February Flashcards
Consider the following statements regarding Martand Temple, recently seen in the news:
- It is a shaivite temple.
- It is located in the Kashmir Valley.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Members of a little-known Hindutva group forced their way into the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)-protected Martand sun temple recently.
About Martand Sun Temple:
It is a Hindu temple located near the city of Anantnag in the Kashmir Valley of Jammu and Kashmir.
It is dedicated to the Sun God. Martand is another Sanskrit synonym for Surya.
It was built by King Lalitaditya Muktapida around the 8th Century CE. Lalitaditya Muktapida was the third ruler of the Karkota Dynasty.
Features:
It has a unique architecture where local Kashmiri style is blended with the architectural styles of Gupta, Chinese, Gandhara, Roman, and Greek.
The temple is located on top of a plateau and has been constructed entirely out of stone.
It covers an area of 32,000 square feet.
It stands in the middle of a large courtyard with 86 fluted columns. The courtyard is connected to the main shrine, where Sun God’s idol was installed.
The construction of the main shrine was such that during most of the days’ time, especially during sunrise and sunset, the rays would directly fall on the idol.
The central shrine, or vimana, stands tall at around 60 feet. It features intricate carvings and sculptures that depict various Hindu gods and goddesses.
There are 84 smaller shrines around the main Sun Temple. They are lined along the perimeter of the complex.
The temple is believed to have been demolished by Sultan Sikandar Shah Miri, who ruled Kashmir from 1389 to 1413.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.nationalheraldindia.com/national/despite-asi-attempts-saffron-outfit-once-again-forces-entry-into-anantnag-martand-sun-temple
With reference to Payments Bank, consider the following statements:
- It can accept demand deposits in the form of savings and current accounts.
- It cannot issue loans and credit cards.
- It cannot become a banking correspondent (BC) of another bank.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently imposed restrictions on Paytm Payments Bank Ltd (PPBL), following a system audit report and subsequent compliance validation report of external auditors.
About Payments Bank:
A payments bank is like any other bank but operates on a smaller scale without involving any credit risk.
It was set up based on the recommendations of the Nachiket Mor Committee.
Objective: To advance financial inclusion by offering banking and financial services to the unbanked and underbanked areas, helping the migrant labour force, low-income households, small entrepreneurs, etc.
It is registered as a public limited company under the Companies Act 2013 and licensed under Section 22 of the Banking Regulation Act 1949.
It is governed by a host of legislation, such as the Banking Regulation Act, 1949; RBI Act, 1934; Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, etc.
Features:
They are differentiated, and not universal banks.
These operate on a smaller scale.
The minimum paid-up equity capital for payments banks shall be Rs. 100 crores.
The minimum initial contribution of the promoter to the Payment Bank to the paid-up equity capital shall be at least 40% for the first five years from the commencement of its business.
Activities that can be performed:
It can take deposits up to Rs. 2,00,000. It can accept demand deposits in the form of savings and current accounts.
The money received as deposits can be invested in secure government securities only in the form of Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). This must amount to 75% of the demand deposit balance.
The remaining 25% is to be placed as time deposits with other scheduled commercial banks.
It can offer remittance services, mobile payments/transfers/purchases, and other banking services like ATM/debit cards, net banking, and third-party fund transfers.
It can become a banking correspondent (BC) of another bank for credit and other services which it cannot offer.
Activities that can be performed:
It cannot issue loans and credit cards.
It cannot accept time deposits or NRI deposits.
It cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial activities.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livemint.com/economy/rbi-bars-paytm-payments-bank-from-accepting-deposits-in-any-customer-account-from-next-month-11706700713798.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Black-crowned Night Heron:
- It is found mainly in the Himalayan and Central Asian regions.
- It is classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
A ringed juvenile black-crowned night heron, which landed recently at a local pond in Imphal and died later, was banded at the Weishan Bird Banding Station in China’s Beijing.
About Black-crowned Night Heron:
It is a medium-sized heron with a stocky build.
Scientific Name: Nycticorax nycticorax
Distribution: It is found across North America, as well as locally in Central America and the Caribbean.
Habitat: Most colonies of black-crowned night herons are associated with large wetlands. They inhabit a variety of wetland habitats, such as swamps, streams, rivers, marshes, mud flats, and the edges of lakes.
Features:
It has a stocky body with a comparatively short neck and legs.
It has a black crown, a gray body, and bright, red eyes.
It weighs between 727 and 1014 grams, has a wingspan of 115 to 118 centimeters, and is 58 to 66 centimeters in length).
Females and males look alike, but females are a little smaller.
They are social at all times of the year, frequently associating with other species of herons.
It is a migrating species.
Diet: It is an opportunistic feeder. Its diet consists mainly of fish, though it is frequently rounded out by other items such as leeches, earthworms, aquatic and terrestrial insects.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://news.abplive.com/northeast/china-identifies-tagging-station-of-migratory-bird-heron-found-in-manipur-1660393
With reference to Green Roofs, consider the following statements:
- They consist of a waterproofing membrane, soil and vegetation overlying a traditional roof.
- They last longer than conventional roofs and reduce energy costs with natural insulation.
- They improve air quality and help reduce the Urban Heat Island Effect.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
According to a recent research, green roofs treated with mycorrhizal fungi foster a more diverse soil community that is more likely to support long-term green roof sustainability.
About Green Roofs:
Green roofs, also known as ‘vegetated roofs’ or ‘living roofs’ — are ballasted roofs consisting of a waterproofing membrane, growing medium (soil) and vegetation (plants) overlying a traditional roof.
The layers of green roof systems must, like any roof, accommodate drainage, stormwater management and protect the building from the elements with a waterproof membrane.
But they also must create a growing area and potentially provide support, irrigation, and root protection barriers while staying as light as possible.
Two types of green roofs exist: intensive and extensive.
Intensive green roofs are essentially elevated parks. They can sustain shrubs, trees, walkways and benches with their complex structural support, irrigation, drainage, and root protection layers.
Extensive green roofs are relatively light. They support hearty native ground cover that requires little maintenance. Extensive green roofs usually exist solely for their environmental benefits and don’t function as accessible rooftop gardens.
Benefits:
Green roofs last longer than conventional roofs, reduce energy costs with natural insulation, create peaceful retreats for people and animals, and absorb storm water, potentially lessening the need for complex and expensive drainage systems.
On a wider scale, green roofs improve air quality and help reduce the Urban Heat Island Effect, a condition in which city and suburban developments absorb and trap heat.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://theprint.in/science/rich-in-fungi-soil-could-benefit-green-roofs-study-2/1947902/
What is ‘Volt Typhoon’, that was in the news recently?
A cyber hacking group
Explanation :
The United States government recently shut down a major China-backed hacking group dubbed “Volt Typhoon” that attacked hundreds of routers and had been working to compromise U.S. cyber infrastructure.
About Volt Typhoon:
It is a state-sponsored hacking group based in China that has been active since at least 2021.
The group typically focuses on espionage and information gathering.
It has targeted critical infrastructure organizations in the US, including Guam.
To achieve their objective, the threat actor puts strong emphasis on stealth, relying almost exclusively on living-off-the-land techniques and hands-on-keyboard activity.
The recurring attack pattern of Volt Typhoon begins with initial access via exploitation of public-facing devices or services.
Volt Typhoon employs the comparatively uncommon practice of leveraging preinstalled utilities for most of their victim interactions.
Compromised small office/home office (SOHO) devices are used by the attackers to proxy communications to and from the affected networks.
They issue commands via the command line to (1) collect data, including credentials from local and network systems: (2) put the data into an archive file to stage it for exfiltration: and then (3) use the stolen valid credentials to maintain persistence.
Volt Typhoon was a particularly quiet operator that hid its traffic by routing it through hacked network equipment, like home routers, and carefully expunging evidence of intrusions from the victim’s logs.
This combination of behaviors makes detection especially difficult, as defenders must be able to differentiate between attacker activities and those of power users or administrative staff.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.cnbc.com/2024/01/31/fbi-shut-down-china-volt-typhoon-hackers-targeting-us-.html
The Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary is located in:
Tamil Nadu
Explanation :
Recently, the union Environment Minister said that five more Indian wetlands have been added to the global list of wetlands of international importance under the Ramsar Convention.
Of the five wetlands added to the Ramsar list, Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve, Ankasamudra Bird Conservation Reserve, and Aghanashini Estuary are in Karnataka and Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary and Longwood Shola Reserve Forest are in Tamil Nadu.
Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary
It is one of the largest inland wetlands of Tamil Nadu, and is a significant source of groundwater recharge for the area.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2000838
Consider the following statements regarding the One Stop Centre scheme:
- It provides integrated support and assistance to women affected by violence.
- It is formulated by the union Ministry of Women and Child Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the union Minister for Women and Child Development said that One Stop Centres to help women who have faced violence have been established in over 700 districts across the country.
It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme formulated under the union Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD).
Objectives
To provide integrated support and assistance to women affected by violence, both in private and public spaces under one roof.
To facilitate immediate, emergency and non-emergency access to a range of services including medical, legal, psychological and counselling support under one roof to fight against any forms of violence against women.
Target group
It supports all women including girls below 18 years of age affected by violence, irrespective of caste, class, religion, region, sexual orientation or marital status.
For girls below 18 years of age, institutions and authorities established under Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000 and the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 linked with the OSC
Funding: The Scheme will be funded through Nirbhaya Fund. The Central Government will provide 100% financial assistance under the Scheme.
Administration: The day to day implementation and administrative matters would be the responsibility of the District Collector/District Magistrate.
The OSC will facilitate access to: Emergency Response and Rescue Services, Medical assistance, assistance to women in lodging FIR/ NCR/DIR, psycho-social support/ counseling, legal aid and counseling, shelter and Video Conferencing Facility.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/700-one-stop-centres-set-up-across-the-country-irani/article67796904.ece
With reference to bluetongue disease, consider the following statements:
- It is a viral disease.
- It is transmitted by insects.
- It mainly affects aquatic animals.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
China has banned the direct and indirect import of ruminants and its related products from Iraq due to an outbreak of bluetongue disease.
It is a non-contagious, viral disease affecting domestic and wild ruminants (primarily sheep and including cattle, goats, buffalo, antelope, deer, elk and camels).
It is transmitted by insects, particularly biting midges of the Culicoides species.
The virus which causes BT is identified as a member of the Reoviridae family.
Twenty-four (24) different serotypes have been identified and the ability of each strain to cause disease varies considerably.
Symptoms: The severity of disease varies among different species with symptoms being most severe in sheep resulting in deaths, weight loss and disruption in wool growth.
Geographical distribution
It has a significant global distribution in regions where the insect vector is present, including Africa, Asia, Australia, Europe, North America and several islands in the tropics and subtropics.
The virus is maintained in areas where the climate will allow biting midges to survive over winter.
Transmission and spread
The insect vector is the key to transmission of BT virus between animals.
Vectors are infected with BT virus after ingesting blood from infected animals.
Without the vector, the disease cannot spread from animal to animal.
BT virus transmission can occur throughout the year, particularly during rainy periods.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.reuters.com/world/china/china-bans-imports-ruminants-animals-iraq-due-bluetongue-disease-2024-01-31/
Sphaerotheca varshaabhu, recently seen in news, is a:
frog
Explanation :
Researchers from various national and international organisations have identified and documented a previously unknown species of frog which has been thriving amidst the urban landscape of Bengaluru.
Sphaerotheca varshaabhu is a new frog species.
Sphaerotheca Varshaabhu, meaning a genus of frog which welcomes rain, has been attributed to its behaviour of coming out of burrows during the early showers.
The newly unearthed amphibian exhibits distinctive characteristics that set it apart from known frog species.
It has adapted to its urban surroundings displaying behaviours and physical attributes that help it navigate challenges posed by urbanization.
The team utilised advanced genetic analysis, morphological studies and bioacoustics to confirm the distinctiveness of this newly discovered amphibian.
Key facts about amphibians
They are extremely sensitive to changes in the environment and can give scientists valuable insight into how an ecosystem is functioning.
Amphibians, like frogs, toads and salamanders, are known as indicator species.
They are both predators and prey; many other animals are affected by them.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/researchers-identify-new-species-of-burrowing-frog-in-urban-bengaluru/article67795686.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the eROSITA:
- It is a wide-field X-ray telescope.
- It provides new insights about evolution of super massive black holes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the German eROSITA consortium has released the data for its share of the first all-sky survey by the soft X-ray imaging telescope.
The eROSITA (extended ROentgen Survey with an Imaging Telescope Array) is a wide-field X-ray telescope on-board the Russian-German “Spectrum-Roentgen-Gamma” (SRG) observatory.
It was developed under the leadership of the Max-Planck Institute for extraterrestrial Physics in Germany (DE).
It is a sensitive X-ray telescope capable of delivering deep, sharp images over very large areas of the sky.
The eROSITA telescope consists of seven identical Wolter-1 mirror modules.
SRG was successfully launched from Baikonur on July 13 2019, and placed in a halo orbit around the L2 point.
Functions
It has been performing an all-sky survey, in which the whole celestial sphere is mapped once every six months. Eight such all-sky charts are planned until December 2023.
It is also expected to yield a sample of several million Active Galactic Nuclei, providing a unique view of the evolution of supermassive black holes within the emerging cosmic structure.
The survey will also provide new insights into a wide range of astrophysical phenomena, including accreting binaries, active stars and diffuse emission within the Galaxy, as well as solar system bodies that emit X-rays via the charge exchange process.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-01-erosita-sky-survey-largest-high.html
With reference to the Mesolithic Period, consider the following statements:
- It is a cultural stage which existed between the Paleolithic and the Neolithic periods.
- People transitioned from using smaller chipped stone tools to large stone tools.
- People began growing crops and practicing animal husbandry.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Mesolithic era rock paintings have been recently discovered at Sitamma Loddi, Gattusingaram, in Peddapalli district, Telangana.
About Mesolithic Period:
Mesolithic, also called Middle Stone Age, is an ancient cultural stage which existed between the Paleolithic (Old Stone Age) and the Neolithic (New Stone Age).
Timeframe: This period is generally considered to have occurred between approximately 12,000-10,000 years ago.
Some of the defining characteristics of the Mesolithic Age are as follows:
People transitioned from using large chipped stone tools to using smaller chipped stone tools (microliths).
Microliths were probably stuck onto handles of bone or wood to make tools such as saws and sickles.
At the same time, older varieties of tools continued to be in use.
People transitioned from hunting large herds animals in groups to a more hunter-gatherer lifestyle.
Towards the end of the Mesolithic Age, people began growing crops and practising animal husbandry, which is the controlled cultivation, management, and production of domestic animals.
It was during the Mesolithic Age that the dog was domesticated.
The permanent settlements in the Mesolithic Age varied from villages of huts to walled cities.
During the Mesolithic Age, the climate was warming after the last ice age, which occurred at the end of the Palaeolithic period.
The art created in the Mesolithic Age is highly reflective of the change in climate that was happening at the time.
During the Mesolithic period, humans developed cave paintings, engravings, and ceramics to reflect their daily lives.
In certain areas of the world, a range of pottery was made during the Mesolithic Age.
Mesolithic Sites in India: Bagor in Rajasthan, Sarai Nahar Rai in Allahabad, Jharkhand, Chhota Nagpur plateau.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/hyderabad/mesolithic-era-rock-art-discovered-in-t-hyderabad-sitamma-loddi/articleshow/107307966.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Input Service Distributor (ISD) under Goods and Services Tax (GST):
- It receives invoices for services used by its branches and distributes the tax paid to such branches on a proportional basis.
- It is not applicable when capital goods are involved.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Finance Minister in Budget 2024 proposed the manner of distribution of credit by input service distributors.
About Input Service Distributor (ISD):
ISD means an office of the supplier of goods or services or both which receives tax invoices towards receipt of input services and issues a prescribed document for the purposes of distributing the credit of central tax (CGST), State tax (SGST)/ Union territory tax (UTGST), or integrated tax (IGST) paid on the said services to a supplier of taxable goods or services or both having the same Permanent Account Number (PAN) as that of the ISD.
Hence, ISD is a business which receives invoices for services used by its branches.
It distributes the tax paid to such branches on a proportional basis by issuing an ISD invoice.
The branches can have different GST Identification Numbers (GSTINs) but must have the same PAN as that of ISD.
Registration under GST:
An ISD is required to obtain a separate registration.
Registration is mandatory and there is no threshold limit for registration for an ISD.
Relevance of ISD:
It is relevant for businesses having multiple branches operating within India.
These businesses are required to obtain GSTIN for each branch from where taxable supplies are made.
Based on the purchases of the head office or branch, ITC (Input Tax Credit) in the form of SGST, CGST, or IGST would accrue to the business.
Toensure that the ITC is properly distributed amongst the various branches of the business, ISD concept has been introduced by the Government.
ISD is made available to business having a large share of common expenditures, and billing/payment is done from a centralised location.
Where ISD doesn’t apply?
ISD mechanism is meant only for distributing credit on common invoices pertaining to input services.
It is not applicable when input or capital goods are involved.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.taxscan.in/finance-bill-2024-know-proposed-manner-of-distribution-of-credit-by-input-service-distributor-under-gst/370584/
Consider the following statements regarding Tidal Disruption Event (TDE):
- It occurs when a star passes close enough to a supermassive black hole and is pulled apart by its tidal forces.
- It is often observed as bright flare of radiation which lasts only for a few seconds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
An international team of astronomers recently conducted multi-wavelength observations of AT 2023clx—the closest to Earth tidal disruption event (TDE).
About Tidal Disruption Event (TDE):
Tidal disruption events (TDEs) are astronomical phenomena that occur when a star passes close enough to a supermassive black hole and is pulled apart by the black hole’s tidal forces, causing the process of disruption.
Such tidally disrupted stellar debris starts raining down on the black hole and radiation emerges from the innermost region of accreting debris, which is an indicator of the presence of a TDE.
How does a TDE typically unfold?
Close Approach: A star in a galaxy approaches a black hole on a very close trajectory due to gravitational interactions within the galaxy.
Tidal Forces: As the star gets closer to the black hole, the gravitational forces acting on it become increasingly uneven due to the difference in gravitational pull on the near side and far side of the star. These tidal forces can be strong enough to disrupt the star.
Stellar Disruption: When the tidal forces exceed the self-gravitational forces holding the star together, it undergoes a process called “tidal disruption.” The star is stretched and eventually torn apart into a stream of gas and debris.
Accretion Disk Formation: The debris from the disrupted star forms an accretion disk around the black hole. This disk is composed of hot gas and dust, and it spirals inwards towards the black hole.
Energy Release: As the material in the accretion disk spirals inwards, it releases a tremendous amount of energy in the form of X-rays and ultraviolet radiation.
Flares and Observations: TDEs are often observed as bright flares of radiation from the centre of a galaxy. These flares can last for several months to years, gradually fading as the disrupted star’s material is consumed by the black hole.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://phys.org/news/2024-01-properties-nearest-tidal-disruption-event.html
Consider the following statements regarding Tax Buoyancy:
- It refers to changes in tax revenue in response to changes in the tax rate.
- When a tax is buoyant, its revenue increases only when the tax rate increases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Finance Minister recently presented fiscal consolidation projections that surpass expectations for the current financial year and Budget Estimates (BE) for the next year, despite the conservative tax buoyancy in the estimates.
About Tax Buoyancy:
Tax buoyancy explains the relationship between the changes in the government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in Gross domestic product (GDP).
There is a strong connection between the government’s tax revenue earnings and economic growth.
As the economy achieves faster growth, the tax revenue of the government also goes up. Tax buoyancy explains this relationship.
It refers to the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to changes in GDP.
When a tax is buoyant, its revenue increases without increasing the tax rate.
It depends upon:
the size of the tax base;
the friendliness of the tax administration;
the rationality and simplicity of tax rates;
Tax buoyancy will be highest for direct taxes. Generally, direct taxes are more sensitive to the GDP growth rate.
What is tax elasticity?
A similar looking concept is tax elasticity. It refers to changes in tax revenue in response to changes in the tax rate.
For example, how tax revenue changes if the government reduces corporate income tax from 30 percent to 25 percent indicate tax elasticity.
What is Laffer Curve?
It is an economic theory pioneered by economist Arthur Laffer.
Created in 1974, it visually shows the relationship between tax rates and the amount of tax revenue collected by governments.
It suggests that tax rates above a certain threshold reduce tax revenue since they incentivize people not to work.
It suggests there is an optimum tax rate which maximises total tax revenue.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://www.business-standard.com/budget/news/fm-fiscal-consolidation-better-than-expected-despite-modest-tax-buoyancy-124020101296_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding Manatees:
- They are large herbivorous aquatic mammals.
- All the species of manatees inhabit freshwater ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A record number of manatees converged at a Florida state park recently.
About Manatees:
Manatees are large aquatic mammals, and sometimes they’re referred to as “sea cows.”
They belong toa group of animals called Sirenia. This group also contains dugongs.
Dugongs and manatees are very similar in appearance and behavior, but there is one key difference: their tails.
Manatees have paddle-shaped tails, and dugongs have fluked tails, giving it a whale-like appearance.
Habitat: Manatees inhabit shallow, marshy coastal areas and rivers.
There are three species, or types, of manatee.
The Amazonian manatee lives in the Amazon River and in fresh water in South America. This species is only found in freshwater.
The African manatee lives in tropical West Africa.
The Caribbean manatee is found in Florida and the West Indies.
Features:
Adult manatees may reach a length of 15 feet (4.6 meters) and a weight of 1,660 kilograms.
Females tend to be larger and heavier than males.
Dull gray, blackish, or brown in colour, all three manatee species have stout tapered bodies ending in a flat rounded tail used for forward propulsion.
The forelimbs are modified into flippers; there are no hind limbs.
In order to breathe, they must swim to the water’s surface for air.
Lifespan: 50 to 60 years
They are herbivores. They spend up to eight hours a day grazing and can consume 4 to 9 percent of their body weight in aquatic vegetation daily.
Apart from mothers and their young, or males following a receptive female, manatees are generally solitary animals.
Conservation Status: All three manatee species are listed as ‘Vulnerable’ by the IUCN’s Red List of Threatened Species.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.bbc.com/future/article/20240125-a-florida-state-park-reports-a-record-number-of-manatees-gathering-whats-behind-the-convergence
Thanthai Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary, recently seen in the news, is located in:
Tamil Nadu
Explanation :
The Tamil Nadu government has declared 80,114.80 hectares of reserve forests in Bargur Hills in Erode district, as the Thanthai Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary.
This region is part of the corridor that connects the Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (STR) to the Male Mahadeshwara Hills Tiger Reserve and the Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary, and plays a crucial role in maintaining a viable tiger population.
These forests occupy a prominent position in the Eastern Ghats as they merge with the Western Ghat at the Nilgiris.
The vast landscape is home to diverse flora and fauna, making it an ideal habitat for various life forms.
The landscape is interconnected to the Kollegal forests of Karnataka and the Nilgiris, creating one of the most diverse habitats in the region.
It is one of the tiger corridors identified by the National Tiger Conservation Authority.
The region is also part of the Nilgiris Elephant Reserve and is home to a healthy population of large herbivores including elephants and the Indian Gaur.
Also, the landscape is the catchment of the Palar River that drains into the Cauvery River and is a crucial source of water for agricultural activities.
It is also of cultural and historical significance to tribal and local communities who depend on these ecosystems for their livelihoods and traditional practices.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/tn-gets-its-18th-wildlife-sanctuary-spanning-over-80000-hectares-of-reserve-forests-in-erode-district/article67799442.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the MagSafe:
- It is a wireless power bank that connects to the back of wireless-compatible mobiles.
- It uses the magnetic current to charge a mobile phone.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
There are a variety of power banks that are available online, but since the launch of MagSafe chargers from Apple, the industry has evolved.
MagSafe charger is a wireless charger/power bank that connects to the back of your wireless-compatible mobile phone to charge your phone in the easiest of ways.
It is equipped with either a 5,000 or a 10,000 mAh battery pack on the inside, which can be used as a power backup.
This type of charger uses the magnetic current present at the back of your mobile phone and the magnets on the MagSafe charger.
A good MagSafe charger is just like any other wireless power bank that attaches to your mobile phone and works as a power bank.
As with any other power bank, a MagSafe charger also needs to be charged.
Working
It is a type of power bank that is only compatible with devices that support wireless charging.
The MagSafe chargers, after you fix them directly on the back of your mobile phone, connect to the magnets on the charger that complete the circuit.
The complete circuit allows the current to flow from the power bank to the device, which allows the charger to charge your mobile phone.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/hot-picks/what-is-magsafe-how-does-magsafe-work/articleshow/107330984.cms
With reference to Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund, consider the following statements:
- It is a Central Sector Scheme.
- It is incentivizing entrepreneurs to establish dairy processing infrastructure.
- Under it, government entities and cooperatives are eligible to get incentives.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister of India approved the continuation of Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund (AHIDF) to be implemented under Infrastructure Development Fund (IDF) for another three years up to 2025-26.
It is a Central Sector Scheme.
It has been approved for incentivizing investments by individual entrepreneurs, private companies, MSME, Farmers Producers Organizations (FPOs) and Section 8 companies to establish
the dairy processing and value addition infrastructure
meat processing and value addition infrastructure and
Animal Feed Plant.
Objectives
To help increasing of milk and meat processing capacity and product diversification thereby providing greater access for unorganized rural milk and meat producers to organized milk and meat market.
To make available increased price realization for the producer.
To make available quality milk and meat products for the domestic consumer.
To promote exports and increase the export contribution in the milk and meat sector.
To make available quality concentrated animals feed to the cattle, buffalo, sheep, goat, pig and poultry to provide balanced ration at affordable prices.
Government of India will provide 3% interest subvention for 8 years including two years of moratorium for loan up to 90% from the scheduled bank and National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC), NABARD and NDDB.
Under this government entities and cooperatives are not eligible to get benefit of this scheme
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2001054
Subika paintings, recently seen in news, is linked to the cultural history of:
Meitei community
Explanation :
Manipur boasts a rich cultural heritage but some of its invaluable art forms like Subika paintings are on the brink of extinction due to neglect.
It a style of painting which is intricately linked to the Meitei community’s cultural history.
It is surviving through its six manuscripts — Subika, Subika Achouba, Subika Laishaba, Subika Choudit, Subika Cheithil and Thengrakhel Subika.
Although the royal chronicle, Cheitharol Kumbaba, doesn’t mention a specific founder, there is a possibility that this art form existed when the writing tradition was introduced in the state.
Experts estimate the use of Subika paintings since the 18th or 19th century.
Key points about Subika Laisaba
The painting of Subika Laisaba is a composition of cultural motifs made by pre-existing features and other influences stimulated from their cultural worldviews.
Among the six manuscripts, Subika Laishaba represents a direct and authentic continuation of the Meitei cultural tradition depicted through visual images.
The illustrations of Subika Laishaba have visual language from the elements such as lines, shapes, forms, colours, and patterns.
These visual images become Meitei’s cultural motif, structure to create visual effects as well as express cultural significance meaning and values.
The visual images found in this manuscript are painted on handmade paper.
It is also found that materials of manuscript are prepared indigenously either handmade paper or barks of tree.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/north-east-india/manipur/manipur-subika-style-painting-yumnam-sapha-9137297/
Consider the following statements regarding the Rebate of State and Central Taxes and Levies scheme:
- It aims to reimburse all embedded State and Central Taxes/Levies for exports of manufactured goods and garments.
- The rebate under the scheme shall be in the form of duty credit scrips.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Cabinet approved the continuation of Scheme for Rebate of State and Central Taxes and Levies (RoSCTL) for export of Apparel/Garments and Made ups upto 31st March 2026.
It aims to reimburse all embedded State and Central Taxes/Levies for exports of manufactured goods and garments.
It has been established as a successor for the old “Rebate of State Levies (RoSL) Scheme.
The difference between RoSL & RoSCTL Scheme is that under RoSL Scheme, there was no benefit on the central tax and Levies. But in the RoSCTL scheme, the exporter will get rebate of both State and Central tax and Levies.
Objective: To compensate for the State and Central Taxes and Levies in addition to the Duty Drawback Scheme on export of apparel/ garments and Made-ups by way of rebate.
The rebate under the Scheme shall be in the form of duty credit scrips.
The scrips shall be issued electronically on Customs system.
The duty credit scrips shall be used for payment of Basic Customs Duty on import of goods. These scrips shall be freely transferable.
The duty credit available in an e-scrip shall be transferred at a time for the entire amount in the said e-scrip to another person and transfer of the duty credit in part shall not be permitted.
Validity of e-scrip: The period of validity of the e-scrip, of one year from its creation, shall not change on account of transfer of the e-scrip.
Eligibility: All exporters of garments/Apparel and made-ups manufactured in India are eligible to take benefit under this scheme, except entities/ IECs under the Denied Entity List of the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT).
Implementing agency: It has been notified by the Ministry of Textiles. However, the scheme shall be implemented by the Department of Revenue.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2001049
Consider the following statements regarding Wheat Blast:
- It is a disease of wheat crop caused by a virus.
- It spreads through infected seeds, crop residues and spores.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Researchers who have modeled for the first time how wheat blast will spread in the future found the fungal disease could reduce global wheat production by 13% until 2050.
About Wheat Blast:
Wheat blast, caused by the plant fungus Magnaporthe oryzae, is a fast-acting, severe disease of wheat that causes bleaching of the heads.
Magnaporthe oryzae can infect many grasses, including barley, lolium, rice, and wheat, but specific isolates of this pathogen generally infect limited species; that is, wheat isolates infect preferably wheat plants but can use several more cereal and grass species as alternate hosts.
It spreads through infected seeds, crop residues, and spores that can travel long distances in the air.
It thrives in warm and humid conditions, making regions with such climates particularly susceptible.
The pathogen is also resistant to fungicides.
The seriousness of the disease is indicated by the fact that crops are burnt to avoid this disease.
Effects:
It causes progressive bleaching of the heads, lower yields, and poor seed quality.
Stems and leaves are discoloured, with dark brown, eye-shaped lesions on leaves.
Sometimes dark grey spores can be seen.
It can shrivel and deform the grain in less than a week from the first symptoms.
History of the Outbreak:
First found in Brazil in 1985, it spread quickly through South America, infecting around three million hectares of wheat within a decade.
In 2016, it made it across to Bangladesh, and in 2020, it was confirmed in Africa, in crops in Zambia.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.world-grain.com/articles/19580-researchers-find-wheat-blast-could-reduce-production-by-13
Consider the following statements regarding Millipedes:
- They are cylindrical or slightly flattened invertebrates.
- They are typically found in desert and arid areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers recently discovered a new genus and five new species of millipedes in remote African jungles.
About Millipedes:
They are any member of the arthropod class Diplopoda. (Arthropods are animals with hard exoskeletons and jointed limbs.)
They are cylindrical or slightly flattened invertebrates.
The word “millipede” translates to “a thousand feet”—but while millipedes have many feet, none of them quite have a thousand.
They’re not insects. They are actually more closely related to lobsters, crayfish, and shrimp.
There are approximately 12,000 species distributed worldwide.
Habitat: They are typically found in areas of high moisture and decaying vegetation, such as under trash, in piles of grass and leaves, etc.
Features:
They are usually blackish or brownish in color, but some are also red, orange, or have mottled patterns.
Their bodies are split into a number of segments, and each segment has two sets of legs that attach to the body’s underside, except for the first (head) segment, which is legless, and the next three segments, which each contain one pair of legs.
In addition, each segment contains two pairs of internal organs (i.e., two pairs of ganglia and two pairs of heart arteries).
The length ranges from 2 to 280 mm (0.08 to 11 inches).
They are not poisonous, but many species have glands capable of producing irritating fluids that may cause allergic reactions in some individuals.
Most millipedes are nocturnal and are primarily scavengers, feeding on decaying plants and occasionally dead insects. , although some species attack the roots of living plants.
Millipedes vs Centipedes:
Both centipedes and millipedes are made up of segments that link together to form one long body.
Millipedes have two sets of legs per segment, positioned directly under their body.
Centipedes have one set of legs per segment, positioned on the side of their body.
Centipedes mostly eat insects after killing them with their venom. Millipedes feast on decomposing plants.
They respond to threats in different ways. A millipede will coil up and release a smelly secretion. Centipedes can bite, (which is typically harmless to humans) and run away quickly.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-02-genus-alien-multi-legged-forest.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA):
- It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
- It extends financial assistance for setting up projects relating to renewable sources of energy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
IREDA in partnership with its knowledge partner Boston Consulting Group (BCG) recently convened a Strategic Meeting focusing on key aspects of business expansion and initiatives aimed at cost reduction in fund utilization.
About Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA):
It is a Mini Ratna (Category–I) non-banking financial institution under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
It is a Public Limited Government Company established as a Non-Banking Financial Institution (NBFC) in 1987.
REDA has been notified as a “Public Financial Institution” under Section 4 ‘A’ of the Companies Act, 1956, and registered as NBFC with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
REDA is primarily engaged in promoting, developing and extending financial assistance for setting up projects relating to new and renewable sources of energy and energy efficiency/conservation.
IREDA is the single largest “Green Financier” in the country. It caters to all technologies in the renewable energy sector and predominantly provides financing for the sector.
Motto: ENERGY FOR EVER
Objectives:
To give financial support to specific projects and schemes for generating electricity and/ or energy through new and renewable sources and conserving energy through energy efficiency.
To maintain its position as a leading organization to provide efficient and effective financing in renewable energy and energy efficiency/ conservation projects.
To increase IREDA`s share in the renewable energy sector by way of innovative financing.
Improvement in the efficiency of services provided to customers through continual improvement of systems, processes, and resources.
To strive to be a competitive institution through customer satisfaction.
Funding: IREDA generates its revenue through the interest and principal repayments from the projects it finances, as well as by raising funds from the market and through borrowings.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2002051
The GHAR Portal, recently seen in the news, is launched to:
digitally track and monitor the restoration and repatriation of children
Explanation :
GHAR - GO Home and Re-Unite Portal have been developed and launched by the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR).
About GHAR Portal:
It is a portal to digitally monitor and track the restoration and repatriation of children according to the protocols under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, and Rules thereof.
It has been developed and launched by the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR).
The following are the salient features of the portal:
Digital tracking and monitoring of children who are in the Juvenile Justice system and have to be repatriated to another Country/State/District.
Digital transfer of cases of children to the concerned Juvenile Justice Board/Child Welfare Committee of the State. It will help in the speedy repatriation of children.
Where there is a requirement of a translator/interpreter/expert, request will be made to the concerned State Government.
Child Welfare Committees and District Child Protection Officers can ensure proper restoration and rehabilitation of children by digitally monitoring the progress of the case.
A checklist format will be provided in the forms so that the children who are being hard to repatriate or children who are not getting their entitled compensation or other monetary benefits can be identified.
List of Government implemented schemes will be provided, so that at the time of restoration, the Child Welfare Committees can link the child with the schemes to strengthen the family and ensure that the child remains with his/her family.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2001879
With reference to the Inclusive Education for Disabled at Secondary Stage (IEDSS) scheme, consider the following statements:
- It provides assistance for the inclusive education of disabled children in classes IX-XII.
- It covers all children studying in both government and private schools.
- It is implemented by the School Education Department of the concerned State Governments/Union Territories.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Karnataka Government recently suspended five officers for dereliction of duty in the implementation of the Inclusive Education for Disabled at Secondary Stage (IEDSS) scheme.
About Inclusive Education for Disabled at Secondary Stage (IEDSS) scheme:
IEDSS has been launched from the year 2009-10. This Scheme replaces the earlier scheme of Integrated Education for Disabled Children (IEDC).
The aim of this scheme is to enable all students with disabilities to pursue four years of secondary education in an inclusive and enabling environment, after completing eight years of elementary schooling.
It provides assistance for the inclusive education of disabled children in classes IX-XII.
The scheme covers all children studying at the secondary stage in Government, local body and Government-aided schools, with one or more disabilities as defined under the Persons with Disabilities Act (1995) and the National Trust Act (1999) in the class IX to XII, namely blindness, low vision, leprosy cured, hearing impairment, locomotory disabilities, mental retardation, mental illness, autism, and cerebral palsy, and may eventually cover speech impairment, learning disabilities, etc.
Girls with the disabilities receive special focus to help them gain access to secondary schools, as also to information and guidance for developing their potential.
Setting up of Model inclusive schools in every State is envisaged under the scheme.
Components:
Student-oriented components, such as medical and educational assessment, books and stationery, uniforms, transport allowance, reader allowance, stipend for girls, support services, assistive devices, boarding the lodging facility, therapeutic services, teaching learning materials, etc.
Other components include appointment of special education teachers, allowances for general teachers for teaching such children, teacher training, orientation of school administrators, establishment of resource room, providing barrier free environment, etc.
Implementing Agency:
The School Education Department of the State Governments/Union Territory (UT) Administrations are the implementing agencies.
They may involve NGOs having experience in the field of education of the disabled in the implementation of the scheme.
Financial Assistance:
Central assistance for all items covered in the scheme is on 100 percent basis.
The State governments are only required to make provisions for scholarship of Rs. 600/- per disabled child per annum.
This scheme now subsumed under Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) from 2013.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/five-education-dept-officers-suspended-for-misappropriation-of-iedss-scheme-grants/article67803901.ece
Cygnus X-1, recently seen in the news, is a:
black hole
Explanation :
Astro Sat, India’s first, dedicated multi-wavelength astronomy mission, accomplished the difficult task of measuring the X-ray polarisation of the Cygnus X-1 black hole system.
It was discovered over four decades ago.
It is one of the first confirmed black hole systems in our galaxy.
The black hole in Cygnus X-1 is 20 times heavier than the Sun, and has a companion - a heavy supergiant star (40 times more massive than the Sun) in a binary system.
It is located at a distance that is about 400 times more than the distance between Earth and Sun.
Due to the gravitational pull of the black hole, material from the supergiant falls and spirals in towards the black hole.
This process leads to the formation of a thin accretion disk which is responsible for soft X-rays.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: News:https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/pune/astrosat-detects-polarised-high-energy-x-rays-black-hole-9131164/
Consider the following statements regarding the C- CARES portal:
- It helps in grievance redressal of Coal Mines Provident Fund Organization subscribers.
- It is developed by the National Informatics centre.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the union Minister of Coal, Mines and Parliamentary Affairs launched a web portal of Coal Mines Provident Fund Organization (CMPFO) namely C- CARES.
It is developed and designed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC).
The portal, will allow CMPF subscribers and coal companies to login and perform various functions tailored to their needs.
While the subscribers can access and view their individual details and subscription status, the coal management can submit contribution details, subscribers’ particulars and claims for online settlement and payment through the portal.
It will also ensure paperless working, timely and accurate settlement of claims, reduction in processing time and grievance redressal.
The portal being a public service platform is intended to benefit the CMPF subscribers who are working in the coal sector as well as its pensioners.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2001048
With reference to Nano DAP, consider the following statements:
- It is a unique granular fertilizer product.
- It is a source of nitrogen and phosphorus which are essential for the growth of crops.
- It enhances the nutritional quality of harvested food produce.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Finance Minister of India, presenting the interim budget announced the expansion of the application of Nano DAP on various crops in all agro climatic zones.
It is a unique liquid fertilizer product that contains nanoparticles of Diammonium Phosphate (DAP).
It is a source of nitrogen and phosphorus – 2 key primary nutrient essential for the growth of crops.
It is containing 8% Nitrogen and 16% Phosphorus by volume.
Unlike conventional DAP, which comes in granular form, IFFCO’s Nano DAP is in liquid form.
It has an advantage in terms of surface area to volume, as its particle size is less than 100 Nanometre (nm).”
Advantages of NANO DAP
Higher Crop Yield: Due to small size and more surface area to volume ratio; seed treatment and foliar application of Nano DAP at critical growth stages enhances nutrient availability to crops.Hence, Crop yield increases due to increase in leaf chlorophyll, photosynthesis, root biomass, number of effective tillers and branches.
Quality Food: Nutritional quality of harvested food produce was found to be better in terms of protein and nutrient content.
Reduction in Chemical Fertilizer Usage: Enhanced use efficiency of one bottle (500 ml) of Nano DAP can potentially replace the phosphorus requirement met by conventional DAP by 50%.
Environment Friendly: Production of Nano DAP is energy and resource friendly. Precision and targeted application of this to crops therefore leads to agriculture sustainability and safety of the environment by reducing soil, air and water pollution.
It is more pocket-friendly than its conventional counterpart. A 500 ml bottle of Nano DAP, equivalent to a 50-kg bag of conventional DAP
It is set to significantly reduce this import burden.
Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/sitharaman-nano-dap-fertiliser-budget-9138989/
Consider the following statements regarding the Exercise Vayu Shakti:
- It is held once every three years.
- It demonstrates the offensive and defensive capabilities of the Indian Air Force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Indian Air Force will be conducting Exercise Vayu Shakti-24 on 17 February 2024 at the Pokhran Air to Ground Range, near Jaisalmer.
The Indian Air Force is slated to carry out three large scale war games on February 17, namely, Vayu Shakti, Gagan Shakti and Tarang Shakti.
It will be a riveting demonstration of the offensive and defensive capabilities of the IAF, spanning across day and night.
The exercise will also showcase joint operations with the Indian Army.
Exercise Vayu Shakti
The IAF will first undertake the major “Vayu Shakti” firepower demonstration, which is held once every three years, with 135 fighters, aircraft, helicopters and drones at the Pokhran field firing ranges.
Gagan Shakti’
The second mega exercise will be ‘Gagan Shakti’.
In this, almost the entire air fleet race would be activated from north to south, and from west to east to test integrated war fighting strategies and tactics with the other two forces and other stakeholders.
All the potent weapon systems like the Rafale fighter aircraft and the S-400 air defense systems would be participating in the ‘Gagan Shakti’ exercise.
The exercise, which is held once in five years, is also going to be the biggest ever of the series with active participation from other two services.
Tarang Shakti
The third major exercise, Tarang Shakti, would be the first ever multinational exercise to be held in the country.
This will see aircraft from friendly air forces like the US, Germany, France, Australia and neighbouring and other friendly countries taking part in it.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2001820
Consider the following statements regarding the Law Commission of India:
- It is a non-statutory body constituted with a definite terms of reference.
- The first Law Commission of independent India was established under the chairmanship of M. C. Setalvad.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The 22nd Law Commission of India led by Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi has recommended that the offence of criminal defamation should be retained in the new criminal laws.
It is a non-statutory body and is constituted by a notification of the Government of India, Ministry of Law & Justice.
It is constituted with a definite terms of reference to carry out research in the field of law and the Commission makes recommendations to the Government (in the form of Reports) as per its terms of reference.
It functions to the Ministry of Law and Justice as an advisory body.
History of Law Commission of India
The first pre-independence law commission was established in 1834 by the British Government in India.
It was established by the Charter Act of 1833 and was chaired by Lord Macaulay.
The first Law Commission of independent India was established in 1955 under the chairmanship of the former Attorney General for India M. C. Setalvad.
This Commission was created for a period of three years and this practice has persisted ever since then, resulting in the reconstitution of Law Commissions every three years via executive orders.
The executive orders that constitute the Law Commissions also specify their scope and purpose, and thus these fluctuate periodically.
Since then, twenty one more Law Commissions have been constituted, each with a three-year term and with certain terms of reference.
The Law Commission has taken up various subjects on references made by Department of Legal Affairs, Supreme Court and High Courts.
The Twenty Second Law Commission has been notified with effect from 21st February, 2020 for a term of 3 years.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/india/criminal-defamation-criminal-laws-law-panel-9141036/
Which of the following reasons led to the crisis in the Jagirdari system during the later period of the Mughals?
- There was a scarcity of lands or jagirs.
- Income indicated on paper from jagirs was not obtained.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Jagirdari Crisis was a financial condition in which there was a scarcity of lands or jagirs. Following the annexation of Bijapur and Golconda, the best and most easily manageable jagirs had been kept by Aurangzeb in the khalisa, i.e., direct management in order to pay for the war. Jagirs in the newly conquered areas, i.e., the Karnataka yielded little income since the area was still unsettled. So, point 1 is correct.
The nobles were unable to get from their jagirs the income indicated on paper. In consequence, many of them were unable to maintain their stipulated quota of troops. The position in the Deccan was particularly bad. Due to the disturbed conditions, and the lack of a proper contingent on the part of the nobles. So, point 2 is correct.
Therefore, option c is the correct answer.
The term ‘Ijaradar’ is related to :
Revenue farmer
Explanation :
Ijaradar is a revenue farmer. ijara means farming of revenue. In the Mughal period ijara or farming system was prevalent. A revenue farmer was known as Ijaradar or Mustajir.
Therefore, Option (d) is the correct answer.
With reference to Indian history, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Murshid Quli Khan declared Bengal an independent state separate from the Mughal empire.
- Awadh was established by Saadat Khan as a result of the weakening of the Mughal empire.
- Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf Jah of Hyderabad established his control over the Coromandel coast by defeating the British.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2 only
Explanation :
Murshid Quli Khan who started his career as Diwan of Bengal under the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb became virtually independent with the growing weakening of the central authority. However, he regularly sent tribute to the Mughal emperor and never declared total independence from the Mughal empire. So, statement 1 is not correct.
With the weakening central control, the Mughal suba of Awadh became virtually independent under Saadat Khan Burhan ul Mulk. Saadat Khan disciplined the local zamindars and gave shape to a well-paid, well-armed and well-trained army. Before his death in 1739, Saadat Khan made the provincial head a hereditary position. So, statement 2 is correct.
The founder of the Asaf-Jah house of Hyderabad was Kilich Khan, popularly known as Nizam-ul-Mulk. The state of Hyderabad was constantly engaged in a struggle against the Marathas to the west and with independent Telugu warrior chiefs (nayakas) of the plateau. The ambitions of the Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf Jah to control the rich textile-producing areas of the Coromandel coast in the east were, however, checked by the British who were becoming increasingly powerful in that region. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
“Sixty lakhs of rupees and some thousand gold coins, nearly one crore worth of gold-ware, nearly fifty crores worth of jewels, most of them unrivalled in the world, and the above
included the Peacock throne”. Above given description of the invasion was done by ?
Nadir Shah
Explanation :
The devastation of Delhi after Nadir Shah’s invasion was described by contemporary observers. One described the wealth looted from the Mughal treasury as follows:
sixty lakhs of rupees and some thousand gold coins, nearly one crore worth of gold-ware, nearly fifty crores worth of jewels, most of them unrivaled in the world, and the above included the Peacock throne.
In the midst of this economic and political crisis, the ruler of Iran, Nadir Shah, sacked and plundered the city of Delhi in 1739 and took away immense amounts of wealth. This invasion was followed by a series of plundering raids by the Afghan ruler Ahmad
Shah Abdali, who invaded north India five times between 1748 and 1761.
Therefore, Option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following Later Mughal Rulers:
- Farrukh Siyar
- Jahandar Shah
- Alamgir II
- Mohammad Shah
What is the correct chronological order of these rulers ?
2-1-4-3
Ruler - State
Amongst the states that were carved out of the old Mughal provinces in the eighteenth century, three stand out very prominently. These were Awadh, Bengal and Hyderabad. All three states were founded by members of the high Mughal nobility who had been governors of large provinces – Sa‘adat Khan (Awadh), Murshid Quli Khan (Bengal) and Asaf Jah (Hyderabad).
The term ‘Watan jagir” is related to :
Autonomous land under Rajput rulers
Explanation :
Many Rajput kings, particularly those belonging to Amber and Jodhpur, had served under the Mughals with distinction. In exchange, they were permitted to enjoy considerable autonomy in their watan jagirs.
Therefore, Option (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following Mughal ruler captured and executed Banda Singh Bahadur?
Farrukh Siyar
Explanation :
After Death Tenth Sikh Guru, Guru Gobind Singh in 1708, the Khalsa rose in revolt against the Mughal authority under Banda Bahadur’s leadership, declared their sovereign rule by striking coins in the name of Guru Nanak and Guru Gobind Singh, and established their own administration between the Sutlej and the Jamuna. Banda Bahadur was captured in 1715 and executed in 1716 during the reign of Farrukh Siyar.
Therefore, Option (b) is the correct answer.
The term ‘Kunbis’ is related to:
Pastoralists
Explanation :
The Maratha kingdom was another powerful regional kingdom to arise out of a sustained opposition to Mughal rule. Shivaji (1627-1680) carved out a stable kingdom with the support of powerful warrior families (deshmukhs). Groups of highly mobile, peasant pastoralists (kunbis) provided the backbone of the Maratha army.
With reference to taxes imposed by Marathas, consider the following statements:
- Chauth was a levy on one-fourth of the revenue demand of a district.
- Sardeshmukhi was a tribute paid to the king as an additional 10% levy on top of the Chauth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
By the 1730s, the Maratha king was recognised as the overlord of the
entire Deccan peninsula. He possessed the right to levy chauth and sardeshmukhi in the entire region.
25 per cent of the land revenue claimed by zamindars. In the Deccan this was collected by the Marathas.
Chauth was a regular tax or tribute imposed from the early 18th century by the Maratha Empire in the Indian subcontinent. It was an annual tax nominally levied at 25% on revenue or produce, hence the name, on lands that were under nominal Mughal rule.
Chauth (from Sanskrit meaning one-fourth) was an annual tax or tribute imposed, from early 18th century, by the Maratha Empire in India. It was nominally levied at 25% on revenue or produce, hence the name. The right to assess and collect this tax was asserted first by Shivaji in the later 17th century, on spurious grounds that his family was hereditary tax collectors in Maharashtra. He extracted chauth from the Muslim kingdoms of Bijapur and Golconda. The sardeshmukhi was an additional 10% levy on top of the chauth.It is a tribute paid to the king. Sardeshmukhi 9-10 per cent of the land revenue paid to the head revenue collector in the Deccan. Hence, Both 1 and 2 statement are correct.
Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding Forest Owlet, recently seen in the news:
- It is mostly found in deciduous and tropical dry forests.
- It is diurnal and has been observed to hunt during the day.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Three back-to-back sightings of endangered Forest Owlet took place in the Melghat Tiger Reserve during a camp held recently.
About Forest Owlet:
It is a member of the typical owl family, Strigidae.
Scientific Name: Athene blewitti
It was first described in 1873. As it was not sighted after 1884, it was considered extinct for many years. In1997, it was rediscovered.
Distribution:
It is endemic to the forests of central India.
It was observed in Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat, and at a few locations in the Melghat Tiger Reserve in Maharashtra.
Habitat: The natural ecosystems and habitats of these species include tropical and subtropical moist lowland woods, dense deciduous woodlands, open dry deciduous teak woods, and tropical and subtropical dry forests.
Features:
It is small and stocky. It measures 20 to 25 cm in length and weighing 240 gram.
It is a typical owlet with a rather unspotted crown, presence of full throat collar, thickly feathered legs, heavily banded wings, and a tail.
The upperparts are dark grayish brown. The underparts are whitish with dark barring.
The bill of the owlet is short and pale yellow in color.
These birds are diurnal and have been observed to hunt during the day.
They eat rodents, reptiles such as lizards and skinks, and insects.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Endangered
CITES: Appendix I
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.deccanherald.com/india/maharashtra/wildlife-odyssey-at-melghat-tiger-reserve-to-spot-the-endangered-forest-owlet-2876577
With reference to Atmospheric Rivers, consider the following statements:
- They transport moist air from the tropics to higher latitudes.
- They are more frequent on the West Coast than they are on the East Coast of continents.
- They primarily occur during the winter of the respective hemisphere.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A second, more powerful atmospheric river storm was headed for Southern California recently, threatening to unleash life-threatening floods and landslides.
About Atmospheric Rivers:
Atmospheric rivers are long, concentrated regions in the atmosphere that transport moist air from the tropics to higher latitudes.
They are responsible for 90 percent of the movement of moisture from the tropics toward the poles.
They are the largest transport mechanisms of freshwater on Earth.
They form when large-scale weather patterns align to create narrow channels, or filaments, of intense moisture transport.
Ten or more atmospheric rivers can be happening at once across the globe.
A well-known and strong one is the Pineapple Express, with moisture transported from the tropical Pacific around Hawaii to the US and Canadian West Coasts.
Features:
Typically, 250 to 375 miles wide, atmospheric rivers can stretch more than a thousand miles long.
They are more frequent on the East Coast than they are on the West Coast.
They primarily occur during the winter of the respective hemisphere, when extratropical cyclones are most prevalent.
The average atmospheric river carries an amount of water vapor roughly equivalent to the average flow of water at the mouth of the Mississippi River (second-longest river in North America).
When atmospheric rivers run up against mountains or run into local atmospheric dynamics and are forced to ascend, the moisture they carry cools and condenses, so they can produce intense rainfall or snowfall.
While they are an incredibly important source of rainfall, they can also bring flashflooding, mudslides, and landslides, sometimes killing people and destroying property.
When atmospheric rivers pass over land, they can cause conditions similar to those of hurricanes with intense and rapid rainfall, cyclone-force winds, and significantly increased wave heights.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/world/story/stronger-storm-california-deadly-floods-2497074-2024-02-03
Which one of the following best describes “Trichoglossum”, recently seen in the news?
A genus of fungus
Explanation :
Researchers recently discovered a new fungus species in Kerala named Trichoglossum syamviswanathii.
About Trichoglossum:
Trichoglossum is a genus of fungus classified within the family Geoglossaceae (Ascomycota), commonly known as “hairy earth tongues” fungusdue to their numerous filaments resembling mushrooms.
They are black, dark, or brown in colour.
They exhibit saprotrophic behavior but can also be found as endophytes in plant roots.
55 Trichoglossum genera have been identified globally. Of these, 21 are recognized species.
They are globally distributed in tropical and temperate forests at least five out of seven continents of the world.
They play a critical role in the decomposition of organic matter.
Key Facts about Fungi:
Fungi, along with Animalia (animals), Plantae (plants), Protista, Archaea/Archaebacteria, and Bacteria or Eubacteria, form the six ‘kingdoms’ of biology.
They are eukaryotic organisms, i.e., their cells contain membrane-bound organelles and clearly defined nuclei.
Reproduction: Fungi usually reproduce both sexually and asexually.
Distribution:
Fungi are either terrestrial or aquatic, the latter living in freshwater or marine environments.
They are found in all temperate and tropical regions of the world where there is sufficient moisture to enable them to grow.
A few species of fungi live in the Arctic and Antarctic regions, although they are rare and are more often found living in symbiosis with algae in the form of lichens.
Importance of fungi:
They help in breaking down dead organic material; they continue the cycle of nutrients through ecosystems.
Fungi, as food, play a role in human nutrition in the form of mushrooms.
They also act as agents of fermentation in the production of bread, cheeses, alcoholic beverages, and numerous other food preparations.
Secondary metabolites of fungi are used as medicines, such as antibiotics and anticoagulants.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://keralakaumudi.com/en/news/news.php?id=1241993&u=new-species-of-fungus-aiding-in-increasing-soil-fertility-discovered-in-kerala
What is ‘Obelisks’, that was in the news recently?
A class of virus-like entities
Explanation :
Scientists recently uncovered a never-before-seen class of virus-like entities named obelisks in the human body.
About Obelisks:
It is a newly discovered class of virus-like entities present in the human body.
It comprises a class of diverse RNAs that have colonized and gone unnoticed in human and global microbiomes.
Named after the highly symmetrical, rod-like structures formed by their twisted lengths of RNA, the Obelisks’ genetic sequences are only around 1,000 characters (nucleotides) in size.
These mysterious bits of genetic material have no detectable sequences or even structural similarities known to any other biological agents.
They’re also significantly larger than other genetic molecules that coexist inside cells, from plants to bacteria, called plasmids, which are more commonly composed of DNA.
Obelisks represent their own class of organism. They lie somewhere between viruses and viroids.
Although the hosts of other obelisks remain unknown, there is a possibility that some of them may be found in bacteria.
Different types of Obelisks appear to be present indifferent areas of our bodies.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livescience.com/health/viruses-infections-disease/mysterious-virus-like-obelisks-found-in-the-human-gut-and-mouth
What is the “Reading Down” provision in legal interpretation?
An approach to give a narrowed or restricted meaning to a provision
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently observed that if a plain reading of a clause fulfills the object and purpose of the statute, then the rule of ‘Reading Down’ the clause would not be applied just because the clause imposes harsher consequences.
About ‘Reading Down’ the clause:
“Reading Down” provision is one of the many methods the court may turn to when it finds that a particular provision, if for its plain meaning, cannot be saved from invalidation.
It refers to a legal interpretation approach where a court, while examining the validity of a statute, attempts to give a narrowed or restricted meaning to a particular provision to uphold its constitutionality.
When a court encounters a provision that, if interpreted according to its plain and literal meaning, might lead to constitutional or legal issues, the court may opt to read down the provision.
Reading down involves construing the language of the provision in a manner that limits its scope or application, making it consistent with constitutional or legal principles.
So, by restricting or reading it down, the court makes it workable to salvage and save the provision from invalidation.
This principle is rooted in the idea that courts should make every effort to preserve the validity of legislation and should only declare a law invalid as a last resort.
The rule of “Reading Down” is only for the limited purpose of making a provision workable and its objective achievable.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/a-perfectly-valid-provision-cant-be-read-down-just-because-it-imposes-harsher-consequences-supreme-court-248427#:~:text=%E2%80%9CReading%20Down%E2%80%9D%20a%20provision%20is,save%20the%20provision%20from%20invalidation.
The INS Sandhayak is a:
survey vessel ship
Explanation :
The Indian Navy commissioned its latest survey vessel, Sandhayak, at Naval Dockyard in Vizag in the presence of defence minister.
It is the first in a series of four Survey Vessel (Large) ships being constructed at Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata
The primary purpose of the ship is to conduct comprehensive coastal and deep-water Hydrographic Surveys for Port and Harbour approaches, as well as determining navigational channels and routes.
The operational zone extends up to maritime limits, covering the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) and extended continental shelf.
Additionally, the vessel is equipped to gather oceanographic and geophysical data, serving both defence and civil applications.
In its secondary role, the ship can offer limited defence capabilities and serve as a hospital ship during wartime or emergencies.
It is equipped with cutting-edge hydrographic tools, including a Data Acquisition and Processing System, Autonomous Underwater Vehicle, Remotely Operated Vehicle, DGPS Long-range positioning systems, and Digital side-scan sonar.
Powered by two diesel engines, the vessel boasts a speed capability exceeding 18 knots.
Measuring 110 meters in length and displacing 3400 tons, INS Sandhayak has an indigenous content of over 80 per cent by cost.
This ship is re-incarnated in its present avatar from erstwhile Sandhayak, which was decommissioned in 2021.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2002179
Consider the following statements regarding the Aldabra rail:
- It is a coral species found in Antarctica.
- It has evolved twice through a process called iterative evolution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The flightless Aldabra rail went extinct over 130,000 years ago, but the species then reappeared via iterative evolution.
Scientific name: Dryolimnas cuvieri aldabranus
It lives on a coral atoll off the southeast coast of Africa.
Appearance: It’s about the size of a chicken, with a flecked gray back, a rusty red head and chest and a white throat.
It is a subspecies of the white-throated rail (Dryolimnas cuvieri) and is the only living flightless bird in the Indian Ocean.
In losing its ability to fly once again, the Aldabra rail has essentially evolved twice, rising from the dead through a process called iterative evolution.
A 2019 study published in the Zoological Journal of the Linnean Society examined the fossil record of rails in Aldabra and found evidence of a flightless rail on the atoll from before it was submerged beneath the waves 136,000 years ago.
What is Iterative evolution?
Iterative evolution can be defined as “the repeated evolution of a specific trait or body plan from the same ancestral lineage at different points in time.”
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.livescience.com/animals/birds/aldabra-rail-the-bird-that-came-back-from-the-dead-by-evolving-twice
With reference to Codex Alimentarius Commission, consider the following statements:
- It was jointly established by Food and Agriculture Organisation and World Health Organisation.
- It contributes to harmonization of food standards across the globe.
- Its standards are recognized by the World Trade Organisation for the resolution of trade disputes.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The 7th session of the Codex Committee on Spices and Culinary Herbs (CCSCH) was held from 29th January 2024 to 2nd February 2024 at Kochi.
It was established as one of the Commodity Committees under the Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC) in 2013.
India hosts this prestigious Committee since the beginning and Spices Board India serves as the secretariat organization which organizes the Committee’s sessions.
In CCSCH 7th session quality standards for 5 spices, namely small cardamom, turmeric, juniper berry, allpice and star anise were finalised.
Codex Alimentarius Commission
It was jointly established by FAO and WHO.
It is an international, intergovernmental body which is based in Rome.
Members: It consists of 189 member countries.
Membership of the Commission is open to all Member Nations and Associate Members of FAO and WHO which are interested in international food standards.
The Commission meets in regular sessions once a year, alternating between Geneva and Rome.
Funding: The programme of work of the Commission is funded through the regular budgets of WHO and FAO, with all work subject to the approval of the two governing bodies of the parent organisations.
The Commission works in the six official languages of the UN.
The standards of CAC are recognized by the WTO as international reference points for the resolution of trade disputes concerning food safety and consumer protection.
The standards developed by the Committees under the CAC, including the CCSCH, are voluntary in nature, which the member countries of the CAC adopt and use as reference standards to align their national standards.
The works of CAC contribute to harmonization of food standards across the globe, facilitate fair global trade in food, and enhance food safety to safeguard the health of global consumers.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2002168
Consider the following statements regarding the National Research Foundation:
- It is an apex body which aims to increase private sector contributions to research in India.
- The Union Minister of Science & Technology is the ex-officio President of its governing board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Despite approving a Bill to set up a National Research Foundation (NRF) to boost scientific advancement in the country just eight months earlier, the Union government was silent on allocation for the institution or progress made so far in the interim budget for 2024-25.
It is an apex body to provide high-level strategic direction of scientific research in the country in accordance with the recommendations of the National Education Policy (NEP), will be established at a cost of 50,000 crore over the period 2023-28.
It enhances “India’s national research infrastructure, knowledge enterprise, and innovation potential, for scientific pursuit”.
Goals: To increase private sector contributions to research in India and to ensure that a larger portion of government funds go to state universities and colleges.
Nodal Agency: The Department of Science and Technology (DST) will be NRF’s administrative department.
Governing body:
The Prime Minister will be the ex-officio President of the Board.
The Union Minister of Science & Technology & Union Minister of Education will be the ex-officio Vice-Presidents.
NRF’s functioning will be governed by an Executive Council chaired by the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India.
Functions
Forge collaborations among the industry, academia, and government departments and research institutions, and create an interface mechanism for participation and contribution of industries and State governments in addition to the scientific and line ministries.
It will focus on creating a policy framework and putting in place regulatory processes that can encourage collaboration and increased spending by the industry on R&D.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/science-technology/union-budget-2024-25-scientists-disappointed-over-silence-on-national-research-foundation-94216
Consider the following statements regarding the Stingless bees:
- These are native to the Amazon.
- The honey produced by these bees is used as natural medicine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
To protect Amazon, conservators try to save pollinator Stingless bees.
A stingless bee is a bee that appears very similar to a honeybee, but is incapable of stinging.
These bees are eusocial, which means that they live together in hives and produce honey.
These are native to the Amazon.
Their honey, which is runny enough to be drunk like a liquid and is said to have a citrusy aftertaste
It is used by many Indigenous Peruvians as a natural medicine.
Distribution: Stingless bees can be found in most tropical and subtropical regions.
These bees cannot sting but nature has made sure to give them other ways of defending themselves.
These bees do possess stingers, but they are too small to be useful in defense. Instead of stinging, stingless bees use their mandibles to bite their attackers.
Threats:
The Amazon is home to hundreds of species of stingless bee, but as deforestation converts the tropical landscape into farms and ranches, these and other native pollinators are in danger of disappearing.
Pesticides and climate change
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.nytimes.com/2024/01/30/science/amazon-stingless-bees-honey.html
Consider the following statements regarding Hydrothermal systems:
- These are found near mid-ocean ridges only.
- Their formation requires the existence of water, pressure and impermeability of minerals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
New maps have revealed a hidden hydrothermal system beneath Lake Rotorua, which sits at the heart of a dormant volcano in New Zealand.
About Hydrothermal Systems:
Hydrothermal systems occur in areas with high heat fluxes, both on continents, near convergent plate boundaries, and on the ocean floor, near the mid-ocean ridges.
Their formation requires the existence of three important components: fluids, heat, and permeability through rocks so that fluids can circulate.
These systems are often found near mid-ocean ridges, where tectonic plates diverge and new seafloor is created.
How hydrothermal systems work?
Hydrothermal systems occur when seawater percolates down through fractures in the oceanic crust, heating up as it nears the earth’s hot interior.
Descending seawater interacts with the oceanic crust, removing chemicals from the rocks as it heats to 350-400 degrees Celsius, about four times hotter than boiling water (the extreme pressure in the ocean’s depths prevents fluids from boiling).
This interaction of seawater and crust produces hydrothermal fluid, chemically modified slurry of gases and dissolved elements, including metals.
The superheated fluid is then ejected back up to the seafloor and promptly chilled by near-freezing ocean bottom waters.
Chemicals dissolved in the fluid precipitate at the vent, forming chimney-like deposits.
These deposits support deep-sea chemosynthetic communities—organisms that rely on chemicals rather than photosynthesis to fuel their metabolism.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://www.livescience.com/planet-earth/bizarre-magnetic-anomaly-discovered-deep-below-new-zealands-lake-rotorua
The Corbett Tiger Reserve is located in:
Uttarakhand
Explanation :
Five people have been killed near Uttarakhand’s Corbett Tiger Reserve in the past two months.
About Corbett Tiger Reserve:
Location:
It is located on the foothills of the Himalayas in Uttarakhand.
By and large, the reserve is spread over the Bhabar and lower Shivalik regions with a deep water table.
Corbett is the first national park of India, established in 1936. It was named Hailey National Park then. In 1957, the park was rechristned Corbett National Park in memory of the late Jim Corbett, a great naturalist and eminent conservationist.
Today, after the addition of areas to the originally declared National Park, the total area of Tiger Reserve extends to 1288.31 sq. km.
Vegetation: In general, the vegetation comprises of sal and mixed forests, interspersed with grasslands and riparian vegetation.
The terrain is undulating, with several valleys. The rivers Ramganga, Pallaen, and Sonanadi flow through the valleys.
The habitat is characterized by open meadows (chaurs) interspersed with sal and moist, mixed deciduous forests.
The grasslands are locally known as ‘Chaur’, which are an outcome of abandoned settlements or past clearings.
Flora: It consists of evergreen Sal and its combined trees, the Sheesham, and the Kanju found extensively on the ridges.
Fauna: Tiger and elephant are the charismatic mammals, besides a large array of co-predators (leopard, small carnivores), ungulates (sambar, hog deer, spotted deer), birds, reptiles (gharial, crocodile) and fishes.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/5-killed-in-conflict-with-tigers-aroundcorbett-since-dec-101706638089219.html
With reference to the Mekong River, consider the following:
- It is the longest river in Asia.
- It rises in the Tibetan Plateau.
- It drains into the South China Sea.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A multibillion-dollar dam project underway across the Mekong River in Laos has prompted concerns that it could result in Luang Prabang city losing its UNESCO World Heritage Site status.
About Mekong River:
It is the longest river in Southeast Asia, the 7th longest in Asia, and the 12th longest in the world.
It has a length of about 2,700 miles (4,350 km).
Course:
It rises in southeastern Qinghai province, China.
It originates from the Sanjianyuang in the Tibetan Plateau, with the area designated a national nature reserve to protect the headwaters of the Yangtze, Yellow, and Mekong Rivers.
The river drains approximately 795,000 square kilometers and flows through six Asian countries: China, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, Thailand, and Cambodia, where it is referred to by different names.
Vientiane (Viangchan), the capital of Laos, and Phnom Penh, the capital of Cambodia, both stand on its banks.
The river drains into the South China Sea south of Ho Chi Minh City (Vietnam).
Tributaries: The left-bank tributaries (draining high rainfall areas) include Nam Ou, Tha, and Nam Khan, while the right-bank tributaries (draining the lower relief region) are Ruak, Kok, Tonle Sap, and Mun.
Its biodiversity is only second to the Amazon River Basin and contains about 20,000 plant species, 1,200 birds, 430 mammals, 800 amphibians and reptiles, and 850 fish species.
It is the river with the most large fish species, including giant freshwater stingrays, giant pangasius, Mekong giant catfish, and giant barb.
The Mekong creates a huge delta, or triangular piece of land, in southern Vietnam. The delta has rich soil and is one of the world’s great producers of rice.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/dam-project-across-mekong-river-in-laos-raises-fears/article67804853.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Candida auris (C. auris):
- It is a multidrug-resistant bacterium.
- It is primarily contracted in healthcare settings such as hospitals and nursing homes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A deadly fungal infection called Candida auris has been spreading rapidly in the United States recently.
About Candida auris (C. auris):
It is an emerging multidrug-resistant yeast (fungus) that represents a global health threat.
It is capable of causing invasive infections in the human body. It can cause severe illness in people with weakened immune systems.
Scientists first discovered C. auris in Japan in 2009. Since then, it has spread quickly to other countries.
Transmission:
It is primarily contracted in healthcare settings, such as hospitals and nursing homes.
It can also live on the skin or other body parts without making a person sick. This is called being “colonized.”
The fungus can either colonize a specific region of the body, such as the skin, rectum, or mouth, without causing symptoms or it can cause severe invasive infections by entering the bloodstream or wounds.
It can be spread through contact with contaminated surfaces or equipment, or from physical contact with a person who is infected or colonized.
Symptoms:
It can cause infections in different parts of the body, such as the bloodstream, open wounds, and ears.
The symptoms depend on the location and severity of the C. auris infection.
Symptoms may be similar to those of an infection caused by bacteria. There is not a common set of symptoms specific to C. auris infections.
A high fever with chills that does not get better after taking antibiotics may be a sign of a C. auris infection.
Treatment:
Most C. auris infections are treatable with antifungal drugs.
However, some C. auris infections have been resistant to all three main classes of antifungal medications, making them more difficult to treat and often requires the use of combination therapies.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/deadly-fungal-infection-candida-auris-spreading-in-us-rapidly-all-you-need-to-know-4991280
With reference to the e-National Agriculture Market (eNAM), consider the following statements:
- It is an online trading platform for agricultural commodities completely funded by the Government of India.
- The Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) acts as the lead agency for implementing e-Nam.
- It facilitates farmers to sell their products through a competitive and transparent price discovery system.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
With more states facilitating the trade of agricultural commodities on the eNAM, a spurt in trading among various markets within the state as well as at the inter-state level is being witnessed.
About eNAM:
It is an online trading platform for agricultural commodities in India.
It was launched on April 14, 2016, and is completely funded by the Government of India.
The Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) acts as the lead agency for implementing e-Nam under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer’s Welfare.
It aims to create better marketing opportunities for the farmers to sell their products through a competitive and transparent price discovery system, along with an online payment facility for the buyers.
The NAM portal networks the existing APMC (Agriculture Produce Marketing Committee) / Regulated Marketing Committee (RMC) market yards, sub-market yards, private markets, and other unregulated markets to unify all the nationwide agricultural markets by creating a central online platform for agricultural commodity price discovery.
Features:
It will enable farmers to showcase their products through their nearby markets and facilitate traders from anywhere to quote prices.
It provides single-window services for all APMC related services and information. This includes commodity arrivals, quality and prices, buy-and-sell offers, and e-payment settlements directly into farmer’s accounts, among other services.
Using the eNAM service, licenses for traders, buyers, and commission agents can be obtained from state-level authorities without any pre-condition of the physical presence or possession of a shop or premises in the market yard.
Harmonisation of quality standards of agricultural products and infrastructure for quality testing are made available in every market.
Provision of Soil Testing Laboratories is provided for the selected mandi (market) in order to facilitate the farmers visiting the mandi.
e-NAM is designed and implemented to benefit all the stakeholders: farmers, mandis, traders, buyers, Farmer Producer Organization (FPOs), processers, and exporters.
The benefits to stakeholders include:
Transparent online trading with enhanced accessibility to the market.
Real-time price discovery for better and more stable price realization for producers.
Reduced transaction costs for buyers.
Availability of information on the e-NAM mobile app about commodity prices.
The details of the price of commodity sold, along with the quantity, are received through SMS.
Quality certification.
More efficient supply chain and warehouse-based sales.
Online payment directly to the bank accounts of the farmers.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.financialexpress.com/policy/economy-farm-gate-inter-mandi-e-nam-sales-surge-in-fy24-18-million-farmers-across-1361-mandis-on-the-platform-3384093/
Dusted Apollo, recently seen in the news, is a:
butterfly
Explanation :
Recently, Dusted Apollo (Parnassius stenosemus), a rare high-altitude butterfly has been sighted and photographed for the first time in Himachal Pradesh.
It is extremely rare butterfly and has never been photographed before in Himachal Pradesh.
Distribution range: It is found from Ladakh to West Nepal and it flies between 3,500 to 4,800 meters in the inner Himalayas.
Appearance
It closely resembles Ladakh Banded Apollo (Parnnasius stoliczkanus) but the discal band on the upper fore wing in dusted apollo is complete and extends from costa to vein one while this discal band is incomplete and extends only up to vein four in Ladakh Banded Apollo.
Moreover, the Dark marginal band on the hind wings is much narrower in Dusted Apollo while it is broad in Ladakh Banded Apollo.
Another rare species Regal Apollo (Parnnasius charltonius) was also photographed at Manimahesh, which is protected under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
There are 11 Apollo species recorded from Himachal Pradesh and five of them are declared as Scheduled species.
It is an encouraging indication of the flourishing diversity of Apollo butterflies in the region.
Threats: Apollos are considered commercially important butterflies and they fetch high prices in the poaching industry.
Most of the Apollo butterflies are now endangered and need immediate attention for their conservation and protection.
Conservation measures:
Community awareness about poaching and the importance of these species may play an important role in their conservation.
Also, establishing butterfly parks and conservation reserves in the State should be on the priority list of the government.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/dusted-apollo-a-rare-high-altitude-butterfly-sighted-for-first-time-in-himachals-chamba/article67807682.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Whip in India:
- It is a written order issued by a political party to its elected members.
- A one-line whip is issued on important occasions such as no-confidence motion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Major political party issued a three-line whip to its Lok Sabha MPs asking them to be present in the House tomorrow as the Prime Minister of India will reply to the Motion of Thanks on Presidential address delivered recently.
A whip in parliamentary parlance is a written order that party members be present for an important vote, or that they vote only in a particular way.
The term is derived from the old British practice of “whipping in” lawmakers to follow the party line.
The importance of a whip can be inferred from the number of times an order is underlined.
Appointment:
In India all parties can issue a whip to their members.
Parties appoint a senior member from among their House contingents to issue whips — this member is called a Chief Whip, and he/she is assisted by additional Whips.
Types of whips:
One-line whip: A one-line whip, underlined once, is usually issued to inform party members of a vote, and allows them to abstain in case they decide not to follow the party line.
Two-line whip: A two-line whip directs them to be present during the vote.
Three-line whip: A three-line whip is the strongest, employed on important occasions such as the second reading of a Bill or a no-confidence motion, and places an obligation on members to toe the party line.
Defiance of whip
In India, rebelling against a three-line whip can put a lawmaker’s membership of the House at risk.
The anti-defection law allows the Speaker/Chairperson to disqualify such a member; the only exception is when more than a third of legislators vote against a directive, effectively splitting the party.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/bjp-issues-whip-to-its-lok-sabha-mps-to-be-present-in-house-today-4995006
With reference to GRAPES-3 experiment, consider the following statements:
- It is designed to study cosmic rays with an array of air shower detectors.
- It is located in the Ladakh region.
- It is operated by the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The GRAPES-3 experiment discovered a new feature in the cosmic-ray proton spectrum at about 166 tera-electron-volt (TeV) energy while measuring the spectrum spanning from 50 TeV to a little over 1 peta-electron-volt (PeV).
Gamma Ray Astronomy PeV EnergieS phase-3 (GRAPES-3) is designed to study cosmic rays with an array of air shower detectors and a large area muon detector.
Location: It is located in Ooty, India.
It is operated by the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research.
It aims to probe acceleration of cosmic rays in different astrophysical settings.
Its objectives are to study
The origin, acceleration and propagation of >1014 eV cosmic rays in the galaxy and beyond.
Existence of “Knee” in the energy spectrum of cosmic rays.
Production and/or acceleration of highest energy (~1020 eV) cosmic rays in the universe.
Astronomy of multi-TeV γ-rays from neutron stars and other compact object.
Sun the closest astrophysical object, accelerator of energetic particles and its effects on the Earth.
Key facts about Cosmic rays
These rays were discovered more than a century ago.
They are considered to be the most energetic particles in the universe.
Our planet is constantly bombarded by them from outer space almost uniformly from all directions at a constant rate.
They enter into Earth’s atmosphere and induce a shower of particles that travel to the ground almost at the speed of light.
The shower particles constitute electrons, photons, muons, protons, neutrons etc.
They have been observed over a remarkably wide energy range (108 to 1020 eV).
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-02-kink-proton-spectrum-knowledge-cosmic.html
Consider the following statements regarding the InTranSE Program:
- It is a collaborative research and development programme related to transportation.
- It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
During the launch event of “ Digital India FutureLABS Summit 2024” held at IIIT- Delhi, three Indigenous Technologies - Thermal camera, CMOS camera and Fleet Management System designed and developed by CDAC Thiruvananthapuram under InTranSE Program of MeitY were transferred to 12 Industries.
The Intelligent Transportation System Endeavor (InTranSE) is a revolutionary collaborative research and development programme.
It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Electronics & IT.
Purpose: To synergize the transformation in Intelligent Transportation System the Ministry of Electronics & IT took early steps by bringing together premier academic institutes like Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Indian Institute of Management (IIM) etc. and Premier R&D Centre like C-DAC under one umbrella.
This initiative formulated the Collaborative Intelligent Transportation Systems Endeavor for Indian Cities (InTranSE) during the year 2009-2012 (Phase-I) that witnessed IIT Bombay, IIT Madras, IIM Calcutta and C-DAC Thiruvananthapuram collaboratively developing, implementing, demonstrating and knowledge transfer of ITS products and solutions.
The InTranSE Phase-II program (2019-2021) is aiming at undertaking R&D projects collaboratively with IIT Bombay, IIT Madras, IISc Bangalore and C-DAC Thiruvananthapuram
Significance: It will achieve traffic efficiency by minimizing traffic problems, prompting efficient infrastructure usage, enriching users with prior information about traffic and reducing travel time as well as enhancing safety and comfort of commuters.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2002371
Consider the following statements regarding the Directorate General of GST Intelligence:
- It functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- It has the power to conduct investigations into suspected cases of GST evasion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI) is investigating Mahadev Online Book, an allegedly illegal betting application, and its promoters for suspected violation of GST rules and non-payment of tax.
The Directorate General of Central Excise Intelligence (DGCEI) now renamed as Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI).
It is an apex intelligence organization functioning under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs, Department of Revenue, and Ministry of Finance.
It is entrusted with the task of collection, collation, and dissemination of intelligence relating to the evasion of Goods and Services Tax (GST) and the duties of Central Excise and Service Tax on an all India basis.
Functions of DGGI
Intelligence gathering: It is responsible for gathering intelligence about potential violations of the GST law. This includes collecting information from various sources, such as GST returns, financial statements, and other documents.
It develops intelligence, especially in new areas of tax evasion through its intelligence network across the country and disseminates such information, by issuing Modus Operandi Circulars and Alert Circulars to sensitize the field formations about the latest trends in duty evasion.
Investigation: It has the power to conduct investigations into suspected cases of GST evasion or non-compliance. This may involve summoning persons, examining records, and carrying out searches and seizures.
Enforcement: It is responsible for enforcing the provisions of the GST law. This includes taking legal action against offenders, imposing penalties, and recovering any taxes or duties due.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/dggi-probing-mahadev-online-book-for-possible-non-payment-of-gst/articleshow/107407495.cms
Consider the following statements regarding TESS Mission:
- It searches for exoplanets orbiting the brightest stars.
- It is launched by the European Space Agency (ESA).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Using data from NASA’s Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS), astronomers have recently discovered and characterized a habitable zone planet named TOI-715b.
About Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS):
It is a NASA mission that’s searching for planets orbiting the brightest stars in Earth’s sky.
The satellite is a follow-up to NASA’s highly successful Kepler space telescope, which found thousands of exoplanets during a decade of work after its launch in 2009.
Launch: It was launched on April 18, 2018, aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket out of Cape Canaveral.
Orbit: TESS circles Earth in a unique high Earth orbit of 12 to 15 days, which is inclined in such a way that the telescope’s sky view is largely free from obstructions by our bright planet and the Moon.
Over the course of its two-year primary mission, TESS’ four sensitive cameras systematically scanned over 200,000 of the nearest and brightest stars, imaging 75% of the sky. It found 2,100 planetary candidates and 66 confirmed exoplanets.
The prime mission ended on July 4, 2020, and TESS is now on an extended mission.
TESS is finding planets ranging from small, rocky worlds to giant planets, showcasing the diversity of planets in the galaxy.
How does TESS find exoplanets?
It uses the transit method to detect planets.
It looks for periodic dips in stars’ brightness as planets cross in front of them along our sightline.
The larger the planet, the greater the drop in brightness during the transit.
How long it takes a planet to pass in front of the star and come back tells us the shape of its orbit.
This method reveals the diameter of the planet and the size of its orbit.
Orbits within a certain range lie in the “habitable zone”, where liquid water can exist on the surface of an Earth-like world.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.sci.news/astronomy/super-earth-exoplanet-habitable-zone-toi-715-12658.html
With reference to Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs), consider the following statements:
- They are large expulsions of plasma and magnetic field from the sun’s corona.
- They are always accompanied by solar flares.
- They expand in size as they propagate away from the sun.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
An Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) team along with their international collaborators recently developed a new model of the internal thermal evolution of coronal mass ejections (CMEs), as they travel from the sun toward the earth.
About Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs):
CMEs are large expulsions of plasma and magnetic field from the sun’s atmosphere—the corona, that propagate outward into interplanetary space.
During a CME, the sun releases a colossal amount of material, including electrons, protons, and heavier ions, as well as magnetic fields.
How are they formed?
They form similarly to solar flares—a result of the twisting and realignment of the sun’s magnetic field, known as magnetic reconnection.
When magnetic field lines “tangle” they produce strong localized magnetic fields which can break through the surface of the sun at active regions, subsequently generating CMEs.
CMEs usually take place around sunspot groups and are often accompanied by a solar flare, though the two don’t always occur in tandem.
CMEs travel outward from the sun at speeds ranging from slower than 250 kilometers per second (km/s) to as fast as 3000 km/s.
The fastest Earth-directed CMEs can reach our planet in as little as 15-18 hours.
They expand in size as they propagate away from the Sun, and larger CMEs can reach a size comprising nearly a quarter of the space between Earth and the Sun by the time they reach our planet.
CMEs, like solar flares, are most common during the solar maximum, a period in the sun’s 11-year cycle of activity when the star is at its most active.
Impact on Earth:
Geomagnetic Storms: The interaction between the CME’s magnetic fields and Earth’s magnetosphere can lead to geomagnetic storms. These can disrupt satellite communications, navigation systems, and even power grids.
Auroras: CMEs can cause spectacular displays of the Northern and Southern Lights, also known as auroras, by energizing particles in Earth’s atmosphere.
Radiation Hazards: Astronauts in space or passengers on high-altitude flights can be exposed to elevated levels of radiation during a CME event.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/bangalore/iia-develops-new-model-of-internal-thermal-evolution-of-coronal-mass-ejections/article67814201.ece
Which one of the following is the best description of ‘ABHYAS’, that was in the news recently?
A high-speed expendable aerial target
Explanation :
The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted four flight trials of the high-speed expendable aerial target ‘ABHYAS’ recently.
About ABHYAS:
It is a high-speed expendable aerial target (HEAT).
It is designed by the DRDO’s Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE).
ABHYAS offers a realistic threat scenario for the practice of weapon systems.
It is the ideal platform for the validation of Armed Forces equipment slated for induction (only those that require aerial engagement).
Features:
It is designed for autonomous flying with the help of an autopilot indigenously made by the ADE.
It has a radar cross-section and a visual and infrared augmentation system required for weapon practice.
The target drone has a laptop-based Ground Control System with which the aircraft can be integrated and pre-flight checks, data recording during the flight, replays after the flight and post-flight analysis can be carried out.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/dam-project-across-mekong-river-in-laos-raises-fears/article67804853.ece
Which one of the following statements best describes the Messinian Event in the context of geology?
It was a period during which the Mediterranean Sea experienced extreme drying up.
Explanation :
The Geological Institute of Israel recently uncovered a never-before-known about underwater canyon near Cyprus that dates back to the Messinian Event.
About Messinian Event:
Also known as the Messinian Salinity Crisis (MSC), the Messinian event was a geological event during which the Mediterranean Sea went into a cycle of partial or nearly complete desiccation (drying up).
It was one of the most severe ecological crises in the Earth’s history.
The MSC began approximately 6 million years ago (MYA) and lasted until around 5.3 MYA.
How has it unfolded?
It began when the connection between the Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea was cut off.
This occurred due to a combination of lowered sea levels in the global oceans and collision between the European and African plates that caused the land to lift.
Normally, there is much more evaporation than precipitation over the Mediterranean Sea. This means that much more water is leaving than entering the sea.
Without a significant source of water from the Atlantic Ocean, this led to the evaporation of much of the Mediterranean Sea.
A large underground canyon formed, and rivers made deep incisions into the bottom of the basin. This canyon was much larger than the Grand Canyon and had a depth of up to 2,000 meters (6562 feet).
As the water in the Mediterranean evaporated, the salt that was in the water was left behind and began to build up in layers on the floor of the Mediterranean.
Two major salts that were deposited on the floor were Halite and Gypsum. Some of the salt deposit areas were 800 meters (2,500 feet) deep.
However, the salt in the Mediterranean did not deposit on the floor as quickly as the water was evaporating. This means that whatever water was left in the Mediterranean became very salty.
This high amount of salt in the water (also known as salinity) caused the Mediterranean to become deadly to all marine life.
The Mediterranean continued to dry up until there was almost no water left.
It ended with the Zanclean flood, when the Atlantic reclaimed the basin.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/science/israeli-scientists-discover-previously-unknown-underwater-canyon-near-cyprus/articleshow/107425430.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding the Nagoya Protocol:
- It regulates the transboundary movement of Living Modified Organisms (LMOs).
- It is legally binding on all contracting parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Cameroon recently adopted the Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit Sharing.
About Nagoya Protocol:
The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization (the Protocol) is a legally binding global agreement that implements the access and benefit-sharing obligations of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
It was adopted by the CBD in Nagoya, Japan, in October 2010 and entered into force on October 12, 2014, 90 days after the deposit of the fiftieth instrument of ratification.
It provides a transparent legal framework for the effective implementation of one of the three objectives of the CBD: the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources.
What are the benefits?
It establishes a framework that helps researchers access genetic resources for biotechnology research, development, and other activities, in return for a fair share of any benefits from their use.
This provides the research and development sector with the certainty they need to invest in biodiversity-based research.
Indigenous and local communities may receive benefits through a legal framework that respects the value of traditional knowledge associated with genetic resources.
What does the Nagoya Protocol cover?
It applies to genetic resources that are covered by the CBD, and to the benefits arising from their utilization.
It also covers traditional knowledge (TK) associated with genetic resources that are covered by the CBD and the benefits arising from their utilization.
Key Facts about Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD):
CBD, with currently 196 contracting parties, is the most comprehensive binding international agreement in the field of nature conservation and the sustainable use of natural resources.
It was opened for signing at the UN Conference on Environment and Development in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.
It has three overarching objectives:
The conservation of biological diversity (genetic diversity, species diversity, and habitat diversity).
The sustainable use of biological diversity.
The fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the utilisation of genetic resources.
It covers biodiversity at all levels: ecosystems, species, and genetic resources.
The Conference of the Parties (COP) is the highest political decision-making body of the Convention.
The Secretariat is based in Montreal, Canada.
To support implementation of the CBD objectives, two internationally binding agreements were adopted within the framework of the Convention on Biological Diversity.
The Cartagena Protocol, which was adopted in 2000 and entered into force in 2003, regulates the transboundary movement of living modified organisms (LMOs).
The Nagoya Protocol, adopted in 2010, establishes a legally binding framework for access to genetic resources and the fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising from their use.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/world/cameroon-adopts-nagoya-protocol-to-benefit-from-its-rich-biodiversity-94288
Thrips Parvispinus, recently seen in the news, is a:
invasive pest species
Explanation :
Union Agriculture Minister informed the Rajya Sabha that Thrips Parvispinus might have dominated or even replaced the native chilli thrips known as scirtothrips dorsalis in Telangana and Andhra Pradesh region.
It is an invasive pest species.
It is a polyphagous pest, which can also grow and multiply on alternate hosts like drumstick, pigeon pea, chickpea, papaya, mango and weed species like Parthenium, Cleome viscosa, Prosopis sp., Lantana camera, Calotropis sp., Tecoma sp. and wild solanum plants.
It has been reported from Thailand, Australia and Europe.
The last two decades witnessed a drastic extension in the geographic distribution and it is now known to occur in France, Greece, Hawaii, Mauritius, Reunion, Spain, Tanzania and the Netherlands, besides India
In India, this species was first reported on Papaya from Bengaluru in 2015.
Thrips parvispinus adults mainly colonize on flowers and underside of leaves whereas larvae suck sap from undersurface of the leaves.
Infestation causes heavy flower drop and thereby reducing fruit production.
Its infestation increased during heavy rainfall of North East monsoon in contrast to other thrips species.
What are Thrips?
Thrips are important group of sucking pests which cause significant economic losses both as pests and vectors of serious plant viruses in several horticultural crops.
There are reports on the outbreak of sucking pests like thrips in different regions due to changes in crop production patterns, pesticide usage and climate change.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/telangana/2022/Feb/05/invasive-thrips-caused-80-damage-to-chilli-crops-rs-told-2415514.html
Consider the following statements regarding the International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development:
- It is an intergovernmental knowledge centre working for the communities of the Hindu Kush Himalayas.
- India is a member of this organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Experts from the International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD) declared the Hindu Kush Himalaya region a biosphere on the brink of collapse and called for bold action and urgent finance to prevent nature loss.
It is an intergovernmental knowledge and learning centre working on behalf of the people of the Hindu Kush Himalaya (HKH).
It was formally established and inaugurated on 5 December 1983.
Mission: To build and share knowledge that drives regional policy and action and attracts investment that enables the diverse countries and communities of the HKH to transition to greener, more inclusive, and climate resilient development.
Member countries – Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar, Nepal, and Pakistan.
Governance
Its Board of Governors is the highest governing body of the centre.
It consists of one representative from each of eight regional member countries and independent members who are nominated by the ICIMOD Support Group based on their recognized professional expertise and experience.
Functions
It serves the region through information and knowledge generation and sharing to find innovative solutions to critical mountain problems.
It bridges science with policies and on-the-ground practices.
It provides a regional platform where experts, planners, policymakers, and practitioners can exchange ideas and perspectives towards the achievement of sustainable mountain development.
Headquarter: Kathmandu, Nepal
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/world/hindu-kush-himalaya-is-a-biosphere-on-the-brink-icimod-94291
With reference to Black-Necked Crane, consider the following statements:
- It is found in high altitude wetlands.
- It is endemic to India only.
- It is listed in Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the union Minister of State for Environment, Forest and Climate Change informed the Lok Sabha about the important steps taken to protect Black-necked Crane by the government.
The Black-Necked Crane (Grus nigricollis) is classed as a medium-sized member of the crane family.
Habitat: The high altitude wetlands in the Tibetan plateau are the main breeding ground of the species. These wetlands with small mounds provide an excellent habitat to the birds for breeding.
Distribution: This species is found in India, China and Bhutan and breeds in high altitude wetlands in the Tibetan plateau at elevations of 2950-4900 m above mean sea level.
Threats: Habitat loss and degradation related to climate change, changes in agriculture practices, pollution and environmental contamination.
Conservation status
IUCN: Near Threatened
The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I
CITES: Appendix I
The important steps taken by government of India to protect bird species include:
The important habitats of Black-necked Crane have been notified as a Protected Areas, for example, Changthang Sanctuary, Ladakh.
The Tso Kar Wetlands Complex, an important foraging and breeding ground for Black-necked Crane has been designated as a Ramsar Site in December 2020.
The National Wildlife Action Plan (2017-2031) released by the Ministry in October 2017 provides for specific Chapters and priority actions on various aspects of wildlife conservation.
The Central Government provides financial assistance to State/Union Territory Governments under the Centrally Sponsored Schemes ‘Development of Wildlife Habitats’ for management of wildlife and its habitat in the country.
The Government of India has initiated Mission LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment) programme, that aims to generate public awareness about the environment, and conservation.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2002611
Consider the following statements regarding the Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar programme:
- It is an initiative of Ministry of Culture under National Mission on Cultural Mapping.
- It provides financial assistance for preservation & development of cultural heritage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister for Culture, Tourism And Development of North Eastern Region informed the Lok Sabha about the Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar programme.
It is a pan-India initiative of Ministry of Culture under National Mission on Cultural Mapping and was launched on 27th July 2023.
It seeks to compile comprehensive information detailing the life, history, and ethos of Indian villages and to make the same available to virtual and real-time visitors.
Under the MGMD, information is collected under seven broad categories as given below-
Arts and Crafts Village
Ecologically Oriented Village
Scholastic Village linked with Textual and Scriptural Traditions of India
Epic Village linked with Ramayana, Mahabharata and/or Puranic legends and oral epics
Historical Village linked with Local and National History
Architectural Heritage Village
Any other characteristic that may need highlighting such as fishing village, horticulture village, shepherding village etc.
Objective: The main objective the project is to culturally map India’s 6.5 lakh villages, spanning 29 States and 7 Union Territories, on a comprehensive virtual platform.
Through MGMD, people will get an opportunity to immerse themselves in the diverse and vibrant cultural heritage of India.
The core idea behind this project is to encourage appreciation for India’s culture and traditions, paving way for economic growth, social harmony, and artistic development in rural communities.
Financial outlay of Rs.353.46 Crore is approved under the scheme of Financial Assistance for Promotion of Art and Culture consisting 08 scheme components namely;
Financial Assistance to Cultural organizations with National Presence
Cultural Function & Production Grant (CFPG)
Financial Assistance for the Preservation & Development of Cultural Heritage of the Himalayas:
Financial Assistance for the Preservation & Development of Buddhist/Tibetan Organization
Financial Assistance for Building Grants including Studio Theatres
Financial Assistance For Allied Cultural Activities
Scheme for Safeguarding the Intangible Cultural Heritage
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2002669
Consider the following statements regarding Aldabra giant tortoise:
- It is found on grasslands called platins.
- It is the second-largest species of land tortoise in the world, after the Galapagos giant tortoise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A six-year-old project to return giant tortoises to the wild in Madagascar could result in thousands of megaherbivores re-populating the island for the first time in 600 years.
It is the second-largest species of land tortoise in the world, after the Galapagos giant tortoise (Chelonoidis nigra).
It can live for 100 years and has a fascinating history.
This tortoise evolved from ancestors of Aldabrachelys abrupta, one of two giant tortoises that inhabited Madagascar for 15 million years.
Four million years ago, the Aldabrachelys abrupta lineage migrated, likely via a combination of drifting with floating vegetation and assisted by their natural buoyancy and good swimming abilities, to the Seychelles.
These are endemic to the Aldabra Atoll of the Seychelles, an archipelago nation in the western Indian Ocean about 930 miles east of Africa and northeast of Madagascar.
Habitat:
Theseare terrestrial and occur in a wide variety of habitats, including scrub forests, mangrove swamps, and coastal dunes and beaches, each with their respective vegetation.
The largest populations of tortoises are found on grasslands called “platins.”
Due to prolonged periods of heavy grazing, a habitat known as “tortoise turf”, consisting of a variety of grasses, has developed in certain areas.
Conservation status
IUCN: Vulnerable
CITES: Appendix II
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/wildlife-biodiversity/madagascar-giant-tortoises-have-returned-600-years-after-they-were-wiped-out-94264
Consider the following statements regarding Lupus:
- It is an autoimmune disease.
- It is much more common among women than men.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Australian researchers recently worked out how to fix a defect that causes lupus.
About Lupus:
It is an autoimmune disease that makes your immune system to damage organs and tissue throughout your body.
It causes inflammation that can affect your skin, joints, blood and organs like your kidneys, lungs, and heart.
Causes: The cause of lupus is unknown. It’s thought to be the result of a mix of genetic, hormonal, and environmental factors.
Lupus is much more common among women than men.
There are several kinds of lupus:
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is the most common type. It can be mild or severe and can affect many parts of the body.
Discoid lupus causes a red rash that doesn’t go away.
Subacute cutaneous lupus causes sores after being out in the sun.
Drug-induced lupus is caused by certain medicines. It usually goes away when you stop taking the medicine.
Neonatal lupus, which is rare, affects newborns. It is probably caused by certain antibodies from the mother.
Symptoms: Lupus can have many symptoms, and they differ from person to person. Some of the more common ones are:
Pain or swelling in joints
Muscle pain
Fever with no known cause
Red rashes, most often on the face (also called the “butterfly rash”)
Chest pain when taking a deep breath
Hair loss
Pale or purple fingers or toes
Sensitivity to the sun
Treatment: There is no cure for lupus, but medicines and lifestyle changes can help control it.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://medicalxpress.com/news/2024-02-world-discovery-enable-effective-term.html
The S2, nicknamed ‘Jigarthanda’ facility, recently seen in the news, will be used for:
simulating hypersonic conditions for aerospace technologies
Explanation :
The Indian Institute of Technology Kanpur (IIT-K) has successfully established and tested India’s first Hypervelocity Expansion Tunnel Test Facility recently.
About India’s first Hypervelocity Expansion Tunnel Test Facility:
The S2, nicknamed ‘Jigarthanda’, is a 24-meter-long facility located at IIT Kanpur’s Hypersonic Experimental Aerodynamics Laboratory (HEAL) within the Department of Aerospace Engineering.
It is India’s first Hypervelocity Expansion Tunnel Test Facility.
It was indigenously designed and developed over three years with funding and support from the Aeronautical Research and Development Board (ARDB), the Department of Science and Technology (DST), and IIT Kanpur.
It is capable of generating flight speeds between 3-10 km/s, simulating the hypersonic conditions encountered during the atmospheric entry of vehicles, asteroid entry, scramjet flights, and ballistic missiles.
It will be a critical asset for the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
It will serve as a testing ground for ongoing missions of ISRO and DRDO like Gaganyaan, Reusable Launch Vehicles (RLV), and hypersonic cruise missiles, enabling the development of more advanced and reliable aerospace technologies.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/education-today/news/story/iit-kanpur-indias-1st-hypervelocity-expansion-tunnel-test-facility-s2-2497716-2024-02-05
Consider the following statements regarding the Vidyanjali Scholarship Programme:
- It extends financial support for meritorious Navodaya Vidyalaya students belonging to economically disadvantaged sections.
- It generates assistance and funding from nongovernment partners and private sources as well.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Union Minister of Education and Skill Development & Entrepreneurship recently launched the EdCIL Vidyanjali Scholarship Programme.
About Vidyanjali Scholarship Programme:
This initiative guarantees access to high-quality learning systems by facilitating a seamless transition from secondary to higher education and extending financial support for the meritorious Navodaya Vidyalaya students who lack means.
It symbolises a whole-of-society approach to empowerment through access to and opportunities for education, particularly to students belonging to economically disadvantaged sections.
The Vidyanjali programme intends to garner assistance and funding from nongovernment partners and private sources such as CSR grants, national and international donors, and impact investors.
The beneficiaries of the Vidyanjali programme in its initial phase will be students of grades Xl and Xll studying in Navodaya Vidyalayas across the country.
A fintech platform has been specifically curated under Vidyanjali, and the sponsorship will be disbursed to students through this platform as Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).
This platform will be instrumental in capturing data, receiving, hosting, and viewing student applications, tracking student progress, tracking grant disbursement, monitoring fund utilisation, generating impact reports towards SDG realisation, individual mentions of notable student achievement, and publicly acknowledging the support of the funders, among other platform utilities.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2003271
The Sepahijala Wildlife Sanctuary (SWL) is located in:
Tripura
Explanation :
The Sepahijala Wildlife Sanctuary of Tripura recently welcomed a new batch of animals, which include two Royal Bengal tigers, two leopards, four golden pigeons, a silver pigeon, two peafowls, and four hill mynas.
About Sepahijala Wildlife Sanctuary (SWL):
Location: It is located around 25 km from Agartala, Tripura.
History:
To conserve and propagate the biodiversity of the area, the Sepahijala bio-complex came into existence in 1972.
With the addition of a botanical garden, a deer park, and a zoo, the bio-complex was subsequently attributed the status of Sepahijala Wildlife Sanctuary in early 1987.
It is spread over 18.5 sq. km and is home to migratory birds and animals.
The wildlife sanctuary is divided into five sections, basically to segregate the different types of animals living here. They are the carnivore section, primate section, ungulate section, reptile section, and aviary section.
It also has two natural lakes, namely Abasarika and Amrit Sagar.
Clouded Leopard National Park, established in 2007, is a part of SWL.
Vegetation: Moist deciduous forest
Flora: The sanctuary has no less than 456 plant species; many kinds of bamboo and a variety of grasses and medicinal plants also grow in the sanctuary.
Fauna:
It is the habitat of different species of primates like Rhesus macaque, Pigtailed macaque, Capped langur, Spectacled monkey, Slow loris and several other wild animals like Leopard, Clouded leopard, Jungle fowl, Civets, Barking, Deer, Wild pig, etc.
The crab-eating mongoose (which was last seen in the 1930s) has also been revived here.
The avian population of the sanctuary is also rich, with a variety of winged stork, Whistling teal, and the White ibis.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatodayne.in/tripura/video/tripuras-sepahijala-wildlife-sanctuary-gets-new-batch-of-animals-including-two-tigers-857907-2024-02-06
Consider the following statements regarding Rights Issue:
- It is an offering to the existing shareholders of a company to buy additional shares at a discounted price.
- The rights issued cannot be traded on the secondary market.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Indiabulls Housing Finance plans to raise ₹3,693 crore through rights issue.
About Rights Issue:
A rights issue is an offering of rights to the existing shareholders of a company that gives them an opportunity to buy additional shares directly from the company at a discounted price rather than buying them in the secondary market.
It gives preferential treatment to existing shareholders, where they are given the right (not obligation) to purchase shares at a lower price on or before a specified date.
The number of additional shares that can be bought depends on the existing holdings of the shareowners.
Until the date at which the new shares can be purchased, shareholders may trade the rights on the market the same way that they would trade ordinary shares.
Existing shareholders can also choose to ignore the rights; however, if they do not purchase additional shares, then their existing shareholding will be diluted post-issue of additional shares.
Dilution occurs because a rights offering spreads a company’s net profit over a larger number of shares. Thus, the company’s earnings per share, or EPS, decreases as the allocated earnings result in share dilution.
Why issue a Rights Offering?
Companies most commonly issue a rights offering to raise additional capital. A company may need extra capital to meet its current financial obligations.
Troubled companies typically use rights issues to pay down debt, especially when they are unable to borrow more money.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.cnbctv18.com/market/indiabulls-housing-finance-share-price-rights-issue-opens-all-you-need-to-know-price-dates-18992661.htm
Consider the following statements regarding the Altermagnets:
- They have both ferromagnetic and antiferromagnetic properties.
- They exhibit a unique feature of spin polarization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In a new study, scientists have investigated the newly discovered class of altermagnetic materials for their thermal properties, offering insights into the distinctive nature of altermagnets for spin-caloritronic applications.
Altermagnets exhibit a unique blend of magnetic characteristics, setting them apart from conventional magnetic materials like ferromagnets and antiferromagnets.
Properties
These materials exhibit properties observed in both ferromagnets and antiferromagnets, making their study enticing.
Altermagnets defy conventional norms by embodying a dual nature—resembling antiferromagnets with zero net magnetization and ferromagnets with non-relativistic spin splitting.
This unique behavior emerges from the intricate interplay of atoms within the crystal structure.
Additionally, altermagnets exhibit a unique spin polarization. The term “spin polarization” means that a preponderance of electron spins tends to align in a particular direction.
The spin polarization is noteworthy in altermagnets because it occurs in the physical arrangement of atoms (real space) and in the momentum space, where the distribution of electron spins in the material is considered.
The researchers believe that altermagnets could have a pivotal role in spin caloritronics, a field of research that explores the interplay between spin and heat flow, which are not achievable with ferromagnets or antiferromagnets.
This field has potential applications in developing new technologies for information processing and storage.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-02-altermagnets-chapter-magnetism-thermal-science.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Kendras:
- These are set up by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
- These provide generic drugs that are available at lesser prices as compared to branded drugs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) have been allowed by the Government to operate Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Kendras (PMBJK) under the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Pariyojana.
These are set up under Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana, which was launched by the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers in November 2008.
Objective: To provide quality medicines at affordable prices for all, particularly the poor, so as to reduce out-of-pocket expenses in healthcare.
These Kendra’s provide generic drugs, which are available at lesser prices but are equivalent in quality and efficacy as expensive branded drugs.
All therapeutic medicines are made available from Jan Aushadhi Stores.
Jan Aushadhi stores also sell allied medical products commonly sold in chemist shops so as to improve the viability of running the Jan Aushadhi store.
Pharmaceutical & Medical Devices Bureau of India (PMBI) has been established under the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Govt. of India, with the support of all the CPSUs for co-coordinating procurement, supply, and marketing of generic drugs through the PMBKs.
Who are eligible to open a Jan Aushadhi Kendra?
State Governments or any organization / reputed NGOs / Trusts / Private hospitals / charitable institutions / Doctors / Unemployed pharmacists/ individual entrepreneurs are eligible to apply for the new Jan Aushadhi Kendra.
The applicants shall have to employ one B Pharma / D Pharma degree holder as Pharmacist in their proposed store.
Primary Agricultural Credit Societies.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2003208
Consider the following statements regarding Smart Advanced Manufacturing and Rapid Transformation Hub (SAMARTH) centres:
- They are set up under the Enhancement of Competitiveness in the Indian Capital Goods Sector scheme.
- They provide assistance to the MSMEs to train the workforce for Industry 4.0 technologies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Minister of State for Heavy Industries informed the Lok Sabha about SAMARTH Centres.
The Smart Advanced Manufacturing and Rapid Transformation Hub (SAMARTH) centres are set up under the Scheme for “Enhancement of Competitiveness in the Indian Capital Goods Sector.
These centres have been providing assistance to the MSMEs to train the workforce and make them aware about Industry 4.0 technologies in the following ways:
Organizing Seminars/ Workshops and knowledge sharing events on Industry 4.0;
Training industries to create awareness about Industry 4.0;
Providing consultancy (in areas such as IOT Hardware, Software development, data analytics) and incubation support to start- ups including MSMEs.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2003001
Consider the following statements regarding the Himalayan griffon:
- It is a diurnal, solitary vulture.
- It is monogamous and pairs return to the same nesting and roosting sites from year to year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In the first-ever tri-State synchronised vulture survey 320 individual vultures were counted in the seven-protected areas spread over Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu and Himalayan griffon is only reported from Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary.
It is an Old World vulture in the family Accipitridae.
It is one of the two largest Old World vultures and true raptors.
These are monogamous and pairs return to the same nesting and roosting sites from year to year.
These are diurnal and mostly solitary species.
Distribution:
It is found along the Himalayas and the adjoining Tibetan region and is also found in the Central Asian Mountains.
Occasionally it migrates to northern India but migration usually only occurs altitudinally.
Conservation status
IUCN: Near Threatened
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/wayanad-wildlife-sanctuary-offers-a-safe-haven-for-vultures/article67808122.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Vaccine Safety Net:
- It is a global network of websites that provides reliable information on vaccine safety.
- It is established by the NITI Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation :
The Healthy Indian Project (THIP), a health information platform in India, is included as a member of the World Health Organization’s Vaccine Safety Net (VSN).
It is a global network of websites, established by the World Health Organization that provides reliable information on vaccine safety.
It is a network of a diverse group of digital information resources (websites and social media), VSN members, located in countries around the world and providing scientifically based information on vaccine safety in various languages.
A key player in the Project is the Global Advisory Committee on Vaccine Safety (GACVS), established by WHO in 1999, to respond promptly, efficiently, and with scientific rigour to vaccine safety issues of potential global importance.
At the outset of the Project, GACVS developed three categories of criteria for good information practices - regarding credibility, content, accessibility and design to which digital resources providing information on vaccine safety should adhere.
WHO evaluates those electronic resources for their adherence to these criteria.
It is continuously expanding and till date 110 websites from 45 countries provide vaccine safety information in 43 languages.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/healthcare/news-healthcare/the-healthy-indian-project-thip-joins-whos-vaccine-safety-net/3384686/
Consider the following statements regarding the Support to Students for Participating in Competitions Abroad (SSPCA) Initiative:
- It is an initiative of the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE).
- It provides financial assistance to students to partake in international competitions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) recently introduced a scheme named ‘Support to Students for Participating in Competitions Abroad’ (SSPCA).
About Support to Students for Participating in Competitions Abroad (SSPCA) Initiative:
It is an initiative of the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) aimed at bolstering the global competitiveness of Indian students in technical education.
It is designed to financially support students aspiring to compete in international scientific events.
Financial Assistance and Mentorship:
Under the SSPCA scheme, individual students or student teams are eligible to receive travel grants to partake in international competitions.
The assistance encompasses financial aid, mentorship, logistical support, and networking opportunities, enabling students to represent India on a global platform effectively.
Financial aid provided by the AICTE scheme reaches up to Rs 2 lakh per student, covering various expenses like international and domestic travel, registration fees, visa applications, accommodation, airport taxes, travel insurance, and equipment costs related to the competition.
Eligibility:
Eligibility extends to students enrolled in diploma, BE/BTech, integrated MTech, and ME/MTech programs in AICTE-approved institutions.
Each team of students is eligible for financial support under the scheme once during their course of study.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/education-today/news/story/aicte-launches-new-scheme-to-support-students-in-global-competitions-2498840-2024-02-07
With reference to Ajanta and Ellora Caves, consider the following statements:
- They rock-cut caves with sculptures, paintings and frescoes.
- The Kailash Temple is one of the caves at Ajanta.
- They are designated as UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Ministry of Tourism recently included the UNESCO World Heritage sites of Ajanta and Ellora caves in Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar in its Swadesh Darshan Scheme II.
About Ajanta and Ellora Caves:
Ajanta and Ellora caves, considered to be one of the finest examples of ancient rock-cut caves, are located in Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar in Maharashtra.
The Ajanta and Ellora cave complex is adorned with beautiful sculptures, paintings, and frescoes and includes Buddhist monasteries, Hindu and Jain temples.
The Ajanta caves are 29 in number and were built between the 2nd century BC and the 6th century AD, whereas the Ellora caves are more spread out and 34 in number and date to the period between the 6th and 11th Centuries AD.
Ajanta Caves are mostly Buddhist sites and were used as a retreat by Buddhist monks.
The caves consisted of cells for meditation, assembly halls for discussions, and stupas for rituals.
Ellora has a better mix of Hindu, Jain, and Buddhist structures.
The caves are adorned with sculptures that reflect the spiritual beliefs of the time.
The sculptures range from depictions of deities, celestial beings, and mythological scenes to portraits of royalty and everyday life.
The Kailash Temple in Ellora is an architectural marvel. It is one of the largest monolithic structures in the world.
The structure is carved vertically from a single rock. It took 18 years to carve out the temple.
They are designated as UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/education-today/news/story/iit-kanpur-indias-1st-hypervelocity-expansion-tunnel-test-facility-s2-2497716-2024-02-05
With reference to the Raman Research Institute (RRI), consider the following statements:
- It was originally founded by Indian physicist and Nobel Laureate C.V. Raman.
- It is aided autonomous institute receiving funds from the Department of Science and Technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Indian scientists at the Raman Research Institute (RRI) recently designed a new image-correction algorithm that significantly enhances the study of ultracold atoms.
About Raman Research Institute (RRI):
It is an autonomous research institute engaged in research in basic sciences.
Location: Bangalore
The institute was founded in 1948 by Indian physicist and Nobel Laureate Sir C.V. Raman, with funds from private sources.
Sir C.V. Raman served as its director, carrying on his personal research until his demise in 1970.
It was restructured in 1972 to become an aided autonomous institute receiving funds from the Department of Science and Technology of the Government of India.
The Governing Council is the executive body of the Institute and conducts the administration and management of the Institute.
Today, the main areas of research at the Institute are Astronomy & Astrophysics, Light & Matter Physics, Soft Condensed Matter, and Theoretical Physics.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/indian-scientists-design-algorithm-that-could-open-up-the-quantum-world-of-atoms-2498705-2024-02-07
Consider the following statements regarding Mxenes, recently seen in the news:
- They are ceramics made from the carbides and nitrides of transition metals.
- They have good conductivity and a large surface area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers recently reported on the potential of using MXene coatings that can guide microwaves in space and lighten satellite payloads.
About Mxenes:
Mxenes, first discovered in 2011, are ceramics that comprise one of the largest families of two-dimensional (2D) materials.
Unlike most 2D ceramics, MXenes have inherently good conductivity and excellent volumetric capacitance because they are molecular sheets made from the carbides and nitrides of transition metals like titanium.
They are made from a bulk crystal called MAX.
They have the general formula of Mn+1XnTx, where M is an early transition metal, X is carbon and/or nitrogen, and T is a functional group on the surface of an MXene (typically O, OH, and F).
Among various types of MXenes, titanium carbide (Ti3C2Tx) is the most widely used.
Some potential applications of MXenes include energy storage (such as lithium-ion batteries and supercapacitors) due to their high conductivity and large surface area, electromagnetic interference shielding, catalysis, sensors, and water purification, among others.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://phys.org/news/2024-02-mxene-coated-devices-microwaves-space.html
The World Sustainable Development (WSDS) Summit is annually organised by:
The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI)
Explanation :
Vice-President recently inaugurated the World Sustainable Development Summit in New Delhi recently.
About World Sustainable Development (WSDS) Summit:
It is the annual flagship event of The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI).
Instituted in 2001, the Summit series has a legacy of over two decades of making ‘sustainable development’ a globally shared goal.
It is the only independently convened international summit on sustainable development and environment, based in the Global South.
WSDS strives to provide long-term solutions for the benefit of global communities by assembling the world’s most enlightened leaders and thinkers on a single platform.
WSDS 2024 is the 23rd edition of the summit.
WSDS 2024 will take place on the theme ‘Leadership for the Sustainable Development and Climate Justice’.
Key Facts about The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI):
TERI is a leading think tank dedicated to conducting research for sustainable development of India and the Global South.
It is an independent, multi-dimensional organization, with capabilities in research, policy, consultancy, and implementation.
History:
TERI was established in 1974 as an information centre on energy issues.
Research activities, initiated towards the end of 1982, were rooted in TERI’s firm conviction that efficient utilization of energy and sustainable use of natural resources would propel the process of development.
It’s work across sectors is focused on
Promoting efficient use of resources
Increasing access to and uptake of sustainable inputs and practices
Reducing the impact on environment and climate
It is headquartered in New Delhi.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://newsonair.gov.in/News?title=Vice-President-Jagdeep-Dhankhar-inaugurates-World-Sustainable-Development-Summit-in-Delhi&id=476768
Consider the following statements regarding the Production linked incentive scheme for the white goods:
- It is launched by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- The company which is getting benefits under any other PLI Scheme of Government of India are also eligible under this scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
An official statement said that applications of certain companies for claiming incentives under the production linked incentive (PLI) scheme for the white goods (Air Conditioners and LED Lights) are under examination and there is no delay in disbursement.
It is designed to create a complete component ecosystem for Air Conditioners and LED Lights Industry in India and make India an integral part of the global supply chains.
The scheme was notified by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
The scheme will be implemented as a pan India scheme and is not specific to any location, area or segment of population.
Objectives: It proposes a financial incentive to boost domestic manufacturing and attract large investments in the White Goods manufacturing value chain. Its prime objectives include removing sectoral disabilities, creating economies of scale, enhancing exports, creating a robust component ecosystem and employment generation.
Incentives: The scheme will extend an incentive of 4-6% on incremental turnover over base year (2019-20) of goods sold in India and exported to global markets, to eligible companies for a period of 5 years.
Eligibility
Applicant can be any company that should be incorporated in India under the provisions of the Company Act, 2013.
Eligibility shall be subject to the achievement of thresholds of net incremental sales of Eligible Products for the respective financial year over the base year and cumulative incremental investment in the preceding financial year.
Any entity availing benefits under any other PLI Scheme of Govt. of India will not be eligible under this scheme for same products.
Time period: It is to be implemented over FY 2021-22 to FY 2028-29.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/world-news/no-delay-in-disbursal-of-sops-under-pli-scheme-for-white-goods-dpiit-124020701520_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding gas flaring:
- It is the burning of the natural gas associated with oil extraction.
- It produces nitrogen oxides which impacts air quality.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, natural gas flare samples collected by aircraft in the USA regions revealed high variation in nitrogen oxides emission estimates.
Gas flaring is the burning of the natural gas associated with oil extraction.
Why is gas flared?
Flaring persists to this day because it is a relatively safe, though wasteful and polluting, method of disposing of the associated gas that comes from oil production.
Utilizing associated gas often requires economically viable markets for companies to make the investments necessary to capture, transport, process, and sell the gas.
Firms usually resort to flaring when they lack adequate infrastructure or financial incentives to bring the gas to market, or when it needs to be released for safety reasons to manage changes in pressure during crude oil extraction.
Most flared gas, primarily associated gas, is very similar to the natural gas used worldwide for power generation, as feedstock for the manufacture of chemicals, distributed to homes, etc.
However, it may require processing to remove contaminants before it can be used.
Associated gas can also be used on-site for generating electricity, compressed or liquefied for transportation as compressed natural gas (CNG) or liquified natural gas (LNG) respectively, or converted into liquid form (e.g., synthetic oil, diesel, methanol, DME) by using gas-to-liquid (GTL) technologies.
Impacts on environment
The flare’s combustion converts hydrocarbons to carbon dioxide and water, which lessens the climate impact and reduces the safety concerns of the natural gas on site but also produces nitrogen oxides, or NOx.
NOx—which includes the highly reactive gases nitric oxide and nitrogen dioxide—directly and indirectly impacts air quality.
How to reduce gas flaring? Oil producers can either re-inject associated gas or use it for productive purposes.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-02-natural-gas-flare-samples-aircraft.html
With reference to Kilkari programme, consider the following statements:
- It is an interactive voice response based mobile health service.
- It is centrally hosted by Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
- It is launched to provide health related information to old age people.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently the union Ministers of State for Health and Family Welfare virtually launched the Kilkari programme, a Mobile Health (m-health) initiative for beneficiaries in local content in Gujarat and Maharashtra.
‘Kilkari’ (meaning ‘a baby’s gurgle’), is a centralized interactive voice response (IVR) based mobile health service.
Features
It delivers free, weekly, time-appropriate 72 audio messages about pregnancy, childbirth, and childcare directly to families’ mobile phones from the second trimester of pregnancy until the child is one year old.
Women who are registered in Reproductive Child Health (RCH) portal based on the woman’s LMP (last menstrual period) or the child’s DoB (Date of Birth), receive a weekly call with pre-recorded audio content directly to the mobile phones of pregnant women and mothers with children under the age of one year.
Kilkari audio messages are present in the form of voice of a fictitious doctor character called Dr. Anita.
It is centrally hosted by Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) for all the States/UTs and no further investment in the technology, telephony infrastructure or operational costs is required to be borne by States/UTs.
This service is FREE of cost for States/UTs and beneficiaries.
The programme is integrated with centralized Reproductive Child Health (RCH) portal of MoHFW’s and is the single source of information for this mHealth service.
Currently Kilkari is under implementation in 18 States / UTs of India.
What is Mobile Academy?
It is a free audio training course designed to expand and refresh the knowledge of Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs) and improve their communication skills via their mobile phones, which is both cost-effective and efficient.
It is an anytime, anywhere training course that can train thousands of ASHAs simultaneously via mobile phone.
It is operational in 17 States/UTs except Chandigarh with six languages viz. Hindi, Bhojpuri, Oriya, Assamese, Bengali & Telugu version.
Hence only statements 1 and 2are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2003571
Consider the following statements regarding the Open Network Digital Commerce:
- It is an open-source network set up to democratise electronic commerce.
- It was established by the union Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
In a first, the Centre has on boarded 11 fair price shops on the state-run e-commerce portal Open Network Digital Commerce (ONDC).
It is an open-source network set up to enable buyers and sellers to transact with each other irrespective of the e-commerce platform on which either of them are registered.
It will enable local commerce across segments, such as mobility, grocery, food order and delivery, hotel booking and travel, among others, to be discovered and engaged by any network-enabled application.
It is an initiative of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Purpose
To promote open networks for all aspects of exchange of goods and services over digital or electronic networks.
To create new opportunities, curb digital monopolies and by supporting micro, small and medium enterprises and small traders and help them get on online platforms.
It seeks to democratise digital or electronic commerce, moving it from a platform-centric model to an open-network.
Benefits:
It offers small retailers an opportunity to provide their services, and goods to buyers across the country through an e-commerce system.
It enables merchants to save their data to build credit history and reach consumers.
It is expected to digitise the entire value chain, promote inclusion of suppliers, derive efficiencies in logistics and enhance value for consumers.
ONDC protocols would standardize operations like cataloguing, inventory management, order management and order fulfilment.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.livemint.com/industry/retail/govt-lists-fair-price-shops-on-ondc-11707300595377.html
Consider the following statements regarding Quantum Internet:
- It is a network of quantum computers and communication devices that transmits quantum states and entanglement.
- It conveys information through qubits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A team of Stony Brook University physicists and their collaborators have taken a significant step toward the building of a quantum internet testbed by demonstrating a foundational quantum network measurement that employs room-temperature quantum memories.
It is a theorized and much sought-after network of interconnected quantum computers that will allow people to send, compute, and receive information using quantum technology.
A quantum internet would be a network of quantum computers, sensors, and communication devices that will create, process, and transmit quantum states and entanglement.
It is anticipated to enhance society’s internet system and provide certain services and securities that the current internet does not have.
The purpose of the quantum internet is not to replace the internet we know today, but to instead create a co-existent network that can be used to solve specific types of problems.
Working
Quantum computers use fundamental units of information similar to the bits used in classical computing. These are called “qubits.”
However, unlike conventional computer bits—which convey information as a 0 or 1—qubits convey information through a combination of quantum states, which are unique conditions found only on the subatomic scale.
Qubits are not either 0 or 1, but rather both and neither, in a quantum phenomenon called superposition.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-02-team-fundamental-functioning-quantum-internet.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Zircon Missile:
- It is a supersonic ballistic missile.
- It is developed by Russia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
In an attempt to hit a target in Kyiv, Russian forces launched a 3M22 Zircon missile recently.
About Zircon Missile:
The 3M22 Zircon, or SS-N-33, is a scramjet-powered maneuvering anti-ship hypersonic cruise missile developed in Russia.
Features:
The missile is reportedly capable of flying with speeds up to Mach 9 and a range of 1000 km.
It’s a two-stage missile that uses solid fuel in the first stage and a scramjet motor in the second stage.
Zircon cruise missiles use cooled supersonic combustion ramjet engines, which power combustion by compressing air flowing at supersonic speeds due to the missile’s forward motion.
This is in contrast to other hypersonic weapons like the China-made DF-17 or the Russian-made Avangard, which use a Hypersonic Glide Vehicle (HGV), which rely on the initial momentum provided by multi-stage rocket boosters like those used on a ballistic missile to accelerate them to hypersonic speeds.
Guidance System: Active and Passive Radar Seeker.
Another valuable aspect of the missile is its plasma cloud. During flight, the missile is completely covered by a plasma cloud that absorbs any rays of radio frequencies and makes the missile invisible to radars.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.eurasiantimes.com/russias-ship-launched-zircon-hypersonic-missile-strikes-ukraine-for-the-1st-time-report-claims-experts-uncertain/
With reference to the Gomti River, consider the following statements:
- It is a tributary of the Ganga River.
- It originates in Himachal Pradesh.
- Lucknow is situated on the banks of this river.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Over 600 turtles seized from smugglers were released into the Gomti River recently.
About Gomti River:
It is a tributary of the Ganga River.
Course:
Origin: It is an alluvial river that originates from the Gomat Taal, otherwise called Fulhaar Jheel, found near the Madho Tanda in Pilibhit district in Uttar Pradesh, India.
After flowing through an incised valley southwards through the districts of Sitapur, Lucknow, Barabanki, Sultanpur, and Jaunpur, it joins River Ganga near Varanasi.
The river extends to about 900 km.
The total drainage area of the river is 30,437 sq. km.
The characteristic of the river is perennial. The river is characterized by sluggish flow throughout the year, except during the monsoon season, when heavy rainfall causes a manifold increase in the runoff.
Major Cities: There are various cities that are situated on the banks of the River Gomti, such as Sultanpur, Lucknow, Jaunpur, and Lakhimpur Kheri.
Tributaries: Kathina, Bhainsi, Sarayan, Gon, Reth, Sai, Pili, and Kalyani.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/lucknow-news/over-600-rescued-turtles-released-in-gomti-river-101707418541163.html
Consider the following statements regarding Forever Chemicals:
- They are naturally found in the environment.
- They are found in a variety of consumer products like nonstick pans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Researchers recently demonstrated a new lab-based method to detect traces of Forever Chemicals from food packaging material, water, and soil samples in just three minutes or less.
About Forever Chemicals:
PFAS (Per- and polyfluorinated alkyl substances), also known as the Forever Chemicals, are a large chemical family of over 4,700 highly persistent man-made chemicals.
These were first developed in the 1940s and are now found in a variety of consumer products, including nonstick pans, water-resistant textiles, and fire suppression foams, due to their ability to repel both grease and water.
PFAS are the most persistent synthetic chemicals to date. They hardly degrade in the natural environment and have been found in the blood of people and animals all over the world, and are present at low levels in a variety of food products.
The secret to PFAS’s indestructibility lies in its chemical bonds. PFAS contains many carbon-fluorine bonds, which are the strongest bonds in organic chemistry.
These chemicals also cause pollution at every stage of production. At the PFAS chemical manufacturing facilities and garment factories, they often contaminate the air, water, and soil of the surrounding environment.
Exposure to PFAS is linked to cancers, weakened immune systems among children, weight gain, and a wide range of other health problems.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-02-unveil-method-chemicals-minutes.html
Which one of the following substances is not commonly used as an absorbent in Flue Gas De-sulphurisation (FGD) systems?
Carbon dioxide
Explanation :
The Union Minister for Power and New & Renewable Energy recently informed about the installation of Flue Gas De-sulphurisation (FGD) equipment in thermal power plants.
About Flue Gas De-sulphurisation (FGD):
It is a technology to eliminate sulfur dioxide (SO2) from exhaust emissions.
Where does Sulfur Dioxide come from?
Fossil fuels such as coal and oil often contain high amounts of sulfur, and when these fuels are burned, around 95% or more of the sulfur is converted to sulfur dioxide (SO2), which is emitted as flue gas.
Sulfur dioxide in itself is a major air pollutant which impacts all life. It is also a precursor of acid rain, which has significant adverse impacts on forests, freshwaters, and soils, in turn killing insect and aquatic life forms, causing paint to peel, corrosion of steel structures such as bridges, and weathering of stone buildings and statues.
The removal of sulfur dioxide is critical to establishing a safe and clean environment where toxic emissions are kept to a safe level.
FGD Process:
FGD is done through the addition of absorbents, which can remove up to 95% of the sulphur dioxide from the flue gas.
Substances such as ammonia or sodium sulphite are used as absorbents; however, the use of lime or limestone slurry (wet limestone scrubbing) is also widespread.
The uncleaned flue gas is sprayed in a scrubber tower (absorber tower) with a mixture of water and limestone (scrubbing slurry), whereby most of the sulphur dioxide is bonded by chemical reaction.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
Sources: https://www.wwdmag.com/what-is-articles/article/10940461/what-is-flue-gas-desulfurization
At the end of a build-operate-transfer (BOT) contract, what happens during the “transfer” phase?
Ownership and control of the facility are transferred back to the government
Explanation :
The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) has come up with a list of high-traffic density corridors for private developers to build and operate under the build-operate-transfer (BOT) model.
About build-operate-transfer (BOT) Model:
It is a type of agreement often used in infrastructure projects, particularly in the construction and operation of public facilities or utilities.
It is a conventional public-private partnership (PPP) model in which a private entity (usually a company or consortium) is granted the rights and responsibilities to design, finance, construct, operate, and maintain a specific project or facility for a defined period of time.
The private entity, known as the “concessionaire” or “developer,” bears the financial and operational risks associated with the project during the contract period.
The typical lifecycle of a BOT contract involves three phases:
Build: The concessionaire is responsible for financing, designing, and constructing the infrastructure project. This phase usually includes obtaining the necessary permits and approvals.
Operate: After the construction is completed, the concessionaire operates and maintains the facility for a specified duration. This can involve providing services, managing operations, and generating revenue from the facility (e.g., tolls, fees, or user charges).
Transfer: At the end of the contract period, the ownership and control of the facility are transferred back to the government or public authority, which may have been the original owner. The transfer is often accompanied by a predetermined valuation or compensation mechanism.
The private company gains revenue during the concession period, while the government benefits from infrastructure development without upfront investment.
However, the specifics of the financial arrangements and incentives vary depending on the individual BOT contract.
BOT is particularly well-suited for greenfield projects (new projects without prior work) and large-scale, capital-intensive projects.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/roadways-explainer-will-the-new-bot-model-bring-back-private-developers-3388667/
Consider the following statements regarding the SARTHI Platform:
- It is the digital insurance platform launched in collaboration with United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) India.
- The insurance under this covers both health and agriculture implements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare launched the Agri-Insurance Sandbox Framework Platform SARTHI and Learning Management System (LMS) Platform for the farming community under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) in Delhi.
Sandbox for Agricultural and Rural Security, Technology and Insurance (SARTHI) is the comprehensive digital insurance platform launched in collaboration with United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) India.
It extends coverage to health, life, home, shop, agriculture implements, motor, and parametric products.
It can be accessed via the AIDE app available on Android App Store.
This ambitious endeavour, aligned with the Sustainable Development Goals, not only aims to safeguard farmers’ livelihoods but also to fortify the resilience of the agricultural sector as a whole.
Significance
It marks a significant advancement beyond traditional crop insurance, offering a diverse array of products tailored to farmers’ needs.
By expanding insurance coverage to include vital assets like tractor machinery, SARTHI empowers farmers to comprehensively mitigate risks, securing their livelihoods and fostering long-term sustainability in agriculture.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2004173
Consider the following statements regarding the DigiReady Certification:
- It is an initiative of the NITI Aayog.
- It aims to certify digital readiness of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) entities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Quality Council of India (QCI) and Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) announced the launch of the DigiReady Certification (DRC) portal.
In this initiative, QCI, in conjunction with ONDC, aim to assess and certify digital readiness of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) entities.
By leveraging this online self-assessment tool, MSMEs can evaluate their preparedness to seamlessly onboard as sellers on the ONDC platform, thereby expanding their digital capabilities and business potential.
The portal is meticulously designed to facilitate a streamlined seller journey, ensuring that MSMEs and small retailers can integrate seamlessly into existing digitized workflows.
The certification process evaluates various aspects of digital readiness, including the presence of necessary documentation for online operations, proficiency in using software and technology, integration with existing digitized workflows, and efficient management of orders and catalogue offerings.
This initiative presents additional business prospects for sellers, allowing them to become integral to the digital ecosystem.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2003914
With reference to Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana, consider the following statements:
- It is a Central Sector Sub-scheme under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana.
- It aims to formalize the unorganized fisheries sector through self registration of fishers.
- It is funded by the World Bank.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Cabinet approved the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana (PM-MKSSY), a sub scheme under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana.
It will be implemented as a Central Sector Sub-scheme under the Central Sector Component of the PMMSY.
Funding: Implemented at an estimated outlay of Rs.6,000 crore consisting of 50% i.e. Rs.3,000 crore public finance including the World Bank and the AFD external financing, and rest 50% i.e.Rs.3,000 crore being the anticipated investment from the beneficiaries/private sector leverage.
Time period: It will be implemented for 4 years from FY 2023-24 to FY 2026-27 across all the States and UTs.
Intended Beneficiaries:
Fishers, Fish (Aquaculture) Farmers, Fish workers, Fish Vendors or such other person directly engaged in fisheries value chain.
Micro and Small enterprises in the form of Proprietary Firms, Partnership Firms and Companies registered in India, Societies, Limited Liability Partnerships (LLPs), Cooperatives, Federations, Village Level Organizations like Self Help Groups (SHGs), Fish Farmers Producer Organizations (FFPOs) and Startups engaged in fisheries and aquaculture value chains.
FFPOs also include Farmers Producer Organizations (FPOs).
Any other beneficiaries that may be included by the Department of Fisheries, Gol as targeted beneficiaries.
Aims and objectives
Gradual Formalization of the unorganized fisheries sector through self registration of fishers, fish farmers and supportive workers under a National Fisheries Sector Digital Platform including creation of work based digital identifies of fish workers for improved service delivery.
Facilitating access to institutional financing fisheries sector micro and small enterprises.
Providing one-time incentive to beneficiaries for purchasing aquaculture insurance.
lncentivizing fisheries and aquaculture microenterprises through performance grants for improving fisheries sector value-chain efficiencies including creation and maintenance of jobs.
Incentivising micro and small enterprises through performance grants for adoption and expansion of fish and fishery product safety and quality assurance systems including creation and maintenance of jobs.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2004223
Consider the following statements regarding the Aadi Mahotsav:
- It is organized by Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India Limited (TRIFED).
- It is a platform to exhibit the talent and craftsmanship of tribal artisans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
President of India will inaugurate the Aadi Mahotsav 2024, an annual National Tribal Festival at Major Dhyan Chand National Stadium in New Delhi on 10th February.
It is organized by Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India Limited (TRIFED)under the aegis of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, will showcase the rich diversity of India’s tribal heritage.
It is not only a platform to exhibit the extraordinary talent and craftsmanship of tribal artisans but also an opportunity to interact, learn, and contribute to the empowerment of tribal communities.
The festival will feature an expanded showcase with over 300 stalls, offering varied display of Tribal art, handicrafts, natural produce, and delectable tribal cuisine.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2004061
Steinernema adamsi, recently seen in news, is a:
nematode
Explanation :
Scientists at the University of California, Riverside have unveiled a new species of nematode, Steinernema adamsi, a minuscule yet potent ally in the battle against crop pests.
This new species is a member of a family of nematodes called Steinernema that have long been used in agriculture to control insect parasites without pesticides.
Steinernema are not harmful to humans or other mammals and were first discovered in the 1920s.
This new species is part of a special group of nematodes considered beneficial to humans because it can infect and kill insect pests
It is an entomopathogenic nematode that crawls inside of an insect, defecates highly pathogenic bacteria into its blood and then combines with that bacterium to kill the insect host.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-02-discovery-nematode-species-crops-pesticides.html
With reference to National Judicial Academy (NJA), consider the following statements:
- It is an independent society, fully funded by the Government of India.
- It works under the directions of the Supreme Court of India.
- Its Governing Council is headed by the Attorney General.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
If judges can go to the National Judicial Academy for training, why not lawyers, the Supreme Court said recently while asserting that all advocates should undergo compulsory training.
About National Judicial Academy (NJA):
NJA, established in 1993 under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, is an independent society, fully funded by the Government of India, and works under the directions of the Supreme Court of India.
Mandate: Strengthening the Administration of Justice through Judicial Education, Research, and Policy Development.
It organizes trainings to aid the judges in their judging roles and in the performance of court administration work.
Its 63-acre campus is located in the outskirts of Bhopal. It also has a registered office in Delhi.
The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is the Chairman of the General Body of NJA as well as the Chairman of the Governing Council, the Executive Committee, and the Academic Council of NJA.
Management:
The Director, NJA is the Principal Executive Officer of NJA. The Director is appointed by the Chairman, the Hon’ble Chief Justice of India.
NJA academic staff positions include, in addition to the Director, one position of Additional Director (Research), three positions of Professor, six positions of Assistant Professor, six positions of Research Fellow, and six positions of Law Associates.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/if-judges-can-go-to-national-judicial-academy-for-training-why-not-lawyers-supreme-court/article67828451.ece
With reference to Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB), consider the following statements:
- It is issued by Reserve Bank of India on behalf of the Government of India (GoI).
- It can be sold to both resident and non-resident Indian entities.
- It is eligible to be used as collateral for loans from banks.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The issue price of the next tranche of Sovereign Gold Bond has been fixed at Rs 6,263 per gram, the Reserve Bank said in a statement recently.
About Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB) Scheme:
SGBs are government securities denominated in grams of gold.
The SGB Scheme was first launched by the Government of India (GOI) on October 30, 2015.
They are substitutes for holding physical gold. Investors have to pay the issue price, and the bonds will be redeemed upon maturity.
The bond is issued by Reserve Bank on behalf of the GOI.
Who is eligible to invest in the SGBs? The bonds will be restricted for sale to resident Indian entities, including individuals (in their capacity as individuals, or on behalf of minor child, or jointly with any other individual), Hindu Undivided Family (HUF), Trusts, Universities and Charitable Institutions.
What are the minimum and maximum limits for investment?
The bonds are issued in denominations of one gram of gold and in multiples thereof.
The minimum investment in the bond shall be one gram, with a maximum subscription limit of 4 kg for individuals, 4 kg for HUFs, and 20 kg for trusts and similar entities notified by the government from time to time per fiscal year.
In case of joint holding, the investment limit of 4 KG will be applied to the first applicant only.
Tenor: The tenor of the bond will be for a period of 8 years, with an exit option in the 5th, 6th, and 7th years, to be exercised on the interest payment dates.
Who are the authorized agencies selling the SGBs? Bonds are sold through offices or branches of Nationalised Banks, Scheduled Private Banks, Scheduled Foreign Banks, designated Post Offices, Stock Holding Corporation of India Ltd. (SHCIL), and the authorised stock exchanges either directly or through their agents.
Other Features:
Payment for the Bonds will be through cash payment (up to a maximum of Rs. 20,000/-), or demand draft, or cheque, or electronic banking.
Investors are assured of the market value of gold at the time of maturity and periodical interest.
These securities are eligible to be used as collateral for loans from banks, financial Institutions, and Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs).
Bonds will be tradable on stock exchanges within a fortnight of the issuance on a date as notified by the RBI.
The bonds can also be sold and transferred as per the provisions of Government Securities Act, 2006.
Interest on the bonds will be taxable as per the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
The capital gains tax arising on the redemption of SGB to an individual has been exempted.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/markets/commodities/news/sovereign-gold-bond-price-fixed-at-rs-6263/gm-issues-opens-monday/articleshow/107564765.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding the Airports Authority of India (AAI):
- It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Civil Aviation.
- It provides Air Traffic Management Services (ATMS) over the entire Indian Air Space.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently agreed to hear a curative petition filed by the Airports Authority of India (AAI) against the multinational conglomerate GMR Group concerning the operational management of Nagpur’s Babasaheb Ambedkar International Airport.
About Airports Authority of India (AAI):
It is a statutory body under the Directorate General of Civil Aviation, Ministry of Civil Aviation, Government of India.
It was constituted by an Act of Parliament and came into being on 1st April, 1995, by merging the erstwhile National Airports Authority and the International Airports Authority of India.
The merger brought into existence a single Organization entrusted with the responsibility of creating, upgrading, maintaining, and managing civil aviation infrastructure both on the ground and air space in the country.
AAI manages 137 airports, which include 24 International Airports (including 3 International Civil Enclaves), 10 Customs Airports (including 4 Customs Civil Enclaves), 80 Domestic Airports, and 23 Domestic Civil Enclaves at Defence airfields.
AAI also provides Air Traffic Management Services (ATMS) over the entire Indian Air Space and adjoining oceanic areas, with ground installations at all airports, and 25 other locations to ensure the safety of aircraft operations.
The functions of AAI are as follows:
Design, development, operation and maintenance of international and domestic airports and civil enclaves.
Control and management of the Indian airspace extending beyond the territorial limits of the country, as accepted by the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO).
Construction, modification and management of passenger terminals.
Development and Management of cargo terminals at international and domestic airports.
Provision of passenger facilities and an information system at the passenger terminals at airports.
Expansion and strengthening of the operation area, viz. Runways, Aprons, Taxiway etc.
Provision of visual aids.
Provision of communication and navigation aids, viz. ILS, DVOR, DME, Radar etc.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/supreme-court-airports-authority-gmr-group-nagpur-airport-operation-249092
Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution:
- It is based on the Objectives Resolution drafted by Jawaharlal Nehru.
- The 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976 added the words “Socialist” and “Secular” in the Preamble.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Supreme Court of India recently agreed to examine whether the words “socialist” and “secular” can be removed from the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
About the Preamble of the Indian Constitution:
The preamble of the Indian Constitution serves as a brief introductory statement of the Constitution that sets out the guiding purpose, principles, and philosophy of the Indian Constitution.
The Preamble is based on the Objectives Resolution, drafted and moved by Jawaharlal Nehru.
The Preamble reveals four ingredients or components:
Source of authority of the Constitution: It is indicated by the Preamble that the source of authority of the Constitution lies with the people of India.
Nature of the Indian State: It declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic.
Objectives of the Constitution: The objectives stated by the Preamble are to secure justice, liberty, and equality for all citizens and promote fraternity to maintain the unity and integrity of the nation.
Date of adoption of the Constitution: It stipulates November 26, 1949, as the date.
Amendments: By the 42nd Amendment of 1976, the words “Socialist” and “Secular” were inserted; the Preamble now reads “Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic”.
Interpretation by the Supreme Court:
Berubari Union case: In this case, it was held by the Supreme Court that the Preamble is part of the Constitution. However, it recognised that the Preamble could be used as a guiding principle if a term in any article of the Constitution is ambiguous or has more than one meaning.
Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala: In this case, the Supreme Court overturned its earlier decision and held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368 of the Constitution.
Again, in the LIC of India case, the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/could-preamble-have-been-amended-without-altering-constitution-s-adoption-date-sc-asks-101707506343224.html
The Sunabeda Wildlife Sanctuary is located in:
Odisha
Explanation :
An exchange of fire took place between Maoists and security forces in the Sunabeda wildlife sanctuary recently.
About Sunabeda Wildlife Sanctuary:
Location: It is located in the Nuapada district of Odisha, adjoining Chhattisgarh.
It is spread over a sprawling area of 600 sq kms. It was declared a sanctuary in the year 1983.
It adjoins the Sitanadi and Udanti sanctuaries of Chhattisgarh.
The sanctuary harbors a great diversity of wildlife habitats, with a vast plateau, canyons, and 11 waterfalls.
It also forms the catchment area of the Jonk River (tributary of Mahanadi River), over which a dam has been constructed to facilitate irrigation.
Vegetation: The important vegetation of this sanctuary comprises dry deciduous tropical forests.
Flora: Bija, Teak, Sisoo, Asan, Dharua, Mahul, Char, Sandal wood, Sidha, etc.
Fauna:
It is an ideal habitat for the Barasingha (swamp deer).
Other important animals found are tigers, Leopards, hyenas, Barking Deer, Chital, Gaur, Sambar, Sloth Bear, Hill Myna, etc.
It also works as a migration link for rare wild Buffaloes between the states of Orissa and Chhattisgarh.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bhubaneswar/maoists-security-forces-exchange-fire-in-sunabeda-wildlife-sanctuary/articleshow/107572547.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Earth System Model:
- It is open-source software designed to integrate the interactions of atmosphere, ocean, land, ice and biosphere.
- It is being developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology is developing a first-for-India Earth System Model to improve climate forecasts and predict climate impacts.
It is open-source software that is designed to integrate the interactions of atmosphere, ocean, land, ice, and biosphere to estimate the state of regional and global climate under a wide variety of conditions.
Since it is based on numerical weather prediction and data assimilation, it can be used for accurate climate change predictions.
The Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology along with the Centre for Climate Change Research (CCCR), is developing this first-for-India Earth System Model.
Purpose: To improve its forecasts, facilitate long-term climate studies, and predict climate impacts in the coming years.
IITM-ESM incorporates earth system components in the Climate Forecast System (CFS) from National Center for Environmental Prediction (NCEP, USA), and transforms the CFS seasonal prediction model to a long-term climate mode,
Funding: An amount of ₹192.28 crores has been sanctioned under the Monsoon Convection, Clouds and Climate Change (MC4) sub scheme to develop the climate forecasting system.
The work on the model is currently underway and is expected to be completed by 2025.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/india-developing-a-new-earth-system-model-to-improve-forecasts-track-climate-crisis-impacts-101707502925985.html
Consider the following statements regarding the FAST Telescope:
- It aims to detect neutral hydrogen to the edge of the universe.
- It is developed by Russia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, astronomers from the Nanjing University in China and elsewhere have detected a radio pulsar in a supernova remnant known as CTB 87 by using the Five-hundred-meter Aperture Spherical radio Telescope (FAST).
The Five-hundred-meter Aperture Spherical radio Telescope (FAST), located in a karst depression in Guizhou, China.
It is the world’s largest single-dish radio telescope, with a receiving area equivalent to 30 football fields.
It is expected that FAST will maintain its world-class status for the next 20 to 30 years.
Goals
Detect neutral hydrogen to the edge of the universe, reconstruct the images of the early universe;
Discover pulsar, establish a pulsar timing array, and participate in pulsar navigation and gravitational wave detection in the future;
Join the International Very-Long-Baseline Interferometry Network to obtain hyperfine structures of celestial bodies;
Perform high resolution radio spectral survey. Detect weak space signals;
Participate in the search for extraterrestrial intelligence.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-02-chinese-astronomers-radio-pulsar-supernova.html
With reference to High-Altitude Pseudo Satellite (HAPS) vehicle, consider the following statements:
- It is an unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) developed by National Aerospace Laboratories.
- It does not require a rocket to get into space.
- It can be used in continuous surveillance of border areas.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, the National Aerospace Laboratories (NAL) in Bengaluru has successfully completed the first test of a solar-powered high-altitude pseudo satellite vehicle.
It is a new age unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) that can significantly increase India’s surveillance and monitoring capabilities in the border areas.
It is a still-developing technology, and the successful test flight last week puts India among a very small group of countries currently experimenting with this technology.
Features
It can fly at altitudes of 18-20 km from the ground, almost double the heights attained by commercial airplanes.
It has the ability to generate solar power.
It can remain in air for months, even years, offering it advantages of a satellite.
It does not require a rocket to get into space.
The cost of operating HAPS is several times lower than that of a satellite that is usually placed at least 200 km from the earth.
Applications of HAPS
It can be very useful in disaster situations.
It can even be used to provide mobile communications networks in remote areas
Even it can be used in continuous surveillance of border areas to detect changes or movements.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/meet-haps-indias-very-own-uav-that-can-fly-20-km-high-and-float-for-months-9153929/
Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana:
- It aims to reduce wastage of agricultural produce and enhance export of processed foods.
- It is implemented by the Union Ministry of Food Processing Industries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the union Minister of State for Food Processing Industries informed the Rajya Sabha about the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana.
The Central Sector Scheme - SAMPADA (Scheme for Agro-Marine Processing and Development of Agro-Processing Clusters) was approved by the cabinet in May 2017.
The scheme has now been renamed as the “Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY)”.
It is a comprehensive package of component schemes, which is aimed at creation of modern infrastructure with efficient supply chain management from farm gate to retail outlet.
It provides a boost to the growth of food processing sector in the country, helps in providing better prices to farmers, creates employment opportunities especially in the rural areas, reduces wastage of agricultural produce, increases the processing level and enhances the export of the processed foods.
Objective: The objective of PMKSY is to supplement agriculture, modernize processing and decrease Agri-Waste.
Components
Mega Food Parks,
Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition Infrastructure
Infrastructure for Agro-Processing Clusters,
Creation of Backward and Forward Linkages,
Creation/Expansion of Food Processing & Preservation Capacities,
Food Safety and Quality Assurance Infrastructure and
Human Resources and Institutions
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Food Processing Industries
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2004394
The Papikonda National Park, recently seen in the news, is located in:
Andhra Pradesh
Explanation :
Recently, a lone male tiger safely entered its natural habitat of Papikonda National Park (PNP) from the Eluru district side.
It is located in East and West Godavari districts of Andhra Pradesh.
The area plays a key role in high precipitation and the consequent origin of various small streams and rivulets which drain and enrich the perennial River Godavari.
A unique dwarf breed of goat known locally as the “kanchu mekha” originates in this region.
It was declared as a national park only recently in 2008.
The national park has been recognized as an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area by BirdLife International.
Vegetation:
Dry Mixed Teak Forests, Southern dry mixed deciduous forests and Southern moist mixed deciduous forests.
The predominant and most extensive forest type found in the park is Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous type and the species found in this type are mainly dry deciduous species.
Flora: Some species of flora include Albizia Amara, Latifolia, Albizia Lebbeck, Terminalias, Tectona Grandis, Lagerstroemia Lanceolata, Tomentosa, Arundinacea, Bambusa, Albizzia Amara, Dendrocalamus Strictus, Pterocarpus among others.
Fauna: Tiger, Leopard, Hyena and vulnerable bovidae the Indian gaur area. It has species like sambar, barking deer, chowsinga, spotted deer etc.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/lone-tiger-walks-back-to-its-natural-habitat-of-papikonda-national-park-with-good-health/article67816615.ece
With reference to advent of Europeans in India, consider the following events:
- Permanent factory of the East India Company was established at Surat.
- The Dutch founded their first factory in Masulipatnam.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: The Permanent factory of East India Company was established at Surat in 1613.
Statement 2 is correct: Dutch established their first factory at Masulipatnam in 1605.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to advent of Portuguese in India, consider the following statements:
- The permit system for ships was introduced by Francisco De Almeida.
- The Portuguese governor Nino da Cunha shifted the capital from Cochin to Goa.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
2 Only
Explanation :
Statement 1 is incorrect: Although the vision of blue water policy was given by Portuguese governor Almeida, the permit system for ships was introduced by Portuguese governor Alfonso de Albuquerque for exercising control over the major ship-building centers in the region.
Statement 2 is correct: The Portuguese governor Nino da Cunha shifted the headquarters of the Portuguese government from Cochin to Goa.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following:
- Portuguese,
- Dutch
- English (British
- French
- Danish
How many of the above mentioned European powers have come to India to establish their trading centres in India?
All five
Explanation :
Five European powers, namely Portuguese, Dutch, English (British East India Company), French, and Danish, came to India to establish their trading centres during the colonial era.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following:
- Naval superiority of the Royal Navy of Britain.
- Stable government in Britain.
- Lesser zeal for religion
- Effective use of the debt markets by company to fund its wars
- English East India company being a private enterprise
How many of the above factors were responsible for the supremacy of the English East India company in India over other European powers?
All five
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Naval superiority: The Royal Navy of Britain was the largest and most advanced in Europe, having achieved notable victories such as the defeat of the Spanish Armada and the French at Trafalgar.
Statement 2 is correct: Stable Government: Compared to other European nations experiencing periods of political upheaval, Britain enjoyed relatively stable governance with efficient monarchs. France, in particular, faced the turbulent period of the French Revolution and the Napoleonic Wars, weakening its position and forcing it to align with Britain.
Statement 3 is correct: Lesser zeal for religion: Unlike Spain, Portugal, and the Dutch, Britain displayed less zealousness in spreading Christianity. This more tolerant approach made British rule more acceptable to the local population in India.
Statement 4 is correct: Use of debt market: Britain successfully utilised the debt markets to fund its wars, particularly through the establishment of the Bank of England.
Statement 5 is correct: The English East India Company, unlike its counterparts, was controlled by a board of directors elected annually, with shareholders exercising considerable influence. The English company was a private enterprise. There was a sense of enthusiasm and self-confidence among stakeholders of East India Company
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
With reference to Farrukhsiyar’s Farman of 1717, consider the following statements:
- The concessions under the Farman were only available in Bengal.
- It gave the British East India Company the privilege to issue their own coins
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
2 Only
Explanation :
In 1717, Farrukhsiyar issued a farman giving the British East India Company the right to reside and trade in the Mughal Empire.
Statement 1 is incorrect: It gave the East India Company tax free monopoly trade and concessions not only in Bengal but also in Gujarat and Hyderabad.
Statement 2 is correct: The East India Company was exempted from both export duty and import duty by just giving the annual payment of 3000 rupees. It also gave them the privilege to issue their own coins from the mint of Bombay. These privileges have been called ‘the Magna Carta of East India Company’.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements about Francisco De Almeida:
- He abolished the practice of Sati in Goa.
- He implemented the Blue Water Policy to make the Portuguese the masters of the Indian Ocean.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
2 Only
Explanation :
Statement 1 is incorrect: It was Alfonso de Albuquerque (1509-1515) who abolished the practice of Sati in Goa. Alfonso de Albuquerque succeeded Almeida and established Portuguese bases strategically overlooking the entrances to the Indian Ocean.
Statement 2 is correct: Almeida aimed to make the Portuguese the masters of the Indian Ocean through his Blue Water Policy. Blue Water Policy (Cartaze system): It was a naval trade licence or pass issued by the Portuguese empire in the Indian Ocean during the sixteenth century. Its name derives from the Portuguese term ‘cartas’, meaning letters.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Carnatic Wars:
- The First Carnatic War was an extension of the Austrian War of Succession and the Seven Years’ War.
- The Treaty of Pondicherry was signed between the French and the English after the Second Carnatic War.
- The Third Carnatic War established Britain as the supreme European power in India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Statement 1 is incorrect: The First Carnatic War (1746-48): The Austrian War of Succession and the Seven Years’ War, fought in Europe, had repercussions in India. These European conflicts between Britain and France also led to disputes over their colonial possessions in North America and India. The First Carnatic War was an extension of the Anglo-French War in Europe which was caused by the Austrian War of Succession. The Third Carnatic War (1758-63) coincided with the Anglo-French War in Europe caused by the Seven Years War (1756-63).
Statement 2 is correct: Treaty of Pondicherry: It was signed in 1755 between the French and the English after the 2nd Carnatic War in India. The treaty stipulated that both nations would refrain from interfering in the disputes of Indian princes. It also defined their mutual territorial possessions in India, which remained in place for nearly two centuries until Indian independence.
Statement 3 is correct: The English emerged victorious in the Third Carnatic War on January 22, 1760, at Wandiwash (Vandavasi) in Tamil Nadu. Despite the Treaty of Peace of Paris (1763) restoring French factories in India, their political influence waned post-war, paving the way for English supremacy as the dominant European power in the Indian subcontinent.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Carnatic Wars - Causes of war
Explanation :
Pair 1 is correctly matched: First Carnatic War (1740-48): The Austrian War of Succession and the Seven Years’ War, fought in Europe, had repercussions in India. These European conflicts between Britain and France also led to disputes over their colonial possessions in North America and India. Escalation of tensions: Dupleix, the new Governor of Pondicherry, appealed to Morse, the Governor of Madras, to remain neutral. However, a British squadron under Commodore Barnett captured some French vessels carrying Indian goods, escalating the tensions. The English navy under Barnet seized French ships. It provoked France and France retaliated by seizing Madras in 1746, under Admiral La Bourdonnais, the French governor of Mauritius. The French squadron succeeded in capturing the undefended Madras on September 15, 1746. Thus began the first Carnatic War.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Second Carnatic War (1749- 54): Succession rivalry in Hyderabad and Carnatic by British and France led to the second Carnatic wars. Colonial powers manipulated native rulers against each other to further their interests. Dupleix, aiming to enhance French influence, became involved in the wars of succession in Hyderabad and Arcot. French supported the claims of Muzaffar Jang, while the English sided with Nasir Jang in Hyderabad, whereas, French supported Chanda Sahib and British supported Anwar-ud-din in case of Carnatic.
Pair 3 is incorrect: Third Carnatic war (1758-63): The outbreak of the Seven Years’ War in Europe in 1756 the English captured Chandernagore in India. It led to the beginning of third Carnatic war.
“He possessed qualities of an effective administrator and a diplomat. He was conferred the title of ‘Nawab’ by a Mughal emperor. He was the first European to interfere in the internal politics of the Indian rulers and paved the path of European conquest of India. He used the Nawab of Carnatic to forbid the English from waging war in his territories. He is considered the originator of the practice of subsidiary alliance in India.” The above paragraph best describes which of the following personalities?
Joseph Dupleix
Explanation :
Joseph Francis Dupleix, born in 1697, hailed from a privileged background as the son of a wealthy Farmer-General of Taxes and Director-General of the Company of the Indies.
Possessing diverse skills as an administrator, diplomat, and visionary leader, he rose to prominence swiftly. In 1730, Dupleix’s appointment as governor of Chandernagore marked the beginning of his notable career.
Subsequently, in 1741, he assumed the role of Director-General of French colonies in India, earning the prestigious title of Nawab from the Mughal emperor and the subahdar of Deccan, Muzzaffar Jang. Under his leadership, Pondicherry flourished as a commercial hub in South India, bolstered by enhanced defenses.
Dupleix’s diplomatic acumen shone during the first two Carnatic wars, where he adeptly utilized alliances to safeguard French interests. Pioneering European intervention in Indian politics, he supported candidates for key positions, securing significant concessions in return. Notably, Dupleix introduced the concept of the subsidiary alliance in India, positioning French forces strategically to influence regional dynamics, notably at Hyderabad.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to the English East India Company, which of the following terms best describes the term “factors”?
Company’s traders
Explanation :
The first English factory was set up on the banks of the river Hugli in 1651. This was the base from which the Company’s traders, known at that time as “factors”, operated. The factory had a warehouse where goods for export were stored, and it had offices where Company officials sat. As trade expanded, the Company persuaded merchants and traders to come and settle near the factory.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to Halogens, consider the following statements:
- They are nonmetallic elements.
- They do not occur as free elements in nature.
- All the halogens exist as solid state at room temperature.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
For the first time, chemists have synthesised an interhalogen compound exhibiting a unique central fluorine atom coordinated by four BrF5 groups.
About Halogens:
Halogens are any of the six nonmetallic elements that constitute Group 17 (Group VIIa) of the periodic table.
The halogen elements are:
fluorine (F), chlorine (Cl), bromine (Br), iodine (I), astatine (At), and tennessine (Ts).
The word halogen means “salt-producing”, because halogens react with metals to produce many important salts, of which sodium chloride—table salt, or halite—is best known.
Properties:
Halogens are so reactive that they do not occur as free elements in nature. They are the most reactive nonmetals.
The halogen atoms carry seven valence electrons in their outermost electron shell.
This accounts for their higher reactivity and tendency to gain one electron and form ionic bonds or share electrons with other elements to form covalent bonds.
Among all the halogens, fluorine is the most reactive, and Iodine is the least reactive of all.
In combined form, fluorine is the most abundant of the halogens in Earth’s crust.
Halogens are the only group on the periodic table that has elements in the solid, liquid, and gas phase at room temperature. At normal temperature and pressure, chlorine and fluorine are gases, bromine is a liquid, and iodine and astatine are solids.
They are powerful oxidizing agents.
They have very high electronegativities.
Halogens have a tendency to form hydrogen halides, which are potent acids when they combine with hydrogen.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.chemistryworld.com/news/unusual-bridging-fluorine-discovered-in-one-of-a-kind-interhalogen-ion/4018930.article
Thames River, recently seen in the news, flows through which one of the following countries?
United Kingdom
Explanation :
Police in the United Kingdom said that the man who is wanted for the recent chemical attack likely jumped into the Thames River and drowned.
About Thames River:
It is a 346-km river that flows through southern England.
It is the longest river in England and the second longest in the United Kingdom, right after the River Severn.
The Thames’ basin covers an area of approximately 16,130 sq.km.
Its source is at Thames Head, near Kemble in the Cotswold Hills, Gloucestershire County.
It flows into the North Sea via the Thames Estuary.
The Nore is the sandbank that marks the mouth of the Thames Estuary and the confluence point of the Thames and the North Sea.
The river passes numerous popular cities along its way, such as London, Reading, Hendley-on-Thomas, Windsor and Oxford, where it is also called the Isis River.
It provides two-thirds of London’s drinking water.
It has been a vital transportation route since ancient times, facilitating trade and commerce between London and other parts of England.
Main Tributaries: Lea, Leach, Churn, Coln, Windrush, Kennet, Evenlode, Ock, and Loddon.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.wionews.com/world/uk-london-chemical-attacker-may-have-drowned-in-thames-say-police-688819
With reference to the concept of Adverse Possession, consider the following statements:
- It allows a person who has unlawfully occupied someone else’s land to claim legal ownership it.
- If the adverse possession is successful, the claimant must compensate the owner for that property or receive their permission.
- In India, it is governed by the principle of the Limitation Law of 1963.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Supreme Court reiterated that a suit for declaration of title based on the plea of an adverse possession can be filed by the plaintiff.
About Adverse Possession:
It is a legal concept that allows a person who has unlawfully occupied someone else’s land for a certain period of time to claim legal ownership of that land.
The claimant must demonstrate that several criteria have been met before the court will allow their claim.
If the adverse possession is successful after following certain requirements and conditions, there will be no requirement to compensate the owner for that property or receive their permission.
Adverse possession is also known as squatter’s rights.
It is a negative and consequential right that arises due to the negligence of the true owner.
The rights and conditions for achieving adverse possession vary depending on the country.
In India, adverse possession has been a part of the legal framework for a long time and is rooted in the idea that land must not be left vacant and instead be put to judicious use.
The law of Adverse Possession in India is governed by the principle of The Limitation Law of 1963.
The law on adverse possession provides that any person who has been in possession of private land for more than 12 years or government land for over 30 years is granted the ownership rights to the property.
To claim adverse possession, the occupier must prove that they have been in continuous, uninterrupted possession of the land for at least 12 years (in the case of private land) and that their possession was open, notorious, and hostile to the true owner.
As per adverse possession under the limitation act, if, over a due course of time or period, an appeal is not made to revise any limitation, the current scenario of titles continues.
Thus, if a property owner fails to make a claim on their property for 12 years and the same tenant continues to occupy the property for 12 years, the ownership rights to the property are transferred to the tenant.
If one intends to establish adverse possession under the Limitation Act of 1963, the burden of proof will rest on them.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/declaration-of-title-can-be-sought-based-on-adverse-possession-supreme-court-reiterates-248383
With reference to the Supreme Court (SC) collegium, consider the following statements:
- It consists of the Chief Justice of India and the four senior-most judges of the SC.
- It makes recommendations to the government for the appointment of Chief Justices of High Courts (HC) and the transfers of HC judges.
- It is not provided explicitly in the Constitution of India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently quashed an Andhra Pradesh High Court order that voiced strong disapproval over the apex court Collegium transferring two Chief Justices and castigated the Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister for his apparent attempts to undermine it.
About Supreme Court Collegium:
It is a system under which appointments and transfers of judges are decided by a forum of the Chief Justice of India and the four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court (SC).
It has no place in the Indian Constitution.
What does the Constitution actually prescribe?
Article 124 deals with the appointment of SC judges. It says the appointment should be made by the President after consultation with such judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court as the President may deem necessary. The CJI is to be consulted in all appointments, except his or her own.
Article 217 deals with the appointment of High Court judges. It says a judge should be appointed by the President after consultation with the CJI and the Governor of the state. The Chief Justice of the High Court concerned too should be consulted.
Evolution of the Collegium System:
Since the Constitution mandates consultation with the CJI is necessary for appointments to the judiciary, the collegium model evolved.
It has its genesis in a series of three judgments that are now clubbed together as the Three Judges Cases.
First Judges Case (1982):
The SC held that “consultation” of judges does not mean concurrence.
Hence, it gave primacy in the appointment of judges to the Executive.
Second Judges Case (1993):
The court reversed its earlier ruling by changing the meaning of “consultation” to concurrence.
With this, the advice tendered by CJI became binding. However, the CJI would have to take into account the views of two of his senior most colleagues.
Third Judges Case (1998):
The court gave primacy to the opinion of CJI in the matter of the appointment of Judges.
However, the CJI must consult four seniormost judges of SC.
Opinion of all members of the collegium should be in writing.
In case of difference of opinion, the majority view will prevail.
Even if two judges in the collegium give an adverse opinion of a person for appointment as the SC judge, the CJI should not send the recommendation to the government.
These three cases established that the collegium headed by the Chief Justice of India will have primacy in the appointment of judges to the higher judiciary.
This collegium makes recommendations to the government for appointment of judges to the SC and of Chief Justices of High Courts, and the transfers of HC judges.
Executive role:
Judges of the higher judiciary are thus appointed only through the collegium system, and the government has a role only after names have been decided by the collegiums.
The government’s role is limited to getting an inquiry conducted by the Intelligence Bureau (IB) if a lawyer is to be elevated as a judge in a High Court or the Supreme Court.
The government can also raise objections and seek clarifications regarding the collegium’s choices, but if the collegium reiterates the same names, the government is bound to appoint them.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/delhi/supreme-court-quashes-andhra-hc-order-expressing-disapproval-of-collegium-and-castigating-jagan-9154023/
Malaprabha River, recently seen in the news, is a tributary of:
Krishna
Explanation :
The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) recently deferred the decision on diverting forest land from the Kali and Sahyadri tiger reserves for the construction of a part of the Karnataka government’s Kalasa-Banduri Project.
About Kalasa-Banduri Project:
The project involves the construction of dams and a canal system to divert water from the Mahadayi River, located in Goa, to the Malaprabha River (a tributary of the Krishna River) basin in Karnataka.
The main goal of the project is to meet the drinking water needs of the districts of Belagavi, Dharwad, Bagalkot, and Gadag in Karnataka.
Though the project was first proposed in the early 1980s, it has remained on paper owing to a dispute between Karnataka, Goa, and Maharashtra.
As per plans, barrages are to be built against Kalasa and Banduri streams — tributaries of Mahadayi — and water diverted towards Karnataka’s parched districts.
Key facts about Mahadayi River:
Origin: It rises in the Western Ghats from the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in Khanapur taluk of Karnataka’s Belagavi district.
The river travels 35 km in Karnataka, 82 km in Goa before joining the Arabian Sea at Panji (North-Goa).
Also called Mandovi in Goa, Mahadayi is a rain-fed river that is shared between Karnataka and Goa for their water needs.
The Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is located on the island of Chorao in the Mandovi River.
Major Tributaries: Kalasa Nala, Banduri Nala, Surla Nala, Haltar Nala, Poti Nala, Mahadayi Nala, Pansheer Nala, Bail Nala and Andher Nala.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/bengaluru-news/national-wildlife-board-defers-decision-on-karnatakas-kalasa-bhanduri-project-101707531958812.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Fund of Funds Startups (FFS) scheme:
- It does not directly invest in startups.
- It is operated by the Reserve Bank of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
According to a Crisil assessment called Prabhaav, the Fund of Funds for Startups (FFS) scheme has enabled investments to the tune of around 4x of the amount drawn with Rs 17,534 crore invested in 938 startups.
The Fund of Funds for Startups (FFS) Scheme was approved and established in 2016 with a corpus of Rs 10,000 crore.
Funding to start ups: Under FFS, the Scheme does not directly invest in startups, instead provides capital to SEBI-registered AIFs, known as daughter funds, who in turn invest money in growing Indian startups through equity and equity-linked instruments.
Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) has been given the mandate of operating this Fund through selection of suitable daughter funds and overseeing the disbursal of committed capital.
AIFs supported under FFS are required to invest at least 2 times of the amount committed under FFS in startups.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/sme/govts-fund-of-funds-for-startups-scheme-rs-17534-crore-invested-in-938-startups-says-crisil-sidbi-report/3389484/
Consider the following statements regarding the Aral Sea:
- It stands at the boundary between Kyrgyzstan and Turkmenistan.
- It was made by waters from the Syr Darya and the Amu Darya rivers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, NASA’s Earth Observatory posted a detailed analysis of the reason behind Aral Sea’s disappearance.
It stands at the boundary between Kazakhstan to the north and Uzbekistan to the south.
It was once a large saltwater lake of Central Asia and the world’s fourth largest body of inland water.
The remnants of it nestle in the climatically inhospitable heart of Central Asia, to the east of the Caspian Sea.
The Aral Sea depression was formed toward the end of the Neogene Period (which lasted from about 23 to 2.6 million years ago).
It was made by waters from the Syr Darya and the Amu Darya rivers that were dependent on glacial melt.
It drains Uzbekistan and portions of Kazakhstan, Tajikistan, Afghanistan, Turkmenistan, Iran, and Kyrgyzstan.
Climate: The Aral Sea is located within the harsh climate region of Central Asia. The area experiences a desert-continental climate, characterized by hot summers, cold winters, and varying diurnal air temperature.
Reason for its disappearance
According to the space agency, in 1960 the Soviet Union undertook a major water diversion project where they diverted the Syr Darya and the Amu Darya rivers for irrigation projects.
Though the project made the desert region surrounding the sea bloom, it had a devastating impact on the Aral Sea.
The waterbody slowly started drying up and today it is on the verge of complete disappearance.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/trending/how-climate-change-is-accelerating-the-decades-long-demise-of-the-aral-sea-101707472028728.html
With reference to frozen smoke, consider the following statements:
- It is known as aerogel.
- It has high density and low thermal resistivity.
- It is used to remove contaminants.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Researchers have developed a sensor made from “frozen smoke” that uses artificial intelligence techniques to detect formaldehyde in real time at concentrations as low as eight parts per billion, far beyond the sensitivity of most indoor air quality sensors.
The frozen smoke, technically known as aerogel, is an extraordinary material.
It was originally developed in the 1930s.
The name aerogel comes from the combination of the Greek word “aero”, meaning air, and “gel”, since aerogels are derived from gels.
It is hailed as a miracle material.
Properties
Aerogel can claim a low density, high thermal resistivity and a highly porous structure.
The texture of aerogel is similar to a fine, dry sponge, but feels much lighter
In fact, aerogel holds the record as the lightest solid in the world.
When pressed softly, aerogel will return to its original form, but when pressed harder, a dimple forms. Put aerogel under too much pressure, however, and it will shatter like glass into many tiny pieces.
They are composed mostly of air and can be used to remove contaminants.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-02-sensors-frozen-toxic-formaldehyde-homes.html#google_vignette
Consider the following statements regarding the Dhokra Shilpkala:
- It evolved in the Central Indian region.
- It uses the lost wax casting method for its designs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Chhattisgarh’s Ocher Studio is helping to preserve India’s 4,000-year-old craft- Dhokra Shilpkala
The word “Dhokra” is believed to be derived from the Dhokra Damar tribes, who are the traditional metal smiths of Central India.
The origins of Dhokra Shilpkala can be traced back to the tribal communities residing in the regions of Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha, where it evolved as an integral part of their cultural and religious practices.
Technique and Process: What sets Dhokra Shilpkala apart is its remarkable technique of metal casting, which involves using the lost wax casting method, also known as cire perdue.
Artistry and Designs:
Its design has rustic charm and the organic nature of its designs.
Artisans draw inspiration from nature, mythology, and everyday life, incorporating motifs such as animals, birds, deities, and tribal symbols into their creations.
From miniature figurines and jewelry to larger-than-life sculptures and functional objects, Dhokra Shilpkala encompasses a wide range of artistic expressions.
Issues: The rapid pace of urbanization, coupled with the rise of mechanized production techniques, has threatened the livelihoods of traditional artisans and endangered this ancient craft.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/dhokra-shilpkala-how-chhattisgarhs-ocher-studio-is-helping-to-preserve-indias-4000-year-old-craft/articleshow/107561569.cms?utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst
Consider the following statements regarding the Open Radio Access Network:
- It uses cellular radio connections to link individual devices to other.
- It consists of antennae, which transmits and receives signals to and from smartphones.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Ministry of Science and Technology announced the development of a new technological solution tailored for Open Radio Access Network (ORAN) based stations.
It is a key part of a mobile network system that uses cellular radio connections to link individual devices to other parts of a network.
It comprises antennae, which transmits and receives signals to and from our smartphones or other compatible devices.
The signal is then digitised in the RAN-base station and connected to the network.
ORAN base station
ORAN base station solutions represent a pivotal element in the evolution of telecommunications infrastructure.
This innovation aims to deliver high-speed and dependable connectivity at a feasible cost, particularly targeting underserved and remote regions, as per a recent press release.
Its focus lies in creating efficient wireless communication technology for 5G and 5G-advanced radio networks, ensuring spectral and energy efficiency.
Significance
A new niche technological solution for Open Radio Access Network (ORAN) base stations will help to facilitate high-speed and reliable connectivity at a cost that is viable for unconnected and far-flung areas.
It provides access to different components of the network infrastructure making it easier, efficient and more economically viable to provide internet in remote areas.
The breaking down of the Radio Access Network (RAN) functions help in bringing down network cost and complexity.
Open RAN removes vendor lock-in and can facilitate smooth interoperation between cellular network equipment provided by different vendors.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2004801
Consider the following statements regarding Nazool Land in north India:
- It is owned by the respective State Governments.
- It is generally used for public purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Violence erupted in Uttarakhand recently after a mosque and a madrasa standing on Nazool land were demolished.
About Nazool Land:
Nazool land is owned by the government but is most often not directly administered as state property.
The state generally allots such land to any entity on lease for a fixed period, generally between 15 and 99 years.
In case the lease term is expiring, one can approach the authority to renew the lease by submitting a written application to the Revenue Department of the local development authority.
The government is free to either renew the lease or cancel it, taking back Nazool land.
In almost all major cities in India, Nazool land has been allotted to different entities for a variety of different purposes.
How did Nazool Land emerge?
During British rule, kings and kingdoms which opposed the British frequently revolted against them, leading to several battles between them and the British Army.
Upon defeating these kings in battle, the British would often take their land away from them.
After India got Independence, the British vacated these lands.
But with kings and royals often lacking proper documentation to prove prior ownership, these lands were marked as Nazool land—to be owned by the respective state governments.
How does the government use Nazool land?
The government generally uses Nazool land for public purposes like building schools, hospitals, Gram Panchayat buildings, etc.
Several cities in India have also seen large tracts of land denoted as Nazool land used for housing societies, generally on lease.
How is Nazool land governed?
While several states have brought in government orders for the purpose of framing rules for Nazool land, The Nazool Lands (Transfer) Rules, 1956, is the law mostly used for Nazool land adjudication.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://inshorts.com/en/news/what-is-nazool-land-thats-at-the-centre-of-uttarakhand-violence-1707625429282
The Kawal Tiger Reserve is located in:
Telangana
Explanation :
Forest authorities have recently suspended six of their staff for being negligent in controlling teak smuggling in Kawal Tiger Reserve.
About Kawal Tiger Reserve:
Location:
It is located in the north-eastern part of Telangana (Old Adilabad district), with the Godavari River on one side and the Maharashtra border on the other.
It forms part of the Deccan peninsula-central highlands.
The government of India declared Kawal Wildlife Sanctuary a Tiger Reserve in 2012.
Rivers: The reserve is the catchment for the rivers Godavari and Kadam, which flow towards the south of the sanctuary.
Geographically, the reserve is situated at the southernmost tip of the Central Indian Tiger Landscape, having linkages with the Tadoba-Andhari (Maharashtra) and Indravati (Chhattisgarh) tiger reserves.
Habitat: It has diverse habitats comprising dense forests, grasslands, open areas, rivers, streams and water bodies.
Vegetation: Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest.
Flora:
Teak is found extensively, along with Bamboo.
As many as 673 plant species have been recorded, and the important ones are Anogeissus latifolia, Mitragyna parviflora, Terminalia crenulata, Terminalia arjuna, Boswellia serrata, etc.
Fauna:
It has a faunal diversity which is typical of the Deccan Plateau.
The major wild animals include: nilgai, chousinga, chinkara, black buck, sambar, spotted deer, wild dog, wolf, jackal, fox, tiger, leopard, and the jungle cat.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanchronicle.com/nation/six-forest-staff-suspended-for-negligence-881400
Consider the following statements regarding Alaskapox, recently seen in the news:
- It is a DNA virus that can infect various mammals including humans.
- It can easily transmit from human to human through direct contact.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
An elderly man from Alaska recently become the first person to die after contracting Alaskapox.
About Alaskapox:
It is an orthopox virus that was first discovered in Alaska, USA, in 2015.
It is a double-stranded DNA virus belonging to the same genus (Orthopoxvirus) as smallpox, monkeypox, and cowpox.
Orthopoxviruses are zoonotic viruses that can infect various mammals, including humans.
Current evidence indicates that the Alaskapox virus primarily occurs in small mammals. The virus has been most commonly identified in red-backed voles and shrews.
Signs and Symptoms:
Symptoms of Alaskapox have included one or more skin lesions (bumps or pustules) and other symptoms like swollen lymph nodes and joint and/or muscle pain.
Nearly all patients had mild illnesses that resolved on their own after a few weeks.
Immunocompromised people might be at increased risk for more severe illness.
Can people with Alaskapox infect other people?
While human-to-human transmission of Alaskapox has not yet been observed, some orthopoxviruses can spread by direct contact with lesions (particularly broken skin contact with lesion secretions).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.timesnownews.com/world/what-is-alaskapox-kenai-peninsula-man-becomes-first-person-to-die-of-virus-article-107607669
With reference to the Bochasanwasi Akshar Purushottam Swaminarayan Sanstha (BAPS), consider the following statements:
- It is a socio-spiritual Hindu faith with its roots in the Vedas.
- It was founded on the pillars of practical spirituality.
- It has a Consultative Status with the Economic and Social Council of the United Nations.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Prime Minister will inaugurate the Bochasanwasi Akshar Purushottam Swaminarayan Sanstha BAPS Mandir, the first Hindu temple in Abu Dhabi.
About Bochasanwasi Akshar Purushottam Swaminarayan Sanstha (BAPS):
BAPS is a socio-spiritual Hindu faith with its roots in the Vedas.
It is based on the Vedic teachings propagated by Bhagwan Swaminarayan (1781-1830 CE).
It was formally established in 1907 CE by Brahmaswarup Shastriji Maharaj.
Founded on the pillars of practical spirituality, the BAPS reaches out far and wide to address spiritual, moral and social challenges and issues.
No Alcohol, No Addictions, No Adultery, No Meat, No Impurity of body and mind are the five lifetime vows of BAPS followers.
Its global network of mandirs and centres hosts many moral, social, cultural, and spiritual activities.
Education and women development are other focus areas, with many schools, hostels, and community development activities targeted at women being managed by BAPS.
It is also engaged in a variety of humanitarian activities that include services in times of natural calamities, primary schools, students’ hostels, hospitals, diagnostic camps, anti-addiction drives, environment-awareness programs, tribal uplift, and literacy campaigns.
BAPS is an NGO with a Consultative Status with the Economic and Social Council of the United Nations.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/international/pm-narendra-modi-inaugurate-first-hindu-temple-abu-dhabi-during-his-two-day-visit
With reference to the Unified Payments Interface (UPI), consider the following statements:
- It was developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).
- It enables inter-bank transfers through a single two-click factor authentication process.
- It is not available outside India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
India’s Unified Payment Interface (UPI) services will be rolled out in Sri Lanka and Mauritius at a virtual ceremony.
About Unified Payments Interface (UPI):
The UPI is a digital and real-time payment system developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) and regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
It was launched on April 11, 2016.
It is designed to enable peer-to-peer inter-bank transfers through a single two-click factor authentication process.
Features:
Unlike traditional methods, UPI simplifies transfers using the recipient’s UPI ID, be it a mobile number, QR code, or Virtual Payment Address, eliminating account numbers.
It eliminates the need to enter bank details or other sensitive information each time a customer initiates a transaction.
A consistent UPI transaction PIN across apps enhances cross-operability, enabling 24/7 transactions.
UPI operates as a digital public infrastructure, allowing seamless interactions for all players, including merchants and customers, without transaction costs.
UPI uses technologies like the Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) and the Aadhaar-Enabled Payment System (AEPS) to ensure that payments between accounts go smoothly.
It facilitates push (pay) and pull (receive) transactions and even works for over-the-counter or barcode payments, as well as for multiple recurring payments such as utility bills, school fees, and other subscriptions.
It also works with “Peer-to-Peer” requests, which can be scheduled and paid for based on need and convenience.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/business/2024/Feb/11/upi-services-to-be-launched-in-sri-lanka-mauritius-on-monday
Consider the following statements regarding the Telecom Technology Development Fund (TTDF) scheme:
- It funds research and development in rural-specific communication technology applications.
- It was launched by the Universal Service Obligation Fund.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, C-DOT, and Indian Institute of Technology, Kharagpur (IIT-K) signed an agreement for ‘Developing Prototypes for 10-Gigabit-capable symmetric Passive Optical Network (i.e., XGS-PON) Optical Line Terminal (OLT) and Optical Network Unit (ONU) under the Telecom Technology Development Fund (TTDF) scheme.
It has been notified for domestic companies and institutions involved in technology design, development, commercialization of telecommunication products and solutions to enable affordable broadband and mobile services in rural and remote areas.
It was launched by the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF), a body under the Department of Telecommunications.
Aims
To fund R&D in rural-specific communication technology applications and form synergies among academia, start-ups, research institutes, and the industry to build and develop the telecom ecosystem.
To promote technology ownership and indigenous manufacturing, create a culture of technology co-innovation, reduce imports, boost export opportunities and creation of Intellectual Property.
Under the scheme, USOF is also targeting to develop standards to meet countrywide requirements and create the ecosystem for research, design, prototyping, use cases, pilots, and proof of concept testing, among others.
The scheme entails grants to Indian entities to encourage and induct indigenous technologies tailor-made to meet domestic needs.
Project Period:
Project timelines are generally up to two years.
However, it may be decided project-wise in consultation with the applicant as per the terms and conditions of the agreement.
Extension of six months each at a time may be granted at the sole discretion of USOF/DoT.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2004780
Consider the following statements regarding the Sangeet Natak Akademi:
- It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture.
- Its Chairman is appointed by the President of India for a term of five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Former vice-president of India and Union Minister for Culture, Tourism and Development of the Northeast Region will be inaugurating the Sangeet Natak Akademi’s ‘Dakshin Bharat Sanskritik Kendra’ here in Hyderabad.
It is India’s national academy of music, dance and drama.
It was created by a resolution of the Ministry of Education, with P.V. Rajamannar as its first Chairman.
It was set up in 1953 for the preservation and promotion of the vast intangible heritage of India’s diverse culture expressed in forms of music, dance and drama.
Presently, it is an autonomous body of the Ministry of Culture.
The Chairman of the Akademi is appointed by the President of India for a term of five years.
It is fully funded by the Government for the implementation of its schemes and programmes.
Aims and objectives
To co-ordinate the activities of regional or State Akademies of dance, drama and music;
To promote research in the fields of Indian dance, drama and music and for this purpose, to establish a library and museum, etc.;
To co-operate with such similar academies as there may be and other institutions and associations for the furtherance of its objects and for the enrichment of Indian culture as a whole;
To encourage the exchange of ideas and enrichment of techniques between the different regions in regard to the arts of dance, drama and music;
To encourage, where necessary, the establishment of theatre centres, on the basis of regional languages, and co-operation among different theatre centres;
The Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards are the highest national recognition conferred on practising artists.
The Akademi also confers Fellowships on eminent artists and scholars of music, dance and drama; and has in 2006 instituted annual awards to young artists – the Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tela
With reference to National Creators Award, consider the following statements:
- It is awarded to content creators on social media.
- Participants must be 18 years of age or above at the time of nomination for this award.
- International digital creators are not eligible for the Award.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India hailed the initiative of national creators’ award, saying it was a great opportunity for the creator community, putting the spotlight on the extraordinary talent across India.
It is the first-of-its-kind awards will be targeted at “Gen Z”, a reference to the young generation hooked to the internet and social media.
It will be given in nearly 20 categories.
The award aims to achieve
Spotlight on Changemakers: Putting change makers on center stage – recognizing and boosting digital creators that are making an impact
Amplify Diverse Voices: It wants to elevate the influence of digital media in social impact, creating a buzz that can’t be ignored
Connect and Collaborate: It brings a community of creators, leaders & government on one platform to spur a social revolution, a national movement during ‘Amrit Kaal’
Empower the Next Wave: It’s a launchpad for using creativity to drive positive change.
Eligibility Criteria
Age Requirement: Participants must be 18 years of age or above at the time of nomination.
Nationality and Residency: 19 categories are open exclusively to individuals of Indian nationality. One category is dedicated to international digital creators.
Platforms: Content must be published on one or more of the following digital platforms: Instagram, YouTube, Twitter, LinkedIn, or Facebook.
Language: Content submission can be in English or any other Indian language.
Nomination Limits: Creators can self-nominate in a maximum of three categories. Those nominating others can nominate in all 20 categories.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/we-want-to-celebrate-yuva-shakti-pm-hails-creators-award-initiative-124021100515_1.html
The Rollapadu Wildlife Sanctuary, recently seen in news, is located in:
Andhra Pradesh
Explanation :
The Great Indian Bustard (GIB) has not been spotted at the Rollapadu Wildlife Sanctuary in Nandyal district of Andhra Pradesh and its surrounding areas for the last couple of years, which is an indication that the bird is at risk of local extinction.
It is located in the state of Andhra Pradesh.
It lies between the Nallamalai and Yerramalai hill ranges of the Eastern Ghats.
It was declared a sanctuary in 1988 to protect the dwindling populations of the critically endangered Great Indian Bustard.
Uniqueness: It is the only GIB Sanctuary in Andhra Pradesh.
It owes its genesis to the discovery of the endangered Great Indian Bustard (GIB).
Flora: About 32 species of grassed like Aristida funiculata, Chrysopogon fulvus, Heteropogon contortus, like Cassia fistula (Golden shower tree), Butea monosperma (Flame of the forest), Acacia spp, Ziziphus mauritiana, etc.
Fauna:
The grassland Sanctuary is rich in invertebrate fauna particularly the insects that form a major part of the diet of most of the birds.
Land monitor lizards, Geckos, Skinks, Saw-scaled viper; etc. So far about 6 species of amphibians have been recorded here.
There are about 124 bird species like the Lesser florican, Demoiselle crane, Black stork, White stork, Harriers, etc;
These plains are also a home to endangered mammals like the Golden jackal, Indian wolf, Black buck, Chinkara; etc.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/is-the-great-indian-bustard-on-the-verge-of-local-extinction/article67824287.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the SWATI Portal:
- It aims to create a single online portal representing Indian Women and Girls in STEMM (Science, Technology, Engineering, Mathematics & Medicine).
- It is developed by the National Informatics centre.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government of India launched “Science for Women-A Technology & Innovation (SWATI)” Portal.
It is aimed at creating a single online portal representing Indian Women and Girls in STEMM (Science, Technology, Engineering, Mathematics & Medicine).
The database of SWATI Portal will serve in policy making to address the challenges of Gender-gap.
The Portal is a complete interactive database; and the first-of-its-kind in India which is developed, hosted and maintained by the National Institute of Plant Genome Research (NIPGR), New Delhi.
Objectives
To scale up the effort exponentially to include each and every Indian woman in science, across all career stages and subjects, spanning both Academia and the Industry enabling reliable and statistically significant long term research on the issues of equality, diversity and inclusivity in India;
Inclusion of each and every Indian WiS, career stages, subjects, spanning both Academia and the Industry; Enabling reliable and statistically significant long term research on the issues of equality, diversity and inclusivity in India, developing active search engine and searchable database (Name, Affiliation, Area of Interest).
The various Sections in the portal include Icons - Awardees (Padma / Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar / Stree Shakti Science Samman) & Directors, Secretaries Academy Presidents; Faculty- Indian Universities, Autonomous organizations including S&T Ministry/ CSIR/ DBT/ DST/ CSIR/ MHRD/ UGC/ GATI/ KIRAN;
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2004958
The Bor Tiger Reserve is located in:
Maharashtra
Explanation :
The Bor Tiger Reserve (BTR) recently sought Rs 1 crore for various works to start wildlife safaris in the Bangdapur and Hingni forest ranges.
About Bor Tiger Reserve:
It is a wildlife sanctuary which was declared a tiger reserve in July 2014.
Location: It is located in the Wardha District of Maharashtra.
It is the smallest tiger reserve in India by area.
The reserve covers an area of 138.12 sq.km, which includes the drainage basin of the Bor Dam.
It is centrally located among several other Bengal Tiger habitats.
Towards the North-east lies the Pench Tiger Reserve, towards the east is Nagzira Navegaon Tiger Reserve, to the South-east is Karhandla Wildlife Sanctuary.
The Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve is located to the southeast, Melghat Tiger Reserve stands to the west; and Satpura Tiger Reserve lies to the north-west.
Vegetation: The area is populated by Dry Deciduous Forest type.
Flora: Teak, tendu, bamboo, tarot, and gokhru are some of the abundant species.
Fauna: Apart from tigers, the reserve is home to several other mammals like leopards, sloth bears, sambar deer, Indian bison (gaur), chital, wild boars, and more.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/nagpur/bor-seeks-1-crore-for-tourism-devpt-at-hingni-bangdapur/articleshow/107612005.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Consumer Price Index (CPI):
- It tracks the change in retail prices of goods and services.
- It is released every month by the National Statistical Office (NSO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India’s retail inflation eased to a three-month low of 5.1% recently.
About Retail Inflation:
Retail inflation, also known as Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation, tracks the change in retail prices of goods and services which households purchase for their daily consumption.
CPI is calculated for a fixed basket of goods and services that may or may not be altered by the government from time to time.
The change in the price index over a period of time is referred to as CPI-based inflation, or retail inflation.
What Does the CPI tell? Following are a few things that the CPI index interprets:
Cost of living
The purchasing power of consumers
The expensiveness of different articles that consumers buy and services that are availed
Value of the Indian rupee
How is CPI calculated?
CPI is calculated as a percentage. It is a comparison of the general price level in the markets in a particular time period from a time frame in the past. This is known as the base year.
CPI, therefore, is calculated by referring to a base year, which is a benchmark. Currently, the base year is 2012.
The formula for calculating the CPI index is:
CPI = (Cost of a Fixed Basket of Goods and Services in the Current Year/Cost of a Fixed Basket of Goods and Services in the Base Year) * 100
The National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), compiles All India as well as state-wise CPI for Rural, Urban, Combined sectors and releases the CPI numbers every month.
How is the Consumer Price Index (CPI) Used?
It is used as a macroeconomic indicator of inflation, as a tool by the central bank and government for inflation targeting and for inspecting price stability, and as a deflator in the national accounts.
CPI also helps understand the real value of salaries, wages, and pensions, the purchasing power of the nation’s currency, and regulating rates.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/retail-inflation-eases-to-51-in-january-a-3-month-low/article67838256.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI):
- It has regulatory oversight over the insolvency professional entities.
- Its members are appointed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) has now mandated that Resolution Professionals (RPs) provide a copy of its report to both creditor and debtor in all cases.
About Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI):
The IBBI was established on October 1, 2016 in accordance with the provisions of the ‘Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016’.
It is responsible for the implementation of the IBC. The IBC amends and consolidates the laws relating to the insolvency resolution of individuals, partnership firms, and corporate persons in a time-bound manner.
The IBBI regulates professionals as well as processes.
It has regulatory oversight over the insolvency professional agencies, insolvency professional entities, insolvency professionals, and information utilities.
It enforces rules for processes of corporate insolvency resolution, individual insolvency resolution, corporate liquidation, and individual bankruptcy under the IBC.
It has also been designated as the ‘Authority’ under the Companies (Registered Valuers and Valuation Rules), 2017 for the regulation and development of the profession of valuers in the country.
Constitution of the Board: The Board consists of the following members who are appointed by the Central Government:
A Chairperson.
Three members from among the officers of the Central Government equivalent or not below the rank of a Joint Secretary. Out of the three members, each will represent the Ministry of Finance, the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, and the Ministry of Law, ex -officio.
One member nominated by the RBI (Reserve Bank of India), ex-officio.
Five other members nominated by the Central Government, out of which at least three should be whole-time members.
The term of office of the Chairperson and members (other than ex-officio members) is five years or until they attain sixty-five years, whichever is earlier, and they are eligible for re-appointment.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/personal-guarantors-insolvency-ibbi-mandates-resolution-professionals-to-provide-reports-to-both-debtor-and-creditor-for-enhanced-transparency/article67839526.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Bond Yield:
- It is the return an investor expects to receive each year over its term to maturity.
- When prevailing market price of a bond increases, bond yield also increases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
As inflation continues to moderate, bond yields will also soften and borrowing costs will come down, the Reserve Bank of India Governor said recently.
What is a Bond?
A bond is a fixed-income instrument that represents a loan made by an investor to a borrower (typically corporate or governmental) for a set period of time in return for regular interest payments.
The time from when the bond is issued to when the borrower has agreed to pay the loan back is called its ‘term to maturity’.
The bond issuer uses the money raised from bonds to undertake various activities, such as funding expansion projects, refinancing existing debt, undertaking welfare activities, etc.
What is Bond Yield?
It is the return an investor expects to receive each year over its term to maturity.
It partially depends on coupon payments, which refer to the periodic interest income obtained as a reward for holding bonds.
The bondholders receive the bond’s face value at the end of the bond’s life. However, one may buy bonds at par value, discount (at a price lower than par value), or premium (at a price higher than par value) as they trade in the secondary market.
Therefore, the prevailing market price of bonds also affects the bond yield.
It is calculated by using the following formula:
Bond Yield= Coupon Amount/ Price
Bond Yield vs. Price:
Price and yield are inversely related.
As the price of a bond goes up, its yield goes down, and as yield goes up, the price of the bond goes down.
Example:
Suppose interest rates fall. New bonds that are issued will now offer lower interest payments. This makes existing bonds that were issued before the fall in interest rates more valuable to investors, because they offer higher interest payments compared to new bonds. As a result, the price of existing bonds will increase.
However, if a bond’s price increases, it is now more expensive for a potential new investor to buy. The bond’s yield will then fall because the return an investor expects from purchasing this bond is now lower.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.investopedia.com/terms/b/bond-yield.asp
Consider the following statements regarding Great Backyard Bird Count (GBBC):
- It is an intergovernmental initiative to protect bird environments.
- In India, it is coordinated by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. (MoEFCC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
In a remarkable display of citizen science and enthusiasm for birdwatching, India emerged as a key participant in the annual Great Backyard Bird Count (GBBC).
About Great Backyard Bird Count (GBBC):
It is an annual, four-day event that engages bird enthusiasts of all ages around the world in counting birds to create a real-time snapshot of where the birds are.
It was launched in 1998 by the Cornell Lab of Ornithology and the National Audubon Society.
It was established to help researchers learn more about how birds are doing and how to protect them and the environment.
How is it done? Participants count birds for as little as 15 minutes (or as long as they wish) on one or more days of the four-day event and report their sightings online.
Who can participate? Anyone can take part in the Great Backyard Bird Count, from beginning bird watchers to experts. One can participate from his/her backyard, or anywhere in the world.
Significance: Each checklist submitted during the GBBC helps researchers at the Cornell Lab of Ornithology and the National Audubon Society learn more about how birds are distributed across the country and how they are affected by changes in habitat and weather.
India and GBBC:
Indian birders have participated in the GBBC since 2013.
In India, GBBC is coordinated by the Bird Count India (BCI) collective, a coming-together of a number of groups and organisations that are interested in birds, nature, and conservation.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.eastmojo.com/news/2024/02/12/can-india-secure-top-spot-in-reported-bird-species-this-year/
Consider the following statements regarding the brumation:
- It a period of dormancy which typically occurs during colder months in reptiles.
- It helps in conserving energy and survive the adverse environmental conditions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers have observed instances of brumation in various reptilian species across habitats.
It is the name to describe a period of dormancy or slowed activity in reptiles, much like hibernation in mammals.
It typically occurs during colder months, when temperatures drop and food becomes scarce.
During brumation, reptiles may retreat to underground burrows, rock crevices or other sheltered areas where temperatures are relatively more stable.
Their metabolism slows significantly, allowing them to go weeks or even months without eating.
This period of reduced activity allows reptiles to conserve energy and minimise their resource requirements.
Such species include box turtles and painted turtles, which burrow into the mud at the bottom of ponds or lakes. Snakes may seek refuge in underground dens or caves while lizards may hide under rocks or within vegetation.
Why brumation?
Reptiles enter a state of brumation to conserve energy and survive these adverse environmental conditions.
Brumation is crucial for reptiles to survive cold climes and endure challenging environmental conditions, until they can reemerge to feed and reproduce in more favourable climes.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_international/issues/71037/OPS/GC4CD43VK.1+GCRCD6CTG.1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Biodiversity Heritage Site:
- It is a unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems having rich biodiversity.
- The State Governments are empowered to notify a place as Biodiversity Heritage Sites.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Odisha government has declared the Gupteswar forest in Koraput district as its fourth Biodiversity Heritage Site (BHS).
These are areas that are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems having rich biodiversity comprising of any one or more of the components such as;
species richness, high endemism, presence of rare, endemic and threatened species, keystone species, species of evolutionary significance, wild ancestors of domestic/cultivated species or land races or their varieties, past pre-eminence of biological components represented by fossil beds and having cultural or aesthetic values.
Who can declare BHS?
Under section 37 of the Biological Diversity Act, the State Governments are empowered to notify in the official gazette, in consultation with ‘local bodies’, areas of biodiversity importance as Biodiversity Heritage Sites.
Under sub section (2) of Section 37 of the BD Act, the State Government in consultation with the Central Government may frame rules for the management and conservation of BHS.
Under sub section (3) of Section 37 of the BD Act, the State Governments are empowered to frame schemes for compensating or rehabilitating any person or section of people economically affected by such notification.
Importance of Biological Diversity Heritage Sites: Biodiversity is closely linked to ecological security. Loss of biodiversity and bioresources show an increasing trend mainly due to human activities. Therefore, it is necessary to instil and nurture conservation ethics in the community.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/odisha-declares-gupteswar-in-koraput-district-as-its-fourth-biodiversity-heritage-site/article67838502.ece
With reference to Hastsal Minar, consider the following statements:
- It is built during the reign of Mughal emperor Shah Jahan.
- It was constructed using lakhori bricks and clad with red sandstone.
- It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
In an era where heritage preservation is paramount, efforts are being made to unravel the mysteries surrounding the Hastsal Minar.
Location: It is located in a small village of western Delhi.
It was construction of the minar (or tower) was finished in 1634 during the reign of Mughal emperor Shah Jahan.
It is also known as Mini Qutab Minar.
Among the locals, it is also known as Hastsal Ki Laat and Kaushal Minar.
Architecture
It was constructed using lakhori bricks and clad with red sandstone.
The minar is 17 metres (five storeys) tall, standing on a square platform and with an octagonal body.
A staircase inside the five-storey tower led to the domed Chhatri pavilion at the top.
It has three storeys, each with a reducing diameter, and is accessible through a narrow staircase
Shah Jahan utilised Hastsal as one of his hunting lodges during the 17th century.
Present condition:
In 2018, the minaret was deemed as Grade A in heritage value and was given the permission to be conserved under Phase IV of Delhi government’s project to protect lesser-known monuments in the capital.
It is not a UNESCO world Heritage site.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/delhi/hastsal-minar-shrouded-in-mystery-a-mughal-era-symbol-of-glory-now-a-picture-of-neglect-9156500/
Consider the following statements regarding the GROW-Suitability Mapping portal:
- It provides information on area suitable for agroforestry across India.
- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, GROW report and portal was launched by a Member of NITI Aayog.
The “Greening and Restoration of Wasteland with Agroforestry (GROW)-Suitability Mapping” portal allows universal access to state and district-level data.
It is hosted on Bhuvan website.
The GROW initiative aligns with national commitments, aiming to restore 26 million hectares of degraded land by 2030 and create an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent.
The initiative, led by NITI Aayog, involved a collaborative effort from multiple institutions and employed advanced technologies such as remote sensing and GIS to assess agroforestry suitability across all districts in India.
Utilizing thematic datasets, the project resulted in the creation of an Agroforestry Suitability Index (ASI). This index enables national-level prioritization for greening and restoration projects.
This project on prioritization of wasteland areas suitable for greening is based on the analysis of five remote sensing derived thematic layers viz. land use, wasteland, slope, water proximity and soil organic content.
These parameters were selected as a result of expert consultations and considered to be the most critical layers in identifying area that are amenable for interventions with agroforestry. Highest weightages was given to wastelands.
The developed system provides information on area suitable for agroforestry across India.
The areas available in the system are classified as highly suitable, moderately suitable, less suitable for agroforestry.
The key features of the system:
Generates district level information of wasteland area suitable for agroforestry
Generates area prioritization regime i.e highly suitable area, moderate and less suitable for agroforestry
Generates live maps
Generates area analysis-statistic report
Offer an interactive mode/tool that provides flexibility in handling the weightages as per local conditions/need
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2005411
Consider the following statements regarding the Fire Capped Tit:
- It is small Himalayan bird found in montane broadleaf forest.
- It is considered as critically endangered species under IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Birders have spotted the trail of species flying back home including the fire capped tit in the Aravalli hill region suggesting reverse migration as the season changes from winter to summer.
It is a small bird species assigned to the family Paridae.
Migration pattern: It is a Himalayan bird which flies down south towards Western Ghats and Kerala around Sept, and is back around Feb-end and March.
Habitat: Inhabits forest feeding on invertebrates, nectar and pollen, usually high in canopy but will descend to low growth.
It is found in montane broadleaf forest at middle to high elevations, sometimes mixed in with other species.
These birds breed in the Himalayas during summer and have a melodious song.
Distribution:
A local breeding summer visitor to northern mountains from Pakistan east to Arunachal Pradesh.
Winters in foothills and rarely in plains south to Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh.
Conservation status
IUCN: Least Concern
Why early reverse migration?
The winters were not very harsh in central India. So, the bird could have started moving early.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/delhi/birds-reverse-migrate-to-city-end-of-winter/articleshow/107611648.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the total market capitalisation of a company:
- It can be calculated by multiplying the number of outstanding shares of a company by the current price of its shares.
- It represents the market’s perception of a company’s worth and helps investors predict the future performance of the company’s stock.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) recently became the first Indian company to surpass Rs 20 lakh crore in market capitalisation.
About Market Capitalisation:
Market Capitalization, or Market Cap, is a term used to represent the market value of a company based on its current share price and the total number of its outstanding shares.
It can be calculated by multiplying the number of outstanding shares of a company by the current price of its shares.
It represents the market’s perception of a company’s worth and indicates its size and significance in the financial markets.
On the basis of market cap, companies may be classified as large-cap, mid-cap, or small-cap companies.
Large-cap companies are usually stable, reputable, and well-established businesses that have a significant market share. They have market caps of INR 20,000 crore or more.
Mid-cap companies have a market cap ranging from INR 5,000 crore to INR 20,000 crore.
Small-cap companies operate at a smaller scale than large-cap and mid-cap companies. Consequently, their market cap is also lower (less than INR 5,000 crore).
Why is market capitalization important?
It allows potential investors to understand the true value of companies and the size of one company in relation to another.
It helps investors predict the future performance of the stock of a company because it reflects what the market is willing to pay for the stock.
What is Free float market capitalisation?
While calculating the total market capitalization of a company, all the shares, including the ones publicly traded as well as those held by promoters, government, or other private parties, are multiplied with the stock price.
But in the free-float market capitalization, we exclude shares held by private parties like promoters, trusts, or the government.
We only consider shares held and traded by the public and multiply them with share price to arrive at the free-float market capitalization of a company.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/business/companies/reliance-industries-market-capitalisation-hits-rs-20-lakh-crore-2892796
World Government Summit (WGS), an annual event, is held by:
United Arab Emirates
Explanation :
The Indian Prime Minister will attend the World Government Summit 2024 as a guest of honour in UAE.
About World Government Summit (WGS):
It is an annual global gathering that brings together world leaders, policymakers, experts, and thought leaders from various fields to discuss and address pressing global issues.
It was established in 2013 under the leadership of the Vice President and Prime Minister of the UAE.
It is annually held in Dubai, UAE.
The Summit, in its various activities, explores the agenda of the next generation of governments, focusing on harnessing innovation and technology to solve universal challenges facing humanity.
Since its inception, the Summit has championed the mission of shaping future governments and creating a better future for humanity.
World Government Summit (WGS) 2024:
Theme: “Shaping Future Governments”
It will focus on six main themes:
Government Acceleration and Transformation
Artificial Intelligence and The Next Frontiers
Reimagining Development and Future Economies
Future Societies and Education
Sustainability and The New Global Shifts
Urbanization and Global Health Priorities
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.wionews.com/videos/indian-pm-modi-to-attend-world-government-summit-2024-as-guest-of-honour-in-uae-689682
Consider the following statements regarding Bubonic Plague:
- It is an infectious disease caused by a zoonotic virus.
- It can be treated and cured with antibiotics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Officials in the US state of Oregon recently said they are dealing with a rare human case of bubonic plague that was likely transmitted by a pet cat.
About Bubonic Plague:
Plague is an infectious disease caused by a specific type of bacterium called Yersinia pestis, a zoonotic bacterium usually found in small mammals and their fleas.
Y. pestis can affect humans and animals and is spread mainly by fleas.
Bubonic plague is one type of plague. It gets its name from the swollen lymph nodes (buboes) caused by the disease.
Called the Black Death, it killed millions of Europeans during the Middle Ages.
The other types of plague are:
Septicemic plague, which happens when the infection goes all through the body.
Pneumonic plague, which happens when the lungs are infected.
Plague can be a very severe disease in people, with a case-fatality ratio of 30% to 60% for the bubonic type, and is always fatal for the pneumonic kind when left untreated.
Symptoms: Bubonic plague symptoms include
Sudden high fever and chills.
Pains in the areas of the abdomen, arms, and legs.
Headaches.
Large and swollen lumps in the lymph nodes (buboes) that develop and leak pus.
Transmission:
Y. pestis is spread mostly by fleas on rodents and other animals.
It is transmitted between animals and humans by the bite of infected fleas, direct contact with infected tissues, and inhalation of infected respiratory droplets.
The incubation period of bubonic plague is usually 2 to 8 days.
Treatment:
It can be treated and cured with antibiotics.
Antibiotics that treat bubonic plague include Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, Gentamicin and Doxycycline.
It can be fatal if it’s not treated.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/bubonic-plague-case-detected-in-us-it-killed-50-million-in-14th-century-5053631
With reference to Olive Ridley Turtles, consider the following statements:
- They are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.
- They are mainly found in the warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic and Indian oceans.
- They are classified as ‘Vulnerable’ under the IUCN Red List.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only three
Explanation :
The Andhra Pradesh government recently imposed a month-long ban on fishing in the 5-km radius of Hope Island to prevent the death of Olive Ridley turtles off Kakinada coast.
About Olive Ridley Turtles:
They are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.
It gets its name from the olive green colouration of its carapace (shell).
Scientific Name: Lepidochelys olivacea
They are best known for their unique mass nesting, called Arribada, where thousands of females come together on the same beach to lay eggs.
Distribution:
They are mainly found in the warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian oceans.
Odisha’s Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary is known as the world’s largest rookery (a colony of breeding animals) of sea turtles.
Features:
An adult typically measures between 62 and 70 cm in length and weighs about 35-45 kg.
They have one to two visible claws on each of their paddle-like flippers.
They are omnivorous, meaning they feed on both plants and animals.
They are solitary, preferring the open ocean.
These turtles spend their entire lives in the ocean, and migrate thousands of kilometers between feeding and mating grounds in the course of a year.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule 1
CITES: Appendix I
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/andhra-pradesh-government-bans-fishing-within-5-km-radius-of-hope-island-to-check-death-of-olive-ridley-turtles/article67841817.ece
What is the primary objective of the e-Jagriti Portal, recently seen in the news?
To facilitate consumer dispute redressal
Explanation :
Consumer Affairs Secretary recently asserted that integration of artificial intelligence in ‘e-Jagriti’ portal will help reduce the number of pending cases in consumer courts.
About e-Jagriti Portal:
It is an initiative of the Department of Consumer Affairs, Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food, and Public Distribution.
It is a portal for consumer commissions.
This portal has been designed to further improve the customer experience.
It provides a simple, fast, and more cost-effective consumer dispute redressal software solution at all levels.
It is envisaged to integrate consumer grievance platforms, namely, Online Case Monitoring System (OCMS), E-Daakhil, the National Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission (NCDRC) Case Monitoring System, CONFONET website, mediation application, on a single platform.
The e-Jagriti platform has case filing, online fee payment, case monitoring modules for seamless disposal of cases by all the Commissions, has Smart search facility on archived consumer complaints / cases / judgements using AI technology for metadata and keyword creation, and Voice-to-text conversion of judgements, case history and other details using AI / ML technology.
The portal will integrate Virtual court facility for a convenient and accessible resolution of consumer complaints, reducing the time of disposal, multiple hearings, and physical court appearances, bringing effective and fast decisions & disposals in all Consumer Commissions.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.dailyexcelsior.com/ai-integration-in-e-jagriti-portal-to-help-reduce-pending-cases-in-consumer-courts-govt/
Consider the following statements regarding the National Generic Document Registration System:
- It is developed for registration departments across the country under One Nation One Software initiative.
- It is initiated by the Department of Land Resources, Ministry of Rural Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Secretary, Department of Land Resources, rolled out National Generic Document Registration System (NDGRS) throughout Assam along with the launch of Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) seeding of geo referenced Cadastral Maps.
It is a project initiated by the Department of Land Resources, Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India
It is a common, generic application developed for registration departments across the country under One Nation One Software initiative.
The NGDRS application is developed by National Informatics Centre Pune.
Features
It is a common, generic and configurable application developed for registration departments across the country.
The application is specifically designed for the use of sub registrars, citizens and apex users from registration departments.
NGDRS facilitates states to create state specific instances and configure the software as per requirements.
Offering a complete user interface for property and document registration, the application enables citizens to proceed with land buying online.
They can find out the circle rate for land, calculate property valuation as per prevailing rates and understand the type of land.
Transactions of prohibited properties are restricted for sale like government land, tribal land, mortgaged land etc., is also available, which ultimately helps them decide where and what type of land they should buy.
Thereafter, they can apply online for document submission, make instant payment and take prior appointments.
Property buyers need to visit the sub-registrar’s office only once and that too at the time of final signing and registration.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2005546
Consider the following statements regarding the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species:
- It is an environmental treaty under the aegis of the United Nations Environment Programme.
- Its Appendix I lists species that have an ‘unfavourable conservation status’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Fourteenth Meeting of the Conference of the Parties to the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (COP14) will be hosted by the Government of Uzbekistan, in Samarkand from 12-17 February 2024.
It is also known as the Bonn Convention, is an environmental treaty under the aegis of the United Nations Environment Programme.
It provides a global platform for the conservation and sustainable use of migratory animals and their habitats.
It was signed in Bonn, Germany, on 23 June 1979.
It is the only global and UN-based intergovernmental organisation established exclusively for the conservation and management of terrestrial, aquatic and avian migratory species throughout their range.
The parties to the convention acknowledge the importance of conserving migratory species, and the need to pay special attention to species whose conservation status is unfavourable.
Activities by CMS Parties may range from legally binding treaties (called Agreements) to less formal instruments, such as Memoranda of Understanding.
The Conference of Parties (COP) is the decision-making organ of this convention.
It has two Appendices.
Appendix I lists endangered migratory species and includes prohibitions regarding the take of these species.
Appendix II lists species that have an ‘unfavourable conservation status’ (as per the conditions set out in the Convention) and encourages range states to draft range-wide agreements for conservation and management of these species.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.cms.int/en/meeting/fourteenth-meeting-conference-parties-cms#:~:text=The%20Fourteenth%20Meeting%20of%20the,from%2012%2D17%20February%202024.
With reference to Cuscuta dodder, consider the following statements:
- It is an invasive weed native to North America.
- It poses a serious problem in oilseeds, pulses and fodder crops in India.
- It requires a specific stimulant to induce germination.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
An invasive weed Cuscuta dodder is slowly choking the Chengalpet forests and Vedanthangal Bird Sanctuary, threatening the local vegetation, ecology and habitat of migratory birds.
It is native to North America.
It is a parasitic vine without roots, has already infested acres of trees in the reserve forests and has begun to spread inside India’s oldest bird sanctuary.
It is found that plant covering the canopy of Barringtonia trees, which are preferred by migratory water birds for nesting.
It is the holoparasitic plant builds a canopy on the host plant and casts thousands of tendrils to form a dense spectacle before it strangles and eventually kills it.
As per a technical paper published by the National Research Centre for Weed Science, in India, Cuscuta poses a serious problem in oilseeds, pulses and fodder crops in the states of Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Orissa, West Bengal and parts of Madhya Pradesh under rain fed as well as irrigated conditions.
Legislation in 25 countries has listed the dodder as a ‘declared noxious weed’ with seeds and plant material denied entrance. In United States, it is the only weed seed whose movement is prohibited in every state.
The seeds of Cuscuta are spheroid and have a hard, coat, which aids them to survive up to 50 years in dry storage and at least 10 years in the field.
Unlike root parasites, Cuscuta seeds do not require a specific stimulant to induce germination.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/tamil-nadu/2024/Feb/12/parasitic-creeper-preys-on-chengalpet-forests-vedanthangal-bird-sanctuary
Consider the following statements regarding the Swachhata Green Leaf Rating system:
- It is a government-initiated rating system for the hospitality sector.
- It was launched by the NITI Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Swachhata Green Leaf Rating system for the hospitality sector yet to take off as there has been no response from States despite the Union Tourism Ministry sending three communiques so far.
A government-initiated rating system for the hospitality sector which aims to ensure world-class hygiene and sanitation in hotels, resorts and homestays has become a non-starter with no State opting for it as of now.
Objective: The objective is to prevent pollution in water bodies and keep the environment clean.
Target group: The target groups are hotels, lodges, homestays, ‘Dharamshalas’ and camps which have portable toilets. The rating will be based on compliance with the safe sanitation practices outlined in the guidelines.
The ranking scheme was launched in November 2023 by the Union Tourism Ministry in collaboration with the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation.
As part of the initiative, the State teams of Swachh Bharat Mission-Gramin (rural) and the tourism department will organise workshops on the concept, process and desired outcomes for the stakeholders.
Implementation: A three-tiered committee system has been proposed for implementation, beginning with a Verification Sub-Committee formed by the Sub-Divisional Magistrate (SDM) for the on-ground verification, followed by a District Committee, which the District Collector will chair and then a State-level committee, headed by the Chief Secretary of the State.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/hygiene-and-sanitation-rating-system-for-the-hospitality-sector-yet-to-take-off/article67838482.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana:
- It is a free electricity scheme which will provide 300 units of free electricity per month to its beneficiaries.
- In this scheme Urban Local Bodies and Panchayats shall be incentivised to promote rooftop solar systems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Prime Minister of India launched PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana to provide free electricity to its beneficiaries.
In this scheme, the central government will provide 300 units of free electricity per month to its beneficiaries by investing worth ₹75,000 crores.
The free electricity scheme was earlier announced by Finance Minister in interim budget speech.
Target: It aims to light up 1 crore households.
Under the scheme Urban Local Bodies and Panchayats shall be incentivised to promote rooftop solar systems in their jurisdictions.
The Central Government will guarantee no financial burden on the people by providing significant subsidies directly to their bank accounts and offering highly concessional bank loans.
Expected benefits:
Savings up to fifteen to eighteen thousand rupees annually for households from free solar electricity and selling the surplus to the distribution companies;
Charging of electric vehicles;
Entrepreneurship opportunities for a large number of vendors for supply and installation;
Employment opportunities for the youth with technical skills in manufacturing, installation and maintenance.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.livemint.com/news/india/pm-modi-launches-pm-surya-ghar-muft-bijli-yojana-to-provide-300-units-electricity-per-month-know-how-to-apply-11707821751802.html
Consider the following:
- Germany
- Russia
- United Kingdom
- Sweden
- Poland
How many of the above countries border the Baltic Sea?
Only four
Explanation :
A Stone Age wall has been discovered beneath the Baltic Sea in Germany, believed to be the oldest megastructure built by humans in Europe.
About Baltic Sea:
It is a semi-enclosed inland sea located in Northern Europe.
It is an arm of the North Atlantic Ocean, extending northward from the latitude of southern Denmark almost to the Arctic Circle and separating the Scandinavian Peninsula from the rest of continental Europe.
It has a coastline of approximately 8,000 km, shared by several countries, including Sweden, Poland, Lithuania, Latvia, Finland, Estonia, Germany, Denmark, and Russia.
It covers an area of approximately 377,000 sq.km. The sea is approximately 1,600 km long and 193 km wide.
It is connected to the White Sea via the White Sea Canal and to the North Sea’s German Bight via the Kiel Canal.
It connects to the Atlantic Ocean through the Danish Straits.
The Baltic Sea contains three major gulfs: the Gulf of Bothnia to the north, the Gulf of Finland to the east, and the Gulf of Riga slightly to the south of that.
It is often cited as the world’s largest brackish inland water body.
Its water salinity levels are lower than that of the World Oceans due to the inflow of fresh water from the surrounding land and the sea’s shallowness.
More than 250 rivers and streams empty their waters into the Baltic Sea. Neva is the largest river that drains into the Baltic Sea.
Islands: It is home to over 20 islands and archipelagos. Gotland, located off the coast of Sweden, is the largest island in the Baltic Sea.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/science/scientists-accidentally-find-a-mysterious-one-km-long-wall-in-baltic-sea-101707816076375.html
Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) primarily deals with which one of the following?
Maintenance of wives, children and parents
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently decided to examine a plea on whether a divorced Muslim woman can seek maintenance under Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code.
About Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC):
It deals with the maintenance of wives, children, and parents.
It is a legal provision that allows certain categories of individuals to claim financial support from their spouses or children, as the case may be, in the event they are unable to maintain themselves.
Who Can Claim Maintenance?
Wife: A wife who is unable to maintain herself can claim maintenance from her husband. The wife is entitled to maintenance if she is unable to support herself. The word “wife” refers to a woman who has been divorced or sought divorce from her spouse and has not remarried.
Children: Children, whether legitimate or illegitimate, who are unable to maintain themselves and are below a certain age or mentally/physically disabled can claim maintenance from their parents.
Parents: Under this, both father and mother are entitled to be maintained equally by son and daughter, but the court must be satisfied that the daughter has the means to support herself. Parents also include “Adoptive father” and “Adoptive mother.”
To successfully claim maintenance under Section 125 CrPC, certain conditions must be met:
Neglect or Refusal: The person seeking maintenance must demonstrate that the respondent (the person from whom maintenance is sought) has neglected or refused to provide financial support.
Dependency: The claimant must establish their inability to maintain themselves and their dependency on the respondent for financial assistance.
Sufficient Means: The person from whom maintenance is claimed must have sufficient means to maintain the person claiming.
Quantum of Maintenance: The court will determine the amount of maintenance based on various factors like the income and financial capacity of the person liable to pay, the needs of the claimant, and other relevant circumstances. The objective is to ensure that the claimant gets a reasonable and fair amount for their maintenance.
Duration: Maintenance can be awarded on a monthly basis, and the court can specify a duration for which it should be paid. It can be a temporary or permanent arrangement, depending on the circumstances.
Enforcement: If the person ordered to pay maintenance does not comply with the court’s order, the person seeking maintenance can file an application for the enforcement of the order. The defaulter may face legal consequences for non-compliance.
The wife is not entitled to receive an allowance from her husband in three cases,
if she is living in adultery
if she refuses to live with her husband and without any sufficient cause
if they are living separately by mutual consent
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://lawbeat.in/top-stories/supreme-court-can-divorced-muslim-women-claim-maintenance-under-section-125-crpc
What was the primary purpose of the Cassini-Huygens Mission?
Investigating the atmosphere and moons of Saturn
Explanation :
Recent findings from data collected by NASA’s Cassini spacecraft reveal the presence of a vast ocean beneath the icy surface of Saturn’s moon Mimas.
About Cassini Spacecraft:
Cassini-Huygens was a joint NASA/European Space Agency (ESA)/Italian Space Agency (ASI) space mission to Saturn.
It was launched on October 15, 1997.
The mission consisted of NASA’s Cassini orbiter, which was the first space probe to orbit Saturn, and the ESA’s Huygens probe, which landed on Titan, Saturn’s largest moon.
Spacecraft:
It was one of the largest interplanetary spacecraft.
The Cassini orbiter weighed 2,125 kg (4,685 pounds) and was 6.7 metres (22 feet) long and 4 metres (13 feet) wide.
The instruments on board Cassini included radar to map the cloud-covered surface of Titan and a magnetometer to study Saturn’s magnetic field.
The disk-shaped Huygens probe was mounted on the side of Cassini. It weighed 349 kg (769 pounds), was 2.7 metres (8.9 feet) across, and carried six instruments designed to study the atmosphere and surface of Titan.
Highlights:
It orbited Saturn from 2004 to 2017, circling the planet 294 times and teaching us almost everything we know about Saturn.
It measured the structure of Saturn’s atmosphere and rings, as well as how they interact with the planet’s moons.
It also discovered six named moons and revealed Enceladus and Titan as promising locations to search for extraterrestrial life.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.businesstoday.in/visualstories/news/hidden-ocean-beneath-saturns-moon-mimas-discovered-by-nasas-cassini-spacecraft-103151-13-02-2024
With reference to the Pallava Dynasty, consider the following statements:
- They were earlier feudatories of the Satavahanas.
- They followed Shaivism.
- They established their capital at Mahabalipuram.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Archaeologists recently discovered an eighth-century Kotravai sculpture, an artifact that dates back to the Pallava period, near Ulundurpet, Tamil Nadu.
About Pallava Dynasty:
The Pallava Dynasty was a famous power in South India that existed between the 3rd and 9th Centuries.
They ruled the northern parts of Tamil Nadu, parts of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana, with Kanchipuram as their capital.
The Pallavas supported Buddhism, Jainism, and the Brahminical faith and were patrons of music, painting, and literature.
Origin:
Pallava Dynasty was earlier feudatories of Andhra Satavahanas. Pallavas grew to be autonomous subsequent to their decline at Amaravati.
They progressively moved southward and instituted their capital at Kanchipuram in the 4th century CE.
The rule of Mahendravarman I (571 - 630 CE) and Narasimhavarman I (630 - 668 CE) witnessed the augment in the wealth and vigour of the Pallava realm.
Chinese traveller Hiuen Tsang, who visited Kanchipuram during the Pallava statute and adorned their benevolent decree, depicts Bodhidharma, the initiator of the Chan (Zen) school of Buddhism in China, as a prince of the Pallava empire.
Architecture:
The Pallava Dynasty was typically distinguished for their benefaction of Dravidian architecture.
They were the most noted for temple architecture. They were instrumental in the transition from rock-cut architecture to stone temples.
The most noted architectural accomplishments of the Pallavas are at Mahabalipuram, which, under the Pallava reign, became an important centre of art, architecture, and literature.
The Kailasanatha Temple in Kanchipuram and the Shore Temple were built by Narasimhavarman II.
Of all the temples, Kailasanatha and Vaikuntaperumal are best known for their architectural virtues.
The Vaikuntaperumal shrine is a multi-storied temple built in the 8th century A.D and is acknowledged for the sculptures illustrating the history of the Pallavas.
Religion: They adopted the local religion Shaivism, and became Dravidians.
Combats of the Pallava Dynasty:
Throughout their supremacy, they were in steady conflict with both the Chalukya Dynasty in the north and the Tamil kingdoms of Chola and Pandyas in the south.
The Pallavas were occupied in continuous combat with the Chalukyas of Badami and lastly concealed by the Chola kings in the 8th century CE.
Decline:
The rise of Rashtrakutas had seen the decline of the Pallava Dynasty.
Vijayalaya, the Chola King, completely overpowered Aparajitavarman, the last Pallava King, in 897AD.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/tamil-nadu/2024/Feb/14/kotravai-sculpture-from-pallava-period-unearthed-near-ulundurpet
With reference to Electoral Bonds (EBs), consider the following statements:
- They are interest-free-bearer bonds that can be purchased by companies and individuals in India.
- They have a limited time validity during which they can be used to make donations to political parties.
- All national and state parties are eligible to receive EBs.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently directed the State Bank of India to stop issuing electoral bonds immediately.
About Electoral Bonds (EBs):
Electoral bonds are interest-free bearer bonds or money instruments that can be purchased by companies and individuals in India from authorised branches of the State Bank of India (SBI).
The bonds are similar to bank notes that are payable to the bearer on demand and are free of interest.
These bonds are sold in multiples of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh, and Rs 1 crore.
They can be purchased through a KYC-compliant account to make donations to a political party.
EBs have a life of only 15 days during which it can be used for making donations to political parties.
The name and other information of the donor are not entered on the instrument and thus electoral bonds are said to be anonymous.
There is no cap on the number of electoral bonds that a person or company can purchase.
Under the Income Tax act, one’s electoral bond donations are considered tax-exempt under Section 80 GG and Section 80 GGB.
Who can receive funding via electoral bonds?
Only political parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and which secured not less than 1% of votes polled in the last general election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of the State, are eligible to receive electoral bonds.
The political parties have to encash them within a stipulated time.
The bond can be encashed by an eligible political party only through a designated bank account with the authorized bank.
The political parties have to disclose the amount to the Election Commission.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/supreme-court-calls-electoral-bonds-quid-pro-quo-asks-sbi-to-stop-issuing-them-immediately-101707975296310.html
Consider the following statements regarding Mohammed Quli Qutb Shah:
- He was contemporary of Tulasidas.
- He laid the foundation of Hyderabad.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Reality tech firm unveils digital twin of Mohammed Quli Qutb Shah’s tomb in Hyderabad.
It is one the grandest monuments in the Qutb Shah’s tombs complex at the foothill of Golconda, Hyderabad.
The majestic tomb built in 1602, is one of the largest tombs at the Qutb Shahi heritage park complex reaching to a total height of 60 m.
Who is Mohammed Quli Qutb Shah?
He was the fifth king of the Qutb Shahi dynasty laid the foundation of Hyderabad.
Shah who wrote in Persian, Telugu, and Deccani—a variant of Urdu–is justifiably the first poet in Deccani Urdu with at least fifty thousand shers to his credit.
He wrote on a variety of issues concerning communal life and the sentiments of the common man, their festivals and faiths, love and the pleasures of union, in a frank and disarming manner.
A contemporary of Tulsidas, he blended the best traditions of the two streams of thought and life to impart a new halo to his poetry.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/info-tech/16th-century-qutub-shahi-tombs-get-a-digital-twin/article67841896.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the National Programme on Advanced Chemistry Cell (ACC) Battery Storage:
- It envisages setting up of a cumulative ACC manufacturing capacity of 50 GWh.
- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Science and Technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Ministry of Heavy Industries successfully convened a pre-bid meeting in New Delhi, laying the foundation for the second round underthe Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for Advanced Chemistry Cells (ACC) for cumulative 10 GWh PLI ACC capacity.
These are the new generation technologies that can store electric energy either as electrochemical or as chemical energy and convert it back to electric energy as and when required.
Key facts about PLI scheme for Advanced Chemistry Cells
The scheme is called National Programme on Advanced Chemistry Cell (ACC) Battery Storage.
The Indian government aims to promote the manufacturing of technology-agnostic ACCs within the country, aligning with its commitment to fostering innovation and self-reliance in the renewable energy sector.
The scheme envisages setting up of a cumulative ACC manufacturing capacity of fifty (50) GWh for ACCs and an additional cumulative capacity of (5) GWh for Niche ACC Technologies.
The manufacturing facility as proposed by the beneficiary firm would have to be commissioned within a period of 2 years.
The subsidy will be disbursed thereafter over a period of 5 years.
The beneficiary has to ensure achieving a domestic value addition of at-least 25% and incur the mandatory investment (₹ 225 crore /GWh) within 2 Years (at the Mother Unit Level) and raise it to 60% domestic value addition within 5 Years, either at Mother Unit, in-case of an Integrated Unit, or at the Project Level, in-case of “Hub & Spoke” structure.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Heavy Industries
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2005492
With reference to United Nations World Restoration Flagship, consider the following statements:
- It is part of the UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration – led by the UN Environment Programme and the Food and Agriculture Organization.
- It aims to prevent the degradation of ecosystems.
- It does not provide for any financial assistance.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The United Nations named seven initiatives from across Africa, Latin America, the Mediterranean and Southeast Asia as the intergovernmental organisation’s World Restoration Flagships.
The World Restoration Flagship is part of the UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration – led by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP) and the Food and Agriculture Organization.
It aims to prevent, halt, and reverse the degradation of ecosystems on every continent and in every ocean.
The award conferred by the UNEP and FAO of the UN makes the initiatives eligible for technical and financial support from the organisation.
The awards track notable initiatives that provide support to global commitments in order to restore one billion hectares.
The seven initiatives are
The Restoring Mediterranean Forests Initiative: It involves the countries of Lebanon, Morocco, Tunisia and Türkiye.
It consists of a novel approach said to have protected and restored natural habitats and vulnerable ecosystems. It is also said to have led to around two million hectares of forests restored across the region since 2017.
The Living Indus initiative received approval from the Pakistan parliament in the wake of the devastating 2022 climate change-induced floods.
Its official launch took place at the 27th Conference of Parties to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change in Sharm el-Sheikh.
It designates the Indus River as a living entity with rights — a measure taken to protect rivers elsewhere as well.
The Acción Andina social movement led by Peruvian conservation non-profit ECOAN aims to protect and restore a forest area of one million hectares.
The Sri Lanka Mangrove Regeneration initiative: It is a science-driven programme co-led by local communities. It focuses on the restoration of natural balance in the ecosystem
The Terai Arc Landscape initiative: It is aimed to restore the forests of critical corridors of the Terai Arc Landscape in collaboration with local communities working as citizen scientists, community-based anti-poaching units, forest guards, among others.
“It also supported the tiger population in the landscape shared by India and Nepal, which increased today to 1,174.
Regreening Africa’s agriculture: It is expected to benefit over 6,00,000 households.
Growing forests in Africa’s drylands initiative: It aims to expand from 41,000 restored hectares today to 229,000 hectares by 2030.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/environment/from-restoring-forests-to-river-basins-seven-conservation-initiatives-across-continents-recognised-by-un-94424
Consider the following statements regarding the Micellar water:
- It contains clusters of molecules that are very effective at removing oily substances.
- It contains micelles which are hydrophobic in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Micellar water, a product found in supermarkets, chemists and bathroom cabinets around the world, is a very effective cleanser and many people swear by it as part of their skincare routine.
Micellar water products contain something called micelles – clusters of molecules that are very effective at removing oily substances.
The micelles in micellar water are formed by special molecules known as surfactants.
These micelles have a hydrophilic exterior, meaning that they are very happy to remain mixed throughout water.
It is a commonly used skin care product that helps remove impurities and makeup from your skin.
It’s a very gentle solution that contains a very mild detergent.
Working
When you apply some micellar water to a cotton pad, another convenient interaction occurs.
The wet cotton is hydrophilic (loves water). Consequently, some of the micelles will unravel, with the hydrophilic heads being attracted to the wet cotton pad.
Now, sticking out from the surface will be a layer of hydrophobic tail groups.
These hydrophobic tails cannot wait to attract themselves to makeup, sunscreen, oils, dirt, grease and other contaminants on your face.
As you sweep the cotton pad across your skin, these contaminants bind to the hydrophobic tails and are removed from the skin.
Some contaminants will also find themselves encapsulated in the hydrophobic centres of the micelle.
Either way, a cleaner surface is left behind.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/what-is-micellar-water-and-how-does-it-work/article67841607.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Kaji Nemu:
- It is a type of lemon mainly grown in the state of Assam.
- It has received Geographical Indication tag.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Assam government declared the GI-tagged ‘Kaji Nemu’ (Citrus Limon) as the State Fruit.
It is elongated and oblong compared to other lemon varieties.
It is popular for its unique aroma and health benefits. It has been traditionally associated with the Assamese cuisines.
The fruit had been exported to several countries, including to the Middle East..
With its unique aroma and antioxidant properties, the Assam lemon enriched the local cuisines.
The oval-shaped Kaji Nemu is a lot juicier than other lemon varieties. Kaji Nemu is majorly used in culinary and commercial purposes, and it is extensively used for its medicinal properties.
Cultivation: It is grown in almost all the districts of the state, is available throughout the year.
The fruit is a powerhouse of nutrients, boosting health
Assam has as many as 16 species and 52 varieties hybrids of citrus.
Kaji Nemu’ (Citrus Limon) bears GI Geography Indication tag in 2019, is linked to Assamese food.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Feb/14/kaji-nemu-declared-as-state-fruit-assam-government-says-will-benefit-farmers
Consider the following statements regarding Kanha Tiger Reserve:
- It is located in the Sahyadri Ranges of the Western Ghats.
- It is mostly known for the Barasingha deer species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A male tiger from the Kanha Tiger Reserve has been relocated to Mukundpur Safari in Satna.
About Kanha Tiger Reserve:
Kanha Tiger Reserve, also called Kanha National Park, is the largest national park of Madhya Pradesh.
Location:
It is located in the Mandla and Balaghat districts of Madhya Pradesh.
It is nestled in the Maikal range of Satpuras, the heart of India, that forms the central Indian highlands.
Kanha National Park was created on June 1, 1955, and in 1973, was made the Kanha Tiger Reserve.
It sprawls over an area of 940 square kilometres.
Habitat: It is characterized mainly by forested shallow undulations, hills with varying degrees of slopes, plateaus, and valleys.
The forest depicted in the famous novel by Rudyard Kipling, The Jungle Book, is thought by some to be based on jungles, including this reserve.
It is also the first tiger reserve in India to officially introduce a mascot, “Bhoorsingh the Barasingha”.
Flora: It is primarily a moist Sal and moist mixed deciduous forest where Bamboo, Tendu, Sal, Jamun, Arjun, and Lendia flourish.
Fauna:
The park has a significant population of Royal Bengal Tiger, leopard, sloth bear, and Indian wild dog.
The Park is respected globally for saving the Barasingha (the state animal of Madhya Pradesh) from near extinction, and has the unique distinction of harbouring the last world population of this deer species.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bhopal/kanha-tiger-relocated-to-mukundpur-safari-in-satna/articleshow/107737986.cms
With reference to the Gulf Stream, consider the following statements:
- It is a cold ocean current that originates in the South Atlantic Ocean.
- It follows a north-eastward path across the western North Atlantic Ocean.
- It moderates the temperatures along the eastern coast of North America and warms Western European countries as well.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A recent scientific study estimates a timescale for the collapse of the Gulf Stream between 2025 and 2095, with a central estimate of 2050, if global carbon emissions are not reduced.
About Gulf Stream:
It is a swift and warm ocean current that flows along the eastern coast of North America and crosses the Atlantic Ocean towards Europe.
This extension towards Europe is known as the North Atlantic drift.
The Gulf Stream transports an amount of water greater than that carried by all of the world’s rivers combined.
Key characteristics:
Location: It originates in the Gulf of Mexico. It then travels northward along the eastern coast of the United States. It follows a north-eastward path across the western North Atlantic Ocean.
Sources: The two equatorial sources of the Gulf Stream are the North Equatorial Current (NEC), which flows generally westward along the Tropic of Cancer, and the South Equatorial Current (SEC), which flows westward from southwestern Africa to South America and then northward to the Caribbean Sea. Together, these two warm currents, along with waters from the Gulf of Mexico, form the Gulf Stream.
Warmth: The current carries warm water from the tropics (around 25 to 28°C or 77 to 82°F) to higher latitudes.
Width and Speed: The Gulf Stream is several hundred kilometres wide and can flow at an average speed of about four miles per hour (6.4 kilometers per hour). However, its speed can vary depending on the location and other factors.
Depth: The current is also very deep, extending to depths of up to 1,000 meters.
Importance and Impact:
Climate Regulation: It moderates the temperatures along the eastern coast of North America, keeping the coastal areas warmer in winter and cooler in summer compared to inland regions at the same latitudes. Since the Gulf Stream also extends toward Europe, it warms Western European countries as well.
Weather Patterns: The warm and moist air above the Gulf Stream can lead to the formation of low-pressure systems, which may develop into storms or hurricanes. It can also contribute to the formation of fog in certain areas.
Maritime Navigation: The Gulf Stream has been a crucial factor in maritime navigation for centuries. It provides a fast and efficient route for ships travelling between North America and Europe, as it aids in faster travel times due to its speed.
Ocean Circulation: The Gulf Stream is an essential part of the larger oceanic circulation system known as the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC). The AMOC plays a vital role in redistributing heat around the Earth and regulating global climate patterns.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/science/gulf-stream-could-collapse-as-early-as-2025-mini-ice-age-on-the-way-study-5061782
With reference to Lord Mahavir, consider the following statements:
- He was the first Tirthankara of the Jain religion.
- The ultimate objective of his teaching is how one can attain total freedom from the cycle of birth and death and achieve liberation.
- He rejected the concept of God as a creator, a protector and a destroyer of the universe.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Archaeology students and professors in Tamil Nadu recently unearthed a rare 1000-year-old stone statue of Mahavir, the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism.
About Lord Mahavir:
He was the twenty-fourth and the last Tirthankara of the Jain religion.
Mahavir was born in 599 B.C. as a prince in Bihar. At the age of 30, he left his family and royal household, gave up his worldly possessions, including clothing, and became a monk.
He followed an extreme ascetic life, attaining kevala, the stage of omniscience or highest perception.
Teaching a doctrine of austerity, Mahavira advocated nonviolence (ahimsa) in all circumstances and the acceptance of the mahavratas, the five “great vows” of renunciation.
At the heart of right conduct for Jains lie the five great vows:
Nonviolence (Ahimsa): not to cause harm to any living beings
Truthfulness (Satya): to speak the harmless truth only
Non-stealing (Asteya): not to take anything not properly given
Chastity (Brahmacharya): not to indulge in sensual pleasure
Non-possession/Non-attachment (Aparigraha): complete detachment from people, places, and material things.
Mahavir’s Teachings:
He organized his followers into a fourfold order, namely monk (Sadhu), nun (Sadhvi), layman (Shravak), and laywoman (Shravika). Later on, they are known as Jains.
The ultimate objective of his teaching is how one can attain total freedom from the cycle of birth, life, pain, misery, and death, and achieve the permanent blissful state of one’s self. This is also known as liberation, nirvana, absolute freedom, or Moksha.
He preached that right faith (samyak-darshana), right knowledge (samyak-jnana), and right conduct (samyak-charitra) together will help attain the liberation of one’s self.
Mahavir’s message of nonviolence (Ahimsa), truth (Satya), non-stealing (Achaurya), celibacy (Brahma charya), and non-possession (Aparigraha) is full of universal compassion.
Mahavir rejected the concept of God as a creator, a protector, and a destroyer of the universe. He also denounced the worshiping of gods and goddesses as a means of material gains and personal benefits.
Who are Tirthankaras?
Tirthankaras are also known as Arihants or Jinas.
Arihant: One who destroys his inner enemies like anger, greed, passion, ego, etc.
Jina: One who conquers his inner enemies like anger, greed, passion, ego, etc. The followers of Jina are known as Jains.
Tirthankara: Those Jinas who establishes the four-fold order (Monk, Nun, Layman, and Laywoman) of religion.
According to Jain philosophy, all Tirthankaras were human beings but they have attained a state of perfection or enlightenment through meditation and self-realization.
They are the Gods of Jains.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/rare-and-ancient-mahavir-statue-found-in-tamil-nadu/articleshow/107700071.cms?from=mdr
With reference to the Young Scientist Programme (YUVIKA), consider the following statements:
- It is a residential programme offered by the Ministry of Science and Technology (MoST).
- It is available only to graduate students.
- Three students from each State/Union Territory will participate in the programme every year.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is set to conduct its special ‘Young Scientist Programme’ or ‘YUVIKA’ for school children.
About Young Scientist Programme (YUVIKA):
“Young Scientist Programme”, or “YUva VIgyani KAryakram” YUVIKA, is a learning and awareness creating programme of the ISROto impart basic knowledge on Space Technology, Space Science, and Space Applications toyounger students with a preference to rural areas.
The programme is aimed at creating awareness about the emerging trends in science and technology amongst the youngsters, who are the future building blocks of our nation. ISRO has chalked out this programme to “Catch them young”.
The programme is also expected to encourage more students to pursue Science, Technology, Engineering and Mathematics (STEM) based research /career.
Eligibility:
Those who have finished class 8 and are currently studying in class 9 can apply for the programme.
Three students from each state/Union Territory will participate in this programme every year, covering CBSE, ICSE, and state-board syllabus.
The selection is based on 8th Standard academic performance and extracurricular activities.
Students belonging to the rural area have been given special weightage in the selection criteria.
In case there is a tie between the selected candidates, the younger candidates will be given priority.
What is being offered?
It is a two-week residential programme offered by ISRO.
It will include invited talks, experience sharing by eminent scientists, facility and lab visits, exclusive sessions for discussions with experts and practical and feedback sessions.
A minimum participation will be ensured from each State / UT.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/education-today/news/story/isro-young-scientist-programme-2024-eligibility-how-to-register-imp-dates-2502493-2024-02-15
With reference to Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 (UAPA), consider the following statements:
- It punishes the commission, funding and support of “unlawful activities” and “terrorist acts”.
- It applies to Indian citizens who commits a UAPA crime in all over India or outside India.
- The Ministry of Home Affairs can designate individuals as terrorists under the Act.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
At the request of petitioners, the Supreme Court recently allowed pleas challenging provisions of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 (UAPA) to be withdrawn.
About Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 (UAPA):
The UAPA was introduced in 1967 as a legislation to set out reasonable restrictions on the fundamental freedoms under Article 19 (1) of the Constitution, such as freedom of speech, right to assemble peacefully, and the right to form associations.
Over the years, terror-specific legislations like the Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act (TADA) and Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA) were repealed after running into legal trouble, and the UAPA became the primary anti-terror legislation in India.
In line with its stated objectives, the UAPA punishes the commission, funding, and support of “unlawful activities” and “terrorist acts”.
It lays down the definitions and rules for designating an organization as an “unlawful association” if it is engaged in certain types of activities.
‘Unlawful activity’ is defined as any action taken by an individual or association – through an act, words, spoken or written, or by signs or visible representation – which is intended to, or supports a claim to, bring about the cession of a part of the territory of India, or the secession of a part of the territory of India from the Union, or which incites any individual or group of individuals to bring about such cession or secession.
It covers activities which disclaim, question, disrupt, or are intended to disrupt the sovereignty and territorial integrity of India, and which cause or intend to cause disaffection against India.
In 2004, the UAPA was amended, and ‘terrorist activities’ were brought within its fold, under which 34 outfits, including the Lashkar-e-Taiba and the Jaish-e-Mohammad, were banned.
Under the Act, the central government may designate an organization as a terrorist organization if it:
commits or participates in acts of terrorism;
prepares for terrorism;
promotes terrorism;
is otherwise involved in terrorism;
The 2019 Amendment gave the Home Ministry the power to designate individuals as terrorists.
The Act extends to the whole of India.
The UAPA applies to anyone who commits a UAPA crime in India or outside India. It applies to Indian citizens irrespective of where the crime is committed, and also includes people in Government service, and people on ships and aircrafts registered in India.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/supreme-court-uapa-challenge-pleas-withdrawn-approach-high-court-249581
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Sangam: Digital Twin’ initiative:
- It aims to demonstrate practical implementation of innovative infrastructure planning solutions.
- It offers a solution by creating virtual replicas of physical assets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) has unveiled the ‘Sangam: Digital Twin’ initiative.
It is a Proof of Concept (PoC) distributed in two stages to be conducted in one of the major cities of India.
First stage is exploratory for clarity of horizon and creative exploration to unleash potential.
Second stage is for practical demonstration of specific use cases generating a future blueprint that may serve as a roadmap to scale and replicate successful strategies in future infrastructure projects through collaboration.
Aim: The initiative aims to demonstrate practical implementation of innovative infrastructure planning solutions, to develop a model framework for facilitating faster and more effective collaboration and to provide a future blueprint that may serve as a roadmap to scale and replicate successful strategies in future infrastructure projects.
Digital Twin technology offers a solution by creating virtual replicas of physical assets, allowing for real-time monitoring, simulation and analysis for experimental iterations and feedback loop to adapt to the changes for achieving the best outcomes.
The initiative comes in the backdrop of past decade’s breakthroughs in communication, computation and sensing in the era of techade striving for the vision 2047.
Sangam: Digital Twin symbolizes a collaborative leap towards reshaping infrastructure planning and design, combining the prowess of 5G, IoT, AI, AR/VR, AI native 6G, Digital Twin and next-gen computational technologies with the collective intelligence of public entities, infrastructure planners, tech giants, startups, and academia to break the silos and engage in a whole-of-nation approach.
Sangam brings all stakeholders on one platform aiming to transform innovative ideas into tangible solutions, bridging the gap between conceptualization and realization, ultimately paving the way for groundbreaking infrastructure advancements.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://government.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/digital-india/dot-unveils-sangam-digital-twin-to-harness-unified-data-for-infra-planning-and-future-design/107727415
Consider the following statements regarding European Free Trade Association:
- It is an intergovernmental organisation established by the Stockholm Convention.
- All European countries are member of this organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India has rejected the demand of the four-nation European Free Trade Association (EFTA) for ‘data exclusivity’ provisions in the free trade agreement that both sides are negotiating.
It is an intergovernmental organisation established in 1960 by the Stockholm Convention.
Objective: Promotes free trade and economic integration between its members within Europe and globally.
Member Countries: Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland.
The members of this organization are all open, competitive economies committed to the progressive liberalisation of trade in the multinational arena as well as in free trade agreements.
In contrast to the European Union (EU), it is not a customs union.
Governance
Its highest governing body is the EFTA Council. It generally meets 8 times a year at the ambassadorial level and twice a year at the ministerial level.
EFTA Surveillance Authority (ESA): It monitors compliance with European Economic Area (EEA) rules in Iceland, Liechtenstein and Norway.
EFTA Court: It is based in Luxembourg and has the competence and authority to settle internal and external disputes regarding the implementation, application or interpretation of the EEA agreement.
The headquarters of the EFTA Secretariat is located in Geneva. It assists the EFTA Council in the management of relations between the 4 EFTA States and deals with the negotiation and operation of EFTA’s FTAs.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/policy/economy-india-rejects-eftas-data-exclusivity-demand-in-trade-pact-talks-3395805/
Consider the following statements regarding Coal Gasification:
- It is the process of producing syngas.
- It a cleaner option compared to the burning of coal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Ministry of Coal, Government of India, is set to host an Industry Interaction on in Hyderabad aimed at fostering the development and proliferation of coal/lignite gasification projects across the nation.
It is the process of producing syngas, a mixture consisting primarily of carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H2), carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), and water vapour (H2O) - from coal and water, air and/or oxygen.
Gasification occurs in a gasifier, generally a high temperature/pressure vessel where oxygen and steam are directly contacted with the coal or other feed material causing a series of chemical reactions to occur that convert the feed to syngas and ash/slag.
Syngas can be used for electricity production, used in energy-efficient fuel cell technology, or as chemical “building blocks” for industrial purposes. The hydrogen can also be extracted for use in fueling a hydrogen economy.
Benefits of coal Gasification
Coal gasification can help address local pollution problems.
It is considered a cleaner option compared to the burning of coal.
It will help in reducing reliance on imports of natural gas, methanol, ammonia and other essential product.
This holds the potential to alleviate the environmental burden by reducing carbon emissions and fostering sustainable practices, contributing to India’s global commitments towards a greener future.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2006208
Consider the following statements regarding the Golden-backed Frog:
- It is endemic only to Himalayan region.
- It is primarily insectivorous which prefers to reside near streams and ponds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Scientists made a surprising discovery in the foothills of the Western Ghats in India — a Bonnet mushroom growing out of the side of the Golden-backed Frog (Hylarana inter-media) frog.
It is endemic to the Western Ghats of Karnataka and Kerala, specifically above the Palghat Gap, where it is known to thrive in relative abundance.
It is about the size of a human thumb.
Habitat: The Golden backed frog is predominantly found in evergreen and semi-evergreen forests in the Western Ghats of India.
These frogs prefer to reside near streams, ponds, and other water bodies, where they can lay their eggs and find their food.
They are primarily insectivorous and feed on a range of small insects and arthropods such as ants, beetles, and crickets.
Threats: The major threats to the survival of these frogs are habitat loss and fragmentation, pollution of water bodies, and the introduction of non-native species.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/mushroom-growing-on-frog-india-9161001/
Consider the following statements regarding the Diphtheria:
- It is caused by a virus.
- It can spread from person to person, usually through respiratory droplets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the World Health Organization (WHO) on Wednesday published the guidelines on the clinical management of diphtheria.
It is a serious contagious bacterial infection of the nose and throat.
Cause: It is caused by strains of bacteria called Corynebacterium diphtheriae that make a toxin.
Transmission:
It can spread from person to person, usually through respiratory droplets, like from coughing or sneezing.
People can also get sick from touching infected open sores or ulcers.
The bacteria can also infect the skin, causing open sores or ulcers. However, diphtheria skin infections rarely result in severe disease.
Although diphtheria can be treated with medications, in advanced stages, the bacterial infection can damage the heart, kidneys and nervous system.
Symptoms: A thick, gray membrane covering the throat and tonsils, sore throat and hoarseness, swollen glands (enlarged lymph nodes) in the neck and difficulty breathing etc.
The current treatments include:
neutralization of unbound toxin with Diphtheria Antitoxin (DAT)
antibiotics to prevent further bacterial growth;
monitoring and supportive care to prevent and treat complications, e.g. airway obstruction, myocarditis.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/healthcare/news-healthcare/who-releases-guidelines-for-clinical-management-of-diphtheria-new-recommendations-on-antibiotics-usage-issued/3393917/
Consider the following statements with reference to PM-SVANidhi scheme:
- It is launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
- It aims to provide loans to artisans and craftspersons for their livelihoods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
About PM SVANidhi Scheme:
The PM Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) was launched on June 01, 2020 for providing affordable Working Capital loans to street vendors to resume their livelihoods that have been adversely affected due to Covid-19 lockdown.
Time duration: Initially It was until March 2022. After that it has been extended till December 2024.
Eligibility: The Scheme is available for beneficiaries belonging to only those States/UTs which have notified Rules and Scheme under Street Vendors (Protection of Livelihood and Regulation of Street Vending) Act, 2014.
Benefits: A micro credit scheme, facilitating a working capital collateral free loan of Rs. 10,000, with subsequent loans of Rs. 20,000 and 50,000 with 7% interest subsidy.
Implementation agency: Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI).
Ministry: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
Under PM SVANidhi, significant achievements have already been made.
Till now, the scheme has extended more than 80.42 lakh loans to 60.94 lakh street vendors amounting to 10678 Crore rupees.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://newsonair.gov.in/News?title=PM-SVANidhi-has-restored-the-dignity-of-street-vendors%2c-says-Union-Minister-Hardeep-Puri&id=477368
Consider the following statements with reference to Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT):
- It is a quasi-judicial institution.
- An appeal against the decisions of the tribunal lies directly to the Supreme Court.
- The President of the tribunal is appointed by the Reserve Bank of India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
About Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT):
ITAT is a quasi-judicial institution set up in January, 1941.
It specializes in dealing with appeals under the Direct Taxes Acts.
Functions:
It hears income tax appeals from taxpayers against orders passed by the Income Tax Authorities.
The orders passed by the ITAT are final, an appeal lies to the High Court only if a substantial question of law arises for determination.
Benches:
Presently ITAT has 63 Benches at 27 different states covering almost all the cities having a seat of the High Court.
Strength: One President, who is assisted by ten (10) Zonal Vice Presidents and 115 Members (i.e. Accountant Members and Judicial Members).
The ITAT is headed by a President, who is appointed by the Central Government. Present President is MR. JUSTICE C. V. Bhadang.
Monetary Limits set by the CBDT are the following:
Before the ITAT – Rs 50 lakh.
Before the High Court – Rs 1 crore.
Before the Supreme Court – Rs 2 crore.
ITAT is referred to as ‘Mother Tribunal’ being the oldest Tribunal in the country.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/bank-accounts-of-congress-youth-congress-frozen/article67852292.ece
In the context of biodiversity, the term “amphipods” refers to:
crustaceans
Explanation :
What are Amphipods?
Amphipod are any member of the invertebrate order Amphipoda (class Crustacea) inhabiting all parts of the sea, lakes, rivers, sand beaches, caves, and moist (warm) habitats on many tropical islands.
Amphipods are a significant group in the marine ecosystem and play a vital role in the marine food chain.
They range in size from a millimetre in length to the supergiant amphipod Alicella gigantea at 340 mm.
They can be found in all marine habitats (even the deepest ocean trenches, e.g., Hirondellea dubia), and have also colonised freshwater and terrestrial habitats.
The generic diversity of amphipods is apparently higher in cool waters than in warm ones.
They are important food for many fish, invertebrates, penguins, shore birds, small cetaceans, and pinnipeds.
Most amphipods are active swimmers, propelled by three pairs of abdominal appendages.
They also serve as indicators for studying the impact of climate change and health of coastal ecosystems.
About New crustacean Species found in Orissa:
It is a new species of marine amphipod-a shrimp-like crustacea of genus Parhyale.
This genus is represented by 15 species globally, occupying both marine and brackish water environments.
Features:
It is brown in colour and around eight mm in length.
It has 13 pairs of legs. The first pair of legs is used for capturing prey and feeding.
It differs from all other 15 species by having a stout robust seta -a spine-like structure on the surface of the propodus of the male gnathopod (first pair of legs).
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/researchers-find-new-crustacean-in-odisha-s-chilika-lagoon-94496
Consider the following statements with reference to the INSAT-3DS:
- Its objective is to carry out Oceanic observations and its environment in various spectral channels of meteorological importance.
- It will be launched by using the Geosynchronous Launch Vehicle.
- It is fully funded by the Ministry of Science and Technology.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
According to ISRO, The countdown for the launch of the INSAT-3DS meteorological satellite onboard a Geosynchronous Launch Vehicle has commenced.
About INSAT-3DS:
INSAT-3DS Satellite is a follow-on mission of Third Generation Meteorological Satellite from Geostationary Orbit.
It is fully funded by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).
The satellite will augment the Meteorological services along with the presently operational INSAT-3D and INSAT-3DR satellites.
The primary objectives of the mission are:
To monitor Earth’s surface, carry out Oceanic observations and its environment in various spectral channels of meteorological importance.
To provide the vertical profile of various meteorological parameters of the Atmosphere.
To provide the Data Collection and Data Dissemination capabilities from the Data Collection Platforms (DCPs).
To provide Satellite Aided Search and Rescue services.
Weight: 2,274 kg.
Orbit: Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).
It will be launched by using the Geosynchronous Launch Vehicle (GSLV-F14).
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/countdown-for-launch-of-insat-3ds-meteorological-satellite-begins-5070225
With reference to the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA):
- It is a statutory authority.
- It is empowered to fix standards and specifications for the scheduled products for exports.
- It acts as a nodal agency for the implementation of the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP).
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently a minister addressed a gathering of farmers and agri-produce buyers in the ‘Agri-Export: Capacity building cum buyer-seller meet’ organised by APEDA in Mirzapur.
About APEDA:
The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) was established by the Government of India under the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority Act, 1985.
This Authority replaced the Processed Food Export Promotion Council (PFEPC).
The Authority with its headquarters at New Delhi, is headed by Chairman.
In order to reach out to the exporters in different parts of the Country, APEDA has set up 15 Regional Offices in different cities like- Mumbai, Bengaluru, Kolkata etc.
Functions: The following functions have been assigned to the Authority:
Registration of persons as exporters of the scheduled products on payment of such fees as may be prescribed;
Fixing of standards and specifications for the scheduled products for the purpose of exports;
Improving of packaging of the Scheduled products;
Improving of marketing of the Scheduled products outside India;
Promotion of export-oriented production and development of the Scheduled products;
Training in various aspects of the industries connected with the scheduled products;
APEDA also functions as the Secretariat to the National Accreditation Board (NAB) for the implementation of accreditation of the Certification Bodies under the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) for Organic exports.
Ministry: Ministry of Commerce and Trade.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/others/centre-committed-to-increase-farmers-income-minister-101708055491576.html
With reference to Anti-Dumping Duty, consider the following statements:
- It is imposed on imports manufactured in foreign countries that are priced below the fair market value of similar goods in the domestic market.
- The World Trade Organization (WTO) prohibits the use of Anti-Dumping Duty by its member countries.
- The imposition of Anti-Dumping Duty can lead to higher prices for domestic consumers.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
India has initiated an anti-dumping probe into imports of certain solar glass from China and Vietnam, following a complaint by domestic players.
About Anti-Dumping Duty:
Anti-dumping duty is a tariff imposed on imports manufactured in foreign countries that are priced below the fair market value of similar goods in the domestic market.
The government imposes anti-dumping duty on foreign imports when it believes that the goods are being “dumped” – through the low pricing – in the domestic market.
Anti-dumping duty is imposed to protect local businesses and markets from unfair competition by foreign imports.
Thus, the purpose of anti-dumping duty is to rectify the trade distortive effect of dumping and re-establish fair trade.
The use of anti-dumping measure as an instrument of fair competition is permitted by the World Trade Organization (WTO).
The WTO allows the government of the affected country to take legal action against the dumping country as long as there is evidence of genuine material injury to industries in the domestic market.
The government must show that dumping took place, the extent of the dumping in terms of costs, and the injury or threat to cause injury to the domestic market.
While the intention of anti-dumping duties is to protect local businesses and markets, these tariffs can also lead to higher prices for domestic consumers.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/markets/india-initiates-anti-dumping-probe-into-imports-of-solar-glass-from-china-vietnam/article67852609.ece
With reference to Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), consider the following statements:
- It is the percentage of cash required to be kept in reserves as against the bank’s total deposits.
- The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) decides the CRR, and is kept with them for financial security.
- It applies to all regional rural banks and non-banking financial companies (NBFCs).
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The State Bank of India (SBI) has requested the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for a lower cash reserve ratio (CRR) on green deposits raised from customers.
About Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
Under CRR, commercial banks have to hold a certain minimum amount of deposit as reserves with the RBI.
The percentage of cash required to be kept in reserves as against the bank’s total deposits is called the CRR.
The RBI decides the amount, and is kept with them for financial security.
The bank cannot use this amount for lending and investment purposes and does not get any interest from the RBI.
The CRR applies to scheduled commercial banks, while regional rural banks and NBFCs are excluded.
Following are the critical objectives of the CRR:
CRR helps control inflation. In a high inflation environment, the RBI can increase CRR to prevent banks from lending more.
CRR also ensures banks have a minimum amount of funds readily available to customers, even during huge demand.
CRR serves as the reference rate for loans. Also known as the base rate for loans, banks cannot offer loans below this rate.
Since CRR regulates the money supply, it boosts the economy whenever required by lowering the CRR.
How is the CRR Calculated?
There is no CRR formula. In technical terms, CRR is calculated as a percentage of Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL).
NDTL for banking refers to the aggregate savings account, current account, and fixed deposit balances held by a bank.
In case a bank fails to maintain its CRR, it will have to pay fines to the RBI because of that default. The fine is charged for the shortfall.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/economy/news/sbi-seeks-crr-reduction-on-green-deposits-says-chairman-dinesh-khara-124021600919_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding Kosi River:
- It is a tributary of the Ganges River.
- A majority portion of the Kosi drainage basin lies within Indian territory.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
At least 100 people living in miserable conditions within Kosi River embankments walked 250 kilometres in 12 days to reach Patna to press for their long-standing demand for rehabilitation.
About Kosi River:
It is a transboundary river which flows through China, Nepal, and India.
It is a prominent tributary of the Ganges.
Origin: The river Kosi is formed by the confluence of three streams, namely the Sun Kosi, the Arun Kosi, and the Tamur Kosi, all of which have their origin in the Himalayan region of Nepal and Tibet.
Course:
About 30 miles (48 km) north of the Indian-Nepalese frontier, the Kosi is joined by several major tributaries and breaks southward through the Siwalik Hills at the narrow Chatra Gorge.
The river then emerges on the great plain of northern India in Bihar state on its way to the Ganges River, which it enters south of Purnea after a course of about 450 miles (724 km).
The Kosi drains an area of 74,500 sq.km, of which only 11,070 sq.km lie within Indian Territory.
The Kosi River valley is bounded by steep margins that disconnect it from the Yarlung Zangbo River to the north, the Mahananda River to the east, the Gandaki to the west, and the Ganga to the south.
It is well known for its tendency to change course generally in westward direction. During the last 200 years, the river has shifted westwards for a distance of about 112 km and has laid waste large tracks of agricultural land.
Kosi is known as the “sorrow of Bihar”, as it has caused widespread human suffering in the past due to flooding and very frequent changes in course, when it flows from Nepal to Bihar.
Tributaries: It has seven major tributaries: Sun Koshi, Tama Koshi or Tamba Koshi, Dudh Koshi, Indravati, Likhu, Arun, and Tamore or Tamar.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://thewire.in/rights/bihar-families-affected-by-kosi-river-floods-march-12-days-to-patna-to-lodge-protest
Consider the following statements regarding the SOFIA project:
- It is a telescope mounted on an aircraft that studied infrared light emitted by objects in the universe.
- It is operated jointly by Russia and India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Scientists recently detected water molecules on the surface of two asteroids for the first time ever, using the data from NASA’s now-retired SOFIA airborne observatory.
About SOFIA (Stratospheric Observatory for Infrared Astronomy):
SOFIA was a telescope mounted on a Boeing 747 SP aircraft that studied infrared light, essentially heat, emitted by objects in the universe.
SOFIA is operated jointly by NASA and the German space agency.
It is the world’s largest airborne astronomical observatory, complementing NASA’s space telescopes as well as major Earth-based telescopes.
The observatory, fitted with a 8.9-foot-wide (2.7 meter) telescope with a nearly 20-ton mirror, used a door in the side of the aircraft to peer at the sky.
Flying into the stratosphere at 38,000-45,000 feet put SOFIA above 99 percent of Earth’s infrared-blocking atmosphere, allowing astronomers to study the solar system and beyond in ways that are not possible with ground-based telescopes.
SOFIA could observe the universe in the widest range of infrared light.
The airplane is capable of ten-hour flights, with flight paths chosen to keep ahead of the sunrise and maximize the amount of darkness.
The observatory’s mobility allowed researchers to observe from almost anywhere in the world, and enabled studies of transient events that often take place over oceans, where there are no telescopes.
For example, astronomers on SOFIA studied eclipse-like events of Pluto, Saturn’s moon Titan, and Kuiper Belt Object MU69, the next flyby target for NASA’s New Horizons spacecraft, to study the objects’ atmospheres and surroundings.
The SOFIA project was prematurely ended in 2022 after operating for 12 years.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.livescience.com/space/asteroids/water-detected-on-the-surface-of-an-asteroid-for-the-1st-time-ever
With reference to Interpol’s Red Corner Notice (RN), consider the following statements:
- It is a request to law enforcements worldwide to locate and provisionally arrest fugitives who are wanted internationally.
- The Interpol issues a RN only at the request of home country of the fugitive.
- Interpol cannot compel the law enforcements authorities in any of the countries to arrest someone who has a RN issued.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) recently said it has brought back an absconding life convict, against whom there was a Red Corner Notice (RCN) in a murder case.
About Interpol’s Red Corner Notice:
Criminals or suspects often flee a country to evade facing justice.
A Red Corner Notice also called a Red Notice (RN), is a request to law enforcements worldwide to locate and provisionally arrest such fugitives.
It alerts the police forces across the world about these fugitives who are wanted internationally.
A RN contains information that helps identify the wanted person, including name, date of birth, nationality, physical attributes like colour of hair, eyes, etc., along with pictures and biometric information.
It also includes information about the crimes that they are wanted for.
Interpol issues a RN at the request of a member country.
The country which issues the request need not be the home country of the fugitive.
Interpol acts at the request of the country where the alleged crime is committed.
A RN request can also be raised by International Criminal courts and Tribunals.
It is not an international arrest warrant. It is a request to locate and provisionally arrest a person pending extradition, surrender, or similar legal action.
Interpol cannot compel the law enforcements authorities in any of the countries to arrest someone who has a RN issued. Each member country determines on the legal value it gives to a RN.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Feb/16/absconding-murder-convict-with-interpol-red-notice-brought-back-from-uae-cbi
Which of the following are the primary objectives of fiscal policy in India?
- Maintain the economy’s growth rate.
- Increase liquidity in the market
- Maintain price stability
- Ensure proper functioning of financial intermediaries
- Achievement of full employment
How many of the options given above is/are correct?
Only three
Explanation :
Fiscal Policy deals with the revenue and expenditure policy of the Govt. The word fiscal has been derived from the word ‘fisk’ which means public treasury or Govt funds. Fiscal policy in India is the guiding force that helps the government decide how much money it should spend to support the economic activity, and how much revenue it must earn from the system, to keep the wheels of the economy running smoothly. Through fiscal policy, the government of a country controls the flow of tax revenues and public expenditure to navigate the economy.
The main objectives of fiscal policy in India are:
Maintaining the economy’s growth rate so that certain economic goals can be achieved.
Economic stability: Achieve and maintain economic stability and full employment
Price stability: Stabilize prices and the growth rate of the economy
Resource mobilization: Mobilize resources for rapid development and socially necessary lines of development
Employment: Enhance employment and avoid unemployment
Regional growth: Facilitate balanced regional growth
Balance of payments: Ensure a favorable balance of payments
National income: Augment national income and foreign exchange earnings
Infrastructure: Invest in infrastructure
Ensuring liquidity in the market is the objective of monetary policy while financial intermediaries are regulated under various acts.
Therefore, option b is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- Monetary policy is managed by the Central Bank while fiscal policy is managed by the Government.
- Monetary and fiscal policies cannot conflict in an economy
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 Only
Explanation :
The monetary policy is managed by the central bank, while fiscal policy is managed by the government.
Monetary policy is a central bank’s activities that influence the amount of money and credit in an economy. It involves adjusting interest rates, reserve requirements, and open market operations to change a nation’s money supply.
Fiscal policy is the government’s decisions about taxation and spending. It is enacted by the legislative branch of government. Congress and the executive branch help shape the country’s spending and tax policies. So, statement 1 is correct.
Both monetary and fiscal policies are used to regulate economic activity over time.
Both monetary and fiscal policies can conflict.
Monetary and fiscal policies can conflict in an economy when they are designed with different objectives in mind. For example, if one policy is expansionary and the other is working to slow the economy down, they will cancel each other out and create instability.
For example: High inflation- When the Bank raises interest rates while the government increases new spending, the risk of an ever-growing debt burden and even higher inflation increases.
If the government is trying to stimulate the economy by increasing spending, but the central bank is trying to combat inflation by raising interest rates, these policies work against each other. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
Therefore, option a is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements about tax buoyancy:
- It refers to the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to changes in GDP.
- When a tax is buoyant, its revenue decreases without increasing the tax rate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 Only
Explanation :
Tax buoyancy explains the relationship between the changes in government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in GDP.
It refers to the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to changes in GDP. So, statement 1 is correct.
When a tax is buoyant, its revenue increases without increasing the tax rate. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
It depends upon:
the size of the tax base;
the friendliness of the tax administration;
the rationality and simplicity of tax rates.
* Therefore, option a is the correct answer.
In a given economy, taxes are too high which discourages economic activities and thus reduces the tax revenue for the Government. Government then decided to cut the tax rates that helped in stimulating economic growth and in increasing tax revenue. If the whole situation is depicted on curve, then the curve will be:
Laffer Curve
Explanation :
Option a is incorrect: The Phillips curve, an economic concept, posits an inverse relationship between inflation and unemployment. It suggests that as inflation rises with economic growth, it should correspondingly result in increased employment and reduced unemployment.
Option b is correct: The Laffer Curve illustrates the relationship between tax rates and government tax revenue, suggesting that there is an optimal tax rate that maximizes revenue. Initially, raising tax rates increases revenue, but beyond a certain point, further increases lead to diminishing returns and eventually a decrease in revenue. This is because excessively high tax rates can discourage economic activity such as work and investment. Lowering tax rates, according to the theory, can stimulate economic growth and ultimately result in higher tax revenue.
Option c is incorrect: The Engel Curve illustrates how household spending on a specific item changes in response to shifts in household income. For instance, as household income rises, the proportion spent on essentials like food may decrease, while spending on luxury items may increase.
Option d is incorrect: The Kuznets Curve depicts the correlation between economic growth and income inequality, characterized by an inverted U-shaped curve. Initially, economic growth tends to exacerbate inequality, but over time, it may lead to a subsequent decrease in inequality.
Therefore, option b is the correct answer.
With reference to the different types of taxes, consider the following statements:
- With increase in income, the tax burden of the taxpayer goes up when the tax is regressive.
- Tax liability of a taxpayer increases in absolute amount with increase in income in case of progressive tax.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 Only
Explanation :
Statement 1 is incorrect: When taxes are progressive, the taxpayer’s burden increases as their income rises, contrasting with regressive taxes where the tax rate decreases as income increases. In a regressive tax system, higher-income individuals bear a smaller proportion of their income in taxes. For instance, if tax rates are 30% for income up to Rs 2 lakh, 20% for income up to Rs 5 lakh, and 10% for income up to Rs 10 lakh, the tax liability decreases as income rises.
Statement 2 is correct: A progressive tax system entails tax rates that rise as the taxpayer’s income increases, resulting in a higher tax burden both in terms of proportion and absolute amount. For instance, if there’s a 10% tax rate for income up to Rs 2 lakh, 20% for income up to Rs 5 lakh, and 30% for income up to Rs 10 lakh, the tax liability increases along with the taxpayer’s income, both in absolute terms and as a percentage of income.
Therefore, option b is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- Minimum Alternate tax
- Capital Gains tax
- Corporate tax
- Excise duty
How many of the above are part of direct taxes in India?
Only three
Explanation :
Option 1 is correct: The Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) was implemented within the direct tax framework to ensure that companies with significant profits and dividends to shareholders, yet exploiting tax incentives and exemptions under the Income-tax Act, contribute a fixed percentage of their book profit as a minimum alternate tax to the Government.
Option 2 is correct: This is a type of direct tax which is paid on an income earned from the sale of assets or investments. Investment in property, art, business, shares, mutual funds, and bonds are considered as capital assets. Based on the holding period, capital gains tax can be classified as short-term or long-term capital gains.
Option 3 is correct: Capital gain tax is the tax that has to be borne by the individual/entity at the time of sale of any capital asset for instance property, shares, bonds and valuable material etc. It is levied on the difference between the sale price and purchase cost (or indexed cost).
Option 4 is incorrect: Excise Duty is levied by the Central Government of India for the production, sale, or license of certain goods. Excise duty charges are also collected by state governments for alcohol and narcotics.
Therefore, option c is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with respect to the Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) and Alternate Minimum Tax (AMT):
- Minimum Alternate Tax is aimed at bringing zero-tax paying companies within the ambit of income tax.
- Alternative Minimum Tax is payable by an individual taxpayer who has claimed various tax incentives.
- Both MAT and AMT are applicable on foreign entities.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: The Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) was instituted to ensure that companies that reported zero tax payments still contribute a minimum amount of tax to the government. In 2019, the government lowered the MAT rate from 18.5% to 15%. Unlike regular corporate tax, MAT is calculated based on book profits rather than taxable profits. Additionally, new domestic manufacturing companies established on or after October 1, 2019, are exempt from MAT.
Statement 2 is correct: The Alternative Minimum Tax (AMT) is a unique tax designed to prevent high-income individuals and non-corporate taxpayers from exploiting deductions to evade paying income tax. It ensures that taxpayers benefiting from various tax incentives pay a minimum tax amount. AMT is imposed at a rate of 18.5% (plus cess and surcharge) on the adjusted total income after deducting tax deductions and exemptions. The implementation of AMT commenced in 2011.
Statement 3 is incorrect: MAT applies to all companies operating in India, regardless of their origin, while also being extended to encompass non-corporate entities. However, the provisions of AMT do not apply to foreign companies.
Therefore, option b is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- It is a resource intensive process as it takes a lot more time and effort.
- It promotes bias toward short-term planning.
Which of the above are the obstacles in the effectiveness of zero-based budgeting?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Zero-based budgeting is a budgeting method in which starting from zero every expense is justified based on its merits. It is a systematic cost management process that considers the efficient allocation of income to fixed expenditures, variable expenses, and savings.
Statement 1 is correct: In other words, no reference is made to the budget of the previous year and the new budget starts with a zero base. It is also resource-intensive. It takes time and effort to review and justify every element of the budget instead of modifying existing budget and reviewing only new elements.
In India, it was first introduced in 1986 to determine expenditure budget. It was developed by Peter Phyrr in 1969.
The goal of ZBB is to identify and eliminate frivolous/redundant expenses and focus on the priorities.
Statement 2 is correct: The unintended consequence of ZBB is that it can promote short-term cost savings over long-term benefits. In an effort to minimize costs, some key expenses, such as research and development or long-term strategic projects, may get overlooked.
Therefore, option c is the correct answer.
With reference to direct monetization of government deficit, consider the following statements:
- It is a scenario where the government asks the central bank to print new currency in return for new bonds.
- It may result in inflation in the economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Direct monetization of deficit is a scenario where the government deals with the RBI directly — bypassing the financial system — and asks it to print new currency in return for new bonds that the government gives to the RBI. It simply means that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) directly funds the Central government’s deficit against government bonds or securities. Until 1997, the government used to sell securities directly to the RBI. This allowed the government to technically print equivalent amounts of currency to meet its budget deficit. However, this practice was stopped over its inflationary impact and in favour of fiscal prudence. This is different from the “indirect” monetisation that RBI does when it conducts the Open Market Operations (OMOs) and/or purchases bonds in the secondary market.
Statement 2 is correct: This tool provides an opportunity for the government to boost overall demand at the time when private demand has fallen — like during the covid lockdown 2020 Government expenditure using this new money boosts incomes and raises private demand in the economy. Thus, it fuels inflation.
Therefore, option c is the correct answer.
In the context of taxation in India, consider the following statements regarding the ‘Cess & Surcharge’:
- A cess is collected by the government for the development of a particular service or sector.
- Surcharge is tax on tax.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: A cess is collected by the government for the development of a particular service or sector. So, as the name suggests, the health and education cess cannot be used for any other means.
Statement 2 is correct: Surcharge is tax on tax. It is levied on the income generated but, on the tax, payable for that income. Let us understand through an example. Say you have an income of Rs 100, on which you have to pay Rs 30 as tax. So, the surcharge will be 10% on the 30 rupees tax that you have to pay, i.e. Rs 3.
Therefore, option c is the correct answer.
Which one of the following is the primary objective of the Chang’e 6 mission?
To retrieve samples from the lunar south pole.
Explanation :
The China National Space Administration (CNSA) recently announced that the Chang’e 6 sample return mission is on track to land on the surface of the Moon in the first half of 2024.
About Chang’e 6 Mission:
The Chang’e 6 mission is a planned lander designed to return samples from the lunar south pole.
The mission aims to land on the Moon, collect samples from the lunar surface, and return them to Earth. This process will contribute crucial data to unravel the Moon’s geological mysteries.
Representing the first attempt to retrieve samples from the far side of the Moon, Chang’e 6 is set to bring back up to two kilograms of lunar samples, adopting a configuration similar to the successful Chang’e 5 mission.
The mission involves international collaboration, with payloads from the European Space Agency (ESA) and the French space agency CNES.
ESA contributes a lunar surface ion tester, while CNES provides equipment for measuring radon gas and its decay products.
Additionally, an Italian laser corner reflector for radar instrument calibration and Pakistan’s ICUBE-Q CubeSat will be part of the mission.
Chang’e 6 will consist of both a lander and a rover.
The lander will touch down on the lunar surface, while the rover will explore specific regions, conduct experiments, and aid in the sample collection process.
The returned samples will be made available to the global scientific community for study.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.news9live.com/science/chinas-change-6-sample-return-mission-to-moon-to-launch-in-first-half-of-2024-2405265
Consider the following statements with reference to the Asian Buddhist Conference for Peace (ABCP):
- It is a voluntary movement of followers of Buddhism with both monastic (monks) and lay members.
- It is headquartered in Dharamshala, Himachal Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Indian Vice President recently inaugurated the 12th General Assembly of the Asian Buddhist Conference for Peace in New Delhi.
About Asian Buddhist Conference for Peace (ABCP):
It was founded in 1970 in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia, as a voluntary movement of followers of Buddhism with both monastic (monks) and lay members.
Its aim is to bring together the efforts of Buddhists in support of consolidating universal peace, harmony, and cooperation among people in Asia.
It is currently headquartered at the Gandanthegchenling Monastery in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia and the Supreme Head of Mongolian Buddhists is the ABCP President.
The aims of ABCP: Striving to disseminate and implement the teachings of the Lord Buddha, ABCP aims to:
Bring together the efforts of Buddhists in support of consolidating universal peace, harmony, and cooperation among the peoples of Asia.
Furthering their economic and social advancement and promoting respect for justice and human dignity.
Disseminating the Buddhist culture, tradition, and heritage.
History:
The roots of founding of ABCP lay in the Cold War politics of peace movements, and consolidation of allies, and building popular outreach among the masses through various organizations.
Most Venerable Gabji Samaagiin Gombojav, Khambo Lama of Mongolia, Venerable J. Gomboyev from Buriat, Khambo Lama of the former Soviet Union, Venerable Kushok Bakula Rinpoche from India, and Buddhist leaders from Sri Lanka and Nepal came together and officially founded the Asian Buddhist Conference for Peace (ABCP) in 1970 with a permanent headquarters in Ulaanbaatar.
It drew active participation from Mongolia, Japan, India, Laos, Vietnam, Cambodia, Bhutan, Russian Far East, Sri Lanka, Thailand, and other regional countries.
ABCP was registered as an observer to the UN’s Economic and Social Council in 1988 in recognition of its contribution to the well-being of humanity.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://newsonair.gov.in/Main-News-Details.aspx?id=475376
Consider the following:
- Puri
- Gangotri
- Sringeri
- Dwarka
How many of the above are monastic centers (maths) established by Adi Shankaracharya?
Only three
Explanation :
The four Shankaracharyas recently said that they will not attend the inauguration of the Ram temple in Ayodhya.
About Shankaracharyas:
Shankaracharya, literally ‘teacher of the way of Shankara’, is a religious title used by the heads of the four Hindu maths (monasteries) that were established by the eighth-century Hindu saint Adi Shankara.
Adi Shankara established these maths to impart knowledge. These maths consist of religious shrines, temples, libraries, and residences.
These maths are located in Dwarka (Gujarat), Joshimath (Uttarakhand), Puri (Odisha), and Sringeri (Karnataka).
Each math, called peetha or pitha in Sanskrit, was tasked with serving as the custodian of one Veda each and keeping alive Vedic literature.
Govardhan Mathin Puri is the custodian of the Rig Veda, while the Dwarka Sharada Peetham in Gujarat is responsible for the Sam Veda.
The Sringeri Sharada Peetham in Karnataka is responsible for the Yajur Veda, and Jyotir Math in Uttarakhand’s Joshimath for the Atharva Veda.
Vijayanagara kingdom was the first to patronise the Sringeri math in the 14th century CE.
The Shankaracharyas also oversee the Dashanami Sampradaya, an order of renunciates (those who have renounced the secular way of life).
Who was Adi Shankaracharya?
Adi Shankaracharya, or Shankara, as he was known, was an ancient Indian philosopher and theologian who lived in the early 8th century CE.
Birth: He was born in Kalady, a village in present-day Kerala.
Revered as an avatar of Lord Shiva, it is believed that he mastered the Vedas when he was just 16.
Philosophical Contributions:
At a very young age, Shankara started criss-crossing the length and breadth of India to spread his commentaries on the Brahma Sutras, Upanishads, and the Bhagavad Gita amid a rise in Jainism and Buddhism.
He is best known for his role in the development and propagation of Advaita Vedanta, a non-dualistic school of Hindu philosophy.
The fundamental philosophy of Advaita Vedanta lies in the unity of atma (soul), or individual consciousness, and brahma or the ultimate reality.
According to this philosophy of non-duality, God and humans are not two and the material world is an “illusion”.
His most important work is his efforts to synthesize the six sub-sects, known as ‘Shanmata.’ ‘Shanmata’, which literally translates to ‘six religions,’ is the worship of six supreme deities.
He also founded ‘Dashanami Sampradaya,’ which talks about leading a monastic life.
While Shankaracharya was a firm believer in ancient Hinduism, he condemned the ‘Mimamsa school of Hinduism’, which was purely based on ritual practices.
Four Mathas: He established four prominent monastic centers in India, each associated with one of the cardinal directions: Sringeri in the south, Dwarka in the west, Puri in the east, and Badrinath in the north.
Death: Adi Shankaracharya is believed to have attained Samadhi (a state of deep meditation or realization) at the young age of 32 in Kedarnath in the Himalayas.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-history/shankaracharyas-adi-shankara-ram-temple-9110633/
Vadnagar, recently seen in the news, is an ancient town located in which one of the following States?
Gujarat
Explanation :
The remains of a 2,800-year-old human settlement have been recently discovered in Gujarat’s Vadnagar.
About Vadnagar:
Vadnagar is a town and municipality in the Mehsana district of the North Gujarat region of Gujarat state.
It is a multi-layered and multi-cultural mercantile settlement, with its history stretching back to nearly 8thCentury BCE.
As a historical city, it was known by various names, such as Vridhanagar, Anandapur, Anartapur, and Nagar.
The town represents a continuously evolving historic urban landscape/area that played a major role in the hinterland trade network of Western India.
It is mentioned often in the Puranas and even in the travelogue of the great Chinese traveler, Hieu-en-Tsang (7th century), as a rich and flourishing town.
Features:
The ancient town of Vadnagar is an L-shaped town with Sharmishtha Lake located on its northeastern edge.
The whole ancient town of Vadnagar is built over an ancient mound. The topography of the mound is gently rising, with its highest point in the middle of the settlement, also called Darbar Ghat.
Vadnagar town is divided into several blocks, also called Mohallas or Madhs. These mohallas are named after a temple, a community, or an occupation.
The town’s fortifications, arched gateways (toranas), temples, wells, residential structures (kothis), and excavated sites like Buddhist monasteries and dedicated stupas showcase the architectural influence of various cultural periods.
The oldest temple, Ambaji Mata Temple, dates back to the 10th - 11thCentury CE, while other important Hindu and Jain temples within the town are from 17thCentury onward.
The current residential layer of the town is from late Gaekwad period (late 18thCentury CE).
Vadnagar town is surrounded by fortifications made of bricks and partly stone, covering an area of 1km east-west and 700 m north-south.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/remains-of-2800-years-old-human-settlement-800-bc-found-vadnagar-pm-modi-native-village-gujarat-2489637-2024-01-17
The Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA), often mentioned in the news, aims to:
provide scholarships to meritorious students from Scheduled Caste (SC) communities for higher education
Explanation :
The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) recently issued instructions for Residential Private Schools interested in joining SHRESHTA Scheme.
About Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA):
The scheme aims to provide access to the best private residential schools for meritorious students from Scheduled Caste (SC) communities.
It will provide scholarships to meritorious students from SC communities to study in private and NGO-run residential schools for Classes 9-12.
The scheme is expected to provide admissions to around 3,000 students in Classes 9 and 11 each year.
The core objectives of the scheme are to enhance the reach of the development initiatives of the government and fill in the gap in service-deprived SC dominant areas in the education sector.
The scheme will collaborate with voluntary organisations to provide an environment that can help create conditions for socio-economic upliftment and the overall development of the SC communities.
Implementation agency: The Department of Social Justice and Empowerment, Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment.
The scheme is being implemented in two modes.
First, there are SHRESHTA schools, which consist of the best CBSE/ state board-affiliated private residential schools.
Under SHRESHTA, outstanding students from SC communities, across states and UTs, will be selected annually through the National Entrance Test for SHRESHTA (NETS) and will be admitted to these schools for education in Classes 9 through 12.
The schools that will be part of this scheme will be selected based on a performance score of above 75 percent pass rate in Class 10 and 12 board examinations over the past three years.
The second mode is based on NGO and voluntary organisation-run schools and hostels. The institutions run by such organisations that run up to Class 12 will also be made part of the scheme.
Eligibility:
Students whose annual parental income is less than Rs 2,50,000 and who belong to SC communities are eligible to participate in this scheme.
Only those candidates who have passed or are appearing in Class VIII/X in the given academic session can apply for taking admission to Class IX/XI.
The scheme will cover the tuition fee, the hostel fee, and the mess fees for qualifying students.
Students will also be allowed to choose from a range of schools based on their merit.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.freepressjournal.in/education/cbse-issues-instructions-for-private-schools-joining-2023-24-sc-student-scheme
Qanat system, recently seen in news, is a:
ancient water-supply system
Explanation :
Some of Africa’s dry areas face serious water shortages due to minimal rainfall. An ancient system of drawing water from aquifers, the “qanat system”, could help.
It is an ancient type of water-supply system, developed and still used in arid regions of the world.
It taps underground mountain water sources trapped in and beneath the upper reaches of alluvial fans and channels the water downhill through a series of gently sloping tunnels.
The qanats have been used for centuries in arid and semi-arid parts of north Africa, the Middle East and Asia, where water supplies are limited.
It’s known by a variety of names, “foggara” in north Africa, “falaj” in Oman and “qarez” in parts of Asia.
Many old qanāts are still used in Iran and Afghanistan, chiefly for irrigation.
It’s a system that’s managed by everyone and its benefits are shared.
Some of the region’s qanat systems, like those in Iran, are protected under heritage status.
Significance of the system
The qanat is sustainable as it works with gravity and no electricity is needed. It can even be used to create clean energy.
Water lost to evaporation is minimal in comparison to surface water supplies.
It can have a wide scale impact. Qanats are multiple kilometres long and once this water hits a floodplain, it can irrigate multiple hectares of land.
It fosters social cohesion. Many people, with different skills, are involved in maintaining the system.
The lifespan of the system extends beyond that of a deep water well, which is only about 20 years. Tunnels do not clog as easily as wells.
The quality of water coming from the mountains is much better than water on the plains. It’ll have lower salinity and be better for crops and people.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/water/an-ancient-system-that-could-bring-water-to-dry-areas-93926
Consider the following statements regarding the National Essential Diagnostics List:
- It includes essential diagnostics list related to only non-communicable diseases.
- India is the first country to release this list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has begun the process of revising the current National Essential Diagnostics List (NEDL) and invited relevant stakeholders to offer suggestions on adding or deleting diagnostic tests to the current list by the end of February.
The NEDL lists the essential and most basic tests that should be available at various levels of healthcare facilities in the country, including at the village level, in sub-health centres, health and wellness centres, and primary health centres.
The ICMR had released the first NEDL in 2019 to make the availability of diagnostics an essential component of the healthcare system.
The list includes general laboratory tests for a broad range of common conditions for the diagnosis of communicable and non-communicable diseases, disease-specific tests for HIV, hepatitis, tuberculosis, dengue, malaria, and area-endemic diseases.
India is the first country to release the NEDL.
Since 2018, the World Health Organisation (WHO) recommends the development and implementation of a National Essential Diagnostics List (NEDL) to facilitate the availability of In-Vitro Diagnostics (IVDs) across the various tiers of the healthcare pyramid, facilities with or without a laboratory onsite.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/icmr-starts-revising-current-national-essential-diagnostics-list-for-first-time/article67744728.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian vulture:
- It is an old world vulture native to Asia.
- It is usually found in savannas and other open habitats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
First in many years, a vulture was spotted in the skyline of Thane which has not been spotted over two decades in the city.
The Indian vulture (Gyps indicus) is an Old World vulture native to Asia.
They are also known as Indian long-billed vultures due to their comparatively longer beak.
It is a medium-sized and bulky scavengers feeding mostly on the carcasses of dead animals.
Females of this species are smaller than males.
Distribution: These are native to India, Pakistan, and Nepal.
Habitat: They are usually found in savannas and other open habitats around villages, cities, and near cultivated areas.
Threats: The Indian vulture has suffered a 97-99% population decrease due to poisoning caused by the veterinary drug diclofenac. This drug is toxic for vultures; it was given to working animals as it reduced joint pain and so kept them working for longer.
Conservation status
IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/mumbai/rare-sight-of-indian-vulture-spotted-in-thane/article67749435.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Thiruvalluvar:
- He was a Tamil poet and philosopher.
- His most popular work is Thirukkuṛaḷ which is a collection of couplets on ethics and politics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India paid tributes to Saint Thiruvalluvar on Thiruvalluvar Day.
Thiruvalluvar Day was first celebrated on May 17 and 18 in 1935.
In the present time, it is usually observed either on January 15 or 16 in Tamil Nadu and is a part of Pongal celebrations.
The occasion is named after and honours the poet, Thiruvalluvar.
Who is Thiruvalluvar?
He was a poet and philosopher, is regarded as a cultural icon by Tamils.
He is fondly referred to as Valluvar by Tamils.
His most popular work is Thirukkuṛaḷ, a collection of couplets on ethics, politics, economy and love.
Thiruvalluvar’s primary work Thirukkural contains 1330 couplets (kurals) that are divided into 133 sections of 10 couplets each.
The text is divided into three parts with teachings on dharma, artha, and kama (virtue, wealth and love).
Each section covers a wide range of topics and imparts moral, ethical, and practical guidance to the readers.
The couplets are composed in a concise and poetic form, making them easily memorable and quotable.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1996501
Senna spectabilis, recently in news, is a/an:
invasive plant
Explanation :
The Forest Department of Tamil Nadu has cleared 356.50 hectares of invasive growth of Senna spectabilis that posed a threat to biodiversity conservation in Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (STR).
It is a species of the legume family.
It is native to South and Central America and is grown as an ornamental plant as it has bright yellow flowers.
It was introduced as shade trees for coffee and firewood in the country; it soon became a threat to native tree species as its dense foliage prevented the growth of other indigenous trees and grass species.
It is considered as Least Concern under the IUCN Red List.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Coimbatore/invasive-species-removed-from-over-356-hectares-in-sathyamangalam-tiger-reserve/article67744453.ece
Which among the following best describes Disinflation?
A decrease in inflation rates
Explanation :
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) governor recently said recurring food price shocks and renewed flash points on the geo-political front pose a challenge to the ongoing disinflation process.
About Disinflation:
Disinflation is a decrease in inflation rates.
In simple terms, a decline in the rate of increase in the general price level of goods and services in the gross domestic product (GDP) of a country over time is called disinflation.
Unlike inflation and deflation, which refer to the direction of prices, disinflation refers to the rate of change in the rate of inflation.
Disinflation is not considered problematic because prices do not actually drop, and disinflation does not usually signal the onset of a slowing economy.
A healthy amount of disinflation is necessary since it represents economic contraction and prevents the economy from overheating.
Disinflation is considered the opposite of reflation, which occurs when a government stimulates an economy by increasing the money supply.
Causes of Disinflation:
Many reasons can cause disinflation in an economy.
If a central bank wants to enforce a tighter monetary policy and the government starts selling off some of its assets, the supply of money in the economy could be limited, causing a disinflationary effect.
Similarly, disinflation can also be caused by a contraction in the business cycle of recession. For instance, companies may choose not to raise prices to gain more significant market share, leading to disinflation.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.telegraphindia.com/business/reserve-bank-of-india-alert-on-food-prices-with-recurring-food-price-shocks-and-renewed-crisi-on-geo-politics/cid/2000810
Consider the following statements regarding Papua New Guinea:
- It is located in the Southern Indian Ocean.
- It is a constitutional monarchy and a member of the Commonwealth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Dozens of men have been killed in a fresh outbreak of tribal violence in the remote highlands of Papua New Guinea recently.
About Papua New Guinea:
Location: It is an island country that lies in the south-western Pacific.
It includes the eastern half of New Guinea (the world’s second largest island) and many small offshore islands.
Neighbours: Indonesia to the west, Australia to the south, and the Solomon Islands to the south-east.
Capital: Port Moresby
Terrain: It is mainly mountainous but has low-lying plains in southern New Guinea.
The islands that constitute Papua New Guinea were settled over a period of 40,000 years by a mixture of peoples who are generally referred to as Melanesians.
Language:
English is the main language of government and commerce. In most everyday contexts, the most widely spoken language is Tok Pisin.
Linguistically, it is the world’s most diverse country, with more than 800 languages.
Religion: The majority of Papua New Guinea’s people are at least nominally Christian.
Government:
Papua New Guinea became self-governing on December 1, 1973, and achieved independence on September 16, 1975.
The country is a constitutional monarchy and a member of the Commonwealth.
The British monarch, represented by a governor-general, is head of state, and the Prime Minister is head of government.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/at-least-53-killed-in-tribal-fighting-in-papua-new-guinea-report/article67861817.ece
With reference to the Director General of Civil Aviation (DGCA), consider the following statements:
- It is responsible for the regulation of air transport services in India.
- It issues licenses and certificates to pilots, aircraft maintenance engineers and other aviation personnel.
- It can investigate any incidents or accidents that occur within Indian airspace.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) recently issued a show cause notice to Air India in connection with the incident where an 80-year-old man passed away after he walked to the terminal due to lack of wheelchair assistance at the airport.
About Director General of Civil Aviation (DGCA):
It is the regulatory body in the field of civil aviation primarily dealing with safety issues.
It is an attached office of the Ministry of Civil Aviation.
It is responsible for regulation of air transport services to/from/within India and for enforcement of civil air regulations, air safety and airworthiness standards.
It also coordinates all regulatory functions with the International Civil Aviation Organisation.
Headquarters: New Delhi
Functions and Responsibilities of the DGCA:
One of the main functions of the DGCA is to ensure the safety of passengers and crew members on all flights operating in India.
The organization conducts regular safety inspections of all airlines and aircraft to meet the required safety standards.
It also investigates any incidents or accidents that occur within the Indian airspace and takes appropriate action to prevent similar incidents from happening in the future.
In addition to safety, the DGCA also plays a crucial role in the growth and development of the Indian aviation industry. The organization works closely with airlines and airport operators to promote the industry’s growth and improve the overall travel experience for passengers.
The DGCA also plays a crucial role in developing new airports and modernizing existing facilities to ensure that they can meet the growing demands of the aviation industry.
The DGCA is also responsible for the regulation of air traffic in India. It works closely with the Airports Authority of India (AAI) to ensure air traffic is managed safely and efficiently.
The DGCA also plays a key role in developing new air traffic control systems and technologies to improve the overall efficiency of Indian airspace.
The DGCA is also responsible for issuing licenses and certificates to pilots, aircraft maintenance engineers, and other aviation personnel.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/didnt-comply-with-provisions-air-india-gets-notice-after-80-year-old-flyer-dies/articleshow/107752400.cms
The primary role of the Chinook/CH-47F helicopter is:
Heavy troop and supply transport
Explanation :
A Chinook helicopter of the Indian Air Force made a precautionary landing following a “technical snag” near Punjab’s Barnala recently.
About Chinook Helicopter:
Chinook/CH-47F is the U.S. Army’s primary heavy troop and supply transport aircraft.
It is an advanced multi-mission helicopter.
It is manufactured by the American aerospace and defence firm Boeing for the US Army and international defence forces.
It is used for the transportation of troops, artillery, supplies, and equipment to the battlefield.
India has about 15 CH-47 Chinook helicopters.
Features:
It is a twin-engine, tandem rotor heavy-lift helicopter.
It contains a fully integrated digital cockpit management system.
It has advanced cargo-handling capabilities that complement the aircraft’s mission performance and handling characteristics.
It has a monolithic airframe with vibration reduction.
Maximum Speed: 160 knots (296 kmph).
It has a triple hook system, which provides stability for large external loads or the capacity for multiple external loads.
It can carry up to 55 troops or approximately 10 tonnes of mixed cargo.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/air-forces-chinook-helicopter-makes-emergency-landing-in-punjabs-barnala-5081426
The Melghat Tiger Reserve is located in:
Maharashtra
Explanation :
The ongoing Kula Mama Volleyball Tournament-2024 in Melghat Tiger Reserve’s (MTR) Semadoh sends a strong message to save tigers and the pristine forest with involvement of local youths.
About Melghat Tiger Reserve (MTR):
Location:
It is located in the Amaravati district of Maharashtra.
It is located on the southern offshoot of the Satpura Hill Range in Central India, called Gavilgarh Hill.
It was established as a wildlife sanctuary in 1967 and was declared a tiger reserve in 1974.
It was the first tiger reserve in Maharashtra.
It was among the first nine tiger reserves notified in 1973-74 under Project Tiger.
The name ‘Melghat’ means the confluence of various ‘ghats’ or valleys, as is typical from the landscape of this tiger Reserve.
Vegetation: The forest is tropical dry deciduous in nature, dominated by teak.
Rivers: The reserve is a catchment area for five major rivers: the Khandu, Khapra, Sipna, Gadga, and Dolar, all of which are tributaries of the river Tapti.
The Tapti River and the Gawilgadh ridge of the Satpura Range form the boundaries of the reserve.
Tribes: The Korkus are the largest tribal community in Melghat. Other communities include the Gawli community, the Gond tribe, and several other smaller tribal communities.
Flora: Some of the common species are teak, Lagerstroemia Parviflora, Terminalia Tomentosa, Ougeinia Oojeinensis, Emblica Officinalis, Bamboo, etc.
Fauna:
Apart from Tigers the other prominent animals are Sloth Bear, Indian Gaur, Sambar deer, Leopard, Nilgais, dhole, hyena, jungle cat, langur, etc.
It is considered a stronghold of the critically endangered forest owlet.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/nagpur/kula-mama-volleyball-tournament-2024-a-sporting-gesture-for-saving-tigers-and-preventing-forest-fires/articleshow/107806578.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Central Asian Flyway:
- It is a geographical region within which a single or group of migratory species completes its annual cycle.
- It covers a large continental area of Eurasia between the Arctic and Indian Oceans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A UN convention on the conservation of migratory species of wild animals (CMS) adopted India’s initiative for Central Asian Flyway (CAF) and agreed for listing 14 additional migratory species from across the globe for conservation in the CMS appendices.
It covers a large continental area of Eurasia between the Arctic and Indian Oceans and the associated island chains.
A flyway is a geographical region within which a single or group of migratory species completes its annual cycle — breeding, moulting, staging and non-breeding.
There are nine flyways in the world.
Geographically the flyway region covers 30 countries of North, Central and South Asia and Trans-Caucasus.
There is an overlap between the CAF and the area of the Agreement on the Conservation of African-Eurasian Migratory Waterbirds (AEWA), which was concluded in 1995, at The Hague, the Netherlands.
Sixteen out of the thirty countries encompassed by the CAF are located in the AEWA Agreement Area.
CAF migration routes include the steppes and cold deserts of Central Eurasia, and much of the Himalayan chain, where unique, high-altitude migrations such as those of the Bar-headed Goose, Anser indicus, take place.
India’s Initiative: The 14 species which will be listed in CMS appendices include
Eurasian Lynx, Peruvian Pelican, Pallas’s Cat, Guanaco, Laulao Catfish, Balkan Lynx, Lahille’s Bottlenose Dolphin, Harbour Porpoise, Magellanic Plover, Bearded Vulture, Blackchin Guitarfish, Bull Ray, Lusitanian Cownose Ray and Gilded Catfish.
The adopted initiative includes the establishment of a coordinating unit in India with financial support from the Indian Government.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/central-asian-flyway-recognised-to-protect-over-600-migratory-bird-species-94513
The Chars, recently seen in the news, are riverine areas mostly associated with:
Brahmaputra River
Explanation :
Recently, the Chief Minister of Assam said his government would undertake a mission to reclaim the chars from encroachers to safeguard the “ecological integrity” of the Brahmaputra Valley.
The riverine areas (island) of the river Brahmaputra, locally known as “Char/ Chapori”
The chars follow a peculiar pattern of migration.
They are subjected to erosion on their upstream and deposition on the downstream, due to which they migrate downstream.
This affects the geometry and location of the chars during floods almost every year.
Issues with Char area
The physical, sociological and institutional constraints on development of Char Areas are many and complex.
Such as virtual absence of all weather communication with the main banks, reliable means of intra and inter char mobility, inadequate growth of transport and basic infrastructure like surface roads, health and drinking water, delivery systems for farm inputs, marketing, agro-services electricity and education.
The problems in the Char Areas are unique in nature, due to constant threat from flood and erosion during the rainy season.
The land mass is segregated and cut off from each other, making it very difficult for taking any major scheme for road communication, irrigation, Power supply or setting of educational institutions.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/will-reclaim-char-areas-from-encroachers-assam-cm/article67853870.ece
With reference to Debts Recovery Tribunals, consider the following statements:
- It was established under the Recovery of Debts and Bankruptcy Act 1993.
- Its Presiding Officer is appointed by the Chief Justice of India.
- The tenure of its Presiding Officer is 5 years.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the department of Financial Services secretary chaired conference of heads of Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunals (DRATs) and Presiding Officers of Debt Recovery of Tribunals (DRTs) in New Delhi.
The Debts Recovery Tribunals (DRTs) and Debts Recovery Appellate Tribunals (DRATs) were established under the Recovery of Debts and Bankruptcy Act (RDB Act), 1993.
Objective: These are established to provide expeditious adjudication and recovery of debts due to Banks and Financial Institutions.
At present, 39 Debts Recovery Tribunals (DRTs) and 5 Debts Recovery Appellate Tribunals (DRATs) are functioning across the country.
Each DRT and DRAT are headed by a Presiding Officer and a Chairperson respectively.
Under the section 22(2) in the Recovery Of Debts Due To Banks And Financial Institutions Act, 1993 DRT has the following powers
summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person and examining him on oath;
requiring the discovery and production of documents;
receiving evidence on affidavits;
issuing commissions for the examination of witnesses or documents;
reviewing its decisions;
dismissing an application for default or deciding it ex parte;
setting aside any order of dismissal of any application for default or any order passed by it ex parte;
any other matter which may be prescribed.
Composition
It is headed by the Presiding Officer to be appointed, by notification, by the Central Government.
Qualification of Presiding officer: A person shall not be qualified for appointment as the Presiding Officer of a Tribunal unless he is, or has been, or is qualified to be, a District Judge.
Tenure: The Presiding Officer of a Tribunal shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office and shall be eligible for reappointment.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2006779
Consider the following statements regarding the Rip Currents:
- These are a strong flow of water running from a beach back to the open ocean.
- These occur in areas with hard-bottom beach topography only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) and Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) have embarked on a project to continuously monitor and issue operational forecast alerts of rip currents.
These are a strong flow of water running from a beach back to the Open Ocean, sea, or lake.
These are one of the most well-known coastal hazards on beaches around the world.
Formation
They are formed by a beach topography.
They can occur in areas with hard-bottom (rocky) or soft-bottom (sand or silt) beach topography.
A beaches topography includes the area outside the water, such as dunes or marshes.
Beach topography also includes the area within the water, like sandbars, piers, and reefs. Rip currents often form around these parts of a beach topography.
They can form in a gap between sandbars, piers, or parts of a reef.
Such underwater obstacles block waves from washing directly back to sea.
The water from these waves, called feeder waves, runs along the shore until it finds an opening around the obstacle.
Contrary to popular belief, a rip cannot pull a person down and hold him/her under the water.
It simply carries floating objects, including people, out to just beyond the zone of the breaking waves.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/incois-isro-to-study-rip-currents-for-safer-beaches/article67860583.ece
Ponmudi hills, recently seen in the news, is located in:
Kerala
Explanation :
A team of researchers have discovered a new species of damselfly at the Ponmudi hills in Thiruvananthapuram district of Kerala.
Ponmudi translates to ‘Golden Hill’ or ‘Golden Peak’ is located in the state of Kerala.
It is part of the Western Ghats mountain range that runs parallel to the Arabian Sea and is at an altitude of 1100 metres above sea level.
The hills are a part of the Agasthyamalai landscape, at the southernmost tip of the Western Ghats.
These hills are biodiversity-rich, and recently the third species of damselfly discovered from this region.
Key facts about the new species of damselfly
It is named Cliffside Bambootail (Phylloneura rupestris).
It belongs to a group called bambootails, so named because of their long abdomen that resembles bamboo stalks.
It lays eggs in the moss beds in seasonal rills that flow over rock cliffs.
The discovery is significant, because for over 160 years, the genus Phylloneura was considered monotypic, with a single described species, the Myristica Bambootail
Myristica Bambootail’s population is associated with myristica swamps, and hence is known by its common name Myristica Bambootail.
It has remained the sole described species of the genus Phylloneura and is considered near-threatened as per the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
It is endemic to the Western Ghats and has been recorded only in the area between the Nilgiri Hills and Sharavathi Valley, north of the Palghat Gap.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/new-species-of-damselfly-discovered-in-ponmudi/article67852949.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Quasar:
- It is an extremely active and luminous type of Active Galactic Nucleus (AGN).
- All quasars are AGNs, but not all AGNs are quasars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
An international team of astronomers said the recently discovered quasar named J0529-4351 was the brightest and fastest-growing quasar discovered so far and had a supermassive black hole about 17 billion times the mass of the Sun.
About Quasar:
A quasar is an extremely active and luminous type of active galactic nucleus (AGN).
An AGN is nothing more than a supermassive black hole that is active and feeding at the center of a galaxy.
All quasars are AGNs, but not all AGNs are quasars.
Quasars are thought to form in regions of the universe where the large-scale density of matter is much higher than average.
They are among the most luminous, powerful, and vibrant objects known in the universe.
How are they formed?
An active galaxy is one in which the central supermassive black hole is consuming large amounts of matter.
The infall of matter into the black hole is so great that all the material can’t enter the black hole at the same time, so it forms a queue as a spiraling accretion disk.
The matter—in the form of huge clouds—falls into the disk, with the inner parts of the cloud closer to the black hole orbiting faster than the outer parts (just like planets closer to the sun orbit faster than those farther away).
This creates a shear force that twists the clouds, causing them to bump into their neighbors as they move around the black hole at velocities ranging from 10% of the speed of light up to over 80%.
This friction from fast-moving gas clouds generates heat, and the disk becomes so hot—millions of degrees—that it shines brightly.
Some of the material in the disk is also funneled away from the black hole in a highly luminous, magnetically collimated jet.
The hot accretion disk and the jet combine to make the nucleus of the active galaxy shine so brightly that it can be seen far across the universe.
The brightest quasars can outshine all of the stars in the galaxies in which they reside, which makes them visible even at distances of billions of light-years.
Most quasars have been found billions of light-years away.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.telegraphindia.com/science-tech/galaxy-gobbler-feasting-on-sun-size-stars-fastest-growing-black-hole-powering-distant-quasar/cid/2001625
Consider the following statements regarding Anoxic Marine Basins:
- They form when there is a strong layering of the water column created in a cup-like formation on the ocean floor.
- They are one of the world’s most productive ecosystems with a wide range of species diversity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
According to scientists, anoxic marine basins may be among the most viable places to conduct large-scale carbon sequestration in the deep ocean.
About Anoxic Marine Basins:
An anoxic basin is a body of water without oxygen.
Permanent anoxic basins form when there is a strong layering of the water column created in a cup-like formation on the ocean floor.
The layering is caused by density differences due to salt concentration or temperature.
Once stratification occurs, circulation with the rest of the ocean is minimized, and microorganisms consume the oxygen in the water.
In most anoxic basins, the water is extremely stagnant and can have mixing times of many thousand years.
They range from a few hundred meters to several kilometers across and from 10 meters to 500 meters deeper than the surrounding seafloor.
They can’t support animal life, and are populated primarily by microbes and some very specialized fungi with different metabolisms than creatures in oxygen-rich environments.
Some of them rely on molecules such as nitrate for respiration, and some get their carbon from gases like carbon dioxide (CO2) and methane (CH4) instead of eating other organisms or particles of organic matter.
Many anoxic basins also contain toxic chemicals, which are produced by geothermal activity or by microbes living in the basins.
Some also contain salt domes, big mounds of hardened salt.
In some anoxic basins, methane and other gases collect in reservoirs beneath the seafloor.
The gases can percolate upward, pushing up domes of sediment on the seafloor that are called mud volcanoes.
The gases can burst through the soft sediments, creating “mini-eruptions” of wispy columns of sediment-filled water.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-02-anoxic-marine-basins-candidates-deep.html
Morodharo, a fortified settlement dating back to the Harappan era, is located in:
Gujarat
Explanation :
Archaeologists recently discovered a Harappan-era fortified settlement named Morodharo.
About Morodharo:
It is a fortified settlement dating back to the Harappan-era.
Location: Kutch District, Gujarat
Features:
The settlement looks mature (2,600-1,900BCE) to late (1,900-1,300 BCE) Harappan.
The fortification measures 102 m east to the west and 58 m north to the south.
The thickness of the wall is an average of 3.3 m.
It has a 10x10 m platform on the south-west side and a well on the north-east.
Burial cairns, which are mounds of stones to demarcate a boundary, are also found here.
Harappan pottery with perforated jar sherds, reserved slipware, and terracotta cakes were unearthed. All these items have a striking resemblance to those found in Dholavira.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/rajkot/kutch-villagers-treasure-hunt-helps-unearth-harappan-site-near-dholavira/articleshow/107832569.cms
The INDUS-X initiative, recently seen in the news, focus on advancing of:
high-tech cooperation in the defense sector
Explanation :
The defence ministry said the ‘INDUS-X’ summit in Delhi marks a “significant milestone” in the collaborative efforts between the two countries.
About U.S.-India Defense Accelerator Ecosystem (INDUS-X):
It was launched in June 2023 during the state visit of the Prime Minister of India to the US.
Objective: To expand strategic technology partnerships and defense industrial cooperation between governments, businesses, and academic institutions in India and the US.
INDUS X will be a defence innovation bridge, which will inter-alia, include Joint Challenges, Joint Innovation Fund, Academia engagement, Industry-startup connect, investment by private entities in defence projects, mentoring by experts and niche technology projects etc.
It will focus on advancing high-tech cooperation and fostering joint research, development, and production opportunities in the defence sector.
The initiative aims to explore possibilities for co-producing jet engines, long-range artillery, and infantry vehicles.
India’s Innovations for Defense Excellence (iDEX) and the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD), US, are leading INDUS-X activities.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/business/indus-x-summit-india-us-looking-at-advancing-defence-collaboration-12306751.html
Consider the following statements regarding Mission Aspides:
- It is a United States of America led naval mission.
- It will send warships and airborne early warning systems to the Red Sea to protect cargo ships.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The European Union recently launched Mission Aspides to protect commercial vessels in the Red Sea from attacks by Iran-backed Houthi rebels.
About Mission Aspides:
It is a European Union (EU) naval mission to protect cargo ships in the Red Sea from attacks from Yemen’s Houthi rebels.
It will send European warships and airborne early warning systems to the Red Sea, Gulf of Aden and surrounding waters.
So far, France, Germany, Italy and Belgium have said they plan to contribute ships.
Aspides vessels, whose operational command centre will be in the Greek city of Larissa, will have orders to fire on the Houthis only if they attack first and will not be authorised to shoot pre-emptively.
The mission is planned for one year but may be renewed.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.aljazeera.com/news/2024/2/19/eu-launches-red-sea-naval-mission-to-protect-shipping-from-houthi-attacks
Consider the following statements regarding the BharatNet Project:
- It aims to provide access to broadband connectivity to Gram Panchayats across India.
- It is executed by a Special Purpose Vehicle namely Bharat Broadband Network Limited.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
State-owned Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) has floated around Rs 65,000-crore tender for the implementation of the phase-III BharatNet project.
It is one of the biggest rural telecom projects in the world.
It is implemented in a phased manner to all Gram Panchayats in the country for providing non-discriminatory access to broadband connectivity to all the telecom service providers.
Objective: To enable access providers like mobile operators, Internet Service Providers (ISPs), Cable TV operators, content providers to launch various services such as applications like e-health, e-education and e-governance in rural and remote India.
The project has been approved in 2011.
It is being executed by a Special Purpose Vehicle namely Bharat Broadband Network Limited (BBNL), which has been incorporated in 2012 under Indian Companies Act 1956.
The Telecom Commission approved to implement the project in three phases.
BharatNet Phase-I:
It was approved in 2011 the project for the creation of the National Optical Fibre Network (now BharatNet) to provide broadband connectivity at the Gram Panchayat (GP) level by connecting block headquarters to GPs by using existing fibre of Central Public Sector Undertakings such as Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited and RailTel Corporation of India Limited and laying incremental fibre to bridge the connectivity gap up to the GPs.
BharatNet Phase-II
It was approved in 2017, which integrates the implementation experience of Phase-I of the project and aligns it with the vision of Digital India.
The modified strategy provides an optimal mix of media (OFC, Radio and satellite) to connect Gram Panchayats (GPs).
Under Phase II, GPs are to be connected through multiple implementing models like State-led Model, Private Sector Model and CPSU Model, along with last mile connectivity in GPs through Wi-Fi or any other suitable broadband technology.
In the third phase from 2019 to 2023, state-of-the-art, future-proof network, including fiber between districts and blocks, with ring topology to provide redundancy would be created.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/industry-bsnl-rolls-out-rs-65k-cr-tender-for-bharatnet-3399077/
Vaitarna river, sometimes seen in the news, originates from:
Trimbakeshwar Hills
Explanation :
Recently, a bull shark attacked a fisherman in Vaitarna river at Dongripada in Maharashtra’s Palghar district was the first sighting of a bull shark 40km upstream in the river.
It is one of the west flowing rivers in the region North of Mumbai and South of the Tapi River.
It originates in the Trimbakeshwar Hills of Nasik district of Maharashtra.
It receives most of the rainfall from the South West monsoon during June to October. Almost 98% of the annual rainfall of the basin is received during this period.
Tributaries: The main tributaries are Pinjal, Ganjai, Surya, Daharji and Tansa.
The catchment area of Vaitarna basin completely lies in Thane and Nasik districts of Maharashtra.
It drains an area of 2019 sq km before it falls in Gulf of Khambhat.
Key facts about Bull Shark
They’re known to be aggressive towards humans and are thought to be one of the most dangerous shark species in the world.
Habitat: These are frequently spotted in tropical coastal areas worldwide, including shallower waters along coastlines.
Bull sharks have a unique ability to tolerate freshwater and saltwater habitats, meaning they can sometimes be found venturing into rivers and traveling great distances upstream.
It reproduces through viviparity, the process in which the embryo develops within the mother’s body, leading to live birth.
Conservation status
IUCN: Vulnerable
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/mumbai-news/bull-shark-travelled-40km-upstream-before-attacking-fisherman-in-vaitarna-river-101708341228414.html
With reference to National Council for Transgender Persons, consider the following statements:
- It is a statutory body.
- It is headed by the Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare.
- It aims to ensure to set up of transgender welfare boards in all states.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the National Council for Transgender Persons (NCTP) convened its pivotal meeting under the Chairmanship of Secretary, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
It is a statutory body constituted under the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act 2019 to safeguard the rights of transgender persons in India.
It is responsible for monitoring and evaluating the implementation of the provisions of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 and making recommendations to the government on measures to promote and protect the rights of transgender persons.
Aims
To focus on livelihood issues as well as to raise awareness about the trans community for achieving the goal of social justice so that transpersons are accepted within families and in the larger society.
To ensure to set up of transgender welfare boards in all states and also ensure that essential needs of the transgender community, like housing, food, healthcare, and education are met.
Composition
The Union Minister of Social Justice & Empowerment is the Chairperson (ex-officio).
The Union Minister of State for Social Justice & Empowerment is the Vice-Chairperson (ex-officio) of the council.
The other members of the Council include representatives of various Ministries/Departments
Five representatives of the transgender community.
Representatives of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and the National Commission for Women (NCW), representatives of State Governments and UTs, and experts representing NGOs.
Functions:
It advises the Central Government on the formulation of policies, programmes, legislation and projects with respect to transgender persons.
It Monitors and evaluates the impact of policies and programmes designed for achieving equality and full participation of transgender persons.
It reviews and coordinates the activities of all the departments of Government and other Governmental and non-Governmental Organisations which are dealing with matters relating to transgender persons.
It redresses the grievances of transgender persons.
Performs such other functions as may be prescribed by the Central Government.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2007250
Consider the following statements regarding the Rubber Board:
- It is issues licenses to rubber producers, manufacturers and exporters.
- It is a statutory organization under the Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the government has increased the allocation for Sustainable and Inclusive Development of Natural Rubber Sector by 23% to Rs 708.7 crore for the next two financial years and the scheme is run by the Rubber Board.
It is a statutory organization constituted under the Rubber Act, 1947.
It functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Functions:
It is responsible for the development of the rubber industry in the country by assisting and encouraging research, development, extension and training activities related to rubber.
It also maintains statistical data of rubber, takes steps to promote marketing of rubber and undertake labour welfare activities.
A crucial function of the Rubber Board is issuing licenses to rubber producers, manufacturers, and exporters/traders. This license, known as the “Rubber Board license/registration,” is mandatory for anyone involved in rubber manufacturing and export
Structure:
It is headed by a Chairman appointed by the Central Government.
It has 28 members representing various interests of the natural rubber industry.
The activities of the Board are exercised through Five Departments viz. General Services, Extension & Advisory Services, Research Services (rubber Research Institute of India), Training (Rubber Training Institute) & Finance.
Headquarters: Kottayam, Kerala.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/policy/economy-aid-for-rubber-plantation-hiked-3398921/
Consider the following countries:How many of the above are members of Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)?
Thailand
What is the primary purpose of Section 91 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC)?
To ensure the availability of relevant evidence and materials during legal proceedings
Explanation :
Recently, the Supreme Court observed that the courts cannot issue processes under Section 91 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C) to compel the production of things/documents based on the application made by the accused at the stage of framing of charges.
About Section 91 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC):
Section 91 of the CrPC empowers the court to issue a summons or a written order to produce a document or other material that is necessary for the purpose of any investigation, inquiry, trial, or other legal proceedings.
Under this section, if the court considers that the production of any document or material is necessary or desirable for the administration of justice, it can issue a summons or written order to any person in possession of that document or material, directing them to produce it in court.
Purpose: To ensure the availability of relevant evidence and materials during legal proceedings. This helps facilitate a fair and just resolution of the case by ensuring that the necessary evidence is presented before the court.
Production of documents under Section 91: The document or material can be produced either in its original form or in the form of certified copies, as specified in the summons or written order.
Compliance with the Section 91 order: The person receiving the summons must comply with it and produce the document or thing as required.
Section 91 does not cover the production of the following items:
Those listed under Sections 123 and 124 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 of 1872), or the Bankers Books Evidence Act, 1891 (13 of 1891), or
a letter, postcard, telegram, or other document, or any parcel or thing in the custody of the postal or telegraph authority.
The court must be informed of the name of the person in whose possession or power the document is, or else the application for summons will not be entertained.
The term ‘person’ mentioned in the Section does not include an accused person in trial.
The police officers and courts are required to adhere to specific protocols and precautions while issuing and carrying out summonses under Section 91 CrPC.
For instance, they must abide by Sections 123 and 124 of the Indian Evidence Act, (1872), which protects the confidentiality and privilege of specific documents.
Additionally, they must offer the person called a fair amount of time and a chance to comply with the request.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/accused-cannot-invoke-s91-crpc-to-compel-prosecution-to-produce-things-at-the-stage-of-framing-of-charge-supreme-court-250024
Consider the following statements regarding Global Initiative on Digital Health (GIDH):
- It is launched by the World Health Organization (WHO).
- Its membership is open to all institutions engaged in digital health.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Achieving one of the three priority areas agreed upon during India’s G20 presidency in 2023, the World Health Organization (WHO) recently launched the Global Initiative on Digital Health (GIDH) virtually.
About Global Initiative on Digital Health (GIDH):
It is a WHO managed network aiming to amplify and align resources toward country-led digital health transformation through strengthened collaboration and knowledge exchange.
It is a platform for sharing knowledge and digital products among countries.
The initiative aims to achieve the following objectives through collaborative efforts:
Assess and prioritize the country’s needs for sustainable digital health transformation.
Increase the alignment of country-level digital health resources and unfunded priorities.
Support the accelerated achievement of the strategic objectives of the Global Strategy on Digital Health 2020-2025.
Build capacity and converge efforts to encourage local development, maintenance, and adaptation of digital health technologies to continuously changing needs.
The initiative will be a network of networks with four main components:
country needs tracker
country resource portal (a map of resources available in a country)
transformation toolbox that will share quality-assured digital tools
knowledge exchange.
GIDH will support countries in three ways: by listening to their needs, by aligning resources to avoid fragmentation and overlap, and by providing quality assured products.
Membership: Membership is open to all institutions engaged in digital health.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/who-launches-digital-health-platform-agreed-upon-in-indias-g20-presidency-9171960/
Consider the following statements regarding Shompen Tribe, recently seen in the news:
- It resides on the Lakshadweep group of islands.
- It is one of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
India’s president recently made a whistle stop tour of an island earmarked for multi-billion-dollar development that experts warn could wipe out the indigenous Shompen tribe, which calls it home.
About Shompen Tribe:
The Shompen are one of the most isolated tribes on Earth.
They reside in the dense tropical rain forest of the Great Nicobar Island of Andaman and Nicobar group of Islands.
They are one of the least studied Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India.
Though according to the Census (2011), the estimated population of Shompen is 229, the exact population of Shompen is unknown till today.
Most of them are uncontacted, refusing all interactions with outsiders.
They live in small groups, whose territories are identified by the rivers that criss-cross the rainforest.
They are semi-nomadic hunter-gatherers, and their main sources of livelihood are hunting, gathering, fishing, and a little bit of horticultural activities in a rudimentary form.
Primarily, they used to hunt wild pig, python, monitor Lizard, crocodile, see turtle etc.
They collect a wide variety of forest plants, but their staple food is the pandanus fruit, which they call larop.
Shompen speak their own language, which has many dialects. Members of one band do not understand the dialect of the other.
They are of short to medium stature, have a round or nearly broad head shape, narrow nose, a broad facial profile, and distinctly exhibit Mongoloid features such as light brown to yellow brown skin and oblique eye features.
Shompen have nuclear families comprising husband, wife, and their unmarried children.
A Shompen family is controlled by the eldest male member, who controls all activities of the women and kids.
Monogamy is the general rule, although polygamy is allowed too.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.bbc.com/news/world-asia-india-68347360
With reference to the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NPDS) Act, 1985, consider the following statements:
- It prohibits any individual from the production of any narcotic drug or psychotropic substance.
- It provides for the forfeiture of property derived used in illicit traffic in narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.
- A sentence awarded for the consumption of drugs under the NDPS Act is non-commutable.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
In a significant legal development, the Supreme Court recently overturned an order granting anticipatory bail to a respondent accused under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 (NDPS Act).
About Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NPDS) Act, 1985:
The NDPS Act prohibits any individual from engaging in any activity consisting of the production, cultivation, sale, purchase, transport, storage, and/or consumption of any narcotic drug or psychotropic substance.
Objectives:
To take measures for preventing, combating, and regulating operations relating to narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.
To provide for the forfeiture of property derived from or used in, illicit traffic in narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.
To implement the provisions of the international conventions on Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances and for all relevant matters.
To add or omit the list of psychotropic substances.
What are Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances?
“Narcotic Drug” means coca leaf, cannabis (hemp), opium, popy straw, and includes all manufactured drugs.
“Psychotropic substance” means any substance, natural or synthetic, or any natural material or any salt or preparation of such substance or material included in the list of psychotropic substances specified in the Schedule.
Applicability: The NDPS Act prohibits a person from manufacture / production / cultivation/ possession/ sale / purchase / transport / store / consume any narcotic drug or psychotropic substance without due permission from the appropriate authorities.
Punishment under the NDPS Act:
The Act follows a graded system of punishment, with the punishment varying and the quantum of punishment being dependent upon whether the offence pertains to small, commercial, and intermediate quantities of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.
For offences involving commercial quantities of drugs, a minimum penalty of ten years of rigorous imprisonment is prescribed, which may extend to twenty years.
Repeat offences attract one and a half times the penalty and, in a few cases, even the death penalty.
By amendment to the Act in 1989, due to the serious nature of the offence, the sentence awarded under the NDPS Act became non-commutable except for the sentence awarded for the consumption of drugs.
Alongside these stringent provisions, the Act has procedural safeguards as follows:
Personal search: Any person being searched has a right to be searched before a Gazetted Officer or a Magistrate (Section 50).
Searches: Gazetted Officers of the empowered Departments can authorize searches. Such authorization has to be based on information taken down in writing.
Searches can be made under certain circumstances without a warrant (from a magistrate) or an authorization (from a Gazetted Officer).
Arrests: The person who is arrested should be informed, as soon as may be, the grounds of his arrest [Section 52(1)].
If the arrest or seizure is based on a warrant issued by a magistrate, the person or the seized article should be forwarded to that magistrate.
The officer who arrests a person has to make a full report to his official superior within 48 hours.
Immunities:
Officers: Officers acting in discharge of their duties in good faith under the Act are immune from suits, prosecution, and other legal proceedings.
Addicts: Addicts charged with consumption of drugs or with offences involving small quantities will be immune from prosecution if they volunteer forde-addiction. This immunity may be withdrawn if the addict does not undergo complete treatment.
Offenders: Central or state governments can tender immunity to an offender in order to obtain his evidence in the case. This immunity is granted by the government and not by the court.
Juvenile offenders: Juvenile offenders (below 18 years of age) will be governed by the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000.
Immunities to diplomats as applicable.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://lawtrend.in/ndps-courts-should-be-slow-in-granting-bail-to-the-accused-in-case-of-recovery-of-huge-quantity-of-narcotic-substance-from-the-accused-sc/
With reference to the Model Code of Conduct (MCC), consider the following statements:
- It comes into effect from the time the EC announces the schedule of elections.
- All the provisions of the MCC are legally enforceable.
- During general elections to the Lok Sabha, MCC is applicable throughout the country.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
An Indian delegation is set to leave for London in an effort to seal the free trade agreement with the UK, as dates for the general elections are expected to be announced in less than a month, which will trigger the Model Code of Conduct (MCC).
About Model Code of Conduct (MCC):
MCC s a set of guidelines intended to regulate political parties and candidates during elections to ensure that the conduct of polls by the Election Commission of India (ECI) is free and fair.
This is something political parties and candidates voluntarily agree to.
Divided into eight parts, the guidelines cover dos and don’ts for electioneering as well as on publication of advertisements at the cost of the exchequer, among other things.
The ECI ensures observance of the MCC by a political party in power and contesting candidates for conducting free and fair elections under Article 324 of the Constitution of India.
The salient features of the Model Code of Conduct lay down how political parties, contesting candidates and party(s) in power should conduct themselves during the process of elections i.e. on their general conduct during electioneering, holding meetings and processions, poll day activities and functioning of the party in power etc.
MCC also ensures that official machinery for electoral purposes is not misused. Further, it is also ensured that electoral offenses, malpractices, and corrupt practices are prevented by all means. In case of violation, appropriate measures are taken.
The code comes into effect from the time the EC announces the schedule of elections and will be in force till the results are announced.
Applicability:
During general elections to the Lok Sabha, the code is applicable throughout the country.
During general elections to the Legislative Assembly of the state, the code is applicable in the entire State.
During bye-elections, the MCC would be applicable in the area of the concerned Constituency only.
Is MCC Legally Enforceable?
The MCC by itself is not legally enforceable but certain provisions of the MCC may be enforced through invoking corresponding provisions in other statutes such as the Representation of the People Act, 1951, IPC and CrPC.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/business/indian-delegation-heads-to-london-for-fta-talks-9171549/
Consider the following statements regarding the Raisina Dialogue:
- It is an annual conference on geopolitics and geo-economics issues.
- It is organized by the Observer Research Foundation in partnership with the Ministry of External Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The ninth edition of the Raisina Dialogue will be held from February 21 to 23rd in New Delhi.
It is an annual conference on geopolitics and geoeconomics, which aims to address the most challenging issues faced by the world.
It is held annually since 2016 in New Delhi.
The conference is attended by people from political, business, media, and civil society backgrounds.
The Dialogue is structured as a multi-stakeholder, cross-sectoral discussion, involving heads of state, cabinet ministers and local government officials, who are joined by thought leaders from the private sector, media and academia.
It is organized by the Observer Research Foundation (ORF) in partnership with the Ministry of External Affairs, Government of India.
The theme of the 2024 edition is “Chaturanga: Conflict, Contest, Cooperate, Create,”
During the three-day conference, the participants will engage with each other over six “thematic pillars”. These include:
Tech Frontiers: Regulations & Realities
Peace with the Planet: Invest & Innovate
War & Peace: Armouries & Asymmetries
Decolonising Multilateralism: Institutions & Inclusion
The Post 2030 Agenda: People & Progress
Defending Democracy: Society & Sovereignty,
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/what-is-raisina-dialogue-9171750/
Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific:
- It is one of the five regional commissions of the United Nations.
- It headquarter is located in New Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
According to a new report by United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP), at the current pace of growth, the region will not attain the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) until 2062 or will be 32 years behind schedule.
It is the most inclusive intergovernmental platform in the Asia-Pacific region.
It was established in 1947.
Mandate: To promote economic and social development in the Asian and Pacific region by fostering cooperation between its members and associate members.
The Commission promotes cooperation among its 53 member States and 9 associate members in pursuit of solutions to sustainable development challenges.
It is one of the five regional commissions of the United Nations.
It carries out work in the areas like Macroeconomic Policy, Poverty Reduction and Financing for Development, Trade, Investment and Innovation, Transport, Environment and Development, Information and Communications Technology and Disaster Risk Reduction and Social Development etc.
Head quarters: Bangkok, Thailand
What are Sustainable Development Goals?
These were adopted by the United Nations in 2015 as a universal call to action to end poverty, protect the planet, and ensure that by 2030 all people enjoy peace and prosperity.
The SDGs framework sets targets for 231 unique indicators across 17 SDG goals related to economic development, social welfare, and environmental sustainability, to be met by 2030.
The 17 SDGs are integrated; they recognise that action in one area will affect outcomes in others, and that development must balance social, economic, and environmental sustainability.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/governance/asia-pacific-region-32-years-behind-2030-target-on-achieving-sdgs-unescap-94521
With reference to Rhodamine-B, consider the following statements:
- It is water-soluble chemical compound.
- Its usage in food products is a punishable offence in India.
- It is used in textile and paper industry.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, the Tamil Nadu government banned the sale and production of cotton candy in the state after it was found that the chemical Rhodamine-B was being used for making it.
It is a water-soluble chemical compound.
While it appears green in powder form, it turns vivid fluorescent pink when it comes in contact with water.
It is a chemical commonly used for dyeing in the textile, paper, leather, and paints industry as a coloring agent that helps in attaining the red and pink spectrum.
“As per the Food Safety Standards Act, 2006, preparation, packaging, importing, selling and serving food items with Rhodamine-B in wedding ceremonies and other public events is a punishable offence.
It is an industrial dye which is not allowed in food anywhere in the world as it is toxic.
Why is it harmful?
Researchers have identified that if food containing this chemical is consumed regularly, it can cause damage to the cerebellum tissue in the brain and to the brainstem that connects the brain to the spinal cord.
These damages can lead to functional abnormalities and can hinder humans’ motor functioning.
The chemical is toxic for humans and can cause oxidative stress on cells and tissues if ingested.
It becomes particularly hazardous when it is mixed with food products, leading to cancer and tumour over time.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/tamil-nadu-cotton-candy-ban-rhodamine-b-cancer-buddhi-ke-baal-2503535-2024-02-17
Consider the following statements regarding the India, Brazil and South Africa (IBSA) Fund:
- It is used to support demand-driven, transformational projects in developing countries.
- The World Bank serves as the Secretariat of the IBSA Fund.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, India has contributed USD 1 million to a fund established by India, Brazil and South Africa.
It was established in 2004 and became operational in 2006.
The IBSA countries - India, Brazil and South Africa - each contribute one million dollars annually to the Fund in a spirit of partnership and support for Southern-led, demand-driven, transformational projects in developing countries.
The purpose of the fund is to identify replicable and scalable projects that can be disseminated to developing countries on a demand-driven basis.
IBSA Fund-supported projects help partner countries in the Global South to achieve their national priorities, as well as all other internationally agreed development goals.
Objectives: It includes promoting food security, and addressing HIV/AIDS, to extending access to safe drinking water all to contribute to the achievement of the Sustainable Development Goals.
The IBSA Fund has allocated USD 50.6 million to date, supporting 45 projects across 37 countries of the global South.
The UN Office for South-South Cooperation (UNOSSC) serves as the Fund Manager and Secretariat of the IBSA Fund.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://newsonair.gov.in/Main-News-Details.aspx?id=477567
Kapilavastu Relic, recently seen in the news, is associated with:
Buddha
Explanation :
Four bone fragments of Lord Buddha, also known as Kapilvastu Relics, presently kept in the National Museum will be taken to Thailand after about 30 years.
The relics were excavated from Piprahwa in the Siddharthnagar District of Uttar Pradesh, an erstwhile part of the ancient city of Kapilavastu.
A British colonial engineer and an estate manager William Claxton Peppé discovered an inscribed casket in 1898 at the stupa site in Piprahwa.
The inscription on the casket’s lid which refers to the relics of Buddha and his community, the Sakya.
History
At the age of 80, according to Buddhist beliefs, Buddha attained salvation in Uttar Pradesh’s Kushinagar district.
The Mallas of Kushinagar cremated his body with ceremonies befitting a universal king.
His relics from the funeral pyre were collected and divided into eight shares to be distributed among the Ajathsatrus of Magadha, the Licchavis of Vaishali, the Sakyas of Kapilavastu, Mallas of Kushinagar, Bullies of Allakappa, the Mallas of Pava, the Koliyas of Ramagrama and a Brahmana of Vethadipa.
The purpose was erecting stupas over the sacred relics.
Two more stupas came up — one over the urn in which the relics had been collected and the other over the embers.
Thus, stupas erected over the bodily relics of Buddha (Saririkastupas) are the earliest surviving Buddhist shrines.
It is stated that Ashoka (circa 272–232 BCE) being an ardent follower of Buddhism, opened -up seven of these eight stupas, and collected major portion of the relics for enshrinement within innumerable (84000 stupas) built by him in an effort to popularize Buddhism and spread dharma.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Feb/21/after-30-yrs-buddha-relics-to-travel-to-thailand
Consider the following statements regarding Solar Maximum:
- It occurs at the end of the solar cycle every year.
- It’s associated with a greater number of sunspots observable on the sun’s surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A new visualization from the European Space Agency (ESA) shows activity ramping up on the sun’s surface as it approaches solar maximum this year.
About Solar Maximum:
The sun is a huge ball of electrically-charged hot gas. This charged gas moves, generating a powerful magnetic field.
The sun goes through a natural solar cycle approximately every 11 years.
Over the course of 11 years, the magnetic field between the Sun’s northern and southern hemispheres winds up until it becomes so dense that the hemispheres flip. The north hemisphere becomes the south, and vice versa.
This flipping point marks the Solar Maximum. It occurs approximately halfway through the solar cycle.
It’s associated with a greater number of sunspots observable on the surface of the sun.
By contrast, the Solar Minimum, which marks the beginning and end of each Solar Cycle, has fewer sunspots.
As the sun approaches the solar maximum, we see more brilliant explosions, dark sunspots, loops of plasma, and swirls of super-hot gas.
Impacts:
This increased solar activity can cause extreme space weather events, including solar flares and eruptions.
It can also disrupt radio communications and the power grid and have serious health consequences for astronauts.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.space.com/sun-surface-solar-maximum-approaches-photo
Consider the following statements regarding Green Anaconda:
- It is native to the tropical rainforests of South America, east of the Andes Mountains.
- It is a highly venomous snake and kills its prey by delivering venom through a bite.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A National Geographic expedition in the Amazon rainforest has led to the reclassification of the world’s largest snake as two genetically distinct species: the southern green anaconda and the newly-discovered northern green anaconda (Eunectes akayima).
Why in News?
The northern green anaconda can grow up to 7.5m and weigh close to 500kg, making it the largest and heaviest snake yet known in the world.
It diverged from the previously known southern green anaconda about 10 million years ago, differing genetically from it by 5.5 percent.
About Green Anaconda:
It is the largest snake in the world, when both weight and length are considered.
It can reach a length of 30 feet (9 meters) and weigh up to 227 kilograms.
It has two species: southern green anaconda and the northern green anaconda.
Distribution: They are native to South America east of the Andes, and can be found in several countries, including Colombia, Venezuela, Peru, Brazil, the island of Trinidad, and as far south as northern Paraguay.
Habitat: They generally live in tropical rainforests and tend to prefer shallow, slow-moving waters, such as streams, rivers, and flooded grasslands.
The green anaconda is a member of a family of snakes called constrictors.
Constrictors are not venomous snakes. They don’t kill prey by delivering venom through a bite.
Instead, constrictors wrap their bodies around their prey and squeeze until it stops breathing.
The giant snake opens its mouth wide enough to swallow its victim.
Anaconda jaws are held together with stretchy ligaments so they can open wide enough to swallow prey whole.
They are well adapted to aquatic life. Their nose and eyes are located on the top of their heads to help them see and breathe while swimming in the water.
These anacondas are olive-green with dark oval spots along their spines and similar spots with yellow centers along their sides.
Their color and pattern provide camouflage, allowing them to blend in with the wet, dense vegetation of their habitat.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.timesnownews.com/viral/northern-green-anaconda-species-discovered-amazon-article-107871745
With reference to the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO), consider the following statements:
- It is a statutory body under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Labor and Employment.
- It administers a contributory provident fund and an insurance scheme for the workforce engaged in the organised sector.
- The schemes offered by EPFO cover only Indian workers.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A data breach that impacted the systems of the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) in 2018 exposing the personal data of millions of Indians was found to have been “repackaged” by a Chinese cyber agency, as per a preliminary probe by New Delhi’s cybersecurity agency.
About Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO):
It is a statutory body that came into existence under the Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, of 1952.
It is one of the world’s largest social security organisations in terms of clientele and the volume of financial transactions undertaken.
It is under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Labor and Employment.
Structure of EPFO:
The Act and all its schemes are administered by a tripartite board called the Central Board of Trustees.
The board comprises representatives of the government (both central and state), employers, and employees.
The board is chaired by the Union Minister of Labour and Employment, Government of India.
The Central Board of Trustees administers a contributory provident fund, a pension scheme and an insurance scheme for the workforce engaged in the organised sector in India, namely the EPF Scheme 1952, the Pension Scheme 1995 (EPS), and the Insurance Scheme 1976 (EDLI).
EPFO is also the nodal agency for implementing Bilateral Social Security Agreements with other countries on a reciprocal basis.
Coverage: The schemes offered by EPFO cover Indian workers and international workers (from countries with whom the EPFO has signed bilateral agreements).
Headquarters: New Delhi
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/epfo-data-breached-in-2018-repackaged-by-chinese-cyber-agency-probe-finds-9174316/
With reference to the Committee of Privileges in Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
- It consists of 10 members elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from amongst themselves.
- It examines every question involving a breach of privilege of the House or of the members.
- The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have the authority to pass final orders on its reports.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently stayed the proceedings of the Lok Sabha Privilege committee against the Chief Secretary, Director General of Police and three other officials of the State of West Bengal.
About Committee of Privileges in Parliament:
This committee consists of 15 members in Lok Sabha (10 in the case of Rajya Sabha) nominated by the Speaker (Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha).
In the Rajya Sabha, the deputy chairperson heads the committee of privileges.
Powers and Functions:
The committee examines every question involving a breach of privilege of the House, or of the members, or of any Committee thereof referred to it by the House or by the Speaker/Chairman.
It also determines, with reference to the facts of each case, whether a breach of privilege is involved and makes suitable recommendations in its report.
It also states the procedure to be followed by the House in giving effect to its recommendations.
When a question of privilege is referred to the Committee by the House, the report of the Committee is presented to the House by the Chairman or, in his absence, by any member of the Committee.
Where a question of privilege is referred to the Committee by the Speaker, the report of the Committee is presented to the Speaker, who may pass final orders thereon or direct that it be laid on the table of the House.
The Speaker/Chairman may refer to the Committee any petition regarding the disqualification of a member on the ground of defection for making a preliminary inquiry and submitting a report to him.
The procedure to be followed by the Committee in these cases is, so far as may be, the same as that applicable to questions of breach of privilege.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/supreme-court-stays-lok-sabha-privileges-committee-proceedings-against-west-bengal-officials-on-bjp-mps-complaint-249821
The Chenchu tribe is primarily found in:
Andhra Pradesh
Explanation :
The Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage (INTACH) is making efforts to secure UNESCO recognition for the annual ‘Paruveta’ festival.
About Paruveta Festival:
The festival, also known as the ‘mock hunting festival’, is celebrated at the Sri Narasimha Swamy temple in the town of Ahobilam, Andhra Pradesh.
It is celebrated by all sections of people, irrespective of their caste.
It is a festival of communal harmony, as devotees from other religious communities like Muslims also offer prayers to the Lord.
Origin:
According to folklore, Lord Vishnu, upon his incarnation as a man-lion (Narasimha) in Ahobilam, married Maha Lakshmi, born as a tribal girl Chenchulakshmi.
The Kurnool District Gazetteers, published by Government Press in 1881, record several beliefs of the Chenchu tribes, including their reverence for Ahobila Narasimha as their brother-in-law and inviting him home for Makara Sankranti.
While Paruveta rituals are commonly observed in many temples during Vijayadasami or Sankranti, at Ahobilam, it is conducted for a ‘mandala’ (forty days).
Activities:
During the festival, the deity from the temple’s inner sanctum is taken to the 32 Chenchu tribal villages surrounding Ahobilam town for a duration of 40 days.
The spiritual sojourn starts with the tribals aiming their bow and shooting two arrows at the palanquin, not only as a mark of reverence but also to show that the deity is under their protective cover.
Chenchus take ‘Narasimha Deeksha’ by wearing yellow robes and ‘Tulasi Mala’ and observe celibacy during this period.
The temple staff stay in these hamlets for the entire period, indicating the presence of a casteless society in the past with no hint of untouchability.
Key Facts about Chenchu Tribes:
They live in the hills of southern India, primarily in the state of Andhra Pradesh.
Other Chenchu communities can be found in the states of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Orissa.
Their native language (also called Chenchu) belongs to the Dravidian language family. Many also speak Telugu, the language of their Hindu neighbors.
Many Chenchu have been forced out of their traditional wandering, food-gathering lives by the growing number of peasant farmers. They now work as farmers or forest laborers.
They live in hive-shaped houses made of wattle thatch (poles intertwined with twigs, reeds, or branches).
Chenchu society consists of clans (extended family units), local groups, and families.
They are exogamous, which means that they do not allow marriage within the same clan.
They are also patrilineal, tracing the line of descent through the males.
Due to increasing exposure to the plains peoples, the Chenchu have adopted the Hindu deities of the neighboring Telugu tribe.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/travel/travel-news/will-paruveta-festival-celebrated-in-andhras-ahobilam-get-unesco-recognition/articleshow/107888730.cms
What is Smishing, sometimes seen in the news?
form of phishing that targets individuals through text messages
Explanation :
In today’s digital age, where smartphones are practically an extension of ourselves, smishing poses a real and growing threat.
It is a form of phishing that targets individuals through text messages or SMS.
It is just like phishing emails, smishing messages aim to trick you into divulging personal information or downloading malware onto your device.
It is done in through following ways
Fake alerts and warnings: Scammers send texts pretending to be from legitimate institutions like banks, government agencies, or delivery services. They’ll claim there’s a problem with your account or a package delivery, prompting you to click on a link for more information.
Urgent requests: Smishers play on your emotions by creating a sense of urgency. They might promise prizes, warn of impending legal action, or claim your account is compromised, pressuring you to act quickly without thinking.
Exploiting current events: During tax season, scammers might pose as the IRS, offering tax refunds or threatening penalties if you don’t respond immediately. Similarly, they might capitalise on natural disasters or health crises to solicit donations or spread misinformation.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/business/dontgetscammed/news/the-rise-of-smishing-how-scammers-are-targeting-your-smartphone-with-deceptive-texts/articleshow/107876404.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP):
- It is fixed by the Union Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.
- It is governed by the Sugarcane Control order, 1966.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved ₹340/quintal as the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane for sugar season 2024-25 at sugar recovery rate of 10.25%.
It is the price declared by the government, which mills are legally bound to pay to farmers for the cane procured from them.
Who determines it? The FRP is fixed by Union government (Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA)) on the basis of recommendations of Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
The payment of FRP across the country is governed by the Sugarcane Control order, 1966 which mandates payment within 14 days of the date of delivery of the cane.
Mills have the option of signing an agreement with farmers, which would allow them to pay the FRP in installments.
Delays in payment can attract an interest up to 15 per cent per annum, and the sugar commissioner can recover unpaid FRP as dues in revenue recovery by attaching properties of the mills.
The amended provisions of the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966 provides for fixation of FRP of sugarcane having regard to the following factors:
cost of production of sugarcane
return to the growers from alternative crops and the general trend of prices of agricultural commodities
availability of sugar to consumers at a fair price
price at which sugar produced from sugarcane is sold by sugar producers;
recovery of sugar from sugarcane;
the realization made from sale of by-products viz. molasses, bagasse and press mud or their imputed value
reasonable margins for the growers of sugarcane on account of risk and profits
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/centre-increases-fair-and-remunerative-price-of-sugarcane/article67872352.ece
With reference to Pigeonpea crop, consider the following statements:
- It is a legume crop cultivated in semi-arid regions.
- It requires rainy and moist conditions during its flowering phase.
- Sandy loam soil is most suitable for its cultivation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
According to the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) a new fast-breeding protocol is likely to make it easier for scientists to develop better quality varieties of the pigeonpea crop at a faster rate.
It is also called as arhar and tur in India.
It is an important legume crop and protein-rich food which is primarily consumed as dal in India.
It is predominantly a crop of tropical areas mainly cultivated in semi arid regions of India.
Climatic conditions
Rain: It requires 600-650mm of annual rainfall along with moist conditions for the initial eight weeks and dry conditions during its flowering and pod development phase.
Temperature: It can be grown with a temperature ranging from 260C to 300C in the rainy season and 170C to 220C in the post rainy (November to March) season.
Soil: It can be grown on all types of soil, however, sandy loam or loam soil is most suitable for its cultivation.
It is very sensitive to low radiation at pod development, therefore flowering during the monsoon and cloudy weather, leads to poor pod formation.
It is commonly intercropped with a wide range of crops. In India, it was estimated that 80 - 90 % of the pigeonpea were intercropped.
The important diseases of Pigeon pea are Wilt, Sterility mosaic disease, Phytophthora blight, Alternaria blight and Powdery mildew etc.
Concern: The Pigeonpea’s long growth cycle and sensitivity to day length have hindered breeding efforts, with only about 250 varieties released globally over six decades.
Health benefits: It has a low glycaemic index and is rich in thiamine, riboflavin, niacin, vitamin B-6, folate, vitamin A, calcium, zinc, iron, magnesium and phosphorus.
Major Pigeon pea-producing states: Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar and Jharkhand.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/agriculture/new-protocol-can-reduce-breeding-cycle-of-pigeonpea-by-3-5-years-important-for-nutritional-security-in-drylands-94591
Consider the following statements regarding the Rashtriya Udyamita Vikas Pariyojana:
- It focuses on reskilling and upskilling employees to enhance their competitiveness.
- It provides training through offline mode only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the union Minister of Education and Skill Development & Entrepreneurship inaugurated the Rashtriya Udyamita Vikas Pariyojana, in Sambalpur, Odisha.
It is tailored specifically for beneficiaries of the PM SVANidhi scheme, this unique National Entrepreneurship Development Project underscores the government’s steadfast commitment to nurturing job providers across the nation.
Aim: It aims to equip individuals with comprehensive entrepreneurship training, creating job providers rather than job seekers.
This initiative focuses on reskilling and upskilling employees to enhance their competitiveness and adaptability in an era of disruptive technology.
It will offer comprehensive entrepreneurship training over a period of 22 weeks, combining theoretical knowledge with practical exposure through experiential learning.
The training will be conducted through offline, online and hybrid modes, with certificates awarded upon completion, enhancing the course’s credibility and value.
The Government of India has partnered with Flipkart to skill street vendors and small shopkeepers.
Under the pilot program, street vendors of 10 big cities of the country will be given a stipend along with training to expand their businesses.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2007816
Consider the following statements regarding the Flood Management and Border Areas Programme:
- It provides central assistance to States for taking up works related to flood control.
- It will provide 100% central assistance for flood control and anti-erosion works on common border rivers with neighbouring countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Cabinet approved the proposal of Department of Water Resources, RD & GR for continuation of “Flood Management and Border Areas Programme (FMBAP)” with total outlay of Rs. 4,100 crore for a period of 5 years from 2021-22 to 2025-26.
It is a centrally sponsored Scheme.
The scheme has two components:
Flood Management Programme (FMP) component: In this central assistance will be provided to State Governments for taking up critical works related to flood control, anti-erosion, drainage development and anti-sea erosion, etc.
Funding: The pattern of funding to be followed is 90% (Centre): 10% (State) for Special Category States (8 North-Easter States and Hilly States of Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and UT of Jammu & Kashmir) and 60% (Centre):40% (State) for General/ Non-Special Category States.
River Management and Border Areas (RMBA) component: Under this, flood control and anti-erosion works on common border rivers with neighbouring countries including hydrological observations and flood forecasting, and investigation & pre-construction activities of joint water resources projects (with neighbouring countries) on common border rivers will be taken up with 100% central assistance.
The works implemented under RMBA component also protect important installations of security agencies, border out-posts, etc. along the border rivers from flood and erosion.
The Scheme has the provision of incentivizing the States which implement flood plain zoning, recognized as an effective non-structural measure for flood management.
Significance: This is particularly relevant as the increased incidence of extreme events has been witnessed during the last few years in view of the likely impact of climate change and situation may further aggravate in times to come exacerbating problem of floods in terms of extent, intensity and frequency.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/cabinet-approves-continuing-flood-management-and-border-areas-programme-2904620
Consider the following:
- India
- Sri Lanka
- Maldives
- Myanmar
How many of the above countries participate in Exercise Dosti?
Only three
Explanation :
Indian and Sri Lankan coast guard ships reached the Maldives recently to take part in the trilateral coast guard exercise Dosti 16.
About Exercise Dosti:
It is a trilateral coast guard exercise between India, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives.
It is a biennial exercise.
It was first conducted in 1991between the Indian and Maldives Coast Guards.
Sri Lanka joined the exercise for the first time in 2012. Dosti was last conducted in 2021.
The exercises have focused on exercises and drills on providing assistance in sea accidents, eliminating sea pollution, and the coast guard’s procedures and conduct during situations such as oil spills.
The aim of the exercise is to further fortify the friendship, enhance mutual operational capability, exercise interoperability and build cooperation between the Coast Guards of India, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives.
Dosti 16:
It is the 16th edition of the exercise.
The Coast Guards of the Maldives, India, and Sri Lanka, along with observers from Bangladesh, is participating in Dosti 16 to enhance collaboration between the forces.
India is sending ICGS Samarth (with integral helo), ICGS Abhinav, and ICG Dornier for the exercise.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.etvbharat.com/en/!international/dosti-16-trilateral-coast-guard-exercise-being-conducted-being-amid-security-concerns-enn24022207812
Consider the following statements regarding Union Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS):
- It makes all the important decisions on policy and expenditure related to defence.
- It is headed by the Minister of Defence, Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Cabinet Committee on Security recently cleared the acquisition of over 200 BrahMos extended-range supersonic cruise missiles for deployment on its warships.
About Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS):
CCS is headed by the Prime Minister.
The Committee discusses, debates, and is the apex body when it comes to the appointments of the officials in the national security bodies.
It also makes all the important decisions on defence policy and expenditure and, generally, all matters of India’s security.
Members:
Prime Minister of India
Union Minister of Defence
Union Minister of Home Affairs
Union Minister of Finance and Corporate Affairs
Union Minister of External Affairs
Functions:
The CCS deals with all the issues related to the defence and security of India.
The CCS deals with all issues related to the law and order of our country and national security.
It discusses different initiatives to take to enhance the national security of India.
It also deals with policy matters of foreign affairs which may have a bearing on internal or external security implications, including cases relating to agreements with other countries on security-related issues.
The Committee discusses the political issues which can impact the security of our nation.
It reviews the conditions and the manpower of the national security bodies and makes the required changes to increase national security.
The CCS considers each case that involves a capital expenditure of more than Rs 1,000 crore in respect of the Department of Defence Production and Department of Defence Research and Development.
It also deals with every issue related to atomic energy and also considers cases of an increase in the firmed-up cost estimates or revised cost estimates.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/cabinet-committee-on-security-approves-19000-crore-mega-navy-deal-for-brahmos-missiles/article67873472.ece
What is ‘Tupolev Tu-160M’, recently seen in the news?
A strategic missile-carrying bomber
Explanation :
The Russian President recently unveiled the newly modernised Tupolev Tu-160M nuclear-capable strategic bomber at Kazan Aviation Plant.
About Tupolev Tu-160M:
The Tu-160M, a modernized version of a Cold War-era bomber that the former Soviet Union would have deployed in the event of nuclear war to deliver weapons at long distances.
It is a Russian supersonic variable-sweep wing strategic missile-carrying bomber.
It is called “White Swan” in Russia, and is code-named “Blackjacks” by NATO.
Russia claims it is the world’s fastest-flying supersonic and heaviest payload-carrying bomber.
It is designed to hit targets in remote areas with nuclear and conventional weapons.
Features:
The Tu-160M, which has a crew of four, is capable of carrying 12 cruise missiles or 12 short-range nuclear missiles.
It can fly 12,000km (7,500 miles) non-stop without refueling.
It is powered by four afterburning turbofan engines.
It has a maximum speed of 2,220 kilometers per hour and ascends to heights of 16,000 meters.
It showcases features like an innovative navigation system, an upgraded radar, and even a refueling probe for in-flight refuelling, which further extends its range.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/videos/world-news/putin-boards-russian-nuclear-bomber-inspects-cockpit-as-moscow-upgrades-tu-160m-bombers-watch-101708634867922.html
Consider the following statements regarding Anti-hydrogen Experiment: Gravity, Interferometry, Spectroscopy (AEgIS):
- It is a collaboration of physicists from Europe and India.
- Its aim is to measure the Earth’s gravitational acceleration on antihydrogen.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In a first, an international team of physicists from the Anti-hydrogen Experiment: Gravity, Interferometry, Spectroscopy (AEgIS) collaboration has achieved a breakthrough by demonstrating the laser cooling of Positronium.
About Anti-hydrogen Experiment: Gravity, Interferometry, Spectroscopy (AEgIS):
It is an experiment approved by CERN (European Organization for Nuclear Research) with the goal of studying antihydrogen physics.
The primary goal of AEgIS is the direct measurement of the Earth’s gravitational acceleration, g, on antihydrogen.
Once performed this could be the first direct test of the gravitational interaction between matter and antimatter.
AEgIS is a collaboration of physicists from a number of countries in Europe and from India.
What is Antimatter?
Antimatter is the same as ordinary matter except that it has the opposite electric charge.
It is also known as “mirror” matter.
For instance, an electron, which has a negative charge, has an antimatter partner known as a positron. A positron is a particle with the same mass as an electron but a positive charge.
The antimatter particles corresponding to electrons, protons, and neutrons are called positrons, antiprotons, and antineutrons; collectively they are referred to as antiparticles.
These anti-particles can combine to form anti-atoms and, in principle, could even form anti-matter regions of our universe.
Matter and antimatter cannot coexist at close range for more than a small fraction of a second because they collide with and annihilate each other, releasing large quantities of energy in the form of gamma rays or elementary particles.
Antimatter was created along with matter after the Big Bang.
Humans have created antimatter particles using ultra-high-speed collisions at huge particle accelerators such as the Large Hadron Collider, which is located outside Geneva and operated by CERN (the European Organization for Nuclear Research).
There are also naturally produced antiparticles made sporadically throughout the universe.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/in-a-first-cern-scientists-carry-out-laser-cooling-of-positronium-9176208/
With reference to Badami Chalukyas, consider the following statements:
- They ruled over the central Indian plateau of the Deccan between the 6th and 12th centuries.
- They promoted a new style of architecture known as Vesara.
- Hiuen-Tsiang, a Chinese traveller, had visited the court of Pulakesi II.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Two Badami Chalukya temples at least 1,300-1,500 years old and a 1,200-year-old label inscription were recently discovered in Mudimanikyam village along the banks of Krishna.
About Chalukya dynasty:
The Chalukyas ruled over the central Indian plateau of the Deccan between the sixth and twelfth centuries.
During that period, they ruled as three closely related but individual dynasties.
The Chalukyas of Badami, who ruled between the sixth and the eighth centuries, and the two sibling dynasties of the Chalukyas of Kalyani, or the Western Chalukyas, and the Chalukyas of Vengi, or the Eastern Chalukyas.
Key Facts about Badami Chalukyas:
Origin:
Pulakesi I established the Chalukya dynasty around in 550.
Pulakesi I took Vatapi (Badami in Bagalkot district, Karnataka) under his control and made it his capital.
Historians refer to Pulakesi I and his descendants as the Chalukyas of Badami.
They ruled over an empire that comprised the entire state of Karnataka and most of Andhra Pradesh in the Deccan.
Pulakesi II had been perhaps the greatest emperor of the Badami Chalukyas.
Pulakesi II extended the Chalukya Empire up to the northern extents of the Pallava kingdom and halted the southward march of Harsha by defeating him on the banks of the river Narmada.
He then defeated the Vishnukundins in the southeastern Deccan.
Pallava Narasimhavarman reversed that victory by attacking and occupying the Chalukya capital, Vatapi (Badami).
Hiuen-Tsiang, a Chinese traveller, had visited the court of Pulakesi II.
Later, Persian emperor Khosrau II exchanged ambassadors with Pulakesi II.
Art and Architecture:
It saw the evolution and proliferation of a new style of architecture known as Vesara, a combination of the South Indian and the North Indian building styles.
The rock-cut temples of Pattadakal, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, Badami, and Aihole constitute their most celebrated monuments.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/hyderabad/ancient-badami-chalukya-temples-discovered-in-mudimanikyam-village/articleshow/107928189.cms
The Singhbhum Craton is located between:
Chhota Nagpur plateau and the Eastern Ghats
Explanation :
Studying ancient cratons, like the Singhbhum Craton in India and their counterparts in South Africa and Australia offer unprecedented glimpses into our planet’s formative years, dating back to 3.5 billion years ago.
It is a vast swathe of rocky land that stretches mainly across parts of Jharkhand and Odisha, between the Chhota Nagpur plateau and the Eastern Ghats.
This ancient part of the Earth’s crust has been found in previous research to date back to 3.5 billion years ago.
The craton’s oldest rock assemblages are largely volcanic and sedimentary rocks also known as greenstone successions.
Greenstones are rock assemblages made up mostly of sub-marine volcanic rocks with minor sedimentary rocks.
The geology of this area shares stark similarity with the greenstone belts documented in South Africa’s Barberton and Nondweni areas and the Pilbara Craton in western Australia.
All these areas experienced widespread submarine mafic — meaning high in magnesium oxide — volcanic eruptions between 3.5 and 3.3 billion years ago, preserved as pillowed lava and komatiites.
Significance
They offer a clearer picture of Earth’s early tectonic activities during the Archaean times, contributing to our understanding of the planet’s formative years.
The Singhbhum Craton’s unique geological features, including its greenstone belts, provide invaluable information about Earth’s surface and atmospheric processes.
This is crucial for hypothesising early habitable conditions and the emergence of life on Earth.
What are Cratons?
Cratons are the oldest and most stable parts of the Earth’s crust, acting as the bedrock of continents.
These are pieces of ancient continents that formed billions of years ago.
Studying them offers a window into how processes within and on the surface of Earth operated in the past.
They host a variety of different groups of rocks, including greenstones and granites.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/science-technology/earth-s-early-evolution-fresh-insights-from-rocks-formed-3-5-billion-years-ago-94604
Consider the following statements regarding the Badwater Basin:
- It is endorheic in nature means water flows into it but not out.
- It is the lowest point in North America below sea level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In the parched expanse of North America’s driest region, Badwater Basin has defied expectations by lingering and expanding as an ephemeral lake.
It is endorheic in nature means water flows into it but not out, typically resulting in rapid evaporation and ephemeral lakes.
It is the lowest point in North America at 282 ft (86 m) below sea level.
However, increased precipitation over the past six months has disrupted this pattern.
It is nestled within the Death Valley in North America.
Manly lake was formed in August 2023 after Hurricane Hilary.
While the lake initially shrank as expected, it surprisingly persisted through the fall and winter months.
Its resurgence came in February 2024, when a powerful atmospheric river replenished its waters.
Death Valley’s average annual rainfall of only 51 millimetres, received a remarkable 125 mm in the last six months.
Key facts about Death Valley
It is located in southeastern California in the United States.
It lies near the undefined border between the Great Basin and the Mojave Desert.
Most rainfall is blocked by the mountains to the west, so Death Valley is extremely arid.
It is the lowest, hottest, and the driest portion of North America, noted for its extremes of temperature and aridity.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-change/driest-place-in-north-america-has-been-home-to-a-lake-for-6-months-show-nasa-images-94583
With reference to Cantor’s giant softshell turtle, consider the following statements:
- It is endemic to India only.
- It spends most of its life buried and motionless in sand.
- It is listed as Critically Endangered under IUCN Red List.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, conservationists from the University of Portsmouth uncovered the nesting site of the “secretive” Cantor’s giant softshell turtle on the banks of the Chandragiri River in Kerala.
It is also known as Asian giant softshell turtle and the frog-faced softshell turtle.
It is a species known for its rarity and secretive nature.
It spends most of its life buried and motionless, with only their eyes and mouth protruding from the sand.
It surface only twice a day to take a breath and capture their prey by sit-and-wait strategy using an element of surprise.
These turtles are primarily carnivores (piscivores) feeding on fish, crustaceans, and mollusks.
Distribution: It is found in eastern and southern India, Bangladesh, Burma, Thailand, Malaysia, Laos, Cambodia, Vietnam, eastern and southern China.
Habitat: They inhabit inland, slow-moving, freshwater rivers, lakes, streams, and estuaries.
Conservation status
IUCN: Critically endangered
CITES: Appendix II
Wildlife Protection Act,1972 : Schedule I
Threats: Habitat destruction has made it disappear from much of its environment. They are also heavily harvested by locals for meat.
Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-02-incredibly-rare-giant-softshell-turtle.html
Rani Chennamma is associated with which one of the following events?
Kittur Rebellion
Explanation :
Recently, several social groups across the country organized a national campaign Naanoo Rani Chennamma (I am Rani Chennamma too) to commemorate 200 years of Rani Chennamma’s rebellion against the British East India Company.
Chennamma was born in Kakati, a small village in today’s Belagavi district of Karnataka.
She became queen of Kitturu (now in Karnataka) when she married Raja Mallasarja of the Desai family.
After Mallasarja’s death in 1816, his eldest son, Shivalingarudra Sarja, ascended the throne.
Before his death in 1824, Shivalingarudra adopted a child, Shivalingappa, as the successor.
However, the British East India Company refused to recognise Shivalingappa as the successor of the kingdom under the ‘doctrine of lapse’.
Key facts about the Kittur Rebellion
John Thackery, the British official at Dharwad, launched an attack on Kittur in October 1824.
In this first battle British forces lost heavily and the Collector and political agent, St. John Thackeray was killed by the Kitturu forces.
Two British officers, Sir Walter Elliot and Mr. Stevenson, were also taken as hostages.
However, the British army again attacked the Kittur Fort and captured it.
Rani Chennamma and her family were imprisoned and jailed at the fort in Bailhongal, where she died in 1829.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/research/rani-chennamma-the-queen-of-kittur-who-led-an-armed-rebellion-against-the-british-9170865/
Consider the following statements regarding the NaViGate Bharat portal:
- It is developed by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
- It hosts videos of Government’s development-related and citizen welfare-oriented measures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting launched four portals — Press Sewa, National Register for LCOs, CBC, NaViGate Bharat.
The ‘National Video Gateway of Bharat (NaViGate Bharat) is developed by the New Media Wing of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
It is a unified bilingual platform which hosts videos on the entire gamut of Government’s development-related and citizen welfare-oriented measures.
It empowers citizens by providing a single platform with an interactive user interface to search, stream, share, and download videos related to various Government schemes, initiatives, and campaigns, with filter-based advanced search option.
The portal eliminates the hassle of searching for official and reliable information from multiple sources, providing a one-stop platform for media and the general public.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/ministry-launches-4-new-media-related-portals-to-streamline-services-9176278/
Consider the following statements regarding Spotted Deer:
- It is native to the Indian subcontinent.
- Both its males and females have antlers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
As many as 40 spotted deer have been translocated from Chamarajendra Zoological Gardens (Mysuru Zoo) to the Panasoli range of Kali Tiger Reserve (KTR) recently.
About Spotted Deer:
The spotted deer, or chital/ cheetal is a deer species native to the Indian subcontinent.
It is the most common deer species in Indian forests.
Distribution: It is widely distributed in Asia, especially in India, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Bhutan, and a small group in Pakistan.
Habitat: Subtropical grasslands and forests
Features:
With a lifespan of about 20 to 30 years, it stands at about 35 inches tall and weighs about 187 pounds.
It is a slightly reddish brown with white spots on its body.
Only males have antlers, and their bodies are larger than females.
Spotted Deers are social animals. They commonly occur in herds of 10 to 50 individuals.
They mainly feed on grasses throughout the year. Their diets include herbs, shrubs, foliage, and fruits.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.deccanherald.com/india/karnataka/40-spotted-deer-translocated-from-mysuru-zoo-to-kali-tiger-reserve-2904595
Consider the following statements regarding an Injunction in India:
- It is a legal document outlining the terms of a contract between two parties.
- Upon its violation, a party may be held in contempt of court and could face penalties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently held that the suit for injunction may not be maintainable against the defendants if the plaintiff fails to prove the title of the property while praying for the injunction.
About Injunction:
In India, an injunction is a legal remedy available to parties who wish to prevent the other party from carrying out a certain action or behavior.
Injunctions can be granted in a variety of situations, such as in cases of intellectual property infringement, breach of contract, or defamation.
An injunction is a powerful legal tool that acts as a court order requiring a party to do or cease doing specific actions.
It plays a crucial role in many legal battles, serving as a preventive measure to stop legal wrongs or as a remedy to enforce rights.
Injunctions are a discretionary remedy, and the court will consider various factors before deciding whether to grant an injunction. These factors may include the urgency of the matter, the balance of convenience, and the likelihood of success in the underlying lawsuit.
Types of Injunctions in India:
Temporary Injunctions: They are granted to preserve the status quo until a final decision can be reached. These are usually granted at the start of a case and can last for the duration of the legal proceedings.
Permanent Injunctions: They are granted after the court has made a final determination in the case. They prohibit the defendant from continuing a particular action or behavior.
Mandatory Injunctions: They require the defendant to carry out a particular action. They are often granted in cases of breach of contract, where the plaintiff requires the defendant to fulfill their contractual obligations.
Prohibitory Injunctions: They prohibit the defendant from carrying out a particular action or behavior. They are often granted in cases of intellectual property infringement or defamation.
Provision of Injunction in Indian Law:
Under Indian law, injunctions are governed by the Specific Relief Act, 1963. The act provides for two types of injunctions – temporary injunctions and perpetual injunctions.
In addition to the Specific Relief Act, injunctions are also governed by the Civil Procedure Code, 1908.
What happens if the party violates the injunction? If a party violates the injunction, they may be held in contempt of court and could face penalties such as fines or imprisonment.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/injunction-suit-to-protect-possession-not-maintainable-when-plaintiffs-title-is-disputed-supreme-court-250281
Which among the following best describes ‘Nihang’, recently seen in the news?
A distinct warrior group
Explanation :
Amid the recent standoff between the protesting farmers and the government, Nihang Sikh warriors have joined the protest, extending support to farmers facing off with security forces.
About Nihang Sikhs:
Nihangs, or Nihang Singhs, originally known as Akalis or Akali Nihangs, are a distinct warrior order within the Sikh community, known for their martial traditions, unique attire, and adherence to a specific code of conduct.
They have a rich history dating back to the times of Guru Gobind Singh, the 10th Sikh Guru.
They are easily recognizable by their distinctive blue attire, which includes blue robes, high turbans adorned with steel quoits (chakrams), and they often carry traditional weapons like swords, spears, and daggers.
They are highly skilled in Gatka martial arts and have historically served as a dedicated and elite force to protect Sikh shrines and communities.
Nihangs had a major role in defending the Sikh Panth after the fall of the first Sikh rule (1710-15), when Mughal governors were killing Sikhs, and during the onslaught of Afghan invader Ahmed Shah Durrani (1748-65).
Current Status:
Nihangs are today divided into several groups, each with its own “chhaoni”(cantonment), but are loosely organised into two “dals” (forces)—Buddha Dal and Taruna Dal, names initially given to the two sections into which the ‘Khalsa’ army was divided in 1733.
The Buddha Dal has its headquarters at Talvandi Sabo, in Bathinda district, while the principal cantonment of the Taruna Dal Nihangs is at Baba Bakala in Amritsar district.
Anandpur Sahib, the birthplace of the Khalsa, remains the main centre of Nihang gatherings.
They assemble there in the thousands in March every year to celebrate Hola Mahalla, a Sikh festival introduced by Guru Gobind Singh.
On that occasion, they hold tournaments of military skills, including mock battles.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.news18.com/india/nihang-sikh-warriors-join-farmers-protest-spotted-practicing-with-spears-and-shields-8790301.html
The Statue of Unity is located on the banks of:
Narmada
Explanation :
As many as 38 exotic birds and animals, translocated from abroad and other states, have died in the last two years at the Sardar Patel Zoological Park in the Statue of Unity complex, the Gujarat Assembly was informed recently.
About Statue of Unity:
It was created as a tribute to the ‘Iron Man of India’, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
Location: It is located in Gujarat, by the banks of the River Narmada on the River Island of Sadhu Bet, overlooking the Narmada Dam.
Height: The statue, 182-metre tall, is described as the world’s tallest as it exceeds the height of China’s Spring Temple Buddha by 177 feet.
The height of 182 meters is kept as the Gujarat state has 182 seats in the Gujarat Legislative Assembly.
The statue was built by Indian construction major Larsen & Toubro (L&T) and designed by Padma Bhushan-winning sculptor Ram V Sutar.
The state government fully funded the INR 3,050-crore project, covering an area of 20,000 square metres and is surrounded by a 12 square kilometre artificial lake.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/ahmedabad/in-2-yrs-38-exotic-birds-animals-died-at-zoological-park-near-statue-of-unity-9172126/
With reference to Guru Ravidas, consider the following statements:
- He is known for his contributions to the Bhakti movement.
- His teachings were based on social justice and equality.
- His devotional songs and poems are included in the Guru Granth Sahib.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently said India is moving rapidly on the path of development by adopting the messages of Sant Ravidas.
About Guru Ravidas:
Guru Ravidas (1377-1527 C.E.) was a renowned saint known for his contributions to the Bhakti movement.
His devotional songs and verses made a lasting impact upon the Bhakti Movement.
Guru Ravidas is also known as Raidas, Rohidas, and Ruhidas.
He was born in a small village called Seer Govardhanpur in Uttar Pradesh.
His birthplace is now known as Shri Guru Ravidas Janam Asthan, and it is a major place of pilgrimage for the followers of Guru Ravidas.
Even though he was born into a poor family, Ravidas became well-known for his teachings about human rights and equality.
He was the disciple of the revered Brahmin bhakti poet Ramananda.
He abandoned the saguna (with attributes, image) forms of supreme beings and focussed on the nirguna (without attributes, abstract) form of supreme beings.
Guru Ravidas was a social reformer, and his teachings were based on gender equality, the abolition of the caste system, social justice, and equality.
He also became a symbol of opposition to untouchability in society by the higher caste people for the lower caste people.
He emphasised the philosophy of spiritual freedom.
He was a well-known poet. 41 of his devotional songs and poems are included in the Sikh Scriptures, Guru Granth Sahib.
Meera Bai, a revered figure in Hindu spiritualism, is said to have considered Guru Ravidas as her spiritual Guru.
The Guru’s teachings now form the basis of the Ravidassia religion. Ravidassias believe that Guru Ravidas should be treated as a saint just like the other gurus, as he lived before the first Sikh Guru and his teachings were studied by the Sikh Gurus.
Guru Ravidas Jayanti is a Hindu festival that celebrates the birth anniversary of Guru Ravidas.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/by-adopting-messages-of-guru-ravidas-india-moving-rapidly-on-path-of-development-pm-modi/articleshow/107937544.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following:
- Finland
- Sweden
- Norway
- Croatia
How many of the above countries are member of the Nordic-Baltic cooperation?
Only three
Explanation :
The eight Nordic-Baltic countries are participating in Raisina Dialogue in New Delhi together as representatives of the Nordic-Baltic cooperation.
It is a regional cooperation format which as of 1992 has brought together five Nordic countries and three Baltic countries in order to discuss important regional and international issues in an informal atmosphere.
In 2000, it was decided that the Nordic-Baltic cooperation format would be called Nordic-Baltic Eight (NB8).
Member countries: Finland, Sweden, Norway, Iceland, Denmark, Estonia, Latvia and Lithuania.
Nordic countries are members of the European Union (except Iceland and Norway which are members of EFTA).
Nordic countries collectively represent an economy of more than USD 2.012 trillion with a population of just above 27 million allowing a very high standard of living.
India and NB8
The Nordic-Baltic cooperation with India spans fields as diverse as innovation, green transition, maritime, health, intellectual property rights, new technologies, space cooperation and artificial intelligence, student exchanges, culture and tourism.
Trade and investment figures between Nordic region and India are steadily increasing.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/the-nb8-visit-to-india-focuses-on-cooperation-and-trust/article67879587.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Virtual Private Network:
- It creates a point-to-point tunnel that encrypts personal data.
- It involves physical cables in the connection network process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, a 21-year-old from Gujarat allegedly sent five threatening emails to industrialist after masking his IP address using a Virtual Private Network (VPN) was arrested by the Mumbai police.
A VPN, stands for virtual private network, establishes a digital connection between your computer and a remote server owned by a VPN provider.
It creates a point-to-point tunnel that encrypts personal data, masks your IP address, and lets you sidestep website blocks and firewalls on the internet.
This ensures online experiences are private, protected, and more secure.
It is
Virtual because no physical cables are involved in the connection process.
Private because through this connection, no one else can see your data or browsing activity.
Networked because multiple devices—your computer and the VPN server—work together to maintain an established link.
Advantages of VPN
Secure your data: A VPN connection scrambles your data into code and renders it unreadable to anyone without an encryption key. It hides your browsing activity so that no one else can see it.
Bypass censorship and surveillance: Some regions may not have access to certain sites or services due to government restrictions, censorship, or surveillance. Location spoofing gives these users the ability to circumvent firewalls, view blocked websites, and move freely online.
Prevent ISP and third-party tracking: Internet service providers (ISPs) log and track your browsing history through your device’s unique IP address. By routing to a remote VPN server instead of your ISP’s servers, a VPN masks your IP address, prevents ISP tracking, and keeps your personal data private.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/mumbai/solving-crime-trial-version-vpn-mumbai-cops-trace-student-5-threat-emails-mukesh-ambani-9175129/
Consider the following statements regarding the sub-national climate resilient green fund:
- It aims to develop mid-size climate resilient infrastructure & nature-based solutions.
- The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) is responsible for its Technical Assistance component.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A delegation from the World Bank has arrived in Goa for talks with state govt to set up the first sub-national climate resilient green fund.
It is a global blended finance initiative to develop mid-size climate resilient infrastructure & nature-based solutions.
Mission: To invest in subnational climate-smart infrastructure and nature-based solutions delivering measurable and certified climate and sustainable development impact at the local level.
The model is designed to attract public and private investment and to deliver certified climate and Sustainable Development impacts and Nature-based Solutions.
Structure:
Fund Manager: It is managed by the Pegasus Capital.
Technical assistance: International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) is responsible for the Technical Assistance component of SCF.
Anchor Investor of Concessional Capital: The Green Climate Fund (GCF)
Governance
Governance of the Subnational Climate Fund (SCF) includes a High-level Advisory Committee.
The role of the committee is to advise the SCF Consortium on best opportunities to invest in regard to SCF mission, and more widely on the theory of change encompassed by SCF.
This Committee is composed of well-known experts in their field of expertise in climate science, finance/economies, sector/technical, biodiversity/nature-based solutions, and environmental/social management systems (ESMS).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/goa/goa-to-be-1st-state-to-get-world-bank-climate-fund/articleshow/107842075.cms
With reference to Purple frog, consider the following statements:
- It is found in Western Ghats region.
- It is a burrow-dwelling frog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the government of Tamil Nadu established the Tamil Nadu Endangered Species Conservation Fund (TNESCF) to protect the purple frog and other lesser known endangered species.
It is also known as Maveli frog or Pignose Frog.
It is believed to have co-existed with dinosaurs, has similarities to the Sooglossidae family of frogs in Seychelles.
It is often called as a ‘living fossil’ which belongs to the Nasikabatrachidae family.
Appearance
It has a bloated body with short stout limbs and is dark purple to greyish in colour.
It has a small head in comparison to the body length, and an unusually pointed snout.
Its short and muscular forelimbs with hard palms help it to burrow underground.
Unlike other frogs, it has very short hind legs, which does not allow it to leap from one spot to another.
Habitat: This burrow-dwelling frog prefers loose, damp and well-aerated soil close to ponds and ditches or streams.
Distribution: It is the soil-dwelling frog endemic to selected habitats in the Western Ghats in Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
The Anamalai hill is one of its prime habitats in Tamil Nadu.
Tamil Nadu is home to two types of Purple Frog: Nasikabatrachus sahyadrensis and Nasikabatrachus bhupathi.
It remains underground most of the year except for 2-3 weeks during the monsoon when it comes out to mate.
Conservation status
IUCN: Nasikabatrachus sahyadrensis (Near Threatened) and Nasikabatrachus bhupathi (Critically Endangered).
Wildlife Protection (Amendment) Act, 2022: Schedule I
Threats: Habitat loss, road networks through their habitats, and climate change are some of the major threats to their survival.
Hence both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/a-special-fund-to-save-purple-frog-a-living-fossil-in-the-western-ghats/article67876204.ece/amp/
Sammakka- Saralamma Jatara, recently seen in news, is mainly celebrated in:
Telangana
Explanation :
Recently, the union Minister for Tribal Affairs visited the Sammakka- Saralamma Maha Jatara, in Medaram, Mulugu district of Telangana.
It is also known as Medaram Jatara.
It is a tribal festival of honouring the goddesses celebrated in the state of Telangana, India.
The festival is a demonstration of tribal devotion and people from all walks of life join together to commemorate the revolt led by Sammakka and Saralamma, a mother-daughter duo, against imposing taxes on the tribal populace during a period of drought by the Kakatiya rulers in the 12th century.
Location: Medaram is a remote place in the Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary, a part of Dandakaranya, the largest surviving forest belt in the Mulugu.
It is held every two years (biannually). It is celebrated during the time the goddesses of the tribals is believed to visit them.
Ritual: People offer bangaram/gold (jaggery) of a quantity equal to their weight to the goddesses and take holy bath in Jampanna Vagu, a tributary to River Godavari.
Significance: It serves as a platform for understanding and fostering harmony between the people and tribal communities, promoting the preservation of their unique traditions, culture, and heritage on a global scale.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2008538
Which of the following are currently not taxable under the Goods and Services Tax?
- Aviation Turbine Fuel
- Alcohol for human consumption
- Natural Gas
- Petrol
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
● Article 366 (12A) of the Constitution as amended by 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016 defines the Goods and Services tax (GST) as a tax on supply of goods or services or both, except supply of alcoholic liquor for human consumption. So, alcohol for human consumption is kept out of GST by way of the definition of GST in Constitution.
● Five petroleum products viz. petroleum crude, motor spirit (petrol), high speed diesel, natural gas, and aviation turbine fuel have temporarily been kept out and the GST Council shall decide the date from which they shall be included in GST.
Therefore, option (d) is the answer.
With reference to Scheduled banks, consider the following statements:
- They are listed in the 2nd schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
- The bank’s paid-up capital and raised funds must be at least Rs 5 lakh to qualify as a scheduled bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Scheduled banks are banks that are listed in the 2nd schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
The bank’s paid-up capital and raised funds must be at least Rs5 lakh to qualify as a scheduled bank.
Scheduled banks are liable for low-interest loans from the Reserve Bank of India and membership in clearinghouses.
They must, however, meet certain requirements, such as maintaining an average daily CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio) balance with the central bank at the rates set by it.
The RBI allows Scheduled Banks to raise debts and loans at bank rates.
All commercial banks, including nationalized, international, cooperative, and regional rural banks, fall under scheduled banks. Scheduled Commercial Banks can be divided into: Scheduled Commercial Public Sector Banks SBI and its associates Scheduled Commercial Private Sector Banks Old Private Banks New Private Sector Banks Scheduled Foreign Banks in India the benefits enjoyed by scheduled banks are often denied to non-scheduled banks.
Therefore, option c is the correct answer.
The hiking of Bank Rate by the Reserve Bank of India will not leads to
More liquidity in the market
Explanation :
Bank rate or discount rate is the rate of interest which a central bank charges on the loans and advances to a commercial bank.
A decrease in bank rate means that banks will have to pay less rate of interest which will make borrowing cheaper and thus banks have the flexibility to disburse loans at lower rates. This leads to increased borrowing by public and thus, more liquidity in the market.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effect?
Creating new money to finance a budget deficit
Explanation :
As creating new money to finance a budget deficit will increase total money supply in the
market it will have the most inflationary effect on the economy.
Consider the following:
- Measure of value
- Medium of exchange
- Storage of value
- Transfer of value
How many of the above can be considered as the functions of money?
All four
Explanation :
Money is any verifiable record or an item that is usually acknowledged as payment for goods & services. It is a repayment of debt as per socio-economic context.
Diverse functions of money include:
A medium of exchange
A measure of value
A store of value
A standard of deferred payment
Transfer of value
Basis of credit system
Employing factor of production i.e. Land, Labour, Capital
Creation & Redistribution of National Income via taxation.
Therefore, option d is the correct answer.
Consider the following statement:
- It must be a fiat money.
- It must be legally valid for all debts & transactions throughout the country.
- It cannot be used to pay financial obligations of the government.
To become a ‘legal tender’, a given currency must fulfill how many of the above conditions?
Only two
Explanation :
Legal tender refers to any form of payment recognized by a government for settling debts or financial obligations, such as tax payments. So, statement 3 is incorrect.
Fiat money is a type of currency that is not backed by a precious metal, such as gold or silver. It is typically designated by the issuing government to be legal tender, and is authorized by government regulation.
Fiat money is always considered legal tender as it is recognized by law and accepted as a valid means of payment for debts and transactions. A legal tender must be fiat money for purchasing goods and services or settling debts. So, statement 1 is correct.
Legal tender laws effectively mandate the use of existing legal tender as the sole currency in an economy.
The legal denomination of a country’s currency must be universally accepted as a medium of exchange and payment for debts by law. So, statement 2 is correct.
While all denominations of circulating paper money are typically legal tender, the acceptability of coins may vary by country.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act of 1934 grants the Central Bank the exclusive authority to issue legal tender banknotes, which must be accepted for payment across India.
Withdrawal of legal tender status, known as demonetization, occurs when currency is no longer recognized as valid for transactions.
Legal tender serves various economic functions, including facilitating monetary policy and currency manipulation.
Some currencies, like the US dollar, are accepted as legal tender in countries that do not issue their own currency, provided they meet the criteria of fiat money and legal validity for transactions.
Therefore, option b is the correct answer.
With reference to Monetary Policy, consider the following statements:
- It is the macroeconomic policy laid down by the central bank, involving management of money supply and interest rate.
- It is the supply side economic policy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 Only
Explanation :
It is the macroeconomic policy laid down by the central bank, involving management of money supply and interest rate. So, statement 1 is correct.
It is the demand side economic policy used to achieve macroeconomic objectives like inflation, consumption, growth and liquidity. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
Monetary policy in India:
In India, the monetary policy of the RBI is aimed at managing the quantity of money in order to meet the requirements of different sectors of the economy and to increase the pace of economic growth.
For example, liquidity is crucial to stimulate growth for an economy. The RBI depends on monetary policy to maintain liquidity.
The RBI implements the monetary policy through open market operations (OMOs), bank rate policy, reserve system, credit control policy, moral persuasion, etc.
For example, the RBI introduces the money in the economy and cuts the interest rate by buying bonds through OMOs.
The use of any of these tools will result in adjustments in interest rate or the money supply in the economy.
Therefore, option a is the correct answer.
Consider the following:
- Repo Rate
- Cash Reserve Ratio
- Bank rate
- Marginal Requirement
- Selective Credit Control
How many of the above are quantitative tools of monetary policy in India?
Only three
An increase in the Bank Rate generally indicate which of the following:
- Market rate of interest is likely to fall
- Central Bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks
- Central Bank is following an easy money policy
- Central Bank is following a tight money policy
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Bank rate or discount rate is the rate of interest which a central bank charges on the loans and advances to a commercial bank. An increase in bank rate means that
banks will have to pay higher rate of interest which will make borrowing costlier and thus banks need to raise to their lending rates to accommodate the increase in the bank rate.
Consider the following:
- Renewable energy
- Education
- For installation of solar power plants by farmers
- Export Credit
- Minority educational institutions
How many of the following are covered under the Priority Sector Lending programme of RBI?
All five
Explanation :
Priority Sector includes the following categories:
Agriculture
Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME)
Export Credit
Education
Housing
Social Infrastructure
Renewable Energy
Others
Bank finance to start-ups up to Rs. 50 crore,
loans to farmers for installation of solar power plants for solarisation of grid connected agriculture pumps
loans for setting up Compressed BioGas plants
Therefore, option d is the correct answer.
Which of the following best describes the PSiFI system, recently seen in the news?
A system for recognizing human emotions
Explanation :
In a significant technological breakthrough, scientists recently unveiled a pioneering technology, named PSiFI, capable of recognizing human emotions in real-time.
About PSiFI System:
The system, known as the personalized skin-integrated facial interface (PSiFI), features a first-of-its-kind bidirectional triboelectric strain and vibration sensor that enables the simultaneous sensing and integration of verbal and non-verbal expression data.
The PSiFI system is self-powered, facile, stretchable, and transparent.
Coupled with a sophisticated data processing circuit, the system facilitates seamless wireless data transfer, enabling the instantaneous recognition of emotions.
Empowered by machine learning algorithms, the technology showcases remarkable efficiency in recognizing human emotions accurately and promptly, even in scenarios where individuals wear masks.
Its practical application has already been demonstrated in a digital concierge service within a virtual reality (VR) environment, where customised services based on users’ emotions were provided.
Science behind the PSiFI technology:
The technology is based on the phenomenon of “friction charging,” where objects separate into positive and negative charges upon friction.
Notably, the system is self-generating, requiring no external power source or complex measuring devices for data recognition.
This innovative technology is poised to revolutionize various industries, including next-generation wearable systems that provide services based on emotions.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.earth.com/news/psifi-wearable-ai-device-interprets-emotions-people-nearby/
With reference to Permafrost, consider the following statements:
- It is any ground that has been frozen continuously for a minimum of two years.
- It is made of a combination of soil, rocks, and sand that are held together by ice.
- Permafrost regions are always covered in snow.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Thawing permafrost in the Arctic could release radon, a radioactive gas that has the potential to cause cancer, scientists have warned.
About Permafrost:
Permafrost is any ground—from soil to sediment to rock—that has been frozen continuously for a minimum of two years and as many as hundreds of thousands of years.
It can extend down beneath the earth’s surface from a few feet to more than a mile, covering entire regions, such as the Arctic tundra, or a single, isolated spot, such as a mountaintop of alpine permafrost.
Although the ground is frozen, permafrost regions are not always covered in snow.
Global Distribution:
They can be found on land and below the ocean floor.
It is found in areas where temperatures rarely rise above freezing.
They are most common in regions with high mountains and in Earth’s higher latitudes—near the North and South Poles.
Permafrost is found almost exclusively in the far northern reaches and high elevations of the Northern Hemisphere, in places like Siberia, Alaska, the Canadian Arctic, Greenland, and the Tibetan Plateau.
Composition:
Permafrost is made of a combination of soil, rocks, and sand that are held together by ice. The soil and ice in permafrost stay frozen all year.
Near the surface, permafrost soils also contain large quantities of organic carbon—a material leftover from dead plants that couldn’t decompose or rot away due to the cold.
Lower permafrost layers contain soils made mostly of minerals.
A layer of soil on top of the permafrost does not stay frozen all year. This layer, called the active layer, thaws during the warm summer months and freezes again in the fall.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livescience.com/planet-earth/thawing-arctic-permafrost-could-release-radioactive-cancer-causing-radon
With reference to Floodplain, consider the following statements:
- It is a generally flat area of land next to a river or stream.
- It is composed of unconsolidated sedimentary deposits (alluvium).
- Floodplains are absent where the downcutting of rivers is dominant.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The high-level committee for Yamuna’s rejuvenation has set a target for the floodplain’s demarcation.
About Floodplain:
A floodplain is a generally flat area of land next to a river or stream.
It is composed of unconsolidated sedimentary deposits (alluvium) and is subject to periodic inundation by the stream.
It stretches from the banks of the river to the outer edges of the valley.
A floodplain consists of two parts.
The first is the main channel of the river itself, called the floodway. Floodways can sometimes be seasonal, meaning the channel is dry for part of the year.
Beyond the floodway is the flood fringe. It is the land between the banks of the floodway and the valley wall, or anywhere the valley land starts to rise.
How do floodplains form? Floodplains develop in two common ways: erosion and deposition (also known as aggradation).
When rivers start to meander, curving from side to side, the water erodes the banks of the river and creates a wide, flat area around the sides.
When the river floods, either because of heavy rainfall or ice melting upstream, it floods its banks.
The water that moves out of the floodway and into the fringes loses the force that was carrying much of the sediment acquired from erosion upstream and deposits it on the surrounding land.
The portions of the river that have been consistently flooded will naturally start to build a bank up again.
As sediment is deposited over time, most of it is deposited where the land elevates out of the river bed and creates a bank where one had previously eroded.
These deposits flanking the river are called fluvial terraces and can tell geologists a lot about where floodplains used to be before the banks built up.
Floodplains are absent where downcutting of rivers is dominant.
Importance:
The deposition of sediment that happens in floodplains can be the source of major fertility.
This sediment is usually built up of alluvium, or silt, which is considered some of the richest soil, containing nutrients like potash, phosphoric acid, and lime.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/delhi/committee-plans-to-define-river-floodplain-by-april-18/articleshow/107956713.cms
Shahpur Kandi Dam Project, recently seen in the news, is located on which one of the following rivers?
Ravi
Explanation :
In a significant development, the completion of the Shahpur Kandi barrage, situated at the Punjab-Jammu and Kashmir border, has effectively halted the flow of water from the River Ravi to Pakistan.
About Shahpur Kandi Dam Project:
It is located on the Ravi River in Pathankot district, Punjab, downstream from the existing Ranjit Sagar Dam.
The water released by Ranjit Sagar Dam is utilized for generating power from this project.
The main purpose behind the construction of this dam is power generation and irrigation in Punjab and J&K States.
It is constructed by the irrigation department of the Government of Punjab.
The project consists of a 55.5 m high concrete gravity dam, a 7.70 km long hydel channel, two head regulators, and two powerhouses.
The total output capacity of the project is 206 MW.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://swarajyamag.com/news-brief/india-halts-flow-of-ravi-river-to-pakistan-say-reports-heres-what-we-know-so-far
With reference to Section 354 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), consider the following statements:
- It punishes the use of criminal force on a woman with the intention of outraging her modesty.
- It can be punished with a minimum imprisonment of ten years.
- It does not encompass offences committed against men.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The High Court of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh recently quashed the issuance of process by a trial court against a man for the commission of the offence under Section 354 of the IPC for allegedly slapping his wife in public.
About Section 354 of IPC:
Section 354 of the IPC states that anyone who assaults or uses criminal force against a woman with the intention of outraging her modesty, or knowing that such an act is likely to outrage her modesty, can be punished with imprisonment ranging from one to five years and may also be fined.
It has been enacted with a view to protect a woman against indecent assault as well as to safeguard public morality and decent behaviour.
This section punishes an assault or use of criminal force on any woman with the intention or knowledge that the woman’s modesty will be outraged.
The essential ingredients of the offense under Section 354 of the IPC are as follows:
that the person assaulted must be a woman
that the accused should have used some sort of criminal force on her
Criminal force must have been used to outrage her modesty
There must be an intention to do so. It is the section’s substance, where the choice of punishment and the legitimacy of the charges is evaluated.
What constitutes an ‘outrage to female modesty’ has not been defined anywhere under the IPC. It is rather subject to the facts and circumstances of each case.
It does not encompass offences committed against men in the same manner.
An offence under Section 354 of the IPC shall be a cognizable and a non-bailable offence that is triable by a magistrate of any class.
The Criminal Law Amendment Act of 2013 introduced four additional subsections to Section 354 of IPC to broaden its scope. These are the following:
Section 354A: Sexual harassment and punishment for sexual harassment
Section 354B: Assault or use of criminal force to woman with intent to disrobe
Section 354C: Voyeurism
Section 354D: Stalking
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.barandbench.com/news/husband-slapping-wife-public-not-offence-outraging-woman-modesty-section-354-ipc-jammu-kashmir-high-court
Consider the following statements regarding Household Consumption Expenditure Survey:
- It is conducted by the National Statistical Office.
- It helps to review critical economic indicators like Gross Domestic Product and poverty levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
For the first time in about 11 years, the government released the broad findings of the All India Household Consumption Expenditure Survey carried out between August 2022 and July 2023.
It is usually conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO) every five years.
This survey aims at generating estimates of household Monthly Per Capita Consumption Expenditure (MPCE) and its distribution separately for the rural and urban sectors of the country, for States and Union Territories, and for different socio-economic groups.
Highlights of the survey
The average monthly per capita consumption expenditure (MPCE) in Indian households rose by 33.5% since 2011-12 in urban households to ₹3,510, with rural India’s MPCE seeing a 40.42% increase over the same period to hit ₹2,008.
The proportion of spending on food has dropped to 46.4% for rural households from 52.9% in 2011-12, while their urban peers spent just 39.2% of their overall monthly outgoes on food compared with 42.6% incurred 11 years earlier.
This reduction could translate into a lower weightage for food prices in the country’s retail inflation calculations.
Among the States, the MPCE is the highest in Sikkim for both rural (₹7,731) and urban areas (₹12,105).
It is the lowest in Chhattisgarh, where it was ₹2,466 for rural households and ₹4,483 for urban household members.
Significance: The data will play a key role in reviewing critical economic indicators, including the Gross Domestic Product (GDP), poverty levels, and the Consumer Price Inflation (CPI).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/after-11-years-household-consumption-expenditure-survey-findings-released/article67882939.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the International Mother Language Day:
- It is celebrated to promote linguistic and cultural diversity.
- It was recognised by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
On International Mother Language Day, the Kalanidhi Division and Academic Unit of Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA) presents Akshar, Shabd and Bhasha, an exhibition celebrating and honouring the linguistic diversity of India, and exploring the richness of languages, scripts, and words that define our cultural heritage.
It is observed globally every year on February 21 to recognise and promote linguistic and cultural diversity and multilingualism.
According to the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization International Mother Language Day was recognised on the initiative of Bangladesh and has been observed throughout the world since the year 2000.
The theme for 2024 is “Multilingual education is a pillar of intergenerational learning”.
Significance
According to UNESCO, globally 40 per cent of the population does not have access to an education in the language they speak or understand.
So, as a commitment towards understanding the importance of the mother language or mother tongue, UNESCO decided to observe the day.
It underscores the role of languages in promoting inclusion and achieving Sustainable Development Goals.
Issues: Every two weeks a language disappears taking with it an entire cultural and intellectual heritage.
At least 45% of the estimated 7000 languages spoken in the world are endangered.
Only a few hundred languages have genuinely been given a place in education systems and the public domain, and less than a hundred are used in the digital world.
Hence both statements are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Collective Security Treaty Organisation:
- It is an intergovernmental military alliance.
- All central Asian countries are member of this organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of Armenia said that his country has frozen its participation in the Russian-led Collective Security Treaty Organisation (CSTO) because the bloc had failed the country.
It is an intergovernmental military alliance in Eurasia, which was established in 2002.
Members of the organization at present are: Russia, Armenia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, and Tajikistan.
Background
The Collective Security Treaty (CST) was signed on May 15, 1992 in Tashkent by the Heads of six countries: Armenia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan. Subsequently, Azerbaijan, Georgia and Belarus joined it.
The treaty came into force on April 20, 1994.
On May 14, 2002, in Moscow, the Collective Security Council made a decision to grant the status of an international regional organization to the Collective Security Treaty.
In 2004 the UN General Assembly adopted a resolution granting the Collective Security Treaty Organization (CSTO) an observer status in the UN General Assembly.
The statutory bodies of the Organization are: the Collective Security Council (CSC), the Council of Foreign Ministers (COM), the Council of Ministers of Defense (CIO), the Committee of Secretaries of Security Council (CSSC).
The key objectives of the CSTO include
The provision of national and collective security, intensive politico-military cooperation, foreign policy coordination on international and regional security issues, the establishment of multilateral cooperation mechanisms, including a military component, the development of cooperation in the counteraction to modern challenges and security threats.
Headquarter: Moscow, Russia
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.reuters.com/world/asia-pacific/armenia-freezes-participation-russia-led-security-bloc-prime-minister-2024-02-23/
Which of the following best describes Hanooman, recently seen in news?
A multimodal AI tool
Explanation :
In collaboration with the BharatGPT ecosystem led by IIT Bombay, Seetha Mahalaxmi Healthcare (SML) has introduced ‘Hanooman,’ a suite of Indic large language models trained across 22 Indian languages.
It is a series of large language models (LLMs) that can respond in 11 Indian languages like Hindi, Tamil, and Marathi, with plans to expand to more than 20 languages.
Capabilities: It is a multimodal AI tool, which can generate text, speech, videos and more in multiple Indian languages.
The size of these AI models ranges from 1.5 billion to a whopping 40 billion parameters.
Applications: It has been designed to work in four fields, including health care, governance, financial services, and education.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/bharatgpt-hanooman-ai-model-9178762/
The MakhaBucha ceremony, sometimes seen in the news, is associated with:
Buddhism
Explanation :
The sacred MakhaBucha (Magh Puja) ceremony, one of the five most revered events for Buddhists in Thailand, was gracefully conducted by the esteemed Somdet and other senior monks of Thailand.
MakhaBucha Day (Magha Puja) is a religious celebration marking Lord Buddha’s teachings to his disciples.
It is celebrated according to the traditional lunar calendar, on the day of full moon of the third lunar month.
The term makha comes from the word “Magha” in Pali and it refers to the third lunar month, while bucha can translate as “to worship,” both of which are derived from the Pali language used in Buddhist scripture.
The term MakhaBucha refers to a day intended for worshiping on the third lunar month.
The aim of this day is to purify one’s mind and do only good. Some celebrate by offering food to monks and also attend candle light processions in the evening.
It is the first important religious festival in the Buddhist calendar, takes place in nations including Thailand, Laos and Cambodia, where the majority of Buddhists practice Theravada Buddhism, also known as “Buddhism of the south”.
Bottom of Form
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2008673
Consider the following statements regarding Ribosomes:
- They are found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
- They are involved in making proteins from amino acids through a process called translation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Using electron microscopy, scientists have recently managed to produce a 3D model of a part of the human cell, the ribosome.
About Ribosomes:
Ribosomes are non-membrane-bound cell organelles made of RNA and proteins.
They are found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
In eukaryotic organisms, ribosomes are found in the cytoplasm, mitochondria, and chloroplast.
All prokaryotic ribosomes are found free in the cytoplasm of the cell.
Ribosomal structure and function are strikingly similar in all organisms and organelles.
They are made of two subunits, the large and the small subunit which comprises ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and proteins.
Primary Function:
They are complex molecular machines that make proteins from amino acids in a process called protein synthesis, or translation.
Every cell needs ribosomes to manufacture proteins.
The ribosome reads the messenger RNA (mRNA) sequence and translates that genetic code into a specified string of amino acids, which grow into long chains that fold to form proteins.
The newly formed proteins detach themselves from the ribosome site and migrate to other parts of the cell for use.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/governance/unctad-raises-alarm-over-disruptions-in-shipping-routes-for-global-trade-94640
Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD):
- It is a permanent intergovernmental body established by the United Nations General Assembly.
- It releases the World Investment Report.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
UNCTAD recently raised an alarm over escalating disruptions in shipping routes for global trade in a new report.
About United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD):
It is the UN’s leading institution dealing with trade and development.
It is a permanent intergovernmental body established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1964.
Its objective is to assist developing countries, especially the least developed countries, and countries with economies in transition, to integrate beneficially into the global economy.
It also seeks to help the international community promote a global partnership for development, increase coherence in global economic policymaking, and assure development gains for all from trade.
It provides economic and trade analysis, facilitates consensus-building, and offers technical assistance to help developing countries use trade, investment, finance, and technology for inclusive and sustainable development.
Headquarter: Geneva, Switzerland.
UNCTAD membership consists of 195 states.
Its activities are advisory by nature.
Structure:
The highest policy-making body of UNCTAD is the Conference, which meets once every four years to set policy guidelines and formulate a program of work.
The Trade and Development Board, UNCTAD’s executive body, is responsible for the operations of the organization when the Conference is not in session.
The UNCTAD Secretariat, whose members form part of the UN Secretariat, performs policy analysis, monitors and implements the decisions of UNCTAD’s intergovernmental bodies, and provides for technical cooperation and exchanges of information.
Reports published by UNCTAD:
Trade and Development Report
World Investment Report
The Least Developed Countries Report
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/governance/unctad-raises-alarm-over-disruptions-in-shipping-routes-for-global-trade-94640
With reference to Ken River, consider the following statements:
- It is one of the major rivers of the Bundelkhand region of central India.
- It is a tributary of the Chambal River.
- It flows through Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Prime Minister in ‘Mann Ki Baat’ recently cited crocodiles in Ken River to hail how technology is being used extensively for the conservation of wildlife in different parts of the country.
About Ken River:
It is one of the major rivers of the Bundelkhand region of central India.
It flows through two states, namely Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
It is a tributary of the Yamuna River. The river is the last tributary of the Yamuna before the Yamuna joins the Ganga.
Course:
The river originates near the village of Ahirgawan on the north-west slopes of the Kaimur Range in the district of Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh.
Crossing the Bijawar-Panna hills, the river cuts a 60 km long, and 150- 180 m deep gorge. It is joined by several streams in this gorge, making waterfalls.
It travels a distance of 427 km and then merges with the Yamuna at Chilla village, near Fatehpur in Uttar Pradesh.
It is known for its rare Sajhar or Dendritic Agate stone.
Banda city is located on the banks of Ken River.
Tributaries: The major tributaries of the Ken River are Bawas, Dewar, Kaith, Baink, Kopra, and Bearma.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/pm-modi-cites-crocodiles-in-ken-river-to-hail-tech-use-in-saving-wildlife/articleshow/107991163.cmsp
Beyt Island, recently seen in the news, lies off the coast of:
Gujarat
Explanation :
Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently inaugurated the ‘Sudarshan Setu’ bridge connecting Beyt Dwarka island to mainland Okha in Gujarat’s Devbhumi Dwarka district.
About ‘Sudarshan Setu’ Bridge:
It is India’s longest cable-stayed bridge, at 2.32 km, on the Arabian Sea, connecting Beyt Dwarka island to mainland Okha in Gujarat’s Devbhumi Dwarka district.
It boasts a unique design, featuring a footpath adorned with verses from the Bhagavad Gita and images of Lord Krishna on both sides.
It also has solar panels installed on the upper portions of the footpath, generating one megawatt of electricity.
The 2.32 km bridge, including 900 metres of a central double-span cable-stayed portion and a 2.45 km long approach road, has been constructed at a cost of Rs 979 crore.
Key Facts about Beyt Dwarka:
Beyt Island (also called Bet Dwarka or Shankodhar) is a small island off the coast of Dwarka, Gujarat.
Located at the mouth of the Gulf of Kutch, the island is enclosed by a few temples, white sand beaches, and coral reefs.
History:
It is believed to be the home of Lord Krishna when he was the king of Dwarka.
It derives its name from the word ‘bet’, which translates to ‘gift’, and it is believed that Lord Krishna received it from his friend Sudama.
Explorations and excavations carried out under the sea have revealed the presence of settlements whose age can be traced back to the era of the Harappan civilisation and that of the Mauryan rule.
In the later years, the region was under the administration of the Gaekwad clan of the state of Baroda.
Sri Keshavraj Ji Temple:
It is a Lord Krishna temple located on the island. It is an important site of Hindu pilgrimage.
The temple is 500 years old and was built by Vallabhacharya.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.deccanherald.com/india/gujarat/all-you-need-to-know-about-sudarshan-setu-indias-longest-cable-stayed-bridge-in-gujarat-2909279
Which one of the following is the best description of ‘G-33’, that was in the news recently?
A coalition of nations advocating for special agricultural considerations in international trade negotiations
Explanation :
Ahead of the 13th ministerial conference of World Trade Organization (WTO), a majority of the G-33 countries have called for a permanent solution to public stockholding for food security.
About G-33:
The G33 (or the Friends of Special Products in agriculture) is a coalition of developing and least developed countries.
Despite the name, there are currently 47 member nations. Some of the main countries include India, China, Indonesia, Pakistan, Nigeria, Philippines, Turkey, Tanzania, Kenya, and South Korea.
It was established prior to the 2003 Cancun ministerial conference that have coordinated during the Doha Round of World Trade Organization (WTO) negotiations, specifically in regard to agriculture.
Dominated by India, the group has “defensive” concerns regarding agriculture in relation to WTO negotiations, and seeks to limit the degree of market opening required of developing countries.
The group has advocated the creation of a “special products” exemption, which would allow developing countries to exempt certain products from tariff exemptions, and also a “special safeguard mechanism” which would permit tariff increases in response to import surges.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livemint.com/news/world/g33-countries-call-for-permanent-public-stockholding-solution-for-food-security-11708922665849.html
Consider the following statements regarding SAMAR assessment certificate:
- It is jointly developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation and Quality Council of India.
- It provides an objective assessment of competency of defence manufacturing enterprises of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) handed over SAMAR assessment certificates to nine Industry Partners.
System for Advance Manufacturing Assessment and Rating (SAMAR) certificate is a benchmark to measure the competency of defence manufacturing enterprises.
It is an outcome of the collaboration between DRDO and Quality Council of India (QCI) to strengthen the defence manufacturing ecosystem in the country with an objective to further the vision of making India self- reliant in defence manufacturing.
Objective:
Provide an objective assessment of manufacturing capability of Defence Manufacturing Enterprises.
Enable enterprises to benchmark their performance across a range of business capabilities to enhance quality, reliability and competitiveness
Create a credible database of Defence manufacturers for ease in vendor selection and development
Strengthen the Defence manufacturing ecosystem in the country with an objective to realize the vision of making India self-reliant in Defence manufacturing
Eligibility: All defence manufacturing enterprises, both MSME and Large enterprises, are eligible to apply for this certification.
Validity: It is valid for a period of 2 years from the date of issuance of certificate.
The certification is based on a maturity assessment model developed by QCI and is applicable to all defence manufacturing enterprises i.e., micro, small, medium and large enterprises.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2008923
Consider the following statements regarding the Loss and Damage Board:
- It is tasked with setting up a strategic direction for the Loss and Damage Fund.
- It comprises of both developed as well as developing countries as its members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Developed countries have delayed nominating members to the Loss and Damage Board, hampering efforts to fully operationalise the fund to developing countries in time.
Background:
At the 27th Conference of Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (COP27) held in Egypt, Parties reached an agreement on providing loss and damage funding to nations most vulnerable and impacted by the effects of climate change.
At COP28, the fund was formally established and a decision text stated that the fund would be governed and supervised by a board, a decision-making body.
The board is tasked with setting up a strategic direction for the Fund as well as its governance and operational modalities, policies, frameworks and work programme, including relevant funding decisions.
The Board will comprise 26 members, 12 members from developed countries and 14 from developing nations.
What is Loss and Damage Fund?
It is a global financial package to ensure the rescue and rehabilitation of countries facing the cascading effects of climate change.
The term refers to the compensation that rich nations, whose industrial growth has resulted in global warming and driven the planet into a climate crisis, must pay to poor nations, whose carbon footprint is low but are facing the brunt of rising sea levels, floods, crippling droughts, and intense cyclones, among others.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-change/wealthy-nations-wrestle-over-seats-on-loss-and-damage-board-causing-delays-in-fully-operationalising-fund-94637
Consider the following statements regarding the Island on the Air (IOTA) Programme:
- It is a programme that connects radio amateurs worldwide with stations on islands.
- It is managed by the United Nations Environment Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A dedicated team of amateur radio operators (HAMs) embarked on a significant journey from the cyclone shelters of Nachugunta Island, Andhra Pradesh, to participate in the Island on the Air (IOTA) expedition Programme.
It is a pioneering programme that connects radio amateurs worldwide with stations on islands.
It was established in 1964.
It is managed by IOTA Ltd in collaboration with the Radio Society of Great Britain (RSGB), categorizing islands into groups for communication.
Key facts about Amateur Radio (HAM Radio)
Amateur radio is a popular hobby involving the use of radio frequency spectrum for non-commercial purposes.
HAM radio operators communicate using designated radio frequencies, engaging in diverse activities like contests, emergency communication support, experimentation, technical learning, and community engagement.
The hobby offers a unique blend of technical learning, community engagement, and global connectivity through radio waves, emphasizing innovation and service.
In India, as per the Indian Wireless Telegraphs (Amateur Service) Amendment Rules, 1984
‘Amateur service’ means a service of self training intercommunications and technical investigation carried on by Amateurs that is, by persons duly authorized under these rules interested in radio technique solely with a personal aim and without pecuniary interest.”
Any citizen of India who is above 12 years of age can become a ham by qualifying in the Amateurs station operators’ examination (ASO) and obtaining a valid Amateur wireless telegraph station license.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2008917
Consider the following statements regarding the Edwards syndrome:
- It is an autosomal chromosomal disorder due to an extra copy of chromosome 18.
- It affects child’s body development and growth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers have reported chromosomal disorders discovered from prehistoric skeletal remains, dating up to approximately 5,500 years old — including six cases of Down syndrome and one case of Edwards syndrome.
It is also known as trisomy 18.
It is an autosomal chromosomal disorder due to an extra copy of chromosome 18.
It is a very severe genetic condition that affects child’s body development and growth.
Symptoms: Children diagnosed with trisomy 18 have a low birth weight, multiple birth defects and defining physical characteristics.
There are three types of Edwards syndrome
Complete trisomy 18:
It is the most common form (94%).
In this type, every cell contains three complete copies of chromosome 18.
The extra chromosome is most often of maternal origin.
Mosaic trisomy 18:
It is the second most common type (less than 5%).
In this type, both a complete trisomy 18 and a normal cell line exist.
Partial trisomy 18:
In this type, only a partial segment of chromosome 18 is present in triplicate.
The partial triplicate often results from a balanced translocation or inversion carried by one of the parents.
Treatment: There are no specific treatments for trisomy 18. Treatment will focus on the symptoms of the condition, such as heart conditions, breathing difficulties and infections.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/down-syndrome-edwards-syndrome-found-in-ancient-individuals/article67878795.ece
Exercise ‘Dharma Guardian’, recently seen in news, is conducted between India and:
Japan
Explanation :
Recently, India and Japan kicked-off a two-week military exercise ‘Dharma Guardian’ in Rajasthan’s Mahajan field firing range to foster deeper cooperation in confronting common security challenges.
It is an annual exercise and conducted alternatively in India and Japan.
It is the 5th edition of joint military exercise between the Indian Army and the Japan
Aim of the Exercise is to foster Military Cooperation and enhance combined capabilities to execute joint operations in semi-urban environment under Chapter VII of United Nations Charter.
The Exercise would focus on high degree of physical fitness, joint planning, joint tactical drills and basics of special arms skills.
Significance
It will enable the two sides to share their best practices in Tactics, Techniques and Procedures of conducting tactical operations.
The Exercise will also facilitate developing inter-operability, bonhomie and camaraderie between troops of both the sides.
This will enhance the level of defence cooperation, further fostering bilateral relations between the two friendly nations.
Bottom of Form
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2008775
What is the primary purpose of Garbhini-GA2, recently seen in the news?
To determine the age of a foetus
Explanation :
Researchers recently developed Garbhini-GA2, an India-specific artificial intelligence model to precisely determine the gestational age of a foetus.
About Garbhini-GA2:
It is the first India-specific artificial intelligence (AI) model to precisely determine the age of a foetus in a pregnant woman in the second and third trimesters.
It has been designed by researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology Madras and the Translational Health Science and Technology Institute (THSTI), Faridabad.
It is part of an interdisciplinary group for advanced research on birth outcomes – the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) India initiative (GARBH-Ini) programme.
It is the first late-trimester GA estimation model to be developed and validated using Indian population data.
The Garbhini-GA2 accurately estimates the foetus’ age, reducing error by almost three times.
Accurate ‘Gestational Age’ (GA) is necessary for the appropriate care of pregnant women and for determining precise delivery dates.
Once validated in pan-India cohorts, Garbhini-GA2 holds the potential to be widely deployed in clinics across the country, contributing to improved maternal and infant healthcare outcomes and reducing mortality rates.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/science/garbhini-ga2-iit-madras-thsti-develop-india-specific-ai-gestation-age-estimation-model/articleshow/108006161.cms?from=mdr
With reference to Mauritius, consider the following statements:
- It is located off the eastern coast of Africa.
- It follows parliamentary republic form of democracy.
- Majority of its population is of Indo-Pakistani origin.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
More than 3,000 people are stranded in Mauritius waters after the Indian Ocean Island nation stopped a ship belonging to Norwegian Cruise Line Holdings from docking at its ports due to what it said was a health risk.
About Mauritius:
It is an island country in the Indian Ocean, located off the eastern coast of Africa.
Land:
It lies about 500 miles (800 km) east of Madagascar in the Indian Ocean.
Its outlying territories are Rodrigues Island, situated about 340 miles (550 km) eastward, the Cargados Carajos Shoals, 250 miles (400 km) northeastward, and the Agalega Islands, 580 miles (930 km) northward from the main island.
Mauritius also claims sovereignty over the Chagos Archipelago (including Diego Garcia), some 1,250 miles (2,000 km) to the northeast, although this claim is disputed by Britain.
Relief:
It is volcanic in origin and is almost entirely surrounded by coral reefs.
The northern part is a plain that rises to a central plateau. The plateau is bordered by small mountains that may have formed the rim of an ancient volcano.
Climate: The climate is maritime subtropical, with fairly uniform temperatures throughout the year.
Capital: Port Louis
Languages: English, French, Mauritian Creole, Bhojpuri, Hindi, Chinese, Marathi.
Government:
Mauritius gained independence from the UK in 1968 as a Parliamentary Republic and has remained a stable democracy with regular free elections.
The chief of state is the president, and the head of government is the prime minister.
Mauritius is a member of the Common Market for Eastern and Southern Africa (COMESA) and the Southern African Development Community (SADC).
Population:
Approximately two-thirds of the population is of Indo-Pakistani origin, most of whom are descendants of indentured labourers brought to work in the sugar industry during the 19th and early 20th centuries.
About one-fourth of the population is Creole (of mixed French and African descent), and there are small numbers of people of Chinese and Franco-Mauritian descent.
Religion: About half of the population is Hindu, about one-third is Christian.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.news18.com/world/mauritius-strands-3000-as-norwegian-cruise-ship-denied-entry-over-potential-health-risk-8793182.html
What does “fine-tuning” involve in the context of Large Language Models (LLMs)?
Training the model on a specific task or dataset
Explanation :
The ability of Generative AI models to “converse” with humans is due to something known as the Large Language Model, or LLM.
About Large Language Model (LLMs):
A large language model (LLM) is a type of artificial intelligence (AI) program that can recognize and generate text, among other tasks.
LLMs are trained on huge sets of data—hence the name “large.”
LLMs are built on machine learning: specifically, a type of neural network called a transformer model.
In simpler terms, an LLM is a computer program that has been fed enough examples to be able to recognize and interpret human language or other types of complex data.
Many LLMs are trained on data that has been gathered from the Internet—thousands or millions of gigabytes’ worth of text.
But the quality of the samples impacts how well LLMs will learn natural language, so an LLM’s programmers may use a more curated data set.
LLMs use a type of machine learning called deep learning in order to understand how characters, words, and sentences function together.
Deep learning involves the probabilistic analysis of unstructured data, which eventually enables the deep learning model to recognize distinctions between pieces of content without human intervention.
LLMs are then further trained via tuning: they are fine-tuned or prompt-tuned to the particular task that the programmer wants them to do, such as interpreting questions and generating responses, or translating text from one language to another.
What are LLMs used for?
LLMs can be trained to do a number of tasks. One of the most well-known uses is their application as generative AI: when given a prompt or asked a question, they can produce text in reply.
The publicly available LLM ChatGPT, for instance, can generate essays, poems, and other textual forms in response to user inputs.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/what-is-an-llm-the-backbone-of-ai-chatbots-like-chatgpt-gemini-9180776/
What is ‘INDRA RV25: 240N’, that was in the news recently?
A micro turbojet engine
Explanation :
Hyderabad based Raghu Vamsi Machine Tools Private Limited recently launched its fully indigenous Micro Turbojet Engine “INDRA RV25: 240N”.
About INDRA RV25: 240N:
It is a micro turbojet engine.
It is designed and developed indigenously by Hyderabad-based firm Raghu Vamsi Machine Tools with support from IIT Hyderabad.
It has primarily been developed for unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs) or drones.
The engine has applications in UAVs, air taxis, jetpacks, auxiliary power units, range extenders, and power generation in the future.
What is a turbojet engine?
A turbojet engine is a jet engine which produces all of its thrust by ejecting a high energy gas stream from the engine exhaust nozzle.
In contrast to a turbofan or bypass engine, 100% of the air entering the intake of a turbojet engine goes through the engine core.
Components: The component parts of a turbojet engine are the inlet, the gas turbine engine, consisting of a compressor, a combustion chamber and a turbine, and the exhaust nozzle.
Working:
Air is drawn into the engine through the inlet and compressed and heated by the compressor.
Fuel is then added to the combustion chamber and ignited.
The burning fuel adds energy to the exhaust stream by heating and expanding the air.
Sufficient energy to drive the compressor is extracted from the exhaust stream by the turbine.
The remainder of the exhaust energy is used to produce thrust, a process which is enhanced by the geometry of the exhaust nozzle.
As the exhaust gas passes through the nozzle, it is accelerated to high speed as it expands, thus providing propulsion.
The thrust produced by the engine can be selectively increased by incorporating an afterburner or re-heat into the engine design.
Turbojet aircraft work on the principle of accelerating a relatively small mass of air to a high speed.
As optimum efficiencyis achievedwhen the speed of the accelerated airapproximates that of the aircraft, turbojet engines do not reach peak efficiency until speeds approach Mach 2.
Thus, turbojets have relatively poor propulsive efficiency at lower airspeeds, limiting their usefulness to high-speed aircraft.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.msn.com/en-in/autos/news/first-of-its-kind-micro-turbojet-engine-made-in-india/ar-BB1iUmFh
What substance is generally injected into the stratosphere in Stratospheric Aerosol Intervention (SAI)?
Sulfur dioxide (SO2)
Explanation :
A recent study looked at the impact of stratospheric aerosol intervention (SAI) in mitigating global warming effects in West Asia (also known as Middle East) and North Africa (MENA).
About Stratospheric Aerosol Intervention (SAI):
Stratospheric Aerosol Intervention (SAI), also known as Stratospheric Aerosol Injection, is a geoengineering or climate engineering approach that uses tiny reflective particles or aerosols to reflect sunlight into space in order to cool the planet and reverse or stop global warming.
It aims to mimic the cooling effects of volcanic eruptions by injecting sulfur dioxide (SO2) directly into the stratosphere, where it forms sunlight-reflecting sulfate aerosols.
The 1991 eruption of Mount Pinatubo in the Philippines, often cited as the inspiration for this concept, deposited massive amounts of particulate matter and sulfur dioxide (SO2) into the atmosphere.
This aerosol layer was reported to have lowered average temperatures around the world by about 0.5 °C (0.9 °F) over the following few years.
It is believed that as more radiation is scattered in the stratosphere by aerosols, less would be absorbed by the troposphere, the lower level of the atmosphere where weather primarily occurs.
The production of such an artificial aerosol layer could be accomplished by shooting sulfur particles into the stratosphere with cannons or dispersing them from balloons or other aircraft.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-change/climate-impact-water-storage-projected-to-decrease-across-wetter-lands-around-caspian-mediterranean-seas-94671
Consider the following statements regarding Third-Party Application Providers:
- They provide the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) compliant apps for financial transactions.
- They are regulated by the National Payment Council of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India has asked the National Payment Council of India to examine the request of One97 Communications, which owns Paytm, to become a Third-Party Application Provider for continued Unified Payments Interface operation of the Paytm application.
It is an entity that provides the UPI compliant app(s) to the end-user customers to facilitate UPI-based payment transactions.
These applications could be mobile wallets, merchant apps, or any other platform that utilises UPI for payments.
NPCI, the umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India, owns and operates the UPI platform.
Working of TPAPs
TPAPs leverage the UPI infrastructure provided by NPCI and work with payment service providers (PSPs) and banks to facilitate transactions.
They are responsible for ensuring that their applications adhere to security standards and compliance guidelines set by NPCI.
As per the current regulations, payment service providers (PSPs) need to obtain a TPAP license from NPCI to run UPI services and facilitate merchant transactions through partner banks.
Currently, there are 22 NPCI-approved 3rd party Unified Payments Interface (UPI) apps that can be used to send and receive money from other UPI users by using UPI IDs.
They include Amazon Pay, Google Pay, Groww, Jupiter Money, Mobikwik, Phonepe, Samsung Pay, TataNeu and Whatsapp.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/rbi-asks-npci-to-consider-paytms-request-for-tpap-9178418/
Consider the following statements regarding the Annual Aegis Graham Bell Awards:
- It recognizes the outstanding contributions by innovators in various fields.
- It is awarded by the United Nations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT), the premier Telecom R&D centre of the Government of India, strikes a hat-trick by securing top position in three awards at 14th Annual Aegis Graham Bell Awards.
It was initiated in 2010 by the Aegis School of Data Science.
It is a tribute to the father of the telephony and great innovator, Alexander Graham Bell.
The Aegis School of Business, Data Science and Cyber Security has initiated this award to promote innovations and recognise the outstanding contributions by innovators in various fields including education, Information and Communications Technology (ICT), Artificial Intelligence (AI) and data science.
This award in India is supported by the Ministry of electronics and information technology (MeitY), Skill India and National Informatics Centre.
Following are the projects of C-DOT which received this award
ASTR Project: ASTR (AI & Facial Recognition-powered Solution for Telecom SIM Subscriber Verification) is a game-changer in the fight against cyber crimes.
Designed to analyze, identify, and eliminate fake/forged mobile connections, it’s a crucial step towards ensuring a secure telecom environment.
CEIR (Central Equipment Identity Register) solution: CEIR helps in revolutionizing mobile security by detecting clone IMEIs, restricting import of counterfeit mobile devices and also enabling the blocking and tracing of lost or stolen phones.
Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) product: India employs quantum mechanics to create an unbreakable cryptographic protocol even with Quantum computers.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2009222
Consider the following statements regarding Know Your Customer (KYC) norms:
- It is a comprehensive process that financial and non-financial institutions follow to verify the identity of their customers.
- In India, separate KYCs are needed for different financial products.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The government of India has formed an expert committee headed by Finance Secretary T V Somanathan to make its recommendations to bring out uniform Know Your Customer (KYC) norms.
It is a comprehensive process that financial and non-financial institutions follow to verify the authenticity and identity of their customers.
The KYC process is mandatory for every customer before investing in any instruments or starting a bank account.
In India at present, separate KYCs are needed for different financial products such as opening a bank account, investing in mutual funds, buying a life cover or investing in retirement-savings funds.
Multiple KYCs, regular updates and even the exact specifications often prove to be a deterrent for new investors.
To eliminate the need to do repeated KYC for investing across financial assets central government launched Central KYC Records Registry.
What is Central KYC Records Registry?
It was launched by the central government of India in 2016.
It has been limited only to the capital markets.
In fact, while dealing in securities markets, once KYC is done through a Securities and Exchange Board of India (Sebi) registered intermediary such as a broker, depository participant or mutual fund, customers do not have to undergo the same process again for fresh investments.
The government authorised the Central Registry of Securitisation Asset Reconstruction and Security Interest of India (CERSAI) to perform the functions of the CKYCR.
This centralised registry receives, stores, safeguards and retrieves the KYC records of a customer in a digitally secure electronic format.
Customers have to submit their KYC details only once with any of the reporting entities of the Reserve Bank of India, Sebi, Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India, Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority at the time of opening an account.
Once the information is registered, customers will receive a 14-digit KYC Identification Number that can be used at any financial institution registered with CERSAI.
Financial institutions can access the CKYCR database to retrieve the KYC records of customers while onboarding them.
In case of any changes in the details of a customer, the reporting entity will initiate a centralised KYC (CKYC) update after taking the latest KYC record of the customer.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/economy/news/govt-set
Consider the following statements regarding the Investor Information and Analytics Platform:
- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- It acts as a one-stop solution for startups to seamlessly access Venture Capitalists.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the union Minister of State for Electronics and IT, Skill Development and Entrepreneurship launched ‘Investor Information and Analytics Platform.
It acts as a one-stop shop for startups to seamlessly access Venture Capitalists (VCs) and investors networks, Govt schemes and several other components of the startup landscape for all stakeholders.
By integrating information at different levels, the platform is also a one-stop shop for entrepreneurs to search for information on government agencies, incubators, investors, VCs and banks that invest in startups.
This platform has been developed by the Researchers at the Centre for Research on Start-ups and Risk Financing (CREST) of IIT Madras.
It will significantly help startup founders, entrepreneurs and Young Indians who intend to build their own devices, services and platforms for India and for the world.
An important feature of this unique platform is “StartupGPT” which is an AI-based conversational platform whose function is to help ease information access for those who are navigating exhaustive data.
A user will be able to ask queries in simple language to access information they seek in real time.
For sustainability of the platform, full access will be provided at a very nominal cost so that maximum entrepreneurs can benefit from this resource.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2009221
With reference to Flue Cured Tobacco, consider the following statements:
- It has high sugar content.
- It has a very low levels of nicotine.
- It does not contain natural Tannin.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Government of India permits sale of Flue Cured Virginia (FCV) Tobacco on Tobacco Boards auction platform and waives off penalty on sale of excess production of registered growers and unauthorized production of unregistered growers in Karnataka.
Curing is a process by which the harvested tobacco leaf is made ready for the market.
It is a well standardized process especially in FCV tobacco to achieve the desirable qualities in the cured leaf along with the removal of moisture.
There are three types of tobacco curing methods traditionally used: Air-Cured, Fire-Cured, and Flue-Cured.
Each of the different curing methods results in a tobacco product that is distinguishable by both its nicotine content and its aroma.
Why is Tobacco cured?
To create smoking tobacco, the tobacco leaves need to be cured, or dried out.
The wet, green tobacco leaves of a tobacco plant initially contain too much moisture to catch fire.
They also have higher chlorophyll content. By releasing a certain amount of chlorophyll from the leaves during the drying out process, the natural tannins come out giving the smoked tobacco its flavor and scent.
Key characteristics of Flu Cured Tobacco
Produces primarily cigarette tobacco
Contains a high sugar content
Contains medium to high levels of nicotine
Rich in natural tannins which creates its distinct mild and slightly sweet flavor and aroma
In India Flue Cured Virginia (FCV) Tobacco is mainly produced in India in 2 states, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2009044
With reference to Additional Tier-1 (AT-1) Bonds, consider the following statements:
- They are perpetual bonds with no maturity date.
- They have a lower interest rate than other bonds.
- They have a call option, which allows the banks to buy back the bonds from the investors.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The State Bank of India (SBI) is unlikely to utilize the enabling provision to raise nearly Rs 11,900 crore through additional tier-I (AT-1) bonds due to pricing issues in the current fiscal.
About Additional Tier-1 (AT-1) Bonds:
AT-1 bonds are perpetual bonds with no maturity date.
Investors in these bonds do not get their principal back.
However, the interest continues forever. AT-1 bonds have a higher interest rate than other bonds.
Due to the perpetual nature of AT-1 bonds, these are often treated and viewed as equity, not debt.
How are AT-1 Bonds Issued?
AT-1 bonds are issued by banks in accordance with the directions of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Financial institutions usually issue such bonds to fulfil their capital adequacy requirements (CAR).
CAR is an assessment of a bank’s capital and its risk-weighted assets.
Capital adequacy norms were formulated under the Basel III accord of 2009 after the credit crisis of 2008.
The money raised through these bonds is kept aside as a shock absorber by the bank.
These bonds are contingent convertible bonds (CoCos), a type of debt instrument that the bank can convert into equity if its capital levels fall below the specified levels. This helps the bank reduce debt while managing capital.
AT-1 bonds have a call option, which allows the banks to buy back the bonds from the investors.
These bonds provide high returns but also carry greater risk.
If the banking institution fails, these bonds are at risk.
Suppose the RBI finds a bank in an unstable condition, under pressure, and in a situation where it demands rescue. In that case, it can ask the bank to immediately withdraw their AT-1 Bonds without seeking permission from the investors, therefore making AT-1 Bonds risky.
Further, the issuer can also skip the interest payout if it is under financial stress.
Investors cannot return their bonds to the bank as there is no put option against these bonds. However, these bonds are listed on the stock exchanges, so the investor can liquidate these whenever in need.
Subordinate debt: In case of default, these bonds rank lower than the other debt, which is why these are subordinate debts.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/market/sbi-junks-plans-to-raise-rs-12k-cr-via-at-1-bonds-3407219/
With reference to International Astronomical Union (IAU), consider the following statements:
- It governs international professional astronomical activities worldwide.
- Its individual members are nominated by national governments of each country.
- It is the only organization recognized professionally for the naming of astronomical bodies.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The International Astronomical Union recently confirmed the existence of three currently unnamed moons — one around Uranus and two orbiting Neptune.
About International Astronomical Union (IAU):
The IAU is a senior body governing international professional astronomical activities worldwide.
It was established in 1919 as the first of a series of international unions for the advancement of specific branches of science.
Its mission is to promote and safeguard the science of astronomy in all its aspects, including research, communication, education, and development, through international cooperation.
The IAU is made up of various divisions, commissions, and working groups representing the various areas of astronomical research, teaching, and other endeavors.
Membership:
Its individual members are professional astronomers from all over the world, at the Ph.D. level and beyond, who are active in professional research, education, and outreach in astronomy.
The IAU also has junior members.
IAU membership spans 92 countries. Out of those countries, 85 are National Members.
IAU activities range from the definition of fundamental astronomical and dynamical constants and unambiguous astronomical nomenclature, rapid dissemination of new discoveries, organization of international observing campaigns, and promotion of educational activities in astronomy to early informal discussions of possible future international large-scale facilities.
It is the only organization recognized professionally for the naming of astronomical bodies, which it does solely on the basis of merit, history, or discoverer’s privilege.
The IAU holds a general assembly every three years in varying parts of the world at which professional astronomers meet to discuss research, new cooperative ventures, and similar matters of professional interest.
The IAU also works to promote research, education, and public outreach activities in astronomy for the public.
Headquarters: Paris, France.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livescience.com/space/planets/3-new-moons-discovered-around-uranus-and-neptune-will-be-named-after-shakespeare-characters-and-greek-goddesses
What is Steadfast Defender 2024, recently seen in the news?
NATO military exercise in Europe
Explanation :
The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) started its largest military exercise in Europe, the Steadfast Defender 2024, recently.
About Steadfast Defender 2024:
It is NATO’s most extensive military exercise since the Cold War era.
It involves 90,000 forces from 31 member countries and NATO partner Sweden and is conducted across various NATO nations.
The exercise will feature an impressive array of military hardware, including over 50 naval vessels ranging from aircraft carriers to destroyers, and a formidable air contingent of more than 80 units comprising fighter jets, helicopters, and drones.
The ground forces are equally robust, with at least 1,100 combat vehicles, including 133 tanks and 533 infantry fighting vehicles, demonstrating NATO’s ground capabilities.
The purpose of Steadfast Defender 2024 is to put NATO’s new regional defense plans to the test.
These plans, the first of their kind in decades, outline the alliance’s response mechanisms to potential threats, notably addressing concerns regarding Russian aggression.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/why-is-natos-steadfast-defender-2024-military-exercise-significant-explained/article67873511.ece
Consider the following:
- Prime Minister
- Speaker of the Lok Sabha
- Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
- Chief Justice of India
- Union Law Minister
How many of the above are members of the selection committee for recommending the Chairperson and the Members of the Lokpal?
Only four
Explanation :
Former Supreme Court judge Justice Ajay Manikrao Khanwilkar was recently appointed as the chairperson of Lokpal.
About Lokpal:
It is a statutory body established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act 2013.
Mandate: To inquire into allegations of corruption against certain public functionaries and for related matters.
Organisational Structure:
The Lokpal will consist of a chairperson and a maximum of eight members.
The Chairperson should be either the former Chief Justice of India, or a former Judge of the Supreme Court, or an eminent person who fulfils the eligibility criteria as specified.
Out of the maximum eight members, half will be judicial members. The judicial member of the Lokpal should be either a former Judge of the Supreme Court or a former Chief Justice of a High Court.
A minimum of fifty per cent of the Members will be from SC / ST / OBC / Minorities and women.
How are members appointed?
The Chairperson and the Members are appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a selection committee composed of the Prime Minister as the Chairperson, the Speaker of Lok Sabha, the Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, the Chief Justice of India or a Judge nominated by him/her, and one eminent jurist.
They hold office for a term of five years from the date on which they enter upon the office or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.
The salary, allowances, and other conditions of services of the Chairperson are the same as that of the Chief Justice of India.
The salary, allowances, and other conditions of services of the members are the same as that of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Jurisdiction:
It has jurisdiction to inquire into allegations of corruption against anyone who is or has been Prime Minister, a Minister in the Union government, or a Member of Parliament, as well as officials of the Union Government under Groups A, B, C, and D.
It covers chairpersons, members, officers, and directors of any board, corporation, society, trust, or autonomous body either established by an Act of Parliament or wholly or partly funded by the Union or State government.
It also covers any society, trust, or body that receives a foreign contribution above Rs 10 lakh.
Exceptions for Prime Minister:
Lokpal cannot inquire into allegations against the PM relating to international relations, external and internal security, public order, atomic energy, and space.
Also, complaints against the PM are not to be probed unless the full Lokpal bench considers the initiation of the inquiry and at least 2/3rds of the members approve it.
Powers of Lokpal:
It has powers to superintendence over and to give direction to the CBI.
If it has referred a case to the CBI, the investigating officer in such a case cannot be transferred without the approval of Lokpal.
Powers to authorize CBI for search and seizure operations connected to such cases.
The Inquiry Wing of the Lokpal has been vested with the powers of a civil court.
Lokpal has powers of confiscation of assets, proceeds, receipts, and benefits arisen or procured by means of corruption in special circumstances.
Lokpal has the power to recommend the transfer or suspension of public servants connected with the allegation of corruption.
Lokpal has the power to give directions to prevent the destruction of records during the preliminary inquiry.
In terms of Section 48 of the said Act, the Lokpal is required to present annually to the President a report on the work done by it, which is caused to be laid in both the Houses of the Parliament.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/exsc-judge-justice-a-m-khanwilkar-is-now-lokpal-chairperson-101709043679491.html
Consider the following statements regarding General Diary (GD):
- It is a record of all important transactions/events taking place in a police station.
- A copy of the GD is mandatorily sent to the concerned Judicial Magistrate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently held that the information disclosing the commission of the cognizable offence needs to be recorded as a First Information Report (“FIR”) in the form of a book and not in the General Diary maintained by the Police under the Police Act, 1861.
About General Diary (GD):
General Diary, also called Station Diary or Daily Diary in some States, is maintained under the provisions of Section 44 of the Police Act, 1861, in the States to which it applies, or under the respective provisions of the Police Act(s) applicable to a State or under the Police Manual of a State, as the case may be.
Section 44 of the Police Act, 1861 states that it shall be the duty of every officer in charge of a police station to keep a general diary in such form as shall, from time to time, be prescribed by the State Government and to record therein all complaints and charges preferred, the names of all persons arrested, the names of the complainants, the offences charged against them, the weapons or property that shall have been taken from their possession or otherwise, and the names of the witnesses who shall have been examined.
It is a record of all important transactions/events taking place in a police station, including the departure and arrival of police staff, the handing over or taking over of charges, arrest of a person, details of law-and-order duties, the visit of senior officers, etc.
Additionally, the GD summarizes each First Information Report (FIR) registered at the police station, as FIR registration is a significant event there.
Simultaneously, the GD entry reference is noted in the FIR Book, while the FIR number is mentioned in the GD entry. This parallel documentation ensures that both records are kept up to date.
The GD is maintained in chronological order, with a new entry starting with number 1 each day.
What is a First Information Report (FIR)?
It is a written document prepared by a Police officer based on information given by an aggrieved person or any other person, either in writing or made orally, about the commission of a Cognizable Offence.
The investigation is started only after the filing of the FIR.
Who can lodge an FIR?
Anyone who knows about the commission of a cognizable offence can file an FIR. It is not necessary that only the victim of the crime should file an FIR.
A police officer who comes to know about a cognizable offence can file an FIR himself/herself.
An FIR can only be lodged in cases of cognizable offences.
General Diary (GD) vs. First Information Report (FIR):
A copy of each FIR is sent to the superior officers and to the concerned Judicial Magistrate.
A copy of GD is not sent to the Judicial Magistrate, though its copy is sent to a superior police officer.
The Magistrate of the district shall be at liberty to call for any inspection of such GD.
The signature of the complainant is obtained in the FIR Book as and when the complaint is given to the police station. On the other hand, there is no such requirement of obtaining signature of the complainant in the general diary.
The general diary is an internal police record, while in the case of F.I.R., a copy of these will be provided to the complainant.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/general-diary-entry-cannot-precede-registration-of-fir-except-where-preliminary-inquiry-is-needed-supreme-court-250620
Consider the following statements regarding the General Agreement on Trade in Services (GATS):
- It entered into force as a result of the Uruguay Round negotiations.
- It applies to services supplied in the exercise of governmental authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Around 72 nations have agreed to take on additional obligations in services under the General Agreement on Trade in Services (GATS) to ease non-goods trade among themselves and extended the similar concessions to all other members of the World Trade Organisation (WTO).
It is a treaty of the World Trade Organization (WTO).
It was created to extend the multilateral trading system to the service sector, in the same way, the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) provides such a system for merchandise trade.
It was signed at the Uruguay Round of Multilateral Trade Negotiations’s conclusion and entered into force on January 1, 1995.
Members: All WTO members are at the same time members of the GATS including India.
Basic obligations under the GATS may be categorized into two broad groups:
General obligations that apply to all members and services sector.
Specific commitments: These are obligations that apply only to the sectors inscribed in a member’s schedule of commitments. Such commitments are laid down in individual schedules whose scope may vary widely between members.
The GATS applies in principle to all service sectors, with two exceptions.
Services supplied in the exercise of governmental authority: These are services that are supplied neither on a commercial basis nor in competition with other suppliers.
These include social security schemes and any other public service, such as health or education that is provided at non-market conditions.
The Annex on Air Transport Services exempts from coverage measures affecting air traffic rights and services directly related to the exercise of such rights.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/policy/economy-services-pact-with-voluntary-obligations-comes-into-force-3407191/
Consider the following statements regarding the Africa Club:
- It is an alliance of African multilateral financial Institutions.
- It aims to eradicate poverty from all countries of the African Union.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, at the 37th African Union Summit member countries took an initiative of forming Africa Club.
What it is? It is the Alliance of African Multilateral Financial Institutions (which are African owned and controlled) launched at the African Union summit.
The initiative aims to amplify Africa’s influence in the global financial system by aligning its functions with the SDGs and the African Union’s Agenda 2063.
It seeks to introduce innovative financial instruments, provide a venue for debt management discussions and foster collaborative effort to address the specific needs of African countries.
Its members include African Export Import Bank, Trade and Development Bank, Africa Finance Corporation, African Reinsurance Corporation, African Trade and Investment Development Insurance, Shelter Afrique Development Bank and ZEP – RE (PTA Reinsurance Co).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/africa/african-leaders-demand-financial-systems-reform-launch-africa-club-at-37th-african-union-summit-94687
Pey Jal Survekshan Awards is an initiative of:
Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs
Explanation :
Recently, the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs announced the first Pey Jal Survekshan Awards.
A distinguished array of 130 awards is set to be bestowed, reflecting the remarkable accomplishments of cities and states.
The award consists of various categories;
Pey Jal Gold, Silver, and Bronze City Awards, where Gold signifies top performers in their respective population categories (1 to 10 Lakh, 10 to 40 Lakh, and More than 40 Lakh),
Silver denotes the 2nd position, and Bronze the 3rd.
The awards extend to commendations for Best Water Body, Sustainability Champion, Reuse Champion, Water Quality, City Saturation, and AMRUT 2.0 Rotating Trophy of the Year.
Parameters: It encompassed diverse parameters, including access, coverage, water quality at treatment plants and households, and sustainability regarding the health of water bodies, availability of SCADA/ flowmeters, and reuse of treated used water.
Cities will be graded on a star rating scale, ranging from 5 stars to No star, encapsulating their performance across these critical criteria.
Pey Jal Survekshan ensured clean water through independent NABL lab testing at source and citizen-end.
Using a GIS-enabled web portal, geo-tagging, and infrastructure mapping, the survey collected accurate and transparent data.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2009284
Consider the following statements regarding North Atlantic right whale:
- It inhabits the temperate and subpolar waters of the north Atlantic and north Pacific oceans.
- It is mostly found near bays and peninsulas and in shallow, coastal waters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently scientists have discovered that North Atlantic right whales are getting smaller, which is impacting their ability to breed.
These whales are migratory animals, spending the winter in warmer waters and migrating to the poles for cooler waters in late summer.
These whales inhabit the temperate and subpolar waters of the north Atlantic and north Pacific oceans.
Habitat: Depending on the time of year and which hemisphere they’re found, right whales will spend much of their time near bays and peninsulas and in shallow, coastal waters.
Distribution: These are generally restricted to the coastal waters of the East coast of the United States and Canada.
There are three recognized species of right whales that occur in different parts of the world. These are Southern right whales (Eubalaena australis), North Atlantic right whales (Eubalaena glacialis) and North Pacific right whales.
These whales often skim feed at or just below the water surface, slowly swimming through clouds of plankton with their mouths half open and then straining the plankton through their long baleen plates.
Conservation status
IUCN: Critically endangered
CITES: Appendix I
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.livescience.com/animals/whales/critically-endangered-right-whales-are-shrinking-with-drastic-consequences-for-their-population
Genie AI Model, which was recently in news, is developed by:
Explanation :
Recently, the Google DeepMind has just introduced Genie, a new model that can generate interactive video games from just a text or image prompt.
It is a foundation world model that is trained on videos sourced from the Internet.
The model can “generate an endless variety of playable (action-controllable) worlds from synthetic images, photographs, and even sketches.”
It is the first generative interactive environment that has been trained in an unsupervised manner from unlabelled internet videos.
Specifications: When it comes to size, Genie stands at 11B parameters and consists of a spatiotemporal video tokenizer, an autoregressive dynamics model, and a simple and scalable latent action model.
These technical specifications let Genie act in generated environments on a frame-by-frame basis even in the absence of training, labels, or any other domain-specific requirements.
Genie can be prompted to generate a diverse set of interactive and controllable environments although it is trained on video-only data.
It makes playable environments from a single image prompt.
It can be prompted with images it has never seen. This includes real world photographs, sketches, allowing people to interact with their imagined virtual worlds.
It is trained more on videos of 2D platformer games and robotics.
Genie is trained on a general method, allowing it to function on any type of domain, and it is scalable to even larger Internet datasets.
The standout aspect of Genie is its ability to learn and reproduce controls for in-game characters exclusively from internet videos.
This is noteworthy because internet videos do not have labels about the action that is performed in the video, or even which part of the image should be controlled.
It allows you to create an entire new interactive environment from a single image.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/google-deepmind-genie-ai-9184347/
Consider the following statements regarding the Maulana Azad Education Foundation (MAEF):
- It was established to promote education amongst the educationally backward minorities.
- It works under the Ministry of Education, Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Ministry of Minority Affairs recently ordered the closure of the Maulana Azad Education Foundation (MAEF).
About Maulana Azad Education Foundation (MAEF):
MAEF was established on the occasion of Maulana Abul Kalam Azad’s birth centenary celebrations.
The Foundation is a voluntary, non-political, non-profit making social service organization.
It was registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, on 6th July 1989.
The Foundation was established to promote education amongst the educationally backward minorities in particular and other weaker sections in general.
It is fully funded by the Ministry of Minority Affairs, Govt. of India.
Structure:
The Hon’ble Minister of Minority Affairs is Ex-Officio President of the Foundation.
The General Body of the Foundation consists of 15 members, of which six are ex-officio, including the President, MAEF, and rest nine are nominated by the President, MAEF.
The management of the Foundation is entrusted with its Governing Body, which consists of six members (including the President, MAEF) selected from amongst the members of the General Body.
Through programmes like the Begum Hazrat Mahal National Scholarship Scheme and the Khwaja Gharib Nawaz Skill Development Training Scheme, the Foundation worked to improve employment opportunities for minorities and awarded scholarships to deserving girls from religious minorities.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/centre-orders-closure-of-maulana-azad-education-foundation-101709125824746.html
With reference to rights under Article 25 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
- They cover both religious beliefs (doctrines) and religious practices (rituals).
- They are available only to the citizens of India.
- They are subject to public order, morality and health.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Kerala High Court recently observed that the fundamental right under Article 25 of the Constitution to enter a temple for worship does not give the right to any member of the Hindu community to perform the role of Archakas (priests).
About Article 25of Indian Constitution:
Article 25 says that all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion. The implications of these are:
Freedom of conscience: Inner freedom of an individual to mould his relation with God or Creatures in whatever way he desires.
Right to profess: Declaration of one’s religious beliefs and faith openly and freely.
Right to practice: Performance of religious worship, rituals, ceremonies, and exhibition of beliefs and ideas.
Right to propagate: Transmission and dissemination of one’s religious beliefs to others or exposition of the tenets of one’s religion. But it does not include the right to convert another person to one’s own religion. Forcible conversions impinge on the ‘freedom of conscience’ guaranteed to all the persons alike.
Thus, Article 25 covers not only religious beliefs (doctrines) but also religious practices (rituals).
Moreover, these rights are available to all persons–citizens as well as non-citizens.
However, these rights are subject to public order, morality, health, and other provisions relating to fundamental rights.
Further, nothing in this article shall affect the operation of any existing law or prevent the State from making any law to
regulate or restrict any economic, financial, political, or other secular activity associated with religious practice;
provide for social welfare and reform, or throw open Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus;
Article 25 also contains two explanations: one, the wearing and carrying of kirpans is to be included in the profession of the Sikh religion; and two, the Hindus, in this context, include Sikhs, Jains, and Buddhists.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.barandbench.com/news/right-hindu-public-under-article-25-enter-temple-worship-no-fundamental-right-perform-priest-kerala-high-court
With reference to Neolithic Period, consider the following statements:
- It was the final stage of cultural evolution among prehistoric humans.
- It was characterized by the beginning of a settled human lifestyle.
- It was followed by the Paleolithic Period.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Researchers recently unearthed an ancient burial site of a child with a pot beside it likely dating back to the neolithic period, at Chettimedu Pathur near Chennai.
About Neolithic Period:
The Neolithic Period, also called the New Stone Age, is the final stage of cultural evolution or technological development among prehistoric humans.
The term Neolithic is most frequently used in connection with agriculture, which is the time when cereal cultivation and animal domestication were introduced.
It is characterized by the beginning of a settled human lifestyle.
The Neolithic stage of development was attained during the Holocene Epoch (the last 11,700 years of Earth’s history).
The starting point of the Neolithic is generally thought to have occurred sometime around 10,000 BCE.
The Neolithic followed the Paleolithic Period, or the age of chipped-stone tools, and preceded the Bronze Age, or the early period of metal tools.
The Neolithic Revolution started in the Fertile Crescent, a region of the Middle East, where humans first took up farming.
Features of the Neolithic Age:
It was characterized by stone tools shaped by polishing or grinding, dependence on domesticated plants or animals, settlement in permanent villages, and the appearance of such crafts as pottery and weaving.
The houses were built of mud and reed in rectangular or circular shapes.
Alcohol was first produced during this period, and architecture, as well as its interior and exterior decoration, first appeared.
Status objects like elaborate pottery and carved jades were placed in tombs during the Neolithic period. This practice suggests two things: Neolithic people’s belief in the afterlife and the emergence of social classes. Only important and wealthy individuals had the privilege of being buried with these precious objects
End of the Neolithic Age:
Towards the end of the Neolithic era, copper metallurgy is introduced, which marks a transition period to the Bronze Age, sometimes referred to as the Chalcolithic or Eneolithic Era.
In time, bronze became the primary material for tools and weapons, and a good part of the stone technology became obsolete, signalling the end of the Neolithic and thus of the Stone Age.
Some of the important Neolithic sites in India include Burzahom in Kashmir, Chiron in Bihar and Uttar in Andhra Pradesh, and Edakkal caves in Kerala.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/tamil-nadu/2024/Feb/28/tamil-nadu-child-burial-site-dating-back-to-neolithic-age-unearthed-in-chengalpattu
With reference to National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), consider the following statements:
- It is a constitutional body.
- It is consulted by State Governments on all major policy matters affecting the socially and educationally backward classes.
- Its recommendations are binding on the Government.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) has raised serious objections to the West Bengal government’s recommendation to include 83 castes in the central list of Other Backward Classes (OBCs).
About National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC):
NCBC was initially constituted by the Central Government by the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993, under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
It has been accorded constitutional status through “The Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018”, whereby Article 338B has been inserted, forming a Commission for the socially and educationally backward classes to be known as the NCBC.
The amendment inserted Article 338B, Article 342A, and Clause 26C in Article 366.
Composition: The Commission consists of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson, and three other Members in the rank and pay of Secretary to the Government of India.
The Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and other Members of the Commission shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
Functions: It shall be the duty of the Commission
to investigate and monitor all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the socially and educationally backward classes under this Constitution or under any other law for the time being in force or under any order of the Government, and to evaluate the working of such safeguards;
to inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the socially and educationally backward classes;
to participate and advise on the socio-economic development of the socially and educationally backward classes and to evaluate the progress of their development under the Union and any State;
to present to the President, annually and at such other times as the Commission may deem fit, reports upon the working of those safeguards;
to make in such reports recommendations as to the measures that should be taken by the Union or any State for the effective implementation of those safeguards and other measures for the protection, welfare, and socio-economic development of the socially and educationally backward classes;
to discharge such other functions in relation to the protection, welfare, and development and advancement of the socially and educationally backward classes as the President may, subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament, by rule specify
The President shall cause all such reports to be laid before each House of Parliament along with a memorandum explaining the action taken or proposed to be taken on the recommendations relating to the Union and the reasons for the non-acceptance, if any, of any of such recommendations.
Powers:
While inquiring into any complaint, it will have all the powers of a civil court (it will be able to summon any person, ask for a document, and receive evidence on affidavits).
The Union and every State Government shall consult the Commission on all major policy matters affecting the socially and educationally backward classes.
The Commission shall have the power to regulate its own procedures.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/ncbc-objects-to-bengal-demand-to-include-83-castes-in-obc-list/articleshow/108082955.cms?from=mdr
The Kulasekarapattinam Spaceport, recently seen in the news, is located in:
Tamil Nadu
Explanation :
The Prime Minister recently laid the foundation stone for a new spaceport at Kulasekarapattinam in southern Tamil Nadu.
About Kulasekarapattinam Spaceport:
It is a new spaceport coming up at Kulasekarapattinam, a coastal hamlet near the temple town of Tiruchendur in Thoothukudi district in southern Tamil Nadu.
It will be second after the space agency’s existing Satish Dhawan Space Centre, founded in Andhra Pradesh’s Sriharikota in 1971, with two launch pads.
It will focus on the launch of Small Satellite Launch Vehicles (SSLVs) on a commercial basis.
It will house 35 facilities, including a launch pad, rocket integration facilities, ground range and checkout facilities, and a mobile launch structure (MLS) with checkout computers.
It would have the capacity to launch 24 satellites per year using a mobile launch structure.
Spread over 2,350 acres, the spaceport will help save fuel for small rocket launches as the port can launch rockets directly south over the Indian Ocean without requiring crossing landmasses.
This is unlike the existing launch site at the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, which adds more fuel requirements for launching into a polar orbit as rockets need to follow a curved path to the south to avoid Sri Lanka’s landmass.
It is estimated to cost Rs. 986 crore.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/kulasekarapattinam-a-sweet-spot-for-small-rocket-launches/article67894593.ece
Which one of the following best describes the ‘Regulatory Sandbox’?
It is a live testing of new low-cost financial products.
Explanation :
Recently, the Reserve Bank tweaked guidelines for Regulatory Sandbox (RS) scheme.
It refers to live testing of new products or services in a controlled regulatory environment.
It acts as a “safe space” for business as the regulators may or may not permit certain relaxations for the limited purpose of testing.
It can provide a structured avenue for the regulator to engage with the ecosystem and to develop innovation-enabling or innovation-responsive regulations that facilitate delivery of relevant, low-cost financial products.
It is potentially an important tool which enables more dynamic, evidence-based regulatory environments which learn from, and evolve with, emerging technologies.
Objectives
It provides an environment to innovative technology-led entities for limited-scale testing of a new product or service that may or may not involve some relaxation in a regulatory requirement before a wider-scale launch.
The RS is, at its core, a formal regulatory programme for market participants to test new products, services or business models with customers in a live environment, subject to certain safeguards and oversight.
The proposed financial service to be launched under the RS should include new or emerging technology, or use of existing technology in an innovative way and should address a problem, or bring benefits to consumers.
To foster responsible innovation in financial services, promote efficiency and bring benefit to consumers.
The RBI had issued the ‘Enabling Framework for Regulatory Sandbox’ in August 2019, after wide ranging consultations with stakeholders.
The recently updated framework requires
The sandbox entities to ensure compliance with provisions of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023.
The timelines of the various stages of the Regulatory Sandbox process have been revised from seven months to nine months
The target applicants for entry to the RS are fintech companies, including startups, banks, financial institutions, any other company, Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) and partnership firms, partnering with or providing support to financial services businesses.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/rbi-tweaks-norms-related-to-regulatory-sandbox-scheme/articleshow/108080201.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Financial Intelligence Unit:
- It disseminates information relating to suspected financial transactions.
- It works directly under the Prime Minister’s Office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India’s Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) is keeping a close eye on large cash deposits and withdrawals from cooperative banks ahead of the 2024 Lok Sabha elections.
It was set by the Government of India in November 2004.
It is the central national agency responsible for receiving, processing, analyzing and disseminating information relating to suspect financial transactions.
It is also responsible for coordinating and strengthening efforts of national and international intelligence, investigation and enforcement agencies in pursuing the global efforts against money laundering and financing of terrorism.
It is an independent body reporting directly to the Economic Intelligence Council (EIC) headed by the union Finance Minister.
Functions:
Collection of Information: Act as the central reception point for receiving Cash Transaction reports (CTRs), Non-Profit Organisation Transaction Report (NTRs), Cross Border Wire Transfer Reports (CBWTRs), Reports on Purchase or Sale of Immovable Property (IPRs) and Suspicious Transaction Reports (STRs) from various reporting entities.
Analysis of Information: Analyze received information in order to uncover patterns of transactions suggesting suspicion of money laundering and related crimes.
Sharing of Information: Share information with national intelligence/law enforcement agencies, national regulatory authorities and foreign Financial Intelligence Units.
Act as Central Repository: Establish and maintain national data base on the basis of reports received from reporting entities.
Coordination: Coordinate and strengthen collection and sharing of financial intelligence through an effective national, regional and global network to combat money laundering and related crimes.
Research and Analysis: Monitor and identify strategic key areas on money laundering trends, typologies and developments.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/elections/lok-sabha/india/financial-intelligence-unit-to-track-money-flow-ahead-of-lok-sabha-polls/articleshow/108083047.cms
‘Roen olmi’, recently seen in the news, is a:
mushroom
Explanation :
Two researchers in Goa have said that they synthesised gold nanoparticles from a wild mushroom species that is widely eaten as a delicacy in the coastal state.
It is a mushroom of the Termitomyces species.
It grows on termite hills and is locally known as ‘roen olmi’ in Goa.
It is an edible wild mushroom popular among Goans and consumed during the monsoons.
These mushrooms have no independent existence. They grow only in association with termites.
Habitat: It is endemic to the Western Ghats, where the thick forest cover and high humidity provides an ideal breeding ground.
Ecological significance: It plays a very important role as a powerful biodegrading fungus in forest and grassland ecosystems converting 50% dead plant material on the ground into rich soil.
In fact, all Termitomyces species are edible and have unique food value attributed to their texture, flavour, nutrient content, and beneficial mediational properties.
Additionally, Termito-myces have been recognized for their ethno-medicinal importance in various indigenous communities throughout Asia and Africa.
Termitomyces species possess various beneficial antioxidant and antimicrobial properties
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/mushrooms-into-gold-goa-researchers-9185110/
With reference to SWAYAM Plus’ Platform, consider the following statements:
- It offer programmes to enhance employability of youths.
- It provides content in Indian regional languages.
- It is managed by the NITI Aayog.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister of Education and Skill Development and Entrepreneurship launched the ‘SWAYAM Plus’ platform.
It offers courses developed collaboratively with the industry.
This platform aims to enhance employability of both college students and lifelong learners.
It will offer programmes in sectors like Manufacturing, Energy, Computer Science and Engineering/IT/ITES, Management Studies, Healthcare, Hospitality and Tourism besides Indian Knowledge Systems.
Objectives
It primarily focuses on building an ecosystem for all stakeholders in professional and career development, including learners, course providers, industry, academia, and strategic partners.
It enables a mechanism that provides credit recognition for high-quality certifications and courses offered by the best industry and academia partners.
Reaching a large learner base by catering to learning across the country, with a focus on reaching learners from tiers 2 and 3 towns and rural areas.
It also envisions bringing in features such as access to mentorship, scholarships and job placements as value-added services in due course of time, thus building a digital ecosystem for learners to pursue upskilling and re-skilling at all levels, namely certificate, diploma or degree.
It features innovative elements such as multilingual content (available in 12 major Indian languages of the country), AI-enabled guidance, credit recognition, and pathways to employment.
These employability and professional development‐focused programmes have been developed with industry players including L&T, Microsoft and CISCO.
The Indian Institute of Technology Madras (IIT Madras) will be operating this Platform.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/education/education-minister-launches-swayam-plus-platform-9185452/
Consider the following statements regarding Haemophilia A:
- The gene for hemophilia is carried on the X chromosome.
- It affects the body’s ability to form blood clots.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the union Science and Technology Minister told that India has conducted the first human clinical trial of gene therapy for ‘haemophilia A’ at Christian Medical College – Vellore.
It is a genetic disorder that affects the body’s ability to form blood clots.
It is a rare disorder in which the blood doesn’t clot in the typical way because it doesn’t have enough blood-clotting proteins.
It is a sex linked disorder. The gene for hemophilia is carried on the X chromosome.
Causes: It is caused by a mutation or change, in one of the genes, that provides instructions for making the clotting factor proteins needed to form a blood clot. This type is caused by a lack or decrease of clotting factor VIII.
Symptoms: Signs and symptoms of hemophilia vary, depending on the level of clotting factors.
Males are much more likely to have hemophilia than are females.
Treatment:
It involves replacement therapy, which involves infusing clotting factor concentrates into the bloodstream to help the blood clot.
Other treatments may include medications to promote clotting or surgery to repair damage caused by bleeding.
What is Gene therapy?
It is a technique that modifies a person’s genes to treat or cure disease.
Gene therapies can work by several mechanisms:
Replacing a disease-causing gene with a healthy copy of the gene
Inactivating a disease-causing gene that is not functioning properly
Introducing a new or modified gene into the body to help treat a disease
Gene therapy products are being studied to treat diseases including cancer, genetic diseases, and infectious diseases.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-conducted-1st-human-clinical-trials-for-haemophilia-a-gene-therapy-science-and-technology-minister-9187016/
Consider the following statements with reference to the National Credit Framework (NCrF):
- It is a set of guidelines to be followed by schools, colleges and universities in adopting the credit system.
- It has brought the entire school education system under the ambit of credits for the first time.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has proposed significant changes to the academic framework for secondary and higher secondary education.
The proposed changes form part of the CBSE’s broader initiative to implement a national credit framework in school education.
Based on the inter-ministerial committee report, the Union Ministry of Education (MoE) unveiled the draft NCrF in 2022.
The National Credit Framework is a set of guidelines to be followed by schools, colleges and universities in adopting the credit system. So, statement 1 is correct.
It also brings the entire school education system under the ambit of credits for the first time.
So far, only the National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS) followed a credit system. The NCrF also covers skill and vocational education. So, statement 2 is correct.
The document lists theoretical, applied sciences or vocational and skill disciplines that can count towards credits earned during school education.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Payments Banks in India:
- They are allowed to accept deposits from individuals and small businesses, up to a maximum limit of Rs. 2 lakhs per account.
- They are permitted to issue credit cards and provide loans to customers, similar to traditional banks.
- They are not required to maintain cash reserve ratio (CRR) with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India barred Paytm Payments Bank Ltd from accepting fresh deposits and making credit transactions from March 2024. This decision essentially bars Paytm Payments Bank from offering all its core services — including accounts and wallets.
While the action is technically not a cancellation of Paytm Payments Bank’s licence, it practically constricts the company’s operations to a great extent.
Payments Banks in India are indeed allowed to accept deposits from individuals and small businesses, subject to a maximum limit of Rs. 2 lakhs per account. So, statement 1 is correct.
Payments Banks are not permitted to issue credit cards or provide loans to customers, similar to traditional banks. They are primarily focused on providing basic banking services such as savings accounts, remittance services, and bill payment facilities.So, statement 2 is not correct.
Payments Banks are required to maintain Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Interim Budget:
- There is no constitutional provision for an interim budget.
- The government is allowed to revise tax rates through the interim budget.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman presented the Interim Union Budget for 2024-2025 in Parliament.
There is no constitutional provision for an interim budget. So, statement 1 is correct.
Hence, the Centre chooses to seek the Lower House’s approval for the funds required for the transition period (April - July) till the new government presents a full Budget— via the votes on account provision.
In an interim budget, the Finance Minister presents the current state of the Indian economy, its fiscal status including India’s revised estimated growth in the next year.
While the Centre has to desist from announcing any major scheme which could influence voters or present an Economic Survey, the government is allowed to revise tax rates via an interim budget. So, statement 2 is correct.
The interim budget too is presented to both Houses on February 1 by the Finance Minister, put to vote and then sent for Presidential approval.
Like the Union budget, the interim budget too is debated in the Lok Sabha before passage and is valid for the entire year though it is merely a transition arrangement.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Vote on Account:
- Article 116 of the Constitution deals with the provisions related to the Vote on Account.
- It remains valid only for two months and can be extended up to four months.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Article 116 of the Constitution allows the Lower House to make any grant in advance for the estimated expenditure for part of any financial year by voting and passing such a legislation. This is called vote on account. So, statement 1 is correct.
A simple vote on account includes presenting the Centre’s fund requirements for salaries, ongoing projects and other expenditure for the transitional period, and is then passed via the Lok Sabha sans debate.
It cannot make any changes to tax rates. It is also valid only for two months and can be extended up to four months.So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):
- It measures the simultaneous deprivations experienced by individuals in health, education, and living standards.
- It is developed by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI).
- It assesses poverty at the individual level and does not take into account regional or national disparities.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is a measure of poverty that captures the simultaneous deprivations experienced by individuals in health, education, and living standards. It goes beyond income-based measures of poverty. So, statement 1 is correct.
MPI does not rely solely on income levels but considers multiple dimensions of poverty, including health, education, and living standards. It provides a more comprehensive understanding of poverty.
The MPI was developed by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) as a comprehensive measure of poverty. So, statement 2 is correct.
While MPI primarily assesses poverty at the individual level, it can also be disaggregated to assess poverty at regional, national, or even global levels. It allows for the examination of poverty across different demographic groups and geographical areas. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Commonwealth Legal Education Association (CLEA):
- It deals with regional Chapters and Committees in Asia, Southern Africa and the Caribbean.
- The CLEA fosters and promotes high standards of legal education in the Commonwealth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
PM Modi inaugurated the Commonwealth Legal Education Association (CLEA) - Commonwealth Attorneys and Solicitors General Conference (CASGC) 2024 at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi.
The theme of the conference is “Cross-Border Challenges in Justice Delivery”.
This conference deliberated on important issues pertaining to law and justice like:
judicial transition and the ethical dimensions of legal practice;
executive accountability; and
revisiting modern-day legal education, among others.
The CLEA fosters and promotes high standards of legal education in the Commonwealth. So, statement 2 is correct.
Founded in 1971, it is a Commonwealth-wide body with regional Chapters and Committees in Asia, Southern Africa, West Africa, the Caribbean and Europe. So, statement 1 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which one of the following activities would most likely increase the fiscal deficit in an economy?
Undertaking expansionary fiscal policies with increased infrastructure spending during a recession.
Explanation :
The Union Finance Minister announced during her Budget speech that the Centre would reduce its fiscal deficit to 5.1% of gross domestic product (GDP) in 2024-25.
She further added that the fiscal deficit would be pared to below 4.5% of GDP by 2025-26.
Fiscal deficit refers to the shortfall in a government’s revenue when compared to its expenditure.
When a government’s expenditure exceeds its revenues, the government will have to borrow money or sell assets to fund the deficit.
An increase in the fiscal deficit may be justified when the government implements expansionary fiscal policies, such as increased infrastructure spending, during a recession or economic downturn.
This is because such measures aim to stimulate economic activity, create jobs, and boost demand, which can help revive economic growth.
An increase in the fiscal deficit would likely be warranted to address the challenges posed by a recessionary environment.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Magh Bihu:
- It is a harvesting festival celebrated in Assam.
- The Dimasa Kacharis tribe is known to be the festival’s first-known ancestors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
About Magh Bihu
Magh Bihu, also known as Bhogali Bihu or Maghor Bihu, is a harvesting festival celebrated in Assam. So, statement 1 is correct.
The festival has its roots in the agricultural traditions of Assam and falls in the month of Magh, which falls in January. It marks the end of the harvesting season.
History
Bihu’s history dates back to ancient times (3500 BC) when people offered fire sacrifices to improve their harvest.
The Dimasa Kacharis tribe is known to be the festival’s first-known ancestors. So, statement 2 is correct.
Rituals
Magh Bihu is celebrated over two days.
The first day is known as Uruka or Bihu eve.
On this day, a bonfire is burnt with people singing Bihu songs, beating Dhol, and celebrating with their loved ones.
The main Magh Bihu is observed the next day.
People take a bath early in the morning and play traditional Assamese games like Tekeli Bonga (pot-breaking) and buffalo fighting.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements is correct with reference to Northern Ireland?
It is part of the United Kingdom, with a history marked by ethno-political conflict known as the Troubles.
Explanation :
An Irish nationalist made history recently by becoming Northern Ireland’s first minister as the government returned to work after a two-year boycott.
The Parliament of Northern Ireland was paralysed over new trade rules between the European Union and the United Kingdom necessitated by Brexit.
Northern Ireland is located on the northern part of the island of Ireland and is one of the four constituent countries of the United Kingdom.
Northern Ireland’s history is marked by ethno-political conflict, particularly during the period (1968 to 1998) known as the Troubles.
Therefore option (b) is the correct answer.
What is the primary objective of the PENCIL (Platform for Effective Enforcement for No Child Labour) launched by the Government of India?
To monitor and enforce labor laws related to child labor and ensure effective coordination among government agencies, NGOs, and stakeholders.
Explanation :
Explanation:
The Election Commission of India (ECI) said it issued directions to political parties to refrain from using children in election campaigns.
The ECI asked parties to adhere to the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 and a Bombay High Court order of August 4, 2014.
The Bombay High Court, in August 2014, emphasised the need to ensure that parties do not allow children to participate in election-related activities.
The primary objective of the PENCIL platform launched by the Government of India is to monitor and enforce labor laws related to child labor and ensure effective coordination among government agencies, NGOs, and stakeholders.
It serves as a platform for reporting, monitoring, and tracking cases of child labor across the country, facilitating the rescue and rehabilitation of child laborers and ensuring their access to education and social services.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the CAR-T cell therapy:
- It involves modification of a patient’s T cells to express chimeric antigen receptors (CARs) on their surface.
- The CARs in CAR-T cell therapy are designed to recognize and bind to specific antigens expressed on cancer cells.
- NexCAR19 is India’s first indigenously-developed CAR-T cell therapy.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All three
Consider the following statements with reference to the 2016 Nabam Rebia judgment:
- It was related to the disqualification of legislators in a State Assembly.
- The judgment highlighted the importance of maintaining the separation of powers.
- It addressed issues related to the appointment and removal of the Speaker of a State Legislative Assembly.
- The judgment emphasized the need for transparency and accountability in the functioning of State Governments.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Election Commission of India ruled that Ajit Pawar’s faction is the Nationalist Congress Party (NCP) and allowed it to use the party name and symbol.
The Symbols Order, 1968 empowers EC to decide on the claim of rival factions in case of split.
The 2016 Nabam Rebia judgment did not concern the disqualification of legislators in a state assembly. Instead, it revolved around the constitutional validity of actions taken by the Governor of Arunachal Pradesh regarding the convening of the state legislative assembly. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The judgment indeed highlighted the importance of maintaining the separation of powers. It underscored the principle that the Governor, as part of the executive branch, should not interfere with the functioning of the legislative branch (state assembly) beyond the powers vested in the office. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Nabam Rebia judgment addressed issues related to the appointment and removal of the Speaker of the Arunachal Pradesh Legislative Assembly. It ruled against the actions of the Governor in convening a session of the legislative assembly and presiding over the proceedings to remove the Speaker. So, statement 3 is correct.
While transparency and accountability are important principles in governance, the Nabam Rebia judgment did not specifically emphasize these aspects in the functioning of state governments. The focus of the judgment was primarily on upholding constitutional principles and preserving the independence of state legislative bodies from executive interference. So, statement 4 is not correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- The Constitution of India requires the President to constitute a Finance Commission (FC) at an interval of five years or earlier.
- The Finance Commission has the responsibility to make recommendations regarding the division of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the states.
- The Central taxes devolved to States are not untied funds.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Kerala government, led by CPI (M), staged an agitation at Jantar Mantar in New Delhi on February 8.
The Finance Commissions recommend the States’ share in the net tax revenue of the Union government.
Under Article 280, the President is required to constitute a Finance Commission (FC) at an interval of five years or earlier.So, statement 1 is correct.
Article 280(3)(a) says that the FC has the responsibility to make recommendations regarding the division of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the states. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Central taxes devolved to States are untied funds, and states can spend them according to their discretion. So, statement 3 is not correct.
The centre also provides grants to states and local bodies which must be used for specified purposes.
These grants have ranged between 12% to 19% of the total transfers.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Smart City Mission (SCM):
- Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs is the nodal ministry responsible for the implementation of the SCM.
- To be eligible for the scheme, cities must meet certain population requirements.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1 only
Explanation :
The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Housing and Urban Affairs has submitted its report on the evaluation of the Smart Cities Mission presented in the Lok Sabha.
The report said that 400 projects, out of the 7,970, worth Rs 22,814 crore would take beyond December 2024 to complete.
Last year, the Ministry had extended the mission’s deadline from June 2023 to June 2024.
Launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on June 25, 2015, the Smart Cities Mission is an initiative of the Union Housing and Urban Affairs Ministry. So, statement 1 is correct.
Cities across the country were asked to submit proposals for projects to improve municipal services and to make their jurisdictions more liveable.
Based on their submission, cities are selected through a competitive and transparent process for this mission. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- Standing deposit facility (SDF) is a window for banks to borrow from the central bank in an emergency situation when inter-bank liquidity dries up completely.
- Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) is a liquidity window through which the RBI will give banks an option to park excess liquidity with it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has kept the main policy instrument, the repo rate, unchanged at 6.5%.
The decision was taken by a 5-1 majority by the six-member MPC in its bi-monthly policy review.
Standing deposit facility (SDF): It is a liquidity window through which the RBI will give banks an option to park excess liquidity with it. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Marginal Standing Facility: It is a window for banks to borrow from the central bank in an emergency situation when inter-bank liquidity dries up completely. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian Ocean Conference (IOC):
- IOC is an annual international conference that focuses on the geopolitical and strategic importance of the Indian Ocean region.
- It is organised by the India Foundation.
- IOC is exclusively attended by the member states of the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA).
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The 7th edition of the Indian Ocean Conference was held in Perth, Australia on 9-10 February, 2024.
The theme of this edition of the conference is “Towards a Stable and Sustainable Indian Ocean”.
IOC is an annual international conference that focuses on the geopolitical, economic, and strategic importance of the Indian Ocean region. So, statement 1 is correct.
The conference brings together policymakers, scholars, business leaders, and civil society representatives to discuss issues related to security, trade, and cooperation in the Indian Ocean region.
The first edition of the Conference was held in Singapore in 2016.
Organised by - the India Foundation in partnership with other organizations in the region. So, statement 2 is correct.
The IOC is not exclusively attended by the member states of the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA); it may include external participants as well. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the telecom spectrum auction:
- It is a process through which the government allocates radio frequencies to telecom operators for usage.
- It helps in determining its market value and ensures efficient utilization by telecom service providers.
- Spectrum auction in India is conducted by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI).
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Cabinet has approved telecom spectrum auction across multiple bands at a base price of Rs 96,317.65 crore.
The Cabinet also approved the proposal, which entails granting Indian Railways 5 Megahertz of wireless spectrum, largely free of cost, for real-time data to enhance passenger safety.
Telecom spectrum auction is a process through which the government allocates radio frequencies, but it’s more about assigning rights to use these frequencies rather than direct allocation. So, statement 1 is correct.
Telecom spectrum auctions help determine the market value of spectrum by letting telecom operators bid for the rights. This process ensures that the spectrum is efficiently allocated to those who value it the most. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Department of Telecommunications (DoT) conducts spectrum auctions in India. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) provides recommendations to the government on spectrum auctions.So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- A mineral is critical when the risk of supply shortage and associated impact on the economy is (relatively) higher than other raw materials.
- In order to maintain a resilient supply chain for critical minerals, India has joined the Mineral Security Partnership (MSP).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Union Mines Ministry has suggested sharing critical mineral block proposals received from partner countries in the US-led Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) with central public sector undertakings or PSUs. This would enable them to acquire critical mineral assets abroad.
Furthermore, the ministry has recommended that PSUs provide clear financial mandates to relevant subsidiaries to expedite the acquisition process.
PSUs such as Coal India Limited, NLC India Ltd, and NTPC Ltd have expressed interest in securing lithium, cobalt, and graphite assets overseas.
A mineral is critical when the risk of supply shortage and associated impact on the economy is (relatively) higher than other raw materials. These minerals are essential for economic development and national security, and their lack of availability/ the concentration of extraction/ processing in a few geographical locations could potentially lead to supply chain vulnerabilities. So, statement 1 is correct.
In July 2023, govt. released a list of 30 critical minerals for India. India has recently been inducted into MSP. So, statement 2 is correct.
MSP is a US-led collaboration of 14 countries that aims to catalyse public and private investment in critical mineral supply chains globally.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
In which of the following scenarios would the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA), 1967, likely be invoked?
A terrorist organization plotting to carry out bomb attacks in public places.
Explanation :
Recently, the Supreme Court denied bail to Gurwinder Singh, an accused in an alleged Khalistan module.
Courts have sometimes granted bail under the UAPA, despite its stricter bail conditions. They have interpreted Section 43D (5) to allow bail in exceptional cases.
The Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA), 1967, is primarily aimed at preventing unlawful activities that threaten the sovereignty and integrity of India.
Option C reflects a scenario where the UAPA would likely be invoked, as it involves a terrorist organization plotting to carry out bomb attacks to destabilize national security.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the PM SVANidhi Scheme:
- It is a micro-credit facility that provides street vendors a collateral-free loan of Rs 10,000 with low rates of interest for a period of one year.
- It was launched by the Ministry of Social Justice.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1 only
All three pairs
Explanation :
Amid the ongoing political shift in Bihar, a floor test was held in the Bihar Legislative Assembly. Bihar Chief Minister Nitish Kumar won the vote.
Article 174 of the Constitution of India gives the Governor the power to:
Summon the state legislature to meet at a time and place of their choosing
Prorogue the House
Dissolve the Legislative Assembly. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Article 163 of the Indian Constitution states that the Council of Ministers, led by the Chief Minister, will aid and advise the Governor in his functions. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Article 164 of Indian Constitution states that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister, and the Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
So, all three of the above pairs are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Minimum Support Price (MSP):
- It is market intervention by the Government to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices during bumper production years.
- These are announced by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.
- The recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops forms the basis of these announcements
How many of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
All three
Explanation :
A major demand of the farmers protesting in Delhi is for the enactment of a law to guarantee minimum support prices (MSP) for all crops, as per the formula recommended by the Dr M S Swaminathan Commission.
This comes at a time when a committee appointed by the central government in July 2022 continues to deliberate on ways to make MSP more effective and transparent.
MSP is a form of market intervention (a policy decision not enforceable by law) by the Government to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices during bumper production years. So, statement 1 is correct.
These are announced by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (Chaired by the Prime Minister of India). So, statement 2 is correct.
The recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops forms the basis of these announcements. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, all three of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the location of the United Arab Emirates (UAE)
It is strategically positioned on the Persian Gulf, sharing maritime borders with Iran and Qatar.
Explanation :
PM Modi is on an official visit to the United Arab Emirates. This is his seventh visit to the UAE since 2015 and the third in the last eight months.
The UAE is indeed strategically situated on the eastern coast of the Arabian Peninsula, along the Persian Gulf, and shares maritime borders with Iran and Qatar.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the World Governments Summit:
- It is a global platform dedicated to shaping the future of government worldwide.
- It is an annual event held in Dubai, United Arab Emirates.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Both 1 and 2
Consider the following statements with reference to the electoral bond:
- It is a bearer instrument that is payable to the bearer on demand to donate the contributions to political parties.
- Only registered political parties, upon fulfilment of certain conditions, are eligible to receive electoral bonds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A five-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court unanimously struck down the Centre’s Electoral Bond Scheme (EBS) for being unconstitutional.
It underscored that the scheme violates the right to information under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution.
Along with the EBS, the Apex Court also struck down several amendments that the government made in key laws to facilitate corporate donations to political parties.
The amendments were made through The Finance Act, 2016, and The Finance Act, 2017, before the EBS was introduced in January 2018.
An electoral bond is a bearer instrument, like a promissory note, that is payable to the bearer on demand to donate their contributions to political parties. So, statement 1 is correct.
Eligibility:
Only political parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and which secured not less than 1% of votes polled in the last general election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of the State, are eligible to receive electoral bonds. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY), consider the following statements:
- The scheme is a combination of Centrally Sponsored and Central Sector Scheme.
- The Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare is the nodal ministry.
- The scheme aims to enhance fisheries sector exports to Rs. 1 lakh crores by 2024-25.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The PMMSY is an umbrella scheme with two separate components – Central Sector Scheme and Centrally Sponsored Scheme. So, statement 1 is correct.
Central Sector Scheme – The project cost will be borne by the Central government
Centrally Sponsored Scheme – All the sub-components/activities will be implemented by the States/UTs and the cost will be shared between Centre and State.
Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying is the nodal ministry for the scheme. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The scheme aims to enhance fisheries sector exports to Rs. 1 lakh crores by 2024-25. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the OpenAI:
- It is a non-profit organization founded with the goal of advancing digital intelligence in the way that is most likely to benefit humanity.
- It was founded by a group of scientists, including Elon Musk and Mark Zuckerberg, in 2015.
- GPT-3, developed by OpenAI, is a language model that uses artificial intelligence and deep learning techniques.
- OpenAI has exclusively focused on non-commercial research projects and has not engaged in any commercial applications of its technologies.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
OpenAI, the creator of the ChatGPT, has unveiled a new generative artificial intelligence (GenAI) model that can convert a text prompt into video.
GenAI is a type of artificial intelligence that uses machine learning to create new content based on user prompts.
GenAI models learn patterns and structure from training data, and then use that information to generate new data with similar characteristics.
The model, called Sora, can generate videos up to a minute long while maintaining visual quality and adherence to the user’s prompt.
OpenAI is a research organization with the mission of ensuring that artificial general intelligence (AGI) benefits all of humanity. It was initially founded as a non-profit organization. So, statement 1 is correct.
OpenAI was founded by Elon Musk, Sam Altman, Greg Brockman, Ilya Sutskever, John Schulman, and Wojciech Zaremba. Mark Zuckerberg is not among the founders. So, statement 2 is not correct.
GPT-3 (Generative Pre-trained Transformer 3) is a language model developed by OpenAI. It is known for its advanced natural language processing capabilities and is based on deep learning techniques. So, statement 3 is correct.
While OpenAI started as a non-profit, it has transitioned to a for-profit model to attract funding for its ambitious projects. OpenAI actively engages in commercial applications and partnerships alongside its research initiatives. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements best describes the role and function of the National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd (NAFED)?
C.
NAFED is a cooperative federation that facilitates the marketing of agricultural produce and provides support to farmers through procurement, storage, and distribution activities.
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Agriculture Minister participated in the Pulses Convention-2024 organised by the Global Pulses Confederation (GPC) and National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd (NAFED).
The convention’s themes include strategies for India’s self-sufficiency in pulse production, enhancing trade and sales, and networking opportunities.
About NAFED
NAFED is an organization that deals with marketing cooperatives for agricultural produce in India.
It was established in October 1958 under the Multi State Cooperative Societies Act.
NAFED is an apex organization under the Ministry of Agriculture.
Objectives
NAFED’s objectives include organizing, promoting and developing marketing, processing and storage of agricultural, horticultural, and forest produce.
It also provides information about internal trade, consumer marketing, organic farming, agro-commodities, and more.
Members
Agricultural farmers are the main members of NAFED, who have the authority to say in the form of members of the General Body in the working of NAFED.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC):
- DAC is the highest decision-making body in the Ministry of Defence regarding acquisition proposals.
- It decides on new capital acquisitions for the Indian Coast Guard.
- The DAC is headed by the Prime Minister.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC), under the chairmanship of defence minister Rajnath Singh, cleared capital acquisition proposals worth Rs 84,560 crore.
This has been done to boost the capabilities of the Armed Forces and the Indian Coast Guard.
DAC is the highest decision-making body in the Ministry of Defence regarding acquisition proposals. So, statement 1 is correct.
It decides on new policies and capital acquisitions for the Indian military, including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and the Indian Coast Guard. So, statement 2 is correct.
The DAC is headed by the Defence Minister. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Security Council (UNSC):
- There are 15 members in the UNSC.
- A resolution gets adopted in UNSC if it gets at least 8 votes in favour and is not vetoed by any permanent member.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 only
Explanation :
India’s Permanent Representative at the UN Ruchira Kamboj, speaking at the Inter-Governmental Negotiations on Security Council Reform stressed upon the need for comprehensive reform of the Security Council.
India has questioned how much longer can the will of five permanent members of the UNSC continue to override the collective voice of the world organisation’s 188 member states.
India also stressed that equity must be the cornerstone of global efforts to reform the 15-nation UN body.
Equity demands that every nation, irrespective of its size or power, be afforded an equal opportunity to shape global decision-making.
India highlighted that expanding only in the non-permanent category of the Council will not solve the problem.
It will in fact will widen the difference between permanent and non-permanent members even more, thereby perpetuating inequities instead of removing.
There are 15 members in the UNSC (5 permanent + 10 non-permanent). So, statement 1 is correct.
A resolution in the UNSC is adopted if nine or more of the 15 Council members vote for the resolution, and if it is not vetoed by any of the five permanent members. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- While all Money Bills are Financial Bills, all Financial Bills are not Money Bills.
- The Rajya Sabha has no power to reject or amend a Money Bill.
- No one can introduce or move money Bills in the Lok Sabha, except on the President’s recommendation.
- The Speaker certifies a Bill as a Money Bill and the Speaker’s decision is final.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All four
Explanation :
Recently, the five-judge bench of the Supreme Court declared the electoral bonds scheme unconstitutional. However, it postponed deciding on the government’s use of money Bills to enact the laws introducing the electoral bonds.
Pleas challenging the use of the money Bill route are pending before a seven-judge bench that is yet to be formed.
While all Money Bills are Financial Bills, all Financial Bills are not Money Bills. So, statement 1 is correct.
E.g., the Finance Bill which only contains provisions related to tax proposals would be a Money Bill.
However, a Bill that contains some provisions related to taxation or expenditure, but also covers other matters would be considered as a Financial Bill.
The Rajya Sabha has no power to reject or amend a Money Bill. So, statement 2 is correct.
After being passed by the Lok Sabha, money Bills are sent to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations.
Within 14 days, the Upper House must submit the Bill back to the Lower House with its non-binding recommendations.
If the Lok Sabha rejects the recommendations, the Bill is deemed to have passed by both Houses in the form in which it was passed by the Lok Sabha without the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.
Even if the Rajya Sabha doesn’t respond with its recommendations within 14 days, the same consequences would follow.
No one can introduce or move money Bills in the Lok Sabha, except on the President’s recommendation. So, statement 3 is correct.
The Speaker certifies a Bill as a Money Bill, and the Speaker’s decision is final. So, statement 4 is correct.
Over the last seven years, the government has introduced multiple legislations through the money Bill route, the most notable of which are the Aadhaar Act, 2016, and the Finance Act, 2017.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)?
GSLV is developed to launch satellites and other space objects into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbits (GTO).
Consider the following statements:
- The subject of forests is included in the Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution’s Seventh Schedule.
- The 44thAmendment Act moved forests and the protection of wild animals and birds from the State List to the Concurrent List.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court told States and Union Territories to act as per the definition of ‘forest’ laid down in its 1996 judgment for identifying and preserving forest land.
It asked States/UTs to refrain from using the 2023 amendment to the Forest (Conservation) Act.
The subject of forests is included in the Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution’s Seventh Schedule. So, statement 1 is correct.
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 moved forests and the protection of wild animals and birds from the State List to the Concurrent List. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI):
- It is an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India.
- It is an initiative taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Bank’s Association (IBA).
Select the incorrect answer using the code given below:
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
In its recent report, the Standing Committee on Communications and Information Technology expressed worries about foreign-owned fintech apps having too much control in India.
The committee suggested that Indian-owned apps should be encouraged more.
It pointed out that while the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) made up a large portion (73.5%) of all digital payments in terms of volume in the fiscal year 2022-23.
However, its share of the total payment value was much smaller, at only 6.67%.
NPCI is an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India. So, statement 1 is correct.
The objective of NPCI is to create a robust Payment & Settlement Infrastructure in India.
The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is an initiative taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Bank’s Association (IBA) to operate the retail payments and settlement systems in India. This organisation was founded in the year 2008 under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. NPCI has been incorporated as a ‘not for profit’ company under section 8 of Companies Act 2013. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the answer.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 142 of Indian constitution:
- It confers on the Supreme Court plenary power to pass such decree or make such order as it is necessary for doing complete justice.
- Under it, the court can ignore the substantive rights of a litigant under the existing law.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court has quashed the result of the January 30 elections for the post of Mayor of the Chandigarh Municipal Corporation.
The apex court declared the AAP-Congress candidate as the winner instead of the previously declared BJP candidate.
In overturning the results, the Supreme Court invoked the sweeping powers conferred on the court under Article 142 of the Constitution.
The Art. 142 confers on the Supreme Court plenary power to pass such decree or make such order as it is necessary for doing complete justice. It does not provide unfettered power to the SC as the highest court itself has recognized that the power under Art 142 has certain limitations and fetters. So, statement 1 is correct.
SC has held that, while exercising power under this article, the court should not ignore the substantive rights of a litigant under the existing law. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which among the following options represent the example of Digital Health?
.
Wearable Health Monitoring
B.
Remote Patient Monitoring
C.
Electronic Health Records (EHR)
Explanation :
One of the three priority areas agreed upon during India’s G20 presidency in 2023 was accomplished as the World Health Organization (WHO) launched the Global Initiative on Digital Health (GIDH) through a virtual platform.
Digital health refers to the use of technology, such as mobile devices, software applications, and other digital tools, to improve health and healthcare delivery.
Basically, it is a multidisciplinary concept that includes concepts from an intersection between technology and healthcare.
It encompasses a wide range of technologies and services, including telemedicine, electronic health records, wearable devices, health information exchange, and more.
Telemedicine, Wearable Health Devices, Remote Patient Monitoring, Electronic Health Records etc. are few examples of Digital Health.
Consider the following statements regarding the geographical location of Greece:
- Greece is situated in South-eastern Europe, at the southern tip of the Balkan Peninsula.
- It shares land borders with Albania, North Macedonia, and Bulgaria to the north.
- Greece is surrounded by the Aegean Sea to the east, the Ionian Sea to the west, and the Mediterranean Sea to the south.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Prime Minister of the Hellenic Republic (Greece), Kyriakos Mitsotakis was on a State visit to India.
Greece is indeed situated in Southeastern Europe, at the southern tip of the Balkan Peninsula. So, statement 1 is correct.
Greece shares land borders with Albania, North Macedonia, and Bulgaria to the north. So, statement 2 is correct.
Greece is surrounded by the Aegean Sea to the east, the Ionian Sea to the west, and the Mediterranean Sea to the south. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Prime Minister of the Hellenic Republic (Greece), Kyriakos Mitsotakis was on a State visit to India.
Greece is indeed situated in Southeastern Europe, at the southern tip of the Balkan Peninsula. So, statement 1 is correct.
Greece shares land borders with Albania, North Macedonia, and Bulgaria to the north. So, statement 2 is correct.
Greece is surrounded by the Aegean Sea to the east, the Ionian Sea to the west, and the Mediterranean Sea to the south. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Only one
Explanation :
Addressing the 28th meeting of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC), Finance Minister asked financial sector regulators to take further measures to check spread of unauthorised lending through online apps.
Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC)
About:
It is an apex-level body constituted by the Government of India (not a statutory body) in 2010. So, statement 1 is not correct.
It has been established under the Financial Stability Division of the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA), Ministry of Finance.
Background:
Following the global financial crisis of 2008, governments and organisations all over the world were under pressure to regulate their economic assets.
In 2008, the Raghuram Rajan Committee first advocated the creation of a super regulatory autonomous entity to deal with macro prudential and financial irregularities in India’s entire financial system in 2008. So, statement 3 is correct.
Composition:
Chairperson: The Union Finance Minister of India. The Chairperson may invite any person whose presence is deemed necessary for any of its meetings. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements regarding Positronium is correct?
It is a short-lived bound state of an electron and a positron.
Explanation :
In a major scientific breakthrough, an international team of researchers has successfully demonstrated laser cooling of Positronium for the first time.
The breakthrough experiment was carried out by the Antihydrogen Experiment: Gravity, Interferometry, Spectroscopy (AEgIS) collaboration at the European Organization for Nuclear Research (CERN).
Positronium, comprising a bound electron (e-) and positron (e+), is a fundamental atomic system.
The matter, which forms the world around us, consists of atoms, the simplest of which is hydrogen.
Positronium, on the other hand, consists of an electron and its antimatter equivalent, a positron.
It was first detected by scientists in the US in 1951.
Due to its very short life, it annihilates with a half-life of 142 nano-seconds.
Its mass is twice the electron mass and enjoys the unique distinction of being a pure leptonic atom.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
All four pairs
Explanation :
The Odysseus lunar lander has made the first United States landing on the moon in more than 50 years.
This also marks the arrival of private space companies on the lunar surface.
The Artemis programme is a series of ongoing lunar missions run by NASA.
Different phases under this programme
One Artemis mission has already been completed. In late 2022, Artemis 1, an uncrewed test flight, orbited and flew beyond the Moon. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Artemis 2 will be a crewed flight beyond the Moon which will take humans the farthest they’ve ever been in space. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Artemis 3 will be the first crewed Moon landing mission since Apollo 17 in 1972. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
NASA aims to land the first female astronaut and first astronaut of colour on the lunar surface.
They will spend a week on the Moon performing scientific studies, before returning to Earth.
Artemis 4 will deliver a core part of a new lunar space station (named ‘Gateway’) into orbit around the Moon, and land another two astronauts on the Moon’s surface. So, pair 4 is correctly matched.
Artemis 5 will add another important module to Gateway and involve a third crewed lunar landing to undertake further surface science.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
The Sulina Channel is an essential maritime feature in which geographical region?
The Black Sea in Eastern Europe
Explanation :
On February 24, 2022, Russia invaded Ukraine. Two years later, an end to the biggest war in Europe since World War II is nowhere in sight.
The Sulina Channel is a navigable waterway located in the Black Sea region, specifically in Eastern Europe.
It plays a significant role in providing access to the Black Sea for maritime traffic and is located in Romania.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the ChatGPT:
- It is a state-of-the-art Natural Language Processing (NLP) model developed by OpenAI.
- It can learn to generate responses without the need to be explicitly told what is the correct response.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The BharatGPT group — led by IIT Bombay along with seven other elite Indian engineering institutes — announced that it would launch its first ChatGPT-like service next month.
The group built the ‘Hanooman’ series of Indic language models in collaboration with Seetha Mahalaxmi Healthcare (SML).
ChatGPT is a state-of-the-art Natural Language Processing (NLP) model developed by OpenAI. So, statement 1 is correct.
NLP is the ability of a computer program to understand human language as it is spoken and written – referred to as natural language.
It is a component of artificial intelligence (AI).
ChatGPT uses neural network architecture and unsupervised learning to generate responses.
This means that it can learn to generate responses without needing to be explicitly told what is the correct response. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with respect to National Statistical Office (NSO):
- It works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
- NSO consists of the Central Statistical Office (CSO) and the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
For the first time in about 11 years, the government released the data of the All-India Household Consumption Expenditure Survey.
The survey was carried out between August 2022 and July 2023.
The data will play a key role in reviewing critical economic indicators, including the Gross Domestic Product (GDP), poverty levels, and the Consumer Price Inflation (CPI).
The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation has two wings, one relating to Statistics and the other Programme Implementation.
The Statistics Wing is called the National Statistical Office(NSO). So, statement 1 is correct.
NSO consists of the Central Statistical Office (CSO), the Computer centre and the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO). So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES):
- It helps generate estimates of household Monthly Per Capita Consumer Expenditure (MPCE).
- It is a quinquennial survey conducted by the government’s National Statistical Office (NSO).
- It does not provide information on the consumption spending patterns of urban India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
For the first time in about 11 years, the government released the data of the All-India Household Consumption Expenditure Survey.
The data will play a key role in reviewing critical economic indicators, including the Gross Domestic Product (GDP), poverty levels, and the Consumer Price Inflation (CPI).
The CES is traditionally a quinquennial (recurring every five years) survey conducted by the government’s National Statistical Office (NSO). So, statement 2 is correct.
It is designed to collect information on the consumption spending patterns of households across the country, both urban and rural. So, statement 3 is not correct.
The data gathered in this exercise reveals the average expenditure on goods (food and non-food) and services.
It helps generate estimates of household Monthly Per Capita Consumer Expenditure (MPCE) as well as the distribution of households and persons over the MPCE classes. So, statement 1 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Who among the following founded the Nair Service Society?
Mannathu Padmanabhan
Explanation :
Mannathu Padmanabhan (2 January 1878 – 25 February 1970) was a social reformer and a freedom fighter from the state of Kerala.
He is recognized as the founder of the Nair Service Society (NSS), which claims to represent the Nair community.
He fought for social equality, the first phase being the Vaikom Satyagraha, demanding the public roads near the temple at Vaikom be opened to low caste Hindus.
He revived the old concept of village societies, the Karayogams, which practically set the tenor of family and village life.
In 1959, he led a united opposition against the State Communist Ministry, which became known as the Vimochana Samaram (liberation struggle). The cause of the Vimochana Samaram was the introduction of an Education Bill by the Minister of Education.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to Tehri Dam, consider the following statements:
- It is located on the Alaknanda River.
- It is the highest dam in India.
- It is located in the state of Uttarakhand.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Tehri dam is a multi-purpose rock and earth-fill embankment dam on the Bhagirathi River. The river originates in the Garhwal region of the Himalayas. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The river after reaching Devprayag meets another head stream, the Alaknanda, forming river Ganga.
Tehri dam is the highest dam in India and the fourth highest dam in the world. So, statement 2 is correct.
Tehri dam is located in the Tehri district of Uttarakhand. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following is/are technologies which can be considered a type of Assisted Reproductive Technology?
- In Vitro Fertilization
- Frozen Embryo Transfer
- Intrafallopian Transfer
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Assisted Reproductive Technology includes medical procedures used primarily to address infertility. ART techniques involve the manipulation of eggs, sperm, or embryos to increase the likelihood of a successful pregnancy. There are several types of ART procedures that involve different techniques and reproductive cells. These include:
In Vitro Fertilization (IVF)
Frozen Embryo Transfer
Intrafallopian Transfer
Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection
Third-party ART
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
With reference to Semiconductors, consider the following statements:
- India is the largest exporter of semiconductor devices in the world.
- Silicon is the main component in semiconductors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
India does not produce semiconductors and the country’s demands are met with imports. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Silicon is the major component in semiconductors. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Semiconductors, sometimes referred to as integrated circuits (ICs) or microchips, are made from pure elements, typically silicon or germanium, or compounds such as gallium arsenide.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
The area known as ‘Sahel region’ sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to:
North-central Africa
Explanation :
Sahel is a semi-arid region of western and North-Central Africa extending from Senegal eastward to Sudan.
It forms a transitional zone between the arid Sahara (desert) to the north and the belt of humid savannas to the south.
The Sahel spans 5,900 km from the Atlantic Ocean in the west to the Red Sea in the east.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), consider the following statements:
- It is a constitutional body.
- It functions under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance.
- It is responsible for regulating both FDI and FPI.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
SEBI is a statutory body established under the provisions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992. So, statement 1 is not correct.
SEBI functions under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance. So, statement 2 is correct.
SEBI operates the Foreign Portfolio Investments (FPIs). Recently, SEBI has introduced the Foreign Portfolio Investors Regulations, 2019.
FPIs also need to follow the Income-tax Act, 1961 and Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.
However, Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is regulated primarily by India’s Department of Promotion of Industry and International Trade (DPIIT), under its Foreign Exchange Management Act regime (FEMA Regime). So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to Uniform Civil Code, consider the following statements:
- Goa is the only state to have a uniform civil code in India.
- Uniform civil code is defined in Part IV(A) of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Goa, in the form of Portuguese Civil Code of 1867, is the only state in India to have a uniform civil code. So, statement 1 is correct.
Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly has passed the UCC Bill in the House (February, 2024). The government has sent the UCC bill to the Uttarakhand Governor, Gurmit Singh, who in turn referred the same to President Murmu for her approval.
Uniform Civil code is defined under Article 44 in Part-IV of the Constitution. Article 44 lays down that the State shall endeavor to secure a Uniform Civil Code for the citizens throughout the territory of India. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Part IV-A demonstrates the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to Financial Action Task Force, consider the following statements:
- FATF was launched at a G20 Summit.
- India is a full-time member of the FATF.
- Headquarters of the FATF is located in Paris, France.
How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
FATF was launched at a G7 Summit (1989) in Paris to combat the growing problem of money laundering. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Currently, FATF has 37 countries as full members. India is one of them. So, statement 2 is correct.
Headquarters of FATF is located in Paris, France. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
