Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Flight questions > Systems 2 > Flashcards

Systems 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What does EFIS abbreviate?

A

Electronic Flight Instrument System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does the EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System) consist of?

A

Electronic Attitude Director Indicator
Electronic Horisontal Situation Indicator
The EFIS Control Panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The electronic instrument displays (EID) receive sensor data from the __________. (B/1/2)

a. Air Data Computer (ADC)
b. Electronic Decoder Control (EDC)
c. primary pitot static system
d. Electronic Attitude director Indicator (EADI)

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is a standby instrument? (B/1/3)

a. Turn and bank indicator
b. Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI)
c. Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI)
d. Vertical Velocity Indicator (VVI)

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Both the EADI and EHSI operate in the __________ modes. (B/2/1)

a. enroute and approach
b. approach and landing
c. takeoff and landing
d. enroute and landing

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If the pitch values (On the ADI) approach their limits, red chevrons are used to indicate the nearest direction__________. (B/2/2)

a. to achieve inverted flight
b. for a higher altitude
c. for a normal turn attitude
d. for a level attitude recovery

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The EHSI displays a 360° rotating compass scale divided into 5 and 10° increments and referenced to a __________ (lubber line). (B/2/3)

a. amber triangular course index
b. white triangular heading index
c. amber circular heading index
d. red circular course index

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pulling out on the HDG knob resets the HDG bug to the present aircraft __________. (B/2/4)

a. altitude
b. course
c. heading
d. speed

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The upper left corner of the EHSI contains which set of information, if selected? (B/2/5)

a. Time, temperature, and wind speed
b. Distance to selected station, aircraft groundspeed, and course heading
c. Distance to next TACAN, aircraft groundspeed, and time to go to the station
d. Distance to next selected point, aircraft groundspeed, and time to go to the next point

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When the EHSI is in HSI normal mode, pressing the map button (MAP) changes the display to the __________ mode. (B/2/6)

a. navigation map
b. weather map
c. map overlay
d. road map

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The bearing pointer select buttons are used to cycle the EHSI bearing pointers through the __________ navigation source display, __________ navigation source display, or the __________ mode. (B/2/7)

a. GPS; ILS; multiple navigation source
b. VOR; GPS; declutter
c. VOR; ILS; DME
d. DME; ILS; declutter

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

On the EHSI, the course deviation bar indicates the centerline of the selected course relative to __________. (B/2/8)

a. true north
b. the aircraft symbol
c. magnetic north
d. the nose of the aircraft

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

For ILS glidepath, a __________ is displayed on the right sideof the instruments with a green deviation pointer which movesin relation to the scale to indicate glidepath center with respectto aircraft position. (B/2/9)

a. stationary vertical scale
b. moving vertical scale
c. moving horizontal scale
d. stationary horizontal scale

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The VSI indicates to the pilot if the aircraft is climbing or descending, and at what __________.(B/3/1)

a. angle
b. rate
c. weight
d. time

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The VSI shows climbs or descents in feet per minute (FPM) from 0 to __________. (B/3/2)

a. 3000
b. 6000
c. 9000
d. 12,000

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The ASI Mach number window is blanked below __________ Mach. (B/3/3)

a. 0.04
b. 0.36
c. 0.40
d. 0.68

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

As altitude increases, maximum operating airspeed (VMO) will __________. (B/3/4)

a. increase
b. remain constant
c. double
d. decrease

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The baro-set correction knob is used to set __________ settings in the altimeter so it displays correct altitude indications. (B/3/5)

a. indicated
b. pressure
c. density
d. minimum

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The standby instruments can be used for a limited time in the event of a failure of the aircraft primary __________ system. (B/4/1)

a. propulsion
b. electrical
c. environmental
d. hydraulic

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The red and white “barber pole” on the airspeed indicator __________. (B/4/2)

a. never moves
b. moves with the airspeed needle
c. is a velocity/Mach limiting pointer
d. is set by ground maintenance personnel

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The standby attitude indicator is caged __________. (B/4/3)

a. by placing the AHRS mode select switch to SLVD
b. automatically upon application of electrical power
c. by pulling and turning the PULL TO CAGE knob
d. by pulling and releasing the PULL TO CAGE knob

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The standby altimeter is operated by static pressure from the primary pitot/static system. (B/4/4)

a. True
b. False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which system is not part of the T-6A flight instruments?

a. Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)
b. Air data system
c. Standby instruments
d. Environmental system

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In the composite mode, both attitude and heading information can be displayed on either the EADI or EHSI.

a. True
b. False

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The primary pitot probe at the right wingtip and primary static ports on the sides of the aft fuselage provide necessary pressures to the

a. air data computer.
b. EFIS computer.
c. EFIS displays.
d. standby instruments.

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The EFIS system provides uncluttered unusual attitude information on the EADI when the aircraft exceeds which set of predefined limits?

a. Pitch +20° or -30°, roll greater than or equal to 65°
b. Pitch +10° or -20°, roll less than 65°
c. Pitch +30° or -20°, roll angle greater than 65°
d. Pitch +30° or -20°, roll greater than 60°

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The altimeter displays baro-set data is in what format?

a. Inches of mercury
b. Millibars
c. Millimeters
d. Field Elevation

A

d

Altimeter displays baro-set in MB (Milibars) and IN HG (Inches Mercury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The conventional magnetic compass can be used in case of total electrical failure, or as an instrument cross-check.

a. True
b. False

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

If pitch or roll attitude failure occurs, what words appear in red letters at the top center of the EADI screen?

a. ATTITUDE CHECK
b. ATTITUDE UNUSUAL
c. BAD ATTITUDE
d. ATTITUDE FAIL

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In NAV MAP mode on the EHSI, which full circle range scales are available?

a. 1, 2.5, 5, 10, 20, 40, 80, 160, and 320 NM
b. 2.5, 5, 10, 20, 40, 80, 160, 240, and 500 NM
c. 5, 10, 20, 40, 80, 160, 240, 320, and 1000 NM
d. 5, 10, 20, 40, 80, 160, 320, 640, and 1,200 NM

A

d - er det givne svar. Men “c” dækker de tal, der er angivet i undervisningsmaterialet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The standby attitude indicator will supply accurate information for at least how many minutes after electrical failure?

a. Two
b. Three
c. Nine
d. Ten

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

If either pilot selects EFIS composite mode, the displays in the other cockpit are not affected.

a. True
b. False

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The AOA computer receives inputs from the AOA vane, the flap position microswitch, and from the __________. (B/1/1)

a. trim position indicator
b. aircraft control stick
c. landing gear
d. elevator trim tab

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The higher the number on the AOA gauge scale, the __________. (B/1/2)

a. greater the approach airspeed
b. lower the angle of attack
c. greater the angle of attack
d. lower the stall airspeed

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The radial at __________ units on the AOA gauge indicates a stall. (B/1/3)

a. 12
b. 14
c. 16
d. 18

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The stick shaker activates at approximately __________ knots above stall speed, or __________ units on the AOA gauge. (B/1/4)

a. 4 to 8; 15
b. 5 to 10; 15 to 16
c. 5 to 10; 18
d. 6 to 12; 18

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When the AOA test switch is held at the LOW position, the indexer shows a(n) __________ and the AOA gauge reads __________ units. (B/1/5)

a. red chevron; 7.9
b. green chevron; 18
c. amber donut; 10.5
d. green chevron; 3.6

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The center pointer on the accelerometer moves up or down to indicate __________ G load. (B/2/1)

a. maximum
b. minimum
c. current
d. cumulative

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which button on the digital clock is used to move the function indicator to the desired setting? (B/3/1)

a. SEL
b. CTL

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which buttons(s) on the digital clock set(s) the minutes in LT mode. (B/3/2)

a. The minutes are set automatically by the GMT mode.
b. SEL
c. CTL
d. Both SEL and CTL, when pressed together

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

After reaching 59 minutes, 59 seconds, the count up timer will display hours and minutes to a limit of __________ hours and 59 minutes. (B/3/3)

a. 69
b. 79
c. 89
d. 99

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The MASTER WARN and MASTER CAUT switchlights are interconnected with the __________. (B/4/1)

a. engine/electrical switch panel
b. main annunciator panel
c. trim control panel
d. environmental control panel

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Anytime a warning or caution annunciator on the main annunciator panel in either cockpit lights, the respective MASTER WARN or MASTER CAUT switchlights will __________. (B/4/2)

a. illuminate steadily in both cockpits
b. flash in that same cockpit only
c. flash in both cockpits
d. illuminate steadily in the front cockpit

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A flashing MASTER WARN light on the switchlight panel should be accompanied by __________. (B/4/3)

a. a 290 Hz tone repeating 5 times per second
b. six warning tones per second for 2 seconds
c. three warning tones per second for 2 seconds
d. a decaying tone

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

All IDARS functions are controlled __________.(B/5/1)

a. by the computer
b. from the front cockpit
c. from the rear cockpit
d. from either cockpit

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The flight data recorder portion of IDARS is installed __________. (B/5/2)

a. under the front cockpit glareshield
b. in the left avionics bay
c. under the rear cockpit glareshield
d. in the right avionics bay

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When IDARS reaches approximately 80% full, the __________ annunciator outboard of the anti-G connection will illuminate. (B/5/3)

a. amber MAINT
b. green FULL
c. amber FULL
d. green MAINT

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The accelerometer displays instantaneous normal acceleration from __________ Gs.

a. –8 to +15
b. –6 to +10
c. –4 to +8
d. –4 to +10

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

To perform a count up with the digital clock, the function indicator must be over the __________ label.

a. LT
b. GMT
c. ET
d. FT

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The annunciator placarded FDR near the firewall shutoff handle in the front cockpit will light MAINT in the upper half or __________ in the lower half.

a. 80%
b. RECORDER
c. FAIL
d. FDR

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Angle of attack information is provided on the AOA indexer when

a. the angle of attack is below 7.9 units on the AOA gauge.
b. the landing gear is down and locked.
c. the flaps are set at landing setting.
d. airspeed is 5 to 10 knots above stall speed.

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

When a flashing master switchlight is reset, the associated annunciator on the main annunciator panel will __________ for as long as the malfunction or failure condition persists.

a. also reset
b. begin flashing
c. remain illuminated
d. extinguish, then relight

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The flight time (FT) display in the digital clock

a. displays flight hours from gear up to gear down.
b. displays engine operating hours above 1000 RPM.
c. displays total time from engine start to shutdown.
d. does not function in this aircraft.

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Pilot warning tones are generated in a tone generator in the AOA computer and routed to

a. the cockpit speaker.
b. helmet audio connections.
c. the main annunciator panel.
d. the RMU audio outlet.

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The white triangle at 4.9 units on the AOA gauge indicates

a. maximum range angle of attack.
b. normal approach speed.
c. maximum endurance angle of attack.
d. stall speed.

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The data transfer module is a __________ used for digital information storage, loading, and retrieval.

a. permanently mounted memory chip
b. fixed data cartridge
c. fixed tape drive
d. portable memory cartridge

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

A slow approach speed is indicated by the

a. lower red chevron on the AOA indexer.
b. upper green chevron on the AOA indexer.
c. white diamond on the AOA gauge.
d. white triangle on the AOA gauge.

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How are heading and course set on the EHSI?

A

Using the HDG and CRS knobs on the EFIS control panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the three EFIS modes?

A

Enroute, approach, and composite mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

EFIS approach mode adds what elements to the standard instrument displays?

A

a. Glideslope
b. Localizer
c. Marker beacon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the pitch and roll parameters that cause the EFIS to declutter the EADI during unusual attitudes?

A

a. Pitch angle exceeds +30° or –20°

b. Roll angle exceeds 65°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The EADI display returns to normal when the aircraft attitude returns to which parameters?

A

a. Less than 25° nose-up or 15° nose-down pitch

b. Bank angle less than 60°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the purpose of the vertical speed indicator (VSI)?

A

Displays vertical speed and direction of the aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What does the VSI indicate?

A

Descend and climb rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What information does the airspeed indicator display?

A

a. Indicated airspeed
b. Mach number
c. Maximum operating airspeed (VMO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

As altitude increases, VMO will __________ and the barber pole will move __________.

A

decrease; downward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How can you tell if the ADC has failed or its data is invalid?

A

The electronic instruments will indicate a failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the standby instruments?

A

a. Standby airspeed indicator
b. Standby attitude indicator
c. Standby altimeter
d. Standby turn and bank indicator
e. Magnetic compass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How are the standby instruments powered?

A

a. Battery bus

b. Auxiliary battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How is the standby airspeed indicator operated?

A

By pitot and static pressure from the secondary pitot/static system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

When should you cage the standby attitude indicator?

A

a. Before applying or removing electrical power

b. Before engine start and shutdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

After loss of all electrical power, how long will the standby attitude indicator provide pitch and roll information and to what accuracy?

A

a. Nine minutes

b. Within 6°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The stick shaker is activated approximately how many knots above stall speed?

A

5 to 10 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What does the green arc on the AOA gauge indicate?

A

Normal approach speed (optimum angle of attack or “on-speed”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

When will either the MASTER WARN or MASTER CAUTION switchlights illuminate?

A

a. Anytime a warning or caution annunciator illuminates in either cockpit
b. The MASTER WARN switchlight will illuminate with the FIRE light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the three operational modes for the EADI and EHSI?

A

Enroute, approach, and composite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The VSI displays vertical velocity from 0 to __________ feet per minute.

A

±6000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

From what component does the ASI receive its data?

A

Air data computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The standby instruments are normally powered by the __________.

A

battery bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

When showing, what does the red indication in the standby turn and bank indicator mean?

A

Turn rate information is not available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

When should a reading be taken from the magnetic compass?

A

During level, unaccelerated flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

When does the AOA amber donut illuminate?

A

When you have achieved the optimum angle of attack range for landing (on-speed).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the purpose of the two resettable needles on the accelerometer?

A

Record maximum deviation above and below +1G experienced during flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What happens anytime the FIRE warning annunciator illuminates?

A

a. MASTER WARN switchlight flashes

b. MASTER WARN tone sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What indications can be illuminated on the flight data recorder annunciator?

A

a. MAINT (green)

b. FAIL (yellow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The VHF transceiver has a separate radio for monitoring VHF Guard. (B/1/1)

a. True
b. False

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Where is the UHF/VHF transmit key located?

A

On the PCL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is UHF Guard frequency? (B/1/3)

a. 121.50 MHz
b. 143.00 MHz
c. 243.00 MHz
d. 263.00 MHz

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

To activate the UHF backup control unit, __________. (B/1/4)

a. turn the OFF/PUSH TEST knob clockwise
b. select UHF on the RMU
c. select REMOTE on the audio control panel
d. select BKUP on the audio control panel

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

The UHF backup control unit allows for up to __________ preset channels. (B/1/5)

a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 50

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The UHF backup control unit is located in the __________. (B/1/6)

a. front cockpit only
b. aft cockpit only
c. front and aft cockpit
d. avionics bay

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are the two interphone modes? (B/2/1)

a. HOT and COLD
b. ON and OFF
c. HIGH and LOW
d. FRONT and REAR

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

When in HOT mode, __________. (B/2/2)

a. both microphones are active
b. only the rear microphone is active
c. you must press the ICS key to transmit on interphone
d. press the UHF/VHF key to transmit on interphone

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

The ground crew interphone headset jack is located __________. (B/2/3)

a. on the left fuselage, below the avionics bay
b. on the right fuselage, above the hydraulic service door
c. in the left avionics bay
d. in the right avionics bay

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

To adjust VHF radio volume, __________. (B/3/1)

a. rotate the VHF COMM knob on the VHF control head
b. rotate the VHF knob on the audio control panel
c. use the VHF toggle switch on the audio control panel
d. rotate the VHF knob on the left hand console

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

The audio control panel is located in the front cockpit only. (B/3/2)

a. True
b. False

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What effect will moving the bypass switch to the ALTN position have on the UHF radio? (B/3/3)

a. You will not be able to hear the audio.
b. The audio will be unamplified, raw audio.
c. Radio control will revert to backup control unit.
d. The active frequency will switch to the alternate frequency.

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What are the buttons on the left side of the RMU? (C/1/1)

a. Transfer switches
b. Special function switches
c. Mode select switches
d. Field select keys

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What will you see when you press a field select key? (C/1/2)

a. The entire field will be highlighted with a white box cursor.
b. All other fields will be dimmed.
c. The special functions page for the selected system will be displayed.
d. A rectangular cursor will appear in the field.

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Transfer switches are identified by a white __________. (C/1/3)

a. diamond
b. triangle
c. rectangle
d. circle

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

In order to change the UHF frequency digits to the right of the decimal (390.22), you must __________ (C/1/4)

a. pull out the small knob
b. pull out the large knob
c. use the large knob
d. hold the transfer switch for more than 3 seconds

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What indication is given when the RMU is on the preflight test page? (C/2/1)

a. The word “preflight” is shown in the center of the display.
b. The word “TEST” is shown in the bottom field.
c. The letters “PFT” are shown in the top field.
d. The display will go blank.

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

If the RMU passes the preflight test, it __________ (C/2/2)

a. displays the preflight test page for 5 seconds and then returns to the normal operating page.
b. annunciates TEST PASS in the middle of the display until you press the mode key next to ACCEPT.
c. displays the preflight test page until you press the field key next to RETURN.
d. Returns immediately to the normal operating page.

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

The RMU displays UHF radio information in the __________ field. (C/3/1)

a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Press the __________ to swap the standby and active frequencies on the UHF radio. (C/3/2)

a. transfer switch next to the UHF field
b. field select key next to the UHF field
c. mode switch next to the UHF field
d. small data select knob

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Press the MEM special function switch to __________. (C/3/3)

a. go to the UHF special functions memory page
b. set the last used preset channel in standby
c. edit, insert, or clear a preset memory channel
d. make the last used preset memory channel active

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What indication does the RMU display when UHF Guard is turned on? (C/3/4)

a. “GD” appears below the mode annunciator
b. “BOTH” appears below the mode annunciator
c. “GUARD” appears below the mode annunciator
d. The UHF radio does not have a GUARD function.

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

How many VHF NAV preset memory channels can you store in the RMU? (C/4/1)

a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What does the DMEH special function switch do? (C/4/2)

a. Allows you to store DME preset memory channels
b. Enables and disables the DME function of VHF nav
c. Opens the DME special functions page
d. Holds the current DME NAVAID frequency

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

The transponder transmits __________ when the mode is set to ON. (C/5/1)

a. aircraft squawk code only
b. aircraft squawk code and altitude
c. aircraft altitude only
d. nothing

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

How many additional ATC codes are stored in the RMU? (D/5/2)

a. 1
b. 5
c. 10
d. 20

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

How many additional ATC codes are stored in the RMU? (D/5/2)

a. 1
b. 5
c. 10
d. 20

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

The ground crew interphone is activated when

a. the engine start sequence is initiated.
b. the GPU is plugged in.
c. a headset is plugged into the ground crew interphone jack.
d. a battery switch in either cockpit is switched on.

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

The RMU did not pass the preflight test. Override the system by pressing the

a. field select key next to ACCEPT.
b. mode switch next to RETURN.
c. transfer switch next to BYPASS.
d. O’RIDE special function switch at the bottom of the RMU.

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

In the RMU 243.00 is selected as frequency. Below the frequency is selected “GUARD”. Given this UHF configuration, you will receive

a. on both Guard and active frequency, but transmit only on the active frequency.
b. and transmit only on Guard frequency.
c. on both Guard and active frequency, but transmit only on Guard frequency.
d. on both the GUARD and standby frequency, but transmit only on the GUARD frequency.

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

In the RMU, 363,10 is selected as UHF frequency. Below the frequency is selected “BOTH”. Given this UHF radio setup, you will receive

a. on both the GUARD and active frequency, but transmit only on the active frequency.
b. and transmit on both the GUARD and active frequency.
c. on both the standby and active frequency, but transmit only on the active frequency.
d. and transmit on both the standby and active frequency.

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

To tune the active UHF frequency directly, __________, then use the data entry knobs to set the frequency.

a. hold the UHF transfer switch for at least 3 seconds
b. hold the UHF field select key for at least 3 seconds
c. press the UHF transfer switch to move the cursor box to the active frequency
d. press the MEM special function switch to select the last used preset

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

The RMU allows storage of up to __________ VHF communication frequencies in memory channels.

a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 40

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Press the __________ to access special functions for the selected system.

a. PAGE special function switch
b. IDT special function switch
c. MEM special function switch
d. associated field select key for 3 seconds

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

__________ to initiate the RMU preflight test.

a. Apply power to the RMU
b. Press the IDT special function switch
c. Press the small data entry knob
d. Press the field select key next to START TEST on the special function page

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

__________ indicates that the squelch is off.

a. An SQ annunciation below the UHF mode
b. A missing SQ annunciation below the UHF mode
c. The annunciation SQUELCH as the UHF mode
d. The amber SQUELCH light at the bottom of the RMU

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What indication on the RMU tells you the backup UHF radio control unit is in use?

a. The RMU displays the word REMOTE in the UHF field.
b. The RMU displays the word BACKUP in the UHF field.
c. The UHF field of the RMU is blank.
d. The UHF radio mode is BKUP.

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is the main operational difference between the UHF radio and the VHF radio?

a. The VHF radio has a BOTH mode, but not a Guard mode.
b. The VHF radio can receive but not transmit on GUARD.
c. The VHF radio cannot transmit or receive on GUARD.
d. You must manually tune 121.5 to receive and/or transmit on GUARD.

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

When in ALT mode, the transponder transmits the

a. aircraft’s altitude only.
b. alternate squawk code.
c. aircraft’s altitude and squawk code.
d. squawk code only.

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

VOR stations transmit __________ signals, which the VOR receiver detects and the EFIS displays on the __________.

a. path; RMU
b. radial; EHSI
c. path; EHSI
d. radial; EADI

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Which of the following is the T-6A unable to receive? (B/1/2)

a. TACAN radials from a VORTAC
b. TACAN DME from a VORTAC
c. DME from a VOR/DME
d. VOR radials from a VORTAC

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

The __________ antennas, mounted on both sides of the __________, detects the VOR radial signal.(B/1/3)

a. VOR; fuselage
b. NAV/GS/ILS; cockpit
c. VOR; vertical stabilizer
d. NAV/GS/ILS; vertical stabilizer

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

The ILS __________ provides course guidance to the runway centerline. (B/1/4)

a. localizer
b. marker beacon
c. glideslope
d. course indicator

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

The same antennas and receiver as the __________ system receives and processes localizer andglideslope signals. (B/1/5)

a. marker beacon
b. TACAN
c. GPS
d. VOR

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

To display ILS data on the EHSI/EADI, select the __________ frequency as the primary navigationfrequency on the RMU. (B/1/6)

a. glideslope
b. localizer
c. beacon
d. VOR

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

The DME system measures the time required for the transmitted signal to reach the ground station and return. It then calculates a __________ distance in nautical miles from the ground station to the aircraft. (B/2/1)

a. lateral
b. horizontal
c. vertical
d. slant range

A

d

132
Q

When you tune in a navigation facility with DME capability, the __________ displays the DME information __________. (B/2/2)

a. EHSI; automatically
b. EHSI; after selecting DME hold
c. RMU; below the DME frequency
d. EADI; automatically

A

a

133
Q

In addition to the DME slant range, the EHSI displays __________ and __________ when selected using the NAV button on the control panel. (B/2/3)

a. groundspeed; time-to-go
b. true airspeed; time-to-go
c. indicated airspeed; time-of-arrival
d. groundspeed; time-of-arrival

A

a

134
Q

With DME hold activated, the __________ displays “DME HOLD” below the primary navigation frequency. (B/2/4)

a. EHSI
b. EADI
c. RMU
d. EFIS control panel

A

c

135
Q

A Controller assigns all aircraft under their control the same Mode A “SQUAWK” code. (B/3/1)

a. True
b. False

A

b

136
Q

An aircraft transponder within range of a ground station interrogator’s query responds __________ with a coded signal to the interrogator. (B/3/2)

a. automatically
b. after verification of the interrogator’s code
c. when you press IDT on the RMU
d. after deconfliction with other transponders

A

a

137
Q

If a controller requests that you “SQUAWK ALTITUDE,” which mode annunciation should you check for on the RMU? (B/3/3)

a. IDT
b. ALT
c. ON
d. STBY

A

b

138
Q

Upon the controller’s request to “SQUAWK Ident,” you press the IDT button on the RMU. The transponder sends an identification signal for about __________ seconds and then returns to the previous mode. (B/3/4)

a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 45

A

b

139
Q

TAS traffic warnings and advisories are the primary means of traffic detection and avoidance.(B/4/1)

a. True
b. False

A

b

140
Q

TAS range selections are 3, 5, 10, 20, and __________ NM. (B/4/2)

a. 30
b. 40
c. 60
d. 80

A

b

141
Q

The system displays proximity traffic as a filled white diamond indicating the intruding aircraft is within ±__________ feet relative altitude. (B/4/3)

a. 500
b. 1200
c. 1500
d. 2000

A

b

142
Q

In ABOVE mode, the system displays traffic from 9,000 feet above to 2,700 feet below the aircraft. (B/4/4)

a. True
b. False

A

b

143
Q

During a self-test, the GPS unit usually shows the correct information on the right side of the display since it is stored in __________ memory. (B/5/2)

a. aircraft
b. your
c. satellite
d. battery-backed

A

d

144
Q

On the first self-test attempt, the GPS displays TEST FAIL in place of ANNUN ON. Do not use the system for navigation and report the failure to maintenance. (B/5/3)

a. True
b. False

A

b

145
Q

When the cursor is not active, the large outer knobs select the __________ for their respectivedisplays. (B/5/4)

a. page
b. waypoint
c. characters
d. cursor

A

a

146
Q

To change an item on a page, first press the __________button, then use the __________ knob to move the cursor to the desired field. (B/5/5)

a. CRSR; inner
b. ENT; outer
c. CRSR; outer
d. SLCT; CRSR

A

c

147
Q

Press the __________ button to declutter the display. (B/5/6)

a. CLR
b. ENT
c. OBS
d. ALT

A

a

148
Q

The GPS stores up to __________ flight plans in memory, each of which can contain up to__________ waypoints. (B/5/7)

a. 15; 15
b. 25; 30
c. 25; 25
d. 30; 25

A

b

149
Q

The DME system displays __________ from the aircraft to the ground station.

a. slant range distance in statute miles
b. horizontal distance in statute miles
c. slant range distance in nautical miles
d. horizontal distance in nautical miles

A

c

150
Q

The GPS default page is __________ on the left side of the display and the waypoint page on theright.

a. NAV 2
b. APT 4
c. VOR 2
d. FLP 0

A

a

151
Q

The 360° radial of each VOR station is oriented to

a. true north.
b. magnetic north.
c. grid north.
d. magnetic north adjusted for local magnetic variation.

A

b

152
Q

The transponder Mode __________ provides altitude reporting to the secondary radar system.

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

A

c

153
Q

When the NAV source is LOC and the system is receiving the paired glideslope signal (ILS), theEHSI presents a __________ scale and deviation pointer on the right side of the display.

a. GS
b. lateral
c. vertical velocity
d. LOC

A

a

154
Q

Press the __________ button on the RMU to retain the DME from one station while navigating toanother.

a. NAVH
b. NAV2
c. NAV/DME
d. DMEH

A

d

155
Q

Press the __________ button on the RMU when a controller requests you to “SQUAWK ident.”

a. ALERT
b. SQ
c. IDT
d. DMEH

A

c

156
Q

One advantage of a GPS flight plan is that you can create and store a flight plan before flight.

a. True
b. False

A

a

157
Q

The TAS detects and tracks other aircraft by interrogating its transponder and analyzing the reply to determine its __________, __________, and relative __________ if the aircraft is Mode C or S equipped.

a. range; bearing; airspeed
b. range; bearing; altitude
c. bearing; airspeed; altitude
d. altitude; airspeed; bearing

A

b

158
Q

To select a specific waypoint from the database, enter the waypoint identifier directly, scan through identifiers alphabetically, or enter the __________. (B/1/1)

a. coordinates
b. name
c. state code
d. altitude

A

b

159
Q

After selecting the desired page to input an identifier directly, press the __________ button to engage the cursor and start entering characters. (B/1/2)

a. APT
b. IDT
c. CRSR
d. CHAR

A

c

160
Q

The waypoint scan presents a __________ list of all the selected waypoints and the __________ list. (B/1/3)

a. nearest; farthest
b. partial; farthest
c. partial; complete
d. nearest; complete

A

d

161
Q

The nearest waypoint display replaces the latitude and longitude of a normal waypoint display with the __________ of the waypoint. (B/1/4)

a. bearing and distance
b. frequencies and description
c. identification and altitude
d. bearing and altitude

A

a

162
Q

Which of the following can you search for using the city name? (B/1/5)

a. SEC
b. NDB
c. VOR
d. APT

A

d

163
Q

There are __________ airport pages for every airport in the database. (B/2/1)

a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 12

A

c

164
Q

You would not expect to find information regarding __________ on the APT 6 page. (B/2/2)

a. local restaurants
b. landing fees
c. fuel or oxygen availability
d. customs availability

A

a

165
Q

On a VOR page, a “D” following the identifier indicates that the VOR __________. (B/2/3)

a. is class D
b. is deactivated
c. has paired DME
d. requires dual receivers

A

c

166
Q

The NAV 2 page displays the aircraft’s present position as latitude and longitude, and as a distance and bearing from the __________. (B/3/1)

a. nearest NDB
b. nearest VOR
c. active waypoint
d. destination

A

b

167
Q

The range scale of the NAV 5 page indicates the distance from the aircraft’s position to the __________ in nautical miles. (B/3/2)

a. top of the screen
b. next waypoint
c. destination airfield
d. nearest airfield

A

a

168
Q

The Super NAV 5 AUTO range mode automatically selects a smallest scale to include the __________. (B/3/3)

a. next three waypoints
b. waypoints before and after the active waypoint
c. active waypoint and the following waypoint
d. destination waypoint

A

c

169
Q

Press the right CRSR button to add __________ elements to the Super NAV 5 map. (B/3/5)

a. VOR, NDB, and ILS
b. NDB, ILS, and APT
c. NDB, OM, MM, and IM
d. VOR, NDB, and APT

A

d

170
Q

The Direct To feature only allows navigation directly to waypoints already on the active flight plan. (B/4/1)

a. True
b. False

A

b

171
Q

If you press the “DIRECT” button while the active waypoint is a Missed Approach Point and you are already past the waypoint, the __________ is the default on the Direct To page.(B/4/2)

a. first waypoint of the missed approach procedure
b. final approach fix waypoint
c. initial approach fix waypoint
d. first waypoint of the approach holding pattern

A

a

172
Q

Which is the appropriate button sequence to cancel a Direct To operation? (B/4/3)

a. CLR, Direct To, ENT
b. ENT, Direct To, CLR
c. Direct To, ENT, CLR
d. Direct To, CLR, ENT

A

d

173
Q

In order to alert you to the impending arrival at a Direct To waypoint, the identifier on the Super NAV 5 page __________ about 36 seconds prior to reaching it.(B/4/4)

a. is highlighted
b. disappears
c. flashes
d. brightens

A

c

174
Q

Three ways to select a waypoint on the GPS is to use direct entry, scanning, and by

a. name.
b. runway.
c. approaches.
d. latitude and longitude.

A

a

175
Q

The five waypoint types used by the GPS system are

a. APT, VOR, NDB, INT, and SUP.
b. APT, VOR, INT, ALT, and SUP.
c. APT, ILS, NDB, INT, and SUP.
d. APT, ILS, RAD, INT, and SUP.

A

a

176
Q

Select the button to find the airfield that is closest to your present position.

a. ANS:
b. NRST

A

b

177
Q

What does the “+” next to APT +3 indicate?

a. The range scale for the displayed airfield diagram is +3.
b. The airfield has three or more runways.
c. There are multiple airfields for the selected city.
d. There are multiple sub-pages for the APT 3 page.

A

d

178
Q

The symbol next to the identifier flashes approximately __________ prior to reaching a Direct To waypoint.

a. 1 minute
b. 36 seconds
c. 36 NM
d. 1 NM

A

b

179
Q

Which button initiates a “Direct to”-operation?

A

Direct-to button (D with an arrow through)

180
Q 
In the GPS it is displayed:
=> KDLF LAUGHLIN
CL C MILTRY
N 29 21 60
W 100 46 70
What type of airfield and class of airspace and does this GPS display indicate?
A

Military field

Class C airspace

181
Q

How do you determine the range scale in a Super NAV5 display?

A

The range scale is indicated in the lower left corner of the graphic display.

182
Q

What does a “L” following a runway identifier on the APT +3 page indicate?

a. These runways are for local aircraft only.
b. This airfield uses non-standard left-hand visual traffic patterns.
c. These are the two longest runways for this airfield.
d. The lighting for these runways operates from sunset to sunrise.

A

d

183
Q

True or false? Both UHF and VHF systems have dedicated receivers for Guard.

A

False; only UHF has a dedicated Guard receiver.

184
Q

How many preset channels can the UHF backup control unit store?

A

20

185
Q

True or false? The UHF backup radio automatically activates in the event of an RMU failure.

A

False; you must turn on the backup control unit using the ON/OFF/PUSH TEST knob.

186
Q

In COLD mode, when are the interphone microphones active?

A

Only when the ICS key switch or ICS KEY/MUTE switch is activated

187
Q

True or false? With the Audio Control Panel identifier select switch in the R position, the VHF NAV radio receives both voice and Morse signals.

A

False; only Morse NAVAID recognition signals are received

188
Q

What control sets the interphone system to HOT or COLD mode?

A

INTPH switch on the rear cockpit audio control panel

189
Q

What are the five fields that comprise the RMU display areas?

A

a. UHF Comm
b. VHF Comm
c. ATC transponder
d. Blank
e. VHF NAV

190
Q

Which comm mode do you set in the RMU for the UHF radio to receive on both active and Guard frequencies?

A

BOTH

191
Q

How do you transfer the standby VHF frequency to the primary position?

A

Press the transfer switch adjacent to the VHF field

192
Q

Up to how many UHF and VHF comm frequencies can be stored in the RMU memory?

A

20

193
Q

True or false? The RMU stores up to five transponder codes in memory, in addition to the active code.

A

False; it only stores one code in memory.

194
Q

Up to how many VHF NAV memory channels are stored in the RMU?

A

10

195
Q

What are the three types of VOR facilities?

A

a. VOR
b. VOR/DME
c. VORTAC

196
Q

What information does the ILS localizer provide?

A

Course guidance to runway centerline.

197
Q

True or false? During a localizer approach, localizer course information is displayed on both the EADI and EHSI.

A

True

198
Q

What happens to DME display error at a higher aircraft altitude?

A

The error increases.

199
Q

True or false? You must press the IDT button on the RMU for the transponder to reply to a Mode A interrogation signal.

A

False; properly set, the transponder will respond automatically.

200
Q

How is the TAS altitude block selected?

A

Depress the normal/below/above pushbutton selector switch on the control stick grip

201
Q

True or false? Targets displayed on the TAS display as white diamonds represent “other” traffic.

A

False; white diamonds represent proximity traffic.

202
Q

What should you do if TEST FAIL replaces ANNUN ON when the GPS unit is first turned on?

A

Recycle power to the unit.

203
Q

Which GPS button is used primarily during holding and non-precision approaches?

A

OBS button

204
Q

The active flight plan is always shown as what flight plan number?

A

FPL 0

205
Q

How many flight plans can be stored in memory?

A

Up to 25 and each flight plan can have up to 30 waypoints.

206
Q

You notice that the EHSI course indication cannot be changed by rotating the CRS knob on the EFIS control panel. What indication on the EHSI might confirm your problem?

A

CP flag

207
Q

Which indication on the EHSI indicates that the DME system has failed?

A

RED X in the DME dispay….????

208
Q

A TAS failure notification will appear on what instrument?

A

TAS/VSI

209
Q

What indication on the RMU alerts you to a possible failure of the transponder?

A

Dashes or OFF in the ATC code field

210
Q

What is the first component you should check when you suspect an avionics failure?

A

Circuit breaker

211
Q

How are all VHF tuning functions controlled?

A

Through the RMU only

212
Q

What are the five fields in the RMU?

A

a. UHF comm
b. VHF comm
c. ATC transponder
d. Blank
e. VHF NAV

213
Q

What is the purpose of the ICS KEY/MUTE button?

A

Mutes all incoming audio while allowing inter-cockpit communication

214
Q

How is the range display changed on the TAS display?

A

UP/DN range switches on the TA/VSI

215
Q

Where are the VOR antennae located on the T-6A?

A

Vertical stabilizer

216
Q

Which ILS component operates at 75 MHz and indicates your location along the approach path?

A

Marker beacons

217
Q

What is the range of the DME?

A

Up to 199 miles slant range depending upon aircraft altitude

218
Q

What should you do if the controller directs you to squawk altitude?

A

Set the transponder to ALT in the RMU.

219
Q

How do you select the page types on the GPS panel?

A

Large outer knobs on the left and right side of the panel

220
Q

Which T-6A environmental system is an engine-driven vapor cycle system? (B/1/1)

a. Heating
b. Canopy defogging
c. Air conditioning
d. Ventilation

A

c

221
Q

The vent control lever directs air output to the __________ vents. (B/1/2)

a. footwarmer or defog
b. front or rear cockpit
c. canopy or instrument panel
d. defog or air conditioner

A

a

222
Q

On the ground, the __________ switch activates the fresh air blower. (B/2/1)

a. TEMP CONTROL
b. landing gear weight-on-wheels
c. RAM AIR FLOW
d. VENT BLOWR

A

b

223
Q

The pressurization system overrides the RAM AIR FLOW switch and closes the fresh air valve when the aircraft reaches an altitude of approximately __________ MSL. (B/2/2)

a. 5000
b. 8000
c. 10000
d. 15000

A

b

224
Q

While in flight, cool air from the __________ passes through the heat exchanger, cooling the hot bleed air from the engine, and then exits through a vent in the lower right cowling. (B/3/1)

a. blower
b. ram air inlet
c. right P3 air port
d. inflow valve

A

b

225
Q

Turning the TEMP CONTROL switch toward COLD moves the heat exchanger bypass valve more open, allowing more cool air from the heat exchanger into the cockpit. (B/3/2)

a. True
b. False

A

b

226
Q

Activating the __________ prevents engine compartment smoke and/or fumes from entering the cockpit through the heating system after an engine shutdown situation. (B/3/3)

a. RAM AIR FLOW
b. EVAP BLWR
c. FIREWALL SHUTOFF
d. BLEED AIR INFLOW

A

c

227
Q

You can adjust the heating system temperature between __________ Fahrenheit by setting the TEMP CONTROL knob between HOT and COLD within the AUTO range. (B/3/4)

a. 40° and 70°
b. 50° and 85°
c. 60° and 90°
d. 70° and 95°

A

c

228
Q

The heating system ejector forces high-volume bleed air into the cockpit to remove moisture from the ambient air. (B/4/1)

a. True
b. False

A

b

229
Q

Placing the vent lever in the __________ position causes the valve at the front cockpit assembly to direct the warm air into the windshield defog duct. (B/4/2)

a. HIGH
b. CANOPY
c. FOOT
d. HOT

A

b

230
Q

Which control switch opens the defog valve.

A

DEFOG

231
Q

Which component converts vapor refrigerant to a high-pressure liquid.

a. Condenser
b. Evaporator/Blower
c. Compressor

A

a

232
Q

Maintenance personnel recharge the system refrigerant when necessary through service fittings behind a panel on the __________ fuselage __________ of the wing leading edge. (B/5/2)

a. left; aft
b. right; aft
c. left; forward
d. Right; forward

A

d

233
Q

The __________ produces up to 350 cubic feet per minute of airflow in the HI setting. (B/5/3)

a. evaporator blower
b. condenser blower
c. bleed air inflow
d. ram air flow

A

a

234
Q

The pressurization control valve regulator maintains a cockpit pressure altitude of __________ feet until the differential pressure (ΔP) reaches __________ at an aircraft pressure altitude of 18,069 feet. (C/1/1)

a. 8000; 3.6 ±0.2
b. 8000; 4.0 ±0.01
c. 10,000; 3.6 ±0.02
d. 10,000; 3.9 to 4.0

A

a

235
Q

Which switch (In which position) opens the pressurization control valve, closes the defog valve, leaves the bleed air inflow valve open, and leaves the fresh air valve closed?

a. Air cond - on or off
b. Bleed Air In Flow - OFF-NORM-HI
c. Pressurization - RAM/DUMP-DUMP-NORM
d. Ram Air Flow - OFF-NORM-HI

A

c. “DUMP”-position

236
Q

The ΔP regulator opens the safety outflow valve if the cockpit differential pressure (ΔP) exceeds __________ psi. (C/1/3)

a. 3.6 ±0.2
b. 3.9 to 4.0
c. 4.0
d. 4.4

A

c

237
Q

During maneuvers, __________ G force opens the anti-G valve on the left side console in each cockpit. (C/2/1)

a. increasing negative
b. decreasing negative
c. increasing positive
d. decreasing positive

A

c

238
Q

The T-6A anti-G system helps maintain __________ during high G maneuvers. (C/2/2)

a. control coordination
b. blood circulation
c. an upright attitude
d. airspeed

A

b

239
Q

Which lever on the OBOGS controls electrical power to the OBOGS?

A

oxygen regulator supply lever

240
Q

The __________ valve incorporated into the oxygen hose attachment fitting on the right console in each cockpit allows you to continue breathing ambient cockpit air if the OBOGS fails. (C/3/2)

a. ambient air
b. fail safe
c. anti-suffocation
d. emergency oxygen

A

c

241
Q

The OBOGS __________ annunciator lights approximately 3 minutes after initial power up if thesystem fails the BIT. (C/3/3)

a. TEST
b. TEMP
c. FAIL
d. BIT

A

c

242
Q

The engine supplies bleed air to the heating system through the __________ port.

a. left side P3
b. right side P5
c. left side P5
d. right side P3

A

d

243
Q

The engine-driven air conditioner compressor pumps refrigerant in vapor form to the

a. evaporator.
b. condenser.
c. heat exchanger.
d. blower.

A

b

244
Q

Which switch controls the position of the fresh air valve?

A

RAM AIR flow switch

245
Q

The __________ display shows cockpit pressure altitude and differential pressure.

a. primary engine data
b. annunciator panel
c. alternate engine data
d. pressurization data

A

c

246
Q

After pressing the BIT button on the regulator to start the OBOGS I-BIT, which light do you expect to see on the annunciator panel when the oxygen concentration falls below normal?

A

OBOGS FAIL annunciator

247
Q

Place the DEFOG switch to ON to open the __________ valve and allow a higher volume of bleed air into the heating system.

a. inflow
b. ram air
c. defog
d. heat exchanger bypass

A

c

248
Q

Which lever position on the OBOGS regulator provides the highest possible oxygen concentration from the OBOGS.

A

oxygen regulator concentration lever MAX position

249
Q

The blower in each cockpit evaporator module pulls __________ air through the evaporator coils where refrigerant cools it.

a. fresh
b. ram air
c. cooled bleed
d. ambient cockpit

A

d

250
Q

Which annunciator lights when inflow air temperature exceeds 300° Fahrenheit?

A

DUCT TEMP Annunciator

251
Q

After takeoff the __________ supplies cooling air to the heat exchanger.

a. ram air inlet
b. fresh air blower
c. bleed air system
d. air conditioner

A

a

252
Q

The air conditioning system only operates when the engine is running with the __________ and the __________.

a. generator on-line; AIR COND and/or DEFOG switch ON
b. battery switch ON; AIR COND and/or DEFOG switch ON
c. generator on-line; AIR COND and/or DEFOG switch OFF
d. battery switch ON; AIR COND and/or DEFOG switch ON

A

a

253
Q

The amber CKPT ALT means that the cockpit pressure altitude exceeds __________ feet.

a. 10,000
b. 13,000 ±100
c. 19,000
d. 25,000

A

c

254
Q

The environmental system has two temperature sensors to alert you to overtemperature in the

a. ECS heat exchanger.
b. heating/defog ducting.
c. evaporator/blower modules.
d. engine-driven compressor.

A

a (Er det givne svar… men “b” må være det rigtige, da sensorerne sidder i ducting og ikke i ECS heat exchanger….)

255
Q

The __________ provide(s) enhanced bird strike protection. (B/1/1)

a. windscreen canopy section
b. windscreen and front canopy transparency sections
c. front and rear canopy transparency sections
d. windscreen, front, and rear canopy transparency sections

A

b

256
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect? (B/1/2)

a. The locking/latching system secures the canopy in the closed position.
b. The Canopy Fracturing System (CFS) provides a means for egress if you cannot open the canopy in an emergency.
c. The hinge/strut system secures the canopy in the closed position.
d. The pressure seal prevents cockpit pressure leaks.

A

c

257
Q

The following steps describe how to __________. (B/2/2)

  1. Press and hold the unlock button in while slowly rotating the external canopy handle clockwise to the placarded OPEN position.
  2. Lift the canopy open.
    a. open the canopy from the outside
    b. close the canopy from the outside
    c. open the canopy from the inside
    d. close the canopy from the inside
A

a

258
Q

After closing the canopy from the inside, how do you ensure the canopy is properly locked? (B/2/3)

a. Observe the mechanical red indicator is visible.
b. Rotate the internal canopy handle aft and then full forward to the stop.
c. Observe the mechanical green indicator is visible.
d. Check that the green CANOPY annunciator illuminates.

A

c

259
Q

What indications will you get if the canopy is unlocked? (B/2/4)

a. MASTER CAUT switchlight and amber CANOPY annunciator
b. MASTER CAUT switchlight and amber UNLOCK annunciator
c. MASTER WARN switchlight and red CANOPY annunciator
d. MASTER WARN switchlight and red UNLOCK annunciator

A

c

260
Q

Do not open the canopy when winds exceed __________ knots. (B/2/5)

a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40

A

d

261
Q

The CFS functions __________ during __________, or __________ using internal CFS handles. (B/3/1)

a. automatically; ejection; manually
b. automatically; ground egress; manually
c. manually; ejection; manually
d. automatically; ejection; automatically

A

a

262
Q

Operation of the CFS handle in the rear cockpit __________. (B/3/2)

a. fractures the rear transparency followed by the front transparency
b. fractures both transparencies simultaneously
c. fractures the rear transparency only
d. has been disabled

A

c

263
Q

The CFS requires aircraft electrical power to function properly. (B/3/3)

a. True
b. False

A

b

264
Q

The CFS uses FLSC on the front transparency because __________. (B/3/4)

a. it has more force to cut through the thicker transparency
b. it does not require as much force to cut through the thinner transparency
c. MDC causes electrical interference with the front cockpit instruments
d. the typical student’s skull is thick and can handle the increased force

A

a

265
Q

Which of the following is not a major sub-assembly of the T-6A canopy frame?

a. Pressurization system
b. Locking/latching system
c. Sealing system
d. Canopy Fracturing System (CFS)

A

a

266
Q

The purpose of the CFS is to

a. close, fix, and secure the canopy.
b. seal the canopy to maintain pressurization.
c. fracture the canopy during ejection.
d. keep the center and forward windscreens clear of fog.

A

c

267
Q

What is the final step to ensure the canopy is properly latched?

a. Ensure the red mechanical indicator is not visible.
b. Rotate the internal canopy handle fully aft (counterclockwise).
c. Check for the green CANOPY annunciator on the forward panel.
d. Verify the green mechanical indicator is visible.

A

d

268
Q

Activating the CFS handle from the front cockpit activates the

a. front and rear systems simultaneously.
b. front system followed by the rear system after a .3 second delay.
c. front cockpit system only.
d. ejection system for the front cockpit only.

A

c

269
Q

Do not open the canopy if winds exceed __________ knots.

a. 25
b. 30
c. 35
d. 40

A

d

270
Q

During preflight, ensure that the external CFS handle

a. safety pin is removed and properly stowed.
b. safety pin is installed.
c. is completely retracted and secured.
d. doors are closed and locked.

A

d

271
Q

Assuming bleed air inflow is available, the pneumatic canopy pressure seal inflates when

a. the canopy is closed and locked.
b. passing approximately 8,000 feet pressure altitude.
c. weight is off of the right main landing gear.
d. the defog lever is placed in the CANOPY position.

A

c

272
Q

You required crew chief assistance to close and lock the canopy. You should

a. ask your instructor how to proceed.
b. proceed with the mission after ensuring the green mechanical indicators are visible.
c. not accept the aircraft and make a maintenance write-up in the forms.
d. open and attempt to reclose and lock the canopy from the inside.

A

d

273
Q

The pilot would use the MOR handle to separate from the seat __________. (B/1/1)

a. over water
b. while on the ground
c. while the seat is in the aircraft
d. over mountainous terrain above 8000 feet MSL

A

d

274
Q

When properly secured, you will be restrained with the torso harness connected to the risers and SSK while also ensuring the __________ and __________ are securely fastened. (B/1/2)

a. shoulder harness belts; lap belt
b. lap belt; oxygen connectors
c. shoulder belts; lap belt
d. lap belt; leg restraints

A

d

275
Q

What is the purpose of the leg restraint system? (B/1/3)

a. Prevent movement about the cockpit during flight
b. Prevent the feet from flailing during ejection
c. Ensure freedom of movement during ejection
d. Avoid constriction during ejection

A

b

276
Q

The emergency oxygen cylinder is considered charged if the pointer is at 1500 psi or above. (B/1/4)

a. True
b. False

A

b

277
Q

During ejection, emergency oxygen is provided __________. (B/1/5)

a. for about 10 minutes or until turned off
b. for about 10 minutes and after seat-pilot separation
c. for about 10 minutes or until seat-pilot separation
d. until seat-pilot separation or until it is turned off

A

c

278
Q

During ejection, what happens in the event the canopy fracturing system (CFS) fails? (B/1/6)

a. The ejection sequence is aborted.
b. The canopy breaker will penetrate the canopy transparency as the seat moves up the rails.
c. The breaker head box will shatter the canopy as the seat moves up the catapult rails.
d. The CFS must be reset.

A

b

279
Q

When flying dual, an ISS mode selector setting of __________ allows either crewmember to initiate ejection of both seats. (B/1/7)

a. SOLO
b. BOTH
c. CMD FWD
d. DUAL

A

b

280
Q

During the ejection process, movement of the seat is first initiated by __________. (B/2/1)

a. explosive hydraulic pressure
b. mechanical catapult thrust
c. detonated gas pressure
d. detonation of the rocket motor propellant

A

c

281
Q

What are the three factors affecting the effectiveness of the ejection system? (C/1/1)

a. Dive speed, bank angle, and climb rate
b. Dive angle, bank angle, and climb rate
c. Dive speed, rate of bank, and sink rate
d. Dive angle, bank angle, and sink rate

A

d

282
Q

Why is it a good practice to eject from the aircraft in a level flight attitude? (C/1/2)

a. Avoid a collision of the front and rear ejection seats
b. Ensure a clear path away from the airframe
c. Avoid flying debris and rocket motor blast
d. Ensure little or no sink rate

A

d

283
Q

What happens during simultaneous ejections (ISS mode selector is set to BOTH)? (C/2/1)

a. The front seat will be delayed until the rear seat is clear.
b. The rear seat will eject second.
c. Both seats eject simultaneously with the rear rocket motor firing first.
d. The rear seat will eject first.

A

d

284
Q

What happens if the ADU Mode Selector Switch is set to AUTO? (C/2/2)

a. The SSK will deploy 4.0 seconds after seat-pilot separation.
b. The pilot must use the manual release handle marked KIT RELEASE and wait 4 seconds.
c. The pilot must wait 4.5 seconds until the SSK is lowered.
d. The pilot must pull the manual release handle marked KIT RELEASE to release the SSK.

A

a

285
Q

The T-6A ejection seat is designed to provide rapid ejection capability at zero altitude and zero speed up to __________ feet and __________ KIAS.

a. 30,000; 300
b. 31,000; 350
c. 35,000; 370
d. 37,000; 370

A

c

286
Q

The ejection seat leg restraint garters are attached

a. just above the thigh.
b. just above the boots.
c. just below the knees.
d. just below the ankles.

A

b

287
Q

You will attach the SSK by connecting

a. the torso harness to the Frost fittings.
b. the lap belt to the torso harness Frost fittings.
c. the SSK V-rings on the torso harness to the seat buckles.
d. the SSK Frost fittings to the torso harness V-rings.

A

c

288
Q

The PIRD performs which of the following functions?

a. Retracts the shoulder harness straps during deceleration
b. Retracts the lap belt during ejection
c. Retracts the leg restraints during ejection
d. Retracts the shoulder harness straps during ejection

A

c

(“c” er det givne svar, men PIRD strammer harness…. - altså “d”

289
Q

Where are the parachute and chute harness assembly located?

a. Beneath the seat bucket
b. In the headbox
c. In the seat box
d. Behind and below the seat bucket

A

b

290
Q

What happens if the ADU Mode Selector Switch is set to AUTO?

a. The SSK is lowered 10 seconds after ejection
b. The SSK is lowered 4.0 seconds after seat-pilot separation
c. The SSK is lowered 4.0 seconds after ejection
d. The SSK is lowered 10 seconds after seat-pilot separation

A

B

291
Q

The ejection seat emergency oxygen system provides which of the following?

a. 10 seconds of oxygen
b. 1 minute of oxygen
c. 5 – 7 minutes of oxygen
d. 10 minutes of oxygen

A

d

292
Q

In order to prevent inadvertent activation of the ejection system while on the ground, each seat

a. has a seat release locking handle on the right side.
b. should be secured with a safety pin that has a red streamer.
c. should be lowered to the minimum height.
d. should have the safety pin with the red streamer removed.

A

b

293
Q

How is the T-6A ejection seat propelled?

a. Detonated gas pressure, rocket motor, and hydraulic power
b. Explosive motor and hydraulic power
c. Detonated gas pressure and rocket motor
d. Detonated gas pressure, hydraulic catapult, and rocket motor

A

c

294
Q

Prior to ejection, it is desirable to do which of the following?

a. Descend to trade altitude for airspeed
b. Climb to trade airspeed for altitude
c. Maintain altitude and increase airspeed
d. Alter altitude to gain adequate airspeed

A

b

295
Q

What is the purpose of the drogue chute?

a. Assists the catapult in transporting the seat during ejection
b. It opens the main parachute
c. Increases drag so the seats do not collide during ejection
d. Helps to stabilize and decelerate the seat

A

d

296
Q

Recommended minimum altitudes for controlled and uncontrolled ejection, according to the FlightManual, are __________ and __________ feet AGL respectively.

a. 2000; 6000
b. 3000; 6000
c. 6000; 2000
d. 15,000; 35,000

A

a

297
Q

Tubing from the emergency oxygen cylinder runs from the cylinder across the back of the seat bucket to the right side, and then connects to the

a. oxygen regulator.
b. anti-suffocation valve.
c. pilot’s CRU-60/P.
d. pilot’s oxygen mask.

A

c

298
Q

Proper seat adjustment during ejection is a safety issue because

a. adjusting the seat so your helmet is higher than the canopy breaker can have lethal results.
b. the leg restraint garters will not properly attach.
c. the ejection system only operates with the seat full down.
d. adjusting the seat so your helmet is lower than the canopy line can have serious results.

A

a

299
Q

Which switch controls the flow of fresh air to the cockpit during ground operations and unpressurized flight?

A

The RAM AIR FLOW switch on the Environmental Control Panel controls the position of the fresh air valve and thus the amount of airflow.

300
Q

True or false? The AIR COND switch is available in both cockpits and is used to activate the air conditioner compressor.

A

False; the AIR COND switch is located only in the front cockpit on the environmental control panel.

301
Q

True or false? Place the vent control lever in the CANOPY position to open the defog valve.

A

False; to open the defog valve, place the DEFOG switch in the ON position.

302
Q

Which cockpit control and duct component controls whether warm bleed air is routed to the footwarmers or defog outlets?

A

The front cockpit vent control lever adjusts the position of the cockpit selector valves to route warm air to either the footwarmers or the defog outlets.

303
Q

True or false? The Temperature Control Knob on the Environmental Control Panel controls the temperature of both heating and defogging air.

A

True; the knob controls the position of the heat exchanger bypass valve which determines the temperature of air for both heating and defogging.

304
Q

If cockpit pressure differential exceeds 4.0 psi, the ΔP regulator sends a signal to the safety outflow valve. What does the safety outflow valve do?

A

The safety valve will open to relieve excess cockpit pressure, regulating the pressure at 4.0 psi.

305
Q

You normally reach a cockpit pressure differential of 3.6 ±0.2 psi at what altitude?

A

18,069 feet

306
Q

True or false? An engine-driven pump supplies pressure for the anti-G system.

A

False; the engine right side P3 bleed air port supplies pressure to the system.

307
Q

Which oxygen pressure regulator concentration lever position supplies the highest possible oxygen concentration?

A

MAX.

308
Q

When is the canopy pressure seal inflated?

A

The seal inflates automatically when bleed air inflow is available and the aircraft’s weight is off the right main landing gear.

309
Q

True or false? Aircraft or external electrical power must be available for the canopy fracturing system to function.

A

False. The CFS requires no electricity to function.

310
Q

The T-6A Martin-Baker ejection seat is a zero-zero seat usable up to what altitude and airspeed?

A

35,000 feet and 370 KIAS

311
Q

How would you deploy the parachute if the automatic system fails?

A

Use the manual override (MOR) handle on the right side of the seat bucket.

312
Q

When activated, the emergency oxygen bottle supplies oxygen for how long?

A

About 10 minutes

313
Q

Illumination of the CKPT PX annunciator indicates what?

A

Cockpit pressure exceeding 3.9 to 4.0 psi, indicating a problem in the pressurization outflow system

314
Q

The CKPT ALT annunciator is illuminated, indicating the cockpit altitude exceeds 19,000 feet. What ΔP reading do you expect to see?

A

ΔP less than 3.4 PSI

315
Q

What indication do you expect to accompany the OBOGS FAIL annunciation?

A

A flashing MASTER WARN switchlight on the instrument panel.

316
Q

What supplies bleed air for heating, defogging, pressurization, anti-G, and OBOGS?

A

Left and right engine compressor P₃ ports

317
Q

True or false? The entire canopy is reinforced for birdstrikes.

A

False. Only the windscreen and front cockpit transparency reinforced.

318
Q

With the ejection seat ADU mode selector switch set to AUTO, when does the SSK deploy during the ejection sequence?

A

Approximately 4 seconds after seat/pilot separation

319
Q

True or false? The T-6 air conditioning system is electrically operated and is available when electrical power is applied to the aircraft.

A

False. Air conditioning depends on an engine-driven compressor which only operates with the: Engine running; generator on-line; AIR COND and/or DEFOG switch is ON

320
Q

Which control opens the defog valve?

A

The DEFOG switch opens the defog valve.

321
Q

Which annunciator will illuminates if duct air temperature exceeds 300 °F?

A

DUCT TEMP

322
Q

True or false? Emergency oxygen activates automatically in the event of OBOGS failure.

A

False; you must manually activate emergency oxygen in the event of OBOGS failure. Emergency oxygen activates automatically only during ejection.

323
Q

OBOGS provides oxygen for approximately how many hours of flight?

A

OBOGS generates oxygen from bleed air and so it is technically unlimited.

324
Q

True or false? The CKPT ALT annunciator indicates the cockpit is overpressurized.

A

False. It indicates a cockpit pressure altitude is 19,000 feet or higher, usually due to loss of cockpit pressurization.

325
Q

Which outlets provide cooled air conditioner air?

A

Cooled air from the evaporator/blower module discharges through an “eyeball” outlet in the console and duct outlets on the glareshield in each cockpit.

326
Q

When you set the interseat seat sequencer to SOLO, which seat ejects first?

A

Only the activating seat ejects

327
Q

True or false? The anti-G system activates only during negative-G maneuvers.

A

False. The anti-G system only activates during positive-G maneuvers.

Flight questions (27 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions