Smartbooks Chapters 8-11 Flashcards
Which cranial bones are paired?
Parietal and temporal
How many bones does the skeleton typically contain at birth?
270
The sagittal, squamous, coronal, and lambdoid sutures border the _____ bone
parietal
Where does the skull rest on the vertebral column?
Occipital condyles
The typical vertebral column has ______ cervical vertebrae
7
An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is called _____
scoliosis
Name the opening between the superior and inferior vertebral notches of two adjacent vertebrae.
Intervertebral foramen
Which can be caused by excessive stress and can result in painful pressure on the spinal cord or a spinal nerve?
Herniated disc
Which joint is the articulation between the scapula and the humerus?
Glenohumeral
The lateral bone of the forearm is the ______.
Radius
Name the structure comprised of the two coxal bones and the sacrum.
Pelvic girdle
Which three bones make up the hip?
Ischium
Pubic
Ilium
Which bone is the only weight-bearing bone of the crural region?
Tibia
Identify the bones that comprise the pelvic girdle.
Sacrum
Coxal bones
The three bones that make up the coxal bone are the ilium, ischium, and _______
pubic
What does kinesiology study?
Musculoskeletal movement
What is a joint in which a hard object, such as a tooth, is held in a bone cavity called?
Gomphosis
What is produced by embryonic bones fusing seamlessly into one adult bone?
Synostosis
What is another term for a fibrous joint?
Synarthrosis
Synarthrotic fibrous joints between the bones of the skull are called _______
sutures
What is a syndesmosis held together by?
Long collagen fibers
The pubic symphysis is an example of which type of joint?
Cartilaginous
Synchondroses and symphyses are types of what kind of joint?
Cartilaginous
A bony, immovable joint is called a(n) _______
synostosis
The epiphyseal plate in a growing bone is an example of what type of joint?
Synchondrosis
What holds the bones together in a fibrous joint?
Collagen fibers
In a symphysis, bones are held together by what?
Fibrocartilage
List the types of cartilaginous joints.
symphyses
synchondroses
What type of joint is found between the costal cartilage of rib one and the sternum?
Synchondrosis
A strip or sheet of tough collagenous tissue attaching a muscle to a bone is called a _______
tendon
Because it is a freely moveable joint, a synovial joint is also called a ______ joint.
diarthrosis
Intervertebral discs comprised of fibrocartilage are found within what type of joints?
Symphyses
Synchondroses and symphyses are types of what kind of joint?
Cartilaginous
Which type of synovial joint consists of two bones at the base of the thumb, one with a surface that is concave and the other convex?
Saddle joint
What holds the bone ends of an amphiarthrodial joint together?
Cartilage
In which type of synovial joint does one bone with a convex non-hemispherical surface fit into the concave depression of another?
Hinge
The atlas turning on the dens is an example of a ______ joint.
pivot
The pubic symphysis is an example of which type of joint?
Cartilaginous
In which type of synovial joint are the bone surfaces flat or nearly flat?
Plane
The elbow is an example of a ______ joint.
hinge
Based on the number of axes of rotation, pivot joints are ______ joints.
Monaxial
Joints between carpal bones of the wrist are examples of ______ joints.
plane
Which movement lowers a body part vertically in the frontal plane?
Depression
Which movement straightens a joint, returning it to zero position?
Extension
A movement of the forearm that turns the palm posteriorly or downward is called _______
pronation
What is the movement of toes downward, as when jumping or stepping on a gas pedal, called?
Plantar flexion
Which two characteristics describe adduction?
A movement towards the midline of the body
A movement along the frontal plane
What is turning the sole of the foot medially called?
Inversion
The tendons of which muscles form the rotator cuff?
Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis
What is movement of the foot upwards, as when walking on your heels, called?
Dorsiflexion
Turning the sole of the foot laterally is called what?
Eversion
What are the two articulations of the elbow joint?
Humeroradial
Humeroulnar
What factors allow the shoulder to have a wide range of motion?
Loose joint capsule and shallow joint cavity
What is another name for the hip joint?
Coxal joint
True or false: The patella articulates with the femur.
True
Chronic pain and inflammation of a joint is called ______
arthritis
What causes a sprained ligament or tendon?
Tearing
Movement of the foot so that the toes are elevated off of the ground is called ______
dorsiflexion
The patellofemoral joint is an example of which class of synovial joint?
Gliding
A ______ is trauma to a joint that causes a tear, or a partial tear to a ligament or tendon.
sprain
What are five functions of skeletal muscle?
Movement Heat production Joint stability Blood sugar regulation Control of body openings and passages
In flexing the elbow, the prime mover is the ______.
brachialis
The two parts of the occipitofrontalis, the frontalis and the occipitalis, act together to perform which action?
Elevation of the eyebrows
Name 3 respiratory muscles
Diaphragm
External intercostals
Internal intercostals
Which describes the occipitofrontalis?
a) A fusiform muscle with two heads
b) A convergent muscle with a thick tendon that runs under the zygomatic arch
c) Two muscles connected together by a broad aponeurosis
d) A single, thin muscular dome that runs across the top of the head
c) Two muscles connected together by a broad aponeurosis
What is the major action of the muscles of the posterior compartment of the thigh, commonly called the “hamstrings?”
Flexion of knee
True or false: The rotator cuff muscles all act together to abduct the arm.
False; the rotator cuff muscles hold the humerus within the glenoid cavity, as well as rotating and abducting the humerus.
True or false: The hamstrings are the major extensors of the knee.
False; they’re flexors of the knee
What is the common action of all the rotator cuff muscles?
Help prevent slippage of the humeral head in the glenoid fossa
The characteristic that allows muscles to pull on bones and organs to create movement is called ______.
contractility
Which property allows muscle cells to stretch to as much as three times their contracted length?
Extensibility
Gated channels in the sarcoplasmic membrane open to release which ions into the cytosol?
Calcium
Which protein makes up the thick filaments of a myofibril?
Myosin
Thin filaments are primarily composed of which protein?
F actin
In a myofibril, _______ filaments stabilize the thick filaments and prevent over-stretching.
elastic
What prevents muscle cells from becoming too slack?
Elasticity
True or false: The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium through gated channels when the T-tubules are stimulated.
True
When a muscle is at rest, what molecule blocks the active sites on the actin molecules?
Tropomyosin
In a myofibril, a thick filament is composed of pairs of _______ molecules intertwined together.
myosin
What are three things that are found in thin filaments?
Troponin, tropomyosin, and actin
Elastic filaments in a myofibril are made of which protein?
Titin
What are two contractile proteins found in a myofibril?
Myosin and actin
In a thin filament, each tropomyosin molecule has a small calcium-binding protein called _______
troponin
Which protein links actin fibers to the inner face of the sarcolemma?
Dystrophin
What causes skeletal muscle cells to be striated?
The alternating light and dark regions of the sarcomeres
What are two regulatory proteins found in a myofibril?
Troponin and tropomyosin
In a sarcomere, the thick filaments attach to the _______ line, found in the middle of the H band.
M
The light bands in skeletal muscle are called __ bands and are bisected by a ___ disc.
I bands; Z disc
A genetic condition in which an abnormal form of the dystrophin protein is produced results in ______ ______
muscular dystrophy
The dark bands in the striations of skeletal muscle are called ______ bands and they represent the ______.
A, overlap of actin and myosin
Within a sarcomere, the region within the A band that lacks thin filaments is called the ____ band
H
Within skeletal muscle cells, what extends from one Z disc to the next and constitutes one contractile unit?
Sarcomere
All of the muscle fibers innervated by a single nerve fiber constitute a ______ unit
motor
I bands are composed primarily of which protein?
Actin
A neuromuscular junction is a type of ______.
synapse
The junctional folds of the neuromuscular junction are the site of ______ receptors.
acetylcholine
What is a difference in electrical charge from one point to another called?
Electrical potential
What is the indented region of the sarcolemma that participates in the neuromuscular junction called?
Motor end plate
What is the change in membrane potential with the entry of sodium ions called?
Depolarization
During an action potential, the loss of potassium ions from the cell results in which of the following?
Repolarization
In an NMJ, after acetylcholine diffuses across the synaptic cleft, where does it bind to ligand-gated channels?
On the sarcolemma
What are the folds in the sarcolemma at the neuromuscular junction called?
Junctional folds
During depolarization of a muscle cell or nerve cell, ion channels in the plasma membrane open allowing which ions to enter the cell?
Sodium
What occurs when calcium binds to troponin?
The troponin-tropomyosin complex changes shape and exposes the myosin binding sites (active sites).
During repolarization, ______ ions diffuse out of the cell, changing the membrane potential back to a negative value.
potassium
When acetylcholine binds to its receptors on the motor end plate, an ion channel opens and ______ ions diffuse quickly into the muscle cell.
sodium
The prevailing theory regarding muscle contraction is called the _____ filament theory
sliding
What must occur before tropomyosin can shift, revealing the active sites that allow myosin heads to bind to the actin filaments?
Calcium must bind to troponin
What is muscle tone?
The partial contraction of resting muscles
What is threshold, as applied to muscle physiology?
The minimum voltage necessary to generate an action potential
What produces incomplete tetanus?
Temporal summation
After contraction, what causes muscles to return to their resting length?
Elastic elements within the sarcomere
A muscle shortens as it maintains tension in a what type of contraction?
Concentric
When a muscle is at rest, most of its ATP is generated by ______ _______ of fatty acids.
aerobic respiration
Lactic acid and a small amount of ATP are produced during which process?
Anaerobic fermentation
Temporal summation leads to a state of fluttering contraction known as what?
Incomplete tetanus
The type of muscle contraction in which there is a change in length, but no change in tension is called a(n) _______ contraction
isotonic
Aerobic respiration utilizes what two molecules as fuel to generate ATP?
Fatty acids and glucose
When do muscles transition to anaerobic fermentation to generate ATP by glycolysis?
After the phosphagen system is exhausted
Cardiac muscle cells are considered
_______ because they contract rhythmically and independently.
autorhythmic
In what type of contraction does the internal tension build until it overcomes resistance and the muscle moves the load?
Isotonic
What are the functions of smooth muscle?
1) To constrict or dilate blood vessels to control blood pressure
2) To move material through the digestive tract
3) To regulate pupil diameter
A muscle shortens as it maintains tension in a what type of contraction?
Concentric
