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Flight questions > Systems 2 - ECS, SEAT and CANOPY > Flashcards

Systems 2 - ECS, SEAT and CANOPY Flashcards

1
Q

Which lever on the OBOGS controls electrical power to the OBOGS?

A

oxygen regulator supply lever

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2
Q

The ejection seat emergency oxygen system provides which of the following?

a. 10 seconds of oxygen
b. 1 minute of oxygen
c. 5 – 7 minutes of oxygen
d. 10 minutes of oxygen

A

d

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3
Q

The __________ produces up to 350 cubic feet per minute of airflow in the HI setting. (B/5/3)

a. evaporator blower
b. condenser blower
c. bleed air inflow
d. ram air flow

A

a

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4
Q

The purpose of the CFS is to

a. close, fix, and secure the canopy.
b. seal the canopy to maintain pressurization.
c. fracture the canopy during ejection.
d. keep the center and forward windscreens clear of fog.

A

c

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5
Q

Which annunciator lights when inflow air temperature exceeds 300° Fahrenheit?

A

DUCT TEMP Annunciator

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6
Q

The amber CKPT ALT means that the cockpit pressure altitude exceeds __________ feet.

a. 10,000
b. 13,000 ±100
c. 19,000
d. 25,000

A

c

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7
Q

When flying dual, an ISS mode selector setting of __________ allows either crewmember to initiate ejection of both seats. (B/1/7)

a. SOLO
b. BOTH
c. CMD FWD
d. DUAL

A

b

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8
Q

Assuming bleed air inflow is available, the pneumatic canopy pressure seal inflates when

a. the canopy is closed and locked.
b. passing approximately 8,000 feet pressure altitude.
c. weight is off of the right main landing gear.
d. the defog lever is placed in the CANOPY position.

A

c

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9
Q

During ejection, emergency oxygen is provided __________. (B/1/5)

a. for about 10 minutes or until turned off
b. for about 10 minutes and after seat-pilot separation
c. for about 10 minutes or until seat-pilot separation
d. until seat-pilot separation or until it is turned off

A

c

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10
Q

The T-6A anti-G system helps maintain __________ during high G maneuvers. (C/2/2)

a. control coordination
b. blood circulation
c. an upright attitude
d. airspeed

A

b

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11
Q

The CFS functions __________ during __________, or __________ using internal CFS handles. (B/3/1)

a. automatically; ejection; manually
b. automatically; ground egress; manually
c. manually; ejection; manually
d. automatically; ejection; automatically

A

a

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12
Q

The environmental system has two temperature sensors to alert you to overtemperature in the

a. ECS heat exchanger.
b. heating/defog ducting.
c. evaporator/blower modules.
d. engine-driven compressor.

A

a (Er det givne svar… men “b” må være det rigtige, da sensorerne sidder i ducting og ikke i ECS heat exchanger….)

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13
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect? (B/1/2)

a. The locking/latching system secures the canopy in the closed position.
b. The Canopy Fracturing System (CFS) provides a means for egress if you cannot open the canopy in an emergency.
c. The hinge/strut system secures the canopy in the closed position.
d. The pressure seal prevents cockpit pressure leaks.

A

c

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14
Q

What happens if the ADU Mode Selector Switch is set to AUTO?

a. The SSK is lowered 10 seconds after ejection
b. The SSK is lowered 4.0 to 6.0 seconds after seat-pilot separation
c. The SSK is lowered 4.0 seconds after ejection
d. The SSK is lowered 10 seconds after seat-pilot separation

A

b

SSK bliver sluppet 4 sekunder efter seat/man separation, som sker efter 1,24-1,45 sekunder

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15
Q

Activating the CFS handle from the front cockpit activates the

a. front and rear systems simultaneously.
b. front system followed by the rear system after a .3 second delay.
c. front cockpit system only.
d. ejection system for the front cockpit only.

A

c

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16
Q

Placing the vent lever in the __________ position causes the valve at the front cockpit assembly to direct the warm air into the windshield defog duct. (B/4/2)

a. HIGH
b. CANOPY
c. FOOT
d. HOT

A

b

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17
Q

Which switch controls the position of the fresh air valve?

A

RAM AIR flow switch

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18
Q

What is the purpose of the leg restraint system? (B/1/3)

a. Prevent movement about the cockpit during flight
b. Prevent the feet from flailing during ejection
c. Ensure freedom of movement during ejection
d. Avoid constriction during ejection

A

b

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19
Q

During the ejection process, movement of the seat is first initiated by __________. (B/2/1)

a. explosive hydraulic pressure
b. mechanical catapult thrust
c. detonated gas pressure
d. detonation of the rocket motor propellant

A

c

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20
Q

The pressurization system overrides the RAM AIR FLOW switch and closes the fresh air valve when the aircraft reaches an altitude of approximately __________ MSL. (B/2/2)

a. 5000
b. 8000
c. 10000
d. 15000

A

b

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21
Q

The engine-driven air conditioner compressor pumps refrigerant in vapor form to the

a. evaporator.
b. condenser.
c. heat exchanger.
d. blower.

A

b

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22
Q

The __________ valve incorporated into the oxygen hose attachment fitting on the right console in each cockpit allows you to continue breathing ambient cockpit air if the OBOGS fails. (C/3/2)

a. ambient air
b. fail safe
c. anti-suffocation
d. emergency oxygen

A

c

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23
Q

What happens during simultaneous ejections (ISS mode selector is set to BOTH)? (C/2/1)

a. The front seat will be delayed until the rear seat is clear.
b. The rear seat will eject second.
c. Both seats eject simultaneously with the rear rocket motor firing first.
d. The rear seat will eject first.

A

d

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24
Q

After takeoff the __________ supplies cooling air to the heat exchanger.

a. ram air inlet
b. fresh air blower
c. bleed air system
d. air conditioner

A

a

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25
Q

Which switch (In which position) opens the pressurization control valve, closes the defog valve, leaves the bleed air inflow valve open, and leaves the fresh air valve closed?

a. Air cond - on or off
b. Bleed Air In Flow - OFF-NORM-HI
c. Pressurization - RAM/DUMP-DUMP-NORM
d. Ram Air Flow - OFF-NORM-HI

A

c. “DUMP”-position

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26
Q

After pressing the BIT button on the regulator to start the OBOGS I-BIT, which light do you expect to see on the annunciator panel when the oxygen concentration falls below normal?

A

OBOGS FAIL annunciator

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27
Q

Why is it a good practice to eject from the aircraft in a level flight attitude? (C/1/2)

a. Avoid a collision of the front and rear ejection seats
b. Ensure a clear path away from the airframe
c. Avoid flying debris and rocket motor blast
d. Ensure little or no sink rate

A

d

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28
Q

While in flight, cool air from the __________ passes through the heat exchanger, cooling the hot bleed air from the engine, and then exits through a vent in the lower right cowling. (B/3/1)

a. blower
b. ram air inlet
c. right P3 air port
d. inflow valve

A

b

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29
Q

Activating the __________ prevents engine compartment smoke and/or fumes from entering the cockpit through the heating system after an engine shutdown situation. (B/3/3)

a. RAM AIR FLOW
b. EVAP BLWR
c. FIREWALL SHUTOFF
d. BLEED AIR INFLOW

A

c

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30
Q

Do not open the canopy when winds exceed __________ knots. (B/2/5)

a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40

A

d

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31
Q

The OBOGS __________ annunciator lights approximately 3 minutes after initial power up if thesystem fails the BIT. (C/3/3)

a. TEST
b. TEMP
c. FAIL
d. BIT

A

c

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32
Q

During preflight, ensure that the external CFS handle

a. safety pin is removed and properly stowed.
b. safety pin is installed.
c. is completely retracted and secured.
d. doors are closed and locked.

A

d

33
Q

Where are the parachute and chute harness assembly located?

a. Beneath the seat bucket
b. In the headbox
c. In the seat box
d. Behind and below the seat bucket

A

b

34
Q

Maintenance personnel recharge the system refrigerant when necessary through service fittings behind a panel on the __________ fuselage __________ of the wing leading edge. (B/5/2)

a. left; aft
b. right; aft
c. left; forward
d. forward; right

A

d

35
Q

The CFS uses FLSC on the front transparency because __________. (B/3/4)

a. it has more force to cut through the thicker transparency
b. it does not require as much force to cut through the thinner transparency
c. MDC causes electrical interference with the front cockpit instruments
d. the typical student’s skull is thick and can handle the increased force

A

a

36
Q

How is the T-6A ejection seat propelled?

a. Detonated gas pressure, rocket motor, and hydraulic power
b. Explosive motor and hydraulic power
c. Detonated gas pressure and rocket motor
d. Detonated gas pressure, hydraulic catapult, and rocket motor

A

c

37
Q

In order to prevent inadvertent activation of the ejection system while on the ground, each seat

a. has a seat release locking handle on the right side.
b. should be secured with a safety pin that has a red streamer.
c. should be lowered to the minimum height.
d. should have the safety pin with the red streamer removed.

A

b

38
Q

The blower in each cockpit evaporator module pulls __________ air through the evaporator coils where refrigerant cools it.

a. fresh
b. ram air
c. cooled bleed
d. ambient cockpit

A

d

39
Q

What is the final step to ensure the canopy is properly latched?

a. Ensure the red mechanical indicator is not visible.
b. Rotate the internal canopy handle fully aft (counterclockwise).
c. Check for the green CANOPY annunciator on the forward panel.
d. Verify the green mechanical indicator is visible.

A

d

40
Q

What are the three factors affecting the effectiveness of the ejection system? (C/1/1)

a. Dive speed, bank angle, and climb rate
b. Dive angle, bank angle, and climb rate
c. Dive speed, rate of bank, and sink rate
d. Dive angle, bank angle, and sink rate

A

d

41
Q

Prior to ejection, it is desirable to do which of the following?

a. Descend to trade altitude for airspeed
b. Climb to trade airspeed for altitude
c. Maintain altitude and increase airspeed
d. Alter altitude to gain adequate airspeed

A

b

42
Q

During ejection, what happens in the event the canopy fracturing system (CFS) fails? (B/1/6)

a. The ejection sequence is aborted.
b. The canopy breaker will penetrate the canopy transparency as the seat moves up the rails.
c. The breaker head box will shatter the canopy as the seat moves up the catapult rails.
d. The CFS must be reset.

A

b

43
Q

Which lever position on the OBOGS regulator provides the highest possible oxygen concentration from the OBOGS.

A

oxygen regulator concentration lever MAX position

44
Q

When properly secured, you will be restrained with the torso harness connected to the risers and SSK while also ensuring the __________ and __________ are securely fastened. (B/1/2)

a. shoulder harness belts; lap belt
b. lap belt; oxygen connectors
c. shoulder belts; lap belt
d. lap belt; leg restraints

A

d

45
Q

The __________ provide(s) enhanced bird strike protection. (B/1/1)

a. windscreen canopy section
b. windscreen and front canopy transparency sections
c. front and rear canopy transparency sections
d. windscreen, front, and rear canopy transparency sections

A

b

46
Q

Do not open the canopy if winds exceed __________ knots.

a. 25
b. 30
c. 35
d. 40

A

d

47
Q

On the ground, the __________ switch activates the fresh air blower. (B/2/1)

a. TEMP CONTROL
b. landing gear weight-on-wheels
c. RAM AIR FLOW
d. VENT BLOWR

A

b

48
Q

Recommended minimum altitudes for controlled and uncontrolled ejection, according to the FlightManual, are __________ and __________ feet AGL respectively.

a. 2000; 6000
b. 3000; 6000
c. 6000; 2000
d. 15,000; 35,000

A

a

49
Q

The vent control lever directs air output to the __________ vents. (B/1/2)

a. footwarmer or defog
b. front or rear cockpit
c. canopy or instrument panel
d. defog or air conditioner

A

a

50
Q

You will attach the SSK by connecting

a. the torso harness to the Frost fittings.
b. the lap belt to the torso harness Frost fittings.
c. the SSK V-rings on the torso harness to the seat buckles.
d. the SSK Frost fittings to the torso harness V-rings.

A

c

51
Q

The T-6A ejection seat is designed to provide rapid ejection capability at zero altitude and zero speed up to __________ feet and __________ KIAS.

a. 30,000; 300
b. 31,000; 350
c. 35,000; 370
d. 37,000; 370

A

c

52
Q

The ejection seat leg restraint garters are attached

a. just above the thigh.
b. just above the boots.
c. just below the knees.
d. just below the ankles.

A

b

53
Q

The emergency oxygen cylinder is considered charged if the pointer is at 1500 psi or above. (B/1/4)

a. True
b. False

A

b

54
Q

After closing the canopy from the inside, how do you ensure the canopy is properly locked? (B/2/3)

a. Observe the mechanical red indicator is visible.
b. Rotate the internal canopy handle aft and then full forward to the stop.
c. Observe the mechanical green indicator is visible.
d. Check that the green CANOPY annunciator illuminates.

A

c

55
Q

The PIRD performs which of the following functions?

a. Retracts the shoulder harness straps during deceleration
b. Retracts the lap belt during ejection
c. Retracts the leg restraints during ejection
d. Retracts the shoulder harness straps during ejection

A

c

“c” er det givne svar, men PIRD strammer harness…. - altså “a”

56
Q

The heating system ejector forces high-volume bleed air into the cockpit to remove moisture from the ambient air. (B/4/1)

a. True
b. False

A

b

57
Q

Which T-6A environmental system is an engine-driven vapor cycle system? (B/1/1)

a. Heating
b. Canopy defogging
c. Air conditioning
d. Ventilation

A

c

58
Q

Turning the TEMP CONTROL switch toward COLD moves the heat exchanger bypass valve more open, allowing more cool air from the heat exchanger into the cockpit. (B/3/2)

a. True
b. False

A

b

59
Q

Which component converts vapor refrigerant to a high-pressure liquid.

a. Condenser
b. Evaporator/Blower
c. Compressor

A

a

60
Q

During maneuvers, __________ G force opens the anti-G valve on the left side console in each cockpit. (C/2/1)

a. increasing negative
b. decreasing negative
c. increasing positive
d. decreasing positive

A

c

61
Q

Which of the following is not a major sub-assembly of the T-6A canopy frame?

a. Pressurization system
b. Locking/latching system
c. Sealing system
d. Canopy Fracturing System (CFS)

A

a

62
Q

The __________ display shows cockpit pressure altitude and differential pressure.

a. primary engine data
b. annunciator panel
c. alternate engine data
d. pressurization data

A

c

63
Q

The air conditioning system only operates when the engine is running with the __________ and the __________.

a. generator on-line; AIR COND and/or DEFOG switch ON
b. battery switch ON; AIR COND and/or DEFOG switch ON
c. generator on-line; AIR COND and/or DEFOG switch OFF
d. battery switch ON; AIR COND and/or DEFOG switch ON

A

a

64
Q

Which control switch opens the defog valve.

A

DEFOG

65
Q

The CFS requires aircraft electrical power to function properly. (B/3/3)

a. True
b. False

A

b

66
Q

Operation of the CFS handle in the rear cockpit __________. (B/3/2)

a. fractures the rear transparency followed by the front transparency
b. fractures both transparencies simultaneously
c. fractures the rear transparency only
d. has been disabled

A

c

67
Q

The engine supplies bleed air to the heating system through the __________ port.

a. left side P3
b. right side P5
c. left side P5
d. right side P3

A

d

68
Q

Place the DEFOG switch to ON to open the __________ valve and allow a higher volume of bleed air into the heating system.

a. inflow
b. ram air
c. defog
d. heat exchanger bypass

A

c

69
Q

The ΔP regulator opens the safety outflow valve if the cockpit differential pressure (ΔP) exceeds __________ psi. (C/1/3)

a. 3.6 ±0.2
b. 3.9 to 4.0
c. 4.0
d. 4.4

A

c

70
Q

You required crew chief assistance to close and lock the canopy. You should

a. ask your instructor how to proceed.
b. proceed with the mission after ensuring the green mechanical indicators are visible.
c. not accept the aircraft and make a maintenance write-up in the forms.
d. open and attempt to reclose and lock the canopy from the inside.

A

d

71
Q

What happens if the ADU Mode Selector Switch is set to AUTO? (C/2/2)

a. The SSK will deploy 4.0 seconds after seat-pilot separation.
b. The pilot must use the manual release handle marked KIT RELEASE and wait 4 seconds.
c. The pilot must wait 4.5 seconds until the SSK is lowered.
d. The pilot must pull the manual release handle marked KIT RELEASE to release the SSK.

A

a

72
Q

Tubing from the emergency oxygen cylinder runs from the cylinder across the back of the seat bucket to the right side, and then connects to the

a. oxygen regulator.
b. anti-suffocation valve.
c. pilot’s CRU-60/P.
d. pilot’s oxygen mask.

A

c

73
Q

The following steps describe how to __________. (B/2/2)

  1. Press and hold the unlock button in while slowly rotating the external canopy handle clockwise to the placarded OPEN position.
  2. Lift the canopy open.
    a. open the canopy from the outside
    b. close the canopy from the outside
    c. open the canopy from the inside
    d. close the canopy from the inside
A

a

74
Q

The pilot would use the MOR handle to separate from the seat __________. (B/1/1)

a. over water
b. while on the ground
c. while the seat is in the aircraft
d. over mountainous terrain above 8000 feet MSL

A

d

75
Q

The pressurization control valve regulator maintains a cockpit pressure altitude of __________ feet until the differential pressure (ΔP) reaches __________ at an aircraft pressure altitude of 18,069 feet. (C/1/1)

a. 8000; 3.6 ±0.2
b. 8000; 4.0 ±0.01
c. 10,000; 3.6 ±0.02
d. 10,000; 3.9 to 4.0

A

a

76
Q

You can adjust the heating system temperature between __________ Fahrenheit by setting the TEMP CONTROL knob between HOT and COLD within the AUTO range. (B/3/4)

a. 40° and 70°
b. 50° and 85°
c. 60° and 90°
d. 70° and 95°

A

c

77
Q

What is the purpose of the drogue chute?

a. Assists the catapult in transporting the seat during ejection
b. It opens the main parachute
c. Increases drag so the seats do not collide during ejection
d. Helps to stabilize and decelerate the seat

A

d

78
Q

Proper seat adjustment during ejection is a safety issue because

a. adjusting the seat so your helmet is higher than the canopy breaker can have lethal results.
b. the leg restraint garters will not properly attach.
c. the ejection system only operates with the seat full down.
d. adjusting the seat so your helmet is lower than the canopy line can have serious results.

A

a

79
Q

What indications will you get if the canopy is unlocked? (B/2/4)

a. MASTER CAUT switchlight and amber CANOPY annunciator
b. MASTER CAUT switchlight and amber UNLOCK annunciator
c. MASTER WARN switchlight and red CANOPY annunciator
d. MASTER WARN switchlight and red UNLOCK annunciator

A

c

Flight questions (27 decks)

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