April Flashcards
With reference to the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT), consider the following statements:
- It exercises jurisdiction only in relation to the service matters of the parties covered by the Administrative Tribunals Act 1985.
- The conditions of service of the Chairman and Members of CAT are the same as applicable to a judge of the High Court.
- It is guided by the principles of natural justice in deciding cases and is not bound by the Civil Procedure Code.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Allahabad High Court recently held that an appeal against an order of the CAT while exercising its contempt jurisdiction under Section 17 of the Administrative Tribunals Act 1985 lies before the Supreme Court.
About Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT):
The CAT had been established under Article 323-A of the Constitution.
Mandate: To adjudicate disputes and complaints with respect to the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or other authorities under the control of the Government.
In addition to the Ministries and Departments of Central Government, the Government has notified about 214 organizations under Section 14(2) of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, to bring them within the jurisdiction of the CAT from time to time.
There are 17 Benches and 21 Circuit Benches in the CAT all over India.
Composition: A bench consists of one Judicial Member and one Administrative Member.
The conditions of service of the Chairman and Members of CAT are the same as applicable to a Judge of the High Court.
Salaries, Allowances and Conditions of Service of the officers and other employees of the Tribunal are specified by the Central Government.
Powers:
It exercises jurisdiction only in relation to the service matters of the parties covered by the Administrative Tribunals Act 1985.
The Tribunal is guided by the principles of natural justice in deciding cases and is not bound by the procedure prescribed by the Civil Procedure Code.
CAT is empowered to frame its own rules of procedure and practice.
It has been conferred with the power to exercise the same jurisdiction and authority in respect of contempt of itself as a High Court.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livelaw.in/high-court/allahabad-high-court/allahabad-high-court-ruling-appeals-against-cat-contempt-orders-supreme-court-contempt-of-courts-act-253830
‘Statins’, recently seen in news, is primarily used for:
lowering cholesterol levels
Explanation :
Administering ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA) can stave off the tendency of statins to induce glucose intolerance and diabetes, a study by a group of researchers in China has found.
About Statins:
Statins are prescription medications that people take to bring their cholesterol down to normal levels.
Statin drugs work by blocking the action of the liver enzyme that is responsible for producing cholesterol.
Too much cholesterol in the blood can cause a buildup of plaque on the walls of the arteries. That buildup can eventually cause the arteries to narrow or harden.
Sudden blood clots in these narrowed arteries can cause a heart attack or stroke.
Some statins can decrease your LDL (low-density lipoprotein, or “bad”) cholesterol by 50% or more. Providers often call LDL “bad” because it builds up inside your arteries, making it harder for blood to move through them.
These medicines also have been linked to a lower risk of heart disease and stroke.
Statins may also help reduce the risk of certain blood clots.
Statins can sometimes interact with other medicines, increasing the risk of serious side effects, such as muscle damage.
Consider the following statements with reference to asteroids:
- They are rocky remnants left over from the early formation of our solar system.
- Most of the asteroids can be found orbiting the Sun between Earth and Mars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory consistently forecasted the passage of four asteroids close to Earth.
About Asteroid:
Asteroids, sometimes called minor planets, are rocky remnants left over from the early formation of our solar system about 4.6 billion years ago.
The current known asteroid count is at least 1,351,400.
Most of this ancient space rubble can be found orbiting the Sun between Mars and Jupiter within the main asteroid belt.
Asteroids orbit the sun in highly flattened, or “elliptical” circles, often rotating erratically, tumbling, and falling through space.
Asteroids range in size from Vesta, the largest at about 329 miles (530 kilometers) in diameter, to bodies that are less than 33 feet (10 meters) across.
Asteroids come in a variety of shapes, from near spheres to irregular double-lobed peanut-shaped asteroids.
The total mass of all the asteroids combined is less than that of Earth’s Moon.
Many large asteroids have one or more small companion moons. An example of this is Didymos, a half-mile (780 meters) wide asteroid that is orbited by the moonlet Dimorphos, which measures just 525 feet (160 m) across.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.timesnownews.com/technology-science/nasa-tracks-massive-170-foot-asteroid-moving-towards-earth-at-13798-kmph-article-108883086
Consider the following:
- Yemen
- Oman
- Egypt
- Sudan
- Eritrea
How many of the above countries border the Red Sea?
Only four
Explanation :
Global trade has been severely affected recently, primarily due to the disruption of one of the critical shipping routes — through the Red Sea.
About Red Sea:
It is a semi-enclosed inlet (or extension) of the Indian Ocean between the continents of Africa and Asia.
It is one of the world’s warmest seas.
It is connected to the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean to the south through the Gulf of Aden and the narrow strait of Bab El-Mandeb.
The northern portion of the Red Sea is bifurcated by the Sinai Peninsula into the Gulf of Aqaba and the Gulf of Suez, where it is connected to the Mediterranean Sea via the famous Suez Canal.
Bordering Countries:
Yemen and Saudi Arabia border the Red Sea to the east.
It is bordered by Egypt to the north and west and by Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti to the west.
This sea has a surface area of roughly 438,000 km2 and is about 2,250 km in length.
The maximum width of the sea is 355 km, and the sea’s deepest point is 3,040 m at the central Suakin Trough, with the sea’s estimated average depth being 490 m.
The Red Sea contains some of the world’s hottest and saltiest seawater.
Islands: Some well-known islands include Tiran Island, which is located near the mouth of the Gulf of Aqaba, and Shadwan Island, which is located at the entrance of the Gulf of Suez.
With its connection to the Mediterranean Sea via the Suez Canal, it is one of the most heavily traveled waterways in the world, carrying maritime traffic between Europe and Asia.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/ahmedabad/red-sea-crisis-gujarat-exporters-turn-to-costly-aerial-routes/articleshow/108931602.cms
With reference to Atal Tunnel, consider the following statements:
- It is the longest high-altitude tunnel in the world.
- It is located in the Pir Panjal Range of the Himalayas in Himachal Pradesh.
- It passes through Khardung La pass.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Manali-Leh highway was blocked due to fresh snowfall near the Atal Tunnel in Lahaul and Spiti districts recently.
About Atal Tunnel:
Atal Tunnel, formerly known as Rohtang Tunnel, is the world’s longest high-altitude tunnel, situated at an elevation of approximately 3,100 meters (10,171 feet) above sea level.
It is located in the Pir Panjal Range of the Himalayas in Himachal Pradesh.
It passes through Rohtang pass.
It stretches 9.02 km, connecting Manali to Lahaul and Spiti Valley throughout the year, previously cut off for about six months each year due to heavy snowfall.
The south portal (SP) of Atal Tunnel is located at a distance of 25 km from Manali at an altitude of 3,060 metres, while the north portal (NP) of the tunnel is located near village Teling, Sissu, in Lahaul Valley at an altitude of 3,071 metres.
The tunnel is a horseshoe-shaped, single tube, double lane tunnel with a roadway of 8 meters, has an overhead clearance of 5.525 meters.
The tunnel features a semi-transverse ventilation system, emergency exits every 500 meters, evacuation lighting, broadcasting systems, and fire hydrants for safety.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/photos/news/168-roads-closed-in-himachal-pradesh-as-snow-and-rain-hit-region-101711794103893-4.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Clean Energy Transitions Programme:
- It aims to accelerate progress toward a global net zero energy system.
- It is an initiative of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the International Energy Agency (IEA) launched the Clean Energy Transitions Programme annual report 2023.
It is the IEA’s flagship initiative launched in 2017 for accelerating progress toward a global net zero energy system.
It leverages the insights and influence of the world’s leading energy authority to accelerate clean energy transitions, particularly in emerging and developing economies
Its goals are in line with the objectives of the 2015 Paris Agreement and the Sustainable Development Goals established by the United Nations.
Key facts about IEA
It is an autonomous inter-governmental organisation within the OECD framework.
It works with governments and industry to shape a secure and sustainable energy future for all.
It was founded in 1974 to ensure the security of oil supplies.
It was created in response to the 1973-1974 oil crisis when an oil embargo by major producers pushed prices to historic levels and exposed the vulnerability of industrialised countries to dependency on oil imports.
It consists of 31 member countries and eleven association countries.
A candidate country to the IEA must be a member country of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development(OECD).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.iea.org/reports/clean-energy-transitions-programme-2023
Consider the following statements with reference to the Organic Electrochemical Transistor (OECTs):
- It is capable of simultaneously controlling the flow of electronic and ionic currents.
- It is used to create biosensors and wearable devices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, researchers at Northwestern University recently outlined a new strategy to fabricate high-density and mechanically flexible Organic Electrochemical Transistor (OECTs).
It is an emerging class of transistor based on organic superconducting materials known for their ability to modulate electrical current in response to small changes in the voltage applied to their gate electrode.
It is a device capable of simultaneously controlling the flow of electronic and ionic currents.
Advantages: They have various notable advantages, including promising amplification and sensing capabilities, low power consumption, low driving voltages and a versatile structure.
Applications: They can be used to create biosensors, wearable devices, and neuromorphic systems.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://techxplore.com/news/2024-03-strategy-fabricating-high-density-vertical.html#google_vignette
Consider the following statements with reference to the Lalit Kala Akademi:
- It is a national academy of fine arts established to promote Indian visual art in and outside India.
- It is funded by the Union Ministry of Education.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Ministry of Culture has curtailed the powers of the Lalit Kala Akademi (LKA) Chairman, barring him from taking any “administrative actions”.
It was inaugurated in 1954 by the then Minister for Education, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad and is registered under the Societies Registration Act 1860.
It has preserved and documented a permanent collection of the highest order that reflects the vitality, complexity and unfolding patterns of contemporary, modern, folk and tribal art in India.
It is India’s national academy of fine arts established by Government of India to promote and propagate understanding of Indian art, in and outside the country.
It promotes Visual Art of India in various countries of the world through Cultural Agreements and Cultural Exchange Programmes.
The National Exhibition of Art is the most prestigious annual event of the Lalit Kala Akademi.
Funding: It is funded by the Ministry of Culture.
It has regional centres situated at Chennai, Lucknow, Kolkata, Bhubaneswar, Garhi.
Headquarter: New Delhi
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/lalit-kala-akademi-chiefs-powers-curbed-by-culture-ministry-9237033/
Hume AI, recently seen in the news, is:
world’s first emotionally intelligent voice AI
Explanation :
Recently, a New York-based research lab and technology company Hume, has introduced what can be called the ‘first conversational AI with emotional intelligence’.
It is the world’s first emotionally intelligent voice AI. It accepts live audio input and returns both generated audio and transcripts augmented with measures of vocal expression.
It is essentially an API that is powered by its proprietary empathic large language model (eLLM). This eLLM reportedly understands and emulates tones of voices, and word emphasis to optimise human-AI conversations.
It is trained on human reactions to optimize for positive expressions like happiness and satisfaction. EVI will continue to learn from users’ reactions.
By processing the tune, rhythm, and timbre of speech, EVI unlocks a variety of new capabilities, like knowing when to speak and generating more empathic language with the right tone of voice.
What is large language model?
It is a type of artificial intelligence (AI) program that can recognize and generate text, among other tasks.
LLMs are trained on huge sets of data—hence the name “large.”
LLMs are built on machine learning: specifically, a type of neural network called a transformer model.
In simpler terms, an LLM is a computer program that has been fed enough examples to be able to recognize and interpret human language or other types of complex data.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/easter-eggs-chocolate-rabbits-history-9243687/
With reference to Caracal, consider the following statements :
- It is primarily a nocturnal animal.
- It is endemic to the Western Ghats region of India.
- It is categorized as a Schedule I species under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, conservationists Dharmendra Khandal and Ishan Dhar published a book Caracal: An intimate history of a mysterious cat which explains about Caracal species.
It is an elusive, primarily nocturnal animal which has traditionally been valued for its litheness and extraordinary ability to catch birds in flight.
In India, it is called siya gosh, a Persian name that translates as ‘black Ear’.
They typically use abandoned porcupine burrows and rock crevices for maternal dens, but can be found with their young in dense vegetation.
Distribution:
The most suitable habitat for caracals in Rajasthan, Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh is located in Kutch, the Malwa Plateau, the Aravalli hill range and the Bundelkhand region,
It is found in several dozen countries across Africa, the Middle East, Central and South Asia.
Habitat: They live in woodlands, savannahs and in scrub forests.
Threats: Large-scale hunting, illegal trading and loss of natural habitats are considered significant threats to the species.
Conservation status
IUCN: Near Threatened
Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I
Which one of the following is often referred to as a ‘bridge fuel’?
Natural gas
Explanation :
Natural gas has been called a ‘bridge fuel’ for countries looking to transition away from coal and oil dependency, and as they pursue a pathway towards renewables and electrification.
About Bridge Fuel:
Bridge fuel is a commonly-used term for a fuel that will power society with the least environmental cost while we deploy non-polluting, renewable energy.
The goal of using a bridge fuel is to replace the bulk of today’s fossil-fuel-dependent energy sources as we transition to a cleaner and more renewable energy economy that is free of greenhouse gas emissions.
The length of the bridge and the energy source used to build the bridge are both topics of debate.
Many people consider natural gas a bridge fuel because it produces less greenhouse gas during the combustion process.
However, additional considerations for a bridge fuel include whether it increases national energy independence while reducing pollution-related costs.
Key Facts about Natural Gas:
Natural gas is a fossil fuel. Like all fossil fuels, it is a nonrenewable resource.
It is a mixture of gases which are rich in hydrocarbons.
It is a colorless and odorless gas composed of 70-90% methane (CH4). Its other ingredients include ethane (C2 H6) and propane (C3 H8).
Possible impurities include carbon dioxide (CO2), hydrogen sulfide (H2S), and nitrogen (N).
How did natural gas form?
Millions to hundreds of millions of years ago, the remains of plants and animals (such as diatoms) built up in thick layers on the earth’s surface and ocean floors, sometimes mixed with sand, silt, and calcium carbonate.
Over time, these layers were buried under sand, silt, and rock.
Pressure and heat changed some of this carbon- and hydrogen-rich material into coal, some into oil (petroleum), and some into natural gas.
Natural gas reserves are deep inside the earth, near other solid and liquid hydrocarbon beds like coal and crude oil.
Uses:
It is not used in its pure form; it is processed and converted into cleaner fuel for consumption.
Many by-products are extracted while processing of natural gas, like propane, ethane, butane, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, etc, which can be further used.
It is mainly used as a fuel for generating electricity and heat.
Natural gas in compressed form is used as fuel for vehicles, which is known as CNG.
It is used as fuel for boilers and air conditioners worldwide.
It is also used for making fertilizers also, mainly ammonia.
Natural gas has been called a ‘bridge fuel’ for countries looking to transition away from coal and oil dependency.
Hailed as a cleaner energy source than other fossil fuels, especially coal, natural gas has a lesser climate impact than coal because it emits 50 percent less CO2 into the atmosphere.
With reference to the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) Guidelines on Penal Charges on Loan Accounts, consider the following statements:
- It prohibits commercial banks and finance companies from charging borrowers’ penal rates on loan defaults.
- Penalties charged for non-compliance of the material terms and conditions of the loan contract by the borrower should be treated as penal charges.
- There is no upper limit cap on penal charges.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) latest guidelines on penal charges on loan accounts have come into effect recently.
About RBI Guidelines on Penal Charges on Loan Accounts:
The norms prohibit commercial banks and finance companies from charging borrowers’ penal rates on loan defaults or any other non-compliance event.
Under the new rules, penalty, if charged, for non-compliance of the material terms and conditions of the loan contract by the borrower should be treated as ‘penal charges’.
It cannot be levied in the form of ‘penal interest’ that is added to the rate of interest charged on the advances.
There should be no capitalisation of penal charges; that is no further interest computed on such charges.
The material terms and conditions will be defined as per the credit policy of the bank, and they may vary from one category of loan to another, and from bank to bank based on their own assessment.
There is no upper limit or cap for penal charges. However, the guidelines stipulated that the quantum of penal charges would be reasonable and commensurate with the non-compliance without being discriminatory within a particular loan category.
The guidelines also mentioned that the penal charges in the case of loans sanctioned to individual borrowers for purposes other than business will not be higher than the penal charges applicable to non-individual borrowers for similar non-compliance.
Also, in order to prevent banks from imposing arbitrary rates of interest, they are meant to follow a board approved policy on penal charges on similar charges on loans.
These guidelines will not apply to credit cards, which are covered under product specific directions.
The key rationale of the guidelines was that the intent of levying penal charges is meant to inculcate a sense of credit discipline, and such charges are not meant to be used as a revenue enhancement tool over and above the contracted rate of interest.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/et-explains/what-rbis-norms-on-penal-charges-mean-for-borrowers/articleshow/108953703.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the SEBI Complaint Redress System (SCORES 2.0):
- It enables market intermediaries and listed companies to receive complaints online from investors.
- It provides for the redressal of complaints within two months from the date of receipt of the complaint.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
SEBI recently launched a new version of the SEBI Complaint Redress System (SCORES 2.0).
What is SCORES?
SCORES is a web-based centralized grievance redress system of SEBI launched in 2011.
SCORES enables investors to lodge and follow up on their complaints and track the status of redressal of such complaints online from anywhere.
This enables market intermediaries and listed companies to receive complaints online from investors, redress such complaints, and report redressal online.
An investor who is not familiar with SCORES or does not have access to SCORES can lodge complaints in physical form at any of the offices of SEBI.
Such complaints would be scanned and also uploaded in SCORES for processing.
What types of complaints can be registered in the SCORE portal?
Complaints can be lodged on SCORES for any issues covered under the Sebi Act, Securities Contract Regulation Act, Depositories Act, and rules and regulations and provisions ofthe Companies Act, 2013.
Entities against which complaints are handled by SEBI include:
Listed companies / registrar & transfer agents
Brokers / stock exchanges
Depository participants / depository
Mutual funds
Portfolio Managers
Other entities (KYC Collective investment scheme, Merchant banker, Credit rating, Foreign institutional investor etc)
Key Features of SCORES 2.0:
It will feature reduced and uniform timelines for redressal of investor complaints, which is 21 calendar days from the date of receipt of the complaint.
An auto-routing of complaints to the concerned regulated entity will be facilitated to eliminate time lapses, if any, in the flow of complaints.
Designated bodies will have to monitor the timely redressal of investors’ complaints.
There will be two levels of review. The first review will be by the ‘designated body’ if the investor is dissatisfied with the resolution provided by the concerned regulated entity. The second review will be by SEBI if the investor is still dissatisfied after the first review.
If there is non-adherenceto the prescribed timelines by the regulated entity, then there would be auto-escalation of the complaint to the next level.
SCORES 2.0 will be integrated with the KYC Registration Agency database for easy registration of the investor on SCORES.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/markets/sebi-unveils-scores-20-to-strengthen-investor-redressal/article68016554.ece#:~:text=Reduced%20timeline-,SCORES%202.0%20will%20feature%20reduced%20and%20uniform%20timelines%20for%20redressal,not%20later%20than%2030%20days.
With reference to the Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT), consider the following statements:
- It is an independent system attached to the Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) that allows the voters to verify that their votes are cast as intended.
- VVPAT can be accessed by the polling officials, but not by the voters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently sought responses from the Election Commission of India (ECI) and the Centre on a plea seeking a comprehensive count of Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) slips in elections.
About Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT):
It was first introduced in India in the 2014 Lok Sabha elections.
It is an independent system that consists of two parts, namely, a VVPAT Printer and VVPAT Status Display Unit (VSDU) attached to the Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs), that allow the voters to verify that their votes are cast as intended.
When a vote is cast, a slip is printed containing the serial number, name, and symbol of the candidate and remains exposed through a transparent window for 7 seconds.
Thereafter, this printed slip automatically gets cut and falls into the sealed drop box of the VVPAT.
How is VVPAT used for verification?
The results of EVMs can be verified using the slipskept in the drop boxes of VVPAT machines.
VVPAT can be accessed by the polling officials, but not by the voters.
The paper slips are deemed to be more authoritative than EVM tallies in cases where VVPAT slips are utilised to verify votes.
Voter verification, however, is only done in extreme circumstances, such as when there are accusations of fraud or miscalculation.
The ECI has the authority to request that votes be verified using VVPAT slips in response to such complaints.
At the moment, the VVPAT slips are counted in a randomly-selected polling station in each Assembly constituency or Parliamentary constituency, depending upon the nature of the elections being held.
The ECI has clarified that EVMs and VVPATs are separate entities and are not connected to any network.
These machines are developed by the Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL) and Bharat Electronics Ltd (BEL).
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.news18.com/india/sc-notice-to-election-commission-on-vvpat-plea-congress-says-important-first-step-8836251.html
With reference to the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
- It provides autonomous powers in terms of the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
- Each autonomous district will have a District Council with a maximum of 30 members.
- Autonomous District Councils can make laws related to the allotment and use of lands other than any land which is a reserved forest.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, noted environmentalist and innovator Sonam Wangchuk, sat on a hunger strike for three weeks, demanding statehood for Ladakh and its inclusion under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
About Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution:
It provides autonomous powers in terms of administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
Its provisions are present in Articles 244(2) and 275(1) of the Indian Constitution.
District Councils and Regional Councils:
The tribal areas in the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram are to be administered as Autonomous Districts.
If there are different Scheduled Tribes in an autonomous district, the Governor can divide the district inhabited by them into Autonomous Regions.
The Governor is empowered to organize and reorganize the autonomous districts. He can also increase, decrease the boundaries, or alter the name of any autonomous district.
There are presently three ADCs in Assam, Mizoram, and Meghalaya, respectively, while Tripura has one.
According to the Sixth Schedule, each autonomous district will have a District Council with a maximum of 30 members, of whom not more than four persons shall be nominated by the Governor, and the rest shall be elected on the basis of adult suffrage.
There shall be a separate Regional Council for each area constituted as an autonomous region.
The Governor will also decide the rules of the District Councils and Regional Councils in consultation with the existing tribal councils or other representative tribal organisations within the autonomous districts or regions concerned.
Powers:
Both councils can make laws related to the occupation, allotment and use of lands other than any land which is a reserved forest.
They can also make laws regarding the management of non-reserve forests, the use of canals or another water source for agriculture, the regulation of jhum and other forms of cultivation, the formation of village or town councils and those related to their administration, the inheritance of property, and social customs.
These councils are also empowered to make laws for the regulation and control of money-lending or trading by any person other than Scheduled Tribe residents in that Scheduled District.
Both councils have other legislative, executive, judicial, and financial powers, but they vary from one state to another.
However, the laws they make should receive the Governor’s assent.
These Councils are empowered to assess and collect land revenue and impose taxes on professions, trades, animals, vehicles, etc.
The Councils are given the power to grant licenses or leases for the extraction of minerals within their jurisdiction.
They are given the power to establish, construct, or manage primary schools, dispensaries, markets, cattle ponds, fisheries, roads, road transport, and waterways in the districts.
To autonomous districts and autonomous regions, the acts of Parliament or the state legislature do not apply or apply with specified modifications and exceptions.
Administration of justice in autonomous districts and autonomous regions:
The District and Regional Councils are empowered to constitute Village and District Council Courts for the trial of suits and cases where all parties to the dispute belong to Scheduled Tribes within the district.
The High Courts have jurisdiction over the suits and cases which is specified by the Governor.
However, the Council Courts are not given the power to decide cases involving offenses punishable by death or imprisonment for five or more years.
The Governor can appoint a commission to investigate and provide a report on any issue pertaining to the management of the autonomous districts or regions.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.news9live.com/knowledge/what-is-the-sixth-schedule-of-the-indian-constitution-that-sonam-wangchuk-wants-in-ladakh-2481638
Consider the following statements with reference to the India Meteorological Department:
- It works under the Ministry of Science and Technology.
- It is a premier organization mandated to inform about tropical cyclones and dust storms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The India Meteorological Department (IMD) issued an updated Seasonal outlook for hot weather season (April to June) 2024 and Monthly outlook for April 2024 for rainfall and temperature in New Delhi.
It was established in 1875. It is the National Meteorological Service of the country and the principal government agency in all matters relating to meteorology and allied subjects.
The Director General of Meteorology is the Head of this organization.
There are 6 Regional Meteorological Centres, each under a Deputy Director General with headquarters at Mumbai, Chennai, New Delhi, Calcutta, Nagpur and Guwahati.
Mandate
To take meteorological observations and to provide current and forecast meteorological information for optimum operation of weather-sensitive activities like agriculture, irrigation, shipping, aviation, offshore oil explorations, etc.
To warn against severe weather phenomena like tropical cyclones, norwesters, dust storms, heavy rains and snow, cold and heat waves, etc., which cause destruction of life and property.
To provide meteorological statistics required for agriculture, water resource management, industries, oil exploration and other nation-building activities.
To conduct and promote research in meteorology and allied disciplines.
Nodal ministry: Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES)
Headquarter: New Delhi.
Consider the following statements with reference to Ozone:
- It is a natural product only found in the Mesosphere.
- It is formed through the interaction of solar ultraviolet radiation with molecular oxygen.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
An international team of scientists, including from India, has discovered strong evidence indicating the presence of ozone on Jupiter’s moon Callisto.
It is a gas composed of three atoms of oxygen. It is both a natural and a man-made product that occurs in the Earth’s upper atmosphere (Stratospheric ozone) and lower atmosphere (the troposphere).
Stratospheric ozone is formed naturally through the interaction of solar ultraviolet (UV) radiation with molecular oxygen (O2).
The “ozone layer,” approximately 6 to 30 miles above the Earth’s surface, reduces the amount of harmful UV radiation reaching the Earth’s surface.
Key facts about Callisto:
It is one of Jupiter’s largest moons and the third-largest moon in the Solar System after Ganymede and Titan.
Composition: It is primarily composed of water ice, rocky materials, sulphur dioxide, and some organic compounds. These substances make the moon a potential candidate for supporting life in the Solar System beyond the earth.
Its surface is heavily cratered, indicating a long history of being struck by asteroids and comets. It also lacks the extensive seismic activity seen on some of Jupiter’s other moons, such as Io and Europa.
The Digital India Trust Agency was recently seen in the news in the context of:
curbing illegal lending apps
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India is considering establishing a Digital India Trust Agency (DIGITA) to combat cyber fraud and illegal lending apps.
It will be responsible for stopping illegal lending apps from popping up.
It will enable the verification of these digital lending apps and will maintain a public register of these verified applications.
Any app which will not carry the “verified” tag of DIGITA, will be considered unauthorised.
Significance: This will create an important and much-needed checkpoint in the fight against online financial fraud.
What is digital lending?
It is a remote and automated lending process, largely by use of seamless digital technologies.
It involves lending through web platforms or mobile apps, utilising technology in customer acquisition, credit assessment, loan approval, disbursement, recovery and associated customer service.
It generally involves three parties – a lender, a lending service provider (including a digital lending platform) and a borrower.
It includes products like Buy Now, Pay Later (BNPL), which is a financing option (or simply a short-term loan product).
It allows one to buy a product or avail a service without having to worry about paying for it immediately.
Consider the following statements with reference to leap second:
- It is used as a measure to combat the long-term slowdown in the Earth’s rotation.
- The World Meteorological Organization makes decisions on whether to add or subtract a leap second from universal time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A recent study highlighted that due to factors like climate change and geological shifts, Earth’s changing rotation may prompt clocks to skip a second, potentially necessitating a “negative leap second” around 2029.
It is used as a measure to combat the long-term slowdown in the Earth’s rotation which is caused by the constant melting and refreezing of ice caps.
It is added every now and then to Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) in order to synchronize a clock worldwide with the Earth’s ever slowing rotation.
The system of leap seconds was introduced in the early 1970s. So far, there have been 27 positive leap seconds have been added.
UTC consists of a time scale that combines the output of more than 300 highly precise Atomic clocks worldwide. Atomic clocks are very accurate and are stable within 1 second over a period of millions of years.
On the other hand, the Astronomical Time known as Universal Time (UT1) refers to the Earth’s rotation around its own axis and determines the length of a day.
Reason for addition: The Earth’s rotation around its own axis is not regular, as sometimes it speeds up and sometimes it slows down, due to various factors including the moon’s gravitational Earth-braking forces that often results in ocean tides.
As a result, Astronomical Time (UT1) gradually falls out of synch with Atomic time (UTC), and as and when the difference between UTC and UT1 approaches 0.9 seconds, a “Leap Second” is added to UTC through Atomic clocks worldwide.
A leap second is normally inserted either on June 30 or December 31.
What is Negative Leap second?
It is a second that is subtracted from our clocks to keep them in sync with the Earth’s rotation.
Till date, no negative leap second has been introduced because, in the last few decades the Earth’s rotation has generally been a bit slow.
The International Earth Rotation and Reference Systems Service (IERS) monitors the Earth’s rotation and takes decisions on when to add or subtract a leap second.
Since Earth is spinning faster than usual recently so timekeepers had thought of using negative leap seconds for the first time.
In other words, they thought of subtracting leap seconds from our clocks to synchronise them with Earth’s rotation.
With reference to Zero First Investigation Report (FIR), consider the following statements:
- It refers to an FIR that is registered irrespective of the area where the offense is committed.
- It was recommended by the Justice Verma Committee.
- It aims to provide speedy redressal to the victim.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, police registered a zero FIR case against former minister of Telangana for allegedly making objectionable comments against the Telangana Chief Minister.
It refers to a First Investigation Report (FIR) that is registered irrespective of the area where the offense is committed.
The police in such a case can no longer claim that they have no jurisdiction.
It is later transferred to the police station that has the actual jurisdiction so that the investigation can begin.
It was introduced on the recommendation of the Justice Verma Committee formed at the backdrop of the brutal Nirbhaya gang rape in Delhi in 2012.
This puts a legal obligation on the police to begin an investigation and take quick action without the excuse of the absence of jurisdiction.
Objective: It is to ensure the victim doesn’t have to run from pillar to post to get a police complaint registered. The provision is meant to provide speedy redressal to the victim so that timely action can be taken after the filing of the FIR.
What is an FIR?
It is information recorded by a police officer on duty given either by the aggrieved person or any other person to the commission of an alleged offence.
It is not defined in the Indian Penal Code (IPC), Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, or in any other law.
In police regulations or rules, information recorded under Section 154 of CrPC is known as First Information Report (FIR).
Consider the following statements with reference to Khula under Islamic Law:
- It empowers Muslim women to unilaterally seek separation from their husbands.
- Muslim women need not give a reason for the divorce under Khula.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently issued notice in an appeal against two Kerala High Court verdicts that held that Muslim women have the absolute right to unilateral and extra-judicial divorce through Khula under Islamic law.
About Khula:
‘Khula’ is a practice within Islamic law that empowers Muslim women to unilaterally seek separation from their husbands.
It is expressly mentioned in the Quran.
This is designed to safeguard women’s rights and operate within the parameters of Islamic law.
The process involves the wife initiating the divorce by formally requesting it from the court, providing a valid reason such as incompatibility, abuse, or neglect.
In the ‘Khula’ process, there is also the possibility of the woman returning the ‘Mehr’ or reaching a financial settlement with her husband as part of the agreement for ending the marriage.
Following a ‘Khula’ divorce, the husband assumes responsibility for the education and financial support of the children.
What is Talaq?
‘Talaq’ occurs when the husband initiates the divorce.
According to Muslim law, once a man pronounces ‘Talaq,’ the marriage is immediately terminated.
But unlike Khula, wherein a Muslim woman needs to formally give a reason for the divorce, in Talaq, a Muslim man can divorce his wife with or without any cause, and there is no specific procedure for it.
After taking a ‘Talaq’, a Muslim man has to repay his former wife her dowry and property, if any, owned by her.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
With reference to the Sea of Japan, consider the following statements:
- It is a marginal sea of the western Pacific Ocean.
- It is located in Eastern Asia and is bounded by China, Japan and Philippines.
- It serves as the meeting point of cold currents and warm currents.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
North Korea recently fired a ballistic missile into the Sea of Japan, also known as the East Sea.
About Sea of Japan:
It is a marginal sea of the western Pacific Ocean.
It is located in Eastern Asia and is bounded by Japan and Sakhalin Island to the east and by Russia and Korea on the Asian mainland to the west.
It covers 978,000 square km. The average depth is 1,667 meters. The depth of the deepest point is 3,742 meters.
Dohoku Seamount, an underwater volcano, is its deepest point.
The sea itself lies in a deep basin, separated from the East China Sea to the south by the Tsushima and Korea straits and from the Sea of Okhotsk to the north by the La Perouse (or Sōya) and Tatar straits.
To the east, it is also connected to the Inland Sea of Japan by the Kanmon Strait, and to the Pacific by the Tsugaru Strait.
It influences the climate of Japan because of its relatively warm waters.
It serves as the meeting point of the cold currents from the north and the warm currents from the south.
There are no large islands in the Sea of Japan. Except for the South Korean Island of Ulleungdo, all the other small islands are situated near the eastern coast of the sea.
Major Ports:
Russia: Vladivostok, Sovetskaya Gavan, Nakhodka, Alexandrovsk-Sakhalinsky, and Kholmsk.
North Korea: Hamhung, Chongjin, and Wonsan.
Japan: Niigata, Tsuruta, and Maizuru.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Contempt of Court:
- Criminal contempt means wilful disobedience to any judgment of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court.
- Any fair criticism on the merits of a judicial order after a case is heard and disposed of does not amount to contempt of court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Allahabad High Court recently observed that orders issued by the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) under the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, are subject to appeal solely to the Supreme Court and not the High Court.
About Contempt of Court:
Constitutional Provisions: Article 129 of the Constitution says that the Supreme Court shall be the ‘Court of Record’ and it has all the powers of such courts including the power to punish for contemptof itself. Article 215 conferred a corresponding power on the High Courts.
According to the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, contempt of court can either be civil contempt or criminal contempt.
Civil contempt means wilful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ or other process of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court.
On the other hand, criminal contempt means the publication (whether by words, spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representations, or otherwise) of any matter or the doing of any other act whatsoever which
scandalises or tends to scandalise, or lowers or tends to lower the authority of, any court; or
prejudices, or interferes with, or tends to interfere with, the due course of any judicial proceeding; or
interferes or tends to interfere with, or obstructs or tends to obstruct, the administration of justice in any other manner.
A contempt of court may be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to two thousand rupees, or with both, provided that the accused may be discharged or the punishment awarded may be remitted on apology being made to the satisfaction of the court.
What is not contempt of court?
Fair and accurate reporting of judicial proceedings will not amount to contempt of court. Nor is any fair criticism on the merits of a judicial order after a case is heard and disposed of.
With reference to Lumpy Skin Disease (LSD), consider the following statements:
- It is an infectious viral disease of cattle with no direct antiviral treatment.
- It is a zoonotic disease which can spread to humans through direct contact with infected animals.
- It is a highly host-specific disease and primarily affects cows.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A team of Indian scientists has made significant progress in understanding the genetic makeup of the virus responsible for the lumpy skin disease that led to the deaths of approximately 1,00,000 cattle since May 2022.
About Lumpy Skin Disease:
It is an infectious viral disease of cattle.
Causative Agent: It is caused by the lumpy skin disease virus (LSDV), which belongs to the genus capripoxvirus, a part of the poxviridae family (smallpox and monkeypox viruses are also a part of the same family).
LSDV is not a zoonotic virus, meaning the disease cannot spread to humans.
Geographical distribution:
LSD is currently endemic in most of Africa, parts of the Middle East,and Turkey.
Since 2015, the disease has spread to most of the Balkan countries, the Caucasus, and the Russian Federation.
Since 2019, several outbreaks of LSD have been reported by countries in Asia (Bangladesh, India, China, Chinese Taipei, Vietnam, Bhutan, Hong Kong (SAR-RPC), Nepal, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, Thailand).
Transmission:
It is transmitted by blood-feeding insects, such as certain species of flies, mosquitoes, or ticks.
Infected animalsshed the virus through oral and nasal secretions, which may contaminate common feeding and water troughs.
Thus, the disease can either spread through direct contact with the vectors or through contaminated fodder and water.
Symptoms:
LSD affects the lymph nodes of the infected animal, causing the nodes to enlarge and appear like lumps on the skin, which is where it derives its name from.
The cutaneous nodules, 2–5 cm in diameter, appearon the infected cattle’s head, neck, limbs, udder, genitalia, and perineum.
The nodules may later turn into ulcers and eventually develop scabs over the skin.
The other symptoms include high fever, a sharp drop in milk yield, discharge from the eyes and nose, salivation, loss of appetite, depression, damaged hides, emaciation (thinness or weakness) of animals, infertility, and abortions.
It can also lead to death, especially in animals that have not previously been exposedto the virus or have low immunity.
LSD is a highly host-specific disease. It primarily affects cows and to a lesser extent, buffalo. Morbidity rate is higher in cattle than buffalo.
Treatment:
It has no direct antiviral treatment.
Instead, the infected animals receive supportive care, which involves the use of antibiotics, painkillers, and wound care sprays to treat symptoms.
As there’s no treatment, vaccines are used to control disease transmission.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
White Rabbit (WR) technology, recently seen in the news, primarily aims to:
synchronize devices in accelerators with sub-nanosecond accuracy
Explanation :
CERN, the European Organization for Nuclear Research, recently launched White Rabbit Collaboration.
What is White Rabbit (WR)?
It is a technology developed at CERN, in collaboration with institutes and companies, to synchronize devices in the accelerators down to sub-nanoseconds and solve the challenge of establishing a common notion of time across a network.
White Rabbit Switches provides sub-nanosecond synchronization accuracy, which formerly required dedicated hard-wired timing systems, with the flexibility and modularity of real-time Ethernet networks.
It achieves sub-nanosecond accuracy in Ethernet based networks.
A White Rabbit network may be used solely to provide timing and synchronization to a distributed electronic system, or to provide both timing and real-time data transfer.
First used in 2012, the application of this fully open-source technology has quickly expanded outside the field of particle physics.
In 2020, it was included in the worldwide industry standard known as Precision Time Protocol (PTP), governed by the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE).
A key distinctive feature of White Rabbit is that it is open source and based on standards.
Companies and institutes can therefore adapt it to their needs and incorporate it in their products and systems.
White Rabbit is used in the finance sector as well as in many research infrastructures, and it is currently being evaluated for application in the future quantum internet.
The technology could also play a key role in the future landscape of global time dissemination technologies, which currently rely heavily on satellites.
White Rabbit Collaboration:
It is a membership-based global community whose objective is to maintain a high-performance open-source technology that meets the needs of users and to facilitate its uptake by industry.
The WR Collaboration will provide dedicated support and training, facilitate R&D projects between entities with common interests and complementary expertise, and establish a testing ecosystem that fosters trust in products that incorporate the open-source technology.
Punnett squares, sometimes mentioned in news, is a tool used to determine:
genetic traits
Explanation :
Punnett squares are a way to predict the possible genetic outcomes of the offspring when two individuals with known genotypes are crossed.
The Punnett Square is named after British geneticist Reginald Punnett.
How it works?
Along the top and side of the grid the possible genetic traits of one parent on one side and the other parent on the other side is listed.
Then, you fill in the squares by combining the traits from each parent. Each square effectively represents a possible combination of traits that their offspring could inherit.
It’s a simple way to visualise the probabilities of different traits showing up in the offspring.
Applications
Punnett Squares are commonly used in biology to understand inheritance patterns, like when you learn about dominant and recessive genes in school.
It is a useful tool that helps predict the variations and probabilities resulting from cross-breeding.
It can also be used to understand the genetic traits in the offspring of animals, including humans.
Researchers typically use them together with Mendelian inheritance.
Consider the following statements with reference to the OptiDroP Platform:
- It is a microfluidic chip-based platform used for studying single cells.
- It is developed by the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Platforms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Platforms (C-CAMP) in Bengaluru has developed a new platform called OptiDrop.
It is an innovative microfluidic chip-based platform that simplifies and reduces the cost of studying single cells.
It employs a novel approach that enables precise and cost-effective analysis of single cells encapsulated in droplets.
The platform’s unique features include live data visualisation, a smaller data footprint, and a ‘closed’ system design that prevents external contamination.
This research was supported by the Biotechnology Industry Research Council (BIRAC), the Department of Science and Technology (DST), and the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD).
Applications:
This cutting-edge technology has potential applications in diagnostics, therapeutics, agriculture, and animal health.
It helps in studying the impact on individual cells during a drug screen, environment control (water contamination counter), detection and sorting of CAR-T cells in immuno-oncotherapeutics, selection of CRISPR-modified single cells and selection of high-efficiency clones in single-cell genomics
What is C-CAMP?
It is an initiative supported by Department of Biotechnology, Govt of India is a catalyst of cutting-edge research and innovation in the life sciences since 2009.
It is mandated to promote entrepreneurship and innovation. It has created and fostered an entrepreneur-friendly culture in and around Academic/Research environment through its involvement in Seed Funding Schemes for Startups.
Consider the following statements with reference to the swell wave:
- It is the formation of long wavelength waves on the surface of the sea.
- It has a narrower range of frequency and direction than locally generated wind waves.
- It is formed due to the presence of local winds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Recently, swell waves inundated coastal areas in central and southern districts of Kerala.
A swell is the formation of long wavelength waves on the surface of the sea. These are composed of series of surface gravity waves.
Formation:
They occur not due to the local winds, but rather due to distant storms like hurricanes, or even long periods of fierce gale winds.
During such storms, huge energy transfer takes place from the air into the water, leading to the formation of very high waves. Such waves can travel thousands of kilometres from the storm centre until they strike shore.
Features
Swells have a narrower range of frequencies and directions than locally generated wind waves, because swell waves have dispersed from their generation area, have dissipated and therefore lost an amount of randomness, taking on a more defined shape and direction.
These waves can propagate in directions that differ from the direction of the wind, in contrast to a wind sea.
Their wavelengths may rarely exceed more than 150 m. Swell wavelength, also, varies from event to event. Occasionally, swells which are longer than 700 m occur as a result of the most severe storms.
It occurs without precursors or any kind of local wind activity.
In India early warning systems like the Swell Surge Forecast System launched by the Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) in 2020 — gives forewarning seven days in advance.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Mother of Dragons comet:
- It typically reaches perihelion (closest approach to the Sun) around the orbit of Mars.
- Its orbit is influenced by Jupiter’s gravitational pull.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A rare, formerly-horned comet that astronomers have dubbed the “Mother of Dragons” is now visible after dusk in the Northern Hemisphere.
It is officially known as Comet 12P/Pons-Brooks.
It is a ‘Halley-type’ comet with an orbital period of roughly 71 years and a nucleus approximately 30 km wide.
Composition: It is composed of ice, dust, and rocky material. When it approaches the Sun, heat causes the ice inside the comet to turn from solid to gas.
It is classified as a Jupiter-family comet, meaning its orbit is influenced by Jupiter’s gravitational pull.
It typically reaches perihelion (closest approach to the Sun) around the orbit of Mars and can become visible to observers on Earth during its close approach.
Its closest approach to Earth will occur in June 2024.
Key facts about Comets
Comets are ancient cosmic icebergs. They are roughly 4.6 billion years old and formed at the same time as the Sun, Earth and the other planets.
They are made of dust and ice, which partly goes from solid to gas when the comet is warmed by the Sun.
With reference to tornado, consider the following statements:
- It is a land-based vertical column of violently rotating air that forms thunderstorms to the ground.
- It is usually formed in the equatorial region of the earth.
- The water spouts are the tornados that occur over the sea.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, a deadly tornado struck the Mainaguri area of Jalpaiguri district of West Bengal for 10 minutes and killed five people and injured over a 100.
It is a land-based vertical column of violently rotating air that forms from a thunderstorm to the ground. It can have wind speeds in the range of 105-322 kilometres per hour.
The rotating column is physically connected to the cloud base or wall cloud and is often visible as a cloud-filled “condensation funnel”. If the air is dry enough, the tornado may only appear as a swirl of dirt on the ground without a visible connection to the cloud above.
The tornado over the sea is called water spouts.
Formation: Any collision of warm, moist air with dry, cool air in the presence of a low pressure system like a trough causes thunderstorms and tornadoes.
Geographical distribution:
It occurs most commonly on continents in the mid-latitudes (between 20 and 60 degrees north and south), where they are frequently associated with thunderstorms that develop in regions where cold polar air meets warm tropical air.
Tornadoes are the most common in the United States, Argentina and Bangladesh.
The Enhanced Fujita scale is used to measure tornado strength. It is used to assign tornado a ‘rating’ based on estimated wind speeds and related damage.
Consider the following statements with reference to myCGHS App:
- It has a 2-factor authentication and mPIN features.
- It is developed by the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the secretary of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched the myCGHS app for iOS ecosystem of devices.
It is designed to enhance access to Electronic Health Records, information, and resources for Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS) beneficiaries.
It is developed by the technical teams of the National Informatics Centre (NIC) Himachal Pradesh and NIC Health Team.
It is a convenient mobile application offering features aimed at enhancing information and accessibility for CGHS beneficiaries.
It facilitates a wide range of services, including booking and cancellation of online appointments, downloading CGHS cards and index cards, accessing lab reports from CGHS labs, checking medicine history, checking medical reimbursement claim status, accessing referral details and locating nearby wellness centers etc.
The app features security features like 2-factor authentication and functionality of mPIN ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of users’ data.
Key facts about Central Government Health Scheme
It gives healthcare facilities to registered employees and pensioners of the Central Government of India.
The enrolled members are provided reimbursement and cashless facilities under this scheme.
It covers health care under different systems of medicine, such as Allopathy, Homeopathy, Ayurveda and Unani.
CGHS beneficiaries can undergo treatment at any empanelled private hospital of their choice.
Consider the following:
- Members of the armed forces
- Person detained under preventive detention
- First time voter
- Non-Resident Indians (NRIs)
How many of the above are eligible for voting through postal ballot in India?
Only two
Explanation :
The Election Commission has notified the facility of voting through postal ballot for polling personnel engaged in election duty in Kallakurichi district.
It is also known as absentee voting. It is a method of voting in which electors cast their ballots by mail rather than in person at a polling station.
Eligibility
Service voters: Members of the armed forces, paramilitary forces, and other government employees deployed on election duty far from their home constituencies.
Absentee voters: Individuals who are unable to vote in person due to reasons such as being away from their home constituency for work, illness, or disability.
Electors on election duty: Government officials and polling staff who are assigned duties at polling stations other than their own.
Electors under preventive detention: Individuals who are detained under preventive custody orders during the election period.
To apply for a postal ballot, eligible voters must submit an application to the Returning Officer (RO) of their respective constituency.
The application form typically requires personal details, voter identification information, and the reason for seeking a postal ballot. The RO verifies the eligibility of the applicant and issues the postal ballot if the criteria are met.
Counting of Postal Ballot :
Postal ballots are counted separately from votes cast at polling stations.
The RO and election officials scrutinise the postal ballots to ensure their validity and integrity. Valid postal ballots are then added to the respective candidate’s vote count.
Consider the following statements with reference to tidal-locking:
- It is a phenomenon where a celestial body orbits around a star by keeping the same face towards it.
- It occurs when the rotation period of the planet around its own axis becomes equal to its revolution period around the star.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, an international team of astronomers and astrophysicists has confirmed the first known observance of a tidally locked super-Earth exoplanet.
A tidally-locked planet in its orbit around a star keeps the same face towards the star.
This happens when the rotation period of the planet around its own axis becomes equal to its revolution period around the star.
On a tidally locked planet, one side is always facing a star while the other is cloaked in perpetual darkness. The dark side could be so cold that water and would-be atmospheric components (e.g., carbon dioxide, nitrogen, or methane) are frozen, certainly an inhospitable environment for life.
Examples of Tidal Locking
The Moon is tidally locked to the Earth because it rotates in exactly the same time as it takes to orbit the Earth. That is why we only see one side of the Moon.
Pluto-Charon system: Here both bodies are of comparable size and are close together, both bodies can be tidally locked to each other
Tidal locking does influence how a planet moves, because tidal locking slows down its spin.
This phenomenon of tidal locking can happen with other bodies in space too as astronomers often say that binary stars, or star systems that have two stars at their center, are most likely tidally locked to each other.
Consider the following statements with reference to nitrogen-fixing bacteria:
- These are prokaryotic microorganisms that play an important role in the nitrogen cycle.
- These species are found in root nodules of legume plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, researchers have discovered nitrogen-fixing symbiotic organisms exhibiting behaviors similar to organelles.
These are prokaryotic microorganisms that are capable of transforming nitrogen gas from the atmosphere into “fixed nitrogen” compounds, such as ammonia, that are usable by plants.
Types: There are two main types of nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
Symbiotic or mutualistic: These species live in root nodules of certain plants. Plants of the pea family, known as legumes, which are some of the most important hosts for nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
Examples: Rhizobium, which is associated with plants in the pea family and various Azospirillum species, which are associated with cereal grasses.
Other nitrogen-fixing bacteria are free-living and do not require a host. They are commonly found in soil or in aquatic environments.
Examples: Cyanobacteria Anabaena and Nostoc and genera such as Azotobacter, Beijerinckia, and Clostridium.
Significance
Nitrogen is a component of proteins and nucleic acids and is essential to life on Earth. Although nitrogen is abundant in the atmosphere, most organisms cannot use it in that form.
Nitrogen-fixing bacteria accomplish more than 90 percent of all nitrogen fixation and thus play an important role in the nitrogen cycle.
Consider the following statements with reference to PRATUSH telescope:
- It is a radio telescope developed by the Raman Research Institute and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
- It aims to study the impact of radio waves on the outer environment of the Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Astronomers are looking forward to opening a new window on the universe by posting high-resolution telescopes on the moon, and in orbit around it including one from India called PRATUSH.
Probing ReionizATion of the Universe using Signal from Hydrogen (PRATUSH) is a radio telescope to be sited on the moon’s far side.
It is being built by the Raman Research Institute (RRI) in Bengaluru with active collaboration from the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
Initially, ISRO will place PRATUSH into orbit around the earth. After some fine-tuning, the space agency will launch it moonwards.
Main roles: It will be to detect signals from the first stars and galaxies, reveal the cosmic dawn of the universe, answering the question when the first stars formed, the nature of the first stars and what was the light from the first stars.
It will carry a wideband frequency-independent antenna, a self-calibrating analog receiver and a digital correlator to catch radio noise in the all-important signal from the Dark Ages.
The target instrument sensitivity is at the level of few millikelvin without being limited by any systematic features.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Ring of Fire:
- It is an earthquake-prone area which runs along the Pacific Ocean.
- It includes the Juan de Fuca and Nazca tectonic plates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Taiwan is prone to earthquakes as it lies along the Pacific “Ring of Fire” — where 90% of the world’s earthquakes take place.
It is a string of hundreds of volcanoes and earthquake-sites which run along the Pacific Ocean. It is a semicircle or horse shoe in shape and stretches nearly 40,250 kilometres.
It traces the meeting points of numerous tectonic plates, including the Eurasian, North American, Juan de Fuca, Cocos, Caribbean, Nazca, Antarctic, Indian, Australian, Philippine, and other smaller plates, which all encircle the large Pacific Plate.
It runs through 15 more countries including the USA, Indonesia, Mexico, Japan, Canada, Guatemala, Russia, Chile, Peru, and the Philippines.
Why it is more prone to earth quakes?
It witnesses so many earthquakes due to constant sliding past, colliding into, or moving above or below each other of the tectonic plates. As the edges of these plates are quite rough, they get stuck with one another while the rest of the plate keeps moving.
An earthquake occurs when the plate has moved far enough and the edges unstick on one of the faults.
There are many volcanoes in the Ring of Fire due to the movement of tectonic plates. Many of the volcanoes have been formed through a process known as subduction.
It takes place when two plates collide with each other and the heavier plate is shoved under another, creating a deep trench.
Most of the subduction zones on the planet are located in the Ring of Fire and that’s why it hosts a large number of volcanoes.
Hence both statements are correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the carbon fibre:
- It has high chemical resistance and low thermal expansion properties.
- It is used as a critical material in technical textiles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India is planning to manufacture carbon fibre for use in aerospace, civil engineering and defence as an alternative to metal which will help the country get around a proposed European Union carbon tax on steel, alloy and metal products.
It is a material consisting of thin, strong crystalline filaments of carbon, essentially carbon atoms bonded together in long chains.
Properties
It has high stiffness and stiffness-to-weight ratio.
It has high tensile strength and strength-to-weight ratio.
It has high-temperature tolerance with special resins.
It has low thermal expansion property.
It also has high chemical resistance.
The fibers are extremely stiff, strong, and light, and are used in many processes to create excellent structural materials.
Currently, India does not produce any carbon fibre, relying entierly on imports from countries such as the US, France, Japan and Germany.
Applications
It is essential for various applications such as fighter planes’ noses, civilian airplanes, drone frames, car chassis and fire-resistant building material.
It is a critical material in technical textiles and is known for its high strength and lightweight properties.
Consider the following statements regarding the Marine Products Export Development Authority:
- It is a statutory body established to regulate offshore and deep-sea fishing.
- It works under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, officials asserted that the entire value chain for India’s shrimp exports is certified by the Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA) and there is no scope for abusive conditions at shrimp farms.
It is a statutory body entrusted with the primary task of promotion of export of marine products.
History: It was set up by an Act of Parliament during 1972. The erstwhile Marine Products Export Promotion Council established by the Government of India in 1961 was converged into MPEDA in 1972.
Functions:
Developing and regulating off-shore and deep-sea fishing and undertaking measures for the conservation and management of off-shore and deep-sea fisheries.
Registering fishing vessels, processing plants or storage premises for marine products and conveyances used for the transport of marine products;
fixing of standards and specifications for marine products for purposes of export;
Regulating the export of marine products; registering of exporters of marine products on payment of such fees as may be prescribed;
It has set up five full-fledged Quality Control Laboratories, at Kochi, Nellore & Bhimavaram, Bhubaneshwar and Porbandar. In addition, fifteen ELISA Screening Laboratories set up by MPEDA in the maritime states.
In order to reach out to the exporters in different parts of the Country, it has set up 18 – Regional / Sub Regional Divisions / Desk offices.
Headquarter: Kochi, Kerala
It has Trade Promotion offices at New Delhi, Tokyo and New York.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Commerce and Industry
With reference to Sainik Schools, consider the following statements:
- They are Central Board of Secondary Education affiliated schools.
- They are completely funded only by the Central Government.
- They function under the overall governance of the Ministry of Defence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Defence Ministry said that the scheme for new Sainik Schools is “well thought out” and the “political or ideological affiliation or otherwise” of the applicant institution does not influence the selection process.
These are residential schools for students, providing Public School Education which are affiliated to Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE), New Delhi
Funding: These schools are funded by Central and State governments.
The scheme to establish Sainik Schools was introduced in 1961 with the primary aim of preparing students academically, physically and mentally for entry into the National Defence Academy.
These schools are under the overall governance of Sainik Schools Society (registered under Societies Registration Act XXI of 1860) Ministry of Defence. It is established with the primary aim of preparing boys academically physically and ‘mentally for entry into the National Defence Academy.
At present, there are 33 Sainik Schools located in various parts of the country. Girls cadets have also been given admission in Sainik School, from the academic session 2021-22.
Recent initiative
The Government of India has approved an initiative for setting up of 100 new Sainik Schools under Sainik Schools Society, Ministry of Defence in partnership with NGOs/Private Schools and State Govt.
The initiative aims to create an academically strong, culturally aware, intellectually adept, confident, highly skilled, multi-dimensional, patriotic self-reliant youth community with leadership qualities focused on providing utmost priority to the nation.
With reference to derivatives, consider the following statements:
- They are financial contracts whose value is dependent on an underlying asset or group of assets.
- Futures contracts, forwards and options are examples of derivatives.
- They can be traded between private counter-parties in the absence of a formal intermediary.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) delays enforcement of regulations on exchange-traded currency derivatives by one month, prompting traders to close positions.
What are Derivatives?
The term derivative refers to a type of financial contract whose value is dependent on an underlying asset, group of assets, or benchmark.
These contracts can be used to trade any number of assets and carry their own risks.
Prices for derivatives derive from fluctuations in the underlying asset.
Common derivatives include futures contracts, forwards, options, and swaps.
The most common underlying assets for derivatives are stocks, bonds, commodities, currencies, interest rates, and market indexes.
They are used for various purposes, including speculation, hedging, and getting access to additional assets or markets.
The basic principle behind entering into derivative contracts is to earn profits by speculating on the value of the underlying asset in the future.
There are mainly two types of derivatives: one that is subject to standardized terms and conditions, and thus being traded on stock exchanges, and the other being traded between private counter-parties in the absence of a formal intermediary.
While the first type is known as exchange-traded derivatives, the other is over-the-counter derivatives.
What are Exchange Traded Currency Derivatives (ETCDs)?
ETCDs are financial contracts that allow traders and investors to speculate on the future price movements of various currency pairs.
ETCDs were first introduced in 2008.
These derivatives are traded on exchanges and their value is based on the underlying currency exchange rate.
Common Derivatives:
Futures Contracts: A futures contract is an agreement between two parties to buy or sell an asset at a predetermined price on a specific future date. The underlying asset can be commodities, financial instruments, or indices.
Options Contracts: An options contract gives the holder the right, but not the obligation, to buy (call option) or sell (put option) an underlying asset at a specified price (strike price) on or before a predetermined expiration date.
Swaps: Swaps are agreements between two parties to exchange cash flows based on specific financial variables. Common types of swaps include interest rate swaps, currency swaps, and commodity swaps. Swaps are often used to manage interest rate risks, currency risks, or to change the nature of a debt obligation.
Forwards: Forwards are similar to futures contracts but are not standardized or traded on exchanges. They are customized agreements between two parties to buy or sell an asset at a specified price on a future date.
With reference to the National Medical Commission (NMC), consider the following statements:
- It gives accreditation to medical schools and assesses medical infrastructure in India.
- It exercises appellate jurisdiction concerning the decisions of the Autonomous Boards.
- It frames guidelines for the determination of fees for fifty percent of seats in private medical institutions governed under NMC Act, 2019.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently issued a clear directive to the National Medical Commission (NMC) to submit details regarding the stipend status of medical colleges across all States.
About National Medical Commission (NMC):
The NMC has been constituted by an Act of Parliament known as the National Medical Commission Act, 2019, which came into force in 2020.
It regulates medical education and medical professionals in the country.
It replaced the erstwhile Medical Council of India (MCI), which was established in 1934.
NMC grants recognition of medical qualifications, gives accreditation to medical schools, grants registration to medical practitioners, monitors medical practice, and assesses the medical infrastructure in India.
Headquarters: New Delhi
Functions:
lay down policies for maintaining high quality and high standards in medical education and make necessary regulations on this behalf;
lay down policies for regulating medical institutions, medical researches, and medical professionals and make necessary regulations in this behalf;
assess the requirements in healthcare, including human resources for health and healthcare infrastructure, and develop a road map for meeting such requirements;
promote, co-ordinate, and frame guidelines and lay down policies by making necessary regulations for the proper functioning of the Commission, the Autonomous Boards and the State Medical Councils;
ensure co-ordination among the Autonomous Boards;
take such measures, as may be necessary, to ensure compliance by the State Medical Councils of the guidelines framed and regulations made under this Act for their effective functioning under this Act;
exercise appellate jurisdiction with respect to the decisions of the Autonomous Boards;
lay down policies and codes to ensure observance of professional ethics in the medical profession and to promote ethical conduct during the provision of care by medical practitioners;
frame guidelines for determination of fees and all other charges in respect of fifty percent of seats in private medical institutions and deemed to be universities which are governed under the provisions of this Act;
exercise such other powers and perform such other functions as may be prescribed.
Composition:
It consists of 33 members, including the Chairman (medical professionals only), 10 ex-officio members, and 22 part-time members.
Medical Advisory Council: It provides the platform through which the states or UTs can put forth their views and concerns before the NMC and advises the NMC on measures to determine and maintain minimum standards of medical education.
Four autonomous boards:
Under-Graduate Medical Education Board (sets norms for undergraduate (UG) courses),
Post-Graduate Medical Education Board (sets norms for post-graduate courses),
Medical Assessment and Rating Board (inspects and rates the medical education institutes), and
Ethics and Medical Registration Board (regulates professional conduct of doctors and registers them).
Consider the following statements with reference to Microplastics:
- They are tiny plastic particles less than five millimeters in diameter.
- Primary microplastics are particles that result from the breakdown of larger plastic items.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers recently created a plant-based polymer that biodegrades at microplastic level.
About Microplastics:
Microplastics are tiny plastic particles that result from both commercial product development and the breakdown of larger plastics.
Officially, they are defined as plastics less than five millimeters (0.2 inches) in diameter.
The name is used to differentiate them from “macroplastics”, such as bottles and bags made of plastic.
Microplastics are present in a variety of products, from cosmetics to synthetic clothing to plastic bags and bottles. Many of these products readily enter the environment as waste.
Microplastics consist of carbon and hydrogen atoms bound together in polymer chains. Other chemicals, such as phthalates, polybrominated diphenyl ethers (PBDEs), and tetrabromobisphenol A (TBBPA), are typically also present in microplastics, and many of these chemical additives leach out of the plastics after entering the environment.
There are two categories of microplastics: primary and secondary.
Primary microplastics are tiny particles designed for commercial use, such as cosmetics, as well as microfibers shed from clothing and other textiles, such as fishing nets.
Secondary microplastics are particles that result from the breakdown of larger plastic items, such as water bottles. This breakdown is caused by exposure to environmental factors, mainly the sun’s radiation and ocean waves.
Environmental Impacts:
The problem with microplastics is that, like plastic items of any size, they do not readily break down into harmless molecules.
Thus, once in the environment, primary and secondary microplastics accumulate and persist.
Microplastics in the ocean can bind with other harmful chemicals before being ingested by marine organisms.
Microplastics have been detected in marine organisms, from plankton to whales, in commercial seafood, and even in drinking water.
Standard water treatment facilities cannot remove all traces of microplastics.
Microplastics arealso a source of air pollution, occurring in dust and airborne fibrous particles.
Consider the following statements with reference to Shallowfakes:
- It is an act of morphing people’s pictures using advanced Artificial Intelligence (AI) software.
- The quality of shallow fakes is lower compared to deepfakes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
With the Lok Sabha elections scheduled to start on April 19, social media platforms are abuzz with misinformation, mostly in the form of shallow fakes.
About Shallowfakes:
Like deepfake, shallowfake is also an act of morphing people’s pictures and using them for malicious activities.
But unlike deepfake, which is created by using advanced Artificial Intelligence (AI) software, shallowfake can be created by simply using basic editing software.
They are made with existing technologies—for example, a conventional edit on a photo, slowing-down a video to change the speech patterns of an individual, or more often, relying on mis-captioning or mis-contextualising an existing image or video, claiming it is from a time or place which it is not from.
And precisely because of this easier way to create them, many experts consider shallowfakes to be bigger threats than deepfakes.
Why are they called shallow? The term ‘shallow’ implies the quality of such fakes, which are lower in quality compared to deepfakes.
Shallowfakes are used to create a false proof of identity or address, including photo ID documents like passports, driving licences, utility bills, bank statements, national insurance cards.
It is also used to create fake supporting evidence to support a claim or transaction, like contracts, agreements and invoices for services, no claims discount certificates, etc.
What are Deepfakes?
Deepfakes are a compilation of artificial images and audio put together with machine-learning algorithms to spread misinformation and replace a real person’s appearance, voice, or both with similar artificial likenesses or voices.
The term “deepfake” combines the deep learning concept with something fake.
It can create people who do not exist, and it can fake real people saying and doing things they did not say or do.
Working:
They are created by machine learning models, which use neural networks to manipulate images and videos.
To make a deepfake video of someone, a creator would first train a neural network on many hours of real video footage of the person to give it a realistic “understanding” of what he or she looks like from many angles and under different lighting.
Then they’d combine the trained network with computer-graphics techniques to superimpose a copy of the person onto a different actor.
Deep fakes differ from other forms of false information by being very difficult to identify as false.
Consider the following:
- Narmada
- Sabarmati
- Tapti
- Mahi
How many of the above rivers drain into the Gulf of Khambhat?
All four
Explanation :
The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) recently evacuated a fisherman from a fishing boat 50 kilometres away from the coast in the Gulf of Khambat.
About Gulf of Khambhat:
The Gulf of Khambhat (also known as the Gulf of Cambay) is an inlet of the Arabian Sea along the west coast of India, in the state of Gujarat.
About 130 kilometres (80 miles) in length, it divides the Kathiawar Peninsula from the south-eastern part of Gujarat.
Geography:
The periphery of the Gulf of Khambhat is an extensive area of estuarine habitats.
The Narmada, Tapti, Mahi and Sabarmati rivers drain into it.
These rivers have deposited alluvium over large areas as the marine recession has united Saurashtra with the mainland of Gujarat.
The Gulf is not very deep and has abundant shoals and sandbanks.
There are extensive areas of intertidal mud and sand flats in the deltas of the Mahi and Sabarmati rivers.
There are some coral reefs around small inlets in the western part of the Gulf.
Its shape and its orientation in relation to the southwest monsoon winds account for its high tidal range (12 metres) and the high velocity of the entering tides.
On the eastern side of the gulf are Bharuch, one of the oldest Indian ports, and Surat, identified with early European commercial contacts with India.
The town of Khambhat is at the head of the gulf.
Consider the following statements regarding the purple-striped jellyfish:
- It is a venomous and bioluminescent jellyfish.
- It is only found in the equatorial seas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, a bloom of venomous mauve stinger or purple-striped jellyfish was reported by marine researchers across the Visakhapatnam coast.
Appearance: It usually appears a blue purple (mauve) colour with a globe shaped umbrella covered in orangey brown warts.
Habitat: It is primarily pelagic, or in the open ocean. However, this species can survive in benthic and temperate coastal habitats.
Distribution: It is found worldwide in tropical and warm-temperature seas. It is mainly found in the Indo-Pacific, Atlantic Ocean, and the Mediterranean Sea.
Unique feature: Unlike other jellyfish species, it has stingers not just on the tentacles, but on the bell too. These are bioluminescent, having an ability to produce light in the dark.
It has a painful sting and causes different degrees of illnesses and can be life-threatening.
It is venomous and causes varying degrees of illness such as diarrhoea, extreme pain, vomiting and anaphylactic shock (a severe allergic reaction that can develop quickly and be life-threatening).
A jellyfish bloom is when the population of the species increases dramatically within a short period of time, usually due to a higher reproduction rate.
According to marine biologists, jellyfish blooms are reported frequently as a result of rising ocean temperatures, one of the main causes of substantial population growths.
Consider the following statements with reference to Agni-Prime missile:
- It is a nuclear-capable new-generation missile.
- It has a maximum range of 1,000 to 2,000 km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The new generation ballistic missile Agni-Prime was successfully flight-tested by the Strategic Forces Command (SFC) along with the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) from the Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island off the coast of Odisha.
It is a nuclear-capable new-generation advanced variant of the Agni class of missiles.
It is a two-stage canisterised missile with a maximum range of 1,000 to 2,000 km.
It is lighter than all the earlier Agni series of missiles. It weighs at least 50 per cent less than the Agni 3 missile and has new guidance and propulsion systems.
It can be transported by road and rail and stored for longer periods, significantly reducing the time required for preparation and launch. The missile uses a cold launch mechanism and can be fired in salvo mode.
The first test of the ‘Agni Prime’ was conducted in 2021, while the second test was conducted six months later in December. Last year in June, the DRDO carried out the first night launch of the ‘Agni Prime’ missile.
What are Ballistic Missiles?
These are launched directly into the upper layers of the earth’s atmosphere.
They travel outside the atmosphere, where the warhead detaches from the missile and falls towards a predetermined target.
They are rocket-propelled self-guided weapons systems which can carry conventional or nuclear munitions. They can be launched from aircraft, ships and submarines, and land.
Sannati, an ancient Buddhist site, is located in:
Karnataka
Explanation :
Sannati Bhddhist site left neglected for many years after it came to light through the ASI excavations in the 1990s, got a restoration project in 2022.
It is the ancient Buddhist site on the bank of Bhima river near Kanaganahalli (forming part of Sannati site) in Kalaburagi district, Karnataka.
It is also popular among tourists for the Chandrala Parameshwari Temple.
Major findings in this site
Maha Stupa: It is believed to have been developed in three constructional phases – Maurya, Early Satavahana and Later Satavahana periods stretching from 3rd Century B.C. to 3rd Century A.D.
Ranamandala area of Sannati offers a unique chronological scale from prehistoric to early historic times.
Inscription: An inscriptions written in the Prakrit language using the Brahmi script is also found here.
Sculpture: The excavation also recovered another precious stone of historical importance – a stone sculpture portraying Mauryan Emperor Ashoka. The emperor is seen surrounded by his queens and female attendants in this rare sculpture. The sculpture had the words “Raya Asoko” etched on it in Brahmi script leaving little scope for mistaking the identity of the man featured in it.
The recoveries included around 60 dome slabs with sculptural renderings of selected Jataka stories, main events in the life of the Master, portraits of Shatavahana monarchs and certain unique depictions of Buddhist missionaries sent by Ashoka to different parts
The site of ancient Nagavi Ghatikasthana, which was often termed the Takshashila of the South by historians, is around 40 km away from Sannati.
The Ghatikasthana, which had the status of a present-day university, was a major education hub during rulers of the Rashtrakuta and Kalyana Chalukya dynasties between the 10th and 12th Centuries.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Paira cropping system:
- It is a kind of relay method of sowing in which lentil seeds are broadcast in the standing crop of rice before its harvest.
- It does not involve the practice of tillage and application of fertilizers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A unique conservation agricultural practice, Paira cropping system has dwindled in recent years due to climate change.
About Paira cropping system:
The utera/paira is a type of cropping which is commonly practiced in Bihar, Eastern Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh and Odisha.
It is a kind of relay method of sowing in which lentil/ lathyrus/ urdbean/ mungbean seeds are broadcast in the standing crop of rice about 2 week before its harvest.
This system does not allow agronomic intervention such as tillage, weeding, irrigation and fertilizer application. However, rice variety decides the productivity of pulses in this system.
Advantages:
This practice enables to use better soil moisture available at the time of harvesting of rice crop, which could otherwise be lost quickly.
Experimental evidences showed that paira cropping produced more yield of lentil than planting with tillage after harvesting of the rice crop.
This is an efficient way of utilising resources for sustainable crop intensification and boosting land productivity.
What is Relay cropping method?
It is a method of multiple cropping where one crop is seeded into standing second crop well before harvesting of second crop.
It can solve a number of conflicts such as inefficient use of available resources, controversies in sowing time, fertilizer application, and soil degradation.
With reference to Smart AI Resource Assistant for Health (S.A.R.A.H.), consider the following statements:
- It is a digital health promoter prototype powered by generative artificial intelligence.
- It is an initiative of the World Health Organisation (WHO).
- It can provide information about diseases in all major languages of the world.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the World Health Organization (WHO) announced the launch of S.A.R.A.H., a digital health promoter prototype.
Smart AI Resource Assistant for Health (S.A.R.A.H.) is a digital health promoter prototype with enhanced empathetic response powered by generative artificial intelligence (AI).
It is launched by the World Health Organisation (WHO).
It aims to provide an additional tool for people to realize their rights to health, wherever they are.
Features
It is trained to provide information across major health topics, including healthy habits and mental health, to help people optimize their health and well-being journey.
It has the ability to support people in developing better understanding of risk factors for some of the leading causes of death in the world, including cancer, heart disease, lung disease, and diabetes.
It can help people access up-to-date information on quitting tobacco, being active, eating a healthy diet, and de-stressing among other things.
It can engage users 24 hours a day in 8 languages on multiple health topics, on any device.
It is now powered by generative AI rather than a pre-set algorithm or script helping her to provide more accurate responses in real-time.
Consider the following statements with reference to the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA):
- It is an intergovernmental organization established to lead a collaborative worldwide movement for doping-free sport.
- It monitors the World Anti-Doping Code (Code), the document harmonizing anti-doping policies in all sports and all countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
India has emerged as the country with the highest percentage of doping offenders, according to the 2022 testing figures released by the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA).
About World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA):
WADA was established in 1999 as an international independent agency to lead a collaborative worldwide movement for doping-free sport.
WADA’s governance and funding are based on an equal partnership between the sport movement and governments of the world.
WADA’s primary role is to develop, harmonize, and coordinate anti-doping rules and policies across all sports and countries.
Its key activities include scientific research, education, the development of anti-doping capacities, and monitoring of the World Anti-Doping Code (Code), the document harmonizing anti-doping policies in all sports and all countries.
Formation:
After the events that shook the world of cycling in the summer of 1998, the International Olympic Committee (IOC) decided to convene a World Conference on Doping.
The First World Conference on Doping in Sport held, in Lausanne, Switzerland, in 1999, produced the Lausanne Declaration on Doping in Sport.
It provided for the creation of an independent international anti-doping agency to be operational for the Games of the XXVII Olympiad in Sydney in 2000.
Pursuant to the terms of the Lausanne Declaration, the WADA was established in 1999, in Lausanne to promote and coordinate the fight against doping in sport internationally.
WADA is a Swiss private law, not-for-profit foundation. Its seat is in Lausanne, Switzerland, and its headquarters are in Montreal, Canada.
Governance Structure:
A 42-member Foundation Board (Board), the agency’s highest policy-making body, is jointly composed of representatives of the Olympic Movement (the IOC, National Olympic Committees, International Sports Federations, and athletes) and representatives of governments from all five continents.
A 16-member Executive Committee (ExCo), to which the Board delegates the management and running of the agency, including the performance of all its activities and the administration of its assets.
With reference to the Strategic Forces Command (SFC) of India, consider the following statements:
- It is responsible for the management and administration of the country’s nuclear weapons stockpile.
- It is the sole body which can authorize the use of nuclear weapons.
- It has the responsibility of initiating the process of delivering nuclear weapons and warheads.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The new generation ballistic missile Agni-Prime was successfully flight-tested by the Strategic Forces Command (SFC) along with the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) recently.
About Strategic Forces Command (SFC):
The SFC, sometimes called Strategic Nuclear Command, forms part of India’s Nuclear Command Authority (NCA), which is responsible for command-and-control decisions regarding India’s nuclear weapons programme.
SFC is responsible for the management and administration of the country’s tactical and strategic nuclear weapons stockpile.
It was created on January 4, 2003.
Responsibility of SFC:
It is the responsibility of the SFC to operationalize the orders of the NCA under the leadership of a Commander-in-Chief who is a Senior Officer.
It has the sole responsibility of initiating the process of delivering nuclear weapons and warheads after acquiring clear approval from the NCA.
Moreover, the final target selection is also done by the SFC through a calibrated, cumulative process involving various levels of decision-making, including formal approval from the NCA.
The SFC manages and administers all strategic forces by exercising complete command and control over nuclear assets, and producing all contingency plans as needed to fulfill the required tasks.
Since its inception, the SFC’s command, control, and communication systems have been firmly established, and the command has attained a high state of operational readiness.
It consists of officers and personnel of the Indian Army, Indian Air Force (IAF), and Indian Navy who are deputed from their respective services.
The Commander-in-Chief, a 3-star General, is appointed on a rotational basis from the three services.
Key Facts about India’s Nuclear Command Authority (NCA):
It is the authority responsible for command, control, and operational decisions regarding India’s nuclear weapons programme.
It comprises a Political Council and an Executive Council.
The Political Council is chaired by the Prime Minister.
It is the sole body which can authorize the use of nuclear weapons.
The Executive Council is chaired by the National Security Advisor.
It provides input for decision-making by the NCA and executes the directives given to it by the Political Council.
An Electroencephalogram (EEG) is primarily used to record:
brain activity
Explanation :
A century after the electroencephalogram (EEG) was discovered, it remains a crucial tool for understanding the brain.
About Electroencephalogram (EEG):
An EEG is a recording of brain activity.
It is a test that detects abnormalities in your brain waves, or in the electrical activity of your brain.
Procedure:
The procedure may be short, often just a 30-minute recording.
During the procedure, electrodes consisting of small metal discs with thin wires are pasted onto your scalp.
The electrodes detect tiny electrical charges that result from the activity of your brain cells.
The charges are amplified and appear as a graph on a computer screen or as a recording that may be printed out on paper.
The EEG procedure is usually carried out by a highly trained specialist, called a clinical neurophysiologist.
Applications:
The EEG is used to evaluate several types of brain disorders. Examples:
When epilepsy is present, seizure activity will appear as rapid spiking waves on the EEG.
People with lesions of their brain, which can result from tumors or strokes, may have unusually slow EEG waves, depending on the size and location of the lesion.
The EEG may also be used to determine the overall electrical activity of the brain (for example, to evaluate trauma, drug intoxication, or extent of brain damage in comatose patients).
The EEG may also be used to monitor blood flow in the brain during surgical procedures.
The Washington Treaty (1949) laid the foundation for which one of the following international organizations?
North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
Explanation :
NATO Foreign Ministers recently gathered at NATO Headquarters to mark 75 years since the signing of the Washington Treaty.
About Washington Treaty:
The Washington Treaty, or North Atlantic Treaty, forms the basis of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO).
The Treaty was signed in Washington D.C. on 4 April, 1949, by 12 founding members.
The Treaty derives its authority from Article 51 of the United Nations Charter, which reaffirms the inherent right of independent states to individual or collective defence.
Collective defence is at the heart of the treaty and is enshrined in Article 5. It commits members to protect each other and sets a spirit of solidarity within the Alliance.
The treaty is short, containing only 14 articles, and provides for in-built flexibility on all fronts.
Despite the changing security environment, the original treaty has never had to be modified, and each ally has the possibility to implement the text in accordance with its capabilities and circumstances.
Key Facts about NATO:
NATO is a military alliance established by the North Atlantic Treaty.
It currently has 32 alliance members from North America and Europe.
NATO’s fundamental goal is to safeguard the Allies’ freedom and security through political and military means.
It is a system of collective defence where independent member states agree for mutual defence in case of any attack by an external party.
Article 5 of the Washington Treaty states that an attack against one ally is an attack against all.
This article forms the core of the Alliance, a promise of collective defense.
Functions:
Political: NATO promotes democratic values and enables members to consult and cooperate on defence and security-related issues to solve problems, build trust, and, in the long run, prevent conflict.
Military: NATO is committed to the peaceful resolution of disputes. If diplomatic efforts fail, it has the military power to undertake crisis-management operations.
In addition to collective defence and key values, the principle of consensus decision-making and the importance of consultation define the spirit of the Organization, together with its defensive nature and flexibility.
Headquarters: Brussels, Belgium.
Consider the following statements with reference to Rakhigarhi:
- It is an archaeological site located in Rajasthan.
- It primarily yields evidence of occupation during the Early and Mature Harappan periods.
- Evidence of both mud bricks and burnt bricks houses was found at this site
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The NCERT recently introduced certain revisions to the history syllabus of Class 12 students, highlighting that Harappans were based out in Rakhigarhi.
About Rakhigarhi:
Location: It is an archaeological site located in Hisar district, Haryana, just 27 km from the Ghaggar river, in the Ghaggar-Hakra river plain.
It is one of the oldest and largest cities of the subcontinent’s earliest known Bronze Age urban culture—the Indus Valley or Harappan Civilization, going back to about 6500 BCE.
It is one of the five known biggest townships of Harappan civilization on the Indian sub-continent. The other four are Harappa, Mohenjodaro, and Ganveriwala in Pakistan, and Dholavira (Gujarat) in India.
Findings:
The exploration around this site has clearly identified seven archaeological mounds spread over an area of approximately 350 ha.
Rakhigarhi primarily yields evidence of occupation during the Early and Mature Harappan periods, with the site being completely abandoned during the Late Harappan period.
The archaeological excavations revealed the mature Harappan phase, represented by a planned township with mud-brick as well as burnt-brick houses with a proper drainage system.
The ceramic industry represented by red ware, which included dish-on-stand, vase, jar, bowl, beaker, perforated jar, goblet, and handis.
Animal sacrificial pits lined with mud bricks and triangular and circular fire alters on the mud floor have also been excavated, that signifies the ritual system of the Harappans.
A cylindrical seal with five Harappan characters on one side and a symbol of an alligator on the other is an important find from this site.
Other antiquities included blades; terracotta and shell bangles; beads of semiprecious stones, terracotta, shell and copper objects; animal figurines, toy cart frame and wheel of terracotta; bone points; inscribed steatite seals, and sealings.
The excavations have yielded a few extended burials, which certainly belong to a very late stage, may be the medieval times.
Consider the following:
- Abrupt discharge of water from glacial lakes
- Glacial calving
- Avalanches
How many of the above can cause the Glacial Lake Outburst Floods?
All three
Explanation :
The Uttarakhand Government has constituted two teams of experts to evaluate the risk posed by five potentially hazardous glacial lakes in the region which are prone to Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs).
These are disaster events caused by the abrupt discharge of water from glacial lakes.
What are glacial lakes?
Glacial lakes are large bodies of water that sit in front of, on top of, or beneath a melting glacier.
As a glacier withdraws, it leaves behind a depression that gets filled with meltwater, thereby forming a lake.
The more the glacier recedes, the bigger and more dangerous the lake becomes. Such lakes are mostly dammed by unstable ice or sediment composed of loose rock and debris.
In case the boundary around them breaks, huge amounts of water rush down the side of the mountains, which could cause flooding in the downstream areas. This is called as Glacial Lake Outburst Flood.
Reasons for GLOFs
It can be triggered by various reasons, including glacial calving, where sizable ice chunks detach from the glacier into the lake, inducing sudden water displacement.
Incidents such as avalanches or landslides can also impact the stability of the boundary around a glacial lake, leading to its failure, and the rapid discharge of water.
Which one of the following statements best describes ‘Project Akashteer?
An initiative by the Indian Army to automate air defense control.
Explanation :
The Indian Army has initiated the induction of control and reporting systems under ‘Project Akashteer’ to bolster its air defense capabilities.
It is a cutting-edge initiative designed to automate air defense control and reporting processes by digitizing them.
It aims to deliver an unprecedented level of situational awareness and control for the force to ensure the safety of friendly aircraft and engage hostile aircraft in contested airspace.
It will enable monitoring of low-level airspace over the battle areas of the Indian Army and effectively control the Ground Based Air Defence Weapon Systems.
Key facts about Akashteer Command and Control Systems
It is developed by Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) as part of the ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ initiative.
The system’s control centers, designed to be vehicle-based and mobile, can maintain operational capabilities even in challenging communication environments.
It will significantly enhance India’s air defense capabilities in several ways:
Efficiency and Integration: By digitizing Air Defence Control and Reporting processes, ‘Akashteer’ will usher in unprecedented levels of efficiency and integration. This will enable the Indian Army to respond swiftly to hostile threats while minimizing the risk of friendly fire incidents.
Situational Awareness: It integrates radar and communication systems into a unified network, providing the Indian Army with unprecedented situational awareness. This will enable them to detect and engage hostile targets more effectively.
Automation: Overall, the deployment of ‘Akashteer’ signifies a leap towards complete automation of air defense operations.
Kumittipathi rock paintings, recently seen in news, are found in:
Tamil Nadu
Explanation :
Miscreants have caused damage to the rock art paintings at the cave at Kumittipathi, a village near Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu.
These paintings believed to be around 3,000 years old and are among the important rock arts in the Kongu region.
Theme: The paintings depict an elephant, ther (chariot, some say it is a peacock), and the lives of early dwellers of the region.
There are small pits and holes in the cave, which are believed to have been used to store water and other belongings.
Material used: They used an inorganic white pigment, along with natural gum to paint the figures.
While most of the rock painting sites in Tamil Nadu are found on rock shelters, those at Kumittipathi are drawn inside a cave.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Southern Ocean:
- It was formed when Antarctica and South America drifted apart.
- It is dominated by the Antarctic Circumpolar Current which circulates clockwise around this continent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Southern Ocean is renowned for having the cleanest air on Earth. But the precise reasons why have remained mysteries until now.
It is also known as the Antarctic Ocean which is one of the five great ocean basins on Earth.
It was formed around 34 million years ago when Antarctica and South America drifted apart, creating the Drake Passage (located between the Antarctic Peninsula’s tip and South America).
It is made up of the portions of the world ocean south of the Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian oceans and their tributary seas surrounding Antarctica below 60° S.
It is known for its strong winds, intense storms, dramatic seasonal changes and cold temperatures.
It is dominated by the Antarctic Circumpolar Current (ACC) which is the longest, strongest, deepest-reaching current on Earth.
The ACC circulates clockwise around the continent, carrying more water around the globe than any other current.
Biodiversity: The Ocean supports a variety of plants and animals, with most animals relying on the rich phytoplankton from the Antarctic Convergence. Marine life includes whales, penguins, orcas, and seals.
With reference to the Retail Direct Scheme of the Reserve Bank of India, consider the following statements:
- It is a scheme that gives access to individual investors to buy government securities.
- It allows the purchase of government securities through the Unified Payments Interface (UPI).
- No fees are levied for facilities provided to the investors under the scheme.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is planning to launch a mobile application aimed at facilitating seamless investment in government securities by retail investors under the RBI Retail Direct Scheme.
It was initially introduced in November 2021.
It gives access to individual investors to maintain gilt accounts with the RBI and invest in government securities.
The scheme enables investors to buy securities in primary auctions as well as buy/sell securities through the NDS-OM platform.
Negotiated Dealing System - Order Matching system (NDS-OM) means RBI’s screen based anonymous electronic order matching system for trading in Government securities in the secondary market.
It is a comprehensive scheme which provides the following facilities to retail investors in government securities market through an online portal: Open and maintain a ‘Retail Direct Gilt Account’, access to primary issuance of government securities, and access to NDS-OM.
Eligibility: Retail investors can register under the scheme and maintain an RDG account, if they have the following: Rupee savings bank account maintained in India, PAN, any officially valid document for KYC purpose, valid email-ID and registered mobile number.
Payments for transactions can be done conveniently using a saving bank account through internet-banking or Unified Payments Interface (UPI).
Investor services include provisions for transaction and balance statements, nomination facility, pledge or lien of securities and gift transactions. No fees will be charged for facilities provided under the scheme.
To further improve ease of access, a mobile application of the Retail Direct portal is being developed. The app will enable investors to buy and sell instruments on the go, at their convenience.
Consider the following statements with reference to Sierra Leone:
- It is a tropical country in West Africa, on the Atlantic coast.
- It was a former French colony and became independent after the Second World War.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Sierra Leone’s President recently declared a national emergency on substance abuse following calls on his government to crack down on the rising use of a cheap and sometimes deadly synthetic drug known as kush.
About Sierra Leone:
It is a tropical country in West Africa, on the Atlantic coast.
Borders: It is bordered on the north and east by Guinea, on the south by Liberia, and on the west by the Atlantic Ocean.
Geography: The nation is largely made up of lightly wooded hills with a concentration of mangrove swamps along the coast.
Rivers: Some of the major ones include the Rokel River, Taia River, Moa River, and Sewa River.
History:
Sierra Leone was colonized in 1787 by formerly enslaved people arriving from England; other groups followed from Nova Scotia (1792) and Jamaica (1800).
They were sponsored and governed by the private Sierra Leone Company until 1808, when Britain made Sierra Leone a crown colony.
In 1961, Sierra Leone became independent of the UK.
Population: It has a population of about 7.5 million people. It is home to 16 ethnic groups. Each group has their own language and traditional attire.
Language: English is the official language; however, Krio is the language that is understood by most of the population.
Government: It is a constitutional republic with a directly elected president and a unicameral legislature.
Capital: The capital, Freetown, commands one of the world’s largest natural harbours.
Economy:
Although most of the population is engaged in subsistence agriculture, Sierra Leone is also a mining centre.
Its land yields diamonds, gold, bauxite, and rutile (titanium dioxide).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
Agnilet engine, recently seen in news, is the:
world’s first single-piece 3D semi-cryogenic rocket engine
Explanation :
For the second time, the launch of AgniKul ‘Agnibaan SOrTeD’ has been postponed.
About Agnibaan SOrTeD:
Agnibaan SubOrbital Technological Demonstrator (SOrTeD) is a single-stage launch vehicle powered by AgniKul’s patented Agnilet engine.
It is an entirely 3D-printed, single-piece, 6 kilonewton (kN) semi-cryogenic engine.
It is the world’s first single piece 3D printed semi-cryogenic rocket engine.
It will be launched from India’s first private launchpad, ALP-01, located inside the Indian space agency ISRO’s Sriharikota spaceport.
Features:
It is India’s first ever vehicle equipped with a semicryogenic engine, the Agnilet, a subcooled liquidoxygen-based propulsion system developed indigenously.
The rocket engine will burn kerosene in liquid oxygen and can be directly used in the rocket.
It stands 18 meters tall and is 1.3 meters in diameter.
It has the capability to carry a 100-kg payload up to a height of 700 km with a lift of mass of 14,000 Kgs.
It can access both low- and high-inclination orbits and is completely mobile.
It will also have the first ever Ethernet-based avionics architecture and fully in-house developed autopilot software from India.
The rocket is also designed for launch from more than 10 different launch ports.
To ensure its compatibility with multiple launch ports, AgniKul has built a launch pedestal named ‘Dhanush’ that will support the rocket’s mobility across all its configurations.
With reference to ‘Arzi Hukumat-e-Azad Hind’ or the provincial government of free India in Singapore, consider the following statements:
- Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose was the Head of State, Prime Minister and Minister of War.
- Captain Lakshmi headed the women’s organisation while SA Ayer headed the publicity wing.
- The government was supported by the Allied powers of World War II.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Bollywood actor-turned-politician Kangana Ranaut recently stirred up a storm after she claimed that Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose was the first prime minister of India by citing a news article clipping that purportedly mentioned that Bose had declared himself the PM of ‘Azad Hind’ in 1943.
About Azad Hind Government:
In 1943, on October 21, Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose announced the formation of the ‘Arzi Hukumat-e-Azad Hind’ or the provincial government of free India in Singapore and declared war on the British Empire.
Under the provisional Government, Bose was the Head of State, Prime Minister, and Minister of War.
Captain Lakshmi headed the women’s organisation while SA Ayer headed the publicity wing in the newly formed government.
Revolutionary leader Ras Behari Bose was designated as the supreme adviser by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose.
The government was supported by the Axis powers of Imperial Japan, Nazi Germany, the Italian Social Republic, and their allies.
Significance of the Azad Hind government:
Soon after the formation of the government, the Azad Hind government proclaimed authority over Indian civilian and military personnel in Southeast Asian British colonial territory and prospective authority over Indian territory to fall to the Japanese forces and the Indian National Army during the Second World War.
The provisional government not only enabled Bose to negotiate with the Japanese on an equal footing but also allowed him to mobilise Indians living in East Asia to join and support the Indian National Army (INA).
The Indian National Army drew ex-prisoners and thousands of civilian volunteers from the Indian expatriate population in Malaya (present-day Malaysia) and Burma (now Myanmar).
The provisional government was also formed in the Japanese-occupied Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The islands were reoccupied by the British in 1945.
The Azad Hind government under Bose had in fact started its own bank, currency, civil code, and stamps.
Bose had even formed the first women’s regiment of the INA, the Rani Jhansi Regiment, thus laying the foundation for equal opportunity for women in armed forces.
With reference to the Changpa Tribe, consider the following statements:
- They are semi-nomadic people found mainly in the Tawang Valley of Arunachal Pradesh.
- They profess Tibetan Buddhism as their religion.
- They rear the Changra goats that yield the Pashmina fibre.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Climate activist Sonam Wangchuk and Leh Apex Body (LAB) decided to call off the Pashmina border march aimed at highlighting the plight of the Changpa nomadic tribes who are losing thousands of square kilometres of their land “due to Chinese incursion.
About Changpa Tribe:
The Changpa, or Champa, are semi-nomadic people found mainly in the Changtang plateau of southeastern Ladakh.
A smaller number resides in the western regions of the Tibet Autonomous Region in China.
They share linguistic and cultural affinities with Tibetans.
They are high-altitude pastoralists, raising mainly yaks and goats. They live at an average altitude of 4,500 metresabove sea level.
Religion: All Changpa families profess Tibetan Buddhism as their religion.
They can be identified by their conical yak-skin tents called reboo.
Each reboo invariably accommodates the family deity, and a picture of their spiritual head, in most cases, the Dalai Lama.
Semi-nomadic Lifestyle:
The Changpa who live nomadic lives are known as Phalpa, while those who have settled down in fixed locations are called Fangpa.
For many Changpas, rearing of animals and consuming and selling their produce (milk and its products, hair, and meat) is the only means of livelihood.
They rear the highly pedigreed and prized Changra goats (Capra Hircus) that yield the rare Pashmina (Cashmere) fibre. It is the finest fibre of all goat hair.
Their Buddhist belief does not allow them to kill animals for meat. It is only when animals die a natural death that the carcasses can be used for meat and hide, which the Changpas use to line their huts and make garments.
In 1989, the Changpa were granted official status in India as a scheduled tribe.
Which mountain pass does the Nimmu-Padum-Darcha Road, recently seen in the news, traverse through?
Shinkun La Pass
Explanation :
By establishing connectivity on the 298-km Nimmu-Padam-Darcha Road in Ladakh, the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) has accomplished a significant milestone.
About Nimmu-Padum-Darcha Road:
The Nimmu-Padum-Darcha road (NPDR), also known as the Zanskar Highway, serves as a vital link between the Indian Union Territory of Ladakh and the state of Himachal Pradesh, traversing through the picturesque region of Zanskar, Ladakh.
It is an all-weather 298-km long road from Manali (Himachal Pradesh) to Leh (Ladakh) through Darcha and Nimmu on the Kargil–Leh Highway.
It was constructed by the Border Roads Organisation (BRO).
It is now the third axis, apart from Manali-Leh Road (428 km) and Srinagar-Leh Road (439 km), which connects Ladakh to the hinterland.
It derives its strategic importance from the fact that it is not only shorter vis-a-vis the other two axes, but crosses only one pass—Shinkun La (16,558 feet)—on which tunnel work is about to commence by the BRO.
It will be the first all-weather road connecting Ladakh to the rest of the country.
The connectivity will strengthen defence preparedness and provide a boost to economic development in the Zanskar valley.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Green Credit Programme:
- The green credits generated through environmentally conscious practices can be traded on a domestic market platform.
- The registered entities can pay to finance afforestation projects in specific tracts of degraded forests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Environment Ministry announced the rules for its Green Credit Programme (GCP) and within a short span of time ten States have identified parcels of degraded forest land, amounting to about 3,853 hectares.
It aims to incentivise environmentally conscious practices and promote a sustainable lifestyle through a market-based mechanism.
Green credits generated through such actions can be traded on a domestic market platform.
According to rules, environment-friendly actions include
Tree plantation, water management, sustainable agriculture, waste management, air pollution reduction, mangrove conservation and restoration, ecomark label development, and sustainable building and infrastructure.
As per the scheme, individuals, industries, farmers producer’s organisations (FPOs), urban local bodies (ULB), gram panchayats, and the private sector, among a host of other entities, will be able to earn green credit for undertaking environment-friendly actions.
Under the scheme, registered and approved entities can pay to finance afforestation projects in specific tracts of degraded forest and wasteland. The actual afforestation will be carried out by State forest departments.
In its initial phase, the GCP focuses on two key activities: Water conservation and Afforestation
Implementing Agency: Two years after planting — and following an evaluation by the International Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), an autonomous body of the Environment Ministry — each planted tree could be worth one ‘green credit’.
The Green Credit Registry and trading platform, being developed by ICFRE along with experts, would facilitate the registration and thereafter, the buying and selling of Green Credits.
Arrokoth, a double-lobed object in space, is located in/on:
Kuiper Belt
Explanation :
Recently, scientists proposed a model to explain Arrokoth’s ice core.
It is one of thousands of ‘icy worlds” in the Kuiper Belt, or the outer zone of the solar system that lies beyond Neptune. In the language of the Powhatan tribe, Arrokoth means “sky”.
It is the farthest object in space that has been explored by a human space-craft. It was discovered in 2014 using the Hubble Space Telescope.
It is a double-lobed object and resembles a snowman. It is believed it may have ancient ‘gaseous ice’ stored deep within it from when the object first formed billions of years ago.
Key facts about Kuiper Belt
It is also called the Edgeworth-Kuiper belt, is a flat ring of small icy bodies that revolve around the Sun beyond the orbit of the planet Neptune.
It is named after Gerard Kuiper, a Dutch-American astronomer who hypothesised the existence of such a region in the 1950s.
There are millions of these icy objects, collectively referred to as Kuiper Belt objects (KBOs) or trans-Neptunian objects (TNOs), in this belt.
Composition: The Kuiper Belt is primarily composed of small icy bodies, such as dwarf planets, asteroids, and comets.
Phanigiri, a famous Buddhist site in India, is located in :
Telangana
Explanation :
Recently, the Department of Archaeology and Museums have unearthed a coin hoard at the Phanigiri in Suryapet district, Telangana.
It is a famous Buddhist site located 110 km away from Hyderabad.
This site derived its name from the shape of the hillock, which appears to be like a snake hood. The word Phani in Sanskrit means snake and Giri means hillock.
It is believed to be one of the important Buddhist monasteries strategically located on the ancient trade route (Dakshinapatha) connecting the west and the east coast of the Deccan.
Other findings of the excavation
Coins: Lead coins with elephant symbol on one side and Ujjain symbol on the other side are found.
According to the archaeologists, the coins belong to the Ikshvaku period dated between 3rd century and 4th century Common Era.
Also stone beads, glass beads, shell bangle fragments, stucco motifs, broken limestone sculptures, a wheel of a toy cart, final nails and pottery are excavated.
Mahastupa, apsidal Chaityagrihas, Votive stupas, pillared congregation halls, Viharas, platforms with staircases at various levels, octagonal stupa chaitya, 24-pillared mandapam, circular chaitya, and cultural materials that included terracotta beads, semi-precious beads, iron objects, Brahmi label inscriptions and holy relic casket are also excavated.
All the cultural material is datable from the 1st century BCE to 4th century CE.
Consider the following statements regarding the World Health Day:
- It is celebrated every year since 1921 to raise awareness about global health issues.
- The theme of World Health Day 2024 is ‘My health, my right’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
World Health Day 2024 is celebrated every year on April 7.
It is aimed at raising awareness about global health issues and encourage people to live healthier.
History
The origin of World Health Day goes back to 1948 when First Health Assembly was held by the organisation, where it was decided to commemorate April 7 as World Health Day and it came into effect in 1950.
Over the years, the celebrations have aimed to create awareness around a specific health theme to highlight a priority area of concern for the World Health Organization.
The theme of 2024 World Health Day is ‘My health, my right’.
This year’s theme was chosen to champion the right of everyone, everywhere to have access to quality health services, education, and information, as well as safe drinking water, clean air, good nutrition, quality housing, decent working and environmental conditions, and freedom from discrimination.
With reference to well-known Trademark, consider the following statements:
- It is granted under the Trade Marks Act, 1999 to food items.
- It provides additional protection against unauthorized use of the trademarked product.
- It cannot be licensed or franchised to others.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Delhi High Court declared that the “Haldiram” mark is a well-known trademark with respect to food items, restaurants and eateries not only in India but globally also.
The Trade Marks Act, 1999, provides protection to well-known trademarks to prevent misuse and obligates the Registrar to safeguard them against similar trademarks.
Once a mark is declared well-known, the owner can prevent others from registering or using identical or similar marks for different goods and services.
This trademark mark can be licensed or franchised to others, providing the owner with an additional source of revenue.
Factors that can be considered when determining whether a trademark is well-known are:
The degree of knowledge or recognition of the mark in the relevant section of the public in India
The duration, extent, and geographical area of any use of the mark
The duration, extent, and geographical area of any promotion of the mark in India.
The degree of inherent or acquired distinctiveness of the mark
The extent to which the mark has been registered in India or in other countries.
Significance of Well-known Trademark
Well-known trademarks are highly valuable assets for businesses. They contribute to brand recognition, consumer trust, and market competitiveness.
The recognition of a trademark as “well-known” grants it additional protection against unauthorized use, even for goods or services not directly related to the original trademark. This protection helps prevent consumer confusion and safeguards the reputation and distinctiveness of the mark.
What is a trademark?
It is a distinctive sign or indicator used by a business organisation to distinguish its products or services from those of other entities.
It serves as a badge of origin exclusively identifying a particular business as a source of goods or services. Trademark infringement is the unauthorised usage of a sign that is identical or deceptively similar to a registered trademark.
Which of the following schedules of Indian Constitution is also known as the Anti defection law?
10th schedule
Explanation :
The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, also known as the Anti-Defection Law, was introduced in 1985. The law ensures that party members do not violate the party’s mandate and that if they do, they will forfeit their House membership.
Consider the following:
- Money Bill
- Finance Bill
- Constitutional amendment bill
- Ordinary bills
How many of the above types of bills can be introduced in the Parliament?
Only four
Explanation :
A bill is a draft of a legislative proposal. Once introduced, it is assigned to a committee that will research, discuss, and make changes to the bill. When passed by both houses of Parliament and assented to by the President, a bill becomes an act of Parliament.
The four main types of bills in Parliament are Ordinary bills, money bills, finance bills, and constitutional amendment bills.
Consider the following statements with reference to Ordinary bills:
- It can only be introduced by a Minister in the Parliament.
- It can be concerned with any matter of administration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Statement 1 is incorrect: Ordinary bills can be introduced by a Minister of the government or by a private member of either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha.
Statement 2 is incorrect: An ordinary bill is a draft legislation that deals with any matter other than financial property, such as taxation, borrowing, or expenditure of money.
Therefore, option d is the correct answer.
With reference to Constitutional Amendment Bills, consider the following statement:
- It can only be introduced in Parliament and not in State legislatures.
- Prior recommendation of the President is necessary before its introduction.
- It can be passed by both the Houses of Parliament with a simple majority.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Constitutional amendment bills can be introduced in either House of Parliament ( Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) and not in the state legislatures
Statement 2 is incorrect: According to Article 368 of the Indian Constitution, a Constitutional Amendment Act does not require prior approval from the President. A minister or a private member can introduce a bill to amend the Constitution in either house of Parliament.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.
Therefore, option a is the correct answer.
Which one of the following is empowered to extend the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
Parliament
Explanation :
The Parliament is empowered to extend the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. However, the Parliament is not authorised to curtail the jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court. The Constitution has guaranteed various jurisdictions to the Supreme Court.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Chief Justice of India (CJI):
1.
S/He has a fixed tenure same as that of other Supreme Court judges.
2. S/He decides the composition of benches and assigns cases to judges.
- S/He recommends her/his successor’s name to the government.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
● The Constitution of India has not fixed the tenure of the Chief Justice of India. However, Article 124 of the Constitution states that all Supreme Court judges (including CJI) hold office until he/she attains the age of 65 years. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● The Supreme Court in the Shanti Bhushan vs Supreme Court of India case ruled that the Chief Justice of India was the first among equals (judges) and had “exclusive prerogative in the allocation of cases and the constitution of benches”. “As a repository of constitutional trust CJI is an institution in itself.” CJI was the master of the roster and had sole discretion. So, statement 2 is correct.
● As per the Memorandum of Procedure governing the appointment of members of the higher judiciary, “appointment to the office of the Chief Justice of India should be of the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court considered fit to hold the office”. It stipulates that the law minister would, at an appropriate time, seek the recommendation of the outgoing Chief Justice of India for the appointment of the next CJI. Under this process, after receipt of the recommendation of the CJI, the law minister puts it before the Prime Minister who advises the President on the matter of appointment. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the power of judicial review of Supreme Courts:
- It is used to examine the constitutionality of executive orders of the Central as well as the State Governments.
- The Constitution of India confers the power of judicial review on Supreme Courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Judicial review is the power of a Supreme court to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders of both the Central and State Governments. On examination, if they are found to be violative of the Constitution (ultra-vires), they can be declared as illegal, unconstitutional and invalid (null and void) by the high court. Consequently, they cannot be enforced by the government. So, statement 1 is correct.
The phrase ‘judicial review’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution. However, the provisions of Article 13 and Article 32 confer the power of judicial review on the Supreme Court. The constitutional validity of a legislative enactment or an executive order can be challenged in a high court on the following three grounds:
o it infringes the fundamental rights (Part III)
o it is outside the competence of the authority which has framed it
o it is repugnant to the constitutional provisions. So, Statement 2 is correct.
With reference to the judicial review, consider the following statements:
- The concept of judicial review in the Constitution of India is taken from the British Constitution.
- Judicial review is part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Judicial review is the power bestowed upon the judiciary by the Constitution, by virtue of which the judiciary can examine legislative enactments and executive orders of the governments, be it State or Central. This doctrine traces its origin to the United States of America. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The right to judicial review is possessed by both the Supreme Courts and the High Courts of the country.
The Supreme Court’s verdict in L. Chandra Kumar vs Union of India said that the judicial review of legislature and administrative action is part of the Constitution’s basic structure. The doctrine of judicial review was authoritatively added to the list of Basic Features of the Constitution by the Supreme Court in the case of Minerva Mills. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements:
- A judge of the Supreme Court or High Court can be removed only on the ground of proven misbehaviour or incapacity.
- Till now, no judge of the Supreme Court has been removed by Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A judge of the Supreme Court or High Court can be removed only on the ground of proven misbehaviour or incapacity. A motion containing the charges against the judge must be approved by special majority in both Houses of the Parliament. So, statement 1 is correct.
So far, only one case of removal of a judge of the Supreme Court came up for consideration before Parliament. In that case, though the motion got two-thirds majority, it did not have the support of the majority of the total strength of the House and therefore, the judge was not removed. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements:
- The Constitution of India declares Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court.
- The Parliament after consultation with the Chief Justice of India can change the seat of the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Article 130 of the Constitution of India provides that the Supreme Court shall sit in New Delhi or any other place(s) as the Chief Justice of India may provide, after approval from the President. So, statement 1 is correct.
If the Chief Justice (after taking relevant factors into account) feels that the Court should sit elsewhere, s/he can seek the President’s approval for it. No court can give any direction either to the President or to the Chief Justice to appoint any other place as a seat of the Supreme Court. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Supreme Court has in fact sat outside New Delhi twice. The Court under the respective tenure of Chief Justice H.J Kania and Chief Justice Mehr Chand Mahajan sat in Hyderabad and Kashmir.
Which of the following is not a potential cause of windfall profits?
A consistent and predictable market deman
Explanation :
Amid an extended ban on onion exports, farmers and traders are miffed that some shipments allowed by the government to markets like the UAE have been sold at a pittance, yielding windfall profits for selected importers.
About Windfall Profit:
A windfall profit refers to a sudden increase in profits, typically caused by an unexpected event or circumstance.
Such profits are generally well above historical norms and may occur due to factors such as a price spike or supply shortage that are either temporary in nature or longer-lasting.
Windfall profits are generally reaped by an entire industry sector but can also find their way to an individual company or individual.
Among the reasons that windfall profits can arise are a sudden change in market structure, an executive order from the government, a court ruling, or a dramatic shift in trade policy.
In terms of an individual, a windfall profit/gain could be a spike in income as a result of a specific, one-time event, such as winning the lottery or inheriting a fortune or valuable property.
Businesses typically use these profits in part to increase dividends, buy back shares, reinvest in the business for future growth, or reduce debt.
Windfall Tax:
Windfall profits often receive a windfall tax.
It is a tax levied by governments against certain industries when economic conditions allow those industries to experience significantly above-average profits.
In the context of start-ups, the term ‘funding winter’ refers to:
period of market correction in capital inflow
Explanation :
Investments from large foreign investors, like Accel, Peak XV Partners, Tiger Global, and Softbank, fell by as much as 80 per cent on average in 2023, amid the Indian startup ecosystem’s so-called funding winter.
About Funding Winter:
Funding winter refers to a period of market correction in capital inflow, which lowers the probability of startups getting higher valuations in the short to mid-term.
Simply put, founders find it difficult to raise funding and achieve sky-high valuations.
It often leads to investors avoiding firms without a set path chalked out for profitability. This, in turn, prompts a need to correct the value of the start-up.
Further, one of the prominent effects of funding winter is that it requires business owners to reset their priorities in terms of profit maximization.
Effects:
With the funding winter in place, start-ups resort to measures which help them save their working capital, as the expectations of funding from investors are minimal.
The advertisement expenses, capital expenditures, and expansion plans are put to a halt in order to increase the sustainability of the firm.
Only the expenditure essential to the survival of the firm is undertaken, and all possible steps are put in place to ensure unnecessary expenses.
Funding winter is not a new concept but a cyclical effect that happens due to multiple factors which impact the free flow of investments in the market.
These factors may either be generically applicable to the entire market, such as geopolitical unrest in countries, monetary policies, or financial irregularities or may be centric to the relevant sectors.
The duration of a funding winter is unpredictable, and it may last for a long time depending on the multiple factors acting upon it.
The Suvidha Portal developed by the Election Commission of India (ECI) is primarily aimed at:
streamlining the process of permission requests from political parties
Explanation :
The Election Commission recently said its Suvidha portal has received over 73,000 applications since the Lok Sabha polls were announced, seeking permission for various campaigning activities.
About Suvidha Portal:
It is a technological solution developed by the Election Commission of India (ECI) to ensure a level playing field upholding the democratic principles of free, fair, and transparent elections.
It streamlined the process of obtaining and acting upon requests for permissions and facilities from political parties and candidates during the election period.
Recognizing the importance of the election campaign period, where parties and candidates engage in activities to reach out to voters, the Suvidha Portal caters to a diverse range of permission requests transparently on the First in First Out principle.
Political parties and candidates can seamlessly submit permission requests online from anywhere, at any time.
Additionally, offline submission options are available to ensure inclusivity and equal opportunity for all stakeholders.
It caters to permissions for organising rallies, opening temporary party offices, door-to-door canvassing, video vans, helicopters, obtaining vehicle permits, distributing pamphlets.
Supported by a robust IT platform, managed by nodal officers across various state departments, the Suvidha Portal facilitates the efficient processing of permission requests.
Suvidha also has a companion app that enables applicants to track the status of their requests in real time, adding further convenience and transparency to the process.
Furthermore, the permission data available on the portal serves as a valuable resource for scrutinising election expenditures, contributing to greater accountability and integrity in the electoral process.
With reference to the Ural River, consider the following statements:
- It flows through Russia and Kazakhstan.
- It empties into the Black Sea, which lies between Europe and Asia.
- Melting snow constitutes the majority of the river’s water source.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Russia recently declared a “federal emergency” in the southern Orenburg region as the Ural River inundated Orsk, prompting the evacuation of thousands of people.
About Ural River:
It is a 2,428 km long river that flows through Russia and Kazakhstan along the continental boundary between Europe and Asia.
It is also referred to as the Zhayyq River in the native Kazakh language.
Course:
The river originates in the Ural Mountains, close to Mount Kruglaya in Russia.
It empties into the Caspian Sea; the world’s largest inland sea that lies between Europe and Asia.
It is Europe’s third-longest river, after the Volga and the Danube rivers, and Asia’s 19th longest river.
Melting snow constitutes about 60% to 70% of the river’s water source, while precipitation is a minor source.
A prominent feature of the Ural River is its digitate delta, or tree-like structure, that can be seen as the river enters the Caspian Sea.
Tributaries:
It has a total of58 tributaries, with the most prominent ones being Kushum, Derkul, Chagan, Irtek, Utva, Elek, Bolshaya Chobda, Kindel, Sakmara, Tanalyk, Salmys, Or, and Suunduk.
Tributaries from the right side are typical mountain rivers, while the left side tributaries have flatland characteristics.
Consider the following statements regarding AUKUS:
- It is a trilateral security partnership between the United Kingdom, the United States of America and Australia.
- It is designed to equip Australia with nuclear-powered attack submarines (SSNs).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The U.S., Britain and Australia are set to begin talks on bringing new members into their AUKUS security pact.
About AUKUS:
It is a trilateral security partnership between the United Kingdom, the United States of America, and Australia agreed in 2021.
AUKUS is intended to strengthen the ability of each government to support security and defense interests, building on longstanding and ongoing bilateral ties.
It consists of two key pillars.
Pillar 1 focuses on supporting Australia to acquire its first conventionally armed, nuclear-powered submarine fleet. (It does not involve the transfer of nuclear weapons to Australia.)
Pillar 2 focuses on cooperation in eight advanced military capability areas:artificial intelligence (AI), quantum technologies, innovation, information sharing, and cyber, undersea, hypersonic and counter-hypersonic and electronic warfare domains.
Submarine Component:
It is designed to equip Australia with nuclear-powered attack submarines (SSNs).
In total, Australia will end up with eight of the new nuclear submarines, called SSN-AUKUS.
These submarines will be based on a British design but have American technology or an American combat system.
AUKUS will make Australia the seventh country in the world to be armed with nuclear-powered submarines and the second, after the United Kingdom, with whom the United States has shared this technology.
It will significantly enhance Australia’s undersea capabilities in the Indo-Pacific as nuclear-powered submarines offer many advantages, such as extended range, endurance, and stealth—features.
These countries, however, made it clear that their aim is not to arm the new submarines with nuclear weapons. This is because Australia is a signatory to the Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty (NPT), which bans it from acquiring or deploying nuclear weapons.
Consider the following statements with reference to Mangal Pandey:
- He worked in the 34th Bengal Native Infantry of the British East India Company.
- He revolted against East India Company for introducing cartridges that were greased with animal fat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Mangal Pandey played a significant role in Sepoy Mutiny of 1857 whose death anniversary is celebrated on April 8 every year.
Mangal Pandey played a crucial role in India’s first rebellion against British rule in 1857.
He is considered the hero of the first war of Independence, also known as the Sepoy Mutiny of 1857.
Early life
He was born on July 19, 1827 near Faizabad in Uttar Pradesh.
In 1849, Pandey joined the army of the British East India Company and served as a sepoy in the 6th Company of the 34th Bengal Native Infantry in Barrackpore.
Rebellion against East India Company
He revolted against the East India Company for introducing cartridges that were greased with animal fat as it hurt the religious sentiments of the soldiers.
This movement of rebels reached other parts of India and led to a mass revolt against the colonial rulers. Common people too came out and opposed anti-India laws.
On March 29, 1857, Pandey mutinied and fired at his Senior Sergeant Major. He was overpowered and hanged on April 8, 1857, by the order of a Court Martial at Lal Bagan in Barrackpore. His regiment was disbanded, like the 19th infantry at Behrampore, for showing resentment.
Satpula dam, recently seen in news, was built during the reign of:
Muhammad Shah Tughlaq
Explanation :
Delhi’s oldest surviving Satpula dam, which was built during 14th-century still stands strong.
Satpula (‘sat’ means seven and ‘pull’ means openings of a bridge) was constructed during the reign of Sultan Muhammad Shah Tughlaq (1325-1351).
This structure was built using Delhi quartz — a stone found in the Aravallis.
It was developed as an integral component of defence wall of the fourth city of Delhi, Jahanpanah.
The dam served two purposes: Providing a reliable source of water for irrigation, and acting as a defence against possible intruders.
It was developed by identifying appropriate topography, i.e., a large open plain where water can be stored for irrigating large flat lands. Hence, this structure with sluice gates and a reservoir was developed.
Since Sufi saint Nasiruddin Mahmud (popularly known as Chirag Dehlavi) used to live nearby, people used to believe that the canal water had healing properties.
For centuries, the area used to host a Diwali mela and the attendees would take a holy dip in the waters and even collect some to take home.
The Oceanic Niño Index is released by:
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Explanation :
Recently, the US National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration has predicted an 83% probability of the Oceanic Niño Index (ONI) transitioning to a neutral range by April-June 2024.
It is the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration’s (NOAA) primary indicator for monitoring the ocean part of the seasonal climate pattern called the El Niño-Southern Oscillation, or “ENSO”.
The ONI tracks the running 3-month average sea surface temperatures in the east-central tropical Pacific between 120°-170°W, near the International Dateline, and whether they are warmer or cooler than average.
Index values of +0.5 or higher indicate El Niño and values of -0.5 or lower indicate La Niña.
What are El Nino and La Nina?
El Nino and La Nina are two opposing climate trends that deviate from the normal conditions and normally run nine to twelve months, but can often extend.
These events occur every two to seven years on average (El Nino is more frequent than La Nina), but not on a regular basis and together are referred to as the El Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) cycle by scientists.
El Nino is typically known as the warm phase (a band of warmer water spreading from west to east in the equatorial Pacific Ocean) and La Nina is identified as the cold phase (a band of cooler water spreads east-west) of ENSO.
Both El Nino and La Nina can have global effects on weather, wildfires, ecosystems and economics.
Two reasons why food inflation may soften in the months ahead
Consider the following statements with reference to the Lab Grown minibrain:
- It is developed by using only adult stem cells.
- It can be helpful in drug development and computer science.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Minibrains grown in the lab may help explain why concussions and other Traumatic Brain Injuries (TBIs) raise people’s risk of dementia.
These are scientifically known as brain organoids, but often called “minibrains” and serve as miniature, simplified models of full-size human brains.
How are minibrains made?
Scientists typically grow brain organoids from stem cells, a type of immature cell that can give rise to any cell type, whether blood, skin, bowel or brain.
The stem cells used to grow organoids can either come from adult human cells, or more rarely, human embryonic tissue.
Scientists collect adult cells and then expose them to chemicals in order to revert them into a stem cell-like state. The resulting stem cells are called “induced pluripotent stem cells” (iPSC), which can be made to grow into any kind of tissue.
To give rise to a minibrain, scientists embed these stem cells in a protein-rich matrix, a substance that supports the cells as they divide and form a 3D shape. Alternatively, the cells may be grown atop a physical, 3D scaffold.
Application: These organoids can potentially be useful in basic research, drug development and even computer science.
With reference to Mid-Day Meal scheme, consider the following statements:
- It is a Central Sector Scheme.
- It aims to increase the attendance of children in government and government-aided schools.
- Under this scheme hot cooked meal is provided to all children of classes 1 to 8 in the local body school.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Indonesian delegation explores collaboration with India on various initiatives under President-elect Prabowo, including mid-day meal scheme and digital inclusion.
It is the largest school feeding programme of its kind in the world which covers children across Classes 1 to 8 (age group 6 to 14).
Background:
In 1925, a Mid Day Meal Programme was introduced for disadvantaged children in Madras Municipal Corporation.
It was started in India on 15th August 1995 as ‘National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education (NP-NSPE)’.
It was renamed as ‘National Programme of Mid-Day Meal in Schools’ in October 2007, also known as the Mid-Day Meal (MDM) Scheme.
Under the scheme, hot cooked meal per day is provided to all children (studying in Class I to VIII) enrolled in government schools, local body schools, government-aided schools, special training centres (STC), maktabs and madrasas supported under the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan.
Objectives:
Increase the enrolment in the schools of the children who belong to disadvantaged sections of the society.
Increase the attendance of the children in government and government-aided schools.
To retain the children studying in class I to VIII.
To give nutritional support to the children studying in the elementary stage, especially in the drought-affected areas.
To address hunger and malnutrition and improve socialisation among castes.
Implementation: Each State/UT has to set up State Steering-cum Monitoring Committees (SSMCs) at the State, District and Block level to oversee the implementation of this scheme, including establishing a mechanism to maintain the quality and nutritional standards of the meals.
Funding: It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. Hence, the cost is shared between the Centre (60%) and States (40%) with states and UTs with a legislature, and 90:10 with the Northeastern states, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand, while the Centre bears 100% of the costs in UTs without legislature.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Education
In 2021 it was renamed as the Pradhan Mantri POSHAN Scheme.
Consider the following statements regarding Neptis philyra, recently seen in the news:
- It is a rare species of butterfly.
- It is found only in the Western Ghats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A rare butterfly species named Neptis philyra has been recently discovered for the first time in India in Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary.
About Neptis philyra:
It is a rare species of butterfly, commonly known as the long-streak sailor.
Till date, the butterfly species was known to be found across various regions of east Asia, including eastern Siberia, Korea, Japan, central and southwest China.
The butterfly has serrated wings with rich brownish-black on the upper side and yellow brown on the underside.
The butterfly’s distinct markings include a white cell streakforming a “hockey stick” pattern on the forewing.
The species, which is part of the Nymphalidae family, is known to prefer habitats such as evergreen forests, riverine vegetation and rocky streams.
Consider the following statements regarding TSAT-1A, recently seen in the news:
- It is an Earth observation satellite of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
- It has the ability to capture military grade imagery of Earth’s surface with sub-meter resolution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL) recently announced the successful deployment in space of its sub-metre resolution optical satellite, TSAT-1A, by SpaceX’s Falcon 9 rocket.
About TSAT-1A:
It is an optical sub-metre-resolution Earth observation satellite.
It was built by Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL) in collaboration with Latin American company Satellogic Inc, following a collaboration agreement between the two companies in late November 2023.
TSAT-1A was assembled in TASL’s Assembly, Integration, and Testing (AIT) plant at its Vemagal facility in Karnataka.
It was launched by SpaceX’s Falcon 9 rocket from the Kennedy Space Center, Florida, in the US.
Features:
TSAT-1A’s core strength lies in its ability to capture military grade imagery of Earth’s surface with sub-meter resolution.
It is equipped with both multispectral and hyperspectral imaging capabilities. This technology allows TSAT-1A to collect data across a wide range of wavelengths within the electromagnetic spectrum, providing a deeper and more nuanced understanding of land, water, and various natural resources.
TSAT-1A boasts greater collection capacity, a wider dynamic range (the ability to capture detail in both very bright and very dark areas), and low-latency delivery of data.
This satellite will be used by Indian defense forces to gather discreet information, and this information will be shared with friendly nations.
It can enable defence forces to enhance their preparedness, response capabilities, and strategic decision making.
While India has a few military spy satellites built by ISRO, this is the first such initiative in the private sector.
What is the purpose of the Peace Clause in the context of WTO agreements?
To allows developing countries to provide subsides above 10% without invoking legal action
Explanation :
India has invoked the peace clause at the World Trade Organization (WTO) for the fifth consecutive time due to breaching the prescribed subsidy limit for rice offered to its farmers.
About Peace Clause:
Under the Peace Clause, WTO members refrain from challenging any breach in the prescribed subsidy ceiling given by a developing nation at the dispute settlement forum of the WTO.
Subsidies over and above the prescribed ceiling are seen as trade-distorting.
Subsidy ceiling: Under the global trade norms, a WTO member country’s food subsidy bill should not breach the limit of 10 percent of the value of production based on the reference price of 1986-88.
India has been seeking amendments to the formula for calculating this food subsidy cap.
As an interim measure, the WTO members at the Bali ministerial meeting in December 2013 agreed to put in place a mechanism popularly called the Peace Clause and committed to negotiating an agreement for a permanent solution.
This clause will be there till a permanent solution is found to the food stockpiling issue.
While the ‘peace clause’ allows developing countries to breach the 10% ceiling without invoking legal action by members, it is subject to onerous notificationrequirements and numerous conditionssuch as not distorting global trade and not affecting food security of other members.
With reference to different types of Partnership Firms, consider the following:
- In a general partnership, all the partners hold equal rights and participate in the management of the firm.
- In a partnership at will, there is no provision made between the partners for the duration of their partnership.
- In a Limited Liability Partnership (LLP), a partner’s liability is limited to their contribution to the LLP.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, the Supreme Court held that the legal heirs of a deceased partner do not become liable for any liability of the partnership firm upon the death of the partner.
About Partnership Firm:
A partnership firm is a business entity where two or more individuals come together to manage and operate a business.
The partners pool their resources, knowledge, and skills to achieve common business goals.
It is a widely preferred form of business, primarily due to its simplicity and ease of formation.
The partnership business includes any kind of trade, occupation, and profession.
A partnership consists of three essential elements.
A partnership must be the result of an agreement between two or more individuals.
The agreement must be built to share the profits obtained from the business.
The business must be run by all or any of them representing the rest.
All these conditions must coexist before a partnership can come into existence.
Indian Partnership Act, 1932:
A partnership firm in India is governed and regulated by the Indian Partnership Act, 1932.
The act defines partnership as a profit-sharing relation between two or more partners.
The duties and responsibilities of the partners, along with profit sharing, are defined in an agreement or deed known as Partnership Agreement.
There are mainly three types of partnerships, which are as follows:
General Partnership:
In a general partnership, all the partners hold equal rights and participate in the decision-making and management of the firm.
The general partner puts his capital, skills, and labor to achieve the firm’s financial goals.
In a general partnership, apartner has unlimited liability and has the right to take decisions regarding the management and operations of the firm.
Partnership at will:
Section 7 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, defines partnership at will as when there is no provision made between the partners for the duration of their partnership, or for the determination of their partnership.
There are two essential conditions for partnership at will, which are as follows:
There is no fixed period for the partnership to exist
There is no determination of the partnership.
Particular partnership:
A particular partnership is formed to manage and run a particular business or venture.
When the particular purpose is served, the partnership can be dissolved.
However, the partners can continue with the said partnership by making an agreement.
If there is no agreement, the particular partnership is dissolved.
What is a Limited Liability Partnership (LLP)?
An LLP is a corporate business form that provides the benefits of a partnership firm and a company.
It is a hybrid between a company and a partnership firm as it incorporates the properties of both structures.
LLP is a separate legal entity, and it can own properties in its own name.It alone will be liable to its liabilities.
Partner’s liability is limited to their contribution to the LLP. Partners of an LLP are responsible only for their own actions.
In other words, they are not liable to the outside creditors personally.
What best describes a Predicate Offence?
A crime that is a component of a more complex criminal activity.
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently quashed a money laundering case after noting that there was no predicate offence in the case and no proceeds of crime.
About Predicate Offence:
A predicate offence is a crime that is a component of a more complex criminal activity, often associated with money laundering or organised crime.
It serves as the underlying criminal act that generates proceeds or funds for the subsequent illegal activity.
The term “predicate offence” is usually used to describe money laundering or terrorist financing activities.
Predicate Offence under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA):
The legislative intent behind predicate offences under PMLA finds its roots in the pursuit of curbing not only illicitly gained wealthbut also income legally acquired yet concealed from the watchful eyes of public authorities.
The PMLA designates certain offences as predicate offencesthrough the Schedule, consisting of three parts: Part A, Part B, and Part C.
Part A:
This section enumerates offences under the Indian Penal Code (IPC) that are deemed predicate offences.
Ranging from criminal conspiracy, waging war against the government, counterfeiting, to offences related to extortion, robbery, forgery, cheating, and more, Part A delves into the core fabric of criminal activities.
Part B:
Under this section, offences under the Customs Actbecome predicate offences if their value exceeds one crore rupees.
This section focuses on violations related to customs duties and regulations.
Part C:
This segment encompasses offences of cross-border implications, encompassing not only Part A’s offences but also those against property under Chapter XVII of the Indian Penal Code.
Additionally, the wilful attempt to evade taxes, penalties, or interest under the Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015 also finds a place here.
The Supreme Court held that ‘If there’s no predicate offence, there are no proceeds of crime. Therefore, there can’t be money laundering’.
Consider the following statements regarding Directorate General of Trade Remedies:
- It conducts anti-dumping investigations in India.
- It works under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR) has now recommended imposition of anti-dumping duty on sodium cyanide (NaCN) imported from China, the European Union, Japan and Korea.
It was earlier known as Directorate General of Anti-dumping and Allied Duties (DGAD) was formed on 17th May 2018.
It works as a single national entity dealing with all kinds of Trade Remedial measures (anti-dumping, countervailing, safeguard).
It provides a level playing field to the domestic industry against the unfair trade practices like dumping, subsidization and surge in imports.
Functions:
Conducting anti-dumping investigations and recommendation to Government of India (GoI).
Conducting anti-subsidy/CVD investigations and recommendation to GoI.
Conducting safeguard investigations and recommendation to GoI
Handling Litigation matters before CESTAT, High Courts and Supreme Court of India.
Conducting Outreach programmes to create and spread conceptual awareness and explain the working of DGTR
Exchange of information with World Trade Organisation (WTO).
Nodal Ministry: It functions as an attached office of Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
What is Sodium cyanide (NaCN)?
It appears as a white crystalline solid, lump solid or powder.
It contains equal numbers of sodium cations and cyanide anions.
Application
It is used as an insecticide, a test reagent for the function of chemoreceptors, and in many industrial processes.
It is also is used in the extraction of gold and silver from their respective ores, in electroplating and the heat treatment of metals, and in manufacturing insecticides, dyes, pigments, and bulk drugs, etc.
Consider the following statements regarding Electronic Trading Platform:
- It is where eligible instruments like securities and money market instruments are contracted.
- It is authorized by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor raised concerns over unauthorised forex trading platforms and asked banks to maintain vigil against such illegal activities.
Electronic Trading Platforms are electronic system, other than a recognised stock exchange, on which transactions in eligible instruments like securities, money market instruments, foreign exchange instruments, derivatives, etc. are contracted.
In India no entity shall operate an ETP without obtaining prior authorisation of RBI under The Electronic Trading Platforms (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2018.
Resident persons operating ETPs without authorisation from RBI, collecting and effecting/remitting payments directly/indirectly outside India shall render themselves liable for penal action, including the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 and the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002.
ETPs authorised by the Reserve Bank shall host transactions only in instruments approved by the Reserve Bank.
Criteria for authorization of ETPs
The entity shall be a company incorporated in India.
An entity seeking authorisation as an ETP operator shall maintain a minimum net-worth of Rs.5 crore (Rupees five crore only) and shall continue to maintain the minimum net-worth prescribed herein at all times.
The existing entities operating ETPs with a net-worth lower than the prescribed net-worth requirement shall achieve the minimum net-worth of Rs.5 crores within one year from the date of authorisation by the Reserve Bank.
Banks seeking authorisation to operate ETP shall earmark a minimum capital of Rs.5 crore for the purpose.
Consider the following statements regarding Demat account:
- It is primarily used for holding and trading securities such as stocks and bonds.
- It generates interest on the securities held in the account.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A demat account and a bank account serve different purposes and have distinct features and each serving its distinct purpose in the overall financial ecosystem.
Demat account: It serves as a secure digital vault for holding various securities. It stores securities in electronic format, a process known as dematerialisation, effectively converting physical shares into digital assets.
Purpose: A demat account is primarily used for holding and trading securities such as stocks, bonds, mutual funds, and exchange-traded funds (ETFs) in electronic form. It allows investor to buy, sell, and transfer securities seamlessly.
Types of Assets Held: Securities held in a demat account are in electronic or digital form. These include stocks, bonds, debentures, mutual fund units, government securities, and other financial instruments.
Regulatory Authority: These are regulated by securities market regulators such as the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in India. Depositories like the National Securities Depository Limited (NSDL) and Central Depository Services Limited (CDSL) oversee the functioning of demat accounts.
Transactions: It involves buying, selling, and transferring securities. Investors can trade securities on stock exchanges through their demat accounts.
Interest and Returns: Demat accounts do not generate interest or returns on the securities held in the account. Returns are generated based on the performance of the securities held.
Consider the following statements regarding Glycaemic Index:
- It ranks carbohydrate-containing foods based on the blood glucose response.
- It is higher for processed food items.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The findings of an international study suggest that consuming low glycaemic index and low glycaemic load diets might prevent the development of type 2 diabetes.
It ranks carbohydrate-containing foods based on the blood glucose response, post-prandial or after a meal. The higher the blood sugar reading, the higher will be the GI.
It shows how quickly each food affects your blood sugar (glucose) level when that food is eaten on its own.
Foods are ranked on a scale of 0 to 100, with pure glucose (sugar) given a value of 100.
The lower a food’s glycemic index, the slower blood sugar rises after eating that food. In general, the more processed a food is, the higher its GI, and the more fiber or fat in a food, the lower it’s GI.
What is Glycaemic load?
It is both the quality and quantity of carbohydrate in a specific food, and is the product of the GI and the amount of carbohydrate available in a serving.
Key facts about Diabetes
It is a chronic disease that occurs when the pancreas can no longer make insulin, or the body cannot make good use of the insulin it produces.
Insulin is a hormone that regulates blood glucose.
Not being able to produce or use insulin effectively leads to raised glucose levels in the blood, known as hyperglycaemia.
Over the long-term high glucose levels are associated with damage to the body and failure of various organs and tissues.
Type of Diabetes
Type 1 diabetes: It is a condition in which your immune system destroys insulin-making cells in your pancreas. These are called beta cells.
When you have type 1 diabetes, your body produces very little or no insulin.
It requires daily administration of insulin to maintain blood glucose levels under control. It is usually diagnosed in children and young people, so it used to be called juvenile diabetes.
Type 2 diabetes: It results from the body’s ineffective use of insulin that it produces. This type of diabetes is largely the result of excess body weight and physical inactivity.
With reference to Lavender, consider the following:
- It is a crop native to India.
- It can be propagated through seeds and rooted cuttings.
- It can be grown in areas that experience snowfall and have a hilly terrain.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
According to officials, more than 700 acres of farmland has been brought under lavender cultivation in the Jammu and Kashmir area since 2017, and another 100 acres is set to be added.
It is a crop native to Europe but was introduced in the temperate regions of Jammu & Kashmir state by the CSIR Aroma Mission.
It is a small, perennial aromatic herb shrub used in the fragrance, specialty food, and alternative medicine industries.
Propagation of lavender can be done by seeds, rooted cuttings, tissue culture, and layering.
Required climatic conditions
Soil: It can grow well in light well-aerated soil rich with organic matter. It grows best in neutral to alkaline soil which is free draining. This crop is very sensitive to waterlogging however can go well with poor or eroded soil.
Rainfall: It can produce well with an annual rainfall range from 300 to 1400 mm per year.
Climate: It is a hard and temperate plant that can tolerate drought and frost conditions. The ideal climatic conditions are cool winters and cool summers. It requires a good amount of sunlight.
It can be grown in areas that experience snowfall and have a hilly terrain.
Applications: Food and flavouring, Pharmaceutical and therapeutic, Cosmetic, and Industrial purposes etc.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Tons River:
- It is the largest tributary of the Yamuna.
- It primarily flows through the Garhwal region of Himachal Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Two people recently drowned in the Tons River while bathing in UP’s Ballia.
About Tons River:
It is the largest and most important tributary of the Yamuna.
It is one of the most perennial rivers emerging from the Himalayas.
Course:
Tons River originates at a height of 6,315 metres from the Bandarpunch Mountain in Uttarakhand.
It flows through the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand and touches Himachal Pradesh.
Surging from that great height, the glacier-fed river’s course ends when it meets the Yamuna River.
It joins Yamuna near Kalsi in the Dehradun district, Uttarakhand.
It has a length of about 200 km.
Along the way, the river cuts through deep gorges, tranquil valleys, and dense forests.
Tons, even being a tributary, contribute more water than Yamuna itself possesses at the point of meeting.
Tributaries: The Pabbar and Asan rivers are the main tributaries of the Tons River.
The Tons Valley is also culturally significant, inhabited by indigenous communities like the Jaunsari and Bhotiya tribes, who have their own unique traditions, dialects, and lifestyles.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Kala Azar:
- It is a neglected tropical disease caused by a bacterium.
- It is transmitted by the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
India has achieved its target to eliminate visceral leishmaniasis, commonly known as kala-azar, according to data from the National Centre for Vector Borne Diseases Control (NCVBDC).
About Kala Azar:
Kala azar, or visceral leishmaniasis, is the second deadliest parasitic disease in the world after Malaria.
It is one of the most dangerous neglected tropical diseases (NTDs) and is endemic in 76 countries.
It is also known as black fever or Dum-Dum fever, referring to the greyish or blackish discoloration of the skin during infection.
It is caused by a protozoan parasite of the genus Leishmania, which is transmitted by the bite of infected female phlebotomine sandflies.
In India, Leishmania donovani is the only parasite causing this disease.
The parasite primarily infects the reticuloendothelial system and may be found in abundance in the bone marrow, spleen, and liver.
Post Kala-azar Dermal Leishmaniasis (PKDL) is a condition when Leishmania donovani invades skin cells, resides and develops there, and manifests as dermal leisions. Some of the kala-azar cases manifests PKDLafter a few years of treatment.
The disease affects some of the poorest people and is linked to malnutrition, population displacement, poor housing, a weak immune system, and a lack of financial resources.
Leishmaniasis is also linked to environmental changes such as deforestation, and urbanisation, according to the WHO.
Symptoms:
Kala-azar is characterized by irregular bouts of fever, substantial weight loss, swelling of the spleen and liver, and severe anaemia.
If the disease is not treated early and in time, affected individuals can die within two years.
Treatment:
Treatment of Kala Azar is done through liposomal AmB; this is the drug of choice for immunocompetent patients.
There are other treatment options available, such as paromomycin, miltefosine, and multidrug therapy.
Hence both statements are not correct.
C-Dome, an air defence system, is developed by which one of the following countries?
Israel
Explanation :
Israel for the first time deployed its ship-mounted defence system, called the C-Dome.
About C-Dome:
It is a naval version of Israel’s Iron Dome air defence system, used to shield against rocket and missile attacks.
The Iron Dome, which was activated in 2011 and has an effectiveness of about 90%, works by using radars to detect short-range rockets before destroying them with its own missiles.
The C-Dome, which was first unveiled in 2014, declared operational in November 2022, works similarly to the Iron Dome, using some of the same technology, except that it’s mounted on ships.
It is mounted on Sa’ar 6-class corvettes, German-made warships and uses the same interceptor as the Iron Dome.
Unlike the Iron Dome, which has its own dedicated radar, the C-Dome is integrated into the ship’s radar to detect incoming targets.
C-Dome ensures full-circular vessel protection and high kill probability against a full spectrum of modern threats—maritime and coastal.
Key Facts about Iron Dome:
It is Israel’s air missile defense system that can defend against short-range rockets, intercepting them in the air above the state.
It is capable of successfully handling multiple rockets at a time.
Developed by Rafael Advanced Defense Systems and Israel Aerospace Industries, the system became operational in March 2011.
Features:
It is powered by missile-defense batteries.
It has all-weather capabilities and is able to function night or day.
It is able to launch a variety of interceptor missiles.
It is designed to shoot down missiles with a range of about 40 miles or less.
It also has the ability to be moved, either onto ships or across land, to better suit defense needs.
It must be reloaded to continuously intercept incoming missiles.
The Iron Dome operates through three main components:
a radar that detects incoming rockets,
a command-and-control system that determines the threat level,
an interceptor that seeks to destroy the incoming rocket before it strikes.
With reference to the Higgs Boson, consider the following statements:
- It is the fundamental force-carrying particle of the Higgs field, responsible for granting fundamental particles their mass.
- It is one of the elementary particles that make up the Standard Model of particle physics.
- It has a positive charge with zero spin.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Nobel prize-winning British physicist Peter Higgs, who proposed the existence of a mass-giving particle, which became known as the Higgs boson or the “God particle”, has died aged 94.
About Higgs Boson:
The Higgs boson is the fundamental force-carrying particle of the Higgs field, which is responsible for granting fundamental particles their mass.
This field was first proposed in the mid-sixties by Peter Higgs, for whom the particle is named.
The particle was finally discovered on July 4, 2012, by researchers at the Large Hadron Collider (LHC), the most powerful particle accelerator in the world, located at the European particle physics laboratory CERN, Switzerland.
The LHC confirmed the existence of the Higgs field and the mechanism that gives rise to mass and thus completed the standard model of particle physics.
It is one of the 17 elementary particles that make up the Standard Model of particle Physics, which is scientists’ best theory about the behaviors of the universe’s most basic building blocks.
Higgs boson plays such a fundamental role in subatomic physics that it is sometimes referred to as the “God particle.”
Features:
The Higgs boson has a mass of 125 billion electron volts, meaning it is 130 times more massive than a proton.
It is also chargeless with zero spin, a quantum mechanical equivalent to angular momentum.
It is the only elementary particle with no spin.
What is a Boson?
A boson is a “force carrier” particle that comes into play when particles interact with each other, with a boson exchanged during this interaction. For example, when two electrons interact, they exchange a photon, the force-carrying particle of electromagnetic fields.
Because quantum field theory describes the microscopic world and the quantum fields that fill the universe with wave mechanics, a boson can also be described as a wave in a field.
So, a photon is a particle and a wave that arises from an excited electromagnetic field, and the Higgs boson is the particle or “quantized manifestation” that arises from the Higgs field when excited.
That field generates mass via its interaction with other particles, and the mechanism carried by the Higgs boson called the Brout-Englert-Higgs mechanism.
Particles that interact — or “couple” — with the Higgs field more strongly are granted greater masses.
Even the Higgs boson itself gets its massfrom its own interaction with the Higgs field.
One particle not granted massby the Higgs fieldis the basic particle of light, the photon. This is because spontaneous symmetry breaking doesn’t happen for photons as it does for its fellow force-carrying particles.
This mass-granting phenomenon also only applies to fundamental particles like electrons and quarks. Particles like protons, made up of quarks, get most of their mass from the binding energy that holds their constituents together.
With reference to disposal of property under Section 451 of the CrPC, consider the following statements:
- Property under this Section includes property regarding which an offence appears to have been committed.
- The property can be disposed of by either destruction, confiscation or giving the property to a person claiming to be entitled to such property.
- The court has no jurisdiction to direct the disposal of any property without producing it before the court in either physical or symbolic form.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently held that approaching the High Court under Articles 226/227 of the Constitution for the release of the seized vehicle would not be a proper remedy without approaching the magistrate under Section 451 of Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).
About Section 451 of CrPC:
The title of the section states, “order for custody and disposal of property pending trial in certain cases”.
It deals with the interim disposal of property before finally concluding the case.
The provision provides that when any property is producedbefore any criminal court, the court may order for proper custodyof the propertypending the conclusion of the inquiry and trial,and seeing the nature of the property,i.e., speedy or natural decay, the court may order its sale or disposal.
For the purpose of this section, property includes:
Property of any kind or document which is produced before the Court or which is in its custody.
Any property regarding which offence appears to have been committed or which appears to have been used for the commission of any offence.
The court can issue orders, including interim ones, for the proper custody and disposal of property or documents which fall within any one of the above categories.
The nature of the property should be seen before disposing of or deciding the custody of the property.
It empowers the court to dispose of the perishable properties first and retain properties that are needed for the purpose of trial.
Section 451 is not confined to natural decay alone but extends to other ways of damage which require expedient disposal.
The court holds discretionary power to decide the method of disposal according to the facts and the circumstances of the case.
Methods of disposal: The property can be disposed of by either destruction, confiscation or delivering or giving the property to a person claiming to be entitled to such property and thus restoring it to the dispossessed, selling it off, etc.
The court, however, has no jurisdiction to direct the disposal of any property without producing it before the court in either physical or symbolic form. The symbolic production is done by filing records or reports about such a seizure.
The order under Section 451 of the CrPC is an interlocutory one in nature but not final. This is because it needs to be revised in some occasions, depending on the circumstances.
Consider the following statements with reference to International Narcotics Control Board:
- It was established by the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs of 1961.
- All its members are nominated by the World Health Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India’s Jagjit Pavadia was re-elected for a third term for five years from March 2025-2030 to the International Narcotics Control Board.
It was established in 1968 and is the independent and quasi-judicial monitoring body for the implementation of the United Nations International Drug Control Conventions.
History:
It was established by the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs of 1961 by merging two bodies: the Permanent Central Narcotics Board, created by the 1925 International Opium Convention and the Drug Supervisory Body, created by the 1931 Convention for Limiting the Manufacture and Regulating the Distribution of Narcotic Drugs.
Members:
It consists of 13 members who are elected by the Economic and Social Council and who serve in their personal capacity, not as government representatives.
Three members with medical, pharmacological or pharmaceutical experience are elected from a list of persons nominated by the World Health Organization (WHO) and 10 members are elected from a list of persons nominated by Governments.
Mandate: INCB endeavours in cooperation with Governments, to ensure that adequate supplies of drugs are available for medical and scientific uses and that the diversion of drugs from licit sources to illicit channels does not occur.
It also monitors Governments’ control over chemicals used in the illicit manufacture of drugs and assists them in preventing the diversion of those chemicals into illicit traffic,
Jenu Kuruba tribe, recently seen in the news, resides in:
Western Ghats
Explanation :
For decades, the indigenous Jenu Kuruba tribe residing in the forests of Western Ghats were denied their basic rights and cut off from opportunities for development.
Jenu in Kannada means honey and kuruba is the caste. As the name suggest Jenu Kurubas are honey gatherers.
They are traditional honey gathering tribe. The tribe is among the original inhabitants of the forests of the Western Ghats that stretch over three states – Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
They live in small settlements called Hadi.
Occupation: Their main occupation is food gathering in the forests, collection of minor forest produce in the forests, collection of minor forest produce including honey.
They practice shifting cultivation, leading to a nomadic lifestyle.
Social life: People of this community live a semi-nomadic lifestyle which is not maintained by rulers, police, centralized visible forces or religious monasteries; but by the technique of its own discipline and diffused power.
The pattern is that it is maintained at each settlement level with a head-man (yajamana) and a ritual head / shaman (gudda).
Rhamphicarpa fistulosa, recently seen in the news, is a/an:
parasitic weed
Explanation :
A new report showed that rice vampire weed (Rhamphicarpa fistulosa) in Africa affected more than 140,000 farm households and caused losses worth $82 million per year to the continent’s economy.
It is a facultative, parasitic weed that grows on rice which is also known as rice vampire weed.
It also affects sorghum and maize and, potentially, other cereal crops.
The weed can germinate and grow independently, but significantly increases its reproductive output when parasitizing a suitable host.
It is not controlled by fertilisers.
It is found in at least 35 countries in Africa, with 28 of them home to rainfed lowland rice areas.
Countries with the highest estimated infestation rates were Gambia, Senegal, Burkina Faso, Togo and, to a lesser extent, Mauritania, Guinea-Bissau, Benin, Malawi and Tanzania
Consider the following statements with reference to the Coordinated Lunar Time:
- It provides a time-keeping benchmark for lunar spacecraft and satellites.
- It has been developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the US White House officially directed the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) to create a time standard for the Moon, which different international bodies and private companies can use to coordinate their activities on the lunar surface.
It will provide a time-keeping benchmark for lunar spacecraft and satellites that require extreme precision for their missions.
It will also synchronise the communication between satellites, astronauts, bases and the Earth.
A unified time standard would be essential for coordinating operations, ensuring the reliability of transactions and managing the logistics of lunar commerce.
Why there is need of LTC?
As there is less gravity on the Moon, time ticks slightly faster there relative to the time on the Earth.
In other words, for someone on the Moon, an Earth-based clock will appear to lose on average 58.7 microseconds per Earth day with “additional periodic variations.
It can create problems for situations such as a spacecraft seeking to dock on the Moon, data transferring at a specific time, communication, and navigation.
How does Earth’s time standard work?
Most of the clocks and time zones of the world are based on Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) which is essentially internationally agreed upon standard for world time.
It is set by the International Bureau of Weights and Measures in Paris, France.
It is tracked by a weighted average of more than 400 atomic clocks placed in different parts of the globe.
Atomic clocks measure time in terms of the resonant frequencies — the natural frequency of an object where it tends to vibrate at a higher amplitude — of atoms such as cesium-133.
In atomic time, a second is defined as the period in which a caesium atom vibrates 9,192,631,770 times. As the vibration rates at which atoms absorb energy are highly stable and ultra-accurate, atomic clocks make for an excellent device for gauging the passage of time.
To obtain their local time, countries need to subtract or add a certain number of hours from UTC depending on how many time zones they are away from 0 degree longitude meridian, also known as the Greenwich meridian.
If a country lies on the west of the Greenwich meridian, it has to subtract from the UTC, and if a country is located on the east of the meridian, it has to add.
With reference to the Hepatitis, consider the following statements:
- It is a general term used to describe inflammation of the liver.
- It cannot spread through contact with body fluids of a diseased person.
- It can occur when the body’s immune system attacks the liver.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
According to the Global Hepatitis Report 2024 released by the World Health Organisation (WHO), India is one of the countries with the highest burden of viral hepatitis.
Hepatitis is an inflammation of the liver.
It can be an acute (short-term) infection or a chronic (long-term) infection.
There are different types of hepatitis, with different causes:
Viral hepatitis: It is the most common type and caused by one of several hepatitis viruses A, B, C, D and E.
Alcoholic hepatitis which is caused by heavy alcohol use.
Toxic hepatitis can be caused by certain poisons, chemicals, medicines, or supplements.
Autoimmune hepatitis is a chronic type in which your body’s immune system attacks your liver. The cause is not known, but genetics and your environment may play a role.
How is viral hepatitis spread?
Hepatitis A and E usually spread through contact with food or water that is contaminated with an infected person. You can also get hepatitis E by eating undercooked food.
Hepatitis B, C and D spread through contact with the blood of someone who has the disease.
Hepatitis B and D may also spread through contact with other body fluids. This can happen in many ways, such as sharing drug needles or having unprotected sex.
Symptoms: Some people with hepatitis do not have symptoms and do not know they are infected. Common symptoms include: Fever, Fatigue, Loss of appetite, Nausea and/or vomiting etc.
Treatment: Treatment for hepatitis depends on which type you have and whether it is acute or chronic. Acute viral hepatitis often goes away on its own. There are different medicines to treat the different chronic types of hepatitis.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
With reference to Wigner crystal, consider the following statements:
- It is the solid phase of electrons.
- It follows the laws of quantum physics.
- It is only stable at extremely high densities.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Scientists have for the first time successfully visualized the elusive Wigner crystal, a strange kind of matter that is made entirely of electrons.
About Wigner Crystal:
A Wigner crystal is the solid phase of electrons, first predicted by Eugene Wigner in 1934.
It is one of the very first proposed many-body phases stabilized by the electron-electron interaction.
Formation:
Interaction among electrons could lead to their spontaneous arrangement into a crystal-like configuration, or lattice, of closely packed electrons.
This could only occur because of their mutual repulsion and under conditions of low densities and extremely cold temperatures.
This is because the potential energy dominates the kinetic energy at low densities, so the detailed spatial arrangement of the electrons becomes important.
To minimize the potential energy, electrons form a crystal-like configuration.
A true Wigner crystal, instead of following the familiar laws of physics in the everyday world, would follow the laws of quantum physics, in which the electrons would act not like individual particles but more like a single wave.
Wigner crystal is stable at extremely low densities. If the density increases, the kinetic energy becomes important, and eventually the crystal melts.
Wigner crystal is very difficult to observe experimentally. The reason is that it is very fragile with respect to the environment.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Defence Attache (DA):
- A DA is a member of the armed forces who serves in an embassy as a representative of her/his country’s defence establishment abroad.
- DAs are not considered members of the diplomatic staff and do not enjoy any diplomatic immunity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India has begun to post military and defence attachés to several new countries in a big move to expand strategic ties with key regions across the globe.
About Defence Attache (DA):
A DA is a member of the armed forces who serves in an embassy as a representative of his/her country’s defence establishment abroad.
DA is a generic term that covers personnel from all branches of the armed services, although some larger countries may appoint a DA to represent an individual service branch, such as an air force or naval attaché.
It is the DAs job to protect, develop, and promote the defence interests of their country in the nation they are assigned, as well as in bilateral military and defence relations.
Some DAs are deployed to work on specific issues, like migration, and they can also serve as part of a military mission with organisations such as NATO, the EU, or the UN.
If serving on such military deployments, DAs usually operate as the head of the mission or a military adviser, with these assignments usually multilateral.
The Diplomatic Status of the DA:
The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961 provides immunity to persons according to their rank in a diplomatic mission. It defines the legal status of the DA in Article 7.
Under the Convention, DAs are considered members of the diplomatic staff, enjoying full immunity.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the QS World University Rankings 2024:
- India is the most represented country in Asia in terms of the number of ranked universities.
- In terms of volume, India is now the world’s largest producer of research and academic papers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Sixty-nine Indian universities made it to the rankings with 424 entries in the 2024 QS World University Rankings by Subject.
About QS World University Rankings:
Published annually by global higher education consultancy Quacquarelli Symonds, the QS list ranks the world’s top 1,000 universities.
For 2024, universities were evaluated in 55 specific subjects and five broader subject areas.
Highlights of the 2024 Rankings:
Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT)has been ranked as the No. 1 university in the world by QS World University Rankings for 12 straight years.
Indian Institute of Technology Bombay (IITB) is the top ranked Indian institution, being ranked at 149.
A total of 69 Indian universities with 424 entries have made it to the QS World University Rankings by subject, marking a 19.4% rise from the previous year’s 355 entries achieved by 66 universities.
India is the second most represented country in Asia for the number of ranked universities (69), after mainland China with 101.
India holds the fourth position in the total number of ranked entries (454), after China (1,041), Japan (510) and South Korea (499).
Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU) leads among Indian institutions, securing the 20th position globally for development studies.
In total, 12 Indian Higher Education Institutes (HEIs) feature in the top 100, and 69 HEIs from India are ranked in 44 out of 55 subjects.
India has shown significant progress, with a 20 percent improvement in the Citations per Paper indicator, reflecting a strong research capability.
In terms of volume, India is now the world’s fourth-largest producer of research, generating 1.3 million academic papers in this period, trailing only behind China, the United States and the United Kingdom.
However, the country faces challenges in securing citations in premier global journals, with only 15% of its research cited in these publications between 2017 and 2021.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/education/jnu-indias-highest-ranked-university-69-in-top-500-qs-world-university-rankings-by-subject-2024-9257973/
With reference to the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF), consider the following statements:
- It is India’s first-ever Sovereign Wealth Fund (SWF).
- It invests in greenfield, brownfield and stalled projects.
- It is majority-owned by institutional investors and is independent in its investment decisions.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The NIIF has invested $200 million in iBUS Network and Infrastructure Pvt Ltd., a connectivity technology firm, to support the growth of India’s digital infrastructure.
About the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF):
NIIF is a fund manager that invests in infrastructure and related sectors in India.
It is India’s first-ever Sovereign Wealth Fund (SWF), which was set up in 2015.
An institution anchored by the Government of India, NIIF is a collaborative investment platform for international and Indian investors with a mandate to invest equity capital in domestic infrastructure.
NIIF invests across asset classes such as infrastructure, private equity, and other diversified sectors in India, with the objective of generating attractive risk-adjusted returns for its investors.
It invests in greenfield (new), brownfield (existing) and stalled projects.
NIIF is 49% owned by the Indian Government and has more than $4.9 billion in assets under management, making it the country’s biggest infrastructure fund.
NIIF benefits from its association with the Government yet is independent in its investment decisions.
It is majority-owned by institutional investors and managed professionally by a team with experience in investments and infrastructure.
The funds are registered as Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) with the Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and are currently raising capital from domestic and international institutional investors.
NIIF manages capital invested currently through four funds:
NIIF Master Fund: This fund primarily invests in infra-related projects such as roads, ports, airports, and power. It is the largest infrastructure fund in India.
NIIF Private Markets Fund: Invests in funds managed by third-party managers in infrastructure and associated sectors.
NIIF Strategic Opportunities Fund: It invests and develops large-scale businesses and greenfield projects that are of strategic importance to the country.
India-Japan
Fund: NIIF’s first bilateral fundinvests in environment preservation in India.
It also seeks to enable opportunities for collaboration between Indian and Japanese companies in India.
The Fund has a target corpus of US$600 million, with the Government of India contributing 49% and the remaining 51% contributed by the Japan Bank for International Cooperation, a policy-based financial institution wholly owned by the Government of Japan.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Fast-Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG) sector:
- It is characterized by high-volume sales and quick inventory turnover.
- It is the second-largest sector in the Indian economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Rs 5-trillion domestic fast-moving consumer goods (FMCG) market still faces hurdles on its path to complete recovery from the current slowdown.
About Fast-Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG):
FMCG, or Consumer Packaged Goods (CPG), are products sold quickly and at a relatively low cost.
The FMCG industry is characterized by high-volume sales, quick inventory turnover, and various products catering to consumer needs.
These goods include essential everyday items such as food and beverages, toiletries, cleaning supplies, and other low-cost household items.
FMCGs have a short shelf life because of high consumer demand (e.g., soft drinks and confections) or because they are perishable (e.g., meat, dairy products, and baked goods).
FMCG Industry in India:
The FMCG sector is the fourth-largest sector in the Indian economy.
In 2022, the urban sector accounted for 65% of the overall annual FMCG sales, while rural India contributed over 35%.
Household and personal care products make up 50% of the industry’s sales, healthcare claims 31-32%, and food and beverage products account for the remaining 18-19%.
It provides employment to around 3 million people, accounting for approximately 5% of the total factory employment in India.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.financialexpress.com/business/industry
Consider the following statements with reference to the Baobab tree:
- It is a long-lived deciduous tree found in Africa and Australia.
- It is a keystone species vital for storing water in arid environments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In a groundbreaking conservation endeavour, the Global Society for the Preservation of Baobabs and Mangroves (GSPBM) has initiated a mission to rejuvenate the iconic baobab trees in Madagascar.
It is a long-lived deciduous, small to large tree with broad trunks and compact tops which is also known as the upside-down tree.
Distribution:
There are 9 species of baobab tree. Two are native to mainland Africa, six to Madagascar, and one to Australia.
Mandu, in the Dhar district of Madhya Pradesh, is perhaps the only place in India where baobab trees are found in abundance.
Features:
It can live to become thousands of years old.
They only have very faint growth rings. Mature trees have massive trunks that are bottle-shaped or cylindrical and tapered from bottom to top.
The fruit of the tree is round or oval-shaped and is highly nutritious.
It is also known as ‘Tree of Life’.
Ecological significance
Baobabs are keystone species in Madagascar’s unique landscapes.
Their massive trunks and extensive root systems are vital for storing water in arid environments, providing a critical resource for both the trees and the surrounding ecosystem during drought periods.
This ability to store water enables baobabs to support a wide array of life, from microorganisms to larger animals, fostering biodiversity in their habitats.
Hence both statements are correct.
Fiscal Monitor Report, recently in news, is published by:
International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Explanation :
Recently, in its Fiscal Monitor the International Monetary Fund (IMF) said industrial policy initiatives pursued by the United States, Europe and other countries to steer innovation in certain sectors were no panacea to boost economic growth.
It provides an overview of latest public finance developments, updates the medium-term fiscal outlook, and assesses fiscal implications of policies relevant to the global economy.
It is prepared twice a year by the IMF’s Fiscal Affairs Department.
Its projections are based on the same database used for the World Economic Outlook (WEO) and the Global Financial Stability Report (GFSR).
The fiscal projections for individual countries have been prepared by IMF desk economists, and, in line with the WEO guidelines.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/world-market/imf-warns-industrial-policy-no-magic-cure-for-slow-economic-growth-9262768/
Which one of the following is the primary objective of the CDP-SURAKSHA Platform?
disbursal of subsidies to horticulture farmers by using e-RUPI vouchers
Explanation :
Government of India has come up with a new digital platform called CDP-SURAKSHA to disburse subsidies to horticulture farmers under the Cluster Development Programme (CDP).
System for Unified Resource Allocation, Knowledge, and Secure Horticulture Assistance (SURAKSHA) is a platform which will allow an instant disbursal of subsidies to farmers in their bank account by utilising the e-RUPI voucher from the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).
Features: Database integration with PM-KISAN, cloud-based server space from NIC, UIDAI validation, eRUPI integration, local government directory (LGD), content management system, geotagging, and geo-fencing.
Working
The platform allows access to farmers, vendors, implementing agencies (IA), and cluster development agencies (CDAs), and officials of the National Horticulture Board (NHB).
A farmer can login using their mobile number and place an order for planting material such as seeds, seedlings, and plants based on their requirement.
Once the demand has been raised by the farmer, the system will ask them to contribute their share of the cost of planting material. The subsidy amount paid by the government will appear on the screen automatically.
After the farmer pays their contribution, an e-RUPI voucher will be generated. This voucher will then be received by a vendor, who will provide the required planting material to the farmer.
Once the ordered planting material is delivered to the farmer, they have to verify the delivery through geo-tagged photos and videos of their field.
It is only after the verification that the IA will release the money to the vendor for the e-RUPI voucher.
The vendor will be required to upload an invoice of the payment on the portal.
The IA will collect all the documents and share them with the CDA for subsidy release, then only the subsidy will be released to the IA.
What is e-RUPI?
The voucher is a one-time payment mechanism that can be redeemed without a card, digital payments app or internet banking access, at the merchants accepting e-RUPI.
It can be shared with the beneficiaries for a specific purpose or activity by organisations or government via SMS or QR code.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/cdp-suraksha-horticulture-9262824/
Consider the following statements regarding Invasive Alien Species:
- They act as disruptors in the food chain and disturb the balance of the ecosystem.
- They can survive on various food types and in a wide range of environmental conditions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In a bid to manage the teeming population of invasive chital (spotted deer) in Ross Island the Andaman and Nicobar Islands administration recently sought help from the Wildlife Institute of India.
These are the species whose introduction and/or spread outside their natural past or present distribution threaten biological diversity.
These include animals, plants, fungi, and even microorganisms, and can influence all kinds of ecosystems.
These species need an introduction either through natural or human intervention, survive on native food resources, reproduce at a fast rate, and edge out native species in the competition over resources.
Invasive species act as disruptors in the food chain and disturb the balance of the ecosystem. In habitats where there is no competition, invasive species can dominate the entire ecosystem.
Characteristics: Common characteristics of IAS include rapid reproduction and growth, high dispersal ability, phenotypic plasticity (ability to adapt physiologically to new conditions), and ability to survive on various food types and in a wide range of environmental conditions.
Areas more susceptible for Invasive Alien species are;
Native ecosystems that have undergone human-induced disturbance are often more prone to alien invasions because there is less competition from native species.
Islands are especially vulnerable to IAS because they are naturally isolated from strong competitors and predators.
Islands often have ecological niches that have not been filled because of the distance from colonizing populations, increasing the probability of successful invasions.
The list of invasive wildlife in India is dominated by certain species of fish such as the African catfish, Nile tilapia, red-bellied piranha, and alligator gar, and turtle species such as the red-eared slider.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/invasive-species-natural-ecosystems-threaten-9262836/
With reference to curative petition, consider the following statements:
- Article 137 of the Constitution of India provides for curative petition.
- It can be admitted if the petitioner establishes there was a violation of the principles of natural justice.
- It is usually decided by judges in the chamber.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, the Supreme Court has invoked curative writ petition in reviving the 2019 Delhi High Court judgment that partially set aside the Delhi Metro arbitration award, is a sparingly used judicial innovation to correct a “grave miscarriage of justice”.
It is the final and last option for the people to acquire justice as mentioned and promised by the Constitution of India.
It is a way to ask the court to review and revise its own decision, and it is filed after a review petition is dismissed or used.
Objective: It is meant to ensure there is no miscarriage of justice and to prevent abuse of process.
Background
The concept of curative petition originated from the case of Rupa Ashok Hurra Vs. Ashok Hurra and another case (2002) where the following question arose before the court of law: ‘whether an aggrieved person is entitled to any relief against the final judgment/order of the Supreme Court, after the dismissal of a review petition?’.
In this case, a five-judge constitution bench of the Supreme Court unanimously held that in order to rectify gross miscarriage of justice, the court will allow the curative petition filed by the victim.
Constitutional Background
The Article 137 of the Indian Constitution broadly supports the idea of a curative petition.
It states that the “Supreme Court has the power to review any judgment pronounced (or order made) by it if the matter concerns the laws and rules made under Article 145”.
These petitions can be entertained if the petitioner establishes there was a violation of the principles of natural justice, and that he was not heard by the court before passing an order.
It will also be admitted where a judge failed to disclose facts that raise the apprehension of bias.
Hearing of Curative petitions
A curative petition must first be circulated to a bench of the three senior-most judges and the judges who passed the concerned judgment, if available.
Only when a majority of the judges conclude that the matter needs hearing should it be listed, as far as possible, before the same bench.
A curative petition is usually decided by judges in chamber, unless a specific request for an open-court hearing is allowed.
It shall be open to the Bench at any stage of consideration of the curative petition to ask a senior counsel to assist it as amicus curiae.
In the event of the bench holding at any stage that the petition is without any merit and vexatious, it may impose exemplary costs on the petitioner.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/allowing-curative-plea-how-supreme-court-pushes-the-envelope-9263351/
Consider the following statements with reference to the sungrazing comets:
- They are a special class of comets that come very close to the sun at perihelion.
- They experience strong tidal forces or gravitational stress.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A tiny “sungrazer” comet was discovered, photographed and destroyed during the recent total solar eclipse.
About Sungrazing Comets:
Sungrazing comets are a special class of comets that come very close to the sun at their nearest approach, a point called perihelion.
To be considered a sungrazer, a comet needs to get within about 850,000 miles from the sun at perihelion.
Many come even closer, even to within a few thousand miles.
Being so close to the sun is very hard on comets for many reasons.
They are subjected to a lot of solar radiation, which boils off their water or other volatiles.
The physical push of the radiation and the solar wind also helps form the tails.
As they get closer to the sun, the comets experience extremely strong tidal forces, or gravitational stress.
In this hostile environment, many sungrazers do not survive their trip around the sun.
Although they don’t actually crash into the solar surface, the sun is able to destroy them.
Most usually evaporate in the hot solar atmosphere.
Orbit: Most of the sungrazing comets observed follow a similar orbit, called the Kreutz Path, a single orbit that takes 800 years to complete.
They collectively belong to a population called the Kreutz Group.
These Kreutz comets are fragments from a single large comet that was shattered thousands of years ago.
The far end of the Kreutz path lies 160 times farther from the sun than the orbit of Earth.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.livescience.com/space/the-sun/tiny-sungrazer-comet-discovered-photographed-and-destroyed-all-during-historic-total-solar-eclipse
Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (WWS) is located in which one of the following States of India?
Kerala
Explanation :
Close to 100 hectares of forest were destroyed in a fire in the Sulthan Bathery forest range under the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (WWS) recently.
About Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (WWS):
Location: It is located in Wayanad, Kerala, in the southern trenches of the Western Ghats.
It is an integral part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Established in 1973, the sanctuary covers an area of approximately 344.44 sq. km,
It is bordered by the protected areas of Nagarhole and Bandipur in Karnataka on the northeastern side and Mudumalai in Tamil Nadu on the southeastern side.
Tribes living in these forests include some scheduled adivasis, such as Paniyas, Kattunaikkans, Kurumas, Ooralis, Adiyans, and Kurichiyas.
Flora:
It is a mosaic of the Western Ghats’ significant vegetation types, ranging from moist deciduous to dry deciduous and semi-evergreen patches.
Teak, rosewood, eucalyptus, and silver oak plantations cover roughly one-third of the sanctuary.
Marshy lands also mark their presence in the sanctuary.
Fauna:
It is also home to animals like elephants, panthers, tigers, jungle cats, civet cats, monkeys, wild dogs, bisons, deer and bears.
It is known for having the largest population of tigers in Kerala.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/india-posts-defence-attaches-to-several-new-nations-for-1st-time/articleshow/109205408.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Adjudicating Authority under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA):
- It determines whether the properties attached by the Enforcement Directorate (ED) are involved in money laundering or not.
- The accused has the right to challenge its confirmation order only in the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Adjudicating Authority under the PMLA recently confirmed the attachment of assets worth Rs 751.9 crore belonging to the National Herald newspaper.
About Adjudicating Authority under the PMLA:
Under PMLA, an adjudicating authority determines within 180 days whether the properties attached by the Enforcement Directorate (ED) are involved in money laundering or not.
Functioning:
Section 5 of the PMLA provides for the attachment of any property that is suspected to have been acquired with the proceeds of crime in a case of any offence that is listed in the schedule of the law.
The attachment order is issued if the ED Director feels that “such proceeds of crime are likely to be concealed, transferred, or dealt with in any manner which may result in frustrating any proceedings relating to confiscation of such proceeds of crime”.
This provisional attachment order is valid fora period of 180 days.
It must be confirmed within this time by an adjudicating authority appointed by the central government, failing which the property is automatically released from attachment.
Because the initial attachment is provisional, the accused can continue to enjoy the property until the adjudicating authority confirms the attachment, after which the ED has the power to claim possession.
What happens after the Adjudicating Authority confirms the attachment?
The accused has the right to challenge the adjudicating authority’s confirmation order at the PMLA’s Appellate Tribunal within 45 days.
If the Appellate Tribunal too confirms the order, the accused can file a plea in the High Court, and so on.
Unless the property is released along the way, it shall remain out of boundsfor the owner until the trial is completed.
Following final confirmation, in the case of a residential property, the ED will ask the owner to vacate the premises along with his belongings, and will take over possession.
In case of a conviction, the trial court may order confiscation of the attached property and vest the rights to the property with the central government.
Attached properties may remain locked for years as the legal process continues, and may start to crumble and decay.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/adjudicating-authority-ed-attachment-rahul-sonia-company-assets-9264546/
With reference to the World Cybercrime Index, consider the following statements:
- It identifies the world’s major cybercrime hotspots by ranking the most significant sources of cybercrime at a national level.
- It is released on an annual basis by the World Economic Forum (WEF).
- India features among the top ten countries in the index.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Following three years of intensive research, an international team of researchers has compiled the first ever ‘World Cybercrime Index’.
About World Cybercrime Index:
It identifies the globe’s major cybercrime hotspots by ranking the most significant sources of cybercrime at a national level.
It has been developed as a joint partnership between the University of Oxford and UNSW Canberra.
The data that underpins the index was gathered through a survey of 92 leading cybercrime experts from around the world who are involved in cybercrime intelligence gathering and investigations.
It ranks roughly 100 countries and identifies key hotspots according to various categories of cybercrime, including ransomware, credit card theft, and scams.
Key Findings:
It shows that the threat of cybercrime is not evenly distributed worldwide.
A relatively small number of countries house the greatest cybercriminal threat.
Russia tops the list, followed by Ukraine, China, the USA, Nigeria, and Romania.
97 countries were named by at least one expert as being a hub for a particular category.
India captured the number 10 spot in the rankings.
The researchers also found that certain kinds of cybercrime were associated with particular countries. For example, the United States was associated with data and identity theft, while those related to technical products or services seemed to often originate from China.
It is estimated that cybercrime costs the world around $9.22 trillion in 2024, and this is expected to grow to $13.82 trillion in 2028.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/tech/technology/india-ranks-number-10-in-cybercrime-study-finds/articleshow/109223208.cms?from=mdr
The Doctrine of Harmonious Construction, recently seen in news, is related to:
resolving conflicts between statutes or their provisions
Explanation :
While refusing to condone the delay of 5659 days in preferring an appeal, the Supreme Court recently laid down eight principles by providing harmonious construction to Sections 3 and 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963.
About Doctrine of Harmonious Construction:
It is an essential rule for interpreting statutes.
It states that when there’s a conflict between two or more statutes or between different parts or provisions of a statute, we should interpret them in a way that harmonises them.
This means that when there are inconsistencies, we should try to reconcile the conflicting parts so that one part doesn’t negate the purpose of another.
It is rooted in the fundamental legal principle that every statute is created with a specific purpose and intent. Therefore, it should be understood as a whole.
The intention of the legislature is that every provision should remain operative.
But when two provisions are contradictory, it may not be possible to effectuate both of them, and as a result, one will be rendered futile as against the settled basic principle of ‘ut res magis valeat qauam pereat’ (that a thing is better understood so that it may have an effect than that it should be made void).
Therefore, the court should interpret the laws in a way that removes the inconsistency and allows both provisions to remain in force, working together harmoniously.
The goal is to give effect to all the provisions. To avoid conflicts, the interpretation of the statute should be consistent with all its parts.
If it’s impossible to harmoniously interpret or reconcile the different parts or provisions, then it’s the responsibility of the judiciary to make the final decision and give its judgment.
In the landmark case of Commissioner of Income Tax v. M/S Hindustan Bulk Carriers (2000), the Supreme Court established five fundamental principles governing the rule of harmonious construction:
Courts should make every effort to avoid conflicts between seemingly conflicting provisions and should attempt to interpret these provisions in a way that harmonises them.
A provision in one section of the law should not be used to nullify a provision found in another section unless the court is unable to find a way to reconcile their differences despite diligent effort.
In cases where it’s impossible to completely reconcile inconsistencies between provisions, the courts must interpret them in a manner that gives effect to both provisions to the greatest extent possible.
Courts must consider that an interpretation rendering one provision redundant or useless goes against the essence of harmonious construction and should be avoided.
Harmonizing two contradictory provisions means preserving and not destroying any statutory provision or rendering it ineffective.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/merits-of-the-case-not-required-to-be-considered-in-condoning-delay-supreme-court-explains-principles-for-delay-condonation-254732?from-login=909822
Consider the following statements with reference to Methanol:
- It is known as wood alcohol and completely mixes with water.
- It has a high risk of flammability compared to gasoline.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, health officials in the United States have recalled several lots of hand sanitisers and aloe gels over the risk of methanol exposure.
It appears as a colorless fairly volatile liquid with a faintly sweet pungent odor like that of ethyl alcohol.
It is also known as also known as wood alcohol. It can completely mix with water.
Production: Preparing methanol is based on the direct combination of carbon monoxide gas and hydrogen in the presence of a catalyst. Increasingly, syngas, a mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide derived from biomass, is used for methanol production.
Benefits
Lower production costs—Methanol is cheap to produce relative to other alternative fuels.
Improved safety—Methanol has a lower risk of flammability compared to gasoline.
Increased energy security—Methanol can be manufactured from a variety of domestic carbon-based feedstocks, such as biomass, natural gas, and coal.
Applications: Used to make chemicals, to remove water from automotive and aviation fuels, as a solvent for paints and plastics, and as an ingredient in a wide variety of products.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/world-news/us-news/hand-sanitisers-recalled-in-us-as-fda-warns-methanol-exposure-could-cause-coma-blindness-101712750900821.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the fractal pattern:
- It is a pattern which is infinitely complex and self-similar across different scales.
- Its examples include designs of human fingerprints and stumps of trees.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, an international team of researchers’ discovered first fractal molecule in nature.
It is a never-ending pattern which is infinitely complex and self-similar across different scales.
In essence, a fractal is a pattern that repeats forever, and every part of the fractal, regardless of how zoomed in or zoomed out you are, it looks very similar to the whole image.
They are created by repeating a simple process over and over in an ongoing feedback loop.
Fractals are distinct from the simple figures of classical, or Euclidean, geometry—the square, the circle, the sphere, and so forth.
Some of the more remarkable examples of such patterns include the design of human fingerprints, the stumps of trees, in the shells of snails, the system of human veins, the network of rivers as seen from high up, the splitting of veins in a plant leaf, the edges of a snowflake etc.
They are capable of describing many irregularly shaped objects or spatially nonuniform phenomena in nature, such as coastlines and mountain ranges.
Applications: Fractals are useful in modeling structures (such as eroded coastlines or snowflakes) in which similar patterns recur at progressively smaller scales, and in describing partly random or chaotic phenomena such as crystal growth, fluid turbulence, and galaxy formation.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-04-discovery-fractal-molecule-nature.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the GPT-4 Vision:
- It can interpret handwritten and printed text contained within images.
- It can be used by developers to write code for a website from a visual image of the design.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Following its launch, OpenAI’s ChatGPT has evolved by leaps and bounds and also recently announced API access to GPT-4 with Vision.
It is also referred to as GPT-4V which allows users to instruct GPT-4 to analyse image inputs.
It has been considered OpenAI’s step forward towards making its chatbot multimodal — an AI model with a combination of image, text, and audio as inputs.
It allows users to upload an image as input and ask a question about it. This task is known as Visual Question Answering (VQA).
It is a Large Multimodal Model or LMM, which is essentially a model that is capable of taking information in multiple modalities like text and images or text and audio and generating responses based on it.
Features
It has capabilities such as processing visual content including photographs, screenshots, and documents. The latest iteration allows it to perform a slew of tasks such as identifying objects within images, and interpreting and analysing data displayed in graphs, charts, and other visualisations.
It can also interpret handwritten and printed text contained within images. This is a significant leap in AI as it, in a way, bridges the gap between visual understanding and textual analysis.
Potential Application fields
It can be a handy tool for researchers, web developers, data analysts, and content creators. With its integration of advanced language modelling with visual capabilities, GPT-4 Vision can help in academic research, especially in interpreting historical documents and manuscripts.
Developers can now write code for a website simply from a visual image of the design, which could even be a sketch. The model is capable of taking from a design on paper and creating code for a website.
Data interpretation is another key area where the model can work wonders as the model lets one unlock insights based on visuals and graphics.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/gpt-4-vision-9263119/
Consider the following statements regarding Mange disease:
- It is a skin disease of animals caused by a virus.
- It can spread between animals through direct contact.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The forest department is monitoring an outbreak of mange among a pack of Asiatic wild dogs in the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (MTR) in the Nilgiris.
It is a skin disease of animals caused by mite infestations, characterized by inflammation, itching, thickening of the skin, and hair loss.
The most severe form of mange is caused by varieties of the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which also causes human scabies.
Some form of mange is known in all domestic animals, although many varieties of mange mites infest only one species.
Transmission: They are transmitted between animals by direct contact and by objects that have been in contact with infected animals. Most forms of mange are treatable.
Key facts about Asiatic wild dogs
It is a wild canid found in the forests of central, south, and southeast Asia.
Other Names: Indian wild dog, whistling dog, red wolf, red dog and mountain wolf.
Distribution
They are found throughout Eastern and Southeastern Asia.
They can be seen as far north as Siberia, as far south as some Malaysian islands, and as far west as the Indian peninsula.
They are found in three clusters across India, namely the Western and Eastern Ghats, the central Indian landscape and North East India. The Western and Eastern Ghats is a stronghold region for dholes.
Habitat: Dholes are animals that inhabit dense jungles, steppes, mountains, scrub forests, and pine forests.
Conservation status
IUCN Red List: Endangered
The Wildlife Protection Act 1972: Schedule II
CITES: Appendix II
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Coimbatore/mange-outbreak-reported-among-asiatic-wild-dogs-in-mudumalai/article68053559.ece
With reference to Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission, consider the following statements:
- It promotes the rational use of generic medicines by publishing the National Formulary of India.
- It is created to set standards of drugs in India.
- It works under the Ministry of Chemicals and fertilizers.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the pharma standards body Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) has issued a drug safety alert over nimesulide, saying the pill can trigger rashes on the skin (fixed drug eruption).
It is an autonomous Institution of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Govt. of India.
It is created to set standards of drugs in the country.
Functions:
Its basic function is to update regularly the standards of drugs commonly required for treatment of diseases prevailing in this region.
It publishes official documents for improving Quality of Medicines by way of adding new and updating existing monographs in the form of Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP).
It further promotes rational use of generic medicines by publishing National Formulary of India.
It prescribes standards for identity, purity and strength of drugs essentially required from health care perspective of human beings and animals.
It also provides IP Reference Substances (IPRS) which act as a finger print for identification of an article under test and its purity as prescribed in IP.
What is fixed drug eruption?
It is a distinctive variant of drug-induced dermatoses with characteristic recurrence at the same site of the skin or mucous membranes.
It is known to occur more frequently with antimicrobials and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs than with other drugs.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/healthcare/biotech/pharmaceuticals/ipc-issues-alert-on-painkiller-drug-nimesulide-over-adverse-reaction/articleshow/109227061.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to BepiColombo:
- It is a joint project between the European Space Agency (ESA) and the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
- Its primary objective is to study Mercury’s magnetic field and geology of its surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A fleeting visit by the BepiColombo mission to Venus has revealed surprising insights into how gases are stripped away from the upper layers of the planet’s atmosphere.
About BepiColombo:
It is an international mission comprised of two spacecraft riding together to Mercury to orbit and study the planet from unique vantage points.
The primary scientific objectives of the mission are to study Mercury’s magnetic field, its composition, the geology of its surface, and its interaction with the solar wind.
The mission will also investigate the planet’s exosphere and study its geological history.
The spacecraft were launched in 2018, aboard an Ariane 5 rocket from French Guiana. It is scheduled to begin orbiting Mercury in 2025.
It is a joint project between the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Japanese counterpart JAXA.
ESA’s Mercury Planetary Orbiter (MPO) will study the planet’s surface and interior.
JAXA’s Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter (MIO) will study the planet’s magnetic field.
ESA is also responsible for the launcher, the interplanetary cruising engine and the placement of BepiColombo into Mercury’s orbit.
The mission was named after Giuseppe “Bepi” Colombo, an Italian mathematician and engineer who made significant contributions to the understanding of Mercury’s orbit.
It will be the second mission ever to orbit Mercury and the most complex one.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://phys.org/news/2024-04-bepicolombo-oxygen-carbon-unexplored-region.html
Consider the following statements with reference to Queqiao-2:
- It is a relay satellite launched by China.
- It will serve as a communications bridge between ground operations on Earth and upcoming lunar probe missions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
China National Space Administration (CNSA) recently said its launch of Queqiao-2 satellite was a “complete success”.
About Queqiao-2:
Queqiao-2 (Magpie Bridge 2) is a relay satellite launched by China to serve as a communications bridge between ground operations on Earth and upcoming lunar probe missions on the far side of the moon until at least 2030.
It has a mass of 1,200 kilograms and carries a large, 4.2-meter-diameter (13.8-foot) parabolic antenna that will be deployed once in space and is one of the largest sent beyond Earth orbit.
Queqiao-2’s first task will be supporting China’s Chang’e-6 lunar far-side sample return mission. It will further support the future Chang’e-7 and -8 lunar missions.
Queqiao 2 carries three science payloads: an Extreme Ultraviolet Camera (EUC), a Grid-based Energetic Neutral Atom Imager (GENA), and a very long baseline interferometer, the Lunar Orbit VLBI EXperiment (LOVEX).
It has a planned lifetime of over 8 years.
The mission will also be deploying two experimental CubeSats, Tiandu-1 and Tiandu-2, which will orbit the Moon to test navigation and communication technologies.
Tiandu-1 has a Ka-band communications system and a laser retroreflector. It has a mass of 61 kg.
Tiandu-2, the smaller of the two cube sats with a mass of 15 kg, also has a communications system.
The two satellites will be in formation in an elliptical lunar orbit. Navigation tests include laser ranging to the Moon, and microwave ranging between satellites.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/international/world-news/china-launch-of-relay-satellite-queqiao-2-for-lunar-probe-mission-successful/articleshow/109235586.cms?from=mdr
With reference to the Great Barrier Reef, consider the following statements:
- It is a complex of coral reefs, shoals and islets in the Pacific Ocean.
- It is located off the coast of New Zealand in the Tasman Sea.
- It was declared as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
New evidence from the Australian Marine Conservation Society revealed that the coral bleaching observed earlier this year in the southern part of the Great Barrier Reef is far worse than expected.
About Great Barrier Reef:
It is a complex of coral reefs, shoals and islets in the Pacific Ocean.
It is located off the northeastern coast of Australia in the Coral Sea.
It is the longest and largest reef complex in the world. It is the largest living structure on Earth.
It extends in roughly a northwest-southeast direction for more than 2,300 km, at an offshore distance ranging from 16 to 160 km, and its width ranges from 60 to 250 km.
It has an area of some 350,000 square km.
The reef, which is large enough to be visible from space, is made up of nearly 3,000 individual reefs and over 900 islands.
UNESCO declared the Great Barrier Reef a World Heritage Site in 1981.
Much of the Great Barrier Reef is a marine protected area, managed by the Great Barrier Reef Marine Park Authority of Australia.
Biodiversity:
It is estimated that the reef is home to around 2000 species of fish and around 600 different coral species.
It is home to 4,000 mollusk species and over 250 different shrimp species.
The reef is also home to six of the seven known species of sea turtles, more than a dozen sea snakes, and nearly two dozen species of birds.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/ongoing-coral-bleaching-at-great-barrier-reef-may-be-as-bad-or-worse-than-2016-event-95534
With reference to Vakalatnama in India, consider the following statements:
- It is a legal document that authorizes an advocate to represent a party in court proceedings.
- It is clearly defined in the Civil Procedure Code, 1908.
- It can be revoked or withdrawn by the client at any time.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Two advocates recently moved the Supreme Court challenging a Gujarat High Court order to initiate a probe against them on suspicion that a vakalatnama was forged by them.
About Vakalatnama:
It is a legal document in India that authorizes an advocate to represent a party in court proceedings.
The term “Vakalatnama” is derived from two words: “Vakalat,” which means authority or power of attorney, and “Nama,” which means a document.
When a person engages the services of a lawyer to represent them in a legal matter, they sign a Vakalatnama, which formally appoints the lawyer to act on their behalf.
This document outlines the scope of the lawyer’s authority, the specific case or matter for which representation is sought, and other relevant details.
It is also known as a memo of appearance, Vakilat Patra, VP.
There is no mention of any particular definition of Vakalatnama in the Civil Procedure Code, 1908,or the Power of Attorney Act, 1882.
The meaning of Vakalatnama is defined in the Advocates Welfare Fund Act, 2001, under which “Vakalatnama” includes a memorandum of appearance or any other document by which an advocate is empowered to appear or plead before any court, tribunal, or other authority.
The holder of the vakalatnama is called a pleader, an advocate, counsel, vakil, or an attorney who is authorized to accept the vakalatnama on behalf of his client or party of the litigation.
Who can authorize a Vakalatnama?
An aggrieved person can authorize a Vakalatnama.
Anybody holding the Power of Attorney for the aggrieved person.
Anybody representing the aggrieved person in business or trade in that jurisdiction.
A Vakalatnama can also be authorized by a joint party in a case in order to appoint either a set of advocates or the same advocate.
A good Vakalatnama should contain the following:
The date the Vakalatnama would be executed
The name of the case/cases in which the advocate is being appointed
The name of the court/courts in which the advocate is being appointed
The name of the person authorizing the Advocate/advocates
If the Vakalatnama is not executed by the issuer in person, then a written document should support the appointment of the advocate
The advocate’s address so appointed
Types of power granted to the advocate
Signatures of the parties
Advocate’s signature accepting the Vakalatnama
A vakalatnama can be revoked or withdrawn by the client at any time. However, it’s important to follow the proper legal procedures for revocation, which may vary depending on the jurisdiction.
No Vakalatnama is needed for performing other legal work such as giving opinions, sending notices, drafting petitions, or other documents.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.barandbench.com/news/lawyers-supreme-court-challenging-probe-for-allegedly-forging-vakalatnama
Which one of the following is the primary objective of the Science Based Targets Initiative (SBTi)?
Limiting global warming to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels.
Explanation :
A contentious recent decision by the Science Based Targets Initiative (SBTi), permitting carbon offsetting for Scope 3 emissions of businesses with SBTi-based climate targets, has stirred controversy and skepticism.
About Science Based Targets Initiative (SBTi):
SBTi is a global initiative established in 2015 that aims to encourage and support companies to set Science-Based Targets (SBTs) to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and limit global warming to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels.
The SBTi is a partnership between CDP, the United Nations Global Compact, the World Resources Institute (WRI) and the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF).
The SBTi provides a framework and guidelines for companies to set targets that are in line with the latest climate science, including the goals of the Paris Agreement.
This involves setting targets that are consistent with limiting warming to 1.5 °C above pre-industrial levels, which is the more ambitious goal of the Paris Agreement.
Companies can have their targets independently verified and approved by the SBTi, which helps to ensure that they are aligned with the latest science and are in line with the goals of the Paris Agreement.
By setting science-based targets, companies can demonstrate their commitment to addressing climate change and reducing their carbon footprint.
The SBTi distinguishes between near- and long-term goals and commitments.
Near-term targets show how organizations intend to reduce emissions over the next 5-10 years, crucial for significant progress by 2030 and a prerequisite for net zero targets.
Long-term targets indicate how organizations need to reduce their emissions to achieve net zero, according to the criteria of the SBTi Corporate Net-Zero Standard, by 2050 at the latest (2040 for the energy sector).
SBTi oversees the SBTi Net-Zero Standard, a pioneering framework for corporate net-zero target establishment.
It is the world’s only framework for corporate net-zero target setting in line with climate science.
It provides the guidance and tools companies need to set science-based net-zero targets.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/climate-change/carbon-controversy-corporate-climate-action-watchdog-s-new-decision-regarding-use-of-offsetting-causes-backlash-95545
Mount Etna, recently in news, is located in:
Sicily
Explanation :
Mount Etna volcano has been sending up almost perfect rings of smoke into the air which are a rare phenomenon that scientists refer to as volcanic vortex rings.
Vortex rings are generated when gas, predominantly water vapour, is released rapidly through a vent in the crater. The vent that has opened up in Etna’s crater is almost perfectly circular.
This phenomenon was first observed at Etna and Vesuvius in Italy in 1724 and has been documented in an engraved plate from 1755.
The rings can remain in the air for up to 10 minutes but tend to disintegrate quickly if conditions are windy and turbulent.
In more recent times, volcanic vortex rings have been observed at volcanoes such as
Redoubt in Alaska, Tungurahua in Ecuador, Pacaya in Guatemala, Eyjafjallajökull and Hekla in Iceland, Stromboli in Italy, Aso and Sakurajima in Japan, Yasur in Vanuatu, Whakaari in New Zealand, and Momotombo in Nicaragua.
Key facts about Mount Etna
It is sometimes referred to simply as Etna, is an active volcano on the east coast of Sicily, the largest island in the Mediterranean Sea.
Etna’s peak is the highest in Italy south of the Alps, and it is Europe’s largest and one of the most active volcanoes.
Etna’s summit has five craters, which are responsible for most of the volcano’s eruptions; there are also “flank” eruptions that occur out of 300-odd vents of varying sizes along the slopes of the mountain.
It is in almost constant activity, and has seen, since the year 1600, at least 60 flank eruptions and many more summit eruptions.
It has been a UNESCO World Heritage Site since 2013.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/mount-etna-volcano-smoke-rings-vortex-9265785/
Article 371 of the Constitution of India provides special provision to which of the following States?
Maharashtra and Gujarat
Explanation :
Recently, president of one of the India’s national party mentioned Article 371 at a public rally in Rajasthan which caused a stir with the ruling party denouncing it as a “horrendous mistake”.
Article 371, under part XXI of the Indian Constitution, grants some temporary, transitional and special powers for certain States.
It has been part of the Constitution since 26 January 1950.
However, Articles 371(A-J) was brought in via amendments through Article 368.
Article 371
It deals with the States of Maharashtra and Gujarat. As per the provision, the Governor of Maharashtra has a special responsibility to establish separate development boards for Vidarbha, Marathwada, and the rest of the State.
The Governor of Gujarat has a similar responsibility towards Saurashtra, Kutch and the rest of Gujarat.
Article 371A
Under the provision, no Act of Parliament about the religious or social practices of the Nagas, their customary law and procedure, including civil and criminal justice matters, and ownership or transfer of land and resources will apply to Nagaland, unless the State’s Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to do so.
It further gives the Governor a ‘special responsibility’ regarding law and order in the State.
Article 371B
It deals with Assam, was brought in 1969. It allows the President to deal with the Constitution and functioning of a committee of Legislative Assembly comprising members elected from the tribal.
Article 371C
It applies to Manipur and was inserted into the Constitution in 1972. It provides for the constitution of a committee of legislators from the Hill Areas of Manipur.
It gives the Governor a special responsibility to make an annual report to the President on the administration of the Hill Areas.
Articles 371D and E
It includes special provisions for Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
The President can pass an order to provide equitable opportunities and facilities to people belonging to different parts of Andhra Pradesh in public employment and education.
It provides for the constitution of an Administrative Tribunal for Andhra Pradesh. Only the Supreme Court has any power of superintendence over this tribunal, as per the provision. Article 371E, meanwhile, deals with the establishment of a university in the State.
Article 371F
It is applicable to Sikkim and it states that the State Legislative Assembly shall consist of at least 30 members.
The Governor has a special responsibility for the maintenance of peace and equitable arrangements for ensuring the social and economic advancement of different sections.
Article 371G
It applies to Mizoram. It includes special provisions to preserve the religious and social practices, customary law, and procedure of Mizos in Mizoram, as well as for the administration of criminal and civil justice, besides ownership and transfer of land.
Article 371H
It confers a special responsibility on the Governor of Arunachal Pradesh concerning law and order.
Article 371I
It relates to Goa. It requires the Legislative Assembly of Goa to consist of not less than 30 members.
Article 371J
It accords special status to the Hyderabad-Karnataka Region (Kalyana Karnataka) and provides for the establishment of a separate development board for the area.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/article-371-constitution-protections-states-laws-explainer-370-kharge-amit-shah-politics/article68053805.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Muria Tribe:
- They are primarily located in Assam and Meghalaya
- They speak Koya language and follow the tradition of Gothul.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Muria tribe lacks access to primary education, safe drinking water, and social welfare benefits also remains a dream and they are at risk of displacement.
Location: They are located in the States of Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha.
The Muria settlements are known as habitations of Internally Displaced People (IDPs), whose population is around 6,600 in A.P., and they here referred to as ‘Gutti Koyas’ by the native tribes.
Language: They speak Koya, which is a Dravidian language.
The Muria people drink a local form of liquor, which plays a key role in social and ritual gatherings and are traditionally animists, with village and clan deities.
They have progressive perspective towards marriage and life as a whole. The biggest example being the Ghotul (a commune or dormitory), which is meant to create an environment for Muria youth to understand their sexuality.
Gutti Koyas’ held ST status in Chhattisgarh but they were not granted ST status in their migrated states such as Telangana.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Visakhapatnam/muria-tribe-settlement-in-chukkalapadu-lost-in-the-woods/article68053855.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to Whooping cough:
- It is bacterial disease which affects particularly infants.
- It can be treated with Diphtheria, Tetanus and Pertussis (DTaP) vaccines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The number of cases of whooping cough has been rising in several countries like China, the Netherlands and Czech Republic.
It is a highly contagious infection which impacts the respiratory tract and is caused by Bordetella pertussis bacteria.
It gets its name from the “whooping” sound which the patient experiences which coughing.
It is particularly severe in infants and in case of complications may lead to pneumonia and even death.
How does whooping cough spread?
A person catches this bacterium via droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes.
It attaches itself to the throat lining and then produces toxins which damage hair-like projections which clear debris and mucus.
This leads to inflammation in the airways and causes severe coughing fits. It also then leads to difficulty in breathing.
Symptoms
It begins with cold-like symptoms accompanied with low-grade fever. As it progresses, cough get accompanied with “whooping” sound and these spells may last for a while leading to vomiting.
Sleep apnea in children.
Treatment: Diphtheria, Tetanus and Pertussis (DTaP) vaccines.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.livemint.com/news/trends/whooping-cough-outbreak-all-you-need-to-know-about-symptoms-and-how-to-stay-safe-11712914228185.html
With reference to Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), consider the following statements:
- It is a Central Sector scheme.
- A specified portion of this fund must benefit SC/ST community.
- The funds are directly transferred into the accounts of Members of Parliament to undertake social projects.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
According to the data of Union Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, nearly 75% of the allocated funds to the 39 Members of Parliament (MPs) in Tamil Nadu under the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS) from 2019 to 2024 have not been utilised so far.
It is an ongoing Central Sector Scheme which was launched in 1993-94.
Objective: The Scheme enables the Members of Parliament to recommend works for creation of durable community assets based on locally felt needs to be taken up in their constituencies in the area of national priorities namely drinking water, education, public health, sanitation, roads etc.
Under the scheme, annual MPLADS fund entitlement per MP constituency is Rs. 5 crore.
Lok Sabha Members can recommend works within their Constituencies.
The Rajya Sabha Members of Parliament can recommend works in one or more districts in the State from where he/she has been elected.
The Nominated Members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha may select any one or more districts from any one State in the Country for implementation of their choice of work under the scheme.
MPs are to recommend every year, works costing at least 15 per cent of the MPLADS entitlement for the year for areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste population and 7.5 per cent for areas inhabited by Scheduled Tribe population.
In case an elected MP wishes to contribute MPLADS funds outside the constituency or the State/UT, they can recommend work up to Rs 25 lakh in a financial year.
MPs do not directly receive funds under MPLADS. The Centre directly transfers the sanctioned amount in two instalments of Rs. 2.5 crore to the district authorities of the concerned MP’s nodal district after a recommended project gets approval.
Implementation
The role of an MP is, however, limited to the recommendation of a project.
The onus is on the district authority to sanction, execute and complete the recommended project within a particular timeframe.
Nodal Ministry: The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation has been responsible for the policy formulation, release of funds and prescribing monitoring mechanism for implementation of the Scheme.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/chennai/union-ministry-data-points-to-nearly-75-mplads-funds-in-tn-lying-unspent/article68059477.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Global Forest Watch:
- It is an open-source web application to monitor global forests in near real-time using satellite data.
- According to the latest data from Global Forest Watch, India has lost more than one-third of total tree cover since 2000.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India has lost 2.33 million hectares of tree cover since 2000, according to the latest data from the Global Forest Watch monitoring project.
About Global Forest Watch (GFW):
It is an open-source web application to monitor global forests in near real-time using satellite data and other sources.
It is a project of the Washington-based nonprofit research organization, the World Resources Institute (WRI). Most of the data is compiled by the University of Maryland researchers.
It is free and simple to use, enabling anyone to create custom maps, analyze forest trends, subscribe to alerts, or download data for their local area or the entire world.
It refers to tree cover when talking about forest extent, loss, and gain. Tree cover is a convenient metric for monitoring forest change because it is easily measurable from space using freely available, medium-resolution satellite imagery.
Highlights of the GFW’s annual forest loss data.:
The loss of primary forests–those untouched by people and sometimes known as old-growth forests – in the tropics declined 9% last year compared to 2022.
The world last year lost about 37,000 square kilometers (14,000 square miles) of tropical primary forest, an area nearly as big as Switzerland.
Brazil, the Democratic Republic of Congo, and Bolivia topped the ranking of tropical countries with the most primary forest losses.
Deforestation globally rose by 3.2% in 2023.
India has lost 2.33 million hectares of tree cover since 2000, equivalent to a six percent decrease in tree cover during this period.
The country lost 4,14,000 hectares of humid primary forest (4.1 percent) from 2002 to 2023, making up 18 per cent of its total tree cover loss in the same period.
Between 2001 and 2022, forests in India emitted 51 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent a year and removed 141 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent a year. This represents a net carbon sink of 89.9 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent a year.
An average of 51.0 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent per year was released into the atmosphere as a result of tree cover loss in India.
The data showed that 95 percent of the tree cover loss in India from 2013 to 2023 occurred within natural forests.
The GFW data showed that five states accounted for 60 percent of all tree cover losses between 2001 and 2023.
Assam had the maximum tree cover loss at 324,000 hectares, compared to an average of 66,600 hectares. Mizoram lost 312,000 hectares of tree cover, Arunachal Pradesh 262,000 hectares, Nagaland 259,000 hectares, and Manipur 240,000 hectares.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/india-lost-2-33-million-hectares-of-tree-cover-since-2000-global-forest-watch-5428639
Consider the following statements with reference to the Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB):
- It recommends persons for appointment to senior positions at financial institutions owned by the government.
- The final decision on the FSIB recommendation would be taken by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet, headed by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
FSIB recently recommended the name of IFCI Managing Director Manoj Mittal as SIDBI Chairman and Managing Director.
About Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB):
It’s a government body set up under the Department of Financial Services (DFS), Ministry of Finance.
The primary role of FSIB is to identify manpower capabilities and ensure proper selection of talent for senior positions at financial institutions owned by the government.
It replaced the Bank Board’s Bureau (BBB), which was declared an incompetent authority.
Structure:
FSIB would be headed by a chairman, a central government nominee.
The board would comprise the Secretaries of the DFS, the chairman of IRDAI, and a deputy governor of the RBI.
Additionally, it will have three part-time members who are experts in banking and three more from the insurance sector.
Functions:
To recommend persons for appointment as Whole-Time Directors (WTDs) and Non-Executive Chairpersons (NECs) on the Boards of Directors in Public Sector Banks (PSBs), financial institutions (FIs) and Public Sector Insurers (PSIs).
To advise the Government on matters relating to appointments, transfers or extension of term of office and termination of the services of the said directors;
It would also issue guidelines for selecting general managers and directors of public sector general insurance companies.
The final decision on the FSIB recommendation would be taken by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet, headed by the Prime Minister.
To advise the Government on the desired management structure at the Board level for PSBs, FIs and PSIs;
To advise the Government on a suitable performance appraisal systemforWTDs and NECs in PSBs, FIs, and PSIs;
To build a databank containing data related to the performance of PSBs, FIs and PSIs;
To advise the Government on the formulation and enforcement of a code of conduct and ethics for WTDs in PSBs, FIs, and PSIs;
To advise the Government on evolving suitable training and development programmes for management personnel in PSBs, FIs, and PSIs;
To help PSBs, FIs, and PSIs in terms of developing business strategies and capital raising plan etc.;
To carry out such process and draw up a panel for consideration of competent authority for any other bank, financial institution, or insurer for which the Government makes a reference, after consultation with the regulator concerned with that bank, financial institution, or insurer.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/banking/finance/fsib-selects-ifci-md-as-sidbi-head-sanjay-shukla-for-nhb-md/articleshow/109217299.cms?from=mdr
With reference to Platelets, consider the following statements:
- They are colorless cell fragments in human blood that help with clotting.
- They are formed in the bone marrow.
- They are larger than red or white blood cells.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Researchers have developed synthetic platelets that can be used to stop bleeding and enhance healing at the site of an injury.
About Platelets:
Platelets, or thrombocytes, are small, colorless cell fragments in our blood that help with clotting.
Platelets are your body’s natural bandage to stop bleeding.
Where are platelets made?
Platelets form in the soft tissue of your bones (bone marrow). The largest cells in your bone marrow (megakaryocytes) make platelets.
They form in the shape of a plate, which is where they get their name.
They are smaller than red or white blood cells.
How do platelets control bleeding?
If one of your blood vessels gets damaged, it sends out signals to the platelets.
The platelets then rush to the site of damage and form a plug (clot) to fix the damage.
The process of spreading across the surface of a damaged blood vessel to stop bleeding is called adhesion.
This is because when platelets get to the site of the injury, they grow sticky tentacles that help them stick (adhere) to one another.
They also send out chemical signals to attract more platelets.
The additional platelets pile onto the clot in a process called aggregation.
What is a healthy platelet count?
A normal platelet count ranges from 150,000 to 450,000 platelets per microliter of blood.
Having more than 450,000 platelets is a condition called thrombocytosis; having less than 150,000 is known as thrombocytopenia.
Symptoms oflow platelets include bruising easily and unusual bleeding, such as excessive bleeding from a small cut or blood in urine or stool.
Platelets can be essential to surviving surgeries such as organ transplant, as well as fighting cancer, chronic diseases, and traumatic injuries.
Donor platelets are given to patients who don’t have enough of their own, or when a person’s platelets aren’t working correctly.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://medicalxpress.com/news/2024-04-synthetic-platelets-stanch-animal.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Fort Emmanuel:
- It is a ruined fort located in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
- It was originally built in the 16th century by the Dutch.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
History buffs are seeking steps to conserve the laterite-brick remnants of Fort Emmanuel, that was built along the beachfront by the Portuguese in 1503.
About Fort Emmanuel:
It is a ruined fort located at Fort Kochi Beach in Kochi, Kerala.
It was originally built in 1503 and reinforced in 1538.
It was a symbol of the strategic alliance between the Maharajah of Kochi and the Monarch of Portugal, after whom it was named.
It was a massive structure, and the entire township was within its confines.
It greatly helped in strengthening the Portuguese occupation of the area.
Fort Kochi remained in Portuguese possession until 1683, when the Dutch colonial troops captured the territory and destroyed the Portuguese institutions.
The Dutch held the fort in their possession until 1795, when the British took control by defeating the Dutch.
By 1806, the Dutch, and later the British, had destroyed most of the fort walls and its bastions.
Foreign control of Fort Kochi ended in 1947 with Indian independence.
Now only the remains of this fort exist, reminding us of its historic significance.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/new
Khavda Renewable Energy Park, recently seen in the news, is located in which of the following States?
Gujarat
Explanation :
Adani Green Energy Ltd (AGEL) recently established the world’s largest renewable energy park in Gujarat’s Khavda region.
About Khavda Renewable Energy Park:
It is the world’s largest renewable energy park.
It is located at Khavda in Gujarat’s Kutch region, boasting an impressive 45 GW capacity predominantly fueled by solar energy.
The region has the second-best solar radiation in the country after Ladakh and wind speeds five times that of the plains.
Situated just one kilometer from the international border with Pakistan, the energy park maintains a buffer zone manned by the Border Security Force (BSF).
Originally accessed only by a modest airstrip without air traffic control, the site now gears up for a significant clean energy venture.
It spans 538 square kilometres, approximately five times the size of Paris.
It is being built by Adani Green Energy Ltd (AGEL), India’s largest renewable energy company.
Investment: AGEL will invest about Rs 1.5 lakh crore to generate 30 megawatts of clean electricity. It would comprise 26 GW of solar and 4GW of wind capacity.
The Khavda Park, at its peak, is projected to generate 81 billion units of electricity, a quantity capable of powering entire nations such as Belgium, Chile, and Switzerland.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.newsx.com/business/adani-group-establishes-worlds-largest-renewable-energy-park-in-gujarat/
Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘doxxing’?
It is the publication of personal information about an individual without their consent.
Explanation :
Recently doxxing incidents are increasing over internet across the globe.
The word “doxxing” is derived from “dropping dox”.
It is a form of online harassment involving the publication of personal information about an individual without their consent.
This information can include details such as their full name, home address, telephone number, place of work, and other sensitive information.
Doxxing is often carried out to expose, threaten, or intimidate someone and can lead to severe consequences, such as physical harm, stalking, or loss of employment.
Such information is usually obtained through illegal methods such as hacking or theft.
How to prevent?
Use strong passwords that are not repeated across platforms, and set up multi-factor authentication where possible.
Avoid posting photos that reveal your neighbourhood, house facade, house keys, identifiable landmarks etc.
Reporting through the National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal online etc.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/what-is-doxxing-and-what-can-you-do-if-it-happens-to-you/article68045978.ece
Impatiens neo-uncinata, recently seen in news, is a:
balsam plant
Explanation :
Researchers discovered a new species of garden balsam in Kerala and named it as Impatiens neo-uncinata.
It is a new species of Impatiens (family Balsaminaceae).
It has been discovered in the Western Ghats. It has now been identified as a rare, wild cousin of the popular garden balsam.
It has been reported only from a single locality at an elevation ranging from 1,000 to 1,250 m, and that too in a very few numbers.
It bears morphological resemblances to Impatiens uncinata but it differs in the size of the flowers, basal and distal lobes, the dorsal petal and pollen.
It is a herb that grows up to 20 cm in height, with simple or branched stems. It grows in open areas of evergreen forests, particularly wetlands. Flowering and fruiting occurs from August to December.
The genus Impatiens has over 1000 species distributed in the tropics and sub-tropics.
In India, the Himalayan and the north-eastern regions account for the highest diversity of Impatiens. The southern arm of the Western Ghats stands second in that respect.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/a-serendipitous-discovery-that-led-to-identification-of-a-new-species-of-garden-balsam-in-kerala/article68061499.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to Hydrogel:
- It is synthesized by cross linking water-soluble polymers.
- It can change its structure in response to its environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers at the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) have designed a sustainable hydrogel to remove microplastics from water
It is a three-dimensional network composed of hydrophobic polymers synthesized by crosslinking water-soluble polymers.
Hydrogels can retain a large quantity of water within their network without disturbing their original structure. This imparts flexibility and swelling properties to the hydrogel structures.
It is a “smart” material that can change its structure in response to its environment, such as the local temperature, pH, salt or water concentration.
Key facts about the sustainable hydrogel
It is designed by the researchers has a unique intertwined polymer network that can bind the contaminants and degrade them using UV light irradiation.
It consists of three different polymer layers – chitosan, polyvinyl alcohol and polyaniline – intertwined together, making an interpenetrating polymer network (IPN) architecture.
The team infused this matrix with nanoclusters of a material called copper substitute polyoxometalate (Cu-POM). These nanoclusters are catalysts that can use UV light to degrade the micro plastics.
The combination of the polymers and nanoclusters resulted in a strong hydrogel with the ability to adsorb and degrade large amounts of microplastics.
The hydrogel was found to be highly efficient – it could remove about 95% and 93% of two different types of microplastics in water at near-neutral pH (∼6.5).
What is a Micro plastic?
It is tiny plastic debris smaller than 5 mm in length.
There are two types of microplastics as follows
Primary microplastics : These are tiny particles (solid plastic particles of less than one millimeter in their largest dimension) intentionally designed for commercial use, such as cosmetics, nurdles i.e., plastic pellets used in industrial manufacturing and fibers from synthetic fabrics such as nylon.
Secondary microplastics : These are formed from the degradation of large plastic objects such as bottles, fishing nets and plastic bags. It is caused by exposure to the environment, such as radiation from the sun, wind and ocean waves.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/iisc-researchers-design-novel-hydrogel-to-remove-microplastics-from-water/article68058021.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to Kuchipudi:
- It is an Indian classical dance mainly performed in Andhra Pradesh.
- It is performed on the edge of a brass plate known as Tarangam.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, it is highlighted that Kuchipudi artists are struggling for survival and going through a tough phase due to lack of patronage.
It is one of the Indian classical dances belongs to the Andhra Pradesh.
History
It was originally performed by a group of itinerant actors known as Bhagavathalu, who would travel from village to village, performing plays and dances based on Hindu mythology.
In the 15th century, the great poet and musician, Siddhendra Yogi, played a major role in the development of Kuchipudi. He is credited with transforming the dance form from a simple folk art to a sophisticated and refined classical dance form.
Features
The dance form is characterized by its intricate footwork, graceful movements, and subtle facial expressions.
It incorporates pure dance (Nritta) and expressive dance (Nritya) elements, as well as storytelling through dance (Natya).
It is also performed on the edge of a brass plate (known as Tarangam) on the beats of Carnatic music.
It is largely developed as a Hindu god Krishna-oriented Vaishnavism tradition, and it is most closely related to Bhagavata Mela.
The Kuchipudi performer apart from being a dancer and actor has to be skilled in Sanskrit and Telugu languages, music and manuscripts of the performance.
The Kuchipudi dancers wear light make-up and ornaments like the Rakudi (head ornament), Chandra Vanki (arm band), Adda Bhasa and Kasina Sara (necklace). A long plait is decorated with flowers and jewelry. The ornaments are made of light wood called Boorugu.
The typical musical instruments in Kuchipudi are mridangam, cymbals, veena, flute and the tambura.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Visakhapatnam/kuchipudi-a-tale-of-artistes-struggle-for-survival/article68058220.ece
With reference to PACE satellite, consider the following statements:
- It is placed in Sun-synchronous orbit by the European Space Agency.
- It observes the ocean, land and atmosphere across different spectrum of light.
- Its data helps in assessing harmful algal blooms.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
NASA is now publicly distributing science-quality data from its newest Earth-observing PACE satellite.
The Plankton, Aerosol, Cloud, ocean Ecosystem (PACE) satellite is placed in Sun-synchronous orbit.
It was launched by NASA.
The primary science instrument for PACE is the Ocean Colour Instrument (OCI) which is designed to measure the ocean’s colour across a spectrum from ultraviolet to shortwave infrared.
It features two polarimeters – the Spectro-polarimeter for Planetary Exploration (SPEXone) and the Hyper Angular Research Polarimeter (HARP2).
These two working together will offer complementary spectral and angular sampling, polarimetric accuracy, and spatial coverage.
This combination aims to provide improved atmospheric correction and a comprehensive range of aerosol and cloud science data beyond what the OCI alone could achieve.
The synergistic payload of OCI, SPEXone and HARP2 is poised to make significant breakthroughs in aerosol-cloud-ocean research.
The OCI observes the ocean, land, and atmosphere across a spectrum of ultraviolet, visible, and near infrared light. With this extensive spectral range, scientists can identify specific communities of phytoplankton.
Significance: The data will allow researchers to study microscopic life in the ocean and particles in the air, advancing the understanding of issues including fisheries health, harmful algal blooms, air pollution, and wildfire smoke.
With PACE, scientists also can investigate how the ocean and atmosphere interact with each other and are affected by a changing climate.
Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.nasa.gov/earth/nasas-pace-data-on-ocean-atmosphere-climate-now-available/
Members of Legislative Council of a State is elected through:
Indirect elections
Explanation :
Members of a state’s Legislative Council are elected through indirect elections and nominations. The members are elected using proportional representation and a single transferable vote.
Therefore, option a is the correct answer.
Which of the following does not participate in the election of the members of a Legislative Council of a State?
Gram Sabha of concerned Panchayats
Explanation :
Gram Sabha of concerned Panchayats does not participate in the election of the members of a Legislative Council of a State. So, option b is correct.
Manner of election of the total number of members of a Legislative Council of State:
1/3 is elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly of the state from amongst persons who are not members of the Assembly.
1/3 is elected by the members of Local Bodies in the state like municipalities, district boards, etc.
1/12 is elected by graduates of three years standing and residing within the state.
1/12 is elected by teachers of three years standing in the State, not lower in standard than secondary school.
The remainder is nominated by the Governor from amongst persons who have special knowledge or practical experience of literature, science, art, cooperative movement and social service.
Thus, 5/6 of the total number of members of a legislative council is indirectly elected and 1/6 is nominated by the Governor.
The members are elected in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
The number of states with Legislative Council in India are:
6
Explanation :
At present Six States of India have a Legislative Council. These are Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka.
Therefore, option c is the correct answer.
The Legislative Council of a State has equal powers with the Legislative Assembly in:
Approval of ordinances issued by the Governor
Explanation :
A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Assembly and not in the Council. The Council cannot amend or reject a money bill. It should return the bill to the Assembly within 14 days, either with recommendations or without recommendations. The Assembly can either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Council. In both the cases, the money bill is deemed to have been passed by the two Houses.
Legislative Council has equal powers with the Legislative Assembly in the following matters:
o Introduction and passage of ordinary bills. However, in case of disagreement between the two Houses, the will of the assembly prevails over that of the council.
o Approval of ordinances issued by the governor.
o Selection of ministers including the Chief Minister. Under the Constitution the ministers including the Chief Minister can be members of either House of the State Legislature. However, irrespective of their membership, they are responsible only to the Assembly.
o Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies like State Finance Commission, State Public Service Commission and Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
o Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the State Public Service Commission
● The Legislative Council cannot remove the Council of Ministers by passing a no-confidence motion. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible only to the Legislative Assembly. But the Council can discuss and criticize the policies and activities of the Government.
● The Legislative Council has no effective say in the ratification of a Constitutional Amendment Bill. The will of the assembly prevails over that of the Council with respect to the ratification of the Constitution Amendment Bill.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly, consider the following statements:
- The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Governor.
- S/he performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant.
- S/he can resign by writing to the Speaker.
- S/he can voluntarily give up the membership of the political party without being disqualified under Anti-defection law.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only three
Explanation :
● Article 178 of the Indian Constitution provides that like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Legislative Assembly itself from amongst its members. The Deputy Speaker is elected after the election of the Speaker has taken place.
● The Constitution neither sets a time limit nor specifies the process for these elections. It leaves it to the legislatures to decide how to hold these elections. In Lok Sabha and State Legislatures, the President/Governor sets a date for the election of the Speaker, and it is the Speaker who decides the date for the election of the Deputy Speaker. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant. He also acts as the Speaker when the latter is absent from the sitting of the assembly. In both cases, he has all the powers of the Speaker. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Usually, the Deputy Speaker remains in office during the life of the house, he can resign by writing to the Speaker of the house. So, statement 3 is correct.
● One of the exemptions to Anti-Defection Law is - a person who has been elected to the office of the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker of Legislative Assembly of a State, shall not be disqualified if he, by reason of her/his election to such office, voluntarily gives up the membership of the political party to which he belonged immediately before such election and thereafter re-joins that political party or become a member of another political party. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: With respect to the political crisis in Maharashtra, the role and powers of the Deputy Speaker are again in focus.
In a State, if a group of 31 members from a total of 45 Members of Legislative Assembly (MLAs) of a political party joins another political party, then which one of the following is the most likely consequence for the defected MLAs?
They will retain their membership as the anti-defection law will not apply to them.
Explanation :
The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions with respect to the disqualification of members of Parliament and the State Legislatures on the ground of defection. The law provides for an exception to protect the legislators from disqualification in case of a merger. It says that if a member goes out of his party as a result of a merger of the party with another party, then the anti-defection law would not apply. A merger takes place when two-thirds of the members of the party have agreed to such a merger.
In the above case, it can be seen that more than two-thirds of members (31 out of 45) of the legislative party have agreed to merge with another party. Thus, they will retain their membership as the anti-defection law will not apply to them.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
With reference to the executive in a state, consider the following statements:
- A Vote of no confidence against the Council of Ministers leads to the fall of Government.
- The ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In the Parliamentary system, the core of the Executive in a state is formed by the Council of Ministers (CoM) led by the Chief Minister.
Article 164 of the Indian Constitution mandates the CoM to follow the Principle of Collective Responsibility. This means that all the members of the CoM are together responsible to the state legislature for their acts of omission (what they decide not to do) and commission (what they decide to do). In case of passing of no confidence motion against CoM it will result in the fall of the government. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
Article 164 says that the ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
- The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
According to provisions made in the Constitution, Governor of a state has following immunity- Article 361(2): During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
As par Article 158(4) of the Indian Constitution, the emoluments and allowances of the Governor cannot be diminished during his term of office. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following are considered as part of the executive branch of a State Government?
- Governor
- Chief Minister
- State Council of Ministers
- Advocate General of State
- Lokayukta
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
The government is based on the separation of powers and consists of three organs such as the Legislature, Executive and the Judiciary. The State Executive is the part of the state government which enforces the law and is responsible for the administration of the state.
Statement 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct: The State Executiveis made up of the following:
Governor - Governor is the nominal head of a state.
Chief Minister - The Chief Minister is the most powerful functionary at the State Government level and is the executive head of the state.
Council of Ministers – It is responsible for being the senior decision-making body of the executive branch. It is chaired by the Chief Minister and consists of the heads of each of the executive government ministries.
Advocate General of the State - He is the highest law officer in the state.
Lokayukta is an independent and impartial functionaries created to investigate the actions and decisions of public servants. These functionaries are held at par with the Judges of the Supreme Court and High Court; and independent of the legislature and executive. Hence, Option 5 is incorrect.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to the office of the Governor of states, consider the following statements:
- A Governor whose term has expired can be reappointed in the same state.
- In the absence of the President, his oath is administered by the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The President may transfer a Governor appointed to one state to another state for the rest of the term. A Governor whose term has expired may be reappointed in the same state or any other state. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
The oath of office to the Governor is administered by the chief justice of the concerned state high court, and in his absence, the senior-most judge of that court available. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘hubble tension’?
A discrepancy between the measurements of the rates of expansion of the universe.
Explanation :
In a study published recently, scientists from Germany and the U.K. led with a radical explanation for the Hubble tension.
About Hubble Tension:
The “hubble tension” refers to a discrepancy between the measurements of the rate of expansion of the universe, known as the Hubble constant.
The Hubble constant, denoted as H0, describes the rate at which galaxies are moving away from each other due to the expansion of the universe.
If a researcher wants to estimate the Hubble constant, they have two main avenues. These are the cosmic distance ladder and the cosmic microwave background (CMB).
Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB):
CMB is a sea of photons, the particles of light, present throughout the universe. They are left over from the Big Bang, its afterglow.
Scientists have measured temperature changes in the CMB and studied its large-scale properties using complicated trigonometry.
Based on these studies, cosmologists have estimated space to be expanding at around 68 kilometres per second per megaparsec ((km/s)/Mpc). That is, an object one megaparsec (3.26 million lightyears) away is moving away at 68 km/s)/Mpc.
Cosmic distance ladder:
It is a set of techniques used to measure the distance to objects that are close, further away, or very far away from the Earth. One object in particular is the Cepheid variable star.
The Cepheid variables have a unique feature: their brightness varies in a predictable way over time.
Based on how bright a Cepheid variable is, scientists can estimate how far away it is. Using this, cosmologists have estimated based on various Cepheid variables (and other such objects) is 73 (km/s)/Mpc.
Thus, these measurements have yielded slightly different values for the Hubble constant. This discrepancy is known as the Hubble tension.
The significance of the Hubble tension is that it could potentially indicate unknown physics or systematic errors in the measurements.
Resolving the tension is crucial for refining our understanding of the universe’s expansion and its underlying physics.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/hubble-tension-cosmic-distance-ladder-riess-webb-telescope/article68064403.ece
In context of environment and ecology, the term ‘Precautionary Principle’ refers to:
a principle that legitimizes the adoption of preventative measures to address potential risks, even with uncertain scientific evidence.
Explanation :
According to British environmentalist Norman Myers, the precautionary principle is becoming an established principle for policymakers tackling environmental problems.
About Precautionary Principle:
It is an approach to policymaking that legitimizes the adoption of preventative measures to address potential risks to the public or environment associated with certain activities or policies.
The principle says, “Where there are threats of serious or irreversible damage, lack of full scientific certainty shall not be used as a reason for postponing cost-effective measures to prevent such environmental degradation.”
It enables decision-makers to adopt precautionary measures when scientific evidence about an environmental or human health hazard is uncertain and the stakes are high.
This implies that protective action should be taken to prevent any possible harm, even if there is a chance that such harm will not occur–thus playing it safe.
It first emerged during the 1970s and has since been enshrined in a number of international treaties on the environment, including the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union and the national legislation of certain Member States.
In 1987, it was incorporated into international law at the International Conference on the Protection of the North Sea.
Since then, it has permeated most international environmental conventions. For example, entrenched by the 1992 Rio Declaration (Principle 15), it was written into the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change and, retroactively, into the Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer.
It was integrated into the criteria for the listing of endangered species by the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species in 1994, and the following year it was adopted by the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations.
It is a cornerstone of European Union (EU) environmental law and has been central in determining the EU’s position toward genetically modified organisms.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/decoding-the-supreme-court-judgment-on-jim-corbett/article68064918.ece
Which of the following was the primary objective of ‘Operation Meghdoot’, carried out by the Indian Armed Forces?
To secure the strategically important Siachen Glacier
Explanation :
The Indian Army recently commemorated 40 years since ‘Operation Meghdoot’ began, securing the Siachen Glacier.
About Operation Meghdoot:
It was the code-name for the Indian Armed Forces operation to capture the Siachen Glacier, a strategically crucial region dominating Northern Ladakh.
Siachen has been a bone of contention between India and Pakistan ever since the Karachi Agreement of 1949, when the area was left undivided due to the hostile terrain and extremely rough weather.
Operation Meghdoot was India’s bold military response to what New Delhi calls Pakistan’s “cartographic aggression” in the uncharted territory of Ladakh, north of map reference NJ9842, where New Delhi and Islamabad had agreed the Line of Control (LoC) ran up to.
Intelligence inputs about impending Pakistani military action prompted India to secure strategic heights on Siachen, deploying troops via airlifts and air-dropping supplies to high-altitude airfields.
The primary objective behind this operation was to pre-empt the seizure of Sia La and Bilafond La passes by the Pakistan Army.
Launched in 1984, this military operation was unique as the first assault launched on the world’s highest battlefield.
It was launched under the leadership of Lieutenant General Manohar Lal Chibber, Lieutenant General PN Hoon and Major General Shiv Sharma.
It is distinguished by being one of the greatest examples of seamless coordination and synergy between the Indian Army and the Air Force.
The military action resulted in Indian troops gaining control of the entire Siachen Glacier.
Strategic Importance of the Siachen:
Located at a height of around 20,000 feet in the Karakoram Mountain range, the Siachen Glacier is known as the highest militarised zone around the world.
It is located so strategically that while it dominates Shaksgam Valley (ceded to China by Pakistan in 1963) in the north, controls the routes coming from Gilgit Baltistan to Leh from the west, and at the same time, it dominates the ancient Karakoram Pass in the eastern side too.
Further, towards the west, it observes nearly the entire of Gilgit Baltistan, which too is an Indian territory illegally occupied by Pakistan in 1948.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/indian-army-marks-4-decades-of-presence-in-siachen-glacier/articleshow/109265489.cms?from=mdr
What is an easementary right according to ‘The Indian Easements Act, 1882’?
A right possessed by the owner of one land over another land for beneficial enjoyment.
Explanation :
The Supreme Court, in a dispute in connection with easementary rights over a 20 ft. wide road situated over a land, reiterated that the power of attorney holder can only depose about the facts within his personal knowledge.
About Easementary Right:
The concept of easement has been defined under Section 4 of ‘The Indian Easements Act, 1882’.
According to the provisions of Section 4, an easementary right is a right possessed by the owner or occupier of the land on some other land, not his own, the purpose of which is to provide the beneficial enjoyment of the land.
This right is granted because without the existence of this right an occupier or owner cannot fully enjoy his own property.
It includes the right to do or continue to do something or to prevent or to continue to prevent something in connection with or in respect of some other land, which is not his own, for the enjoyment of his own land.
The word ‘land’ refers to everything permanently attached to the earth, and the word ‘beneficial enjoyment’ denotes convenience, advantage or any amenity, or any necessity.
The owner or occupier referred to in the provision is known as the Dominant Owner and the land for the benefit of which the easementary right exists is called Dominant Heritage.
Whereas the owner upon whose land the liability is imposed is known as the Serviant Owner and the land on which such a liability is imposed to do or prevent something is known as the Servient Heritage.
Eg: ‘P’, being the owner of certain land or house, has a right of way over Q’s house, adjacent to his house, to move out of the street. This is known as right of easement.
An easement is, in no way, a transfer of property. It could be made, altered, or released as well, and should always be in written form, except when it has been enjoyed for a very long time without restrictions. A written document helps either party to challenge it in a court of law.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.verdictum.in/court-updates/supreme-court/manisha-mahendra-gala-v-shalini-bhagwan-avatramani-2024-insc-293-power-of-attorney-holder-1530290
Consider the following statements with reference to the Jiadhal River:
- It is a northern tributary of the Brahmaputra River.
- It flows through the Indian States of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The tranquil flow of the Jiadhal river is now being disrupted by the harsh realities of climate change.
About Jiadhal River:
It is a northern tributary of the Brahmaputra River.
Course:
It originates in the sub-Himalayan mountains of Arunachal Pradesh at an altitude of 1247m.
After passing through a narrow gorge in Arunachal Pradesh, the river enters the plains of Assam in Dhemaji district, where it flows in braided channels.
The river finally debouches into the Brahmaputra near Selamukh in Lakhimpur district.
But after the construction of the embankment over the Kherkutiya Suti of the Brahmaputra, the river confluences with the Subansiri River.
Topographically, the upper part of the basin is hilly (Himalayan range), and the middle part onwards is a plain area.
The total area of the catchment is 1053.20 sq.km., of which 696.80 sq.km., and 356.4 sq.km. come under Assam and Arunachal Pradesh respectively.
The sub-basin of Jiadhal experiences heavy rainfall. It carries heavy silt load from its 1346 sq. km catchment area during the rainy season and deposits them on its bed in the plains, resulting in the considerable rise of its riverbed.
Jiadhal is known for frequent changing of its course and devastating floods.
The Jiadhal River is a classic example of a flashy river and produces floods with a sudden, high discharge over a short time interval (a few hours to a day) and with a high sediment load and debris.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.downtoearth.org.in/video/climate-change/how-shifts-in-the-rivers-are-threatening-food-security-in-assam-alarming-variations-ep-02-95557
Qudsia Bagh was built during the reign of which one of the following dynasties in India?
Mughal
Explanation :
Qudsia Bagh was recently given a facelift as a part of Delhi Development Authority’s project to revive Yamuna’s floodplains.
It was built by Qudsia Begum (in 1748), the wife of Mughal Emperor Mohammad Shah Rangeela, who ruled in the early 18th century.
Location: It is situated in North Delhi.
Architecture style: It was built in the Persian char-bagh style.
The only remains of the Bagh are its imposing western gateway, the Qudsia Mosque and a couple of pavilions in carved red sandstone.
The Qudsia Mosque was the private mosque of the emperor and his wife, and had been built in a very simple style surmounted by three-storied high walls.
The mosque is an ASI protected monument and it is built with lakhori bricks.
The Bagh had several entrances built with red sandstones, plastered with limestone. Stucco work is done on the walls. It had cusped arches with floral patterns above.
This garden was one of the locations that played a role during the 1857 First War of Independence and was destroyed and damaged during the course of events
It was also the site of the last meeting of Bhagat Singh and his comrades before they undertook their mission of throwing bombs in the Central Legislative Assembly.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/delhi/qudsia-bagh-this-morning-walkers-paradise-was-once-a-symbol-of-a-queens-ambition-a-casualty-to-1857-aftermath-9270337/
Shrinkflation occurs in an economy when there is a/an:
rise in cost of production
Explanation :
As input prices, which were benign for a few quarters, turn inflationary, the spectre of shrinkflation looms large within the fast-moving consumer goods (FMCG) segment.
It occurs when goods shrink in size but consumers pay the same price. It occurs when manufacturers downsize products to offset higher production costs but keep retail prices same.
It is basically a form of hidden inflation.
Instead of increasing the price of a product, producers reduce the size of the product while maintaining the same price.
The absolute price of the product doesn’t go up, but the price per unit of weight or volume has increased.
Reasons: The reasons for shrinkflation are rising production costs and market competition.
Impacts:
Shrinkflation runs the risk of turning customers away from a product or brand if they notice they are getting less for the same price.
Another downside of shrinkflation is that it makes it harder to accurately measure price changes or inflation.
The price point becomes misleading since the product size cannot always be considered in terms of measuring the basket of goods.
What are Fast-Moving Consumer Goods?
These are products sold quickly and at a relatively low cost. The FMCG industry is characterized by high-volume sales, quick inventory turnover, and various products catering to consumer needs.
These goods include essential everyday items such as food and beverages, toiletries, cleaning supplies, and other low-cost household items.
They have a short shelf life because of high consumer demand (e.g., soft drinks and confections) or because they are perishable (e.g., meat, dairy products, and baked goods).
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/industry-shrinkflation-makes-its-way-back-into-fmcg-3456683/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Paharia Tribe:
- They mainly reside in Jharkhand and West Bengal.
- They speak the language called Malto.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Jharkhand’s Pahariya tribe aims to achieve seed independence by depositing native varieties in community-led banks.
The community name Paharia is “believed to have been derived from the word pahar meaning hills.
They live mainly in the states of Jharkhand and West Bengal. There are also scattered groups of them in Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra and Odisha.
They practise jhum or shifting cultivation which involves clearing land by burning vegetation for farming for a few years.
In Jharkhand, there are two types of Pahariyas.
Mal Pahariya: These people live in the southern hills of Damin-i-koh and in the south and east of Santhal Parganas. They are a race of Proto-Ostroloid.
Shauria Pahariya (or Maler Paharia): They are mostly found in Santhal Parganas.
Their main residential place was in the area of Karnataka. At present, they live in mountains of Rajmahal and Santhal Pargana. Their own language is “Malto”.
Religious Practices
The Paharias worship their household, clan and village deities like Mait, Maa, Gangadi, Sunadi, Rupadi, Budharaja. They have a distinct set of gods and goddesses compared with the Hindus and other religious communities.
Language: The Paharia people speak their own Pahariya language at home. Their language is influenced by Havli and Chharisgarhi.
Hence both statements are correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Special Olympics Bharat:
- It is a National Sports Federation recognized by the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports.
- It is involved in development of Sports for Persons with Intellectual Disabilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Special Olympics Bharat (SOB), a National Sports Federation of India is forming district units across Tamil Nadu through elections on April 22.
It is a National Sports Federation registered under the Indian Trust Act 1882 in 2001 and is accredited by Special Olympics International to conduct Special Olympics Programs in India.
It is recognized by the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports, Government of India as a National Sports Federation in the Priority Category, for development of Sports for Persons with Intellectual Disabilities.
It is a designated Nodal Agency for all disabilities on account of its national presence and experience, especially in rural areas which account for nearly 75 per cent of the disabled population in India.
It is a social inclusion movement using sports, health, and education and leadership programs to empower people with intellectual disabilities.
Key facts about the Special Olympics International
It is a program to provide individuals with intellectual disabilities who are eight years of age or older with year-round sports training and athletic competition in more than 20 Olympic-type summer and winter sports.
It was inaugurated in 1968 and was officially recognized by the International Olympic Committee in 1988.
Headquarters : Washington, D.C. USA
What is Intellectual Disability?
Intellectual disability is characterized by significantly below-average intellectual functioning (generally regarded as IQ below 70) combined with impairment in carrying out varying aspects of daily life and adapting to the normal social environment.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/chennai/special-olympics-bharat-elections-to-be-held-on-april-22/article68065531.ece
With reference to Exo-atmospheric interceptors’ missile, consider the following statements:
- It is a surface-to-air missile designed to counter incoming ballistic missiles.
- It can be used to counter Intercontinental Ballistic Missiles (ICBMs).
- It uses a three-stage solid rocket booster to propel itself out of Earth’s atmosphere.
All three
Explanation :
Recently, Israel said its air-defence system involving exo-atmospheric interceptors destroyed ‘99% of missiles’ fired by the Islamic Republic of Iran.
These are also known as anti-ballistic missiles (ABMs).
Features
These are surface-to-air missiles designed to counter incoming ballistic missiles.
They are designed to intercept and destroy any type of ballistic threat during the mid-course or terminal phase of their trajectory.
However, they are specifically designed to counter Intercontinental Ballistic Missiles (ICBMs). The anti-ballistic missiles operate beyond the Earth’s atmosphere.
The exo-atmospheric interceptors or anti-ballistic missiles are equipped with advanced technology including infrared sensors and radar systems so that they can detect and track incoming ballistic missiles and terminate them.
These missiles travel at a hypersonic speed advanced and sophisticated guidance missile systems to accurately manoeuvre and intercept targets travelling at very high speeds.
These missiles are guided by an inertial navigation system that is updated during flight using contour maps stored in the system’s computerized memory.
The anti-ballistic missiles use a three-stage solid rocket booster to propel itself out of Earth’s atmosphere at near-hypersonic speed. After reaching into space, the ABM activates its sophisticated sensors to identify and track the incoming target. They have an inbuilt rocket motor to navigate towards the target with exceptional accuracy.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livemint.com/science/news/iranisrael-crisis-air-defence-system-exo-atmospheric-interception-anti-ballistic-missile-middle-east-arrow-3-science-11713085808159.html
Pompeii, an ancient city recently seen in news, is located in which one of the following countries?
Italy
Explanation :
Archaeologists in Pompeii recently uncovered a black-walled banqueting hall adorned with vivid frescoes depicting scenes from Greek mythology.
About Pompeii:
It is a preserved ancient Roman city located near modern-day Naples, Italy.
It lies at the southeastern base of Mount Vesuvius.
The area was originally settled in the Bronze Age on an escarpment at the mouth of the Sarnus (modern Sarno) River.
Pompeii was built on a spur formed by a prehistoric lava flow to the north of the mouth of the Sarno River.
It was conquered and absorbed into the Roman Empire in 80 BCE.
At its height, the small city had a thriving economy based on trade and agriculture.
The population of the town has been estimated at 10-12,000, with one third being slaves.
The city featured a complex municipal water system, an amphitheater, and a gymnasium.
The city was buried in volcanic ash following the eruption of Mt. Vesuvius in 79 CE.
Pompeii was basically lost and forgotten until it was rediscovered in 1748.
Its excellent state of preservation gives an invaluable insight into Roman everyday life.
It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/rest-of-world/ancient-roman-banqueting-hall-adorned-with-greek-mythology-trojan-war-decorations-uncovered-in-pompeii/photostory/109255137.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Chagas Disease:
- It is an infectious disease caused by a virus.
- There are no vaccines or medicines to prevent the disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The World Health Organisation (WHO) observed World Chagas Disease Day on April 14 to raise awareness about the often-overlooked illness.
About Chagas Disease:
Chagas disease, also known as American trypanosomiasis, is an infectious disease caused by the protozoan parasite Trypanosoma cruzi.
The disease has been named after Brazilian physician Carlos Chagas, who discovered it in 1909.
Transmission:
It is transmitted to humans through the bite of the infected triatomine bugs, also known as “kissing bugs”, which feed on blood and are active mostly at night.
It can also be transmitted through blood transfusions, organ transplantation, congenital transmission from mother to child, and the consumption of contaminated food or beverages.
As per WHO statistics, there are approximately 6-7 million people infected with Chagas disease worldwide, mostly in Latin America, with 10,000 deaths every year.
Chagas disease progresses through two main stages: acute and chronic.
Acute stage:
The acute stage typically occurs shortly after infection and may exhibit mild or no symptoms at all, making it difficult to diagnose.
Common symptoms include fever, fatigue, body aches, headache, rash, loss of appetite, vomiting, and swelling at the site of infection (chagoma).
Chronic stage:
If left untreated, the infection progresses to the chronic stage, which can manifest years or even decades after the initial infection.
It can lead to severe complications, including cardiac issues such as cardiomyopathy, arrhythmias, heart failure, and gastrointestinal problems such as megaesophagus and megacolon.
It is often referred to as “silent and silenced disease” as the infected majority have no symptoms or extremely mild symptoms.
There are no vaccines or medicines to prevent Chagas disease.
Treatment:
Treatment for Chagas disease includes antiparasitic medications, such as benznidazole.
In addition, if you have cardiac or intestinal complications from Chagas disease, you may need further treatment.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/chagas-disease-all-about-infection-caused-by-kissing-bugs-5447729
With reference to the Long Period Average (LPA) of rainfall, consider the following statements:
- It is the rainfall recorded over a particular region for a given interval, averaged over a long period of time.
- It is used as a benchmark while forecasting the quantitative rainfall for a region for a specific month or season.
- It is updated periodically, once every two years, by the India Meteorological Department (IMD).
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
India is expected to have an “above normal” monsoon season with 106% of the Long Period Average, according to the India Meteorological Department (IMD).
About Long Period Average (LPA) of Rainfall:
It is the rainfall recorded over a particular region for a given interval (like a month or season) averaged over a long period of time, like 30 years or 50 years.
The value is used as a benchmark while forecasting the quantitative rainfall for that region for a specific month or season.
IMD, which monitors the rainfall in the country, has prepared this rainfall normal based on the data for the period of 50 years and is updated periodically once every decade by incorporating the latest data from rain gauge stations.
The current LPA of all India south-west monsoon rainfall based on the average rainfall over the period 1971-2020 is 868 cm.
The IMD has in the past calculated the LPA at 88 cm for the 1961-2010 period and at 89 cm for the period 1951-2000.
Similarly, at the national level, the annual LPA has been reduced from 117 cm to 116 cm.
Why is LPA needed?
Because annual rainfall can vary greatly not just from region to region and from month to month but also from year to year within a particular region or month, an LPA is needed to smooth out trends so that a reasonably accurate prediction can be made.
A 50-year LPA covers for large variations in either direction caused by freak years of unusually high or low rainfall (as a result of events such as El Nino or La Nina), as well as for the periodic drought years and the increasingly common extreme weather events caused by climate change.
The IMD maintains five rainfall distribution categories on an all-India scale. These are:
Normal or near normal, when the percentage departure of actual rainfall is +/-10% of LPA, that is, between 96-104% of LPA;
Below normal, when the departure of actual rainfall is less than 10% of LPA, that is 90-96% of LPA;
Above normal, when actual rainfall is 104-110% of LPA;
Deficient, when the departure of actual rainfall is less than 90% of LPA; and
Excess, when the departure of actual rainfall is more than 110% of LPA.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/monsoon-to-be-above-normal-predicts-imd-101713206480480.html
Exercise Dustlik is an annual joint military exercise between India and which one of the following countries?
Uzbekistan
Explanation :
The Indian Army contingent departed recently for the 5th edition of India-Uzbekistan joint military Exercise DUSTLIK.
About Exercise Dustlik:
It is an annual joint military exercise between the Indian Army and the Uzbekistan Army.
It is conducted alternately in India and Uzbekistan.
The first edition of the exercise was held in Uzbekistan in 2019.
The last edition was conducted in Pithoragarh in 2023.
Dustlik-2024:
It is the fifth edition of the joint exercise.
The exercise will be conducted at Termez in Uzbekistan.
The Indian Armed Forces contingent, comprising 60 personnel, is being represented by 45 personnel from the Indian Army, primarily from a battalion of the JAT Regiment, and 15 personnel from the Indian Air Force.
The Uzbekistan contingent, comprising approximately 100 personnel, from the Uzbekistan Army and Air Force, will be represented by personnel from Southern Operational Command, part of the South-West Military District.
The aim of Exercise DUSTLIK is to foster military cooperation and enhance combined capabilities to execute joint operations in mountainous as well as semi urban terrain.
It would focus on a high degree of physical fitness, joint planning, joint tactical drills, and the basics of special arms skills.
The complexity of this edition of Exercise DUSTLIK has been enhanced with the conduct of multi domain operations, as the contingent comprises personnel from combat support arms and services besides infantry.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://newsonair.gov.in/?p=169105
Which of the following countries share border with Sudan?
- Libya
- Egypt
- Chad
- Ethiopia
- Somalia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
Indiscriminate attacks against civilians in Sudan could constitute “war crimes and crimes against humanity,” UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres has said recently.
About Sudan:
It is located in north-eastern Africa.
It is the third largest nation in all of Africa occupying an area of 1,886,068 sq. km.
Sudan shares a border with its seven neighbors: South Sudan, Ethiopia, Eritrea, Egypt, Libya, Chad, and the Central African Republic.
Sudan also has a significant coastline along the Red Sea.
This narrow strip of water gives vital access to the Indian Ocean as well as the Mediterranean Sea through the Suez Canal.
Prior to the secession of the south in 2011, Sudan was the largest African country, with an area that represented more than 8 percent of the African continent and almost 2 percent of the world’s total land area.
Geography:
Sudan is mainly composed of vast plains and plateaus that are drained by the Nile River and its tributaries.
Much of Sudan consists of deserts and arid grasslands with little in the way of vegetation.
The northern part of this plain is a primarily rocky desert area called the Nubian Desert.
Independence:
Following Egyptian occupation early in the 19th century, the British established an Anglo-Egyptian Sudan - nominally a condominium, but in effect a British colony.
Sudan gained independence from Anglo-Egyptian co-rule in 1956.
Military regimes favoring Islamic-oriented governments have dominated national politics since Sudan gained independence.
Capital: Khartoum
The country is dominated by Muslims and identify themselves as “Arabs”.
Languages: Arabic, English
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.aljazeera.com/news/2024/4/15/crimes-against-humanity-may-have-been-committed-in-sudan-says-un-chief
Consider the following statements with reference to Bumblebees:
- They are most commonly found in temperate climates.
- Unlike honeybees, they do not make honey as they do not need to store food for winter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
According to a new study, bumblebees appear to be quite resistant to common pesticides.
About Bumblebees:
They are large, hairy, social bees belonging to the family Apidae (subfamily Bombinae).
The family Apidae includes the well-known honey bees and bumble bees, as well as carpenter bees, cuckoo bees, digger bees, stingless bees, and orchid bees.
Distribution:
They occur throughout much of the world but are most common in temperate climates.
There are over 250 known species, existing primarily in the Northern Hemisphere.
They are known for their ability to collect nectar from flowers and pollinate plants.
Features:
They are large, yellow, and black flying insects with a distinct buzz.
There is variation in coloration among bumblebees, and some species have bands of red, yellow, and black.
They have stocky bodies that are covered with many hairs to which pollen adheres.
Bumblebees have four wings; the two rear wings are small and usually attached to the fore wings by a row of hooks called hamuli.
The wings move rapidly, at 130-240 beats per second.
They are social insects that live in colonies. The queen bee, drones, and worker bees all have specific tasks to help support the colony.
Unlike the honeybee, bumblebees do not make honey, as they do not need to store food for winter. Instead, the season’s new queens hibernate and emerge to find their own nests in the spring.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-04-bumblebees-dont-pesticide-cocktails-highlights.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the UN Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues (UNPFII):
- It is an advisory body to the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC).
- It is the only international body that is mandated to deal specifically with Indigenous Peoples’ issues.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The 23rd session of the UN Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues recently commenced in New York, United States.
About UN Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues (UNPFII):
It was created in 2000 as an advisory body to the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) with a mandate to discuss indigenous issues related to economic and social development, culture, environment, education, health, and human rights.
According to its mandate, the Permanent Forum will:
Provide expert advice and recommendations on indigenous issues to the Council, as well as to programmes, funds, and agencies of the United Nations, through the Council.
Raise awareness and promote the integration and coordination of activities related to indigenous issues within the UN system.
Prepare and disseminate information on indigenous issues.
The first meeting of the Permanent Forum was held in 2002, and yearly sessions take place in New York.
It is one of three UN bodies that is mandated to deal specifically with Indigenous Peoples’ issues.
The others are the Expert Mechanism on the Rights of Indigenous Peoples and the Special Rapporteur on the Rights of Indigenous Peoples.
Members:
It is comprised of sixteen independent experts, functioning in their personal capacity, who serve for a term of three years as members and may be re-elected or re-appointed for one additional term.
Eight of the members are nominated by governments, and eight are nominated directly by indigenous organisations in their regions.
The Permanent Forum holds annual two-week sessions.
The annual sessions provide an opportunity for Indigenous Peoples from around the world to have direct dialogue with members of the Forum, Member States, the UN system, including human rights and other expert bodies, as well as academics and NGOs.
It prepares a report of the session containing recommendations and draft decisions, which is submitted to the ECOSOC.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/forests/un-permanent-forum-on-indigenous-issues-progress-towards-protecting-indigenous-territories-slow-say-experts-95576
Consider the following statements with reference to Lake Kariba:
- It is the world’s largest man-made lake and reservoir by volume.
- It lies along the border between South Africa and Zimbabwe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Water levels at Lake Kariba in Zimbabwe have dropped dramatically because of the latest El Nino drought.
About Lake Kariba:
It is the world’s largest man-made lake and reservoir by volume.
It lies approximately 1300 kilometers upstream from the Indian Ocean, along the border between Zambia and Zimbabwe.
It is 200 kilometers downstream of Victoria Falls.
The lake was filled following the completion of the Kariba Dam wall at its northeastern end, flooding the Kariba Gorge on the Zambezi River.
The Kariba Dam consists of a double-arch wall.
The wall extends across the Kariba gorge, creating a border crossing between Zambia and Zimbabwe.
It took up to three years for the dam wall to be completed. Construction began in 1956 and was finished in 1959.
It provides considerable electric power to both Zambia and Zimbabwe and supports a thriving commercial fishing industry.
It is roughly estimated to be about 280 km long and 40 km at its widest. It covers an area of nearly 6,000 square kilometres.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/africa/el-nino-drought-leaves-zimbabwe-s-lake-kariba-only-13-full-a-disaster-for-people-wildlife-95563
Consider the following statements with reference to the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve:
- It is located at the tri-junction of three States, viz., Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
- It is part of the Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A pack of wild dogs, or Dholes, in Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (MTR) have suffered severe exfoliating mixed skin infections.
About Mudumalai Tiger Reserve:
Location:
It is located in the Nilgiris District of Tamil Nadu, spread over 321 sq. km. at the tri-junction of three states, viz, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
It lies on the Northeastern and Northwestern slopes of the Nilgiri hills, which is a part of the Western Ghats.
It is part of the Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve, the first biosphere reserve in India.
It has a common boundary with Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) on the west, Bandipur Tiger Reserve (Karnataka) on the north, the Nilgiris North Division on the south and east, and Gudalur Forest Division on the south-west.
The name Mudumalai means ”the ancient hill range”. Indeed, it is as old as 65 million years when the Western Ghats were formed.
Terrain: The terrain is undulating, with the elevation ranging from 960m to 1266m.
Habitat: A variety of habitats ranging from tropical evergreen forest, moist deciduous forest, moist teak forest, dry teak forest, secondary grasslands, and swamps are found here.
River: The Moyar River runs through the reserve.
Flora:
It has tall grasses, commonly referred to as “Elephant Grass”, bamboo of the giant variety, and valuable timber species like Teak, Rosewood, etc.
It has wild relatives of cultivated plants, viz. wild rice, ginger, turmeric, cinnamon, etc.
The habitat also has swampy areas (Vayals) and grasslands.
Fauna:
The faunal assemblage includes: elephant, gaur, sambar, four-homed antelope, spotted deer, barking deer, blackbuck, wild pig, mouse deer, and predators like tigers, leopards, and wild dogs.
Around 8% of the total bird species in India can be found in the region.
The recent Oscar-winning ‘Elephant Whisperers’ was filmed at the Theppakadu Elephant Camp, located inside the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/tamil-nadu/2024/Apr/11/mudumalai-tiger-reserve-wild-dogs-affected-with-skin-infection
With reference to Kerogen, consider the following statements:
- It is the portion of naturally occurring organic matter that is insoluble in solvents.
- It occurs in source rock and may expel hydrocarbons upon thermal cracking.
- It acts like a precursor of oil and natural gas.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The primary source of hydrocarbons in the rocky underground is called kerogen: lumps of organic matter.
About Kerogen:
Kerogen is the portion of naturally occurring organic matter that is non-extractable using organic solvents i.e. it is insoluble in solvents.
Kerogen represents about 90% of the organic carbon in sediments.
It occurs in source rock and may expel hydrocarbons upon thermal cracking.
Typical organic constituents of kerogen are algae and woody plant material.
It consists of lighter as well as heavier hydrocarbons and acts like a precursor of oil and natural gas.
Kerogens have a high molecular weight relative to bitumen, or soluble organic matter. Bitumen forms from kerogen during petroleum generation.
Kerogens are described as Type I, consisting of mainly algal and amorphous (but presumably algal) kerogen and highly likely to generate oil; Type II, mixed terrestrial and marine source material that can generate waxy oil; and Type III, woody terrestrial source material that typically generates gas.
The types of kerogens present in a rock largely control the type of hydrocarbons generated in that rock.
Different types of kerogens contain different amounts of hydrogen relative to carbon and oxygen. The hydrogen content of kerogen is the controlling factor for oil vs. gas yields from the primary hydrocarbon-generating reactions.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/hydrocarbon-extraction-drilling/article68067808.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Laccadive Sea:
- It is a waterbody bordering India, Maldives and Sri Lanka.
- It meets the Nine Degree Channel in the south and Arabian Sea in the north.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Three fish species that live in the Laccadive Sea off the southwest corner of the Indian coast, capable of using tools, were recently found.
About Laccadive Sea:
The Laccadive Sea, also known as the Lakshadweep Sea, is a body of water bordering India (including its Lakshadweep islands), Maldives and Sri Lanka.
It is part of the Indian Ocean, the world’s third-largest body of water.
Collectively, the Lakshadweep Sea is 303,476 square miles in area.
Boundaries:
To its south, the Lakshadweep Sea touches the Nine Degree Channel.
To its west, it meets the larger Indian Ocean that it is also a part of.
To the north, the Lakshadweep Sea meets the Arabian Sea (also part of the Indian Ocean), while to the northeast, it borders the Kerala state of India.
Along the more southern eastern portion of the Lakshadweep Sea, it meets the Maldives islands and Sri Lanka.
With an average depth of 6,329 feet, the Lakshadweep Sea is only half as deep as the average depth of the entire Indian Ocean.
This warm sea has a stable water temperature throughout the year and is rich in marine life; the Gulf of Mannar alone hosts about 3,600 species.
Considering the coral reefs of the Lakshadweep Sea alone, there are nearly 120 observed living species.
Major cities: Major cities along its shores include Trivandrum and Kochi in India, Quilon and Colombo in Sri Lanka, and Malé in the Maldives.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/three-new-wrasse-species-spotted-using-tools-laccadive-sea/article68071175.ece
With reference to the Combined Maritime Forces (CMF), consider the following statements:
- It is a multi-national naval partnership formed under the aegis of the United Nations (UN).
- The member nations are not bound by either a political or military mandate.
- India, Australia and United States of America are its member nations.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
INS Talwar of the Indian Navy recently seized 940 kg of drugs in the Arabian Sea as part of an operation led by the Combined Maritime Forces (CMF).
About Combined Maritime Forces (CMF):
It is a multi-national naval partnership based in Bahrain which exists to promote security, stability and prosperity across approximately 3.2 million square miles of international waters, which encompass some of the world’s most important shipping lanes.
CMF’s main focus areas are defeating terrorism, preventing piracy, encouraging regional cooperation, and promoting a safe maritime environment.
CMF counters violent extremism and terrorist networks in maritime areas of responsibility; works with regional and other partners to improve overall security and stability; helps strengthen regional nations’ maritime capabilities; and, when requested, responds to environmental and humanitarian crises.
It is comprised of five task forces:
CTF 150 (Gulf of Oman Security and Counter-Terrorism)
CTF 151 (counter-piracy)
CTF 152 (Arabian Gulf Security and Cooperation)
CTF 153 (Red Sea/Gulf of Aden security and cooperation)
CTF 154 (maritime security training).
Member Nations: Australia, Bahrain, Belgium, Brazil, Canada, Colombia, Denmark, Ecuador, Egypt, France, Germany, Greece, India, Iraq, Italy, Japan, Jordan, Kenya, Republic of Korea, Kuwait, Malaysia, the Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Pakistan, the Philippines, Poland, Portugal, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, Seychelles, Singapore, Spain, Thailand, Türkiye, UAE, United Kingdom, United States, and Yemen.
Participation is purely voluntary. No nation is asked to carry out any duty that it is unwilling to conduct.
The member nations are not bound by either a political or military mandate.
CMF is a flexible organisation. Contributions can vary from the provision of a liaison officer at CMF HQ in Bahrain to the supply of warships or support vessels in task forces, and maritime reconnaissance aircraft based on land.
It can also call on warships not explicitly assigned to CMF to give associated support, which is assistance they can offer if they have the time and capacity to do so whilst undertaking national tasking.
Headquarters are co-located with US Naval Central Command and US Navy Fifth Fleet at Naval Support Activity (NSA) Bahrain.
Command:
CMF is commanded by a U.S. Navy Vice Admiral, who also serves as Commander of the US Naval Forces Central Command (NAVCENT) and US Navy Fifth Fleet.
CMF’s Deputy Commander is a United Kingdom Royal Navy Commodore.
Other senior staff roles at CMF’s headquarters are filled by personnel from member nations.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/indian-navy-seizes-940kg-drugs-in-arabian-sea-in-1st-interdiction-as-cmf-member-101713270878509.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the imported inflation:
- It is a general and sustainable price increase due to an increase in the cost of imported products.
- The more the currency appreciates in the foreign exchange market, the higher the imported inflation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Asian Development Bank recently warned that India could face imported inflation as the rupee could depreciate amid the rise in interest rates in the West.
About Imported Inflation:
Imported inflation is a general and sustainable price increase due to an increase in the costs of imported products.
This price increase concerns the price of raw materials and all imported products or services used by companies in a country.
Imported inflation is also referred to as cost inflation.
Several factors cause imported inflation:
Exchange Rates: The most significant driver of imported inflation is fluctuations in exchange rates. The more the currency depreciates in the foreign exchange market, the higher the price of imports. Effectively, more money is needed to buy goods and services outside the country.
Commodity Prices: Many countries, particularly smaller countries, are highly dependent on imported commodities like oil, metals, and agricultural products. When commodity prices rise globally, it directly impacts the cost of imports and can lead to higher inflation in the importing country.
Trade Policies and Global Supply-Chains: Changes in trade policies, such as tariffs and quotas, can influence the cost of imported goods.
Transportation Costs: Fluctuations in transportation costs, influenced by factors like fuel prices and logistical challenges, can affect the final cost of imported goods.
Effect:
With imported inflation, production costs are higher for companies. These companies most often reflect this increase in the selling price of the goods and services sold.
As a result, prices within the country rise.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/higher-for-longer-india-to-face-most-impact-in-asia-says-adb/article68054879.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Athletics Federation of India (AFI):
- It is a non-profitable autonomous body responsible for overseeing athletics in India.
- It functions under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
In a first, the Athletics Federation of India has disaffiliated 16 district associations across the country for failing to send teams for the National inter-district junior athletics meet held recently.
About Athletics Federation of India (AFI):
It is the top governing body responsible for overseeing athletics in India.
It is a non-governmental and non-profitable autonomous body.
It is affiliated to the World Athletics, the Asian Athletics Association (AAA), and the Indian Olympic Association.
It was formerly called the Amateur Athletic Federation of India (AAFI).
The AFI has as many as 32 affiliated state units and institutional units.
The AFI came into existence in 1946, and the federation organises the National Championships, trains the Indian Athletics National Campers, selects the Indian Athletics Teams for various international competitions, including the Olympics, Asian Games, CWG, World Championships, Asian Championships, and other international meets, conducts the National Championships for various age categories.
Besides, the AFI conducts international and national championships and various meets to promote the sport, popularise it amongst the masses, and make athletics commercially attractive for the further growth of the athlete and the sport.
The federation also supervises and assists its state units in their activities, plans and sets up special coaching camps, coaches training, and takes initiatives for development programme and grass root promotion of athletics in India.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sport/athletics/afi-disaffiliates-16-districts-for-skipping-inter-district-nationals/article68072148.ece
Gaia-BH3, recently seen in the news, is a/an:
massive stellar black hole
Explanation :
Astronomers recently spotted the most massive known stellar black hole in the Milky Way galaxy named Gaia-BH3.
About Gaia-BH3:
It is the most massive stellar black hole yet discovered in the Milky Way galaxy.
This black hole was spotted in data from the European Space Agency’s Gaia mission because it imposes an odd ‘wobbling’ motion on the companion star orbiting it.
The researchers used the European Southern Observatory’s Very Large Telescope in Chile’s Atacama Desert and other ground-based observatories to confirm the mass of Gaia BH3.
It has a mass that is nearly 33 times that of our sun, and it’s located 1,926 light-years away in the Aquila constellation, making it the second-closest known black hole to Earth.
The closest black hole is Gaia BH1, which is located about 1,500 light-years away and has a mass that is nearly 10 times that of our sun.
Most Massive Black Hole in Milky Way galaxy: The title for the most massive black hole in our galaxy will always belong to Sagittarius A*, the supermassive black hole located at the center of the Milky Way, which has about 4 million times the mass of the sun, but that is because it’s a supermassive black hole, rather than a stellar black hole.
Stellar black hole vs Supermassive black hole:
Stellar-mass black holes are formed from the gravitational collapse of a single star or from the merger of two neutron stars.
Therefore, stellar-mass black holes have masses similar to the masses of stars.
More specifically, stellar-mass black holes have masses ranging from about 3 times the mass of our sun to about 50 times the mass of our sun.
In contrast, supermassive black holes have a mass greater than about 50,000 times the mass of our sun and are typically millions to billions of times the mass of our sun.
Supermassive black holes are far too large to have formed from the gravitational collapse of a single star.
However, scientists do not currently know how supermassive black holes form.
Supermassive black holes are always found at the center of a galaxy and almost all galaxies have a supermassive black hole at its center.
This seems to suggest that each supermassive black hole is formed as part of the formation of its galaxy.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://edition.cnn.com/2024/04/16/world/milky-way-massive-stellar-black-hole-scn/index.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs):
- They are debt securities issued by governments to raise capital to support climate-related projects.
- Only resident Indian entities are allowed to invest in these bonds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently green-lighted investments in the country’s Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs) by Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIS).
About Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs):
A green bond is a debt security that is issued to raise capital to support climate-related or environmental projects, according to the World Bank.
SGBs are issued by governments to raise resources for such projects.
The Union Budget 2022-23 announced the issue of SGrBs.
The framework for the SGrBs was issued by the government on November 9, 2022.
What does the framework entail?
The government’s framework is based on the International Capital Market Association’s (ICMA) listed principles for issuing green bonds, which has four components:
Use of proceeds, project evaluation and selection, management of proceeds, and reporting.
The government said the bonds’ proceeds will be used for green projects that:
Encourage energy efficiency
Reduce carbon emissions and greenhouse gases
Promote climate resilience and/or adaptation
Improve natural ecosystems and biodiversity, especially in accordance with the principles of sustainable development goals
The framework listed investments in solar, wind, biomass, and hydro energy projects, and urban mass transportation projects such as metro rail, green buildings, pollution prevention and control projects.
The government excluded projects such as fossil fuels, nuclear power generation, and direct waste incineration.
The eligible expenditure is limited to government spending that occurred not more than 12 months prior to issuance.
The proceeds should be allocated to projects within 24 months of issuing the bonds.
If an eligible green project is postponed or cancelled, it will be replaced by another eligible green project.
How will green projects be evaluated and reported?
The Ministry of Finance has constituted a Green Finance Working Committee composed of relevant ministries and chaired by the chief economic adviser.
The Ministries will submit their projects to the committee, which will meet at least twice a year to evaluate the proposals.
Once the projects are evaluated, the final list will be given to the budget division of the finance ministry.
The division will then issue the bonds through the RBI and use the proceeds to finance the selected projects.
The government will release an annual report on the selection of green projects, the funds deployed, and their impact on the greening of the economy.
It will also maintain a Green Register with details of the green bond issuance, the proceeds generated, allocations made, and information about the eligible projects.
Apart from green bonds, the government will finance green projects from its tax receipts as well.
How will green bonds be issued?
The government will inform the RBI about the amount of eligible green expenditure and the funding required from green bonds.
The bonds will be issued in maturities of five and ten years and can be traded like other government bonds.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/why-has-india-allowed-fiis-to-invest-in-its-green-bonds-explained/article68073170.ece#:~:text=Allowing%20FIIs%20to%20invest%20in,pledged%20by%20Prime%20Minister%20Narendra
Consider the following statements with reference to the Vostro Account:
- It is an account that foreign banks hold for domestic banks in the latter’s domestic currency.
- It helps domestic banks gain wider access to foreign financial markets without having to be physically present abroad.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
India has simplified the payment mechanism for traders importing pulses from Myanmar, requiring them to use the Rupee/Kyat direct payment system through the Special Rupee Vostro Account (SRVA) through the Punjab National Bank.
What is a Vostro Account?
A vostro account is an account that domestic banks hold for foreign banks in the former’s domestic currency, in this case, the rupee.
Domestic banks use it to provide international banking services to their clients who have global banking needs.
It is an integral offshoot of correspondent banking that entails a bank (or an intermediary) to facilitate wire transfers, conduct business transactions, accept deposits and gather documents on behalf of the other bank.
It helps domestic banks gain wider access to foreign financial markets and serve international clients without having to be physically present abroad.
About SRVA:
The settlement of international trade through Indian Rupees (INR) is an additional arrangement to the existing system of settlement that uses freely convertible currencies and works as a complimentary system.
Freely convertible currency is a currency which is permitted by the rules and regulations of the country concerned to be converted into major reserve currencies like the U.S. Dollar, Pound Sterling.
This will reduce dependence on hard (freely convertible) currency.
SRVA requires prior approval of RBI before opening, unlike Rupee Vostro account.
How does SRVA arrangement function?
The framework entails three important components, namely, invoicing, exchange rate, and settlement.
Invoicing entails that all exports and imports must be denominated and invoiced in INR.
The exchange rate between the currencies of the trading partner countries would be market-determined.
The final settlement also takes place in Indian National Rupee (INR).
The authorised domestic dealer banks (those authorised to deal in foreign currencies) are required to open SRVA accounts for correspondent banks of the partner trading country.
Domestic importers are required to make payment (in INR) into the SRVA account of the correspondent bank against the invoices for supply of goods or services from the overseas seller/supplier.
Similarly, domestic exporters are to be paid the export proceeds (in INR) from the balances in the designated account of the correspondent bank of the partner country.
As for availing an advance against exports, it would be the responsibility of the domestic bank to accord foremost priority to ensuring that the available funds are used to meet existing payment obligations, that is, from the already executed export orders or export payments in the pipeline.
All reporting of cross-border transactions is to be done in accordance with the extant guidelines under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999.
What are the eligibility criteria of banks?
Banks from partner countries are required to approach an authorised domestic dealer bank for opening the SRVA.
The domestic bank would then seek approval from the apex banking regulator, providing details of the arrangement.
It would be the responsibility of the domestic banks to ensure that the correspondent bank is not from a country mentioned in the updated Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Public Statement on High-Risk and Non-Co-operative jurisdictions.
Domestic banks must also put forth, for perusal, financial parameters pertaining to the corresponding bank.
Authorised banks can open multiple SRV accounts for different banks from the same country.
Further, balances in the account can be repatriated in freely convertible currency and/or the currency of the beneficiary partner country, depending on the underlying transaction, that is, for which the account was credited.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://bfsi.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/financial-services/payment-mechanism-for-traders-importing-pulses-from-myanmar-simplified-govt/109283005#:~:text=2%20min%20read-,Payment%20mechanism%20for%20traders%20importing%20pulses%20from%20Myanmar%20simplified%3A%20Govt,through%20the%20Punjab%20National%20Bank.
Veeranam Lake, recently seen in news, is located in:
Tamil Nadu
Explanation :
The water storage in Veeranam Lake was recorded at zero million cubic feet (mcft) on April 15, 2024 according to data by the Chennai Metropolitan Water Supply and Sewerage Board (CMWSSB). Last year, on the same date the lake held 687.40 mcft of water, while its total capacity is 1,465 mcft.
About Veeranam Lake:
Veeranam Lake serves as a crucial drinking water source for Chennai.
It is located in Cuddalore district in Tamil Nadu.
It was considered to be one of the longest man-made lakes in the world with a length of 14 km.
History-
It was built during the period of Greater Cholas between 907- 955 A.D, by the Chola Prince- Rajaditya Chola who was the son of Parantaka the 1st. He’d named this waterbody after his father’s title-Veeranarayanan.
The source of Veeranam is the river of Kollidam; which is the Northern distributary of the Cauvery River, where the Vadavaru River links both the Veeranam and Kollidam.
This lake was used as a reference, in the famous Historical novel Ponniyin Selvan, written by Kalki.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/water/another-bengaluru-in-the-making-chennai-s-main-drinking-water-source-veeranam-lake-dries-up-95592
Consider the following statements with reference to the Jhelum river:
- It rises from Verinag at the foothills of the Pir Panjal ranges in Jammu and Kashmir.
- Mangla Dam has been built on this river.
- Kishenganga (Neelum) is the largest tributary of the Jhelum river.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
At least six persons have died after a boat capsized in the Jhelum river on the outskirts of Srinagar city.
About Jhelum river:
It is a tributary of the Indus River that flows in India and Pakistan.
The Jhelum (Vyeth in Kashmiri, Vetesta in Sanskrit and Hydaspes in Greek) is the main waterway of the Kashmir valley.
It constitutes the westernmost of the five rivers of the Punjab region that merge with the Indus River in eastern Pakistan.
Mangla Dam has been built on the river.
Course:
Origin: It rises from its chief source Verinag at foothills of Pir Panjal ranges in Jammu and Kashmir.
It then flows via Dal Lake, Srinagar and Wular Lake prior to entering Pakistan.
The river makes a deep, narrow gorge on its way to Pakistan.
It joins the Chenab River near Trimmu, Pakistan.
Length: It has a total length of about 725 km (450 mi).
Major Tributaries:
The largest tributary of the Jhelum is the Kishenganga (Neelum) River, which joins near Muzaffarabad and enters the Punjab province, Pakistan.
Other tributaries- Sandran River, Bringi River, Arapath River, Lidder River and Veshaw River, Rambiara River, Dudhganga River.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livemint.com/news/boat-capsizes-carrying-school-children-dead-jehlum-river-srinagar-11713241047937.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the KAVACH system:
- It is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system.
- It makes use of high frequency radio communication and operates on the principle of continuous update of movement to prevent collisions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Supreme Court appreciated steps taken by Railways to roll out the Kavach anti-collision system.
About KAVACH System:
The KAVACH is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system by the Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with the Indian industry.
It is a state-of-the-art electronic system with Safety Integrity Level-4 (SIL-4) standards.
It makes use of high frequency radio communication and operates on the principle of continuous update of movement to prevent collisions
It is the cheapest automatic train collision protection system.
The salient features:
It is meant to provide protection by preventing trains to pass the signal at Red (which marks danger) and avoid collision.
It activates the train’s braking system automatically if the driver fails to control the train as per speed restrictions.
It also providing support for train operations during adverse weather conditions such as dense fog.
It works on the principle of continuous update of Movement authority.
It actively uses the SOS to prevent any kind of mishap and accidents.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/sc-appreciates-steps-taken-by-railways-to-roll-out-kavach-anti-collision-system/article68068512.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Ashwagandha:
- It is an evergreen shrub found only in the Himalayas.
- It is an adaptogen that helps the body adapt to stressors and restore balance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Ashwagandha is growing in popularity, both in India and abroad.
About Ashwagandha:
Ashwagandha, also called Indian ginseng or Indian winter cherry, is an evergreen shrub native to India, northern Africa, and the Middle East.
Scientifically known as Withania somnifera, the shrub got its name Ashwagandha because its roots are said to smell like a wet horse (‘ashwa’ for horse and ‘gandha’ for smell).
It belongs to the Solanaceae, or nightshade, family—the same family as tomatoes and potatoes.
Benefits:
It has been in use as a medicinal plant for thousands of years, especially in traditional Ayurvedic medicine.
It is often called an adaptogen, meaning it helps the body adapt to stressors and restore balance.
Its other benefits are reducing inflammation, increasing energy, alleviating anxiety, ease pain, and improving sleep.
Different parts of the ashwagandha plant, such as the root, leaves, and berries, may have different concentrations of bioactive compounds.
Notable among these arewithanolides, naturally occurring steroid compounds which have been associated with beneficial antioxidant and anti-inflammatory effects on the body.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/business-tech/ashwagandha-is-great-but-not-for-everybody/article68058937.ece
Which of the following is correct with reference to tachyons and bradyons?
Bradyons travel slower than light, while tachyons could travel faster than light.
Explanation :
Physicists recently proposed the radical idea that our universe is dominated by tachyons, a hypothetical kind of particle that always moves faster than light.
About Tachyons:
Tachyons are hypothetical subatomic particles that move faster than the speed of light.
The term “tachyon” was coined by physicist Gerald Feinberg in 1967.
They are distinguished from “bradyons,” particles that travel at less than the speed of light.
While bradyons are familiar and include protons, electrons, and neutrons, tachyons have never been observed.
According to special relativity, particles with mass cannot reach or exceed the speed of light in a vacuum because their energy would become infinite.
However, tachyons are thought to have imaginary mass, meaning their mass squared is a negative value. This implies that they could potentially travel faster than light without violating the laws of physics as we currently understand them.
Tachyons would slow down if they gained energy, and accelerate if they lost energy.
There have been a few experiments to find tachyons using a detector called a cerenkov detector.
This detector is able to measure the speed of a particle traveling through a medium.
Nothing can travel faster than the speed of light in a vacuum. However, in other mediums, particles can potentially move faster than light.
If a particle travels through a medium at a speed that is greater than light for that medium, cerenkov radiation occurs.
This is analogous to the sonic boom produced when an airplane travels faster than the speed of sound in air or the shock wave at the bow of a ship.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livescience.com/physics-mathematics/dark-matter/the-universe-may-be-dominated-by-particles-that-break-causality-and-move-faster-than-light-new-paper-suggests
Consider the following statements regarding UN Women:
- It maintains a database on violence against women that tracks measures to end violence taken by Member States.
- It provides grants to fuel innovative, high-impact programmes by government agencies and civil society groups.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Six months into the war, Gaza is facing a humanitarian crisis disproportionately impacting women and girls, according to a new report by UN Women.
About UN Women:
It is the United Nations (UN) entity dedicated to gender equality and the empowerment of women.
In July 2010, the UN General Assembly created UN Women.
The creation of UN Women came about as part of the UN reform agenda, bringing together resources and mandates for greater impact.
A global champion for women and girls, UN Women was established to accelerate progress on meeting their needs worldwide.
The main roles of UN Women are:
To support inter-governmental bodies, such as the Commission on the Status of Women, in their formulation of policies, global standards, and norms.
To help member states implement these standards, standing ready to provide suitable technical and financial support to those countries that request it, and to forge effective partnerships with civil society.
To lead and coordinate the UN system’s work on gender equality as well as promote accountability, including through regular monitoring of system-wide progress.
It works globally to make the vision of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG’s) a reality for women and girls and stands behind women’s equal participation in all aspects of life.
Within countries that request its assistance, UN Women works with government and non-governmental partners to help them put in place the policies, laws, services, and resources that women require to move towards equality.
Grant-making Funds: UN Women provides grants to fuel innovative, high-impact programmes by government agencies and civil society groups through two funds—the Fund for Gender Equality and the UN Trust Fund to End Violence against Women.
Commission on the Status of Women (CSW): A global policy-making body, the CSW is a functional commission of the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC), dedicated exclusively to gender equality and the advancement of women.
Aside from the CSW, UN Women offers regular information on women’s rights issues to the General Assembly, the ECOSOC, and the Security Council.
It maintains the UN Secretary-General’s database on violence against women, which tracks measures to end violence taken by UN Member States and UN organizations.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/world/war-s-toll-on-women-un-women-report-sheds-light-on-gaza-s-water-sanitation-and-hygiene-crisis-95612
With reference to the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC), consider the following:
- It is a quasi-judicial commission first set up under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986.
- It is headed by a sitting or a retired judge of the Supreme Court or a sitting or a retired Chief Justice of a High Court.
- It has jurisdiction to entertain a complaint valued at more than ten crores only.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
Two only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court (SC) recently issued notice to two members of the NCDRC seeking explanation from them for issuing non-bailable warrants against the directors of a company, ignoring a previous interim order of the SC.
About National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC):
It is a quasi-judicial commission in India which was set up in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986.
Mandate: To provide inexpensive, speedy, and summary redressal of consumer disputes.
Its head office is in New Delhi.
The Commission is headed by a sitting or a retired Judge of the SC or a sitting or a retired Chief Justice of a High Court.
NCDRC shall have jurisdiction to entertain a complaint valued more than two crore and also have appellate and revisional jurisdiction from the orders of State Commissions or the District fora as the case may be.
The provisions of this act cover ‘goods’ as well as ‘services’.
The goods are those which are manufactured or produced and sold to consumers through wholesalers and retailers.
The services are in the nature of transport, telephone, electricity, housing, banking, insurance, medical treatment, etc.
Eligibility to File a Claim: Any person who
Has bought goods for consideration and finds any defect in the quality, quantity, potency, purity, or standard of the goods, or
Has hired or availed any service for consideration and finds any fault, imperfection, shortcoming, or inadequacy in the quality, nature, and manner of performance in relation to the service.
However, if a person has bought the goods for resale or for a commercial purpose, he is not a consumer.
No complaint can be filed for alleged deficiency in any service that is rendered free of charge or under a contract of personal service.
Who Can File a Complaint: A complaint may be filed by the following:
A consumer
Any voluntary consumer association registered under the Companies Act 1956
The Central Government or any State Government
One or more consumers where there are numerous consumers.
Appeal: Any person aggrieved by an order of NCDRC, may prefer an appeal against such an order to SC within a period of 30 days.
Henceoption b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/supreme-court-seeks-explanation-from-2-ncdrc-members-for-issuing-non-bailable-warrants-ignoring-scs-interim-protection-255310
Consider the following statements regarding the Iron Age:
- It did not occur in America.
- It was followed by the Stone Age.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A team of archaeologists claimed to have discovered a unique Iron Age megalithic site at Ooragutta near Bandala village in SS Tadvai mandal of Mulugu district, Telangana.
About Iron Age:
The Iron Age was a period in human history that started between 1200 B.C. and 600 B.C., depending on the region, and followed the Stone Age and Bronze Age.
The Iron Age existed in Africa, Europe, and Asia during prehistoric times in the Old World. The Iron Age did not occur in America because this was the New World and had not yet been discovered.
People discovered iron at this time. It quickly became the preferred choice of metal, replacing the use of bronze in metalworking. The use of iron brought important changes to people’s lives.
Ironwork first began in Turkey before spreading to other European countries.
People used iron to make strong tools, which made farming easier.
Farmers used an ‘ard’ (an iron plow) during the Iron Age to turn over their fields. These were much more efficient than wooden or bronze plows.
They also made iron swordsand other weapons.
Huge armies of soldiers soon carried iron weapons.
These weapons made an army much harder to defeat.
Armies traveled to other lands and took over places they liked.
Kings and other rulers gained great power.
Other changes in technology also happened during the Iron Age.
People built large forts and bridges.
Pottery and weaving improved.
Humans dug deep mines in the ground to find salt and other valuable minerals.
End of Iron Age:
The Iron Age is a part of prehistory, or the time before humans used writing.
Therefore, the Iron Age ended once writing became widespread.
Still, iron continues to be a popular choice for crafting iron tools, weapons, doors, windows, building supports, machinery, and more.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/three-new-archaeological-sites-discovered/article68076064.ece
Submersible Platform for Acoustic Characterisation and Evaluation (SPACE) is associated with:
testing and evaluation hub for sonar systems
Explanation :
Recently, a state-of-the-art Submersible Platform for Acoustic Characterisation and Evaluation (SPACE) was inaugurated by Secretary, Department of Defence (R&D) and Chairman DRDO in Kerala.
It is set up by the Naval Physical & Oceanographic Laboratory of DRDO.
It has been designed as a premier testing and evaluation hub for sonar systems destined for Indian Navy onboard various platforms including ships, submarines and helicopters.
Features: It will consist of two distinct assemblages - a platform which floats on the water surface, and a submersible platform which can be lowered to any depth upto 100 m using winch systems.
Uses: It will mainly be utilised for evaluation of complete sonar system, allowing for quick deployment and easy recovery of scientific packages such as sensors and transducers. It will be suitable for survey, sampling, and data collection of air, surface, mid-water, and reservoir floor parameters using modern scientific instrumentation.
It will cater to the needs of data processing and sample analyses in modern, well equipped scientific laboratories heralding a new era of Anti-Submarine Warfare research capabilities.
What is Sonar?
Sound NAvigation and Ranging (SONAR) is a tool that uses sound waves to explore the ocean.
Scientists primarily use sonar to develop nautical charts, locate underwater hazards to navigation, search for and identify objects in the water column and on the seafloor such as shipwrecks, and map the seafloor itself.
Sonar is used for oceanography because sound waves travel farther in the water than radar and light waves can.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2018127
Men5CV Vaccine is related to:
Meningitis
Explanation :
Nigeria has taken a historic step in the fight against meningitis, becoming the first country in the world to introduce a new, highly effective vaccine called Men5CV.
It protects against strains A, C, W, Y and X of the meningococcus bacteria, all of which can cause meningitis and blood poisoning.
It is recommended by the World Health Organization (WHO).
Funding: The vaccine and emergency vaccination activities are funded by Gavi, the Vaccine Alliance.
Key facts about Meningitis
It is a serious infection that leads to the inflammation of the membranes (meninges) that surround and protect the brain and spinal cord.
There are multiple causes of meningitis, including viral, bacterial, fungal and parasitic pathogens.
Bacterial meningitis, specifically caused by the meningococcus bacteria, is a particular concern in Africa and can also result in septicaemia (blood poisoning), and can seriously disable or kill within 24 hours those that contract it.
Symptoms: It often includes headache, fever and stiff neck.
A region of 26 countries known as the “African meningitis belt” stretches across the continent, including Nigeria.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/world/nigeria-makes-history-with-rollout-of-new-5-in-1-meningitis-vaccine-95564
Consider the following statements regarding Leaf Litter Frog:
- It is mainly found in Brazilian Atlantic rainforest.
- It utilizes its high-frequency screams as a survival strategy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, scientists have found that Leaf Litter Frog emits ultrasonic sounds that are inaudible to humans but can scare off predators.
It is the most abundant species of frog in the forest community.
It utilizes its high-frequency screams as a survival strategy.
Habitat: It inhabits primary and secondary forest and forest edges. It is usually found in the leaf-litter on the forest floor, or on leaves in low vegetation inside the forest.
Appearance: They are tiny and the largest of the species are females. In size, they are barely up to 64 millimeters (2.5 inches) in length.
Distribution: It is a species of frog endemic to the Brazilian Atlantic rainforest.
Conservation status
IUCN: Least concern
What are Ultrasonic waves?
These are sound waves whose frequencies are higher than those of waves normally audible to the human ear.
The angular frequencies of the ultrasonic waves produced in laboratories lie from about 105 sec−1 to about 3 × 109 sec−1, the former value representing the limit of audibility of the human ear.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/newsletter/newsletter-science/tiny-frog-in-brazil-emits-screams-that-humans-cant-hear/article68075186.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Heat wave:
- It is decided based on the temperature thresholds over a region in terms of actual temperature.
- In India, the maximum temperature recorded at a station is 40 degrees Celsius or more in the plains is known as Heat wave.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, India Meteorological Department (IMD) has predicted an increase in the maximum temperature and the frequency of heatwave conditions in the forthcoming days over eastern and southern India.
The definition of a heatwave depends on the physiography of regions.
Qualitatively, heat wave is a condition of air temperature which becomes fatal to human body when exposed.
Quantitatively, it is defined based on the temperature thresholds over a region in terms of actual temperature or its departure from normal.
The IMD will declare a heatwave
If the maximum temperature recorded at a station is 40 degrees Celsius or more in the plains, 37 degrees Celsius or more in the coast, and 30 degrees Celsius or more in the hills.
A heatwave’s severity is determined by its departure from normal temperature.
There is a ‘normal heatwave’ when the departure is by 4.5-6.4 degrees Celsius and a ‘severe heatwave’ if the departure is greater.
Heat wave declaration could also be based on actual maximum temperature:
A ‘heatwave’ is when this figure is greater than 45 degrees Celsius and a ‘severe heatwave’ when greater than 47 degrees Celsius.
The IMD takes these two ‘routes’ only when at least two stations in a meteorological subdivision report such a high maximum or when at least one station has recorded a corresponding departure from the normal for at least two consecutive days.
Governments at various levels — State, district, and city — have prepared heat action plans (HAPs).
HAPs aim to increase preparedness and lower the adverse impacts of extreme heat by outlining strategies and measures to prepare for, address, and recover from heatwaves.
The National Disaster Management Authority and IMD are reported to be working with 23 States to develop HAPs.
There is no centralised database on HAPs, but at least 23 HAPs exist at the State and city level, with a few States, such as Odisha and Maharashtra, laying out district-level HAPs.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/on-indias-heat-action-plans-explained/article68077221.ece
With reference to Herpes B virus, consider the following:
- It is the only identified old-world-monkey herpesvirus.
- It cannot transfer to humans.
- There are no vaccines for its infection.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A 37-year-old man wounded by a wild monkey in Hong Kong is in intensive care suffering from infection with B virus.
It is an alphaherpesvirus enzootic in macaques of the genus Macaca. B virus is the only identified old-world-monkey herpesvirus.
It is also known as herpes B virus or Macacine herpesvirus 1 (McHV-1), is a type of herpesvirus found in macaque monkeys, particularly rhesus macaques.
It is asymptomatic in these animals; it can cause severe neurological complications, including encephalitis.
Transmission: In humans it is transmitted through bites, scratches, or contact with infected bodily fluids. The transmission of this virus among humans is rare. So far, only one case of human to human transmission has been recorded.
Symptoms:
Its infections in humans are rare but potentially fatal, with symptoms ranging from fever and headache to neurological dysfunction and death.
The common symptoms seen during the infection are: fever, headache, myalgia, localized neurologic symptoms might occur near the wound site.
Signs of infection in a human usually develop within two to 30 days. There may be blisters around the contact point or wound, together with a flu-like illness.
The virus can spread to lymph nodes and the nervous system. This causes agitation, confusion, double vision, trouble with coordination and muscle weakness.
Patients can develop hiccups if this inflammation involves the brain stem. If it reaches the lungs, they may need to be admitted to an intensive care unit.
Treatment: There are no vaccines that can protect you against B virus infection.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/health/man-who-caught-virus-from-a-monkey-in-a-critical-condition-b-virus-explained-95614
Mount Ruang, recently seen in the news, lies in which one of the following countries?
Indonesia
Explanation :
Mount Ruang initiated its eruption recently, propelling an ash cloud upwards of a mile into the sky.
About Mount Ruang:
It is a stratovolcano located in Indonesia’s North Sulawesi province.
The summit of Ruang stands 10,932 feet above sea level, with a caldera that is about two miles wide.
What is a Stratovolcano?
It is a tall, steep and cone-shaped type of volcano.
Unlike flat shield volcanoes, they have higher peaks.
They are typically found above subduction zones and they are often part of large volcanically active regions, such as the Ring of Fire that frames much of the Pacific Ocean.
Strato volcanoes comprise the largest percentage (~60%) of the Earth’s individual volcanoes and most are characterized by eruptions of andesite and dacite, lavas that are cooler and more viscous than basalt.
These more viscous lavas allow gas pressures to build up to high levels. Therefore, these volcanoes often suffer explosive eruptions.
They are usually about half-half lava and pyroclastic material, and the layering of these products gives them their other common name of composite volcanoes.
At the peak, stratovolcanoes usually have a small crater. The crater may be filled with water or ice, or it may contain a volcanic dome during a period of relative inactivity.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/rest-of-world/indonesia-ruang-mountain-eruption-tsunami-alert-evacuation-of-residents-airport-closure-pictures-latest-news/photostory/109390215.cms
The Clouded Tiger Cat, recently seen in the news, is primarily found in:
Southern Central American and Andean Mountain chains
Explanation :
A new species of tiger cat, the clouded tiger cat, discovered in Brazil, faces threats from deforestation and illegal hunting.
What are Tiger Cats?
Also known as the oncilla, tiger cats are small spotted cats that quietly stalk Central and South America, perfectly adapted for clambering in trees and hunting small prey.
They are among the shyest and smallest wild cats in the Americas, weighing between 1.5 to 3 kilograms, much smaller than most domestic house cats.
Until recently, they were split into two species: the northern tiger cat (Leopardus tigrinus), and the Atlantic Forest tiger cat (Leopardus guttulus), along with a handful of subspecies.
The northern tiger cat is native to the savanna and shrublands of the Guiana Shield and central Brazil, while the Atlantic tiger cat lives further south in forested areas of central to southern Brazil, down through Paraguay and northeastern Argentina.
Researchers recently concluded that the family includes a third species: the clouded tiger cat (Leopardus pardinoides).
About Clouded Tiger Cat:
It is a new species of forest-dwelling tiger cat.
Scientific Name: Leopardus pardinoides
Geographic Distribution: It is found in the cloud forests of the southern Central American and Andean Mountain chains, which stretch from Costa Rica through Panama, Colombia, Peru, Bolivia and Argentina.
Features:
It is a long-tailed cat with short-round ears, weighing 2.27 kg.
The new species has a remarkably margay-looking head, which has a nice dense soft fur of a rich reddish/orangish/grayish-yellow background colour adorned with irregularly shaped medium-large ‘cloudy’ rosettes that are strongly marked and often coalesce.
Distinctively, it has only one pair of mammae/teats.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/explained-why-this-new-tiger-cat-species-has-the-risk-of-an-uncertain-future/articleshow/109376679.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF):
- It consists of resident producers’ investments, deducting disposals, in fixed assets during a given period.
- Developing economies possess more fixed capital per capita than developed economies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The failure of private investment, as measured by private Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) as a percentage of GDP at current prices, to pick up pace has been one of the major issues plaguing the Indian economy.
About Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF):
GFCF refers to the growth in the size of fixed capital in an economy.
Fixed assets/capital are tangible or intangible assets produced as outputs from production processes that are used repeatedly, or continuously, for more than one year.
GFCF consists of resident producers’ investments, deducting disposals, in fixed assets during a given period.
It also includes certain additions to the value of non-produced assets realized by producers or institutional units.
Private GFCF can serve as a rough indicator of how much the private sector in an economy is willing to invest.
Overall GFCF also includes capital formation as a result of investment by the government.
GFCF matters because fixed capital, by helping workers produce a greater amount of goods and services each year, helps to boost economic growth and improve living standards.
In other words, fixed capital is what largely determines the overall output of an economy and, hence, what consumers can actually purchase in the market.
Developed economies such as the U.S. possess more fixed capital per capita than developing economies such as India.
Statistics:
GFCF in the Indian economy increased significantly from INR 32.78 lakh crore in 2014-15 to INR 54.35 lakh crore in 2022-2023.
This surge in capital formation reflects substantial investments in infrastructure, industry, and public goods.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/why-have-private-investments-dropped-explained/article68081011.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Global Alliance for Incinerator Alternatives (GAIA):
- It is an alliance of European Union (EU) countries which envisions a just, zero-waste world.
- It aims to power a transition away from the current linear economy towards a circular system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Global Alliance for Incinerator Alternatives (GAIA) Asia Pacific, in collaboration with other environmental organisations, has called on the ASEAN to take decisive action in response to plastic pollution.
About Global Alliance for Incinerator Alternatives (GAIA):
GAIA is a worldwide alliance of more than 1,000 grassroots groups, non-governmental organizations and individuals in over 90 countries.
GAIA aims to power a transition away from our current linear and extractive economy and towards a circular system that supports people’s right to a safe and healthy environment.
GAIA envisions a just, zero-waste world built on respect for ecological limits and community rights, where people are free from the burden of toxic pollution and resources are sustainably conserved, not burned or dumped.
This entails fighting pollution and building regenerative solutions in cities through local campaigns, shifts in policy and finance, research and communication initiatives, and movement building.
They work on four primary points of intervention: incineration, zero waste, plastic, and climate.
What is Incineration?
Incineration is the process of burning hazardous materials at temperatures high enough to destroy contaminants.
Incineration is conducted in an “incinerator,” which is a type of furnace designed for burning hazardous materials in a combustion chamber.
Many different types of hazardous materials can be treated by incineration, including soil, sludge, liquids, and gases.
Although it destroys many kinds of harmful chemicals, such as solvents, PCBs (polychlorinated biphenyls), and pesticides, incineration does not destroy metals, such as lead and chromium.
Modern incinerators include air pollution control equipment (e.g., fabric filters, scrubbers, and electrostatic precipitators) to remove fly ash and gaseous contaminants.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/waste/amp/run-up-to-ottawa-civil-society-groups-call-for-support-from-asean-leadership-in-fight-against-plastic-pollution-95659
Lakshmana Tirtha is a tributary of which one of the following rivers?
Kaveri
Explanation :
Due to severe drought conditions and intense heat, the Lakshmana Tirtha River, has now completely dried up.
About Lakshmana Tirtha River:
It is a tributary of the river Kaveri in Karnataka.
Course:
It originates in the Brahmagiri hills, Kodagu or Coorg District, Karnataka, and flows eastward.
It joins the Kaveri River in the Krishna Raja Sagara Lake.
Lakshmanatirtha Falls, or the Irupu Falls, is a much-visited fresh water cascade located on the river, bordering Kerala, on the way to Nagerhole National Park.
Key Facts about Kaveri River:
Kaveri River, also known as Cauvery River, is one of the major rivers of southern India, which is considered sacrosanct by the Hindus.
Course:
It rises at Talakaveri on the Brahmagiri range near Cherangala village of Kodagu district of Karnataka.
The river drains into the Bay of Bengal at Poompuhar, in the Mayiladuthurai district of Tamil Nadu.
Cauvery Basin:
It extends over the States of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and Union Territory of Puducherry.
It is bounded by the Western Ghats on the west, by the Eastern Ghats on the east and south and by the ridges separating it from the Krishna basin and Pennar basin on the north.
Major left bank tributaries: Harangi, the Hemavati, the Shimsha and the Arkavati.
Major right bank tributaries: Lakshmantirtha, the Kabbani, the Suvarnavati, the Bhavani, the Noyil and the Amaravati.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehansindia.com/karnataka/lakshmana-teertha-river-dries-up-due-to-shortage-of-rainfall-873319
Which one of the following is the primary objective of the Dragonfly rotorcraft mission?
To look for the prebiotic chemical processes common on both Saturn’s moon Titan and Earth
Explanation :
Recently, NASA confirmed Dragonfly rotorcraft mission to Saturn’s organic compound-rich moon Titan with a budget of $3.35 billion and a launch date set for July 2028.
It is a “dual quadcopter” designed to fly across the surface of Titan, Saturn’s largest moon.
It will explore a variety of locations on Saturn’s moon Titan.
It will spend most of its time on the moon’s surface making science measurements.
It will use a radioisotope power system like the Curiosity rover on Mars.
Its flights, data transmission and most science operations will happen during the day, and it will have a lot of time to recharge during night on Titan.
It is a rotorcraft, targeted to arrive at Titan in 2034, will fly to dozens of promising locations on the moon, looking for prebiotic chemical processes common on both Titan and the early Earth before life developed.
It marks the first time NASA will fly a vehicle for science on another planetary body. The rotorcraft has eight rotors and flies like a large drone.
Key facts about Titan
Titan is Saturn’s largest moon, Titan has an earthlike cycle of liquids flowing across its surface. It is the only moon with a thick atmosphere.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/nasa-dragondly-mission-launch-9278180/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Directionally Unrestricted Ray Gun Array (DURGA) system:
- It destroys its target using focused energy by means of microwaves or particle beams.
- It has been indigenously developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) is reported to be testing a prototype of its DURGA-2 (Directionally Unrestricted Ray Gun Array) system.
It damages or destroys its target using focused energy by means of lasers, microwaves or particle beams.
Advantages: These weapons have several advantages over conventional munitions.
They transmit lethal force at the speed of light (about 300,000 kilometers per second).
Their beams are not affected by the constraining effects of gravity or atmospheric drag.
They are extremely precise. Fourth, their effects can be tailored by varying the type and intensity of energy delivered against targets.
Significance
The aerospace industry can transform the way wars will be fought.
This will enable us to produce cutting edge platforms, weapons, sensors, and networks essential to fight and win a future war.
Other countries which have this system: Russia, France, Germany, the United Kingdom, Israel, and China.
Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/iran-israel-missile-attack-cost-9278118/
Consider the following statements with reference to Palestine:
- It is positioned both in the Northern and Eastern hemispheres of the Earth.
- The Mount Nabi Yunis is the highest point in Palestine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The United States vetoed a widely backed U.N. resolution that would have paved the way for full United Nations membership for the state of Palestine.
Location:
It is located in Western Asia; the Palestinian territories are made up of the areas known as Gaza and the West Bank. Both of which are ruled over and controlled by different governments.
It is geographically positioned both in the Northern and Eastern hemispheres of the Earth.
The Gaza Strip is bordered by the Mediterranean Sea to the west; by Egypt on the southwest and by Israel on the east and north.
The West Bank is bordered by Israel in the north, south, and west; and by Jordan and the Dead Sea in the east.
The Jordan River is the most significant geographical feature in Palestine. The river runs north to south from the Sea of Galilee to the Dead Sea.
The highest point in Palestine can be found within the West Bank at Mount Nabi Yunis at an elevation of 3,379ft.
Climate: The climate in both Gaza and the West Bank can be roughly described as Mediterranean with Gaza being slightly hotter and drier than those in the West Bank.
The eastern border with Jordan also tends to be hotter than average and experiences a considerably less amount of rainfall throughout the year.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/us-vetoes-resolution-backing-full-un-membership-for-palestine/article68081442.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Cruise missile:
- It is a guided missile used against terrestrial or naval targets.
- It has a low trajectory and is difficult to detect it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) conducted a successful flight-test of Indigenous Technology Cruise Missile (ITCM) from the Integrated Test Range (ITR), Chandipur off the coast of Odisha.
The missile is equipped with advanced avionics and software to ensure better and reliable performance.
The missile is developed by Bengaluru-based DRDO laboratory Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE) along with contribution from other laboratories and Indian industries.
It was monitored by several range sensors like radar, Electro Optical Tracking System (EOTS) and telemetry deployed by ITR at different locations to ensure complete coverage of the flight path.
What is a Cruise missile?
It is a guided missile used against terrestrial or naval targets, that remains in the atmosphere (unlike ballistic missiles) and flies the major portion of its flight path at an approximately constant speed, before hitting the target.
Precision: High, up to a few metres — fit for small, moving targets.
Trajectory: Low altitude, level trajectory — hard to detect
Subsonic Cruise missiles: These cruise missiles travel at less than Mach 1.
Supersonic Cruise missiles: Cruise missiles travelling at supersonic speeds are called supersonic cruise missiles.
Hypersonic Cruise missiles: Cruise missiles powered using scramjet engines to realise speeds greater than Mach 5 are designated as hypersonic cruise missiles.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2018171
With reference to GPS spoofing, consider the following statements:
- It is the practice of manipulating GPS receiver by broadcasting false GPS signals.
- It is done by exploiting the weak signal strength of GPS satellites.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Israel reportedly used GPS spoofing against Iran’s missile targeting teams by jamming Global Positioning System (GPS) navigation signals.
It is also known as GPS simulation, refers to the practice of manipulating or tricking a GPS receiver by broadcasting false GPS signals.
It misleads the GPS receiver into believing it is located somewhere it is not, resulting in the device providing inaccurate location data.
This form of cyberattack undermines the reliability of GPS data, which is vital for a variety of applications.
It has evolved significantly over the years. Initially a theoretical threat, it has now become a practical concern due to the availability of inexpensive software and hardware capable of transmitting fake GPS signals.
Spoofing is not the same as jamming. While jamming, as the name suggests, is when the GPS signals are jammed, spoofing is very different and way more threatening.
Planes and other aircraft regularly deal with jamming while spoofing of the kind happening in the above-mentioned incidents has reportedly never been seen before.
Working
GPS spoofing exploits the inherent vulnerabilities in the GPS infrastructure – the weak signal strength of GPS satellites.
The Global Positioning System functions by sending signals from satellites to GPS receivers on Earth.
These receivers then calculate their position based on the time it takes for these signals to arrive. However, due to the weak signal strength of the GPS satellites, these signals can be easily overwhelmed by fake signals, resulting in inaccurate location data on the receiving device.
Impacts
It can have potentially catastrophic effects, particularly where navigation is concerned.
It has the potential to affect various industries extensively, including logistics and supply chain, telecommunications, energy, and defense.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/external-affairs-defence-security/news/israel-used-gps-spoofing-against-iran-did-us-do-it-to-india-in-kargil-war-124041700427_1.html
Which one of the following is the best description of ‘Vasuki indicus’, that was in the news recently?
A giant prehistoric snake
Explanation :
Researchers recently reported the discovery of fossils of one of the largest snakes that ever existed, which has been named Vasuki Indicus.
About Vasuki indicus:
The fossils of Vasuki indicus were found in Kutch, Gujarat.
Vasuki refers to the mythical snake often depicted around the neck of the Hindu god Shiva.
It lived in the Middle Eocene period (roughly 47 million years ago) in India.
The organism lived at a time when temperatures were relatively warm, at roughly 28°C.
It belonged to the now-extinct Madtsoiidae snake family but represents a unique lineage from India.
Madtsoiidae are Gondwanan terrestrial snakes that lived between the Upper Cretaceous (100.5 million to 66 million years ago) and the Late Pleistocene (0.126 million years ago to 0.012 million years ago).
These snakes spread from India through southern Eurasia and into north Africa after the Indian subcontinent collided with Eurasia about 50 million years ago.
Features:
It likely had a broad and cylindrical body, hinting at a robust and powerful build, and was as big as Titanoboa, a massive snake that once roamed the earth and is reportedly the longest ever known.
Vasuki was a slow-moving ambush predator that would subdue its prey through constriction, like anacondas and pythons.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/fossils-of-massive-prehistoric-snake-found-in-lignite-mine-in-gujarat/article68083916.ece
With reference to Section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), consider the following statements:
- It authorises the Executive Magistrate to issue an order to prohibit the assembly of four or more people in an area.
- It empowers the authorities to block internet access.
- It restricts carrying any sort of weapon in the area where it has been imposed.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently agreed to consider a petition for quashing prohibitory orders issued under Section 144 of the CrPC, particularly those linked to the election.
About Section 144 of CrPC:
It authorises the Executive Magistrate of any state or territory to issue an order to prohibit the assembly of four or more people in an area.
According to the law, every member of such an ‘unlawful assembly’ can be booked for engaging in rioting.
Section 144 is imposed in urgent cases of nuisance or apprehended danger of some event that has the potential to cause trouble or damage to human life or property.
It generally prohibits public gatherings.
It has been used in the past to impose restrictions as a means to prevent protests that can lead to unrest or riots.
The executive magistrate of the given jurisdiction has been conferred the power to issue orders under Section 144 when there is an impending emergency situation.
Section 144 also restricts carrying any sort of weapon in the area where it has been imposed and people can be detained for violating it.
The maximum punishment for such an act is three years.
According to the order under this section, there shall be no movement of public, and all educational institutions shall also remain closed, and there will be a complete bar on holding any kind of public meetings or rallies during the period of operation of this order.
Moreover, obstructing law enforcement agencies from dispersing an unlawful assembly is a punishable offence.
Section 144 also empowers the authorities to block internet access.
It prohibits the conduct of some events that are otherwise allowed during regular times.
Duration of Section 144 Order:
No order under Section 144 shall remain in force for more than two months, but the state government can extend the validity for two months and a maximum up to six months.
It can be withdrawn at any point of time if the situation becomes normal.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/t10-april-20-2024/2-is-section-144-during-polls-justifiable-plea-in-sc/articleshow/109441653.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Nagorno-Karabakh Region:
- It is a landlocked mountainous area in the South Caucasus.
- It is internationally recognised as part of Armenia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Russian peacekeepers have begun withdrawing from Nagorno-Karabakh following Azerbaijan’s recapture of the disputed territory from Armenian separatists last year.
About Nagorno-Karabakh Region:
Nagorno-Karabakh, known as Artsakh by Armenians, is a landlocked mountainous area in the South Caucasus.
It was claimed by both Azerbaijan and Armenia after the fall of the Russian Empire in 1917 and has remained a point of tension ever since.
The territory is internationally recognised as part of oil-rich Azerbaijan, but its inhabitants are predominantly ethnic Armenians and have their own government, which has enjoyed close links to the government in neighbouring Armenia but has not been officially recognised by it or other United Nations member states.
Armenians, who are Christians, claim a long historical dominance in the area, dating back to several centuries before Christ.
Azerbaijan, whose inhabitants are mostly Muslim, links its historical identity to the territory, too.
What is the history?
Over the centuries, the enclave has come under the sway of Persians, Turks, Russians, Ottomans, and Soviets.
After the Russian Revolution of 1917, Armenia and Azerbaijan fought over the region.
When the Bolsheviks took over Azerbaijan, Armenia agreed to Bolshevik control, ushering in the Sovietisation of the whole of the Caucasus.
Karabakh, with its borders redrawn to include as many Armenians as possible, remained part of the Azeri Soviet Socialist Republic but with autonomy.
Its name was “Nagorno-Karabakh Autonomous Oblast”.
Under the Soviet Union, Nagorno-Karabakh became an autonomous region within the republic of Azerbaijan.
As the Soviet Union crumbled, what is known as the First Nagorno-Karabakh War (1988-1994) erupted between Armenians and their Azeri neighbours.
Azerbaijan lost a chunk of its territory, with Armenians left in control of most of Karabakh, alongside extra territory around Karabakh’s perimeter.
The 44-day war in 2020:
In 2020, after decades of skirmishes, Azerbaijan began a military operation that became the Second Nagorno-Karabakh War, swiftly breaking through Armenian defences.
Azerbaijan, backed by Turkey, won a resounding victory in the 44-day war, taking back parts of Karabakh.
The region is of key strategic importance as well, surrounded by Turkey, Iran, and Russia, and the hydrocarbon deposits of the Caspian Sea.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/russian-peacekeepers-started-withdrawal-from-nagorno-karabakh-kremlin/article68076355.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the National Curriculum for Early Childhood Care and Education 2024:
- It is a detailed curriculum meant for learning in the age group of three to six-year-olds in anganwadis.
- It has been finalized by a committee consisting of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Ministry of Education.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) recently released the National Curriculum for Early Childhood Care and Education 2024 titled ‘Aadharshila,’ on the lines of the National Education Policy 2020 and the National Curriculum Framework.
About National Curriculum for Early Childhood Care and Education 2024:
Aadharshila (translated as foundation stone) is a detailed 48-week curriculum meant for learning in the age group of three to six-year-olds in anganwadis.
It has been finalized by an internal committee comprising representatives from the Ministry of Women and Child Development, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, the Department of School Education and Literacy, the Ministry of Education, the NCERT, the Institute of Home Economics, Delhi University, and civil society organisations.
Features:
The curriculum includes a weekly based play calendar with four weeks of initiation that include academic activities which help children transition from home to anganwadi centre by engaging them in fun and free play.
The next 36 weeks are spent exploring, free play, conversation, creation and appreciation, reflection that involves various activities, including storytelling, singing rhymes, art and craft, and so on.
Storytelling themes revolve around conflict resolution, taking responsibility, and working with and helping others.
Children learn about colours, shapes, numbers, the use of senses, body parts, family and friends, listening and responding to instructions, basic counting, imitating and recognizing sounds, themes like seasons, festivals, food, and so on.
The last eight weeks are spent in recap and reinforcing the learnings of previous weeks with worksheets and observation of kid’s performance.
Activities and time table are segregated age-wise, with detailed requirement of materials needed, age-appropriate specifications, variation, notes for teachers, targeted curricular goals and competency that children achieve, and observing children’s interests.
Children from the age three to six attend anganwadi in what is a mixed crowd. The curriculum targets at least 48 weeks of learning in the duration of three years.
The curriculum helps in developing listening skill, vocabulary building, boosting imagination, narration, following instructions, creativity, social development, developing self-expression and self-esteem, which will help a child to easily transition into Grade 1.
A special focus has been given for the screening, inclusion, and referrals of Divyang children in every activity.
The national framework for three to six years will serve as a base for States to develop their own culturally appropriate curriculum seen as a solution to tackle later school challenges of children.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/education/centre-releases-curriculum-framework-for-three-to-six-year-olds/article68084489.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the National Security Guard (NSG):
- It is a special force in India that has primarily been utilised for counter-terrorism activities.
- The Ministry of Defence exercises administrative and operational control over NSG.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Senior IPS officer Nalin Prabhat has been appointed as the Director-General of National Security Guard (NSG), the country’s counter-terrorism force, according to a Personnel Ministry order.
About National Security Guard (NSG):
It is a special force in India that has primarily been utilised for counter-terrorism activities.
The NSG is an elite force providing a second line of defence for the nation.
The NSG members are also known as Black Cats because of the black drill cotton coveralls and balaclavas, or helmets, they wear.
Establishment:
It was raised in 1984, following Operation Blue Star and the assassination of Indira Gandhi.
It was created by the Cabinet Secretariat under the National Security Guard Act of the Indian Parliament in 1986.
It was modelled on the pattern of the SAS of the UK and the GSG-9 of Germany.
The Union Ministry for Home Affairs exercises administrative and operational control over NSG.
Motto: Sarvatra Sarvottama Suraksa.
Headquarters: New Delhi.
Director General (DG):
The head of the NSG, designated as Director General (DG), is selected by the Home Ministry.
All the selected DGs have been officers from the Indian Police Service (IPS).
The NSG’s specific goals include:
Neutralization of terrorist threats
Handling hijacking situations in the air and on land.
Bomb disposal (search, detection, and neutralisation of IEDs).
PBI (Post Blast Investigation)
Hostage Rescue
VIP Security
It is designed to be employed as a specialised counter-terrorism force “only in exceptional situations,” not to take over “functions of the State Police Forces or other paramilitary forces.”
The teams of NSG work on a basic philosophy of swift and speedy strike and immediate withdrawal from the theatre of action.
The force is task-oriented and has two main elements in the form of the Special Action Group (SAG), comprising Army personnel, and the Special Ranger Group (SRG), comprising personnel drawn from the Central Armed Police Forces and State Police Forces.
The NSG also has a National Bomb Data Centre (NBDC) that maintains a centralised database of bombing activities reported in India and abroad.
The NBDC collects, collates, analyses, and evaluates all terrorist bombing activities and disseminates relevant information to concerned law enforcement agencies.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/crpf-adg-nalin-prabhat-appointed-chief-of-nsg-9280534/
Salas y Gómez mountain chain, sometimes seen in news, is located in:
Pacific Ocean
Explanation :
Recently, scientists announced the discovery of 160 marine species after exploring the Salas y Gómez region.
It is an underwater mountain chain in the Southeastern Pacific Ocean.
It lies in a west-east orientation. Its western end intersects the East Pacific Rise inside the Chilean Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) of the Easter Islands and its eastern end adjoins the western end of Nazca ridge.
Ecosystems in this region are isolated by the Atacama Trench, the Humboldt Current System, and an extreme oxygen minimum zone.
Waters surrounding the Salas y Gómez and Nazca ridges are mostly located in areas beyond national jurisdiction (ABNJ), with smaller portions located in the national waters of Chile and Peru.
This region hosts unique biodiversity with some of the highest levels of marine endemism on Earth.
It is one of the many global locations under consideration for being designated as high seas marine protected area upon the ratification of the UN High Seas Treaty.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/underwater-mountain-range-50-unknon-species-9275531/
Consider the following statements with reference to Ethylene oxide:
- It is a flammable gas which can dissolve easily in water.
- It is used in hospitals to sterilize medical equipment and supplies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Centre for Food Safety in Hong Kong recalled Everest Fish Curry Masala from India alleging the presence of a pesticide called ethylene oxide at levels exceeding permissible limit.
It is a flammable gas with a somewhat sweet odor. It dissolves easily in water.
It appears as a clear colorless gas with an ethereal odor.
Ethylene oxide is a man-made chemical that is used primarily to make ethylene glycol.
Applications: A small amount (less than 1%) is used to control insects in some stored agricultural products and a very small amount is used in hospitals to sterilize medical equipment and supplies.
Health impacts: It mainly impacts human central nervous system causing depression and irritation of the eyes and mucous membranes. Chronic exposure to ethylene oxide in humans can cause irritation of the eyes, skin, nose, throat, and lungs, and damage to the brain and nervous system.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/singapore-recalls-everest-fish-curry-masala-over-alleged-pesticide-content/article68086702.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Parkinson’s plus syndrome:
- It is a neurodegenerative disorder.
- It negatively impacts the nerves and can lead to movement disorder.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, a patient suffering from Parkinson’s plus syndrome has undergone ahigh cervical spinal cord stimulation.
It is a neurodegenerative disorder that manifest in a similar fashion to Parkinson’s Disease.
It is also called atypical parkinsonism, refers to a group of neurodegenerative movement disorders that resemble idiopathic Parkinson’s disease (PD) with certain distinguishing clinical and pathophysiological features.
They attack the brain cells and nerves and lead to movement disorders, just like Parkinson’s.
There are several conditions that are categorized as Parkinson’s Plus Syndrome, some of which include;
Multiple System Atrophy (MSA), Progressive Supranuclear Palsy (PSP), Lewy Body Dementia (LBD), and Corticobasal Ganglionic Degeneration (CBGD).
The cause of Parkinson’s Plus Syndrome is unknown, with a combination of genetic and environmental factors usually held responsible.
Symptoms
Tremors in one hand
Balance and coordination problems
Difficulty walking or shuffling gait
Stiffness in the jaw or reduced facial expressions
Treatment: Medication can help some people move more easily and feel less stiff.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/65-year-old-patient-from-france-receives-indias-first-high-cervical-spinal-cord-stimulation-for-parkinson-plus-syndrome/article68076839.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to Ringwoodite:
- It is a mineral that exists in the transition zone of Earth.
- It has a crystal structure that allows it to absorb water and hydrogen.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, scientists discovered a hidden ocean which is 700 km below earth’s Surface located within a mineral called ringwoodite.
It is a fascinating mineral that exists in the Earth’s transition zone.
It has a unique crystal structure that allows it to absorb water and hydrogen, acting like a sponge. This mineral can hold a significant amount of water.
It is a rare type of mineral that forms from olivine under very high pressures and temperatures.
The weight of hundreds of kilometers of rock and very high temperatures above 1,000 degrees Celsius (1,832 Fahrenheit) break down water into its components.
When the minerals containing this water reach certain depths, they break down in a process called dehydration and release the water to form magmas.
Such “dehydration melting” is common in the shallow mantle and forms the source for magmas in many volcanoes.
Implications for Earth’s water cycle
The discovery of this deep-water reservoir has significant implications for our understanding of the Earth’s water cycle.
It suggests that water can be transported to the Earth’s surface from deep within its mantle, contributing to the water found in oceans, rivers, and lakes.
This internal water source could also play a role in volcanic activity and the formation of new crust.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://krishijagran.com/agriculture-world/gigantic-ocean-discovered-700-km-below-earths-surface-holds-three-times-more-water-than-all-oceans-combined/#:~:text=This%20ocean%20is%20located%20within,origins%20of%20water%20on%20Earth
With reference to World Crafts Council International, consider the following statements:
- It aims to promote fellowships among craftspersons to preserve traditional crafts across the globe.
- Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay was one of the founding members of this organization.
- Surat city is recognized as craft city under World Craft City Programme of this organization.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The World Crafts Council International (WCCI) has picked Srinagar for mapping its craft clusters before its final nomination as the World Craft City (WCC) from India this year.
It is a Kuwait-based organisation working on recognition and preservation of traditional crafts across the globe.
It was founded by Ms. Aileen Osborn Vanderbilt Webb, Ms. Margaret M. Patch, and Smt Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay at the 1st World Crafts Council General Assembly in New York in 1964.
Since its inception, the World Crafts Council AISBL has been affiliated with UNESCO under Consultative Status for many years.
Objective: The main objective of the World Crafts Council is to strengthen the status of crafts in cultural and economic life.
Aim: The Council aims to promote fellowship among craftspersons by offering them encouragement, help, and advice.
It fosters and assists cultural exchange through conferences, international visits, research study, lectures, workshops, exhibitions, and other activities.
Key facts about the World Craft City Programme
It is a groundbreaking initiative launched in 2014 by the World Crafts Council AISBL (WCC-International) in recognition of the pivotal role local authorities, craftspeople, and communities play in cultural, economic, and social development worldwide.
It establishes a dynamic network of craft cities across the globe, aligning with the principles of the creative economy.
This initiative responds to the increasing acknowledgment of the valuable contributions made by local entities to the multifaceted dimensions of development.
Under this initiatives Jaipur (Rajasthan), Mammalapuram (Tamil Nadu) and Mysore have been added already as craft cities from India.
Key facts about Kashmir Craft
Kashmir’s craft is mostly influenced by Central Asian countries, which are in the list of the WCC.
The distinction of being included in the WCC list will put a spotlight on Srinagar’s craft scene and introduce the centuries-old processes to the global stage.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/jammu-and-kashmir/srinagar-vies-for-global-craft-city-tag-as-world-craft-council-international-team-tours-craft-clusters/article68080259.ece
Euvichol-S, recently in news, is primarily used in the treatment of:
Cholera
Explanation :
Recently, the World Health Organization (WHO) has prequalified a new oral vaccine for Cholera called Euvichol-S.
It is the inactivated oral vaccine to treat Cholera.
This new vaccine is the third product of the same family of vaccines which are there for cholera in WHO prequalification list.
It is a simplified formulation of the oral cholera vaccine (OCV) Euvichol-Plus.
Other inactivated oral cholera vaccines are Euvichol and Euvichol-Plus.
Key facts about Cholera
It is an acute diarrhoeal disease that is caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae.
It remains a global threat to public health and an indicator of inequity and lack of social development.
Symptoms
It is an extremely virulent disease that can cause severe acute watery diarrhoea.
Profuse watery diarrhoea, Vomiting, Leg cramps etc.
The disease can spread rapidly in areas with inadequate sewage and drinking water treatment.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/healthcare/pharma-healthcare/who-prequalifies-new-oral-vaccine-for-cholera-heres-what-you-need-to-know/3462417/
The Global Financial Stability Report is released by:
International Monetary Fund
Explanation :
Recently, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) released the latest Global Financial Stability Report.
It is a semiannual report by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) that assesses the stability of global financial markets and emerging-market financing.
It is released twice per year, in April and October.
It focuses on current conditions, especially financial and structural imbalances, that could risk an upset in global financial stability and access to financing by emerging-market countries.
Highlights of the report
It has warned about the risks to the global financial system from persistent high inflation, rising lending in the unregulated credit market, and increasing cyber-attacks on financial institutions.
Geopolitical risks such as the ongoing war in West Asia and Ukraine could affect aggregate supply and lead to higher prices. This, it believes, might stop central banks from lowering rates anytime soon.
In calendar year 2023, India was the second-largest recipient of foreign capital after the U.S. But things could change quickly if western central banks signal that they could keep interest rates high for a long time.
In its report also noted that the growing unregulated private credit market, in which non-bank financial institutions lend to corporate borrowers, is a growing concern as troubles in the market might affect the broader financial system in the future.
The borrowers in the private credit market may not be financially sound and noted that many of them do not have current earnings that exceed even their interest costs.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/what-is-the-outlook-on-the-global-economy-explained/article68088796.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the World Heritage Day:
- It is celebrated to raise awareness about monuments that form a part of history and culture.
- The theme of World Heritage Day 2024 is ‘Discover and Experience Diversity’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, World Heritage Day was celebrated across the world.
It is also referred to as International Day for Monuments and it is observed on April 18.
Objective: To raise awareness about monuments and other sites which form a part of our history and culture.
Background
In 1982, The International Council on Monuments and Sites (ICOMOS) proposed the idea of observing World Heritage Day on April 18 every year. The following year, the proposal was approved at UNESCO’s General Conference.
Theme of 2024: The theme for this year’s World Heritage Day is - Discover and Experience Diversity.
Significance
The purpose of World Heritage Day is to raise awareness among local communities about protecting our cultural heritage. People from various places and backgrounds come together and exchange knowledge about their histories and customs.
What is International Council on Monuments and Sites?
It is a non-governmental organization, was founded in 1965 after the adoption of the Charter of Venice, in order to promote the doctrine and the techniques of conservation.
It provides the World Heritage Committee with evaluations of properties with cultural values proposed for inscription on the World Heritage List, as well as with comparative studies, technical assistance and reports on the state of conservation of inscribed properties.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/lifestyle/art-culture/world-heritage-day-2024-date-history-significance-and-all-that-you-need-to-know-101713349182706.html
Consider the following statements with reference to soil acidification:
- It is a process where the soil pH decreases over time.
- It leads to depletion of soil inorganic carbon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recent report highlighted that over 30 per cent of cultivable land in India is said to carry acidic soil which is impacting plant growth.
It is a process where the soil pH decreases over time. This process is accelerated by agricultural production and can affect both the surface soil and subsoil.
Acidic soils in India are widespread in the humid southwestern, northeastern and Himalayan regions.
Some contributing factors to soil acidification include:
the application of high levels of ammonium-based nitrogen fertilisers to naturally acidic soils
leaching of nitrate nitrogen, originally applied as ammonium-based fertilizers
harvesting plant materials (plant material is alkaline so when it is removed the soil is more acidic than if the plant material had been returned to the soil).
Impacts
Acidification creates an environment ripe for depletion of soil inorganic carbon, which is important for soil health, ecosystem services
Acidic soils affect crop growth and productivity by reducing the availability of plant nutrients. It also predisposes plants to other biotic and abiotic stress factors.
What is soil inorganic carbon?
Inorganic carbon is found in ores and minerals, as opposed to organic carbon, which can be found in nature through plants and animals.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/environment/acidification-may-strip-indian-soils-of-3-3-billion-tonnes-of-essential-carbon-affecting-crop-growth-sequestration-study-95561
Consider the following statements with reference to Llama 3:
- It is a Large Language Model developed by Google.
- It is an instruction-tuned version designed to augment performance in specific tasks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, Meta introduced its most capable Large Language Model (LLM), the Meta Llama 3.
Llama or Large Language Model Meta AI is a family of LLMs introduced by Meta AI in February 2023.
Features
It is claimed to be the most sophisticated model with significant progress in terms of performance and AI capabilities.
It is based on the Llama 2 architecture which has been released in two sizes, 8B and 70B parameters. Both sizes come with a base model and an instruction-tuned version that has been designed to augment performance in specific tasks.
Reportedly, the instruction-tuned version is meant for powering AI chatbots that are meant to hold conversations with users.
It supports context lengths of 8,000 tokens. This allows for more interactions, and complex input handling compared to Llama 2 or 1.
It can be used on Facebook, Instagram, WhatsApp, Messenger, and the web. It is readily available for developers as Meta has integrated the LLM into the Hugging Face ecosystem.
At present, Meta AI is available in English across the US on WhatsApp.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/what-is-llama-3-metas-most-sophisticated-and-capable-large-language-model-9280994/
Longevity India Initiative, recently in news, was launched by which one of the following?
Indian Institute of Science
Explanation :
Recently, the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) launched the Longevity India Initiative.
It is a project focused on efforts to extend human ‘healthspan’ and tackle ageing-related challenges.
The initiative has also started a large-scale clinical study that will involve researchers from multiple IISc departments, clinicians, industry, philanthropists and civil society.
This initiative seeks to enhance the understanding of ageing through both fundamental and applied research, and to develop solutions that can improve quality of life.
It will leverage advanced research to develop interventions that can help manage age-related diseases more effectively, with an emphasis on promoting healthy ageing across India.
Funding: The initiative has received initial grant funding support from Prashanth Prakash, Founding Partner, Accel India.
Significance
India’s elderly population projected to surge to 347 million by 2050, it is imperative that there is a need to leverage technology to provide accessible geriatric healthcare, nurture the silver economy and invest in digital systems that support ageing populations
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/content/press-releases-ani/iisc-launches-longevity-india-initiative-to-pioneer-ageing-research-in-india-124041900747_1.html
Consider the following statements with reference to Bitcoin halving:
- It is an alteration in the foundational blockchain technology of Bitcoin.
- It is aimed at increasing the pace of bitcoin mining.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The cryptocurrency community is gearing up for the upcoming Bitcoin halving event, which is likely to be held this weekend.
The halving refers to an alteration in the foundational blockchain technology of Bitcoin, aimed at decreasing the pace of generating new bitcoins.
Since its creation by the pseudonymous figure Satoshi Nakamoto, Bitcoin has been structured to possess a finite supply of 21 million tokens.
The process of halving will persist until 2041, by which time all Bitcoins will have been mined.
How does it happen?
Blockchain technology involves creating records of information - called ‘blocks’ - which are added to the chain in a process called ‘mining’.
Miners use computing power to solve complex mathematical puzzles to build the blockchain and earn rewards in the form of new bitcoin.
The blockchain is designed so that a halving occurs every time 210,000 blocks are added to the chain, roughly every four years.
At the halving, the amount of bitcoin available as rewards for miners is cut in half. This makes mining less profitable and slows the production of new bitcoins.
Impact the Crypto market
Experts say that the halving event might impact Bitcoin’s price as its heightened scarcity could result in upward pressure on prices and attract a wave of new investors to the cryptocurrency market.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/tech/technology/bitcoins-halving-what-is-it-and-does-it-matter/articleshow/109429802.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Indelible ink.
- It is prepared by using silver nitrate.
- It is used in elections in India and is mentioned in the Representation of People Act, 1951.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
As the Lok Sabha elections is round the corner, the classic symbol of Indian polls is visible everywhere – a left hand with only its index finger extended, marked by a purple-black indelible ink.
It contains silver nitrate. It is a colourless compound which becomes visible when exposed to ultraviolet light, including sunlight.
The higher silver nitrate’s concentration, the higher will be the ink’s quality.
For up to 72 hours after application it can remain resistant to soap, liquids, home-cleansing, detergents, etc.
This water-based ink also contains a solvent like alcohol to allow its faster drying. The precise protocol for making this ink including its chemical composition and the quantity of each constituent is, however, not known to many people.”
The indelible ink was first manufactured at the Election Commission of India’s request by the Government’s Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR).
Mysore Paints & Varnish Ltd. has been licensed to manufacture the ink and has been in the business since 1962.
It is exported to more than 25 countries that include Canada, Ghana, Nigeria, Mongolia, Malaysia, Nepal, South Africa and the Maldives
The Representation of the People Act (RoPA) of 1951 mentions the ink.
Section 61 states that rules may be made under the Act “for the marking with indelible ink of the thumb or any other finger of every elector who applies for a ballot paper or ballot papers for the purpose of voting at a polling station before delivery of such paper or papers to him.”
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-politics/lok-sabha-elections-voting-indelible-ink-9279884/
Consider the following statements with reference to Coral:
- It lives in symbiotic relationship with single-celled algae called zooxanthellae.
- High solar irradiance leads to the bleaching in shallow water corals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the US National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) said the fourth global mass coral bleaching event has been triggered by extraordinary ocean temperatures.
Corals are essentially animals, which are sessile, meaning they permanently attach themselves to the ocean floor.
Corals share a symbiotic relationship with single-celled algae called zooxanthellae.
The algae provides the coral with food and nutrients, which they make through photosynthesis, using the sun’s light.
They use their tiny tentacle-like hands to catch food from the water and sweep into their mouth.
Each individual coral animal is known as a polyp and it lives in groups of hundreds to thousands of genetically identical polyps that form a ‘colony’.
Corals are largely classified as either hard coral or soft coral. It is the hard corals that are the architects of coral reefs — complex three-dimensional structures built up over thousands of years.
Hard corals have stony skeletons made out of limestone that are produced by coral polyps. When polyps die, their skeletons are left behind and used as foundations for new polyps.
Coral reefs, also referred to as “rainforests of the sea”, have existed on the Earth for nearly 450 million years.
Significance of corals: Coral reefs have a crucial role in marine ecosystems. Thousands of marine species can be found living on one reef.
What is Coral Bleaching?
It happens when corals experience stress in their environment due to changes in temperature, pollution or high levels of ocean acidity.
Under stressed conditions, the zooxanthellae or food-producing algae living inside coral polyps start producing reactive oxygen species, which are not beneficial to the corals.
So, the corals expel the colour-giving zooxanthellae from their polyps, which exposes their pale white exoskeleton, giving the corals a bleached appearance.
This also ends the symbiotic relationship that helps the corals to survive and grow.
Reasons for Coral Bleaching
Change in Ocean Temperature: Increased Ocean temperature caused by climate change is the leading cause of coral bleaching.
Runoff and Pollution: Storm generated precipitation can rapidly dilute ocean water and runoff can carry pollutants, which can bleach near shore corals.
Overexposure to sunlight: When temperatures are high, high solar irradiance contributes to bleaching in shallow water corals.
Extremely low tides: Exposure to the air during extremely low tides can cause bleaching in shallow corals.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/iran-israel-hostility-9281462/
With reference to Panhala fort, consider the following statements:
- It is located in Maharashtra.
- It was controlled by both Yadavas of Devgiri and the Bahamani of Bidar.
- Teen Darwaja of this fort was built by Sultan Ibrahim Adil Shah I.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), Mumbai Circle celebrated World Heritage Day on at Panhala Fort.
It is located in Maharashtra and occupies a prime place in the history of this state.
Locally, the site was known as the abode of serpents and traditionally associated with the sage Parashar.
It is strategically placed in proximity to the trade routes connecting the Sahyadri mountains, the Deccan plateau, and the Konkan coast, the fort became centre of interest for several dynasties.
The antiquity of the fort goes back to the Shilahara dynasty ruler Bhoja of 11th century CE.
The fort, as evidenced by the different structures, reflects the transfer of power in the hands of the Yadavas of Devgiri, the Bahamani of Bidar, the Adilshahi of Bijapur, the Marathas and the Mughals.
Features
The fort had 3 double walled gates, of which the eastern side gate; Chaar Darwaja is in ruins.
Teen Darwaja, the western gate is the main entrance with pointed arch opening. Its inner gate is decorated with tracery design and is surrounded by courtyard with arcade section. “A two-line Persian inscription written in Nasta’liq records its erection during the reign of Sultan Ibrahim Adil Shah I in 954 A.H. (1547-8 CE).
The Wagh Darwaja on the north appears hidden camouflaged by natural scarp that leads to a narrow pathway down the hill,
Some of the other structures include a three-storied tower called the Nayikinicha Sajja or the dancing girl’s tower, built during the reign of Ibrahim Adil Shah II in 1000 A.H. 1591 C.E., that is endowed with delicate stucco mouldings in the interior.
Ambarkhana: It is situated in the centre of the fort is the which consists of 3 buildings known as the Ganga, Yamuna and Saraswati. It has sixteen bays each with its own flat vault with a hole on top.
Another granary is situated to its west called Dharma Kothi. It has a single staircase leading to its top.
Sajja Kothi is a double storied structure with upper gallery occupying the prominent and highest position on the hill and dated to the reign of Bijapur King Ibrahim Adilshah A.H. 1016 (1607-08 CE).
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/mumbai/asi-educates-and-promotes-panhala-fort-on-world-heritage-day-in-kolhapur/article68080868.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organization (NOTTO):
- It was set up under the Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
- NOTTO-ID is mandatory for considering the allocation of organs in the case of a deceased donor transplant.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
All cases of organ transplants will be allocated a unique National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO)-ID for both the donor and the recipient, according to a recent directive by the Union Health Ministry.
Why in News?
The Union Health Ministry has issued the directive to eliminate commercial dealings in organs, especially those involving foreign citizens.
NOTTO-ID is mandatory for considering the allocation of organs in the case of a deceased donor transplant; this ID in the case of a living donor transplants hall also be generated at the earliest, maximum within 48 hours after the transplant surgery is done.
NOTTO-ID must be generated by the hospital from the NOTTO website.
It has also called for stricter monitoring of such transplants by the local authorities.
About National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organization (NOTTO):
NOTTO is a national level organization set up under the Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
It functions as the apex centre for all India activities of coordination and networking for:
procurement and distribution of organs and tissues; and
registry of Organs and Tissues Donation and Transplantation in the country.
It has following two divisions:
National Human Organ and Tissue Removal and Storage Network:
It would function as the apex centre for all India activities of coordination and networking for theprocurement and distribution of Organs and Tissues and registry of Organs and Tissues Donation and Transplantation in the country.
This has been mandated as per the Transplantation of Human Organs (Amendment) Act 2011.
National Biomaterial Centre (National Tissue Bank):
The Transplantation of Human Organs (Amendment) Act 2011 has included the component of tissue donation and registration of tissue Banks.
The main thrust and objective of establishing the centre is to fill up the gap between ‘Demand’ and ‘Supply’ as well as ‘Quality Assurance’ in the availability of various tissues.
Activities: Coordinationfortissue procurement and distribution;Donor Tissue Screening;Removal of Tissues and Storage;Preservations of Tissue;Laboratory screening of Tissues;Tissue Tracking;Sterilization, Records maintenance;Data Protection and Confidentiality;Quality Management in tissues;Patient Information on tissues;Development of Guidelines; Protocols and Standard Operating Procedures;Trainings, Assisting as per requirement in registration of other Tissue Banks;
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/all-cases-of-organ-transplants-whether-from-living-or-deceased-donor-to-be-given-unique-notto-id/article68090648.ece
Mount Erebus is an active volcano located in which one of the following continents?
Antarctica
Explanation :
Mount Erebus, an active volcano in Antarctica, has been in the news for spewing gold dust worth $6000 every single day.
About Mount Erebus:
It is the most southerly active volcano on Earth. It is situated on Ross Island, Antarctica.
It’s a stratovolcano, characterized by a conical shape and layers of hardened lava, tephra, and volcanic ash.
Mount Erebus is known for its persistent lava lake.
The lake has been active since at least 1972 and is one of only a few long-lived lava lakes on Earth.
It constantly churns and occasionally spews bombs of molten rock in Strombolian eruptions.
Because the volcano is in a remote location, researchers monitor it using satellites.
What is a Stratovolcano?
It is a tall, steep and cone-shaped type of volcano. Unlike flat shield volcanoes, they have higher peaks. They are typically found above subduction zones, and they are often part of large volcanically active regions, such as the Ring of Fire that frames much of the Pacific Ocean.
Strato volcanoes comprise the largest percentage (~60%) of the Earth’s individual volcanoes and most are characterized by eruptions of andesite and dacite, lavas that are cooler and more viscous than basalt.
These more viscous lavas allow gas pressures to build up to high levels. Therefore, these volcanoes often suffer explosive eruptions.
They are usually about half-half lava and pyroclastic material and the layering of these products gives them their other common name of composite volcanoes.
At the peak, stratovolcanoes usually have a small crater. The crater may be filled with water or ice, or it may contain a volcanic dome during a period of relative inactivity.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.india.com/news/world/its-raining-gold-worth-6000-everyday-in-antarctica-from-mount-erebus-active-volcano-watch-video-6875966/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Artemis Accords:
- They are a binding set of principles designed to guide civil space exploration.
- India is not a signatory to the Artemis Accords.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Sweden is the newest nation to sign onto NASA’s Artemis Accords for peaceful and responsible exploration.
About Artemis Accords:
The Artemis Accords are a non-binding set of principles designed to guide civil space exploration and use in the 21st century.
These principles will help to ensure the maintenance of a safe and predictable outer space environment.
Co-led by NASA and the U.S. Department of State, the Artemis Accords was established in 2020, together with seven other founding member nations (Australia, Canada, Italy, Japan, Luxembourg, the United Arab Emirates, and the United Kingdom).
As of April 2024, there were 38 signatories, including India.
Principles:
Peaceful uses: cooperative activities are exclusively for peaceful purposes and in accordance with international law.
Transparency: commit to broad dissemination of information regarding their national policies and exploration plans. Agree to share scientific information with the public on a good-faith basis consistent with Article XI of the Outer Space Treaty (OST).
Interoperability: agree to develop infrastructure to common standards for space hardware and operating procedures that include fuel storage, landing systems, communication, power, and docking interfaces.
Emergency Assistance: commit to offering all reasonable efforts to render assistance and comply with the rescue and return agreement as outlined in the Outer Space Treaty.
Registration of Objects: registration of space objects (on the surface, in orbit or in space) by signatory nations can help to mitigate risk of harmful interference.
Release of Scientific Data: commit to the open sharing of scientific data arising from space exploration missions. Not mandatory for private-sector operations.
Preserving Outer Space Heritage: undertake to ensure new activities help preserve and do not undermine space heritage sites of historical significance.
Space Resources: signatories affirm that extraction of resources does not inherently constitute national appropriation under Article II of the Outer Space Treaty.
Deconfliction of Space Activities: undertake exploration with due consideration to the United Nations guidelines for the long-term sustainability of outer space activities as adopted by the UN Committee for Peaceful Uses of Outer Space (COPUOS) in 2019. Activities, where potential harmful interference could occur, should be restricted to pre-identified ‘Safety Zones’. The size, location, and nature of operations in a Safety Zone should be notified to all signatories and the UN Secretary-General.
Orbital Debris: signatories agree to limit harmful debris in orbit through mission planning that includes selecting flight orbital profiles that minimise conjunction risk, minimising debris release during the operational phase, timely passivation, and end-of-life disposal.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://www.space.com/nasa-sweden-signs-artemis-accords
Rampage Missile, recently seen in the news, is developed by which one of the following countries?
Israel
Explanation :
Israel recently used the Rampage, an efficient air-to-surface missile, in an attack on an Iranian military base.
About Rampage Missile:
It is a long-range, supersonic, air-to-ground, seeker less, precision strike missile.
It was developed by Israel Aerospace Industries and Israeli Military Industries Systems.
It has been developed for use in missions aimed at destroying high-quality, well-protected targets, such as communication and command centers, air force bases, maintenance centers, and infrastructure.
Features:
It may travel at supersonic speeds, making it difficult to identify and intercept with air defense systems.
It has a range of over 190 miles.
It can carry 150 kg of explosives.
It has a blast fragmentation or general-purpose warhead.
It can be fired from an aircraft or as a stand-alone system and uses GPS/INS guidance navigation and anti-jamming capabilities.
It can also adjust its path mid-flight, to precisely hit the target it was programmed to hit.
It can operate in any weather conditions, day or night.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/middle-east/israel-used-locally-developed-air-to-surface-missile-rampage-in-iran-attack/articleshow/109471778.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to Exercise Poorvi Lehar (XPOL):
- It is a bilateral maritime exercise conducted between the navies of India and Vietnam.
- It is aimed at the validation of procedures towards assessment of Indian Navy’s preparedness to meet Maritime Security challenges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Indian Navy recently conducted Exercise Poorvi Lehar on the East Coast.
About Exercise Poorvi Lehar (XPOL):
It is a maritime exercise conducted by the Indian Navy along the East Coast, under the operational direction of the Flag Officer Commanding-in-Chief, Eastern Naval Command.
The exercise aimed at validation of procedures towards assessment of Indian Navy’s preparedness to meet Maritime Security challenges in the region.
The exercise witnessed participation of Ships, Submarines, Aircrafts and Special Forces.
XPOL was conducted in multiple phases including combat training in a realistic scenario during the Tactical Phase and successful conduct of various firings during the Weapon Phase towards reaffirming Indian Navy’s capability to deliver ordnance on target.
With operation of aircraft from diverse locations, a near continuous Maritime Domain Awareness was maintained throughout the Area of operations.
In addition to the participation of assets from Eastern Naval Command, the exercise also witnessed participation of assets from IAF, Andaman & Nicobar Command and Coast Guard indicating a very high degree of interoperability amongst the Services.
The Exercise offered valuable lessons to participating forces operating under realistic conditions, thereby enhancing their readiness to respond effectively to maritime challenges in the region.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2018336
Pact for the Future, an action-oriented outcome document, is related to:
UN Summit of the Future
Explanation :
Recently, the UN Secretary General has said that the reform of multilateral development banks (MDBs) will be a key theme at this year’s Summit of the Future.
It is a high-level event, bringing world leaders together to forge a new international consensus on how we deliver a better present and safeguard the future.
It serves as a moment to mend eroded trust and demonstrate that international cooperation can effectively tackle current challenges as well as those that have emerged in recent years or may yet be over the horizon.
The high-level event will bring together UN Member States, UN agencies, Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs), Civil Society Organizations (CSOs), academic institutions, the private sector, and youth under the theme, ‘Summit of the Future: Multilateral Solutions for a Better Tomorrow’.
The aim is to build upon the Sustainable development Goal (SDG) Summit and deliver an action-oriented Pact for the Future to accelerate progress towards the Sustainable Development Goals.
This will be achieved through an action-oriented outcome document called the Pact for the Future.
The Pact will be negotiated, and endorsed by countries in the lead-up to and during the Summit in September 2024.
UN Member States have agreed the Summit of the Future is centered around five key targets:
Reaffirm the UN Charter.
Reinvigorate multilateralism.
Boost implementation of existing commitments.
Agree on solutions to new challenges.
Restore trust.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/un-secy-gen-backs-india-s-mdb-reform-work-101713724556418.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Blockchain for Impact (BFI) Biome Virtual Network Program:
- It nurtures cutting-edge biomedical science and innovation.
- It will provide financial incentives to Centre for Cellular and Molecular Platform to develop programs for healthcare-based startups.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Centre for Cellular and Molecular Platforms (C-CAMP) has joined the Blockchain for Impact (BFI) Biome Virtual Network Program to accelerate transformative healthcare solutions through biomedical innovation.
It will nurture cutting-edge biomedical science and innovation and accelerate the impact of transformative scientific advances in moving the needle for key healthcare challenges in India.
It has a robust pipeline of biomedical innovations in several critical areas such as infectious disease diagnostics, antimicrobial resistance, cell therapy, immuno-oncology, regenerative tissues, digital health tech to name a few.
This initiative unites incubators and research institutes under a single umbrella. This fosters collaborations among the stakeholders in the translational pipeline, the process of transforming research discoveries into real-world applications.
Through this program, BFI will allocate over $ 200,000 over the course of three years, leveraging C-CAMP’s expertise to develop essential programs for healthcare-based startups.
What is C-CAMP?
It is an initiative supported by the Department of Biotechnology and has been a catalyst of cutting-edge research and innovation in the life sciences since 2009.
It is mandated to promote entrepreneurship and innovation. It has created and fostered an entrepreneur-friendly culture in and around the Academic/Research environment through its involvement in Seed Funding Schemes for Startups.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/bangalore/c-camp-joins-bfi-biome-virtual-network-program-to-accelerate-transformative-healthcare-solutions/article68091114.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Zero Shadow Day:
- It can be seen when the sun is directly overhead at particular latitude.
- It occurs once in two years when the sun is at the zenith.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A group of students was provided a first-hand experience of the Zero Shadow Day (ZSD) phenomenon at an event organised by the Pondicherry Science Forum (PSF).
It is a sub-solar point where the sun is directly overhead at a particular latitude.
When the sun is at the zenith (the highest point in the sky) its rays will be hitting a particular point exactly perpendicular to the surface.
This will make the shadow of a person exactly under him, making it look like there are no shadows.
When does it occur?
There are two zero shadow days every year in May and July/August, observed in places that lie between the tropic of Cancer and the tropic of Capricorn.
One falls during the Uttarayan (when the Sun moves northwards), and the other is during Dakshinayan (when the Sun moves southwards).
It lasts for a small part of a second, but the effect can be seen for a minute to a minute-and-a-half.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/puducherry/children-experience-zero-shadow-phenomenon/article68091017.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the World Earth Day:
- The first World Earth Day was celebrated in 1992 during the Earth Summit.
- The theme of World Earth Day 2024 is ‘Planet vs. Plastics’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
World Earth Day is celebrated annually across the world on April 22 every year.
It is also known as International Mother Earth Day, is a globally recognised event dedicated to raising awareness and promoting the sustainability of our planet.
History
The concept of Earth Day can be traced back to the late 1960s, which saw a surge in public debate over environmental issues, with Rachel Carson’s influential book Silent Spring (1962) and the Santa Barbara oil spill (1969) raising awareness about environmental destruction.
The first World Earth Day was held on April 22, 1970, in the United States.
It was organized by a group of environmental activists led by US Senator Gaylord Nelson, who was concerned about the negative impact of industrialization and pollution on the environment.
Since then, it has become a global movement that encourages individuals and communities to take action towards protecting our planet.
Theme of 2024: ‘Planet vs. Plastics’
This theme emphasizes the need for collective action to repair and heal the planet’s ecosystems, combat climate change, and preserve biodiversity.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/trending/earth-day-2024-get-to-know-the-significance-theme-and-history-9279080/
With reference to Copyright Act of 1957, consider the following statements:
- It aims to safeguard creative works considered to be a creator’s intellectual property.
- It protects the expressions and not the ideas.
- Only the Supreme Court has jurisdiction in civil suits regarding copyright infringement.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Andhra Pradesh High Court ruled in a case recently that textbooks dealing with mathematical equations and science subjects do not come under copyright law, as their content is non-literary in nature.
Copyright refers to the right given by the law to creators of literary, dramatic, musical, and artistic works and producers of cinematograph films and sound recordings.
Copyright is a bundle of rights that includes rights of reproduction, communication to the public, adaptation, and translation of a work.
The Copyright Act of 1957 aims to safeguard creative works considered to be a creator’s intellectual property.
A copyrighted work will be considered “infringed” only if a substantial part is made use of without authorisation.
In cases of infringement, the copyright owner can take legal action and is entitled to remedies such as injunctions and damages.
The District Court concerned has the jurisdiction in civil suits regarding copyright infringement.
Any person who knowingly infringes or abets the infringement of the copyright in any work commits criminal offence under Section 63 of the Copyright Act.
What is Copyright Act of 1957?
It protects original literary, dramatic, musical and artistic works and cinematograph films and sound recordings from unauthorized uses.
Unlike the case with patents, copyright protects the expressions and not the ideas. There is no copyright in an idea.
Copyright does not ordinarily protect titles by themselves or names, short word combinations, slogans, short phrases, methods, plots or factual information. Copyright does not protect ideas or concepts. To get the protection of copyright a work must be original.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/textbooks-copyright-law-courts-9282945/
ith reference to the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, consider the following statements:
- Persons with “benchmark disabilities” are defined as those certified to have at least 40 percent of the disabilities specified.
- Every child with a benchmark disability between the ages of 6 and 18 shall have the right to free education.
- It provides for 4% reservation in Government jobs for certain persons or class of persons with benchmark disability.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently lamented that the implementation of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 (RPWD Act) remains dismal across India.
About Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 (RPwD Act):
It was enacted in the year 2016 and came into force in 2017.
It replaced the Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights, and Full Participation) Act, 1995.
The objective of the Act is to ensure that all persons with disabilities can lead their lives with dignity, without discrimination, and with equal opportunities.
The Act lays down specific provisions to uphold such rights.
It incorporates the rights of persons with disabilities covered under the United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (UNCRPD), to which India is a signatory.
Under the Act, disability has been defined as an evolving and dynamic concept.
The types of disabilities have been increased from existing 7 to 21, and the Central Government will have the power to add more types of disabilities.
The types of disabilities include Leprosy Cured Person, Cerebral Palsy, Acid Attack Victims, Blindness, Deaf, Specific Learning Disabilities, Autism Spectrum Disorder, Parkinson’s Disease, Haemophilia, etc.
Persons with “benchmark disabilities” are defined as those certified to have at least 40 percent of the disabilities specified.
Rights and entitlements:
Responsibility has been cast upon the appropriate governments to take effective measures to ensure that persons with disabilities (PwDs) enjoy their rights equally with others.
Additional benefits have been provided for persons with benchmark disabilities and those with high support needs.
Every child with a benchmark disability between the age group of 6 and 18 years shall have the right to free education.
5% reservation in seats in Government and Government aided higher educational institutions for persons with benchmark disabilities.
Stress has been given to ensure accessibility in public buildings (both Government and private) in a prescribed time-frame.
4% reservation in Government jobs for certain persons or class of persons with benchmark disability.
Guardianship: The Act provides for the grant of guardianship by the District Court or any authority designated by the State Government under which there will be joint decision–making between the guardian and the PwDs.
Broad-based Central and State Advisory Boards on Disability to be set up as policy-making bodies.
The Act provides for the strengthening of the Office of Chief Commissioner of Persons with Disabilities and the State Commissioners of Disabilities, which will act as regulatory bodies and Grievance Redressal agencies and also monitor the implementation of the Act.
These Offices will be assisted by an Advisory Committee comprising of experts in various disabilities.
Creation of National and State Fund to provide financial support to the PwDs.
Penalties for offences:
The Act provides for penalties for offences committed against PwDs and also for violations of the provisions of the new law.
Any person who violates provisions of the Act, or any rule or regulation made under it, shall be punishable with imprisonment up to six months and/ or a fine of Rs 10,000, or both.
For any subsequent violation, imprisonment of up to two years and/or a fine of Rs 50,000 to Rs five lakh can be awarded.
Whoever intentionally insults or intimidates a PwD or sexually exploits a woman or child with a disability, shall be punishable with imprisonment between six months to five years and fine.
Special Courts will be designated in each district to handle cases concerning violations of the rights of PwDs.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.barandbench.com/news/supreme-court-dismal-implementation-right-of-persons-with-disabilities-act
Consider the following statements with reference to the Survey of India (SoI):
- It is responsible for the production of geographical maps and demarcation of external boundaries of India.
- It works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Tamil Nadu State government raised objections to the Survey of India (SoI) report filed in connection with the construction of a mega car park project by Kerala in the Mullaperiyar catchment area.
About Survey of India (SoI):
It is the National Survey and Mapping Organization of the country, under the Department of Science and Technology.
It is the oldest scientific department of the Govt. of India.
It was set up in 1767 (India under British Rule) and has evolved rich traditions over the years.
In its assigned role as the nation’s principal mapping agency, SoI bears a special responsibility to ensure that the country’s domain is explored and mapped suitably to provide base maps for expeditious and integrated development.
Organized into only 5 Directorates in 1950, mainly to look after the mapping needs of Defence Forces in the North West and North East, the Department has now grown into 18 Directorates spread in all parts of the country to provide the basic map coverage required for the development of the country.
Its technology, latest in the world, has been oriented to meet the needs of defense forces, planners, and scientists in the fields of geo-sciences, land and resource management.
Its expert advice is being utilized by various ministries and undertakings of the Govt. of India in many sensitive areas, including the settlement of international borders, state boundaries and in assisting planned development of hitherto under developed areas.
The department is also assisting in many scientific programmes of the nation related to the field of geo-physics, remote sensing, and digital data transfers.
It acts as an adviser to the Govt. of India on all survey matters, viz Geodesy, Photogrammetry, Mapping, and Map Reproduction.
However, the main duties and responsibilities of the SoI are enumerated below:
All Geodetic Control, and Geodetic and Geophysical surveys.
All Topographical Control, Surveys, and Mapping within India.
Mapping and Production of Geographical Maps and Aeronautical Charts.
Surveys for developmental projects.
Survey of forests, cantonments, large scale city surveys, guide maps, cadastral surveys, etc.
Survey and Mapping of special maps.
Spellings of Geographical names.
Demarcation of the External Boundaries of India, their depiction on maps published in the country, and also advice on the demarcation of inter-state boundaries.
Research and Development in Cartography, Printing, Geodesy, Photogrammetry, Topographical Surveys, and Indigenisation.
Prediction of tides at 44 ports, including 14 foreign ports and publication of Tide Tables one year in advance to support navigational activities.
Scrutiny and certification of the external boundaries of India and the coastline on maps published by other agencies including private publishers.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/mullaperiyar-dam-case-tn-rejects-survey-of-india-report-on-mega-parking-project-sc-fixes-july-10-to-finalise-legal-issues/article68093743.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Candidates Chess Tournament:
- The winner of the tournament is declared the World Chess Champion.
- It is organised by the International Chess Federation (FIDE).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
India’s 17-year-old Grandmaster D Gukesh recently made history by winning the Candidates Chess Tournament in Toronto to become the youngest ever challenger to the world title.
About Candidates Chess Tournament:
It is the final event in the World Championship cycle before the World Championship match itself.
The International Chess Federation (FIDE) has organized the World Championship cycle since 1948 and the Candidates Tournament since 1950.
Since 2013, the Candidates Tournament has occurred every two years.
The number of players in the tournament varied over the years, between eight and fifteen players. Currently, it is an eight-player, double round-robin event (that is all-play-all with both colours).
Why is the Candidates Tournament Important?
It is the second most important tournament in the World Championship cycle, as the winner of the Candidates Tournament plays the reigning world champion in the championship match.
Multiple tournaments are part of the World Championship cycle, but the real point of all of them is to qualify for the Candidates Tournament.
How to qualify for the Candidates Tournament? The methods used to qualify each of the players for the Candidates Tournament most recently were:
The runner-up in the previous World Championship match,
the top three finishers of the FIDE World Cup,
the top two finishers of the FIDE Grand Swiss tournament,
the winner of the FIDE Circuit, which tracks tournament results from January to December of the year before the Candidates Tournament,
and the player with the highest FIDE rating in January of the year of the Candidates Tournament.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.firstpost.com/sports/candidates-chess-prize-money-d-gukesh-13762272.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Biomarkers:
- They are physical or chemical characteristics that are present in the human body and are measurable.
- Staging and grading of cancers is an example of molecular biomarkers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Screening for blood biomarkers has been proposed as a potential way to diagnose cancer at earlier stages of the disease.
About Biomarkers:
Biomarkers, short for ‘Biological Markers’ are a physical, chemical, or biological characteristic that is present in the human body, and measurable too.
The WHO defines a biomarker as “any measurement reflecting an interaction between a biological system and a potential hazard, which may be chemical, physical, or biological. The measured response may be functional and physiological, biochemical at the cellular level, or a molecular interaction”.
Experts also call them molecular markers and signature molecules.
They are indispensable in diagnosing disease, prescribing the right medication, right dosage, and even while designing new drugs.
Biomarkers include biomolecules like carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, genes, DNA, RNA, platelets, enzymes, hormones, etc.
Classification of Biomarkers:
Based on their source or location:
Molecular – have biophysical properties, which allow their measurements in biological samples such as blood plasma, serum, cerebrospinal fluid, bronchoalveolar lavage, biopsy, urinalysis, and faecal analysis
Radiographic – obtained from imaging studies, for example, bone mineral density
Histologic – reflect biochemical or molecular alteration in cells, tissues, or fluids; for example, the staging and grading of cancers
Physiologic – measures of body processes, for example, blood pressure, pulse rate, and heart rate
Based on roles/functions:
Susceptibility/Risk Biomarkers: Indicate the person’s likelihood of developing a particular disease or condition in the near or distant future.
Diagnostic Biomarkers: These are used to detect or confirm a particular disease or condition.
Prognostic Biomarkers: In people who already are confirmed to have a disease, prognostic biomarkers can predict the likelihood of disease progression or relapse.
Monitoring Biomarkers: These biomarkers are used for one or all of these reasons: to assess the stage or condition of the disease, to measure the exposure to a particular drug, and to measure exposure to an environmental agent.
Predictive Biomarkers: These are used to identify individuals who have a higher likelihood of experiencing a strong outcome when exposed to a particular drug. This will help decide the treatment options.
Pharmacodynamic/Response Biomarkers: These reveal that a biological response has happened in patients exposed to a particular drug or environmental agent.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.livescience.com/health/cancer/detecting-cancer-in-minutes-possible-with-just-a-drop-of-dried-blood-and-new-test-study-hints
With reference to Safeguard Measures under the World Trade Organization (WTO), consider the following statements:
- They are imposed only when imports are found to cause or threaten serious injury to a country’s domestic industry.
- The member imposing them (generally) must pay compensation to the members whose trade is affected.
- Unlike the anti-dumping measures, they require the finding of an “unfair” practice for their imposition.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
India and some other nations, including Switzerland, Brazil, China, Japan, Korea and Russia, have criticized the EU for deciding against terminating its safeguard measure on imports of certain steel products after carrying out a review.
About Safeguard Measures:
Safeguard measures are measures introduced by a country that qualify as “emergency” actions under the WTO Agreement on Safeguards.
A WTO member may take a “safeguard” action (i.e., restrict imports of a product temporarily) under the WTO Agreement on Safeguards to protect a specific domestic industry from an increase in imports of any product which is causing, or which is threatening to cause, serious injury to the industry.
These actions are intended to prevent or mitigate serious injury to the member state’s domestic industry.
Such measures, which in broad terms take the form of suspension of concessions or obligations, can consist of quantitative import restrictions or duty increases to higher than bound rates.
They are one of three types of contingent trade protection measures, along with anti-dumping and countervailing measures, available to WTO members.
The guiding principles of the agreement with respect to safeguard measures are that such measures
must be temporary;
that they may be imposed only when imports are found to cause or threaten serious injury to a competing domestic industry;
that they (generally) be applied on a non-selective (i.e., most-favoured-nation, or “MFN”) basis;
that they be progressively liberalized while in effect;
and that the member imposing them (generally) must pay compensation to the members whose trade is affected.
Thus, safeguard measures, unlike anti-dumping and countervailing measures, do not require a finding of an “unfair” practice.
The agreement defines “serious injury” as a significant overall impairment in the position of a domestic industry.
In determining whether serious injury is present, investigating authorities are to evaluate all relevant factors having a bearing on the condition of the industry.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/india-other-wto-members-criticise-eu-uk-on-steel-safeguard-measures/article67462642.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi Scheme:
- It is a centrally sponsored scheme to provide healthcare benefits to all rural households.
- It provides one-time financial assistance to patients suffering from life threatening diseases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Delhi High Court instituted a case with respect to the grant of financial assistance under the Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi (RAN) scheme and said threshold income to claim benefit was prima facie “extremely low”.
It was set up in 1997 and it is a central sector scheme.
It provides one-time financial assistance to poor patients living below State/UT wise threshold poverty line and suffering from life threatening diseases relating to heart, kidney, liver, cancer, etc. for treatment at any of Super Specialty Government hospitals/institutes.
The Umbrella Scheme of RAN has three components as under:
Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi (RAN) - Financial assistance for treatment of life-threatening diseases relating to heart, kidney, liver, etc. at Government hospitals/institutes having Super Specialty facilities; (Maximum financial assistance is Rs. 15 lakhs)
Health Minister’s Cancer Patient Fund (HMCPF) - Financial assistance for treatment of cancer at Regional Cancer Centres (RCCs)/ Tertiary Care Cancer Centres (TCCCs) and State Cancer Institutes (SCIs); (Maximum financial assistance is Rs. 15 lakhs)
Financial assistance for poor patients suffering from rare diseases - for specified rare diseases for treatment at Government hospitals/institutes having Super Specialty facilities; (Maximum financial assistance is Rs. 20 lakhs)
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Delhi/income-threshold-for-arogya-nidhi-aid-extremely-low-says-delhi-high-court/article68095283.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Schengen Area:
- It is a group of European nations that have abolished their internal borders for free and unrestricted movement of people.
- All European Union countries are members of this Schengen Area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the European Union has announced that Indian nationals can now be issued long-term multi-entry Schengen visas valid for two years after having obtained and lawfully used two visas within the previous three years.
It is an official document mandatory for some non-Europeans to travel to all the 27 countries which are part of the Schengen area.
Once granted, this visa allows the traveller to cross the borders of the other member-states without going through identity checks at the border.
The Schengen visas allow visitors to travel freely in the Schengen area for short stays of a maximum of 90 days in any 180-day period.
The visas do not give the right to work.
What is the Schengen area?
It is a group of 27 European nations that have abolished their internal borders, for the free and unrestricted movement of people.
Members of this area include: 23 of the 27 EU member states (except for Bulgaria, Cyprus, Ireland and Romania) and all members of the European Free Trade Association (Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland).
Switzerland, Iceland and Norway are not in the EU but are inside of the Schengen Area.
Being part of this area means that countries:
do not carry out checks at their internal borders, except in cases of specific threats;
carry out harmonized controls at their external borders, based on clearly defined criteria.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/indian-nationals-can-now-apply-for-multiple-entry-schengen-visa-with-longer-validity/article68094987.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the National Service Scheme:
- It was launched during the birth centenary year of Mahatma Gandhi.
- It provides for the participation of school students in various Government led community service activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Trained National Service Scheme (NSS) volunteers from 153 NSS units will offer their services to differently abled people and senior citizens in Kozhikode district on the day of polls.
It was launched during 1969, the birth centenary year of Mahatma Gandhi.
It is a Central Sector Scheme of the Government of India.
It provides an opportunity to the student youth of the 11th & 12th Class of schools at +2 Board level and student youth of Technical Institution, Graduate & Post Graduate at colleges and University level of India to take part in various Government led community service activities & programmes.
The NSS symbol
It is based on the “Rath” wheel of the Konark Sun Temple situated in Odisha.
The navy blue colour indicates the cosmos of which the NSS is a tiny part, ready to contribute its share for the welfare of the mankind.
The Red colour in the badge indicates that the NSS volunteers are full of blood i.e. lively, active, energetic and full of high spirit.
The giant wheels of the Sun Temple portray the cycle of creation, preservation and release, and signify the movement in life across time and space.
Activities undertaken by NSS: National Integration Camp, Shramdaan. Blood donation, Immunisation, Plantation, Disaster Management and Adventure programs etc.
Motto: The motto of National Service Scheme is NOT ME BUT YOU
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/elections/lok-sabha/nss-volunteers-to-offer-help-to-differently-abled-people-senior-citizens-during-polls-in-kozhikode/article68094611.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Tundra ecosystem:
- It is treeless region found in the Arctic and on the tops of mountains region.
- It consists of significant carbon storage area due to slow decomposition rates in the cold environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A study has warned the warming planet may alter the characteristics of tundra environments and could transform them from carbon sinks to carbon sources.
Tundra ecosystems are treeless regions found in the Arctic and on the tops of mountains, where the climate is cold and windy, and rainfall is scant.
Characteristics of Tundra Regions
Low temperatures: The average temperature is -34 to -6 degrees Celsius (-30 to 20 degrees Fahrenheit) in tundra region.
Short growing seasons: The summer growing season is just 50 to 60 days, when the sun shines up to 24 hours a day.
Permafrost: A layer of permanently frozen soil lies beneath the surface, which can be a few inches to several feet thick.
Minimal precipitation: Despite often being compared to deserts in terms of moisture, the tundra receives low levels of precipitation, often as snow.
Limited biodiversity: The harsh conditions of the tundra result in fewer plant and animal species compared to other biomes.
Carbon sink: The tundra acts as a significant carbon storage area due to slow decomposition rates in the cold environment.
The world has three types of tundra:
Arctic Tundra which occurs north of the taiga belt in the far Northern Hemisphere (It encompasses the land between the North Pole and the boreal forest, including parts of Canada, Russia, Greenland, Iceland, Norway, Sweden, and Finland.)
Alpine tundra which prevails above the tree line in mountains worldwide (in various mountain ranges such as the Rockies, the Andes, the Himalayas, and the Alps).
Antarctic tundra which includes several sub-Antarctic islands and parts of the continent of Antarctica
Flora: Mosses, lichens, sedges, cotton grass, birches etc.
Fauna: Arctic foxes, snow geese, polar bears etc.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-change/warming-planet-may-transform-tundra-ecosystems-from-carbon-sinks-to-sources-95717
With reference to Star campaigner, consider the following statements:
- S/he is a famous person chosen by a political party to contest or campaign during elections.
- A Prime Minister or a former Prime minister cannot be chosen as a star campaigner.
- A recognised political party (national or State) can appoint a maximum of 40 star campaigners during election.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Sunita Kejriwal, wife of Delhi Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal, was appointed as a ‘star campaigner’ by the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) for its campaign in Gujarat.
A star campaigner is a famous person with a huge fan following chosen by a political party to contest or campaign during elections.
What are the legal provisions?
Section 77 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (RP Act) provides for law relating to expenditure incurred by ‘leaders of a political party’.
These ‘leaders of a political party’ are popularly known as ‘star campaigners’. These star campaigners are usually the top leaders of a political party but can include other celebrities as well.
The RP Act provides that a recognised political party (national or State) can appoint a maximum of 40 star campaigners while a registered unrecognised political party can appoint up to 20.
These names are to be communicated to the Election Commission (EC) and Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) of the States as applicable within seven days from the date of notification of such election.
In case of a multi-phase election, a political party can submit separate list of star campaigners for different phases.
If in any rally/meeting organised, the star campaigner seeks votes in the name of contesting candidate(s) or shares the dais with them, then the rally/meeting expense shall be apportioned to the election expenditure of such candidate(s).
If the star campaigner incurs boarding/lodging expenses while campaigning for any candidate(s), it shall be included in the expenditure account of such candidate(s) irrespective of whether it is paid for by the candidate(s).
Further, if any candidate(s) travel with the star campaigner, then 50% of the travel expenditure of the star campaigner shall also be apportioned to such candidate(s).
When a Prime Minister or a former Prime Minister is a star campaigner, the expenditure on security including on bullet-proof vehicles will be borne by the government.
But if the Prime Minister is accompanied by another star campaigner, the candidate has to bear 50 per cent of expenditure on the security arrangements.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/what-are-the-rules-around-star-campaigners-explained/article68095778.ece
With reference to the English Channel, consider the following statements:
- It is a narrow arm of the Atlantic Ocean.
- It separates the southern coast of England from the northern coast of France.
- It is separated from the North Sea by the Davis Strait.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Five people, including a child, died in an attempt to cross the English Channel recently, hours after Britain passed a bill to deport asylum seekers to Rwanda to try to deter the dangerous crossings.
About English Channel:
The English Channel, also known simply as “the Channel,” is a narrow arm of the Atlantic Ocean.
It separates the southern coast of England (part of Great Britain) from the northern coast of France.
In French, the channel is called La Manche (the sleeve).
It is separated from the North Sea on the north by the Strait of Dover.
Climate: Temperate maritime climate with warm summers and cold winters.
The main islands are the Isle of Wight and the Channel Islands (a collection of islands including Jersey, Guernsey, Alderney, and Sark).
Economic Importance:
It is one of the world’s busiest shipping areas, linking southern England, to northern France.
It accounts for up to 20% of the global maritime trade and connects the Atlantic Ocean to the North Sea.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/uk/5-migrants-die-crossing-english-channel-hours-after-uk-approves-bill-to-deport-asylum-seekers-to-rwanda/articleshow/109546178.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Marburg Virus Disease (MVD):
- It is a rare and severe hemorrhagic fever, with an average case fatality rate of around 50%.
- It affects both people and non-human primates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Experts worry that the world’s deadliest cave, Kitum, located in Mount Elgon National Park in Kenya, may be home to the next pandemic, the Marburg virus, with the WHO flagging Marburg as “epidemic-prone”.
About Marburg Virus Disease (MVD):
It is a rare but severe hemorrhagic fever which affects both people and non-human primates.
MVD is caused by the Marburg virus, a genetically unique zoonotic (or, animal-borne) RNA virus of the filovirus family.
It is in the same family as the virus that causes the Ebola virus disease.
It was initially detected in 1967 after simultaneous outbreaks in Marburg and Frankfurt in Germany; and in Belgrade, Serbia.
Transmission:
Human infection with MVD initially results from prolonged exposure to mines or caves inhabited by Rousettus bats.
Once an individual is infected with the virus, Marburg can spread through human-to-human transmission via direct contact (through broken skin or mucous membranes) with the blood, secretions, organs, or other bodily fluids of infected people, and with surfaces and materials (e.g., bedding, clothing) contaminated with these fluids.
Symptoms:
After an incubation period of 2-21 days, symptom onset is sudden and marked by fever, chills, headache, and myalgia.
Around the fifth day after the onset of symptoms, a maculopapular rash, most prominent on the trunk (chest, back, stomach), may occur.
Nausea, vomiting, chest pain, a sore throat, abdominal pain, and diarrhoea may appear.
Symptoms become increasingly severe and can include jaundice, inflammation of the pancreas, severe weight loss, delirium, shock, liver failure, massive hemorrhaging, and multi-organ dysfunction.
The average MVD case fatality rate is around 50%. Case fatality rates have varied from 24% to 88% in past outbreaks, depending on the virus strain and case management.
Treatment:
There is no specific treatment for MVD.
Early supportive care with rehydration, and symptomatic treatment improves survival.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.news18.com/viral/is-this-deadly-cave-in-kenya-a-home-to-the-next-epidemic-8863286.html
In context of finance, the ‘TINA factor’ refers to:
a situation where investors perceive a particular asset class as the best option due to unattractive alternatives
Explanation :
The recent surge in gold prices is due to the TINA (there is no alternative) factor in China, with retail shoppers, investors, futures traders, and central bank, all turning to the bullion in uncertain times.
About TINA Factor:
TINA stands for There Is No Alternative.
It refers to a situation where investors perceive a particular asset class or investment as the best option available given the prevailing market conditions.
This perception arises when other investment options are deemed unattractive due to factors such as low returns, high volatility, or economic uncertainty.
Essentially, people fearful of possible uncertainties in the future consider investing in the safest investment instrument.
People feel that there is simply no other alternative.
The TINA effect can explain a price bubble. That is, prices rise to unrealistic heights due to a lack of reasonable alternatives.
TINA has historically been a response to certain economic conditions where investments typically seen as safe have become less favorable.
This might include bonds or real estate, which might offer lower returns due to low interest rates or an inflated real estate market.
In these scenarios, TINA takes hold, with investors feeling as if their options have shrunk substantially.
In periods when stock prices soar and bond returns languish, TINA has been used to justify investing in anything other than stocks or bonds, such as gold, cryptocurrencies, and Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs).
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://www.businesstoday.in/personal-finance/news/story/the-tina-factor-in-indias-neighbourhood-thats-driving-golds-record-rally-426304-2024-04-21
Which among the following best describes ‘Crystal Maze 2’, recently seen in the news?
An air-launched ballistic missile.
Explanation :
The Indian Air Force (IAF) has successfully carried out a test firing of the Crystal Maze 2 missile.
About Crystal Maze 2:
Crystal Maze 2, also referred to as ROCKS, is an air-launched medium-range ballistic missile.
It is of Israeli origin.
It is designed to target high-value stationary and relocatable assets, such as long-range radars and air defense systems, of potential adversaries.
Features:
Distinguished from its predecessor, Crystal Maze 1, which has been inducted into the IAF from Israel previously, the Crystal Maze 2 boasts extended stand-off range capabilities as an air-to-surface missile.
It is capable of hitting targets over 250 kilometers away.
With options for either a penetration or blast fragmentation warhead, the missile is capable of destroying above-ground or well-protected underground targets.
It is specifically effective in GPS-denied environments.
The deployment strategy of the ROCKS involves releasing the missile well outside the surface-to-air-defended area, followed by a high-velocity trajectory to minimize the risk to aircraft and missiles.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/crystal-maze-2-iaf-tests-new-250-km-strike-range-air-launched-ballistic-missile-2530847-2024-04-23
With reference to the Voyager 1 Spacecraft, consider the following statements:
- It is a space probe launched by NASA to study the outer Solar System and beyond.
- It is the only human-made object to enter interstellar space.
- It is currently the most distant human-made object from Earth.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
NASA’s Voyager 1 probe is returning usable information to ground control following months of spouting gibberish, the US space agency announced recently.
About Voyager 1 Spacecraft:
It is a space probe launched by NASA in 1977, about two weeks after its twin Voyager 2.
Objective: To study the outer Solar System and beyond.
Voyager 1’s mission has included flybys of Jupiter and Saturn, with the goal of studying their moons, rings, and magnetic fields.
It is currently the most distant human-made object from Earth.
It was the first spacecraft to cross the heliosphere, the boundary where the influences outside our solar system are stronger than those from our Sun.
It crossed into interstellar space in 2012, making it the first human-made object to venture out of the solar system.
It discovered a thin ring around Jupiter and two new Jovian moons: Thebe and Metis.
At Saturn, Voyager 1 found five new moons and a new ring called the G-ring.
Voyager 1 carries a golden record that contains sounds and images selected to portray the diversity of life and culture on Earth, in the event that it is ever encountered by extraterrestrial life.
According to NASA, Voyager 1 has enough fuel to keep its instruments running until at least 2025. By then, the spacecraft will be approximately 13.8 billion miles (22.1 billion kilometers) away from the sun.
Key Facts about Voyager 2 Spacecraft:
It is a space probe launched by NASA on August 20, 1977.
It is part of the Voyager program, which alsoincludes Voyager 1.
Primary mission: To study the outer planets of our solar system and their moons, and then continue on an interstellar mission.
It is the second spacecraft to enter interstellar space.
It also carries a golden record similar to Voyager 1.
Firsts:
It is the only spacecraft to study all four of the solar system’s giant planets at close range.
It discovered a 14th moon at Jupiter.
It was the first human-made object to fly past Uranus.
At Uranus, Voyager 2 discovered 10 new moons and two new rings.
It was the first human-made object to fly by Neptune.
At Neptune, Voyager 2 discovered five moons, four rings, and a “Great Dark Spot.”
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/nasas-voyager-1-sends-info-to-earth-after-months-from-15-billion-miles-away-5504837
Consider the following statements with reference to the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research:
- It is responsible for India’s research activities in the Polar and Southern Ocean realms.
- It works under the Ministry of Science & Technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers from National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research, in collaboration with the British Antarctic Survey, United Kingdom, reported the conditions that led to unprecedented hindrance in Antarctic ice expansion and ice retreat ahead of the annual ice maximum in 2023.
It is an autonomous research institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) established in 1998.
It is India’s premier R&D institution responsible for the country’s research activities in the Polar and Southern Ocean realms.
It is tasked with planning and executing polar expeditions and scientific research in Antarctica, Arctic, Himalayas and Southern Ocean.
It is the nodal agency for planning, promoting, coordinating, and executing the entire gamut of polar and southern ocean scientific research in the country and the associated logistics activities.
It also undertakes research on some of the country’s strategically vital projects like mapping of Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), continental shelf margins and the Deep Ocean Mission.
The Center maintains a Research Advisory Committee (RAC) to help guide and concentrate the research activities.
It is located in Vasco da Gama, Goa, and was formerly known as the National Center for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2018613
Consider the following statements with reference to the Golden Trevally Fish:
- It is a reef-associated fish and lives in the company of larger fishes.
- It is found only in the Eastern coastal region of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers of the ICAR-Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI) have succeeded in captive breeding of golden trevally (Gnathanodon speciosus).
It is a high value marine fish also known as golden king fish.
It is an ideal candidate species for mariculture due to its faster growth rates, good meat quality and huge market demand for both consumption and ornamental purposes.
It is a reef-associated fish and lives in the company of larger fishes like skates, sharks, groupers etc.
In India, the fish landing observations show that the golden trevally are landed predominantly at reef area fishing grounds in Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, Kerala, Karnataka and Gujarat.
Key facts about Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute
It was established by Government of India in 1947 under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
It joined the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) in 1967.
Mandate:
To monitor the exploited and assess the under-exploited marine fisheries resources of the Exclusive Economic Zone.
To understand the fluctuations in abundance of marine fisheries resources in relation to change in the environment.
To develop suitable mariculture technologies for finfish, shellfish and other culturable organisms in open seas to supplement capture fishery production.
One of the major achievements of CMFRI is the development and refinement of a unique method for estimation of fishery catch and effort from the over 8000 km coastline called the “Stratified Multistage Random Sampling Method”.
Headquarters: Kochi, Kerala
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/cmfri-develops-seed-production-technology-for-high-value-marine-fish-golden-trevally/article68093807.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the National Career Service:
- It is one of the mission-mode projects under the umbrella of the E-Governance Plan.
- It aims to bridge the gap between job-seekers and employers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Centre plans to upgrade the nine-year-old National Career Service (NCS) portal to link millions of youths with prospective employers in a bid to prepare a future-ready workforce.
The Portal provides online career counselling and vocational guidance services to its registered users.
This service aims to equip the jobseeker with necessary information that is required to make right career choices based on his/her qualification, skill set and interest.
It provides a nation-wide online platform for the job seekers and employers for job-matching in a dynamic, efficient and responsive manner and has a repository of career content to job seekers.
What is National Career Service?
It is one of the mission-mode projects under the umbrella of the E-Governance Plan.
It was launched in the year 2015.
Objectives: It works towards bridging the gap between job-seekers and employers, candidates seeking training and career guidance and agencies providing training and career counselling by transforming the National Employment Service.
It provides a host of career-related services such as dynamic job matching, career counselling, job notifications, vocational guidance, and information on skill development courses, internships and alike.
Focus areas:
Enhancing Career and employment opportunities
Counselling and guidance for career development
Focusing on decent employment
Enhancing female labour force participation
Encouraging entrepreneurial endeavours
Nodal Agency: The project is being implemented by the Directorate General of Employment, Ministry of Labour & Employment.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/economy/news/upgraded-national-career-service-portal-to-give-job-market-a-fillip-124042201082_1.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Pink Hydrogen:
- It is generated through electrolysis by using nuclear energy.
- It can be used as replacement for fossil fuels in cement industry and heavy transportation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Nuclear energy can be used to to spur ‘pink’ hydrogen generation in India by amending the respected law.
Pink hydrogen is generated through electrolysis powered by nuclear energy.
It can also be referred to as purple hydrogen or red hydrogen.
In addition, the very high temperatures from nuclear reactors could be used in other hydrogen productions by producing steam for more efficient electrolysis or fossil gas-based steam methane reforming.
Nuclear power offers significant advantages for pink hydrogen production, including reducing production costs and emissions, making it a sustainable and more cost-effective alternative to conventional methods.
Applications: Pink hydrogen is a promising replacement for fossil fuels in the cement industry, steel industry, aviation, and heavy transportation, as it can be used as a feedstock and energy source with no greenhouse gas emissions.
What is Electrolysis?
It is a promising option for carbon-free hydrogen production from renewable and nuclear resources.
Electrolysis is the process of using electricity to split water into hydrogen and oxygen. This reaction takes place in a unit called an electrolyzer.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/business-laws/amending-nuclear-law-to-spur-pink-hydrogen-generation/article68090608.ece
State of the Climate in Asia Report, recently seen in news, is published by:
World Meteorological Organisation (WMO)
Explanation :
Recently, the World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) published the State of the Climate in Asia, 2023, report.
It was launched by the World Meteorological Organisation.
Highlights of the report:
More than nine million people across Asia were affected by 79 extreme climate disasters reported on the continent in 2023.
Asia and the Pacific was the most disaster-impacted region last year.
Atmospheric concentration of the three major greenhouse gases – carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide – reached record highs in 2022, the latest year for which global data is available.
Oceans have absorbed around 25% of annual man-made carbon dioxide emitted into the atmosphere between 1960 and 2021. The trend continues, and ocean heat content in 2023 was the highest on record.
The tropical cyclone activity over the North Indian Ocean was slightly above average.
Asia recorded its second-highest mean temperature on record in 2023. Japan and Kazakhstan observed record warm years.
Glaciers continued to retreat at an accelerating rate in 2023. High temperatures and dry conditions in East Himalayas and Central Asia’s Tian Shan mountains accelerated glacial mass loss.
Key facts about the WMO
It is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN).
It is the UN system’s authoritative voice on the state and behavior of the Earth’s atmosphere, its interaction with the oceans and the resulting distribution of water resources.
It originated from the International Meteorological Organization (IMO), which was founded in 1873.
Established in 1950, WMO became the specialized agency of the UN for meteorology (weather and climate), operational hydrology and related geophysical sciences.
Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland.
Member countries: Currently it has a membership of 187 countries.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/wmo-report-climate-crisis-asia-9286724/
In which one of the following States is the Kalesar Wildlife Sanctuary located?
Haryana
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently stayed the construction of four proposed dams inside Kalesar Wildlife Sanctuary.
About Kalesar Wildlife Sanctuary:
Location:
It is located in the eastern part of Yamunanagar district in Haryana.
It is situated in the Shivalik foothills of the Himalayas.
The Yamuna River runs to the east.
The sanctuary derives its name from the Kalesar Forest, which is a part of the reserve.
Topography:
It varies from plains to hills up to an elevation of 700 m, interspersed with narrow valleys locally called ‘khols’ between the hills.
These valleys house seasonal rivulets locally called ‘soats’ which remain dry for most of the year.
The sanctuary houses the Kalesar Fort, which is believed to have been built during the reign of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb.
It is also famous for its Dak bungalows, the administrative architectural bungalows built in colonial times.
Flora: Mainly, the forest has trees like sal, khair, shisam, tun, sain, and amla.
Fauna:
It is home to many species of animals, including leopards, sambar deer, barking deer, hyenas, jackals, Indian porcupines, Indian pangolins, and langurs.
The sanctuary is also home to several species of birds, such as the red junglefowl, grey partridge, Indian peafowl, and white-throated kingfisher.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.theweek.in/wire-updates/national/2024/04/24/lgd17-sc-kalesar-sanctuary.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Atacama Desert:
- It is the driest desert in the world, located in northern Peru.
- It is situated between the Andes Mountains on the east and the Pacific Ocean on the west.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Researchers recently found microbes thriving 13 feet beneath the scorched surface of Chile’s Atacama Desert, marking the deepest discovery of microbial life in the region to date.
About Atacama Desert:
It is located in northern Chile, nestled between the Andes Mountains on the east and the Pacific Ocean on the west.
It is the driest desert in the world.
It forms a continuous strip for nearly 1,000 km along the narrow coast of the northern third of Chile.
Argentina, Peru, and Bolivia border the Atacama Desert.
It shows a unique combination of environmental extremes (extreme dryness, the highest UV radiation levels on Earth, and highly saline and oxidizing soils).
Previously part of the Pacific Ocean seabed, the Atacama Desert landscape consists of caked salt deposits called playas, which stretch for miles and can be up to 1.6 feet thick in some places.
It also hosts 12 volcanoes, mainly located in the western outliers of the Andes.
Climate:
Average rainfall in this region is about 1 mm per year. Some locations within the desert have never had any rainfall whatsoever.
This is due to its location between the Andes, which blocks the humid air from the Amazons, and the Coastal Mountain range.
To the west, the upwelling of cold water from deep in the Pacific Ocean promotes atmospheric conditions that hamper the evaporation of seawater and prevent the formation of clouds and rain.
Temperatures are comparatively mild throughout the year. The average temperature in the desert is about 63 degrees F (18 degrees C).
This region has the largest natural supply of Sodium Nitrate, which can be used for producing fertilizers and explosives, amongst other things.
Soil samples from this region are very similar to samples from Mars; for this reason, NASA uses this desert for testing instruments for missions to the red planet.
Chinchorro Mummies: The oldest artificially mummified human remains have been found in the Atacama Desert.
It is one of the few locations on the globe with 300+ days of clear skies in a year, along with nolight pollution.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.livescience.com/planet-earth/microbiology/hidden-biosphere-of-extreme-microbes-discovered-13-feet-below-atacama-desert-is-deepest-found-there-to-date
Consider the following statements with reference to the Ross Ice Shelf:
- It is the largest ice shelf in the Northern Hemisphere.
- The majority of the ice shelf is hidden in several hundred metres of ice below the surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Researchers have uncovered a surprising phenomenon in Antarctica: the massive Ross Ice Shelf, roughly the size of France, lurches forward several centimetres once or twice a day.
About Ross Ice Shelf:
Location: It is the largest ice shelf of Antarctica.
It is situated in the Ross Sea, extending off the continent’s coast into the ocean.
It is the world’s largest floating body of ice, covering approximately 487,000 square kilometres, about the size of France.
Only ten percent of the ice shelf is visible, with the majority hidden in several hundred metres of ice below the surface.
Thickness: Its thickness varies significantly, ranging from about 100 meters to several hundred meters. The thickest parts are generally found where the shelf anchors against the continent.
Formation:
It is formed by the accumulation and compaction of snow, which, over time, turns into ice.
It is being fed a constant flow of ice from glaciers draining from both the East and West Antarctic Ice Sheets.
As new ice is added, existing ice is being removed through melting at the base and ice calving at the front.
It plays an important role in stabilising the Antarctic ice sheet, buttressing the ice that is constantly moving over the land surface.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.ndtv.com/science/ross-ice-shelf-antarcticas-france-sized-ice-shelf-makes-daily-jumps-raising-icequake-concerns-5478464
Consider the following statements with reference to the Global Report on Food Crises (GRFC) 2024:
- It identifies conflicts, extreme weather events and economic shocks as the main factors behind the worsening of food crises in the world.
- Sub-Saharan Africa was the area with the most severe food crisis in the last eight years of GRFC reporting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Nearly 282 million people faced high levels of acute food insecurity in 59 countries in 2023, according to the 2024 Global Report on Food Crisis (GRFC), released recently.
About Global Report on Food Crises (GRFC) 2024:
GRFC is produced annually by the Food Security Information Network (FSIN) and launched by the Global Network Against Food Crises, a multistakeholder initiative that includes United Nations agencies, the European Union, the United States Agency for International Development, and non-governmental agencies working to tackle food crises.
Highlights of GRFC 2024:
The report analyzed a population of 1.3 billion in 2023 across 59 countries.
2023 was the fifth consecutive year of rises in the number of people suffering acute food insecurity, defined as when populations face food deprivation that threatens lives or livelihoods, regardless of the causes or length of time.
Nearly 282 million people faced high levels of acute food insecurity in 59 countries in 2023.
The report identifies conflicts, extreme weather events, and economic shocks as the three main drivers behind the exacerbation of food crises in the world.
With food crisis escalating alarmingly in conflict hotspots in 2023, notably Palestine (Gaza Strip) and Sudan, conflict / insecurity became the primary driver in 20 countries, directly affecting 135 million people.
The Gaza Strip became the area with the most severe food crisis in the last eight years of GRFC reporting.
Sudan is facing one of the worst food crises in the world, with almost a third of the population in need of emergency food aid.
Meanwhile, weather extremes were the main driver for 18 countries, with over 72 million people facing high levels of acute food insecurity because of such extreme weather events.
The 10 countries with the world’s largest food crisis in 2023 were the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Nigeria, Sudan,Afghanistan, Ethiopia, Yemen, the Syrian Arab Republic, Bangladesh, Pakistan, and Myanmar.
On a positive note, the situation improved in 17 countries in 2023, including the Democratic Republic of Congo and Ukraine.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/food/global-food-crisis-1-in-5-people-in-need-of-urgent-action-95773#:~:text=GRFC%20is%20produced%20annually%20by,agencies%20working%20to%20tackle%20food
Which one of the following is the primary objective of the Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee (INC) on Plastic Pollution?
To develop an International Legally Binding Instrument (ILBI) on plastic pollution.
Explanation :
The fourth session of the Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee to develop an international legally binding instrument on plastic pollution, including in the marine environment (INC-4), opened in Canada’s capital, Ottawa.
About Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee on Plastic Pollution:
In 2022, at the fifth session of the UN Environment Assembly, a historic resolution was adopted to develop an International Legally Binding Instrument (ILBI) on plastic pollution, including in the marine environment.
The resolution requested the Executive Director of the UN Environment Programme (UNEP) to convene an Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee (INC) to develop “the instrument,” which is to be based on a comprehensive approach that addresses the full life cycle of plastic, including its production, design, and disposal.
The objective of the global plastics treaty is to set a global framework of standards around accountability, responsibilities, financing, material/chemical standards, import/export restrictions, targets.
From this global framework, countries will be tasked with implementing globally aligned policies that meet the targets set.
An INC has been established, which will meet five times to develop the specific content of the new ILBI by the end of 2024.
The INC began its work during the second half of 2022, with the ambition to complete the negotiations by the end of 2024.
The first session of the INC (INC-1) took place in Punta del Este, Uruguay, in 2022, followed by a second session (INC-2) in May-June 2023 in Paris, France, and a third session (INC-3) November 2023 in Nairobi, Kenya.
INC-5, scheduled for November-December 2024 in Busan, Republic of Korea, is intended as the end of the INC process.
It will be followed by a Diplomatic Conference where Heads of State will sign the agreement.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.unep.org/news-and-stories/press-release/pivotal-fourth-session-negotiations-global-plastics-treaty-opens
Consider the following statements with reference to the Khanij Bidesh India Limited:
- It is a Joint Venture Company formed by National Aluminium Company Ltd, Hindustan Copper Ltd and Mineral Exploration Company Ltd.
- It carries out identification, mining and processing of strategic minerals overseas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Khanij Bidesh India Limited (KABIL) signed a Memorandum of Understanding with the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research - National Geophysical Research Institute to foster a long-term collaboration in the field of geophysical investigations to bolster its ongoing projects and activities in critical and strategic minerals.
It is a Joint Venture Company formed with the participation of National Aluminium Company Ltd.(NALCO), Hindustan Copper Ltd.(HCL) and Mineral Exploration Company Ltd. (MECL) in 2019.
Mandate: Target of this company is to identify, acquire, develop, process and make commercial use of strategic minerals in overseas locations for supply in India.
It is focusing on identifying and sourcing battery minerals like Lithium and Cobalt.
The equity participation between NALCO, HCL and MECL is in the ratio of 40:30:30.
Functions
It helps in building partnerships with other mineral rich countries like Australia and those in Africa and South America, where Indian expertise in exploration and mineral processing will be mutually beneficial bringing about new economic opportunities.
The KABIL would carry out identification, acquisition, exploration, development, mining and processing of strategic minerals overseas for commercial use and meeting country’s requirement of these minerals.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Mines
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2018782
Consider the following statements with reference to the Spices Board of India:
- It is responsible for the improvement in production and quality of cardamom.
- It works under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
With certain spices of Indian brands facing ban in Singapore and Hong Kong due to quality concerns, the Spices Board said it will start mandatory testing of such consignments destined to these two countries.
It is the statutory organization constituted in 1987 under the Spices Board Act 1986.
It was formed with the merger of the erstwhile Cardamom Board and Spices Export Promotion Council.
The Board functions an international link between the Indian exporters and the importers abroad and it has been involved in various activities which touch upon every segment of the spices sector.
Main functions
The Spices Board is responsible for the overall development of cardamom (small and large) in terms of improving production, productivity and quality.
The Board is also implementing post-harvest improvement programmes for improving quality of the 52 scheduled spices for export.
The various development programmes and post-harvest quality improvement programmes of the Board are included under the head ‘Export Oriented Production’.
Promotion of organic production, processing and certification of spices
Development of spices in the North East
Provision of quality evaluation services
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Government of India.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/commodities/ban-on-mdh-everest-products-spices-board-mandatory-testing-singapore-hong-kong-9289113/
Consider the following statements with reference to Article 244(A) of the Constitution of India:
- It allows for the creation of an ‘autonomous state’ within Assam.
- It was added by the Seventy-third Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
In Assam’s tribal-majority Diphu Lok Sabha constituency, which votes in coming days ,candidates of all parties have promised the implementation of Article 244(A) of the Constitution to create an autonomous ‘state within a state’.
It allows for creation of an ‘autonomous state’ within Assam in certain tribal areas.
This region could include certain tribal areas like Karbi Anglong.
It was inserted by The Constitution (Twenty-second Amendment) Act, 1969.
This autonomous state would have its own Legislature or Council of Ministers or both.
It accounts for more autonomous powers to tribal areas, among these the most important power is the control over law and order.
In Autonomous Councils under the Sixth Schedule, they do not have jurisdiction of law and order.
History
In the 1950s, a demand for a separate hill state arose around certain sections of the tribal population of undivided Assam.
After prolonged agitations, Meghalaya gained statehood in 1972.
In the 1980s, this demand took the form of a movement with a number of Karbi groups resorting to violence. It soon became an armed separatist insurgency demanding full statehood.
The leaders of the Karbi Anglong and North Cachar Hills were also part of this movement. They were given the option to stay in Assam or join Meghalaya.
They stayed back as the then central government promised more powers, including Article 244 (A).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/article-244a-diphu-assam-9288844/
Consider the following:
- International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
- World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF)
- United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
- TRAFFIC
How many of the above are part of Tiger Conservation Coalition?
All four
Explanation :
Recently, at the Sustainable Finance for Tiger Landscapes Conference, Bhutan and the Tiger Conservation Coalition Commit to Catalysing US$1 billion for tigers.
It is a group of NGOs that has worked for many years with partners to conserve tigers.
Its vision is for a long-term presence of viable and ecologically functional populations of wild tigers secure in protected habitats, with representation and links across their indigenous range.
It brings together leading tiger biologists and experts in wildlife crime, human-wildlife coexistence, policy, finance, development, and communications with unprecedented alignment on achieving tiger conservation at scale.
The eight Non-governmental Organisations (NGOs) includes the Environmental Investigation Agency (EIA), Fauna & Flora, the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN), Panthera, TRAFFIC, United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), Wildlife Conservation Society (WCS) and World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF).
The members co-developed Tiger Conservation Landscapes 3.0, an integrated habitat modelling system to measure and monitor changes in tiger habitat at range-wide, national, biome, and landscape scales in near real-time.
This work serves as a model for objective, range-wide, habitat monitoring as countries work to achieve the goals laid out in the 30x30 agenda, the Sustainable Development Goals, and the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.iucn.org/news/202404/bhutan-and-tiger-conservation-coalition-commit-catalysing-us1-billion-tigers
Consider the following statements with reference to the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure:
- It is a multi-stakeholder global partnership launched during the Rio Earth Summit in 1992.
- The World Bank Group is a member of this organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India addressed the 6th edition of International Conference on Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (ICDRI) which is the annual conference of Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI).
It is a multi-stakeholder global partnership of national governments, UN agencies and programmes, multilateral development banks and financing mechanisms, the private sector, and academic and knowledge institutions.
It addresses the challenges of building resilience into infrastructure systems and development associated with it.
It was launched during the United Nations Climate Action Summit in 2019, at New York.
Objective
It aims to promote the resilience of infrastructure systems to climate and disaster risks, thereby ensuring sustainable development.
It seeks to rapidly expand the development and retrofit of resilient infrastructure to respond to the Sustainable Development Goals imperatives of expanding universal access to basic services, enabling prosperity and decent work.
It functions as inclusive multi-stakeholder platform led and managed by national governments, where knowledge is generated and exchanged on different aspects of disaster resilience of infrastructure.
It brings together a multitude of stakeholders to create a mechanism to assist countries to upgrade their capacities, systems, standards, regulations and practices with regard to infrastructure development in accordance with their risk context and economic needs.
Members: Since its launch, 39 Countries, 7 International Organizations and 2 private sector organizations have joined as members of CDRI.
International Organisations are: Asian Development Bank (ADB), World Bank Group, United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR), European Union, European Investment Bank, The Private Sector alliance for Disaster Resilient Societies (ARISE).
Secretariat: New Delhi, India
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2018670
With reference to the Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS), consider the following statements:
- It is a unit of the Earth System Science Organization (ESSO).
- It provides round-the-clock warning services for the coastal population on storm surges through the Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre (ITEWC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Due to its vast economic benefits, it is essential to accurately forecast specific oceanographic parameters, says a recent study by the Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS).
About Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS):
It was established as an autonomous body in 1999 under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) and is a unit of the Earth System Science Organization (ESSO).
Mandate: To provide the best possible ocean information and advisory services to society, industry, government agencies, and the scientific community through sustained ocean observations and constant improvements through systematic and focussed research.
Activities:
Provides round-the-clock monitoring and warning services for the coastal population on tsunamis, storm surges, high waves, etc. through the in-house Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre (ITEWC).
The Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC) of UNESCO designated ITEWC as a Regional Tsunami Service Provider (RTSP) to provide tsunami warnings to countries on the Indian Ocean Rim.
Provides daily advisories to fisher folk to help them easily locate areas of abundant fish in the ocean while saving on both fuel and time used to search for the same.
Short-term (3-7 days) Ocean State Forecasts (waves, currents, sea surface temperature, etc.) are issued daily to fisher folk, the shipping industry, the oil and natural gas industry, the Navy, the Coast Guard, etc.
Deploys and maintains a suite of Ocean Observing Systems in the Indian Ocean to collect data on various oceanic parameters.
Conducts systematic quality checks and archives all observational, satellite, and other oceanic data at the ESSO-INCOIS Data Centre, and then makes such data available to students, researchers, and any other users.
INCOIS has been designated as the National Oceanographic Data Centre by the International Oceanographic Data Exchange Programme (IODE) of the IOC.
Generates Global Ocean Analysis data using mathematical models and observations on a daily basis to provide the initial conditions to ocean-atmosphere coupled models used for the prediction of the monsoon and to understand oceanic processes.
Established a national network (Indian Seismic and GNSS Network (ISGN)) that integrates Seismic and GNSS stations and provides high quality data for research and operational use.
It serves as the National Argo Data Centre, Regional Argo Data Centre, and also the regional data centre andclearing house for the Indian Ocean region for the Indian Ocean Global Ocean Observing System (IOGOOS) Programme.
International Involvement:
It is a permanent member of the Indian delegation to the IOC and a founding member of the IOGOOS and the Partnership for Observing the Oceans (POGO), which is actively engaged in capacity building and international exchange of students and researchers.
ESSO-INCOIS houses the IOGOOS secretariat and the Sustained Indian Ocean Biogeochemistry and Ecosystem Research (SIBER) International Programme Office.
Through the Regional Integrated Multi-Hazard Early Warning System for Africa and Asia (RIMES), ESSO-INCOIS provides ocean information and forecasts to member countries.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/incois-scientists-map-indian-ocean-floor-to-study-currents/article68102778.ece
Which one of the following is the primary characteristic of Nephrotic Syndrome?
Excessive protein in the urine
Explanation :
Researchers from Kerala have reported a series of cases where the regular use of fairness creams has been linked to nephrotic syndrome.
About Nephrotic Syndrome:
It is a kidney disorder that causes your body to pass too much protein in your urine.
It usually results from a problem with your kidneys’ filters (glomeruli).
The kidneys remove waste and excess fluid from your blood through filteringunits called nephrons.
Each nephron contains a filter (glomerulus), which removes waste and excess fluids from your blood and send them to your bladder as urine.
Common waste products include nitrogen waste (urea), muscle waste (creatinine), and acids.
In healthy kidneys, the glomeruli filter out waste products.
They allow your blood to retain the cells and proteins your body needs to function regularly.
Nephrotic syndrome usually happens when the glomeruli are inflamed, allowing too much protein to leak from your blood into your urine.
Causes:
It is not a specific kidney disease.
It can occur in any kidney disease that damages the filtering units in a certain way that allows them to leak protein into the urine.
Some of the diseases that cause nephrotic syndrome, such as nephritis, affect only the kidney.
Other diseases that cause nephrotic syndrome, such as diabetes and lupus, affect other parts of the body as well.
Symptoms: Signs and symptoms of nephrotic syndrome include:
Severe swelling (edema), particularly around your eyes and in your ankles and feet
Foamy urine, a result of excess protein in your urine
High fat and cholesterol levels in the blood. The medical term for it is “hyperlipidemia.”
Weight gain due to fluid retention
Fatigue
Loss of appetite
Nephrotic syndrome can lead to serious complications, including
blood clots that can lead to thrombosis
higher risk of infection caused by the loss of immunoglobulins, proteins in your blood that help fight viruses and bacteria
high blood pressure, also called hypertension
brief or long-lasting kidney problems, including chronic kidney disease and kidney failure
Treatment: It includes addressing the underlying cause and taking steps to reduce high blood pressure, high cholesterol, swelling and infection risks. Treatment usually includes medications and changes to your diet.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/in-search-of-skin-lightening-creams-kidneys-take-a-hit/article68101560.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Payment Aggregator (PA):
- It is a third-party service provider that allows merchants to accept payments from customers by integrating it into their websites.
- It allows merchants to accept bank transfers without setting up a bank-based merchant account.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has floated two consultation papers seeking enhanced regulation of payment aggregators carrying out face-to-face transactions.
About Payment Aggregator (PA):
A PA (also known as a merchant aggregator) is a third-party service provider that allows merchants to accept payments from customers by integrating it into their websites or apps.
PAs enable their clients to accept various payment methods such as debit cards, credit cards, cardless EMIs, UPI, bank transfers, e-wallets and e-mandates.
PA provides a stack of multiple payment methods to merchants so that their customers can pay using their preferred mode of payment.
Also, a payment aggregator does fund settlement, i.e., it moves the money from banks and other issuing entities to the merchants.
Similarly, they also enable disbursing payments to various stakeholders, such as partners, employees, suppliers and authorities.
It allows merchants to accept bank transfers without setting up a bank-based merchant account. It means a merchant need not have a merchant account directly with the bank.
A PA in India is incorporated under the Companies Act 2013.
A PA can be a bank or a non-bank entity.
Since a PA handles funds, it requires a license from the RBI.
Only non-bank PAs require unique authorization from RBI as ‘handling funds’ is considered a part of the normal banking relationships for bank PAs.
Examples: Amazon (Pay) India, Google India, Razorpay, Pine Labs, etc.
What is a Payment Gateway?
It is a software service that connects your bank account to the platform where you need to transfer your money.
It authorizes you to conduct an online transaction through different payment modes like net banking, credit card, debit card, UPI, or other online wallets.
A Payment gateway plays the role of a third party that securely transfers your money from the bank account to the merchant’s payment portal.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/rbis-latest-recommendations-to-regulate-payment-aggregators-in-offline-spaces-explained/article68097451.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the National Institute for the Empowerment of Persons with Intellectual Disabilities (NIEPID):
- It is an autonomous body under the administrative control of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
- It is headquartered in New Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Union government is expected to roll out a new test designed by the National Institute for the Empowerment of Persons with Intellectual Disabilities (NIEPID) to diagnose specific learning disabilities (SLDs) in adults in India.
About National Institute for the Empowerment of Persons with Intellectual Disabilities (NIEPID):
NIEPID (formerly the National Institute for the Mentally Handicapped), established in1984, is an autonomous body under the administrative control of the Deparment of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (Divyangjan), Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment.
It is dedicated to provide quality services to Persons with Intellectual Disabilities (Divyangjan) in the national interest.
It is the apex body functioning for training, research, and surveys in the field of intellectual disability in the country.
The institute is headquartered in Secunderabad, Telangana and has regional centres in Kolkata, Navi Mumbai, and Noida.
It empowers persons with intellectual disabilities (Divyangjan) to access state-of-the-art rehabilitation interventions viz., educational, therapeutic, vocational, employment, leisure and social activities, sports, cultural programmes, and full participation.
Objectives
Human Resources Development
Research and Development
Development of models of care and rehabilitation.
Documentation and dissemination.
Consultancy services to voluntary organizations
Community Based Rehabilitation
Extension and Outreach programmes
To achieve optimum results, the institute has developed and introduced innovative structured training courses like Early Intervention, Rehabilitation Psychology, Special Education, and Disability Rehabilitation at the Masters level.
The Institute conducts international and national-level Conference/Seminars/Workshops on Persons with Intellectual Disabilities (Divyangjan) in partnership with leading voluntary organizations and parent associations.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Delhi/government-to-roll-out-new-test-to-diagnose-special-learning-disabilities-in-adults/article68102803.ece
Which one of the following is the primary objective of NASA’s Advanced Composite Solar Sail System (ACS3) mission?
To develop technologies for future small spacecraft
Explanation :
NASA successfully launched its Advanced Composite Solar Sail System spacecraft from New Zealand recently.
About Advanced Composite Solar Sail System (ACS3):
It is a NASA technology demonstration mission designed to characterize solar sail structures technologies for future small spacecraft to engage in deep space missions requiring long-duration, low-thrust propulsion.
Launched in 2024, ACS3 will deploy a sail about the size of a small apartment from a toaster oven-size spacecraft.
At its core, ACS3 is a CubeSat, a small satellite built to standardized dimensions. It features four 7 m long deployable composite booms.
Just as a sailboat is powered by wind in a sail, solar sails employ the pressure of sunlight for propulsion, eliminating the need for conventional rocket propellant.
Space missions have demonstrated that small spacecraft can use solar sails to change their orbits, expanding their possible uses.
Future solar sail missions will need bigger sails and lighter materials to maximize their performance.
ACS3 uses lightweight carbon fiber sail booms instead of traditional metal booms.
This will be the first test of this technology in space.
What is solar sailing?
Light is made up of particles called photons. Photons don’t have mass, but they have momentum.
As sunlight reflects off a shiny solar sail, some of its momentum gets transferred, giving the sail a small push.
This push is slight but continuous and, over time, can impart more thrust to a spacecraft than traditional chemical rockets.
Solar sails can reach unique destinations that are difficult or impossible to access with other propulsion systems.
They may also be our best option for interstellar travel.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.news18.com/viral/nasas-advanced-composite-solar-sail-system-launched-into-space-to-redefine-propulsion-8865615.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Histamine receptor:
- It is a carbohydrate mainly found in human body.
- It is found in the inner surface of blood and lymphatic vessels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Antihistamines are common drugs that can be purchased without a prescription and are used to treat short-lived allergic reactions, like a sneezing fit or an itch.
An antihistamine drug acts against the activity of the histamine receptor — proteins that bind to a compound in the body called histamine. This compound consists of two attached to each other: ethylamine (CH3CH2NH2) and imidazole (C2N2H4), the latter being a ring.
Depending on its location, histamine performs broadly four types of functions, each involving different histamine receptors called H1, H2, H3, and H4.
The H1 receptor is found mostly in the inner surface of blood and lymphatic vessels, neurons, and smooth muscle cells.
H1 antihistamines are used to block the effects of minor allergies. Certain cells in the gastric glands release histamine, which encourage nearby parietal cells with H2 receptors to release gastric acid for digestion.
H3 receptors are located in cells in the central nervous system, where they use histamine to regulate the release of other neurotransmitters, including dopamine and serotonin.
Similarly, H4 receptors use histamine to regulate the body’s inflammatory response, including allergic reactions as well.
Currently, there is a lot of research ongoing on H3 and H4 receptors, in particular to alleviate the effects of neurological and immunological disorders, respectively, using specialised drugs.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/what-are-antihistamines/article68090729.ece#
Consider the following statements with reference to the Auto-Brewery Syndrome:
- It is a syndrome in which the body turns sugary and starchy food into alcohol.
- It is mostly found in individuals affected with diabetes and Crohn disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A drunk driving case against a 40-year-old man was dismissed after his lawyer explained that he suffers from auto-brewery syndrome.
It is also known as gut fermentation syndrome.
It is a condition in which the body turns sugary and starchy food into alcohol, causing symptoms similar to that of a drunken man.
It is a condition in which ethanol is produced through endogenous fermentation by fungi or bacteria in the gastrointestinal (GI) system, oral cavity, or urinary system.
In other words, while yeasts and fungi feed on sugars and starch and convert them into energy, the process also creates waste in the form of carbon dioxide and ethanol (alcohol).
Symptoms: Its symptoms include being drunk without drinking alcohol or getting very drunk with only a little alcohol. Dizziness, headache, dehydration are a few among several other symptoms of the condition.
People with diabetes, obesity, and Crohn disease are more likely to get ABS. However, it can occur in healthy individuals as well.
Many medical reports suggest that people who suffer from ABS should avoid foods that are high in carbohydrates and sugar.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/trending/what-is-auto-brewery-syndrome-man-acquitted-of-drunk-driving-charges-as-his-body-creates-its-own-alcohol-101713952655365.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the ASEAN Future Forum:
- It aimed at creating a common platform for ASEAN member states as well as partner countries.
- It was proposed by India at the 43rd ASEAN Summit, 2023.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, India’s External Affairs Minister participated in the First ‘ASEAN Future Forum’.
It acts as a platform for ASEAN and its partners to share new ideas and policy recommendations.
It aimed at creating a common platform for ASEAN member states as well as partner countries and ASEAN people to contribute to promoting and shaping the bloc’s development path.
It was proposed by Vietnam at the 43rd ASEAN Summit in 2023.
Theme of the first forum: Toward fast and sustainable growth of a people-centered ASEAN Community.
It took place in Hanoi, Vietnam.
Key facts about ASEAN
It is a group of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations, which was established in 1967 with the signing of the Bangkok declaration.
Founding members: Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand.
Presently ASEAN comprises 10 member states namely Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Brunei, Laos, Myanmar, Cambodia and Vietnam.
It promotes intergovernmental cooperation and facilitates economic, political, security, military, educational, and sociocultural integration between its members and other countries in Asia.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/eam-s-jaishankar-speaks-at-first-asean-future-forum-virtually/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Magnetar:
- It is a type of neutron star which has an ultra-powerful magnetic field.
- It releases vast amounts of energy in the form of X-rays and gamma-ray bursts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Scientists have now detected the most distant-known instance of eruptions, called a giant flare, from a magnetar residing in a galaxy called Messier 82.
It is an exotic type of neutron star with defining feature that it has an ultra-powerful magnetic field.
The field is about 1,000 times stronger than a normal neutron star and about a trillion times stronger than the Earth’s.
Apart from ultra-powerful magnetic fields, magnetars also release vast amounts of energy in the form of flares, X-rays and gamma-ray bursts.
They are therefore associated with extreme events in the universe, making them perhaps the most bizarre objects in the cosmos next to black holes.
The magnetic field of a magnetar may be caused by a neutron star’s interior – thought to be made up of neutrons, quarks and exotic states of matter such as Bose-Einstein Condensates – becoming a superconducting fluid.
Thus, when the star rotates, it would behave like a huge dynamo, generating an immense magnetic field.
What is Messier 82?
It is a galaxy nicknamed as “cigar galaxy” because when viewed edge-on it has an elongated and cigar-like shape. It is 12 million light-years from Earth in the constellation Ursa Major.
The M82 giant flare was the most distant known but not the most energetic.
A giant flare originates from a reconfiguration and a reconnection of the magnetic field of the magnetar.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/huge-energetic-flare-from-magnetic-neutron-star-detected/article68105064.ece
Phi-3-Mini, an AI model developed by:
Microsoft
Explanation :
Recently, Microsoft unveiled the latest version of its ‘lightweight’ AI model – the Phi-3-Mini.
It is believed to be first among the three small models that Microsoft is planning to release.
It has reportedly outperformed models of the same size and the next size up across a variety of benchmarks, in areas like language, reasoning, coding, and maths.
It is the first model in its class to support a context window of up to 128K tokens, with little impact on quality.
The amount of conversation that an AI can read and write at any given time is called the context window, and is measured in tokens.
It is a 3.8B language model, is available on AI development platforms such as Microsoft Azure AI Studio, HuggingFace, and Ollama.
Phi-3-mini is available in two variants, one with 4K context-length, and another with 128K tokens.
How is Phi-3-mini different from Large language Models?
Phi-3-mini is a Small Language Model (SLM).
SLMs are more streamlined versions of large language models. When compared to LLMs, smaller AI models are also cost-effective to develop and operate, and they perform better on smaller devices like laptops and smartphones.
SLMs are great for resource-constrained environments including on-device and offline inference scenarios and such models are good for scenarios where fast response times are critical, say for chabots or virtual assistants.
SLMs can be customised for specific tasks and achieve accuracy and efficiency in doing them. Most SLMs undergo targeted training, demanding considerably less computing power and energy compared to LLMs.
SLMs also differ when it comes to inference speed and latency. Their compact size allows for quicker processing. Their cost makes them appealing to smaller organisations and research groups.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/microsoft-phi-3-mini-ai-model-llm-9290253/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Patenting Trends in India Report:
- The share of patents filed by residents of India has decreased over the last decade.
- Maximum patent applications were in the field of Automation/Software Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Nasscom recently released the Patenting Trends in India report on World Intellectual Property Day.
About World Intellectual Property Day:
It is celebrated every year on April 26.
The day aims to raise awareness about Intellectual Property (IP) rights and its role in encouraging innovation and creativity to make the world a better place.
This day is an opportunity to raise awareness about the need for a balanced approach to intellectual property protection that takes into account the rights of creators and copyright holders, as well as the public interest.
The day was established in 2000 by the World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO).
Official theme for World Intellectual Property Day 2024: ‘IP and the SDGs: Building Our Common Future with Innovation and Creativity’.
History:
In 1883, the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property was signed, which further established protection for intellectual properties.
This was aimed at protecting inventions, trademarks, and industrial designs.
In 1970, the Convention establishing the World Intellectual Property Organisation entered into force, creating WIPO.
In 1974, WIPO became a specialised agency of the United Nations.
WIPO is a self-funding agency of the United Nations, with 193 member states that works to promote the protection and advancement of intellectual property worldwide.
Patenting Trends in India Report:
It was released by Nasscom on World Intellectual Property Day.
Mirroring global trends, in FY2023, India witnessed 83,000 patents being filed, marking an annual growth rate of 24.6%, the highest in the last two decades.
The number of patents granted also witnessed significant growth, rising over 2X between FY2019 and FY2023.
The share of patents filed by residents of India has doubled over the last decade, from 33.6 percent of the total filings in the fiscal year 2019 to over 50 percent by the fiscal year 2023.
Maximum patent applications were in the field of healthcare, essentially around medical imaging, diagnosing, report generation, and testing.
Other areas that are important for filing a patent are Automation/Software Development and Retail/e-commerce.
Artificial Intelligence saw the maximum patents filed in the areas of image processing, Natural Language Processing, and Predictive modelling, while Gen AI, Medical Data Processing, and Cognitive computing are the key emerging areas.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://www.livemint.com/technology/world-intellectual-property-day-patent-filings-domestic-inventors-top-six-patenting-trends-startups-11714123003733.html
With reference to Raman Spectroscopy, consider the following statements:
- It is a technique where scattered light is used to measure the vibrational energy modes of a sample.
- It can provide both chemical and structural information of substances.
- It is based on the interaction of light with the chemical bonds within a material.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Researchers recently used a non-invasive laser technique known as Raman spectroscopy to identify the origin of a piece of ivory, enabling customs and law enforcement agencies to distinguish between ivory from extinct mammoths and living elephants.
About Raman Spectroscopy:
It is an analytical technique where scattered light is used to measure the vibrational energy modes of a sample.
It involves illuminating a substance with a laser and analyzing the light that is scattered off the surface of the substance.
It is based on the interaction of light with the chemical bonds within a material.
Raman spectroscopy can provide both chemical and structural information, as well as the identification of substances through their characteristic Raman ‘fingerprint’.
Raman spectroscopy extracts this information through the detection of Raman scattering from the sample.
On February 28, 1928, Sir C.V. Raman introduced the “Raman effect,” for which he was given the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1930.
What is the Raman Effect?
The Raman effect is a change in the wavelength of light that occurs when a light beam is deflected by molecules.
When a beam of light traverses a dust-free, transparent sample of a chemical compound, most of the scattered light is at the same wavelength (or color) as the laser source and does not provide useful information; this is called Rayleigh Scatter.
However, a small amount of light (typically 0.0000001%) is scattered at different wavelengths (or colors), which depend on the chemical structure of the analyte; this is called Raman Scatter.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/wildlife-biodiversity/our-laser-technique-can-tell-apart-elephant-and-mammoth-ivory-here-s-how-it-may-disrupt-the-ivory-trade-95816
With reference to NOTA (None of the Above), consider the following statements:
- It is a ballot option that a voter can choose to apply for instead of giving their vote to any of the contesting candidates.
- It was used for the first time in the 2019 Lok Sabha elections in India.
- Votes made to NOTA will not change the outcome of the election.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently issued a notice to the Election Commission on a plea calling for fresh elections in a constituency where the ’none of the above’ option on the EVM gets the maximum votes.
About NOTA (None of the Above):
It is a ballot option that a voter can choose to apply for instead of giving their vote to any of the contesting candidates.
NOTA empowers the electors to express their negative opinions and a lack of support for the contenders.
It gives them the right to reject while maintaining the secrecy of their decision.
When was it first used?
NOTA was used for the first time in the 2013 Assembly elections in five States-Chhattisgarh, Mizoram, Rajasthan, Delhi, and Madhya Pradesh-and later in the 2014 General Elections.
It was introduced into the electoral process following the 2013 Supreme Court directive in the PUCL versus Union of India case.
How does a person cast a NOTA vote?
The NOTA option in the Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) is given at the bottom of the candidates’ list.
Earlier, in order to cast a negative ballot, a voter had to inform the presiding officer at the polling booth.
Now the voter has just to press the NOTA option on the EVM.
Does NOTA Vote Count?
The Election Commission clarified that votes cast as NOTA are counted but are considered ‘invalid votes’.
Even if NOTA votes get the most number of votes in a constituency, the next candidate with the second-most number of votes is declared the winner.
Therefore, votes made to NOTA will not change the outcome of the election.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.firstpost.com/explainers/supreme-court-election-commission-nota-voting-candidates-polls-13764170.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) Programme in India:
- It is a voluntary programme administered by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- It provides faster customs clearances to business entities that offer a high degree of security guarantees in the supply chain.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Centre has extended Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) status to the gem and jewellery sector.
About Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) Programme:
An AEO is a business entity involved in the international movement of goods requiring compliance with provisions of the national customs law.
It is approved by or on behalf of the national administration in compliance with the World Customs Organization (WCO).
The WCO in 2005, with a view to secure the international supply chain, adopted the SAFE Framework of Standards (WCO SAFE FoS).
AEO is one of the three pillars on which the SAFE FoS is formed.
AEO helps to build a closer partnership between the customs department and the trade industry.
WCO SAFE FoS is the basis of the Indian AEO programme.
What is the AEO programme?
It was introduced in India by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) in 2011.
It is a voluntary programme administered by the CBIC.
It seeks to provide benefits in the form of simplified customs procedures and faster customs clearances to those business entities that offer a high degree of security guarantees regarding their role in the supply chain.
Thus, an entity with an AEO status can be considered a reliable trading partner and a secure trader.
This segmentation approach enables customs resources to focus on less-non-compliant or risky businesses for control.
Benefits:
Direct port delivery in the case of import and direct port entry in case of export;
Small and medium scale entities would be given special focus. It must be noted that any entity handling up to 25 import and export documents annually can become part of the AEO programme;
Easy and fast disbursal of the drawback amount;
Easy and fast disbursal of refunds and adjudications;
Paperless declaration with no supporting documents;
Site inspection or examination possible on request;
Recognition by partner Government agencies and other stake holders.
Who can apply for AEO Status?
Business entities who are involved in the international supply chain that undertakes customs-related activity in India can apply for AEO status.
The business entity can apply for AEO status irrespective of its size.
Some of the examples of business entities that can apply for AEO status are importers, exporters, Custom House Agent (CHA), Custodians or Terminal Operators, etc.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/centre-accords-aeo-status-to-gem-and-jewellery-sector/article68111068.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to Lending Service Providers (LSPs):
- They offer their service to Regulated Entities (REs) for a fee under an outsourcing arrangement.
- They entail aggregation of loan offers from multiple lenders which enables the borrowers to choose the best available option.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently issued the draft regulatory framework for loan products aggregated by lending service providers to ensure transparency for borrowers.
About Lending Service Providers (LSPs):
LSPs are engaged by the Regulated Entities (REs) (banks or NBFCs) to carry out some functions of RE in connection with lenders’ functions on digital platforms.
The LSPs generally, under an outsourcing arrangement, offer their services to REs for a fee or commission.
RBI defines an LSP as an agent of an RE that carries out one or more functions of the lender, including customer acquisition, underwriting support, pricing support, disbursement, servicing, monitoring, collection, and loan recovery on behalf of the RE.
In simple terms, LSPs are loan aggregators which provide loans from their partner REs.
In some cases, a RE can also act as an LSP.
They are technology-centric entities which have the client reach and are thus capable of offering a marketplace for both lenders and borrowers.
LSPs entail aggregation of loan offers from multiple lenders on an electronic platform, which enables the borrowers to compare and choose the best available option to avail a loan from one of the available lenders.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.businesstoday.in/industry/banks/story/rbi-releases-draft-regulation-for-web-aggregation-of-loan-products-in-digital-lending-427138-2024-04-26
Consider the following statements with reference to Bima Vistaar:
- It aims to provide a basic social safety net cover with combined features of life and health insurance coverage.
- The sum assured under the scheme for property cover is Rs 2 lakh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (Irdai) made an announcement regarding the launch of Bima Vistaar and its prices at a summit of insurance CEOs.
It is an ambitious all-in-one affordable mass product aimed at the rural areas of the India which is priced at Rs 1,500 per policy.
The product is designed to provide a basic social safety net cover with combined features of life, health, personal accident and property insurances.
The sum assured for life, personal accident and property covers is Rs 2 lakh each, while the health cover, known as hospi cash, offers a sum assured of Rs 500 for 10 days, with a maximum amount of Rs 5,000 available without producing bills or documents.
Agents selling Bima Vistaar policies stand to earn a commission of 10 per cent, incentivising wider distribution and adoption of the product.
These products will be distributed by Bima Vahak. Initially, every gram sabha will have at least one Bima Vahak, who will visit every house in their area and convince them about the product.
Significance: It is considered as a mass product for increasing insurance penetration in the country, it is expected that unlike micro insurance products, it will generate a large sales volume.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/insurance/all-in-one-insurance-product-irdai-prices-bima-vistaar-at-rs-1500-per-policy-9292915/
Consider the following statements with reference to Liquid Nitrogen:
- It is a nonflammable and extremely cold element.
- It is used in the cryotherapy and food industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The commissioner of food safety in Tamil Nadu has directed officials to monitor use of liquid nitrogen in food items and take action against those violating the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
It is an inert, colorless, odorless, noncorrosive, nonflammable, and extremely cold element.
It is a cryogenic liquid (Cryogenic liquids are liquefied gases that have a normal boiling point below –130°F (–90°C).
Liquid nitrogen has a boiling point of –320°F (–196°C).
Health impacts:
Liquid nitrogen can scorch the organ or part of the body it contacts, making it appear like frost bites.
It can damage the lips, tongue, throat, lungs, and stomach. It may cause lesions or burn tissues.
If it reaches the stomach, the organ could get perforated. In the lungs, it could produce CO2 and the person could become unconscious.
Applications
It is used to cool and freeze food rapidly.
In food production and industrial processes, a cooling tray filled with liquid nitrogen is used to rapidly cool materials or equipment by immersing the product in nitrogen.
In the wellness and sports industry, cryosaunas with liquid nitrogen vapor are used for cryotherapy.
Liquid nitrogen test chambers are used in technology and material sciences to test the performance and durability of materials and devices at extremely low temperatures.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/liquid-nitrogen-can-be-used-only-to-preserve-food-stress-food-safety-officials/article68106601.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to Dooars:
- They are the alluvial floodplains in northeastern India that lie south of the outer foothills of the Himalayas.
- They consist of fertile soil rich in hummus that is beneficial for tea plantation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
This year, 2024, marks 150 years of tea production in the Dooars area, as the first tea plantations in the region were set up in 1874, a few decades after Darjeeling.
These are the alluvial floodplains in northeastern India that lie south of the outer foothills of the Himalayas and Brahmaputra plain.
This region is about 30 km wide and stretches over about 350 km from the Teesta River in West Bengal to the Dhansiri River in Assam.
The region forms the gateway to Bhutan, Sikkim and Eastern Nepal. There are 18 passages or gateways between the hills in Bhutan and the plains in India.
This region is divided by the Sankosh River into Eastern and Western Dooars. The Western Dooars are also known as the Bengal Dooars, and the Eastern Dooars also as the Assam Dooars.
Significance of Dooars:
The deep, well drained and fertile soil rich in humus of the Dooars has been used for the development of the tea plantations.
The main industry of the Dooars region is the tea industry. Thousands of people are engaged in the tea estates and factories.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/west-bengal/death-and-distress-in-the-dooars/article68107064.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Central Pay Commission:
- It is usually set up after every ten years to reviews the salary structure of the employees.
- It is mandatory for the government to accept the recommendations of this commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions under the Department of Personnel & Training (Do&PT) has forwarded a letter from the Indian Railways Technical Supervisors’ Association to the Department of Expenditure regarding the formation of the 8th Central Pay Commission for the further action.
Pay commission is a body set up by the Central government that reviews and recommends changes to the salary structure of the employees. This panel also reviews the bonuses, allowances and other benefits of the employees.
It recommends changes for central government employees and pensioners as well as the defence forces.
History: Pay commissions are usually constituted every 10 years and the first pay commission was set up in 1946. Since Independence, a total of seven pay commissions have been formed.
The latest pay commission was set up in 2014 and its recommendations came into effect in 2016.
It is not mandatory for the government to accept the recommendations of the pay commission. The government may choose to accept or reject the recommendations.
The Department of Expenditure under the Ministry of Finance is responsible for the implementation of the recommendations of the Central Pay Commission.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/wealth/save/8th-pay-commission-latest-update-govt-gets-a-proposal-on-formation-of-next-cpc-what-central-govt-employees-must-know/articleshow/109627536.cms?from=mdr
With reference to Small Finance Bank, consider the following statements:
- It provides financial services and products to low-income individuals and underserved communities.
- It is not mandatory for these banks to follow Priority Sector Lending norms of Reserve Bank of India.
- These are required to open at least 25% of their total branches in unbanked rural areas.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has said small finance banks (SFBs) should have a minimum net worth of Rs 1,000 crore to become universal banks in accordance with the on-tap licensing norms.
SFBs are specialized banks that are licensed by RBI to provide financial services and products to low-income individuals and underserved communities, including microfinance and micro-enterprise services, as well as other basic banking services.
SFBs are granted the scheduled bank status after being operational and are deemed suitable under section 42 of the RBI Act, 1934.
Objectives
To provide financial inclusion to these segments of the population who are often excluded from the traditional banking system.
SFBs help them to have access to financial products such as small loans, savings, insurance, and other basic banking services.
Eligibility
Resident individuals/professionals (Indian citizens), singly or jointly, each having at least 10 years of experience in banking and finance at a senior level are eligible for SFBs.
Companies and Societies in the private sector, that is owned and controlled by residents and having successful track record of running their businesses for at least a period of five years.
Existing Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs), Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs), and Local Area Banks (LABs) in the private sector, that are controlled by residents and having successful track record of running their businesses for at least a period of five years, can also opt for conversion into small finance banks after complying with all legal and regulatory requirements of various authorities.
Other norms to be followed by SFBs:
Capital to Risk Weighted Assets Ratio: They are required to maintain a minimum CRAR of 15%.
Priority Sector Lending: They are required to extend 75% of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit to Priority Sector Lending.
SFBs are required to open at least 25% of their total branches in unbanked rural areas.
Required paid up capital: The minimum paid-up voting equity capital for small finance banks shall be Rs.200 crore.
Regulation: SFBs are registered as public limited companies under the Companies Act, 2013 and governed by Banking Regulations Act, 1949; RBI Act, 1934 and other relevant Statutes and Directives from time to time.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/banking-and-finance/small-finance-banking-universal-banks-rbi-circular-9292920/
With reference to Thar Desert, consider the following statements:
- It is bordered by Aravalli range and the Rann of Kutchh.
- The majority of the Thar desert lies in Pakistan.
- It has one of the largest coal reserves in India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
There is growing evidence to suggest that the Thar Desert could undergo a surprising future transformation: it could become greener.
About Thar Desert:
The Thar Desert, also known as the Great Indian Desert, is an arid region of rolling sand hills on the Indian subcontinent.
It is one of the largest subtropical deserts in the world.
Location: It is located partly in northwestern India, and partly in eastern Pakistan.
It extends across the states of Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Haryana in India, and the provinces of Sindh and Punjab in Pakistan.
It covers more than 77,000 square miles (200,000 sq. km).
The majority of the Thar desert is in India (15 percent lies in Pakistan).
It is bordered by the irrigated Indus River plain to the west, the Punjab Plain to the north and northeast, the Aravalli Range to the southeast, and the Rann of Kachchh to the south.
The desert is separated from the Greater Rann of Kutch to the west by the low-lying marshy lands of the Luni River.
Climate:
The desert features a hot and arid climate, with temperatures often reaching over 50 degrees Celsius during the day and dropping significantly at night.
Rainfall is scarce, with the majority of the desert receiving less than 50mm of rain annually.
Landscape:
It is characterized by a vast and rugged landscape, with a variety of different terrains.
It is known for its vast expanses of rolling dunes, which can reach heights of up to 200 meters.
The desert is also characterized by rocky outcroppings, which are clusters of large rocks that rise from the desert floor.
It is also home to large salt flats, which are areas of flat land covered with a layer of salt.
Large, flat plains, which are covered with a thin layer of soil and vegetation, are also found here.
Mineral Resource:
It is rich in a variety of minerals, including one of the largest coal reserves in India.
It is also a major source of gypsum, Limestone, salt, Bauxite, silica, etc.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://geographical.co.uk/science-environment/sifting-sands-why-the-thar-desert-on-the-borders-of-india-and-pakistan-is-getting-greener
Which one of the following statements best describes ‘Network as a Service (NaaS)’?
A cloud service model where customers rent networking services from a provider.
Explanation :
In a world of hyper-connectivity, network as a service promises to deliver a better day-to-day user experience.
About Network as a Service (NaaS):
NaaS is a cloud service model in which customers rent networking services from a cloud vendor instead of setting up their own network infrastructure.
NaaS allows customers to operate their own networks without maintaining their own networking infrastructure.
Like other cloud services, NaaS vendors run networking functions using software, essentially allowing companies to set up their own networks entirely without hardware. All they need is Internet connectivity.
NaaS is a flexible, scalable and affordable option for organizations since it enables them to allocate network resources as needed.
NaaS can replace other networking systems that often require more work and provide less agility, such as Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) and Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS).
In addition, by using NaaS, you can shift your networking system to your provider, who can also give you security services to keep your network environment safe. This means you don’t have to invest in on-premise firewalls and other security appliances.
The provider may offer customers a range of different options, such as:
Managed services, where the customer pays to use hardware on a subscription basis while the provider operates and maintains it
Rented hardware, which is when the provider owns networking hardware and allows the customer to rent it from them. In this situation, customers have to install and operate the equipment themselves.
Full NaaS, where the provider handles everything in relation to the networking hardware, including installing and operating it.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.financialexpress.com/opinion/internet-economy-should-embrace-naas/3468704/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs):
- They are specialized financial institutions that purchase bad debts of a bank and recover those debts by itself.
- They are registered under the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and regulated under the SARFAESI Act, 2002.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently released a master direction for asset reconstruction companies (ARCs).
About Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs):
An ARC is a specialized financial institution that purchases the bad debts of a bank at a mutually agreed value and attempts to recover those debts or associated securities by itself.
ARCs are registered under the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and regulated under the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Securities Interest Act, 2002 (SARFAESI Act, 2002).
They function under the supervision and control of the RBI.
As per the RBI, ARC performs the functions namely Acquisition of financial assets, Change or takeover of Management or Sale or Lease of Business of the Borrower, Rescheduling of Debts, Enforcement of Security Interest and Settlement of dues payable by the borrower.
ARCs take over a portion of the bank’s debts, which qualify as Non-Performing Assets (NPAs). Therefore, ARCs are involved in the business of asset reconstruction, securitisation, or both.
All the rights previously held by the lender (the bank) in regard to the debt are transferred to the ARC.
The required funds to purchase such debts can be raised from Qualified Buyers.
Qualified Buyers include Financial Institutions, Insurance companies, Banks, State Financial Corporations, State Industrial Development Corporations, trustee or ARCs registered under SARFAESI and Asset Management Companies registered under SEBI that invest on behalf of mutual funds, pension funds, FIIs, etc.
The Qualified Buyers are the only persons from whom the ARC can raise funds.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.business-standard.com/industry/news/rbi-s-compiled-master-direction-on-arcs-to-be-effective-from-april-24-124042400508_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Climate Technology Centre and Network (CTCN):
- It is the operational arm of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’s (UNFCCC) Climate Change Technology Mechanism.
- It is hosted by the World Bank in collaboration with the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Climate Technology Centre and Network (CTCN) recently marked its 10-year anniversary.
About Climate Technology Centre and Network (CTCN):
It is the operational arm of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’s (UNFCCC) Climate Change Technology Mechanism.
It is hosted by UN Environment (UNEP) in collaboration with the United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) and with the support of 11 independent organizations having expertise in climate technologies.
It was established to accelerate the development and transfer of environmentally sound technologies for low-carbon and climate resilient development at the request of developing countries.
The CTCN provides technology solutions, capacity building, and advice on policy, legal, and regulatory frameworks tailored to the needs of individual countries by harnessing the expertise of a global network of technology companies and institutions.
The CTCN is a demand-driven mechanism as its services are offered upon request by developing countries, and the volume and specific nature of activities ultimately depends on countries’ requirements and needs.
The CTCN consists of two parts: a centre—a coordinating entity located in UN City Copenhagen—and a worldwide network of organizations that delivers CTCN services—both virtually and actually.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.unep.org/news-and-stories/press-release/catalyzing-climate-technology-ctcn-hits-10-year-anniversary
Sympathetic Solar Flare, recently seen in the news, refers to:
Solar outbursts that occur when sunspots are invisibly linked by massive magnetic field loops
Explanation :
A rare “super-sympathetic” solar flare event featuring four simultaneous eruptions, was recently observed by astronomers.
What are Solar Flares?
A solar flare is an intense burst of radiation coming from the release of magnetic energy associated with sunspots.
Flares are our solar system’s largest explosive events.
They are seen as bright areas on the sun, and they can last from minutes to hours.
In a matter of just a few minutes, they heat the material to many millions of degrees and produce a burst of radiation across the electromagnetic spectrum, including from radio waves to x-rays and gamma rays.
Although solar flares can be visible in white light, they are often more readily noticed via their bright X-ray and ultraviolet emissions.
Effect of Solar Flare on Earth:
The intense radiation emitted during a solar flare can affect satellite communications, disrupt radio signals, and even pose a risk to astronauts in space.
Additionally, the increased solar radiation can lead to geomagnetic storms, which may impact power grids and cause auroras (northern and southern lights) at lower latitudes.
About Sympathetic Solar Flare:
This type of solar outburst occurs when sunspots or filaments are invisibly linked by massive magnetic field loops that arch above the solar surface. When one flare detonates, the others follow in rapid succession.
Sympathetic solar flares typically involve just two linked flares, ranging in intensity from minor outbursts to X-class flares, the most powerful class of solar flares.
They are more likely to happen during or around the solar maximum, the most active phase of the Sun’s approximately 11-year solar cycle.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/sun-witnesses-a-massive-explosion-on-april-23-how-it-will-impact-earth/articleshow/109555824.c
Consider the following statements with reference to Mephedrone:
- It is a synthetic stimulant drug belongs to cathinone class.
- Its usage is allowed in India under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB), in a joint operation with Gujarat’s Anti-Terrorism Squad (ATS), has busted a network of clandestine mephedrone manufacturing laboratories in Gujarat and Rajasthan.
It also known as 4-methylmethcathinone, 4-MMC and 4-methylephedrone.
It is a synthetic stimulant drug of the amphetamine and cathinone classes.
Other names: drone, M-CAT, white magic, ‘meow meow’, and bubble.
It has a role as a xenobiotic and an environmental contaminant.
It has been linked to a range of adverse effects on both physical and mental health.
Users commonly report increased alertness, euphoria, and enhanced sociability, but these positive effects come at a cost.
Health impacts:
Anxiety, paranoia, nausea, and insomnia are among the negative side effects experienced by individuals under the influence of this synthetic stimulant.
Prolonged use of Mephedrone has been associated with more severe consequences, including cardiovascular issues, hallucinations, and even instances of aggressive behaviour.
The drug’s impact on mental health raises concerns about its potential for addiction and long-term psychological harm.
It is banned in India under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/ncb-gujarat-ats-bust-mephedrone-manufacturing-network-in-two-states/article68114325.ece
Chakisaurus nekul, recently seen in news, is a:
herbivorous dinosaur
Explanation :
Palaeontologists from Argentina announced the discovery of a new medium-sized herbivorous dinosaur and named it as Chakisaurus nekul.
Its name derived from Chaki, which is a word from the Aonikenk language, of the indigenous Tehuelche people, which means “old guanaco”, a reference to a medium-sized herbivore mammal found in the region. Nekul means “fast” or “agile” in the Mapudungún language, of the local Mapuche people.
It was a fast runner and lived about 90 million years ago in the Late Cretaceous period in present day Patagonia.
It was found in the Pueblo Blanco Natural Reserve, in the southern province of Río Negro, an area rich in fossils where many mammals, turtles, and fish have been found along with other species of dinosaur.
Studies of Chakisaurus yielded new findings indicating that it was a fast runner and had its tail curved unusually downward.
This new species was a bipedal herbivore that among its most important characteristics had a tail that, unlike other dinosaurs, which was horizontal, had a downward curvature.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/argentine-scientists-find-speedy-90-million-year-old-herbivore-dinosaur/article68109177.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to Bambi Bucket:
- It is a specialised aerial firefighting tool.
- It discharges a solid column of water and useful in extinguishing forest fires.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Indian Air Force’s MI 17 V5 helicopter was deployed to extinguish the raging forest fires in Nainital and the helicopter used a “Bambi Bucket”.
It is also known as helicopter bucket or a helibucket.
It is a specialised aerial firefighting tool which has been in use since the 1980s.
It is suspended by cable under a chopper, and which can be filled by lowering into a river or pond before being flown above a fire and discharged aerially by opening a valve at the bottom of the bucket.
It is essentially a lightweight collapsible container that releases water from underneath a helicopter to targeted areas. The water is released by using a pilot-controlled valve.
One of its key features is that it can be quickly and easily filled. The bucket can be filled from various sources, including lakes and swimming pools, which allows firefighters to swiftly refill it and return to the target area.
Features: It can be stored within the helicopter until development and it discharges a solid column of water, “resulting in a more accurate and effective water dump, less evaporation on the descent, and greater impact force.
It is especially helpful in fighting wildfires that are difficult or impossible to reach from the ground.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/bambi-bucket-forest-fire-9294088/
Which of the following best describes Biohacking, recently seen in news?
It is a trick used to enhance body’s ability to function at peak performance.
Explanation :
Biohacking is picking up in India especially in metro cities like Delhi and Mumbai and also slowly making inroads into Tier II and III cities too.
It is a term used to describe various tips and tricks for enhancing the body’s ability to function at peak performance—and maybe even extend one’s lifespan.
It includes the practice of employing methods drawn from fields like biology, genetics, neuroscience and nutrition to enhance physical or mental performance, improve overall health and well-being, or achieve a specific health outcome.
Most types of biohacking generally fall into one of the following categories below:
Lifestyle: This category focuses on making positive health and behavior choices. It is probably the most accessible way most people can start experiencing biohacking, as it includes factors like dietary shifts, breathwork, meditation and exercise
Molecular: It involves the use of natural and synthetic molecules that can help shift one’s biology. Taking supplements would fall into this biohacking category.
Biologics: These are biological products that are meant to improve or enhance biology. They could be cells, or they could be small little information packets like exosomes, which are basically biological bundles of DNA, mRNA proteins and growth factors. Biologics typically need to be ingested, injected (such as stem cells) or delivered intravenously (i.e. by IV transfusion).
Technology: This category includes devices like wearables (such as smartwatches) and diagnostics (such as blood sugar monitors). In such cases, biohacking uses technology to gather data about the body and its functioning so an individual can use that information to adjust their health as they strive for improved performance.
There are currently no laws in India that specifically address biohacking.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/biohacking-race-to-become-superhuman-jag-chima-bryan-johnson-blueprint/article68101111.ece
With reference to Alagar Temple, consider the following statements:
- It is located in the State of Tamil Nadu.
- It was built during the Gupta Period.
- It is mentioned in famous Tamil epic Silappathikaram.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The procession of lord Kallalagar from Alagar hills entered Vaigai river as part of Chithirai festival in Madurai.
It is also known with the name of Azhagar Kovil is one of the prominent temples situated at the foothills of Alagar hills in the State of Tamil Nadu.
It is dedicated to Lord Vishnu and is known for its intricate sculpting and mandapams.
It was mentioned in epic such as Silappathikaram.
Alvars like Thirumangai Alvar, Peri Alvar, Nammalvar, Bhoothathalvar, Peyalwar, Andal have also mentioned the glorious history of shrine in their songs.
There are also inscriptions dating back to King Ashoka rule. It is said that great Jain monk Ajjanandi had resided here along with his disciples.
This temple has a prominent place during the Pandyan reign.
It was during the rule of King Jatavarman Sundara Pandyan (1251-1270 A.D) vimana of the temple’s sanctum sanctorum was beautified with gold plates.
The massive tower which is seen at the entrance of the temple was also built during the reign of Pandyan kingdom.
King Thirumalai Naickar of Nayaka dynasty also added many artistic features to this temple during his reign.
The kalyan mandapam of the temple, especially showcase Nayaka art.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Madurai/lord-kallazhagar-enters-vaigai-river-as-part-of-chithirai-festival-in-madurai/article68097114.ece
Army Tactical Missile Systems (ATACMS), recently seen in the news, is developed by which one of the following countries?
United States
Explanation :
The United States recently confirmed providing long-range Army Tactical Missile Systems (ATACMS) to Ukraine to aid its war effort against Russia.
About Army Tactical Missile Systems (ATACMS):
It is a conventional surface-to-surface artillery weapon system capable of striking targets well beyond the range of existing Army cannons, rockets, and other missiles.
It is manufactured by the US defence company Lockheed Martin.
It is also designated M39 by the US Army, and its Department of Defence (DoD) designation is MGM-140.
The missile first saw use during the 1991 Persian Gulf War.
This weapon’s known operators other than the US are Bahrain, Greece, South Korea, Taiwan and the United Arab Emirates.
Features:
ATACMS are 24/7, all-weather, surface-to-surface, inertially guided ballistic missiles.
It has a range of about 190 miles (305 km).
Propulsion: Single-stage, solid propellant.
ATACMS missiles are fired from the High Mobility Artillery Rocket System (HIMARS) and the M270 Multiple Launch Rocket System (MLRS) platforms. The MLRS can fire 12 surface-to-surface missiles in less than a minute.
It has the ability to carry cluster munitions, which destroy a targeted area by releasing hundreds of bomblets instead of a single warhead.
Targets include air defense artillery sites, surface-to-surface missile units, logistics sites, command and control complexes, and helicopter forward operating bases.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/army-tactical-missile-systems-us-ukraine-9290863/
With reference to the Chambal River, consider the following statements:
- It flows in Malwa plateau and is a principal tributary of the Yamuna River.
- It is a rainfed river that rises in the Vindhya Ranges.
- It flows through the States of Haryana, Rajasthan and Punjab.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A group of environmentalists have raised concerns regarding increasing pollutants in the Chambal River.
About Chambal River:
It is an important river in the Malwa plateau and a principal tributary of the Yamuna River, thus forming part of the greater Gangetic drainage system.
It flows through three Indian States: Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
Course:
It rises in the Vindhya Range just south of Mhow, in western Madhya Pradesh.
From its source, it flows north into southeastern Rajasthan.
Turning northeast, it flows past Kota and along the Rajasthan–Madhya Pradesh border; shifting east-southeast, it forms a portion of the Uttar Pradesh–Madhya Pradesh border and flows through Uttar Pradesh to empty into the Yamuna.
Total Length: 960 km.
It is a rainfed river and the overall drainage basin covers an area of 143,219 sq. km.
To its south, east, and west, the basin is defined by the Vindhyan mountain ranges, while the north-western boundary is marked by the Aravalli range.
Tributaries: The main tributaries of Chambal include the Banas and Mej rivers on the left and the Parbati, Kali Sindh and Shipra rivers on the right.
Major Dams: Gandhi Sagar Dam, Rana Pratap Sagar Dam and Jawahar Sagar Dam.
National Chambal Sanctuary:
It encapsulates a significant segment of the Chambal River, spanning from the Jawahar Sagar Dam in Rajasthan to the Chambal-Yamuna confluence in Uttar Pradesh.
It was established with the imperative to restore ecological equilibrium to a crucial north Indian river system and to provide comprehensive protection to the highly endangered gharial.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.mid-day.com/news/india-news/article/rajasthan-two-bodies-recovered-from-chambal-river-in-kota-police-suspect-suicide-23346524
Raja Ravi Varma is best known for his contributions to which of the following fields?
Painting and art
Explanation :
The first true copy of the painting Indulekha by Raja Ravi Varma will be unveiled at the Kilimanoor Palace, Kerala, where the eminent artist was born in 1848, on the occasion of his 176th birth anniversary celebrations.
About Raja Ravi Varma:
He was an Indian painter and artist.
He is considered one of the greatest painters in the history of Indian art.
He was born as Ravi Varma Koil Thampuran of Kilimanoor palace, in the erstwhile princely state of Travancore (Thiruvithankur) in Kerala.
He is known for his amazing paintings, which revolve mainly around the Puranas (ancient mythological stories) and the great Indian epics, the Mahabharata and Ramayana.
In addition to incidents in Hindu mythology, Varma painted many portraits of both Indians and British in India.
He is believed to have made around 7,000 paintings before his death at the age of 58.
His most famous works include Damayanti Talking to a Swan, Shakuntala Looking for Dushyanta, Nair Lady Adorning Her Hair, and Shantanu and Matsyagandha.
Features of his work:
Before Raja Ravi Varma’s paintings, the paintings of Indian artists were greatly influenced by the Persian and Mughal schools.
Varma was the first Indian to use Western techniques of perspective and composition and to adapt them to Indian subjects, styles, and themes.
His works are one of the best examples of the fusion of European academic art with a purely Indian sensibility and iconography.
He was one of the first Indian artists to use oil paints and to master the art of lithographic reproduction of his work.
He was notable for making affordable lithographs of his paintings available to the public, which greatly enhanced his reach and influence as a painter and public figure.
His paintings often depicted mythological characters and Indian royalty in a realistic style, challenging traditional artistic norms.
Recognitions:
He received widespread acclaim after he won an award for an exhibition of his paintings at Vienna in 1873.
His paintings were also sent to the World’s Columbian Exposition held in Chicago in 1893, and he was awarded two gold medals.
In 1904, Viceroy Lord Curzon, on behalf of the King Emperor, bestowed upon Raja Ravi Varma the Kaisar-i-Hind Gold Medal. At this time, his name was mentioned as “Raja Ravi Varma” for the first time.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/first-true-copy-of-ravi-varmas-indulekha-to-be-unveiled-on-monday/article68118133.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to critical minerals:
- It is a metallic or non-metallic element that is essential for the functioning of modern technologies.
- Cobalt, Copper and Gallium are examples of critical minerals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Ministry of Mines will hold a two day “Critical Minerals Summit: Enhancing Beneficiation and Processing Capabilities”, at the India Habitat Centre in Lodhi Estate, New Delhi.
About Critical Minerals Summit:
It is organised by the Ministry of Mines, Government of India, in collaboration with the Shakti Sustainable Energy Foundation (Shakti), the Council on Energy, Environment and Water (CEEW), and the Indian Institute of Sustainable Development (IISD).
It is designed to foster collaboration, share knowledge, and drive innovation in the field of critical mineral beneficiation and processing.
The summit will bring together a diverse array of Indian and international stakeholders, including industry leaders, startups, government officials, scientists, academics, and policy experts.
It will address the increasing demand for Critical Raw Materials (CRMs) required for renewable energy systems and electric vehicles as part of India’s strategic development goals.
The Ministry of Mines has identified eight key minerals for focus at the summit, including Glauconite (Potash), Lithium – Rare Earth Elements (Laterite), Chromium, Platinum Group, Graphite, Tungsten associated with Graphite, Rare Earths (RE), and Vanadium associated with Graphite.
Participants will engage in active dialogue and interactive workshops focused on critical issues such as mineral auction progress, policy incentives for CRMs ecosystem development, and the advancement of commercially viable and environmentally sustainable solutions.
Key Facts about Critical Minerals:
It is a metallic or non-metallic element that has two characteristics.
It is essential for the functioning of our modern technologies, economies or national security and
There is a risk that its supply chains could be disrupted.
The ‘criticality’ of minerals changes with time as supply and society’s needs shift.
Applications:
They are used to manufacture advanced technologies, including mobile phones, computers, fibre-optic cables, semiconductors, banknotes, and defence, aerospace and medical applications.
Many are used in low-emission technologies, such as electric vehicles, wind turbines, solar panels, and rechargeable batteries.
Some are also crucial for common products, such as stainless steel and electronics.
Examples: antimony, beryllium, bismuth, cobalt, copper, gallium, germanium, lithium, vanadium, etc.
Top Producers: Chile, Indonesia, Congo, China, Australia, and South Africa.
Critical Minerals in India:
Government has released a list of 30 critical minerals for India.
These minerals are Antimony, Beryllium, Bismuth, Cobalt, Copper, Gallium, Germanium, Graphite, Hafnium, Indium, Lithium, Molybdenum, Niobium, Nickel, PGE, Phosphorous, Potash, REE, Rhenium, Silicon, Strontium, Tantalum, Tellurium, Tin, Titanium, Tungsten, Vanadium, Zirconium, Selenium, and Cadmium.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2019026
Consider the following statements with reference to Green Taxonomy:
- It is a framework that defines which economic activities and assets are environmentally sustainable.
- It includes the goals of climate mitigation and adaptation and helps prevent greenwashing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The RBI and the Finance Ministry could take inspiration from the developing world, especially the ASEAN region, where a layered green taxonomy as a living document keeps getting updated with sectoral views of possible sustainable trajectories.
About Green Taxonomy:
A green taxonomy is a framework for defining what can be called environmentally sustainable investments.
It is a classification system that defines which economic activities and assets are “green” or environmentally sustainable.
It is a useful instrument and has several complementary purposes:
help prevent greenwashing;
help investors make informed investment decisions; and
channel investment toward sustainable or green economic activities and assets.
Structurally, all taxonomies are similar. So far, they all include the goals of climate mitigation and adaptation and some also include other environmental objectives such as biodiversity conservation, for example.
To be considered green, an activity must substantially contribute to at least one of the environmental objectives.
Often, taxonomies also include “do no significant harm” criteria (i.e., an activity that substantially contributes to one environmental objective should not harm another environmental objective) and social safeguards (i.e., compliance with human rights).
Some taxonomies only define what is green and others, such as the recently launched Indonesian taxonomy or the proposed Singaporean taxonomy, use a “traffic light” approach, where the economic activities are split into different categories (i.e. green, amber, or red) to classify their environmental sustainability.
What is Greenwashing?
It is the process of conveying a false impression or misleading information about how a company’s products are environmentally sound.
It involves making an unsubstantiated claim to deceive consumers into believing that a company’s products are environmentally friendly or have a greater positive environmental impact than they actually do.
In addition, greenwashing may occur when a company attempts to emphasize sustainable aspects of a product to overshadow its involvement in environmentally damaging practices.
Companies can also greenwash initiatives with vague claims that don’t provide real data or scientific validation for the claims.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/towards-a-green-growth-the-hindu-editorial-on-the-rbi-and-a-green-taxonomy/article68117880.ece#:~:text=A%20green%20taxonomy%20is%20a,ranking%20of%20an%20economic%20activity.
Consider the following statements with reference to the National Centre for Good Governance:
- It is an autonomous institute that advises on key governance issues across various Ministries in India.
- Its governing body is headed by the Prime Minister of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Secretary of Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) visiting Bangladesh for bilateral discussions regarding renewal of MOU between National Centre for Good Governance (NCGG) India and Bangladesh Ministry of Public Administration for the period 2024-2029.
It is an autonomous institute under the aegis of Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances, Government of India.
The NCGG has been set up to assist in bringing about governance reforms through studies, training, knowledge sharing and promotion of good ideas.
It seeks to carry out policy relevant research and prepare case studies; curate training courses for civil servants from India and other developing countries.
Background:
It traces its origin to the National Institute of Administrative Research (NIAR). NIAR was set up in 1995 by the Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration (LBSNAA) the Government of India’s apex training Institute for higher civil services.
NIAR was subsequently renamed with an expanded mandate, as National Centre for Good Governance, which was inaugurated on February 24th, 2014.
Objectives
To function as a national repository on information on best practices, initiatives and methodologies that promote Good Governance, e-Governance etc.
To advise on key issues in governance and develop synergy across various Ministries/ Departments of GoI, and State Governments;
Governing Body
The affairs of the NCGG are managed under the overall superintendence and direction of the Governing Body, which is headed by the Cabinet Secretary.
It has Secretaries of 9 ministries/ departments and 5 eminent persons viz. academicians, eminent administrators, specialists, eminent innovators, heads of reputed institutions as members.
The Director General, who is the Chief Executive of NCGG acts as the Member–Secretary of the Governing Body.
Head office: Its head office is at New Delhi and branch office at Mussoorie.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2019025
INS Vikrant, recently seen in news, is a:
aircraft carrier
Explanation :
Recently, both aircraft carriers of the Indian Navy, INS Vikramaditya and INS Vikrant, showcased “twin carrier operations” with MiG-29K fighter jets taking off simultaneously from both and landing cross deck.
It is the first ever indigenously designed and constructed aircraft carrier which will strengthen the country’s stand as a ‘Blue Water Navy’.
The ship has been designed in-house by Indian Navy’s Warship Design Bureau and constructed by M/s Cochin Shipyard Limited.
India also joined the elite group of nations – the US, Russia, France, the UK and China – who are capable of designing and constructing aircraft carriers.
Also, with a displacement of 43,000 tonnes when fully loaded, INS Vikrant is set to be the seventh largest among the carriers or carrier classes in the world.
What are its capabilities?
It can operate an air wing of 30 aircraft comprising MiG-29K fighter jets, Kamov-31, MH-60R multi-role helicopters, in addition to indigenous Advanced Light Helicopters and Light Combat Aircraft (Navy).
It uses the STOBAR (Short Take-Off but Arrested Recovery) method to launch and recover aircraft for which it is equipped with a ski- jump to launch aircraft, and three ‘arrester wires’ for their recovery.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/the-significance-of-carrier-aviation-explained/article68118801.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions:
- It is a United Nations recognized body established for the promotion and protection of human rights.
- It ensures the compliance of individual National Human Rights Institutions to the Paris Principles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The meeting of the Sub-Committee on Accreditation (SCA) of the UN-recognised Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI) worldwide will be held on May 1.
It was established in 1993 as the International Coordinating Committee of National Institutions for the promotion and protection of human rights (ICC).
It has been known as the Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI) since 2016 and is a member-based network organization that gathers NHRIs from all around the world.
It is one of the largest human rights networks worldwide.
Members: As of December 2023, GANHRI is composed of 120 members: 88 “A” status accredited NHRIs and 32 “B” status accredited NHRIs.
Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland
Accreditation by the GANHRI
In a unique peer-review-based accreditation process, GANHRI ensures individual NHRIs’ compliance with internationally recognised standards – the Paris Principles – to ensure their independence, pluralism and accountability.
The Paris Principles set out internationally agreed minimum standards that NHRIs must meet to be considered credible.
The six principles require a country‘s human rights agency to be independent from the government in its structure, composition, decision-making and method of operation.
The principles were adopted by the UN General Assembly in 1993.
GANHRI, through the Sub-Committee on Accreditation (SCA), is responsible for reviewing and accrediting NHRIs in compliance with the Paris Principles.
An NHRI is reviewed by the SCA when –
It applies for initial accreditation
It applies for re-accreditation every five years
The circumstances of the NHRI change in any way that may affect its compliance with the Paris Principles.
NHRIs that are assessed as complying with the Paris Principles are accredited with ‘A status’, while those that partially comply are accredited with ‘B status
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/geneva-based-un-related-body-to-review-indias-human-rights-accreditation-status-this-week/article68117894.ece
Fentanyl, recently in news, is a/an:
synthetic opioid drug
Explanation :
Recently, the US Secretary of State Anthony Blinken’s three-day visit to China spoke about the production and export of “synthetic opioid precursors”, specifically the drug fentanyl.
These are a class of drugs that derive from, or mimic, natural substances found in the opium poppy plant.
All opioids work similarly: They activate an area of nerve cells in the brain and body called opioid receptors that block pain signals between the brain and the body.
They produce a variety of effects, including pain relief and euphoria, and are highly addictive. Some common opioids include oxycodone, morphine, codeine, heroin, and fentanyl.
Opioid overdose: Opioid use can lead to death due to the effects of opioids on the part of the brain which regulates breathing.
An opioid overdose can be identified by a combination of three signs and symptoms: pinpoint pupils, unconsciousness and difficulties with breathing.
What is Fentanyl?
It is a potent synthetic opioid drug approved by the Food and Drug Administration for use as an analgesic [for pain relief] and anesthetic.
It is approximately 100 times more potent than morphine and 50 times more potent than heroin as an analgesic.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/antony-blinken-china-vxi-jinping-fentanyl-opioid-9294866/
Consider the following:
- Taking possession of a polling station
- Preventing voter from going to the polling station
- Seizure of a vote counting place
How many of the above activities are considered as part of ‘Booth Capturing’?
All three
Explanation :
Booth Capturing during elections in India is a ‘Corrupt Practice’ Under the Representation of People Act, 1951 (RPA).
Booth-capturing, defined in Section135A of the RPA, includes all or any of the following activities by any person or persons:
Seizure of a polling station, affecting the conduct of elections;
Taking possession of a polling station, allowing only his or their supporters to vote;
Intimidating or threatening any elector and preventing him from going to the polling station;
Seizure of a counting place affecting the counting of votes;
Involvement of any person in government service in any of the above activities.
It is punishable for a term of not less than one year, which may extend to three years for lay people, and not less than three years, extending to five years for government servants.
In such cases, the Election Commission of India, based on the material facts, may
Declare the poll at that polling station to be void and direct a fresh poll on a new date; or
Countermand the election in the constituency in case booth capturing has taken place in a large number of polling stations, or if it has affected the counting of votes.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/repolls-election-commission-polling-process-9294027/
According to the paradox of savings, an increase in the savings rate of individuals will most likely result in:
decline in overall savings
Explanation :
The paradox of savings argues that a rise in individuals’ savings can, in effect, cause a significant fall in overall savings and investment.
About Paradox of Savings:
The paradox of savings, also known as the paradox of thrift, refers to the theory that a rise in the savings rate of individuals can surprisingly cause a fall rather than a rise in the overall savings in an economy.
This is in contrast to the general belief that a rise in individuals’ savings rates will cause a rise in overall savings in the economy.
So even though savings may be good for an individual household, it is believed that it may not be good for the wider economy.
The idea is part of the under-consumption theories of the business cycle, which attribute economic downturns to weak consumption and high savings.
Origins of the theory:
The concept was popularized by British economist John Maynard Keynes in his 1936 book, The General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money.
Keynesian economists believe that higher savings is bad for the wider economy, and that boosting consumer spending is the way to grow an economy.
They argue that savings are invested by capitalists with the ultimate aim of selling their output in the form of final goods and services to consumers.
So, if consumers fail to spend enough money on the output that capitalists bring to the market to sell, it can cause losses for capitalists and discourage further investment.
On the other hand, a rise in consumer demand for final goods and services is expected to encourage people to save more and invest.
Criticisms of the idea:
Critics of the idea argue that saving more is not bad for the economy and that a fall in consumer spending does not actually cause a fall in investment.
In fact, they argue that a fall in consumer spending leads to a rise in savings and investment.
This is simply because any money that people don’t spend on consumer goods or hoard under their beds has to go towards their savings, which in turn gets invested.
An increase in savings allows banks to lend more. This will make interest rates go down and lead to an increase in lending and, therefore, spending.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/81327/OPS/GL6CO2FB2.1+G4SCO4ONE.1.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Great Rift Valley:
- It runs along part of East Africa across Eritrea, Kenya and Tanzania.
- It is geologically active region that features volcanoes, hot springs and geysers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
At least 42 people died when a dam burst its banks near a town in Kenya’s Rift Valley, as heavy rains and floods battered the country.
About Great Rift Valley:
It is one of the most extensive rifts on Earth’s surface that runs along part of East Africa.
It runs for 4,000 miles (6,400 kilometers), from Jordan in southwestern Asia to the coast of the Indian Ocean in central Mozambique.
It runs across many countries: Eritrea, Djibouti, Ethiopia, Kenya, Tanzania, Uganda, Rwanda, Burundi, the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC), Malawi, Zambia, and Mozambique.
It is part of a larger feature called the East African Rift System (EARS).
Formation:
The valley is situated in a region where three tectonic plates meet.
It was formed about 40 million years ago when tectonic plates split and gave rise to the East African Rift.
The valley is 30 to 40 miles (48 to 64 kilometers) wide on average but reaches nearly 300 miles (480 kilometers) at its widest section in the Danakil Desert in northeastern Africa.
The steep walls of the valley rise about 3,000 feet (900 meters) above the valley floor. In some places there are cliffs that reach 9,000 feet (2,700 meters) high.
The area is geologically active and features volcanoes, hot springs, geysers, and frequent earthquakes.
A series of some thirty lakes lies along its length; the three largest in Africa are known as the Great Lakes and include Lake Tanganyika, the second deepest lake in the world, and Lake Victoria, the second-largest freshwater lake by surface area in the world.
Many of Africa’s highest mountains—including Mount Kilimanjaro, Mount Kenya, and Mount Margherita—are in ranges fronting the Rift Valley.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.news18.com/world/42-dead-as-dam-near-kenyas-rift-valley-bursts-8870666.html
Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Inflation Expectations Survey of Households’ and ‘Consumer Confidence Survey’.
- They are conducted by NITI Aayog to provide useful inputs for monetary policy.
- Both surveys are conducted in all of Tier 1 and Tier 2 cities in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently announced the launch of ‘Inflation Expectations Survey of Households’ and ‘Consumer Confidence Survey’ which will provide key inputs for the bi-monthly monetary policy.
About ‘Inflation Expectations Survey of Households’ and ‘Consumer Confidence Survey’:
They are launched by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
The results of the surveys provide useful inputs for the bi-monthly monetary policy.
Inflation Expectations Survey of Households:
It aims at capturing subjective assessments on price movements and inflation, based on their individual consumption baskets.
This survey spans 19 cities, including Guwahati, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Kolkata, Lucknow, and Thiruvananthapuram.
It seeks qualitative responses from households on price changes (general prices as well as prices of specific product groups) in the three months ahead as well as in the one-year ahead period.
Additionally, it will collect quantitative data on current, three-month ahead, and one-year ahead inflation rates.
Consumer Confidence Survey:
It aims to gather qualitative responses from households regarding their views on the general economic situation, employment scenario, price levels, household income, and spending.
This survey will also be conducted in 19 cities, including Ahmedabad, Bengaluru, Bhopal, Bhubaneswar, Chandigarh, Chennai, and Delhi.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://www.ptinews.com/story/business/rbi-launches-two-key-surveys-for-monetary-policy-inputs/1465053
What is the primary purpose of ‘acceptance sampling’ in quality control?
To select a representative sample for testing for defects.
Explanation :
The VVPAT-based audit of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) is a typical case of “lot acceptance sampling”, a statistical quality control technique widely used in industry and trade.
About Acceptance Sampling:
It is a statistical measure used in quality control.
It allows a company to determine the quality of a batch of products by selecting a specified number for testing.
It tests a representative sample of the product for defects.
The quality of this designated sample will be viewed as the quality level for the entire group of products.
The process involves first, determining the size of a product lot to be tested, then the number of products to be sampled, and finally the number of defects acceptable within the sample batch.
Products are chosen at random for sampling.
It does not assure the quality of the complete set of products from which the sample is derived.
Origin:
Acceptance sampling in its modern industrial form dates from the early 1940s.
It was popularized by Dodge and Romig and originally applied by the U.S. military to the testing of bullets during World War II.
Need for Acceptance Sampling:
A company cannot test every one of its products at all times.
There may be too many to inspect at a reasonable cost or within a reasonable timeframe.
Also, comprehensive testing might damage the product or make it unfit for sale in some way.
Testing a small sample would be indicative without ruining the bulk of the product run.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/the-evm-vvpat-case-judgment-is-disappointing/article68122171.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to Taam Ja’ Blue Hole, recently seen in the news:
- It is the deepest known underwater sinkhole in the world.
- It is located off the coast of Australia in the Pacific Ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Scientists have yet to reach the bottom of the Taam Ja’ Blue Hole in Mexico’s Chetumal Bay, which new measurements hint could be connected to a labyrinth of submarine caves and tunnels.
What is a Blue Hole?
Blue holes are water-filled vertical caverns, or sinkholes, found in coastal regions where the bedrock is made of soluble material, such as limestone, marble, or gypsum.
They form when water on the surface percolates through the rock, dissolving minerals and widening cracks, which eventually causes the rock to collapse.
Famous examples include Dean’s Blue Hole in the Bahamas, the Dahab Blue Hole in Egypt, and the Great Blue Hole in Belize.
About Taam Ja’ Blue Hole:
It is the deepest known underwater sinkhole in the world.
It sits in Chetumal Bay off the southeast coast of the Yucatan Peninsula in Mexico.
It extends at least 1,380 feet (420 meters) below sea level.
It is 390 feet (119 m) deeper than the previous record holder — the 990-foot-deep (301 m) Sansha Yongle Blue Hole, also known as the Dragon Hole, in the South China Sea.
Spread over an area of 13,660 square meters, the giant, underwater cavern has been named Taam Ja’ which means “deep water” in Mayan.
The submerged blue hole has a nearly circular shape at its surface with steep sides that form a large conic structure covered by biofilms, sediments, limestone, and gypsum ledges.
Key facts about Yucatan Peninsula:
It is a northeastern projection of Central America, extending into the Atlantic Ocean.
The Gulf of Mexico lies on its western and northern sides. The Caribbean Sea lies on its eastern side.
The northern part of Yucatán is in Mexico. Belize and a part of Guatemala are in the south.
The peninsula is almost wholly composed of beds of coralline and porous limestone rocks.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.livescience.com/planet-earth/geology/deepest-blue-hole-in-the-world-discovered-with-hidden-caves-and-tunnels-believed-to-be-inside
Consider the following statements with reference to Salmonella:
- It is a group of bacteria that can cause gastrointestinal illness.
- It only affects children younger than 5 years old.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The United States has reportedly refused almost a third of shipments from Mahashian Di Hatti Pvt Ltd (MDH) since October 2023 due to salmonella contamination.
Salmonella is a group of bacteria that can cause gastrointestinal illness and fever called salmonellosis.
It naturally lives in animals’ intestines and can be found in their feces (poop).
The bacteria then spread to humans if they come in contact with salmonella-infected animals or items in their environment.
It is a ubiquitous and hardy bacteria that can survive several weeks in a dry environment and several months in water.
Risks associated with Salmonella:
People infected with Salmonella might have diarrhea, fever, and stomach cramps. Some people—especially children younger than 5 years old, adults 65 years and older.
People with weakened immune systems—may experience more severe illness that requires medical treatment or hospitalization.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/cons-products/food/after-pesticide-mdh-now-faces-heat-for-salmonella-contamination-heres-what-it-is/articleshow/109681926.cms?from=mdr
TacticAI, recently seen in news, is developed by:
Explanation :
Google’s DeepMind developed and evaluated TacticAI in a multi-year research collaboration with experts from Liverpool Football Club.
It is an AI system that can provide experts with tactical insights, particularly on corner kicks (football), through predictive and generative AI.
This AI tool can be used by football team managers as an assistant for tactics.
It has been incorporated both a predictive and generative component to allow coaches to effectively sample and explore alternative player setups for each corner kick, and to select those with the highest predicted likelihood of success.
It is developed by Google’s DeepMind.
Why specifically corners?
Corner kicks are apt for strategising by leveraging AI tools primarily because they are moments when the game is effectively frozen — and always starts from the same kind of position at the corner of the pitch while giving players an immediate opportunity to score.
Strategies for corners are usually also decided long before the players actually go on to the pitch, so that there is no confusion on match day.
What is a corner shot in football? A corner is awarded when the ball passes over the goal line after touching a player of the defending team.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/ai-in-football-corner-kicks-9297107/
Consider the following:
- Canada
- Russia
- Japan
- Germany
- Australia
How many of the above are part of Group of Seven (G7)?
Only three
Explanation :
Recently, G7 energy ministers discussed a possible time frame for phasing out coal-fired power plants.
It is an intergovernmental organisation of leading industrialised nations formed in 1975.
Member countries: Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom and the United State.
Apart from the 7 member countries, the European Union (EU) has also participated fully in the G7 since 1981 as a “non-enumerated” member.
It meets annually to discuss issues such as global economic governance, international security, and energy policy.
Presidency: The host of the G7 summit, also known as the presidency, rotates annually among member countries.
It was formerly referred to as the G-8 until Russia was suspended from the group in 2014 after annexing Crimea.
Some of the key principles of the G7 include
Democracy: G7 countries promote democratic values and institutions, including free and fair elections, the rule of law, and the protection of individual rights and freedoms.
Human rights: They support the protection and promotion of human rights around the world, including civil, political, economic, social, and cultural rights.
Free and fair trade: They are committed to promoting international trade and investment based on open, transparent, and non-discriminatory rules.
Environmental protection: They are committed to reducing greenhouse gas emissions, protecting biodiversity, and addressing other environmental challenges.
Peace and security: They are committed to promoting international peace and security, and to preventing and resolving conflicts through diplomatic means.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/g7-eyes-possible-end-date-for-coal-fired-power-plants/article68122404.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Global Leaders Group on Antimicrobial Resistance:
- It was established on the recommendation of the Interagency Coordination Group on Antimicrobial Resistance.
- India provides secretariat support for this Group.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the European Society for Clinical Microbiology and Infectious Diseases and the Global Leaders Group (GLG) on AMR jointly organised a high-level event, ‘Forging partnerships between science and policy’, in Barcelona, Spain.
It consists of world leaders and experts from across sectors working together to accelerate political action on antimicrobial resistance (AMR).
The group performs an independent global advisory and advocacy role and works to maintain urgency, public support, political momentum and visibility of the AMR challenge on the global health and development agenda.
Background
The Global Leaders Group on Antimicrobial Resistance was established in November 2020 following the recommendation of the Interagency Coordination Group (IACG) on Antimicrobial Resistance to strengthen global political momentum and leadership on AMR.
The inaugural meeting of the Group took place in 2021.
Secretariat support for this group is provided by the Quadripartite Joint Secretariat (QJS) on Antimicrobial Resistance, a joint effort by the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO), the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), the World Health Organization (WHO) and the World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH).
What is antimicrobial resistance (AMR)?
It is the ability of bacteria and other microbes to resist the drugs used to inhibit or kill them.
These microbes are sometimes referred to as ‘superbugs’ and are responsible for causing drug-resistant infections that are difficult to treat.
Causes of AMR
AMR is a naturally occurring phenomenon, the main cause of resistance to antimicrobials is antimicrobial drug use.
Current high usage of antimicrobial drugs in humans, animals and plants is leading to a concerning rise in drug-resistance and making infections harder to treat.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/health/high-level-event-on-amr-emphasises-prevention-approaches-to-tackle-pipeline-access-crisis-for-antibiotics-diagnostics-95870
Consider the following statements with reference to the Stand-By Arrangement of the International Monetary Fund (IMF):
- It provides short-term financial assistance to countries facing balance of payments problems.
- It is available for both emerging as well as low-income countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The International Monetary Fund has approved an immediate disbursal of USD 1.1 billion to Pakistan as part of a bailout package supported by the IMF’s Stand-By Arrangement (SBA).
The Stand-by Arrangement (SBA) provides short-term financial assistance to countries facing balance of payments problems.
Historically, it has been the IMF lending instrument most used by advanced and emerging market countries.
Eligibility: All member countries facing actual or potential external financing needs. Most often used by advanced and emerging market countries, but low-income countries sometimes use the SBA together with the Standby Credit Facility (SCF).
Conditionality
Countries’ economic policies must address the problems that led the country to seek funding.
Disbursements conditional on the observance of quantitative performance criteria.
Progress in implementing structural measures that are critical to achieving the objectives of the program is assessed in a holistic way, including via benchmarks.
Duration of loan: Flexible. Typically covers a period of 12–24 months, but not more than 36 months.
Key facts about IMF
It fosters economic growth and employment by providing temporary financial assistance to countries to help ease the balance of payments adjustment and technical assistance.
Foundation: Formed in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference with the goal of reconstructing the international monetary system.
Important Reports: World Economic Outlook and Global Financial Stability Report
Headquarters: Washington, DC, USA
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/imf-approves-immediate-disbursal-of-usd-11-billion-loan-tranche-to-pakistan/article68122780.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Horticulture Cluster Development Program (CDP):
- It was launched by the Union Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying.
- It aims to enhance the global competitiveness of the Indian horticulture sector.
- National Horticulture Board has been designated as the Nodal Agency for its implementation.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Explanation:
The government has come up with a new platform to disburse subsidies to horticulture farmers under the Cluster Development Programme (CDP): the Centre’s initiative to promote horticulture crops. The platform is known as CDP-SURAKSHA.
The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare (MoA&FW), has launched a new programme for Horticulture Cluster Development. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The programme aims to enhance the global competitiveness of the Indian horticulture sector. So, statement 2 is correct.
The National Horticulture Board has been designated as the Nodal Agency for implementation of Cluster Development Programme as a component of Central Sector Scheme of NHB. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the curative petition:
- It is filed by a party seeking reconsideration of a Supreme Court judgment in cases of gross miscarriage of justice.
2 It is the last constitutional remedy available to a person whose review petition has been dismissed by the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
While hearing a curative petition, the Supreme Court has overturned its own decision from 2021 about a case involving the Delhi Metro Rail Corporation (DMRC) and Delhi Airport Metro Express Private Limited (DAMEPL).
A Curative Petition is a special remedy available in the Indian legal system to correct gross miscarriage of justice or violation of principles of natural justice that may have occurred due to an apparent error in the Supreme Court’s judgment. So, statement 1 is correct.
Curative petition is the last constitutional remedy available to a person whose review petition has been dismissed by the Supreme Court. So, statement 2 is correct.
Though the Constitution explicitly speaks about the review power of the Supreme Court under Article 137, it is silent about ‘curative power’.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to the mercenary spyware?
It is developed and sold by private companies to governments and other entities for surveillance purposes
Explanation :
Apple recently sent out warnings to iPhone users in India and 91 other countries. The company informed users saying that their iPhones might be under attack by a type of spyware called mercenary spyware, including one called Pegasus.
In October 2023, they sent similar warnings to politicians from different parties in India, suggesting a possible state-sponsored spyware attack on their iPhones. However, Apple later said they could not pinpoint any specific attacker.
Mercenary spyware refers to spyware developed and sold by private companies, often known as “cyber arms dealers,” to governments, intelligence agencies or other entities.
These spyware tools are used for surveillance purposes and are typically highly sophisticated, capable of infiltrating and monitoring electronic devices such as smartphones, computers, and networks.
The use of mercenary spyware has raised concerns about privacy violations, human rights abuses, and the potential for misuse by authoritarian regimes.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the PSLV Orbital Experimental Module-3 (POEM-3):
- It has been developed by the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC).
- It was launched as part of the PSLV-C58/XPoSat mission.
- It was designed to safely re-enter Earth’s atmosphere after completing its mission.
- The last stage of the rocket has been turned into a space station.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All four
Explanation :
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) launched a mission called PSLV-C58/XPoSat and made sure it left no debris in space. It did this by turning the last stage of the rocket into a small space station called POEM-3 (PSLV Orbital Experimental Module-3). So, statement 4 is correct.
Instead of leaving it to float in space, they let it come back into the Earth’s atmosphere after the mission was completed.
It has been developed by the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) as an inexpensive space platform. So, statement 1 is correct.
The PSLV Orbital Experimental Module-3 (POEM-3) is a spacecraft that was launched as part of the PSLV-C58/XPoSat mission. So, statement 2 is correct.
The POEM-3 was designed to safely re-enter Earth’s atmosphere after completing its mission, leaving no debris behind. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following pairs:
Index
Ministries Responsible
Explanation :
Explanation:
Growth in India’s industrial output accelerated to 5.7 percent in February, according to data released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
Also, India’s consumer price index (CPI)-based inflation rate eased to 4.85% in March from 5.09% in February. However, it remained well above the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI’s) 4 per cent target.
Whole Sale Price Index (WPI) - Ministry of Commerce and Industries
Consumer Price Index (CPI) - Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
Index of Industrial Production (IIP) - Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL) - Labour Bureau in the Ministry of Labour & Employment
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
What are volcanic vortex rings?
Circular structure of hot gases and ash expelled from a volcano’s vent in the crater during an eruption
Explanation :
Mount Etna, the largest volcano in Europe, and among the world’s most active and iconic volcanoes, has been sending up almost perfect rings of smoke into the air. The rings are a rare phenomenon that scientists refer to as volcanic vortex rings.
Volcanic vortex rings, also known as volcanic smoke rings or volcanic toroidal vortices, are circular or vortex-like structures of hot gases and ash expelled from a volcano’s vent in the crater during an eruption.
These rings are formed when a burst of gas and ash from the volcano’s crater creates a spinning motion, resulting in the formation of a coherent ring-shaped structure.
Volcanic vortex rings are a fascinating phenomenon observed during explosive volcanic eruptions and have been captured in photographs and videos by scientists and observers.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
The term ‘climate change jurisprudence’, sometimes seen in the news, refers to:
legal principles and precedents related to climate change and environmental law
Explanation :
In a recent judgment, the Supreme Court ruled that citizens have a right against the adverse effects of climate change. The court was deciding on a case about how solar power lines were causing many Great Indian Bustards (GIBs) to die.
This raised worries because India promised to cut down on harmful emissions and use more clean energy, like solar power.
Climate change jurisprudence refers to the body of legal principles, precedents and case law that address issues related to climate change and environmental law.
It encompasses the interpretation and application of existing laws and regulations to address the challenges posed by climate change, as well as the development of new legal frameworks and mechanisms to mitigate greenhouse gas emissions, protect natural resources, and adapt to the impacts of climate change.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
The Operation Meghdoot, was launched by India to:
secure the Siachen Glacier region in Jammu and Kashmir
Explanation :
A plan that has been waiting for a long time to create a new Army division for possible deployment of troops to eastern Ladakh might happen this year. This is part of some changes being made for Jammu and Kashmir (J&K) and the Ladakh area.
This is significant as India is commemorating the 40th year of Operation Meghdoot, under which it took control of the Siachen Glacier.
Operation Meghdoot was launched by the Indian Army in April 1984, to secure control over the strategically important Siachen Glacier region in the Jammu and Kashmir.
The operation aimed to preempt Pakistani attempts to occupy key positions along the glacier and establish control over the region.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements :
- According to the Constitution of India, a candidate participating in the election to the Lok Sabha must be the citizen of India.
- The Representation of the People Act, 1951, lays down that candidates for the Lok Sabha should be enrolled as electors, from that constituency in which he/she is contesting election.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Union Minister for Women and Child Development Smriti Irani recently became an elector from her Lok Sabha constituency, Amethi.
It should be noted that a candidate is not required to be a voter or a resident of a constituency from where he or she is contesting under election rules.
As per Article 84 of the Constitution, both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha candidates must be citizens of India. So, statement 1 is correct.
While for the Lok Sabha, they need to be at least 25 years of age, the minimum age limit for the Upper House is 30.
The Representation of the People Act, 1951, lays down that candidates for the Lok Sabha should be enrolled as electors, from any constituency. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following pairs:
Phenomena
Impact
All four pairs
Explanation :
India is likely to experience an “above normal” monsoon rainfall between June and September this year. This was predicted by the India Meteorological Department (IMD) in its long-range forecast.
This is the first time in a decade that the IMD has predicted “above normal” rainfall at the first stage itself, nearly 45 days ahead of the beginning of the four-month monsoon season.
El Nino:
A warming of the ocean surface, or above-average sea surface temperatures (SST), in the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean.
It is associated with lower than normal monsoon rainfall in India.
La Nina:
A cooling of the ocean surface, or below-average SSTs, in the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean.
It is associated with a comparatively better monsoon rainfall in India.
A ‘positive IOD’ — or simply ‘IOD’ — is associated with cooler than normal sea-surface temperatures in the eastern equatorial Indian Ocean and warmer than normal sea-surface temperatures in the western tropical Indian Ocean.
The opposite phenomenon is called a ‘negative IOD’, and is characterised by warmer than normal SSTs in the eastern equatorial Indian Ocean and cooler than normal SSTs in the western tropical Indian Ocean.
Consider the following statements with reference to the European Court of Human Rights (ECHR):
- It is an institution of the European Union (EU) responsible for adjudicating cases related to human rights violations within EU member states.
- Individuals can directly file petition to the ECHR if they believe their human rights have been violated by a state party to the ECHR.
- The decisions of the ECHR are binding on all member states of the Council of Europe which have ratified the European Convention on Human Rights
How many of the above statements are correctly matched?
Only one
Explanation :
Recently, Europe’s highest human rights court sided with a group of 2,000 Swiss women. These women had sued their government for violating their human rights by failing to do enough to combat the adverse effects of climate change.
The landmark ruling by the European Court of Human Rights (ECHR) might change how courts in Europe and other places handle cases where people say climate change hurts their rights.
This is significant as the verdict has come just days after the Supreme Court of India expanded the scope of Articles 14 (right to equality) and 21 (protection of life and personal liberty). SC said that people have a right to be free from the adverse effects of climate change.
The European Court of Human Rights (ECHR) is not an institution of the European Union. It is an international court established by the European Convention on Human Rights (ECHR), which is separate from the EU. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The ECHR is based in Strasbourg, France and operates independently of the European Union’s institutions.
Individuals can submit applications to the ECHR only after exhausting all domestic remedies in the member state where the alleged human rights violation occurred. They cannot directly petition the court without first pursuing legal avenues within their own country. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The decisions of the ECHR are binding on all member states of the Council of Europe, which have ratified the European Convention on Human Rights. Countries found to have violated human rights must comply with the court’s rulings. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Maoism and left-wing extremism:
- Maoism is a political and social theory that emphasises armed struggle, peasant revolution, and the establishment of a classless society through protracted people’s war.
- Left-wing extremism refers to political ideologies and movements that advocate for radical social and economic change through violent means, often targeting government institutions, infrastructure, and security forces.
- Left-wing extremism is a phenomenon limited to developing countries and has no relevance in advanced industrialized nations with stable democratic institutions.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Maoism is indeed a political and social theory based on the teachings of Mao Zedong, emphasizing armed struggle, peasant revolution, and the establishment of a classless society through protracted people’s war. So, statement 1 is correct.
Left-wing extremism does advocate for radical social and economic change through violent means, often targeting government institutions, infrastructure, and security forces.So, statement 2 is correct.
Left-wing extremism is not limited to developing countries; it has also manifested in advanced industrialized nations with stable democratic institutions, though to varying degrees. Examples include movements such as the Red Brigades in Italy and the Baader-Meinhof Group in Germany.So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Model Code of Conduct (MCC):
- It is a set of guidelines by the Election Commission of India that spells out how political parties and candidates must conduct themselves during the election campaign and polling.
- It has statutory backing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, some Opposition leaders’ helicopters have been in the news as they have been searched by authorities in the last few days.
The Opposition has alleged that these searches were conducted at the behest of the Centre to harass them.
However, officials in the Election Commission (EC) say they have been carried out in accordance with the poll panel’s standard instructions. It was aimed at preventing the transport of cash and freebies via airfields and helipads since the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) has been in force.
The MCC is a set of guidelines by the Election Commission of India that spells out how political parties and candidates must conduct themselves during the election campaign and polling. So, statement 1 is correct.
It is a set of norms which has evolved with the consensus of political parties.
Though the MCC has no statutory backing, it has grown in strength as a result of the ECI’s strict enforcement since its implementation in the 1990s. So, statement 2 is not correct.
It aims to ensure free and fair elections by promoting a level playing field and preventing unfair practices.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the National Green Tribunal (NGT):
- It is a constitutional body.
- Its chairperson is a retired judge of the High Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The Sikkim government has informed the National Green Tribunal (NGT) that more than usual heavy rainfall — possibly a cloudburst — had preceded the glacial lake outburst flood (GLOF) event in the South Lhonak lake.
The state government has based its conclusion on a report by the North East Space Application Centre (NESAC).
The National Green Tribunal has been established in October 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010. Hence, NGT is a statutory body. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The Chairperson of the NGT is a retired Judge of the Supreme Court, Headquartered in Delhi. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- The amplification of heat waves in urban areas is primarily attributed to the heat island effect.
- Heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C or more for plains and at least 30°C or more for hilly regions.
- The prevalence of heat waves in India is influenced by the displacement of air masses caused by the Tibetan Plateau.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Every summer, we’re used to getting heat alerts from the India Meteorological Department (IMD) for different parts of India. But this year, the alerts started as early as February.
Some areas in the northeast and western India have already experienced much warmer temperatures even before summer officially began.
The IMD also says that the maximum temperature will increase, and heatwave conditions will happen more often in the coming days over eastern and southern India. This raises concerns about whether India is ready to deal with this danger.
The heat island effect is a significant factor in amplifying heat waves in urban areas, as concrete structures and paved surfaces absorb and retain heat, contributing to higher temperatures. So, statement 1 is correct.
Heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C or more for Plains and at least 30°C or more for Hilly regions. So, statement 2 is correct.
Based on Departure from Normal Heat Wave: Departure from normal is 4.50°C to 6.40°C.
Severe Heat Wave: Departure from normal is >6.40°C.
Based on Actual Maximum Temperature Heat Wave: When actual maximum temperature ≥45°C.
Severe Heat Wave: When actual maximum temperature ≥47°C.
The displacement of air masses by the Tibetan Plateau can inhibit the northward movement of cooler air, resulting in the accumulation of hot, dry air over the Indian plains, contributing to the occurrence of heat waves. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer
Consider the following statements with reference to the earthquake:
- It is caused by the sudden release of energy in the Earth’s crust, resulting in the generation of seismic waves.
- The point within the Earth where an earthquake originates is called the epicenter.
- The Richter scale measures the intensity of an earthquake based on the amount of energy released.
- The P-waves arrive at a seismic station before S-waves.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Explanation:
Taiwan was hit by a 7.2 magnitude earthquake, the strongest in the last 25 years.
Taiwan is prone to earthquakes as it lies along the Pacific “Ring of Fire” — where 90% of the world’s earthquakes take place.
Earthquakes are caused by the sudden release of energy in the Earth’s crust, resulting in the generation of seismic waves that propagate outward from the point of origin.So, statement 1 is correct.
The point within the Earth where an earthquake originates is called the focus or hypocenter, while the epicenter is the point on the Earth’s surface directly above the focus. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Richter scale measures the magnitude of an earthquake, not the intensity, and it is based on the logarithm of the amplitude of seismic waves recorded. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Earthquake waves include primary (P-waves) and secondary (S-waves), with P-waves being faster and arriving at a seismic station before S-waves. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Glacial Lake Outburst Flood (GLOF):
- It is a sudden release of water from glaciers often triggered by their rapid melting due to climate change.
- It primarily occur in regions with high levels of seismic activity.
- Its impact is limited to the immediate vicinity of the glacier or glacial lake.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation:
The Uttarakhand government has constituted two teams of experts to evaluate the risk posed by five potentially hazardous glacial lakes in the region.
These lakes are prone to Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs). These events have resulted in several disasters in the Himalayan states in recent years.
Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs) are indeed sudden releases of water from glaciers or glacial lakes, often triggered by the rapid melting of glaciers due to climate change or other factors. So, statement 1 is correct.
While GLOFs can occur in regions with seismic activity, they are primarily associated with glacial processes and not seismic events. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The impacts of GLOFs can extend far beyond the immediate vicinity of the glacier or glacial lake, affecting downstream areas with destructive floods, debris flows, and sediment transport. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the dark energy:
- It is a hypothetical form of energy that permeates all of space and drives the accelerated expansion of the universe.
- It is gravitationally repulsive within the volume it occupies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
An international team of researchers has released the most comprehensive “three-dimensional” map of the universe. Scientists hope that this development could reveal some clues about dark energy.
Dark energy is not a form of matter; rather, it is a hypothetical form of energy that permeates all of space and drives the accelerated expansion of the universe. It cannot be directly observed, but its presence is inferred from cosmological observations. So, statement 1 is correct.
Dark energy, in contrast to both forms of matter (ordinary matter & Dark matter), is relatively uniform in time and space.
It is gravitationally repulsive, not attractive, within the volume it occupies. The nature of dark energy is still not well understood. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Exchange Traded Derivatives (ETDs):
- They are financial instruments that derive their value from an underlying assets like stocks.
- Unlike over-the-counter (OTC) derivatives, ETDs are traded on organized exchanges like stock exchanges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
RBI has deferred the implementation of its new norms for exchange traded currency derivatives (ETCD) market to May 3 from April 5.
This comes after market participants raised concerns over participation in the ETCD market. As the April 5 deadline approached, there was a sharp rise in volatility in the forex market.
Exchange Traded Derivatives (ETDs) are financial instruments whose value is derived from an underlying asset, which can include stocks, bonds, commodities, or market indices. So, statement 1 is correct.
ETDs are traded on organized exchanges, such as stock exchanges or futures exchanges, where standardized contracts are bought and sold in a regulated marketplace. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following States/UT:
- Ladakh
- Himachal Pradesh
- Uttarakhand
- Arunachal Pradesh
How many of the above share their boundary with China?
All four
Explanation:
India rejected as senseless China renaming of some places in Arunachal Pradesh. It said that assigning invented names does not alter the reality that the state “is, has been, and will always be” an integral part of India.
India’s sharp response came after the Chinese government announced names for 30 more places in Arunachal Pradesh which it claims as the southern part of Tibet.
Five Indian states/UT share a 3,488 km border with China:
Ladakh: 1,597 km
Himachal Pradesh: 200 km
Uttarakhand: 345 km
Sikkim: 220 km
Arunachal Pradesh: 1,126 km
Consider the following pairs:
Sl. No.
Type of Missile
Speed
Explanation :
As per the Ukraine’s military administration, Russia has used five of its new hypersonic Zircon missiles to attack Kyiv since the start of the year.
Russia also fired 11 Kinzhal missiles, another hypersonic weapon which travels at several times the speed of sound.
A supersonic missile travels at the speed between Mach 1 and Mach 5.
A hypersonic missile travels at speeds of Mach 5 and higher
A subsonic missile travels at a speed of less than 1 Mach.
Consider the following statements with reference to the India Meteorological Department (IMD):
- It is the national meteorological service of India, responsible for providing weather forecasts.
- It is equipped with surface weather stations, upper air observatories and radar installations.
- It hs a a mandate to monitor seismic activity, oceanography and atmospheric pollution.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation:
The India Meteorological Department (IMD) predicts that many parts of the country will have a hot and dry summer from April to June. There is a strong chance of heatwaves lasting for 10 to 20 days during this time.
The India Meteorological Department (IMD) is the national meteorological service of India, responsible for providing weather forecasts, warnings, and advisories to various sectors and the general public. So, statement 1 is correct.
IMD is equipped with a network of weather observation stations across India, including surface weather stations and upper air observatories. IMD is now equipped with 39 radars across the country. So, statement 2 is correct.
While IMD primarily focuses on weather forecasting and related services, it does not have a mandate for monitoring seismic activity, oceanography, or atmospheric pollution. These areas are typically overseen by separate government agencies and research institutions. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Nuclear Energy Summit:
- It was launched under the auspices of the ‘Atoms4Netzero’ programme.
- It is part of the multilateral approach to decarbonization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Brussels held a unique Nuclear Energy Summit, considered the biggest international gathering on nuclear energy.
Representatives from 30 countries, including some heads of state, attended. This meeting is part of recent efforts to promote nuclear energy as a solution to climate change and energy security.
Nuclear Energy Summit is an initiative in collaboration with the IAEA’s ‘Atoms4Netzero’ programme. So, statement 1 is correct.
Atoms4NetZero is an IAEA initiative that supports efforts by Member States to harness the power of nuclear energy in the transition to net zero.
Launched during COP27, this initiative provides decision makers with data-driven energy scenario modelling.
It is part of the multilateral approach to decarbonisation. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI):
- It is an international organization that works to promote and strengthen national human rights institutions (NHRIs) worldwide.
- GANHRI is affiliated to the UN High Commissioner for Human Rights.
- Membership in GANHRI is open only to government-appointed national human rights institutions.
- Its primary objective is to enforce compliance with international human rights treaties and conventions.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is preparing to defend the its human rights processes at a meeting to be held in Geneva. In this meeting a decision on whether India’s human rights body will retain its “A status” is expected to be made.
The meeting of the Sub-Committee on Accreditation (SCA) of the UN-recognised Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI) is to be held on May 1.
GANHRI is an international organization that works to promote and strengthen national human rights institutions (NHRIs) worldwide. It provides a platform for NHRIs to exchange knowledge, share best practices, and collaborate on human rights issues. So, statement 1 is correct.
GANHRI is an organisation affiliated to the UN High Commissioner for Human Rights. It is a global network of national human rights institutions (NHRIs) that works to promote and protect human rights. So, statement 2 is correct.
Membership in GANHRI is open to all NHRIs, regardless of whether they are government-appointed or independent institutions. Additionally, GANHRI welcomes participation from civil society organizations, human rights defenders, and other stakeholders in its activities and initiatives. So, statement 3 is not correct.
While GANHRI supports NHRIs in their efforts to promote and protect human rights, its primary objective is not to monitor and enforce compliance with international human rights treaties and conventions. Instead, it focuses on capacity-building, advocacy, and networking activities. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian Coast Guard (ICG);
- It is the non-statutory body created to protect India’s maritime and national interests.
- It operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) seized 86 kg of suspected heroin from a Pakistani boat, which was on its way to Sri Lanka via Tamil Nadu.
The ICG is a maritime armed force and search and rescue agency that protects India’s maritime and national interests. It was started on 1 February 1977 and formally established in August 1978 by the Coast Guard Act, 1978 of the Parliament of India. So, statement 1 is not correct.
It operates under the Ministry of Defence. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the forest fires:
- They are often triggered by natural factors such as lightning strikes or human activities like campfires.
- They can spread rapidly, fueled by high temperatures, low humidity and strong winds.
- Their increased intensity and duration worldwide has been linked to the climate change.
How many of the above statements re correct?
All three
Explanation :
A massive fire is spreading through the forests near Nainital in Uttarakhand leading to the deployment of Indian Air Force personnel and Mi-17 choppers in an effort to quell the raging fire.
Forest fires, also known as wildfires, are indeed uncontrolled fires that occur in forested areas, grasslands, or other vegetation-rich areas, often ignited by natural causes such as lightning or human activities like campfires. So, statement 1 is correct.
Wildfires have the potential to spread rapidly, especially under conditions of dry vegetation, high temperatures, low humidity, and strong winds. They pose significant risks to human lives, property, wildlife, and the environment. So, statement 2 is correct.
Climate change has been identified as a contributing factor to the increase in the frequency, intensity, and duration of forest fires worldwide. Rising temperatures, changing precipitation patterns, and prolonged droughts create more favorable conditions for wildfires to ignite and spread. So, statement 3 is correct.
A government agency is tasked with monitoring changes in land use and land cover regarding vegetation in a rapidly urbanizing region to inform urban planning and environmental management decisions.
Which of the following remote sensing techniques would be most suitable for addressing the agency’s needs in this scenario?
Hyperspectral imaging for identifying specific vegetation types and monitoring urban green spaces.
Explanation :
Recently, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) released satellite-data-based analysis on expansion of glacial lakes in the catchments of Indian Himalayan River basins.
This is the latest among a series of studies on glacial lakes that have highlighted the risks of glacial lake outburst floods (GLOFs) and their impact on infrastructure and settlements downstream of such lakes.
LiDAR is primarily used for generating high-resolution topographic maps, assessing elevation changes and characterizing land surface features such as forests, rivers, and buildings. While it could provide valuable information for urban planning, it may not be the most suitable choice for monitoring changes in land use and land cover.
Hyperspectral imaging is well-suited for identifying specific vegetation types and monitoring urban green spaces by capturing detailed spectral signatures of vegetation. It can distinguish between different types of vegetation, detect stress levels, and assess the health and density of vegetation cover, making it an ideal choice for monitoring changes in land use and land cover in urban areas.
Synthetic Aperture Radar is effective for mapping surface features, detecting changes in surface elevation, and monitoring land deformation. While it can provide valuable information about urban infrastructure, it may not be as effective as hyperspectral imaging for identifying specific vegetation types and monitoring green spaces.
Multispectral imaging is commonly used for monitoring environmental parameters such as land cover, vegetation health, and water quality. While it could be useful for monitoring urban environments, it may not offer the same level of detail and specificity as hyperspectral imaging for identifying specific vegetation types in urban areas.
Consider the following pairs:
Components of Bima Trinity
Function
All three
Explanation :
The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has proposed to price Bima Vistaar at Rs 1,500 per policy.
Bima Vistaar is an ambitious all-in-one affordable mass product aimed at the rural areas of the country.
Bima Sugam - An online marketplace that allows customers to compare and purchase policies, settle claims and renew policies.
Bima Vahak - A women-centric workforce operating at the Gram Sabha level to educate and convince women about the benefits of comprehensive insurance, particularly Bima Vistaar.
Bima Vistaar
It is a bundled policy that covers life, health, property and accidents.
It provides defined benefits for each risk category, ensuring quick claim payouts without surveyors.
As a social safety net product, Bima Vistaar targets the untapped geographies.
What is the primary purpose of bathymetry?
Mapping and measuring the depth of underwater terrain
Explanation :
Recently, a study of the Indian Ocean floor or the bathymetry undertaken by scientists of the Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS).
The study – ‘Impact of bathymetry on Indian Ocean circulation in a nested regional ocean model’ was published in Scientific Reports journal in the latest issue.
Bathymetry is the study and measurement of underwater depth, topography and terrain. Its primary purpose is to map and measure the depth of oceans, seas, lakes, rivers and other bodies of water, providing crucial information for navigation, marine exploration, resource management and coastal zone management.
A telecommunications company is planning to deploy a 5G technology to provide high-speed internet connectivity to remote rural areas with limited infrastructure. They need to select the most suitable frequency band for this purpose.
Which frequency band would be most appropriate for the telecommunications company’s objective in this scenario?
Microwave band
Explanation :
The Union government has moved an application for a certain class of spectrum to be allocated through administrative processes instead of competitive auctions. This development comes after the Supreme Court, in 2012, had canceled 122 telecom licenses due to the 2G spectrum scam.
Spectrum considered to be a scarce natural resource was ordered by the top Court to be allocated through the fair and impartial process of auction.
An administrative allocation would mean that the government will have the final say in deciding the procedure for selecting operators.
Ultra High Frequency (UHF) band is commonly used for television broadcasting, radio communication and mobile telephony. However, it may not be the most suitable choice for providing high-speed internet connectivity to remote rural areas due to limited range and penetration capabilities.
Very High Frequency (VHF) band is often used for FM radio broadcasting, television broadcasting, and maritime communication. While VHF signals can propagate over long distances, they may not offer the desired bandwidth or data transmission rates required for high-speed internet connectivity.
Super High Frequency (SHF) band is used for satellite communication, radar systems, and terrestrial microwave communication. While SHF frequencies offer high data transmission rates, they may require more complex equipment and infrastructure compared to microwave bands.
Microwave band is well-suited for wireless communication over long distances and is commonly used for point-to-point communication links, satellite communication and microwave backhaul networks. It offers high bandwidth and data transmission rates, making it an ideal choice for providing high-speed internet connectivity to remote rural areas.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP):
- NCAP has been launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
- It was originally launched to improve air quality in certain cities across India by reducing particulate matter (PM) concentrations by 20-30% in next five years.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2 only
Explanation :
When the Indian govt launched the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) in 2019, it was to cut the concentration of atmospheric Particulate Matter (PM) by 20-30% by 2024, from 2017 levels. This was later revised to 40% by 2026.
The NCAP was launched with the primary objective of improving air quality in 102 cities across the country by reducing particulate matter (PM) concentrations by 20-30% in the next five years. So, statement 2 is correct.
NCAP has been launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change. So, statement 1 is not correct.
What does Article 244(A) of the Indian Constitution relate to?
Allowing Parliament to create an autonomous region within Assam
Explanation :
In the tribal-dominated Diphu Lok Sabha constituency in Assam candidates from all political parties have pledged to put into action Article 244(A) of the Constitution.
Article 244(A) aims to establish an autonomous region, almost like a separate government within the state.
244A: Formation of an autonomous State comprising certain tribal areas in Assam and creation of local Legislature or Council of Ministers or both.
The Constitution (Twenty-second Amendment) Act of 1969 introduced Article 244(A).
This region could include certain tribal areas like Karbi Anglong.
Where is the geographical location of Rwanda?
Central Africa
Explanation :
The UK parliament has finally passed a bill that will allow the government to send asylum seekers to Rwanda for their claims to be considered.
Rwanda is located in Central Africa. It is bordered by Uganda to the north, Tanzania to the east, Burundi to the south and the Democratic Republic of the Congo to the west.
Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban (PMAY-U):
- PMAY-U is being implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice.
- The primary objective of PMAY-U was to provide affordable housing to all urban poor households by the year 2022.
- PMAY-U aims to create sustainable and inclusive urban development by promoting the use of eco-friendly construction materials and technologies.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correctly matched?
Only two
Explanation :
One of the flagship programmes of the current Union Government was Housing For All (HfA) by 2022, both in urban and rural areas, planned under the PMAY (Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana) scheme in 2015.
Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban (PMAY-U) was indeed launched by the Government of India in 2015 to address the housing needs of the urban poor.
It is being implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). So, statement 1 is not correct.
The primary objective of PMAY-U is to provide affordable housing to all eligible urban poor households by the year 2022, with a focus on inclusive and sustainable development. So, statement 2 is correct.
PMAY-U aims to create sustainable and inclusive urban development by promoting the use of eco-friendly construction materials and technologies, as well as by encouraging the participation of stakeholders in the housing sector. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA):
- UNEA was created in 2012, as an outcome of the UN Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+20), held in Brazil.
- Headquartered in Nairobi, UNEA is the world’s highest-level decision-making body on the environment.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Global leaders will gather in Canada’s capital -Ottawa - to discuss progress in drafting a first-ever global treaty to rein in soaring plastic pollution by the end of the year. This treaty is expected to be finalized by the end of year.
If negotiated and agreed upon by members, this treaty could be the most significant deal relating to climate-warming emissions and environmental protection since the 2015 Paris Agreement.
About: UNEA is the world’s highest-level decision-making body on the environment. It gathers ministers of environment in Nairobi, Kenya every 2 years. So, statement 2 is correct.
Creation
UNEA was created in 2012, as an outcome of the UN Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+20), held in Brazil. So, statement 1 is correct.
Function
UNEA sets the global environmental agenda, provides overarching policy guidance and defines policy responses to address emerging environmental challenges.
A research team is exploring the potential applications of Large Language Models (LLMs) in Natural Language Processing (NLP) tasks. Which of the following tasks is most suitable?
Generating human-like responses in conversational chat-bots
Explanation :
Meta has introduced its most capable Large Language Model (LLM), the Meta Llama 3. It also introduced an image generator, which updates pictures in real-time even as the user types out the prompt.
Large Language Models (LLMs) excel at understanding and generating natural language text. In the context of Natural Language Processing (NLP), they can be effectively utilized for tasks such as text generation, summarization, translation and sentiment analysis.
Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the phenomenon of coral bleaching?
Coral colonies in a reef ecosystem lose their vibrant colors and become pale or white due to stress-induced expulsion of symbiotic algae.
Explanation :
As per the US National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), the fourth global mass coral bleaching event has been triggered by extraordinary ocean temperatures.
Coral bleaching occurs when corals expel the symbiotic algae (zooxanthellae) living within their tissues due to environmental stress, such as high water temperatures, pollution, or changes in water chemistry.
The loss of these algae causes the corals to lose their vibrant colors, appearing pale or white.
Consider the following statements regarding the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY):
- AB-PMJAY aims to provide health insurance coverage to all citizens of India.
- The scheme provides coverage for hospitalization expenses up to ₹5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary care procedures.
- AB-PMJAY primarily focuses on preventive healthcare measures to reduce the burden of non-communicable diseases.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correctly matched?
Only one
Explanation :
While releasing its election manifesto for the 2024 Lok Sabha elections, a prominent political party promised to expand its Ayushman Bharat Health Insurance scheme to cover senior citizens.
AB PMJAY targets economically vulnerable families based on specific socio-economic criteria, rather than providing coverage to all citizens of India indiscriminately. So, statement 1 is not correct.
AB-PMJAY provides coverage for hospitalization expenses up to ₹5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary care procedures, making it one of the largest health insurance schemes globally. So, statement 2 is correct.
While AB PMJAY aims to provide financial protection against healthcare expenses, its primary focus is on curative healthcare services rather than preventive measures. So, statement 3 is not correct.
With reference to the President of India, consider the following statements:
- The President of India is a part of the Parliament.
- She/ he has the power to nominate 6 members to the Rajya Sabha.
- She/ he is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed Forces.
How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Indian Parliament comprises of the President and the two Houses - Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and Lok Sabha (House of the People). So, Statement 1 is correct.
The President of India has the power to nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha who have made extraordinary accomplishments in the fields of science, art, literature and social service etc. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The President of India is the commander in chief of all the Indian armed forces. So, Statement 3 is correct.
With reference to Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO), consider the following statements:
- DRDO is a statutory body.
- It functions under the administration of Ministry of Defence.
- The headquarters of the DRDO is located in Bangalore.
How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
DRDO was formed in 1958 by the merger of the Technical Development Establishment and the Directorate of Technical Development and Production of the Indian Ordnance Factories with the Defence Science Organization. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Subsequently, Defence Research & Development Service (DRDS) was constituted in 1979 as a service of Group ‘A’ Officers / Scientists directly under the administrative control of Ministry of Defence.
It functions under the administration of Ministry of Defence. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The headquarters of the DRDO is located in New Delhi. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
With reference to National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC), consider the following statements:
- NAAC is a statutory body.
- Headquarters of NAAC is located in Bengaluru.
- Region-wise, northern states have the highest number of accredited universities in India.
How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
NAAC is an autonomous body established by the University Grants Commission (UGC). So, statement 1 is not correct.
It was established in 1994 on the basis of recommendations made under the National Education Policy (1986).
It is registered under the Karnataka Societies Registration Act of 1960, Karnataka Societies Registration Rules of 1961.
Headquarters of NAAC is located in Bengaluru. So, statement 2 is correct.
Region-wise, the northern states have the highest number of accredited universities, followed by the south, the west, the east and the Northeast. So, statement 3 is correct.
With reference to elections in the US, consider the following statements:
- There is no centralized election management body in USA.
- There is no limit on the number of times a President can be re-elected in USA.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
In USA, there is no centralized election management body like the Election Commission in India. So, Statement 1 is correct
The US has two federal bodies – the Federal Election Commission (FEC) and the US Election Assistance Commission (EAC) – but both of them together do not add up to anything as powerful or effective as the Election Commission in India.
All 50 states, and within these, more than 3000 counties have different management bodies.
The President of the USA can be in power for a maximum of two terms of four years each. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Which of the following is the correct order of phases of spread of a disease?
Epidemic – Pandemic – Endemic
Explanation :
An EPIDEMIC is a disease that affects a large number of people within a community, population, or region at a particular time.
A PANDEMIC is an epidemic that’s spread over multiple countries or continents.
A disease outbreak is ENDEMIC when it is consistently present but limited to a particular region. This makes the disease spread and rates predictable.
With reference to Asian Development Bank (ADB), consider the following statements:
- ADB is a regional development bank established in 1948.
- The headquarters of the ADB is located in Jakarta, Indonesia.
- India is a founding member.
How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a regional development bank established in December 1966. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Its primary mission is to “foster economic growth and cooperation” among countries in the Asia-Pacific Region.
The headquarters of the ADB is located in Manila, Philippines. So, statement 2 is not correct.
India is a founding member of ADB and the bank’s fourth largest shareholder. So, statement 3 is correct.
Which of the following statements with respect to the Vaikom Satyagraha is not correct?
Gandhi was finally able to iron out a compromise and Periyar agreed with Gandhi over the issue.
Explanation :
The Vaikom Satyagraha:
Vaikom, a temple town in the princely state of Travancore, saw the start of a non-violent agitation in 1924.
This was the first among temple entry movements and the issue of temple entry was first raised by Ezhava leader T K Madhavan in 1917.
Leaders such as Periyar and C Rajagopalachari came to Vaikom to offer support and lead the protesters.
In March 1925, Gandhi was finally able to iron out a compromise: three out of the four roads surrounding the temples were opened up for everyone, but the fourth (eastern) road was kept reserved for Brahmins. But the final compromise disappointed many. For example, Periyar disagreed with Gandhi over the issue.
‘South Asia Regional Update: Jobs for Resilience report’, which was in news recently, was published by
World Bank
Explanation :
The World Bank (WB) has warned in its ‘South Asia Regional Update: Jobs for Resilience report’ that the South Asia region including India was not making use of its demographic dividend. ‘South Asia Regional Update: Jobs for Resilience report’:
The latest edition of the World Bank’s bi-annual South Asia Development Update examines the region’s current economic landscape and provides a growth outlook.
It also explores how countries can sustain long-term growth and reduce climate risks by creating jobs and increasing private investment.
Trade Policy Forum (TPF) is a platform to resolve trade and investment issues between:
India and USA
Explanation :
US Trade Representative highlighted that sorting out World Trade Organisation (WTO) disputes with India is a win for the agriculture and rural communities in the US.
India-US Trade Policy Forum (TPF):
TPF is a platform to resolve trade and investment issues between the two countries.
It has five focus groups – Agriculture, Investment, Innovation and Creativity (intellectual property rights), Services and Tariff & Non-Tariff Barriers.
With reference to the added sugars, consider the following statements:
- Free sugar or added sugar is added separately to a food item during preparation or processing.
- It includes caloric sweeteners that are chemically manufactured but does not include natural sugars such as white sugar, brown sugar and honey.
- Low and middle-income countries are increasingly being exposed to free sugars with growing incomes and the proliferation of giant global food brands that mass produces their products.
How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
According to a recent report, leading food and beverage brand Nestlé’s products for babies in Asia, Africa and Latin America were found to contain added sugars, while the same products sold in Europe did not have it.
Free sugar or added sugar is added separately to a food item during preparation or processing. So, statement 1 is correct.
It can include natural sugars such as white sugar, brown sugar and honey, as well as other caloric sweeteners that are chemically manufactured (such as high fructose corn syrup). So, statement 2 is not correct.
Low and middle-income countries are increasingly being exposed to free sugars with growing incomes and the proliferation of giant global food brands that mass produce their products. So, statement 3 is correct.
With reference to the implementation of the Green Credit Programme (GCP), consider the following statements:
- Only companies can apply to the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) to pay to restore the forests.
- The actual afforestation will be carried out by State Forest departments.
- Five years after planting and following an evaluation by the ICFRE each such planted tree could be worth one ‘green credit.’
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Amid concerns that the GCP may encourage tree planting for financial gains, the Union Environment Ministry (MoEFCC) has issued guidelines that States must rely on to calculate what it would cost to restore a degraded forest landscape.
Individuals and companies both can apply to the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) - an autonomous body of the MoEFCC, to pay to restore these forests. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The actual afforestation will be carried out by State Forest departments. So, statement 2 is correct.
Two years after planting and following an evaluation by the ICFRE each such planted tree could be worth one ‘green credit.’ So, statement 3 is not correct.
With reference to the history of voting process in India, consider the following statements:
- In the first two general elections a separate box was placed for each candidate with their election symbol and voters had to drop a blank ballot paper into the box of the candidate whom they wanted to vote for.
- From the third election the ballot paper with names of candidates and their symbols was introduced with voters putting a stamp on the candidate of their choice.
- The electronic voting machine (EVM) was introduced on a trial basis in 1982 in the Assembly constituency of Paravur in Kerala.
How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court has decided to hear petitions seeking 100% cross-verification of the Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) slips with the vote count as per Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs).
In the first two general elections a separate box was placed for each candidate with their election symbol and voters had to drop a blank ballot paper into the box of the candidate whom they wanted to vote for. So, statement 1 is correct.
From the third election the ballot paper with names of candidates and their symbols was introduced with voters putting a stamp on the candidate of their choice. So, statement 2 is correct.
The electronic voting machine (EVM) was introduced on a trial basis in 1982 in the Assembly constituency of Paravur in Kerala. So, statement 3 is correct.
Kra Canal, which is to be built by Thailand, connects
The Gulf of Thailand with the Andaman Sea
Explanation :
The recent thrust on developing strategic infrastructure, both civilian and military, on the Andaman and Nicobar (A&N) islands is welcome and decades overdue.
Consider the following statements:
- Strait of Hormuz is a strait between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Aden.
- On strait of Hormuz’s north coast lies Iran and on the south coast lies the Musandam peninsula.
- The Musandam peninsula is shared by the United Arab Emirates (UAE) and the Musandam Governorate which is an exclave of Yemen.
How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Indian government sources confirmed that Iran’s Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps had seized a Nhava Sheva-bound ship (near strait of Hormuz) with 17 Indian nationals on board for its links with Israel.
The Strait of Hormuz is a strait between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman. So, statement 1 is not correct.
On its north coast lies Iran and on the south coast lies the Musandam peninsula. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Musandam peninsula is shared by the United Arab Emirates (UAE) and the Musandam Governorate which is an exclave of Oman. So, statement 3 is not correct.
