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Call of the Heavies > Limitations > Flashcards

Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Max operating altitude

A

45,100’ PA

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2
Q

Max altitude for takeoff and landing

A

10,000’ PA

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3
Q

Max field elevation

A

9,500’ MSL

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4
Q

Maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component

A

15 knots

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5
Q

Runway slope

A

+/- 2%

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6
Q

The upper deck escape slide must be in the _______position during taxi, takeoff, landing, and whenever the upper deck is occupied.

A

forward locked

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7
Q

The ladder enclosure door must be closed_____

A

during taxi, takeoff and landing. Or in flight, except when entering or leaving the cargo hold.

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8
Q

Turbulent air penetration speed

A

290-310 knots / .82-.85. Whichever is lower

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9
Q

Maximum demonstrated (not limiting) takeoff and landing crosswind

A

30 knots

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10
Q

Do not operate the _______during refueling.

A

HF radio

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11
Q

Do not operate the weather radar____

A

In a hangar or when personnel are within the nose radome

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12
Q

Are standby altimeters RVSM?

A

No

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13
Q

Maximum allowable in flight difference between CA and FO altitude displays for RVSM is____.

A

200’

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14
Q

Maximum allowable on-ground altitude display difference between CA and FO for RVSM is_______.

A

Sea level to 5,000’: 35’

9,500’: 40’

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15
Q

Max difference in altimeters between CA, FO, and field elevation

A

75’

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16
Q

Target PSI for O2 system for both passenger and crew systems

A

1,200 PSI.

(CREW O2 can be 950 PSI if not flying over the ocean)

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17
Q

Maximum taxi weight

A

397, 800 KG

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18
Q

Maximum takeoff weight

A

396, 893 KG

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19
Q

Maximum landing weight

A

302, 092 KG

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20
Q

Maximum zero fuel weight

A

288, 031 KG

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21
Q

When 5G notams are present, what operations are prohibited?

A

-ILS SA CAT II, CAT II, and CAT III

-Autoland

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22
Q

Maximum differential pressure

A

9.4 PSI

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23
Q

Maximum differential pressure for takeoff and landing

A

0.11 PSI

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24
Q

Do not use aileron trim with _____

A

the autopilot engaged

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25
Q

Minimum height to engage the autopilot after takeoff

A

250’

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26
Q

Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot must not remain engaged below______

A

100’ RA

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27
Q

Minimum autopilot use height if not coupled on an ILS or in go-around mode

A

50’ below minimums

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28
Q

Max headwind component for autoland

A

25 knots

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29
Q

Max tailwind for autoland

A

15 knots

30
Q

Max crosswind for autoland

A

CAT II/III: 15 knots

CAT I: 25 knots

31
Q

Max glideslope angle for autoland

A

3.25 degrees

32
Q

Minimum glideslope angle for autoland

A

2.5 degrees

33
Q

Autoland may be made with flaps _________ only.

A

25 or 30

34
Q

Do not use FLCH below _______’.

A

1,000’ AFE

35
Q

Do not use the center VHF radio on _______ MHz or ________MHz.

A

120.000 or 120.005

36
Q

ACARS clearances that can only be viewed through the printer must be verified with_______.

A

The originating ground station

37
Q

Continuous ignition is required to be ON encountering:

A

-Heavy rain
-Severe turbulence
-Volcanic ash
-Icing conditions
-Standing water or slush on runway

38
Q

Continuous ignition is automatically provided when_________.

A

Nacelle anti-ice is on

39
Q

Reverse thrust is prohibited________

A

In flight, or to back the airplane up.

40
Q

Do not operate the APU below

A
  • (negative) 1000’ pressure altitude
41
Q

APU start cycle limits

A

-Between starts 1 and 2: 1 minute (both battery or TR)

-Between starts 2 and 3: Battery- 1 minute. TR- 10 minutes

-Between starts 3 and 4: 75 minutes (both battery or TR)

42
Q

Avoid rapid and large______

A

alternating control inputs. (may result in structural failure, even below VA)

43
Q

Max altitude with flaps extended

A

20,000’

44
Q

Use of speedbrakes in flight with flaps past _____ is not recommended.

A

20

45
Q

If you lose primary air data, standby system _____ must be applied.

A

corrections

46
Q

Do not add/delete waypoints to ______

A

RNAV/RNP DPs or STAR procedures

47
Q

If EICAS alert message “UNABLE RNP” displays while on an RNAV approach, pilots must____

A

go around, unless adequate visual references can be maintained.

48
Q

Operations are not authorized for _____ or _____ approaches.

A

RNAV (RNP) or RNP (AR)

NOTE: FAA- RNAV (RNP)
ICAO- RNP (AR)

49
Q

Approaches using VNAV to DA(H) are not authorized if glide path angle is less than _____ or more than ____ degrees.

A

2.75; 3.5

50
Q

If leveling off within 2,000’ after changing altimeter from QNE to QNH or vise versa, ___________

A

do not use VNAV to execute the level off if QNH is less than 29.70 IN (1006 hPa). After level off complete, VNAV can be re-engaged.

51
Q

Max fuel tank temperature

A

+54 degrees C

52
Q

____ and _____ type fuels are prohibited

A

Jet B and JP4

53
Q

In-flight minimum fuel temperature

A

3 degrees C above the fuel freezing point

54
Q

Do not cycle _____ and ____ pump switches from ON to OFF to ON with any continuous low pressure indication present.

A

CWT ; HST

55
Q

Do not use the terrain display for _____

A

Navigation

56
Q

The use of look-ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions is prohibited within________ for airports not in the GPWS database.

A

15 NM of takeoff, approach, or landing

57
Q

What is the maximum crosswind guideline when braking action is reported medium?

A

10 knots

58
Q

Are operations allowed with NIL braking action?

A

No

59
Q

During autoland, what is the assumed touchdown point?

A

2,500’ from threshold

60
Q

What is the minimum threshold crossing height for autoland?

A

44’

61
Q

How many HF radios are required for CPDLC?

A

1

62
Q

What altitude is the minimum oxygen quantity for each occupant determined?

A

25,000’ cabin altitude

63
Q

What is Max EGT for engine starting?

A

870C (40 seconds)
750 (unlimited)

64
Q

What is max continuous EGT?

A

925 C

65
Q

Minimum oil pressure

A

10 PSI

66
Q

Max N1

A

117.5

67
Q

Max N2

A

112.5

68
Q

Can you reset a tripped fuel pump circuit breaker?

A

No

69
Q

What is the flap limitation during fuel jettison?

A

Do not extend or retract flaps between position 1 and 5

70
Q

What are the placard flap speeds?

A

1- 280
5- 260
10- 240
20- 230
25- 205
30- 180

71
Q

What is the landing gear extension or retraction speed?

A

270 knots or Mach .82 whichever is less

Call of the Heavies (39 decks)

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