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Call of the Heavies > SIT question bank (oral prep) > Flashcards

SIT question bank (oral prep) Flashcards

1
Q

What does the “AVAIL” light mean on the external and APU PWR switches?

A

Power quality is acceptable

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2
Q

What bus is powered on the ground when APU GEN 1 or EXT PWR 1 is available?

A

Ground handling bus

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3
Q

When is the main deck cargo handling bus powered?

A

Whenever EXT 2 or APU 2 is plugged in and AVAIL (but not selected ON).

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4
Q

What electrical power source would you need to select if cargo handling is required?

A

EXT 1 or APU 1

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5
Q

When is the ground service bus powered?

A

Anytime AC bus 1 is powered.

Or, if AC bus 1 not powered, can be powered from APU 1 or EXT 1 by pressing the Ground Service switch (1L).

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6
Q

What is the function of the standby power switch in AUTO?

A

It allows the standby busses to be powered by available sources automatically. (Referring to main standby bus and APU standby bus).

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7
Q

Where would you find the electrical power up procedure?

A

FCOM Vol. 1

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8
Q

What does a bus isolation (ISLN) light illuminated indicate?

A

It means that the BTB is open and the AC bus is isolated from the synchronous bus. (bus still powered, just isolated.)

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9
Q

What happens when you press a generator drive disconnect switch? (DRIVE DISC)

A

Disconnects IDG from engine. Opens related GCB.

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10
Q

What condition would automatically disconnect the IDG if not manually disconnected?

A

High IDG oil temperature

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11
Q

How do you reconnect an IDG that has been disconnected?

A

You don’t. MX has to do it on the ground.

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12
Q

What does a generator DRIVE light indicate?

A

-High IDG oil temp
-Low IDG oil pressure
-Uncorrectable generator freq. fault

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13
Q

What are some of the equipment items powered on the utility busses?

A

-Forward main fuel pumps 2 and 3
-Forward overr/jett pumps 2 and 3
-Center overr/jett pump CWT L
-Galley equipment

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14
Q

Describe the electrical load shedding process.

A

ELCUs automatically control load shedding and shed utility busses as needed. Whatever order the ELCU removed items, it will restore them in reverse order.

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15
Q

What is the purpose of the electrical system overload protection?

A

So the main AC busses do not get overloaded. You have systems in place to prevent the loss of critical components due to an overload. The less important things are shedded to preserve the more important things.

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16
Q

During load shedding, would you expect to see an EICAS advisory message ELEC UTIL BUS L, R?

A

No

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17
Q

What are the main AC electrical power sources?

A

-2 APU gens
-2 EXT power
-4 IDGs

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18
Q

Describe the function of the split system breaker (SSB).

A

It divides the synchronous bus into 2 parts. It allows for segregation of non-synchronized power sources to power their own sides of the system, and also allows a single source or multiple synchronized sources to power the entire system.

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19
Q

Describe the electrical system sequence of events during an engine start with the SSB open.

A

APU GEN 1 and 2 are being used, SSB open. After 1 engine start, that side is all off IDG, SSB still open. After an engine started across the SSB, the SSB closes.

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20
Q

Describe the electrical system sequence of events with a single power source with the SSB closed during an engine start.

A

-

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21
Q

Which bus powers the captain transfer bus and main standby bus?

A

AC bus 3

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22
Q

Which bus powers the First Officer transfer bus?

A

AC bus 2

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23
Q

Which bus provides power for both transfer busses?

A

AC bus 1

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24
Q

What are some items on the ground service bus?

A

-Battery chargers
-Fuel pumps for APU start
-Flight deck flood lights/service lights
-Nav lights
-Misc. outlets

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25
Q

How can the ground service bus be powered when AC bus 1 is not powered, while on the ground?

A

If EXT 1 or APU 1 is powering the ground handling bus, you can press the “ground service” switch near door L1 to power the ground service bus.

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26
Q

What are some of the equipment items powered by the ground handling bus?

A

-Lower lobe handling equipment and lights
-Fueling system
-Aux hydraulic pump 4 (and 1 if installed)

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27
Q

What bus powers the APU standby bus?

A

Captain transfer bus

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28
Q

How is the electrical system configured during an autoland?

A

AC bus 1, 2, 3 and all isolated off of the synchronous bus. AC bus 4 remains on the synchronous bus and acts as a standby to step in if 1,2,3 fails.

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29
Q

What are some of the major components of the AC standby power system?

A

-Main and APU Standby Busses
-Main and APU batteries
-Main and APU and Standby inverters

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30
Q

What is the normal source of power for the main standby bus?

A

AC bus 3

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31
Q

What is the backup power source for the main standby bus?

A

Main standby inverter

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32
Q

If both AC bus 3 and AC bus 1 are not powered, how is the main standby bus powered? How long can it be powered?

A

Via the main battery (battery to hot battery bus to battery bus to main standby inverter to main standby bus). Essentially, the main battery. It can last for 30 minutes.

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33
Q

What are some of the equipment items on the main standby bus?

A

-Left CDU
-Left ILS and VOR
-Standby ignition all engines
-Left ADC

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34
Q

What are the equipment items on the APU standby bus?

A

-Left FMC
-Left ND
-Left PFD

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35
Q

How is DC power provided by the electrical system?

A

4 TRUs convert AC power to DC power.

(The battery chargers also convert AC to DC to charge the batteries)

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36
Q

What is the normal power source for the main and APU battery busses?

A

DC bus 3.

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37
Q

If either AC bus 3 or DC bus 3 are unpowered, what powers the main and APU battery busses?

A

By its related hot battery bus

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38
Q

What are some items on the main battery bus?

A

-Fuel valves
-Crossfeed valves
-Dome and storm lights

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39
Q

How is each hot battery bus normally powered?

A

Each respective battery chargers via Ground service bus

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40
Q

What are some items on the main hot battery bus?

A

-APU shutoff valve
-APU and lower cargo fire extinguishers
-Engine fire extinguishers

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41
Q

What are some items on the APU hot battery bus?

A

-IRUs
-Outflow valves
-APU inlet door and APU controller

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42
Q

What does EICAS mean?

A

Engine Indications and Crew Alerting System

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43
Q

What are the 3 types of EICAS messages?

A

Alert, memo, status.

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44
Q

What are the 3 priority levels of alert messages?

A

Warning, caution, advisory

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45
Q

What is the highest priority alert message?

A

Warning

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46
Q

Can warning messages be cancelled using the CANC switch?

A

No

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47
Q

Can amber alert messages be cancelled or recalled?

A

Yes

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48
Q

What is an advisory message?

A

The lowest priority alert message. They are amber but indented

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49
Q

Where is the most recent EICAS message displayed?

A

At the top of its priority group

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50
Q

What is a memo message and where are they displayed?

A

Reminders of flight crew selected normal conditions. Display in white at the bottom of the last EICAS page.

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51
Q

Give examples of EICAS memo messages.

A

-PARK BRAKE SET
-AUTOBRAKES RTO
-PACKS OFF
-APU RUNNING

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52
Q

What does the STATUS cue mean? What color is it?

A

It displays on primary EICAS whenever a new STATUS message exists. It is white.

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53
Q

What is the function of the EIU selector in the AUTO position?

A

The EUI L will be used first. If that fails, auto switch to C. If that fails, auto switch to R. In summary, AUTO allows for automatic switching to a functional EIU.

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54
Q

If you had previously exceeded an engine parameter, such as an EGT, what would happen when you press the RCL switch?

A

The red band on the vertical gage would reappear.

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55
Q

What alert displays are shown or displayed on the PFD?

A

EGPWS, TCAS, WINDSHEAR, AIRSPEED LOW, and OVERSPEED.

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56
Q

When you receive a TCAS RA, where do you position the center of the airplane symbol on the PFD?

A

In the pitch to region

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57
Q

How many events can the EICAS EVENT RCD switch record?

A

5

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58
Q

What type of EICAS message are listed in the DDG and provide cross reference to the MEL for dispatch capability?

A

Status messages

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59
Q

Which engines, when advanced, will display the EICAS alert message CONFIG, if the airplane is not configured for takeoff?

A

2 or 3

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60
Q

What configuration conditions will cause the CONFIG message to display?

A

Airplane on ground with fuel control switches in RUN, engine 2 or 3 is in takeoff range, and airspeed is less than V1 and one of the following:
-Flaps not in takeoff setting
-Body gear not centered
-Parking brake set
-Speedbrake lever not DN
-Stab trim not in takeoff range

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61
Q

What configuration conditions will cause the CONFIG GEAR message to display?

A

Airplane is in flight with the gear not down and locked with either of the following:
-Any thrust lever idle and RA less than 800’
-Flaps in a landing position

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62
Q

When does the c-chord sound prior to reaching selected altitude?

A

900 to go

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63
Q

How many feet off the selected altitude will cause the EICAS alert ALTITUDE ALERT?

A

300’

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64
Q

Name some ground proximity warning system features provided.

A

-Look-ahead terrain alerting system
-Terrain map
-Windshear alerting system
-Bank angle voice alerts
-Altitude voice annunciations during approach

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65
Q

TERRAIN, TERRAIN, PULL UP voice annunciation sounds when how many seconds from projected impact with terrain? How about CAUTION, TERRAIN?

A

TERRAIN, TERRAIN, PULL UP: 20-30 seconds from impact

CAUTION, TERRAIN: 40-40 seconds from impact

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66
Q

When are master CAUTION lights and beeper inhibited during takeoff?

A

80 knots to 400’ RA (or 20 seconds after rotation).

If rejected takeoff occurs, inhibit continues until below 75 knots.

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67
Q

New predictive windshear warnings are inhibited at what airspeed during takeoff? When do they come back?

A

100 knots. Come back at 50’ RA.

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68
Q

When are master WARNING lights and bell for new FIRE messages inhibited during takeoff?

A

V1. Comes back at 400’ or 25 seconds after V1.

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69
Q

What are the start sources for the APU, and which one do we normally use?

A

-APU start transformer rectifier (powered by utility bus 4)
-APU battery

Normal: Battery. (Burning up too many TRs so battery is normal)

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70
Q

Can the APU be operated in flight?

A

Yes

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71
Q

Is electrical power from the APU available in flight? How about bleed air?

A

No electrical.

Yes bleed air. (1 pack up to 15,000)

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72
Q

What APU components are powered by the APU battery?

A

-DC electric starter
-Inlet door
-APU controller
-DC fuel pump
-APU fire detection system

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73
Q

What APU components are powered by the main battery?

A

-APU fire extinguisher
-APU fuel valve
-Standby APU controller

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74
Q

What powers the APU starter during a battery start sequence?

A

The APU battery

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75
Q

What happens if a TR should overheat with the start source in TR?

A

It will automatically switch to battery during the start sequence. But it will not allow any more start attempts until you move the source from TR to APU BATTERY.

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76
Q

How does a TR failure affect APU starting?

A

Unlike an overheat, automatic switching is not provided. The start source must be moved to APU BATTERY which removes the TR from the start process, allowing a battery start.

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77
Q

When does the EICAS memo message APU RUNNING display?

A

When the APU selector is in the ON position and the APU RPM is at least 95%.

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78
Q

Describe the APU shutdown sequence.

A

Turn APU selector to OFF.
1. Bleed air valve closes
2.) APU cooldown for 60 seconds
3.) APU fuel valve closes, shutting down APU.

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79
Q

What would happen if the battery switch is positioned OFF prior to completion of the APU shutdown cooldown period?

A

It would kill the APU immediately.

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80
Q

How long should you wait before turning the battery switch OFF after the APU selector is rotated to OFF, and why?

A

2 minutes.

This is to ensure a complete shutdown sequence with fire detection capability. Fire detection is on the main battery. Shutting it off might mean you would not be notified of a fire.

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81
Q

What would cause the APU to shutdown automatically?

A

If a limit is exceeded or a fire is detected.

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82
Q

Which 2 engine indications are displayed full time on the EICAS?

A

N1

EGT

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83
Q

State the sequence of events that occur when you pull a start switch with the autostart switch ON.

A

1.) Arms start valve
2.) Opens engine bleed air valve

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84
Q

State the sequence of events that occur when you pull a start switch with the autostart switch OFF.

A

1.) Opens start valve
2.) Opens engine bleed air valve

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85
Q

Which 2 valves close at 50% N2 during engine start?

A

Start valve
Bleed air valve

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86
Q

What is the function of the AUTO ignition selector in the SINGLE position?

A

It will alternate between igniter 1 or 2 after each ground start. In flight during engine start or flameout, it will fire both.

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87
Q

What is the function of the Standby (STBY) IGNITION selector in NORM?

A

It uses AC power to power the selected igniters. If AC power is unavailable, it automatically switches to use standby power.

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88
Q

What happens when you turn the continuous (CON) ignition switch ON?

A

It fires selected igniters on all engines simultaneously.

It also commands approach idle minimum.

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89
Q

When is ignition selected for each individual engine?

A

-During start when N2 less than 50%
-Nacelle anti-ice ON for that engine
-Engine flames out

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90
Q

When is ignition selected for all engines?

A

-Trailing edge flaps are out of the up position.
-The CON ignition switch is ON

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91
Q

What color does the EGT change to if the EGT start limit is exceeded?

A

Red

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92
Q

What does X-BLD mean when displayed next to the N1 indication when an engine is shut down?

A

You are in flight and above the engine start altitude, so a cross bleed start is required.

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93
Q

How many igniters are selected for ground start? For inflight start?

A

Ground: 1 (Unless you select both)

Inflight: 2, regardless of switch position.

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94
Q

Describe the autostart sequence when the autostart is ON.

A

1.) Pull start switch
2.) Arms start valve
3.) Opens bleed air valve
4.) Fuel selector is moved to RUN
5.) Start valve opens
6.) Fuel metering valve opens
7.) Igniter energizes
8.) At 50% N2, start switch is released, start and bleed valves close, ignition discontinues.
9.) EEC monitors N2 and stabilizes it at idle.

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95
Q

During an engine start, the autostart system can abort the start for which 3 malfunctions?

A

-Hot start
-Hung start
-No EGT rise

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96
Q

Which 2 parameters does the autostart system not monitor?

A

-Oil pressure
-N1 rotation

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97
Q

How does the EEC protect against an impending hot start, hung start, or no EGT rise?

A

Hot and hung starts: EEC cuts off fuel and ignition, reschedules fuel, tries again. It makes 3 attempts then motors for 30 seconds before closing the start and bleed air valves.

No EGT rise. EEC cuts off fuel and ignition, motors for 30 seconds, tries this 3 times. After the final attempt, it motors for 30 seconds and then closes the start and bleed air valves.

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98
Q

At what EGT limit does the EEC abort an inflight start through the autostart system?

A

The takeoff limit. (On the ground it would be the start limit.)

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99
Q

How is the engine cooled?

A

Oil

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100
Q

How is engine thrust reverser actuated?

A

Engine bleed air

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101
Q

What protects the thrust reversers from deploying inadvertently in flight?

A

If a reverser unlocks and deploys inadvertently, the reverser system applies bleed air to stow and lock the reverser.

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102
Q

What is broadband vibration in the airborne vibration monitoring system, and how is it displayed?

A

If the vibration monitoring system cannot determine the source (fan, LPT, or N2), broadband (BB) displays for the affected engine.

It is displayed on the secondary EICAS under VIB

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103
Q

How many fuel tanks does the aircraft have and what are their approximate capacities?

A

7 fuel tanks.
Main 1 and 4: 26.5 tons
Main 2 and 3: 76.2 tons
Center: 52.1 tons
Reserve tanks: 8 tons

TOTAL: 163 tons

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104
Q

What commands fuel valves to open or close and fuel pumps to turn on or off based on system logic?

A

FSMCs. (Fuel system management cards)

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105
Q

Which crossfeed valves are affected by flap extension on the ground?

A

2 and 3

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106
Q

Which fuel pumps are system logic pumps? In other words, which pumps turn on and off by system logic during normal operations?

A

Override/jettison pumps

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107
Q

Trace the fuel flow to the engines when there is more than 7,700 kgs in the CWT from blockout.

A

-Flaps are extended
-Crossfeed valves 2 and 3 close
-Engines 1 and 4 off of CWT via CWT pumps
-Engines 2 and 3 off of main 2 and 3 pumps
-After takeoff crossfeed valves 2 and 3 open (when flaps not in takeoff position)
-All 4 engines feed from CWT pumps
-When CWT reaches 2,300 kgs, CWT pumps should be turned off, main 2 and 3 jettison/override pumps provide fuel for all 4 engines
-Reserve tanks gravity feed main 2 and 3 when main 2 and 3 reaches 18,200 kgs
-Once inboard mains reach level of outboard mains, each tank feeds its respective engine via main pumps

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108
Q

Trace the flow of fuel to the engines when there is less than 7,700 kgs of fuel in the CWT from blockout.

A

-Flaps are extended
-Crossfeed valves 2 and 3 close
-Override/jettison pumps 2 and 3 supply fuel to their outboard engines
-Main pumps 2 and 3 provide fuel to their respective engines
-After takeoff when flaps not in takeoff position, crossfeed 2 and 3 open
-Override/jettison pumps 2 and 3 provide fuel to all engines on their respective side
-Reserve tanks gravity feed main 2 and 3 when main 2 and 3 reaches 18,200 kgs
-Once inboard mains reach level of outboard mains, each tank feeds its respective engine via main pumps

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109
Q

When do the FSMCs open the reserve transfer valves?

A

When main 2 or 3 reaches 18,200 kgs

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110
Q

Under what conditions would fuel automatically transfer from the outboard mains directly to the inboard mains? (1 to 2 and 4 to 3)

A

-During fuel jettison when either 2 or 3 reaches 9,072 kgs

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111
Q

Can fuel be manually transferred from any tank to another tank?

A

Yes

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112
Q

What occurs when fuel jettison switch is selected to either A or B?

A

-EICAS fuel temperature is replaced with a fuel remaining indication.
-Arms fuel jettison system

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113
Q

Describe how the fuel quantity indication changes upon termination of a fuel jettison

A

-Fuel to remain indication switches from magenta to white
-Flashes for 5 seconds

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114
Q

What occurs when either fuel jettison switch is pushed ON during the fuel jettison procedure?

A

-Activates all fuel override/jettison pumps in tanks containing fuel (pump switches must be on)
-The related jettison nozzle opens

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115
Q

What is the source of fuel for the APU?

A

Main tank 2

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116
Q

In general, how are fuel imbalance situations handled?

A

By opening and closing crossfeed valves and turning on and off fuel pump switches. (QRH procedure would guide you step by step)

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117
Q

What is the impact on the aircraft in an excessive fuel imbalance?

A

-Adversely affects CG
-More drag
-Poor fuel economy

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118
Q

When is an engine on suction feed, and how are suction feed conditions corrected?

A

-Suction feed happens when main tank fuel pump pressure is low
-Can be corrected by opening crossfeed valves to get pressure from another fuel pump

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119
Q

Does the suction feed line go through the main tank fuel pumps?

A

No, it bypasses them. That is the point of suction feed. If the pumps fail or are not providing good pressure, it just sucks fuel from the tank directly.

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120
Q

A single main tank fuel pump can provide sufficient fuel to how many engines?

A

Takeoff thrust: 1 engine
Cruise: 2 engines

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121
Q

A single main tank 2 or 3 override/jettison pump can provide sufficient fuel to how any engines?

A

Takeoff thrust: 2 engines
Cruise thrust: 2 engines

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122
Q

Can the main tank 2 or 3 override/jettison pump operate when the related main tank is below 3,200 kgs? (standpipe level)

A

No. Standpipe level is where they stop working

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123
Q

Fuel tank temperature is measured in which tank?

A

Main 1

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124
Q

When does the fuel temperature display on primary EICAS turn amber?

A

When the fuel reaches -37C

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125
Q

How is the center wing tank fuel scavenged?

A

When tank 2 or 3 reaches 27,200 kgs, 4 jet pumps push the fuel out of the CWT into main 2 and 3.

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126
Q

What 3 different conditions will generate a fuel imbalance EICAS message?

A

-1,360 kgs between 1 and 4
-2,720 kgs between 2 and 3
-2,720 kgs inboard and outboard after FUEL TANK/ENG EICAS displayed

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127
Q

When does the fuel imbalance message go away?

A

-When difference less than 450 kgs

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128
Q

What does a crossfeed valve ON with the bar visible indication mean on crossfeed switches 2 and 3?

A

-Crossfeed valve open when commanded by SYSTEM LOGIC

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129
Q

What does a crossfeed valve ON with the bar visible indication mean on crossfeed switches 1 and 4?

A

-Crossfeed valve open

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130
Q

When are override/jettison pumps 2 and 3 displayed in cyan on the fuel system synoptic?

A

-When they are ARMED by system logic

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131
Q

What unlocks a fire switch?

A

-Fire detected
-Fuel selector to CUTOFF
-Manual override unlick switch

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132
Q

How many engine fire extinguishers are provided?

A

-4 total.

-2 per wing

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133
Q

What occurs when an engine fire switch is pulled out?

A

-Closes engine and spar fuel valves
-Closes engine bleed valve
-Trips off generator
-Shuts off hydraulic fluid to the engine driven hydraulic pump and depressureizes the pump
-Arms both fire extinguishers on that wing

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134
Q

How many APU fire bottles?

A

1

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135
Q

Can you shut down APU from outside the plane?

A

Yes, by using the APU Ground Control Fire Protection Panel, located in the right body gear well

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136
Q

What action discharges the fire extinguisher for an engine or an APU?

A

Rotating the associated fire switch.

(APU fire on the ground automatically discharges the extinguisher)

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137
Q

Describe the fire protection system for the forward and aft lower lobes.

A

-4 extinguisher bottles total
-Arm switch turns off 2 packs, arms fire extinguishers, configures equipment cooling into override mode, turns off all airflow and heat to lower lobes, closes master trim air valve.
-Discharging the bottle discharges extinguishers to provide an effective concentration for 210 minutes (400F) or other set period of time for other variants.

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138
Q

What happens when you push a FWD or AFT cargo fire arm switch?

A

-Arm switch turns off 2 packs,
-Arms fire extinguishers
-Configures equipment cooling into override mode
-Turns off all airflow and heat to lower lobes
-Closes master trim air valve.

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139
Q

What type of compartment is the main deck cargo compartment? (regarding fire rating)

A

Class E

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140
Q

What happens if you push the CARGO FIRE DEPRESS/DISCH switch with the main deck cargo fire arm switch armed?

A

Initiates aircraft depressurization to a pressure slightly below actual aircraft altitude.

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141
Q

What happens when you push the main deck cargo fire ARM switch?

A

-Enables main deck fire suppression
-Turns off 2 packs
-Configures equipment cooling to closed loop
-Turns off all airflow to main deck and airflow and heat to lower lobes
-Closes master trim air valve

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142
Q

Describe the engine fire/overheat detection system.

A

-Dual loop fire detection on each engine nacelle
-Dual loop overheat detection in each engine
-Both loops must be activated for either overheat or fire to trigger a fire alert

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143
Q

Describe the APU fire/overheat detection system?

A

-Dual loop fire detector
-No overheat detection
-Either loop sets off fire warning
-Either loop on the ground blows extinguisher bottle

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144
Q

Describe the cargo compartment fire detection system?

A

-Forward and aft have 4 dual loop smoke detectors
-Main deck has 16 dual loop smoke detectors
-Air is sampled via bleed air pressure through all detectors
-Both loops must detect smoke to set off warning.

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145
Q

What happens if a fault occurs in one loop upon completion of any fire and overheat system test?

A

-System reconfigures for single loop operation
-If the operating loop detects fire, overheat, or smoke, it triggers the fire warning

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146
Q

What fire detection system is provided in the wheel wells?

A

-Each main gear wheel well has single loop detector

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147
Q

Is there smoke detection provided in the crew rest areas?

A

Yes (aural warning)

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148
Q

Describe the lavatory smoke detection/protection system.

A

-Smoke detection is provided in LAV (aural warning)
-Automatic fire extinguisher in the trash can

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149
Q

When will the demand pumps be commanded to operate if the demand pump switch is in AUTO?

A

ALL:
-EDP pressure low
-Fuel selector set to CUTOFF
1 and 4 only:
-Trailing edge flaps in transit
-Flaps greater than 1 in flight

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150
Q

What does the hydraulic system (SYS FAULT) light indicate?

A

-Low pressure
-Low quantity
-Exessively high temperature

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151
Q

What does a hydraulic demand pump PRESS light indicate?

A

-Pump is off (or AUX)
-Low pressure when pump is on
-Pump failed

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152
Q

What does a hydraulic reservoir quantity indication of .80 mean, as displayed on the secondary EICAS?

A

Fluid 80% of normal service level

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153
Q

What does a magenta RF displayed next to a hydraulic quantity indicator on the secondary EICAS mean?

A

On the ground only-
Means its time to refill that hydraulic reservoir

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154
Q

When is the engine driven hydraulic pump pressurized?

A

-EDP switch on
-Engine running
-Fire switch not pulled

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155
Q

Which demand pumps are air driven, and which demand pumps are electric?

A

1 and 4: Air (from bleed air manifold)

2 and 3: Electric

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156
Q

What is the purpose of the auxiliary hydraulic pump?

A

Used for ground operations

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157
Q

Why are the hydraulic reservoirs pressurized by bleed air?

A

-To prevent cavitation
-To provide positive flow in high demand situations

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158
Q

How does pulling a fire switch affect the hydraulic system?

A

-Related hydraulic shutoff valve closes
-EDP depressurizes
-Related demand pump operates

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159
Q

What are some examples of major system components powered by each hydraulic system?

A

Systems 1 and 4: Trailing edge flaps, body gear, normal brakes (4), alternate brakes (1), and steering. System 1 also provides redundant power to flight controls

Systems 2 and 3: Primary flight controls, stabilizer trim, and elevator feel. System 2 also provides alternate brakes and lower yaw damper. System 3 also powers upper yaw damper.

Systems 1, 2 and 3: L, C, R autopilot servos (3, 1, 2 = L, C, R)

Systems 2, 3, and 4: Spoilers

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160
Q

How many flap control units (FCUs) are provided?

A

3

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161
Q

What are the basic functions of the FCUs?

A

-Primary control
-Secondary control
-Indication and annunciation

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162
Q

How many groups of leading edge flaps are provided, and how are they normally powered?

A

-3 per wing (outboard, midspan, inboard)
-Normally powered pneumatically

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163
Q

What are the 2 groups of trailing edge flaps, and how are they powered?

A

-Outboard and inboard
-Outboard: Hydraulic system 4
-Inboard: Hydraulic system 1

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164
Q

How are opposite trailing edge flaps connected?

A

Mechanically, to maintain symmetry

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165
Q

What protection features do FCUs provide for trailing edge flaps in primary mode?

A

-Asymmetry protection
-Flap load relief
-Flap position information on EICAS and other systems

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166
Q

What protection features do FCUs provide for trailing edge flaps in secondary mode?

A

-Asymmetry protection
-Flap position information on EICAS and other systems

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167
Q

Describe the function of the FCUs in primary mode.

A

-Leading edge flaps are driven pneumatically to the selected position
-Trailing edge flaps are driven hydraulically to the selected position

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168
Q

Describe the function of the FCUs in secondary mode.

A

-If any flap group fails to move to the selected position, that group switches to secondary mode
-A flap group in secondary mode is driven electrically

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169
Q

What happens if a primary control failure occurs in either the inboard or midspan leading edge flap group?

A

-Both groups switch to secondary mode

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170
Q

What happens if a failure occurs in a leading edge flap group on one wing?

A

-The flap groups on both wings change to secondary mode after 20-45 seconds
-The non-affected side completes movement before changing to secondary mode, due to primary mode being so much faster.

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171
Q

What happens immediately if a trailing edge asymmetry is detected?

A

-Primary mode is shut down for the asymmetrical group
-The FCUs do not use secondary mode
-FLAP DRIVE EICAS caution message

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172
Q

What EICAS message displays if all 3 FCUs fail?

A

FLAPS CONTROL caution message

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173
Q

How does the flap alternate control mode work?

A

-Bypasses the FCUs
-Can manually be selected
-All flaps are moved using electric motors

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174
Q

Is there any asymmetry protection in alternate flap mode?

A

No

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175
Q

State the actions that occur when the alternate (ALTN) flaps arm switch is pushed?

A

-Arms flap alternate control mode
-Arms alternate flaps selector
-Shuts off primary and secondary mode
-Asymmetry protection not avail.
-Flap lever inoperative

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176
Q

What is the maximum extension of the trailing edge flaps in alternate mode?

A

Flaps 25

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177
Q

Describe the secondary mode or non-normal expanded flap position indication for leading edge flaps.

A

-All flap positions displayed
-White box: LE flaps retracted
-White crosshatch: LE flaps in transit
-Solid green box: LE flaps extended
-Amber: drive unit inop
-Indicator motion continuous between flap detents

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178
Q

Describe the secondary mode or non-normal expanded flap position indication for trailing edge flaps.

A

-White: Position of inboard and outboard TE flaps
-Asymmetry or drive failure in related group
-Indicator motion is continuous between flap detents

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179
Q

What does an amber X mean on an expanded flap display?

A

Related flap sensor (and display) inoperative

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180
Q

Describe the alternate mode expanded flap position indicator.

A

-All flap positions displayed
-Flap position index marks at 5 and 25
-Indicator motion is continuous between flap detents

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181
Q

Describe the flap position indication on EICAS if the standby bus is the only powered AC bus.

A

-Left wing TE flap position sensors not powered
-Amber X is displayed on left outboard and inboard TE flap indications
-Expanded indication is displayed

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182
Q

What flaps extend when the flap lever is moved from UP to Flaps 1?

A

-Inboard and midspan LE flap groups

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183
Q

What flaps extend when the flap lever is moved from Flaps 1 to Flaps 5?

A

-Outboard LE flap group
-Trailing edge flaps move to flaps 5 position

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184
Q

What flap sequencing occurs when using alternate flaps?

A

-During extension, all LE flaps and TE flaps extend simultaneously
-TE flaps maximum is 25
-During retraction, all LE flaps retract after inboard trailing edge flaps are completely retracted

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185
Q

Describe the flap load relief.

A

-If airspeed limit is exceeded, the flaps go back a notch. Only available in flaps 30 or 25.
-30 goes to 25
-25 goes to 20
-Not available on secondary or alternate mode. ONLY IN PRIMARY

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186
Q

How long does the flap indication on primary EICAS remain displayed after all flaps are up?

A

10 seconds

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187
Q

What is the effect of the flap system during engine reverse thrust operation?

A

-Inboard and midspan LE flaps retract automatically

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188
Q

Describe the function of the stabilizer (STAB) trim cutout switches, AUTO position.

A

-Supplies hydraulic power for stab trim
-Automatically shuts off hydraulic power if unscheduled trim detected

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189
Q

What surface component is moved when stabilizer trim inputs are mode?

A

The horizontal stabilizer

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190
Q

State what occurs when the stabilizer (STAB) trim cutout switches are in CUTOUT.

A

-Hydraulic power is removed from the related stabilizer trim actuators

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191
Q

Describe the function of the alternate trim switches.

A

-They use a separate control channel
-They have an increased range of motion

192
Q

How do the FMCs calculate a correct stabilizer trim greenband for takeoff?

A

They use entered:
-CG
-Gross weight
-Thrust setting

193
Q

How does the aircraft provide a crosscheck to make sure the FMC calculated greenband is correct?

A

There is a nose gear oleo pressure switch which compares what it thinks greenband should be to what the FMC greenband is

194
Q

What is the effect on stabilizer trim if the control wheel stabilizer trim switches are used while the autopilot is engaged?

A

-If SINGLE autopilot: Disconnects AP and trims the stabilizer as desired

-If MULTIPLE autopilots: Control wheel stabilizer trim switches inhibited

195
Q

State the effect on the autopilot and stabilizer trim, if the alternate trim switches are used with any number of autopilots engaged.

A

-Does not disengage autopilot
-Overrides autopilot trim commands

196
Q

How many spoiler panels are provided?

A

6 panels per wing

197
Q

Which spoiler panel does not function as a flight spoiler? (“Flight spoilers” is Boeing’s way of describing ROLL spoilers)

A

-Only the INBOARD spoilers do not function as “flight” spoilers.

198
Q

Which spoiler panels function as speedbrakes in flight?

A

-The 4 inboard panels on each wing

199
Q

Which spoiler panels function as ground spoilers once you land?

A

ALL panels

200
Q

Which spoiler panel is displayed on the EICAS status display?

A

-Left wing: The 4th panel in from the wingtip. (Functions as flight, speedbrake, and ground spoiler)
-Right wing: Outermost panel. (Functions only as flight spoiler and ground spoiler. NOT as a speedbrake. No indication of right speedbrakes on EICAS when using speedbrakes)

201
Q

Which spoiler panels are extended when the speedbrake lever is in the FLIGHT detent?

A

-2 inboard on each wing (go to MID travel)
-2 middle spoilers on each wing go to full travel

202
Q

When do the spoiler panels extend to the UP position during landing, when the speedbrake lever is ARMED?

A

-Thrust levers 1 and 3 near closed
-Main gear touchdown

203
Q

When do the spoiler panels extend to the UP position during landing, when the speedbrake lever is NOT ARMED?

A

-Thrust levers1 and 3 near closed
-Main gear on the ground
-Reverse thrust levers 2 or 4 pulled to the idle detent

204
Q

Since the speedbrake lever is in the DN position for takeoff, what action provides an automatic spoiler function for RTO?

A

-Reverse thrust levers 2 or 4 pulled to the idle detent

205
Q

For go-around protection, what action drives the speedbrake lever to the DN position?

A

Thrust levers 1 or 3 advanced from the closed position. (Regardless of if spoilers were automatically or manually deployed.)

206
Q

Which elevator panels are displayed on the surface position indicator?

A

-Left and right outboard elevator positions

207
Q

What can you do if you lose elevator control due to a jam?

A

-Apply significant manual force to the control column, the shear outs between the inboard and outboard elevators will break and allow you to regain control.

208
Q

Describe the elevator feel system.

A

-Provides artificial feel at control columns
-Force increases with airspeed
-If hydraulic systems 2 and 3 fail, feel is provided by springs and no longer reacts to airspeed.

209
Q

How does the aileron lockout system work and what is its purpose?

A

-It locks the outboard ailerons in the neutral position above 238 knots.
-Prevents over-controlling at high airspeeds and unlocks below 238 knots to provide full aileron authority at lower airspeeds.

210
Q

What would happen if you used aileron trim with the autopilot engaged?

A

-The aileron neutral point would reposition
-When autopilot is disengaged, the wheel and ailerons would snap to that new neutral point
-The airplane responds with roll proportional to the trim you input. (autopilot fighting your trim inputs)

211
Q

How do the rudder ratio changers work?

A

-They gradually reduce the rudder deflection as the airspeed increases
-Also protects the vertical stabilizer from large control inputs at high airspeeds.

212
Q

What is the purpose of the yaw dampers?

A

-Improve directional stability
-Turn coordination

213
Q

Describe the OFF position of the landing gear lever.

A

Landing gear hydraulic system depressurized

214
Q

How many degrees can the tiller turn the nosegear? The rudder pedals?

A

-Tiller: 70 degrees
-Rudder pedals: 7 degrees

215
Q

When does the RTO system apply maximum braking?

A

-On ground
-All 4 thrust levers idle
-Above 85 knots

216
Q

What does the BRAKE SOURCE amber light indicate when illuminated?

A

Active brake hydraulic sources have low pressure. (Hydraulic systems 4, 1 and 2.)

217
Q

What does a white, crosshatched, expanded gear position indication mean?

A

Gear in transit

218
Q

What does an amber X on an expanded gear position mean?

A

Landing gear position indicator inoperative

219
Q

What does a white empty box on the gear synoptic display indicate?

A

Related landing gear door position indicators inoperative

220
Q

What sensing systems control in flight and ground operation of various airplane systems?

A

-Air/ground sensing system
-Nose gear extension sensing system

221
Q

How does the airplane distinguish between air mode and ground mode?

A

A combination of main gear tilt sensors

222
Q

Nose gear extension sensing provides a signal to relays controlling functions in which systems?

A

-Stall warning
-Nose gear steering

223
Q

What conditions must be satisfied in order for the landing gear lever lock to release?

A

-Main gear are tilted
-Body gear are centered

224
Q

Describe the sequence of events when the landing gear lever is moved UP.

A

-Landing gear doors open
-Automatic braking occurs
-Landing gear begin to retract
-Main gear hydraulically tilt to the retract position
-EICAS gives related indications

225
Q

How are the landing gear held up in position after retraction?

A

-Main gear are held up by uplocks
-Nose gear mechanically locked up

226
Q

During landing gear extension or retraction, state what happens if any gear position disagrees with the lever position after normal transit time.

A

-EICAS changes to expanded non-normal format
-Affected gear displays as in-transit, or UP if the gear never unlocked from the UP position

227
Q

How does the gear extend through the alternate extension system?

A

By pushing the alternate gear extension switches:
-Gear uplocks and gear door latches are electrically released
-Gear free falls
-Gravity and air loads extend gear
-Springs pull the downlocks into their locked position

228
Q

When does body gear steering operate?

A

-When the nose wheel steering angle exceeds 20 degrees
-Groundspeed decreasing through 15 knots

229
Q

When is body gear steering deactivated?

A

Groundspeed increasing through 20 knots

230
Q

What is the purpose of the brake accumulator?

A

Provides pressure for the parking brake

231
Q

Describe the difference between normal and alternate anti-skid braking systems.

A

Normal: Each main gear wheel has individual anti-skid protection
Alternate: Anti-skid protection provided to lateral wheel pairs (forward and/or aft pair on each truck)

232
Q

How does the brake torque limiter function in the ALTERNATE brake system?

A

-Brake torque is sensed on an individual wheel basis
-Brake pressure is released on a laterally paired wheel basis

233
Q

When do the auto brakes apply after landing?

A

-All thrust levers closed
-Ground mode sensed
-The wheels have spun up

234
Q

Which systems contribute to total airplane deceleration on landing?

A

-Wheel brakes
-Reverse thrust
-Ground spoilers

235
Q

Give examples of what would disarm the autobrakes after landing?

A

-Pedal braking applied
-Any thrust lever advanced after landing
-Speedbrake lever moved to DN detent after speedbrakes have deployed
-DISARM or OFF selected
-Autobrake fault
-Normal anti-skid system fault

236
Q

What hydraulic system pressurizes the brake accumulator?

A

Hydraulic system 4

237
Q

Can the airplane be stopped with normal accumulator pressure?

A

No, the accumulator was not designed to stop the aircraft

238
Q

Why is it necessary to pressurize hydraulic system 4 before pressurizing other systems?

A

So hydraulic fluid from system 1 or 2 does not flow into system 4 if the parking brake is set then released.

239
Q

What provides automatic brake source selection?

A

Pressure operated selector valves

240
Q

What value on the brake temp monitoring system (BTMS) causes the EICAS message BRAKE TEMP to appear?

A

5

241
Q

Under what conditions would high pressure (HP) bleed air be used?

A

-Descent
-Other low power operating conditions

242
Q

Under what conditions would intermediate pressure (IP) bleed air be used?

A

Higher power setting operations

243
Q

The engine bleed air switches control which valves by system logic, when bleed air pressure is available?

A

-Engine bleed air valve
-PRV
-HP bleed valve

244
Q

Describe the general function of the pressure regulating valve (PRV).

A

It prevents damage to ducting and equipment downstream by limiting bleed air pressure

245
Q

How are the engine bleed air valves actuated, and when do they open for forward flow?

A

-They are pressure actuated
-They remain closed until engine bleed air pressure causes forward flow

246
Q

With the HP bleed valve failed open and the respective bleed air switch OFF, will nacelle anti-ice be available?

A

No

247
Q

An engine bleed air SYS FAULT light indicates what?

A

-Bleed air overheat
-Bleed air overpressure
-HP valve open when commanded closed
-PRV open when commanded closed

248
Q

What does a bleed duct isolation valve amber VALVE light indicate?

A

Isolation valve position disagrees with switch position

249
Q

What prevents reverse air flow into the engine compressor sections during engine start?

A

The PRV valve is positively closed

250
Q

What happens if the engine start valve fails to close?

A

-Bleed air is isolated from the engine starter
-The PRV remains closed
-The engine bleed air valve remains closed
-Nacelle anti-ice and reverse thrust are not available for respective engine

251
Q

What 2 valves close in the engine if a bleed air overheat is detected?

A

-HP valve
-PRV valve

252
Q

What conditions in the engine bleed air system would prevent nacelle anti-ice protection when the bleed air switch is ON?

A

-PRV valve has failed closed, or
-PRV valve has closed due to bleed air overheat, or
-The start valve was not closed

253
Q

How would you isolate a bleed air duct section in the event of a bleed duct leak?

A

Close the respective isolation valve and engine bleed air valves

254
Q

Do we normally operate with the isolation valves open or closed?

A

Open

255
Q

If the center duct is isolated, how do you control temperature in all zones?

A

-All zones operate in backup temperature control mode
-Trim air is unavailable

256
Q

With a left or right duct isolated, how would the leading edge flaps extend on the affected side, and what EICAS advisory message display?

A

-The respective LE flaps operate electrically in secondary mode
-EICAS “FLAPS PRIMARY” until they are extended

257
Q

How does an isolated left or right duct affect the hydraulic systems?

A

The respective hydraulic demand pump 1 or 4 is turned off

258
Q

What 2 systems use engine bleed air downstream in the engine prior to the engine bleed valve?

A

-Nacelle anti-ice
-Reverse thrust

259
Q

What is the flight deck temperature range with the flight deck (FLT) temperature selector in AUTO?

A

65-85F

(18 to 29 C)

260
Q

What valve are you taking control of when you select MAN with the flight deck temperature controller?

A

The flight deck trim air valve

261
Q

What does the zone system fault light indicate? (SYS FAULT)

A

-Temperature zone duct overheat or zone temperature controller fault
-Master trim air valve failed closed
-Trim air switch off
-Master trim air valve closed and pack air continues to flow

262
Q

What is the temperature range for the main deck and lower lobes with their selectors in AUTO?

A

40 to 85 F

(4-29C)

263
Q

Under what conditions would trim air be unavailable to the flight deck, upper deck, crew rest, and main deck?

A

-TEMP ZONE (EICAS message)
-Center bleed duct isolated
-TRIM AIR OFF (EICAS message)
-Master trim air switch off

264
Q

If trim air is not available to the flight deck, upper deck, crew rest, and main deck, how is temperature controlled in the cabin?

A

The backup modes control temperature:
-If the flight deck temp selector setting is available to the PTC, pack outlet temperature of all packs is regulated to an average temp between 65F and 85F, as set by the Flt Deck Temp selector
-If unavailable to the PTC, the last temperature set
-If last temp unavailable to the PTC, then 75F (24C)

265
Q

What target temperature is set to the upper deck and crew rest zone when electrical power is initially applied to the airplane?

A

75F

(24C)

266
Q

How many pack temperature controllers (PTCs) are provided?

A

2 (A and B)

267
Q

How many separate channels are provided in the PTCs?

A

Each PTC has 3 channels, 1 for each pack.

268
Q

What happens if a PTC detects a fault in a pack channel?

A

Control of the respective pack switches to the other PTC.

269
Q

How can you restore pack operation for a failed PTC?

A

Push the pack reset switch

270
Q

What would happen if a fault or overheat of the PTC is detected?

A

The respective pack valve closes, shutting the pack down

271
Q

What are the 7 temperature zones for the 400F?

A

-Flight deck
-Upper deck
-Crew rest
-Main deck forward
-Main deck aft
-FWD lower cargo
-AFT lower cargo

272
Q

What is the function of the lower lobe cargo conditioned air flow rate selector (LLCCAFR) selector?

A

Provides cargo air conditioning to the lower lobes

273
Q

With the LLCCAFR switch OFF, what controls pack outlet temperature?

A

The temperature zone on the upper deck requiring the coolest temperature

274
Q

What zone and what pack is affected with the LLCCAFR selector in FWD HI?

A

All of pack 3 air is sent to the forward lower lobe

275
Q

What zone and what pack is affected with the LLCCAFR selector in AFT HI?

A

All of pack 2 air is sent to the aft lower lobe

276
Q

Explain the position of the LLCCAFR selector in BOTH LOW

A

2/3 of pack 3 and 2/3 of pack 2 conditioned air distributed respectively to forward and aft lower lobes.

277
Q

What position of the LLCCAFR selector would result in all packs remaining in high flow during cruise?

A

-FWD or AFT in HI
or
-BOTH LOW

278
Q

The center duct provides air supply to what systems?

A

-Cargo smoke detection
-Potable water pressurization
-LLCCAFR trim air
-Trim air
-Aft cargo heat

279
Q

Describe overheat protection of the aft cargo heat system?

A

A thermal switch shuts off the overheat shutoff valve at higher temperatures

280
Q

What is the source of heat for the forward cargo compartment?

A

-Heated air exhausted from the E and E compartment (with the equipment cooling inboard exhaust valve open)
or,
-Pack 3

281
Q

Equipment cooling provides air cooling for what compartment/systems?

A

-Flight deck equipment
-E&E racks

282
Q

When is warm equipment cooling air ducted overboard on the ground?

A

All of the following:
-Engines not running
-Equipment cooling selector in NORM
-Temperature 45F (7C) or higher

283
Q

When does the equipment cooling system configure for flight?

A

When one or more engines on each wing is operating

284
Q

How can you manually configure the equipment system for flight?

A

By positioning the equipment cooling elector to STBY

285
Q

Which valve is closed when equipment cooling is in closed loop mode?

A

Inboard exhaust valve

286
Q

What is the source of equipment cooling air for the flight deck?

A

-With at least 2 packs operating, the flight deck equipment cooling source valve directs conditioned air into the flight deck electrical equipment.

287
Q

Describe the operation of the equipment cooling system with the equipment cooling selector in OVRD.

A

-Provides equipment cooling in flight if internal fans are inoperative
-Internal fans are not powered
-Smoke/override valve opens
-All other valves closed, no airflow into FWD cargo
-Cabin differential pressure draws air from the panels area on the flight deck, through the equipment cooling ducts to the E&E to create a reverse flow of air across the equipment, then overboard via the supply duct.

288
Q

Under what conditions would the equipment cooling system revert to closed loop mode?

A

-LLCCAFR selector FWD LOW, BOTH LOW, or FWD HI with the FWD temp selector set to less than 10C (50F)
-If a single internal fan fails
-When the MAIN CARGO FIRE ARM switch is pushed

289
Q

What happens when you turn the nacelle anti-ice switches on?

A

-NAI valve opens
-Engine igniters operate continuously
-PRV opens

290
Q

What conditions would prevent the PRV from opening when the nacelle anti-ice is ON?

A

-Prior or present bleed air overheat
-Start valve not closed
-HP bleed air valve failed open

291
Q

With the nacelle anti-ice switches in AUTO during icing conditions, while on the ground, prior to takeoff, would the system be on or off?

A

Off

292
Q

If in the NAI AUTO position, with the anti-ice valves open at touchdown, when do the valves close?

A

At shutdown

293
Q

How many ice detection probes are there, and where are they located?

A

2, located on either side of the forward fuselage

294
Q

If the engine bleed air valve is closed, and nacelle anti-ice is commanded, what is the source of bleed air for the nacelle anti-ice?

A

IP bleed only. HP remains closed

295
Q

Is wing anti ice effective with the LE flaps extended?

A

No

296
Q

Can you operate the wing anti ice system on the ground?

A

No, it’s inhibited

297
Q

What part of the engine and wing are heated with NAI and WAI on?

A

-Nacelle inlets
-Wing leading edges

298
Q

What is displayed on primary EICAS when the nacelle anti ice and/or the wing anti ice valve is open?

A

NAI for nacelle
WAI for wing

299
Q

Describe the flight deck window heating systems.

A

-Flight deck windows electrically heated
-Forward windows have anti-ice protection on the exteriors
-Forward and side windows have anti fog protection on the interiors

300
Q

What windows are controlled by the window heat switches?

A

Forward windows

301
Q

Since the forward windows are controlled by the window heat switches, how do we heat the side windows?

A

-Automatic with no controls
-Heated whenever AC power is provided

302
Q

How many pitot static probes are there? When are they heated?

A

4, heated when any engine is running

303
Q

How many AOA probes are there? When are they heated?

A

2, heated when any engine is running

304
Q

What are the items on the exterior safety check?

A

-Chocks in place
-Landing gear door position and handle
-Flight control surfaces clear
-APU exhaust area clear (Unless APU running)

305
Q

What does the EEC use as the controlling parameter?

A

N1

306
Q

What protections do you have in EEC normal mode?

A

-Thrust limiting (Overboost)
-Maintains constant thrust, compensating for pressure and temperature
-Compensates for bleed requirements
-Overspeed protection

307
Q

What action should be taken prior of selection of EEC alternate mode?

A

Decrease thrust lever position.

(Manual selection causes thrust to increase, while automatic reversion to alternate mode by the EEC does not cause this)

308
Q

How does changing an EEC mode to alternate affect the autothrottle?

A

It disconnects the autothrottles. But if you select all of the EECs to alternate, you can get autothrottles back.

309
Q

What feature of the EEC provides overspeed protection?

A

The fuel metering unit

310
Q

When does the EEC select approach idle?

A

-Flaps in a landing position
-Continuous ignition ON
-Reverse thrust operation

311
Q

How long is approach idle maintained after touchdown?

A

5 seconds

312
Q

How do you select the IRU selector mode FROM NAV?

A

You must pull out on the selector, then rotate.

313
Q

What is the function of the ALIGN position on the IRU selector?

A

-Initiates alignment
-Removes sensor errors when selected from NAV mode

314
Q

How long does it take for a full alignment of the IRS?

A

10 minutes

315
Q

When is a full alignment of the IRS required?

A

When the time from last full alignment to arrival exceeds 18 hours

316
Q

How do you accomplish a fast alignment of the IRS?

A

-Airplane must be parked
-Select ALIGN on all 3
-Enter GPS position (Not required, but improves accuracy)
-Move all 3 back to NAV
-Takes 30 seconds

317
Q

What does the IRS on BAT light mean on the overhead MX panel?

A

IRS is operating on backup power (APU hot battery bus)

Sounds a horn that can be heard from outside

318
Q

What happens if alignment of the IRS is lost in flight?

A

-Navigation mode is inoperative for the rest of the flight
-You can restore attitude information by selecting the selectors to the ATT position (Requires magnetic heading to be entered on the CDU)

319
Q

What happens if the center IRU is operating on DC power?

A

The center will operate for 5 minutes, then shut down

320
Q

What is the wingspan of the airplane?

A

213’

64.9 meters

321
Q

What is the length of the airplane?

A

231’ 10”

70.7 meters

322
Q

What is the distance from wing gear strut to wing gear strut?

A

36’ 1”

11 meters

323
Q

What is the minimum pavement width for a 180 degree turn?

A

153’

46.6 meters

324
Q

What 2 types of push button switches are provided?

A

-Momentary action
-Alternate action

325
Q

Describe a momentary action switch and give some examples.

A

-Spring loaded to the extended position.
-They activate, deactivate, or reset a system
-Zone reset switch, pack reset switch, cargo fire depress/disch switch

326
Q

How would you describe an alternate action switch when the switch is ON?

A

IN, flush with the panel is ON.

327
Q

When do the FASTEN SEAT BELTS signs illuminate automatically when the selector is in AUTO?

A

-When landing gear or flaps are not UP
-Airplane altitude below 10,300’
-Cabin altitude above 10,000’

328
Q

When are landing lights at maximum intensity?

A

Landing light switches ON and landing gear lever DOWN

329
Q

Can the taxi light and runway turnoff lights be illuminated in flight?

A

No. They would only work when the air/ground sensor says ground mode

330
Q

With the emergency lights switch EMER, in ARMED, when do the emergency lights turn on?

A

If DC power fails or is turned off.

331
Q

What powers the emergency lighting system? For how long?

A

-Dedicated remote batteries, which are charged by DC bus 4
-Lasts 15 minutes

332
Q

When do the supernumerary oxygen masks drop automatically?

A

When the switch is in NORM and cabin altitude reaches 14,000’

333
Q

When would the supernumerary oxygen flow control unit reset?

A

-Press RESET
or
-When cabin altitude reaches below 12,000’

334
Q

What indication do you get when oxygen is flowing on the mask panel?

A

Yellow cross indication

335
Q

On the oxygen masks, what does “N” mean on the red NORMAL/100% switch?

A

It means “normal” flow which means the air/oxygen ratio depends on cabin altitude

336
Q

What does the 100% function of the oxygen mask do?

A

Supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure.

Used to protect against smoke and vapors

337
Q

When the oxygen mask is removed from the stowage box, when does the mask microphone activate?

A

When the LEFT door opens

338
Q

How do you know that the oxygen supply valve is open on your oxygen mask?

A

An OXYGEN ON flag appears on the left side of the box

339
Q

After you are done with the oxygen mask, how do you shut off oxygen?

A

Close the left door

Push the TEST/RESET switch

340
Q

Where is the portable ELT located on the freighter?

A

Upper deck lavatory exterior wall

341
Q

Where are the 2 crash axes on the freighter?

A

-Main deck left forward sidewall (near L1)
-Flight deck stowage compartment, left side

342
Q

How many PBEs are on the freighter? Where are they?

A

4 total
-1 on main deck forward side wall (L1)
-2 on the upper deck lavatory wall
-1 in the flight deck, immediately on the right after entering flight deck

343
Q

How do you reengage the autothrottles when the pitch mode is VNAV____ or FLCH SPD?

A

Cycle the autothrottle switch off and back to armed.

344
Q

How do you reengge the autothrottles if the pitch mode is ALT, V/S, or G/S?

A

Press the SPD switch on the MCP

345
Q

How could you select climb thrust after takeoff or go around?

A

Press the THR switch on the MCP

346
Q

What speed is set in the IAS/MACH window on the MCP when power is first applied to the plane?

A

200 knots

347
Q

The outer BANK LIMIT selector applies to which roll mode?

A

HDG SEL

348
Q

When the localizer is captured, what is displayed in the heading window?

A

The ILS front course

349
Q

How can you deselect the approach mode after LOC and G/S are captured?

A

-TOGA mode
or
-Disengage the autopilot and place both flight director switch to off

350
Q

With the APP switch pushed, what angle does the AFDS capture the localizer?

A

120 degrees of the localizer course

351
Q

What altitude does each autopilot get separate power sources, when 3 autopilots are engaged?

A

1,500 RA

352
Q

Can the glideslope be captured prior to the localizer?

A

No. Glideslope capture is inhibited until localizer is captured and within 80 degrees of the localizer course

353
Q

What does an amber line through an active pitch or roll mode mean?

A

A fault is detected in that mode

354
Q

How many pushes of the autopilot disengage switch are required to disengage all autopilots?

A

2 pushes. The first disengages the autopilots, second resets the master warning light, sound, and EICAS message

355
Q

If TOGA is pushed on an approach with the autothrottle engaged, what autothrottle mode would be displayed?

A

THR

356
Q

What climb rate is achieved during go around when the TOGA switched is pushed once?

A

2,000 FPM

357
Q

What autothrottle mode is activated with a second push of the TOGA switch on a go around?

A

THR REF

358
Q

What AFDS status indication displays above attitude indicator on the PFD when an autopilot is engaged?

A

CMD

359
Q

What altitude does VNAV activate?

A

400’ AFE

360
Q

When is VNAV deactivated?

A

-TOGA, FLCH, V/S, ALT, or G/S modes
-Dual FMC failure

361
Q

If using FLCH SPD in a descent, what autothrottle modes would you see after selecting FLCH, then in the descent, then once level off?

A

-Initially, THR
-Then, HOLD
-Then SPD once the altitude is captured

362
Q

When power is first applied to the plane, what altitude is in the MCP window and PFD?

A

10,000’

363
Q

How are autothrottle, roll, and pitch mode changes emphasized on the FMA?

A

Green box around the mode for 10 seconds

364
Q

Will the autothrottles operate if you don’t push TOGA by 50 knots airspeed? When will they be available again?

A

-No
- 400’ AT available

365
Q

How can you disarm a mode that is armed? (LNAV, VNAV, LOC, APP).

A

Press the mode switch a second time

366
Q

Which PFD annunciation is associated with a “fail passive” autoland, and which is associated with a “fail operational”?

A

Fail passive: LAND 2

Fail operational: LAND 3

367
Q

Which pitch mode does not provide autothrottle speed protection?

A

V/S

368
Q

When does LNAV activate when armed?

A

-At 50’ AFE on takeoff
or
-Within 2.5 miles of active course in flight

369
Q

When does ROLLOUT mode activate?

A

When below 5’

370
Q

What controls are used by the AFDS to steer the aircraft on the centerline after touchdown during autoland?

A

Rudder and nosewheel steering

371
Q

What initial pitch does the flight director show when you first turn on a flight director while on the ground?

A

8 Degrees

372
Q

In flight, when is TOGA armed?

A

-Flaps out of up
or
-Glideslope captured

373
Q

If a VNAV descent is initiated prior to T/D, what is the pitch mode?

A

VNAV SPD

374
Q

Describe the condition that would cause VNAV ALT to display as the pitch mode.

A

A conflict occurs between the VNAV profile and the MCP altitude.

375
Q

When does the FLARE mode activate during autoland?

A

Between 60’ and 40’ RA

376
Q

When do the autopilots actually start the flare maneuver?

A

Approximately 50’ RA

(FLARE mode is activated between 60’ and 40’)

377
Q

When do the autothrottles retard to idle during autoland?

A

25’ RA

378
Q

When does FLARE mode deactivate?

A

At touchdown. (it lowers nose down smoothly)

379
Q

During autoland, what action disconnects the autothrottles?

A

Raising a thrust reverser lever to reverse idle

380
Q

What conditions would caust the autothrottles to disconnect and not be able to be reconnected?

A

-Dual FMC failure
-More than 1 engine failure/shutdown

381
Q

Can autothrottles be reconnected after switching the FMC master switch?

A

Yes. (Switching this switch causes them to disconnect, but you can reengage)

382
Q

During takeoff and TOGA is selected, what autothrottle mode will you see on the FMA?

A

THR REF

383
Q

When does the autothrottle go into HOLD mode on takeoff?

A

65 knots

384
Q

When is the barometric snapshot altitude recorded by the FMC on takeoff?

A

100 knots

385
Q

After liftoff with TOGA mode engaged, what is the aircraft following as far as roll, prior to LNAV capture?

A

Ground track.

386
Q

If an engine failure occurs on the ground, what speed does the flight director pitch for on liftoff?

A

V2 or airspeed at liftoff, whichever is greater

387
Q

At acceleration height, what speeds are commanded by the AFDS during flap retraction?

A

5 knots below the placard speed limit for each flap setting.

388
Q

When is TOGA mode terminated on takeoff?

A

-By activation of LNAV/VNAV modes
or
-Selecting any other pitch and roll modes

389
Q

When does the autopilot actively control the rudder?

A

Only when LAND 2 or LAND 3 is annunciated

390
Q

With multi autopilot approaches, when does the autopilot accomplish runway alignment? (All engines operating)

A

-500’
and
-200’

(depending on crab angle)

391
Q

How does the autopilot maintain centerline during approaches with an engine out? What about if the engine failed on approach? (This is for multi-autopilot approaches)

A

-Introduces sideslip at 1,300’ AGL
-Establishes wings level

If engine fails on approach: Goes to wings level right away at the failure

392
Q

What pitch does the AFDS command during a windshear recovery on approach, when the TOGA switch is pressed?

A

15 degrees or slightly below the pitch limit, whichever is less

393
Q

How does the automatic flight control system provide stall protection?

A

It prevents speed reduction below the minimum maneuvering speed

394
Q

Describe flight envelope speed protection.

A

Prevents the aircraft from exceeding:
-Max operating speed
-Gear extended speed
-Flap placard speeds

395
Q

What speed margin is used by the AFDS for speed protection for max operating, gear extended, and flap placard speeds?

A

5 knots below the limit

396
Q

What 2 conditions prevent the AFDS and autothrottle from providing speed protection?

A

-V/S mode
or
-Engine failure above maximum engine out altitude

397
Q

How tall (in knots), is the command speed pointer on the PFD?

A

5 knots

398
Q

What minimum maneuver capability does the top of the amber tape provide on the airspeed display?

A

1.3 G at 40 degrees of bank, level flight

399
Q

What will occur at the minimum speed (red) on the airspeed indicator?

A

Stick shaker or low speed buffet

400
Q

When is the pitch limit indicator (PLI) displayed on the PFD?

A

When the flaps are not up

401
Q

When is radio altitude displayed on the PFD?

A

2,500’ RA and below

402
Q

Where are the marker beacon annunciations displayed?

A

Upper right corner of the PFD

403
Q

How do the glideslope and localizer indications on the PFD indicate excessive deviations?

A

They turn amber and the pointers flash

404
Q

What color is the altitude that you select on the MCP on the PFD?

A

Magenta

405
Q

Where is current track displayed on the ND?

A

Top of the ND, middle

406
Q

How can you control your displays if the EFIS control panel fails?

A

Through the related CDU

407
Q

Describe the plan (PLN) mode of the ND mode selector

A

-Non moving display
-True north is up
-Allows you to step through fixes using the legs page

408
Q

What systems failure would result in the NAV source selector to be positioned to CDU L (captains side) and CDU R (FO side)?

A

A dual FMC failure. (using alternate navigation)

409
Q

Which source selector switch determines what GS and LOC receivers provide information to the respective PFD and ND?

A

EIU source selector

410
Q

What does EIU mean?

A

EFIS/EICAS interface unit

411
Q

Which IRU source provides brake reference?

A

IRU selected on the captains side

412
Q

What source selector would you likely move in the event of an ALT or SPD flag on the PFD?

A

The air data source selector

413
Q

How can you control displays, if the display select panel (DSP) fails?

A

Through the CDU

414
Q

The pitot static system provides information to which systems and components?

A

-Air Data Computers
-Standby airspeed and standby altimeter
-Elevator feel computer

415
Q

Explain the course of air through the pitot static system, as it enters the tubes and ports and all the way through the displays.

A

Air flows through the pitot tubes and static ports, to the air data computers, to the EIUs, which send info to the displays.

416
Q

After selecting an ILS, when does the ILS auto-tune to display frequency and course?

A

Any of the following:
-When within 150 NM of destination
-When within 50 NM of T/D
-When in an FMC descent

417
Q

How long is ILS auto-tuning inhibited after takeoff?

A

10 minutes

418
Q

How could you auto-tune a new ILS course and frequency, if you are within the 10 minute inhibit period after takeoff?

A

Select and execute a new ILS approach on the CDU

419
Q

If a tuned frequency identifier is incorrect, what should you do?

A

Verify the morse code by listening to the frequency

420
Q

In what transponder modes will the transponder activate beacon and altitude reporting to ATC in flight?

A

-XPNDR
-TA/RA
-TA ONLY

421
Q

Can ATC monitor aircraft position on the ground when the transponder is in OFF or STBY?

A

No

422
Q

Can clear air turbulence be sensed by weather radar?

A

No

423
Q

How many FMSs and how many FMCs are provided?

A

-1 FMS (Flight management system)
-2 FMCs (L and R flight management computers)

424
Q

How many hours could you meet navigational requirements if you had 2 IRUs, 1 FMC, and 2 CDUs?

A

18 hours

425
Q

When does the approach phase of the FMC start?

A

When the first waypoint of the procedure sequences?

426
Q

When will the FMC fail to sequence the active waypoint?

A

When more than 21 miles off the route and not on an offset route

427
Q

What factor determines econ speed?

A

Cost index

428
Q

Explain what cost index means.

A

-Relationship of fuel versus time
-Lower index is slower speed, less fuel
-Higher index is less time, but higher speed

429
Q

What is a conditional waypoint?

A

Based on tie or altitude, not a land reference (“When reaching 400’”)

430
Q

What determines current airplane position, and where is it displayed on the ND?

A

FMC, tip of the white triangle

431
Q

How is FMC position updated?

A

-GPS
-IRS
-NAV radios

432
Q

How is the FMC updated during an ILS or LOC approach?

A

Localizer signals

433
Q

What does a “VD” FMC radio position update status indicate and where is it displayed?

A

-VOR and its co-located with a DME
-Lower right corner of the ND in GREEN

434
Q

When does the FMS enter polar conditions?

A

North of 84 degrees N
South of 84 degrees S

435
Q

When would you ever select “TRUE” on the heading reference switch?

A

For operations in high latitude conditions, when not in an LNAV roll mode

436
Q

When does the heading reference automatically change to true north?

A

82 degrees N or S

437
Q

What pitch modes might you see if climbing in VNAV?

A

VNAV SPD
VNAV PTH

438
Q

What FMA annunciation for pitch mode would you see after leveling off during a VNAV departure at an altitude constraint?

A

VNAV PTH

439
Q

If the FMC VNAV cruise altitude is FL290 and you level off at FL190, what would you see in the FMA after level off?

A

VNAV ALT

440
Q

What is the end of descent “E/D” for VOR approaches?

A

The missed approach point

441
Q

What is the end of descent “E/D” for all approaches other than VOR approaches?

A

50’ above the runway threshold (RW waypoint)

442
Q

If you are on approach logic, and you get more than 150’ high of the path, the VNAV mode changes from VNAV PTH to ______.

A

VNAV SPD

443
Q

What feature of the FMC allows you to set a higher altitude (such as the missed approach altitude), and still continue to descend?

A

When on “approach logic”

444
Q

When you execute the missed approach, what altitude becomes the new cruise altitude?

A

The missed approach altitude

445
Q

What thrust mode would you see on the upper EICAS during an engine failure at V1, and the aircraft has accelerated past VREF+98 knots, flaps retracted?

A

CON

446
Q

What 2 databases are contained in the FMC?

A

-Performance
-Navigation

447
Q

What could happen if you advance the thrust levers during a TO-1 or TO-2 takeoff, after an engine failure?

A

Loss of directional control

448
Q

Can you manually apply more thrust, when conditions are necessary, during an assumed temperature takeoff?

A

Yes, because assumed temperature is not a limitation. Fixed derate is

449
Q

At what altitude does CLB-1 or CLB-2 derated thrust begin to increase linearly, and at what altitude would full CLB thrust be attained?

A

-Begins to increase at 10,000
-CLB thrust reached at 15,000

450
Q

What fuel value is usually used by the FMC for performance calculations?

A

CALC (calculated)

451
Q

If you lose electrical power to the FMC, then it returns, do you have to re-enter performance data on PERF INIT?

A

Yes

452
Q

Is autothrottle available during dual FMC failure?

A

No

453
Q

Are LNAV and VNAV available in alternate navigation?

A

No

454
Q

What CDU pages are available during alternate navigation?

A

LEGS, PROG, NAVRAD

455
Q

If the <FMC prompt is not displayed in line 1 when MENU is displayed on the CDU, how do you display alternate navigation pages that are available?

A

Push the LEGS, PROG, and NAVRAD key

456
Q

Is it OK to enter information into both CDUs at the same time?

A

No, pilots should avoid this practice

457
Q

What is meant on the CDU by the DRAG/FF value on line 3L in the CDU identification page?

A

Drag and fuel flow correction factors

458
Q

What happens when an active database expires in flight?

A

You use it until it is changed after landing

459
Q

When do the ILS frequency and course and the word PARK display on the NAVRAD page when enroute to the destination?

A

-When less than 200 NM from T/D or more than halfway to destination, whichever occurs first.

-Also upon manual tuning

460
Q

What is the maximum thrust reduction limit, in terms of percentage, when using assumed temperature?

A

25%

461
Q

When entering a thrust reduction (HAA) height in the CDU, do you need to add field elevation?

A

No, its automatic

462
Q

How would the FMC handle a manually entered V1 speed that is less than V1 min?

A

FMC would display “V1MIN” in the header and in the value line

463
Q

On the CDU, does INTERCEPT COURSE mean from or to?

A

Always TO

464
Q

What system logic feature of the FMC allows quick turn-back to the departure airport?

A

The arrivals page allows you to change an approach without having to change the destination. This happens within 400 miles of the origin, as long as origin is closer than destination

465
Q

Can the FMC display engine out performance based on the loss of 2 engines?

A

Yes

466
Q

On what page of the CDU would you find airport elevation for an airport in the database?

A

Reference navigation data page

467
Q

What is the difference between RNP and ACTUAL? Where is it displayed?

A

RNP: What is required
ACTUAL: What the actual performance is
Where is it: FMC POS REF page

468
Q

Can you make manual entries to RNP or ACTUAL values?

A

Only to RNP values

469
Q

On what page of the CDU would you enter where anti-ice is to be turned on during the descent?

A

Descent forecast page

470
Q

If while loading an approach, you push the APPROACH INTC in 6R and execute, what happens?

A

-The approach intercept fix becomes the active waypoint
-All other fixes are deleted

471
Q

On what page of the CDU would you find runway length?

A

Approach reference page

472
Q

What teardrop offset angle is used by the holding page?

A

40 degrees

473
Q

What is commanded by pushing the MCP altitude selector switch in cruise?

A

-If within 50 NM of T/D, initiates early descent and later joins PTH
-If outside 50 NM of T/D, initiates a cruise descent to new cruise altitude, may not capture PTH
-Initiates climb or descent to whatever the altitude selector is set to.

474
Q

What is commanded by pushing the MCP altitude selector switch while in a climb?

A

-Each push deletes any altitude constraints.
-It climbs to the MCP altitude
-FMC is re-cruises to that altitude

475
Q

When flying an instrument approach with a PROC HOLD header displayed in 1L, do you have to select exit hold to exit the holding pattern?

A

No, this is because the FMC knows its a procedure turn

476
Q

Which waypoints are referenced and displayed in magnetic, and which are displayed in true on the LEGS page?

A

Only the active waypoint is magnetic, all others are true

Call of the Heavies (39 decks)

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