MQF SEP 2021 - 51-100

Question 1

If you are more than half-scale below or full scale above glide slope on an ILS:
A. Do not descend below localizer minimums
B. The approach must be discontinued
C. The descent may be continued to the decision altitude if the glideslope is first recaptured to within the tolerances (half-scale below to full scale above)
D. Either A or C
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 1

D. Either A or C

Question 2

Which is a correct standard holding pattern?
A. Right turns, 1-1/2 minutes when holding at or above 14,000 feet.
B. Left turns, 1-1/2 minutes when holding at or above 14,000 feet.
C. Right turns, 1 minute when holding at or below 14,000 feet.
D. Left turns, 1 minute when holding at or below 14,000 feet.
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 2

C. Right turns, 1 minute when holding at or below 14,000 feet.

Question 3

Recognize an unusual attitude in one of two ways:
A. Orientation relative to the horizon, if VMC
B. An unusual attitude “picture” on the attitude indicator
C. Unusual performance on the performance instruments
D. A and B
E. B and C
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 3

E. B and C

Question 4

VNAV guidance may be used to LNAV minimums; however, the aircraft must level off at the _____ or utilize a _____ if the runway environment is not in sight.
A. Minimum descent altitude (MDA); Derived Decision Altitude (DDA)
B. Missed Approach Point (MAP); go-around
C. Minimum descent altitude (MDA); visual descent altitude (VDA)
D. Minimum descent altitude (MDA); visual descent point (VDP)
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 4

A. Minimum descent altitude (MDA); Derived Decision Altitude (DDA)

Question 5

The name of the approach is followed by a single letter starting with the letter “A” when only circling minimums are provided on an instrument approach. The suffix letter is not used again for any procedures at that airfield.
True
False
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 5

True

Question 6

When two or more straight-in approaches with the same type of navigation guidance exists for the same runway, a letter or numerical suffix is added to the title of the approach (e.g., VOR Z RWY 20, VOR Y RWY 20). The single letter suffix is used when:
A. Two or more NAVAIDs of the same type are used to support different approaches to the
same runway
B. Two or more missed approaches are associated with a common approach
C. Different approach procedures using the same navigation type are provided for different aircraft categories
D. Two or more arrivals are used to a common approach and are published on different charts
E. Any of the above
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 6

E. Any of the above

Question 7

An emergency safe altitude (ESA) is normally published only for U.S. military procedures; it is a single altitude that provides 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance (2,000 feet in designated mountainous areas) within 100 nautical miles of the facility or fix.
True
False
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 7

True

Question 8

Station passage occurs when the range stops decreasing for _____ navigation. Station passage occurs when the TO-FROM indicator makes the first positive change indicating FROM for _____ navigation. Station passage occurs when the bearing pointer passes 90 degrees to the inbound course for _____ navigation.
A. VOR and VOR/DME; ADF; TACAN
B. ADF; TACAN; VOR and VOR/DME
C. TACAN; VOR and VOR/DME; ADF
D. VOR and VOR/DME; TACAN; ADF
E. TACAN; ADF; VOR and VOR/DME
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 8

C. TACAN; VOR and VOR/DME; ADF

Question 9

All instrument procedures are based on a ______ . Obstruction clearance assumes that pilots apply appropriate corrections to maintain the published path across the ground.
A. Heading
B. Ground track
C. Navigational aid
D. None of these
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 9

B. Ground track

Question 10

Once the aircraft is inside the FAF, one navigation receiver must remain tuned to and display the facility that provides final approach course guidance.
True
False
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 10

True

Question 11

If the runway used has a minimum climb gradient published (either by SID, IFR Departure Procedure, or by notification from ATC), then you are required to meet or exceed the published climb gradient even when executing a radar departure.
True
False
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 11

True

Question 12

Removal of station identification warns pilots that the facility is officially off the air for tune-up or repairs and may be unreliable even though signals are received.
True
False
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 12

True

Question 13

Bank angles used for instrument turns are normally the desired number of degrees to turn not to exceed _____ degrees.
A. 30 degrees
B. 20 degrees
C. 15 degrees
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 13

A. 30 degrees

Question 14

During a diving (nose low) unusual attitude recovery, do not add backpressure until _____.
A. Upright and wings level
B. Less than 90 degrees of bank angle
C. Power and drag devices are adjusted
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 14

B. Less than 90 degrees of bank angle

Question 15

Pilots will not file a flight plan nor accept a clearance that requires an aircraft to navigate direct to a fix (i.e., radial/DME or radial/radial) unless the primary navigation equipment onboard the aircraft is certified for the appropriate area navigation capability.
True
False
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 15

True

Question 16

IFR Turns after Takeoff. The minimum turn altitude after takeoff is _____ feet above the DER elevation, unless required by a published procedure or ATC.
A. 35
B. 200
C. 400
D. 1000
E. None of these
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 16

C. 400

Question 17

Make all turns during entry and while holding at: (NAS only) _____ degrees per second, _____
degrees bank angle, or _____ degrees bank angle when using a flight director system.
A. 3, 30, 25
B. 3, 15, 30
C. 2, 15, 30
D. None of these
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 17

A. 3, 30, 25

Question 18

On a Non-DME Teardrop High altitude approach, if arriving at the IAF below the published altitude, maintain altitude and proceed outbound _____ seconds for each _____ feet the aircraft is below the published altitude before starting descent.
A. 5 seconds for each 1,000 feet the aircraft is below the published altitude before starting
descent
B. 15 seconds for each 1,000 feet the aircraft is below the published altitude before starting descent
C. 25 seconds for each 1,000 feet the aircraft is below the published altitude before starting descent
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 18

B. 15 seconds for each 1,000 feet the aircraft is below the published altitude before starting
descent

Question 19

The ILS or LOC approach must be discontinued _____ .
A. If the localizer course becomes unreliable
B. More than one dot below or two dots above glide slope
C. Any time full-scale deflection of the CDI occurs on final
D. Either A or C
E. All of the above
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 19

D. Either A or C

Question 20

A visual approach is one type of instrument approach procedure.
True
False
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 20

False

Question 21

Which of the following conditions mandate that an alternate be designated by the PIC?
A. All compatible approaches require radar or GPS
B. Required navigational aids will be unmonitored
C. The destination has no weather reporting capability
D. Forecast crosswinds are outside aircraft limitations from ± 1 hour of ETA
E. All of the above
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3 // AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3 AETCSUP

Answer 21

D. Forecast crosswinds are outside aircraft limitations from ± 1 hour of ETA

Question 22

Which of the following conditions disqualify an airport as an alternate?
A. Any note disqualifying the airfield or all compatible approaches in the IFR Alternate Minimums section
B. GPS is the only NAVAID
C. Regardless of weather, access to RVSM airspace is required to reach the alternate for RVSM non-compliant aircraft
D. A and C
E. All of the above
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3 // AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3 AETCSUP

Answer 22

D. A and C

Question 23

Which of the following conditions does not disqualify an alternate?
A. All compatible approaches require an unmonitored NAVAID
B. forecast weather ± 1 hour of ETA permits a descent from the MEA, approach and landing under VFR
C. The airfield does not report weather observations
D. “A/NA” (Alternate Not Authorized) on all compatible approaches
E. Forecast winds exceed aircraft limits from ± 1 hour of ETA
F. For non-RVSM compliant aircraft, access to RVSM airspace is required to reach the
alternate
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3 // AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3 AETCSUP

Answer 23

B. forecast weather ± 1 hour of ETA permits a descent from the MEA, approach and landing
under VFR

Question 24

Holding. Timing is based on the _____ leg. The initial _____ leg should be flown for 1 minute or 1.5 minutes (as appropriate). Timing for subsequent _____ legs should be adjusted, as
necessary, to achieve proper _______leg time.
A. Inbound; outbound; outbound; inbound
B. Outbound; inbound; inbound; outbound
C. Either (as indicated on the IAP); entry; anchor; anchor
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3 // AIM para. 5-3-8

Answer 24

A. Inbound; outbound; outbound; inbound

Question 25

A course reversal (procedure turn or holding in lieu of procedure turn) is not permitted in the following situations:
A. ATC gives you clearance for a “straight-in” approach
B. ATC provides radar vectors to the final approach fix
C. ATC clears you for a timed approach from a holding fix
D. You are flying the approach via “No PT routing”
E. All of the above
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3 // AIM para. 5-4-9

Answer 25

E. All of the above

Question 26

The VDP distance, when published, is based on the _____ on the IAP and harmonized with the angle of the visual glide slope indicator (if installed) or the procedure Visual Descent Angle (if no VGSI is installed).
A. Precision approach (if published)
B. Highest category approach published
C. Lowest MDA published
D. Highest MDA published
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3 // AIM para. 5-4-5

Answer 26

C. Lowest MDA published

Question 27

Pilots flying pressurized aircraft operations will maintain a cabin altitude below _____ feet.
A. 18,000
B. 25,000
C. 41,000
D. 10,000
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 27

D. 10,000

Question 28

Do not depart IFR unless the weather conditions at the destination, from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival (ETA), is forecast to be:
A. 500 ft and 1sm above the lowest compatible published approach minimums to include TEMPO conditions
B. At or above the lowest compatible published approach minimums to exclude TEMPO conditions
C. 1000 ft and 1sm above the lowest compatible published approach minimums to include TEMPO conditions
D. 100 ft and 1sm above the lowest compatible published approach minimums to exclude TEMPO condition
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 28

B. At or above the lowest compatible published approach minimums to exclude TEMPO conditions

Question 29

File an alternate airfield when:
A. A compatible approach procedure is not available at the destination airfield
B. Weather forecasts indicate, from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA at the destination airfield to include TEMPO conditions are less than a ceiling of 2,000 feet above the airfield and a visibility of 3SM
C. All of the above
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 29

C. All of the above

Question 30

When selecting an alternate airfield, do not depart IFR unless the prevailing weather at the alternate, from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA, is forecast to be at or above a ceiling of:
A. 500 feet
B. 1000 feet, or 500 feet above the lowest compatible approach minimums
C. The lowest compatible approach minimums
D. B or C, whichever is higher
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 30

B. 1000 feet, or 500 feet above the lowest compatible approach minimums

Question 31

When selecting an alternate, do not include TEMPO conditions caused by all of the following except:
A. Thunderstorms
B. Rain Showers
C. Fog
D. Snow Showers
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 31

C. Fog

Question 32

Do not select an airport as an alternate if which condition(s) exist?
A. All compatible approaches require an unmonitored NAVAID
B. The airfield does not report weather observations
C. Any note exists disqualifying the airfield or all compatible approaches in the “IFR Alternate Minimums” section
D. Any of the above
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 32

D. Any of the above

Question 33

The alternate NA symbol informs pilots that the specific approach cannot be used to qualify the alternate due to an unmonitored NAVAID or the lack of a weather reporting service.
True
False
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 33

True

Question 34

When an alternate airport is required, fuel required for _____ at the intended destination must be included in the total flight plan fuel if visibility-only weather criteria is used at the destination:
A. An approach
B. A missed approach
C. 10 percent (up to a maximum of 45 minutes) of total planned flight time
D. A and B
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 34

D. A and B

Question 35

The first three steps of using a ground based NAVAID include:
A. Tune, identify, monitor
B. Turn, tune, fine tune
C. Tune, identify, display
D. Turn, identify, monitor
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 35

A. Tune, identify, monitor

Question 36

Above what altitude must USAF aircraft fly VFR hemispheric altitudes?
A. 1,500’ AGL
B. 3,000’ AGL
C. 5,000’ MSL
D. 7,500’ MSL
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 36

B. 3,000’ AGL

Question 37

What is the max holding speed at USAF Fields?
A. 310
B. 250
C. 200
D. 230
Proctor Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3

Answer 37

A. 310

Question 38

The localizer provides course guidance throughout the descent path to the runway threshold from a distance of _____ NM.
A. 5
B. 7
C. 10
D. 18
E. None of the above
Proctor Reference: AIM para. 1-1-9

Answer 38

D. 18

Question 39

The glide slope is normally usable to the distance of _____ .
A. 5
B. 7
C. 10
D. 18
E. none of the above
Proctor Reference: AIM para. 1-1-9

Answer 39

C. 10

Question 40

When a pilot checks in with the control tower and reports “…with the numbers” or “have
numbers”, it indicates receipt of _____ :
A. ATIS broadcast
B. Wind, runway, and altimeter information only
C. Situational awareness of traffic volume
Proctor Reference: AIM para. 4-1-13

Answer 40

B. Wind, runway, and altimeter information only

Question 41

VFR flight plans are not automatically closed. USAF pilots will notify ATC by any means available to ensure their VFR flight plan is closed. Failure to ensure a VFR flight plan is closed within _____ of the ETA will cause initiation of search and rescue efforts.
A. 1 hour
B. ½ hour
C. 20 minutes
D. ¼ hour
Proctor Reference: AIM para. 5-1-14

Answer 41

B. ½ hour

Question 42

You enter holding at a DME fix that does not specify the outbound leg length, and you are at FL 180; you should _____ .
A. Fly outbound for 10 miles, then turn.
B. Fly outbound until you are ready to turn inbound, then turn.
C. Fly outbound for a period of time that will permit a 1-minute inbound leg.
D. Fly outbound for 1.5 minutes.
Proctor Reference: AIM para. 5-3-8

Answer 42

D. Fly outbound for 1.5 minutes.

Question 43

An aircraft is considered to be established on-course during RNAV and RNP operations any time it is within:
A. 3 NM
B. 1 times the required accuracy for the segment being flown
C. The accuracy requested by ATC
D. The accuracy required by the given airspace category
Proctor Reference: AIM para. 5-5-16

Answer 43

B. 1 times the required accuracy for the segment being flown

Question 44

In the event of two-way radio failure in IFR conditions, which of the following correctly lists the order of options available to the pilot for the route to be flown?
A. Fly the route last assigned by ATC; fly the route ATC advised may be expected in a further clearance; fly the direct route to the fix/route/airway of the vector clearance; fly the flight plan route; if VFR conditions are encountered, continue VFR and land as soon as practicable
B. If VFR conditions are encountered, continue VFR and land as soon as practicable; fly the direct route to the fix/route/airway of the vector clearance; fly the route ATC advised may be expected in a further clearance; fly the flight plan route; fly the route last assigned by ATC
C. Fly the route last assigned by ATC; fly the direct route to the fix/route/airway of the vector clearance; fly the route ATC advised may be expected in a further clearance; fly the flight plan route; if VFR conditions are encountered, continue VFR and land as soon as practicable
D. If VFR conditions are encountered, continue VFR and land as soon as practicable; fly the route last assigned by ATC; fly the direct route to the fix/route/airway of the vector clearance; fly the route ATC advised may be expected in a further clearance; fly the flight plan route
Proctor Reference: AIM para. 6-4-1

Answer 44

D. If VFR conditions are encountered, continue VFR and land as soon as practicable; fly the
route last assigned by ATC; fly the direct route to the fix/route/airway of the vector clearance;
fly the route ATC advised may be expected in a further clearance; fly the flight plan route

Question 45

In the event of two-way radio failure in IFR conditions, which of the following correctly outlines the procedures for leaving a clearance limit that is a fix from which an approach begins?
A. Commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the Estimated Time of Arrival (ETA) as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) Estimated Time En Route (ETE)
B. Commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the expect further clearance time if one has been received, or if one has not been received, as close as possible to the Estimated Time of Arrival (ETA) as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) Estimated Time En Route (ETE)
C. Commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the Estimated Time of Arrival (ETA) as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) Estimated Time En Route (ETE), or as close as possible to the expected further clearance time, whichever occurs first.

Proctor Reference: AIM para. 6-4-1

Answer 45

B. Commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the expect further clearance time if one has been received, or if one has not been received, as close as possible to the Estimated Time of Arrival (ETA) as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) Estimated Time En Route (ETE)

Question 46

A minimum safe altitude is the altitude depicted on approach charts that provide at least 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance within a 25-mile radius (2,000 feet in designated mountainous areas) of the navigation facility, waypoint, or airport reference point upon which.
True
False
Proctor Reference: AIM Pilot/Controller Glossary

Answer 46

True

Question 47

An emergency safe altitude is the altitude depicted on approach charts that provide at least 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance within a 100-mile radius (2,000 feet in designated mountainous areas) of the navigation facility or waypoint used as the center reference.
True
False
Proctor Reference: AIM Pilot/Controller Glossary

Answer 47

True

Question 48

The NAVAIDs that appear in the name of the IAP are the types of navigation aids that provide final approach course guidance.
True
False
Proctor Reference: FAA-H-8083-15B, Instrument Flying Handbook, chapter 1

Answer 48

True

Question 49

When correcting back to the arc, displace the bearing pointer degrees from the reference
point___ for each 1/2 mile deviation to the inside of the arc and ____degrees for each 1/2 mile outside the arc.
A. 10, 5
B. 10, 15
C. 10, 20
D. 5, 15
Proctor Reference: FAA-H-8083-15B, Instrument Flying Handbook, chapter 9

Answer 49

C. 10, 20

Question 50

The altimeter should indicate the surveyed elevation of the airport. If the indication is off by more than____ feet, the altimeter should be referred to maintenance for repair or recalibration.
A. 50
B. 75
C. 100
D. 150
Proctor Reference: FAA-H-8083-15B Instrument Flying Handbook, chapter 5

Answer 50

B. 75