June 2024 Flashcards
Consider the following statements with reference to the interim bail:
- It is a short-term temporary relief to individuals entangled in legal proceedings before the hearing for the grant of regular or anticipatory bail.
- The period for interim bail cannot be extended at any cost.
- It can be granted if a clear case for custodial interrogation is not made out.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently chief minister of Delhi appeals for bail extension on medical grounds as interim period ends on 1st of June.
Why in News?
Supreme Court is likely to hear an application moved by Chief Minister of Delhi seeking interim bail for a week on medical grounds in a money laundering case related to the alleged excise scam.
About Interim Bail:
An interim bail is a short-term temporary relief to individuals entangled in legal proceedings before the hearing for the grant of regular or anticipatory bail.
The period for interim bail can be extended, but if the accused individual does not pay the court to confirm or extend the interim bail, they will lose their freedom and may end up in jail or face a warrant.
Grounds for Granting Interim Bail:
In the Parminder Singh and Ors. v. The State of Punjab (November 02, 2001) case, the Delhi High Court listed certain scenarios where interim bail should be granted which are as follows:
No likelihood of the accused fleeing from justice,
No chance of tampering with the evidence,
A clear case for custodial interrogation is not made out,
The application for a grant of anticipatory bail cannot be heard at an early date.”
Some common grounds:
In case the accused has a serious medical condition requiring urgent or specialized treatment.
After considering the humanitarian factors such as familial responsibilities, age, health of the family members.
If the investigation is taking an unreasonable amount of time despite his cooperation with authorities.
Related Case Laws:
Lal Kamlendra Pratap Singh vs. State of U.P.& Ors (March, 2009)
Sukhwant Singh vs. State of Punjab (May, 2009)
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/delhi/delhi-news-live-updates-arvind-kejriwal-bail-9364810/
Consider the following statements with reference to the World Health Assembly:
- It is the decision-making body of the United Nations.
- The Health Assembly is held annually in Geneva, Switzerland.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently at the 77th World Health Assembly, member states approved a draft resolution on improving organ transplantation availability, including human cells and tissues.
Why in news?
On 29 May 2024, Member States (with the initiation of Spain) approved a new resolution on increasing availability, ethical access and oversight of transplantation of human cells, tissues and organs.
About the draft resolution:
The draft urged member states to increase in line with the World Health Organization (WHO) Guiding Principles on Human Cell, Tissue and Organ Transplantation.
It emphasized on encouraging donation after the neurological determination of death and where appropriate, donation after the circulatory determination of death.
It also mentioned that insufficient access to transplantation therapies is one of the root causes of trafficking in persons for organ removal and trafficking in human organs, practices that undermine human rights and pose serious risks to public health.
The resolution urged the director-general to establish an expert committee under the Regulations for Expert Advisory Panels and Committees, to help the Secretariat in developing the proposed global strategy and its implementation.
The resolution tasked countries with developing a global strategy to be presented for adoption in 2026. It also encouraged the establishment of a World Donor Day to raise public awareness and donations.
About World Health Assembly:
It is the decision-making body of World Health Organization.
It is attended by delegations from all WHO Member States and focuses on a specific health agenda prepared by the Executive Board.
Functions:
The main functions of the World Health Assembly are to determine the policies of the Organization, appoint the Director-General, supervise financial policies, and review and approve the proposed programme budget.
The Health Assembly is held annually in Geneva, Switzerland.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/health/world-health-assembly-countries-approve-draft-to-improve-organ-transplantation-availability-including-cells-tissues-96466
With reference to the Purana Qila, consider the following statements:
- It was built on the banks of river Yamuna.
- It was believed to have been built under Humayun and Afghan Sher Shah Suri.
- It was inspired by Jama Masjid, which was established 15 years before the reconstruction of Qila.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, a ceremony was organised to mark the handing over of Purana Qila to the Sabhyata Foundation of the Dalmia Group under the ‘Adopt a Heritage’ scheme of the Ministry of Tourism.
About Purana Qila:
Location:
It is located on the South Eastern part of the present city of New Delhi.
It is one of the oldest forts in Delhi and built on the banks of river Yamuna.
It also khown as Qila-e-Kohna (meaning `old fort’).
The present citadel at Purana Qila was believed to have been built under Humayun and Afghan Sher Shah Suri (‘The Lion King’). Excavations point to traces from the 3rd century BC, the pre-Mauryan period.
The Qila was inspired by Jama Masjid, which was established 15 years before the reconstruction of Qila.
Architecture:
It is roughly rectangular in shape having a circuit of nearly two kilometers.
The Purana Qila are the three gates: Bara Darwaza or the Big Gate facing west, the Humayun Gate facing south and the Talaqui darwaza or the forbidden gateway facing the northern side.
These gates combines the typically Islamic pointed arch with Hindu Chhatris and brackets.
All of the gates are double-storeyed and comprise of huge semi-circular bastions flanking either of their sides.
The Bada Darwaza acts as the main point of entry.
It was surrounded by a wide moat.
The walls themselves are as high as 20m in places and approximately 4m thick.
A prominent structure of the Purana Qila is the Qila-e-Kuhna mosque built by Sher Shah in 1542 CE.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/long-reads/indraprastha-can-excavations-at-purana-qila-find-its-mahabharata-link-9364812/
With reference to the exit poll, consider the following statements:
- It can be released by media houses only after the voting ends for an election.
- It is regulated under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Congress refrains from participating in Lok Sabha Elections-related debates in exit polls 2024.
About Exit poll:
What is an exit poll?
An exit poll is a post-election survey which tends to predict the mood of the nation.
It’s an opinion poll showing how many seats a political party will likely win.
It must be noted that exit polls are not same as the official elections results.
When will Exit polls be released?
Exit polls can be released by media houses only after the voting ends for an election.
Methods of conducting:
Exit polls are taken immediately after voters have cast their ballots.
Legal Regulations:
It is regulated by Section 126A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
This law stipulates that no person shall conduct or publish exit polls via print or electronic media, or disseminate the results in any manner, during a period specified by the Election Commission.
Any person who contravenes the provisions of the Section 126A shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years or with a fine or with both.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/political-pulse/exit-polls-2009-2014-2019-lok-sabha-elections-9364231/
The Member States of the World Health Organization celebrate World No Tobacco Day, every year on:
31 May
Explanation :
Recently, The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (GoI), organized an event today to observe World No Tobacco Day 2024.
About World No-Tobacco Day:
History:
The Member States of the World Health Organization created World No Tobacco Day in 1987.
In 1988, a Resolution was passed, calling for the celebration of World No Tobacco Day, every year on 31 May.
The annual campaign is an opportunity to raise awareness on the harmful and deadly effects of tobacco use and second-hand smoke exposure and to discourage the use of tobacco in any form.
The theme: “Protecting Children from Tobacco Industry Interference”.
About tobacco Cultivation:
Tobacco cultivation in India was introduced by Portuguese in 1605.
Area and production:
In India tobacco is predominantly cultivated in Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Karnataka, UP and Bihar. Gujarat accounts for 45 per cent of the area (0.13 M ha) and 30 per cent of production (0.16 M t). Productivity is also highest (1700 kg ha-1) in Gujarat followed by AP.
Types of tobacco:
Anand area of Gujarat grows wholly bidi tobacco. Nipani area of Karnataka grows bidi tobacco. North Bihar and Bengal area has both tabacum and rustica types used in the manufacture of hookah and to a limited extent chewing and snuff types. Madurai and Coimbatore area of Tamil Nadu grow cigar, filter, binder and chewing tobaccos.
Climate and soil:
Tobacco is grown when the mean temperature is 20° to 27°C.
When grown as rainfed crop, it requires at least about 500 mm of well distributed rainfall during crop growing season.
It is not usually grown where rainfall exceeds 1200 mm during the season.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2022317
https://www.ndtv.com/offbeat/world-no-tobacco-day-2024-did-you-know-smoking-does-this-to-your-body-5783888
Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary is located in which one of the following state?
Assam
Explanation :
The Northeast Frontier Railway (NFR) has earmarked funds to construct canopy bridges for Hoolock Gibbon, India’s only ape, to move across a railway track bifurcating its prime habitat in eastern Assam.
About Hoolock Gibbon:
Gibbons, the smallest and fastest of all apes, live in tropical and subtropical forests in the southeastern part of Asia.
The hoolock gibbon is one of 20 species of gibbons on Earth.
Distribution:
Its distribution in Southeast Asia spans India, Myanmar, Bangladesh, and southern China.
It is the only ape found in India.
In India, it is found in Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, and Tripura, south of the Brahmaputra.
Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary in Assam has the largest concentration of the hoolock gibbon.
It is categorised into Eastern Hoolock Gibbon (Hoolock leuconedys) found in a specific region of Arunachal Pradesh and Western Hoolock Gibbon (Hoolock hoolock) distributed elsewhere in the northeast.
Features:
Both male and female gibbons are about the same size, but they differ considerably in colors.
Males are black colored with remarkable white brows, while females have grey-brown fur, which is darker at the chest and neck.
White rings around the eyes and around the mouth give their faces a mask-like appearance.
They are diurnal and arboreal, brachiating through the trees with their long arms.
They are monogamous (same partner throughout life).
They live in small families, including males, females and their young ones, and communicate with other gibbons by vocalisation.
The loud calls of the gibbon are used to identify individuals within and outside the family group.
Like all apes, they are extremely intelligent, with distinct personalities and strong family bonds.
Life span: 25 years
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List:
Eastern Hoolock Gibbon: Vulnerable
Western Hoolock Gibbon: Endangered
Both are on Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of India, 1972.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/railways-to-build-canopy-bridges-across-track-in-assam-gibbon-habitat/article68235654.ece
With reference to the Colombo Process, consider the following statements:
- It is a Regional Consultative Process which provides an important platform for consultations on enhancing trade agreements between Asian countries.
- The process is non-binding, and decision-making is by consensus.
- India has been a member of the Colombo Process since its inception.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
India has become chair of the Colombo Process for the first time since its inception in 2003.
About Colombo Process:
It is a Regional Consultative Process and it provides an important platform for consultations on the management of overseas employment and contractual labour for countries of origin in Asia.
It serves as a forum for the exchange of best practices on overseas employment.
Membership:
It comprises 12 Member States of Asia (countries of origin of migrant workers).
Members: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, China, Cambodia, India, Indonesia, Nepal, Pakistan, the Philippines, Sri Lanka, Thailand, and Vietnam.
India has been a member of the Colombo Process since its inception in 2003.
Objectives:
Share experiences, lessons learned and best practices in labour migration management.
Consult on issues faced by migrants, countries of origin, and countries of destination, and propose practical solutions for the well-being of overseas workers.
Optimize development benefits from organized overseas employment and enhance dialogues with countries of destination.
Review and monitor the implementation of the recommendations and identify further steps of action.
The process is non-binding, and decision-making is by consensus.
The process is coordinated through the Permanent Missions of Member States at the United Nations in Geneva.
The process is governed by Ministerial Consultations wherein recommendations and action plans are discussed and adopted by the Ministers of the participating countries.
The International Organization for Migration (IOM) has provided technical support to the Colombo Process since its inception and serves as its Secretariat.
There are five Thematic Area Working Groups (TAWGs):
Skills and Qualification Recognition (chaired by Sri Lanka);
Fostering Ethical Recruitment (chaired by Bangladesh);
Pre-Departure Orientation and Empowerment (chaired by Philippines);
Remittances (chaired by Pakistan);
Labour Market Analysis (chaired by Thailand);
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-assumes-chair-of-colombo-process-for-2024-26-9359983/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Controller General of Accounts (CGA):
- CGA, in the Department of Expenditure, is the Principal Accounting Adviser to the Government of India.
- The CGA is responsible for exchequer control and internal audits for the central government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The government’s fiscal deficit for 2023-24 stood at 5.63 per cent of the GDP, marginally better than the 5.8 per cent estimated in the Union Budget, according to data released by the Controller General of Accounts (CGA) recently.
About Controller General of Accounts (CGA):
CGA, in the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance, is the Principal Accounting Adviser to the Government of India.
CGA is responsible for establishing and managing a technically sound Management Accounting System and preparation & submission of the accounts of the Union Government.
The CGA is also responsible for exchequer control and internal audits for the central government.
It was established in October 1975 to administer matters pertaining to the departmentalisation of the accounts of the Union.
Functions:
The Office of CGA prepares monthly and annual analysis of expenditure, revenues, borrowings, and various fiscal indicators for the Union Government.
It further formulates policies relating to general principles, forms, and procedures of accounting for the Central and State Governments.
It administers the process of payments, receipts, and accounting in the Central Civil Ministries/ Departments.
Through its Internal Audit Units in the respective Ministries/Departments, it is responsible for maintaining the requisite technical standards of accounting in the departmentalized accounting offices and for monitoring the financial performance and effectiveness of various programs, schemes, and activities of the civil ministries.
It also administers banking arrangements for the disbursements of Government expenditures and the collection of government receipts and interacts with the Central Bank for the reconciliation of the cash balances of the Union Government.
CGA is also responsible for coordination and monitoring the progress of the submission of corrective/remedial action taken notes (ATNs) on the recommendations contained in the Public Accounts Committee’s (PAC) reports as well as the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) reports through its web-based Audit Para Monitoring System (APMS).
It also looks after the pensions of Central government employees.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livemint.com/economy/indias-fy24-fiscal-deficit-improves-to-5-63-of-gdp-lower-than-governments-target-of-58-11717162702948.html
In which of the following pair of states do the Koya tribe predominantly live?
Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Chhattisgarh and Odisha
Explanation :
In Godavari Valley, the Koya tribe faces a cultural crisis as raids by the Special Enforcement Bureau threaten their cherished tradition of Mahua liquor consumption.
About Koya Tribe:
Koya are one of the few multi-racial and multi-lingual tribal communities in India.
They live in the forests, plains, and valleys on both sides of the Godavari River, in the states of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha.
The Koya are said to have migrated to central India from their original home in Bastar, northern India.
Language:
The Koya language, also called Koyi, is a Dravidian language. It is closely related to Gondi and has been strongly influenced by Telugu.
Most Koya speak either Gondi or Telugu, in addition to Koyi.
Occupation:
Traditionally, they were pastoralists and shifting cultivators, but now-a-days, they have taken to settled cultivation supplemented by animal husbandry and seasonal forest collections.
They grow Jowar, Ragi, Bajra, and other millets.
Society and Culture:
All Koya belong to one of five sub-divisions called gotrams. Every Koya is born into a clan, and he cannot leave it.
The Koyas have a patrilineal and patrilocal family. The family is called “Kutum”. The nuclear family is the predominant type.
Monogamy is prevalent among the Koyas.
The Koya practice their own ethnic religion, but also worship a number of Hindu gods and goddesses.
Many Koya deities are female, the most important being the “mother earth.”
They maintain community funds and grain banks at the village level to help the needy families and provide food security.
Koyas either bury or cremate the dead. They erect menhirs in memory of the dead.
Their main festivals are Vijji Pandum (seeds charming festival) and Kondala Kolupu (festival to appease Hill deities).
Koyas perform a robust, colourful dance called Permakok (Bison horn dance) during festivals and marriage ceremonies
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/andhras-koya-tribe-faces-brewing-conflict-over-sacred-flower-mahua/article68231743.ece
With reference to Rabies, consider the following:
- It is a vaccine-preventable, zoonotic and viral disease.
- It primarily affects the central nervous system.
- Once clinical symptoms appear, rabies is virtually 100% fatal.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The government of Jammu and Kashmir recently declared human rabies a notifiable disease under the Epidemic Diseases Act of 1897.
About Rabies:
Rabies is a vaccine-preventable, zoonotic, viral disease caused by the RABV virus.
It primarily affects the central nervous system, leading to severe brain disease and death if medical care is not received before symptoms start.
Transmission:
In up to 99% of cases, domestic dogs are responsible for rabies virus transmission to humans. Yet, rabies can affect both domestic and wild animals.
It spreads to people and animals via saliva, usually through bites, scratches, or direct contact with the mucosa (e.g., eyes, mouth, or open wounds).
Rabies is present on all continents except Antarctica, with over 95% of human deaths occurring in Asia and Africa.
It is one of the neglected tropical diseases (NTD) that predominantly affects already marginalized, poor, and vulnerable populations.
Symptoms:
The symptoms may be nonspecific at first but include lethargy, fever, vomiting, and anorexia.
Within days, signs can progress to cerebral dysfunction, ataxia, weakness and paralysis, breathing and swallowing difficulties, excessive salivation, abnormal behaviour, aggressivity, and self-mutilation.
Once clinical symptoms appear, rabies is virtually 100% fatal.
Prevention:
It is a vaccine-preventable disease.
Vaccinating dogs, including puppies, is the most cost-effective strategy for preventing rabies in people because it stops the transmission at its source.
Treatment:
Medical care following a rabies exposure is called post-exposure prophylaxis, or PEP.
PEP includes wound care, a dose of human rabies immune globulin (HRIG), and a series of four or five rabies vaccines, which must be administered as soon as possible after exposure.
This care is vital to prevent the disease from developing. It is nearly 100% effective if administered promptly.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.dailyexcelsior.com/jammu-and-kashmir-govt-declares-human-rabies-a-notifiable-disease/
Which one of the following best describes ‘Sarcophagus’, recently seen in the news?
A highly decorated box-like container that holds a coffin
Explanation :
A sarcophagus fragment discovered beneath the floor of a religious center belongs to Ramesses II, one of the best-known ancient Egyptian pharaohs, according to a new study.
About Sarcophagus:
A sarcophagus is a highly decorated coffin or box-like container that holds a coffin.
They were intended to be displayed above ground, but they were sometimes entombed or placed in burial chambers.
Sarcophagi were used to hold and protect important people who died throughout history, dating as far back as ancient Egypt, Rome, and Greece.
The word sarcophagus comes from the Greek “sarx” meaning “flesh,” and “phagien” meaning “to eat,” so that sarcophagus literally translates as “eater of flesh.”
First used in Ancient Egypt and Ancient Greece, the sarcophagus gradually became popular throughout the ancient world.
It carried over through the later years of European society, often used for high status members of the clergy, government, or aristocracy.
Features:
They differ in detail from one culture to another.
They are almost always made of stone, limestone being the most popular, but sometimes of granite, sandstone, or marble.
Sarcophagi were elaborately decorated with carvings, images, and writing, usually including the name of the person who died.
Archaeological Significance:
Sarcophagi are important artifacts for archaeologists and historians because they provide insights into the art, culture, and beliefs of the societies that created them.
The carvings and inscriptions on sarcophagi often contain valuable historical information.
Example: The most famous Egyptian sarcophagus is perhaps the golden sarcophagus of King Tutankhamun.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livescience.com/archaeology/ancient-egyptians/ramesses-iis-sarcophagus-finally-identified-thanks-to-overlooked-hieroglyphics
Pampa Lake, one of the five sacred lakes known as Panch-Sarovar, lies in which state?
Karnataka
Explanation :
A team from the Karnataka State Department of Archaeology Museums and Heritage has uncovered rock shelter paintings estimated to be around 2,500 years old near Pampa Lake in the Hampi World Heritage Area.
About Pampa Lake:
Pamba Lake/Pampa Sarovar is situated in Koppal district near Hampi in Karnataka.
It is located to the south of the Tungabhadra River.
It is one of the five sacred lakes known as Panch-Sarovar in Hindu mythology, which are namely, Man Sarovar, Bindu Sarovar, Narayan Sarovar, Pampa Sarovar, and Pushkar Sarovar.
In Hindu mythology, Pampa Sarovar is regarded as the place where Pampa, a form of Shiva’s consort Parvati, performed penance to show her devotion to Shiva.
It is also one of the Sarovars that finds a mention in the Hindu epic, Ramayana as the place where Shabhari, a devotee of Lord Rama, waited for the arrival of Rama.
The lake is surrounded by hills and temples and filled with lotuses.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanchronicle.com/news/ancient-rock-paintings-discovered-near-pampa-lake-896828
Which one of the following best describes INS Shivalik?
A stealth multi-role frigate
Explanation :
Indian naval ship (INS) Shivalik on Saturday departed Singapore for Yokosuka in Japan, and is scheduled to participate in Japan-India maritime exercise (Jimex) and Rim of Pacific (Rimpac) military exercise.
About INS Shivalik:
It is the lead ship of her class of stealth multi-role frigates built for the Indian Navy.
It is the first stealth warship built by India.
It is built at the Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL), located in Mumbai.
It was commissioned into the Indian Navy on April 29, 2010.
Features:
It has a length of 142.5 m (468 ft) overall, a beam of 16.9 m (55 ft), and a draft of 4.5 m (15 ft).
The ships displace about 4,900 tonnes (4,800 long tons; 5,400 short tons) at normal load and 6,200 tonnes (6,100 long tons; 6,800 short tons) at full load.
Maximum Speed: 32 knots (59 km/h)
It features improved stealth and land-attacking features over the preceding Talwar-class frigates.
It is also the first Indian Navy ship to use the CODOG propulsion system.
It is equipped with a mix of Russian, Indian, and Western weapon systems.
These include the 3.0-inch Otobreda naval gun, Klub and BrahMos supersonic anti-ship missiles, Shtil-1 anti-aircraft missiles, RBU-6000 anti-submarine rocket launchers, and DTA-53-956 torpedo launchers.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/thesundaystandard/2024/Jun/02/navy-warship-shivalik-leaves-singapore-for-maritime-exercises-with-japan-us
‘Paraparatrechina neela’, recently seen in the news, is a:
A new ant species
Explanation :
Indian researchers recently discovered a new ant species named Paraparatrechina neela from Arunachal Pradesh’s remote Siang Valley.
About Paraparatrechina neela:
It is a new ant species discovered from Siang Valley in Arunachal Pradesh.
This new species belongs to the rare genus Paraparatrechina and has been named Paraparatrechina neela.
The word “neela” signifies the colour blue in most Indian languages—a fitting tribute to the ant’s unique colour.
This discovery signifies the first new species of Paraparatrechina in 121 years since the description of the sole previously known species, P. aseta (Forel, 1902), in the Indian subcontinent.
Features:
It is a small ant with a total length of less than 2 mm.
Its body is predominantly metallic blue, except for the antennae, mandibles, and legs.
The head is subtriangular with large eyes and has a triangular mouthpart (mandible) featuring five teeth.
This species has a distinct metallic blue colour that is different from any other species in its genus.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.news18.com/india/researchers-discover-new-blue-ant-while-on-expedition-to-arunachal-pradeshs-remote-siang-valley-8911934.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Iris-T Missile:
- It is a next-generation short-range air-to-air missile.
- The missile developed by the United States, is characterised by an extreme maneuverability for close-in air-to-air combat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
According to a recent report, the Bundeswehr, Germany’s armed forces, lost an Iris-T missile, sparking serious concerns about the crucial technology being compromised.
About Iris-T Missile:
It is a next-generation short-range air-to-air missile.
The IRIS-T is a six-nation program under German lead, with Diehl BGT Defence (a German defense company) acting as industrial prime contractor.
The IRIS-T programme sees Germany, Greece, Norway, Italy, Spain, and Sweden unite to provide access to technology and expertise. Diehl Defence is the main contractor.
It is rated for short-range and medium-range air defense.
The IRIS-T SLM is designed to neutralize threats posed by a variety of enemy aerial systems, such as aircraft, cruise missiles, drones, and helicopters operating at ranges of up to 40 km (25 miles).
IRIS-T is characterized by an extreme maneuverability for close-in air-to-air combat.
Equipped with an innovative infrared seeker, thrust-vector control, and a dogfight optimized motor, the Iris-T Missile can engage any target from point-blank up to maximum range.
IRIS-T can also successfully engage targets behind the launching aircraft and be used in lock-on before and after launch operations.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.eurasiantimes.com/by-bundeswehr-raises-alarming-concerns/
The mid-year climate conference, also known as the 60th Meeting of the Subsidiary Bodies (SB60), brings together countries that are signatories to the:
United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
Explanation :
As the world gears up for the 29th Conference of Parties (COP) to UNFCCC later this year, the Delhi-based think tank Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) has called on developed countries to fulfill their financial obligations in the fight against climate change.
Why in News?
The 60th meeting of the Subsidiary Bodies (SB60), will take place in Bonn, Germany from June 3-13, 2024.
About 60th meeting of the Subsidiary Bodies (SB60)
The mid-year climate conference, also known as the 60th meeting of the Subsidiary Bodies (SB60) will bring together countries that are signatories to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
National delegates and civil society representatives will make up a significant part of the around 6,000 participants expected to attend the meetings.
The meeting will serve as a crucial midpoint between the 28th CoP in Dubai and CoP29 in Azerbaijan and its outcomes will set the stage for the next phase of global climate negotiations.
It will focus on critical issues such as-
Climate finance
Advancing progress on the next round of national climate action
plans (Nationally Determined Contributions- NDCs)
Timely submission of countries’
First Biennial Transparency Reports
Work on National Adaptation Plans
Accelerating climate action through a just transition
It will feature the inaugural Annual Global Stocktake (GST) Dialogue, which aims to foster a sharing of effective strategies and lessons learned on how countries are incorporating the GST outcomes into their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs), promoting collaborative learning and progress towards achieving the Paris Agreement’s goals.
About Centre for Science and Environment (CSE)
Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) is a public interest research organisation based in New Delhi.
It researches and communicates the urgency of development that is sustainable and equitable.
It works as a think tank on environment-development issues in India, poor planning, climate shifts devastating India’s Sundarbans and advocates for policy changes and better implementation of the already existing policies.
The Ministry of Urban Development (MoUD) has designated Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) as a “Centre of Excellence” (CoE) for sustainable water management.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-change/cse-urges-rich-countries-to-pay-their-dues-ahead-of-crucial-un-climate-talks-in-bonn-96463
Consider the following statements with reference to the Chang’e-6:
- It is the first human sampling and return mission from the far side of the moon.
- It was launched by a Chinese Long March-5 rocket.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
China’s space agency said that China landed an uncrewed spacecraft on the far side of the moon on 2nd of June.
About Chang’e-6:
The Chang’e-6 craft successfully landed in the South Pole-Aitken Basin on the back of the moon.
It is the first human sampling and return mission from the far side of the moon for the first time.
It was launched by a Chinese Long March-5 rocket from Wenchang Space Launch Center on the southern island of Hainan before 53 days.
Chang’e-6 consists of an orbiter, a returner, a lander and an ascender.
The lander was equipped with multiple sensors, including microwave, laser and optical imaging sensors which can measure distance and speed, and identify obstacles on the lunar surface.
The probe is scheduled to complete sampling within two days. It has adopted two methods of moon sampling, which include:
Using a drill to collect subsurface samples
Grabbing samples on the surface with a robotic arm.
It has achieved a breakthrough in the design and control technology of the lunar retrograde orbit and aims to realize key technologies of intelligent and rapid sampling.
It marks the second time a mission has successfully reached the far side of the moon. China first completed that historic feat in 2019 with its Chang’e-4 probe.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/science/china-makes-historic-landing-on-far-side-of-the-moon/articleshow/110631441.cms
The term “two-state solution” was recently seen in the news, in the context of the affairs of?
Israel and Palestine
Explanation :
Recently, India said that it was one of the first countries to recognise Palestine and has long supported the two-state solution to end the Israel-Palestine conflict.
About two-state solution:
The two-state solution has long been proposed as the best hope for peace in the Israeli-Palestinian conflict.
It would see an independent Palestinian state established alongside the existing one of Israel - giving both peoples their own territory.
What are Two-State Solutions’ origins?
In 1947, the United Nations agreed a plan partitioning Palestine into Arab and Jewish states with international rule over Jerusalem. Jewish leaders accepted the plan, which gave them 56% of the land.
The state of Israel was declared on May 14, 1948. A day later, five Arab states attacked. The war ended with Israel controlling 77% of the territory.
Some 700,000 Palestinians fled or were driven from their homes, ending up in Jordan, Lebanon and Syria as well as in the Gaza Strip, the West Bank and East Jerusalem.
In a 1967 war, Israel captured the West Bank, including East Jerusalem, from Jordan and Gaza from Egypt, securing control of all territory from the Mediterranean to the Jordan valley.
The Palestinians remain stateless, with most living under Israeli occupation or as refugees in neighbouring states.
Is there a way forward?
After Hamas attacked on Israel in Oct, 2023, Israel aims to annihilate Hamas and says it will not agree to any deal that leaves it in power. Prime minister of Israel has said Gaza must be demilitarised and under Israel’s full security control.
On another side, Hamas says it expects to survive and has said any arrangements for Gaza that exclude it are an illusion.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/is-a-future-palestine-state-possible/article68241006.ece
With reference to the Gradation of coal, consider the following statements:
- The classification of coal is determined based on the amount of heat or energy produced when burning coal.
- Anthracite is the highest rank of coal.
- Bituminous is the lowest grade coal with the least concentration of carbon.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A recent report by the Organized Crime and Corruption Reporting Project, furnished new documents to allege that in 2014, the Adani Group claimed ‘low grade’ coal, imported from Indonesia, to be ‘high-quality’ coal, inflated its value and sold it to Tamil Nadu’s power generation company, TANGEDCO (Tamil Nadu Generation and Distribution Company).
Gradation of coal:
Coal grade is an economic or technological classification of the relative quality of a coal for a particular use.
The classification of coal is determined based on the gross calorific value (GCV) or the amount of heat or energy produced when burning coal.
Coal being a fossil fuel is a mixture of carbon, ash, moisture and a host of other impurities. The higher the available carbon in a unit of coal, the greater is its quality or ‘grade.
As per a classification by the Coal Ministry, There are 17 grades of coal, where grade 1 (top quality coal) with a kilo of it yielding higher than 7,000 kcal and the lowest producing anywhere between 2,200-2,500 kcal.
Types of coal:
There are four major types of coal.
Anthracite: It is the highest rank of coal and often referred to as hard coal. It contains a high percentage of fixed carbon and a low percentage of volatile matter.
Bituminous: Bituminous coal is a middle rank. It usually has a high heating (Btu) value and is used in electricity generation and steel making.
Subbituminous: It has low-to-moderate heating values and is mainly used in electricity generation.
Lignite: It is the lowest grade coal with the least concentration of carbon. It has a low heating value and a high moisture content and is mainly used in electricity generation.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/what-grade-of-coal-does-india-produce/article68241013.ece
With reference to the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST), consider the following statements:
- It was launched in 2021 as a joint endeavor of the US, European and Canadian space agencies.
- It has an objective to find the very first stars to ignite in the nascent Universe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, The James Webb Space Telescope has smashed its own record for detecting the most distant known galaxy.
About New Galaxy:
The galaxy called JADES-GS-z14-0, is revealed as it was just 290m years after the big bang, at the dawn of the universe. The telescope’s previous record holder was a galaxy seen at 325m years after the big bang, which happened nearly 14bn years ago.
The newly observed galaxy is much brighter than expected, suggesting that the first generation of stars were either more luminous or formed much more rapidly than conventional cosmological theories have predicted.
The impressive size and brightness of JADES-GS-z14-0 is likely being fueled by young and actively forming stars, rather than a supermassive black hole.
In JADES-GS-z14-0, Webb can see a significant amount of oxygen, which tells researchers the galaxy is already quite mature.
About James Webb Space Telescope (JWST)
It was launched in 2021 as a joint endeavour of the US, European and Canadian space agencies.
It is a large infrared telescope with an approximately 6.5 meter primary mirror.
It does not orbit around the Earth like the Hubble Space Telescope, it orbits the Sun 1.5 million kilometers away from the Earth at what is called the second Lagrange point or L2.
It was designed specifically to see farther across the cosmos and further back in time than any previous astronomical tool.
One of its key objectives was to find the very first stars to ignite in the nascent Universe.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/james-webb-space-telescope-earliest-known-galaxy-9366358/
With reference to the Ikat designs, consider the following statements:
- It features a resist dyeing process where threads are dyed before weaving.
- Ancient references to ikat include the Buddhist ‘Lalitavistara Sutra’ and the Ajanta caves murals.
- Tamil Nadu Telia Rumal is famous for its oil-treated threads that enhance colour depth and received a GI tag in 2020.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, following NABARD’s withdrawal, Ikat weavers aim to assume control, manage operations, and grow the business.
About Ikat design:
Origin & Technique:
Ikat originates from the Indonesian/Malay word ‘mengikat’, meaning to bind.
It features a resist dyeing process where threads are dyed before weaving.
The fabrics exhibit unique ‘blurred’ effects due to slight misalignments of threads.
Historical references:
Ancient references to ikat include the Buddhist ‘Lalitavistara Sutra’ and the Ajanta caves murals.
These references mention ‘Vichitra Patolaka’, associated with the double ikat or patola of Gujarat.
Types of Ikat:
Single Ikat: Dyeing involves either the warp or the weft threads, simpler and quicker to produce.
Double Ikat: Both warp and weft threads are intricately resist-dyed for precise alignment, known for their complexity.
Key regions and GI tags:
Patan’s Patola from Gujarat is known for its double ikat and received a GI tag in 2013.
Rajkot Patola, a simpler single ikat variant from Gujarat, also received a GI tag in 2013.
Odisha’s Bandha specialises in single ikat with GI-tagged styles like Sambalpuri Ikat (2010) and Bomkai (2009).
Telangana’s Telia Rumal is famous for its oil-treated threads that enhance colour depth and received a GI tag in 2020 and Pochampally Ikat is known for its geometric patterns and received a GI tag in 2005.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: Weaving A Story Of Traditional Art, Ikat
Consider the following statements with reference to the Bank Clinic:
- It is an initiative of the Reserve Bank of India.
- It aims to assist bank customers with grievance redressal amid the rapid expansion of technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The All India Bank Employees’ Association (AIBEA) has launched the “Bank Clinic” initiative to assist bank customers with grievance redressal.
About Bank Clinic:
It is an initiative by the All India Bank Employees’ Association (AIBEA), that aims to assist bank customers with grievance redressal amid the rapid expansion of technology and Reserve Bank of India (RBI) guidelines on retail banking.
It is a non-resolving advisory platform guiding customers on the remedies available per RBI guidelines.
It serves as an additional channel alongside the normal Banking Ombudsman process.
How does it work?
Under this initiative, customers can register their complaints on the Bank Clinic website, and within five working days, they will receive a reply detailing the available remedies and relevant RBI guidelines for their specific issue
The goal is to ensure timely and effective redressal of customer issues.
It guides customers on available remedies but does not directly resolve queries.
Benefits:
The Bank Clinic helps build goodwill with customers.
It provides valuable feedback to banks, highlighting areas where service deficiencies exist.
What is AIBEA?
The All India Bank Employees Association (AIBEA) is a national trade union representing bank employees across India.
Founded in 1946 on April 20th in Kolkata. Its headquarters is in Chennai.
AIBEA plays a crucial role in advocating for bank workers’ rights, welfare, and interests.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://m.economictimes.com/industry/banking/finance/banking/now-a-bank-clinic-to-guide-you-on-complaints/amp_articleshow/110645461.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Postal Ballot:
- It enables eligible voters to submit their votes via mail rather than personally visiting a polling place.
- Electors under preventive detention orders during the election period can avail themselves of this option.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently the opposition urged the Election Commission to prioritise postal ballot counting before finalising EVM counting, citing concerns over the 2019 guideline change.
About Postal Ballot
Postal ballots enable eligible voters to submit their votes via mail rather than personally visiting a polling place.
This method provides a convenient option for individuals who are unable to participate in person due to various reasons.
Eligibility criteria to vote using postal ballots:
Service voters including members of the armed forces, paramilitary forces, and government employees assigned to election duties away from their home constituencies.
Electors on election duty including government officials and polling staff working at polling stations outside their home areas.
Electors under preventive detention orders during the election period can also avail themselves of this option.
Individuals engaged in essential services on polling day: Essential workers, including authorized media personnel and those in railways, and healthcare, can vote via postal ballots in Lok Sabha and four state Assembly elections.
Absentee voters: Those who are unable to vote in person due to work commitments, illness, or disability.
The amendment in October 2019 to the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, lowered the eligible age for senior citizens from 85 to 80 and permitted Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) to use postal ballots in the 2020 Delhi Assembly elections.
What is the process of postal voting?
The postal voting process involves receiving a ballot kit from the Returning Officer, marking the chosen candidate(s) on the ballot paper within a secrecy sleeve, completing a declaration form, sealing the marked ballot and declaration in the secrecy sleeve, inserting it into a pre-paid return envelope, affixing postage, and mailing it to the designated address before the deadline.
Counting of postal ballots:
Postal ballots are counted separately. On counting day, postal authorities bring them to the counting centre.
Election officials verify their validity and add valid ballots to the candidates’ vote counts.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/behind-opposition-postal-ballot-concern-election-commission-rule-change-in-2019-9368278/
With reference to the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), consider the following statements:
- It aims to ensure that international trade in wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species.
- India has been a CITES Party since 1976.
- All import and export of species covered under CITES must be authorized through a permit system.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
At the KAZA Summit 2024, leaders of the Kavango-Zambezi Trans-Frontier Conservation Area (KAZA-TFCA) decided to oppose the ivory trade ban at the CoP 20 of CITES.
About CITES
Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) is an international agreement between 184 governments to ensure that international trade in wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species.
The convention entered into force in 1975. India has been a CITES Party since 1976.
All import, export and re-export of species covered under CITES must be authorized through a permit system.
Appendix of CITES:
Appendix I: Prohibits commercial trade of critically endangered species.
Appendix II: Regulates trade to prevent over-exploitation.
Appendix III: Protects species under national laws.
Every two years, the Conference of the Parties (CoP), the supreme decision-making body of CITES, applies a set of biological and trade criteria to evaluate proposals from parties to decide if a species should be in Appendix I or II.
Ivory Trade:
The ivory trade is the commercial trade in elephant ivory tusks and other ivory products.
At least 20,000 African elephants are illegally killed for their tusks each year.
The ivory trade threatens elephant survival, harms ecosystems, endangers local communities, and undermines security.
The ivory trade has traditionally involved smuggling whole or partial elephant tusks from Africa to Asia, where they would be processed and carved into ivory products.
The demand for ivory has been fueled primarily by a growing middle class in China, where ivory carving is a longstanding tradition.
Reasons Behind Advocating for Trade Ban Lift:
Southern African leaders seek to lift CITES ivory ban for economic gain, citing $1 billion value. KAZA states hold $1 billion ivory stockpile, with Zimbabwe’s 166-ton stash worth $600 million.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/world/kaza-summit-2024-leaders-decide-to-fight-ivory-trade-ban-at-cites-cop20-96477
Which one of the following best describes the term Greedflation refers to:
a scenario where inflation in an economy is driven by corporate greed to make a profit
Explanation :
Several argue that inequality harms democratic processes. Some inequality, others argue, is actually beneficial, since it acts as an incentive to entrepreneurs to start businesses.
About Greedflation
Greedflation refers to a scenario where inflation in an economy is driven by corporate greed to make a profit rather than an increase in the cost of production, demand, or wages.
What is Inflation?
Inflation is the rate at which the general price level of goods and services rises in an economy. This can occur due to various factors, including:
Cost-push inflation: Prices rise because input costs have increased. For example, a 10% overnight increase in crude oil prices due to supply disruption can lead to higher energy costs and thus higher overall prices.
Demand-pull inflation: Prices rise because there is excess demand. For instance, if the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) cuts interest rates sharply, making loans more affordable, there could be a surge in demand for housing, leading to higher home prices.
Other factors: Several internal and external factors can also contribute to inflation, such as supply-chain disruptions from international conflicts like the Russia-Ukraine war or crude oil price hikes by OPEC+.
To combat inflation, central banks often raise interest rates to reduce overall demand in the economy.
For example, the RBI may increase the repo rate, making loans more expensive and reducing the number of loan takers, thereby stabilizing demand.
Causes of Greedflation:
Unlike typical inflation scenarios where price increases result from higher input costs or increased demand, greedflation occurs when corporations exploit existing inflation by raising prices far beyond their actual input cost increases.
This practice maximizes profit margins but also further fuels inflation, creating a cycle that exacerbates economic inequality.
The Impact of inequality on democratic processes:
Many argue that inequality harms democratic processes by concentrating wealth and power in the hands of a few, undermining the principle of equal representation.
However, some believe that a certain level of inequality can be beneficial as it incentivizes entrepreneurs to start businesses, driving economic growth and innovation.
While inequality can incentivize entrepreneurship, it often has detrimental effects on economic welfare and growth. Redistribution, if balanced with other policies, can enhance economic health by boosting consumption and investment.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: Does inequality lead to growth? | Explained - The Hindu
With reference to Virus-like particles (VLPs), consider the following statements:
- VLPs are molecules that resemble viruses but lack infectivity because of the absence of viral genetic material.
- They are a very effective way of creating vaccines against viral diseases.
- They can be employed as nanomachines to deliver pharmaceutically active products to specific sites in the body.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Scientists at the Institute of Advanced Virology (IAV), Thiruvananthapuram, recently developed a novel way of generating non-infectious Nipah virus-like particles (VLPs) in the laboratory.
About Virus-like Particles (VLPs):
VLPs are molecules that resemble viruses but lack infectivity because of the absence of viral genetic material.
They are a very effective way of creating vaccines against diseases such as human papillomavirus (HPV), hepatitis B, malaria, and more.
As they are very similar to real viral molecules, introducing a VLP into the body will trigger an immune response, but a person will not experience any symptoms of the virus they are being vaccinated against.
Once the body has had an immune response to the VLP, it will recognize the virus and prevent infection in the future, giving people immunity to that particular virus.
Structure:
VLPs are very small, with a particle radius of approximately 20 to 200 nm. This means that they can easily enter the lymph nodes, where the immune system is activated in the case of an infection.
A VLP consists of one or more structural proteins that can be arranged in multiple layers.
They can also contain an outer lipid envelope, which is the outermost layer that covers a large number of different viruses. This outer layer protects the genetic material inside the virus particle.
Creating a VLP vaccine can use bacterial, yeast, insect, or mammalian cells.
When used as a vaccine, VLPs cause a robust immunogenic response due to their high-density display of epitopes and the capacity to present multiple proteins to the immune system.
Most recently, VLPs have been employed as nanomachines to deliver pharmaceutically active products to specific sites and into specific cells in the body.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/new-method-to-generate-virus-like-particles-to-help-with-developing-antibodies-against-nipah/article68242931.ece
Which one of the following glaciers is the source of the Sunkoshi River?
Zhangzangbo Glacier
Explanation :
A river cleanup campaign that removed 24,575 kg of waste from the Sunkoshi River banks and waste hotspots was recently completed under the PLEASE (Plastic Free Rivers and Seas of South Asia) program.
About Sunkoshi River:
Sunkoshi, also known as the ‘river of gold, is a river in Nepal that is part of the Koshi or Saptkoshi River system formed by the seven (sapta) rivers joining in east-central Nepal.
Course: River Sunkoshi’s water source is located in the Zhangzangbo Glacier in Tibet, which merges with River Saptkoshi, ultimately joining the Ganga in the Katihar district of Bihar in India, before finally draining into the ocean at the Bay of Bengal in Bangladesh.
It is one of the longest and most popular rivers for rafting in Nepal, and is known for its challenging rapids.
It forms the watershed for most of eastern Nepal.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/river-sunkoshi-cleanup-in-nepal-removes-24575-kg-of-plastic-in-36-hours/
Hunga Tonga–Hunga Haʻapai (HTHH) is a submarine volcano located in which one of the following regions?
Southern Pacific Ocean
Explanation :
A new study published recently shows that the January 15, 2022, eruption of the Hunga Tonga–Hunga Haʻapai Volcano could cause unusual weather for the rest of the decade.
About Hunga Tonga–Hunga Haʻapai (HTHH):
It is a submarine stratovolcano in the Tongan archipelago in the southern Pacific Ocean.
The HTHH volcano includes the small islands of Hunga Tonga and Hunga Ha’apai, along with shallow reefs along the caldera rim of a much larger submarine edifice in the western South Pacific Ocean, west of the main inhabited islands in the Kingdom of Tonga.
It is located about 30 km south of the submarine volcano of Fonuafoʻou and 65 km north of Tongatapu, the country’s main island.
The volcano is part of the highly active Tonga–Kermadec Islands volcanic arc, a subduction zone extending from New Zealand north-northeast to Fiji.
The Tonga-Kermadec arc was formed as a result of the subduction of the Pacific Plate beneath the Indo-Australian Plate.
It has erupted regularly over the past few decades.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/science/tongas-volcanic-eruption-could-cause-unusual-weather-for-the-rest-of-the-decade-new-study-shows-3046247
Consider the following statements with reference to the Spot Bellied Eagle Owl:
- It is a large bird of prey commonly found in the Indian Subcontinent and parts of Southeast Asia.
- It is classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Pench Tiger Reserve (PTR), Maharashtra, recently reported the first photographic record of a spot-bellied eagle owl.
About Spot Bellied Eagle Owl:
The spot-bellied eagle-owl, also known as the forest eagle-owl, is a large bird of prey with a formidable appearance.
Scientific Name: Ketupa nipalensis
Distribution:
It can be found in a variety of habitats, including tropical and subtropical forests, woodlands, and savannas.
It is commonly found in India, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh and parts of Southeast Asia.
Features:
It is a large species of owl. It measures about 50 to 65 cm in length and weighs 1500 to 1700 grams.
Its wingspan can reach up to 1.7 meters.
The most distinguishing feature is its striking colouration. The upperparts of its body are a rich chocolate brown, speckled with white spots.
The feathers on its wings and tail are barred with alternating shades of brown and white, creating a stunning pattern that helps it blend in with its surroundings.
The underside of the owl is where it gets its name; its belly and breast are a light cream colour, covered in bold black spots.
It is primarily nocturnal.
It is an apex predator, feeding on a variety of prey, including rodents, small mammals, reptiles, and insects.
It is a solitary bird that is territorial and maintains a home range.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Status: Least Concern
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule IV
CITES: Appendix II.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/nagpur/maha-pench-tiger-reserve-reports-first-photographic-record-of-forest-eagle-owl/articleshow/110647380.cms
What obligation does the Doctrine of Stare Decisis create for courts?
To refer to precedents when making decisions
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently observed that the extraordinary powers under Article 142 of the Constitution of India is an exception to the doctrine of merger and the rule of stare decisis to do complete justice between the parties.
About Doctrine of Merger:
It is a common law doctrine founded on the principle of maintenance of decorum and propriety in the functioning of courts and tribunals.
The doctrine of merger provides that when an appellate court passes an order, the order passed by the lower court is merged with that order.
The underlying logic is that there cannot be more than one decree or operative order governing the same subject matter at a given point of time.
The doctrine solves the issue of which order must be enforced and given importance if there are multiple orders passed by both subordinate and superior courts on a single issue.
It clarifies and provides that in this situation, the order passed by the superior court or the successive order would prevail and that the order of the lower court would be merged with the order passed by the superior court.
The doctrine is not recognized statutorily but is a statement of judicial propriety and seeks to instil discipline in the functioning of subordinate adjudicating authorities, whether judicial, quasi-judicial, or administrative.
What is the Doctrine of Stare Decisis?
The doctrine of Stare Decisis refers to the concept that courts must follow previously made judicial decisions in cases where the same legal issues are brought before them in subsequent matters.
It means that courts refer to previous, similar legal issues to guide their decisions.
Such previous decisions that courts refer to are known as “precedents”.
Precedents are legal principles or rules that are created by the decisions given by courts.
Such decisions become an authority or an example for the judges to decide similar legal cases/issues in the future.
The doctrine of Stare Decisis creates an obligation on courts to refer to precedents when taking a certain decision.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.verdictum.in/court-updates/supreme-court/2024-insc-455-government-of-nct-of-delhi-v-bsk-realtors-llp-doctrine-of-merger-public-land-acquisition-act-indore-development-authority-1537663
With reference to the International Air Transport Association (IATA), consider the following statements:
- It is an international trade association of the world’s leading passenger and cargo airlines.
- It helps formulate industry policy on critical aviation issues, including environmental concerns.
- It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
India will host the world’s most premier aviation event, the annual general meeting (AGM) of the International Air Transport Association (IATA), next year, after a gap of 42 years.
About International Air Transport Association (IATA):
IATA is an international trade association for the world’s airlines, established in 1945 in Havana, Cuba, with 57 founding members.
Its mission is “to represent, lead, and serve the airline industry.”
IATA advocates for the interests of airlines on the world stage in addition to creating industry standards that
simplify processes,
increase safety,
enhance passenger convenience,
reduce costs,
improve efficiency, and
help achieve sustainability goals.
It currently represents some 330 airlines, comprising over 80% of global air traffic.
IATA members include the world’s leading passenger and cargo airlines.
Headquarters: Montreal, Canada.
Functions:
IATA supports many areas of aviation activity and helps formulate industry policy on critical aviation issues, including environmental concerns.
The association advocates on behalf of airlines worldwide, challenging arbitrary laws and charges, holding regulators and governments accountable, and striving for responsible regulation.
The IATA’s goal is to help airlines reduce costs and improve efficiency by simplifying operations and boosting passenger convenience.
The IATA assists airlines in operating under clearly defined norms in a safe, secure, efficient, and cost-effective manner.
Professional assistance is offered to all industry stakeholders in the form of a diverse offering of goods and professional services.
The IATA Annual General Meeting & World Air Transport Summit, held in June each year, formalises industry positions on industry and public policy issues and provides a focus for emerging industry issues.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/industry/news/india-to-host-iata-s-annual-global-airlines-summit-after-42-years-124060300548_1.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Stromatolites:
- They are primarily composed of trapped, bound, and cemented sedimentary grains by biofilms of microorganisms.
- Fungi are primarily responsible for the formation of stromatolites.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Scientists recently unearthed living stromatolites—ancient geological structures made from algae—on Sheybarah Island, nestled on the northeastern shelf of the Red Sea in Saudi Arabia.
About Stromatolites:
Stromatolites, or stromatoliths, are layered accretionary structures formed in shallow water by the trapping, binding, and cementation of sedimentary grains by biofilms of microorganisms, especially cyanobacteria (commonly known as blue-green algae).
As sediment layered in shallow water, bacteria grew over it, binding the sedimentary particles and building layer upon millimetre layer until the layers became mounds.
These structures are usually characterized by thin, alternating light and dark layers that may be flat, hummocky, or dome-shaped.
Stromatolites were common in Precambrian time (i.e., more than 542 million years ago).
Most stromatolites are marine, but some forms from Proterozoic strata more than 2 ½ billion years old are interpreted as inhabiting intertidal areas and freshwater ponds and lakes.
Living stromatolites are found in only a few salty lagoons or bays on Earth.
Western Australia is internationally significant for its variety of stromatolite sites, both living and fossilised.
Shark Bay in Western Australia is one of only two places in the world where living marine stromatolites exist.
Importance:
Stromatolites provide some of the most ancient records of life on Earth by fossil remains which date back more than 3.5 billion years ago.
Further, these biotic structures were instrumental in the Great Oxygenation Event over two billion years ago, introducing oxygen into the atmosphere and transforming the planet’s habitability.
Being photosynthetic, cyanobacteria produce oxygen as a by-product. Photosynthesis is the only major source of free oxygen gas in the atmosphere.
As stromatolites became more common 2.5 billion years ago, they gradually changed the Earth’s atmosphere from a carbon dioxide-rich mixture to the present-day oxygen-rich atmosphere.
This major change paved the way for the next evolutionary step, the appearance of life based on the eukaryotic cell (cell with a nucleus).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.businessinsider.in/science/news/the-first-life-forms-on-earth-might-have-come-from-saudi-arabia-scientists-find-new-proof/articleshow/110671214.cms
What does the Preston Curve represent?
The relationship between per capita income and average life expectancy
Explanation :
The Preston curve refers to a certain empirical relationship that is witnessed between life expectancy and per capita income in a country.
About Preston Curve:
It is a graphical representation that shows the relationship between a country’s per capita income (usually measured as GDP per capita) and its average life expectancy.
It was first proposed by American sociologist Samuel H. Preston in his 1975 paper, “The changing relation between mortality and level of economic development”.
Preston found that people living in richer countries generally had longer life spans when compared with people living in poorer countries.
This is likely because people in wealthier countries have better access to healthcare, are better educated, live in cleaner surroundings, enjoy better nutrition etc.
When a poor country begins to grow, its per capita income rises and causes a significant increase in life expectancy initially as people are able to consume more than just subsistence calories, enjoy better healthcare, etc.
For example, the average per capita income of Indians rose from around ₹9,000 per year in 1947 to around ₹55,000 per year in 2011. During the same period, the average life expectancy of Indians rose from a mere 32 years to over 66 years.
However, the positive relationship between per capita income and life expectancy begins to flatten out after a certain point.
In other words, an increase in the per capita income of a country does not cause much of a rise in the life expectancy of its population beyond a point, perhaps because human life span cannot be increased indefinitely.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/specials/text-and-context/what-does-the-preston-curve-postulate/article68247927.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the United Nations Global Supply Chain Forum:
- The inaugural edition of the forum was held in New Delhi.
- It was convened to tackle the pressing issues of global disruptions, climate change, and the COVID-19 pandemic and their impact on global trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The inaugural United Nations Global Supply Chain Forum, organized by UN Trade and Development (UNCTAD) and the Government of Barbados, concluded successfully recently.
About UN Global Supply Chain Forum:
It was the inaugural edition of the forum, which was held from May 21 to 24, 2024, in Barbados.
It was hosted by UN Trade and Development (UNCTAD) in collaboration with the Government of Barbados.
Over 1,000 participants from around the world convened to tackle the pressing issues of global disruptions, geopolitical tensions, climate change, and the COVID-19 pandemic and their impact on global trade.
It gathered key figures, including trade and transport Ministers from several small island developing states (SIDS).
Representatives from various UN agencies, major ports like the Port of Seattle, and industry leaders in shipping and logistics were also present.
The forum underscored the complexities and opportunities in decarbonizing global shipping, with a particular focus on developing countries rich in renewable energy resources.
Efforts to incentivize low- or zero-carbon fuels, establish safety frameworks for new fuels, and enhance port readiness for handling various fuels were identified as critical steps in driving sustainable freight transport and logistics.
One of the major outcomes of the forum was the launch of the “Manifesto for Intermodal, Low-Carbon, Efficient and Resilient Freight Transport and Logistics.”.
This manifesto calls for a significant transformation in freight transport to achieve global climate targets and improve socio-economic resilience, emphasizing the transition to zero-emission fuels, optimized logistics, and sustainable value chains.
Digital technologies were highlighted as key to enhancing global supply chain resilience.
Ministers from SIDS advocated for international financial support and investment in green and sustainable technologies to enhance energy efficiency and combat marine pollution.
A significant achievement of the forum was the launch of the UN Trade and Development Trade-and-Transport Dataset, developed in collaboration with the World Bank.
This comprehensive repository provides global data on over 100 commodities and various transport modes, offering a holistic view of trade and transport costs.
The next forum is set to take place in Saudi Arabia in 2026.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://theprint.in/economy/un-global-supply-chain-forum-calls-for-resilience-amid-world-trade-disruptions/2106414/
With reference to Ahilya Bai Holkar, consider the following statements:
- She was the Holkar Queen of the Maratha Malwa kingdom during the 18th century.
- She was instrumental in spreading the message of dharma and propagating industrialization.
- She earned a reputation for administering justice fairly during her rule, without partiality or partisanship.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The 300th birth anniversary of the Maratha queen Ahilya Bai Holkar — a great administrator and visionary with a spiritual inclination, was recently celebrated.
About Ahilya Bai Holkar:
Maharani Ahilyabai Holkar (31 May 1725 – 13 August 1795) was the Holkar Queen of the Maratha Malwa kingdom, India.
She is regarded as one of the most visionary female rulers of India. She is widely known for her wisdom, courage, and administrative skills.
Ahilyabai’s husband, Khanderao Holkar, was killed in the battle of Kumbher in 1754.
Twelve years later, her father-in-law, Malhar Rao Holkar, died.
A year after that, she was crowned the queen of Malwa kingdom. For the next 28 years, Ahilyabai ruled over Malwa in a just, wise, and knowledgeable manner.
Under Ahilyabai’s rule, Malwa enjoyed relative peace, prosperity, and stability, and her capital, Maheshwar, was turned into an oasis of literary, musical, artistic, and industrial pursuits.
She welcomed stalwarts such as Marathi poet Moropant, Shahir Ananta Gandhi, and Sanskrit scholar Khushali Ram into her capital.
She was instrumental in spreading the message of dharma and propagating industrialization.
She established a textile industry in Maheshwar, which today is very famous for its Maheshwari sarees.
She tried to protect her kingdom from plundering invaders.
She was military-trained and personally led armies into battle.
She appointed Tukojirao Holkar as the Chief of Army.
She earned a reputation for administering justice fairly during her rule, without partiality or partisanship.
She sentenced her only son, found guilty of a capital offense, to death by being crushed by an elephant.
She was a great pioneer and builder of Hindu temples.
She built hundreds of temples and Dharmashalas throughout India.
Her most notable contribution was the renovation and repair of the famous Kashi Vishwanath Temple in 1780.
She also made some landmark decisions during her reign, including the removal of traditional law confiscating the property of childless widows.
She held daily public audiences to help redress the problems of the common man.
John Keay, the British historian, gave the queen the title of ‘The Philosopher Queen’.
She passed away on August 13, 1795, at the age of seventy.
Her throne was then succeeded by her commander-in-chief and nephew, Tukojirao Holkar.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/when-a-holkar-queen-gave-india-ram-rajya-9362764/
ith reference to the ‘Phenome India’ Project, consider the following statements:
- It is an initiative by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).
- It aims to develop India-specific risk prediction models for cardio-metabolic diseases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, CSIR concluded the first phase of its longitudinal health monitoring project, Phenome India, and organised a special event, Phenome India Unboxing 1.0.
About ‘Phenome India’ Project:
Phenome India-CSIR Health Cohort Knowledgebase (PI-CheCK) is an initiative by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), launched on 7th December 2023.
Objective: The project aims to develop India-specific risk prediction models for cardio-metabolic diseases including diabetes, liver diseases, and cardiac diseases.
This is the first-ever pan-India longitudinal health monitoring study focused on cardio-metabolic diseases.
Participants: Nearly 10,000 participants including CSIR employees, pensioners, and their spouses from across 17 states and 24 cities have contributed to the study.
The collected data includes clinical questionnaires, lifestyle and dietary habits, anthropometric measurements, imaging/scanning data, and extensive biochemical and molecular data.
Importance: The study is crucial for understanding the risk and incidence of cardio-metabolic disorders in the Indian population which may differ from those in Western populations due to ethnic diversity and varied lifestyle patterns.
Precision medicine initiative: Through this project, CSIR is promoting Predictive, Personalised, Participatory, and Preventive (P4) healthcare, tailored specifically to the Indian phenotypic and genetic profiles.
About the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR):
Established: In September 1942.
Headquarters: Located in New Delhi.
Funding: CSIR is funded by the Ministry of Science and Technology.
Autonomous body: It operates as an autonomous body under the Societies Registration Act, of 1860.
Objectives:
CSIR is primarily focused on scientific research and development in various fields such as aerospace, biology, chemistry, earth sciences, engineering, and medical sciences.
Organisational structure:
President: The Prime Minister of India (Ex-officio)
Vice President: The Union Minister of Science and Technology (Ex-officio)
Governing body:
Head: The Director-General leads the governing body.
Other Ex-officio member: The finance secretary (expenditures).
Term duration: Other members serve terms of three years.
CSIR Advisory Board:
A 15-member body comprising prominent experts from various scientific and technological fields.
The board’s role is to provide science and technology insights to the governing body.
Member terms also span three years.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2022633
Consider the following statements with reference to the Direct Seeded Rice (DSR):
- It is a modern rice cultivation technique where rice seeds are directly sown into the field.
- It is an efficient and sustainable method of rice cultivation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, ICAR has commercialised herbicide-tolerant (Ht) basmati rice varieties that can control weeds.
About Direct Seeded Rice (DSR):
It is a modern rice cultivation technique where rice seeds are directly sown into the field, replacing the traditional method of transplanting seedlings from a nursery.
It is an efficient, and sustainable method of rice cultivation that offers significant benefits for farmers, the environment, and the economy.
About Herbicide-Tolerant Basmati Rice: ICAR commercialised non-genetically modified (non-GM) Ht basmati rice. These varieties allow direct application of the herbicide Imazethapyr due to a mutated ALS gene.
Scientific debate: Research indicates that hand weeding at specific intervals (20 and 40 days after sowing) in DSR is more effective and yield-enhancing than the use of Imazethapyr.
ICAR’s research favours eco-friendly hand weeding over repeated herbicide applications for weed control and higher seed yield.
Weed diversity and risks: Imazethapyr targets specific broadleaf weeds (BLW), not all weed types.
Herbicide-resistant weeds may evolve, threatening rice production and food security.
Similar challenges were seen with Bt-Cotton and pink bollworm resistance.
Historical context: In the North Western Plains (e.g., Punjab, Haryana), DSR has been long used for growing Basmati rice.
Green Revolution promoted water-intensive transplanted rice, causing ecological issues.
Innovations in DSR: From 2014 to 2017, innovations in DSR at IARI Karnal led to the adoption of TAR-VATTAR technology, which uses climatic factors and effective herbicides like Pendimethalin to reduce costs and save water.
Recent adoption and impact: During COVID-19, the labour shortage saw a spike in DSR adoption in Punjab, proving its viability.
The Haryana government conserved water (e.g., 31,500 crore litres saved in 2022) by adopting DSR on a large scale.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: ICAR’s herbicide-tolerant rice is not farmer-friendly and is a threat to national food security
Consider the following statements with reference to the European Parliament:
- It is the directly elected legislative body of the European Union (EU).
- The Parliament is headquartered in Paris, France.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The European Parliament elections this week will determine representatives who negotiate EU laws with member state governments, ensuring citizens’ representation in the EU.
About the European Parliament:
It is the directly elected legislative body of the European Union (EU).
It is one of the EU’s main institutions and represents the citizens of the EU member states.
The Parliament is headquartered in Strasbourg, France, but its work is conducted in three locations: Strasbourg, Brussels (Belgium), and Luxembourg.
Primary Functions:
Negotiating EU laws with member state governments.
Approving the EU budget.
Voting on international agreements and enlargements.
Approving or rejecting the appointment of the European Commission president and commissioners.
Composition, Term and Leadership:
The EP comprises 720 members of the European Parliament (MEPs) who are elected by EU citizens every five years.
MEPs then elect their president for a term of two and a half years.
Candidacy:
All candidates must be EU citizens.
Voters may choose from individual candidates or delegates from political parties.
Once elected, politicians from each nation join the European groups based on their political orientations.
Restrictions for elected individuals: Elected MEPs cannot hold functions in national governments or other political bodies such as the EU Commission, the Court of Justice, or the Court of Auditors.
Voting from abroad:
EU citizens can vote either in their country of origin or from abroad.
Voting from abroad is permitted in most member states except Czechia, Ireland, Malta, and Slovakia.
In Bulgaria and Italy, this right applies only to those living within the EU.
Voting process:
Some member states use closed lists, while others allow voters to select individual candidates in a preferential system.
Electors abroad can vote at their national embassies, via mail, or electronically.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/european-parliament-elections-this-week-what-happens-how-9370160/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Votes Counting Process:
- It is carried out under the supervision and direction of Returning Officer (RO).
- Postal ballots are counted first, followed by EVM counting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The counting of votes General Election 2024, began at 8 am today.
About Votes Counting Process
642 million voters participated in the world’s largest democratic exercise.
Election Commission of India (ECI): The ECI oversees the entire process, ensuring transparency and fairness in the counting of votes
Supervision and Direction:
Returning Officer (RO): Oversees counting, typically the District Magistrate nominated by the ECI.
Assistant Returning Officers: Support ROs, especially when overseeing multiple constituencies.
Counting Officials: Include supervisors, assistants, Group D employees, and micro observers.
Counting Supervisor: Usually a gazetted officer or equivalent.
Counting Assistant and Staff: Drawn from Group D employees.
Micro Observer: Ensures counting process integrity.
Access to Counting Hall:
Allowed: Counting supervisors, assistants, micro observers, ECI-authorized individuals, public servants on duty, candidates, election agents, and counting agents.
Not Allowed: Police officers, government ministers and mobile phones (except ECI Observer).
Counting Locations:
Appointed by RO, preferably at their headquarters but can be outside the constituency.
Separate halls for each Assembly constituency with a maximum of 14 counting tables per hall.
Counting Process:
EVMs are stored in a Strong Room, opened in the presence of observers and candidates.
Postal ballots: Postal ballots are counted first, followed by EVM counting. The process continues simultaneously until the final tallies are prepared.
Result display: Control Units display results, which are recorded in Form 17C.
Result Announcement:
They are announced after each round of EVM counting, followed by a parallel count by the ECI Observer.
VVPAT slips are verified sequentially after all EVM rounds, taking about an hour per machine.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: 2024 Lok Sabha election results: What happens at counting centres | Explained News - The Indian Express
With reference to the Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs), consider the following statements:
- ETF is a collection of marketable securities that track an underlying index.
- ETFs can be bought and sold throughout the trading day on stock exchanges at market prices.
- ETFs typically have lower fees and expenses compared to actively managed mutual funds.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Investors are pouring money into India-focused exchange-traded funds (ETFs) ahead of the country’s general election results.
About ETFs
An exchange-traded fund (ETF) is a collection of marketable securities that track an underlying index. ETFs combine features of mutual funds and stocks, allowing investors to gain exposure to a basket of assets while providing the flexibility to be traded on stock exchanges like individual stocks.
Diversification: ETFs provide diversification by allowing investors to gain exposure to a basket of assets with a single investment.
ETFs can be bought and sold throughout the trading day on stock exchanges at market prices, unlike mutual funds which are priced only at the end of the trading day.
Affordable: ETFs typically have lower fees and expenses compared to actively managed mutual funds, as they are passively managed to track an index.
The largest ETFs track major stock market indexes like the S&P 500, providing investors with broad exposure to the overall stock market.
Types of ETFs:
Equity ETFs that track equity indices
Debt ETFs that invest in government and corporate bonds
Commodity ETFs that invest in commodities like gold and silver
Sectoral/thematic ETFs that focus on specific industries or themes
International ETFs that track foreign indices
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: Investors pour into India ETFs ahead of election result - The Economic Times
Mount Kanlaon, recently seen in the news, is located in which one of the following countries?
Philippines
Explanation :
Hundreds of people sheltered in evacuation centres after Mount Kanlaon volcano erupted in the central Philippines recently.
About Mount Kanlaon:
It is a stratovolcano located in the north-central portion of the island of Negros, Philippines.
It is the highest mountain on the island of Negros and the 42nd tallest peak on an island in the world.
It is one of the active volcanoes in the Philippines and part of the Pacific Ring of Fire.
The volcano comprises a number of pyroclastic cones and craters.
The summit of Kanlaon volcano at an elevation of 2435 m contains a broad, elongated caldera with a crater lake, with a smaller but more active crater to the south.
The base of Kanlaon covers an area of 30 km x 14 km.
It is underlain by tropical volcanic materials composed of sheeted lava flows, lahar deposits, airfall tephra, and apron pyroclastic materials.
It is biologically diverse; and home to a number of species of Flora and Fauna.
The slopes are also headwater catchments of major river systems on the entire Negros Island.
Kanlaon has erupted several times since 1886 and typically comprise phreatic explosions of small to moderate size that produce minor ashfalls near the volcano.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/world/2024/Jun/04/hundreds-in-emergency-shelters-after-philippine-volcano-erupts
Which one of the following best describes ‘Tmesipteris oblanceolate’, recently seen in the news?
A rare species of fern
Explanation :
New research shows that a fork fern species, called Tmesipteris oblanceolata, has a genome that is 7% larger than that of the previous record-holder, the Japanese flowering plant Paris japonica, and more than 50 times the size of the human genome.
About Tmesipteris oblanceolate:
It is a rare species of fern which grows primarily on the ground or atop fallen tree trunks on the island nation of New Caledonia (an overseas French territory situated in the Southwest Pacific), and on neighboring islands such as Vanuatu.
It is a small plant, typically 10-15 centimeters (4-6 inches) in height.
It has a record-breaking genome size of 160.45 billion base pairs (Gbp), the units that make up a strand of DNA, 11 billion more than the previous record holder, the Japanese flowering plant Paris japonica and 50 times more than the human genome.
If stretched out like from a ball of yarn, the length of the DNA in each cell of this fern would extend nearly 350 feet (106 meters). The human genome would extend a mere 6-1/2 feet (2 meters).
Tmesipteris is a small genus of ferns whose ancestors evolved about 350 million years ago — well before dinosaurs set foot on Earth.
It is distinguished by its mainly epiphytic habit (it grows mainly on the trunks and branches of trees) and restricted distribution in Oceania and several Pacific Islands.
What are Ferns?
Ferns are plants that do not have flowers.
Similar to flowering plants, ferns have roots, stems, and leaves.
However, unlike flowering plants, ferns do not have flowers or seeds; instead, they usually reproduce sexually by tiny spores or sometimes can reproduce vegetatively.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/humble-fern-from-new-caledonia-boasts-worlds-largest-genome/article68238860.ece
Consider the following:
- Germany
- Netherlands
- France
- Austria
The Rhine River flows through how many of the above countries?
All four
Explanation :
Parts of the Rhine River in southern Germany were closed to cargo shipping recently after heavy rains raised water levels.
About Rhine River:
It is the 12th longest river in Europe and the longest in Western and Central Europe.
It is called different names depending on the country it flows through. It is called Rhein in Germany, Rhine in France, and Rijn in Netherlands.
It runs for over 1,232 km (766 miles) from its source in the Swiss Alps (in Switzerland).
It flows through six countries -Switzerland, Principality of Liechtenstein, Austria, Germany, France and the Netherlands before flowing into the North Sea at Rotterdam, Netherlands.
The Rhine forms a natural border between Germany and France.
The river drains an area of about 185,000 square kilometres.
Tributaries: Some of the notable tributaries of the Rhine River include Aare, Tamina, Moselle, Erft, Rein da Tuma, Plessur, Rotach and Wiese.
It is Europe’s most important commercial waterway, channeling the flow of trade among Switzerland, France, Germany, and the Netherlands.
The major cities along the Rhine include Basel (Switzerland), Cologne, Bonn, Duisburg, Mainz, Leverkusen, and Neuss (Germany), Strasbourg (France), and Rotterdam and Utrecht (Netherlands).
It facilitates industrial transportation and supports industrial production, with about 20% of the world’s chemical industries manufacturing along the river.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://theprint.in/environment/river-rhine-in-germany-closed-to-shipping-after-rain-raises-water-level/2113573/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Dnipro City:
- It is a city of regional significance located in the eastern portion of Russia.
- It is situated along both the banks of the Dnieper River.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Russian missile attack on the central city of Dnipro injured seven people, including two children, and damaged civilian infrastructure recently.
About Dnipro:
Formerly referred to as Dnipropetrovsk, Dnipro is a city of regional significance located in the Dnipropetrovsk Oblast, in the eastern portion of Ukraine.
It covers an area of 409,718 sq. km and is situated along both the banks of the Dnieper River, close to its meeting point with the Samara River.
The city center stands on the right bank, which forms a part of the Dnieper Upland, while the left bank forms a part of the Dnieper Lowland.
It is the country’s fourth-biggest city after the cities of Kyiv, Kharkiv, and Odesa.
As of 2021, the city of Dnipro had a population of 980,948 inhabitants.
It is considered one of the principal industrial centers of Ukraine.
The city hosts several facilities devoted to heavy industries producing various products, including launch vehicles, rolled metal, cast iron, machinery, agricultural equipment, different chemicals, etc.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://theprint.in/world/russian-missile-a
Minuteman III is an intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) developed by which one of the following countries?
United States
Explanation :
The US recently conducted an unarmed Minuteman III intercontinental ballistic missile test from the Californian Vandenberg Space Force Base.
About Minuteman III:
The LGM-30G Minuteman III is a solid-fueled, intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM), which the United States Air Force (USAF) first deployed in the 1960s.
It is the sole land-based component of the U.S. nuclear triad.
It was designed and manufactured by the Boeing Corporation.
Originally, it was only supposed to be kept in service for about ten years, but instead, it has been modernized as its replacement, the Ground-Based Strategic Deterrent (GBSD), is due to become available for use in 2029.
It was the first U.S. missile fitted with multiple independently targetable reentry vehicles (MIRVs).
The United States currently has an estimated 440 Minuteman III missiles in its arsenal.
Features:
It is a three-stage, solid-fuel missile.
The missile is 18.2 m long with a diameter of 1.85 m and a launch weight of 34,467 kg.
It has a maximum range of 13,000 km and is capable of carrying a payload of three reentry vehicles.
It now carries a single nuclear warhead pursuant to arms control agreements between the United States and Russia.
It has a fast launch time, nearly 100 percent testing reliability, and backup airborne launch controllers to preserve retaliatory capabilities.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/videos/world-news/on-cam-nuclear-capable-minuteman-iii-icbm-lights-up-u-s-skies-amid-tensions-with-russia-101717513357113.html
The term ” Parengyodontium album”, recently seen in the news, refers to:
a marine fungus that can break down plastic polyethene
Explanation :
A marine fungus called Parengyodontium album has been discovered to break down plastic polyethene (PE) in the ocean.
About Parengyodontium album:
It is a marine fungus that can break down plastic polyethene (PE), the most common plastic in the ocean.
It was discovered by Marine microbiologists from the Royal Netherlands Institute for Sea Research (NIOZ).
In this bioremediation process, the PE-derived carbon is converted into the fungal biomass of P. album, serving as its energy source.
Initial photodegradation of PE by UV sunlight is crucial for this process. It makes the fungus useful to degrade the floating oceanic plastic litter.
Humans produce over 400 billion kilograms of plastic annually, much of which ends up in the ocean.
Considering fungi as the ‘masters of degradation’ that they utilise a plethora of digestive enzymes for plastic degradation, researchers expect that there could be more plastic-degrading fungi in the deeper parts of the ocean.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.laboratoryequipment.com/613396-Fungus-Breaks-Down-Plastic-Polyethylene-in-the-Ocean/
Recently, researchers have discovered a novel protein, referred to as “Neo,” which is crucial for:
bacterial defence mechanisms against viral infections
Explanation :
Recent research has discovered a novel protein, referred to as “Neo,” which plays a critical role in bacterial defence mechanisms against viral infections, particularly bacteriophages.
About Neo:
Discovery of ‘Neo’: It was reported by researchers led by Stephen Tang and Samuel Sternberg in a 2023 preprint paper on bioRxiv while working on Klebsiella pneumoniae.
Mechanism: Bacteria defend themselves from viral infection (against bacteriophages) using diverse immune systems, many of which sense and target foreign nucleic acids. Defense-associated reverse transcriptase (DRT) systems are one of them.
In the DRT-2 system, the bacteria undergo de novo gene synthesis via rolling-circle reverse transcription (RT) of a non-coding RNA (ncRNA).
In uninfected bacterial cells, the ncRNA and RT enzyme lead to the synthesis of a repetitive single-stranded cDNA.
The presence of phage triggers the second-strand cDNA synthesis, leading to the production of long double-stranded DNA.
This double-strand cDNA generates messenger RNAs that encode a stop codon-less, never-ending open-reading frame (neo) whose translation (neo protein) causes potent growth arrest (cell dormancy) of bacteria. It protects the larger bacterial population from the spread of phage.
Significance in Biotechnology and Medicine:
It represents a potential biotechnological tool for controlling viral infections.
Retroelements in the human genome and bacterial reverse transcriptases have a common evolutionary history as well as share functional mechanisms.
Bacterial reverse transcriptases, believed to be the precursors of their eukaryotic counterparts, exhibit analogous mechanisms.
Reverse transcriptase:
The ability of cells to create DNA copies from RNA is called reverse transcription. It is performed by the enzyme called reverse transcriptase.
Reverse transcriptase, discovered by Howard Temin and David Baltimore in 1970, has revolutionised research methods in molecular biology and is crucial in studying and managing RNA viruses like HIV.
Reverse transcriptase is used in molecular biology to clone genes, perform PCR, and analyse genomes.
It is also used in diagnostics to detect and quantify viral loads, such as in the case of SARS-2. It also has helped track the virus’s spread, paving the way for surveillance, better public healthcare, and vaccine development.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/klebsiella-pneumoniae-central-dogma-new-genes-reverse-transcriptase/article68249504.ece
With reference to the “None Of The Above” (NOTA) option in elections, consider the following statements:
- It is a voting option on the ballot that allows voters to indicate disapproval of all contesting candidates without choosing any of them.
- It was used for the first time in the 2009 General elections to the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The “None of the Above” (NOTA) option has emerged as the runner-up in Madhya Pradesh’s Indore constituency, securing a record-breaking 2,18,674 votes, the highest-ever tally.
About NOTA (None of the Above)
It is a voting option on the ballot that allows voters to indicate disapproval of all contesting candidates without choosing any of them.
NOTA empowers the electors to express their negative opinions and a lack of support for the contenders.
It gives them the right to reject while maintaining the secrecy of their decision.
When was it first used?
NOTA was used for the first time in the 2013 Assembly elections in five states-Chhattisgarh, Mizoram, Rajasthan, Delhi, and Madhya Pradesh-and later in the 2014 General Elections.
It was introduced into the electoral process following the 2013 Supreme Court directive in the PUCL versus Union of India case.
Does NOTA Vote Count?
The Election Commission clarified that votes cast as NOTA are counted, but are considered ‘invalid votes’.
Even if NOTA votes get the most number of votes in a constituency, the next candidate with the second-most number of votes is declared the winner.
Therefore, votes made to NOTA do not change the outcome of an election.
Current Petition: The Supreme Court is considering a petition to frame guidelines for elections to be declared “null and void” if NOTA receives the highest number of votes in the constituency.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/more-than-2-lakh-votes-nota-indore-9372026/
With reference to the Zircon mineral, consider the following statements:
- It is a mineral belonging to the group of nesosilicates.
- It is characterized by its high refractive indices and strong lustre.
- It is used for radiometric dating due to its trace uranium content.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The study of zircon crystals has revealed that Earth had the necessary conditions to support life much earlier than previously thought. It reveals the early interaction of water and land, challenging existing theories of a water-covered Earth.
About Zircon materials:
Zircon is a mineral belonging to the group of nesosilicates. Its chemical name is zirconium silicate and the chemical formula is ZrSiO4.
Properties: Zircon crystals are notable for their high refractive indices and strong lustre.
They are naturally occurring in a variety of colours, including clear, green, red, yellow, and brown.
Geological significance: Zircon is used for radiometric dating due to its trace uranium content, allowing precise age determination.
Its high resistance to weathering makes it valuable for studying sedimentary and metamorphic rock history, providing insights into geological and crustal development over billions of years.
Zircon grains are important for studying early Earth conditions. They can preserve isotopic signatures that provide insights into the environment and temperatures of ancient Earth.
Zircon crystals found in the Jack Hills in Western Australia’s Midwest can be up to 4.4 billion years old, providing insight into early Earth.
Findings: The study of oxygen isotopes in zircon crystals reveals the presence of fresh water and dry land on early Earth, challenging existing theories of a water-covered Earth.
This interaction may have created conditions conducive to life, with the water cycle operating at least 4 billion years ago
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/science-technology/ancient-rocks-reveal-earth-had-life-supporting-conditions-4-billion-years-ago-96500
With reference to the blaze star, consider the following statements:
- It is a dim star located 3,000 light-years away from our solar system.
- It is found in the constellation Corona Borealis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The upcoming explosion of “Blaze Star” (T Coronae Borealis), a rare celestial event, will be visible to the naked eye for the first time since 1946. This event highlights the dynamic nature of the universe and the complex processes governing stellar evolution.
About Blaze Star:
Blaze Star, officially known as T Coronae Borealis (T CrB), is a dim star located 3,000 light-years away from our solar system.
It is found in the constellation Corona Borealis (the “Northern Crown”).
The Blaze Star is a rare example of a recurrent nova, occurring once in every 80 years.
Stellar components: The nova involves a binary star system comprising a white dwarf and a red giant.
The white dwarf draws material from the red giant, leading to periodic explosive increases in brightness.
The explosion occurs when the red giant’s surface temperature escalates dramatically, causing it to shed material onto the white dwarf, which then ignites a thermonuclear explosion.
The upcoming stellar explosion is expected to be visible with the naked eye and shine as brightly as Polaris, the North Star, for about a week.
NASA predicts this event to occur sometime between now and September of 2024.
Past notable eruptions of T CrB were recorded in the years 1946 and 1866, with earlier documented observations dating back to 1787 and 1217.
Frequency and Impact: Novae like T CrB occur once every few decades to a century, differing from supernovae in scale, frequency, and consequences.
Unlike supernovae, novae do not destroy the star system but allow it to reset and repeat the cycle.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livescience.com/space/astronomy/a-new-star-could-appear-in-the-sky-any-night-now-heres-how-to-see-the-blaze-star-ignite
Consider the following statements with reference to the Tele-MANAS:
- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
- It aims to improve access to maternal and child health services through telemedicine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was signed between the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) and the Ministry of Defence (MoD) to facilitate collaboration between the two ministries in operating a special cell of Tele MANAS.
About Tele-MANAS:
The Tele Mental Health Assistance and Networking Across States (Tele-MANAS) initiative was launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in October 2022.
It aims to provide free tele-mental health services all over the country round the clock, particularly to people in remote or underserved areas.
Tele-MANAS will be organised in a two-tier system:
Tier 1 comprises state Tele-MANAS cells, which include trained counsellors and mental health specialists.
Tier 2 will comprise specialists at the District Mental Health Programme (DMHP)/Medical College resources for physical consultation and/or e-Sanjeevani for audio-visual consultation.
Currently, there are 51 operational Tele-MANAS cells functioning across all 36 States and UTs, offering services in 20 different languages.
A toll-free, 24/7 helpline number (14416) is available as part of the initiative, allowing callers to select the language of choice for availing services. The service is also accessible at 1-800-891-4416.
This call will be an Interactive Voice Response system (IVRS) based audio call only, with a timely auto-call back approach.
Through the automated callback service, the caller will first be attended to by a trained counsellor.
Based on the level of care required, the counsellor will either provide the care needed within their capabilities or refer the caller for specialist care.
If the caller requires specialized care, the call will be handled by a mental health specialist (clinical psychologist, psychiatric social worker, psychiatric nurse, or psychiatrist). This level of service will contain both audio- and video-based options.
In case the caller requires urgent in-person intervention/complex evaluations and management, they will be referred to the nearest in-person service for a physical consultation, and/or an audio-visual consultation with a specialist will be arranged through eSanjeevani.
These centers will range from Health and Wellness Centre (HWCs) to tertiary care centers as part of the DMHP.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2022796
Consider the following statements with reference to the PraVaHa Software:
- It is a Computational Fluid Dynamics (CFD) software developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
- It can simulate external and internal flows on launch vehicles, winged and non-winged re-entry vehicles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) recently developed Computational Fluid Dynamics (CFD) software named PraVaHa.
About PraVaHa Software:
Parallel RANS Solver for Aerospace Vehicle Aero-thermo-dynamic Analysis (PraVaHa) is a Computational Fluid Dynamics (CFD) software developed in ISRO’s Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC).
It can simulate external and internal flows on launch vehicles, winged and non-winged re-entry vehicles.
PraVaHa has been extensively used in the Gaganyaan program for aerodynamic analysis of human-rated launch vehicles, viz, HLVM3, Crew Escape System (CES), and Crew Module (CM).
The software is secure and flexible enough to support collaborative development with academic institutions and government labs.
Currently, the PraVaHa code is operational to simulate airflow for Perfect Gas and Real Gas conditions.
Validations of the code are underway for simulating the effects of chemical reactions that occur during air dissociation upon ‘earth re-entry’ and ‘combustion’ as in scramjet vehicles.
PraVaHa is expected to replace most of the CFD simulations for aero characterisation, which are currently being carried out using commercial software.
Besides, this software is expected to help academia and other institutions, engaged in the design of missiles, aircraft, and rockets to find solutions to complex aerodynamic problems.
Importance of Computational Fluid Dynamics (CFD):
Initial aerodynamic design studies for launch vehicles demand evaluation of a large number of configurations.
Any aerospace vehicle moving through the Earth’s atmosphere during launch or re-entry is subjected to severe aerodynamic and aerothermal loads in terms of external pressure and heat flux.
Understanding the airflow around aircraft, rocket bodies, or CM during earth re-entry is essential to design the shape, structure, and Thermal Protection System (TPS) required for these bodies.
The unsteady part of aerodynamics contributes to serious flow issues around such rocket bodies and creates significant acoustic noise during the mission.
CFD is one such tool to predict the aerodynamic and aerothermal loads, which solve numerically the equations of conservation of mass, momentum, and energy along with the equation of state.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/isro-develops-pravaha-software-for-aerodynamic-design-and-analysis/article68246269.ece
Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘mycoheterotrophs’?
Plants that obtain carbon resources by parasitizing fungi on their roots.
Explanation :
A distinctive plant named Thismia malayana, which steals nutrients from underground fungi, has been published as a new species.
About Thismia malayana:
It is a new species of plant discovered in the tropical rainforests of Peninsular Malaysia.
It belongs to a group of plants known as mycoheterotrophs.
Unlike most plants, mycoheterotrophs do not perform photosynthesis.
Instead, they act as parasites, stealing carbon resources from the fungi on their roots.
This adaptation takes advantage of the mycorrhizal symbiosis, which is usually a mutually beneficial relationship between colonizing fungi and a plant’s root system.
What happens in mycorrhizal symbiosis?
The fungi help the tree absorb water and nutrients from the soil, while the tree provides the fungi with sugars produced through photosynthesis.
This symbiotic partnership is vital for the health and growth of both organisms.
But Thismia malayana, instead of contributing to the exchange, acts as a parasite, siphoning off carbon resources from the fungi without offering anything in return.
By stealing nutrients from fungi, this newly discovered species thrives in the low-light conditions of dense forest understories, where its highly specialised flowers are pollinated by fungus gnats and other small insects.
The unusual plant is around 2 cm long and is typically found hidden in leaf litter and growing near tree roots or old rotten logs.
Despite its small size, Thismia malayana is very sensitive to environmental changes and has been classified as Vulnerable according to the IUCN Red List.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.eurekalert.org/news-releases/1047022#:~:text=Discovered%20in%20the%20tropical%20rainforests,the%20fungi%20on%20their%20roots.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Maharani Temple:
- It is situated on a small hillock in Gulmarg, Jammu and Kashmir.
- The temple’s intricate carvings and designs reflect a beautiful blend of Indian and Persian styles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In a tragic event, the iconic Maharani Temple in Gulmarg, located atop a hillock was gutted in a blaze.
About Maharani Temple:
It is situated on a small hillock in the heart of Gulmarg town in the Baramulla district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Also known as the Rani Temple or Mohineshwar Shivalaya, the temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva and his consort, Parvati.
It was constructed by Mohini Bai Sisodia, wife of the former ruler of Kashmir, Maharaja Hari Singh, in 1915.
This temple was once a royal temple of the Dogra dynasty of the erstwhile princely state of Jammu and Kashmir.
It has been constructed in such a way that it can be seen from all corners of Gulmarg.
The temple’s intricate carvings and designs reflect a beautiful blend of Indian and Persian styles.
It is an example of religions intertwined with a Muslim priest performing rituals in the temple.
The Indian Army collaborated with local communities in 2021 to restore this 106-year-old temple. Apart from renovating the temple structure, the Indian Army also undertook the redesigning of pathways leading to the temple.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/travel/travel-news/gulmarg-iconic-106-year-old-maharani-temple-gutted-in-massive-fire/articleshow/110727074.cms
Which one of the following best describes ‘Musankwa sanyatiensis’, recently seen in the news?
A dinosaur species identified recently
Explanation :
Fossils found on the shoreline of Lake Kariba in Zimbabwe represent a completely new dinosaur species named Musankwa sanyatiensis.
About Musankwa sanyatiensis:
It is a new dinosaur species which has been identified from fossils discovered along the shores of Lake Kariba in Zimbabwe.
The dinosaur’s genus name, “Musankwa,” was the name of the houseboat scientists used during their expeditions to the research site.
In addition, its species name, “sanyatiensis,” alludes to the Sanyati River that flows into Lake Kariba.
It is the first dinosaur to be named from the Mid-Zambezi Basin of northern Zimbabwe in over 50 years.
Additionally, it is only the fourth dinosaur to be named from Zimbabwe, following the descriptions of “Syntarsus” rhodesiensis in 1969, Vulcanodon karibaensis in 1972, and, most recently, Mbiresaurus raathi in 2022.
The rocks yielding this new specimen date back to the Late Triassic period, approximately 210 million years ago.
Musankwa sanyatiensis is represented by the remains of a single hind leg, including its thigh, shin, and ankle bones.
Evolutionary analysis reveals that it was a member of the Sauropodomorpha, a group of bipedal, long-necked dinosaurs that were widespread during the Late Triassic.
Interestingly, it appears to be closely related to contemporaries in South Africa and Argentina.
Weighing in at around 390 kg, the plant-eating Musankwa sanyatiensis was one of the larger dinosaurs of its era and mostly lived in swamp areas.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-05-musankwa-sanyatiensis-dinosaur-zimbabwe.html
H5N2 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the
following diseases?
Bird Flu
Explanation :
Recently, the first-ever human case of H5N2 has been reported in Mexico City, involving a 59-year-old man who died from the infection.
Bird Flu
About:
Bird flu, or avian flu, is an infectious viral disease caused by the Avian Influenza A virus.
It mainly infects and spreads among poultry and some wild birds.
Occasionally, a form of the flu virus jumps from wild birds to poultry farms.
It then quickly evolves into a highly pathogenic flu virus that causes a larger wave of illness and death among birds.
Avian influenza can also infect humans due to direct contact with infected birds or contaminated environments.
About H5N2 Bird flu:
H5N2 is a subtype of the Avian Influenza A virus.
Influenza A viruses are categorised by subtypes based on the proteins on their surfaces.
There are 18 different hemagglutinin (H) and 11 different neuraminidase (N) subtypes, including H5N2.
Hemagglutinin is a glycoprotein found on the surface of influenza viruses and neuraminidase is an enzyme found on the surface of the viruses that enables them to be released from the host cell.
H5N2 has been first reported in poultry in Mexico.
Reasons Behind Spread:
While specific reasons for large-scale outbreaks of H5N2 are not well-established, factors like migratory bird patterns and interactions with domestic birds contribute to its spread.
Changes in environmental conditions, similar to those affecting H5N1, could influence the spread of H5N2 by altering bird migratory routes and behaviours.
Spread of H5N2 to Humans: Although human infections with H5N2 are rare, the potential for the virus to mutate and become more easily transmissible between humans while retaining its severity poses a significant public health risk.
Health Effects: Avian influenza virus infections in humans may cause mild to severe upper respiratory tract infections and can be fatal.
Conjunctivitis, gastrointestinal symptoms, encephalitis and encephalopathy have also been reported.
Diagnosis: The disease is diagnosed using molecular methods like Real-Time Polymerase Chain Reaction (RT-PCR).
Treatment: Antiviral drugs, notably neuraminidase inhibitors (oseltamivir, zanamivir) can reduce the duration of viral replication.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/mexico-man-dies-of-bird-flu-strain-that-hasnt-been-confirmed-before-in-a-human-who-says/article68257737.ece
The term “Milgromian dynamics” best describes which one of the following?
It is an alternative theory to explain the dynamics of galaxies without invoking dark matter
Explanation :
Recent research challenges MOND, a theory alternative to dark matter, with tests like the Cassini mission and observations of wide binary stars strongly favouring traditional Newtonian gravity and dark matter.
About MOND:
Galaxies rotate much faster than predicted by applying Newton’s law of gravity to their visible matter.
To explain this, some additional gravity is needed. This is why the idea of dark matter was first proposed.
Milgromian dynamics, also known as Modified Newtonian Dynamics (MOND), is an alternative theory to explain the dynamics of galaxies without invoking dark matter.
It was proposed by Mordehai Milgrom in 1983.
It suggests that Newtonian physics breaks down at very low accelerations (as seen at the edges of galaxies) altering gravitational behaviour without the need for dark matter.
Why has this theory failed?
MOND predicts noticeable gravitational effects at small scales, but tests involving Saturn’s orbit during the Cassini mission showed no anomalies, supporting Newtonian gravity over MOND in the solar system.
MOND theory has also faced failures in its inability to explain galaxy clusters, wide binary stars, and cosmic microwave background radiation, as well as its lack of a relativistic framework.
What is dark matter?
Dark matter is a hypothetical form of matter that does not interact with light or the electromagnetic field, but its presence is inferred by its gravitational effects on visible matter.
It emits no light or energy and thus cannot be detected by conventional sensors and detectors.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/with-bad-news-from-cassini-is-dark-matter-main-rival-theory-dead/article68254867.ece
The ‘Air of the Anthropocene’ initiative, recently seen in the news, is related to:
Air pollution
Explanation :
The “Air of the Anthropocene” project uses light painting to visualise air pollution in India, Ethiopia, and the UK, highlighting severe health risks and sparking global discussions on air quality.
About the ‘Air of the Anthropocene’ initiative:
The “Air of the Anthropocene” project is an international initiative combining art and science to visualise air pollution through light painting.
Artists and researchers collaborated to produce photographic evidence using digital light painting techniques and low-cost air pollution sensors.
What is Particulate Matter?
Particulate matter (PM) is a complex mixture of small solid particles and liquid droplets suspended in the air. It includes both organic and inorganic particles such as dust, pollen, soot, smoke, and liquid droplets, which vary greatly in size, composition, and origin.
Impact of Air Pollution:
Impact on Public Health: Particulate matter, particularly PM2.5, is linked to severe health issues, including cardiovascular diseases, stroke, and respiratory illnesses. It is a leading cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide.
The World Health Organisation (WHO) estimates that 99% of the global population breathes air that exceeds WHO guideline limits, with about 7 million premature deaths annually linked to air pollution.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/global-project-paints-evidence-of-air-pollution-in-india/article68254930.ece
With reference to the Special Category Status (SCS), consider the following statements:
- The Constitution of India did not include any provision for categorising SCS.
- The Centre pays 90% of the funds required in centrally-sponsored schemes to SCS category states as compared to 60% or 75% for other states.
- Currently only Assam, Arunachal Pradesh and Himachal Pradesh enjoy the status of SCS.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Special category status for Bihar and Andhra Pradesh: Past demands come back into the limelight.
About Special Category Status (SCS):
In 1969, the Fifth Finance Commission of India introduced the Special Category Status to aid certain states in their development and accelerate growth if they faced historical economic or geographical disadvantages.
Criteria:
Factors considered for granting Special Category Status included challenging and hilly terrain, low population density, a significant tribal population, strategic border location, economic and infrastructural backwardness, and non-viable state finances.
However, the system was discontinued based on the recommendation of the 14th Finance Commission, which proposed addressing the resource gap of states by increasing the tax devolution from 32% to 42%.
Benefits for States under SCS:
The Centre pays 90% of the funds required in centrally-sponsored schemes, compared to 60% or 75% for other states.
Preferential treatment in getting central funds assistance, concession on excise duty to attract industries to the state, a significant 30% of the Centre’s gross budget goes to the special category states etc.
States under Special Category Status
Currently, eleven states have the Special Category Status in the country including Assam, Nagaland, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Sikkim, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Uttarakhand, and Telangana.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-politics/special-category-status-naidu-andhra-pradesh-9374411/
‘State of Ocean Report, 2024’ which provides crucial insights into the current state of global oceans, is initiated by which one of the following?
Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission
Explanation :
UNESCO’s ‘State of Ocean Report, 2024’ provides crucial insights into the current state of global oceans, emphasising the challenges posed by climate change and human activities.
About UNESCO State of Ocean Report:
The UNESCO ‘State of the Ocean Report’, initiated by the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC-UNESCO) during the 2022 United Nations Ocean Conference, serves as an accessible overview of the ocean’s current status.
It supports the monitoring of the UN Decade of Ocean Science for Sustainable Development (2021–2030) and encourages actions towards a sustainable ocean future.
The inaugural 2022 edition featured insights from over 100 marine science experts across various fields including ocean acidification, pollution, and tsunami warning.
This report, and its subsequent annual editions released on World Oceans Day (June 8), aligns with the seven outcomes of the UN Ocean Decade.
The key finding of the report
The upper 2,000 meters of the oceans have experienced significant warming, with the rate increasing from 0.32 ± 0.03 watt per square meter (W/m²) from 1960 to 2023 to 0.66 ± 0.10 W/m² in the last two decades.
Oceans are absorbing about 90% of the Earth’s excess energy, causing increased deoxygenation and threatening marine ecosystems and human economies dependent on them.
Ocean acidification is on the rise globally, particularly in the open ocean, with a noted pH decline since the late 1980s; more comprehensive data from coastal areas is needed.
Sea levels have risen consistently since 1993, necessitating improved monitoring systems at all scales.
There’s growing interest in marine carbon dioxide removal (mCDR) technologies, but their ecological impacts and effectiveness remain uncertain.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-change/unesco-s-state-of-ocean-report-highlights-key-knowledge-gaps-in-research-data-on-spiking-oceanic-warming-96534
Consider the following statements with reference to the Onge Tribe:
- It is one of the most primitive tribes in India, inhibiting the Nicobar Islands.
- It does not believe in or follow firm worshipping practices or sacrifices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Andaman’s Onge tribe king Totoko and queen Priya welcomed a baby boy recently, bringing the tribe’s total population to 136.
About Onge Tribe:
Onges are one of the most primitive tribes in India that belong to the Negrito racial ancestry.
They are inhabiting Little Andaman Island, the most southerly island in the Andaman archipelago.
They are a semi-nomadic group and were dependent on the ocean and the forest for sustenance.
Unlike other religions, they do not believe in or follow firm worshipping practices or sacrifices.
The colour of the teeth has a unique interpretation among Onges, who consider the pearly white teeth a symbol of death. They continue to chew the bark to impart a red colour to their teeth.
They decorate their bodies and their faces with white and ochre clay. On special occasions, they place a greater emphasis on body ornamentation.
Until the 1940s, the Onge were the sole permanent inhabitants of Goubalambabey (the Onge name for Little Andaman).
They now share the 732 sq km island with around 17,000 settlers from India, Bangladesh, and the Nicobar Islands. ‘
The Onge population was also decimated following contact with British colonists and Indian settlers; it fell from 670 in 1900 to only 96 members by the early 2000s.
In 1976, the Onge were settled in order to have ‘the basic facilities for hygienic living and protection against elements of nature’.
They now live in a reserve in Dugong Creek (Little Andaman) that is a fraction of the size of their original territory.
They Onge tribe is also one of the world’s least prolific and infertile communities. Infertility affects somewhat more than 40% of married couples.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://theprint.in/india/andamans-onge-tribe-king-queen-welcome-baby-boy-population-now-136/2104280/
Standard Missile 6 (SM-6), recently seen in the news, was developed by which one of the following countries?
United States of America
Explanation :
The US SM-6 missiles are hogging the headlines again after photographs of a US Navy F/A-18 Super Hornet appeared carrying an air-launched variant of the SM-6, or the RIM-174 missile.
About Standard Missile 6 (SM-6):
It is a multi-mission missile capable of antiair warfare, terminal ballistic missile defense, and antiship strike roles.
It was developed by Raytheon Company, a major U.S. defense contractor, primarily for the United States Navy.
The first version of the Standard Missile-6 became operational in December 2014.
Features:
It is the first missile of its kind, with anti-air, anti-surface, and sea-based terminal defence capabilities.
It has a length of 6.6 m and a diameter of 0.5 m. It weighs 1,500 kg and carries a 64 kg blast fragmentation warhead.
It is an extended-range active missile (ERAM) that uses the sophisticated signal processing and guidance technologies of the AMRAAM (Advanced Medium-Range Air-to-Air Missile).
The interceptor uses semi-active homing and active homing guidance to achieve accurate engagement of the assigned targets.
At its surface-to-air published range, the SM-6 achieves ranges of 240 km, with even higher estimated ranges up to 463 km.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.eurasiantimes.com/us-f-18-super-hornet-spotted-with-three-in/#google_vignette
Consider the following statements with reference to the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC:
- It is a part of the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance and administers all the indirect tax-related matters in India.
- It also ensures that taxes on foreign and inland travel are administered as per the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) has invited suggestions on the draft ‘Central Excise Bill, 2024’ from stakeholders.
About Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC):
CBIC (erstwhile Central Board of Excise and Customs) is a part of the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
CBIC administers all the indirect tax-related matters in India.
It deals with the tasks of formulation of policy concerning levy and collection of Customs, Central Excise duties, Central Goods & Services Tax and IGST, prevention of smuggling and administration of matters relating to Customs, Central Excise, Central Goods & Services Tax, IGST, and Narcotics to the extent under CBIC’s purview.
The Board is the administrative authority for its subordinate organizations, including Custom Houses, Central Excise and Central GST Commissionerates, and the Central Revenues Control Laboratory.
It also ensures that taxes on foreign and inland travel are administered as per the law, and the collection agencies deposit the taxes collected to the public exchequer promptly.
Under customs, matters relating to the collection of customs duty at:
International Airports
Seaports
Custom Houses
International Air Cargo Stations
International Inland Container Depots (ICDs)
Land Customs Station
Special Economic Zones (SEZs)
Container Freight Stations (CFSs) are administered by the CBIC.
Organisation:
The CBIC is headed by a Chairman, who is appointed by the Indian Government.
The organization is divided into various divisions and zones, each headed by a Chief Commissioner or Director General.
The CBIC also has a GST intelligence wing, which is responsible for detecting and preventing tax evasion.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/policy/economy-centre-proposes-new-excise-law-ease-of-doing-business-in-focus-3514847/
The World Wealth Report 2024, recently seen in the news, was released by which one of the following organisations?
A.
World Bank
B.
World Economic Forum
C.
European Union
None of the above
Explanation :
The number of high-net-worth individuals (HNWI) in India increased by 12.2% in 2023 compared to 2022 as per the Capgemini Research Institute’s World Wealth Report 2024
About World Wealth Report 2024:
It is released by the Capgemini Research Institute.
It covers 71 countries, accounting for more than 98% of global gross national income and 99% of world stock market capitalization.
Highlights:
Global high-net-worth individuals (HNWI) wealth expanded by 4.7% in 2023, reaching $86.8 trillion. Similarly, the HNWI population increased by 5.1% to 22.8 million globally.
HNWIs are individuals with investable assets of $1 million or more, excluding their primary residence, collectibles, consumables, and consumer durables.
HNWIs are segmented into three categories based on wealth bands: Ultra-HNWIs ($30 million or more), Mid-Tier Millionaires ($5-30M) and Millionaires Next Door (USD 1-5M).
Among the best performers in the APAC region were India and Australia, which recorded HNWI wealth growth of 12.4% and 7.9%, and HNWI population growth of 12.2% and 7.8%, respectively.
A resilient economy and robust performance of the equity markets drove wealth growth in both of these countries.
HNWI in India increased by 12.2% in 2023 vs 2022, bringing the total number of HNWI population to 3.589 million.
The financial wealth of India’s HNWIs increased by 12.4% in 2023 to $1,445.7 billion, compared to $ 1,286.7 billion in 2022.
India’s unemployment rate decreased to 3.1% in 2023, down from 7% in 2022
India’s country’s market capitalisation increased by 29.0% in 2023, after an increase of 6% in 2022.
The country’s national savings as a percentage of GDP also increased to 33.4% in 2023, compared to 29.9% in 2022.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/wealth-of-hnwis-reached-unprecedented-levels-in-2023-capgemini-study/article68259447.ece
Which of the following is not a placental mammal?
Kangaroo
Explanation :
New research from Stockholm University shows that the typical mammalian heater organ, brown fat, evolved exclusively in modern placental mammals.
About Placental Mammals:
A placental mammal is an animal that has a placenta.
The placenta is a vascular organ formed during gestation of female mammals (except for monotremes and marsupials), built up of maternal and fetal tissues jointly, and which serves for the transport of nutrient substances from the mother to the fetus and to eliminate fetal waste products.
Placental mammals carry their fetus in the uterus until they are born at an advanced stage.
The young get their nourishment through a placenta before birth. The placenta delivers nutrients and oxygen to the fetus in the uterus.
The placenta permits a long period of fetal growth in the uterus. As a result, the fetus can become large and mature before birth.
Classified under the subclass Eutheria, placental mammals have 4,000 identified species.
Fossil evidence shows that the first placental mammals evolved between about 163 million and 157 million years ago during the Jurassic Period (201.3 million to about 145 million years ago).
The placentals include all living mammals except marsupials and monotremes (egg-laying mammals).
Marsupials and monotremes have a less-developed, less-efficient type of placenta that limits the gestation period.
Hence option b is the answer.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-06-marsupials-key-heater-mammals.html
The United States–India Initiative on Critical and Emerging Technology (iCET) aims to strengthen strategic partnerships in:
artificial intelligence and quantum computing
Explanation :
US National Security Adviser Jake Sullivan will visit India this month to discuss shared US-India priorities with the new government.
About United States–India Initiative on Critical and Emerging Technology (iCET)
The Initiative on Critical and Emerging Technologies (iCET) is a framework for cooperation between India and the United States on critical and emerging technologies, it was launched in January 2023.
Key Features iCET
Focus areas: It aims to strengthen its strategic partnership and drive technology and defence cooperation in areas such as artificial intelligence, quantum computing, semiconductors, and wireless telecommunication.
The partnership aims to position India and the United States as “trusted technology partners” to build supply chains and support the co-production and co-development of items.
Private sector and academic involvement: The iCET requires the private sector, knowledge partners, and academia in both countries to give functional meaning to the outcomes and provide the necessary strategic and operational assurances to the private sector.
Progress:
Quantum Coordination Mechanism: India and the United States have established a Quantum Coordination Mechanism to drive collaboration in quantum computing.
Defence Industrial Cooperation: The two countries have concluded a roadmap for defence industrial cooperation and are close to finalising a mega jet engine deal.
Semiconductor Supply Chain: An MoU has been signed to establish a semiconductor supply chain, paving the way for creating a semiconductor sub-committee.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: US National Security Adviser Jake Sullivan expected in India in June for iCET review - The Economic Times
Which one of the following best describes the term Origami in biology?
It refers to the folding of biological molecules, such as DNA, into specific shapes or structures.
Explanation :
Combining a deep curiosity and “recreational biology,” Stanford researchers have discovered how a simple cell produces remarkably complex behaviour, all without a nervous system.
About Origami
Origami in biology refers to the folding of biological molecules, such as DNA, into specific shapes or structures.
This process is inspired by the traditional Japanese art of paper origami, where a flat sheet of paper is folded into a three-dimensional object without cutting or gluing.
Similarly, origami techniques are used in biology to create complex structures from DNA, proteins, or other biological molecules.
Applications of Origami in Biology
Synthetic Biology: Researchers use principles of origami to design and construct new proteins and RNA molecules with desired functions. This includes creating novel enzymes, therapeutic proteins, and RNA-based sensors.
Drug Design: Understanding how proteins fold and the structures they form helps in designing drugs that can interact with specific protein targets. Misfolded proteins can be targeted to correct folding errors.
Nanotechnology: DNA origami is a technique where DNA is folded into precise shapes at the nanoscale. This has applications in creating nanoscale devices and materials for medical and technological purposes.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: The first example of cellular origami discovered in protist
Consider the following statements with reference to the New Framework For Unaffected Price:
- It was introduced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
- It aims to maintain a reasonable price for a scrip, excluding any undesired influence before the rumour is confirmed or refuted.
2 only
Explanation :
To tackle any impact on the price of a scrip because of a market rumour, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) introduced a framework centred around its ‘unaffected price.’
About New Framework
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) introduced a framework centred around the concept of “unaffected price” to tackle the impact of market rumours on stock prices.
Purpose: The framework aims to maintain a reasonable price for a scrip, excluding any undesired influence before the rumour is confirmed or refuted, thereby helping both companies and investors.
Implementation: The framework will be implemented in phases:
Phase 1 (June 1): Applies to the top 100 listed entities.
Phase 2 (December 1): Applies to the top 250 listed entities.
How “Unaffected Price” works: The “unaffected price” is the price of the scrip before a particular rumour emerged and became public. This mechanism ensures a fair price discovery process, protecting the interests of market participants.
Benefits: The framework is expected to:
Improve market integrity by promoting transparency and faster responses from listed companies.
Enhance confidence among investors.
Reduce speculative activity.
Ensure a level playing field for buybacks, mergers and acquisitions, and other transactions.
Timeframe: The “unaffected price” must be determined within 24 hours of any material price movement excluding the rumour.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: SEBI’s framework to shield stock prices against market rumours: Explained - The Hindu
Consider the following statements with reference to the Clean Economy Investor Forum:
- It is one of the initiatives under the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF).
- It aims to mobilize investments into sustainable infrastructure, climate technology and renewable energy projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Indian delegation participated in the inaugural Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) Clean Economy Investor Forum.
About Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF)
It is an economic initiative launched by the United States President on May 23, 2022.
IPEF has 14 members: Australia, Brunei, Fiji, India, Indonesia, Japan, South Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, United States and Vietnam.
This framework is intended to advance resilience, sustainability, inclusiveness, economic growth, fairness, and competitiveness for member economies.
The forum seeks to go beyond traditional free trade agreements and work on the issues of supply chains, clean energy, decarbonisation, infrastructure, and tax and anti-corruption.
Four pillars of cooperation: Trade, Supply Chain, Clean Economy, and Fair Economy. India is not part of the trade pillar.
Clean Economy Investor Forum
The IPEF Clean Economy Investor Forum is one of the initiatives under the IPEF.
It brings together the region’s top investors, philanthropies, financial institutions, innovative companies, startups and entrepreneurs. The forum aims to mobilize investments into sustainable infrastructure, climate technology and renewable energy projects.
The Department of Commerce is the nodal agency for the IPEF engagements, and the IPEF Clean Economy Investor Forum is managed by Invest India, the country’s national investment promotion agency.
Hence both the statements are correct.
News: India participates in the inaugural Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) Clean Economy Investor Forum
The National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) is chaired by which one of the following authorities?
Cabinet Secretary of India
Explanation :
Union Cabinet Secretary chaired a meeting of the National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) to review preparedness to deal with heat waves and forest fires.
About NCMC
At the national level, the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) and the National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) are the key committees involved in top-level decision-making regarding Disaster Management (DM).
It deals with major crises which have serious or national ramifications.
Key functions:
The NCMC plays a crucial role in managing natural disasters by reviewing preparedness measures, coordinating relief efforts, and providing logistic and financial support to state governments.
It is responsible for ensuring that all necessary preventive and precautionary measures are taken to minimize damage and loss of life
Composition:
Cabinet Secretary (Chairperson) and Secretaries of Ministries / Departments and agencies with specific Disaster management responsibilities.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: Cabinet Secretary Shri Rajiv Gauba chaired meeting of NCMC to review preparedness to deal with heat wave and forest fires
Which one of the following is the theme of World Environment Day 2024?
Land restoration, desertification, and drought resilience
Explanation :
The 51st edition of World Environment Day was a record-breaking success, with an unprecedented 3,854 official events and tens of millions of online engagements across the globe.
About World Environment Day:
It is celebrated annually on June 5 to promote more sustainable practices while advocating for the protection of our planet.
Led by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), it is the largest global platform for public outreach to raise awareness and take action on urgent environmental issues – the planet’s most-pressing environmental problems.
Theme of World Environment Day 2024: Land restoration, desertification, and drought resilience.
History:
The United Nations General Assembly declared June 5 as World Environment Day during the Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment, held in Stockholm, Sweden, in 1972 (June 5-16).
It was the first world conference to make environmental protection a major issue.
The UNEP was established in the same year.
World Environment Day was celebrated for the first time in 1973 under the theme ‘Only One Earth’.
Since then, it has grown into a global platform involving over 150 countries.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.unep.org/news-and-stories/story/world-environment-day-turns-global-gaze-towards-land-restoration
Which one of the following best describes the term ‘Zombie Company’?
A company whose revenue only covers fixed routine and operating costs.
Explanation :
An Associated Press analysis found the number of publicly-traded “zombie” companies has soared to nearly 7,000 around the world, including 2,000 in the United States.
About Zombie Company:
A zombie company is a corporate entity with very limited cash flows, only sufficient to pay the interest on the debt borrowed but not the principal amount of the loan.
The revenue generated by the business operations only covers the fixed routine and operating costs (wages, rent, interest payments on debt, for example).
These companies, often referred to as the “living dead” or “zombie stocks,” have no excess capital to invest in growth, innovation, or significant improvements.
They are highly dependent on banks for financing.
They are typically subject to higher borrowing costs and may be one just event—market disruption or a poor quarter performance—away from insolvency or a bailout.
They are “uncompetitive survivors” and contribute to lower productivity in the global economy.
These companies can pose a risk to the broader economy by tying up resources that could be more effectively used by healthier, more innovative firms.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://apnews.com/article/zombie-business-corporate-debt-investing-interest-borrowing-52bd9ebbe1dd98983d39fe7d14e3c7fd
Consider the following statements with reference to the Arun-III Hydro Power Project:
- It is a run-of-the-river hydropower project being constructed on the Arun River in Nepal with Indian assistance.
- The entire amount of electricity generated by the project will be sold to India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The 900 MW Arun III Hydropower Project in eastern Nepal, constructed with Indian assistance, recently achieved a significant milestone with a tunnel breakthrough.
About Arun-III Hydro Power Project:
It is a 900 MW run-of-the-river hydropower project being constructed on the Arun River in Sankhuwasabha District of Eastern Nepal.
Arun is a tributary of the Koshi River in Nepal.
The project comprises a 70-meter-tall and 466-meter-long concrete gravity dam and a Head Race Tunnel (HRT) of 11.74 km with underground an power house containing four generating units of 225 MW each on left bank.
It is being developed with Indian assistance at a cost of Rs. 144 billion.
Once completed, it will be the biggest hydroelectric facility in Nepal.
It is being developed on a build-own-operate-and-transfer (BOOT) basis by Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam (SJVN) Arun-III Power Development Company (SAPDC), a joint venture of the Government of India and the Government of Himachal Pradesh.
SAPDC will operate the facility for a period of 25 years, excluding the construction period of five years, before transferring ownership to the Nepal government.
Nepal will receive 21.9% of the electricity generated at the power plant as free power during these initial 25 years of commercial operations.
The output from the power plant will be transferred to Muzaffarpur in India through a 317 km-long 400 kV double circuit transmission line.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.devdiscourse.com/article/headlines/2972836-nepal-and-india-mark-major-milestone-in-arun-iii-hydropower-project
With reference to Pump and Dump Scheme in Stock Market, consider the following statements:
- It involves artificially inflating the price of a stock through misleading information, only to sell the stock at the inflated price.
- It is particularly prevalent in large-cap stocks.
- Under the SEBI guidelines, pump and dump schemes are completely banned in India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Securities Exchange Board of India’s (SEBI) recently slapped a fine of Rs 7.75 crore on 11 individuals for allegedly operating a ‘pump and dump’ scheme.
About Pump and Dump Scheme:
In the stock market, a pump and dump scheme is a type of manipulation activity that involves artificially inflating the price of a stock through false and misleading information, only to sell the stock at the inflated price and leave investors with significant losses.
It is particularly prevalent in the micro-cap and small-cap sectors, where companies often have limited public information and trading volumes are lower.
How does pump and dump work? This process involves several steps:
First, a significant amount of stock in a relatively small or thinly traded company is acquired. These stocks are often referred to as ‘penny stocks’ because they trade at low prices and are more susceptible to price manipulation due to low trading volumes.
Then the stock is aggressively promoted to create a buzz and attract investors. This promotion can take various forms, including sending out mass emails or newsletters with exaggerated claims about the company’s prospects, as well as misleading social media posts. Promoters aim to create buzz and drive interest in the stock.
As the promotion gains traction, more investors buy into the stock, driving up its price due to increased demand. Sometimes, fraudsters may also engage in coordinated buying to further boost the price. During this phase, the stock often experiences rapid and significant price increases, creating the illusion of a hot, high-potential investment.
Once the stock price has been pumped up sufficiently, the sell-off begins at the inflated prices. This selling pressure causes the stock price to plummet, often leaving unsuspecting investors with significant losses as the stock returns to its actual value or even lower.
Impact:
Those who bought into the hype and purchased the stock at inflated prices typically face substantial losses when the stock price crashes.
These schemes undermine confidence in the financial markets, making legitimate investors wary of potential fraud.
Under the SEBI guidelines, pump and dump schemes are completely banned.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/markets/news/explained-what-is-pump-and-dump-scheme-in-stock-market-and-how-to-be-safe-124060500381_1.html
With reference to the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999, consider the following statements:
- It deals with provisions relating to procedures, formalities, dealings, etc. of foreign exchange transactions in India.
- It empowers the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to make rules and regulations to carry out the provisions of the act.
- It makes any offence related to foreign exchange a criminal offence in India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
RBI is planning to rationalise the Guidelines for Export and Import of Goods and Services under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999.
About Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999:
FEMA came into force on June 1, 2000, as a successor to the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, or FERA, of 1973, with changing economic conditions in a post-liberalisation India.
The main objective of FEMA is to facilitate external trade and payments and promote the orderly development and maintenance of the foreign exchange market in India.
FEMA deals with provisions relating to procedures, formalities, dealings, etc. of foreign exchange transactions in India.
The FEMA regulates various aspects of foreign exchange transactions, including the acquisition and holding of foreign exchange, the payment and settlement of foreign exchange transactions, the export and import of currency, and other related activities.
The act also empowers the RBI to make rules and regulations to carry out the provisions of the act.
It also makes the offence related to foreign exchange a civil offence.
Violations of the provisions of FEMA can result in penalties and fines.
FEMA’s head office is known as the Enforcement Directorate and is situated in Delhi.
Applicability:
It is applicable to the whole of India and equally applicable to the agencies and offices located outside India (which are owned or managed by an Indian Citizen).
FEMA is applicable to the following entities and transactions:
Foreign exchange.
Foreign security.
Exportation of any commodity and/or service from India to a country outside India.
Importation of any commodity and/or service from outside India.
Securities as defined under the Public Debt Act 1994.
Purchase, sale, and exchange of any kind (i.e., Transfer).
Banking, financial, and insurance services.
Any overseas company owned by an NRI (Non-Resident Indian) and the owner is 60% or more.
Any citizen of India, residing in the country or outside (NRI).
It envisages that the RBI shall have a controlling role in the management of foreign exchange. Since RBI cannot directly handle foreign exchange transactions, it authorizes “Authorised Persons” to deal in foreign exchange.
An Authorized person can be
Authorized dealer.
Money changer,
Off-shore banking unit or
Any other person for the time being authorized to deal in foreign exchange or foreign securities by the RBI.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/money-and-banking/rbi-to-ease-fema-guidelines-draft-paper-expected-soon/article68262154.ece
Which one of the following best describes the term Sticky Inflation?
It refers to a phenomenon which leads to persistent inflation.
Explanation :
Sticky inflation has dashed the hopes of early rates cuts with experts now pencilling in repo rate cut by the RBI from December this year. Economists expect a shallow rate cut cycle with RBI likely to lower the repo rate by 75 – 100 basis points.
About Sticky Inflation
Sticky inflation refers to a phenomenon where prices do not adjust quickly to changes in supply and demand, leading to persistent inflation.
Features of sticky inflation:
Prices for goods or services that don’t appear to be coming down anytime soon are considered sticky.
Causes: Rising wages and prices for consumer goods and services are typically the main factors behind inflation stickiness.
Prices for medical services, education, and housing are some of the most important factors that can contribute to sticky inflation.
It erodes the purchasing power of consumers and puts pressure on housing affordability.
Sticky inflation presents challenges for central banks in controlling inflation without causing a recession.
To address sticky inflation, central banks usually raise interest rates.
However, raising rates too fast can cause the economy to fall into a recession, while not raising them enough will allow prices to continue increasing.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: Sticky inflation delays rate cut - Economy News | The Financial Express
Mongla Port is located in which one of the following countries?
Bangladesh
Explanation :
India is looking to operate the Mongla Port in Bangladesh and build a new terminal, aiming to counterbalance China’s strategic presence in the region.
About Mongla Port
The Port of Mongla is located in the Bagerhat District of Bangladesh. It lies 62 km north of the Bay of Bengal coastline.
It is situated at the confluence of the Pasur River and the Mongla River.
The Port is surrounded and protected by the Sundarban mangrove forest.
Mongla is the second largest seaport in Bangladesh after Chittagong.
Significance for India:
Provides strategic access to India’s northeastern states (e.g., Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya).
Reduces distance and transportation costs for goods to and from these regions.
India Ports Global Limited (IPGL) has expressed interest in operating Mongla Port, which would be its third international port operation after Chabahar in Iran and Sittwe in Myanmar.
Expansion project: India and Bangladesh signed a MoU on the use of Chattogram and Mongla ports in 2015.
The MoU envisages the transit of goods from Mongla port to the northeastern states of India through waterways, roads and railways.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: India eyes Bangladesh’s Mongla port - The Economic Times
NaturAfrica initiative, aimed at supporting African biodiversity conservation through a people-centred approach is an initiative of?
European Union
Explanation :
The European Commission (EC) has removed Tanzania from the list of countries eligible for its 18 million Euro conservation grant to be launched in East Africa as part of its NaturAfrica initiative.
About NaturAfrica initiative
The NaturAfrica initiative is a European Union (EU) program aimed at supporting biodiversity conservation in Africa through a people-centred approach.
It identifies key landscapes for conservation and development, focusing on creating jobs, improving security, and sustainable livelihoods while preserving ecosystems and wildlife.
The initiative is structured around two pillars: short-term actions in key landscapes and medium-term support to address the root causes of biodiversity loss and environmental degradation by integrating these concerns into other sectors.
About European Commission
The European Commission is the executive body of the European Union (EU), responsible for proposing new laws and policies, monitoring their implementation, managing the EU budget, and ensuring the correct application of EU policies and laws across member states.
It is composed of 27 members, known as Commissioners, each representing a different member state.
The Commission is led by the President, who is elected by the European Parliament and proposed by the European Council.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: Fortress Conservation: Tanzania now ineligible for European Union conservation grant over Maasai evictions
Which of the following are the features of Capital Account Convertibility?
- Freedom to conduct investment transactions without constraints
- No limits on converting rupees to foreign currency for asset acquisition
- No limits on NRIs bringing in foreign currency to acquire assets in India
- Freedom to convert rupees to other currencies for payments without restrictions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation :
To stay “future-ready” for India’s fast-growing economy, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has set aspirational goals: capital account liberalization, internationalization of the Indian rupee (INR), universalizing digital payments, and globalizing India’s financial sector over a multi-year timeframe.
About Capital Account Convertibility
Balance of Payments Account: It is a statement of all transactions between a country and the outside world. It consists of two accounts:
Current Account: Deals with the import and export of goods and services.
Capital Account: Involves cross-border movement of capital via investments and loans.
Current Account Convertibility: Freedom to convert rupees to other currencies for payments without restrictions.
Capital Account Convertibility:
Freedom to conduct investment transactions without constraints.
No limits on converting rupees to foreign currency for asset acquisition.
No limits on NRIs bringing in foreign currency to acquire assets in India.
Why is it important? Caution in Developing Countries: Inflows and outflows of capital are volatile, can cause excessive currency appreciation/depreciation, and impact monetary and financial stability.
India’s Progress:
Partial capital account convertibility achieved.
India’s cautious approach in opening its capital account was praised after the 1997 East Asian currency crisis revealed issues with high current account imbalances and volatile short-term capital flows.
The 2006 SS Tarapore committee report highlighted that even countries with strong fiscal positions could face currency crises and rapid exchange rate deterioration.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/banking-and-finance/rbis-agenda-capital-account-liberalisation-globalisation-of-rupee-and-digital-payment-system-9379011/
Consider the following statements with reference to the GNSS-based Electronic Toll Collection (ETC) system:
- It tracks vehicles and calculates tolls based on the distance travelled on tolled highways.
- It has been rolled out in India from June 1.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
NHAI has invited expressions of interest (EoIs) from around the world for the implementation of GNSS-based (satellite-based) electronic toll collection to provide a seamless and barrier-free tolling experience for National Highways users.
About GNSS-based Electronic Toll Collection (ETC) system
The GNSS-based Electronic Toll Collection (ETC) system is a barrier-free method of electronic toll collection that uses Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) technology to track vehicles and calculate tolls based on the distance travelled on tolled highways.
Working: The system uses satellites or constellations of satellites to track vehicles’ movements and calculate tolls based on the distance travelled on tolled highways.
Vehicles equipped with GNSS-enabled On Board Units (OBUs) are charged on the distance they have travelled on tolled highway stretches.
NHAI plans to implement the GNSS-based electronic toll collection (ETC) system within the existing FASTag ecosystem, initially using a hybrid model where both RFID-based ETC and GNSS-based ETC will operate simultaneously.
Significance
Facilitates smooth vehicle movement on National Highways.
Provides barrier-less, free-flow tolling for a hassle-free experience.
Implements distance-based tolling, charging users only for the distance travelled.
Enhances toll collection efficiency by reducing leakages and curbing toll evasion.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2023504
Large Action Models (LAMs), recently seen in the news, are associated with which one of the following fields?
Artificial Intelligence
Explanation :
Enterprises globally are adopting Large Action Models (LAMs) that understand complex goals communicated with natural language, and they follow up with autonomous actions to achieve them.
About Large Action Models (LAMs):
LAMs are advanced Artificial Intelligence (AI) models.
LAMs are designed to understand and execute complex tasks, based on what users want.
Unlike large language models (LLMs), a LAM combines language understanding with logic and reasoning to execute various tasks.
LAMs learn from massive datasets of user action information and use this data for strategic planning and proactive action in real-time.
These models utilise advanced machine learning techniques, including deep learning and reinforcement learning, which enables them to learn from vast datasets and improve their decision-making capabilities over time.
By analysing past and present actions, LAMs can make educated predictions about future outcomes, thereby assisting in planning, strategy, and real-time decision-making in complex environments.
Their application ranges across numerous fields, from personal assistants, autonomous vehicles, and robotics to healthcare as well as financial modelling.
What are Large Language Models (LLMs)?
A LLM is a type of AI program that can recognize and generate text, among other tasks.
LLMs are trained on huge sets of data—hence the name “large.”
LLMs use a type of machine learning called deep learning in order to understand how characters, words, and sentences function together.
They have the ability to infer from context, generate coherent and contextually relevant responses, translate to languages other than English, summarize text, answer questions (general conversation and FAQs), and even assist in creative writing or code generation tasks.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/global-firms-are-adopting-large-ai-models-to-cut-costs/article68266712.ece
Consider the following:
- Assam
- Nagaland
- Arunachal Pradesh
- West Bengal
The Subansiri River flows through how many of the above States?
Only two
Explanation :
A Memorandum of Agreement (MoA) has been signed for the implementation of a comprehensive Fisheries Management Plan at the 2000 MW Subansiri Lower Hydro Electric Project (SLP) located in Assam.
About Subansiri Lower Hydro Electric Project (SLHEP):
It is an under-construction gravity dam on the Subansiri River in north-eastern India on the borders of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam, with a capacity of 2000 MW (8x250 MW).
It will be the single largest hydroelectric plant in India when completed and is a run-of-river project.
The project is being developed by the state-run National Hydro Power Corporation (NHPC).
Key Facts about Subansiri River:
It is a trans-Himalayan River, and a right-bank tributary of the Brahmaputra River.
Also called the Gold River, the Subansiri River is famous for its gold dust.
It flows through Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, and the Tibet Autonomous Region of China.
It originates from the Himalayas in China and flows towards the east and southeast into India, where it joins the River Brahmaputra.
It joins the Brahmaputra River in the Lakhimpur district of Assam.
It is approx. 518 km long, with a drainage basin of 32,640 square km (12,600 sq. mi).
It is the largest tributary of the Brahmaputra, contributing 7.92% of the Brahmaputra’s total flow.
The high topographic variation makes this river a potential zone for harnessing it for the hydropower.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatodayne.in/assam/story/6000-indian-major-carp-released-in-subansiri-river-to-strengthen-fisheries-management-1023260-2024-06-07
Consider the following:
- United States of America
- Australia
- India
- Japan
- Canada
How many of the above countries are members of the Biopharmaceutical Alliance?
Only three
Explanation :
The Biopharmaceutical Alliance was recently inaugurated in San Diego during the Bio International Convention 2024, the world’s largest biopharmaceutical exhibition.
About Biopharmaceutical Alliance:
It is an alliance of India, South Korea, Japan, the USA and the European Union to put joint efforts into building a resilient supply chain in the biopharmaceutical sector.
The participants emphasised the importance of a reliable and sustainable supply chain and agreed to coordinate the respective countries’ biopolicies, regulations, and research and development support measures.
They acknowledged that the production of essential raw materials and ingredients is concentrated in a few countries and agreed to work together to build a detailed pharmaceutical supply chain map.
The alliance was launched in response to the drug supply shortages experienced during the Covid-19 pandemic.
The alliance was inaugurated in San Diego during the Bio International Convention 2024.
The Bio International Convention is the premier event for the biotechnology industry, bringing together over 20,000 leaders from around the world.
It represents the entire biotech ecosystem, from public pharmaceutical companies and biotech startups to academia, non-profits, and government agencies.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
With reference to the Child Nutrition Report 2024, consider the following statements:
- It is released by UNICEF and examines the status and drivers of child food poverty in early childhood.
- One in four children under the age of five around the world is experiencing severe food poverty.
- Over two-thirds of the children under the age of five living in severe food poverty live in South Asia and sub-Saharan Africa.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
One in four children under age 5 around the world is experiencing severe food poverty, according to the recently released Child Nutrition Report 2024.
About Child Nutrition Report 2024:
It was released by UNICEF.
This global report examines the status, trends, inequities, and drivers of child food poverty in early childhood, including the impact of global and local food and nutrition crises.
The report focuses on low- and middle-income countries, where most children living in child food poverty reside, and on the implications of child food poverty for undernutrition and poor development.
UNICEF defines child food poverty as children’s inability to access and consume a nutritious and diverse diet in early childhood (i.e., the first five years of life).
Highlights of the 2024 Report:
One in four children under age 5 around the world (some 27% of children under age 5—or 181 million) is experiencing severe food poverty and is vulnerable to life-threatening malnutrition.
Over two-thirds of the 181 million young children living in severe food poverty live in South Asia and sub-Saharan Africa, with 20 countries accounting for 65% of the children living in severe food poverty.
These countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, China, Côte d’Ivoire, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Egypt, Ethiopia, Ghana, India, Indonesia, Myanmar, Niger, Nigeria, Pakistan, the Philippines, Somalia, South Africa, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, and Yemen.
The report also found that children in both poor and non-poor households face severe food poverty.
About half (97 million) of the children in severe food poverty live in middle- and upper-income households.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.voanews.com/a/unicef-1-in-4-young-children-lives-in-severe-food-poverty-/7646113.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Duty Drawback Scheme:
- It is administered by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC).
- It rebates the incidence of Customs and Central Excise duties chargeable on imported and excisable material.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) recently started automatic electronic payment of duty drawback amounts directly into exporters’ bank accounts.
About Duty Drawback Scheme:
It is a trusted and time-tested scheme administered by CBIC to promote exports.
It rebates the incidence of Customs and Central Excise duties, chargeable on imported and excisable material, respectively, when used as inputs for goods to be exported.
The duty drawback provisions are described under the Customs Act, 1962.
This WTO compliant scheme ensures that exports are zero-rated and do not carry the burden of the specified taxes.
It is a crucial program to help exporters offset some of the costs accrued during the export process, particularly in the supply or value chain.
The following are the eligible goods for the duty drawback:
To export goods imported into India
To export goods imported into India after having been taken for use
To export goods manufactured/produced out of imported material
To export goods manufactured/produced out of indigenous material
To export goods manufactured /produced out of imported or indigenous materials.
The following are the minimum criteria to claim for processing drawback claims:
Any individual must be the legal owner of the goods at the time the goods are exported.
He/she must have paid customs duty on imported goods.
Duty drawback is available on most goods on which customs duty was paid on importation and which has been exported.
Key Facts about Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC):
CBIC (erstwhile Central Board of Excise and Customs) is a part of the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
CBIC administers all the indirect tax-related matters in India.
It deals with the tasks of formulation of policy concerning levy and collection of Customs, Central Excise duties, Central Goods & Services Tax and IGST, prevention of smuggling and administration of matters relating to Customs, Central Excise, Central Goods & Services Tax, IGST, and Narcotics to the extent under CBIC’s purview.
The Board is the administrative authority for its subordinate organizations, including Custom Houses, Central Excise and Central GST Commissionerates, and the Central Revenues Control Laboratory.
It also ensures that taxes on foreign and inland travel are administered as per the law, and the collection agencies deposit the taxes collected to the public exchequer promptly.
Hence both statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/kolkata/cbic-starts-transfer-of-duty-drawback-to-exporter-acs/articleshow/110808737.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the UN High Sea Treaty:
- It is also known as the agreement on Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction.
- It is a non legally binding treaty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
About UN High Sea Treaty
It is also known as the agreement on Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ). It is a landmark legally binding treaty adopted by the United Nations in June 2023.
The treaty aims to protect and sustainably use marine biodiversity in areas beyond national jurisdiction, which cover nearly two-thirds of the world’s oceans.
The high seas are those areas of the world’s oceans that are outside national jurisdictions.
They constitute a huge chunk of the world’s oceans and are home to a wide variety of biodiversity. Despite this, less than two per cent of the world’s high seas are protected by law.
So far only 7 countries — Belize, Chile, Mauritius, Federated States of Micronesia, Monaco, Palau and the Seychelles — have ratified the treaty.
The treaty will become international law only when it is signed and ratified by at least 60 countries. India has neither signed nor ratified the treaty.
Key Features
Establishing large-scale marine protected areas to conserve 30% of land and sea by 2030
Creating a framework for sharing benefits from marine genetic resources and technology transfer
Implementing clear rules for environmental impact assessments
Requiring free, prior, and informed consent from indigenous communities for accessing marine resources
Setting up a clearing-house mechanism to share information and best practices among parties.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: On World Oceans Day 2024, IUCN chief urges countries to strive for High Seas Biodiversity Treaty
Consider the following statements with reference to the Santiago Network for Loss and Damage:
- It provides technical assistance to developing countries for addressing climate change-related loss.
- It plays a crucial role in facilitating the effective use of the Loss & Damage Fund from COP28.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The third Glasgow Dialogue on Loss and Damage took place at the 60th Session of the Subsidiary Bodies (SB60) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in Bonn, Germany this week.
About Santiago Network for Loss and Damage
It is a global initiative established in December 2019 to support developing countries in averting, minimizing, and addressing loss and damage caused by climate change.
The network aims to catalyse technical assistance from various organizations, bodies, networks, and experts to enhance the capacity of vulnerable countries to manage climate-related loss and damage
Key Features:
The Santiago Network provides technical assistance to developing countries for addressing climate change-related loss and damage by offering access to knowledge, resources and expertise.
It aims to build capacity by connecting vulnerable nations with technical assistance providers, including civil society, NGOs, and the private sector.
The network also plays a crucial role in facilitating the effective use of the Loss & Damage Fund from COP28.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: Bonn Climate Conference 2024: 3rd Glasgow dialogue flags need for loss & damage cooperation
Consider the following statements with reference to the Arbitration Process in India:
- It is governed primarily by the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.
- An arbitral award is enforceable as a court decree.
- The courts generally uphold the finality and binding nature of arbitration.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Highlighting that arbitration is costly and time-consuming, with concerns about arbitrator misconduct and collusion, the Union Finance Ministry recommends limiting arbitration clauses in government contracts to disputes under Rs 10 crore.
Arbitration Process in India:
Arbitration in India is governed primarily by the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, which aligns with the UNCITRAL Model Law on International Commercial Arbitration.
Process of Arbitration:
Initiation of Arbitration: The process starts with an arbitration agreement. The aggrieved party sends a notice of arbitration to the other, stating the intent to arbitrate, detailing the dispute, and suggesting an arbitrator if not already agreed upon.
Appointment of Arbitrators: Parties either mutually agree on an arbitrator or use a default appointment process where courts may appoint the arbitrator(s). Typically, the number of arbitrators is one or three, as specified in the agreement, or a sole arbitrator if unspecified.
Arbitral proceedings: Initial meetings set the timetable and procedures. Parties submit claims and defenses, presenting evidence and arguments, which may occur in person or virtually.
Interim measures: Parties can seek interim measures from the arbitral tribunal or courts to protect their interests, including injunctions or security deposits.
Arbitral award: Arbitrator(s) issue a binding decision resolving the dispute. Domestic arbitration typically completes within 12-18 months.
Enforcement and challenge of Arbitral Award: An arbitral award is enforceable as a court decree. Challenges, on limited grounds such as procedural issues or public policy conflicts, must be filed within three months of receiving the award.
Appeals: Appeals are restricted to specific grounds under Section 34 of the Act. Courts generally uphold the finality and binding nature of arbitration.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: Finance to states, depts: Use arbitration only in disputes under Rs 10 crore | India News - The Indian Express
Consider the following statements with reference to the National Health Claim Exchange:
- It is a digital platform which will bring together insurance companies and healthcare sector service providers.
- It aligns with the goals of the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, which aims to simplify the health insurance claims procedure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Health Ministry along with the IRDAI are launching the National Health Claim Exchange (NHCX), a digital platform which will bring together insurance companies, healthcare sector service providers and government insurance scheme administrators.
About National Health Claim Exchange (NHCX):
National Health Claim Exchange (NHCX), a digital platform which will bring together insurance companies, healthcare sector service providers and government insurance scheme administrators.
It aims to enhance efficiency, transparency, and accuracy in claims processing by facilitating the exchange of health insurance claims data among various stakeholders, including payers, providers, beneficiaries, regulators, and observers.
The integration with NHCX is expected to enable seamless interoperability of health claims processing, enhancing efficiency and transparency in the insurance industry, benefiting policyholders and patients
The NHCX aligns with the goals of the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, which aims to simplify the health insurance claims procedure and create a unified digital platform for healthcare services
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: What is the National Health Claim Exchange? | Explained - The Hindu
Consider the following statements with reference to the Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT):
- It is a subcomponent of the National Green Hydrogen Mission.
- National Green Tribunal is responsible for executing the scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) has issued Request for Selection (RfS) for Selection of Green Ammonia Producers for the production of Green Ammonia in India through cost based competitive bidding under Mode 2A of Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT) programme.
About SIGHT
It is a subcomponent of the National Green Hydrogen Mission (under Ministry of New & Renewable Energy (MNRE), aimed at bolstering domestic electrolyser manufacturing and green hydrogen production.
Financial commitment: The programme has an outlay of ₹ 17,490 crore until 2029-30.
Dual incentive mechanisms: Incentive for Electrolyser Manufacturing
Implementation: The Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) is responsible for executing the scheme.
National Green Hydrogen Mission
It was launched on 4th January 2023 with an outlay of Rs. 19,744 crores up to FY 2029-30.
It will contribute to India’s goal to become Aatmanirbhar (self-reliant) through clean energy and serve as an inspiration for the global clean energy transition.
The Mission will lead to significant decarbonization of the economy, reduced dependence on fossil fuel imports, and enable India to assume technology and market leadership in Green Hydrogen.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: Solar Energy Corporation of India issues RfS for selection of Green Ammonia Producers under SIGHT Programme of the National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM)
Which one of the following is the theme for the World Oceans Day 2024?
Awaken New Depth
Explanation :
World Oceans Day was recently celebrated at UN Headquarters in New York, focused on “opening minds, igniting senses, and inspiring possibilities” to protect marine life worldwide.
About World Oceans Day:
It is celebrated annually on June 8.
This day aims to raise awareness about the critical role oceans play in our planet’s ecosystem.
Oceans cover more than 70% of the Earth’s surface and are crucial for regulating the climate, providing food and oxygen, and supporting a diverse range of marine life.
They are also essential for human livelihoods, supporting industries such as fishing, tourism, and shipping.
The event encourages global collaboration for sustainable ocean management, addressing issues such as pollution, overfishing, and climate change.
The theme for 2024 World Oceans Day is “Awaken New Depth”.
History:
The concept of World Oceans Day was first proposed in 1992 at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.
This global event, officially known as the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), highlighted the critical role oceans play in sustaining life on Earth.
The idea gained momentum over the years, leading to its official recognition by the United Nations in 2008.
The UN General Assembly designated June 8 as World Oceans Day, aiming to raise awareness about the importance of oceans and the urgent need to preserve them.
Every year, the UN Division for Ocean Affairs and the Law of the Sea organises events to create public awareness.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://news.un.org/en/story/2024/06/1150826
Suhelwa Wildlife Sanctuary (SWS) lies in which one of the following states?
Uttar Pradesh
Explanation :
A new tiger reserve will soon be established in Uttar Pradesh, following evidence of tiger population in the Suhelwa Wildlife Sanctuary (SWS).
About Suhelwa Wildlife Sanctuary (SWS):
Location: It is located in the Shravasti, Balrampur, and Gonda districts of Uttar Pradesh.
The forest of SWS was owned by Maharaja of Balrampur before the implementation of the Zamindari Abolition Act 1952 and was known as Balrampur Estate.
It was declared a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1988.
Sprawling an area of 452 sq km, this sanctuary is a strip of land, approximately, 120 km long from the east to west and 6-8 km wide.
The Sohelwa Wild Life Division is situated on the Indo-Nepal International Border.
It is one of the important places in the Bhabar-Tarai Eco-System area, which is rich in biodiversity.
The Tharu tribe, having mongoloid features, have been residents of this area since long.
Vegetation: A mixture of deciduous and semi-evergreen woodlands defines the sanctuary.
Flora: Bahera, Phaldu, Sal, Teak, Dhamina, Jamun, Shisham, Jigna, Haldu, Asna, and Khair are some of the most common trees found in SWS.
Fauna:
Tigers, Leopard, Cheetal, Bear, Wolfe, Hare, Jackal, Wild Boar, Sambar, Mankey, Langoor, Python, Otters, etc. can be commonly sighted.
A number of birds like Black Partridge, Quails, Peacocks, Kingfishers, Bulbuls, Mynahs, Eagles, Nightingales, Cuckoo, and Owls, etc. also inhabit the forest area.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bareilly/suhelwa-wildlife-sanctuary-to-be-states-5th-tiger-reserve/articleshow/110857264.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Mount Fuji:
- It is the tallest peak in Japan located near the Pacific Coast.
- It is a stratovolcano that has been dormant since its last eruption.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A town in Japan is taking steps to stop tourists from causing trouble while attempting to capture the perfect picture of Mount Fuji, a month after a nearby destination was forced to take drastic measures.
About Mount Fuji:
It is the tallest peak in Japan, standing at 3,776 meters.
It is situated only 100 km west of the Japanese capital city of Tokyo on Honshu Island, near the Pacific Coast.
Unlike other famous high-elevation mountains in the world, Mt. Fuji is not part of a large mountain range.
It is a stratovolcano that has been dormant since its last eruption, in 1707, but is still generally classified as active by geologists.
It has a prominent summit crater and is constructed from innumerable basaltic lava flows, each a few meters thick.
It has a smooth slope and a wide, spreading base, creating a beautiful skyline as it narrows to a magnificent peak.
It is said that the main cause of Mt. Fuji’s volcanic activity is the Pacific Plate sinking under the bottom of the Philippine Plate.
Despite its active volcanic nature, Fuji’s summit is covered in snow most times of the year.
The UNESCO designated Mount Fuji a World Heritage site in 2013.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.independent.co.uk/travel/news-and-advice/mount-fuji-view-japan-block-tourists-b2557005.html
With reference to Abyssal Plains, consider the following statements:
- They are flat regions of the ocean floor, usually at the base of a continental rise.
- They are usually found off the coast of major continental coastlines and are underlain by oceanic crust composed primarily of basalt.
- The majority of the Abyssal Plains exist in areas within the Pacific Ocean.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Transparent sea cucumbers, pink sea pigs, and bowl-shaped sponges are some of the fascinating animals discovered during a recent deep-sea expedition to the Abyssal Plains in the Pacific Ocean.
About Abyssal Plains:
The term ‘abyssal plain’ refers to a flat region of the ocean floor, usually at the base of a continental rise.
Depth variation is usually only as much as 10 to 100 centimeters per kilometer of horizontal distance.
They can range as far as thousands of kilometers, forming huge plateaus beneath the sea.
Abyssal plains are found on the ocean floor, usually off the coast of major continental coastlines.
However, there are significantly more abyssal plains in the Atlantic Ocean than in any other.
Some can be found within the Indian Ocean, but very few exist in areas within the Pacific Ocean.
Approximately 40% of Earth’s Ocean floor is covered by abyssal plains.
The largest Abyssal plain on Earth is called the Sohm plain. This plain can be found in the North Atlantic Ocean. It is 900,000 square kilometres.
Abyssal plains occur at depths greater than 6,500 feet (2,000 meters) below sea level and are underlain by oceanic crust composed primarily of basalt, a dark-colored volcanic rock rich in iron- and magnesium-silicate minerals.
The basalt is covered by layers of sediment deposited by deep ocean turbidity currents, the shells of marine plants and animals that have fallen down from the ocean’s upper levels, or a combination of both.
Other minor components of abyssal plain sediment include wind-blown dust, volcanic ash, chemical precipitates, and occasional meteorite fragments.
Scattered across abyssal plains are abyssal hills and underwater volcanic peaks called seamounts.
On the other side of the plain is usually an oceanic trench, where the seafloor dramatically plummets.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://scitechdaily.com/mysterious-unknown-deep-sea-creatures-discovered-on-abyssal-expedition/
Which one of the following was the objective of Operation Bluestar?
An Indian military operation to remove Sikh separatists from the Golden Temple.
Explanation :
Slogans favouring Khalistan (sovereign state for Sikhs) were raised recently in the premises of the Golden Temple complex in Punjab’s Amritsar during the 40th anniversary of ‘Operation Bluestar’.
About Operation Bluestar:
It was an Indian military operation in June 1984 ordered by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi to root out a group of militant Sikh separatists who had occupied the Golden Temple in Punjab’s Amritsar, the Sikhs’ holiest shrine.
The leader of the group was Jarnail Singh Bhindranwale, a Sikh fundamentalist, former head of the Sikh seminary Damdami Taksal, and a key figure in the then-emerging separatist Khalistan movement.
The military operation was planned to regain control of the complex while minimizing civilian casualties.
Timeline of the operation:
June 1-3, 1984: The operation began on June 1, 1984, with the deployment of Indian Army troops around the Golden Temple complex. Bhindranwale and his followers fiercely resisted the army’s advance, leading to intense gun battles.
June 3-6, 1984: The Indian Army intensified its assault on the complex, using heavy artillery, tanks, and helicopters. The fighting resulted in extensive damage to the Akal Takht, the highest temporal seat of Sikh authority, as well as other parts of the Golden Temple.
June 6, 1984: The operation officially concluded on June 6, 1984, when the Indian Army gained control of the Golden Temple complex.
While the army was successful in achieving its goals, some Sikhs were outraged as they saw the operation as an attack on their faith.
According to the Indian government, about 400 people were killed, including 87 soldiers.
Operation Blue Star led to the assassination of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, who was killed by her Sikh bodyguards in revenge five months after the operation.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/40th-anniversary-of-operation-bluestar-pro-khalistan-slogans-raised-at-golden-temple-in-amritsar/article68259265.ece
The Cascadia Subduction Zone is an active convergent boundary where:
Juan de Fuca Plate is subducting beneath the North American Plate
Explanation :
Cascadia Subduction Zone, one of Earth’s top hazards, comes into sharper focus
About Cascadia Subduction Zone
The Cascadia Subduction Zone (CSZ) is a major geological feature located off the west coast of North America, stretching from northern California to southern British Columbia.
It is an active convergent boundary where the Juan de Fuca Plate is subducting beneath the North American Plate.
This subduction process has significant implications for seismic activity in the region.
Earthquake and Tsunami Risks
The CSZ is capable of producing massive earthquakes, including those of magnitude 9.0 or greater, which can generate tsunamis reaching heights of 100 feet or more.
A similar fault off Japan triggered the devastating 2011 Fukushima nuclear disaster
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: Cascadia Subduction Zone, one of Earth’s top hazards, comes into sharper focus
With reference to Quantum Data, consider the following statements:
- It refers to information that is stored and processed using the principles of quantum mechanics.
- Unlike classical data, which is represented by binary states (0s and 1s), quantum data is represented by quantum bits or qubits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A new quantum computing study claims that a recent finding in the production, storage and retrieval of “quantum data” has brought us one step closer to the quantum internet.
About Quantum Data
Quantum data refers to information that is stored and processed using the principles of quantum mechanics.
Unlike classical data, which is represented by binary states (0s and 1s), quantum data is represented by quantum bits or qubits.
Qubits can exist in multiple states simultaneously due to a property called superposition, and they can be entangled with other qubits, allowing for a kind of interconnectedness and correlation that classical bits cannot achieve.
Applications of Quantum Data:
Cryptography: Quantum key distribution (QKD) leverages the principles of quantum mechanics to create secure communication channels that are theoretically immune to eavesdropping.
Optimization problems: Quantum algorithms can potentially solve complex optimization problems more efficiently than classical algorithms.
Simulating Quantum Systems: Quantum computers can simulate other quantum systems, which is useful for understanding chemical reactions, materials science, and fundamental physics.
Machine Learning: Quantum machine learning algorithms could handle large datasets and complex models more efficiently.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: Quantum internet breakthrough after ‘quantum data’ transmitted through standard fiber optic cable for 1st time | Live Science
The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) is chaired by which one of the following?
Prime Minister of India
Explanation :
Prime Minister Modi took oath today along with 71 ministers of the new coalition government. Thirty of them are Cabinet Ministers, five independent charge, and 36 Ministers of State.
About Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS)
It is headed by the Prime Minister.
The Committee discusses, debates, and is the apex body when it comes to the appointments of the officials in the national security bodies.
It also makes all the important decisions on defence policy and expenditure and, generally, all matters of India’s security.
Members: PM, Ministers of Defence, Home Affairs, Finance and External Affairs.
Functions:
Deals with all the issues related to the defence and security of India.
The CCS deals with all issues related to the law and order and national security of India.
It discusses different initiatives to take to enhance the national security of India.
It also deals with policy matters of foreign affairs which may have a bearing on internal or external security implications, including cases relating to agreements with other countries on security-related issues.
The Committee discusses the political issues which can impact the security of our nation.
What are Cabinet Committees?
Cabinet Committees are extra-constitutional, meaning, they are not mentioned in the Indian Constitution.
They are partly designed to reduce the burden on the Union Cabinet by allowing smaller groups of ministers to make decisions on specific policy areas.
They are constituted or reconstituted when a new government takes over or the Cabinet undergoes a reshuffle.
There are a total of 8 cabinet committees:
Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.
Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs.
Cabinet Committee on Investment and Growth.
Cabinet Committee on Security.
Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs.
Cabinet Committee on Employment and Skill Development.
Cabinet Committee on Accommodation.
Appointments Committee of the Cabinet
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: What are Cabinet committees, and why is the CCS the most important of them all? | Explained News - The Indian Express
With reference to the Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures, consider the following statements:
- It is a treaty of the World Health Organization (WHO).
- It sets out the basic rules for food safety and animal and plant health standards.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
India and the US informed the World Trade Organization (WTO) that they have reached a mutually agreed solution on the outstanding dispute on poultry imports from Washington, thereby resolving all of their seven disputes at the global trade watchdog.
About SPS Agreement
The Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (SPS Agreement) is a treaty of the World Trade Organization (WTO) that came into force with the establishment of the WTO on January 1, 1995.
It sets out the basic rules for food safety and animal and plant health standards.
Key Provisions
Scientific basis: SPS measures must be based on scientific principles and sufficient evidence, except for provisional measures.
Harmonization: Members are encouraged to align SPS measures with international standards set by bodies like Codex Alimentarius, OIE, and IPPC.
Equivalence: SPS measures of other countries should be accepted as equivalent if they achieve the same level of protection.
Risk assessment: Countries must conduct risk assessments to determine the appropriate level of protection, considering the impacts of pests or diseases.
Regionalization: Members should recognize pest- or disease-free areas and areas of low prevalence, even if within a single country or group of countries.
Transparency: Countries must notify changes in SPS measures and provide regulatory information through the WTO’s SPS notification system.
Dispute Resolution: These disputes can be taken to the WTO’s Dispute Settlement Body (DSB) if consultations fail.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: Settling trade disputes through ‘litigotiation’ - The Hindu
Consider the following statements:
- The Proportional Representation (PR) system ensures representation of all parties based on their vote share.
- First Past the Post (FPTP) refers to the system where the candidate with the most votes in a constituency wins.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The ruling NDA has won 293 seats with a 43.3% vote share while the Opposition bloc INDIA has secured 234 seats with a 41.6% vote share. Other regional parties and independents polled around 15% but ended up with only 16 seats in total.
About Proportional Representation
The Proportional Representation (PR) system ensures representation of all parties based on their vote share.
The most commonly used PR system is the ‘party list PR’ where voters vote for the party (and not individual candidates) and then the parties get seats in proportion to their vote share.
First Past the Post System
India currently uses the First Past the Post (FPTP) system, where the candidate with the most votes in a constituency wins.
The FPTP system is simple and provides stability to the executive, but it can lead to unrepresentative governments.
Mixed Member Proportional Representation (MMPR)
To balance stability and proportionate representation, the Mixed Member Proportional Representation (MMPR) system can be considered.
Under MMPR, there is one candidate elected through FPTP from each territorial constituency, and additional seats are allocated to parties proportionally based on their vote share.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: Is it time for proportional representation? | Explained - The Hindu
Consider the following statements with reference to the Four-Horned Antelope:
- It is a small bovid antelope endemic to India and Nepal.
- It is classified as ‘Endangered under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A rare four-horned antelope has been sighted for the first time in Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve (Sagar district), which was earlier known as Nauradehi Sanctuary.
About Four-Horned Antelope:
The four-horned antelope, also called Chousingha, is a small bovid antelope.
They are the smallest antelopes found in Asia.
Scientific Name: Tetracerus quadricornis
Distribution:
It is endemic to India and Nepal.
In India, they range from the foothills of the Himalayas in the north to the Deccan Plateau in the south.
Habitat:
They mostly occur in open, dry, deciduous forests in hilly terrain.
They inhabit areas with significant cover from grasses or heavy undergrowth, and close to water bodies.
Features:
They have a yellowish-brown to reddish coat and are slender, with small legs and a short tail.
These antelopes have four horns, which distinguish them from most other bovids, which have two horns.
Only males in this species grow horns. One pair of horns is located between the ears, and the other on the forehead.
They are usually diurnal and solitary by nature; however, can be spotted in loose groups of three to four.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.freepressjournal.in/bhopal/mp-rare-4-horned-antelope-sighted-in-veerangana-durgavati-tiger-reserve
Ghataprabha River is a tributary of which one of the following rivers?
Krishna
Explanation :
Nine people were rescued by locals after a tractor overturned and fell into the Ghataprabha River recently.
About Ghataprabha River:
It is a tributary of the Krishna River and flows in the state of Karnataka.
Course: The river originates in the Western Ghats at an elevation of 884 meters and flows in the direction of east for a distance of 283 kilometers before it merges with the Krishna River.
The river debouches by 53 metres at Gokak Falls in Belgaum (Belagaavi) District, Karnataka.
The river basin is 8,829 square kilometers wide and stretches across Karnataka and Maharashtra states.
The Hiranyakeshi River and the Markandeya River are tributaries of the Ghataprabha.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/hubballi/nine-rescued-after-tractor-falls-into-ghataprabha-river/articleshow/110855920.cms
Birsa Munda was a tribal freedom fighter who played a pivotal role in the Indian independence movement, particularly in which of the following regions?
Chhotanagpur Plateau
Explanation :
The Jharkhand Governor and Chief Minister recently paid tribute to tribal icon Birsa Munda on his death anniversary.
About Birsa Munda:
He was a folk hero and a tribal freedom fighter who played a pivotal role in the Indian independence movement, particularly in the tribal regions of British India.
He belonged to the Munda tribe in the Chhotanagpur Plateau area.
He spearheaded an Indian tribal mass movement that arose in the Bihar and Jharkhand belts in the early 19th century under British colonisation.
Munda rallied the tribals to fight against the forceful land grabbing carried out by the British government, which would turn the tribals into bonded labourers and force them to abject poverty.
He influenced his people to realise the importance of owning their land and asserting their rights over it.
Birsa encouraged the tribe to stick to their traditions and get back to their tribal roots.
One of Birsa’s notable contributions was the formation of the Munda Rebellion, also known as the Ulgulan, or the Tamar Revolt, in the late 19th century.
The rebellion was a response to the oppressive policies of the British administration, including the introduction of the Forest Laws, that restricted tribal access to their traditional lands, and the imposition of exorbitant taxes.
Birsa united various tribal communities under the banner of the Munda Raj and led a series of guerrilla warfare campaigns against the British forces.
Birsa Munda’s leadership during the Munda Rebellion earned him the title of “Bhagwan” or “Birsa Bhagwan” among his followers.
He often took inspiration from Munda traditions, Christianity, and Hinduism to guide his followers in rituals and prayers.
His struggle against exploitation and discrimination against tribals led to a big hit against the British government in the form of the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act being passed in 1908.
The act restricted the passing on of land from the tribal people to non-tribals.
Birsa also played a crucial religious role among the Munda people.
He founded the faith of Birsait, a blend of animism and indigenous beliefs, which emphasized the worship of a single god.
He became their leader and was given the nickname, ‘Dharti Aba’ or the father of the earth.
He died on June 9, 1900, at age 25.
In recognition of his impact on the national movement, the state of Jharkhand was created on his birth anniversary in 2000.
November 15, the birth anniversary of Birsa Munda, was declared ‘Janjatiya Gaurav Divas by the Central Government in 2021.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/jharkhand-guv-cm-pay-homage-to-birsa-munda-on-his-death-anniversary-101717926690899.html
With reference to Huntington’s Disease (HD), consider the following statements:
- It is an inherited disorder that causes nerve cells in parts of the brain to gradually break down and die.
- It usually causes movement, cognitive and psychiatric disorders.
- There is no cure for HD and the goal of treatment is to slow the symptoms.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
A team of scientists in the UK recently developed non-invasive measurement techniques and novel analysis methods to decode disease progression and evaluate the effect of potential treatments or lifestyle changes in people with Huntington’s disease.
About Huntington’s Disease:
HD is an inherited disorder that causes nerve cells (neurons) in parts of the brain to gradually break down and die.
It has a wide impact on a person’s functional abilities and usually results in movement, thinking (cognitive), and psychiatric disorders.
There are two types of HD:
Adult-onset is the most common. Persons with this form usually develop symptoms in their mid-30s or 40s.
Early-onset affects a small number of people and begins in childhood or in the teens.
Cause:
A genetic change (mutation) in the HTT gene causes HD.
The HTT gene makes a protein called huntingtin. This protein helps your nerve cells (neurons) function.
The normal HTT gene contains a stretch of DNA that specifies the number of times the amino acid glutamine is repeated in the Htt protein. This number varies from 11 to 31.
In the mutant versions of the HTT gene, this stretch is expanded to encode 35 or more repeats.
As the number of repetitions increases, the severity of Huntington’s disease increases and its debilitation begins at an earlier age.
HD is rare. The disease is passed down through families.
Symptoms:
HD usually causes movement, cognitive, and psychiatric disorders with a wide spectrum of signs and symptoms.
The patient suffers mood swings, has difficulty in reasoning, shows abnormal and uncontrollable jerky movements, and experiences difficulty in speaking, swallowing, and walking.
Treatment:
There is no cure for HD. There is no known way to stop the disease from getting worse.
The goal of treatment is to slow the symptoms and help the person function for as long as possible.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.mid-day.com/lifestyle/health-and-fitness/article/scientists-develop-new-methods-to-detect-huntingtons-disease-progression-23353581
The term ‘Air LORA’, recently seen in the news, refers to:
an air-to-ground ballistic missile
Explanation :
Israel Aerospace Industries unveiled a new air-launched variant of its Lora ballistic missile recently.
About Air LORA:
It is an air-launched variant of the Long-Range Artillery (LORA) ballistic missile.
It is designed and developed by Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI).
It is a long-range air-to-ground missile (AGM) developed for strike missions against high-value and well-protected targets such as command centres, air force bases, infrastructure, and naval vessels in dense littoral environments.
With a robust warhead of various types, Air LORA enables air forces to strike enemy targets from far distances outside the reach of enemy air defences.
It features high survivability with advanced immune INS/GNSS navigation and strong anti-jamming capabilities, allowing for 24/7 operation in extreme weather conditions and highly contested battlefields.
It can be simply integrated into airborne platforms as a stand-alone configuration or through the avionics system” and is easy to operate, “with simple fire-and-forget and autonomous operation.
It has a very high mission success rate mainly due to its supersonic speed and its combat-proven GNSS anti-jamming system”, as well as terminal trajectory shaping and a 90° attack angle.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://breakingdefense.com/2024/06/israels-iai-rolls-out-air-lora-a-new-air-launched-ballistic-missile/
Heat is a form of energy that is transferred from one body to another due to a:
Temperature difference
Explanation :
Understanding heat has changed metallurgy, materials science, mining, refineries, a large variety of chemical reactions, semiconductor electronics, meteorology, and transportation.
About
What is Heat?
Heat is a form of energy that is transferred from one body to another due to a temperature difference.
Heat can be transferred through three modes: conduction, convection, and radiation.
How Does Heat Animate Engines?
Internal Combustion Engines: Heat from combustion of fuel in the engine cylinders is converted into mechanical energy, which powers the vehicle.
Heat exchangers: Heat is transferred from the engine to the cooling system, which helps maintain the engine’s optimal operating temperature.
How Does Heat Cause Global Warming?
Greenhouse effect: Heat from the sun is trapped in the Earth’s atmosphere by greenhouse gases, leading to an increase in global temperatures.
Human activities: Human activities such as burning fossil fuels and deforestation release large amounts of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases, exacerbating global warming.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: What is heat? How does it animate engines and global warming? | Explained - The Hindu
New Caledonia is an overseas territory of which one of the following countries?
France
Explanation :
The Socialist Kanak National Liberation Front (FLNKS) of the South Pacific French territory of New Caledonia called for French President Emmanuel Macron to abandon the plan to modify the electoral reform.
About New Caledonia
New Caledonia is a French overseas territory located in the southwestern Pacific Ocean, approximately 1,500 km east of Australia.
History of Island
New Caledonia, originally inhabited by the Kanaks, came under French control in 1853.
Post-WWII, Kanaks gained French citizenship, but 1960s French migration made them a minority, sparking an independence movement.
Tensions led to the Matignon Agreements (1988) and Nouméa Accord (1998), promising three independence referendums.
The 2018 and 2020 referendums favored France. Despite COVID-19 concerns, the 2021 referendum also favoured France, angering the Kanaks.
Significance of New Caledonia for France
Strategic location: Situated in the South Pacific, New Caledonia provides France with a military and geopolitical presence in a region with growing global interest, particularly with increasing influence from China.
Economic resources: The island is rich in natural resources, notably nickel, which is vital for various industries, including manufacturing and technology.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: What is happening in the French territory of New Caledonia? - The Hindu
The right to take an oath as Member of Parliament by the jailed leader is a:
Constitutional Right
Explanation :
In the recently concluded Lok Sabha elections, the victory of two candidates serving prison sentences on terror charges has raised questions about their ability to take oath and function as legislators.
Can Jailed Leaders Function as MPs?
Legal framework: Section 8(3) of the Representation of People Act, 1951 (RPA) disqualifies MPs if they are convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years.
Constitutional right: Despite being in prison, jailed leaders have the constitutional right to take oath as Members of Parliament.
Temporary bail: Jailed leaders can seek temporary bail or custody to attend the oath-taking ceremony and perform other ancillary functions as MPs.
Rights of MPs if Arrested
Oath-Taking: Jailed leaders can take oath as MPs, but they must seek permission from authorities to be escorted to Parliament for the ceremony.
Inability to attend proceedings: After taking the oath, they must inform the Speaker in writing about their inability to attend House proceedings.
Speaker’s referral: The Speaker will refer their requests to the House Committee on Absence of Members, which will make a recommendation on their absence.
Conviction and Disqualification: If convicted and sentenced to a minimum of two years in prison, they will immediately lose their seats in the Lok Sabha.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: Can jailed leaders Amritpal Singh and Engineer Rashid function as MPs after Lok Sabha victories? | Explained - The Hindu
AIM – ICDK Water Challenge 4.0 is an initiative under which one of the following?
NITI Aayog
Explanation :
Atal Innovation Mission, NITI Aayog (AIM) announced the launch of two groundbreaking initiatives aimed at fostering innovation and sustainability in India: the ‘AIM – ICDK Water Challenge 4.0’ and the fifth edition of ‘Innovations for You’ handbook, spotlighting SDG entrepreneurs of India.
About AIM – ICDK Water Challenge 4.0
The AIM – ICDK Water Challenge 4.0 is an initiative launched by the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) under NITI Aayog to address critical water-related challenges through inventive solutions.
The challenge is a collaborative effort with the Innovation Centre Denmark (ICDK) at the Royal Danish Embassy in India.
Objectives
Address water challenges: To address critical water-related challenges through innovative solutions.
Global participation: The selected teams from India will participate in the global Next Generation Digital Action program, engaging with young talents from leading universities and innovation hubs in nine countries (India, Denmark, Ghana, Kenya, Korea, Tanzania, South Africa, Ghana, Colombia, and Mexico).
Focus on sustainability: The program emphasizes sustainability, digital solutions, inclusion, and universal design principles.
Showcase innovations: Participants will be able to showcase their innovations at the Digital Tech Summit in Copenhagen from October 30th to 31st, 2024, funded by the Government of Denmark.
Two Tracks: The challenge invites entries under two tracks: one for students and the other for young entrepreneurs under the age of 35, including early-stage startups, researchers, and young innovators committed to driving positive environmental change.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2023753
With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY), consider the following statements:
- It is a credit-linked subsidy scheme initiated to provide affordable housing to low and moderate-income residents across the country.
- PMAY-G (Gramin) beneficiaries are identified using the Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011.
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The newly formed Cabinet has decided to further expansion of Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana and construct 3 crore additional rural and urban houses.
About Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana
Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) is a credit-linked subsidy scheme initiated to provide affordable housing to low and moderate-income residents across the country.
The newly formed government has approved the proposal to provide 3 crore additional rural and urban houses under PMAY.
The scheme has two components: PMAY-U for the urban poor and PMAY-G and PMAY-R for the rural poor.
PMAY-U (Urban)
Objective: To provide housing for all in urban areas.
Beneficiaries: Economically Weaker Section (EWS), Low-Income Group (LIG), and Middle-Income Group (MIG).
Subsidy Schemes:
Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme: Offers interest subsidy on home loans for EWS, LIG, and MIG categories.
In-Situ Slum Redevelopment: Utilizes land as a resource to provide houses to eligible slum dwellers.
Affordable Housing in Partnership: Promotes partnerships with public and private sectors to provide affordable housing.
Beneficiary-Led Construction: Provides financial assistance to individuals to construct or enhance their own houses.
PMAY-G (Gramin)
Objective: To provide a pucca house with basic amenities to all rural families who are homeless or living in kutcha or dilapidated houses.
Beneficiaries: Identified using the Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011.
Features:
Financial Assistance: Rs. 1.2 lakh in plain areas and Rs. 1.3 lakh in hilly, difficult, and Integrated Action Plan (IAP) areas.
Construction: Houses are to be constructed by beneficiaries with technical assistance from the government.
Convergence with other schemes: Encourages convergence with other schemes like Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) for toilet construction, and MGNREGA for wage employment.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2023872
Crete Island, recently seen in the news. is the largest island of which of the following countries?
Greece
Explanation :
During excavations for an airport on Greece’s largest island of Crete, a large circular monument dating back 4000 years was unearthed.
About Crete Island:
It is the largest island in Greece and the fifth largest one in the Mediterranean Sea.
It is located in the southern part of the Aegean Sea (an arm of the Mediterranean Sea).
It is bordered by the Sea of Crete in the north, the Libyan Sea in the south, the Myrtoan Sea in the west, and the Carpathian Sea in the east.
It covers an area of 8,336 sq. km.
It is relatively long and narrow, stretching for about 260 km east-west and about 60 km at its widest point.
The island is dominated by rugged mountains that crisscross from west to east.
The highest point on the island is Mt. Ida, also known as Psiloritis, at 2,456 m.
History:
The island of Crete has been inhabited since the Paleolithic Age by early hominids.
The earliest advanced European civilization, the Minoan Civilization, started on the island around 2700-1420 BCE.
The Minoan civilization ended after a major earthquake, and thereafter, the island’s rule was taken over by the Mycenaean civilization.
The island was then subsequently ruled by the Romans, the Byzantines, the Andalusians, the Venetians, and the Ottomans.
After the island’s independence from Ottoman rule, Crete became a part of Greece.
During the Second World War, the island was occupied by the Nazi German forces and also served as the battleground of the famous “Battle of Crete.”
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://arkeonews.net/a-big-round-4000-year-old-stone-building-discovered-on-a-cretan-hilltop/
Consider the following statements regarding Atomic Clock:
- It is a device that measures time using the vibrations of atoms.
- It is the most accurate time-keeping device available and used in many applications that require very precise timing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers have built a portable optical atomic clock that can be used onboard ships.
About Atomic Clock:
An atomic clock is a device that measures time using the vibrations of atoms.
Specifically, it uses the oscillations of the electrons in atoms to keep time.
It is the most accurate time-keeping device available, with a margin of error of just a few billionths of a second per day.
Atomic clocks are far more precise than conventional clocks because atomic oscillations have a much higher frequency and are much more stable.
They are used in many applications that require very precise timing, such as GPS systems, telecommunications networks, and scientific research.
How does an atomic clock work?
Atomic clocks work by using a type of atom called a “cesium atom”.
Cesium atoms are very stable and have a very specific frequency at which their electrons vibrate.
This frequency is used as the basis for the atomic clock’s timekeeping.
To measure time using cesium atoms, an atomic clock uses a device called a “microwave cavity”.
The microwave cavity is a chamber that is filled with cesium vapor.
A microwave signal is then sent into the cavity, which causes the cesium atoms to vibrate.
As the cesium atoms vibrate, they emit radiation at a very specific frequency.
This frequency is then detected by a detector, which compares it to a standard frequency.
The difference between the two frequencies is used to adjust the clock’s timekeeping.
Types of atomic clocks: There are two types of atomic clocks: cesium atomic clocks and hydrogen maser atomic clocks.
Cesium atomic clocks are the most common and are used to define the international standard for time, called Coordinated Universal Time (UTC).
Hydrogen maser atomic clocks are even more accurate than cesium atomic clocks and are used in scientific research.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/86478/OPS/G07CTRQ93.1+GS0CTRQNJ.1.html
The term ‘Sarod’, refers to:
Stringed instrument
Explanation :
Sarod maestro Pandit Rajeev Taranath, who was undergoing treatment at a private hospital in Mysuru, passed away recently.
About Sarod:
It is a stringed instrument in the lute family and one of the most popular instruments in Hindustani classical music.
It is often accompanied by the tabla (drums) and tambura (drone lute).
It is an adaptation of the Afghan rabab, which arrived in India during the 16th century.
The modern form of the instrument was designed in the 19th century.
Design:
The sarod is 100 cm long and has a body made from hollow teak, sagwan, or tun wood.
High-quality instruments have a body, neck, and peg box made from a single piece of wood.
The resonator has a stretched membrane (usually goatskin) and a bridge made from horn where the strings rest.
The bridge is very thin, like that of a violin. The melody strings are stretched across the bridge, and the sympathetic strings run through holes drilled into the bridge.
The strings were traditionally made from gut or silk, but today are usually made from steel or bronze.
The neck of the instrument does not have a fretboard, but rather a polished, steel plate.
Playing:
One who plays the sarod is called a sarodiya, and the word sarod is Persian for song or melody.
The seated player holds the instrument across his lap.
The strings of the sarod are plucked using a triangle-shaped plectrum called a jawa, usually made from coconut shell, ebony, or horn., while the fingernails of the left hand press the strings.
Two prominent Indian schools of sarod playing are those of Ghulam Ali Khan and Allauddin Khan, each with its own playing style, type of sarod (e.g., size, shape, and number of strings vary), and tuning system.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/entertainment/music/sarod-maestro-pandit-rajeev-taranath-passes-away/article68278151.ece
With reference to Nitrous Oxide (N2O) Emissions, consider the following statements:
- It is the third most significant greenhouse gas after carbon dioxide and methane.
- The United States is the largest emitter of Nitrous Oxide in the world followed by China.
- The majority of nitrous oxide emissions over the last decade originated from industrial discharges and automobile exhausts.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Planet-warming nitrous oxide (N2O) emissions grew by 40 percent between 1980 and 2020, according to a new report published by the Global Carbon Project.
What is Nitrous Oxide (N2O)?
Nitrous oxide, commonly known as laughing gas or happy gas, is a colorless, odorless, and non-flammable gas.
While nitrous oxide is not flammable, it will support combustion to the same extent as oxygen.
It leads to a state of euphoria, explaining its nickname, ‘laughing gas.’
It is soluble in water. Its vapors are heavier than air.
Applications:
It is commonly used by dentists and medical professionals to sedate patients undergoing minor medical procedures.
The gas is also used as a propellant in food aerosols.
It is used in the automotive industry to enhance engine performance.
Highlights of the Report:
Nitrous Oxide (N2O) is the third most significant greenhouse gas after carbon dioxide and methane and is 273 times more potent than CO2 over 100 years.
The increase in greenhouse gases has already raised the Earth’s average surface temperature by 1.15 degrees Celsius compared to the 1850-1900 average.
Anthropogenic nitrous oxide emissions contribute to about 0.1 degrees of this warming.
Nitrous Oxide (N2O) emissions grew by 40 percent between 1980 and 2020, with China being the largest emitter, followed by India and the US.
The top 10 emitters are China, India, the US, Brazil, Russia, Pakistan, Australia, Indonesia, Turkey, and Canada.
The biggest human sources of N₂O are agriculture, industry, and the burning of forests or agricultural waste.
74 percent of the nitrous oxide emissions over the last decade originated from agricultural practices, specifically the use of nitrogen fertilizers and animal manure.
In 2022, the concentration of nitrous oxide in the atmosphere reached 336 parts per billion, 25 percent higher than in 1850-1900, significantly surpassing the predictions of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/world-news/nitrous-oxide-emissions-grew-40-in-40-yrs-china-largest-emitter-study-124061200039_1.html
Which organism’s natural defense mechanism inspired the development of CRISPR/Cas9 gene-editing technology?
Bacteria
Explanation :
Researchers recently used CRISPR/Cas9 to alter photosynthesis for the first time.
About CRISPR/Cas9:
CRISPR, short for Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats, is a gene-editing technology that can be used to alter the genetic sequence of a specific gene by removing, adding, or altering sections of the DNA sequence.
It makes it possible to correct errors in the genome and turn on or off genes in cells and organisms quickly, cheaply, and with relative ease.
How was it developed?
Some bacteria have a similar, built-in gene editing system to the CRISPR-Cas9 system that they use to respond to invading pathogens like viruses, much like an immune system.
Using CRISPR, the bacteria snip out parts of the virus DNA and keep a bit of it behind to help them recognise and defend against the virus next time it attacks.
Researchers adapted this immune defense system to edit DNA.
The CRISPR-Cas9 system consists of two key molecules that introduce a change (mutation) into the DNA. These are:
an enzyme called Cas9. This acts as a pair of ‘molecular scissors’ that can cut the two strands of DNA, at a specific location in the genome so that bits of DNA can then be added or removed.
a piece of RNA called guide RNA (gRNA). This consists of a small piece of pre-designed RNA sequence (about 20 bases long) located within a longer RNA scaffold. The scaffold part binds to DNA and the pre-designed sequence ‘guides’ Cas9 to the right part of the genome. This makes sure that the Cas9 enzyme cuts at the right point in the genome.
The guide RNA is designed to find and bind to a specific sequence in the DNA.
Cas9 follows the guide RNA to the same location in the DNA sequence and makes a cut across both strands of the DNA.
Once the DNA is cut, researchers use the cell’s own DNA repair machinery to add or delete pieces of genetic material, or to make changes to the DNA by replacing an existing segment with a customized DNA sequence.
CRISPR-Cas9 has a lot of potential as a tool for treating a range of medical conditions that have a genetic component, including cancer, hepatitis B, or even high cholesterol.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-06-team-crisprcas9-photosynthesis.html
With reference to the National Testing Agency (NTA), consider the following statements:
- It was established in 2017 by the Ministry of Education.
- It conduct entrance examinations for admission/fellowship in higher educational institutions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Supreme Court on Tuesday refused to stay the counselling for admissions of students to medical colleges over alleged paper leak and irregularities in the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) undergraduate (UG) examination 2024.
About National Testing Agency (NTA)
The NTA was established in 2017 by the Ministry of Education as a premier, specialist, autonomous and self-sustained testing organization to conduct entrance examinations for admission/fellowship in higher educational institutions.
Functions
Conducting entrance examinations for admission to higher educational institutions
Creating a question bank using modern techniques
Establishing a strong research and development culture
Collaborating with international organizations like ETS (Educational Testing Services)
Undertaking any other examination entrusted to it by the Ministries/Departments of Government of India/State Governments
NEET
The NEET (National Eligibility cum Entrance Test) is an entrance examination for students who wish to pursue undergraduate medical courses (MBBS/BDS) and postgraduate courses (MD/MS) in government or private medical colleges.
Objective: To standardize the admission process for medical and dental courses across India, ensuring a uniform evaluation of candidates’ eligibility.
The NTA conducts NEET on behalf of the Ministry of Education.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: No stay, SC seeks NTA response on paper leak charges - The Economic Times
With reference to the Enterobacter Bugandensis, consider the following statements:
- It is a Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium.
- It is typically found in the gastrointestinal tracts of animals and humans.
- It can cause bloodstream infections and respiratory infections.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Scientists from the Indian Institute of Technology Madras (IIT-M) and NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL) have carried out a collaborative study of the behaviour of multi-drug resistant pathogens aboard the International Space Station (ISS).
About Enterobacter Bugandensis
Enterobacter bugandensis is a relatively new species within the Enterobacter genus.
It was first described in 2013, after being isolated from cases of bloodstream infections in Uganda.
Key Characteristics
Morphology: It is a Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium.
Habitat: Like other Enterobacter species, E. bugandensis is typically found in various environments, including soil, water, and the gastrointestinal tracts of animals and humans.
Pathogenicity: It can cause a range of infections, primarily in immunocompromised individuals. These include bloodstream infections, respiratory infections, urinary tract infections, and wound infections.
Resistance: E. bugandensis has shown resistance to multiple antibiotics, which makes treatment challenging.
The mechanisms of resistance can include beta-lactamase production, efflux pumps, and mutations that reduce drug uptake.
What is the multi-drug-resistant pathogen?
The multi-drug-resistant (MDR) pathogen refers to a microorganism that has developed resistance to multiple antimicrobial agents, typically three or more antimicrobial categories.
This resistance can be seen in various types of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and parasites.
The most threatening forms of MDR to public health are MDR bacteria that resist multiple antibiotics
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: What is the multi-drug-resistant pathogen found in the International Space Station?
“Starship” is a spacecraft designed to be fully reusable for missions to various destinations in space, is built by:
SpaceX
Explanation :
SpaceX’s Starship rocket accomplished its first fully successful test flight last week, with both its booster and spacecraft making a gentle splashdown after an hour-long sub-orbital space flight.
About Starship
SpaceX’s Starship is an ambitious spacecraft designed to be fully reusable for missions to various destinations in space, including Mars.
Design and Specifications
It is part of a two-stage-to-orbit launch system composed of the Super Heavy booster and the Starship spacecraft itself:
Super Heavy Booster: The first stage, responsible for lifting Starship out of Earth’s atmosphere.
Starship Spacecraft: The second stage, designed for space travel, including carrying crew and cargo.
Reusability: Both stages are designed to be fully reusable, aiming to significantly reduce the cost of space travel.
Capacity:
Crew: Can carry up to 100 passengers.
Cargo: Large payload capacity, with different configurations for various missions.
Engines: Powered by Raptor engines, which use liquid methane and liquid oxygen (Methalox) as propellants.
Objectives and Missions
Mars colonization: Central to SpaceX’s long-term goal of making humanity multiplanetary by establishing a self-sustaining colony on Mars.
Lunar missions: NASA’s Artemis program has selected a variant of Starship to serve as a lunar lander for returning humans to the Moon.
Orbital flights and beyond: Designed for a variety of missions, including satellite deployment, interplanetary exploration, and even space tourism
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: How SpaceX’s Starship can revolutionise space travel and exploration | Explained News - The Indian Express
World Migration Report and Migration Health Annual Report are published by:
International Organization of Migration (IOM)
Explanation :
At least 49 migrants died and 140 others were missing after their boat capsized off the coast of Yemen, the U.N. migration agency said on June 11.
About International Organization of Migration (IOM)
The IOM is an intergovernmental organization that provides services and advice concerning migration to governments and migrants, including internally displaced persons, refugees, and migrant workers.
Establishment: IOM was established in 1951.
Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland.
Member States: IOM has 175 member states and 8 observer states.
Mandate: To promote humane and orderly migration for the benefit of all, through providing services and advice to governments and migrants.
Publications: World Migration Report, Migration Health Annual Report.
Key Areas of Work
Migration and development: IOM works to maximize the benefits of migration for both the home and host countries, as well as for migrants themselves.
Migration health: The organization provides health services and support to migrants and displaced populations.
Emergency operations: IOM responds to humanitarian crises by providing emergency relief and post-crisis recovery programs, such as transportation assistance, temporary shelter, and rebuilding infrastructure.
Counter-Trafficking: The organization actively combats human trafficking through prevention, protection, and prosecution initiatives, providing support to victims of trafficking.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: At least 49 migrants dead, 140 missing off Yemen coast - The Hindu
Consider the following:
- Cyclone
- Pest attack
- Cold waves
- Flood
- Cloudburst
How many of the above are notified disasters under the Disaster Management Act, 2005?
All five
Explanation :
The ongoing spell of extreme heat in many parts of the country has once again reopened discussions on the inclusion of heatwaves as one of the notified disasters under the Disaster Management (DM) Act, 2005.
About Notified Disasters
In India, the Disaster Management Act, 2005, defines a disaster as a “catastrophe, mishap, calamity or grave occurrence” arising from natural or man-made causes that results in substantial loss of life, destruction of property, or damage to the environment.
The Act includes 12 categories of notified disasters, which are: Cyclone, Drought, Earthquake, Fire, Flood, Tsunami, Hailstorm, Landslide, Avalanche, Cloudburst, Pest attack, Frost and cold waves
These notified disasters are eligible for relief assistance under the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) and National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF).
The SDRF is primarily used for immediate relief to victims of notified disasters, while the NDRF supplements the SDRF in cases of severe disasters where funds are insufficient.
However, heatwaves are not currently included as a notified disaster under the Act. Although heatwaves are a significant concern in India, particularly in certain regions, the Finance Commission has not been convinced to expand the list of notified disasters.
States can use up to 10% of their SDRF allocation for local disasters, including heatwaves, which some states have done.
NDMA
The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) plays a crucial role in laying down policies, plans, and guidelines for disaster management in India.
It aims to promote a national resolve to mitigate the damage and destruction caused by natural and man-made disasters through sustained and collective efforts.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: Why heatwaves have not been included as a notified disaster in the Disaster Management Act | Explained News - The Indian Express
With reference to Cold Lava, consider the following statements:
- It is a phenomenon that occurs when rain mixes with volcanic materials like ash, sand and pebbles.
- It is considered more destructive and deadlier compared to regular lava flows.
- Cold lava remains cold internally and its external appearance and behaviour are more akin to wet concrete.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Mt. Kanlaon Natural Park on Negros Island, Philippines, witnessed rivers of cold lava following an explosive eruption recently.
About Cold Lava:
Called “lahar” in Indonesian, cold lava is a phenomenon that occurs when rain mixes with volcanic materials like ash, sand, and pebbles.
The mixture forms a concrete-like substance that destroys everything in its path.
Rain can carry cold lava down the slopes of a volcano during an eruption and into the paths of nearby towns or villages.
Unlike traditional lava flows, which move slowly and give residents time to evacuate, cold lava can advance rapidly, at a speed of hundreds of kilometres per hour, and spread as far away as 60 km from the volcano.
One of the defining characteristics of cold lava is its ability to pick up additional debris and sediment as it travels downhill.
This mixture can rapidly increase in volume and destructive potential, transforming from a relatively innocuous flow into a powerful force.
It is considered more destructive and deadlier compared to regular lava flows.
Its high density and abrasive nature mean that it can cause significant damage to buildings, bridges, and roads, posing a serious threat to human life and property.
Cold lava remains hot internally due to chemical reactions within the volcanic material, but its external appearance and behaviour are more akin to wet concrete.
While it is commonly associated with volcanic eruptions, lahars can also occur when no eruption takes place.
Sometimes, heavy rainfall or snowfall can easily erode and transport fine-grained, loose volcanic sediment and form a slurry, especially if vegetation has not had time to grow back on recent volcanic deposits.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/feature/video-shows-rivers-of-cold-lava-after-volcanic-eruption-in-philippines-5831116
Nagarahole Tiger Reserve lies in which one of the following states?
Karnataka
Explanation :
An elephant that was part of the historic Mysuru Dasara celebrations died of electrocution near Karnataka’s Nagarahole Tiger Reserve recently.
About Nagarahole Tiger Reserve:
Location: It is situated in the districts of Mysore and Kodagu in Karnataka, covering an area of 847.981 sq km.
The reserve is named after a small river, ‘Nagarahole’ (literally a snake stream in Kannada), which meanders within the habitat before joining the river Kabini.
It is contiguous with Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) to its south and Bandipur Tiger Reserve to its southeastern parts.
The habitat also forms part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
The Kabini and Taraka reservoirs are large water bodies located towards the west and southeastern parts of the reserve, respectively.
History:
The origin of the reserve as a protected area dates back to the reign of the Wodeyar dynasty, the former rulers of the Kingdom of Mysore, when Nagarahole was an exclusive hunting reserve of the kings.
It was set up in 1955 as a wildlife sanctuary by Coorg State.
It was upgraded to a national park in 1988 and brought under the fold of Project Tiger by declaring it a Tiger Reserve in 1999.
Vegetation: The predominant vegetation is of southern tropical, moist, mixed deciduous type, with a substantial eastern portion intergrading into dry deciduous type.
Flora:
The forests are interspersed with swampy fallows called ‘hadlu’, which are dominated by grasses and sedges, favoured by wild herbivores.
Commercially important rosewood, teak, sandalwood, and silver oak are the main trees here.
Fauna: It supports large assemblages of carnivores and herbivores: Tiger, Leopard, Asiatic wild dog and Sloth bear, Asiatic Elephant, Gaur, Sambar, Chital, Muntjac, Four horned antelope, Wild pig, Mouse deer and South-western langur.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/bangalore/mysuru-dasara-elephant-ashwatthama-dies-of-electrocution-in-nagarhole-tiger-reserve-9386342/
With reference to Microalgae, consider the following statements:
- They are mostly unicellular and can be found in a variety of aquatic habitats.
- Through photosynthesis, Microalgae are a vital contributor of oxygen to the environment.
- They are a rich resource of lipids, proteins, carbohydrates and pigments with nutritional and health benefits.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
CSIR-Indian Institute of Chemical Technology (IICT) scientists have spotlighted the potential of Chlorella Growth Factor (CGF), a protein-rich extract derived from the microalgae ‘Chlorella sorokiniana’, as an ideal ingredient for a wide range of food and feed applications.
About Microalgae:
They are microscopic algal species, as opposed to other algae that are macroscopic.
They are mostly unicellular, although some complex associations giving colonies with larger structures exist.
Depending on the species, their sizes can range from a few micrometers (µm) to a few hundreds of micrometers.
Unlike higher plants, microalgae do not have roots, stems, or leaves.
They are mostly photosynthetic. Their ability to photosynthesize is due to the presence of photosynthetic pigments.
They can be found in a variety of aquatic habitats, being able to thrive in freshwater, brackish, marine, and hypersaline aquatic environments.
Examples of unicellular algal species are green algae, diatoms, and dinoflagellates.
Importance:
They play a pivotal role in ecosystems as primary producers.
Their adaptability and diverse taxonomy make them a crucial component of aquatic food webs, supporting various organisms and influencing nutrient cycling.
They are a rich resource of lipids, proteins, carbohydrates, and pigments with nutritional and health benefits.
Spirulina and Chlorella, two types of microalgae, are often consumed as dietary supplements.
Through photosynthesis, they release oxygen as a byproduct, and thus, they are a vital contributor of oxygen in the environment.
They can form symbiotic relationships with other organisms. For example, they live within the tissues of corals (zooxanthellae) and provide them with nutrients through photosynthesis.
Some of them are also capable of fixing nitrogen. Eg: Nostoc, Anabaena, and Oscillatoria.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/csir-iict-scientists-identify-microalgae-as-a-potential-protein-supplement/article68262725.ece
With reference to the General Anti-Avoidance Rule (GAAR), consider the following statements:
- It is an anti-tax avoidance law in India to curb tax evasion and avoid tax leaks.
- All transactions that have the implication of avoiding tax can come under the scanner of GAAR.
- Tax mitigation measures for tax reduction are not permitted under the GAAR.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Telangana High Court has ruled against a taxpayer against whom the revenue department had invoked the General Anti-avoidance Rule (GAAR).
About General Anti-Avoidance Rule (GAAR):
GAAR is an anti-tax avoidance law in India to curb tax evasion and avoid tax leaks.
It came into effect on 1st April 2017.
The GAAR provisions come under the Income Tax Act, 1961.
GAAR is a tool for checking aggressive tax planning, especially those transactions or business arrangements that are entered into with the objective of avoiding tax.
It is specifically aimed at cutting revenue losses that happen to the government due to aggressive tax avoidance measures practiced by companies.
It is meant to apply to transactions that are prima facie legal, but result in tax reduction.
Broadly, tax reduction can be divided into three categories.
Tax mitigation is a ‘positive’ term in the context of a situation where taxpayers take advantage of a fiscal incentive provided to them by tax legislation by complying with its conditions and taking cognisance of the economic consequences of their actions.
Tax mitigation is permitted under the Act. This tax reduction is acceptable even after GAAR has come into force.
Tax evasion is when a person or entity does not pay the taxes that are due to the government.
This is illegal and liable to prosecution. Illegality, wilful suppression of facts, misrepresentation, and fraud—all constitute tax evasion, which is prohibited under law.
This is also not covered by GAAR, as the existing jurisprudence is sufficient to cover tax evasion/Sham transactions.
Tax avoidance includes actions taken by a taxpayer, none of which are illegal or forbidden by the law.
However, although these are not prohibited by the law, they are considered undesirable and inequitable since they undermine the objective of effective collection of revenue.
GAAR is specifically against transactions where the sole intention is to avoid tax.
In this, the taxpayers used legal steps which results in tax reduction, which steps would not have been undertaken if there was no tax reduction.
This kind of tax avoidance planning is sought to be covered by GAAR.
With GAAR, there is no difference between tax avoidance and tax evasion. All transactions which have the implication of avoiding tax can come under the scanner of GAAR.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/telangana-high-courts-landmark-decision-gaar-ruling-impacts-taxpayers/article68274606.ece
The “Pterosaurs”, recently seen in the news, refers to:
They were the first vertebrates capable of flight
Explanation :
Paleontologists recently discovered a new species of pterosaur after analysing 100-million-year-old fossilised bones uncovered in western Queensland, Australia.
About Pterosaur:
A pterosaur is any of the flying reptiles that flourished during all periods (Triassic, Jurassic, and Cretaceous) of the Mesozoic Era (252.2 million to 66 million years ago).
Although pterosaurs are not dinosaurs, both are archosaurs, or “ruling reptiles,” a group to which birds and crocodiles also belong.
Pterosaurs were not only the first reptiles capable of flight. They were also the first vertebrates to fly.
It included the largest vertebrate ever known to fly: the late Cretaceous Quetzalcoatlus.
The appearance of flight in pterosaurs was separate from the evolution of flight in birds and bats; pterosaurs are not closely related to either birds or bats and thus provide a classic example of convergent evolution.
Their wings were formed by a sophisticated membrane of skin stretching from the thorax to a dramatically lengthened fourth finger.
Earlier species had long, fully-toothed jaws and long tails, while later forms had a highly reduced tail and some lacked teeth.
They often had long necks, which sometimes had throat pouches similar to pelicans’ for catching fish.
The pterosaurs went extinct at the end of the Cretaceous period, around 65.5 million years ago, during the mass extinction known as the Cretaceous-Tertiary extinction event (K-T extinction event).
When the pterosaurs disappeared, their role as the dominate vertebrates in the skies was taken over by the birds, which are considered to be of dinosaur ancestry.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.wionews.com/science/new-species-of-pterosaur-discovered-using-100-million-year-old-fossilised-bones-731232
With reference to the Sea cucumbers, consider the following statements:
- They are marine animals that belong to the class Holothuroidea, which is part of the phylum Echinodermata.
- They are found in saltwater environments worldwide.
- They have a symbiotic relationship with the star pearlfish, which uses its body as shelter.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Sea cucumbers, scavengers of the seafloor that resemble cylindrical vegetables, have been consumed as a delicacy in Asia for centuries. But in recent decades, they’ve been severely overharvested to the point that they are now quite rare.
About
Sea cucumbers are marine animals that belong to the class Holothuroidea, which is part of the phylum Echinodermata.
They are found in saltwater environments worldwide, primarily on or near the seabed, and are characterized by their soft, leathery skin and elongated bodies.
Sea cucumbers are the janitors of tropical seas.
Just as a vacuum cleaner consumes dirt and fills up its bag, sea cucumbers consume bacteria and decaying organics from the seafloor and convert this into sea cucumber body mass, reducing the “food” available to support growth of microbial pathogens.
Appearance and Habitat
Size and Colors: Sea cucumbers come in various sizes, ranging from 0.75 inches to 10 feet long, and display a wide array of colors, including brown, red, orange, yellow, white, blue, and patterns.
Body Structure: They have bumps on their bodies and lack eyes and a brain but have evolved clever ways to navigate, defend themselves, and forage for food.
Threat: Sea cucumbers are preyed upon by various marine animals and are also consumed by humans. Overfishing is a significant threat to their populations, with more than 70 species being exploited for profit.
Symbiotic Relationship: Some species of sea cucumber have a symbiotic relationship with the star pearlfish, which uses the sea cucumber’s body as shelter.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: Coral reef recovery could get a boost from an unlikely source: Sea cucumbers, the janitors of the seafloor
Kala-azar is a severe form of leishmaniasis caused by which one of the following?
Protozoan
Explanation :
In the wake of the rising public health threat caused by parasitic infection visceral leishmaniasis (VL),(kala-azar), the WHO launched a new framework to guide health authorities, policy makers and other stakeholders to eradicate the disease in eastern Africa.
About
Kala-azar, also known as visceral leishmaniasis (VL), is a severe form of leishmaniasis caused by the protozoan parasite Leishmania donovani.
It is transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected female sandfly, primarily Phlebotomus argentipes in India.
Symptoms: The disease is characterized by irregular bouts of fever, substantial weight loss, swelling of the spleen and liver, and severe anemia if left untreated, which can lead to death within two years.
Diagnosis: Diagnosis is made by combining clinical signs with parasitological or serological tests, such as the rK39 diagnostic kit.
Kala-azar is endemic in 75 countries across Asia, Africa, and the Americas, with India accounting for 18% of the global burden in 2020.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: WHO comes up with new framework to combat kala-azar in Eastern Africa
The Global Gender Gap Report 2024 is released by which one of the following?
World Economic Forum (WEF)
Explanation :
Of the 30 Union ministers in the newly formed Indian cabinet, only two are women. Overall, the number of ministers in the central council has reduced from 10 in the previous government to seven.
About Report
The Global Gender Gap Report 2024, released by the World Economic Forum (WEF), highlights the persistent gender inequality across various sectors globally.
Findings
Top-Ranking Countries: Iceland has maintained its position as the most gender-equal country for the 14th consecutive year, with a gender gap score of 91.2%.
Other Nordic countries, such as Norway, Finland, and Sweden, also rank high in the top five.
India ranked 129 in this year’s index, scoring marginally lower than the previous edition.
This slight regression is mainly the result of small declines in ‘Educational Attainment’ and ‘Political Empowerment’, while ‘Economic Participation and Opportunity’ slightly improved.
India ranked the third-lowest among the South Asian economies, faring worse than Bangladesh, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Bhutan.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: Gender Gap Report 2024: India fares worse than Bangladesh, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Bhutan; scores low in political parity indices
Consider the following:
- Canada
- Italy
- Japan
- United States
- Russia
How many of the above are the members of G7 (Group of Seven)?
Only four
Explanation :
G7 leaders start their annual summit on June 13 looking to double down on support for Ukraine in its war with Russia and offer a united face in confronting China’s political and economic ambitions.
About G7
The G7 (Group of Seven) is an intergovernmental political and economic forum.
Members: Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, United Kingdom, and United States; European Union as a non-enumerated member
The G7 was established in 1975. Russia was included in the late 1990s, creating the G8, but was suspended in 2014 after the annexation of Crimea.
Function: The G7 meets annually to discuss and coordinate economic policies. The leaders address many global issues, including monetary policy, security, energy, and climate change.
Significance: While the G7 cannot enact laws, its past decisions have had significant global consequences
Summits: The annual G7 summit is hosted by one of the member countries, which rotates each year. The summits provide a platform for the leaders to discuss pressing global issues and coordinate policy responses.
The 2024- G7 summit will take place from June 13-15 in Apulia, Italy. Italy holds the G7 presidency in 2024.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: As G7 Italy summit begins on June 13, troubled world leaders focus on Ukraine war, China - The Hindu
Consider the following statements with reference to the Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI):
- It focuses exclusively on the price changes of food items in a consumer’s basket of goods and services.
- It is used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to track inflation.
- It uses 2010 as base year.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Consumer Price Index numbers on base 2012=100 for rural, urban and combined for the month of May 2024.
About Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI)
The Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI) is a measure of change in retail prices of food items consumed by the population.
It is a specific measure of inflation that focuses exclusively on the price changes of food items in a consumer’s basket of goods and services.
The CFPI is a sub-component of the broader Consumer Price Index (CPI) and is used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to track inflation.
The Central Statistics Office (CSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI) started releasing CFPI for three categories -rural, urban and combined - separately on an all-India basis with effect from May 2014.
Methodology: Like Consumer Price Index (CPI), the CFPI is also calculated on a monthly basis and the methodology remains the same as CPI.
The base year presently used is 2012.
The CSO has revised the Base Year of the CPI and CFPI from 2010 to 2012 in January 2015.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2024761
Consider the following statements:
- It is a high-altitude mountain pass located in Uttarakhand.
- It lies near the trijunction of India, Nepal, and China.
- It is the first Indian border post opened for trade with China.
The above statements describe which one of the following mountain passes?
Lipulekh
Explanation :
Indian traders involved in border trade with China through the Lipulekh pass have requested the central government to take up the issue of resumption of border trade through this route.
About Lipulekh Pass:
It is a high-altitude mountain pass located in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand, near the trijunction of India, Nepal, and China.
It links the Indian state of Uttarakhand with the Tibet region of China.
It lies at an altitude of approximately 5,334 meters (17,500 feet).
The pass is renowned for its challenging terrain, marked by steep ascents and rugged landscapes.
Its elevation and strategic location make it a gateway to the higher reaches of the Himalayas.
Ancient Trade Route: Lipulekh Pass has been utilized for centuries as a trade route, connecting the Indian subcontinent with the Tibetan plateau.
Religious Significance: The pass also has religious significance, being an integral part of the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra, a sacred pilgrimage for Hindus.
Devotees undertake this arduous journey to reach Mount Kailash, considered the abode of Lord Shiva, and the nearby Mansarovar Lake.
It is the first Indian border post opened for trade with China in 1992.
This was followed by the opening of Shipki La Pass, Himachal Pradesh in 1994 and Nathu La Pass, Sikkim in 2006.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/foreign-trade/indian-traders-demand-resumption-of-border-trade-with-china-through-lipulekh-pass/articleshow/110871541.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements with reference to the Olympus Mons:
- It is a shield volcano located on Jupiter.
- It is the largest known volcano in the solar system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Scientists recently discovered frost on Mars’ tallest volcano, Olympus Mons, revealing an active water cycle on the Red Planet.
About Olympus Mons:
It is a shield volcano located in Mars’ western hemisphere.
It is the highest point on Mars and the largest known volcano in the solar system.
It is 16 miles (24 kilometers) high, which makes it about three times higher than Mt. Everest.
It is also very wide (340 miles or 550 kilometers) and covers an area larger than the entire chain of Hawaiian Islands.
In contrast, the largest volcano on Earth, Hawaii’s Mauna Loa, is 120 kilometers across and 9 kilometers high.
It is some 3.5 billion years old, which means the volcano formed early on in Mars’ history.
It is a very flat mountain which slopes by only 2 to 5 degrees.
Its summit is marked by a caldera, a large depression formed by volcanic activity, spanning 50 miles (80 kilometers) wide.
The summit caldera consists of several overlapping pits. These pits were created by different eruptive phases.
In contrast, many Earth-based volcanoes typically feature a single, less complex caldera.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/science/150000-tonnes-of-water-frost-equivalent-to-60-olympic-pools-found-on-mars-tallest-volcano-olympus-mons/articleshow/110957806.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Iskander-M, recently seen in the news:
- It is a road-mobile short-range ballistic missile system.
- It was developed by Russia for tactical strikes on small, high-value land targets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Russia claimed to have targeted the Ukrainian military airbase in Mirgorod using the nuclear-capable Iskander-M missile system
About Iskander-M:
The Iskander (Western reporting name: SS-26 Stone) is a road-mobile short-range ballistic missile system developed by Russia.
It entered Russian service in 2006.
It is designed for tactical strikes on small, high-value land targets.
This system can use different types of missiles.
Features:
It is 7.3 meters long, 0.92 meters in diameter, and has a launch weight of 3,750 kilograms.
It has a range of 400-500 km and uses both inertial and optical guidance systems.
It can carry conventional and nuclear warheads up to 700 kg.
Its missiles can travel at up to seven times the speed of sound (Mach 7) and can reach an altitude of more than 30 miles.
It employs a maneuverable re-entry vehicle (MaRV) and decoys to defeat theater missile defense systems.
It is also equipped with various systems for in-flight correction and self-targeting, allowing the missile to overcome missile defense systems.
Variants:
Iskander-E: export version, range: 280 km.
Iskander-K: new version, unveiled in 2007, with a new cruise missile R-500, range: 280 km max.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/videos/on-cam-putin-s-iskander-missile-strikes-ukrainian-airbase-su-27-jet-s-300-system-hit-watch-101718277106362.html
With reference to Ultrasound Imaging, consider the following statements:
- It is a noninvasive imaging test which uses low-frequency sound waves.
- It is used to create real-time pictures or videos of internal organs or other soft tissues.
- It is very effective at imaging body parts that have gas in them or are hidden by bone.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Experts highlighted the importance of ultrasound for the early detection of fatty liver disease, noting that blood tests alone might not offer a prompt diagnosis.
About Ultrasound Imaging:
It is a noninvasive imaging test.
It uses high-frequency sound waves to create real-time pictures or videos of internal organs or other soft tissues, such as blood vessels.
It is also called ultrasonography or sonography. Ultrasound images may be called sonograms.
Ultrasound enables healthcare providers to see the details of soft tissues inside your body without making any incisions (cuts).
Unlike other imaging techniques, ultrasound uses no radiation.
Healthcare providers use ultrasound exams for several purposes, including during pregnancy, for diagnosing conditions, and for image guidance during certain procedures.
How does an ultrasound work?
During an ultrasound, a healthcare provider passes a device called a transducer or probe over an area of your body or inside a body opening.
The provider applies a thin layer of gel to your skin so that the ultrasound waves are transmitted from the transducer through the gel and into your body.
The probe converts electrical current into high-frequency sound waves and sends the waves into your body’s tissue.
Sound waves bounce off structures inside your body and back to the probe, which converts the waves into electrical signals.
The denser the object the ultrasound hits, the more of the ultrasound bounces back.
A computer then converts the pattern of electrical signals into real-time images or videos, which are displayed on a computer screen.
Limitations:
Sound waves don’t travel well through air or bone. This means ultrasound isn’t effective at imaging body parts that have gas in them or are hidden by bone, such as the lungs or head.
Ultrasound may also not be able to see objects that are located very deep in the human body.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatvnews.com/health/ultrasound-key-to-detect-fatty-liver-disease-early-experts-2024-06-13-936803
Indira Point, the southernmost point of India, is located on which one of the following islands?
Great Nicobar Island
Explanation :
A delegation of the Central Government recently visited Great Nicobar, the site for the Rs. 750000 crore greenfield composite project centered around a transshipment port.
About Great Nicobar Island:
It is the southernmost island of the Nicobar Islands Archipelago, located in the southeast of the Bay of Bengal.
It is the largest of the Nicobar group of islands, spanning 1,045 square kilometers.
Headquarters: Campbell Bay
Indira Point, situated in Campbell Bay, is the southernmost point of India and is only about 150 km from Sumatra, Indonesia.
The population consists mostly of two indigenous communities: Shompen, a largely nomadic hunter-gatherer Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group, and Nicobarese, a semi-traditional Scheduled Tribe.
It has tropical wet evergreen forests, hill ranges nearly 650 m high, and coastal plains.
A large portion of the island is covered by dense forests, which are home to a variety of endemic biodiversity, including the Nicobar megapode, the Nicobar tree shrew, and the Nicobar long-tailed macaque.
The only Bio-sphere Reserve in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, the Great Nicobar Bio-sphere Reserve encompasses a large part (some 85%) of the island.
The island also comprises a hill range with its highest point being around 642 meters above sea level at Mount Thullier.
The region also has coral reefs with varied thicknesses and diversity.
The island has many rivers, such as the Alexandra, Dogmar, Galathea, and Amrit Kaur, all of which flow in a south-western or southern direction, which in turn signifies the southern slope of the island.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thenewsminute.com/long-form/great-nicobar-mega-project-pmo-outreach-to-indigenous-tribes-admirable-but-meaningless
Consider the following:
- Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
- Halons
- Carbon tetrachloride
- Methyl chloroform.
How many of the above are Ozone-Depleting Substances (ODS)?
All four
Explanation :
A new study released June 11, 2024, has reported the first significant decrease in atmospheric concentrations of potent ozone-depleting substances (ODS) known as hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs).
About:
Ozone-Depleting Substances (ODS) are chemicals that cause the depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer.
This layer is crucial for protecting life on Earth by absorbing the majority of the sun’s harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation.
The most common ODS include chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), halons, carbon tetrachloride, and methyl chloroform.
ODS are substances commonly used in refrigerators, air conditioners, fire extinguishers, and aerosols.
The Montreal Protocol:
The Montreal Protocol, signed in 1987, is a global agreement to protect the stratospheric ozone layer by eliminating the production and consumption of ODSs like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).
The worldwide production of CFCs has been prohibited since 2010.
Kigali Amendment to Montreal Protocol:
In 2016, Parties to the Montreal Protocol adopted the Kigali Amendment to phase down the production and consumption of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) worldwide.
HFCs are widely used alternatives to ODS such as hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) and chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), already controlled under the Protocol.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: Environmental milestone! Ozone-depleting HCFCs show drop in levels 5 years ahead of target year
The term “Nagastra”, recently seen in the news, refers to:
the first indigenous man-portable suicide drone
Explanation :
The army has got its first indigenous man-portable suicide drones that are designed to target enemy training camps, launch pads and infiltrators with precision, without endangering the lives of soldiers.
About:
The Indian army has integrated the Nagastra 1 loitering munition, designed by Economic Explosives Limited (EEL), as its first indigenous man-portable suicide drone.
These drones enhance the army’s precision strike capabilities against enemy training camps and infiltrators, with a focus on reducing dependence on imports and promoting self-reliance in defence technology.
With the potential for exports to friendly nations, Nagastra 1 showcases India’s advancement in developing cost-effective solutions for modern warfare.
Key Features:
The Nagastra-1 is fully designed and developed in India, with an indigenous content of over 75%.
The drone can carry out GPS-enabled precision strikes with an accuracy of 2 meters and has a range of almost 30 km.
The drone has a low acoustic signature and electric propulsion, making it a silent killer.
The drone has a parachute recovery mechanism, which can bring back the munition in case of an aborted mission, enabling it to be used multiple times.
The drone weighs 6 kg and can stay airborne for up to 60 minutes.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: Army gets its first indigenous man-portable suicide drones - The Economic Times
“Rarest of the Rare Doctrine” applied in the death sentence was established in which one of the following cases by Supreme Court of India?
Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980)
Explanation :
President Murmu has rejected a mercy petition filed by Pakistani national Mohammed Arif who was sentenced to death for the December 22, 2000 terrorist attack at the Red Fort in which three people including two Army jawans were killed.
About:
The court has reaffirmed the “rarest of rare” standard in several decisions.
The Report of the 262nd Law Commission, published in 2015, recommended the “absolute abolition” of the death penalty “for all crimes other than terrorism related offences and waging war”
Constitutional Provisions:
Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty) guarantees the right to life and personal liberty.
Any deprivation of this right must follow the procedure established by law.
Article 72 and Article 161 provide the President and Governors with the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence.
Judicial Principles:
Rarest of the Rare Doctrine: Established in the landmark case of Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980), the Supreme Court of India held that the death penalty should only be awarded in the “rarest of the rare” cases, where the alternative option is unquestionably foreclosed.
Proportionality and Balancing Aggravating and Mitigating Circumstances: Courts must weigh aggravating circumstances (such as the nature and gravity of the crime) against mitigating circumstances (such as the socio-economic background, age, or mental condition of the offender) before deciding on the death penalty.
Judicial Review and Confirmation: The death sentence pronounced by a trial court must be confirmed by the High Court.
Further, the Supreme Court can review the case, and there are provisions for mercy petitions to the President and Governors.
Statutory Provisions:
Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860: Specifies offenses that are punishable by death, including murder (Section 302), treason (Section 121), terrorism-related offenses (Section 121A), and others.
Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973: Provides procedural safeguards for the accused in death penalty cases, such as the requirement for the sentence to be confirmed by a higher court (Section 366) and the right to appeal (Section 374).
Special Laws: Certain special legislations, such as the Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act (TADA), Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act (NDPS), and Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act (POCSO), also prescribe the death penalty for specific crimes.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: Red Fort case: Standards for awarding death & President’s ‘mercy’ power | Explained News - The Indian Express
A hawkish stance is when the central bank:
tends to favor higher interest rates
Explanation :
As the US heads for a presidential election in November, the Federal Reserve, the country’s central bank, has signaled that it is unwilling to let interest rates soften in a hurry.
About:
Hawkish economic policy refers to a stance taken by central banks or other economic policymakers that emphasizes the importance of controlling inflation, often at the expense of other economic goals like full employment or economic growth.
Policymakers who are “hawkish” tend to favor higher interest rates to keep inflation in check and maintain price stability.
This approach is often contrasted with “dovish” economic policy, which prioritizes stimulating economic growth and reducing unemployment, even if it means tolerating higher inflation.
Key characteristics of hawkish economic policy:
Higher interest rates: Raising interest rates to make borrowing more expensive, which can reduce spending and investment, thereby cooling off an overheating economy.
Tightening monetary policy: Implementing measures to reduce the money supply or slow its growth, which can help control inflation.
Inflation targeting: Prioritizing low inflation as a primary goal, often setting explicit inflation targets and taking actions to ensure they are met.
Reducing economic stimulus: Cutting back on fiscal or monetary stimulus measures that could spur inflation, such as reducing government spending or unwinding quantitative easing programs.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: US Fed decision: Staying hawkish | The Indian Express
“Kavli Prizes”, recently seen in the news, are awarded for?
Astrophysics, nanoscience and neuroscience
Explanation :
The winners of the 2024 Kavli Prize were announced on Wednesday. Eight winners were awarded for their contributions to astrophysics, neuroscience, and nanoscience.
About:
It is awarded in honour of Norwegian-American businessman and philanthropist Fred Kavli (1927-2013)
The Kavli Prizes are awarded in three areas: astrophysics, nanoscience and neuroscience — the largest, the smallest, and the most complex. The inaugural prize was announced in 2008.
Winners in 2024:
ASTROPHYSICS: This year’s prize for astrophysics has been awarded to David Charbonneau, and Sara Seager for discoveries of exoplanets, and the characterisation of their atmosphere.
NANOSCIENCE: Robert Langer, Armand Paul Alivisatos, and Chad Mirkin were given the prize for nanoscience for biomedical applications breakthroughs.
NEUROSCIENCE: The prize in neuroscience has been awarded to Nancy Kanwisher, Winrich Freiwald, and Doris Tsao for their collective effort over decades to map the linkage between facial recognition and the brain.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: Explained: All about Kavli Prize, mirroring Nobel in fields of astrophysics, neuroscience, and nanoscience
The Binsar Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which one of the following States?
Uttarakhand
Explanation :
About Binsar Wildlife Sanctuary:
Location: It is a protected area located in the state of Uttarakhand, India.
It is situated in the Kumaon region of the Himalayas, approximately 33 kilometres north of the Almora district, Uttarakhand.
The sanctuary covers an area of around 47 square kilometres.
History:
Binsar was the erstwhile summer capital of the Chand Dynasty rulers, who ruled Kumaon from the 7th to 18th century AD. situated at the height of 2,420 m.
According to the local people Binsar was named after the Bineshwar Mahadev temple (A 16th century temple) dedicated to Lord Shiva.
It is known for its rich biodiversity and stunning panoramic views of the Himalayan peaks such as Chaukhamba, Nanda Devi, Nanda Kot, Panchachuli and Kedarnath.
Flora:
The sanctuary is covered by oak and rhododendron forests at higher altitudes and by chir pine forests at a lower height.
It has 25 types of trees, 24 types of bushes and seven varieties of grasses.
Fauna:
It is host to more than 200 species of native and migratory birds and endangered species like Indian red fox, jackals, pine martens and porcupines.
It also houses leopards, ghorals, wild boars, kakars, monkeys and Himalayan black bears and several species of birds including the Himalayan monal, koklass pheasant and Himalayan griffon.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
NEWS: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/dehradun-news/fire-in-uttarakhand-s-binsar-wildlife-sanctuary-kills-4-forest-dept-staffers-4-injured-101718295445173.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Improvised Explosive Device (IED):
- It is a type of unconventional explosive weapon that can take any form and be activated in a variety of ways.
- The IED can contain biological components to increase its lethal effects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Liquid explosives seem to have made a comeback in Jammu and Kashmir militancy theatre after 17 years as a recent raid by police in the Union territory led to the recovery of such “difficult-to-detect (d2d)” Improvised Explosive Devices.
Forensic examination indicated that it could be trinitrotoluene (TNT) or nitroglycerine, generally used in dynamites.
About Improvised Explosive Device (IED):
It is a type of unconventional explosive weapon that can take any form and be activated in a variety of ways.
They are used by criminals, vandals, terrorists, suicide bombers and insurgents.
Because they are improvised, IEDs can come in many forms, ranging from a small pipe bomb to a sophisticated device capable of causing massive damage and loss of life.
The extent of damage caused by an IED depends on its size, construction, and placement, and whether it incorporates a high explosive or propellant.
The term IED came into common usage during the Iraq War that began in 2003.
Components of an IED:
All IEDs consist of an initiating mechanism: a detonator, an explosive charge and a casing or collection of projectiles (such as ball bearings or nails) that produces lethal fragments upon detonation.
Materials used as explosives in IEDs:
In practice, IEDs can be made of many different kinds of objects and materials, including artillery or mortar rounds, aerial bombs, certain types of fertilizers, TNT and other explosives.
IEDs can also contain radiological, chemical or biological components to increase their lethal and psychological effects.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
NEWS: https://www.wionews.com/india-news/is-liquid-ied-a-new-challenge-for-the-security-forces-in-jammu-and-kashmir-731788
Consider the following statements with reference to the Teesta River:
- It is a tributary of the Brahmaputra River.
- It originates at the Verinag Spring at the foot of the Pir Panjal range in the Kashmir Valley.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
About Teesta River:
It is a tributary of the Jamuna River (Brahmaputra River), flowing through India and Bangladesh.
Origin:
It originates as Chhombo Chhu from a glacial lake Khangchung Chho at an elevation of 5,280 m in the northeastern corner of the state.
Teesta Khangse glacier and Chho Lhamo are also considered as the source of Teesta River by many authors.
The total length of river is 309 km (192 mi). It drains an area of 12540 km2.
Course:
It flows to the south, cutting a deep gorge through the Siwalik Hills east of Darjiling (West Bengal) and turns southeast to run through the Sivok Khola pass onto the plains of West Bengal.
The river continued southward to empty directly into the upper Padma River (Ganga River).
About 1787, however, the river changed its course to flow eastward, crossing the Rangpur region of Bangladesh to join the Jamuna River near Chilmari after a total course of about 200 miles (320 km).
The major tributaries of Teesta river:
Left-bank Tributaries: Lachung Chhu, Chakung Chhu, Dik Chhu, Rani Khola, Rangpo Chhu.
Right-bank Tributaries - Zemu Chhu, Rangyong Chhu, Rangit River.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
NEWS: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/west-bengal/water-levels-surge-in-teesta-river-even-as-heavy-rainfalls-flood-parts-of-north-bengal/article68285033.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Ajanta paintings:
- They depict the themes associated with the life events of Buddha.
- They are painted in the tempera style.
- They show the complete absence of red ochre.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
About Ajanta paintings:
The Ajanta caves, an archaeological site consisting of around 30 rock cut caves, situated in Aurangabad (Maharashtra).
The unfinished caves, of which five (caves 9, 10, 19, 26 and 29) are chaitya grihas (sanctuary) and the rest, sangharamas or viharas (monastery).
The caves at Ajanta are excavated out of a vertical cliff above the left bank of the river Waghora in the hills of Ajanta.
These are masterpieces of Buddhist religious art that influenced Indian art that followed.
The caves were built in two phases-
The first period spans the second and first centuries BCE, attributed the patronage of the Satavahana Dynasty and it is dominated by Hinayana/Theravadin followers of Buddhism.
The second was during the late fifth CE, possibly during the reign of the Vakataka king Harisena.It is dominated by the Mahayana followers of Buddhism.
Its features:
These paintings were painted in the tempera style and filled with stories and illustrations of human figures, alive with drama.
Outlines were usually drawn using red ochre or carbon black, while organic substances such as plant fibres, plant seeds and rice husks were mixed into mud to create a mortar.
The first period depict floral patterns, geometrical shapes, animals and birds. Religious motifs are notably absent.
Murals from the second period depict iconic scenes from the Jatakas, including Asita’s visit to the infant Buddha, the temptation of Buddha by Mara and his forces, miracles performed by the Buddha and various scenes of battle and hunting etc.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/ajanta-paintings-in-hyderabad-to-get-a-new-lease-of-life/article68290038.ece
The JIMEX 2024 bilateral military exercise, is conducted between India and:
Japan
Explanation :
About JIMEX- 2024:
This is the eighth edition of JIMEX, since its inception in 2012.
The exercise includes both harbour and sea phases.
The harbour phase will comprise professional, sports and social interactions.
During the exercise, navies of both the countries will jointly hone their war fighting skills at sea and enhance their interoperability.
Indian Navy’s indigenous Stealth Frigate INS Shivalik is participating in the bilateral maritime exercise. Japan is being represented by the Guided Missile Destroyer JS Yugiri.
It provides an opportunity to learn from each other’s best practices and facilitates operational interactions between India and Japan.
The exercise also reaffirms their shared commitment towards maritime security in the Indo-Pacific region.
Other Exercises between India and Japan:
Malabar: India and Japan with the United States and Australia participate in the naval war gaming exercise named Malabar.
SHINYUU Maitri (Air Force)
Dharma Guardian (Military Exercise)
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/japan-india-maritime-exercise-commences-at-yokosuka-in-japan/
With reference to the Technology Development Fund (TDF), consider the following statements:
- It is a scheme executed by the Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO).
- It grants aid for defence and dual-use technology development.
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A Woman-led Start-up Developed ‘Divya Drishti’, a cutting-edge AI Tool for Personal Identification, under a Technology Development Fund.
About:
AI tool “Divya Drishti” integrates face recognition with immutable physiological parameters such as gait and skeleton.
It was developed by Ingenious Research Solutions Pvt Ltd., a start-up established by a woman entrepreneur, Dr. Shivani Verma.
This innovative solution marks a significant advancement in biometric authentication technology, offering enhanced accuracy and reliability in identifying individuals.
This dual approach enhances identification accuracy, minimizing the risk of false positives or identity fraud and has versatile applications across diverse sectors including Defence, Law Enforcement, Corporate and Public Infrastructure.
The AI tool has been developed under the technical guidance and mentoring of the Centre for Artificial Intelligence & Robotics (CAIR), a laboratory of DRDO based in Bangalore.
The Technology Development Fund (TDF):
The TDF scheme is a flagship programme of the Ministry of Defence executed by DRDO under ‘Make in India’ initiative.
It grants aid for defence and dual-use technology development.
Objectives: To build Indian industries’ capacity and capability for defence technology development, foster a culture of design and development, and create an R&D ecosystem.
It supports niche technology development, and prototype creation, and achieves ‘Aatmanirbharta’ in defence technology.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: DRDO Unveils the Power of AI
Consider the following statements with reference to the digital firewall:
- It is a software-based network security device that monitors and filters network traffic based on predefined security rules.
- It can be installed on individual devices like computers or servers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Pakistani media outlets reported in the past week that the country plans to implement a Chinese-style firewall to block users from accessing social media platforms.
About:
A digital firewall is a software-based network security device that monitors and filters network traffic based on predefined security rules.
It is designed to prevent unauthorized access to a network by controlling incoming and outgoing traffic.
Digital firewalls can be installed on individual devices, such as computers or servers, and are often used in conjunction with other security measures like antivirus software to provide comprehensive protection against cyber threats.
Though in recent times they are associated with censorship by oppressive governments, firewalls were meant to be a security tool.
Large firewalls like the Great Firewall of China, for example, are highly complex cybersecurity tools maintained at scale to prevent people from accessing large sections of the Internet.
That means nation-states can entirely stop citizens from accessing the most commonly used websites on the Internet, eg. social media.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: Is Pakistan using a firewall to censor social media platforms? | Explained - The Hindu
Digital Health Incentive Scheme (DHIS) was launched under which one of the following initiatives?
Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission
Explanation :
The central government has given a year-long extension to the Digital Health Incentive Scheme (DHIS) meant for digitising patients’ health records and linking them with the Ayushman Bharat Digital Health Account (ABHA ID).
About:
The Digital Health Incentive Scheme (DHIS) is a national initiative by the National Health Authority (NHA) aimed at promoting the adoption of digital health practices in India.
It was launched on January 1, 2023, under the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) to create a robust digital health ecosystem and enhance the quality of care for patients.
With this extension, the scheme will now remain in effect till June 30, 2025.
Key Features and Objectives:
Eligibility: Health facilities (hospitals, diagnostic labs), digital solution companies, and other healthcare providers are eligible to participate in the scheme.
Incentives are provided based on the number of digital health records created and linked to Ayushman Bharat Health Account (ABHA) numbers of patients.
Healthcare institutions and digital solution entities can register for the scheme through the Health Facility Registry (HFR) and ABDM Sandbox, respectively.
Transactions that qualify under the scheme include creating any ABHA-linked health record, such as teleconsultations, lab reports, prescriptions, etc.
Objectives and Impact:
Promote digital health: The scheme aims to encourage healthcare providers to adopt digital health practices, enhancing patient care and reducing administrative burdens.
Enhance quality of care: By digitizing health records, the scheme ensures evidence-based quality care and seamless access to patient records.
Boost digital health transactions: The scheme aims to increase digital health transactions, which will help in creating a robust digital health ecosystem.
National Health Authority (NHA):
It is the apex body responsible for implementing AB PM-JAY.
It has been entrusted with the role of designing strategy, building technological infrastructure and implementation of “National Digital Health Mission ‘’ to create a National Digital Health Eco-system.
It is the successor of the National Health Agency, which has been functioning as a registered society since 2018.
Under the Cabinet decision for full functional autonomy, the National Health Agency was reconstituted as the National Health Authority in January 2019.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: Why the Centre has extended the Digital Health Incentive Scheme | Explained News - The Indian Express
Mitigation Work Programme (MWP), which aims to help countries scale up their mitigation ambition and implementation to achieve the 1.5°C goal of the Paris Agreement was established by?
United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
Explanation :
The road to the COP29 to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change in Baku appears bumpy after the mid-year climate talks in Bonn, Germany concluded on June 13, with little progress, according to researchers from the Centre for Science and Environment.
About:
The Mitigation Work Programme (MWP) is a process established by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) to help countries scale up their mitigation ambition and implementation to achieve the 1.5°C goal of the Paris Agreement.
Objectives:
Generate discussions: Foster innovative discussions among policymakers and stakeholders to overcome barriers to scaling up mitigation action.
Inclusive participation: Ensure diverse participation to support national processes and practical domestic policymaking pathways.
Explore opportunities: Identify cost-effective and scalable mitigation opportunities to help countries implement and enhance their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).
Operationalization: Conduct annual global dialogues and investment-focused events from 2023-2026.
Address equity and sustainable development: Focus on equity, sustainable development, and synergies with adaptation, considering regional approaches.
UNFCCC:
The UNFCCC, established in 1992 during the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro, aims to stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations to prevent dangerous climate change, ensuring ecosystems adapt naturally and sustainable development is maintained.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: Bonn climate meet plagued with distractions & doublespeak, road to COP29 appears bumpy: CSE
“Planet Nine”, recently seen in the news, refers to:
a hypothetical planet in the outer region of the solar system
Explanation :
Astronomers have been scouring the outer solar system for signs of a hypothetical ninth planet for almost a decade, without success. However, we may finally be on the cusp of finding it, experts say.
About:
Planet Nine is a hypothetical planet in the outer region of our solar system.
The concept was proposed to explain certain anomalies observed in the orbits of distant trans-Neptunian objects (TNOs), particularly those with highly elliptical and clustered orbits.
Characteristics:
Mass: Estimated to be about 5 to 10 times that of Earth.
Orbit: Believed to have a highly elliptical orbit with a semi-major axis of about 400 to 800 AU (astronomical units).
One AU is the average distance between Earth and the Sun, roughly 93 million miles or 150 million kilometres.
Orbital Period: Could range from 10,000 to 20,000 years.
Distance: At its closest, it might be around 200 AU from the Sun, and at its farthest, about 1,200 AU.
The hunt for the solar system’s potential ninth planet may soon be coming to a close. With the opening of the groundbreaking Vera C. Rubin Observatory in 2025, we may either finally find Planet Nine within the next few years — or rule out the idea for good,
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: Planet Nine: Is the search for this elusive world nearly over? | Live Science
With reference to Millets, consider the following statements:
- They are a group of small-seeded grasses.
- They are gluten-free and non-allergenic.
- They are drought tolerant and photo-insensitive.
- The United Nations has declared 2023 as the International Year of Millets.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
Millets are a group of highly variable small-seeded grasses, widely grown around the world as cereal crops or grains for fodder and human food. So, statement 1 is correct.
Millets are important crops in the semiarid tropics of Asia and Africa (especially in India Mali Nigeria Niger), with 97% of millet production in developing countries. The crop is favoured due to its productivity and short growing season under dry, high-temperature conditions. The most widely grown millet is pearl millet, which is an important crop in India and parts of Africa.
The Health Benefits of Millets are,
Millet will hydrate our colon to keep us from being constipated.
The high levels of tryptophan in millet produce serotonin, which is calming to our moods.
Magnesium in millet can help reduce the effects of migraines and heart attacks.
Niacin (vitamin B-3) in millet can help lower cholesterol.
Millet consumption decreases triglycerides and C-reactive protein, thereby preventing cardiovascular disease.
All millet varieties show high antioxidant activity.
Millet is gluten-free and non-allergenic. So, statement 2 is correct.
At present, Nutri-cereals are grown in resource-poor agro-climatic regions, hilly & tribal areas of the country in rainfed conditions. Nutri-cereals are known for nutrient-rich content and having characteristics like drought tolerance, photo-insensitivity and resilience to climate change etc. Nutri-cereals are grown in arid and semi-arid tracts under low rainfall (200-600 mm) conditions, where fine cereals like wheat and rice cannot be grown profitably. So, statement 3 is correct.
The U.N. General Assembly recently adopted a resolution, sponsored by India and supported by more than 70 countries, declaring 2023 as the International Year of Millets. The resolution is intended to increase public awareness of the health benefits of millets and their suitability for cultivation under tough conditions marked by climate change. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF):
- It promotes intensive irrigation and deep ploughing.
- The large-scale adoption of ZBNF may lead to a reduction in agricultural productivity.
- It excludes insect and pest management.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Zero budget natural farming (ZBNF) is a method of chemical-free agriculture drawing from traditional Indian practices.ZBNF was developed as an alternative to the Green Revolution’s methods of application of chemical fertilizers and pesticides and intensive irrigation.Instead of commercially produced chemical inputs, the ZBNF promotes the application of jeevamrutha — a mixture of fresh desi cow dung and aged desi cow urine, jaggery, pulse flour, water and soil — on farmland.
The ZBNF method promotes soil aeration, minimal watering, intercropping, bunds and topsoil mulching and discourages intensive irrigation and deep ploughing. So, statement 1 is not correct.
According to an expert committee set up by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) setup to empirically validate the results of ZBNF, there would be tremendous yield loss if ZBNF is adopted on a large scale basis. So, statement 2 is correct.
A mixture, called bijamrita, is used to treat seeds, while concoctions using neem leaves and pulp, tobacco and green chillis are prepared for insect and pest management. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to Pearl Farming, consider the following statements:
- Pearls are the only gemstones in the world that come from a living creature.
- Currently, there is no commercial production of cultured marine pearls in India.
- Freshwater pearls can develop faster than saltwater pearls.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Pearls are the only gemstones in the world that come from a living creature. Mollusks such as oysters and mussels produce these precious jewels. In saltwater, pearls are found in oysters, while in freshwater they are produced by mussels. So, statement 1 is correct.
Marine pearls are produced form the species distributed in the Gulf of Mannar, Palk Bay, southern Kerala and Gulf of Kutch and the black lip pearl oyster, in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Technology for marine pearl production was developed by the CMFRI. Based on these developments, many large-scale commercial ventures and societal programmes were initiated near natural pearl oyster beds, particularly in Tamil Nadu and Kerala. However, due to several logistic reasons (primarily long duration of culture and risks of sea-based farming), these ventures could not sustain. Currently, there is no commercial production of cultured marine pearls in the country as reported by the ICAR-CMFRI. So, statement 2 is correct.
The ICAR-Central Institute of Freshwater Aquaculture (ICAR-CIFA), Bhubaneswar has developed the technology of growing pearls in freshwater. In India, the commercial production of freshwater pearls is very meager. Based on a survey conducted by ICAR-CIFA, it is found that most of the states having freshwater bodies are suitable for freshwater pearl farming. For example West Bengal, Bihar, Odisha, Karnataka, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Punjab, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and the North Eastern States.
The time taken for a pearl to develop depends on a variety of factors. Generally, freshwater types form a lot faster than saltwater ones. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Which of the following are the advantages of adopting Precision Farming?
- Prevention of soil degradation to a certain extent
- Complete elimination of the need for chemical fertilisers
- More productivity from small landholdings at cheaper costs
- Reduction of water footprint in cropping areas
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1 and 4 only
Explanation :
Precision farming is an approach where inputs are utilised in precise amounts to get increased average yields, compared to traditional cultivation techniques. In India, one major problem is the small field size. More than 58 per cent of operational holdings in the country have size less than one hectare (ha).
Some of the advantages of precision farming are:
To increase agriculture productivity
Efficient use of water resources
Dissemination of modern farm practices to improve quality, quantity and reduced cost of production
Developing favourable attitudes
Precision farming changing the socio-economic status of farmers
Prevents soil degradation. So, point 1 is correct.
Precision farming does not intend to completely eliminate fertiliser application. Rather, it seeks to reduce chemical application in crop production. So, point 2 is not correct.
The precision farming techniques are not applicable or difficult/costly for small land holdings. So, point 3 is not correct.
According to studies, precision farming has shown reduction of water footprint in cropping areas, thereby minimizing wastage and saving input. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
In the context of the Indian Economy, after Independence, which of the following steps were taken by the government of India to promote growth and equity in the agriculture sector?
- Land Ceilings
- Introduction of high-yielding variety seeds
- Abolition of intermediaries
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
During colonial rule, there was neither growth nor equity in the agricultural sector. The policymakers of independent India had to address these issues, which they did through land reforms and promoting the use of ‘High Yielding Variety’ (HYV) seeds which ushered in a revolution in Indian agriculture. So, option 2 is correct.
Just a year after independence, steps were taken to abolish intermediaries and to make the tillers the owners of the land. So, option 3 is correct.
Land ceiling was another policy to promote equity in the agricultural sector. This means fixing the maximum size of land which could be owned by an individual. The purpose of the land ceiling was to reduce the concentration of land ownership in a few hands. So, option 1 is correct.
Therefore option (d) is the correct answer.
With reference to pulses, consider the following statements:
- India is the largest producer as well as the consumer of pulses in the world.
- Uttar Pradesh is the leading producer of pulses in the country.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Pulses are the major source of protein in a vegetarian diet. Major pulses that are grown in India are tur (arhar), urad, moong and masoor. They need less moisture and survive even in dry conditions. Being leguminous crops, all these crops except arhar help in restoring soil fertility by fixing nitrogen from the air. Therefore, these are mostly grown in rotation with other crops.
According to the Annual Report 2022-23 of the Directorate of Pulses Development, India is the largest producer and consumer of pulses in the world, contributing nearly 25 per cent to the global output. So, statement 1 is correct.
Madhya Pradesh is the top pulse-producing state in the country. It caters to 24 per cent of the country’s total production. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- Zaid crops are grown in the winter season and harvested in the spring season.
- Rabi crops require a warm climate for the germination of seeds and a cold environment for their growth.
- Kharif crops are water-intensive in nature and also require hot weather for proper growth.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Types of cropping seasons in India:
Rabi crops: Rabi means spring in Arabic. These crops are grown in the winter season [October to December] and harvested in the spring season [April-May]. These crops require a warm climate for germination and maturation of seeds and need a cold environment for their growth. Examples: Wheat, Gram and Barley etc. So, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
Kharif Crop: These crops are cultivated and harvested in the monsoon season. They are sown at the beginning of the monsoon season and harvested at the end of the season. i.e., between September and October. These crops need a lot of water and hot weather for proper growth. Examples: Rice, Soybean, Cotton. etc. So, statement 3 is correct.
Zaid Crop: These crops are grown between Kharif and Rabi Seasons, i.e., between March to June. They require warm, dry weather during the growth period and longer day length for flowering. Examples: Cucumber, Pumpkin, Watermelon, Muskmelon, Groundnut, etc.
Therefore, option (a) is the answer.
“When a ship appears over the distant horizon, the top of the mast is seen first before the hull. In the same manner, when the ship leaves the harbor its disappearance over the curved surface is equally gradual.”
The phenomenon in question occurs due to
spherical shape of the earth
Explanation:
Because of the Earth’s sphericity, when a ship appears over the distant horizon, the top of the must is seen first, followed by the hull. Similarly, as it leaves the harbour, its disappearance over the curved surface is gradual. If the earth were flat, the entire ship would have been visible at the same time. This is apparent from the figure given below.
Other evidence for Earth’s sphericity includes the possibility of the circumnavigation of the earth and circular horizon when viewed from the deck of a ship or from a cliff on land.
Consider the following statements with respect to International Date Line (IDL):
- It is a perfect straight line that follows the 180-degree longitude.
- A traveller crossing the date line from West to East gains a day.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The international date line is an imaginary line that runs north-south across the Pacific Ocean from the North Pole to the South Pole. The IDL coincides with 180 degrees longitude but deviates largely. Most of these deviations are the result of practical considerations, such as to avoid splitting a country into two time zones, or for political and economic reasons. So, statement 1 is not correct.
When we cross IDL, we either gain or lose a day depending on which way we are traveling. IDL line functions as a “line of demarcation” separating two consecutive calendar dates. A traveler going from West to East gains time from Greenwich until he reaches the meridian 180 degrees east (International date line), where he will be 12 hours ahead of G.M.T. Similarly, a traveler while going from East to West loses 12 hours when he reaches 180 degrees west (International date line). Thus, there is a total difference of 24 hours between the two sides of 180 degrees meridian. This is the international date line where the date changes by exactly one day when it is crossed. So, statement 2 is correct.
Among the following cities, which one lies nearest to the 82° 30’ E longitude of Indian Standard time Meridian?
A. Bengaluru B. Delhi C. Kolkata D. Raipur
Raipur
In India, the longitude of 82½° E (82° 30’ E) is treated as the standard meridian. The local time at this meridian is taken as the standard time for the whole country. It is known as the Indian Standard Time (IST).
There is a general understanding among the countries of the world to select the standard meridian in multiples of 7°30’ of longitude. That is why 82°30’ E has been selected as the ‘standard meridian’ of India. Indian Standard Time is ahead of Greenwich Mean Time by 5 hours and 30 minutes. There are some countries where there is more than one standard meridian due to their vast east-to-west extent. For example, the USA has seven time zones.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
“It is also called as Expanding universe hypothesis. It argues that as time passes, galaxies move further and further apart. It denotes that our universe emerged from a singularity.” This is the most likely descriptions of
Big Bang Theory
Explanation :
The most popular argument regarding the origin of the universe is the Big Bang Theory. It is also called expanding universe hypothesis. Edwin Hubble, in 1920, provided evidence that the universe is expanding. As time passes, galaxies move further and further apart. In the beginning, all matter forming the universe existed in one place in the form of a “tiny ball” (singular atom) with an unimaginably small volume, infinite temperature and infinite density.
At the Big Bang the “tiny ball” exploded violently. This led to a huge expansion. It is now generally accepted that the event of big bang took place 13.7 billion years before the present. The expansion continues even to the present day. As it grew, some energy was converted into matter. There was particularly rapid expansion within fractions of a second after the bang. Thereafter, the expansion has slowed down. Within first three minutes from the Big Bang event, the first atom began to form.
Within 300,000 years from the Big Bang, temperature dropped to 4,500K (Kelvin) and gave rise to atomic matter. The universe became transparent.
Consider the following statements with reference to the process of planetary differentiation:
- The lighter materials sink towards the core and the heavier materials move towards the surface.
- It happens in lava lakes and in magma chambers beneath volcanoes on Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
When planets begin to melt, the materials in them begin to separate from one another. The heaviest materials, such as metallic iron, sink to form cores. Low density magmas rise forming crusts. This process is called differentiation. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Soon after formation, the Moon melted substantially forming a large body of magma that completely surrounded it. This is called the lunar magma ocean. The main evidence that this actually happened on the Moon is the presence of large amounts of the mineral plagioclase feldspar in the ancient, lunar highlands crust. Scientists surmise feldspar floated in the magma ocean and accumulated at the top, while denser minerals such as olivine and pyroxene sank and accumulated at the base of the magma ocean. This same process happens in lava lakes and in magma chambers beneath volcanoes on Earth. Minerals denser than the melt sink; those less dense floats. It is an important geological process that leads to the production of a wide variety of igneous rocks. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- The loss of the earth’s primordial atmosphere was caused by degassing.
- During the evolution of the earth, photosynthesis was responsible for flooding the atmosphere with oxygen.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
There are three stages in the evolution of the present atmosphere:
The first stage is marked by the loss of the primordial atmosphere. The early atmosphere, with hydrogen and helium, is supposed to have been stripped off as a result of the solar winds. This happened not only in the case of the earth but also in all the terrestrial planets, which were supposed to have lost their primordial atmosphere through the impact of solar winds.
During the cooling of the earth, gases and water vapour were released from the interior solid earth. The process through which the gases were outpoured from the interior is called degassing. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The composition of the atmosphere was modified by the living world through the process of photosynthesis. 2,500-3,000 million years before the present, the process of photosynthesis got evolved. Life was confined to the oceans for a long time. Oceans began to have the contribution of oxygen through the process of photosynthesis. Eventually, oceans were saturated with oxygen, and 2,000 million years ago, oxygen began to flood the atmosphere. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements is/are correct about Jovian Planets?
- Atmosphere of the Jovian planets is composed mainly of carbon dioxide and nitrogen.
- Jovian planets were formed in the close vicinity of the parent star.
- Jovian planets have more moons than terrestrial planets.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
3 only
Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune are known as the Jovian (Jupiter-like) planets, because they are all gigantic compared with Earth, and they have a gaseous nature. While the atmosphere of terrestrial planets is composed mainly of carbon dioxide and nitrogen gases, hydrogen and helium gases are found in abundance in the atmosphere of jovian planets. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The terrestrial planets were formed in the close vicinity of the parent star where it was too warm for gases to condense to solid particles. The Jovian planets were formed at quite a distant location. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Jovian planets have more moons than terrestrial planets because of their great masses, which result in stronger gravitational fields. And giant planets also occupy greater space and hold larger volumes of mass in their surrounding atmospheres. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- Unlike the parallels of latitude which are circles, the meridians of longitude are semicircles that converge at the poles.
- Unlike the parallels of latitude, the meridians of longitude are all equal in length.
- The meridians intersect the equator at right angles.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
The shape of the earth presents some difficulties in positioning its surface features, as there is no point of reference from which to measure the relative positions of other points. Hence, a network of imaginary lines is drawn on a globe or a map to locate various places. Horizontal lines are drawn parallel to each other in east-west direction. The line drawn midway between the North Pole and the South Pole is called the equator. It is the largest circle and divides the globe into two equal halves. It is also called a great circle. All the other parallels get smaller in size, in proportion to their distance from the equator towards the poles .These imaginary lines running east-west are commonly known as the parallels of latitude. The vertical lines running north-south, join the two poles. They are called the meridians of longitude. They are spaced farthest apart at the equator and converge at a point at each pole.
Unlike the parallels of latitude which are circles, the meridians of longitude are semicircles that converge at the poles. If opposite meridians are taken together, they complete a circle, but they are valued separately as two meridians. So, statement 1 is correct.
The meridians intersect the equator at right angles. Unlike the parallels of latitude, they are all equal in length. For convenience of numbering, the meridian of longitude passing through the Greenwich observatory (near London) has been adopted as the Prime Meridian by an international agreement and has been given the value of 0°. So, statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
1,2 and 3
Explanation :
The mid-day sun is exactly overhead at least once a year on all latitudes in between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn. This area, therefore, receives the maximum heat and is called the Torrid Zone. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
The mid-day sun never shines overhead on any latitude beyond the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn. The angle of the sun’s rays goes on decreasing towards the poles. As such, the areas bounded by the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle in the Northern Hemisphere, and the Tropic of Capricorn and the Antarctic Circle in the Southern Hemisphere, have moderate temperatures. These are, therefore, called Temperate Zones. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Areas lying between the Arctic Circle and the North Pole in the Northern Hemisphere and the Antarctic Circle and the South Pole in the Southern Hemisphere, are very cold. It is because here the sun does not rise much above the horizon. Therefore, its rays are always slanting and provide less heat. These are, therefore, called Frigid Zones (very cold). So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Asteroid belt:
- It is located between the orbits of the planets Earth and Mars.
- Titan is the largest asteroid in the asteroid belt.
- DAVINCI+ is the first US-led mission to study the Asteroid belt.
Which of the statements above is/are not correct?
1, 2 and 3
The asteroid belt is a torus-shaped region in the Solar System, located roughly between the orbits of the planets Mars and Jupiter. It is also called the main asteroid belt to distinguish it from other asteroid populations in the Solar System such as near-Earth asteroids and trojan asteroids. So, statement 1 is not correct.
About half the mass of the belt is contained in the four largest asteroids: Ceres, Vesta, Pallas, and Hygiea. Ceres, the only object in the asteroid belt large enough to be a dwarf planet, is about 950 km in diameter. Titan is the largest moon of the planet Saturn. So, statement 2 is not correct.
DAVINCI+ is short for ‘Deep Atmosphere Venus Investigation of Noble gases, Chemistry, and Imaging’ and is the first US-led mission to the planet Venus. It will try to understand Venus’ composition to see how the planet formed and evolved. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Which one of the following best describes the term “circle of illumination” with respect to the motion of earth?
Circle that divides the day from night on the globe.
Explanation :
The earth receives light from the sun. Due to the spherical shape of the earth, only half of it gets light from the sun at a time. The portion facing the sun experiences day while the other half away from the sun experiences night. The circle that divides the day from night on the globe is called the Circle of Illumination. It is the region that experiences sunshine. This circle of illumination does not coincide with the axis relative to the orbital plane.
The axis of the earth which is an imaginary line, makes an angle of 66½° with its orbital plane. The plane formed by the orbit is known as the orbital plane.
The movement of the earth around the sun in a fixed path or orbit is called Revolution.
Consider the following statements with reference to Denmark:
- It is a Nordic country.
- It borders both the Baltic and north seas.
- Greenland island is a part of Denmark.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
The Nordic countries are a geographical and cultural region in Northern Europe and the North Atlantic. It includes the sovereign states of Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway and Sweden as well as the autonomous territories of the Faroe Islands and Greenland, and the autonomous region of Åland. So, statement 1 is correct.
It is situated on the Jutland peninsula and its main islands of Zealand and Funen. It is located between the North Sea and the Baltic Sea, north of Germany and west of Sweden, across the Kattegat, the maritime link between the North– and the Baltic Sea. So, statement 2 is correct.
Greenland remains a part of the Kingdom of Denmark. However, the island’s home-rule government is responsible for most domestic affairs. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Israel shares land or marine borders with which of the following?
- Mediterranean Sea
- Iraq
- Persian Gulf
- Syria
- Egypt
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1, 4 and 5 only
Explanation :
Israel is located on the south-eastern shore of the Mediterranean Sea and the northern shore of the Red Sea. So, point 1 is correct.
It has land borders with Lebanon to the north, Syria to the northeast, Jordan on the east, the Palestinian territories of the West Bank and the Gaza Strip to the east and west, respectively, and Egypt to the southwest. So, point 4 and point 5 are correct.
Israel’s economic and technological centre is Tel Aviv, while its seat of government and proclaimed capital is Jerusalem, although international recognition of the state’s sovereignty over Jerusalem is limited.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer
Which of the following countries have territories in the Indian ocean area?
1) U.S.A
2) France
3) China
4) Australia
5) United Kingdom
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
2,4, and 5 only
Explanation :
In the South Indian Ocean, French territories include Reunion Island, Mayotte (Comoros archipelago) and the remote Iles Eparses in the Mozambique Channel, and Tromelin, North-East of Madagascar.
The Territory of Cocos Islands is an Australian external territory in the Indian Ocean, comprising a small archipelago approximately midway between Australia and Sri Lanka and relatively close to the Indonesian island of Sumatra.
British Indian Ocean Territory (BIOT), an overseas territory of the United Kingdom in the central Indian Ocean, was established in 1965. Since 1976 it has been coterminous with the Chagos Archipelago. Lying at the centre of the Indian Ocean region, the territory is strategically located. It constitutes a semi-circular group, open to the east, comprising the Salomon Islands, Peros Banhos atoll, Nelsons Island, the Three Brothers Islands, the Eagle Islands, Danger Island, the Egmont Islands, and Diego Garcia.
Which of the following cities will have the shortest shadow on 21st June at noon?
Bhopal
Explanation :
The Northern Hemisphere, including India, will witness the longest daytime of the year on Sunday, June 21. The sun will reach its highest position in the sky, and the shadows will disappear at noon if you are in any place along the tropic of cancer on this day. Hence, the cities closer to the tropic of cancer will have the shortest shadow on 21st June. From the given options Bhopal (23.2599° N, 77.4126° E) is the closest city to the Tropic of Cancer.
Which of the following straits connect the South China Sea with the East China Sea?
Taiwan Strait
Explanation :
The Taiwan Strait is a 180-kilometer-wide strait separating the island of Taiwan and continental Asia. The strait is part of the South China Sea and connects to the East China Sea to the north.
Which of the following countries share a boundary with the Black Sea?
- Russia
- Turkey
- Ukraine
- Serbia
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1, 2 and 3 only
Six countries border with the Black Sea, including Ukraine to the north, Russia and Georgia to the east, Turkey to the south, and Bulgaria and Romania to the west.
Therefore option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following countries:
- Tajikistan
2.Turkmenistan
3.Uzbekistan
4.Kyrgyzstan
5.China
Which of the above-mentioned countries border Afghanistan?
1, 2, 3 and 5
Afghanistan is a mountainous landlocked country in southern Central Asia. It borders Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan to the north, Iran to the west, Pakistan to the east and south. It has a small border section with China and India (disputed because it is in Pakistan-occupied Kashmir) to the northeast.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Palamu Tiger Reserve lies in which one of the following states?
Jharkhand
Explanation :
To retain the four tigers which have migrated to Palamu Tiger Reserve (PTR), efforts are underway to relocate at least two tigresses and one tiger from another reserve.
About Palamu Tiger Reserve (PTR):
Location: Chhota Nagpur plateau region of Jharkhand.
The reserve forms part of the Betla National Park.
It is one of the first nine tiger reserves created in the country at the inception of ‘Project Tiger’.
It is the first reserve in the world in which a tiger census was carried out as a pugmark count as early as 1932 under the supervision of J.W. Nicholson.
The terrain is undulating, with valleys, hills, and plains.
Three rivers, namely North Koyal, Auranga, and Burha, flow through the valleys.
The geological formation consists of gneiss and includes granite and limestone.
The Reserve is very rich in minerals like Bauxite and Coal.
Vegetation:
It is primarily dominated by the Northern Tropical Dry Deciduous, Sal Forest and its associates.
Smaller patches of Northern tropical Moist Deciduous forests exist too in the Reserve.
Flora: Shorea robusta, Acacia catechu, Madhuca indica, Terminalia tomentosa, Butea monosperma, Pterocarpus marsupium, Anogeisus latifolia, Indigofera pulchela, etc.
Fauna: Some keystone and principal species found in the reserve include Tiger, Asiatic Elephant and Leopard, Grey wolf, Wild dog, Gaur, Sloth bear and four horned antelope etc
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Jun/17/plan-to-relocate-tigresses-to-palamu-reserve
The Global Gender Gap Report is released by which one of the following organisations?
World Economic Forum (WEF)
Explanation :
The world has seen modest progress in closing the gender gap, however, the pace remains sluggish, according to the latest edition of the World Economic Forum’s Global Gender Gap Report.
About Global Gender Gap Report:
It is an annual index designed to measure gender equality.
It benchmarks gender-based gaps in four areas: economic participation and opportunity; educational attainment; health and survival; and political empowerment.
It is released by the World Economic Forum (WEF).
It is the longest-standing index tracking the progress of numerous countries’ efforts towards closing these gaps over time since its inception in 2006.
Highlights of 2024 Report:
The global gender gap score in 2024 for all 146 countries stands at 68.5%, a 0.1 percentage point improvement on last year.
At the current pace, it will take another 134 years to achieve full gender parity.
India slipped two places to 129th place as Iceland retained its top position in the rankings for the 15th consecutive year.
It was followed in the top 10 by Finland, Norway, New Zealand, Sweden, Nicaragua, Germany, Namibia, Ireland, and Spain.
With a population of over 1.4 billion, India closed 64.1% of its gender gap in 2024.
In South Asia, India was ranked fifth after Bangladesh, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Bhutan, while Pakistan was ranked last.
In the world, Sudan was ranked last on the index of 146 countries, while Pakistan fell three places to 145th.
India was among the economies with the lowest levels of economic parity, with Bangladesh, Sudan, Iran, Pakistan, and Morocco, as all of them registered less than 30 percent gender parity in estimated earned income.
India showed the best gender parity in terms of enrolment in secondary education and ranked 65th globally on political empowerment of women.
With regard to parity in number of years with female/male heads of state for the last 50 years, India ranked 10th.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.cnbctv18.com/world/wef-global-gender-gap-report-2024-parity-for-women-remains-five-generations-away-19427641.htm
With reference to the Montreal Protocol, consider the following statements:
- It regulates the production and consumption of ozone depleting substances (ODS).
- Developing and developed countries have equal but differentiated responsibilities under the protocol.
- The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol aims to phase down the production and consumption of carbon dioxide (CO2) and methane (CH4).
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
New research by a team of scientists has shown that atmospheric concentrations of a class of ozone-depleting chemicals used as refrigerants, foam blowing agents, and solvents peaked in 2021 and are now beginning to decline as nations comply with restrictions called for by the Montreal Protocol.
About Montreal Protocol:
The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is a landmark multilateral environmental agreement that regulates the production and consumption of nearly 100 man-made chemicals referred to as ozone depleting substances (ODS).
ODS are substances that are commonly used in products such as refrigerators, air conditioners, fire extinguishers, and aerosols.
When released into the atmosphere, those chemicals damage the stratospheric ozone layer, Earth’s protective shield that protects humans and the environment from harmful levels of ultraviolet radiation from the sun.
The Montreal Protocol sits under the Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer (the Vienna Convention).
Adopted on 16 September, 1987, the Protocol is, to date, one of the rare treaties to achieve universal ratification.
The Montreal Protocol phases down the consumption and production of the different ODS in a step-wise manner, with different timetables for developed and developing countries (referred to as “Article 5 countries”).
Under this treaty, all parties have specific responsibilities related to the phase out of the different groups of ODS, control of ODS trade, annual reporting of data, national licensing systems to control ODS imports and exports, and other matters.
Developing and developed countries have equal but differentiated responsibilities, but most importantly, both groups of countries have binding, time-targeted, and measurable commitments.
The Meeting of the Parties is the governance body for the treaty, with technical support provided by an Open-ended Working Group, both of which meet on an annual basis.
The Parties are assisted by the Ozone Secretariat, which is based at UN Environment Programme headquarters in Nairobi, Kenya.
Kigali Amendment:
In 2016, parties to the Montreal Protocol adopted the Kigali Amendment to phase down production and consumption of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) worldwide.
HFCs are widely used alternatives to ODS, such as hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) and chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), which are already controlled under the Protocol.
HFCs are powerful greenhouse gases, and global implementation of the Kigali Amendment is expected to avoid up to half a degree Celsius of temperature rise by 2100.
It will phase down HFC consumption and production based on the carbon dioxide equivalent (CO2e) by 80-85 percent by 2045.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://research.noaa.gov/2024/06/13/a-class-of-ozone-depleting-chemicals-is-declining-thanks-to-the-montreal-protocol
Pantanal Wetland, recently seen in the news, is located in which one of the following regions?
South America
Explanation :
Fires in Brazil’s Pantanal wetlands have surged nearly tenfold so far this year to the highest levels since 2020.
About Pantanal Wetland:
It is the world’s largest tropical wetland.
Location:
It is located in the upper Paraguay River basin (South America), the Pantanal straddles Brazil’s border with Bolivia and Paraguay.
About 80 percent of the Pantanal is in Brazil.
It’s a 185,000-square-kilometer (71,000-square-mile) mosaic of grassland swamps fed by rivers, streams, and seasonal floods and dense, low-forested savanna.
It was developed in a structural basin formed as the Andes Mountains rose.
The climate is tropical, wet, and dry.
It is one of the most biologically rich environments on the planet, with more than 4,700 plant and animal species.
Fauna:
Noteworthy animals include the jaguar, giant otter, giant armadillo, marsh deer, pampas deer, and hyacinth macaw (the biggest parrot on the planet).
It has the largest concentration of crocodiles in the world, with approximately 10 million caimans.
In 2000, the United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) declared a small portion of the Pantanal a World Heritage Site.
Around 95% of the Pantanal is under private ownership, the majority of which is used for cattle grazing.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/videos/eye-on-india/videos/fire-ravages-worlds-largest-tropical-wetland-in-brazil-residents-call-pantanal-wetland-an-inferno-12746111.html
Consider the following statements regarding SDG 7: Energy Progress Report 2024:
- It is an annual report produced by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).
- The 2024 report confirms that the number of people without access to electricity increased for the first time in over a decade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
SDG 7: Energy Progress Report 2024, released recently, finds that the world remains off course to achieve Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 7 for energy by 2030.
About SDG 7: Energy Progress Report 2024:
Since its inception in 2018, it has become the global reference for information on progress toward the achievement of Sustainable Development Goal 7 (SDG 7) of the UN 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.
The aim of SDG 7 is to “ensure access to affordable, reliable, sustainable, and modern energy for all.”
The report is produced annually by the five custodian agencies responsible for tracking progress toward the goal.
The custodian agencies are the International Energy Agency (IEA), the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), the United Nations Statistics Division (UNSD), the World Bank, and the World Health Organization (WHO).
This report summarizes global progress on energy access, energy efficiency, renewable energy, clean cooking, and international cooperation to advance SDG 7.
Highlights of 2024 Report:
The latest report confirms that the number of people without access to electricity increased for the first time in over a decade, as population grew—mostly in Sub-Saharan Africa—at a higher rate than that of new electricity connections, leaving 685 million people without electricity in 2022, 10 million more than in 2021.
The world remains off track to achieve universal access to clean cooking by 2030. 2.1 billion people still live without access to clean cooking fuels and technologies, largely in Sub-Saharan Africa and Asia.
Renewable electricity consumption grew more than 6% year-on-year in 2021, bringing the share of renewables in global electricity consumption to 28.2%.
Installed renewable energy-generating capacity per capita reached a new record in 2022 at 424 watts per capita globally.
However, considerable disparities exist. Developed countries (at 1,073 watts per capita) have 3.7 times more capacity installed than developing countries (at 293 watts per capita).
It warns that current efforts are not enough to achieve SDG 7 on time.
Between 2010 and 2021, India, along with China and Indonesia, achieved significant advancements in modern renewable energy use.
Between 2010 and 2021, India recorded one of the highest increases in the use of modern renewable energy, with the share of renewables in total final energy consumption (TFEC) rising by nearly 7 percentage points.
India’s transition to renewable energy has been bolstered by substantial international financial support.
In 2022, the country received a notable USD 627 million for 47 renewable energy projects, many of which were valued at less than USD 1 million.
A significant portion of this funding came from Germany and the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD).
India’s role in renewable energy extends to the transportation sector, where it, alongside the United States, Brazil, Europe, and China, accounts for 85 percent of renewable energy use.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.worldbank.org/en/news/press-release/2024/06/11/progress-on-basic-energy-access-reverses-for-first-time-in-a-decade
“Exercise Red Flag 2024”, recently seen in the news, is hosted by:
U.S. Air Force
Explanation :
An Indian Air Force (IAF) contingent participated in the Exercise Red Flag 2024 conducted at Eielson Air Force Base, Alaska of the United States Air Force, from 04 Jun to 14 Jun 24.
About:
This was the second edition of Ex Red Flag 2024, which is an advanced aerial combat training exercise, held four times in a year by the US Air Force.
Participation of the Indian Air Force along with Republic of Singapore Air Force (RSAF), Royal Air Force (RAF) of the United Kingdom, Royal Netherlands Air Force (RNLAF), German Luftwaffe, and the US Air Force (USAF).
Red Flag is an air combat exercise featuring realistic combat scenarios. Forces are divided into Red Force (simulating Air Defence, primarily with USAF Aggressor Squadron’s F-16 and F-15 aircraft) and Blue Force (simulating Offensive Composite elements).
This year marked the debut of the Indian Air Force’s Rafale aircraft in the exercise, operating alongside RSAF and USAF F-16s, F-15s, and A-10s.
The missions included Beyond Visual Range combat exercises in Large Force Engagements, focusing on Offensive Counter Air and Air Defence roles.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: iaf contingent completes successful participation in exercise red flag 2024
With reference to the Matsyayaan 6000, consider the following statements:
- It is a three-person submersible that will be able to go 6,000 metres under the sea.
- It is being developed by Chennai’s National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India set to be the 6th country to have its own Deep Sea Mission; 1st Stage of harbor trail (40-50m) deep of deep sea mission planned by September 2024; The Mission has the potential to contribute greatly to the overall growth of Indian economy.
About:
The Matsya 6000 is a three-person submersible that will be able to go 6,000 metres under the sea. The vessel is being developed by Chennai’s National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT).
Structure: Made of 80mm-thick titanium alloy, it will be able to withstand a pressure 600 times greater than that at sea level. The Matsya 6000 will be able to operate from 12 to 16 hours straight and will have an oxygen supply of 96 hours.
National Institute of Ocean Technology:
It was established in November 1993 as an autonomous society under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
Objectives: To develop reliable indigenous technologies to solve the various engineering problems associated with harvesting of non-living and living resources in the Indian Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), which is about two-thirds of the land area of India.
Deep Sea Mission:
The Deep Ocean Mission (DOM) is an ambitious Indian initiative to explore and harness the depths of the ocean.
It is a five-year mission, approved by the Union Cabinet in 2021, with a budget of nearly ₹4,077 crore.
The mission aims to develop technologies for deep-sea mining, manned submersibles, and underwater robotics, as well as for ocean climate change advisory services, deep-ocean survey and exploration.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: “India set to be the 6th country to have its own Deep Sea Mission” says Dr. Jitendra Singh
“Joint Communique on a Peace Framework”, recently seen in the news in the context of which one of the following countries?
Ukraine and Russia
Explanation :
Only proposals acceptable to both Russia and Ukraine can lead to peace, said India as New Delhi decided to disassociate itself from the final document issued on June 16 at the conclusion of a Peace Summit in Switzerland.
About:
The ongoing war in Ukraine, initiated by the Russian Federation, continues to cause significant human suffering and global crises.
A high-level summit was held in Switzerland on 15-16 June 2024 to discuss pathways to a comprehensive, just, and lasting peace for Ukraine.
Attendees reaffirmed their commitment to international law and the United Nations Charter, referencing resolutions A/RES/ES-11/1 and A/RES/ES-11/6 from the UN General Assembly.
Key points of Communique:
Nuclear safety: Ensuring the safe operation of Ukraine’s nuclear power plants, including Zaporizhzhia, under Ukraine’s sovereign control and in line with IAEA principles. Any threat or use of nuclear weapons in the conflict is unacceptable.
Global food security: Emphasizing the importance of uninterrupted food production and supply, safe navigation, and access to sea ports.
Attacks on merchant ships and port infrastructure are unacceptable, and Ukrainian agricultural products should be freely provided to other countries.
Humanitarian issues: Calling for the release of all prisoners of war through complete exchange and the return of all unlawfully displaced Ukrainian children and civilians.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: India refuses to endorse Ukraine meet statement - The Hindu
With reference to the electromagnets, consider the following statements:
- They are the devices that produce a magnetic field when an electric current flows through a coil of wire.
- They can be turned on and off by controlling the electric current.
- They are widely used in MRI machines and magnetic separation equipment.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Invented in 1824 by the William Sturgeon, electromagnets are a fixture of modern life, appearing in loudspeakers, motors, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) machines, maglev trains, and particle accelerators.
About:
Electromagnets are devices that produce a magnetic field when an electric current flows through a coil of wire.
The magnetic field is concentrated in the hole of the coil. The strength of the magnetic field can be controlled by adjusting the electric current. When the current is turned off, the magnetic field disappears.
Construction and Materials: Electromagnets typically consist of a coil of wire wrapped around a magnetic core made of ferromagnetic materials like iron. The magnetic core enhances the strength of the magnetic field by aligning the magnetic domains within the core.
Properties and Advantages:
Electromagnets can be turned on and off by controlling the electric current.
They are more powerful than permanent magnets because the magnetic field can be amplified by the magnetic core.
Electromagnets are widely used in various devices such as motors, generators, MRI machines, and magnetic separation equipment.
Applications:
Electromagnets are used in various industries for tasks like lifting and moving heavy metal objects, sorting materials, and generating motion.
They are also used in medical settings for imaging and in consumer devices like electric doorbells and card readers.
Disadvantages:
Electromagnets require a continuous supply of electric power to maintain their magnetic field.
They are less efficient than permanent magnets in terms of energy usage.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: What is an electromagnet? - The Hindu
Consider the following:
- Dengue
- Chikungunya
- Zika
- Malaria
How many of the above diseases are transmitted by Aedes albopictus mosquito?
Only three
Explanation :
Warmer conditions are helping the Aedes albopictus mosquito, which transmits dengue, chikungunya and Zika viruses thrive, said the EU health agency.
About:
Climate change is expected to significantly impact the spread of dengue in Europe.
Rising temperatures and increased rainfall create more favorable conditions for the spread of the disease, particularly in areas where the Aedes albopictus mosquito is present.
In southern Europe, particularly in Spain, Italy, and France, the risk of dengue is expected to increase due to the presence of Aedes albopictus and the rising temperatures and humidity.
However, in some countries like Spain and Portugal, the expected rise in summer droughts may decrease habitat suitability for Aedes albopictus.
Aedes albopictus mosquito
The Aedes albopictus mosquito, commonly known as the Asian tiger mosquito, is a highly invasive species known for its distinctive black and white striped appearance.
Disease Vector: This mosquito is a known vector for several diseases, including: Dengue fever, Chikungunya, Zika virus and yellow fever.
Controlling the spread of Aedes albopictus involves eliminating standing water where they breed, using insect repellents, and implementing community-wide mosquito control programs.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/dengue-europe-local-mosquitos-9396083/
With reference to Supernova, consider the following statements:
- It is the cataclysmic explosion of a massive star.
- Supernovas can briefly outshine entire galaxies and radiate more energy than our sun will in its entire lifetime.
- Supernovas are the primary source of heavy elements in the universe.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Using the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST), astronomers recently discovered a new supernova, designated SN 2023adsy, the most distant Type Ia supernova so far detected.
About Supernova:
A supernova is the name given to the cataclysmic explosion of a massive star.
Supernovas are the largest explosions that take place in space.
A star can go supernova in one of two ways:
Type I supernova: A star accumulates matter from a nearby neighbour until a runaway nuclear reaction ignites. They’re typically called Type Ia supernovas.
Type II supernova: A star runs out of nuclear fuel and collapses under its own gravity.
Supernovas can briefly outshine entire galaxies and radiate more energy than our sun will in its entire lifetime.
They’re also the primary source of heavy elements in the universe.
On average, a supernova will occur once every 50 years in a galaxy the size of the Milky Way.
The oldest recorded supernova is RCW 86, which Chinese astronomers spotted in A.D. 185.
After a supernova, a few different things can happen.
Sometimes the exploded star will partially collapse into a black hole or a neutron star, and the rest of the mass will get converted into energy or will be blown away by the force of the explosion.
This blown-away material is sometimes called a “supernova remnant,” which is a type of nebula.
Sometimes, if the exploded star is very massive, during the supernova, a long gamma-ray burst can also happen.
Some of the shed material will get spun up around the resultant black hole or a neutron star and then get sent out through a jet at speeds close to the speed of light.
Because the material is moving so fast, it can emit photons at very high gamma-ray energies—this is the gamma-ray burst.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-06-ia-supernova.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Dead Zone:
- It refers to low-oxygen areas in the world’s lakes and oceans.
- Deep waters are less likely to develop a dead zone than shallow waters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) is forecasting an above-average summer “dead zone” in the Gulf of Mexico covering approximately 5,827 square miles.
About Dead Zone:
The term “dead zone” or “hypoxia” refers to low-oxygen areas in the world’s lakes and oceans.
Because most organisms need oxygen to live, few organisms can survive in hypoxic conditions. That is why these areas are called dead zones.
Hypoxic zones can occur naturally, but human activities can also lead to the creation of new dead zones or the enhancement of existing ones.
How are Dead Zones formed?
A dead zone occurs as a result of eutrophication, which happens when a body of water is inundated with too many nutrients, such as phosphorus and nitrogen.
At normal levels, an organism called cyanobacteria – or blue-green algae – feeds on these nutrients.
With too many nutrients, it can cause an overgrowth of algae in a short period of time, also called algae blooms.
Dead zones form when the algae die, sink to the bottom, and are decomposed by bacteria—a process that strips dissolved oxygen from the surrounding water.
Dense algal blooms also block sunlight, which prevents underwater grasses from growing. In turn, the animals that depend on these grasses for food and shelter suffer, as well.
Human activities mainly cause these excess nutrients to be washed into the ocean, which is why dead zones are often located near inhabited coastlines.
Once a dead zone forms, other factors can influence its size and duration.
For example, wind can mix oxygen from the surface into deeper water and help break up dead zones.
Hot temperatures can make dead zones worse by warming a layer of surface water that locks colder, denser water below where oxygen from the surface can’t mix in.
Heavy rainfall increases the amount of pollution washed into waterways.
Shallow waters are less likely to stratify than deep waters, and so are less likely to develop hypoxic conditions. This is because shallow waters tend to be well-mixed by winds and tides.
Additionally, waters that are shallow and clear enough to allow light to reach the bottom can support primary producers such as phytoplankton, algae and seagrasses that release oxygen during photosynthesis.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.noaa.gov/news-release/noaa-forecasts-above-average-summer-dead-zone-in-gulf-of-mexico
The principle of res judicata prevents which one of the following?
Filing a subsequent lawsuit on the same matter after judgment in a previous case
Explanation :
While ruling in favor of the Delhi government and its entities in a batch of land acquisition cases, the Supreme Court recently observed that the principle of res judicata may not strictly apply in situations where public interest is at stake.
About Principle of Res Judicata:
The concept of res judicata has evolved from the English Common Law System.
Res judicata literally means ‘the thing has been judged”. It is also known as claim preclusion.
The principle of res judicata applies when a litigant attempts to file a subsequent lawsuit on the same matter after having received a judgment in a previous case involving the same parties.
It is a judicial concept, which means that the issue before the court has already been decided by another court, between the same parties, and the courts do not allow a petition to be filed in the same court or in another court.
Therefore, the court will dismiss the case before it as being useless.
Res Judicata as a concept is applicable both in Civil as well as Criminal legal system.
Purpose:
To prevent injustice to the parties of a case supposedly finished.
To avoid unnecessary waste of resources and time of the judicial system.
Res judicata under Indian law has been embodied under Section 11 of the CPC (Code of Civil Procedure), 1908. It illustrates that if a matter is finally decided by a competent court, then the parties involved in the matter are not permitted to reopen it in subsequent litigation.
Some of the conditions for the application of Res Judicata include the same parties, the same title as the former suit, issue in the matter is same in former and subsequent suits, the suit is decided by a competent court, and a final decision is provided.
The Supreme Court in Employee Welfare Association v. Union of India ruled that the “principle of Res Judicata is not a technical rule, it is a rule of public policy”. So, Res Judicata is an acknowledged principle of law and is essential for delivering fair justice.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/supreme-court-delhi-govt-land-acquisition-res-judicata-not-strictly-applicable-public-interest-at-stake-260344
With reference to Hindu Kush Himalaya (HKH), consider the following statements:
- Its highest peak, Tirich Mir, is located in India.
- It contains the largest volume of ice and snow outside of the Arctic and Antarctica.
- The inner valleys of the Hindu Kush see little rain and have desert vegetation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A recent report by the International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD) analysed data on snow persistence from 2003 to 2024 and found it to be significantly lower than normal in the Hindu Kush Himalaya (HKH) this year.
About Hindu Kush Himalaya (HKH):
The HKH region stretches 3,500 kilometres and spans eight countries: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar, Nepal and Pakistan.
The range has numerous high snow-capped peaks, with the highest point being Tirich Mir or Terichmir at 7,708 meters (25,289 ft) in Chitral, Pakistan.
It is considered the Third Pole (after the North and South Poles) and has significant implications for climate.
It contains the largest volume of ice and snow outside of the Arctic and Antarctica.
The HKH region is the source of ten large Asian river systems: the Amu Darya, Indus, Ganges, Brahmaputra, Irrawaddy, Salween, Mekong, Yangtse, Yellow River, and Tarim.
The basins of these rivers provide water to 1.9 billion people, a fourth of the world’s population.
HKH may be divided into three main sections: the eastern Hindu Kush, the central Hindu Kush, and the western Hindu Kush, also known as the Bābā Mountains.
The inner valleys of the Hindu Kush see little rain and have desert vegetation.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-change/hindu-kush-himalaya-indus-ganga-other-river-basins-face-significantly-lower-than-normal-snow-persistence-says-icimod-96719
Consider the following statements regarding the National Institute of Indian Medical Heritage (NIIMH):
- It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
- It provides resource materials for historians, scientists, and other workers who are interested in studying and documenting the historical aspects of systems of Medicine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The World Health Organization (WHO) has designated the National Institute of Indian Medical Heritage as WHO-Collaborating Centre (CC) for “Fundamental and Literary Research in Traditional Medicine”.
About National Institute of Indian Medical Heritage (NIIMH):
The NIIMH, formerly known as the National Center of Indian Medical Heritage (NCIMH), provides resource materials for historians, scientists and other workers who are interested in studying and documenting the historical aspects of Ayurveda, Yoga & Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, Homoeopathy, and Sowa Rigpa (AYUSH), along with Modern Medicine.
It came into existence as the Upgraded Department of History of Medicine from 26-09-1956 under the Govt. of Andhra Pradesh and was handed over to Govt. of India on 14-02-1969 due to its national and international importance.
The institute is functioning under the administrative control of the Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS), Ministry of AYUSH, Government of India.
This Institute, which is only of its kind in South East / Asia is located in Dilsuknagar, Hyderabad.
Mandate:
Literary Research and Documentation
Revival and retrieval of texts from Ancient manuscripts and rare books
Search and Collection of information, descriptive notes, editing and publication of rare medical manuscripts/books on AYUSH.
Documentation
Ayurveda Encyclopedia
Museum on History of Medicine
Referral library on AYUSH Systems of Medicine and modern medicine.
AYUSH Research Portal
CCRAS-Research Management Information System
National AYUSH Morbidity and Standardized Terminoligies Electronic - Portal.
Development of W.H.O International Terminologies of Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani.
Development of SNOMED CT National Extension for Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani.
It has global access owing to its enormous collection of research materials on History of Medicine.
The institute has a Medico-Historical Library, Museum and Documentation section.
The Institute’s library is unique with collection of more than 10,000 books, which include very rare publications date back to 15th century on History of Medicine & allied subjects in various languages and serving to medical fraternity as research referral centre.
It has complete collection of standard National & International Journal on History of Medicine since its inception.
The institute also publishes the Journal of Indian Medical Heritage.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.ptinews.com/story/national/who-collaborates-with-hyderabad-based-niimh-for-traditional-medicine-research/1583402
Consider the following statements with reference to the GREAT Scheme:
- It supports individual entrepreneurs for functional prototypes of their technologies for Technical Textile.
- Under this initiative grant-in-aid will be provided to young innovators.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Empowered Programme Committee (EPC) of National Technical Textiles Mission (NTTM) has approved 7 startup proposals under the GREAT scheme.
Grant for Research and Entrepreneurship across Aspiring Innovators in Technical Textiles (GREAT) encourages young innovators, scientists/technologists, and startup ventures in the field of Technical Textiles to translate their ideas into commercial technologies/products and make India self-reliant.
It supports individual entrepreneurs or start-ups for functional prototypes or commercialization of their technologies for Technical Textile
Funding:
A grant-in-aid of up to Rs 50 lakh for up to a period of 18 months will be provided.
Key facts about National Technical Textiles Mission
It was launched to increase the penetration level of technical textiles in India while leveraging the extraordinary growth rate of the sector.
The mission aims to position India as a global leader in Technical Textiles.
Components:
Research, Innovation and Development
Promotion and Market Development
Export Promotion
Education, Training, Skill Development
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Textiles
Time period: It has been approved with an implementation period of four years, starting from FY 2020-21 till FY 2023-24.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2025052
“Filoboletus manipularis”, recently seen in news, is a:
Mushroom
Explanation :
Recently, researchers have discovered a rare species of bioluminescent mushrooms in the forests of Kasaragod which are scientifically known as Filoboletus manipularis.
It is a fascinating species of bioluminescent mushroom.
These mushrooms glow a bright green at night due to a chemical reaction in their cells.
Habitat: They thrive in tropical, humid environments, typically found in dense forests where there’s plenty of decaying organic matter, like fallen trees and leaves.
This rich, moist environment provides the nutrients and conditions necessary for their growth and their unique glowing property.
Biochemical process: The chemical reaction involving luciferin (a pigment) and luciferase (an enzyme) with oxygen plays a critical role in these mushrooms. This reaction produces light, a trait shared with other bioluminescent organisms like fireflies and certain marine creatures.
Advantage: In fungi, this glowing mechanism is thought to attract insects, “which help disperse the mushroom’s spores”.
What are mushrooms?
Mushrooms constitute secondary saprophytic fungi of the forest ecosystem.
Secondary saprophytic fungi play a very important role in the decomposition of plant litter.
The Western Ghats region in Kerala is rich in fungi, many of which could also be described as endemic to the region.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/lifestyle/life-style/bioluminescent-mushrooms-kasaragod-kerala-india-toxic-forest-fungi-9396984/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Exercise Tarang Shakti:
- It is a multinational military exercise to be hosted by India.
- It aims to foster professional interactions and enrich the employment philosophy of the participating forces.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Indian Air Force will host air exercise, Tarang Shakti-2024 in August.
It is a first multinational air exercise to be hosted by the Indian Air force.
Objective: The plan is to invite friendly foreign countries with whom the IAF interacts regularly and has a certain degree of interoperability.
The exercise is now scheduled to be held in two phases.
The first will be held in southern India in the first two weeks of August and the second will be in the western sector from the end of August to mid-September.
Participating countries: Australia, France, Germany, Japan, Spain, the United Arab Emirates, the United Kingdom, and the United States. Germany will deploy fighter jets and also an A-400M transport aircraft.
The exercise aims to foster professional interactions and enrich the employment philosophy of the participating forces and facilitate the exchange of valuable insights.
It represents a unique opportunity for these nations to collaborate and enhance their tactical and operational capabilities.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-to-host-its-first-multinational-air-exercise-tarang-shakti-in-august/article68296702.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the eMigrate Portal:
- It was launched in 2014 to make the emigration process online and transparent.
- It has a feature of voluntary registration of emigrants holding ECNR (Emigration Check Not Required) category passports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Ministry of External Affairs and the SBI have signed an MoU to provide an additional digital payment service of the bank through its payment gateway SBIePay to users of the eMigrate portal.
It was launched in 2014 and it has been instrumental in making the emigration process online and transparent for Indian workers heading to countries where emigration checks are required.
The portal connects foreign employers, registered recruiting agents, and insurance companies issuing the Pravasi Bhartiya Bima Yojna, facilitating seamless, safe, and legal migration.
The portal also has a mechanism for voluntary registration of emigrants holding ECNR (Emigration Check Not Required) category passports proceeding for overseas employment.
It is integrated with the external affairs ministry’s Passport Seva Project to validate the passport details of ECR category workers. This integration helps detect fake passport cases and check for data entry errors at the registration stage.
The Overseas Employment (OE) and Protector General of Emigrants (PGE) division of the external affairs ministry is responsible for overseeing the emigration of Indian workers having Emigration Clearance Required (ECR) category passports.
These are semi-skilled and unskilled workers who are considered most vulnerable to exploitation by unscrupulous recruitment agents or foreign employers.
ECR passport holders require Emigration Clearance (EC) when taking up jobs in the 18 designated ECR countries – Afghanistan, Bahrain, Indonesia, Iraq, Jordan, Kuwait, Lebanon, Libya, Malaysia, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, South Sudan, Sudan, Syria, Thailand, United Arab Emirates and Yemen.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/mou-signed-for-digital-payment-aggregation-services-by-integration-of-sbiepay-emigrate-mea/article68292676.ece
Consider the following:
- Minamata Convention
- Stockholm Convention
- Geneva convention
How many of the above are financed under the Global Environment Facility?
Two only
Explanation :
An amount of $736.4 million will be allocated towards environment protection at the Global Environment Facility (GEF) council meeting being convened in Washington, DC, starting June 17, 2024.
It was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit of UNFCC to help tackle our planet’s most pressing environmental problems.
It is a family of funds dedicated to confronting biodiversity loss, climate change, pollution, and strains on land and ocean health.
It provides financial assistance for five major international environmental conventions:
Minamata Convention on Mercury.
Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs).
United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD)
United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD).
United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
It has 184 member countries, including India.
The governing council is the main governing body of GEF which comprises 32 members appointed by constituencies of GEF member countries (14 from developed countries, 16 from developing countries, and two from economies in transition).
Secretariat: Its secretariat is based in Washington, D.C.
The GEF Trust Fund was established to help tackle our planet’s most pressing environmental problems.
Funds are available to developing countries and countries with economies in transition to meet the objectives of the international environmental conventions and agreements.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/amount-of-736-4-million-to-be-disbursed-at-67th-council-meet-of-global-environment-facility-at-washington-96720
With reference to Lok Adalat, consider the following statements:
- It has been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
- It can make awards/decisions which are deemed to be a decree of a civil court and are final and binding on all the parties concerned.
- It possesses jurisdiction over a diverse array of cases, including civil disputes, criminal cases (compoundable offences) and family matters.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court has decided to organise a special Lok Adalat to facilitate amicable settlements of suitable pending cases, commemorating the 75th year of its establishment.
About Lok Adalat:
It is one of the alternative dispute redressal mechanisms in India.
It is a forum where disputes/cases pending in the court of law or at the pre-litigation stage are settled/compromised amicably.
The Lok Adalat has been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
Lok Adalats can be organized at the district, state, and national levels.
The State/District Legal Services Authority or the Supreme Court/High Court/Taluk Legal Services Committee may organise Lok Adalat at such intervals and places and for exercising such jurisdiction and in such areas as it thinks fit.
Every Lok Adalat organised for an area shall consist of such number of serving or retired judicial officers and other persons of the area as may be specified by the agency organizing.
Generally, a Lok Adalat consists of a judicial officer as the chairman and a lawyer (advocate) and a social worker as members.
Under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, Lok Adalat can make awards/decisions, which are deemed to be a decree of a civil court and are final and binding on all the parties concerned.
If the parties are not satisfied with the award of the Lok Adalat, there is no provision for an appeal against such an award, however, the parties concerned can initiate litigation by approaching the court of the appropriate jurisdiction by filing a case.
There is no court fee payable when a matter is filed in a Lok Adalat.
If a matter pending in the court of law is referred to the Lok Adalat and is settled subsequently, the court fee originally paid in the court on the complaints/petition is also refunded back to the parties.
Dispute resolution in the Lok Adalat courts takes place by direct interaction of the Adalat members with the parties concerned.
Lok Adalats possess jurisdiction over a diverse array of cases, including civil disputes, criminal cases (compoundable offences) and family matters.
Nature of cases to be referred to Lok Adalat
Any case pending before any court
Any dispute which has not been brought before any court and is likely to be filed before the court
Provided that any matter relating to an offence not compoundable under the law shall not be settled in Lok Adalat.
Permanent Lok Adalat:
The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, was amended in 2002 to provide for the establishment of the Permanent Lok Adalats to deal with cases pertaining to public utility services like transport, postal, telegraph, etc.
These have been set up as permanent bodies and consists of a Chairman and two members
It shall not have jurisdiction in respect of any matter relating to an offence not compoundable under any law.
The jurisdiction of the Permanent Lok Adalats is upto Rs. 1 Crore.
Before the dispute is brought before any court, any party to the dispute may make an application to the Permanent Lok Adalat for settlement of the dispute.
After an application is made to the Permanent Lok Adalat, no party to that application shall invoke the jurisdiction of any court in the same dispute.
Every award made by the Permanent Lok Adalat shall be final and binding on all the parties thereto and shall be made by a majority of the persons constituting the Permanent Lok Adalat.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.telegraphindia.com/india/supreme-court-to-organise-special-lok-adalat-for-amicable-settlements-of-pending-cases/cid/2028095
Ghodbunder Fort, recently seen in the news, lies in which one of the following states?
Maharashtra
Explanation :
A hidden chamber-like structure located beneath the inner ground layers was recently discovered during the ongoing conservation and restoration work at the historic Ghodbunder Fort.
About Ghodbunder Fort:
It is a hill fort located in Ghodbunder Village, Thane, Maharashtra.
It is situated on the banks of the Ulhas River.
History:
It was originally built by the Portuguese and completed in 1730.
The place derives its name from two words: Ghod, meaning horses, and bunder, meaning Fort.
The fort derived this name because it was initially used by the Portuguese to trade their horses with the Arabs.
Later, the fort was conquered and occupied by the Marathas.
In 1818, the British took over this fort, and the British East India Company started using it as its district headquarters.
The fort was constructed from stones carved out of the very mountains and joined with the help of lime, rubble, gravel, stones, molten metal, and sand.
The fort consists of a Portuguese church built in the early 16th century AD.
There are also several mansions and rooms which throw light on the Maratha rule.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.freepressjournal.in/mumbai/fpj-special-hidden-chamber-discovered-at-entrance-of-historic-ghodbunder-fort
Consider the following statements with reference to the Ghaggar River:
- It is a seasonal river that flows only during the monsoon season.
- It rises from the Aravalli Ranges in Haryana.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Punjab Chief Minister recently visited flood-prone areas along the Ghaggar River to take stock of the preparations for dealing with floods at the ground level ahead of the monsoon.
About Ghaggar River:
It is a seasonal river that flows only during the monsoon season.
Course:
It rises from the Shivalik Range in northwestern Himachal Pradesh.
The river then flows about 200 miles (320 km) southwest through Haryana state to meet the River Saraswati.
It eventually dries up in the Thar Desert in Rajasthan.
This seasonal river feeds two irrigation canals that extend into Rajasthan.
The Hakra, which flows in Pakistan, is the continuation of the Ghaggar River in India, and they are together called the Ghaggar - Hakra River.
Historical Significance:
Several historians identify Ghaggar with the Vedic Saraswati River.
Along the banks of the Ghaggar River, many settlements of the Indus Valley Civilization have been excavated.
Hence, it is believed that the ancient settlements on its banks were the creation of ingenious Vedic Aryans.
It is believed that the rivers Sutlej and Yamuna once flowed into the Ghaggar-Hakra river bed.
Tributaries: The main tributaries of the Ghaggar are the Kaushalya River, Markanda, Sarsuti, Tangri, and Chautang.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/punjab-cm-mann-reviews-flood-protection-work-along-ghaggar-river-in-sangrur-124061801298_1.html
Which among the following best describes “Ophichthus Suryai”, recently seen in the news?
A newly discovered species of snake eel
Explanation :
Scientists from the Zoological Survey of India’s Gopalpur regional centre recently discovered a new species of snake eel named ‘Ophichthus Suryai’ in Odisha.
About Ophichthus Suryai:
It is a new species of snake eel discovered from Odisha.
The new species can be distinguished from its closely allied congeners Ophichthus alleni, Ophichthus zophistius, and Ophichthus altipennis, and other members in this genus by
having the dorsal fin origin (DFO) just above or slightly anterior to the gill opening
its unique vertebral count and teeth patterns consisting of multiple rows on both maxilla and mandible
What is a Snake eel?
A snake eel is any of numerous marine fishes in the family Ophichthidae (order Anguilliformes).
The eels are often mistaken for sea snakes by humans.
Usually, the eels are found in warm, tropical waters.
Most species live and hide in material at the bottom of rivers or the sea.
A snake eel can survive at depths of more than 2,000 feet (around 600 meters), but often live in water much shallower than this.
The size of a snake eels varies greatly, depending on the species, with some growing as long as 10 feet (about 3 meters).
If the cross section of a snake eel were examined, it would be almost circular.
Other features include a scaleless body, small eyes, and a pointed snout.
A snake eel’s diet consists mainly of small fish. They are also known to feed off crustaceans.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/science/od-snake-eel-3068688
Consider the following statements with reference to the Nalanda University:
- It was founded by King Harshavardhan in the early 5th century AD.
- It was a monastic establishment and used to teach all the major philosophies of Buddhism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Prime Minister Narendra Modi will inaugurate the new Nalanda University campus near Rajgir’s ancient university ruins.
About Nalanda University:
Nalanda stands out as the most ancient university on the Indian Subcontinent.
It was founded by Kumargupta of the Gupta dynasty in Bihar in the early 5th century, and it flourished for 600 years until the 12th century.
During the era of Harshavardhan and the Pala monarchs, it rose to popularity.
It was a center of learning, culture, and intellectual exchange that had a profound impact on the development of Indian civilization and beyond.
Nalanda was a monastic establishment in the sense that it was primarily a place where monks and nuns lived and studied. It used to teach all the major philosophies of Buddhism.
It had students from far-flung regions such as China, Korea, Japan, Tibet, Mongolia, Sri Lanka, and Southeast Asia.
The students at Nalanda were expected to follow a strict code of conduct and were required to participate in daily meditation and study sessions.
Subjects such as medicine, the ancient Indian medical system Ayurveda, religion, Buddhism, mathematics, grammar, astronomy, and Indian philosophy were taught there.
It continued to be a centre of intellectual activity up until it was destroyed in the 12th century AD, in 1193, by Turkish ruler Qutbuddin Aibak’s general Bakhtiyar Khilji.
After six centuries, the university was rediscovered in 1812 by Scottish surveyor Francis Buchanan-Hamilton and later identified as the ancient university by Sir Alexander Cunningham in 1861.
The Chinese monk Xuan Zang has offered invaluable insights into the academic and architectural grandeur of ancient Nalanda.
It is also a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/pm-narendra-modi-to-inaugurate-nalanda-university-in-bihar-today-june-19-2024-things-to-know-about-the-campus-101718757389007.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Double Sun halo:
- It is an optical phenomenon where two concentric rings appear around the sun.
- It occurs when sunlight is refracted through ice crystals suspended in cumulonimbus clouds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, a rare celestial phenomenon known as a “double sun halo” was witnessed in the skies over Ladakh.
It is a rare optical phenomenon where two concentric rings appear around the sun.
This occurs when sunlight is refracted through ice crystals suspended in cirrus clouds, creating this dazzling visual effect.
It is a variation of the more common 22-degree halo, where a bright ring encircles the sun.
In this case, two halos are visible - an inner halo with a radius of approximately 22 degrees and an outer halo with a radius of around 46 degrees from the sun’s center.
Formation:
The formation of a double sun halo is a result of the unique shape and orientation of the ice crystals in the cirrus clouds. These crystals, typically hexagonal in shape, act as natural prisms, refracting and reflecting the sunlight in specific angles.
When the ice crystals are randomly oriented, the refracted sunlight creates the inner 22-degree halo. However, if the crystals are aligned horizontally, with their flat faces parallel to the ground, an additional refraction occurs, resulting in the outer 46-degree halo.
This precise alignment of the ice crystals is rare, making the double sun halo a relatively uncommon sight, especially in regions like Ladakh, where the atmospheric conditions are ideal for such phenomena.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/rare-double-sun-halo-seen-in-leh-what-is-this-rare-phenomenon-2554602-2024-06-18
Consider the following statements with reference to the Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar:
- It is presented annually to best literary creations by the young writers of age 35 or below.
- It is the only Akademi award open for nominations by publishers and self-nominations by writers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A 26-year-old writer from the tribal thanda of Vivek Nagar in Jakranpally mandal of Nizamabad district, Ramesh Karthik Naik, was awarded the Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar for Telugu.
It was first instituted in 2011.
It is presented annually to best literary creations by the young writers of age 35 or below in all the 24 recognized languages.
The Yuva Puraskar is conferred on eligible young writers for creative original works.
It is the only Akademi award open for nominations by publishers and self-nominations by writers.
The Yuva Puraskar comprises a plaque, shawl, citation and a cheque for Rupees Fifty Thousand (₹ 50,000).
A posthumous publication is not eligible for Award.
Key points about the Sahitya Akademi
It was formally inaugurated by the Government of India on 12 March 1954.
Sahitya Akademi, India’s National Academy of Letters, is the central institution for literary dialogue, publication and promotion in the country and the only institution that undertakes literary activities in 24 Indian languages, including English.
Though set up by the Government, the Akademi functions as an autonomous organisation.
It was registered as a society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/young-tribal-writer-from-nizamabad-chosen-for-sahitya-akademi-yuva-puraskar-for-telugu/article68296727.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Krishi Sakhi Convergence Programme:
- It aims to transform rural India through the empowerment of rural women as Krishi Sakhi.
- It is only being implemented in the North Eastern states of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India granted certificates to over 30,000 women from Self Help Groups (SHGs) as ‘Krishi Sakhis’ under the Krishi Sakhi Convergence Program (KSCP).
It aims to transform rural India through the empowerment of rural women as Krishi Sakhi, by imparting training and certification of Krishi Sakhis as Para-extension Workers.
This certification course also aligns with the objectives of the ‘Lakhpati Didi’ Program.
Krishi Sakhis have already been trained on various extension service
Agro-Ecological Practices: From land preparation to harvest.
Organizing Farmer Field Schools: Facilitating practical learning sessions for farmers.
Seed Banks: Establishment and management.
Soil Health and Conservation: Techniques for maintaining soil health and moisture.
Integrated Farming Systems: Combining various farming practices for sustainability.
Livestock Management: Basic management practices for livestock.
Bio Inputs: Preparation, use, and establishment of bio-input shops.
Communication Skills: Essential skills for effective communication with farmers.
Now these Krishi Sakhis are undergoing refresher training with a special focus on Natural Farming and Soil Health Card through DAY-NRLM agencies in coordination with MANAGE.
Krishi Sakhi Training Program has been rolled out in 12 states in Phase – 1: Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Odisha, Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh, and Meghalaya.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2026015
Consider the following statements with reference to the Bitumen:
- It is a dense, highly viscous and petroleum-based hydrocarbon.
- It is commonly used to waterproof boats and other marine vessels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India is looking to start large-scale production of bio-bitumen from biomass or agricultural waste, a move that would help reduce imports of the material used for asphalting of roads.
It is a dense, highly viscous, petroleum-based hydrocarbon.
It is found in deposits such as oil sands and pitch lakes (natural bitumen) or is obtained as a residue of the distillation of crude oil.
Composition
It owes its density and viscosity to its chemical composition—mainly large hydrocarbon molecules known as asphaltenes and resins, which are present in lighter oils but are highly concentrated in bitumen.
In addition, bitumen frequently has a high content of metals, such as nickel and vanadium, and nonmetallic inorganic elements, such as nitrogen, oxygen, and sulfur.
Applications:
It is known for its waterproofing and adhesive properties and is commonly used in the construction industry, notably for roads and highways.
It is commonly used to waterproof boats and other marine vessels.
It is also used by companies that create and manufacture roofing products.
It is used for sealing and insulating purposes in various building materials such as carpet tile backing and paint.
What is Bio-bitumen?
It is a petroleum-free alternative to bitumen, or asphalt.
It’s made using non-petroleum-based renewable resources and can be made from vegetable oils, synthetic polymers, or both, making it a more sustainable model long term.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/energy/oil-gas/on-the-way-production-of-bitumen-using-biomass/articleshow/111066709.cms?from=mdr
With reference to Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome, consider the following statements:
- It is a severe bacterial infection.
- It can be contagious and spread to others through respiratory droplets.
- It does not affect children as they are immune to such disease.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Two only
Explanation :
Recently, health officials in Japan are on high alert after close to 1,000 cases of a deadly infection were reported across the country. The disease is known as Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome (STSS).
It is a rare but severe bacterial infection caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria.
It occurs when these bacteria enter deep tissues and the bloodstream, releasing toxins that cause a rapid and dangerous response in the body.
Symptoms
It starts with initial symptoms like fever, chills, muscle aches, nausea and vomiting. Within 24 to 48 hours, it can lead to low blood pressure, organ failure, rapid heart rate and fast breathing.
Group A Streptococcus (GAS) usually causes strep throat in children, but in adults it can lead to serious symptoms like limb pain, swelling, fever and low blood pressure.
This can quickly worsen to tissue death, breathing problems, organ failure and sometimes death, especially in people over 50.
How does it spread?
It can be quite contagious and can be spread the bacteria to others through respiratory droplets or direct contact.
Group A strep bacteria can also spread through food, if it is not handled properly.
Prevention
Preventing STSS involves practising good hygiene, like washing hands regularly and covering your mouth while you cough and sneeze.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/health/story/flesh-eating-bacteria-infection-streptococcal-toxic-shock-syndrome-stss-japan-causes-symptoms-prevention-treatment-2554846-2024-06-18
The “Casimir Effect”, is related to which one of the following?
Quantum field theory
Explanation :
Scientists recently discovered how to control the Casimir Effect and supercharge tiny machines.
About Casimir Effect:
The Casimir effect is a physical phenomenon that occurs in quantum field theory where two uncharged conducting plates, positioned very closely, experience an attractive force known as the Casimir force.
This force arises from the quantum vacuum fluctuations of the electromagnetic field between the plates.
In quantum field theory, the vacuum is not truly empty but rather filled with fleeting virtual particles and fluctuations in electromagnetic fields.
Even though the space between the plates may seem empty, it’s actually filled with virtual particles constantly appearing and disappearing.
These particles influence the electromagnetic field, leading to a net attraction between the plates.
The effect was first predicted in 1948 by Dutch physicist Hendrik Casimir during his research on colloidal solutions.
This effect has been experimentally verified and finds applications in various fields, such as nanotechnology and condensed matter physics.
It has also contributed to our understanding of fundamental physics, including the nature of vacuum energy.
Experimental physicists have recognized its impact on micromachined devices, while advancements in instrumentation have allowed for more accurate measurements of the force.
Example of Casimir Effect:
When colloidal particles are suspended in a vacuum, they experience the Casimir force due to their proximity to other surfaces.
This force, which can be either attractive or repulsive depending on the separation distance and the dielectric properties of the surrounding medium, influences the motion and interactions of the colloidal particles.
For example, if two particles are close enough, they may experience an attractive Casimir force that pulls them together, leading to aggregation.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.popularmechanics.com/science/a61148470/casimir-effect-control-nanotech-breakthrough/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Sustainable Development Report 2024:
- It is published by the Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN).
- The United States ranks the highest in the report in its commitment to UN-based multilateralism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The world is way off track on most of the sustainable development targets agreed in 2015, such as tackling poverty and hunger, says the recently released Sustainable Development Report 2024.
About Sustainable Development Report (SDR):
It reviews progress made each year on the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) since their adoption by the 193 UN Member States in 2015.
It is annually published by the Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN).
Highlights of SDR 2024:
Published on the eve of the UN Summit of the Future, the SDR 2024 recommends a set of key reforms to the UN system to meet the challenges of the 21st century.
Theme: The SDGs and the UN Summit of the Future
This year’s edition also presents a new index of countries’ support for UN-based multilateralism and discusses long-term pathways to attain sustainable food and land systems.
This year, Finland, Sweden, and Denmark top the rankings.
Globally, only 16% of the SDG targets are on track to be achieved by 2030, with the remaining 84% showing limited progress or its reversal.
The pace of progress varies widely across country groups. Nordic countries continue to lead on SDG achievement, with BRICS demonstrating strong progress and poor and vulnerable nations lagging far behind.
Sustainable development remains a long-term investment challenge. Reforming the Global Financial Architecture is more urgent than ever.
Global challenges require global cooperation. Barbados ranks the highest in its commitment to UN-based multilateralism; the United States ranks last.
SDG targets related to food and land systems are particularly off-track. The SDR presents new FABLE (Food, Agriculture, Biodiversity, Land, and Energy) pathways to support sustainable food and land systems.
What is the Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN)?
The UN SDSN works under the auspices of the UN Secretary-General to mobilize the world’s universities, think tanks, and national laboratories for action on the SDGs and the Paris Agreement; empower societies through free online education; and translate scientific evidence and ideas into solutions and accountability.
Established in 2012 by the former UN Secretary-General, Ban Ki-Moon, and world-renowned economist and professor, Jeffrey Sachs, the SDSN promotes integrated approaches to implement the SDGs and the Paris Agreement, through education, research, policy analysis, and global cooperation.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.reuters.com/sustainability/world-falling-behind-environment-health-hunger-goals-un-report-says-2024-06-17/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Refugees:
- International refugees represent the majority of all displaced individuals worldwide.
- The majority of refugees worldwide reside in low- and middle-income countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
World Refugee Day is annually celebrated globally on June 20th.
About World Refugee Day:
This day is dedicated to the millions of people who have been forced to escape their homes due to war, persecution, or natural catastrophes.
History of World Refugee Day:
The first ever World Refugee Day was celebrated on June 20, 2001, to commemorate the 50th anniversary of the 1951 Convention relating to the Status of Refugees.
The day was earlier recognized as Africa Refugee Day, and later in December 2000, the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) officially declared it an International Day for Refugees.
The theme of World Refugee Day 2024 is ‘For a World Where Refugees Are Welcomed.’
Who is a refugee?
According to the 1951 Refugee Convention, a person is considered a refugee if they are unable to return to their homeland because they have a legitimate fear of being harmed because of their race, religion, involvement in a social group, or differing political opinions.
Refugees are forced to flee their homes due to conflict, persecution, violence, or other forms of human rights violations. They often arrive in host countries with nothing but the clothes on their backs.
Although relocating to a foreign country is the stereotypical picture of a refugee, these international refugees represent a relatively small percentage of all displaced individuals worldwide.
Other non-typical refugee categories include stateless individuals, who have no country of citizenship claimed against them, and asylum seekers, who travel in search of international protection.
In 2024, 130.8 million individuals were estimated by the United Nations Refugee Agency (UNHCR) to have been forcibly displaced, or stateless globally, with over 32 million of them being refugees.
75% of refugees worldwide reside in low- and middle-income countries, according to UNHCR figures.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thequint.com/lifestyle/world-refugee-day-2024-date-theme-history-significance-and-quotes#read-more
Consider the following statements regarding Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM):
- It is an independent body analyzing any issue, economic or otherwise, referred to it by the Prime Minister and advising him thereon.
- It prepares a monthly report on economic developments at home and abroad for the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Chairman of the Economic Advisory Council (EAC) to the Prime Minister emphasized the need for a new poverty line at a data user conference organized by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) recently.
About Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM):
It is an independent body constituted in 2017 to give advice on economic and related issues to the Government of India, specifically to the Prime Minister.
The Terms of Reference of EAC-PM include analyzing any issue, economic or otherwise, referred to it by the Prime Minister and advising him thereon, addressing issues of macroeconomic importance, and presenting views thereon to the Prime Minister.
These could be either suo-motu or on reference from the Prime Minister or anyone else.
They also include attending to any other task as may be desired by the Prime Minister from time to time.
EAC also prepares a monthly report on economic developments at home and abroad for the Prime Minister.
It monitors economic trends on a regular basis and bring to the PM’s attention important developments at home and abroad and suggests suitable policy responses.
The council regularly interacts with stakeholders and the public, and communicates its findings and recommendations through reports, presentations, and public events.
Composition:
The EAC-PM is headed by the Chairman and includes a mix of economists and experts from academia, research institutions, and the private sector.
There is no fixed definition of the exact number of members and staff of the EAC-PM.
It is common for the Council to be reconstituted time and again with different organizational structures headed by various economists who are of recognized international eminence.
For administrative, logistic, planning, and budgeting purposes, the NITI Aayog serves as the nodal agency for the EAC-PM.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://theprint.in/economy/should-we-have-a-new-poverty-line-asks-bibek-debroy-eac-pm-chairman/2138175/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Stonehenge:
- It is an archaeological site located in France.
- It is comprised of roughly massive upright stones placed in a circular layout.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The UK police on Wednesday arrested two people, including an Indian-origin man, for spraying an orange substance on Stonehenge, the renowned prehistoric UNESCO World Heritage Site in England.
About Stonehenge:
It is a prehistoric stone circle monument and archaeological site located in Wiltshire, England.
It is comprised of roughly 100 massive upright stones placed in a circular layout.
It was built in several stages:
The first monument was an early henge monument, built about 5,000 years ago, and the unique stone circle was erected in the late Neolithic period, about 2500 BC.
In the early Bronze Age, many burial mounds were built nearby.
Purpose:
Though there is no definite evidence as to the intended purpose of Stonehenge, it was presumably a religious site and an expression of the power and wealth of the chieftains, aristocrats, and priests who had it built.
It is just one part of a larger sacred landscape that contained many other stone and wooden structures, as well as burials.
It was aligned with the Sun and possibly used for observing the Sun and Moon and working out the farming calendar.
Along with more than 350 nearby monuments and henges (ancient earthworks consisting of a circular bank and ditch), including the kindred temple complex at Avebury, Stonehenge was designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1986.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/world/indians-abroad/story/indian-origin-man-rajan-naidu-arrested-spraying-stonehenge-orange-paint-england-2555436-2024-06-19
Energy Transition Index, recently in news, is published by:
World Economic Forum
Explanation :
India has been ranked 63rd on a global Energy Transition Index released by the World Economic Forum.
It is published by the World Economic Forum.
It was developed with the ambitious aim to comprehensively monitor the global energy transition.
The heart of the Index is an analytic framework that measures transition as a shift towards an energy system that supports sustainability, security and access, and towards institutions that enable this performance.
Key points about Energy Transition Index 2024 (ETI-2024)
European countries lead the World Economic Forum Energy Transition Index 2024 rankings; Sweden came top, followed by Denmark, Finland, Switzerland and France.
Emerging economies such as Brazil and China made notable progress, although 83% of countries moved backwards from last year in at least one of the three energy system performance dimensions – security, equity and sustainability.
India has been ranked 63rd in ETI -2024.
The gap in energy transition performance between advanced and developing economies continues to narrow, although disparities in investments and regulation remain.
While 107 of the 120 countries benchmarked in the report demonstrated progress on their energy transition journeys in the past decade, the overall pace of the transition has slowed and balancing its different facets remains a key challenge.
The WEF also lauded the strides made by India in its clean energy infrastructure, with renewable energy and biomass comprising 42 per cent of its power generation capacity, making it the fourth-largest renewables market globally.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/india-ranks-63rd-on-energy-transition-index-sweden-on-top-wef/article68306972.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the 5G Intelligent Village Initiative:
- It aims to enable effective utilization of Ultra-Reliable Low-Latency Communication.
- It is funded under Telecom Technology Development Fund (TTDF) scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) announced two proposals—5G Intelligent Village and Quantum Encryption Algorithm (QEA)—aimed at catalysing innovation and technological advancement in the telecom sector.
This initiative responds to the pressing need for equitable technological advancement by harnessing the transformative power of 5G technology to uplift rural communities.
It aims to enable effective utilization of Ultra-Reliable Low-Latency Communication (URLLC) and massive Machine Type Communication (mMTC) aspects of 5G in selected villages, showcasing the advantages of 5G connectivity.
It also addresses critical pillars such as agriculture, education, healthcare, governance, and sustainability.
Key facts about Quantum Encryption Algorithm (QEA)
The call for proposals is for developing an India specific Quantum Encryption Algorithm (QEA) that will represent a cutting-edge approach to securing digital communication channels by leveraging the principles of quantum mechanics.
The algorithm should ensure Unparalleled Security; Advanced Encryption Capabilities; Ultrafast and Efficient Encryption etc.
These proposals shall be funded under Telecom Technology Development Fund (TTDF) scheme of the DoT.
What is Telecom Technology Development Fund?
It has been setup under Universal Services Obligation Fund (USOF) of Department of Telecom (DOT), Government of India to promote the ecosystem for research, design, prototyping, proof of concept testing, IPR creation, field testing, security, certification and manufacturing of products etc.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2025988
Consider the following statements with reference to the e-Shram Portal:
- It provides access to various social security schemes being implemented by various Ministries/ Departments to unorganized sector workers.
- It is launched by the union Ministry of Heavy Industries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Indian delegation to the 112th International Labour Conference (ILC) led by Secretary, Ministry of Labour & Employment showcased the e-Shram portal and its present integrations and achievements during the sidelines of the ILC at Geneva, Switzerland.
It was launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment in 2021 for registration and creation of a comprehensive National Database of Unorganized Workers.
It allows an unorganised worker to register himself or herself on the portal on self-declaration basis, under 400 occupations in 30 broad occupation sectors.
It is a “One-Stop-Solution” for Unorganised Workers of the country.
The registration in the portal is fully Aadhaar verified and Aadhaar seeded. Any unorganised worker can register himself or herself on the portal on a self-declaration basis.
The Ministry aims to facilitate access of various social security schemes being implemented by various Ministries/ Departments for the benefit of the unorganised workers through e-Shram portal.
The portal is presently integrated with National Career Service (NCS) Portal, Skill India Digital Hub (SIDH), myScheme portal and Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Mandhaan (PMSYM) scheme.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2026731
“Delos Island”, recently seen in the news, is located in?
Aegean Sea
Explanation :
A remarkable ancient site on the tiny Greek island of Delos is “doomed to disappear” within decades due to rising sea levels and geological processes, an expert has said.
It is one of the most important sanctuaries of the ancient Greek and Roman world.
Location: It is the rocky island, part of the Cyclades archipelago in the Aegean Sea, was first settled in the 3rd millennium B.C. But in the 1st millennium B.C
It is a UNESCO world heritage site.
It is found that increasing temperatures combined with high levels of humidity can significantly affect the chemical composition of certain materials used in cultural heritage monuments.
Key facts about Aegean Sea
It is located in the East Mediterranean Basin with the Greek peninsula to its west and Anatolia (consisting of the Asian side of Turkey) to its east.
The Bosphorus and Dardanelles Straits connect the Aegean Sea to the Black Sea and the Marmara Sea respectively.
The vast majority of the Aegean Islands belong to Greece. The only sizable possessions of Turkey in the Aegean Sea are Imbros (Gökçeada) and Tenedos (Bozcaada), in the northeastern part of the Sea.
Climate
It experiences a Mediterranean climate, experienced in Western Turkey and Greece.
The climate is defined as Hot-summer Mediterranean, characterized by drier and hotter summers and wetter and milder winters. During summers, the region experiences lower temperatures than arid and semi-arid climates.
The climate of the northern portion of the Aegean Sea can be classified as cold semi-arid, characterized by cooler summers. The weather in the Aegean basin is mainly influenced by the Etesian wind.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/ancient-greek-sanctuary-slowly-sinks-into-the-aegean-sea/article68283994.ece
INS Sunayna, an Offshore Patrol Vessel recently in the news belongs to:
Saryu class
Explanation :
INS Sunayna entered Port Victoria, Seychelles on 15 Jun 24 in the company of Seychelles Coast Guard Ship (SCGS) Zoroaster and aims to strengthen the camaraderie and mutual cooperation between the Indian Navy and Seychelles Coast Guard in line with the vision of SAGAR (Security & Growth for All in the Region).
It is a Saryu class Offshore Patrol Vessel which was commissioned at Kochi.
It is based under Southern Naval Command and is built at Goa Shipyard Limited.
Features
The warship is designed to undertake fleet support operations, coastal and offshore patrolling, ocean surveillance and monitoring of Sea Lines of Communications and offshore assets, and escort duties.
It can achieve speeds of 25 knots.
The ship also has an automatic power management system.
It is fitted with the latest Navigation, Communication and Electronic Support Systems.
Other Sarayu class includes the INS Sumitra and INS Sumedha.
What is SAGAR (Security & Growth for All in the Region) initiative?
It is an Indian foreign policy doctrine that was introduced in 2015. The aim of SAGAR is to enhance cooperation and mutual trust between India and its neighbouring countries, particularly in the Indian Ocean region.
The SAGAR policy has several components, including ensuring maritime security and safety, promoting sustainable development and economic growth, and strengthening cultural and people-to-people ties between nations.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2026190
With reference to Pro-tem Speaker, consider the following statements:
- The Speaker Pro-tem is appointed by the President of India.
- As per constitutional provisions, the senior most member of the house shall be appointed as the pro tem speaker.
- Speaker Pro-tem presides over the first sitting of the Lok Sabha and administers the oath of office to the newly elected Members of Parliament (MPs).
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The President has appointed Bhartruhari Mahtab, a seven-term MP from Cuttack, as the pro tem Speaker of the 18th Lok Sabha.
About Pro-tem Speaker:
Pro-tem is a Latin phrase which translates to ‘for the time being’ in English, and so the pro-tem speaker is a temporary speaker appointed for a limited period of time to conduct the work in Lok Sabha or in state legislatures.
A Pro-tem speaker is chosen for the conduct of the house when the Lok Sabha and legislative assemblies have been elected and the vote for the speaker and deputy speaker has not taken place.
The Constitution does not expressly use the term ‘Pro-tem Speaker’.
The office of the pro tem speaker ceases to exist after the new Speaker of the House is chosen.
Who selects the pro-tem speaker?
The Speaker Pro-tem is appointed by the President of India/Governor.
The President/Governor administers the oath of office to the pro-tem Speaker.
As per convention, a senior most member will be appointed as the pro tem speaker with the agreement of assembly members, who then carry on the activities until the permanent speaker is chosen.
Duties:
Presiding over the first sitting of the Lok Sabha/ State Legislative Assemblies.
Administering the oath of office to the newly elected MPs/MLAs.
Conducting the floor test to prove the government’s majority.
Holding the vote to elect the speaker and deputy speaker
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/bhartruhari-mahtab-appointed-pro-tem-speaker-of-lok-sabha/article68313153.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Caecilians, recently seen in the news:
- They are elongated, segmented, limbless amphibians.
- They spend the majority of their lives in trees.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Assam’s wildlife officials said a team of herpetologists recorded the striped caecilian (Ichthyophis spp) in the Kaziranga National Park and Tiger Reserve for the first time during a rapid herpetofauna survey conducted recently.
About Caecilians:
The Caecilians are elongated, segmented, limbless amphibians.
They are classified in the order Gymnophiona or Apoda (“without legs”).
They belong to the same group of animals that includes frogs and salamanders.
Lacking limbs, caecilians resemble earthworms or snakes in appearance.
The name Caecilian means “blind”. Some caecilian species are eyeless, while others have small eyes hidden under their skin.
There are about 200 known caecilian species.
Habitat:
Most caecilians inhabit moist tropical and subtropical regions of South and Central America, South and Southeast Asia, and Sub-Saharan Africa.
Almost all caecilians are terrestrial, but they are elusive as they spend the majority of their lives underground.
They burrow primarily in forests, but also in grassland, savanna, shrubland, and wetlands.
Other Features:
The smaller species measure less than three inches, but the largest one (Caecilia thompsoni from Colombia) grows to almost five feet long.
A hard, thick skull with a pointy snout helps them move effectively through dirt or mud.
Their shiny skin is ringed with skin folds called annuli.
They usually come in shades of gray, brown, black, orange, or yellow.
Some have tiny, fishlike scales within the rings.
They have short, sensory tentacles located between their eyes and nostrils that help them probe their environment and find prey.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/limbless-amphibian-added-to-kazirangas-fauna/article68311421.ece
What is the primary goal of The Trinity Challenge (TTC), recently seen in the news?
To create data-driven solutions for global health threats
Explanation :
A project by the Indraprastha Institute of Information Technology, Delhi (IIIT-Delhi), has won the joint second prize in Trinity Challenge’s second competition, on tackling the escalating threat of antimicrobial resistance (AMR).
About The Trinity Challenge (TTC):
It is a charity supporting the creation of data-driven solutions to help protect against global health threats.
It is a partnership of over 40 leading global organizations across the private, public, and social sectors.
TC partners are united by the common aim of using data and advanced analytics to create inclusive innovations and build a world that’s better prepared for health emergencies.
To that purpose, TTC is launching, supporting, and funding public challenges.
It was launched in response to the Covid-19 pandemic, which highlighted a global need to be better prepared to tackle healthcare emergencies.
The initial Challenge asked teams to deliver data-driven solutions to predict, respond to and recover from pandemics.
It awarded £5.7 million to teams that developed innovative tools and approaches for better pandemic preparedness and response.
Following the success of the first Trinity Challenge, the second Challenge - The Trinity Challenge on Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR), issues a call to the world’s best and brightest minds for data-driven solutions that will protect the power of antibiotics.
IIIT-Delhi’s project ‘AMRSense: Empowering Communities with a Proactive One Health Ecosystem:
It was led by IIIT-Delhi, in collaboration with CHRI-PATH, 1mg.com, and ICMR.
AMRSense addresses the challenges of engaging, motivating, and training community health workers (CHWs) in AMR surveillance and management, compounded by the lack of a comprehensive data ecosystem and analytics capabilities.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/iiit-delhi-project-on-antimicrobial-resistance-wins-joint-second-prize-in-global-competition/article68311657.ece
With reference to Living Will in India, consider the following statements:
- It prescribes a person’s wishes regarding the medical treatment to be provided when the person becomes terminally ill and is undergoing prolonged medical treatment with no hope of recovery.
- It should specify the name of a guardian or close relative who, in the event of the patient becoming incapable of taking a decision, will be authorized to give consent to refuse or withdraw medical treatment.
- It can be in oral or written form and should mention whether the patient may revoke the instructions/authority at any time.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Bombay High Court recently pulled up the Maharashtra government for not having a proper and sufficient mechanism including a proper medical board in place for enforcing living wills.
About Living Will:
A Living Will or Advance Medical Directive, is a document prescribing a person’s wishes regarding the medical treatment the person would want if he/she was unable to share his/her wishes or not in a position to make an informed decision by reason of being unconscious or in a coma.
Legality of Living Will in India:
It was not legally viable in India until 2018.
However, the Supreme Court in Common Cause vs. Union of India (2018), recognised that a terminally ill patient or a person in a persistent vegetative state can execute an “advance medical directive” or a “living will ‘’ to refuse medical treatment, and gave sanction to passive euthanasia and living will/advance directives.
The court also laid down principles relating to the procedure for execution of a living will.
Who can draw up an Advance Medical Directive/Living Will?
An adult who is of a sound and healthy mind and in a position to communicate, relate, and comprehend the purpose and consequences of executing the document.
It must be voluntary.
Elements of a Living will:
It should be in writing and clearly state when medical treatment may be withdrawn or if specific medical treatment that will have the effect of delaying the process of death should be given.
Instructions must be absolutely clear and unambiguous.
It should mention whether the patient may revoke the instructions/authority at any time.
It should specify the name of a guardian or close relative who, in the event of the patient becoming incapable of taking decision at the relevant time, will be authorized to give consent to refuse or withdraw medical treatment.
How is living will recorded?
It should be signed by the patient in the presence of two witnesses, preferably independent, and countersigned by a jurisdictional Judicial Magistrate First Class (JMFC), so designated by the concerned district judge.
The JMFC is under an obligation to supply the requisite copies of the Living Will to the concerned authorities and to inform the immediate family members of the Executor.
When and by whom can it be given effect to?
When the person becomes terminally ill and is undergoing prolonged medical treatment with no hope of recovery and cure of the ailment, the treating physician, when made aware about the Advance Directive, has to ascertain the genuineness and authenticity of the document from the jurisdictional JMFC before acting upon the same.
The physician of the Executor shall then inform the Executor or his guardian/close relative, inter alia, about the details of the illness and the consequences of remaining untreated.
The hospital where the Executor has been admitted shall constitute a Medical Board to form an opinion on whether to certify the instructions regarding withdrawal or refusal of further medical treatment.
In the event the Hospital Medical Board certifies the instructions, the hospital shall forthwith inform the jurisdictional Collector about the proposal, who shall then constitute its own Medical Board.
This Board jointly visits the hospital, and if they concur with the decision of the previous Medical Board, they may endorse the certificate to carry out the instructions given in the Living Will.
The Chairman of the Medical Board shall convey the decision of the Board to the jurisdictional JMFC.
Thereafter, the JMFC shall visit the patient and, after examining all aspects, authorise the implementation of the decision of the Board.
In case the life support is withdrawn, the same shall be intimated by the Magistrate to the High Court, and the High Court shall maintain the requisite records in digital format.
However, if there is a difference of opinion between the Board and the Executor or his family members, the parties can prefer a writ petition in the concerned High Court. The decision of the High Court in this regard shall be final and binding.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/mumbai/bombay-hc-state-govt-living-wills-9405007/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Chenab Rail Bridge:
- It is located above the Chenab riverbed in Himachal Pradesh.
- It is the highest single-arch railway bridge in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Indian Railway conducted a successful trial run on the newly-constructed world’s highest railway bridge, Chenab Rail Bridge, in Jammu and Kashmir.
About Chenab Rail Bridge:
Location: It is located between Bakkal and Kauri in the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir (J&K).
The 1.3-km-long bridge is located 359 metres above the Chenab riverbed.
It is the highest single-arch railway bridge in the world.
It is part of the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link project.
The construction of the Chenab bridge has been a collaborative effort, involving various international organizations and renowned Indian institutions, including the Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs), the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), and the Geological Survey of India.
Features:
It consists of 17 spans, with the main arch spanning an impressive 467 metres, making it the longest of its kind.
The arch consists of steel boxes. Concrete has been filled in the boxes to improve stability.
The bridge consists of 93 deck segments, each weighing approximately 85 tonnes.
The bridge has been designed with a life span of 120 years.
It has been designed to withstand high wind speeds of up to 266 Kmph.
It is built to be ‘blast-proof’ and is capable of withstanding the nation’s maximum intensity zone-V earthquake forces.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/watch-in-a-first-train-crosses-chenab-rail-bridge-worlds-highest-railway-bridge/articleshow/111137407.cms
“Capsaicin”, recently seen in the news, is a/an:
botanical irritant found in chili peppers
Explanation :
Recently, food safety authorities in Denmark have recalled three types of South Korean spicy instant noodles over possible risks of “acute poisoning” due to high Capsaicin levels.
It is a naturally-occurring botanical irritant in chili peppers, synthetically derived for pharmaceutical formulations.
It is most abundantly found in the “placenta” (white membrane to which seeds are attached) of some chili peppers — fruits of plants of genus Capsicum.
How it acts in human?
The chemical binds to TRPV1 receptors in humans’ nose, mouth, skin and insides. These receptors help in detecting heat (and pain) and are most commonly activated by a rise in temperature.
But capsaicin ‘tricks’ them into reacting, even though there is no actual temperature rise. The brain, thus, believes that the body is on fire, causing the painful, burning sensation associated with consuming chilis.
The body then tries to cool down — hence the sweating, and the red face (capillaries just below the skin dilate, as blood rushes to the surface of the body, where it can radiate heat away more easily). The runny nose or teary eyes are the body’s attempt at expelling the heat-causing element. So are the gut cramps and diarrhea.
It is most often used as a topical analgesic and exists in many formulations of cream, liquid, and patch preparations of various strengths.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/why-chilis-burn-why-humans-still-love-them-9394150/
With reference to Mudgal Fort, consider the following statements:
- It is located in Karnataka.
- Its walls and monuments contain inscriptions which are written in Sanskrit and Telugu languages.
- It was one of the major causes of clashes between Maratha and Vijayanagara empires.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Two only
Explanation :
The Mudgal Fort, which stands as a testament to the rich historical and cultural tapestry of Karnataka and India offering a glimpse into the region’s past through its enduring architectural, cultural and historical significance.
It is located in the state of Karnataka.
The fort has a 1000-year history having connections to various dynasties, including the Chalukyas, Rashtrakutas, Deccan Sultanate and Vijayanagara Empire.
The fort gained prominence during the Bahmani Sultans who ruled large areas of the Deccan Plateau from Gulbarga (now Kalaburagi).
It later went to the hands of the Vijayanagara Empire. After the Sultanate broke into five States (Nizam Shahi of Ahmednagar, Qutb Shahi of Golconda (Hyderabad), Barid Shahi of Bidar, Imad Shahi of Berar and Adil Shahi of Bijapur), the fort was a major cause of clashes between the Vijayanagara Empire and Adil Shahi Sultanate.
Strategic location
Standing on the border of the Adil Shahi and Vijayanagara empires, the Mudgal Fort witnessed as many as 11 battles between the 14th and 16th Centuries.
The Bijapur and Vijayanagara viewed it as a symbol of power and pride because of its strategic location to control the large Raichur Doab, the land between Tungabhadra on the south and Krishna on the north.
Raichur Doab between Krishna and Tungabhadra rivers is fertile land for agriculture. It has also had rich mineral resources including gold.
Inscriptions
Historians and researchers have so far studied as many as 99 inscriptions etched on the fort walls and monuments in Kannada, Sanskrit, Telugu, Persian, Arabic and Gujarati languages.
Important among them are those that describe the bravery of Malik Murad Khan, the military general of Ibrahim Adil Shah II of Bijapur. He was the man who fought successful battles against the Vijayanagara Empire between 1590 and 1610.
Architectural style
The mixed architectural styles of the monuments and traditions followed by the people living inside.
Inside the fort there is Ranganathaswamy Temple and Hussain Alam Dargah stand side-by-side sharing a common wall and the compound.
The fort has several gates, each with intricate carvings and strategic placements for defence.
The main entrance on the north side of the fort, which is called Fateh Darwaza.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/mudgal-fort-a-symbol-of-the-power-of-deccan-sultanate-and-vijayanagara-empire-cries-for-conservation/article68312079.ece
Consider the following statements regarding diatoms:
- These are microscopic algae which serve as a base of the aquatic food chain.
- These are only found in the fresh water ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers have discovered a new genus of the Gomphonemoid diatom found in the clean water river of the Eastern Ghats and it has been named Indiconema to value its restricted distribution in the country.
These are photosynthetic, single celled organism.
These are microscopic algae and serve as a base of the aquatic food chain. Due to their sensitivity towards any water chemistry changes, they are excellent indicators of aquatic health.
They are a major group of algae and form one of the most common forms of phytoplankton.
Habitat: They are found in almost every aquatic environment including fresh and marine waters.
Diatoms have cell walls made of silica, Each species has a distinct pattern of tiny holes in the cell wall (frustule) through which they absorb nutrients and get rid of waste.
Collectively, they are responsible for generating up to 50% of the oxygen produced globally each year.
Key facts about Indiconema
It differs in having a pore field at both the head and foot pole rather than having only at the foot pole.
Researchers reported one species of Indiconema from the Eastern Ghats and another from the Western Ghats. A similar pattern of sharing endemic elements between two mountain systems has been observed for other endemic-rich groups, such as reptiles.
Based on the morphological features of this group, the researchers have suggested that Indiconema is sister to Afrocymbella, a genus endemic to East Africa.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2027006
Consider the following statements with reference to the Human African Trypanosomiasis:
- It is caused by protozoan parasites and transmitted by infected tsetse flies.
- It is one of the neglected tropical diseases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In a landmark achievement, Chad has become the first country in 2024 and the 51st globally to eliminate a neglected tropical disease (NTD) — the gambiense form of human African trypanosomiasis (HAT).
It is also known as sleeping sickness.
It is caused by protozoan parasites transmitted by infected tsetse flies and endemic in sub-Saharan Africa.
It takes 2 forms, depending on the subspecies of the infecting parasite:
Trypanosoma brucei gambiense: It is found in 24 countries of west and central Africa, currently accounts for 92% of reported cases and causes a chronic illness.
A person can be infected for months or even years without major signs or symptoms. When evident symptoms emerge, often the disease is advanced with the central nervous system already affected.
Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense: It is found in 13 countries of eastern and southern Africa accounts for 8% of reported cases and causes an acute disease.
First signs and symptoms emerge a few weeks or months after infection. The disease develops rapidly with multi-organ invasion, including the brain.
Tsetse flies inhabit sub-Saharan Africa and only certain species transmit the disease. Rural populations which depend on agriculture, fishing, animal husbandry or hunting are the most exposed.
To date, WHO has validated the elimination of the gambiense form of HAT in seven countries: Togo (2020), Benin (2021), Ivory Coast (2021), Uganda (2022), Equatorial Guinea (2022), Ghana (2023) and Chad (2024).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/health/chad-eliminates-sleeping-sickness-as-a-public-health-problem-96784
Consider the following statements with reference to the Hooch:
- It is produced by fermentation and distillation methods
- The Methanol presence in this Hooch cause impaired vision, high toxicity and metabolic acidosis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, at least 34 people have died, and around 100 others have been hospitalised after consuming hooch, or spurious liquor, in Tamil Nadu’s Kallakurichi.
It is a commonly used term for poor quality alcohol, derived from Hoochinoo, a native Alaskan tribe that was known to produce very strong liquor.
Unlike branded liquor which is produced in factories with sophisticated equipment and rigorous quality control, hooch is made in much more crude settings.
How is hooch produced?
All alcohol is produced using two basic processes: fermentation and distillation.
Fermentation: When heated, yeast reacts with sugar (from grain, fruits, sugarcane, etc.) to ferment and produce a mixture containing alcohol. This is an age-old process, used to create beverages like beer or wine.
Limitation: As fermentation continues, and alcohol levels rise, conditions in the mixture become toxic for the yeast. Eventually, no more fermentation can take place. Thus, to make anything stronger (above 14-18% ABC), beverages need to be distilled.
Distillation: This is the process of physically separating alcohol from a fermented mixture using evaporation and condensation.
Since different parts of the mixture have different boiling points, heating it up to the correct temperature makes it possible to separate only the alcohol from the water and other remnants. Distilled beverages, or spirits, are far more potent than any fermented beverage.
Why can hooch be dangerous?
The fermented mixture which is distilled contains more than just consumable alcohol (ethanol). It also contains methanol, an industrial alcohol which is highly toxic for human beings.
Non-distilled alcoholic beverages like wine contain relatively harmless trace amounts of methanol. But during the distillation, both ethanol and methanol are concentrated. Thus, if done incorrectly, distillation can lead to an end product which contains high quantities of toxic methanol.
What are the effects of spurious liquor?
Methanol or methyl alcohol can cause impaired vision, high toxicity and metabolic acidosis, a condition in which the body produces excessive acid that cannot be flushed out by kidneys.
The treatment for this is to intravenously administer Fomepizole and ethanol. However, fomepizole can be expensive and unavailable in many parts of India.
In such cases, doctors administer a mixture of ethanol and water (1:1 ratio).
Ethanol inhibits methanol’s conversion into toxins and helps in flushing it out of the body either naturally or through dialysis.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/tamil-nadu-hooch-tragedy-spurious-liqour-9403981/
With reference to the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC), consider the following statements:
- It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
- Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified by the CBFC.
- The Chairperson and members of the CBFC are appointed by the Central Government.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently refused to entertain a writ petition seeking revocation of the CBFC certification given to the film ‘Hamare Baarah’.
About Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC):
The CBFC, popularly known as the Censor Board, is a statutory body under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
It regulates the public exhibition of films in India under the provisions of the Cinematograph Act, 1952.
Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified by the CBFC.
The certification process is in accordance with the Cinematograph Act, 1952, the Cinematograph (certification) Rules, 1983, and the guidelines issued by the Central Government.
The CBFC has one chairperson and other members (not less than 12 but not exceeding 25) who are appointed by the Central Government.
It has its headquarters in Mumbai.
It has nine regional offices, one each at Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Bangalore, Thiruvananthapuram, Hyderabad, New Delhi, Cuttack, and Guwahati.
The regional offices are assisted in the examination of films by Advisory Panels.
The members of the panels are nominated by the Central Government by drawing people from different walks of life for a period of two years.
Categories of film certification: There are four categories of films based on their content.
U (Universal): Viewers of all age groups can view a U-certified film.
U/A: Although these movies are universal, children under the age of 12 require adult supervision.
A: Only meant for exhibition before adults.
S: These are movies for special classes like doctors and farmers.
The board shall occasionally conduct seminars of film critics, writers, and people connected with the industry, along with national surveys to determine the public reaction for making guidelines for certifying the films.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://zeenews.india.com/bollywood/supreme-court-declines-plea-challenging-cbfc-certification-of-hamare-baarah-2759408.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Container Port Performance Index (CPPI) 2023:
- It is released by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD).
- Mundra Port is the highest-ranked Indian port in CPPI 2023.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
As many as nine ports of India have made it to the global top 100 rankings in the latest edition of Container Port Performance Index.
About Container Port Performance Index:
It is a highly regarded benchmark that assesses the performance of ports on parameters such as productivity, efficiency, and reliability.
It is released by the World Bank and S&P Global Market Intelligence.
It serves as a reference point for key stakeholders, including national governments, port authorities, development agencies, supra-national organisations, and private operators, in trade, logistics and supply chain services.
Highlights of CPPI 2023:
Yangshan port in China and Salalah port in Oman emerged as the top two ports in the rankings.
Nine Indian ports have secured places among the top 100 global ports.
While Visakhapatnam Port made it to the top 20 ports of the world at 19 in 2023, Mundra Port also climbed up the index at 27 in the current ranking.
This also marks an advancement from Visakhapatnam’s 115th rank and Mundra’s 48th position in the 2022 rankings.
Vishakhapatnam Port has demonstrated impressive performance with a turnaround time (TRT) of 21.4 hours, achieving 27.5 moves per crane hour, and minimizing berth idle time.
Additionally, seven more Indian ports, secured ranks in the top 100:Pipavav (ranked 41), Kamarajar (47), Cochin (63), Hazira (68), Krishnapatnam (71), Chennai (80), and Jawaharlal Nehru JNPA (96).
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/transportation/shipping-/-transport/nine-indian-ports-ranked-among-top-100-in-container-port-performance-index-2023/articleshow/111119202.cms?from=mdr
The “Fire Dragon 480”, recently seen in the news, is a:
tactical ballistic missile
Explanation :
A new study by the People’s Liberation Army (PLA) has claimed that China’s tactical ballistic missile, the Fire Dragon 480, possesses the capability to sink a US Ticonderoga-class cruiser patrolling the Red Sea.
About Fire Dragon 480:
It is a Chinese long-range rocket produced by China’s Norinco Group for export purposes.
It is a 750-mm tactical ballistic missile that is equipped with precision-guidance sensors, which enable it to strike moving targets with a high degree of accuracy.
The missile can be launched from a high-speed, wheeled platform capable of withstanding harsh environments.
Its warhead surpasses the 400 kg mark, significantly outweighing that of a conventional anti-ship missile.
Its impact velocity exceeds 500 metres (1,640 feet) per second, which would ensure that a 10,000-tonne cruiser would be destroyed after being hit by just two of these missiles.
While it is generally believed that the Fire Dragon 480 has a range limit of 290km (180 miles), Chinese researchers have said that its practical range could exceed 500km.
It was adopted by the Chinese PLA in 2019.
The only publicly disclosed export deal for the weapon was a $245 million agreement with the United Arab Emirates.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
With reference to the National Forensic Infrastructure Enhancement Scheme (NFIES), consider the following statements:
- It is a Central Sector Scheme to enhance forensic infrastructure in the country.
- It provides for the establishment of campuses of the National Forensic Sciences University (NFSU) in the country.
- The financial outlay of the NFIES will be provisioned by the Ministry of Science and Technology.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
In a bid to have more scientific investigations across the country to achieve better conviction rates in criminal cases, the Union Cabinet recently approved the National Forensic Infrastructure Enhancement Scheme (NFIES).
About National Forensic Infrastructure Enhancement Scheme (NFIES):
It is a Central Sector Scheme with a financial outlay of Rs 2,254.43 crore during the period from 2024-25 to 2028-29.
It aims to enhance forensic infrastructure in the country.
Components under this Scheme:
Establishment of campuses of the National Forensic Sciences University (NFSU) in the country.
Establishment of Central Forensic Science Laboratories (CFSLs)in the country.
Enhancement of existing infrastructure of the Delhi Campus of the NFSU.
The financial outlay of the NFIES will be provisioned by the Ministry of Home Affairs from its own budget.
Need for NFIES:
With the enactment of the New Criminal Laws, which mandates forensic investigation for offences involving punishment of 7 years or more, a significant increase in the workload of forensic science laboratories is expected.
Further, there is a significant shortage of trained forensic manpower in the Forensic Science Laboratories (FSL) in the country.
The establishment of additional off-campuses of the NFSU and new CFSLs would address the shortage of trained forensic manpower, alleviate the case load / pendency of forensic laboratories, and align with the Government of India’s goal of securing a high conviction rate of more than 90%.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/india/cabinet-clears-scheme-for-forensic-infra-with-outlay-of-rs-2200-crore-9403178/
Consider the following statements regarding the State of Global Air (SoGA) Report 2024:
- Air pollution has become the leading global risk factor for death.
- India accounted for more than one fourth of the total global disease burden due to air pollution in 2021.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Air pollution is having an increasing impact on human health, becoming the second leading global risk factor for death, according to the fifth edition of the State of Global Air (SoGA) report.
About State of Global Air (SoGA) Report:
It is released by the Health Effects Institute (HEI), an independent U.S.-based nonprofit research organization, in partnership with UNICEF.
The report provides an analysis of data for air quality and health impacts for countries around the world.
It defined air pollution as a complex mixture including particles and different gases, with sources and compositions varying over space and time.
Highlights of SoGA Report 2024:
Air pollution has become the second-leading global risk factor for death, surpassing tobacco and diabetes and trailing only hypertension.
Among these, noncommunicable diseases, including heart disease, stroke, diabetes, lung cancer, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, accounted for nearly 90% of the disease burden from air pollution.
Six out of ten deaths worldwide attributed to air pollution are caused by the tiny PM2.5 particle; the remaining two pollutants, ozone and household air pollution, account for 38% and 6% of deaths, respectively.
Diseases and ailments linked to air pollution claimed 8.1 million lives worldwide in 2021, with India accounting for one in four of these deaths.
India and China together account for 54% of the total global disease burden due to air pollution in 2021. In India, air pollution accounted for 21 lakh deaths, and in China, it caused 23 lakh deaths.
More than 7,00,000 deaths in children under five years were linked to air pollution. This represents 15% of all global deaths among children under five.
Lower respiratory infections (LRIs) are the leading cause of death for children under five
India recorded the highest number of deaths among children under five due to air pollution worldwide in 2021.
Air pollution in India was responsible for the deaths of 1,69,400 children under the age of five in 2021. This means that around 464 children died every day in India that year due to diseases caused by air pollution.
In 2021, nearly 50% (2,37,000 deaths) of all ozone-related COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) deaths were in India, followed by China with 1,25,600 deaths and Bangladesh with 15,000 deaths.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.unicef.org/press-releases/air-pollution-accounted-81-million-deaths-globally-2021-becoming-second-leading-risk
“World Investment Report”, recently seen in news, is published by:
UN Conference on Trade and Development
Explanation :
Recently, the World Investment Report 2024 was published by the UN Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD).
It focuses on trends in foreign direct investment (FDI) worldwide, at the regional and country levels and emerging measures to improve its contribution to development.
Key highlights of the report
Global foreign direct investment (FDI) in 2023 decreased marginally, by 2 per cent.
FDI flows to developing countries fell by 7 per cent to $867 billion, mainly due to an 8 per cent decrease in developing Asia.
China, the second largest FDI recipient in the world, saw a rare decline in inflows.
Industry trends showed lower investment in the infrastructure and digital economy sectors, but strong growth in the global value chain-intensive sectors of manufacturing and critical minerals.
International investment in sectors relevant for the Sustainable Development Goals in developing countries declined in 2023.
Key facts about the UN Conference on Trade and Development
It is the UN’s leading institution dealing with trade and development.
It is a permanent intergovernmental body established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1964.
Its objective is to assist developing countries, especially the least developed countries, and countries with economies in transition, to integrate beneficially into the global economy.
Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland.
UNCTAD membership consists of 195 states.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/africa/green-signal-significant-foreign-investment-in-africa-s-clean-energy-sector-in-2023-encouraging-says-unctad-96819
With reference to Garnets, consider the following statements:
- These are formed in metamorphic and igneous rocks.
- These are used for manufacturing blasting media and abrasives.
- India produces half of the world’s garnets.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
New research found that Australia’s enigmatic pink sand- Garnet was born in Antarctic mountains.
It is a fairly common mineral, deep red in color. It crystallizes at high temperatures, usually where large mountain belts grind upwards out of colliding tectonic plates.
It is rare in beach sand which is destroyed by prolonged exposure to the waves and currents of the ocean.
These are opaque, transparent to translucent minerals that can be found as individual crystals, pebbles, or clumps of inter-grown crystals.
There are six main types of garnet, all with slightly different chemical compositions. All kinds of garnet can form in the same place and sometimes garnets can be a combination of types e.g. pyrope-almadine or pyrope-spessartine.
Formation:
These are formed in metamorphic (schist, amphibolite, and eclogite) and igneous (some granites and peridotite) rocks.
This mineral grows deep in Earth’s crust, in the same kind of conditions in which diamonds are formed.
When sand contains an abundance of garnets, it usually contains epidote and magnetite as well.
Australia produces almost half of the world garnets, with the rest mainly coming from India, USA, and China.
Uses: It is used for manufacturing blasting media, abrasives, grinding wheels, mosaic cutting stones, decorative wall plasters, ceramics, polishing of picture tubes, glass polishing and antiskid surface for roads, air strips etc.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/australias-enigmatic-pink-sand-was-born-in-antarctic-mountains-new-research/article68303376.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Iberian lynx:
- It is a carnivore species endemic to Europe.
- It is categorized as critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Iberian lynx, one of the rarest cat species globally, has moved from being ‘endangered’ to ‘vulnerable’ on The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
It is one of two carnivore species endemic to Europe (the other being European mink, Mustela lutreola).
It is the world’s most endangered and known for its pointy ears, long legs and leopard-like spotted fur.
This species, like other cat species, is sexually dimorphic, with males being heavier and longer than females.
This lynx is generally nocturnal and its activity patterns are closely synchronized with those of their major prey, the rabbit.
Habitat: It require variable terrain below 1300 m, containing a mosaic of closed Mediterranean scrubland interspersed with open patches of grassland, often with marsh ecotones.
Distribution: It was once distributed throughout the Iberian Peninsula; the species is now sparsely distributed in Spain and Portugal.
Threats: These are related to human activities, such as poaching and habitat destruction, Illegal Hunting and decrease food base etc.
Conservation status
IUCN Red list: Vulnerable
CITES: Appendix II
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/world/iberian-lynx-escapes-endangered-status-with-remarkable-population-surge-9405585/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Cycad Plants:
- These are the oldest surviving plant species on Earth.
- These are gymnosperms and reproduce using cones.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Scientists are using remote sensing technologies and artificial intelligence to assist the search for a female to Encephalartos woodii plant in the Ngoye Forest.
It is a plant from South Africa and is a member of the cycad family with thick trunks and large stiff leaves that form a majestic crown.
Cycads are the oldest surviving plant groups alive today and are often referred to as “living fossils” or “dinosaur plants” due to their evolutionary history dating back to the Carboniferous period, approximately 300 million years ago.
During the Mesozoic era (250-66 million years ago), also known as the Age of Cycads, these plants were ubiquitous, thriving in the warm, humid climates that characterised the period.
Although they resemble ferns or palms, cycads are not related to either. Cycads are gymnosperms, a group that includes conifers and ginkgos. Unlike flowering plants (angiosperms), cycads reproduce using cones.
It is impossible to tell male and female apart until they mature and produce their magnificent cones.
Female cones are typically wide and round, and male cones appear elongated and narrower.
The male cones produce pollen, which is carried by insects (weevils) to the female cones. This ancient method of reproduction has remained largely unchanged for millions of years.
Despite their longevity, today cycads are ranked as the most endangered living organisms on Earth with the majority of the species considered threatened with extinction.
This is because of their slow growth and reproductive cycles, typically taking ten to 20 years to mature, and habitat loss due to deforestation, grazing and over-collection.
Threats: Their striking appearance and ancient lineage make them popular in exotic ornamental horticulture and that has led to illegal trade.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/scientists-search-for-a-female-partner-for-worlds-loneliest-plant/article68316419.ece
“Claude 3.5 Sonnet”, a large language model recently seen in news is developed by:
Anthropic
Explanation :
Recently, Anthropic has launched its latest AI model called Claude 3.5 Sonnet — the company’s first release in the upcoming Claude 3.5 AI model series.
It is a large language model (LLM), and is part of the family of LLMs which is being developed by Anthropic.
These models are known as generative pre-trained transformers, which mean they have been pre-trained to predict the next word in large amounts of text.
It is likely to be the middle model (based on parameter size) in the upcoming series of AI models by Anthropic — the smallest and biggest models are yet to be released.
Anthropic has said Claude 3.5 Sonnet outperforms Claude 3 Opus by a huge margin. The new model is claimed to be twice as fast as the Claude 3 Sonnet.
It is Anthropic’s strongest vision model. A vision model in AI is a model capable of interpreting and analysing visual data such as images and videos.
According to the company, the improvements in Claude 3.5 Sonnet are most noticeable for tasks that require visual reasoning such as decoding charts and graphs. The model is also capable of accurately transcribing text from imperfect images.
How does Claude 3.5 Sonnet perform?
According to Anthropic, Claude 3.5 Sonnet sets some new industry benchmarks in capabilities such as coding proficiency (HumanEval), graduate-level reasoning (GPQA), and undergraduate-level knowledge (MMLU).
The new model has also shown significant improvement in grasping nuance, humour, and complex instructions.
It is exceptional at writing high-quality content with a natural and relatable tone, according to Anthropic.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/claude-3-5-sonnet-9407302/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Space Variable Objects Monitor (SVOM), recently seen in the news:
- It is a joint project of NASA and ISRO.
- It aims to detect and study gamma-ray bursts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A Long March 2-C rocket carrying the French-Chinese satellite Space Variable Objects Monitor (SVOM) successfully lifted off from southwestern China recently.
About Space Variable Objects Monitor (SVOM):
It is a French-Chinese satellite which aims to detect and study gamma-ray bursts.
It was launched by a Long March-2C rocket from the Xichang Satellite Launch Center in southwest China’s Sichuan Province.
It is a 930-kilogram satellite carrying four instruments - two French and two Chinese.
The satellite has been sent into an orbit over 600 kilometers above Earth and has a designed life of five years, though scientists expect it could be operational for as long as 20 years.
Gamma-ray bursts (GRBs):
GRBs generally occur after the explosion of huge stars- those more than 20 times as big as the sun - or the fusion of compact stars.
The extremely bright cosmic beams can give off a blast of energy equivalent to over a billion billion suns.
Observing them is like “looking back in time, as the light from these objects takes a long time to reach earth.
The rays carry traces of the gas clouds and galaxies they pass through on their journey through space -valuable data for better understanding the history and evolution of the universe.
GRBs are notoriously hard to catch as they can appear anywhere in the sky and last for just a few seconds. They are readily absorbed by the Earth’satmosphere, so the only way to record them is to place probes in space.
SVOM has the potential to unravel several mysteries in the field of GRBs, including detecting the most distant GRBs in the universe, which correspond to the earliest GRBs.
The data gathered will help test the laws of physics under conditions that cannot be replicated on Earth and provide insights into the dynamics of the universe.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/china/rocket-carrying-french-chinese-satellite-launches-from-southwestern-china-to-study-gamma-ray-bursts/articleshow/111186253.cms
Namaqualand, recently seen in the news, lies in which one of the following regions?
Southwestern Africa
Explanation :
Scientists recently discovered the world’s oldest inhabited termite mounds along the Buffels River in Namaqualand, dating back 34,000 years.
About Namaqualand:
It is a desert region of southwestern Africa.
From north to south, it stretches from the Karas region of Namibia to the Northern Cape province of South Africa.
From west to east, it stretches from the Namib Desert to the Kalahari.
It covers an area of 400,000 square kilometres.
The Namibian section, north of the Orange River, is sometimes called Great Namaqualand.
The South African section, south of the Orange River, is sometimes called Little Namaqualand.
It is very dry. For a large part of the year succulents are almost the only plants that can be seen on the vast plains.
Succulents can hold water for long periods and can survive in droughts.
Rain falls mostly in the winter. If there is enough rain, wildflowers cover Namaqualand for a few weeks during springtime.
The area was traditionally inhabited by the Nama people before the German occupation of the region in the 19th century.
There are large deposits of copper in Namaqualand. The Nama mined them for hundreds of years.
In the early 1900s diamonds were discovered in several places in Namaqualand, including Sperrgebiet in Namibia and the Richtersveld in South Africa.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://scitechdaily.com/astonishing-discovery-34000-year-old-inhabited-termite-mounds-discovered-in-south-africa/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Fast Track Immigration Trusted Traveller Programme (FTI-TTP):
- It is an initiative by the Central Government offering expedited emigration and immigration clearance for only Indian citizens.
- It will be implemented through an online portal and the Bureau of Immigration will be the nodal agency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Union Home Minister recently inaugurated the Fast Track Immigration Trusted Traveller Programme (FTI-TTP) at Indira Gandhi International (IGI) Airport.
About Fast Track Immigration Trusted Traveller Programme (FTI-TTP):
It is an initiative by the Central Government, designed for faster, smoother, and safer immigration clearance.
It is likely to help reduce congestion at airports by offering expedited emigration and immigration clearance for pre-verified travellers.
The Ministry of Home Affairs collaborated with the Ministry of Civil Aviation and the Bureau of Immigration for the FTI-TTP.
The FTI-TTP is similar to the Global Entry Program offered by the United States.
It allows pre-approved and low-risk travellers to benefit from expedited immigration and security clearance upon arrival.
Other than New Delhi, the FTI-TTP was launched in Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata, Bengaluru, Hyderabad, Kochi, and Ahmedabad airports in the first phase.
The FTI-TTP would run on e-gates or automated border gates that would minimise human intervention in the immigration clearance process and would be implemented in two phases.
In the first phase, Indian citizens and OCI cardholders will be covered, and foreign travellers will be included in the second phase.
The FTI-TTP will be implemented through an online portal, and the Bureau of Immigration will be the nodal agency.
To enroll in the scheme, the applicant has to register online on the portal with details and documents.
Once the application for FTI-TTP is approved, those individuals will not need to go through the arduous process of standing in long queues for immigration clearance while arriving in India.
The FTI registration will be valid for a maximum of five years or until the validity of the passport, whichever comes first.
Process:
Under the process, as soon as the registered passenger reaches the e-gate, he/she will scan his/her boarding pass issued by the airlines at the e-gates to get the details of his/her flight.
The passport will be scanned, and the biometrics of the passenger will be authenticated at the e-gates.
Once the identity of the passenger is established and biometric authentication is done, the e-gate will open, and immigration clearance will be deemed to have been granted.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/amit-shah-inaugurates-fast-track-immigration-trusted-traveller-programme-at-delhi-igi-airport-what-it-means/articleshow/111186295.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Russell’s Viper:
- It is a highly venomous terrestrial snake endemic to Sub-Saharan Africa.
- It is classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
All health centres and hospitals in Bangladesh have been ordered to stock anti-venom after reports of an increase in people being bitten by snakes, especially by the Russell’s viper.
About Russell’s Viper:
It is a highly venomous terrestrial snake of the family Viperidae found in Asia.
Scientific Name: Daboia russeli
The species is named after Patrick Russell, a Scottish herpetologist who first described many of India’s snakes in the 1790s.
It is one of the big four snakes (deadliest snakes) in India, the others being the Common krait (Bungarus caeruleus), the Indian Cobra (Naja naja) and the Saw-scaled viper (Echis carinatus).
Distribution: Russell’s vipers are found in India, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Nepal, Myanmar, Thailand, Pakistan, Cambodia, Tibet, China (Guangxi, Guangdong), Taiwan, and Indonesia.
Habitat:
They tend to avoid dense forests.
They are mostly found in open, grassy, or bushy areas, but may also be found in second-growth forests (scrub jungles), on forested plantations, and on farmland.
It is a major cause of snakebite deaths within its range because it often exists in farmlands where human contact and rodent prey is abundant.
However, it tends to avoid human contact and does not actively seek to bite people.
Most bites occur when humans inadvertently step on or try to handle the snake.
Most fatalities occur due to delayed medical treatment.
Features:
The snake can grow up to 1.5 meters and is identified by its distinctive reddish-brown spots outlined in black and white.
It has a wide, triangular head with small, overlapping scales, large nostrils, and small eyes with vertical pupils.
It is mainly nocturnal, becoming active as the sun fades.
These snakes are quite sedentary, often staying in one place for several days unless disturbed.
Conservations Status:
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://www.bbc.com/news/articles/ck55keekpljo
With reference to the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council, consider the following statements:
- It is a constitutional body responsible for making recommendations on issues related to the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India.
- One-tenth of the total number of members of the GST Council shall constitute the quorum at its meeting.
- Each decision of the council must be supported by a majority of not less than one-half of the weighted votes of the members present and voting.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The GST Council recently announced various recommendations relating to taxation, ITC claims and demand notices.
About GST Council:
It is a constitutional body responsible for making recommendationson issues related to the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India.
Article 279A of the Indian Constitution gives power to the President of India to constitute a joint forum of the Centre and States called the GST Council, consisting of:
Union Finance Minister as Chairperson
Union Minister of State, in-charge of Revenue of finance
Minister in-charge of finance or taxation, or any other Minister nominated by each State Government
It is an apex committee to modify, reconcile, or make recommendations to the Union and the States on important issues related to GST, like the goods and services that may be subjected to or exempted from GST, model GST Laws, principles that govern Place of Supply, threshold limits, GST rates including the floor rates with bands, special rates for raising additional resources during natural calamities/disasters, special provisions for certain States, etc.
Decisions in the GST Council are taken during its meetings.
One half of the total number of members of the GST Council shall constitute the quorum at its meeting.
Each decision of the council must be supported by a majority of not less than three-fourth of weighted votes of the members present and voting.
The vote of the Central Government shall have a weightage of 1/3rd of the votes cast, and the votes of all the State Governments taken together shall have a weightage of 2/3rd of the total votes cast in that meeting.
Secretariat:
The Secretariat manages the GST Council.
It is manned by officers taken on deputation from both the Central and State Governments.
The entire cost of managing the Secretariat is borne by the Central Government.
The Ex-officio Secretary to the GST Council is the Revenue Secretary of India.
The office of the council is located in New Delhi.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://www.news18.com/business/53rd-gst-council-meeting-highlights-fm-nirmala-sitharaman-8940996.html
Barda Wildlife Sanctuary is located in:
Gujarat
Explanation :
In a significant move that is expected to boost the long-term conservation of Asiatic lions, the Forest Department in Gujarat has started translocating spotted deer and sambars from Gir Forest to the Barda Wildlife Sanctuary.
It is located in the state of Gujarat.
Rivers: There are two waterways, the Bileshvary River and the Joghri River, and two dams, Khambala and Fodara.
Ethnic races such as Maldharis, Bharvads, Rabaris, and Gadhvis live in this region.
To develop Barda as the second home for the Asiatic lion, the state government implemented the ‘Gir-Barda Project’ in 1979.
Flora: It is characteristically abundant in floral diversity, which consists of a good number of medicinal plants.
The sanctuary boasts about 650 plant species, which comprise Rayan, Babul, Ber, Jamun, Amli, Gorad, Bamboo, Dhav, Dhudhlo, etc
Fauna: Leopard, Hyena, Wild boar, wolf, Jackal, blue bull, rare and endangered spotted eagle, crested hawk eagle, etc.
Key facts about Asiatic lions
It is endemic to Gir landscape of Gujarat, the Asiatic Lion (Scientific name - Panthera leo persica) is one of five pantherine cats native to India.
Conservation status
IUCN Red List: Endangered
The Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972: Schedule I
CITES: Appendix I
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/ahmedabad/barda-sanctuary-lion-gujarat-forest-dept-translocating-deer-gir-porbandar-9403494/
With reference to Methane, consider the following statements:
- It is a short-lived greenhouse gas.
- It is a colorless, odorless and flammable water insoluble gas.
- It leads to ground-level ozone pollution.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
According to a new study by researchers from the University of Gothenburg, a significant portion of the methane gas released from the ruptured Nord Stream pipelines in the Baltic Sea last September never made it into the atmosphere.
It is the primary component of natural gas, is responsible for approximately a third of the warming we are experiencing today.
Characteristics of Methane
It is a colorless, odorless and flammable water insoluble gas.
It is also known as marsh gas or methyl hydride.
It is easily ignited. The vapors are lighter than air. Under prolonged exposure to fire or intense heat.
It is a powerful and short-lived greenhouse gas, with a lifetime of about a decade and Global Warming Potential about 80 times greater than that of carbon dioxide (CO2) during the 20 years after it is released into the atmosphere.
The largest sources of methane are agriculture, fossil fuels, and decomposition of landfill waste.
Impacts
It harms human and ecosystem health.
Its emissions lead to ground-level ozone pollution which causes approximately a million premature deaths per year globally and reduces crop productivity and harms ecosystems.
Key facts about Baltic Sea
It is a semi-enclosed inland sea located in Northern Europe.
It is an arm of the North Atlantic Ocean, extending northward from the latitude of southern Denmark almost to the Arctic Circle and separating the Scandinavian Peninsula from the rest of continental Europe.
It has a coastline is shared by several countries, including Sweden, Poland, Lithuania, Latvia, Finland, Estonia, Germany, Denmark, and Russia.
It is connected to the White Sea via the White Sea Canal and to the North Sea’s German Bight via the Kiel Canal.
It connects to the Atlantic Ocean through the Danish Straits.
It contains three major gulfs: the Gulf of Bothnia to the north, the Gulf of Finland to the east, and the Gulf of Riga slightly to the south of that.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/environment/story/nord-stream-pipeline-leak-methane-released-in-baltic-sea-remains-in-water-2555684-2024-06-2
Consider the following statements with reference to the International Hydrographic Organisation:
- It is an intergovernmental organization which promotes uniformity in nautical charts and documents.
- India is not a member of this organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
On 21 June every year, the International Hydrographic Organisation (IHO) celebrates the World Hydrography Day to raise awareness about hydrography.
It is an intergovernmental organization that works to ensure all the world’s seas, oceans and navigable waters are surveyed and charted.
It was established in 1921, it coordinates the activities of national hydrographic offices and promotes uniformity in nautical charts and documents.
It issues survey best practices, provides guidelines to maximize the use of hydrographic survey data and develops hydrographic capabilities in Member States.
Member countries: It has currently 100 Member States.
The IHO Secretariat has been hosted by the Principality of Monaco.
India has been an active member of the International Hydrographic Organization (IHO) since 1955.
The Indian Naval Hydrographic Department (INHD), or the Marine Survey of India earlier, was established in 1874 in Kolkata.
It is the nodal agency for hydrographic surveys and has a fleet of indigenously built modern survey ships.
World Hydrography Day
It is celebrated annually on June 21.
The theme for 2024 is “Hydrographic Information - Enhancing Safety, Efficiency and Sustainability in Marine Activities”
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2027666
Consider the following statements with reference to the Sensorineural deafness:
- It is caused due to prolonged exposure to loud noise.
- It can occur in persons who are infected with meningitis and mumps.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, bollywood playback singer Alka Yagnik has been diagnosed with Sensorineural deafness.
It is a type of hearing loss caused by damage to the inner ear or the nerve pathways that transmit sound from the ear to the brain.
Although sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) is a natural process of ageing, listening to very loud music can also cause permanent to the inner ear or the auditory nerve.
Within human inner ear, a spiral-shaped organ called the cochlea contains tiny hairs known as stereocilia. These hairs are responsible for converting vibrations from sound waves into neural signals, which your auditory nerve then transmits to your brain.
Causes of Sensorineural deafness
Congenital Factors: Genetic factors or complications during pregnancy or childbirth.
Noise Exposure: Prolonged exposure to loud noise can damage inner ear hair cells, leading to noise-induced hearing loss.
Ageing: Natural ageing processes can damage or destroy hair cells in the inner ear.
Infections and Diseases: Conditions like meningitis, mumps, measles, and autoimmune diseases like Meniere’s disease.
Trauma: Head injuries or inner ear trauma.
Ototoxic Medications: Certain antibiotics and chemotherapy drugs.
Symptoms
Difficulty understanding speech
Muffled or distorted sounds.
Ringing, buzzing, or hissing in the ears.
Difficulty hearing high-pitched sounds.
Balance issues.
Hence both the statements are correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/health/story/alka-yagnik-confirms-rare-sensory-hearing-loss-2554737-2024-06-18
Consider the following statements with reference to the Gas Flaring:
- It is the process of burning of the natural gas associated with oil extraction.
- It releases nitrogen oxides which impacts air quality.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
As per the World Bank’s Global Gas Flaring Tracker Report, in 2023, the amount of gas flared worldwide rose by nine billion cubic meters (bcm) to 148 bcm, its highest level since 2019 .
It is the burning of the natural gas associated with oil extraction.
The practice has persisted from the beginning of oil production over 160 years ago.
It takes place due to a range of issues, from market and economic constraints, to a lack of appropriate regulation and political will.
Flaring and venting are a waste of a valuable natural resource that should either be used for productive purposes, such as generating power, or conserved.
Why is gas flared?
Flaring persists to this day because it is a relatively safe, though wasteful and polluting, method of disposing of the associated gas that comes from oil production.
Impacts on environment
The flare’s combustion converts hydrocarbons to carbon dioxide and water, which lessens the climate impact and reduces the safety concerns of the natural gas on site but also produces nitrogen oxides, or NOx.
NOx—which includes the highly reactive gases nitric oxide and nitrogen dioxide—directly and indirectly impacts air quality.
How to reduce gas flaring? Oil producers can either re-inject associated gas or use it for productive purposes.
Hence both the statements are correct.
News: https://www.livemint.com/companies/news/fossil-fuel-firms-flared-most-gas-since-2019-says-world-bank-11718919777416.html
With reference to the Indus Water Treaty (IWT), consider the following statements:
- It was signed between India and Pakistan, regulating the use and distribution of the Indus River system.
- The treaty was brokered by the United Nations, which too is a signatory to the treaty.
- The treaty prohibits both countries from using each other’s rivers for any purpose.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
A Pakistani delegation recently arrived in Jammu as part of ongoing discussions concerning the 1960 Indus Water Treaty (IWT).
About Indus Water Treaty (IWT):
It is a treaty signed between India and Pakistan regulating the use and distribution of the Indus River system.
It was signed by then-Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and former Pakistan President Ayub Khan in 1960.
The treaty was brokered by the World Bank, which too is a signatory to the treaty.
The pact sought to divide the water of the Indus River and its tributaries (Sutlej, Beas, Ravi, Jhelum, and Chenab) equitably among the two countries.
Under the treaty, water from three eastern rivers, Beas, Ravi, and Sutlej, was allocated to India, and water from the three western rivers – Chenab, Indus, and Jhelum were allocated to Pakistan.
Pakistan roughly got 80% of the water in the Indus drainage system.
The treaty also permits both countries to use the other’s rivers for certain purposes, such as small hydroelectric projects that require little or no water storage.
The treaty is overseen by the Permanent Indus Commission (PIC), a bilateral body with commissioners from both countries tasked with implementing and managing treaty provisions, and resolving any questions, differences, or disputes that may arise.
The World Bank’s role is to appoint a neutral expert in case of ‘technical’ differences, failing which the differences are escalated to a dispute for international arbitration.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/pakistani-delegation-arrives-in-jammu-for-indus-water-treaty-talks/articleshow/111211030.cms
Kolar Gold Fields is located in which one of the following states?
Karnataka
Explanation :
The Karnataka government recently cleared a proposal of the Centre for reviving gold mining and auctioning of 13 tailing dumps at Kolar Gold Fields (KGF) by the Bharat Gold Mines Ltd. (BGML).
About Kolar Gold Fields (KGF):
KGF (once known as ‘Little England’) is a mining area in the Kolar District of Karnataka, 100 km from Bengaluru.
It is estimated that gold has been mined in KFG for over 2000 years.
KGF’s modern success is generally attributed to the firm John Taylor & Sons, after John Taylor III took control of the mines in 1880 and established what was at one time the deepest and most productive gold mine in the world.
KGF was the first Indian city to be electrified in 1902.
At its peak, KGF was home to 30000 mine workers and their families and was a multiethnic community with experienced miners recruited from around the world.
The mines were run by the company up until 1956, when they were taken over by the Government of Mysore, who employed John Taylor & Sons as mining consultants.
Although the annual production in some years was more than 95 percent of India’s gold output, the mines declined and finally closed in 2001.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/state-clears-centres-proposal-on-reviving-gold-mining-at-kgf/article68311924.ece
Which one of the following cities lies on the banks of the Seine River?
Paris
Explanation :
Despite a massive cleanup effort, Paris’ Seine River remains too polluted to host swimming events for the upcoming Olympic Games, city officials have said recently.
About Seine River:
It is France’s second-longest river after the Loire, covering a distance of 775 kilometers.
This river has a drainage basin, known as the Paris Basin, of approximately 79,000 square kilometers and drains mainly northern France.
Course:
It rises 446 meters above sea level in the wine-making region of Burgundy, near the town of Dijon.
As the Seine approaches Paris, it is joined by the Marne, one of its largest tributaries, on the right bank.
It flows through Paris for about 13 kilometers from west to east.
It finally empties into the English Channel, an arm of the Atlantic Ocean separating northern France and southern England.
Most of the river basin is formed of permeable rocks, the absorptive capacity of which mitigates the risk of river floods.
The basin receives modest annual precipitation ranging from 650 to 750 millimeters.
It is one of Europe’s great historic rivers and its drainage network carries most of the French inland waterway traffic.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.businessinsider.in/sports/news/seine-river-in-paris-still-too-polluted-for-olympic-events-as-opening-ceremony-looms/articleshow/111193838.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Investment Holding Companies (IHCs):
- Their primary purpose is to hold and manage investments in one or more subsidiary companies.
- They may be built around an industry vertical or broadly diversified across multiple industries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Shares of several investment holding companies (IHCs) rallied recently, defying weak market conditions, after the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Sebi) announced a special call auction session for their fair price discovery.
About Investment Holding Companies (IHCs):
IHCs, commonly referred to as Holdcos, are entities which hold assets and securities ofother listed companies, most commonly of their own group firms.
IHCs own a controlling interest in one or more companies but don’t provide other services (such as the production of goods or services) or engage in business directly.
It only serves as an ownership vehicle of other companies or investments.
Its primary purpose is to hold and manage investments in one or more subsidiary companies.
The holding company may or may not provide direct operational support to the companies it owns.
IHCs come in several forms, including private equity firms and publicly traded corporations.
An IHC may provide a vehicle for multiple investors to pool their funds and collectively invest around a specific investment objective or strategy, e.g.,real estate.
They may be built around an industry vertical or broadly diversified across multiple industries.
But they all have the same focus: to maximize investor returns through asset management and capital allocation.
Holding companies often look for businesses with growth potential or companies in need of restructuring or operational improvements.
They provide strategic guidance, financial resources, and connections to help grow businesses (i.e., their investments).
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.business-standard.com/markets/news/market-regulator-sebi-s-price-discovery-framework-puts-shade-on-holdcos-124062100902_1.html
Which among the following best describes “Stryker”, recently seen in the news?
A family of infantry combat vehicles
Explanation :
India and the United States are in advanced talks for the joint manufacture of the latest generation of Stryker armoured infantry combat vehicles (ICVs).
About Stryker armoured infantry combat vehicles (ICVs):
The Stryker is a family of eight-wheel-drive combat armoured infantry combat vehicles (ICVs).
It is jointly developed byGeneral Dynamics Land Systems (GDLS) Canadaand the General Dynamics Land Systems Division in the United States.
It was the first new military vehicleinducted into US Army service since the Abrams tank in the 1980s.
The Stryker can formulate a quick response to insurgencies or war-like situations, moving much faster than tanks on paved roads, thereby getting infantry squads into the fight more swiftly.
The Stryker vehicles have demonstrated a better chance of surviving against improvised explosive devices (IEDs) compared to other light military vehicles.
The Strykers can be transported via Chinook helicopters, which the Indian Air Force uses.
Features:
It is a V-hull armoured infantry vehicle equipped with a 30 mm cannon and a 105 mm mobile gun.
The Stryker hull is constructed from high-hardness steel.
On top of this, the Stryker has a layer of ceramic tile armor, offering additional protection.
It is manned by a two-person crew and can carry a nine-man infantry squad.
It has a range of 483 kilometers and can reach a top speed of around 100 km/h.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/india-us-advance-talks-on-joint-production-of-stryker-armoured-combat-vehicles/articleshow/111055729.cms?from=mdr
“Dendrophthoe longensis”, recently seen in news is a:
Plant
Explanation :
Recently, Indian botanists and researchers have discovered two new species of plants from two bio-geographic hotspots of the country the Andaman and Nicobar islands and Arunachal Pradesh.
Researchers discovered two new plant species namely Dendrophthoe longensis (from Andaman and Nicobar islands) and Petrocosmea arunachalense (from Arunachal Pradesh).
Dendrophthoe longensis
It is an aerial stem-parasitic flowering plant species discovered from the Long Islands of middle Andamans.
It was found on the specific host plant - Mango, Mangifera indica in the edge of evergreen forests, low land areas of tropical forests.
The species is from the family Mistletoe - a group of hemi-parasitic flowering plants which exhibit a suite of remarkable adaptations associated with the hemi-parasitic habitat.
The species is sparsely scattered and confined to a few localities of Long Island.
Threats: Aerial stem-parasitic flowering mistletoe plants are under great pressure due to destruction of natural habitat and other anthropogenic activities especially timber harvesting of host tree species, developmental works which are causing population declines worldwide.
Petrocosmea arunachalense
It is a very small herb and the researchers located it inside a cave indicating that the species requires less sunlight
The species is completely white with purple blotch and the plant has a hairy texture.
It is only the second known species from the genus Petrocosmea in India.
What are biodiversity hotspots?
Biodiversity hotspots are geographic areas with an exceptionally high richness of species, including rare and endemic species.
Around the world, 36 areas qualify as hotspots. Their intact habitats represent just 2.5% of Earth’s land surface, but they support more than half of the world’s plant species as endemics
To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, a region must meet two strict criteria:
It must have at least 1,500 vascular plants as endemics — which is to say, it must have a high percentage of plant life found nowhere else on the planet. A hotspot, in other words, is irreplaceable.
It must have 30% or less of its original natural vegetation and must be threatened.
There are 4 biodiversity hotspots in India namely; Himalayas, Indo-Burma region, Western Ghats and Sundaland.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/two-biogeographic-hotspots-in-india-yield-two-new-plant-discoveries/article68321267.ece
Consider the following:
- Srinagar
- Hyderabad
- Vadnagar
How many of the above cities are under the UNESCO Creative Cities Network?
Only two
Explanation :
Kozhikode, a city in north Kerala celebrated for its rich cultural heritage, has been officially declared as India’s first UNESCO City of Literature under the UNESCO Creative Cities Network.
The UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) was created in 2004 to promote cooperation with and among cities that have identified creativity as a strategic factor for sustainable urban development.
Almost 300 cities around the world currently make up this network.
Objective: Placing creativity and cultural industries at the heart of their development plans at the local level and cooperating actively at the international level.
UNESCO designates the creative cities in seven fields: craft, folk art, media arts, film design, gastronomy, literature, and music.
Every year, UNESCO seeks applications from various cities across the globe to put them under its UCCN project.
The applications in India are routed through the Ministry of Culture.
India’s other cities in UCCN
Srinagar and Jaipur: in the field of crafts and folk arts
Mumbai: Film category
Chennai, Gwalior and Varanasi: Music category
Hyderabad: Gastronomy category
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/kozhikode/kozhikode-declared-first-city-of-literature-in-india/article68324598.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the e-Samridhi Portal:
- It was launched by National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd. and National Cooperative Consumers’ Federation of India.
- It aims to procure all horticultural crops from farmers at Minimum Support Prices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare and Rural Development urged the state governments to encourage more and more farmers to register on e-Samridhi portal so that they can avail the facility of assured procurement.
It was launched through National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd. (NAFED) and National Cooperative Consumers’ Federation of India Limited (NCCF).
It is for the registration of farmers and government is committed to procuring pulses at Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for farmers registered on the portal.
Portal registration of farmers can be done directly or through Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) and FPO.
The payment to the farmers will be made by NAFED directly into their mapped bank account and no agency will be involved in between.
Key facts about National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd
It is an apex organization of marketing cooperatives for agricultural produce in India.
It was founded on 2 October 1958 to promote the trade of agricultural produce and forest resources across the nation.
It is registered under Multi State Co-operative Societies Act.
With its headquarters in New Delhi, NAFED has four regional offices in Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata, apart from 28 zonal offices in capitals of states and important cities.
Functions
It is the nodal agency to implement price stabilization measures under “Operation Greens” which aims to double the farmers’ income by 2022.
Along with FCI the NAFED is involved in the procurement of oilseeds, pulses and copra under the Price Support Scheme (PSS).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/agriculture/agri-minister-asks-states-to-encourage-farmers-to-register-on-e-samridhi-portal-to-avail-procurement-benefits/articleshow/111171458.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Intergovernmental Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services:
- It provides scientific assessments about the state of knowledge regarding the planet’s biodiversity to policymakers.
- It was awarded with Blue Planet Prize for the year 2024.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Intergovernmental Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) has been selected for the 2024 Blue Planet Prize.
It is the intergovernmental organisation established in 2012.
It aims to strengthen the science-policy interface for biodiversity and ecosystem services for the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity
It provides policymakers with objective scientific assessments about the state of knowledge regarding the planet’s biodiversity, ecosystems and the benefits they provide to people, as well as the tools and methods to protect and sustainably use these vital natural assets.
This independent body was inspired by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) and the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment.
It is not a United Nations body. However, at the request of the IPBES Plenary and with the authorisation of the UNEP Governing Council in 2013, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to IPBES.
India is a member country of this organisation.
The governing body of IPBES (Plenary )– made up of the representatives of IPBES member States – usually meets once per year.
Secretariat: It is located in Bonn, Germany
Key facts about the Blue Planet Prize
It is awarded by Japan’s Asahi Glass Foundation annually to individuals and organisations to recognise outstanding achievements in scientific research and its application, which have helped provide solutions to global environmental problems.
The prize includes an award of $500,000.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/environment/ipbes-wins-prestigious-blue-planet-prize-96754
. Consider the following statements with reference to the superhydrophobic activated carbon catalyst:
- It is highly affordable catalyst and derived from biomass.
- It can be reused multiple times which makes the catalytic process more efficient.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A team of scientists from Assam, Odisha, China, and the United Kingdom have developed a water-repellent catalyst that can cut the cost of producing “environmentally benign” biodiesel substantially from the current levels.
The new catalyst named as “spherical superhydrophobic activated carbon catalyst” which is developed to withstand water by-product during the production of biodiesel.
This catalyst imitates the anti-wetting or water-repulsing properties of natural surfaces such as lotus leaves.
Advantages
The catalyst is derived from biomass (cellulose), is ecologically benign, abundant, and highly affordable.
This breakthrough has the potential to significantly reduce the cost of biodiesel production, making sustainable energy more accessible.
It is highly effective and can be reused multiple times, making the catalytic process more efficient and cost-effective.
At present, the cost of biodiesel in India is about ₹100 or UD$1.2 per litre. Using the superhydrophobic activated carbon catalyst can bring down the cost to about 37 cents per litre.
Biodiesel: It is a renewable, biodegradable fuel manufactured domestically from vegetable oils, animal fats, or recycled restaurant grease.
What is activated carbon?
It is a class of amorphous carbonaceous material with large porosity and internal surface area.
Coconut shells, coal, and wood are the basic sources of activated carbon.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/catalytic-boost-for-cheaper-biodiesel-production/article68304211.ece
What is Dr. E. K. Janaki Ammal known for?
Her contributions to botany
Explanation :
A new plant species discovered in Arunachal Pradesh has been named Didymocarpus janakiae.
About Didymocarpus janakiae:
It is a new species of plant discovered from the sub-tropical forests of the West Kameng district, Arunachal Pradesh, at an elevation of 2,300 meters above sea level.
It has been named in honour of Dr. E. K. Janaki Ammal, who is a pioneering Indian botanist known for her contributions to the field of botany, especially plant breeding, genetics and cytology.
In 1931, she became the first Indian woman to be awarded a doctorate in botany in the US (University of Michigan), breaking both gender and caste barriers.
It belongs to the plant genus Didymocarpus, commonly known as stone flower, which is part of the African Violet family (Gesneriaceae).
The genus consists of 111 species, 27 of which are present in India, including the newly described species D. janakiae.
They grow in pristine, undisturbed habitats like moss-covered rocks, indicating the quality of the ecosystem.
With a limited known population of fewer than 20 individuals found in a single location near Bomdila, West Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh, the D. janakiae faces a critical threat due to habitat degradation.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.eastmojo.com/news/2024/06/24/new-plant-species-found-in-arunachal-named-after-botanist-dr-janaki-ammal/
Vadhavan Port, a greenfield deep-sea port, lies in which one of the following state?
Maharashtra
Explanation :
The Union Cabinet recently approved the Rs 76,220 crore Vadhavan Port project in Maharashtra after months of deliberations.
About Vadhavan Port:
It is an approved greenfield deep-sea port in Vadhavan, Palghar District, Maharashtra.
The port will be developed as an all-weather deep draft major port, which will include the development of core infrastructure, terminals and other commercial infrastructure in Public-Private Partnership (PPP) mode.
The project will be constructed by Vadhavan Port Project Limited (VPPL), a special purpose vehicle (SPV) formed by the Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority (JNPA) and Maharashtra Maritime Board (MMB) with a shareholding of 74% and 26%, respectively.
The total estimated cost for the project, including land acquisition is Rs. 76,220 crores.
The port will have nine container terminals, each 1000 meters long, four multipurpose berths, including the coastal berth, four liquid cargo berths, a Ro-Ro berth, and a Coast Guard berth.
The Project involves the reclamation of 1,448 hectares of area in the sea and the construction of 10.14 km of offshore breakwater and container/cargo storage areas.
The project will create a cumulative capacity of 298 million metric tons (MMT) per annum including around 23.2 million TEUs (twenty-foot equivalents) of container handling capacity.
The project will be connected to the Delhi–Mumbai Expressway via a link expressway.
It is expected to serve as a gateway port for the upcoming India-Middle East-Europe Corridor (IMEC) and International North-South Transportation Corridor (INSTC).
It’s a key project within the Indian government’s Sagar Mala initiative to enhance the performance of the country’s logistics sector.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.business-standard.com/economy/news/rs-76-000-cr-vadhavan-port-project-in-maharashtra-gets-cabinet-approval-124061901136_1.html
With reference to Priority Sector Lending (PSL), consider the following statements:
- Banks can meet their PSL obligations by extending loans, providing credit facilities and offering financial products and services to priority sectors.
- Housing and Social Infrastructure are categories of priority sectors in India.
- The Central Government periodically updates the sectors that are eligible to get priority sector lending and the limits of loans.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently revised its priority sector guidelines to encourage banks to provide small loans in economically disadvantaged districts with low average loan sizes.
About Priority Sector Lending (PSL):
It is a lending requirement administered by the RBI, requiring banks to give a minimum proportion of their loans to sectors of development importance or the sectors that have difficulty of getting loans.
The RBI is periodically updating the sectors that are eligible to get priority sector lending and the limits of loans.
Similarly, the regulations identify institutions that are obliged to provide these loans.
The categories of priority sectors are as follows:
Agriculture
Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises
Export Credit
Education
Housing
Social Infrastructure
Renewable Energy
Others
The targets under PSL:
Domestic SCBs and foreign banks with 20 branches and above: 40 percent of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure (CEOBE), whichever is higher.
Foreign banks with less than 20 branches: 40 percent of ANBC or CEOBE, whichever is higher; out of which up to 32% can be in the form of lending to exports and not less than 8% can be to any other priority sector.
Regional Rural Banks and Small Finance Banks: 75 percent of ANBC or CEOBE, whichever is higher.
Primary (Urban) Co-operative Banks (UCBs): 40 percent of ANBC or CEOBE, whichever is higher, which shall be increased to 75 percent of ANBC or CEOBE, whichever is higher, with effect from FY2025-26.
Banks can meet their PSL obligations by extending loans, providing credit facilities, and offering financial products and services to individuals, entities, and enterprises in the priority sectors.
They can also fulfil their targets through investments in eligible instruments, such as bonds issued by entities engaged in priority sector activities.
In case, banks fail to meet their PSL targets, they have to deposit the allocated amount to the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) established with NABARD and to other funds with NABARD, SIDBI, Mudra, National Housing Bank, etc., as decided by the RBI from time to time.
What are Priority Sector Lending Certificates (PSLCs)?
PSLCs are certificates that are issued against priority sector loans for banks.
They allow banks to meet their targets and sub-targets when it comes to priority sector lending by buying the instruments.
The banks use PSLCs to guard against shortfalls.
The lending certificates also incentivize, through surplus, to lend more to priority sectors.
Revised RBI Guidelines:
The new norms discourage lending in districts with high average loan sizes.
Starting from FY25, more weight (125%) will be given to fresh priority sector loans in districts where the loan availability is low (less than Rs 9,000 per person).
In districts with high loan availability (more than Rs 42,000 per person), the loans will have a weight of 90%.
With the exception of outlier districts with low credit availability and those with high loan sizes, all other districts will continue to have the current importance level of 100%.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/mumbai/rbi-revises-priority-sector-lending-norms/articleshow/111178304.cms
With reference to the National Investigation Agency (NIA), consider the following statements:
- It works under the aegis of Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
- It was created in the aftermath of the 2001 Indian Parliament attack.
- It is empowered to deal with terror-related crimes across states with special permission from the states.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The National Investigation Agency (NIA) recently charge-sheeted eight people suspected to be a part of a transnational syndicate trafficking Rohingyas and Bangladeshis into India using forged documents.
About National Investigation Agency (NIA):
NIA is the Central Counter Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency of India.
Parent Ministry: Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
Establishment:
It was created after the 2008 Mumbai terror attacks, as the need for a central agency to combat terrorism was realized.
It was established under the National Investigation Agency Act, 2008.
The NIA, with its headquarters in New Delhi, has 18 branch offices across the country.
It investigates and prosecutes offences that affect:
the sovereignty and integrity of India;
the security of our country;
friendly relations with foreign countries; and
our implementation of international treaties, agreements, etc. of the United Nations and other international organisations.
What offences does the NIA regulate?
It investigates and prosecutes offences related to explosive substances, atomic energy, nuclear weapons, unlawful activities, terrorist activities, hijacking, etc.
The NIA has the power to regulate any offence given in the Schedule of the NIA Act.
The NIA Act was amended in 2019 to enlarge the mandate of the NIA by inclusion of offences related to human trafficking, manufacture and sale of prohibited arms, cyber-terrorism, and offences under the Explosive Substances Act, 1908.
Jurisdiction:
The agency is empowered to deal with terror-related crimes across states without special permission from the states.
It works under a written proclamation from the Ministry of Home Affairs.
A State Government may request the Central Government to hand over the investigation of a case to the NIA, provided the case has been registered for the offences as contained in the schedule to the NIA Act.
The Central government can ask the NIA to take over the investigation of any scheduled offence anywhere across the nation.
According to the NIA (Amendment) Act, 2019, officers of the NIA will have the power to investigate scheduled offences committed outside India, subject to international treaties and domestic laws of other countries.
Powers:
NIA officers have the power to investigate scheduled offences and arrest people who are involved in such offences.
In relation to this, the officers of the NIA have all the powers, duties, privileges, and liabilities which ordinary police officers have while conducting an investigation.
The administration of the NIA lies with its Director-General (DF), who enjoys the same powers as a Director-General of Police.
While investigating any offence under the Act, the NIA can request a state government to associate itself with the investigation.
The NIA can also take the approval of the Central government to transfer a case to a state government for investigation and trial. For doing this, the NIA will take into account the seriousness of the offence and other relevant factors.
The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967, was amended in 2019 to empower DG to seize/attach the properties related to proceeds of terrorism in cases being investigated by the NIA.
Special Courts:
Various special courts have been notified by the Govt. of India for trial of the cases arising out of offences committed in various states of the Union.
The Central government can choose session courts in different States to function as special courts for the trial of offences under the Act.
These Special Courts are chosen in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court of the respective State.
Every offence investigated by the NIA is tried by the Special Court, which has authority in the local area where the offence was committed.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/nia-charge-sheets-eight-people-allegedly-involved-in-trafficking-rohingyas-bangladeshis-into-india/articleshow/111238679.cms
The Javelin Anti-Tank Missile, recently seen in the news, is developed and produced by which one of the following countries?
United States
Explanation :
India and the US recently held discussions on the co-production of American javelin missiles in India to meet the requirements of the Indian military.
About Javelin Anti-Tank Missile:
It is a man-portable antitank guided missile (ATGM) system.
It is developed and produced jointly by American defence majors Raytheon and Lockheed Martin.
It was designed to defeat heavily armored vehicles, such as main battle tanks and lighter-skinned military vehicles.
The weapon also has capability against other target types, like fortifications, bunkers, and helicopters.
It first entered service with the U.S. military in 1996.
Features:
It measures roughly 1.2 m in length, 127 mm in diameter, and weighs 22.1 kg.
The missile carries a single 8.4 kg tandem-charge, High-Explosive Antitank (HEAT) warhead.
It has a qualified maximum range of 2,500.
It uses “fire-and-forget” technology using automatic infrared guidance to guide itself to the target without external commands or target designation.
It is designed to be shoulder-fired but may alternatively be mounted on wheeled or tracked vehicles.
It can be used in direct attack mode to destroy a target or, if fired upwards, to shoot down a low-flying aircraft such as a helicopter.
Its reload and reacquire time takes around one minute.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/india-us-discussing-co-production-of-javelin-anti-tank-missiles/articleshow/111236292.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements with reference to the Lake Natron:
- It is located on the border between Tanzania and Kenya.
- It is a freshwater lake which is fed by the Nile River.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
According to experts, the population of flamingos on Lake Natron is steadily declining as fewer birds return each year due to extreme weather and encroachment.
It is a salt lake located on the border between Tanzania and Kenya, part of the eastern branch of the Great Rift Valley.
It is a Ramsar site and has a unique composition of warm waters and salt, caustic soda, and magnesite deposits that provide ideal conditions for flamingos to thrive.
Primarily, the lake is fed by the Ewaso Ng’iro River, which originates from the central region of Kenya.
One of the most striking features of this Lake is its striking red coloration. The primary reason for its hue lies in its extreme alkalinity.
Threats: Several factors, including agriculture, pollution, and climate change, are threatening the beauty of this unique ecosystem.
Key facts about Great Rift Valley
It is one of the most extensive rifts on Earth’s surface that runs along part of East Africa. It is part of a larger feature called the East African Rift System (EARS).
It runs from Jordan in southwestern Asia to the coast of the Indian Ocean in central Mozambique.
It runs across many countries: Eritrea, Djibouti, Ethiopia, Kenya, Tanzania, Uganda, Rwanda, Burundi, the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC), Malawi, Zambia, and Mozambique.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/africa/flamingos-under-threat-climate-imp
Consider the following:
- Mammal Puram
- Mysore
- Varanasi
How many of the above cities from India are added under the World Craft City Programme?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, Srinagar has earned the World Craft City (WCC) tag from the World Crafts Council (WCC).
It is a groundbreaking initiative launched in 2014 by the World Crafts Council AISBL (WCC-International) in recognition of the pivotal role local authorities, craftspeople, and communities play in cultural, economic, and social development worldwide.
It establishes a dynamic network of craft cities across the globe, aligning with the principles of the creative economy.
Under the World Craft City Programme, Jaipur (Rajasthan), Mammal Puram (Tamil Nadu) and Mysore (Karnataka) have been added as craft cities from India.
Some of the famous crafts from Srinagar
Papier-Mache: It refers to the art of making an object from mashed and molded paper pulp. The object so made is traditionally painted and usually covered with a layer of lacquer or varnish.
Pashmina: Shawls, Kani, Sozni: The Pashmina fabric, hand spun and hand woven, emerged from the picturesque landscape of Kashmir.
Sozni shawls: Sozni embroidery is one of such arts that have its origin into the geography of Kashmir. The word Sozni is a Persian derived word which means needle and sozankari, the needle work. The person who performs this craft is called the sozankar.
Key facts about World Crafts Council
It was founded by Ms.Aileen O.Webb, Ms.Margaret M.Patch and Smt. Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay in 1964, as a non-governmental and non-profit organization.
The main objective of the World Crafts Council is to strengthen the status of crafts in cultural and economic life.
Aim: The Council aims to promote fellowship among crafts persons by offering them encouragement, help, and advice.
It fosters and assists cultural exchange through conferences, international visits, research study, lectures, workshops, exhibitions, and other activities.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/jammu-and-kashmir/srinagars-world-craft-city-tag-allows-kashmir-to-re-connect-globally/article68328550.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Enemy Agents Ordinance:
- It bars any disclosure or publication of the case tried under this.
- Under this trials are conducted by a special judge who is appointed by the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, Jammu and Kashmir Director General of Police (DGP) said those found assisting militants in J&K should be tried by investigating agencies under the Enemy Agents Ordinance, 2005.
The J&K Enemy Agents Ordinance was first issued in 1917 by the then Dogra Maharaja of J&K. It is referred to as an ‘ordinance’ since laws made during the Dogra rule were called ordinances.
After Partition in 1947, the ordinance was incorporated as a law in the erstwhile state and was also amended.
In 2019, when Article 370 of the Constitution was repealed, J&K’s legal framework also underwent several changes.
Punishments
According to the ordinance, “whosoever is an enemy agent or, with an intent to aid the enemy, conspires with any other person to any act which is designed or likely to give assistance to the enemy or to impede the military or air operations of Indian forces or to endanger life or is guilty of incendiarism shall be punishable with death or rigorous imprisonment for life or with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to 10 years and shall also be liable to fine”.
How are trials conducted under ordinance?
Trials are conducted by a special judge who is appointed by the “government in consultation with the High Court”.
Under the ordinance, the accused cannot engage a lawyer to defend herself unless permitted by the court.
There is no provision for appeal against the verdict, and the decision of the special judge can only be reviewed “by a person chosen by the Government from the judges of the High Court and the decision of that person shall be final”.
The ordinance also bars any disclosure or publication of the case tried under it.
“Any person who, without the previous authorization of the Government, discloses or publishes any information with respect to any proceedings or with respects to any person proceeded against under this Ordinance, shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both,’’
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/what-is-enemy-agents-ordinance-tough-law-applicable-in-jk-9412703/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Cloudburst:
- It is a localised but intense rainfall activity which occurs in mountains.
- It occurs when the relative humidity and cloud cover are at the maximum level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, a cloudburst triggered several landslips and a flood-like situation in Itanagar.
It is a localised but intense rainfall activity. While it can also occur in plains, the phenomenon is most common in hilly regions.
A cloudburst has a very specific definition: Rainfall of 10 cm or more in an hour over a roughly 10 km x 10 km area is classified as a cloudburst event.
Cloudbursts are not uncommon events, particularly during the monsoon months.
Most of these happen in the Himalayan states where the local topology, wind systems, and temperature gradients between the lower and upper atmosphere facilitate the occurrence of such events.
How does it occur?
It is found that during a cloudburst, the relative humidity and cloud cover will be at the maximum level with low temperature and slow winds because of this situation a high amount of clouds may get condensed at a very rapid rate and result in a cloudburst.
As temperatures increase the atmosphere can hold more and more moisture and this moisture comes down as a short very intense rainfall for a short duration.
Forecasting of Cloudbursts: The India Meteorological Department forecasts rainfall events well in advance, but it does not predict the quantum of rainfall — in fact, no meteorological agency does.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/arunachal-pradesh/cloudburst-in-itanagar-triggers-landslides-flood-like-situation/article68323716.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the International Sugar Organization:
- It is an inter-governmental body devoted to improving conditions in the world sugar market.
- It is one of the United Nation affiliated body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India is hosting a global event in sugar sector ‘International Sugar Organization (ISO) Council Meeting’ in New Delhi from 25th till 27th June, 2024.
It is an inter-governmental body completely devoted to improving conditions in the world sugar market.
It was established in 1968 and it is also a UN affiliated body.
It has about 85 countries as members covering almost 90% of sugar production in the World.
Mandate: It is mandated to bring major sugar producing, consuming and trading nations together to bring mutual understanding and progressive approach in dealing with issues pertaining to the sugar sector.
It has also been working on biofuels, especially, ethanol as sugarcane is the second major feedstock for ethanol production in the world.
The ISO exists to administer the internationally negotiated 1992 International Sugar Agreement (ISA), the objectives of which are:
To ensure enhanced international cooperation in connection with world sugar matters and related issues.
To provide a forum for intergovernmental consultations on sugar and on ways to improve the world sugar economy.
To facilitate trade by collecting and providing information on the world sugar market and other sweeteners.
To encourage increased demand for sugar, particularly for non-traditional uses.
Headquarters: London
Sugar industry in India
Sugar industry is an important agro-based industry that impacts rural livelihood of about 50 million sugarcane farmers and around 5 lakh workers directly employed in sugar mills.
India is the largest consumer and second largest producer of sugar in the world with about 15 per cent share in global sugar consumption and about 20 per cent in production.
Brazil is the top sugar producer in the world.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2028227
Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian Painted Frog:
- It is a species of narrow-mouthed frog endemic to South India.
- It is classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
A rare Indian Painted Frog was recently sighted at Telangana’s Kawal Tiger Reserve, marking a significant find outside its usual habitats.
About Indian Painted Frog:
It is a species of narrow-mouthed frog that is part of the Microhylidae family.
Scientific Name: Uperodon taprobanicus
Distribution: It is found in Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, southern and eastern India and Nepal up to an altitude of about 1300 metres.
It is most common in Sri Lanka. In India, it is found in the states of West Bengal, Odisha, Assam, Karnataka, Kerala, Telangana, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh and is most common in the southern areas of the Western and Eastern Ghats.
Features:
It can grow to an adult length of up to 75 millimetres (7.5 cm) from snout to vent with females being slightly larger than males.
This species is notable for its striking appearance, characterized by its smooth, rounded body and distinctive colouration, which often includes shades of brown, with patches of brighter colours such as orange or yellow.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/hyderabad/rare-indian-painted-frog-spotted-at-kawal/articleshow/111123290.cms
With reference to African Swine Fever (ASF), consider the following statements:
- It is endemic to sub-Saharan Africa.
- It is a highly contagious viral disease of domestic and wild pigs.
- There is no cure and no approved vaccine for the ASF.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The death toll of pigs following the outbreak of the African Swine Fever (ASF) disease in Mizoram since February has crossed 3,350, officials said recently.
About African Swine Fever (ASF):
ASF is a highly contagious viral disease of domestic and wild pigs, whose mortality rate can reach 100%.
The ASF virus is a large, enveloped, double-stranded DNA virus that is the sole member of the genus Asfivirus within the family Asfarviridae.
Symptoms: The clinical symptoms can look very much like those of classical swine fever: fever, weak pigs, lack of appetite, inflamed eye mucous membranes, red skin, (bloody) diarrhea, and vomiting.
ASF can be spread through:
Direct contact with infected animals
Indirect contact through the ingestion of products from infected animals, contact with contaminated clothing, vehicles, or equipment
Bites by infectious soft ticks (where present)
The ASF virus is able to survive for long periods in pork and pork meat products.
It is endemic to sub-Saharan Africa but has spread to many other regions of the world, including Asia and Europe.
In India, it was first confirmed in Arunachal Pradesh and Assam in February-March 2020.
It is not a danger to human health. Meat or other products from pigs do not pose any food safety risks for humans. But it has devastating effects on pig populations and the farming economy.
There is no cure or precaution available for the infection, and there is no approved vaccine. So, the only way to stop it from spreading is by culling the animals.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.zeebiz.com/trending/news-3350-pigs-killed-by-african-swine-fever-disease-mizoram-aizwal-animal-husbandry-veterinary-298039
With reference to India’s External Debt, consider the following statements:
- Short-term debt (with an original maturity of up to one year) constitutes the majority of India’s external debt.
- US dollar-denominated debt remained the largest component of India’s external debt.
- Loans remained the largest component of India’s external debt, followed by currency and deposits.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
India’s external debt was placed at $663.8 billion, an increase of US$ 39.7 billion over its level at end-March 2023, informed the Reserve Bank of India recently.
About India’s External Debt:
At end-March 2024, India’s external debt was US$ 663.8 billion, an increase of US$ 39.7 billion over its level at end-March 2023.
The external debt-to-GDP ratio declined to 18.7 percent end-March 2024 from 19.0 percent at end-March 2023.
The Valuation effect due to the appreciation of the US dollar vis-à-vis the Indian rupee and other major currencies such as the yen, euro, and SDR amounted to US$ 8.7 billion.
Valuation effects are the change in value of assets held abroad with regard to the value of domestic assets held by foreign investors.
Excluding the valuation effect, external debt would have increased by US$ 48.4 billion instead of US$ 39.7 billion at end-March 2024 over end-March 2023.
At end-March 2024, long-term debt (with an original maturity of above one year) was placed at US$ 541.2 billion, recording an increase of US$ 45.6 billion over its level at end-March 2023.
The share of short-term debt (with an original maturity of up to one year) in total external debt declined to 18.5 percent at end-March 2024 from 20.6 per cent at end-March 2023.
Similarly, the ratio of short-term debt (original maturity) to foreign exchange reserves declined to 19.0 percent at end-March 2024 (22.2 per cent at end-March 2023).
US dollar-denominated debt remained the largest component of India’s external debt, with a share of 53.8 percent at end-March 2024, followed by debt denominated in the Indian rupee (31.5 percent), yen (5.8 percent), SDR (5.4 percent), and euro (2.8 percent).
Outstanding debt of both government and non-government sectors increased at end-March 2024 over the level a year ago.
The share of outstanding debt of non-financial corporations in total external debt was the highest at 37.4 percent, followed by deposit-taking corporations (except the central bank) (28.1 percent), general government (22.4 percent) and other financial corporations (7.3 percent).
Loans remained the largest component of external debt, with a share of 33.4 percent, followed by currency and deposits (23.3 percent), trade credit and advances (17.9 percent) and debt securities (17.3 percent).
Debt service (i.e., principal repayments and interest payments) increased to 6.7 percent of current receipts at end-March 2024 from 5.3 percent at end-March 2023, reflecting higher debt service.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/finance/indias-external-debt-stands-663-8-billion-at-end-march-2024-rise-of-39-7-billion-from-year-before/articleshow/111261158.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements with reference to Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM):
- It is envisioned to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTCs) to all households in India.
- It will also implement source sustainability measures such as recharge and reuse through grey water management, water conservation, rain water harvesting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Central Government is conceiving a “new project” to ensure that rural households, which were provided taps under the ambitious Jal Jeevan Mission but had not yet been able to avail water, would soon be provided potable water.
About Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM):
JJM is envisioned to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTCs) by 2024 to all households in rural India.
JJM will be based on a community approach to water and will include extensive Information, Education and communication as key components of the mission.
The Mission was launched on August 15, 2019.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti.
Components:
Development of in-village piped water supply infrastructure to provide tap water connections to every rural household.
Bottom-up planning: Community engagement in planning, implementation and Operation and Maintenance (O&M)
Women empowerment: Involvement of women in planning, decision-making, implementation, monitoring, and O&M
Focus on future generations: Provision of tap water supply to schools, tribal hostels, and anganwadi (daycare) centers
Skill development and employment generation: Local people are skilled for building and maintaining water supply structures
Greywater management: Reuse and recycle waste water for source sustenance
Source sustainability: Promote groundwater recharge and water conservation
Water Quality: Ensure safe drinking water to reduce water-borne ailments
The Mission will converge with other Central and State Government Schemes to achieve its objectives of sustainable water supply management across the country.
Funding Pattern: The fund sharing pattern is in the proportion of:
50:50 between Centre and States
90:10 for Himalayan and North-Eastern States.
In case of UTs, 100% of the funding is provided by the Central government
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/jal-shakti-ministry-conceives-new-project-to-fix-water-deficit-in-flagship-jal-jeevan-mission/article68332529.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Skin Bank:
- It was launched to help treat severe skin burn injuries of service personnel and their families.
- Anyone can donate skin, irrespective of sex and blood group with the minimum age of 18.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Indian Army has recently launched a skin bank facility.
About Indian Army’s Skin Bank:
It was launched to help treat severe skin burn injuries and other skin-related conditions for service personnel and their families.
The first-of-its-kind facility established in the Armed Forces Medical Services is staffed with trained medical professionals, including plastic surgeons, tissue engineers and specialized technicians.
It will serve as a centralised hub for the collection, processing, storage, and distribution of skin grafts, providing a “critical resource” for military medical centres across the country.
What is a Skin Bank?
A skin bank is a facility where skin is taken from an eligible donor, and processed, and stored under appropriate temperature for up to five years.
Skin from a deceased person can be donated within six hours after death.
Anyone can donate skin, irrespective of sex and blood group.
The donor’s minimum age should be 18 years.
The skin of persons suffering from AIDS, Hepatitis B & C, Sexually Transmitted Diseases, Skin Cancer, Active skin Disease and Septicemia are considered unfit for donation.
This donated skin is then collected and processed over five to six weeks and frozen until it’s needed.
The skin is generally preserved in 85% glycerol solution. It is stored between 4-5 degrees Celsius for up to 5 years.
When a burn victim requires skin for their injuries, a surgical procedure called skin grafting is conducted.
What is Skin Grafting?
It is a simple process when a piece of healthy skin is transplanted to a different area of the body where the skin is damaged or missing.
There are two main types of skin grafts: autograft (skin is taken from another part of the patient’s own body) and allograft (skin is taken from a donor, often sourced from a skin bank).
Any skin can be used on anybody, and within two to three weeks post-grafting, the doctors can determine whether the patient is accepting it or not.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/health/story/indian-army-launches-skin-bank-for-burn-victims-all-you-need-to-know-2557730-2024-06-25
Saipan Island, recently seen in news, is located in:
Pacific Ocean
Explanation :
Julian Assange is en route to a courtroom on the Pacific island of Saipan where he is expected to plead guilty to a single criminal charge in a plea deal that will see him walk free and return home to Australia.
It is located in the Western Pacific Ocean.
It is the capital of the Northern Mariana Islands (NMI), a US commonwealth in the western Pacific which begins roughly 70 km (44 miles) north of Guam and stretches across 14 islands.
It was a colony of Spain, Germany and then Japan, the United States took control of the island in World War -II.
Like territories such as Guam or Puerto Rico, the Northern Mariana Islands are part of the US without the full status of a state.
In 1975 residents of this island voted to join the United States as a territory. The territory has a permanent delegate in the US House of Representative, although they cannot vote.
Highest point: Mount Tapochau
Economy: Tourism is the mainstay of the economy and it is popular with Korean and Chinese tourists.
It is the only part of the United States that Chinese citizens can enter without a visa.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/julian-assange-saipan-us-deal-plead-guilty-explained-9413605/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Kamakhya temple:
- It is located on Nilachal Hill in the state of Assam.
- The famous Ambubachi Mela is celebrated every year in this temple.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Devotees from across the nation are flocking to the Kamakhya temple in Assam’s Guwahati for the commencement of the annual Ambubachi Mela.
Ambubachi Mela is an annual Hindu fair held at the historic Kamakhya Temple.
It is celebrated during the monsoon season that happens to fall during the Assamese month Ahaar, around the middle of June.
It is the celebration of the yearly menstruation course of goddess Maa Kamakhya.
Key facts about Kamakhya temple
It is situated on Nilachal Hill and adjoining the southern bank of the Brahmaputra River in Guwahati, Assam.
It is one of the most revered centres of Tantric practices.
It is regarded as one of the oldest of the 51 Shakti Peethas in India.
Temple Architecture:
It had been modelled out of a combination of two different styles namely, the traditional nagara or North Indian and Saracenic or Mughal style of architecture.
This combination has been named the Nilachala Style of Architecture.
It consists of five chambers, garbhagriha or sanctuary, antarala or vestibule, Jagan Mohan or principal chamber, bhogmandir or ritual chamber and natmandir or opera hall for performing traditional dance and music associated with sukti temples.
It is interesting to note that the superstructure of each of the above chambers exhibits different architectural features.
While the main temple contains a modified Saracenic dome, the antarala carries a two-roofed design, the bhogmandir (also called pancharatna) with five domes similar in appearance to the main temple and the natmandir having a shell-roof with apsidal end similar to some of the impermanent namghars or prayer halls found in Assam.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.livemint.com/news/assam-news-devi-kali-devotees-throng-to-worship-maa-kamakhya-guwahati-temple-amid-ongoing-ambubachi-mela-11719029505365.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the ALMA Telescope:
- It is a radio telescope located in the Atacama Desert of northern Chile.
- It can study celestial objects at millimetre and submillimetre wavelengths.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, using the powerful Atacama Large Millimeter/submillimeter Array (ALMA) telescope, astronomers have gained new insights into how planets form around binary star systems, where two stars orbit a common centre of mass.
It is a state-of-the-art telescope that studies celestial objects at millimetre and submillimetre wavelengths.
It is a radio telescope comprising 66 antennas located in the Atacama Desert of northern Chile.
They can penetrate through dust clouds and help astronomers examine dim and distant galaxies and stars out there.
It also has extraordinary sensitivity, which allows it to detect even extremely faint radio signals.
The telescope consists of 66 high-precision antennas, spread over a distance of up to 16 km.
It is operated under a partnership between the United States, and 16 countries in Europe, Canada, Japan, South Korea, Taiwan, and Chile.
The radio telescope was designed, planned and constructed by the US’s National Radio Astronomy Observatory (NRAO), the National Astronomical Observatory of Japan (NAOJ) and the European Southern Observatory (ESO).
What is Binary star system?
It is a system of two gravitationally bound stars that orbit a common center of mass called a barycenter.
Stars in a binary system do not necessarily have the same mass, size or brightness.
The larger star of a binary couple is called the primary star, while the smaller one is known as the secondary star or the companion star.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.wionews.com/science/alma-telescope-sheds-light-on-planet-formation-around-binary-stars-735025
Consider the following statements with reference to the Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX):
- It is the flagship initiative of the Union Ministry of Defence.
- It aims to achieve self-reliance and foster innovation and technology development in Defence and Aerospace.
- It will be funded and managed by a Defence Innovation Organization.
How many of the above statements are correct
All three
Explanation :
Recently, the 350th contract under the Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) was signed with SpacePixxel Technologies Pvt Ltd for miniaturised satellite.
It is the flagship initiative of the Union Ministry of Defence.
It aims to achieve self-reliance and foster innovation and technology development in Defence and Aerospace by engaging Industries including MSMEs, start-ups, individual innovators, R&D institutes and academia.
It has partnered with leading incubators in the country to provide handholding, technical support and guidance to the winners of iDEX challenges.
Funding:
iDEX will be funded and managed by a ‘Defence Innovation Organization (DIO)’ which has been formed as a ‘not for profit company as per Section 8 of the Companies Act 2013 by the two founder members, i.e. Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs) - HAL & BEL.
It functions as the executive arm of DIO, carrying out all the required activities, while DIO will provide high-level policy guidance to iDEX.
Under iDEX, financial support is provided to Start-ups/MSMEs/individual innovators and Partner Incubators through DIO.
It has launched 11 editions of the Defence India Start-up Challenge and recently unveiled the Acing Development of Innovative Technologies with iDEX (ADITI) scheme to promote innovations in critical and strategic defence technologies.
It was the recipient of Prime Minister Award for Public Policy in Innovation Category in 2021 and is currently engaged with over 400 start-ups and MSMEs.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/defence-ministry-signs-350th-contract-under-idex-for-miniaturised-satellite/article68331710.ece
Dantapuri and Salihundam, famous Buddhist sites are located in:
Andhra Pradesh
Explanation :
Several historians, academics, writers, and heritage enthusiasts have been working diligently to restore the prominence of Srikakulam’s forgotten ancient history.
It is located in the state of Andhra Pradesh.
It is home to numerous prominent Buddhist sites, Neolithic-era caves, and some of the oldest temples in the State.
History
It was once part of the Kalinga Dynasty. Later it came under the rule of the Gajapati Kingdom during the medieval period,followed by the Eastern Chalukyas of Vengi. The area was a part of the Kakatiya and Vijayanagara empires as well.
Buddhist sites (Dantapuri and Salihundam)
Salihundam has four stupas, relic caskets, sculptures of Buddhist deities Mareechi and Tara.
All the remnants were believed to be built between 2nd century BC and 12th century AD.
It is believed that Buddhism spread to Sumatra and other far-eastern countries from here.
Jainism sites : Tangamayyakonda and Rottavalasa villages
Famous temples of Srikakulam
Arasavalli: The Sri Suryanarayana Swamy Temple, dedicated to the sun god, located in Arasavalli, is one of the two temples of its kind, the other being the most popular and magnificent Konark Sun Temple in Odisha.
Srimukhalingam: This temple, built in the Kalinga architectural style, is located by the Vamsadhara River and is dedicated to lord Srimukha Lingeswara.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/scholars-historians-on-a-mission-to-illuminate-srikakulams-forgotten-heritage/article68300041.ece
Consider the following pairs with reference to the self-reliance during the Swadeshi Movement:
S.No.
Nationalist
Founded
Explanation :
Swadeshi as a form of agitation was directly derived from the indictment of British colonialism by leaders like Naoroji, R. C. Dutt, Digby and Ranade. Their writings produced an optimism that economic regeneration would be the solution to all social ills that plagued the colony. The swadeshi programme developed along two lines – of reviving traditional crafts that had been destroyed by competition from British goods and of building indigenous industrial enterprise on modern western lines. Such attempts had started early, and the notable initial efforts in this regard were Prafullachandra Ray’s Bengal Chemicals started in 1893, and Rabindranath Tagore’s Swadeshi Bhandar in 1897. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched and pair 3 is correctly matched.
Amongst the larger-scale industrial enterprises, textile mills like the Mohini Mills of Kushtia, The Calcutta Weaving Company, the Tripura Company etc. made important contributions. Developments also took place in the leather industry as Dr. Nilratan Sircar founded the National Tannery, where new technologies of tanning were introduced. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
With reference to the Partition of Bengal, consider the following statements:
- Uniting the scattered sections of Odia speaking population was one of its official objectives.
- Gandhi was an active participant in the Swadeshi movement, which was launched in response to it.
- It was annulled during the viceroyship of Lord Minto.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Partition of Bengal came into effect on 16 October 1905, during the viceroyalty of Lord Curzon. The government contention was that the partition of Bengal was purely an administrative measure with three main objectives- to ensure more efficient administration in the outlying districts of Bengal, promote the development of backward Assam (ruled by a Chief Commissioner) by enlarging its jurisdiction and to unite the scattered sections of the Odia-speaking population under a single administration. So, statement 1 is correct.
Swadeshi and boycott campaigns against the partition of Bengal occurred from 1905 onwards till 1911 when the partition was annulled. However, Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in 1915. His first involvement in struggles started in 1917 and 1918 - in Champaran, Ahmedabad and Kheda and so, he was not involved in the struggle against the partition of Bengal. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The decision to annul the partition of Bengal was taken in 1911. The primary purpose was to curb the menace of revolutionary terrorism. King George V at his Coronation Darbar in Delhi in December 1911 announced the revocation of the Partition of Bengal and of certain changes in the administration of India. Lord Charles Hardinge was the viceroy at that time. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Which of the following can be attributed as impacts of the Swadeshi movement?
- Rise of Neo-Nationalist movement.
- Surat split of Indian National Congress
- Revival and emergence of nationalist art and literature
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Swadeshi movement was the steppingstone of the Nationalist movement, which led to the beginning of an organized political movement in India.
Impact of Swadeshi Movement
Rise of Neo-Nationalist movement. So, option (1) is correct.
Indian National Congress split into two groups of Extremist and Moderates in the Surat Session in 1907.So, statement (2) is correct.
The revival of Indigenous industries.
Boycott of foreign goods.
Revival and emergence of nationalist art and literature. So, statement (3) is correct.
Concept of national education.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).
Which of the following British Acts were enacted after the Swadeshi movement in order to make better provisions for the prevention of public meetings causing public disturbances?
Prevention of Seditious Meetings Act, 1907
Explanation :
After the split in the Indian National Congress in the 1907 session over the tussle between the moderates and extremists, the British Government launched a massive attack on the Extremists. Between 1907 and 1911, five new laws were brought into force to check anti-government activity. These legislations included the Seditious Meetings Act, 1907; Indian Newspapers (Incitement to Offences) Act, 1908; Criminal Law Amendment Act, 1908; and the Indian Press Act, 1910. Among these laws, only the Prevention of Seditious Meetings Act, 1907 had been enacted to prevent public meetings causing public disturbances. So, option (a) is correct and other options (b), (c) and (d) are not correct.
Prevention of Seditious Meetings Act (1907): The Act was raised in the British House of Commons in February 1908 by Vickerman Rutherford, who questioned its effects on “the interests of good relations between the rulers and the ruled.” Prevention of Seditious Meetings Act, 1907 An Act to make better provision for the prevention of public meetings likely to promote sedition or to cause a disturbance of public tranquillity was a 1907 act of the Imperial Legislative Council of the British Raj enabling the Government to prohibit political meetings.
In this Act, the expression “public meeting” means a meeting that is open to the public or any class or portion of the public.
A meeting may be a public meeting notwithstanding that it is held in a private place and notwithstanding that admission thereto may have been restricted by ticket or otherwise.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).
‘He was a journalist and his first philosophical magazine called Arya was published in 1914. He was charged with sedition for his fiery articles in ‘Bande Matram’ but was later acquitted. He was deeply influenced by the Upanishads and the Gita.’ He was
Aurobindo Ghose
Explanation :
Aurobindo Ghose, popularly known as yogi Rishi Aurobindo, was a revolutionary, nationalist, poet, educationist and philosopher. 15th August 2022 was marked as his 150th birth anniversary. He also led the young people of the country towards the path of spirituality.
He became a state service officer in 1893. In Baroda, he came in contact with resistance groups in Bengal and Madhya Pradesh. He also got in touch with Sister Nivedita and Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak and actively participated in building the revolutionary atmosphere in India. He was implicated in the Alipore conspiracy case.
He was also a journalist and his first philosophical magazine called Arya was published in 1914. His newspaper Bande Mataram got him enormous fame. His work got him nominated for the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1943. He was also nominated in 1950 for the Nobel Prize for Peace.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to Swadeshi Movement in India, consider the following statements:
- The National Council of Education was established as part of the movement.
- It received great support from lower-class Muslim peasants.
- During the movement, Swadeshi Sangam was formed by Ganesh Vyankatesh Joshi and Bhaswat Nigoni.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Swadesh movement was launched in 1905 as a protest against the partition of Bengal by Lord Curzon. The movement laid emphasis on the promotion of National education. The National Council of Education was set up in 1906 to organize a system of education (literary, scientific and technical) on national lines. So, statement 1 is correct.
The social base of the movement expanded to certain sections of zamindari, students, women and lower middle classes. But it failed to garner the support of Muslims peasantry due to Hindu revivalism and government policy of divide and rule. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Samitis or Corps of Volunteers emerged as a powerful means of mass mobilization. In Tamil Nadu, V.O Chidambaram Pillai, Subramania Siva and others formed the Swadeshi Sangam which inspired local masses. So, statement 3 is not correct.
A story was published in Indu Prakash - a Bombay daily newspaper - as a series of nine articles. Written by Sri Aurobindo Ghosh in 1893, this series of articles criticized the Moderate politics being practiced by Indian National Congress at that time. Later, it was published as a book.
The book in question refers to
New Lamps for Old
Explanation :
New Lamps for Old was written by Sri Aurobindo Ghosh in 1893. It was published as nine articles in Indu Prakash, a Bombay daily newspaper. It criticized the Moderate politics being practiced by the Indian National Congress at that time.
Bal gangadhar tilak was associated with which of the following?
- Kesari
- Hitavada
- Mahratta
- Gita Rahasya
Choose the correct option using the codes below:
1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
Tilak published two weekly newspapers - mahratta (in english) and kesari (in marathi). Through these newspapers, he became widely known for his criticisms of British rule and of those moderates who advocated social reforms along western lines and political reforms along constitutional lines. So, point 1 and 3 are correct.
Gita rahasya is a popular commentary on the Bhagavad Gita written by tilak in the Marathi language. So, statement 4 is correct.
Hitavada was an English newspaper founded by Gopal Krishna Gokhale. So, point 2 is not correct.
With reference to Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, consider the following statements:
- He founded a monthly literary magazine titled ‘Bangadarshan’
- His political novel Anandamath, was centred on the 1855 Santhal revolt.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1 only
Explanation :
Bankim chandra chattopadhyay founded a monthly literary magazine, Bangadarshan, in 1872, through which Chattopadhyay is credited with influencing the emergence of a Bengali identity and nationalism. So, statement 1 is correct.
Anandamath is a political novel written by him which was primarily about the Sanyasi rebellion in Bengal against the East India Company. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Who among the following was associated with the Theosophical Movement in India?
- Colonel M.S. Olcott
- Madame H.P. Blavatsky
- Rukmini Arundale
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1,2 and 3
Explanation :
A group of westerners led by Madame H.P. Blavatsky and Colonel M.S. Olcott, who were inspired by Indian thought and culture, founded the Theosophical Society in New York City, United States in 1875.
In 1882, they shifted their headquarters to Adyar, Madras in India. Both Blavatsky and Olcott toured widely in India to strengthen the movement.
In India, the movement became somewhat popular with the election of Annie Besant as its president after the death of Olcott in 1907.
Rukmini Arundale fought for the philosophy and spirit of India. The Theosophical Society spearheaded these ideas under her leadership, emphasizing that there was no religion higher than the Truth. At the age of 14, Rukmini Arundale became a volunteer in the Theosophical Society, attending lectures by eminent speakers, singing bhajans in the villages surrounding Madras that taught the villagers better hygiene, and tried to convince them against the sacrifice of animals in their temples.
Therefore option (d) is the correct answer.
1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Odantapuri: It is located in Bihar and was made under the patronage of Pala Dynasty King Gopala I. It was a Buddhist mahavihara which was destroyed by Bakhtiyar Khilji. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Nalanda: The most renowned university of South Asia. It is not clear as to who established it; it was in existence during the Gupta period. It gained prominence under Harshavardhana’s reign and Pala kings. All three Buddhist doctrines were taught here, however, it was a major site for Mahayana Buddhist teachings. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Vikramshila: It is located in present-day Bhagalpur district of Bihar. It was established by King Dharampala of Pala Dynasty, primarily as a Buddhist learning centre. The scholars were invited by kings outside India to spread Buddhist teachings. The Vajrayana sect of Buddhism flourished here and Tantric teachings were taught. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Somapura: This Buddhist monastery was built in the style of a university during the Pala period around the 8th century by Dharmapala. It was a renowned intellectual centre until the 12th century. Geographically located to the north-west of Bangladesh in the district of Naogaon close to the village of Paharpur. So, pair 4 is not correctly matched.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
The new regional kingdoms in the late ancient period (750 – 1200 AD) led to the emergence of new regional cultural zones such as Bengal and Orissa in the North Gujarat and Maharashtra in Central India as well as Andhra, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu in the South. The rich literature produced in these languages began to replace the earlier monopoly of Sanskrit literature.
The literary works in the regional languages were often composed under the patronage of the new regional rulers. A famous work composed in the regional language around this time under the Cholas was the Tamil version of the Ramayana, composed by Kamban. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
In Karnataka, Pampa who is regarded as one of the jewels of Kanada literature composed Vikramarjuna-vijaya, known popularly as Pampa Bharat, in Kannada. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
In Andhra region, Nanniah translated some portions of Mahabharata in Telugu. It was later completed by poet Tikkanna in the thirteenth century. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the system of Local Self Government practised during the time of Chola’s:
- The ‘mahasabha’ was a general assembly of the village.
- The mahasabha could distribute new lands, and exercise ownership rights over them.
- Uttaramerur inscriptions describe in detail the code of conduct for holding local body elections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The king was the most important person in the Chola administration. All authority rested in his hands, but he had a council of ministers to advise him. The Chola state included the area of central control, and loosely administered areas under different types of local control. The basic unit of administration was the nadu which consisted of a number of villages having close kinship ties and other close associations. In the Chola kingdom, nadus were grouped into valanadus. The Chola state was divided into four mandalams or provinces. Sometimes, princes of the royal family were appointed governors of provinces.
A handful of inscriptions provided additional information regarding village government under the Chola empire. There were two assemblies, called the ur, and the sabha or mahasabha. The ur was a general assembly of the village. Mahasabha was a gathering of the adult men in the Brahman villages which were called agraharams. These were villages with Brahman settlements in which most of the land was rent-free. These villages enjoyed a large measure of autonomy. The mahasabha could distribute new lands, and exercise ownership rights over them. It could also raise loans for the village and levy taxes. So, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
Uttaramerur inscriptions is from the times of Parantaka Chola (920 CE). It describes in detail the code of conduct for holding local body elections. The crux of the documentation is the elaborate definition of the eligibility of contestants and this selection process makes the Uthiramerur inscription unique and special. The inscription talks of a fair and transparent election process involving sealed ballot boxes. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore option (b) is the correct answer
Consider the following statements regarding the condition of women during the early medieval period (800-1200)
- The women were granted the right to study the Vedas.
- The marriageable age for girls was lowered.
- There was a complete denial of property rights to women.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Condition of women during the early medieval period (800-1200):
As in the earlier period, women were generally considered to be mentally inferior. Their duty was to obey their husbands blindly. Women continued to be denied the right to study the Vedas. Furthermore, the marriageable age for girls was lowered, thereby destroying their opportunities for higher education. The omission of all reference to women teachers in the dictionaries written during the period shows the poor state of higher education among women. So, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
As for marriage, the smriti writers say that girls were to be given away by their parents, between the ages of six and eight, or between their eighth year and attaining puberty. Remarriage was allowed under certain conditions when the husband had deserted (i.e. was not heard of) or died, or adopted the life of a recluse, or was impotent, or had become an outcaste.
In general, women were distrusted. They were to be kept in seclusion and their life was to be regulated by the male relations— father, brother, husband or son. However, within the home they were honoured. If a husband abandoned even a wife guilty of offensive behaviour, she was to be given maintenance. With the growth of property rights in land, the property rights of women also increased. In order to preserve the property of a family, women were give the right to inherit the property of their male relations. With some reservations, a widow was entitled to the entire estate of her husband if he died sonless. Daughters also had the right to succeed to the properties of a widow. Thus, the growth of feudal society strengthened the concept of private property. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Upper-class women lived in seclusion and generally were kept away from the public gaze. There was, however, no system of purdah or veiling of women.
Therefore option (d) is the answer
Consider the following statements:
- Pala rulers were great patrons of Buddhist learning and religion.
- The Rashtrakutas allowed Muslim traders to settle and permitted Islam to be preached in their dominions.
- The famous rock-cut temple of Siva at Ellora was built by Bhoja, the greatest ruler of the Pratihara dynasty.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
For about a hundred years, from the middle of the eighth to the middle of the ninth century, the Pala rulers dominated eastern India. Pala rulers were great patrons of Buddhist learning and religion. The Palas built many viharas in which many Buddhist monks lived. The Pala rulers also had close cultural relations with Tibet. Although the Palas were supporters of Buddhism, they also extended their patronage to Saivism and Vaishnavism. So, statement 1 is correct.
While the Palas and the Pratiharas were ruling over north India, the Deccan was being ruled by the Rashtrakutas. The Rashtrakuta rule in the Deccan thus lasted for almost two hundred years, till the end of the tenth century. The Rashtrakuta rulers were tolerant in their religious views and patronised not only Saivism and Vaishnavism but Jainism as well. His successor, Amoghavarsha, is said to have been a Jain but be also patronised other faiths. The Rashtrakutas allowed Muslim traders to settle, and permitted Islam to be preached, in their dominions. Muslims had their own headman, and had large mosques for their daily prayers in many of the coastal towns in the Rashtrakuta empire. This tolerant policy helped to promote foreign trade which enriched the Rashtrakutas. So, statement 2 is correct.
The famous rock-cut temple of Siva at Ellora was built by one of the Rashtrakuta kings, Krishna I, in the ninth century. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore option (a) is the correct answer
With reference to Pala empire, consider the following statements:
- They were involved in a tripartite struggle with Pratiharas and Rashtrakutas over control of Kannauj.
- They were great patrons of Buddhism and founded the Vikramshila University.
- They defeated the powerful Sailendra dynasty in south-east Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
3 only
Explanation :
The Pala empire was founded by Gopala, probably in 750 CE when he was elected king by the notable men of the area to end the anarchy prevailing there. Gopala was succeeded in 770 CE by his son, Dharamapala, who ruled till 810 CE. His reign was marked by a tripartite struggle between the Palas, the Pratiharas and the Rashtrakutas for the control of Kannauj and north India. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Pala rulers were great patrons of Buddhist learning and religion. The Nalanda university which had been famous all over the eastern world was revived by Dharmapala, and 200 villages were set apart to meet its expenses. He also founded the Vikramasila university which became second only to Nalanda in fame. The Palas built many viharas in which a large number of Buddhist monks lived. So, statement 2 is correct.
The trade with Southeast Asia was very profitable and added greatly to the prosperity of the Pala empire. The powerful Sailendra dynasty, which was Buddhist in faith and which ruled over Malaya, Java, Sumatra and the neighbouring islands, sent many embassies to the Pala court and sought permission to build a monastery at Nalanda, and also requested the Pala ruler, Devapala, to endow five villages for its upkeep. The request was granted and bears testimony to the close relations between the two empires. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the answer.
With reference to Rashtrakutas, consider the following statements:
- The empire was divided into several provinces called Vishayas under the control of Rashtrapatis.
- Rashtrakutas, Gurjara Pratiharas and Palas were involved in the struggle for control over the Gangetic region.
- The Kailasanatha temple at Ellora was built during the reign of the Amogavarsha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Rashtrakutas (755 – 975 CE) were of Kannada origin and Kannada language was their mother tongue. Dantidurga was the founder of the Rashtrakuta dynasty.
The Rashtrakuta Empire was divided into several provinces called rashtras under the control of rashtrapatis. They were further divided into vishayas or districts governed by vishayapatis. The next subdivision was bhukti consisting of 50 to 70 villages under the control of bhogapatis. These officers were directly appointed by the central government. The village administration was carried on by the village headmen. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The period between 750 – 1000 CE was marked by the growth of three important political powers in India. These were Gurjara Pratiharas in north India, Palas in eastern India and Rashtrakutas in South India. These powers were constantly fighting with each other with an aim to set up their control over the Gangetic region in northern India. This armed conflict among these three powers is known as ‘Tripartite struggle’. So, statement 2 is correct.
The art and architecture of the Rashtrakutas were found at Ellora and Elephanta. At Ellora, the most remarkable temple is the Kailasanatha temple. It is carved out of a massive block of rock during the reign of Krishna I. The superstructure of the temple corresponds to the Dravida style. The Kailasanatha temple marks the highest point of rock-cut temple architecture in the subcontinent. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
Mooknayak was the first newspaper of Babasaheb Ambedkar, was a fortnightly newspaper he started in 1920 with the patronage of his mentor, Shahuji Maharaj. Ambedkar’s aim in launching this journal was to put forward his own point of view on matters such as Swaraj, the education of the ‘untouchables’, and the evils of untouchability, which had hitherto not found due representation in mainstream Hindi journals. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
And by 1915, Annie Besant had launched a campaign to demand self-government for India after the First World War on the lines of the white colonies. She campaigned through her newspapers New India and Commonweal. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Young India, a weekly journal, was published by Mahatma Gandhi from 1919 to 1931 to propagate his ideology of Satyagraha and non-violence. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Shyamji Krishna Verma, founder of the India House organization in London, began to produce and edit The Indian Sociologist in January 1905. So, pair 4 is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Which of the following best describes the purpose of the ‘Carlyle Circular’ during the British colonial rule?
Crush students’ participation in the Swadeshi and Boycott movements.
Explanation :
Carlyle Circular: When the Indian youth started opposing western education against the partition of Bengal, then the chief secretary of Bengal, Carlyle issued a declaration known as Carlyle circulation, on 22 October 1905. According to the circular - “If any college violates the government order and the student quits the educational institution then no assistance will be provided by the government to the institute.” It was termed the declaration of slavery.
Communal Award: One of its provisions was that the depressed classes were given a ‘double vote’, one to be used through separate electorates and the other to be used in the general electorates.
The Charter Act of 1813: One of its provisions was that the Company would retain the possession of territories and the revenue for 20 years more, without prejudice to the sovereignty of the Crown. (Thus, the constitutional position of the British territories in India was defined explicitly for the first time.)
Wood’s Despatch (1854): One of its provisions was that it recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies and vernaculars at school level.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Right to Equality’ under the Indian Constitution:
- Principle of equality before the law does not involve the idea of absolute equality for all.
- Principle of equal protection of the laws empowers the State to classify people for legitimate purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Equality before law and equal protection of laws are two principles provided under right to equality under Article 14 of the constitution. It states that State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
The principle of equality before law, which is British in origin, is a declaration of equality of all persons within the territory of India, implying thereby the absence of any privilege in favour of any individual. It means that no man is above law of the land and that every person, whatever be his rank or status, is subject to the ordinary law and amenable to the jurisdiction of the ordinary courts.
Thus, to say that men are equal, for example, is not to say that they are identical. Equality implies similarity rather than ‘sameness’. According to this definition, the notion of ‘complete’ or ‘absolute’ equality may be seen as problematic because it would violate the presumption of a difference
The concept of equality before law, under right to equality does not involve the idea of absolute equality amongst all. So, statement 1 is correct.
Equal protection of the laws, which follows the Aristotelian principle, on the other hand, would mean “that among equals, the law should be equal and equally administered, that likes should be treated alike…”. The State can treat unequals differently to create a level playing field in the social, economic etc. spheres.
Thus, Article 14 permits Reasonable Classification of people for state actions. However, it doesn’t allow for Class Legislation. Class Legislation means making improper discrimination by conferring certain privileges upon a class of persons arbitrarily selected from a huge number of people. Thus, Class legislation violates equal protection whereas, reasonable classification is always based on real and substantial distinction. Thus, the principle of Equal protection of the laws does not take away from the State the power of classifying persons for legitimate purposes. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
‘Right to Access Internet’ is protected under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
- Article 14
- Article 19
- Article 21
- Article 21A
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
Article 14 of the Constitution ensures to every person the right to equality before law & equal protection of the law. Right to access internet is not covered under Article 14. So, point 1 is not correct.
In PUCL vs. Union of India, the Supreme court had observed that the Right to freedom of speech and expression is guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution. Freedom here means the right to express one’s opinions freely by word of mouth, writing, printing, picture, or in any other manner. The Internet aids the citizen to express their opinions on a global platform and therefore is covered under the ambit of Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution. Freedom to practice any profession or carry on any trade, business or occupation over the medium of internet enjoys Constitutional protection under Article 19(1)(a) and Article 19(1)(g). So, point 2 is correct.
Internet Access has become a basic necessity for the students as the information has become more accessible to them. In Faheema Shirin RK vs. State of Kerala and others, the High Court stated that Right to access internet is a part of Right to education and Right to Privacy under Article 21A and Article 21 of the Constitution. Internet Access not only enhances the opportunities of students to acquire knowledge but also enhances the quality of education. So, points 3 and 4 are correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
If Parliament enacts a law that threatens the fundamental rights of an individual, then which of the following Articles can be used by the Supreme Court to declare it void?
Article 13
Explanation :
Article 13 aids the court and citizens to keep the powers of the legislature under preview. Article 13 of the Indian Constitution describes the means for judicial review. It enjoins a duty on the Indian State to respect and implement the fundamental right. And at the same time, it confers a power on the courts to declare a law or an act void if it infringes the fundamental rights.
The judiciary plays a very important role as a protector of constitutional rights. The primary responsibility for the implementation of the rule of law lies with the judiciary. It is the significance of judicial review, to ensure that democracy is inclusive and there is accountability of everyone who wields or Exercises public power.
The principle of judicial review has become an essential feature of the Indian constitution. The power of judicial review is incorporated in Article 226 and 227 of the Constitution as far as the high courts are concerned and in Article 32 and 136 with regard to the Supreme Court. So, option c is not correct.
Judicial review is the power of go to pronounce upon the constitutionality of legislative acts which fall within their normal jurisdiction to enforce and the power to refuse to enforce such as they find to be unconstitutional and hence void. So, option a is correct.
Article 21 deals with an individual’s right to life and liberty, whereas Article 368 deals with the procedure for amendment of the Constitution. So, option b and option d are not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India enforce ‘Fraternity’?
- Article 14
- Article 15
- Article 17
- Article 18
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
Fraternity refers to brotherhood. It is defined as “brotherhood among disparate bodies united in their interests, aims, beliefs and so on”. Legal principles like equality and notions like statehood can be viewed as contrivances for promoting fraternity. Fraternity also suggests “a sense of belonging to a unit with which one can readily, if not naturally, identify”. One of the primary functions of law is to secure peaceful co-existence of people, which necessitates recognition and promotion of fraternal feelings among people. The state by subjecting people to the same law seeks to secure fraternity among people. In order to secure fraternity the law should renounce and also seek to provide protection against exclusion, discrimination, subordination and oppression.
In India, the Preamble to the Constitution recognizes fraternity as one of the aims or principles of the Union of India. There are a number of provisions in the Constitution which seek to promote fraternity like: Recognition of single citizenship is geared towards instilling a sense of belongingness among people with respect to subjecting everyone to the same laws (Article 14), prohibition of discrimination (Article 15), prohibition of titles (Article 18), abolition of untouchability (Article 17). Even the federal structure established by the Constitution has a unitary bias which ensures that, irrespective of the cultural, linguistic and other variations, a feeling of commonality is sought to be maintained.
Which of the following provisions in the Constitution of India are associated with Affirmative Action?
- Article 15
- Article 16
- Article 21
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Affirmative action refers to a set of policies and practices within a government or organization seeking to include particular groups based on their gender, race, sexuality, creed or nationality in areas in which they are underrepresented such as education and employment.
Article 15 of the Constitution of India states that the State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them · Article 15(4) of the Constitution of India allows the State to make special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs). So, point 1 is correct.
Article 16 of the Constitution of India provides for the Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. It states that there shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State. Article 16(4) provides that the State can make any provision for the reservation of appointments or posts in favor of any backward class of citizens which, in the opinion of the State, is not adequately represented in the services under the State. So, point 2 is correct.
Article 21 of Constitution of India provides for the Protection of Life and Personal Liberty. Article 21 states that “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to a procedure established by law.” Thus, article 21 secures two rights: Right to life, and Right to personal liberty. So, point 3 is not correct.
Which of the following are included in the definition of State under Article 12 of the Constitution of India?
- Legislative Council of State
- District boards
- Municipal Boards
- Life Insurance Corporation (LIC)
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
According to Article 12 of the Constitution of India, the State includes the Government and Parliament of India and the Government and the Legislature of each of the States and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.
The word ‘State’ under Article 12 has been interpreted by the courts as per the changing times. It has gained wider meaning which ensures that Part-III can be applied to a larger extent.
State as provided under Article 12 of the Constitution has four components:
The Government and Parliament of India: Government means any department or institution of department. Parliament shall consist of the President, the House of People and Council of States
The Government and Legislature of each State: State Legislatures of each State consist of the Governor, Legislative Council and Legislative Assembly or any of them.
Local Authority: Municipal Boards, Panchayats, Body of Port Commissioners and others legally entitled to or entrusted by the government, municipal or local fund.
Other Authorities: Authorities other than local authorities working either Within the territory of India or Outside the territory of India. All other authorities, that is, statutory or non-statutory authorities like Life Insurance Corporation (LIC), ONGC, SAIL.
According to the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency working as an instrument of the State falls within the meaning of the ‘State’ under Article 12.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Star Clusters:
- They are stellar assemblages held together by the mutual gravitational attraction of their members.
- Stars in an open star cluster do not have a common origin as they are formed from different initial giant molecular clouds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Astronomers recently discovered five young star clusters, and possibly the oldest star clusters ever, born from the time when the Universe was an infant.
About Star Clusters:
A Star cluster is either of two general types of stellar assemblages held together by the mutual gravitational attraction of its members, which are physically related through common origin.
They are particularly useful to astronomers as they provide a way to study and model stellar evolution and ages.
The two basic categories of stellar clusters are open clusters, also known as galactic clusters and globular clusters.
Open (Galactic) Clusters:
Open clusters are so named because the individual component stars are easily resolved through a telescope.
They are sometimes called galactic clusters due to their location on the dusty spiral arms on the plane of spiral galaxies.
Stars in an open cluster have a common origin: they formed from the same initial giant molecular cloud.
Open clusters contain from a dozen to many hundreds of stars, usually in an unsymmetrical arrangement.
Globular Clusters:
Globular clusters contain several thousand to one million stars in a spherical, gravitationally-bound system.
Located mostly in the halo surrounding the galactic plane, they comprise the oldest stars in the galaxy.
There is little free dust or gas found in globular clusters, so no new star formation is taking place in them.
Stellar densities within the inner regions of a globular cluster are very high compared with regions such as those around the Sun.
In addition, groups called associations, made up of a few dozen to hundreds of stars of similar type and common origin whose density in space is less than that of the surrounding field, are also recognized.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/massive-5-star-clusters-discovered-from-the-era-when-universe-was-infant-9415953/
Kalibr cruise missile, recently seen in the news, was developed by which one of the following countries?
Russia
Explanation :
The Russian Black Sea Fleet (BSF) recently attacked Ukrainian infrastructure, using its sea-launched Kalibr cruise missiles.
About Kalibr Missile:
It is a family of Russian cruise missiles that can be launched from ships, submarines, containers, airplanes or transport erector launchers.
It has variants designed for anti-ship, anti-submarine, and land attack purposes.
They were developed and produced by Russia’s Almaz-Antey corporation.
Features:
Depending on the variant, the Kalibr missile varies in mass and length, ranging from 1,300 kg to 2,300 kg and from 6.2 m to 8.9 m, respectively.
It has a diameter of 0.533 m and can carry a warhead weighing between 400-500 kg of high explosive or thermonuclear material.
The missile utilizes a multi-stage solid-fuel rocket engine, with some versions incorporating a turbojet engine or a solid-fuel rocket.
These missiles use inertial guidance with satellite navigation update.
They can accelerate in the terminal stage to supersonic speed to avoid enemy defenses.
Range: It varies between 200 km and 2500 km, depending on the type.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.eurasiantimes.com/airfields-for-f-16-fighters-are-burning-russia/
With reference to Crime and Criminal Tracking Networks and Systems (CCTNS), consider the following statements:
- It was conceptualized by the Ministry of Home Affairs under the National E-Governance Plan of India.
- It aims to interlink all police stations in the country under a common application software for investigation, data analytics, research and policymaking.
- The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) is the central nodal agency that would manage CCTNS.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Ahead of the implementation of the new criminal laws, at least 23 modifications have been made to the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network Systems (CCTNS).
About Crime and Criminal Tracking Networks and Systems (CCTNS):
CCTNS was conceptualized by the Ministry of Home Affairs under the National e-governance plan of India and has been implemented as a “Mission Mode Project (MMP)” since 2009.
It is an ambitious project that aims to put in place a comprehensive and integrated system for enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of policing at the police station level throughout the country.
It aimed to interlink all police stations under a common application software for the purposes of investigation, data analytics, research, policymaking and providing Citizen Services such as reporting and tracking of complaints, requests for antecedent verifications by Police, etc.
The records of crimes and criminals available at one police station will be accessible to any other police office.
Objectives.
Make the Police functioning citizen-friendly and more transparent by automating the functioning of Police Stations.
Improve the delivery of citizen-centric services through effective usage of ICT.
Provide the Investigating Officers of the Civil Police with tools, technology, and information to facilitate the investigation of crimes and the detection of criminals.
Improve police functioning in various other areas such as Law and Order, Traffic Management, etc.
Facilitate interaction and sharing of information among Police Stations, Districts, State/UT Headquarters, and other Police Agencies.
Assist senior Police Officers in better management of Police Force.
Keep track of the progress of cases, including in Courts.
Reduce manual and redundant record-keeping.
The project is being implemented with close collaboration between the States and the Union Government.
The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) is the central nodal agency that would manage CCTNS.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/with-dummy-firs-and-pocket-guides-police-get-ready-to-switch-to-new-criminal-laws/article68336792.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Tactical Airborne Platform for Aerial Surveillance (TAPAS):
- It is a medium-altitude, long-endurance (MALE) drone.
- It was developed indigenously by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Indian Air Force (IAF) recently proposed to the central government the purchase of 10 TAPAS drones.
About TAPAS UAV:
The Tactical Airborne Platform for Aerial Surveillance Beyond Horizon-201, or Tapas BH-201, is a medium-altitude, long-endurance (MALE) drone.
It was previously referred to as Rustom-II.
It was developed indigenously by the Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE) of Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Designed to fulfil the Intelligence, Surveillance, Target Acquisition, Tracking & Reconnaissance (ISTAR) requirements of the tri-services, the Tapas UAV can effectively operate both day and night.
Features:
It has an operating altitude of 30000 feet and an endurance of 24 hours.
It also projects a range of 250 km, which can carry a variety of payloads up to a maximum of 350 kg with a wing span of 20.6 metres.
Maximum speed: 225 kmph.
It can be controlled remotely and also has the ability to execute pre-programmed flight plans autonomously with precision and flexibility.
It is equipped with enhanced aerodynamic configuration, digital flight control, navigation system, communication intelligence, medium and long-range electro-optic payloads, and synthetic aperture radar that will enable it to see through the clouds.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.republicworld.com/defence/indian-armed-forces/indian-air-force-to-purchase-of-10-indigenous-tapas-drones-to-enhance-surveillance-capabilities
Bannerghatta Biological Park (BBP), recently seen in the news, lies in which one of the following states?
Karnataka
Explanation :
South India’s first and the country’s largest leopard safari was recently inaugurated at the Bannerghatta Biological Park (BBP).
About Bannerghatta Biological Park (BBP):
It has been an integral part of Bannerghatta National Park and emerged out as an independent establishment in 2002.
It is in order to meet the growing demand for eco-recreation, eco-tourism, and conservation, an area of 545.00ha of forest from the National Park was set aside to constitute a biological park originally and later extended to 731.88ha.
It is located about 22kms south of Bengaluru city, Karnataka.
It has different units such as Zoo, Safari, Butterfly Park and Rescue Centre (Conservation of Captive animals).
It is the first biological park in India to have a fenced, forested elephant sanctuary.
Key Facts about Bannerghatta National Park:
Location: It is located near Bangalore, Karnataka, in the hills of the Anekal range.
It was declared a National Park in 1974.
In 2006, India’s first butterfly enclosure was inaugurated at the park.
River: The Suvarnamukhi stream, the main source of water for the animals in the park, runs through the centre of the park.
Vegetation: There are three types of vegetation that can be found: Dry Deciduous Scrub Forests, Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests and Southern Tropical Moist Mixed Forests.
Flora: Include Narcissus latifolia, Schleichera oleosa, Sandalwood, Neem, Tamarind, Bamboo, Eucalyptus, etc.
Fauna: Prime habitat for several species, including the endangered Asian Elephant, Indian gaur, Tiger, Sambar deer, Spotted deer, Leopard, Wild dog, Wild pig, Sloth bear, Common mongoose, Pangolin, Slender loris, Black-naped hare, etc.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/bangalore/south-indias-first-leopard-safari-opens-at-bannerghatta-biological-park/article68336378.ece
With reference to the ULLAS Programme, consider the following statements:
- It is a central sector scheme.
- It aims to empower adults aged 15 years and above who could not get due schooling.
- Under this initiative Vocational Skills are also provided to learners.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, Ladakh has become the first administrative unit to achieve full functional literacy under the ULLAS-Nav Bharat Saaksharta Karyakram (New India Literacy Program).
The Understanding Lifelong Learning for All in Society (ULLAS) is a centrally sponsored scheme implemented from 2022-2027.
The scheme aligns with the recommendations of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
Aim: It aims to empower those adults aged 15 years and above from all backgrounds who could not get due schooling and mainstream them with society to be able to contribute more to the growth story of the country.
The scheme consists of five components
Foundational Literacy and Numeracy,
Critical Life Skills,
Basic Education,
Vocational Skills, and
Continuing Education.
The vision of the ULLAS Scheme is to make Bharat - Jan Jan Saakshar and is based on the spirit of Kartvya Bodh and is being implemented on volunteerism.
The ULLAS app can be used for registration of learners and volunteers either through self-registration or by surveyors.
It will serve as a digital gateway for learners to engage in diverse learning resources through the DIKSHA portal of NCERT.
Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2028457
Consider the following statements with reference to the Biomass briquette:
- It is made up of compact blocks of organic materials like agricultural residues and forestry wastes.
- It helps in mitigating greenhouse gas emissions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In recent time biomass briquettes are being used as a fuel alternative for the power and electricity generation sector.
These are made up of compact blocks of organic materials, such as agricultural residues, forestry wastes, or industrial by-products.
Applications: These are used for heating, cooking fuel and electricity generation usually in developing countries that do not have access to more traditional fuel sources.
Advantages
Environment Friendly: Bio-briquettes can be created from easily available biomass waste often found in rural settings.
Affordable: These can be made by hand from any freely available organic matter, including invasive species and agro-waste.
Biomass briquettes are carbon-neutral, meaning they release no additional carbon dioxide into the atmosphere when burned.
By reducing reliance on fossil fuels, the adoption of biomass briquettes helps mitigate greenhouse gas emissions, thus contributing to climate change mitigation efforts.
By diverting residues towards productive use, biomass briquettes play a crucial role in waste management and carbon sequestration, further enhancing their environmental credentials.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/sustainability-2/how-biomass-briquettes-are-transforming-supply-chain-dynamics-towards-sustainability/3534263/
Consider the following statements with reference to the eSakshya application:
- It is a mobile-based application to help police record scene of crime and seizure in criminal cases.
- It was developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Days ahead of the implementation of the three criminal laws, the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is testing eSakshya (e-evidence) app.
It is a mobile-based application to help police record scene of crime, search and seizure in a criminal case and upload the file on the cloud-based platform.
Working
The police official will have to upload a selfie after the procedure is complete.
Each recording could be maximum four minutes long and several such files could be uploaded for each First Information Report (FIR).
This mobile application developed by the National Informatics Centre (NIC) will be available to all police stations which register and download the App.
Key facts about the National Informatics Centre
It is the premier information technology organization of the Government of India. Established in 1976, it operates under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
The NIC’s primary focus is to provide e-Government solutions and support to various government departments.
NIC, through its ICT Network, “NICNET”, has institutional linkages with all the Ministries /Departments of the Central Government, 36 State Governments/ Union Territories across India.
The following major activities are being undertaken:
Setting up of ICT Infrastructure
Implementation of National and State Level e-Governance Projects/Products
Consultancy to the Government departments
Research & Development
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/ahead-of-rollout-of-new-criminal-laws-home-ministry-tests-esakhsya-app/article68333238.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Space MAITRI mission:
- It is an initiative between NewSpace India Limited and Australia.
- It aims to foster closer ties between commercial, institutional, and governmental space organizations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Australian government entered into an $18 million memorandum of understanding (MoU) with NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), the commercial arm of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) under the space MAITRI mission.
Space MAITRI (Mission for Australia-India’s Technology, Research and Innovation), represents a major step forward in the strategic partnership between the two nations in the space domain.
It aims to foster closer ties between commercial, institutional, and governmental space organizations from India and Australia.
It focuses on debris management and sustainability, aligning with both nations’ core values and objectives in promoting responsible space operations and mitigating the growing threat of space debris.
Under this agreement, NewSpace India Limited will launch Australia’s Space Machines Company’s second Optimus spacecraft in 2026.
The 450kg Optimus spacecraft, the largest Australian-designed and built spacecraft to date, will be launched on ISRO’s Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV).
Key facts about NewSpace India Limited
It is a commercial arm under Department of Space (DoS), Government of India.
It was incorporated in March 2019 and was set up to take high technology space-related activities in India.
Under the new space policy reforms announced by the Government of India in June 2020, NSIL is to undertake operational satellite missions on a “demand-driven” model.
They are responsible to build, launch, own and operate the satellite and provide services to customers.
It is headquartered in Bengaluru.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/defence-australia-india-collaboration-marks-a-new-era-in-space-exploration-3535511/
Exercise HOPEX, recently in news, was held between India and:
Egypt
Explanation :
Recently, the Indian Air Force and Egyptian Air Force participated in the Exercise HOPEX 2024.
It is the fourth joint exercise of IAF (Indian Air Force) and EAF (Egyptian Air Force) which held in Egypt from 21 to 26 June.
The aim of this exercise is to promote bilateral and regional cooperation, which is a symbol of the long-standing relations between the two countries.
The Indian Air Force’s (IAF) Rafale fighter jets are currently in Egypt for Ex- HOPEX. The C-17 Globemaster and IL-78 tankers are also participating in the weeklong exercise.
India and Egypt relationship
Diplomatic relations between India and Egypt began on 18 August 1947 at the ambassadorial level.
Both countries have cooperated closely on multilateral forums as founding members of the Non-Aligned Movement.
In the year 2022, India and Egypt celebrated the 75th anniversary of diplomatic relations, which reflects the depth of the relationship.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/defence-ex-hopex-india-egypt-defence-cooperation-strengthens-iaf-and-egyptian-air-force-hold-drill-3534490/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Juno Probe:
- It is a spacecraft designed to study the planet Jupiter.
- It is a joint mission of National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) and Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
New findings from NASA’s Juno probe provide a fuller picture of how widespread the lava lakes are on Jupiter’s moon Io.
About Juno Probe:
JUNO is an acronym for Jupiter Near-Polar Orbiter.
It is a NASA spacecraft designed to orbit the planet Jupiter.
Juno was launched by an Atlas V rocket from Cape Canaveral, Florida, on August 5, 2011.
The Juno spacecraft initially embarked on a 5-year journey to the largest planet in our solar system, Jupiter.
Main Goal: Learn more about Jupiter’s origins and how the planet has changed.
Since it arrived at Jupiter in 2016, it has been probing beneath the dense, forbidding clouds encircling the giant planet – the first orbiter to peer so closely.
Juno orbits Jupiter every 11 days in a highly elliptical orbit (4,400 by 2,700,000 km [2,700 by 1,700,000 miles]) over the planet’s poles.
It is solar-powered.
Though Juno’s primary mission wrapped in July 2021, it’s been granted an extended mission that’s expected to end in 2025.
During the extended mission, Juno is exploring even more of the Jupiter system, including some of the planet’s most intriguing moons: Ganymede, Europa, and Io. Juno will also investigate Jupiter’s atmosphere and rings in greater detail.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://phys.org/news/2024-06-nasa-juno-probe-lava-lakes.html
Which one of the following best describes the term “Steriphopus Wangala”, recently seen in the news?
A newly discovered species of spider from northeast India
Explanation :
A new spider species named Steriphopus wangala has been discovered in Meghalaya.
About Steriphopus Wangala:
It is a newly discovered species of spider from the West Garo Hills district of Meghalaya.
It has been named after the Garo community’s harvest festival, the Wangala festival, or the 100 Drums Festival.
This spider belongs to the Palp-Footed Spider family, characterized by their disproportionately powerful and heavily sclerotized first pair of legs.
It has a characteristic reddish-brown colour.
What is the Wangala festival?
Wangala festival, also known as the 100 drums festival, is a popular festival among the Garos of Meghalaya.
The Wangala Festival marks the end of the agricultural season. This is followed by thanking the spirits and deities for a bountiful harvest and seeking their blessings for the upcoming year.
It is the occasion when the tribals offer sacrifices to please their main deity, Saljong, the Sun God.
It also signifies the onset of winter.
The highlight of Wangala is the rhythmic beat of a hundred drums. These drums are a big part of Garo culture, and they are traditionally made out of tree trunks.
Towards the end of the festival (which continues for days), the largest batch of dancers converge on the main celebration area with multiple drumsand perform the ceremonial and traditional dances.
The dance is characterised by dancers moving to the rhythmic drumming.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.eastmojo.com/meghalaya/2024/06/26/a-spider-named-after-wangala-festival-of-meghalaya/
With reference to the Scheme for Partial Reimbursement of Exploration Expenses for Holders of Exploration Licences (EL), consider the following statements:
- It offers a 50 percent reimbursement on expenses incurred during the exploration of critical minerals.
- Though the EL holder must repay the amount received under the scheme, there is no limit on the number of applications or the scheme’s outlay.
- Decisions on reimbursement under the scheme will not impact the obligations of EL holders as per the terms of their EL set by the State Government at the time of auction.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Ministry of Mines recently launched the Scheme for Partial Reimbursement of Exploration Expenses for Holders of Exploration Licences (EL) in a bid to accelerate mineral exploration and alleviate the high associated costs.
About Scheme for Partial Reimbursement of Exploration Expenses for Holders of Exploration Licences (EL):
It was launched by the Ministry of Mines to offer partial reimbursement of exploration expenses to licence holders.
It offers a 50 percent reimbursement on expenses incurred during the exploration ofcritical minerals, with a maximum cap of Rs 20 crore.
The maximum cap can be increased to Rs 24 crore if the EL holderhands over a G2 (general exploration) block for auction for the grant of a mining lease within three yearsfrom the execution of the exploration licenceand it is successfully auctioned.
The incentives for all selected licensees will be provided from the Rs 5,000 crore National Mineral Exploration Trust (NMET) fund.
However, the EL holder must repay the amount received from the NMET within ten years, in equal annual instalments, starting from the beginning of mineral production and the receipt of auction premium shares from any mining leases auctioned based on their exploration.
If the EL holder receives a lump sum payment instead of annual premiums, they must repay the full amount to NMET within one month of receiving the lump sum payment.
Though EL holders will have to return the money, there is no limit on the number of applications or the scheme’s outlay.
The initiative is part of the National Mineral Exploration Policy (NMEP) of 2016, which aims to involve the private sector in mineral exploration by leveraging their expertise, technology, and financial resources.
The exploration of critical and deep-seated minerals became possible after the 2023 amendment to the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act).
This amendment introduced a new mineral concession for the exploration of 29 critical and deep-seated minerals listed in the Seventh Schedule of the Act, aiming to encourage private sector participation.
The scheme allows optional participation for EL holders granted licences through auction after the scheme’s introduction.
To avail these benefits, the holders must submit an exploration expense reimbursementproposal within six months of receiving their EL.
Decisionson reimbursement under the scheme—whether accepted, rejected, or disputed — will not impact the obligations of EL holders as per the terms of their EL set by the State Government at the time of auction.
The ministry has divided the exploration exercise into six stages, each eligible for 50per cent reimbursement with a maximum cap of Rs 20 crore.
The guidelines have also outlined specific maximum outlays for each stage in the scheme.
During the geological mapping and sampling stage, an EL holder can seek reimbursement up to Rs 1.50 crore.
For geophysical investigations, the reimbursement limit is Rs 3 crore, and for exploratory drilling, it stood at Rs 10 crore.
Additionally, the expenses for chemical and petrological analysis, mineral beneficiation, research collaborations, and consultancy services can be reimbursed up to Rs 2.50 crore, Rs 1.50 crore, and Rs 1.50 crore respectively.
Logistics expenses, which include setting up camp offices and hiring personnel, can be reimbursed up to Rs 1.50 crore annually, with a maximum of Rs 30 lakh per year.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.business-standard.com/industry/news/centre-announces-reimbursement-scheme-for-critical-mineral-exploration-124062701019_1.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Motor Neuron Diseases (MNDs):
- MNDs are a group of progressive neurological disorders that destroy motor neurons, the cells that control skeletal muscle activity.
- The majority of cases of MNDs occur due to a genetic mutation or an error in the gene.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The annual conference on MND ‘Awareness, Care, and Management’ held at Nimhans, Bengaluru, stated that symptomatic and supportive treatments help manage the condition better.
About Motor Neuron Diseases (MNDs):
MNDs are a group of progressive neurological disorders that destroy motor neurons, the cells that control skeletal muscle activity such as walking, breathing, speaking, and swallowing.
Motor neurons are found in the brain and spinal cord, and they help tell your muscles what to do.
MND can appear at any age, but the symptoms usually appearafter the age of 50 years.
Early signs of MND include weakness and slurred speech. This eventually leads to paralysis.
It affects more males than females.
Causes:
The exact cause of MND is not known. Generally, MND is believed to be caused by a combination of environmental, lifestyle, and genetic factors.
Most cases of MND develop without an obvious cause.
Around 1 in 10 casesis ‘familial’, meaning the condition is inherited. This is due to a genetic mutation, or an error in the gene.
This group includes diseases such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive bulbar palsy, primary lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, spinal muscular atrophy, Kennedy’s disease, and post-polio syndrome.
The most common type of MND is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS).
It affects both the upper and lower motor neurons—the neurons in the brain and spinal cord—which then affects the muscles of the arms, legs, mouth, and respiratory system.
On average, people with ALS live for 3–5 years after receiving the diagnosis, but with supportive care, some people live for 10 years or longer.
Treatment:
There is no cure or standard treatment for the MNDs.
Symptomatic and supportive treatment can help people be more comfortable while maintaining their quality of life.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.deccanherald.com/india/karnataka/bengaluru/doctors-brainstorm-over-quality-of-life-for-motor-neuron-disease-patients-3082413
Pallikaranai Marshland, recently seen in the news, lies in which one of the following states?
Tamil Nadu
Explanation :
Tamil Nadu govt plans to build a high-level bridge to protect the Pallikaranai marshland.
About Pallikaranai Marshland:
It is a freshwater marshand partly saline wetland situated about 20 kilometres south of the city of Chennai,Tamil Nadu.
It is one of the last remaining natural wetlands in Chennai city.
It serves as an aquatic bufferof the flood-prone Chennai and Chengalpattu districts.
It drains an area of 250 sq.km, encompassing 65 wetlands, through two outlets, viz., Okkiyam Madavu and the Kovalam Creek and falls into the Bay of Bengal.
On its eastern periphery, the Marsh is flanked by the Buckingham Canal.
Parts of the Marsh are well below the mean sea level and qualify as low-lying basins.
It is one of the Ramsar sites in India.
The diverse ecosystem of the marshland supports some 115 bird species, ten mammals, 21 reptiles, ten amphibians, 46 fish, nine molluscs, five crustaceans, and seven butterfly species.
These include notable species such as Russell’s viper (Daboia siamensis) and birds such as the glossy ibis (Plegadis falcinellus), grey-headed lapwings (Vanellus cinereus) and Pheasant-tailed jacana (Hydrophasianus chirurgus).
Although tropical in bio-climate, the influence of the Bay of Bengal has been significant on the Marsh.
Dramatic changes in its hydrology and biodiversity witnessed annually may be attributed to the maritime influenceand the vagaries of the North East Monsoon.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/chennai/tn-govt-plans-a-high-level-bridge-to-protect-chennais-pallikaranai-marshland/articleshow/111264099.cms
With reference to Bhuvan Panchayat Portal, consider the following statements:
- It is an online geospatial data and services dissemination platform.
- It is useful in visualizing and sharing of web map service (WMS).
- It is developed by the Geological Survey of India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science and Technology will launch the two Geoportals namely Bhuvan Panchayat (Ver. 4.0) & National Database for Emergency Management (NDEM Ver. 5.0) on 28th June in New Delhi.
It is an online geospatial data and services dissemination platform to support integration and utilisation of space-based information into governance and research initiatives involving spatial planning up to Gram Panchayat level.
Developed by: This WebGIS platform developed by NRSC, ISRO.
It enables visualisation, analysis, sharing of web map service (WMS) services of all the thematic data products generated at 1:10k under the Space based Information Support for Decentralized Planning (SISDP) project.
What is National Database for Emergency Management (NDEM) portal?
It provides comprehensive uniform, structured, multi-scale scale geospatial database for entire country for situational assessment and effective decision-making during disasters/ emergency situations.
It acts as a national level geo-portal to provide space-based information with the amalgamation of DSS tools and services of disaster forecasting organisations with value addition addressing all natural disasters in all phases of disasters for an effective Disaster Risk Reduction in the Country.
It will also act as a Disaster Recovery and Data Provider node for the Integrated Control Room for Emergency Response (ICR-ER) being established by MHA, New Delhi.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2028983
Consider the following statements with reference to the ABHYAS- High Speed Expendable Aerial Target:
- It provides a realistic threat scenario for weapon systems practice.
- It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has successfully completed six consecutive developmental trials of High Speed Expendable Aerial Target (HEAT) ‘ABHYAS’ in Chandipur, Odisha.
It is a High Speed Expendable Aerial Target (HEAT)
It has been designed by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) Aeronautical Development Establishment, Bengaluru, and developed through Production Agencies - Hindustan Aeronautics Limited & Larsen & Toubro.
Features
It offers a realistic threat scenario for weapon systems practice.
This indigenous system is designed for autonomous flying with the help of an auto pilot, a laptop-based Ground Control System for aircraft integration, pre-flight checks, and autonomous flight.
It also has a feature to record data during flight for post-flight analysis.
The booster has been designed by Advanced Systems Laboratory and the navigation system by Research Centre Imarat.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2029196
Consider the following statements with reference to the Raimona National Park:
- It is located in Assam along the India-Bangladesh international border.
- It consists of savannah forests and moist-mixed deciduous forests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A team of scientists recorded a lone mainland serow (Capricornis sumatraensis thar) at 96 metres above the mean sea level in western Assam’s Raimona National Park.
It is located in the state of Assam along the Indo-Bhutan border.
Boundaries
The northern part of it shares the Indo-Bhutan international border with Phibsoo Wildlife Sanctuary in Bhutan.
Western part: It is marked by the Sankosh River along with the inter-state boundary of West Bengal and Assam from the Indo-Bhutan border.
Eastern part of Raimona National Park, the Saralbhanga River (also called Swrmanga) flows southward from Sarphang district of Bhutan..
Vegetation: It includes as many as twelve different types and sub-types of forests ranging from very moist sal forests, sub-Himalayan high alluvial semi-evergreen forests, savannah forests, moist-mixed deciduous forests, riparian fringing forests to khoir-sisoo forests.
Flora: This park flourishes with myriads of orchid species, other tropical rainforest species, and riverine grasslands
Fauna: Golden Langur shares its space with Asian Elephant, Royal Bengal Tiger, Clouded Leopard, Indian Gaur etc.
Key facts about Mainland Serow
It is a mammal that appears somewhere between a goat and an antelope.
According to the International Union for Conservation of Nature, the mainland serow inhabits areas at altitudes of 200-3,000 metres.
Distribution: The animal habitat is across the India-Bhutan border in Phibsoo Wildlife Sanctuary and the Royal Manas National Park in the Himalayan country.
There are three other species of the animal – Japanese serow, red serow (found in eastern India, Bangladesh, and Myanmar), and Taiwan or Formosan serow.
Conservation status
IUCN: Vulnerable
CITES : Appendix I
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/antelope-like-mammal-from-bhutan-recorded-at-lowest-elevation-in-assam/article68339890.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Microwave Obscurant Chaff Rocket:
- It obscures radar signals and creates a microwave shield around assets by reducing radar detection.
- It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) handed over the Medium Range-Microwave Obscurant Chaff Rocket (MR-MOCR) to the Indian Navy at a ceremony held in New Delhi.
Microwave Obscurant Chaff (MOC) is a niche technology developed by DRDO’s Defence Laboratory, Jodhpur.
It obscures radar signals and creates a microwave shield around platforms and assets, thus reducing radar detection.
Special type of fibres, with diameter of few microns and unique microwave obscuration properties, has been assembled in the medium range chaff rocket.
How it functions?: When the rocket is fired it forms microwave obscurant cloud in space spreading over a sufficient area, with adequate persistence time, thus creating an effective shield against hostile threats having Radio Frequency seekers.
DRDO has indigenously developed three variants of this critical technology namely Short Range Chaff Rocket (SRCR), Medium Range Chaff Rocket (MRCR) and Long Range Chaff Rocket (LRCR).
Phases
The Phase-I trials of MR-MOCR were successfully conducted from Indian Navy ships, demonstrating the MOC cloud blooming and being persistent in space.
In Phase-II trials, the Radar Cross Section (RCS) reduction of an aerial target to the extent of 90 per cent has been demonstrated and cleared by the Indian Navy.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2028794
Consider the following statements with reference to the Rhisotope Project:
- It involves inserting two tiny radioactive chips into the horns of rhinoceros.
- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, South African scientists injected radioactive material into live rhinoceros horns under the Rhisotope Project to curb poaching.
It was started in 2021 in South Africa.
It aims to make the rhinoceros horns easier to detect at border posts and render them useless for human consumption.
The project involves inserting two tiny radioactive chips into the horns of 20 rhinos.
The low-dose radioactive material is designed to be detectable by radiation sensors at international borders without harming the animals or the environment.
The radioactive material is expected to last five years on the horn, making it a more cost-effective solution than dehorning every 18 months. Additionally, the team sprayed 11,000 microdots on each treated horn for further identification.
The team of scientists will take follow-up blood samples to ensure the rhinoceroses are effectively protected.
South Africa, home to the majority of the world’s rhinos, has been battling a poaching crisis driven by demand from Asia, where rhino horns are used in traditional medicine.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/s-africa-scientists-make-rhino-horns-radioactive-to-curb-poaching/article68335659.ece
“HbA1c test” is used to measure which one of the following?
Average blood sugar levels
Explanation :
Researchers from India, London and Africa have proposed that the oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) used to determine if a pregnant woman has developed gestational diabetes be replaced by an HbA1c test.
About Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT):
OGTTs are done to measure how well the body can process larger amounts of sugar.
Procedure:
The person fasts overnight, and in the morning, is given a fixed dose of glucose, usually in the form of a sweet drink.
Blood samples are taken at 30-minute intervals for 2 hours.
If the blood sugar reading is above a certain level, this could be a sign that sugar is not being absorbed fast enough by the body’s organs.
Then diabetes, or gestational (pregnancy-related) diabetes, might be at the root of this problem.
In gestational diabetes, blood sugar levels are often higher due to changes in the metabolism during pregnancy, but they usually come back down again after the child is born.
Diabetes can lead to heart disease, nerve damage, eye disease, and kidney damage.
What is HbA1c test?
A hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) test is a blood test that shows what your average blood sugar (glucose) level was over the past two to three months.
Glucose in your blood sticks to hemoglobin, a protein in your red blood cells (RBCs).
As your blood glucose levels increase, more of your hemoglobin will be coated with glucose.
HbA1c is what’s known as glycated haemoglobin.
An HbA1c test measures the percentage of your RBCs that have glucose-coated hemoglobin.
RBCs are active for around 2-3 months, which is why the reading is taken quarterly.
No preparation is needed for this test.
A high HbA1c means you have too much sugar in your blood.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/screen-all-pregnant-women-for-gestational-diabetes-with-point-of-care-test-suggests-new-study/article68345657.ece
With reference to Svalbard, consider the following statements:
- It is an archipelago that is situated in the Arctic Ocean.
- It is an independent territory administered by United Nations conventions.
- The majority of Svalbard is covered by glacial ice and permanent snowfields.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Scientists are investigating the first field of hydrothermal vents on the 500-kilometer-long Knipovich Ridge off the coast of Svalbard.
About Svalbard:
It is an archipelago that is situated in the Arctic Ocean, to the north of the European mainland.
It is the northernmost place in the world with a permanent population.
Discovery: It was discovered by the Dutch explorer Willem Barentsz in 1596.
It is part of Norway. The 1920 Svalbard Treaty established Norwegian sovereignty over the Svalbard Islands.
It is located about halfway between the North Pole and the northern part of Norway.
It covers a total area of about 61,022 sq.km, of which 36,502 sq.km (about 60%) is covered by glacial ice and permanent snowfields.
It is composed of several islands such as Spitsbergen, Nordaustlandet, Edgeøya, Barentsøya, Kvitøya, Kong Karls Land, Prins Karls Forland, Bjørnøya, and Hopen.
Spitsbergen is the largest and most populous island.
The island is bounded by the Arctic Ocean, the Greenland Sea, and the Norwegian Sea.
The Svalbard Global Seed Vault is also located on Spitsbergen.
Climate: The archipelago features an Arctic climate, although with significantly higher temperatures than other areas at the same latitude.
Due to its location in the northern part of the Arctic Circle, the Svalbard Islands experience the midnight sun during the summer months and polar night during the winter months.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-06-newly-hydrothermal-vents-depths-meters.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Parvati River:
- It is located in the Parvati Valley of Himachal Pradesh.
- It is a major tributary of the Ravi River.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A tourist from Haryana was washed away after she slipped in the gushing waters of Parvati River while taking photographs by the riverside at Katagala near Manikaran, Himachal Pradesh.
About Parvati River:
The Parvati River, also known as the Parbati River, is located in the Parvati Valley of Himachal Pradesh.
It is a major tributary of the Beas River.
Course:
It rises from the Man Talai Glacier below the Pin Parbati Pass on the Greater Himalayas western slope at an altitude of 5200 meters above mean seal level.
This pass connects the fertile and lush Parvati valley on the Kullu side with the Pin valley on the Spiti side.
The river flows for approximately 150 km, meandering through the valley and collecting water from several glacial streams along the way.
As it flows, the Parvati River forms the picturesque regions of Malana and Manikaran and passes through lush green forests and rolling hills.
The river is fed by melting glaciers and receives additional water from the monsoons that occur in the region.
The river continues its course until it reaches Bhuntar, south of Kullu, where it merges with the Beas River.
Some of the major tributaries of the Parvati River include: Malana Nala, Manikaran Nala, Rashol Nala, and Chalal Nala.
The river also has geothermal springs on the banks of the river at Manikaran and Khirganga.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/chandigarh-news/tourist-washed-away-in-parvati-river-near-himachal-s-manikaran-101719528329991.html
Which one of the following is the primary purpose of the GSAT 20 satellite, recently seen in the news?
Communication
Explanation :
In a first, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) will launch its latest large satellite, GSAT 20, on SpaceX’s Falcon 9 rocket.
About GSAT 20 Satellite:
It is India’s latest communications satellite.
It is a hi-tech, heavy-weight satellite weighing 4,700 kg.
It will have a high throughput capacity of 48 GBPS.
The satellite made by ISRO has 32 spot beams and it has been made to cover all of India, but with a special emphasis on providing connectivity for Northeastern India.
The satellite will be owned and operated by ISRO’s commercial arm New Space India Ltd. (NSIL).
ISRO opted for SpaceX to launch GSAT 20 because India’s indigenous heavy rocket, the Launch Vehicle Mark 3, lacks the capability to lift such a heavy satellite.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/science/isro-to-launch-first-satellite-on-spacex-falcon-9-rocket-in-august-5974998
Consider the following statements with reference to the Central Electronics Limited (CEL):
- It is a Govt. of India Enterprise under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
- It aims to achieve excellence in the technology and manufacture, and be market leader in Solar Energy Systems and Strategic Electronics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Central Electronics Limited (CEL) was recently granted “Mini Ratna” status (Category-1) at its Golden Jubilee celebration.
About Central Electronics Limited (CEL):
It is a Govt. of India Enterprise under the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research (DSIR), Ministry of Science and Technology.
It was established in 1974, with the objective to commercially exploit indigenous technologies developed by National Laboratories and R&D Institutions in the country.
CEL’s mission is to achieve excellence in the technology and manufacture, and be market leader in Solar Energy Systems and Strategic Electronics.
It holds a unique position among the family of Public Sector Enterprises in Electronics, with its emphasis on indigenous technology inducted both from its in-house developments and from the National Laboratories, for its production programme in diverse high-technology areas of national importance.
The activities of CEL are sharply focused on three thrust areas:
Solar photovoltaic cells, modules, and systems for a variety of applications.
Selected Electronic Systems: Equipment for Railway Signalling and Safety, Cathodic protection Equipment for Oil Pipelines, Switching Systems and Very Small Aperture Terminals (VSATs).
Selected Electronic components-professional (Soft) Ferrites, Electronic Ceramics, Piezo Electric Elements and Microwave Components.
CEL has been a pioneer in the country in the areas of solar photovoltaics, ferrites, and piezo ceramics.
Today, it enjoys the international status of being among the top producers of crystalline silicon solar cells in the world.
CEL has developed a number of critical components for strategic applications and is supplying these items to Defence.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2028866
Consider the following statements with reference to the Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor Receptor:
- It helps in embryogenesis and skeletal growth.
- It is the key regulator of the process of generating new blood vessels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers at the Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER), Kolkata, investigated Receptor Tyrosine Kinases (RTK) called Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor Receptor (VEGFR).
It is a key regulator of physiological angiogenesis during embryogenesis, skeletal growth and reproductive functions.
VEGF has also been implicated in pathological angiogenesis associated with tumors, intraocular neovascular disorders and other conditions.
The biological effects of VEGF are mediated by two receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs), VEGFR-1 and VEGFR-2.
The VEGFR family of receptors is the key regulator of the process of generating new blood vessels.
Highlight of the research
The researchers were intrigued by the fact that two members of family VEGFR 1 and VEGFR 2 behaved quite differently.
While VEGFR 2, the primary receptor regulating process of formation of new blood vessels, could be spontaneously activated, without its ligand, the other member of the family VEGFR 1 cannot be spontaneously activated even when overexpressed in cells.
It camouflages as a dead enzyme VEGFR1 and binds with ten-fold higher affinity to its ligand VEGF-A than VEGFR2.
This ligand binding induces a transient kinase (speeding up chemical reactions in the body by an enzyme) activation.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2029236
Consider the following statements with reference to the Breath Analysers:
- It is an instrument that measures and displays the breath alcohol mass concentration of exhaled human breath.
- In India, Breath Analysers are to be verified under the Legal Metrology Act, 2009.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Legal Metrology Division of the Department of Consumer Affairs, Government of India has unveiled new draft rules for Evidential Breath Analysers under the Legal Metrology (General) Rules, 2011.
It is an Instrument that measures and displays the breath alcohol mass concentration of exhaled human breath within specified error limits.
It provides a non-invasive way to measure blood alcohol content, offering quick and painless sample collection.
Working of Breath Analyser
In the case of alcohol detection, a precise amount of a person’s exhaled breath is passed through a solution of potassium dichromate and sulfuric acid in the analyzer.
The change in the colour of the solution is proportional to the amount of alcohol in the air sample, which in turn is directly related to the alcohol content of the blood.
Evidential Breath Analysers needs to be verified and stamped according to the Legal Metrology Act, 2009, to ensure their accuracy.
The rapid analysis capabilities allow law enforcement officers to make swift, informed decisions, enhancing the effectiveness of roadside checks.
This verification protects individuals from wrongful penalties due to faulty equipment and helps maintain the integrity of legal and workplace policies.
The availability of stamped and verified Evidential Breath Analysers to the public can raise awareness about the effects of alcohol on impairment and the legal limits for safe operation of vehicles and machinery. This encourages responsible behavior and informed decision-making.
The rules are applicable to those types of Evidential Breath Analysers that use mouthpieces for sampling the breath.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2029273
Consider the following statements with reference to the Krishi Katha platform:
- It helps in raising awareness, facilitating exchange of knowledge, fostering collaboration and empowering farmers.
- It is an initiative of NITI Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister for Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare and Rural Development launched web portal for faster bank settlements of interest subvention claims under Agriculture Infrastructure Fund along with Krishi Katha platform.
It showcases the voice of the Indian farmers, dedicated to amplifying the experiences, insights and success stories of farmers across the country.
It aims to provide a comprehensive and immersive storytelling space where the narratives of India’s agricultural community can be shared and celebrated.
The objectives behind this initiative will be helpful in raising awareness, facilitating exchange of knowledge, fostering collaboration and empowering farmers.
Key facts about Agriculture Infrastructure Fund Scheme
It was launched in 2020.
Objective: Development of post-harvest management infrastructure for reducing losses, realisation of better value to farmers, innovation in agriculture and attracting investments for creation of Agriculture infrastructure with a total outlay of ₹ 1 lakh crore funding through the banks and financial institutions upto 2025-26.
The scheme provides for 3% interest subvention to beneficiaries of the scheme for the loans given by banks upto ₹ 2 crore for a maximum period of 7 years, besides reimbursement of credit guarantee fee paid by banks.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2029322
Consider the following statements with reference to the Sangyaan App:
- It aims to empower Railway Protection Force Personnel by providing comprehensive information about three new Criminal Acts of India.
- It is developed by the National Informatics Centre.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Director General of Railway Protection Force (RPF) launched the mobile application-Sangyaan App.
It is designed and developed by the Tech Team of RPF.
It is a practical tool for anyone seeking to stay informed about the latest legal developments in India.
It aims to educate and empower RPF Personnel by providing comprehensive information to understand the provisions of both new and old criminal laws, while highlighting the relevance of these new acts in the context of RPF operations.
It will provide in-depth information on three new Criminal Acts: the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023, the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023, and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) 2023.
Key Features
Comprehensive Legal Access
Comparison of Laws
Section wise analysis
Advanced Search Tools
Inclusive Legal Database
User-Friendly Design
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2028994
Gardi Sugdub Island, recently seen in news, is located in:
Caribbean Sea
Explanation :
Earlier in June, around 300 families were relocated off the island of Gardi Sugdub in Panama’s Guna Yala province due to concerns over rising sea levels.
It is a tiny island in the Caribbean Sea and a part of the San Blas archipelago, which comprises 365 islands, mostly uninhabited.
It is home to 1,200 indigenous Guna people, who will soon be displaced to the mainland because of the sea level rise induced by climate change.
The further movement of inhabitants from the surrounding islands is foreseen to be necessary by 2050.
The Latin American nation is set to become the first to evacuate an entire island community due to climate change.
Panama is situated in the Caribbean, where sea level rise currently averages around 3 to 4 millimetres per year
Key facts about the Caribbean Sea
It is the Atlantic Ocean’s 2nd largest marginal sea that is geographically positioned between the continents of North and South America in the Western Hemisphere.
It is bordered by the countries of Colombia, Panama, and Venezuela in the south; by Belize, Costa Rica, Guatemala, Honduras, Nicaragua, and Mexico’s Yucatan Peninsula in the west; by the Greater Antilles islands in the north; and by the Lesser Antilles islands in the east.
The Caribbean Sea is connected with the Gulf of Mexico in the north via the Yucatan Channel.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/panama-island-relocate-sea-level-rise-9420734/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Shyok River:
- It is a river that flows through the Ladakh region of Jammu and Kashmir.
- It is a tributary of the Jhelum River.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Five soldiers died after a tank was swept away by strong water currents in the Shyok river during a military training in Ladakh recently.
About Shyok River:
It is a river that flows through northern Ladakh in Jammu and Kashmir, India, and enters the Pakistan-administered region of Gilgit-Baltistan, where it joins the Indus River.
It is a tributary of the Indus River.
Course:
It originates from the Rimo Glacier; one of the tongues of the Siachen Glacier, and gets its name from a Ladakhi word meaning ‘the river of death’.
The alignment of the Shyok river is very strange, originating from the Rimo glacier, it flows in a South-East direction and at joining the Pangong range, it takes a north-west turn and flows parallel to its prior path.
The Shyok, flowing in a broad valley, rapidly enters a narrow gorge after Chalunka and then joins the Indus at Skardu (Pakistan).
The total length of the river is around 550 km (340 mi).
It is fed by meltwater from numerous glaciers on its journey.
It meanders through the high-altitude deserts and mountain ranges of Ladakh before converging with the Indus.
Its main right-bank tributary is the Nubra River.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/ladakh/five-tank-bound-army-soldiers-swept-away-while-crossing-river-in-ladakh/article68347280.ece
Pench Tiger Reserve lies in which one of the following states?
Madhya Pradesh
Explanation :
The Pench Tiger Reserve recently launched an advanced Artificial Intelligence (AI) system for the early detection of forest fires.
About Pench Tiger Reserve:
Location: The reserve is located in the southern reaches of the Satpura hills in the Seoni and Chhindwara districts in Madhya Pradesh and continues in Nagpur district in Maharashtra as a separate Sanctuary.
It is named after the Pench River, which flows from north to south through the Reserve.
It comprises of the Indira Priyadarshini Pench National Park, the Pench Mowgli Sanctuary, and a buffer.
The area of the Pench Tiger Reserve and the surrounding area is the real-story area of Rudyard Kipling’s famous “The Jungle Book”.
Terrain: It is undulating, with most of the area covered by small hills and steep slopes on the sides.
Vegetation: The undulating topography supports a mosaic of vegetation ranging from a moist sheltered valley to an open, dry deciduous forest.
Flora: The reserve boasts a diverse range of flora, including teak, saag, mahua, and various grasses, and shrubs.
Fauna:
The area is especially famous for large herds of Chital, Sambar, Nilgai, Gaur (Indian Bison), and wild boar.
The key predator is the tiger, followed by the leopard, wild dogs, and wolf.
There are over 325 species of resident and migratory birds, including the Malabar Pied Hornbill, Indian Pitta, Osprey, Grey Headed Fishing Eagle, White Eyed Buzzard, etc.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/science-technology/pench-tiger-reserve-in-maharashtra-launches-first-advanced-ai-system-for-forest-fire-detection-96887
Consider the following statements with reference to the South China Sea:
- It is an arm of the western Pacific Ocean that borders the Southeast Asian mainland.
- It is connected by the Taiwan Strait with the East China Sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India recently said it opposes unilateral actions seeking to change the status quo by force in South China Sea amid concerns over China’s escalatory moves against the Philippines’ maritime operations in the region.
About South China Sea:
It is an arm of the western Pacific Ocean that borders the Southeast Asian mainland.
It embraces an area of about 1,423,000 square miles (3,685,000 square km), with a mean depth of 3,976 feet (1,212 metres).
Boundaries:
It is bordered by China, Taiwan, Philippines, Malaysia, Indonesia, Brunei, and Vietnam.
The southern boundary of the South China Sea is a rise in the seabed between Sumatra and Borneo, and the northern boundary stretches from the northernmost point of Taiwan to the coast of Fujian province, China, in the Taiwan Strait.
It is connected by the Taiwan Strait with the East China Sea and by the Luzon Strait with the Philippine Sea (both marginal seas of the Pacific Ocean).
The South China Sea and the East China Sea together form the China Sea.
The two major archipelagos are known as the Paracel Islands, controlled by China, and the Spratly Islands.
Climate: The weather in the sea is tropical and largely controlled by monsoons.
It is the second most used sea lane in the world. It is a significant trade route for crude oil from the Persian Gulf and Africa through the Strait of Malacca to Singapore, Thailand, Hong Kong, Taiwan, South Korea, and Japan.
Major Ports: Hong Kong, Singapore, and Kaohsiung in southern Taiwan.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/oppose-unilateral-actions-change-status-quo-force-india-fresh-tensions-south-china-sea-9421529/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Oropouche Fever, recently seen in the news:
- It is an emerging zoonotic bacterial disease.
- There are no vaccines or specific treatments for Oropouche fever.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Italy reported its first-ever case of Oropouche fever, a mosquito-borne disease, recently.
About Oropouche Fever:
It is an emerging zoonotic arboviral disease caused by the Oropouche Virus (OROV).
OROV is part of the orthobunyavirus family, with an incubation period of 4 to 8 days.
It was first discovered in Trinidad and Tobago in 1955.
Symptoms:
The symptoms of Oropouche fever often mimic those of other viral infections, including fever, headache, muscle pain, joint pain, and nausea.
However, severe cases can lead to meningitis or encephalitis, posing significant health risks, especially to vulnerable populations.
Most patients recover in about a week, but for some, symptoms linger for weeks.
Transmission:
It is spread to humans through the bite of an infected midge (small fly) or mosquito.
Factors such as urbanization, deforestation, and climate change contribute to the proliferation of its vector, escalating the risk of transmission.
Treatment:
There are no vaccines to prevent Oropouche fever.
There is no specific treatment for Oropouche fever.
Medical care aims to control the symptoms and help with recovery.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/lifestyle/health/what-is-oropouche-fever-know-the-symptoms-of-this-mosquito-borne-disease-101719385374702.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Saubhagya Scheme:
- It aims to provide electricity connections to all un-electrified households in rural areas and all poor households in urban areas in the country.
- The Rural Electrification Corporation (REC) has been designated as its nodal agency for the Saubhagya scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Meghalaya Lokayukta recently issued notifications to the former chief secretary and other former officials of the Meghalaya Energy Corporation Limited (MeECL) for their alleged irregularities in the implementation of the Saubhagya scheme in the state.
About Saubhagya Scheme:
The Government of India launched Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana (SAUBHAGYA) in October, 2017
Objective: Achieving universal household electrification, by providing electricity connections to all un-electrified households in rural areas and all poor households in urban areas in the country.
Under the Saubhagaya scheme, LED bulbs, wire, holders, switches, etc are to be provided to BPL families free of cost.
Salient features of the scheme were:
Providing last-mile connectivity and electricity connections to all un-electrified households in rural areas.
Providing Solar Photo Voltaic (SPV)-based standalone systems for un-electrified households located in remote and inaccessible villages / habitations where grid extension is not feasible or cost effective.
Providing last mile connectivity and electricity connections to all remaining economically poor un-electrified households in urban areas. Non-poor urban households are excluded from this scheme.
In the rural areas, families other than BPL families electricity connection has to be provided for Rs. 500. The consumer has to pay the amount in 10 equal installments of Rs. 50 in each bill, in the urban areas, the BPL families will be provided free power connection.
It is a provision that families of rural areas, which are not possible to issue electrical assemblies through grid supply, have to be published through solar energy.
Rural Electrification Corporation (REC) has been designated as its nodal agency for the Saubhagya scheme.
The beneficiaries for free electricity connections will be identified using Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011 data.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/suabhagya-scheme-ex-meghalaya-energy-officials-issued-notice-over-irregularities-101719647287465-amp.html
Rim of the Pacific (RIMPAC) exercise, recently in news, is a:
maritime exercise
Explanation :
Indian multi-role stealth frigate INS Shivalik, mission deployed in South China Sea and North Pacific Ocean, has reached Pearl Harbour in Hawaii to take part in the Rim of the Pacific (RIMPAC) exercise.
It is the world’s largest international maritime exercise, being held in Hawaii.
It is aimed at enhancing interoperability and building trust among the navies of friendly foreign countries.
It is being held under the theme of Partners: Integrated and Prepared, which runs until August 1.
It is led by the US Navy, approx 29 countries are participating in the current edition of the multi-dimensional exercise.
The harbour phase of the exercise from 27 Jun to 07 Jul 2024 will see participation in multiple symposiums, exercise planning discussions, sports competitions and reciprocal deck visits.
The sea phase of RIMPAC – 24, divided into three sub-phases will witness ships undertaking basic and advanced level integration exercises during the first two sub-phases.
The exercise will witness the participation of an Aircraft Carrier Battle Group, submarines, maritime reconnaissance aircraft, unmanned aerial vehicles, remotely piloted surface ships and also an amphibious force landing operations including joint operations with special forces of multinational navies.
It provides a unique training opportunity while fostering and sustaining cooperative relationships among participants, critical to ensuring the safety of sea lanes and security of world’s oceans.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2029512
Consider the following statements with reference to the National Statistics Day:
- It is celebrated in recognition of the notable contributions made by Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis.
- The theme for Statistics Day, 2024 is “Use of data for decision-making”.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
National Statistics Day is celebrated in India on June 29 every year.
It is celebrated in recognition of the notable contributions made by Professor (late) Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis in the fields of statistics and economic planning.
The main objective of celebrating Statistics Day is creation of public awareness, especially among the younger generation, on the role and importance of statistics in socio-economic planning and policy formulation for development of the country.
Since 2007, Statistics Day is celebrated every year with a theme of contemporary national importance.
The theme for Statistics Day, 2024 is “Use of data for decision-making”.
The concept of data driven decision making is important for making informed decisions in any field, and it is one of the pre-requisites for better understanding of statistical information, emanating from official statistics and for facilitating evidence-based decision making.
Who is Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis?
He was born on 29 June 1893.
He is known as the father of Indian statistics and was an Indian scientist and statistician. His role in India’s post-independence economic planning is undeniable.
He established the Indian Statistical Institute in 1931. It is one of the premier institutions for statistical research and training .
He was awarded one of the highest civilian awards, the Padma Vibhushan from the Government of India for his contribution to science.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2029487
Consider the following statements with reference to the Interest Equalisation Scheme:
- It provides pre- and post-shipment export credit to exporters in rupees.
- It is jointly monitored by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) and the Reserve Bank of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Department of Commerce has extended the Interest Equalisation Scheme for pre- and post-shipment rupee export credit for Micro, Small and Medium-scale (MSME) exporters till August 31.
It was first implemented on 1st April, 2015, to provide pre- and post-shipment export credit to exporters in rupees.
It was initially valid for 5 years, up to 31.3.2020. The scheme has been continued thereafter, including a one-year extension during COVID and further extensions and fund allocations.
Implementing agency: It is being implemented by the RBI through various Public and non-Public Sector banks who provide pre- and post-shipment credit to the exporters.
The Scheme is jointly monitored by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) and the RBI through a consultative mechanism.
The scheme helps the identified export sectors to be internationally competitive and to achieve a high level of export performance.
Features:
An eligible exporter has to submit a certification from the external auditor to the concerned bank to claim this benefit.
Banks provide IES benefits to the eligible exporters and claim a reimbursement from the RBI based on the external auditor certification furnished by the exporter.
Currently, the Scheme provides an interest equalisation benefit at the rate of 2% on pre- and post-shipment rupee export credit to merchant and manufacturer exporters of 410 identified tariff lines at 4-digit level and 3% to all MSME manufacturer exporters.
The Scheme has now been made fund-limited, and the benefit to individual exporters has been capped at Rs 10 Crore per annum per IEC (Import Export Code).
In addition, the banks that lend to exporters at an average rate of more than Repo + 4% would be debarred under the Scheme.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/interest-equalisation-scheme-extended-for-msme-exporters/article68348217.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the National Quality Assurance Standards (NQAS) assessment:
- It is an initiative of union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
- It has been launched to assess the quality of the organic vegetables.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched National Quality Assurance Standards (NQAS) assessment, Dashboard for IPHS and Spot Food Licence Initiative to provide “Healthcare for All” and promote wellness.
National Quality Assurance Standards (NQAS) assessment has been launched for Ayushman Arogya Mandirs (AAM) and Integrated Public Health Laboratories (IPHL) in compliance with IPHS standards.
IPHS is a digital platform for real-time monitoring of public health facilities that provides a comprehensive overview of the assessment and compliance status of public health facilities.
What is Spot Food Licence Initiative?
It is for the instant issuance of licenses and registrations through the pan-India IT platform designed to address all food safety regulatory needs i.e Food Safety and Compliance System (FoSCoS).
This new provision supplements the existing procedures for applying and obtaining licenses and registrations as prescribed under the Food Safety and Standards (Licensing and Registration of Food Businesses) Regulation, 2011.
Instant issuance of licenses without the intervention of a licensing authority will be available for select categories such as wholesalers, distributors, retailers, transporters, storage without atmospheric control + cold, importers, food vending agencies, direct sellers and merchant-exporters.
This scheme will not apply to businesses involved in high-risk food categories like milk, meat and fish.
What are Ayushman Arogya Mandirs?
These have been established and operationalized to provide comprehensive, accessible healthcare services for all citizens.
These are led by Community Health Officers, the primary healthcare teams at AAM are trained to manage initial care, triage, and refer patients to appropriate facilities for further treatment.
This approach reduces the burden on secondary and tertiary care facilities by providing primary care services closer to the community with adequate referral linkages.
The early identification and management of health issues help prevent disease progression, necessitating advanced care.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2029386
Artificial Intelligence Preparedness Index (AIPI), recently seen in news, is launched by:
International Monetary Fund
Explanation :
Recently, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) released an Artificial Intelligence Preparedness Index (AIPI) Dashboard.
It assesses the level of AI preparedness across 174 countries.
The rating for each country is given based on the assessment of readiness in four key areas - digital infrastructure, human capital and labour market policies, innovation and economic integration, and regulation and Ethics.
The Index has categorised each country into Advanced Economy (AE), Emerging Market Economy (EM), and Low-Income Country (LIC).
Singapore (0.80), Denmark (0.78), and the United States (0.77) are among the highest-rated AEs,
India categorised as an EM with a 0.49 rating. India ranks 72 in a total of 174 countries, with Bangladesh (0.38) on 113, Sri Lanka (0.43) on 92, and China (0.63) on 31.
Key facts about International Monetary Fund
It fosters economic growth and employment by providing temporary financial assistance to countries to help ease the balance of payments adjustment and technical assistance.
It was formed in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference with the goal of reconstructing the international monetary system.
Important Reports: World Economic Outlook and Global Financial Stability Report
Headquarters: Washington, DC, USA
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/artificial-intelligence/international-monetary-fund-maps-174-countries-artificial-intelligence-readiness-india-is-at-72-5980742
