GOS 1.0 Flashcards

1
Q

What is basic operating weight? (BOW)

A

The weight of the aircraft and all of its permanent equipment, plus the weight of 2 crewmembers.

(Does not include fuel or payload)

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2
Q

What is a common reason why the OFP and Sable BOW do not line up?

A

The OFP includes the weight of all planned crew and ACM’s into the BOW but Sable does the TRUE definition and only uses 2 pilots into the BOW number.

NOTE: The final ZFW and TOGW calculations must match between the OFP and Sable regardless.

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3
Q

Define CG

A

The theoretical point where the aircraft would balance if suspended at that point

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4
Q

Define MZFW. (maximum zero fuel weight)

A

Maximum weight of the aircraft before usable fuel is loaded

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5
Q

What is Sable?

A

It is the computer program that does all the weight and balance calculations.

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6
Q

As fuel is burned from the _________ tanks, the CG moves aft.

A

Center and inboard tanks (2 and 3).

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7
Q

As fuel is burned from tanks _______ the CG moves forward

A

1 and 4 (outboard tanks)

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8
Q

If ZFW if greater than PZFW by up to ______KGs, use the provided burn adjustment per 1,000 KGs and calculate your new fuel requirements.

A

10,000 KGs

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9
Q

If ZFW exceeds PZFW by more than _______KGs, a new (or amended) release is required.

A

10,000 KGs

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10
Q

What is a LMC for?

A

It is a “last minute change” and is so you can throw more weight on, or take weight off at the last minute without totally redoing the weight and balance and OFP. (Maximum change of 300 KGs)

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11
Q

On your OFP, you see MFPTW is greater than PTOW by 11,000 KG. What will the PTOW PLUS _____ TLR section be?

A

It will be PTOW PLUS 10000. Not a kilo more. Because PTOW PLUS 10000 is the limit. If it were less than 10,000, it would reflect that value.

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12
Q

On the OFP you see MFPTW is greater than PTOW by 1000 KGs. What would the PTOW PLUS section say?

A

PTOW PLUS 1000 (Because the spread is 1,000.) If the spread was 500, it would say PTOW PLUS 500. It is simply whatever the spread is, up to 10,000. If the spread is over 10,000, it will cap out at 10,000.

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13
Q

Normal landing data from ACARS or from the TLR has a ____% landing factor added.

A

15% (Buffer)

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14
Q

For doing a brake cooling schedule chart, you need the brakes on indicated airspeed. If this is not known, what can you use?

A

5-7 knots lower than approach speed.

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15
Q

If BTMS is working, what BTMS value do you use when doing brake cooling chart?

A

The hottest brake temp 10-15 minutes after the airplane comes to a complete stop.

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16
Q

When would EICAS message BRAKE TEMP appear?

A

If a brake temp reaches level 5 or more.

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17
Q

On a Quick Turnaround Limit chart, the goal is to find a weight limit. What if you determine your landing weight to be less than the weight limit?

A

If you did not exceed that limit weight, you are good. No special cooling required. If you did, follow the fine print (basically tells you to wait 70 minutes).

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18
Q

What is the fuel penalty for flying perishables or live cargo?

A

1% extra. Will be noted on the OFP

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19
Q

The Sable BOW is different than the OFP BOW because of ACMs. Where should you go look to verify that the BOW is accurate because of these ACMs?

A

On the briefing packet, go to “company NOTAMS” AKA Intams.

On there you will see BASIC CREW and it gives you the BOW for +1, through +6 extra people.

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20
Q

On an OFP TLR, what does a / symbol signify?

A

It means that specific line of data that begins with a / is planned.

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21
Q

On a TLR, there is a “ACARS TAKEOFF REQUEST” section that shows a range of time. What is this for? How long is this range of time?

A

It is the validity range for sending for performance data via ACARS. That will always be an 8 hour window.

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22
Q

A TLR has an OAT and a QNH limit. It is nice because the TLR flat out tells you what the validity range is. But what is the range for OAT and QNH?

A

OAT: Actual OAT cannot be colder than 10 degrees C under POAT

QNH: Actual QNH cannot be less than .15 in. under PQNH

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23
Q

On an OFP and TLR, you will see PTOW and MFPTW in XXXX format. For example, 3118. How heavy is this number?

A

It is 311,800 KGs. Add 2 zeros to the end of that format.

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24
Q

What does FDP mean?

A

Flight Deck Performance. It is data derived from the FMC using either ACARS or onboard FMC performance data.

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25
Q

What does Sable generate?

A

A weight and balance loadsheet form.

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26
Q

Who must sign the Sable weight and balance loadsheet form?

A

PIC

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27
Q

You know that an LMC cannot exceed 300 kilos. What else should you verify before accepting an LMC?

A

That maximum weights are not exceeded (MZFW, MTOGW, zone limits, etc.)

Also that the MAC C.G. shift is no more than .5% and within limits

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28
Q

Pen and ink changes must be ____

A

Initialed by the PIC

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29
Q

On preflight, you notice a crack in the crew ladder bracket. You determine it is not in the DDG. Can you take off?

A

No. If it’s not in the DDG, it means it is not deferrable

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30
Q

What additives do you add to VREF?

A

Autothrottle disconnected: Add 1/2 steady state + all of the gust

AT engaged: Add +5 knots

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31
Q

What is MEL category A?

A

Time interval

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32
Q

What is MEL category B?

A

3 days

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33
Q

What is MEL category C?

A

10 days

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34
Q

What is MEL category D?

A

120 days

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35
Q

How long is an NEF valid before it must be fixed?

A

120 days

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36
Q

When an MEL is written up, when does the timer begin regarding its category time limit?

A

At 0000Z after the write up (Start of the next Zulu day)

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37
Q

For DMIs, there are either orange stickers or white stickers. What do each signify?

A

Orange: Requires log entry every flight

White: Just a simple DMI (no log entry required)

37
Q

For DMIs, there are either orange stickers or white stickers. What do each signify?

A

Orange: Requires log entry every flight

White: Just a simple DMI (no log entry required)

38
Q

How heavy is a pilot or supernumerary person considered including their luggage?

A

124 KG

39
Q

How does the crew know if the “Low gross weight aft CG takeoff” procedure is required? Where can the procedure be found?

A

It says on both Sable, TLR, and OFP. The procedure is in FCOM Vol 1 Supplemental procedures (CA Only)

40
Q

Where would you find temperature guidelines for carriage of live animals and perishables?

A

FCOM Vol. 1, supplementary procedures (air systems)

41
Q

Use of max thrust must be______

A

Recorded in the aircraft log

42
Q

When must the aircraft perform an autoland?

A

Every 30 days.

43
Q

What if an autoland has not been performed in the previous 30 days?

A

The aircraft is restricted to CAT 1 until a successful autoland is accomplished.

44
Q

If an autoland has not been performed in 30 days and the aircraft is restricted to CAT 1 until an autoland is accomplished, how can you get an autoland done?

A

Conditions must be:
-ILS available
-WX Cat 1 or better
-ATC advised that autoland will be performed (to keep the critical area safe)

If those conditions are met, you can do a CAT 1 autoland and reset the 30 day timer, restoring CAT III capabilities.

45
Q

When must a daily check be accomplished?

A

Continuously operating aircraft: Each 48 hours of aircraft operation (Timer starts at block out after check)

Intermittently operated aircraft: Before departure

46
Q

A daily check supersedes a _______

A

Transient check

47
Q

When must a transient check be accomplished?

A

Prior to each leg. (A daily check supersedes a transient check)

48
Q

All MEL categories can be extended, except for____

A

A and D

49
Q

A status message that displays before engine start requires what actions?

A

Write up, call MX

50
Q

A status message that appears after engine start requires what actions?

A

If it does not affect the dispatch capability, continue normal operations.

51
Q

After shutdown, a status message appears. What action do you take?

A

Write up, call MX

52
Q

For DDG purposes, what is considered “takeoff”?

A

When thrust is advanced for takeoff

53
Q

On a DDG item, you see “FC Deferral: YES.” What does this mean?

A

It means it is flight crew deferrable. MX will walk you through it.

54
Q

A flight crew deferral is only valid for _________

A

One leg of flight

55
Q

Can you accomplish an FC deferral before engine start?

A

No, you must write up and call MX. FC deferrals are only for things that come up after engine start.

56
Q

If a MX discrepancy occurs after takeoff, the _____ does not apply.

A

DDG (Use the QRH)

57
Q

Are status messages that occur in flight considered mx discrepancies?

A

No

58
Q

What power does TO, TO-1, and TO-2 give you?

A

TO: Full power
TO-1: 5% derate
TO-2: 15% derate

59
Q

How long is the TLR planned conditions window?

A

8 hours

60
Q

___hours before departure, the flight packet is available.

A

3

61
Q

In terms of obtaining takeoff data, what are the methods and in what order of importance?

A

1.) FDP ACARS (aerodata)
2.) TLR
3.) Live calc (dispatch)

62
Q

Is the TLR a required document?

A

No

63
Q

On an FDP takeoff printout, you see SMRGN 1,213. What does this mean?

A

Stop margin. If you reject right at V1, you will have 1,213’ of runway left, after you come to a stop. (Includes stopway)

64
Q

On a simple special, you see “VIA” or “IMMEDIATE.” What does this mean?

A

You initiate the turn at 50’ AFE or engine failure if it happens above 50’ AFE

65
Q

The FRA on a TLR is in:
The FRA on an FDP is in:

A

TLR: MSL (must subtract field elevation)

FDP: AFE (no math required)

66
Q

Where would you find the “performance manual?”

A

FCOM Vol. 1, Supplemental

67
Q

What are the 2 methods of takeoff thrust reduction?

A

Assumed Temperature Method (ATM)

Derate (Fixed derate)

68
Q

When are assumed temperature takeoffs not allowed?

A

Standing water, slush, snow, or ice.

(wet is OK)

(Fixed derate would be OK for standing water, slush, snow, ice. Just not ATM)

69
Q

In terms of VMCG, what is the relationship that ATM versus fixed derate has on VMCG?

A

ATM: Does not affect VMCG, since VMCG calculations are based on the fixed thrust setting

Fixed: As stated above, fixed settings are limiting. (Don’t go more power than the TO, TO-1, or TO-2 that your TLR or FDP gave you.)

70
Q

No turns may be commenced on takeoff below 1,000’ AFE when the WX is below_____

A

1,000’ and 3SM

71
Q

Flap retraction is always _____ unless a special procedure says otherwise.

A

1,000’ AFE

72
Q

You are using the TLR for takeoff data. The temperature is 8 degrees C. It is clear and sunny. Do you need engine anti icing on for takeoff?

A

Yes, because it is TLR data. Any temperature 10C or less requires engine anti ice, if only using a TLR

73
Q

The temperature is 7 degrees C. It is sunny and clear. You have to use TLR date (ACARS down.) Your TLR does not include data for engine anti ice on. Is it valid?

A

TLR invalid, must get TLR with engine anti ice data.

74
Q

What are icing conditions?

A

Temp is 10C or less (OAT ground TAT air) PLUS:

-Visible moisture
or
-Ground clutter (ice, snow, slush etc.)

75
Q

When is engine anti ice required?

A

Icing conditions, turn it on after all 4 are started.

(If using TLR data, must use it 10C or less, regardless of moisture or ground clutter.)

76
Q

What is red line for N1?

A

117.5

77
Q

On the N1 gage, what does the amber line mean? What about the red over amber?

A

Amber line: Max N1
Red: Over boost (exceeded 117.5)

78
Q

What is max N2?

A

112.5

79
Q

On the N1 gage, what does the green line mean?

A

Reference thrust

NOTE: In TO (full power), amber line is same as green line.

80
Q

You are doing a fixed derate takeoff. (TO-2). You get a V1 cut. What happens if you push the power to max thrust?

A

You could potentially lose directional control. VMCG and VMCA are based on the fixed derate.

81
Q

Wet runways require autobrakes _____ or higher.

A

3

82
Q

You want to do an autoland, using TLR data. But it says MAN LAND. Can you use that TLR data?

A

Yes, just add 1,000’ to the distance. (Delayed laggy flare)

83
Q

The FMC itself can’t calculate takeoff data. (You use ACARS for that.) In flight, can the FMC compute landing numbers?

A

Yes

84
Q

Regarding QRH performance calculations for landing distance, should you ever use the APP SPD ADJ column?

A

No. Never factor that into the calculation

85
Q

What are the only 3 buttons that would be functional on the FMCs if you had a dual FMC failure?

A

PROG, LEGS, NAV RAD

86
Q

If on a performance problem for landing distance, reverse thrust is not specified, what do you assume?

A

Assume reverse thrust is working (no adjustment).

87
Q

What are the required equipment and document items for a flightcrew member to bring to work?

A

-Flashlight
-Vest
-PCD
-iPad
-Corrective lenses (if required)
-ATP cert
-Medical
-Radio permit
-Passport
-Employee ID
-International vaccine certificate

88
Q

Is ballast fuel considered usable?

A

No.

(Can use it in an emergency)

89
Q

All uplocks on the main deck cargo area must be_____ for flight.

A

In the up position

90
Q

On a cargo pallet with a net, what is required of the net condition?

A

No more than 2 net diamonds ripped in a row. No more than 4 total ripped on the entire net.