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sunday randoms Flashcards

1
Q

naked viruses

A

papillomavirus, adenovirus, parvovirus, polyomavirus, calicivirus, picornavirus, reovirus, hepevirus

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2
Q

DNA viruses

A

polyomavirus, papillomavirus, parvovirus, pox virus, herpes virus, hepadnavirus, adenovirus

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3
Q

owl eye intra-nuclear inclusions

A

CMV

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4
Q

Tzanck smear

A

HSV

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5
Q

receptors used by HIV viruses

A

CCR5, CXCR4, CD4

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6
Q

Rhinovirus reveptos

A

ICAM-1

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7
Q

receptors used by CMV

A

integrins (heparan sulfate)

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8
Q

receptor used by EBV

A

CD21

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9
Q

receptor used by Parvovirus B19

A

P antigen on RBCs

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10
Q

all RNA viruses replicated in cytoplasm except

A

retrovirus, influenza virus

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11
Q

picornaviruses

A

RNA PERCH - poliovirus, echovirus, rhinovirus, coxsackie virus, HAV

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12
Q

paramyxoviruses

A

RNA - parainfluenza, RSV, measles, mumps

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13
Q

flaviviruses

A

HCV and arbovirus, arthrophod borne (yellow fever, zika, west nile, st. louis encephalitis, dengue)

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14
Q

segmented viruses

A

BOAR - bunyavirus, orhtomyxovirus, arenavirus, reovirus

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15
Q

which hepatitis viruses have risk for HCC?

A

HBV, HCV, HDV

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16
Q

MHC class II

A

primarily APCs - macrophages, DCs and B cells

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17
Q

Quellung reaction

A

capsule swelling after bacterium is exposed to its capsular antigens - strep pneumo

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18
Q

causes of reactive arthritis

A

chlamydia, salmonella, shigella, yersinia, campylobacter, clostridium dificeil

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19
Q

HLA that increases chances of reactive arthritis

A

HLAB27

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20
Q

disseminated gonococcal infections

A

triad of tenosynovitis, dermatitis, and non-purulent polyarthralgias

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21
Q

causes of prader willi

A

absence of paternal contribution on 15 either my microdeletions of paternal region or maternal uniparental disomy

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22
Q

HLA DQ2 and DQ8

A

celiac sprue

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23
Q

anti-gliadin IgA antbodies with transglutaminases at dermal basement membrane

A

dermatitis herpetiformis in celiac sprue

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24
Q

macrophages with accumulated PAS positive granules

A

whipple disease

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25
Q

cobbleston mucosa and transmural inflammation

A

crohn disease

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26
Q

clinical features of PCOS

A

androgen excess, ovarian dysfunction, insulin resistance, obesity

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27
Q

PCOS treatment

A

weight loss, combo OCP, metformin

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28
Q

what determines cellular differentiation?

A

transcription factor milieu within an individual cell; tissue specific TF allow only for the expression of genes that are relvant for a particular cell type

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29
Q

why left varicocele more common?

A

left testicular vein drains into left renal vein which can easily be impinged by SMA

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30
Q

where is fluid accumulation in a hydrocele?

A

b/w parietal and visceral layers of the tunica vaginalis

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31
Q

firm painless testicular mass that does not transilluminate

A

testicular CA

32
Q

acanthosis nigricans

A

insulin resistance or obesity, but also malignancy within the GI tract or lungs

33
Q

clinical features of DiGeorge syndrome

A

conotruncal cardiac defects (persistent truncus arteriosus, t of F, interrupted aortic arch), abnormal facies, thymic aplasia/hypoplasia (defective T cell-mediated immunity), cleft palate, hypocalcemia (absent parathyroid glands, leads to tetany and seizures)

34
Q

which phayngeal pouches fail to develop in DiGeorge syndrome

35
Q

defective CD40L on Th cells, defective class switching

A

Hyper IgM syndrome

36
Q

immunodeficiency that leads to NO b cell differentiation

A

x-linked agammaglobulinemia

37
Q

sphingomyelinase deficiency

A

niemann-pick

38
Q

arylsulfatase A deficiency

A

metachromatic leukodystrophy

39
Q

b-hexosaminidase A deficiency

40
Q

wrinkled tissue papaer on electron microscopy

A

accumulation of glycolipid glucocerebroside in lysomsomes of macrophages in Gaucher disease

41
Q

which two lysosomal storage diseases appear early in life, are fatal, and have cherry red spot on fundoscopic exam

A

tay sachs and niemann pick

42
Q

anti-TNF agents

A

infliximab, etanercept

43
Q

inhibits Bcr-Abl tyrosine kinase

44
Q

folate antimetabolite that prevents DNA synthesis

A

methotrexate, targets rapidly dividing cells

45
Q

fungal infection in HIV patient with CD4 < 200

A

pneumocystis jiroveci

46
Q

what would CXR look like with asthma exacerbation?

47
Q

paired box (PAX)

A

important for embyrologic specification of certain itssues

48
Q

mutation in PAX 6

A

ocular defects (aniridia), PAX gene specific for the eye

49
Q

TP53

A

tumor suppressor gene mutated in Li-Fraumeni

50
Q

HOX genes

A

encodes transcription factors that guid the pattern of embryo development along the rostro-caudal, limb, and genital axes

51
Q

mutation HOXA13

A

hand-foot-gential syndrome

52
Q

sudden-onset back pain, hematuria, oliguira, high anion gap metabolic acidosis

A

ethylene glycol

53
Q

lymphatic drainage from what structures is seen in right supraclavicular node?

A

mediastinum, lungs, esophagus

54
Q

lymphatic drainage from what structures in seen in posteriior clavicular nodes?

A

scalp, neck, skin of arms and pectorals, thorax, cervical and axillary nodes

55
Q

left supraclavicular nodes (virchow’s node)

A

drainage from all abdominal viscera, viscera of left hemithorax, all tissuess inferior to the umbiliculs and all left-sided tissues superior to the umbilicus

56
Q

when may virchow’s node become enlarged?

A

abdominal malignancies, breast CA, lung CA, and lymphoproliferative disorders

57
Q

inguinal lymph nodes

A

lower extremities, lower abdominal wall, genitalia, buttocks

58
Q

celiac artery

A

T12; lower esophagus to proximal duodenum, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, spleen

59
Q

SMA

A

L1; distal duodenum to proximal 2/3 of transverse colon

60
Q

IMA

A

distal 1/3 transverse colon to upper portion of rectum

61
Q

B12 absorption

A

bind to IF in stomach, absorbed in distal ileum

62
Q

Warriors from Germany love Smoking

A

Warthrin tumor - benign salivary gland tumor with germinal centers typically found in smokers

63
Q

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

A

malignant tumor of salivary gland

64
Q

crohns biopsy

A

flattening of villi, hyperplasia of crypts, increased intraepithelial lymphocytes

65
Q

most damage in crohns?

66
Q

tropical sprue location

A

jejunum and ileum

67
Q

what is absorbed jejunum?

A

folic acid

68
Q

absorbed in ileum?

69
Q

small bowel cancer

A

carcinoid tumor; chromogranin stain; secretes serotonin which is metabolized by liver

70
Q

carcinoid syndrome

A

secreted serotonin goes into systemic circulation - bronchospasm, diarrhea, flushing, right sided valvular fibrosis

71
Q

why no left heart involvement in carcinoid syndrome?

A

MAO exists in lungs so serotonin is converted before able to do bad stuff

72
Q

pANCA

A

Churg-Strauss, microscopic polyangitis, ulcerative colitis

73
Q

what’s the role of ASA in intestinal polyps?

A

blocks COX and thus prevents cancerous transformation

74
Q

APC gene chromosome 5

75
Q

what to do when diagnosed with FAP?

A

remove colon and rectum because SUPER high chance to develop CA by age of 40

76
Q

Peutz Jeghers syndrome

A

hamartomaous polyps throughout GI tract, hyperpigmentation on lips, mucosa, genital area, AD, increased risk of breast, colorectal and GYN cancer

neuro (34 decks)

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