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Keith's Cards > Technical Rescue SOGs(Paragraphs 4000-5400) > Flashcards

Technical Rescue SOGs(Paragraphs 4000-5400) Flashcards

1
Q

Chapter 5 Article 10 refers to _____.

A

Helicopter SOGs for Air Group guidelines

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2
Q

All safety checks are done on all _____,

_____, and your ____.

A

rope system components
yourself
team members

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3
Q

The remaining team member on the helo
is the _____. He is seated on the _____ of
the helicopter. He has the power _____ if
necessary.

A

safety officer
right side rear
to stop all operations

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4
Q

The _____ determines who is in the flight

crew including rescue personnel.

A

PIC-pilot in charge

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5
Q

Search area is determined by these 3 people

A

PIC
IC
Rescue Captain

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6
Q

Every member on board the helicopter will

act as _____.

A

rescue observers

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7
Q

Wearing seatbelts is mandatory except

when _____.

A

it hinders the insertion/extraction of personnel or patients

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8
Q

Do not put anything above the height of ____.

A

the helicopter door

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9
Q

the helicopter microphone should be

adjusted so that it ____.

A

barely touches your lips

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10
Q

A rescue observer moving from the front

seat to the back must be _____.

A

secured to a designated anchor point

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11
Q

no _____ in flight unless approved by the pilot

A

dynamic weight shifts

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12
Q

yaw:

A

to turn from side to side

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13
Q

no _____ inside the helicopter

A

loose equipment

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14
Q

if an emergency in flight, team members

shall _____ and follow the _____.

A

remain seated

pilot’s instructions

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15
Q

team members shall ____ from the pilot’s

controls at _____.

A

stay clear

all times

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16
Q

According to the SOGs, all insertions

shall include ____ team members

A

2 or more

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17
Q

6 things required for ocean insertions

A 
radio
fins
mask
knife
floatation vest
strobe is required at night only
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18
Q

hover boarding is for _____ only

A

extraction

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19
Q

hover boarding is at a height that ____

A

enables the rescue personnel to grasp the

skid and climb aboad

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20
Q

when entering the helicopter, do so as

_____ as possible.

A

smoothly

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21
Q

All personnel must be _____ to the pilot

during extraction.

A

visible

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22
Q

All rigging for helo ops will use both
the _____ . In addition, if lowering, the
_____ will be secured to the _____.

A

primary and secondary anchors
tail end of the rope
secondary anchor

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23
Q

Any safety officer/rappel master will be

_____ to the helicopter.

A

secured/tied off

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24
Q

Fixed line flyaway is a specific type of
_____ that refers to when a ____ and a
_____ are transported together to safety
on a _____ and _____ line beneath the helo.

A 
sling loading
rescuer
patient
fixed
suspended
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25
Q

Before giving a rescuer a line for a fixed
line flyaway or slingload for extraction, the
line must be ____.

A

locked off

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26
Q

When preparing for a diaper pick-off from
the helicopter, the diaper should be rigged
with _____ attached to the _____.

A

separate carabiner

figure 8 on a bight

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27
Q

If preparing to be lowered to a patient
from the helicopter and you will be getting
off the line, rig the ____ to the _____ with a
separate ____.

A

buoy
figure 8 on a bight
carabiner

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28
Q

Stepping off is when the helicopter must _____ at a _____. It is for _____ only. It is
primarily done in the _____.

A

hover
safe height
insertion
ocean

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29
Q

1-skid hovers are for both _____.

A

insertion and extraction

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30
Q

After exiting the helicopter, all rescue

personnel should ____ .

A

remain in plain view of the pilot

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31
Q

Sling loading:

A

people or equipment are transported from
one area to another via a fixed line
attached to and suspended beneath the
helicopter.

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32
Q

sling loading can be used for both ____.

A

insertion and extraction

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33
Q

stokes and skeds litters can be _____ by

the helicopter

A

sling loaded

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34
Q

if a patient needs to be tended to during
sling loading, the rescuer can use a ____
and ____ to _____ to the ____.

A

pick-off strap
2 carabiners
hook-up
fixed line

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35
Q

Rappeller should be _____ prior to take-off.

A

hooked up and ready to rappel

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36
Q

The safety officer conducts a _____ prior to

the rappeller taking his position on the skid.

A

safety touch check

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37
Q

Before placing a rope bag, beginning a

rappel or a belay; you must obtain _____.

A

pilot approval

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38
Q

If the pilot is unable to communicate with
the rappeller, the _____ shall _____ to start
the rappel.

A

safety officer

make the command

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39
Q

The safety officer is responsible for telling
the pilot when the rappeller is _____ and
_____.

A

on the ground

clear of the line

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40
Q

The rappeller signals to the pilot that he is

on the ground and clear of the line by ____.

A

extending his arm outward, palm down and
bringing his hand towards his chest
bending from the elbow.

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41
Q

After a rappel and once the line is clear, the safety officer can _____ or _____.

A

retrieve the line

drop the end of the rope

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42
Q

Sometimes it is necessary for the rope
to be retrieved by the safety officer after
a rappel. If so the rappeller must ____.

A

tie off the rope while securing the rope bag.

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43
Q

If a second rappel is planned, the rappel
line is _____. The _____ gets in position to
rappel, and the ____ moves to the rear of
the helo and becomes the new safety
officer.

A

left in place
safety officer
rescue observer

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44
Q

Public must be kept at least ____ away
from the helicopter. HFD personnel must
be at least ____ away unless specific duties
require otherwise.

A

100’

50’

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45
Q

all helicopter ground safety rules from LZ

to approaching and exiting aircraft

A

keep clear of rotor
keep head/equipment below top of door
do not go aft of door
approach/depart from front left quadrant unless it is upslope.
all tools should be kept below waist level.
never let patients exit by themselves.
all equipment brought on board must be
approved by the pilot.
do not step inside the skids.
do not position yourself underneath helo.
ensure LZ is free of loose materials, obstructions, and people
place back to the wind with arms
extended, palms down
ensure lighting doesn’t hinder pilot’s vision
if small LZ, kneel next to helo in plain view for insertion/extraction.

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46
Q

Acceptable Entry Conditions:

A

conditions within a confined space that
must exist to ensure that members can
safely enter and work in the space.

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47
Q 
Who develops and publishes
recommended occupational exposure
limits called TLVs for hundreds of
chemicals, physical agents, and 
biological indices?
A

ACGIH

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48
Q

ACGIH

A

american conference of governmental

industrial hygienists

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49
Q

TLVs

A

threshold limit values

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50
Q

atmospheric hazards include 5 things

A 
toxins
flammable substances
O2 deficiency
O2 enrichment
particles of combustion
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51
Q

Confined Space Attendant is assigned to
_____ of the confined space. He _____
inside and outside of the space. He _____
with the _____.

A

remain just outside
monitors conditions
communicates
authorized entrant

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52
Q

The attendant is not allowed to ____ the

space and must call ____ to rescue entrants.

A

enter

for help

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53
Q

the attendant can help perform _____

rescues.

A

non-entry

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54
Q

CSRE

A

confined space rescue entrant

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55
Q

7 things CSREs must be able to do

A 
use proper PPEs for confined space 
work in the confined space
ID hazards in the confined space
provide status updates
monitor for evacuation alert
attach victim to safety line
perform self-rescue
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56
Q

CO is a ______ and is known as _____. It is
_____, _____ and has a vapor density of
_____. It acts as an _____ due to it’s
propensity to bind with hemoglobin.

A 
by-product of incomplete combustion
carbon monoxide
colorless
odorless
less than 1
asphyxiant
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57
Q

_____ harnesses are used for _____. They
are designed to support up to _____ and
protect against _____ with _____ front and
back _____.

A 
class III
confined space rescue
2-person loads
inversion
multiple
connection points
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58
Q

communication can be done by 4 methods

A

voice
radio
rope signals
hand signals

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59
Q

helicopter comms include 4 things

A

radio
icom
cellphone
hand signals

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60
Q

29 CFR 1910.146

A

Chapter 29 of OSHAs Code of Federal
Regulations. 1910.146 refers to
Permit-Required Confined Spaces

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61
Q

In CS rescue, communications must be

established _____.

A

prior to entry

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62
Q

CS-Competent Person is capable of _____
in a CS working area or surrounding area
that is _____ or _____ to members. He has
the authority to take _____ to eliminate
such conditions.

A

identifying or predicting conditions
unsanitary or unsafe
prompt, corrective action

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63
Q

The goal of the CSRE

A

rescue

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64
Q

All CSREs shall be certified as a CSRE
through _____ CS Rescue program and
attend _____.

A

HFD’s

annual refresher courses

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65
Q

Confined Space is defined as a space

that meets these 3 conditions

A 
it is large enough to allow entry and
perform work.
it has limited/restricted means of
access/egress.
it is not designed for continuous human
occupancy.
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66
Q

CSRT

A

confined space rescue team

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67
Q

CSRTs must have at least _____ members.

A

6

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68
Q

CSRTs consist of a _____

A

CSRTL-leader
CSRE
Attendant
Rapid Intervention Team

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69
Q

The person assigned the responsibility to
ensure that the requirements of the CS
procedures are met at all times is the _____.

A

Confined Space Rescue Group Supervisor

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70
Q

enclosed places do not meet _____ of a
_____ but may require precautionary
measures upon entering.

A

the requirements

confined space

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71
Q

engulfment:

A

the surrounding and envelopment of a
person by a liquid or finely divided solid
substance that can be aspirated.

72
Q

engulfment can cause death by _____,

_____, or by ______, _____, or _____.

A 
filling the respiratory system
plugging the resp. system
strangulation
constriction
crushing
73
Q

diagonal entry is at an ____ between

_____ and _____ to the ground.

A

angle
perpendicular
parallel

74
Q

elevated portals have an opening in which

the _____ is _____ or higher from the ground.

A

bottom

4’

75
Q

rectangular/square portals have _____ at
_____. The _____ is determined by the ___
side.

A

4 sides
right angles
opening size
smallest

76
Q

rounded/oval portals are _____, ______, or
have more than _____ and the opening
is determined by measuring the _____.

A

elliptical
circular
4 sides
smallest inside diameter

77
Q

What must be completed prior to entry

into a confined space?

A

entry permit

78
Q

Entry permits lists at least 5 things

A 
hazards of the space
precautions needed to be taken
type of work that will be performed
personnel roles
other specific details
79
Q

the _____ is responsible for determining

if _____. He also _____, ______, and _____.

A 
entry supervisor
acceptable entry conditions exist
authorizes entry
oversees entry ops
terminates entry ops
80
Q

flash point is the _____.

A

minimum temp. at which a substance will
produce enough vapor in the air to form
an ignitable mixture

81
Q

if something is flammable, it is _____ and

_____.

A

easily ignitable

rapidly consumed by fire

82
Q

risk assessment includes _____ (acronym)

A

IADIE

83
Q

IADIE

A 
id
analyze
decide
implement
evaluate
84
Q

8 hazardous atmospheres for CS

A

1) substance in excess of 10% of it’s LEL
2) airborne combustible dust exceeding it’s LEL.
3) O2 concentration below 19.5%
4) O2 concentration above 23.5%
5) concentration of substance that exposes
personnel to doses in excess of PELs
(permissible exposure limits)
6)flammable vapors
7)toxic vapors
8)particles of combustion

85
Q

PEL

A

permissible exposure limit

86
Q

when airborne combustible dust is dense
enough to obscures vision to _____ than
that is a good indicator of a _____ because
it is probably exceeding it’s _____.

A

5’ or less
hazardous atmosphere
LEL

87
Q

hazardous atmospheres can do 5 things

A 
incapacitate
injure
cause acute illness
impair your ability (to self-rescue, etc)
kill
88
Q

hydrogen sulfide is created by the _____ of

_____. It has a vapor density _____.

A

decomposition
organic material
> 1

89
Q

IDLHs show the _____ which one could be
exposed without experiencing effects
that may cause _____ health effects.

A

maximum level

irreversible

90
Q

Inerting:

A

introducing an inert gas (doesn’t support
combustion) into a container so as to
exclude oxygen

91
Q

lockout

A

used to keep equipment from being turned
on, opened, or unlocked and potentially
endangering personnel

92
Q

LEL

A

lower explosive limit

93
Q

The LEL is the _____ of a substance in the
air that will _____ when an ______ such as
heat, arc, or flame are present

A

lowest amount of concentration
produce a flash/self-propagating flame
ignition source

94
Q

CH4

A

methane

95
Q

methane is _____, ______ and is aka _____.

A

colorless
odorless
natural gas

96
Q

methane has a vapor density _____ 1.

therefore it _____.

A

less than

rises

97
Q

NFPA

A

National Fire Protection Agency

98
Q

NFPA is an _____ advocating _____ .

A

international non-profit organization
scientifically-based consensus codes and
standards, research, and education for
fire and life safety related issues.

99
Q

NPV

A

negative pressure ventilation

100
Q

NPV uses fans to ______ air from a
structure by creating ______ pressure
within ______.

A

draw out
negative
the space

101
Q

NIOSH

A

national institute of safety and health

102
Q

NIOSH is the federal agency responsible

for _____

A

conducting research and making
recommendations for the prevention
of work-related injury and illness.

103
Q

Non-entry retrieval

A

the retrieval of a patient from within a
confined space from outside of the space
using equipment already in place.

104
Q

Non-Permit Confined Space is a confined
space that _____, or does not have the
potential to contain ______.

A

does not have a recognized acute hazard
any hazard capable of causing death or
serious harm.

105
Q

OSHA

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

106
Q

OSHA is with the Dept. of _____.

A

labor

107
Q

OSHA is responsible for _____.

A

creating and enfo rcing workplace safety

and health regulations.

108
Q

29 CFR 1910.146
It regulates _____ for confined spaces and
_____ in which _____ can occur within.

A 
OSHA's Code of Federal Regulations for
Permit-Required Confined Spaces
permit requirements
the manner
activities
109
Q

Oxygen deficient atmosphere is when ____.

A

O2 is < 19.5%

110
Q

Oxygen enriched atmosphere is when ____.

A

O2 is > 23.5%

111
Q

PPM

A

parts per million

112
Q

patient packaging is the process of _____
the _____ and ______ needs of the patient.
It includes the process of ______ and is
to _____.

A 
stabilizing
medical
traumatic
securing the patient to an extrication
device.
minimize further harm to the patient
113
Q

The PEL is the _____.

A

the amount of exposure to a toxic
substance that a member is allowed to
receive over a given time period.

114
Q

PEL can be measured using a _____ or

a _____.

A

TWA-time weighted average

TLV-threshold limit value

115
Q

Permit-Required Confined Spaces have

____ of the following 5 characteristics.

A 
1 or more
has or potentially has a hazardous
atmosphere.
has material that can potentially engulf
someone.
has an internal configuration such that a
person could be trapped or asphyxiated
(inward converging walls,
downward sloping floors that tapers to a
smaller cross section)
ready removal of someone is difficult due
to location and/or size of access.
has any other recognized safety or health
hazard.
116
Q

If an employer can prove that they have
_____ that is _____ to _____ than they do
not need a ____.

A 
existing ventilation
sufficient
remove potentially dangerous air
contaminants
permit or permit procedures
117
Q

PASS

A

personal alert safety system

118
Q

PASS devices _____ when the wearer
_____. It can be also be activated ______.
PASS devices meet NFPA _____ and _____
standards.

A 
activate an alarm
remains motionless for more than 20-30s
manually
1500
1982 Std on PASS
119
Q

SAR

A

supplied air respirator

120
Q

SAR is a ____ that uses _____ and is

supplied by a _____.

A

positive pressure form of resp. protection
an air hose connected to the wearer
remote self-contained air supply

121
Q

PPV is the _____ by using a ____ to _____.

A

systematic removal of gases/contaminants
fan
push all gases/contaminants out of a space

122
Q

recovery mode

A

level of operational urgency where there

is no chance of rescuing a victim alive.

123
Q

recovery mode has _____ than rescue mode.

A

lower acceptable risk

124
Q

rescue mode

A

level of operational urgency when there is

a chance the patient will be rescued alive.

125
Q

retrieval equipment

A

combination of equipment used for

non-entry rescue of people from CSs

126
Q

risk benefit analysis

A

decision made that is based on a risk
assessment that weighs the risks likely
to be taken against the benefits to be
gained when taking those risks.

127
Q

the safety officer is responsible for _____
all incident _____ and enforces _____. he
has the power to _____.

A 
addressing
safety issues
all safety procedures and practices
stop all operations if he deems something
unsafe.
128
Q

a CS scene is any area within ____ of the incident.

A

300’

129
Q

SCBAs are _____ to the wearer. they use
_____ so that pressure in the ______ is >
than the surrounding air.

A

attached
PP
facepiece

130
Q

10 things for CS size up should include the following

A

1)scope, magnitude, and nature of incident
2)location and # of patients
3)ID hazards
4)risk assessment/risk-benefit analysis
5)ID access/egress points and point of
entry
6)ID internal configuration
7)evaluate environmental conditions
8)determine when patient contact can be
made without endangering personnel.
9)determine need for additional resources
10)continuous monitoring and evaluation

131
Q

tagout

A

method of labeling/marking an
isolation/shutoff device during incident
mitigation ops to prevent any operation
of the device.

132
Q

TWA is measure of a person’s ______ to
a contaminant over a given _____. Sampling
is done _____ the time period.

A

continual exposure
period of time
throughout

133
Q

TLVs are _____ not _____.

A

advisory guidelines

legal standards

134
Q

TLVs are the _____that personnel may be exposed to _____ without _____.

A

substance concentration values
day after day
any adverse effects

135
Q

TLVs are determined by the _____

A

ACGIH

136
Q

3 different types of TLVs

A

TLV-TWA
TLV-STEL
TLV-C

137
Q

TLV-C

A

ceiling

138
Q

TLV-STEL

A

short term exposure limit

139
Q

UEL

A

upper explosive limit

140
Q

the UEL is the _____ of a substance in air
that will produce a _____ when an _____
such as an_____ is present.

A

highest concentration
flash or self-propagating flame
ignition source
arc, flame, or heat

141
Q

“rich”

A

concentration of substance too high to burn

142
Q

“lean”

A

concentration of substance too low to burn

143
Q

vapor density

A

measure of a gases’ vapor weight in
relationship to normal air. if >1 sinks
and if <1 rises.

144
Q

wristlets are designed to allow a person

to be _____ or _____ through a ______.

A

raised
lowered
vertical opening

145
Q

17 CS Pre-Entry Procedures

A

1)perform scene size up
2)designate a safety officer
3)establish barriers up to 300’
4)ID hazards
5)risk assess./risk-benefit analysis
6)ID entry point/PLS/other access/egress
points
7)ID internal configuration
8)disconnect/close/block/shutoff all
possible conveyances of hazmat to CS
using lockout/tagout procedures.
9)empty/purge CS of hazmat
10)perform air testing,
if air contam. ventilate for at least 15min
11)CSREs w/PPEs, ClassIII harnesses
12)use SAR or SCBA
13)establish/maintain comms between
CSRE/Attendant
14)attach retrieval line to CSRE
15)provide adequate ventilation
16)use tripod/high anchor point if
vert. entry
17)document all pertinent info.

146
Q

SAR is used if estimated work time in
a CS is_____. It is also used if _____ and
must be supplied with _____.

A

> 15 minutes
the CSRE has to remove an SCBA on entry
a hip egress bottle

147
Q

if sufficient natural ventilation exists to
ensure the removal of atmospheric hazards
as id’d through air monitoring then the
CS may be treated as an _____.

A

enclosed space

148
Q

CS Pre-Entry Testing is done with _____ to
determine whether dangerous _____ or
_____ exists. It must be done without
_____. _____ must be kept at the _____ and kept for _____.

A 
a direct reading instrument
air contamination
O2 deficiency
disturbing the space
written records
entry site
duration of the incident
149
Q

CS air testing should be at 5 locations

A 
4' from entry
at entry
1/4 of distance into CS
1/2 of distance into CS
3/4 of distance into CS
150
Q

CS air testing order
1st =
2nd =
3rd =

A

O2 saturation
flammability
toxicity

151
Q

If any flammable or combustible gases
are within _____ of their _____ than _____
shall be made into the CS.

A

10%
LEL
no entry

152
Q

do not work in a CS using a _____ unless
it can be shown by ______ and _____ that
the work can be done safely.

A

arc, flame, spark or other ignition source
constant monitoring
ventilation

153
Q

if an inerting gas is used in a CS, the O2

concentration must be maintained at _____.

A

< 20% of concentration that supports combustion

154
Q

there are _____ special precautions for CS

A

5

155
Q

if O2 consuming equipment is used, then
_____ must be _____ and replaced with
fresh ____.

A

exhaust gases
vented
air

156
Q

lighting and electrical equipment used in

CSs must be ______.

A

NIOSH intrinsically safe

157
Q

if live electrical work is being performed,

then the _____ must be _____.

A

tripod

grounded

158
Q

3 operating guidelines for Non-Permit CS entry

A

appropriate PPEs for expected hazards.
continuous air monitoring/recording.
if adverse air, CSRTL immediately
evacuates all CSREs.

159
Q

3 operating guidelines for Permit-Required

CS entry

A 
adhere to all pre-entry procedures
wear class III and use safety line(may not
be used if further endangerment)
continuous air monitoring recorded 
every 15 minutes
160
Q

7 CS rescue guidelines

A 
establish ICS
perform scene size-up
risk assessment/risk benefit analysis
perform pre-entry procedures
use SCBA or SAR (min. length = 25')
rescue line shall be attached to rescuer
and placed on patient
no permit necessary for rescue
161
Q

minimum length of a SAR line

A

25’

162
Q

CS initial response units

A 
2 hazmat
2 rescue
1st-in aerial
1st-in engine
appropriate BC
163
Q

rescue companies will be assigned as a

_____ or _____ on CS incidents

A

CSRT

RIT

164
Q

hazmat companies will be assigned the

duties of _____ and _____ on CS incidents.

A

ventilation

safety monitoring

165
Q

aerial companies on CS incidents will

provide 3 things

A

manpower
equipment
ladders

166
Q

engine companies on CS incidents will

provide 2 things

A

fire control

crowd control

167
Q

all HFD personnel are trained to an _____

level for CS

A

awareness

168
Q

all rescue personnel are trained to the

_____ level for CS

A

technician

169
Q

hazmat personnel are trained in _____ to

the _____ level for CS

A

air monitoring

technician

170
Q 
all HFD personnel must attend an 
\_\_\_\_\_ level class on CS every \_\_\_\_\_.
A

awareness

2 years

171
Q

rescue companies must review ______
every _____ and conduct at least _____
CS drill every _____.

A

CS entry procedures
6 months
1
6 months

172
Q

all rescue personnel and _____ shall attend

an _____ on CS

A

rescue relief personnel

annual refresher

173
Q

hazmat companies must review _____

every _____.

A

air monitoring

6 months

174
Q

5 CS Rescue Precautions

A

1) if using live elec. equip. the tripod must
be grounded.
2) only NIOSH approved lighting and
equipment may be used in CS
3) if O2 consuming equip. is used, exhaust
gases must be vented and replaced with
fresh air.
4) if an inerting gas is used, O2 must be
kept below 20% of amount needed to
support combustion.
5) flames, arc, sparks or other ignition
sources are prohibited in CS unless it
can be shown through constant monitoring
and ventilation that the work can be done
safely

175
Q

5 air testing requirements

A

1)done with a direct reading instrument
2)done at 5 certain locations
3)done without disturbing the space
4)done in order of priority
5)written records are kept at entry point
and command post for duration of
incident

176
Q

2 ICOM channels

A

primary is 123.10

secondary is 122.90

Keith's Cards (37 decks)

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