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Flight questions > T-6 Systems 1, intro, Systems tour, propulsion 1+2 > Flashcards

T-6 Systems 1, intro, Systems tour, propulsion 1+2 Flashcards

1
Q

The Trim Aid Device (TAD) assists trimming for which control surface during airspeed and power changes?

A

The TAD senses torque, altitude, airspeed, and pitch rate and computes a desired rudder trim tab position

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2
Q

Tuning for each of the communications and navigation radios and the transponder is provided by which component?

A

RMU (Radio Management Unit)

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3
Q

True or False? Engine exhaust augments the thrust of the propeller.

A

True. Exhaust gases are ejected rearward providing thrust which augments that produced by the propeller.

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4
Q

Which control surface controls aircraft movement around the pitch axis?

A

Elevator

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5
Q

True or False? The VHF navigation system provides VOR, ILS, localizer and GPS capability.

A

False. The VHF system provides VOR, ILS, localizer, and DME capability.

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6
Q

Primary navigation display is provided by which component of the Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)?

A

Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI)

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7
Q

Which standby flight instruments will operate without electrical power?

A

The standby altimeter, airspeed indicator, the ball in the turn and bank indicator, and the magnetic compass

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8
Q

True or False? The entire canopy structure is engineered to be protected from birdstrikes.

A

False. Only the windscreen and front canopy transparency are protected.

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9
Q

Primary aircraft electrical power is provided by which component of the electrical system?

A

The generator function of the starter/generator.

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10
Q

Landing gear extension and retraction is operated by which aircraft system?

A

Hydraulic

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11
Q

Movement around the roll axis is controlled by which primary control surface(s)?

A

Ailerons

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12
Q

What component of the ejection seat provides sufficient altitude for parachute deployment?

A

Rocket motor

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13
Q

True or False? The magnetic compass is one of the primary flight instruments.

A

False. The magnetic compass is a standby flight instrument.

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14
Q

Secondary aircraft electrical power is provided by what component?

A

Aerobatic 24 volt battery

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15
Q

Which aircraft system provides automatic temperature and pressure control?

A

Environment control system

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16
Q

Control of the transponder is provided by which component?

A

Radio Management Unit (RMU)

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17
Q

True or False? The canopy is hinged at the rear and opens up.

A

False. The canopy is hinged along the right side and opens to that side.

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18
Q

Which primary instrument provides primary attitude display?

A

Electronic Attitude Director Indicator (EADI)

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19
Q

In the event of inadvertent aircraft contact with the ground, which component will be activated and generate a radio signal?

A

The Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) senses impact loads and generates a signal on 121.5 and 406.0 MHz.

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20
Q

The engine cowling does all of the following except __________. (B/1/1)

a. protect the engine components
b. decrease drag
c. include an air inlet to the engine
d. secure the engine to the frame

A

d

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21
Q

The purpose of the inertial separator is to __________. (B/1/2)

a. separate cool incoming air and hot exhaust gases
b. remove water that may get in the fuel tanks
c. keep debris away from the engine
d. distribute air evenly over the wings

A

c

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22
Q

The compressor and power turbines are physically connected. (B/2/1)

a. True
b. False

A

False

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23
Q

What three elements are necessary for engine operation? (B/2/2)

a. Heat, smoke, and fire
b. Air, oil, and fuel
c. Gas, oil, and heat
d. Air, fuel, and heat

A

d

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24
Q

As exhaust is released, additional thrust is provided. (B/3/1)

a. True
b. False

A

True

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25
Q

Once the engine is started, and the ignition switch is in the ON position, igniters are automatically energized and de-energized by the PMU. (B/4/1)

a. True
b. False

A

False

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26
Q

The primary purpose of the ignition system is to __________. (B/4/2)

a. mix fuel and compressed air in the combustion chamber
b. turn the compressor turbine until engine start
c. ignite the air and fuel mixture in the combustion chamber
d. turn the starter motor until combustion

A

c

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27
Q

Friction control settings made to the front PCL affect the rear PCL. (B/5/1)

a. True
b. False

A

True

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28
Q

When starting the T-6A, the PCL should be __________. (B/5/2)

a. in the START/IDLE detent position
b. in the IDLE position
c. pushed forward until a green ST READY annunciator is illuminated
d. pushed forward until a green IGN SEL annunciator is illuminated

A

c

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29
Q

The PMU is located __________. (B/6/1)

a. underneath the engine, in the accessory compartment
b. on the reduction gearbox, next to the propeller interface unit
c. in the left avionics bay
d. in the front cockpit

A

a

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30
Q
  1. The PMU performs the following functions, except __________. (B/6/2)
    a. maintain operating limits
    b. process power requests
    c. determine available power
    d. release the correct amount of fuel
A

d

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31
Q

The PMU STATUS annunciator illuminates after landing when the PMU __________. (B/6/3)

a. is regulating normal fuel flow
b. is ready for operation
c. needs maintenance
d. is monitoring engine operation

A

c

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32
Q

After engine start, the starter becomes a generator.

a. True
b. False

A

True

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33
Q

The MANUAL starter switch position will be used under normal circumstances.

a. True
b. False

A

False

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34
Q

If oil pressure is __________ psi or below at IDLE power, the red OIL PX annunciator will illuminate.

a. 15
b. 20
c. 40
d. 90

A

a

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35
Q

If oil pressure remains between 15 and 40 psi at IDLE power for more than 5 seconds, __________ will be illuminated.

a. the amber OIL PX annunciator
b. the red OIL PX annunciator
c. both the amber and red OIL PX annunciators
d. neither OIL PX annunciator

A

c

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36
Q

The chip detector sensor is located in the __________. (C/2/3)

a. oil tank
b. cool oil return line
c. cooling assembly
d. reduction gearbox

A

d

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37
Q

The oil system provides filtered oil to all of the following systems, except the __________. (C/2/4)

a. propeller
b. reduction gears
c. engine
d. wheel brakes

A

d

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38
Q

The reduction gearbox reduces engine output from __________ RPM to propeller speeds of __________ RPM. (D/1/1)

a. 4000; 1000
b. 5000; 1000
c. 20,000; 2000
d. 30,000; 2000

A

d

39
Q

The phase shift torque probe monitors __________. (D/1/2)

a. starter/generator torque
b. compressor turbine torque
c. propeller speed
d. blade angle torque

A

c

40
Q

The PIU __________. (D/1/3)

a. connects the propeller to the propeller shaft
b. sends propeller data to each cockpit
c. regulates oil pressure to the pitch change mechanism
d. None of the above

A

c

41
Q

If the propeller pitch change mechanism loses oil pressure, the propeller will automatically move towards the __________ position. (D/1/4)

a. feathered
b. low pitch
c. high pitch
d. medium pitch

A

a

42
Q

Varying levels of thrust are achieved by changing __________. (D/1/5)

a. propeller pitch
b. compressor turbine speed
c. propeller speed
d. power turbine speed

A

a

43
Q

The PMU

a. displays available power in each cockpit.
b. records flight data.
c. keeps the engine and propeller within operating limits.
d. processes all data for the alternate engine data display.

A

c

44
Q

If the oil filter gets clogged,

a. the system uses unfiltered oil.
b. an OIL FIL annunciator illuminates.
c. oil is routed through a new oil filter.
d. oil pressure will be lost.

A

a

45
Q

In straight-and-level flight, for PCL positions above IDLE, oil pressure should be maintained between __________ and __________ psi.

a. 40; 90
b. 50; 80
c. 90; 120
d. 90; 140

A

c

46
Q

The phase shift torque probe is located

a. on the compressor turbine.
b. in the reduction gearbox.
c. in the compressor section of the engine.
d. in the propeller nose cone.

A

b

47
Q

Propeller pitch refers to the

a. angle of the propeller blades.
b. sound the propeller makes.
c. size of the propeller blades.
d. direction of rotation.

A

a

48
Q

Which propeller position produces the least amount of drag?

a. High pitch
b. Low pitch
c. Medium pitch
d. Feather

A

d

49
Q

The propeller pitch change mechanism is able to change propeller blade angle by using

a. hydraulic pressure.
b. a stepper motor.
c. oil pressure.
d. air pressure.

A

c

50
Q

The PMU directs the PIU to maintain propeller RPM at

a. 1900.
b. 2000.
c. 2100.
d. 2200.

A

b

51
Q

The power turbine is driven by

a. the starter motor.
b. the propeller.
c. a mechanical connection to the compressor turbine.
d. expanding gases.

A

d

52
Q

During aerobatic flight, oil pressure should be maintained at or above __________ psi.

a. 30
b. 40
c. 50
d. 90

A

b

53
Q

All of the functions performed by the engine data manager (EDM) are engine related. (B/1/1)

a. True
b. False

A

False

54
Q

The EDM is located __________. (B/1/2)

a. in the front cockpit
b. on the accessory gear box
c. in the environmental control systems compartment
d. in the left avionics bay

A

d

55
Q

On which Electronic Instrument Display(EID) is the N1 gauge located?

A

On the Primary Engine Data Display (PEED)

56
Q

All primary engine data is processed by the PMU prior to being displayed on the primary engine data display. (B/2/2)

a. True
b. False

A

True

57
Q

In the event of abnormal engine operation, the primary engine data displays will warn the pilot by __________. (B/2/3)

a. generating an aural tone
b. going blank for 3 seconds
c. flashing the word WARNING on the display
d. changing color

A

d

58
Q

In order to prevent possible damage due to ground resonance, what is the NP stabilized operation prohibited range while on the ground? (B/2/4)

a. 52 – 75%
b. 60 – 68%
c. 62 – 80%
d. 80 – 100%

A

c

59
Q

On which Electronic Instrument Display(EID) is the fuel guage located?

A

On the Alternate Engine Data Display (AEDD).

60
Q

All data provided to the alternate engine data display is first processed by the PMU. (B/3/2)

a. True
b. False

A

False

61
Q

On the alternate engine data display, ΔP measures the __________. (B/3/3)

a. difference between cockpit altitude and outside altitude
b. difference between cockpit pressure and outside pressure
c. fuel difference between wing tanks
d. difference between optimal and actual hydraulic pressure

A

b

62
Q

On which Electronic Instrument Display(EID) is the Oil Pressure guage located?

A

On the Engine/Systems Display

63
Q

The engine/systems display provides __________. (B/4/2)

a. oil temperature, oil pressure, fuel quantity, and fuel flow
b. torque, ITT, N1, NP, and OAT
c. RITT, fuel quantity, fuel flow, DC volts, and DC amps
d. oil temperature, oil pressure, hydraulic pressure, DC volts, and DC amps

A

d

64
Q

Normal operating range for the oil pressure gauge is 90 – 140 psi. (B/4/3)

a. True
b. False

A

False

65
Q

Shutoff valves activated by the Firewall Shutoff Handle may be reset by pushing handle back in. (B/5/1)

a. True
b. False

A

True

66
Q

When testing the integrity of the fire warning system, you will know the system is working properly if __________ and the aural tone sounds. (B/5/2)

a. a green FIRE DET annunciator is illuminated
b. the MASTER CAUT annunciator illuminates
c. the FIRE DET switch will return to the neutral position
d. the FIRE and MASTER WARN annunciators illuminate

A

d

67
Q

The engine data manager does not

a. monitor engine operating parameters.
b. illuminate appropriate advisory, caution, or warning annunciators.
c. drive the primary, alternate, and engine/systems displays.
d. control all electronic displays in the cockpit.

A

d

68
Q

The primary engine data display system

a. records engine data for aircraft analysis.
b. governs engine operating parameters.
c. provides each cockpit with a visual indication of engine operation.
a. transmits engine data to the control tower.

A

c

69
Q

The engine data manager is located

a. underneath the engine, near the PMU.
b. on the reduction gearbox.
c. in the left avionics bay.
d. on the engine shaft, next to the PIU.

A

c

70
Q

The alternate engine data display serves as a backup to the primary engine data display, and therefore displays some of the same data.

a. True
b. False

A

True

71
Q

The primary engine data display provides

a. torque, RITT, N1, fuel quantity, and fuel flow.
b. N1, NP, IOAT, cockpit altitude, and ΔP.
c. torque, ITT, N1, NP, and IOAT.
d. fuel flow, fuel quantity, oil pressure, oil temperature, and IOAT.

A

c

72
Q

The engine/systems display does not display __________ data in each cockpit.

a. outside environmental
b. hydraulic system
c. oil system
d. electrical system

A

a

73
Q

What is displayed on the Alternate Engine Data Display (AEDD)?

A 
Torque
R ITT (Raw ITT)
N1
Cockpit ALT
Delta pressure
Fuel Quantity
Fuel Flow
74
Q

All data presented on the alternate engine data display is processed by the PMU.

a. True
b. False

A

False

75
Q

The FIRE switch located in the front cockpit is used to

a. switch between fire warning and engine overheat functions.
b. turn the fire warning system on and off.
c. switch between the primary and backup system.
d. test the integrity of the fire warning system

A

d

76
Q

Given indications of abnormal start, what should you do?

A

Begin abort start procedure

77
Q

What are the types of abnormal start?

A

Hot, hung, no start

78
Q

What are the indications of a hot start?

A

High/rapidly rising ITT, lower N1, lower NP

79
Q

What are the indications of a hung start?

A

Slow rising ITT, lower N1, lower NP

80
Q

What are the indications of no start?

A

No ITT indication, lower N1, no NP indication, no torque indication

81
Q

What are some possible display indications of engine failure in flight?

A

a. Initial indications: Loss of power and airspeed; rapid decay of N1, torque, and ITT; MASTER WARN Lights and tone; propeller moves toward feather
b. Accompanying indications: Rapidly decreasing ITT, NP; lower than normal oil pressure; engine noise; GEN, FUEL PX, OIL PX, OBOGS FAIL annunciators; Possibly PMU FAIL and CKPT ALT annunciators

82
Q

What are the indications of PMU failure?

A

Power step change, PMU FAIL annunciator, MASTER WARN light, aural tone

83
Q

What are the indications of uncommanded propeller feather?

A

Rapid loss of power, high torque, lower NP, possible PMU FAIL/PMU STATUS annunciators, engine/airframe vibration, engine noise

84
Q

What are some sensory indications of engine fire in flight?

A

See smoke or flames, smell oil burning, hear unusual sounds, feel engine vibration or roughness

85
Q

The power turbine is driven by __________.

A

Expanding gases

86
Q

What does FEVER stand for?

A 
Fluctuating oil pressure, oil temperature, or hydraulic pressure, 
Excessive turbine temperature,
Visual indications (smoke), 
Erratic engine operation, 
Roughness or vibration
87
Q

What are the three engine sections?

A

Accessory compartment, gas generation section, and power turbine section

88
Q

What functions are performed by the PMU?

A

Maintain operating limits,
process power requests,
control engine and propeller,
provide near linear power response.

89
Q

What is the purpose of the PIU?

A

Regulate oil pressure to the pitch change mechanism

90
Q

What are some possible causes of engine failure in flight?

A

Fuel starvation,
mechanical failure,
compressor stall

91
Q

What are the engine fire warning indicators?

A

FEVER, FIRE annunciator, MASTER WARNING light, aural tone

92
Q

What are some possible causes of uncommanded power loss?

A

Engine rollback due to PMU scheduling, Oil/engine/fuel system contamination

93
Q

What are some possible indications of engine fire in flight that may be seen on the engine displays?

A

High ITT; Fluctuating: Oil temperature and pressure, Hydraulic pressure

Flight questions (27 decks)

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