September Flashcards
Consider the following statements with reference to Citizenship:
- At present, no country in the world follows the jus soli citizenship system.
- Currently, Indian nationality law follows the jus sanguinis system of citizenship instead of the jus soli system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Countries around the world have established different systems and rules that govern the attribution of citizenship, the major ones being by birth, by naturalization or by marriage. Most countries follow one of the two following systems:
jus soli
jus sanguinis
Jus soli is a Latin term meaning law of the soil. Many countries follow jus soli, more commonly known as birth right citizenship. Under this concept, the citizenship of an individual is determined by the place where the individual was born. So a child of an immigrant is a citizen as long as he/she is born in the country of immigration. The US follows the jus soli system to determine citizenship. Therefore, whoever is born in the US and is subject to its jurisdiction is automatically granted US citizenship. Currently, around 30 countries in the world follow this. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Jus sanguinis is when a person acquires citizenship through descent, i.e. through their parents or ancestors independent of where he/she is born. Traditionally, as evidenced by the Citizenship Act of 1955, citizenship in India was acquired by birth on Indian soil (jus soli) or by descent (the son or daughter of Indian citizens are themselves an Indian citizen, even if they were born abroad). The reforms which took place from 1987 onwards tended to fully replace the old jus soli by a form of jus sanguinis as at least one of the parents had to be born Indian (and after 2003, the other parent should not be considered as illegal at the time of birth). Thus, currently Indian nationality law follows jus sanguinis system of citizenship. So, statement 2 is correct.
In which among the following cases, the Government of India may terminate the citizenship of an Indian citizen?
- A World Bank employee who is an Indian citizen and has been living in another country for the past seven years continuously.
- The citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India.
- The citizen has, within five years after registration or naturalization, been imprisoned in the USA for three years.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The Citizenship Act (1955) prescribes three ways of losing citizenship whether acquired under the Act or prior to it under the Constitution, viz, renunciation, termination and deprivation:
By Renunciation: Any citizen of India of full age and capacity can make a declaration renouncing his Indian citizenship. Upon the registration of that declaration, that person ceases to be a citizen of India. However, if such a declaration is made during a war in which India is engaged, its registration shall be withheld by the Central Government. Further, when a person renounces his Indian citizenship, every minor child of that person also loses Indian citizenship. However, when such a child attains the age of eighteen, he may resume Indian citizenship.
By Termination: When an Indian citizen voluntarily (consciously, knowingly and without duress, undue influence or compulsion) acquires the citizenship of another country, his Indian citizenship automatically terminates. This provision, however, does not apply during a war in which India is engaged.
By Deprivation: It is a compulsory termination of Indian citizenship by the Central government, if:
the citizen has obtained citizenship by fraud.
the citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India. So, statement 2 is correct.
the citizen has unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during a war;
the citizen has, within five years after registration or naturalization, been imprisoned in any country for two years. So, statement 3 is correct
the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously. However, this will not apply if he’s a student abroad or is in the service of a government in India or an international organization of which India is a member, or has registered annually at an Indian consulate his intention to retain his Indian citizenship. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Assam Accord of 1985:
- It was a Memorandum of Settlement (MoS) signed between representatives of the Government of India and the leaders of the Assam Movement.
- According to the Accord, any foreigners who arrived after January 1, 1966, would be identified and may be deported in accordance with the law.
- Clause 6 of the Accord was inserted to safeguard the socio-political rights and culture of the “indigenous people of Assam”.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Assam Accord came at the culmination of a movement against immigration from Bangladesh. The Assam Accord was a Memorandum of Settlement signed by the Governments of India and Assam, and the All Assam Students’ Union (AASU) and the All Assam Gana Sangram Parishad (AAGSP) in New Delhi on August 15, 1985. So, statement 1 is correct.
Clause 5 of the Assam Accord deals with the issue of foreigners, that is, detection of foreigners in Assam, deletion of their names from the voters’ list and their deportation through practical means. The foreigners were classified under three heads for identification and differential treatment under Clause 5 of the Assam Accord. Two dates are of significance in the Assam Accord: 1st of January 1966 and 24th of March 1971.
“All persons who came to Assam prior to 1.1.1966, including those amongst them whose name appeared on the electoral rolls used in 1967 elections, shall be regularised,” states Clause 5 of the Assam Accord. In simple words, illegal immigrants who entered Assam till December 31, 1965 were to be granted citizenship with voting rights immediately.
As per the accord, foreigners who came to Assam on or after March 25, 1971 shall continue to be detected, deleted and expelled in accordance with law. Immediate and practical steps shall be taken to expel such foreigners. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Clause 6 of the Assam Accord says that constitutional, legislative and administrative steps will be taken by the Centre to “protect, preserve and promote the cultural, social, linguistic identity and heritage of the Assamese people”. So, statement 3 is correct
Which among the following are essential elements of a Nation-State?
- Population
- Territory
- Army
- Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation :
Modern Nation-State has four essential elements. These are:
Population: The State is a human institution. It is the people who make a State. Antarctica is not a State as is it is without any human population. The population must be able to sustain a state
Territory: Just as every person belongs to a state, so does every square yard of earth. There is no state without a fixed territory. Living together on a common land binds people together. The territory has to be definite because it ensures the exercise of political authority.
Government: The purpose for which people live together cannot be realized unless they are properly organized and accept certain rules of conduct. The agency created to enforce rules of conduct and ensure obedience is called government. It is through this medium that common policies are determined, common affairs regulated and common interests promoted. Without a government, the people will lack cohesion and means of collective action
Sovereignty: A people inhabiting a definite portion of territory and having a government do not constitute a state so long as they do not possess sovereignty. India before 15 August 1947 had all the other elements of the state but it lacked sovereignty and therefore it was not a State. Sovereignty is the supreme power by which the state commands and exerts political obedience from its people. A state must be internally supreme and free from external control.
Therefore, every state must have a population, a definite territory, a duly established government and sovereignty. The absence of any of these elements deprives it the status of statehood. The first two elements constitute the physical or material basis of the state while the last two form its political and spiritual basis.
Army is not an essential element of a State.
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Evolution of Indian states and union territories’:
- At the time of Independence, India comprised three categories of political units, namely British provinces, Governor’s provinces and princely states.
- In 1950, the Constitution contained a fourfold classification of states and class of territory of the Indian Union – Part A, B, C and D.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
India comprised two categories of political units at the time of Independence namely British provinces (under the direct rule of British Government) and Princely states (under the rule of native princes). It was in the Indian Independence Act (1947) that two separate and independent dominions of India and Pakistan were created. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The Constitution of 1950 distinguished between three main types of states and a class of territories. Part A states, which were the former Governors’ provinces of British India, were ruled by a Governor appointed by the President and an elected State Legislature.
Part B states, which were former princely states or unions of princely states, governed by a rajpramukh, who was usually the ruler of a constituent state, and an elected legislature. The rajpramukh was appointed by the President of India.
Part C states included both the former chief commissioners’ provinces and some princely states, and each was governed by a chief commissioner appointed by the President of India.
The sole Part D territory was the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which was administered by a lieutenant governor appointed by the central government. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements:
- Creation of a new State in India requires amendment of Schedule 1 to the Constitution.
- If India wants to settle a boundary dispute with Pakistan, it can be done by executive action.
- If India wants to cede a part of its territory to a neighbouring country, it can be done only by amending the Constitution under Article 368.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
One of the special features of the Union of India is that the union is indestructible, but the power conferred on the Parliament includes the power to form a new state or union territory by uniting a part of any State or Union territory to other State or Union territory. The identity of States can be altered or even expunged by the Parliament. The Constituent Assembly declined a motion in the concluding stages to designate India as ‘’Federation of States’’.
Article 1 elucidates India as a ‘’Union of States’’. These states are specified in the First Schedule to the Constitution. The First Schedule lists the States and Territories of India and also lists if any changes to the borders. Thus, creating a new state in India requires an amendment of Schedule 1 to the Constitution. So, statement 1 is correct.
Articles 2 and 3 enable the Parliament by law to admit a new state, increase, decrease the area of any state. Moreover, the Constitution (Article 4) itself declares that laws made for admission or establishment of new states (under Article 2) and formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states (under Articles 3) are not to be considered as amendments of the Constitution under Article 368.
But the Supreme Court in the Berubari Union case (1960) held that the power of the Parliament to diminish the area of a state (under Article 3) does not cover the cession of Indian territory to a foreign country. Hence, Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state only by amending Article 368. So, statement 3 is correct.
On the other hand, the Supreme Court in 1969 ruled that settlement of a boundary dispute between India and another country does not require a constitutional amendment. It can be done by executive action as it does not involve the cession of Indian territory to a foreign country. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Citizenship:
- The Constitution of India does not define the term citizen.
- All the provisions under Part II of the Constitution that deals with Citizenship came into force on 26th January 1950.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Constitution of India is the primary legal instrument that lays down who is deemed to be a Citizen of India. The Constitution of India does not define the term citizen. Citizenship is listed in the Union List under the Constitution and thus is under the exclusive jurisdiction of Parliament. The Conferment of a person as a citizen of India is governed under Articles 5 to 11 by Part II of the Constitution of India. However, it contains neither any permanent nor any elaborate provisions in this regard. It only identifies the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement (i.e., on January 26, 1950). It does not deal with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement. It empowers the Parliament to enact a law to provide for such matters and any other matter relating to citizenship. Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Citizenship Act (1955), which has been amended from time to time. So, statement 1 is correct.
Some provisions of the Constitution pertaining to citizenship, elections, provisional parliament, temporary and transitional provisions, and short title contained in Articles 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 60, 324, 366, 367, 379, 380, 388, 391, 392 and 393 came into force on November 26, 1949, itself. The remaining provisions (the major part) of the Constitution came into force on January 26, 1950. This day is referred to in the Constitution as the ‘date of its commencement’, and celebrated as the Republic Day. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Overseas Citizens of India (OCI):
- A person whose parents/grandparents had been a citizen of Pakistan or Bangladesh becomes ineligible to apply for OCI.
- OCI enjoy all the rights and privileges granted to NRIs in financial, economic and educational fields in all aspects.
- OCI cannot enjoy rights conferred under Article 16 of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
No person, who or either of whose parents or grandparents or great grandparents is or had been a citizen of Pakistan, Bangladesh or such other country as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify, shall be eligible for registration as an Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder. So, statement 1 is correct.
OCI holders enjoy parity with NRIs in financial, economic and educational fields except in the acquisition of agricultural or plantation properties. So, statement 2 is not correct.
OCI card is not a substitute for an Indian visa and therefore, the passport which displays the lifetime visa must be carried by OCI holders while travelling to India. OCI is not to be misconstrued as ‘dual citizenship’. OCI does not confer political rights. The registered Overseas Citizens of India shall not be entitled to the rights conferred on a citizen of India under article 16 of the Constitution with regard to equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. So, statement 3 is correct.
Arrange the following States/Union Territories in ascending year of their formation:
- Daman and Diu
- Dadra and Nagar Haveli
- Sikkim
- Puducherry
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2-1-4-3
Explanation :
The Twelfth Amendment of the Constitution of India, 1962 incorporated Goa, Daman and Diu as the eighth Union territory of India, The 12th Amendment retroactively came into effect on 20 December 1961, the day following the formal ceremony of official Portuguese surrender.
The Tenth Amendment of the Constitution of India was passed to incorporate Dadra and Nagar Haveli as a union territory, effective 11 August 1961.
Puducherry was administered as an ‘acquired territory’, till 1962 when it was made a union territory by the 14th Constitutional Amendment Act, effective 16 August 1962.
The 36th Constitutional Amendment Act (1975) was enacted to make Sikkim a full-fledged state of the Indian Union (the 22nd state).
So, the correct sequence is 2-1-4-3.
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Union Governments power to acquire foreign territory’:
- Being a sovereign state, India can acquire foreign territories according to the modes recognized by international laws.
- India acquired several foreign territories such as Sikkim, Goa and Pondicherry before the commencement of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Being a sovereign state, India can acquire foreign territories according to the modes recognized by international law, i.e., cession (following treaty, purchase, gift, lease or plebiscite), occupation (hitherto unoccupied by a recognized ruler), conquest or subjugation. Article 2, empowers the parliament ‘to admit into new states on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit.
Thus article 2 grant two power to the parliament:
The power to admit into the union of India new state.
The power to establish new state. So, statement 1 is correct.
India acquired several foreign territories such as Dadra and Nagar Haveli; Goa, Daman and Diu; Pondicherry; and Sikkim after the commencement of the Constitution. Goa -1961; Pondicherry – 1954; Sikkim -1975. So, statement 2 in not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Reorganization of states’:
- The States Reorganization Commission under the chairmanship of Fazl Ali, completely rejected the idea of reorganization of states based on language.
- By the State Reorganization Act of 1956, the distinction between Part B and Part C states was done away.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The creation of Andhra state in 1953 as first linguistic state intensified the demand from other regions as well. This forced government to appoint a three-member State Reorganization Commission under the chairmanship of Fazl Ali. It broadly accepted language as the basis of the reorganization of states. But it rejected the theory of ‘One language one state’. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The Commission suggested the abolition of the four-fold classification of states under the original Constitution and creation of 16 states and 3 centrally administered territories.
By the States Reorganization Act (1956) and the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act (1956), the distinction between Part A and Part B states was done away and Part C states were abolished. Some of them are merged with adjacent states and some were designated as union territories. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Union Territories in India:
- The President has the power to put a Union Territory under the jurisdiction of the high court of an adjacent state.
- The constitution does not provide any special provisions for the administration of newly acquired territories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Articles 239 to 241 in Part VIII of the Constitution deal with the union territories. Every union territory is administered by the President acting through an administrator appointed by him. The President can also appoint the governor of a state as the administrator of an adjoining union territory.
The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists (including the State List) for the union territories. The Parliament can establish a high court for a union territory or put it under the jurisdiction of the high court of an adjacent state. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The Constitution does not contain any separate provisions for the administration of acquired territories. But, the constitutional provisions for the administration of union territories also apply to the acquired territories. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements:
- The Government of India can cede an Indian territory to a foreign country by an executive action.
- Settlement of a boundary dispute between India and a neighboring country can be done through an Act of Parliament only.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Article 3 of the Constitution of India talks about the power of the Parliament to reorganize the states. In a reference made by the President to the Supreme Court in 1960, the question came whether the power of the Parliament to diminish the area of a state under Article 3, includes power to cede territory to a foreign country. The Supreme Court held that the power of Parliament to diminish the area of a state (under Article 3) does not cover cession of Indian territory to a foreign country. Hence, an Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state only by amending the Constitution under Article 368. So, statement 1 is not correct.
On the other hand, the Supreme Court in 1969 ruled that settlement of a boundary dispute between India and another country does not require a Constitutional Amendment. It can be done by executive action as it does not involve cession of Indian territory to a foreign country. The 100th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2015 was enacted to give effect to the acquiring of certain territories by India and transfer of certain other territories to Bangladesh in pursuance of the agreement and its protocol entered into between the Governments of India and Bangladesh. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Which one of the following best defines ‘Amicus Curiae’?
A person not a party to the litigation who volunteers to help the court.
Explanation :
Amicus Curiae is Latin for “friend of the court’’. As per the definition in Merriam Webster amicus Curiae is defined as -One (such as a professional person or organization) that is not a party to a particular litigation but that is permitted by the court to advise it in respect to some matter of law that directly affects the case in question.
Amicus curiae refers to a person who volunteers to help the court in deciding some matters; however it is the discretion of the court whether to accept it or not. In certain cases, the court appoints the amicus curiae, where there is no one to represent one of the parties to the case or where the question in the case refers to the greater public good.
Consider the following statements with reference to review petition in Supreme Court:
- It is the last constitutional resort available for redressal of grievances in the Court.
- Any person aggrieved by a ruling can seek a review and not necessarily by the parties to the case.
- They are heard through written arguments by the judges in their chambers and no open court hearing is allowed in any case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
In India, a binding decision of the Supreme Court/High Court can be reviewed in a review petition. The court has the power to review its rulings to correct a “patent error” and not “minor mistakes of inconsequential import”. So, when a review takes place, the law is that it is allowed not to take fresh stock of the case but to correct grave errors that have resulted in the miscarriage of justice.
It is not necessary that only parties to a case can seek a review of the judgment on it. As per the Civil Procedure Code and the Supreme Court Rules, any person aggrieved by a ruling can seek a review. However, the court does not entertain every review petition filed. It exercises its discretion to allow a review petition only when it shows the grounds for seeking the review. So, statement 2 is correct.
As per 1996 rules framed by the Supreme Court, a review petition must be filed within 30 days of the date of judgment or order. The rules state that review petitions would ordinarily be entertained without oral arguments by lawyers. It is heard “through circulation” (written arguments) by the judges in their chambers. In exceptional cases, the court allows an oral hearing. In a 2014 case, the Supreme Court held that review petitions in all death penalty cases will be heard in open court by a Bench of three judges. So, statement 3 is not correct.
However, a review petition is not the last constitutional resort available for redressal of grievances in court. In Roopa Hurra v Ashok Hurra (2002), the court itself evolved the concept of a curative petition, which can be heard after a review is dismissed to prevent abuse of its process. A curative petition is also entertained on very narrow grounds like a review petition and is generally not granted an oral hearing. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Chief Justice of India (CJI):
- The CJI has no fixed tenure and his tenure is same as that of other Supreme Court judges.
- He has the sole discretion of deciding the composition of benches and assigning cases to judges.
- Article 126 mandates the incumbent CJI to recommend to the government his successor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The Constitution has not fixed the tenure of CJI. However, Article 124 states that all Supreme Court judges (including CJI) hold office until he/she attains the age of 65 years. So, statement 1 is correct.
Recently, the Supreme Court in the Shanti Bhushan vs Supreme Court of India case ruled that the Chief Justice of India was the first among equals (judges) and had “exclusive prerogative in the allocation of cases and the constitution of benches”. “As a repository of constitutional trust CJI is an institution in himself.” There was no concept of “senior” or “junior” SC judges as all are equally competent to decide any case allotted to them by the Chief Justice of India, who alone had the power to constitute benches and assign cases. CJI was the master of the roster and had sole discretion. So, statement 2 is correct.
As per the Memorandum of Procedure governing the appointment of members of the higher judiciary, “appointment to the office of the Chief Justice of India should be of the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court considered fit to hold the office”. It stipulates that the law minister would, at an appropriate time, seek the recommendation of the outgoing Chief Justice of India for the appointment of the next CJI. Under this process, after receipt of the recommendation of the CJI, the law minister puts it before the Prime Minister who advises the President in the matter of appointment. Hence it can be inferred that the recommendations of the CJI are not binding upon the government. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements:
- The revision of the salary and allowances of the Supreme Court and High Court judges does not require a constitutional amendment.
- The pension of a retired judge of the High Court is charged upon the consolidated fund of the state of his last posting.
- After retirement, a permanent judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Article 125 of the Constitution authorises the Parliament to determine the salaries, allowances, privileges, leave and pension of the judges of the Supreme Court and High court from time to time.
Salaries, gratuity, pension, allowances etc. in respect of Judges of Supreme Court are governed by the Supreme Court Judges (Salaries and Conditions of Service) Act, 1958. Salaries etc. of Judges of High Courts are governed by the High Court Judges (Salaries and Conditions of Service) Act, 1954. A change in the Acts is required whenever there is any proposal for revision of salaries/pension gratuity, allowances etc. in respect of Judges of Supreme Court and High Courts. Amendment to the Constitution is not required for this purpose. So, statement 1 is correct.
The pension of a retired judge of the High Court is charged on the Consolidated Fund of India according to Article 112(3) of the Constitution of India whereas salaries & allowances are charged on the Consolidated Fund of State. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Constitution doesn’t prohibit the judges of the Supreme Court and high courts from taking any post-retirement jobs and it also doesn’t restrict the power of government to appoint any retired judges for any commissions or tribunals etc. The Judges of High Court, after their retirement, can enroll as an Advocate and can appear in all other Courts except in the Courts of the State of their Posting. However, Judges of the Supreme Court of India, after their retirement, cannot appear in any Court of India. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following conditions are ideal for the formation of dew?
- Low relative humidity
- Clear sky and calm air
- Cold and long nights
- Dew point below the freezing point
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
After condensation, the water vapour or the moisture in the atmosphere takes one of the following forms — dew, frost, fog and clouds.
When the moisture is deposited in the form of water droplets on cooler surfaces of solid objects (rather than nuclei in the air above the surface) such as stones, grass blades and plant leaves, it is known as dew. The ideal conditions for its formation are the clear sky, calm air, high relative humidity, and cold and long nights. For the formation of dew, the dew point must be above the freezing point.
“There is uniformity of temperature throughout the year. The diurnal range of temperature is also small. Precipitation is heavy and well distributed throughout the year. There is no winter.” This is the most likely description of
Equatorial climate
Explanation :
The equatorial, hot, wet climate is found between 5° and 10° north and south of the equator. The most outstanding feature of the equatorial climate is its great uniformity of temperature throughout the year. The mean monthly temperatures are always around 80°F with very little variation. There is no winter. Cloudiness and heavy precipitation help to moderate the daily temperature, so that even at the equator itself, the climate is not unbearable. Regular land and sea breezes assist in maintaining a truly equable climate. The diurnal range of temperature is small, and so is the annual range. Precipitation is heavy and well distributed throughout the year. There is no month without rain, and a distinct dry season like those of the Savanna or the Tropical monsoon climate is absent. The relative humidity is constantly high (over 80 per cent) making one feel sticky and uncomfortable.
” This is a very low cloud, uniformly grey and thick, which appears like a low ceiling or highland fog. It brings dull weather with light drizzle. It reduces the visibility of aircraft and is thus a danger.” This is the most likely description of
Stratus clouds
Explanation :
Stratus (St) is a very low cloud, uniformly grey and thick, which appears like a low ceiling or highland fog. These are layered clouds covering large portions of the sky. These clouds are generally formed either due to loss of heat or the mixing of air masses with different temperatures. It brings dull weather with light drizzle. It reduces the visibility of aircraft and is thus a danger.
General classification of clouds:
Low-level clouds (cumulus, stratus, stratocumulus) that lie below 6,500 feet (1,981 m).
Middle clouds (altocumulus, nimbostratus, altostratus) that form between 6,500 and 20,000 feet (1981–6,096 m).
High-level clouds (cirrus, cirrocumulus, cirrostratus) that form above 20,000 feet (6,096 m).
Cumulonimbus, which tower across the low, middle, and upper atmosphere.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Mediterranean type of climate:
- The major cause of this climate is the shifting of the wind belts.
- In summer, the prevailing trade winds are on-shore and the relative humidity is very high.
- The Mediterranean lands receive most of their precipitation in winter.
- It is also found in central Chile and California.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
The Warm Temperate Western Margin climate (Mediterranean) is found in relatively few areas in the world. They are entirely confined to the western portion of continental masses, between 30° and 45° north and south of the equator. The basic cause of this climate is the shifting of the wind belts. Though the area around the Mediterranean Sea has the greatest extent of this type, it is also found in central Chile, California, the south-western tip of Africa, southern Australia and southwest Australia. So, statement 1 and statement 4 are correct.
During summer, rain-bearing winds are not likely to reach the Mediterranean lands. The prevailing Trade winds are off-shore and there is practically no rain. The air is dry, the heat is intense and the relative humidity is low. The days are excessively warm and in the interiors, prolonged droughts are common. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Mediterranean lands receive most of their precipitation in winter when the Westerlies shift towards the equator. In the northern hemisphere, the prevailing on-shore Westerlies bring much cyclonic rain from the Atlantic to the countries bordering the Mediterranean Sea. This is the rainy season and is the most outstanding feature of the Mediterranean climate. In almost all other climate types maximum rain comes in summer. So, statement 3 is correct.
” These are formed when snowflakes melt into a raindrop in a wedge of warm air well above the ground and then refreeze in a layer of freezing air just above the surface. This results in frozen raindrops, or small ice pellets.” This is the most likely description of
Sleet
Explanation :
Sleet occurs when snowflakes melt into a raindrop in a wedge of warm air well above the ground and then refreeze in a layer of freezing air just above the surface. This results in frozen raindrops, or small ice pellets.
At ground level, sleet is only common during winter storms when the snow melts as it falls and the resulting water refreezes into sleet prior to hitting the ground. In thunderstorms, sleet is possible above the melting level where cloud droplets become supercooled and may instantaneously freeze when making contact with other cloud particles or debris, such as dust particles. Sleet is also called ice pellets.
Snow forms mainly when water vapour turns to ice without going through the liquid stage. This process is called deposition. Snow can form in the gentle updrafts of stratus clouds or at high altitudes in very cold regions of a thunderstorm. Snowflakes that most of us are used to seeing are not individual snow crystals but are actually aggregates, or collections, of snow crystals that stick or otherwise attach to each other. Aggregates can grow to very large sizes compared to individual snow crystals.
Hail is frozen precipitation that can grow to very large sizes through the collection of water that freezes onto the hailstone’s surface. Hailstones begin as embryos, which include graupel or sleet, and then grow in size. Hailstones can have a variety of shapes and include lumps and bumps that may even take the shape of small spikes. Hailstones must be at least 0.2 inches in size.
Graupel is soft, small pellets formed when supercooled water droplets freeze onto a snow crystal, a process called riming. If the riming is particularly intense, the rimed snow crystal can grow to an appreciable size but remain less than 0.2 inches. Graupel is also called snow pellets or soft hail, as the graupel particles are particularly fragile and generally disintegrate when handled.
Consider the following statements with reference to forests:
- Monsoon forests grow in areas having a limited period of the rainy season.
- Trees in temperate deciduous forests shed their leaves at the onset of the winter.
- Species richness of equatorial forests makes it suitable for greater commercial exploitation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Monsoon Forests: These forests are found in central and northeast India, Myanmar, Vietnam, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia and northeast Australia. The main characteristic of monsoon climate is the limited period of the rainy season. Duration and amount of rainfall affect the density of forests. Hence, monsoon forests are not very dense. The characteristics are dense undergrowth and bamboo groves. Sal, teak and shisham are important trees of the region. So, statement 1 is correct.
Temperate Deciduous Hardwood Forests: Temperate regions of moderate temperature and rainfall like central and western Europe, north-eastern USA, southern Russia, Central America, eastern Asia have hardwood deciduous forests. Trees of these forests shed their leaves at the onset of the winter and remain without leaves throughout the winter; Like the tropical rainforest, these forests also have trees of different species mixed. Woods from these forests are strong and durable. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Equatorial Forests: These forests extend between 50 N and 50 S of the equator. They are found m the Congo basin of Africa the Amazon basin of South America and with some modifications in Malaysia and Indonesia. The equatorial forests in the Amazon basin are also known as selvas. Most of the trees in these forests have hardwood. One of the problems of the economic exploitation of these forests is the scattering of trees of one species over a wide area. In other words, trees of any one species are not found in one area. As a result, one has to have to a big area to get them in a large number. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to trojan asteroids:
- Trojan asteroids share an orbit with a larger planet.
- Earth has the highest number of trojan asteroids.
- Trojan asteroids are located in Lagrange points.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Asteroids are divided into three categories.
First, those found in the main asteroid belt, between Mars and Jupiter. This region is estimated to contain somewhere between 1.1-1.9 million asteroids.
The second group is that of trojans, which are asteroids that share an orbit with a larger planet. So, statement 1 is correct:
The third classification of asteroids is under Near-Earth Asteroids (NEA), which has orbits that pass close to the Earth. Those that cross the Earth’s orbit are called Earth-crossers. More than 10,000 such asteroids are known, of which over 1,400 are classified as potentially hazardous asteroids (PHAs).
Jupiter has the highest number of Trojan asteroids in the solar system. So, statement 2 is not correct:
Trojan asteroids are located in Lagrange points. Lagrange points are the location where the gravitational pull of the Sun and the parent planet are balanced. This prevents Trojan asteroids from colliding with the parent planet. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the climatic regions:
- The Laurentian type of climate is absent in the Southern Hemisphere.
- The typhoons associated with the China type of climate occur most frequently in late summer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The cool temperate easten margin or laurentian type of climate is an intermediate type of climate between the British and the Siberian type of climate. It has features of both the maritime and the continental climates. In the Southern Hemisphere, this climatic type is absent because only a small section of the southern continents extend south of the latitude of 400 S. Some of these small sections come under the rain-shadow region of Andes (Patagonia) and hence Westerlies hardly ever reach these regions. So these regions are subjected to aridity rather than continentality. So, statement 1 is correct.
A characteristic feature of the china type of warm temperate eastern margin climate is the great annual temperature range. Second is the occurrence of typhoons which are intense tropical cyclones that originate in the pacific ocean & move westwards to the coastlands bordering the south china sea. They are most frequent in late summer, from July to September and can be very disastrous. So, statement 2 is correct.
With reference to Laos, consider the following:
- China
- Vietnam
- Thailand
- Myanmar
How many of the above countries have land boundaries with Laos?
All four
Explanation :
At least 47 Indians who were trapped in ‘cyber scam centres’, have been rescued from Bokeo province in Laos recently.
About Laos:
It is located in the Indochinese Peninsula in Southeast Asia.
It is the only landlocked country in Southeast Asia.
Official Name: Lao People’s Democratic Republic
History:
Colonization by the French from the late 19th to the mid-20th century infused Laos with a European cultural element, which intensified throughout the country’s embroilment in World War II and the Indochina wars, as well as a civil war of its own in the second half of the 20th century.
Guided by Marxist-Leninist ideology, Laos emerged from the turmoil in 1975 as a communist country.
Bordering Countries: It is bounded to the north by China, to the northeast and east by Vietnam, to the south by Cambodia, to the west by Thailand, and to the northwest by Myanmar (Burma).
Overall, the country extends about 650 miles (1,050 km) from northwest to southeast.
Total Area: 236,800 sq km
Highest point: Phu Bia 2,817 m
Drainage:
All the major rivers—the Tha, Beng, Ou, Ngum, Kading, Bangfai, Banghiang, and Kong—are tributaries of the Mekong River, Southeast Asia’s most significant river.
The Mekong flows generally southeast and south along and through western Laos and forms its boundary with Myanmar and most of the border with Thailand.
Climate: It has the typical tropical monsoon (wet-dry) climate of the region.
Vegetation: It has tropical rainforests of broad-leaved evergreens in the north and monsoon forests of mixed evergreens and deciduous trees in the south.
Major Mountain Ranges: Annamite Range, Luang Prabang Range
Languages: Lao (official), French, English, various ethnic languages
Capita: Vientiane
Religion: The predominant religion of Laos is Theravada Buddhism.
Money: Kip
Form of Government:
It is one of the world’s few openly communist states.
It is a one-party state and the general secretary of the Lao People’s Revolutionary Party holds ultimate power and authority over the state and government.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding Acetanilide, recently seen in the news:
- It is a synthetic organic compound with a designated molecular formula of C8H9NO.
- It is used as an intermediate in the production of dyes, rubber and other chemicals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Five persons fell unconscious and were hospitalised when they were engaged in shifting acetanilide bags from one container to another in Visakhapatnam recently.
About Acetanilide:
It is a synthetic organic compound with a designated molecular formula of C8H9NO.
It is also known as N-phenylacetamide, acetanil, or acetanilid.
It is a white, odorless solid.
It is functionally related to an acetic acid.
It was introduced in therapy in 1886 as a fever-reducing drug.
Its effectiveness in relieving pain was discovered soon thereafter, and it was used as an alternative to aspirin for many years in treating such common complaints as headaches, menstrual cramps and rheumatism.
Excessive or prolonged use of acetanilide engenders toxic side effects: it interferes with the function of hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying pigment of the blood.
In the body, acetanilide is mostly converted to acetaminophen (paracetamol), which has replaced acetanilide in therapy because it is less likely to induce blood disorders.
It is used as an intermediate in the production of dyes, rubber and other chemicals.
Hence both statements are correct.
With reference to the Foot-and-Mouth Disease (FMD), consider the following statements:
- It is a severe, highly contagious bacterial disease of livestock.
- It deeply affects livestock production and disrupts regional and international trade in animals and animal products.
- There are currently no vaccines available against FMD.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The Union government recently decided to establish foot-and-mouth disease-free zones in eight States — Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttarakhand, Punjab, Haryana, Maharashtra, and Gujarat.
About Foot-and-Mouth Disease (FMD):
It is a severe, highly contagious viral disease of livestock that has a significant economic impact.
The disease affects cattle, swine, sheep, goats, and other cloven-hoofed ruminants.
It does not affect horses, dogs or cats.
Intensively reared animals are more susceptible to the disease than traditional breeds.
It is a transboundary animal disease (TAD) that deeply affects the production of livestock and disrupts regional and international trade in animals and animal products.
It is not a human health or food safety threat. It is also not related to hand, foot, and mouth disease, which is a common childhood illness caused by a different virus.
The organism which causes FMD is an aphthovirus of the family Picornaviridae.
There are seven strains (A, O, C, SAT1, SAT2, SAT3, and Asia1) which are endemic in different countries worldwide.
Immunity to one type does not protect an animal against other types or subtypes.
Transmission:
FMD is found in all excretions and secretions from infected animals.
Notably, these animals breathe out a large amount of aerosolised virus, which can infect other animals via the respiratory or oral routes.
The disease is rarely fatal in adult animals, but there is often high mortality in young animals.
Symptoms:
FMD is characterised by fever and blister-like sores on the tongue and lips, in the mouth, on the teats, and between the hooves.
Ruptured blisters can result in extreme lameness and reluctance to move or eat.
Other frequent symptoms are fever, depression, hypersalivation, loss of appetite, weight loss, growth retardation, and a drop in milk production, which can persist even after recovery.
The disease causes severe production losses, and while the majority of affected animals recover, the disease often leaves them weakened and debilitated.
It was the first disease for which the World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH, founded as OIE) established official status recognition.
Vaccines for FMD are available but must be matched to the specific type and subtype of virus causing the outbreak.
With reference to Anti-Dumping Duty, consider the following statements:
- It is a protectionist tariff that a domestic government imposes on foreign imports that it believes are priced below fair market value.
- It is imposed to protect local businesses and markets from unfair competition by foreign imports.
- In India, the Ministry of Commerce and Industry decides whether to impose anti-dumping duties.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Ministry of Commerce and Industry recently recommended imposing an anti-dumping duty on aluminium foil imported from China.
About Anti-Dumping Duty:
It is a protectionist tariff that a domestic government imposes on foreign imports that it believes are priced below fair market value.
Dumping is a process wherein a company exports a product at a price that is significantly lower than the price it normally charges in its home (or its domestic) market.
The duty is priced in an amount that equals the difference between the normal costs of the products in the importing country and the market value of similar goods in the exporting country or other countries that produce similar products.
It is imposed to protect local businesses and markets from unfair competition by foreign imports.
Thus, the purpose of anti-dumping duty is to rectify the trade distortive effect of dumping and re-establish fair trade.
The use of anti-dumping measures as an instrument of fair competition is permitted by the World Trade Organization (WTO).
The WTO allows the affected country’s government to take legal action against the dumping country as long as there is evidence of genuine material injury to industries in the domestic market.
The government must show that dumping took place, the extent of the dumping in terms of costs, and the injury or threat to cause injury to the domestic market.
While anti-dumping duties intend to protect local businesses and markets, these tariffs can also lead to higher prices for domestic consumers.
In India, the Ministry of Finance makes the final decision on whether to impose anti-dumping duties.v
The ‘Poba Reserve Forest’, recently seen in the news, lies in which state?
Assam
Explanation :
The Poba Reserve Forest in Assam’s Dhemaji district will soon be notified as a wildlife sanctuary.
About Poba Reserve Forest:
It is a rainforest located in the northeastern part of Assam.
The Reserved Forest (RF) was created in the year 1924 and covers an area of 10,221 hectares.
Boundaries: Towards the north are the foothills of the Himalayan range in Arunachal Pradesh; towards the east and south are the Siang, Dibang and Lohit River systems confluence into the mighty Brahmaputra and the Dibru-Saikhowa National Park; and towards the west are the revenue villages of the Jonai Sub-division of the Dhemaji district of Assam.
The peripheral area of the RF is inhabited by a few ethnic groups, such as Mising, Bodo, Sonowal Kachari, and Hajong (Rabha).
It is one of the richest rain forests of North-East India in terms of the flora and fauna found in it.
It is home to various arboreal species, including the slow loris and capped langur. Among the most common mammal species is the wild boar.
The forest is also a habitat for about 45 species of birds and reptiles, and the confluence of the Siang and Lohit rivers supports a diverse range of fish species.
The forest is renowned for its variety of orchids.
It serves as an important migratory route for various animals, particularly elephants, as it connects the D’ Ering Memorial Wildlife Sanctuary (Arunachal Pradesh), Kabu Chapri Proposed Reserve Forest, and Dibru-Saikhowa National Park (Assam).
This corridor is the second significant elephant migration route from the north to the south bank of the Brahmaputra River, the other being the Panpur-Kaziranga route.
Consider the following statements regarding Guru Padmasambhava:
- He lived in eighth century in India and one of the most-revered personalities in Buddhism.
- He was a member of the Yogācāra sect and taught at Taxila University.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
International Buddhist Confederation, in collaboration with the Nava Nalanda Mahavihara, organised a two-day International Conference on the Life and Living Legacy of Guru Padmasambhava Conference at Nalanda, Bihar.
Guru Padmasambhava, also known as Guru Rinpoche, lived in the eighth century in ancient India and was one of the most-revered figures in Buddha Dhamma.
He was known in Tibet as one of the founding fathers of Tibetan Buddhism, who appeared in Tibet in 749 A.D.
He is credited with having spread the message of Lord Buddha to the countries and regions located in the Himalayan belt, including India, Nepal, Pakistan, Bhutan, Bangladesh and Tibet.
He was a Tantrist and a member of the Yogācāra sect and taught at Nalanda, a centre of Buddhist studies in India.
Guru Padmasambhava also represents a consolidation of many strands of culture ranging from Yogic and Tantric practices to meditation, art, music, dance, magic, folklore and religious teachings.
Key facts about International Buddhist Confederation
It is a Buddhist umbrella body with its base in New Delhi that serves as a common platform for Buddhists worldwide.
It was established under the patronage of the supreme Buddhist religious hierarchy, IBC currently has a membership comprising more than 320 organisations, both monastic and lay, in 39 countries.
Consider the following statements regarding the Dispute Resolution Scheme:
- It covers the disputed amount of Rs. 10 lakh and the taxpayer’s income for the relevant year below Rs. 1 crore rupees.
- It aims to reduce litigation and provide a faster and more cost-effective resolution for taxpayers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has introduced the Dispute Resolution Scheme (e-DRS), 2022, as a streamlined and efficient platform for taxpayers to resolve their income tax disputes.
The scheme aims to reduce litigation and provide a faster and more cost-effective resolution for taxpayers.
This initiative, established under section 245MA of the Income-tax Act, 1961, will allow taxpayers to resolve disputes electronically through Dispute Resolution Committees (DRCs).
Eligibility:
Taxpayers who meet certain conditions specified in section 245MA can apply for dispute resolution.
This includes cases where the disputed amount does not exceed Rs. 10 lakh and the taxpayer’s income for the relevant year is below Rs. 50 lakh.
The dispute must not involve information from searches or international agreements.
The DRC, established in all 18 regions across the country, can modify orders, reduce penalties, or waive prosecution. They are required to decide within six months of receiving the application.
Consider the following statements regarding the World Gold Council:
- It aims to maximize the industry’s potential growth by monitoring and defending existing gold consumption.
- It is headquartered in India and is the creator of the first gold exchange-traded fund.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The World Gold Council (WGC) has raised its projection for India’s gold consumption in 2024 to 850 tonnes from 750 tonnes.
It is the market development organisation for the gold industry.
It is a nonprofit association formed in 1987 whose members comprise the world’s leading and most forward-thinking gold mining companies.
The WGC was established to promote the use of and demand for gold through marketing, research, and lobbying.
Headquartered in London, with operations in India, China, Singapore, and the USA, the WGC covers the markets which comprise about three-quarters of the world’s annual gold consumption.
The WGC is also the global authority on gold, and they offer comprehensive analyses of the industry.
It aims to maximize the industry’s potential growth by monitoring and defending existing gold consumption.
It achieves this by setting up gold standards, proposing policies, ensuring fairness and sustainability in the gold mining industry, and promoting the usage and demand for gold for individuals, industries, and institutions.
It also co-sponsors research in the development of new uses for gold, or of new products containing gold.
WGC was the creator of the first gold exchange-traded fund.
Consider the following statements regarding the Metal-organic framework:
- They are uniform structured porous materials suitable for solid-phase extraction.
- They are used for rapid and convenient detection of several health and food quality parameters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers have developed a bunch of electrochemical and optical biosensors based on nano polymers multifunctional Metal-organic framework (MOF) and 2-dimensional (2D) materials.
These are uniform structured porous materials suitable for solid-phase extraction.
These are the multifunctional coordination polymers.
What are 2-dimensional (2D) materials? These are a class of nanomaterials defined by their typical and unique property of being hardly one- or two-atom thick.
The MOFs and 2D materials possess several unique features that should project them as better alternatives as sensors, than other nanomaterials.
Both MOFs and 2D classes of materials are known for their large surface area, functionality, and optoelectronic properties.
They also have a wide range of synthesis methods and can be developed into disposable electrodes, optical kits, fiber optic sensors, colorimetric strips, etc.
Applications
To develop electrochemical and optical sensors for different analytes, such as bacteria, Aflatoxins, and heavy metals.
It can be used for rapid and convenient detection of several health, food quality, and environmental parameters.
These are also useful for analyzing food toxins such as Aflatoxins and Zearaloene in water, milk and staple food samples.
Consider the following statements regarding Fluoxetine:
- It is a common antidepressant medication used in the medical field.
- It reduces activity levels and increases refuge-seeking behaviour in male guppy fish.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A recent study has revealed that long-term exposure to fluoxetine (Prozac) can significantly disrupt the behaviour and reproductive traits of the male guppy fish.
It is a common antidepressant medication.
It inhibits the uptake of serotonin by nerve cells (neurons) and helps people with depression, panic, anxiety, or obsessive-compulsive symptoms.
Effects of fluoxetine
At low concentrations, fluoxetine reduces activity levels and increased refuge-seeking behaviour in male guppy fish.
It also altered their body condition, increased the size of their reproductive organs, and reduced sperm velocity. These effects could have significant implications for mating success and reproductive fitness in polluted waters.
Fluoxetine exposure reduced behavioural plasticity in the fish, suppressing within-individual variation in both activity and refuge.
Individual fishes are behaving more rigidly, potentially limiting their ability to respond flexibly to their environment.
High fluoxetine concentrations increased variation in body condition between individuals, while low concentrations increased variation in sperm numbers.
Key facts about Guppy Fish
These are a small, pretty species of fish that are extremely popular for home aquariums.
These are a species of small tropical freshwater fish.
These are sexually dimorphic, meaning there are distinct differences between males and females of the species.
Male guppies are brightly colored in shades of black, green, orange, red, white, and yellow and have patterns like speckles, spots, and stripes.
Distribution: Guppies are native to certain countries and islands in South America: Antigua and Barbuda, Barbados, Brazil, Guyana, Suriname, Trinidad and Tobago, and Venezuela.
Uri-I Hydroelectric Project is located one which one of the following rivers?
Jhelum
Explanation :
The Expert Appraisal Committee (EAC) of the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has deferred the proposal for grant of Environmental Clearance (EC) to the Stage-II of Uri-I Hydroelectric Project.
About Uri-I Hydroelectric Project:
It is an operating hydroelectric power plant located in the Jhelum River of Uri town in the Baramulla district of Jammu & Kashmir.
It is located very near the Line of Control (LOC), the de facto border between India and Pakistan.
The power project was commissioned in 1997 with a total installed capacity of 480 MW.
It is owned by the Central Government, and the operating company of the plant is National Hydroelectric Power Corporation Limited (NHPC).
The unit size of the power plant is 480 MW, having 4 units of 120 MW each.
Key Facts about Jhelum River:
It is a river that flows in India and Pakistan.
It is a tributary of the Indus River.
It is the main waterway of the Kashmir valley.
It is the largest and most western of the five rivers of Punjab and passes through the Jhelum District in the north of Punjab province, Pakistan.
Course:
Origin: It originates at the Verinag Spring at Anantnag, at the foot of the Pir Panjal range in the Kashmir Valley.
It then flows via Srinagar and Wular Lake prior to entering Pakistan.
The river makes a deep, narrow gorge on its way to Pakistan.
It joins the Chenab River near Trimmu, Pakistan.
Length: It has a total length of about 725 km (450 mi).
Major Tributaries:
The largest tributary of the Jhelum is the Kishenganga (Neelum) River, which joins near Muzaffarabad and enters the Punjab province, Pakistan.
Kunhar River is the second largest tributary of the river, which connects Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK) and Pakistan on the Kohala Bridge of Kanghan valley.
Other tributaries include the Sandran River, Bringi River, Arapath River, Watlara River, Lidder River, and Veshaw River.
Consider the following statements regarding Musi River:
- It is a tributary of the Kaveri River.
- Bangalore is located on the bank of this river.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) recently issued an urgent advisory for citizens to remain indoors as heavy rains continue to lash the city, causing the Musi River to rise significantly.
About Musi River:
It is a river that flows through the southern Indian state of Telangana.
It is a tributary of the Krishna River in the Deccan Plateau.
It was known as the Muchukunda River in earlier days.
Hyderabadstands on the bank of this river, which divides the city between the old and the new.
Course:
It begins in the Anantagiri Hills near Vicarabad, Rangareddi district, 90 kilometers to the west of Hyderabad.
It consists of two rivulets, Esi (8 km) and Musa (13 km), which then converge into Musi River.
It joins the Krishna River near Wazirabad in Nalgonda district after covering a distance of about 240 km.
It has an aggregate length of 250 km.
Dams: Himayat Sagar and Osman Sagar are the two dams that are constructed over the river.
Bridges:
The river is crossed by several historical bridges, including the Purana Pul (Old Bridge), which was built during the reign of the Nizams of Hyderabad.
The other bridges are located in Dabirpura, Amberpet Chaderghat, and Uppal Kalan.
On 28 September 1908, Musi River was the reason for the devastating floodsin Hyderabad.
Due to random urbanization and a lack of planning, the river has become a holder of all the unprocessed domestic and industrial waste drained out of Hyderabad.
Consider the following countries:
- United Kingdom
- China
- France
- Japan
- Germany
How many of the above countries are permanent members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC)?
Only three
Explanation :
India should get its ‘rightful place’ as a permanent member of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC), according to ex-Singaporean diplomat Kishore Mahbubani, a former president of the top UN body.
About United Nations Security Council (UNSC):
It is one of the five principle organizations of the United Nations (UN).
It has primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security.
Under the Charter of the UN, all Member States are obligated to comply with UNSC decisions.
The Security Council takes the lead indetermining the existence of a threat topeace or act of aggression.
It calls upon the partiesto a dispute to settle it by peaceful means and recommends methods of adjustment or terms of settlement.
In some cases, the Security Council can resort to imposing sanctions or even authorize the use of force to maintain or restore international peace and security.
Powers:
Establishment of peacekeeping operations
Establishment of international sanctions
Authorization of military action through Security Council resolutions
Members: It has 15 Members, and each Member has one vote.
5 permanent members known as P5, including the United Kingdom, China, France, Russia, and the United States of America.
The P5’s privileged status has its roots in the United Nations’ founding in the aftermath of World War II.
They have veto power over decisions of UNSC.
10 non-permanent members: Each year the 193-member General Assembly elects five non-permanent members for a two-year term at the UNSC.
The nonpermanent members are generally chosen to achieve equitable representationamong geographic regions, with five members coming from Africa or Asia, one from eastern Europe, two from Latin America, and two from western Europe or other areas.
The Security Council has permanent headquarters at the United Nations Headquarters in New York City.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
What was the primary objective of Rule 170 in the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940?
To control inappropriate advertisements of Ayurvedic, Siddha, and Unani medicines
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently stayed a Central government notification, whereby Rule 170 of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945, was omitted.
About Rule 170 of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940:
It was introduced in 2018 to govern the manufacture, storage, and sale of medicines in the country, “specifically for controllinginappropriate advertisements ofAyurvedic, Siddha, and Unani medicines”.
The rule was introduced after a parliamentary standing committee highlighted the problem of misleading claims, and the need for the AYUSH ministry to proactively pursue the issue.
The rule prohibits AYUSH drug manufacturersfrom advertising their products without approval and allotment of a unique identification number from the state licensing authority.
The manufacturershave to submit details such as textual referencesand rationale for the medicine from authoritative books, indications for use, andevidence of safety, effectiveness, and quality of drugs.
The rule states that the application will be rejectedif the manufacturer does notprovide their contact details, if the contentsof the advertisement are obscene or vulgar, products for enhancement of male or female sexual organs,depict photographs or testimonials from celebrities or government officials, refers to any government organisation, gives false impressions, or makes misleading or exaggerated claims
Pilibhit Tiger Reserve (PTR) lies in which one of the following states?
Uttar Pradesh
Explanation :
Poachers recently killed two chitals in the Pilibhit Tiger Reserve (PTR) and fled after stealing a rifle from a forest guard.
About Pilibhit Tiger Reserve (PTR):
It is located in Pilibhit District, Lakhimpur Kheri District, and Bahraich District of Uttar Pradesh.
It lies along the India-Nepal border in the foothills of the Himalayas and the plains of the ‘terai’ in Uttar Pradesh.
The river Gomti originates from the PTR, which is also the catchment of several otherslike Sharda, Chuka, and Mala Khannot.
The Sharda Sagar Dam, extending up to a length of 22 km (14 mi), is on the boundary of the reserve.
Vegetation: North Indian moist deciduous type.
It has a dry and hot climate, which brings a combination of dry teak forest and Vindhya mountain soils.
Flora:
It is characterized by sal forests, tall grasslands, and swamps, maintained by periodic flooding from rivers.
The sal woodland is very dense with good natural regeneration, amounting to almost 76% of the reserve area.
The forest patches are interspersed with grass meadows with several species like Sacchrum, Sclerostachya, Imperata, Themeda, Bothriochloa, Vetiveria, Apluda, Dichanthium, Digitaria, and Cyperus.
Fauna:
It is home to a myriad of wild animals including the endangered tiger, swamp deer, Bengal florican, hog deer, leopard, etc.
The rich bird life in Pilibhit includes species like Swamp Francolin, Great Hornbill, Bengal Florican, Lesser Florican, Black Francolin, Jungle Bush Quail, Red Junglefowl, Asian Openbill, etc.
Ophiocordyceps unilateralis, recently in news, is a:
Fungus
Explanation :
Recently, wildlife researcher Chris Ketola shared a video which shows a tarantula infected by zombie fungus.
The zombie fungus, or Ophiocordyceps unilateralis, drains its host entirely of nutrients. It also fills the host body with spores, allowing the fungus to reproduce.
It seizes control of the mind and motor functions of its host before eating away at its body.
Cordyceps is a genus of fungi that primarily attacks invertebrates mainly infects insects such as ants or spiders.
The fungus is largely pantropical and primarily infects carpenter ants.
Key facts about Tarantulas
Tarantulas are a type of large, hairy spider belonging to the family Theraphosidae.
There are over 900 species of tarantulas found all over the world, except for Antarctica.
They move slowly on their eight hairy legs, but they are accomplished nocturnal predators.
Adult tarantulas average five inches (13 centimeters) long. When spread out, their leg span is up to 11 inches (28 centimeters).
Consider the following statements regarding the Ramon Magsaysay Award:
- It is awarded to celebrate greatness of spirit and transformative leadership in Asia.
- It is given to the Journalism and Creative Communication Art field.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Japanese anime director Hayao Miyazaki was awarded the Ramon Magsaysay Award, popularly known as Asia’s Nobel Prize.
It is Asia’s premier prize and highest honor, celebrates greatness of spirit and transformative leadership in Asia.
The Awardees, annually selected by the RMAF board of trustees, are presented with a certificate and a medallion with an embossed image of Ramon Magsaysay facing right in profile.
From 1958 to 2008, the Award was given in six categories annually:
Government Service: To recognize outstanding service in the public interest in any branch of government, including the executive, judicial, legislative, or military;
Public Service: To recognize outstanding service for the public good by a private citizen;
Community Leadership: To recognize leadership of a community toward helping the disadvantaged have fuller opportunities and a better life;
Journalism, Literature, and Creative Communication Arts: To recognize effective writing, publishing, or photography or the use of radio, television, cinema, or the performing arts as a power for the public good;
Peace and International Understanding: To recognize contributions to the advancement of friendship, tolerance, peace, and solidarity as the foundations for sustainable development within and across countries.
Emergent Leadership: To recognize an individual, forty years of age or younger, for outstanding work on issues of social change in his or her community, but whose leadership may not yet be broadly recognized outside of this community.
It is presented in formal ceremonies in Manila, Philippines on August 31st, the birth anniversary of the much-esteemed Philippine President whose ideals inspired the Award’s creation in 1957.
Consider the following statements regarding the Samudra Pratap Vessel:
- It is designed and developed by the DRDO.
- It helps to check the oil spill in the country’s sea coast.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, first indigenously developed Pollution Control Vessel of Indian Coast Guard (ICG),‘Samudra Pratap’ Launched in Goa.
The vessel will help to check the oil spillage in the country’s sea coast.
The ship was launched and named as ‘Samudra Pratap’.
It is built by Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL) for the Indian Coast Guard.
It is the first time where these types of vessels are being designed and built indigenously in India.
Features
It boasts a length of 114.5 meters, a breadth of 16.5 meters, and a displacement of 4,170 tons. The vessel will be manned by 14 officers and 115 sailors and is equipped with state-of-the-art technology for pollution control.
Notably, it features side-sweeping arms to contain oil spills while in motion, an advanced radar system for oil spill detection, and facilities to recover and store various types of oil.
Significance
The vessel is a crucial addition to the Indian Coast Guard’s fleet, enhancing its capacity to manage oil spill response operations in India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) and beyond.
Consider the following statements regarding Navratna Status:
- It is given to a Public Sector Undertakings (PSU) whose net profit is more than Rs 2,000 crore for three consecutive years.
- This status to PSU allows invest up to ₹1,000 crore without seeking approval from the central government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Solar Energy Corporation of India Ltd (SECI), a Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy has been granted the Navratna status the Ministry of Finance.
The government categorises all Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) into three categories, namely Maharatna, Navratna, and Miniratna.
The Government had introduced the ‘Navratna’ scheme in 1997.
Criteria for Navratna status
A Public Sector Unit (PSU) should be a Miniratna-I, Schedule ‘A’ company, should have obtained an ‘excellent’ or ‘very good’ MoU rating in three of the last five years, and must have a composite score of 60 in six performance indicators.
It must report a net profit of more than Rs 5,000 crore for three consecutive years, and maintain an average annual turnover of Rs 25,000 crore for three years, or have an annual average net worth of over Rs 15,000 crore for three years.
Advantages
Financial Independence: They invest up to ₹1,000 crore without seeking approval from the central government.
Navratna companies are also allowed to invest up to 15% of their net worth on a single project, or 30% of their net worth in a given year, subject to a cap of ₹1,000 crore.
To incur capital expenditure on purchase of new items or for replacement, without any monetary ceiling.
To enter into technology joint ventures or strategic alliances.
Consider the following statements regarding the Tourism & Hospitality Skill Council:
- It was established under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, promoted by the Confederation of Indian Industry.
- It works under the aegis of the Union Ministry of Education.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Tourism & Hospitality Skill Council (THSC) under the aegis of Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, has signed a Memorandum of Understanding with Visa (NYSE: V).
It is a Not-for-Profit Organization, registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, promoted by the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) with inclusive representation of the Government, Industry, Industry Associations and Training Institutes across India.
It is formed by the Industry and for the industry to tackle the skilling of large manpower to fulfill the industry requirements, playing a crucial role in bridging this ever-growing gap.
THSC is now an approved awarding body under National Council for Vocational Education and Training (NCVET).
Mandate: It has a mandate to create a robust and sustainable eco-system for skill development in the industry, catering to all the sub sectors of the industry, namely, Hotels, Tour Operators, Food Service Restaurants, Facilities Management and Cruise Liners.
Key points about recent Memorandum of Understanding
This initiative will ensure a skilled workforce to support India’s ambitions of becoming a global tourism hub.
It is designed to up skill at least 20,000 Indian youth in tourism-relevant skills.
Time period: 3 years
It aims to train youth across 10 States, including Assam, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, and West Bengal to elevate the tourism service experience for tourists.
The program will focus on essential roles within the domestic tourism industry, such as tour guides, customer service executives, naturalists, and paragliding tandem pilots.
With reference to the Law Commission of India, consider the following statements:
- It is a non-statutory body constituted by a notification of the Government of India.
- It works on projects based on the references received from the Central Government and/or from the Supreme Court and High Courts.
- Its recommendations are binding on the Central Government.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The President of India recently sanctioned the formation of the 23rd Law Commission for a three-year term.
About Law Commission of India:
It is a non-statutory body and is constituted by notification of the Government of India, Ministry of Law & Justice.
It is constituted with definite terms of reference to carry out research in the field of law, and the Commission makes recommendations to the Government (in the form of Reports) as per its terms of reference.
It functions to the Ministry of Law and Justice as an advisory body.
History:
The first pre-independence law commission was established in 1834 by the British Government in India.
It was established by the Charter Act of 1833 and was chaired by Lord Macaulay.
The first Law Commission of independent India was established in 1955 under the chairmanship of the former Attorney General for India, M. C. Setalvad.
This Commission was created for a period of three years, and this practice has persisted ever since then, resulting in the reconstitution of Law Commissions every three years via executive orders.
How is the Law Commission Created?
A law commission is created when the Union government passes a resolution for the formation a new commission after the expiry of the last one.
After the resolution is passed, and the President gives assent to it, the government has the liberty to choose the chairperson for the new commission.
Functioning:
The Commission works on projects based on the references received from the Central Government and/or from the Supreme Court and High Courts.
At times, keeping in view the importance of the subject matter, the Commission initiates studies on specific subjects, suo moto.
The Commission is aided in its work on the legal side by the law officers of the Indian Legal Service and on the administrative side by the officers of the Central Secretariat Service.
The Commission always welcomes suggestions from any person, institution, or organization on the issues under consideration of the Commission.
Reports:
The Reports of the Law Commission are laid in Parliament from time to time by the Department of Legal Affairs, Ministry of Law and Justice, and forwarded to the concerned administrative Departments/Ministries for implementation.
They are acted upon by concerned Departments/Ministries depending on the Government’s decision.
Invariably, the reports are cited in Courts, Parliamentary Standing Committees, and academic and public discourses.
Consider the following statements regarding India Semiconductor Mission (ISM):
- It is a specialized and independent Business Division within the Digital India Corporation.
- It has all the administrative and financial powers and is tasked with the responsibility of catalysing the India Semiconductor ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Union Cabinet recently gave the green light to Kaynes Semicon Pvt Ltd for establishing a new semiconductor unit in Sanand, Gujarat, which is the fifth semiconductor unit to be approved under the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM).
About India Semiconductor Mission (ISM):
ISM is a specialized and independent Business Division within the Digital India Corporation.
It aims to build a vibrant semiconductor and display ecosystem to enable India’s emergence as a global hub for electronics manufacturing and design.
ISM has all the administrative and financial powers and is tasked with the responsibility of catalysing the India Semiconductor ecosystem in manufacturing, packaging, and design.
ISM has an advisory board consisting of some of the leading global experts in the field of semiconductors.
ISM has been working as a nodal agency for the schemes approved under the Semicon India Programme.
Key Facts about Semicon India Programme:
The ISM was launched in 2021 with a total financial outlay of Rs. 76,000 crores under the aegis of the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY), Government of India.
It is part of the comprehensive program for the development of sustainable semiconductor and display ecosystems in the country.
The programme aims to provide financial support to companies investing in semiconductors, display manufacturing,and design ecosystem.
It also promotes and facilitates indigenous Intellectual Property (IP) generation and encourages, enables, and incentivizes the Transfer of Technologies (ToT).
The following four schemes have been introduced under the aforesaid programme:
Scheme for setting up of Semiconductor Fabs in India.
Scheme for setting up of Display Fabs in India.
Scheme for setting up of Compound Semiconductors/Silicon Photonics/ Sensors Fab and Semiconductor Assembly, Testing, Marking and Packaging (ATMP)/OSAT facilities in India.
Design Linked Incentive (DLI) Scheme.
Hence both statements are correct.
Consider the following:
- India
- Maldives
- Mauritius
- Nepal
- Myanmar
How many of the above countries are members of the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC)?
Only three
Explanation :
Member states of the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) recently signed the Charter and the MoU for the establishment of the CSC Secretariat in Colombo.
About Colombo Security Conclave (CSC):
It is a regional security grouping comprising India, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Maldives, and Mauritius.
The CSC’s core objective is to promote regional security by addressing transnational threats and challenges of common concern to the Member States.
Origin:
The CSC, initially known as the Trilateral for Maritime Security Cooperation, evolved out of trilateral meetings between National Security Advisors (NSAs) and Deputy NSAs from India, Maldives, and Sri Lanka, starting in 2011.
It came to a standstill after 2014 due to rising tensions between India and the Maldives.
After its revival and re-branding as the CSC in 2020, Mauritius and more recently, Bangladesh were added as members of the grouping.
Current members of CSC include India, Bangladesh, Maldives, Mauritius, and Sri Lanka, while the Seychelles is an observer nation.
CSC brings together NSAs and Deputy NSAs of the member countries.
Cooperation under the conclave focuses on five pillars:
maritime safety and security
countering terrorism and radicalisation
combating trafficking and transnational organised crime
cyber-security andprotection of critical infrastructure
humanitarian assistance and disaster relief.
Permanent secretariat:Colombo
The Saora Tribe primarily resides in which one of the following states?
Odisha
Explanation :
With Saora tribals of Gajapati district getting habitat rights over their ancestral lands recently, Odisha has become the only state to provide such rights to the highest number of particularly vulnerable tribal groups (PVTGs).
About Saora Tribe:
Saora is one of the ancient tribes of Odisha, which is also mentioned in the epics Ramayana and Mahabharata.
They are called by various terms such as Savaras, Sabaras, Saura, Sora, etc.
Though Odisha is the main land for the tribe, a small number of people are also found in the states of Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, and Assam.
Language: They have their own native language called Sora, which is a Munda language, and they are one of the very few tribes of India that have a script for the language, Sorang Sompeng.
The Saoras show their racial affinity to the Proto Australoid physical characters, which are dominant among the aborigines of Central and Southern India.
Religion: Saoras follow an ingrained and intricate religion, having faith in and worshipping a number of gods and spirits, who they believe are the supreme controllers of their regular lives.
They have unique art practices, religious customs, as well as a dying tattooing tradition called ‘Tantangbo’.
The Saoras can be divided broadly into two economic classes:
The Saoras of the plains (Sudha Saora) depending on their wet cultivation or wage earning and selling firewood.
The Hill Saoras (Lanjia Saora) practice shifting and terraced cultivation on the hill slopes.
Settlement:
Saora villages do not conform to any particular type of settlement pattern.
Houses are scattered, and megaliths erected to commemorate dead kin are located close by.
Village guardian deities like Kitungsum are installed at the entrance of the settlement.
A typical house is a one-roomed thatched rectangular dwelling having stone and mud walls with a low roof and a high plinth front verandah. The walls are coloured with red earth.
Grom-E1 Missile, recently seen in the news, was developed by which one of the following countries?
Russia
Explanation :
Russian troops recently hit Kharkiv, Ukraine, with a Grom-E1 hybrid missile.
About Grom-E1 Missile:
It is a sophisticated weapon created from the Soviet-era Kh-38 “air-to-surface” missile.
It was developed by Russia and officially unveiled for the first time in 2018.
It combines the features of both a missile and an aerial bomb.
Features:
Maximum Range: 120 km (75 miles).
It features a high-explosive modular warhead equipped with a contact detonator.
In addition to its standard configuration, there is a variant with a thermobaric design capable of detonating at high altitudes.
The bomb itself weighs 594 kg (1,310 pounds), with a 315 kg (694 pound) warhead.
The effectiveness of the Grom-E1 depends on the altitude and speed of the aircraft that launches it.
For instance, its maximum range of 120 km (75 miles) can be achieved when dropped from an altitude of 12 km (7.5 miles) at a speed of 1,600 km per hour (994 mph). At an altitude of 5 km, the range decreases to approximately 35 km.
This weapon can be deployed by Russian aircraft such as the MiG-35, Su-34, Su-35, Su-57, and certain helicopters.
Consider the following statements regarding Thanjavur Veena:
- It is the first musical instrument in India to get the Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
- The Rudra veena and Vichitra veena types are popular in Carnatic music.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Thanjavur Veena is the first musical instrument in the country to get the Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
The Thanjavur veena is an Indian instrument and has an interesting construction.
They are of two types viz. the “Ekantha Veena” and “Sada Veena’.
Ekantha Veena” is carved from a single block of wood, while Sada Veena,’ has joints and is carved in three sec’tions namely resonator, neck and head.
The veena has 24 fixed frets (Mettu), so that all ragas can be played.
It is made of fresh bark from a Jack Fruit Tree. The tree bark is forced to undergo several rounds of testing before being finalized for usage.
The work involves making the resonator ( kudam), the neck ( dandi) and a tuning box — the three integral parts of a veena.
It takes up to 15-20 days to get the finished product. The wood gets cut, intricately carved, shaped, and assembled.
Types
There are four types of veena. While Rudra veena and Vichitra veena are popular in Hindustani classical music, Saraswati veena and Chitra veena are used in Carnatic classical music.
Thanjavur is the only place where Saraswati veena is made. Saraswathi, the goddess of learning and arts, is portrayed with a veena.
Consider the following statements regarding Namibia:
- It is located in the southwestern coast of the African continent.
- It shares border with Tanzania and Congo.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Namibia plans to cull hundreds of its most majestic wild animals, including dozens of elephants and hippopotamuses, to provide meat for its 1.4 million people.
Location: It is located on the southwestern coast of the African continent in the Southern and Eastern Hemispheres of Earth.
Namibia shares border with the surrounding countries of South Africa, Botswana, Zimbabwe, Zambia, and Angola. The Atlantic Ocean borders it to the west.
It has a diverse environment that is home to deserts, marshlands, savannas, mountains, and river valleys.
Namibia’s extent can be divided into three topographic zones from west to east.
The coastal Namib Desert runs along the country’s coast on the Atlantic Ocean. It gives way to the Central Plateau to the west with the Kalahari Desert located further inwards.
Rivers: The only permanent rivers are the Kunene, the Okavango, the Mashi and the Zambezi on the northern border and the Orange on the southern.
Mountain: Brandberg, also known as Mount Brand is Namibia’s highest mountain and is located along the plateau’s western escarpment.
Consider the following statements regarding the Digital Bus initiative:
- It is a joint initiative between NITI Aayog and the NIIT Foundation.
- It offers a career programme to help the beneficiary look for a job in the nearest city of town.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Digital Bus initiative has so far impacted over three lakh beneficiaries, spread across several states across India.
It is a joint venture between the National Digital India Mission and the NIIT Foundation.
It was started in 2017, aims to take technology to remote areas and also foster innovation and offer new opportunities and ensure that every community is able to thrive in the digital age.
Objectives
Reducing the Digital divide for those living in remote areas
Providing Linkages to Government programs and initiatives
Enhancing interest-levels in learning
Introducing the multidisciplinary approach to education
Encouraging collaborative learning
Developing interpersonal skills
Providing awareness on technology amongst rural community
Providing equal opportunities for rural youth
Features of buses: These are solar-powered, 5G-enabled and are fully furnished classrooms with computers, Internet, and camera/video capabilities, with preinstalled e-courses, all available free of cost.
Focus of the courses: These courses focus on fundamental functions like using e-mail, the Internet, and applications.
It offers a career programme to help the beneficiary look for a job in the nearest city of town.
Consider the following statements regarding Cocoa Tree:
- It is a plantation crop grown in humid tropical regions of West Africa and South America.
- It requires clay loam and sandy loam soil for its cultivation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Scientists and entrepreneurs are working on ways to make more cocoa that stretch well beyond the tropics.
It is an important plantation crop grown for chocolates around the world. It is known as a crop of humid tropics and is native to Amazon basin of South America.
Cocoa trees grow about 20 degrees north and south of the equator in regions with warm weather and abundant rain, including West Africa and South America.
Required climatic conditions:
It can be grown up to 300 m above mean sea level.
Rainfall: It requires an annual rainfall of 1500-2000 mm.
Temperature: The temperature range of 15°-39°C with optimum of 25°C is considered ideal.
Soil: It requires deep and well drained soils. Majority of area under Cocoa cultivation is on clay loam and sandy loam soil.
It grows well in the pH range of 6.5 to 7.0.
Shade requirement: It was evolved as an under-storey crop in the Amazonian forests. Thus commercial cultivation of cocoa can be taken up in plantations where 50 per cent of light is ideally available.
Major producing regions in the world: About 70 percent of the world’s cocoa beans come from four West African countries: Ivory Coast, Ghana, Nigeria and Cameroon.
In India, it is mainly cultivated in Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu mainly as intercrop with Arecanut and Coconut.
With reference to Digital Agriculture Mission, consider the following statements:
- It is conceived as an umbrella scheme to support digital agriculture initiatives.
- Its main components include AgriStack and Krishi Decision Support System.
- It will link geographic information on land records with their physical locations.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Cabinet Committee chaired by the Prime Minister of India approved the Digital Agriculture Mission with an outlay of Rs. 2817 Crore, including the central share of Rs. 1940 Crore.
It is conceived as an umbrella scheme to support digital agriculture initiatives, such as creating Digital Public Infrastructure, implementing the Digital General Crop Estimation Survey (DGCES), and taking up other IT initiatives by the Central Government, State Governments, and Academic and Research Institutions.
Three major components of DPI are envisaged under the Digital Agriculture Mission: AgriStack, Krishi Decision Support System (DSS), and Soil Profile Maps.
Each of these DPI components will provide solutions that will allow farmers to access and avail of various services.
AgriStack: The farmer-centric DPI AgriStack consists of three foundational agri-sector registries or databases: Farmers’ Registry, Geo-referenced Village Maps, and Crop Sown Registry, all of which will be created and maintained by state/ UT governments.
Farmers’ Registry: It will be given a digital identity (‘Farmer ID’) similar to Aadhaar, which will be linked dynamically to records of land, ownership of livestock, crops sown, demographic details, family details, schemes and benefits availed, etc.
Pilots projects for the creation of Farmer IDs have been carried out in six districts — Farrukhabad (Uttar Pradesh), Gandhinagar (Gujarat), Beed (Maharashtra), Yamuna Nagar (Haryana), Fatehgarh Sahib (Punjab), and Virudhunagar (Tamil Nadu).
Crop Sown Registry: It will provide details of crops planted by farmers. The information will be recorded through Digital Crop Surveys — mobile-based ground surveys — in each crop season.
Geo-referenced Village Maps: It will link geographic information on land records with their physical locations.
Krishi DSS: It will create a comprehensive geospatial system to unify remote sensing-based information on crops, soil, weather, and water resources, etc.
This information will support crop map generation for identifying crop sown patterns, droughts/ flood monitoring, and technology-/ model-based yield assessment for settling crop insurance claims by farmers.
Soil Profile Maps: Under the Mission, detailed Soil Profile Maps (on a 1:10,000 scale) of about 142 million hectares of agricultural land are envisaged to be prepared. A detailed soil profile inventory of about 29 million ha has already been completed.
Consider the following statements:
- The burden of tax cannot be shifted in the case of direct taxes, but it can be shifted in the case of indirect taxes.
- Indirect tax can help in reducing inflation, whereas direct tax may enhance inflation.
- Direct taxes help in reducing inequalities and are progressive.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Key differences between Direct and Indirect Tax are:
Direct tax is levied and paid for by individuals, Hindu undivided Families (HUF), firms, companies etc. whereas indirect tax is ultimately paid for by the end-consumer of goods and services. Thus, the burden of tax cannot be shifted in case of direct taxes while the burden can be shifted for indirect taxes. So, statement 1 is correct.
Lack of administration in the collection of direct taxes can make tax evasion possible, while indirect taxes cannot be evaded as the taxes are charged on goods and services.
When inflation is on the uptrend, the government may increase the direct taxes like income tax. With an increase in direct taxes, the consumption demand may decline, which in turn may help reduce inflation. On the other hand, higher indirect taxes can lead to cost-push inflation and lead to an increase in the price of goods. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Direct taxes are progressive, because it is possible to help more people who do not earn as much, and at the same time, mobilize resources from those who earn well. On the other hand, indirect taxes are considered to be regressive taxes as they can bear a heavy burden on people with lower incomes who end up paying the same amount of tax as those who make a higher income. Thus, Direct taxes help in reducing inequalities and are progressive while indirect taxes enhance inequalities and are considered to be regressive. So, statement 3 is correct.
Which of the following are considered direct taxes in India?
- Corporate Tax
- Minimum Alternate Tax
- Securities Transaction Tax
- Capital Gains Tax
- Customs Duty
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
Direct taxes, usually levied on a person’s income, are paid directly by taxpayers or an organization to tax authorities of the Government of India. The person or the organization in question cannot transfer this type of tax to another person or entity for payment. The various types of direct taxes levied on citizens by the Government of India are as follows:
Corporate Tax: It is levied on the company’s profit income. It is also an income tax.
Minimum Alternative Tax (MAT): It is a tax imposed on companies, which escaped corporate tax net or pay very low tax by using the provisions of exemptions, deductions, Incentives, etc. It is to ensure that companies pay at least a minimum amount of tax.
Dividend Distribution Tax (DDT): It is a tax levied on dividends distributed by companies out of their profits among their shareholders.
Securities Transaction Tax (STT): It was introduced in 2004-05. It is a tax imposed on transactions of securities in stock exchanges.
Income Tax: It is a tax on the personal income of individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), partnership firms, etc.
Capital Gains Tax: It is a tax levied on the profit that an investor makes from the sale of an investment such as stock shares.
Wealth Tax: It is a tax levied on the total or market value of personal assets. Also known as capital tax or equity tax, wealth tax is imposed on the richer sections.
Customs Duty is a type of Indirect Tax which is levied on goods that are imported into India.
Which of the following best describes the term Tax Expenditure?
It is concessions given in taxes by tax exemption or lower taxes.
Explanation :
Tax Expenditure refers to the opportunity cost of taxing at concessional rates, or the opportunity cost of giving exemptions, deductions, rebates, deferrals credits, etc., to the taxpayers. Tax expenditures are also termed as revenue foregone. Tax expenditures indicate how much more revenue could have been collected by the government if not for such measures. In other words, it shows the extent of indirect subsidy enjoyed by the taxpayers in the country.
With reference to the concept of tax incidence, consider the following statements:
- Producers absorb most of the tax burden when the supply of a given good is more elastic than its demand.
- Upon increase in taxes on inelastic goods like essential medicines the share of the tax burden on consumers goes up.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Tax incidence describes a case when buyers and sellers divide a tax burden. Tax incidence is related to the price elasticity of supply and demand.
If demand is more elastic than supply, producers will bear the cost of the tax. When supply is more elastic than demand, the tax burden falls on the buyers. So, statement 1 is not correct.
In situations where the buyer is likely to continue purchasing a good or service regardless of a price change, the demand is said to be inelastic. When the price of the good or service profoundly impacts the level of demand, the demand is considered highly elastic.
In cases of higher taxes imposed on inelastic goods like tobacco products, medicines etc producers increase the sale price by the full amount of the tax, transferring the tax burden to consumers. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the taxable income in India:
- Individuals who qualify as Non-Resident Indian (NRI) need to pay taxes only on their income earned in India.
- Unlike resident Indians, NRI’s are not entitled to claim various deductions and exemptions from their total income.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The levy of income tax in India is dependent on the residential status of a taxpayer. Individuals who qualify as a resident in India must pay tax on their global income in India i.e. income earned in India and abroad. Whereas, those who qualify as Non-residents need to pay taxes only on their Indian income. The residential status has to be determined separately for every financial year for which income and taxes are computed. So, statement 1 is correct.
Similar to residents, NRIs are also entitled to claim various deductions and exemptions from their total income. Most of the deductions under Section 80C are also available to NRIs. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the taxability of dividend income:
- Currently, the dividend received is taxable in the hands of the investor/shareholder.
- Dividend received from a foreign company is not taxable in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A dividend tax is imposed by a jurisdiction on dividends paid by a corporation to its shareholders (stockholders). The company paying dividends was liable to pay Dividend Distribution Tax (DDT).
The Finance Act 2020 has abolished the concept of DDT and made dividends taxable in the hands of shareholders in accordance with the classical system of taxing dividends. This amendment came into force from April 1, 2020. Thus, in the case of dividends distributed on or after April 1, 2020, the company paying the dividend is not liable to pay Dividend Distribution Tax (DDT) and the dividends are taxable in the hands of shareholders at the slab rates applicable to them. So, statement 1 is correct.
A dividend received from a foreign company is taxable. Dividends received from a foreign company will be included in the taxpayer’s total income and charged to tax at the rates applicable to the taxpayer. For instance, if the taxpayer comes in at the 30% tax slab rate, such dividend will also be taxable at 30% along with cess. However, if the tax on an international company’s dividend has been paid twice (i.e. paid in both nations), then the taxpayer can claim double taxation relief. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Which of the following best explains the term ‘deferred tax’?
It is the postponement of paying tax by the companies or individuals to a future date.
Explanation :
Deferred tax is the tax which is estimated for the current period or is due for that term, but it has not been paid yet. The delay or the postponement comes when there is a difference in time from when the tax is accumulated and when the tax is actually paid.
It is calculated as the company’s anticipated tax rate times the difference between its taxable income and accounting earnings before taxes. Deferred tax liability is the amount of taxes a company has “underpaid” which will be made up in the future. This doesn’t mean that the company hasn’t fulfilled its tax obligations. Rather it recognizes a payment that is not yet due.
For example, a company that earned net income for the year knows it will have to pay corporate income taxes. Because the tax liability applies to the current year, it must reflect an expense for the same period. But the tax will not actually be paid until the next calendar year. In order to rectify the accrual/cash timing difference, tax is recorded as a deferred tax liability.
Which of the following factors can lead to an increase in Demand-pull inflation?
- Increase in crude oil prices due to prevailing tensions in Ukraine.
- State Bank of India raising its interest rates on personal loans.
- Appreciation in the value of Indian Rupee against US Dollars.
- Providing Universal Basic Income for all Indian citizens.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
4 only
Explanation :
Demand-pull inflation is a period of inflation which arises from rapid growth in aggregate demand. If aggregate demand rises faster than productive capacity, then firms will respond by putting up prices, creating inflation. Cost-push inflation occurs when prices rise due to higher costs of production and higher costs of raw materials. Cost-push inflation is determined by supply-side factors, such as higher wages and higher oil prices.
Increase in crude oil prices due to shortage of supply due to prevailing tensions in petroleum exporting countries, leads to cost-push inflation. So, point 1 is not correct.
Increase in interest rates of loans by a bank leads to decrease in the volume of disposable income with the people. This in turn leads to decreased money supply thereby reducing demand. This leads to reduction in levels of demand pull inflation. So, point 2 is not correct.
An appreciation in the exchange rate will tend to reduce cost-push inflation, as prices of imported products gets cheaper. So, point 3 is not correct.
Providing Universal Basic Income for all citizens leads to an increase in money supply in the economy. This in turn leads to demand pull inflation. So, point 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Gross Domestic Product Deflator:
- It measures the average change in selling prices received by domestic producers of intermediate goods and services over time.
- Changes in consumption patterns are automatically reflected in the deflator.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The GDP deflator, also called implicit price deflator, is a measure of inflation. It is the ratio of the value of goods and services an economy produces in a particular year at current prices to that of prices that prevailed during the base year. The producer price index is a family of indexes that measures the average change in selling prices received by domestic producers of intermediate goods and services over time. The PPI measures price changes from the perspective of the seller and differs from the CPI which measures price changes from the perspective of the buyer. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The fixed basket used in Consumer Price Index (CPI) calculations is static and sometimes misses changes in prices of goods outside of the basket of goods. Since GDP isn’t based on a fixed basket of goods and services, the GDP price deflator has an advantage over the CPI.
Changes in consumption patterns or the introduction of new goods and services are automatically reflected in the deflator but not in the CPI. So, statement 2 is correct.
The GDP deflator, being a weighted average of Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and CPI, has given higher weightage to the WPI, than the CPI.
In the context of the Indian economy, the term “Skewflation” refers to
a phenomenon when prices of some commodities rise steadily while other commodities experience deflation.
Explanation :
Skewflation means the skewness of inflation among different sectors of the economy — some sectors are facing huge inflation, some none and some deflation.
In India, food prices rose steadily during the last months of 2009 and the early months of 2010, even though the prices of non-food items continued to be relatively stable. As this somewhat unusual phenomenon stubbornly persisted, and policymakers conferred on how to bring it to an end, the term ‘skewflation’ made an appearance in internal documents of the Government of India, and then appeared in print in the Economic Survey 2009-10, Government of India, Ministry of Finance.
This phenomenon defies the conclusion that inflation and unemployment have a stable and inverse relationship. Recently, the RBI in a report stated India could suffer from this.
The phenomenon in question refers to
Stagflation
Explanation :
The Phillips curve is an economic concept developed by A. W. Phillips, stating that inflation and unemployment have a stable and inverse relationship. The theory claims that with economic growth comes inflation, which should lead to more jobs and less unemployment.
However, the implications of the Phillips curve have been found to be true only in the short term. Phillips curve fails to justify the situations of stagflation when both inflation and unemployment are alarmingly high.
Stagflation occurs when high inflation happens during a period of stagnant economic growth and high unemployment.
Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken if there is economic stagflation in India?
Reduction in taxes and the policy of monetary restraint
Explanation :
Stagflation is an economic phenomenon marked by a combination of recession and high inflation with high unemployment. An economy is said to be in stagflation when the country’s GDP (Gross Domestic Product) is growing at a slow rate, even as inflation is rising. Increased government spending is good for the economy, but it can lead to scarcity in some goods and inflation will follow. So, option a is not correct.
If the central bank increases interest rates in a bid to tame inflation, then it could increase the cost of borrowings and reduce the aggregate demand, worsening the slowdown. On the other hand, if it cuts interest rates to induce growth, this could make inflation worse. Stagflation therefore calls for solutions beyond the conventional monetary or fiscal policy tools. So, option b is not correct.
Cost-push inflation (also known as wage-push inflation) occurs when overall prices increase (inflation) due to increases in the cost of wages and raw materials. Higher costs of production can decrease the aggregate supply (the amount of total production) in the economy. Since the demand for goods hasn’t changed, the price increases from production are passed onto consumers creating cost-push inflation. Therefore, a wage control strategy should be implemented with government intervention to contain stagflation. So, option c is not correct.
The correct policy mix to deal with stagflation is based on fiscal ease to get more production out of the economy, in combination with monetary restraint to stop inflation. The increased momentum provided by the tax cut will cause sufficient demand for [money] to permit real monetary expansion at higher rates. The noninflationary boom commences right away and stagflation can be dealt with. So, option d is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Consumer Price Index (CPI):
- CPI for Agricultural Labourers CPI(AL) is compiled by the Labour Bureau.
- It used to compute the dearness allowance (DA) of govt employees and industrial workers.
- The Reserve Bank of India is using CPI-Combined as the sole inflation measure for the purpose of monetary policy.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Consumer Price Index or CPI as it is commonly called is an index measuring retail inflation in the economy by collecting the change in prices of most common goods and services used by consumers. Called market basket, CPI is calculated for a fixed list of items including food, housing, medical care, education, etc.
Four types of CPI are as follows:
CPI for Industrial Workers (IW).
CPI for Agricultural Labourer (AL).
CPI for Rural Labourer (RL).
CPI (Rural/Urban/Combined).
Of these, the first three are compiled by the Labour Bureau in the Ministry of Labour and Employment. Fourth is compiled by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO).So, statement 1 is correct.
CPI-IW is used to compute DA of govt employees and industrial workers. So, statement 2 is correct.
RBI is using CPI-combined as the sole inflation measure for the purpose of monetary policy. As per the agreement on Monetary Policy Framework between the Government and the RBI dated February 20, 2015 the sole objective of RBI is price stability and a target is set for inflation as measured by the Consumer Price Index-Combined. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Merchant Discount Rate (MDR):
- It is the fee a consumer pays to a merchant for facilitating a digital transaction.
- In India, all UPI and RuPay-based transactions are exempted from MDR.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
MDR is the rate charged to a merchant for payment processing services on debit, credit card or UPI transactions. It is the cost that is paid to banks and payment service providers (PSPs), during a transaction. So, statement 1 is not correct.
MDR charges are usually shared in pre-agreed proportion between the bank and a merchant and are expressed in a percentage of the transaction amount. It is currently capped at 0.9% (larger merchants) and 0.4% (small merchants) of the transaction value for payment channels other than credit cards, for which the MDR is market-determined.
In December 2019, the government had exempted all UPI and RuPay-based transactions from MDR to encourage the adoption of digital payments. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements:
- In contrast to SLR, a long-term tool, CRR is a short-term liquidity management tool.
- Cooperative Banks are subject to CRR and SLR requirements just like the other banks.
- RBI cannot fix CRR lower than the minimum ceiling of 3%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): The percentage of cash required to be kept in reserves against the bank’s total deposits. The cash reserve is either stored in the bank’s vault or is sent to the RBI. Banks cannot lend the CRR money to corporates or individual borrowers, and banks cannot use that money for investment purposes.
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): A minimum percentage of deposits that a commercial bank has to maintain in the form of liquid cash, gold or other securities. It is the reserve requirement that banks are expected to keep before offering credit to customers.
Unlike SLR and repo rate change, which have a more long-lasting impact, CRR is used to manage near-term liquidity. So, statement 1 is correct.
Cooperative banks are subject to CRR and SLR requirements as other banks. However, their requirements are less than commercial banks. So, statement 2 is correct.
A major development came in 2007 when by an amendment (in the RBI Act, 1949), the government abolished the lower ceiling (called ‘floor’) on the CRR and gave the RBI greater flexibility in fixing this ratio. It means, it is now possible for the RBI to fix the CRR below 3 per cent also. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):
- It is a statutory body set up as per the RBI Act 1934.
- Members of the MPC are appointed for four years and are eligible for reappointment.
- It is in charge of determining the various policy rates, such as MSF, Repo Rate, Reverse Repo Rate, and Liquidity Adjustment Facility.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) determines the policy interest rate required to achieve the inflation target.
MPC has been instituted by the Central Government of India under Section 45ZB of the RBI Act that was amended in 1934. The Reserve Bank of India Act 1934 empowers the RBI to make the monetary policy. So, statement 1 is correct.
The committee will have six members. Of the six members, the government will nominate three. No government official will be nominated to the MPC. The other three members would be from the RBI with the RBI Governor being the ex-officio chairperson; Deputy Governor of RBI in charge of the monetary policy will be a member, as also an executive director of the central bank. The three external members, who are appointed for a fixed period of four years, are not eligible for reappointment after completing their term. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Usually, the MPC meets six times a year. But, in FY20, it had an extra meeting in view of the pandemic and the urgent need to assess the current and evolving macroeconomic situation. The MPC is tasked with framing monetary policy using tools like the repo rate, reverse repo rate, bank rate, cash reserve ratio (CRR), Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) and Liquidity Adjustment Facility. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Repo Rate:
- It is applicable only when the amount of borrowing is a minimum of Rs. 5 crores.
- Regional Rural Banks (RRB) are not allowed to borrow from the RBI using the Repo Rate mechanism.
- The securities used in the Repo Rate mechanism cannot be considered under SLR.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Repo rate is the rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks or financial institutions in India against government securities in any shortfall of funds. Repo rate is used by monetary authorities to control inflation. The RBI increases the repo rate when controlling prices and restricting borrowings. On the other hand, the repo rate is decreased when there is a need to infuse more money into the market and support economic growth.
Repo rate bids are received for a minimum amount of Rs.5 crore and in multiples of Rs. 5 crores thereafter. So, statement 1 is correct.
As per the recent decision of the RBI, RRB’s are allowed to access the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF), marginal standing facility (MSF) and call or notice money market. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The securities used in the RBI LAF repo by a Bank (while borrowing money from RBI) can be considered under SLR requirement while the reverse repo deals entered with the RBI by a Bank does not provide SLR benefit as RBI does not use a pure Buy/Sell Back mechanism but credits the securities to a pool account and not to the account of the individual Subsidiary General Ledger (SGL) account of the Banks. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Standing Deposit Facility (SDF):
- It aims to absorb liquidity from the commercial banking system into the RBI by issuing Government securities.
- SDF will enable banks to park excess liquidity with the Reserve Bank at their discretion.
- It was first proposed by the Urjit Patel Monetary Policy Committee report in 2014.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Standing Deposit Facility is a liquidity management tool that allows the RBI to absorb surplus funds from banks. Banks too continue to earn interest (though possibly lower than the existing reverse repo rate). SDF allows the RBI to absorb liquidity (deposit) from commercial banks without giving government securities in return to the banks. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Under the existing liquidity framework, liquidity absorption through reverse repos, open market operations and the cash reserve ratio (CRR) are at the discretion of the Reserve Bank. But SDF will enable banks to park excess liquidity with the Reserve Bank at their discretion. So, statement 2 is correct.
The proposal was first suggested by the Urjit Patel Committee in its recommendation of the Monetary Policy Framework in 2014. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Velocity of circulation’:
- It is the magnitude by which base money is amplified in the banking system to the stock of broad money.
- It has the same effect on the economy, similar to that of the Money multiplier effect.
- It is directly proportional to inflation levels in an economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3 only
Explanation :
Velocity of circulation is the amount of units of money circulated in the economy during a given period of time. So, statement 1 is not correct.
It is the number of times the available money stock may roll over or change hands to finance transactions equivalent to nominal GDP. It is measured by dividing GDP by the country’s total money supply.
Velocity is different from the money multiplier. The money multiplier is the link between “broad money” and “reserve money”, whereas velocity is the link between “broad money” and “nominal GDP”. So, statement 2 is not correct.
A high velocity of circulation in a country indicates a high degree of inflation, which means that the Velocity of circulation is directly proportional to inflation levels in an economy. So, statement 3 is correct.
With reference to the Indian economy, which of the following can be the benefits of Long-Term Repo Operations (LTRO) recently introduced by the RBI?
- Reduce Marginal Cost of Funds based lending
- Better transmission of Monetary Policy
- Ensure durable liquidity
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
LTRO (Long-Term Repo Operations) is a tool in which the central bank offers money to banks for one to three years at the prevailing repo rate. The banks, in turn, offer government securities with the same or higher tenure as collateral to the central bank. As banks get long-term funds at lower rates, their cost of funds falls. In turn, they reduce interest rates for borrowers (better transmission of monetary policy). So, point 2 is correct.
LTRO helped RBI ensure that banks reduce their marginal cost of funds-based lending rates without reducing policy rates. So, point 1 is correct.
According to RBI, LTRO efforts are being carried forward to assure banks about the availability of durable liquidity at a reasonable cost relative to prevailing market conditions. So, point 3 is correct.
Which of the following is/are considered as fiat currencies?
- US Dollar
- Ether
- Gold
- Special Drawing Rights (SDR)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 only
Explanation :
Fiat money is a government-issued currency not backed by a commodity such as gold. Fiat money gives central banks greater control over the economy because they can control how much money is printed. Most modern paper currencies, such as the US dollar, are fiat currencies. So, point 1 is correct.
Ethereum is a blockchain platform with its own cryptocurrency, called Ether (ETH) or Ethereum. Unlike fiat money, cryptocurrency is not regulated by central authorities or backed by governments. This makes the virtual currency less credible than the real one (hard cash or digital money in bank accounts). Cryptocurrency is a digital asset that derives its value from its native blockchain. So, point 2 is not correct.
A fiat currency is a national currency that is not pegged to the price of a commodity such as gold or silver. So, point 3 is not correct.
The SDR is an international reserve asset created by the IMF to supplement the official reserves of its member countries. The SDR is not a currency. It is a potential claim on the freely usable currencies of IMF members. So, point 4 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to e-RUPI:
- It is a central bank digital currency also known as digital fiat currency or digital base money.
- It has been developed by the Reserve Bank of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
e-RUPI is a cashless and contactless digital payment medium. It is essentially like a prepaid gift-voucher that can be redeemed at specific accepting centres. e-RUPI will connect the sponsors of the services with the beneficiaries and service providers in a digital manner without any physical interface. It is a person-specific and purpose-specific payments system. e-RUPI cannot be classified as a Central Bank Digital Currency, as its usage is restricted to the purpose for which it has been issued. Statement 1 is not correct
The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), which developed Unified Payments Interface (UPI) platform and the BHIM App, has developed e-RUPI. So, statement 2 is not correct .
Which of the following Monetary Policy tools do not involve government securities?
- Cash Reserve Ratio
- Repo Rate
- Statutory Liquidity Ratio
- Marginal Standing Facility
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 only
Explanation :
Cash Reserve Ratio is the percentage of deposits which commercial banks are required to keep as cash according to the directions of the central bank. Government securities are not needed for CRR. So, point 1 is correct.
The fixed interest rate at which the banks can borrow money from the RBI by lending their surplus government securities is the Repo Rate. So, point 2 is not correct.
SLR requires banks to keep a certain amount of their money invested in specific central and State government securities. So, point 3 is not correct.
Marginal standing facility (MSF) is a window for banks to borrow from the Reserve Bank of India in an emergency situation by pledging government securities at a rate higher than the repo rate. So, point 4 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the distribution of rainfall around the Earth:
- In the subtropics, the trade winds bring plentiful rain to the west coast of continents.
- In high latitudes, the west coasts are generally wetter than the east coasts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
If Earth’s surface were perfectly uniform, the long-term average rainfall would be distributed in distinct latitudinal bands, but the situation is complicated by the pattern of the global winds, the distribution of land and sea, and the presence of mountains.
Because rainfall results from the ascent and cooling of moist air, the areas of heavy rain indicate regions of rising air, whereas deserts occur in regions in which the air is warmed and dried during descent. In the subtropics, the trade winds bring plentiful rain to the east coasts of the continents, but the west coasts tend to be dry. On the other hand, in high latitudes, the west coasts are generally wetter than the east coasts. Rain tends to be abundant on the windward slopes of mountain ranges but sparse on the lee sides. So, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to trojan asteroids:
- Trojan asteroids share an orbit with a larger planet.
- Earth has the highest number of trojan asteroids.
- Trojan asteroids are located in Lagrange points.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Asteroids are divided into three categories.
First, those found in the main asteroid belt, between Mars and Jupiter. This region is estimated to contain somewhere between 1.1-1.9 million asteroids.
The second group is that of trojans, which are asteroids that share an orbit with a larger planet. So, statement 1 is correct:
The third classification of asteroids is under Near-Earth Asteroids (NEA), which has orbits that pass close to the Earth. Those that cross the Earth’s orbit are called Earth-crossers. More than 10,000 such asteroids are known, of which over 1,400 are classified as potentially hazardous asteroids (PHAs).
Jupiter has the highest number of Trojan asteroids in the solar system. So, statement 2 is not correct:
Trojan asteroids are located in Lagrange points. Lagrange points are the location where the gravitational pull of the Sun and the parent planet are balanced. This prevents Trojan asteroids from colliding with the parent planet. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following:
- Tungabhadra
- Bhima
- Musi
- Ghatprabha
How many of the above are tributaries of the Krishna River?
All four
Explanation :
The recent surge in the Krishna River has resulted in boats being washed downstream, with some colliding with the gates of the Prakasam Barrage.
About Krishna River:
It is a river in south-central India.
In terms of water inflows and river basin, Krishna is the fourth biggest river after Ganga, Godavari, and Brahmaputra.
Course:
Origin: It rises in western Maharashtra state in the Western Ghats rangenear the town of Mahabaleshwar, about 64 km from the Arabian Sea.
It passes through Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh and meets the Bay of Bengal at Hamasaladeevi in Andhra Pradesh, on the east coast.
Total Length: 1300 km
The Krishna River Basin extends over an area of about 258,948 sq. km, which is nearly 8 percent of the total geographical area of the country.
It is bounded by the Balaghat range on the north, by the Eastern Ghats on the south and the east, and by the Western Ghats on the west.
Tributaries: Its principal tributaries joining from right are the Ghatprabha, the Malprabha, and the Tungabhadra, whereas those joining from left are the Bhima, the Musi, and the Munneru.
Consider the following statements:
- It is located at the tri-junction area of the states of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
- It is part of the larger Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
- It is an “ecological confluence” of the Western and Eastern Ghats.
- It is surrounded by River Kabini in its north and River Moyar in its south.
Which one of the following protected areas is described above?
Bandipur Tiger Reserve
Explanation :
An alert elephant patrolling team recently rescued a tusker that was stuck in a rail barricade in the Maddur range of Bandipur Tiger Reserve.
About Bandipur Tiger Reserve:
Location: It is situated in two contiguous districts (Mysore and Chamarajanagar) ofKarnataka and located at the tri-junction area of the States of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala.
Geographically, it is an “ecological confluence” of the Western and Eastern Ghats.
History:
It was once a hunting ground for the rulersof the neighbouring kingdom of Mysore.
It was established in the year 1931 as Venugopala Wildlife Park by the Maharaja of Mysore.
It was then expanded with the name Bandipur Tiger Reserve under Project Tiger in 1973.
It is part of the larger Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, which is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
BTR is surrounded by:
Nagarahole Tiger Reserve (Tamil Nadu) in the North West (Kabini Reservoir separates the two).
Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (Tamil Nadu) in the South.
Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) in the South West.
Rivers: It is surrounded by River Kabini in its north and River Moyar in its south.
Climate: Bandipur has a typical tropical climate with distinct wet and dry seasons.
Vegetation: It comprises diverse vegetation of dry deciduous to tropical mixed deciduous.
Flora:It includes rosewood, Indiankino tree,sandalwood, Indian laurel, clumping bamboo, giant clumping bamboo, etc.
Fauna:
It is a shelter for the largest population of wild Asian elephants in South Asia.
It comprises other mammals such as Bengal tiger, gaur, sloth bear, golden jackal, dhole, four-horned antelope, etc.
With reference to the Review Petition, consider the following statements:
- Only the parties to a case can seek a review of the judgment on it.
- The petition should clearly outline the grounds for review and include legal arguments.
- If the review petition has been dismissed by the Court, then the aggrieved person does not have any other legal remedy.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
A group of medical students recently filed a review petition challenging the Supreme Court’s decision to dismiss their writ petition, which sought to cancel the NEET UG 2024 examination.
About Review Petition:
When a judgment is passed by a court, the doctrine of functus officio applies to it.
This Latin doctrine means that if the judgment in a case has been pronounced or an order has been made following due process of law, in such circumstances, the case cannot be reopened.
The right to file a review petition is an exception to this doctrine.
The word “review” means to examine again.
Article 137 of the Constitution gives the Supreme Court the power to review any of its judgments or orders.
The court has the power to review its rulings to correct a “patent error” and not “minor mistakes of inconsequential import”.
Similarly, High Courts have also been given the powerto review its judgments under Article 226 of the Constitution. However, it can only be invoked when there is a breach of law or violation of the Constitution.
Grounds for review petition:In a 2013 ruling, the Supreme Court itself laid down three grounds for seeking a review of a verdict it has delivered.
the discovery of new and important matter or evidence which was not within the knowledge of the petitioner or could not be produced by him;
mistake or error apparent on the face of the record; or
any other sufficient reason, which means a reason that is analogous to the other two grounds.
Procedure:
Who can file a review petition? It is not necessary that only parties to a case can seek a review of the judgment on it. Any person aggrieved by ruling can seek a review.
Time frame:As per 1996 rules framed by the Supreme Court, a review petition must be filed within 30 days of the date of judgment or order.
While a judgment is the final decision in a case, an order is an interim ruling that is subject to its final verdict.
The petition should clearly outline the grounds for review and include legal arguments and supporting precedents.
In general, review petitions in court are typically considered without oral arguments from lawyers. Instead, they are reviewed “through circulation” by the judges in their chambers. There are exceptional cases where an oral hearing may be permitted.
The review petition should be circulated to the same bench that delivered the judgment.
However, if a Judge or bench is not available who delivered the original order/ judgment due to various reasons, any other competent Court is authorized and empowered to deal with the review application.
The Supreme Court will assess the petition to determine if it qualifies for review. In cases where the arguments lack substantial merit, the petition may be rejected.
If the review petition has been dismissed by the Court, then the aggrieved person is provided with a relief of Curative Petition.
Consider the following statements regarding Drug Repurposing:
- It is is the technique of using an existing drug for treating a new medical condition for which it was not indicated before.
- It significantly reduces timelines and cost compared with de novo drug development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers have been working in the field of drug repurposing have found the repurpose potential of an antidepressant drug for cancer management.
It is the technique of using an existing drug or drug candidate for a new treatment or medical condition for which it was not indicated before.
It is also called drug repositioning or drug reprofiling, is the identification of new therapeutic uses for existing or investigational drugs.
It was initially developed to treat a different medical condition. It has been described as a serendipitous process that happens unexpectedly.
The goal of drug repurposing is to quickly identify compounds with an established safety profile and known therapeutic advantages that may prove efficacious for other indications.
Applications: Pharmaceutical companies are undertaking drug repurposing projects for rare diseases, oncology, infectious and autoimmune diseases and more.
Significance: Drug repurposing can significantly reduce timelines and cost compared with de novo drug development.
Highlights of the research
This research group has shown that Selegiline (L-deprenyl), an antidepressant drug from a class of drugs called monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors, might be applied as anticancer therapeutics for breast cancer.
Selegiline was found effective in killing estrogen and progesterone-positive (ER+ & PR+) as well as triple-negative breast cancer (TNBC).
Consider the following statements regarding the Su-30MKI aircraft:
- It is a multirole combat fighter aircraft fitted with a Tarang Radar Warning Receiver.
- It is designed and developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Cabinet Committee on Security approved the proposal for the procurement of 240 aero-engines for Su-30MKI aircraft of the Indian Air Force (IAF).
It is a multirole combat fighter aircraft jointly developed by the Sukhoi Design Bureau and Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) for the Indian Air Force (IAF).
Based on the Su-30 fighter aircraft, Su-30MKI is equipped with thrust vectoring control and canards.
Features
It is the fourth-generation fighter jet powered by two AL-31 FP aero engines. AL-31FP is a high-temperature turbojet by-pass engine of modular design.
The Su-30MKI fleet of IAF was fitted with air-launched version of BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles and was successfully tested in November 2017.
It is fitted with a Tarang Radar Warning Receiver (RWR) indigenously developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
The aircraft has a maximum unrefuelled flight range of 3,000km. The in-flight refuelling system of Su-30MKI provides a maximum range of 8,000km with two refuellings.
Manufacturer: Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
Consider the following statements regarding the Ocean Biodiversity Information System:
- It provides detailed information on species distribution across the world’s oceans including habitat and environmental parameters.
- It is hosted by the Centre for Marine Living Resources and Ecology India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Centre for Marine Living Resources and Ecology (CMLRE) conducted a national-level workshop on the Indian Ocean Biodiversity Information System (IndOBIS) at its Kochi campus.
Indian Ocean Biodiversity Information System (IndOBIS) is the Indian regional node of the global Ocean Biodiversity Information System (OBIS).
It is hosted by the Centre for Marine Living Resources & Ecology (CMLRE), Kochi.
IndOBIS collects data of taxonomically resolved marine species occurrence records from the Indian Ocean and contributes to the OBIS as one of the 30 regional nodes of the Ocean Biodiversity Information System OBIS.
What is OBIS?
It is one of the largest global repositories of information on marine species, containing millions of records from thousands of datasets contributed by researchers, governments, and organisations worldwide.
It provides detailed information on species distribution across the world’s oceans, including data on their occurrence, habitats, and environmental parameters.
It offers tools and services that allow users to search, visualise, and download biodiversity data.
It is supported by a network of nearly 30 regional nodes contributing data while ensuring the data’s quality and accessibility.
It is a ready reference resource in marine science, conservation, and education.
It has been set up by the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC) of UNESCO for promoting marine science, conservation, and sustainable development.
It is now an integral component of the International Oceanographic Data and Information Exchange (IODE) of IOC.
Consider the following statements regarding Brunei:
- It is located along the northern coast of the Borneo Island in Southeast Asia.
- It is bordered by the East China Sea in the north.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India said he was looking forward to strong ties with Brunei, especially in boosting commercial and cultural linkages, as he visited Bandar Seri Begawan.
Location: It is located along the northern coast of the Borneo Island in Southeast Asia.
It is situated both in the Northern and Eastern hemispheres of the Earth.
Brunei is bordered by the South China Sea in the north and on all other sides by Malaysia. Brunei is divided into two non-contiguous parts by a portion of the Malaysian State of Sarawak. Brunei shares its maritime borders with China and Malaysia.
Capital: Bander Seri Begawan – the capital and largest city of Brunei.
Mountain: Bukit Pagon is the highest point in the country at 6,069 ft along the border with Malaysia in the eastern mountainous region.
Rivers: Numerous rivers drain the land, including the Belait, Pandaruan, and Tutong.
It is also a major oil producer in Southeast Asia.
Population: Brunei citizens comprise about 76% of the population, with the remaining being permanent or temporary residents. More than 80% of the population is ethnically Malay or Chinese.
Currently, approximately 14,000 Indians are residing in Brunei. The contribution of Indian doctors and teachers to the growth and development of Brunei’s healthcare and education sectors has been well acknowledged.
Consider the following statements regarding the e-Shram Portal:
- It was launched by the Union Ministry of Labour and Employment.
- It allows an unorganised workers to register themselves on the portal on self-declaration basis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Ministry of Labour & Employment (MoLE) stated that e-Shram has registered more than 30 crore unorganised workers, showcasing its rapid and widespread adoption among the unorganised workers.
It was launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment in 2021 for registration and creation of a comprehensive National Database of Unorganized Workers.
It is a “One-Stop-Solution” for Unorganised Workers of the country.
The registration in the portal is fully Aadhaar verified and Aadhaar seeded. Any unorganised worker can register himself or herself on the portal on a self-declaration basis.
It allows an unorganised worker to register himself or herself on the portal on self-declaration basis, under 400 occupations in 30 broad occupation sectors.
The Ministry aims to facilitate access to various social security schemes being implemented by various Ministries/ Departments for the benefit of the unorganised workers through the e-Shram portal.
The portal is presently integrated with National Career Service (NCS) Portal, Skill India Digital Hub (SIDH), myScheme portal and Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Mandhaan (PMSYM) scheme.
Phrynarachne decipiens, recently in news is a:
Spider
Explanation :
Recently, zoologists in Assam have added a species of spider Phrynarachne decipiens whose web mimics a bird’s excrement to India’s list of arachnids.
It is better known as the bird dung or bird-dropping crab spider.
Distribution: It was known to be distributed in Malaysia and Indonesia’s Java and Sumatra.
It has been recorded for the first time in the country from Assam’s Sonapur in the Kamrup (Metropolitan) district and the Chirang Reserve Forest in the Kokrajhar district.
The spider is usually seen lying motionless 1-2 ft above the ground on the upper side of broad leaves.
The chalky white colour of the spider and whitish deposition (its web) on the leaves, looking like bird excreta, make it very difficult to be sighted
Feature: It has the stout spermathecae (a sac-like organ in the female reproductive tract that stores sperm received during copulation) with posterior heads almost touching each other.
The genus Phrynarachne presently consists of 35 accepted species of which three – P. ceylonica, P. ceeliana, and P. Tuberosa – before the bird dung crab spider recorded and re-described based on female specimens collected from Assam.
What are arachnids?
These are member of the arthropod group that includes spiders, daddy longlegs, scorpions, and the mites and ticks.
With reference to AgriSURE Fund, consider the following statements:
- It is designed to fuel growth and foster innovation in the agricultural and rural start-up ecosystem.
- It is funded by the Government of India and World Bank in the 90:10 ratios respectively.
- It is managed by the NABVENTURES a fully owned subsidiary of NABARD.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the union Minister for Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare and Rural Development launched the AgriSURE Scheme in New Delhi.
Agri Fund for Start-ups & Rural Enterprises (AgriSURE) is an innovative fund which is a pioneering step toward revolutionizing the agricultural landscape in India.
Focus area: It mainly focuses on technology-driven, high-risk, high-impact ventures.
It is designed to fuel growth and foster innovation in the agricultural and rural start-up ecosystem.
Funding Pattern: A Blended capital fund of ₹750 crore with SEBI Registered Category II, Alternative Investment Fund (AIF), contributions from the Government of India is ₹250 crore, NABARD is ₹250 crore, and ₹250 crore is being mobilized from banks, insurance companies, and private investors.
Its main focus areas include promoting innovative, technology-driven initiatives in agriculture, enhancing the farm produce value chain, creating new rural ecosystem linkages and infrastructure, generating employment and supporting Farmers Producer Organisations (FPOs).
The fund would encourage entrepreneurship through IT-based solutions and machinery rental services for farmers, driving sustainable growth and development in the agricultural sector.
NABVENTURES a fully owned subsidiary of NABARD will act as the fund manager.
Consider the following statements regarding Narrow-Spectrum Antibiotics:
- They are active against a selected group of bacterial types.
- They are the primary cause for an increase in bacterial resistance and the spread of drug-resistant infections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Scientists recently found that FP 100 (Hygromycin A), a first-in-class, small molecule, narrow-spectrum antibiotic, successfully eradicates Fusobacterium nucleatum without harming the oral or gut microbiomes.
About Narrow-Spectrum Antibiotics:
Antibiotics are classified as “narrow-spectrum” or “broad-spectrum” depending on the range of bacterial types they affect.
Narrow-spectrum antibiotics are active against a selected group of bacterial types.
They can act on either gram +ve or gram –ve but not both.
They are used for the specific infection when the causative organism is known.
They will not kill as many of the normal microorganisms in the body as the broad-spectrum antibiotics.
Because they target very specific bacteria, they don’t cause an increase in bacterial resistance and avoid the spread of drug-resistant infections.
Examples include Azithromycin, Clarithromycin, Erythromycin, etc.
Gram-Positive vs. Gram-Negative Bacteria:
Gram-negative bacteria are surrounded by a thin peptidoglycan cell wall, which itself is surrounded by an outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharide.
Gram-positive bacteria lack an outer membrane but are surrounded by layers of peptidoglycan many times thicker than is found in the Gram-negatives.
Gram staining is a technique that uses violet dye to distinguish between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.
If the bacteria are gram-positive, the thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell walls will retain the dye, and they will stain violet.
If the bacteria are gram-negative, the dye will leak out of the thin peptidoglycan layer, and the bacteria will stain red.
Gram-positive infections include MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) infections, strep infections, and toxic shock syndrome.
Gram-negative infections include salmonella infections, pneumonia, urinary tract infections, bacterial meningitis, and gonorrhea.
Knowing whether bacteria is gram-positive or gram-negative can help your health care provider identify the type of infection you have and which antibiotics will be most effective in treating it.
With reference to the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), consider the following statements:
- It is a Central Armed Police Force (CAPF) directly under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
- It provides security cover to India’s most critical infrastructure facilities.
- It also has a specialized VIP Security vertical, providing round-the-clock security to important protectees.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The central government recently approached the Supreme Court, alleging that inadequate arrangements were made for the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) personnel deployed at RG Kar Hospital in Kolkata.
About Central Industrial Security Force (CISF):
It is a Central Armed Police Force (CAPF) in India.
It was set up under an Act of the Parliament of India on 10 March 1969 with a strength of 2,800.
CISF was subsequently made an armed force of the Republic of India by another Act of Parliament passed on 15 June 1983.
The force has since grown into a premier multi-skilled organization with a present strength of more than 1,88,000 personnel.
It is directly under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs, and its headquarters are at New Delhi.
The CISF at present provides security cover to 359 establishments across the country.
Organisation Structure:
CISF is headed by an Indian Police Service Officer with the rank of Director-General, assisted by an IPS officer in the rank of Addl. Director-General.
The force is divided into seven sectors (Airport, North, North-East, East, West, South, and Training), and also has a Fire Service Wing.
Functions:
The CISF security umbrella includes India’s most critical infrastructure facilities like nuclear installations, space establishments, airports, seaports, power plants, etc.
The specialized task of airport security was assigned to CISF in the year 2000 in the wake of the hijacking of Indian Airlines Flight IC-814 to Kandahar.
In addition, the CISF also protects important government buildings, iconic heritage monuments, Delhi Metro, Parliament House Complex, and Central Jails of Jammu and Kashmir.
The CISF also has a specialized VIP Security vertical, providing round-the-clock security to important protectees.
CISF is one of the largest Fire Protection Service providers in the country. CISF is the only force with a customized and dedicated fire wing.
Post the Mumbai terror attack in November 2008, the mandate of CISF was broadened to provide security cover to private corporate establishments also.
The CISF also provides security consultancy services to private entities and its services are much in demand.
The CISF is the only CAPFwith a daily public interface- in the airports, in the Delhi Metro, and in the iconic monuments.
What is inscribed on the new insignia of the Supreme Court of India?
“Supreme Court of India” and “Yato Dharmastato Jayah”
Explanation :
The President of India recently unveiled the new flag and insignia of the Supreme Court at the two-day National Conference of District Judiciary in New Delhi.
About New Flag and Insignia of the Supreme Court of India:
The newly unveiled flag features symbols central to India’s legal and cultural heritage: the Ashoka Chakra, the Supreme Court building, and the Constitution of India.
The new Supreme Court flag is blue in colour.
The insignia has ‘Supreme Court of India’ and ‘Yato Dharmastato Jayah’ (in Devanagari script) inscribed on it.
The phrase “Yato Dharmastato Jayah” is a Sanskrit expression that translates to “Where there is Dharma, there is victory” or “Victory lies where Dharma (righteousness) prevails.”
This phrase encapsulates the essence of justice and righteousness that the Supreme Court strives to uphold.
The new flag and insignia were conceptualized and designed by the National Institute of Fashion Technology (NIFT), Delhi.
The flag will be available in various designs,including cross table flat, single table flag, pole flag, and wooden frame, ensuring its presence in diverse settings.
With reference to the Smart Cities Mission (SCM), consider the following statements:
- It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA).
- 500 cities across India have been selected to be developed as Smart Cities under the scheme.
- Emphasis has been given on the participation of the private sector through public-private partnerships (PPP) under the scheme.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Smart Cities Mission (SCM), which was launched to enhance the quality of life in urban spaces, has completed more than 90% of the total projects, the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs has said recently.
About Smart Cities Mission (SCM):
It was launched on 25 June, 2015.
The main objective of the SCM is to promote cities that provide core infrastructure, a clean and sustainable environment, and a decent quality of life to their citizens through the application of ‘smart solutions’.
The mission aims to drive economic growth and improve quality of life through comprehensive work on the social, economic, physical, and institutional pillars of the city.
The focus is on sustainable and inclusive development through the creation of replicable models that act as lighthouses for other aspiring cities.
100 cities have been selected to be developed as Smart Cities (through a two-stage competition) in various rounds from 2016 to 2018, with each getting five years from their selection to complete the projects.
It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA).
Some of the core infrastructure elements in a Smart City would include adequate water supply, assured electricity supply, sanitation, including solid waste management, efficient urban mobility and public transport, affordable housing, especially for the poor, robust IT connectivity and digitalization, good governance, especially e-Governance and citizen participation, sustainable environment, safety and security of citizens, particularly women, children, and the elderly, and health and education.
The strategic components of the Smart Cities Mission are city improvement (retrofitting), city renewal (redevelopment), and city extension (Greenfield development),plus a Pan-city initiative in which Smart Solutions are applied, covering larger parts of the city.
Funding:
The Central Government will give financial support to the extent of Rs. 48,000 crores over 5 years,i.e., on an average of Rs.100 crore per city per year.
An equal amount on a matching basis is to be provided by the State/ Urban Local Bodies (ULBs).
Additional resources are to be raised through convergence, from ULBs’ own funds, grants under the Finance Commission, innovative finance mechanisms such as Municipal Bonds, other government programs, and borrowings.
Emphasis has been given on the participation of the private sector through Public Private Partnerships
Consider the following statements regarding Arnoux’s Beaked Whales, recently seen in the news:
- They are found only in the Northern Atlantic Ocean.
- They are classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
A team of researchers has stumbled upon rare Arnoux’s Beaked Whales off the coast of Antarctica recently.
About Arnoux’s Beaked Whale:
They are a rare cetacean species.
A cetacean is a member of the family of large aquatic mammals such as whales, dolphins, and porpoises.
Scientific Name: Berardius arnuxii
Arnoux’s Beaked Whales are a gregarious species generally found in groups of 6-10, but larger groups of 80 individuals have been recorded.
Distribution:
They are found only in the Southern Hemisphere.
Their distribution is circumpolar in deep, cool temperate and subpolar waters, generally south of 40°S to the edge of the Antarctic ice shelf (approximately 78°S).
Features:
They are known for brilliant diving abilities and can measure up to around 30 feet long.
Females are thought to be slightly larger than the males.
The body is spindle-shaped and resembles dolphins in appearance.
The dorsal fin is small, triangular, slightly hooked, and positioned well back on the body.
They are predominantly dark brown in color with paler coloring on their head and ventral sides (undersides), which also have white patches.
Like other whale species, males show extensive scarring, particularly around their dorsal fins.
They are often called Southern four-toothed Whales because of their four teeth found in their lower jaws that are visible even when their mouth is closed.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Consider the following statements regarding the Food Recovery to Avoid Methane Emissions (FRAME) methodology:
- It helps allow food banks and food recovery organizations to accurately measure and manage methane emissions.
- It is developed by the United Nations Environment Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
According to estimates based on data from a new methodology termed as Food Recovery to Avoid Methane Emissions (FRAME) each food bank reduces the same volume of greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions as removing 900 gasoline-powered cars from the road for a year.
It quantifies the avoided emissions and co-benefits from redirecting food loss and waste to direct human consumption, through food recovery and redistribution operations.
Developed by: It is developed by The Global Food Banking Network (GFN) in partnership with the Global Methane Hub and the Carbon Trust.
The FRAME initially began as a pilot project in Mexico and Ecuador, where six community-led food banks were analysed.
The new FRAME tool will allow food banks, food recovery organisations, private sector companies, scientific experts, and others working in the food loss and waste sector to be able to accurately measure and manage emissions from food recovery and redistribution.
Key facts about Global Methane Hub
The Global Methane Hub is a philanthropic organization dedicated to reducing methane emissions globally and significantly boost philanthropic resources allocated specifically to methane reduction.
It has donated $10 million to the Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) in an effort to financially assist 30 countries with developing plans to reduce their methane emissions.
Consider the following statements regarding the Vishvasya-Blockchain Technology Stack:
- It is designed to offer Blockchain-as-a-Service with a geographically distributed setup to support permissioned blockchain applications.
- It is hosted across National Informatics Centres data for robust and scalable service delivery.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) launched a series of blockchain-based solutions including Vishvasya-Blockchain Technology Stack.
It is designed to offer Blockchain-as-a-Service (BaaS) with a geographically distributed setup to support a range of permissioned blockchain applications.
The stack is hosted across NIC Data Centers in Bhubaneswar, Pune, and Hyderabad, ensuring robust and scalable service delivery.
The government also introduced the NBFLite-Lightweight Blockchain Platform and Praamaanik, a blockchain-enabled solution for verifying the origin of mobile apps.
Application: The Government also unveiled a suite of applications of the Vishvasya BaaS.
e-Stamps Solution, Judiciary Application, IPS officers service level training record management, Forensic Application
Praamaanik - verification of mobile app authenticity
Consent Management Framework
IoT Device Security Management
Cotton bale identification and tracking
Domicile Certificate Chain
Document Chain (Caste Certificcate chain etc)
What is the National Blockchain Framework?
The National Blockchain Framework (NBF) has been initiated with the vision of creating reliable digital platforms.
The NBF is built on a distributed infrastructure and includes key components such as Distributed Infrastructure, Core Framework Functionality, Smart Contracts & API Gateway, and Security, Privacy & Interoperability.
The framework currently supports two permissioned blockchain platforms and is designed to be extensible
Consider the following statements regarding the Poshan Tracker initiative:
- It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Women and Child Development.
- It identifies and addresses growth issues among children aged 0-14 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Ministry of Women and Child Development has received the National Award for e-Governance 2024 (Gold) for the Poshan Tracker initiative.
The Poshan Tracker program identifies and addresses growth issues among children aged 0-6 years, utilizing real-time monitoring and WHO growth charts to ensure optimal nutritional outcomes.
Anganwadi Workers (AWWs) play a crucial role in evaluating children’s health status and implementing timely interventions when deviations from expected growth patterns are detected.
The Poshan Tracker employs advanced ICT tools and Growth Measuring Devices (GMD) at each Anganwadi Center (AWC) to facilitate accurate data collection and regular monitoring.
The program’s real-time growth monitoring has significantly improved child health outcomes in India, covering millions of children under Mission Poshan 2.0.
Key points about Poshan Tracker App
This application provides a 360-degree view of the activities of the Anganwadi Centre (child care centres), service deliveries of Anganwadi Workers and complete beneficiary management for pregnant women, lactating mothers and children under six.
It also digitizes and automates physical registers used by workers to help improve the quality of their work.
The Anganwadi workers are being provided smartphones procured through Government e-Market (GeM) for efficient service delivery.
A nodal person has also been appointed for providing technical support and resolving any issue with downloading the new Poshan Tracker application and its functioning in each state.
The sources state that each migrant worker who had registered in their original state could go to the nearest Anganwadi in their current place of residence and avail of the schemes and services offered.
It was launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MoWCD).
Exercise Varuna, recently in news is conducted between India and:
France
Explanation :
Recently, a P8I aircraft of the Indian Navy has reached France to participate in ‘Exercise Varuna’ with the French Navy.
It is the bilateral Naval Exercise between India and France.
This bilateral exercise between the two navies was initiated in 1993.
It was named ‘VARUNA’ in 2001 and has become a hallmark of India France strategic bilateral relationship.
The 2024 edition of Indo-French bilateral naval ‘Exercise Varuna’ scheduled in the Mediterranean Sea.
It includes advanced tactical exercises underscoring the deepening synergy and interoperability between the two navies.
The Indian Navy’s P-8I aircraft, renowned for its maritime surveillance and anti-submarine warfare capabilities, will play a pivotal role in these exercises and it joins the INS Tabar.
The P-8I’s participation in Exercise Varuna reflects the growing sophistication and complexity of the joint operations between the Indian and French navies.
Key facts about P-8I aircraft
P-8I is a long-range, multi-mission maritime patrol aircraft being manufactured by Boeing for the Indian Navy.
It replaced the aging fleet of the Indian Navy’s Tupolev Tu-142 aircraft.
Consider the following statements regarding Konyak Tribe:
- They are Mongoloid origin tribal people reside in the state of Nagaland.
- They celebrate festivals like Aolingmonyu, Aonyimo and Laoun-ongmo.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Konyak Union, apex body of the Konyak community, has sought the Nagaland government’s intervention in rectifying the “erroneous” boundary line between the State’s Mon district and Assam’s Charaideo district on Google Maps.
The Konyaks can be found in the Mon district of Nagaland and also in the Tirap and Changlang districts of Arunachal.
The term ‘Konyak’ is believed to have been derived from the words ‘Whao’ meaning ‘head’ and ‘Nyak’ meaning ‘black’ translating to ‘men with black hair’.
They can be grouped into two groups, namely “Thendu”, which means the “Tattooed Face” and “Thentho”, meaning the “White face”.
The Konyaks are of Mongoloid origin and about 95% of the population follows the Christian faith now.
Language: The Konyak language belongs to the Northern Naga sub branch of the Sal subfamily of Sino-Tibetan.
Festivals: Festivals occupy an important place in the lives of the Konyaks. The three most significant festivals were Aolingmonyu, Aonyimo and Laoun-ongmo.
They are skilled in the art of making firearms. They are also skilled in handicrafts like basket making, cane and bamboo works, brass works etc.
The Konyak society is a patriarchal society and the eldest son of the family usually inherits the paternal property.
With reference to the Public Accounts Committee (PAC), consider the following statements:
- Its main function is to ascertain whether the money granted by Parliament has been spent by the government within the scope of the demand.
- It consists of members from both the Houses of the Parliament.
- A Minister cannot be elected as a member of the Committee.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) will hold a performance review of “regulatory bodies established by Act of Parliament”, such as the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
About Public Accounts Committee (PAC):
It is a committee of selected members of parliament, constituted by the Parliament of India, for the purpose of auditing the revenue and expenditure of the Government of India.
It serves as a check on the government, especially with respect to its expenditure bill, and its primary function is to examine the audit report of the Comptroller and Auditor General (C&AG) after it is laid in Parliament.
C&AG assists the committee during the course of the investigation.
The main function of the committee is to ascertain whether the money granted by parliament has been spent by the government within the scope of the demand.
Genesis of the Committee:
It is one of the oldest Parliamentary Committees in India.
From its inception in the year 1921 till early 1950, the Finance Member was appointed as the Chairperson of the Committee, and its secretarial functions were looked after by the Finance Department (later Ministry of Finance).
With the coming into force of the Constitution of India on 26 January 1950, the Committee became a Parliamentary Committee under the control of the Speaker.
Its secretarial functions were transferred to the Parliament Secretariat (now Lok Sabha Secretariat).
Membership:
PAC consists of not more than twenty-two members, fifteen elected by Lok Sabha, and not more than seven members of Rajya Sabha.
The members are elected every year from amongst its members of respective houses according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
The term of office of the members is one year.
The Chairperson of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst the members of the Committee from Lok Sabha.
The Speaker, for the first time, appointed a Member of the Opposition as the Chairperson of the Committee for 1967-68. This practice has been continuing since then.
A Minister is not elected a member of the Committee, and if a member, after his election to the Committee, is appointed a Minister, he ceases to be a member of the Committee from the date of such appointment.
Functions:
The functions of the Committee include examination of accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by Parliament for the expenditure of the Government of India, the annual finance accounts of the Government, and such other accounts laid before the House as the Committee may think fit.
In scrutinising the appropriation accounts of the Government of India and the report of the C&AG thereon, the Committee has to satisfy:
that the moneys shown in the accounts as having been disbursed were legally available for, and applicable to, the service or purpose to which they have been applied or charged;
that the expenditure conforms to the authority which governs it; and
that every re-appropriation has been made in accordance with the provisions made in this behalf under rules framed by competent authority.
The functions of the Committee extend, however, “beyond, the formality of expenditure to its wisdom, faithfulness, and economy”.
The Committee thus examines cases involving losses, nugatory expenditures, and financial irregularities.
Consider the following statements regarding Vertical Fiscal Imbalance (VFI):
- It is a situation in which revenues do not match expenditures for different levels of government.
- It is a structural issue that can be resolved if revenue and expenditure responsibilities can be reassigned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
There is the problem of Vertical Fiscal Imbalance (VFI) in Indian fiscal federalism, where expenditure decentralization overwhelms the revenue-raising powers of the States.
About Vertical Fiscal Imbalance (VFI):
It is defined as the share of sub-national governments’ own spending not financed through their own revenues.
A VFI describes a situation in which revenues do not match expenditures for different levels of government.
In other words, VFI is the fiscal gap in the sub-national governments due to improper decentralization of public revenue and expenditure.
This asymmetry in revenue and expenditure decentralization is called Vertical Fiscal Asymmetry (VFA).
It is a structural issue that can be resolved if revenue and expenditure responsibilities can be reassigned.
It can be corrected through the financial transfers from the Union to the State governments.
What’s the Difference Between Horizontal and Vertical Fiscal Imbalance?
The simple difference between horizontal and vertical fiscal imbalances lies in who they affect.
With a horizontal fiscal imbalance, revenues and spending are mismatched for different regions of the country.
In a VFI, revenue and spending are not balanced for different government levels.
Consider the following statements regarding the Loss and Damage Fund (LDF):
- It aims to provide financial support to regions suffering both economic and non-economic losses caused by climate change.
- It encourages voluntary contributions from developed countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A crucial conversation has recently emerged around whether subnational entities can seek compensation through the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)’s Loss and Damage Fund (LDF).
About Loss and Damage Fund (LDF):
LDF was established at the 2022 UNFCCC Conference (COP27) in Egypt.
Purpose: To provide financial support to regions suffering both economic and non-economic losses caused by climate change.
Economic loss and damage are negative impacts that one can assign a monetary value to. These are things such as the costs of rebuilding infrastructure that has been damaged due to a flood, or the loss of revenue from agricultural crops that were destroyed due to drought.
Non-economic loss and damage are negative impacts where it is difficult or infeasible to assign a monetary value. These are things such as trauma from experiencing a tropical cyclone, loss of community due to displacement of people, or loss of biodiversity,”
It was designed to provide crucial support to vulnerable nations facing the brunt of climate-related challenges.
The LDF is overseen by a Governing Board that determines how the fund’s resources are disbursed, with the World Bank serving as the interim trustee tasked with hosting the fund for four years.
Financial support will be provided in the form of grants, concessional financing that can be utilized by any eligible country.
The fund encourages voluntary contributions from developed countries but invites developing countries to contribute to it too.
With reference to the Interpol, consider the following statements:
- It is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN).
- It facilitates international police cooperation against cross-border terrorism and trafficking.
- An Interpol Red Notice seeks to warn about a person’s criminal activities if that person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) chief recently announced that Interpol had issued a record 100 Red Notices last year, the highest ever, on India’s request.
About Interpol:
The International Criminal Police Organization (INTERPOL), commonly known as Interpol, is an international organization facilitating international police cooperation against cross-border terrorism, trafficking, and other crime.
It is the world’s largest international police organization, representing 195 member countries.
It is headquartered in Lyon, France.
Official Languages: Arabic, English, French, and Spanish.
Status: It is ‘not’ a unit or part of a united nation system. It is an independent international organization.
It is often the first point of contact for many countries pursuing an international investigation. It does not actively investigate crimes.
Governance:
The General Assembly, consisting of one delegate from each member country, is Interpol’s supreme decision-making body.
Interpol’s day-to-day operation is managed by a General Secretariat under the direction of a Secretary General, who is appointed for a five-year term by the General Assembly.
An Executive Committee of 13 members, each representing a different region of the world, is appointed by the General Assembly at its annual meeting.
The Executive Committee oversees the implementation of decisions made by the General Assembly and supervises the work of the secretary general.
National Central Bureau (NCB):
It has an NCB in each member country, which is the central point of contact for both the general secretariat and the other NCBs around the world.
Each NCB is run by police officials of that country and usually sits in the government ministry responsible for policing. (Union Home Ministry in India.)
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) represents Interpol in India as the country’s NCB.
Types of Notices issued by Interpol:
It issues 8 types of notices (7 of which are colour-coded) which are in the form of alerts/requests allowing police in member countries to share critical crime-related information.
Red Notice: To seek the location and arrest of a person wanted by a judicial jurisdiction or an international tribunal with a view to his/her extradition. It is the “closest instrument to an international arrest warrant”.
Blue Notice: To locate, identify, or obtain information on a person of interest in a criminal investigation.
Green Notice: To warn about a person’s criminal activities if that person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety.
Yellow Notice: To locate a missing person or to identify a person unable to identify himself/herself.
Black Notice: To seek information on unidentified bodies.
Orange Notice: To warn of an event, a person, an object, or a process representing an imminent threat and danger to persons or property.
Purple Notice: To provide information on modus operandi, procedures, objects, devices, or hiding places used by criminals.
Interpol-UNSC Special Notice: To inform Interpol’s members that an individual or an entity is subject to UN sanctions.
Consider the following statements regarding Valley Fever, recently seen in the news:
- It is a severe lung infection caused by a virus.
- It is highly contagious that spreads from person to person through direct contact.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Valley fever, a fungal disease endemic to the western United States, is seeing a significant rise in cases across California, prompting concerns among health officials and researchers.
About Valley Fever:
Valley Fever, also called coccidioidomycosis, is an infection caused by the fungus Coccidioides.
The fungus lives in soil in some areas, including the southwestern United States and south-central Washington, as well as in parts of Mexico as well as Central and South America.
Transmission:
People and animals can get Valley Fever by breathing in spores, generally from dust or disturbed soil, in areas where the fungus is found.
Most people who breathe in spores do not get sick, but some people develop mild or severe forms of the disease.
Valley fever does not generally spread from person to person or from animals to people, with rare exceptions due to organ transplantation or wound contact.
Symptoms:
Most of the time, Valley fever doesn’t cause symptoms or symptoms go away on their own.
Rarely, you can have ongoing lung issues or serious illness.
Only about 1% of those who are symptomatic go on to develop severe disease. Serious complications include:
Pneumonia.
Fluid or pus in your lungs (pleural effusion or empyema).
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
Ruptured pockets of fluid or air in your lungs (hydropneumothorax).
Disease spreads outside of your lungs (disseminated coccidioidomycosis). When coccidioidomycosis spreads to your brain, you can develop coccidioidal meningitis, a life-threatening condition.
Treatment: Mild cases of valley fever usually resolve on their own. In more-severe cases, doctors treat the infection with antifungal medications.
Consider the following statements regarding the SAMRIDH scheme:
- It is a flagship programme of the Union Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeITY).
- It aims to support existing and upcoming accelerators to select and accelerate potential IT-based startups to scale.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Secretary of the Union Ministry of Electronics & IT launched the 2nd Cohort of Startup Accelerators of MeitY for Product Innovation, Development and Growth (SAMRIDH) scheme.
SAMRIDH is a flagship programme of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeITY) for startups acceleration under National Policy on Software Products – 2019.
It was launched in August 2021 and supports 300 software product startups with outlay of ₹99 crore over a period of 4 years.
It aims to support existing and upcoming Accelerators to select and accelerate potential IT-based startups to scale.
Among others, the program focuses on accelerating the startups by providing customer connect, investors connect and connect to international markets
Eligibility of Accelerator
Should be a registered Section-8/Society, [Not-for-Profit Company (eligible to hold equity)] having operations in India.’
The Accelerator and the team are recommended to have more than 3 years of startup experience and should have supported more than 50 start-ups of which at least 10 startups should have received investment from external Investors
The Accelerator should have an experience of running startup program cohorts with activities listed as desirable under SAMRIDH program.
It is being implemented through potential and established accelerators across India which provide services like making products market fit, business plan, investor connect and international expansion to startups plus matching funding upto ₹40 lakh by MeitY.
Implemented by: The scheme is being implemented by MeitY Start-up Hub (MSH), Digital India Corporation (DIC).
With reference to the National Test House, consider the following statements:
- It is a premier institution under the Union Ministry of Education.
- It is a multi-location multidisciplinary industrial central government’s testing laboratory.
- It provides drone certification in India.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
Two only
Explanation :
Recently, a Memorandum of Understanding was signed between National Test House (NTH), and the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) to promote energy efficiency across India.
It is a premier institution under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution.
It has been serving the nation since 1912.
It is India’s largest multi-location multidisciplinary industrial central government’s testing laboratory dealing with almost all sorts of testing, calibration and quality evaluation related to industry, commerce, trade etc. as per international and national standards.
It offers technical consultancy, testing, calibration, and quality evaluation across various sectors, adhering to both national and international standards.
It is the pioneering governmental entity in India for drone certification.
Its branches established at Kolkata, Mumbai, Chennai, Ghaziabad, Jaipur, Guwahati, and Varanasi.
Key facts about Bureau of Energy Efficiency
It was established in 2002 under the provisions of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001.
Objective: The primary objective of BEE is to reduce energy intensity in the Indian economy.
Function: It coordinates with designated consumers, designated agencies and other organizations; recognizes, identifies and utilizes the existing resources and infrastructure, in performing the functions assigned to it under the Energy Conservation Act.
The EC Act provides for regulatory and promotional functions which are assigned to the organisation.
Regulatory functions:
Develop minimum energy performance standards for equipment and appliances under Standards and Labelling.
Develop minimum energy performance standards for Commercial Buildings
Develop Energy Consumption Norms for Designated Consumers
Nodal Ministry: Union Ministry of Power
Consider the following statements regarding the Centralized Pension Payment System:
- It allows a national-level centralized system allowing pension payouts through any bank or branch in India.
- A person eligible to avail the benefit of this system should be a member of Employee Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister of Labour and Employment along with the Chairperson, Central Board of Trustees, EPF has approved the proposal for a Centralized Pension Payment System (CPPS) for Employees’ Pension Scheme, 1995.
It provides a national-level centralized system allowing pension payouts through any bank or branch in India.
This replaces the current decentralized pension disbursement system, where each EPFO Zonal/Regional Office maintains individual arrangements with just three to four banks.
Who is eligible for pension?
Individuals have to fulfill the following criteria to be eligible for availing benefits under the Employees’ Pension Scheme (EPS).
Should be a member of EPFO
Should have completed 10 years of service
Has reached the age of 58
They can also withdraw the EPS at a reduced rate from the age of 50 years, and can also defer the pension for two years (up to 60 years of age) after which they will get a pension at an additional rate of 4% for each year.
This facility will be launched as part of EPFO’s ongoing IT modernization project Centralized IT Enabled System (CITES 2.01) from 1st January 2025.
Benefits: The CPPS would also ensure disbursement of pension throughout India without any need for transfer of Pension Payment Orders (PPO) from one office to another even when the Pensioner moves from one location to another or changes his bank or branch.
It is estimated to benefit more than 78 lakh EPFO EPS pensioners, and will particularly benefit retirees who relocate to their hometown after retirement.
Carrhotus piperus, recently in news is a species of:
Spider
Explanation :
Recently, a new species of spider Carrhotus piperus, has been identified in the lower Palani Hills of Tamil Nadu.
It is a new jumping spider species which was found on pepper (Piper nigrum) plants, about two metres above the ground.
The specific epithet, ‘piperus’, is derived from the plant’s generic name, reflecting the spider’s distinctive habitat.
This discovery again highlights the region’s rich biodiversity and brings the number of known Carrhotus species in India to 10, and to 37 globally.
Feature: The spider is distinguishable from its closely-related species by its unique prolateral protrusion and beak-shaped embolus, setting it apart from other members of its genus.
Key facts about Palani Hills
It is an eastward extension of the Western Ghats, in southwestern Tamil Nadu state, southern India.
The range is a continuation of the Anaimalai Hills in Kerala state. In the south the hills terminate abruptly in steep slopes.
Consider the following statements regarding Forum on China-Africa Cooperation:
- It conducts a summit every three years, with the host alternating between China and an African member.
- All African nations are members of this forum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
China is hosting the ninth Forum on China-Africa Cooperation (FOCAC) Summit, a diplomatic event aimed at strengthening ties with African nations.
It was established in 2000 to formalise the strategic partnership between China and African nations.
A summit is conducted every three years, with the host alternating between China and an African member.
Member countries: The FOCAC counts 53 African nations as its members – the entire continent except Eswatini, which has diplomatic ties with Taiwan against Beijing’s “One China” Policy.
The African Union Commission, the continental bloc tasked with ensuring cooperation and economic integration across its member countries, is also a member.
The theme this year is “Joining Hands to Advance Modernization and Build a High-Level China-Africa Community with a Shared Future.”
The current summit is expected to address state governance, industrialisation, agricultural upgradation, and improved cooperation over China’s infrastructure financing via the Belt and Road Initiative (BRI).
BPaLM Regimen, recently seen in the news, is related to which one of the following?
Multi-drug-resistant tuberculosis
Explanation :
The Union Health Ministry recently introduced the BPaLM regimen to treat Multidrug-Resistant Tuberculosis under the National TB Elimination Program.
About BPaLM Regimen:
It is a new treatment regimen against multi-drug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB).
It was introduced by the Union Health Ministry under its National TB Elimination Program (NTEP).
Composition: The regimen combines four drugs—Bedaquiline, Pretomanid, Linezolid, and optionally Moxifloxacin.
This regimen includes a new anti-TB drug called Pretomanid, which was earlier approved and licensed for use in India by the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO).
Efficacy:
The BPaLM regimen is a safer and more effective treatment option compared to traditional MDR-TB treatments.
It is an all-oral regimen with a low overall pill burden, which makes it patient-friendly.
It can cure drug-resistant TB in just six months, compared to the previous treatment duration of up to 20 months, and is associated with fewer side effects.
Consider the following statements:
- Approving the tiger conservation plan prepared by the State Government.
- Making rules and guidelines for tourism activity for Project Tiger in the tiger reserves.
- Providing information to the public on the conservation plans and estimation of population of tigers.
How many of the above are the functions of the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA)?
All three
Explanation :
Conservationist organisations across India have demanded withdrawal of ‘illegal’ relocation of villagers from tiger reserves which is ordered by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).
About National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA):
It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change (MoEFCC) constituted for strengthening tiger conservation.
NCTA was created in 2005 following the recommendation of the tiger task force and was given the status of statutory authority under Section 38L of the Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2006.
Objectives:
Providing statutory authority to Project Tiger so that compliance of its directives becomes legal.
Fostering accountability of the Center-State in the management of Tiger Reserves by providing a basis for MoUs with States within the federal structure.
Providing for an oversight by Parliament.
Addressing livelihood interests of local people in areas surrounding Tiger Reserves.
NTCA Composition:
Minister in charge of MoEFCC (as Chairperson),
Minister of State in MoEFCC (as Vice-Chairperson),
three members of Parliament, the Secretary (MoEFCC), and other members.
Powers and Functions:
Approving the tiger conservation plan prepared by the State Government.
Maintaining sustainable ecology and disallow any such use of land within the tiger reserves which is detrimental to the ecology.
Making rules and guidelines for tourism activity for Project Tiger in the tiger reserves and also ensuring their due compliances.
Measures for addressing conflicts between men and animals and emphasis on co-existence between the two outside the national parks, tiger reserves, or sanctuaries.
Providing information to the public on the conservation plans, estimation of population of tigers, the status of natural habitat, and reporting on any untoward incident. TCA releases the status of tigers in India.
Approving coordinates research and monitoring of tigers.
Facilitating and supporting tiger reserve management in the State.
Ensuring critical support in scientific, IT, and legal support for better conservation of tigers.
Facilitating capacity-building programmes for the officers and staff.
Consider the following statements regarding Technical Textiles:
- They are used primarily for their aesthetic or decorative characteristics.
- They are manufactured using natural as well as man-made fibres.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Annual exports of technical textiles will cross $10 billion by 2030, Union Minister for Textiles said recently.
About Technical Textiles:
Technical textiles are defined as textile materials and products used primarily for their technical performance and functional properties rather than their aesthetic or decorative characteristics.
Other terms used for defining technical textiles include industrial textiles, functional textiles, performance textiles, engineering textiles, invisible textiles, and hi-tech textiles.
They are designed to have high levels of physical, mechanical, thermal, and/or chemical properties for use in specific applications within industrial sectors such as earthworks, construction, civil engineering, transport, defense, medical, and healthcare.
They are used individually or as a component/part of another product.
Technical textiles are used individually to satisfy specific functions, such as fire-retardant fabric for uniforms of firemen and coated fabric to be used as awnings.
As a component or part of another product, they are used to enhance the strength, performance, or other functional properties of that product.
They are manufactured using natural as well as man-made fibres.
They are classified into 12 major groups based on their application areas, namely: Agrotech, Geotech, Buildtech, Mobiltech, Hometech, Clothtech, Indutech, Meditech, Sportstech, Protech, Packtech, and Oekotech.
With reference to the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT), consider the following statements:
- It is a quasi-judicial body constituted under the Companies Act, 2013, for hearing appeals against the orders of the National Company Law Tribunals.
- It is required to dispose of the appeal within a period of six months from the date of receipt of the appeal.
- Its decisions are final and cannot be appealed before any court of law.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) temporarily halted the recent acquisition of power generating company Coastal Energen by a consortium led by Adani Power.
About National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT):
It is a quasi-judicial body constituted under Section 410 of the Companies Act, 2013 for hearing appeals against the orders of the National Company Law Tribunal(s) (NCLT), with effect from 1st June 2016.
It aims to expedite the resolution of corporate disputes and promote transparency and efficiency in the corporate governance and insolvency processes in India.
Functions:
Hear appeals against the orders passed by the NCLT(s) under Section 61 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC).
Hear appeals against the orders passed by Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) under Sections 202 and 211 of the IBC.
To hear and dispose of appeals against any direction issued, or decision made, or order passed by the Competition Commission of India (CCI).
It is also the Appellate Tribunal to hear and dispose of appeals against the orders of the National Financial Reporting Authority.
It also enjoys advisory jurisdiction when a legal issue has been referred to it by the President of India for opinions and advice.
HQ: New Delhi.
Composition:
It is composed of a chairperson and judicial and technical members.
These members are appointed by the Central Government based on their expertise and experience in relevant fields such as law, finance, accountancy, management, and administration.
Disposing of cases:
On the receipt of an appeal from an aggrieved person, the NCLAT would pass such orders, after giving an opportunity of being heard, as it considers fit, confirming, changing, or setting aside the order that is appealed against.
The Appellate Tribunal is required to dispose of the appeal within a period of six months from the date of the receipt of the appeal.
Its decisions can be appealed to the Supreme Court.
Powers:
It has the authority to regulate its own procedures and has powers similar to those vested in a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
These powers include summoning and examining witnesses, requiring the production of documents, receiving evidence on affidavits, issuing commissions, and more.
Any order made by the NCLAT can be enforced in the same manner as a decree made by a court in a suit.
There shall be no jurisdiction of a civil court to hear any suit or proceeding to any matter which the NCLAT has been authorised to determine by or under the Companies Act, 2013, or any other law for the time being in force.
No injunction shall be granted by any Court or other authority in respect of any action that is taken or that ought to be taken by the NCLAT in pursuance of any power conferred on it by or under this Act or any other law for the time being in force.
Consider the following statements regarding Financialisation, recently seen in the news:
- It refers to the increase in size and importance of a country’s financial sector relative to its overall economy.
- It has occurred as countries shift towards industrial capitalism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Chief Economic Adviser (CEA) recently cautioned that financialisation might distort India’s macroeconomic outcomes.
About Financialisation:
It refers to the increase in size and importance of a country’s financial sector relative to its overall economy.
It is a process whereby financial markets, financial institutions, and financial elites gain greater influence over economic policy and economic outcomes.
It represents the shift from traditional industrial or productive activities (like manufacturing) to financial activities that involve the trading, management, and speculation of financial assets.
The term also describes the increasing diversity of transactions and market players as well as their intersection with all parts of the economy and society.
It has occurred as countries shifted away from industrial capitalism.
It impacts both the macroeconomy and the microeconomy by changing how financial markets are structured and operated, and by influencing corporate behavior and economic policy.
Financialisation has also caused incomes to increase more in the financial sector than in other sectors of the economy.
Consider the following statements regarding the Enemy Property in India:
- These properties are of those left behind by the people who took citizenship of Pakistan and China.
- These properties are maximum in number in the state of Uttar Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A parcel of land in Uttar Pradesh, previously belonging to the family of former Pakistan President Pervez Musharraf, is set to be auctioned under The Enemy Property Act.
The Enemy Property Act 1968 defined an ‘enemy’ as a country (and its citizens) that committed external aggression against India (i.e., Pakistan and China).
Enemy property means any property for the time being belonging to or held or managed on behalf of an enemy, an enemy subject or an enemy firm.
These properties are of those left behind by the people who took citizenship of Pakistan and China after leaving India during the partition and after 1962 war.
In 2017, Parliament passed The Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Bill, 2016, which amended the 1968 Act and The Public Premises (Eviction of Unauthorised Occupants) Act, 1971.
It expanded the definition of the terms “enemy subject”, and “enemy firm” to include the legal heir and successor of an enemy, whether a citizen of India or a citizen of a country which is not an enemy; and the succeeding firm of an enemy firm, irrespective of the nationality of its members or partners.
The amended law provided that enemy property shall continue to vest in the Custodian even if the enemy or enemy subject or enemy firm ceases to be an enemy due to death, extinction, winding up of business or change of nationality, or that the legal heir or successor is a citizen of India or a citizen of a country which is not an enemy.
Maximum number of enemy properties is in Uttar Pradesh - 4,991. Bengal has 2,735, and Delhi has 487.
With reference to the Water Spinach, consider the following statements:
- It is a semi-aquatic perennial plant.
- It is only found in the Western Ghats region.
- It contains vitamin E and medium-to-high levels of ascorbic acid.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
According to Taiwan-based research organisation World Vegetable Centre, folic acid is only one of the many nutrients present in the water spinach vegetable.
It is native to tropics and subtropics, this semi-aquatic perennial plant is believed to have been the first domesticated in Southeast Asia.
In Southeast Asian nations like Malaysia, China, Hong Kong, Singapore and Indonesia, the plant is mostly grown commercially, while in the United States and India, it grows in the wild as weed.
In India, it grows along the paddy fields, ponds and rivers, and is available around the monsoon season in July and August.
Other names: It is known as kalmi saag in West Bengal, naari ka saag in Uttar Pradesh, nalichi-bhaji in Marathi and sarkaraivalli in Tamil.
The plant is relatively easy to grow because it requires little care and flourishes naturally in waterways.
It grows very quickly under optimal conditions, though it has to be ensured that the water used is not saline or stagnant.
Researchers in India, Pakistan and the US, find water spinach effective against lead poisoning.
Health benefit:
The plant also has medium levels of beta carotene, calcium, vitamin E and iron; and medium-to-high levels of ascorbic acid.
The substantial quantities of phyto-antioxidants in the leaves may mediate its beneficial function against doxorubicin.
Consider the following statements regarding the VisioNxt Initiative:
- It focuses on delivering trend insights and forecasting for the Indian fashion and retail market.
- It is supported by the Union Ministry of Textiles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the union Minister of Textiles launched the ‘VisioNxt Fashion Forecasting Initiative’ of National Institute of Fashion Technology (NIFT).
It is India’s first ever trend insights and forecasting Initiative.
It was conceived and established at NIFT Delhi (Creative Lab) and NIFT Chennai (Insights Lab) with the support of the Ministry of Textiles, Government of India, in 2018.
The initiative, now centralized in Chennai, focuses on delivering trend insights and forecasting for the Indian fashion and retail market.
It also offers various trend related consultancy services, academic courses, workshops etc.
Its mission is to identify, map, and analyse geo-specific trends, reflecting the positive plurality, cultural diversity, and socio-economic nuances of India while collating comprehensive trends and insights.
It combines AI and EI to generate fashion trend insights and forecasts.
Significance
India’s entry into the forecasting space offers multiple advantages: it reduces dependence on global forecasting agencies, provides unique insights into Indian fashion consumers, integrates India’s strength in information technology with textiles, and combines artificial and human intelligence.
To support weavers, manufacturers, retailers, domestic businesses, homegrown designers, and fashion brands, this report is available in Hindi and English through the VisioNxt portal.
The initiative empowers users to design, produce, and launch consumer-focused, targeted collections for this diverse nation ‘Paridhi’ will mark the launch of the first inclusive fashion trend forecast by VisioNxt, along with a web portal to disseminate India-specific fashion trends.
VisioNxt has achieved this through the development of a unique prediction model known as “DeepVision,” designed to decode patterns and interpret fashion trends in India.
Consider the following statements regarding Agni-4 Ballistic Missile:
- It can carry a payload of 5,000 kg and can be fired from a road-mobile launcher.
- It is a surface-to-surface and two-stage solid-fuel missile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, India has completed a successful test-fire of Agni-4 Ballistic Missile.
It is an intermediate-range ballistic missile.
The launch of this Agni-4 was carried out from the Integrated Test Range in Odisha’s Chandipur.
The launch successfully validated all operational and technical parameters.
It was conducted under the aegis of the Strategic Forces Command, a part of India’s Nuclear Command Authority (NCA).
Features:
It can hit as far as 4,000 kilometres.
The 20-metre-long missile can carry a payload of 1,000 kg and can be fired from a road-mobile launcher.
It is a surface-to-surface missile.
It is a mobile, two-stage solid-fuel system.
The Agni missiles are designed and developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Key facts about Strategic Forces Command
It sometimes called Strategic Nuclear Command, forms part of India’s Nuclear Command Authority (NCA), which is responsible for command-and-control decisions regarding India’s nuclear weapons programme.
SFC is responsible for the management and administration of the country’s tactical and strategic nuclear weapons stockpile.
It was created on January 4, 2003.
Consider the following statements regarding the Eturnagaram wildlife sanctuary:
- It is located near the border of Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh and Telangana.
- The River Krishna passes through this sanctuary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, as per the ‘sample plot analysis’, it has been surmised that approximately 50,000 trees were uprooted in 200 hectares of deep forest area along 2 km to 3 km length in Eturnagaram wildlife sanctuary.
It was declared as a wildlife sanctuary in 1953.
Location: The sanctuary is located near the border of Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh and Telangana.
Rivers: The perennial river Dayyam Vagu flows through this beautiful sanctuary. This Vagu separates the wildlife sanctuary into two parts.
The sanctuary is also famous for the Sammakkka Sarakka Jathra, one of Asia’s largest tribal jahtra, taking place here every two years.
The River Godavari also passes through the sanctuary.
Vegetation: The region falls in the tropical dry deciduous type of vegetation.
Flora: The sanctuary is thus rich in the growth of teak, bamboo and other trees like madhuca and terminalia. Climbers are the unique features which are found in abundance across the length and breadth of this Sanctuary.
Fauna:
It is home to keystone species in the sanctuary are Indian gour and giant squirrel.
It provides the dwelling ground for Tiger, Leopard, Jackals Sloth Bear, Panther, Wolf, Wild Dogs,Chousingha, Sambar
Which states have a significant population of the Sahariya tribe?
Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Chhattisgarh
Explanation :
At least 172 cases of malnourished children have been identified among Sahariya tribes in Baran district, Rajasthan, within two weeks, officials said recently.
About Sahariya Tribe:
The Sahariya tribe is a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) spread across the states of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Chhattisgarh.
Sahariya, also known as Seher, Sair, Sawar, Saor, Sahara, etc.
Traditionally, they trace back their beginnings to the days of the Ramayana and even beyond.
They are among the most disadvantaged and vulnerable population groups in the country.
Residing in communities with non-Sahariya members, the Sahariyas mostly live in a separate area in the village, which is called ‘Seharana’. It is generally a cluster of houses.
The houses are made of some stone boulders, and the roofing is also made of stone slabs - locally called Patore. In some villages, mud structures are also constructed.
In villages, ties to the caste system are very strong, and people belonging to the same caste live in close proximity.
Religion: They practice Hinduism as their religion.
Language: They speak a dialect influenced by Hindi and Brij Bhasha.
They are known for their dance, the Saharia Swang, which is performed during the month of Holi.
The dance is performed to the beats of the dhol, nagari, and matki.
It features a male dressed in female attire who dances around the male performers.
Economy:
Members of the Sahariya tribe are mostly dependent on forest products, agriculture, and daily wage labor to sustain their lives.
They are particularly skilled in making catechu from khair trees.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Council of Europe (CoE):
- It is a policy-making body of the European Union (EU).
- It can impose any rule on its member states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The Council of Europe recently announced that the US, Israel, the UK, and the EU, among others, have signed the International AI treaty it adopted last year.
About Council of Europe (CoE):
It is an international organization of European countries that seeks to protect democracy and human rights and to promote European unity by fostering cooperation on legal, cultural, and social issues.
It is Europe’s oldest and largest intergovernmental organisation.
Founded in 1949, it includes 47 member states, 27 of which are members of the European Union (EU).
It is headquartered in Strasbourg, France.
Its working languages are English and French.
CoE should not be confused with the European Council, which is a policy-making body of the EU.
The CoE addresses issues of common concern to its members, including human rights, crime prevention, drug abuse, environmental protection, bioethical issues, and migration.
To manage these affairs, the council has devised more than 160 international agreements, treaties, and conventions that have replaced literally tens of thousands of bilateral treaties between various European states.
Among the most important of its agreements are the European Convention on Human Rights (1950), the European Cultural Convention (1954), the European Social Charter (1961), the European Convention on the Prevention of Torture and Inhuman or Degrading Treatment and Punishment (1987), the Framework Convention for the Protection of National Minorities (1995), and the Convention on Human Rights and Biomedicine (1997).
It is composed of four principal bodies: the Committee of Ministers (decision-making body), the Parliamentary Assembly, the Congress of Local and Regional Authorities of Europe, and the Secretariat.
How is the CoE different from the European Union?
CoE is not a supranational institution like the European Community.
It does not have legislative power.
Its member states are cooperating on a voluntary basis.
The CoE cannot impose any rule on its member states.
Unlike the EU, the CoE is not an economic organization.
Barakah Nuclear Energy Plant, recently seen in the news, is located in which country?
United Arab Emirates
Explanation :
The United Arab Emirates has successfully completed the Arab world’s first nuclear power plant, the Barakah Nuclear Energy Plant.
About Barakah Nuclear Energy Plant:
It is situated in Al Dhafra, within the Emirate of Abu Dhabi, UAE, on the Arabian Gulf, about 53 km west-southwest of the city of Ruwais.
It is the first nuclear energy plant in the Arab World.
Construction of the plant commenced in July 2012. It started operations in 2020 when the first of its four reactors went into service.
The plant consists of four nuclear reactors, which once fully operational will prevent the release of up to 21 million tonnes of carbon emissions every year.
It will produce 40 terawatt-hours (TWh) of electricity annually.
It is expected to provide up to 25% of the electricity needs of the UAE, nearly the equivalent of New Zealand’s annual consumption.
The station will power companies, including the Abu Dhabi National Oil Company (ADNOC), one of the world’s biggest oil producers, Emirates Steel, and Emirates Global Aluminium.
Which among the following best describes ‘Globba tyrnaensis and Globba janakiae’, recently seen in the news?
New species of plants from the ginger family found in Northeast India.
Explanation :
Two new ginger species named Globba tyrnaensis and Globba janakiae have been discovered in the Double Decker Living Root Bridge area of Meghalaya.
About Globba tyrnaensis and Globba janakiae:
These delicate plants, often referred to as “dancing girls”, named for the way their flower structures appear to move in the wind, belong to the genus Globba, a group of ornamental plants in the ginger family (Zingiberaceae).
Globba species are native to tropical regions such as Southeast Asia, India, and the Eastern Himalayas, and are known for their intricate, colorful flowers.
The first species, Globba tyrnaensis, was found in the famed Double Decker Living Root Bridge area of Tyrna village, located in the East Khasi Hills district, Meghalaya, at an elevation of 731 meters.
A smaller population was also identified near Thangkharang Park in Cherrapunji.
It is distinguished by its short inflorescence, orange flowers, and large anthers.
It also produces bulbils that aid in propagation.
It thrives in the moist, shaded forest understory.
Its flowers attract bees, contributing to the local ecosystem.
The species has been informally classified as endangered, according to International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) guidelines.
Globba janakiae was also discovered in the Tyrna village area, though it has an even smaller population, with fewer than 10 mature individuals recorded.
It stands out due to its shorter inflorescence and the absence of inflorescence bracts.
Its flowers are orange, and the species has distinctive heart-shaped labellum structures with small horn-like appendages.
Named in honor of EK Janaki Ammal, a pioneering Indian botanist known for her advocacy of native plants and opposition to deforestation, Globba janakiae has been assessed as critically endangered.
Consider the following statements regarding the INDIAsize Initiative, recently seen in the news:
- It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Textiles.
- It aims to develop eco-friendly textiles for sustainable fashion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The government will soon roll out the much-awaited ‘INDIAsize’ initiative, the Union Textiles Minister said recently.
About INDIAsize Initiative:
It is an initiative of the Ministry of Textiles which aims to establish standardized measurements designed to better suit Indian body types.
Need:
Presently, international and domestic brands available in India use measurements from the US or the UK for garments, having ‘small’, ‘medium’ and ‘large’ sizes.
However, Western body types differ from Indians in terms of height, weight, or specific measurements of body parts.
It fails to account for the diversity in Indian body types, leading to frequent fitting issues and consumer dissatisfaction.
The Ministry of Textiles sanctioned the INDIAsize project to develop standard body sizes for the Indian apparel sector to address the prevailing disparities and inconsistencies in provided fits.
The project entails gathering anthropometric data pan India from more than 25000 (Twenty-Five Thousand) male and female persons between the age group of 15 years and 65 years using human safe 3D whole body scanning technology.
The created body size chart will help national and international retailers and manufacturers to produce goods which are best suited for Indian body types and create a balance between demand and supply of well fitted garments.
Once rolled out, INDIAsize will serve as a benchmark for Indian and international fashion brands selling in the country.
Galathea Bay, recently in news is located in:
Great Nicobar Island
Explanation :
Recently, the central government of India has designated the international trans-shipment hub at Galathea Bay in the Andaman & Nicobar Islands as a ‘Major Port’.
Location: It is located in the Great Nicobar Island of Andaman and Nicobar Islands of India.
It is being developed as an International Container Transshipment Port (ICTP).
It is also eligible for central funding and will be developed under the public-private partnership model.
The proposed facility is envisaged to be developed in four phases with Phase 1 is proposed to be commissioned in the year 2028 with handling capacity of ~ 4 Million TEUs, increasing to 16 Million TEUs in the ultimate stage of development by 2058.
Once operational, the Galathea Bay project will help capture a large share of transshipped cargo which is handled at ports outside India.
Significance of this project
The project focuses on three key drivers, which can result in making it a leading container transshipment port, i.e.
Strategic location in terms of proximity (40 nautical miles) with the International shipping trade route.
Availability of natural water depth of over 20m and carrying capacity of transshipment cargo from all the Ports in the proximity including Indian Ports.
Ports in India
India currently has 12 operational Major Ports controlled by the central government and another 200 non-major ones governed by the states.
The Major Port Authorities Act, 2021 provides for regulation, operation and planning of Major Ports in India and vests the administration, control and management of such ports upon the Boards of Major Port Authorities.
With reference to the Helium, consider the following statements:
- It is an inert gas and does not react with other substances.
- It is the lightest element.
- It has a very low boiling point and remains a gas even in super-cold environments.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, two NASA astronauts aboard Boeing’s Starliner will stay on the International Space Station for months because of a faulty propulsion system whose problems included helium leaks.
It is an inert gas and does not react with other substances or combust.
Its atomic number is 2, making it the second lightest element after hydrogen.
It also has a very low boiling point (-268.9° C), allowing it to remain a gas even in super-cold environments.
The gas is non-toxic, but cannot be breathed on its own, because it displaces the oxygen humans need for respiration.
How is it used in Rockets?
Helium is used to pressurize fuel tanks, ensuring fuel flows to the rocket’s engines without interruption; and for cooling systems.
As fuel and oxidiser are burned in the rocket’s engines, helium fills the resulting empty space in the tanks, maintaining the overall pressure inside.
Because it is non-reactive, it can safely mingle with the tanks’ residual contents.
Is it prone to leaks?
Helium’s small atomic size and low molecular weight mean its atoms can escape through small gaps or seals in storage tanks and fuel systems.
But because there is very little helium in the Earth’s atmosphere, leaks can be easily detected - making the gas important for spotting potential faults in a rocket or spacecraft’s fuel systems.
Consider the following statements regarding Madeira River:
- It is a major tributary of the Amazon River.
- It forms the border between Bolivia and Brazil.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Residents near the Madeira River in the Amazon are facing unprecedented challenges as water levels drop to historic lows amid a severe drought.
It is a major tributary of the Amazon River.
It is formed by the junction of the Mamoré and Beni rivers at Villa Bella, Bolivia, and flows northward.
It forms the border between Bolivia and Brazil for approximately 60 miles (100 km).
The Madeira River is part of the larger Madeira Basin, which encompasses approximately 1,300,000 square kilometers (502,000 square miles) and covers about 19% of the entire Amazon Basin.
The basin extends across Bolivia, Brazil, and Peru, with roughly 50% of its area in Bolivia, 40% in Brazil, and 10% in Peru.
Significance of the river
The Madeira River is a significant waterway in South America, playing a crucial role in the hydrology of the Amazon Basin.
As the largest tributary of the Amazon River, it is a vital component of the region’s ecosystem, spanning Bolivia and Brazil and supporting diverse flora and fauna.
Consider the following statements regarding the Goods Trade Barometer:
- It is developed by the World Trade Organization.
- It provides real-time information on trends in world trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Indian merchandise exports could likely improve in the second half of the year, as the World Trade Organization (WTO) Goods Trade Barometer indicated an upturn in global trade volume.
It was formerly known as the World Trade Outlook Indicator.
It is developed by the World Trade Organization and provides “real-time” information on trends in world trade.
It is a leading indicator that signals changes in world trade growth two to three months ahead of merchandise trade volume statistics.
It combines a variety of trade-related component indices into a single composite index that highlights turning points in world merchandise trade and provides an indication of its likely trajectory in the near future.
A reading of 100 indicates trade expansion in line with recent trends. Readings greater than 100 suggest above-trend growth while readings below 100 indicate below-trend growth.
This Barometer is updated on a quarterly basis.
Current Trend
The current value of the WTO Goods Trade Barometer, an early indicator of the trajectory of merchandise trade volume, stands at 103—above both the quarterly trade volume index and the baseline value of 100.
This suggests that merchandise trade has been picking up in the third quarter of 2024.
Consider the following statements regarding the NIDHI Programme:
- It aims to nurture start-ups through scouting, supporting and scaling innovations.
- It is funded by the National Science & Technology Entrepreneurship Development Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister of Science and Technology virtually inaugurated 8 new NIDHI i-TBIs across India along with a new DST-NIDHI Website at IIT Delhi celebrating 8 years of Department of Science and Technology’s initiative (DST-NIDHI).
The National Initiative for Developing and Harnessing innovations (NIDHI) program was launched in 2016.
It is an umbrella programme conceived and developed by the Innovation & Entrepreneurship division, Department of Science & Technology.
Aim: To nurture start-ups through scouting, supporting and scaling innovations.
Key stakeholders: Various departments and ministries of the central government, state governments, academic and R & D institutions, mentors, financial institutions, angel investors, venture capitalists and private sectors.
Funding: It is funded by the National Science & Technology Entrepreneurship Development Board (NSTEDB).
Key Components of the Program
The NIDHI- PRAYAS (Promoting and Accelerating Young and Aspiring Innovators and Startups) program at Proof-of-Concept level provides mentoring and financial support to innovator for converting their ideas into prototypes.
NIDHI Entrepreneurs-In-Residence (EIR) Program provides fellowships to the students opting for entrepreneurship.
The NIDHI Seed Support Program provisions availability of early-stage seed support funding to startups and the NIDHI Accelerator program speeds up the investment readiness of the startups.
The NIDHI program has been helpful in creating state-of-the-art infrastructure for incubating startups in technology sectors through Technology Business Incubators (TBIs) and Centres of Excellence (CoE).
NIDHI Accelerator: An accelerator is typically a 3-6 months fast track structured program helping ideas get accelerated to the next orbit.
What are i-Technology Business Incubators (i-TBIs)?
i-TBIs (Inclusive TBI) is a three years duration initiative Supported by DST for educational institutions who are likely to foster innovation and entrepreneurship culture among the students, faculties, entrepreneurs, and nearby communities.
Poltava City, recently seen in the news, is located in which one of the following countries?
Ukraine
Explanation :
At least 51 people have been killed and 271 others injured in a Russian missile strike on the city of Poltava in central Ukraine.
About Poltava:
It is a city in east-central Ukraine.
It is located 300 kilometres (189 miles) east of Kyiv, the capital of Ukraine.
It lies along the Vorskla River.
History:
Archaeological evidence dates the city from the 8th to the 9th century, although the first documentary reference is from 1174, when it was variously known as Oltava or Ltava.
Destroyed by the Tatars in the early 13th century, it was the centre of a Cossack regiment by the 17th century.
Battle of Poltava: In 1709, Peter I the Great inflicted a crushing defeat on Charles XII of Sweden outside Poltava after Charles had laid siege to the town for three months in the Great Northern War.
The battle ended Sweden’s status as a major power and marked the beginning of Russian supremacy in eastern Europe.
The modern city of Poltava is largely new, having been reconstructed after it suffered severe damage during World War II.
It is the focus of a fertile agricultural region and has a range of industries processing farm produce.
Yudh Abhyas is a joint military exercise between India and which one of the following countries?
United States of America
Explanation :
India-U.S. bilateral Army exercise Yudh Abhyas is set to commence at the Mahajan field firing ranges in Rajasthan.
About Yudh Abhyas:
It is a joint military exercise conducted annually between India and USA.
It has been ongoing since 2004.
It is designed to promote cooperation between the two militaries while sharing training, cultural exchanges, and building joint operating skills.
The previous edition of the exercise was conducted at Fort Wainwright, Alaska, USA.
Yudh Abhyas 2024:
It marks the 20th edition of the exercise.
Location: Mahajan Field Firing Range in Rajasthan
It is designed to enhance interoperability and strengthen the operational capabilities of both forces.
It will feature a range of advanced military tactics and coordinated manoeuvres aimed at improving the readiness of both armies in high-stakes scenarios.
It is going to feature one of the largest U.S. contingents at the exercise with around 600 personnel, and the U.S. Army is also set to deploy Stryker infantry vehicles and the M142 HIMARS (High Mobility Artillery Rocket System).
These advanced rocket systems, which have gained prominence for their use in Ukraine, can deliver precision strikes over extended ranges.
Consider the following statements regarding the Sugamya Bharat App, recently seen in the news:
- It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
- It aims to provide legal aid to persons with disabilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
About Sugamya Bharat App:
It is an initiative of the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD), Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Designed to aid people with disabilities and the elderly, the Sugamya Bharat app allows users to report accessibility problems in public infrastructure, transportation, and buildings.
Objectives:
Identification of issues/complaints from the public related to accessibility at public places (Need to capture location of the place through Google Maps).
Uploading geotagged pictures: To understand and identify which type of public place is having issues related to accessibility for disabled people.
Any person facing difficulty or issue related to accessibility in India can raise their concerns/grievances on the App.
Only accessibility related issues pertaining to Buildings, Transportation System and ICT (websites and TV viewing) can be registered at App.
Complaints are filed by uploading photos, which are then forwarded to relevant authorities.
To enhance the app’s features, the government plans to redesign it with AI capabilities.
The upgraded version will include an AI-powered chatbot and multilingual interface, improving its overall functionality.
A partnership has been established with the NGO Mission Accessibility and the research institute I-STEM to develop the AI-enabled app.
Consider the following statements regarding the Fath-360 Missile, recently seen in the news:
- It is a short-range cruise missile known for its precision and mobility.
- It was developed by Russia to carry out tactical strikes against various targets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The Wall Street Journal recently reported that Iran has delivered short-range ballistic missiles, including the Fath-360, to Russia.
About Fath-360 Missile:
The Fath-360, or Fateh-360, is an Iranian short-range ballistic missile (SRBM) known for its precision and mobility.
It is designed to carry out tactical strikes against various targets, including military installations and infrastructure.
Features:
Launch weight: 787 kilograms
It travels at speeds ranging from Mach 3 to 4.
It is equipped with a solid-fuel engine, which allows for rapid deployment and quick launch times, making it a highly effective weapon on the battlefield.
It has a range of approximately 120 to 300 kilometers.
It carries a 150-kilogram warhead.
It also boasts a relatively small and maneuverable design, making it more difficult for air defense systems to intercept.
The guidance system consists of a combination of inertial guidance system and satellite navigation to achieve an accuracy of 30 m.
The Fath-360 missile system utilizes a truck-mounted Transporter Erector Launcher (TEL) designed to carry and launch multiple missiles.
With reference to the Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY), consider the following statements:
- It is a small-deposit scheme tailored specifically for the girl child.
- NRIs are not eligible to open SSY accounts.
- Premature withdrawals are not allowed under the scheme.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The government recently made changes to the rules of the Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana, which are planned to come into force from the 1st of October 2024.
About Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana:
SSY is a savings scheme launched in 2015 under the Government of India’s ‘’ Beti Bachao Beti Padhao’’ campaign, which aimed to promote the education of girl children.
SSY is a small-deposit scheme tailored specifically for the girl child.
This scheme enables guardians to open a savings account for their girl child with an authorised commercial bank or India Post branch.
Eligibility:
The girl must be an Indian resident.
The account can be initiated by the parent or legal guardian of the girl child.
The girl child must be below the age of 10 at the time of opening the account.
Only one SSY account is allowed per girl child.
A family is limited to opening a maximum of two SSY scheme accounts.
NRIs are not eligible to open these accounts.
The girl must operate the account once she attains the age of 18 years.
Features:
The minimum and maximum deposits that can be made in an account in a financial year are Rs.250 and Rs.1.5 lakh, respectively. The deposits can be made in multiples of 100.
Deposits towards the scheme should be made for a period of 15 years. However, the scheme matures after 21 years.
No interest will be payable once the account completes twenty-one years from the date of opening.
Partial Withdrawal:
Withdrawal up to a maximum of 50% of the amount in the account at the end of the financial year preceding the year of application for withdrawal shall be allowed for the purpose of education of the account holder.
Such withdrawal shall be allowed only after the account holder has attained the age of 18 years or has passed the 10th standard, whichever is earlier.
Tax benefits: To encourage investments in SSY, the scheme offers the following tax benefits:
Section 80C Deductions: Investments made in the SSY scheme can be deducted under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act up to a maximum cap of Rs. 1.5 lakh.
Tax-Exempt Interest: The interest that accrues on the Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana account, compounded annually, is exempt from tax under Section 10 of the Income Tax Act.
Tax-Free Proceeds: The proceeds received upon maturity or withdrawal from the SSY account is also exempt from income tax.
New Rules:
Guardian Changes: In case of accounts opened under the guardianship of grandparents (who are other than legal guardians), the guardianship shall be transferred to a person entitled under the law in force, that is, to the natural guardian (alive parents) or Legal Guardian. If it is not done, the account will be closed, and this will be a permanent closure.
Irregular Accounts: Families with more than two SSY accounts will face closures of excess accounts, deemed to be in violation of scheme rules.
Curcuma ungmensis, recently in the news is a:
rhizomatous herb whose genera is best known for being turmeric
Explanation :
Researchers have identified a new ‘cousin’ of the turmeric, thanks to a serendipitous discovery during a field trip in Nagaland.
Curcuma ungmensis belongs to the genus Curcuma (the ginger family Zingiberaceae).
It has been given the name Curcuma ungmensis after Ungma, the village in Mokokchung district where it was found.
Botanically it is a rhizomatous herb. The rhizome (subterranean stem) part is branched and found deeply buried in the soil. The species could be ideal for gardens.
It can be introduced in gardens as an ornamental plant for ground cover after proper domestication.
Flowering occurs during the rainy season from August to October. The flowers open in the morning and last a single day.
Threats: It faces “severe threat” from a variety of sources, including road development, building construction and natural calamities.
The family Zingiberaceae has 21 genera and about 200 taxa in India.
Curcuma is one of the most important and largest genera of this plant family, the best known being turmeric (Curcuma longa), black turmeric (Curcumacaesia) and mango ginger (Curcuma amada).
Curcuma is widely distributed in south and southeast Asia and south China. A few species are also found in northern Australia and the south Pacific.
In India, the genus is represented by about 40 species, found mainly in northeast and southern States and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
With reference to ‘Teal Carbon’, consider the following statements:
- It is a carbon stored in non-tidal freshwater wetlands.
- It is mainly found in Peatlands and freshwater swamps.
- It is classified based on its property rather than on its function.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
India’s first study on ‘teal carbon’, undertaken at Keoladeo National Park (KNP) in Rajasthan’s Bharatpur district, has highlighted the significance of wetland conservation to address the challenges of climate adaptation and resilience.
About Teal Carbon:
It refers to carbon stored in non-tidal freshwater wetlands, encompassing carbon sequestered in vegetation, microbial biomass, and dissolved and particulate organic matter.
These ecosystems are considered to be more effective at carbon capture and storage than terrestrial forest ecosystems, and can store and sequester more carbon than any other type of terrestrial ecosystem.
The concept of teal carbon is a recent addition to the environmental science pertaining to organic carbon in inland fresh wetlands.
It is a colour-based terminology that reflects the classification of the organic carbon based on its functions and location rather than its physical properties.
At the global level, the storage of teal carbon across the ecosystems is estimated to be 500.21 petagrams of carbon (PgC), which is a unit to measure carbon.
Major sources of Teal carbon: Peatlands, freshwater swamps, and natural freshwater marshes account for a significant amount of this storage.
Threats: Though these wetlands play a crucial role in regulating greenhouse gases, they are vulnerable to degradation from pollution, land use changes, water extraction, and landscape modifications.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the BepiColombo Spacecraft:
- It is a joint European Space Agency (ESA) and Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) mission.
- It aims to study planet Mercury’s magnetic field and magnetosphere to gain insights into its internal structure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the BepiColombo spacecraft gave scientists their first clear view of Mercury’s south pole.
About BepiColombo spacecraft:
It is a joint European Space Agency (ESA) and Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) mission to Mercury.
The mission was named after Giuseppe “Bepi” Colombo, an Italian mathematician and engineer who made significant contributions to the understanding of Mercury’s orbit.
It was launched on October 20, 2018 and it is an ambitious and complex mission designed to study Mercury’s surface, composition, magnetic field, and its interaction with the solar environment.
The BepiColombo spacecraft consists of two main components:
Mercury Planetary Orbiter (MPO): The MPO is primarily provided by ESA and is responsible for mapping and studying Mercury’s surface, as well as its composition and topography.
Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter (MMO): The MMO is provided by JAXA and focuses on studying Mercury’s magnetic field and magnetosphere.
Objectives:
Investigating Mercury’s surface and composition to better understand its geological history and formation processes.
Studying Mercury’s magnetic field and magnetosphere to gain insights into its internal structure and how it interacts with the solar wind.
Measuring Mercury’s exosphere (a thin atmosphere) and understanding its composition and dynamics.
Conducting experiments to test certain principles of general relativity and improve our understanding of gravity.
Hence both statements are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan award:
- It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
- It was launched with an aim of implementing City Action Plans prepared as part of National Clean Air Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the union Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change presented the Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan award 2024 on the occasion of International Day of Clean Air for Blue Skies.
About Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan Award:
It is an initiative by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) to rank cities on the basis of implementation of activities approved under the city action plan and air quality in 130 NCAP cities.
In September 2022, the MoEF&CC released guidelines on ‘Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan- Ranking of Cities’ under the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP).
The aim of launching Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan is to give ranking to 130 cities in the country for implementing City Action Plans prepared as part of NCAP for reducing air pollution up to 40% by 2025-26.
Objectives:
To create awareness among all sections of the society
Inform citizens about the health impacts related due to exposure
Comparing air quality conditions at different locations/cities
To achieve the goal of NCAP “Clean air for all”.
All 130 cities covered under NCAP are assessed based on information submitted under ranking framework by cities/ULBs on PRANA portal (dashboard to capture progress under NCAP programme).
Swachh Vayu Survekshan Awards 2024 were presented to the best performing NCAP cities under:
Category-1 (population over 10 Lakhs) to Surat, Jabalpur, and Agra;
Category-2 (population between 3 and 10 Lakhs) to Firozabad, Amravati, and Jhansi; and
Category-3 (population under 3 Lakhs) to Raebareli, Nalgonda, and Nalagarh.
Consider the following statements regarding the Kawasaki disease:
- It is a rare disease that affects mainly adults across the world.
- It causes the immune system to attack blood vessels, which become inflamed and swollen.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, a Bengaluru based doctor revealed that they saw a surge in Kawasaki disease among children after the devastating second wave of COVID-19.
About Kawasaki disease:
It is also known as Kawasaki syndrome or mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome.
It is a rare disease that causes fever and inflammation of the blood vessels, mainly in children under 5 years of age.
It is one of the most common forms of acquired heart disease in children.
The condition causes the immune system to attack blood vessels, which become inflamed and swollen.
It tends to affect the coronary arteries, which carry blood to the heart muscle. It can also cause problems with lymph nodes, skin, and the lining of a child’s mouth, nose, and throat.
Symptoms: Clinical signs include fever, rash, swelling of the hands and feet, irritation and redness of the whites of the eyes, swollen lymph glands in the neck, and irritation and inflammation of the mouth, lips, and throat.
The disease was first described in Japan by Tomisaku Kawasaki in 1967, and the first cases outside of Japan were reported in Hawaii in 1976.
The cause of Kawasaki disease is unknown, although more cases happen in late winter and early spring.
Pahadi Korwa Tribe primarily resides in which one of the following states?
Chhattisgarh
Explanation :
As many as 54 settlements of the Pahadi Korwa community will be connected through roads in north Chhattisgarh under the Prime Minister JANMAN scheme, a government official said recently.
About Pahadi Korwa Tribe:
It is a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) of Chhattisgarh.
They belong to the Chhota Nagpur area of Central India.
They are primarily found in Korba and Jashpur districts of Chhattisgarh.
A small population lives in Jharkhand and Uttar Pradesh.
Language:
The mother tongue of the Korwa people is the Korwa language. Alternative names for this language include Ernga and Singli.
Korwa people call their language their Bhashi, which means local language.
This language belongs to the Munda branch of the Austroasiatic language family.
Korwa people also speak Sadri and Chhattisgarhi as their second language.
Economy:
They largely depend on small-scale farming, fishing, hunting, and foraging forest produce.
They mainly practice a form of subsistence agriculture called jhoonga kheti. This agricultural technique includes clearing of the forest in order to harvest lentils and other crops.
Most of the families of Pahadi Korwa follow the nuclear family structure.
This tribe lives away from modernity by building houses near the forests with very limited resources.
But when any member of their family dies in their house. Then they abandon that house and migrate from there to some other place and build a home again.
The Korwa tribe has its own panchayat. Justice is administered to lawbreakers in a group meeting, in accordance with societal conventions.
Religion:
The religious practices are restricted to ancestral worship and to the worship of a handful of gods and deities.
The significant gods are Sigri Dev, Gauria Dev, Mahadev or Lord Shiva, and Parvati. Khudia Rani is the supreme god of this community.
Which among the following best describes INS Malpe and INS Mulki, recently seen in the news?
Anti-submarine warfare shallow watercrafts
Explanation :
Two anti-submarine warfare shallow water crafts vessels (ASWCWC) of the Indian Navy, INS Malpe and INS Mulki, were recently launched at Cochin Shipyard.
About INS Malpe and INS Mulki:
They are two indigenously designed and constructed Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Watercrafts (ASWCWC) built for the Indian Navy.
This is the fourth and fifth ASWCWC being built for the Navy.
They are constructed by the Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL).
The contract to build eight ASWSWC ships was signed between the Ministry of Defence (MoD) and CSL on April 30, 2019.
These vessels, known as the Mahe Class, will replace the current Abhay Class ASW Corvettes in the Indian Navy.
Features:
The vessels are capable of conducting anti-submarine operations in coastal waters, low-intensity maritime and mine-laying operations, besides sub-surface surveillance and search and rescue operations.
The vessels are 78.0 m long and 11.36 m wide, with a draught of about 2.7 m.
The displacement is about 900 tonnes, with a maximum speed of 25 knots and endurance of 1,800 nautical miles.
The ships are designed to fit indigenously developed, state-of-the-art SONARS for underwater surveillance.
They are equipped with light-weight torpedoes, anti-submarine warfare rockets, a close-in weapon system, and remote-controlled guns.
Consider the following statements regarding Paraguay River:
- It is the second largest river in South America.
- It is a tributary of the Orinoco River.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
A powerful drought in the Amazon rainforest led to the lowest water levels on the Paraguay River in more than a century.
About Paraguay River:
It is the fifth largest river in South America.
It runs over a course of approximately 1,584 miles (2,549 kilometers) from its headwaters in the Brazilian state of Mato Grosso (within the Brazilian Highlands) to its confluence with the Paraná River, of which it is the main tributary, just north of Corrientes, Argentina.
It runs through Brazil, Bolivia, Paraguay, and Argentina.
The river serves as a natural boundary, particularly between Paraguay and Brazil and between Paraguay and Argentina.
The Pantanal, one of the most pristine and biologically rich environments on the planet, is contained within the Upper Paraguay River Basin.
Pantanal is the world’s largest tropical wetland.
The Paraguay, along with the Paraná and Uruguay Rivers, form the second most important drainage system in the world, which covers approximately 1.6 million square miles.
These empty into the Rio de la Plata estuary at a rate of 2.8 million cubic feet of water per second, an outflow second only to that of the Amazon River. Thereafter, the rivers empty into the Atlantic Ocean.
Consider the following statements regarding the Photoelectric Effect:
- It is a phenomenon of absorption of electrons by a material when exposed to light.
- It is pivotal in understanding the quantum nature of light, as it reveals that light possesses both wave-like and particle-like properties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Researchers are breathing new life into the phenomenon of photoelectric effect, which is paving way for better imaging of proteins and viruses, gaining a deeper understanding of biochemical reactions, and choosing new materials for next-generation electronics.
About Photoelectric Effect:
It is a phenomenon where electrons are emitted from a material’s surface when it is exposed to light of sufficient frequency.
When light photons hit the surface of a material, usually a metal, they transfer their energy to the electrons. If this energy is sufficient, the electrons are emitted from the material.
The energy must be greater than the electron’s binding energy, known as the work function, for the electron to be ejected from the material’s surface.
The excess energy from the photon, after overcoming the work function, is converted into the kinetic energy of the ejected electron.
A material that can exhibit this phenomenon is said to be photoemissive, and the ejected electrons are called photoelectrons.
The effect was discovered in 1887 by the German physicist Heinrich Rudolf Hertz.
The photoelectric effect is pivotal in understanding the quantum nature of light, as it reveals that light possesses both wave-like and particle-like properties.
This duality is a cornerstone of quantum mechanics, illustrating how light can exhibit behaviors characteristic of both waves and discrete particles.
The discovery and understanding of the photoelectric effect have profound implications in various scientific and technological fields, including the development of photovoltaic cells and advanced imaging technologies.
Consider the following statements regarding Myristica Swamps:
- These are saltwater marshes dominated by evergreen trees.
- In India, they are primarily found in the Western Ghats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A group of researchers recently discovered a Myristica swamp forest in Kumbral, Maharashtra, which is protected by the local community.
About Myristica Swamps:
These are freshwater swamps dominated by evergreen trees belonging to the Myristicaceae family.
They are also denoted as living fossils due to the primitive nature of Myristica plants.
With an evolutionary origin of about 140 million years, the swamps are valuable for evolutionary studies.
These forests are characterized by trees with large protruding roots jutting out of waterlogged soil, which remains inundated throughout the year.
Geographical distribution: In India, these unique habitats occur in the Western Ghats, and a smaller distribution exists in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Meghalaya.
Historically, they formed a large hydrological network all along the Western Ghats.
Climatic conditions: The formation of these swamps is dependent on abiotic conditions like the shape of the valley between the forested hills, the amount of rainfall a place receives (with an average of 3000 mm), and water availability throughout the year.
Typically, Myristica swamps are seen next to rivers and help in retaining water and act as a sponge, ensuring perennial water availability.
These forests have a higher ability to sequester carbon than non-swampy forests.
These swamps are home to many vertebrate and invertebrate faunal species. This is due to stable macroecological conditions like high humidity, moderate temperature, and macrohabitat availability.
One example is the Myristica Swamp Treefrog (Mercurana myristicapalustris), only reported from a few pockets of the Shendurney and Peppara Wildlife Sanctuaries in Kerala.
Tartrazine, recently in news is a:
Synthetic food colorant
Explanation :
Recently, a recent study has demonstrated that tartrazine, a common food dye, can make the skin of living mice temporarily transparent.
It is also known as tartrazine and is a synthetic food colorant classified as an azo dye.
It is lemon yellow in color and water soluble.
It is used in many dairy products, beverages, desserts and confectionaries etc.
Highlight of the study
This dye absorbs blue light strongly, which yields its characteristic orange-to-red color when dissolved in water.
This happens because the blue part of the light is absorbed, leaving only the orange-to-red part visible.
Normally, biological tissues scatter light due to their diverse composition of proteins, fats, and liquids.
Researchers found that a concentrated tartrazine solution can match the refractive indices of these components, reducing light scattering and allowing light to pass through. This makes the skin appear transparent.
When applied, tartrazine absorbs certain wavelengths of light, especially red light, changing how light interacts with the tissue.
This effect enabled the researchers to see blood vessels, internal organs, and muscle contractions in real-time.
Potential Applications
This technique could simplify blood draws, improve laser tattoo removal, and aid in early cancer detection.
Consider the following statements regarding the Elongated Tortoise:
- It is mainly found in the Sal deciduous and hilly evergreen forests.
- It is categorized as endangered species under the IUCN Red list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the elongated tortoise (Indotestudo elongata) was spotted in Haryana’s Damdama area during a research survey in the Aravallis.
Appearance: The tortoise is medium-sized with a yellowish brown or olive shell and distinct black blotches at the centre of each scute.
Unique features:
The tortoise has on its nostril a pink ring, which appears in the breeding season. Mature individuals of both sexes develop a distinct pinkish colouration surrounding the nostrils and eyes during the season.
Distribution:
The tortoise, found in the Sal deciduous and hilly evergreen forests.
It is distributed across Southeast Asia from northern India, Nepal, Bhutan, and Bangladesh in the west, eastward through Myanmar, Thailand, and all of Indochina, north to Guangxi Province of China and south to Peninsular Malaysia.
A disjunct tortoise population exists in the Chota Nagpur plateau in eastern India. It also inhabits lowlands and foothills of up to 1,000 m above sea level.
Conservation status
IUCN: Critically Endangered
CITES: Appendix II
Consider the following statements regarding the District Agro-Meteorology Units:
- These are established by the India Meteorological Department (IMD) in collaboration with the Indian Council of Agricultural Research.
- These serve as early warnings for extreme events like droughts and heavy rainfall.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Press Trust of India reported that the India Meteorological Department (IMD) is planning to revive District Agro-Meteorology Units (DAMUs) under the Gramin Krishi Mausam Sewa (GKMS) scheme.
These are established by the India Meteorological Department (IMD) in 2018 in collaboration with the Indian Council of Agricultural Research.
Aim: The aim was to use weather data to prepare and disseminate sub-district level agricultural advisories.
Working
The DAMUs were located within Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs).
Scientists and researchers trained in meteorology and agriculture were recruited as DAMU staff.
They used weather data provided by the IMD like rainfall, temperature and wind speeds to prepare agricultural advisories related to sowing and harvesting, usage of fertilizers and pesticides, irrigation etc.
These advisories were sent to millions of farmers across the country free-of-cost in local languages twice a week.
They were shared via text messages, WhatsApp groups, newspapers and also through in-person communication from DAMU staff and KVK officers.
These advisories provided weather information in advance, they helped farmers plan activities like irrigation.
They also served as early warnings for extreme events like droughts and heavy rainfall. Many studies conducted over the years have stressed the benefits of agro-met advisories.
Consider the following statements regarding the Nilgiri Mountain Railway:
- It is situated in the state of Tamil Nadu.
- It was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2005.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Coonoor railway station which is part of the Nilgiri Mountain Railway (NMR) line is being completely transformed as part of the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme is criticised by heritage train and history enthusiasts.
Location: The NMR Railway line from Mettupalaiyam to Ooty is 45.88 km. long and lies partly in Coimbatore District and partly in Nilgiri District of Tamil Nadu, on the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats.
It is fondly called the Ooty toy train of the Nilgiris Railway Company, first chugged up the hills on June 15, 1899.
History:
It was in 1854, that the first plans were made to build a mountain Railway from Mettupalaiyam to the Nilgiri Hills.
But it took the decision-makers 45 years to cut through the bureaucratic red tape and complete the construction and installation of the line.
The line was completed and opened for traffic in June 1899.
It was operated first by the Madras Railway under an agreement with the Government.
In 2005, the Nilgiri Mountain Railway was recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, joining the ranks of India’s other famous mountain railways, such as the Darjeeling Himalayan Railway and the Kalka-Shimla Railway.
This designation underscores the railway’s cultural and historical importance, as well as its role in showcasing India’s rich heritage
Consider the following statements regarding Presbyopia:
- It is a viral disease mainly affecting children of age 5 years.
- It affects the ability of human’s eyes to focus on nearby objects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, Mumbai-based Entod Pharmaceuticals has announced that the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) has approved its new eye drop PresVu, which has been developed to reduce dependency on reading glasses for individuals affected by presbyopia.
It is an age-related condition in which the eyes gradually lose the ability to focus on nearby objects.
People usually start to develop presbyopia at around the age of 40. According to doctors, spectacles are one of the most effective ways to manage the condition.
How does PresVu work?
The active ingredient — chemical compounds in medicines that have an effect on the body — in PresVu is pilocarpine.
The compound contracts the iris muscles, which control the size of the pupil and help humans see things clearly, thereby enabling one’s eyes to focus better on nearby objects.
PresVu uses “advanced dynamic buffer technology” — essentially, a base solution — to adapt to the pH level (a scale used to measure how acidic or basic a substance is) of tears.
This ensures that the eye drop has “consistent efficacy and safety for extended use, keeping in mind that such drops will be used for years at a stretch”.
PresVu is a prescription-only medicine and its impact is unlikely to last beyond four to six hours. It should not be used by people who have inflammation of the iris.
Regular use of PresVu may lead to itching and redness, eyebrow pain, and muscle spasms in the eyes.
With reference to Mathura School of Art, consider the following statements:
- It is completely indigenous and shows no trace of foreign influence.
- Its theme included Buddhism, Jainism and Hinduism.
- Most of the sculptures were made of lime plaster.
Which of the statement given above are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Mathura was one of the pre-eminent cities of north India. It was the southern capital of the Kushanas and an important centre of crafts and trade, religious activity, and artistic production.
Mathura sculptures share iconographic similarities with those of the northwest, but the style is very different. It is completely indigenous and shows no trace of foreign influence. The Mathura style can be seen as a further development of the traditions of sculpture of sites such as Besnagar, Sanchi, and Bharhut. So, statement 1 is correct.
The themes were varied, including yakshas, yakshis, nagas, nagis, Buddhas and bodhisattvas, Jaina tirthankaras, and Hindu deities. So, statement 2 is correct.
The early centuries CE marked an explosion in the number and variety of Vaishnava images produced in the Mathura area. It was during this period, Mathura became the premier centre of the dissemination of Vaishnava sculptural art. The sculptures included kinship triads depicting Vasudeva Krishna, his brother Baladeva, and their sister Ekanamsha. There are many independent images of Vasudeva Krishna, but also some of Vishnu (four-armed), Vishnu on garuda, and in anthropomorphic boar form.
The sculptors of Mathura used red sandstone quarried at Sikri. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements:
- The Vikram era is believed to have been established by King Vikramaditya of Ujjain to commemorate his victory over the Saka rulers.
- The national calendar of India is based on the Saka Era, with Chaitra as its first month.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Saka Samvat: This calendar form was initiated by King Shalivahan in 78 CE. It was also known as the Saka era as it is to this tribe that Shalivahan belonged. Historians do have a confusion of whether Shalivahan was Saka himself or conquered Sakas.
Vikram Samvat: The Vikram era started in 56 BCE and is in force in almost all of India except the region of Bengal. This era, as historians believe, is said to have been established by King Vikramaditya of Ujjain to commemorate his victory over the Saka rulers. So, statement 1 is correct.
The national calendar of India is based on the Saka Calendar which has been adopted as the official civil calendar besides the Gregorian calendar. The Saka Calendar is based on luni-solar reckoning of time. The calendar consists of 365 days and 12 months like the normal Gregorian calendar. Chaitra is the first month of the year beginning on March 22 which is the day after the Spring Equinox. During leap years, the starting day of Chaitra corresponds with March 21. So, statement 2 is correct.
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Painted Grey Ware (PGW) is a distinctive type of fine, grey pottery with designs painted in black, made and used in parts of north India. It is related to the Vedic period (1000-600 BC). So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Northern Black Polished Ware (NBP or NBPW) is a distinctive type of fine pottery with a glossy surface, made and used between c. 700 and 200 BCE. This pottery coincided with the Mauryan period. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Rouletted ware is a pottery with a smooth surface and usually a metallic lustre, with concentric bands of rouletted designs. It can be dated to 200-100 BC. Most of the evidence has been found from Arikamedu near Puducherry. It was an important centre of Indo-Roman trade during the Sangam Age. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
With reference to Mauryan administration, consider the following statements:
- Pataliputra was governed by a city council comprised of six committees.
- Special officers in charge of women’s welfare were known as itthijhakka-mahamatas.
- Rajukas were spies appointed for espionage and keeping the King informed about public opinion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Megasthenese tells us that the city of Pataliputra was administered by a city council comprising 30 members. These thirty members were divided into six committees of five members each to look after the administration of Pataliputra. These committees looked after: 1. Industries 2. Foreigners 3. Registration of birth and deaths 4. Trade 5. Manufacture and sale of goods 6. Collection of sales tax. So, statement 1 is correct.
Ashoka’s inscriptions mention many kinds of mahamatas. Specific types of mahamatas mentioned in the inscriptions include the antamahamatas ( in charge of the frontier areas) and itthijhakka-mahamatas (in charge of women’s welfare). The dhamma mahamatas were a new cadre of officials created by Ashoka. Their job was to spread dhamma all over the empire. So, statement 2 is correct.
A group of officials worked in each district. Pradeshika was the head of district administration who toured the entire district every five years to inspect the administration of areas under his control. The Rajuka was responsible for surveying and assessing the land, fixing its rent and record-keeping besides judicial functions. The duties of Yukta largely comprised secretarial work, collection and accounting of revenue etc.
The administration was backed by an elaborate system of espionage. Ashoka’s inscriptions refer to the pativedakas and pulisani, who were responsible for keeping the king informed of public opinion. So, statement 3 is not correct.
With reference to the Shunga dynasty, consider the following statements:
- The rulers adopted Buddhism as their state religion.
- The Besnagar pillar inscription of Heliodorus is dated to this period.
- Panini, a famous grammarian, is a contemporary of Pushyamitra Shunga.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The founder of the Sunga dynasty was Pushyamitra Sunga, who was the commander-in-chief under the Mauryas. He assassinated the last Mauryan ruler and usurped the throne.
After Ashoka’s tryst with Dhamma and Buddhism, the Sungas are known for having reverted to Brahmanical orthodoxy. In the Ayodhya inscription of Dhanadeva, Pushyamitra Sunga is credited with the performance of two Asvamedha sacrifices. Buddhist sources claim that he persecuted the Buddhists. Divyavadana depicts Pushyamitra as a destroyer of Buddhist monasteries and places of worship, particularly those constructed by Ashoka. For instance, it is said that he attempted to destroy the Kukuta Arama monastery at Pataliputra. According to sources he also fixed a prize of 100 dinaras for the head of every monk. However, this account of Divyavadana seems highly exaggerated. If the renovations conducted on the Stupas and other Buddhist monuments date to this period, then it would be difficult to believe that the Sungas acted against the Buddhists. So statement 1 is not correct.
An inscription of the Shunga period is inscribed on a pillar at Besnagar, the site of ancient Vidisha. This pillar was constructed by Heliodorus, the Greek ambassador. The Besnagar pillar inscription indicates that the Shungas continued the Maurya tradition of entertaining ambassadors from Greek courts. So, statement 2 is correct.
Panini was a grammarian who lived in the 5th or 4th century BCE. His Ashtadhyayi, the oldest surviving Sanskrit grammar, represents a brilliant intellectual achievement. But Pushyamitra Sunga is said to have ruled from 185 –149 BCE. Patanjali in his Mahabhasya (dated 2nd century Bce), mentions Shunga’s clash with Bactrian Greeks and sacrifices for Pushyamitra. So, statement 3 is not correct.
With reference to the ancient history of India, the term ‘Terra sigillata’ is related to:
Roman pottery found at Arikamedu.
Explanation :
Terra sigillata is a red glazed Roman pottery decorated by being pressed into a mould. It includes moulded, decorated wares as well as undecorated, wheel-made ones made in Italy or local imitations. It provided valuable evidence of Indo-Roman trade during the post-Mauryan period. Its evidence is available from the site of Arikamedu on the Coromandel coast.
Apart from Arikamedu, Mediterranean amphorae and terra sigillata have been found at other southern sites such as Uraiyur, Kanchipuram, and Vasavasamudram. They have also been found at sites in Gujarat and western India such as Dwarka, Prabhas Patan.
With reference to Kesariya Buddhist Stupa, consider the following statements:
- It is the tallest and largest Buddhist stupa in India.
- Its construction first started during the time of Palas.
- According to jataka stories, Buddha gave his begging bowl to lichchhavis at Kesariya.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Kesariya Buddha Stupa was discovered in 1998 and is situated in the East Champaran district of Bihar. Originally, it had a height of 150 feet when Buddhism thrived in India. At present, it has a height of 104 feet and is still the tallest ever-excavated Stupa in India. So, statement 1 is correct.
The first construction of the Stupa is dated to the 3rd century BCE. The original Kesaria stupa dates to the time of Ashoka, as the remains of the Pillar of Ashoka were discovered there. Later on, it was enlarged by succeeding kings. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Lord Buddha on his last journey spent memorable days at Kesaria. People of Vaishali followed him as he departed for an onward journey towards Kushinagara. According to Jataka stories, Buddha also asked Licchivis to return to Vaishali after giving them “BEGGING BOWL.” at this place. So, statement 3 is correct.
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Eran stone inscription dated 510 CE is a Gupta era inscription which is found in Malwa region of Madhya Pradesh. The first evidence of Sati (immolation of widow) is found at Eran which shows that after the death of a noble in a battle, his wife committed sati. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Mandasor inscription: It records the victory of Aulikara king Yashodharman over Huna king Mihirakula. The ancestry of Harshavardhana is mentioned in the Banskhera inscription of Shahjahanpur (Uttar Pradesh). So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Bhitari inscription (Uttar Pradesh) dates to the reign of Skanda Gupta. It mentions the conflict between Skandagupta and the Pushyamitras as well as the Hunas. It also mentions the military prowess of Skandagupta. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
With reference to Amaravati school of art, consider the following features:
- It was developed indigenously and not influenced by external cultures.
- The sculptures were made using bluish-grey sandstone.
- It gives special emphasis to individual features of Buddha.
- The sculptures generally depict life stories of Buddha and the Jataka tales.
Which of the features given above are correct?
1 and 4 only
Explanation :
The Amaravati School developed on the banks of the Krishna River in the present state of Andhra Pradesh, under the patronage of the Satavahana rulers and later Ikshvakus. It evolved and flourished for nearly six centuries commencing from 200-100 BC. It was developed indigenously and not influenced by external cultures. So, statement 1 is correct.
The key features of the school are-
i. The sculptures were made using distinct white marbles. So, statement 2 is not correct.
ii. Sculptures are generally part of narrative art and there is less emphasis on the individual features of Buddha. So, statement 3 is not correct.
iii. It generally depicts life stories of Buddha and the Jataka tales (such as the Shibi, Nalagiri and Chhadanta Jatakas), i.e. previous lives of Buddha in both human and animal form. So, statement 4 is correct.
iv. Sculptures have a sense of movement and energy with profound and quiet naturalism in human, animal and floral forms.
v. The Buddha is mostly represented by symbols.
Consider the following statements with reference to Khilafat Movement:
- Mahatma Gandhi was the first elected President of the All-India Khilafat Committee.
- Muslim league gave full support to Gandhi on the Khilafat issue.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Khilafat movement
After the victory of the British in World war I, they plan to dismember Turkey by imposing sanctions on the Caliph through the Treaty of Sevres, which incensed Indian Muslims who demanded from the British that:
(i) the control of Khalifa (Caliph) over sacred places of Muslims should be retained, and
(ii) after territorial arrangements, the Caliph should be left with sufficient territories.
‘All India Khilafat Committee’ was formed in early 1919 under the leadership of the Ali brothers (Shaukat Ali and Muhammad Ali), Maulana Azad, Ajmal Khan and Hasrat Mohani, to force the British government to vary its attitude towards Turkey. The first elected President of the committee was Mahatma Gandhi. So, statement 1 is correct.
Gandhi was in favour of launching a Satyagraha and Non-Cooperation against the government on the Khilafat issue. Congress as well as Muslim League supported Gandhi to launch the movement. So, statement 2 is correct.
Which of the following statements is not correct with regard to Khilafat Movement?
Gandhi took up its cause in order to strengthen the Rowlatt Satyagraha.
Explanation :
The whole movement was, to begin with, a hartal on 1 August. Muslim opinion on non-cooperation was still divided and throughout the summer of 1920 Gandhi and Shaukat Ali toured extensively mobilising popular support for the programme. The hartal was a grand success, as it coincided with the death of tilak, and from then on support for non-cooperation began to rise.
After the withdrawal of Rawlatt Satyagraha (withdrawn on 18 April 1919), Gandhi saw an opportunity to forge Hindu-Muslim unity in a common struggle and strengthen the Non-Cooperation Movement by Congress. In February 1920, he suggested to the Khilafat Committee that it adopt a programme of non-violent non-cooperation to protest the Government’s behaviour. On 9 June 1920, the Khilafat Committee at Allahabad unanimously accepted the suggestion of non-cooperation and asked Gandhiji to lead the movement. The Congress, however, met in September at Calcutta and accepted non-cooperation as its own.
The Allahabad conference of the Central Khilafat Committee, held on 1 -2 June 1920, decided to launch a four-stage non-cooperation movement: boycott of titles, civil services, police and army and finally non-payment of taxes.
In Kheda, Gujarat, Patidar peasants organised against high land revenue, in Tamil Nadu against Liquor shops, in Andhra Pradesh peasants organised ‘Forest Satyagrahas’. In Sind (now in Pakistan), Muslim traders and peasants were very enthusiastic about the Khilafat call. In Bengal too, the Khilafat-Non-Cooperation alliance gave enormous communal unity and strength to the national movement.
With reference to the Rowlatt Act, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Indian Evidence Act could be bypassed as per its provisions.
- It reintroduced the wartime restrictions on freedom of speech and assembly.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Rowlatt Act gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities, and authorised imprisonment without trial. A special cell consisting of three high court judges could even accept evidence not acceptable under the Indian Evidence Act. And there was no court of appeal above that panel. So, statement 1 is correct.
It was enacted as an extension to the Defence of India Regulation Act 1915. Passed on the recommendations of the Rowlatt Commission, headed by the British judge, Sir Sidney Rowlatt, it reintroduced wartime restrictions on freedom of speech and assembly, strict control over the press, arrest without warrant. So, statement 2 is correct.
With reference to Women freedom fighters in India, consider the following statements:
- Matangini Hazra participated in Civil Disobedience Movement and was arrested for violating the Salt Act.
- Annie Besant wrote the poem ‘The gift of India’.
- Sarla Devi Chaudharani was the founder of the first women’s organisation in India, the Bharat Stree Mahamandal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Matangini Hazra was the Gandhian leader who participated in the Civil Disobedience movement. She also participated in the salt satyagraha, manufactured salt at Alinan salt Centre and was arrested for violating the salt act. She also participated in the Chowkidar Tax Bandha movement. So, statement 1 is correct.
Sarojini Naidu joined the Indian national movement in the wake of partition of Bengal in 1905. She came in contact with Gopal Krishna Gokhale, Rabindranath Tagore and Mahatma Gandhi. In 1925, she presided over the annual session of Indian National Congress at Kanpur. She wrote the poem ‘the Gift of India’. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Sarala Devi Chaudhurani was the founder of the first women’s organisation in India, the Bharat Stree Mahamandal in Allahabad in 1910. One of the primary goals of the organisation was to promote female education, which at that time was not well developed. The organisation opened several offices in Lahore, Delhi, Karachi, Amritsar, Hyderabad, Kanpur, Hazaribagh, Midnapore and Kolkata to improve the situation of women all over India. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Satavahana rulers:
- The early Satavahana kings established their power in the Andhra region.
- They issued gold coins that have been excavated in the region of Deccan.
- The official language of the Satavahana ruler was Prakrit.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The most important of the native successors of the Mauryas in the Deccan and in central India were the Satavahanas. The early Satavahana kings appeared not in Andhra but in Maharashtra, where most of their early inscriptions have been found. They set up their power in the upper Godavari valley, which at present produces rich and diverse crops in Maharashtra. Gradually, the Satavahanas extended their power over Karnataka and Andhra. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The Satavahanas may have used gold as bullion, for they did not issue gold coins as the Kushans did. They issued mostly coins of lead, which is found in the Deccan. They also issued potin, copper and bronze money. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The official language of the Satavahanas was Prakrit. All inscriptions were composed in this language and written in the Brahmi script, as was the case in Ashokan time. So, statement 3 is correct.
Arrange the rock edicts of the Ashoka Empire from North to South.
- Kalsi
- Girnar
- Yerragudi
- Sopara
Which of the following arrangement is correct?
1, 2, 4, 3
Explanation :
The Edicts of Ashoka are a collection of more than thirty inscriptions on pillars, boulders, and cave walls, made by Emperor Ashoka of the Mauryan Empire during his reign, from 268 BCE to 232 BCE. Ashoka’s “Inscriptions of the Dharma” were dispersed throughout modern-day India, Bangladesh, Nepal, Afghanistan and Pakistan.
They provided the first tangible evidence of Buddhism, along with the locations of important early Buddhist archaeological sites. The edicts describe Ashoka’s views about dhamma, an earnest attempt to solve some of the problems faced by a complex society.
With reference to Indian heritage, which of the following belong to the category of rock-cut architecture?
- Masroor Temples
- Ajanta caves
- Shore temple of Mahabalipuram
- Kailashnath temple of Kanchipuram
- Pancha Rathas of Mahabalipuram
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 2 and 5 only
Explanation :
The Masroor Temples, also referred to as Rock-cut Temples at Masroor, is an early 8th-century complex of rock-cut Hindu temples in the Kangra Valley of Beas River in Himachal Pradesh, India. The temples face northeast, towards the Dhauladhar range of the Himalayas. They are a version of North Indian Nagara architecture style, dedicated to Shiva, Vishnu, Devi and Saura traditions of Hinduism, with its surviving iconography likely inspired by a monotheistic framework. So, point 1 is correct.
Ajanta is a series of rock-cut caves in the Sahyadri ranges on Waghora River near Aurangabad in Maharashtra. There are a total of 29 caves there of which 25 were used as Viharas or residential caves while 4 were used as Chaitya or prayer halls. The caves were developed in the period between 200 to 650 CE. The Ajanta caves were inscribed by the Buddhist monks, under the patronage of the Vakataka kings, Harishena being a prominent one. So, point 2 is correct.
Under Rajasimha, development of real structural temples started in place of rock-cut temples in the Pallava empire. Shore Temple at Mahabalipuram, Kailashnath Temple at Kanchipuram both are structural temples. So, points 3 and 4 are not correct.
Ratha Temples or Pancha Ratha (also known as Pandava Rathas), are the earliest rock cut temples in India, comprising of Dharmaraja Ratha, Bhima Ratha, Arjuna Ratha, Nakula and Sahadeva Ratha, and Draupadi Ratha dated around 7th century CE. So, point 5 is correct.
With reference to Neanderthals, consider the following statements:
1. They were generally shorter and had more robust skeletons than modern humans.
- Their Brain size was larger than the average modern human brain.
- They became extinct during lower Palaeolithic period.
- Denisovans were a group of Neanderthals from Siberia.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Neanderthal:
Neanderthals (Homo neanderthalensis) are members of a group of archaic humans who emerged at least 200,000 years ago during the Pleistocene Epoch (about 2.6 million to 11,700 years ago). Neanderthals lived during the Ice Age. They often took shelter from the ice, snow and otherwise unpleasant weather in Eurasia’s plentiful limestone caves. Many of their fossils have been found in caves, leading to the popular idea of them as “cave men.” Like other humans, Neanderthals originated in Africa but migrated to Eurasia long before other humans did. Neanderthals lived across Eurasia, as far north and west as the Britain, through part of the Middle East, to Uzbekistan.
Which among the following factors can have a positive impact on India’s Balance of Trade?
- Depreciation of rupee value against US Dollar
- Imposing Minimum Import Price on raw materials
- Adopting contractionary monetary policy by the RBI
- Increase in external borrowing by the Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The balance of trade is the value of a country’s exports minus its imports. A positive trade balance (surplus) is when exports exceed imports; while a negative trade balance (deficit) is when exports are less than imports.
Depreciation in the domestic currency is expected to give a boost to exports, as traders get more local currency when they convert the export proceeds. Hence, it would lead to a positive Balance of Trade. So, statement 1 is correct.
Minimum import price (MIP) is a temporary measure to provide protection to domestic farmers from predatory pricing of imports. Below this price, import of the commodity is not allowed. Imposing a minimum import price on goods could help in curbing cheaper imports, which would lead to positive Balance of Trade Balance.So, statement 2 is correct.
Contractionary monetary policy is enacted to halt exceptionally high inflation rates or normalize the effects of expansionary policy. Tightening the money supply discourages business expansion and consumer spending and negatively impacts exporters, which can reduce aggregate demand. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Increase in gross borrowings from external markets would free up additional liquidity in the domestic market. It will lead to appreciation of the value of Indian rupee, consequently hurting the country’s exports. So, statement 4 is not correct.
What could be the effects on the Indian economy if the value of the Chinese Yuan slips against the US dollar?
- The rate of the Indian rupee will appreciate with respect to the US dollar.
- Tourists’ inflows and outflows from India, will increase drastically.
- Indian exports will become competitive in the global markets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3 only
Explanation :
Depreciated yuan makes Chinese exports look more attractive. This means Indian exporters will face higher competition in the international market from Chinese goods. A drastic fall in the exports could lead to a wider trade deficit-when India imports more than it exports. This in turn will lead to depreciation of the Indian Rupee as well. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Rupee depreciation impacts inbound tourism positively and outbound negatively. The rupee falling sharply against major currencies will help foreigners to gain more when they visit India. So, it may impact India in a positive way. On the other hand, Rupee depreciation against the US dollar adversely affects the travellers’ outflow to foreign countries. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The depreciation of the currency affects both the volume and rupee price of exports and imports. Depreciation of currency increases the volume of exports and reduces the volume of imports, both of which have a favourable effect on the balance of trade, that is, they will lower the trade deficit or increase the trade surplus.
Due to the cheaper Rupee, Indian exports will become competitive in the global markets, while imports will become costly. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to forex reserves:
- It may include foreign currencies, bonds, treasury bills, and other government securities.
- Foreign currency assets constitute the largest component of India’s Forex Reserves.
- Currently India holds the largest forex reserves in the world.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Foreign exchange reserves are assets held on reserve by a central bank in foreign currencies. These reserves are used to back liabilities and influence monetary policy. It includes any foreign money held by a central bank, such as the U.S. Federal Reserve Bank.
Foreign exchange reserves can include banknotes, deposits, bonds, treasury bills and other government securities. So, statement 1 is correct.
Forex reserves are external assets in the form of gold, SDRs (special drawing rights of the IMF) and foreign currency assets (capital inflows to the capital markets, FDI and external commercial borrowings) accumulated by India and controlled by the Reserve Bank of India. Foreign currency assets constitute the largest component of India’s Forex Reserves. So, statement 2 is correct.
India’s forex reserves is $640.4 billion as of November 19, 2021, and India stood as the fourth-largest foreign exchange reserves holder in the world. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI):
- An increase in net FPI outflows improves the Balance of Payments (BoP) position of an economy.
- If the investment holding in an FDI comes below 10%, then the holdings are reclassified as FPI.
- Unlike FDI, FPI investors have no control over ventures or direct ownership of property or a stake in a company.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3 only
Explanation :
Foreign direct investment (FDI) refers to investments made by an individual or firm in one country in a business located in another country. Investors can make foreign direct investments in a number of ways.
Foreign portfolio investment (FPI) refers to investing in the financial assets of a foreign country, such as stocks or bonds available on an exchange.
An increase in net FPI flows improves the BoP position and arises on account of cross-border transactions involving debt or equity securities, other than those included in direct investment or reserve assets. However, FPI is often referred to as ‘hot money’ because of its tendency to flee at the first signs of trouble in an economy or improvement in investment attractiveness elsewhere in the world, particularly in the US at the hands of the Federal Reserve. So, statement 1 is not correct.
If a foreign fund buys a less than 10 per cent stake in a company, such an investment will be considered FPI. Conversely, if the ownership of an FPI in a company crosses 10 per cent, such an investment would be considered FDI. For an FPI investment, once the investment is classified as FDI (basis total holding), if the FDI holding comes back to <10%, the holdings will not be reclassified as FPI again. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Unlike FDI, FPI consists of passive ownership; investors have no control over ventures or direct ownership of property or a stake in a company. So, statement 3 is correct.
Non-Resident Indians are permitted to invest in which of the following sectors?
- Small Savings Schemes
- Real Estate
- Government securities
- Mutual funds
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
A Non-Resident Indian (NRI) as per India’s Foreign Exchange Management Act 1999 (FEMA), is an Indian citizen or Foreign National of Indian Origin resident outside India for purposes of employment, carrying on business or vocation in circumstances as would indicate an intention to stay outside India for an indefinite period.
An individual will also be considered NRI if his stay in India is less than 182 days during the preceding financial year.
NRIs are not allowed to invest in Small Savings Schemes like post office savings schemes, National Savings Certificates, Public Provident Fund, Monthly Income Schemes and other time deposits offered by the post office. So, point 1 is not correct.
NRIs are permitted to invest in Real Estate Development activity through Indian companies. Investment through LLPs, partnership firms, branches, or any in any other manner is not permitted. Direct business by non-residents is not permitted. So, point 2 is correct.
With effect from 1st April 2020, NRIs are eligible to invest in government securities in India without any ceiling limit in certain specific instruments. So, point 3 is correct.
NRIs are allowed to invest in mutual funds in India – as long as they adhere to the rules of the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA). So, point 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the external debt of India:
- The external debt to GDP ratio has steadily decreased since the enactment of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003.
- Non-Resident Deposits are a part of India’s external debt.
- Currently, the private sector external debt in India is higher than the Government debt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
External debt is the money that a country borrows from a source external to it and has to be repaid in the currency in which it was borrowed. Mainly such money is borrowed from institutions like foreign commercial banks and international financial institutions such as the International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank, Asian Development Bank (ADB) and also from the governments of foreign nations.
India’s debt to GDP ratio has increased gradually from Rs 58.8 lakh crore (67.4% of GDP) in FY12 to Rs 146.9 lakh crore (72.2% of GDP) in FY20. So, statement 1 is not correct.
India’s external debt accounts for commercial borrowings, short term trade credits, and rupee-denominated Non-resident Indian deposits. External debt includes both government and private debt. So, statement 2 is correct.
External debt payment can be done in USD, INR, YEN and EURO. A major portion of India’s external debt came from multilateral institutions.
Commercial borrowings comprised the largest component of external debt, with a share of 37.4 per cent, followed by non-resident deposits at 24.9 per cent and short-term trade credit at 17.1 per cent. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Forward Exchange Rate:
- It is the rate of exchange for a future dated foreign exchange market transaction.
- Its adoption helps in avoiding the exchange rate risks of foreign currencies.
- Forward premium occurs when the forward exchange rate is quoted lower than the spot exchange rate.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The forward exchange rate is the rate of exchange, agreed upon now, for a foreign exchange market transaction that will occur at a specified date in the future. The agreement to make such an exchange in the future at a rate agreed upon now is called a forward contract. So, statement 1 is correct.
Forward Rates = spot rate +/- premium/discount.
The essential idea of entering into a forward contract is to fix the exchange rate in advance and thereby avoid the exchange rate risk. So, statement 2 is correct.
Forward premium occurs when the forward exchange rate is quoted higher than the spot exchange rate. The expectation of the market is that the domestic currency will be worth less in the future or will depreciate in value versus the foreign currency. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Line of Credit (LOC) extended by the Government of India:
- It is a one-time development grant provided to developing countries by the Indian Government.
- Under it, goods and services for at least 75% of the value of the contract must be sourced from India.
- The full amount extended through LOCs should exclusively be on a Government-to-Government basis.
- Bangladesh has been the recipient of the largest concessional credit given by India to any single country.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 and 4 only
Explanation :
A Line of Credit is a financing mechanism through which Exim Bank extends support for export of projects, equipment, goods and services from India. The Line of Credit is not a grant but a ‘soft loan’ provided on concessional interest rates to developing countries, which has to be repaid by the borrowing government. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The LOCs also helps to promote exports of Indian goods and services, as 75% of the value of the contract must be sourced from India. So, statement 2 is correct.
Till 2003-04, the LOCs were from Government to Government. Accordingly, the full amount covered by the LOCs, used to be provided in the Budget. Since 2003-04, this system has been substituted by extending GOI supported Lines of Credit through Exim Bank of India. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Out of the total LOCs of US$ 30.59 billion, US$ 16.095 billion have been extended to Asian countries, with the largest value of commitments having been made in India’s immediate neighbourhood. The largest concessional credit given by India to any single country has been to Bangladesh. So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Mikania micrantha, recently seen in the news:
- It is a major invasive species in India and several parts of southeast Asia.
- It is a native of Central and Western Africa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The weed, Mikania micrantha, is spreading quite fast in the Bhadra Tiger Reserve and threatening its biodiversity.
About Mikania micrantha:
It is a perennial creeping climber known for its vigorous and rampant growth.
It is a native of Central and South America.
It is a major invasive species in several parts of southeast Asia, India, and the Pacific Islands.
It was introduced in India in the 1940s as ground cover in tea plantations and is now a serious threat to several plantation crops as well as forest areas all over the country.
It grows best where fertility, organic matter, soil moisture, and humidity are all high.
It damages or kills other plants by cutting out the lightand smothering them.
It climbs up other plants to reach the canopy for better sunlight.
Mikania is known to have allelopathic potential by producing biochemicals that can inhibit seed germination and seedling growth of other plants.
It producesthousands of lightweight seeds that are wind-dispersed and also has the ability to reproduce vegetatively through its roots, resulting in rapid and widespread invasion by this weed in any disturbed area.
Ukai Dam, recently seen in the news, is constructed across which one of the following rivers?
Tapti River
Explanation :
Following rainfall in its upper catchment areas, the authorities recently discharged 1.19 lakh cusecs of water from the Ukai Dam, bringing the water level in the dam just five feet below the danger mark of 345 feet.
About Ukai Dam:
The Ukai Dam, constructed across the Tapti River, is the second largest reservoir in Gujarat after the Sardar Sarovar.
It is also known as Vallabh Sagar.
Constructed in 1972, the dam is meant for irrigation, power generation, and flood control.
The storage capacity of Ukai dam is almost 46% of the total capacity of all the other existing dams in Gujarat if put together.
Having a catchment area of about 62,255 km2 and a water spread of about 52,000 hectares, its capacity is almost the same as that of the Bhakra Nangal Dam.
Ukai dam is an earth-cum-masonry dam, the embankment wall of which is almost 4,927 meters long.
Its earth dam is 80.77 meters high, whereas the masonry dam is 68.68 meters high.
What is Montelukast, recently seen in the news, primarily used for which one of the following conditions?
To prevent and control asthma attacks
Explanation :
While caution is being exercised everywhere, the sale of Montelukast in India is unregulated, largely irrational, and seems to be increasing exponentially.
About Montelukast:
It is an oral medication approved to be prescribed daily for long-term use as a “preventer” or “controller” of asthma attacks in adults and children at least 2 years old.
Montelukast is also used to prevent bronchospasm (breathing difficulties)during exercise in adults and children 6 years of age and older.
It is also used to help control the symptoms of allergies such as sneezing, stuffy, runny, and itchy nose.
Developed by Merck and Co. (an American multinational pharmaceutical company), Montelukast was approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in 1998 and marketed under the brand name ‘Singulair’.
It helps improve asthma symptoms byblocking substances in the body called leukotrienes that cause inflammation and swelling.
In 2020, the U.S. FDAadded a ‘black box warning’ to montelukast, and the Medicines and Healthcare Products Regulatory Agency, U.K., issued a health warning saying the drug could cause serious neuropsychiatric adverse effects.
Consider the following statements regarding the Cyber Fraud Mitigation Centre (CFMC), recently seen in the news:
- It has been established at the Indian cyber crime Coordination Centre (14C) in New Delhi.
- It works for immediate action and seamless cooperation to tackle online financial crimes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Union Home Minister recently addressed the first Foundation Day program of the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) in New Delhi and launched key initiatives for prevention of cybercrime.
New Cybersecurity Initiatives:
Cyber Fraud Mitigation Centre (CFMC):
CFMC has been established at the Indian cyber crime Coordination Centre (14C) in New Delhi with representatives of major banks, Financial Intermediaries, Payment Aggregators, Telecom Service Providers, IT Intermediaries, and States/UTs Law Enforcement Agencies (LEAs).
They will work together for immediate action and seamless cooperation to tackle online financial crimes.
CFMC will serve as an example of “Cooperative Federalism” in law enforcement.
Samanvaya Platform (Joint Cybercrime Investigation Facilitation System): It is a web-based module to act as a One Stop Portal for data repository of cybercrime, data sharing, crime mapping, data analytics, cooperation, and coordination platform for LEAs across the country.
‘Cyber Commandos’ Program:
Under this program, a special wing of trained ‘Cyber Commandos’ in States/UTs and Central Police Organizations (CPOs) will be established to counter threats of cyber security landscape in the country.
Trained Cyber Commandos will assist States/UTs and Central Agencies in securing the digital space.
Suspect Registry: It is a new initiative to strengthen fraud risk management by creating a registry of identifiers based on the National Cybercrime Reporting Portal in collaboration with banks and financial intermediaries.
Consider the following statements regarding Nebula:
- It is a giant cloud of dust and gas that exists in interstellar space.
- It is always formed by the explosion of a dying star.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
NASA recently captivated space enthusiasts with a breathtaking image of the Red Spider Nebula.
About Nebula:
A nebula is a giant cloud of dust and gas in space.
Some nebulae (more than one nebula) come from the gas and dust thrown out by the explosion of a dying star, such as a supernova.
Other nebulae are regions where new stars are beginning to form. For this reason, some nebulae are called “star nurseries.”
How do stars form in a nebula?
Nebulae are made of dust and gases—mostly hydrogen and helium.
The dust and gases in a nebula are very spread out, but gravity can slowly begin to pull together clumps of dust and gas.
As these clumps get bigger and bigger, their gravity gets stronger and stronger.
Eventually, the clump of dust and gas gets so big that it collapses from its own gravity.
The collapse causes the material at the center of the cloud to heat up-and this hot core is the beginning of a star.
Nebulae exist in the space between the stars—also known as interstellar space.
The closest known nebula to Earth is called the Helix Nebula. It is approximately 700 light-years away from Earth.
Nebulas come in many shapes and sizes and can be further divided into several subcategories, including planetary nebulas, supernova remnants, dark nebulae, and emission nebulae.
Consider the following statements regarding the Standing Committee on Statistics:
- It was formed by the Union Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
- It was mandated to explore the use of administrative statistics to improve data outcomes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A Standing Committee on Statistics formed to oversee all statistical surveys by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has been dissolved by the government amid apparent concerns raised by some members over the delay in conducting the census.
It was formed in 2019 to provide a new internal oversight mechanism for official data, revamping a SCES.
Need:
The development assumes significance amid sharp critiques of India’s statistical machinery by members of the Economic Advisory Council (EAC) to the PM.
The EAC’s chairperson (Bibek Debroy) had mooted an overhaul of the system and contended that the Indian Statistical Service has “little expertise in survey design”.
Terms of reference:
To ensure more coverage, the panel can have up to 16 members.
To expand the mandate beyond economic data and advise the Ministry on technical aspects for all surveys, such as sampling, design, survey methodology and finalisation of results.
To identify data gaps that need to be filled by official statistics, along with an appropriate strategy to plug those gaps.
To explore the use of administrative statistics to improve data outcomes.
Role to be played by NSC: While the panel will help finalise survey results, the NSC will have the ultimate authority to approve the publication of those results.
Consider the following statements regarding the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language:
- It was formed under the provisions of the Official Languages Act, 1963.
- It consists of 30 members only from Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the union Home Minister was unanimously re-elected the Chairperson of the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language.
The Parliamentary Committee on Official Language was constituted under the provisions of Section 4 of the Official Languages Act, 1963, in 1976.
Section 4 of the Act says “there shall be constituted a Committee on Official language, on a resolution to that effect being moved in either House of Parliament with the previous sanction of the President and passed by both Houses”.
The Committee is chaired by the Union Home Minister, and has, in accordance with the provisions of the 1963 Act.
Under the provisions of the 1963 Act, the panel submits its report to the President, who “shall [then] cause the report to be laid before each House of Parliament, and sent to all the State Governments”.
Purpose of the committee
To review the progress made in the use of Hindi for official purposes, and to make recommendations to increase the use of Hindi in official communications.
Members: It comprises 30 members of Parliament, of which 20 are from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha.
Consider the following statements regarding the Air Quality Management Exchange Platform:
- It was launched by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
- It was developed in response to a resolution passed at this year’s United Nations Environment Assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) has developed and launched an Air Quality Management Exchange Platform (AQMx).
It is a platform that provides the latest air quality management guidance and tools proposed to meet WHO Air Quality Guidelines interim targets.
It was developed in response to a resolution passed at this year’s United Nations Environment Assembly to increase regional cooperation and action on improving air quality globally.
Significance of the platform
It will help to address air quality management capacity gaps, notably with curated guidance across key themes, including on how to go about air quality monitoring, inventory development, and health impact assessments.
It will allow decision makers to see a more complete picture of air pollution’s impact and lead to policies that accurately reflect public health needs on a global scale.
The platform will expand to allow regional and sub-regional communities to exchange knowledge about air quality management best practices.
Key facts about Climate and Clean Air Coalition
It was founded in 2012, and convened within the UN Environment Programme (UNEP).
It is a voluntary partnership of more than 160 governments, intergovernmental organizations, and non-governmental organizations.
It works to reduce powerful but short-lived climate pollutants (SLCPs) – methane, black carbon, hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), and tropospheric ozone – that drive both climate change and air pollution.
It aims to connect ambitious agenda setting with targeted mitigation action within countries and sectors.
Consider the following statements regarding the Commission for Scientific and Technical Terminology (CSTT):
- It was formed with an objective to evolve and define scientific and technical terms in Hindi and all Indian languages.
- It is functioning under the Union Ministry of Education.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Commission for Scientific and Technical Terminology (CSTT) has launched a unique website which provides technical terms in all 22 official Indian languages.
It was set up in December 1960, with the objective to evolve and define scientific and technical terms in Hindi and all Indian languages.
It was established under clause (4) of Article 344 of the Constitution of India.
It is functioning under Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education, Government of India with its headquarters at New Delhi.
Primary Function: Evolve standard terminology, propagate its use and distribute it widely.
Other functions:
Preparation and Publication of Bilingual and Trilingual Glossaries involving English/Hindi and other Indian Languages.
Preparation and Publication of National terminology.
Identification and Publication of School Level Terminology and Departmental Glossaries.
Identification of Pan Indian Terms.
Preparation of Definitional Dictionaries and Encyclopedias.
Preparation of University level textbooks, monographs and journals.
Grant-in-Aid to Granth Academies, Textbook Boards and University Cells for University level books in regional languages.
Propagation, expansion and critical review of terms coined and defined through training/orientation programmes, workshops, seminars etc.
Providing necessary terminology to the National Translation Mission.
Recent initiative of Commission for Scientific and Technical Terminology
It has launched the web portal ‘shabd.education.gov.in’ aims to be a central repository for all the terminologies prepared for Indian languages.
Besides all the glossaries of CSTT, other institutions or agencies having such dictionaries are also able to host their work in digital form on this platform.
Consider the following statements regarding Silicon carbide:
- It is synthetically produced crystalline non-oxide ceramic compound.
- It has low thermal conductivity and high-temperature strength.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Odisha Chief Minister graced the ground-breaking ceremony of India’s first silicon carbide manufacturing facility to be set up in Odisha at an investment of Rs 620 crore.
It was discovered by the American inventor Edward G. Acheson in 1891.
Its chemical formula is SiC and it is the most widely used non-oxide ceramic.
Properties
It is exceedingly hard, synthetically produced crystalline compound of silicon and carbon.
In addition to hardness, silicon carbide crystals have fracture characteristics that make them extremely useful in grinding wheels and in abrasive paper and cloth products.
It has high thermal conductivity and high-temperature strength, low thermal expansion, and resistance to chemical reaction which makes it valuable in the manufacture of high-temperature bricks and other refractories.
It is also classed as a semiconductor, having an electrical conductivity between that of metals and insulating materials.
This property, in combination with its thermal properties, makes SiC a promising substitute for traditional semiconductors such as silicon in high-temperature applications.
Applications
It is used in refractory linings and heating elements for industrial furnaces, in wear-resistant parts for pumps and rocket engines.
In semiconducting substrates for light-emitting diodes.
Its primary application is as an abrasive because of its high hardness, which is surpassed only by diamond, cubic boron nitride, and boron carbide.
Consider the following statements regarding Ahaetulla Longirostris, recently seen in the news:
- It is a new snake species with a remarkably long snout.
- It is endemic to the Western Ghats of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A new snake species with an unusually long snout, Ahaetulla Longirostris, has been discovered in India.
About Ahaetulla Longirostris:
It is a new snake species with a remarkably long snout.
The species, named the long-snouted vine snake (Ahaetulla Longirostris), was identified after two specimens were found in vastly different regions, Bihar in the eastern part of the country and Meghalaya in the northeastern region.
Features:
It is notable for its slender, elongated body and striking colouration.
These snakes can grow up to 4 feet in length and are typically bright green ororange-brown, with an orange belly.
Their unique physical features, especially the long snout, distinguish them from other vine snakes.
The head of this snake is triangular, and the snout is extended from the head and measures about 18% of the length of the head.
The species has been observed inhabiting not only forests but also human-dominated areas, such as cities and urban landscapes, showcasing their adaptability to various environments.
Consider the following statements regarding the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA):
- It aims to strengthen global cooperation and efforts for conservation of seven big cat species and their habitats.
- The secretariat of the IBCA is headquartered in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Natural geographic isolation is occurring among Asiatic lion populations in Gujarat, and there is currently no need to translocate them, according to the director general of the International Big Cat Alliance.
About International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA):
It was launched by the Indian Prime Minister in Mysuru on April 9, 2023,at an event commemorating 50 years of Project Tiger in India.
Objective: Strengthen global cooperation and efforts for conservation of seven big cat species (tiger, lion, leopard, snow leopard, cheetah, jaguar and puma) and their habitats.
Out of the seven big cats, five — tiger, lion, leopard, snow leopard, and cheetah — are found in India.
The alliance aims to reach out to 97 range countries covering the natural habitats of the seven big cats.
IBCA has been conceived as a multi-country, multi-agency coalition to strengthen global cooperation and mobilise financial and technical resources to support the entire ecosystem associated with the conservation of these species and their habitats.
It will serve as an evolving platform for convergence of knowledge and best practices, supporting existing specific inter-governmental platforms, while also providing direct support to recovery efforts in potential range habitats.
IBCA would have a multi-pronged approach in broad-basing and establishing linkages in several areas and help in knowledge-sharing, capacity-building, networking, advocacy, finance, and resource support.
IBCA governance consists of an assembly of members, a standing committee, and a secretariat with its headquarters in India.
IBCA has secured the Government of India’s initial support of Rs. 150 crore for five years (2023-24 to 2027-28).
Consider the following statements regarding the Soyuz Spacecraft:
- It is a Russian spacecraft.
- It is primarily used for launching and repairing communication satellites.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A Soyuz spacecraft carrying two Russians and an American docked at the International Space Station (ISS) recently, a little more than three hours after its launch.
About Soyuz Spacecraft:
The Soyuz (saw-yooz) is a Russian spacecraft.
The Soyuz programme is the longest operational human spacecraft programme in the history of space exploration.
What Can the Soyuz Do?
Russian crew members are called cosmonauts. NASA crew members from the United States are called astronauts. Crew members from Europe, Canada, and Japan are also called astronauts.
The Soyuz takes cosmonauts and astronauts to and from the ISS.
The Soyuz spacecraft weigh 7 tonnes; they measure 7.2 m in length and 2.7 m in diameter. A Soyuz has room for three people to ride in it.
The spacecraft also brings food, water, and other essential supplies to the ISS.
The Soyuz serves a dual purpose, acting as a transportation vehicle and a safety measure.
At least one Soyuz remains docked to the space station at all times, ready to serve as an emergency escape pod should the need arise, allowing the crew to quickly evacuate and return to Earth.
The Soyuz spacecraft consists of three distinct modules, each serving a specific purpose.
The Orbital Module, comparable in size to a large van, provides living quarters for the crew during their time in orbit and has the capability to connect directly to the space station.
The Descent Module, as its name suggests, is utilized by the crew during the launch phase and the return journey to Earth. It is specifically designed to withstand the rigors of reentry and ensure a safe landing.
The third modulehouses the spacecraft’s critical life support systems, including batteries, solar panels, and steering engines, all of which are essential for the Soyuz’s operation and the crew’s well-being.
The Soyuz capsule is propelled into space by a Soyuz rocket, with the two components separating once the spacecraft reaches orbit.
While the rocket returns to Earth, the capsule continues its journey, remarkably reaching space in a mere nine minutes.
With reference to Gram Nyayalayas, consider the following statements:
- The State Governments have been vested with the authority of setting up Gram Nyayalayas after proper consultation with the respective High Court.
- They are presided over by a Nyayadhikari who will have the same power and enjoy the same salary and benefits as a Judicial Magistrate First Class.
- They can try only civil suits and not criminal cases.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently said the establishment of Gram Nyayalayas across the country would help improve access to justice.
About Gram Nyayalayas:
Gram Nyayalayas, or village courts, are established under the Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008, for speedy and easy access to the justice system in the rural areas of India.
The Act extends to the whole of India, except to the States of Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, and Sikkim and to the tribal areas specified in the Sixth Schedule to the Constitution of India.
Gram Nyayalayas are aimed at providing inexpensive justice to people in rural areas at their doorsteps.
Constitution:
The State governments have been vested with the authority of setting up one or more nyayalayas, after proper consultation with the respective High Court, in every Panchayat at the intermediate level or group of adjacent Panchayats at the intermediate level of a district.
However, the Act does not make the setting up of Gram Nyayalayas mandatory.
Section 4 of the Act provides for the headquarters of the gram nyayalaya to be situated in the respective Panchayator some other place notified by the state government.
Presiding Officer: The Gram Nyayalayas are presided over by a Nyayadhikari (appointed by the State Government in consultation with the respective High Court), who will have the same power, enjoy the same salary and benefits as a Judicial Magistrate of First Class.
Act as Mobile Court: The Nyayadhikari shall periodically visit villages and may hear the parties and dispose of the cases at the place other than its headquarters.
Territorial Jurisdiction: The State governments are also sanctioned to control and alter the territorial jurisdiction of the Gram Nyayalayas from time to time, depending upon the requirement or circumstance.
The Gram Nyayalayas will try criminal cases, civil suits, claims, or disputes which are specified in the First Schedule and the Second Schedule to the Act.
They are to follow summary procedure in a criminal trial.
Disputes are to be settled as far as possible by bringing about conciliation between the parties, and for this purpose, the Gram Nyayalayas will make use of the conciliators to be appointed for this purpose.
The Gram Nyayalaya shall not be bound by the rules of evidence provided in the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, but shall be guided by the principles of natural justice, subject to any rule made by the High Court.
Appeals:
Criminal matters: An appeal against the decision of the Nyayalaya in a criminal matter can be filed in the Sessions Court of that jurisdiction.
Civil matters: an appeal against any verdict of the gram Nyayalaya concerning a civil matter can be filed in a District Court of the concerned jurisdiction.
With reference to Mithun, consider the following statements:
- It is a heavily built, semi-domesticated bovine species.
- The highest concentration of Mithuns in the world is spread over the North Eastern (NE) region of India.
- It is classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Bovine animal Mithun has been spotted in Assam for the first time, chief minister said recently.
About Mithun:
The Mithun or gayal (Bos frontalis) is a heavily built, semi-domesticated bovine species.
Mithun is believed to have originated more than 8000 years ago and is considered to be a descendent of wild Indian gaur or bison.
It is known as the ‘cattle of the mountain’.
Distribution:
The highest concentration of mithuns in the world is spread over the North Eastern (NE) region of India, with Arunachal Pradesh having the highest population.
It is also found in parts of Southeast Asia, viz.,Bangladesh, Myanmar, and Bhutan.
The geographic zone is covered with tropical evergreen rain forests.
It is the state animal of Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland.
The ‘Soulung’ festival is observed annually by the Adi tribes of Arunachal Pradesh to commemorate the birth and arrival of Mithun on this earth.
Physical Features:
Mithun appears somewhat similar to that of Guar (Indian bison) but is smaller in size.
Like Guars, they are strongly built, large-sized fleshy animals with an average weight of 400- 650 kg.
The characteristic feature of Mithun lies in the head, which has a well-developed, broad frontal bone with a flat-shaped face and from the front view, it appears like an inverted triangle from where two horns emerge from the lateral sides.
Horn colour varies from whitish yellow to salty black in most animals.
The young mithuns are light to dark brown in colour, which darkens with age.
In adult mithuns, the most common colour is black with white markings and white with black marking. Other than these two, albino or pure black is also found.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
CITES: Appendix I
Consider the following statements regarding the Mission Mausam:
- It is a transformative initiative to boost India’s weather and climate-related science, research, and services.
- It will be implemented by the Indian Space Research Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister of India has approved ‘Mission Mausam’ with an outlay of Rs.2,000 crore over two years.
It is envisaged to be a multi-faceted and transformative initiative to tremendously boost India’s weather and climate-related science, research, and services.
It will exponentially expound research and development, and capacity in atmospheric sciences, especially weather surveillance, modelling, forecasting, and management. By integrating advanced observation systems, high-performance computing, and cutting-edge technologies like artificial intelligence and machine learning.
Its focus will include improving observations and understanding for providing highly accurate and timely weather and climate information across temporal and spatial scales, including monsoon forecasts, alerts for air quality, extreme weather events and cyclones, weather interventions for managing fog, hail, and rain, etc., capacity building and generating awareness.
Critical elements of Mission Mausam will include the deployment of next-generation radars and satellite systems with advanced sensors and high-performance supercomputers, the development of improved Earth system models and a GIS-based automated Decision Support System for real-time data dissemination.
Implemented by:
Three institutes of the Ministry of Earth Sciences: the India Meteorological Department, the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology, and the National Centre for Medium-Range Weather Forecasting will primarily implement Mission Mausam.
These institutions will be supported by other MoES institutions, along with collaborating national and international Institutes, Academia and Industries, furthering India’s leadership in weather and climate sciences and services.
It will directly benefit numerous sectors, such as
Agriculture, disaster management, defence, environment, aviation, water resources, power, tourism, shipping, transport, energy, and health. It would also enhance data-driven decision making in areas such as urban planning, road and rail transport, offshore operations, and environmental monitoring.
Consider the following statements regarding the Trade Connect e-platform:
- It is developed by the Reserve Bank of India.
- It aims at transforming the landscape of international trade for Indian exporters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the union Minister for Commerce and Industry launched the Trade Connect e-platform.
It is a new digital initiative aimed at transforming the landscape of international trade for Indian exporters, especially MSMEs (Medium, Small and Medium Enterprises).
It will connect Indian Exporters, MSMEs and Entrepreneurs with various stakeholders including Indian Missions Abroad, Export Promotion Councils, and other Partner Government Agencies.
The platform will provide information on trade events taking place in different parts of the world, benefits available due to India’s Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) and other international trade-related information and data.
The platform, developed in collaboration with key partners including the Ministry of MSME, EXIM Bank, Department of Financial Services (DFS), and the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA).
Significance
This initiative aligns with the government’s broader vision of promoting a Digital India, fostering greater transparency, and empowering businesses by providing them with seamless access to crucial trade information.
It will reduce the costs, lead times, and complexities associated with global trade, ultimately ensuring that Indian businesses can thrive in the international marketplace.
Consider the following statements regarding the Southern Birdwing butterfly:
- It is also known as Sahyadri Birdwing and mainly found in Western Ghats region.
- It is the state butterfly of Karnataka.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, a Southern Birdwing butterfly has been found on the satellite campus of The American College in Madurai district of Tamil Nadu.
It is also called the ‘Sahyadri Birdwing’ and it is India’s second largest butterfly species.
Distribution: It is a large and striking butterfly species found in South Asia, majorly in the Western Ghats.
It is exceptionally large in size, with wings that exceed the dimensions of smaller birds. This notable wingspan is the reason behind its name, “birdwing.“
Males typically have black wings with greenish-blue markings, while females have a more extensive pattern with cream-coloured markings.
It is the state butterfly of Karnataka.
Conservation status
IUCN: Least concern
Consider the following statements regarding National Florence Nightingale Award:
- It is instituted by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
- It is awarded as a mark of recognition for the meritorious services rendered by the doctors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the President of India presented the National Florence Nightingale Awards for the year 2024.
It was instituted by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India in the year 1973.
The award is given to outstanding nursing personnel employed in Central, State/UTs and Voluntary Organizations.
It was awarded as a mark of recognition for the meritorious services rendered by the nurses and nursing professionals to the society.
The nurse in her/his regular job in the hospital or community settings, educational or administrative setting is eligible for the national award.
Each award consists of a Certificate of Merit, Cash Award of Rs.1,00,000/- and a medal.
Who is Florence Nightingale?
Florence Nightingale was an English social reformer, statistician and the founder of modern nursing.
Nightingale came to prominence while serving as a manager and trainer of nurses during the Crimean War, in which she organised care for wounded soldiers at Constantinople.
Her efforts to formalize nursing education led her to establish the first scientifically based nursing school—the Nightingale School of Nursing, at St. Thomas’ Hospital in London.
Consider the following statements regarding the PM E-DRIVE Scheme:
- It is an electric mobility promotion scheme in India approved for a period of two years.
- Under this scheme an adhaar-authenticated e-voucher will be issued to avail demand incentives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister India has approved the proposal of the Ministry of Heavy Industries (MHI) for implementation of a scheme titled ‘PM E-DRIVE Scheme’.
PM Electric Drive Revolution in Innovative Vehicle Enhancement (PM E-DRIVE) scheme has an outlay of Rs 10,900 crore over a period of two years for promotion of electric mobility in the country.
Components of the scheme
Subsidies and Demand Incentives: The scheme allocates Rs 3,679 crore to incentivise the purchase of electric two-wheelers (e-2Ws), three-wheelers (e-3Ws), electric ambulances, trucks, and other emerging EV categories.
E-Vouchers for EV Buyers: Buyers of electric vehicles will be issued an e-voucher under the scheme to avail demand incentives. The e-voucher will be Aadhaar-authenticated and sent to the buyer’s registered mobile number after the purchase.
E-Ambulance Deployment: A budget of Rs 500 crore has been allocated to deploy electric ambulances. This new initiative aims to provide comfortable and environmentally friendly patient transport. Performance and safety standards for e-ambulances will be developed in consultation with MoHFW, MoRTH, and other relevant stakeholders.
Incentives for E-Trucks: Under this component Rs 500 crore has been allocated to promote the deployment of e-trucks, a major contributor to air pollution. Those who hold a scrapping certificate from authorised MoRTH Vehicle Scrapping Centres (RVSFs) will be eligible for the incentives.
Charging Infrastructure: To address range anxiety and support the growth of electric vehicles, Rs 2,000 crore will be used to install public charging stations (EVPCS) in cities with high EV penetration and along selected highways.
Why are tardigrades considered extremophiles?
They can survive in extreme environments.
Explanation :
Detailed 3D images of the first tardigrade fossils ever discovered help scientists predict when tardigrades evolved their near-indestructibility, which helps them survive in extreme environments.
About Tardigrades:
Tardigrades, often called water bears or moss piglets, are microscopic eight-legged animals.
They are free-living tiny invertebrates belonging to the phylum Tardigrada.
Around 1,300 species of tardigrades are found worldwide.
Habitat:
Considered aquatic because they require a thin layer of water around their bodies to prevent dehydration, they’ve also been observed in all kinds of environments, from the deep sea to sand dunes.
Freshwater mosses and lichens are their preferred habitat, hence their nickname, moss piglet.
They belong to an elite category of animals known as extremophiles, or critters that can survive extreme environments.
They can survive punishing heat, freezing cold, ultraviolet radiation, and even outer space.
Under unfavourable conditions, they go into a state of suspended animation called the “tun” state—in which the body dries out and appears as a lifeless ball (or tun).
Tardigrades can survive as tuns for years, or even decades.
Physical Features:
Tardigrades are short, plump, and covered in a tough cuticle (similar to that of grasshoppers and other insects) that they must shed to grow.
Tardigrades are mostly about 1 mm (0.04 inch) or less in size.
Their tiny bodies contain no bones and are instead supported by a hydrostatic skeleton – a fluid-filled compartment known as a hemolymph.
They have four pairs of legs, with 4-6 claws on each foot.
Their specialised mouthpart–called a bucco pharyngeal apparatus–allows them to suck the nutrients out of plants and other microorganisms.
Jamshedpur City lies on the banks of which one of the following rivers?
Subarnarekha
Explanation :
A large python was recently rescued from the Subarnarekha River at Jhargram in West Bengal, causing a stir in the area.
About Subarnarekha River:
It is one of the longest east-flowing interstate rivers.
‘Subarnarekha’ means ‘Streak of Gold.’The river is known as the storehouse of gold.
It flows through the states of Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha.
Course:
Origin: It rises near Nagri village in the Ranchi District of Jharkhand at an elevation of 600 m.
It flows east through a copper-mining region and leaves the Chota Nagpur plateau by the Hundrugbagh waterfall.
Continuing eastward, it flows across West Bengal state.
It runs through some major industrial towns and cities, i.e., Jamshedpur, Chaibasa, Ranchi, and Bhadrak,before joining the Bay of Bengal at Kirtania port in Odisha.
It flows for a length of 395 km.
The basin is bounded on the north-west by the Chhotnagpur Plateau, in the south-west by the Brahmani basin, in the south by the Burhabalang basin and in the south-east by the Bay of Bengal.
The principal tributaries of the river are Kanchi, Kharkai, and Karkari.
Consider the following statements regarding Storm Shadow Missile, recently seen in the news:
- It is a long-range air-launched ballistic missile.
- It is jointly developed by the United Kingdom and France.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The United Kingdom has reportedly given clearance for Ukraine to use Storm Shadow cruise missiles to target Russian territories.
About Storm Shadow Missile:
It is a low-observable, long-range air-launched cruise missile.
It is jointly developed by the United Kingdom and France.
‘Storm Shadow’ is the weapon’s British name, while in France it is called the SCALP-EG.
The missile is intended to strike high-value stationary assets such as airbases, radar installations, communications hubs, and port facilities.
It is also in service with the air forces of Egypt, India, Italy, Greece, Saudi Arabia, Qatar, and the United Arab Emirates (UAE).
Features:
It has a range of around 500 km.
The missile weighs 1,300 kilos and is armed with conventional explosives.
It is around five metres long and has a wingspan of three metres.
The missile is launched from aircraft, flying close to the speed of sound while hugging the terrain before descending and detonating its high-explosive warhead.
It makes use ofinertial navigation, GPS, and terrain referencing to fly low, which stops it from being seen.
The missile also makes use of an infrared camera to match up the target with a stored picture.
Each missile costs around $1 million.
With reference to the Tropical Forests, consider the following statements:
- They make up more than twenty percent of Earth’s land surface area.
- More than fifty percent of land-based plant and animal species on Earth can be found in tropical forests.
- They are crucial carbon sinks, storing about a quarter of all terrestrial carbon on Earth.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A new study has revealed that ozone pollution is significantly hindering the growth of tropical forests, leading to a loss of nearly 300 million tonnes of carbon each year.
About Tropical Forests:
Tropical forests are rich ecosystems located in tropical zones surrounding the equator.
They make up six percent of Earth’s land surface area.
They have a dense upper canopy of broad-leafed trees.
These forests are known for supporting a wide variety of plant and animal life and have nutrient-poor soils with rapid decomposition.
More than 50 percent of land-based plant and animal species on Earth can be found in tropical forests.
They encompass both tropical deciduous forests and tropical rainforests.
Tropical rainforests occur in regions of the tropics where temperatures are always high and where rainfall exceeds about 1,800 to 2,500 mm (about 70 to 100 inches) annually and occurs fairly evenly throughout the year.
Similar hot climates in which annual rainfall lies between about 800 and 1,800 mm and in which a pronounced season of low rainfall occurs typically supports tropical deciduous forests.
The nations with the most tropical forest area are Brazil, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Indonesia, Peru, and Columbia, in that order.
Cameroon, the Central African Republic, Bolivia, Ecuador, Guyana, Gabon, the Republic of Congo, Malaysia, Laos, Myanmar, Papua New Guinea, India, Suriname, Venezuela, and Mexico also have vast areas of rainforest.
Brazil is home to about a third of the planet’s remaining tropical rainforests, including two-thirds of the Amazon rainforest.
Tropical forests play a critical part in the planet’s water cycle and are crucial carbon sinks, storing about a quarter of all terrestrial carbon on Earth.
Consider the following statements regarding Software-as-a-Service (SaaS):
- It is a cloud-based method of delivering software where users subscribe to access applications on the Internet rather than purchasing them outright.
- It allows businesses/users to focus on their core activities without worrying about the technical complexities of software management.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
AI-powered Software as a Service (SaaS)platforms are changing industries by improving efficiency and driving innovation.
About Software-as-a-Service (SaaS):
SaaS is a cloud-based method of delivering software where users subscribe to access applications on the Internet rather than purchasing them outright.
The software is located on external servers rather than on servers located in-house.
SaaS vendors host services and applications for customers to access on-demand.
These services are available to end-users over the internet, so the end-users do not need to install any software on their devices to access these services.
Common SaaS examples include email, calendaring, and cloud-based collaborative tools like Slack.
This model operates similarly to streaming services, offering flexible, subscription-based access from any compatible device.
By hosting the software in the cloud, SaaS provides a complete solution that enhances accessibility and convenience, allowing users to connect and use these apps on a pay-as-you-go basis.
The SaaS model shifts the burden of maintaining and hosting the software to the SaaS provider.
This shift results in substantial benefits, such as consistent maintenance, robust security, and guaranteeing that the software remains continuously accessible and current.
This setup allows businesses to focus on their core activities without worrying about the technical complexities of software management.
Exercise AL NAJAH, a joint military exercise, recently seen in news is conducted between India and:
Oman
Explanation :
Recently, the Indian Army contingent departed to take participation in the 5th edition of Exercise AL NAJAH.
It is a joint military exercise between India-Oman.
The exercise is scheduled to be conducted from 13th to 26th September 2024 at Rabkoot Training Area in Salalah, Oman.
Exercise AL NAJAH has been held biennially since 2015, alternating between India and Oman. Last edition of the same exercise was conducted at Mahajan in Rajasthan.
The Indian Army contingent comprising 60 personnel is being represented by a Battalion of the Mechanised Infantry Regiment.
Aim of the Joint Exercise is to enhance joint military capability of both sides to undertake counter terrorism operations under Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter. The exercise will focus on operations in the Desert environment.
Tactical drills to be rehearsed during the exercise include Joint Planning, Cordon and Search Operation, Fighting in Built Up Area, establishment of Mobile Vehicle Check Post, Counter Drone and Room Intervention, among others. Combined field training exercises that simulate real-world counter-terrorism missions have also been planned.
With reference to Lion-tailed Macaque, consider the following statements:
- It is an Old World monkey which is characterised by the grey mane.
- It is categorized as critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
- It is mainly found in fragmented rainforests of the Western Ghats
How many of the above given statements are correct?
Two only
Explanation :
A lion-tailed macaque (LTM) has given birth to a young macaque at the Chamundi Rescue and Rehabilitation Centre for the Wild Animals, at Koorgalli on the outskirts of Mysuru, Karnataka.
The Lion-tailed macaque (Macaca silenus) is an Old World monkey.
One of the distinguishing features of this species is that males define the boundaries of their home ranges by calls.
Overall, their communication system contains as many as 17 vocalisations.
Appearance
They are characterised by the grey mane around their face.
They are sometimes called bearded monkeys.
The magnificent Lion-tailed macaque is named due to its lion-like, long, thin, and tufted tail.
Habitat
In the wild, these are only native to India.
It is a primate endemic to small and severely fragmented rainforests of the Western Ghats in Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
Threat: The biggest threat to the overall population of this species is the destruction of their rainforest habitat.
Conservation status
IUCN: Endangered
CITES: Appendix I
The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Saarthi app:
- It is designed to assist businesses in creating their own customised buyer-side apps.
- It has features like real-time translation, transliteration, and voice recognition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) launched Saarthi app in collaboration with Bhashini.
It is a reference application designed to assist businesses in creating their own customised buyer-side apps.
It supports network participants in building buyer apps with multilingual features.
The app initially supports Hindi, English, Marathi, Bangla and Tamil, with plans to scale up to all 22 languages provided by Bhashini.
Features: It includes real-time translation, transliteration, and voice recognition to allow businesses to expand market reach, enabling companies to tap into new regions and increase customer acquisition.
What is Bhashini?
It is India’s Artificial Intelligence (AI)-led language translation platform.
It seeks to enable easy access to the internet and digital services in Indian languages, including voice-based access, and help the creation of content in Indian languages.
It aims to make Artificial Intelligence and Natural Language Processing (NLP) resources available in the public domain to be used by – Indian MSMEs, startups and individual innovators.
This will help developers to offer all Indians easy access to the internet and digital services in their native languages.
This online platform also has a separate ‘Bhasadaan’ section which allows individuals to contribute to multiple crowdsourcing initiatives, and it is also accessible via respective Android and iOS apps.
Hence both statements are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Salt Pan Lands:
- These are low-lying lands where seawater flows in at certain times which leave behind salt and other minerals.
- In India, all economic activities are allowed in these lands except natural gas exploration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The union government recenlty approved the transfer of 256 acres of salt pan land in Mumbai to the Dharavi Redevelopment Project Pvt Ltd (DRPPL) which invited criticism from opposition leaders.
These are parcels of low-lying lands where seawater flows in at certain times, and leaves behind salt and other minerals.
This ecosystem is instrumental in protecting the city from flooding.
According to the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) notification of 2011, the ecologically sensitive salt pans fall under CRZ-1B category, where no economic activity is allowed with the exception of salt extraction and natural gas exploration.
Nationally, some 60,000 acres have been demarcated as salt pan lands, spread across Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Odisha, Gujarat, and Karnataka.
Andhra Pradesh (20,716 acres) boasts the largest expanse of such land, followed by Tamil Nadu (17,095 acres) and Maharashtra (12,662 acres).
Ecological Significance: Salt pans, which, along with the mangroves, stop the city from flooding, also host various species of birds and insects.
What are Coastal Regulation Zones?
The coastal land up to 500m from the High Tide Line (HTL) and a stage of 100m along banks of creeks, estuaries, backwater and rivers subject to tidal fluctuations, is called the Coastal Regulation Zone.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Sakthan Thampuran:
- He was a ruler belonging to the Rashtrakuta dynasty.
- He ended the institution of the Yogiatirippads in his kingdom during his reign.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the union Minister of State for Tourism pledged to replace a statue of Sakthan Thampuran that was knocked over by a state transport bus in June.
Sakthan Thampuran, also known as Raja Rama Varma Kunjipillai or Rama Varma IX and ruled over the Cochin kingdom from 1790 to 1805.
He was born in 1751 to Ambika Thampuran and Chendose Aniyan Namboodiri of the Cochin royal family, but was raised by an aunt who called him Sakthan, meaning ‘powerful’.
Strategist and ruler
As an 18-year-old he advised his king to maintain friendly relations with both the Dutch and the English, who were vying for a larger share of trade in the region.
Sakthan is said to have orchestrated Mysore’s attempt to invade the Travancore kingdom, which had established relations with the English East India Company.
This would result in the Powney treaty which freed the Cochin kingdom from its allegiance to Mysore, and helped formulate its relations with the British.
He ended the institution of the Yogiatirippads — the erstwhile spiritual heads of key temples of that time.
He started the Thrissur Pooram in 1797 as an alternative to the Arattupuzha Pooram, then the largest temple festival in the state.
The Irula Tribe primarily lives in which one of the following groups of states?
Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka
Explanation :
The Irula Snake Catchers’ Industrial Cooperative Society, a cooperative society of Irula tribals located on Chennai’s outskirts, is facing an uncertain future.
About Irula Tribe:
Irulas are one of India’s oldest indigenous communities.
They are a particularly vulnerable tribal group (PVTG).
They live primarily in the northern districts of Tamil Nadu, as well as in parts of Kerala and Karnataka.
Language: Their language, Irula, is related to Tamil and Kannada, which are southern Dravidian languages.
Religious Beliefs:
The Irula people don’t have a definite god for them. They are pantheists who make provision for the presence of spirits in humans and objects.
Their main deity is a virgin goddess called Kanniamma, who is deeply associated with the cobra.
Irula houses are built together in small settlements or villages called mottas. The mottas are usually situated on the edges of steep hills and are surrounded by a few dry fields, gardens, and forests or plantations.
Traditionally, they have been skilled hunters, gatherers, and honey collectors, relying on the forest for their sustenance and livelihood.
They are specialists in traditional herbal medicine and healing practices.
Irulas’ knowledge of snakes and snake venom is legendary. Their expertise is often sought after in snake rescue and rehabilitation projects.
The Irula Snake Catchers’ Industrial Cooperative Society is a major producer of anti-snake venom (ASV) in the country. It supplies almost 80 percent of the venom that goes into making anti-venom in India.
They use traditional knowledge and skills to catch snakes, extract venom, and release the snakes back into the wild without harming them.
Consider the following statements regarding the Gulf of Mexico:
- It is a marginal sea of the Atlantic Ocean.
- It is surrounded by the United States of America, Caribbean Islands, Mexico, and Cuba.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
About 42% of crude oil production and 53% of natural gas output in the U.S. Gulf of Mexico were shut-in recently in the wake of Hurricane Francine.
About Gulf of Mexico:
It is a partially landlocked body of water on the southeastern periphery of the North American continent.
It is a marginal sea of the Atlantic Ocean and the world’s largest gulf.
It is surrounded to the west by the Mexican Yucatan and Veracruz regions, to the north by the United States, to the east by the Caribbean islands and Cuba, and to the south by the tapering Mexican mainland.
It is connected to the Caribbean Sea via the Yucatán Channel (between Cuba and Mexico) and with the Atlantic Ocean through the Straits of Florida (between Cuba and the US).
It is one of the largest and oldest water bodies on Earth. It was formed in the late Triassic period, around 300 million years ago.
It was formed as a result of seafloor subsidence due to the movement of the tectonic plates.
Often referred to as the “Mediterranean of the Americas”, the Gulf of Mexico is the 9th largest water body, measuring approximately 1,600 km from west to east and about 900 km from north to south.
It covers an area of some 600,000 square miles (1,550,000 square km).
It is somewhat shallow, along the coastal continental shelf areas, and has an average depth of 1,615 m.
Climate:
The climate varies from tropical to subtropical type.
The region experiences some of the most severe weather in the world, including major hurricanes, tornadoes, and thunderstorms.
The seawater from the Caribbean Sea that enters the Gulf of Mexico via the Yucatán Channel, quickly circulates in a clockwise loop current before exiting the Gulf through the Florida Straits, eventually forming the Gulf Stream.
It is one of the most powerful and warm ocean currents that flow from the Gulf of Mexico towards the northern Atlantic Ocean.
The Mississippi and the Rio Grande are the major rivers draining into the gulf.
The shallow continental shelf regions of the Gulf of Mexico contain large deposits of petroleum and natural gas.
It is the center of the United States’ oil refining and petrochemical industry, and hence more than 18% of the US oil production is derived from the offshore wells in the Gulf of Mexico.
Hence both statements are correct.
With reference to the Scheme of budgetary support for the cost of Enabling Infrastructure for Hydro Electric Projects (HEP), consider the following statements:
- The scheme to be implemented from FY 2024-25 to FY 2031-32, aims to enhance infrastructure and support the development of hydropower in India.
- It applies only to hydro projects over 100 MW, including private sector projects.
- Budgetary support limits have been revised to Rs. 1 crore per MW for projects up to 200 MW.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Union Cabinet recently approved the proposal of the Ministry of Power for modification of the scheme of budgetary support for the cost of Enabling Infrastructure for Hydro Electric Projects (HEP) with a total outlay of Rs.12461 crore.
About Scheme of budgetary support for the cost of Enabling Infrastructure for Hydro Electric Projects (HEP):
This scheme, set to run from FY 2024-25 to FY 2031-32, aims to enhance infrastructure and support the development of hydro power in India.
The scheme addresses major challenges such as remote locations and inadequate infrastructure by broadening its scope to cover additional costs.
This includes funding for the construction of transmission lines, upgrading pooling substations, and developing ropeways, railway sidings, and communication infrastructure.
It also supports the strengthening of existing roads and bridges leading to project sites.
The scheme is set to support hydro power projects with a cumulative generation capacity of approximately 31,350 MW.
It applies to all hydro projects over 25 MW, including private sector projects, and Pumped Storage Projects (PSPs).
Budgetary support limits have been revised to Rs. 1 crore per MW for projects up to 200 MW, and Rs. 200 crores plus Rs. 0.75 crore per MW for projects above 200 MW, with potential increases up to Rs. 1.5 crore per MW in exceptional cases.
The scheme also incorporates a rigorous approval process, where budgetary support will be granted following cost appraisals by the Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIB) and Public Investment Board (PIB), and subsequent approval by the Competent Authority.
The projects whose Letter of Award of the first major package is issued by June 30, 2028, will be eligible under the scheme.
Hence option b is the correct answe
Consider the following statements regarding World Heritage Sites (WHS):
- These are cultural and/or natural sites inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List.
- The country with the most number of World Heritage Sites is France.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently dismissed an application seeking to declare the city of Agra as a “World Heritage Site.”
About World Heritage Site (WHS):
World Heritage Sites are cultural and/or natural sites with legal protection inscribed on the United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) World Heritage List.
These sites are designated by UNESCO for having cultural, historical, scientific, or other forms of significance.
The sites are designated as having “outstanding universal value” under the Convention Concerning the Protection of the World Cultural and Natural Heritage (World Heritage Convention).
This document was adopted by UNESCO in 1972 and formally took effect in 1975 after having been ratified by 20 countries.
It provides a framework for international cooperation in preserving and protecting cultural treasures and natural areas throughout the world.
Designating WHS: There are three types of sites: cultural, natural, and mixed.
Cultural heritage sites include hundreds of historic buildings and town sites, important archaeological sites, and works of monumental sculpture or painting.
Natural heritage sites are restricted to those natural areas that
furnish outstanding examples of Earth’s record of life or its geologic processes,
provide excellent examples of ongoing ecological and biological evolutionary processes
contain natural phenomena that are rare, unique, superlative, or of outstanding beauty, or
furnish habitats for rare or endangered animals or plants or are sites of exceptional biodiversity.
Mixed heritage sites contain elements of both natural and cultural significance.
As of July 2024, a total of 1,199 World Heritage Sites (933 cultural, 227 natural, and 39 mixed properties) exist across 168 countries.
The countries with the most sites are Italy (59), China (57), Germany (52), France (52), Spain (50), India (42), Mexico (35), the United Kingdom (33) and Russia (31).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestinian Refugees in the Near East (UNRWA):
- It is a subsidiary agency created by the United Nations (UN) to provide support for Palestinians who lost their means of livelihood during the Arab-Israeli wars.
- It is funded almost entirely by private individuals and NGO’s.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
An Israeli strike on an UNRWA school-turned-shelter has killed at least 18 people and injured over a dozen others in Nuseirat, Gaza.
About United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestinian Refugees in the Near East (UNRWA):
It is a subsidiary agency created by the United Nations (UN) General Assembly in 1949.
Objective: To provide relief, health, and education services for Palestinians who lost both their homes and their means of livelihood during the Arab-Israeli wars following the establishment of the State of Israel in 1948.
Headquarters:
Beginning operations in 1950, UNRWA was originally headquartered in Beirut but was moved to Vienna in 1978.
Following the conclusion of the Oslo Accords in the early 1990s, the General Assembly moved the agency to the Gaza Strip in 1996 to demonstrate the General Assembly’s commitment to the Arab-Israeli peace process.
In the absence of a solution to the Palestine refugee problem, the General Assembly has repeatedly renewed UNRWA’s mandate, most recently extending it until 30 June 2026.
Services: The agency’s services encompass education, health care, relief and social services, camp infrastructure and improvement, microfinance, and emergency assistance, including in times of armed conflict
Fields of operations: It provides services in its five fields of operations: Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, the Gaza Strip, and the West Bank, including the East of Jerusalem.
It supports more than five million registered Palestinian refugees, and their patrilineal descendants, who fled or were expelled from their homes during the 1948 Palestine war, as well as those who fled or were expelled during and following the 1967 Six Day war.
Funding:
It is funded almost entirely by voluntary contributions from UN Member States.
UNRWA also receives some funding from the Regular Budget of the UN, which is used mostly for international staffing costs.
Its chief officer, the commissioner-general—the only leader of a UN agency to report directly to the General Assembly—is appointed by the UN secretary-general with the approval of an Advisory Commission.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
Onitis bordati, recently in news is a:
Dung beetle
Explanation :
Recently, researchers have identified a previously unknown dung beetle species, Onitis bordati, in the Nongkhyllem Wildlife Sanctuary in Meghalaya.
It is a dung beetle species belonging to the genus Onitis.
Appearance: Males of most species have distinctive forelegs that are long, slender, and curved, often with teeth or spines.
The species belonging to the genus Onitis are tunnellers. Males of most species have distinctive forelegs that are long, slender, and curved, often with teeth or spines.
Dung beetle species were previously only found in Vietnam and Thailand.
Ecological Significance: They are known for their ecological functions, such as seed dispersal, nutrient cycling, and pest control, and plant growth.
Threats: Habitat destruction and climate change posing significant threats.
Key facts about Nongkhyllem Wildlife Sanctuary
Location: The Sanctuary falls in the Eastern Himalayan Global bio-diversity hot spot and located in the state of Meghalaya.
The area consists of undulating plains to low hills, which are part of the Archaean Meghalaya Plateau.
The area has become broken and rugged, especially towards west and north, because of continuous erosion by the rivers Umtrew, Umran, Umling, Umtasor and other smaller streams.
The Umtrew is the main river of the area and the rest named above are its tributaries. The Umtrew also marks the western boundary of the Reserve Forest and the Sanctuary.
Fauna: It is home to Clouded Leopard, majestic Elephants, and the powerful Himalayan Black Bear.
Flora: Shorea robusta, Tectona grandis, Terminalia myriocarpa, Gmelina arborea etc.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Instructional Media Institute:
- It is a nodal organization for development of Instructional Media Packages and digital content.
- It works under the Union Ministry of Labour & Employment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the National Instructional Media Institute (NIMI) launched YouTube Channels for Industrial Training Institute (ITI) Students.
About National Instructional Media Institute:
It was formerly known as Central Instructional Media Institute (CIMI) was established in December 1986 by the Government of India as a Subordinate Office under Directorate General of Employment and Training (DGE&T), Ministry of Labour & Employment.
Presently, NIMI is functioning as an autonomous institute under Directorate General of Training (DGT), Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE), the Govt. of India.
It is the nodal organization for development of Instructional Media Packages (IMP), including digital content, Question Banks for assessment, for different Vocational courses.
Recent initiative of NIMI
It has launched YouTube Channels for Industrial Training Institute.
It will provide high-quality training videos to millions of learners across India’s Industrial Training Institute (ITI) skill ecosystem, available in nine languages.
The new channels—offered in English, Hindi, Tamil, Bengali, Marathi, Punjabi, Malayalam, Telugu, and Kannada—are aimed at helping learners improve their technical skills through free, easy-to-access digital resources.
Each channel has tutorials, skill demonstrations, and theoretical lessons, all curated by industry experts to ensure relevance in today’s vocational training landscape.
This initiative aligns with India’s National Skill Development Mission and the goals of the New Education Policy (NEP).
NIMI encourages ITI students, instructors, and skilling enthusiasts to subscribe to their preferred regional channels to stay updated with the latest content.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Rangeen Machhli App:
- It provides multilingual information on popular ornamental fish species in eight Indian languages.
- It is developed by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research and Central Institute of Freshwater Aquaculture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the union Minister for Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying launched the “Rangeen Machhli” mobile app at ICAR-Central Institute of Freshwater Aquaculture (ICAR-CIFA), Bhubaneswar.
It is designed to meet the growing needs of the ornamental fisheries sector, providing crucial knowledge resources for hobbyists, aquarium shop owners, and fish farmers.
It is developed by ICAR-CIFA with support from the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY).
Features
It provides multilingual information on popular ornamental fish species in eight Indian languages, making it accessible to a wide audience.
The app offers comprehensive details on care, breeding, and maintenance practices to both farmers and hobbyists.
One of its key features is the “Find Aquarium Shops” tool, which allows users to locate nearby aquarium shops through a dynamic directory updated by shop owners, promoting local businesses and connecting users with reliable sources for ornamental fish and aquarium-related products.
In addition, the app includes educational modules for both newcomers and professionals in the ornamental fish industry.
What is the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)?
It is the apex body for coordinating, guiding and managing research and education in agriculture in the entire country under the aegis of DARE, Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Hence both statements are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the OpenAI o1 model:
- It is a new large language model trained with reinforcement learning to perform complex reasoning.
- It cannot browse the internet and process files and images.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, OpenAI has released a new AI model called o1 and also released a smaller, cheaper version of the o1 called o1-mini.
It is a new large language model trained with reinforcement learning to perform complex reasoning.
It thinks before it answers—it can produce a long internal chain of thought before responding to the user.
This model can reason through complex tasks and solve harder problems than previous models in science, coding, and math.
According to the company, the model is a progressive step toward achieving human-like AI.
It also demonstrates tangible improvements in key areas, such as generating code and tackling complex, multistep challenges with greater proficiency than its predecessors.
It has trained these models to spend more time thinking through problems before it responds, much like a human would.
The o1 model scored 83 per cent on the qualifying exam for the International Mathematics Olympiad, OpenAI said in its blog post. This is a vast improvement from the 13 per cent scored by its predecessor, GPT-4o.
OpenAI’s previous GPT models were simply taught to provide answers by detecting patterns in training data.
But, in the case of o1, researchers at the organisation first taught the model using a system of rewards and penalties.
Then, o1 was taught to process user queries by breaking them down and going through them one step at a time.
Currently, the o1 can neither browse the internet nor process files and images. It also lacks factual information about recent world events.
Hence both statements are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Port Blair:
- It is located on the West coast of the South Andaman Island.
- It was used by the Chola emperor as a strategic naval base during the 11th century AD.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the union Home Minister said that Port Blair will be renamed as ‘Sri Vijaya Puram’.
It is the capital city and the entry point of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
It was named after Archibald Blair, a naval surveyor and lieutenant in the Bombay Marine. Blair was the first officer to carry out a thorough survey of the Andaman Islands.
It is located on the east coast of the South Andaman Island.
It is also the place that hosted the first unfurling of our Tiranga by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose.
Port Blair’s connection with the imperial Cholas and Srivijaya
Some historical records suggest that the Andaman Islands were used as a strategic naval base by the 11th century Chola emperor, Rajendra I to carry out an attack on Srivijaya, which is in present day Indonesia.
As per an inscription found at Thanjavur dated to 1050 CE, the Cholas referred to the island as Ma-Nakkavaram land (great open/ naked land), which possibly led to the modern name of Nicobar under the British.
As noted by historian Herman Kulke in his co-edited edited book, Nagapattinam to Suvarnadwipa: Reflections on the Chola Naval Expeditions to Southeast Asia (2010), the Chola invasion of Srivijaya was a unique event in the history of India and “its otherwise peaceful relations with the states of Southeast Asia which had come under India’s strong cultural influence for about a millennium.”
Others like the American historian G W Spencer interprets the Srivijaya expedition as to be part of the Chola expansionism which had been ongoing for decades culminating in wars with other empires of South India and Sri Lanka.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
The Chamran-1 Research Satellite, recently seen in the news, was launched by which one of the following countries?
Iran
Explanation :
Iran has successfully launched its research satellite, Chamran-1, into space recently.
About Chamran-1 Research Satellite:
It is an Iranian research satellite designed and manufactured by Iranian engineers at Iran Electronics Industries (SAIran), a defense ministry subsidiary, in collaboration with the Aerospace Research Institute and several private firms.
It was put into orbit at an altitude of 550 kilometers (341 miles) above the Earth’s surface onboard a homegrown Ghaem-100 space launch vehicle (SLV).
The Ghaem-100 rocket, which carried the latest satellite, is manufactured by the Aerospace Force of the Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC).
It is Iran’s first three-stage solid-fuel satellite launcher.
Weighing approximately 60 kilograms, the primary mission of the Chamran-1 is to test hardware and software systems for orbital maneuver technology validation.
The satellite also has secondary tasks, including assessing the performance of cold gas propulsion subsystems in space systems, and performance evaluation of navigation and attitude control subsystems.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
Which among the following best describes ‘Trilobites’, recently seen in the news?
A group of extinct marine arthropods
Explanation :
A new study finds that a trilobite species with exceptionally well-preserved fossils from upstate New York has an additional set of legs underneath its head.
About Trilobites:
They are a group of extinct marine arthropods.
Tri-lob-ite means three-part-body in Latin.
They first appeared around 521 million years ago, shortly after the beginning of the Cambrian period, living through the majority of the Palaeozoic Era for nearly 300 million years.
They died out at the end of the Permian, 251 million years ago, killed by the end Permian mass extinction event that removed over 90% of all species on Earth.
Features:
They are recognized by their distinctive three-lobed, three-segmented form.
Trilobites, like other arthropods, had an external skeleton, called exoskeleton, composed of chitinous material.
Trilobites periodically shed their exoskeleton to accommodate growth. This process is called molting. Most fossil trilobites are actually fossil trilobite molts.
Trilobites were the first group of animals in the animal kingdom to develop complex eyes.
They were also one of the first organisms to develop multiple appendages for moving around.
Some trilobites could swim, others burrowed or crawled around on muddy sea floors.
The smallest trilobite fossils are a centimeter or less in size. The largest trilobites were more than 70 cm long.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding Sardar Sarovar Dam:
- It is a concrete gravity dam built on the Narmada River in Gujarat.
- It is the highest concrete dam in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The water level of Gujarat’s Sardar Sarovar Dam went up to 136.43 metres recently, over two metres short of its full reservoir level.
About Sardar Sarovar Dam:
It is a concrete gravity dam built on the Narmada River at Kevadia in Gujarat’s Narmada district.
The dam was named after Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
It is the third highest concrete dam (163 meters) in India, the first two being Bhakra (226 metres) in Himachal Pradesh and Lakhwar (192 meters) in Uttar Pradesh.
In terms of the volume of concrete involved in gravity dams, this dam will be ranked as the second largest in the world after the Grand Coule Dam in the USA.
It is a part of the Narmada Valley Project, a large hydraulic engineering project involving the construction of a series of large irrigation and hydroelectric multi-purpose dams on the Narmada River.
The river catchment area above the dam site is 88,000 sq. km. and has a spillway discharging capacity of 87,000 cubic meters a second.
It has the longest canal network in the world and includes the Narmada Main Canal, around 2,500 km of branch canals, 5,500 km of distributaries, and other associated channels.
The 458.3km long, 1,133 cumecs capacity Narmada Main Canal in Gujarat is the largest irrigation-lined canal in the world.
Power benefits are shared among Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat in the ratio of 57:27:16, respectively.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB):
- It is a statutory body constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
- It advises the Central Government on matters related to control and abatement of air and water pollution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The National Green Tribunal has directed the Central Pollution Control Board to file a fresh status report on the generation and treatment of electronic waste by all the states.
About Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB):
It is a statutory body constituted in September, 1974, under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
Further, CPCB was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
It serves as a field formation and also provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment and Forests of the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Principal Functions of the CPCB, as spelt out in the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981:
to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by prevention, control, and abatement of water pollution.
to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control, or abate air pollution in the country
It advises the Central Government on matters related to control and abatement of air and water pollution.
Standard development activities of CPCB:
CPCB takes up the development/revision of Environmental Standards, the upgradation of Comprehensive Industrial Document (COINDS), and guidelines for environmental management in various industrial sectors.
In consultation with the state government concerned, CPCB laid down the standard for stream or well or quality of air and also prepared manuals, codes, and guidance relating to the treatment and disposal of sewage and trade effluents, as well as for stacks gas cleaning devices, stacks and ducts;
CPCB develops Standards for:
National ambient air quality
Water Quality Criteria from different sources
Standards for Emission or Discharge of Environmental Pollutants from various Industries (Issued under Environment Protection Rules, 1986)
Standards for Treatment and Disposal of Bio-Medical Waste by Incineration
Emission standard, Noise limits for Diesel Engines
Emission and Noise Limit of LPG and CNG Generator Sets
CPCB also formulates the Minimal National Standards (MINAS) specific for various categories of industries with regards to their effluent discharge (water pollutants), emissions (air pollutants), noise levels, and solid waste.
These standards are required to be adopted by State Governments as minimal standards.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
Who is considered the founder of the Siddha medical system?
Agasthyar
Explanation :
A combination of ‘Siddha’ drugs can reduce anaemia among adolescent girls, according to a recent study.
About Siddha Medicine:
It is a traditional system of healing that originated in South India and is considered to be one of India’s oldest systems of medicine.
Literary evidence of the Sangam Era states the origin of this system to around 10,000 BC.
The Siddha system was built on the work of Siddhars, who were mostly from Tamil Nadu. It is called the Siddha medical system because of this.
Siddhars were spiritual masters who had the eight special abilities called siddhis. Some of the 18 Siddhars were Nandi, Agasthyar, Agappai, Pumbatti, etc.
The Siddha medical system is thought to have been started by Agastyar, who is also known as Agasthya.
Siddhars in rural India have traditionally learned their craft from elders in their communities.
The Siddha system is based on a combination of ancient medicinal practices and spiritual disciplines, as well as alchemy and mysticism.
The Siddha medicinal system not only focuses on treating the disease, but it also takes into account the patient’s behaviour, environmental aspects, age, habits, and physical condition.
It is based on principles of panchamahabhootam (five basic elements), 96 thathuvas (principles), mukkuttram (3 humours), and 6 arusuvai (6 tastes).
Soil, fire, water, sky, and air are the five elements that Siddha practitioners believe can be found in everything from food to the “humour” of the human body to herbal, animal, and inorganic chemical substances sulphur and mercury.
These have therapeutic potential and can be employed in the treatment of many illnesses.
Consider the following statements regarding Co-location Trading:
- It allows a member to set up a server in a specifically earmarked data centre within the National Stock Exchange (NSE) exchange premises.
- It allows members to reduced time taken for order execution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Five years later the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) came down heavily on the National Stock Exchange (NSE) for alleged lapses in high-frequency trading offered through its co-location (colo) facility.
The National Stock Exchange 2009 started to offer co-location services to members of the exchange.
It allows a member to set up his server in a specifically earmarked data centre within the NSE’s exchange premises for a certain price.
The relative proximity allows members wishing to gain access to the entirety of buy and sell orders sent because of the reduced time taken for order execution.
Is it Illegal? : Stock exchanges across the world allow the practice to flourish as a paid service. The SEBI allowed exchanges to offer co-location in 2008.
Key facts about National Stock Exchange
It is one of the two main stock exchanges in India, with the other being the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE).
The NSE is a prominent and technologically advanced stock exchange, and it plays a crucial role in India’s financial markets.
It is India’s largest financial market and the fourth largest market by trading volume.
The National Stock Exchange of India Limited was the first exchange in India to provide modern, fully automated electronic trading.
With reference to Assam cascade frog, consider the following statements:
- It is mainly found in Himalayan region of India.
- It is an indicator species highly adapted to fast-flowing hill streams.
- It is considered a critically endangered species under the IUCN list.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Scientists from the Wildlife Institute of India studied the Amolops formosus in two Himalayan streams of the Churdhar Wildlife Sanctuary to gain insights into how water flow impacts the presence and abundance of the species in Western Himalayan streams.
It is mainly distributed across the Himalayan belt in India and found in high-flowing and gradient streams of northern Bangladesh, Bhutan and Nepal.
This species can be used as an indicator species for the long-term monitoring of the condition of hilly streams.
The genus Amolops comprise 72 distinct species distributed throughout the hilly regions with fast-flowing streams in southern and Southeast Asia.
Amolops are highly adapted to fast-flowing hill streams because they have adhesive disks on the tips of their digits with circum-marginal grooves that help them stick to rocks and other substrates.
Other names: Assam sucker frog, beautiful stream frog, Assam cascade frog, or hill stream frog.
Conservation status
IUCN: Least Concern
What are Indicator species?
These are defined as species which can provide information on ecological changes and give early warning signals regarding ecosystem processes in site-specific conditions due to their sensitive reactions to them.
Key facts about Churdhar Wildlife Sanctuary
It is a tiny reserve on the foothills of Himalaya situated at the top of the Churdhar Peak.
It is located in the middle of alpine trees and green grassy pastures in the state of Himachal Pradesh.
Flora: It is renowned for being a habitat of herbal medicine trees and plants. Wild Himalayan Cherry, Aloe Vera (Dhrit Kumari), and Amaranthus spinosus (Chulai) are some of the best aromatic plants which can be found here, and these herbs possess amazing medicinal properties. The main trees in the sanctuary are oak and deodar.
Fauna: Musk Deer, Barking Deer, Himalayan Black Bear, Leopards and Langur.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Neuromorphic Computer Technology:
- It is an approach to computing that mimics the way the human brain works.
- It is modeled on a type of artificial neural network composed of spiking neurons and synapses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Scientists at the IISc, Bengaluru, are reporting a momentous breakthrough in neuromorphic or brain-inspired computing technology that could potentially allow India to play in the global AI race.
It is also known as neuromorphic engineering, is an approach to computing that mimics the way the human brain works.
It entails designing hardware and software that simulate the neural and synaptic structures and functions of the brain to process information.
How does it Work?
It is modeled in neuromorphic computing systems through spiking neural networks (SNNs).
A spiking neural network is a type of artificial neural network composed of spiking neurons and synapses.
These spiking neurons store and process data similar to biological neurons, with each neuron having its own charge, delay and threshold values.
Synapses create pathways between neurons and also have delay and weight values associated with them.
Benefits
Adaptability: Neuromorphic devices are designed for real-time learning, continuously adapting to evolving stimuli in the form of inputs and parameters.
Parallel processing: As SNN’s asynchronous nature, individual neurons can perform different operations concurrently. So neuromorphic devices can execute as many tasks as there are neurons at a given time.
Consider the following statements regarding INDUS-X:
- It is an initiative of India and Japan to expand strategic technology partnerships and defense industrial cooperation between governments and businesses.
- It aims to explore possibilities for co-producing jet engines, long-range artillery, and infantry vehicles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The third edition of the INDUS-X Summit concluded in the United States, marking a progress in the advancement of a joint defence innovation ecosystem in India and the USA.
It was launched in 2023 during the state visit of the Prime Minister of India to the USA.
Objective: To expand strategic technology partnerships and defense industrial cooperation between governments, businesses, and academic institutions in India and the US.
INDUS X will be a defence innovation bridge, which will inter-alia, include Joint Challenges, Joint Innovation Fund, Academia engagement, Industry-startup connect, investment by private entities in defence projects, mentoring by experts and niche technology projects etc.
It will focus on advancing high-tech cooperation and fostering joint research, development, and production opportunities in the defence sector.
The initiative aims to explore possibilities for co-producing jet engines, long-range artillery, and infantry vehicles.
The INDUS-X initiative is being steered by Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) on behalf of the Ministry of Defence and Defence Innovation Unit (DIU) under the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD).
What is Innovations for Defence Excellence?
It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Defence, Govt of India, launched in 2018.
The objective of the scheme is to cultivate an innovation ecosystem in the Defence and Aerospace sector by collaborating with startups, innovators, MSMEs, incubators, and academia.
iDEX offers grants and support for R&D with significant potential for future adoption in Indian defence and aerospace.
Funding: It will be funded and managed by a ‘Defence Innovation Organization (DIO)’ which has been formed as a ‘not for profit’ company as per the Companies Act 2013 for this purpose, by the two founder members i.e., Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs): HAL and BEL.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Bio-decomposer:
- It is a microbial liquid spray which breaks paddy stubbles which can be easily absorbed into the soil.
- It is developed by the Indian Institute of Science Bangalore.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Environment Minister said that the Delhi government has started preparations to spray bio-decomposer over 5,000 acres of farmland in New Delhi.
It is a microbial liquid spray which, when sprayed onto paddy stubble, breaks it down in a way that can be easily absorbed into the soil, whereby farmers then have no need to burn the stubble.
It has been developed by the Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI).
The government has been spraying the bio-decomposer solution free of cost since 2020 over farmlands in outer Delhi.
It has been used by the States of Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and NCT of Delhi.
Advantages:
By spraying bio-decomposer, farmers won’t need to burn their paddy stubble, which will not only help in reducing pollution but also increase soil fertility.
Its use enriches the soil with organic carbon (OC), nutrients and soil biological and physical properties.
It is an efficient and effective, cheaper, doable, and practical technique to stop stubble burning. It is an eco-friendly and environmentally useful technology.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
Palamau Tiger Reserve is located in which state?
Jharkhand
Explanation :
Forest officials from the Palamau Tiger Reserve have informed the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) that Naxals have eaten into the reserve.
About Palamau Tiger Reserve:
Location: It is located on the western side of Latehar district on the Chhotanagpur plateau in Jharkhand.
The reserve forms part of the Betla National Park.
It is one of the first nine tiger reserves created in the country at the inception of ‘Project Tiger’.
It is the first reserve in the world in which a tiger census was carried out as a pugmark count as early as 1932 under the supervision of J.W. Nicholson.
It has a total area of 1,014 sq. km. with a core area of 414 sq. km. and a buffer area of 600 sq. km.
The terrain is undulating, with valleys, hills, and plains.
Three rivers, namely NorthKoyal, Auranga, and Burha, flow through the valleys.
The geological formation consists of gneiss and includes granite and limestone.
The reserve is very rich in minerals like Bauxite and Coal.
Vegetation:
It is primarily dominated by the Northern Tropical Dry Deciduous, Sal Forest and its associates.
Smaller patches ofNorthern tropical Moist Deciduous forests exist too in the Reserve.
Flora: Shorea robusta, Acacia catechu, Madhuca indica, Terminalia tomentosa, Butea monosperma, Pterocarpus marsupium, Anogeisus latifolia, Indigofera pulchela, etc.
Fauna: The keystone species are Tigers, Elephants, Leopards, Grey Wolf, Gaur, Sloth Bear, Four-horned Antelope, Indian Ratel, Indian Otter, and Indian Pangolin.
Consider the following statements regarding Mammography:
- It is an x-ray imaging method.
- It is primarily used to detect bone fractures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Calcium buildup in breast arteries detected by mammography might indicate a higher risk for heart disease, two research teams reported recently.
About Mammography:
It is an x-ray imaging method used to examine the breast for the early detection of cancer and other breast diseases.
Healthcare providers use mammograms, or mammography, to look for early signs of breast cancer before symptoms develop. This is called a screening mammogram.
Providers also use mammography to look for any abnormalities if you develop a new symptom, such as a lump, pain, nipple discharge, or breast skin changes. This is called a diagnostic mammogram.
How does it work?
During a mammogram, a patient’s breast is placed on a flat support plate and compressed with a parallel plate called a paddle.
An x-ray machine produces a small burst of x-rays that pass through the breast to a detector located on the opposite side.
The detector can be either a photographic film plate, which captures the x-ray image on film, or a solid-state detector, which transmits electronic signals to a computer to form a digital image.
The images produced are called mammograms.
On a film mammogram, low density tissues, such as fat, appear translucent (i.e. darker shades of gray approaching the black background), whereas areas of dense tissue, such as connective and glandular tissue or tumors, appear whiter on a gray background.
These high-density regionscould represent many different types of abnormalities, including cancerous tumors, non-cancerous masses called benign tumors, fibroadenomas, or complex cyst
With reference to Gorillas, consider the following statements:
- They are the largest of the great apes.
- They are the closest living relatives to humans.
- They live only in tropical forests of equatorial Africa.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Scientists believe that gorillas could offer insights into future drug discoveries through their self-medicating behaviour, according to a new study.
About Gorillas:
Gorillas are the largest of the great apes (there are 5 species of great apes, including, gorilla, orangutan, chimpanzee, bonobo, and human).
Gorillas share 98.3% of their genetic code with humans, making them our closest cousins after chimpanzees and bonobos.
Gorillas and humans shared a common ancestor about 10 million years ago.
There are two gorilla species in the world: the eastern gorilla and the western gorilla. The mountain gorilla is a subspecies of the eastern gorilla.
Distribution:
Gorillas live only in tropical forests of equatorial Africa.
Eastern gorillas live in the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC), Uganda, and Rwanda.
Western gorillas, meanwhile, can be found in Nigeria, Cameroon, the Central African Republic, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon, the Republic of Congo, Angola, and the DRC.
Features:
They are large powerful animals with strong prominent chests, and shoulders.
Males are about twice as heavy as females and may attain a height of about 1.7 metres and weight (in the wild) of 135–220 kg.
They have large, human-like hands with muscular arms that are longer than their legs.
They have dark skin and black to brown-grey hair.
Males acquire silver-gray saddles across their backs and upper thighs at sexual maturity, earning them the name silverback.
The face has large nostrils, small ears, and prominent brow ridges.
They live in family groups of usually five to ten. The groups are polygamous, with one adult silverback gorilla, leading the troop and mating with the female members.
They are active during the day (diurnal) and primarily terrestrial, usually walking about on all four limbs with part of its weight supported on the knuckles of its hands. This mode of locomotion, called knuckle walking, is shared with chimpanzees.
Their diet is vegetarian.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Both the eastern gorilla and the western gorilla are classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Gopalpur Port, recently seen in the news, is located in which one of the following states?
Odisha
Explanation :
The Odisha government recently approved a proposal to transfer 95 percent of the equity shares of Gopalpur Port to Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Limited (APSEZ).
About Gopalpur Port:
It is a deep draft, multi-cargo port located on the east coast of India in the mineral rich state of Odisha.
It has the capacity to handle 20 million metric tonnes per annum of cargo.
It lies between Paradip Port in the north and Visakhapatnam Port in the south at almost equi distance from each.
The hinterland of the port are the states of Odisha, Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh, thus providing access to a mix of minerals, steel, aluminium, cement and power plants.
The coal fields of IB and Talcher, which account for approximately 25% of India’s coal reserves form part of the hinterland of the port.
Connectivity:
The broad-gauge Howrah-Visakhapatnam-Chennai east coast trunk route which runs parallel to the east coastline is just 6 km away from Gopalpur port site.
Close proximity to NH5 (Kolkata-Chennai) provide excellent road connectivity to and from Gopalpur.
What event does September 15 coincide with, leading to its selection as the International Day of Democracy?
Anniversary of the Inter-Parliamentary Union’s Universal Declaration on Democracy
Explanation :
Karnataka recently marked the ‘International Day of Democracy’ by forming a ‘historic’ 2,500-km-long human chain as a symbol of equality, unity, fraternity, and participative governance.
About International Day of Democracy:
It is an annual celebration observed on September 15.
The United Nations General Assembly(UNGA) established this day in 2007 to emphasise the global significance of democracy.
It serves as a reminder that democracy is not merely a fixed condition, but an ongoing pursuit.
It calls for active engagement from international organizations, nation-states, civil society, and people to pursue the democratic idea.
History:
The International Day of Democracy was accredited by the UNGA on November 8, 2007, by passing a resolution entitled “Support by United Nations system of efforts of governments to promote and consolidate new or restored democracies.”
September 15 was chosen to coincide with the anniversary of the Inter-Parliamentary Union’s Universal Declaration on Democracy, which was adopted in Geneva on September 15, 1997.
This declaration outlines the tenets of democracy, proclaiming that democracy is “a system of government based on the freely expressed will of the people to determine their own political, economic, social, and cultural systems and their full participation, through free and fair periodic elections, in the composition of their representative government.”
After the Universal Declaration on Democracy, Qatar spearheaded the campaign to observe an International Day of Democracy at the United Nations.
The first-ever International Day of Democracy was held in 2008.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding Nidhi Companies:
- These companies operate in the Non-Banking Financing Sector of India.
- These are recognized under the Banking Regulation Act 1949 of Reserve Bank of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Registrar of Companies (RoC) under the corporate affairs ministry has penalised over two dozen Nidhi companies in about a fortnight for alleged violations of Companies Act provisions.
A NIDHI Company is recognised under Section 406 of the Companies Act 2013 and typically operates in the Non-Banking Financing Sector of India.
It is formed to borrow and lend money to its members. It inculcates the habit of saving among its members and works on the principle of mutual benefit.
It isn’t required to receive the license from Reserve Bank of India (RBI), as these are registered with the companies act.
Members: Minimum of seven members is required to start a Nidhi Company out of which three members must be the directors of the company.
Activities Prohibited in a Nidhi Company
It can’t deal with chit funds, hire-purchase finance, leasing finance, insurance or securities business.
It is strictly prohibited from accepting deposits from or lending funds to, any other person except members.
Nidhi companies should not issue preference shares, debentures or any other debt instrument in any manner, name or form.
Nidhi companies should not open current accounts with their members.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
With reference to Tropical cyclone, consider the following statements:
- It is a rapidly rotating storm originating over warm tropical oceans.
- It causes the air from surrounding areas with lower pressure to move towards the higher -pressure area.
- It brings very violent winds, torrential rain and high waves.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Millions of people in Southeast Asia continue to struggle with torrential rains, floods, and landslides triggered by Typhoon Yagi — the strongest tropical cyclone Asia has seen this year.
It is a rapidly rotating storm originating over warm tropical oceans from where it draws the energy to develop.
How is it formed?
A tropical cyclone is formed only over warm ocean waters near the equator.
Warm, moist air rises up and away from the ocean surface, creating an area of low pressure.
It causes the air from surrounding areas with higher pressure to move towards the low-pressure area.
This leads to warming up of air and causes it to rise above. As the air rises & cools, the water in the air forms clouds.
This complete system of clouds and wind spins & grows, along with the ocean’s heat.
As the wind rotation speed increases, an eye gets formed in the middle.
It has a low-pressure center and clouds spiraling towards the eyewall surrounding the “eye”, the central part of the system where the weather is normally calm and free of clouds.
The winds blow counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
A tropical cyclone brings very violent winds, torrential rain, high waves, and, in some cases, very destructive storm surges and coastal flooding.
The category of a tropical cyclone is determined by its sustained wind speed, as measured by the Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale.
It is classified into five categories — Category 1 to Category 5.
While Category 1 tropical cyclones bring winds of 119 to 153 kmph,
Category 5 tropical cyclones, which are the strongest, have winds of 252 kmph or higher. Storms that reach Category 3 and higher are considered major tropical cyclones due to their potential to inflict significant damage.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Vertical Launch Short Range Surface to Air Missile:
- It is a ship-borne weapon system designed to neutralise various aerial threats at close ranges.
- It is equipped with advanced guidance systems that provide enhanced agility and precision in targeting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, India successfully test-fired the Vertical Launch Short Range Surface to Air Missile (VLSRSAM) from the Integrated Test Range (ITR) at Chandipur on the Odisha coast.
It is a ship-borne weapon system designed to neutralise various aerial threats at close ranges, including sea-skimming targets.
During the mid-course flight, the missile uses a fibre-optic gyroscope-based inertial guidance mechanism while the terminal phase uses active radar homing.
It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.
The test was jointly carried out by the Indian Navy and the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) from a land-based vertical launcher against a high-speed, low-flying aerial target.
Features
It is designed for neutralising various airborne threats at close ranges, including aircraft, helicopters, drones, and incoming missiles.
It is equipped with advanced guidance systems and cutting-edge technologies that provide enhanced agility and precision in targeting.
It weighs around 170 kg and uses solid propellant. With a maximum speed of Mach 4.5, the weapon system can reach an altitude of 16 km.
The successful demonstration of this system further strengthens India’s air defence capabilities in maritime operations.
Hence both statements are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Emmy Award:
- It is the renowned accolades given to television and emerging media performances.
- It is only given for documentary, technology and engineering related television performances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the 76th Primetime Emmy Awards were handed out at the Peacock Theater in Los Angeles.
The Emmy Awards are the most renowned accolades given to television and emerging media performances. Unlike Oscars and Golden Globe awards, they aren’t given for films.
These were conceived in 1948 and the first ceremony took place on January 25, 1949.
Apart from the International Emmy Awards and the Primetime Emmy Awards, the Emmys are also given in the following categories: daytime, sports, news and documentary, technology and engineering, and regional.
While Primetime Emmy Awards honour television shows produced only in America and aired during primetime, International Emmy Awards are for international shows.
Daytime Emmy Awards are given to American shows aired during late-morning and afternoon. Regional Emmy Awards are for regional television markets, including state-to-state programming, local news and locally produced shows.
These awards are given by three sister organizations:
First is the Television Academy, which administers the Primetime Emmy Awards.
Second is the National Academy of Television Arts & Sciences, which oversees daytime, sports, news and documentary categories.
Third is the International Academy of Television Arts & Sciences, which is responsible for International Emmys.
Each organisation maintains its own membership of television professionals who vote and decide who will get the award.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/entertainment/movies/emmys-2024-here-is-the-full-list-of-winners-76th-primetime-emmy-awards/article68647116.ece
Consider the following statements regarding BHASKAR Platform:
- It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- It is aimed at strengthening India’s startup ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry is set to launch a groundbreaking digital platform BHASKAR.
The Bharat Startup Knowledge Access Registry (BHASKAR) initiative, under the Startup India program aimed at strengthening India’s startup ecosystem.
It is a platform designed to centralize, streamline, and enhance collaboration among key stakeholders within the entrepreneurial ecosystem, including startups, investors, mentors, service providers, and government bodies.
The primary goal of BHASKAR is to build the world’s largest digital registry for stakeholders within the startup ecosystem.
Key Features of BHASKAR
Networking and Collaboration: BHASKAR will bridge the gap between startups, investors, mentors, and other stakeholders, allowing for seamless interaction across sectors.
Providing Centralized Access to Resources: By consolidating resources, the platform will provide startups with immediate access to critical tools and knowledge, enabling faster decision-making and more efficient scaling.
Creating Personalized Identification: Every stakeholder will be assigned a unique BHASKAR ID, ensuring personalized interactions and tailored experiences across the platform.
Enhancing Discoverability: Through powerful search features, users can easily locate relevant resources, collaborators, and opportunities, ensuring faster decision-making and action.
Supporting India’s Global Brand: BHASKAR will serve as a vehicle for promoting India’s global reputation as a hub for innovation, making cross-border collaborations more accessible to startups and investors alike.
Hence both statements are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Invest India:
- It is the National Investment Promotion and Facilitation Agency of India and acts as the first point of reference for investors in India.
- It was set up as a nonprofit venture under the aegis of the Department of Investment and Public Asset Management, Ministry of Finance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Commerce and Industry Minister recently announced the Centre’s Start-up India initiative will be moved out of the aegis of Invest India to a new non-profit company that could also house the National Start-up Advisory Council.
About Invest India:
It is the National Investment Promotion and Facilitation Agency of India and acts as the first point of reference for investors in India.
It was set up as a non-profit venture under the aegis of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India.
It facilitates and empowers all investors under the ‘Make in India’ initiative to establish, operate, and expand their businesses in India.
The agency aims at sector-specific investor targeting and development of partnerships, thereby channelising sustainable investments in the country.
It is also engaged in developing partnerships with investment promotion agencies and multilateral organisations.
Its domain and functional experts provide sector-and state-specific inputs and hand-holding support to investors through the entire investment cycle, from pre-investment and decision-making to after-care.
It provides multiple forms of support, such as market entry strategies, deep dive industry analysis, partner search and location assessment, and policy advocacy with decision-makers.
Headquarters: New Delhi
Which one of the following best describes ‘Syntretus perlmani’, recently seen in the news?
A new species of parasitoid wasp
Explanation :
Researchers recently discovered a new species of parasitoid wasp named Syntretus perlmani that matures inside living adult fruit flies before bursting out, much like a scene from the Alien films.
About Syntretus perlmani:
It is a new species of parasitoid wasp.
It is the first wasp found to infect adult fruit flies, a stark contrast to related wasp species that usually target the larvae and pupae stages of flies.
These fruit fly invaders are considered parasitoids rather than parasites because they always kill their hosts unlike the latter, which generally leave them alive.
Female S. perlmani wasps use a specialised organ called an ovipositor to inject eggs directly into the abdomen of adult fruit flies.
Over the next 18 days, the eggs develop into wasp larvae, slowly growing inside the host until they eventually kill the fly by emerging out of its body.
The research team found evidence of S. perlmani across the eastern United States, including Mississippi, Alabama, and North Carolina.
Consider the following statements regarding Cellulitis Disease, recently seen in the news:
- It is a serious deep infection of the skin caused by bacteria.
- It is highly contagious.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Cellulitis disease, which used to affect a few people during the rainy season, is now widespread in the erstwhile Karimnagar district, Telangana.
About Cellulitis Disease:
It is a serious deep infection of the skin caused by bacteria.
It most commonly affects the lower part of your body, including your legs, feet, and toes.
However, it can occur in any part of your body. It also commonly appears on your face, arms, hands, and fingers.
Normal skin can be affected by cellulitis, but it usually happens after some type of injury causes a skin break, including trauma or surgery.
The infection happens when bacteria, most commonly streptococcus and staphylococcus, enter through a crack or break in the skin.
Symptoms:
The affected skin is swollen and inflamed and is typically painful and warm to the touch.
Some people develop blisters, skin dimpling, or spots. A person may also experience other symptoms of an infection, such as fatigue, chills, cold sweats, shivering, fever, and nausea.
Left untreated, the infection can spread to the lymph nodes and bloodstream and rapidly become life-threatening.
Cellulitis isn’t usually contagious. Though rare, people contract cellulitis if they have an open wound and have skin-to-skin contact with an infected person’s open wound.
Treatment includes antibiotics.
With reference to the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954, consider the following statements:
- The term “advertisement,” under the Act, extends to all notices, labels, wrappers and oral announcements.
- The Act applies to all individuals and entities involved in the publication of advertisements, including manufacturers, distributors and advertisers.
- If a company violates the act, individuals in charge of its business operations may also be deemed guilty.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The promise of spectacular cures advertised in the media from time to time, in fact, prompted separate legislation to curb such claims: the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act.
About Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954:
It is a legislative framework to control the advertisement of drugs and prohibit claims of magical qualities in remedies.
It encompasses various forms of advertisements, including written, oral, and visual mediums.
What does the Magic Remedies Act entail?
Under the Act, the term “drug” refers to medicines intended for human or animal use, substances for diagnosis or treatment of diseases, and articles affecting the body’s functions.
Other than articles meant for consumption, the definition of “magic remedy” under this Act also extends to talismans, mantras, and charms that allegedly possess miraculous powers for healing or influencing bodily functions.
Regulations on advertisements:
It imposes strict regulations on the publication of advertisements related to drugs.
It prohibits advertisements that give false impressions, make false claims, or are otherwise misleading.
Violations of these provisions can result in penalties, including imprisonment or fines, upon conviction.
The term “advertisement,” under the Act, extends to all notices, labels, wrappers, and oral announcements.
Who comes under the Magic Remedies Act?
The Act applies to all individuals and entities involved in the publication of advertisements, including manufacturers, distributors, and advertisers.
The Act can hold both individuals and companies accountable for contraventions.
If a company violates the act, individuals in charge of its business operations may also be deemed guilty unless they can prove a lack of knowledge or demonstrate due diligence in preventing the offense.
Directors, managers, or officers of the company may also be held liable if they consented to or neglected the offense.
Punishment:
Violating the Act can result in imprisonment, fines, or both.
If this is the first conviction for the violator, they may face up to six months in prison, fines, or both.
For subsequent conviction, imprisonment may extend to one year, fine, or both.
The Act does not include any limits for the fines that may be imposed on individuals or organisations.
Consider the following statements regarding the Line of Actual Control (LAC):
- It is a military demarcation line that separates the Indian and Pakistani-controlled parts of Jammu and Kashmir.
- It is not recognised as an official border.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The External Affairs Minister recently said that about 75% of the “disengagement problems” with China on the military standoff along the Line of Actual Control in eastern Ladakh have been “sorted out”
About Line of Actual Control (LAC):
The LAC is the demarcation that separates Indian-controlled territory from Chinese-controlled territory.
Although not recognised as an official border, it serves as a de facto border between India and China.
India considers the LAC to be 3,488 km long, while the Chinese consider it to be only around 2,000 km.
It is divided into three sectors:
the eastern sector which spans Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim
the middle sector, in Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh, and
the western sector in Ladakh.
It runs along Tibet and Xinjiang on the Chinese side.
The LAC has always remained a major cause of tension between India and China. There are areas along the border where India and China have differing perceptions of the LAC.
Due to both sides undertaking patrolling up to their respective perceptions of the LAC, transgressions do occur.
India’s claim line is the line seen in the official boundary marked on the maps as released by the Survey of India, including both Aksai Chin and Gilgit-Baltistan. This means LAC is not the claim line for India.
In China’s case, LAC is the claim line except in the eastern sector, where it claims the entire Arunachal Pradesh as South Tibet.
Consider the following statements regarding Integrated Ocean Energy Atlas:
- It provides information about the potential of ocean energy resources encompassing marine meteorological and hydrological energy forms.
- It is developed by the India Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) has announced the development of an ‘Integrated Ocean Energy Atlas’ of the Indian EEZ (Exclusive Economic Zone).
It showcases the vast potential of ocean energy resources encompassing marine meteorological (solar and wind) and hydrological (wave, tide, currents, ocean thermal, and salinity gradients) energy forms.
It identifies areas with high potential for energy generation and will serve as a reference for policymakers, industry and researchers for harnessing the rich energy resources available in the Indian EEZ.
INCOIS prepared the annual, monthly, and daily energy estimates of ocean energy components following standard methods that can be visualised through a WebGIS interface at 5 km grid resolution.
Key facts about the INCOIS
It was established as an autonomous body in 1999 under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) and is a unit of the Earth System Science Organization (ESSO).
Mandate: To provide the best possible ocean information and advisory services to society, industry, government agencies, and the scientific community through sustained ocean observations and constant improvements through systematic and focused research.
Activities:
It provides round-the-clock monitoring and warning services for the coastal population on tsunamis, storm surges, high waves, etc. through the in-house Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre (ITEWC).
It provides daily advisories to fisher folk to help them easily locate areas of abundant fish in the ocean.
Short-term (3-7 days) Ocean State Forecasts (waves, currents, sea surface temperature, etc.) are issued daily to fisher folk, the shipping industry, the oil and natural gas industry, the Navy, the Coast Guard, etc.
With reference to the Anamalai Tiger Reserve, consider the following:
- It is located in the state of Tamil Nadu.
- It lies north of the Palakkad gap in the Southern Western Ghats.
- It supports unique habitats like montane grasslands and savannah grassland.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Tamil Nadu Forest Department has fixed a tracking device on a Nilgiri tahr within the limits of the Anamalai Tiger Reserve for study purpose.
Location: It is a protected area located in the Anamalai Hills of Pollachi and Coimbatore District of Tamil Nadu.
It lies South of the Palakkad gap in the Southern Western Ghats.
It is surrounded by Parambikulum Tiger Reserve on the East, Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary and Eravikulum National Park on the South Western side.
Vegetation:
It supports diverse habitat types, Wet evergreen forests, semi-evergreen forests, moist deciduous, dry deciduous, dry thorn and shola forests.
It also supports unique habitats like montane grasslands, savannah and marshy grasslands are also present.
Flora:
Around 2500 species of angiosperms are found in the Anamalai Tiger Reserve, with several species of Balsam, Crotalaria, Orchids and Kurinchi. The reserve is rich in wild relatives of cultivated species like mango, jackfruit, wild plantain, ginger (Zingiber officinale), turmeric, pepper (Piper longum), cardamom etc.
Fauna: The important wild animals of the reserve include: Tiger, Asiatic elephant, Sambar, Spotted deer, Barking deer, Jackal, Leopard, Jungle cat etc.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding CREATE setup:
- It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises.
- It helps advance rural industrialization and fostering enterprise creation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister for Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSME) inaugurated the Centre for Rural Enterprise Acceleration through Technology (CREATE) setup at Leh through virtual mode.
It will enhance local productivity, product quality, and economic potential and improve livelihoods for the local communities.
It will help advance rural industrialization and foster enterprise creation, to retain the traditional artisans, particularly in regions like Ladakh.
CREATE will provide
A Pashmina Wool Roving Facility.
Training for the development of production facility for Essential Oil Extraction from Roses and Other Flowers and Training for the development of a production facility for the Bio-processing of available fruits and other raw materials.
The machinery required for Pashmina wool roving has been installed, commissioned and is ready for operation.
What is Pashmina Wool?
Pashmina refers to a fine variant of spun cashmere (the animal-hair fibre), that is derived from the downy undercoat of the Changthangi.
Pashmina is obtained from a breed of mountain goats (Capra hircus) found on the Changthang Plateau in Tibet and parts of Ladakh.
Hence both statements are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Smart Precision Horticulture Programme:
- It is an initiative under the Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH) scheme.
- It uses smart technology like the Internet of Things, Artificial Intelligence, drones and data analytics to boost production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Union Ministry of Agriculture is planning a Smart Precision Horticulture Programme under the existing Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH) scheme.
It uses smart technology such as the Internet of Things, Artificial Intelligence, drones and data analytics to boost production through maximal use of resources while minimising environmental impact.
It will cover 15,000 acres of land in five years from 2024-25 to 2028-29 and is expected to benefit about 60,000 farmers.
At present, the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF), launched during Covid-19, has provisions for financing infrastructure projects for smart and precision agriculture.
Apart from offering financial support, the Centre is also considering collaborating with the Netherlands and Israel, where tech-based modern farming solutions are being used, through Centres of Excellences (CoEs).
The Centre has also set up 22 Precision Farming Development Centres (PFDCs) across the country to test new technologies and modify them according to local needs.
Impacts of Smart and Precision Farming
It maximises the use of resources like water, fertilisers and pesticides to increase production quality and quantity.
It also insulates farmers from the vagaries of climate change and other uncertainties, besides ensuring sustainable farming.
Hence both statements are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Battle of Saragarhi:
- It took place in the North-West Frontier Province of British India in 1897.
- It was fought between the Sikh army led by Ranjit Singh of Punjab and Afridi and Orakzai tribal militants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the 127th anniversary of the Battle of Saragarhi was celebrated on September 12 and it is regarded as one of the finest last stands in global military history.
It was fought on 12 September 1897, in the then North-West Frontier Province of British India, which was concentrated on Saragarhi post.
On this day only 21 soldiers from the 36th Sikh (now 4 Sikh) led by Havildar Ishar Singh and a non-combatant called Daad fought against over 8,000 Afridi and Orakzai tribal militants.
It is considered one of the finest last stands in the military history of the world.
How are the slain soldiers remembered?
In 2017, the Punjab government decided to observe Saragarhi Day on September 12 as a holiday.
Even today the Khyber Scouts regiment of the Pakistani army mounts a guard and salutes the Saragarhi memorial close to Fort Lockhart.
The British, who regained control over the fort after a few days, used burnt bricks of Saragarhi to build an obelisk for the martyrs.
Importance of Saragarhi Post for Britishers
Saragarhi was a post, a key landmark between the two forts, Lockhart and Gulistan, which were originally built by Ranjit Singh of Punjab during his western expedition.
It was a critical post for the British, helping to monitor any aggressive moves by the Afghans.
Saragarhi helped to link up the two important forts which housed a large number of British troops in the rugged terrain of NWFP.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
The ‘reverse-charge mechanism’ under the Goods and Services Tax(GST) regime refers to
the recipient of goods becomes liable to pay the taxes instead of the producer/supplier.
Explanation :
Generally, the supplier of goods or services is liable to pay GST. However, in specified cases like imports and other notified supplies, the liability may be cast on the recipient under the reverse charge mechanism.
Reverse Charge means the liability to pay tax is on the recipient of the supply of goods or services instead of the supplier of such goods or services in respect of notified categories of supply.
The objective of the Reverse Charge Mechanism is to widen the scope of levy of tax on unorganized sectors and give exemption to a specific class of suppliers of goods/services and import of services.
Which of the following is/are the objectives of the ‘Public Financial Management System (PFMS) portal?
- Monitoring inflation levels by the RBI.
- Reducing trade deficit with other countries.
- Efficient targeting of Central Government schemes.
- Rationalizing domestic borrowing by the Central and State Governments.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
3 only
Explanation :
The Public Financial Management System (PFMS), earlier known as Central Plan Schemes Monitoring System (CPSMS), is a web-based online software application developed and implemented by the Office of Controller General of Accounts (CGA).
PFMS was initially started during 2009 as a Central Sector Scheme of the erstwhile Planning Commission with the objective of tracking funds released under all Plan schemes of the Government of India, and real-time reporting of expenditure at all levels of Programme implementation.
Subsequently, in 2013, the scope was enlarged to cover direct payment to beneficiaries under both Plan and non-Plan Schemes. So, statement 3 is correct.
It is not related to trade deficit, monitoring inflation levels or domestic borrowing by Central and State Governments. So, statements 1, 2 and 4 are not correct.
Which of the following best describes the “Ricardian Equivalence”?
In anticipation of high government deficits, people tend to save more to offset the government dissaving.
Explanation :
Ricardian Equivalence
Traditionally, it has been argued that when a government cuts taxes and runs a budget deficit, consumers respond to their after-tax income by spending more. It is possible that these people are short-sighted and do not understand the implications of budget deficits. They may not realise that at some point in the future, the government will have to raise taxes to pay off the debt and accumulated interest. Even if they comprehend this, they may expect the future taxes to fall not on them but future generations.
A counter-argument is that consumers are forward-looking and will base their spending not only on their current income but also on their expected future income. They will understand that borrowing today means higher taxes in the future. Further, the consumer will be concerned about future generations because they are the children and grandchildren of the present generation and the family which is the relevant decision-making unit, continues living. They would increase savings now, which will fully offset the increased government dissaving so that national savings do not change. This view is called Ricardian equivalence after one of the greatest nineteenth-century economists, David Ricardo, who first argued that in the face of high deficits, people save more.
Which of the following receipts are classified under the category of non-debt capital receipts of the Union Government?
- Proceedings from strategic disinvestment
- Issuance of Special Securities to Public Sector Banks
- Issue of bonus shares to investors of government companies
- Grants-in-aid from international financing institutions
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Capital receipts are receipts that create liabilities or reduce financial assets. They also refer to incoming cash flows. Capital receipts can be both non-debt and debt receipts.
The Non debt capital receipts (NDCR) of the union government include:
Recoveries of loans and advances given to state governments, Union territories and foreign governments
Disinvestment proceeds
Money accrued to the Union government from listing of central government companies and issue of bonus shares.
Strategic disinvestment
Listing of PSUs in stock markets and
Issue of bonus shares. So, point 1 and point 3 are correct.
Issuance of Special Securities to Public Sector Banks is a part of debt capital receipts of the union government. So, point 2 is not correct.
Grants-in-aid received from international financing institutions form a part of Non-Tax Revenue of the government. So, point 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following can be the most likely causes for the decline in the Forex Reserve of India?
- Rise in crude oil prices
- Dollar sell-off by Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- Outflow of Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI)
- Quantitative Easing by USA Federal Reserve
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Foreign exchange reserves are assets held on reserve by a central bank in foreign currencies. These reserves are used to back liabilities and influence monetary policy. The main components of forex reserves are foreign currency assets (FCA), gold holdings and SDRs (special drawing rights) of the IMF.
Reasons for the decline of Forex Reserve:
The rupee fell below the 77 levels after the Russia-Ukraine war intensified resulting in crude oil prices flaring up. As India imports 80 percent of its domestic requirements, high crude oil prices have led to a steep rise in dollar requirement leading to a fall in Foreign Exchange and the rupee depreciation. So, point 1 is correct.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) sold dollars to prevent a further slide in value. The RBI’s intervention — dollar sales through PSU banks — started when the rupee crossed the 76-level and headed to the 77-mark. Since USD is a significant part of India’s Forex Reserve, selling- off the dollar would essentially bring down the Foreign Exchange Reserve of India. So, point 2 is correct.
When the central bank sells dollars, it takes out an equivalent amount in rupees, thus reducing the rupee liquidity in the system. Dollar inflow into the market strengthens the rupee.
Quantitative Easing (QE): it is large-scale purchases of financial assets, like government and corporate bonds and even stocks. This triggers powerful outcomes as the amount of money circulating in an economy increases, which helps lower longer-term interest rates. Thus, QE by the US Federal Reserve leads to an increase in investment in emerging economies like India which is generally seen in the form of FPI inflow and hence a rise in Forex Reserve. So, point 3 is correct and point 4 is not correct.
In general, rate hike (Quantitative Easing Tapering) by the US Federal Reserve leads to FPIs exiting emerging markets such as India that are considered riskier than developed economies.
If the US Central Bank raises the interest rate, which of the following is the likely impact on the Indian economy?
Rupee will depreciate against the dollar, which may lead to inflation In India.
Explanation :
Higher interest rates in the US usually lead to foreign investors pulling their money from emerging markets like India back to the US for safer, and more secure returns.
An increase in US Fed rates, thus, will affect the cost and also the availability of overseas finance for Indian companies. They have been looking at cheap overseas finance amid these near-zero rates to fund their capital needs, as Indian economic activity picks up. Thus, Indian companies have borrowed medium and long-term funds through external commercial borrowings to the extent of $31.17 billion between April 2021 to January 2022, with $20 billion coming from only 5 months. There would be a considerable constraint on such financing needs as Fed rates are hiked. Moreover, with government borrowing rates increasing due to the poor rating of Indian sovereign debt, the rates at which the private sector can borrow abroad will further increase.
The Fed rate hikes will also make it costlier for the emerging economies, including the Indian government to raise funds from the bond markets. Bonds have an inverse relationship to interest rates. When the cost of borrowing money rises (when interest rates rise), bond prices usually fall, and vice-versa.
As money flows out of India, because of attractive rates for investors, it would affect the rupee-dollar exchange rate, depreciating the rupee. Such depreciation would put considerable pressure on the already high import prices of crude and raw materials, paving the path for higher imported inflation and production costs besides higher retail inflation.
Consider the following statements with reference to Current Account Deficit (CAD):
- Depreciation in the value of Indian rupee against US Dollar has a positive impact on India’s CAD.
- Liberalising External Commercial Borrowing norms for corporates can directly lead to reduction in India’s CAD.
- Insurances paid on Indian exports are included under invisibles while calculating CAD.
- The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 provides a statutory framework for reducing CAD in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
The Current Account Deficit (CAD) is a measurement of a country’s trade where the value of the goods and services it imports exceeds the value of the products it exports.
Depreciation in the value of Indian Rupee against US Dollar leads to an increase in exports from India. This in turn reduces the trade deficit, thereby having a positive impact on CAD. So, statement 1 is correct.
External commercial borrowing is included under the category of Capital Account. So it does not directly lead to a reduction in India’s CAD. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Invisibles are broadly classified under three heads, viz., services, transfers and income. While services comprise travel, transportation, insurance, the government not included elsewhere (GNIE) and miscellaneous (i.e. other services); transfers constitute private transfers and official transfers and income includes investment income and compensation of employees.‘Insurance receipts’ consist of insurance on exports, premium on life and non-life policies and reinsurance premium from foreign insurance companies. Insurance on exports is directly related to total exports from India.So, statement 3 is correct.
The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBM Act), 2003, establish financial discipline to ensure optimum revenue deficit, fiscal deficit, tax revenue and the total outstanding liabilities only. It does not mandate reduction commitments for CAD.So, statement 4 is not correct.
Which of the following situations can make India’s exports more competitive?
- Devaluation of rupee
- Increase in the rate of inflation in India
- Increase in productivity of India’s workforce
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Devaluation of the currency means there is a fall in the value of a currency. A devaluation of the rupee will make exports more competitive and appear cheaper to foreigners. This will increase demand for exports and can lead to an increase in the value of exports from India. So, point 1 is correct.
If the country has a relatively high rate of inflation, domestic households and firms are likely to buy a significant number of imports as the money supply in the economy and purchasing power of people increases. Thus, an increase in inflation can lead to rise in imports due to increased demand for goods and services. Higher inflation can also impact exports by having a direct impact on input costs such as materials and labour. These higher costs can have a substantial impact on the competitiveness of exports in the international market. Thus, an increase in the rate of inflation can lead to a decrease in the value of exports from India. So, point 2 is not correct.
The more productive a country’s workers are, the lower the labour costs per unit and the cheaper its products. This will make Indian products more competitive in the international market. So, point 3 is correct.
Which of the following could be the implications on the Indian economy, if the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) decides to increase their crude oil production?
- Demand-pull Inflation will occur.
- Increase in India’s Current Account Deficit.
- Appreciation of Indian Rupee against US dollar.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
3 only
Explanation :
Crude oil prices and levels of inflation are often seen as being connected in a cause-and-effect relationship. Crude Oil and inflation are linked because oil is a major input in the economy—it is used in critical activities such as fuelling transportation and heating homes—and if input costs rise, so should the cost of end products.
Increasing crude oil prices can affect levels of inflation in an economy by increasing the cost of inputs. As oil prices move up, inflation follows in the same direction higher.
Increased production can lead to a dip in crude oil prices given steady demand. As the price of crude oil falls, due to increased production, inflation decreases. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Since India largely relies on imports for its oil demand, increase in crude oil production will lead to falling crude oil prices; which lowers the trade deficit and, in turn, the current account deficit also gets reduced. So, statement 2 is not correct.
A fall in global crude oil prices, leads to lesser trade deficit which in turn strengthens rupee against global currencies like US dollar. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS):
- All resident individuals, including minors, are allowed to freely remit up to USD 2,50,000 per financial year.
- The remitted amount can be used to buy immovable properties in an overseas market.
- The scheme is not available to corporates and partnership firms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
The Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) lays down the guidelines for outward remittances from India. It is part of the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) 1999 by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme, all resident individuals, including minors, are allowed to freely remit up to USD 2,50,000 per financial year (April – March) for any permissible current or capital account transaction or a combination of both. This money can be used to pay expenses related to travelling (private or for business), medical treatment, studying, gifts and donations, maintenance of close relatives and so on. So, statement 1 is correct.
Apart from this, the remitted amount can also be invested in shares, debt instruments, and be used to buy immovable properties in overseas markets. Individuals can also open, maintain and hold foreign currency accounts with banks outside India for carrying out transactions permitted under the scheme. So, statement 2 is correct.
The remittances can be made in any freely convertible foreign currency.
The Scheme is not available to corporates, partnership firms, HUF, Trusts etc. So, statement 3 is correct.
Which of the following are most likely impacts of a high fiscal deficit in an economy?
- Higher rates of interest on borrowings
- Possibility of a debt trap
- More investments from abroad
- Increased dependence on foreign countries
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation :
A fiscal deficit is a shortfall in a government’s income compared with its spending. The government that has a fiscal deficit is spending beyond its means. A fiscal deficit is calculated as a percentage of gross domestic product (GDP), or simply as total rupees spent in excess of income.
If the fiscal deficit is too high, then there is a lesser amount of money left in the market for the private sector to borrow. This in turn leads to higher rates of interest charged on such lending. So, point 1 is correct.
Fiscal deficit shows the total borrowing of the government. This borrowing involves repayment of the principal amount as well as payment of interests. Interest payments increase the revenue expenditure, which in turn leads to a revenue deficit. It might create a situation wherein the government takes more loans to repay the earlier debts. This can lead the country in a debt trap. So, point 2 is correct.
A very high fiscal deficit reduces the sovereign credit rating of the country. This leads to difficulty in raising funds investments from abroad to India. So, point 3 is not correct.
When a country tries to finance its fiscal deficit from external loans, then that country may become dependent on other countries or financial institutions. This situation can be seen with countries like Sri Lanka and Pakistan. So, point 4 is correct.
Which among the following are considered as Capital Receipts of the government?
- Borrowing from Public Provident Fund
- Disinvestment
- Recovery of Loans
- Dividend on government investment
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Capital Receipts:
Government receipts which either (i) create liabilities (e.g. borrowing) or (ii) reduce assets (e.g. disinvestment) are called capital receipts. Thus when govt. raises funds either by incurring liability or by disposing of its assets, it is called a capital receipt.
Borrowings are treated as capital receipts because they create the liability of returning loans. Similarly, funds raised from PPF, small saving deposits in post offices and banks are treated as capital receipts because they Increase liability of the government to repay these amounts.
Capital Receipts that reduce assets are Disinvestment and Recovery of Loans. Disinvestment by the government means selling a part or whole of its shares of public sector undertakings. Funds raised from disinvestment reduce government assets. Recovery of loans is also capital receipt as it reduces government assets.
Dividends and profits on investments made by the government are the non-tax revenue receipts of the government.
With reference to Foreign Exchange in the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
- A rise in the price of foreign currency will increase the foreigner’s cost while purchasing from India.
- Devaluation of Indian currency may lead to an increase in exports.
- India has followed a fixed exchange rate system since 1991 reforms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Foreign Exchange Rate (also called Forex Rate) is the price of one currency in terms of another. It links the currencies of different countries and enables the comparison of international costs and prices.
A rise in the price of foreign exchange will increase the cost (in terms of rupees) of purchasing a foreign good. This reduces demand for imports, and hence the demand for foreign exchange also decreases, other things remaining constant.
A rise in the price of foreign exchange will reduce the foreigner’s cost (in terms of USD) while purchasing products from India, other things remaining constant. This increases India’s exports, and hence supply for foreign exchange may increase (whether it increases depends on several factors, particularly elasticity of demand for exports and imports. So, statement 1 is not correct, and statement 2 is correct.
In 1993 India officially moved towards a “market-determined exchange rate” from a fixed peg to the US dollar. This was part of the liberalisation and deregulation reforms of the early 1990s. There has been a currency market since then, and at the same time, the Reserve Bank of India actively trades in this market. So, statement 3 is not correct.
With reference to the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) in India, consider the following statements:
- The power for the clearance of projects lies with the central government only.
- The public hearing stage allows participation of the residents of the displaced sites only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
In India, Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) started in 1976-77 when certain river-valley projects were examined from an environmental angle. Later, EIA notification was released in 1994 under the Environmental (Protection) Act 1986 making Environmental clearance mandatory for expansion or modernisation of any activity or for setting up new projects listed in Schedule 1 of the notification.
Under the Environmental Impact Assessment, developmental projects are classified in certain categories. Both the central and state governments grant clearance to projects as per the category of the project. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Public hearing is a mandatory stage of the EIA process. All persons including bonafide residents, environmental groups and others located at the project site/sites of displacement/sites likely to be affected can participate in the public hearing. So, statement 2 is not correct.
1 and 4 only
Explanation :
Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary is the largest wildlife sanctuary of Madhya Pradesh. It is a unique protected area wherein two major river basins of India are encompassed, namely the Ganges and the Narmada. Three fourth of WLS falls in the Yamuna [Ganges] and one-fourth of the WLS falls in the Narmada basin. The forest tract here is of the typical Vindhyan type. It is a potential site for the Cheetah Reintroduction in India. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Sanjay Gandhi National Park: Telangana recently agreed to transfer two pairs of lions to Sanjay Gandhi National Park. It falls within the suburban region of Mumbai, Maharashtra. The Kanheri Caves in the centre of the park were an important Buddhist learning centre and pilgrimage site sculpted by Buddhist monks between the 9th and the 1st centuries BCE. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Papikonda National Park: The estimation of the tiger population has begun in the Papikondal National Park. It is located in the Papi Hills of the East Godavari and West Godavari districts of Andhra Pradesh. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Peechi-Vazhany Wildlife sanctuary: A butterfly survey at the Peechi-Vazhani wildlife division has recorded a remarkable increase in the species’ numbers. Southern Birdwing, the largest butterfly in India, and Grass Jewel, the smallest, were found during the survey. Buddha Peacock, the State butterfly of Kerala, was also recorded. Peechi-Vazhani Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Peechi, Thrissur District of Kerala, So, pair 4 is correctly matched.
Consider the following statements with reference to Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol:
- It is an international agreement to gradually reduce the consumption and production of Hydroflurocarbons (HFCs).
- India will complete its phase down of HFCs by 85% in 2047.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Union cabinet approves ratification of Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer for phase down of Hydrofluorocarbons. Under the Kigali Amendment; Parties to the Montreal Protocol will phase down production and consumption of Hydrofluorocarbons, commonly known as HFCs. While HFCs do not deplete the stratospheric ozone layer, they have high global warming potential ranging from 12 to 14,000, which have adverse impact on climate. So, statement 1 is correct.
India will complete its phase down of HFCs in 4 steps from 2032 onwards with cumulative reduction of 10% in 2032, 20% in 2037, 30% in 2042 and 85% in 2047. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements:
- Both Ganges River dolphins and Irrawaddy dolphins have a gestation period of more than one year.
- Indus and Ganges River dolphins are found in freshwater whereas Irrawaddy dolphins can be found in brackish water.
- Unlike Indus River dolphins, Ganges River dolphins are functionally blind.
- Indus River Dolphins, Ganges River Dolphins and Irrawaddy Dolphins species are listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 and 4 only
Explanation :
Ganges River Dolphin:
The Ganges River Dolphin (Platanista gangetica) is a mammal primarily found in the Ganges and Brahmaputra Rivers and their tributaries in India, Bangladesh and Nepal. The Ganges river dolphin can only live in freshwater and is essentially blind. They are frequently found alone or in small groups, and generally a mother and calf travel together.Ganges river dolphin - Wikipedia
Calves have been observed between January and May and do not appear to stay with the mother for more than a few months. Gestation is thought to be approximately 9-10 months. (For Irrawaddy Dolphins the gestation is about 14 months) Females are larger than males and give birth once every two to three years to only one calf. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Ganges River Dolphin is listed in Appendix I of CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora), Endangered in IUCN red list and Schedule I of India’s Wildlife (Protection), Act, 1972.
Indus river dolphin:
Indus river dolphins are believed to have originated in the ancient Tethys Sea. When the sea dried up approximately 50 million years ago, the dolphins were forced to adapt to its only remaining habitat, rivers. Until recently, it was believed that these dolphins were endemic to Pakistan. But in 2007, a remnant but viable population of Indus dolphins was discovered in Punjab’s Harike wildlife sanctuary and in the lower Beas river. Punjab bats for conservation of Indus river dolphin - The Hindu
These dolphins are usually found individually or in pairs but have been seen in groups of up to 10.
They have adapted to life in the muddy river and are functionally blind (Like the Ganges River Dolphin). They rely on echolocation to navigate, communicate and hunt prey including prawns, catfish, and carp. The Indus river dolphin is classified as endangered by the International Union for the Conservation of Nature (IUCN). So, statement 3 is not correct.
Irrawaddy dolphins:
Irrawaddy dolphins are patchily distributed throughout freshwater and coastal areas in Southeast Asia. The three main freshwater populations inhabit the Ayeyarwady, Mekong, and Mahakam rivers. Coastal populations live in brackish or saline waters, and are generally associated with areas of freshwater input, such as river deltas, mangrove channels, and estuaries. So, statement 2 is correct.Irrawaddy Dolphin | Species | WWF
They tend to occur in small groups of 2-6 individuals.
Gestation is thought to be about 14 months, with births peaking in the pre-monsoon season of April-June, but they may occur year-round.
The Irrawaddy dolphin species, the Gangetic River Dolphin and the Indus Valley Dolphin are red-listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List of Species. So, statement 4 is correct.
With reference to freshwater ecology, which of the following are Lentic Ecosystems?
- Swamps
- Rivers
- Bogs
- Springs
- Ponds
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 3 and 5 only
Explanation :
The freshwater ecology refers to the relationships that living organisms have with each other in their instinctive environment, thus forming a well-balanced ecosystem. Though they occupy a relatively small portion of the earth’s surface as compared to other marine and terrestrial habitats, they are of much importance to a variety of life forms on the earth. Freshwater ecology, based on habitat condition, is categorised into two types: (i) Standing water or lentic: for example ponds, swamps and bogs etc., and (ii) Flowing water or lotic: classical examples being rivers, streams, springs etc.
Consider the following statements with reference to sacred groves:
- They can vary in size from a few trees to large forests.
- Umang Lai is a local name for sacred groves in Kerala.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Sacred groves are the patches of vegetation protected on the basis of religious faith. They may vary in size from a few trees to dense forests covering extensive tracts of land. Apart from India, they occur in other parts of Asia, Africa, Europe, America and Australia. So, statement 1 is correct.
The estimated number of sacred groves in India is likely to be between 100,000 and 150,000. They are known by different names in different regions as Than or Madaico in Assam, Matagudi, Devgudi or Sarana in Chhattisgarh, Devarakaadu or Kans in Karnataka, Kaavu in Kerala, Devrai or Devgudi in Maharashtra, Umang Lai in Manipur, Law Kyntang or Law Niam in Meghalaya and Bugyal or Dev Van in Uttarakhand. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The term “30x30 Target” is often mentioned in the news in the context of
Protect and conserve 30% of the world’s terrestrial, freshwater, coastal and marine ecosystems.
Explanation :
India – as a party to the International Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) – recently expressed its support for a global target known colloquially as ’30 × 30′.
Its aim is to protect and conserve 30% of the world’s terrestrial, freshwater, coastal and marine ecosystems. The target is currently being negotiated by parties to the CBD as part of the post-2020 ‘Global Biodiversity Framework’.
‘30 × 30′ is a global target, which means that parties to the CBD together, have to protect 30% of the world’s land and sea. So depending on national conditions and circumstances, each country will be left to determine the percentage of its own geographical areas that it will allocate towards meeting this target. Areas that will be counted include area-based conservation measures like marine protected areas and other effective area-based conservation measures (OECMs) that are established in territorial waters; the EEZ of each country; and parts of the high seas (i.e., waters beyond national jurisdiction).
Consider the following statements with reference to sea cucumber:
- It is a type of marine plant mainly found in the Indian Ocean region.
- It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
- World’s first sea cucumber conservation reserve is located in Lakshadweep Islands.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
2 and 3 only
Sea cucumbers are part of a larger animal group called echinoderms which are characterized by a hard, spiny covering or skin. There are more than 1,250 known species of sea cucumber, and most of these animals are shaped like soft-bodied cucumbers. So, statement 1 is not correct.
It is protected under Schedule I of the wildlife protection act, 1972. In the IUCN Red List, they are categorized as: Brown sea cucumber (Endangered), Blackspotted sea cucumber (Least Concern), Blue sea cucumber (Data Deficient), etc. So, statement 2 is correct.
In 2020, the Lakshadweep Islands administration announced the creation of the world’s first conservation area for sea cucumbers. So, statement 3 is correct.
Which of the following are the macronutrients required by plants?
- Nitrogen
- Copper
- Magnesium
- Sulfur
- Iron
Choose the correct option using the codes below:
1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
Plants need certain essential elements or compounds to grow, develop, and produce at their best, which are called plant essential nutrients. These are classified as primary or macronutrients and micro- or trace nutrients based on the amounts of nutrients that are required by plants.
Macronutrients are those which are usually taken up by the plants in the largest amounts (10 -100 kg or more per hectare). They are nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P), potassium (K), calcium (Ca), magnesium (Mg) and sulphur (S). So, points 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
7 essential plant nutrient elements defined as micronutrients are [boron (B), zinc (Zn), manganese (Mn), iron (Fe), copper (Cu), molybdenum (Mo), chlorine (Cl)].
Consider the following statements:
- If we move across a food chain from producers to top consumers, there is constant increase of energy at subsequent trophic level.
- If we move across a food chain from producers to top consumers there is a constant increase of non-biodegradable toxicant at subsequent trophic levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Food chain represent the sequence of living organisms which feed on one other. It starts with producers and ends with top consumers.
As one moves from producer across trophic levels there is a constant decrease of energy as only a certain portion of the energy goes to the next trophic level and rest is lost. So, the pyramid of energy is always upright as the energy available at the producer level is maximum and at top consumer it is minimum. So, statement (1) is not correct.
Non-biodegradable compounds are not digested, they accumulate within the animals that ingest them, and become more and more concentrated as they pass along the food chain as animals eat and then are eaten in turn. This is biomagnification and it means that higher-level predators build up greater and more dangerous amounts of toxic materials than animals lower on the food chain. So, statement (2) is correct.
Which of the following is/are characteristic features of an ecosystem?
- Sustains life on Earth
- Homeostasis
- Ability to evolve as per changing environmental conditions
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Ecosystem is a single unit which sustains life on Earth. So, statement (1) is correct.
The tendency of an ecosystem to maintain its state of stable equilibrium is called as homeostasis. So, statement (2) is correct.
Ability to evolve as per changing environment is the characteristic feature of a specie. The process is called as speciation. So, statement (3) is not correct.
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Neuston: These are a group of organisms found on top of or attached to the underside of the surface film of water. They include insects such as whirligig beetles and water striders, some spiders and protozoans, and occasional worms, snails, insect larvae, and hydras. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Nekton: These are the animals that swim freely, independent of water motion or wind. The animals range in size from the swimming insects (about 2 mm long) to the largest animals, the blue whale. They include fishes, squids, carbs etc. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Benthos: It is the group of organisms inhabiting the seafloor. Polychaete worms, pelecypods, anthozoans are some examples of Benthos. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Consider the following statements:
- It is located in Odisha.
- It lies in a rich delta made by the Brahmani, Baitarani and Dhamara rivers.
- It is home to the largest congregation of the endangered Salt Water Crocodile in the country.
- It is also designated as a Ramsar site.
The above statements correctly describe which one of the following protected areas?
Bhitarkanika National Park
Explanation :
The population of nesting birds has registered a marginal increase in Bhitarkanika National Park.
About Bhitarkanika National Park:
Location: It is located in the Kendrapara district of Odisha.
It lies in a rich delta made by the Brahmani, Baitarani and Dhamara rivers.
It comprises vast mangrove forests, meandering rivers and creeks leading to tidal deltas.
Spread over a vast area of 672 sq. km, it is the second-largest mangrove ecosystem in India.
Proximity to the Bay of Bengal makes the soil of the area enriched with salt; the vegetation and species of the sanctuary are comprised of those that are mainly found in the tropical and subtropical intertidal regions.
It is also designated as the second Ramsar site in Odisha after the Chilika Lake.
Flora: Mangrove species, casuarinas, and grasses like the indigo bush.
Fauna:
It is home to the largest congregation of the endangered Salt Water Crocodile in the country.
The Gahirmatha Beach, which forms the boundary of the park in the east, is the largest colony of the Olive Ridley Sea Turtles.
It is also home to numerous animals like hyenas, wild boar, Chitals, Sambar, Spotted Deer, Wild Boar, Jungle cat, Wild Pigs, etc., and migratory birds, which make it their home during the winter season, lending a vibrant hue to the ecosystem.
Consider the following statements regarding Necrotising fasciitis, recently seen in the news:
- It is a rare and life-threatening bacterial infection.
- It primarily causes inflammation or swelling of bone tissue.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A 59-year-old British man narrowly escaped death after a seemingly minor spider bite that turned into a life-threatening disease named Necrotising fasciitis.
About Necrotising fasciitis:
Necrotizing fasciitis, also known as flesh-eating disease, is a rare and life-threatening bacterial infection that affects the tissue under your skin called fascia.
“Necrotizing” means causing tissue death, and “fasciitis” refers to fascia inflammation, which is tissue under the skin.
It includes two types:
Type I, or polymicrobial: This type happens when more than one bacteria, usually a mix of aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, causes the infection.
Type II, or monomicrobial: The monomicrobial form is typically caused by one bacteria, group A streptococcus or Staphylococcus aureus bacteria.
The infection may get into the body through:
cuts and scratches
burns and scalds
insect bites
surgery
injecting drugs
It is a form of Necrotizing Soft Tissue Infection (NSTI). These life-threatening infections affect the skin, muscles, and soft tissue and cause patches of tissue to die.
Necrotising fasciitis infection typically travels along the fascial plane, which has a poor blood supply, leaving the overlying tissues initially unaffected, potentially delaying diagnosis and surgical intervention.
It spreads quickly and aggressively in an infected person, causes tissue death at the infection site, and can be deadly if not treated right away.
Symptoms:
Early symptoms of this condition include signs and symptoms that resemble those of the flu.
Later signs and symptoms include Reddened and/or discolored skin, Swelling of affected tissues, Unstable blood flow, Blisters filled with bloody or yellowish fluid, Tissue death (necrosis), Low blood pressure, Sepsis, etc.
Treatment:
Currently, there isn’t a vaccine to prevent necrotizing fasciitis.
It’s treated with antibiotics and surgery to remove damaged tissue.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
With reference to Windfall Tax, consider the following statements:
- It is a higher tax imposed on specific industries when they make unusual and above-average profits.
- Windfall profits are directly attributed to any expansion or investment strategy of a business.
- It is used as a supplementary revenue stream for the government.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The government recently slashed the windfall tax on domestically produced crude oil to ‘nil’ per tonne.
About Windfall Tax:
It is a higher tax imposed on specific industries when they make unusual and above-average profits.
The term “windfall” refers to an unexpected rise in profits, and the tax on windfall gains is known as the windfall tax.
The increase in profits is not attributed to any expansion or investment strategy of a business but to a favourable external factor for which the business is not responsible.
A windfall tax is levied on industries or businesses that make disproportionate profits during unexpected situations like commodity shortages, wars, pandemics, changes in government policy, etc.
The most common industries that fall target to windfall gains tax include oil, gas, and mining.
Some individual taxes—such as inheritance tax or taxes on lottery or game-show winnings—can also be construed as a windfall tax.
Objective:
The primary objective of windfall taxes is to appropriate a portion of these extraordinary profits, which are perceived to exceed normal returns, for the public good.
Governments assert that these profits are not solely due to the taxed entity’s efforts but also due to external factors, justifying the redistribution of such gain to benefit society as a whole.
It is also used as a supplementary revenue stream for the government.
Consider the following statements regarding the Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE):
- CGTMSE facilitates collateral-free credit support of up to Rs. 5 crores to Micro & Small Enterprises (MSEs), extended by the CGTMSE’s member lending institutions.
- The corpus of CGTMSE is being contributed entirely by the Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Women-owned micro and small enterprises will get enhanced credit guarantee coverage of 90 percent under the CGTMSE scheme after its board approved the new guidelines recently.
About Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE):
The Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (M/o MSME) started the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Micro & Small Enterprises (MSEs) in the year 2000.
Objective: To catalyze the flow of institutional credit to Micro & Small Enterprises (MSEs).
The scheme was formally launched on August 30, 2000, and is operational with effect from 1st January 2000.
The scheme aims to facilitate access to credit for the unserved and underserved MSE segment of the MSME Sector, making the availability of credit from conventional lenders to new-generation entrepreneurs and underprivileged, that lack supporting their loan proposal with collateral security and/or a third-party guarantee.
In order to implement the Credit Guarantee Scheme, CGTMSE was jointly set up by the M/o MSME, the Government of India, and the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI).
Funding: The corpus of CGTMSE is being contributed by the Government of India and SIDBI in the ratio of 4:1.
Eligible Lending Institutions:
Scheduled commercial banks (Public Sector Banks/Private Sector Banks/Foreign Banks) and select Regional Rural Banks (which have been classified under the ‘Sustainable Viable’ category by NABARD).
National Small Industries Corporation Ltd. (NSIC), North Eastern Development Finance Corporation Ltd. (NEDFi), SIDBI, selected Small Finance banks, and NBFCs have also been made eligible institutions.
Eligible Credit Facility:
CGTMSE facilitates collateral-free credit support of up to Rs. 5 crores to MSEs, extended by the CGTMSE’s Member Lending Institutions.
The extent of guarantee cover is 85% for microenterprises for credit up to Rs. 5 lakhs. For credit ranging from Rs. 5 lakhs to Rs. 500 lakhs, the extent of guarantee cover is 75%.
The extent of guarantee cover is 80% for loans/credits in the North East Region(incl. Sikkim, UT of Jammu & Kashmir, and UT of Ladakh) for credits up to Rs. 50 lakhs. Above Rs.50 lakhs, guarantee cover is 75%.
The extent of guarantee cover is 85%for MSMEs owned/operated by SC/ST entrepreneurs, Persons with Disabilities (PwDs), MSEs situated in Aspirational Districts, ZED-certified MSEs and MSEs promoted by Agniveers.
The extent of guarantee cover is 90% for MSMEs owned/operated by women.
For all other categories of borrowers, the Extent of guarantee cover is 75%.
In cases of default, the trust settles the claim up to 75%(85%/80% wherever applicable) of the amount in default of the credit facility extended by the lending institution.
The “Rapa Nui”, also known as Easter Island, is located in:
Southeastern Pacific Ocean
Explanation :
Rapa Nui, also known as Easter Island, never experienced a ruinous population collapse, according to an analysis of ancient DNA from 15 former inhabitants of the remote island in the Pacific Ocean.
About Rapa Nui:
Rapa Nui, also known as Easter Island, is a Chilean dependency in the southeastern Pacific Ocean.
It is the easternmost outpost of the Polynesian island world.
It is situated about 3,540 km to the west of Chile and about 1,900 km to the east of Pitcairn Island.
Covering a total area of 163.6 sq.km., it is one of the most remote inhabited places in the world.
It is a small, triangular-shaped volcanic island. It is about 24 km in length and has a maximum width of about 12 km at its widest point.
It faces a tropical rainforest climate.
UNESCO named Easter Island a World Heritage Site on March 22, 1996, and major parts of the island have been protected under the Rapa Nui National Park.
What are Moai Statues?
Rapa Nui is famous for its large statues called moai.
They are shaped like large human heads and erected on stone pedestals.
They are famous for their carved heads and “Pukao,” a hat-like covering made from a soft red stone.
Some moai stand 40 feet tall and weigh 75 tonnes.
They were carved in volcanic stone at quarries and then moved to their current locations across the island.
Scholars believe the Rapa Nui people built the moai between the 13th and the 16th centuries and represented their revered ancestors.
Over 900 moai have been found on the island to date.
Consider the following statements regarding the SUBHADRA Scheme:
- It is a flagship Scheme of Government of Odisha.
- Under this scheme all aged women beneficiaries would receive Rs. 50,000/- over a period of 5 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India launched ‘SUBHADRA’, the flagship Scheme of the Government of Odisha, in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
It is named after Goddess Subhadra, the younger sibling of Lord Jagannath, the presiding deity of Odisha.
All eligible women beneficiaries between the age of 21-60 years would receive Rs. 50,000/- over a period of 5 years between 2024-25 to 2028-29.
An amount of Rs 10,000/- per annum in two equal installments will be credited directly to the beneficiary’s Aadhaar-enabled and DBT-enabled bank account.
How it will work?
The money will be deposited directly into the beneficiary’s Aadhaar-enabled single-holder bank account.
The government has made e-KYC mandatory for the scheme. A Subhadra Debit Card will be issued to the beneficiaries.
A total 100 beneficiaries with the highest number of digital transactions in each gram panchayat and urban local body area will receive an additional incentive of Rs 500.
Women from economically well-off families, government employees, and income-tax payees will not be eligible for the scheme.
Women who receive assistance of Rs 1,500 or more per month (or Rs 18,000 or more per year) under any other government scheme will also be excluded.
There is no last date to register; the process will continue until all eligible beneficiaries have been registered.
With reference to the Seaweeds, consider the following:
- These are species of marine plants and algae that grow in the ocean.
- They act as effective binding agents in commercial goods such as toothpaste and fruit jellies.
- These species protect the human body from damage caused by free radicals.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, the Department of Fisheries under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying has designated the ICAR-Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI) as a centre of excellence for seaweed cultivation.
“Seaweed” is the common name for countless species of marine plants and algae that grow in the ocean as well as in rivers, lakes, and other water bodies.
They range in colours from red, green, brown and black and also vary in size, from microscopic to large underwater forests.
Seaweeds are generally anchored to the sea bottom or other solid structures by rootlike “holdfasts,” which perform the sole function of attachment and do not extract nutrients as do the roots of higher plants.
Many show a well-established zonation along the margins of the seas, where the depth of the water is 50 metres (about 165 feet) or less.
Uses:
A number of seaweed species are edible, and many are also of commercial importance to humans.
Some are used as fertilizers or as sources of polysaccharides.
A high number of antioxidants present in seaweed protects the body from damages caused by free radicals and protects cells from their impact.
Animal studies have found that substances found in seaweed help increase the production of a protein that metabolises fat effectively.
Research suggests that consuming seaweed can help in managing diabetes by balancing the sugar levels in the blood.
Many seaweeds contain anti-inflammatory and anti-microbial agents.
They are effective binding agents (emulsifiers) in such commercial goods as toothpaste and fruit jelly, and popular softeners (emollients) in organic cosmetics and skin-care products.
Consider the following statements regarding the Karam Festival:
- It is mainly celebrated in the Northeastern states of India.
- It is a popular festival related to the harvest and a tribute to the Karam tree.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, tribal populations in many states of India celebrated the harvest festival of Karma or Karam Parv.
Karma Puja, one of the most popular festivals is related to the harvest and a tribute to the Karam tree. This tree symbolises fertility, prosperity and everything that is auspicious.
Origin: The origin of the festival can be traced to the beginning of agriculture by tribal communities.
How it is celebrated?
About a week before the festival commences, young women bring clear sand from the river, in which they sow seven types of grains.
On the day of the festival, a branch of the Karam tree is planted in the courtyard or ‘akhra’.
Devotees come with Jawa (hibiscus) flowers, and the pahan (priest) worships the Karam Raja. Dancing and singing of traditional Karam songs follow.
The festival concludes with the immersion of the Karam branch in a river or pond, and the Jawa is distributed among the devotees.
Towards the end of the Karam festival, branches from sal or bhelua trees are often planted in the fields with the hope that the Karam Raja/ Devta will protect their crops.
It is traditionally celebrated on the Ekadashi tithi (eleventh day) of the lunar fortnight in the month of Bhado/ Bhadra, which corresponds to August-September in the Gregorian calendar.
The festival is popular, especially among the Munda, Ho, Oraon, Baiga, Kharia, and Santhal peoples.
It is mainly celebrated in Jharkhand, West Bengal, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Assam, and Odisha.
Consider the following statements regarding Phosphoric acid:
- It is a non-combustible and colorless acid obtained from phosphate rock deposits.
- It is used in the manufacturing of superphosphate fertilizer and livestock feeds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The diversion of phosphoric acid, a key fertiliser ingredient, for making electric vehicle batteries can become a source of worry for Indian agriculture.
It is a non-combustible, colorless, odorless phosphorus-containing inorganic acid.
Phosphoric acid is not directly found in nature. It can be obtained from phosphate rock deposits.
Uses
It is used to make phosphate salts for fertilizers.
It is also used in dental cement, in the preparation of albumin derivatives, and in the sugar and textile industries.
It serves as an acidic, fruitlike flavouring in food products.
It is also used in lithium-iron-phosphate (LFP) batteries.
It is used in the manufacture of superphosphate fertilisers, livestock feeds, phosphate salts, polyphosphates, soaps, waxes, polishes and detergents.
It is an irritant or corrosive to the skin, eyes, and other mucous membranes.
India imports phosphoric acid mainly from Jordan, Morocco, Senegal, and Tunisia.
Key facts about Phosphate Rock
It is the natural source of phosphorus, an element that provides nutrients to plants for their growth and development.
How is phosphate formed? It is a sedimentary rock formed millions of years ago by the accumulation of organic matter on the ocean floor.
Its reserves are found in Africa, North America, Kazakhstan, the Middle East and Oceania.
The world’s largest deposits are located in Morocco, which is also one of the global leaders in phosphate extraction.
Phosphorus in India: Phosphate rocks are majorly produced only from two States in India, namely Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh.
Hence both statements are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Online Information and Database Access or Retrieval (OIDAR) services:
- It is provided through the medium of the internet without having any physical interface.
- The service providers need not pay Goods and Service Tax on their services in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
According to a report by the Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI), many providers of Online Information and Database Access or Retrieval (OIDAR) services based abroad represent a “relatively untapped” sector with “tremendous” revenue potential.
It is a category of services provided through the medium of the internet and received by the recipient online without having any physical interface with the supplier of such services.
OIDAR services, delivered over the internet or electronic networks, are highly dependent on information technology and include offerings such as cloud services, digital content, online gaming, and online advertising.
When such services are provided by an offshore entity to a non-taxable recipient, the supplier becomes liable for obtaining registration and discharging GST on the same.
Criteria to determine an OIDAR Service
These are the services whose delivery is mediated by information technology over the internet/electronic network and Services are automated and impossible to ensure in the absence of internet technology.
Currently, as many as 574 offshore entities providing OIDAR Services have registered themselves with the GST department, and annual revenue from this sector has increased from Rs 80 crore for the FY 2017-18 to Rs 2,675 crore for 2023-24 fiscal.
According to DGGI in its annual report noted that since the OIDAR service providers are located abroad it becomes a challenge in GST enforcement and hence the sector remains relatively untapped and holds tremendous revenue potential.
Consider the following:
- It is native to the Indian subcontinent.
- It is the most common deer species in Indian forests.
- It has a reddish-brown coat above and a white underbelly.
- It is classified as ‘Least Concern’ under the IUCN Red List.
The above statements correctly describe which one of the following deer species?
Chital
Explanation :
Overpopulated spotted deer in Madhya Pradesh’s Pench Tiger Reserve are stressing the habitat, prompting relocation efforts to balance the ecosystem.
About Spotted Deer:
The spotted deer, or Chital, is the most common deer species in Indian forests.
Scientific Name: Axis axis
Distribution:
It is native to the Indian subcontinent.
It is widely distributed in Asia, especially in India, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Bhutan, and a small group in Pakistan.
Features:
It stands at about 35 inches tall and weighs about 187 pounds.
It has a reddish-brown coat above and a white underbelly.
Both genders have small white spots on the body, hence named Spotted or Chital.
Spotted deer are sexually dimorphic. Males are significantly larger than females, and only male deers possess antlers.
Its curved, three-pronged antlers extend nearly 3 feet and shed each year.
Lifespan: 20 to 30 years
They are social animals. They occur in herds of 10 to 50 individuals, with one or two males and a number of females and young.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanchronicle.com/nation/in-other-news/pench-tiger-reserve-faces-habitat-strain-due-to-spotted-deer-overpopulation-1824411
Consider the following statements regarding Houthis:
- They are an Iranian-backed Shiite Muslim military and political movement in Yemen.
- The Houthi movement began as an effort to maintain autonomy and protest Western influence in the Middle East.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Yemen’s Houthi rebels launched a ballistic missile that struck near Israel’s Tel Aviv, a bustling commercial hub, recently.
About Houthis:
The Houthis, officially known as Ansar Allah (Partisans of God), are an Iranian-backed Shiite Muslim military and political movement in Yemen.
Its members, who subscribe to the minority Zaidi sect of Shiite Islam, advocate regional autonomy for Zaidis in northern Yemen.
Shiite Muslims are the minority community in the Islamic world, and Zaidis are a minority of Shiites, significantly different in doctrine and beliefs from the Shiites who dominate in Iran, Iraq and elsewhere.
They are a minority in Yemen, which is predominantly Sunni Muslim, but they are a significant one, numbering in the hundreds of thousands and making up as much as a third of the overall population.
The group emerged in the 1990s and takes its name from the movement’s late founder, Hussein al-Houthi.
The Houthi movement began as an effort to maintain tribal autonomy in northern Yemen and protest Western influence in the Middle East.
They have been fighting Yemen’s Sunni-majority government since 2004.
The Houthis took over the Yemeni capital Sanaa in September 2014 and seized control over much of north Yemen by 2016. Currently, Houthis controls approximately one-third of Yemen’s territory.
Today, the Houthis seek a greater role in the Yemeni government and continue to advocate for Zaidi minority interests.
The movement is known for its virulently anti-American and anti-Semitic rhetoric.
Several of the group’s leaders have been designated as terrorists by the United States.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/houthis-israel-yemen-how-yemens-houthi-rebels-get-hold-of-ballistic-missiles-to-attack-israel-6576154
Which one of the following is NOT a component of the Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA) scheme?
Pilot of Private Procurement and Stockist Schemes (PPPS)
Explanation :
The Union cabinet recently extended the PM-AASHA price support scheme in agriculture till 2025-26.
About Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA):
It is an umbrella scheme aimed at ensuring remunerative prices to the farmers for their produce.
The revamped PM AASHA has four components, and states can choose whichever one they wish to implement. They are:
Price Support Scheme (PSS):
In PSS, physical procurement of pulses, oilseeds, and copra will be done by Central Nodal Agencies with the proactive role of state governments.
In addition to the National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED), Food Corporation of India (FCI) will take up PSS operations in states/districts.
The procurement expenditure and losses due to procurement will be borne by the Central Government as per norms.
Price Stabilization Fund (PSF):
It will help in protecting consumers from extreme volatility in prices of agri-horticultural commodities by maintaining strategic buffer stock of pulses and onion for calibrated release; to discourage hoarding, unscrupulous speculation; and for supplies to consumers at affordable prices.
Procurement of pulses at market price will be done by Department of Consumer Affairs (DoCA) including Pre-registered farmers on eSamridhi portal of NAFED and eSamyukti portal of NCCF whenever prices rule above MSP in the market.
Apart from buffer maintenance, the interventions under PSF scheme have been undertaken in other crops such as Tomato and in subsidized retail sale of Bharat DaIs, Bharat Atta and Bharat Rice.
Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS):
Under PDPS, it is proposed to cover all oilseeds for which MSP is notified.
Direct payment of the difference between the MSP and the selling/model price will be made to pre-registered farmers selling his produce in the notified market yard through a transparent auction process.
All payments will be done directly into the registered bank account of the farmer.
This scheme does not involve any physical procurement of crops, as farmers are paid the difference between the MSP price and the Sale/modal price on disposal in the notified market.
The support of the central government for PDPS will be given as per norms.
Market Intervention scheme (MIS):
It will provide remunerative prices to farmers growing perishable horticulture crops. The Government has increased the coverage from 20% to 25% of production and has added a new option of making differential payment directly into the farmers’ account instead of physical procurement under MIS.
Further, in case of TOP (Tomato, Onion & Potato) crops, to bridge the price gap in TOP crops between producing states and consuming states during peak harvesting time, the Government has decided to bear the transportation and storage expenses for the operations undertaken by Central Nodal Agencies like NAFED & NCCF which will not only ensure remunerative prices to farmers but also soften the prices of TOP crops for consumers in the market.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.pmindia.gov.in/en/news_updates/cabinet-approves-continuation-of-schemes-of-pradhan-mantri-annadata-aay-sanrakshan-abhiyan-pm-aasha/
With reference to Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs), consider the following statements:
- REITs are companies that own or finance income-producing real estate across a range of property sectors.
- Most REITs are publicly traded like stocks, which makes them highly liquid, unlike traditional real estate investments.
- To be qualified as a REIT in India, at least 50% of the investment must be made in real estate properties that are capable of generating revenues.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Indian REITs Association (IRA) recently launched Data Benchmarking Institutions (DBIs) to provide investors with detailed information on real estate investment trusts (REITs).
About Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs):
REITs are companies that own or finance income-producing real estate across a range of property sectors.
It allows investors to pool their funds and invest in various real estate projects.
Essentially, it functions like a mutual fund for real estate investments.
These trusts own and oversee a portfolio of income-generating properties, such as office buildings, hotels, shopping malls, etc.
Unlike other real estate companies, a REIT does not develop real estate properties to resell them. Instead, a REIT buys and develops properties primarily to operate them as part of its own investment portfolio.
When investors invest in a REIT, they become fractional owners of the property equivalent to the amount they’ve invested, giving them access to the benefits of owning real estate assets in small ticket sizes.
Most REITs are publicly traded like stocks, which makes them highly liquid, unlike traditional real estate investments.
REITs in India:
In India, REITs were introduced in 2014 and are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
For a company to qualify as a REIT, the following criteria must be satisfied:
90% of the income must be distributed to the investors in the form of dividends.
80% of the investment must be made in properties that are capable of generating revenues.
Only 10% of the total investment must be made in real estate under-construction properties.
The company must have an asset base of at least Rs 500 crores.
REITs cannot invest in agricultural land, or vacant land.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://realty.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/industry/reit-association-launches-dbis-to-provide-detailed-information-to-investors/113476250
With reference to the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL), consider the following statements:
- It is a statutory board constituted under the Environment Protection Act (EPA) of 1986.
- It is responsible for guiding the government’s decisions on matters related to wildlife conservation and issuing approvals for projects in Protected Areas (PAs).
- It is headed by the Union Minister of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change as Chairperson.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The standing committee of the NBWL (SC-NBWL) recently cleared projects such as a transmission line in Little Rann of Kutch, and a controversial transmission line project in Goa’s Mollem national park, among others.
About National Board for Wildlife (NBWL):
It is a statutory board constituted by the Central Government under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
It is responsible for guiding the government’s decisions on matters related to wildlife conservation and issuing approvals for projects in Protected Areas (PAs).
The WLPA mandates that without the approval/recommendation of the NBWL, construction of tourist lodges, alteration of the boundaries of PAs, destruction or diversion of wildlife habitat, and de-notification of Tiger Reserves, cannot be done.
Structure:
It is a 47-member committee, headed by the Prime Minister and the Minister of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change as vice chairperson.
In addition to offices and institutions directly involved in the conservation and protection of wildlife, the NBWL also has the chief of army staff, defence secretary, and expenditure secretary to the Government of India as members.
Further, the central government nominates 10 members who are eminent conservationists, ecologists, and environmentalists.
In practical terms, many of its tasks are delegated to a standing committee (SC-NBWL), which is empowered to carry out the same functions.
The SC-NBWL shall consist of the Vice-Chairperson (environment minister), the Member Secretary, and not more than ten members to be nominated by the Vice-Chairperson from amongst the members of the NBWL.
While the act envisaged the board and the committee as advisory bodies, their powers and responsibilities were increased in 2002 after the Supreme Court ruled that the SC-NBWL had to approve all proposals that sought permission for “any activity” within a wildlife sanctuary.
The SC-NBWL also makes recommendations on the setting up of and management of National Parks, Sanctuaries, and other PAs and on matters relating to restriction of activities in those areas.
The SC-NBWL shall ordinarily meet once in three months.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/post-election-meeting-wildlife-board-clears-transmission-lines-in-gujarat-flamingo-habitat-goas-mollem-forest-9560284/
Consider the following statements regarding the Naga king chilli:
- It is known for its extreme heat and ranked among the hottest chillies in the world.
- It has received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Seiyhama village in Nagaland celebrated the third edition of the Naga King Chilli festival.
It belongs to the genus Capsicum of the family Solanaceae.
It is also known as raja mircha, Bhoot Jolokia and Ghost pepper.
It is a spice renowned globally for its extreme heat, which exceeds 1 million Scoville Heat Units (SHU).
It is ranked among the hottest chillies in the world, the king chilli holds significant cultural and economic value for the Naga people.
It has received the prestigious Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2008.
The cultivation of king chilli in Seiyhama is an ancient practice. Farmers begin searching for suitable plots in December or January, with large bamboo groves being the preferred location.
The peak harvest of king chilli occurs in August and September, with the final harvest in November and December.
Significance: The king chilli has long been used to preserve food in Nagaland’s hot, humid climate, extending the shelf life of food and reducing waste.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/agriculture/fiery-traditions-nagaland-villages-king-chilli-festival-ignites-community-spirit
With reference to NPS Vatsalya Scheme, consider the following:
- It is applicable to a minor citizen of India.
- It is opened through various Points of presence regulated by Pension Fund Regulatory Authority of India.
- The accumulated amount in minor account under this scheme can’t be withdrawn until he/she attains the age of 18 years.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Finance Minister officially launched the NPS Vatsalya scheme.
It is an extension of the existing National Pension Scheme (NPS) but focuses on children.
Eligibility for NPS Vatsalya as follows:
All minor citizens (age below 18 years).
Both the child and the parent must be Indian citizens. All parties must comply with the Know Your Customer (KYC) requirements.
Account can be opened in the name of minor and operated by parent or guardian. Minor will be the beneficiary.
Scheme can be opened through various Points of presence regulated by Pension Fund Regulatory Authority of India (PFRDA) such as major banks, India Post, Pension Funds and Online platform (e-NPS).
Contribution: Subscriber to make a minimum contribution of Rs 1000/- per annum. There is no limit on the maximum contribution.
PFRDA will provide multiple investment choices to subscribers. Subscribers can take exposure in government securities, corporate debt, and equity in different proportions based on risk appetite and desired returns.
On attaining the age of majority, the plan can be converted seamlessly into a normal NPS account.
Withdrawal rules
After three years of opening the NPS vastsalya account, partial withdrawals are allowed. Up to 25% of the corpus can be withdrawn for specific purposes, including education, medical treatment for certain illnesses, or disabilities over 75%.
Once the child attains the age of 18, the corpus of up to Rs 2.5 lakh can be withdrawn entirely and if it exceeds, the 20% can be withdrawn and rest 80% can be used for annuity purchase in the NPS.
In the unfortunate event of a subscriber’s death, the entire corpus is given to the nominee, usually the guardian. If the guardian dies, a new guardian must be assigned after completing a new KYC.
If both parents die, a legal guardian can manage the account without further contributions until the child turns 18.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/finance/personal-finance/nps-vatsalya-launched-for-kids-know-investment-amount-eligibility-more-124091800842_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Bio- RIDE Scheme:
- It is designed to foster innovation and promote bio-entrepreneurship in India.
- It is being implemented for a period from 2021-22 to 2025-26.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister of India approved continuation of the two umbrella schemes of Department of Biotechnology (DBT), merged as one scheme-‘Biotechnology Research Innovation and Entrepreneurship Development (Bio- RIDE).
It is designed to foster innovation, promote bio-entrepreneurship, and strengthen India’s position as a global leader in biomanufacturing and biotechnology.
It aims to accelerate research, enhance product development, and bridge the gap between academic research and industrial applications.
The scheme has three broad components:
Biotechnology Research and Development (R&D);
Industrial & Entrepreneurship Development (I&ED)
Biomanufacturing and Biofoundry (New component under this new scheme).
It is part of the Government of India’s mission to harness the potential of bio-innovation to tackle national and global challenges such as healthcare, agriculture, environmental sustainability, and clean energy.
Funding and Time period: The proposed outlay for the implementation of the unified scheme ‘Bio-RIDE’ is Rs.9197 crore during the 15th finance Commission period from 2021-22 to 2025-26.
Implementation of Bio-RIDE Scheme will -
Promote Bio-Entrepreneurship: It will nurture a thriving ecosystem for startups by providing seed funding, incubation support, and mentorship to bio-entrepreneurs.
Advance Innovation: It will offer grants and incentives for cutting-edge research and development in areas like synthetic biology, biopharmaceuticals, bioenergy, and bioplastics
Facilitate Industry-Academia Collaboration: It will create synergies between academic institutions, research organizations, and industry to accelerate the commercialization of bio-based products and technologies.
Encourage Sustainable Biomanufacturing: A significant focus will be placed on promoting environmentally sustainable practices in biomanufacturing, aligned with India’s green goals.
Support researchers through Extramural funding: It will play critical role in advancing scientific research, innovation, and technological development across diverse fields of biotechnology by supporting extramural funding to research institutions, universities, and individual researchers in areas such as agriculture, healthcare, bioenergy, and environmental sustainability.
Nurturing Human Resource in Biotechnology sector: It will provide holistic development and support to students, young researchers and scientists working in the multidisciplinary areas of Biotechnology.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2056001
Consider the following statements regarding the Next Generation Launch Vehicle:
- It will have reusability and modular green propulsion systems.
- It will be developed to have a maximum payload capability of 300 tonnes to Low Earth Orbit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister of India has approved the development of Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV).
It will have 3 times the present payload capability with 1.5 times the cost compared to LVM3, and will also have reusability resulting in low-cost access to space and modular green propulsion systems.
The development of the NGLV is taken up which is designed to have a maximum payload capability of 30 tonnes to Low Earth Orbit, which also has a reusable first stage.
This development project will be implemented with maximal participation from the Indian industry, which is also expected to invest in the manufacturing capacity at the outset itself, thereby allowing a seamless transition to the operational phase subsequent to the development.
NGLV will be demonstrated with three development flights (D1, D2 & D3) with a target of 96 months (8 years) for the completion of the development phase.
The total fund approved is Rs. 8240.00 Crore and includes the development costs, three developmental flights, essential facility establishment, Programme Management and Launch Campaign.
Significance
It will enable national & commercial missions including launch of human spaceflight missions to Bharatiya Antariksh Station.
Lunar/inter-planetary exploration missions along with communication & earth observation satellite constellations to Low Earth Orbit that will benefit the entire space ecosystem in the country.
This project will boost the Indian space ecosystem in terms of capability and capacity.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2055979
Consider the following statements regarding the Venus Orbiter Mission:
- It aims to understand the Venus surface and influence of Sun on its atmosphere.
- It will be jointly developed by the India Space Research Organisation and NASA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister of India has approved the development of Venus Orbiter Mission (VOM).
It is envisaged to orbit a scientific spacecraft in the orbit of planet Venus.
Objectives
It is for better understanding of the Venusian surface and subsurface, atmospheric processes and influence of Sun on Venusian atmosphere.
The study of the underlying causes of transformation of Venus, which is whispered to be once habitable and quite similar to Earth would be an invaluable aid in understanding the evolution of the sister planets, both Venus and Earth.
The Indian Venus mission is expected to answer some of the outstanding scientific questions resulting in various scientific outcomes.
India Space Research Organisation (ISRO) will be responsible for the development of spacecraft and its launch.
The mission is expected to be accomplished on the opportunity available during March 2028. The realization of the spacecraft and launch vehicle is through various industries.
Funding: The total fund approved for the VOM is Rs.1236 Cr out of which Rs 824.00 Crore will be spent on the spacecraft.
The cost includes development and realization of the spacecraft including its specific payloads and technology elements, global ground station support cost for navigation and network as well as the cost of launch vehicle.
Significance: Venus, the closest planet to Earth and believed to have formed in conditions similar to Earth, offers a unique opportunity to understand how planetary environments can evolve very differently.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2055982
With reference to Mali, consider the following statements:
- It is a landlocked country in East Africa.
- It is one of the smallest countries in Africa and has one of the highest population densities.
- The majority of the country is covered by desert or semi-desert.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
An elaborate attack by an Al Qaeda affiliate in Mali’s capital killed some 70 people recently.
About Mali:
It is a landlocked country in West Africa with an area of 1,240,192 sq. km.
Capital: Bamako
Bordering Countries: Mali borders seven other nations: Burkina Faso, Niger, Senegal, Guinea, Cote d’Ivoire, Algeria, and Mauritania.
Geography:
Approximately 65% of the country is covered by desert or semi-desert.
The Sahara Desert makes up a large portion of Mali’s total land area.
Mali has a monotonous landscape, with plains and plateaus dominating the country’s topography.
The landscape transitions from the Sahara Desert in the north through the Sahel to the zone of Sudanian savanna in the south.
It is one of the hottest nations on earth with an average temperature of 114.8 °F (46 °C) in the summer months.
The Niger River flows through its interior, serving as its main source of water.
Although Mali is one of the largest countries in Africa, it has a relatively small population, which is largely centred along the Niger River.
There are many ethnic groups in Mali. The largest of them is Bambara, making up 36.5% of the population.
It gained independence from France in 1960.
Languages: Bambara (most widely spoken), Dogon, Fulfulde, Manding, Arabic, Tuareg, French, etc.
The key industry of Mali is agriculture, and its largest crop export is cotton. In addition, Mali is the third-largest gold exporter in Africa.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/dozens-killed-in-mali-attack-by-al-qaeda-affiliate/article68661777.ece
With reference to White Revolution 2.0, consider the following:
- Enhancing local milk production
- Empowering women farmers
- Increasing milk procurement by private companies
- Boosting dairy exports
How many of the above are key focus areas of White Revolution 2.0?
Only three
Explanation :
The Union Home and Cooperation Minister recently launched the standard operating procedure for ‘White Revolution 2.0’, stating that milk dairies will aid empowerment of women and the fight against malnutrition.
About White Revolution 2.0:
It is a comprehensive initiative aimed at empowering women farmers and creating job opportunities.
The programme focuses on four key areas:
Empowering women farmers
Enhancing local milk production
Strengthening dairy infrastructure
Boosting dairy exports.
Under White Revolution 2.0, the government aims to increase milk procurement by dairy cooperative societies by 50 percent over the next five years by providing market access to dairy farmers in uncovered villages/panchayats and increasing the share of the organized sector in milk procurement.
The plan involves setting up and strengthening 100,000 new and existing district cooperative societies, multi-purpose district cooperative societies, and multi-purpose Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (M-PACS), which will be linked to milk routes with necessary infrastructure.
Providing enabling infrastructure e.g. AMCU (Automatic Milk Collection Unit), DPMCU (Data Processing Milk Collection Units), testing equipment, Bulk Milk Coolers, etc., will be the key component of the initiative for carrying out dairy activities.
Initially, the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) will fund the initiative from its own resources, providing Rs 40,000 per M-PACS to 1,000 M-PACS.
Future funding is expected from the proposed National Programme for Dairy Development 2.0 scheme of the department animal husbandry and dairying (DAHD).
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/white-revolution-20-to-empower-women-amit-shah/article68661246.ece
What does the term “Kleptoparasitism” refer to?
One animal benefiting by stealing resources gathered by another.
Explanation :
Researchers suggest that kleptoparasitism, or food theft, among seabirds could be a transmission pathway for the H5N1 avian influenza virus, potentially explaining its rapid global spread.
About Kleptoparasitism:
The term kleptoparasitism was introduced to describe the theft of food previously collected or processed by some other individual.
It is a form of feeding where one animal takes prey from another that has caught, killed, or otherwise prepared, including stored food (as in the case of cuckoo bees, which lay their eggs on the pollen masses made by other bees).
Kleptoparasitism is also the ‘stealing’ of nest material or other inanimate objects from one animal by another.
Kleptoparasitism occurs in several groups of animals, such as birds, insects, and mammals, and is considered a form of social parasitism.
The kleptoparasite benefits from the efforts of other animals to obtain food, without expending energy in searching for and capturing these resources for itself.
Kleptoparasitism may be intraspecific, where the parasite is the same species as the victim, or interspecific, where the parasite is a different species.
In the latter case, the parasites are commonly close relatives of the organisms they parasitize (“Emery’s Rule”).
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://scienceblog.com/547761/seabird-food-theft-may-spread-deadly-avian-flu/
With reference to Vivad Se Vishwas Scheme 2024 (VSV 2.0), consider the following statements:
- It will enable taxpayers and the Income Tax Department to resolve disputes through a streamlined appeals process.
- It will waive penalties and interest for settlements, ensuring no prosecution will be initiated for cases resolved under the scheme.
- Cases involving searches, prosecutions, and undisclosed foreign income are excluded from eligibility under the scheme.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The second edition of the Direct Tax Vivad se Viswas scheme 2024 (VSV 2.0) will be operational soon, the Finance Ministry has said in a notification.
About Vivad Se Vishwas Scheme 2024 (VSV 2.0):
The scheme aims to reduce ongoing litigations related to income tax.
VSV 2.0 will enable taxpayers and the Income Tax Department to resolve disputes through a streamlined appeals process.
It will provide a mechanism for filing appeals across various appellate forums, including the Joint Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals), the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT), and higher courts.
The scheme covers appeals, writ petitions, and special leave petitions pending as of July 22, 2024, and will waive penalties and interest for settlements, ensuring no prosecution will be initiated for cases resolved under the scheme.
The scheme also covers cases with objections filed before the Dispute Resolution Panel (DRP) where no final assessment order has been issued and pending revision applications before the Commissioner.
However, certain cases are excluded from eligibility, including those involving searches, prosecutions, and undisclosed foreign income.
Taxpayers under specific legal restrictions or serious offenses will also not benefit from the scheme.
The primary goal of VSV 2.0 is to provide a cost-effective mechanism for settling disputed issues, thereby alleviating the burden of litigation on taxpayers and the judicial system.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/direct-tax-vivad-se-viswas-scheme-2024-to-be-operational-from-oct-1/article68662635.ece
With reference to Financial Action Task Force (FATF), consider the following statements:
- It is an intergovernmental policy-making and standard-setting body dedicated to combating money laundering and terrorist financing.
- Once a member, a country must endorse and support the most recent FATF recommendations and commit to being evaluated by other members.
- India and China are not members of the FATF.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Terror financing watchdog Financial Action Task Force (FATF) has said India has achieved a high level of technical compliance with its recommendations and taken significant steps to implement measures to tackle illicit finance.
About Financial Action Task Force (FATF):
FATF is an intergovernmental policy-making and standard-setting body dedicated to combating money laundering and terrorist financing.
Objective: To establish international standards, and to develop and promote policies, both at national and international levels, to combat money laundering and the financing of terrorism.
Origin:
It was established in 1989 during the G7 Summit in Paris to develop policies against money laundering.
In 2001, its mandate expanded to include terrorism financing.
Headquarters: Paris, France.
Members:
To become a member, a country must be considered strategically important (large population, large GDP, developed banking and insurance sector, etc.), must adhere to globally accepted financial standards, and be a participant in other important international organizations.
FATF members include 39 countries, including the United States, India, China, Saudi Arabia, Britain, Germany, France, and the EU as such.
India became a member of FATF in 2010.
The FATF researches how money is laundered and terrorism is funded, promotes global standards to mitigate the risks, and assesses whether countries are taking effective action.
Once a member, a country or organization must endorse and support the most recent FATF recommendations, commit to being evaluated by (and evaluating) other members.
The FATF holds countries to account that do not comply with the FATF Standards.
If a country repeatedly fails to implement FATF Standards, then it can be named a Jurisdiction under Increased Monitoring or a High-Risk Jurisdiction. These are often externally referred to as “the grey and black lists”.
What are FATF ‘grey list’ and ‘blacklist’?
Black List: Countries known as Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs) are put on the blacklist. These countries support terror funding and money laundering activities. The FATF revises the blacklist regularly, adding or deleting entries.
Grey List: Countries that are considered a safe haven for supporting terror funding and money laundering are put on the FATF grey list. This inclusion serves as a warning to the country that it may enter the blacklist.
Three countries-North Korea, Iran, and Myanmar are currently in FATF’s blacklist.
Consequences of being on the FATF blacklist:
No financial aid is given to them by the International Monetary Fund (IMF), the World Bank, the Asian Development Bank (ADB), and the European Union (EU).
They also face a number of international economic and financial restrictions and sanctions.
FATF regularly publishes reports that raise awareness about the latest money laundering, terrorist financing and proliferation financing techniques so that countries and the private sector can take the necessary steps to mitigate these risks.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/fatf-mutual-evaluation-report-india-anti-terror-watchdog-praises-indias-measures-flags-slow-money-laundering-trials-6601689
Consider the following statements regarding Mini moons:
- These are asteroids that fail to escape Earth’s gravity and end up orbiting it for some time.
- These are from the Near-Earth Object (NEO) population, which consists of asteroids and other celestial bodies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
According to a new study, the Earth’s gravitational field will temporarily capture a small asteroid named 2024 PT5 which will behave as a ‘mini moon’.
Mini-moons are asteroids that fail to escape Earth’s gravity and end up orbiting the planet for some time.
They are usually very small and hard to detect — only four mini-moons of Earth have ever been discovered, and none are still orbiting Earth.
These events are relatively frequent, with similar occurrences happening every few decades.
How does Earth capture Mini Moons?
Mini moons are captured from the Near-Earth Object (NEO) population, which consists of asteroids and other celestial bodies that pass close to Earth.
NASA classifies any space object that comes within 120 million miles (190 million kilometers) of our planet as a near-Earth object, while objects within 4.7 million miles (7.5 million kilometers) are considered potentially hazardous.
Key facts about 2024 PT5
It is an Apollo-class NEO, which follows an orbit similar to that of previous mini moons like 2022 NX1.
The asteroid was discovered with the help of the NASA-funded Asteroid Terrestrial-impact Last Alert System (ATLAS).
It is estimated to be just 33 feet long and is too small to be visible to the naked eye or through typical amateur telescopes.
It is within the brightness range of telescopes used by professional astronomers.
Significance: The observations of 2024 PT5 will help scientists expand the knowledge of asteroids that pass close to the Earth and those that sometimes collide with it.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/earth-mini-moon-meaning-9576200/
With reference to the TRISHNA Mission, consider the following statements:
- It is a joint mission of ISRO and French Space Agency CNES.
- It aims to provide high spatial and temporal resolution observations of Earth’s surface temperature and vegetation health.
- It will be operated in the Low Earth Orbit region.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the President of the French Space Agency, Centre National d’Etudes Spatiales (CNES), in an event spoke on a wide range of topics from celebrating 60 years of French-India space cooperation to the Gaganyaan and the TRISHNA missions.
The Thermal Infrared Imaging Satellite for High-resolution Natural Resource Assessment (TRISHNA) mission is a collaborative endeavor between the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the French Space Agency CNES.
Objectives
It is engineered to deliver high spatial and temporal resolution observations of Earth’s surface temperature, vegetation health, and water cycle dynamics.
It will also help in a comprehensive assessment of urban heat islands, detection of thermal anomalies linked to volcanic activity and geothermal resources, and precise monitoring of snow-melt runoff and glacier dynamics.
The mission will also provide valuable data on aerosol optical depth, atmospheric water vapor, and cloud cover.
Payloads: TRISHNA satellite is equipped with two primary payloads.
The Thermal Infra-Red (TIR) Payload: It is provided by CNES, features a four-channel long-wave infrared imaging sensor capable of high-resolution surface temperature and emissivity mapping.
The Visible - Near Infra-Red - Short Wave Infra-Red (VNIR-SWIR) payload: It is developed by ISRO, includes seven spectral bands designed for detailed mapping of surface reflectance of VSWIR bands for generating important biophysical and radiation budget variables.
The variables retrieved from the combination of payload data would help in solving surface energy balance to estimate surface heat fluxes.
The satellite will operate in a sun-synchronous orbit at an altitude of 761 km, with a local time of 12:30 PM at the equator.
This orbit will provide a spatial resolution of 57 meters for land and coastal areas and 1 km for oceanic and polar regions. The mission is designed for a 5-year operational life.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/we-are-sharing-state-of-the-art-expertise-with-isro-for-gaganyaan-mission-french-space-agency-chief/article68655380.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Amazon River:
- It is the largest river by water volume and originates in the Andes Mountains.
- Its watershed spans only in Brazil, Peru and Ecuador.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Amazon River basin is experiencing an unprecedented drought, with water levels plummeting to historic lows across the region.
It is the world’s largest river by water volume and width and the second-longest river in the world after the Nile.
Course: Its journey begins high in the Andes Mountains and empties into the Atlantic Ocean on the northeastern coast of Brazil.
River basin:
It has the largest drainage area of any river system.
Its watershed spans the countries of Brazil, Peru, Ecuador, Colombia, Venezuela, and Bolivia.
Roughly two-thirds of the Amazon’s main stream and by far the largest portion of its basin are within Brazil.
The river’s size changes with the seasons. In the dry season, it spans 4 to 5 km in width, but during the wet season, this can swell to 50 km.
Tributaries: Notable tributaries include the Rio Negro, the Madeira River, and the Xingu River, among many others.
The Amazon Rainforest, which represents about half of the Earth’s remaining rainforest, also constitutes its single largest reserve of biological resources.
It is sometimes referred to as the “lungs of the Earth” due to its role in regulating the planet’s oxygen and carbon cycles.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/environment/story/amazon-river-drought-climate-change-crisis-atlantic-ocean-2602627-2024-09-19
Consider the following statements regarding Pheromones:
- These are chemical substances secreted outside the body.
- These are naturally secreted only in human beings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, India scientists developed a sustainable pheromone dispenser with a controlled release rate which could bring down costs of pest control and management.
Pheromones are chemical substances which are secreted on the outside by an individual, and received by another individual of the same species.
These are present in all bodily secretions, and especially in the axillary sweat — can be detected by the olfactory system.
Pheromones are ecto-hormones, meaning they are secreted outside the body.
Types of Pheromones
Releaser pheromones: They work right away and elicit a specific response from the other person.
Signaler pheromones: They give information about the person who releases them. For example, they help a mother tell her own baby apart from other babies.
Modulator pheromones: They affect mood and emotions.
Primer pheromones affect hormones, for example during pregnancy or menstrual cycles.
Animals, with their heightened senses and vomeronasal organs are known to secrete pheromones to trigger many kinds of behaviours like raising an alarm, signalling a food trail, warning another animal to back off, and bonding with an offspring.
Pheromones are also used by some fungi, slime molds, and algae as attractants in reproduction; organisms of complementary reproductive cell types grow or move toward each other.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2055952#
Consider the following statements regarding the Square Kilometer Array Telescope:
- It is a radio telescope that aims to study the origin of the universe, formation and evolution of galaxies.
- It is collocated in Australia and South Africa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Square Kilometer Array (SKA), the world’s largest radio telescope in the making, has carried out its first observations, signalling that at least a part of the yet-to-be-completed facility has become functional.
It is a state of the art, mega science international facility to build the world’s biggest and most sensitive radio telescope for addressing a wide variety of cutting-edge science goals.
Location: It is co-located in Australia (SKA-Low) and South Africa (SKA-Mid) with operational headquarters in the UK, is expected to revolutionize radio astronomy.
The array in South Africa is named SKA-Mid while the one in Australia is called SKA-Low, the names reflecting the frequency ranges they operate in.
It consists of a total of 1,31,072 lakh antennas, each measuring two-metres in height, will collectively form the SKA-Low.
The SKA-Mid will comprise 197 large parabolic dish antennas. Offering the largest bandwidth of observations, SKA-Low will operate from Australia in the frequency bandwidth 50 – 350 Mega Hertz while SKA-Mid is designated to operate in 350 MHz – 15.4 Gigahertz band in South Africa.
The facility is meant to observe the universe in a new way, and probe questions related to the origins of the universe, formation and evolution of galaxies and seeking the origins of life.
India became a member of SKA in December 2022.
Other countries involved in this project are - Canada, China, India, Italy, New Zealand, Sweden, and the Netherlands.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/two-stations-for-ska-telescope-generate-first-observational-image-9576012/
Which one of the following is the primary goal of the Europa Clipper Mission, recently seen in the news?
To study Jupiter’s icy moon
Explanation :
NASA is set to launch the Europa Clipper mission, aiming to explore Jupiter’s icy moon, Europa.
About Europa Clipper Mission:
It is a NASA mission to study Jupiter’s icy moon Europa.
The mission will place a spacecraft in orbit around Jupiter in order to perform a detailed investigation of Europa.
The first NASA spacecraft dedicated to studying an ocean world beyond Earth, Europa Clipper aims to find out if the ice-encased moon Europa could be habitable.
Europa shows strong evidence of an ocean of liquid water beneath its icy crust.
The spacecraft extends 100 feet (30.5 meters) from one end to the other and about 58 feet (17.6 meters) across.
It is the largest spacecraft NASA has ever developed for a planetary mission.
Europa Clipper will orbit Jupiter and conduct 49 close flybys of the moon to gather data needed to determine whether there are places below its thick frozen crust that could support life.
The spacecraft carries nine science instruments and a gravity experiment that uses the telecommunications system.
In order to obtain the best science during each flyby, all the science instruments will operate simultaneously on every pass. Scientists will then layer the data together to paint a full picture of the moon.
The spacecraft has large solar arrays to collect enough light for its power needs as it operates in the Jupiter system.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/science/europa-clipper-mission-set-to-explore-jupiters-ocean-moon-heres-all-you-need-to-know/articleshow/113465576.cms
Valmiki Tiger Reserve is located in which one of the following states?
Bihar
Explanation :
A leopard was found dead in the Valmiki Tiger Reserve (VTR) in West Champaran district of Bihar recently.
About Valmiki Tiger Reserve:
Location: It is located at the India-Nepal border in the northern part of the West Champaran district of Bihar.
Spread over an area of about 880 sq. km, it is the only tiger reserve in Bihar.
It comprises the Valmiki National Park and the Valmiki Wild Sanctuary.
It forms the easternmost limit of the Himalayan Terai forests in India.
Situated in the Gangetic Plains bio-geographic zone of the country, the forest has a combination of Bhabar and Terai tracts.
It is surrounded by the Royal Chitwan National Park of Nepal in the north and the river Gandak on the western side, with the Himalayan mountains as a backdrop.
Drainage: Rivers Gandak, Pandai, Manor, Harha, Masan and Bhapsa flow through various parts of the reserve.
Vegetation: The vegetation types include mainly Moist mixed deciduous, Open-land vegetation, Sub-mountainous semi-evergreen formation, Freshwater swamps, Riparian fringes, Alluvial grasslands, high-hill savannah, and Wetlands
Flora: Sal, Rohini, sihor, teak, bamboo, semal, Mandar, shisham, Jamun, Gular, etc.
Fauna: Tiger, leopard, fishing cat, leopard cat, sambar, hog deer, spotted deer, black buck, gaur, sloth bear, langur, rhesus monkey, etc.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.republicworld.com/india/bihar-leopard-found-dead-in-valmiki-tiger-reserve-in-west-champaran-district
Consider the following statements regarding Blast Furnace:
- It is a vertical shaft furnace used primarily to produce pig iron from iron ore.
- Blast furnaces are the largest consumers of materials and energy in the steel-making process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Tata Steel Ltd. recently said it had commissioned ‘India’s largest blast furnace’ at Kalinganagar, Odisha, as part of the Phase II expansion of its plant.
About Blast Furnace:
It is a vertical shaft furnace that produces liquid metals by the reaction of a flow of air introduced under pressure into the bottom of the furnace with a mixture of metallic ore, coke, and flux fed into the top.
The blast furnace itself is a steel shaft lined with fire-resistant, refractory materials.
The hottest part of the furnace - where the walls reach a temperature >300°C - is water-cooled.
The whole structure is supported from the outside by a steel frame.
Blast furnaces are used to produce pig iron from iron ore for subsequent processing into steel, and they are also employed in processing lead, copper and other metals.
The process is continuous, with raw materials being regularly charged to the top of the furnace and molten metal and slag being tapped from the bottom of the furnace at regular intervals.
Once a blast furnace is started, it will continuously run for four to ten years with only short stops to perform planned maintenance.
Rapid combustion is maintained by the current of air under pressure.
Blast furnaces are the largest consumers of materials and energy in the iron and steel-making process.
What is Pig Iron?
Pig iron is an intermediate product and the first product of Iron making produced from Iron ore.
Pig iron has a very high carbon content, typically 3.5–4.5%, along with silica, Manganese, Sulphur, Phosphorus, Titanium and other trace elements.
It is obtained directly from the blast furnace and cast in molds.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/tata-steel-commissions-indias-largest-blast-furnace-at-kalinganagar/article68664227.ece
With reference to Advocate-on-Record (AoR), consider the following statements:
- An AoR has the exclusive right to file and conduct cases in the Supreme Court (SC).
- Any notice or order/correspondence by the SC is sent to the AoR.
- To become an AoR, an advocate is required to have undergone training of at least ten years under a senior AoR.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Supreme Court (SC) recently said that Advocates-on-Record (AoR) in a given case must mark the appearance of only those lawyers who are authorized to appear and argue that case on the particular day.
About Advocate-on-Record (AoR):
The concept of AoR was introduced by the SC with the power given to it under Article 145(1) of the Indian Constitution, which states that the SC may, from time to time, make rules for regulating the practices and procedures in the court.
An AoR is a legal professional who is entitled to represent clients and plead for them in the SC.
It is a specific category of advocates with rights of audience in the SC.
An AoR has the exclusive right to file and conduct cases in the SC.
All the procedural aspects need to be completed by AOR with the assistance of a registered clerk.
This includes drafting and filing petitions, applications, and other legal documents.
Any notice or order/correspondence by the SC is sent to the AoR.
They specialize in the practice and procedure of the SC. They are familiar with the rules and regulations governing thе court and play a crucial role in navigating lеgal matters through thе highest court of thе country.
No other High Court in India has a similar provision.
Order IV Rule 5 of the Supreme Court Rules, 2013 lays down the requirements to be fulfilled to become an AoR. They are as follows:
The Advocate is required to be enrolled with any State Bar Council.
The Advocate is required to have a prior experience of at least 4 years.
The Advocate has undergone a training of 1 year under a senior AoR.
The Advocate has appeared for the examination conducted by the SC.
The Advocate is required to have an office in Delhi within a radius of 10 miles from the SC house and give an undertaking to employ a clerk, who shall be a registered clerk, within one month of being registered as an advocate on record.
Once registered, an AOR is issued a unique identification number that must be used on all documents filed in the SC.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.barandbench.com/news/aors-mark-appearance-only-those-lawyers-authorised-appear-argue-supreme-court
What is ‘Criticality’ in the context of a nuclear reactor?
A. A reactor condition where fission stops completely. B. A condition where the reactor overheats and shuts down automatically. C. The maximum temperature a reactor can reach.
None of the above
Explanation :
India’s third home-built 700 MWe nuclear power reactor has achieved criticality and is expected to start commercial electricity generation soon.
About Criticality in a Nuclear Reactor:
Nuclear reactors use uranium fuel rods—long, slender, zirconium metal tubes containing pellets of fissionable material to create energy through fission.
Fission is the process of splitting the nuclei of uranium atoms to release neutrons that in turn split more atoms, releasing more neutrons.
Fission produces a great deal of energy in the form of very high heat and radiation.
That’s why reactors are housed in structures sealed under thick metal-reinforced concrete domes.
Power plants harness this energy and heat to produce steam to drive generators that produce electricity.
Criticality means that a reactor is controlling a sustained fission chain reaction, where each fission event releases a sufficient number of neutrons to maintain an ongoing series of reactions.
This is the normal state of nuclear power generation.
Fuel rods inside a nuclear reactor are producing and losing a constant number of neutrons, and the nuclear energy system is stable.
Nuclear power technicians have procedures in place, some of them automated, in case a situation arises in which more or fewer neutrons are produced and lost.
Controlling Criticality:
When a reactor is starting up, the number of neutrons is increased slowly in a controlled manner.
Neutron-absorbing control rods in the reactor core are used to calibrate neutron production.
The control rods are made from neutron-absorbing elements such as cadmium, boron, or hafnium.
The deeper the rods are lowered into the reactor core, the more neutrons the rods absorb and the less fission occurs.
Technicians pull up or lower down the control rods into the reactor core depending on whether more or less fission, neutron production, and power are desired.
Should a malfunction occur, technicians can remotely plunge control rods into the reactor core to quickly soak up neutrons and shut down the nuclear reaction.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/energy/power/indias-third-home-built-700-mwe-nuclear-reactor-achieves-criticality/articleshow/113522142.cms?from=mdr
Global Cybersecurity Index, recently in the news, is published by:
International Telecommunication Union
Explanation :
India has marked a significant milestone in its cybersecurity efforts by achieving top Tier i.e. Tier 1 status in the Global Cybersecurity Index (GCI) 2024.
It is a trusted reference that measures the commitment of countries to cybersecurity at a global level.
It is to raise awareness of the importance and different dimensions of the issue.
Each country’s level of development or engagement is assessed along five pillars namely, Legal Measures, Technical Measures, Organizational Measures, Capacity Development, and Cooperation – and then aggregated into an overall score.
It is published by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).
Key highlights of GCI 2024
The report places 46 countries in Tier 1, the highest of the five tiers, reserved for “role modelling” countries that demonstrate a strong commitment in all five cybersecurity pillars.
With a remarkable score of 98.49 out of 100, India joins the ranks of ‘role-modelling’ countries, demonstrating a strong commitment to cybersecurity practices across the globe.
Most countries are either “establishing” (Tier 3) or “evolving” (Tier 4) in terms of cybersecurity.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2057035
With reference to the Fast Track Immigration-Trusted Traveller Programme, consider the following:
- It is introduced to facilitate international mobility with faster, smoother and more secure immigration clearances
- It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
- The registration under this programme will be valid for a lifetime.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has decided to expand the special Fast Track Immigration-Trusted Traveller Programme (FTI-TTP) to 20 other airports across the country.
It has been initiated to speed up the Immigration clearance process for eligible persons from the following categories: Indian Nationals and Foreign Nationals holding OCI Card.
It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs and it was first launched at Delhi’s IGI Airport.
It has been introduced with the purpose of facilitating international mobility with faster, smoother and secure immigration clearances.
It is similar to the United States Global Entry Program, which allows fast-tracked clearance for pre-approved and low-risk travelers upon their arrival at select airports in the US.
The FTI-TTP is implemented through an online portal with the Bureau of Immigration being the nodal agency.
To enroll in the scheme, the applicant has to register online on the portal with details and documents.
Once the application for FTI-TTP is approved, those individuals will not need to go through the arduous process of standing in long queues for immigration clearance while arriving in India.
Validity: The FTI registration will be valid for a maximum of five years or until the validity of the passport, whichever comes first.
Under the FTI-TTP programme, eligible passengers are allowed to utilise e-gates and bypass regular immigration queues for a seamless experience.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Sep/20/mha-fast-track-immigration-planexpanded-to-21-major-airports
Consider the following statements regarding the Amur falcon:
- It is a small raptor that mainly migrates to Manipur and Nagaland during the winter season.
- In India, it is protected under Schedule IV of the Wildlife Protection Act 1972.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Manipur’s Tamenglong district gears up to welcome its winged guests, Amur falcon and the district administration imposed a ban on hunting, catching, killing and selling of the bird.
It is a small raptor of the falcon family.
These are locally known as Akhuipuina, the bird arrives mainly in Manipur and Nagaland.
They breed in south-eastern Siberia and Northern China and migrate long distances in large flocks to winter in Southern and East Africa.
The one-way journey via India is about 20,000 km long and the birds do this twice a year.
Conservation efforts:
It is protected under the Wildlife Protection Act 1972 and included under its Schedule IV.
Hunting of the birds or possessing its meat is punishable with imprisonment up to three years or a fine up to 25,000 or with bonds.
In 2018, the forest department started a conservation programme by radio-tagging the birds to study their migratory route.
IUCN: Least Concern.
Threats: Illegal trapping and killing during migration, habitat loss from agricultural practices and land reclamation.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/north-east-india/manipur/ahead-of-amur-falcons-arrival-manipur-district-bans-their-hunting-9577836/
Exercise AIKYA, recently in the news, was conducted by:
National Disaster Management Authority
Explanation :
Recently, the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), in collaboration with the Southern Command of the Indian Army organised a two-day national symposium, ‘Exercise AIKYA’, on disaster management in Chennai.
Aikya,” meaning “Oneness” in Tamil, reflects the exercise’s aim to integrate India’s Disaster Management community.
It brought together key stakeholders from across Peninsular India to enhance disaster preparedness and response capabilities.
The exercise witnessed participation from six southern states/UTs: Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Puducherry
Key organizations involved: India Meteorological Department (IMD), National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC), Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS), Central Water Commission (CWC), and Forest Survey of India (FSI); Geographical Survey of India (GSI) and the Department of Telecommunications (DoT).
It simulated emergency situations to test roles and responsibilities, fostered discussions on technologies and trends in disaster relief, and reviewed lessons from recent operations.
It addressed issues including tsunamis, landslides, floods, cyclones, industrial incidents, and forest fires, with a focus on recent events in Tamil Nadu, Wayanad, and Andhra Pradesh.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2056956#
Consider the following statements regarding the INSPIRE– MANAK Programme:
- It aims to motivate students studying in classes 6 to 10 to become future innovators and critical thinkers.
- It is jointly implemented by the Department of Science and Technology and the National Innovation Foundation (NIF) – India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the 11th National Level Exhibition and Project Competition (NLEPC) of INSPIRE– MANAK winners felicitation ceremony in New Delhi.
The INSPIRE – MANAK (Million Minds Augmenting National Aspiration and Knowledge) is one of the flagship schemes of the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Govt. of India.
It is for nurturing ideas and innovations of school students and motivates them to pursue science and a research career.
It is jointly implemented by DST and the National Innovation Foundation (NIF) – India.
It aims to motivate students in the age group of 10-15 years and studying in classes 6 to 10 to become future innovators and critical thinkers.
Significance:
It believes that once the original ideas and innovations rooted in Science and Technology by students get incubated, it will foster a culture of creativity and innovative thinking among school children.
This will help address societal needs through science and technology and nurture them to become sensitive and responsible citizens and innovation leaders of tomorrow.
What is National Innovation Foundation?
It was set up in March 2000 with the assistance of the Department of Science and Technology, Government of India.
It is India’s national initiative to strengthen grassroots technological innovations and outstanding traditional knowledge.
Its mission is to help India become a creative and knowledge-based society by expanding policy and institutional space for grassroots technological innovators.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2056903
Consider the following statements regarding Emu:
- It is the largest living bird in the world.
- It is found only in Australia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Researchers have uncovered a fascinating mechanism behind the reduction and asymmetry of emu wing bones.
About Emu:
It belongs to a group of flightless running birds known as ratites, the most primitive of the modern bird families.
It is the second-largest living bird in the world (the ostrich is the largest).
Distribution:
The Emu is found only in Australia.
It lives throughout most of the continent, ranging from coastal regions to high in the Snowy Mountains.
Features:
Emu is more than 1.5 metres (5 feet) tall and may weigh more than 45 kg (100 pounds).
Adult female emus are larger and heavier than males.
Both sexes are brownish, with a dark gray head and neck.
Their necks and legs are long, but their wings are tiny, reduced to less than 8 inches (20 centimeters).
Their feet have three toes and fewer bones and muscles than those of flying birds.
Emus can dash away at nearly 50 km (30 miles) per hour; if cornered, they kick with their big three-toed feet.
Their strong legs also allow the bird to jump 7 feet (2.1 meters) straight up.
They are omnivores.
Lifespan: Five to ten years
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/100428/OPS/G8ADC332D.1+GSBDC4V3H.1.html
“Falkland Islands”, recently seen in the news, are located in:
South Atlantic Ocean
Explanation :
Researchers have found evidence that the treeless, rugged, grassland landscape of the Falkland Islands was home to a lush, diverse rainforest up to 30 million years ago.
About Falkland Islands:
Also known as the Malvinas Islands, the Falkland Islands is an internally self-governing overseas territory of the United Kingdom.
It is an archipelago located in the South Atlantic Ocean, some 500 km from mainland South America.
It comprises of two large islands (East Falkland and West Falkland) and several hundred smaller ones.
The two large islands are separated by Falkland Sound (strait).
The islands are positioned both in the southern and western hemispheres of the Earth.
It covers a total area of 12,173 sq.km. (4,700 sq mi).
Climate: A cool temperate oceanic climate that is characterised by its lack of extremes.
Capital: Located on the island of East Falkland, is Stanley (also, Port Stanley) is the capital of the Falkland Islands.
Demographics: The population of the Falkland Islands is English-speaking and consists primarily of Falklanders of African-Irish descent (88% of the population).
Economy: Almost the whole area of the two main islands, outside of Stanley, is devoted to sheep farming.
Currency: The official currency is the Falkland pound, which is on par with the British pound.
Government:
Executive authority is vested in the British crown, and the islands’ government is headed by a governor appointed by the crown.
The islands are self-governing, although foreign affairs and defence matters are handled by the British government.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/100428/OPS/G8ADC332D.1+GSBDC4V3B.1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the India Cancer Genome Atlas (ICGA) foundation, recently seen in the news:
- It is a not-for-profit organisation which operates through a public-private-philanthropic partnership.
- Its mission is to enhance cancer diagnosis and treatment for Indian patients and contribute to the global understanding of cancer biology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Indian Cancer Genome Atlas (ICGA) recently announced that it has launched India’s first comprehensive cancer multi-omics data portal.
About ICGA cancer multi-omics data portal:
It is India’s first comprehensive cancer multi-omics data portal launched by the India Cancer Genome Atlas (ICGA) foundation.
It is India’s first platform providing open access to data from Indian cancer patients.
It provides open access to clinically correlated data from Indian cancer patients, aimed at transforming cancer research and treatment for Indian populations.
The portal will be the first in India to offer data that includes DNA, RNA, and protein profiles of breast cancer patients, integrated with clinical outcomes.
Currently, the platform consists of data from 50 breast cancer patients, with plans to expand to over 500 patients in the coming year.
This data is freely accessible to the global research community under India’s PRIDE (Promotion of Research and Innovation through Data Exchange) guidelines, which promote ethical sharing and collaboration in cancer research.
Key Facts about Indian Cancer Genome Atlas (ICGA):
It is a national initiative focused on mapping cancers across India, supported by a foundation.
The ICGA Foundation is a not-for-profit organisation, operates through a public-private-philanthropic partnership.
It receives support from more than 50 clinicians, researchers, and data analysts.
Its mission is to enhance cancer diagnosis and treatment for Indian patients and contribute to the global understanding of cancer biology.
The foundation’s first project focuses on the multi-omics profiling of breast cancer, with plans to extend this effort to other types of cancer in the future.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/healthcare-indian-cancer-genome-atlas-launches-indias-first-comprehensive-cancer-data-portal-3617928/lite/
Consider the following statements:
- It is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Vishnu.
- It is located in Chittoor district of Andhra Pradesh.
- It is one of the richest temples in the world in terms of donations received and wealth.
- A popular practice in the temple is the donation of hair.
The above statements correctly describe which one of the following temples?
Tirumala Venkateswara Temple
Explanation :
Amid the escalating controversy surrounding the Tirupati Laddu, AR Dairy, a company that supplied ghee to the famous Lord Balaji temple, defended the quality of its products recently, stating that their samples have been cleared by authorities.
About Tirupati Balaji Temple:
The Tirumala Venkateswara Temple, also known as the Tirupati Balaji Temple, is a Hindu temple situated in the hill town of Tirumala at Tirupati in Chittoor district of Andhra Pradesh.
The temple is situated at a height of 853 m above sea level and is positioned on Venkata Hill, which is one of the saptagiri (seven hills) of Tirumala Hills.
It is dedicated to Lord Sri Venkateswara, an incarnation of Vishnu.
It has been mentioned in holy scriptures such as the Garuda Purana, Brahma Purana and many others.
History:
The temple’s ancient roots can be traced to the Pallava dynasty, which had a strong influence on the region during the 9th century.
Subsequently, the Chola dynasty played a crucial role in further developing and patronizing the temple.
Later on, during the reign of the Vijayanagara Empire, the temple received significant contributions and endowments, solidifying its place in the religious landscape of South India.
One of the defining moments in the temple’s history was when the famous saint, Ramanuja, played a pivotal role in reviving the temple and its rituals in the 12th century.
It is one of the richest temples in the world in terms of donations received and wealth.
A popular practice in the temple is the donation of hair and various riches in order to please the god.
Tirupati Laddu: The renowned sweet, Tirupati Laddu, given as a prasad at the temple, has the Geographical indication (GI) tag.
Architecture:
The Temple is constructed in Dravidian architecture and is believed to be constructed over a period of time starting from 300 AD.
Three entrances lead to the sanctum sanctorum - the first is called Mahadwaram.
A gopuram (gateway), measuring 50 ft, is placed in front of the entrance.
There are two circumambulation (parikrama) paths.
The main shrine houses a gold-plated tower that is called Ananda Nilayam, and a temple inside the tower houses the main deity.
The temple’s vast courtyards, pillars, and halls are adorned with exquisite sculptures and designs that capture the essence of Hindu spirituality.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/tirupati-laddu-row-supplier-of-ghee-to-tirumala-temple-says-labs-have-certified-product-quality/articleshow/113523582.cms?from=mdr
With reference to Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRTs), consider the following statements:
- DRTs are specialized judicial bodies established under the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets & Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 (SARFAESI Act).
- A DRT is presided by a judicial officer appointed by the central government who is qualified to be a District Judge.
- DRTs can take cases from banks for disputed loans above Rs 20 Lakh.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Finance Ministry recently asked banks to put in place effective monitoring and oversight mechanisms for efficient management of pending cases in Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRTs).
About Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRTs):
DRTs are specialized judicial bodies established under the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993 (DRT Act).
RTs play a crucial role in enforcing creditor rights and expediting debt recovery processes under Indian law.
Types of Cases Handled:
Their primary mandate is to adjudicate and resolve disputes concerning debt recovery from banks, financial institutions and other specified entities.
DRTs can take cases from banks for disputed loans above Rs 20 Lakh.
The Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets & Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 (SARFAESI Act) provides access to banks and financial institutions covered under the Act for recovery of secured debts from the borrowers without the intervention of the Courts at the first stage.
Securitisation Appeals (SAs) can be filed with the DRTs by those aggrieved against action taken by secured creditors under the SARFAESI Act.
The DRT has the following structure:
President: A judicial officer appointed by the central government who is qualified to be a District Judge.
Members: Administrative and technical members appointed by the central government
Under section 22(2) of the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993, DRT has the following powers:
summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person and examining him on oath;
requiring the discovery and production of documents;
receiving evidence on affidavits;
issuing commissions for the examination of witnesses or documents;
reviewing its decisions;
dismissing an application for default or deciding it ex parte;
setting aside any order of dismissal of any application for default or any order passed by it ex parte;
any other matter which may be prescribed.
Jurisdiction: Each DRT is established for a specified territorial jurisdiction, and its jurisdiction extends to cases involving the recovery of debts due to banks and financial institutions within that jurisdiction.
Appeals and Enforcement: Parties aggrieved by DRT orders have the right to appeal against the decision before the Debts Recovery Appellate Tribunal (DRAT).
At present, 39 DRTs and 5 DRATs are functioning across the country. Each DRT and DRAT are headed by a Presiding Officer and a Chairperson, respectively.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/100428/OPS/G8ADC332C.1+GSBDC4V47.1.html
Pallikaranai marshland, recently in news, is located in:
Tamil Nadu
Explanation :
In a first, a bathymetric study is underway in and around Pallikaranai marshland to assess the volume of sludge that can be dredged to enhance the marsh’s water-holding capacity and ecological functions.
It is a freshwater marsh and partly saline wetland situated about 20 kilometres south of the city of Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
It serves as an aquatic buffer of the flood-prone Chennai and Chengalpattu districts.
It encompasses 65 wetlands, through two outlets, viz., Okkiyam Madavu and the Kovalam Creek, and falls into the Bay of Bengal.
On its eastern periphery, the Marsh is flanked by the Buckingham Canal.
Parts of the Marsh are well below the mean sea level and qualify as low-lying basins.
It is one of the Ramsar sites in India.
Fauna
The diverse ecosystem of the marshland supports some 115 bird species, ten mammals, 21 reptiles, ten amphibians, 46 fish, nine molluscs, five crustaceans, and seven butterfly species.
These include notable species such as Russell’s viper (Daboia siamensis) and birds such as the glossy ibis (Plegadis falcinellus), grey-headed lapwings (Vanellus cinereus), and Pheasant-tailed jacana (Hydrophasianus chirurgus).
Although tropical in bio-climate, the influence of the Bay of Bengal has been significant on the Marsh.
Threats: It continues to face significant anthropogenic pressures, including encroachments and sewage discharge.
What is Bathymetric study?
It involves measuring underwater topography, is essential for developing comprehensive maps that can aid in determining the water storage capacity and flood patterns.
It plays a critical role in wetland design, restoration, land use planning, and legal boundary determinations.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/chennai/bathymetric-study-underway-in-pallikaranai-marsh-to-improve-ecological-functions/article68668064.ece
With reference to Quad Group, consider the following:
- Its member countries are India, Australia, the US and Japan.
- It aims to ensure a free and open international order based on the rule of law in the Indo-Pacific region.
- It has a permanent secretariat in New Delhi.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Prime Minister of India is participating in the fourth Quad Leaders Summit in Wilmington, Delaware, in the United States of America (USA).
It is a grouping of four democracies namely India, Australia, US and Japan and is known as the quadrilateral security dialogue or quad.
The aim of this grouping is to ensure a free and open international order based on the rule of law in the Indo-Pacific.
Objectives: The group’s primary objectives include maritime security, addressing the risks of climate change, creating an ecosystem for investment in the region, and boosting technological innovation.
Brief History of Quad:
Following the Indian Ocean tsunami of December 2004, India, Japan, Australia, and the US created an informal alliance to collaborate on disaster relief efforts.
In 2007, then PM of Japan, Shinzo Abe, formalised the alliance, as the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue or the Quad.
However, due to Chinese resistance and reluctance shown by India, it could not move ahead.
Later, during the 2017 ASEAN Summits, all four former members re-joined negotiations to revive the quadrilateral alliance.
The Quad was upgraded to the ministerial level in September 2019.
In March 2021, the first-ever summit of QUAD leaders took place virtually.
It was participated by the PMs/Presidents of all the member countries. The summit was hosted by the US.
Later, in September 2021, the first in-person meeting of Quad leaders was hosted by the US.
It is not structured like a typical multilateral organisation and lacks a secretariat and any permanent decision-making body (like the EU or UN).
Instead, it has focused on expanding existing agreements between member countries and highlighting their shared values
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/one-nation-one-election-eci-9577078/
Consider the following statements regarding the Food Import Rejection Alerts Portal:
- It is designed to notify the public and food safety authorities about food import rejections at Indian borders.
- It is developed by the Food Safety Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Food Import Rejection Alerts (FIRA)- portal was launched during the second edition of the Global Food Regulators Summit 2024 hosted by FSSAI at Bharat Mandapam.
It is an online portal for notification of food import rejections at Indian borders.
It has been developed by the Food Safety Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).
It is designed to notify the public and relevant food safety authorities about food import rejections at Indian borders.
Features
The portal will facilitate rapid exchange of information among authorities worldwide on food safety and health risks stemming from rejected food.
It will also enable relevant food authorities to take immediate action for the prevention and control of risks before it cause harm.
The new portal has an online interactive interface for rapid dissemination of information to ensure enhanced traceability and transparency.
It also serves as a valuable database for tracking rejected food products and for further strengthening of the risk management system.
What is FSSAI?
It is an autonomous body established under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India. It has been established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, which is a consolidating statute related to food safety and regulation in India.
Mission: Set globally benchmarked standards for food, encourage and ensure that food businesses adhere to these standards, adopt good manufacturing and hygiene practices, and ultimately enable citizens to access safe and right food.
Functions:
It is responsible for protecting and promoting public health through the regulation and supervision of food safety.
It lays down standards and guidelines in relation to articles of food and provides for licensing, registration, and accreditation for food business operators.
Anyone selling or importing food in India needs a food license issued by FSSAI.
Its officers carry out food import controls and ensure that they contain no harmful ingredients. It is also responsible for the accreditation of food testing laboratories throughout India.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2057388
Consider the following statements regarding Credit Default Swaps:
- It is a financial derivative that allows an investor to swap credit risk with another investor.
- It can be used for speculation and hedging.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) announced that mutual funds can now sell credit default swaps (CDS) citing the need to aid liquidity growth in the corporate bond market.
It is a financial derivative that allows an investor to swap or offset their credit risk with that of another investor.
In a credit default swap contract, the buyer pays an ongoing premium similar to the payments on an insurance policy. In exchange, the seller agrees to pay the security’s value and interest payments if a default occurs.
It can be used for speculation, hedging, or as a form of arbitrage.
Credit default swaps played a role in both the 2008 Great Recession and the 2010 European Sovereign Debt Crisis.
What are Mutual Funds?
A mutual fund is a pool of money managed by a professional Fund Manager.
It is a trust that collects money from a number of investors who share a common investment objective and invests the same in equities, bonds, money market instruments and/or other securities.
The income/gains generated from this collective investment are distributed proportionately amongst the investors after deducting applicable expenses and levies.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/incoming/sebi-allows-mfs-to-sell-credit-default-swaps-to-boost-corporate-bond-liquidity/article68664811.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Sustainable Aviation Fuels:
- It is made from renewable biomass and waste resources.
- Its carbon footprint is significantly lower than that of aviation turbine fuel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, India and Brazil have decided to collaborate on the production and use of Sustainable Aviation Fuels (SAF).
It is also known as bio-jet fuel.
It is made from renewable biomass and waste resources and have the potential to deliver the performance of petroleum-based jet fuel.
It is a liquid fuel currently used in commercial aviation which reduces CO2 emissions by up to 80%.
Production: It can be produced from a number of sources (feedstock) including waste oil and fats, green and municipal waste and non-food crops.
It can also be produced synthetically via a process that captures carbon directly from the air.
Significance:
Its carbon footprint is significantly lower than Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF).
It is ‘sustainable’ because the raw feedstock does not compete with food crops or water supplies, or is responsible for forest degradation.
It remains the major mature and viable pathway to decarbonise the aviation sector. At the same time, SAF only accounts for 0.3% of the current fuel use for aviation.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2057239
With reference to Lebanon, consider the following statements:
- It is a country located on the eastern shore of the Mediterranean Sea.
- It has land borders with Syria and Israel.
- It is a unitary, multiparty republic with a parliamentary system of government.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The United Nations Security Council met in emergency session recently following Israeli strikes on the Lebanese capital Beirut and in the south, which have left at least a dozen dead.
About Lebanon:
It is a country located on the eastern shore of the Mediterranean Sea in Western Asia.
Capital: Beirut
Borders: It borders the Mediterranean Sea in the west, Syria in the north and east, and Israel in the south.
History:
It is part of an area known as the Fertile Crescent, also known as the “Cradle of Civilization”.
Byblos, the oldest continuously inhabited city in the world, is around 30 km north of modern Beirut.
Lebanon was ruled by a number of ancient empires, including the Phoenician, Egyptian, Hittite, Babylonian, Persian, Greek, and Roman.
For over 400 years (1516-1918), Lebanon was part of the Ottoman Empire.
In 1920, following the Ottoman Empire’s collapse, France ruled Lebanon, which created the State of Greater Lebanon.
It wasn’t until 1943 that Lebanon achieved independence after French authority dissolved, leading to the withdrawal of French troops.
Geography:
It consists of a narrow strip of territory and is one of the world’s smaller sovereign states.
The Lebanon Mountains, which rise to 9,800 feet (3,000 meters), run down the middle of the country.
The Anti-Lebanon Mountains form Lebanon’s border with Syria.
Between the two mountain ranges lies the high, fertile Bekaa Valley.
The valley receives water from the Litani, the only river in Lebanon that flows throughout the year.
Climate: Its Mediterranean climate brings mild, wet winters and hot, dry summers.
Political Structure:
Lebanon is a unitary, multiparty republic with a parliamentary system of government.
Parliamentary seats are apportioned equally between Christian and Muslim groups. This sectarian distribution is also to be observed in appointments to public office.
Languages: Arabic (official), French, English, Armenian
People: Most Lebanese are Arabs. There are small groups of Armenians and Kurds.
Economy: Services, including banking and tourism, are Lebanon’s most important economic activities.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://news.un.org/en/story/2024/09/1154576
Which among the following best describes ‘Staphylococcus aureus’?
A bacteria commonly found on human skin and in the nose.
Explanation :
Antimicrobial resistance is one of the great crises of the 21st century and Staphylococcus aureus is an important bacteria species leading this charge.
About Staphylococcus aureus (S. aureus):
It is a type of gram-positive, sphere-shaped (coccal) bacteria.
S. aureus may occur commonly in the environment. It is frequently found on the skin and in the nose of about 30% of individuals.
Most of the time, S. aureus does not cause any harm but can sometimes cause infections.
Skin infections are common, but the bacteria can spread through the bloodstream and infect distant organs, particularly heart valves (endocarditis) and bones (osteomyelitis).
Skin infections may cause blisters, abscesses and redness and swelling in the infected area.
Transmission:
These bacteria are spread by having direct contact with an infected person, by using a contaminated object, or by inhaling infected droplets dispersed by sneezing or coughing.
Further, due to its ability to affect a wide range of species, S. aureus can be readily transmitted from one species to another. This includes transmission between humans and animals.
Treatment:
Treatment usually involves antibiotics and cleaning of the infected area.
Some types of S. aureus are resistant to common antibiotic treatments.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/vancomycin-may-not-be-able-to-treat-mrsa-infections-for-long/article68670315.ece
The Cashmere wool used to make Pashmina shawls is obtained from which animal?
Changthangi goat
Explanation :
The Prime Minister recently gifted a Delhi-Delaware silver train model to US President Joe Biden and a pashmina shawl to First Lady Jill Biden during his three-day US visit for the Quad Summit.
About Pashmina Shawl:
Originating from Kashmir, these shawls are known for their exceptional craftsmanship and the use of fine Ladakhi Cashmere wool.
The word “Pashmina” is derived from the Persian word “Pashm,” which means “soft gold” or “soft wool.”
A cashmere wool itself is obtained from the undercoat of the Changthangi goat (Capra aegagrus hircus), also known as the Pashmina goat, which is native to the high altitudes of the Himalayas in regions like Ladakh in India, Nepal and Tibet.
These goats develop a unique undercoat to withstand the harsh winters and it is this undercoat that is meticulously collected to create Pashmina shawls.
Kashmir’s Pashmina has earned G.I certification or G.I Tag due to the unique traditional process used by local artisans in the Kashmir valley.
Process:
Cashmere wool, known for its exceptional fineness and warmth, is spun into yarn using traditional spinning wheels, a practice that has been passed down through generations.
Once the yarn is ready, skilled artisans begin the intricate process of weaving, either by handloom or traditional wooden looms.
Each shawl is meticulously crafted, with patterns ranging from delicate floral motifs to intricate paisley designs, reflecting the rich cultural heritage of Kashmir.
The weaving process can take weeks or even months to complete, depending on the complexity of the design and the skill of the artisan.
Natural dyes from plants and minerals in the region decorate the shawl with captivating colours.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/pm-modi-gifts-antique-silver-train-model-to-president-biden-and-pashmina-shawl-to-first-lady-101726981139538.html
Consider the following statements regarding Project 200, recently seen in the news:
- It is an innovative satellite designed to operate at an Ultra-Low Earth Orbit.
- It primarily aims to demonstrate an advanced communication technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Bengaluru-based space startup Bellatrix Aerospace recently unveiled Project 200 on the inaugural day of the Bengaluru Space Expo 2024.
About Project 200:
It is an innovative satellite designed to operate at an Ultra-Low Earth Orbit (180 km-250 km).
It was developed by Bellatrix Aerospace, a Bengaluru-based space startup.
Traditionally, satellites have been deployed in orbits at altitudes well above 450 km.
This altitude choice has been influenced by various considerations, such as the desire to minimise the impact of atmospheric interference on satellite operations.
Though it is known that a satellite’s capabilities improve significantly at 200 km, limitations on propulsion technology have prevented satellites from operating at this orbit.
Project 200 is a technology demonstration mission to qualify a new unconventional satellite powered by an innovative propulsion system (developed in-house) at around 200 km.
Bellatrix Aerospace stated that their cutting-edge propulsion technology enables satellites to maintain 200 km orbits for years, rather than deorbiting in a few days.
According to Bellatrix, at 200 km, a satellite’s capability would improve significantly since the communication latency is reduced by half and image resolution is improved by three times.
The cost of the satellite is also less when compared to spacecraft placed in 450 km orbits.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/bengaluru-start-up-unveils-satellite-to-operate-at-an-ultra-low-earth-orbit/article68655587.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Greater One-Horned Rhino:
- It can be found in India and Nepal, particularly in the foothills of the Himalayas.
- It is classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Kaziranga and other protected habitats of the one-horned rhinoceros in Assam recorded an 86% drop in poaching of the herbivore since 2016, the Chief Minister said recently.
About Greater One-Horned Rhino:
The greater one-horned rhino, also known as Indian rhinoceros, is the largest of the three Asian rhinos and, together with African white rhinos, is the largest of all rhino species.
Scientific Name: Rhinoceros unicornis
Distribution:
It can be found in India and Nepal, particularly in the foothills of the Himalayas.
In the past, Greater one-horned rhinos roamed freely in the floodplains and forests alongside the Brahmaputra, Ganges, and Indus River valley.
Kaziranga National Park in Assam, India, contains the largest population (2,401).
Habitat: Greater one-horned rhinos are semi-aquatic and often take up residence in swamps, forests, riversides, and anywhere that is near nutritious mineral licks.
Features:
The largest of the Asian rhinos, male Indian rhinos weigh approximately 2,200 kg (nearly 4,840 pounds) and range in height from 170 to 186 cm (67 to 73 inches) and are 368 to 380 cm (145 to 150 inches) long.
It is identified by a single black horn about 8-25 inches long and a grey-brown hide with skin folds, which gives it an armor-plated appearance.
The species is solitary, except for females with small calves. Males maintain loosely defended territories.
The rhino is primarily a grazer. Its diet consists almost entirely of grasses, but it also eats leaves, branches, fruit, and aquatic plants.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: ‘Vulnerable’
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/100566/OPS/GHCDC72O1.1+GJUDC8Q5K.1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Goa Maritime Symposium:
- It is a forum for fostering cooperation and mutual understanding between India and maritime nations of the Indian Ocean Region.
- It is conducted biennially by the Naval War College (NWC), Goa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Indian Navy is hosting the fifth edition of the Goa Maritime Symposium at Naval War College, Goa.
It is a forum for fostering collaborative thinking, cooperation, and mutual understanding between India and key maritime nations of the Indian Ocean Region.
Theme: The theme for the event is Common Maritime Security Challenges in the Indian Ocean Region: Progressing Lines of Efforts to Mitigate Dynamic Threats such as illegal and unregulated fishing and other illegal maritime activities.
It will be participated by the representatives from 12 Indian Ocean Littoral countries - Bangladesh, Comoros, Indonesia, Madagascar, Malaysia, Maldives, Mauritius, Myanmar, Seychelles, Singapore, Sri Lanka and Thailand. Observers from Kenya and Tanzania
Goa Maritime Symposium (GMS)
It was conceptualised and instituted by the Indian Navy in 2016.
It is a forum for fostering collaborative thinking, cooperation and mutual understanding between India and key maritime nations of the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
The symposium is conducted biennially by the Naval War College (NWC), Goa.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2057578
With reference to the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity, consider the following statements:
- It is a regional arrangement to build cooperation and economic integration in the Indo-Pacific region.
- India has signed all the pillars of this framework.
- It is not a Free Trade Agreement but it allows members to negotiate the parts they want to.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, India signed the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) bloc’s agreements on a clean and fair economy.
It is a regional arrangement to build cooperation and economic integration in the Indo-Pacific region. It was launched in May 2022.
It is intended to advance resilience, sustainability, inclusiveness, economic growth, fairness and competitiveness for member economies.
It will seek to complement and build on existing regional architecture and support the global rules-based trading system.
Member countries: It has 14 regional partners – Australia, Brunei, Fiji, India, Indonesia, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, the United States and Vietnam.
The economic framework broadly rests on four pillars: Trade, Supply chain resilience, Clean Energy, Decarbonization, and Infrastructure Taxes and anti-corruption measures
The IPEF is not a Free Trade Agreement (FTA), but it allows members to negotiate the parts they want to.
India and IPEF:
India has been actively participating in the IPEF, but not in all pillars.
India has decided to opt out of the trade pillar of the IPEF as most issues promoted by the IPEF do not align with India’s trade policies.
India ratified the agreement on supply chain resilience (Pillar II) in February 2024 and has maintained an observer status in the Pillar-I.
India signed and exchanged the first-of-its-kind agreements focused on Clean Economy (Pillar III) and Fair Economy (Pillar IV).
The agreement on clean economy intends to accelerate efforts of IPEF partners towards energy security, GHG (greenhouse gas) emissions mitigation, developing innovative ways of reducing dependence on fossil fuel energy and promoting technical cooperation.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/india-us-ipef-blocs-clean-fair-economy-agreements-9582533/
Consider the following statements regarding the Koodiyattom:
- It is a traditional theatre form mainly performed in the state of Tamil Nadu.
- It was recognized as the UNESCO Masterpiece of the Oral and Intangible Heritage of Humanity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Cholliyattom is an informal platform for younger generation of Koodiyattom artistes in Kerala following different styles to collaborate and to keep alive various Koodiyattom traditions and styles.
It is one of the oldest traditional theatre forms of Kerala and is based on Sanskrit theatre traditions.
The prefix “kuti” in Malayalam language primarily means “combined” or “together”, and “attam” means “acting”: therefore, the word “kutiyattam or Koodiyattam” means “combined acting.”
The characters of this theatre form are: Chakyaar or actor, Naambiyaar, the instrumentalists and Naangyaar, those taking on women’s roles.
In its stylized and codified theatrical language, neta abhinaya (eye expression) and hasta abhinaya (the language of gestures) are prominent.
Pakarnattam is an aspect of Kutiyattam that involves embodying and emoting male and female roles. Switching between the masculine and feminine and interpreting multiple roles at the same time is considered a challenging skill within the repertoire.
Temple theatres called Kuttambalams are permanent theatre structures attached to some of the major temples of Kerala.
A striking feature of Kutiyattam is that it treats single Acts from Sanskrit plays as full-fledged plays. It bases its performance not on the full text of a Sanskrit play, but on the individual acts from Sanskrit plays.
It was recognized as UNESCO Masterpiece of the Oral and Intangible Heritage of Humanity in 2001.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/a-collective-for-young-artistes-to-learn-nuances-of-different-koodiyattom-styles/article68671279.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Hilsa Fish:
- It is both freshwater as well as saltwater fish species.
- India is the major producer of this fish in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, Bangladesh’s interim government announced plans to export 3,000 tonnes of hilsa fish to India in time for Durga Puja, which will take place from October 9 to 13.
It is a species of fish related to the herring, in the family Clupeidae.
It is also called Ilish and holds an exceptional position in culinary customs and social practices of Bengal.
Distribution: It is found in rivers and estuaries in Bangladesh, India, Pakistan, Myanmar and the Persian Gulf area.
It has a history of migrating to Allahabad in the Ganga river system from Bangladesh.
Though it’s a saltwater fish, it migrates to sweet waters of the Ganges from the Bay of Bengal.
Hilsa is into breeding migration in three major river systems of the Indo-Gangetic and Brahmaputra River network viz., Ganga, Brahmaputra and Meghna.
Bangladesh produces around 70% of the world’s ilish, making it a subject of public pride. Ilish is also the national fish of Bangladesh.
The kinds of ilish from rivers like Ganga, Hooghly and Mahanadi are no match when it comes to celebrating important events.
Conservation status
IUCN: Least Concern
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.livemint.com/news/india/bangladesh-lifts-hilsa-ban-to-export-3-000-tonnes-of-fish-to-india-ahead-of-durga-puja-11726971438690.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Quad Cancer Moonshot Initiative:
- It is aimed at implementing innovative strategies to prevent, treat and alleviate the impact of cancer on patients.
- Under this initiative India is providing support for radiotherapy treatment and capacity building for cancer prevention in the Indo-Pacific.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Quad grouping took a groundbreaking cancer initiative called the Quad Cancer Moonshot Initiative.
It was launched by the QUAD countries (India, United States, Australia and Japan).
It is aimed at implementing innovative strategies to prevent, detect, treat and alleviate the impact of cancer on patients and their families.
It will focus on expanding cervical cancer screening; increasing vaccinations against the human papillomavirus, or HPV, a common sexually transmitted infection that is the primary cause of cervical cancer; and treating patients.
India’s contribution
India will, additionally, offer technical assistance to interested countries in the Indo-Pacific region on DPI for cancer screening, care and continuum through its US $10 million contribution to WHO’s-Global Initiative on Digital Health.
India commits to providing HPV sampling kits, detection tools and cervical cancer vaccines worth $7.5 million to the Indo-Pacific region.
India is working on an AI-based treatment protocol for the disease.
India will provide support for radiotherapy treatment and capacity building for cancer prevention in the Indo-Pacific.
This significant contribution aims to strengthen local efforts to prevent and detect cervical cancer and empower communities with affordable, accessible tools for early detection and prevention while supporting vaccination programs to reduce the disease burden across the region.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/world/quad-leaders-summit-cancer-moonshot-initiative-9581620/
Navegaon-Nagzira Tiger Reserve (NNTR) lies in which one of the following states?
Maharashtra
Explanation :
The Navegaon-Nagzira Tiger Reserve (NNTR) lost its dominant male tiger, T9, recently.
About Navegaon-Nagzira Tiger Reserve (NNTR):
Location: It spans 653.67 sq.km. across the Gondia and Bhandara districts of Maharashtra.
It is located in the heart of the central Indian Tiger Landscape, which contributes almost 1/6 of the total tiger population of the country.
Declared a tiger reserve in 2013, it is the fifth tiger reserve in Maharashtra.
NNTR is comprised of the notified areas of Nawegaon National Park, Nawegaon Wildlife Sanctuary, Nagzira Wildlife Sanctuary, New Nagzira Wildlife Sanctuary and Koka Wildlife Sanctuary.
It has linkages with Kanha, Pench and Tadoba Tiger Reserves.
Topography: The topography is undulating, and the highest point, viz. ‘Zenda Pahad’, is around 702 m above Mean Sea Level.
Vegetation: Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous
Flora: There are 364 species of plants, and the major trees are: Terminalia tomentosa, Lagerstroemia parviflora, Anogeisus lotifolia, Pterocarpus marsupium, Diospyrus melanoxylon, Ougeinia oogenesis, etc.
Fauna: The major wild animals are: Tiger, Panther, Small Indian Civet, Palm Civet, Wolf, Jackal, Wild Dog, Sloth Bear, Ratel, Common Giant Flying Squirrel, Gaur, Sambar, Chital, Four Horned Antelope, Mouse Deer and Pangolin.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/nagpur/territorial-battle-claims-life-of-dominant-tiger-t9-in-nagzira-reserve/articleshow/113576744.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Epigenetics:
- Epigenetic changes involve modifications that alter the sequence of DNA.
- Epigenetic changes influence the production of proteins in cells.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Epigenetics plays a critical role in human health by regulating gene expression without the direct modification of DNA sequence.
About Epigenetics:
Epigenetics is the study of how cells control gene activity without changing the DNA sequence.
“Epi-“ means on or above in Greek, and “epigenetic” describes factors beyond the genetic code.
Epigenetic changes are modifications to DNA that regulate whether genes are turned on or off.
These Epigenetic modifications are attached to DNA and do not change the sequence of DNA building blocks.
Within the complete set of DNA in a cell (the genome), all of the modifications that regulate the activity (expression) of the genes are known as the epigenome.
Because epigenetic changes help determine whether genes are turned on or off, they influence the production of proteins in cells.
This regulation helps ensure that each cell produces only proteins that are necessary for its function. For example, proteins that promote bone growth are not produced in muscle cells.
Patterns of epigenetic modification vary among individuals, in different tissues within an individual and even in different cells within a tissue.
Environmental influences, such as a person’s diet and exposure to pollutants, can impact the epigenome.
Epigenetic modifications can be maintained from cell to cell as cells divide and, in some cases, can be inherited through the generations.
Errors in the epigenetic process, such as modification of the wrong gene or failure to add a chemical group to a particular gene or histone, can lead to abnormal gene activity or inactivity.
Altered gene activity, including that caused by epigenetic errors, is a common cause of genetic disorders.
Conditions such as cancers, metabolic disorders, and degenerative disorders are related to epigenetic errors.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
ImageLink:https://www.whatisbiotechnology.org/assets/images/science/pages/epigenetics.jpg
Consider the following statements regarding Pulsars:
- Pulsars are rapidly rotating neutron stars that blast out pulses of radiation at regular intervals ranging from seconds to milliseconds.
- The periodicity of pulsars is caused by beams of light crossing the line of sight on Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Using the Green Bank Telescope (GBT), astronomers detected a new millisecond pulsar associated with a recently observed globular cluster known as Terzan 6.
About Pulsar:
Pulsars are rapidly rotating neutron stars that blast out pulses of radiation at regular intervals ranging from seconds to milliseconds.
Pulsars have very strong magnetic fields, which funnel jets of particles out along the two magnetic poles. These accelerated particles produce very powerful beams of light.
Often, the magnetic field is not aligned with the spin axis, so those beams of particles and light are swept around as the star rotates.
The periodicity of pulsars is caused by these beams of light crossing the line of sight on Earth, with the pulsar appearing to ‘switch off’ at points when the light is facing away from us. The time between these pulses is the ‘period’ of the pulsar.
Pulsars have been primarily observed at radio wavelengths.
Pulsar masses range between 1.18 and 1.97 times that of the Sun, but most pulsars have a mass 1.35 times that of the Sun.
What is a Neutron Star?
Neutron stars are highly dense remnants of massive stars that have collapsed, composed mainly of neutrons and other elementary particles.
Neutron stars are formed when a massive star runs out of fuel and collapses.
The very central region of the star – the core – collapses, crushing together every proton and electron into a neutron.
If the core of the collapsing star is between about 1 and 3 solar masses, these newly created neutrons can stop the collapse, leaving behind a neutron star.
What is the Green Bank Telescope (GBT)?
With a 100 m × 110 m off-axis paraboloid dish, the GBT is the largest fully steerable radio telescope on Earth.
It is located at Green Bank Observatory in the National Radio Quiet Zone in Green Bank, West Virginia, U.S.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.snexplores.org/wp-content/uploads/2023/07/1440_SS_pulsar_feat-1030x580.jpg
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Disturbed area’ under the Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA):
- An area can be considered to be disturbed due to differences or disputes among different religious, racial, language, or regional groups or castes or communities.
- Only the Central Government can declare the whole or part of the State or Union Territory as a disturbed area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Centre and the Manipur government are set to review the scope of the Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA) in the northeastern State.
About the Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA):
It is a law enacted by the Parliament in 1958 which gives the armed forces special powers and immunity to maintain public order in “disturbed areas”.
When is it applied? It can be applied only after an area has been declared “disturbed” under section 2 of the Act.
What is a Disturbed area? An area can be considered to be disturbed due to differences or disputes among different religious, racial, language, or regional groups or castes or communities.
Who declares an area as disturbed?
The Central Government, or the Governor of the State or administrator of the Union Territory, can declare the whole or part of the State or Union Territory as a disturbed area.
It can be invoked in places where “the use of armed forces in aid of the civil power is necessary”.
The ‘special powers’ of armed forces under AFSPA are:
They have the authority to prohibit a gathering of five or more persons in an area, can use force or even open fire after giving due warning if they feel a person is in contravention of the law.
If reasonable suspicion exists, the army can also arrest a person without a warrant, enter or search a premises without a warrant, and ban the possession of firearms.
Any person arrested or taken into custody may be handed over to the officer in charge of the nearest police station, along with a report detailing the circumstances that led to the arrest.
These armed forces are immune from prosecution unless the Union Government provides sanctions to the prosecuting agencies.
Where is AFSPA in force now? Apart from Nagaland, the AFSPA is currently in force in Jammu and Kashmir, Assam, and Manipur except Imphal, and Arunachal Pradesh.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/centre-state-to-review-scope-of-afspa-in-manipur/article68674523.ece
With reference to Fjord, consider the following statements:
- A fjord is a long, deep, narrow body of water that reaches far inland.
- Fjords are often set in a U-shaped valley with steep walls of rock on either side.
- Fjords are commonly deeper at the seaward end than in their middle and upper reaches.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A diesel fuel spill from a ship that sank recently spreads to the Greenland fjord.
About Fjord:
A fjord is a long, deep, narrow body of water that reaches far inland.
Fjords are often set in a U-shaped valley with steep walls of rock on either side.
Fjords are found mainly in Norway, Chile, New Zealand, Canada, Greenland, and the U.S. state of Alaska.
How are Fjords Formed?
Fjords have been shaped throughout the span of several ice ages by slow-moving glaciers.
As the glacier moved, it cut away at the top layers of ice and into the sediment below.
Melting waters also carved away into the land, meaning that many fjords are actually deeper than the sea that feeds into it.
Where the fjord meets the sea, also known as the mouth, many glaciers left behind shill or shoal rock deposits.
Because the mouth is a shallower opening than the body of the fjord, it results in extremely fast-moving water (this includes strong currents and saltwater rapids).
Fjords commonly are deeper in their middle and upper reaches than at the seaward end.
This results from the greater erosive power of the glaciers closer to their source, where they are moving most actively and vigorously.
Because of the comparatively shallow thresholds of fjords, the bottoms of many have stagnant water and are rich in black mud containing hydrogen sulfide.
Some features of fjords include coral reefs and rocky islands called skerries.
Epishelf Lakes:
Another feature of some fjords is the presence of epishelf lakes. These lakes occur when melted fresh water becomes trapped under a floating ice shelf.
This freshwater does not mix with the saltwater below but rather floats on top of it.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/europe/fuel-slick-from-sunk-ship-spreads-to-greenland-fjord/articleshow/113541702.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the SPICED Scheme:
- It is aimed at enhancing the export of spices and value-added spice products.
- It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer’s Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry has approved a Spices Board scheme, ‘Sustainability in spice sector through progressive, innovative and collaborative interventions for export development’ (SPICED) scheme.
It is aimed at significantly enhancing the export of spices and value-added spice products as well as improving the productivity of cardamoms and upgrading the post-harvest quality of spices across India for export.
It is implemented during the remaining term of the 15th Finance Commission, up to 2025-26.
Key highlights of the Scheme
It is expected to facilitate value addition and to drive innovation and sustainability in the spice sector by introducing new sub-components/programs like the Mission Value Addition, Mission Clean and Safe Spices, promotion of GI spices, support for entrepreneurship through Spice Incubation Centres, etc.
The scheme gives thrust on farmers groups / FPOS / Farmers Clusters identified under ODOP and DEH, SC/ST community, Exporters from NE region, and SMEs.
While exporters with a valid Certificate of Registration as Exporter of Spices (CRES) are eligible for assistance under these programs, preference will be given to first-time applicants, Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs), etc.
The programs under the components such as Improving the productivity of cardamom and Post-harvest quality upgradation of spices are specifically designed to empower farmer groups, including Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs), Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs), and Self-Help Groups (SHGs) in key spice-growing regions.
These groups will be prioritized for post-harvest improvement of spices, with targeted assistance provided to enhance the creation of an exportable surplus of spices, in compliance with the applicable food safety and quality standards.
Scheme activities will be geo-tagged and fund availability, status of applications under different components, list of beneficiaries, etc. will be published on the Board’s website for better transparency.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Kochi/spiced-to-boost-small-large-cardamom-farming/article68667397.ece
With reference to the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, consider the following:
- It is a quasi-judicial commission set up under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986.
- It is headed by a sitting or a retired Judge of the Supreme Court of India.
- An aggrieved person can’t appeal against an order in the Supreme Court of India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) declined to give State Bank of India (SBI) more time to make submissions on its plea seeking transfer outside Tamil Nadu of a consumer complaint filed against it by Madras HC judge.
It is a quasi-judicial commission set up in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986.
Mandate: To provide inexpensive, speedy, and summary redressal of consumer disputes.
It is headed by a sitting or a retired Judge of the SC or a sitting or a retired Chief Justice of a High Court.
NCDRC shall have jurisdiction to entertain a complaint valued more than two crores and also have appellate and revisional jurisdiction from the orders of State Commissions or the District as the case may be.
The provisions of this act cover ‘goods’ as well as ‘services’.
Who Can File a Complaint: A complaint may be filed by the following:
A consumer
Any voluntary consumer association registered under the Companies Act 1956
The Central Government or any State Government
One or more consumers where there are numerous consumers.
Appeal: Any person aggrieved by an order of NCDRC, may prefer an appeal against such an order to SC within a period of 30 days.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/hc-judges-home-loan-dispute-consumers-panel-rejects-banks-plea-for-more-time-9584648/
Barak Bhuban Wildlife Sanctuary, was recently in the news, is located in:
Assam
Explanation :
Recently, the National Green Tribunal’s (NGT) eastern bench in Kolkata has ordered a stay-on-road construction work inside the Barak Bhuban wildlife sanctuary in Assam’s Cachar district.
Location: It is located in the Assam’s Barak Valley. (The Barak Valley also houses the Borail Wildlife Sanctuary).
It is nestled between the Barak and Sonai rivers.
It is named after the second-largest river in the northeast and is spread across three districts – Cachar, Hailakandi and Karimganj.
Fauna:
It serves as a critical habitat for a diverse range of wildlife.
Eight primate species, including the slow loris, rhesus macaque and hoolock gibbon, find refuge here. The sanctuary is also known to be a vital habitat for the king cobra.
Key facts about the Barak Valley
It is located in the Southern part of Assam.
It is named after the river Barak, the largest river in the valley and the second largest of Northeast India.
The area shares its border with other states like Meghalaya in the north, Manipur in the east, Tripura and Mizoram in the south and is flanked by the transnational boundary of Bangladesh in the south.
It is a part of the Indo-Myanmar biodiversity hotspot.
Approximately 4.8% geographical area of the valley is covered by tea plantations and remaining most of the hillock areas are either in home gardens or under reserve forests.
Vegetation: The forests in the valley are tropical evergreen, semi-evergreen, tropical deciduous, and secondary and there are large tracts of rainforests in the northern and southern eastern parts of the valley.
Climate: The climate of the valley is characterized by subtropical, warm and humid.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/fresh-allegations-assam-officer-ngt-barak-bhuban-sanctuary-9584033/
Consider the following statements regarding Nanozymes:
- These are the nonmaterial-based artificial enzymes which emulate the catalytic functions inherent in enzymes.
- These are used as therapeutics against cancer and inflammatory diseases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers at the CSIR-Central Leather Research Institute (CSIR-CLRI) showed that nanozymes can ensure collagen integrity and enhance resistance to enzymatic degradation.
Nanozymes are nonmaterial-based artificial enzymes which exhibit potential for emulating the catalytic functions inherent in enzymes.
They may be metallic, metal oxide-based, carbon-based or of other types.
They have many advantages over biological enzymes. It exhibits high activity and stability at different conditions of and temperatures and pH.
Advantages: They offer various advantages over conventional enzymes because of high stability, low cost, durability, ease of mass production, controllability and better recovery rates.
Applications: Nanozymes have been used as therapeutics against cancer, inflammatory diseases, neurodegenerative and neurological disorders, bacterial, fungal and viral infections, wounds and diseases associated with Reactive Oxygen Species.
What are Enzymes?
These are proteins that help speed up metabolism, or the chemical reactions in our bodies. They build some substances and break others down.
All living things have enzymes. Our bodies naturally produce enzymes. But enzymes are also in manufactured products and food.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/business-tech/how-nanozymes-are-revamping-collagen-based-biomaterials/article68670047.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats scheme:
- It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
- Under this scheme support is provided to National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union cabinet approved the continuation of the Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats for the 15th Finance Commission cycle.
It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
It has been made operational by adding more components and activities to the erstwhile Centrally Sponsored Scheme - “Assistance for the Development of National Parks and Sanctuaries” during the 11th Plan Period.
It envisages boosting technological interventions in different thematic areas over the current and next financial year in tiger and other wildlife habitats.
Under this scheme 55 tiger reserves, 33 elephant reserves and 718 protected areas and their zones of influence stand to benefit.
Components of the scheme
Support to Protected Areas (National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, Conservation Reserves and Community Reserves)
Protection of Wildlife Outside Protected Areas
Recovery programmes for saving critically endangered species and habitats
Sub components of IDWH
Project Tiger: It aims at ensuring a viable population of the Bengal tiger (‘endangered’) in its natural habitats and protecting it from extinction. It also supports the ambitious Project Cheetah in the country.
Project Elephant: It aims to conserve elephant populations and their habitats, reduce human-elephant conflicts, and improve the welfare of captive elephants.
Development of Wildlife Habitat: The Project Dolphin and Project Lion both are under this sub component.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2057291
Consider the following statements with reference to Faults:
- Reverse faults are formed due to the movement of the rock blocks in opposite directions.
- Normal faults are compressional faults as they result in the shortening of the faulted area.
- Step faults occur in any area where slopes of all the fault planes are in the same direction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3 only
Explanation :
A fault is a fracture or zone of fractures between two blocks of rock. Faults allow the blocks to move relative to each other.
Reverse faults are formed due to the movement of both the fractured rock blocks towards each other. The vertical stress is minimum while the horizontal stress is maximum. Normal faults are formed due to the movement of the blocks in opposite directions. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Reverse faults cause shortening of the faulted area hence it is called compressional fault/thrust fault. Normal Fault causes extension of the faulted area because of the opposite movement of the blocks. So, statement 2 is not correct.
When a series of faults occur in any area in such a way that the slopes of all the fault planes of all the faults are in the same direction, the resultant faults are called step faults. It is a prerequisite condition for the formation of step faults that the downward displacement of all the downthrown blocks must occur in the same direction. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Fold mountains:
- Open folds are those in which the angle between the two limbs is acute.
- The European Alps mountains are an example of Nappe folds.
- Monoclinal folds are formed when both limbs become parallel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Open folds are those in which the angle between the two limbs is more than 90° but less than 180°(obtuse angle between the two limbs). Such open folds are formed due to wave-like folding because of the moderate nature of compressive force. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Further increase in force, folds may be sliced or sheared in which the slices of rock moving over the underlying rock on flat surfaces of low inclination are called overthrust faults. The plane of shearing is a thrust plane and the structure is Overthrust fold. Individual rock slices or thrust sheets are carried horizontally for several tens of kilometres over the underlying rock strata. These kinds of thrust sheets are called nappes. An example of nappes in the European Alps. So, statement 2 is correct.
Monoclinal folds are those in which one limb inclines moderately with a regular slope while the other limb inclines steeply at a right angle and the slope is almost vertical. The vertical force and movement are held responsible for the formation of monoclinal folds. Isoclinal folds are formed when the compressive forces are so strong that both the limbs of the fold become parallel but not horizontal. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Which of the following refers to the slow deformation of a very large area of the earth’s surface because of radial stresses?
Warping
Explanation :
Warping refers to a slow deformation of a very large area of the earth’s surface because of radial stresses. It is of two types – Emergence (Up-warping) and Subsidence (Down-warping).
Plutonism refers to the formation of igneous rocks by solidification of magma beneath the earth’s surface resulting in intrusive igneous formations like batholiths, laccoliths, lopoliths, sills, etc.
Tectonics: the term comes from the Latin word ‘tecton’ which means a builder and refers to the building activities on the part of the earth, e.g., folding, faulting, etc.
Folding refers to the buckling of the earth’s crust because of compressive stresses. It is a major orogenetic movement and results in Fold mountains (also called mountains of elevation as they attain great heights).
Consider the following statements:
- Volcanic eruptions release iron into the water that can boost the growth of blue-green algae.
- Volcanic emissions reaching the stratosphere can have a cooling effect on
global temperatures. - Erupting volcanoes can cause lightning.
- Sulphur dioxide emissions from volcanoes are responsible for pollution in North India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
A volcano is an opening or rupture in the earth’s surface that allows magma (hot liquid and semi-liquid rock), volcanic ash and gases to escape. They are generally found where tectonic plates come together or separate but they can also occur in the middle of plates due to volcanic hotspots. A volcanic eruption is when lava and gas are released from a volcano—sometimes explosively.
Falling ash from volcanoes could damage coral reefs. Volcanic Eruptions such as of Tonga volcano (Undersea volcano, South Pacific) can release more iron into the water, which can boost the growth of blue-green algae and sponges that further degrade reefs. So, statement 1 is correct.
Volcanic lightning is a phenomenon that generally occurs at the early stages of a volcanic eruption. It happens in two places: close to the ground in dense ash clouds, and high up near the stratosphere in the plume of volcanic smoke. Volcanic emissions reaching the stratosphere can have a cooling effect on global temperatures. So, statement 2 is correct.Volcanic lightning - Wikipedia
For volcanic lightning near the ground, research suggests the cause is the rubbing together of individual ash particles, which builds up enough static electricity to generate a lightning bolt. So, statement 3 is correct.
Ninety-nine percent of the gas molecules emitted during a volcanic eruption are water vapor (H2O), carbon dioxide (CO2), and sulfur dioxide (SO2). The remaining one percent is comprised of small amounts of hydrogen sulfide, carbon monoxide, hydrogen chloride, hydrogen fluoride, and other minor gas species. The sulphur dioxide (SO2) emissions from a volcanic eruption in the Caribbean reached India April 16, 2021 sparking fear of increased pollution levels in the northern parts of the country and acid rain. Sulphur dioxide reacts with water to form sulphuric acid which can come down with rainfall. So, statement 4 is correct
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
3 only
Explanation :
The lava that is released during volcanic eruptions on cooling develops into igneous rocks. Depending on the location of the cooling of the lava, igneous rocks are classified as volcanic rocks (cooling at the surface) and plutonic rocks (cooling in the crust). The lava that cools within the crustal portions assumes different forms. These forms are called intrusive forms. Some of them are:
Lacoliths: These are large dome-shaped intrusive bodies with a level base and connected by a pipe-like conduit from below. It resembles the surface volcanic domes of composite volcano, only these are located at deeper depths. It can be regarded as the localized source of lava that finds its way to the surface. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
Lapolith: As and when the lava moves upwards, a portion of the same may tend to move in a horizontal direction wherever it finds a weak plane. It may get rested in different forms. In case it develops into a saucer shape, concave to the sky body, it is called lapolith. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Phacolith: A phacolith is a lens-shaped mass of igneous rocks occupying the crest of an anticline or the bottom of a syncline and being fed by a conduit from beneath. An example of a phacolith is Cordon Hill in England. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to Lavas:
- In contrast to acid lavas, basic lavas are hotter, more viscous, and flow quite slowly.
- The only volcano known to spew out carbonatite black lava is Tanzania’s ‘Ol Doinyo Lengai.’
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Basic lavas are the hottest lavas, about 1,000 degrees Celsius and are highly fluid. They are dark coloured like Basalt, rich in iron and magnesium but poor in silica. As they are poured out of the volcano, they flow quickly and are not very explosive. Due to their high fluidity, they flow readily with a speed of 10 to 30 miles per hour. They affect extensive areas, spreading out as thin sheets over great distances before they solidify. The resultant volcano is gently sloping with a wide diameter and forms a flattened shield or dome.
Acid lavas are highly viscous with a high melting point. They are light-coloured, of low density and have a high percentage of silica. They flow slowly and seldom travel far before solidifying. The resultant cone is therefore steep-sided. The rapid congealing of lava in the vent obstructs the flow of the out-pouring lava, resulting in loud explosions, throwing out many volcanic bombs or pyroclasts. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Ol Doinyo Lengai is an active volcano located in Tanzania, Africa. The volcano is dubbed as the ‘Mountain of God’ is known to spew carbonatite lava which is high in sodium, potassium, and calcium carbonate but low in silica, resulting in lava with reduced viscosity and black in colour. Ol Doinyo Lengai’s natrocarbonatite lava is black because it erupts at low temperatures ranging from 400 to 600 degrees Celsius, far lower than ordinary lavas that erupt at temperatures ranging from 700 to 1,200 degrees Celsius. The 1960 eruption of Ol Doinyo Lengai led to geological investigations that finally confirmed the view that carbonatite rock is derived from magma. Ol Doinyo Lengai is the only volcano in the solar system known to still erupt carbonatite lava, which has some odd properties. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Circum-Pacific Belt:
- It is estimated to include around two-third of the world’s volcanoes.
- It is a direct result of collision and destruction of plate boundaries.
- It surrounds several tectonic plates including Juan de Fuca, Cocos, and Nazca plates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
The Ring of Fire (also known as the Pacific Ring of Fire, the Rim of Fire, the Girdle of Fire or the Circum-Pacific belt) is a region around much of the rim of the Pacific Ocean where many volcanic eruptions and earthquakes occur. The Ring of Fire is a horseshoe-shaped belt about 40,000 km (25,000 mi) long and up to about 500 km (310 mi) wide. The Ring of Fire includes the Pacific coasts of South America, North America and Kamchatka, and some islands in the western Pacific Ocean. It includes around two-third of the world’s volcanoes. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Ring of Fire is a direct result of plate tectonics: specifically, the movement, collision and destruction of lithospheric plates under and around the Pacific Ocean. The collisions have created a nearly continuous series of subduction zones, where volcanoes are created and earthquakes occur. Consumption of oceanic lithosphere at these convergent plate boundaries has formed oceanic trenches, volcanic arcs, back-arc basins and volcanic belts. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Ring of Fire surrounds several tectonic plates—including the vast Pacific Plate and the smaller Philippine, Juan de Fuca, Cocos, and Nazca plates. Many of these plates are subducting under the continental plates they border. Along much of the western coast of North America, however, the Pacific Plate is sliding past the North American plate at plate intersections called transform faults. So, statement 3 is correct.
Which of the following are the examples of Composite Volcano?
- Mount St. Helens
- Mount Rainer
- Mauna Loa
- Kilauea
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Composite Volcanoes: These volcanoes are characterised by eruptions of cooler and more viscous lavas than basalt. These volcanoes often result in explosive eruptions. Along with lava, large quantities of pyroclastic material and ashes find their way to the ground. This material accumulates in the vicinity of the vent openings leading to the formation of layers, and this makes the mounts appear as composite volcanoes.
Examples: Mount St. Helens, Mount Rainer, Mount Shasta, Mount Hood, and Mount Pinatubo.
Shield Volcanoes: Barring the basalt flows, the shield volcanoes are the largest of all the volcanoes on the earth. These volcanoes are mostly made up of basalt, a type of lava that is very fluid when erupted. For this reason, these volcanoes are not steep. Hawaii’s Mauna Loa is the largest shield volcano in the world.
Examples: Kilauea, Fernandina, Karthala, Erta Ale, Tolbachik, Masaya.
Consider the following statements with reference to pressure gradient force:
- With an increase in distance between isobars, the pressure gradient force also increases.
- The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure gradient force.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The horizontal winds near the earth surface respond to the combined effect of three forces – the pressure gradient force, the frictional force and the Coriolis force.
Pressure gradient force: The differences in atmospheric pressure produces a force. The rate of change of pressure with respect to distance is the pressure gradient. The pressure gradient is strong where the isobars are close to each other and are weak where the isobars are apart. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Frictional force: It affects the speed of the wind. It is greatest at the surface and its influence generally extends up to an elevation of 1 - 3 km. Over the sea surface, the friction is minimal.
Coriolis force: The rotation of the earth about its axis affects the direction of the wind. This force is called the Coriolis force. The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of latitude. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator. The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure gradient force. The pressure gradient force is perpendicular to an isobar. The higher the pressure gradient force, the more is the velocity of the wind and the larger is the deflection in the direction of the wind. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Firuz Shah Tughlaq:
- He extended the principle of heredity to the Army as well.
- He promoted inhuman practices as a form of punishment like cutting off hands, feet and nose.
- Jizyah was established as a separate tax under his reign.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.
1 only
B.
2 and 3 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
After his accession, Firuz Tughlaq was faced with the problem of preventing the imminent break-up of the Delhi Sultanate. He adopted a policy of trying to appease the nobles, the army and the theologians and of asserting his authority over only such areas that could be easily administrated from the centre. Firuz was by no means a distinguished military leader. But his reign was a period of peace and quiet development.
He extended the principle of heredity to the army as well. Old soldiers were allowed to rest in peace and to send, in their place, their sons or sons-in-law, and if they were not available, their slaves. So, statement 1 is correct.
He also took several humanitarian measures. He banned inhuman punishments such as cutting off hands, feet, nose, etc., for theft and other offences. He set up hospitals for free treatment of the poor and ordered the kotwals to make lists of unemployed persons. He provided dowries for the daughters of the poor. So, statement 2 is not correct.
It was during the time of Firuz that jizyah became a separate tax. Earlier, it was a part of land revenue. Firuz refused to exempt the Brahmans from the payment of jizyah since this was not provided for in the sharia. Only women, children, the disabled and the indigent who had no means of livelihood were exempt from it. So, statement 3 is correct.
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Lord Curzon (1899-1905) felt alarmed due to Russian influence in Tibet and sent a small Gurkha contingent under Colonel Younghusband on a special mission to Tibet to oblige the Tibetans to come to an agreement. As a result, the Treaty of Lhasa was signed (1904). So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Lord Irwin (1926-1931)- During his period, the Indian Statutory Commission (Simon Commission) visited India but it was boycotted by the Indians as it had no Indian member. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Lord Hastings (1813-23)- Gurkhas began to expand their dominion in the southern direction after the 1760s. The Anglo Nepalese conflict started due to the Gurkhas’ capture of Butwal and Sheoraj in the period of Lord Hastings. The war ended in favour of the British with the signing of the ‘Treaty of Sagauli’ in 1816. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
With reference to the rise of Communism in the British India, consider the following statements:
- It was inspired by the success of the Soviet revolution.
- Communist party of India (CPI) was formed by M.N Roy in 1917 in Kanpur.
- CPI did not support the Quit India Movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A large number of Indian revolutionaries were attracted by the success of the Soviet Union and its revolutionary movement. They stressed the need to combine anti-imperialism with social justice and raise the question of internal class oppression by capitalists and landlords. In October 1920, seven revolutionary Indians who had been inspired by the Soviet Union met in Tashkent and set up what would be one of the first organised left-wing political parties of India. The group was headed by M N Roy, who along with Lenin had helped evolve the Communist International’s policy towards the colonies. Later, in December 1925, many other such independent communist groups came together and founded an all-India organisation under the banner “the Communist Party of India (CPI).” So, statement 1 is correct.
One of the key Indian communists was M.N. Roy. He along with others such as Abani Mukherji formed the Communist Party of India (CPI) in Tashkent in 1920. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Due to the involvement of Soviet Russia in the war, Communist Party of India (CPI) did not support the Quit India movement. Following this, the British government withdrew the ban on the CPI that had been in place since 1934. So, statement 3 is correct.
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Muhammad bin Tughlaq issued copper coins at par with the value of the silver tanka coins. But he was not able to prevent forging the new coins. Finally, Muhammad bin Tughlaq stopped the circulation of token currency and promised to exchange silver coins for the copper coins. Many people exchanged the new coins but the treasury became empty. According the Barani, the heap of copper coins remained lying on roadside in Tughlaqabad. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Iltutmish issued several types of silver tankas. One silver tanka was divided into 48 jitals during the Khalji rule and 50 jitals during the Tughlaq rule. Gold coins or dinars became popular during the reign of Alauddin Khalji after his South Indian conquests. Copper coins were less in number and dateless. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
The land revenue administration was well organized under Sher Shah. Land survey was carefully done. All cultivable lands were classified into three classes – good, middle and bad. The state’s share was one third of the average produce and it was paid in cash or crop. His revenue reforms increased the revenue of the state. Sher Shah introduced new silver coins called “Dam” and they were in circulation till 1835. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Kushana kings:
- Kanishka held a Buddhist Council in Kashmir where the doctrines of the Mahayana form of Buddhism were finalized.
- They were against the idea of the ‘divine origin of Kingship’.
- They introduced the practice of hereditary dual-rule, two kings ruling in the same kingdom simultaneously.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The most famous Kushan ruler was Kanishka. He is known in history mainly for two reasons. First, he started an era in A.D 78, which is now known as the Saka era and is used by the Government of India. Secondly, Kanishka extended his whole-hearted patronage to Buddhism. He held a Buddhist council in Kashmir, where the doctrines of the Mahayana form of Buddhism were finalized. He was also a great patron of art and Sanskrit literature. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Kushans adopted the pompous title of king of kings, which indicates their supremacy over numerous small princes. The Sakas and Kushans strengthened the idea of the divine origin of Kingship. The Kushan kings were called sons of God. This title was adopted by the Kushans from the Chinese, who called their king the son of heaven. It was used in India naturally to stress the royal authority. So, statement 2 is not correct.
It was Indo-Greeks who adopted the satrap system government. The empire was divided into numerous satrapies, and Shakas continued the practice later. Some curious practices were introduced by Greco-Bactrians and Indo-Greek kings, such as hereditary dual-rule (dvairajya system) and two kings ruling in the same kingdom simultaneously. We find that father and son ruled jointly at the same time on some coins. So, statement 3 is not correct.
3 only
Explanation :
Naturalis Historia (The Natural History) is a work by Pliny the Elder. It is one of the largest single works to have survived from the Roman Empire to the modern-day and purports to cover all ancient. It belonged to the first century AD and was written in Latin, and tells us about trade between India and Italy. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
The Geography also known by its Latin names as the Geographia and the Cosmographia, is a gazetteer, an atlas, and a treatise on cartography, compiling the geographical knowledge of the 2nd-century Roman Empire. It was originally written by Claudius Ptolemy in Greek at Alexandria around AD 150. It provides valuable data for the study of ancient geography and commerce. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
The Harshacharita (The deeds of Harsha), is the biography of Indian emperor Harsha by Banabhatta. Also known as Bana, he was a Sanskrit writer of seventh-century CE India. He was the Asthana Kavi, meaning Court Poet, of Harsha. The Harshacharita was the first composition of Bana and is considered to be the beginning of the writing of historical, poetic works in the Sanskrit language. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
The term, ‘Ayas’, used in ancient India refers to?
Bronze or copper in the early Vedic period
Explanation:
‘Ayas’ is the term used for copper or bronze in Rig Veda. This depicts that metal-working was known to them. Rig Veda also mentions artisans such as carpenter, the chariot maker, the weaver, leather worker, potter etc.
‘Sumdra’ mentioned in the Rig Veda mainly denotes a collection of water. It does not refer to an ocean or sea.
‘Gavisthi’ is the term used in Rig Veda to depict war. It literally means the search for cows. The cow seems to be have been the most important form of wealth, and whenever we hear of gifts made to priests it is stated in terms of cows and women slaves.
‘Panchajana’ is the term referred to as five tribes of Aryans. Intra-tribal conflict rocked the Aryan community for a long time. The Aryans fought amongst themselves and sometimes enlisted the support of the non-Aryan people for the purpose.
Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Dasyus’:
- The term Dasyus is mentioned in Rig Veda as the friends of the Aryans.
- The domestication of cattle in the Vedic period is attributed to Dasyus.
- Aryan chiefs were accommodative of Dasyus because they belonged to a branch of early Aryans.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The Aryans came to India in several waves. The earliest wave is represented by the Rig Vedic people, who appeared in the subcontinent in about 1500 B.C. They came into conflict with indigenous inhabitants called the dasas, dasyus, etc.
The term dasyus in the Rig Veda represent the original inhabitants of the country. Aryan chiefs who overpowered them was called Trasdasyu. The term dasyuhatya, slaughter of the dasyus, is repeatedly mentioned in the Rig Veda which point towards the enmity and hostility between Aryans and Dasyus. It is clearly mentioned in Rig Veda that the Aryan chiefs were soft towards the dasas, and not dasyus. So, statement 1 and 3 is not correct.
The dasyus worshipped the phallus and did not keep cattle for dairy products. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
With reference to the Montagu-Chelmsford reforms 1919, which of the following statements are correct?
- The act introduced Bicameralism and Dyarchy at the Provincial level.
- Women were allowed to get the right to vote for the elections to the Provincial Assemblies.
- Provinces were granted equal representation at the Federal level.
- Payment for the secretary of State for India was now to be paid by the British Exchequer.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2 and 4 only
Explanation :
Direct factors such as high inflation, food prices, loss of life in warfront and indirect factors such as the Russian revolution, disillusionment with imperialism worldwide forced the British to launch a quick constitutional reform.
A Bicameral arrangement was introduced at the central level, not the provincial level, in the form of the Lower House or Imperial Legislative Assembly and Upper House or Council of State. However, at the provincial level Dyarchy was introduced by dividing the responsibility between the popular ministries and the British Governor under two lists: ‘reserved’ which included subjects such as law and order, finance, land revenue, irrigation, etc., and ‘transferred’ subjects such as education, health, local government, industry, agriculture, excise, etc. The reserved subjects were to be administered by the governor through his executive council of bureaucrats, and the transferred subjects were to be administered by ministers nominated from among the elected members of the legislative council. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Though there was no Universal Suffrage granted by the Act (Franchise was very limited, the electorate was extended to some one-and-a-half million for the central legislature, while the population of India was around 260 million), the act granted voting rights to the women (only 3,15,000 got the right) in the elections to the provincial legislature. As per the provision in the Act, in 1921, Bombay and Madras became the first provinces to give the limited vote to women. Between 1923 and 1930, seven other provinces allowed women franchise. So, statement 2 is correct.
Allocation of seats for the central legislature to the provinces was based on ‘importance’ of provinces—for instance, Punjab’s military importance and Bombay’s commercial importance. So, statement 3 is not correct.
On the home government (in Britain) front, the Government of India Act, 1919 made an important change— the Secretary of State for India was henceforth to be paid out of the British exchequer. So, statement 4 is correct.
With reference to the Dhamma policy of Ashoka, consider the following statements:
- Good conduct and social responsibilities were part of this policy.
- Slavery was banned in the empire for promotion of respectful behavior towards all.
- Royal pleasure tours were replaced by dhamma tours.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Ashoka adopted the policy of Dhamma in the 13th year after his consecration. The edicts were written primarily to explain to the people throughout the empire the principles of Dhamma. He also appointed a special cadre of Dhamma mahamatras to propagate dhamma. It was a way of life, a code of conduct and a set of principles to be adopted and practised by the people at large. His principles of Dhamma were clearly stated in his Edicts.
Good conduct and social responsibilities were part of dhamma. Rock edict 9 begins with a criticism of ceremonies performed by people, especially women, on occasions such as illness, marriage, birth, and setting forth on journeys. Such rituals are described as producing uncertain and meagre results. Ashoka contrasts these with the ceremony of dhamma, which is bound to yield results in this world (i.e. life) and the next. So, statement 1 is correct.
The ceremony of dhamma is described as consisting of proper courtesy to slaves and servants, respectful behaviour towards elders, restraint in one’s dealings with all living beings, and liberality to shramanas and Brahmanas. Thus, Ashoka did not ban slavery. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The chief disseminator of the dhamma message was Ashoka himself. In major rock edict 8, he states that earlier kings used to go on pleasure tours consisting of hunts and other pastimes. Ten years after his abhisheka, he made a pilgrimage to Bodh Gaya. Thenceforth, the royal pleasure tours (vihara-yatas) were replaced by dhamma tours (dhamma-yatas). The latter involved visiting Brahmanas and shramanas and giving them gifts, visiting aged folk and distributing gold to them, meeting people of the countryside, instructing them in dhamma, and questioning them about dhamma. Ashoka asserts that he derived more pleasure from these dhamma tours than from anything else. So, statement 3 is correct.
Which of the following are the main features of Tughlaq architecture?
- Sloping walls.
- Red sandstone in buildings.
- Combined the principles of the arch and lintel.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
A striking feature of the Tughlaq architecture was the sloping walls. This is called batter and gives strength and solidity to the building.
The Tughlaqs did not generally use the costly red sandstone in their buildings but the cheaper and more easily available Greystone. Since, it was not easy to carve this type of stone, the Tughlaq buildings have a minimum of decoration.
A Tughlaq architecture was the deliberate attempt to combine the principles of the arch and the lintel and beam in their buildings. This is found in a marked manner in the buildings of Firuz Tughlaq. In the Hauz Khas, which was a pleasure resort and had a huge lake around it, alternate stories have arches, and the lintel and beam.
With reference to the structure of stupas, the term Harmika refers to
a balcony like square structure at the top of stupa.
The stupa consists of a cylindrical drum and a circular Anda with a harmika and chhatra on the top which remains consistent throughout with minor variations and changes in shape and size.
Harmika, is a balcony like structure that represents the abode of the gods. Small square fencing atop the anda or semi-circular dome of stupa.
Chakra (Wheel), a symbol used for Buddha’s first sermon at Sarnath.
Chaitya is a place of congregation and worship. Chaitya are part of Buddhist and Jaina monastic complexes. But the largest number belongs to the Buddhist religion.
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Varahamihira was an ancient Indian astrologer, astronomer, and polymath who lived in Ujjain (Madhya Pradesh, India). The Indian tradition believes him to be one of the “Nine Jewels” (Navaratnas) of the court of ruler Yashodharman Vikramaditya of Malwa. Varāhamihira’s most notable works were the Brihat Samhita (an encyclopedic work on architecture, temples, planetary motions) and Pancha-siddhantika (a treatise on mathematical astronomy). So, pair 1 is correctly matched and pair 2 is not correctly matched.
In the fourth century B.C., Panini systematized the rules governing Sanskrit and produced a grammar called the Ashtadhyayi. It is the most important of Panini’s works that essentially defines the Sanskrit language. Modeled on the dialect and register of elite speakers in his time, the text also accounts for some features of the older Vedic language. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
With reference to Medieval Indian history, the term ‘Group of Forty’ (Turkan-i-Chahalgani) refers to
Group of Turkish nobles under Delhi Sultanate
Explanation :
Iltutmish must be regarded as the real consolidator of the Turkish conquests in north India. Iltutmish established ‘Group of Forty’ (Turkan-i-Chahalgani). These were Turkish amirs (nobles) who advised and helped the Sultan in administering the Sultanate. After the death of Iltutmish, this group assumed great power in its hands. For a few years they decided on the selection of Sultans one after the other. The group was finally eliminated by Balban.
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
During Mauryan era, the district administration was under the charge of Rajukas, whose position and functions are similar to modern collectors. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
The department of Commerce and Industry had controlled the retail and wholesale prices of goods and tried to ensure their steady supply through its officers called Adhyakshas. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Samharta, the chief of the Revenue Department, was in charge of collecting all revenues of the empire. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
With reference to the Mauryan period, consider the following statements:
- Conducting the census was a regular feature of the Mauryan administration.
- The census gathered information about caste, occupation, and animals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Census appears to be a permanent institution in the Mauryan administration. The census in the towns was taken by municipal officials to track the movement of the population both foreign and indigenous. The data collected were cross-checked by the spies. So, statement 1 is correct.
The village officials were to number the people along with other details like their caste and occupation. They were also to count the animals in each house. So, statement 2 is correct.
In the context of criminal law, which of the following is a key element required to prove constructive possession?
Intent and capability to exercise control over the object.
Explanation :
Invoking the doctrine of “constructive possession”, the Supreme Court recently ruled that watching child pornography over the Internet without downloading would also amount to “possession”, in terms of Section 15 of the POCSO Act, provided the person had a degree of control over such material.
About Doctrine of ‘Constructive Possession’:
It is a legal doctrine that attributes possession of an item or substance to an individual, even if they do not have physical control or immediate possession of it.
In criminal law, constructive possession arises when a person has the intention and ability to exercise control over the item or substance, either individually or jointly with others.
Unlike actual possession, which involves physical custody or control, constructive possession is based on the concept that an individual can still be held responsible for items they have the power to control, even if those items are not physically on their person.
The key element is the intent and capability to exercise dominion or control over the object or substance.
Constructive possession allows a person who does not actually have personal possession of something, yet still controls it, to be charged with a crime for possessing it.
Constructive possession often arises in cases involving illegal drugs, firearms, or stolen property, where the defendant may not have direct physical possession but has control or access to the item.
For a successful prosecution of constructive possession, certain criteria must be met. These include:
Knowledge of the Item’s Presence: The individual must be aware that the item exists. Mere proximity to an item without knowledge does not constitute constructive possession.
Ability to Exercise Control: The person must have the capability to maintain dominion over the item. This means having the power and intention to control its use.
Intent to Possess: There must be an intent to possess the item. This can often be inferred from circumstances, such as the location of the item and the individual’s actions or statements.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/it-is-an-offence-on-court-clarification-on-online-content-on-child-sex-abuse/article68678001.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Ghost Sharks, recently seen in the news:
- They are a group of cartilaginous fish closely related to sharks.
- They are typically found at the surface level of the ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers recently identified a new ghost shark species named Australasian Narrow-nosed Spookfish in the Chatham Rise region near New Zealand.
About Ghost Sharks:
Ghost sharks, also known as chimaeras and spookfish, are a group of cartilaginous fish closely related to sharks and rays.
They genetically diverged from their shark relatives nearly 400 million years ago.
Features:
They have long, tapering bodies and incredibly large heads.
The ghost shark’s maximum observed length is about 49 inches, but scientists believe it can grow to be more than six feet in some cases.
Their skin ranges in color from black to pale blue to brownish grey.
They have haunting black eyes and smooth, light brown, scale-free skin.
Their eyes are backed with a reflective tissue layer that makes them seem to glow in the dark, contributing to an eerie—even ghostlike—appearance.
They live at depths ranging from 200 meters to 2,600 meters and generally stay close to the seafloor.
Their diet primarily consists of shellfish, mollusks and worms that live on or under the seafloor.
They are sometimes referred to as the ocean’s butterflies for the way they glide through the water with their large pectoral fins.
Ghost sharks are thought to be solitary animals, as they are generally observed alone.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/all-about-rare-ghost-shark-species-found-in-pacific-waters/articleshow/113642304.cms
With reference to the Sea of Japan, consider the following:
- Russia
- North Korea
- Japan
- China
- South Korea
The Sea of Japan is bounded by how many of the above countries?
Only four
Explanation :
In a bold display of maritime prowess, Russia and China have launched extensive naval exercises in the Sea of Japan.
About Sea of Japan:
It is a marginal sea of the western Pacific Ocean.
It is bounded by Russia and Sakhalin Island in the north, by North Korea in the west, South Korea in the southwest, and by the Japanese archipelago (Hokkaidō, Honshū, and Kyūshū islands) in the east and south.
It is connected with the East China Sea in the south via the Tsushima and Korea straits and with the Okhotsk Sea in the north by the La Perouse and Tatar straits.
In the east, it is connected with the Inland Sea of Japan via the Kanmon Strait and the Pacific Ocean by the Tsugaru Strait.
Dohoku Seamount, an underwater volcano, is its deepest point.
Its relatively warm waters contribute greatly to the mild climate of Japan.
Very few rivers empty into it, and their water amounts to less than one percent of the sea’s content.
There are no large islands in the Sea of Japan. Except for the South Korean Island of Ulleungdo, all the other small islands are situated near the eastern coast of the sea.
Mining for mineral deposits like magnetite, natural gas, and petroleum are some of the major economic activities that are carried out in the Sea of Japan.
Ports:
Russia: Vladivostok, Sovetskaya Gavan, Nakhodka, Alexandrovsk-Sakhalinsky and Kholmsk.
North Korea: Hamhung, Chongjin and Wonsan.
Japan: Niigata, Tsuruta and Maizuru.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://indiandefencereview.com/russia-china-conduct-joint-naval-exercises-sea-japan/
Consider the following statements regarding Supreme Audit Institutions (SAIs):
- They are public oversight institutions responsible for the audit of government revenue and expenditure.
- The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) and the Indian Audit and Accounts Department (IAAD) functioning under him constitute the SAI of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The President of India recently expressed her confidence in the ability of the Supreme Audit Institutions (SAIs) to ensure the efficiency and integrity of public funds.
About Supreme Audit Institutions (SAIs):
They are public oversight institutions responsible for the audit of government revenue and expenditure.
They are a critical link in a country’s accountability chain.
By scrutinizing public financial management and reporting, they provide assurance that resources are used as prescribed.
Most SAIs derives their mandate from the constitution and/or legislation.
SAIs undertakes financial audits of organizations’ accounting procedures and financial statements, and compliance audits reviewing the legality of transactions made by the audited body.
They also conduct performance audits to scrutinize the efficiency, effectiveness, or economy of government’s undertakings.
The independence of the SAI from the executive bodies it audits is fundamental to its role in holding governments to account and building trust between the organs of the state and society.
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) and the Indian Audit and Accounts Department (IAAD) functioning under him constitute the SAI of India.
Nearly every SAI from a United Nations-member country is a member of the International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI).
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://theprint.in/india/president-murmu-emphasizes-role-of-supreme-audit-institutions-in-public-funds-integrity/2281729/
Consider the following statements regarding Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM):
- It is a statutory body established under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
- It undertakes action for the prevention and control of Air pollution in Delhi- National Capital Region (NCR)and adjoining Areas which impacts the air quality of the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently sought a report from the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) on incidents of stubble-burning and action taken against these occurrences.
About Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM):
The CAQM is a statutory body established under the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region (NCR) and Adjoining Areas, Act 2021.
Mandate: Better coordination, research, identification and resolution of problems surrounding the air quality index and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
It undertakes action for the prevention and control of Air pollution in Delhi-NCR & Adjoining Areas which impacts the air quality of the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi.
The Commission is required to coordinate its actions on monitoring of air quality with the government of Delhi and the adjoining states, which include Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.
Powers:
Restricting activities influencing air quality.
Investigating and conducting research related to environmental pollution impacting air quality, preparing codes and guidelines to prevent and control air pollution,
Issuing directions on matters including inspections, or regulations, which will be binding on the concerned person or authority.
All the directions and orders by the Commission are of a binding nature and any person, officer, or authority shall be bound to comply with the same.
The commission is directly accountable to the parliament.
Composition:
Chairperson: To be chaired by a government official of the rank of Secretary or Chief Secretary. He will hold the post for three years or until s/he attains the age of 70 years.
It will also have five ex officio members who are either Chief Secretaries or Secretaries in charge of the department dealing with environment protection in the States of Delhi, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
Three full-time technical members.
Three members from non-government organisations.
Technical members from Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), Indian Space Research Organisation, and NITI Aayog
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Delhi/supreme-court-asks-commission-of-air-quality-management-to-apprise-it-about-steps-taken-to-curb-pollution-stubble-burning/article68677614.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Computer Security Incident Response Team Power:
- It serves as the central agency for responding to cyber incidents and ensuring coordinated responses.
- It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of New & Renewable Energy (MNRE).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister for Power inaugurated the Computer Security Incident Response Team for the power sector (CSIRT-Power) in New Delhi.
It was launched by the Union Minister of Power in collaboration with CERT-In.
It is in alignment with the National Cyber Security Policy of 2013.
It will serve as the central agency for responding to cyber incidents and ensuring coordinated responses.
Objective: The primary objective of CSIRT-Power is to enhance cybersecurity resilience in the Indian power sector through a structured approach. This includes preventing and responding to cybersecurity incidents, ensuring coordinated responses to cyber threats, and collecting, analysing and sharing information about sector-specific threats.
CSIRT-Power will also implement measures to raise cybersecurity awareness and improve the sector’s cybersecurity posture while promoting best practices, standard operating procedures, and security policies.
The facility will provide cybersecurity expertise and assistance to constituent utilities and facilitate cooperation among stakeholders to strengthen cybersecurity efforts.
It was set up under the Central Electricity Authority.
What is CERT-In?
It is the national nodal agency for responding to computer security incidents as and when they occur.
It is a functional organisation of the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology, Government of India, with the objective of securing Indian cyberspace.
CERT-In has been operational since January 2004.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2058001
With reference to the Mankidia Tribe, consider the following statements:
- They belong to the Austro-Asiatic community found in Odisha.
- They are primarily a food gathering and hunting community.
- They reside in temporary dome-shaped leaf huts known as Kumbhas.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, the Mankidia community became the 6th Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) to get habitat rights over forests in Odisha.
The Mankidia community is an Austro-Asiatic community that ekes out a living mainly from the forests.
They constitute a semi-nomadic section of the Birhor tribe.
They have been identified as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) in Odisha.
Occupation: They are primarily a food gathering and hunting community. They are one of the most little-known forest dwelling and wandering communities of the state as well as the country.
They wander inside forests in small bands and stay at different tandas — the temporary makeshift settlements comprising of temporary dome-shaped leaf huts known as Kumbhas.
Language: They speak a form of Munda language and some of them are also conversant in Odia.
They believe in both malevolent and benevolent spirits and Gods. Logobir and Budhimai are their supreme deities.
They worship their ancestors to enjoy health and achieve success in hunting and collecting forest produce.
They are mainly found in Odisha, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and West Bengal.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/forests/fra-implementation-mankidia-community-becomes-6th-pvtg-to-get-habitat-rights-over-forests-in-odisha
“Pact for the Future”, recently in the news was adopted by:
United Nations General Assembly
Explanation :
Recently, the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) adopted a “Pact for the Future” a comprehensive agreement designed to reshape global governance for the twenty-first century at the Summit of the Future.
It is a landmark declaration reaffirming the commitment of UN Member States to sustainable development, peace and stronger global governance.
The Pact’s five broad focus areas include
Sustainable development: It includes a pledge to move faster towards achieving the UN’s Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and the Paris Agreement commitments on climate change.
International peace and security: Redouble efforts to build and sustain peaceful, inclusive and just societies and address the root causes of conflicts and protect all civilians in armed conflict
Science and technology and digital revolution: Science, technology and innovation have the potential to accelerate the realization of the aspirations of the United Nations across all three pillars of its work.
Youth and future generations: Listen to young people and include them in decision-making, at the national and global levels
Transforming global governance: Build stronger partnerships with civil society, the private sector and local and regional authorities.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://news.un.org/en/story/2024/09/1154671
Consider the following statements regarding the Nagar Van Yojana:
- It aims to enhance the urban greenery to improve the quality of life in cities.
- It provides financial assistance of Rs. 4 lakh per hectare for the creation and maintenance of these urban forests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of India achieved 100-Day Target of 100 Nagar Vans under the Nagar Van Yojana (NVY) with objective to Enhance Urban Greenery.
It was launched in 2020 in an effort to enhance the urban greenery to improve the quality of life and increasing social cohesion in cities.
The scheme provides financial assistance of Rs. 4 lakh per hectare for the creation and maintenance of these urban forests, encouraging the involvement of citizens, students, and other stakeholders in the creation and management of these green spaces.
Nagar Van areas range from a minimum of 10 ha to 50 ha.
The scheme covers all cities with Municipal Corporations, Municipalities and Urban Local Bodies (ULBs).
Emphasis is on biodiversity, Planting fruit-bearing, medicinal, and native species to attract wildlife and promote ecological balance. Community participation is central, with opportunities for public engagement through tree planting, educational programs, and sustainable management.
Each Nagar Van must have at least two-thirds of its area under tree cover and will feature components like Biodiversity Parks, Smriti Vans, Butterfly Conservatories, and Herbal Gardens and now Matri Van created under Ek Ped Ma Ke Naam.
Presently, the Nagar Van Yojana aims to develop 1000 Nagar Vans by the year 2027 with the financial support of National Fund of National Compensatory Afforestation Management and Planning Authority (National CAMPA).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2057503
MAPCIS crater, recently seen news, is located in:
Australia
Explanation :
Recently, Australian researchers have uncovered evidence of a massive impact crater which is named as MAPCIS, which could revolutionise our understanding of Earth’s geological history.
It is classified as a nonconcentric complex crater, which could provide invaluable insights into Earth’s geological and biological evolution.
It spans an astonishing 600 kilometers across central Australia.
The newly discovered structure, is named as Massive Australian Precambrian-Cambrian Impact Structure (MAPCIS).
The impact is believed to have occurred at the end of the Ediacaran period.
It includes massive deposits of pseudotachylite breccia (melt rock) near the crater’s center, the presence of shocked minerals, including lonsdaleite (shocked diamond), and impact-level concentrations of iridium.
Key facts about the Ediacaran Period
It is an interval of geological time ranging from 635 to 541 million years ago.
It is the uppermost division of the Proterozoic Eon of Precambrian time and latest of the three periods of the Neoproterozoic Era.
This period produced some of the earliest known evidence of the evolution of multicellular animals.
It was a time of immense geological and biological change, and records the transition from a planet largely dominated by microscopic organisms, to a Cambrian world swarming with animals.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/massive-600-km-wide-crater-found-in-australia-points-to-ancient-cataclysm-2605545-2024-09-24
“Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary”, recently seen in the news, is located near the border of:
Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh and Telangana
Explanation :
A rarest of rare weather phenomenon- the collision of two cyclones- has been found to have caused the flattening of thousands of trees in the Eturnagaram wildlife sanctuary in Mulugu district.
About Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary:
Location:
Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary is located near the border of Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh and Telangana in the village of Eturnagaram, a tribal village in the Mulugu district of Telangana.
It is located 100 km from Warangal and 250 km from Hyderabad.
It was declared as a wildlife sanctuary in 1952 by Hyderabad Nizam Government.
It is spread over an area of around 806 sq. km.
River:
It has a water source called Dayyam Vagu, which separates the sanctuary into two parts.
River Godavari also passes through it.
Flora:
The region is covered completely with thick natural vegetation and it falls in the tropical dry deciduous.
It is rich in the growth of teak, bamboo and other trees like madhuca and terminalia.
Fauna:
This sanctuary provides shelter to Tiger, Leopard, Panther, Wolf, Wild Dogs, Jackals Sloth Bear, Chousingha, Black Buck, Nilgai, Sambar, Spotted Deer and Four Horned Antilope etc.
The plethora of water in the sanctuary attributes to the presence of reptiles like the famous Mugger crocodiles and snakes like the Cobra, Python and Krait.
The famous Sammakka-Saralamma Temple is situated inside the sanctuary.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/videos/videos-nation/2024/Sep/20/eturnagaram-wildlife-sanctuary-trees-in-100-more-hectares-were-destroyed
Consider the following:
- Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR)
- Worker Population Ratio (WPR)
- Unemployment Rate (UR)
- Current Weekly Status (CWS)
How many of the above are indicators of the Periodic Labour Force Survey?
All four
Explanation :
Recently, the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) for the period between July 2023 and June 2024, was released by the Labour Bureau.
Key Findings:
Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) for persons of age 15 years and above was 60.1%. The same for male and female was 78.8% and 41.7% respectively.
Worker Population Ratio (WPR) for persons of age 15 years and above was 58.2%. The same for male and female was 76.3% and 40.3% respectively.
Unemployment Rate (UR) was 3.2% for both male and female of age 15 years and above.
Unemployment Rate for male has shown a marginal decline from 3.3% during July 2022 – June 2023 to 3.2% during July 2023 – June 2024, among female it has increased from 2.9% to 3.2% during the same time span.
About Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS):
Considering the importance of availability of labour force data at more frequent time intervals, National Statistical Office (NSO) launched Periodic Labour Force Survey in April 2017.
Objective:
To estimate the key employment and unemployment indicators (viz. Worker Population Ratio, Labour Force Participation Rate, Unemployment Rate) in the short time interval of three months for the urban areas only in the ‘Current Weekly Status’ (CWS).
To estimate employment and unemployment indicators in both ‘Usual Status’ (ps+ss) and CWS in both rural and urban areas annually.
The indicators of this survey are defined as follows:
Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR): LFPR is defined as the percentage of persons in the labour force (i.e. working or seeking or available for work) in the population.
Worker Population Ratio (WPR): WPR is defined as the percentage of employed persons in the population.
Unemployment Rate (UR): UR is defined as the percentage of persons unemployed among the persons in the labour force.
Current Weekly Status (CWS): The activity status determined on the basis of a reference period of the last 7 days preceding the date of the survey is known as the current weekly status (CWS) of the person.
This survey is conducted by the National Sample Survey (NSO), working under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/unemployment-rate-stagnant-reveals-government-survey/article68678636.ecev
Consider the following statements with reference to the Unified Logistics Interface Platform:
- It was launched as part of the ‘National Logistics Policy (NLP) in 2022.
- It aims to create a nationwide single-window logistics platform for end-to-end visibility.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
About Unified Logistics Interface Platform:
ULIP is a digital gateway that allows industry players to access logistics-related datasets from various Government systems through API-based integration.
Currently, the platform integrates with 37 systems from 10 ministries via 118 APIs, covering over 1800 data fields.
It was launched by the Prime Minister as part of the ‘National Logistics Policy (NLP)’ on September 17, 2022.
objectives:
To create a nationwide single-window logistics platform for end-to-end visibility.
To develop a logistics gateway by integrating information available with various Govt. agencies across the value chain.
To provide visibility for optimal usage of various modes of transportation.
To provide data which can be utilized by the stakeholders for simplification of complicated processes like compliance, document filing, certifications, and approvals.
To offer a platform for data exchange among government and private entities that are directly or indirectly involved in the Indian Logistics ecosystem.
Benefits:
It will give direct and indirect benefits to all logistics stakeholders like verification of drivers and vehicles details, tracking & tracing of consignment, Route Optimization Planning and timely updates on the destination of the consignment etc.
It will enable structured planning by helping in decision-making on the optimum use of modes of logistics thereby saving cost and time.
Hence both statements are correct.
“Exostoma sentiyonoae”, recently discovered in the Dzuleke River, is a species of:
catfish
Explanation :
Recently, A new species of glyptosternine catfish- Exostoma sentiyonoae, has been discovered in the Dzuleke River, a tributary of the Barak River in Nagaland.
About Exostoma sentiyonoae:
According to the research paper, the species can be distinguished by several unique characteristics including an adipose fin attached to the upper procurrent caudal-fin rays, tubercles on the dorsal-fin spine, a slender head, a long distance between the dorsal and adipose fins, small eyes and 41 vertebrae.
The researchers distinguished Exostoma sentiyonoae from its congeners in the Salween drainage of Myanmar and Thailand, specifically E. berdmorei and E. gaoligongense.
E. sentiyonoae differs from E. berdmorei in having a shorter dorsal-fin base, a longer dorsal-adipose distance, and a smaller eye and compared to E. gaoligongense, the new species has a shorter pectoral-pelvic distance and a smaller eye.
It marks the fourth species of Exostoma described from the Barak drainage, highlighting the region’s rich biodiversity.
It is the first known member of this genus discovered from the Dzuleke River in Nagaland.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://mokokchungtimes.com/new-species-of-catfish-discovered-in-dzuleke-river-nagaland/
What are Nazca Lines?
A group of large human-carved geoglyphs
Explanation :
Recently, Scientists have discovered more than 300 never-before-seen Nazca Lines in Peru.
What are Nazca Lines?
The Nazca Lines are a group of large human-carved geoglyphs located in a roughly 170-square-mile (440 square kilometres) area of Peru’s Nazca Desert.
The ancient artworks were likely created between 200 B.C. and A.D. 500 by members of the pre-Incan civilisation, known as the Nazca (or Nasca), who removed the upper layers of the desert’s red-tinged surface pebbles to reveal sections of lighter soil in a wide range of different shapes and sizes.
Researchers had already found around 430 Nazca Lines since the mysterious shapes were rediscovered by aeroplane passengers in the 1920s.
Most of these geoglyphs were identified in the last 20 years with the help of advancements in satellite imagery.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livescience.com/archaeology/knife-wielding-orca-and-alien-looking-figures-among-300-nazca-l
Consider the following statements regarding the Women in Space Leadership Programme:
- It is a joint programme of the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and the British Council.
- It fosters women’s leadership in space sciences by developing a strategic leadership framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A Women in Space Leadership Programme (WiSLP) was launched by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) in collaboration with the British Council as part of the UK-India Education and Research Initiative (UKIERI).
This initiative aims to develop a women’s leadership framework to support institutions in strengthening their gender-inclusive practices and policies, specifically around space sciences and allied areas.
It fosters women’s leadership in space sciences by developing a strategic leadership framework. Under this initiative, Coventry University acts as the delivery partner.
To promote a more equitable distribution of leadership opportunities and enable a workplace culture that recognises female leaders, this programme is underpinned by three foundational pillars:
Intersectionality or understanding of different aspects of women’s identities
Collaborative culturally sensitive approaches that respond to opportunities and challenges in India
Using leadership theory from both social science and STEM to support female scientists to become more confident about their leadership abilities.
What is UK-India Education and Research Initiative (UKIERI)?
It is the UK and India’s flagship bilateral collaboration programme on education and research founded in 2006.
Objective: By strengthening education and research collaboration between the UK and India, UKIERI helps both countries to achieve their knowledge ambitions.
UKIERI has been implemented in three phases from 2006 to 2022. The fourth phase of UKIERI was launched in 2023.
UKIERI Phase 4 expects to strengthen the bilateral relationship between the UK and India in the areas of education, research, and innovation while addressing shared global challenges and promoting sustainable development.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2058528
With reference to Infrasound, consider the following:
- It is a sound wave with very high frequencies.
- It can be produced by a passing meteor and earthquakes.
- It can be used to check the structural health of buildings and dams.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO) is holding a workshop for scientists on using ‘infrasound’ in the coming months.
It refers to sound waves with very low frequencies, unlike the more ubiquitous ultrasound.
It can be produced by a passing meteor, a storm, an aurora up north, volcanoes, earthquakes or even nuclear explosions.
Infrasonic waves can cause minute changes in the atmospheric pressure, which can be measured by microbarometers.
These noiseless sounds can travel very long distances without losing steam — a property that CTBTO finds useful for detecting distant nuclear explosions.
The CTBTO’s International Monitoring System (IMS) uses a range of technologies to detect nuclear explosions. Its Infrasound Network (that is being built) is the only global monitoring network of its kind, with plans to build a network of 60 array stations in 35 countries.
Applications of Infrasound
It can be used to check the structural health of buildings, dams or bridges — because infrasonic waves can pass through dense materials and reveal internal stress, cracks or other defects.
In the field of aerospace, low-frequency sounds generated during a rocket’s lift-off can cue the stress and behaviour of a rocket, or detect aerodynamic instabilities of an aircraft.
In mining, infrasound can help check the integrity of mine shafts or determine whether a dynamite blast was successful.
This sound has also been used in wildlife tracking, such as monitoring the movement of whales.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/business-tech/ctbto-tunes-into-infrasound/article68663426.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Asia Power Index:
- It is released every year by the Asian Development Bank.
- It examines material capabilities of a country and the influence it exerts on the international stage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
India ranked third in the annual Asia Power Index, released by an Australian think tank.
It is launched by the Lowy Institute in 2018.
It is an annual measure of power dynamics in the Asia-Pacific region.
It evaluates 27 countries across the Asia-Pacific, examining their ability to shape and respond to the external environment.
The Index focuses on both the material capabilities of states and the influence they exert on the international stage.
The 2024 edition offers one of the most comprehensive assessments of power distribution in the region to date. Timor-Leste has been included for the first time, reflecting its growing importance in Southeast Asia.
The index is divided into resource-based and influence-based determinants
Resource-Based Determinants:
Economic Capability: The core economic strength of a country, measured through indicators like GDP at Purchasing Power Parity (PPP), technological sophistication, and global economic connectivity.
Military Capability: Evaluates conventional military strength based on defense spending, armed forces, weapon systems, and signature capabilities like long-range power projection.
Resilience: The internal capacity to deter threats to state stability, including institutional robustness, geopolitical security and resource security.
Future Resources: Forecasts the future distribution of resources, including economic, military, and demographic factors projected for 2035.
Influence-Based Determinants:
Economic Relationships: The capacity to exercise leverage through trade, investment, and economic diplomacy.
Defense Networks: The strength of alliances and partnerships, measured through military cooperation and arms transfers.
Diplomatic Influence: The extent of a country’s diplomatic reach, participation in multilateral forums, and foreign policy ambition.
Cultural Influence: The ability to shape international public opinion through cultural exports, media, and people-to-people ties.
A country’s overall power score is derived from a weighted average of these eight measures, encompassing 131 individual indicators.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2058446
Consider the following statements regarding the Minerals Security Finance Network:
- It is aimed at strengthening global cooperation in securing critical mineral supply chains.
- It is an initiative of the World Meteorological Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, India has officially joined the US-led initiative Minerals Security Finance Network.
It is a new initiative emerging from the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP).
It is aimed at strengthening global cooperation in securing critical mineral supply chains.
The network brings together institutions from the Indo-Pacific region and Europe, promoting cooperation, information exchange, and co-financing.
Member countries: The partnership includes 13 countries and the European Commission.
These are the United States of America, Australia, Canada, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, India, Italy, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Norway, Sweden, the United Kingdom, and the European Union (represented by the European Commission).
Significance to India: It helps India in diversifying and securing its supply of critical minerals from nations like Argentina, Chile, Australia and select African countries. Kazakhstan, in Central Asia, is also being explored as a potential source for India’s mineral requirements.
Key facts about the Minerals Security Partnership
It is a framework established by the US in 2022.
It is an ambitious new initiative to bolster critical mineral supply chains, announced by the United States (US) and key partner countries in June 2022.
The goal of the alliance is to ensure that critical minerals are produced, processed, and recycled in a manner that supports the ability of countries to realise the full economic development benefit of their geological endowments.
The focus of the grouping would be on the supply chains of minerals such as Cobalt, Nickel, Lithium and also the 17 “rare earth” minerals.
India was inducted to the MSP in June 2023.
Significance of Critical minerals: These minerals are vital for the production of renewable energy technologies such as electric vehicle batteries, solar panels, and wind turbines, have become essential components of the global shift towards clean energy.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/us-mineral-security-network-mineral-chinese-9587172/
The Formosa Strait, recently seen in the news, connects:
South China Sea and East China Sea
Explanation :
A Japanese warship cruised for the first time to assert its freedom of navigation through the Taiwan Strait.
It is also called Formosa Strait which separates the island of Taiwan and continental Asia.
Ports: The chief ports are Amoy in mainland China and Kao-hsiung in Taiwan.
Rivers: Several rivers including the Jiulong and Min rivers from China’s Fujian Province drain into the Taiwan Strait.
The biggest islands along the Taiwan side include Penghu (or Pescadores), Xiamen, and Pingtan.
The Taiwan Strait constitutes a critical corridor connecting the South China Sea to the East China Sea and also serves as a busy navigational waterway, on which millions of tons of cargo are ferried annually.
The strait is also one of the most important fishing grounds in China and more than a hundred economically important fish species are found here.
What is a strait?
A strait is a narrow body of water that connects two larger bodies of water.
A strait is similar to a canal cutting through an isthmus (a narrow strip of land), but a strait is formed naturally and canals are built by people.
Significance: Straits are often important transportation routes since they allow ships to pass from one body of water to another.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/japan-warship-asserts-right-to-sail-through-taiwan-strait/article68684489.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Jivitputrika Festival:
- It is primarily observed in the western and southern parts of India.
- It is celebrated by mothers who fast for the well-being, long life and prosperity of their children.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
At least 46 people, including 37 children, drowned while taking holy dip in rivers and ponds in several Bihar districts during the ‘Jivitputrika’ festival, officials said recently.
About Jivitputrika Festival:
Jivitputrika, or Jitiya Vrat, is a Hindu festival observed primarily in the northern and eastern parts of India, including Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, and Nepal.
It is celebrated by mothers who fast for the well-being, long life, and prosperity of their children.
The festival spans three days, with the main ritual involving a strict ‘nirjala’ fast, meaning no water is consumed during the fast.
The fast is considered an expression of a mother’s devotion and love, with the belief that it will bring divine blessings upon her children.
The festival is rooted in Hindu mythology, particularly the story of King Jimutavahana, whose sacrifice for the welfare of others is commemorated during this time.
The celebration begins with Nahai-Khai, where mothers take a purifying bath and eat a nourishing meal.
The second day is marked by the rigorous fasting ritual, and the festival concludes on the third day with Paaran, where the fast is broken with a meal.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/37-children-among-46-drown-during-jivitputrika-festival-in-bihar-districts-6654206
With reference to Spiral galaxies, consider the following statements:
- In a spiral galaxy, the stars, gas and dust are gathered in spiral arms that spread outward from the galaxy’s center.
- The majority of galaxies in the universe are spiral galaxies.
- They are made up of hot and young stars.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
NASA Hubble Space Telescope recently shared a stunning video of a spiral galaxy known as Caldwell 45, or NGC 5248.
About Spiral Galaxy:
Spiral galaxies are twisted collections of stars and gas that often have beautiful shapes and are made up of hot and young stars.
In a spiral galaxy, the stars, gas, and dust are gathered in spiral arms that spread outward from the galaxy’s center.
Most of the galaxies that scientists have discovered so far are spiral galaxies, as opposed to the other two main categories of galaxy shapes—elliptical and irregular.
Approximately 60% of all galaxies are thought to be spiral galaxies.
The Milky Way, the galaxy that includes Earth and our solar system, is an example of a spiral galaxy.
Structure:
Most spiral galaxies contain a central bulge surrounded by a flat, rotating disk of stars.
The bulge in the center is made up of older, dimmer stars and is thought to contain a supermassive black hole.
Approximately two-thirds of spiral galaxies also contain a bar structure through their center, as does the Milky Way.
The disk of stars orbiting the bulge separates into arms that circle the galaxy.
These spiral arms contain a wealth of gas and dust and younger stars that shine brightly before their quick demise.
The majority of spiral galaxies rotate in the sense that the arms trail the direction of the spin.
The visible portion of spiral galaxies contains only a small fraction of the total mass of the galaxy, and spiral galaxies are surrounded by an extensive halo consisting mostly of dark matter.
Spiral galaxies are thought to evolve into elliptical galaxies as the spirals get older.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livemint.com/science/news/spiral-galaxy-59-million-light-years-away-looks-like-this-nasa-shares-stunning-video-of-young-hot-stars-11727161312951.html
Which river basin is primarily involved in the East Rajasthan Canal Project (ERCP), recently seen in the news?
Chambal Basin
Explanation :
Rajasthan Chief Minister recently said that the Eastern Rajasthan Canal Project (ERCP) is very big and both Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh are working together to complete it.
About East Rajasthan Canal Project (ERCP):
It is an ambitious project of Rajasthan State to harvest the excess water present in the rivers, especially in southern Rajasthan, and use that water for drinking and irrigation purposes in south-eastern Rajasthan, where there is scarcity.
It envisages intra-basin transfer of water within the Chambal Basin by utilising surplus monsoon water available in Kalisindh, Parvati, Mej and Chakan sub-basins and diverting it into water deficit sub-basins of Banas, Gambhiri, Banganga and Parbati to provide drinking and industrial water to 13 districts of eastern Rajasthan.
The project also envisages irrigation in about 2.82 lakh hectare area.
The project will also supply water to the Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor and take care of the flood and drought situation in the area.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.aninews.in/news/national/general-news/rajasthan-cm-discusses-eastern-rajasthan-canal-project-with-union-minister-cr-paatil20240925221843/
“Great Sandy Desert” is located in:
Western Australia
Explanation :
The largest known population of one of Australia’s rarest birds, the night parrot, has been found living in Western Australia’s Great Sandy Desert.
About Great Sandy Desert:
It is an arid wasteland of northern Western Australia.
It is Australia’s second largest desert, after the Great Victoria Desert and encompasses an area of 284,993 sq. km.
It extends from Eighty Mile Beach on the Indian Ocean eastward into the Northern Territory and from Kimberley Downs southward to the Tropic of Capricorn and the Gibson Desert.
It is typified by longitudinal sand ridges, chains of large salt lakes and occasional low rocky hills interlaced with Triodia (Spinifex) grass.
The Gibson Desert lies to the south, and the Tanami Desert lies to the east of the Great Sandy Desert.
Climate: It experiences exceptionally high daytime temperatures and overnight temperatures, along with far below-average humidity levels.
The region is not very populated. The main population is made up of Indigenous Australians. There are two main tribes; Martu in the west and Pintupi to the east.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
Which state in India is primarily home to the Mao Nagas?
Manipur
Explanation :
The Mao Council, the apex tribal body of the Mao Nagas in Manipur, has officially accepted the judgment and order of the Tenyimia People’s Organisation (TPO) Presidential Council regarding the traditional land dispute along the Nagaland-Manipur border.
About Mao Nagas:
Mao Naga is one of the indigenous tribes of Northeast India.
It is one of the Naga tribes in Manipur.
Language: Their language is called Mao, and the whole land area inhabited by them is also called Mao.
The Mao Nagas calls themselves Ememei or Memei in their language.
Mao is geographically situated in the northern part of Manipur, adjoining the southern part of Nagaland.
According to the 2011 provisional census, Mao has a population of 97,195.
The Mao Nagas lives in a compact and well-protected village usually situated in the hilltop and mountain ridges.
Their society follows a patriarchal system where descent is traced through the male lineage.
Like any other Naga community, the Mao Naga is divided into different clans (Opfuta), which are further divided into sub-clans.
Economy:
The economy of the Mao Nagas is predominantly agrarian and rice is their staple food.
Terraced rice cultivation (both dry and wet) is a customary practice that Mao people have been engaged in throughout generations.
They emphasized cooperative and collective endeavors and believed in the system of distribution in the form of a barter system or mutual exchange.
Religion:
Before the advent of Christianity, the Mao Naga had their traditional religion known as ‘Opfupe Chüna-Chüno’ (the religion of the forefather).
They believe in the existence of a Supreme being called ‘Iyi Koki Chüku Kapi Oramei’ (a benevolent God who protects and nurtures man).
Today, the majority of the Mao Nagas have embraced Christianity.
Festivals: There are four main festivals celebrated by the Mao Nagas. They are Chüthuni, Chüjüni, Saleni, and Onuni.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.eastmojo.com/manipur/2024/09/25/manipur-mao-tribe-accepts-verdict-on-traditional-land-dispute-with-nagaland/
Consider the following statements regarding the Central Silk Board:
- It functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Textiles, Government of India.
- Its chairperson is appointed by the Central Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister of Textiles unveiled the Commemoratory coin, celebrating the Platinum Jubilee of the Central Silk Board (CSB) at Mysuru.
It is a Statutory Body established during 1948, by an act of Parliament.
It functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Textiles, Government of India.
The Board comprises 39 members appointed as per the powers and provisions conferred by Sub-Section 3 of Section 4 of the CSB Act 1948, for a period of 3 years.
The Chairperson of the Board to be appointed by the Central Government.
Functions
It advises the Central Government on all matters relating to production, supply, distribution, trade and commerce in silk-worm seed, the development of the silk industry and its products including export and import.
It has established 6 Regional Offices in New Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Bhubaneshwar and Guwahati.
Headquarters: Bengaluru
Silk Production in India
India has the unique distinction of being the only country producing all the five known commercial silks, namely, mulberry, tropical tasar, oak tasar, eri and muga.
India is the second largest producer of silk in the world.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2058721
Consider the following statements regarding the GlobE Network:
- It is a platform where agencies from across the world share best practices and criminal intelligence.
- India’s National Investigation Agency is part of this Network.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, India was elected to the GlobE Network’s Steering Committee during the plenary session held in Beijing.
The Global Operational Network of Anti-Corruption Law Enforcement Authorities (GloBE Network) was an initiative of G-20.
The GloBE Network was officially launched on June 3, 2021, during a special event at the UN General Assembly Special Session against Corruption.
It now has 121 member countries (India is also a member of this Network) and 219 member authorities.
It is emerging as a unique platform where agencies from across the world share best practices and criminal intelligence, develop strategies, and support in the common cause of combating corruption.
The steering committee, consisting of one chair, one vice-chair, and 13 members, provides leadership and direction for the organisation.
India’s Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) and Enforcement Directorate (ED) are part of the network, with the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) acting as the central authority for India.
The Network is governed by its members and is supported by the United Nations Office against Drugs and Crime (UNODC) which provides the Network’s secretariat.
During India’s G-20 Presidency in 2023, two high-level principles for combating corruption were adopted which detailed leveraging of the GloBE Network.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-elected-to-globe-network-steering-committee-in-beijing/article68686063.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Monocled Cobra:
- It is mainly found in the swamps and mangrove regions of Southeast Asia.
- It is categorized as an “endangered” species under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, researchers carried out proteomic and biochemical investigations to explore the diversity in the Monocled Cobra (Naja kaouthia) composition across different geographic regions.
It is a venomous cobra species widespread across South and Southeast Asia.
Some populations of the Monocled cobra have the ability to spit venom, earning them the name “Indian spitting cobra”.
They have an O-shaped, or monocellate hood pattern, which has the “spectacle” pattern on the rear of their hood.
Habitat:
These cobras prefer habitats associated with water, such as paddy fields, swamps, and mangroves, but can also be found in grasslands, shrublands, and forests.
They also found in agricultural land and human settlements including cities.
Distribution: It inhabits in eastern and northeastern India, Nepal, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Thailand, Vietnam, Malaysia and southern China.
Ecological significance: They play an important role in their ecosystem. They help to maintain the balance of prey species and control agricultural pests such as rats and mice.
Conservation status
IUCN Red List: Least Concern (LC)
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2059041
Consider the following statements regarding the Param Rudra Supercomputers:
- It is designed to tackle complex computational challenges across various scientific and engineering domains.
- It is indigenously developed under the National Supercomputing Mission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India virtually launched three Param Rudra Super Computing Systems and a High-Performance Computing (HPC) system for weather and climate research.
It is designed to tackle complex computational challenges across various scientific and engineering domains.
Three Param Rudra supercomputers have been developed at Rs 130 crores, indigenously under the National Supercomputing Mission.
They have been deployed at three key locations: Delhi, Pune and Kolkata.
In Pune, the Giant Metre Radio Telescope (GMRT) will leverage the supercomputer to explore Fast Radio Bursts (FRBs) and other astronomical phenomena.
In Delhi, Inter-University Accelerator Centre (IUAC) will enhance research in fields like material science and atomic physics.
In Kolkata, S N Bose Centre will use supercomputing technology to drive advanced research in areas such as physics, cosmology and earth sciences.
Key facts about the National Supercomputing Mission
It was launched in 2015 to provide the country with supercomputing infrastructure to meet the increasing computational demands of academia, researchers, MSMEs, and startups.
It aims to create a network of advanced computing systems across India.
It is collaboration between the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and the Department of Science and Technology (DST).
It is implemented by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Pune and the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2059176
Llama 3.2, recently seen in the news, is developed by:
Meta
Explanation :
Meta has announced its new free and open-source Large Language Model (LLM), Llama 3.2, during Meta Connect 2024.
It is an open-source large language model developed by Meta.
Features
It has both image and text processing abilities.
It includes voice interaction features, allowing users to engage in conversations with the AI using voice commands.
This model includes both small and medium-sized variants at 11-billion and 90-billion parameters as well as more lightweight text-only models at 1-billion and 3-billion parameters that fit into select mobile and edge devices.
Out of the different Llama 3.2 variants, the 11-billion parameter one and the 90-billion parameter one vision models and can understand charts and graphs, caption images and locate are objects from natural language prompts.
The bigger model can also pinpoint details from images to create captions.
Applications: The models will help developers create more advanced AI applications like AR apps with a real-time understanding of video, visual search engines that distribute images based on content, or document analysis tools that can summarise large portions of text.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/life/technology-meta-introduces-llama-3-2-heres-all-we-know-3622505/
With reference to Active Galactic Nucleus (AGN), consider the following statements:
- An AGN is an extremely bright central region of a galaxy that is dominated by the light emitted by dust and gas as it falls into a black hole.
- AGNs emit radiation across the entire electromagnetic spectrum, from radio waves to gamma rays.
- The most powerful AGNs are known as quasars, which give rise to extremely luminous galactic centres.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Researchers from the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) recently found evidence of an interaction between a radio jet emitted from a special kind of galaxy called Active Galactic Nuclei (AGN) and the surrounding interstellar medium.
About Active Galactic Nucleus (AGN):
An AGN is an extremely bright central region of a galaxy that is dominated by the light emitted by dust and gas as it falls into a black hole.
The extremely luminous central region is emitting so much radiation that it can outshine the rest of the galaxy altogether.
AGNs emit radiation across the entire electromagnetic spectrum, from radio waves to gamma rays.
This radiation is produced by the action of a central supermassive black hole that is devouring material that gets too close to it.
A galaxy hosting an AGN is called an ‘active galaxy’.
AGNs are the most luminous, persistent sources of electromagnetic radiation in the Universe. This means they can be used to discover distant objects.
Astronomers have also classified different types of AGN based on their observed characteristics.
The most powerful AGNs are known as quasars, which give rise to extremely luminous galactic centres.
A blazar is an AGN with a jet of light and energy that is pointed toward the Earth.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/101232/OPS/GKODCV6QJ.1+GN3DD0Q5N.1.html
The “GST Compensation Cess” is levied by the Central Government primarily to:
compensate states for revenue loss due to GST implementation
Explanation :
The Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council recently set up a 10-member GoM to decide on the taxation of luxury, sin, and demerit goods once the compensation cess ends in March 2026.
About GST Compensation Cess:
It is levied under Section 8 of the Goods and Services Tax (Compensation to State) Act, 2017.
Why is GST Cess Levied?
As GST is a consumption-based tax, the state in which the consumption of goods and supply happen would be eligible for the indirect tax revenue.
Hence, after GST comes into effect, some states that are net exporters of goods and/or services are expected to experience a decrease in indirect tax revenue.
To compensate the States for the loss in tax revenue, the GST Compensation Cess has been declared by the Central Government.
Usage of GST Cess:
All the proceeds received from the GST compensation cess would be credited to a non-lapsable fund known as the GST Compensation Fund.
The funds would then be used for compensating tax revenue loss to States on account of GST implementation.
If any funds are unutilized, then at the end of the transition period, it would be shared in half by the Central Government and all State Governments.
The State government’s share would be distributed in the ratio of their total revenues from the State tax or the Union territory goods and services tax, in the last year of the transition period.
Applicability:
GST Cess would be applicable to both the supply of goods or services that have been notified by the Central Government.
Also, both intrastate supplies of goods or services and interstate supplies of goods or services would attract GST cess.
In the GST regime, compensation cess at varied rates is levied on luxury, sin, and demerit goods (cigarettes, pan masala, gutkha, and other tobacco products, soft drinks, cars, etc.).
In 2022, the GST Council decided to extend the levy till March 2026 to repay the interest and the principle amount of the Rs 2.69 lakh crore worth of loans taken in the 2021 and 2022 fiscal years to make good states’ revenue loss during Covid years.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/gst-council-sets-up-gom-on-compensation-cess-panel-to-submit-report-by-december-31/article68691069.ece
The “Three Gorges Dam” is located on the:
Yangtze River
Explanation :
NASA scientists suggest that China’s largest hydroelectric dam, “Three Gorges Dam” has been shifting huge amounts of water, which is affecting the spinning of Earth.
About Three Gorges Dam:
It is located on the Yangtze River in China’s Hubei Province.
It is the world’s largest hydroelectric power station.
The dam was completed in 2012 after nearly two decades of construction.
Its staggering dimensions—2,335 metres (7,660 feet) long and 185 metres (607 feet) high—make it the largest dam ever built.
The dam’s reservoir has a capacity of 40 cubic kilometres (about 10 trillion gallons) of water, which can produce up to 22,500 megawatts of electricity.
The dam uses the flow of water from the three closest gorges, known as Qutangxia, Wuxia, and Xilingxia, for spinning the turbine and generating electricity
Beyond its hydroelectric capabilities, the dam is intended to increase the Yangtze River’s shipping capacity and reduce the potential for floods downstream by providing flood storage space.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.wionews.com/science/chinas-gigantic-hydroelectric-dam-has-been-changing-spin-of-earth-heres-how-761164
The KH-22 Cruise Missile, recently seen in the news, was developed by which country?
A.
United States
B.
China
C.
Isreal
None of the above
Explanation :
The Tu-22M3 missile carriers of the Russian Aerospace Forces recently struck Snake Island in the Black Sea with Kh-22 cruise missiles.
About KH-22 Cruise Missile:
It is a Soviet-era long-range airborne supersonic cruise missile.
It is also known by the NATO reporting name AS-4 ‘Kitchen’.
The Kh-22 family was developed in the USSR in the 1960s and specifically designed to be launched from Tupolev-22 bombers.
This missile was intended primarily to destroy large naval targets like aircraft carriers, using either conventional or nuclear warheads.
It boasts impressive specifications, including a speed of up to Mach 4.6 and a range of approximately 600 kilometers.
A total of approximately 3,000 such missiles were produced in the USSR.
After the USSR collapsed, quite a few of them remained in Ukraine. However, soon after independence in 1991, Ukraine gave up its nuclear and strategic aviation arsenal.
In 2000, Ukraine transferred 386 Kh-22 missiles to Russia as an installment against the gas debt.
The successor to the Kh-22 became the Kh-32, which can be carried by the new Russian Tu-22M3M bombers.
The new missile features a conventional warhead, an improved rocket motor, and a new radar imaging terminal seeker. It has a longer range but a smaller warhead.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.eurasiantimes.com/new-escalation-russian-tu-22m3-bomber/
Which of the following areas has the unique distinction of being a Natural World Heritage Site, a Tiger Reserve, an Elephant Reserve, a Biosphere Reserve, and an Important Bird Area?
Manas National Park
Explanation :
Assam’s famed Manas National Park and Tiger Reserve will reopen for tourists following the end of the monsoon closure period as mandated by the government of India.
About Manas National Park and Tiger Reserve:
It is located in the foothills of the Himalayas in Assam. It is contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park in Bhutan.
The area has the unique distinction of being a Natural World Heritage Site, a Tiger Reserve, an Elephant Reserve, a Biosphere Reserve and an Important Bird Area.
It is one of the first reserves included in the tiger reserve network under Project Tiger in 1973.
It forms part of a large tiger conservation landscape which includes Buxa-Nameri-Pakke-Namdapha tiger reserves and protected areas of Bhutan and Myanmar.
The name of the park originates from the Manas River, which is named after the serpent goddess Manasa.
The Manas River is a major tributary of the Brahmaputra River, which passes through the Manas National Park.
Flora: In general, the vegetation comprises Sal (Shorea robusta), scrub forests, old plantations (in buffer areas), semi-evergreen and mixed deciduous forests, interspersed with grasslands and riparian vegetation (in core area).
Fauna: The Park is known for its rare and endangered endemic wildlife such as the Hispid Hare, Pigmy Hog, Golden Langur, Indian Rhinoceros, Asiatic Buffalo etc.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/assam/manas-national-park-to-reopen-on-september-27-3207690
Global Innovation Index, is published by:
World Intellectual Property Organization
Explanation :
India has moved up to 39th place among 133 global economies in the Global Innovation Index (GII) 2024.
It is published by the World Intellectual Property Organization.
It is a reliable tool for governments across the world to assess the innovation-led social and economic changes in their respective countries
Key Highlights of the Global Innovation Index 2024
India has been ranked first among 10 economies in Central and Southern Asia, further emphasizing its regional dominance in innovation.
India has also secured the 4th position in the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) Science and Technology (S&T) Cluster Ranking.
Major cities like Mumbai, Delhi, Bengaluru, and Chennai are listed among the world’s top 100 S&T clusters, which are hubs for research, development, and technological advancements.
India has achieved the 7th rank globally in intangible asset intensity, which measures the strength of non-physical assets like patents and trademarks, essential for driving innovation.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/indicators/india-jumps-42-spots-in-9-years-ranks-39th-in-global-innovation-index-2024/articleshow/113721955.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding the ABHED (Advanced Ballistics for High Energy Defeat) Bulletproof Jackets.
- It is developed by the Indian Space Research Organization.
- It is created from polymers and indigenous boron carbide ceramic material.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO), along with researchers of Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Delhi has developed Light Weight Bullet Proof Jackets named ABHED (Advanced Ballistics for High Energy Defeat).
ABHED (Advanced Ballistics for High Energy Defeat) is developed by DRDO and IIT Delhi.
These jackets have been created from polymers and indigenous boron carbide ceramic material.
The design configuration is based on the characterization of various materials at high strain rate followed by appropriate modelling and simulation.
The new jackets are capable of mitigating the highest threat levels and are lighter than the maximum weight limits stipulated for the Army.
It will enhance soldier protection and mobility.
With a minimum possible weight of 8 kg and 9.3 kg for different BIS levels, these modular-design jackets, featuring front and rear armour, provide 360-degree protection.
The jackets have been classified as BIS level 5 and BIS level 6, by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), which issues standards for bullet-resistant jackets and ballistic shields for the Indian Army.
The design ensures 360-degree protection through modular armour plates that can be adapted for different mission requirements, providing soldiers with flexibility in various combat scenarios.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/defence-abhed-indias-cutting-edge-lightweight-bulletproof-jacket-3622444/
Consider the following statements regarding the SASTRA Ramanujan Prize:
- It is conferred annually to mathematicians from across the world who are less than 32 years of age.
- It is awarded by the SASTRA University to a person who is working in an area influenced by the Srinivasa Ramanujan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Alexander Dunn has been awarded the prestigious 2024 SASTRA Ramanujan Prize.
It was instituted in the year 2005.
It is awarded every year by the SASTRA University on its campus near Kumbakonam in Tamil Nadu, on Ramanujan’s birth anniversary, December 22.
Eligibility:
The prize is conferred annually to mathematicians from across the world who are less than 32 years of age, working in an area influenced by the Srinivasa Ramanujan.
The age limit is 32 years to commemorate the fact that Ramanujan accomplished a phenomenal body of work in this short span.
Cash prize: It carries a citation and an award of $10,000.
This award has gained global repute ever since it was instituted.
Other recipients: Manjul Bhargava and Akshay Venkatesh
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://math.ufl.edu/2024/09/26/2024-sastra-ramanujan-prize/#
Consider the following statements regarding the Cassowary:
- It is a large and flightless bird closely related to the emu.
- It is native to New Guinea and found in Australian rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Every year, World Cassowary Day is observed on September 26 to draw international attention to the reasons these birds are important for the world at large.
It is a large, flightless bird most closely related to the emu. It is considered the most dangerous bird in the world.
They are strong swimmers and can move quickly on both land and water.
It has been stated that cassowaries are shy and they are usually hard to spot, at least in their natural rainforest habitats.
Distribution: It is native to New Guinea and found in Australian rainforests.
There are three species of cassowary.
The southern, or double-wattled cassowary (Casuarius casuarius) is the largest of the three. It inhabits lowland rainforests and is also found in eucalyptus forests or forested swamps.
The northern or single-wattled cassowary (Casuarius unappendiculatus) inhabits the coastal swamps and lowland rainforests of northern New Guinea.
The dwarf cassowary is smaller than the other two species of cassowary, usually weighing around 50 pounds. Their habitat is at a higher altitude, and they are generally found in more steep mountainous terrain,
Ecological Significance: They remain a significant disperser of seeds from native plants between rainforest patches and remain essential in maintaining native plant diversity.
Cultural Significance:
They are culturally important for some Aboriginal groups and they sometimes feature in traditional ceremonies, dances and Dreamtime narratives.
Several of these indigenous groups are now involved in cassowary conservation, using traditional ecological knowledge along with modern science.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/explainers/2024/Sep/26/september-26-a-day-dedicated-to-cassowary-the-most-dangerous-bird-in-the-world
The Philadelphi corridor, recently seen in the news, is located along the border of:
Gaza Strip and Egypt
Explanation :
Israel has been under intense pressure to give up control of the Philadelphi corridor.
It is a ribbon of land about 14 km in length and 100 metres wide along Gaza’s border with Egypt.
It was designated as a demilitarised border zone after the withdrawal of Israeli settlements and troops from Gaza in 2005 and runs from the Mediterranean to the Kerem Shalom crossing with Israel.
The Corridor was originally established under the 1979 Israel-Egypt peace treaty as a 100-meter-wide buffer zone.
The zone was later expanded beginning during the Second Intifada to be several hundred meters wide. It covers the entire 8.7-mile-long border.
The Rafah crossing between Egypt and Gaza is within the Philadelphi Corridor.
In 2005, as part of Israel’s unilateral withdrawal from Gaza, Egypt and Israel signed an agreement by which Egypt would secure the border between Egypt and Gaza to prevent the smuggling of weapons into the Strip.
Egypt maintains a one-kilometer-wide buffer zone on its side of the border, with plans to expand it.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.yahoo.com/news/opinion-defeat-hamas-israel-must-153000173.html
Ratapani Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which state?
Madhya Pradesh
Explanation :
The Ratapani Sanctuary is stretching its arms to get the status of a tiger reserve, and the government is serious in this regard.
About Ratapani Wildlife Sanctuary:
Location: Situated in Raisen and Sehore districts of Madhya Pradesh, it spreads over 825.90 sq km.
This rocky forest with an aquatic environment is spread on the Vindhya Hills.
It runs parallel on the northern side of the Narmada River. The Kolar River forms the western boundary of the Sanctuary.
The Sanctuary has Bhimbetika, a group of rock shelters and rock paintings, which is one of the ‘’ World Heritage Sites’’ declared by UNESCO.
It also encompasses many other historical and religious destinations like Ginnourgarh Fort, POW camp, Keri Mahadeo, Ratapani Dam, Jholiyapur Dam, etc.
Landscape: It is rugged with hills, valleys, plateaus and plains.
Flora:
The forest of this Sanctuary is of dry deciduous and moist deciduous types.
About 55% of the area is covered by teak. The remaining mixed forests consist of various dry deciduous species.
Fauna:
The regal striped cat is the apex predator, and estimates suggest that 40 tigers roam these forests.
Chinkara, an endangered species, is also found in the Sanctuary.
It is also home to animals like the Panther, Hyena, Jackal, Indian Fox, Wild Dog, Jungle Cat, Small Indian Civet, Blue Bull, Chinkara, Black Buck, Chausingha, Spotted Deer, Barking Deer, etc.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.freepressjournal.in/bhopal/ratapani-sanctuary-seeks-tiger-reserve-status-residents-of-two-villages-agree-for-evacuation
Which of the following is a major feature of ‘Sea Robins’, recently seen in the news?
Wing-like pectoral fins
Explanation :
In a new study, researchers have uncovered new insights into evolutionary adaptations by examining the unusual “walking” abilities of sea robins, bottom-dwelling fish that use leg-like appendages to navigate the ocean floor.
About Sea Robins:
Sea robins belong to a family of ray-finned fish called Triglids, which inhabit diverse habitats ranging from shallow salt marshes to deep oceans around the world.
They are found in warm and temperate seas of the world.
Most Triglidae fish are benthic specialists that spend much of their time on the ocean bottom, where they hunt in the sand for fish, crustaceans and other invertebrates.
To facilitate their benthic lifestyle, sea robins have evolved a number of bizarre traits, the most iconic of which are their six leg-like appendages.
They are elongated fish with armoured bony heads and two dorsal fins.
Sea Robins get their name from their large wing-like pectoral fins.
When excited or threatened, the Sea Robin will fan these fins out to look bigger and help it to blend in with the sandy bottom.
These fins open and close while the fish swims much like a bird in flight.
Some sea robins are scaly; the bodies of others are covered with bony plates.
They are usually brightly coloured, and some have ornately patterned pectoral fins.
They are also vocal and can produce audible sounds with their swim bladders and certain attached muscles.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/mysterious-fish-living-on-the-ocean-floor-has-legs-to-walk-2607344-2024-09-27
Consider the following statements regarding Marburg Virus Disease (MVD):
- It is a rare but severe hemorrhagic fever that affects both people and non-human primates.
- There is no treatment or vaccine for MVD.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Six people have died in Rwanda following an outbreak of the Marburg virus, the country’s health ministry said recently.
About Marburg Virus Disease:
MVD, earlier known as Marburg hemorrhagic fever, is a rare but severe hemorrhagic fever that affects both people and non-human primates.
Causative agent: MVD is caused by the Marburg virus, a genetically unique zoonotic (animal-borne) RNA virus. Marburg and Ebola viruses are both members of the Filoviridae family (filovirus).
The virus takes its name from the German city of Marburg, where it was first identified in 1967 in a lab where workers had been in contact with infected green monkeys imported from Uganda.
The reservoir host of the Marburg virus is the African fruit bat, Rousettus aegyptiacus.
Transmission: The virus can be transmitted from bats to primates, including humans, and then spread through direct contact with blood or other body fluids from infected individuals.
Symptoms:
Initial Marburg disease signs and symptoms include Fever, Chills, Headache, Muscle aches, Rash with both flat and raised bumps, often on the torso, Chest pain, Sore throat, Nausea, vomiting and diarrhea.
As the disease advances, symptoms can become more severe, including liver failure, delirium, shock, bleeding (hemorrhaging), and multi-organ dysfunction.
Fatality: The average MVD case fatality rate is around 50%. Case fatality rates have varied from 24% to 88% in past outbreaks depending on virus strain and case management.
Treatment:
There is no treatment or vaccine for Marburg disease.
Supportive therapy, such as intravenous fluids, electrolyte replacement, supplemental oxygen, as well as blood and blood products replacement, improves survival.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.firstpost.com/world/what-is-the-highly-infectious-marburg-viral-disease-that-killed-6-in-rwanda-13820219.html
Poumai Naga Tribe primarily resides in which one of the following states?
Manipur
Explanation :
The Poumai Naga tribe of Purul village in Manipur’s Senapati district has taken a significant step towards wildlife conservation by banning hunting, trapping, and killing of wild animals and birds within their territory.
About Poumai Naga Tribe:
The Poumai Naga tribe is an indigenous ethnic group primarily residing in the Senapati district of Manipur and parts of Nagaland.
About 95.7% of the total population of Poumai is in the Senapati district, Manipur.
It is one of the oldest and largest Naga tribes in Manipur.
The language that Poumai communicates is known as “POULA”.
Christianity is the dominant religion in the Poumai Community.
Their Pouli (Pottery) and Poutai (Pou salt) production was well known to the entire tribal areas in Manipur and Nagaland in ancient times.
The main occupation of Poumai Naga is agriculture, and shifting cultivation is hardly practiced now in Poumai villages.
Popular festivals:
Paonii, Donii, Laonii, Daonii, Rounii, Duhnii, Loukanii, Thounii, Khiinii, Taithounii, etc.
Laonii is one of the important festivals celebrated in Poumai villages after the rice transplantation.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://nenews.in/manipur/manipur-poumai-naga-tribe-bans-hunting-for-wildlife-conservation-enacts-strict-rules/14363/
With reference to ‘BRICS’ Grouping, consider the following:
- South Africa
- India
- Saudi Arabia
- United Arab Emirates
- Russia
- Iran
How many of the above countries are members of the ‘BRICS’ Grouping?
All six
Explanation :
The Indian External Affairs Minister recently met with his BRICS counterparts to affirm its role in a multipolar world.
About ‘BRICS’ Grouping:
BRICS is an acronym for Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa, a bloc of countries that formed a partnership following the creation of the term in 2001 by Goldman Sachs economist Jim O’Neill (but it didn’t include South Africa at the time).
South Africa joined in 2010, making it “BRICS”.
The group was designed to bring together the world’s most important developing countries to challenge the political and economic power of the wealthier nations of North America and Western Europe.
The BRICS countries operate as an organization that seeks to further economic cooperation among member nations and increase their economic and political standing in the world.
Saudi Arabia, Iran, Ethiopia, the United Arab Emirates and Egypt joined BRICS in 2024.
The expanded group has a combined population of about 3.5 billion, or 45% of the world’s inhabitants.
Combined, members’ economies are worth more than $28.5tn - about 28% of the global economy.
With Iran, Saudi Arabia and UAE as members, Brics countries produce about 44% of the world’s crude oil.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/brics-countries-recognize-groups-importance-for-multipolarity-jaishankar/article68687899.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Paryatan Mitra and Paryatan Didi Initiative:
- It was launched by the Union Ministry of Tourism.
- It emphasizes on the training of women and youth which enables them to develop new tourism products.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Ministry of Tourism has launched a national responsible tourism initiative titled Paryatan Mitra and Paryatan Didi.
The primary aim of this initiative is to elevate the overall experience for tourists in destinations, by having them meet ‘tourist-friendly’ people who are proud Ambassadors and Storytellers for their destination.
The vision of this initiative is to welcome one and all to experience incredible India through incredible Indians, thereby creating a more welcoming, hospitable, and memorable experience for tourists in India.
Paryatan Mitra and Paryatan Didi were piloted in six tourist destinations across India: Orchha (Madhya Pradesh), Gandikota (Andhra Pradesh), Bodh Gaya (Bihar), Aizawl (Mizoram), Jodhpur (Rajasthan), and Sri Vijaya Puram (Andaman & Nicobar Islands).
Features
Under this special emphasis is being placed on the training of women and youth to enable them to develop new tourism products & experiences like heritage walks, food tours, craft tours, nature treks, homestay experiences and other innovative tourism products based on the potential of the destination.
This training is driven by the ‘Athithi Devo Bhava’ philosophy i.e treating tourists as honored guests.
It is also envisioned that locals leverage these skills to obtain gainful employment going forward as homestay owners, food & cuisine experience providers, cultural guides, natural guides, adventure guides, and other roles in tourism.
Tourism-specific training is being followed by general training in digital literacy and digital tools to ensure that the experiences they create are discoverable and visible to tourists, nationally and globally.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/tourism-ministry-launches-paryatan-mitra-and-paryatan-didi-on-world-tourism-day/
Consider the following statements regarding the Thermobaric weapons:
- These can be launched as a rocket or dropped as a bomb from aircraft.
- These are banned under the Hague Conventions of 1899.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Russia’s use of thermobaric weapons in Ukraine has drawn significant attention due to their devastating effects, but the development and deployment of these powerful bombs are not limited to Russia.
These are often called “vacuum bombs” or “enhanced blast weapons”.
Working
It consists of a fuel container with two separate explosive charges.
This can be launched as a rocket or dropped as a bomb from aircraft. When it hits its target, the first explosive charge opens the container and widely scatters fuel mixture as a cloud.
This cloud can penetrate any building openings or defences that are not totally sealed.
A second charge then detonates the cloud, resulting in a huge fireball, a massive blast wave and a vacuum which sucks up all surrounding oxygen. The weapon can destroy reinforced buildings, equipment and kill or injure people.
Impacts: The shockwave produced by thermobaric bombs can destroy structures, while the blast’s pressure differential causes catastrophic damage to the human body, including rupturing organs and lungs.
There are no international laws specifically banning their use, but if a country uses them to target civilian populations in built-up areas, schools or hospitals, then it could be convicted of a war crime under the Hague Conventions of 1899 and 1907.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/defence-explainer-the-growing-use-of-thermobaric-weapons-3623496/
Consider the following statements regarding the Bharat 6G Alliance:
- It aims to achieve universal and affordable connectivity and deployment of 6G technologies in India.
- It consist of public and private companies, academia and research institutions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union telecom minister has initiated a meeting with the seven working groups of the Bharat 6G Alliance, signaling the future arrival of 6G in India.
It is a collaborative platform which aims to achieve universal and affordable connectivity, promote indigenous technology, and establish India as a global leader in the telecom sector.
This platform consist of public and private companies, academia, research institutions, and standards development organizations, aims to lead the development and deployment of 6G technology in India.
It will forge coalitions and synergies with other 6G Global Alliances, fostering international collaboration and knowledge exchange.
The Alliance will enable India to become a leading global supplier of IP, products and solutions of affordable 5G and 6G and other future telecom solutions,
Aim: To bring together Indian startups, companies, and the manufacturing ecosystem to establish consortia that drive the design, development and deployment of 6G technologies in India.
One of the key goals of B6GA is to facilitate market access for Indian telecom technology products and services, enabling the country to emerge as a global leader in 6G technology.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/telecom/telecom-news/6g-coming-soon-in-india-telecom-minister-scindia-meets-bharat-6g-alliances-working-groups/articleshow/113695404.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding Schizophrenia:
- It is a chronic, severe mental disorder which affects thinking ability of a person.
- It mainly affects old age people across the globe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has approved Bristol Myers Squibb’s new oral medicine, Cobenfy, for the treatment of schizophrenia in adults.
It is a chronic, severe mental disorder that affects the way a person thinks, acts, expresses emotions, perceives reality, and relates to others.
It mostly affects young adults in the productive age group.
One in every 100 people experiences schizophrenia and men are twice as likely to develop this condition as compared to women.
Symptoms of Schizophrenia:
It can differ from person to person, but they generally fall into three main categories: psychotic, negative, and cognitive.
Psychotic symptoms include Hallucinations, Delusions, thought disorder, Movement disorder.
Negative symptoms include loss of motivation, loss of interest or enjoyment in daily activities, withdrawal from social life, difficulty showing emotions, and difficulty functioning normally.
Cognitive symptoms include problems in attention, concentration, and memory.
Treatment:
Though there is no cure for schizophrenia, a variety of antipsychotic medications are effective in reducing the psychotic symptoms present in the acute phase of the illness.
Psychological treatments such as cognitive behavioral therapy or supportive psychotherapy may reduce symptoms and enhance function.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/new-drug-for-schizophrenia-has-experts-excited/article68693887.ece
Nanjangud rasabale banana, recently in news, is mainly cultivated in:
Karnataka
Explanation :
The famed Nanjangud rasabale banana variety, which had become scarce because of a fungal disease, has begun to thrive again.
It is a variety of banana grown in and around the area Mysore district and Chamarajanagar district of Karnataka.
It was awarded the Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2006 for its thick pulp and distinct taste and aroma.
The taste and pulp of this banana cannot be found in any other variety and anywhere else.
Soil required: Black clay alluvial saline soil has given unique aroma to this banana.
Fruits possess medicinal properties and are believed to cure neurological ailments.
Threats: The Panama Wilt disease, a fungal infection caused by the Fuserium Wilt pathogen has been the bane of rasabale farmers.
What is Geographical Indication (GI) tag?
It is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin.
Geographical Indications are part of the intellectual property rights that comes under the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property.
In India, Geographical Indications registration is administered by the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.
Geographical indications are typically used for agricultural products, foodstuffs, wine and spirit drinks, handicrafts, and industrial products.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/nanjangud-rasabale-a-tale-of-revival/article68680562.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Lake Michigan:
- It is the largest freshwater lake in the world.
- It lies wholly within the United States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Researchers recently surveyed the bottom of Lake Michigan after spotting strange circles on the lakebed in 2022, and new observations show the circles are craters.
About Lake Michigan:
It is the third largest of the five Great Lakes of North America and the only one lying wholly within the United States.
It is the fourth largest freshwater lake and the fifth largest lake in the world ranked by surface area.
The lake is 517 km long (north to south); it has a maximum width of 190 km.
Its drainage basin area is 118,095 square km.
Lake Michigan is connected directly to Lake Huron, into which it drains, through the broad Straits of Mackinac.
This hydrologic connection through the Straits keeps the water levels of the two lakes in equilibrium, causing them to behave in many ways as though they are one lake.
Water flows into Lake Michigan from several rivers in the its drainage basin, including the Fox-Wolf, the Grand, the St. Joseph, and the Kalamazoo rivers, among others.
The lake boasts a variety of natural habitats, including tallgrass prairies, wide savannas, and the world’s largest freshwater sand dunes.
It hosts a wealth of plant and animal species, many of which are rare or endangered (such as the Hine’s Emerald Dragonfly and the Dwarf Lake Iris).
Hence, only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.livescience.com/planet-earth/geology/scientists-confirm-there-are-40-huge-craters-at-the-bottom-of-lake-michigan
Peechi - Vazhani Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which state?
Kerala
Explanation :
A female elephant recently died due to apparent electrocution near a tribal colony close to the Peechi wildlife sanctuary in Kerala’s Thrissur district.
About Peechi - Vazhani Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is located in Thrissur District, Kerala.
Spread across 125 sq. km, the Peechi-Vazhani Wildlife Sanctuary was established in 1958.
It is situated in the catchment area of the Peechi and Vazhani Dams.
It is part of the Palapilli - Nelliampathy forests and forms the northern boundary of the Chimmini Wildlife Sanctuary.
Forest Types include tropical evergreen forests, tropical semievergreen forests, moist deciduous forests, etc.
The terrain is undulating, the altitude varies from 100 to 914 m, with the highest peak being Ponmudi.
There are more than 50 different kinds of orchids, innumerable rare medicinal plants, and trees of high commercial value like teak, rosewood, and so on.
The wildlife population includes over 25 types of mammals, including carnivores like the leopard, the tiger, and the fox, and herbivores like the elk, deer, barking deer, spotted deer, the gaur, and the elephant.
Hence, option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.republicworld.com/india/female-elephant-peechi-wildlife-sanctuary-dies-due-to-apparent-electrocution-in-kerala
Consider the following countries:
- Syria
- Iraq
3.Saudi Arabia
- Israel
How many of the above have borders with Jordan?
All four
Explanation :
Jordan becomes the first country in the world to eliminate leprosy, receiving official verification from the World Health Organisation (WHO).
About Jordan:
It is an Arab country of Southwest Asia, in the rocky desert of the northern Arabian Peninsula.
It is named for the Jordan River, which passes on its western border.
It occupies an area of around 91,880 sq. km.
Bordering Countries: It is bounded to the north by Syria, to the east by Iraq, to the southeast and south by Saudi Arabia, and to the west by Israel and the West Bank.
The capital and largest city in the country is Amman—named for the Ammonites, who made the city their capital in the 13th century BCE.
Jordan has 26 km of coastline on the Gulf of Aqaba (Red Sea) in the southwest, where Al-Aqabah, its only port, is located.
Jordan has three major physiographic regions (from east to west): the desert, the uplands east of the Jordan River, and the Jordan Valley (the northwest portion of the great East African Rift System).
The desert region is mostly within the Syrian Desert—an extension of the Arabian Desert—and occupies the eastern and southern parts of the country, comprising more than four-fifths of its territory.
The Jordan Valley region contains the Dead Sea.
Language: The official language is Arabic.
Currency: Jordanian dinar
Hence, option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/information/story/jordan-becomes-first-country-to-eliminate-leprosy-receives-who-verification-2603319-2024-09-20
Consider the following statements:
- It is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Shiva.
- It is located in the ancient city of Ujjain in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
- It is one of the twelve Jyotirlingas of Lord Shiva.
The above statements correctly describe which one of the following temples?
Mahakaleshwar Temple
Explanation :
Two people were killed when a boundary wall near the Mahakal Temple in Ujjain in Madhya Pradesh collapsed recently due to heavy rainfall.
About Mahakaleshwar Temple:
It is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Shiva.
It is located in the ancient city of Ujjain in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
The temple is situated on the banks of the holy river, Shipra.
It is one of the twelve Jyotirlingas of Lord Shiva.
The real establishment date/period of the temple cannot be ascertained, but the earliest references to the Mahakal are from the 6th century BC. The temple, in its present form, was reconstructed in 18th century AD.
It is also known as one of the seven ‘Mukti Sthal’ or sacred places of liberation in India.
Architecture:
It is a five-storied establishment. The main shrine is located underground.
The temple complex comes with a spacious courtyard that is adorned with finest sculptures that are believed to be influenced by Chalukya, Maratha, and Bhumija styles of structural design.
The foundation and platform are built of stones. Most of the upper structure rests on the strong and well-designed pillars and plasters.
It is complete with impressive lingam sculptures of Mahakaleshwar.
The images of Ganesh, Parvati, and Karttikeya are installed in the west, north, and east of the sanctum sanctorum.
The temple also houses a tank constructed in the sarvatobhadra style.
Hence, option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/odisha/2024/Sep/03/saoras-become-5th-particularly-vulnerable-tribal-group-to-get-habitat-rights-in-the-state
Consider the following statements regarding Chikungunya:
- It is a viral disease transmitted to humans through the bite of mosquitoes.
- There is currently no approved vaccine or specific treatment for chikungunya infections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The chikungunya outbreak in Pune and nearby regions has been traced to the Indian Ocean lineage of the virus, according to scientists at the National Institute of Virology (NIV).
About Chikungunya:
It is a viral disease transmitted to humans through the bites of mosquitoes infected with the chikungunya virus.
The word comes from the African Makonde language and means “bent over in pain.”
Transmission:
It is most commonly transmitted by mosquitoes, Aedes (Stegomyia) aegypti and Aedes (Stegomyia) albopictus, which can also transmit dengue and Zika viruses.
It is not spread from person to person.
It was first described during an outbreak in southern Tanzania in 1952 and has now been identified in nearly 40 countries in Asia, Africa, Europe and the Americas.
Symptoms:
Symptoms usually begin 4 to 8 days after a mosquito bite but can appear anywhere from 2 to 12 days.
The most common symptom is an abrupt onset of fever, often accompanied by joint pain.
Other symptoms include muscle pain, headache, nausea, fatigue, and rash.
Serious complications are uncommon, but atypical severe cases can cause long-term symptoms and even death, especially in older people.
Treatment:
There is currently no approved vaccine or specific treatment for chikungunya virus infections.
The goal of treatment for the infection is to relieve symptoms with rest, fluids and drugs.
Hence, both statements are correct.
News: https://www.cnbctv18.com/india/healthcare/chikungunya-outbreak-in-pune-linked-to-resurgence-of-2006-indian-ocean-strain-warn-niv-scientists-19483669.htm
Consider the following statements regarding the National Centre of Excellence (NCoE) for Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming, Comics and Extended Reality:
- It is set up under the Companies Act, 2013.
- It aims at creating a world class talent pool in India to cater to the Indian as well as global entertainment industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Cabinet recently approved the establishment of a National Centre of Excellence (NCoE) for Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming, Comics, and Extended Reality (AVGC-XR) in Mumbai.
It will be set up as a Section 8 Company under the Companies Act, 2013 in India.
The Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry and Confederation of Indian Industry represent the industry bodies as partners with the Government of India.
It aims at creating a world class talent pool in India to cater to the Indian as well as global entertainment industry.
It is provisionally named the Indian Institute for Immersive Creators (IIIC), this center aims to revolutionize the AVGC sector and foster innovation in immersive technologies.
It will be modeled after renowned institutions like the Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) and Indian Institutes of Management (IIMs).
Key objectives of the NCoE (IIIC):
Focusing of creating Indian IP
Leveraging our cultural heritage in new age
Create a multiplier effect in the industry
An industry led initiative, in partnership with state and academia
Integrated focus on education, skilling industry, development, innovation
Hub and spoke model of development to be followed
IIIC as the hub and several center’s as its spokes dedicated innovation and research fund to promote start-up ecosystem
Significance: This initiative is set to boost the economy while creating new job opportunities in the rapidly growing AVGC sector.
As a global hub for filmmaking, India’s advancements in technology and infrastructure will enable the production of high-quality content, positioning the country as a leader in technological innovation and creativity.
Hence, both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2060032
With reference to the Casuarina Tree, consider the following:
- It is planted in the Mediterranean region only.
- It has nitrogen fixing ability and a preferred choice for environmental planting programme.
- It is used for developing shelter-belts in coastal areas and wind-breaks for protecting agricultural crops.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only Two
Explanation :
Six years after the devastation caused by Cyclone Gaja, Vedaranyam taluk (Tamil Nadu), once known for its flourishing casuarina (savukku) plantations, is seeing a revival as farmers prepare for their first harvest in five years.
It is native to Australia and it was introduced in India around 19th centuary.
It is also known as kattadi and savukku.
There are four cultivated species of casuarinas viz. Casuarina equisetifolia, Casuarina glauca, Casuarina cunninghamaina and Casuarina junghuniana.
The nitrogen fixing ability and adaptability to grow in a wide range of soil and climatic conditions including moisture and nutrient limited sites makes Casuarina a preferred choice for commercial and environmental planting programme.
Distribution: Casuarinas are widely planted in the tropics, subtropics and Mediterranean countries because of their ready adaptability to a variety of environmental conditions and also for their rapid growth performance.
Climate: The trees is suited to a wide range of temperature from 10°C-33°C, from sea level upto 1500m and mean annual rainfall between 700 and 2000 mm.
Soil: The tree is best suited to light soils. This species tolerates calcareous and slightly saline soils, but it is grown poorly on heavy soils such as clays.
Uses
Apart from fuel, the wood is extensively used for papermaking and of late is a preferred choice for biomass-based power generation.
The straight cylindrical stems find use in rural house building and as scaffolds in construction sites.
It is the principal species for developing shelterbelts in coastal areas and windbreaks for protecting agricultural crops.
It also plays a key role in reclaiming mined areas and afforesting nutrient-poor sites.
Hence, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Tiruchirapalli/casuarina-farming-sees-resurgence-in-vedaranyam-six-years-after-cyclone-gaja/article68697696.ece
Canary Islands archipelogo, recently in news, is located in:
Atlantic Ocean
Explanation :
Rescue teams resumed searching for at least 48 migrants who went messing the day before when their boat overturned just as it was being rescued off Spain’s Canary Islands.
It is an archipelago located in the Atlantic Ocean.
It is about 1300 km South of mainland Spain and 115 km West of the African coast (Morocco).
The Canaries comprise the Spanish provinces of Las Palmas and Santa Cruz de Tenerife.
These Islands were formed by volcanic eruptions millions of years ago.
Climatic condition:
They have a subtropical climate. Temperatures are warm and show little seasonal variation.
It has rich volcanic soils and mild temperatures that support a wide variety of vegetation that generally follows a zonal arrangement based on elevation.
What is an archipelago?
It is a term used to describe a group or chain of islands that are closely scattered in a body of water, such as a sea, ocean, lake, or river.
Formation: These islands are typically formed through geological processes such as volcanic activity, tectonic movements, or the accumulation of sediment.
Hence, option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/search-resumes-for-48-missing-migrants-off-spanish-canaries/article68698248.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Bioethanol:
- It is an agricultural by-product which is obtained from the processing of sugar from sugarcane.
- It is used is an important industrial chemical as well as an additive to automotive gasoline.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the union Food and Public Distribution Minister said that India has become the World’s third largest Producer and Consumer of Ethanol.
Bioethanol is an agricultural by-product which is mainly obtained from the processing of sugar from sugarcane, but also from other sources such as rice husk or maize.
It appears as a clear colorless liquid with a characteristic vinous odor and pungent taste.
Since ethanol is produced from plants that harness the power of the sun, it is also considered as renewable fuel.
In India, it is mainly produced from sugarcane molasses by fermentation process.
Ethanol blending is the process of combining ethanol and petrol to use less fossil fuel while driving a vehicle.
To supplement ethanol supplies, the Government of India has permitted the procurement of ethanol produced from sources other than molasses, which is known as first generation ethanol or 1G.
Aside from molasses, bioethanol can be derived from rice straw, wheat straw, maize cobs, corn stover, bagasse, bamboo and woody biomass, which are known as second generation ethanol sources.
Applications: Ethanol is an important industrial chemical; it is used as a solvent, in the synthesis of other organic chemicals, and as an additive to automotive gasoline.
Hence, both statements are correct.
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/india-has-become-worlds-third-largest-producer-and-consumer-of-ethanol-minister-pralhad-joshi/
Garra zubzaensis and Psilorhynchus kosygini, recently in news, are:
Fish Species
Explanation :
Researchers have recently discovered two new fish species namely Garra zubzaensis and Psilorhynchus kosygini, of torrent minnows in the pristine rivers of Nagaland.
These are new species of torrent minnows.
A torrent minnow is a small freshwater fish belonging to the genus Psilorhynchus within the family Psilorhynchidae.
These fish are commonly found in fast-flowing streams, particularly in regions with strong currents such as rivers and mountain streams
Garra zubzaensis
It was found in the Zubza River, a tributary of the Brahmaputra River in Kohima district.
The river, with its mix of gravel, cobbles, and sand, provides an ideal habitat for this benthic species.
Habitat: These fish are specially adapted to live in fast-flowing, rocky streams, using their gular discs—sucker-like structures—to cling to surfaces and forage for food.
Psilorhynchus kosygini
It was discovered in the Tepuiki River, a tributary of the Barak River in Nagaland’s Peren district.
It belongs to a genus known primarily from South Asia and Southeast Asia.
Habitat: This species was found in the fast-flowing, shaded waters of the Tepuiki River, where it thrives in the river’s gravel and rocky substrate.
Hence, option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.eastmojo.com/news/2024/09/29/two-new-species-of-freshwater-fish-discovered-in-nagaland/
Consider the following statements about the Border Roads Organisation (BRO):
- The BRO operates under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
- BRO is responsible for constructing and maintaining road networks not only along India’s borders but also in neighboring countries like Bhutan, Nepal, and Myanmar.
- The primary role of BRO is to support India’s armed forces by ensuring connectivity in border areas, especially in mountainous terrains.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
While addressing a forum, External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar flagged that India has a “special China problem” which is over and above the world’s “general China problem”.
In this context, he said that the border and the state of relations with the country call for investments from China to be scrutinised.
The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) is under the Ministry of Defence in India. The BRO was previously funded by the Ministry of Surface Transport under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, but was moved to the Ministry of Defence in 2015 to improve border connectivity. So, statement 1 is not correct.
BRO is responsible for building and maintaining road networks not just along India’s borders but also in neighboring countries like Bhutan, Nepal, and Myanmar, primarily focusing on strategically important areas to enhance connectivity and security in these regions. So, statement 2 is correct.
The BRO’s primary mission is to develop and maintain infrastructure in border areas to support the armed forces and ensure strategic mobility. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- The Supreme Court of India is the highest court in the country, followed by the High Courts and District Courts at the subordinate level.
- Each state in India has its own High Court, and no High Court has jurisdiction over more than one state.
- The District Courts, primarily deal with civil and criminal cases and are presided over by district judges.
- Appeals from the decisions of the District Courts cannot be directly made to the Supreme Court in any case.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
PM Modi inaugurated the National Conference of District Judiciary at Bharat Mandapam in New Delhi. The two-day Conference is being organised by the Supreme Court of India. It will host five working sessions that will deliberate and discuss on the issues related to District Judiciary such as Infrastructure and Human Resources, Inclusive Courtrooms for all, Judicial Security and Judicial Wellness, Case Management and Judicial Training.
The Indian judiciary follows a three-tier system, with the Supreme Court at the top, followed by High Courts at the state level, and District Courts at the lower tier. So, statement 1 is correct.
Some High Courts, like the Guwahati High Court and Bombay High Court, have jurisdiction over more than one state. So, statement 2 is not correct.
District Courts are the primary courts of the district that handle civil and criminal cases and are presided over by district judges. So, statement 3 is correct.
Appeals from District Courts are generally made to the High Court, and not directly to the Supreme Court, except under specific circumstances like constitutional issues or direct orders under special leave petitions. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the function of Enforcement Directorate (ED):
- ED is responsible for enforcement of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA), and certain provisions under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002.
- ED has the power to attach the asset of the culprits found guilty of the violation of FEMA.
- It has also been empowered to undertake, search, seizure, arrest, prosecution action, and survey, etc. against the offences committed under PMLA.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court in Vijay Madanlal Choudhary v. Union of India (2022) upheld several provisions of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), affirming the broad powers of the Enforcement Directorate (ED) in investigating and arresting individuals accused of money laundering.
In this judgement, the apex court supported stringent bail conditions under the PMLA, reinforcing the Act’s robust framework to tackle money laundering.
However, despite this ruling, the Supreme Court has also made smaller interventions that have gradually moderated some of these stringent provisions. These interventions aim to balance the need for stringent anti-money laundering measures with the protection of individual rights, particularly concerning arrest and bail.
This reflects the Court’s ongoing efforts to ensure that the enforcement of the PMLA does not infringe on the fundamental rights of the accused.
Functions of ED
ED is responsible for enforcement of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA), and certain provisions under the PMLA. So, statement 1 is correct.
ED has the power to attach the asset of the culprits found guilty of the violation of FEMA. So, statement 2 is correct.
It has also been empowered to undertake, search, seizure, arrest, prosecution action, and survey, etc. against the offences committed under PMLA. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Rule 170 of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act deals with which of the following?
Controlling misleading advertisements of drugs and cosmetics
Explanation :
In the ongoing Supreme Court case against Patanjali Ayurved, Justices Hima Kohli and Sandeep Mehta criticized the AYUSH ministry for its July 1 notification. The notification directed state licensing authorities not to take any action under Rule 170 of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act.
Rule 170, introduced in 2018, aims to prevent misleading advertisements of AYUSH products.
Consider the following statements regarding semiconductors:
- A semiconductor’s conductivity lies between that of a conductor and an insulator.
- Silicon is the most widely used material in the manufacturing of semiconductors.
- Doping is a process used to improve the insulating properties of semiconductors.
- Semiconductors are critical components in electronic devices such as transistors and integrated circuits.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2, and 4 only
Explanation :
The union cabinet, chaired by PM Modi, has approved the proposal of Kaynes Semicon to set up a semiconductor unit in Gujarat.
The proposal was approved under the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM).
Semiconductors have electrical conductivity that is between that of a conductor (like copper) and an insulator (like glass). So, statement 1 is correct.
Silicon is the most commonly used material in semiconductors due to its ideal properties for electrical conductivity and its abundance. So, statement 2 is correct.
Doping is used to improve the conductivity of semiconductors, not their insulating properties. By adding impurities, the number of charge carriers increases, which enhances conductivity. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Semiconductors are essential components in electronic devices like transistors, diodes, and integrated circuits (ICs). So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements about Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI):
- Aadhaar in India is an example of DPI that provides a universal identification system.
- UPI (Unified Payments Interface) in India, as a component of DPI, enables seamless digital transactions between individuals and businesses.
- DPI systems are exclusively designed to be accessible to rural and underprivileged populations.
- DPI platforms are primarily developed by the private sector with no government involvement.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The Union Cabinet has approved the Rs 2,817-crore Digital Agriculture Mission for the creation of Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) in the farm sector.
Aadhaar in India is an example of Digital Public Infrastructure that provides a universal identification system. So, statement 1 is correct.
UPI (Unified Payments Interface) in India is a major component of DPI, facilitating seamless and low-cost digital transactions. So, statement 2 is correct.
DPI systems are designed to be accessible to all citizens, and a key focus is on bridging the digital divide for rural and underprivileged populations. So, statement 3 is not correct.
DPI platforms like Aadhaar and UPI are often developed in close collaboration with the government, with significant government involvement in setting up and regulating these systems. So, statement 4 is not correct.
A country is planning to adopt biotechnology solutions to address food security and environmental sustainability. Consider the following statements about the potential applications of biotechnology in such a scenario:
- Genetically Modified (GM) crops can be developed to resist pests, thus reducing the need for chemical pesticides and increasing agricultural productivity.
- Biotechnology can be used to produce biofuels, offering an alternative to fossil fuels and helping reduce carbon emissions.
- CRISPR technology allows for precise genetic modifications in crops and livestock, enhancing traits such as disease resistance and yield.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Centre recently introduced the BioE3 (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment, and Employment) policy, aimed at transforming industrial and manufacturing processes to be more sustainable and environmentally friendly.
While it appears to be a routine effort to boost the biotech sector, the policy focuses on using biotechnology to develop manufacturing methods that mimic natural biological processes. Experts describe it as a significant move toward the industrialization of biology, which could have a major impact on the economy.
Genetically Modified (GM) crops can indeed be engineered to resist pests, reducing the need for chemical pesticides and increasing productivity. So, statement 1 is correct.
Biotechnology is widely used to produce biofuels, such as ethanol from crops, which can reduce reliance on fossil fuels and lower carbon emissions. So, statement 2 is correct.
CRISPR technology allows precise editing of genes, making it possible to modify traits in crops and livestock for disease resistance and yield improvement. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Zero FIRs in the context of the Indian legal system:
- A Zero FIR can be filed at any police station, regardless of jurisdiction, for crimes that require immediate attention.
- It came up after the recommendation in the report of the Justice Verma Committee
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has directed Union Territories (UTs) to ensure that ‘zero FIRs’ recorded in local languages are accompanied by a translated copy of the same when forwarded to states with different languages.
This directive aims to preserve the legal value of FIRs. Complying, the UTs have started sending out the original zero FIRs along with their English translation.
A Zero FIR can be filed at any police station, regardless of jurisdiction, allowing victims to report crimes promptly. So, statement 1 is correct.
A zero FIR can be filed in any Police Station by the victim, irrespective of their residence or the place of occurrence of crime.
A police station that receives a complaint regarding an alleged offence committed in the jurisdiction of another police station, registers an FIR and then transfers it to the relevant police station for further investigation.
No regular FIR number is given and after receiving the Zero FIR, the revenant police station registers a fresh FIR and starts the investigation.
It came up after the recommendation in the report of the Justice Verma Committee set up after the 2012 Nirbhaya gang rape case to suggest amendments to the Criminal Law. So, statement 2 is correct.
The objective of a Zero FIR is to ensure the victim doesn’t have to run from pillar to post to get a police complaint registered. The provision is meant to provide speedy redressal to the victim so that timely action can be taken after the filing of the FIR.
Consider the following statements regarding Chandipura virus:
- It is primarily transmitted through the bite of infected sandflies.
- It is known to cause severe neurological diseases.
- The virus was first isolated in the 1960s in the Chandipura village of Maharashtra.
- There are currently no effective vaccines available for preventing its infection in humans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation :
The Gujarat Biotechnology Research Centre (GBRC) in Gandhinagar has successfully published the first fully mapped genome of the Chandipura Vesiculovirus (CHPV).
This virus is responsible for causing encephalitis or brain swelling, which accounted for a significant portion of cases during the outbreak in Gujarat in July-August.
Chandipura virus is primarily transmitted through the bite of infected sandflies. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Chandipura virus is known to cause neurological diseases, including encephalitis, particularly affecting children. So, statement 2 is correct.
The virus was first isolated in 1965, specifically in Chandipura village, Maharashtra; thus, it is named after this locality. So, statement 3 is correct.
Currently, there are no effective vaccines for preventing Chandipura virus infection, making public health measures essential during outbreaks. So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the geographical location of Brunei:
- It is located on the island of Borneo in Southeast Asia.
- It shares land borders with Malaysia and is located near the South China Sea.
- It is completely surrounded by the territory of Malaysia.
- The capital city of Brunei is located on the coast and is named Bandar Seri Begawan.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only three
Explanation :
India’s Prime Minister Narendra Modi visited Brunei Darussalam on an official two-day visit. This is the first-ever bilateral visit by an Indian Prime Minister to Brunei.
Brunei is located on the island of Borneo in Southeast Asia. So, statement 1 is correct.
It shares land borders with Malaysia and is indeed located near the South China Sea. So, statement 2 is correct.
Brunei is not completely surrounded by Malaysia; it has a coastline along the South China Sea. So, statement 3 is not correct.
The capital city of Brunei is located on the coast and is named Bandar Seri Begawan. So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements:
- Singapore is located at the southern tip of the Malay Peninsula, adjacent to the South China Sea.
- The Malacca Strait is a narrow stretch of water that separates the Malay Peninsula from the Indonesian island of Sumatra.
- Singapore is situated to the south of the Malacca Strait.
- The Malacca Strait connects the Andaman Sea and the South China Sea.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All Four
Explanation :
Singapore is located at the southern tip of the Malay Peninsula and is adjacent to the South China Sea. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Malacca Strait is a narrow stretch of water that separates the Malay Peninsula from the Indonesian island of Sumatra. So, statement 2 is correct.
Singapore is located to the south of the Malacca Strait. So, statement 3 is correct.
The Strait of Malacca connects the Andaman Sea (Indian Ocean) and the South China Sea (Pacific Ocean). So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding superconductors:
- These are materials that exhibit zero electrical resistance at extremely low temperatures.
- The phenomenon of superconductivity was first discovered in copper and gold.
- They are used in applications like MRI machines, particle accelerators, and maglev trains.
- They can be classified into two types: Type-I and Type-II.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 3, and 4 only
Explanation:
Superconductors are materials that exhibit zero electrical resistance at extremely low temperatures. So, statement 1 is correct.
The phenomenon of superconductivity was first discovered in mercury, not copper and gold. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Superconductors are used in advanced applications like MRI machines, particle accelerators, and maglev trains due to their ability to conduct electricity without resistance. So, statement 3 is correct.
Superconductors are indeed classified into Type-I and Type-II based on their magnetic properties and behavior under an external magnetic field. So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA):
- NTCA was established under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
- NTCA is responsible for the implementation of the Project Tiger.
- Prime Minister of India is the ex-officio chairman of NTCA.
- NTCA operates independently without any collaboration with local communities in tiger conservation efforts.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The NTCA was indeed established in 2006 under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change to enhance tiger conservation efforts. So, statement 1 is correct.
It was constituted under the provisions of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
The NTCA is responsible for implementing the Project Tiger scheme and works closely with state governments to promote tiger conservation. So, statement 2 is correct.
* The authority consists of:
the Minister in charge of the Ministry of Environment and Forests (as Chairperson),
the Minister of State in the Ministry of Environment and Forests (as Vice-Chairperson),
three members of Parliament, Secretary, Ministry of Environment and Forests and other members.
Hence, PM is not a member of NTCA. So, statement 3 is not correct.
The NTCA recognizes the importance of local communities in conservation efforts and does not operate independently of them. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Consider the following statements:
- Article 217 of Indian Constitution covers the appointment and conditions of a High Court Judge.
- A High Court judge holds office until they are 65 years old.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court ruled that a Chief Justice of a High Court does not have the authority to individually reconsider recommendations for a judge’s elevation. Instead, any reconsideration of such recommendations must be done collectively by the High Court Collegium.
Constitutional Provision to appoint judges of High Court
Article 217 of Indian Constitution covers the appointment and conditions of a High Court Judge. So, statement 1 is correct.
It says that every Judge of a High Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the State.
In the case of appointment of a Judge other than the Chief Justice, the Chief Justice of the High Court shall also be consulted.
The Chief Justice of the High Court is appointed as per the policy of having Chief Justices from outside.
Eligibility
A person shall not be qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court unless he is a citizen of India and—
has for at least ten years held a judicial office in the territory of India; or
has for at least ten years been an advocate of a High Court in any State specified in the First Schedule or of two or more such Courts in succession.
A High Court judge holds office until they are 62 years old. So, statement 2 is not correct.
An investor, is looking for a low-cost investment option that allows him to trade shares throughout the day. He also wants to diversify his portfolio across multiple asset classes, such as stocks, bonds, and commodities, without having to manage multiple individual investments. Which of the following financial instruments would best suit his requirements?
A.
Actively managed mutual fund
B.
Index mutual fund
C.
Exchange-Traded Fund (ETF)
D.
Fixed deposit
Exchange-Traded Fund (ETF)
Which of the following is not a function or feature of the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC)?
A. Facilitating regional integration and cooperation in economic, social, and political affairs among its member states B. Establishing a common currency among all its member states to enhance monetary stability C. Promoting coordination in areas such as education, culture, and environmental protection among member states D. Ensuring joint defense cooperation and security initiatives to safeguard the region from external threats
Establishing a common currency among all its member states to enhance monetary stability
Consider the following statements regarding the Enemy Property:
- It is property left behind by the people who migrated to enemy countries.
- These properties are managed by the Custodian of Enemy Property.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Indian government is set to auction a parcel of land in Uttar Pradesh that once belonged to the family of former Pakistan President Pervez Musharraf.
In this regard, the Union Home Ministry has posted a notice on the land.
About Enemy Property
Enemy property is property left behind by the people who migrated to enemy countries. So, statement 1 is correct.
Under The Enemy Property Act, properties belonging to individuals who migrated to enemy countries (such as Pakistan or China) after wars in 1947, 1965, and 1971 are seized by the Indian government.
The Act ruled that the heirs of people who migrated to Pakistan and China would not have any right to succession over the property left by their ancestors.
These properties are managed by the Custodian of Enemy Property and can be sold by the government as per legal provisions. So, statement 2 is correct.
A country is developing AI-driven autonomous weapon systems for its military. To comply with international norms and the principles of the Responsible Use of Artificial Intelligence in the Military Domain (REAIM), which of the following actions should the country prioritize?
A. Guaranteeing that ethical and legal standards, such as international humanitarian law, guide the design and deployment of the AI system B. Ensuring the system is fully autonomous with no human involvement in decision-making C. Deploying AI systems without testing to gain a competitive advantage in the arms race D. Focusing solely on improving the system's speed and efficiency in identifying and targeting threats
Guaranteeing that ethical and legal standards, such as international humanitarian law, guide the design and deployment of the AI system
Explanation :
As military use of artificial intelligence (AI) expands, efforts to regulate its application in warfare are also intensifying. Conflicts like those in Ukraine and Gaza are becoming testing grounds for AI in combat.
India, despite its active role in promoting the development and safe use of AI in the civilian sector, has been largely absent from the global discussion on restricting its military applications. As international frameworks for AI arms control begin to take shape, it is crucial for India to engage and influence these discussions rather than remain on the sidelines.
REAIM promotes ensuring that AI is used in compliance with ethical and legal standards, including international humanitarian law and human rights principles, to prevent misuse and unintended harm.
The Summit on Responsible Use of Artificial Intelligence in the Military Domain (REAIM) is part of a growing global effort to establish norms for AI’s military applications.
Consider the following statements regarding the Gramin Krishi Mausam Sewa (GKMS) scheme:
- GKMS scheme is an initiative of Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare.
- The primary goal is to enhance farmers’ decision-making related to agricultural activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
According to media reports, the India Meteorological Department (IMD) is planning to revive District Agro-Meteorology Units (DAMUs) under the Gramin Krishi Mausam Sewa (GKMS) scheme.
The IMD initially established 199 DAMUs in 2018 in collaboration with the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR). These units were created to utilize weather data for generating and distributing sub-district-level agricultural advisories to help farmers make informed decisions.
However, in March, the IMD ordered the shutdown of DAMUs. The revival plan is now aimed at reinstating these units to support agricultural activities using weather-based insights.
About Gramin Krishi Mausam Sewa (GKMS) scheme
The GKMS scheme is an initiative by the India Meteorological Department (IMD) aimed at providing weather-based agricultural advisories to farmers.
IMD is under the Ministry of Earth Sciences. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The primary goal is to enhance farmers’ decision-making related to agricultural activities, thus helping them mitigate risks due to adverse weather conditions and improve crop productivity. So, statement 2 is correct.
Which of the following best describes the geographical location of the United Arab Emirates (UAE)?
A.
It is located on the eastern coast of the Mediterranean Sea, bordered by Lebanon and Syria
B.
It is located in the Maghreb region of North Africa, bordered by Morocco and Algeria
C.
It is situated between the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden, bordered by Yemen and Djibouti
D.
It lies on the southeastern corner of the Arabian Peninsula, bordered by Oman and Saudi Arabia
It lies on the southeastern corner of the Arabian Peninsula, bordered by Oman and Saudi Arabia
Explanation :
The Crown Prince of Abu Dhabi, Sheikh Khaled bin Mohamed bin Zayed Al Nahyan, is on a two-day official visit to India. This is his first visit to India as the Crown Prince of Abu Dhabi.
The UAE is located in the southeastern corner of the Arabian Peninsula, bordering Oman to the east and Saudi Arabia to the south and west.
Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G):
- Ministry of Panchayati Raj is the nodal ministry for the implementation of the scheme.
- The scheme aims to provide Housing for All by 2022 in the rural areas.
- Awaas Soft and AwaasApp are used to monitor the programme implementation.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The Centre has relaxed the automatic exclusion criteria for the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G), allowing families with certain assets to avail of the rural housing scheme.
Rural development ministry is the nodal ministry for implementation of the mission. So, statement 1 is not correct.
PMAY-G has been devised in line with Government’s commitment to provide Housing for All by 2022 in the rural areas. So, statement 2 is correct.
In PMAY-G, programme implementation and monitoring are carried out through an end-to-end e-Governance model Using Awaas Soft and AwaasApp. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C):
- I4C operates under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
- One of the objectives of I4C is to provide a platform for citizens to report cybercrimes through an online portal.
- I4C focuses on capacity building for law enforcement agencies, including state and central police forces, by conducting training and workshops on cybercrime investigation.
- I4C serves as an international hub for sharing intelligence on cybercrime incidents between India and other countries.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation Amit Shah addressed the first Foundation Day program of the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) as the Chief Guest.
The I4C operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), not the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). So, statement 1 is not correct.
I4C provides a platform for citizens to report cybercrimes through its National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal. So, statement 2 is correct.
A key focus of I4C is building the capacity of law enforcement agencies by providing training and technical assistance for better handling of cybercrime investigations. So, statement 3 is correct.
While I4C may collaborate on international platforms, its primary mandate is domestic, focusing on coordinating cybercrime-related activities within India. It does not serve as an international hub for intelligence sharing. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Ayushman Bharat health insurance for senior citizens:
- Those benefiting from other public health insurance schemes like CGHS, ECHS can either continue with their current schemes or opt for AB PM-JAY.
- All members in a family will get an additional cover of up to Rs 5 lakh per year for each of them.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Ayushman Bharat health insurance for senior citizens
The Union Cabinet has expanded the AB PM-JAY to provide health coverage to people aged 70 years and above, regardless of their income level, public healthcare.
Currently, the scheme is income-based and provides Rs 5 lakh shared annual coverage to all members of eligible families, irrespective of their age.
In its current form, the scheme is estimated to comprise the bottom 40 per cent of the population economically.
Extension of the scheme
Those benefiting from other public health insurance schemes like CGHS, ECHS, or Ayushman CAPF can either continue with their current schemes or opt for AB PM-JAY. So, statement 1 is correct.
Coverage under new plan
Senior citizens aged 70 and above, and belonging to families already covered under AB PM-JAY, will get an additional (shared) top-up cover up to Rs 5 lakh per year for themselves. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Shared top-up coverage - If there are two senior citizens (70 years+) in a family, then the Rs 5 lakh coverage will be shared between them.
Additionally, senior citizens under private health insurance policies or the Employees’ State Insurance Scheme will also be eligible to avail the benefits of AB PM-JAY.
An industrialist is setting up a factory in a rural area of India. While planning his project, he ensures that the factory uses eco-friendly advanced technology to minimize pollution and commits to investing in local community development. He also conducts regular awareness programs to educate his employees about the importance of abiding by the Constitution, and promoting harmony. Which of the following combinations of fundamental duties is the industrialist fulfilling through his actions?
A.
Protecting the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India; respecting the Constitution and its ideals
B.
Protecting the environment; developing scientific temper; promoting harmony.
C.
Safeguarding public property; defending the country when called upon; protecting monuments of historical importance
D.
Respecting the national flag; striving towards excellence in all spheres; protecting the weaker sections of society
Protecting the environment; developing scientific temper; promoting harmony.
Explanation :
The industrialist is promoting environmental protection (by using eco-friendly technology), fostering scientific temper (by adopting advanced technology), and encouraging harmony and brotherhood (through awareness programs), all of which are fundamental duties.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the role and functions of the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)?
A.
ICAO is a specialized agency of the United Nations that sets global standards and regulations for aviation safety, security, efficiency, and environmental protection
B.
ICAO is a principal organ of the United Nations responsible for managing international air traffic control and operates airports globally to ensure the smooth functioning of air travel
C.
ICAO operates under the International Air Transport Association (IATA) and primarily focuses on regulating commercial airlines’ fares and routes
D.
ICAO directly manages airlines’ safety inspections and monitors the financial health of aviation companies worldwide
ICAO is a specialized agency of the United Nations that sets global standards and regulations for aviation safety, security, efficiency, and environmental protection
Explanation :
The 2nd Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Civil Aviation concluded with the adoption of Delhi Declaration. Delhi Declaration is a comprehensive framework aimed at enhancing regional cooperation, addressing emerging challenges, and fostering sustainable growth within the civil aviation sector.
The 2-day conference was organised by Ministry of Civil Aviation in collaboration with the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO).
ICAO is a specialized agency of the United Nations that establishes international standards and regulations to ensure the safety, security, and efficiency of global civil aviation, as well as addressing environmental concerns.
ICAO does not manage air traffic control or operate airports; these functions are handled by national or regional authorities.
The International Air Transport Association (IATA) deals with airline-related issues like fare regulation, while ICAO focuses on the overall regulatory framework for aviation.
ICAO does not monitor the financial health of airlines but focuses on setting safety and operational standards for civil aviation.
Consider the following statements with respect to National Statistical Office (NSO):
- It works under the administrative control of Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
- NSO consists of the Central Statistical Office (CSO) and the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Union Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation has dissolved the 14-member Standing Committee on Statistics (SCoS), led by economist Pronab Sen.
The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation has two wings, one relating to Statistics and the other Programme Implementation.
The Statistics Wing is called the National Statistical Office (NSO). So, statement 1 is correct.
NSO consists of the Central Statistical Office (CSO), the Computer centre and the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO). So, statement 2 is correct.
A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
Explanation :
The Centre has decided to rename Port Blair as Sri Vijaya Puram. This move is aimed at shedding the colonial legacy associated with the former and to recognise Andaman and Nicobar Islands’ contribution to the Indian freedom struggle.
The decision to give an Indian name to the Andaman and Nicobar capital follows nearly six years after the Centre, in a move to honour Netaji Bose, renamed three islands of the Union territory.
While Ross Island was rechristened as Subhash Chandra Bose Dweep (island), Neil Island was renamed Shaheed Dweep and Havelock Island as Swaraj Dweep.
Consider the following statements regarding the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI):
- It is a non-constitutional, non-statutory body.
- It works under the administrative control of the PMO.
- It derives its power from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court has granted bail to Delhi CM Arvind Kejriwal in connection with the CBI’s complaint in the Delhi excise policy case. However, the apex court placed certain conditions.
CBI is a non-constitutional, non-statutory body. So, statement 1 is correct.
CBI functions under the control of Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), Ministry of Personnel, Pension & Public Grievances. So, statement 2 is not correct.
CBI derives its power from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act. So, statement 3 is correct.
A new investor is looking to diversify his portfolio and wants to invest in the Indian stock market. Which of the following benefits of investing through the National Stock Exchange of India (NSE) should the investor consider to make an informed decision?
A.
The NSE allows for trading in a wide variety of financial instruments, including equities, derivatives, and exchange-traded funds (ETFs), providing a diverse range of investment options.
B.
The NSE is a non-profit organization and guarantees returns on all investments made through its platform, ensuring that investors will never incur losses.
C.
The NSE operates only during regular banking hours, which limits investment opportunities for investors who work during the day.
D.
The NSE has an electronic trading system that is prone to cyber-attacks.
The NSE allows for trading in a wide variety of financial instruments, including equities, derivatives, and exchange-traded funds (ETFs), providing a diverse range of investment options.
Explanation :
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has dropped charges against the National Stock Exchange (NSE) and seven of its former top officials, five years after penalizing them for lapses in high-frequency trading through NSE’s co-location (colo) facility.
The NSE offers a variety of financial instruments, allowing investors to diversify their portfolios effectively.
The NSE does not guarantee returns; it operates as a marketplace where returns depend on market performance and individual investment choices.
The NSE operates from 9:15 AM to 3:30 PM on trading days, but it is not restricted to banking hours, as trading can also be done online.
The NSE’s electronic trading system enhances liquidity and transparency, making it a favorable platform for investors.
Which of the following statements about glaciers is correct?
A. They are found only in polar regions and do not exist in tropical or temperate zones. B. They are slow-moving masses of ice that form through the accumulation and compaction of snow over time. C. The movement of glaciers does not cause any significant changes in the landscape or contribute to landform creation. D. Glaciers are formed only on land and never extend into bodies of water like seas or oceans.
They are slow-moving masses of ice that form through the accumulation and compaction of snow over time.
Explanation :
Glaciers are found in a variety of regions, including polar, temperate, and even some tropical mountain ranges (e.g., the Andes and the Himalayas).
Glaciers are large, slow-moving masses of ice that form through the accumulation, compaction, and recrystallization of snow over long periods of time.
Glaciers significantly alter the landscape through processes like erosion, transportation, and deposition, contributing to the creation of landforms such as valleys, fjords, and moraines.
Some glaciers, like tidewater glaciers, do extend into bodies of water, often breaking off to form icebergs.
Consider the following statements:
- The concept of “One Nation, One Election” envisions a system in which all state and Lok Sabha elections must be held simultaneously.
- At present, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Arunachal Pradesh, and Sikkim hold simultaneous elections coinciding with Lok Sabha Election.
- Article 83, Article 172 of Indian constitution deals with the term of Lok Sabha and State Assemblies respectively.
- Articles 85 and 174 deal with the dissolution of Lok Sabha and State Assemblies respectively ahead of the scheduled expiry of the term of five years.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All four
Explanation :
The concept of “One Nation, One Election” envisions a system in which all state and Lok Sabha elections must be held simultaneously. So, statement 1 is correct.
After the two pre-mature dissolutions of the Lok Sabha in 1998 and 1999, only four State Assemblies have been going to polls along with the Lok Sabha elections in the last two decades.
At present, only Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Arunachal Pradesh, and Sikkim hold simultaneous elections. So, statement 2 is correct.
Clause (2) of Article 83, Article 172(1) of Indian constitution deals with the term of Lok Sabha and State Assemblies respectively. So, statement 3 is correct.
These Houses can be dissolved ahead of the scheduled expiry of the term of five years [Articles 85(2)(b) and 174(2)(b)]. So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Precision Farming:
- It relies heavily on GPS technology to collect data about the farm’s soil conditions, moisture levels, and crop health.
- It involves the use of variable rate technology (VRT), which adjusts the amount of fertilizers and pesticides applied in different parts of a field.
- It eliminates the need for human intervention in the agricultural process.
- Remote sensing is one of the key technologies used in precision farming for monitoring crop growth and detecting diseases.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
1, 2, and 4 only
With reference to the pager, consider the following statements:
- A pager is a wireless device that receives short messages, often in the form of numeric or text-based alerts.
- Pagers typically rely on cellular networks to send and receive messages.
- Pagers have longer battery life and are more reliable than smartphones in certain critical environments, like hospitals.
- Modern pagers often come with two-way communication capabilities, allowing users to send as well as receive messages.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only three
Explanation :
In Lebanon, thousands were injured after pagers used by Hezbollah, a militant group, exploded almost simultaneously across the country.
Pagers are wireless devices designed to receive short messages, especially in the form of numeric or text alerts. So, statement 1 is correct.
Pagers typically operate using radio frequency technology rather than relying on cellular networks. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Pagers are known for their long battery life and are considered more reliable in critical environments like hospitals, where communication must remain uninterrupted. So, statement 3 is correct.
Modern pagers can have two-way communication capabilities, allowing users to both send and receive messages, though traditional pagers were one-way devices. So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following Indian states:
- Assam
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Nagaland
- Manipur
- Mizoram
- Tripura
Which of the above Indian states share boundary with Myanmar?
2, 3, 4 and 5 only
Explanation :
Four North-Eastern States viz. Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur and Mizoram share international boundary with Myanmar.
With reference to the Indus River System, consider the following statements:
- The Indus River originates from Lake Mansarovar in Tibet and flows through India and Pakistan.
- The Sutlej River, a tributary of the Indus, originates from the Rakshastal Lake near Mount Kailash in Tibet.
- The Indus Water Treaty, signed in 1960, grants India exclusive rights over the western rivers of the Indus system.
- The Jhelum and Chenab are the eastern tributaries of the Indus River.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
India has sent a new formal notice to Pakistan seeking the “review and modification” of the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT), following a similar request in January 2023.
The Indus River originates from the Tibetan plateau near Lake Mansarovar and flows through India and Pakistan. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Sutlej River, one of the tributaries of the Indus, originates from Lake Rakshastal near Mount Kailash in Tibet. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Indus Water Treaty of 1960 grants Pakistan control over the western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab), while India has control over the eastern rivers (Ravi, Beas, Sutlej). So, statement 3 is not correct.
The eastern tributaries of the Indus are the Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej, not Jhelum and Chenab. So, statement 4 is not correct.
With reference to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF), consider the following statements:
- FATF is an intergovernmental body established in 1989 with the aim of combating money laundering, terrorist financing, and other related threats to the global financial system.
- The FATF maintains two types of lists: the “blacklist” and the “grey list,” where countries on the grey list face most severe international sanctions.
- India is a full member of the FATF and has been actively participating in its initiatives.
- FATF issues binding resolutions that all member countries must implement.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
The FATF was established in 1989 to combat money laundering and later expanded its mandate to include terrorist financing and other threats to the global financial system. So, statement 1 is correct.
The FATF maintains two lists: the “blacklist,” which includes countries that face severe sanctions, and the “grey list,” which includes countries that are under increased monitoring but do not face immediate sanctions. So, statement 2 is not correct.
India is a full member of the FATF and actively participates in its activities. So, statement 3 is correct.
The FATF issues recommendations, not binding resolutions, for member countries to implement. Non-compliance can lead to being blacklisted, but the recommendations are not legally binding. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Consider the following sources of revenue of a telecom company:
- Revenue from deposit interests
- Revenue from sale of assets
- Revenue from core telecom services
Which of the above source(s) of revenue will be included by the Department of Telecom in calculating of the Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR)?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Recently, the Supreme Court of India dismissed curative petitions filed by major telecom companies, including Vodafone Idea and Bharti Airtel, regarding their Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR) dues.
These companies sought a review of the Court’s October 2019 judgment (Vodafone Idea Limited v. Union of India), which held them liable to pay AGR dues.
As per Dept of Telecom, the revenue calculations should incorporate all revenues earned by a telecom company. This also includes revenues from non-telecom sources such as deposit interests and sale of assets.
In October 2019, the Supreme Court widened the definition of AGR to include the government’s view. The court ordered to include all revenues, except for termination fee and roaming charges, as a part of the AGR.
With reference to the Collegium System in India, consider the following statements:
- The Collegium System is responsible for the appointment and transfer of judges in the Supreme Court and High Courts of India.
- The Collegium System was established through an Act of Parliament to ensure the independence of the judiciary.
- The Chief Justice of India (CJI) and a forum of the two senior-most judges of the Supreme Court form the Collegium for recommending appointments to the Supreme Court.
- The Collegium’s recommendations can be returned for reconsideration by the government, but if reiterated by the Collegium, the government is bound to accept them.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Supreme Court, led by Chief Justice D.Y. Chandrachud, asked the government to provide a detailed report on the status of judicial appointments that had been reiterated by the Collegium but not yet cleared by the government.
The Collegium System is indeed responsible for the appointment and transfer of judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts in India. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Collegium System was established through a series of Supreme Court judgments (the “Three Judges Cases”), not by an Act of Parliament. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Collegium for recommending appointments to the Supreme Court consists of the Chief Justice of India (CJI) and the four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court. So, statement 3 is not correct.
The government can return the Collegium’s recommendation for reconsideration, but if the Collegium reiterates its recommendation, the government is obligated to accept it. So, statement 4 is correct.
With reference to the White Revolution in India, consider the following statements:
- The White Revolution, also known as Operation Flood, was initiated by the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) in the 1970s to make India self-sufficient in milk production.
- Dr. Verghese Kurien is regarded as the architect of the White Revolution in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Operation Flood, launched in 1970, ushered in the White Revolution and transformed the dairy sector in India. In order to give further boost to this sector, the government has announced plans for “White Revolution 2.0”.
The White Revolution, also known as Operation Flood, was initiated by the NDDB in the 1970s to boost milk production and create a national milk grid, thereby making India self-sufficient in milk. So, statement 1 is correct.
Dr. Verghese Kurien, known as the “Father of the White Revolution,” played a key role in its success. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding QUAD:
- It is a grouping of four democracies –India, Australia, US and Japan.
- The aim of this grouping is to ensure a free and open international order based on the rule of law in the Indo- Pacific.
- The first in-person meeting of Quad leaders was hosted by the US in 2021.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
PM Modi participated in the sixth Quad Leaders’ Summit in Wilmington (USA). This year’s summit was hosted by US.
The grouping of four democracies –India, Australia, US and Japan– is known as the quadrilateral security dialogue or quad. So, statement 1 is correct.
The aim of this grouping is to ensure a free and open international order based on the rule of law in the Indo- Pacific. So, statement 2 is correct.
Quad as a formal group was first mooted by Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe in 2007.
However, due to Chinese resistance and reluctance shown by India, it could not move ahead.
In March 2021, the first-ever summit of QUAD leaders took place virtually.
It was participated by the PMs/Presidents of all the member countries. The summit was hosted by US.
Later, in September 2021, the first in-person meeting of Quad leaders was hosted by the US. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF):
- IPEF aims to strengthen economic engagement among the member countries to advance growth, peace and prosperity in the Indo-Pacific region.
- India has joined all the four pillars of the IPEF.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation:
India has signed the US-led 14-member Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) bloc’s agreements on a clean and fair economy.
The agreements were signed during PM Modi’s visit to the US.
About IPEF
IPEF aims to strengthen economic engagement among the member countries to advance growth, peace and prosperity in the region. So, statement 1 is correct.
According to an insight paper on IPEF put out by the US Congressional Research Service, the IPEF is not a traditional trade agreement.
Rather, it would include different modules (four pillars) covering various aspects.
Four Pillars of IPEF
Pillar I - fair and resilient trade,
Pillar II - supply chain resilience,
Pillar III – infrastructure, clean energy and decarbonization, and
Pillar IV - tax and anticorruption.
Countries would have to sign up to all of the components within a module (pillar), but do not have to participate in all modules.
India and IPEF
In September 2022, India joined three pillars of the IPEF. These are the supply chain, decarbonisation and infrastructure, and tax and anti-corruption pillars of the IPEF. So, statement 2 is not correct.
However, it had decided to remain out of the trade pillar.
The Strategic Clean Energy Partnership (SCEP) between India and the United States focuses on cooperation in which of the following areas?
A. Only solar energy development B. Nuclear energy cooperation and space exploration C. Renewable energy, energy efficiency, and innovation in clean energy technologies D. Shale gas exploration in the Arctic region
Renewable energy, energy efficiency, and innovation in clean energy technologies
Explanation :
The Strategic Clean Energy Partnership (SCEP) between India and the United States aims to enhance collaboration in areas such as renewable energy (including solar, wind, and hydropower), energy efficiency, low carbon technologies, and innovation in clean energy solutions.
Under the SCEP, the United States and India agreed to collaborate across five pillars: (1) Power and Energy Efficiency; (2) Renewable Energy; (3) Responsible Oil and Gas; (4) Sustainable Growth; and (5) Emerging Fuels.
It also focuses on advancing energy security, scaling clean energy technologies, and addressing climate change challenges.
Nuclear energy is a separate area of cooperation but not the focus of the SCEP.
Shale gas exploration in the Arctic is unrelated to this partnership.
Consider the following statements regarding Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
- SEBI has quasi-judicial powers and its rulings are not subjected to appeal.
- Unit linked insurance products (ULIP) are regulated by SEBI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
SEBI has the authority to deliver judgements related to fraud and other unethical practices in terms of the securities market. Hence, it is a quasi-judicial body. However, its rulings are subject to appeal. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Although, SEBI regulates mutual funds, unit linked insurance products (ULIP) are regulated by Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA). So, statement 2 is not correct.
With reference to the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA), which of the following statements is correct?
A.
The UNGA has the power to enforce binding resolutions on all member states.
B.
Each member state of the UN has one vote in the UNGA, regardless of size or population.
C.
The President of the UNGA is appointed by the UN Security Council for a two-year term.
D.
Only permanent members of the UN Security Council can propose resolutions in the UNGA.
Each member state of the UN has one vote in the UNGA, regardless of size or population.
Explanation :
PM Modi addressed the ‘Summit of the Future’ at the United Nations General Assembly in New York. The theme of the Summit is ‘Multilateral Solutions for a Better Tomorrow’.
Each member state of the United Nations, regardless of its size or population, has one vote in the UN General Assembly, which ensures equal representation.
The UNGA can adopt resolutions, but these are generally non-binding recommendations and do not have the force of law.
The President of the UNGA is elected annually by the Assembly, not appointed by the Security Council.
All member states of the UN can propose resolutions in the UNGA, not just permanent members of the Security Council.
With reference to the geographical location of Palestine, which of the following statements is correct?
A.
Palestine is bordered by Egypt to the west and Jordan to the south.
B.
The Gaza Strip and the West Bank are the two primary regions that constitute Palestine.
C.
Palestine is a landlocked country surrounded by Lebanon, Jordan and Egypt
D.
Palestine shares a border with Iraq to the east.
The Gaza Strip and the West Bank are the two primary regions that constitute Palestine.
Explanation :
PM Modi met the President of Palestine, Mahmoud Abbas, on the sidelines of the Summit of the Future in New York.
Palestine is composed mainly of two territories: the Gaza Strip along the Mediterranean coast and the West Bank, located west of the Jordan River.
With reference to the planet Venus, consider the following statements:
- It is the second planet from the Sun and is similar in size and composition to Earth, which is why it is often called Earth’s twin.
- Unlike most planets in the Solar System, Venus rotates on its axis from east to west, a phenomenon known as retrograde rotation.
- It has a thick atmosphere composed mostly of nitrogen and oxygen, making it the most hospitable planet for human life after Earth.
- It has the hottest surface temperature of any planet in the Solar System, primarily due to its dense carbon dioxide atmosphere and runaway greenhouse effect.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
1, 2, and 4 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Cabinet had approved India’s first mission to Venus, which ISRO plans to launch in March 2028. This will be India’s second interplanetary mission, following the 2013 Mars Orbiter Mission.
Venus is the second planet from the Sun and is often called Earth’s twin because of its similar size and rocky composition. So, statement 1 is correct.
Venus rotates on its axis in the opposite direction (retrograde rotation), meaning the Sun rises in the west and sets in the east. So, statement 2 is correct.
Venus’s atmosphere is composed of 96.5% carbon dioxide and 3.5% nitrogen, with other chemical compounds present only in trace amounts. It is much denser and hotter than that of Earth. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Venus has the hottest surface temperature in the Solar System due to its dense carbon dioxide atmosphere, which traps heat through a runaway greenhouse effect. So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the difference between insurgency and Naxalism:
- Insurgency refers to an armed rebellion or uprising against a recognized government or authority, often driven by political, religious, or ethnic motivations.
- Naxalism is a specific form of insurgency in India that began as a peasant revolt in Naxalbari, West Bengal, and is ideologically inspired by Maoist communism.
- Insurgencies are limited to rural areas, while Naxalism operates exclusively in urban areas.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Tripura Chief Minister has declared the state as “insurgency-free” after 584 militants had laid down their weapons before him at a surrender ceremony.
Insurgency is a general term for armed rebellion against a state or authority, driven by a variety of motivations, such as political or religious reasons. So, statement 1 is correct.
Naxalism is a form of insurgency in India inspired by Maoist ideology, emerging from the Naxalbari movement in 1967. So, statement 2 is correct.
Insurgencies are not confined to rural areas; they can also occur in urban regions, as can Naxalism, which operates in both rural and some urban areas. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Clause 6 of the Assam Accord:
- It promises to provide Constitutional, legislative, and administrative safeguards to protect, preserve, and promote the cultural, social, linguistic identity, and heritage of the Assamese people.
- It stipulates the deportation of all immigrants who entered Assam after 1951.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
After a meeting with the All Assam Students’ Union (AASU), Assam Chief Minister initiated the process to implement 52 recommendations from the Justice Biplab Sarma Committee concerning Clause 6 of the Assam Accord.
Clause 6 of the Assam Accord promises to provide Constitutional, legislative, and administrative safeguards to protect, preserve, and promote the cultural, social, linguistic identity, and heritage of the Assamese people. So, statement 1 is correct.
These safeguards aim to address concerns regarding the state’s demographic and cultural integrity amidst the influx of migrants.
Clause 6 does not specifically mention the deportation of immigrants from 1951.
The cut-off date for detection and deportation of illegal immigrants was set as March 24, 1971. However, the demand was for detection and deportation of migrants who had illegally entered Assam after 1951. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements:
- Critical minerals are essential for economic development and national security.
- The Government of India has released a list of 20 critical minerals for India.
- India is not a member of the Mineral Security Partnership (MSP).
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
India has formally joined the Minerals Security Finance Network (MSFN), a US-led initiative focused on enhancing cooperation among members to secure supply chains for critical minerals. The announcement, made by the US State Department on the sidelines of the UN General Assembly, involves a pact signed by 14 countries and the European Union.
The MSFN is an extension of the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP), launched by the US in 2022. India had already joined the MSP in June 2023.
A mineral is critical when the risk of supply shortage and associated impact on the economy is (relatively) higher than other raw materials.
These minerals are essential for economic development and national security, and their lack of availability/ the concentration of extraction/ processing in a few geographical locations could potentially lead to supply chain vulnerabilities. So, statement 1 is correct.
In July 2023, India released a list of 30 critical minerals. So, statement 2 is not correct.
India has recently been inducted into MSP. So, statement 3 is not correct.
MSP is a US-led collaboration of 14 countries that aims to catalyse public and private investment in critical mineral supply chains globally.
With reference to the Power of Remission in India, consider the following statements:
- The power of remission allows the government to reduce the duration of a convict’s sentence without changing the nature of the sentence.
- Both the President of India and the Governor of a state have the constitutional authority to grant remission under Article 72 and Article 161, respectively.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Supreme Court rejected the Gujarat government’s plea to review its January 8 verdict, which had canceled the remission granted to 11 men convicted of raping Bilkis Bano and killing seven of her family members during the 2002 Gujarat riots.
The Gujarat government contested certain “adverse” observations made by the court in the January verdict, arguing that such remarks should not have been made against the state. However, the court found no merit in the review plea and dismissed it.
The power of remission allows the government to reduce the duration of a convict’s sentence without altering the original nature of the punishment. So, statement 1 is correct.
The President of India (under Article 72) and the Governor of a state (under Article 161) have the authority to grant remission. So, statement 2 is correct.
With reference to the East China Sea and the South China Sea, consider the following statements:
- The East China Sea is located to the east of China and borders Japan, South Korea, and Taiwan.
- The South China Sea is a crucial maritime route, connecting the Indian Ocean to the Pacific Ocean, and is rich in natural resources such as oil and gas.
- The South China Sea dispute primarily involves territorial claims by China, Vietnam, the Philippines, Malaysia, and Brunei over the Paracel and Spratly Islands.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
1, 2, and 3
With reference to the Air Quality Index (AQI), consider the following statements:
- The AQI is a numerical scale used to measure and report the quality of air in a specific location, with higher values indicating better air quality.
- The AQI typically measures pollutants like particulate matter (PM2.5 and PM10), nitrogen dioxide (NO₂), sulfur dioxide (SO₂), carbon monoxide (CO), and ozone (O₃).
- In the AQI system used in India, air quality is categorized into six levels ranging from “Good” to “Severe” based on the concentration of pollutants.
- An AQI value between 0-50 represents air quality that is considered hazardous for sensitive groups.
Which of the above statements are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
On September 25, Delhi’s air quality dropped into the ‘poor’ category (AQI 200-300) for the first time since mid-June, marking the start of North India’s bad air season.
The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM), responsible for implementing the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) in the NCR, is closely monitoring the situation.
The Air Quality Index (AQI) measures air quality on a scale where higher values indicate poorer air quality. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The AQI tracks several key pollutants such as PM2.5, PM10, NO₂, SO₂, CO, O₃,NH3, Pb. So, statement 2 is correct.
The AQI system in India classifies air quality into six categories: Good, Satisfactory, Moderately Polluted, Poor, Very Poor, and Severe. So, statement 3 is correct.
An AQI value between 0-50 represents “Good” air quality, not hazardous, with minimal risk to health. So, statement 4 is not correct.
With reference to the Make in India initiative, consider the following statements:
- The Make in India initiative was launched to encourage domestic and foreign companies to manufacture products in India and boost the country’s manufacturing sector.
- The Make in India initiative aims to increase the manufacturing sector’s contribution to India’s GDP to 50% by 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Make in India initiative was launched in 2014 to encourage both domestic and foreign companies to manufacture in India, aiming to boost the country’s manufacturing sector. So, statement 1 is correct.
The target of increasing the manufacturing sector’s contribution to India’s GDP is 25%, not 50%, by 2025. So, statement 2 is not correct.
With reference to the rice varieties Pusa-2090 and Pusa-44, consider the following statements:
- Pusa-2090 is a newly developed rice variety known for its short duration and almost equal yield compared to traditional varieties like Pusa-44.
- Both Pusa-2090 and Pusa-44 are basmati rice varieties primarily grown for export purposes.
- Pusa-2090 is considered more environmentally sustainable compared to Pusa-44.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation:
In order to tackle the issue of farm fires in Punjab and Haryana, govt is looking for different varieties of rice.
Pusa-2090 yields nearly as much as Pusa-44, the first choice of farmers. But it can be harvested by early to mid-October, eliminating the need for stubble burning before the sowing of wheat.
Pusa-2090 is a newly bred, shorter-duration paddy variety developed by the Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) as a potential replacement for Pusa-44.
A cross between Pusa-44 and CB-501 (an early-maturing Japonica rice line), Pusa-2090 matures in 120-125 days, similar to PR-126, but with a higher yield of 34-35 quintals per acre, closer to Pusa-44’s yield. So, statement 1 is correct.
Pusa-44 is not a basmati variety; it is a non-basmati variety grown for domestic consumption, not primarily for export. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Pusa-2090 is considered more environmentally sustainable due to its lower input needs. So, statement 3 is correct.
Which of the following best describes Euthanasia?
A. The practice of providing personalized care to terminally ill patients. B. The intentional act of ending a person's life to relieve them of suffering, with their consent. C. Administering medications to manage pain and prolong the life of a critically ill patient. D. The unintentional withdrawal of life support systems to allow a terminally ill patient to die naturally without consent.
The intentional act of ending a person’s life to relieve them of suffering, with their consent.
Explanation :
The ‘Draft Guidelines for Withdrawal of Life Support in Terminally Ill Patients,’ was released by the Union Health Ministry.
While doctors have been informally advising families to withdraw care for terminal patients, there was no formal legal framework.
Euthanasia refers to the intentional act of ending a person’s life, often to relieve them of severe suffering or an incurable condition, typically with their consent.
This distinguishes it from practices that prolong life or manage pain without intentionally causing death.
With reference to the geographical location of Lebanon, which of the following statements is correct?
A. Lebanon is located on the Arabian Peninsula and shares a border with Iraq. B. Lebanon is a landlocked country in the Middle East, surrounded by Jordan and Saudi Arabia. C. Lebanon is located in North Africa and borders Egypt and Libya. D. Lebanon is situated on the eastern coast of the Mediterranean Sea and shares borders with Syria and Israel.
Lebanon is situated on the eastern coast of the Mediterranean Sea and shares borders with Syria and Israel.
Explanation :
The Israel Defense Forces killed Hassan Nasrallah, the longtime leader of Hezbollah — the Iran-backed armed group and political party that controls much of southern Lebanon.
Lebanon is located on the eastern coast of the Mediterranean Sea, bordered by Syria to the north and east and Israel to the south. It is not landlocked, nor is it part of the Arabian Peninsula or North Africa.
