Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anatomy and Physiology I > Smartbooks Chapters 8-11 > Flashcards

Smartbooks Chapters 8-11 Flashcards

1
Q

Which cranial bones are paired?

A

Parietal and temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How many bones does the skeleton typically contain at birth?

A

270

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The sagittal, squamous, coronal, and lambdoid sutures border the _____ bone

A

parietal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where does the skull rest on the vertebral column?

A

Occipital condyles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The typical vertebral column has ______ cervical vertebrae

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is called _____

A

scoliosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name the opening between the superior and inferior vertebral notches of two adjacent vertebrae.

A

Intervertebral foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which can be caused by excessive stress and can result in painful pressure on the spinal cord or a spinal nerve?

A

Herniated disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which joint is the articulation between the scapula and the humerus?

A

Glenohumeral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The lateral bone of the forearm is the ______.

A

Radius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Name the structure comprised of the two coxal bones and the sacrum.

A

Pelvic girdle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which three bones make up the hip?

A

Ischium
Pubic
Ilium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which bone is the only weight-bearing bone of the crural region?

A

Tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Identify the bones that comprise the pelvic girdle.

A

Sacrum

Coxal bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The three bones that make up the coxal bone are the ilium, ischium, and _______

A

pubic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does kinesiology study?

A

Musculoskeletal movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a joint in which a hard object, such as a tooth, is held in a bone cavity called?

A

Gomphosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is produced by embryonic bones fusing seamlessly into one adult bone?

A

Synostosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is another term for a fibrous joint?

A

Synarthrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Synarthrotic fibrous joints between the bones of the skull are called _______

A

sutures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a syndesmosis held together by?

A

Long collagen fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The pubic symphysis is an example of which type of joint?

A

Cartilaginous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Synchondroses and symphyses are types of what kind of joint?

A

Cartilaginous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A bony, immovable joint is called a(n) _______

A

synostosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The epiphyseal plate in a growing bone is an example of what type of joint?

A

Synchondrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What holds the bones together in a fibrous joint?

A

Collagen fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In a symphysis, bones are held together by what?

A

Fibrocartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

List the types of cartilaginous joints.

A

symphyses

synchondroses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What type of joint is found between the costal cartilage of rib one and the sternum?

A

Synchondrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A strip or sheet of tough collagenous tissue attaching a muscle to a bone is called a _______

A

tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Because it is a freely moveable joint, a synovial joint is also called a ______ joint.

A

diarthrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Intervertebral discs comprised of fibrocartilage are found within what type of joints?

A

Symphyses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Synchondroses and symphyses are types of what kind of joint?

A

Cartilaginous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which type of synovial joint consists of two bones at the base of the thumb, one with a surface that is concave and the other convex?

A

Saddle joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What holds the bone ends of an amphiarthrodial joint together?

A

Cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In which type of synovial joint does one bone with a convex non-hemispherical surface fit into the concave depression of another?

A

Hinge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The atlas turning on the dens is an example of a ______ joint.

A

pivot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The pubic symphysis is an example of which type of joint?

A

Cartilaginous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

In which type of synovial joint are the bone surfaces flat or nearly flat?

A

Plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The elbow is an example of a ______ joint.

A

hinge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Based on the number of axes of rotation, pivot joints are ______ joints.

A

Monaxial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Joints between carpal bones of the wrist are examples of ______ joints.

A

plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which movement lowers a body part vertically in the frontal plane?

A

Depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which movement straightens a joint, returning it to zero position?

A

Extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A movement of the forearm that turns the palm posteriorly or downward is called _______

A

pronation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the movement of toes downward, as when jumping or stepping on a gas pedal, called?

A

Plantar flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which two characteristics describe adduction?

A

A movement towards the midline of the body

A movement along the frontal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is turning the sole of the foot medially called?

A

Inversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The tendons of which muscles form the rotator cuff?

A

Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is movement of the foot upwards, as when walking on your heels, called?

A

Dorsiflexion

51
Q

Turning the sole of the foot laterally is called what?

A

Eversion

52
Q

What are the two articulations of the elbow joint?

A

Humeroradial

Humeroulnar

53
Q

What factors allow the shoulder to have a wide range of motion?

A

Loose joint capsule and shallow joint cavity

54
Q

What is another name for the hip joint?

A

Coxal joint

55
Q

True or false: The patella articulates with the femur.

A

True

56
Q

Chronic pain and inflammation of a joint is called ______

A

arthritis

57
Q

What causes a sprained ligament or tendon?

A

Tearing

58
Q

Movement of the foot so that the toes are elevated off of the ground is called ______

A

dorsiflexion

59
Q

The patellofemoral joint is an example of which class of synovial joint?

A

Gliding

60
Q

A ______ is trauma to a joint that causes a tear, or a partial tear to a ligament or tendon.

A

sprain

61
Q

What are five functions of skeletal muscle?

A 
Movement
Heat production
Joint stability
Blood sugar regulation
Control of body openings and passages
62
Q

In flexing the elbow, the prime mover is the ______.

A

brachialis

63
Q

The two parts of the occipitofrontalis, the frontalis and the occipitalis, act together to perform which action?

A

Elevation of the eyebrows

64
Q

Name 3 respiratory muscles

A

Diaphragm
External intercostals
Internal intercostals

65
Q

Which describes the occipitofrontalis?

a) A fusiform muscle with two heads
b) A convergent muscle with a thick tendon that runs under the zygomatic arch
c) Two muscles connected together by a broad aponeurosis
d) A single, thin muscular dome that runs across the top of the head

A

c) Two muscles connected together by a broad aponeurosis

66
Q

What is the major action of the muscles of the posterior compartment of the thigh, commonly called the “hamstrings?”

A

Flexion of knee

67
Q

True or false: The rotator cuff muscles all act together to abduct the arm.

A

False; the rotator cuff muscles hold the humerus within the glenoid cavity, as well as rotating and abducting the humerus.

68
Q

True or false: The hamstrings are the major extensors of the knee.

A

False; they’re flexors of the knee

69
Q

What is the common action of all the rotator cuff muscles?

A

Help prevent slippage of the humeral head in the glenoid fossa

70
Q

The characteristic that allows muscles to pull on bones and organs to create movement is called ______.

A

contractility

71
Q

Which property allows muscle cells to stretch to as much as three times their contracted length?

A

Extensibility

72
Q

Gated channels in the sarcoplasmic membrane open to release which ions into the cytosol?

A

Calcium

73
Q

Which protein makes up the thick filaments of a myofibril?

A

Myosin

74
Q

Thin filaments are primarily composed of which protein?

A

F actin

75
Q

In a myofibril, _______ filaments stabilize the thick filaments and prevent over-stretching.

A

elastic

76
Q

What prevents muscle cells from becoming too slack?

A

Elasticity

77
Q

True or false: The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium through gated channels when the T-tubules are stimulated.

A

True

78
Q

When a muscle is at rest, what molecule blocks the active sites on the actin molecules?

A

Tropomyosin

79
Q

In a myofibril, a thick filament is composed of pairs of _______ molecules intertwined together.

A

myosin

80
Q

What are three things that are found in thin filaments?

A

Troponin, tropomyosin, and actin

81
Q

Elastic filaments in a myofibril are made of which protein?

A

Titin

82
Q

What are two contractile proteins found in a myofibril?

A

Myosin and actin

83
Q

In a thin filament, each tropomyosin molecule has a small calcium-binding protein called _______

A

troponin

84
Q

Which protein links actin fibers to the inner face of the sarcolemma?

A

Dystrophin

85
Q

What causes skeletal muscle cells to be striated?

A

The alternating light and dark regions of the sarcomeres

86
Q

What are two regulatory proteins found in a myofibril?

A

Troponin and tropomyosin

87
Q

In a sarcomere, the thick filaments attach to the _______ line, found in the middle of the H band.

A

M

88
Q

The light bands in skeletal muscle are called __ bands and are bisected by a ___ disc.

A

I bands; Z disc

89
Q

A genetic condition in which an abnormal form of the dystrophin protein is produced results in ______ ______

A

muscular dystrophy

90
Q

The dark bands in the striations of skeletal muscle are called ______ bands and they represent the ______.

A

A, overlap of actin and myosin

91
Q

Within a sarcomere, the region within the A band that lacks thin filaments is called the ____ band

A

H

92
Q

Within skeletal muscle cells, what extends from one Z disc to the next and constitutes one contractile unit?

A

Sarcomere

93
Q

All of the muscle fibers innervated by a single nerve fiber constitute a ______ unit

A

motor

94
Q

I bands are composed primarily of which protein?

A

Actin

95
Q

A neuromuscular junction is a type of ______.

A

synapse

96
Q

The junctional folds of the neuromuscular junction are the site of ______ receptors.

A

acetylcholine

97
Q

What is a difference in electrical charge from one point to another called?

A

Electrical potential

98
Q

What is the indented region of the sarcolemma that participates in the neuromuscular junction called?

A

Motor end plate

99
Q

What is the change in membrane potential with the entry of sodium ions called?

A

Depolarization

100
Q

During an action potential, the loss of potassium ions from the cell results in which of the following?

A

Repolarization

101
Q

In an NMJ, after acetylcholine diffuses across the synaptic cleft, where does it bind to ligand-gated channels?

A

On the sarcolemma

102
Q

What are the folds in the sarcolemma at the neuromuscular junction called?

A

Junctional folds

103
Q

During depolarization of a muscle cell or nerve cell, ion channels in the plasma membrane open allowing which ions to enter the cell?

A

Sodium

104
Q

What occurs when calcium binds to troponin?

A

The troponin-tropomyosin complex changes shape and exposes the myosin binding sites (active sites).

105
Q

During repolarization, ______ ions diffuse out of the cell, changing the membrane potential back to a negative value.

A

potassium

106
Q

When acetylcholine binds to its receptors on the motor end plate, an ion channel opens and ______ ions diffuse quickly into the muscle cell.

A

sodium

107
Q

The prevailing theory regarding muscle contraction is called the _____ filament theory

A

sliding

108
Q

What must occur before tropomyosin can shift, revealing the active sites that allow myosin heads to bind to the actin filaments?

A

Calcium must bind to troponin

109
Q

What is muscle tone?

A

The partial contraction of resting muscles

110
Q

What is threshold, as applied to muscle physiology?

A

The minimum voltage necessary to generate an action potential

111
Q

What produces incomplete tetanus?

A

Temporal summation

112
Q

After contraction, what causes muscles to return to their resting length?

A

Elastic elements within the sarcomere

113
Q

A muscle shortens as it maintains tension in a what type of contraction?

A

Concentric

114
Q

When a muscle is at rest, most of its ATP is generated by ______ _______ of fatty acids.

A

aerobic respiration

115
Q

Lactic acid and a small amount of ATP are produced during which process?

A

Anaerobic fermentation

116
Q

Temporal summation leads to a state of fluttering contraction known as what?

A

Incomplete tetanus

117
Q

The type of muscle contraction in which there is a change in length, but no change in tension is called a(n) _______ contraction

A

isotonic

118
Q

Aerobic respiration utilizes what two molecules as fuel to generate ATP?

A

Fatty acids and glucose

119
Q

When do muscles transition to anaerobic fermentation to generate ATP by glycolysis?

A

After the phosphagen system is exhausted

120
Q

Cardiac muscle cells are considered

_______ because they contract rhythmically and independently.

A

autorhythmic

121
Q

In what type of contraction does the internal tension build until it overcomes resistance and the muscle moves the load?

A

Isotonic

122
Q

What are the functions of smooth muscle?

A

1) To constrict or dilate blood vessels to control blood pressure
2) To move material through the digestive tract
3) To regulate pupil diameter

123
Q

A muscle shortens as it maintains tension in a what type of contraction?

A

Concentric

Anatomy and Physiology I (39 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions