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Anatomy and Physiology I > Smartbooks Chapters 5-7 > Flashcards

Smartbooks Chapters 5-7 Flashcards

1
Q

The tissue found covering body surfaces, lining body cavities, forming the internal and external linings of many organs, and constituting most gland tissue is _____ tissue

A

epithelial

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2
Q 
Which term is used to describe the free surface of an epithelium?
Apical
Basal
Open
Medullary
A

Apical

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3
Q 
Which epithelium lines the respiratory tract from the nasal cavity to the bronchi?
Simple cuboidal
Transitional
Simple columnar
Pseudostratified columnar
A

Pseudostratified columnar

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4
Q

Which surface of an epithelial cell faces the basement membrane?
Basal
Apical

A

Basal

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5
Q 
Which epithelium has tall columnar cells in a single layer interspersed with shorter basal cells and nuclei at varying levels?
Stratified columnar
Stratified squamous
Pseudostratified columnar
Simple cuboidal
A

Pseudostratified columnar

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6
Q 
What is the function of transitional epithelium?
To allow stretching
To absorb nutrients
To move fluid through tubules
To protect against abrasion
A

To allow stretching

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7
Q 
Which epithelium forms glandular epithelium and lines the kidney tubules?
Simple cuboidal
Pseudostratified columnar
Stratified columnar
Simple squamous
A

Simple cuboidal

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8
Q 
Which epithelium is best suited for resisting abrasion and preventing pathogen entry into deeper tissues?
Areolar
Dense regular
Stratified squamous
Simple cuboidal
A

Stratified squamous

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9
Q 
Which are functions of connective tissue in the body? (more than one correct answer)
Absorption
Support and protect organs
Bind organs to one another
Communication
A

Support and protect organs

Bind organs to one another

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10
Q 
Which cells found in connective tissue engulf foreign particles, activate the immune system, and destroy dead or dying cells?
Adipocytes
Macrophages
Reticulocytes
Chondroblasts
Fibroblasts
A

Macrophages

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11
Q 
Where would transitional epithelium be found?
Lining the lumen of an artery
Lining the lumen of a kidney tubule
Lining the lumen of the urinary bladder
Lining the lumen of the small intestine
A

Lining the lumen of the urinary bladder

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12
Q 
While preparing some chicken wings for cooking you observe white fibers connecting the bones and the muscles to bone. What type of fibers are these?
Elastic
Reticular
Collagenous
Myosin
A

Collagenous

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13
Q 
Stratified \_\_\_\_\_\_ epithelium is the most widespread epithelium of the body.
cuboidal
columnar
squamous
transitional
A

squamous

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14
Q 
Which tissue class supports and binds tissues together?
Nervous
Epithelial
Connective
Muscular
A

Connective

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15
Q

What are the functions of macrophages? (multiple select question)
They engulf foreign particles.
They transport nutrients in the blood and lymph fluid.
They produce fibers and ground substance.
They destroy dead or dying self cells.
They activate the immune system when they encounter antigens.

A

They engulf foreign particles.
They destroy dead or dying self cells.
They activate the immune system when they encounter antigens.

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16
Q 
What are the three fiber types found in fibrous connective tissue?
Intermediate
Elastic
Reticular
Collagenous
Actin
Myosin
A

Elastic
Reticular
Collagenous

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17
Q

____ cartilage is found in the esophagus

A

hyaline

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18
Q

Cartilage in the outer ear is ______.
hyaline cartilage
fibrocartilage
elastic cartilage

A

elastic cartilage

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19
Q 
The type of connective tissue found beneath the skin, within the breast, and on the surface of the heart is \_\_\_\_\_\_ tissue.
osseous
adipose
dense regular
cartilage
A

adipose

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20
Q

The top of the outer ear (where you get helix piercings) is made of ____ cartilage

A

elastic

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21
Q 
What is another name for the axon of a neuron?
Dendrite
Nerve fiber
Neurosoma
Neuroglia
A

Nerve fiber

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22
Q 
Which part of a neuron receives incoming signals from other cells?
Fiber
Axon
Dendrite
Neurosoma
A

Dendrite

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23
Q

Skin is an example of a(n) _____ membrane.

A

cutaneous

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24
Q

The membranes lining the inside surface of the respiratory and digestive tracts are examples of
_______ membranes.

A

mucous

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25
Q

Which of the following best describes tight junctions?
They consist of transmembrane cell-adhesion proteins around the upper part of a cell and hold neighboring cells together.
They consist of the membrane plaques of adjacent cells anchored together; there is a space between cell membranes.
They consist of connexons surrounding a channel leading from one cell to its neighbor.

A

They consist of transmembrane cell-adhesion proteins around the upper part of a cell and hold neighboring cells together.

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26
Q

The abdominal cavity is lined with a ____ membrane.

A

serous

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27
Q

What are the three main types of body membranes?

A

Mucous, serous, and cutaneous

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28
Q

The acid ______ is the protective film that gives skin its slight acidity.

A

mantle

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29
Q 
Which term refers to the protective film found on skin that is involved in bacterial protection?
Fungi colonization
Antibiotics
Acid microbes
Acid mantle
A

Acid mantle

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30
Q

Skin is classified as thick or thin based on the thickness of which layer?

A

Stratum corneum

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31
Q

What event occurs to preserve heat in the body?

A

Vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the skin

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32
Q 
Which of the following are functions of the skin?
((Multiple select question.))
Vitamin C synthesis
Vitamin D synthesis
Sensory reception
Thermoregulation
A

Vitamin D synthesis
Sensory reception
Thermoregulation

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33
Q

Which of the following are features of skin that minimize bacterial and fungal growth during an infection.
((Multiple select question.))
The dryness of the skin inhibits microbial growth.
The cells of the skin shed infrequently.
The acid mantle inhibits microbial growth.
Vitamins secreted through the pores inhibits microbial growth.

A

The dryness of the skin inhibits microbial growth.

The cells of the skin shed infrequently.

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34
Q

The five types of cells found in the epidermis are:

A

Stem cells, keratinocytes, tactile cells, dendritic cells, and melanocytes

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35
Q 
Cells in the epidermis are nourished by blood vessels located in which of the following?
Hyperdermis
Dermis
Subdermis
Hypodermis
A

Dermis

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36
Q

Which of the following are located in the dermis?
Simple cuboidal epithelium and mast cells
Fat and loose connective tissue
Melanocytes and Langerhans cells
Fibers, glands, blood vessels and nerve endings

A

Fibers, glands, blood vessels and nerve endings

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37
Q 
Which term refers to the wavy upward projections at the boundary of the dermis and epidermis?
Areolae
Striae
Dermal papillae
Reticular layers
A

Dermal papillae

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38
Q

The deepest layer of the dermis is called the _____ layer.

A

reticular

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39
Q

Why are injections frequently administered into the hypodermis?

A

The subcutaneous tissue is highly vascular.

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40
Q

Define dendritic cells

A

Immune cells that guards against pathogens that penetrate into the skin

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41
Q

Define tactile cells

A

Sensory receptors for touch

42
Q

What are the two zones of the dermis?

A

Papillary and reticular layer

43
Q

_____ is a word that means “abnormal redness of the skin.”

A

Erythema

44
Q 
What usually causes a hematoma?
Blows to the skin
Exposure to cold temperatures
Abrasion from rough surfaces
Hot water spills on the skin
A

Blows to the skin

45
Q 
Fingernails and toenails are derivatives of which epidermal layer?
Stratum corneum
Stratum lucidum
Stratum granulosum
Stratum basale
A

Stratum corneum

46
Q

Which substance, excreted by the liver, can accumulate to cause jaundice?

A

Bilirubin

47
Q 
Which type of sweat gland has a duct that opens by way of a pore on the skin surface?
Sebaceous gland
Ceruminous gland
Apocrine sweat gland
Merocrine sweat gland
A

Merocrine sweat gland

48
Q 
Most tumors occur where exposure to the sun is greatest. These areas would include which of the following?
Legs, brain, stomach
Stomach, head, heart
Head, neck, and hands
Scalp, arm, knee
A

Head, neck, and hands

49
Q 
James has a small shiny lesion that develops a central depression that has not invaded the dermis. A biopsy will most likely show that he has which of the following?
Surface melanoma
Melanoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Lymphoma
A

Basal cell carcinoma

50
Q

The three types of skin cancer can be distinguished from each other by which of the following?
Zones of tissue injury and the ability to synthesize melanin
Appearance of their lesions and zones of tissue injury
Appearance of their lesion and ability to synthesize melanin
Degree of redness and number of remaining keratinocytes

A

Appearance of their lesions and zones of tissue injury

51
Q 
Lilly goes to the beach 3 times a week to tan. She develops a lesion on her scalp and ears that later form concave ulcers with raised edges. Lilly most likely has which of the following?
Lymphoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Melanoma
A

Squamous cell carcinoma

52
Q

The study of bone is called ______

A

osteology

53
Q 
What is the major producer of blood cells?
Carbonate salts
Red bone marrow
Compact bone
Calcium cells
A

Red bone marrow

54
Q

The process in which dense regular connective tissue hardens to form bone is called _____

A

ossification

55
Q

Bones are classified as one of four types based on their shape. The bones of the cranium are examples of _____ bones

A

flat

56
Q

Bones such as the vertebrae are classified as _____ bones

A

irregular

57
Q

One function of the skeleton is to store calcium and phosphate to help maintain _______ balance

A

electrolyte

58
Q 
What is the deposition of calcium salts called?
Osteomalacia
Ossification
Calcification
Resorption
A

Calcification

59
Q

Bones such as the carpals that have the same length and width are classified as _____ bones.

A

short

60
Q 
Thin, often curved, bones are classified as what shape?
Irregular
Short
Flat
Long
A

Flat

61
Q 
What is the expanded end of a long bone to which tendons and ligaments attach called?
Metaphysis
Diaphysis
Epiphysis
Epiphyseal plate
A

Epiphysis

62
Q

Bones that are longer than they are wide are classified as ______ bones.

A

long

63
Q

The shaft of a long bone is called the _____

A

diaphysis

64
Q

Which allows the passage of blood vessels into a bone?
Perforating canal
Nutrient foramen
Central canal

A

Nutrient foramen

65
Q

Which describes the structure of a flat bone?
A layer of compact bone is sandwiched between two layers of spongy bone.
A layer of spongy bone is sandwiched between two layers of compact bone.

A

A layer of spongy bone is sandwiched between two layers of compact bone.

66
Q 
An epiphyseal line is slightly denser \_\_\_\_\_\_.
spongy bone
periosteum
compact bone
cartilage
A

spongy bone

67
Q 
Which bone cells produce the organic bone matrix?
Osteoclasts
Osteoblasts
Chondrocytes
Osteocytes
A

Osteoblasts

68
Q

What is the hyaline cartilage found covering the ends of bones within a joint called?

A

Articular cartilage

69
Q

What is the term for the bone tissue located between the two layers of compact bone in the skull?

A

Diploe

70
Q

The action carried out by osteoclasts is called ______.

A

osteolysis

71
Q

The protein and carbohydrate portion of bone matrix forms the ______ matter.

A

organic

72
Q 
Within compact bone, a central canal is found at the center of which structure?
A bone
An epiphysis
A Volkmann canal
An osteon
A

An osteon

73
Q

Which structures found in spongy bone line up along the bone’s lines of stress?

A

Trabeculae

74
Q

Which of the following is a function of yellow bone marrow?
Storage of calcium
Storage of energy
Production of blood cells

A

Storage of energy

75
Q

What is the expanded end of a long bone to which tendons and ligaments attach called?

A

Epiphysis

76
Q

What are the two principle forms of ossification that occur in the development of the skeletal system?

A

Endochondral and intramembranous

77
Q 
As a flat bone is produced by intramembranous ossification, which cells are responsible for the resorption of bone tissue that carves out the spongy bone's trabeculae?
Chondrocytes
Osteoclasts
Chondroblasts
Osteoblasts
A

Osteoclasts

78
Q

________ cartilage is the tissue which is replaced with bone during endochondral ossification

A

hyaline

79
Q 
Where does the calcium and phosphate used to mineralize bone come from?
The blood
The lymph
Osteoblasts
Hyaline cartilage
A

The blood

80
Q

Fatty bone marrow that no longer produces blood cells is called ______ bone marrow

A

Yellow

81
Q

If a patient has abnormally high blood calcium levels, they are said to have a condition called ______.

A

hypercalcemia

82
Q

Which of the following best describes osteomalacia?
An insufficient vitamin E intake in children
The softening of the bones in adults due to calcium depletion
A decreased osteoblast proliferation in adults
The hardening of the bones in adults due to excess mineral deposits

A

The softening of the bones in adults due to calcium depletion

83
Q

Where does bone formation occur during endochondral ossification?
Adipose tissue
Hyaline cartilage model
Fibrous membranous sheet

A

Hyaline cartilage model

84
Q 
Vitamin D, also known as \_\_\_\_\_\_, raises the blood calcium level.
cholesterol
calcium
calcitriol
cholecalciferol
A

calcitriol

85
Q 
Mineral deposition into bones begin when?
In fetal ossification
During puberty
In the first month of life
In the first year of life
A

In fetal ossification

86
Q 
Which adult condition involves the softening of bones due to demineralization?
Osteosarcoma
Osteomalacia
Rickets
Osteomyelitis
A

Osteomalacia

87
Q

Which hormone inhibits osteoclasts and stimulates osteoblasts to lower blood calcium levels?
Calcitonin
Parathyroid hormone
Calcitriol

A

Calcitonin

88
Q 
Calcitriol acts on which organs to raise blood calcium levels?
((Multiple select question))
Bones
Kidneys
Brain
Muscles
Small intestines
A

Bones
Kidneys
Small intestines

89
Q

Which two ions are deposited by osteoblasts into the bone matrix?

A

Phosphate and calcium

90
Q

A low blood calcium level stimulates the release of which hormone?
Parathyroid hormone
Thyroid releasing hormone
Calcitonin

A

Parathyroid hormone

91
Q

What does the hormone calcitonin do?
Stimulates osteoclasts and inhibits osteoblasts
Inhibits osteoclasts and stimulates osteoblasts
Stimulates osteoclasts and stimulates osteoblasts
Inhibits osteoclasts and inhibits osteoblasts

A

Inhibits osteoclasts and stimulates osteoblasts

92
Q 
During fracture healing, cartilage is deposited in granulation tissue to form which of the following?
A fracture hematoma
A woven bone
A hard callus
A soft callus
A

A soft callus

93
Q

True or false: Most fractures are treated using closed reduction.

A

True

94
Q 
PTH is a hormone released by parathyroid glands in response to which of the following?
Sympathetic innervation
Low blood calcium levels
High blood potassium levels
High blood iron levels
A

Low blood calcium levels

95
Q

A degenerative bone disease characterized by a loss of bone mass and an increased risk of fracture is called ______

A

osteoporosis

96
Q

Which condition occurs because of a defect in collagen deposition that causes bones to be exceptionally brittle?

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

97
Q

Which hormone inhibits osteoclasts and stimulates osteoblasts to lower blood calcium levels?
Calcitriol
Parathyroid hormone
Calcitonin

A

Calcitonin

98
Q

A hard callus is composed of _______

A

bone

99
Q

When surgery is needed to set a fracture, this treatment is called a(n) _____ reduction

A

open

100
Q 
What often causes the loss of bone mass seen in osteoporosis in older women?
A loss of androgen
A loss of parathyroid hormone
A loss of calcitriol
A loss of estrogen
A

A loss of estrogen

101
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta?
A loss of bone mineralization resulting in frequent fractures
A defect in collagen deposition that renders bones exceptionally brittle
An inflammation of osseous tissue due to bacterial infection

A

A defect in collagen deposition that renders bones exceptionally brittle

Anatomy and Physiology I (39 decks)

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