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call of the heavies > INDOC > Flashcards

INDOC Flashcards

1
Q

If a conflict occurs between the FOM and the FCOM (VOL 1 or 2), which one takes precedence?

A

The FCOM

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2
Q

Part 119 requires certain management positions to be actively held per operating certificate. We have Atlas and Polar. We are the only airline in existence with a waiver for “Cross Operational Authority.” What does this mean for you?

A

It means that you will have an Atlas AND a Polar

  • Director of Operations
  • Chief
  • Director of MX
  • Chief inspector
  • Director of Safety

They are interchangeable, and you can get guidance or help from either.

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3
Q

What is the FOM “Big 5”?

A

A series of priorities, listed from most important to least important:

  1. ) Safety
  2. ) Regulatory compliance
  3. ) Passenger comfort
  4. ) Schedule performance
  5. ) Efficiency
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4
Q

What tail number will all of your 747 training be based on? I.E. what limitations, dimensions, weights, etc. do you need to memorize?

A

N409MC

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5
Q

You may not consume alcohol within ____ hours of report time.

A

8

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6
Q

If you need glasses, are you required to carry a spare?

A

yes

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7
Q

Crewmember required documents

A
  • Airman certificate
  • 1st class medical
  • Restricted Radio Operator Permit
  • Passport
  • International certificate of vaccination
  • Company ID
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8
Q

When do you need to submit your new medical every year?

A

On or before the 14th day of the month that the medical expires.

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9
Q

When do you need to renew a passport?

A

At least 15 months prior to expiration

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10
Q

What required equipment must you bring?

A
  • Flashlight
  • Reflective vest
  • PCD (company cell phone)
  • pEFB (iPad)
  • Corrective lenses and spare (if required)
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11
Q

You lose your ATP certificate on a trip by mistake. You renew it on the FAA’s website and get a temporary. How long is that temporary valid?

A

60 days

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12
Q

You lost your medical card on a trip. Who do you contact?

A

Duty Pilot

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13
Q

If you lost your medical on a trip, you contact the duty pilot to get a temporary. This also applies to losing your ATP card on a trip, and you don’t have access to internet or a printer. They can issue a temporary medical or a temporary ATP card. How long are these types of temporary cards valid for? Can you fly internationally? Is it good for jump seating?

A
  • Only valid for 72 hours (NO EXTENSION ALLOWED)
  • Only valid in the lower 48
  • Only valid when you are engaged in a flight operation (not good for jump seating.)

NOTE: Must possess a valid photo ID with this temporary

NOTE: This is called a temporary verification

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14
Q

Does leisure GA flying on your off days count toward your 121 rest requirements?

A

no

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15
Q

Minimum crew for IOE (for operations legally requiring only 2 crewmembers)

A

At least 3 pilots. (even when maybe only 2 would be required)

-LCA + IOE crewmember + one qualified pilot)

NOTE: 3rd crewmember may be waived at the LCA’s discretion if it will cause a delay. The whole point of the extra IOE crewmember requirement is to avoid delays.

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16
Q

Minimum crew for IOE for operations requiring 3 or 4 pilots

A

Always must have 4 pilots.

(LCA + IOE student + 2 qualified pilots)

NOTE: May not be waived

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17
Q

Regarding rest requirements, all _________ fights are under part 117.

A

passenger aircraft (regardless of PAX or not)

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18
Q

Cargo rest rules fall under 121 sub parts _______.

A

Q, R, and S

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19
Q

Passenger airplanes use FAR 117, cargo uses FAR 121. How does the company keep track of look back duty limits and flight time limits?

A

They are cross combined.

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20
Q

What is considered acclimated?

A

Remaining in a theater for 72 hours

or

At least 36 hours free from duty

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21
Q

Explain the different class rest facilities.

A

Class 1: Lay flat area separate from flight deck and cabin.

Class 2: Lay flat or near flat seat in the cabin separated by a minimum of a curtain.

Class 3: A seat in the flight deck or cabin that can recline at least 40 degrees and supports the legs and feet.

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22
Q

Does a deadhead on your way to a flight assignment count toward FDP?

A

Yes

NOTE: If traveling away from a flight segment, it does not count.

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23
Q

What is a physiological night’s rest?

A

Acclimated: 10 hours that encompass 0100-0700

Unacclimated: 10 hours that encompass 0100-0700 in acclimated zone

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24
Q

What defines a theater?

A

Departure and arrival no more than 60 degrees longitude apart.

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25
Q

Flight time limit. Must not fly more than 100 hours in the past ______ hours.

A

FAR 117: 672 (28 days)

FAR 121: in any calendar month

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26
Q

Flight time limit. Must not fly more than 1,000 hours in ______.

A

FAR 117: any 365 day consecutive period.

FAR 121: Same

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27
Q

Once airborne, can you exceed flight time limits?

A

Yes, only if due to unforeseen circumstances.

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28
Q

What is the timezone used to determine legalities for FDP?

A

Your home base. (Unless acclimated to a new time zone)

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29
Q

(FAR 117) May not exceed 60 FDP hours in any _____ consecutive hours.

A

168 consecutive hours. (7 days)

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30
Q

(FAR 117) May not exceed 190 FDP hours in any _____ hours

A

672 consecutive hours. (28 days)

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31
Q

All trips must include ____ hours of rest in the second half of the FDP for the pilot landing the plane.

A

2

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32
Q

All trips must include _____ minutes of rest for the pilot that will be PM (pilot monitoring) during the landing.

A

90 minutes

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33
Q

FDP extension rules: (FAR 117)

A

Prior to takeoff: 2 hours, must be agreed upon. Need 30 hours consecutive rest prior to taking another extension more than 30 minutes.

After takeoff: to the extent necessary to safely get to destination or alternate.

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34
Q

How many hours of consecutive rest is required in a 7 day period?

A

117: 30
121: 24
CBA (union): 32

NOTE: CBA is the main requirement

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35
Q

If you call in sick overseas, can you deadhead back?

A

Yes, but you must get authorization to do so.

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36
Q

You fall down the stairs on the 747. How long do you have to report an OJI?

A

Flight crew injury report within 48 hours, injury report within 10 days

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37
Q

Some random regional guy is riding with you to Dubai on a cargo flight. Are you required to keep the flight deck door closed and locked?

A

No. Only on PAX aircraft.

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38
Q

You must always have at least ___ blank page in your passport.

A

1

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39
Q

Regarding access to the flight deck, you have to check everyone’s documents. Except for Atlas employees. With one exception, what is it?

A

Blue badge: good to go

Yellow badge: considered “vendors” and must be checked.

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40
Q

What is HAWK?

A

We use it to verify CASS status for people riding along in the flight deck. (on cargo flights the rest areas are considered the flight deck.)

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41
Q

If you have PAX onboard, or any jumpseaters, you must ______ before refueling.

A

Seatbelt sign off, jetbridge or stairs attached.

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42
Q

Can you go down in the main cargo deck during flight?

A

Yes, only on aircraft equipped with a “main deck/signaling alert system.” And it should only be to tend to cargo or animals.

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43
Q

Are we certified for day and night VFR?

A

Yes

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44
Q

Are we certified for extended over water operations? Icing conditions?

A

Yes and yes

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45
Q

Where are aircraft logs stored?

A

In the aircraft log tin. A metal box in the cockpit

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46
Q

All entries into the aircraft log must be printed in ______ink

A

blue or black

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47
Q

What do you do if you make an error while writing in the MX log?

A

Draw a line through the error, and then initial near the entry. Reprint and try again.

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48
Q

What if you write something up in error? Like an entire MX write up, not just a typo

A

Draw a line through the entire entry, write VOID above the line, print your name, station, and date below the line.

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49
Q

In the MX log, what format should date be written as?

A

date, month, year

IE: 21 DEC 2022

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50
Q

You must record all max thrust takeoffs in the logbook. True or false

A

True

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51
Q

An aircraft must perform an autoland every ____ days.

A

30

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52
Q

A logbook entry must be made for every autoland. True or False

A

True

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53
Q

An airworthiness release is required after ______

A

MX, preventative MX, or alteration.

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54
Q

How often are daily MX checks performed? When does the clock begin?

A

Every 48 hours of aircraft operation. The clock begins at block-out following a daily check.

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55
Q

A daily MX check is normally every 48 hours of aircraft operation. Aircraft that sit around for more than 7 days is considered an intermittently active aircraft. What would the “daily check” be for an intermittently active aircraft?

A

Prior to departure

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56
Q

What is a transient MX check?

A

Performed prior to every departure.

NOTE: A daily check supersedes a transient check

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57
Q

If you divert somewhere with no MX, can you depart without a transient check?

A

Yes, but first you need to contact MX for approval.

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58
Q

Can the PIC defer an item if you are somewhere with no MX?

A

Yes, only if the item is deferrable and requires no MX action and the PIC contacts MX to get a walkthrough of how to defer it.

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59
Q

What do you do if a mechanical irregularity occurs prior to engine start?

A

Write up, contact MX

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60
Q

Where must you place a DMI sticker?

A

1 in clear view of the flight crew (usually center console) and 1 on the aircraft log tin.

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61
Q

What is the difference between an orange or white DMI decal sticker?

A

Orange: Requires aircraft log action prior to each flight

White: Deferred items requiring no log action.

NOTE: If orange decal used, it must also be placed in the inbound aircraft log so it alerts the next crew.

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62
Q

What is a non-MEL item?

A

Items not in the DDG (MEL/CDL/NEF)

They have no effect on safety or normal operation.

Recorded in the non-MEL item list in the aircraft log tin.

IE kit replacement items, paint chips, normal wear, etc.

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63
Q

What is the “cutoff point” for mechanical irregularities for if you need to gate return, write up, call MX versus run a QRH and try to clear it and possibly continue?

A

Engine start. (detailed flow chart in FOM called “Mx Quick Reference Card”)

64
Q

iPad battery must be at least ____% before reporting for duty, or any training assignments.

A

67%

65
Q

The PIC and the ___ are jointly responsible.

A

Dispatcher

66
Q

How can an amended release be transmitted?

A
  • ACARS
  • Radio
  • SATCOM
  • Telephone
67
Q

What does a briefing package normally include?

A
  • 3 flight plans
  • TLR
  • Company NOTAMS
  • Weather and NOTAMS
  • Maps and company documents (if applicable)
68
Q

How soon before departure should a briefing packet be transmitted?

A

3 hours

69
Q

What equipment onboard must be operating normally before entering RVSM?

A
  • 2 independent altimeter systems
  • Mode C capable SSR transponder
  • Altitude alert system
  • Automatic altitude keeping device
70
Q

Night operations require runway edge lighting. There are some exceptions. What are they?

A
  • The first 5,000’ must have lights on both sides in 200’ intervals
  • —The remainder is lighted in 400’ intervals
  • 4 substitute lights are placed at each end of runway, if the runway end lights are out
  • Obstruction lights illuminated
  • PIC and dispatcher agree that the substitute operation is adequate and safe
71
Q

Can we be released to an airport not in the OpsSpecs list of approved airports?

A

Yes, provided it is held to the same equipment and safety standards as our approved airports.

72
Q

Except for the destination airport, all airports listed on the release have routings. If diverting to one, follow the routing. What altitude is appropriate?

A

Normal diversion: Higher or MORA or FMC optimum altitude

Engine out or decompression altitude below MORA: escape route will automatically be provided

73
Q

If the WX radar is broken, can you dispatch?

A

Only if there are no thunderstorms, or hazardous conditions that could be detected by the radar anticipated.

74
Q

Can we be dispatched into known or forecast severe icing?

A

NO

75
Q

What aircraft are CAT II and what are CAT III?

A

LCF: CAT II

All others: CAT III

76
Q

Approach minimums in the US normally do not contain a ceiling. If a foreign airport has a ceiling listed on approach minimums, is this considered when planning the release?

A

Yes

77
Q

A flight cannot be dispatched unless the weather minimums are ________ at ETA.

A

At or above

78
Q

What is considered an extended overwater flight?

A

Any flight planned to operate more than 50NM from shore.

79
Q

If listing an alternate airport with no instrument approach, what are the alternate minimums?

A

Must be able to descend from MEA to approach and land in VFR conditions.

80
Q

What are alternate minimums? (CAT 1)

A

Airports with at least 1 navigational facility with a straight in approach or circle: Add 400 and 1 to approach minimums.

Airports with at least 2 navigational facilities each providing a straight in approach to 2 different runways: Add 200’ and 1/2 to the higher of the 2 approaches.

81
Q

Derived alternate minimums are 200-1 or 400-1/2 for CAT 1. Are there different rules for CAT 2 and CAT 3? What are those minimums?

A

Yes. Only if the aircraft is approved and capable of CAT 2 or 3 with 1 engine inop CAT 3 operations. Wind gusts must be forecast to be within limits too.

CAT II: ceiling: 300’ / visibility: 3/4SM (4,000 RVR or 1200M)

CAT III: ceiling: 200’ / visibility: 1/2 SM (1,800 RVR or 550M)

82
Q

A takeoff alternate is required when weather is below landing minimums. Is this CAT 1, 2, or 3?

A

CAT 1 ONLY. Don’t use anything but CAT 1 when determining the need for a takeoff alternate.

83
Q

What is required of a takeoff alternate? Milage?

A
  • Must be within 2 hours, normal cruise, still air, one engine inop.
  • Weather is using normal derived alternate minimums

LCF: 800NM
All others: 900NM

84
Q

There are lots of alternates. Destination alternate, takeoff alternate, ETP alternate, and ETOPS alternate. What weather minimums does each use?

A

They are all the same. Normal derived alternate minimums.

85
Q

When is an alternate required?

A

Domestic: If 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, the WX is less than 2,000’ ceiling or 3SM vis. (or if WX is marginal)

Supplemental (or flag over 6 hours): Always need one. (unless isolated)

Flag under 6 hours: If 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, the ceiling is less than 1,500’ above lowest circling MDA, OR ceiling less than 2,000’, OR ceiling is less than 1,500’ above lowest approach minimum, whichever is greater. OR visibility less than 3 miles (or less than 2 miles above lowest approach minimum)

(WTF FAA?)

86
Q

Where can you find a list of isolated airports?

A

FOM “isolated airports”

87
Q

What is FMC reserve fuel?

A

45 minutes at 1,500 AFE at destination

88
Q

What are domestic fuel requirements?

A

Fly to destination, thereafter fly to furthest alternate, then 45 minutes of fuel at normal consumption.

89
Q

What are flag and supplemental fuel requirements?

A 
A= departure
B= destination
C= most distant alternate

Fly from A to B, plus 10% of the A-B fuel, fly to C, then have 30 minutes of fuel at holding speed at 1,500’ AFE

NOTE: For isolated airport with no alternate, must arrive with 2 hours of fuel at normal cruise.

NOTE: For flag less than 6 hours, domestic rules apply.

90
Q

For practical purposes, does a planned point of redispatch change the fuel requirement?

A

No. It is still A-B, plus 10% of A-B, plus B-C, plus 30 minutes at 1,500’ AFE. You are simply reassessing and recalculating a new release at the point of redispatch, which may favor a closer alternate due to weather, or you might have burned less fuel than anticipated. It allows you to take less fuel legally, while still maintaining safety margins.

91
Q

What is included in “trip fuel” on the release?

A

The sum of:

  • Takeoff
  • Climb
  • Cruise
  • Descent
  • Approach
  • Landing at destination.

NOTE: This figure factors in all considerations like deferred items with burn penalty, winds, payloads, etc.

92
Q

What is ALT1/ALT2?

A

Alternate fuel. A conservative number that factors in going missed and flying to alternate 1 or 2.

NOTE: Only the furthest alternate is included in the MINF (minto) number.

93
Q

What is FAR RSV fuel?

A

Your required reserve fuel number for either domestic or international. (45 minutes domestic, 30 minutes at 1,500 AFE international)

NOTE: Does not contain the 10%

NOTE: If isolated, this number is the 2 hours after arriving at destination

94
Q

What is 10% RSV fuel?

A

The international 10% fuel

NOTE: calculated using TOD fuel flow

95
Q

What is ADD.xx fuel?

A

If the flight planning system needs to add fuel to a flight it will be displayed here.

ADD.TO (takeoff)
ADD.E (ETOPS)
ADD.LD (Landing)
ADD.AL (alternate)
ADD.RC (redispatch)
96
Q

What is CF on a release?

A

Contingency fuel

97
Q

Is ballast fuel usable?

A

No, only in an emergency

98
Q

What is MINF?

A

Minimum takeoff fuel to comply with all regulations

99
Q

The flight planning system normally adds fuel when MINF is projected to be below _____ lbs.

A

25,000

NOTE: This will show as ADD.TO on the release

100
Q

What does the 747 burn per minute taxiing?

A

100 lbs a minute

101
Q

What is block (block out fuel)?

A

Recommended block out fuel

Includes MINF, EXTRA, TAXI

102
Q

What is an inflight reanalysis? (IR)

A

When the crew asks dispatch to recalculate fuel situation after a long delay, unanticipated headwind, higher than planned fuel burn, deviation, etc.

103
Q

Prior to arriving at a point of redispatch (POR), you can anticipate a text from dispatch called a redispatch message (RDM). What is this?

A

It is a proposal of your new release. It is a basic summary of your new release with fuel, alternates, and weather. Weather is simplified into 3 categories: open, operational, instrument.

Open: Ceiling 3,000 and visibility greater than 5 SM
Operational: Ceiling and visibility less than 3,000’ and 5 SM. Not less than 1,000’ and 3 SM
Instrument: Ceiling and visibility less than 1,000’ and 3 SM. Not less than 600’ and 1 SM

104
Q

Can you carry revenue cargo in the flight deck area?

A

No

105
Q

What is the maximum weight and % MAC for a last minute change to the cargo? (LMC)

A

300 kilos (661 lbs)

.5% of MAC

106
Q

Point of redispatch (POR) must be within _____ hours of the destination.

A

6

107
Q

What is considered “marginal weather” for dispatching purpouses?

A

When weather at destination is exactly 600’ ceilings and 2 SM visibility

108
Q

What is the repair time allowance for MEL category A, B, C, D and also an NEF?

A 
A: Time interval
B: 3 days
C: 10 days
D: 120 days
NEF: 120 days
109
Q

What is a last minute change? A pen and ink change?

A

LMC: any change in cargo, jumpseaters/supernumerary, COMAT, etc. Must not exceed .5% MAC or 300 kilos (661 lb)

Pen and ink: captain can write in changes to the load manifest (in agreement with the loadmaster) to things like destination, names, LMC’s, etc. Must initial the changes

110
Q

What is a pre-takeoff check?

versus a pre-takeoff contamination check?

A

Pre-takeoff check: Within HOT, anytime precipitation has occurred after deicing. (go down and open a door and look out at the wing)

Pre-takeoff contamination check: If HOT expires, and within 5 minutes of departure. (go down and open door and look out at wing.)

NOTE: procedure identical, only difference is that one is within HOT with precip, the other is expired HOT within 5 minutes of takeoff

111
Q

What are FO limitations with less than 100 hours experience in type?

A

The captain must make all takeoffs and landings when:

  • All special PIC qualification airports
  • Visibility 3/4SM or 4,000 RVR or less
  • Runway contaminated with water, slush, snow, or anything that may adversely affect airplane performance
  • Braking action less than good
  • Windshear reported in vicinity
  • PIC discretion
112
Q

What defines a low time crewmember (LTC)?

A

Less than 100 hours in type

113
Q

At least ____ pilot(s) must not be a low time flight crewmember (LTFC)

A

1

114
Q

What must a PIC do every 12 months to maintain qualification to operate into a special PIC qualification airport?

A

-Make a takeoff and landing
or
-Review the Jeppesen airport pictorial pages
or
-If neither of the above, can still go if the forecast shows ceiling is at least 1,000’ above MEA or MOCA and visibility is at least 3SM at ETA

115
Q

What are high minimums PIC restrictions?

A
  • Alternate airport weather minimums cannot be less than 300’ 1SM (for filing purposes)
  • Must add 200’ and 1/2SM to each approach (never less than 300-1)
  • No Cat III
116
Q

If a high minimums PIC is using any exemption to reduce the requirement to add 200-1/2, what is required of the weather?

A
  • Must be not less than 3/4SM (4000 RVR)

- AND crosswind component must not exceed 15 knots with braking action less than good

117
Q

High minimums captains can use full normal minimums for CAT 1 and 2. What must they do during the approach?

A

Cat 1: Use autopilot to DA/H

Cat 2: Must autoland

118
Q

Must maintain 3 takeoffs and landings every 90 days. Can autoland count for this?

A

No

119
Q

If a status message is displayed, different actions must be taken based on prior to engine start or after engine start. Explain each.

A

Prior to start: Write up, call MX

After: Continue normal operations, if safe.

NOTE: if status message appears after block in, write up, call MX.

120
Q

If a non-normal EICAS (Warning, Caution, or advisory) or any other instrument or item becomes inoperative, different actions must be taken based on prior to engine start or after engine start. Explain each.

A

Before engine start: Write up, call MX

After engine start: Run QRH- can continue if its cleared and its safe to do so. If its not cleared or not safe to continue, return to gate, write up, call MX

121
Q

Usually MX handles all deferrals. Under what condition can a flight crew deferral happen?

A

Must be a DDG flight crew deferral item (FC), under direction of MX control, and after engine start.

122
Q

If a mechanical irregularity occurs in flight, does the DDG apply?

A

No

123
Q

Are status messages occurring in flight considered maintenance discrepancies?

A

No

124
Q

When should a full takeoff briefing be conducted? What about any subsequent briefings limited to only airport specific information?

A

Full: First leg of the day

Subsequent: every leg thereafter

125
Q

When must a concur expense report be done?

A

Every 30 days

126
Q

On concur, any purchase under ____ dollars does not require a receipt.

A

75

127
Q

What is the proper phraseology to say during or right after a TCAS RA to ATC?

A

“GIANT XXXX TCAS RA”

128
Q

If thunderstorms are in the terminal area, flights should not make takeoffs, approaches or landings. With one exception:

A

If the runway and flight path are clear of the storm and associated gust front.

129
Q

Always detour around known mountain wave activity. If not possible, fly at least _____ higher than the mountain range.

A

50%

130
Q

Windshear policy:

A

-Takeoffs, approaches, and landings are not authorized when runway-specific windshear or microburst alerts are in effect for the intended runway of use.
-During departure or approach, execute windshear escape procedure if windshear warning if system is activated.
(go around mandatory)

131
Q

If you are unsure if you should depart or land due to hazardous weather, what can help you?

A

The Hazardous Weather Decision Aid (FOM)

132
Q

Areas of volcanic ash cloud will be avoided for the first ____ hours following the end of the volcanic eruption.

A

24

133
Q

Fly at least ___NM from any volcanic ash and always avoid flying downwind of it.

A

100

134
Q

Headsets are required ________

A

below 18,000’

135
Q

O2 requirements:

A
  • Available above 10,000’
  • Above FL250 quick donning must be available
  • Above FL410, if only 1 pilot is in flight deck, he must wear the mask
136
Q

Are cell phones allowed in flight?

A

no, must be shut off.

137
Q

Can we taxi over a raised arresting cable?

A

Yes, just dont apply brakes while crossing

138
Q

Minimum runway width

A

148’

139
Q

Where is sterile cockpit?

A

below 10,000

140
Q

We are not authorized to shoot a TACAN approach. However, if the approach is normal and the TACAN portion is only on the missed approach (military bases), can you shoot the approach?

A

Yes, just get alternate missed approach instructions.

141
Q

If you get a TCAS RA, is an RA procedure mandatory?

A

Yes, no matter what.

142
Q

Can crew bunks be occupied during taxi, takeoff, or landing?

A

No

143
Q

When is the shoulder harness required to be work?

A

Takeoff or landing

Moderate or greater turb

144
Q

Stabilized approach criteria

A

At 1,000’ AGL

  • On path
  • On speed
  • Configured
145
Q

NADP_ is the normal one

A

2

146
Q

A departure message must be sent as soon as practical after passing _____’. What is in this message?

A

10,000’

OFF fuel
Souls onboard

147
Q

Circle to land minimums

A

published

just never less than 1,000’ and 3

148
Q

Can an FO land CAT II or CAT III?

A

No. Only CAT I

149
Q

To accept a visual approach, you must be within ____ miles

A

35

150
Q

Can prevailing visibility be used for CAT II or III?

A

No, need RVR

151
Q

Are special authorization CAT I approaches authorized?

A

No (never fly less than 200-1/2)

152
Q

Ops spec C060 lists all foreign CAT II and III approaches we are authorized. All domestic is authorized. What about US military bases in a foreign country?

A

They are considered domestic

153
Q

Are SA CAT II approaches authorized?

A

Yes, but you must autoland.

154
Q

For CAT 1 and 2, you need to see the runway environment to descend below minimums. What about CAT 3?

A

No requirement to see anything. Must not have any indications that autoland wont work

155
Q

After an accident, PIC must submit an _____ no later than ____ hours after the crash

A

FCIR; 48

156
Q

There are lots of reasons why you’d submit an FCIR. Where can you find a table telling you all the required report?

A

FOM Appendix A FICR table.

call of the heavies (39 decks)

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