INDOC morning quiz questions Flashcards

1
Q

A.) Smoking is not permitted on company property, except in designated areas.
B.) Smoking is not allowed on company aircraft
C.) The use of smokeless tobacco products, simulated smoking materials, vapes, etc. is prohibited.
D.) All of the above

A

D

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2
Q

How many months prior to passport expiration must they be renewed, with a copy sent to training records?

A

15 months

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3
Q

What defines a class 1 rest facility?

A

A bunk or other surface that allows for a flat sleeping position that is separate from both the flight deck and cabin.

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4
Q

If you check on your AIMS and it appears that a flight may exceed duty limits, who do you contact?

A

Crew scheduling

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5
Q

If a crewmember has questions regarding a medication while on flight status, who should they contact?

A

AME

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6
Q

What are the 5 stated goals of company operations in order of priority?

A

Safety/regulatory compliance, passenger comfort, schedule performance, efficiency

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7
Q

If a crewmember is on a VX day and is called for a trip, is he required to fly that trip?

A

No

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8
Q

What is the maximum number of days AIMS can award without crewmember consent?

A

17

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9
Q

Which instance would require a crewmember to be cleared by an FAA doctor before returning to flight duty?
A.) Ear infection that lasted a week
B.) Flu lasting 10 days
C.) Sudden incapacitation that lasted 30 minutes
D.) Lasik

A

C.) Any incapacitation in flight requires being cleared to fly again.

(The others are false because they don’t last 14 days)

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10
Q

Which equipment is not required while on duty?

  • PCD
  • iPad
  • Plotter
  • Corrective lenses if required
  • Flashlight
  • Vest
A

Plotter

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11
Q

Distant learning is used to reinforce knowledge and is assigned every ____ months.

A

3

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12
Q

If a logbook correction is necessary:

a. ) Draw a single line through the words in error, reprint correct words, initial near the line
b. ) Shade in everything
c. ) Pring VOID in the middle of the page
d. ) Draw diagonal line across corrective action and write VOID, write name, station, and date below the line.

A

A.

NOTE: D. would be correct for a write up done in error, but this question is asking about a simple logbook correction.

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13
Q

The aircraft is restricted to CAT I operations if an autoland has not been completed in the last____

A

30 days

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14
Q

If a flight delay will cause 2 company aircraft to be airborne at the same time with the same callsign, what does dispatch do?

A

A letter is added to the flight number of the delayed flight

GTI606 and GTI606A

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15
Q

Who is ultimately responsible for ensuring that all requirements for airport and route qualifications, including special areas and airports, are met for intended flight?

A

PIC

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16
Q

What dispatch limitation exists if airborne weather radar equipment is not in satisfactory operating condition?

A

Aircraft may not be dispatched under IFR or night VFR if current reports indicate thunderstorms or other hazardous weather that may be expected along the flight.

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17
Q

How far offshore before a flight is considered extended overwater?

A

50NM

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18
Q

Can ballast fuel be considered usable?

A

Only in case of emergency

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19
Q

What is the earliest that a redispatch message (RDM) can be issued from dispatch?

A

2 hours prior to reaching POR

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20
Q

What are the primary sources of takeoff performance data if ACARS inoperative?

A

TLR or live calculation

21
Q

Which of the following is not a primary source of landing data, if ACARS is down?

  • E6B
  • TLR
  • Live calculation
  • Performance inflight
A

E6B

22
Q

Which icing condition is defined as “The rate of accumulation is such that even short encounters become potentially hazardous, and the use of deicing equipment or diversion is necessary.”

A

Moderate

23
Q

If an aircraft has undergone deice/anti-icing procedures and the HOT is exceeded, can the aircraft still depart?

A

Yes, pending completion of a pre-takeoff contamination check by an operating crewmember, indicating no contamination.

24
Q

True/ False: After the load manifest form is prepared, pen and ink changes can be made by the captain with concurrence of the person who prepared the form.

A

True

25
Q

Prior to accepting a flight under 117 rules, the crewmember must have a “24/7” on their schedule in the last 7 days. True or false

A

False. 117 requires 30/7 (121 is 24/7)

26
Q

You arrive at the alternate dispatch filed for you. The weather is below alternate minimums. are you legal to land?

A

Yes. Alternate minimums are for filing only. You’d go to the approach plate for the actual approach.

27
Q

A transient check supersedes a daily check. True or false

A

False. (its the other way around)

28
Q

DMI’s shall be recognizable to the flight deck crew through the use of white or orange sticker (placed in clear view on the flight deck) and DMI decal (placed on aircraft log.) DMI’s identified by an orange sticker require_____

A

Aircraft log action prior to each flight.

29
Q

The OFP and SABLE weight and balance use the same BOW. True or false

A

False. (OFP is PLANNED and SABLE is actual)

30
Q

Can autoland be used to satisfy pilot landing currency?

A

No

31
Q

Are captain-captain pairings authorized?

A

Yes

CA can get right seat qualified

32
Q

Which of the following must be accomplished in the 12 preceding months in order for a captain to operate into a special PIC qualification airport?

a. ) Any operating crewmember has made entry into that airport while serving as a crewmember, including a takeoff and landing, in an aircraft using a level D or better simulator
b. ) Review of the applicable Jeppesen airport pictorial pages in the Jeppesen manual, or U.S. Department of commerce terminal pilotage charts (TPC)
c. ) Viewing special PIC qualification video
d. ) Either A or B

A

d.

33
Q

With a 2-pilot crew, can both be considered a low time flight crew member? (LTFC)

A

No, at least 1 pilot assigned to each flight must not be an LTFC

34
Q

True/False - Status messages occurring in flight are maintenance discrepancies.

A

False

35
Q

If under duress, how should the cabin crew communicate to the flight deck?

A

Use abnormal phraseology and formal titles.

36
Q

True/False - Company pilots are authorized to accept LAHSO clearances.

A

False

37
Q

When an aircraft is in grave and immediate danger and in need of immediate assistance, the appropriate FAA and ICAO distress signal is:

A

“Mayday Mayday Mayday”

38
Q

What is the appropriate ATC assigned radar separation for takeoff behind a heavy jet?

A

4 or 5 miles

39
Q

Which of the following does NOT require a report to ATC?

a. ) when leaving any assigned holding fix or clearance limit
b. ) any information related to the safety of flight
c. ) when encountering hazardous weather conditions which have been forecast
d. ) when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute

A

d.)

Required report is when you can’t climb or descend at a rate of 500 FPM

40
Q

You just taxied to and parked in the deice pad. When calculating a holdover time, do you use the standard or adjusted tables?

A

Adjusted (because the flaps are out)

41
Q

Which of these situations would the duty pilot prove most useful?

a. ) crew scheduling has given you an illegal extension.
b. ) you’ve experienced a hydraulic system failure in flight.
c. ) you need a regulation clarified.
d. ) you need to call in sick.

A

c.)

42
Q

Where would you go to retrieve the briefing package for a flight?

A

HAWK

43
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required to be filed?

A

When the reported weather is below CAT I landing minimums, or if other operations conditions exist for departure airport.

44
Q

True/False:

The route strip on the OFP must match the route strip that dispatch filed with ATC.

A

False

45
Q

True/False

Calculated V1 is dependent on runway length.

A

True

46
Q

You and your captain are flying the same route you flew together earlier this week. How should you brief it?

a. ) “As previously briefed”
b. ) Brief any differences from the last flight, if any
c. ) give an entirely new briefing

A

c.

47
Q

The reject criteria for takeoff are the same above and below 80 knots for _________.

A

747, 777, 767

737 is different

48
Q

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a. ) NADP 1 is the close in profile NADP 2 is the distant departure.
b. ) the NADP 2 acceleration height is lower than the NADP 1 acceleration height.
c. ) NADP’s are designed for noise abatement.
d. ) using the NADP 1 profile will always result in reaching cruise altitude sooner than NADP 2

A

d.