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Flight questions > MQF SEP 2021 - 201-250 > Flashcards

MQF SEP 2021 - 201-250 Flashcards

1
Q

Emergency flap extension is enabled:
A. after selecting EMER using hydraulic system switch
B. after the emergency landing gear extension handle is operated
C. when the aux battery is the only source of electrical power
D. none of the above
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

B. after the emergency landing gear extension handle is operated

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2
Q

During flap deployment or retraction, the flap position pointer moves:
A. with flap movement to indicate flap position in transit
B. to the selected flap position to indicate flap handle position
C. only when the flaps have reached the selected position
D. to an intermediate position between the placarded settings to indicate flap motion
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

D. to an intermediate position between the placarded settings to indicate flap motion

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3
Q

The speed brake ______ be stopped at an intermediate deflection.
A. may
B. may not
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

B. may not

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4
Q

If the flaps are extended, the speed brake will not extend
True
False
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

True

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5
Q

Pressing and holding the trim interrupt button:
A. interrupts radio traffic to allow the student to trim
B. interrupts power to rudder trim, and centers the rudder
C. interrupts front cockpit input to allow IP intervention
D. interrupts power to all trim actuators and causes the TAD to disengage.
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

D. interrupts power to all trim actuators and causes the TAD to disengage.

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6
Q

Actuating the TRIM DISCONNECT switch will:
A. remove power from the trim system
B. illuminate green TRIM OFF and TAD OFF annunciators
C. cause the trim aid device (TAD) to disengage
D. all of the above
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

D. all of the above

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7
Q

______ provides indication of takeoff trim setting.
A. A green band on each trim indicator
B. A green light near the top of the glare shield
C. A green stripe on the fuselage
D. A green T/O TRIM annunciator
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

A. A green band on each trim indicator

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8
Q

The aileron trim actuator moves:
A. the ground adjustable trim tab
B. the aileron trim tab on the left wing
C. the entire aileron
D. the control stick centering mechanism
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

C. the entire aileron

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9
Q

The ______ senses torque, altitude, airspeed, and pitch rate and computes a desired rudder trim
tab position.
A. trim computer
B. PMU
C. air data computer
D. trim aid device (TAD)
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

D. trim aid device (TAD)

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10
Q

The standby instruments are normally powered by the battery bus. In the event of a battery bus failure, the standby instruments are powered by the ______ .
A. battery direct bus
B. auxiliary battery
C. generator bus
D. avionics bus
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

B. auxiliary battery

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11
Q

Once takeoff trim is set, the TAD will make no further trim inputs until:
A. the pilot moves the rudder out of trim
B. the aircraft accelerates to at least 80 KIAS
C. there is no weight on the wheels
D. b and c above
E. all of the above
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

D. b and c above

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12
Q

The ______ pitot system probe near the ______ wing tip provides ram air pressures for the air
data computer.
A. primary, right
B. primary, left
C. secondary, left
D. secondary, right
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

A. primary, right

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13
Q

The manual override (MOR) handle on the ejection seat is provided to initiate seat/pilot
separation if the automatic system fails or if seat/pilot separation is desired above:
A. 15,000 AGL
B. 14,000 MSL
C. 14,000 AGL
D. 20,000 MSL
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

B. 14,000 MSL

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14
Q

The following fuels have been approved for use in the PT6A-68 engine: JP-4, JP-5, JP-8, JP-
8+100 (USAF only), JET A, JET A+100 (USAF only), JET A-1, JET B, F-24, F-34, F-35, F-40, F-
44, F-27 (USAF Only). Commercial JET A, JET A-1 or JET B may be used, providing it contains anti-ice/fungicide (PFAMB, MIL-DTL-85470 or equivalent).
True
False
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

True

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15
Q

As AOA approaches stall angle (approximately ______ units on the gage), the AOA computer
activates the ______ , (15-16 units) providing stall warning.
A. 10, spoilers
B. 18, speed brake
C. 10, pitch limiter
D. 18, stick shaker
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

D. 18, stick shaker

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16
Q

If an inverted or power-on departure from controlled flight is encountered, land as soon as conditions permit. The pilot should suspect:
A. possible engine damage
B. loss of torque information
C. Np greater than 102%
D. PMU FAIL annunciation
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

A. possible engine damage

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17
Q

If HYDR FL LO annunciator illuminates and hydraulic pressure indicates 0 psi, check the HYD SYS circuit breaker on the battery bus circuit breaker panel (left front console). If the circuit breaker is open, it shall not be reset.
True
False
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

False

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18
Q

Engine bleed air is used for:
A. canopy seal, emergency gear extension, OBOGS
B. cockpit heating and defogging, OBOGS, anti-G system
C. . ECS, anti-G system, fuel system pressurization
D. OBOGS, anti-G system, rain removal system
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

B. cockpit heating and defogging, OBOGS, anti-G system

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19
Q

If the PMU is activated with the IOAT at/or above ______ ° C, IOAT and the ITT data will be invalid (amber dashes in the counter display and missing ITT pointer) and EDM FAIL will be displayed in the bottom of the primary engine data display.
A. 96
B. 93
C. 121
D. 80
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

A. 96

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20
Q

With the PMU functioning, the mechanical overspeed governor modulates oil pressure to the propeller pitch change piston to limit Np below ______ , while the electronic governor will maintain Np at 100%.
A. 131%
B. 115%
C. 109%
D. 106%
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

D. 106%

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21
Q

With the PMU off (manual mode), the PCL schedules fuel directly to the engine through the FMU and the pilot must exercise care to ensure N1, temperature, and torque limits are not exceeded.
True
False
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

True

22
Q

The fuel system provides approximately ______ pounds of usable fuel through the single point refueling system. Approximately ______ pounds of additional fuel is available if manually filled to the base of the filler neck in each wing tank using over-the-wing/gravity refueling.
A. 1000, 100
B. 1100, 100
C. 1100, 50
D. 2000, 100
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

B. 1100, 100

23
Q

Normal operation of landing gear, flaps, speed brake, and nosewheel steering should be considered unavailable when the HYDR FL LO annunciator is illuminated and pressure is below ______ psi:
A. 2400
B. 3000
C. 1800
D. 800
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

C. 1800

24
Q

Anti-ice heat is provided to both the pitot tubes and the static ports.
True
False
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

False

25
Q

A suitable landing area is a hard surface runway, taxiway, or under/overrun. Landing on an unprepared surface or ditching is not recommended.
True
False
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

True

26
Q

Execute the Emergency Engine Shutdown On The Ground checklist for the following:
A. engine fire
B. prop strike
C. if the aircraft appears likely to depart the prepared surface
D. any other serious ground emergency
E. all of the above
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

E. all of the above

27
Q

Approximately ______ feet of altitude will be lost during an airstart attempt performed at the best glide speed of 125 KIAS. Approximately ______ seconds will be required to complete the starting sequence.
A. 1350, 30
B. 1200, 60
C. 1200, 40
D. 1000, 40
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

C. 1200, 40

28
Q

Non-precision approaches, DPs and STARs are automatically deleted from the Flight Plan 0 page (active flight plan) in non-volatile memory ______ minutes after the GPS is turned off.
A. 2
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

B. 5

29
Q

When the OBOGS is turned on a BIT is initiated and the system enters a sensor warm-up period which lasts approximately ______ minutes, during which time the OBOGS FAIL annunciator is inhibited.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

D. 4

30
Q

Due to the sensitivity of the signal conditioning unit, a single, momentary illumination of the amber OIL PX annunciator while maneuvering is possible but may not indicate a malfunction.
True
False
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

True

31
Q

When testing the cockpit lamps using the lamp test switch, the landing gear control handle and gear lights are illuminated only in the cockpit that activates the lamp test switch.
True
False
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

True

32
Q

Essential steps or items which are to be checked in both cockpits, if occupied, are indicated by ______ following the step.
A. an asterisk (*)
B. (COMMAND RESPONSE)
C. (BOTH)
D. (CHALLENGE)
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

C. (BOTH)

33
Q

With the ISS selector set to BOTH, both seats will eject regardless of which handle is pulled:
A. unless the other ejection seat handle safety pin is installed
B. even if one ejection seat handle safety pin is installed
C. even if both ejection seat handle safety pins are installed
D. none of the above
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

B. even if one ejection seat handle safety pin is installed

34
Q

If the hydraulic reservoir fluid level indicator shows in the area labeled FULL AC or FULL AD:
A. have maintenance personnel service the system
B. the system requires servicing after the flight
C. the system is fully serviced
D. the system requires immediate servicing
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

C. the system is fully serviced

35
Q

The emergency oxygen cylinder will be charged to ______ psi minimum at 70deg F. However, indicated pressure is affected by temperature changes. To approximate acceptable bottle pressure, add or subtract ______ psi for each degree the outside temperature is above or below
70deg F.
A. 2400, 3.5
B. 1800, 3.5
C. 2000, 3
D. 3000, 4
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

B. 1800, 3.5

36
Q

When flying solo, failure to secure the rear seat oxygen regulator will result in the loss of ability to:
A. deactivate OBOGS from the front seat
B. activate OBOGS from the front seat
C. eject from the front seat
D. select EMER oxygen from the front seat
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

A. deactivate OBOGS from the front seat

37
Q

When checking the fire detection system, both fire test positions must check good (all four bulbs) in both cockpits (if occupied).
True
False
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

True

38
Q

Before engine start, if PMU FAIL or PMU STATUS annunciators are illuminated:
A. set PMU switch to OFF, then NORM
B. press PMU reset button
C. abort the aircraft and notify maintenance personnel
D. start engine with PMU switch OFF
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

A. set PMU switch to OFF, then NORM

39
Q

To preclude unnecessary wear to nose wheel steering and tire, ______ nose wheel steering prior to executing sharp turns with differential braking.
A. disengage
B. engage
C. fully deflect
D. none of the above
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

A. disengage

40
Q

Do not connect external power if battery voltage is below ______ volts. Connecting external power in this case could cause damage to the aircraft battery.
A. 22.0
B. 23.5
C. 19.0
D. 28.0
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

A. 22.0

41
Q

Any fault discovered during the ______ check is reason for a ground abort.
A. BEFORE TAKEOFF
B. OVERSPEED GOVERNOR
C. BEFORE EXTERIOR
D. COCKPIT
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

B. OVERSPEED GOVERNOR

42
Q

If climbout obstacles are a factor, rotate to ______ nose high on takeoff and accelerate to best rate of climb speed of ______ KIAS using normal procedures.
A. 25, 125
B. 25, 140
C. 15, 140
D. 8-10, 160-180
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

C. 15, 140

43
Q

If the flaps are set to LDG and the gear is raised, the gear warning horn:
A. is inaudible
B. will sound momentarily
C. will sound and cannot be cancelled
D. will sound when the flaps are raised from LDG
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

C. will sound and cannot be cancelled

44
Q

If Delta P readings other than ______ psi are encountered at or above 18,069 feet, notify maintenance.
A. 3.9 to 4.0
B. 3.2 +/- .6
C. 3.0 +/-.6
D. 3.6 +/- .2
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

D. 3.6 +/- .2

45
Q

Before stalling, spinning and aerobatics verify caution and warning annunciators are extinguished and fuel imbalance is less than ______ pounds.
A. 160
B. 70
C. 50
D. 10
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

C. 50

46
Q

During a missed approach, smoothly advance the PCL to MAX power and retract the speed
brake (if extended). Set attitude to ______ nose high and execute the missed approach
procedure.
A. 25 degrees
B. 5 degrees above level flight
C. as required
D. 10-15 degrees
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

D. 10-15 degrees

47
Q

When landing with a crosswind:
A. maintain wing low attitude and rudder input through the flare
B. land in a crab
C. hold crab until just prior to touchdown
D. hold runway alignment with rudder until just prior to touchdown
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

A. maintain wing low attitude and rudder input through the flare

48
Q

During the COCKPIT (ALL FLIGHTS) interior preflight checklist, the parking brake must always be reset.
True
False
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

True

49
Q

For most accurate results, check oil level ______ to ______ minutes after engine shutdown.
A. 10, 15
B. 15, 20
C. 20, 25
D. 25, 30
E. all of the above
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

B. 15, 20

50
Q

During the Overspeed Governor Check, verify idle N1 stabilizes at or above ______ after turning the PMU switch OFF.
A. 55
B. 60
C. 62
D. 68
Proctor Reference: T.O. 1T-6A-1

A

B. 60

Flight questions (27 decks)

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