June 2024 Flashcards
Consider the following statements with reference to the interim bail:
- It is a short-term temporary relief to individuals entangled in legal proceedings before the hearing for the grant of regular or anticipatory bail.
- The period for interim bail cannot be extended at any cost.
- It can be granted if a clear case for custodial interrogation is not made out.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently chief minister of Delhi appeals for bail extension on medical grounds as interim period ends on 1st of June.
Why in News?
Supreme Court is likely to hear an application moved by Chief Minister of Delhi seeking interim bail for a week on medical grounds in a money laundering case related to the alleged excise scam.
About Interim Bail:
An interim bail is a short-term temporary relief to individuals entangled in legal proceedings before the hearing for the grant of regular or anticipatory bail.
The period for interim bail can be extended, but if the accused individual does not pay the court to confirm or extend the interim bail, they will lose their freedom and may end up in jail or face a warrant.
Grounds for Granting Interim Bail:
In the Parminder Singh and Ors. v. The State of Punjab (November 02, 2001) case, the Delhi High Court listed certain scenarios where interim bail should be granted which are as follows:
No likelihood of the accused fleeing from justice,
No chance of tampering with the evidence,
A clear case for custodial interrogation is not made out,
The application for a grant of anticipatory bail cannot be heard at an early date.”
Some common grounds:
In case the accused has a serious medical condition requiring urgent or specialized treatment.
After considering the humanitarian factors such as familial responsibilities, age, health of the family members.
If the investigation is taking an unreasonable amount of time despite his cooperation with authorities.
Related Case Laws:
Lal Kamlendra Pratap Singh vs. State of U.P.& Ors (March, 2009)
Sukhwant Singh vs. State of Punjab (May, 2009)
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/delhi/delhi-news-live-updates-arvind-kejriwal-bail-9364810/
Consider the following statements with reference to the World Health Assembly:
- It is the decision-making body of the United Nations.
- The Health Assembly is held annually in Geneva, Switzerland.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently at the 77th World Health Assembly, member states approved a draft resolution on improving organ transplantation availability, including human cells and tissues.
Why in news?
On 29 May 2024, Member States (with the initiation of Spain) approved a new resolution on increasing availability, ethical access and oversight of transplantation of human cells, tissues and organs.
About the draft resolution:
The draft urged member states to increase in line with the World Health Organization (WHO) Guiding Principles on Human Cell, Tissue and Organ Transplantation.
It emphasized on encouraging donation after the neurological determination of death and where appropriate, donation after the circulatory determination of death.
It also mentioned that insufficient access to transplantation therapies is one of the root causes of trafficking in persons for organ removal and trafficking in human organs, practices that undermine human rights and pose serious risks to public health.
The resolution urged the director-general to establish an expert committee under the Regulations for Expert Advisory Panels and Committees, to help the Secretariat in developing the proposed global strategy and its implementation.
The resolution tasked countries with developing a global strategy to be presented for adoption in 2026. It also encouraged the establishment of a World Donor Day to raise public awareness and donations.
About World Health Assembly:
It is the decision-making body of World Health Organization.
It is attended by delegations from all WHO Member States and focuses on a specific health agenda prepared by the Executive Board.
Functions:
The main functions of the World Health Assembly are to determine the policies of the Organization, appoint the Director-General, supervise financial policies, and review and approve the proposed programme budget.
The Health Assembly is held annually in Geneva, Switzerland.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/health/world-health-assembly-countries-approve-draft-to-improve-organ-transplantation-availability-including-cells-tissues-96466
With reference to the Purana Qila, consider the following statements:
- It was built on the banks of river Yamuna.
- It was believed to have been built under Humayun and Afghan Sher Shah Suri.
- It was inspired by Jama Masjid, which was established 15 years before the reconstruction of Qila.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, a ceremony was organised to mark the handing over of Purana Qila to the Sabhyata Foundation of the Dalmia Group under the ‘Adopt a Heritage’ scheme of the Ministry of Tourism.
About Purana Qila:
Location:
It is located on the South Eastern part of the present city of New Delhi.
It is one of the oldest forts in Delhi and built on the banks of river Yamuna.
It also khown as Qila-e-Kohna (meaning `old fort’).
The present citadel at Purana Qila was believed to have been built under Humayun and Afghan Sher Shah Suri (‘The Lion King’). Excavations point to traces from the 3rd century BC, the pre-Mauryan period.
The Qila was inspired by Jama Masjid, which was established 15 years before the reconstruction of Qila.
Architecture:
It is roughly rectangular in shape having a circuit of nearly two kilometers.
The Purana Qila are the three gates: Bara Darwaza or the Big Gate facing west, the Humayun Gate facing south and the Talaqui darwaza or the forbidden gateway facing the northern side.
These gates combines the typically Islamic pointed arch with Hindu Chhatris and brackets.
All of the gates are double-storeyed and comprise of huge semi-circular bastions flanking either of their sides.
The Bada Darwaza acts as the main point of entry.
It was surrounded by a wide moat.
The walls themselves are as high as 20m in places and approximately 4m thick.
A prominent structure of the Purana Qila is the Qila-e-Kuhna mosque built by Sher Shah in 1542 CE.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/long-reads/indraprastha-can-excavations-at-purana-qila-find-its-mahabharata-link-9364812/
With reference to the exit poll, consider the following statements:
- It can be released by media houses only after the voting ends for an election.
- It is regulated under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Congress refrains from participating in Lok Sabha Elections-related debates in exit polls 2024.
About Exit poll:
What is an exit poll?
An exit poll is a post-election survey which tends to predict the mood of the nation.
It’s an opinion poll showing how many seats a political party will likely win.
It must be noted that exit polls are not same as the official elections results.
When will Exit polls be released?
Exit polls can be released by media houses only after the voting ends for an election.
Methods of conducting:
Exit polls are taken immediately after voters have cast their ballots.
Legal Regulations:
It is regulated by Section 126A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
This law stipulates that no person shall conduct or publish exit polls via print or electronic media, or disseminate the results in any manner, during a period specified by the Election Commission.
Any person who contravenes the provisions of the Section 126A shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years or with a fine or with both.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/political-pulse/exit-polls-2009-2014-2019-lok-sabha-elections-9364231/
The Member States of the World Health Organization celebrate World No Tobacco Day, every year on:
31 May
Explanation :
Recently, The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (GoI), organized an event today to observe World No Tobacco Day 2024.
About World No-Tobacco Day:
History:
The Member States of the World Health Organization created World No Tobacco Day in 1987.
In 1988, a Resolution was passed, calling for the celebration of World No Tobacco Day, every year on 31 May.
The annual campaign is an opportunity to raise awareness on the harmful and deadly effects of tobacco use and second-hand smoke exposure and to discourage the use of tobacco in any form.
The theme: “Protecting Children from Tobacco Industry Interference”.
About tobacco Cultivation:
Tobacco cultivation in India was introduced by Portuguese in 1605.
Area and production:
In India tobacco is predominantly cultivated in Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Karnataka, UP and Bihar. Gujarat accounts for 45 per cent of the area (0.13 M ha) and 30 per cent of production (0.16 M t). Productivity is also highest (1700 kg ha-1) in Gujarat followed by AP.
Types of tobacco:
Anand area of Gujarat grows wholly bidi tobacco. Nipani area of Karnataka grows bidi tobacco. North Bihar and Bengal area has both tabacum and rustica types used in the manufacture of hookah and to a limited extent chewing and snuff types. Madurai and Coimbatore area of Tamil Nadu grow cigar, filter, binder and chewing tobaccos.
Climate and soil:
Tobacco is grown when the mean temperature is 20° to 27°C.
When grown as rainfed crop, it requires at least about 500 mm of well distributed rainfall during crop growing season.
It is not usually grown where rainfall exceeds 1200 mm during the season.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2022317
https://www.ndtv.com/offbeat/world-no-tobacco-day-2024-did-you-know-smoking-does-this-to-your-body-5783888
Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary is located in which one of the following state?
Assam
Explanation :
The Northeast Frontier Railway (NFR) has earmarked funds to construct canopy bridges for Hoolock Gibbon, India’s only ape, to move across a railway track bifurcating its prime habitat in eastern Assam.
About Hoolock Gibbon:
Gibbons, the smallest and fastest of all apes, live in tropical and subtropical forests in the southeastern part of Asia.
The hoolock gibbon is one of 20 species of gibbons on Earth.
Distribution:
Its distribution in Southeast Asia spans India, Myanmar, Bangladesh, and southern China.
It is the only ape found in India.
In India, it is found in Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, and Tripura, south of the Brahmaputra.
Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary in Assam has the largest concentration of the hoolock gibbon.
It is categorised into Eastern Hoolock Gibbon (Hoolock leuconedys) found in a specific region of Arunachal Pradesh and Western Hoolock Gibbon (Hoolock hoolock) distributed elsewhere in the northeast.
Features:
Both male and female gibbons are about the same size, but they differ considerably in colors.
Males are black colored with remarkable white brows, while females have grey-brown fur, which is darker at the chest and neck.
White rings around the eyes and around the mouth give their faces a mask-like appearance.
They are diurnal and arboreal, brachiating through the trees with their long arms.
They are monogamous (same partner throughout life).
They live in small families, including males, females and their young ones, and communicate with other gibbons by vocalisation.
The loud calls of the gibbon are used to identify individuals within and outside the family group.
Like all apes, they are extremely intelligent, with distinct personalities and strong family bonds.
Life span: 25 years
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List:
Eastern Hoolock Gibbon: Vulnerable
Western Hoolock Gibbon: Endangered
Both are on Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of India, 1972.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/railways-to-build-canopy-bridges-across-track-in-assam-gibbon-habitat/article68235654.ece
With reference to the Colombo Process, consider the following statements:
- It is a Regional Consultative Process which provides an important platform for consultations on enhancing trade agreements between Asian countries.
- The process is non-binding, and decision-making is by consensus.
- India has been a member of the Colombo Process since its inception.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
India has become chair of the Colombo Process for the first time since its inception in 2003.
About Colombo Process:
It is a Regional Consultative Process and it provides an important platform for consultations on the management of overseas employment and contractual labour for countries of origin in Asia.
It serves as a forum for the exchange of best practices on overseas employment.
Membership:
It comprises 12 Member States of Asia (countries of origin of migrant workers).
Members: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, China, Cambodia, India, Indonesia, Nepal, Pakistan, the Philippines, Sri Lanka, Thailand, and Vietnam.
India has been a member of the Colombo Process since its inception in 2003.
Objectives:
Share experiences, lessons learned and best practices in labour migration management.
Consult on issues faced by migrants, countries of origin, and countries of destination, and propose practical solutions for the well-being of overseas workers.
Optimize development benefits from organized overseas employment and enhance dialogues with countries of destination.
Review and monitor the implementation of the recommendations and identify further steps of action.
The process is non-binding, and decision-making is by consensus.
The process is coordinated through the Permanent Missions of Member States at the United Nations in Geneva.
The process is governed by Ministerial Consultations wherein recommendations and action plans are discussed and adopted by the Ministers of the participating countries.
The International Organization for Migration (IOM) has provided technical support to the Colombo Process since its inception and serves as its Secretariat.
There are five Thematic Area Working Groups (TAWGs):
Skills and Qualification Recognition (chaired by Sri Lanka);
Fostering Ethical Recruitment (chaired by Bangladesh);
Pre-Departure Orientation and Empowerment (chaired by Philippines);
Remittances (chaired by Pakistan);
Labour Market Analysis (chaired by Thailand);
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-assumes-chair-of-colombo-process-for-2024-26-9359983/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Controller General of Accounts (CGA):
- CGA, in the Department of Expenditure, is the Principal Accounting Adviser to the Government of India.
- The CGA is responsible for exchequer control and internal audits for the central government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The government’s fiscal deficit for 2023-24 stood at 5.63 per cent of the GDP, marginally better than the 5.8 per cent estimated in the Union Budget, according to data released by the Controller General of Accounts (CGA) recently.
About Controller General of Accounts (CGA):
CGA, in the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance, is the Principal Accounting Adviser to the Government of India.
CGA is responsible for establishing and managing a technically sound Management Accounting System and preparation & submission of the accounts of the Union Government.
The CGA is also responsible for exchequer control and internal audits for the central government.
It was established in October 1975 to administer matters pertaining to the departmentalisation of the accounts of the Union.
Functions:
The Office of CGA prepares monthly and annual analysis of expenditure, revenues, borrowings, and various fiscal indicators for the Union Government.
It further formulates policies relating to general principles, forms, and procedures of accounting for the Central and State Governments.
It administers the process of payments, receipts, and accounting in the Central Civil Ministries/ Departments.
Through its Internal Audit Units in the respective Ministries/Departments, it is responsible for maintaining the requisite technical standards of accounting in the departmentalized accounting offices and for monitoring the financial performance and effectiveness of various programs, schemes, and activities of the civil ministries.
It also administers banking arrangements for the disbursements of Government expenditures and the collection of government receipts and interacts with the Central Bank for the reconciliation of the cash balances of the Union Government.
CGA is also responsible for coordination and monitoring the progress of the submission of corrective/remedial action taken notes (ATNs) on the recommendations contained in the Public Accounts Committee’s (PAC) reports as well as the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) reports through its web-based Audit Para Monitoring System (APMS).
It also looks after the pensions of Central government employees.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livemint.com/economy/indias-fy24-fiscal-deficit-improves-to-5-63-of-gdp-lower-than-governments-target-of-58-11717162702948.html
In which of the following pair of states do the Koya tribe predominantly live?
Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Chhattisgarh and Odisha
Explanation :
In Godavari Valley, the Koya tribe faces a cultural crisis as raids by the Special Enforcement Bureau threaten their cherished tradition of Mahua liquor consumption.
About Koya Tribe:
Koya are one of the few multi-racial and multi-lingual tribal communities in India.
They live in the forests, plains, and valleys on both sides of the Godavari River, in the states of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha.
The Koya are said to have migrated to central India from their original home in Bastar, northern India.
Language:
The Koya language, also called Koyi, is a Dravidian language. It is closely related to Gondi and has been strongly influenced by Telugu.
Most Koya speak either Gondi or Telugu, in addition to Koyi.
Occupation:
Traditionally, they were pastoralists and shifting cultivators, but now-a-days, they have taken to settled cultivation supplemented by animal husbandry and seasonal forest collections.
They grow Jowar, Ragi, Bajra, and other millets.
Society and Culture:
All Koya belong to one of five sub-divisions called gotrams. Every Koya is born into a clan, and he cannot leave it.
The Koyas have a patrilineal and patrilocal family. The family is called “Kutum”. The nuclear family is the predominant type.
Monogamy is prevalent among the Koyas.
The Koya practice their own ethnic religion, but also worship a number of Hindu gods and goddesses.
Many Koya deities are female, the most important being the “mother earth.”
They maintain community funds and grain banks at the village level to help the needy families and provide food security.
Koyas either bury or cremate the dead. They erect menhirs in memory of the dead.
Their main festivals are Vijji Pandum (seeds charming festival) and Kondala Kolupu (festival to appease Hill deities).
Koyas perform a robust, colourful dance called Permakok (Bison horn dance) during festivals and marriage ceremonies
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/andhras-koya-tribe-faces-brewing-conflict-over-sacred-flower-mahua/article68231743.ece
With reference to Rabies, consider the following:
- It is a vaccine-preventable, zoonotic and viral disease.
- It primarily affects the central nervous system.
- Once clinical symptoms appear, rabies is virtually 100% fatal.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The government of Jammu and Kashmir recently declared human rabies a notifiable disease under the Epidemic Diseases Act of 1897.
About Rabies:
Rabies is a vaccine-preventable, zoonotic, viral disease caused by the RABV virus.
It primarily affects the central nervous system, leading to severe brain disease and death if medical care is not received before symptoms start.
Transmission:
In up to 99% of cases, domestic dogs are responsible for rabies virus transmission to humans. Yet, rabies can affect both domestic and wild animals.
It spreads to people and animals via saliva, usually through bites, scratches, or direct contact with the mucosa (e.g., eyes, mouth, or open wounds).
Rabies is present on all continents except Antarctica, with over 95% of human deaths occurring in Asia and Africa.
It is one of the neglected tropical diseases (NTD) that predominantly affects already marginalized, poor, and vulnerable populations.
Symptoms:
The symptoms may be nonspecific at first but include lethargy, fever, vomiting, and anorexia.
Within days, signs can progress to cerebral dysfunction, ataxia, weakness and paralysis, breathing and swallowing difficulties, excessive salivation, abnormal behaviour, aggressivity, and self-mutilation.
Once clinical symptoms appear, rabies is virtually 100% fatal.
Prevention:
It is a vaccine-preventable disease.
Vaccinating dogs, including puppies, is the most cost-effective strategy for preventing rabies in people because it stops the transmission at its source.
Treatment:
Medical care following a rabies exposure is called post-exposure prophylaxis, or PEP.
PEP includes wound care, a dose of human rabies immune globulin (HRIG), and a series of four or five rabies vaccines, which must be administered as soon as possible after exposure.
This care is vital to prevent the disease from developing. It is nearly 100% effective if administered promptly.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.dailyexcelsior.com/jammu-and-kashmir-govt-declares-human-rabies-a-notifiable-disease/
Which one of the following best describes ‘Sarcophagus’, recently seen in the news?
A highly decorated box-like container that holds a coffin
Explanation :
A sarcophagus fragment discovered beneath the floor of a religious center belongs to Ramesses II, one of the best-known ancient Egyptian pharaohs, according to a new study.
About Sarcophagus:
A sarcophagus is a highly decorated coffin or box-like container that holds a coffin.
They were intended to be displayed above ground, but they were sometimes entombed or placed in burial chambers.
Sarcophagi were used to hold and protect important people who died throughout history, dating as far back as ancient Egypt, Rome, and Greece.
The word sarcophagus comes from the Greek “sarx” meaning “flesh,” and “phagien” meaning “to eat,” so that sarcophagus literally translates as “eater of flesh.”
First used in Ancient Egypt and Ancient Greece, the sarcophagus gradually became popular throughout the ancient world.
It carried over through the later years of European society, often used for high status members of the clergy, government, or aristocracy.
Features:
They differ in detail from one culture to another.
They are almost always made of stone, limestone being the most popular, but sometimes of granite, sandstone, or marble.
Sarcophagi were elaborately decorated with carvings, images, and writing, usually including the name of the person who died.
Archaeological Significance:
Sarcophagi are important artifacts for archaeologists and historians because they provide insights into the art, culture, and beliefs of the societies that created them.
The carvings and inscriptions on sarcophagi often contain valuable historical information.
Example: The most famous Egyptian sarcophagus is perhaps the golden sarcophagus of King Tutankhamun.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livescience.com/archaeology/ancient-egyptians/ramesses-iis-sarcophagus-finally-identified-thanks-to-overlooked-hieroglyphics
Pampa Lake, one of the five sacred lakes known as Panch-Sarovar, lies in which state?
Karnataka
Explanation :
A team from the Karnataka State Department of Archaeology Museums and Heritage has uncovered rock shelter paintings estimated to be around 2,500 years old near Pampa Lake in the Hampi World Heritage Area.
About Pampa Lake:
Pamba Lake/Pampa Sarovar is situated in Koppal district near Hampi in Karnataka.
It is located to the south of the Tungabhadra River.
It is one of the five sacred lakes known as Panch-Sarovar in Hindu mythology, which are namely, Man Sarovar, Bindu Sarovar, Narayan Sarovar, Pampa Sarovar, and Pushkar Sarovar.
In Hindu mythology, Pampa Sarovar is regarded as the place where Pampa, a form of Shiva’s consort Parvati, performed penance to show her devotion to Shiva.
It is also one of the Sarovars that finds a mention in the Hindu epic, Ramayana as the place where Shabhari, a devotee of Lord Rama, waited for the arrival of Rama.
The lake is surrounded by hills and temples and filled with lotuses.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanchronicle.com/news/ancient-rock-paintings-discovered-near-pampa-lake-896828
Which one of the following best describes INS Shivalik?
A stealth multi-role frigate
Explanation :
Indian naval ship (INS) Shivalik on Saturday departed Singapore for Yokosuka in Japan, and is scheduled to participate in Japan-India maritime exercise (Jimex) and Rim of Pacific (Rimpac) military exercise.
About INS Shivalik:
It is the lead ship of her class of stealth multi-role frigates built for the Indian Navy.
It is the first stealth warship built by India.
It is built at the Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL), located in Mumbai.
It was commissioned into the Indian Navy on April 29, 2010.
Features:
It has a length of 142.5 m (468 ft) overall, a beam of 16.9 m (55 ft), and a draft of 4.5 m (15 ft).
The ships displace about 4,900 tonnes (4,800 long tons; 5,400 short tons) at normal load and 6,200 tonnes (6,100 long tons; 6,800 short tons) at full load.
Maximum Speed: 32 knots (59 km/h)
It features improved stealth and land-attacking features over the preceding Talwar-class frigates.
It is also the first Indian Navy ship to use the CODOG propulsion system.
It is equipped with a mix of Russian, Indian, and Western weapon systems.
These include the 3.0-inch Otobreda naval gun, Klub and BrahMos supersonic anti-ship missiles, Shtil-1 anti-aircraft missiles, RBU-6000 anti-submarine rocket launchers, and DTA-53-956 torpedo launchers.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/thesundaystandard/2024/Jun/02/navy-warship-shivalik-leaves-singapore-for-maritime-exercises-with-japan-us
‘Paraparatrechina neela’, recently seen in the news, is a:
A new ant species
Explanation :
Indian researchers recently discovered a new ant species named Paraparatrechina neela from Arunachal Pradesh’s remote Siang Valley.
About Paraparatrechina neela:
It is a new ant species discovered from Siang Valley in Arunachal Pradesh.
This new species belongs to the rare genus Paraparatrechina and has been named Paraparatrechina neela.
The word “neela” signifies the colour blue in most Indian languages—a fitting tribute to the ant’s unique colour.
This discovery signifies the first new species of Paraparatrechina in 121 years since the description of the sole previously known species, P. aseta (Forel, 1902), in the Indian subcontinent.
Features:
It is a small ant with a total length of less than 2 mm.
Its body is predominantly metallic blue, except for the antennae, mandibles, and legs.
The head is subtriangular with large eyes and has a triangular mouthpart (mandible) featuring five teeth.
This species has a distinct metallic blue colour that is different from any other species in its genus.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.news18.com/india/researchers-discover-new-blue-ant-while-on-expedition-to-arunachal-pradeshs-remote-siang-valley-8911934.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Iris-T Missile:
- It is a next-generation short-range air-to-air missile.
- The missile developed by the United States, is characterised by an extreme maneuverability for close-in air-to-air combat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
According to a recent report, the Bundeswehr, Germany’s armed forces, lost an Iris-T missile, sparking serious concerns about the crucial technology being compromised.
About Iris-T Missile:
It is a next-generation short-range air-to-air missile.
The IRIS-T is a six-nation program under German lead, with Diehl BGT Defence (a German defense company) acting as industrial prime contractor.
The IRIS-T programme sees Germany, Greece, Norway, Italy, Spain, and Sweden unite to provide access to technology and expertise. Diehl Defence is the main contractor.
It is rated for short-range and medium-range air defense.
The IRIS-T SLM is designed to neutralize threats posed by a variety of enemy aerial systems, such as aircraft, cruise missiles, drones, and helicopters operating at ranges of up to 40 km (25 miles).
IRIS-T is characterized by an extreme maneuverability for close-in air-to-air combat.
Equipped with an innovative infrared seeker, thrust-vector control, and a dogfight optimized motor, the Iris-T Missile can engage any target from point-blank up to maximum range.
IRIS-T can also successfully engage targets behind the launching aircraft and be used in lock-on before and after launch operations.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.eurasiantimes.com/by-bundeswehr-raises-alarming-concerns/
The mid-year climate conference, also known as the 60th Meeting of the Subsidiary Bodies (SB60), brings together countries that are signatories to the:
United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
Explanation :
As the world gears up for the 29th Conference of Parties (COP) to UNFCCC later this year, the Delhi-based think tank Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) has called on developed countries to fulfill their financial obligations in the fight against climate change.
Why in News?
The 60th meeting of the Subsidiary Bodies (SB60), will take place in Bonn, Germany from June 3-13, 2024.
About 60th meeting of the Subsidiary Bodies (SB60)
The mid-year climate conference, also known as the 60th meeting of the Subsidiary Bodies (SB60) will bring together countries that are signatories to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
National delegates and civil society representatives will make up a significant part of the around 6,000 participants expected to attend the meetings.
The meeting will serve as a crucial midpoint between the 28th CoP in Dubai and CoP29 in Azerbaijan and its outcomes will set the stage for the next phase of global climate negotiations.
It will focus on critical issues such as-
Climate finance
Advancing progress on the next round of national climate action
plans (Nationally Determined Contributions- NDCs)
Timely submission of countries’
First Biennial Transparency Reports
Work on National Adaptation Plans
Accelerating climate action through a just transition
It will feature the inaugural Annual Global Stocktake (GST) Dialogue, which aims to foster a sharing of effective strategies and lessons learned on how countries are incorporating the GST outcomes into their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs), promoting collaborative learning and progress towards achieving the Paris Agreement’s goals.
About Centre for Science and Environment (CSE)
Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) is a public interest research organisation based in New Delhi.
It researches and communicates the urgency of development that is sustainable and equitable.
It works as a think tank on environment-development issues in India, poor planning, climate shifts devastating India’s Sundarbans and advocates for policy changes and better implementation of the already existing policies.
The Ministry of Urban Development (MoUD) has designated Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) as a “Centre of Excellence” (CoE) for sustainable water management.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-change/cse-urges-rich-countries-to-pay-their-dues-ahead-of-crucial-un-climate-talks-in-bonn-96463
Consider the following statements with reference to the Chang’e-6:
- It is the first human sampling and return mission from the far side of the moon.
- It was launched by a Chinese Long March-5 rocket.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
China’s space agency said that China landed an uncrewed spacecraft on the far side of the moon on 2nd of June.
About Chang’e-6:
The Chang’e-6 craft successfully landed in the South Pole-Aitken Basin on the back of the moon.
It is the first human sampling and return mission from the far side of the moon for the first time.
It was launched by a Chinese Long March-5 rocket from Wenchang Space Launch Center on the southern island of Hainan before 53 days.
Chang’e-6 consists of an orbiter, a returner, a lander and an ascender.
The lander was equipped with multiple sensors, including microwave, laser and optical imaging sensors which can measure distance and speed, and identify obstacles on the lunar surface.
The probe is scheduled to complete sampling within two days. It has adopted two methods of moon sampling, which include:
Using a drill to collect subsurface samples
Grabbing samples on the surface with a robotic arm.
It has achieved a breakthrough in the design and control technology of the lunar retrograde orbit and aims to realize key technologies of intelligent and rapid sampling.
It marks the second time a mission has successfully reached the far side of the moon. China first completed that historic feat in 2019 with its Chang’e-4 probe.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/science/china-makes-historic-landing-on-far-side-of-the-moon/articleshow/110631441.cms
The term “two-state solution” was recently seen in the news, in the context of the affairs of?
Israel and Palestine
Explanation :
Recently, India said that it was one of the first countries to recognise Palestine and has long supported the two-state solution to end the Israel-Palestine conflict.
About two-state solution:
The two-state solution has long been proposed as the best hope for peace in the Israeli-Palestinian conflict.
It would see an independent Palestinian state established alongside the existing one of Israel - giving both peoples their own territory.
What are Two-State Solutions’ origins?
In 1947, the United Nations agreed a plan partitioning Palestine into Arab and Jewish states with international rule over Jerusalem. Jewish leaders accepted the plan, which gave them 56% of the land.
The state of Israel was declared on May 14, 1948. A day later, five Arab states attacked. The war ended with Israel controlling 77% of the territory.
Some 700,000 Palestinians fled or were driven from their homes, ending up in Jordan, Lebanon and Syria as well as in the Gaza Strip, the West Bank and East Jerusalem.
In a 1967 war, Israel captured the West Bank, including East Jerusalem, from Jordan and Gaza from Egypt, securing control of all territory from the Mediterranean to the Jordan valley.
The Palestinians remain stateless, with most living under Israeli occupation or as refugees in neighbouring states.
Is there a way forward?
After Hamas attacked on Israel in Oct, 2023, Israel aims to annihilate Hamas and says it will not agree to any deal that leaves it in power. Prime minister of Israel has said Gaza must be demilitarised and under Israel’s full security control.
On another side, Hamas says it expects to survive and has said any arrangements for Gaza that exclude it are an illusion.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/is-a-future-palestine-state-possible/article68241006.ece
With reference to the Gradation of coal, consider the following statements:
- The classification of coal is determined based on the amount of heat or energy produced when burning coal.
- Anthracite is the highest rank of coal.
- Bituminous is the lowest grade coal with the least concentration of carbon.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A recent report by the Organized Crime and Corruption Reporting Project, furnished new documents to allege that in 2014, the Adani Group claimed ‘low grade’ coal, imported from Indonesia, to be ‘high-quality’ coal, inflated its value and sold it to Tamil Nadu’s power generation company, TANGEDCO (Tamil Nadu Generation and Distribution Company).
Gradation of coal:
Coal grade is an economic or technological classification of the relative quality of a coal for a particular use.
The classification of coal is determined based on the gross calorific value (GCV) or the amount of heat or energy produced when burning coal.
Coal being a fossil fuel is a mixture of carbon, ash, moisture and a host of other impurities. The higher the available carbon in a unit of coal, the greater is its quality or ‘grade.
As per a classification by the Coal Ministry, There are 17 grades of coal, where grade 1 (top quality coal) with a kilo of it yielding higher than 7,000 kcal and the lowest producing anywhere between 2,200-2,500 kcal.
Types of coal:
There are four major types of coal.
Anthracite: It is the highest rank of coal and often referred to as hard coal. It contains a high percentage of fixed carbon and a low percentage of volatile matter.
Bituminous: Bituminous coal is a middle rank. It usually has a high heating (Btu) value and is used in electricity generation and steel making.
Subbituminous: It has low-to-moderate heating values and is mainly used in electricity generation.
Lignite: It is the lowest grade coal with the least concentration of carbon. It has a low heating value and a high moisture content and is mainly used in electricity generation.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/what-grade-of-coal-does-india-produce/article68241013.ece
With reference to the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST), consider the following statements:
- It was launched in 2021 as a joint endeavor of the US, European and Canadian space agencies.
- It has an objective to find the very first stars to ignite in the nascent Universe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, The James Webb Space Telescope has smashed its own record for detecting the most distant known galaxy.
About New Galaxy:
The galaxy called JADES-GS-z14-0, is revealed as it was just 290m years after the big bang, at the dawn of the universe. The telescope’s previous record holder was a galaxy seen at 325m years after the big bang, which happened nearly 14bn years ago.
The newly observed galaxy is much brighter than expected, suggesting that the first generation of stars were either more luminous or formed much more rapidly than conventional cosmological theories have predicted.
The impressive size and brightness of JADES-GS-z14-0 is likely being fueled by young and actively forming stars, rather than a supermassive black hole.
In JADES-GS-z14-0, Webb can see a significant amount of oxygen, which tells researchers the galaxy is already quite mature.
About James Webb Space Telescope (JWST)
It was launched in 2021 as a joint endeavour of the US, European and Canadian space agencies.
It is a large infrared telescope with an approximately 6.5 meter primary mirror.
It does not orbit around the Earth like the Hubble Space Telescope, it orbits the Sun 1.5 million kilometers away from the Earth at what is called the second Lagrange point or L2.
It was designed specifically to see farther across the cosmos and further back in time than any previous astronomical tool.
One of its key objectives was to find the very first stars to ignite in the nascent Universe.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/james-webb-space-telescope-earliest-known-galaxy-9366358/
With reference to the Ikat designs, consider the following statements:
- It features a resist dyeing process where threads are dyed before weaving.
- Ancient references to ikat include the Buddhist ‘Lalitavistara Sutra’ and the Ajanta caves murals.
- Tamil Nadu Telia Rumal is famous for its oil-treated threads that enhance colour depth and received a GI tag in 2020.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, following NABARD’s withdrawal, Ikat weavers aim to assume control, manage operations, and grow the business.
About Ikat design:
Origin & Technique:
Ikat originates from the Indonesian/Malay word ‘mengikat’, meaning to bind.
It features a resist dyeing process where threads are dyed before weaving.
The fabrics exhibit unique ‘blurred’ effects due to slight misalignments of threads.
Historical references:
Ancient references to ikat include the Buddhist ‘Lalitavistara Sutra’ and the Ajanta caves murals.
These references mention ‘Vichitra Patolaka’, associated with the double ikat or patola of Gujarat.
Types of Ikat:
Single Ikat: Dyeing involves either the warp or the weft threads, simpler and quicker to produce.
Double Ikat: Both warp and weft threads are intricately resist-dyed for precise alignment, known for their complexity.
Key regions and GI tags:
Patan’s Patola from Gujarat is known for its double ikat and received a GI tag in 2013.
Rajkot Patola, a simpler single ikat variant from Gujarat, also received a GI tag in 2013.
Odisha’s Bandha specialises in single ikat with GI-tagged styles like Sambalpuri Ikat (2010) and Bomkai (2009).
Telangana’s Telia Rumal is famous for its oil-treated threads that enhance colour depth and received a GI tag in 2020 and Pochampally Ikat is known for its geometric patterns and received a GI tag in 2005.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: Weaving A Story Of Traditional Art, Ikat
Consider the following statements with reference to the Bank Clinic:
- It is an initiative of the Reserve Bank of India.
- It aims to assist bank customers with grievance redressal amid the rapid expansion of technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The All India Bank Employees’ Association (AIBEA) has launched the “Bank Clinic” initiative to assist bank customers with grievance redressal.
About Bank Clinic:
It is an initiative by the All India Bank Employees’ Association (AIBEA), that aims to assist bank customers with grievance redressal amid the rapid expansion of technology and Reserve Bank of India (RBI) guidelines on retail banking.
It is a non-resolving advisory platform guiding customers on the remedies available per RBI guidelines.
It serves as an additional channel alongside the normal Banking Ombudsman process.
How does it work?
Under this initiative, customers can register their complaints on the Bank Clinic website, and within five working days, they will receive a reply detailing the available remedies and relevant RBI guidelines for their specific issue
The goal is to ensure timely and effective redressal of customer issues.
It guides customers on available remedies but does not directly resolve queries.
Benefits:
The Bank Clinic helps build goodwill with customers.
It provides valuable feedback to banks, highlighting areas where service deficiencies exist.
What is AIBEA?
The All India Bank Employees Association (AIBEA) is a national trade union representing bank employees across India.
Founded in 1946 on April 20th in Kolkata. Its headquarters is in Chennai.
AIBEA plays a crucial role in advocating for bank workers’ rights, welfare, and interests.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://m.economictimes.com/industry/banking/finance/banking/now-a-bank-clinic-to-guide-you-on-complaints/amp_articleshow/110645461.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Postal Ballot:
- It enables eligible voters to submit their votes via mail rather than personally visiting a polling place.
- Electors under preventive detention orders during the election period can avail themselves of this option.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently the opposition urged the Election Commission to prioritise postal ballot counting before finalising EVM counting, citing concerns over the 2019 guideline change.
About Postal Ballot
Postal ballots enable eligible voters to submit their votes via mail rather than personally visiting a polling place.
This method provides a convenient option for individuals who are unable to participate in person due to various reasons.
Eligibility criteria to vote using postal ballots:
Service voters including members of the armed forces, paramilitary forces, and government employees assigned to election duties away from their home constituencies.
Electors on election duty including government officials and polling staff working at polling stations outside their home areas.
Electors under preventive detention orders during the election period can also avail themselves of this option.
Individuals engaged in essential services on polling day: Essential workers, including authorized media personnel and those in railways, and healthcare, can vote via postal ballots in Lok Sabha and four state Assembly elections.
Absentee voters: Those who are unable to vote in person due to work commitments, illness, or disability.
The amendment in October 2019 to the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, lowered the eligible age for senior citizens from 85 to 80 and permitted Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) to use postal ballots in the 2020 Delhi Assembly elections.
What is the process of postal voting?
The postal voting process involves receiving a ballot kit from the Returning Officer, marking the chosen candidate(s) on the ballot paper within a secrecy sleeve, completing a declaration form, sealing the marked ballot and declaration in the secrecy sleeve, inserting it into a pre-paid return envelope, affixing postage, and mailing it to the designated address before the deadline.
Counting of postal ballots:
Postal ballots are counted separately. On counting day, postal authorities bring them to the counting centre.
Election officials verify their validity and add valid ballots to the candidates’ vote counts.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/behind-opposition-postal-ballot-concern-election-commission-rule-change-in-2019-9368278/
With reference to the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), consider the following statements:
- It aims to ensure that international trade in wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species.
- India has been a CITES Party since 1976.
- All import and export of species covered under CITES must be authorized through a permit system.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
At the KAZA Summit 2024, leaders of the Kavango-Zambezi Trans-Frontier Conservation Area (KAZA-TFCA) decided to oppose the ivory trade ban at the CoP 20 of CITES.
About CITES
Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) is an international agreement between 184 governments to ensure that international trade in wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species.
The convention entered into force in 1975. India has been a CITES Party since 1976.
All import, export and re-export of species covered under CITES must be authorized through a permit system.
Appendix of CITES:
Appendix I: Prohibits commercial trade of critically endangered species.
Appendix II: Regulates trade to prevent over-exploitation.
Appendix III: Protects species under national laws.
Every two years, the Conference of the Parties (CoP), the supreme decision-making body of CITES, applies a set of biological and trade criteria to evaluate proposals from parties to decide if a species should be in Appendix I or II.
Ivory Trade:
The ivory trade is the commercial trade in elephant ivory tusks and other ivory products.
At least 20,000 African elephants are illegally killed for their tusks each year.
The ivory trade threatens elephant survival, harms ecosystems, endangers local communities, and undermines security.
The ivory trade has traditionally involved smuggling whole or partial elephant tusks from Africa to Asia, where they would be processed and carved into ivory products.
The demand for ivory has been fueled primarily by a growing middle class in China, where ivory carving is a longstanding tradition.
Reasons Behind Advocating for Trade Ban Lift:
Southern African leaders seek to lift CITES ivory ban for economic gain, citing $1 billion value. KAZA states hold $1 billion ivory stockpile, with Zimbabwe’s 166-ton stash worth $600 million.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/world/kaza-summit-2024-leaders-decide-to-fight-ivory-trade-ban-at-cites-cop20-96477