February Flashcards
Consider the following statements regarding Martand Temple, recently seen in the news:
- It is a shaivite temple.
- It is located in the Kashmir Valley.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Members of a little-known Hindutva group forced their way into the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)-protected Martand sun temple recently.
About Martand Sun Temple:
It is a Hindu temple located near the city of Anantnag in the Kashmir Valley of Jammu and Kashmir.
It is dedicated to the Sun God. Martand is another Sanskrit synonym for Surya.
It was built by King Lalitaditya Muktapida around the 8th Century CE. Lalitaditya Muktapida was the third ruler of the Karkota Dynasty.
Features:
It has a unique architecture where local Kashmiri style is blended with the architectural styles of Gupta, Chinese, Gandhara, Roman, and Greek.
The temple is located on top of a plateau and has been constructed entirely out of stone.
It covers an area of 32,000 square feet.
It stands in the middle of a large courtyard with 86 fluted columns. The courtyard is connected to the main shrine, where Sun God’s idol was installed.
The construction of the main shrine was such that during most of the days’ time, especially during sunrise and sunset, the rays would directly fall on the idol.
The central shrine, or vimana, stands tall at around 60 feet. It features intricate carvings and sculptures that depict various Hindu gods and goddesses.
There are 84 smaller shrines around the main Sun Temple. They are lined along the perimeter of the complex.
The temple is believed to have been demolished by Sultan Sikandar Shah Miri, who ruled Kashmir from 1389 to 1413.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.nationalheraldindia.com/national/despite-asi-attempts-saffron-outfit-once-again-forces-entry-into-anantnag-martand-sun-temple
With reference to Payments Bank, consider the following statements:
- It can accept demand deposits in the form of savings and current accounts.
- It cannot issue loans and credit cards.
- It cannot become a banking correspondent (BC) of another bank.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently imposed restrictions on Paytm Payments Bank Ltd (PPBL), following a system audit report and subsequent compliance validation report of external auditors.
About Payments Bank:
A payments bank is like any other bank but operates on a smaller scale without involving any credit risk.
It was set up based on the recommendations of the Nachiket Mor Committee.
Objective: To advance financial inclusion by offering banking and financial services to the unbanked and underbanked areas, helping the migrant labour force, low-income households, small entrepreneurs, etc.
It is registered as a public limited company under the Companies Act 2013 and licensed under Section 22 of the Banking Regulation Act 1949.
It is governed by a host of legislation, such as the Banking Regulation Act, 1949; RBI Act, 1934; Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, etc.
Features:
They are differentiated, and not universal banks.
These operate on a smaller scale.
The minimum paid-up equity capital for payments banks shall be Rs. 100 crores.
The minimum initial contribution of the promoter to the Payment Bank to the paid-up equity capital shall be at least 40% for the first five years from the commencement of its business.
Activities that can be performed:
It can take deposits up to Rs. 2,00,000. It can accept demand deposits in the form of savings and current accounts.
The money received as deposits can be invested in secure government securities only in the form of Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). This must amount to 75% of the demand deposit balance.
The remaining 25% is to be placed as time deposits with other scheduled commercial banks.
It can offer remittance services, mobile payments/transfers/purchases, and other banking services like ATM/debit cards, net banking, and third-party fund transfers.
It can become a banking correspondent (BC) of another bank for credit and other services which it cannot offer.
Activities that can be performed:
It cannot issue loans and credit cards.
It cannot accept time deposits or NRI deposits.
It cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial activities.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livemint.com/economy/rbi-bars-paytm-payments-bank-from-accepting-deposits-in-any-customer-account-from-next-month-11706700713798.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Black-crowned Night Heron:
- It is found mainly in the Himalayan and Central Asian regions.
- It is classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
A ringed juvenile black-crowned night heron, which landed recently at a local pond in Imphal and died later, was banded at the Weishan Bird Banding Station in China’s Beijing.
About Black-crowned Night Heron:
It is a medium-sized heron with a stocky build.
Scientific Name: Nycticorax nycticorax
Distribution: It is found across North America, as well as locally in Central America and the Caribbean.
Habitat: Most colonies of black-crowned night herons are associated with large wetlands. They inhabit a variety of wetland habitats, such as swamps, streams, rivers, marshes, mud flats, and the edges of lakes.
Features:
It has a stocky body with a comparatively short neck and legs.
It has a black crown, a gray body, and bright, red eyes.
It weighs between 727 and 1014 grams, has a wingspan of 115 to 118 centimeters, and is 58 to 66 centimeters in length).
Females and males look alike, but females are a little smaller.
They are social at all times of the year, frequently associating with other species of herons.
It is a migrating species.
Diet: It is an opportunistic feeder. Its diet consists mainly of fish, though it is frequently rounded out by other items such as leeches, earthworms, aquatic and terrestrial insects.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://news.abplive.com/northeast/china-identifies-tagging-station-of-migratory-bird-heron-found-in-manipur-1660393
With reference to Green Roofs, consider the following statements:
- They consist of a waterproofing membrane, soil and vegetation overlying a traditional roof.
- They last longer than conventional roofs and reduce energy costs with natural insulation.
- They improve air quality and help reduce the Urban Heat Island Effect.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
According to a recent research, green roofs treated with mycorrhizal fungi foster a more diverse soil community that is more likely to support long-term green roof sustainability.
About Green Roofs:
Green roofs, also known as ‘vegetated roofs’ or ‘living roofs’ — are ballasted roofs consisting of a waterproofing membrane, growing medium (soil) and vegetation (plants) overlying a traditional roof.
The layers of green roof systems must, like any roof, accommodate drainage, stormwater management and protect the building from the elements with a waterproof membrane.
But they also must create a growing area and potentially provide support, irrigation, and root protection barriers while staying as light as possible.
Two types of green roofs exist: intensive and extensive.
Intensive green roofs are essentially elevated parks. They can sustain shrubs, trees, walkways and benches with their complex structural support, irrigation, drainage, and root protection layers.
Extensive green roofs are relatively light. They support hearty native ground cover that requires little maintenance. Extensive green roofs usually exist solely for their environmental benefits and don’t function as accessible rooftop gardens.
Benefits:
Green roofs last longer than conventional roofs, reduce energy costs with natural insulation, create peaceful retreats for people and animals, and absorb storm water, potentially lessening the need for complex and expensive drainage systems.
On a wider scale, green roofs improve air quality and help reduce the Urban Heat Island Effect, a condition in which city and suburban developments absorb and trap heat.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://theprint.in/science/rich-in-fungi-soil-could-benefit-green-roofs-study-2/1947902/
What is ‘Volt Typhoon’, that was in the news recently?
A cyber hacking group
Explanation :
The United States government recently shut down a major China-backed hacking group dubbed “Volt Typhoon” that attacked hundreds of routers and had been working to compromise U.S. cyber infrastructure.
About Volt Typhoon:
It is a state-sponsored hacking group based in China that has been active since at least 2021.
The group typically focuses on espionage and information gathering.
It has targeted critical infrastructure organizations in the US, including Guam.
To achieve their objective, the threat actor puts strong emphasis on stealth, relying almost exclusively on living-off-the-land techniques and hands-on-keyboard activity.
The recurring attack pattern of Volt Typhoon begins with initial access via exploitation of public-facing devices or services.
Volt Typhoon employs the comparatively uncommon practice of leveraging preinstalled utilities for most of their victim interactions.
Compromised small office/home office (SOHO) devices are used by the attackers to proxy communications to and from the affected networks.
They issue commands via the command line to (1) collect data, including credentials from local and network systems: (2) put the data into an archive file to stage it for exfiltration: and then (3) use the stolen valid credentials to maintain persistence.
Volt Typhoon was a particularly quiet operator that hid its traffic by routing it through hacked network equipment, like home routers, and carefully expunging evidence of intrusions from the victim’s logs.
This combination of behaviors makes detection especially difficult, as defenders must be able to differentiate between attacker activities and those of power users or administrative staff.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.cnbc.com/2024/01/31/fbi-shut-down-china-volt-typhoon-hackers-targeting-us-.html
The Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary is located in:
Tamil Nadu
Explanation :
Recently, the union Environment Minister said that five more Indian wetlands have been added to the global list of wetlands of international importance under the Ramsar Convention.
Of the five wetlands added to the Ramsar list, Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve, Ankasamudra Bird Conservation Reserve, and Aghanashini Estuary are in Karnataka and Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary and Longwood Shola Reserve Forest are in Tamil Nadu.
Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary
It is one of the largest inland wetlands of Tamil Nadu, and is a significant source of groundwater recharge for the area.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2000838
Consider the following statements regarding the One Stop Centre scheme:
- It provides integrated support and assistance to women affected by violence.
- It is formulated by the union Ministry of Women and Child Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the union Minister for Women and Child Development said that One Stop Centres to help women who have faced violence have been established in over 700 districts across the country.
It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme formulated under the union Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD).
Objectives
To provide integrated support and assistance to women affected by violence, both in private and public spaces under one roof.
To facilitate immediate, emergency and non-emergency access to a range of services including medical, legal, psychological and counselling support under one roof to fight against any forms of violence against women.
Target group
It supports all women including girls below 18 years of age affected by violence, irrespective of caste, class, religion, region, sexual orientation or marital status.
For girls below 18 years of age, institutions and authorities established under Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000 and the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 linked with the OSC
Funding: The Scheme will be funded through Nirbhaya Fund. The Central Government will provide 100% financial assistance under the Scheme.
Administration: The day to day implementation and administrative matters would be the responsibility of the District Collector/District Magistrate.
The OSC will facilitate access to: Emergency Response and Rescue Services, Medical assistance, assistance to women in lodging FIR/ NCR/DIR, psycho-social support/ counseling, legal aid and counseling, shelter and Video Conferencing Facility.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/700-one-stop-centres-set-up-across-the-country-irani/article67796904.ece
With reference to bluetongue disease, consider the following statements:
- It is a viral disease.
- It is transmitted by insects.
- It mainly affects aquatic animals.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
China has banned the direct and indirect import of ruminants and its related products from Iraq due to an outbreak of bluetongue disease.
It is a non-contagious, viral disease affecting domestic and wild ruminants (primarily sheep and including cattle, goats, buffalo, antelope, deer, elk and camels).
It is transmitted by insects, particularly biting midges of the Culicoides species.
The virus which causes BT is identified as a member of the Reoviridae family.
Twenty-four (24) different serotypes have been identified and the ability of each strain to cause disease varies considerably.
Symptoms: The severity of disease varies among different species with symptoms being most severe in sheep resulting in deaths, weight loss and disruption in wool growth.
Geographical distribution
It has a significant global distribution in regions where the insect vector is present, including Africa, Asia, Australia, Europe, North America and several islands in the tropics and subtropics.
The virus is maintained in areas where the climate will allow biting midges to survive over winter.
Transmission and spread
The insect vector is the key to transmission of BT virus between animals.
Vectors are infected with BT virus after ingesting blood from infected animals.
Without the vector, the disease cannot spread from animal to animal.
BT virus transmission can occur throughout the year, particularly during rainy periods.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.reuters.com/world/china/china-bans-imports-ruminants-animals-iraq-due-bluetongue-disease-2024-01-31/
Sphaerotheca varshaabhu, recently seen in news, is a:
frog
Explanation :
Researchers from various national and international organisations have identified and documented a previously unknown species of frog which has been thriving amidst the urban landscape of Bengaluru.
Sphaerotheca varshaabhu is a new frog species.
Sphaerotheca Varshaabhu, meaning a genus of frog which welcomes rain, has been attributed to its behaviour of coming out of burrows during the early showers.
The newly unearthed amphibian exhibits distinctive characteristics that set it apart from known frog species.
It has adapted to its urban surroundings displaying behaviours and physical attributes that help it navigate challenges posed by urbanization.
The team utilised advanced genetic analysis, morphological studies and bioacoustics to confirm the distinctiveness of this newly discovered amphibian.
Key facts about amphibians
They are extremely sensitive to changes in the environment and can give scientists valuable insight into how an ecosystem is functioning.
Amphibians, like frogs, toads and salamanders, are known as indicator species.
They are both predators and prey; many other animals are affected by them.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/researchers-identify-new-species-of-burrowing-frog-in-urban-bengaluru/article67795686.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the eROSITA:
- It is a wide-field X-ray telescope.
- It provides new insights about evolution of super massive black holes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the German eROSITA consortium has released the data for its share of the first all-sky survey by the soft X-ray imaging telescope.
The eROSITA (extended ROentgen Survey with an Imaging Telescope Array) is a wide-field X-ray telescope on-board the Russian-German “Spectrum-Roentgen-Gamma” (SRG) observatory.
It was developed under the leadership of the Max-Planck Institute for extraterrestrial Physics in Germany (DE).
It is a sensitive X-ray telescope capable of delivering deep, sharp images over very large areas of the sky.
The eROSITA telescope consists of seven identical Wolter-1 mirror modules.
SRG was successfully launched from Baikonur on July 13 2019, and placed in a halo orbit around the L2 point.
Functions
It has been performing an all-sky survey, in which the whole celestial sphere is mapped once every six months. Eight such all-sky charts are planned until December 2023.
It is also expected to yield a sample of several million Active Galactic Nuclei, providing a unique view of the evolution of supermassive black holes within the emerging cosmic structure.
The survey will also provide new insights into a wide range of astrophysical phenomena, including accreting binaries, active stars and diffuse emission within the Galaxy, as well as solar system bodies that emit X-rays via the charge exchange process.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-01-erosita-sky-survey-largest-high.html
With reference to the Mesolithic Period, consider the following statements:
- It is a cultural stage which existed between the Paleolithic and the Neolithic periods.
- People transitioned from using smaller chipped stone tools to large stone tools.
- People began growing crops and practicing animal husbandry.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Mesolithic era rock paintings have been recently discovered at Sitamma Loddi, Gattusingaram, in Peddapalli district, Telangana.
About Mesolithic Period:
Mesolithic, also called Middle Stone Age, is an ancient cultural stage which existed between the Paleolithic (Old Stone Age) and the Neolithic (New Stone Age).
Timeframe: This period is generally considered to have occurred between approximately 12,000-10,000 years ago.
Some of the defining characteristics of the Mesolithic Age are as follows:
People transitioned from using large chipped stone tools to using smaller chipped stone tools (microliths).
Microliths were probably stuck onto handles of bone or wood to make tools such as saws and sickles.
At the same time, older varieties of tools continued to be in use.
People transitioned from hunting large herds animals in groups to a more hunter-gatherer lifestyle.
Towards the end of the Mesolithic Age, people began growing crops and practising animal husbandry, which is the controlled cultivation, management, and production of domestic animals.
It was during the Mesolithic Age that the dog was domesticated.
The permanent settlements in the Mesolithic Age varied from villages of huts to walled cities.
During the Mesolithic Age, the climate was warming after the last ice age, which occurred at the end of the Palaeolithic period.
The art created in the Mesolithic Age is highly reflective of the change in climate that was happening at the time.
During the Mesolithic period, humans developed cave paintings, engravings, and ceramics to reflect their daily lives.
In certain areas of the world, a range of pottery was made during the Mesolithic Age.
Mesolithic Sites in India: Bagor in Rajasthan, Sarai Nahar Rai in Allahabad, Jharkhand, Chhota Nagpur plateau.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/hyderabad/mesolithic-era-rock-art-discovered-in-t-hyderabad-sitamma-loddi/articleshow/107307966.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Input Service Distributor (ISD) under Goods and Services Tax (GST):
- It receives invoices for services used by its branches and distributes the tax paid to such branches on a proportional basis.
- It is not applicable when capital goods are involved.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Finance Minister in Budget 2024 proposed the manner of distribution of credit by input service distributors.
About Input Service Distributor (ISD):
ISD means an office of the supplier of goods or services or both which receives tax invoices towards receipt of input services and issues a prescribed document for the purposes of distributing the credit of central tax (CGST), State tax (SGST)/ Union territory tax (UTGST), or integrated tax (IGST) paid on the said services to a supplier of taxable goods or services or both having the same Permanent Account Number (PAN) as that of the ISD.
Hence, ISD is a business which receives invoices for services used by its branches.
It distributes the tax paid to such branches on a proportional basis by issuing an ISD invoice.
The branches can have different GST Identification Numbers (GSTINs) but must have the same PAN as that of ISD.
Registration under GST:
An ISD is required to obtain a separate registration.
Registration is mandatory and there is no threshold limit for registration for an ISD.
Relevance of ISD:
It is relevant for businesses having multiple branches operating within India.
These businesses are required to obtain GSTIN for each branch from where taxable supplies are made.
Based on the purchases of the head office or branch, ITC (Input Tax Credit) in the form of SGST, CGST, or IGST would accrue to the business.
Toensure that the ITC is properly distributed amongst the various branches of the business, ISD concept has been introduced by the Government.
ISD is made available to business having a large share of common expenditures, and billing/payment is done from a centralised location.
Where ISD doesn’t apply?
ISD mechanism is meant only for distributing credit on common invoices pertaining to input services.
It is not applicable when input or capital goods are involved.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.taxscan.in/finance-bill-2024-know-proposed-manner-of-distribution-of-credit-by-input-service-distributor-under-gst/370584/
Consider the following statements regarding Tidal Disruption Event (TDE):
- It occurs when a star passes close enough to a supermassive black hole and is pulled apart by its tidal forces.
- It is often observed as bright flare of radiation which lasts only for a few seconds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
An international team of astronomers recently conducted multi-wavelength observations of AT 2023clx—the closest to Earth tidal disruption event (TDE).
About Tidal Disruption Event (TDE):
Tidal disruption events (TDEs) are astronomical phenomena that occur when a star passes close enough to a supermassive black hole and is pulled apart by the black hole’s tidal forces, causing the process of disruption.
Such tidally disrupted stellar debris starts raining down on the black hole and radiation emerges from the innermost region of accreting debris, which is an indicator of the presence of a TDE.
How does a TDE typically unfold?
Close Approach: A star in a galaxy approaches a black hole on a very close trajectory due to gravitational interactions within the galaxy.
Tidal Forces: As the star gets closer to the black hole, the gravitational forces acting on it become increasingly uneven due to the difference in gravitational pull on the near side and far side of the star. These tidal forces can be strong enough to disrupt the star.
Stellar Disruption: When the tidal forces exceed the self-gravitational forces holding the star together, it undergoes a process called “tidal disruption.” The star is stretched and eventually torn apart into a stream of gas and debris.
Accretion Disk Formation: The debris from the disrupted star forms an accretion disk around the black hole. This disk is composed of hot gas and dust, and it spirals inwards towards the black hole.
Energy Release: As the material in the accretion disk spirals inwards, it releases a tremendous amount of energy in the form of X-rays and ultraviolet radiation.
Flares and Observations: TDEs are often observed as bright flares of radiation from the centre of a galaxy. These flares can last for several months to years, gradually fading as the disrupted star’s material is consumed by the black hole.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://phys.org/news/2024-01-properties-nearest-tidal-disruption-event.html
Consider the following statements regarding Tax Buoyancy:
- It refers to changes in tax revenue in response to changes in the tax rate.
- When a tax is buoyant, its revenue increases only when the tax rate increases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Finance Minister recently presented fiscal consolidation projections that surpass expectations for the current financial year and Budget Estimates (BE) for the next year, despite the conservative tax buoyancy in the estimates.
About Tax Buoyancy:
Tax buoyancy explains the relationship between the changes in the government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in Gross domestic product (GDP).
There is a strong connection between the government’s tax revenue earnings and economic growth.
As the economy achieves faster growth, the tax revenue of the government also goes up. Tax buoyancy explains this relationship.
It refers to the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to changes in GDP.
When a tax is buoyant, its revenue increases without increasing the tax rate.
It depends upon:
the size of the tax base;
the friendliness of the tax administration;
the rationality and simplicity of tax rates;
Tax buoyancy will be highest for direct taxes. Generally, direct taxes are more sensitive to the GDP growth rate.
What is tax elasticity?
A similar looking concept is tax elasticity. It refers to changes in tax revenue in response to changes in the tax rate.
For example, how tax revenue changes if the government reduces corporate income tax from 30 percent to 25 percent indicate tax elasticity.
What is Laffer Curve?
It is an economic theory pioneered by economist Arthur Laffer.
Created in 1974, it visually shows the relationship between tax rates and the amount of tax revenue collected by governments.
It suggests that tax rates above a certain threshold reduce tax revenue since they incentivize people not to work.
It suggests there is an optimum tax rate which maximises total tax revenue.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://www.business-standard.com/budget/news/fm-fiscal-consolidation-better-than-expected-despite-modest-tax-buoyancy-124020101296_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding Manatees:
- They are large herbivorous aquatic mammals.
- All the species of manatees inhabit freshwater ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A record number of manatees converged at a Florida state park recently.
About Manatees:
Manatees are large aquatic mammals, and sometimes they’re referred to as “sea cows.”
They belong toa group of animals called Sirenia. This group also contains dugongs.
Dugongs and manatees are very similar in appearance and behavior, but there is one key difference: their tails.
Manatees have paddle-shaped tails, and dugongs have fluked tails, giving it a whale-like appearance.
Habitat: Manatees inhabit shallow, marshy coastal areas and rivers.
There are three species, or types, of manatee.
The Amazonian manatee lives in the Amazon River and in fresh water in South America. This species is only found in freshwater.
The African manatee lives in tropical West Africa.
The Caribbean manatee is found in Florida and the West Indies.
Features:
Adult manatees may reach a length of 15 feet (4.6 meters) and a weight of 1,660 kilograms.
Females tend to be larger and heavier than males.
Dull gray, blackish, or brown in colour, all three manatee species have stout tapered bodies ending in a flat rounded tail used for forward propulsion.
The forelimbs are modified into flippers; there are no hind limbs.
In order to breathe, they must swim to the water’s surface for air.
Lifespan: 50 to 60 years
They are herbivores. They spend up to eight hours a day grazing and can consume 4 to 9 percent of their body weight in aquatic vegetation daily.
Apart from mothers and their young, or males following a receptive female, manatees are generally solitary animals.
Conservation Status: All three manatee species are listed as ‘Vulnerable’ by the IUCN’s Red List of Threatened Species.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.bbc.com/future/article/20240125-a-florida-state-park-reports-a-record-number-of-manatees-gathering-whats-behind-the-convergence
Thanthai Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary, recently seen in the news, is located in:
Tamil Nadu
Explanation :
The Tamil Nadu government has declared 80,114.80 hectares of reserve forests in Bargur Hills in Erode district, as the Thanthai Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary.
This region is part of the corridor that connects the Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (STR) to the Male Mahadeshwara Hills Tiger Reserve and the Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary, and plays a crucial role in maintaining a viable tiger population.
These forests occupy a prominent position in the Eastern Ghats as they merge with the Western Ghat at the Nilgiris.
The vast landscape is home to diverse flora and fauna, making it an ideal habitat for various life forms.
The landscape is interconnected to the Kollegal forests of Karnataka and the Nilgiris, creating one of the most diverse habitats in the region.
It is one of the tiger corridors identified by the National Tiger Conservation Authority.
The region is also part of the Nilgiris Elephant Reserve and is home to a healthy population of large herbivores including elephants and the Indian Gaur.
Also, the landscape is the catchment of the Palar River that drains into the Cauvery River and is a crucial source of water for agricultural activities.
It is also of cultural and historical significance to tribal and local communities who depend on these ecosystems for their livelihoods and traditional practices.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/tn-gets-its-18th-wildlife-sanctuary-spanning-over-80000-hectares-of-reserve-forests-in-erode-district/article67799442.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the MagSafe:
- It is a wireless power bank that connects to the back of wireless-compatible mobiles.
- It uses the magnetic current to charge a mobile phone.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
There are a variety of power banks that are available online, but since the launch of MagSafe chargers from Apple, the industry has evolved.
MagSafe charger is a wireless charger/power bank that connects to the back of your wireless-compatible mobile phone to charge your phone in the easiest of ways.
It is equipped with either a 5,000 or a 10,000 mAh battery pack on the inside, which can be used as a power backup.
This type of charger uses the magnetic current present at the back of your mobile phone and the magnets on the MagSafe charger.
A good MagSafe charger is just like any other wireless power bank that attaches to your mobile phone and works as a power bank.
As with any other power bank, a MagSafe charger also needs to be charged.
Working
It is a type of power bank that is only compatible with devices that support wireless charging.
The MagSafe chargers, after you fix them directly on the back of your mobile phone, connect to the magnets on the charger that complete the circuit.
The complete circuit allows the current to flow from the power bank to the device, which allows the charger to charge your mobile phone.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/hot-picks/what-is-magsafe-how-does-magsafe-work/articleshow/107330984.cms
With reference to Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund, consider the following statements:
- It is a Central Sector Scheme.
- It is incentivizing entrepreneurs to establish dairy processing infrastructure.
- Under it, government entities and cooperatives are eligible to get incentives.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister of India approved the continuation of Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund (AHIDF) to be implemented under Infrastructure Development Fund (IDF) for another three years up to 2025-26.
It is a Central Sector Scheme.
It has been approved for incentivizing investments by individual entrepreneurs, private companies, MSME, Farmers Producers Organizations (FPOs) and Section 8 companies to establish
the dairy processing and value addition infrastructure
meat processing and value addition infrastructure and
Animal Feed Plant.
Objectives
To help increasing of milk and meat processing capacity and product diversification thereby providing greater access for unorganized rural milk and meat producers to organized milk and meat market.
To make available increased price realization for the producer.
To make available quality milk and meat products for the domestic consumer.
To promote exports and increase the export contribution in the milk and meat sector.
To make available quality concentrated animals feed to the cattle, buffalo, sheep, goat, pig and poultry to provide balanced ration at affordable prices.
Government of India will provide 3% interest subvention for 8 years including two years of moratorium for loan up to 90% from the scheduled bank and National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC), NABARD and NDDB.
Under this government entities and cooperatives are not eligible to get benefit of this scheme
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2001054
Subika paintings, recently seen in news, is linked to the cultural history of:
Meitei community
Explanation :
Manipur boasts a rich cultural heritage but some of its invaluable art forms like Subika paintings are on the brink of extinction due to neglect.
It a style of painting which is intricately linked to the Meitei community’s cultural history.
It is surviving through its six manuscripts — Subika, Subika Achouba, Subika Laishaba, Subika Choudit, Subika Cheithil and Thengrakhel Subika.
Although the royal chronicle, Cheitharol Kumbaba, doesn’t mention a specific founder, there is a possibility that this art form existed when the writing tradition was introduced in the state.
Experts estimate the use of Subika paintings since the 18th or 19th century.
Key points about Subika Laisaba
The painting of Subika Laisaba is a composition of cultural motifs made by pre-existing features and other influences stimulated from their cultural worldviews.
Among the six manuscripts, Subika Laishaba represents a direct and authentic continuation of the Meitei cultural tradition depicted through visual images.
The illustrations of Subika Laishaba have visual language from the elements such as lines, shapes, forms, colours, and patterns.
These visual images become Meitei’s cultural motif, structure to create visual effects as well as express cultural significance meaning and values.
The visual images found in this manuscript are painted on handmade paper.
It is also found that materials of manuscript are prepared indigenously either handmade paper or barks of tree.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/north-east-india/manipur/manipur-subika-style-painting-yumnam-sapha-9137297/
Consider the following statements regarding the Rebate of State and Central Taxes and Levies scheme:
- It aims to reimburse all embedded State and Central Taxes/Levies for exports of manufactured goods and garments.
- The rebate under the scheme shall be in the form of duty credit scrips.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Cabinet approved the continuation of Scheme for Rebate of State and Central Taxes and Levies (RoSCTL) for export of Apparel/Garments and Made ups upto 31st March 2026.
It aims to reimburse all embedded State and Central Taxes/Levies for exports of manufactured goods and garments.
It has been established as a successor for the old “Rebate of State Levies (RoSL) Scheme.
The difference between RoSL & RoSCTL Scheme is that under RoSL Scheme, there was no benefit on the central tax and Levies. But in the RoSCTL scheme, the exporter will get rebate of both State and Central tax and Levies.
Objective: To compensate for the State and Central Taxes and Levies in addition to the Duty Drawback Scheme on export of apparel/ garments and Made-ups by way of rebate.
The rebate under the Scheme shall be in the form of duty credit scrips.
The scrips shall be issued electronically on Customs system.
The duty credit scrips shall be used for payment of Basic Customs Duty on import of goods. These scrips shall be freely transferable.
The duty credit available in an e-scrip shall be transferred at a time for the entire amount in the said e-scrip to another person and transfer of the duty credit in part shall not be permitted.
Validity of e-scrip: The period of validity of the e-scrip, of one year from its creation, shall not change on account of transfer of the e-scrip.
Eligibility: All exporters of garments/Apparel and made-ups manufactured in India are eligible to take benefit under this scheme, except entities/ IECs under the Denied Entity List of the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT).
Implementing agency: It has been notified by the Ministry of Textiles. However, the scheme shall be implemented by the Department of Revenue.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2001049
Consider the following statements regarding Wheat Blast:
- It is a disease of wheat crop caused by a virus.
- It spreads through infected seeds, crop residues and spores.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Researchers who have modeled for the first time how wheat blast will spread in the future found the fungal disease could reduce global wheat production by 13% until 2050.
About Wheat Blast:
Wheat blast, caused by the plant fungus Magnaporthe oryzae, is a fast-acting, severe disease of wheat that causes bleaching of the heads.
Magnaporthe oryzae can infect many grasses, including barley, lolium, rice, and wheat, but specific isolates of this pathogen generally infect limited species; that is, wheat isolates infect preferably wheat plants but can use several more cereal and grass species as alternate hosts.
It spreads through infected seeds, crop residues, and spores that can travel long distances in the air.
It thrives in warm and humid conditions, making regions with such climates particularly susceptible.
The pathogen is also resistant to fungicides.
The seriousness of the disease is indicated by the fact that crops are burnt to avoid this disease.
Effects:
It causes progressive bleaching of the heads, lower yields, and poor seed quality.
Stems and leaves are discoloured, with dark brown, eye-shaped lesions on leaves.
Sometimes dark grey spores can be seen.
It can shrivel and deform the grain in less than a week from the first symptoms.
History of the Outbreak:
First found in Brazil in 1985, it spread quickly through South America, infecting around three million hectares of wheat within a decade.
In 2016, it made it across to Bangladesh, and in 2020, it was confirmed in Africa, in crops in Zambia.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.world-grain.com/articles/19580-researchers-find-wheat-blast-could-reduce-production-by-13
Consider the following statements regarding Millipedes:
- They are cylindrical or slightly flattened invertebrates.
- They are typically found in desert and arid areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers recently discovered a new genus and five new species of millipedes in remote African jungles.
About Millipedes:
They are any member of the arthropod class Diplopoda. (Arthropods are animals with hard exoskeletons and jointed limbs.)
They are cylindrical or slightly flattened invertebrates.
The word “millipede” translates to “a thousand feet”—but while millipedes have many feet, none of them quite have a thousand.
They’re not insects. They are actually more closely related to lobsters, crayfish, and shrimp.
There are approximately 12,000 species distributed worldwide.
Habitat: They are typically found in areas of high moisture and decaying vegetation, such as under trash, in piles of grass and leaves, etc.
Features:
They are usually blackish or brownish in color, but some are also red, orange, or have mottled patterns.
Their bodies are split into a number of segments, and each segment has two sets of legs that attach to the body’s underside, except for the first (head) segment, which is legless, and the next three segments, which each contain one pair of legs.
In addition, each segment contains two pairs of internal organs (i.e., two pairs of ganglia and two pairs of heart arteries).
The length ranges from 2 to 280 mm (0.08 to 11 inches).
They are not poisonous, but many species have glands capable of producing irritating fluids that may cause allergic reactions in some individuals.
Most millipedes are nocturnal and are primarily scavengers, feeding on decaying plants and occasionally dead insects. , although some species attack the roots of living plants.
Millipedes vs Centipedes:
Both centipedes and millipedes are made up of segments that link together to form one long body.
Millipedes have two sets of legs per segment, positioned directly under their body.
Centipedes have one set of legs per segment, positioned on the side of their body.
Centipedes mostly eat insects after killing them with their venom. Millipedes feast on decomposing plants.
They respond to threats in different ways. A millipede will coil up and release a smelly secretion. Centipedes can bite, (which is typically harmless to humans) and run away quickly.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-02-genus-alien-multi-legged-forest.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA):
- It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
- It extends financial assistance for setting up projects relating to renewable sources of energy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
IREDA in partnership with its knowledge partner Boston Consulting Group (BCG) recently convened a Strategic Meeting focusing on key aspects of business expansion and initiatives aimed at cost reduction in fund utilization.
About Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA):
It is a Mini Ratna (Category–I) non-banking financial institution under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
It is a Public Limited Government Company established as a Non-Banking Financial Institution (NBFC) in 1987.
REDA has been notified as a “Public Financial Institution” under Section 4 ‘A’ of the Companies Act, 1956, and registered as NBFC with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
REDA is primarily engaged in promoting, developing and extending financial assistance for setting up projects relating to new and renewable sources of energy and energy efficiency/conservation.
IREDA is the single largest “Green Financier” in the country. It caters to all technologies in the renewable energy sector and predominantly provides financing for the sector.
Motto: ENERGY FOR EVER
Objectives:
To give financial support to specific projects and schemes for generating electricity and/ or energy through new and renewable sources and conserving energy through energy efficiency.
To maintain its position as a leading organization to provide efficient and effective financing in renewable energy and energy efficiency/ conservation projects.
To increase IREDA`s share in the renewable energy sector by way of innovative financing.
Improvement in the efficiency of services provided to customers through continual improvement of systems, processes, and resources.
To strive to be a competitive institution through customer satisfaction.
Funding: IREDA generates its revenue through the interest and principal repayments from the projects it finances, as well as by raising funds from the market and through borrowings.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2002051
The GHAR Portal, recently seen in the news, is launched to:
digitally track and monitor the restoration and repatriation of children
Explanation :
GHAR - GO Home and Re-Unite Portal have been developed and launched by the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR).
About GHAR Portal:
It is a portal to digitally monitor and track the restoration and repatriation of children according to the protocols under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, and Rules thereof.
It has been developed and launched by the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR).
The following are the salient features of the portal:
Digital tracking and monitoring of children who are in the Juvenile Justice system and have to be repatriated to another Country/State/District.
Digital transfer of cases of children to the concerned Juvenile Justice Board/Child Welfare Committee of the State. It will help in the speedy repatriation of children.
Where there is a requirement of a translator/interpreter/expert, request will be made to the concerned State Government.
Child Welfare Committees and District Child Protection Officers can ensure proper restoration and rehabilitation of children by digitally monitoring the progress of the case.
A checklist format will be provided in the forms so that the children who are being hard to repatriate or children who are not getting their entitled compensation or other monetary benefits can be identified.
List of Government implemented schemes will be provided, so that at the time of restoration, the Child Welfare Committees can link the child with the schemes to strengthen the family and ensure that the child remains with his/her family.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2001879
With reference to the Inclusive Education for Disabled at Secondary Stage (IEDSS) scheme, consider the following statements:
- It provides assistance for the inclusive education of disabled children in classes IX-XII.
- It covers all children studying in both government and private schools.
- It is implemented by the School Education Department of the concerned State Governments/Union Territories.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Karnataka Government recently suspended five officers for dereliction of duty in the implementation of the Inclusive Education for Disabled at Secondary Stage (IEDSS) scheme.
About Inclusive Education for Disabled at Secondary Stage (IEDSS) scheme:
IEDSS has been launched from the year 2009-10. This Scheme replaces the earlier scheme of Integrated Education for Disabled Children (IEDC).
The aim of this scheme is to enable all students with disabilities to pursue four years of secondary education in an inclusive and enabling environment, after completing eight years of elementary schooling.
It provides assistance for the inclusive education of disabled children in classes IX-XII.
The scheme covers all children studying at the secondary stage in Government, local body and Government-aided schools, with one or more disabilities as defined under the Persons with Disabilities Act (1995) and the National Trust Act (1999) in the class IX to XII, namely blindness, low vision, leprosy cured, hearing impairment, locomotory disabilities, mental retardation, mental illness, autism, and cerebral palsy, and may eventually cover speech impairment, learning disabilities, etc.
Girls with the disabilities receive special focus to help them gain access to secondary schools, as also to information and guidance for developing their potential.
Setting up of Model inclusive schools in every State is envisaged under the scheme.
Components:
Student-oriented components, such as medical and educational assessment, books and stationery, uniforms, transport allowance, reader allowance, stipend for girls, support services, assistive devices, boarding the lodging facility, therapeutic services, teaching learning materials, etc.
Other components include appointment of special education teachers, allowances for general teachers for teaching such children, teacher training, orientation of school administrators, establishment of resource room, providing barrier free environment, etc.
Implementing Agency:
The School Education Department of the State Governments/Union Territory (UT) Administrations are the implementing agencies.
They may involve NGOs having experience in the field of education of the disabled in the implementation of the scheme.
Financial Assistance:
Central assistance for all items covered in the scheme is on 100 percent basis.
The State governments are only required to make provisions for scholarship of Rs. 600/- per disabled child per annum.
This scheme now subsumed under Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) from 2013.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/five-education-dept-officers-suspended-for-misappropriation-of-iedss-scheme-grants/article67803901.ece
Cygnus X-1, recently seen in the news, is a:
black hole
Explanation :
Astro Sat, India’s first, dedicated multi-wavelength astronomy mission, accomplished the difficult task of measuring the X-ray polarisation of the Cygnus X-1 black hole system.
It was discovered over four decades ago.
It is one of the first confirmed black hole systems in our galaxy.
The black hole in Cygnus X-1 is 20 times heavier than the Sun, and has a companion - a heavy supergiant star (40 times more massive than the Sun) in a binary system.
It is located at a distance that is about 400 times more than the distance between Earth and Sun.
Due to the gravitational pull of the black hole, material from the supergiant falls and spirals in towards the black hole.
This process leads to the formation of a thin accretion disk which is responsible for soft X-rays.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: News:https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/pune/astrosat-detects-polarised-high-energy-x-rays-black-hole-9131164/
Consider the following statements regarding the C- CARES portal:
- It helps in grievance redressal of Coal Mines Provident Fund Organization subscribers.
- It is developed by the National Informatics centre.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the union Minister of Coal, Mines and Parliamentary Affairs launched a web portal of Coal Mines Provident Fund Organization (CMPFO) namely C- CARES.
It is developed and designed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC).
The portal, will allow CMPF subscribers and coal companies to login and perform various functions tailored to their needs.
While the subscribers can access and view their individual details and subscription status, the coal management can submit contribution details, subscribers’ particulars and claims for online settlement and payment through the portal.
It will also ensure paperless working, timely and accurate settlement of claims, reduction in processing time and grievance redressal.
The portal being a public service platform is intended to benefit the CMPF subscribers who are working in the coal sector as well as its pensioners.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2001048
With reference to Nano DAP, consider the following statements:
- It is a unique granular fertilizer product.
- It is a source of nitrogen and phosphorus which are essential for the growth of crops.
- It enhances the nutritional quality of harvested food produce.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Finance Minister of India, presenting the interim budget announced the expansion of the application of Nano DAP on various crops in all agro climatic zones.
It is a unique liquid fertilizer product that contains nanoparticles of Diammonium Phosphate (DAP).
It is a source of nitrogen and phosphorus – 2 key primary nutrient essential for the growth of crops.
It is containing 8% Nitrogen and 16% Phosphorus by volume.
Unlike conventional DAP, which comes in granular form, IFFCO’s Nano DAP is in liquid form.
It has an advantage in terms of surface area to volume, as its particle size is less than 100 Nanometre (nm).”
Advantages of NANO DAP
Higher Crop Yield: Due to small size and more surface area to volume ratio; seed treatment and foliar application of Nano DAP at critical growth stages enhances nutrient availability to crops.Hence, Crop yield increases due to increase in leaf chlorophyll, photosynthesis, root biomass, number of effective tillers and branches.
Quality Food: Nutritional quality of harvested food produce was found to be better in terms of protein and nutrient content.
Reduction in Chemical Fertilizer Usage: Enhanced use efficiency of one bottle (500 ml) of Nano DAP can potentially replace the phosphorus requirement met by conventional DAP by 50%.
Environment Friendly: Production of Nano DAP is energy and resource friendly. Precision and targeted application of this to crops therefore leads to agriculture sustainability and safety of the environment by reducing soil, air and water pollution.
It is more pocket-friendly than its conventional counterpart. A 500 ml bottle of Nano DAP, equivalent to a 50-kg bag of conventional DAP
It is set to significantly reduce this import burden.
Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/sitharaman-nano-dap-fertiliser-budget-9138989/
Consider the following statements regarding the Exercise Vayu Shakti:
- It is held once every three years.
- It demonstrates the offensive and defensive capabilities of the Indian Air Force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Indian Air Force will be conducting Exercise Vayu Shakti-24 on 17 February 2024 at the Pokhran Air to Ground Range, near Jaisalmer.
The Indian Air Force is slated to carry out three large scale war games on February 17, namely, Vayu Shakti, Gagan Shakti and Tarang Shakti.
It will be a riveting demonstration of the offensive and defensive capabilities of the IAF, spanning across day and night.
The exercise will also showcase joint operations with the Indian Army.
Exercise Vayu Shakti
The IAF will first undertake the major “Vayu Shakti” firepower demonstration, which is held once every three years, with 135 fighters, aircraft, helicopters and drones at the Pokhran field firing ranges.
Gagan Shakti’
The second mega exercise will be ‘Gagan Shakti’.
In this, almost the entire air fleet race would be activated from north to south, and from west to east to test integrated war fighting strategies and tactics with the other two forces and other stakeholders.
All the potent weapon systems like the Rafale fighter aircraft and the S-400 air defense systems would be participating in the ‘Gagan Shakti’ exercise.
The exercise, which is held once in five years, is also going to be the biggest ever of the series with active participation from other two services.
Tarang Shakti
The third major exercise, Tarang Shakti, would be the first ever multinational exercise to be held in the country.
This will see aircraft from friendly air forces like the US, Germany, France, Australia and neighbouring and other friendly countries taking part in it.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2001820
Consider the following statements regarding the Law Commission of India:
- It is a non-statutory body constituted with a definite terms of reference.
- The first Law Commission of independent India was established under the chairmanship of M. C. Setalvad.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The 22nd Law Commission of India led by Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi has recommended that the offence of criminal defamation should be retained in the new criminal laws.
It is a non-statutory body and is constituted by a notification of the Government of India, Ministry of Law & Justice.
It is constituted with a definite terms of reference to carry out research in the field of law and the Commission makes recommendations to the Government (in the form of Reports) as per its terms of reference.
It functions to the Ministry of Law and Justice as an advisory body.
History of Law Commission of India
The first pre-independence law commission was established in 1834 by the British Government in India.
It was established by the Charter Act of 1833 and was chaired by Lord Macaulay.
The first Law Commission of independent India was established in 1955 under the chairmanship of the former Attorney General for India M. C. Setalvad.
This Commission was created for a period of three years and this practice has persisted ever since then, resulting in the reconstitution of Law Commissions every three years via executive orders.
The executive orders that constitute the Law Commissions also specify their scope and purpose, and thus these fluctuate periodically.
Since then, twenty one more Law Commissions have been constituted, each with a three-year term and with certain terms of reference.
The Law Commission has taken up various subjects on references made by Department of Legal Affairs, Supreme Court and High Courts.
The Twenty Second Law Commission has been notified with effect from 21st February, 2020 for a term of 3 years.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/india/criminal-defamation-criminal-laws-law-panel-9141036/
Which of the following reasons led to the crisis in the Jagirdari system during the later period of the Mughals?
- There was a scarcity of lands or jagirs.
- Income indicated on paper from jagirs was not obtained.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Jagirdari Crisis was a financial condition in which there was a scarcity of lands or jagirs. Following the annexation of Bijapur and Golconda, the best and most easily manageable jagirs had been kept by Aurangzeb in the khalisa, i.e., direct management in order to pay for the war. Jagirs in the newly conquered areas, i.e., the Karnataka yielded little income since the area was still unsettled. So, point 1 is correct.
The nobles were unable to get from their jagirs the income indicated on paper. In consequence, many of them were unable to maintain their stipulated quota of troops. The position in the Deccan was particularly bad. Due to the disturbed conditions, and the lack of a proper contingent on the part of the nobles. So, point 2 is correct.
Therefore, option c is the correct answer.
The term ‘Ijaradar’ is related to :
Revenue farmer
Explanation :
Ijaradar is a revenue farmer. ijara means farming of revenue. In the Mughal period ijara or farming system was prevalent. A revenue farmer was known as Ijaradar or Mustajir.
Therefore, Option (d) is the correct answer.
With reference to Indian history, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Murshid Quli Khan declared Bengal an independent state separate from the Mughal empire.
- Awadh was established by Saadat Khan as a result of the weakening of the Mughal empire.
- Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf Jah of Hyderabad established his control over the Coromandel coast by defeating the British.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2 only
Explanation :
Murshid Quli Khan who started his career as Diwan of Bengal under the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb became virtually independent with the growing weakening of the central authority. However, he regularly sent tribute to the Mughal emperor and never declared total independence from the Mughal empire. So, statement 1 is not correct.
With the weakening central control, the Mughal suba of Awadh became virtually independent under Saadat Khan Burhan ul Mulk. Saadat Khan disciplined the local zamindars and gave shape to a well-paid, well-armed and well-trained army. Before his death in 1739, Saadat Khan made the provincial head a hereditary position. So, statement 2 is correct.
The founder of the Asaf-Jah house of Hyderabad was Kilich Khan, popularly known as Nizam-ul-Mulk. The state of Hyderabad was constantly engaged in a struggle against the Marathas to the west and with independent Telugu warrior chiefs (nayakas) of the plateau. The ambitions of the Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf Jah to control the rich textile-producing areas of the Coromandel coast in the east were, however, checked by the British who were becoming increasingly powerful in that region. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
“Sixty lakhs of rupees and some thousand gold coins, nearly one crore worth of gold-ware, nearly fifty crores worth of jewels, most of them unrivalled in the world, and the above
included the Peacock throne”. Above given description of the invasion was done by ?
Nadir Shah
Explanation :
The devastation of Delhi after Nadir Shah’s invasion was described by contemporary observers. One described the wealth looted from the Mughal treasury as follows:
sixty lakhs of rupees and some thousand gold coins, nearly one crore worth of gold-ware, nearly fifty crores worth of jewels, most of them unrivaled in the world, and the above included the Peacock throne.
In the midst of this economic and political crisis, the ruler of Iran, Nadir Shah, sacked and plundered the city of Delhi in 1739 and took away immense amounts of wealth. This invasion was followed by a series of plundering raids by the Afghan ruler Ahmad
Shah Abdali, who invaded north India five times between 1748 and 1761.
Therefore, Option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following Later Mughal Rulers:
- Farrukh Siyar
- Jahandar Shah
- Alamgir II
- Mohammad Shah
What is the correct chronological order of these rulers ?
2-1-4-3
Ruler - State
Amongst the states that were carved out of the old Mughal provinces in the eighteenth century, three stand out very prominently. These were Awadh, Bengal and Hyderabad. All three states were founded by members of the high Mughal nobility who had been governors of large provinces – Sa‘adat Khan (Awadh), Murshid Quli Khan (Bengal) and Asaf Jah (Hyderabad).
The term ‘Watan jagir” is related to :
Autonomous land under Rajput rulers
Explanation :
Many Rajput kings, particularly those belonging to Amber and Jodhpur, had served under the Mughals with distinction. In exchange, they were permitted to enjoy considerable autonomy in their watan jagirs.
Therefore, Option (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following Mughal ruler captured and executed Banda Singh Bahadur?
Farrukh Siyar
Explanation :
After Death Tenth Sikh Guru, Guru Gobind Singh in 1708, the Khalsa rose in revolt against the Mughal authority under Banda Bahadur’s leadership, declared their sovereign rule by striking coins in the name of Guru Nanak and Guru Gobind Singh, and established their own administration between the Sutlej and the Jamuna. Banda Bahadur was captured in 1715 and executed in 1716 during the reign of Farrukh Siyar.
Therefore, Option (b) is the correct answer.
The term ‘Kunbis’ is related to:
Pastoralists
Explanation :
The Maratha kingdom was another powerful regional kingdom to arise out of a sustained opposition to Mughal rule. Shivaji (1627-1680) carved out a stable kingdom with the support of powerful warrior families (deshmukhs). Groups of highly mobile, peasant pastoralists (kunbis) provided the backbone of the Maratha army.
With reference to taxes imposed by Marathas, consider the following statements:
- Chauth was a levy on one-fourth of the revenue demand of a district.
- Sardeshmukhi was a tribute paid to the king as an additional 10% levy on top of the Chauth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
By the 1730s, the Maratha king was recognised as the overlord of the
entire Deccan peninsula. He possessed the right to levy chauth and sardeshmukhi in the entire region.
25 per cent of the land revenue claimed by zamindars. In the Deccan this was collected by the Marathas.
Chauth was a regular tax or tribute imposed from the early 18th century by the Maratha Empire in the Indian subcontinent. It was an annual tax nominally levied at 25% on revenue or produce, hence the name, on lands that were under nominal Mughal rule.
Chauth (from Sanskrit meaning one-fourth) was an annual tax or tribute imposed, from early 18th century, by the Maratha Empire in India. It was nominally levied at 25% on revenue or produce, hence the name. The right to assess and collect this tax was asserted first by Shivaji in the later 17th century, on spurious grounds that his family was hereditary tax collectors in Maharashtra. He extracted chauth from the Muslim kingdoms of Bijapur and Golconda. The sardeshmukhi was an additional 10% levy on top of the chauth.It is a tribute paid to the king. Sardeshmukhi 9-10 per cent of the land revenue paid to the head revenue collector in the Deccan. Hence, Both 1 and 2 statement are correct.
Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding Forest Owlet, recently seen in the news:
- It is mostly found in deciduous and tropical dry forests.
- It is diurnal and has been observed to hunt during the day.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Three back-to-back sightings of endangered Forest Owlet took place in the Melghat Tiger Reserve during a camp held recently.
About Forest Owlet:
It is a member of the typical owl family, Strigidae.
Scientific Name: Athene blewitti
It was first described in 1873. As it was not sighted after 1884, it was considered extinct for many years. In1997, it was rediscovered.
Distribution:
It is endemic to the forests of central India.
It was observed in Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat, and at a few locations in the Melghat Tiger Reserve in Maharashtra.
Habitat: The natural ecosystems and habitats of these species include tropical and subtropical moist lowland woods, dense deciduous woodlands, open dry deciduous teak woods, and tropical and subtropical dry forests.
Features:
It is small and stocky. It measures 20 to 25 cm in length and weighing 240 gram.
It is a typical owlet with a rather unspotted crown, presence of full throat collar, thickly feathered legs, heavily banded wings, and a tail.
The upperparts are dark grayish brown. The underparts are whitish with dark barring.
The bill of the owlet is short and pale yellow in color.
These birds are diurnal and have been observed to hunt during the day.
They eat rodents, reptiles such as lizards and skinks, and insects.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Endangered
CITES: Appendix I
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.deccanherald.com/india/maharashtra/wildlife-odyssey-at-melghat-tiger-reserve-to-spot-the-endangered-forest-owlet-2876577
With reference to Atmospheric Rivers, consider the following statements:
- They transport moist air from the tropics to higher latitudes.
- They are more frequent on the West Coast than they are on the East Coast of continents.
- They primarily occur during the winter of the respective hemisphere.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A second, more powerful atmospheric river storm was headed for Southern California recently, threatening to unleash life-threatening floods and landslides.
About Atmospheric Rivers:
Atmospheric rivers are long, concentrated regions in the atmosphere that transport moist air from the tropics to higher latitudes.
They are responsible for 90 percent of the movement of moisture from the tropics toward the poles.
They are the largest transport mechanisms of freshwater on Earth.
They form when large-scale weather patterns align to create narrow channels, or filaments, of intense moisture transport.
Ten or more atmospheric rivers can be happening at once across the globe.
A well-known and strong one is the Pineapple Express, with moisture transported from the tropical Pacific around Hawaii to the US and Canadian West Coasts.
Features:
Typically, 250 to 375 miles wide, atmospheric rivers can stretch more than a thousand miles long.
They are more frequent on the East Coast than they are on the West Coast.
They primarily occur during the winter of the respective hemisphere, when extratropical cyclones are most prevalent.
The average atmospheric river carries an amount of water vapor roughly equivalent to the average flow of water at the mouth of the Mississippi River (second-longest river in North America).
When atmospheric rivers run up against mountains or run into local atmospheric dynamics and are forced to ascend, the moisture they carry cools and condenses, so they can produce intense rainfall or snowfall.
While they are an incredibly important source of rainfall, they can also bring flashflooding, mudslides, and landslides, sometimes killing people and destroying property.
When atmospheric rivers pass over land, they can cause conditions similar to those of hurricanes with intense and rapid rainfall, cyclone-force winds, and significantly increased wave heights.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/world/story/stronger-storm-california-deadly-floods-2497074-2024-02-03
Which one of the following best describes “Trichoglossum”, recently seen in the news?
A genus of fungus
Explanation :
Researchers recently discovered a new fungus species in Kerala named Trichoglossum syamviswanathii.
About Trichoglossum:
Trichoglossum is a genus of fungus classified within the family Geoglossaceae (Ascomycota), commonly known as “hairy earth tongues” fungusdue to their numerous filaments resembling mushrooms.
They are black, dark, or brown in colour.
They exhibit saprotrophic behavior but can also be found as endophytes in plant roots.
55 Trichoglossum genera have been identified globally. Of these, 21 are recognized species.
They are globally distributed in tropical and temperate forests at least five out of seven continents of the world.
They play a critical role in the decomposition of organic matter.
Key Facts about Fungi:
Fungi, along with Animalia (animals), Plantae (plants), Protista, Archaea/Archaebacteria, and Bacteria or Eubacteria, form the six ‘kingdoms’ of biology.
They are eukaryotic organisms, i.e., their cells contain membrane-bound organelles and clearly defined nuclei.
Reproduction: Fungi usually reproduce both sexually and asexually.
Distribution:
Fungi are either terrestrial or aquatic, the latter living in freshwater or marine environments.
They are found in all temperate and tropical regions of the world where there is sufficient moisture to enable them to grow.
A few species of fungi live in the Arctic and Antarctic regions, although they are rare and are more often found living in symbiosis with algae in the form of lichens.
Importance of fungi:
They help in breaking down dead organic material; they continue the cycle of nutrients through ecosystems.
Fungi, as food, play a role in human nutrition in the form of mushrooms.
They also act as agents of fermentation in the production of bread, cheeses, alcoholic beverages, and numerous other food preparations.
Secondary metabolites of fungi are used as medicines, such as antibiotics and anticoagulants.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://keralakaumudi.com/en/news/news.php?id=1241993&u=new-species-of-fungus-aiding-in-increasing-soil-fertility-discovered-in-kerala
What is ‘Obelisks’, that was in the news recently?
A class of virus-like entities
Explanation :
Scientists recently uncovered a never-before-seen class of virus-like entities named obelisks in the human body.
About Obelisks:
It is a newly discovered class of virus-like entities present in the human body.
It comprises a class of diverse RNAs that have colonized and gone unnoticed in human and global microbiomes.
Named after the highly symmetrical, rod-like structures formed by their twisted lengths of RNA, the Obelisks’ genetic sequences are only around 1,000 characters (nucleotides) in size.
These mysterious bits of genetic material have no detectable sequences or even structural similarities known to any other biological agents.
They’re also significantly larger than other genetic molecules that coexist inside cells, from plants to bacteria, called plasmids, which are more commonly composed of DNA.
Obelisks represent their own class of organism. They lie somewhere between viruses and viroids.
Although the hosts of other obelisks remain unknown, there is a possibility that some of them may be found in bacteria.
Different types of Obelisks appear to be present indifferent areas of our bodies.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livescience.com/health/viruses-infections-disease/mysterious-virus-like-obelisks-found-in-the-human-gut-and-mouth
What is the “Reading Down” provision in legal interpretation?
An approach to give a narrowed or restricted meaning to a provision
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently observed that if a plain reading of a clause fulfills the object and purpose of the statute, then the rule of ‘Reading Down’ the clause would not be applied just because the clause imposes harsher consequences.
About ‘Reading Down’ the clause:
“Reading Down” provision is one of the many methods the court may turn to when it finds that a particular provision, if for its plain meaning, cannot be saved from invalidation.
It refers to a legal interpretation approach where a court, while examining the validity of a statute, attempts to give a narrowed or restricted meaning to a particular provision to uphold its constitutionality.
When a court encounters a provision that, if interpreted according to its plain and literal meaning, might lead to constitutional or legal issues, the court may opt to read down the provision.
Reading down involves construing the language of the provision in a manner that limits its scope or application, making it consistent with constitutional or legal principles.
So, by restricting or reading it down, the court makes it workable to salvage and save the provision from invalidation.
This principle is rooted in the idea that courts should make every effort to preserve the validity of legislation and should only declare a law invalid as a last resort.
The rule of “Reading Down” is only for the limited purpose of making a provision workable and its objective achievable.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/a-perfectly-valid-provision-cant-be-read-down-just-because-it-imposes-harsher-consequences-supreme-court-248427#:~:text=%E2%80%9CReading%20Down%E2%80%9D%20a%20provision%20is,save%20the%20provision%20from%20invalidation.
The INS Sandhayak is a:
survey vessel ship
Explanation :
The Indian Navy commissioned its latest survey vessel, Sandhayak, at Naval Dockyard in Vizag in the presence of defence minister.
It is the first in a series of four Survey Vessel (Large) ships being constructed at Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata
The primary purpose of the ship is to conduct comprehensive coastal and deep-water Hydrographic Surveys for Port and Harbour approaches, as well as determining navigational channels and routes.
The operational zone extends up to maritime limits, covering the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) and extended continental shelf.
Additionally, the vessel is equipped to gather oceanographic and geophysical data, serving both defence and civil applications.
In its secondary role, the ship can offer limited defence capabilities and serve as a hospital ship during wartime or emergencies.
It is equipped with cutting-edge hydrographic tools, including a Data Acquisition and Processing System, Autonomous Underwater Vehicle, Remotely Operated Vehicle, DGPS Long-range positioning systems, and Digital side-scan sonar.
Powered by two diesel engines, the vessel boasts a speed capability exceeding 18 knots.
Measuring 110 meters in length and displacing 3400 tons, INS Sandhayak has an indigenous content of over 80 per cent by cost.
This ship is re-incarnated in its present avatar from erstwhile Sandhayak, which was decommissioned in 2021.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2002179
Consider the following statements regarding the Aldabra rail:
- It is a coral species found in Antarctica.
- It has evolved twice through a process called iterative evolution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The flightless Aldabra rail went extinct over 130,000 years ago, but the species then reappeared via iterative evolution.
Scientific name: Dryolimnas cuvieri aldabranus
It lives on a coral atoll off the southeast coast of Africa.
Appearance: It’s about the size of a chicken, with a flecked gray back, a rusty red head and chest and a white throat.
It is a subspecies of the white-throated rail (Dryolimnas cuvieri) and is the only living flightless bird in the Indian Ocean.
In losing its ability to fly once again, the Aldabra rail has essentially evolved twice, rising from the dead through a process called iterative evolution.
A 2019 study published in the Zoological Journal of the Linnean Society examined the fossil record of rails in Aldabra and found evidence of a flightless rail on the atoll from before it was submerged beneath the waves 136,000 years ago.
What is Iterative evolution?
Iterative evolution can be defined as “the repeated evolution of a specific trait or body plan from the same ancestral lineage at different points in time.”
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.livescience.com/animals/birds/aldabra-rail-the-bird-that-came-back-from-the-dead-by-evolving-twice
With reference to Codex Alimentarius Commission, consider the following statements:
- It was jointly established by Food and Agriculture Organisation and World Health Organisation.
- It contributes to harmonization of food standards across the globe.
- Its standards are recognized by the World Trade Organisation for the resolution of trade disputes.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The 7th session of the Codex Committee on Spices and Culinary Herbs (CCSCH) was held from 29th January 2024 to 2nd February 2024 at Kochi.
It was established as one of the Commodity Committees under the Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC) in 2013.
India hosts this prestigious Committee since the beginning and Spices Board India serves as the secretariat organization which organizes the Committee’s sessions.
In CCSCH 7th session quality standards for 5 spices, namely small cardamom, turmeric, juniper berry, allpice and star anise were finalised.
Codex Alimentarius Commission
It was jointly established by FAO and WHO.
It is an international, intergovernmental body which is based in Rome.
Members: It consists of 189 member countries.
Membership of the Commission is open to all Member Nations and Associate Members of FAO and WHO which are interested in international food standards.
The Commission meets in regular sessions once a year, alternating between Geneva and Rome.
Funding: The programme of work of the Commission is funded through the regular budgets of WHO and FAO, with all work subject to the approval of the two governing bodies of the parent organisations.
The Commission works in the six official languages of the UN.
The standards of CAC are recognized by the WTO as international reference points for the resolution of trade disputes concerning food safety and consumer protection.
The standards developed by the Committees under the CAC, including the CCSCH, are voluntary in nature, which the member countries of the CAC adopt and use as reference standards to align their national standards.
The works of CAC contribute to harmonization of food standards across the globe, facilitate fair global trade in food, and enhance food safety to safeguard the health of global consumers.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2002168
Consider the following statements regarding the National Research Foundation:
- It is an apex body which aims to increase private sector contributions to research in India.
- The Union Minister of Science & Technology is the ex-officio President of its governing board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Despite approving a Bill to set up a National Research Foundation (NRF) to boost scientific advancement in the country just eight months earlier, the Union government was silent on allocation for the institution or progress made so far in the interim budget for 2024-25.
It is an apex body to provide high-level strategic direction of scientific research in the country in accordance with the recommendations of the National Education Policy (NEP), will be established at a cost of 50,000 crore over the period 2023-28.
It enhances “India’s national research infrastructure, knowledge enterprise, and innovation potential, for scientific pursuit”.
Goals: To increase private sector contributions to research in India and to ensure that a larger portion of government funds go to state universities and colleges.
Nodal Agency: The Department of Science and Technology (DST) will be NRF’s administrative department.
Governing body:
The Prime Minister will be the ex-officio President of the Board.
The Union Minister of Science & Technology & Union Minister of Education will be the ex-officio Vice-Presidents.
NRF’s functioning will be governed by an Executive Council chaired by the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India.
Functions
Forge collaborations among the industry, academia, and government departments and research institutions, and create an interface mechanism for participation and contribution of industries and State governments in addition to the scientific and line ministries.
It will focus on creating a policy framework and putting in place regulatory processes that can encourage collaboration and increased spending by the industry on R&D.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/science-technology/union-budget-2024-25-scientists-disappointed-over-silence-on-national-research-foundation-94216
Consider the following statements regarding the Stingless bees:
- These are native to the Amazon.
- The honey produced by these bees is used as natural medicine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
To protect Amazon, conservators try to save pollinator Stingless bees.
A stingless bee is a bee that appears very similar to a honeybee, but is incapable of stinging.
These bees are eusocial, which means that they live together in hives and produce honey.
These are native to the Amazon.
Their honey, which is runny enough to be drunk like a liquid and is said to have a citrusy aftertaste
It is used by many Indigenous Peruvians as a natural medicine.
Distribution: Stingless bees can be found in most tropical and subtropical regions.
These bees cannot sting but nature has made sure to give them other ways of defending themselves.
These bees do possess stingers, but they are too small to be useful in defense. Instead of stinging, stingless bees use their mandibles to bite their attackers.
Threats:
The Amazon is home to hundreds of species of stingless bee, but as deforestation converts the tropical landscape into farms and ranches, these and other native pollinators are in danger of disappearing.
Pesticides and climate change
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.nytimes.com/2024/01/30/science/amazon-stingless-bees-honey.html
Consider the following statements regarding Hydrothermal systems:
- These are found near mid-ocean ridges only.
- Their formation requires the existence of water, pressure and impermeability of minerals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
New maps have revealed a hidden hydrothermal system beneath Lake Rotorua, which sits at the heart of a dormant volcano in New Zealand.
About Hydrothermal Systems:
Hydrothermal systems occur in areas with high heat fluxes, both on continents, near convergent plate boundaries, and on the ocean floor, near the mid-ocean ridges.
Their formation requires the existence of three important components: fluids, heat, and permeability through rocks so that fluids can circulate.
These systems are often found near mid-ocean ridges, where tectonic plates diverge and new seafloor is created.
How hydrothermal systems work?
Hydrothermal systems occur when seawater percolates down through fractures in the oceanic crust, heating up as it nears the earth’s hot interior.
Descending seawater interacts with the oceanic crust, removing chemicals from the rocks as it heats to 350-400 degrees Celsius, about four times hotter than boiling water (the extreme pressure in the ocean’s depths prevents fluids from boiling).
This interaction of seawater and crust produces hydrothermal fluid, chemically modified slurry of gases and dissolved elements, including metals.
The superheated fluid is then ejected back up to the seafloor and promptly chilled by near-freezing ocean bottom waters.
Chemicals dissolved in the fluid precipitate at the vent, forming chimney-like deposits.
These deposits support deep-sea chemosynthetic communities—organisms that rely on chemicals rather than photosynthesis to fuel their metabolism.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://www.livescience.com/planet-earth/bizarre-magnetic-anomaly-discovered-deep-below-new-zealands-lake-rotorua
The Corbett Tiger Reserve is located in:
Uttarakhand
Explanation :
Five people have been killed near Uttarakhand’s Corbett Tiger Reserve in the past two months.
About Corbett Tiger Reserve:
Location:
It is located on the foothills of the Himalayas in Uttarakhand.
By and large, the reserve is spread over the Bhabar and lower Shivalik regions with a deep water table.
Corbett is the first national park of India, established in 1936. It was named Hailey National Park then. In 1957, the park was rechristned Corbett National Park in memory of the late Jim Corbett, a great naturalist and eminent conservationist.
Today, after the addition of areas to the originally declared National Park, the total area of Tiger Reserve extends to 1288.31 sq. km.
Vegetation: In general, the vegetation comprises of sal and mixed forests, interspersed with grasslands and riparian vegetation.
The terrain is undulating, with several valleys. The rivers Ramganga, Pallaen, and Sonanadi flow through the valleys.
The habitat is characterized by open meadows (chaurs) interspersed with sal and moist, mixed deciduous forests.
The grasslands are locally known as ‘Chaur’, which are an outcome of abandoned settlements or past clearings.
Flora: It consists of evergreen Sal and its combined trees, the Sheesham, and the Kanju found extensively on the ridges.
Fauna: Tiger and elephant are the charismatic mammals, besides a large array of co-predators (leopard, small carnivores), ungulates (sambar, hog deer, spotted deer), birds, reptiles (gharial, crocodile) and fishes.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/5-killed-in-conflict-with-tigers-aroundcorbett-since-dec-101706638089219.html
With reference to the Mekong River, consider the following:
- It is the longest river in Asia.
- It rises in the Tibetan Plateau.
- It drains into the South China Sea.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A multibillion-dollar dam project underway across the Mekong River in Laos has prompted concerns that it could result in Luang Prabang city losing its UNESCO World Heritage Site status.
About Mekong River:
It is the longest river in Southeast Asia, the 7th longest in Asia, and the 12th longest in the world.
It has a length of about 2,700 miles (4,350 km).
Course:
It rises in southeastern Qinghai province, China.
It originates from the Sanjianyuang in the Tibetan Plateau, with the area designated a national nature reserve to protect the headwaters of the Yangtze, Yellow, and Mekong Rivers.
The river drains approximately 795,000 square kilometers and flows through six Asian countries: China, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, Thailand, and Cambodia, where it is referred to by different names.
Vientiane (Viangchan), the capital of Laos, and Phnom Penh, the capital of Cambodia, both stand on its banks.
The river drains into the South China Sea south of Ho Chi Minh City (Vietnam).
Tributaries: The left-bank tributaries (draining high rainfall areas) include Nam Ou, Tha, and Nam Khan, while the right-bank tributaries (draining the lower relief region) are Ruak, Kok, Tonle Sap, and Mun.
Its biodiversity is only second to the Amazon River Basin and contains about 20,000 plant species, 1,200 birds, 430 mammals, 800 amphibians and reptiles, and 850 fish species.
It is the river with the most large fish species, including giant freshwater stingrays, giant pangasius, Mekong giant catfish, and giant barb.
The Mekong creates a huge delta, or triangular piece of land, in southern Vietnam. The delta has rich soil and is one of the world’s great producers of rice.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/dam-project-across-mekong-river-in-laos-raises-fears/article67804853.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Candida auris (C. auris):
- It is a multidrug-resistant bacterium.
- It is primarily contracted in healthcare settings such as hospitals and nursing homes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A deadly fungal infection called Candida auris has been spreading rapidly in the United States recently.
About Candida auris (C. auris):
It is an emerging multidrug-resistant yeast (fungus) that represents a global health threat.
It is capable of causing invasive infections in the human body. It can cause severe illness in people with weakened immune systems.
Scientists first discovered C. auris in Japan in 2009. Since then, it has spread quickly to other countries.
Transmission:
It is primarily contracted in healthcare settings, such as hospitals and nursing homes.
It can also live on the skin or other body parts without making a person sick. This is called being “colonized.”
The fungus can either colonize a specific region of the body, such as the skin, rectum, or mouth, without causing symptoms or it can cause severe invasive infections by entering the bloodstream or wounds.
It can be spread through contact with contaminated surfaces or equipment, or from physical contact with a person who is infected or colonized.
Symptoms:
It can cause infections in different parts of the body, such as the bloodstream, open wounds, and ears.
The symptoms depend on the location and severity of the C. auris infection.
Symptoms may be similar to those of an infection caused by bacteria. There is not a common set of symptoms specific to C. auris infections.
A high fever with chills that does not get better after taking antibiotics may be a sign of a C. auris infection.
Treatment:
Most C. auris infections are treatable with antifungal drugs.
However, some C. auris infections have been resistant to all three main classes of antifungal medications, making them more difficult to treat and often requires the use of combination therapies.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/deadly-fungal-infection-candida-auris-spreading-in-us-rapidly-all-you-need-to-know-4991280
With reference to the e-National Agriculture Market (eNAM), consider the following statements:
- It is an online trading platform for agricultural commodities completely funded by the Government of India.
- The Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) acts as the lead agency for implementing e-Nam.
- It facilitates farmers to sell their products through a competitive and transparent price discovery system.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
With more states facilitating the trade of agricultural commodities on the eNAM, a spurt in trading among various markets within the state as well as at the inter-state level is being witnessed.
About eNAM:
It is an online trading platform for agricultural commodities in India.
It was launched on April 14, 2016, and is completely funded by the Government of India.
The Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) acts as the lead agency for implementing e-Nam under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer’s Welfare.
It aims to create better marketing opportunities for the farmers to sell their products through a competitive and transparent price discovery system, along with an online payment facility for the buyers.
The NAM portal networks the existing APMC (Agriculture Produce Marketing Committee) / Regulated Marketing Committee (RMC) market yards, sub-market yards, private markets, and other unregulated markets to unify all the nationwide agricultural markets by creating a central online platform for agricultural commodity price discovery.
Features:
It will enable farmers to showcase their products through their nearby markets and facilitate traders from anywhere to quote prices.
It provides single-window services for all APMC related services and information. This includes commodity arrivals, quality and prices, buy-and-sell offers, and e-payment settlements directly into farmer’s accounts, among other services.
Using the eNAM service, licenses for traders, buyers, and commission agents can be obtained from state-level authorities without any pre-condition of the physical presence or possession of a shop or premises in the market yard.
Harmonisation of quality standards of agricultural products and infrastructure for quality testing are made available in every market.
Provision of Soil Testing Laboratories is provided for the selected mandi (market) in order to facilitate the farmers visiting the mandi.
e-NAM is designed and implemented to benefit all the stakeholders: farmers, mandis, traders, buyers, Farmer Producer Organization (FPOs), processers, and exporters.
The benefits to stakeholders include:
Transparent online trading with enhanced accessibility to the market.
Real-time price discovery for better and more stable price realization for producers.
Reduced transaction costs for buyers.
Availability of information on the e-NAM mobile app about commodity prices.
The details of the price of commodity sold, along with the quantity, are received through SMS.
Quality certification.
More efficient supply chain and warehouse-based sales.
Online payment directly to the bank accounts of the farmers.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.financialexpress.com/policy/economy-farm-gate-inter-mandi-e-nam-sales-surge-in-fy24-18-million-farmers-across-1361-mandis-on-the-platform-3384093/
Dusted Apollo, recently seen in the news, is a:
butterfly
Explanation :
Recently, Dusted Apollo (Parnassius stenosemus), a rare high-altitude butterfly has been sighted and photographed for the first time in Himachal Pradesh.
It is extremely rare butterfly and has never been photographed before in Himachal Pradesh.
Distribution range: It is found from Ladakh to West Nepal and it flies between 3,500 to 4,800 meters in the inner Himalayas.
Appearance
It closely resembles Ladakh Banded Apollo (Parnnasius stoliczkanus) but the discal band on the upper fore wing in dusted apollo is complete and extends from costa to vein one while this discal band is incomplete and extends only up to vein four in Ladakh Banded Apollo.
Moreover, the Dark marginal band on the hind wings is much narrower in Dusted Apollo while it is broad in Ladakh Banded Apollo.
Another rare species Regal Apollo (Parnnasius charltonius) was also photographed at Manimahesh, which is protected under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
There are 11 Apollo species recorded from Himachal Pradesh and five of them are declared as Scheduled species.
It is an encouraging indication of the flourishing diversity of Apollo butterflies in the region.
Threats: Apollos are considered commercially important butterflies and they fetch high prices in the poaching industry.
Most of the Apollo butterflies are now endangered and need immediate attention for their conservation and protection.
Conservation measures:
Community awareness about poaching and the importance of these species may play an important role in their conservation.
Also, establishing butterfly parks and conservation reserves in the State should be on the priority list of the government.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/dusted-apollo-a-rare-high-altitude-butterfly-sighted-for-first-time-in-himachals-chamba/article67807682.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Whip in India:
- It is a written order issued by a political party to its elected members.
- A one-line whip is issued on important occasions such as no-confidence motion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Major political party issued a three-line whip to its Lok Sabha MPs asking them to be present in the House tomorrow as the Prime Minister of India will reply to the Motion of Thanks on Presidential address delivered recently.
A whip in parliamentary parlance is a written order that party members be present for an important vote, or that they vote only in a particular way.
The term is derived from the old British practice of “whipping in” lawmakers to follow the party line.
The importance of a whip can be inferred from the number of times an order is underlined.
Appointment:
In India all parties can issue a whip to their members.
Parties appoint a senior member from among their House contingents to issue whips — this member is called a Chief Whip, and he/she is assisted by additional Whips.
Types of whips:
One-line whip: A one-line whip, underlined once, is usually issued to inform party members of a vote, and allows them to abstain in case they decide not to follow the party line.
Two-line whip: A two-line whip directs them to be present during the vote.
Three-line whip: A three-line whip is the strongest, employed on important occasions such as the second reading of a Bill or a no-confidence motion, and places an obligation on members to toe the party line.
Defiance of whip
In India, rebelling against a three-line whip can put a lawmaker’s membership of the House at risk.
The anti-defection law allows the Speaker/Chairperson to disqualify such a member; the only exception is when more than a third of legislators vote against a directive, effectively splitting the party.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/bjp-issues-whip-to-its-lok-sabha-mps-to-be-present-in-house-today-4995006
With reference to GRAPES-3 experiment, consider the following statements:
- It is designed to study cosmic rays with an array of air shower detectors.
- It is located in the Ladakh region.
- It is operated by the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The GRAPES-3 experiment discovered a new feature in the cosmic-ray proton spectrum at about 166 tera-electron-volt (TeV) energy while measuring the spectrum spanning from 50 TeV to a little over 1 peta-electron-volt (PeV).
Gamma Ray Astronomy PeV EnergieS phase-3 (GRAPES-3) is designed to study cosmic rays with an array of air shower detectors and a large area muon detector.
Location: It is located in Ooty, India.
It is operated by the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research.
It aims to probe acceleration of cosmic rays in different astrophysical settings.
Its objectives are to study
The origin, acceleration and propagation of >1014 eV cosmic rays in the galaxy and beyond.
Existence of “Knee” in the energy spectrum of cosmic rays.
Production and/or acceleration of highest energy (~1020 eV) cosmic rays in the universe.
Astronomy of multi-TeV γ-rays from neutron stars and other compact object.
Sun the closest astrophysical object, accelerator of energetic particles and its effects on the Earth.
Key facts about Cosmic rays
These rays were discovered more than a century ago.
They are considered to be the most energetic particles in the universe.
Our planet is constantly bombarded by them from outer space almost uniformly from all directions at a constant rate.
They enter into Earth’s atmosphere and induce a shower of particles that travel to the ground almost at the speed of light.
The shower particles constitute electrons, photons, muons, protons, neutrons etc.
They have been observed over a remarkably wide energy range (108 to 1020 eV).
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-02-kink-proton-spectrum-knowledge-cosmic.html
Consider the following statements regarding the InTranSE Program:
- It is a collaborative research and development programme related to transportation.
- It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
During the launch event of “ Digital India FutureLABS Summit 2024” held at IIIT- Delhi, three Indigenous Technologies - Thermal camera, CMOS camera and Fleet Management System designed and developed by CDAC Thiruvananthapuram under InTranSE Program of MeitY were transferred to 12 Industries.
The Intelligent Transportation System Endeavor (InTranSE) is a revolutionary collaborative research and development programme.
It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Electronics & IT.
Purpose: To synergize the transformation in Intelligent Transportation System the Ministry of Electronics & IT took early steps by bringing together premier academic institutes like Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Indian Institute of Management (IIM) etc. and Premier R&D Centre like C-DAC under one umbrella.
This initiative formulated the Collaborative Intelligent Transportation Systems Endeavor for Indian Cities (InTranSE) during the year 2009-2012 (Phase-I) that witnessed IIT Bombay, IIT Madras, IIM Calcutta and C-DAC Thiruvananthapuram collaboratively developing, implementing, demonstrating and knowledge transfer of ITS products and solutions.
The InTranSE Phase-II program (2019-2021) is aiming at undertaking R&D projects collaboratively with IIT Bombay, IIT Madras, IISc Bangalore and C-DAC Thiruvananthapuram
Significance: It will achieve traffic efficiency by minimizing traffic problems, prompting efficient infrastructure usage, enriching users with prior information about traffic and reducing travel time as well as enhancing safety and comfort of commuters.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2002371
Consider the following statements regarding the Directorate General of GST Intelligence:
- It functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- It has the power to conduct investigations into suspected cases of GST evasion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI) is investigating Mahadev Online Book, an allegedly illegal betting application, and its promoters for suspected violation of GST rules and non-payment of tax.
The Directorate General of Central Excise Intelligence (DGCEI) now renamed as Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI).
It is an apex intelligence organization functioning under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs, Department of Revenue, and Ministry of Finance.
It is entrusted with the task of collection, collation, and dissemination of intelligence relating to the evasion of Goods and Services Tax (GST) and the duties of Central Excise and Service Tax on an all India basis.
Functions of DGGI
Intelligence gathering: It is responsible for gathering intelligence about potential violations of the GST law. This includes collecting information from various sources, such as GST returns, financial statements, and other documents.
It develops intelligence, especially in new areas of tax evasion through its intelligence network across the country and disseminates such information, by issuing Modus Operandi Circulars and Alert Circulars to sensitize the field formations about the latest trends in duty evasion.
Investigation: It has the power to conduct investigations into suspected cases of GST evasion or non-compliance. This may involve summoning persons, examining records, and carrying out searches and seizures.
Enforcement: It is responsible for enforcing the provisions of the GST law. This includes taking legal action against offenders, imposing penalties, and recovering any taxes or duties due.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/dggi-probing-mahadev-online-book-for-possible-non-payment-of-gst/articleshow/107407495.cms
Consider the following statements regarding TESS Mission:
- It searches for exoplanets orbiting the brightest stars.
- It is launched by the European Space Agency (ESA).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Using data from NASA’s Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS), astronomers have recently discovered and characterized a habitable zone planet named TOI-715b.
About Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS):
It is a NASA mission that’s searching for planets orbiting the brightest stars in Earth’s sky.
The satellite is a follow-up to NASA’s highly successful Kepler space telescope, which found thousands of exoplanets during a decade of work after its launch in 2009.
Launch: It was launched on April 18, 2018, aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket out of Cape Canaveral.
Orbit: TESS circles Earth in a unique high Earth orbit of 12 to 15 days, which is inclined in such a way that the telescope’s sky view is largely free from obstructions by our bright planet and the Moon.
Over the course of its two-year primary mission, TESS’ four sensitive cameras systematically scanned over 200,000 of the nearest and brightest stars, imaging 75% of the sky. It found 2,100 planetary candidates and 66 confirmed exoplanets.
The prime mission ended on July 4, 2020, and TESS is now on an extended mission.
TESS is finding planets ranging from small, rocky worlds to giant planets, showcasing the diversity of planets in the galaxy.
How does TESS find exoplanets?
It uses the transit method to detect planets.
It looks for periodic dips in stars’ brightness as planets cross in front of them along our sightline.
The larger the planet, the greater the drop in brightness during the transit.
How long it takes a planet to pass in front of the star and come back tells us the shape of its orbit.
This method reveals the diameter of the planet and the size of its orbit.
Orbits within a certain range lie in the “habitable zone”, where liquid water can exist on the surface of an Earth-like world.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.sci.news/astronomy/super-earth-exoplanet-habitable-zone-toi-715-12658.html
With reference to Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs), consider the following statements:
- They are large expulsions of plasma and magnetic field from the sun’s corona.
- They are always accompanied by solar flares.
- They expand in size as they propagate away from the sun.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
An Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) team along with their international collaborators recently developed a new model of the internal thermal evolution of coronal mass ejections (CMEs), as they travel from the sun toward the earth.
About Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs):
CMEs are large expulsions of plasma and magnetic field from the sun’s atmosphere—the corona, that propagate outward into interplanetary space.
During a CME, the sun releases a colossal amount of material, including electrons, protons, and heavier ions, as well as magnetic fields.
How are they formed?
They form similarly to solar flares—a result of the twisting and realignment of the sun’s magnetic field, known as magnetic reconnection.
When magnetic field lines “tangle” they produce strong localized magnetic fields which can break through the surface of the sun at active regions, subsequently generating CMEs.
CMEs usually take place around sunspot groups and are often accompanied by a solar flare, though the two don’t always occur in tandem.
CMEs travel outward from the sun at speeds ranging from slower than 250 kilometers per second (km/s) to as fast as 3000 km/s.
The fastest Earth-directed CMEs can reach our planet in as little as 15-18 hours.
They expand in size as they propagate away from the Sun, and larger CMEs can reach a size comprising nearly a quarter of the space between Earth and the Sun by the time they reach our planet.
CMEs, like solar flares, are most common during the solar maximum, a period in the sun’s 11-year cycle of activity when the star is at its most active.
Impact on Earth:
Geomagnetic Storms: The interaction between the CME’s magnetic fields and Earth’s magnetosphere can lead to geomagnetic storms. These can disrupt satellite communications, navigation systems, and even power grids.
Auroras: CMEs can cause spectacular displays of the Northern and Southern Lights, also known as auroras, by energizing particles in Earth’s atmosphere.
Radiation Hazards: Astronauts in space or passengers on high-altitude flights can be exposed to elevated levels of radiation during a CME event.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/bangalore/iia-develops-new-model-of-internal-thermal-evolution-of-coronal-mass-ejections/article67814201.ece
Which one of the following is the best description of ‘ABHYAS’, that was in the news recently?
A high-speed expendable aerial target
Explanation :
The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted four flight trials of the high-speed expendable aerial target ‘ABHYAS’ recently.
About ABHYAS:
It is a high-speed expendable aerial target (HEAT).
It is designed by the DRDO’s Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE).
ABHYAS offers a realistic threat scenario for the practice of weapon systems.
It is the ideal platform for the validation of Armed Forces equipment slated for induction (only those that require aerial engagement).
Features:
It is designed for autonomous flying with the help of an autopilot indigenously made by the ADE.
It has a radar cross-section and a visual and infrared augmentation system required for weapon practice.
The target drone has a laptop-based Ground Control System with which the aircraft can be integrated and pre-flight checks, data recording during the flight, replays after the flight and post-flight analysis can be carried out.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/dam-project-across-mekong-river-in-laos-raises-fears/article67804853.ece
Which one of the following statements best describes the Messinian Event in the context of geology?
It was a period during which the Mediterranean Sea experienced extreme drying up.
Explanation :
The Geological Institute of Israel recently uncovered a never-before-known about underwater canyon near Cyprus that dates back to the Messinian Event.
About Messinian Event:
Also known as the Messinian Salinity Crisis (MSC), the Messinian event was a geological event during which the Mediterranean Sea went into a cycle of partial or nearly complete desiccation (drying up).
It was one of the most severe ecological crises in the Earth’s history.
The MSC began approximately 6 million years ago (MYA) and lasted until around 5.3 MYA.
How has it unfolded?
It began when the connection between the Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea was cut off.
This occurred due to a combination of lowered sea levels in the global oceans and collision between the European and African plates that caused the land to lift.
Normally, there is much more evaporation than precipitation over the Mediterranean Sea. This means that much more water is leaving than entering the sea.
Without a significant source of water from the Atlantic Ocean, this led to the evaporation of much of the Mediterranean Sea.
A large underground canyon formed, and rivers made deep incisions into the bottom of the basin. This canyon was much larger than the Grand Canyon and had a depth of up to 2,000 meters (6562 feet).
As the water in the Mediterranean evaporated, the salt that was in the water was left behind and began to build up in layers on the floor of the Mediterranean.
Two major salts that were deposited on the floor were Halite and Gypsum. Some of the salt deposit areas were 800 meters (2,500 feet) deep.
However, the salt in the Mediterranean did not deposit on the floor as quickly as the water was evaporating. This means that whatever water was left in the Mediterranean became very salty.
This high amount of salt in the water (also known as salinity) caused the Mediterranean to become deadly to all marine life.
The Mediterranean continued to dry up until there was almost no water left.
It ended with the Zanclean flood, when the Atlantic reclaimed the basin.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/science/israeli-scientists-discover-previously-unknown-underwater-canyon-near-cyprus/articleshow/107425430.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding the Nagoya Protocol:
- It regulates the transboundary movement of Living Modified Organisms (LMOs).
- It is legally binding on all contracting parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Cameroon recently adopted the Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit Sharing.
About Nagoya Protocol:
The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization (the Protocol) is a legally binding global agreement that implements the access and benefit-sharing obligations of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
It was adopted by the CBD in Nagoya, Japan, in October 2010 and entered into force on October 12, 2014, 90 days after the deposit of the fiftieth instrument of ratification.
It provides a transparent legal framework for the effective implementation of one of the three objectives of the CBD: the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources.
What are the benefits?
It establishes a framework that helps researchers access genetic resources for biotechnology research, development, and other activities, in return for a fair share of any benefits from their use.
This provides the research and development sector with the certainty they need to invest in biodiversity-based research.
Indigenous and local communities may receive benefits through a legal framework that respects the value of traditional knowledge associated with genetic resources.
What does the Nagoya Protocol cover?
It applies to genetic resources that are covered by the CBD, and to the benefits arising from their utilization.
It also covers traditional knowledge (TK) associated with genetic resources that are covered by the CBD and the benefits arising from their utilization.
Key Facts about Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD):
CBD, with currently 196 contracting parties, is the most comprehensive binding international agreement in the field of nature conservation and the sustainable use of natural resources.
It was opened for signing at the UN Conference on Environment and Development in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.
It has three overarching objectives:
The conservation of biological diversity (genetic diversity, species diversity, and habitat diversity).
The sustainable use of biological diversity.
The fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the utilisation of genetic resources.
It covers biodiversity at all levels: ecosystems, species, and genetic resources.
The Conference of the Parties (COP) is the highest political decision-making body of the Convention.
The Secretariat is based in Montreal, Canada.
To support implementation of the CBD objectives, two internationally binding agreements were adopted within the framework of the Convention on Biological Diversity.
The Cartagena Protocol, which was adopted in 2000 and entered into force in 2003, regulates the transboundary movement of living modified organisms (LMOs).
The Nagoya Protocol, adopted in 2010, establishes a legally binding framework for access to genetic resources and the fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising from their use.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/world/cameroon-adopts-nagoya-protocol-to-benefit-from-its-rich-biodiversity-94288
Thrips Parvispinus, recently seen in the news, is a:
invasive pest species
Explanation :
Union Agriculture Minister informed the Rajya Sabha that Thrips Parvispinus might have dominated or even replaced the native chilli thrips known as scirtothrips dorsalis in Telangana and Andhra Pradesh region.
It is an invasive pest species.
It is a polyphagous pest, which can also grow and multiply on alternate hosts like drumstick, pigeon pea, chickpea, papaya, mango and weed species like Parthenium, Cleome viscosa, Prosopis sp., Lantana camera, Calotropis sp., Tecoma sp. and wild solanum plants.
It has been reported from Thailand, Australia and Europe.
The last two decades witnessed a drastic extension in the geographic distribution and it is now known to occur in France, Greece, Hawaii, Mauritius, Reunion, Spain, Tanzania and the Netherlands, besides India
In India, this species was first reported on Papaya from Bengaluru in 2015.
Thrips parvispinus adults mainly colonize on flowers and underside of leaves whereas larvae suck sap from undersurface of the leaves.
Infestation causes heavy flower drop and thereby reducing fruit production.
Its infestation increased during heavy rainfall of North East monsoon in contrast to other thrips species.
What are Thrips?
Thrips are important group of sucking pests which cause significant economic losses both as pests and vectors of serious plant viruses in several horticultural crops.
There are reports on the outbreak of sucking pests like thrips in different regions due to changes in crop production patterns, pesticide usage and climate change.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/telangana/2022/Feb/05/invasive-thrips-caused-80-damage-to-chilli-crops-rs-told-2415514.html
Consider the following statements regarding the International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development:
- It is an intergovernmental knowledge centre working for the communities of the Hindu Kush Himalayas.
- India is a member of this organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Experts from the International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD) declared the Hindu Kush Himalaya region a biosphere on the brink of collapse and called for bold action and urgent finance to prevent nature loss.
It is an intergovernmental knowledge and learning centre working on behalf of the people of the Hindu Kush Himalaya (HKH).
It was formally established and inaugurated on 5 December 1983.
Mission: To build and share knowledge that drives regional policy and action and attracts investment that enables the diverse countries and communities of the HKH to transition to greener, more inclusive, and climate resilient development.
Member countries – Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar, Nepal, and Pakistan.
Governance
Its Board of Governors is the highest governing body of the centre.
It consists of one representative from each of eight regional member countries and independent members who are nominated by the ICIMOD Support Group based on their recognized professional expertise and experience.
Functions
It serves the region through information and knowledge generation and sharing to find innovative solutions to critical mountain problems.
It bridges science with policies and on-the-ground practices.
It provides a regional platform where experts, planners, policymakers, and practitioners can exchange ideas and perspectives towards the achievement of sustainable mountain development.
Headquarter: Kathmandu, Nepal
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/world/hindu-kush-himalaya-is-a-biosphere-on-the-brink-icimod-94291
With reference to Black-Necked Crane, consider the following statements:
- It is found in high altitude wetlands.
- It is endemic to India only.
- It is listed in Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the union Minister of State for Environment, Forest and Climate Change informed the Lok Sabha about the important steps taken to protect Black-necked Crane by the government.
The Black-Necked Crane (Grus nigricollis) is classed as a medium-sized member of the crane family.
Habitat: The high altitude wetlands in the Tibetan plateau are the main breeding ground of the species. These wetlands with small mounds provide an excellent habitat to the birds for breeding.
Distribution: This species is found in India, China and Bhutan and breeds in high altitude wetlands in the Tibetan plateau at elevations of 2950-4900 m above mean sea level.
Threats: Habitat loss and degradation related to climate change, changes in agriculture practices, pollution and environmental contamination.
Conservation status
IUCN: Near Threatened
The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I
CITES: Appendix I
The important steps taken by government of India to protect bird species include:
The important habitats of Black-necked Crane have been notified as a Protected Areas, for example, Changthang Sanctuary, Ladakh.
The Tso Kar Wetlands Complex, an important foraging and breeding ground for Black-necked Crane has been designated as a Ramsar Site in December 2020.
The National Wildlife Action Plan (2017-2031) released by the Ministry in October 2017 provides for specific Chapters and priority actions on various aspects of wildlife conservation.
The Central Government provides financial assistance to State/Union Territory Governments under the Centrally Sponsored Schemes ‘Development of Wildlife Habitats’ for management of wildlife and its habitat in the country.
The Government of India has initiated Mission LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment) programme, that aims to generate public awareness about the environment, and conservation.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2002611
Consider the following statements regarding the Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar programme:
- It is an initiative of Ministry of Culture under National Mission on Cultural Mapping.
- It provides financial assistance for preservation & development of cultural heritage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister for Culture, Tourism And Development of North Eastern Region informed the Lok Sabha about the Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar programme.
It is a pan-India initiative of Ministry of Culture under National Mission on Cultural Mapping and was launched on 27th July 2023.
It seeks to compile comprehensive information detailing the life, history, and ethos of Indian villages and to make the same available to virtual and real-time visitors.
Under the MGMD, information is collected under seven broad categories as given below-
Arts and Crafts Village
Ecologically Oriented Village
Scholastic Village linked with Textual and Scriptural Traditions of India
Epic Village linked with Ramayana, Mahabharata and/or Puranic legends and oral epics
Historical Village linked with Local and National History
Architectural Heritage Village
Any other characteristic that may need highlighting such as fishing village, horticulture village, shepherding village etc.
Objective: The main objective the project is to culturally map India’s 6.5 lakh villages, spanning 29 States and 7 Union Territories, on a comprehensive virtual platform.
Through MGMD, people will get an opportunity to immerse themselves in the diverse and vibrant cultural heritage of India.
The core idea behind this project is to encourage appreciation for India’s culture and traditions, paving way for economic growth, social harmony, and artistic development in rural communities.
Financial outlay of Rs.353.46 Crore is approved under the scheme of Financial Assistance for Promotion of Art and Culture consisting 08 scheme components namely;
Financial Assistance to Cultural organizations with National Presence
Cultural Function & Production Grant (CFPG)
Financial Assistance for the Preservation & Development of Cultural Heritage of the Himalayas:
Financial Assistance for the Preservation & Development of Buddhist/Tibetan Organization
Financial Assistance for Building Grants including Studio Theatres
Financial Assistance For Allied Cultural Activities
Scheme for Safeguarding the Intangible Cultural Heritage
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2002669
Consider the following statements regarding Aldabra giant tortoise:
- It is found on grasslands called platins.
- It is the second-largest species of land tortoise in the world, after the Galapagos giant tortoise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A six-year-old project to return giant tortoises to the wild in Madagascar could result in thousands of megaherbivores re-populating the island for the first time in 600 years.
It is the second-largest species of land tortoise in the world, after the Galapagos giant tortoise (Chelonoidis nigra).
It can live for 100 years and has a fascinating history.
This tortoise evolved from ancestors of Aldabrachelys abrupta, one of two giant tortoises that inhabited Madagascar for 15 million years.
Four million years ago, the Aldabrachelys abrupta lineage migrated, likely via a combination of drifting with floating vegetation and assisted by their natural buoyancy and good swimming abilities, to the Seychelles.
These are endemic to the Aldabra Atoll of the Seychelles, an archipelago nation in the western Indian Ocean about 930 miles east of Africa and northeast of Madagascar.
Habitat:
Theseare terrestrial and occur in a wide variety of habitats, including scrub forests, mangrove swamps, and coastal dunes and beaches, each with their respective vegetation.
The largest populations of tortoises are found on grasslands called “platins.”
Due to prolonged periods of heavy grazing, a habitat known as “tortoise turf”, consisting of a variety of grasses, has developed in certain areas.
Conservation status
IUCN: Vulnerable
CITES: Appendix II
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/wildlife-biodiversity/madagascar-giant-tortoises-have-returned-600-years-after-they-were-wiped-out-94264
Consider the following statements regarding Lupus:
- It is an autoimmune disease.
- It is much more common among women than men.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Australian researchers recently worked out how to fix a defect that causes lupus.
About Lupus:
It is an autoimmune disease that makes your immune system to damage organs and tissue throughout your body.
It causes inflammation that can affect your skin, joints, blood and organs like your kidneys, lungs, and heart.
Causes: The cause of lupus is unknown. It’s thought to be the result of a mix of genetic, hormonal, and environmental factors.
Lupus is much more common among women than men.
There are several kinds of lupus:
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is the most common type. It can be mild or severe and can affect many parts of the body.
Discoid lupus causes a red rash that doesn’t go away.
Subacute cutaneous lupus causes sores after being out in the sun.
Drug-induced lupus is caused by certain medicines. It usually goes away when you stop taking the medicine.
Neonatal lupus, which is rare, affects newborns. It is probably caused by certain antibodies from the mother.
Symptoms: Lupus can have many symptoms, and they differ from person to person. Some of the more common ones are:
Pain or swelling in joints
Muscle pain
Fever with no known cause
Red rashes, most often on the face (also called the “butterfly rash”)
Chest pain when taking a deep breath
Hair loss
Pale or purple fingers or toes
Sensitivity to the sun
Treatment: There is no cure for lupus, but medicines and lifestyle changes can help control it.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://medicalxpress.com/news/2024-02-world-discovery-enable-effective-term.html
The S2, nicknamed ‘Jigarthanda’ facility, recently seen in the news, will be used for:
simulating hypersonic conditions for aerospace technologies
Explanation :
The Indian Institute of Technology Kanpur (IIT-K) has successfully established and tested India’s first Hypervelocity Expansion Tunnel Test Facility recently.
About India’s first Hypervelocity Expansion Tunnel Test Facility:
The S2, nicknamed ‘Jigarthanda’, is a 24-meter-long facility located at IIT Kanpur’s Hypersonic Experimental Aerodynamics Laboratory (HEAL) within the Department of Aerospace Engineering.
It is India’s first Hypervelocity Expansion Tunnel Test Facility.
It was indigenously designed and developed over three years with funding and support from the Aeronautical Research and Development Board (ARDB), the Department of Science and Technology (DST), and IIT Kanpur.
It is capable of generating flight speeds between 3-10 km/s, simulating the hypersonic conditions encountered during the atmospheric entry of vehicles, asteroid entry, scramjet flights, and ballistic missiles.
It will be a critical asset for the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
It will serve as a testing ground for ongoing missions of ISRO and DRDO like Gaganyaan, Reusable Launch Vehicles (RLV), and hypersonic cruise missiles, enabling the development of more advanced and reliable aerospace technologies.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/education-today/news/story/iit-kanpur-indias-1st-hypervelocity-expansion-tunnel-test-facility-s2-2497716-2024-02-05
Consider the following statements regarding the Vidyanjali Scholarship Programme:
- It extends financial support for meritorious Navodaya Vidyalaya students belonging to economically disadvantaged sections.
- It generates assistance and funding from nongovernment partners and private sources as well.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Union Minister of Education and Skill Development & Entrepreneurship recently launched the EdCIL Vidyanjali Scholarship Programme.
About Vidyanjali Scholarship Programme:
This initiative guarantees access to high-quality learning systems by facilitating a seamless transition from secondary to higher education and extending financial support for the meritorious Navodaya Vidyalaya students who lack means.
It symbolises a whole-of-society approach to empowerment through access to and opportunities for education, particularly to students belonging to economically disadvantaged sections.
The Vidyanjali programme intends to garner assistance and funding from nongovernment partners and private sources such as CSR grants, national and international donors, and impact investors.
The beneficiaries of the Vidyanjali programme in its initial phase will be students of grades Xl and Xll studying in Navodaya Vidyalayas across the country.
A fintech platform has been specifically curated under Vidyanjali, and the sponsorship will be disbursed to students through this platform as Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).
This platform will be instrumental in capturing data, receiving, hosting, and viewing student applications, tracking student progress, tracking grant disbursement, monitoring fund utilisation, generating impact reports towards SDG realisation, individual mentions of notable student achievement, and publicly acknowledging the support of the funders, among other platform utilities.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2003271
The Sepahijala Wildlife Sanctuary (SWL) is located in:
Tripura
Explanation :
The Sepahijala Wildlife Sanctuary of Tripura recently welcomed a new batch of animals, which include two Royal Bengal tigers, two leopards, four golden pigeons, a silver pigeon, two peafowls, and four hill mynas.
About Sepahijala Wildlife Sanctuary (SWL):
Location: It is located around 25 km from Agartala, Tripura.
History:
To conserve and propagate the biodiversity of the area, the Sepahijala bio-complex came into existence in 1972.
With the addition of a botanical garden, a deer park, and a zoo, the bio-complex was subsequently attributed the status of Sepahijala Wildlife Sanctuary in early 1987.
It is spread over 18.5 sq. km and is home to migratory birds and animals.
The wildlife sanctuary is divided into five sections, basically to segregate the different types of animals living here. They are the carnivore section, primate section, ungulate section, reptile section, and aviary section.
It also has two natural lakes, namely Abasarika and Amrit Sagar.
Clouded Leopard National Park, established in 2007, is a part of SWL.
Vegetation: Moist deciduous forest
Flora: The sanctuary has no less than 456 plant species; many kinds of bamboo and a variety of grasses and medicinal plants also grow in the sanctuary.
Fauna:
It is the habitat of different species of primates like Rhesus macaque, Pigtailed macaque, Capped langur, Spectacled monkey, Slow loris and several other wild animals like Leopard, Clouded leopard, Jungle fowl, Civets, Barking, Deer, Wild pig, etc.
The crab-eating mongoose (which was last seen in the 1930s) has also been revived here.
The avian population of the sanctuary is also rich, with a variety of winged stork, Whistling teal, and the White ibis.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatodayne.in/tripura/video/tripuras-sepahijala-wildlife-sanctuary-gets-new-batch-of-animals-including-two-tigers-857907-2024-02-06
Consider the following statements regarding Rights Issue:
- It is an offering to the existing shareholders of a company to buy additional shares at a discounted price.
- The rights issued cannot be traded on the secondary market.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Indiabulls Housing Finance plans to raise ₹3,693 crore through rights issue.
About Rights Issue:
A rights issue is an offering of rights to the existing shareholders of a company that gives them an opportunity to buy additional shares directly from the company at a discounted price rather than buying them in the secondary market.
It gives preferential treatment to existing shareholders, where they are given the right (not obligation) to purchase shares at a lower price on or before a specified date.
The number of additional shares that can be bought depends on the existing holdings of the shareowners.
Until the date at which the new shares can be purchased, shareholders may trade the rights on the market the same way that they would trade ordinary shares.
Existing shareholders can also choose to ignore the rights; however, if they do not purchase additional shares, then their existing shareholding will be diluted post-issue of additional shares.
Dilution occurs because a rights offering spreads a company’s net profit over a larger number of shares. Thus, the company’s earnings per share, or EPS, decreases as the allocated earnings result in share dilution.
Why issue a Rights Offering?
Companies most commonly issue a rights offering to raise additional capital. A company may need extra capital to meet its current financial obligations.
Troubled companies typically use rights issues to pay down debt, especially when they are unable to borrow more money.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.cnbctv18.com/market/indiabulls-housing-finance-share-price-rights-issue-opens-all-you-need-to-know-price-dates-18992661.htm
Consider the following statements regarding the Altermagnets:
- They have both ferromagnetic and antiferromagnetic properties.
- They exhibit a unique feature of spin polarization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In a new study, scientists have investigated the newly discovered class of altermagnetic materials for their thermal properties, offering insights into the distinctive nature of altermagnets for spin-caloritronic applications.
Altermagnets exhibit a unique blend of magnetic characteristics, setting them apart from conventional magnetic materials like ferromagnets and antiferromagnets.
Properties
These materials exhibit properties observed in both ferromagnets and antiferromagnets, making their study enticing.
Altermagnets defy conventional norms by embodying a dual nature—resembling antiferromagnets with zero net magnetization and ferromagnets with non-relativistic spin splitting.
This unique behavior emerges from the intricate interplay of atoms within the crystal structure.
Additionally, altermagnets exhibit a unique spin polarization. The term “spin polarization” means that a preponderance of electron spins tends to align in a particular direction.
The spin polarization is noteworthy in altermagnets because it occurs in the physical arrangement of atoms (real space) and in the momentum space, where the distribution of electron spins in the material is considered.
The researchers believe that altermagnets could have a pivotal role in spin caloritronics, a field of research that explores the interplay between spin and heat flow, which are not achievable with ferromagnets or antiferromagnets.
This field has potential applications in developing new technologies for information processing and storage.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-02-altermagnets-chapter-magnetism-thermal-science.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Kendras:
- These are set up by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
- These provide generic drugs that are available at lesser prices as compared to branded drugs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) have been allowed by the Government to operate Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Kendras (PMBJK) under the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Pariyojana.
These are set up under Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana, which was launched by the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers in November 2008.
Objective: To provide quality medicines at affordable prices for all, particularly the poor, so as to reduce out-of-pocket expenses in healthcare.
These Kendra’s provide generic drugs, which are available at lesser prices but are equivalent in quality and efficacy as expensive branded drugs.
All therapeutic medicines are made available from Jan Aushadhi Stores.
Jan Aushadhi stores also sell allied medical products commonly sold in chemist shops so as to improve the viability of running the Jan Aushadhi store.
Pharmaceutical & Medical Devices Bureau of India (PMBI) has been established under the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Govt. of India, with the support of all the CPSUs for co-coordinating procurement, supply, and marketing of generic drugs through the PMBKs.
Who are eligible to open a Jan Aushadhi Kendra?
State Governments or any organization / reputed NGOs / Trusts / Private hospitals / charitable institutions / Doctors / Unemployed pharmacists/ individual entrepreneurs are eligible to apply for the new Jan Aushadhi Kendra.
The applicants shall have to employ one B Pharma / D Pharma degree holder as Pharmacist in their proposed store.
Primary Agricultural Credit Societies.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2003208
Consider the following statements regarding Smart Advanced Manufacturing and Rapid Transformation Hub (SAMARTH) centres:
- They are set up under the Enhancement of Competitiveness in the Indian Capital Goods Sector scheme.
- They provide assistance to the MSMEs to train the workforce for Industry 4.0 technologies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Minister of State for Heavy Industries informed the Lok Sabha about SAMARTH Centres.
The Smart Advanced Manufacturing and Rapid Transformation Hub (SAMARTH) centres are set up under the Scheme for “Enhancement of Competitiveness in the Indian Capital Goods Sector.
These centres have been providing assistance to the MSMEs to train the workforce and make them aware about Industry 4.0 technologies in the following ways:
Organizing Seminars/ Workshops and knowledge sharing events on Industry 4.0;
Training industries to create awareness about Industry 4.0;
Providing consultancy (in areas such as IOT Hardware, Software development, data analytics) and incubation support to start- ups including MSMEs.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2003001
Consider the following statements regarding the Himalayan griffon:
- It is a diurnal, solitary vulture.
- It is monogamous and pairs return to the same nesting and roosting sites from year to year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In the first-ever tri-State synchronised vulture survey 320 individual vultures were counted in the seven-protected areas spread over Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu and Himalayan griffon is only reported from Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary.
It is an Old World vulture in the family Accipitridae.
It is one of the two largest Old World vultures and true raptors.
These are monogamous and pairs return to the same nesting and roosting sites from year to year.
These are diurnal and mostly solitary species.
Distribution:
It is found along the Himalayas and the adjoining Tibetan region and is also found in the Central Asian Mountains.
Occasionally it migrates to northern India but migration usually only occurs altitudinally.
Conservation status
IUCN: Near Threatened
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/wayanad-wildlife-sanctuary-offers-a-safe-haven-for-vultures/article67808122.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Vaccine Safety Net:
- It is a global network of websites that provides reliable information on vaccine safety.
- It is established by the NITI Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation :
The Healthy Indian Project (THIP), a health information platform in India, is included as a member of the World Health Organization’s Vaccine Safety Net (VSN).
It is a global network of websites, established by the World Health Organization that provides reliable information on vaccine safety.
It is a network of a diverse group of digital information resources (websites and social media), VSN members, located in countries around the world and providing scientifically based information on vaccine safety in various languages.
A key player in the Project is the Global Advisory Committee on Vaccine Safety (GACVS), established by WHO in 1999, to respond promptly, efficiently, and with scientific rigour to vaccine safety issues of potential global importance.
At the outset of the Project, GACVS developed three categories of criteria for good information practices - regarding credibility, content, accessibility and design to which digital resources providing information on vaccine safety should adhere.
WHO evaluates those electronic resources for their adherence to these criteria.
It is continuously expanding and till date 110 websites from 45 countries provide vaccine safety information in 43 languages.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/healthcare/news-healthcare/the-healthy-indian-project-thip-joins-whos-vaccine-safety-net/3384686/
Consider the following statements regarding the Support to Students for Participating in Competitions Abroad (SSPCA) Initiative:
- It is an initiative of the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE).
- It provides financial assistance to students to partake in international competitions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) recently introduced a scheme named ‘Support to Students for Participating in Competitions Abroad’ (SSPCA).
About Support to Students for Participating in Competitions Abroad (SSPCA) Initiative:
It is an initiative of the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) aimed at bolstering the global competitiveness of Indian students in technical education.
It is designed to financially support students aspiring to compete in international scientific events.
Financial Assistance and Mentorship:
Under the SSPCA scheme, individual students or student teams are eligible to receive travel grants to partake in international competitions.
The assistance encompasses financial aid, mentorship, logistical support, and networking opportunities, enabling students to represent India on a global platform effectively.
Financial aid provided by the AICTE scheme reaches up to Rs 2 lakh per student, covering various expenses like international and domestic travel, registration fees, visa applications, accommodation, airport taxes, travel insurance, and equipment costs related to the competition.
Eligibility:
Eligibility extends to students enrolled in diploma, BE/BTech, integrated MTech, and ME/MTech programs in AICTE-approved institutions.
Each team of students is eligible for financial support under the scheme once during their course of study.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/education-today/news/story/aicte-launches-new-scheme-to-support-students-in-global-competitions-2498840-2024-02-07
With reference to Ajanta and Ellora Caves, consider the following statements:
- They rock-cut caves with sculptures, paintings and frescoes.
- The Kailash Temple is one of the caves at Ajanta.
- They are designated as UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Ministry of Tourism recently included the UNESCO World Heritage sites of Ajanta and Ellora caves in Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar in its Swadesh Darshan Scheme II.
About Ajanta and Ellora Caves:
Ajanta and Ellora caves, considered to be one of the finest examples of ancient rock-cut caves, are located in Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar in Maharashtra.
The Ajanta and Ellora cave complex is adorned with beautiful sculptures, paintings, and frescoes and includes Buddhist monasteries, Hindu and Jain temples.
The Ajanta caves are 29 in number and were built between the 2nd century BC and the 6th century AD, whereas the Ellora caves are more spread out and 34 in number and date to the period between the 6th and 11th Centuries AD.
Ajanta Caves are mostly Buddhist sites and were used as a retreat by Buddhist monks.
The caves consisted of cells for meditation, assembly halls for discussions, and stupas for rituals.
Ellora has a better mix of Hindu, Jain, and Buddhist structures.
The caves are adorned with sculptures that reflect the spiritual beliefs of the time.
The sculptures range from depictions of deities, celestial beings, and mythological scenes to portraits of royalty and everyday life.
The Kailash Temple in Ellora is an architectural marvel. It is one of the largest monolithic structures in the world.
The structure is carved vertically from a single rock. It took 18 years to carve out the temple.
They are designated as UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/education-today/news/story/iit-kanpur-indias-1st-hypervelocity-expansion-tunnel-test-facility-s2-2497716-2024-02-05
With reference to the Raman Research Institute (RRI), consider the following statements:
- It was originally founded by Indian physicist and Nobel Laureate C.V. Raman.
- It is aided autonomous institute receiving funds from the Department of Science and Technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Indian scientists at the Raman Research Institute (RRI) recently designed a new image-correction algorithm that significantly enhances the study of ultracold atoms.
About Raman Research Institute (RRI):
It is an autonomous research institute engaged in research in basic sciences.
Location: Bangalore
The institute was founded in 1948 by Indian physicist and Nobel Laureate Sir C.V. Raman, with funds from private sources.
Sir C.V. Raman served as its director, carrying on his personal research until his demise in 1970.
It was restructured in 1972 to become an aided autonomous institute receiving funds from the Department of Science and Technology of the Government of India.
The Governing Council is the executive body of the Institute and conducts the administration and management of the Institute.
Today, the main areas of research at the Institute are Astronomy & Astrophysics, Light & Matter Physics, Soft Condensed Matter, and Theoretical Physics.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/indian-scientists-design-algorithm-that-could-open-up-the-quantum-world-of-atoms-2498705-2024-02-07
Consider the following statements regarding Mxenes, recently seen in the news:
- They are ceramics made from the carbides and nitrides of transition metals.
- They have good conductivity and a large surface area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers recently reported on the potential of using MXene coatings that can guide microwaves in space and lighten satellite payloads.
About Mxenes:
Mxenes, first discovered in 2011, are ceramics that comprise one of the largest families of two-dimensional (2D) materials.
Unlike most 2D ceramics, MXenes have inherently good conductivity and excellent volumetric capacitance because they are molecular sheets made from the carbides and nitrides of transition metals like titanium.
They are made from a bulk crystal called MAX.
They have the general formula of Mn+1XnTx, where M is an early transition metal, X is carbon and/or nitrogen, and T is a functional group on the surface of an MXene (typically O, OH, and F).
Among various types of MXenes, titanium carbide (Ti3C2Tx) is the most widely used.
Some potential applications of MXenes include energy storage (such as lithium-ion batteries and supercapacitors) due to their high conductivity and large surface area, electromagnetic interference shielding, catalysis, sensors, and water purification, among others.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://phys.org/news/2024-02-mxene-coated-devices-microwaves-space.html
The World Sustainable Development (WSDS) Summit is annually organised by:
The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI)
Explanation :
Vice-President recently inaugurated the World Sustainable Development Summit in New Delhi recently.
About World Sustainable Development (WSDS) Summit:
It is the annual flagship event of The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI).
Instituted in 2001, the Summit series has a legacy of over two decades of making ‘sustainable development’ a globally shared goal.
It is the only independently convened international summit on sustainable development and environment, based in the Global South.
WSDS strives to provide long-term solutions for the benefit of global communities by assembling the world’s most enlightened leaders and thinkers on a single platform.
WSDS 2024 is the 23rd edition of the summit.
WSDS 2024 will take place on the theme ‘Leadership for the Sustainable Development and Climate Justice’.
Key Facts about The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI):
TERI is a leading think tank dedicated to conducting research for sustainable development of India and the Global South.
It is an independent, multi-dimensional organization, with capabilities in research, policy, consultancy, and implementation.
History:
TERI was established in 1974 as an information centre on energy issues.
Research activities, initiated towards the end of 1982, were rooted in TERI’s firm conviction that efficient utilization of energy and sustainable use of natural resources would propel the process of development.
It’s work across sectors is focused on
Promoting efficient use of resources
Increasing access to and uptake of sustainable inputs and practices
Reducing the impact on environment and climate
It is headquartered in New Delhi.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://newsonair.gov.in/News?title=Vice-President-Jagdeep-Dhankhar-inaugurates-World-Sustainable-Development-Summit-in-Delhi&id=476768
Consider the following statements regarding the Production linked incentive scheme for the white goods:
- It is launched by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- The company which is getting benefits under any other PLI Scheme of Government of India are also eligible under this scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
An official statement said that applications of certain companies for claiming incentives under the production linked incentive (PLI) scheme for the white goods (Air Conditioners and LED Lights) are under examination and there is no delay in disbursement.
It is designed to create a complete component ecosystem for Air Conditioners and LED Lights Industry in India and make India an integral part of the global supply chains.
The scheme was notified by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
The scheme will be implemented as a pan India scheme and is not specific to any location, area or segment of population.
Objectives: It proposes a financial incentive to boost domestic manufacturing and attract large investments in the White Goods manufacturing value chain. Its prime objectives include removing sectoral disabilities, creating economies of scale, enhancing exports, creating a robust component ecosystem and employment generation.
Incentives: The scheme will extend an incentive of 4-6% on incremental turnover over base year (2019-20) of goods sold in India and exported to global markets, to eligible companies for a period of 5 years.
Eligibility
Applicant can be any company that should be incorporated in India under the provisions of the Company Act, 2013.
Eligibility shall be subject to the achievement of thresholds of net incremental sales of Eligible Products for the respective financial year over the base year and cumulative incremental investment in the preceding financial year.
Any entity availing benefits under any other PLI Scheme of Govt. of India will not be eligible under this scheme for same products.
Time period: It is to be implemented over FY 2021-22 to FY 2028-29.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/world-news/no-delay-in-disbursal-of-sops-under-pli-scheme-for-white-goods-dpiit-124020701520_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding gas flaring:
- It is the burning of the natural gas associated with oil extraction.
- It produces nitrogen oxides which impacts air quality.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, natural gas flare samples collected by aircraft in the USA regions revealed high variation in nitrogen oxides emission estimates.
Gas flaring is the burning of the natural gas associated with oil extraction.
Why is gas flared?
Flaring persists to this day because it is a relatively safe, though wasteful and polluting, method of disposing of the associated gas that comes from oil production.
Utilizing associated gas often requires economically viable markets for companies to make the investments necessary to capture, transport, process, and sell the gas.
Firms usually resort to flaring when they lack adequate infrastructure or financial incentives to bring the gas to market, or when it needs to be released for safety reasons to manage changes in pressure during crude oil extraction.
Most flared gas, primarily associated gas, is very similar to the natural gas used worldwide for power generation, as feedstock for the manufacture of chemicals, distributed to homes, etc.
However, it may require processing to remove contaminants before it can be used.
Associated gas can also be used on-site for generating electricity, compressed or liquefied for transportation as compressed natural gas (CNG) or liquified natural gas (LNG) respectively, or converted into liquid form (e.g., synthetic oil, diesel, methanol, DME) by using gas-to-liquid (GTL) technologies.
Impacts on environment
The flare’s combustion converts hydrocarbons to carbon dioxide and water, which lessens the climate impact and reduces the safety concerns of the natural gas on site but also produces nitrogen oxides, or NOx.
NOx—which includes the highly reactive gases nitric oxide and nitrogen dioxide—directly and indirectly impacts air quality.
How to reduce gas flaring? Oil producers can either re-inject associated gas or use it for productive purposes.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-02-natural-gas-flare-samples-aircraft.html
With reference to Kilkari programme, consider the following statements:
- It is an interactive voice response based mobile health service.
- It is centrally hosted by Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
- It is launched to provide health related information to old age people.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently the union Ministers of State for Health and Family Welfare virtually launched the Kilkari programme, a Mobile Health (m-health) initiative for beneficiaries in local content in Gujarat and Maharashtra.
‘Kilkari’ (meaning ‘a baby’s gurgle’), is a centralized interactive voice response (IVR) based mobile health service.
Features
It delivers free, weekly, time-appropriate 72 audio messages about pregnancy, childbirth, and childcare directly to families’ mobile phones from the second trimester of pregnancy until the child is one year old.
Women who are registered in Reproductive Child Health (RCH) portal based on the woman’s LMP (last menstrual period) or the child’s DoB (Date of Birth), receive a weekly call with pre-recorded audio content directly to the mobile phones of pregnant women and mothers with children under the age of one year.
Kilkari audio messages are present in the form of voice of a fictitious doctor character called Dr. Anita.
It is centrally hosted by Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) for all the States/UTs and no further investment in the technology, telephony infrastructure or operational costs is required to be borne by States/UTs.
This service is FREE of cost for States/UTs and beneficiaries.
The programme is integrated with centralized Reproductive Child Health (RCH) portal of MoHFW’s and is the single source of information for this mHealth service.
Currently Kilkari is under implementation in 18 States / UTs of India.
What is Mobile Academy?
It is a free audio training course designed to expand and refresh the knowledge of Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs) and improve their communication skills via their mobile phones, which is both cost-effective and efficient.
It is an anytime, anywhere training course that can train thousands of ASHAs simultaneously via mobile phone.
It is operational in 17 States/UTs except Chandigarh with six languages viz. Hindi, Bhojpuri, Oriya, Assamese, Bengali & Telugu version.
Hence only statements 1 and 2are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2003571
Consider the following statements regarding the Open Network Digital Commerce:
- It is an open-source network set up to democratise electronic commerce.
- It was established by the union Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
In a first, the Centre has on boarded 11 fair price shops on the state-run e-commerce portal Open Network Digital Commerce (ONDC).
It is an open-source network set up to enable buyers and sellers to transact with each other irrespective of the e-commerce platform on which either of them are registered.
It will enable local commerce across segments, such as mobility, grocery, food order and delivery, hotel booking and travel, among others, to be discovered and engaged by any network-enabled application.
It is an initiative of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Purpose
To promote open networks for all aspects of exchange of goods and services over digital or electronic networks.
To create new opportunities, curb digital monopolies and by supporting micro, small and medium enterprises and small traders and help them get on online platforms.
It seeks to democratise digital or electronic commerce, moving it from a platform-centric model to an open-network.
Benefits:
It offers small retailers an opportunity to provide their services, and goods to buyers across the country through an e-commerce system.
It enables merchants to save their data to build credit history and reach consumers.
It is expected to digitise the entire value chain, promote inclusion of suppliers, derive efficiencies in logistics and enhance value for consumers.
ONDC protocols would standardize operations like cataloguing, inventory management, order management and order fulfilment.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.livemint.com/industry/retail/govt-lists-fair-price-shops-on-ondc-11707300595377.html
Consider the following statements regarding Quantum Internet:
- It is a network of quantum computers and communication devices that transmits quantum states and entanglement.
- It conveys information through qubits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A team of Stony Brook University physicists and their collaborators have taken a significant step toward the building of a quantum internet testbed by demonstrating a foundational quantum network measurement that employs room-temperature quantum memories.
It is a theorized and much sought-after network of interconnected quantum computers that will allow people to send, compute, and receive information using quantum technology.
A quantum internet would be a network of quantum computers, sensors, and communication devices that will create, process, and transmit quantum states and entanglement.
It is anticipated to enhance society’s internet system and provide certain services and securities that the current internet does not have.
The purpose of the quantum internet is not to replace the internet we know today, but to instead create a co-existent network that can be used to solve specific types of problems.
Working
Quantum computers use fundamental units of information similar to the bits used in classical computing. These are called “qubits.”
However, unlike conventional computer bits—which convey information as a 0 or 1—qubits convey information through a combination of quantum states, which are unique conditions found only on the subatomic scale.
Qubits are not either 0 or 1, but rather both and neither, in a quantum phenomenon called superposition.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-02-team-fundamental-functioning-quantum-internet.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Zircon Missile:
- It is a supersonic ballistic missile.
- It is developed by Russia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
In an attempt to hit a target in Kyiv, Russian forces launched a 3M22 Zircon missile recently.
About Zircon Missile:
The 3M22 Zircon, or SS-N-33, is a scramjet-powered maneuvering anti-ship hypersonic cruise missile developed in Russia.
Features:
The missile is reportedly capable of flying with speeds up to Mach 9 and a range of 1000 km.
It’s a two-stage missile that uses solid fuel in the first stage and a scramjet motor in the second stage.
Zircon cruise missiles use cooled supersonic combustion ramjet engines, which power combustion by compressing air flowing at supersonic speeds due to the missile’s forward motion.
This is in contrast to other hypersonic weapons like the China-made DF-17 or the Russian-made Avangard, which use a Hypersonic Glide Vehicle (HGV), which rely on the initial momentum provided by multi-stage rocket boosters like those used on a ballistic missile to accelerate them to hypersonic speeds.
Guidance System: Active and Passive Radar Seeker.
Another valuable aspect of the missile is its plasma cloud. During flight, the missile is completely covered by a plasma cloud that absorbs any rays of radio frequencies and makes the missile invisible to radars.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.eurasiantimes.com/russias-ship-launched-zircon-hypersonic-missile-strikes-ukraine-for-the-1st-time-report-claims-experts-uncertain/
With reference to the Gomti River, consider the following statements:
- It is a tributary of the Ganga River.
- It originates in Himachal Pradesh.
- Lucknow is situated on the banks of this river.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Over 600 turtles seized from smugglers were released into the Gomti River recently.
About Gomti River:
It is a tributary of the Ganga River.
Course:
Origin: It is an alluvial river that originates from the Gomat Taal, otherwise called Fulhaar Jheel, found near the Madho Tanda in Pilibhit district in Uttar Pradesh, India.
After flowing through an incised valley southwards through the districts of Sitapur, Lucknow, Barabanki, Sultanpur, and Jaunpur, it joins River Ganga near Varanasi.
The river extends to about 900 km.
The total drainage area of the river is 30,437 sq. km.
The characteristic of the river is perennial. The river is characterized by sluggish flow throughout the year, except during the monsoon season, when heavy rainfall causes a manifold increase in the runoff.
Major Cities: There are various cities that are situated on the banks of the River Gomti, such as Sultanpur, Lucknow, Jaunpur, and Lakhimpur Kheri.
Tributaries: Kathina, Bhainsi, Sarayan, Gon, Reth, Sai, Pili, and Kalyani.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/lucknow-news/over-600-rescued-turtles-released-in-gomti-river-101707418541163.html
Consider the following statements regarding Forever Chemicals:
- They are naturally found in the environment.
- They are found in a variety of consumer products like nonstick pans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Researchers recently demonstrated a new lab-based method to detect traces of Forever Chemicals from food packaging material, water, and soil samples in just three minutes or less.
About Forever Chemicals:
PFAS (Per- and polyfluorinated alkyl substances), also known as the Forever Chemicals, are a large chemical family of over 4,700 highly persistent man-made chemicals.
These were first developed in the 1940s and are now found in a variety of consumer products, including nonstick pans, water-resistant textiles, and fire suppression foams, due to their ability to repel both grease and water.
PFAS are the most persistent synthetic chemicals to date. They hardly degrade in the natural environment and have been found in the blood of people and animals all over the world, and are present at low levels in a variety of food products.
The secret to PFAS’s indestructibility lies in its chemical bonds. PFAS contains many carbon-fluorine bonds, which are the strongest bonds in organic chemistry.
These chemicals also cause pollution at every stage of production. At the PFAS chemical manufacturing facilities and garment factories, they often contaminate the air, water, and soil of the surrounding environment.
Exposure to PFAS is linked to cancers, weakened immune systems among children, weight gain, and a wide range of other health problems.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-02-unveil-method-chemicals-minutes.html
Which one of the following substances is not commonly used as an absorbent in Flue Gas De-sulphurisation (FGD) systems?
Carbon dioxide
Explanation :
The Union Minister for Power and New & Renewable Energy recently informed about the installation of Flue Gas De-sulphurisation (FGD) equipment in thermal power plants.
About Flue Gas De-sulphurisation (FGD):
It is a technology to eliminate sulfur dioxide (SO2) from exhaust emissions.
Where does Sulfur Dioxide come from?
Fossil fuels such as coal and oil often contain high amounts of sulfur, and when these fuels are burned, around 95% or more of the sulfur is converted to sulfur dioxide (SO2), which is emitted as flue gas.
Sulfur dioxide in itself is a major air pollutant which impacts all life. It is also a precursor of acid rain, which has significant adverse impacts on forests, freshwaters, and soils, in turn killing insect and aquatic life forms, causing paint to peel, corrosion of steel structures such as bridges, and weathering of stone buildings and statues.
The removal of sulfur dioxide is critical to establishing a safe and clean environment where toxic emissions are kept to a safe level.
FGD Process:
FGD is done through the addition of absorbents, which can remove up to 95% of the sulphur dioxide from the flue gas.
Substances such as ammonia or sodium sulphite are used as absorbents; however, the use of lime or limestone slurry (wet limestone scrubbing) is also widespread.
The uncleaned flue gas is sprayed in a scrubber tower (absorber tower) with a mixture of water and limestone (scrubbing slurry), whereby most of the sulphur dioxide is bonded by chemical reaction.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
Sources: https://www.wwdmag.com/what-is-articles/article/10940461/what-is-flue-gas-desulfurization
At the end of a build-operate-transfer (BOT) contract, what happens during the “transfer” phase?
Ownership and control of the facility are transferred back to the government
Explanation :
The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) has come up with a list of high-traffic density corridors for private developers to build and operate under the build-operate-transfer (BOT) model.
About build-operate-transfer (BOT) Model:
It is a type of agreement often used in infrastructure projects, particularly in the construction and operation of public facilities or utilities.
It is a conventional public-private partnership (PPP) model in which a private entity (usually a company or consortium) is granted the rights and responsibilities to design, finance, construct, operate, and maintain a specific project or facility for a defined period of time.
The private entity, known as the “concessionaire” or “developer,” bears the financial and operational risks associated with the project during the contract period.
The typical lifecycle of a BOT contract involves three phases:
Build: The concessionaire is responsible for financing, designing, and constructing the infrastructure project. This phase usually includes obtaining the necessary permits and approvals.
Operate: After the construction is completed, the concessionaire operates and maintains the facility for a specified duration. This can involve providing services, managing operations, and generating revenue from the facility (e.g., tolls, fees, or user charges).
Transfer: At the end of the contract period, the ownership and control of the facility are transferred back to the government or public authority, which may have been the original owner. The transfer is often accompanied by a predetermined valuation or compensation mechanism.
The private company gains revenue during the concession period, while the government benefits from infrastructure development without upfront investment.
However, the specifics of the financial arrangements and incentives vary depending on the individual BOT contract.
BOT is particularly well-suited for greenfield projects (new projects without prior work) and large-scale, capital-intensive projects.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/roadways-explainer-will-the-new-bot-model-bring-back-private-developers-3388667/
Consider the following statements regarding the SARTHI Platform:
- It is the digital insurance platform launched in collaboration with United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) India.
- The insurance under this covers both health and agriculture implements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare launched the Agri-Insurance Sandbox Framework Platform SARTHI and Learning Management System (LMS) Platform for the farming community under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) in Delhi.
Sandbox for Agricultural and Rural Security, Technology and Insurance (SARTHI) is the comprehensive digital insurance platform launched in collaboration with United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) India.
It extends coverage to health, life, home, shop, agriculture implements, motor, and parametric products.
It can be accessed via the AIDE app available on Android App Store.
This ambitious endeavour, aligned with the Sustainable Development Goals, not only aims to safeguard farmers’ livelihoods but also to fortify the resilience of the agricultural sector as a whole.
Significance
It marks a significant advancement beyond traditional crop insurance, offering a diverse array of products tailored to farmers’ needs.
By expanding insurance coverage to include vital assets like tractor machinery, SARTHI empowers farmers to comprehensively mitigate risks, securing their livelihoods and fostering long-term sustainability in agriculture.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2004173
Consider the following statements regarding the DigiReady Certification:
- It is an initiative of the NITI Aayog.
- It aims to certify digital readiness of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) entities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Quality Council of India (QCI) and Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) announced the launch of the DigiReady Certification (DRC) portal.
In this initiative, QCI, in conjunction with ONDC, aim to assess and certify digital readiness of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) entities.
By leveraging this online self-assessment tool, MSMEs can evaluate their preparedness to seamlessly onboard as sellers on the ONDC platform, thereby expanding their digital capabilities and business potential.
The portal is meticulously designed to facilitate a streamlined seller journey, ensuring that MSMEs and small retailers can integrate seamlessly into existing digitized workflows.
The certification process evaluates various aspects of digital readiness, including the presence of necessary documentation for online operations, proficiency in using software and technology, integration with existing digitized workflows, and efficient management of orders and catalogue offerings.
This initiative presents additional business prospects for sellers, allowing them to become integral to the digital ecosystem.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2003914
With reference to Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana, consider the following statements:
- It is a Central Sector Sub-scheme under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana.
- It aims to formalize the unorganized fisheries sector through self registration of fishers.
- It is funded by the World Bank.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Cabinet approved the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana (PM-MKSSY), a sub scheme under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana.
It will be implemented as a Central Sector Sub-scheme under the Central Sector Component of the PMMSY.
Funding: Implemented at an estimated outlay of Rs.6,000 crore consisting of 50% i.e. Rs.3,000 crore public finance including the World Bank and the AFD external financing, and rest 50% i.e.Rs.3,000 crore being the anticipated investment from the beneficiaries/private sector leverage.
Time period: It will be implemented for 4 years from FY 2023-24 to FY 2026-27 across all the States and UTs.
Intended Beneficiaries:
Fishers, Fish (Aquaculture) Farmers, Fish workers, Fish Vendors or such other person directly engaged in fisheries value chain.
Micro and Small enterprises in the form of Proprietary Firms, Partnership Firms and Companies registered in India, Societies, Limited Liability Partnerships (LLPs), Cooperatives, Federations, Village Level Organizations like Self Help Groups (SHGs), Fish Farmers Producer Organizations (FFPOs) and Startups engaged in fisheries and aquaculture value chains.
FFPOs also include Farmers Producer Organizations (FPOs).
Any other beneficiaries that may be included by the Department of Fisheries, Gol as targeted beneficiaries.
Aims and objectives
Gradual Formalization of the unorganized fisheries sector through self registration of fishers, fish farmers and supportive workers under a National Fisheries Sector Digital Platform including creation of work based digital identifies of fish workers for improved service delivery.
Facilitating access to institutional financing fisheries sector micro and small enterprises.
Providing one-time incentive to beneficiaries for purchasing aquaculture insurance.
lncentivizing fisheries and aquaculture microenterprises through performance grants for improving fisheries sector value-chain efficiencies including creation and maintenance of jobs.
Incentivising micro and small enterprises through performance grants for adoption and expansion of fish and fishery product safety and quality assurance systems including creation and maintenance of jobs.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2004223
Consider the following statements regarding the Aadi Mahotsav:
- It is organized by Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India Limited (TRIFED).
- It is a platform to exhibit the talent and craftsmanship of tribal artisans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
President of India will inaugurate the Aadi Mahotsav 2024, an annual National Tribal Festival at Major Dhyan Chand National Stadium in New Delhi on 10th February.
It is organized by Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India Limited (TRIFED)under the aegis of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, will showcase the rich diversity of India’s tribal heritage.
It is not only a platform to exhibit the extraordinary talent and craftsmanship of tribal artisans but also an opportunity to interact, learn, and contribute to the empowerment of tribal communities.
The festival will feature an expanded showcase with over 300 stalls, offering varied display of Tribal art, handicrafts, natural produce, and delectable tribal cuisine.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2004061
Steinernema adamsi, recently seen in news, is a:
nematode
Explanation :
Scientists at the University of California, Riverside have unveiled a new species of nematode, Steinernema adamsi, a minuscule yet potent ally in the battle against crop pests.
This new species is a member of a family of nematodes called Steinernema that have long been used in agriculture to control insect parasites without pesticides.
Steinernema are not harmful to humans or other mammals and were first discovered in the 1920s.
This new species is part of a special group of nematodes considered beneficial to humans because it can infect and kill insect pests
It is an entomopathogenic nematode that crawls inside of an insect, defecates highly pathogenic bacteria into its blood and then combines with that bacterium to kill the insect host.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-02-discovery-nematode-species-crops-pesticides.html
With reference to National Judicial Academy (NJA), consider the following statements:
- It is an independent society, fully funded by the Government of India.
- It works under the directions of the Supreme Court of India.
- Its Governing Council is headed by the Attorney General.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
If judges can go to the National Judicial Academy for training, why not lawyers, the Supreme Court said recently while asserting that all advocates should undergo compulsory training.
About National Judicial Academy (NJA):
NJA, established in 1993 under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, is an independent society, fully funded by the Government of India, and works under the directions of the Supreme Court of India.
Mandate: Strengthening the Administration of Justice through Judicial Education, Research, and Policy Development.
It organizes trainings to aid the judges in their judging roles and in the performance of court administration work.
Its 63-acre campus is located in the outskirts of Bhopal. It also has a registered office in Delhi.
The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is the Chairman of the General Body of NJA as well as the Chairman of the Governing Council, the Executive Committee, and the Academic Council of NJA.
Management:
The Director, NJA is the Principal Executive Officer of NJA. The Director is appointed by the Chairman, the Hon’ble Chief Justice of India.
NJA academic staff positions include, in addition to the Director, one position of Additional Director (Research), three positions of Professor, six positions of Assistant Professor, six positions of Research Fellow, and six positions of Law Associates.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/if-judges-can-go-to-national-judicial-academy-for-training-why-not-lawyers-supreme-court/article67828451.ece
With reference to Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB), consider the following statements:
- It is issued by Reserve Bank of India on behalf of the Government of India (GoI).
- It can be sold to both resident and non-resident Indian entities.
- It is eligible to be used as collateral for loans from banks.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The issue price of the next tranche of Sovereign Gold Bond has been fixed at Rs 6,263 per gram, the Reserve Bank said in a statement recently.
About Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB) Scheme:
SGBs are government securities denominated in grams of gold.
The SGB Scheme was first launched by the Government of India (GOI) on October 30, 2015.
They are substitutes for holding physical gold. Investors have to pay the issue price, and the bonds will be redeemed upon maturity.
The bond is issued by Reserve Bank on behalf of the GOI.
Who is eligible to invest in the SGBs? The bonds will be restricted for sale to resident Indian entities, including individuals (in their capacity as individuals, or on behalf of minor child, or jointly with any other individual), Hindu Undivided Family (HUF), Trusts, Universities and Charitable Institutions.
What are the minimum and maximum limits for investment?
The bonds are issued in denominations of one gram of gold and in multiples thereof.
The minimum investment in the bond shall be one gram, with a maximum subscription limit of 4 kg for individuals, 4 kg for HUFs, and 20 kg for trusts and similar entities notified by the government from time to time per fiscal year.
In case of joint holding, the investment limit of 4 KG will be applied to the first applicant only.
Tenor: The tenor of the bond will be for a period of 8 years, with an exit option in the 5th, 6th, and 7th years, to be exercised on the interest payment dates.
Who are the authorized agencies selling the SGBs? Bonds are sold through offices or branches of Nationalised Banks, Scheduled Private Banks, Scheduled Foreign Banks, designated Post Offices, Stock Holding Corporation of India Ltd. (SHCIL), and the authorised stock exchanges either directly or through their agents.
Other Features:
Payment for the Bonds will be through cash payment (up to a maximum of Rs. 20,000/-), or demand draft, or cheque, or electronic banking.
Investors are assured of the market value of gold at the time of maturity and periodical interest.
These securities are eligible to be used as collateral for loans from banks, financial Institutions, and Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs).
Bonds will be tradable on stock exchanges within a fortnight of the issuance on a date as notified by the RBI.
The bonds can also be sold and transferred as per the provisions of Government Securities Act, 2006.
Interest on the bonds will be taxable as per the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
The capital gains tax arising on the redemption of SGB to an individual has been exempted.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/markets/commodities/news/sovereign-gold-bond-price-fixed-at-rs-6263/gm-issues-opens-monday/articleshow/107564765.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding the Airports Authority of India (AAI):
- It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Civil Aviation.
- It provides Air Traffic Management Services (ATMS) over the entire Indian Air Space.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently agreed to hear a curative petition filed by the Airports Authority of India (AAI) against the multinational conglomerate GMR Group concerning the operational management of Nagpur’s Babasaheb Ambedkar International Airport.
About Airports Authority of India (AAI):
It is a statutory body under the Directorate General of Civil Aviation, Ministry of Civil Aviation, Government of India.
It was constituted by an Act of Parliament and came into being on 1st April, 1995, by merging the erstwhile National Airports Authority and the International Airports Authority of India.
The merger brought into existence a single Organization entrusted with the responsibility of creating, upgrading, maintaining, and managing civil aviation infrastructure both on the ground and air space in the country.
AAI manages 137 airports, which include 24 International Airports (including 3 International Civil Enclaves), 10 Customs Airports (including 4 Customs Civil Enclaves), 80 Domestic Airports, and 23 Domestic Civil Enclaves at Defence airfields.
AAI also provides Air Traffic Management Services (ATMS) over the entire Indian Air Space and adjoining oceanic areas, with ground installations at all airports, and 25 other locations to ensure the safety of aircraft operations.
The functions of AAI are as follows:
Design, development, operation and maintenance of international and domestic airports and civil enclaves.
Control and management of the Indian airspace extending beyond the territorial limits of the country, as accepted by the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO).
Construction, modification and management of passenger terminals.
Development and Management of cargo terminals at international and domestic airports.
Provision of passenger facilities and an information system at the passenger terminals at airports.
Expansion and strengthening of the operation area, viz. Runways, Aprons, Taxiway etc.
Provision of visual aids.
Provision of communication and navigation aids, viz. ILS, DVOR, DME, Radar etc.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/supreme-court-airports-authority-gmr-group-nagpur-airport-operation-249092
Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution:
- It is based on the Objectives Resolution drafted by Jawaharlal Nehru.
- The 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976 added the words “Socialist” and “Secular” in the Preamble.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Supreme Court of India recently agreed to examine whether the words “socialist” and “secular” can be removed from the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
About the Preamble of the Indian Constitution:
The preamble of the Indian Constitution serves as a brief introductory statement of the Constitution that sets out the guiding purpose, principles, and philosophy of the Indian Constitution.
The Preamble is based on the Objectives Resolution, drafted and moved by Jawaharlal Nehru.
The Preamble reveals four ingredients or components:
Source of authority of the Constitution: It is indicated by the Preamble that the source of authority of the Constitution lies with the people of India.
Nature of the Indian State: It declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic.
Objectives of the Constitution: The objectives stated by the Preamble are to secure justice, liberty, and equality for all citizens and promote fraternity to maintain the unity and integrity of the nation.
Date of adoption of the Constitution: It stipulates November 26, 1949, as the date.
Amendments: By the 42nd Amendment of 1976, the words “Socialist” and “Secular” were inserted; the Preamble now reads “Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic”.
Interpretation by the Supreme Court:
Berubari Union case: In this case, it was held by the Supreme Court that the Preamble is part of the Constitution. However, it recognised that the Preamble could be used as a guiding principle if a term in any article of the Constitution is ambiguous or has more than one meaning.
Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala: In this case, the Supreme Court overturned its earlier decision and held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368 of the Constitution.
Again, in the LIC of India case, the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/could-preamble-have-been-amended-without-altering-constitution-s-adoption-date-sc-asks-101707506343224.html
The Sunabeda Wildlife Sanctuary is located in:
Odisha
Explanation :
An exchange of fire took place between Maoists and security forces in the Sunabeda wildlife sanctuary recently.
About Sunabeda Wildlife Sanctuary:
Location: It is located in the Nuapada district of Odisha, adjoining Chhattisgarh.
It is spread over a sprawling area of 600 sq kms. It was declared a sanctuary in the year 1983.
It adjoins the Sitanadi and Udanti sanctuaries of Chhattisgarh.
The sanctuary harbors a great diversity of wildlife habitats, with a vast plateau, canyons, and 11 waterfalls.
It also forms the catchment area of the Jonk River (tributary of Mahanadi River), over which a dam has been constructed to facilitate irrigation.
Vegetation: The important vegetation of this sanctuary comprises dry deciduous tropical forests.
Flora: Bija, Teak, Sisoo, Asan, Dharua, Mahul, Char, Sandal wood, Sidha, etc.
Fauna:
It is an ideal habitat for the Barasingha (swamp deer).
Other important animals found are tigers, Leopards, hyenas, Barking Deer, Chital, Gaur, Sambar, Sloth Bear, Hill Myna, etc.
It also works as a migration link for rare wild Buffaloes between the states of Orissa and Chhattisgarh.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bhubaneswar/maoists-security-forces-exchange-fire-in-sunabeda-wildlife-sanctuary/articleshow/107572547.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Earth System Model:
- It is open-source software designed to integrate the interactions of atmosphere, ocean, land, ice and biosphere.
- It is being developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology is developing a first-for-India Earth System Model to improve climate forecasts and predict climate impacts.
It is open-source software that is designed to integrate the interactions of atmosphere, ocean, land, ice, and biosphere to estimate the state of regional and global climate under a wide variety of conditions.
Since it is based on numerical weather prediction and data assimilation, it can be used for accurate climate change predictions.
The Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology along with the Centre for Climate Change Research (CCCR), is developing this first-for-India Earth System Model.
Purpose: To improve its forecasts, facilitate long-term climate studies, and predict climate impacts in the coming years.
IITM-ESM incorporates earth system components in the Climate Forecast System (CFS) from National Center for Environmental Prediction (NCEP, USA), and transforms the CFS seasonal prediction model to a long-term climate mode,
Funding: An amount of ₹192.28 crores has been sanctioned under the Monsoon Convection, Clouds and Climate Change (MC4) sub scheme to develop the climate forecasting system.
The work on the model is currently underway and is expected to be completed by 2025.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/india-developing-a-new-earth-system-model-to-improve-forecasts-track-climate-crisis-impacts-101707502925985.html
Consider the following statements regarding the FAST Telescope:
- It aims to detect neutral hydrogen to the edge of the universe.
- It is developed by Russia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, astronomers from the Nanjing University in China and elsewhere have detected a radio pulsar in a supernova remnant known as CTB 87 by using the Five-hundred-meter Aperture Spherical radio Telescope (FAST).
The Five-hundred-meter Aperture Spherical radio Telescope (FAST), located in a karst depression in Guizhou, China.
It is the world’s largest single-dish radio telescope, with a receiving area equivalent to 30 football fields.
It is expected that FAST will maintain its world-class status for the next 20 to 30 years.
Goals
Detect neutral hydrogen to the edge of the universe, reconstruct the images of the early universe;
Discover pulsar, establish a pulsar timing array, and participate in pulsar navigation and gravitational wave detection in the future;
Join the International Very-Long-Baseline Interferometry Network to obtain hyperfine structures of celestial bodies;
Perform high resolution radio spectral survey. Detect weak space signals;
Participate in the search for extraterrestrial intelligence.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-02-chinese-astronomers-radio-pulsar-supernova.html
With reference to High-Altitude Pseudo Satellite (HAPS) vehicle, consider the following statements:
- It is an unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) developed by National Aerospace Laboratories.
- It does not require a rocket to get into space.
- It can be used in continuous surveillance of border areas.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, the National Aerospace Laboratories (NAL) in Bengaluru has successfully completed the first test of a solar-powered high-altitude pseudo satellite vehicle.
It is a new age unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) that can significantly increase India’s surveillance and monitoring capabilities in the border areas.
It is a still-developing technology, and the successful test flight last week puts India among a very small group of countries currently experimenting with this technology.
Features
It can fly at altitudes of 18-20 km from the ground, almost double the heights attained by commercial airplanes.
It has the ability to generate solar power.
It can remain in air for months, even years, offering it advantages of a satellite.
It does not require a rocket to get into space.
The cost of operating HAPS is several times lower than that of a satellite that is usually placed at least 200 km from the earth.
Applications of HAPS
It can be very useful in disaster situations.
It can even be used to provide mobile communications networks in remote areas
Even it can be used in continuous surveillance of border areas to detect changes or movements.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/meet-haps-indias-very-own-uav-that-can-fly-20-km-high-and-float-for-months-9153929/
