

301
Q

Describe how muscles help with stability

A

Maintain posture by preventing unwanted movements

Stabilize joints by maintaining tension

302
Q

Describe how the muscular system helps control openings and passageways

A

Sphincters: internal muscular rings that control the movement of food, blood, and other materials within body

303
Q

Skeletal muscles are responsible for as much as __% of our body heat

A

85%

304
Q

How does the muscular system help with glycemic control?

A

Muscles absorb and store glucose as glycogen which helps regulate blood sugar concentration within normal range

305
Q

Describe the endomysium of muscles

A

Thin sleeve of loose connective tissue around each fiber

Electrically insulates each muscle fiber

306
Q

Describe the perimysium of muscles

A

Thicker layer of connective tissue that wraps fascicles
Carries nerves, blood vessels, and stretch receptors
Fascicles: bundles of muscle fibers wrapped together

307
Q

Describe the epimysium of muscles

A

Fibrous sheath surrounding entire muscle

Outer surface grades into fascia; inner surface projections form perimysium

308
Q

Describe the fascia of muscles

A

Sheet of connective tissue that separates neighboring muscles or muscle groups from each other and the subcutaneous tissue

309
Q

What is the order of the connective tissues surrounding muscle components from smallest to biggest?

A

Sheet of connective tissue that separates neighboring muscles or muscle groups from each other and the subcutaneous tissue

310
Q

The ______ defined by the perimysium are oriented in a variety of ways that determine the strength of a muscle and the direction in which it pulls.

A

fasicles

311
Q

List the various shapes of muscles and give examples of each

A

1) Fusiform: biceps brachii
2) Parallel: rectus abodomins
3) Triangular: pectoralis major
4) Unipennate: semimembranosus
5) Bipennate: rectus femoris
6) Multipennate: deltoid
7) Circular: orbicularis oculi

312
Q

Define the origin, insertion, belly, action, and innervation of a muscle.

A

1) The attachment at the stationary end has been called the origin of the muscle
2) The attachment at the moving end has been called the insertion.
3) Innervation of a muscle: refers to the identity of the nerve that stimulates it
4) The effect produced by a muscle, whether it is to produce or prevent a movement, is called its action.
5) The widest part of a muscle is called the belly.

313
Q

Define prime mover and fixator

A

1) The prime mover (agonist) is the muscle that produces most of the force during a particular joint action.
2) A fixator is a muscle that prevents a bone from moving. To fix a bone means to hold it steady, allowing another muscle attached to it to pull on something else.

314
Q

Define synergist and antagonist

A

1) A synergist is a muscle that aids the prime mover. Two or more synergists acting on a joint can produce more power than a single larger muscle.
The actions of a prime mover and its synergist aren’t necessarily identical and redundant; it may stabilize the prime mover.
2) An antagonist is a muscle that opposes the agonist at a joint.
In some cases, it relaxes to give the prime mover almost complete control over an action. More often, however, the antagonist maintains some tension on a joint and thus limits the speed or range of the prime mover, preventing excessive movement, joint injury, or inappropriate actions.

315
Q

Describe, in general terms, the nerve supply to the muscles and where these nerves originate.

A

Innervation of a muscle refers to the identity of the nerve that stimulates it. The nerves that innervate muscles are classified into two categories; spinal and cranial.

316
Q

Facial muscles: Describe the actions of the frontalis, occipitalis, and orbicularis oculi muscles

A

Frontalis: wrinkles the forehead; lifts the eyebrows
Occipitalis: antagonist to frontalis
Orbicularis oculi: squinting and winking

317
Q

Facial muscles: Describe the actions of the zygomaticus, risorius, and orbicularis oris

A

Zygomaticus: smiling (pulls the corners of the mouth up)
Risorius: pulls angle of the mouth laterally; synergist to the zygomaticus
Orbicularis oris: puckers the lips (kissing, whistling)

318
Q

Facial muscles: Describe the actions of the mentalis, levator labii superioris, depressor labii inferioris, and genioglossus

A

Mentalis: protrudes lower lip as in pouting; wrinkles the chin.
Levator labii superioris: elevates the upper lip.
Depressor labii inferioris: pulls the lower lip down as in pouting.
Genioglossus: protrudes the tongue; moves tongue side to side.

319
Q

Name and describe the actions of the muscles from lab lists used for chewing and swallowing.

A

1) Buccinator: compresses the cheeks; sucking (nursing infants); assists in chewing by directing the food between molars.
2) Temporalis and masseter: elevates the mandible (chewing)

320
Q

Name and describe the actions of the neck muscles from lab lists that move the head. (2)

A

1) Sternocleidomastoid: flexes the head and neck

2) Trapezius: extension of the head and neck

321
Q

Name and locate the muscles of respiration (from lab) (3)

A

1) Diaphragm: internal muscle that’s the prime mover for inhalation
2) External intercostals: muscle that elevates (lifts) the ribs that assist inhalation; increase size of thoracic cavity
3) Internal intercostals: muscles depress and retract the ribs for forced expiration; decreases size of thoracic cavity.

322
Q

Name and locate the muscles from lab lists of the abdominal wall and back. (4)

A

1) Rectus abdominis: flexes the waist as in sit-ups; compresses abdominal viscera for urination, defecation, childbirth, and vomiting.
2) External oblique: most superficial muscle located on lateral abdomen; produces twisting at the waist and compresses abdominal viscera
3) Internal oblique: middle muscle layer on the lateral abdomen; produces twisting at the waist and compresses the abdominal viscera
4) Transverse abdominis: deepest muscle layer on the lateral abdomen; compresses abdominal viscera.

323
Q

Name the origin and insertion of pectoralis major

A

Origin (medial): clavicle, cartilage of ribs 1-6, sternum

Insertion (lateral): intertubercular groove, sulcus of the humerus

324
Q

Name the origin and insertion of the deltoid

A

Origin (proximal): clavicle and acromion process of the scapula
Insertion (distal): deltoid tuberosity of the humerus

325
Q

Name the origin and insertion of the latissimus dorsi

A

Origin (medial): spinous processes of T6-L5, iliac crest, and ribs 9-12
Insertion (lateral): intertubercular groove of the humerus

326
Q

Name the origin and insertion of biceps brachii

A

Origin (proximal): coracoid process and glenoid cavity of the scapula
Insertion (distal): radial tuberosity

327
Q

Name the origin and insertion of triceps brachii

A

Origin (proximal): posterior humerus and glenoid cavity of the scapula
Insertion (distal): olecranon process of the ulna

328
Q

Describe the action of the deltoid

A

Abduction of the arm (prime mover); anterior fibers flex the arm, posterior fibers extend the arm

329
Q

Describe the action of pectoralis major

A

Flexion and adduction of the arm (prime mover)

330
Q

Describe the action of latissmus dorsi

A

Extension and adduction of the arm (prime mover)

331
Q

Describe the action of teres major

A

Synergist to latissimus dorsi

332
Q

Name the 4 rotator cuff muscles and describe their action

A
As a whole, stabilizes shoulder joint and rotates the humerus.
Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Teres minor
Subscapularis
333
Q

Describe the action of serratus anterior and pectoralis minor

A

Protracts and laterally pulls scapulae forward

334
Q

Describe the action of trapezius and levator scapulae

A

Elevates scapulae

335
Q

Describe the action of trapezius and latissimus dorsi

A

Retracts scapulae

336
Q

Describe the action of biceps brachii

A

Flexion and supination of the forearm

337
Q

Describe the action of brachialis and brachioradialis

A

Flexion of the forearm

338
Q

Describe the action of the pronator teres

A

Pronation of the forearm

339
Q

Describe the action of triceps brachii

A

Extension of the forearm

340
Q

Describe the action of the supinator

A

Supination of the forearm

341
Q

The flexors of the wrist are located _______, whereas the extensors of the wrist are located ______.

A

anteriorly; posteriorly

342
Q

Describe the action of the iliopsoas

A

Flexion of the hip (prime mover)

343
Q

Describe the action of the rectus femoris

A

Flexion of the hip (synergist)

344
Q

Describe the action of the sartorius

A

Flexion, abduction, and lateral rotation of the hip; flexion of the knee

345
Q

Describe the action of the tensor fasciae latae

A

Abduction of the hip

346
Q

Describe the action of the gluteus medius

A

Abduction of the hip (prime mover)

347
Q

Describe the action of the gluteus maximus

A

Extension of the hip (prime mover)

348
Q

Describe the actions of the hamstrings and name the muscles involved

A
Extension of the hip and flexion of the knee
Biceps femoris (lateral)
Semitendonosis (superficial)
Semimembranosus (deep)
Located on posterior thigh
349
Q

Describe the action of the gracilis, abductor longus, and abductor magnus

A

Adduction of the hip

350
Q

Describe the action of the quadriceps and name the muscles involved

A
Extension of the knee (all prime movers)
Rectors femoris (front of thigh)
Vastus lateralis (lateral)
Vastus medialis (medial)
Vastus intermedius (deep to rectus femoris)
351
Q

Describe the action of the gastrocnemiuspl

A

Flexion of the knee

352
Q

Walking on your tiptoes is called _______

A

plantar flexion

353
Q

Describe the action of the tibialis anterior

A

Dorsiflexion (prime mover)

354
Q

Describe the action of the gastrocnemius and soleus

A

Plantar flexion (prime movers)

355
Q

Describe the action of the tibialis posterior

A

Inversion of the foot (prime mover)

356
Q

Describe the action of the fibularis longus

A

Eversion of the foot

357
Q

Name the origin and insertion of the gastrocnemius

A

Origin: medial and lateral condyles of the femur
Insertion: calcaneus

358
Q

Describe the physiological properties that all muscle types have in common.

A

Muscles are specialized for one major purpose: converting the chemical energy in ATP into the mechanical energy of motion
Muscle functions include: movement, stability, control of openings, heat production, and glycemic control

359
Q

List the defining characteristics of skeletal muscle.

A
Striated 
Multinucleate 
Excitable 
Voluntary
Usually attached to bones
360
Q

Muscles: Describe the endomysium

A

Thin sleeve of loose connective tissue around each fiber

Electrically insulates each muscle fiber

361
Q

Muscles: Describe the perimysium

A

Thicker layer of connective tissue that wraps fascicles

Fascicles: bundles of muscle fibers wrapped together

362
Q

Muscles: Describe the epimysium

A

Fibrous sheath surrounding entire muscle

Outer surface grades into fascia; inner surface projections form perimysium

363
Q

Muscles: Describe the fascia

A

Sheet of connective tissue that separates neighboring muscles or muscle groups from each other and the subcutaneous tissue

364
Q

Define the sarcolemma and sarcoplasm of muscle cells

A

Sarcolemma: plasma membrane of a muscle fiber
Sarcoplasm: cytoplasm of a muscle fiber

365
Q

Describe the myofibrils and glycogen of muscle cells

A

Myofibrils: long protein cords (most of sarcoplasm)
Glycogen: carbohydrate stored to provide energy for exercise

366
Q

Describe the myoglobin and mitochondria of muscle cells

A

Myoglobin: stores some oxygen needed for muscle activity
Mitochondria: makes ATP

367
Q

Why are muscle cells multinucleate?

A

Due to fusion of myoblast in development

368
Q

Describe the t-tubules of muscle cells

A

Tubular infoldings of the sarcolemma which penetrate through the cell and emerge on the other side

369
Q

Describe the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) of muscle cells

A

Define as a smooth ER that forms a network around each myofibril:

  • Terminal cisterns (cisternae): dilated end-sacs of SR
  • Stores calcium
  • Has two types of membrane proteins: a Ca+2 pump (pumps Ca+2 into the SR) and a Ca+2 voltage gate (releases Ca+2 into the sarcoplasm; opens in response to a voltage change)
370
Q

Define a triad of a muscle cell

A

a T tubule and two terminal cisterns (cisternae)

371
Q

Describe the striations seen on a myofibril

A

Striations result from the precise organization of myosin and actin in cardiac and skeletal muscle cells
Striations are alternating A-bands (dark) and I-bands (light)

372
Q

Describe the A-band of a sarcomere and its components

A

A band: dark
Darkest part is where thick filaments overlap thin filaments
H band: not as dark; middle of A band; thick filaments only
M line: middle of H band

373
Q

Describe the I-band of a sarcomere and its component

A

I band: light

Z disc: provides anchorage for thin filaments and elastic filaments

374
Q

Thick filaments are _____ proteins, whereas thin filaments are ______ proteins

A

contractile; regulatory

375
Q

Describe the composition of thick filaments

A

Contractile proteins: myosin and actin do the work of contraction
Thick filaments: made up of mostly myosin molecules:
Each molecule shaped like a golf club
Two chains intertwined to form a shaft-like tail
Double globular head

376
Q

Describe the composition of troponin and tropomyosin, as well as what they do

A

Regulatory proteins of thin filaments: turn contraction on & off
Tropomyosin: blocks active sites
Troponin: small protein on each tropomyosin molecule

377
Q

Describe the composition and job of dystrophin

A

Dystrophin: a clinically important structural protein
Links outermost actin to membrane proteins that link to endomysium
Transfers forces of muscle contraction to connective tissue
Genetic defects in dystrophin produce muscular dystrophy

378
Q

Describe elastic filaments and their job

A

A type of structural filament
Titin: huge, springy protein
Help stabilize and position the thick filament
Prevent overstretching and provide recoil

379
Q

Discuss the necessity of the muscle cell being able to pull on the connective tissue layers in order to move the tendon attached to a bone.

A

Dystrophin is an enormous protein located between the sarcolemma and the outermost myofilaments. It links actin filaments to a peripheral protein on the inner face of the sarcolemma.
Through a series of linking proteins, this leads ultimately to the fibrous endomysium surrounding the muscle fiber. Therefore, when the thin filaments move, dystrophin transfers the force to the basal lamina, endomysium, and ultimately to the tendon.
Genetic defects in dystrophin are responsible for the disabling disease muscular dystrophy
Dystrophin is an enormous protein located between the sarcolemma and the outermost myofilaments. It links actin filaments to a peripheral protein on the inner face of the sarcolemma.
Through a series of linking proteins, this leads ultimately to the fibrous endomysium surrounding the muscle fiber.
Therefore, when the thin filaments move, dystrophin transfers the force to the basal lamina, endomysium, and ultimately to the tendon.
Genetic defects in dystrophin are responsible for the disabling disease muscular dystrophy

380
Q

Explain what a motor unit is, the different types, and how it relates to muscle contraction.

A

1) Motor unit: one nerve fiber & all the muscle fibers innervated by it
2) Muscle fibers of one motor unit:
Dispersed throughout muscle
Contract in unison
Produce weak contraction over wide area
Provide ability to sustain long-term contraction as motor units take turns contracting
Effective contraction usually requires contraction of several motor units at once
3) Small motor units: fine degree of control
Three to six muscle fibers per neuron
Eye and hand muscles
4) Large motor units: more strength than control
Powerful contractions supplied by large motor units with hundreds of fibers
Gastrocnemius of calf has 1,000 muscle fibers per neuron

381
Q

Describe the structure of the junction where a nerve fiber meets a muscle fiber.

A

Neuromuscular junction (NMJ): a synapse with a skeletal muscle
Synaptic knob: Contains synaptic vesicles with acetylcholine (ACh)
Schwann cell envelops and isolates NMJ

382
Q

Describe the correct order of events at a neuromuscular junction.

A

1) Nerve impulse from axon opens calcium (Ca2+) channels
2) Ca2+ enters & causes synaptic vesicles to undergo exocytosis releasing ACh into synaptic cleft
3) Muscle cell has millions of ACh receptors (proteins; junctional folds increase surface area having ACh receptors)
4) Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) breaks down Ach, leading to relaxation

383
Q

Explain why a cell has an electrical charge difference across its plasma membrane and, in general terms, how this relates to muscle contraction.

A

When a nerve or muscle cell is stimulated, dramatic things happen electrically; ion channels in the plasma membrane open and Na+ instantly flows into the cell, driven both by its concentration difference across the membrane and by its attraction to the negative charge of the cell interior; that is, it flows down an electrochemical gradient.

384
Q

Explain how a nerve fiber stimulates a skeletal muscle fiber.

A

The electrical signal (nerve impulse) traveling down a nerve fiber cannot cross the synaptic cleft like a spark jumping between two electrodes; rather, it causes the synaptic vesicles to undergo exocytosis, releasing ACh into the cleft.
ACh then functions as a chemical messenger from the nerve cell to the muscle cell

385
Q

Explain the stimulation of a muscle fiber

A

1) Nerve signal opens voltage-gated calcium channels in synaptic knob
2) Calcium enters knob and stimulates release of ACh from synaptic vesicles into synaptic cleft
3) ACh diffuses across cleft
4) Two ACh molecules bind to each receptor and open its channel
5) Na+ enters; shifting membrane potential from −90 mV to +75 mV
6) Then K+ exits and potential returns to −90 mV
The quick voltage shift is called an end-plate potential (EPP)
7) Voltage change in end-plate region (EPP) opens nearby voltage-gated channels producing an action potential that spreads over muscle surface
8) Action potential spreads down T tubules
9) Opens voltage-gated ion channels in T tubules & Ca+2 channels in SR
10) Ca+2 leaves SR and enters cytosol

386
Q

Explain the contraction of a muscle fiber

A

1) Calcium binds to troponin in thin filaments
2) Troponin–tropomyosin complex changes shape and exposes active sites on actin
3) ATPase in myosin head hydrolyzes an ATP molecule
4) Activates the head (“cocking” it)
5) ADP + Pi remain attached
6) Head binds to actin active site forming a myosin–actin cross-bridge
7) Myosin releases ADP and Pi, and flexes pulling the thin filament with it—power stroke
8) Upon binding more ATP, myosin releases actin and process can be repeated
9) Recovery stroke recocks head
Each head performs five power strokes per second
Each stroke utilizes one molecule of ATP

387
Q

Explain the relaxation of a muscle fiber

A

1) Nerve stimulation and ACh release stop
2) AChE breaks down ACh and fragments are reabsorbed into knob
3) Stimulation by ACh stops
4) Ca+2 pumped back into SR by active transport
5) Ca+2 binds to calsequestrin while in storage in SR
6) Ca+2 removed from troponin is pumped back into SR
7) Tropomyosin reblocks the active sites of actin
8) Muscle fiber ceases to produce or maintain tension
9) Muscle fiber returns to its resting length
Due to recoil of elastic components and contraction of antagonistic muscles

388
Q

Explain why the force of a muscle contraction depends on the muscle’s length prior to stimulation.

A

Tension generated on muscle depends on how stretched the muscle is at the start
Overly contracted: so close to Z disc can’t contract much before hitting Z disc and stops
Overly relaxed: so little overlap, myosin can’t get grip on thin filaments
Optimum resting length: produces the greatest force when muscle contracts so nervous system maintains muscle tone (partial contraction) to ensure that resting muscles are near this length.

389
Q

Explain why rigor mortis occurs in muscles after death.

A

Rigor mortis: hardening of muscles and stiffening of the body beginning 3-4 hours after death
Deteriorating sarcoplasmic reticulum releases Ca2+
Deteriorating sarcolemma allows Ca2+ to enter the cytosol
Ca2+ activates myosin-actin cross-bridging
Muscle contracts, but can’t relax because ATP is no longer being produced.
Muscle relaxation requires ATP, and ATP production is no longer produced after death
Fibers remain contracted until the myofilaments begin to decay

390
Q

Rigor mortis peaks about __ hours after death, then diminishes over the next 48-60 hours.

A

12

391
Q

Define a muscle twitch and describe its stages

A

Defined as a quick cycle of contraction and relaxation when stimulus is at threshold or higher

1) Latent period: a very brief delay between stimulus and contraction
2) Contraction phase: the period of time when muscle generates external tension
3) Relaxation phase: the period of time when tension declines to the baseline

392
Q

Explain the physiological basis for recruitment.

A

Muscles must contact with variable strength for different tasks, so higher voltages excite more nerve fibers which stimulate more motor units to contract
Recruitment: the process of bringing more motor units into play with stronger stimuli; weak stimuli (low voltage) recruits small units, while strong stimuli recruit small and large units for powerful movements.
Recruitment or multiple motor unit (MMU) summation: occurs according to the size principle (smallest to largest)

393
Q

Define tension and contraction, with respect to muscles.

A

Tension: refers to the condition in which muscles of the body remain semi-contracted for an extended period of time.
Contraction: the tightening, shortening, or lengthening of muscles when you do some activity.

394
Q

Define isometric muscle contractions

A

Isometric muscle contraction: muscle produces internal tension but no movement
Important in postural muscle function and antagonistic muscle joint stabilization

395
Q

Define an isotonic muscle contraction and name and describe its two types

A

Isotonic muscle contraction: Muscle changes in length with no change in tension

1) Concentric contraction: muscle shortens as it maintains tension (ex: lifting weight)
2) Eccentric contraction: muscle lengthens as it maintains tension (ex: slowly lowering weight)

396
Q

Describe the phosphagen system of immediate energy.

A

Phosphagen system: the combination of ATP and CP (creatine phosphate) which provides nearly all energy for short bursts of activity
The amount of CP drops rapidly at the onset of exercise.
Until the respiratory and cardiovascular systems catch up with the heightened oxygen demand, the muscle meets most of its ATP needs by borrowing phosphate groups (Pi) from other molecules and transferring them to ADP.
Two enzyme systems control these phosphate transfers:
Myokinase transfers Pi from one ADP to another, converting the latter to ATP that myosin can use.
Creatine kinase obtains Pi from a phosphate-storage molecule, creatine phosphate (CP), and donates it to ADP to make ATP. This is a fast-acting system that helps to maintain the ATP level while other ATP-generating mechanisms are being activated

397
Q

Describe anaerobic fermentation

A

Occurs in cytoplasm
Glycolysis: glucose broken down into pyruvic acid which is converted to lactic acid
2 ATP produced per glucose
No oxygen required
Produces enough ATP for 30 to 40 seconds of maximum activity

398
Q

Describe aerobic respiration

A

After ~ 40 seconds, respiratory & cardiovascular deliver O2 fast enough for aerobic respiration to meet most of muscle’s ATP demand~30 minutes energy comes equally from glucose and fatty acids
Aerobic respiration produces more ATP per glucose than glycolysis does (another 30 ATP per glucose)
Occurs in mitochondria
Pyruvic acid broken down into CO2 and water
Must have oxygen present (used to form the water)
32-38 ATP generated (40% of the energy); rest is released as heat (60%)
> 30 minutes, depletion of glucose causes fatty acids to become the more significant fuel

399
Q

List some factors that may contribute to muscle fatigue.

A

Muscle fatigue: progressive weakness from prolonged use of muscles
Fatigue in short duration exercise can result from:
Excess ADP and Pi slow cross-bridge movements, inhibit calcium release and decrease force production in myofibrils
Excess lactic acid, which decreases pH.
Fatigue in long duration exercise can result from:
Fuel depletion
Electrolyte loss

400
Q

List some factors that increase the force of skeletal muscle contractions.

A

Large number of muscle fibers being activated
Large individual muscle fibers
High frequency of stimulation
Muscle and sarcomere are stretched to slightly over 100% of their resting length.

401
Q

Describe the characteristics of cardiac muscle

A

Their cells are myocytes, which are not as long and fibrous as skeletal muscles; they have one nucleus
Highly resistant to fatigue
Keeps cardiac failure from occurring every time you engage in strenuous exercise
They are involuntary and controlled by the autonomic nervous system
Works in sleep or wakefulness, without fail, and without conscious attention, so our hearts don’t stop every time we fall asleep.
Contracts with regular rhythm
Muscle cells of a given chamber must contract in unison
Contractions must last long enough to expel blood
Autorhythmic
Cardiomyocytes joined by intercalated discs
Gap junctions and desmosomes; desmosomes are important to keep the cardiomyocytes from breaking apart, and gap junctions are necessary for synchronization and communication.
Sarcoplasmic reticulum less developed, so must use Ca^(2+) from extracellular fluid
Damaged cardiac muscle cells repair by fibrosis; functional muscle not regenerated
Almost exclusively aerobic respiration

402
Q

Describe the characteristics of skeletal muscle

A

Both aerobic and anaerobic respiration
Long, multinucleate fibrous cells
A more developed sarcoplasmic reticulum
Not autorhythmic, and they’re voluntary and controlled by the somatic nervous system
Functional skeletal muscle can be regenerated

403
Q

Describe the characteristics of smooth muscle

A

No striations
Some smooth muscles lack nerve supply; others receive input from autonomic fibers containing synaptic vesicles
Capable of mitosis and hyperplasia
Injured smooth muscle regenerates well
Smooth muscle is slower than skeletal and cardiac muscle
Require extracellular Ca+2
Takes longer to contract but can remain contracted for a long time without fatigue

404
Q

Describe the major functions of the nervous system.

A

Employs electrical and chemical means to send messages from cell to cell
In combination with the endocrine system, it maintains internal coordination.
-Receives information about changes in the body and external environment
-Processes this information, relates it to past experiences, and determines appropriate response
-Issues commands to muscles and glands cells to carry out such a response

405
Q

Describe the basic pathway of the nervous system in order from beginning to end

A

1) Sensory receptor detects a stimulus
2) Sensory (afferent) neuron
3) Integrating center: central nervous system
4) Motor (efferent) neuron
5) Effector: responds (muscle or gland)

406
Q

List the parts of the nervous system that constitute the CNS and those that constitute the PNS.

A
  • CNS: brain and spinal cord (enclosed by meninges, the cranium, and vertebrae)
  • PNS: rest of the nervous system except the brain and spinal cord; composed of nerves & ganglia
407
Q

Differentiate between the somatic and autonomic divisions of the nervous system.

A

1) Somatic (voluntary) nervous system:
- Motor neurons to skeletal muscle tissue
- Only 1 motor neuron is used
- Somatic reflexes: involuntary muscle contractions

2) Autonomic (involuntary) nervous system”
- Motor neurons to smooth & cardiac muscle, endocrine glands, & exocrine glands
- 2 motor neurons used
- Autonomic/visceral reflexes; involuntary responses

408
Q

Differentiate between the sympathetic and the parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.

A

1) Sympathetic division: Tends to arouse body for action
- Motor neurons originate from thoracolumbar region
- “Fight or flight” responses; “E” responses (excitement, emergency, exercise)

2) Parasympathetic division: Tends to have calming effect
- Motor neurons originate from craniosacral region
- “Resting and digesting” responses; SLUDD (salivation, lacrimation, urination, digestion, defecation)

409
Q

Describe three functional properties found in all neurons.

A

1) Excitability (irritability)
Respond to environmental changes called stimuli; produce an electrical signal
2) Conductivity
Conduct the electrical signal to other cells
3) Secretion
When an electrical signal reaches the end of nerve fiber, the cell secretes a chemical neurotransmitter that influences the next cell

410
Q

Define the three basic functional categories of neurons.

A

1) Sensory (afferent) neurons
Detect stimuli & transmit information toward CNS
2) Interneurons (association neurons)
Lie entirely within CNS; connects motor and sensory pathways
Makes decisions (integrating center)
About 90% of all neurons
3) Motor (efferent) neuron
Send signals out to muscles and gland cells (the effectors)

411
Q

Identify the parts of a neuron including soma (cell body), axon, and dendrites.

A

1) Soma: control center of neuron
Also called neurosoma or cell body, it has a nucleus with one nucleolus
Cytoplasm contains mitochondria, lysosomes, Golgi complex, inclusions, extensive rough ER and cytoskeleton.
Inclusions include things like glycogen, lipid droplets, melanin, and lipofuscin pigment (produced when lysosomes digest old organelles)
Cytoskeleton has dense mesh of microtubules and neurofibrils (bundles of actin filaments) that compartmentalizes rough ER into dark-staining Nissl bodies
No centrioles, no mitosis. However, extreme longevity.
2) Dendrites: branches that come off the soma
Receives signals from other neurons; the more dendrites the neuron has, the more information it can receive
3) Axon (nerve fiber)
Originates from axon hillock and transmits signals away from soma
Only one (or none) per neuron
Mostly unbranched except for axon collaterals
Axolemma may be enclosed by myelin sheath

412
Q

Describe multipolar, bipolar, unipolar, and anaoxic neurons

A

1) Multipolar neuron
One axon and multiple dendrites
Most common type; makes up most neurons in the CNS
2) Bipolar neuron
Has one axon and one dendrite
3) Unipolar neuron
Has one single process leading away from soma
Sensory cells from skin and organs to spinal cord (somas in dorsal root ganglia)
4) Anaxonic neuron
Has many dendrites but no axon

413
Q

The most common type of neuron shape is what?

A

Multipolar

414
Q

Define the terms ganglion, nerve, tract, and synapse.

A

1) Ganglion: a knot-like swelling in a nerve where neuron cell bodies are concentrated; found in the PNS.
2) Nerve: bundle of nerve fibers (axons) wrapped in fibrous connective tissue; spinal versus cranial nerves. Found in the PNS.
3) Tract: The CNS equivalent of a nerve; it is a bundle of axons, which are often myelinated.
4) Synapse: The junction between two neurons, or between a neuron and muscle tissue.

415
Q

Explain how neurons transport materials between the cell body and the tips of the axon.

A
  • Proteins made in soma need to be transported to axon & axon terminal to repair axolemma and to transport organelles; they do this via a two-way passage: anterograde (away from soma) and retrograde (toward soma)
  • These two types of transport use microtubules (to guide materials along axon) and motor proteins (kinesin and dynein) that carry materials “on their backs” while they “crawl” along microtubules.
416
Q

Name and describe the 4 types of cells in the CNS that aid neurons

A

1) Oligodendrocytes
Form myelin sheaths in CNS that speed signal conduction using arm-like processes
2) Ependymal cells
Line internal cavities of the brain; secrete and circulate cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
3) Microglia
Wander through CNS looking for debris and damage, and get rid of it via phagocytosis.
4) Astrocytes
Most abundant glial cell in CNS; covers brain surface and most nonsynaptic regions of neurons in the gray matter (framework)
Forms blood-brain barrier using perivascular feet
Absorbs excess neurotransmitters and ions
Astrocytosis or sclerosis; when neuron is damaged, astrocytes form hardened scar tissue and fill in space

417
Q

Name and describe the 2 types of cells in the PNS that aid neurons

A

1) Schwann cells
Produce a myelin sheath around axons similar to the ones produced by oligodendrocytes in CNS
Also assist in regeneration of damaged fibers
2) Satellite cells
Surround the somas in ganglia of the PNS
Provide electrical insulation around the soma
Regulate the chemical environment of the neurons
Similar in function to astrocytes.

418
Q

Describe the myelin sheath that is found around certain nerve fibers, and explain its importance.

A
  • Serves as insulation around a nerve fiber (axon)
  • Formed by oligodendrocytes in CNS and Schwann cells in PNS
  • Consists of the plasma membrane of glial cells
  • 20% protein and 80% lipid
  • MUCH faster than unmyelinated axons, which is why it’s so critical.
419
Q

Discuss the 3 cell types from which brain tumors typically originate.

A
  • Meninges (protective membranes of CNS)
  • Metastasis from other tumors in other organs
  • Glial cells (mitotically active throughout life)
420
Q

Describe gliomas and discuss whether or not neurons are a major source of tumors

A

1) Gliomas: grow rapidly and are highly malignant
Blood–brain barrier decreases effectiveness of chemotherapy
Treatment consists of radiation or surgery
2) Mature neurons undergo very little mitosis, so not typically a cause of tumors

421
Q

Describe the problems with the degenerative disorder Multiple Sclerosis

A
  • A degenerative disorder of the myelin sheath; oligodendrocytes and myelin sheaths in the CNS deteriorate
  • Myelin is replaced by hardened scar tissue
  • Nerve conduction disrupted (double vision, tremors, numbness, speech defects)
  • Onset between 20 and 40 years
  • Cause may be autoimmune triggered by virus
422
Q

Describe the problems with the degenerative disorder Tay-Sachs disease.

A
  • A hereditary disorder of infants of Eastern European Jewish ancestry
  • Abnormal accumulation of glycolipid called GM2 (ganglioside) in the myelin sheath disrupts conduction of nerve signals
  • Caused by dysfunctional lysosomes
  • Symptoms include blindness, loss of coordination, and dementia
  • Fatal before age 4
423
Q

Explain how certain damaged nerve fibers regenerate, and what regeneration requires

A

1) Steps of regeneration:
- Fiber distal to the injury degenerates
- Axon stump sprouts multiple growth processes
- Schwann cells, basal lamina and neurilemma form a regeneration tube
2) Only peripheral nerve fibers can regenerate and only if:
- the soma is intact
- some neurilemma remains

424
Q

Describe what 2 factors will increase the conduction speed of nerve fibers.

A

1) Diameter of fiber
Larger fibers have more surface area and conduct signals more rapidly
2) Presence or absence of myelin
Myelin further speeds signal conduction

425
Q

Explain why a cell has an electrical charge difference (voltage) across its membrane.

A

It’s the result of 3 combined factors:

1) Ions diffuse down their concentration gradient through the membrane
2) Plasma membrane is selectively permeable and allows some ions to pass easier than others
3) Electrical attraction of cations and anions to each other

426
Q

Explain how ion channels affect neuron selective permeability.

A

〖𝐍𝐚〗^+/𝐊^+ pump moves 3 Na^+ out for every 2 K^+ it brings in. This exchange of 3 positive charges for only 2 positive charges contributes about −3 mV to the cell’s resting membrane potential of −70 mV. It works continuously to compensate for Na+ and K+ leakage.

427
Q

Contrast the relative concentrations of sodium and potassium ions inside & outside of a cell.

A

Na+ is more concentrated outside of the cell (ECF) K+ is more concentrated inside the cell (ICF).

428
Q

Describe the characteristics of local potentials, and explain how stimulation of a neuron causes a local electrical response in its membrane.

A

1) Local (graded) potentials are defined as changes in membrane potential of a neuron occurring at & nearby the part of the cell that is stimulated
- Short distances; die out quickly
- On dendrites and cell bodies
2) Sodium gates open in response to chemicals, light, heat or mechanical stimulation
- Size of signal depends on stimulus strength
- This leads to the membrane doing one of two things:
depolarize: leads to an action potential or
hyperpolarize: prevents an action potential

429
Q

Describe the three changes in membrane potentials (depolarization, repolarization, hyperpolarization) that can occur.

A

1) Depolarization: the inside of the membrane becomes less negative. Will reverse polarity. Can lead to an electrical impulse.
2) Repolarization: the membrane returns to its resting membrane potential
3) Hyperpolarization: the inside of the membrane becomes more negative than the resting potential; inhibits an electrical impulse.

430
Q

Compare and contrast the properties and location of local potentials and action potentials.

A
  • Action potentials follow an all-or-none law; if threshold is reached, neuron fires at its maximum voltage. If threshold is not reached, it does not fire. This is not a property of local potentials.
  • Action potentials do not get weaker with distance, whereas local potentials do
  • Action potentials are irreversible; once started, it goes to completion and cannot be stopped. However, local potentials are not irreversible.
431
Q

Discuss the sequence of events that must occur for an action potential to be generated.

A
  • Arrival of current at axon hillock depolarizes membrane

- Depolarization must reach threshold: critical voltage (about -55 mV) required to open voltage-regulated gates

432
Q

Define threshold and refractory period.

A

1) Refractory period: the period of resistance to stimulation.
2) Threshold: the critical voltage (about -55 mV) required to open voltage-regulated gates

433
Q

Explain how different intensities of sensations can occur.

A

All nerve action potentials are identical in strength, so different intensities of sensations result from:

1) the frequency of the stimulus
2) the number of neurons stimulated

434
Q

Explain the two ways (continuous and saltatory) a nerve signal is conducted down an axon.

A

1) Saltatory conduction:
- Myelinated fibers conduct signals with saltatory conduction; the signal seems to jump from node of Ranvier to node of Ranvier
- Very fast
2) Continuous conduction:
- Unmyelinated fibers have voltage-gated channels along their entire length
- Produce action potential the entire length of the axon
- Chain reaction continues until the nerve signal reaches the end of the axon; the nerve signal is like a wave of falling dominos.
- The refractory membrane ensures that the action potential travels in one direction

435
Q

List the structures that comprise a chemical synapse

A

Presynaptic neurons have synaptic vesicles with neurotransmitter and postsynaptic have receptors and ligand-regulated ion channels

436
Q

List the sequence of events at the chemical synapse.

A

1) Nerve impulses reach the axonal terminal of presynaptic neuron and open Ca2+ channels
2) Neurotransmitter is released from synaptic vesicle into synaptic cleft via exocytosis (because of the Ca2+)
3) Neurotransmitter crosses synaptic cleft and binds to receptors on postsynaptic neuron
4) Postsynaptic membrane permeability changes, causing an excitatory (EPSP) or inhibitory (IPSP) effect

437
Q

Compare and contrast chemical and electrical synapses.

A

1) Electrical:
- Spreads through gap junctions
- Faster
- Two-way transmission
- Can’t make decisions
2) Chemical:
- One-way transmission
- From a presynaptic neuron to a postsynaptic neuron; does not use gap junctions.
- Uses neurotransmitters
- Can make decisions.
- Slower than electrical synapses.

438
Q

Contrast an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) with an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP).

A

EPSPs depolarize the cell, whereas IPSPs hyperpolarize the cell.

439
Q

Discuss the relationship between a neurotransmitter and its receptor.

A

The same neurotransmitter can have completely different effects on different receptors; the postsynaptic membrane permeability will change, but it can cause either an excitatory (EPSP) or inhibitory (IPSP) effect depending on the receptor’s postsynaptic potential.

440
Q

Describe the events of cholinergic synaptic transmission in proper chronological order.

A

1) Nerve impulses reach the axonal terminal of presynaptic neuron and open Ca2+ channels
2) ACh (the neurotransmitter) is released into synaptic cleft via exocytosis
3) ACh crosses synaptic cleft and binds to receptors on postsynaptic neuron
4) Postsynaptic membrane permeability changes, causing an excitatory (EPSP) or inhibitory (IPSP) effect

441
Q

List the six chemical categories of neurotransmitters.

A

1) Acetylcholine
2) Amino acids
3) Monoamines
4) Purines
5) Neuropeptides
6) Gasses.

442
Q

Explain the 3 ways in which the stimulation of a postsynaptic cell can be stopped

A

1) Diffusion
move down concentration gradient away from synapse
2) Enzymatic degradation
Ex: acetylcholinesterase and monoamine oxidase
3) Uptake by neurons or glia cells
neurotransmitter transporters

443
Q

Explain how a neuron “decides” whether or not to generate action potentials.

A

The balance between EPSPs and IPSPs using summation enables the nervous system to make decisions

444
Q

Differentiate between temporal summation and spatial summation.

A

1) Temporal summation: occurs when a single synapse generates EPSPs so quickly that each is generated before the previous one fades
2) Spatial summation: occurs when EPSPs from several different synapses add up to threshold at an axon hillock
- An example of facilitation; a process in which one neuron enhances the effect of another

445
Q

Describe the problems and treatments of the degenerative disorder of Alzheimer Disease.

A

1) Problems:
- It’s the 6th leading cause of death in United States
- Symptoms include memory loss for recent events, moody, combative, lose ability to talk, walk, and eat
- Show deficiencies of acetylcholine
- Diagnosis confirmed at autopsy
- Atrophy of gyri (folds) and formation of abnormal proteins
- Blocks normal synaptic function
2) Treatment:
- Trying to find ways to clear or halt the production of abnormal proteins
- No prevention or cure: SHIELD (sleep, handle stress, interact with others, exercise, learn new things, diet (mind diet)

446
Q

State the four principal functions of the spinal cord.

A

1) Conduction: nerve fibers conduct information up (ascending) & down (descending) spinal cord; white matter
2) Neural integration: neurons receive input from sources, integrates it, and decides appropriate output (e.g., bladder control) – white or gray matter?
3) Locomotion: groups of neurons that coordinate repetitive sequences of contractions for walking
4) Reflexes: involuntary responses to stimuli

447
Q

Describe the gross anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves.

A
  • Spinal cord is shaped like a flattened cylinder
  • Arises from the brainstem
  • Extends from foramen magnum to L1-L2
  • Growth of cord stops at approximately age 5
  • Gives rise to 31 pairs of spinal nerves
448
Q

Describe the meninges, from superficial to deep, that enclose the brain and spinal cord.

A

1) Dura mater: most superficial
2) Arachnoid mater: middle
3) Pia mater: most deep
- Subarachnoid space is located between arachnoid and pia mater; circulates CSF.
- Epidural space is the space above the dura mater

449
Q

Contrast the relative position of gray matter and white matter in the spinal cord compared to the white and gray matter in the brain.

A

The relationship between white and gray matter in the brain and spinal cord is inverse:

  • In the brain, the cortical white matter is deep to gray matter
  • In the spinal cord, gray matter is deep to white matter.
450
Q

Trace the ascending pathway followed by nerve signals traveling up and down the spinal cord, and describe the functions of the neurons involved

A
  • Ascending tracts carry sensory signals up the spinal cord
  • Uses three neurons from origin (receptors) to destinations in the sensory areas of the brain
    1) First neuron: detect stimulus and transmit signal to spinal cord or brainstem (Receptor to spinal cord or brainstem)
    2) Second neuron: from spinal cord/brainstem continues to the thalamus (Spinal cord or brainstem to thalamus)
    3) Third neuron: carries the signal the rest of the way to the sensory region of the cerebral cortex (Thalamus to cortex).
451
Q

Trace the descending pathway followed by nerve signals traveling up and down the spinal cord

A
  • Descending tracts: carry motor signals down brainstem and spinal cord
  • Involve two motor neurons called upper and lower motor neurons
  • Decussation of somatic neurons cross in Medulla oblongata
452
Q

List the definitions of ascending versus descending tracts, decussation, and contralateral versus ipsilateral.

A
  • Ascending: carry sensory information up
  • Descending: carry motor information down
  • Decussation: crossing midline so that brain senses and controls contralateral side of body
  • Contralateral: when the origin and destination on opposite sides of the body
  • Ipsilateral: when the origin and destination on the same side of the body; does not decussate
453
Q

Explain how decussation occurs in sensory and motor pathways and predict how decussation impacts the correlation of brain damage.

A
  • Decussation means that the sensory and motor tracts cross from one side of the brain as they travel from the top to bottom (and vice versa).
  • This is why, for example, if you damage the right side of your brain you may have trouble coordinating/moving the (contralateral) left side of your body.
454
Q

Describe the effects of Polio, which destroys somatic motor neurons.

A
  • Caused by the poliovirus (spreads by fecal contamination of water)
  • Destroys motor neurons in brainstem and anterior horn of spinal cord
  • Signs of polio include muscle pain, weakness, and loss of some reflexes
  • Followed by paralysis, muscular atrophy, and -respiratory arrest
455
Q

What two diseases discussed in class destroy somatic motor neurons?

A

Polio and ALS

456
Q

Describe the effects of ALS, which destroys somatic motor neurons.

A
  • Known as Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) or Lou Gehrig disease
  • Destruction of motor neurons and muscular atrophy
  • Sclerosis (scarring) of lateral regions of the spinal cord
  • Astrocytes fail to reabsorb the neurotransmitter glutamate from the tissue fluid; accumulates to toxic levels
  • Early signs: muscular weakness; difficulty speaking, swallowing, and using hands
  • Sensory & intellectual functions remain unaffected
457
Q

Describe the anatomy of nerves and ganglia

A

Ganglia: a cluster of neurosomas outside the CNS enveloped in an endoneurium (continuous with nerve)
Nerves: a cord-like organ composed of numerous nerve fibers (axons) bound together by connective tissue

458
Q

Discuss how the structures root, nerve, ramus, plexus, tract and ganglion relate to one another

A

Ganglia are continuous with a nerve, and found near both the posterior (dorsal) and anterior (ventral) roots of spinal nerves; they’re called posterior root ganglion and anterior root ganglion.
A nerve is a bundle of axons found in the peripheral nervous system, and a bundle of axons found within the central nervous system are called tracts.
The portion of the nerve outside the vertebra divides into rami (singular ramus) distal branches.
In any other region besides the thoracic region of the spine, the anterior rami of nerves give rise to plexuses.

459
Q

Describe the differences between the anterior and posterior roots of the spine

A

Anterior (ventral) root: contains motor neurons.

Posterior (dorsal) root: contains sensory neurons.

460
Q

Describe where the 31 pairs of spinal nerves are located

A
8 cervical (C1–C8)
(First cervical nerve exits between skull and atlas, others exit at intervertebral foramina)
12 thoracic (T1–T12)
5 lumbar (L1–L5)
5 sacral (S1–S5)
1 coccygeal (Co1)
461
Q

What nerve(s) does the cervical plexus contain?

A

Phrenic nerve

462
Q

What nerve(s) does the brachial plexus contain?

A

Axillary nerve, radial nerve, median nerve, and ulnar nerve

463
Q

What nerve(s) does the lumbar plexus contain?

A

Femoral and obturator nerves

464
Q

What nerve(s) does the sacral plexus contain?

A

Sciatic and pudendal nerves

465
Q

Define reflex and explain how reflexes differ from other motor actions.

A
  • Reflexes: defined as quick, involuntary, stereotyped reactions of glands or muscle to stimulation
  • Unique characteristics of reflexes:
    1) Reflexes require stimulation: not spontaneous actions, but responses to sensory input
    2) Reflexes are quick: involve few, if any, interneurons and minimum synaptic delay
    3) Reflexes are involuntary: occur without intent and are difficult to suppress
    4) Reflexes are stereotyped: occur essentially the same way every time
466
Q

Describe the general components of a typical somatic reflex arc.

A
Somatic receptors: In skin, muscles, or tendons
Afferent (sensory) nerve fiber
Integrating center
Efferent (motor) nerve fiber
Effectors: skeletal muscles
467
Q

Give an example of a stretch reflex

A

The knee-jerk (patellar) monosynaptic reflex.

468
Q

List the major subdivisions of the brain

A
Cerebrum 
Cerebellum  
Brainstem 
Midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata
Diencephalon
Hypothalamus, Thalamus, & Epithalamus
469
Q

Differentiate between rostral and caudal

A

Rostral: toward the forehead
Caudal: toward the spinal cord

470
Q

Describe the locations of the brain’s gray and white matter.

A

-Gray matter: neurosomas, dendrites, and synapses
Forms cortex (surface layer over cerebrum and cerebellum)
Forms nuclei deep within brain
-White matter: bundles of myelinated axons
Lies deep to cortical gray matter, opposite relationship in the spinal cord
Composed of tracts, or bundles of axons, that connect one part of the brain to another, and to the spinal cord

471
Q

Define and identify the meninges, and describe their function

A
  • Meninges: three connective tissue membranes that envelop the brain
  • Lie between the nervous tissue and bone
  • As in spinal cord, they are the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and the pia mater
  • They protect the brain and provide structural framework for its arteries and veins
472
Q

Describe the relationship between the cranial meninges (specifically the dura mater) and cranial bones

A
  • Cranial dura mater has two layers: outer periosteal and inner meningeal
  • These layers are separated by dural sinuses, which collect blood circulating through brain
  • No epidural space is present in the cranium
  • The dura mater is not directly attached to bone except for in the following places: around foramen magnum of occipital bone, sella turcica, crista galli of ethmoid bone, and sutures of the skull
473
Q

Describe ventricles and define CSF and ependyma

A

Ventricles: four internal chambers within brain that are filled with CSF:
-Lateral ventricles (2)
-3rd ventricle
-4th ventricle
Ependyma: neuroglia that lines ventricles and covers choroid plexus; filters plasma producing cerebrospinal fluid.
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF): clear, colorless liquid that fills the ventricles and canals of CNS.

474
Q

Describe the details of CSF production, its circulation within the central nervous system, and it ultimate reabsorption into the bloodstream.

A
  • Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF): clear, colorless liquid that fills the ventricles and canals of CNS
  • Brain produces and absorbs 500 mL/day (100 to 160 mL normally present at one time). 40% formed in subarachnoid space external to brain; 30% by the general ependymal lining of the brain ventricles; 30% by the choroid plexuses.
  • Production begins with filtration of blood plasma through capillaries of the brain
  • Ependymal cells modify the filtrate, so CSF has more sodium and chloride than plasma, but less potassium, calcium, glucose, and very little protein
  • Cilia on ependymal cells move CSF
  • CSF is reabsorbed by arachnoid villi (granulations)
475
Q

Describe the functions of CSF

A

Buoyancy
Protection
-Protects the brain from striking the cranium when head is jolted
-Shaken child syndrome and concussions do occur from severe jolting
-Chemical stability
-The flow of CSF rinses away metabolic wastes from nervous tissue and homeostatically regulates its chemical environment

476
Q

Describe the importance of the blood brain barrier

A
  • The brain is only 2% of adult body weight, but receives 15% of the blood
  • Neurons have a high demand for ATP, and therefore, oxygen and glucose, so a constant supply of blood is critical
  • A 10-second interruption of blood flow may cause loss of consciousness
  • A 1-2 minute interruption can cause significant impairment of neural function
  • Going 4 minutes without blood causes irreversible brain damage
477
Q

Define the brain barrier system and what two points must be guarded

A
  • Brain barrier system: regulates what substances can get from bloodstream into tissue fluid of the brain
  • Although blood is crucial, it can also contain harmful agents
  • Two points of entry must be guarded:
    1) Blood capillaries throughout the brain tissue
    2) Capillaries of the choroid plexus
478
Q

Define and describe the blood-brain barrier

A
  • Blood–brain barrier: protects blood capillaries throughout brain tissue
  • Consists of tight junctions between endothelial cells that form the capillary walls
  • Astrocytes reach out and contact capillaries with their perivascular feet
  • Anything leaving the blood must pass through the cells, and not between them
  • Endothelial cells can exclude harmful substances from passing to the brain tissue while allowing necessary ones to pass
479
Q

Define and describe the blood-CSF barrier

A

Blood–CSF barrier: protects brain at the choroid plexus

Forms tight junctions between the ependymal cells

480
Q

Brain barrier system is highly permeable to water, glucose, and what?

A

lipid-soluble substances such as oxygen, carbon dioxide, alcohol, caffeine, nicotine, and anesthetics

481
Q

List the components of the brainstem

A

Medulla, midbrain, pons

482
Q

Describe the medulla oblongata

A

-Begins at foramen magnum of skull
-Slightly wider than spinal cord
-Four pairs of cranial nerves begin or end in medulla: VIII (in part), IX, X, and XII
-All ascending and descending fibers connecting brain and spinal cord pass through medulla
-Contains the Pyramids: large motor tracts from cerebrum to spinal cord.
-Have the decussation of pyramids.
Some Autonomic Functions:
-Cardiovascular (Cardiac & Vasomotor) center
-Respiratory center
-Reflex centers for coughing, sneezing, swallowing, and vomiting

483
Q

Describe the pons

A

Cranial nerves V, VI, VII, and VIII

484
Q

Describe the midbrain

A
  • Regulates auditory and visual reflexes “startle reflex”
  • Contains the cerebral aqueduct; a hollow tube that connects the third and fourth ventricles
  • Contains motor nuclei of two cranial nerves that control eye movements: CN III (oculomotor) and CN IV (trochlear)
485
Q

Describe the location and structure of the reticular formation

A
  • Loose web of gray matter that runs vertically through all levels of the brainstem
  • Occupies space between white fiber tracts and brainstem nuclei
  • Has connections with many areas of cerebrum
  • More than 100 small neural networks without distinct boundaries
486
Q

List the functions of the reticular formation

A

Somatic motor control, cardiovascular control, pain modulation, sleep and consciousness, and habituation (filters out stimuli)

487
Q

Describe the reticular formation’s functions

A

1) Somatic motor control
- Adjust muscle tension to maintain tone, balance, and posture, especially during body movements
- Central pattern generators for breathing & swallowing
- Central pattern generators: neural pools that produce rhythmic signals to the muscles of breathing and swallowing
- Relay signals from eyes and ears to cerebellum
- Integrate visual, auditory, balance and motion stimuli into motor coordination
- Gaze centers: allow eyes to track and fixate on objects
2) Cardiovascular control
- Cardiac and vasomotor centers of medulla oblongata
3) Pain modulation
- Some pain signals ascend through the reticular formation
- Some descending analgesic pathways begin in the reticular formation
4) Sleep and consciousness
- Reticular activating system alerts cerebral cortex to awaken from sleep; maintains consciousness & alertness
- Injury here can result in irreversible coma
- Habituation: filters out weak stimuli
- Reticular activating system filters out repetitive or weak stimuli such as background noise (filters out about 99% of all stimuli)

488
Q

Define central pattern generators and where they’re found

A

Neural pools that produce rhythmic signals to the muscles of breathing and swallowing. Can be found in the reticular formation

489
Q

Describe the anatomy of the cerebellum.

A
  • Contains more than half of all brain neurons; about 100 billion
  • Superficial cortex of gray matter with deep nuclei; white matter is called arbor vitae
490
Q

Describe the functions of the cerebellum

A

-Highly important for motor coordination
-Aids in learning and motor skills
-Maintains muscle tone and posture
-Lesions can cause ataxia: clumsy, awkward gait
-Cerebellum has long been known to be important for motor coordination and locomotor ability
-Recent studies have revealed several sensory, linguistic, emotional, and other nonmotor functions like perceiving space and recognizing objects from different views
-Keeping judge of elapsed time and maintaining tapping rhythm
-Planning, scheduling, and emotion control
> Many hyperactive children have small cerebellums

491
Q

Name the three major components of the diencephalon

A

Thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus

492
Q

Describe the hypothalamus and its functions

A
  • Forms part of the walls and floor of the third ventricle
  • Controls and integrates activities of the Autonomic Nervous System and Endocrine System
  • Controls the pituitary gland
  • Produces hormones for labor contractions
  • Regulates rage, aggression, pain, pleasure & arousal
  • Hunger, thirst & satiety centers
  • Controls body temperature (thermoregulation)
  • Regulates daily patterns of slee
493
Q

Describe the functions of the epithalamus

A

Pineal gland: Produces melatonin at night; promotes sleepiness & sets biological clock

494
Q

Describe the functions of the thlamus

A
  • Two thalami are joined medially by intermediate mass

- “Gateway to the cerebral cortex”: nearly all input to the cerebrum passes through the thalamus

495
Q

There is a limbic system (the emotional or affective brain) within each cerebral hemisphere, which contains what three things?

A

Cingulate gyrus: aids in expressing emotions
Hippocampus: memory functions
Amygdala: emotion functions

496
Q

Identify the five lobes of the cerebrum

A

The frontal lobe, the parietal lobe, the occipital lobe, and the temporal lobe. The fifth lobe, the insula or Island of Reil, lies deep within the lateral sulcus.

497
Q

Describe the location and functions of the limbic system.

A

-Emotional or affective brain
-Prominent components:
1) Cingulate gyrus: aids in expressing emotions
2) Hippocampus: memory functions
3) Amygdala: emotion functions
-There is a limbic system in each cerebral hemisphere
-Limbic system structures have centers for both gratification and aversion
Gratification: sensations of pleasure or reward
Aversion: sensations of fear or sorrow

498
Q

Describe the location and functions of the basal nuclei

A
  • Basal nuclei: masses of cerebral gray matter buried deep in the white matter, lateral to the thalamus
  • Control large automatic movements of skeletal muscles (unconscious body movements and facial expressions)
  • Uses a neurotransmitter that is inhibitory
499
Q

Describe the part of the brain that’s associated with language

A
  • Language includes several abilities: reading, writing, speaking, and understanding words
  • Wernicke area
  • Usually in left hemisphere
  • Permits recognition of spoken and written language
  • When we intend to speak, Wernicke area formulates phrases and transmits plan of speech to Broca area
  • Generates motor program for the muscles of the larynx, tongue, cheeks, & lips for speaking and for hands when signing
  • Transmits program to primary motor cortex for commands to the lower motor neurons that supply relevant muscles
  • Affective language area usually in right hemisphere
  • Lesions produce aprosody (flat emotionless speech)
500
Q

Describe the part of the brain that’s associated with sensation

A
  • Primary sensory cortex: sites where sensory input is first received and one becomes conscious of the stimulus
  • Association areas that are near primary sensory areas process and interpret that sensory information
  • Multimodal association areas receive input from multiple senses and integrate this into an overall perception of our surroundings
501
Q

What part of the brain is associated with vision?

A
  • Visual primary cortex (occipital lobe)

- Visual association area: makes cognitive sense of visual stimuli

502
Q

What parts of the brain are associated with hearing?

A
  • Primary auditory cortex

- Auditory association area: Recognizes spoken words, a familiar piece of music, or a voice on the phone

503
Q

What parts of the brain are associated with equilibrum?

A
  • Signals for balance and sense of motion: to cerebellum
  • Association cortex (lateral sulcus near the lower end of the central sulcus): consciousness of our body movements and orientation in space
504
Q

What parts of the brain are associated with taste and smell?

A

Gustatory (taste) signals received by parietal lobe and insula
Olfactory (smell) signals received by the temporal lobe and frontal lobe

505
Q

What parts of the brain are associated with emotions?

A
  • Emotional feelings and memories are interactions between prefrontal cortex and diencephalon
  • Prefrontal cortex: seat of judgment, intent, and control over expression of emotions
  • Feelings (e.g., fear) arise from hypothalamus and amygdala
506
Q

Describe the parts of the brain associated with motor control

A
  • Motor association (premotor) area of frontal lobes is where we plan our behavior (intention to contract a muscle)
  • Where neurons compile a program for degree and sequence of muscle contraction required for an action
  • Program transmitted to neurons of the precentral gyrus (primary motor area)
  • These neurons send signals to the brainstem (most fibers decussate in medulla) and then the descending tracts in spinal cord to skeletal muscles
  • Basal nuclei and cerebellum are also important in muscle control
507
Q

What are the three types of functional areas?

A
  • Motor areas: control voluntary movement
  • Sensory areas: conscious awareness of sensation
  • Association areas: integrate diverse information
508
Q

Cognition is accomplished by what?

A

Distributed association areas of cerebral cortex

509
Q

True or false: Conscious behavior involves the entire cortex

A

True

510
Q

The _____ lobe helps us think about the world, and plan and execute appropriate behaviors

A

frontal

511
Q

The ______ lobe helps us identify stimuli (identify familiar objects and faces)

A

temporal

512
Q

The ______ lobe helps us perceive and attend to stimuli

A

parietal

513
Q

The _____ cortex is the most complicated region and contains working memory needed for judgment, persistence, and conscience (development depends on feedback from social environment).

A

prefrontal

514
Q

Define and describe cerebral lateralization

A
  • The difference in the structure and function of the cerebral hemispheres
  • Lateralization differs with age and sex
  • Children more resilient to lesions on one side
  • Males exhibit more lateralization than females & suffer more functional loss when one hemisphere is damaged
515
Q

Describe the functions of the corpus callousm

A
  • Allows the two hemispheres to communicate & coordinate their functions
  • If damaged, information processed in one hemisphere unable to reach the other hemisphere
516
Q

Discuss the functional differences between the right and left cerebral hemispheres.

A

1) Left hemisphere (typically categorical)
Specialized for spoken and written language
Sequential and analytical reasoning (math and science)
Breaks information into fragments and analyzes it
2) Right hemisphere (typically representational)
Seat of imagination and insight
Musical and artistic skill
Perception of patterns and spatial relationships
Comparison of sights, sounds, smells, and taste

517
Q

List the 12 cranial nerves by name and number.

A

1) Olfactory nerve
2) Optic nerve
3) Oculomotor nerve
4) Trochlear nerve
5) Trigeminal nerve
6) Abducens nerve
7) Facial nerve
8) Vestibulocochlear nerve
9) Glossopharyngeal nerve
10) Vagus nerve
11) Accessory (spinal) nerve
12) Hypoglossal nerve

518
Q

Describe the specific functions of cranial nerves 1-3

A

1) Olfactory nerve: sensory
Function: smell (sensory only)
Goes through: olfactory foramina of the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone
2) Optic nerve: sensory
Function: vision (sensory only)
Goes through: optic canal of the sphenoid bone
3) Oculomotor nerve: motor
Function: movement of the eyeball
Goes through: superior orbital fissure of the sphenoid bone.
Controls: superior rectus, interior rectus, medial rectus, and inferior oblique

519
Q

Describe the specific functions of cranial nerves 4-6

A

4) Trochlear nerve: motor
Function: movement of the eyeball
Travels through: superior orbital fissure of sphenoid bone
Controls: superior oblique muscle
5) Trigeminal nerve: both (mixed)
Functions: sensations of the face; chewing
Controls: masseter and temporalis
6) Abducens nerve: motor
Function: movement of the eyeball laterally
Goes through: superior orbital fissure of sphenoid bone
Controls: lateral rectus muscle of the eye

520
Q

Describe the specific functions of cranial nerves 7-9

A

7) Facial nerve: both (mixed)
Functions: facial expression; taste
Muscles: all of the muscles of facial expression
8) Vestibulocochlear nerve: sensory
Functions: equilibrium and hearing
9) Glossopharyngeal nerve: both (mixed)
Functions: taste; movement of the pharynx during swallowing and speech, and secretion of saliva

521
Q

Describe the specific functions of cranial nerves 10-12

A

10) Vagus nerve: both (mixed)
Functions: taste; swallowing, coughing, and parasympathetic stimulation [of the heart and digestive tract]
11) Accessory (spinal) nerve: motor
Functions: swallowing, movement of the head and shoulders
Controls: sternocleidomastoid and trapezius
12) Hypoglossal nerve: motor
Functions: movement of the tongue during speech and swallowing.
Controls: genioglossus muscle

522
Q

Explain how the autonomic and somatic nervous systems differ in form and function.

A

1) Autonomic nervous system:
Controls glands, cardiac muscle, and smooth muscle
Involuntary: without our conscious intent or awareness
2) Somatic nervous system
Controls skeletal muscles
Voluntary: with our conscious intent or awareness

523
Q

Describe a visceral reflex arc (baroreflex) including structural and function details of sensory and motor components.

A

1) High blood pressure detected by arterial stretch receptors
2) Afferent neuron carries signal to CNS
3) Efferent signals on vagus nerve of ANS travel to the heart
4) Heart rate slows, ↓ blood pressure

524
Q

Describe the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system

A
  • Prepares body for physical activity: exercise, trauma, arousal, competition, anger, or fear
  • “Fight-or-flight”
  • 4 E’s (emergency, excitement, exercise, embarrassment).
  • Increases HR & BP
  • Increases airflow (increases breathing rate and causes dilation of bronchiole tubes)
  • Blood distributed more to skeletal muscles and less to digestive, kidneys, skin
  • Increases blood glucose by breaking down glycogen in liver
  • Causes dilation of pupil
525
Q

Describe the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system

A
  • Calms many body functions reducing energy expenditure and assists in bodily maintenance
  • “Resting and digesting” state
  • SLUDD (normal salivation, lacrimation, urination, digestion, defecation).
  • Opposite effects to sympathetic.
526
Q

Describe acetylcholine in relation to the somatic and autonomic nervous systems; what neurons secrete it?

A
  • Acetylcholine (ACh) is secreted by all preganglionic neurons in both divisions and by the postganglionic parasympathetic neurons
  • Axons that secrete ACh are called cholinergic fibers
  • Any receptor that binds ACh is called a cholinergic receptor
  • Inhibitory
527
Q

Describe norepinephrine in relation to the somatic and autonomic nervous systems; what neurons secrete it?

A
  • Norepinephrine (NE) is secreted by nearly all sympathetic postganglionic neurons
  • Called adrenergic fibers
  • Receptors for NE are called adrenergic receptors
  • Excitatory
528
Q

Define autonomic tone and contrast parasympathetic tone and sympathetic tone.

A
  • Autonomic tone: normal background rate of activity that represents the balance of the two systems according to the body’s needs
    1) Parasympathetic tone:
  • Maintains smooth muscle tone in intestines
  • Holds resting heart rate down to about 70 to 80 beats per minute
    2) Sympathetic tone:
  • Keeps most blood vessels partially constricted and maintains blood pressure
529
Q

Describe the anatomy of the sympathetic nervous system, including the locations the motor neurons exit the CNS, ganglia locations, and the ganglionic and effector neurotransmitters.

A
  • Preganglionic somas in lateral horns lead to nearby sympathetic chain of ganglia
  • Each ganglion is connected to a spinal nerve by two branches: communicating rami
  • Norepinephrine (NE) is secreted by nearly all sympathetic postganglionic neurons; Acetylcholine (ACh) is secreted by all preganglionic neurons in both divisions.
530
Q

Describe the anatomy of the parasympathetic nervous system, including the locations the motor neurons exit the CNS, ganglia locations, and the ganglionic and effector neurotransmitters.

A
  • Preganglionic fibers end in terminal ganglia in or near target organs
  • Acetylcholine (ACh) is secreted by all preganglionic neurons in both divisions and by postganglionic parasympathetic neurons
531
Q

The sympathetic nervous system has _____ preganglionic fibers and _____ postganglionic fibers

A

Short; long

532
Q

The parasympathetic nervous system has _____ preganglionic fibers and _____ postganglionic fibers

A

Long; short

533
Q

Discuss the characteristics of the adrenal glands, the two layers of the adrenal glands, and how they’re related to the sympathetic nervous system.

A
  • Paired adrenal glands located on superior poles of kidneys
  • Each has two layers with different functions:
    1) Adrenal cortex (outer layer)
  • Secretes steroid hormones
    2) Adrenal medulla (inner core)
  • Consists of modified postganglionic neurons (anaxonic) that releases epinephrine and norepinephrine.
  • Norepinephrine is secreted by nearly all sympathetic postganglionic neurons, and can be regarded as the primary hormone of the sympathetic nervous system (since it prepares your body for “flight or fight”)
534
Q

Discuss the reasons how autonomic neurons have contrasting effects on organs.

A

1) Sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers secrete different neurotransmitters (norepinephrine and acetylcholine)
2) The receptors on target cells vary
- Target cells respond to the same neurotransmitter differently depending on the type of receptor they have for it
- There are two different classes of receptors for acetylcholine and two classes or receptors for norepinephrine

535
Q

Give examples of control using dual innervation (both sympathetic and parasympathetic) and without dual innervation (sympathetic only).

A

1) Dual innervation: Parasympathetics increase salivary serous cell secretion, sympathetics increase salivary mucous cell secretion
2) Sympathetic only: Regulation of blood pressure and routes of blood flow

536
Q

Describe the four ways in which the autonomic nervous system is influenced by the central nervous system.

A
  • The ANS is regulated by several levels of CNS:
    1) Cerebral cortex has an influence: anger, fear, anxiety; powerful emotions influence the ANS because of the connections between our limbic system and the hypothalamus
    2) Hypothalamus: major visceral motor control center
  • Has nuclei for primitive functions: hunger, thirst, sex
    3) Midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata contain:
  • Nuclei for cardiac and vasomotor control, salivation, swallowing, sweating, bladder control, and pupillary changes
    4) Spinal cord reflexes
  • Defecation and micturition reflexes are integrated in spinal cord
  • If the spinal cord is damaged, the smooth muscle of bowel and bladder is controlled by autonomic reflexes built into the spinal cord
537
Q

Define sensory receptor and sense organ.

A

1) Sensory receptor: a structure specialized to detect a stimulus
2) Sense organ: nerve tissue surrounded by other tissues that enhance response to a certain type of stimulus.

538
Q

Explain the main purpose of receptors and what a receptor potential is used for.

A
  • Sensory input is vital to the integrity of personality and intellectual function, and sensory receptors are structures specialized to detect stimuli.
  • Receptor potential is a small local electrical change on a receptor cell brought about by a stimulus, which results in release of neurotransmitter or action potentials to the CNS, and when this reaches is CNS is when you become conscious of the stimuli.
539
Q

Define sensation.

A

A subjective awareness of the stimulus

540
Q

List the four kinds of information obtained from sensory receptors.

A

Modality, location, intensity, duration

541
Q

Define phasic receptors and tonic receptors.

A

1) Phasic receptors: adapt rapidly; initial burst of action potentials, then slow or stop even though the stimulus continues
- Smell, hair movement, and cutaneous pressure
2) Tonic receptors: adapt slowly; generate nerve signals more steadily throughout presence of stimulus
- Proprioceptors: body position, muscle tension, and joint motion

542
Q

Outline three ways of classifying receptors.

A

1) By modality
- Thermoreceptors, photoreceptors, nociceptors, chemoreceptors, and mechanoreceptors
2) By origin of stimuli
- Exteroceptors: detect external stimuli
- Interoceptors: detect internal stimuli
- Proprioceptors: sense body position and movements
3) By distribution
- General (somesthetic) senses: widely distributed
- Special senses: vision, hearing, equilibrium, taste, and smell

543
Q

Describe unencapsulated nerve endings and encapsulated nerve endings.

A

1) Unencapsulated nerve endings: lack connective tissue wrappings
- Free nerve ending for pain and temperature
- Tactile discs for light touch and texture
- Hair receptors coil around a hair follicle
2) Encapsulated nerve endings: are wrapped by glial cells or connective tissue
- Wrapping enhances sensitivity or selectivity of response; examples include:
- Tactile (Meissner) corpuscles
- Krause end bulbs (in mucous membranes)
- Bulbous corpuscles; tonic
- Lamellar (Pacinian) corpuscles; phasic

544
Q

Define pain and describe fast pain and slow pain.

A

1) Pain: caused by tissue injury or noxious stimulation, and typically leading to evasive action
2) Fast pain travels myelinated fibers at 12 to 30 m∕s
- Sharp, localized, stabbing pain
3) Slow pain travels unmyelinated fibers at 0.5 to 2 m∕s
- Longer-lasting, dull, diffuse feeling

545
Q

Describe somatic pain and visceral pain.

A

1) Somatic pain: have deep and superficial
- Deep: bones, joints, muscles (arthritis, sprains, bone fractures)
- Superficial: from skin (cuts, burns, insect stings)
2) Visceral pain: from the viscera
- Stretch, chemical irritants, or ischemia of viscera (heart attacks)

546
Q

List 4 chemicals that stimulate pain fibers.

A

Bradykinin, histamine, prostaglandin, and serotonin

547
Q

Define referred pain and be able to give examples.

A
  • Referred pain: pain in viscera often mistakenly thought to come from the skin or other superficial site
  • Ex: Heart pain felt in shoulder or arm because both send pain input to spinal cord segments T1 to T5
548
Q

List the five primary taste sensations.

A

Salty, Sweet, Umami, Sour, Bitter

549
Q

List what other sensations influence taste

A

Taste is influenced by smell, thermoreceptors, mechanoreceptors, & nociceptors

550
Q

List the three cranial nerves that carry information on taste and their destinations.

A
  • Facial nerve, Glossopharyngeal nerve, and Vagus nerve
  • All fibers go to medulla
  • 2 destinations:
  • -Hypothalamus and Amygdala (Limbic system)
  • -Thalamus relays signals to Gustatory cortex (Insula lobe)
551
Q

Describe the olfactory mucosa and the basic olfactory pathways.

A

1) Olfactory mucosa
- Located on superior concha, nasal septum, and roof of nasal cavity
- Average 2,000 to 4,000 odors distinguished
2) Basic olfactory pathways:
- Olfactory cells synapse in olfactory bulb
- Information travels on axons which form the olfactory tracts
- Destinations:
a) Primary olfactory cortex (temporal lobe)
b) Limbic system (hippocampus and amygdala)
c) Hypothalamus
- Fibers reach back to olfactory bulbs where cells may be inhibited
- Odors change under different conditions

552
Q

Describe the gross anatomy of the ear.

A
  • Ear has three sections: outer, middle, and inner ear
  • First two are concerned only with the transmission of sound to the inner ear
  • Inner ear: vibrations converted to nerve signals
553
Q

Describe the three components of the outer ear

A
  • Conducts vibrations to the tympanic membrane (eardrum)
    1) Auricle (pinna) directs sound down the auditory canal; shaped and supported by elastic cartilage
    2) Auditory canal (external acoustic meatus): passage leading through temporal bone to tympanic membrane
    3) Cerumen (earwax): mixture of secretions of ceruminous and sebaceous glands and dead skin cells
554
Q

Describe the four main components of the middle ear

A
  • Located in the air-filled tympanic cavity in temporal bone
    1) Tympanic membrane (eardrum)
  • Vibrates freely in response to sound
    2) Tympanic cavity
  • Space only 2 to 3 mm wide between outer and inner ears
  • Contains auditory ossicles
    3) Auditory (eustachian) tube connects middle ear to nasopharynx
  • Equalizes air pressure on both sides of tympanic membrane
  • Normally closed, but swallowing or yawning open it
  • Allows throat infections to spread to middle ear
    4) Auditory ossicles
  • Malleus, Incus, Stapes
  • Stapes rests on oval window; where inner ear begins
555
Q

Describe the four main components of the inner ear

A

1) Bony labyrinth: passageways in temporal bone
2) Membranous labyrinth: fleshy tubes lining bony labyrinth
- Filled with endolymph: similar to intracellular fluid
- Floating in perilymph: similar to cerebrospinal fluid
3) Vestibule and three semicircular ducts
4) Cochlea: organ of hearing; 3 fluid-filled chambers separated by membranes

556
Q

Describe the three components of the cochlea

A

1) Scala vestibuli: superior chamber
- Begins at oval window & spirals to apex; filled with perilymph
2) Scala tympani: inferior chamber
- Begins at apex & ends at round window; filled with perilymph
3) Scala media (cochlear duct): middle chamber
- Floor formed by basilar membrane; top by vestibular membrane; filled with endolymph
- Contains spiral organ; organ of Corti converts vibrations into nerve impulses

557
Q

Explain how the ear converts vibrations to nerve signals

A
  • Tympanic membrane vibrates
  • Causes ossicles to vibrate; they concentrate the energy
  • Stapes pushes oval window which moves the perilymph in Scala vestibuli
  • This causes vibration of basilar membrane and moves hair receptors against the tectorial membrane
  • Movement of hair receptors sets off an electrical signal
  • Sensory fibers begin at the bases of hair cells
  • Organ of Corti converts vibrations into nerve impulses
558
Q

Explain how the ear discriminates between sounds of different intensity and pitch.

A
  • Variations in loudness (amplitude) cause variations in the intensity of cochlear vibrations
  • Soft sound produces relatively slight up-and-down motion of the basilar membrane
  • Louder sounds make the basilar membrane vibrate more vigorously
  • Triggers higher frequency of action potentials
  • Brain interprets this as louder sound
  • Pitch depends on which part of basilar membrane vibrates
559
Q

Explain how the vestibular apparatus enables the brain to interpret the body’s position and movements.

A
  • The vestibular apparatus constitutes hair receptors for equilibrium
  • Three semicircular ducts that detect only angular acceleration
  • Two chambers (Saccule and Utricle) that detect static equilibrium and linear acceleration
560
Q

Describe the pathways taken by auditory signals to the brain.

A
  • Organ of Corti converts vibrations into nerve impulses
  • Axons lead away from cochlea as the cochlear nerve
  • Joins with the vestibular nerve to form the vestibulocochlear nerve (cranial nerve VIII)
  • Each ear sends nerve fibers to both sides of the pons, then midbrain
  • From midbrain to thalamus; ends in primary auditory cortex (temporal lobe)
  • Auditory system has extensive decussations, so damage to one side of cortex does not cause unilateral hearing loss
561
Q

Describe the pathways taken by vestibular signals to the brain and what four destinations they go to

A
  • Hair cells of saccule, utricle, and semicircular ducts synapse on vestibular nerve (part of CN VIII); fibers end in pons and medulla
  • Main Destinations:
    1) Cerebellum: information for control of head and eye movements, muscle tone, and posture
    2) Nuclei of oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves (CN III, IV, and VI): coordinates eye movement
    3) Thalamus; relay to cerebral cortex for awareness of position and motor control of head and body
    4) Spinal cord and Reticular formation
562
Q

Describe the eyelids (palpebrae)

A
  • Consist of orbicularis oculi muscle and tarsal plate covered with skin outside and conjunctiva inside
  • Tarsal glands secrete oil that reduces tear evaporation
  • Eyelashes help keep debris from eye
563
Q

List the three accessory structures of the orbit

A

Eyelids (palpebrae), conjunctiva, and lacrimal apparatus,

564
Q

Describe the conjunctiva of the eye

A
  • A transparent mucous membrane that lines eyelids and covers anterior surface of eyeball, except cornea
  • Richly innervated and vascular (heals quickly)
  • Secretes a thin mucous film that prevents the eyeball from drying
565
Q

What does the lacrimal apparatus of the eye do?

A
  • Makes, distributes and drains tears into nasal cavity.

- Tears wash and lubricate eye, deliver O2 and nutrients, and prevent infection with a bactericidal lysozyme

566
Q

Describe the extrinsic muscles of the eye, their functions, and the cranial nerve that innervates each.

A

-Six extrinsic muscles attach to exterior surface of eyeball: Superior, inferior, lateral, and medial rectus muscles, superior and inferior oblique muscles
-Innervated by cranial nerves:
CN IV innervates superior oblique
CN VI innervates lateral rectus
CN III innervates other four extrinsic muscles
-Superior, inferior, medial, and lateral rectus muscles move the eye up, down, medially, and laterally (respectively)
-Superior and inferior obliques turn the “twelve o’clock pole” of each eye toward or away from the nose; they also produce slight elevations and depressions of the eye

567
Q

Describe the three tunics of the eye.

A

1) Tunica fibrosa: outer fibrous layer
- Sclera: dense, collagenous white of the eye
- Cornea: transparent region modified sclera in front of eye
2) Tunica vasculosa (uvea): middle vascular layer
- Choroid: highly vascular, deeply pigmented layer behind retina
- Ciliary body: extension of choroid; a muscular ring around lens; supports lens and iris and secretes aqueous humor
- Iris: colored diaphragm controlling size of pupil (opening)
- Color controlled by amount of melanin
3) Tunica interna: retina and beginning of optic nerve

568
Q

Discuss the aqueous humor and vitreous humor of the eye

A

1) Aqueous humor
- Serous fluid secreted by ciliary body into posterior chamber; posterior to cornea, anterior to lens
- Reabsorbed by scleral venous sinus at same rate it is secreted
2) Vitreous body (humor)
- Fills vitreous chamber
- Jelly fills space between lens and retina
- Holds retina in place

569
Q

Discuss the structure of the retina

A
  • Retina converts light energy into action potentials
  • Attached to eye only at optic disc (posterior exit of optic nerve) and ora serrata (anterior edge of retina)
  • Optic disc: no receptors so also called the blind spot
  • Pressed against rear of eyeball by vitreous humor
  • Detached retina causes blurry areas of vision and can lead to blindness
  • Macula lutea: patch of cells on visual axis of eye (highest acuity)
  • Fovea centralis: pit in center of macula lutea
  • Blood vessels of the retina
570
Q

Discuss the two types of receptor cells of the retina

A

1) Rod cells
- Night, or scotopic, vision or monochromatic vision
- Respond to dim light
- Used in peripheral vision
2) Cone cell
- Color, photopic, or day vision
- Produce high-acuity color vision
- Concentrated in the macula lutea (especially in the fovea centralis)

571
Q

Explain how the optical system of the eye creates an image on the retina.

A
  • Light passes through lens to form tiny inverted image on retina; this is thanks to refraction.
  • Iris diameter controlled by two sets of smooth muscle
    a) Parasympathetic stimulation narrows pupil
    b) Sympathetic stimulation widens pupil
  • Pupillary constriction and dilation occurs:
    a) When light intensity changes
    b) When gaze shifts between distant and nearby objects
572
Q

Describe the near response and list the three processes used.

A

1) Convergence of eyes
2) Constriction of pupil
3) Accommodation of lens: change in the curvature of the lens that enables you to focus on nearby objects
- Ciliary muscle contracts, suspensory ligaments slacken, and lens takes more convex (thicker) shape

573
Q

Describe the visual projection pathway.

A
  • Two optic nerves combine to form optic chiasm
  • Half the fibers cross over to the opposite side of the brain (hemidecussation) and chiasm splits to form optic tracts
  • Right cerebral hemisphere sees objects in left visual field because their images fall on the right half of each retina
  • Each side of brain sees what is on side where it has motor control over limbs
  • Pathway goes through thalamus; major destination primary vision cortex (occipital lobe)
574
Q

Describe the eye disorders of glaucoma and cataracts

A

1) Glaucoma: elevated pressure within the eye due to obstruction of scleral venous sinus and improper drainage of aqueous humor
- Leads to death of retinal cells due to compression of blood vessels and lack of oxygen
2) Cataracts: clouding of the lens of the eye
- Typically occurs in the elderly

575
Q

Describe the eye disorders of macular degeneration and detached retina

A

1) Macular degeneration:
- Leads to a ‘missing’ or blurry spot in the center of the field of vision
- Typically occurs with advanced age
2) Detached retina:
- When the retina is no longer attached to the eye at optic disc (posterior exit of optic nerve) and/or ora serrata (anterior edge of retina)
- Detached retina causes blurry areas of vision and can lead to blindness