April Flashcards
With reference to the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT), consider the following statements:
- It exercises jurisdiction only in relation to the service matters of the parties covered by the Administrative Tribunals Act 1985.
- The conditions of service of the Chairman and Members of CAT are the same as applicable to a judge of the High Court.
- It is guided by the principles of natural justice in deciding cases and is not bound by the Civil Procedure Code.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Allahabad High Court recently held that an appeal against an order of the CAT while exercising its contempt jurisdiction under Section 17 of the Administrative Tribunals Act 1985 lies before the Supreme Court.
About Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT):
The CAT had been established under Article 323-A of the Constitution.
Mandate: To adjudicate disputes and complaints with respect to the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or other authorities under the control of the Government.
In addition to the Ministries and Departments of Central Government, the Government has notified about 214 organizations under Section 14(2) of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, to bring them within the jurisdiction of the CAT from time to time.
There are 17 Benches and 21 Circuit Benches in the CAT all over India.
Composition: A bench consists of one Judicial Member and one Administrative Member.
The conditions of service of the Chairman and Members of CAT are the same as applicable to a Judge of the High Court.
Salaries, Allowances and Conditions of Service of the officers and other employees of the Tribunal are specified by the Central Government.
Powers:
It exercises jurisdiction only in relation to the service matters of the parties covered by the Administrative Tribunals Act 1985.
The Tribunal is guided by the principles of natural justice in deciding cases and is not bound by the procedure prescribed by the Civil Procedure Code.
CAT is empowered to frame its own rules of procedure and practice.
It has been conferred with the power to exercise the same jurisdiction and authority in respect of contempt of itself as a High Court.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livelaw.in/high-court/allahabad-high-court/allahabad-high-court-ruling-appeals-against-cat-contempt-orders-supreme-court-contempt-of-courts-act-253830
‘Statins’, recently seen in news, is primarily used for:
lowering cholesterol levels
Explanation :
Administering ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA) can stave off the tendency of statins to induce glucose intolerance and diabetes, a study by a group of researchers in China has found.
About Statins:
Statins are prescription medications that people take to bring their cholesterol down to normal levels.
Statin drugs work by blocking the action of the liver enzyme that is responsible for producing cholesterol.
Too much cholesterol in the blood can cause a buildup of plaque on the walls of the arteries. That buildup can eventually cause the arteries to narrow or harden.
Sudden blood clots in these narrowed arteries can cause a heart attack or stroke.
Some statins can decrease your LDL (low-density lipoprotein, or “bad”) cholesterol by 50% or more. Providers often call LDL “bad” because it builds up inside your arteries, making it harder for blood to move through them.
These medicines also have been linked to a lower risk of heart disease and stroke.
Statins may also help reduce the risk of certain blood clots.
Statins can sometimes interact with other medicines, increasing the risk of serious side effects, such as muscle damage.
Consider the following statements with reference to asteroids:
- They are rocky remnants left over from the early formation of our solar system.
- Most of the asteroids can be found orbiting the Sun between Earth and Mars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory consistently forecasted the passage of four asteroids close to Earth.
About Asteroid:
Asteroids, sometimes called minor planets, are rocky remnants left over from the early formation of our solar system about 4.6 billion years ago.
The current known asteroid count is at least 1,351,400.
Most of this ancient space rubble can be found orbiting the Sun between Mars and Jupiter within the main asteroid belt.
Asteroids orbit the sun in highly flattened, or “elliptical” circles, often rotating erratically, tumbling, and falling through space.
Asteroids range in size from Vesta, the largest at about 329 miles (530 kilometers) in diameter, to bodies that are less than 33 feet (10 meters) across.
Asteroids come in a variety of shapes, from near spheres to irregular double-lobed peanut-shaped asteroids.
The total mass of all the asteroids combined is less than that of Earth’s Moon.
Many large asteroids have one or more small companion moons. An example of this is Didymos, a half-mile (780 meters) wide asteroid that is orbited by the moonlet Dimorphos, which measures just 525 feet (160 m) across.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.timesnownews.com/technology-science/nasa-tracks-massive-170-foot-asteroid-moving-towards-earth-at-13798-kmph-article-108883086
Consider the following:
- Yemen
- Oman
- Egypt
- Sudan
- Eritrea
How many of the above countries border the Red Sea?
Only four
Explanation :
Global trade has been severely affected recently, primarily due to the disruption of one of the critical shipping routes — through the Red Sea.
About Red Sea:
It is a semi-enclosed inlet (or extension) of the Indian Ocean between the continents of Africa and Asia.
It is one of the world’s warmest seas.
It is connected to the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean to the south through the Gulf of Aden and the narrow strait of Bab El-Mandeb.
The northern portion of the Red Sea is bifurcated by the Sinai Peninsula into the Gulf of Aqaba and the Gulf of Suez, where it is connected to the Mediterranean Sea via the famous Suez Canal.
Bordering Countries:
Yemen and Saudi Arabia border the Red Sea to the east.
It is bordered by Egypt to the north and west and by Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti to the west.
This sea has a surface area of roughly 438,000 km2 and is about 2,250 km in length.
The maximum width of the sea is 355 km, and the sea’s deepest point is 3,040 m at the central Suakin Trough, with the sea’s estimated average depth being 490 m.
The Red Sea contains some of the world’s hottest and saltiest seawater.
Islands: Some well-known islands include Tiran Island, which is located near the mouth of the Gulf of Aqaba, and Shadwan Island, which is located at the entrance of the Gulf of Suez.
With its connection to the Mediterranean Sea via the Suez Canal, it is one of the most heavily traveled waterways in the world, carrying maritime traffic between Europe and Asia.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/ahmedabad/red-sea-crisis-gujarat-exporters-turn-to-costly-aerial-routes/articleshow/108931602.cms
With reference to Atal Tunnel, consider the following statements:
- It is the longest high-altitude tunnel in the world.
- It is located in the Pir Panjal Range of the Himalayas in Himachal Pradesh.
- It passes through Khardung La pass.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Manali-Leh highway was blocked due to fresh snowfall near the Atal Tunnel in Lahaul and Spiti districts recently.
About Atal Tunnel:
Atal Tunnel, formerly known as Rohtang Tunnel, is the world’s longest high-altitude tunnel, situated at an elevation of approximately 3,100 meters (10,171 feet) above sea level.
It is located in the Pir Panjal Range of the Himalayas in Himachal Pradesh.
It passes through Rohtang pass.
It stretches 9.02 km, connecting Manali to Lahaul and Spiti Valley throughout the year, previously cut off for about six months each year due to heavy snowfall.
The south portal (SP) of Atal Tunnel is located at a distance of 25 km from Manali at an altitude of 3,060 metres, while the north portal (NP) of the tunnel is located near village Teling, Sissu, in Lahaul Valley at an altitude of 3,071 metres.
The tunnel is a horseshoe-shaped, single tube, double lane tunnel with a roadway of 8 meters, has an overhead clearance of 5.525 meters.
The tunnel features a semi-transverse ventilation system, emergency exits every 500 meters, evacuation lighting, broadcasting systems, and fire hydrants for safety.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/photos/news/168-roads-closed-in-himachal-pradesh-as-snow-and-rain-hit-region-101711794103893-4.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Clean Energy Transitions Programme:
- It aims to accelerate progress toward a global net zero energy system.
- It is an initiative of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the International Energy Agency (IEA) launched the Clean Energy Transitions Programme annual report 2023.
It is the IEA’s flagship initiative launched in 2017 for accelerating progress toward a global net zero energy system.
It leverages the insights and influence of the world’s leading energy authority to accelerate clean energy transitions, particularly in emerging and developing economies
Its goals are in line with the objectives of the 2015 Paris Agreement and the Sustainable Development Goals established by the United Nations.
Key facts about IEA
It is an autonomous inter-governmental organisation within the OECD framework.
It works with governments and industry to shape a secure and sustainable energy future for all.
It was founded in 1974 to ensure the security of oil supplies.
It was created in response to the 1973-1974 oil crisis when an oil embargo by major producers pushed prices to historic levels and exposed the vulnerability of industrialised countries to dependency on oil imports.
It consists of 31 member countries and eleven association countries.
A candidate country to the IEA must be a member country of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development(OECD).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.iea.org/reports/clean-energy-transitions-programme-2023
Consider the following statements with reference to the Organic Electrochemical Transistor (OECTs):
- It is capable of simultaneously controlling the flow of electronic and ionic currents.
- It is used to create biosensors and wearable devices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, researchers at Northwestern University recently outlined a new strategy to fabricate high-density and mechanically flexible Organic Electrochemical Transistor (OECTs).
It is an emerging class of transistor based on organic superconducting materials known for their ability to modulate electrical current in response to small changes in the voltage applied to their gate electrode.
It is a device capable of simultaneously controlling the flow of electronic and ionic currents.
Advantages: They have various notable advantages, including promising amplification and sensing capabilities, low power consumption, low driving voltages and a versatile structure.
Applications: They can be used to create biosensors, wearable devices, and neuromorphic systems.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://techxplore.com/news/2024-03-strategy-fabricating-high-density-vertical.html#google_vignette
Consider the following statements with reference to the Lalit Kala Akademi:
- It is a national academy of fine arts established to promote Indian visual art in and outside India.
- It is funded by the Union Ministry of Education.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Ministry of Culture has curtailed the powers of the Lalit Kala Akademi (LKA) Chairman, barring him from taking any “administrative actions”.
It was inaugurated in 1954 by the then Minister for Education, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad and is registered under the Societies Registration Act 1860.
It has preserved and documented a permanent collection of the highest order that reflects the vitality, complexity and unfolding patterns of contemporary, modern, folk and tribal art in India.
It is India’s national academy of fine arts established by Government of India to promote and propagate understanding of Indian art, in and outside the country.
It promotes Visual Art of India in various countries of the world through Cultural Agreements and Cultural Exchange Programmes.
The National Exhibition of Art is the most prestigious annual event of the Lalit Kala Akademi.
Funding: It is funded by the Ministry of Culture.
It has regional centres situated at Chennai, Lucknow, Kolkata, Bhubaneswar, Garhi.
Headquarter: New Delhi
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/lalit-kala-akademi-chiefs-powers-curbed-by-culture-ministry-9237033/
Hume AI, recently seen in the news, is:
world’s first emotionally intelligent voice AI
Explanation :
Recently, a New York-based research lab and technology company Hume, has introduced what can be called the ‘first conversational AI with emotional intelligence’.
It is the world’s first emotionally intelligent voice AI. It accepts live audio input and returns both generated audio and transcripts augmented with measures of vocal expression.
It is essentially an API that is powered by its proprietary empathic large language model (eLLM). This eLLM reportedly understands and emulates tones of voices, and word emphasis to optimise human-AI conversations.
It is trained on human reactions to optimize for positive expressions like happiness and satisfaction. EVI will continue to learn from users’ reactions.
By processing the tune, rhythm, and timbre of speech, EVI unlocks a variety of new capabilities, like knowing when to speak and generating more empathic language with the right tone of voice.
What is large language model?
It is a type of artificial intelligence (AI) program that can recognize and generate text, among other tasks.
LLMs are trained on huge sets of data—hence the name “large.”
LLMs are built on machine learning: specifically, a type of neural network called a transformer model.
In simpler terms, an LLM is a computer program that has been fed enough examples to be able to recognize and interpret human language or other types of complex data.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/easter-eggs-chocolate-rabbits-history-9243687/
With reference to Caracal, consider the following statements :
- It is primarily a nocturnal animal.
- It is endemic to the Western Ghats region of India.
- It is categorized as a Schedule I species under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, conservationists Dharmendra Khandal and Ishan Dhar published a book Caracal: An intimate history of a mysterious cat which explains about Caracal species.
It is an elusive, primarily nocturnal animal which has traditionally been valued for its litheness and extraordinary ability to catch birds in flight.
In India, it is called siya gosh, a Persian name that translates as ‘black Ear’.
They typically use abandoned porcupine burrows and rock crevices for maternal dens, but can be found with their young in dense vegetation.
Distribution:
The most suitable habitat for caracals in Rajasthan, Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh is located in Kutch, the Malwa Plateau, the Aravalli hill range and the Bundelkhand region,
It is found in several dozen countries across Africa, the Middle East, Central and South Asia.
Habitat: They live in woodlands, savannahs and in scrub forests.
Threats: Large-scale hunting, illegal trading and loss of natural habitats are considered significant threats to the species.
Conservation status
IUCN: Near Threatened
Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I
Which one of the following is often referred to as a ‘bridge fuel’?
Natural gas
Explanation :
Natural gas has been called a ‘bridge fuel’ for countries looking to transition away from coal and oil dependency, and as they pursue a pathway towards renewables and electrification.
About Bridge Fuel:
Bridge fuel is a commonly-used term for a fuel that will power society with the least environmental cost while we deploy non-polluting, renewable energy.
The goal of using a bridge fuel is to replace the bulk of today’s fossil-fuel-dependent energy sources as we transition to a cleaner and more renewable energy economy that is free of greenhouse gas emissions.
The length of the bridge and the energy source used to build the bridge are both topics of debate.
Many people consider natural gas a bridge fuel because it produces less greenhouse gas during the combustion process.
However, additional considerations for a bridge fuel include whether it increases national energy independence while reducing pollution-related costs.
Key Facts about Natural Gas:
Natural gas is a fossil fuel. Like all fossil fuels, it is a nonrenewable resource.
It is a mixture of gases which are rich in hydrocarbons.
It is a colorless and odorless gas composed of 70-90% methane (CH4). Its other ingredients include ethane (C2 H6) and propane (C3 H8).
Possible impurities include carbon dioxide (CO2), hydrogen sulfide (H2S), and nitrogen (N).
How did natural gas form?
Millions to hundreds of millions of years ago, the remains of plants and animals (such as diatoms) built up in thick layers on the earth’s surface and ocean floors, sometimes mixed with sand, silt, and calcium carbonate.
Over time, these layers were buried under sand, silt, and rock.
Pressure and heat changed some of this carbon- and hydrogen-rich material into coal, some into oil (petroleum), and some into natural gas.
Natural gas reserves are deep inside the earth, near other solid and liquid hydrocarbon beds like coal and crude oil.
Uses:
It is not used in its pure form; it is processed and converted into cleaner fuel for consumption.
Many by-products are extracted while processing of natural gas, like propane, ethane, butane, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, etc, which can be further used.
It is mainly used as a fuel for generating electricity and heat.
Natural gas in compressed form is used as fuel for vehicles, which is known as CNG.
It is used as fuel for boilers and air conditioners worldwide.
It is also used for making fertilizers also, mainly ammonia.
Natural gas has been called a ‘bridge fuel’ for countries looking to transition away from coal and oil dependency.
Hailed as a cleaner energy source than other fossil fuels, especially coal, natural gas has a lesser climate impact than coal because it emits 50 percent less CO2 into the atmosphere.
With reference to the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) Guidelines on Penal Charges on Loan Accounts, consider the following statements:
- It prohibits commercial banks and finance companies from charging borrowers’ penal rates on loan defaults.
- Penalties charged for non-compliance of the material terms and conditions of the loan contract by the borrower should be treated as penal charges.
- There is no upper limit cap on penal charges.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) latest guidelines on penal charges on loan accounts have come into effect recently.
About RBI Guidelines on Penal Charges on Loan Accounts:
The norms prohibit commercial banks and finance companies from charging borrowers’ penal rates on loan defaults or any other non-compliance event.
Under the new rules, penalty, if charged, for non-compliance of the material terms and conditions of the loan contract by the borrower should be treated as ‘penal charges’.
It cannot be levied in the form of ‘penal interest’ that is added to the rate of interest charged on the advances.
There should be no capitalisation of penal charges; that is no further interest computed on such charges.
The material terms and conditions will be defined as per the credit policy of the bank, and they may vary from one category of loan to another, and from bank to bank based on their own assessment.
There is no upper limit or cap for penal charges. However, the guidelines stipulated that the quantum of penal charges would be reasonable and commensurate with the non-compliance without being discriminatory within a particular loan category.
The guidelines also mentioned that the penal charges in the case of loans sanctioned to individual borrowers for purposes other than business will not be higher than the penal charges applicable to non-individual borrowers for similar non-compliance.
Also, in order to prevent banks from imposing arbitrary rates of interest, they are meant to follow a board approved policy on penal charges on similar charges on loans.
These guidelines will not apply to credit cards, which are covered under product specific directions.
The key rationale of the guidelines was that the intent of levying penal charges is meant to inculcate a sense of credit discipline, and such charges are not meant to be used as a revenue enhancement tool over and above the contracted rate of interest.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/et-explains/what-rbis-norms-on-penal-charges-mean-for-borrowers/articleshow/108953703.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the SEBI Complaint Redress System (SCORES 2.0):
- It enables market intermediaries and listed companies to receive complaints online from investors.
- It provides for the redressal of complaints within two months from the date of receipt of the complaint.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
SEBI recently launched a new version of the SEBI Complaint Redress System (SCORES 2.0).
What is SCORES?
SCORES is a web-based centralized grievance redress system of SEBI launched in 2011.
SCORES enables investors to lodge and follow up on their complaints and track the status of redressal of such complaints online from anywhere.
This enables market intermediaries and listed companies to receive complaints online from investors, redress such complaints, and report redressal online.
An investor who is not familiar with SCORES or does not have access to SCORES can lodge complaints in physical form at any of the offices of SEBI.
Such complaints would be scanned and also uploaded in SCORES for processing.
What types of complaints can be registered in the SCORE portal?
Complaints can be lodged on SCORES for any issues covered under the Sebi Act, Securities Contract Regulation Act, Depositories Act, and rules and regulations and provisions ofthe Companies Act, 2013.
Entities against which complaints are handled by SEBI include:
Listed companies / registrar & transfer agents
Brokers / stock exchanges
Depository participants / depository
Mutual funds
Portfolio Managers
Other entities (KYC Collective investment scheme, Merchant banker, Credit rating, Foreign institutional investor etc)
Key Features of SCORES 2.0:
It will feature reduced and uniform timelines for redressal of investor complaints, which is 21 calendar days from the date of receipt of the complaint.
An auto-routing of complaints to the concerned regulated entity will be facilitated to eliminate time lapses, if any, in the flow of complaints.
Designated bodies will have to monitor the timely redressal of investors’ complaints.
There will be two levels of review. The first review will be by the ‘designated body’ if the investor is dissatisfied with the resolution provided by the concerned regulated entity. The second review will be by SEBI if the investor is still dissatisfied after the first review.
If there is non-adherenceto the prescribed timelines by the regulated entity, then there would be auto-escalation of the complaint to the next level.
SCORES 2.0 will be integrated with the KYC Registration Agency database for easy registration of the investor on SCORES.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/markets/sebi-unveils-scores-20-to-strengthen-investor-redressal/article68016554.ece#:~:text=Reduced%20timeline-,SCORES%202.0%20will%20feature%20reduced%20and%20uniform%20timelines%20for%20redressal,not%20later%20than%2030%20days.
With reference to the Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT), consider the following statements:
- It is an independent system attached to the Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) that allows the voters to verify that their votes are cast as intended.
- VVPAT can be accessed by the polling officials, but not by the voters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently sought responses from the Election Commission of India (ECI) and the Centre on a plea seeking a comprehensive count of Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) slips in elections.
About Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT):
It was first introduced in India in the 2014 Lok Sabha elections.
It is an independent system that consists of two parts, namely, a VVPAT Printer and VVPAT Status Display Unit (VSDU) attached to the Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs), that allow the voters to verify that their votes are cast as intended.
When a vote is cast, a slip is printed containing the serial number, name, and symbol of the candidate and remains exposed through a transparent window for 7 seconds.
Thereafter, this printed slip automatically gets cut and falls into the sealed drop box of the VVPAT.
How is VVPAT used for verification?
The results of EVMs can be verified using the slipskept in the drop boxes of VVPAT machines.
VVPAT can be accessed by the polling officials, but not by the voters.
The paper slips are deemed to be more authoritative than EVM tallies in cases where VVPAT slips are utilised to verify votes.
Voter verification, however, is only done in extreme circumstances, such as when there are accusations of fraud or miscalculation.
The ECI has the authority to request that votes be verified using VVPAT slips in response to such complaints.
At the moment, the VVPAT slips are counted in a randomly-selected polling station in each Assembly constituency or Parliamentary constituency, depending upon the nature of the elections being held.
The ECI has clarified that EVMs and VVPATs are separate entities and are not connected to any network.
These machines are developed by the Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL) and Bharat Electronics Ltd (BEL).
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.news18.com/india/sc-notice-to-election-commission-on-vvpat-plea-congress-says-important-first-step-8836251.html
With reference to the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
- It provides autonomous powers in terms of the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
- Each autonomous district will have a District Council with a maximum of 30 members.
- Autonomous District Councils can make laws related to the allotment and use of lands other than any land which is a reserved forest.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, noted environmentalist and innovator Sonam Wangchuk, sat on a hunger strike for three weeks, demanding statehood for Ladakh and its inclusion under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
About Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution:
It provides autonomous powers in terms of administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
Its provisions are present in Articles 244(2) and 275(1) of the Indian Constitution.
District Councils and Regional Councils:
The tribal areas in the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram are to be administered as Autonomous Districts.
If there are different Scheduled Tribes in an autonomous district, the Governor can divide the district inhabited by them into Autonomous Regions.
The Governor is empowered to organize and reorganize the autonomous districts. He can also increase, decrease the boundaries, or alter the name of any autonomous district.
There are presently three ADCs in Assam, Mizoram, and Meghalaya, respectively, while Tripura has one.
According to the Sixth Schedule, each autonomous district will have a District Council with a maximum of 30 members, of whom not more than four persons shall be nominated by the Governor, and the rest shall be elected on the basis of adult suffrage.
There shall be a separate Regional Council for each area constituted as an autonomous region.
The Governor will also decide the rules of the District Councils and Regional Councils in consultation with the existing tribal councils or other representative tribal organisations within the autonomous districts or regions concerned.
Powers:
Both councils can make laws related to the occupation, allotment and use of lands other than any land which is a reserved forest.
They can also make laws regarding the management of non-reserve forests, the use of canals or another water source for agriculture, the regulation of jhum and other forms of cultivation, the formation of village or town councils and those related to their administration, the inheritance of property, and social customs.
These councils are also empowered to make laws for the regulation and control of money-lending or trading by any person other than Scheduled Tribe residents in that Scheduled District.
Both councils have other legislative, executive, judicial, and financial powers, but they vary from one state to another.
However, the laws they make should receive the Governor’s assent.
These Councils are empowered to assess and collect land revenue and impose taxes on professions, trades, animals, vehicles, etc.
The Councils are given the power to grant licenses or leases for the extraction of minerals within their jurisdiction.
They are given the power to establish, construct, or manage primary schools, dispensaries, markets, cattle ponds, fisheries, roads, road transport, and waterways in the districts.
To autonomous districts and autonomous regions, the acts of Parliament or the state legislature do not apply or apply with specified modifications and exceptions.
Administration of justice in autonomous districts and autonomous regions:
The District and Regional Councils are empowered to constitute Village and District Council Courts for the trial of suits and cases where all parties to the dispute belong to Scheduled Tribes within the district.
The High Courts have jurisdiction over the suits and cases which is specified by the Governor.
However, the Council Courts are not given the power to decide cases involving offenses punishable by death or imprisonment for five or more years.
The Governor can appoint a commission to investigate and provide a report on any issue pertaining to the management of the autonomous districts or regions.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.news9live.com/knowledge/what-is-the-sixth-schedule-of-the-indian-constitution-that-sonam-wangchuk-wants-in-ladakh-2481638
Consider the following statements with reference to the India Meteorological Department:
- It works under the Ministry of Science and Technology.
- It is a premier organization mandated to inform about tropical cyclones and dust storms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The India Meteorological Department (IMD) issued an updated Seasonal outlook for hot weather season (April to June) 2024 and Monthly outlook for April 2024 for rainfall and temperature in New Delhi.
It was established in 1875. It is the National Meteorological Service of the country and the principal government agency in all matters relating to meteorology and allied subjects.
The Director General of Meteorology is the Head of this organization.
There are 6 Regional Meteorological Centres, each under a Deputy Director General with headquarters at Mumbai, Chennai, New Delhi, Calcutta, Nagpur and Guwahati.
Mandate
To take meteorological observations and to provide current and forecast meteorological information for optimum operation of weather-sensitive activities like agriculture, irrigation, shipping, aviation, offshore oil explorations, etc.
To warn against severe weather phenomena like tropical cyclones, norwesters, dust storms, heavy rains and snow, cold and heat waves, etc., which cause destruction of life and property.
To provide meteorological statistics required for agriculture, water resource management, industries, oil exploration and other nation-building activities.
To conduct and promote research in meteorology and allied disciplines.
Nodal ministry: Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES)
Headquarter: New Delhi.
Consider the following statements with reference to Ozone:
- It is a natural product only found in the Mesosphere.
- It is formed through the interaction of solar ultraviolet radiation with molecular oxygen.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
An international team of scientists, including from India, has discovered strong evidence indicating the presence of ozone on Jupiter’s moon Callisto.
It is a gas composed of three atoms of oxygen. It is both a natural and a man-made product that occurs in the Earth’s upper atmosphere (Stratospheric ozone) and lower atmosphere (the troposphere).
Stratospheric ozone is formed naturally through the interaction of solar ultraviolet (UV) radiation with molecular oxygen (O2).
The “ozone layer,” approximately 6 to 30 miles above the Earth’s surface, reduces the amount of harmful UV radiation reaching the Earth’s surface.
Key facts about Callisto:
It is one of Jupiter’s largest moons and the third-largest moon in the Solar System after Ganymede and Titan.
Composition: It is primarily composed of water ice, rocky materials, sulphur dioxide, and some organic compounds. These substances make the moon a potential candidate for supporting life in the Solar System beyond the earth.
Its surface is heavily cratered, indicating a long history of being struck by asteroids and comets. It also lacks the extensive seismic activity seen on some of Jupiter’s other moons, such as Io and Europa.
The Digital India Trust Agency was recently seen in the news in the context of:
curbing illegal lending apps
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India is considering establishing a Digital India Trust Agency (DIGITA) to combat cyber fraud and illegal lending apps.
It will be responsible for stopping illegal lending apps from popping up.
It will enable the verification of these digital lending apps and will maintain a public register of these verified applications.
Any app which will not carry the “verified” tag of DIGITA, will be considered unauthorised.
Significance: This will create an important and much-needed checkpoint in the fight against online financial fraud.
What is digital lending?
It is a remote and automated lending process, largely by use of seamless digital technologies.
It involves lending through web platforms or mobile apps, utilising technology in customer acquisition, credit assessment, loan approval, disbursement, recovery and associated customer service.
It generally involves three parties – a lender, a lending service provider (including a digital lending platform) and a borrower.
It includes products like Buy Now, Pay Later (BNPL), which is a financing option (or simply a short-term loan product).
It allows one to buy a product or avail a service without having to worry about paying for it immediately.
Consider the following statements with reference to leap second:
- It is used as a measure to combat the long-term slowdown in the Earth’s rotation.
- The World Meteorological Organization makes decisions on whether to add or subtract a leap second from universal time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A recent study highlighted that due to factors like climate change and geological shifts, Earth’s changing rotation may prompt clocks to skip a second, potentially necessitating a “negative leap second” around 2029.
It is used as a measure to combat the long-term slowdown in the Earth’s rotation which is caused by the constant melting and refreezing of ice caps.
It is added every now and then to Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) in order to synchronize a clock worldwide with the Earth’s ever slowing rotation.
The system of leap seconds was introduced in the early 1970s. So far, there have been 27 positive leap seconds have been added.
UTC consists of a time scale that combines the output of more than 300 highly precise Atomic clocks worldwide. Atomic clocks are very accurate and are stable within 1 second over a period of millions of years.
On the other hand, the Astronomical Time known as Universal Time (UT1) refers to the Earth’s rotation around its own axis and determines the length of a day.
Reason for addition: The Earth’s rotation around its own axis is not regular, as sometimes it speeds up and sometimes it slows down, due to various factors including the moon’s gravitational Earth-braking forces that often results in ocean tides.
As a result, Astronomical Time (UT1) gradually falls out of synch with Atomic time (UTC), and as and when the difference between UTC and UT1 approaches 0.9 seconds, a “Leap Second” is added to UTC through Atomic clocks worldwide.
A leap second is normally inserted either on June 30 or December 31.
What is Negative Leap second?
It is a second that is subtracted from our clocks to keep them in sync with the Earth’s rotation.
Till date, no negative leap second has been introduced because, in the last few decades the Earth’s rotation has generally been a bit slow.
The International Earth Rotation and Reference Systems Service (IERS) monitors the Earth’s rotation and takes decisions on when to add or subtract a leap second.
Since Earth is spinning faster than usual recently so timekeepers had thought of using negative leap seconds for the first time.
In other words, they thought of subtracting leap seconds from our clocks to synchronise them with Earth’s rotation.
With reference to Zero First Investigation Report (FIR), consider the following statements:
- It refers to an FIR that is registered irrespective of the area where the offense is committed.
- It was recommended by the Justice Verma Committee.
- It aims to provide speedy redressal to the victim.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, police registered a zero FIR case against former minister of Telangana for allegedly making objectionable comments against the Telangana Chief Minister.
It refers to a First Investigation Report (FIR) that is registered irrespective of the area where the offense is committed.
The police in such a case can no longer claim that they have no jurisdiction.
It is later transferred to the police station that has the actual jurisdiction so that the investigation can begin.
It was introduced on the recommendation of the Justice Verma Committee formed at the backdrop of the brutal Nirbhaya gang rape in Delhi in 2012.
This puts a legal obligation on the police to begin an investigation and take quick action without the excuse of the absence of jurisdiction.
Objective: It is to ensure the victim doesn’t have to run from pillar to post to get a police complaint registered. The provision is meant to provide speedy redressal to the victim so that timely action can be taken after the filing of the FIR.
What is an FIR?
It is information recorded by a police officer on duty given either by the aggrieved person or any other person to the commission of an alleged offence.
It is not defined in the Indian Penal Code (IPC), Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, or in any other law.
In police regulations or rules, information recorded under Section 154 of CrPC is known as First Information Report (FIR).
Consider the following statements with reference to Khula under Islamic Law:
- It empowers Muslim women to unilaterally seek separation from their husbands.
- Muslim women need not give a reason for the divorce under Khula.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently issued notice in an appeal against two Kerala High Court verdicts that held that Muslim women have the absolute right to unilateral and extra-judicial divorce through Khula under Islamic law.
About Khula:
‘Khula’ is a practice within Islamic law that empowers Muslim women to unilaterally seek separation from their husbands.
It is expressly mentioned in the Quran.
This is designed to safeguard women’s rights and operate within the parameters of Islamic law.
The process involves the wife initiating the divorce by formally requesting it from the court, providing a valid reason such as incompatibility, abuse, or neglect.
In the ‘Khula’ process, there is also the possibility of the woman returning the ‘Mehr’ or reaching a financial settlement with her husband as part of the agreement for ending the marriage.
Following a ‘Khula’ divorce, the husband assumes responsibility for the education and financial support of the children.
What is Talaq?
‘Talaq’ occurs when the husband initiates the divorce.
According to Muslim law, once a man pronounces ‘Talaq,’ the marriage is immediately terminated.
But unlike Khula, wherein a Muslim woman needs to formally give a reason for the divorce, in Talaq, a Muslim man can divorce his wife with or without any cause, and there is no specific procedure for it.
After taking a ‘Talaq’, a Muslim man has to repay his former wife her dowry and property, if any, owned by her.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
With reference to the Sea of Japan, consider the following statements:
- It is a marginal sea of the western Pacific Ocean.
- It is located in Eastern Asia and is bounded by China, Japan and Philippines.
- It serves as the meeting point of cold currents and warm currents.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
North Korea recently fired a ballistic missile into the Sea of Japan, also known as the East Sea.
About Sea of Japan:
It is a marginal sea of the western Pacific Ocean.
It is located in Eastern Asia and is bounded by Japan and Sakhalin Island to the east and by Russia and Korea on the Asian mainland to the west.
It covers 978,000 square km. The average depth is 1,667 meters. The depth of the deepest point is 3,742 meters.
Dohoku Seamount, an underwater volcano, is its deepest point.
The sea itself lies in a deep basin, separated from the East China Sea to the south by the Tsushima and Korea straits and from the Sea of Okhotsk to the north by the La Perouse (or Sōya) and Tatar straits.
To the east, it is also connected to the Inland Sea of Japan by the Kanmon Strait, and to the Pacific by the Tsugaru Strait.
It influences the climate of Japan because of its relatively warm waters.
It serves as the meeting point of the cold currents from the north and the warm currents from the south.
There are no large islands in the Sea of Japan. Except for the South Korean Island of Ulleungdo, all the other small islands are situated near the eastern coast of the sea.
Major Ports:
Russia: Vladivostok, Sovetskaya Gavan, Nakhodka, Alexandrovsk-Sakhalinsky, and Kholmsk.
North Korea: Hamhung, Chongjin, and Wonsan.
Japan: Niigata, Tsuruta, and Maizuru.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Contempt of Court:
- Criminal contempt means wilful disobedience to any judgment of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court.
- Any fair criticism on the merits of a judicial order after a case is heard and disposed of does not amount to contempt of court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Allahabad High Court recently observed that orders issued by the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) under the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, are subject to appeal solely to the Supreme Court and not the High Court.
About Contempt of Court:
Constitutional Provisions: Article 129 of the Constitution says that the Supreme Court shall be the ‘Court of Record’ and it has all the powers of such courts including the power to punish for contemptof itself. Article 215 conferred a corresponding power on the High Courts.
According to the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, contempt of court can either be civil contempt or criminal contempt.
Civil contempt means wilful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ or other process of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court.
On the other hand, criminal contempt means the publication (whether by words, spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representations, or otherwise) of any matter or the doing of any other act whatsoever which
scandalises or tends to scandalise, or lowers or tends to lower the authority of, any court; or
prejudices, or interferes with, or tends to interfere with, the due course of any judicial proceeding; or
interferes or tends to interfere with, or obstructs or tends to obstruct, the administration of justice in any other manner.
A contempt of court may be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to two thousand rupees, or with both, provided that the accused may be discharged or the punishment awarded may be remitted on apology being made to the satisfaction of the court.
What is not contempt of court?
Fair and accurate reporting of judicial proceedings will not amount to contempt of court. Nor is any fair criticism on the merits of a judicial order after a case is heard and disposed of.
With reference to Lumpy Skin Disease (LSD), consider the following statements:
- It is an infectious viral disease of cattle with no direct antiviral treatment.
- It is a zoonotic disease which can spread to humans through direct contact with infected animals.
- It is a highly host-specific disease and primarily affects cows.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A team of Indian scientists has made significant progress in understanding the genetic makeup of the virus responsible for the lumpy skin disease that led to the deaths of approximately 1,00,000 cattle since May 2022.
About Lumpy Skin Disease:
It is an infectious viral disease of cattle.
Causative Agent: It is caused by the lumpy skin disease virus (LSDV), which belongs to the genus capripoxvirus, a part of the poxviridae family (smallpox and monkeypox viruses are also a part of the same family).
LSDV is not a zoonotic virus, meaning the disease cannot spread to humans.
Geographical distribution:
LSD is currently endemic in most of Africa, parts of the Middle East,and Turkey.
Since 2015, the disease has spread to most of the Balkan countries, the Caucasus, and the Russian Federation.
Since 2019, several outbreaks of LSD have been reported by countries in Asia (Bangladesh, India, China, Chinese Taipei, Vietnam, Bhutan, Hong Kong (SAR-RPC), Nepal, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, Thailand).
Transmission:
It is transmitted by blood-feeding insects, such as certain species of flies, mosquitoes, or ticks.
Infected animalsshed the virus through oral and nasal secretions, which may contaminate common feeding and water troughs.
Thus, the disease can either spread through direct contact with the vectors or through contaminated fodder and water.
Symptoms:
LSD affects the lymph nodes of the infected animal, causing the nodes to enlarge and appear like lumps on the skin, which is where it derives its name from.
The cutaneous nodules, 2–5 cm in diameter, appearon the infected cattle’s head, neck, limbs, udder, genitalia, and perineum.
The nodules may later turn into ulcers and eventually develop scabs over the skin.
The other symptoms include high fever, a sharp drop in milk yield, discharge from the eyes and nose, salivation, loss of appetite, depression, damaged hides, emaciation (thinness or weakness) of animals, infertility, and abortions.
It can also lead to death, especially in animals that have not previously been exposedto the virus or have low immunity.
LSD is a highly host-specific disease. It primarily affects cows and to a lesser extent, buffalo. Morbidity rate is higher in cattle than buffalo.
Treatment:
It has no direct antiviral treatment.
Instead, the infected animals receive supportive care, which involves the use of antibiotics, painkillers, and wound care sprays to treat symptoms.
As there’s no treatment, vaccines are used to control disease transmission.
Hence option b is the correct answer.