Smartbooks Chapters 5-7 Flashcards
The tissue found covering body surfaces, lining body cavities, forming the internal and external linings of many organs, and constituting most gland tissue is _____ tissue
epithelial
Which term is used to describe the free surface of an epithelium? Apical Basal Open Medullary
Apical
Which epithelium lines the respiratory tract from the nasal cavity to the bronchi? Simple cuboidal Transitional Simple columnar Pseudostratified columnar
Pseudostratified columnar
Which surface of an epithelial cell faces the basement membrane?
Basal
Apical
Basal
Which epithelium has tall columnar cells in a single layer interspersed with shorter basal cells and nuclei at varying levels? Stratified columnar Stratified squamous Pseudostratified columnar Simple cuboidal
Pseudostratified columnar
What is the function of transitional epithelium? To allow stretching To absorb nutrients To move fluid through tubules To protect against abrasion
To allow stretching
Which epithelium forms glandular epithelium and lines the kidney tubules? Simple cuboidal Pseudostratified columnar Stratified columnar Simple squamous
Simple cuboidal
Which epithelium is best suited for resisting abrasion and preventing pathogen entry into deeper tissues? Areolar Dense regular Stratified squamous Simple cuboidal
Stratified squamous
Which are functions of connective tissue in the body? (more than one correct answer) Absorption Support and protect organs Bind organs to one another Communication
Support and protect organs
Bind organs to one another
Which cells found in connective tissue engulf foreign particles, activate the immune system, and destroy dead or dying cells? Adipocytes Macrophages Reticulocytes Chondroblasts Fibroblasts
Macrophages
Where would transitional epithelium be found? Lining the lumen of an artery Lining the lumen of a kidney tubule Lining the lumen of the urinary bladder Lining the lumen of the small intestine
Lining the lumen of the urinary bladder
While preparing some chicken wings for cooking you observe white fibers connecting the bones and the muscles to bone. What type of fibers are these? Elastic Reticular Collagenous Myosin
Collagenous
Stratified \_\_\_\_\_\_ epithelium is the most widespread epithelium of the body. cuboidal columnar squamous transitional
squamous
Which tissue class supports and binds tissues together? Nervous Epithelial Connective Muscular
Connective
What are the functions of macrophages? (multiple select question)
They engulf foreign particles.
They transport nutrients in the blood and lymph fluid.
They produce fibers and ground substance.
They destroy dead or dying self cells.
They activate the immune system when they encounter antigens.
They engulf foreign particles.
They destroy dead or dying self cells.
They activate the immune system when they encounter antigens.
What are the three fiber types found in fibrous connective tissue? Intermediate Elastic Reticular Collagenous Actin Myosin
Elastic
Reticular
Collagenous
____ cartilage is found in the esophagus
hyaline
Cartilage in the outer ear is ______.
hyaline cartilage
fibrocartilage
elastic cartilage
elastic cartilage
The type of connective tissue found beneath the skin, within the breast, and on the surface of the heart is \_\_\_\_\_\_ tissue. osseous adipose dense regular cartilage
adipose
The top of the outer ear (where you get helix piercings) is made of ____ cartilage
elastic
What is another name for the axon of a neuron? Dendrite Nerve fiber Neurosoma Neuroglia
Nerve fiber
Which part of a neuron receives incoming signals from other cells? Fiber Axon Dendrite Neurosoma
Dendrite
Skin is an example of a(n) _____ membrane.
cutaneous
The membranes lining the inside surface of the respiratory and digestive tracts are examples of
_______ membranes.
mucous
Which of the following best describes tight junctions?
They consist of transmembrane cell-adhesion proteins around the upper part of a cell and hold neighboring cells together.
They consist of the membrane plaques of adjacent cells anchored together; there is a space between cell membranes.
They consist of connexons surrounding a channel leading from one cell to its neighbor.
They consist of transmembrane cell-adhesion proteins around the upper part of a cell and hold neighboring cells together.
The abdominal cavity is lined with a ____ membrane.
serous
What are the three main types of body membranes?
Mucous, serous, and cutaneous
The acid ______ is the protective film that gives skin its slight acidity.
mantle
Which term refers to the protective film found on skin that is involved in bacterial protection? Fungi colonization Antibiotics Acid microbes Acid mantle
Acid mantle
Skin is classified as thick or thin based on the thickness of which layer?
Stratum corneum
What event occurs to preserve heat in the body?
Vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the skin
Which of the following are functions of the skin? ((Multiple select question.)) Vitamin C synthesis Vitamin D synthesis Sensory reception Thermoregulation
Vitamin D synthesis
Sensory reception
Thermoregulation
Which of the following are features of skin that minimize bacterial and fungal growth during an infection.
((Multiple select question.))
The dryness of the skin inhibits microbial growth.
The cells of the skin shed infrequently.
The acid mantle inhibits microbial growth.
Vitamins secreted through the pores inhibits microbial growth.
The dryness of the skin inhibits microbial growth.
The cells of the skin shed infrequently.
The five types of cells found in the epidermis are:
Stem cells, keratinocytes, tactile cells, dendritic cells, and melanocytes
Cells in the epidermis are nourished by blood vessels located in which of the following? Hyperdermis Dermis Subdermis Hypodermis
Dermis
Which of the following are located in the dermis?
Simple cuboidal epithelium and mast cells
Fat and loose connective tissue
Melanocytes and Langerhans cells
Fibers, glands, blood vessels and nerve endings
Fibers, glands, blood vessels and nerve endings
Which term refers to the wavy upward projections at the boundary of the dermis and epidermis? Areolae Striae Dermal papillae Reticular layers
Dermal papillae
The deepest layer of the dermis is called the _____ layer.
reticular
Why are injections frequently administered into the hypodermis?
The subcutaneous tissue is highly vascular.
Define dendritic cells
Immune cells that guards against pathogens that penetrate into the skin
Define tactile cells
Sensory receptors for touch
What are the two zones of the dermis?
Papillary and reticular layer
_____ is a word that means “abnormal redness of the skin.”
Erythema
What usually causes a hematoma? Blows to the skin Exposure to cold temperatures Abrasion from rough surfaces Hot water spills on the skin
Blows to the skin
Fingernails and toenails are derivatives of which epidermal layer? Stratum corneum Stratum lucidum Stratum granulosum Stratum basale
Stratum corneum
Which substance, excreted by the liver, can accumulate to cause jaundice?
Bilirubin
Which type of sweat gland has a duct that opens by way of a pore on the skin surface? Sebaceous gland Ceruminous gland Apocrine sweat gland Merocrine sweat gland
Merocrine sweat gland
Most tumors occur where exposure to the sun is greatest. These areas would include which of the following? Legs, brain, stomach Stomach, head, heart Head, neck, and hands Scalp, arm, knee
Head, neck, and hands
James has a small shiny lesion that develops a central depression that has not invaded the dermis. A biopsy will most likely show that he has which of the following? Surface melanoma Melanoma Basal cell carcinoma Lymphoma
Basal cell carcinoma
The three types of skin cancer can be distinguished from each other by which of the following?
Zones of tissue injury and the ability to synthesize melanin
Appearance of their lesions and zones of tissue injury
Appearance of their lesion and ability to synthesize melanin
Degree of redness and number of remaining keratinocytes
Appearance of their lesions and zones of tissue injury
Lilly goes to the beach 3 times a week to tan. She develops a lesion on her scalp and ears that later form concave ulcers with raised edges. Lilly most likely has which of the following? Lymphoma Basal cell carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
The study of bone is called ______
osteology
What is the major producer of blood cells? Carbonate salts Red bone marrow Compact bone Calcium cells
Red bone marrow
The process in which dense regular connective tissue hardens to form bone is called _____
ossification
Bones are classified as one of four types based on their shape. The bones of the cranium are examples of _____ bones
flat
Bones such as the vertebrae are classified as _____ bones
irregular
One function of the skeleton is to store calcium and phosphate to help maintain _______ balance
electrolyte
What is the deposition of calcium salts called? Osteomalacia Ossification Calcification Resorption
Calcification
Bones such as the carpals that have the same length and width are classified as _____ bones.
short
Thin, often curved, bones are classified as what shape? Irregular Short Flat Long
Flat
What is the expanded end of a long bone to which tendons and ligaments attach called? Metaphysis Diaphysis Epiphysis Epiphyseal plate
Epiphysis
Bones that are longer than they are wide are classified as ______ bones.
long
The shaft of a long bone is called the _____
diaphysis
Which allows the passage of blood vessels into a bone?
Perforating canal
Nutrient foramen
Central canal
Nutrient foramen
Which describes the structure of a flat bone?
A layer of compact bone is sandwiched between two layers of spongy bone.
A layer of spongy bone is sandwiched between two layers of compact bone.
A layer of spongy bone is sandwiched between two layers of compact bone.
An epiphyseal line is slightly denser \_\_\_\_\_\_. spongy bone periosteum compact bone cartilage
spongy bone
Which bone cells produce the organic bone matrix? Osteoclasts Osteoblasts Chondrocytes Osteocytes
Osteoblasts
What is the hyaline cartilage found covering the ends of bones within a joint called?
Articular cartilage
What is the term for the bone tissue located between the two layers of compact bone in the skull?
Diploe
The action carried out by osteoclasts is called ______.
osteolysis
The protein and carbohydrate portion of bone matrix forms the ______ matter.
organic
Within compact bone, a central canal is found at the center of which structure? A bone An epiphysis A Volkmann canal An osteon
An osteon
Which structures found in spongy bone line up along the bone’s lines of stress?
Trabeculae
Which of the following is a function of yellow bone marrow?
Storage of calcium
Storage of energy
Production of blood cells
Storage of energy
What is the expanded end of a long bone to which tendons and ligaments attach called?
Epiphysis
What are the two principle forms of ossification that occur in the development of the skeletal system?
Endochondral and intramembranous
As a flat bone is produced by intramembranous ossification, which cells are responsible for the resorption of bone tissue that carves out the spongy bone's trabeculae? Chondrocytes Osteoclasts Chondroblasts Osteoblasts
Osteoclasts
________ cartilage is the tissue which is replaced with bone during endochondral ossification
hyaline
Where does the calcium and phosphate used to mineralize bone come from? The blood The lymph Osteoblasts Hyaline cartilage
The blood
Fatty bone marrow that no longer produces blood cells is called ______ bone marrow
Yellow
If a patient has abnormally high blood calcium levels, they are said to have a condition called ______.
hypercalcemia
Which of the following best describes osteomalacia?
An insufficient vitamin E intake in children
The softening of the bones in adults due to calcium depletion
A decreased osteoblast proliferation in adults
The hardening of the bones in adults due to excess mineral deposits
The softening of the bones in adults due to calcium depletion
Where does bone formation occur during endochondral ossification?
Adipose tissue
Hyaline cartilage model
Fibrous membranous sheet
Hyaline cartilage model
Vitamin D, also known as \_\_\_\_\_\_, raises the blood calcium level. cholesterol calcium calcitriol cholecalciferol
calcitriol
Mineral deposition into bones begin when? In fetal ossification During puberty In the first month of life In the first year of life
In fetal ossification
Which adult condition involves the softening of bones due to demineralization? Osteosarcoma Osteomalacia Rickets Osteomyelitis
Osteomalacia
Which hormone inhibits osteoclasts and stimulates osteoblasts to lower blood calcium levels?
Calcitonin
Parathyroid hormone
Calcitriol
Calcitonin
Calcitriol acts on which organs to raise blood calcium levels? ((Multiple select question)) Bones Kidneys Brain Muscles Small intestines
Bones
Kidneys
Small intestines
Which two ions are deposited by osteoblasts into the bone matrix?
Phosphate and calcium
A low blood calcium level stimulates the release of which hormone?
Parathyroid hormone
Thyroid releasing hormone
Calcitonin
Parathyroid hormone
What does the hormone calcitonin do?
Stimulates osteoclasts and inhibits osteoblasts
Inhibits osteoclasts and stimulates osteoblasts
Stimulates osteoclasts and stimulates osteoblasts
Inhibits osteoclasts and inhibits osteoblasts
Inhibits osteoclasts and stimulates osteoblasts
During fracture healing, cartilage is deposited in granulation tissue to form which of the following? A fracture hematoma A woven bone A hard callus A soft callus
A soft callus
True or false: Most fractures are treated using closed reduction.
True
PTH is a hormone released by parathyroid glands in response to which of the following? Sympathetic innervation Low blood calcium levels High blood potassium levels High blood iron levels
Low blood calcium levels
A degenerative bone disease characterized by a loss of bone mass and an increased risk of fracture is called ______
osteoporosis
Which condition occurs because of a defect in collagen deposition that causes bones to be exceptionally brittle?
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Which hormone inhibits osteoclasts and stimulates osteoblasts to lower blood calcium levels?
Calcitriol
Parathyroid hormone
Calcitonin
Calcitonin
A hard callus is composed of _______
bone
When surgery is needed to set a fracture, this treatment is called a(n) _____ reduction
open
What often causes the loss of bone mass seen in osteoporosis in older women? A loss of androgen A loss of parathyroid hormone A loss of calcitriol A loss of estrogen
A loss of estrogen
What is osteogenesis imperfecta?
A loss of bone mineralization resulting in frequent fractures
A defect in collagen deposition that renders bones exceptionally brittle
An inflammation of osseous tissue due to bacterial infection
A defect in collagen deposition that renders bones exceptionally brittle
