January 2025 Flashcards
Consider the following statements with reference to Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) in India:
- The use of the Public Financial Management System portal is mandatory for payments under DBT.
- Only the beneficiaries, whose bank accounts are linked with their Aadhaar, are eligible to get benefits under DBT.
- DBT Mission and all matters related to it have been placed under the Union Ministry of Finance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Transferring subsidies directly to the people through their bank/Post office account is Direct Benefit Transfer. It aims to timely transfer of benefit to the citizen by bringing efficiency, effectiveness, transparency and accountability in the Government system. Through the DBT, the Government intends to achieve electronic transfer of benefits, reduce delays in payments and most importantly, accurate targeting of beneficiaries, thereby curbing leakages and duplication. With the aim of reforming Government delivery system by re-engineering the existing process in welfare schemes for simpler and faster flow of information/funds and to ensure accurate targeting of the beneficiaries, de-duplication and reduction of fraud Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) was started on 1st January, 2013.
The use of the Public Financial Management System (PFMS) has been made mandatory for payment, accounting and reporting under Direct Benefit Transfer, with effect from 1st April 2015. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) is a web-based online software application developed and implemented by the Controller General of Accounts (CGA), Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance, Government of India. PFMS started during 2009 with the objective of tracking funds released under all Plan schemes of Government of India, and real time reporting of expenditure at all levels of Programme implementation.
The primary function of PFMS today is to facilitate sound Public Financial Management System for Government of India by establishing an efficient fund flow system as well as a payment cum accounting network. PFMS provides various stakeholders with a real time, reliable and meaningful management information system and an effective decision support system, as part of the Digital India initiative of Government of India.
No payments under the Direct Benefit Transfer schemes (except PAHAL) are to be processed, unless the electronic payment files for such payments are received through the PFMS system developed by the CGA from 1st April, 2015.
According to the Reserve Bank of India guidelines, use of Aadhaar cards and seeding of bank accounts with those numbers are purely voluntary and not mandatory. Aadhaar is not mandatory in DBT schemes. Since Aadhaar provides unique identity and is useful in targeting the intended beneficiaries, Aadhaar is preferred and beneficiaries are encouraged to have Aadhaar. So, statement 2 is not correct.
DBT Mission was created in the Planning Commission to act as the nodal point for the implementation of the DBT programmes. The Mission was transferred to the Department of Expenditure in July, 2013 and continue to function till 14.9.2015. To give more impetus, DBT Mission and matters related thereto has been placed in Cabinet Secretariat under Secretary (Co-ordination & PG) w.e.f. 14.9.2015. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Index of Industrial Production (IIP):
- The base year for IIP calculation in India is 2011-12.
- It assigns equal weightage to all industrial sectors.
- Electricity is treated as infrastructure good under use-based classification.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an index for India that details the growth of various sectors in an economy such as mineral mining, electricity and manufacturing, in a stipulated period of time. It is compiled and published monthly by the National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
The current base year is 2011-2012. The base year was changed to 2011-12 from 2004-05 in the year 2017. The previous base years were 1937, 1946, 1951, 1956, 1960, 1970, 1980-81, 1993-94 and 2004-05. So, statement 1 is correct.
It chooses a basket of industrial products — ranging from the manufacturing sector to mining to energy, creates an index by giving different weights to each sector and then tracks the production every month. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Basket of products: There are 6 sub-categories:
Primary Goods (consisting of mining, electricity, fuels and fertilizers). So, statement 3 is not correct.
Capital Goods (e.g. machinery items). Intermediate Goods (e.g. yarns, chemicals, semi-finished steel items, etc).
Infrastructure Goods (e.g. paints, cement, cables, bricks and tiles, rail materials, etc).
Consumer Durables (e.g. garments, telephones, passenger vehicles, etc).
Consumer Non-durables (e.g. food items, medicines, toiletries, etc).
Consider the following statements with reference to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) and Quarterly Employment Survey (QES):
- The Central Statistics Office publishes PLFS whereas the Labour bureau releases QES.
- The PLFS collects labour force data from the households whereas the QES collects employment data from the non-farm establishments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Periodic Labour force survey is published by the National Statistical office. The survey gives estimates of Key employment and unemployment Indicators like the labour force participation rates, worker population ratio, unemployment rate etc.
The Quarterly Employment Survey is one of the two components of the “All-India Quarterly Establishment-based Employment Survey”. The Labour bureau under the aegis of the Ministry of Labour and Employments conducts the Quarterly Employment Survey. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The Periodic Labour force survey collects household labour force data from multiple dimensions like the place of residence, self-employment in house enterprises, principle activity of household members etc. PLFS collects data from the supply side of the labour force. The Quarterly Employment Survey collects the employment data from the non-farm establishments which is the demand side of the labour force. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Gini Coefficient:
- It is used to measure the degree of income inequality in a given population.
- A range above the scale of 0 represents a movement towards perfect equality.
- Its value for low and high-income countries can never be the same.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1 only
Explanation :
The Gini coefficient is a statistical measure of distribution. It is used as a gauge to measure the economic inequality among the population i.e Gini coefficient measures the degree of income inequality in a population. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Gini coefficient is usually defined mathematically based on the Lorenz curve. The Lorenz curve plots the distribution of the income in the population. The Gini coefficient ranges from 0 to 1, with 0 representing perfect equality and 1 representing perfect inequality. So, statement 2 is not correct.
In 2016 both Turkey and the U.S. had the same income Gini coefficients around 0.39-0.40. High-income nations and low-income nations can have the same Gini coefficient, as long as incomes are distributed similarly within each country. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Which one of the following best describes the term ‘Employment Elasticity’?
The ratio of employment growth rate to the economic growth rate.
Explanation :
Employment elasticity is a measure of the percentage change in employment associated with a 1 percentage point change in economic growth. It is the ratio of employment growth to the growth of National Income.
The employment elasticity indicates the ability of an economy to generate employment opportunities for its population as a percentage of its growth process.
The Supply Chain Resilience Initiative (SCRI), recently seen in the news is launched by:
India, Japan and Australia
Explanation :
The Supply Chain Resilience Initiative (SCRI) is a trilateral agreement between trade ministers of India, Japan and Australia, launched in April 2021.
The SCRI aims to create a virtuous cycle of enhancing supply chain resilience infrastructure with a view to eventually attaining strong, sustainable, balanced and inclusive growth in the region.
It seeks to build upon the bilateral frameworks like the ASEAN-Japan Economic Resilience Action Plan and India-Japan Industrial Competitiveness Partnership and attract foreign direct investment in the region.
Consider the following statements with reference to Toll-Operate-Transfer (TOT) model:
- It is a mechanism by which contracts for constructing new national highways are given to private entities on a long-term concession basis.
- The toll revenue collected by the private player should be shared with the government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The Toll-Operate-Transfer (TOT) model is an Asset Recycle program wherein already operational National Highways are being provided to private entities on a long-term concession basis. Public funded National Highway (NH) projects which are operational and have a toll revenue generation history of one year after the Commercial Operations Date (COD) shall be monetized through the TOT Model. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The TOT operator has a right to collect user fee (toll) for the lease period (generally for 30 years) and has an obligation to operate and maintain the road, during the lease period. The collected toll revenue need not be shared with the Government. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The TOT model has been developed to encourage private participation in Highway sector and generate more resources for the construction of future highways. It is expected to bring in efficiency in operation and maintenance in the road sector.
Consider the following statements with reference to Negotiable Warehouse Receipts (NWRs):
- It enables the transfer of ownership of a warehoused commodity without the need to deliver the physical commodity.
- It is regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India.
- It can be used as collateral for loans from banks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Negotiable Warehouse Receipts (NWRs), which was launched in 2011, allow the transfer of ownership of a commodity stored in a warehouse without having to deliver the physical commodity. So, statement 1 is correct.
Warehouse receipts are made negotiable under the Warehouse (Development and Regulation) Act, 2007, and regulated by the Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA). So, statement 2 is not correct.
NWRs are issued in negotiable form, making them eligible as collateral for loans. Both farmers and businesses can store their produce in WDRA-registered warehouses and seek loans from banks against them. In 2021, the RBI had increased the loan limits for bank lending against NWRs and e-NWRs from ₹50 lakh to ₹70 lakh per borrower. So, statement 3 is correct.
‘Liquidity trap’ refers to a situation where:
Expansionary monetary policy does not stimulate economic growth.
Explanation :
A liquidity trap is a situation when expansionary monetary policy (increase in money supply) does not increase the interest rate, income and hence does not stimulate economic growth.
Liquidity trap is the extreme effect of monetary policy. It is a situation in which the general public is prepared to hold on to whatever amount of money is supplied, at a given rate of interest. They do so because of the fear of adverse events like deflation, war.
In that case, a monetary policy carried out through open market operations has no effect on either the interest rate, or the level of income. In a liquidity trap, the monetary policy is powerless to affect the interest rate.
The term ‘Renewable Purchase Obligation’ sometimes found in news refers to:
Mandating certain entities to meet a part of their electricity consumption from renewable resources.
Explanation :
To provide a fillip to the ambitious renewable energy targets, obligations have been imposed on certain entitles to purchase energy from renewable sources by various state electricity regulatory commissions (SERCs) based on each state’s varying renewable energy potentials.
Known as renewable purchase obligations (RPOs), power distribution companies, captive power plants and other large electricity consumers are bound to meet them by purchasing a certain percentage of their requirements from renewable energy sources. Applicable regulations also provide for the purchase of renewable energy certificates (RECs) in lieu of purchasing renewable power by obligated entities from the National Load Dispatch Centre.
Which one of the following statements is not correct with reference to ‘Green Bonds’?
In India, they are issued only by the government and not private parties.
Explanation :
Green bonds are issued by companies, countries and multilateral organisations to exclusively fund projects that have positive environmental or climate benefits and provide investors with fixed income payments. The projects can include renewable energy, clean transportation and green buildings, among others.
A green bond is a type of fixed-income instrument that is specifically earmarked to raise money for climate and environmental projects. The World Bank is a major issuer of green bonds. It has issued 164 such bonds since 2008, worth a combined $14.4 billion.
These bonds can be marketed toward Environmental, Social and Governance (ESG) focused funds. The green bond market has seen cumulative issuance worth more than $1 trillion since market inception in 2007. If the bond carries a lower yield, it could be more attractive for foreign investors given their enhanced appetite for this category of bonds, compared to local money managers.
In India, green bonds are issued by private parties since 2015. Green Bonds constituted only 0.7 percent of all the bonds issued in India since 2018. As a part of the government of India’s overall market borrowings in 2022-23, sovereign Green Bonds will also be issued for mobilizing resources for green infrastructure. The proceeds will be deployed in public sector projects which help in reducing the carbon intensity of the economy.
Consider the following statements with reference to the ‘Nice Agreement’:
- It is only open to countries that are members of the World Trade Organization.
- India is a signatory to this agreement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The ‘Nice Agreement’ on the international classification of goods and services for the purposes of registering trademarks and service mark, was concluded in Nice in 1957.
The Agreement is open to States parties to the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property (1883). So, statement 1 is not correct.
In 2019, India had acceded to
The Nice Agreement concerning the International classification of Goods and Services for the purposes of registration of marks.
The Vienna Agreement establishing an International Classification of the figurative elements of marks
The Locarno Agreement establishing an International classification for industrial designs.
Consider the following statements:
- The expression ‘Union of India’ includes only the states and not the Union Territories.
- India is a quasi-federal state, with the Centre having more powers.
- Indian Federation comprises of states joined together as a result of their agreements with the Centre.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Notably, the ‘Territory of India’ is a wider expression than the ‘Union of India’ because the latter includes only states while the former includes not only the states, but also union territories and territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time. So, statement 1 is correct.
Though it is true that India is not a strictly federal nation, rather it is a quasi-federal state with asymmetric federalism, where more power is concentrated in the hands of the Centre. So, statement 2 is correct.
While submitting the draft Constitution in 1948, Dr B R Ambedkar, chairman of the drafting committee, had said that the committee had used the world ‘Union’ because (a) the Indian federation was not the result of an agreement by the units, and (b) the component units had no freedom to secede from the federation. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Which of the following provisions of the Constitution were added by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978?
Restored the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the High Courts in respect of judicial review and issue of writs.
Deprived the Parliament of its special powers to make laws to deal with anti-national activities.
Removed the provisions which took away the power of the Court to decide the election disputes.
Restricted the time period of preventive detention to two months.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
3 and 4 only
Explanation :
The 43rd Amendment Act, 1977 Restored the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the high courts in respect of judicial review and issue of writs; and Deprived the Parliament of its special powers to make laws to deal with anti-national activities. So, statements 1 and 2 are not correct.
The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 removed the provisions which took away the power of the court to decide the election disputes; and restricted the time period of preventive detention to two months. So, statements 3 and 4 are correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to service voters:
- Only the wife of a male service voter, not the husband of a female service voter, can be considered a service voter.
- A service voter belonging to Armed Forces can vote only through a postal ballot.
- A service voter is issued an Elector Photo Identity Card (EPIC) like ordinary electors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A service voter is a voter having service qualification. Service Voters include those serving in the Armed Forces of the Union, those serving in a Force to which the Army Act 1950 applies (Assam Rifles, CRPF, BSF, ITBP, SSB, NSG, GREF in BRO, CISF etc.); those employed under the Government of India, in a post outside India or a member of an Armed Police Force of a State, serving outside that state.
The wife of a service voter shall, if she is ordinarily residing with him, be also deemed to be a service voter in the constituency. This facility is available only to the wife of a male service voter and is not available to the husband of a female service voter. His children of 18 years of age and above or his other relations or his domestic servants staying with him are also not entitled to be registered as service voters. So, statement 1 is correct.
Service voter belonging to Armed Forces or forces to which provisions of Army Act, 1950 are applicable, has the option of either voting through postal ballot or through a proxy voter duly appointed by him. A service voter who opts for voting through a proxy is called a Classified Service Voter (CSV). So, statement 2 is not correct.
A service voter is not issued Elector Photo Identity Card (EPIC). Elector Photo Identity Card (EPIC) is a document of identity which an elector has to show at the polling station at the time of casting his vote. As service voters are issued postal ballots or votes through his ‘proxy’, they are not required to visit the polling stations personally and therefore Elector Photo Identity Cards (EPICs) is not issued to them. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements:
- The right to vote is a fundamental right in India.
- Individuals under preventive detention are not eligible to cast their votes in an election.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The right to vote has been recognised under the Article-326 of the Indian Constitution and is a Legal right, not a Fundamental Right. It is also not mentioned under the Part-III of the Constitution. Legal rights are the one’s endowed to people from any statute enacted by the legislature. So, statement 1 is not correct.
As per Rule 18 of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, the electors under preventive detention are entitled to cast their votes by post. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Electoral Trusts in India:
- It cannot accept donations from any other electoral trust in India.
- It can make donations to political parties through electoral bonds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
An Electoral Trust is a non-profit company established for orderly receipt of the voluntary contributions from any person (or company) for distributing the same to the respective political parties, registered under Section 29A of the Representation of People Act, 1951. the Electoral Trusts Scheme, 2013 the rules provide that the electoral trust shall be a company registered for the purposes of section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956.
According to the rules for Electoral trusts, an electoral trust shall not accept contributions—
from an individual who is not a citizen of India
from any other electoral trust which has been registered as a company and approved as an electoral trust under the Electoral Trusts Scheme, 2013
from a Government company
from a foreign source
So, statement 1 is correct.
Recently, for the first time, an electoral trust has declared donation through electoral bonds and hasn’t revealed the names of the political parties that received the money, citing anonymity guaranteed under the electoral bond scheme. So, statement 2 is correct.
With reference to Electoral bonds, which one of the following statements is correct?
A. The beneficiary political party is required to reveal the identity of the entity that has given it the bonds. B. It can only be purchased by companies. C. Only political parties registered under the Representation of the Peoples Act, 1951 are eligible to receive electoral bonds. D. All of the above
Only political parties registered under the Representation of the Peoples Act, 1951 are eligible to receive electoral bonds.
Explanation :
“Electoral bonds” are interest-free bearer instruments (like Promissory Notes) that are available for purchase from the State Bank of India within a designated window of 10 days in every quarter of the financial year. Buyers of the bonds have to submit full KYC details at the time of buying. However, the beneficiary political party is not required to reveal the identity of the entity that has given it the bonds. So, option (a) is not correct.
Electoral Bonds can be purchased by a person, who is a citizen of India or a company incorporated or established in India. So, option (b) is not correct.
Only the political parties registered under section 29A of the Representation of the Peoples Act, 1951 (43 of 1951) and which secured not less than one percent of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of the People or a Legislative Assembly are eligible to receive electoral bonds. So, option (c) is correct.
With reference to Alternate Dispute Resolution Techniques, consider the following statements:
- The process of dispute resolution through arbitration is confidential.
- Mediation is a dispute resolution approach based on the parties’ mutual consent.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Arbitration is a private arrangement of taking disputes to a less adversarial, less formal and more flexible forum and abiding by judgment of a selected person instead of carrying it to the established courts of justice. Arbitration can be chosen by the parties either by way of an agreement (Arbitration Agreement) or through the reference of the Court. The parties in an arbitration have the freedom to select a qualified expert known as an arbitrator. The process of dispute resolution through arbitration is confidential. So, statement 1 is correct.
Mediation is a method of Alternate Dispute Resolution (ADR) in which parties appoint a neutral third party who facilitates the mediation process in-order to assist the parties in achieving an acceptable, voluntary agreement. Mediation is premised on the voluntary will of the parties and is a flexible and informal technique of dispute resolution. The outcome of mediation does not have similar binding like an arbitral award. However, though non-binding- these resolution agreements may be incorporated into a legally binding contract, which is binding on the parties who execute the contract. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements:
- The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) works under the control of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- The National Investigation Agency (NIA) can investigate offences committed outside India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Directorate of Enforcement is a specialized financial investigation agency under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, Government of India, which enforces the following laws: -
Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA)
Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA). So, statement 1 is not correct.
National Investigation Agency (NIA) is functioning as the Central Counter-Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency in the country. The NIA has been constituted after the Mumbai terror attack in November 2008 mainly for the investigation of incidents of terrorist attacks, funding of terrorism and other terror-related crime. The National Investigation Agency (Amendment) Act, 2019, empowered the agency to investigate offences committed outside India, subject to international treaties and domestic laws of other countries. The 2019 amendment also allowed the central government to designate Sessions Courts as Special Courts for the trial of scheduled offences under the Act. So, statement 2 is correct.
With reference to the Memorandum of Procedure (MoP) of judicial appointments, consider the following statements:
- It prescribes that a candidate must be appointed within four months after the collegium has recommended her/his name.
- The Government of India cannot refuse to appoint a candidate reiterated for appointment by the collegium.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Memorandum of Procedure is a document framed by the government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India, which lays down the procedure for the appointment of judges to the Supreme Court and various High Courts. It was first issued in November 1947 and has been updated since.
Whenever a vacancy is expected to arise in the office of a Judge of the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of India will initiate a proposal and forward his recommendation to the Union Minister of Law, Justice and Company Affairs to fill up the vacancy. There is no such timeline for this procedure and also, the MoP does not prescribe a timeline for the Centre to forward the recommendations. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The government at the first instance can refuse to appoint a judge recommended by the collegium. One way of resolving this is for judges to bend or simply not recommend a contentious candidate. Another strategy is for the collegium to reiterate certain names, even if they have been sent back by the government. In such cases, the executive must accept it as a “healthy convention”. The Supreme Court in order has said that “if the Supreme Court collegium after consideration of the aforesaid inputs still reiterates the recommendation(s) unanimously…such appointment should be processed and appointment should be made within three to four weeks.’’ So, statement 2 is correct.
With reference to the Chief Justice of India (CJI), consider the following statements:
- No woman has been appointed to the post of CJI since Independence.
- The Second Judges Case of 1993 devised a specific procedure called ‘Collegium System’ for the appointment and transfer of judges in the higher judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Article 124 of the Indian Constitution provides for the appointment of the Chief Justice of India and other judges of the Supreme Court.
Till now no woman has been appointed as the Chief Justice of India. Recently, 3 female judges have been elevated to the Supreme Court. Justice B. V. Nagarathna’s elevation, in particular, is being seen as the proverbial breaking of the glass ceiling, since she is likely to be the first woman Chief Justice of India in 2027, albeit for a short tenure of 40 days. She had also made history in 2008 when she became the first woman lawyer from the Bar to join the Karnataka High Court. Fathima Beevi was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court. So, statement 1 is correct.
In The Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association Vs Union of India, 1993 (2ND Judges Case), a nine-judge Constitution Bench overruled the decision in S P Gupta, and devised a specific procedure called ‘Collegium System’ for the appointment and transfer of judges in the higher judiciary. Ushering in the collegium system, the court said that the recommendation should be made by the CJI in consultation with his two senior-most colleagues, and that such recommendation should normally be given effect to by the executive. So, statement 2 is correct.
THIRD JUDGES CASE: In 1998, President K R Narayanan issued a Presidential Reference to the Supreme Court over the meaning of the term “consultation” under Article 143 of the Constitution (advisory jurisdiction). The question was whether “consultation” required consultation with a number of judges in forming the CJI’s opinion, or whether the sole opinion of CJI could by itself constitute a “consultation”. In response, the Supreme Court laid down nine guidelines for the functioning of the coram for appointments and transfers – this has come to be the present form of the collegium, and has been prevalent ever since. This opinion laid down that the recommendation should be made by the CJI and his four senior-most colleagues, instead of two. It also held that Supreme Court judges who hailed from the High Court for which the proposed name came, should also be consulted. It was also held that even if two judges gave an adverse opinion, the CJI should not send the recommendation to the government.
Consider the following statements:
- The Indian Constitution provides for the minimum age for a person to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court and High Court.
- The age of retirement for the judges of the Supreme Court and High Court is sixty-five.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Qualifications of the judge of Supreme Court are mentioned in Article 124 (3) and the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court. Similarly, Article 217 of the Constitution does not mention any minimum age for the judges of the High Court. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The Constitution has not fixed the tenure of a judge of the Supreme Court. However, he holds office until he attains the age of 65 years. While a judge of High holds office until he attains the age of 62 years. So, statement 2 is not correct.
What was the exact status of India between 15th August 1947 and 26th January 1950?
A British Dominion
Explanation :
On 15th August 1947, India and Pakistan acquired dominion status. While India remained a dominion till 1950, Pakistan retained the status till 1956.
In simpler words, dominions were autonomous communities within the British Empire which were “equal in status” but had an “allegiance to the Crown”. What it meant was that King George VI continued to reign as the Emperor of India and Lord Mountbatten was the first Governor-General of the country. Jawahar Lal Nehru was sworn in as the premier but served on the command of the British Governor-General, and unelected Indian nationalist leaders were administered oaths in the name of the British King-Emperor. What it also meant was that a British field marshall led the Indian army and judges appointed by the British continued to be part of the high courts and the federal court.
Till the passage of the Indian Independence Act, 1947, India was a dependency (colony) of the British Empire. From August 15, 1947 to January 26, 1950, India’s political status was that of a dominion in the British Commonwealth of Nations. India ceased to be a British dominion on January 26, 1950, by declaring herself a sovereign republic.
With reference to the Non-Resident Indian (NRI) and Overseas Citizen of India (OCI), which of the following statements is/are correct?
- There is no applicability procedure to be classified as an NRI while one has to apply for an OCI card.
- Both NRI and OCI can invest in agricultural properties in India.
- Both NRI and OCI do not require a visa for visiting India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1 only
Explanation :
Difference between Non-Resident Indian (NRI) and Overseas Citizen of India (OCI)
A registered Overseas Citizen of India is granted multiple entry, multi purpose, life-long visa for visiting India, he/she is exempted from registration with Foreign Regional Registration Officer or Foreign Registration Officer for any length of stay in India. NRIs don’t need a visa to enter India as they have an Indian Passport. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Di-Ammonium Phosphate (DAP):
- It is the most commonly used fertilizer in India.
- It is highly soluble and dissolves quickly in soil to release plant-available phosphate and ammonium.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Union Cabinet recently approved the extension of the One-time Special Package for Di-Ammonium Phosphate (DAP) beyond the existing Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) scheme.
About Di-Ammonium Phosphate (DAP):
It is one of the most widely used fertilizers globally, providing essential nutrients—nitrogen (N) and phosphorus (P)—for plant growth.
It is the second most commonly used fertilizer in India after urea.
It is high in phosphorus (P) that stimulates root establishment and development-without which plants cannot grow to their normal size or will take too long to mature.
It’s highly soluble and thus dissolves quickly in soil to release plant-available phosphate and ammonium.
DAP has additional uses, including:
As a fire retardant. For example, a mixture of DAP and other ingredients can be spread in advance of a fire to prevent a forest from burning.
In various industrial processes, such as metal finishing.
An addition to wine to sustain yeast fermentation.
An addition to milk to produce cheese cultures.
It proves as a flux for soldering tin, copper, brass, and zinc.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/agriculture/cabinet-extends-one-time-special-package-for-dap-fertilisers-to-farmers/articleshow/116854280.cms?from=mdr
Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which state?
Kerala
Explanation :
A four-day faunal survey conducted at the Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary has added significant findings to the sanctuary’s biodiversity records.
About Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is located in the southern part of the Western Ghats in the Kollam district of Kerala.
It spans an area of approximately 172 sq.km. and forms part of the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve.
Most of the Sanctuary area is hilly and interspersed with ravines.
Drainage: The major rivers are Shendurney, Kazhuthuruthy, and Kulathupuzha, which join together to form the Kallada River.
Flora:
The vegetation primarily consists of tropical evergreen forests, semi-evergreen forests, and moist deciduous forests.
The name “Shendurney” is derived from the name of a tree species, Gluta travancorica, locally known as ‘Chenkurunji’, which is endemic to this region and found in abundance within the sanctuary.
Fauna:
Notable mammals include elephants, tigers, leopards, gaurs (Indian bison), sambar deer, barking deer, wild boars, and bonnet macaques.
The sanctuary also supports a significant population of Nilgiri langurs and lion-tailed macaques, both of which are endemic to the Western Ghats.
Over 200 species of birds are recorded in the sanctuary. Some of the notable species include the great Indian hornbill, Malabar pied hornbill, grey-headed bulbul, white-bellied treepie, and various species of woodpeckers, flycatchers, and raptors.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/faunal-survey-at-shendurney-wildlife-sanctuary-enriches-regional-species-checklist/article69043321.ece
Consider the following with reference to the Central Groundwater Board (CGWB):
- National Aquifer Mapping and Management (NAQUIM)
- Groundwater explorations
- Monitoring of groundwater levels and quality
- Regulation and control of groundwater development
- Water conservation and artificial recharge to groundwater
How many of the above are major activities of the CGWB?
All five
Explanation :
There are 440 districts in India with excessive nitrates in their groundwater as of 2023, an increase from 359 such districts in 2017, according to a report by the Central Groundwater Board (CGWB).
About Central Groundwater Board (CGWB):
CGWB is a multi-disciplinary scientific organization of the Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation, Ministry of Jal Shakti, Government of India.
It is the National Apex Agency entrusted with the responsibilities of providing scientific inputs for management, exploration, monitoring, assessment, augmentation, and regulation of groundwater resources of the country.
Mandate: Develop and disseminate technologies and monitor and implement national policies for the scientific and sustainable development and management of India’s groundwater resources, including their exploration, assessment, conservation, augmentation, protection from pollution, and distribution, based on principles of economic and ecological efficiency and equity.
Organization Setup:
The Board is headed by the Chairman and has five members.
CGWB is a multi-disciplinary scientific organization consisting of Hydrogeologists, Geophysicists, Chemists, Hydrologists, Hydrometeorologists, and Engineers.
Headquarters: Bhujal Bhawan, Faridabad, Haryana.
The major activities of the CGWB are:
National Aquifer mapping and Management (NAQUIM) involving Preparation of Aquifer Maps and Management Plans.
Groundwater explorations to delineate groundwater worthy areas and potential aquifers.
Geophysical surveys to delineate groundwater bearing zones, etc.
Periodic assessment of the country’s groundwater resources.
Monitoring of groundwater levels and quality through groundwater observation wells.
Dissemination of Ground Water Data and knowledge.
Groundwater modelling.
GIS and Remote sensing.
Regulation and control of groundwater development and management by CGWA in coordination with State Government Organizations.
Coordination with State Government with a view to establish benchmark methodologies for groundwater studies.
R&D studies in ground water sector and application and operationalization of new technologies/techniques for groundwater investigation, development, and management.
Water conservation and artificial recharge to groundwater.
Capacity building and knowledge transfer.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/districts-with-excess-nitrates-in-groundwater-at-seven-year-high/article69050971.ece
Which among the following best describes ‘INS Surat’, recently seen in the news?
It is a stealth destroyer.
Explanation :
In a significant boost to its maritime defence capabilities, the Indian Navy will commission three major platforms next month: the guided-missile destroyer INS Surat, the stealth frigate INS Nilgiri, and the diesel-electric submarine INS Vagsheer.
About INS Surat:
It is a stealth destroyer, the fourth and last of the Project-15B or Vishakhapatnam Class.
It is designed in-house by the Indian Navy’s Warship Design Bureau and is being constructed by Mazagaon Dock Limited (MDL).
It has an indigenous content of 72%.
Features:
It is the Indian Navy’s first AI-enabled warship to enhance its operational efficiency manifold times.
It will have a displacement of 7,400 tons and a length of 163 meters and can rip through at a top speed of nearly 60 km/h.
The ship has a maximum range of 15,000 km.
It is armed with supersonic surface-to-surface BrahMos missiles and ‘Barak-8 medium-range surface-to-air missiles.
The destroyer is fitted with indigenously developed anti-submarine weapons and sensors, prominently the hull-mounted Sonar Humsa NG, heavy-weight torpedo tube launchers, and ASW rocket launchers.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.msn.com/en-in/entertainment/bollywood/india-to-add-two-frontline-warships-and-a-submarine-to-blue-water-fleet-in-2025/ar-AA1wGxgj?apiversion=v2&noservercache=1&domshim=1&renderwebcomponents=1&wcseo=1&batchservertelemetry=1&noservertelemetry=1
With reference to the United District Information System for Education (UDISE+) Report 2023-24, consider the following statements:
- The number of students enrolled in 2023-2024 increased when compared to pre-pandemic levels.
- Boys account for more enrollment than girls.
- The representation of minorities in total enrollment is below 10 percent.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The total enrolment of students has dropped by over a crore in 2023-24 as compared to the previous years, Unified District Information System for Education Plus (UDISE+) report released by the Ministry of Education (MoE) said recently.
What is United District Information System for Education (UDISE+)?
UDISE+ is one of the largest Management Information Systems initiated by the Department of School Education and Literacy (DoSEL), Ministry of Education, Government of India, covering more than 14.72 lakhs of schools, 98.08 lakhs of teachers, and 24.80 crores of children.
UDISE+ is an online portal facility created by DoSEL for record of data related to schools, teachers, enrolment, infrastructure, etc. in respect of all recognized schools in the country.
In UDISE+ school wise data is captured through Data Capture Format (DCF).
Each school has been provided with a login ID and password for facilitating online data compilation by respective schools.
The Head Teacher/ Head Master of the school in all the States compiles the data, and it goes through a 3-stage validation/verification process, viz., Block/ Cluster level, District level, and State level.
This data is finally certified by the State Project Director (SPD) at the State level.
The data once certified by SPD of the respective State is considered as approved by the State.
Therefore, data is entered in the UDISE+ portal by the respective State itself.
UDISE+ data is the only pan-India and most trusted database in school education in the country.
Highlights of UDISE+ Report 2023-24:
24.8 crore students enrolled in 2023-2024, while this figure stood at 25.18 crore in 2022-2023.
The figures for the previous four years – 26.52 crore (2021-2022), 26.44 crore (2020-2021), 26.45 crore (2019-2020), and 26.03 crore (2018-2019) – show that the average total enrolment stood around 26.36 crore.
Data shows that when compared from the period between 2018-2019 (reference year for UDISE+ data) and 2021-2022, the decline in enrolment – for the first time since the pandemic – has been over 1 crore between 2022-2023 and 2023-2024.
Boys account for 51.9% of enrolments and girls 48.1%.
The representation of minorities in total enrolment stood at around 20 percent.
Among the minorities, 79.6 percent were Muslims, 10 percent Christians, 6.9 percent Sikhs, 2.2 percent Buddhists, 1.3 percent Jains, and 0.1 percent Parsis.
In 2023-2024, the total SC students enrolled were 4.47 crore, while this figure was 4.59 crore in 2022-2023.
While 11.2 crore students enrolled in the OBC category in 2023-2024, the same was 11.45 crore in 2022-2023.
While over 90% of schools have basic amenities like electricity and gender-specific toilets, advanced facilities such as functional desktops, internet access, and ramps with handrails remain limited.
Only 57.2% of schools have functional computers, 53.9% have internet, and 52.3% are equipped with ramps, underscoring significant gaps in accessibility and tech readiness.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/education/school-enrolment-down-by-over-1-crore-in-2023-24-says-govt-report/article69050428.ece
What is a “belly landing” in aviation?
Emergency landing without extending the landing gear
Explanation :
Recently, as many as 179 people were killed when Jeju Air flight 7C2216 made a belly-landing in South Korea.
About Belly Landing:
Also known as gear-up landing, it is an emergency landing technique that involves an aeroplane landing without extending its landing gear.
It is a last resort for pilots who are unable to deploy their landing gear owing to a technical or mechanical malfunction.
Belly-landings are risky and carried out only in an emergency. It results in considerable damage to the plane, its engines and wings as the aircraft skids to a stop and can leave those onboard injured.
The friction generated by the aircraft skidding on the runway can also create sparks or result in a fire.
A cockpit crew decides to land an aircraft on its belly in the following situations:
Landing gear fails to deploy.
A stricken aircraft cannot make it to an airport and landing is done in a field. The pilot considers skidding the aircraft to a stop safer than touching down on wheels.
Ditching: when an aircraft makes an emergency landing on water.
Any other situation a pilot considers a belly-landing safer than landing on wheels.
Other aviation terminology:
Landing long and fast: It is an aviation term that means an aircraft touches down far beyond the designated touchdown zone on the runway, leaving the crew with less runway length to stop the aircraft, and at a speed far exceeding the recommended landing speed.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
Jeju Aircraft Crash: How exactly a plane lands, and what could have gone wrong
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/jeju-aircraft-crash-how-plane-lands-what-gone-wrong-9751458/
With reference to Tinnitus, consider the following statements:
- It refers to the perception of sound without an external source.
- It is commonly caused by conditions such as age-related hearing loss, ear injuries, or circulatory system issues.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay have developed an affordable device to diagnose and manage tinnitus.
About Tinnitus:
It is the perception of sound that does not have an external source, meaning only the affected individual can hear it.
Causes: It is usually caused by an underlying condition, such as age-related hearing loss, an ear injury or a problem with the circulatory system.
Symptoms:
It can include sleep disturbances, depression, anxiety, irritability, and significant impacts on mental health and social life.
It can also cause other types of phantom noises in your ears, including: Buzzing, Roaring and Clicking etc.
Treatment: It may include hearing aids, sound-masking devices, medicines, and ways to learn how to cope with the noise.
Key facts about the newly developed device:
This device along with its supporting application software, offers a comprehensive approach to managing tinnitus.
It features precise tinnitus matching, which helps identify the exact nature and frequency of the sound experienced by the patient.
It provides a customizable, multimodal approach to treatment, ensuring each patient receives a tailored experience suited to their unique condition.
The software also includes tools for tracking disease progression, enabling clinicians to monitor patient improvement over time.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
IIT-Bombay researchers develop affordable device to diagnose tinnitus
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/health/story/iit-bombay-researchers-develop-affordable-device-to-diagnose-tinnitus-2658219-2025-01-01
Consider the following statements with reference to the National e-Governance Awards Scheme:
- Its objective is to recognize and promote excellence in the implementation of e-governance initiatives.
- It will consist of a Trophy, Certificate and an incentive of Rs 10 lakh for Gold Awardees and Rs 5 Lakhs for Silver Awardees.
- The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions serves as its nodal ministry.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions issued the scheme guidelines for the 28th National Awards for e-Governance (NAeG) 2025.
About National e-Governance Awards Scheme:
It is recognized amongst the most competitive and prestigious digital governance awards schemes in the country.
The objective of the Scheme is to recognize and promote excellence in the implementation of e-Governance initiatives.
The NAeG Awards, 2025 will consist of Trophy, Certificate and an incentive of Rs 10 lakh for Gold Awardees and Rs 5 Lakhs for Silver Awardees to be awarded to the district/organization for being utilized for implementation of project/programme or bridging resources gaps in any area of public welfare.
This year 16 Awards are being conferred under the NAeG 2025. Of these 10 will be Gold Awards and 6 will be silver Awards.
For the year 2025, there are six categories under which the National Awards for e-Governance 2026 will be conferred:
Government Process Re-engineering by use of technology for Digital Transformation
Innovation by Use of AI and other new age technologies for providing Citizen-Centric Services,
Best e-Governance Practices/Innovation in Cyber Security
Grassroot Level Initiatives for Deepening/ Widening of Service Delivery with focus on initiatives by Districts/ULBs/Gram Panchayats
Replication and Scaling up of Successful National Awarded Projects like NAeG, Prime Minister Awards in Excellence, Awards conferred by other Central Ministries by State/UT/ District The NAeG 2024
Digital transformation by use of data analytics in digital platforms by Central Ministries/States/UTs
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions
Hence option c is the correct answer.
DARPG issues the guidelines for the 28th National e-Governance Awards Scheme 2025
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2089423®=3&lang=1
Consider the following statements regarding the Tobacco Board of India:
- It is a statutory body.
- The primary function of the Board is the export promotion of all varieties of tobacco and its allied products.
- It has been headquartered in New Delhi.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Tobacco Board has undertaken several strategic activities to ensure the sustainability and growth of the tobacco industry.
About Tobacco Board of India:
It is a statutory body established on 1st January 1976 by an Act of Parliament “Tobacco Board Act, 1975 (Act 4 of 1975)”.
The Board is headed by a chairperson and is responsible for the development of the tobacco industry.
Functions:
The primary function of the Board is the export promotion of all varieties of tobacco and its allied products, its functions extend to production, distribution (for domestic consumption and exports) and regulation of Flue Cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco.
It ensures the smooth functioning of the farming system and ensures fair and remunerative prices for tobacco farmers and the promotion of exports.
Financial assistance is extended to farmers through banks, along with the necessary inputs for the production of quality tobacco.
The Board also engages in extension and developmental activities to promote sustainable tobacco cultivation practices.
The Board supports farmers by providing handholding assistance to produce tobacco of requisite quality to meet the standards of importing countries.
Headquarters: Guntur, Andhra Pradesh
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Commerce and Industry
India’s Tobacco Industry:
India is the 2nd largest producer of tobacco in the world after China.
India is the 4th largest producer of FCV tobacco in the world after China, Brazil and Zimbabwe.
India is the 2nd largest exporter of unmanufactured tobacco (quantity terms) after Brazil.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Tobacco Board focuses on sustainability and growth of the industry; exports reach 12,005 crores in 2023-24
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2089182
Stellaria bengalensis is primarily classified as:
A flowering herb
Explanation :
Researchers from the Centre for Advanced Studies in Botany, North-Eastern Hill University, Shillong discovered a new plant species and named it as Stellaria bengalensis.
About S. bengalensis:
It is the annual herb plant of the genus Stellaria (family Caryophyllaceae).
It was found growing on muddy soil slopes — at altitudes of 2,245-2,450 metres in the Sangser forest, Kalimpong.
Characteristics:
It is an annual herb growing to a height of 8 to 10.5 cm, characterized by white flowers, absence of bract, shorter petals (or included within the sepal) and sharp and pointed seeds.
Flowering and fruiting occur from May to September.
India has around 22 Stellaria species mostly distributed in the Himalayan region.
The researchers have for the time being assessed the new species as ‘data deficient’ under the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) criteria.
Another species Stellaria mcclintockiae, of the same genus, was found on Nelliyampathy Hills of Kerala.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
Researchers identify another species of the genus Stellaria in West Bengal
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/researchers-identify-another-species-of-the-genus-stellaria-in-west-bengal/article69043566.ece
With reference to the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC), consider the following statements:
- It functions in the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare, Government of India.
- It keeps a check on the use, import, and export of genetically modified (GM) organisms and crops.
- Clearance of GEAC is mandatory for the environmental release of GM crops in India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has amended the rules governing the selection of experts to the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC).
About Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC):
It is the statutory committee constituted under the “Rules for the Manufacture,Use/Import/Export and Storage of Hazardous Micro Organisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells (Rules, 1989)” framed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
It was earlier called the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee, which was changed to Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee in the year 2010.
It functions in the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change (MoEF&CC).
The functions of GEAC as prescribed in the Rules 1989 are as follows:
To appraise activities involving large-scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle.
To appraise proposalsrelating to the release of genetically engineered organisms and products into the environment,including experimental field trials.
The committee or any persons authorized by it has powers to take punitiveaction under the Environment Protection Act.
It keeps a check on the use, import, and export of genetically modified (GM) organisms and crops.
Clearance of GEAC is mandatory for the environmental releaseof GM crops.
Composition:
GEAC is chaired by the Special Secretary/Additional Secretary of MoEF&CC and co-chaired by a representative from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT).
Presently, it has 24 members and meets every month. The members comprise experts from other ministries as well as institutions such as the ICAR, ICMR, CCMB, and so on.
Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/experts-on-gm-crop-committees-to-declare-conflict-of-interest/article69053648.ece`
What is the primary mandate of the Ramesh Chand Panel, constituted recently?
To revise the base year of the Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
Explanation :
The government recently announced the formation of an 18-member panel headed by NITI Aayog member Ramesh Chand to revise the base year of the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and suggest a road map for switching over to the Producer Price Index (PPI).
About Ramesh Chand Panel:
It was established to revise the base year of the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) from 2011-12 to 2022-23.
Among its key mandates, the panel will:
Propose a revised commodity basket for the WPIand the Producer Price Index (PPI)with the base year 2022-23, considering structural changes in the economy.
Review the current system of price collection and recommend improvements.
It will also decide on the computational methodology to be adopted for WPI and PPI.
The panel will have economists in the government, rating agencies, asset management companies, banks, and representatives from the government and the Reserve Bank of India.
It has been asked to submit its final report to the Office of the Economic Adviser at the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIT) within 18 months.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.financialexpress.com/policy/economy-panel-to-suggest-road-map-for-producer-price-index-3705945/lite/
The Gomti River is a tributary of which major river?
Ganga
Explanation :
The Territorial Army recently established a new task force dedicated to the rejuvenation and protection of the Gomti River.
About Gomti River:
It is a tributary of the Ganges (Ganga) River, flowing entirely through the state of Uttar Pradesh.
Course:
The Gomti River originates from the Gomat Taal, otherwise called Fulhaar Jheel, which is found near the Madho Tanda in thePilibhit district in Uttar Pradesh.
The river drains the area between Ramganga and Sharda.
After flowing southwards through the districts of Lucknow, Barabhanki, Sultanpur, Faizabad, and Jaunpur, it joins with the River Ganga.
The river extends to about 900 km. It drains a basin of about 7,240 square miles (18,750 square km).
It is a perennial river. The river is characterised by sluggish flow throughout the year, except during the monsoon season, when heavy rainfall causes a manifold increase in the runoff.
Significant tributaries of the Gomti include the Sai River, Chowka River, Kathina River, and Saryu River.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/territorial-army-launches-task-force-for-gomti-river-rejuvenation-2658382-2025-01-02
Consider the following statements regarding Incineration:
- It is the process of burning hazardous materials at temperatures high enough to destroy contaminants.
- Many different types of hazardous materials can be treated by incineration, including heavy metals like lead and chromium.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Residents of Pithampur have expressed strong objection to incineration of 377 Metric Tonnes of harmful Union Carbide waste brought from Bhopal.
About Incineration:
Incineration is the process of burning hazardous materials at temperatures high enough to destroy contaminants.
Incineration is conducted in an “incinerator,” which is a type of furnace designed for burning hazardous materials in a combustion chamber.
Many different types of hazardous materials can be treated by incineration, including soil, sludge, liquids, and gases.
Although it destroys many kinds of harmful chemicals, such as solvents, PCBs (polychlorinated biphenyls), and pesticides, incineration does not destroy metals, such as lead and chromium.
Waste incineration can be a form of waste-to-energy because the heat generated during combustion can be used to create electricity.
How Does It Work?
Hazardous materials must be excavated or pumped into containers before incineration.
They may require further preparation, such as grinding or removing large rocks and debris, or removing excess water.
The materials are then placed in the combustion chamber of an incinerator where they are heated to an extremely high temperature for a specified period of time.
The temperature and length of time depend on the types of wastes and contaminants present.
Air or pure oxygenmay be added to the chamber to supply the oxygen needed for burning.
As the wastes heat up, the contaminants volatilize (change into gases), and most are destroyed.
Gases that are not destroyed pass through a secondary combustion chamber for further heating and destruction.
The resulting gases then pass through air pollution control equipment, which removes particulate matter (extremely small particles or liquid droplets) and “acid gases.”
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.freepressjournal.in/indore/bhopal-gas-tragedy-pithampur-residents-protest-against-incineration-of-ucc-hazardous-waste-in-city-fear-air-water-contamination
Consider the following statements regarding Pallas’s Cat, recently seen in the news:
- It is a small, long-haired cat, native to North America.
- It is classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The first photographic proof of Pallas’s cat in Himachal Pradesh, India, during a snow leopard survey recently, highlights urgent need for conservation of lesser-known species in the Indian Himalayas.
About Pallas’s Cat:
The Pallas’s cat, or manul (Otocolobus manul), is a small, long-haired cat (family Felidae).
It was named Pallas’s cat after Peter Simon Pallas, who first described it in 1776 based on specimens collected near Lake Baikal, Russia.
Distribution:
They are primarily found in Central Asia, with their range extending to western Iran, Mongolia, China, Russia (on the border of Mongolia and China), Kazakhstan, and Kyrgyzstan.
In these regions, these cats inhabit mountainous plains and semi-desert foothills.
Features:
It is a soft-furred animal about the size of a house cat and is pale silvery gray or light brown in colour.
Head and body length ranges from 45 to 60 centimetres (18 to 24 inches) with an additional 23–30 cm for the tail; weight ranges from 2.5 to 3.5 kilograms (5.5 to 7.7 pounds).
The Pallas’s cat is distinguished by abroad head with high-set eyes and low-set ears.
The end of its tail is ringed and tipped with black, and some individuals have vague, dark markings on the body.
The fur of the underparts is about twice as long as that of the upperparts and possibly represents an adaptation to the cat’s habitual lying and crouching on cold ground.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
CITES: Appendix II
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/an-small-tiger-like-animal-even-more-elusive-than-snow-leopard-spotted-in-himachal/articleshow/116669554.cms
The Rural Community Immigration Class (RCIC) Scheme, which was recently in the news, is launched by:
Canada
Explanation :
Recently, Canada announced that the Post-Graduate Work Permits (PGWPs) of nearly 7.66 lakh international students are set to expire by the end of next year and the Rural Community Immigration Class (RCIC) scheme provides a pathway for foreign nationals and students.
It is a new programme launched by Immigration, Refugees and Citizenship Canada (IRCC) in December 2024.
It aims to address labour shortages and promote development in smaller rural communities by attracting individuals willing to settle long-term in these areas.
Eligibility
Education Level: Applicants can include those with 10+2, graduation, or secondary school qualifications.
Studies: Students who have completed at least 18 months of study in one of the designated communities are eligible to apply for PR directly. Those who studied outside these communities can also apply but must meet additional conditions.
Job Offer: Applicants need a job offer letter from a registered or designated employer in the community. This job offer can be in any category, including non-skilled roles. The offer must be submitted to the community, which will then issue a certificate supporting the PR application.
Work Experience: Relevant work experience is typically required, though this condition may be waived for international graduates who meet certain criteria.
Language Proficiency: Applicants must meet the Canadian Language Benchmark (CLB) requirements based on the job’s NOC TEER (National Occupational Classification Training, Education, Experience, and Responsibilities) level: TEER 0-1: CLB 6,TEER 2-3: CLB 5 and TEER 4-5: CLB 4
Financial Proof: Applicants must demonstrate they have at least half of the low-income threshold for rural areas (as determined by Statistics Canada) to sustain themselves for one year.
Intent to Reside: Candidates must provide genuine proof of their intention to live in the designated rural community.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/canadas-rcic-scheme-for-indians-expiring-work-permits-9756371/
Consider the following statements regarding Melatonin:
- It is a neurohormone secreted from the pineal gland of the brain in response to darkness.
- It gets secreted more in the human body in the middle of the night.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Scientists have proved that nano-formulation of Melatonin showed improved antioxidative and neuroprotective properties and could be a potential therapeutic solution for Parkinson’s disease (PD).
It is a neurohormone secreted from the pineal gland of the brain in response to darkness.
It is related to the timing and quality of our sleep and wake rhythms and is determined by our internal body clock.
Melatonin makes us sleepy at certain times of the day. It starts to secrete when our bodies are getting ready to go to sleep and usually takes about 30 to 45 minutes to take full effect.
Melatonin secretion is at its highest in the middle of the night and gradually starts to decrease until we are ready to wake up and start our day.
Key facts about Parkinson’s disease
It is a progressive neurological disorder that affects the nervous system and the parts of the body controlled by the nerves.
It is a condition in which a patient has limited or no control over his movements and body balance.
The risk of developing Parkinson’s disease naturally increases with age, and the average age at which it starts is 60 years old.
Many studies have suggested that men are more likely to be affected by Parkinson’s than women.
Cause:
It is caused by the degeneration of nerve cells in the part of the brain called the substantia nigra, which controls movement.
These nerve cells die or become impaired, losing the ability to produce an important chemical called dopamine.
Dopamine operates with other neurotransmitters to help coordinate the millions of nerve and muscle cells involved in the movement.
Lack of dopamine causes the slowed movements and tremors symptoms of Parkinson’s disease.
Treatment: There’s no cure for this disease, but treatments can help significantly improve your symptoms.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2089588
With reference to Banana, consider the following:
- It is a tropical crop.
- It grows well in a temperature range of 15ºC – 35ºC with relative humidity.
- It requires saline solid and calcareous soil for its growth.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
According to the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA), India has achieved a tenfold increase in banana exports over the past decade and aims to reach $1 billion in exports within the next five years.
It is basically a tropical crop and the second most important fruit crop in India next to mango.
Required Climatic Condition
Temperature: It grows well in a temperature range of 15ºC – 35ºC with relative humidity of 75-85%.
It prefers tropical humid lowlands and is grown from the sea level to an elevation of 2000m.
Soil: Deep, rich loamy soil with pH between 6.5 -7.5 is most preferred for banana cultivation. Soil for bananas should have good drainage, adequate fertility and moisture. Saline solid and calcareous soils are not suitable for banana cultivation.
In India this crop is being cultivated in a climate ranging from humid tropical to dry mild subtropics through selection of appropriate varieties.
Varieties cultivated in India: Dwarf Cavendish, Robusta, Monthan, Poovan, Nendran, Red banana, Nyali, Safed Velchi, Basrai, Ardhapuri, Rasthali, Karpurvalli, Karthali and Grand Naine etc.
Major Producing states: Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Karnataka, Kerala etc.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/india-targets-1-billion-banana-exports-as-sea-route-trial-proves-successful/
Consider the following statements regarding the National Sports Award:
- Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is given for the most outstanding performance in the field of sports over the period of the previous four years.
- The Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy is given to an individual for top performance in inter-university tournaments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports announced the National Sports Awards 2024.
National Sports Awards are given every year to recognize and reward excellence in sports.
‘Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award’
It is given for the spectacular and most outstanding performance in the field of sports by a sportsperson over the period of the previous four years.
Arjuna Award:
It is given for outstanding performance in Sports and Games’ is given for good performance over a period of the previous four years and for showing qualities of leadership, sportsmanship and a sense of discipline.
Arjuna Award (Lifetime)
It is given to honour and motivate those sportspersons who have contributed to sports by their performance and continue to contribute to the promotion of sports even after their retirement from active sporting careers.
‘Dronacharya Award
It is given for Outstanding coaches in Sports and Games’ is given to coaches for doing outstanding and meritorious work on a consistent basis and for enabling sportspersons to excel in international events.
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA) Trophy: It is awarded to the overall top-performing university in the Khelo India University Games.
This year’s awards were decided by the Selection Committee headed by Justice (Retd.) V. Ramasubramanian, Supreme Court of India and consisting of members from eminent sportspersons, persons having experience in sports journalism and sports administrators.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2089557
Consider the following statements regarding Brazilian Velvet Ants:
- These are a group of parasitic wasps which consist of distinct black and white markings.
- These species demonstrate remarkable mobility and are mainly found in desert habitats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Scientists found that the dark markings on Brazilian Velvet Ant species of fluffy wasp reflected less than 1 percent of light.
Velvet ants are a group of parasitic wasps that are well known for a suite of defensive adaptations including bright coloration and a formidable sting.
Appearance: They’re wasps, some of which are wingless, and are named in part for their exteriors. The velvet ant is known for its distinct black and white markings.
Habitat: It is found in the shrub desert in Brazil called the Caatinga.
Characteristics
It demonstrates remarkable mobility and covers significant distances in pursuit of hosts on the ground.
It is usually found throughout the day, peak activity typically coincides with the early morning and late afternoon, during periods of subdued sunlight.
It was recently found that the black parts on female velvet ants were actually ultra black so that they absorbed nearly all visible light.
Why this finding is Unique?
Ultrablack pigmentation is rare in the animal kingdom.
In organisms that have it, it helps them hide from predators, regulate body temperature or even attract mates, as the contrast against brighter colors can be visually enticing.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://epaper.indianexpress.com/c/76538398
What is the primary purpose of the ‘Baanknet Portal’, recently seen in the news?
To consolidate information on properties put up for e-auction by public sector banks.
Explanation :
The government recently launched a revamped e-auction portal, ‘Baanknet,’ in Delhi.
About Baanknet Portal:
It is an e-auction portal that consolidates information on all properties that are put up for e-auction by Public Sector Banks (PSBs).
The portal is a one-stop destination for buyers and investors offering a wide range of properties.
The listings on the new platform include residential properties such as flats, independent houses, and open plots, as well as commercial properties, industrial land and buildings, shops, vehicles, plant and machinery, and agricultural and non-agricultural land.
Features:
The new portal is equipped with improved and enhanced features, including frictionless user journeys where the portal will have the entire pre-auction, auction, and post-auction journeys in a single application.
It includes an automated and integrated payment gateway alongside KYC tools, all built on a microservices-based architecture that allows for third-party integration through an open application programming interface (API).
Users can benefit from a dashboard feature for easy access to ‘Spend Analytics’ and various ‘Management Information System (MIS) Reports’ at the click of a button.
Additionally, a dedicated helpdesk and call centre facility with a callback request option ensures customer support.
By gathering all these details in one place, the portal simplifies the process of finding and participating in property e-auctions, making it easier for buyers and investors to identify valuable opportunities.
It significantly aids the recovery process of public sector banks (PSBs), thereby improving the balance sheet of banks and enhancing credit availability to businesses and individuals.
More than 122,500 properties have already been migrated to the new portal for auction.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livemint.com/economy/baanknet-e-auction-properties-psbs-public-sector-banks-investor-dfs-secretary-m-nagarju-finmin-banking-portal-11735896700933.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Banded Royal Butterfly, recently seen in the news:
- It is endemic to the Western Ghats.
- It prefers dense vegetation and can often be seen resting on leaves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Tripura recorded a milestone in biodiversity documentation with the first-ever recording of the Banded Royal butterfly (Rachana jalindra indra), a rare species, in the state in the Sepahijala Wildlife Sanctuary.
About Banded Royal Butterfly:
It is a species of lycaenid or blue butterfly found in parts of South and Southeast Asia.
Scientific Name: Rachana jalindra
Habitat:
Found in forests, particularly near the Western Ghats, Northeast India, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, Thailand, and Malaysia.
Prefers dense vegetation and can often be seen resting on leaves.
There are three subspecies of Rachana jalindra found in India, including macantia, distributed from southwest India to Goa; R. j. tarpina, distributed in the Andamans; and R. j. indra, distributed from Orissa to lower West Bengal and Bangladesh.
Presently the subspecies R. j. indra is recorded from Assam, Meghalaya, and Jharkhand.
Appearance:
Upper Side: Males have a deep purple or bluish sheen with dark brown borders, while females are more brownish with white markings.
Under Side: Pale brown with distinct white bands running across the wings, giving it the “banded” appearance.
It is legally protected under Schedule II of the Indian Wildlife (Protected) Act, 1972.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/guwahati/rare-butterfly-species-spotted-in-tripura-sanctuary/articleshow/116924494.cms
What is the most common environmental cause of Blue Baby Syndrome?
Nitrate-contaminated water
Explanation :
High nitrate levels have been found in the groundwater of 440 districts across India, which can cause health issues like blue baby syndrome in infants and are unsafe for drinking.
About Blue Baby Syndrome:
Blue baby syndrome, also called cyanosis, is a condition in babies in which their skin appears blue or purple-tinged.
What causes blue baby syndrome?
The baby takes on a bluish hue because of poorly oxygenated blood.
Normally, blood is pumped from the heart to the lungs, where it receives oxygen.
The blood is circulated back through the heart and then throughout the body.
When there’s a problem with the heart, lungs, or blood, blood may not be oxygenated properly.
This causes the skin to take on a blue color.
The lack of oxygenation can occur for several reasons.
It can occur due to several congenital (meaning present at birth) heart defects or environmental or genetic factors.
Acquired methemoglobinemia is more common than the congenital form. It can be caused by exposure to a variety of substances and by some health conditions.
The most common cause of blue baby syndrome is water contaminated with nitrates.
Symptoms:
The most common symptom of blue baby syndrome is a blue discoloration of the skin around the mouth, hands, and feet.
Other potential symptoms of blue baby syndrome include:
difficulty breathing
vomiting
diarrhea
lethargy
increased salivation
loss of consciousness
seizures
In severe cases, blue baby syndrome can even cause death.
Treatment:
Treatment will vary depending on what is causing the baby to turn blue.
If congenital heart disease is causing the discoloration, surgery may be required to correct the abnormalities.
Children with a more severe form of the condition may need a medication called methylene blue, which a doctor will give as an injection.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.cnbctv18.com/india/high-nitrate-levels-in-groundwater-threaten-public-health-in-440-districts-says-report-19533332.htm
Consider the following statements regarding the Centralized Pension Payments System (CPPS), recently seen in the news:
- It is implemented by the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO).
- It allows pensioners to access their pension from any bank or branch nationwide.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation recently it has fully rolled out the Centralized Pension Payments System (CPPS) under Employees’ Pension Scheme 1995, enhancing the ease of living for millions of pensioners in the country.
About Centralized Pension Payments System (CPPS):
It is implemented by the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) which allows pensioners to access their pension from any bank or branch nationwide.
The system aims to streamline the payment process, eliminate the need for physical verifications, and ensure seamless pension disbursement for over 7.85 million pensioners.
It is a paradigm shift from the existing pension disbursement system that is decentralised, with each zonal/regional office of EPFO maintaining separate agreements with only 3-4 banks, the ministry explained in a statement.
Under CPPS, a beneficiary will be able to withdraw pension from any bank and there will be no need to visit the bank for verification at the time of commencement of pension, and the amount will be immediately credited upon release.
It will also ensure the disbursement of pensions throughout India without any need for transfer of pension payment orders (PPO) from one office to another even when the pensioner moves from one location to another or changes his bank or branch.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/epfo-rolls-out-centralised-pension-payment-systems-across-india/articleshow/116921283.cms?from=mdr
The SBI Patrons Scheme, recently seen in the news, is designed specifically for which group of people?
Senior citizens aged 80 years and above
Explanation :
The State Bank of India recently launched two new deposit schemes namely, Har Ghar Lakhpati and SBI Patrons, designed to provide customers with greater financial flexibility and enhanced value.
About SBI Patrons Scheme:
This is a specialized fixed deposit scheme tailored for senior citizens aged 80 years and above.
It offers enhanced interest rates, recognizing the long-standing relationship many senior customers have with the bank.
SBI Patrons is available to existing and new term deposit customers.
SBI Patron’s depositors would earn an additional 10 basis points higher interest ratethan what is offered to senior citizens.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livemint.com/money/personal-finance/how-to-become-a-millionaire-with-sbis-new-recurring-deposit-scheme-explained-har-ghar-lakhpati-sbi-patrons-for-seniors-11735957131795.html
Logistics Ease Across Different States Report is published by:
Ministry of Commerce & Industry
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister of Commerce & Industry released the “Logistics Ease Across Different States (LEADS) 2024” report in New Delhi.
It is the 6th edition of the LEADS report.
It was conceived on the lines of the Logistics Performance Index of the World Bank in 2018 by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
It evaluates logistics performance across four key pillars: Logistics Infrastructure, Logistics Services, Operating and Regulatory Environment, and the newly introduced Sustainable Logistics.
It highlights initiatives undertaken by various States and UTs across the identified pillars and also focuses on State/UT-specific opportunities to enable informed decision-making.
Key highlights of LEADS 2024
Coastal Group
Achievers: Gujarat, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Odisha, Tamil Nadu
Fast Movers: Andhra Pradesh, Goa
Aspirers: Kerala, West Bengal
Landlocked Group
Achievers: Haryana, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand
Fast Movers: Bihar, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Punjab, Rajasthan
Aspirers: Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand
North-Eastern Group
Achievers: Assam, Arunachal Pradesh
Fast Movers: Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura
Aspirers: Manipur
Union Territories
Achievers: Chandigarh, Delhi
Fast Movers: Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu, Jammu and Kashmir, Lakshadweep, Puducherry
Aspirers: Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Ladakh
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2090056
Consider the following statements regarding Methylcobalamin:
- It is a naturally occurring form of vitamin B12 found in milk and milk products.
- It regulates body functions like cell growth, blood formation and protein synthesis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India has provided clarity on the use of methylcobalamin.
It is a naturally occurring form of vitamin B12 that can be obtained through supplements, as well as food sources like fish, meat, eggs, milk and milk products.
It consists of a distinctive methyl group (-CH3) bonded to the cobalt atom, methylcobalamin differs structurally from other forms of vitamin B12, such as cyanocobalamin, adenosylcobalamin, and hydroxocobalamin.
Vitamin B12 is crucial water-soluble vitamin, is integral to DNA synthesis, red blood cell production, and neurological function.
Deficiency in this vitamin can lead to serious health consequences, often requiring supplementation.
It regulates body functions like cell growth, blood formation and protein synthesis.
Uses:
It has been used as a supplement in patients with vitamin B12 deficiency and in those with diabetes and other neuropathies.
It is essential for the creation of red blood cells, which helps to avoid anemia.
A healthy consumption of Methylcobalamin enables adequate erythrocyte synthesis, minimizing weariness and weakness.
Its relevance extends to its role in the prevention and treatment of neurological illnesses.
It also participates in the production of neurotransmitters such as serotonin and dopamine, which are critical in controlling mood, emotions, and general mental health.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/fssai-gives-clarity-on-methylcobalamin-usage/article69052614.ece
With reference to Human Metapneumovirus, consider the following statements:
- It is a respiratory virus which causes upper and lower respiratory tract infections.
- It only affects Children with weakened immune systems.
- It spreads through contact with an infected person or touching objects that have the virus on them.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
China is undergoing an upsurge in respiratory diseases, with human metapneumovirus (HMPV) is emerging as a key concern.
It is a respiratory virus that causes mild infections similar to that caused by a common cold.
It was first identified by scientists in 2001 as belonging to the Pneumoviridae family, of which respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), measles and mumps are also members.
It can cause both upper and lower respiratory tract infections and is generally seen in winter and early spring.
Children, the elderly and those with weakened immune systems are more susceptible to the infection and to developing complications from it.
Signs and symptoms
Symptoms can resemble those caused by a common cold. They include a cough, runny or blocked nose, sore, throat, fever and wheezing.
The estimated incubation period is three to six days.
In most people, the illness goes away on its own within a few days, with rest and supportive care at home.
In a few people, however, complications such as bronchitis or pneumonia may arise, requiring medical care.
Transmission
It spreads through contact with an infected person or touching objects that have the virus on them.
This can be through: secretions from coughs and sneezes; close contact with someone who has the infection such as shaking hands, hugging; touching a doorknob or a phone or a keyboard that may be contaminated with the virus and then touching the mouth, nose or eyes.
Treatment: There is no vaccine and there is no specific antiviral to treat HMPV. Most people require over-the-counter medications to relieve fever and pain, possibly with a decongestant. Antibiotics will not work for HMPV.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/understanding-human-metapneumovirus-as-cases-emerge-from-china-explained/article69056978.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Project VISTAAR (Virtually Integrated System to Access Agricultural Resources):
- It is a digital platform designed to integrate information about start-ups in the agriculture and allied sectors.
- It enables farmers to access high-quality advisory services on crop production and marketing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras has announced a collaboration with the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare on Project VISTAAR (Virtually Integrated System to Access Agricultural Resources).
It is a digital platform designed to integrate information about start-ups in the agriculture and allied sectors.
The initiative aims to enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of the agricultural extension system through digitalisation.
This will help farmers and other stakeholders access the capabilities and offerings of these start-ups more easily.
It contains details on over 12,000 start-ups in the agriculture and farming sectors.
This database serves as a valuable resource for connecting farmers with relevant technological solutions and services.
Significance
The digitalisation of the agricultural extension system will substantially expand its outreach, enabling every farmer to access high-quality advisory services on crop production, marketing, value addition, and supply chain management.
Additionally, the advisory services will provide comprehensive information on government schemes related to agriculture, allied sectors, and rural development, ensuring farmers can benefit from them effectively.
By delivering timely, contextual, and accurate information, the process of digitalisation will augment the current extension system, ensuring better support for farmers in agriculture and allied fields.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/iit-madras-agriculture-ministry-to-partner-on-project-vistaar-to-empower-farmers/
Consider the following statements regarding the Open Data Kit (ODK) Platform:
- It is a digital platform which allows the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) to collect and manage data securely.
- It can only use the English language for its surveys.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is using the Open Data Kit (ODK) platform a new digital tool to improve transparency and accountability in public spending.
It is a digital platform which allows the CAG to collect and manage data securely.
It is used for designing, collecting, and managing data to enhance transparency in public spending and accountability in government schemes.
Features
It is integrated with CAG’s own operating system called OIOS.
It is an end-to-end encrypted online portal.
It is used to collect information for identifying problem areas warranting additional review.
It also helps CAG in launching surveys in multiple languages at the same time
Benefits
Beneficiary Survey is one of the sources of information for audit planning as well as for the collection of audit evidence.
ODK toolkit was deployed to ascertain patient satisfaction while gathering evidence in auditing the performance of the AIIMS at Mangalagiri in Guntur district and the AIIMS at Bibinagar in Hyderabad.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/are-govt-schemes-really-working-cag-now-has-a-new-tool-to-track-and-find-out/articleshow/116875252.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding the Nanopore Technology:
- It is a cutting-edge method for sequencing DNA and RNA by detecting changes in electrical conductivity as molecules pass through a nanopore.
- It is highly expensive and requires sophisticated computational and lab infrastructure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Nanopore technology represents humanity’s latest weapon in the ongoing battle against diseases.
About Nanopore Technology:
Nanopore technology refers to nano-scale holes embedded in a thin membrane structure to detect the potential change when charged biological molecules smaller than nanopores pass through the hole.
It has the potential to sense and analyze single-molecule amino acids, DNA, RNA, etc.
It is a cutting-edge method for sequencing DNA and RNA by detecting changes in electrical conductivity as molecules pass through a nanopore.
In contrast to other sequencing technologies, nanopore‐based sequencing is cheaper, very easy to use, does not require much computational and lab infrastructure, and only needs a small amount of DNA in a test sample.
It is the only sequencing technology that offers real-time analysis in fully scalable formats, from pocket to population scale, that can analyze native DNA or RNA and sequence any length of fragment to achieve short to ultra-long read lengths.
It can also undertake targeted sequencing with a focus on specific genes/regions.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.earth.com/news/nanopores-a-game-changer-in-early-disease-detection/
Consider the following statements regarding the Cowpea:
- It is a leguminous crop which can tolerate droughts.
- India is the largest producer and consumer of cowpea worldwide.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
ISRO recently said the cowpea seeds it had sent to space onboard the PSLV-C60 POEM-4 platform have germinated under microgravity conditions within four days of the launch of the mission.
About Cowpea:
Cowpea (Vigna unguiculata) is an annual plant within the pea family (Fabaceae).
It is a leguminous crop having long trailing vines producing seeds of black, white, or red colour used widely in various food preparations.
It originated and was domesticated in Southern Africa and was later moved to East and West Africa and Asia.
It is also known as a black-eyed pea, southern pea, etc.
Cowpeas are typically climbing or trailing vines that bear compound leaves with three leaflets.
The grains contain 25% protein and several vitamins and minerals.
The plant tolerates drought, performs well in a wide variety of soils, and, being a legume, replenishes low-fertility soils when the roots are left to decay.
Well-drained loam or slightly heavy soil is best suited.
In colder climates somewhat sandy soil is preferred as crops mature earlier in them.
It is grown mainly by small-scale farmers in developing regions where it is often cultivated with other crops as it tolerates shade.
It also grows and covers the ground quickly, preventing erosion.
The world’s largest production and consumption of cowpea is in West Africa, which accounts for more than 87% of world production and use.
Nigeria, the largest producer and consumer, accounts for 46% of production worldwide.
In the Indian context, it is a minor pulse cultivated mainly in arid and semi-arid tracts ofPunjab, Haryana, Delhi, and West UP, along with considerable areas in Rajasthan, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, and Gujarat.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/life-sprouts-in-space-says-isro-after-cowpea-seeds-germinate-9760434/
On which one of the following rivers is the Polavaram Project being constructed?
Godavari River
Explanation :
The Telangana government has decided to rope in experts from the Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad (IIT-H), to study the impact of the construction of the Polavaram project on theGodavari River.
About Polavaram Project:
It is a multi-purpose irrigation project built on the Godavari River in West Godavari district and East Godavari district in Andhra Pradesh.
It involves the construction of a dam to address water scarcity, boost agricultural productivity, and generate power.
The span of the dam is about 1.2 km, having a pier height of 54 m and a total of 48 radial gates (16mx20m).
Designed to withstand massive floods that could occur once in 1000 years, the Polavaram Spillway is set to have the highest discharge capacity in the world.
At 50 lakh cusecs, it is set to surpass even the 3 Gorges Dam of China, one of the largest dams in the world.
It has been accorded national project status by the central government.
Objectives:
It is intended for development of a gross irrigation potential of 4,36,825 ha.
The project also envisages the generation of 960 MW of hydropower,drinking water supply to a population of 28.50 lakh in 611 villages, and diversion of 80 TMC of water to the Krishna River basin.
The dam will help manage floodwaters from the Godavari River, reducing risks to nearby communities.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/tgana-to-rope-in-iit-h-experts-to-study-impact-of-polavaram-project-on-godavari-101736015917290-amp.html
Europa, recently seen in the news, is a moon of which planet?
Jupiter
Explanation :
The icy crust on Jupiter’s moon Europa is much thicker than scientists had thought, which could quash the hope of finding the ingredients for life in the salty oceans beneath its surface.
About Europa:
It is the smallest and second nearest of the four large moons (Galilean satellites)discovered around Jupiter by the Italian astronomer Galileo in 1610.
Europa is a rocky object covered with an extremely smooth, elaborately patterned surface of ice.
Europa has a diameter of 3,130 km (1,940 miles), which makes it a little smaller than Earth’s Moon.
Europa may be one of the most promising places in our solar system to find present-day environments suitable for some form of life beyond Earth.
Scientists believe a saltwater ocean lies beneath its icy shell, holding twice as much water as Earth’s global ocean.
It also may have the chemical elements that are key ingredients to life.
Europa was first observed at close range in 1979 by the Voyager 1 and 2 spacecraft and then by the Galileo orbiter beginning in the mid-1990s.
NASA launched Europa Clipper on Oct. 14, 2024, to determine whether there are places below Europa’s surface that could support life.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/114558/OPS/GD0DQCRC8.1+GR2DQE1SS.1.html
Consider the following statements regarding Saint Narahari Tirtha:
- He was a prominent Dvaita Vedanta philosopher and played a key role in spreading the doctrine in eastern India.
- Kings of the Eastern Ganga dynasty were assisted by the saint for three decades.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In a remarkable discovery, a member of the Team of Research on Culture and Heritage (TORCH) has hit upon a three-foot idol of the 13th Century saint, Narahari Tīrtha recently.
About Saint Narahari Tirtha:
Narahari Tirtha (c. 13th century) was a prominent Dvaita Vedanta philosopher, scholar, and saint in the Madhva tradition.
He was a disciple of Madhvacharya, the founder of Dvaita philosophy, and played a key role in spreading the doctrine in eastern India, particularly in the Kalinga region (modern Odisha and Andhra Pradesh).
Believed to have hailed from Chikakolu town (present Srikakulam), Tirtha’s ancestors were aristocrats in the Gajapati empire in what is now the Odisha state.
Available epigraphical evidence suggests that kings of the Eastern Ganga dynasty were assisted by the saint for three decades.
He ensured that the king followed Sanatana Dharma and took care of its adherents by formulating a proper executive system to oversee the temple administration.
His contributions on this front are well documented in inscriptions available in the Simhachalam and Srikurmam (Srikakulam) temples.
Some honorific prefixes being used along with the name of this saint are: ‘Loka Suraksḥaṇa Ati Nipuṇaḥ’, ‘Yo Avati Kalinga Bhu Sambhavān’.
As saint Ramanuja had introduced Vaiṣṇavism in the region, it was Narahari Tīrtha’sprolonged presence that resulted in Acharya’s Vaiṣhṇavism getting a firm following in this region, but in a completely non-interfering and secular manner.
Shri Narahari wrote fifteen books, but only two of his works, Gita Bhasya and Bhavaprakasika are existing today.
He is the first one to have composed Devaranamas in Kannada.
He was instrumental in propagating two more art forms:Yakṣagana Bayalaṭa which is a form of dance-drama famous in and around coastal Karnataka; and the classical dance form that evolved in Andhra Pradesh as the famous Kuchipudi.
The saint, upon his passing away, was consecrated near the rock adjacent to Chakratirtha at Hampi on the banks of river Tungabhadra.
His contributions are linked to the temple traditions of Puri Jagannath, strengthening the Madhva influence in Odisha.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.deccanchronicle.com/southern-states/andhra-pradesh/saint-narahari-tirtha-statue-discovered-in-simhachalam-temple-1851726
Black-collared yellow catfish, was recently seen in the news, it is endemic to:
River Chalakudy
Explanation :
Researchers at the Centre for Peninsular Aquatic Genetic Resources, Kochi, of the National Bureau for Fish Genetic Resources (NBFGR) claimed to have developed a captive breeding protocol for black-collared yellow catfish.
It is endemic to the Chalakudy river in Kerala.
It is characterized by its greenish-brown mottled coloration, shorter barbels, and distinct genetic traits, the species coexists with the endangered Horabagrus Nigricollaris.
It has been classified as endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
The captive breeding programme of the fish began in 2020, and the first generation stock was successfully bred by the researchers.
Significance of captive breeding: The development of the breeding technique will help in the conservation of the species. The development of the protocol would ensure the preservation of biodiversity in the Western Ghats.
Key facts about the National Bureau for Fish Genetic Resources (NBFGR)
It was established in December 1983 in Allahabad under the aegis of Indian Council of Agricultural Research
It aims to undertake research related to the conservation of fish germplasm resources of the country.
The Institute’s vision is assessment and conservation of fish genetic resources for intellectual property protection, sustainable utilization and posterity.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/researchers-develop-captive-breeding-protocol-for-endangered-catfish/article69058830.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Quadrantid Meteor:
- It is the most intense meteor display which occurs once in every 100 years.
- It originates from the northeast corner of the Boötes constellation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The world is all set to witness the first meteor shower of the year i.e Quadrantid Meteor in this month.
It occurs every year in early January. It is among one of the most intense annual meteor displays, and has a brief peak lasting only a few hours.
The name Quadrantids comes from the now obsolete constellation Quadrans Muralis, which was named in 1975 by French astronomer JJ Lalande.
The meteor shower was observed for the first time in the 1830s by Belgian astronomer Adolphe Quetelet.
Origin: It branches from the northeast corner of the Boötes constellation.
The Quadrantids reportedly emerged from asteroid 2003 EH1, which is believed to be a fragment of an extinct comet that broke down in 1490-91.
In its peak activity, observers can spot 60 to 120 meteors per hour. However, the visibility depends mainly on location and timing.
This year the viewing conditions will largely favour North America, especially for those in Mississippi. Apart from the US, Canada, certain regions in Northern Europe, and Russia, China, Japan, and Korea are likely to witness the shower.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/first-meteor-shower-of-2025-what-are-quadrantids-9757799/
With reference to the Rabbit Fever, consider the following statements:
- It is caused by the bacterium Francisella tularensis.
- It can be transmitted through tick and deer fly bites.
- It only infects Rabbits, hares and rodents.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
As per a recent report ‘rabbit fever’ has witnessed more than 50 per cent rise in the US in recent years.
It is also commonly known as Tularemia.
It is a rare and sometimes deadly infectious disease that is seen in children between the 5-9 years age group, older men, and American Indians or Alaska Natives.
It is caused by the bacterium Francisella tularensis and can infect animals and humans. Rabbits, hares and rodents are more likely to get the disease.
The illness can be mild or severe and high grade fever is a common symptom in all kinds of illnesses.
The signs and symptoms of tularemia can depend on how the bacteria has entered the body.
Symptoms: Skin ulcers (observed after a tick or deer fly bite),Irritation and inflammation in eyes, Difficulty in breathing, Sore throat, mouth ulcer
Transmission:
People can also become infected in many ways, including tick and deer fly bites, and contact with infected animals like rabbits, rodents, and hares.
The infection can also spread by drinking contaminated water and inhaling contaminated aerosols or agricultural and landscaping dust, and laboratory exposure,
Treatment: Vaccination for tularemia is not yet available in the U.S. It can be treated with antibiotics.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/life-style/health-fitness/health-news/what-is-rabbit-fever-the-rare-disease-up-by-56-in-the-us-signs-and-symptoms-explained/articleshow/116915634.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Export Inspection Council:
- It is the official export certification body which ensures quality and safety of products exported from India.
- It works under the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Export Inspection Council (EIC) has initiated a detailed gap assessment study on food testing infrastructure for exports.
It was set up by the Government of India under Section 3 of the Export (Quality Control and Inspection) Act, 1963.
It ensures sound development of export trade of India through quality control and inspection and matters connected therewith.
It is the official export certification body of India which ensures quality and safety of products exported from India.
It is headed by a Chairman. The Executive Head of the Council is the Director of Inspection & Quality Control who is responsible for day to day functioning of the Council.
Function:
The role of EIC is to ensure that products notified under the Export (Quality Control and Inspection) Act 1963 are meeting the requirements of the importing countries in respect of their quality and safety.
EIC provides mandatory certification for various Food items namely fish & fishery products, dairy product, honey, egg products, meat and meat products, poultry meat products, animal casing, Gelatine, Ossein and crushed bones and feed additive and pre-mixtures while other food and non-food products are certified on voluntary basis.
The Export Inspection Agencies (EIAs) are located at Mumbai, Kolkata, Kochi, Delhi and Chennai with a network of 30 sub offices backed by the state of art, NABL accredited laboratories at various places.
Headquarter: Delhi
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/govt-food-testing-infrastructure-boost-exports-official-9755282/
Consider the following statements regarding Rani Velu Nachiyar:
- She waged a war against the British in collaboration with Hyder Ali and Gopala Nayaker.
- She is also known by the title ’Veeramangai’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India remembered the courageous Rani Velu Nachiyar on her birth anniversary.
She was born on January 3, 1730 to the Raja and Rani of the Ramnad kingdom.
She was the princess of Ramanathapuram and the only child of Raja Chellamuthu vijayaragunatha Sethupathy and Rani Sakandhimuthal of the Ramnad kingdom.
At the age of 16, she married the prince of Sivaganga, Muthuvadugananthur Udaiyathevar.
She is known by Tamils as Veeramangai.
She was trained in war to match weapons usage, martial arts like Valari, Silambam (fighting using the stick), horse riding and archery.
She was skilled in the art of warfare and weaponry, Velu Nachiyar was also a scholar, and mastered several languages including English, French and Urdu.
In collaboration with Hyder Ali and Gopala Nayaker, she waged a war against the British and emerged victoriously.
She was the first queen to fight for freedom from the British in India. She granted powers to the Marudu brothers to administer the country in 1780.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2089742®=3&lang=1
What is osteoporosis?
A disease that weakens bones
Explanation :
Prevent bone loss with calcium, exercise, and healthy habits, as discussed by experts in an osteoporosis webinar held recently.
About Osteoporosis:
Osteoporosis is a disease that weakens your bones.
It makes your bones thinner and less dense than they should be.
People with osteoporosis are much more likely to experience broken bones (bone fractures).
Most people don’t know they have osteoporosis until it causes them to break a bone.
Osteoporosis can make any of your bones more likely to break, but the most commonly affected bones include your:
Hips (hip fractures).
Wrists.
Spine (fractured vertebrae).
What causes osteoporosis?
Bone is living tissue that is constantly being broken down and replaced.
Osteoporosis occurs when the creation of new bone doesn’t keep up with the loss of old bone.
Symptoms:
Osteoporosis doesn’t have symptoms the way lots of other health conditions do. That’s why healthcare providers sometimes call it a silent disease.
The most common “symptom” is suddenly breaking a bone, especially after a small fall or minor accident that usually wouldn’t hurt you.
Once your bones have been weakened by osteoporosis, you might have signs and symptoms that include:
Back pain, caused by a broken or collapsed bone in the spine.
Loss of height over time.
A stooped posture.
A bone that breaks much more easily than expected.
Treatment: Treatment for osteoporosis may involve:
Making lifestyle changes, such as changing your diet and exercise routine
Taking calcium and vitamin D supplements
Using medicines to strengthen bones
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/114696/OPS/GT8DQFUCJ.1+GJ9DQHHAV.1.html
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Panchayat Se Parliament 2.0’, programme:
- Its primary focus is to empower women representatives from Panchayati Raj institutions.
- It will bring together all the women sarpanch across India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Lok Sabha Speaker is set to inaugurate ‘Panchayat Se Parliament 2.0’ at the Central Hall of Samvidhan Sadan.
About Panchayat Se Parliament 2.0:
It is organised by the National Commission for Women (NCW), in collaboration with the Lok Sabha Secretariat and the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
The programme is being organised in commemoration of the 150th birth anniversary ofBhagwan Birsa Munda, the revered tribal leader and freedom fighter.
It will bring together 502 elected women representatives from Scheduled Tribes across 22 states and Union Territories.
Its primary focus is to empower these women representatives from Panchayati Raj institutions by enhancing their understanding of constitutional provisions, parliamentary procedures, and governance.
The programme also aims to recognise the contributions of these representatives in areas such as education and rural development.
It will include workshops, sessions, and a guided tour of key locations such as the new Parliament House, Samvidhan Sadan, Pradhanmantri Sangrahalaya, and Rashtrapati Bhawan.
The Lok Sabha Speaker will also lead the delegates in reading the Preamble to the Constitution of India during the event.
This program builds on the success of the Panchayat Se Parliament 2024 initiative, which engaged 500 women sarpanch from across India.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.devdiscourse.com/article/law-order/3215553-empowering-women-leaders-panchayat-se-parliament-20-unveiled
The ‘Banihal Bypass’ is located in:
Jammu & Kashmir
Explanation :
The Union Minister for Road Transport and Highways recently announced the completion of a 4-lane, 2.35 km Banihal Bypass on NH-44.
About Banihal Bypass:
It is a four-lane, 2.35 km bypass to Banihal town in Jammu & Kashmir, a section that was riddled with chronic traffic snarl-ups.
It was built at a cost of Rs 224.44 crore.
Strategically located on the Ramban–Banihal section of NH-44, the bypass features 4 viaducts spanning 1,513 meters and 3 culverts, effectively addressing the persistent bottleneck caused by roadside markets and shops.
This critical infrastructure ensures unhindered traffic flow, significantly reducing travel time and congestion for both tourists and defense vehicles en route to the Kashmir Valley.
Key Facts about NH-44:
NH44, also known as the Old NH 7, is the longest national highway in India.
It ranks 22nd among the longest national highways globally.
It stretches for a whopping 3,745 kilometers (2,327 miles), connecting Srinagar in the northern tip of Jammu and Kashmir to Kanyakumari at the southernmost point of India.
NH44 traverses a total of 11 Indian states. The highway passes through Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu.
NH44 passes by significant places like Agra, Delhi, Hyderabad and Bangalore.
NH44 wasn’t built as a single, continuous highway. It’s actually an amalgamation of seven previously existing national highways.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.dailyexcelsior.com/gadkari-declares-completion-of-banihal-bypass-opens-for-traffic/
‘Abdali Missile’, recently seen in the news, was developed by which one of the following countries?
Pakistan
Explanation :
Amid rising tensions in India-Bangladesh relations, Dhaka is reportedly mulling to purchase the Abdali Short Range Ballistic Missiles (SRBMs) aka the Hatf 2 missiles, from Pakistan.
About Abdali Missile:
Abdali (Hatf 2) is a short-range, road-mobile, solid propellant ballistic missile.
Developed by Pakistan’s Space Research Commission (SUPARCO), the Abdali missile system is designed for quick-reaction battlefield scenarios.
Features:
It measures 6.5 m in length, 0.56 m in diameter, and weighs 1,750 kg at launch.
It can range 180-200 km while carrying a variable 250-450 kg warhead.
It likely carries a high explosive or submunition payload.
The Hatf 2 is equipped with an inertial guidance system and has a CEP of 150 m.
It uses a single-stage solid propellant engine.
It is carried on a road mobile Transporter-Erector-Launcher (TEL) vehicle.
Its relatively small warhead limits its destructive capability, but its accuracy is sufficient to target military bases and airfields or critical infrastructure such as power plants and industrial facilities.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.india.com/news/world/india-bangladesh-relations-amid-tension-with-india-bangladesh-planning-to-buy-abdali-short-range-ballistic-missiles-from-pakistan-its-range-is-400-km-abdali-srbm-hatf-2-pm-modi-muhammad-yunus-7512820/
With reference to Chargesheet, consider the following statements:
- The prosecution proceedings against the accused begin after submission of the chargesheet to the court.
- It contains the statements of the accused and all other witnesses.
- Filing of a chargesheet is mandatory for both cognizable and non-cognizable offences.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently held that offences in the chargesheet cannot be based on bald assertions of connivance.
About Chargesheet:
A chargesheet is a final report that is filed by the investigating officer or police officials after the completion of the investigation in a cognizable or non-cognizable case.
It is also known as the Police report or the Final report.
It contains all the stringent records right from the commencement of the investigation procedure of lodging an FIR to the completion of the investigation and the preparation of final report.
The chargesheet has to be prepared and submitted by the police before the court proceedings can begin.
Once the charge sheet has been submitted to a court of law, prosecution proceedings against the accused begin.
This report by the investigating officer should be in the form prescribed by the state government.
Contents of the chargesheet:A charge sheet must contain the following information
The names of the parties.
Nature of the information.
Names of the persons who appear to be acquainted with the events.
About the offence that appears to have been committed and the person by whom it has been committed.
Information regarding the arrest of the accused, his/their release with or without sureties, and whether he has been forwarded into custody.
Benefits of a chargesheet:
It contains the statements of the accused and all other witnesses.
Marks the beginning of a criminal trial.
Charges on which courts have to proceed against the accused are mentioned.
It is useful for the accused in obtaining bail as the offences are mentioned clearly.
Time limit for filing a Charge Sheet:
It is to be filed within 60 days from the date of arrest of the accused in cases triable by lower courts and 90 days in cases triable by the Court of Sessions.
If the charge sheet is not filed within the prescribed time mentioned above, the accused has a right to default bail.
Is filing a chargesheet compulsory?
Filing of a chargesheet in case a cognizable offence is said to be committed by the accused is mandatory on the part of police officials, either by themselves or on the orders of the court, after filing an FIR.
However, the same is not compulsory in cases where a non-cognizable offence has been committed unless the court orders an investigation.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/chargesheet-cannot-be-based-on-bald-assertions-of-connivance-supreme-court-280026
‘Mucuna bracteata’, recently seen in the news, is a:
Invasive plant
Explanation :
The Tamil Nadu Forest Department, along with an NGO from Kanniyakumari, is engaged in a pilot project to remove Mucuna bracteata from rubber plantations and forest areas in the district.
It is an invasive cover crop. It is a leguminous vine which was introduced to rubber plantations as a weed protectant and nitrogen regulator valued for its drought tolerance.
Its proliferation now extends to parts of the Western Ghats in the district including places such as Kaliyal, Kadayalumoodu, Aarukani and Kodayar and Kulasekaram.
This creeper was introduced with the intention of protecting the rubber trees, it has become a threat as it has started to overpower and cover the trees.
It has begun to overtake large tracts of Kodayar region and has even climbed over native trees, affecting their growth. Most of the regions adjoin the buffer zone of Kalakkad-Mundanthurai tiger reserve, announced as a critical tiger habitat.
Other invasive plants are Lantana and Parthenium
The invasive species is particularly widespread in the rainforest of Kanniyakumari, where the abandoned rubber plantation serves as its primary habitat.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Madurai/clearing-of-invasive-creeper-mucuna-bracteata-begins-in-kanniyakumari-district/article69064423.ece
Consider the following statements regarding ‘e-student visa’ and ‘e-student-x visa’:
- It is introduced by the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
- Under this initiative international students registered on the Study in India (SII) portal can access the e-student visa facility.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Ministry of Home Affairs introduced two special category visas namely ‘e-student visa’ and ‘e-student-x’ visa for international students intending to pursue higher education in the country.
The two new visas namely; ‘e-student visa’ and ‘e-student-x’ introduced by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Eligible international students registered on the Study in India (SII) portal can access the e-student visa facility, while dependents of e-student visa holders are eligible for the e-student-x visa.
Eligibility: Foreign nationals admitted to full-time undergraduate, postgraduate, PhD, or other formal programs at recognised educational institutions in India are eligible for e-student visas.
These visas are issued for durations of up to five years, depending on the course length, and can be extended. Holders of valid e-student visas can enter India through any immigration check post.
What is the Study in India (SII) portal?
It is a flagship initiative by the Ministry of Education, hosting over 600 partner institutions offering more than 8,000 courses across disciplines such as engineering, management, agriculture, sciences, arts, humanities, law, paramedical sciences (including pharmacy and nursing), and specialised fields like Buddhist Studies and Yoga.
Programmes are available at undergraduate, postgraduate, doctoral, and certification levels, providing flexibility for students to choose courses aligned with their interests at premier Indian institutions.
The SII portal streamlines the admission process for foreign students seeking to enrol in long-term or short-term courses in the country.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/education/study-abroad/govt-launches-2-special-categories-visas-for-international-students-9760805/
With reference to the Golden Jackal, consider the following statements:
- It is a nocturnal and monogamous species.
- It is only found in South Asian countries.
- In India, it is found in the Himalayan foothills as well as in the Western Ghats.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Environmentalists say that golden jackals appear to be adapting to their changing environment and are no longer avoiding humans.
The golden jackal, also known as the common jackal, is a medium-sized wolf-like canid.
It is strictly nocturnal in areas inhabited by humans, but may be partly diurnal elsewhere.
They dig caverns for shelter, or use crevices in rocks, or caverns that were dug by other animals.
They are monogamous, meaning they mate for life.
Diet: Golden jackals are omnivores. These opportunistic foragers have a rather diverse diet.
Habitat: These animals are abundant in valleys and along rivers and their tributaries, canals, lakes, and seashores, but are rare in foothills and low mountains.
Distribution: North and East Africa, Southeastern Europe and South Asia to Burma.
They are quite widespread across India. Right from the Himalayan foothills, down to the Western Ghats, the Golden Jackal has a wide distribution.
Conservation Status
IUCN: Least Concern
CITES: Appendix III
Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I
Threats: Habitat loss from encroachments and poor management threaten their survival.
Ecological Significance: They play a crucial role in maintaining the biodiversity of mangrove and grassland ecosystems.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/mumbai/elusive-no-more-urbanisation-golden-jackals-navi-mumbai-streets-9760970/
Consider the following statements regarding Atomic clock:
- It measures time using the vibrations of atoms.
- It is used in telecommunications networks and GPS systems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A “groundbreaking” atomic clock built at a top-secret UK lab will make military operations more secure through experimental quantum technology over the years.
It is a device that measures time using the vibrations of atoms.
It specifically uses the oscillations of the electrons in atoms to keep time.
It is the most accurate time-keeping device available, with a margin of error of just a few billionths of a second per day.
It is far more precise than conventional clocks because atomic oscillations have a much higher frequency and are much more stable.
Working
Atomic clocks work by using a type of atom called a “cesium atom”.
Cesium atoms are very stable and have a very specific frequency at which their electrons vibrate. This frequency is used as the basis for the atomic clock’s timekeeping.
To measure time using cesium atoms, an atomic clock uses a device called a “microwave cavity”. The microwave cavity is a chamber that is filled with cesium vapor.
A microwave signal is then sent into the cavity, which causes the cesium atoms to vibrate. As the cesium atoms vibrate, they emit radiation at a very specific frequency.
This frequency is then detected by a detector, which compares it to a standard frequency.
The difference between the two frequencies is used to adjust the clock’s timekeeping.
Applications
GPS systems: GPS systems use atomic clocks to measure the time it takes for a signal to travel from a satellite to a receiver on Earth. This allows GPS systems to calculate the receiver’s location with great accuracy.
Telecommunications networks: Telecommunications networks use atomic clocks to synchronize the timing of signals that are sent over long distances.
Scientific research: Atomic clocks are used in many scientific experiments that require precise timing, such as studies of the behavior of atoms and molecules.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/uk-top-secret-lab-develops-groundbreaking-atomic-clock-using-quantum-technology-7393930
Consider the following statements regarding the KM3NeT Project:
- It is a research infrastructure which uses Cherenkov radiation to study neutrinos.
- It is located in the Arctic Ocean and involves collaboration among multiple countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Scientists are deploying two telescopes which are part of the Cubic Kilometre Neutrino Telescope or KM3NeT to detect high-energy neutrinos, also known as ghost particles, under the Mediterranean Sea.
It is a research infrastructure housing the next generation neutrino telescopes with a volume of at least one cubic kilometre.
It uses Cherenkov radiation (light that neutrinos produce when they interact with a water or ice molecule) to study neutrinos.
As a European research infrastructure, it is located in the Mediterranean Sea and involves collaboration among multiple countries.
Key components
ARCA (Astroparticle Research with Cosmics in the Abyss): It will help scientists in searching neutrinos from distant astrophysical sources such as supernovae, gamma ray bursters or colliding stars. It is located offshore Sicily, Italy.
ORCA (Oscillation Research with Cosmics in the Abyss): This telescope is the instrument for KM3NeT scientists studying neutrino properties exploiting neutrinos generated in the Earth’s atmosphere. It is located offshore of France.
These telescopes are much like the IceCube Neutrino Observatory, which can detect high-energy neutrinos from deep space but is under the frozen ice in the Antarctic rather than being in the water.
Arrays of thousands of optical sensors will detect the faint light in the deep sea from charged particles originating from collisions of the neutrinos and the Earth.
What is the IceCube Neutrino Observatory?
It is a device located at the Earth’s South Pole that detects subatomic particles called neutrinos. Built and maintained by the IceCube Collaboration, it consists of approximately 350 physicists from 58 institutions across 14 countries, led by the University of Wisconsin–Madison.
IceCube collaborators address several big questions in physics, like the nature of dark matter and the properties of the neutrino itself.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/underwater-telescopes-neutrinos-9753438/
With reference to the World Gold Council (WGC), consider the following statements:
- It is an intergovernmental organisation of the world’s leading gold producers.
- It aims to maximize the gold industry’s potential growth by monitoring and defending existing gold consumption.
- It also co-sponsors research in the development of new uses of gold or of new products containing gold.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Central banks around the world collectively, in November 2024, added 53 tonnes of gold to their reserves, of which the Reserve Bank of India’s addition was 8 tonnes, the World Gold Council (WGC) said in a report recently.
About World Gold Council (WGC):
It is a nonprofit association of the world’s leading gold producers.
A market development organization for the gold industry, the WGC includes 33 members and many members are gold mining companies.
It was formed in 1987 by some of the world’s most forward-thinking mining companies to promote the use of and demand for gold through marketing, research, and lobbying.
Headquarters: London, UK
It aims to maximize the industry’s potential growth by monitoring and defending existing gold consumption.
It achieves this by setting up gold standards, proposing policies, ensuring fairness and sustainability in the gold mining industry, and promoting the usage and demand for gold for individuals, industries, and institutions.
The WGC is also the global authority on gold, and they offer comprehensive analyses of the industry.
The most famous publications are quarterly reports on the gold market and gold demand trends analyzed by both sector and geographical location.
It also co-sponsors research in the development of new uses of gold, or of new products containing gold.
It covers the markets which comprise about three-quarters of the world’s annual gold consumption.
The WGC was the creator of the first gold exchange-traded fund.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/business/rbi-adds-eight-tonnes-gold-to-its-reserves-in-november-2024-world-gold-council/article69069715.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Tidal Tails, recently seen in the news:
- They are thin, elongated regions of stars and interstellar gas extending into space.
- The majority of all stellar formation in the known universe occurs within tidal tails.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
About 430 million light-years away, in the Leo constellation, astronomers have discovered a nascent ultra-diffuse galaxy forming at the tip of a record-breaking tidal tail extending from the galaxy NGC 3785.
About Tidal Tail:
Tidal tails are thin, elongated regions of stars and interstellar gas extending into space.
They are typically formed when galaxies undergo close encounters or mergers, causing their mutual gravitational forces to distort and stretch out material from their outer regions.
During the interaction, gas and stars are often stripped from the outer regions of the galaxies to form two tidal tails: one trailing and one preceding each galaxy.
These tails can persist long after the galaxies have finally merged and are therefore considered a signature of recent merger activity.
Examples of galaxies with tidal tails include the Tadpole Galaxy and the Mice Galaxies.
Tidal forcescan eject a significant amount of a galaxy’s gas into the tail.
Within those galaxies which have tidal tails, approximately 10% of the galaxy’s stellar formation takes place in the tail.
Overall, roughly 1% of all stellar formation in the known universe occurs within tidal tails.
Studying tidal tails helps astronomers understand how galaxies interact, merge, and evolve over cosmic time.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.devdiscourse.com/article/science-environment/3216659-astronomers-discover-longest-tidal-tail-and-emerging-ultra-diffuse-galaxy-in-leo-constellation
Which one of the following is the longest lake in India?
Which one of the following is the longest lake in India?
Explanation :
Climate change and pollution from slaughterhouses and shrimp peeling sheds are choking the ecosystem of Vembanad Lake, which is rapidly shrinking in area.
About Vembanad Lake:
It is the longest lake in India, as well as the largest lake in the state of Kerala.
It is spread across an area of 2,033 sq.km., across Alappuzha, Kottayam, and Ernakulam districts.
It is also known as Vembanad Kayal, Vembanad Kol, Punnamada Lake (in Kuttanad), and Kochi Lake (in Kochi).
Formed from four rivers – the Meenachil, Achankovil, Pampa, and Manimala, the lake also has an outlet to the Arabian Sea in the west.
The lake surrounds the islands of Pathiramanal, Perumbalam, and Pallippuram and is a popular backwater stretch in Kerala.
Vallam Kali (i.e Nehru Trophy Boat Race) is a Snake Boat Race held every year in the month of August in Vembanad Lake.
The Kumarakom Bird Sanctuary is located on the east coast of the lake.
It was declared as a Ramsar site of international importance in 2002.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/114864/OPS/G06DQK4C6.1+GL3DQM1KB.1.html
With reference to the Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT), consider the following statements:
- It is a military tribunal established under the Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007.
- It has original jurisdiction in service matters and appellate jurisdiction in court martial matters.
- Any appeal by a person against a decision given by the tribunal can only be taken up in the Supreme Court.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently suggested constituting Benches of the Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT) in Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh to deal with the growing pendency in defence-related cases from these two areas.
About Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT):
AFT is a military tribunal in India established under the Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007.
It is functioning under the Ministry of Defence (MoD).
It is responsible for resolving military-related disputes, including service matters and appeals from court-martial decisions.
Functions:
To provide for the adjudication or trial of disputes and complaints with respect to commission, appointments, enrolment, and conditions of service in respect of persons subject to the Army Act, 1950; the Navy Act, 1957; and the Air Force Act, 1950.
To provide for appeals arising out of orders, findings, or sentences of courts-martial held under the said Acts and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
The tribunal can also dismiss the appeal if the court martial findings are found to be justified.
Thus, the tribunal has original jurisdiction in service matters and appellate jurisdiction in court martial matters.
Any appeal by a person against a decision given by the tribunal can only be taken up in the Supreme Court.
Benches: Besides the principal bench in New Delhi, AFT has regional benches at Chandigarh, Lucknow, Kolkata, Guwahati, Chennai, Kochi, Mumbai, Jabalpur, Srinagar, and Jaipur.
Composition:
Each Bench comprises of a Judicial Member and an Administrative Member.
The Judicial Members are retired High Court Judges, and Administrative Members are retired Members of the Armed Forces who have held the rank of Major General/equivalent or above for a period of three years or more.
Judge Advocate General (JAG), who has held the appointment for at least one year, are also entitled to be appointed as the Administrative Member.
Functioning:
The Tribunal shall transact their proceedings as per the Armed Forces Tribunal (Procedure) rules, 2008.
All proceedings in the Tribunal will be in English.
The Tribunal will normally follow the procedure as is practiced in the High Courts of India.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/supreme-court-suggests-armed-forces-tribunal-benches-in-jk-himachal-pradesh-to-shed-backlog/article69069647.ece
At which one of the following confluence does the Alaknanda River meet the Bhagirathi River to form the Ganga?
Devprayag
Explanation :
Alaknanda river flowing through the Garhwal region has been identified as ‘most vulnerable to landslide-induced natural dams’, according to a recent study conducted by IIT Roorkee researchers in Uttarakhand.
About Alaknanda River:
The Alaknanda River is one of the two main headstreams of the Ganges River, the other being the Bhagirathi River.
It originates from the meltwaters of the Satopanth and Bhagirath Kharak glaciers in the Garhwal Himalayas of Uttarakhand.
The river is joined by many tributaries in Uttarakhand.
Five of the tributaries are considered major,and their points of confluence are also worshipped. They are listed below:
Vishnuprayag: Alaknanda meets DhauligangaRiver
Nandprayag: Alaknanda meets NandakiniRiver
Karnaprayag: Alaknanda meets Pindar River
Rudraprayag: Alaknanda meets MandakiniRiver
Devprayag: Alaknanda meets Bhagirathi. This is the most revered confluence, as it is here when the surging water coming from the mountains is finally called the Ganga.
At the time of formation of Ganga, Alaknanda’s contribution to the flow is much larger than that of Bhagirathi.
From its source till its union with Bhagirathi, Alaknanda travels for 190 km (approx.).
Along the banks of the Alaknanda are numerous important pilgrimage sites such as Badrinath, Hemkund Sahib, and Joshimath.
The Alaknanda River valley is a significant part of the Char Dham Yatra, a pilgrimage circuit that encompasses four sacred sites—Badrinath, Kedarnath, Gangotri, and Yamunotri.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/dehradun/landslide-dams-threat-looms-in-ukhand-alaknanda-river-chamoli-district-identified-as-most-vulnerable/articleshow/117002093.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Dozer Push Mining Method:
- It is an unmanned, automated machinery method to optimize the mining process.
- It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The CSIR-Central Institute of Mining and Fuel Research (CSIR-CIMFR) has successfully conducted the first trial blast for the Dozer Push Mining Method, integrating advanced digital technologies, for the first time in India.
It is an unmanned, automated machinery to optimize the mining process which ensures that vibration and flyrock are controlled within safe limits.
It is an innovative approach developed by CSIR-CIMFR which aims to enhance safety and operational efficiency in mining processes.
Advantages:
It offers a viable alternative to the conventional truck-shovel mining technique or shovel-dumper and dragline methods.
It offers distinct advantages such as improved efficiency by enabling faster coal recovery, reducing delays caused by adverse weather conditions such as the monsoon season and is highly cost-effective, with an estimated 7-10% reduction in operational costs compared to conventional methods.
Additionally, it enhances productivity by improving the utilization of dragline machines and reducing unit costs.
Moreover, the unmanned operation of the Dozer Push Mining method greatly enhances worker safety, minimizing the risks associated with manual labor and traditional mining techniques.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2089955
Consider the following statements regarding the Net-Zero Banking Alliance:
- It is a group of global banks which are committed to aligning their lending and investment activities with net-zero greenhouse gas emissions by 2050.
- The Reserve Bank of India is a member of this alliance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Wall Street’s biggest banks have quit Net-Zero Banking Alliance which had been one of the most popular clubs inside global finance.
It is a bank-led and UN-convened, the Net Zero Banking Alliance is a group of leading global banks is committed to aligning their lending, investment, and capital markets activities with net-zero greenhouse gas emissions by 2050.
It is the climate accelerator for UNEP Financial Initiative’s Principles for Responsible Banking (PRB).
Governance
It is governed by a Steering Group and Chair. The Steering Group is selected by member banks, and represents a diversity of geographies and business models.
It is supported and convened by the UNEP FI Secretariat, and the United Nations also holds a seat on the Steering Group.
The Alliance operates in compliance with the NZBA governance document adopted in October 2021 and updated in August 2023 and March 2024.
All banks that have signed the commitment will:
Transition the operational and attributable greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions from their lending and investment portfolios to align with pathways to net-zero by 2050 or sooner.
Within 18 months of joining, set targets for 2030 or sooner and a 2050 target, with intermediary targets to be set every 5 years from 2030 onwards.
Banks’ first 2030 targets will focus on priority sectors where the bank can have the most significant impact, ie. the most GHG-intensive sectors within their portfolios, with further sector targets to be set within 36 months.
Annually publish absolute emissions and emissions intensity in line with best practice and within a year of setting targets.
No Indian Bank is a member of this alliance.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/world-news/wall-street-s-top-banks-just-quit-a-once-popular-net-zero-alliance-125010600001_1.html
With reference to Common Noctule bat, consider the following statements:
- It is an insectivorous bat found in European and Asian countries.
- It echolocates at low frequencies around 25kHz.
- It is categorized as Critically Endangered species under the IUCN Red list.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A new study has uncovered the migration strategy of a mammal species called common noctule bat, which travels thousands of kilometres every spring across Europe and uses warm storm fronts to aid their migration and conserve energy while flying.
The Common noctule (Nyctalus noctula) is an insectivorous bat.
Appearance: Its colors range from golden to dark brown above and usually pale brown below. Their wings are narrow and pointed, and they have a characteristic powerful, direct flight, with repeated steep dives when chasing flying insects.
Noctules echolocate at low frequencies around 25kHz, just within the upper limit of human hearing, and they can sometimes be heard, particularly by children.
Habitat:
They generally reside in forests but may forage in open areas and dwell in or near human habitation. Roosting sites include hollow trees, buildings, and caves.
During winter they hibernate in caves, rock crevices, bat boxes, or blocks of flats in Eastern Europe, where they are the most common hibernating bat species in the cities.
Distribution: They are found in common throughout Europe, most of temperate Asia to Japan and Burma, Oman, Viet Nam, Taiwan and Algeria.
Conservation Status
IUCN: Least Concern
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://theprint.in/scientifix/noctule-bats-migration-strategy-involves-hitching-a-ride-with-warm-storm-fronts-with-multiple-stops/2431150/
Consider the following statements regarding the BHARATPOL Portal:
- It will streamline the processing of all requests for international assistance through INTERPOL.
- It is developed by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation will launch BHARATPOL portal in New Delhi on 07th January, 2025 in Bharat Mandapam.
It will streamline the processing of all requests for international assistance through INTERPOL, including the issuance of Red Notices and other colour-coded INTERPOL notices.
The BHARATPOL portal will become a transformative tool for field-level police officers, enhancing their efficiency in dealing with crimes and security challenges. By facilitating easier and faster access to international assistance, it will strengthen India’s efforts in combating transnational crimes.
It will significantly facilitate Indian Law Enforcement Agencies (LEAs) enabling real-time information sharing for faster access to international police assistance.
It is developed by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).
Key facts about the Central Bureau of Investigation
It is the premier investigative agency in India, with a dual responsibility to investigate grievous cases and provide leadership and direction in fighting corruption to the police force across the country.
It was established on recommendation of the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–1964).
It is not a statutory body, as it was set up by a resolution (1963) of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
It acts as the National Central Bureau (NCB-New Delhi) for INTERPOL in India.
It facilitates international cooperation in criminal matters in collaboration with various agencies across the country, including law enforcement agencies.
At the Central, State, and Union Territory levels, this coordination is executed through INTERPOL Liaison Officers (ILOs), who are further linked to Unit Officers (UO’s) at the level of Superintendents of Police, Commissioners of Police and Branch Heads, within their respective organizations.
Presently, communications among the CBI, ILOs, and UOs primarily relies on letters, emails and faxes.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2090659
Consider the following statements regarding the Production Linked Incentive Scheme 1.1:
- It covers products like Alloy Steel Products & Steel wires and Electrical Steel.
- It is implemented during the production period of FY 2025-26 to FY 2029-30.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the union Minister of Steel and Heavy Industries launched the second round of the PLI scheme for Specialty Steel, termed as PLI Scheme 1.1.
It shall be implemented during the production period of FY 2025-26 to FY 2029-30.
It covers five (5) product categories in line with the existing PLI Scheme, namely Coated / Plated Steel Products, High Strength / Wear resistant Steel, Specialty Rails, Alloy Steel Products & Steel wires and Electrical Steel.
These products have a wide range of applications, from white goods to transformers to Automobiles and other niche sectors.
Changes in scheme:
Reduction in threshold investment & capacity for the CRGO product sub-categories, allowing carry forward of excess production to the immediately following year for the purpose of claiming incentive and reduction in threshold investment under capacity augmentation mode.
Not all companies would need to install new mills.
Recognising the importance of producing quality steel, energy efficiency and other process improvements, companies investing in augmentation of existing capacities will be allowed to participate in the scheme.
The Centre had earlier introduced the PLI scheme to encourage domestic production of specialty steel and lower imports by drawing in capital investments.
It was initially launched for three sectors to address the need to boost domestic manufacturing during COVID-19 lockdown, the PLI scheme was later extended to include steel in November 2020.
What is Cold-rolled grain-oriented steel (CRGO)?
It is a high-value steel used in production of power transformers used in HT power distribution. The technology to make CRGO is not available with any of the Indian steelmakers.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2090683
Consider the following statements:
- Ministers of State at Union level can attend the Cabinet meetings as a matter of their right.
- The 91st Amendment Act, 2003 curbed Prime Minister’s discretion to appoint any number of Ministers in the Council of Ministers.
- The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under the supervision of the Union Cabinet Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Cabinet Ministers attend meetings of the cabinet as a matter of their own right. Ministers of State are not members of the cabinet and they can attend only if invited. A deputy minister assists the Minister in charge and takes no part in Cabinet deliberations. So, statement 1 is not correct.
As per the 91st Amendment Act 2003, the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members of Lok Sabha (Article 75 (1A)). So, statement 2 is correct.
The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under the Prime Minister. The administrative head of the Secretariat is the Cabinet Secretary. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements:
- Ministers have an individual responsibility to the Head of the State in India.
- Ministers have a collective responsibility to the House of People even if they are members of the Council of State.
- Ministers are legally responsible for the aid and advice rendered to the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Article 75(2) of the constitution states that Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President (Head of the State) which embodies the principle of individual responsibility. So, statement 1 is correct.
Article 75(3) of the constitution states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of people which embodies the principle of collective responsibility. So, the ministry as a body is under constitutional obligation to resign as soon as it loses the confidence of the popular house (Lok Sabha). A Minister can be either from the House of People or the Council of State (Rajya Sabha). So, statement 2 is correct.
In England, the crown cannot do any public act without the counter-signature of a minister who is liable in court. However, in India Courts are not entitled to enquire what advice was tendered by Ministers to the executive head. So, there is no scope for Ministers to be legally responsible for the act even though it may have been done on the advice of Ministers. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Prime Minister of India is the ex-officio Chairperson of which of the following?
- Governing council of NITI Aayog
- PM Cares Fund
- National Defense fund
- Zonal Council
- National Security Council
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation :
NITI Aayog: The Governing Council of NITI Aayog is chaired by the Hon’ble Prime Minister and comprises Chief Ministers of all the States and Union Territories with legislatures and Lt Governors of other Union Territories. So, point 1 is correct.
PM CARES FUND: Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the PM CARES Fund and Minister of Defence, Minister of Home Affairs and Minister of Finance, Government of India are ex-officio Trustees of the Fund. So, point 2 is correct.
National Defence Fund: The National Defence Fund was set up to take charge of voluntary donations in cash and kind received for promotion of the national defence effort, and to decide on their utilization. The Fund is used for the welfare of the members of the Armed Forces (including Para Military Forces) and their dependents. The Fund is administered by an Executive Committee, with the PM as Chairperson, and Defence, Finance and Home Ministers as Members. So, point 3 is correct.
The Zonal Council is headed by the Union Home Minister, not the Prime minister. So, point 4 is not correct.
The National Security Council (NSC) of India is a three-tiered organization that oversees political, economic, energy and security issues of strategic concern. The National Security Advisor presides over the NSC, and is also the primary advisor to the prime minister. So, point 5 is not correct
Which of the following offices is lower in position in the table of precedence in India?
Cabinet secretary
Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court.
- It is a permanent bench of the Supreme Court of India which consists of at least five judges of the court.
- The Chief Justice of India is constitutionally authorized to constitute a Constitution Bench.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The constitution bench is the name given to the benches of the Supreme Court of India which consist of at least five judges of the court who sit to decide any case “involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation” of the Constitution of India or any reference under Article 143, which deals with the power of the President of India to consult the Supreme Court. These benches are set up on an ad hoc basis as and when the need arises. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Constitution benches have decided many of India’s best-known and most important Supreme Court cases, such as A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras, Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (basic structure doctrine) and Ashoka Kumar Thakur v. Union of India (OBC reservations) etc.
The provision for a constitution bench has been provided in the Constitution of India under Article 145. It is the Chief Justice of India who is constitutionally authorized to constitute a constitution bench and refer cases to it. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Contempt of Court:
- The term ‘contempt of court’ has not been defined by the Constitution.
- Attorney General’s consent is mandatory for initiating any contempt of court case.
- The Supreme Court’s power to punish for contempt is a constitutional power.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
The term ‘contempt of court’ has not been defined by the Constitution. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 defines both civil and criminal contempt. Civil contempt refers to willful disobedience to any judgment of the court, while criminal contempt can be invoked if an act tends to scandalise or lower the authority of the court or tends to interfere with or obstruct the administration of justice. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Attorney General (AG)’s consent is mandatory when a private citizen wants to initiate a case of contempt of court against a person. Before such a plea can be filed, the Attorney General must sign off on the complaint, determining if it requires the attention of the court at all. However, when the court itself initiates a contempt of court case, the AG’s consent is not required. This is because the court is exercising its inherent powers under the Constitution to punish for contempt and such Constitutional powers cannot be restricted because the AG declined to grant consent. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Recently, the Supreme Court in the Suraz India Trust v. Union of India case held that its power to punish for contempt under Article 129 is a constitutional power, which cannot be done away with even by any law. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the official language of the Indian judiciary:
- The proceedings of the Supreme Court shall be conducted only in the English language.
- Adoption of an official language for a high court’s proceedings requires a constitutional amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Article 348 of the Indian Constitution mandates that all proceedings of the Supreme Court should be in English language only. It authorizes the Parliament to enact laws to adopt any language as the official language in the Supreme Court.
However, till now the Parliament has not made any provision for the use of Hindi in the Supreme Court. Hence, the Supreme Court hears only those who petition or appeal in English. So, statement 1 is correct.
Article 348 of the Constitution empowers the governor of a state, with the previous consent of the president, to authorise the use of Hindi or any other official language of the state, in the proceedings in the high court of the state, except the judgements, decrees and orders passed by it.
States of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh have already authorized the use of Hindi in proceedings before their respective high courts and taking a cue, Tamil Nadu is also working in that direction – to authorize the use of Tamil before its high court. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements:
- Collegium system is a system under which the appointment and transfer of judges are done for constitutional courts.
- The term ‘Collegium’ is mentioned under Article 124 of the Indian Constitution.
- The Supreme Court collegium is headed by the Chief Justice of India and comprises four other senior-most judges of the court.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Collegium System
Collegium System: It is a system under which appointments and transfers of judges are decided by a forum of the Chief Justice of India and the four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court for the Supreme Court and High Courts (Also called as constitutional courts). So, statement 1 is correct.
Article 124 (2) of the Indian Constitution provides that the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal after consultation with such a number of the Judges of the Supreme Court (SC) and of the High Courts in the States as the President may deem necessary for the purpose.
The Collegium of judges is the Supreme Court’s invention. It does not figure in the Constitution. In effect, it is a system under which judges are appointed by an institution comprising judges. So, statement 2 is not correct.
After some judges were superseded in the appointment of the Chief Justice of India (CJI) in the 1970s, and attempts made subsequently to effect a mass transfer of High Court judges across the country, there was a perception that the independence of the judiciary was under threat. This resulted in a series of cases over the years. The ‘First Judges Case’ (1981) ruled that the “consultation” with the CJI in the matter of appointments must be full and effective. However, it rejected the idea that the CJI’s opinion, albeit carrying great weight, should have primacy. The Second Judges Case (1993) introduced the Collegium system, holding that “consultation” really meant “concurrence”. It added that it was not the CJI’s individual opinion, but an institutional opinion formed in consultation with the two senior-most judges in the Supreme Court. On a Presidential Reference for its opinion, the Supreme Court, in the Third Judges Case (1998) expanded the Collegium to a five-member body, comprising the CJI and four of his senior-most colleagues. So, statement 3 is correct.
Which of the following offices come directly under the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)?
- Department of Atomic Energy
- Department of Space
- Department of Biotechnology
- NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) came into being on August 3, 1954 under the direct charge of the Prime Minister through a Presidential Order. According to the Resolution constituting the AEC, the Secretary to the Government of India in the Department of Atomic Energy is ex-officio Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission. It is engaged in the development of nuclear power technology, applications of radiation technologies in the fields of agriculture, medicine, industry and basic research. So, point 1 is correct.
The Department of Space was established in 1972 to bolster the Indian space program. It acts on the policy recommendations of the Indian Space Commission and is broadly responsible for the day-to-day management of India’s space activities. DoS achieves its mandate primarily through the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO), India’s official space agency and its many attached and autonomous bodies. While headed by a secretary who also leads ISRO, the department falls under the direct purview of the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO). So, point 2 is correct.
The Department for Biotechnology was created in 1986 within the Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India. The department had, therefore, to focus on developing human resources, creation of appropriate infrastructure, research and development, and creating a regulatory framework. So, point 3 is not correct.
National Institution for Transforming India, better known as NITI Aayog, was formed via a resolution of the Union Cabinet on 1 January 2015. It is the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, providing directional and policy inputs. The Governing Council of NITI Aayog is chaired by the Hon’ble Prime Minister. However, it is an autonomous body and not a department under the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO). So, point 4 is not correct.
With reference to the Family Courts consider the following statements:
- It can be established by the State High Court in consultation with the Governor of the State.
- The appeals against its order lie to the High Court only.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Family Courts Act, 1984 was enacted to provide for the establishment of Family Courts with a view to promote conciliation and secure speedy settlement of disputes relating to marriage and family affairs.
The act provides for the establishment of Family Courts by the State Governments in consultation with the High Courts. It makes it obligatory for the State Governments to set up a Family Court in every city or town with a population exceeding one million. So, statement 1 is not correct.
It provides that the parties to a dispute before a Family Court shall not be entitled, as of right, to be represented by a legal practitioner. However, the Court may, in the interest of justice, seek the assistance of a legal expert as amicus curiae. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It simplifies the rules of evidence and procedure so as to enable a Family Court to deal effectively with a dispute. It provides for only one right of appeal which shall lie to the High Court. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Common Law System:
- It is a body of unwritten laws based on legal precedents established by the courts.
- Doctrine of Precedent is an important feature of it.
- Indian legal system is largely based on the common law system borrowed from the United States Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The Common Law also known as case law or Judicial precedent or judge-made law is a section of law which is derived from the judicial decision of courts and similar tribunals. It is a body of unwritten laws based on legal precedents established by the courts. Common law influences the decision-making process in unusual cases where the outcome cannot be determined based on existing statutes or written rules of law. As the name suggests it is common to all. The example set by higher courts is binding on cases tried in lower courts. Lower courts can also choose to overturn the precedent, but this rarely occurs. So, statement 1 is correct.
‘Judicial Precedent’ means a judgement of a Court of law cited as an authority for deciding a similar set of facts, a case which serves as authority for the legal principle embodied in its decision. A judicial precedent is a decision of the Court used as a source for future decision making. Doctrine of precedent forms the basis for the common law system. So, statement 2 is correct.
The common law system – a system of law based on recorded judicial precedents- came to India with the British East India Company. The company was granted charter by King George I in 1726 to establish “Mayor’s Courts” in Madras, Bombay and Calcutta (now Chennai, Mumbai and Kolkata respectively). Judicial functions of the company expanded substantially after its victory in Battle of Plassey and by 1772 company’s courts expanded out from the three major cities. In the process, the company slowly replaced the existing Mughal legal system in those parts. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements:
- The President of India is elected through indirect elections while the President of USA is elected through direct elections.
- The Indian President can dissolve the lower house of Parliament but the President of USA has no power to dissolve the lower house of Congress.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The President is the head of the Indian State. As per Article 54 of the Constitution, the President of India is elected not directly by the people but by members of electoral college consisting of:
the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament
the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states
the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.
The US president and vice president are not directly elected by citizens. Instead, they are chosen by “electors” through an “Electoral College”. In this system, it is possible for a candidate to win the popular vote and still lose out on the presidency. Thus, both the Indian as well as the American President are elected indirectly to their office. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The Indian President can summon or prorogue the Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha. He can also summon a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, which is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. The American President, on the other hand, cannot dissolve the House of Representatives—the lower house of the Congress. So, statement 2 is correct.
Voting for which of the following offices in India is conducted through a secret ballot?
- President of India
- Vice-President of India
- Members of Rajya Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
As per Article 55(3) of the Constitution of India, the election of the President shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote and the voting at such election shall be by secret ballot. So, statement 1 is correct.
Article 66 of the Constitution of India provides for the election of the Vice-President of India. The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting in such election is by secret ballot. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Rajya Sabha polls have a system of the open ballot, but it is a limited form of openness. So, statement 3 is not correct.
With reference to Naturally Occurring Radioactive Materials (NORM), consider the following statements:
- They can be formed by the decay of thorium and uranium in earth’s crust.
- They come to earth’s surface due to human activities only.
- Technologically Enhanced NORM are those materials that are used as enhanced fuels in nuclear power production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Some Naturally occurring radioactive materials, often referred to using the short-form of “NORM”, exists in the earth’s crust naturally. The decay of thorium and uranium produces many different types of radioactive materials, called isotopes. Some examples of these isotopes are Radium-226, Potassium-40, and Radon-222. These isotopes of NORM are generally found in the earth’s crust in low concentrations. So, statement 1 is correct.
NORM can come to the earth’s surface due to natural processes (radon gas moving through cracks in rocks or dissolving and being transported by groundwater flows), or due to human activities (mining, oil and gas extraction, etc.). Additionally, the human activities that bring NORM to the surface may cause NORM to become more concentrated than its natural state. Because NORM is radioactive, once it is brought to the surface or concentrated, the ionizing radiation that it emits can now interact with humans. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Technologically Enhanced Naturally Occurring Radioactive Material (TENORM) is defined as, “Naturally occurring radioactive materials that have been concentrated or exposed to the accessible environment as a result of human activities such as manufacturing, mineral extraction, or water processing.” So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Experimental Advanced Superconducting Tokamak (EAST) reactor:
- It is a joint project between NASA and the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO).
- It aims to replicate the process of nuclear fusion, which is the same reaction that powers the Sun.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
China’s Experimental Advanced Superconducting Tokamak (EAST), set a new record after it ran at 216 million degrees Fahrenheit (120 million degrees Celsius) for 101 seconds, according to state media. EAST reactor device is located at the Institute of Plasma Physics of the Chinese Academy of Sciences (ASIPP) in Hefei, China. Apart from the EAST, China is currently operating the HL-2A reactor as well as J-TEXT. So, Statement 1 is not correct
The purpose of the project is to replicate the process of nuclear fusion, which is the same reaction that powers the Sun. Nuclear fusion is a process through which high energy levels are produced without generating large quantities of waste. The EAST project is part of the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) facility, which will become the world’s largest nuclear fusion reactor when it becomes operational in 2035. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Antarctic Treaty:
- It applies to all land and ice shelves south of 60° South latitude.
- It provides for controlled nuclear explosions and the disposal of radioactive waste in Antarctica.
- India is still not a member of this Treaty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the 60th anniversary of the Antarctic Treaty was observed.
The original Parties to the Treaty were the 12 nations active in the Antarctic during the International Geophysical Year of 1957-58. The Treaty was signed in Washington on 1 December 1959 and entered into force on 23 June 1961.
12 countries were - Argentina, Australia, Belgium, Chile, France, Japan, New Zealand, Norway, South Africa, United Kingdom, United States and USSR.
There are now 54 Parties to the Treaty. India became a member of this Treaty in 1983. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Headquarters: Buenos Aires, Argentina.
The Treaty applies to all land and ice shelves south of 60° South latitude. So, statement 1 is correct.
Through its 14 articles, the Treaty promotes freedom of scientific research and peaceful use of the continent. The Treaty also prohibits military activities, nuclear explosions and disposal of radioactive waste. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Treaty seeks to neutralise territorial sovereignty in Antarctica (a limit was placed on making any new claim or enlargement of an existing claim).
The Treaty also put a freeze on any disputes between claimants over their territories on the continent.
India and Antarctica: India has two stations on the polar continent of Antarctica — Maitri and Bharati. Dakshin Gangotri was the first Indian scientific research base station established in Antarctica. Now it acts only as a supply base.
Consider the following statements with reference to Neutrinos:
- They have completely zero mass and no electric charge.
- They travel at ten times the speed of light.
- They can help in the study the interior of the Sun.
- Because of their greater interaction with matter they are easy to detect.
- Neutrinos can also be created artificially.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation :
The neutrinos are the most abundant particles in the universe, after Photon particles. The India-based Neutrino Observatory (INO) Project is a multi-institutional effort aimed at studying the fundamentals of neutrinos and is proposed to be set up in Tamil Nadu.
A neutrino is a subatomic particle that is very similar to an electron, but has no electrical charge and a very small mass. Neutrinos weigh almost nothing ( but not zero mass), neutrino masses are so small that so far no experiment has succeeded in measuring them. They travel close to the speed of light which is approximately 186,000 miles (299,338 kilometers) a second. So, statement 1 and statement 2 are not correct.
The visible light that reaches us from the sun is emitted from the surface of the sun. The neutrinos which also take close to this time to reach us from the sun, known as solar neutrinos, were produced in the core of the sun. Therefore, they give us information about the interior of the sun. Studying these neutrinos can help us understand what goes on in the interior of the sun. So, statement 3 is correct.
Because they have very little interaction with matter, they are incredibly difficult to detect. To detect neutrinos, very large and very sensitive detectors are required So, statement 4 is not correct.
Neutrinos are created in many processes in nature. They are produced in the nuclear reactions in the sun, particle decays in the Earth, and the explosions of stars. They are also produced by particle accelerators and in nuclear power plants. Neutrinos can also be made artificially. They are produced in radioactive decay and in nuclear reactors. So, statement 5 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT):
- It is the only multilateral treaty that binds the party states to the goal of disarmament.
- It recognised China, France, Russia, the UK and the US as the only nuclear-weapon states.
- Though India has signed the treaty it has never ratified it.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The Treaty represents the only binding commitment in a multilateral treaty to the goal of disarmament by the nuclear-weapon States. So, Statement 1 is correct.
As per NPT, only the permanent UN Security Council members - China, France, Russia, the UK and the US, are nuclear-weapon states. So, Statement 2 is correct.
A total of 191 States have joined the Treaty (including P5). However, the 4 UN members - India, Israel, Pakistan and South Sudan, have never accepted (non-signatory) the NPT. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
3 and 4 only
Explanation :
There are four fundamental forces at work in the universe: the strong nuclear force, the weak nuclear force, the electromagnetic force, and the gravitational force. They work over different ranges and have different strengths. Each fundamental force has its own corresponding boson.
The weak and strong nuclear forces are effective only over a very short range and dominate only at the level of subatomic particles. The weak force is much stronger than gravity but it is the weakest of the other three. The strong force, as the name suggests, is the strongest of all four fundamental interactions. The strong nuclear force is carried by the “gluon”. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
The “W and Z bosons” are responsible for the weak nuclear force. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
The electromagnetic force also has infinite range but it is many times stronger than gravity. The electromagnetic force is carried by the “photon”. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Gravity is the weakest but it has an infinite range. Although not yet found, the “graviton” should be the corresponding force-carrying particle of gravity. So, pair 4 is correctly matched.
Consider the following statements:
- In ‘First Past the Post System’, the candidate who wins the election must get majority (50%+1) votes polled.
- In the ‘Proportional Representation System’, every party gets seats in the legislature in proportion to the percentage of votes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The candidate who secures the highest number of votes in that constituency is declared elected. It is important to note that whoever has more votes than all other candidates is declared elected in this system. The winning candidate need not secure a majority of the votes. This method is called the First Past the Post (FPTP) system. So, statement 1 is not correct.
In Proportional Representation System, every party declares a list of its candidates. But voters vote for the party and not for the candidates. A party gets seats in the legislature in proportion to the votes polled by it. This allows even smaller parties with a very small support base to get representation in the legislature. So, statement 2 is correct.
How many of the following is/are the necessary conditions for a political party to get recognized as a National party?
- At a General Election to the Lok Sabha or the Legislative Assemblies, the party polls 6% of votes in four States and in addition, it wins 4 Lok Sabha seats from any State or States.
- A party gets recognition as State Party in four or more States.
- The party wins 6% of seats in the Lok Sabha from at least three different States.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Only Two
Explanation :
A registered party is recognized as a National Party only if it fulfils any one of the following three conditions:
At a General Election to the Lok Sabha or the Legislative Assemblies, the party polls 6% of votes in four States and in addition it wins 4 Lok Sabha seats from any State or States; or
A party gets recognition as State Party in four or more States.
The party wins 2 per cent of the seats in the Lok Sabha from at least 3 different States;
With reference to Indian polity, consider the following statements:
- No arrest warrant can be issued against the ‘Prime Minister of India’ during the term of his office.
- Civil proceedings can be instituted against the ‘President of India’, during the term of his office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Constitution of India does not grant any immunity to the Ministers for their official acts. They are not liable for the official acts done by the President and the Governors on their advice and the courts are debarred from inquiring into such advice. However, the Ministers do not enjoy any immunity for their personal acts, and can be sued for crimes as well as torts in the ordinary courts like common citizens. Since the Prime Minister is also a Minister, he can be sued in courts like an ordinary citizen. So, statement 1 is not correct.
According to the Article 361 of the Constitution of India, no criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of office. However, this immunity is limited to the period of the term of their office only and does not extend beyond that. Civil proceedings can be started against them during their term of office in respect of their personal acts after giving two months’ advance notice. So, statement 2 is correct.
As per the current practice, when rival factions within a recognized national or state political party claim the name and symbol of the undivided parent party the disputes between them will be resolved by:
the Election Commission of India on the basis of the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968.
Explanation :
How are disputes over Election Symbols decided?
Arrangement before 1968: Then, under the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, the Election Commission of India (ECI) issued notifications and executive orders, when a splinter group approached the ECI urging it to recognise them.
Arrangement after 1968 - The current practice in case of recognised national and state parties:
The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968: It enables the ECI to recognise political parties and allocate symbols and decide disputes between rival factions (within the parent party) of a recognised political party that claim its name and symbol.
As per the Election Symbol Order, 1968, the ECI is the only authority to decide issues on a dispute or a merger.
Splits in registered but unrecognised parties: In such cases, the ECI usually advises the rival factions to resolve their differences internally or to approach the court.
Consider the following statements regarding uranium enrichment:
- Uranium enrichment increases the percentage of Uranium-235 isotope in a sample of uranium.
- The process of uranium enrichment is only used for the development of nuclear weapons.
- Gas centrifugation is one of the commonly used methods for uranium enrichment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Uranium enrichment is the process of increasing the concentration of Uranium-235, which is the fissile isotope required for nuclear reactors and weapons. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Enriched uranium is used in both nuclear reactors for energy generation and in weapons; thus, enrichment is not solely for weapons development. So, Statement 2 is incorrect.
Gas centrifugation is a widely used method for separating isotopes during the enrichment process. So, Statement 3 is Correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Isotopes:
- Isotopes of an element have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons in their nuclei.
- Isotopes exhibit identical chemical properties but may have different physical properties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Isotopes of an element differ in their neutron numbers but have the same number of protons. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Isotopes have the same electronic configuration and thus exhibit identical chemical properties, but their differing masses lead to variations in physical properties. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Umred-Pauni-Karhandla Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which one of the following states?
Maharashtra
Explanation :
The Bombay High Court has taken a dim view of an incident where safari vehicles carrying tourists obstructed the movement of a tigress and her cubs in Maharashtra’s Umred-Pauni-Karhandla Sanctuary on New Year’s Eve.
About Umred-Pauni-Karhandla Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is spread over Pauni tehsil in Bhandara district and Umred, Kuhi, and Bhivapur Taluka of Nagpur district in Maharashtra.
It was established in 2013 and is spread across an area of 189 sq. km.
The Wainganga River and the Gose Khurd Damlie along the northeast boundaries of the sanctuary, while State Highway 9 and Bhiwapur Town bound the southern side.
The forest along the Wainganga River connects this sanctuary to the Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve.
It lies 80 km from Pench Tiger Reserve and 50 kilometers southwest of Nagzira Wildlife Sanctuary.
Flora:
The forest is made up of teak, bamboo, tendu, mahua, and other indigenous tree species.
Teak makes up 60 percent of the crop composition.
Fauna: The sanctuary is home to resident breeding tigers, herds of Gaur, wild dogs, and also rare animals like flying squirrels, pangolins, and honey badgers.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/maharashtra/high-court-seeks-government-reply-on-tourist-vehicles-blocking-tigress-path-in-maharashtra-sanctuary/article69071385.ece
Kalpeni Island, recently seen in the news, is part of:
Lakshadweep
Explanation :
A group of divers exploring marine life near Kalpeni Island in the Lakshadweep archipelago discovered what appears to be the wreckage of a European warship from the 17th or 18th century.
About Kalpeni Island:
It is a village located within the Lakshadweep archipelago in the Arabian Sea, covering an area of 2.79 square kilometers.
Situated at a distance of 287 kilometers (155 nautical miles) from Kochi, Kerala, this island lies southeast of Kavaratti Island, midway between Androth and Minicoy.
Kalpeni, along with two small islets of Tilakkam and Pittiand the uninhabited island of Cheriyam in the north,form a single atoll.
Kalpeni is renowned for its breathtaking coral reefs, crystal-clear waters, and powdery white beaches.
Its most captivating feature is an expansive lagoon that stretches approximately 2.8 kilometers at its widest point, with the island aligned in a north-south direction.
The island is surrounded by an extensive coral reef system, teeming with diverse marine life. This makes Kalpeni a prime spot for snorkeling and scuba diving.
The climate of Kalpeni is similar to the climatic conditions of Kerala.
Apart from its natural beauty, Kalpeni also boasts a rich cultural heritage, with inhabitants primarily belonging to the indigenous Maliku community.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/lakshadweep-divers-bump-intowreck-of-centuries-old-warship/articleshow/116951968.cms
Consider the following statements regarding UJALA Scheme:
- It is the world’s largest zero-subsidy LED lamp distribution scheme.
- It is implemented by Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL) under the Ministry of Power.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Unnat Jyoti by Affordable LEDs for All (UJALA) scheme, launched in January 2015, has completed a decade with the distribution of 36.87 crore LED bulbs, resulting in ₹19,153 crore in annual electricity savings, according to official data released by the Ministry of Power.
About UJALA Scheme:
In May 2015, the Indian government introduced the UJALA scheme, which is also known as the LED-based Domestic Efficient Lighting Programme (DELP), to promote energy efficiency in all households.
The UJALA scheme is the world’s largest zero-subsidy LED lamp distribution scheme.
It is implemented by Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL) under the Ministry of Power.
Through the UJALA scheme, the government aims to save 85 lakh kWh of electricity and 15,000 tonnes of CO2 by replacing 77 crore traditional bulbs & CFLs and 3.5 crore street lights with LEDs.
Eligible Households:
Every domestic household having a metered connection from their respective Electricity Distribution Company is eligible to get the LED bulbs under the UJALA Scheme.
The consumer can purchase the LED on EMI payment (monthly/bimonthly installments in the electricity bill) or on upfront payment by paying the full amount.
As part of its inclusive growth strategy to enable growth in lower-income communities, EESL has also enrolled Self-Help Groups (SHGs) for the distribution of LED bulbs under the UJALA programme.
The annual energy savings from the scheme stand at 47,883 million kWh, with a reduction in peak demand by 9,586 MW and an annual reduction of 3.87 crore tonnes in carbon dioxide emissions.
These savings were achieved through e-procurement and bulk purchasing, which allowed LED bulbs to be made affordable for millions of households.
UJALA succeeded in bringing down the retail price of LED bulbs from INR 300-350 per bulb to INR 70-80 per bulb.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://energy.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/power/ujala-scheme-completes-10-years-saves-19153-crore-annually/117008100?utm_source=latest_news&utm_medium=homepage
Consider the following statements:
- It is situated in Tamil Nadu.
- It is the biggest functioning Hindu temple in India.
- It is the foremost of the eight self-manifested shrines of Lord Vishnu.
- The entire temple complex is an example of Dravidian architecture.
- It has the tallest temple tower in India.
The above statements correctly describe which one of the following temples?
Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple
Explanation :
Amid heavy turnout of devotees to Sri Ranganathaswamy temple, residents of the temple town of Srirangam have sought installation of lights on the passages beneath the outer gopurams around the shrine as a safety measure.
About Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple:
It is a prominent Hindu temple situated at Srirangam near Trichy in Tamil Nadu.
This temple is the biggest functioning Hindu temple in India.
Built across an area of 156 acres, this temple is dedicated to Ranganatha, a reclining form of Hindu deity, Lord Vishnu.
It is the foremost of the eight self-manifested shrines of Lord Vishnu.
This temple lies on an islet formed by the twin rivers Cauvery and Coleroon.
Though the temple has existed since the 2nd century BC, the archaeological inscriptions are available only from the 10th century CE.
This temple underwent many changes during the rule of Cholas, Cheras, Pandiyas, Hoysalas, Vijayanagar kings and Nayak of Madurai.
Architecture:
The entire temple complex is a perfect example of Dravidian architecture.
Apart from the 7 enclosures with massive walls, the temple complex has 21 very colorful sculpted gopuras, 50 sub-shrines, 9 sacred pools, and a golden Vimana (dome) over the sanctum sanctorum of the presiding deity.
The vimana over the sanctum of the temple is made up of gold.
The 236-feet Rajagopura (tower) is the tallest temple tower in India.
There is also a royal temple tower, which covers a base area of 32,500 sq. ft. and has a height of 196 ft.
It also comprises a hall containing 1000 pillars. Intricate sculptures are the most attractive part of the hall. The Hall was built during the Vijayanagara period (1336-1565).
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Tiruchirapalli/srirangam-residents-seek-street-lights-beneath-outer-gopurams-in-the-temple-town/article69072977.ece
What are sonobuoys primarily used for?
Detecting and tracking submarines and ships
Explanation :
India and the U.S. recently announced cooperation on the co-production of U.S. sonobuoys for Undersea Domain Awareness (UDA) for the Indian Navy, a high-end technology that allows tracking submarines in the deep seas and oceans.
About Sonobuoys:
Sonobuoys are expendable, electro-mechanical acoustic sensors that relay underwater sounds emitted from ships and submarines.
They help in the detection, classification, and prosecution of adversarial ships and submarines.
A naval helicopter or fixed-wing aircraft generally drops sonobuoys in a pattern.
They are dropped in canisters and are deployed automatically upon impact with water.
An inflatable system with a radio transmitter remains on the surface of communication with the ship or aircraft tracking it while sensors descend below the surface to a predetermined depth.
It then relays acoustic information back to those monitoring them.
A group of sonobuoys deployed in a pattern can find out the exact location of the submarine, which then can be tracked by other systems.
Some sonobuoys are designed to be deployed in passive mode and some in active mode.
Active sonobuoys emit sound energy and receive the echo, based on which they transmit information back to the aircraft.
Passive sonobuoys, on the other hand, only listen for sounds coming from ships or submarines. They then transmit the sound back to the aircraft.
There are also Special Purpose buoys that provide information about the environment, such as water temperature, ambient noise level, etc.
Components: A typical sonobuoy consists of a cylindrical or spherical buoyanthousing, sensors for detecting acoustic signals, a battery or power source, and a radio transmitter or other communication system to relay data to the host platform (e.g., aircraft or ship).
Other Applications: In addition to anti-submarine warfare, they are used for scientific research and environmental studies, including studying the behavior of whales and other marine creatures.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-us-to-jointly-make-sonobuoys-for-indian-navy/article69071424.ece
Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which one of the following states?
Maharashtra
Explanation :
In a remarkable journey across Maharashtra, a male tiger born in the Tipeshwar Wildlife Sanctuary in Yavatmal has travelled an unusual 500 kilometres, reaching Solapur district of Maharashtra.
Location: It is located in the district of Yavatmal, Maharashtra.
There are plenty of rivers such as Purna, Krishna, Bhima and Tapti that irrigate the sanctuary from entire angles. Having lots of water from all these rivers, it is also popularly known as Green Oasis located in Southern Maharashtra.
This area is completely a basalt area that is constructed by the blast of lava a century back
Vegetation: The place is quite hilly and undulated and thus has different types of vegetation cover that varies with the altitude.
Flora: It consists of wealthy flora such as herbs, grasses, bamboo forests.
Fauna: The place shelters a wide array of animals that include Hyena, Chital, Black buck, Sambar, Jackal, Wild boar, Peacock, Monkey, Blue bull, Wild cat, Bear and many more.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/pune-news/tigers-500-km-travel-surprises-forest-dept-to-relocate-big-cat-in-sahyadri-reserve-101736277987438.html
Which one of the following best describes Twigstats, recently seen in the news?
It is a time-stratified ancestry analysis tool
Explanation :
In a recent study published in Nature, researchers introduced Twigstats, a new time-stratified ancestry analysis, and applied it to ancient whole-genomes from Europe.
It is a time-stratified ancestry analysis tool that boosts the statistical power of existing methods by a magnitude and reduces statistical errors.
It has determined more precisely than ever individual-level ancestry at a very high resolution.
It is coded in C++ and employs the statistical language R.
Twigstats allows researchers to focus on a specific period in history with more fine-grained analysis than previously possible.
Techniques used for Genetic analysis
Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms (SNPs): This method has been extensively used to reconstruct genetic histories and ancestry models using ancient genetic material (aDNA).
The analysis of SNPs is a powerful technique when the task is to understand populations, but it’s restricted by the need for high quality DNA samples and its inability to resolve the histories of groups with closely related ancestors.
Haplotypes Method: This method captures information from haplotype-sharing or identity-by-descent and a rare variant simultaneously includes time-resolved information about genetic ancestry, and provides comprehensive insights into how individuals ‘share’ their ancestors.
Genealogical tree inference method: Researchers have applied this to modern and ancient genomes to understand their population structure, demographics, locations of ancestors, etc.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/twigstats-new-tool-reveals-hi-res-genetic-view-of-peoples-ancestors/article69053627.ece
With reference to e-Shram Portal, consider the following statements:
- It was launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
- It aims to promote financial inclusion through direct benefit transfers and digital payments.
- It does not have a feature of self-registration of beneficiaries.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only Two
Explanation :
Recently, the union Minister of Labour & Employment launched the multilingual functionality on the e-Shram portal, during an event held in New Delhi.
It is a flagship initiative by the Government of India to support and empower the unorganized workforce.
It was launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment on 26th August 2021.
This portal is designed to create a comprehensive National Database of Unorganised Workers (NDUW).
The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology’s (MEITY’s) Bhashini project has been leveraged to upgrade the eShram portal with 22 languages. The previous version was available only in English, Hindi, Kannada and Marathi.
Objectives
Establish a centralized database of unorganized workers for effective policy implementation.
Enhance access to social security schemes and benefits for workers in sectors such as agriculture, construction, domestic work, and street vending.
Facilitate job matching and skill development opportunities.
Strengthen labor market resilience by integrating unorganized workers into the formal economy.
Promote financial inclusion through direct benefit transfers and digital payments.
Features
Universal Account Number (UAN): Registered workers receive a UAN linked to their Aadhaar, enabling seamless access to benefits.
Single Registration Process: The portal streamlines the registration process, requiring minimal documentation such as Aadhaar and bank account details. The ease of self-registration is also available to the beneficiaries.
Multilingual Support: Workers from diverse regions can access the portal in multiple Indian languages, ensuring inclusivity.
Grievance Redressal Mechanism: A dedicated helpline and support system address workers’ queries and grievances promptly.
Integration with Employment and Skill Opportunities: Registered workers can connect with employment opportunities, skilling, apprenticeship, pension schemes, digital skilling, and state-specific schemes through the portal.
Family Details for Migrant Workers: Family details for migrant workers are captured, aiding in the provision of child education and women-centric schemes for those who have migrated with their families.
Data Sharing with BOCW Welfare Boards: The data of construction workers registering on e-Shram is shared with the concerned Building and Other Construction Workers’ (BOCW) Welfare Boards, ensuring their registration with the respective boards and access to schemes meant for them.
Data Sharing Portal (DSP): A Data Sharing Portal has been launched to allow the secure sharing of e-Shram beneficiary data with State and Union Territory governments. facilitating the targeted implementation of social security and welfare schemes for registered unorganised workers.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2090895
Consider the following statements regarding Nitrogen Use Efficiency:
- It is the ratio between crop yield and the amount of nitrogen absorbed from the soil through roots.
- It is considered as an important trait in crop breeding programs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers have demonstrated that reducing nitric oxide (NO) levels in plants can significantly improve nitrogen uptake and Nitrogen Use Efficiency (NUE) in rice and Arabidopsis.
It is a term that is used to describe the efficiency of a plant in using applied or fixed nitrogen for biomass production.
It is further defined as the ratio between crop yield and the amount of nitrogen absorbed from the soil through roots or from the atmosphere through fixation by bacteria.
NUE is an important trait in crop breeding programs, which aims to improve crop yield while reducing input costs, such as fertilizers, and at the same time keeping nitrogen out of the environment.
Issues with Traditional methods
It is used to enhance NUE which often involve the application of inorganic nitrogen fertilizers. These practices, while effective, come with significant drawbacks.
They can lead to increased operational costs for farmers and contribute to environmental issues, such as the emission of nitrogen oxides (NOx) during fertilizer production. Excessive use of these fertilizers also contributes to global greenhouse gas emissions.
Highlights of the study
The recent study highlights a novel approach to improving NUE by focusing on the systemic regulation of Nitrogen Oxide (NO) levels in plants.
By modulating these levels, researchers can influence the activity of high-affinity nitrate transporters (HATs), which play a vital role in nitrogen uptake.
This method diverges from traditional practices, offering a more sustainable solution to enhance crop yields while reducing nitrogen inputs. As the world faces challenges related to food security, this research provides a promising pathway for developing more efficient agricultural practices.
Significance of Nitric oxide (NO)
It plays a pivotal role in regulating various physiological processes in plants.
It is involved in the activation of high-affinity nitrate transporters, which are crucial for nitrogen uptake, especially under low nitrogen conditions.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2090884#:~:text
Consider the following statements regarding Toda tribes:
- They are the oldest ethnic groups residing in the upper Nilgiris plateau in Tamil Nadu.
- They celebrate their traditional ‘Modhweth’ festival to mark the New Year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Toda tribe residing in the Nilgiris Hills of Tamil Nadu, celebrated their traditional ‘Modhweth’ festival to mark the New Year.
It is one of the oldest ethnic groups residing in the Upper Nilgiris plateau in Tamil Nadu.
The Todas are divided into five clans, namely: Paiki, Pekkan, Kuttan, Kenna and Todi.
Language: They have their own language, which does not have a script.
They live in a closed community or hamlet called mund.
Society:
It is a patrilineage descent group whose membership is based upon a rule of patrilineal descent. Their community is divided into two endogamous groups, namely Tharthazoll and Theveioll.
To maintain the social harmony or solidarity among the Toda tribal population of Todas are controlled for many generation by their own traditional Government called ‘Noim’.
This Noim is headed by a Toda tribal head-man is called Monegar. He has the full power to control the Todas and he also dispenses justice in the Toda community
Occupation: This tribe is largely dependent on buffalo herding and embroidery for its livelihood.
Its members are incredibly skilled artisans known for the red-and-black embroidery on white fabrics that has even earned them a GI (geographical indication) tag.
Festival: They celebrate ‘Modhweth’ festival, which is also called buffalo festival every year during the last Sunday of December or on the first Sunday of January.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.etvbharat.com/en/!videos/tamil-nadu-toda-tribe-in-nilgiris-celebrate-annual-traditional-festival-to-welcome-the-new-year-enn25010602381
Consider the following statements regarding Gravitational Lensing:
- It occurs when a massive celestial body, such as a galaxy cluster causes a sufficient curvature of spacetime.
- It helps astronomers magnify and observe distant objects in the universe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Physicists studying a distant galaxy using a telescopic technique called “gravitational lensing” found 44 previously unknown astral bodies.
About Gravitational Lensing:
Gravitational lensing occurs when a massive celestial body — such as a galaxy cluster — causes a sufficient curvature of spacetime for the path of light around it to be visibly bent, as if by a lens. The body causing the light to curve is accordingly called a gravitational lens.
Gravitational lensing causes the light to bend, distort, and magnify as it passes around the massive object.
Theory:
Gravitational Lensing was first predicted in 1915 by Albert Einstein, which involves the bending of light by objects of great mass.
According to Einstein’s general theory of relativity, time and space are fused together in a quantity known as spacetime.
Within this theory, massive objects cause spacetime to curve, and gravity is simply the curvature of spacetime.
As light travels through spacetime, the theory predicts that the path taken by the light will also be curved by an object’s mass.
Gravitational lensing is a dramatic and observable example of Einstein’s theory in action.
The effect is most observable when light from a bright background source, like a star, a quasar, or an entire galaxy, passes a very massive object like another galaxy or a cluster of galaxies, described as a lensing object or just a gravitational lens.
This can have several results; it can make an object shift its apparent position in the sky over Earth, or it can cause a single object to appear at multiple points in the sky, occasionally giving rise to spectacular formations like rings and crosses made from the same object.
More than this, gravitational lensing can actually cause the light from a background object to be amplified.
That means that astronomers can use the gravitational lensing arising from galactic clusters as natural cosmic magnifying glasses.
This has made it an important tool for the investigation of the universe when it was in its infancy, making light from the earliest galaxies that would usually be too faint to see observable by instruments like the James Webb Space Telescope and the Hubble Space Telescope.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.msn.com/en-gb/news/techandscience/scientists-discover-44-hidden-stars-using-gravitational-lensing-technique/ar-AA1x2bJr
Consider the following statements regarding ‘AnemiaPhone’, recently seen in the news:
- It is a technology developed by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).
- It helps to assess iron deficiency which is a leading cause of anemia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
AnemiaPhone, a technology developed by Cornell University researchers, has been transferred to the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) for integration into its programmes.
About AnemiaPhone:
It is a technology developed by Cornell University (United States) researchers to accurately, quickly, and cheaply assess iron deficiency.
It has been transferred to the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) for integration into its programmes for anemia alleviation, women’s health, and maternal and child health.
AnemiaPhone would enable access to rapid screening and diagnosis of iron deficiency at the point of need.
Iron deficiency is a leading cause of anemia, which affects 50% to 70% of pregnant women in India.
How it Works?
The technology requires a small finger stick, a drop of blood on a test strip similar to a COVID-19 home test, and a few minutes for the reader to assess.
The information is uploaded to a clinical database via mobile phone, wireless tablet, or computer.
Healthcare workers can interpret the test and provide guidance, triage and referral, or intervention on the spot.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/accessible-affordable-technology-to-detect-anaemia-transferred-to-icmr/article69076369.ece
With reference to the Future of Jobs Report 2025, consider the following statements:
- It was published by the International Labour Organization (ILO).
- It states that there will be a net decrease of jobs by 2030 primarily due to automation.
- AI and machine learning, software and application developers, and FinTech engineers figured among the fastest-growing jobs in percentage terms.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
In the next five years, artificial intelligence (AI), big data, and security management specialists will be the fastest-growing jobs, showed the World Economic Forum’s (WEF) Future of Jobs Report 2025.
About Future of Jobs Report 2025:
It was published by the World Economic Forum (WEF).
It is a result of data gathered from more than 1,000 leading global companies, collectively representing over 14 million workers across 22 industry sectors and 55 economies from across the world.
Highlights:
Job disruption will equate to 22 percent of jobs by 2030.
It says 170 million new jobs will be created and 92 million jobs will be displaced, resulting in a net increase of 78 million jobs by 2030.
Technological change, geoeconomics fragmentation, economic uncertainty, demographic shifts, and the green transition, individually and in combination, are among the major drivers expected to shape and transform the global labour market by 2030.
AI and machine learning, software and application developers, and FinTech engineers figured among the fastest-growing jobs in percentage terms.
Meanwhile, frontline job roles are predicted to witness the largest growth in absolute terms of volume.
These include farmworkers, delivery drivers, construction workers, salesperson, food processing workers, care economy jobs like nursing professionals, social work, etc.
However, traditional roles such as graphic designers and administrative assistants face steep declines due to automation.
It stated that the skill gap is the most significant hurdle for business transformation in these companies.
Nearly 40% of the skills required for future jobs will be new or evolving, requiring workers to adapt to a rapidly changing environment.
The WEF emphasises that 59% of the global workforce will need reskilling or upskilling by 2030 to remain competitive.
It mentioned the top 10 fastest-growing skills by 2030. It said Artificial Intelligence (AI) and big data will emerge at the top of the list, followed by networks and cybersecurity.
Technological literacy will be the third fastest-growing skill by 2030, followed by creativity in the fourth spot and resilience, flexibility, and agility in the fifth position.
Companies increasingly turn to AI-driven tools to handle routine tasks, reshaping the employment landscape.
41% of companies also plan workforce reductions as automation becomes more pervasive.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/business/ai-big-data-among-top-10-fastest-growing-jobs-by-2030-future-of-jobs-report-world-economic-forum-101736344344208.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Indo-Tibetan Border Police:
- It is one of the Central Armed Police Forces of India.
- It works under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Director General of the Indo-Tibetan Border Police said that ITBP has moved at least 33 border outposts (BOPs) closer to the India-China border as part of its forwardisation plan.
It is one of the Central Armed Police Forces of India.
Background
It was raised in 1962, in the wake of the Sino-Indian War of 1962 for deployment along India’s border with China’s Tibet Autonomous Region.
ITBP was initially raised under the CRPF Act. However, in 1992, Parliament enacted the Indo-Tibetan Border Police Force Act of 1992 and the rules there were framed in 1994.
In 2004, ITBP was declared as a full-fledged central armed police force under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
The motto of the Force: “Shaurya-Dridhata-Karma Nishtha” (Valour – Determination – Devotion to Duty).
This force guards the 3,488 km long India-China border through 197 BOPs situated at altitudes ranging from 9,000 ft to 18,750 ft from Karakoram Pass in Ladakh to Jachep La in Arunachal Pradesh.
It is a specialized mountain force and most of the officers and men are professionally trained mountaineers and skiers.
It is headed by a Director General under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs.
Headquarter: New Delhi
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/33-outposts-moved-closer-to-lac-as-part-of-forwardisation-itbp-101736334626679.html
Consider the following statements regarding the ‘EmpowHER Biz’ initiative:
- It offers mentorship and comprehensive training to aspiring women entrepreneurs.
- It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Women and Child Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Women Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP) of NITI Aayog, launched EmpowHER Biz – Sapno Ki Udaan in partnership with New Shop, India’s convenience retail chain under its Award to Reward (ATR) program.
It will offer mentorship and comprehensive training, covering retail management, digital tools, financial literacy and business development to aspiring women entrepreneurs.
Through this collaboration with New Shop, WEP aims to create a robust retail ecosystem that empowers women entrepreneurs and drives sustainable growth in the sector.
Under the initiative, fifty participants aged 18–35, will be selected through an online application process based on specific criteria.
Top twenty of these participants will receive a 100% waiver on New Shop franchise fees, empowering them to own and operate their retail businesses with significantly reduced barriers to entry.
The program is being launched for women from Delhi NCR, Punjab, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, and Gujarat.
Key points about Women Entrepreneurship Platform
It was incubated in NITI Aayog in 2018 as an aggregator platform, transitioned into a public-private partnership in 2022.
It aims at empowering women entrepreneurs by overcoming information asymmetry and providing continuum of support across different pillars- Access to Finance; Market Linkages; Training and Skilling; Mentoring & Networking; Compliance & Legal Assistance and Business Development Services.
With over 30 public and private sector partners, WEP fosters collaboration to develop scalable and impactful programs that benefit women entrepreneurs.
Since 2023, the ‘Award to Reward’ initiative under WEP offers a plug and play framework for stakeholders to develop impactful programs.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2091175
‘Indophanes Barbara’ and ‘Glenochrysa zeylanica’, recently seen in the news, are:
Neuroptera species
Explanation :
Researchers have found two rare Order Neuroptera species, Glenochrysa zeylanica and Indophanes barbara from Kerala.
Indophanes barbara
It is an antlion belonging to the Myrmeleontidae family.
The larva of Indophanes barbara does not build pits like common antlion species.
They live under the surface in loose soils where they are protected from direct sunlight, wind and rain.
Adults of Indophanes barbara are misidentified as damselflies by non-taxonomists because of their morphological resemblance.
It can be easily distinguished by their long distinct antennae.
They come under Order Neuroptera, which includes holometabolous insects while the damselflies come under Order Odonata, which includes hemimetabolous insects
Glenochrysa zeylanica:
It is a green lacewing of Chrysopidae family in Order Neuroptera.
It was rediscovered after 111 years from Mananthavady and Thirunelly in Wayanad district.
This species, previously thought to be endemic to Sri Lanka, has been rediscovered from the State and reported for the first time from India.
What is a Neuroptera Species?
It is any of a group of insects commonly called lacewings because of the complex vein patterns in the wings, giving them a lacy appearance.
Habitat: Neuropteran adults are terrestrial and mostly associated with the aerial parts of plants, where they settle or hunt for prey.
Ecological Significance: Due to their predatory behaviour, Neuropterans are used in agriculture. The voracious feeding capability, as well as active mobile prey-searching behaviour revealed by the larvae of species particularly of Chrysopidae, Hemerobiidae, and Coniopterygidae makes them active biological control agents of most important pests of agriculture and horticulture.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/two-rare-neuroptera-species-found-for-the-first-time-from-kerala/article69076913.ece
Which of the following best describes ‘Garudakshi’, recently seen in the news?
It is software modelled on the online FIR system to curb wildlife and forests crime.
Explanation :
Recently, the Karnataka Forest Department has launched the ‘Garudakshi’ online FIR system to curb forest encroachments, illegal tree-felling, poaching, and unauthorised entry into forest areas.
It is software modelled on the online FIR system to curb wildlife and forests crime.
It will be implemented on a pilot basis in the Bengaluru Urban, Bhadravathi, Sirsi and Male Mahadeshwara Wildlife Sanctuary divisions of Karnataka.
Once the software is implemented, registering FIRs using the Garudakshi portal will be made compulsory.
It will enable the online handling of forest crime cases under the Forest and Wildlife Protection Acts.
The portal will auto-generate formats for various reports and complaints.
Features
The software consists of a Legacy Case Registration Module, Online Forest Offence Registration, Investigation Module and Reporting and Analytics Module.
The portal will also allow the public to register complaints on forest offences using mobile phones or email addresses.
It is developed in collaboration with the Wildlife Trust of India (WTI).
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/bangalore/karnataka-forest-department-garudakshi-portal-fir-registration-9764795/
With reference to ‘Soapstone’, consider the following statements:
- It is a metamorphic rock made of talc.
- It is a naturally occurring mineral with high heat-resistant properties.
- In India, it is only found in the state of Rajasthan.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only Two
Explanation :
Recently, the Uttarakhand High Court pulled up the authorities for unregulated soapstone mining in Bageshwar, a district with more than 160 mines at present.
It is also known as Steatite.
It is a metamorphic rock made of talc, a naturally occurring mineral, and is used in construction and design for countertops, sinks, hearths, and sculptures.
Depending on the quarry from which it is sourced, this natural stone also contains varying amounts of other minerals such as micas, chlorite, amphiboles, quartz, magnesite, and carbonates.
How Does Soapstone Form?
Soapstone most often forms at convergent plate boundaries where broad areas of Earth’s crust are subjected to heat and directed pressure.
Peridotites, dunites, and serpentinites in this environment can be metamorphosed into soapstone.
On a smaller scale, soapstone can form where siliceous dolostones are altered by hot, chemically active fluids in a process known as metasomatism.
Properties: It is a relatively soft, very dense, highly heat-resistant material.
Major producing countries: China, India, Brazil, USA and Finland
Major reserves in India: According to the Indian Bureau of Mines, the states of Rajasthan (57%) and Uttarakhand (25%) boast substantial reserves of soapstone in India.
Applications
Soapstone in powdered form, often combined with corn starch, is used as baby powder.
This mineral is used as a thickening agent and lubricant; is an ingredient in ceramics, paint, and roofing material; and is a main ingredient in many cosmetics.
Talc is used in cosmetics, pharmaceuticals, and other industries.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/soapstone-mining-land-subsidence-bageshwar-uttarakhand-9766906/
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Pravasi Bharatiya Divas’:
- It is a flagship event of the Ministry of External Affairs.
- It is held on January 9th to commemorate the return of Mahatma Gandhi from South Africa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The 18th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) is scheduled for January 8-10, 2025, in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
It is the flagship event of the Ministry of External Affairs.
It is held in different cities, to showcase the diversity and progress of different regions of India.
Since 2015, it has evolved into a biennale event, with theme-based conferences held in the intervening years.
History: It is held on January 9th, commemorates the day in 1915 when Mahatma Gandhi, the greatest Pravasi, returned to India from South Africa to lead the country’s freedom struggle.
The primary goals of Pravasi Bharatiya Divas are:
To commemorate the contributions of the Indian diaspora to India’s development
To create a better understanding of India abroad
To support India’s causes and work for the welfare of local Indian communities worldwide
To provide a platform for overseas Indians to engage with the government and people of their ancestral land.
These conventions have proven instrumental in fostering connections between India and its vast overseas community, enabling the sharing of experiences, knowledge, and skills across various fields.
The theme for this year is the “Diaspora’s contribution to a Viksit Bharat” (Developed India).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2091229
Consider the following statements regarding the Global Energy Alliance for People and Planet:
- It is an alliance of philanthropy, governments, policy, and financing partners.
- It has signed a Multi-Donor Trust Fund with International Solar Alliance to mobilize $100 million to fund high-impact solar energy projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Global Energy Alliance for People and Planet (GEAPP) signed a Multi-Donor Trust Fund with International Solar Alliance aiming to mobilize $100 million to fund high-impact solar energy projects.
It is an alliance of philanthropy, governments, technology, policy, and financing partners.
Its mission is to enable emerging and developed economies to shift to a clean energy, pro-growth model that accelerates universal energy access and inclusive economic growth while supporting the global community to meet critical climate goals during the next decade.
It aims to reduce 4 gigatons of future carbon emissions, expand clean energy access to one billion people, and enable 150 million new jobs.
Initiatives announced by GEAPP
Multi-Donor Trust Fund:
GEAPP strengthened its partnership with International Solar Alliance (ISA) by signing ISA’s Multi-Donor Trust Fund which aims to mobilize $100 million to fund high-impact solar energy projects.
GEAPP, through its Project Management Unit, will support ISA by providing governance oversight, facilitating fundraising efforts, and leveraging its expertise in energy transition planning, financing, and project implementation.
DUET (Digitalization of Utilities for Energy Transition):
It is a program focused on the digitalization of grid systems through the development of a technology suite in which all grid assets are digitally captured (including geo-coordinates, specifications, etc.) and integrated with live smart sensors for real-time data.
The system will conduct load flow analysis and real-time tracking of voltage, current, and phase data to reduce transmission and distribution losses.
ENTICE 2.0 (Energy Transitions Innovation Challenge)
It is a platform designed to identify, nurture, and scale innovative solutions that have the potential to accelerate India’s startup ecosystem and help achieve its sustainability goals.
First launched in 2023, ENTICE aims to help scale innovations for the energy transition by facilitating access to funding, market linkages and mentorship.
ENTICE 2.0 will kickstart in January 2025, and will go beyond the scope of ENTICE 1.0 by focusing on supporting and scaling investable opportunities.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/sustainability-geapp-signs-multi-donor-trust-fund-with-isa-to-deploy-100-million-for-solar-projects-3709712/
The ‘Anji Khad Bridge’, recently seen in the news, is located in:
Jammu and Kashmir
Explanation :
Indian Railways continues to showcase its engineering excellence with the newly completed Anji Khad Bridge, the country’s first cable-stayed rail bridge.
About Anji Khad Bridge:
It is India’s first cable-stayed rail bridge, located in the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir.
A critical component of the ambitious Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) Project, this engineering marvel connects Katra and Reasi.
The project’s prime focus is on enhancing connectivity between the Kashmir Valley and the rest of India.
It is constructed over the Anji River, a tributary of the Chenab River.
Constructed in the challenging Himalayan terrain, the bridge overcame complex geological conditions, including seismic activity and fragile rock formations.
The Indian Railways collaborated with IIT Roorkee and IIT Delhi for site-specific investigations to ensure the bridge’s stability.
Features:
It is an asymmetrical cable-stayed bridge balanced on the axis of a central pylon.
Spanning 725.5 metres, the bridge features a 193-metre-tall main pylon, soaring 331 metres above the riverbed.
Its design allows it to withstand wind speeds of up to 213 km/h and safely support train operations at speeds of 100 km/h.
The bridge comprises four key sections: a 120-metre approach viaduct on the Reasi side, a 38-metre approach bridge on the Katra side, a 473.25-metre cable-stayed segment spanning the valley, and a 94.25-metre central embankment connecting the main structure to the viaduct.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.financialexpress.com/business/railways-anji-khad-bridge-indian-railways-first-cable-stayed-rail-bridge-connects-katra-and-reasi-details-inside-3709460/
With reference to the International Organization for Migration (IOM), consider the following statements:
- It is the leading intergovernmental organization in the field of migration.
- It is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
- It is committed to the principle that humane and orderly migration benefits migrants and society.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The UN International Organization for Migration said it was more than doubling an appeal launched last month for Syria, from $30 million to $73.2 million.
About International Organization for Migration (IOM):
Established in 1951, IOM is the leading intergovernmental organization in the field of migration and works closely with governmental, intergovernmental, and non-governmental partners.
IOM is part of the United Nations system as a related organization.
It is committed to the principle that humane and orderly migration benefits migrants and society.
IOM works to help ensure the orderly and humane management of migration, to promote international cooperation on migration issues, to assist in the search for practical solutions to migration problems, and to provide humanitarian assistance to migrants in need, including refugees and internally displaced people.
The IOM is the UN agency in charge of labour mobility and migration in general.
Its labour mobility and human development division is responsible for providing policy and operational guidance in matters related to labour mobility, diaspora communities and their links to development, and migrant integration.
The IOM is the coordinator for the Secretary of the UN Network on Migration.
It supported the negotiation and adoption of the UN Global Compact for Migration, a UN global agreement for international migration adopted in 2018.
Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland.
Member States: IOM has 175 member states and 8 observer states.
Publications: World Migration Report, Migration Health Annual Report.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/115230/OPS/GD1DR4AB3.1+GJ6DR6E9H.1.html
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Ebola’:
- It is a severe and often deadly bacterial disease.
- It spreads through human-to-human transmission via direct contact with the body fluids of an infected person.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Researchers recently developed the first nanobody-based inhibitors targeting the Ebola virus.
About Ebola:
It is a severe and often deadly disease caused by a group of viruses, known as ortho ebola viruses (formally ebolavirus).
Ortho Ebola Viruses were discovered in 1976 in the Democratic Republic of the Congo and are found primarily in sub-Saharan Africa.
It gets its name from the Ebola River, which is near one of the villages in the Democratic Republic of Congo where the disease first appeared.
Ebola can occur in humans and other primates (gorillas, monkeys, and chimpanzees).
Transmission:
It is thought that fruit bats of the Pteropodidae family are natural Ebola virus hosts.
Ebola is introduced into the human population through close contact with the blood, secretions, organs, or other bodily fluids of infected animals such as fruit bats, chimpanzees, gorillas, monkeys, forest antelope, or porcupines found ill or dead or in the rainforest.
Ebola then spreads through human-to-human transmission via direct contact with the body fluids of an infected sick or dead person.
Symptoms:
Symptoms of Ebola can start two to 21 days after being infected by the virus.
It includes fever, diarrhea, vomiting, bleeding, and often, death.
The average Ebola case fatality rate is around 50%.
Treatment:
There is no known cure for Ebola. Experimental treatments have been used, but none have been fully tested to see if they work well and are safe.
For example, there are two FDA-approved monoclonal antibody treatments for the Ebola Zaire strain (Inmazeb and Ebanga).
Recovery seems to depend in part on how much virus a person was initially exposed to, how early treatment is started, and the patient’s age and immune response.
Current therapy consists of maintenance of fluid and electrolyte balance and the administration of blood and plasma to control bleeding.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.news-medical.net/news/20250107/Researchers-develop-nanobody-inhibitors-to-target-Ebola-virus.aspx
Consider the following statements regarding Polar Vortex:
- It is a large area of low pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles.
- It always exists near the poles, but weakens in summer and strengthens in winter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The plunging polar vortex brought subfreezing temperatures to some of the southernmost points of the United States recently.
About Polar Vortex:
The polar vortex is a large area of low pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles.
The polar vortex extends from the tropopause (the dividing line between the stratosphere and troposphere) through the stratosphere and into the mesosphere (above 50 km).
It always exists near the poles, but weakens in summer and strengthens in winter.
The term “vortex” refers to the counterclockwise flow of air that helps keep the colder air near the Poles.
Many times, during winter in the northern hemisphere, the polar vortex will expand, sending cold air southward with the jet stream.
Jet streams are relatively narrow bands of strong wind in the upper levels of the atmosphere, typically occurring around 30,000 feet (9,100 meters) in elevation.
This occurs fairly regularly during wintertime and is often associated with large outbreaks of Arctic air in the United States.
This is not confined to the United States. Portions of Europe and Asia also experience cold surges connected to the polar vortex.
By itself, the only danger to humans is the magnitude of how cold temperatures will get when the polar vortex expands, sending Arctic air southward into areas that are not typically that cold.
The Antarctic polar-front jet stream is more uniform and constant than its Arctic counterpart, because Antarctica is surrounded by ocean rather than a mix of land and water.
Cold-air outbreaks, however, do occur in the Southern Hemisphere, but they are less frequent and strike heavily populated areas less frequently.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/polar-vortex-brings-its-bitter-cold-to-the-southern-us/article69075299.ece
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Z-Morh Tunnel’, recently seen in the news:
- It is a 2-lane railway tunnel in located in Jammu and Kashmir.
- It is vital for ensuring year-round connectivity to Ladakh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Z-Morh tunnel is set to become the first major milestone in the effort to build a strategic corridor between Kashmir and Ladakh which is open all through the year, with the Prime Minister slated to inaugurate it.
About Z-Morh Tunnel:
It is a 2-lane road tunnel between Gagangir and Sonamarg on the Srinagar-Leh Highway in Jammu and Kashmir.
The name “Z-Morh” refers to the Z-shaped road section near the construction site.
Why was the tunnel needed?
The area where the tunnel is being constructed sits at an altitude of over 8,500 ft and is prone to snow avalanches, which make the road to Sonamarg impassable during most parts of the winter.
Features:
Length: 6.5 km
The tunnel is designed for the flow of 1,000 vehicles an hour at an approved maximum speed of 80 km per hour.
No toll tax will be collected from vehicles using the tunnel.
In addition to the main tunnel, it includes a parallel 6.426 km long Escape Tunnelanda 0.6 km long Ventilation Tunnel.
An Intelligent Traffic Management System has been installed in Z-Morh Tunnel which will make it easier to control traffic. Along with this, traffic will be facilitated through the dedicated escape tunnel.
Strategic Importance:
In addition to providing all-weather access to Sonamarg, the tunnel is vital for ensuring year-round connectivity to Ladakh. This is particularly important for the movement of military personnel to border areas.
Along with the 14.15 km Zojila Tunnel to its east, it aims to enhance the Indian military’s capabilities in Kashmir and Ladakh along both the Line of Control (LOC) to the north and the Line of Actual Control (LAC) further east.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/pm-to-open-z-morh-tunnel-key-feature-in-strategic-year-round-kashmir-ladakh-corridor/article69081581.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Gaddi Dog’:
- It is mainly found in the Himalayan region of India.
- It is India’s first registered indigenous canine breed, recognised by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research- National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Indian Council of Agricultural Research- National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources (ICAR-NBAGR) has recognised the Gaddi as a registered indigenous dog breed from the Himalayas.
The breed is named after the Gaddi shepherds of Himachal Pradesh and has been used by them to guard their flocks of sheep and goats from predators.
Its ability to fight and fend off carnivores such as the Snow Leopard has also earned it the nickname of the ‘Indian Panther Hound’ or ‘Indian leopard Hound’.
The breed is mainly found in the Himalayan region.
It is the fourth indigenous canine after Rajapalayam and Chippiparai of Tamil Nadu and Mudhol Hound of Karnataka to be accorded the status.
Appearance
Gaddi dogs are predominately black with occasional white marking on the feet, tail, or trunk region. One of their main attributes is their massive, arched neck that protects them from predators.
These dogs have harmonious build, medium stature, moderately long, robust muscular body,
Main benefit of Recognition: It will help in maintaining purity of this breed that is much in demand and conducive to the Himalayan region.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/gaddi-dog-of-the-himalayas-recognised-by-icar-nbagr-karnal
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nimesulide’:
- It is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) widely used to relieve pain and inflammation.
- It was recently banned in India under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The long-awaited ban on nimesulide is now officially in place in India after scientific researches confirmed its toxic impact on the endangered vultures.
It is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) widely used to relieve pain and inflammation.
This medication helps in relieving pain, inflammation and swelling by lowering chemical substances in the body that cause them. It is prescribed for pain caused by fever, menstrual cramps, osteoarthritis or similar conditions.
It is widely used for treating animals such as cattle, pigs, and horses, and has been banned for pediatric use in several countries due to safety issues.
Impact on Vultures:
The drug was found to be toxic to the kidneys of vultures, resulting in severe health issues and a significant decline in their population.
It is confirmed that nimesulide had toxic effects on vultures, causing symptoms like visceral gout, a clear indicator of kidney damage.
It not only impacts vultures but is also not suitable for administration in humans.
It is a commonly used NSAID for veterinary purposes, which has been linked to the poisoning and death of vultures. It is banned under section 26A of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/nimesulide-ban-yet-another-step-toward-saving-vultures-but-the-battle-is-far-from-over/article69081387.ece
With reference to the ‘Henley Passport Index, 2025’, consider the following statements:
- It is based on exclusive data from the International Air Transport Association.
- Indian citizens are allowed visa-free travel to more than 100 countries.
- Singapore occupies the top position under this list.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
India’s ranking has dropped five places – from 80th to 85th – in the list of the world’s most powerful passports, according to the Henley Passport Index 2025.
It is the original, authoritative ranking of all the world’s passports according to the number of destinations their holders can access without a prior visa.
It started in 2006 as the Henley & Partners Visa Restrictions Index (HVRI).
The index is based on exclusive data from the International Air Transport Association. (IATA), the largest, most accurate travel information database, and enhanced by Henley & Partners’ research team. (Henley & Partners is a London-based advisory firm).
The index includes 199 different passports and 227 different travel destinations.
The number of countries that a specific passport can access becomes its visa-free ‘score’.
Highlights of Henley Passport Index 2025
Singapore has continued to dominate the list of the world’s strongest passports, achieving a top rank in 2025 as well. A person with a Singapore passport can travel visa-free to 195 destinations across the world.
As per its latest standing, an Indian passport holder can travel visa-free to 57 destinations. The country shares its rank with Equatorial Guinea and Niger.
The EU member states of France, Germany, Italy and Spain all drop two places to share third position. They’re joined by Finland and South Korea, with all six passports granting visa-free access in 2025 to 192 destinations.
Fourth place is equally competitive, with seven EU nations—Austria, Denmark, Ireland, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norway, and Sweden—each providing visa-free access to 191 destinations.
Completing the top five are Belgium, Portugal, Switzerland, the UK, and New Zealand—the only non-European country in this group—all offering visa-free travel to 190 destinations.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/investing-abroad-singapore-japan-and-european-giants-lead-the-2025-henley-passport-rankings-3710437/
Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Genome India Project’:
- It is an initiative to map the genetic diversity of India’s population.
- It is supported and funded by the World Health Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Prime Minister of India lauded the successful completion of the Genome India Project, calling it a historic step in India’s research landscape.
It is a national initiative started in January 2020 to map the genetic diversity of India’s population.
It is a multi-institution consortium project which is supported and funded by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India.
It aims to decode the genetic diversity of India’s population through large scale genome sequencing
Aims of the project are:
Create an exhaustive catalog of genetic variations (common, low frequency, rare, single nucleotide polymorphisms, or SNPs, and structural variations) in Indians.
Create a reference haplotype structure for Indians. This reference panel can be used for imputing missing genetic variation in future studies.
Design genome-wide arrays for research and diagnostics at an affordable cost.
Establish a biobank for DNA and plasma collected for future use in research.
Key highlights of the project include:
Genome sequencing of 10,000 individuals: The project successfully sequenced genomes of 10,074 samples, covering 99 ethnic groups.
Creation of a genetic database: Data is securely stored at the Indian Biological Data Centre and will serve as a reference for researchers.
Genetic insights for public health: The study revealed unique genetic variations, some with clinical significance, paving the way for precision medicine.
Phase 1 analysis: Detailed quality checks and joint genotyping of 5,750 samples have uncovered rare genetic variations unique to Indian populations.
This ‘Genome India’ database will now be available to researchers across the world for investigations and is housed at the Indian Biological Data Centre (IBDC), in Faridabad, Haryana.
Significance: It can help advance the treatment of genetic and infectious diseases.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/health/story/genomeindia-project-complete-pm-modi-calls-it-historic-2662399-2025-01-09
Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Miyawaki Technique’:
- It is a method for creating dense forests in limited spaces.
- It improves soil quality, enhances biodiversity and accelerates forest development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Around 56,000 sq. meters of Dense Forests were created in Prayagraj in the last two years using Miyawaki Technique in preparation for Mahakumbh 2025.
It was developed by renowned Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki in the 1970s.
It is a revolutionary method for creating dense forests in limited spaces.
It is often referred to as the ‘pot plantation method’, it involves planting trees and shrubs close to one another to accelerate their growth. Plants grow 10 times faster with this technique, making it a practical solution for urban areas.
This method mimics natural forests by using a mix of native species planted densely.
Advantages:
It improves soil quality, enhances biodiversity, and accelerates forest development.
Trees planted using the Miyawaki technique absorb more carbon, grow faster, and support richer biodiversity compared to traditional forests.
In urban settings, this technique has transformed polluted, barren lands into green ecosystems.
It has successfully managed industrial waste, reduced dust and foul odours, and curbed air and water pollution.
Additionally, it prevents soil erosion and promotes ecological balance, making it an effective tool for environmental restoration.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2091250
Which among the following best describes ‘Manis indoburmanica’, recently seen in the news?
A newly discovered species of pangolin found in India.
Explanation :
Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) scientists recently discovered a pangolin species — the Indo-Burmese pangolin (Manis indoburmanica) — in Arunachal Pradesh.
About Manis indoburmanica:
It is a new species of pangolin genetically distinct from Chinese and Indian pangolins found in India.
The species has been named Indo-Burmese pangolin (Manis indoburmanica).
Genetic analysis has shown that the Indo-Burmese pangolin is 3.8% different from the Chinese pangolin (Manis pentadactyla).
The species diverged from the Chinese pangolin around 3.4 million years ago, probably owing to climatic and geological changes during the Pliocene and Pleistocene epochs.
The species is believed to inhabit parts of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, and potentially extend into Nepal, Bhutan, and Myanmar.
It is found at altitudes ranging from 180 to 1830 meters above sea level and has dark brown and olive-brown scales with a pinkish face, typical of other Asian pangolins.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/kolkata/zsi-team-discovers-new-pangolin-species-in-arunachal/articleshow/117093375.cms
The National Youth Day is organized every year to commemorate the birth anniversary of which Indian leader?
Swami Vivekananda
Explanation :
This year, the annual National Youth Festival (NYF), held on January 10-12 at Bharat Mandapam, will undergo a transformative reimagining as the Viksit Bharat Young Leaders Dialogue.
About National Youth Festival (NYF):
Under the component ‘Promotion of National Integration’ of the National Programme for Youth and Adolescent Development (NPYAD), a NYF is organised during the month of January every year to commemorate the birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda (12 January), which is celebrated as National Youth Day.
Every year since 1985, the Government of India observes January 12 as National Youth Day and the week commencing from that day, as National Youth Week.
NYF is organized every year from 12th to 16th January.
It is organised by the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports in partnership with one of the States/UTs which hosts the NYF.
The expenditure is shared between the Centre and the host State.
During the festival, various cultural programmes (both competitive and non-competitive), Youth convention, Suvichar, Exhibition, Adventure programmes, etc., are organized, and about 7500 youth delegates from different states/UTs take part in the festival.
Thematic displays are also organized.
NYF 2025:
The Theme of NYF 2025 is Innovation in Science and Technology.
NYF 2025 main event will be held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/3-day-viksit-bharat-young-leaders-dialogue-2025-begins-in-delhi-7443436
Consider the following statements regarding Copernicus Climate Change Service (C3S), recently seen in the news:
- It is a climate research project led by NASA.
- It offers free and open access via the internet to the best available climate data and to the tools needed to use this data.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
According to scientists at the Copernicus Climate Change Service (C3S), 2024 was the hottest year since global temperature tracking began in 1850.
About Copernicus Climate Change Service (C3S):
C3S is one of six thematic information services provided by the Copernicus Earth Observation Programme of the European Union.
C3S is implemented by the European Centre for Medium-Range Weather Forecasts (ECMWF) on behalf of the European Commission.
ECMWF is an independent intergovernmental organisation serving its member and Co-operating States and the broader community.
C3S supports society by providing authoritative information about the past, present, and future climate in Europe and the rest of the world.
The service offers free and open access via the internet to the best available climate data and to the tools needed to use this data.
C3S has developed a Climate Data Store that provides easy access on the internet to a variety of high-quality, up-to-date, global datasets about the impacts of past, present, and future climate change.
The Climate Data Store is continually updated with new data based on the latest science, including observations, reanalyzes of past observations, seasonal forecasts, and climate model projections.
The Climate Data Store offers tools and expert guidance that make it possible to transform complex climate datasets into useful visual products, such as maps and charts.
Users anywhere can use data and tools available on the Climate Data Store for their own local needs.
C3S can provide user support, training, and guidance where needed.
C3S users include scientists, consultants, planners, and policymakers, the media, and the public.
C3S relies on climate research carried out within the World Climate Research Programme (WCRP) and responds to user requirements defined by the Global Climate Observing System (GCOS).
C3S provides an important resource to the Global Framework for Climate Services (GFCS).
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.deccanherald.com/environment/2024-becomes-warmest-year-on-record-first-to-breach-15-degree-celsius-guardrail-3349147
Consider the following statements regarding Foot-and-Mouth Disease (FMD), recently seen in the news:
- It is a severe, highly contagious bacterial disease of livestock.
- It causes significant production losses and disrupts regional and international trade in animals and animal products.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Germany has experienced its first outbreak of foot-and-mouth disease in nearly 40 years, affecting water buffalo near Berlin.
About Foot-and-mouth Disease (FMD):
It is a severe, highly contagious viral disease of livestock that has a significant economic impact.
The disease affects cattle, swine, sheep, goats, and other cloven-hoofed ruminants.
It does not affect horses, dogs, or cats.
Intensively reared animals are more susceptible to the disease than traditional breeds.
It is a transboundary animal disease (TAD) that deeply affects the production of livestock and disrupts regional and international trade in animals and animal products.
The disease is estimated to circulate in 77% of the global livestock population, in Africa, the Middle East, and Asia, as well as in a limited area of South America.
It is not a human health or food safety threat. It is also not related to hand, foot, and mouth disease, which is a common childhood illness caused by a different virus.
The organism which causes FMD is an aphthovirus of the family Picornaviridae.
There are seven strains (A, O, C, SAT1, SAT2, SAT3, and Asia1) which are endemic in different countries worldwide.
Immunity to one type does not protect an animal against other types or sub-types.
Transmission:
FMD is found in all excretions and secretions from infected animals.
Notably, these animals breathe out a large amount of aerosolised virus, which can infect other animals via the respiratory or oral routes.
The disease is rarely fatal in adult animals, but there is often high mortality in young animals.
Symptoms:
FMD is characterised by fever and blister-like sores on the tongue and lips, in the mouth, on the teats, and between the hooves.
Ruptured blisters can result in extreme lameness and reluctance to move or eat.
Other frequent symptoms are fever, depression, hypersalivation, loss of appetite, weight loss, growth retardation, and a drop in milk production, which can persist even after recovery.
The disease causes severe production losses, and while the majority of affected animals recover, the disease often leaves them weakened and debilitated.
It was the first disease for which the World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH, founded as OIE) established official status recognition.
Vaccines for FMD are available but must be matched to the specific type and sub-type of virus causing the outbreak.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.devdiscourse.com/article/health/3221442-germanys-first-foot-and-mouth-outbreak-in-40-years
Consider the following statements regarding Desert National Park (DNP):
- It is one of the largest national parks in the country, located in Rajasthan.
- The major landform consists of craggy rocks, compact salt lake bottoms and fixed dunes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
At least 12 Great Indian Bustards (GIBs) were recently spotted in a group at the Desert National Park (DNP) in Rajasthan, in a major boost to efforts to conserve one of India’s most critically endangered species.
About Desert National Park (DNP):
It is located in the Thar Desert near the town of Jaisalmer, in Rajasthan.
It is one of the largest national parks in the country, covering an area of over 3160 sq. km.
The area falls in the extreme hot and arid region of the very low rainfall zone (<100mm) of the country.
Topography:
The Park forms a vast,sandy, and undulating terrain.
The major landform consists of craggy rocks and compact Salt Lake bottoms, inters medial areas, and fixed dunes.
Sand dunes form around 20% of the park.
There are three main lakes in this sanctuary: Rajbaugh Lake, Malik Talao Lake, and Padam Talao.
One of the most interesting features of the DNP is the presence of fossils from the Jurassic Period.
Vegetation:
The vegetation of a major part of the arid region of the Thar falls under the thorn forest type (Champion and Seth 1968).
The vegetation is quite sparse with open grassland, thorny bushes, plantations,and dunes as the broad habitat types.
Flora:
It consists of dhok, ronj, salai, and palm trees.
Khejri (Prosopis cineraria) is commonly found, which is revered and protected by the local communities,especially the ‘Bishnois’.
Fauna:
The wildlife of the DNP includes Chinkara, Desert fox, Bengal Fox, Indian Wolf, Desert Cat, Hare, etc.
The endangered Great Indian Bustard is one magnificent bird found in relatively fair numbers.
Reptiles are also found in abundance, and they include the spiny –tailed lizard, monitor lizard, saw scaled-viper, Russel viper, and Karit.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/in-rare-sighting-12-endangered-great-indian-bustards-spotted-together-in-rajasthan-7422705
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Customs Electronic Gateway:
- It is the national portal of Indian Customs of Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC).
- It serves as a centralized hub for all electronic interactions between Indian customs and the trading community.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Ministry of Commerce has said that the discrepancy in the gold counting error numbers was primarily due to migration of data transmission mechanism from SEZ to Indian Customs Electronic Gateway (ICEGATE).
It is known as ICEGATE which was established in 2007.
It is the national portal of Indian Customs of Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) that provides e-filing services to the Trade, Cargo Carriers and other Trading Partners electronically.
It serves as a centralized hub for all electronic interactions between Indian customs and the trading community.
It is the main infrastructure for connecting trade users with the Indian government’s customs department, and acts as a hub for exchanging information between external trading partners involved in international trading.
It is internally linked with multiple partner agencies including RBI, Banks, DGFT, DGCIS, Ministry of Steel, Directorate of Valuation and other various Partner Government Agencies involved in EXIM.
It collectively contribute to streamlining customs procedures, enhancing trade facilitation, and promoting transparency and efficiency in cross - border trade activities in India by providing multiple features for it’s users.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/commodities/migration-of-data-transmission-system-led-to-gold-counting-error-says-govt-9770610/
Consider the following statements regarding silver nanowire-based conductive Ink:
- It is used in flexible electronics and display technologies.
- India is one of the major exporting countries of this ink.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
In an event held at NIT Warangal, indigenous knowhow of silver nanowire-based conductive ink technology was transferred to two startups.
It has been developed under the project funded by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), Govt. of India.
The indigenous conductive ink technology holds the promise of reducing dependency on other countries, while also enabling India to tap into the rapidly growing demand for advanced electronic materials.
Silver nanowire-based conductive ink is a versatile material used in:
Flexible electronics (e.g., foldable devices, touchscreen displays, computer keyboards).
Wearable devices and sensors.
Solar panels and display technologies.
RFID tags and windshield defrosters.
The global market for silver nanowire-based conductive ink and adhesive is projected to surpass $16.87B by 2032 due to a rapid increase in the electronics, semiconductor, solar photovoltaic, and RFID market.
The market growth can be attributed to key factors, including robust demand from end-use industries.
India imports ink worth no more than $15,72,000 every year. The United States of America, the People’s Republic of China, the Netherlands, the United Kingdom, and Taiwan are the major exporter countries.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2091893
With reference to Gulf of Mexico, consider the following:
- It borders the southeastern coast of North America.
- It is connected to the Atlantic Ocean by the Yucatán Channel.
- It contains large deposits of petroleum and natural gas.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the US President-elect said that he will change the name of the Gulf of Mexico to “Gulf of America”.
It borders the southeastern coast of North America.
It is connected to the Atlantic Ocean by the Straits of Florida, running between the peninsula of Florida and the island of Cuba, and to the Caribbean Sea by the Yucatán Channel, which runs between the Yucatán Peninsula and Cuba.
It is a marginal sea of the Atlantic Ocean and the world’s largest gulf. It is often referred to as the “Mediterranean of the Americas”.
It was formed as a result of seafloor subsidence due to the movement of the tectonic plates.
It is somewhat shallow, along the coastal continental shelf areas, and has an average depth of 1,615 m.
Climate:
Its climate varies from tropical to subtropical type.
This region experiences some of the most severe weather in the world, including major hurricanes, tornadoes, and thunderstorms.
Rivers: The Mississippi and the Rio Grande are the major rivers draining into the gulf.
Natural resources: The shallow continental shelf regions of this Gulf contain large deposits of petroleum and natural gas.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/trump-gulf-of-mexico-rename-history-9770157/
Consider the following statements regarding the World Meteorological Organization:
- It is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN).
- It aims to facilitate international cooperation in the exchange of information and technology related to weather and related environmental fields.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) has confirmed that 2024 is the warmest year on record, based on six international datasets.
It is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN).
History
It originated from the International Meteorological Organization (IMO), which was founded in 1873.
Established in 1950, WMO became the specialized agency of the UN for meteorology (weather and climate), operational hydrology and related geophysical sciences.
It is the UN system’s authoritative voice on the state and behavior of the Earth’s atmosphere, its interaction with the oceans, the climate it produces, and the resulting distribution of water resources.
Its main goal is to facilitate international cooperation in the development of meteorology and the exchange of information and technology related to weather, climate, hydrology and related environmental fields.
Governance Structure:
World Meteorological Congress: It is WMO’s supreme body which consists of representatives of all members. It meets at least every four years to set general policy and adopt regulations.
Executive Council: It consists of 36-members which meets annually and implements policy.
Secretariat: It is headed by a secretary-general appointed by the congress for a four-year term, serves as the administrative centre of the organization.
Members: It has 193 Members, including 187 Member States and 6 Territories, maintaining their own meteorological services.
Headquarter: Geneva, Switzerland.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2025/Jan/11/global-heating-a-cold-fact-2024-hottest-yr-on-record-says-un-weather-agency
Consider the following statements regarding the Project Veer Gatha:
- It aims to raise awareness of Gallantry awardees’ acts of bravery and the life stories of these heroes.
- It is an initiative of the union Ministry of Home Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The fourth edition of Project ‘Veer Gatha 4.0’, as part of Republic Day celebrations has garnered an incredible nationwide response.
It was launched in 2021 as part of ‘Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav’ to commemorate India’s 75th year of Independence.
Aim: The project aims to raise awareness of Gallantry awardees’ acts of bravery and the life stories of these heroes.
The initiative helps instill patriotism and civic values in students.
The journey of Project Veer Gatha from Edition 1 to Edition 4 has been inspiring, expanding the reach of the competition across the length and breadth of the country.
It is a joint initiative by the Ministry of Defence and Ministry of Education.
Project Veer Gatha 4.0 presented a variety of thought-provoking topics for essay and paragraph writing.
Students had the opportunity to write about their chosen role models, particularly focusing on Gallantry Award recipients.
They were also encouraged to explore the inspiring lives of freedom fighters such as Rani Laxmibai, the 1857 First War of Independence, and the significant role of Tribal Uprisings in India’s Freedom Struggle.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2091753
Where is the Punatsangchhu-II Hydroelectric Project (PHEP-II), recently seen in the news, located?
Bhutan
Explanation :
State-owned Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd. (BHEL) recently said it has successfully commissioned the first two units of the 6x170 MW Punatsangchhu-II hydroelectric project (PHEP-II) in Bhutan.
About Punatsangchhu-II Hydroelectric Project (PHEP-II):
It is a 1 GW run-of-the-river hydroelectric power-generating facility under construction in the Wangdue Phodrang district of Bhutan.
It is located on the right bank of the Punatsangchhu River.
The project is being developed by the Punatsangchhu II Hydroelectric Project Authority, under an Inter-Government Agreement (IGA) between the Royal Government of Bhutan and the Government of India.
Specifications:
It involves the construction of a 91m-high and 223.8m-long concrete gravity dam, along with an 877.46m-long and 12m-diametre diversion tunnel with a discharge capacity of 1118 cubic metres per second.
The project also involves a 168.75m-long and 22m-high upper cofferdam and a 102.02m-long and 13.5m-tall downstream cofferdam.
The Punatsangchhu II hydroelectric power plant will comprise an underground powerhouse which will be equipped with six Francis turbines of 170 MW capacity each.
On commissioning of all six units, the expected annual power generation will be 4,357 million units of electricity.
Funding: It is funded by the Government of India (GoI): 30% grant and 70% loan at 10% annual interest, repayable in 30 equated semi-annual installments commencing one year after the mean date of operation.
All the surplus power from the project will be exported to India.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.cnbctv18.com/market/stocks/bhel-share-price-commissions-two-units-of-170-mw-each-at-punatsangchhu-ii-hydroelectric-project-bhutan-19536699.htm
Consider the following statements regarding the National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO):
- It is an apex organization set up under the Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
- It provides an efficient and organized system of organ procurement and distribution and maintains the national registry of donors and recipients of organs and tissues.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Central government employees who donate organs will receive 42 days of special casual leave, the National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO) announced recently.
About National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO):
NOTTO is a national-level organization set up under the Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
It is an apex organization for implementing the National Organ Transplant Program (NOTP) and to carry out activities as per the Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act (THOTA) 1994.
NOTTO provides an efficient and organized system of organ procurement and distribution in the country and maintains the national registry of donors and recipients of organs and tissues.
It has the following two divisions:
National Human Organ and Tissue Removal and Storage Network:
It would function as apex centre for all India activities of coordination and networking for the procurement and distribution of organs and tissues and registry of organ and tissue donation and transplantation in the country.
It has been mandated as per the Transplantation of Human Organs (Amendment) Act 2011.
National Biomaterial Centre (National Tissue Bank):
The Transplantation of Human Organs (Amendment) Act 2011 has included the component of tissue donation and registration of tissue banks.
The main thrust and objective of establishing the centre is to fill up the gap between ‘Demand’ and ‘Supply’ as well as ‘Quality Assurance’ in the availability of various tissues.
Activities:
Coordination for tissue procurement and distribution
Donor Tissue Screening
Removal of Tissues and Storage
Preservations of Tissue
Laboratory screening of tissues
Tissue tracking
Sterilization
Records maintenance, Data Protection and Confidentiality
Quality Management in tissues
Patient Information on tissues
Development of Guidelines, Protocols and Standard Operating Procedures
Trainings
Assisting as per requirement in registration of other Tissue Banks
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://m.economictimes.com/news/india/central-government-employees-to-get-42-days-special-casual-leave-for-organ-donation/amp_articleshow/117137160.cms
Which among the following best describes ‘Utricularia’, recently seen in the news?
A genus of carnivorous plants.
Explanation :
A rare and unique carnivorous plant ‘Utricularia’ has been found in Rajasthan’s Keoladeo National Park in large numbers this season.
About Utricularia:
Utricularia (bladderwort) is a genus of carnivorous plants in the family Lentibulariaceae.
Currently, 220 listed species occupying temperate and tropical habitats throughout the world; it is the most diverse and widespread genus of carnivorous plants.
They are characterized by small hollow sacs that actively capture and digest tiny animals such as insect larvae, aquatic worms, and water fleas.
Bladderworts can be found in lakes, streams, and waterlogged soils around the world, and several are invasive species that have spread to novel habitats.
Bladderwort plants lack roots and usually have a horizontal floating stem bearing simple or divided leaves.
Small carnivorous bladders are produced along the stem can range from dark to transparent in color.
Bladderworts trap small organisms in their tiny bladders, which have a trap door that is triggered by hairs on the door.
When prey comes in contact with the hairs, the door opens in a millisecond, sucking the animal in and closing in about 2.5 milliseconds.
The flowers are bisexual and bilaterally symmetrical.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.etvbharat.com/en/!state/rare-carnivorous-plant-utricularia-grows-in-keoladeo-national-park-boosts-biodiversity-enn25011102049
Consider the following statements regarding Trichophyton indotineae, recently seen in the news:
- It is a fungal pathogen that can cause difficult-to-treat skin infections.
- It is endemic to southern India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Over 30 dermatologists have proposed renaming a skin-disease causing fungus, Trichophyton indotineae – named after India – arguing that it has been reported from more than 40 nations without any confirmation of India being the country of origin.
About Trichophyton indotineae:
It is a fungal pathogen that can cause difficult-to-treat skin infections that are widely reported from India.
The fungus was named after India in 2020 by a Japanese group on the basis of two isolates from India and Nepal, following an academic practice of identifying a new pathogen after the country where it was first sighted.
The fungus has been documented in over 40 countries.
It belongs to the dermatophyte group. Dermatophytosis is the superficial infection of the skin, hair, and nails by dermatophyte fungi.
T. indotineae causes inflammatory and itchy, often widespread, dermatophytosis affecting the groins, gluteal region, trunk, and face.
Patients of all ages and genders are affected.
Transmission: Spreads through direct skin contact and contaminated objects (e.g., towels, clothing).
It is resistant against the first-line antifungal agent terbinafine.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/science/plea-to-change-the-name-of-a-pathogen-named-after-india-3351344
In which two Indian states is the Hatti community primarily found?
Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand
Explanation :
The vibrant Boda Tyohar festival, the largest annual celebration for the Hatti tribes of the Trans-Giri region in Himachal Pradesh, kicked off recently with much enthusiasm and traditional fervour.
About Hattis:
The Hattis is a close-knit community who take their name from their traditional occupation of selling home-grown crops, vegetables, meat, and wool at small-town markets known as ‘haats’.
Hatti men traditionally don a distinctive white headgear on ceremonial occasions.
The Hatti homeland straddles the Himachal-Uttarakhand border in the basin of the Giri and Tons rivers, both tributaries of the Yamuna. The Tons marks the border between the two states.
There are two main Hatti clans: one in the Trans-Giri area of the Sirmaur district in Himachal Pradesh and the other in Jaunsar Bawar of Uttarakhand.
The two Hatti clans have similar traditions, and intermarriages are common.
They are governed by a traditional council called ‘khumbli’ which decides community matters.
Economy:
The Hatti population relies on agriculture for livelihood and bare subsistence since their climate is ideal for growing “Cash Crops.”
Moreover, the rise in Kinnaur, Lahaul, and Spiti’s seasonal tourism, often called “eco-tourism”, served as a merged source of income.
According to the 2011 census, members of the community numbered 2.5 lakh, but at present population of the Hattis is estimated at around 3 lakhs.
In 2023, the Indian government granted Scheduled Tribe (ST) status to the Hatti community in Himachal Pradesh.
The Jaunsar-Bawar region of Uttarakhand was granted tribal status in 1967.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.cnbctv18.com/travel/culture/hatti-tribes-of-himachal-begin-boda-tyohar-festival-in-trans-giri-region-19538556.htm
Consider the following statements regarding the UN Committee of Experts on Big Data and Data Science for Official Statistics:
- It was created to investigate challenges of Big Data and potential for monitoring and reporting on sustainable development goals.
- It was created in 2014 with India as its first Chair.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, India has joined the UN Committee of Experts on Big Data and Data Science for Official Statistics (UN-CEBD).
It was created in 2014 with Australia as its first Chair.
It was created to further investigate the benefits and challenges of Big Data, including the potential for monitoring and reporting on sustainable development goals.
Governance
Advisory Board: It is the management body of the UN-CEBD. It is scheduled to meet about 4 times per year to review the work of the UN-CEBD and give strategic direction.
UN Bureau: The Bureau takes care of the ongoing operations of the UN-CEBD
Mandate
To provide a strategic vision, direction and coordination for a global programme on big data for official statistics, including for indicators of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development;
To promote practical use of big data sources, including cross-border data, while building on existing precedents and finding solutions for the many existing challenges,
To also promote capacity-building, training and sharing of experience;
To foster communication and advocacy of the use of big data for policy applications, especially for the monitoring of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development;
To build public trust in the use of big data for official statistics.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-joins-un-committee-on-big-data-for-official-statistics/article69088267.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Blue Flag certification:
- It is a globally recognized eco-label accorded by the Foundation for Environment Education in Denmark.
- Under this initiative, only western coastal beaches of India are certified.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Kerala’s famed Kappad beach in Kozhikode and Chal beach in Kannur have been bestowed with the coveted Blue Flag certification by Denmark-based Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE).
Blue Flag certification is a globally recognized eco-label accorded by the Foundation for Environment Education in Denmark (FEE).
The Blue Flag programme was started in France in 1985 and in areas out of Europe in 2001.
It is one of the world’s most recognised voluntary awards for beaches, marinas, and sustainable tourism boats.
It promotes sustainable development in freshwater and marine areas through four main criteria: water quality, environmental management, environmental education and safety.
The mission of Blue Flag is to promote sustainability in the tourism sector, through environmental education, environmental protection and other sustainable development practices.
The other Indian beaches in the blue list are Shivrajpur-Gujarat, Ghoghla-Diu, Kasarkod and Padubidri-Karnataka, Kappad-Kerala, Rushikonda- Andhra Pradesh, Golden-Odisha, Radhanagar- Andaman and Nicobar, Kovalam in Tamil Nadu and Eden in Puducherry beaches, Minicoy Thundi Beach, Lakshadweep, Kadmat Beach, Lakshadweep.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/kappd-chal-beaches-get-global-blue-flag-certification/article69081536.ece
With reference to Silver Notice, consider the following:
- It is the latest addition to Interpol’s suite of colour-coded alerts.
- It allows participating nations to request information on assets linked to criminal activities such as fraud and corruption.
- India is not a part of this new initiative of Interpol.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the International Criminal Police Organisation, or Interpol, has introduced its first ‘Silver Notice’.
It is the latest addition to Interpol’s suite of colour-coded alerts, designed to help countries track and retrieve criminally obtained assets.
This notice allows participating nations to request information on assets linked to criminal activities such as fraud, corruption, drug trafficking, and environmental crimes.
It aimed at tracing assets laundered across international borders.
This initiative, part of a pilot project involving 52 countries, including India, was launched following a request from Italy to locate the assets of a senior mafia member.
The project will run until at least November 2025, with 500 notices available for distribution among the participating countries.
How does it work?
Countries can use the Silver Notice to request information on various assets, including properties, vehicles, financial accounts, and businesses connected to criminal activities.
The notice facilitates the identification and location of these assets, enabling further legal action, such as seizure or confiscation, subject to national laws.
India’s role in this
India is a participant in this pilot project and stands to benefit significantly.
With numerous fugitive economic offenders and a substantial amount of unaccounted black money transferred offshore, the Silver Notice could be instrumental in tracing and recovering these assets.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/world-news/interpol-silver-notice-asset-tracing-pilot-india-global-crime-125011000834_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Esterase enzyme:
- It is produced by soil bacteria Sulfobacillus acidophilus.
- It can break down diethyl hexyl phthalate (DEHP) plasticizer with significant efficiency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A team of researchers has successfully used an enzyme — esterase enzyme —to break down diethyl hexyl phthalate (DEHP) plasticizer.
It is produced by soil bacteria Sulfobacillus acidophilus.
The esterase enzyme was structurally characterised using X-ray crystallography.
It remains active for about a month and catalyzes the degradation of diethyl hexyl phthalate (DEHP) plasticizer with significant efficiency.
The enzyme breaks down the DEHP plasticizer into two products — mono-(2-ethylhexyl) phthalate (MEHP) and 2-ethyl hexanol.
This esterase enzyme, along with other enzymes identified by their group previously can convert high molecular weight phthalate plasticizers into water and carbon-dioxide.
Researchers used three other enzymes in sequence are from Comamonas testosteroni bacteria.
Putting all the five enzymes into bacteria will speed up the degradation process.
The enzymes, whether used for degradation or not, will remain active only for a short time. But once integrated into bacteria, the enzymes remain active for a longer time and the bacteria can be used continuously for degrading the plasticizers.
But when the enzymes are used without integrating into bacteria, a fresh batch of enzymes needs to be produced to continue the degradation process.
What are Plasticizers?
These are chemicals added to plastics and personal care products to enhance flexibility and shine, and are commonly found in items such as baby toys, shampoos, soaps, and food containers.
Plasticizers can be absorbed through the skin, making them a direct threat to human health.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/iit-roorkee-uses-bacterial-enzymes-to-degrade-plasticizers/article69085296.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the INS Vaghsheer:
- It is the sixth submarine belongs to Kalvari-class submarines for the Indian Navy.
- It consists of indigenously developed systems like internal communication network and the Ku-Band SATCOM system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Mumbai based Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) marked a key milestone in India’s defence capabilities with the delivery of the sixth and final Scorpene-class submarine, INS Vaghsheer, to the Indian Navy.
It is the sixth submarine of the first batch of six Kalvari-class submarines for the Indian Navy.
It is named after the sand fish, a deadly deep-sea predator of the Indian Ocean.
It was launched in April 2022 and underwent extensive trials, testing its endurance, stealth features, and combat efficiency.
Other five submarines of Kalvari class are Kalvari, Khanderi, Karanj, Vela, Vagir.
Features
It boasts advanced stealth technologies, including reduced radiated noise levels and sophisticated hydrodynamic design, making it one of the quietest submarines in the world.
Its combat capabilities include the use of precision-guided weapons such as torpedoes and tube-launched anti-ship missiles, further solidifying its role in both offensive and defensive naval operations.
It is designed for a wide range of missions, from anti-submarine warfare to intelligence gathering, and is fully capable of operating in diverse maritime environments.
It consists of indigenously developed systems like the air-conditioning plant, internal communication network, and the Ku-Band SATCOM system.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/mdl-delivers-sixth-scorpene-class-submarine-to-the-navy-sets-sights-on-project-75-i-submarine-program-3711251/
Recently seen in news Delft Island is located at
Palk Strait, off the northern coast of Sri Lanka.
Explanation :
As many as 17 Indian fishermen were arrested by the Sri Lankan Navy while fishing near the Neduntheevu island recently.
About Neduntheevu Island:
The Neduntheevu, sometimes known as Neduntivu, is the largest island falling in the Palk Strait in the northern parts of Sri Lanka.
This is known as Delft Island also, as it was so called by the Dutch colonials.
The island’s area is 50 sq.km. Its length is 8 km, and its maximum width is about 6 km.
It happens to be the biggest of the seven inhabitable islands in the region.
A unique feature of this island is that it is flat and oval-shaped, which is wind-swept at almost all times, which makes the place very soothing.
There are no streams on the island. The major source of freshwater is surface water, which is collected in natural depressions and artificial ponds.
On the island there are varied kinds of dry shrubs and semi-arid tropical plants. This island also has tall palm trees, which add to the overall beachy feel of the island.
A Dutch fort made of dead coral chunks is also located on this island.
It is home to a population of 4,800 Tamil people, living in compounds only in the northern half of the island.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/17-fishermen-from-tamil-nadu-arrested-by-sri-lankan-navy/article68697212.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Universal Account Number (UAN):
1.It is a 12-digit number that each member of the Employee Provident Fund (EPF) is allotted against his/her name.
- This number is the same throughout an employee’s professional life.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Employee Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) has extended the deadline for activating Universal Account Numbers (UAN) and linking Aadhaar with bank accounts.
About Universal Account Number (UAN):
UAN is a number allotted to all salaried employees, who contribute a part of their income towards the Employee Provident Fund (EPF).
It is a 12-digit number that each member of the EPF is allotted against his/her name.
It is generated and allotted by the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) and authenticated by the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India.
This number is the same throughout an employee’s professional life.
When an employee changes his job, his EPF account number and Member Identification Number (Member Id) change, but UAN remains the same.
If a member has already been allotted a UAN, then s/he may provide the same to the new establishment/employer, which in turn will mark the new allotted Member Id to the UAN.
The UAN will act as an umbrella for the multiple Member Ids allotted to an individual by different establishments.
This will help the member to view details of all the Member Ids linked to it.
It is useful for EPFO to track multiple job switches of the employee.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.businesstoday.in/personal-finance/top-story/story/dont-lose-your-epfo-benefits-link-aadhaar-activate-uan-by-this-date-460482-2025-01-12
Neptune Missile, recently seen in the news, is developed by which country?
Ukraine
Explanation :
During a joint operation of the Security Service of Ukraine (SBU) and the Ukrainian Navy, an ammunition storage depot in the Rostov region, Russia, was hit using the Neptune missile recently.
About Neptune Missile:
An R-360 Neptune is a Ukrainian-developed subsonic cruise missile initially designed as an anti-ship missile and later modified for land attacks.
The design of this missile is based on a Russian Kh-35 cruise missile which goes by the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) name of AS-20 Kayak.
The system entered service with the Ukrainian Navy in March 2021.
Features:
The missile weighs 870 kg and is 5.05 meters long.
The missile travels at speeds of up to 900 km/h and can fly at altitudes ranging from 10 to 300 meters, dropping to just three meters during its final approach to avoid enemy air defenses.
It has a maximum range of 400 km and a combat weight of 350 kilograms (150 kg in the anti-ship version).
A satellite positioning system was installed to guide the missile during the flight’s marching phase.
In the final part of the flight, the missile is guided by an infrared homing system.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.msn.com/en-ca/war-and-conflicts/military/russian-drone-storage-facility-hit-with-neptune-missile-details-of-ukraine-s-security-service-and-navy-operation/ar-BB1retA5?ocid=TobArticle
Indravati National Park lies in which state?
Chhattisgarh
Explanation :
Five Maoists, including two women, were killed in an encounter with security forces inside Indravati National Park in Chhattisgarh’s Bijapur district recently.
About Indravati National Park:
It is located in the Bijapur district of Chhattisgarh.
It was established in 1981 and declared as a tiger reserve in 1983 under the Project Tiger of India.
The park derives its name from the Indravati River, which flows from east to west and forms the northern boundary of the reserve with the Indian state of Maharashtra.
Topography: It mainly comprises undulating hilly terrain with altitudes ranging between 177 to 599 m above sea level.
Vegetation: Three major forest types are recognized in Indravati: Moist Mixed Deciduous Forest with Teak, Moist Mixed Deciduous Forest without Teak, and Southern Dry Mixed Deciduous Forest.
Flora: Some common species include teak, achar, karra, kullu, shisham, semal, haldu, arjun, bel, and jamun.
Fauna:
It is home to one of the last populations of rare wild buffalo.
Other animals include Nilgai, Black Buck, Sambar, Gaur, Tiger, Leopard, Chital, Sloth bears, etc.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/india/encounter-breaks-out-security-personnel-naxalites-chhattisgarh-9774375/
With reference to the Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP) Scheme, consider the following statements:
- It aims to offset the taxes and duties incurred on exported goods that wouldn’t otherwise be credited, reimbursed, or refunded in any way and are integrated into the exported goods.
- It is applicable to all the sectors involved in the export of goods irrespective of their turnover, provided the country of manufacturing should be in India.
- Goods exported through e-commerce platforms and re-exported products are not eligible under this scheme.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Amid global economic uncertainties, the industry has urged the government to extend key export-boosting scheme Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP) for export-oriented units (EOUs) and special economic zones (SEZs) till September-end.
About RoDTEP Scheme:
This scheme was introduced through an amendment to the Foreign Trade Policy 2015-20, and it became effective for exports starting January 1, 2021.
The primary aim of this scheme is to offset the taxes and duties incurred on exported goods that wouldn’t otherwise be credited, reimbursed, or refunded in any way and are integrated into the exported goods.
It was enforced to repeal and reduce taxes for exported products, thereby encouraging the conditions of exports and increasing the amount of exports in the country.
The scheme will be administered by the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
It is a WTO-compliant scheme and follows the global principle that taxes/duties should not be exported.
RoDTEP replaced the Merchandise Export Incentive Schemes (MIES), in response to the US challenging the Indian export subsidies under the MEIS at the WTO.
When the WTO dispute panel ruled against India, RoDTEP was framed to ensure that India remains WTO-compliant, while also supporting low-volume exports of commodities from India.
Tax reimbursement under RODTEP:
The Scheme provides a mechanism for reimbursement of taxes, duties, and levies, which are currently not being refunded under any other mechanism at the central, state, and local levels but which are incurred by the export entities in the process of manufacture and distribution of exported products.
This does not only include the direct cost incurred by the exporter but also the prior stage cumulative indirect taxes on goods.
Eligibility:
It is applicable to all the sectors involved in the export of goods irrespective of their turnover, provided the country of manufacturing of the exported goods should be in India.
Such an exporter may either be the merchant or manufacturer exporter. However, such goods should have been directly exported by such a person.
Labor-intensive sectors that enjoy benefits under the MEIS Scheme will be given a priority.
Special Economic Zone Units and Export-Oriented Units are also eligible to claim the benefits under this scheme.
Goods exported through e-commerce platforms are also eligible under this scheme.
Re-exported products are not eligible under this scheme.
Process of Refund:
Rebate under the scheme is provided to eligible exporters as a percentage of the freight on board (FOB) value of exports.
Remission is issued in the form of transferable e-scrips (a type of certificate with some monetary value) maintained in an electronic credit ledger by the CBIC (Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs).
e-scrips can be used for paying basic customs duty on the import of goods or may be transferred electronically to another party.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.business-standard.com/economy/news/industry-seeks-extension-of-rodtep-scheme-for-sezs-export-oriented-units-125010600992_1.html
UN World Economic Situation and Prospects, recently in news, is published by:
United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs
Explanation :
According to the United Nations (UN) flagship report, World Economic Situation and Prospects 2025 Indian economy is expected to grow by 6.6 per cent in 2025 and 6.7 per cent in 2026.
It was produced by the United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UN DESA), in partnership with UN Trade and Development (UNCTAD) and the five UN regional commissions.
Key points about the report
It projects that global growth will remain at 2.8 per cent in 2025, unchanged from 2024.
The report highlighted that capital expenditure on infrastructure development is expected to have strong multiplier effects on growth in the coming years.
Expansion in the manufacturing and services sectors will continue to drive the economy, while strong export growth in services and certain goods categories, such as pharmaceutical and electronics, will bolster economic activity,
It also noted that favourable monsoon rains in 2024 have improved summer-sowing areas for all major crops, boosting agricultural output expectations for 2025.
The UN report said that economic growth in South Asia is expected to remain robust in 2025, primarily driven by strong performance in India. The region is projected to grow at 5.7 per cent in 2025 and 6 per cent in 2026.
It also highlighted the opportunity for resource-rich developing countries, such as India, to boost growth, create jobs, and increase public revenues for investment through rising demand for critical minerals.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/economy/news/india-s-economy-likely-to-grow-6-6-in-2025-6-7-in-2026-un-report-125010900910_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding Surface-Enhanced Raman Spectroscopy:
- It is a surface-sensitive technique that enhances Raman scattering by molecules adsorbed on rough metal surfaces.
- It is used for material and life sciences because of its intrinsic features.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, researchers have developed an efficient nano catalyst which can be used in in environmental remediation, nanoscale electronics, and surface-enhanced Raman spectroscopy (SERS).
Surface-enhanced Raman spectroscopy or surface-enhanced Raman scattering (SERS) is a surface-sensitive technique that enhances Raman scattering by molecules adsorbed on rough metal surfaces.
It enhances the Raman scattering signals of molecules close to nanostructured metallic surfaces, typically gold or silver.
It provides the same information that normal Raman spectroscopy does, but with a greatly enhanced signal.
Applications: It has become a powerful tool in chemical, material and life sciences, owing to its intrinsic features.
What is Raman spectroscopy?
It is a spectroscopic technique used in condensed matter physics and chemistry to study vibrational, rotational, and other low-frequency modes in a system.
It depends on the inelastic scattering, or Raman scattering of monochromatic light, usually from a laser in the visible, near-infrared or near-ultraviolet range of electromagnetic spectra.
Raman scattering or Raman effect is the inelastic scattering of photons from an atom or a molecule.
This effect was discovered by the famous Indian physicist C V Raman in the year 1928.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2091533
With reference to Hollongapar Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary, consider the following:
- It is located in the state of Assam.
- It is home to Northeastern India’s only nocturnal primate–the Bengal slow loris.
- It is drained by the river Brahmaputra.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL), chaired by Union Environment Minister has approved a proposal to carry out oil and gas exploration in the eco-sensitive zone of the Hollongapar Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary in Assam’s Jorhat district.
Location: It is located in the Jorhat district of Assam, India.
It is the only sanctuary in India named after a gibbon due to its distinction for containing the densest gibbon populations in Assam.
It is situated at an altitude between 100 and 120 m (330 and 390 ft), the topography gently slopes downward from southeast to northwest.
River: The Bhogdoi River creates a waterlogged region dominated by semi-hydrophytic plants along the border of the sanctuary. It is not drained by the River Brahmaputra.
Flora:
The upper canopy of the forest is dominated by the Hollong tree, while the Nahar dominates the middle canopy.
The lower canopy consists of evergreen shrubs and herbs.
Fauna:
It contains India’s only gibbons–the hoolock gibbons, and Northeastern India’s only nocturnal primate–the Bengal slow loris.
Also found at the sanctuary are Indian elephants, tigers, leopards, jungle cats, wild boar, three types of civet, four types of squirrels, stump-tailed macaque, northern pig-tailed macaque, etc.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/assam/centres-wildlife-panel-clears-oil-and-gas-exploratory-drilling-in-assam-sanctuary/article69093364.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the National Programme for Organic Production:
- It laid the foundation for systematic development of organic agriculture sector in India.
- It is implemented by the Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Commerce and Industry Minister released the eighth edition of National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP).
It was launched during 2001 laid the foundation for systematic development of organic agriculture sector in the country.
It is a key government programme that strengthens India’s organic certification system, promoting sustainable farming practices and opening new opportunities for farmers and exporters.
By setting high standards for organic products, NPOP enhances India’s competitiveness in the global organic market, while helping farmers adopt eco-friendly and economically viable practices.
The programme involves the accreditation of Certification Bodies, standards for organic production, promotion of organic farming and marketing etc.
Implementing agency: The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA), Ministry of Commerce & Industries, Government of India is implementing this programme.
Highlights of the 8th Edition of NPOP
It introduced key amendments aimed at promoting ease of operations and enhancing transparency for stakeholders, including farmers.
Certification requirements for organic grower groups have been simplified, and these groups are now granted legal status in place of the Internal Control System (ICS).
Many portals launched in this edition namely
NPOP portal: The dedicated portal for the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) will provide more visibility and ease of operations for Organic stakeholders.
Organic Promotion Portal: Farmers, FPOs and exporters can showcase their certified organic products, generate Trade Leads and connect with global buyers. This will also include online Training and capacity building sessions for operators on Organic production and also information on Organic Trade events.
TraceNet 2.0: The upgraded online Organic traceability system for seamless operations and enhanced tools for regulatory oversight.
APEDA portal: Redesigned and revamped APEDA portal with enhanced user experience and information for the benefit of Agri and Processed food products’ stakeholders.
AgriXchange portal: Redesigned and revamped AgriXchange portal enables more user-friendly data analysis and generation of reports & data of Agricultural exports making it accessible for the general public.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/industry/agriculture/we-aim-to-boost-organic-product-exports-to-rs-20-000-cr-in-3-years-goyal-125010900815_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the fire retardant:
- It is a mix of chemicals used to slow down the spread of fires.
- It contains toxic metals like chromium and cadmium which affects aquatic life.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
As multiple wildfires continue to torch Southern California, authorities are using planes to drop a large amount of bright pink fire retardant to curb the blaze.
Fire retardant is a mix of chemicals used to extinguish or slow down the spread of fires.
There are different types of fire retardant but to tackle wildfires in the US, authorities most commonly use Phos-Chek — a brand of fire retardant — which mostly contains an ammonium phosphate-based slurry.
Typically, it is made of salts such as ammonium polyphosphate, which does not evaporate easily like water and stays for longer.
Colour is usually added to the fire retardant to ensure that firefighters can see it against the landscape.
This helps them create fire lines around the fire retardant, potentially saving lives and property.
What are the concerns?
Environmental experts have said that spraying fire retardant using planes is ineffective, expensive and a growing source of pollution for rivers and streams.
Phos-Chek “is laden with toxic metals, and estimates retardant use has released 850,000 pounds of these chemicals into the environment since 2009.
These toxic metals include chromium and cadmium which can cause cancer, and kidney and liver diseases in humans and these toxic metals can kill aquatic life.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/pink-fire-retardant-california-wildfires-9773560/
The Makaravilakku festival, recently seen in the news, is celebrated in which Indian state?
Kerala
Explanation :
Sabarimala is fully prepared for the Makaravilakku festival, with 5,000 police deployed and enhanced security measures.
About Makaravilakku:
It is a significant annual festival celebrated at the Sabarimala temple in Kerala.
It takes place on the day of Makara Sankranti.
The festival marks the culmination of the annual pilgrimage season to the temple.
On Makaravilakku day, the sacred Thiruvabharanam, the royal ornaments of Lord Ayyappa are brought to the temple from the Pandalam Palace.
The highlight of the Makaravilakku festival is the sighting of a celestial light, known as the “Makarajyothi” or “Makaravilakku.”
According to popular belief, the light is a divine manifestation of Lord Ayyappa himself.
It is said to appear on the horizon of the Ponnambalamedu hill, located near the Sabarimala Temple.
However, there is nothing supernatural in the Makaravilakku.
Previously it was a ritual which the Malayaraya tribe performed at the temple in Ponnambalamedu.
However, now the Travancore Devaswom Board is in charge and the age-old religious rituals continue to be performed.
At the temple in Ponnambalamedu, a ritualistic Aarti is performed, and the Makara Vilakku is the light emitted from the camphor lit during the Aarti, seen thrice from Sabarimala.
The Makaravilakku festival extends beyond the actual day of Makara Sankranti.
The festival lasts for seven days and ends with the ritual known as ‘Guruthi “ an offering conducted to propitiate the gods and goddesses of wilderness.
No one remains in the temple premises after the performance of Guruthi.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/india/kerala/story/makaravilakku-2025-at-sabarimala-5000-personnel-deployed-kerala-police-chief-sheikh-darvesh-sahib-reviews-security-preparations-2663992-2025-01-13
Where is Diego Garcia located?
Indian Ocean
Explanation :
As many as 15 fishermen from Tamil Nadu were reportedly detained near the Diego Garcia island — a part of the British Indian Ocean Territory (BIOT) —for allegedly crossing the maritime boundary recently.
About Diego Garcia:
It is a coral atoll, the largest and southernmost member of the Chagos Archipelago, in the central Indian Ocean.
It is part of the British Indian Ocean Territory (BIOT) and accounts for more than half the land area.
Occupying an area of 44 sq.km, it consists of a V-shaped, sand-fringed cay about 24 km in length with a maximum width of about 11 km; its lagoon is open at the north end.
Discovered by the Portuguese in the early 16th century, it was for most of its history a dependency of Mauritius.
In 1965 it was separated from Mauritius as part of the newly created BIOT.
In 1966, the UK leased Diego Garcia to the US to create an air and naval base. For constructing the defence installation, the inhabitants of the island were forcibly removed.
Diego Garcia is the United States’ major geostrategic and logistics support base in the Indian Ocean.
In 2019, the International Court of Justice ruled in an advisory opinion that Britain’s decolonization of Mauritius was not lawful because of continued Chagossian claims.
A non-binding 2019 UN General Assembly vote demanded that Britain end its “colonial administration” of the Chagos Archipelago and that it be returned to Mauritius.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/15-indian-fishermen-detained-near-diego-garcia-island/article69095083.ece
With reference to Clouded Leopards, consider the following statements:
- They are wild cats inhabiting dense forests of the Himalayas through mainland Southeast Asia into South China.
- They are one of the only cats in the world that can climb down, hang upside down from, and hunt in trees.
- They are classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A new study addresses critical gaps in understanding the Clouded Leopard habitat suitability, fragmentation, and connectivity across its historical and current ranges, offering a conservation roadmap.
About Clouded Leopard:
It is a wild cat inhabiting dense forests of the Himalayas through mainland Southeast Asia into South China.
There are two species of clouded leopards: the clouded leopard (Neofelis nebulosa), found on the mainland of southeastern Asia, and the Sunda clouded leopard (Neofelis diardi), found on the islands of Sumatra and Borneo.
They are one of the most ancient cat species. However, they are neither a true great cat nor a true small cat, because they cannot roar or purr.
Habitat and Distribution:
It is found from Nepal, Bangladesh, and India through Indochina to Sumatra and Borneo, and northeastward to southern China and formerly Taiwan.
They prefer to live in lowland tropical rainforests. However, they can also be found in dry woodlands and secondary forests, and in Borneo, they are reported to live in mangrove swamps.
It has been found at relatively high altitudes in the Himalayas.
In India, it is found in Sikkim, northern West Bengal, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram, Manipur, Assam, Nagaland, and Arunachal Pradesh.
It is the state animal of Meghalaya.
Features:
It is a medium-sized cat, 60 to 110 cm long and weighing between 11 and 20 kg.
It is named after the distinctive ‘clouds’ on its coat - ellipses partially edged in black, with the insides a darker colour than the background colour of the pelt.
The base of the fur is a pale yellow to rich brown, making the darker cloud-like markings look even more distinctive.
It has an exceptionally long tail for balancing, which can be as long as the body itself, thick with black ring markings.
It has a stocky build and, proportionately, the longest canine teeth of any living feline.
It has relatively short legs and broad paws, which make it excellent at climbing trees and creeping through thick forest.
They are one of the only cats in the world that can climb down, hang upside down from, and hunt in trees.
It is a solitary animal.
Lifespan: 12 to 15 years
Conservation status: Both the species are classified as ‘Vulnerable’ under the IUCN Red List.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://india.mongabay.com/2025/01/new-study-proposes-roadmap-to-conserve-the-clouded-leopard/
What is the primary objective of Mission Mausam?
To boost India’s weather- and climate-related science and services.
Explanation :
Prime Minister will launch ‘Mission Mausam’ during the 150th foundation day celebration of the India Meteorological Department.
About Mission Mausam:
It aims to boost India’s weather- and climate-related science, research, and services and make India a ‘Weather-ready and Climate-smart’ nation.
The ambitious programme, with an outlay of Rs 2,000 crore over two years, will chiefly be implemented by the India Meteorological Department, the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology, and the National Centre for Medium-Range Weather Forecasting.
It will enhance forecasting accuracy, provide near real-time local weather forecasts and research the development of weather management technologies.
The mission aims to achieve this by developing cutting-edge weather surveillance technologies and systems, implementing high-resolution atmospheric observations, next-generation radars and satellites, and high-performance computers.
By leveraging these technologies, the program aims to refine data collection and analysis to improve the spatial and temporal accuracy of forecasting and to help address the challenges posed by climate change.
It will also focus on improving the understanding of weather and climate processes, and provide air quality data that will help strategise weather management and intervention in the long run.
It will help to better equip stakeholders, including citizens and last-mile users, in tackling extreme weather events and the impacts of climate change.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/on-imds-150th-anniv-pm-modi-to-launch-mission-mausam-today/articleshow/117215059.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Small Language Models (SLMs):
- They are AI models designed to process and generate human language.
- They are specialized in specific tasks and built with curated, selective data sources.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Big Tech firms that announced large language AI models also released Small Language Models subsequently.
About Small Language Models (SLMs):
SLMs represent a specialized subset within the broader domain of artificial intelligence, specifically tailored for Natural Language Processing (NLP).
SLMs are AI models designed to process and generate human language.
They’re called “small” because they have a relatively small number of parameters compared to large language models (LLMs) like GPT-3.
SLM is a type of foundation model trained on a smaller dataset compared to LLMs.
SLMs are characterized by their compact architecture and less computational power.
This makes them lighter, more efficient, and more convenient for apps that don’t have a ton of computing power or memory.
SLMs are engineered to efficiently perform specific language tasks, with a degree of efficiency and specificity that distinguishes them from their LLM counterparts.
They are specialized in specific tasks and built with curated, selective data sources.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/what-are-small-language-models-and-are-they-better-than-llms/article69080186.ece
Combat Air Teaming System, recently in news, is developed by:
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
Explanation :
Recently, the Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) achieved a significant milestone in its flagship Combat Air Teaming System (CATS) programme with the successful completion of the engine ground run of a full-scale demonstrator, CATS-Warrior loyal wingman.
It represents a leap in unmanned and manned combat aircraft systems.
The primary goal is to create advanced aerial platforms that can serve as atmospheric satellites for high-altitude surveillance and conduct autonomous deep-penetration precision strikes from standoff distances, all while minimising risk to life.
The programme’s long-term goals include deep-strike precision, improved battlefield awareness, and secure communications for enhanced operational efficiency.
To achieve these capabilities, HAL’s CATS programme comprises multiple platforms, each tailored for specific roles in combat operations:
CATS-Warrior: A stealth UCAV designed to accompany manned fighter jets on missions as a loyal wingman platform. It can carry Smart Anti-Airfield Weapons (SAAWs) and Next-Generation Close Combat Missiles (NG CCMs) in internal weapon bays to enhance its strike and self-defence capabilities. These drones reportedly possess stealth features, making them difficult for enemy radars and air defence systems to detect. The Warrior drone can execute strikes after penetrating nearly 700 km into enemy territory.
CATS-Hunter: Likely to be an air-launched low-observable cruise missile capable of precision strikes deep inside enemy territory. HAL has reportedly indicated that this system will play a role similar to the SCALP missile integrated with the IAF’s Rafale jets.
ALFA-S Swarm Drones: Released from a carrier pod mounted on the mothership, these swarm drones can perform air-to-ground and air-to-air missions, including neutralising enemy air defence systems. A Tejas aircraft can potentially carry three pods (12 drones), while a Su-30MKI can carry up to four pods (16 drones).
CATS-Infinity Pseudo Satellite: The Infinity is an ultra-high-altitude, solar-powered pseudo satellite designed to operate at an altitude of approximately 70,000 feet. With an endurance of 90 days, it bridges the surveillance gap between satellites and UAVs. Equipped with advanced sensors and synthetic aperture radar, its primary role within the HAL CATS programme is to track targets in enemy territory and coordinate missions involving the CATS Warrior. The pseudo satellite can also support 4G and 5G services, strengthening military communication systems.
The system envisages the Tejas Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) as the “mothership” controlling a network of autonomous platforms, including the CATS-Warrior, which is a low-observable unmanned combat aerial vehicle (UCAV).
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/external-affairs-defence-security/news/cats-warrior-hal-completes-key-test-of-loyal-wingman-for-deep-strike-ops-125011300631_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Bharat Cleantech Manufacturing Platform:
- It is an initiative designed to enhance India’s cleantech value chains only in the solar sector.
- It provides an opportunity for the Indian firms to collaborate to share ideas, technologies and resources.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the union Minister of Commerce & Industry unveiled the Bharat Cleantech Manufacturing Platform.
It is an initiative designed to enhance India’s cleantech value chains in the solar, wind, hydrogen, and battery storage sectors.
It will provide an opportunity for the Indian firms to collaborate, to co-innovate and will help provide a platform for financing, to share ideas, technologies and resources.
Significance: This will help India become an attractive business case and a global leader in the sustainability and cleantech sector.
India’s Clean Energy targets
Target: 500 Gigawatt of clean energy sources by 2030 in the country.
India has been one of the best performing countries in terms of meeting the Nationally Determined Contributions (NCDs) submitted in 2015 to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) and the Paris Agreement.
India has achieved the target of installing renewable or clean energy by 2022, 8 years ahead of schedule.
India has the largest interconnected grid in the world.
Gujarat was one of the first states to adopt solar power.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2092017
With reference to Ranthambhore Tiger Reserve, consider the following:
- It is located at the junction of Aravalis and Vindhyan ranges.
- It is surrounded by Rivers Chambal in the North and the Banas River in the South.
- Its vegetation consists of tropical dry deciduous forests.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The flagship river-link irrigation project, which will provide a lifeline to 23 districts in Rajasthan, envisages the submergence of 37 sq km in the Ranthambhore tiger reserve(RTR) effectively cutting it into two sections.
It is located at the junction (great boundary fault) of Aravalis and Vindhyan ranges in the state of Rajasthan.
It was once a royal hunting ground for the Maharajas of Jaipur.
It is one of the largest tiger reserves in northern India. It is one of the best places in the country to monitor the tiger because of climatic and vegetational features.
Rivers: The Rivers Chambal in the South and the Banas River in the North bound the tiger reserve.
Other structure like Ranthambore Fort, a World Heritage Site, is located within RTR.
Vegetation: Northern Tropical Dry Deciduous forests and Dry deciduous scrub,
Flora: Pure sands of Dhok tree (Anogeissus pendula) interspersed with grasslands at the plateaus, and other species like Acacia, Capparis, Zizyphus and Prosopis species etc are found here.
Fauna: It consists of leopard, caracal, jungle cat, sambar, chital, chinkara and wild boar.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/rajasthan-river-link-lifeline-could-submerge-37-sq-km-in-tiger-reserve-9777266/
Consider the following statements regarding Nag Mk 2 Missile:
- It is a third-generation Anti-Tank Fire-and-Forget Guided Missile.
- It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Raksha Mantri has congratulated DRDO on successful Field Evaluation Trials of Nag Mk 2 missile.
It is an indigenously-developed third-generation Anti-Tank Fire-and-Forget Guided Missile.
Features
Third-Generation Fire-and-Forget Technology: Enables precision targeting with minimal operator intervention post-launch.
Versatile Performance: Capable of neutralising modern armoured vehicles equipped with explosive reactive armour (ERA).
Platform Compatibility: Successfully integrated with NAMICA, enhancing battlefield mobility and deployment flexibility.
During the three field trials, the missile systems destroyed precisely all the targets - maximum and minimum range, thus validating its firing range.
Field Evaluation Trials of this missile were successfully conducted recently at Pokhran Field Range.
The Nag Missile Carrier version-2 was also field evaluated. With this, the entire weapon system is now ready for induction into the Indian Army.
It is developed by the DRDO.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2092585
Consider the following statements regarding Amrit Bharat 2.0 Train:
- These trains consist of IoT based water level indicators to help watering station and on-board staff.
- These are provided with basic lighting during emergency situations like derailments and accidents.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Railway Minister announced that the Railway Ministry has introduced 12 significant improvements to the Amrit Bharat Version 2.0 trains.
Objective: The new trains are designed to cater to low and middle-income families, offering a comfortable experience.
Under this initiative 50 upgraded trains will be manufactured at the Integral Coach Factory (ICF) over the next 2 years.
Key Features
The upgraded trains boast 12 notable enhancements
Semi-automatic couplers
Modular toilets
Ergonomic seats and berths
Emergency talk-back systems
Continuous lighting system, similar to Vande Bharat trains
Advanced pantry car designs
IoT based water level indicators – Internet based water level indicators to help watering station and on-board staff.
External emergency lights to provide basic lighting during emergency situations like derailments and accidents.
The Amrit Bharat train is an LHB push pull train. This train has locos at both ends for better acceleration.
It provides improved facilities for rail passengers like beautiful and attractive designed seats, better luggage rack, mobile charging point with suitable mobile holder, LED lights, CCTV, public information system, among others.
Its first version was launched in 2024.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/railways-amrit-bharat-2-0-indian-railways-to-roll-out-50-new-trains-in-next-two-years-with-12-key-upgrades-3712377/
Shikari Devi Wildlife Sanctuary, recently seen in the news, lies in which state?
Himachal Pradesh
Explanation :
The Government of India has designated areas around Shikari Devi Wildlife Sanctuary, located in Mandi district, as eco-sensitive zones (ESZs) to reduce the impact of urbanisation and developmental activities on the surrounding protected areas.
About Shikari Devi Wildlife Sanctuary:
Nestling in the foothills of the Himalayas, it is located in the district of Mandi in Himachal Pradesh.
It covers the middle altitudinal range from 1,800 to 3,400 m of the Himalayas, showing the transition from pine through oak to alpine meadow.
This high-altitude sanctuary is named after the goddess Shikari Devi, to whom a temple is dedicated and the place is considered sacred by Hindus.
The temple is positioned in the middle of snow-capped mountains and dense pine trees at an elevation of 2850 m above sea level.
An area of 7,200 ha surrounding the temple was declared a sanctuary in 1962.
Flora:Owing to great variation in altitude, the sanctuary has seven forest types, according to the classification by Champion and Seth (1968): Alpine Pasture, Sub-alpine Forest, Moist Temperate Deciduous Forest, West Himalayan Upper Oak/Fir Forest, Kharsu Oak Forest, Western Mixed Coniferous Forest, and Ban Oak Forest.
Fauna:
It is home to different species of animals and birds, including the goral, monal, black bear, barking deer, musk deer, cat leopard, and the Himalayan black bear.
We can also see the Himalayan palm civet, barking deer, marten, Indian porcupine, Kashmiri flying squirrel, musk deer, common langur, leopard, common squirrel and snow leopard inhabiting the sanctuary.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.tribuneindia.com/news/himachal/43-villages-designated-as-eco-sensitive-zones-near-wildlife-sanctuary-in-himachals-mandi/
With reference to Zombie Deer Disease (ZDD), recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:
- It is a progressive neurological disease caused by a virus.
- It is always fatal in infected animals.
- There has been no confirmed case of ZDD transmission to humans.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Scientists express concern over the possibility of the deadly and incurable ‘zombie deer’ disease affecting humans.
About Zombie Deer Disease:
Known scientifically as Chronic Wasting Disease (CWD), it is a progressive and fatal neurological disease which primarily affects deer, elk, moose, and reindeer.
What causes CWD?
CWD is caused by infectious proteins called prions.
Prions are unique in that they don’t contain DNA or RNA, unlike bacteria or viruses.
Instead, they are misfolded proteins that cause other proteins in the brain to likewise misfold, ultimately leading to brain damage.
Once these proteins accumulate in the brain, they create spongy holes in the tissue, resulting in severe neurological dysfunction.
Transmission:
CWD prions are highly contagious and spread through body fluids such as saliva, feces, blood, or urine, either by direct contact or environmental contamination.
Once present in an area, prions remain infectious in soil, water, and plants for years, posing long-term risks to animal populations.
Symptoms:
It has an extended incubation period averaging 18–24 months between infection and the onset of noticeable signs. During this time frame, animals look and act normal.
The most obvious sign of CWD is progressive weight loss.
Numerous behavioral changes also been reported, including decreased social interaction, loss of awareness, and loss of fear of humans.
Diseased animals also may exhibit increased drinking, urination, and excessive salivation.
Treatment: It is always fatal in infected animals. There is no vaccine or treatment.
Can Humans Get CWD?
So far, there has been no confirmed case of CWD transmission to humans. However, experts remain cautious.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/life-style/health-fitness/health-news/deadly-zombie-deer-disease-could-evolve-to-affect-humans-warn-scientists/articleshow/117241816.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the National Bureau of Fish Genetic Resources (NBFGR):
- It was established under the aegis of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) to undertake research related to the conservation of fish germplasm resources of the country.
- It is located in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Around 100 tribal persons of Pulicat region will undergo intense training in pearl spot culture, crab fattening clownfish aquaculture being organised by the National Bureau of Fish Genetic Resources.
About National Bureau of Fish Genetic Resources (NBFGR):
It was established in December 1983 in Allahabad under the aegis of Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) to undertake research related to the conservation of fish germplasm resources of the country.
The Bureau’s permanent infrastructure was developed at Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh in 1999.
The Institute’s vision is assessment and conservation of fish genetic resources for intellectual property protection, sustainable utilization and posterity.
They work to identify, document, and conserve the genetic diversity of fish species, which is important for maintaining healthy and sustainable fish populations.
The Bureau has developed modern facilities, multidimensional strategies and technological capabilities to achieve its mandate related to database development,genotyping, registration of aquatic germplasm, genebanking and evaluation of endangered and exotic fish species.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/pulicats-tribal-women-undergo-training-in-aquaculture/article69096184.ece
Which among the following best describes ‘Bhargavastra’, recently seen in the news?
It is a micro-missile system.
Explanation :
India has successfully tested the Bhargavastra, its first micro-missile system designed to counter swarm drones.
About Bhargavastra:
It is India’s first indigenous micro-missile system designed to take on the threat of swarm drones.
It was developed by the Economic Explosives Ltd.
It can quickly deploy on a mobile platform and hit targets over 2.5 km.
It is capable of detecting even small incoming flying machines at over 6 km and can take them down using micro munitions that can be guided towards the threat.
The system can simultaneously fire more than 64 micro missiles.
It is designed to operate in all terrains, including high-altitude areas, to meet specific requirements of the armed forces.
Designed to meet the requirements of the Army Air Defence, this is the first counter-drone system that uses micro missiles.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/bhargavastra-micro-missiles-ready-to-fire/articleshow/117245312.cms?from=mdr
In which Indian state is the Pavana river located?
Maharashtra
Explanation :
The National Green Tribunal recently directed the state-appointed rejuvenation committee to convene a meeting of stakeholders to set a new timeline for implementing the action plan that would tackle pollution in the Pavana river.
About Pavana River:
It is situated in the west of Maharashtra state, in the Pune District.
The river is a notable river crossing Pune city and divides Pune City and the Pimpri-Chinchwad area.
Course:
Origin: It originates from the Western Ghats, about 6 km south of Lonavala.
Flowing eastward initially, it becomes southbound and passes through the suburbs of Dehu, Chinchwad, Pimpri, and Dapodi before its confluence with the Mula River near Pune city.
Mula River, which later merges with the Mutha River, forming the Mula-Mutha River, ultimately drains into the Bhima River (largest tributary of the Krishna River).
Total Length: Approximately 60 km long.
A dam is built on this river at Pavana Nagar, called the “Pavana Nagar Dam”.
It is an earthfill gravity dam.
It is 1,329 m (4,360 ft) long and 42.37 m (139.0 ft) high, with a gross storage capacity of 30,500.00 km3.
It is built with the purpose of providing sufficient water to the nearby localities.
It provides drinking water to Pune and Pimpri-Chinchwad.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/pune/ngt-directs-committee-to-set-new-timeline-for-pavana-rejuvenation/articleshow/117246003.cms
Purulia observatory, recently in news, is located in:
West Bengal
Explanation :
A new observatory set up by the S N Bose Centre for Basic Sciences (SNBCBS), an autonomous institute of the Department of Science and Technology in Purulia district of West Bengal.
Location: It is located on the Panchet Hill.
It is equipped with a 14-inch diameter telescope for scientific observations.
The observatory is at a height of 600 meters above ground level and at longitude of approximately 86° E.
It will be a major observatory not only in eastern India, but also in the world.
Along the 86 degrees East longitude stretching from the Arctic Ocean in the north to Antarctica in the south, there are very few observatories. This observatory will fill that gap.
It will help in scientific observations of astronomical objects, training students in handling telescopes and recording data.
Other Observatories in India: ARIES Observatory, Nainital, (Uttarakhand), Vainu Bappu Observatory, Kavalur (Tamil Nadu) and Indian Astronomical Observatory (IAO), Hanle, Ladakh etc.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2092417
Consider the following statements regarding the Telecom Technology Development Fund:
- It is set up under Universal Services Obligation Fund (USOF) of Department of Telecom (DOT), Government of India.
- It is only used by the startups in India with a focus on telecom research and development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT) has signed an agreement with the Indian Institute of Technology Delhi (IIT Delhi) for the development of “Building Blocks for THz Communication Front Ends”for 6G under the Telecom Technology Development Fund (TTDF).
It has been setup under Universal Services Obligation Fund (USOF) of Department of Telecom (DOT), Government of India.
It aims to promote the ecosystem for research, design, prototyping, proof of concept testing, IPR creation, field testing, security, certification and manufacturing of products etc. in telecommunication field.
Aims
To fund R&D in rural-specific communication technology applications and form synergies among academia, start-ups, research institutes, and the industry to build and develop the telecom ecosystem.
To promote technology ownership and indigenous manufacturing, create a culture of technology co-innovation, reduce imports, boost export opportunities and creation of Intellectual Property.
The following Indian entities are only eligible for support from this fund.
Domestic Company(ies) with focus on telecom R&D, Use case development
Startups / MSMEs, Academic institutions
R&D institutions, Section 8 companies / Societies, Central & State government entities / PSUs /Autonomous Bodies/SPVs / Limited liability partnerships- with a focus on telecom research and development.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2092929
With reference to Falcated Duck, consider the following:
- It is endemic to Western Himalayan region of India.
- It visits Siberia and Mongolia during every winter season.
- It categorized as near threatened species under the IUCN Red List.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Recently, birders at the Sultanpur National Park in Gurugram, Haryana experienced this delight as they spotted a Falcated Duck.
It is also known as falcated teal (Mareca falcata ) is a gadwall-sized dabbling duck.
Distribution: It is from eastern Siberia and Mongolia to northern Japan with wintering grounds in southeast Asia to eastern India. There have also been sightings of falcated teals in America, Poland and Thailand.
Habitat: They are normally found in freshwater lakes, ponds, rivers and marshes that are surrounded by forest.
The breeding season of this species is from May to early July. They make their nests on the ground near water, usually in tall grass or brush.
They are mostly herbivorous, and eat vegetable matter, seeds, rice and aquatic plants. Occasionally they also consume small invertebrates and soft shelled mollusks.
The sightings of the Falcated Ducks in India are irregular and can be termed as ‘rare’.
Threats: A primary threat to the falcated duck is hunting, as people want them for food and their feathers.
Conservation Status
IUCN: Near Threatened
Hence only 1 statement is correct.
News: https://theprint.in/india/delhi-has-rare-winter-guests-this-year-birds-like-baikal-teal-falcated-duck-sighted-after-a-decade/2442591/
Consider the following statements regarding Sada region:
- It is a flat top plateau region formed as a result of centuries of erosion.
- It is located in the Konkan region of Maharashatra.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The land-use patterns of this Sada region are changing and some of the croplands are increasingly being converted to orchards or residential areas
It is a flat top formed as a result of centuries of erosion, locally called sada, meaning a large flat area.
It is located in the Konkan region of Maharashatra.
They are similar to the plateaux, locally called pathar, in the Satara district of Maharashtra, Kaas Plateau is a well-known example.
Characteristics
The sada are barren most of the year but become transformed during the monsoons.
They are rocky and harbour unique endemic flora that cover it in the monsoon season.
As it consists of highly weathered lateritic soil layer on the top which acts as a catchment for the rainwater and recharges the groundwater.
Biodiversity: This landscape consists of 459 plant species, of which 105 are endemic to the Konkan region. It also recorded 31 species of reptiles, 13 species of amphibians, 169 species of birds, and 41 species of mammals in the region.
The area is also host to works of art called geoglyphs, dated to roughly 10,000 years ago.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/a-konkan-secret-the-sada-needs-more-light/article69083592.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the National Turmeric Board:
- It is mandated to enhance logistics and supply chains, and explore new international markets for turmeric.
- Its chairperson is appointed by the Central Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the union Minister for Commerce and Industry inaugurated the National Turmeric Board in New Delhi.
It will provide leadership on turmeric related matters, augment the efforts, and facilitate greater coordination with Spices Board and other Government agencies in development and growth of the turmeric sector.
Composition of Board
A Chairperson to be appointed by the Central Government.
A Secretary to be appointed by the Department of Commerce.
Members from the Ministry of AYUSH, Departments of Pharmaceuticals, Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, Commerce & Industry of the Union Government.
Representatives from the top two turmeric growing states of Maharashtra and Telangana and from the state of Meghalaya. States will be represented on the Board by rotation.
Select national/state institutions involved in research, representatives of turmeric farmers and exporters.
Mandate
The Board will focus on key areas such as research and development, value addition to turmeric products, and promoting awareness of the spice’s medicinal and essential properties.
It will also work on improving turmeric yield, enhancing logistics and supply chains, and exploring new international markets for turmeric.
Ensuring quality and safety standards for turmeric production and exports will also be a critical aspect of the Board’s mandate.
Headquarter: Nizamabad, Telangana
Status of Turmeric in India
Turmeric is often referred to as the “Golden Spice,” holds immense economic potential for Indian farmers, particularly those in 20 states including Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Madhya Pradesh, and Meghalaya.
The largest producing states of Turmeric are Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
The leading export markets for Indian Turmeric are Bangladesh, UAE, USA and Malaysia.
India is responsible for over 70% of the world’s turmeric production, with 30 varieties of turmeric being grown in the country.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2092719
Consider the following statements regarding the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC):
- The ex-officio chairman of the AEC is the Prime Minister of India.
- Its headquarters is located in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The government recently re-constituted the Atomic Energy Commission.
About Atomic Energy Commission (AEC):
It is the governing body of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), Government of India.
AEC was first set up in August 1948 in the Department of Scientific Research, which was created a few months earlier in June 1948.
The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) was set up on August 3, 1954, under the direct charge of the Prime Minister through a Presidential Order.
As per this order, all businesses of the Government of India related to atomic energy and to the functions of the Central Government under the Atomic Energy Act, 1948, were directed to be transacted in the DAE.
DAE encompasses all the areas related to power and non-power applications of atomic energy.
The Department has the mandate of development of nuclear power technology which includes exploration, identification and processing of uranium resources and atomic minerals, fabrication of nuclear fuel, production of heavy water, construction and operation of nuclear power plants, nuclear fuel reprocessing and waste management.
DAE is also responsible for research and development of fast reactors and fusion technologies, accelerator and laser technology, advanced electronics and instrumentation, materials science, biological sciences, etc.
As part of non-power applications of atomic energy, the Department carries out cutting-edge research and development for the application of isotopes and radiation technologies for health care, food & agriculture, industry, and the environment.
Subsequently, in accordance with a government resolution dated March 1, 1958, the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) was established in the DAE.
The AEC is responsible for formulating the policy of the DAE.
The secretary to the government of India in the DAE is ex-officio chairman of the AEC.
The other members of the AEC are appointed for each calendar year on the recommendation of the AEC chairman and after approval by the Prime Minister.
Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/centre-reconstitutes-atomic-energy-commission/articleshow/117211229.cms?from=mdr
With reference to Blood Money, consider the following statements:
- The primary purpose of Blood Money is to exempt the perpetrator from any legal punishment.
- It is practised predominantly in cases involving unintentional murder and culpable homicide.
- Provisions for the grant or receiving of ‘blood money’ do not find a place in India’s formal legal system.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The death sentence awarded by a Yemen court to a nurse from Kerala, and the subsequent debates and efforts surrounding her acquittal and repatriation, which involves monetary compensation paid to the victim’s family, have brought the focus back on ‘blood money’ and its implications.
About Blood Money:
Blood money’, or ‘diya’, finds footing in the Islamic Sharia law and is followed in countries that incorporate these laws in their legislation.
Under the rule of ‘diya’, a select quantity of a valuable asset, primarily monetary, has to be paid by the perpetrator of the crime to the victim or the victim’s family if the latter has died.
The custom is practised predominantly in cases involving unintentional murder and culpable homicide.
It is also invoked in murder cases wherein the victim’s kin choose not to retaliate through ‘qisas’ (a way of retribution under the Sharia).
The end-goal, as the law says, is not to put a price tag on human life but to alleviate the plight and suffering of the affected family and their potential loss of income.
However, it is to be noted that even if the concerned parties reconcile through ‘blood money’, the community and the state will retain the right to impose a deterrent punishment, including penalties.
In its contemporary applications, ‘blood money’ is upheld in several Islamic countries with factors such as gender, religion, and nationality of the victim coming into play.
In Saudi Arabia, for instance, the traffic regulations specifically mandate payment of ‘blood money’ to heirs of the victims who die in road accidents. In addition, the perpetrator shall be liable to a prison term.
What’s India’s stand on ‘diya’?
Provisions for the grant or receiving of ‘blood money’ do not find a place in India’s formal legal system.
However, the system does provide a way for the accused to negotiate with the prosecution through ‘plea bargaining’.
Though the concept cannot be directly equated with ‘blood money’, the scheme lays out a procedure whereby the defendant agrees to plead guilty for a particular offence perpetrated by the accused in return for a concession from the prosecutor.
Introduced through the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005, plea bargaining comes with an array of limitations unlike ‘blood money’, which has a broader purview.
For instance, plea bargaining can be taken up only for offences that are penalised with imprisonment of less than seven years.
It cannot be invoked if the accused has been previously convicted for a similar offence.
Besides, the provision is not available for crimes against women or children aged below 14; heinous crimes such as murder or rape; and offences involving socio-economic conditions, including civil rights.
Moreover, the accused has to voluntarily come forward to plead guilty, and must not be coerced.
However, on the lines of ‘blood money’, plea bargaining may also allow for the victim to receive compensation.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/does-blood-money-have-a-legal-standing-explained/article69102070.ece
With reference to Indian National Science Academy (INSA), consider the following statements:
- Promotion of scientific knowledge in India, including its practical application to problems of national welfare.
- To secure and manage funds and endowments for the promotion of science.
- To promote and maintain liaison between science and humanities.
- To publish such proceedings, journals, memoirs, and other publications.
How many of the statements are the objectives of the Indian National Science Academy (INSA)?
All four
Explanation :
This year’s Indian National Science Academy’s annual list of fellows deviates from tradition by including renowned Indians who aren’t professional scientists.
About Indian National Science Academy (INSA):
The INSA was established in January 1935 with the object of promoting science in India and harnessing scientific knowledge for the cause of humanity and national welfare.
The foundation of the Academy, earlier known as the National Institute of Sciences of India (NISI), was the outcome of joint endeavours of several organizations and individuals, and the Indian Science Congress Association (ISCA) playing a leading role in this regard.
It was inaugurated on 7 January 1935 at Calcutta and functioned with its headquarters at Asiatic Society of Bengal till 1951 and thereafter shifted to Delhi.
Objectives:
Promotion of scientific knowledge in India, including its practical application to problems of national welfare.
Coordination among Scientific Academies, Societies, Institutions, Government Scientific Departments, and Services.
To act as a body of scientists of eminence for the promotion and safeguarding of the interests of scientists in India and to present internationally the scientific work done in the country.
To act through properly constituted National Committees, in which other learned academies and societies may be associated, for undertaking scientific work of national and international importance which the Academy may be called upon to perform by the public and by the Government.
To publish such proceedings, journals, memoirs, and other publications as may be found desirable.
To promote and maintain liaison between science and humanities.
To secure and manage funds and endowments for the promotion of science.
To perform all other acts that may assist in, or be necessary for the fulfilment of, the above-mentioned objectives of the Academy.
Acting as a link between the scientific community and planners, it advises the government on critical issues relating to science and technology.
The academy also serves as a forum for interactions among scientists within and outside the country and recognizes outstanding young scientists, engineers, and technologists through the award of medals/prizes and by providing modest financial support for pursuing research.
Senior scientists are honoured through election to its Fellowship.
The Academy has established exchange programmes with different overseas academies to facilitate visits of Indian scientists to research institutions abroad and of foreign scientists to India for lectures/scientific discussions.
It was designated as the adhering organization in India to the International Council for Science (ICSU) on behalf of the Government of India in January 1968.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/diversity-social-impact-open-gates-for-non-scientists-in-venerable-science-academy/article69101577.ece
The Kokborok language is spoken primarily by people of which Indian state?
Tripura
Explanation :
The Twipra Student Federation (TSF), a wing of the North East Students Organisation (NESO), staged a protest in Agartala recently, demanding the adoption of the Roman script for the Kokborok language.
About Kokborok Language:
Kokborok is a language of the Borok people, geographically known as Tripuris.
It is one of the State’s official languages of Tripura, notified on January 19, 1979.
It is a Sino-Tibetan language and can be traced back to at least the 1st century AD when the historical record of Tripuri kings started to be written down in a book called the Raj Ratnakar.
So far, the term Kokborok is known to first occur as ‘Kok-boro’ in 1897/98 in an early primer on the language, Daulat Ahmed ‘Kokboroma.
In 1900, Thakur Radhamohan Debbarma spelt ‘Kokborok’ in a published grammar of the language.
At the time, various British Political Agents, District Officers, Sub- Division Officers were known as linguists – they called this language Tipperh, Tipura, or Tipra Language.
The word Kokborok is derived from the word ‘Kok’, meaning ‘verbal’, and ‘Borok’, meaning ‘people’ or ‘human’.
According to the 2011 Census report, the number of Kokborok-speaking people is 8,80,537, which is 23.97% of the total population of Tripura.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatodayne.in/tripura/story/tripura-tribal-student-body-demand-adopting-roman-script-for-kokborok-language-in-ongoing-assembly-1152582-2025-01-10
Consider the following statements regarding Mud Volcanoes:
- The craters of mud volcanoes are usually shallow and may intermittently erupt mud.
- Mud volcanoes are not real volcanoes and are not as hazardous as real volcanoes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A mud volcano eruption in the Caspian Sea created a temporary ‘ghost island’ in early 2023, only for it to erode away by the end of 2024.
About Mud Volcano:
It is a small volcano-shaped cone of mud and clay, of height usually less than a few meters and often a few decimeters.
The craters are usually shallow and may intermittently erupt mud.
These eruptions continuously rebuild the cones, which are eroded relatively easily.
Some mud volcanoes are created by hot spring activity where large amounts of gas and small amounts of water react chemically with the surrounding rocks and form boiling mud.
Variations are the porridge pot (a basin of boiling mud that erodes chunks of the surrounding rock) and the paint pot (a basin of boiling mud that is tinted yellow, green, or blue by minerals from the surrounding rocks).
Other mud volcanoes, entirely of a non igneous origin, occur only in oil-field regions that are relatively young and have soft, unconsolidated formations.
Under compactional stress, methane and related hydrocarbon gases mixed with mud force their way upward and burst through to the surface, spewing mud into a cone like shape.
Because of the compactional stress and the depth from which the mixture comes, the mud is often hot and may have an accompanying steam cloud.
Mud volcanoes are not real volcanoes and are not as hazardous as real volcanoes since they can only emit warm mud and only very locally (a few hundred meters around them).
The largest mud volcanoes actually do pose hazards, but not of the usual volcanic kind. Instead, the sheer volume of mud erupted can flood the landscape, displace people, and bury infrastructure and agriculture.
Approximately 1,000 mud volcanoes have been identified on land and in shallow water.
In Europe and Asia, mud volcanoes are known to exist in southeastern Ukraine, Italy, Romania, Azerbaijan, Iran, Pakistan, Indonesia, and China.
In North and South America, mud volcanoes have been documented in Alaska, California, the Island of Trinidad, Venezuela, and Colombia.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.livemint.com/news/trends/ghost-island-appears-and-disappears-in-caspian-sea-you-won-t-believe-how-quickly-it-vanished-11736862793536.html
Atrax christenseni, recently in news, is a:
Funnel-web Spider
Explanation :
Recently, Australian scientists have discovered a bigger, more venomous species of the Sydney funnel-web spider.
Scientists have named this 9-centimetre (3.54 inches) long species as Atrax christenseni.
The new funnel-web species has earned the nickname “Big Boy” and was first discovered in the early 2000s near Newcastle, 170 km (105 miles) north of Sydney.
Characteristics
It is a shiny, dark brown to black spiders with finger-like spinnerets (silk-spinning organs) at the end of their abdomen.
Its venom glands are a lot larger and its fangs are a lot longer.
Only the male Sydney funnel-web, which carries a much stronger venom, is responsible for human deaths.
Habitat: They are found in bushy suburban areas, open and closed sclerophyll forests and woodlands, often on south or east-facing slopes or in shady gullies.
What is a funnel-web spider?
These are one of the most dangerous arachnids in the world.
There are 36 described species of Australian funnel-web spiders and they are currently placed in three genera: Hadronyche, Atrax and Illawarra.
The spider has venom, which is filled with 40 different toxic proteins.
Its raw venom is the best way to make life-saving antivenom.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/amp/science/story/meet-big-boy-newly-discovered-spider-species-is-one-of-the-deadliest-in-the-world-2665068-2025-01-15
Consider the following statements regarding the Central Suspect Registry:
- It is created based on the National Cybercrime Reporting Portal to strengthen fraud risk management.
- It is developed by the Union Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Since the launch of the online ‘central suspect registry’ the Centre has declined six lakh fraudulent transactions and saved Rs 1,800 crore.
It is an initiative to strengthen fraud risk management by creating a registry of identifiers.
It was created based on the National Cybercrime Reporting Portal (NCRP).
It contains data of 1.4 million cybercriminals linked to financial fraud and various cyber-crimes.
It has been developed by the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C), and can be accessed by states and UTs as well as central investigation and intelligence agencies.
The registry was developed with collaboration from the banks/financial institutions and using it as a central-level database with consolidated data on cybercrime suspects.
What is Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C)?
It has been established under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) to deal with cybercrime in the country in a coordinated and comprehensive manner.
It focuses on tackling issues related to cybercrime for citizens, including improving coordination between various LEAs and stakeholders.
The centre is located in New Delhi.
Functions:
It acts as a nodal point in the fight against cybercrime.
It identifies the research problems and needs of LEAs and take up R&D activities in developing new technologies and forensic tools in collaboration with academia / research institutes within India and abroad.
It prevents misuse of cyberspace for furthering the cause of extremist and terrorist groups.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/cyber-shield-india-blocked-online-fraud-90-days-9776101/
With reference to Fast Track Immigration–Trusted Traveller Program (FTI-TTP), consider the following:
- It is introduced with the purpose of facilitating international mobility with faster and secure immigration clearances
- Under this initiative Indian nationals and foreign nationals holding OCI cards are eligible to register.
- The FTI registration will be valid for lifetime.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Union Home Minister will inaugurate the ‘Fast Track Immigration – Trusted Traveller Program’ (FTI- TTP) on 16 January 2025 from Ahmedabad.
It is an initiative to speed up the Immigration clearance process for eligible persons from the following categories: Indian Nationals and Foreign Nationals holding OCI Cards.
It was first launched at Delhi’s IGI Airport in 2024.
Purpose: It has been introduced with the purpose of facilitating international mobility with faster, smoother and secure immigration clearances.
To enroll in the scheme, the applicant has to register online on the portal with details and documents.
One can sign up after successfully authenticating their identity through mobile OTP and email verification. One needs to ensure that the passport is valid for at least 6 months at the time of applying for FTI-TTP.
Applicants found eligible, will need to provide Biometrics (fingerprint and face image) in addition to the required information as per the data fields provided in the application form.
Biometrics of the registered applicants will be captured at the Foreigners Regional Registration Office (FRRO) or at the time of passage through the airport. The registered passenger has to scan the boarding pass issued by the airlines at the e-gates and then scan the passport.
Validity: The FTI registration will be valid for a maximum of five years or until the validity of the passport, whichever comes first.
It will be implemented at 21 major airports across the country. In the first phase, in addition to Delhi, this facility is being introduced at seven major airports—Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata, Bengaluru, Hyderabad, Kochi, and Ahmedabad.
Nodal Agency: The FTI-TTP is implemented through an online portal with the Bureau of Immigration being the nodal agency.
Significance: Once Indian and foreign citizens with OCI cards enroll and become members of the Fast Track Immigration -Trusted Traveller Programme, their immigration clearance will be faster, easier, and more secure.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2092995
Consider the following statements regarding Hydroclimate Whiplash:
- It is condition wherein an extremely wet season is succeeded by an extremely dry season.
- It creates more number of droughts and floods across the globe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
According to a study by climate attribution group ClimaMeter, three wildfires that have devastated large parts of the Los Angeles city is mainly due to a ‘hydroclimate whiplash’.
It is rare meteorological condition wherein an extremely wet season is succeeded by an extremely dry season.
How it occurs?
It’s kind of this paradox that as the atmosphere gets warmer, both the amount of water vapour in the atmosphere can increase, and the deficit of water vapour in the atmosphere can also increase exponentially.
Consequently, as the atmosphere warms, it is able to hold much more water – for a longer period – before it is eventually released as precipitation.
It is this relationship between global warming and the atmosphere which leads to the extended periods of dry spells and more intense rainfall when it eventually occurs.
Impacts
Increases number of droughts and floods.
Fires created by the dry condition exacerbate respiratory and cardiovascular diseases through their polluting smoke.
Human health: Flooding creates conditions for waterborne illnesses such as cholera, leptospirosis
Such ‘hydroclimate whiplash’ conditions have increased by 31-66 per cent in three-month periods (sub-seasonal) and by 8-31 per cent in 12-month periods (inter-annual) across the world since the middle of the 20th century.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/natural-disasters/what-started-the-la-wildfires-warming-fuelled-hydroclimate-whiplash
Consider the following statements regarding the Electrokinetic Mining:
- It is a technology which uses electric field to accelerate the migration of movable components, such as metals.
- It increases recovery of metals and helps in sustainable mining.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A research team developed electrokinetic mining (EKM), an eco-friendly method for extracting rare earth elements.
It is a novel technique which uses Electrokinetic i.e the application of a direct or alternating electric field to accelerate the migration of movable components, such as metals, water, and particles.
Issue with present technique:
Currently, heavy rare earth elements (HREE) are dominantly mined from ion-adsorption rare earth deposits (IADs) discovered in South China, and the regional mining produces and supports 95% of the global demand of HREEs.
However, the conventional mining applies excessive usage of ammonium-salt-based leaching agents to recover HREEs from IADs, such technique exhibits low efficiency and devastating environmental impact on the local eco-system.
Advantages of Electrokinetic Mining
It reduces leaching agent usage by 80%, and energy consumption by 60%.
High recovery rate: Its recovery rate exceeds 95% which marks a breakthrough in sustainable mining.
It can simultaneously help reduce the environmental impacts and improve the recovery rate of REEs.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://scitechdaily.com/revolutionizing-rare-earth-mining-electrokinetic-technology-achieves-95-recovery/#:~:text
Consider the following statements regarding Intravenous Fluids (IV Fluids):
- They are specially formulated liquids that are injected into a vein to prevent or treat dehydration.
- Crystalloid IV fluids contain large molecules that can’t easily pass through cell membranes and are more likely to stay in the blood vessels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The West Bengal government recently suspended 12 doctors for “medical negligence” following the death of a woman and a newborn due to the alleged administration of expired intravenous fluid at Medinipur Medical College and Hospital.
About Intravenous Fluids (IV Fluids):
IV fluids are specially formulated liquids that are injected into a vein to prevent or treat dehydration.
They are used in people of all ages who are sick, injured, dehydrated from exercise or heat, or undergoing surgery.
Intravenous rehydration is a simple, safe, and common procedure with a low risk of complications.
IV fluid often contains water, glucose (sugar), and electrolytes (potassium, sodium, and chloride).
An IV may allow more than one fluid to be given at the same time and into the same place.
What are the types of IV fluids?
Crystalloid solutions:
These are the most common types of IV fluid.
They contain small, dissolved molecules that pass easily from the bloodstream into tissues and cells.
As a result, crystalloid solutions are readily available to your cells once they travel in.
Examples include normal saline, which is salt in water, and D5W, which is dextrose (sugar) in water.
Another example is lactated Ringer’s, which contains sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium, and lactate. It’s used for aggressive fluid replacement.
Colloids:
These are large molecules that can’t easily pass through cell membranes and are more likely to stay in the blood vessels.
In healthcare terms, this means that colloid solutions, unlike crystalloid solutions, remain intravascular.
Examples include albumin and hetastarch.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/116037/OPS/GPPDRUPCH.1+GMNDRUPR8.1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Tungabhadra River:
- It is a major tributary of the Kaveri River.
- The city of Hampi is located on the banks of the Tungabhadra River.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Tungabhadra water has turned green around Shiranahalli, Gangapur and Korlahalli villages in Mundargi taluk of Gadag district, Karnataka, creating panic among the residents.
About Tungabhadra River:
It is a significant peninsular river in India.
It is a major tributary of the Krishna River.
The Hindus consider this river sacred, and there is a mention of the river in the Ramayana, where it is referred to as Pampa.
It derives its name from two streams, viz., the Tunga, about 147 km long, and the Bhadra, about 178 km long, which rise in the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats.
The river, after the influence of the two streams near Shimoga in Karnataka, runs for about 531 km till it joins the river Krishna at Sangamaleshwaram in Andhra Pradesh.
The Krishna River finally ends in the Bay of Bengal.
It runs for 382 km in Karnataka, forms the boundary between Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh for 58 km and further runs for the next 91 km in Andhra Pradesh.
The total catchment area of the river is 69,552 sq.km. up to its confluence with Krishna.
It is influenced chiefly by the southwest monsoon.
Major Tributaries: Varada River and Hagari (Vedathy) River.
The river has several dams and reservoirs built on it, including the Tunga Anicut Dam, the Bhadra Dam, the Hemavathy Dam, and the Tungabhadra Dam.
The city of Hampi, which was the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire, is located on the banks of the river.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/residents-panic-as-river-water-turns-green-around-three-villages-in-gadag-district/article69105631.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Huntington’s Disease (HD):
- It is a genetic condition that affects the cells in your brain.
- There is no treatment that can stop or reverse HD.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
New Research uncovers delayed effects of genetic mutation in Huntington’s Disease development.
About Huntington’s Disease (HD):
It is a genetic condition that affects the cells in your brain.
It is an inherited condition that causes brain cells to slowly lose function and die.
If one of your parents has HD, you have a 50% chance of also developing it.
It affects the cells in parts of your brain that regulate voluntary movement and memory.
What causes Huntington’s disease?
A genetic mutation of the HTT gene causes Huntington’s disease.
The HTT gene makes a protein called huntingtin. This protein helps your nerve cells (neurons) function.
If you have HD, your DNA doesn’t have all the information needed to make the huntingtin protein.
As a result, these proteins grow in an abnormal shape and destroy (instead of help) your neurons.
Your neurons die because of this genetic mutation.
The destruction of nerve cells happens in the basal ganglia, or the region of your brain that regulates your body’s movements.
It also affects the brain cortex (surface of your brain) that regulates your thinking, decision-making, and memory.
How common is HD?
Huntington’s disease affects an estimated 3 to 7 out of every 100,000 people, most often people of European ancestry (biological family comes from European descent).
Symptoms:
Common symptoms include uncontrollable dance-like movements (chorea) and abnormal body postures, as well as problems with behavior, emotion, thinking, and personality.
Other symptoms may include tremor (unintentional back-and-forth movement in the person’s muscles) and unusual eye movements. The eye movements can happen early in the disease.
These symptoms get worse over time.
As HD progresses, you will need constant assistance and supervision because of the debilitating nature of the disease.
People usually die from the disease within 15 to 20 years of developing symptoms.
Treatment:
There is no treatment that can stop or reverse HD, but health care providers can offer medications to help with certain symptoms.
Drugs like haloperidol, tetrabenazine, and amantadine are especially helpful for controlling the unusual movements caused by Huntington disease.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.oneindia.com/international/surprise-finding-huntingtons-disease-research-011-4044539.html
Consider the following statements:
- It is located in the southern reaches of the Satpura hills in Madhya Pradesh.
- The area of this reserve and the surrounding area is the real story area of Rudyard Kipling’s famous “The Jungle Book”.
- It supports a mosaic of vegetation ranging from a moist sheltered valley to an open, dry deciduous forest.
The above statements correctly describe which Tiger Reserve?
Pench Tiger Reserve
Explanation :
Benami transactions involving resorts were recently uncovered by Income Tax Department in the Pench Tiger Reserve, famously known as the ‘Land of Jungle Book’s Mowgli.’
About Pench Tiger Reserve (PTR):
The Reserve is located in the southern reaches of the Satpura hills in the Seoni and Chhindwara districts in Madhya Pradesh and shares the southern boundary with Maharashtra.
In 1983, it was declared a National Park, and in 1992, a tiger reserve. It is spread across 1,180 sq.km., including a buffer zone of 768 sq.km.
It is named after the Pench River, meandering through the reserve from north to south.
It comprises the Indira Priyadarshini Pench National Park, the Pench Mowgli Sanctuary, and a buffer.
The area of the PTR and the surrounding area is the real story area of Rudyard Kipling’s famous “The Jungle Book”.
Vegetation: The undulating topography supports a mosaic of vegetation ranging from a moist sheltered valley to an open, dry deciduous forest.
Flora:
The reserve boasts a diverse range of flora, including teak, saag, mahua, and various grasses and shrubs.
Teak forests are found in about one quarter of the area. Bamboo plantations are also present near the water banks.
Fauna:
The area is especially famous for large herds of Chital, Sambar, Nilgai, Gaur (Indian Bison), and wild boar.
The key predator is the tiger, followed by the leopard, wild dogs, and wolf.
There are over 325 species of resident and migratory birds, including the Malabar Pied Hornbill, Indian Pitta, Osprey, Grey Headed Fishing Eagle, White Eyed Buzzard, etc.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2025/Jan/16/benami-transactions-exposed-in-madhya-pradeshs-pench-tiger-reserve-it-department-attaches-properties
Consider the following statements regarding Prime Minister’s Wi-Fi Access Network Interface (PM-WANI) Scheme:
- The primary objective is to provide free internet access to all citizens.
- It encourages local shops and establishments to provide Wi-Fi for last-mile internet delivery.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) has recommended capping Internet tariffs for Wi-Fi service providers under the PM-WANI scheme at twice the rate for retail broadband.
About Prime Minister’s Wi-Fi Access Network Interface (PM-WANI) Scheme:
It was launched by the Department of Telecommunication in December 2020.
The scheme aims to enhance the proliferation of public WiFi hotspots to create robust digital communications infrastructure in the country, especially in rural areas.
Through better access to public hotspots, the government aims to increase employment for small and micro-entrepreneurs and provide low-cost internet to the underserved urban poor and rural households.
The scheme encourages local shops and establishments to provide Wi-Fi for last-mile internet delivery, which does not require a licence or charge a registration fee.
How can you access the PM-WANI internet?
To access public hotspots under the PM-WANI scheme, one needs to download a relevant app which shows the available networks.
The user can then choose from a list of available connections and make a payment to use the network.
The user can access the network till his/her balance is exhausted.
PM-WANI Ecosystem Components:
Public Data Office (PDO): Sets up Wi-Fi hotspots and provides internet access. No license is required from DoT.
Public Data Office Aggregator (PDOA): Offers authorization, accounting services, and user interfaces for purchasing data plans and monitoring usage.
App Provider: Develops applications to help users locate and connect to nearby PM-WANI hotspots, facilitating easy internet access.
Central Registry: Managed by the Centre for Development of Telematics, maintaining records of App Providers, PDOs, and PDOAs.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://theprint.in/india/with-cap-on-tariffs-govt-makes-yet-another-attempt-to-revitalise-its-public-wifi-scheme-pm-wani/2448642/
Cabo Verde, an archipelago recently in news, is located in:
Atlantic Ocean
Explanation :
The World Bank’s new report estimates that Cabo Verde, a small archipelago located off the coast of West Africa, will need to invest $842 million over 2024-2030 to address its climate and development challenges.
It is also known in the Anglosphere as Cape Verde.
It is an African country that is made up of 10 volcanic islands in the Atlantic Ocean. It is off of the northwestern portion of the continent.
Its islands are divided into the Barlavento (windward) and Sotavento (leeward) groups.
It is located nearby Senegal and is the nearest point on the continent.
Climate: Generally moderate, the climate is characterized by stable temperatures with extreme aridity.
Terrain: The terrain of the Cabo Verde islands varies from the geologically older, flatter islands in the east and the newer, more mountainous islands in the west.
Population: The overwhelming majority of the population of Cabo Verde is of mixed European and African descent and is often referred to as mestiço or Crioulo.
Capital: Praia
Languages spoken: Portuguese and Cape Verdean Creole
Highlights of the report
Cabo Verde is highly vulnerable to extreme climate events including extreme heat, floods, droughts, tropical storms, landslides, volcanic eruptions, coastal erosion and sea level rise.
Structural factors such as rapid rural-urban migration and land degradation further aggravate the country’s vulnerability to natural hazards.
These vulnerabilities are further compounded by economic challenges, such as heavy reliance on tourism, imported fuel and goods that account for 80 per cent of domestic food consumption, as well as high public debt.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/africa/atlantic-archipelago-cabo-verde-needs-to-invest-140-million-annually-to-address-its-climate-development-challenges-world-bank
Consider the following statements regarding the QS World Future Skills Index:
- It is published by the World Economic Forum every year.
- It assesses four main areas namely skills fit, academic readiness, future of work and economic transformation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
According to the QS World Future Skills Index 2025, India has emerged as the second most prepared job market globally for future in-demand skills, trailing only the United States.
The inaugural Future Skills Index, released by London-based Quacquarelli Symonds (QS), evaluates countries on their readiness to meet evolving job market demands.
The index assesses four main areas: skills fit, academic readiness, future of work, economic transformation
The index highlights India’s strong potential in critical sectors such as Artificial Intelligence (AI), digital, and green industries.
Highlights of the Report
The index highlights India’s strong potential in critical sectors such as Artificial Intelligence (AI), digital, and green industries.
India ranks 25th overall across all indicators, earning recognition as a “future skills contender.” Notably, the country excels in the “Future of Work” category, securing the second-highest global score (99.1), just behind the United States.
India’s performance in the Future of Work indicator underscores its readiness to meet emerging job market demands. Alongside Mexico, India is identified as the most prepared nation to recruit for digital roles.
“India’s outstanding GDP growth, youthful population, and burgeoning start-up culture position the country as a global leader in future-ready skills,
While India shines in certain areas, the report highlights opportunities for improvement. These include:
Enhancing Industry Collaboration: Bridging the gap between higher education institutions and industry needs.
Equipping Graduates with In-Demand Skills: Expanding focus on digital, AI, and green sectors to align with employer demands.
Future-Oriented Innovation and Sustainability: India scores low on this metric, indicating a need to prioritize sustainable practices and forward-looking solutions.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/jobs-career/qs-world-future-skills-index-2025-india-ranks-second-globally-in-job-market-preparedness-leading-in-ai-digital-and-green-industries-3717433/
With reference to Siachen Glacier, consider the following:
- It is a piedmont glacier located in the Karakoram range.
- It is a major source of Nubra river, which is a tributary of the Shyok river.
- India took its control from China under Operation Meghadoot.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Siachen Glacier was equipped with 4G and 5G service by a private telecom firm of India.
It is a piedmont glacier located in the Karakoram Range.
It lies in the heavily glaciated Himalayan region known as the “Third Pole,” because mountain glaciers in this region contain more fresh water than is found anywhere else on Earth except for the polar ice caps.
It lies between the Saltoro Ridge, a subrange of the Karakorams, to the west and the main Karakoram Range to the east.
It is the second longest nonpolar glacier in the world, after Fedchenko Glacier in Tajikistan.
It originates at the base of the Indira Col West, a col (low point) on the Indira Ridge.
It is located so strategically that while it dominates Shaksgam Valley (ceded to China by Pakistan in 1963) in the north, controls the routes coming from Gilgit Baltistan to Leh from the west, and at the same time, it dominates the ancient Karakoram Pass in the eastern side too.
It is the major source of the 80km long Nubra River, a major tributary of the Shyok River.
It is considered the world’s highest battleground and in 1984 India took its control from Pakistan under Operation Meghadoot.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/reliance-jio-extends-4g-and-5g-network-to-siachen-glacier-the-worlds-highest-battlefield/article69099571.ece
Consider the following statements regarding ISRO’s Third Launch Pad:
- It will be established at Satish Dhawan Space Centre of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) at Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
- It will be configured for the next generation launch vehicles of ISRO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Cabinet approved the establishment of the Third Launch Pad (TLP) at Satish Dhawan Space Centre of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) at Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
The Third Launch Pad project envisages the establishment of the launch infrastructure at Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh for the Next Generation Launch Vehicles of ISRO.
It also support as standby launch pad for the Second Launch Pad at Sriharikota. This will also enhance the launch capacity for future Indian human spaceflight missions.
Implementation strategy and targets:
It is designed to have configuration that is as universal and adaptable as possible that can support not only NGLV but also the LVM3 vehicles with Semicryogenic stage as well as scaled up configurations of NGLV.
It will be realized with maximum industry participation fully utilizing ISRO’s experience in establishing the earlier launch pads and maximally sharing the existing launch complex facilities.
TLP is targeted to be established within a duration of 48 months or 4 years.
Funding: The total fund requirement is Rs. 3984.86 Crore and includes the establishment of the Launch Pad and the associated facilities.
Significance: The Project will boost the Indian Space ecosystem by enabling higher launch frequencies and the national capacity to undertake human spaceflight & space exploration missions.
Background
Presently, Indian Space Transportation Systems are completely reliant on two launch pads viz. First Launch Pad (FLP) & Second Launch Pad (SLP).
FLP was realized 30 years ago for PSLV and continues to provide launch support for PSLV & SSLV.
SLP was established primarily for GSLV & LVM3 and also functions as standby for PSLV. SLP has been operational for almost 20 years and has enhanced the launch capacity towards enabling some commercial missions of PSLV/LVM3 along with the national missions including the Chandrayaan-3 mission.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2093358
Consider the following statements regarding the Bharat Ranbhoomi Darshan App:
- It is aimed at promoting connectivity, tourism, and socio-economic development in border regions.
- It is developed by the Ministry of Defence in collaboration with the Ministry of Tourism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the “Bharat Ranbhoomi Darshan” app was launched by Defence Minister coinciding with Army Day celebrations.
It is developed by the Ministry of Defence in collaboration with the Ministry of Tourism.
This app opens the doors to India’s most iconic battlefields, offering citizens a chance to explore the country’s wartime history like never before.
The move is aimed at promoting connectivity, tourism, and socio-economic development in border regions. The Army is collaborating with local civil authorities to facilitate these efforts while maintaining high operational preparedness.
Features
It features details on various battlefields and border areas, offering virtual tours, historical narratives, and interactive content. The sites will also be highlighted by the Tourism Ministry as part of the Incredible India campaign.
It will be a one-stop destination for the visitors to make all necessary arrangements for their travel planning, including how to apply for permits for some of these places.
The Indian Army, in conjunction with the Ministry of Tourism, has shortlisted Galwan (the river valley in Ladakh ) Doklam which is a tri-junction between India, Bhutan and China and 75 other forward sites alongside the country’s border that have witnessed military action in the past for “battlefield tourism.
Most of these sites fall along India’s borders with China (Line of Actual Control) and Pakistan (Line of Control) that have had a history of wars after independence and other clashes in recent times — the 1962 war with China and the 1967 war, at Nathu La in Sikkim.
Along the Western border, the Battle of Longewala was one of the first major engagements during the India-Pakistan war of 1971, fought at the Indian border post of Longewala in the Thar desert.
These locations, previously restricted due to their strategic significance and challenging terrain, will now offer visitors first-hand insight into the experience of soldiers stationed in these remote regions.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/govt-launches-app-to-promote-battlefield-tourism/article69105098.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Abd-al-Kuri Island, recently seen in the news:
- It is located in the Red Sea.
- It is part of Yemen.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Satellite images reveal a near-complete airstrip on Yemen’s Abd al-Kuri Island, likely built by the UAE.
About Abd-al-Kuri Island:
It is an island located about 65 miles southwest of Socotra in the Indian Ocean and is part of the Socotra Archipelago.
Although the island belongs to Yemen (the mainland of which is situated more than 320 km to the north), geographically the island is closer to the Horn of Africa—it is about 110 km) east-northeast of Cape Gwardafuy (Guardafui), Somalia.
The rocky island, about 35 km long and about 5 km wide, reaches an altitude of more than 700 metres) at Mount Jebel Saleh, its highest point.
With less than 500 residents, Abd al Kuri is sparsely populated with a handful of small settlements extending across the island, all connected by a dirt road.
Most of the island’s inhabitants subsist on fishing.
One of the main features of Abd al Kuri is the endemic and massive Euphorbia abdalkuri, a unique plant with a toxic and caustic sap.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/mysterious-airstrip-appears-on-yemeni-island-as-houthi-rebel-attacks-threaten-region/articleshow/117334549.cms
Which of the following countries does not border the Gulf of Aden?
Oman
Explanation :
Threats in the Gulf of Aden, Red Sea and in waters adjacent to the East African countries might increase and the Indian Navy is striving to boost its presence and keep the sea routes safe, Defence Minister said recently.
About Gulf of Aden:
It is an extension of the Indian Ocean, located between the Arabian Peninsula (north) and the Horn of Africa (south).
It connects the Red Sea to the Arabian Sea and ultimately the Indian Ocean.
The gulf is named after “Aden,” a port city on Yemen’s coast.
It is approximately 900 km long and 500 km wide and covers roughly 410,000 sq.km.
It is bounded to the south by Somalia and the Socotra Islands (part of Yemen), north by Yemen, east by the Arabian Sea, and west by Djibouti.
The gulf is connected to the Somali Sea to the south by the Guardafui Channel, and to the Red Sea on the west by the Strait of Bab el Mandeb.
In the west, it narrows into the Gulf of Tadjoura,near Djibouti.
It is demarcated from the Arabian Sea by the Horn of Africa and the Socotra Islands.
The dominant relief feature of the gulf’s terrain is the Sheba Ridge,an extension of the Indian Ocean ridge system, which extends along the middle of the gulf.
Compared to the neighbouring Red Sea, the Gulf of Aden has a lower saline content.
Some of the major cities near the gulf include Aden, Mukalla, Ahnwar, Balhaf, Berbera, Bosaso, and Djibouti City.
Major Ports: Aden in Yemen, and Berbera and Bosaso in Somalia.
It is also a critical part of the Suez Canal shipping route, which connects the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea.
An estimated 11% of seaborne petroleum passes through the Gulf of Aden en route to the Mediterranean or Arabian Seas.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/threats-in-gulf-of-aden-and-red-sea-could-increase-cautions-rajnath/article69109401.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Bharathappuzha river, recently seen in the news:
- It flows through Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
- It finally discharges into the Bay of Bengal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A family of four drowned in the Bharathapuzha recently.
About Bharathappuzha River:
It is Kerala’s second longest river after the Periyar River.
It flows for a length of 209 km.
It is considered the Nile of Kerala and is also known as Nila, Kuttipuram Puzha, and Ponnaniyar.
Course:
Origin: The river originates in the Annamalai hills located in the Western Ghats region in Tamil Nadu.
It flows in the northwesterly direction in Pollachi taluk of Coimbatore district in Tamil Nadu.
It enters the Palghat district of Kerala State through the Palghat gap.
It finally discharges into the Arabian Sea near Ponnani town, Kerala.
Out of the total drainage area, two-thirds, which is 4400 sq.km., is in Kerala, and the remaining 1786 sq.km. is in Tamil Nadu.
The Bharathapuzha basin receives copious rainfall during the southwest monsoon and it lies in the rain shed region of the Western Ghats.
Major Tributaries: Gayathripuzha River, Kannadipuzha River, Kalpathipuzha River, and Thuthapuzha River.
There are several dams constructed across this river, of which the Malampuzha dam is the largest.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/four-of-a-family-drown-in-bharathapuzha/article69105626.ece
What does the Information Ratio (IR) measure?
The ability of a portfolio to match and exceed a benchmark’s returns.
Explanation :
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) recently directed mutual funds to disclose the information ratio (IR) of a scheme along with performance disclosure.
About Information Ratio (IR):
It’s a metric for measuring how a portfolio or financial asset fares in regards to a benchmark, compared to the volatility of its returns.
This benchmark is usually a market index, like Nifty 50. It can also be an index representing any specific industry or market sector.
The IR depicts how well a portfolio or asset is matching and exceeding an index’s returns.
This metric also shows the level of consistency a portfolio is able to achieve in exceeding the returns of such a benchmark.
To that end, this ratio also includes the standard deviation component, also called tracking error.
Tracking error shows if a portfolio can regularly “track” and exceed its benchmark returns.
If such tracking error is low, it means the portfolio is consistent. Conversely, if the error is high, it signifies a more volatile performance.
Calculation of IR takes place based on the following formula:
IR = (Portfolio Rate of Returns – Benchmark Rate of Returns)/Tracking Error
Uses:
The IR is primarily used as a performance measure by fund managers.
In addition, it is frequently used to compare the skills and abilities of fund managers with similar investment strategies.
The ratio provides investors with insights about the ability of a fund manager to sustain the generation of excess, or even abnormal (as in “abnormally high”), returns over time.
Finally, some hedge funds and mutual funds use the IR to calculate the fees that they charge their clients (e.g., performance fee).
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/business/markets/sebi-asks-mutual-funds-to-disclose-information-ratio-of-schemes/article69110383.ece
Consider the following:
- Prime Minister
- Speaker of Lok Sabha
- Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
- Leader of Opposition in Rajya Sabha
- Chief Justice of India
How many of the above are part of the selection committee for recommending the Chairperson and the members of the Lokpal for appointment?
Only four
Explanation :
The Foundation Day of the Lokpal of India was held for the first time on 16th January at Manekshaw Centre, New Delhi, in the august presence of the Chief Justice of India.
About Lokpal:
It is a statutory body established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act 2013.
Mandate: To inquire into allegations of corruption against certain public functionaries and for related matters.
Organisational Structure:
It consists of a chairperson and eight Members, out of whom four are Judicial Members.
The Chairperson should be either the former Chief Justice of India, or a former Judge of the Supreme Court, or an eminent person who fulfills the eligibility criteria as specified.
The judicial member of the Lokpal should be either a former Judge of the Supreme Court or a former Chief Justice of a High Court.
A minimum of fifty percent of the Members will be from SC/ST/OBC/Minorities and women.
How are members appointed?
The Chairperson and the Members are appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a selection committee composed of the Prime Minister as the Chairperson, the Speaker of Lok Sabha, the Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, the Chief Justice of India or a Judge nominated by him/her, and one eminent jurist.
They hold office for a term of five years from the date on which they enter upon the office or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.
The salary, allowances, and other conditions of services of the Chairperson are the same as that of the Chief Justice of India.
The salary, allowances, and other conditions of services of the members are the same as that of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Jurisdiction:
It has jurisdiction to inquire into allegations of corruption against anyone who is or has been Prime Minister, a Minister in the Union government, or a Member of Parliament, as well as officials of the Union Government under Groups A, B, C, and D.
It covers chairpersons, members, officers, and directors of any board, corporation, society, trust, or autonomous body either established by an Act of Parliament or wholly or partly funded by the Union or State government.
It also covers any society, trust, or body that receives a foreign contribution above Rs 10 lakh.
A complaint under the Lokpal Act should be in the prescribed form and must pertain to an offence under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, against a public servant.
There is no restriction on who can make such a complaint.
When a complaint is received, the Lokpal may order a preliminary inquiry by its Inquiry Wing or any other agency or refer it for investigation by any agency, including the CBI, if there is a prima facie case.
The Lokpal, with respect to Central government servants, shall refer the complaints to the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC).
Exceptions for Prime Minister:
Lokpal cannot inquire into allegations against the PM relating to international relations, external and internal security, public order, atomic energy, and space.
Also, complaints against the PM are not to be probed unless the full Lokpal bench considers the initiation of the inquiry and at least 2/3rds of the members approve it.
Powers of Lokpal:
It has powers to superintendence over and to give direction to the CBI.
If it has referred a case to the CBI, the investigating officer in such a case cannot be transferred without the approval of Lokpal.
Powers to authorize CBI for search and seizure operations connected to such cases.
The Inquiry Wing of the Lokpal has been vested with the powers of a civil court.
Lokpal has powers of confiscation of assets, proceeds, receipts, and benefits arisen or procured by means of corruption in special circumstances.
Lokpal has the power to recommend the transfer or suspension of public servants connected with the allegation of corruption.
Lokpal has the power to give directions to prevent the destruction of records during the preliminary inquiry.
In terms of Section 48 of the said Act, the Lokpal is required to present annually to the President a report on the work done by it, which is caused to be laid in both the Houses of the Parliament.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2093664
Global Risk Report, recently in news, is published by:
World Economic Forum
Explanation :
Recently, the World Economic Forum published Global Risk Report.
The first edition of the report was published in 2006 in which extreme weather events have been categorised under “environmental risks.”
This year’s report presents the findings of the Global Risks Perception Survey 2024- 2025 (GRPS).
Key points of the report
These risks are assessed over both short-term (1-2 years) and long-term (10 years) horizons to guide policymakers in balancing immediate concerns with future challenges.
It classified global risks across economic, environmental, geopolitical, societal and technological domains.
Top 3 short-term risks: It includes misinformation and disinformation, extreme weather events and state based armed conflict.
Top 3 Long term risks: It includes extreme weather events, biodiversity loss & ecosystem collapse and critical change to earth systems.
The evolving global risk landscape is shaped by the interaction of four critical spheres: technological, geostrategic, climatic and demographic.
These forces are expected to intensify over the next decade and beyond, resulting in a complex and interconnected web of challenges.
The report further stresses the importance of addressing short-lived climate pollutants, such as black carbon, methane and hydrofluorocarbons, which have significant environmental and health impacts.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/climate-change/extreme-weather-to-top-global-risks-for-next-decade-warns-world-economic-forum
Consider the following statements regarding Musi river:
- It originates in the Papikonda hill region of Andhra Pradesh.
- It is one of the tributary of the River Krishna.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the ‘Musi River Historic Buildings’ in Hyderabad have been put on the 2025 World Monuments Watch.
It is a river that flows through the southern Indian state of Telangana. It is a tributary of the Krishna River.
Course:
It begins in the Anantagiri hills near Vicarabad, Rangareddi district, 90 kilometers to the west of Hyderabad.
It consists of two rivulets, Esi (8 km) and Musa (13 km), which then converge into Musi River.
It joins the Krishna River near Wazirabad in Nalgonda district.
Dams: Himayat Sagar and Osman Sagar are the two dams that are constructed over the river.
Hyderabad stands on the bank of this river, which divides the city between the old and the new.
What is World Monuments Watch?
It is a biennial nomination based advocacy programme (launched in 1996) of the the World Monuments Fund (WMF) New York-based organisation which spotlights building and sites facing tourism, conflict, climate change and natural disasters.
Gujarat’s ‘Bhuj Historic Water Systems’ is the other site in India named by the WMF on its list of 25-sites facing risk due to the water crisis and climate change.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/musi-river-historic-buildings-on-2025-world-monuments-watch/article69103269.ece
With reference to New Sanchar Saathi Mobile App, consider the following:
- It is designed to fortify telecom security and empower citizens.
- It has a feature of directly reporting suspected calls and SMS using app from mobile phone logs.
- It helps in verifying the authenticity of mobile handsets.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister of Communications launched a suite of citizen-focused initiatives namely the Sanchar Saathi Mobile App and the National Broadband Mission (NBM) 2.0.
It is a user-friendly platform designed to fortify telecom security and empower citizens.
It provides users with critical tools to secure their telecom resources and combat telecom frauds.
Key features include:
Chakshu - Reporting Suspected Fraud Communications (SFC): Users can report suspected calls and SMS using app and directly from mobile phone logs.
Know Mobile Connections in Your Name: Citizens can identify and manage all mobile connections issued in their name, ensuring no unauthorized usage.
Blocking Your Lost/ Stolen Mobile Handset: Lost or stolen mobile devices can be swiftly blocked, traced and recovered.
Know Mobile Handset Genuineness: The app offers an easy way to verify the authenticity of mobile handsets, ensuring users purchase genuine devices.
What is National Broadband Mission (NBM) 2.0?
It builds on the success of NBM 1.0 which is part of the National Digital Communications Policy, 2018.
The NBM 2.0 aims to propel India into a new era of digital transformation.
Following will be the key benefits of NBM 2.0:
Extending operational optical fiber cable (OFC) connectivity to 2.70 lakh villages by 2030 with 95% uptime from ~50,000 as of now.
To provide broadband connectivity to 90% of anchor institutions like Schools, PHCs, Anganwadi Centre, and Panchayat offices by 2030.
To achieve 100% mapping of fiber networks owned by government PSUs by 2026 on PM GatiShakti National Master Plan Platform (PMGS) and use PMGS for planning of Additional Bharatnet project.
For Ease of Doing Business - reduce the Right of Way application average disposal time from 60 days (now)to 30 days by 2030. In 2019 it was 449 days.
Work on enhancing the usage of the ‘Call Before u Dig’ (CBuD) mobile app to protect underground Telecom infrastructure and other utilities.
Collaborate with all stakeholders viz. Central Ministries and departments, States, UTs and municipalities to ensure the effective implementation of the New RoW Rules 2024, issued under the Telecommunications Act, 2023.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2093732
Consider the following statements regarding Hyperspectral Imaging Satellite:
- They are designed to beam down data in hundreds of wavelengths to detect problems.
- They help in detecting subtle changes in chemical compositions, vegetation health and water quality.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, India’s space tech startup Pixxel launched three of its six hyperspectral imaging satellites which are part of its ‘Firefly’ constellation aboard a SpaceX rocket from California.
These satellites are uniquely designed to beam down data in hundreds of wavelengths to detect problems that are invisible to today’s satellites.
The constellation is designed to provide global coverage at a revisit of every 24 hours.
Hyperspectral imaging (HSI) is a technique that analyses a wide spectrum of light instead of just assigning primary colours (red, green, blue) to each pixel, effectively spectrally fingerprinting the Earth to provide more information on what is imaged.
The collected spectra are used to form an image in a way that each image pixel includes a complete spectrum.
What is Firefly’ constellation?
It is India’s first commercial satellite constellation.
It offers six times sharper resolution than the standard 30-meter resolution of existing hyperspectral satellites, achieving an unprecedented five-meter resolution.
This capability allows it to capture intricate details previously invisible to conventional systems.
The satellites’ advanced sensors, capable of capturing data across more than 150 spectral bands, enable the detection of subtle changes in chemical compositions, vegetation health, water quality, and atmospheric conditions.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/google-backed-pixxel-successfully-launches-indias-first-private-satellite-constellation-9779441/
Consider the following statements regarding the Namdhari:
- It was founded by Guru Govind Singh in 1857.
- It considers the Guru Granth Sahib as the Supreme Gurbani.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Punjab Chief Minister recently paid tribute at a function organised at the Namdhari Shaheed Smarak in Malerkotla to mark the Kuka martyrs’ day.
It was founded by Satguru Ram Singh of Baisakhi in 1857. He challenged the status quo, advocated social reform, and resisted the Raj in various ways.
The Namdharis were also known as “Kukas” because of their trademark style of reciting the “Gurbani” (Sayings/Teachings of the Guru).
This style was in a high-pitched voice called “Kook” in Punjabi. Thus, the Namdharis were also called “Kukas”.
Namdhari Sikhs consider the Guru Granth Sahib as the Supreme Gurbani, but they also believe in a living human Guru.
The Namdharis consider the cow to be sacred, they are teetotallers, and avoid even tea and coffee.
The sect’s headquarters is located in Ludhiana’s Bhaini Sahib near village Raiyaan, where Ram Singh was born.
History of the Kuka martyrs’ day
On January 13, 1872, a group of some 200 Namdharis led by Kuka Hira Singh and Lehna Singh reached Malerkotla following an incident of cow slaughter in the town. The Namdharis had long been agitating for a ban on cow slaughter.
On January 15, the Kukas clashed with government officials. On the very same day, a 150-strong Kuka contingent also attacked the Malaudh Fort in Ludhiana, which was under the jurisdiction of a local ruler who was loyal to the British.
The British retribution to the Kuka raids was brutal. John Lambert Cowan, the Deputy Commissioner of Ludhiana district, ordered the execution of 49 Kukas on January 17, and another 17 on January 18.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/bessent-tough-talk-on-russia-oil-how-could-india-be-impacted-9784915/
Consider the following statements regarding Trajan Gun, recently seen in the news:
- It is a towed artillery gun system.
- It is jointly developed by India and United States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Trajan 155 mm towed artillery gun system, developed jointly by India and France, has bagged an export order from Armenia.
About Trajan Gun:
It is a 155 mm towed artillery gun system.
It is jointly developed by India and France.
The gun is jointly developed by Larsen & Toubro (L&T) and KNDS France and has undergone rigorous testing by the Indian Army, meeting all qualitative requirements.
The 52-calibre towed gun system is manufactured in India.
Several of its subsystems are indigenously developed like the auxiliary power unit, control panel, and rolling gear assembly.
It is designed to meet the demands of modern combat, with a range of over 40 kilometers depending on the type of ammunition used.
The Trajan’s modular design makes it easy to transport and deploy, while its automated loading system ensures rapid firing rates.
It is also capable of operating in diverse terrains, from marshy lowlands to high-altitude cold deserts.
The system features advanced targeting and fire-control systems, which integrate seamlessly with modern military networks.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/armenia-to-tow-indo-french-artillery-gun-system/articleshow/117275292.cms?from=mdr
Chincholi Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which state?
Karnataka
Explanation :
The Forest Department has begun persuading residents ensconced in Sheribikanahalli Tanda (hamlet) located deep inside Chincholi Wildlife Sanctuary on the Karnataka-Telangana border to relocate from the ecologically susceptible area.
About Chincholi Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is located in the Kalburgi District of North Karnataka.
It was declared a sanctuary in 2011 and extends over 134.88 sq.km.
It is the first dry land wildlife sanctuary in South India.
It is also called the Ooty of Telangana.
Apart from the Chandrampalli dam, four small dams also exist at its center.
The sanctuary is also home to the Lambani Tandas - a protected tribal community that lives in the forests.
Flora:
The sanctuary has good dry deciduous and moist deciduous forest in the core with Acacia and Teak plantations on the fringes.
Medicinal herbs, sandalwood, and red sanders trees are also found in this wildlife sanctuary.
Fauna:
It is home to fauna like Black Buck, Common Fox, Four-horned Antelope, Fruit bat, Hyena, Indian Wolf, etc.
Over 35 species of birds, including Black Drongo, Black-winged Kite, Blossom-headed Parakeet, Blue pigeon, Black-headed Oriole, and Grey partridge, are also found in this sanctuary.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/forest-dept-to-relocate-sheribikanahalli-hamlet-from-chincholi-wildlife-sanctuary/article69096678.ece
What is the primary purpose of the SCOT mission, recently seen in the news?
To monitor Resident Space Objects (RSOs)
Explanation :
The Prime Minister recently lauded the Indian space startup Digantara at the success of Mission SCOT.
About SCOT Mission:
SCOT (Space Camera for Object Tracking) is Digantara’s (an Indian space startup) inaugural mission dedicated to space surveillance.
It is one of the world’s first commercial Space Situational Awareness (SSA) satellites.
It was launched aboard SpaceX’s Transporter-12 mission.
SCOT is built to track Resident Space Objects (RSOs).
It is purpose-built to monitor smaller RSOs, deliver higher revisit rates, and provide better tracking accuracy—filling a gap left by current systems.
SCOT will be deployed in a sun-synchronous orbit, allowing it to track objects in Low Earth Orbit (LEO) with more efficiency than existing sensors, which are restricted by fields of view (FoV), weather conditions, and geographic limitations.
Unlike these traditional systems, SCOT will ensure surveillance of objects as small as 5 cm orbiting the Earth to ensure safer space operations.
Backed by Aditya Birla Ventures and SIDBI, it aims to support national security and space operations.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.pmindia.gov.in/en/news_updates/pm-lauds-indian-space-startup-digantara-at-the-success-of-mission-scot/?comment=disable
What is ‘Dark Oxygen’?
Oxygen produced below the ocean surface without light or photosynthesis.
Explanation :
Scientists who recently discovered that metal lumps on the dark seabed make oxygen, have announced plans to study the deepest parts of Earth’s oceans in order to understand the strange phenomenon.
About Dark Oxygen:
It is the oxygen that is being produced thousands of feet below the ocean surface, without any light or photosynthesis.
Why is the discovery important?
Until now, it was thought that oxygen was created only through photosynthesis, a process that requires sunlight.
Oceanic plankton, drifting plants, algae, and some bacteria are the primary elements attributed to the production of oxygen in the ocean. All these organisms are capable of photosynthesis.
The production of oxygen at such depths is thought to be impossible because there isn’t enough sunlight for plants to do photosynthesis.
However, in this case, oxygen is not being produced by plants.
The oxygen comes out of Polymetallic nodules that are similar in resemblance to lumps of coal.
These nodules, made up of metals like manganese, iron, cobalt, nickel, copper, and lithium, can generate oxygen through electrochemical activity even in the absence of light.
They are splitting H2O molecules into hydrogen and oxygen.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.bbc.com/news/articles/cq6gg5mnn8eo
Upper Karnali Hydro-electric Project is located in which country?
Nepal
Explanation :
The Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Ltd. (IREDA) has entered into a Joint Venture Agreement with SJVN Ltd., GMR Energy Ltd., and Nepal Electricity Authority (NEA) for the development of the 900 MW Upper Karnali Hydro-electric Project in Nepal.
About Upper Karnali Hydro-electric Project:
It is a 900 MW run-of-the-river hydropower project being developed on the Karnali River in Nepal.
The project will supply power to Nepal, India, and Bangladesh for a contracted period of 25 years.
The project is being developed by GMR Upper Karnali Hydro Power Limited (GUKHL), a subsidiary of GMR Group India, Nepal Electricity Authority (NEA), and SJVN Green Energy.
The project is being developed on a build-own-operate-transfer (BOOT) basis.
GUKHL and NEA are currently owning the project, having ownership stakes of 73% and 27%, respectively.
It is estimated to generate 3,466 million units of electricity while offsetting approximately two million tons of greenhouse gas emissions a year.
It will feature a concrete gravity dam, headrace tunnels, a fish pass, feeder tunnels, surge and pressure shafts, and silt flushing tunnels.
The project consists of 8 turbines, each with 112.5 MW nameplate capacity.
Development status: The project construction is expected to commence from 2027. Subsequent to that it will enter into commercial operation by 2031.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://energy.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/power/ireda-signs-joint-venture-for-900-mw-upper-karnali-hydro-project-in-nepal/117325260
Exercise LA PEROUSE, recently in news, is a:
multinational naval exercise
Explanation :
The indigenously designed and built guided missile destroyer INS Mumbai is participating in the Exercise LA PEROUSE.
It is the fourth edition of the multinational naval exercise.
Participating organizations: This edition will witness participation of personnel/ surface and sub-surface assets from various maritime partners including Royal Australian Navy, French Navy, Royal Navy, United States Navy, Indonesian Navy, Royal Malaysian Navy, Republic of Singapore Navy and Royal Canadian Navy.
It aims to develop common Maritime Situational Awareness by enhancing the cooperation in the field of maritime surveillance, maritime interdiction operations and air operations along with the conduct of progressive training and information sharing.
The exercise provides an opportunity for like-minded navies to develop closer links in planning, coordination and information sharing for enhanced tactical interoperability.
The exercise will witness complex and advanced multi-domain exercises including surface warfare, anti-air warfare, air-defence, cross deck landings and tactical manoeuvres, as also the constabulary missions such as VBSS (Visit, Board, Search and Seizure) operations.
Participation of Indian Navy in the exercise showcases the high levels of synergy, coordination and interoperability between the like-minded navies and their commitment to a rules-based international order in the maritime domain.
This visit is in consonance with India’s vision of SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) to enhance maritime cooperation and collaboration for safer and secure Indo-Pacific Region.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2093998
Consider the following statements regarding the Internet Governance Internship and Capacity Building Scheme:
- It aims to build awareness and develop expertise in internet governance (IG) among Indian citizens.
- It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the National Internet Exchange of India (NIXI) announced the launch of its Internet Governance Internship and Capacity Building Scheme.
This program aims to build awareness and develop expertise in internet governance (IG) among Indian citizens.
It will equip participants with the knowledge to effectively engage in global internet governance processes with I-Star organisations like Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN), Internet Society or Information Security Operations Center (ISOC), Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE), Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) and collaborate closely with leading experts in the field.
It will nurture a pool of domestic talent who can deeply engage with emerging internet governance issues and contribute to their resolution.
Internship program offers
The program offers a bi-annual internship with two parallel tracks: a six-month program and a three-month program.
Each intern will be mentored by subject matter expert from international organizations like ICANN APNIC or APTLD, members from Special Interest Group, high ranked retired government official and faculty advisors from recognized institutions/universities.
A fixed stipend of Rs. 20,000/- per month will be provided to interns along with support to conduct mandatory outreach programs.
Key facts about NIXI:
It is a not-for- profit (Section 8) company which was set up on 19th June 2003 under the aegis of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, Government of India.
It is tasked with increasing internet penetration and adoption in India by facilitating various infrastructure aspects to enable the internet ecosystem to be managed and used by the masses.
The four services under NIXI include: Internet Exchange Points (IXPs) for building Internet Exchange Points, .IN Registry for building the .in domain digital identity, IRINN for IPv4 and IPv6 addresses adoption.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2094000
With reference to Indian Sustainable Natural Rubber (iSNR) Platform, consider the following:
- It streamlines the compliance process and makes it more efficient for stakeholders involved in the rubber supply chain.
- It issues a traceability certificate which will verify the origin of rubber products.
- It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Rubber Board has rolled two new initiatives called iSNR (Indian Sustainable Natural Rubber) and INR Konnect.
It streamlines the compliance process, making it more efficient for stakeholders involved in the rubber supply chain targeting EU markets.
It is designed to facilitate compliance with the European Union Deforestation Regulation (EUDR) for Indian rubber ecosystem
It issues a traceability certificate which will verify the origin of rubber products and confirm its compliance with the EUDR.
Significance: It will position Indian natural rubber as a competitive and responsible choice in the global market, setting new benchmarks for sustainable production and fostering long-term growth for the industry.
What is INR Konnect?
It is a web-based platform which been designed to connect growers of untapped rubber holdings with interested adopters to maximise plantation productivity.
The Board will certify the credibility of all participating parties while also impart training to those enlisted in production management, and sustainable practices on a need basis.
The platform will also offer a comprehensive database of certified tappers.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/rubber-board-rolls-out-isnr-to-boost-global-value-production/article69108235.ece
Hemigobius hoevenii and Mugilogobius tigrinus, recently in news, are:
New fish species
Explanation :
Researchers from the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) discovered two species Hemigobius hoevenii and Mugilogobius tigrinus in the Coringa wildlife sanctuary.
These species are goby fish that had not been recorded in Andhra Pradesh previously.
This discovery is significant as M. tigrinus has been found along the eastern coastline of India for the first time.
Habitat: Most gobies found in estuarine areas, especially around mangroves.
Ecological Significance: They play an important role in the ecosystem. They occupy various levels in the food chain and can also serve as indicators of environmental health.
Of the 135 goby species found along India’s coasts, 95 species are recorded in Indian mangroves, with 53 species found in the Coringa wildlife sanctuary.
Key facts about Goby fish
These are carnivorous species usually small in size, and found throughout the world. Especially abundant in the tropics, they are primarily marine in habit.
Most species are bottom-dwellers and have a weak suction cup formed by the fusion of their pelvic fins.
The majority of species belong to the family Gobiidae.
These are typically elongated, sometimes scaleless fishes found along shores and among reefs in tropical and temperate seas.
Gobies have the greatest impact on the benthic environment since most reside there. Gobies may be the keystone species in the freshwaters of small oceanic islands because they are often one of the few species of fish that exist in these areas.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/vijayawada/two-new-goby-fish-species-found-in-coringa-sanctuary/articleshow/117339993.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Planet Parade:
- It is a situation when several planets in our solar system are visible in the night sky, at the same time.
- It occurs annually during the wintertime.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, four planets in our solar system namely Venus, Saturn, Jupiter, and Mars have formed a breathtaking arc across the night sky and created a rare phenomenon known as ‘planet parade’.
It refers to a situation when several planets in our solar system are visible in the night sky, at the same time.
This planetary meet-up, also known as a conjunction, makes the two planets appear close together or even touch in the Earth’s night sky.
This phenomenon is more an illusion of perspective rather than the planets being in a perfect line in space.
Planets have different motions in the sky. They move at different rates compared to the other stars.
Not all of them are visible in the sky everyday, but sometimes a position comes about so that many or all the planets are visible at the same time, or within a few hours of each other.
According to NASA, such events, especially those involving four or more planets, are noteworthy and do not occur annually.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/ongoing-planet-parade-rare-9783955/
Consider the following statements regarding Fund of Funds for Startups (FFS) Scheme:
- It aims to boost the Indian startup ecosystem and provide access to domestic capital.
- Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) has been given the mandate of operating this fund.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Union Minister for Commerce and Industry recently emphasized that much of the success of the Startup India mission can be attributed to key funding mechanisms, particularly the Fund of Funds for Startups (FFS).
About Fund of Funds for Startups (FFS) Scheme:
It was approved and established in 2016 with a corpus of Rs 10,000 crore, with contribution spread over the 14th and 15th Finance Commission cycle based on progress of implementation.
Objective: To provide much-needed boost to the Indian startup ecosystem and enable access to domestic capital.
The scheme does not directly invest in startups; instead, it provides capital to SEBI-registered Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs), known as daughter funds, who in turn invest money in growing Indian startups through equity and equity-linked instruments.
Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) has been given the mandate of operating this fund through the selection of suitable daughter funds and overseeing the disbursal of committed capital.
AIFs supported under FFS are required to invest at least 2 times the amount committed under FFS in startups.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/startup-india-mission-marks-nine-years-of-growth-and-innovation/
Palamu Tiger Reserve lies in which one of the following States?
Jharkhand
Explanation :
The Jharkhand Forest department has initiated a study to revive the dwindling population of Bison, popularly known as Gaur, at Palamu Tiger Reserve (PTR).
About Palamu Tiger Reserve:
It is located on the western side of the Latehar district on the Chhotanagpur plateau in Jharkhand.
The reserve forms part of the Betla National Park.
It is one of the first nine tiger reserves created in the country at the inception of ‘Project Tiger’.
It is the first reserve in the world in which a tiger census was carried out as a pugmark count as early as 1932 under the supervision of J.W. Nicholson.
Vegetation:
It is primarily dominated by the Northern Tropical Dry Deciduous, Sal Forest and its associates.
Smaller patches of Northern tropical Moist Deciduous forests exist too in the Reserve.
Flora: Shorea robusta, Acacia catechu, Madhuca indica, Terminalia tomentosa, Butea monosperma, Pterocarpus marsupium, Anogeisus latifolia, Indigofera pulchela, etc.
Fauna: The keystone species are Tigers, Elephants, Leopards, Grey Wolf, Gaur, Sloth Bear, Four-horned Antelope, Indian Ratel, Indian Otter, and Indian Pangolin.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/jharkhand/jharkhand-forest-dept-initiates-study-to-revive-dwindling-bison-population-at-ptr-3362524
Consider the following statements regarding the Great Barrier Reef:
- It is a complex of coral reefs, shoal, and islets in the Indian Ocean.
- It is the longest and largest reef complex in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Life on the Great Barrier Reef is experiencing significant shifts caused by climate change and various human-generated factors, according to a recent study.
About Great Barrier Reef (GBR):
It is a complex of coral reefs, shoals, and islets in the Pacific Ocean off the northeastern coast of Australia in the Coral Sea.
It is the longest and largest reef complex in the world.
It is the largest living structure on Earth.
It extends in roughly a northwest-southeast direction for more than 2,000 km, at an offshore distance ranging from 16 to 160 km, and its width ranges from 60 to 250 km.
It has an area of some 350,000 sq.km. It makes up about 10 percent of the world’s coral reef ecosystems.
The reef, which is large enough to be visible from space, is made up of nearly 3,000 individual reefs.
Today the GBR ranges from inshore fringing reefs to mid-shelf reefs, and exposed outer reefs, including examples of all stages of reef development.
These reefs are of two main types: platform reefs formed from radial growths, and wall reefs resulting from elongated growths, often in areas of strong water currents.
There are also fringing reefs on sub-tidal rock of the main coastline or continental islands.
It contains 400 types of coral, 1,500 species of fish, and 4,000 types of mollusks.
It also holds great scientific interest as the habitat of species such as the dugong (‘sea cow’) and the large green turtle, which are threatened with extinction.
Much of the Great Barrier Reef is a marine protected area, managed by the Great Barrier Reef Marine Park Authority of Australia.
UNESCO declared the Great Barrier Reef a World Heritage Site in 1981.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.earth.com/news/fish-diversity-has-changed-dramatically-on-the-great-barrier-reef/
With reference to Krishna River, consider the following:
- Ghatprabha
- Tungabhadra
- Bhima
- Indravati
How many of the above are tributaries of Krishna River?
Only three
Explanation :
About Krishna River:
It is a 1300 km peninsular river of India.
In terms of water inflows and river basins, Krishna is the fourth biggest river after Ganga, Godavari, and Brahmaputra.
It rises in western Maharashtra state in the Western Ghats range near the town of Mahabaleshwar, about 64 km from the Arabian Sea.
It passes through Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh and meets the Bay of Bengal at Hamasaladeevi in Andhra Pradesh, on the east coast.
Its principal tributaries joining from the right are the Ghatprabha, the Malprabha, and the Tungabhadra, whereas those joining from the left are the Bhima, the Musi, and the Munneru.
Indravati is a tributary of the Godavari River.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/telangana-welcomes-kwdt-ii-order-to-base-on-krishna-water-allocation-on-new-terms-of-reference/article69105850.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Indian Grey wolf:
- It is a nocturnal species which inhabits areas dominated by scrub and grasslands.
- It is categorized as critically endangered species under the IUCN Red list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, Indian grey wolf gives birth to eight pups in Karnataka’s first Wolf Sanctuary i.e Bankapur Wolf Sanctuary.
It is a subspecies of grey wolf that ranges from Southwest Asia to the Indian Subcontinent.
It travels in smaller packs and is less vocal than other variants. It is nocturnal and hunt from dusk to dawn.
It is intermediate in size lies between the Tibetan and Arabian wolf, and lacks the former’s luxuriant winter coat due to its living in warmer conditions.
The Indian wolf inhabits areas dominated by scrub, grasslands and semi-arid pastoral agro-ecosystems. They live in warmer conditions.
Conservation Status
IUCN: Least concern
CITES: Appendix 1
Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972: Schedule I
Threat: This species population is getting impacted by Habitat loss and depletion of prey species etc.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/endangered-indian-grey-wolf-gives-birth-to-eight-pups-in-karnatakas-first-wolf-sanctuary/article69115610.ece
World Employment and Social Outlook report, recently seen in the news, is published by:
International Labour Organization
Explanation :
Recently, the International Labour Organization’s (ILO) published the World Employment and Social Outlook (WESO): Trends 2025 in Geneva.
The WESO provides a detailed analysis of the state of global labour markets, highlighting key trends and challenges.
It explores issues such as the slowdown in labour market recovery, the persistence of youth unemployment, and the widening global jobs gap.
Key highlights of the Report:
In 2024, global employment grew in line with the labour force, keeping the unemployment rate steady at 5%.
Geopolitical tensions, the rising costs of climate change and unresolved debt issues are the challenges before the recovery and the reasons for putting labour markets under pressure.
The labour force participation rates have dropped in low-income countries while increasing in high-income nations, mainly among older workers and women, the report pointed out.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/global-labour-market-recovery-slow-india-an-exception-ilo-report/article69105663.ece#:~:text=
Consider the following statements regarding the National Disaster Response Force:
- It was established under the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
- It works under the supervision of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Ministry of Home Affairs attended the 20th Raising Day ceremony of the National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) in Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh.
The NDRF was established under section 44 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
It is aimed at specialized response to natural and man-made disasters.
Initially established in 2006 with 8 Battalions, the NDRF has now expanded to 16 Battalions, drawn from the CAPF, viz Border Security Force, Central Reserve Police Force, Central Industrial Security Force, Indo-Tibetan Border Police, Sashastra Seema Bal and Assam Rifles.
It is a multi-skilled and highly specialist force capable of dealing with all types of natural and man-made disasters like Floods, Cyclone, Earthquakes, Landslides, Building-collapse, Trains and road accidents etc.
It functions under the purview of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) and is headed by a Director General.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2094319®=3&lang=1
With reference to Lake Naivasha, consider the following:
- It is a freshwater lake located in the southern Rift Valley in Kenya.
- It is drained by the River Nile.
- It has been designated as a Ramsar site.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Kenya’s popular Lake Naivasha is getting impacted by the water hyacinth that has taken over large parts of it.
It is a shallow freshwater lake located in the southern Rift Valley in Kenya.
It is considered to be of recent geological origin and is ringed by extinct or dormant volcanoes.
It is fed by the perennial Malewa and Gilgil Rivers, which drain the Aberdare Mountains of central Kenya.
Flora: Cyperus papyrus line much of the shoreline, with variable areas of submerged plants such as Potamogeton species, and floating rafts of the exotic water hyacinth Eichhornia crassipes.
It is supporting a diverse community of waterbirds and many large mammals.
In addition to the invaluable freshwater, it also supports large-scale and vital economic activities, mainly flower growing, fishing and geothermal power generation.
It has been designated as the Ramsar site.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/invasive-water-hyacinth-threatens-fishers-livelihoods-on-popular-kenyan-lake/article69115884.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the World Economic Forum:
- It was established in 1971 as a not-for-profit foundation.
- It publishes the Global Competitiveness Report.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The World Economic Forum (WEF) is holding its Annual Meeting from January 20 to 24 in Davos, Switzerland.
It was established in 1971 as a not-for-profit foundation by German engineer and economist Klaus Schwab. It was originally known as the European Management Forum.
In 1987, the European Management Forum formally became the World Economic Forum and sought to broaden its vision to include providing a platform for dialogue.
It engages organizations and leaders through dialogue, debate and commitments for action in the service of building more future-ready, resilient, inclusive and sustainable economies and societies.
Reports published by the World Economic Forum: Global Competitiveness Report, Global Information Technology Report, Global Gender Gap Report, Global Risks Report, Global Travel and Tourism Report, Global Enabling Trade Report.
It has headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland and offices in New York and San Francisco in the United States, in Beijing, China and in Tokyo, Japan.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/world-economic-forum-davos-9787439/
Piraeus is a port city located in which country?
Greece
Explanation :
Former US President Joe Biden highlighted the potential realization of the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) following the Israel-Hamas ceasefire.
About India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC):
It is a connectivity project that seeks to develop a seamless infrastructure of ports, railways, roads, sea lines, and pipelines to enhance trade among India, the Arabian Peninsula, the Mediterranean region, and Europe.
It was announced in 2023 on the sidelines of the G20 meeting in New Delhi when a memorandum of understanding (MoU) was signed between the European Union and seven countries, namely India, the US, Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates (UAE), France, Germany, and Italy.
The IMEC will comprise two separate corridors, the eastern corridor connecting India to the Arabian Gulf and the northern corridor connecting the Gulf to Europe.
Upon completion, the corridor will have a cost-effective and reliable cross-border railway network, which will be supplemented by the available road transport and maritime routes.
The corridor will include a shipping route connecting Mumbai and Mundra (Gujarat) with the UAE and a rail network connecting the UAE, Saudi Arabia, and Jordan with the Israeli port of Haifa to reach the shores of the Mediterranean Sea.
Haifa will then be connected by sea to the port of Piraeus in Greece to eventually be connected to Europe.
In addition, along the corridor, the countries will also lay the network of electricity grids, optical fiber cable for digital connectivity, and pipeline for the transportation of hydrogen gas.
It intends to increase efficiency, reduce costs, secure regional supply chains, increase trade accessibility, enhance economic cooperation, generate jobs, and lower greenhouse gas emissions.
The corridor will be supported by the Partnership for Global Infrastructure and Investment (PGII), a US-led initiative to bridge the infrastructure gap in developing countries.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/with-gaza-deal-imec-corridor-can-become-reality-joe-biden/articleshow/117284516.cms?from=mdr
Which among the following best describes Australopithecus, recently seen in the news?
A genus of extinct primates.
Explanation :
Australopithecus had a variable but plant-based diet, according to an analysis of stable isotope data from seven hominin specimens dating back 3.5 million years from Sterkfontein in South Africa.
About Australopithecus:
Australopithecus, (genus Australopithecus) is a group of extinct primates known from a series of fossils found at numerous sites in eastern, north-central, and southern Africa.
They are the closest known relatives of our genus, Homo.
The various species of Australopithecus lived 4.4 million to 1.4 million years ago (mya), during the Pliocene and Pleistocene epochs (which lasted from 5.3 million to 11,700 years ago).
The genus name, meaning “southern ape,” refers to the first fossils found, which were discovered in South Africa.
Perhaps the most famous specimen of Australopithecus is “Lucy,” a remarkably preserved fossilized skeleton from Ethiopia that has been dated to 3.2 mya.
Features:
As characterized by the fossil evidence, members of Australopithecus bore a combination of human-like and ape-like traits.
Members of this species had apelike face proportions (a flat nose, a strongly projecting lower jaw) and braincase (with a small brain, usually less than 500 cubic centimeters - about 1/3 the size of a modern human brain), and long, strong arms with curved fingers adapted for climbing trees.
They also had small canine teeth like all other early humans, and a body that stood on two legs and regularly walked upright.
They were roughly 1.2-1.5 m tall and probably weighed about 30-50 kg.
Males were almost twice the size of females, a level of difference, or sexual dimorphism, greater than modern chimpanzees or humans but less than gorillas or orangutans.
They had mainly a plant-based diet, including leaves, fruit, seeds, roots, nuts, and insects.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.sci.news/othersciences/anthropology/australopithecus-diet-13591.html#google_vignette
Consider the following statements regarding the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL):
- It is a statutory body constituted under the Environmental Protection Act, 1986.
- It is chaired by the Union Minister of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) has denied the Uttarakhand government’s proposal for soapstone mining near Kedarnath Wildlife Sanctuary, a habitat for endangered species.
About National Board for Wildlife (NBWL):
It is constituted by the Central Government under Section 5A of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (WLPA).
The board was constituted through an amendment of the WLPA in 2022.
It replaced the Indian Board for Wildlife, which was formed in 1952.
NBWL is India’s top-level advisory body to the government on matters pertaining to wildlife conservation, particularly within Protected Areas (PAs).
It is responsible for guiding the government’s decisions on matters related to wildlife conservation and issuing approvals for projects in PAs.
The WLPA mandates that, without the approval/recommendation of the NBWL, construction of tourist lodges, alteration of the boundaries of PAs, destruction or diversion of wildlife habitat, and de-notification of Tiger Reserves cannot be done.
Organisation Structure:
It is a 47-member committee, headed by the Prime Minister and the Minister of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change as vice chairperson.
In addition to offices and institutions directly involved in conservation and protection of wildlife, the NBWL also has the chief of army staff, defence secretary, expenditure secretary to the Government of India as members.
Further, the central government nominates 10 members who are eminent conservationists, ecologists, and environmentalists.
The Additional Director General of Forests (WL) & Director, Wildlife Preservation is the Member-Secretary to the Board.
Standing Committee of NBWL:
It is an independent body under NBWL.
It comprises not more than 10 members of the NBWL.
The Minister of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change chairs the Standing Committee.
The Standing Committee is completely a project clearance body, while NBWL is a policy decision body that advices and takes part in Central Government’s policies related to wildlife protection.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/wildlife-board-nixes-mining-plan-near-kedarnath-sanctuary/articleshow/117379672.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the NASAMS (National Advanced Surface-to-Air Missile System):
- It is a long-range intercontinental ballistic missile system.
- It was developed jointly by the United States and Norway.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Taiwan recently announced that its newly purchased, cutting-edge, battle-proven National Advanced Surface-to-Air Missile Systems (NASAMS) will be deployed in North Taiwan to protect the capital, Taipei.
About NASAMS (National Advanced Surface-to-Air Missile System):
It is a medium-range, ground-based air defense system.
It was designed and developed jointly by Raytheon (United States) and Kongsberg Defence & Aerospace (Norway).
NASAMS reached operational capability in 1994 and was first deployed by the Royal Norwegian Air Force.
The missile system is in service in the armed forces of 13 countries, including Norway, Spain, the US, Finland, Hungary, the Netherlands, Australia, Indonesia, Qatar, Oman, Lithuania, and an undisclosed nation.
The NASAMS can be deployed to identify, engage, and destroy aircraft, helicopters, cruise missiles, and unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs) and to protect high-value assets and mass population centers against air-to-surface threats.
It has been integrated into the US National Capital Region’s air defense system since 2005.
Features:
It is the world’s first networked short- and medium-range air defense system that could integrate with other equipment and air defense systems.
It features an X-Band, 360-degree phased array air defense radar with a 75-kilometer (approximately 47-mile) range to identify targets.
The NASAMS is armed with three launchers, each carrying up to six missiles.
The system can engage 72 targets simultaneously in active and passive modes.
It uses AIM-120 AMRAAM air-to-air missiles, which have been modified for ground launch and have an engagement range of about 30 kilometers.
It features network-centric, open architecture that provides increased survivability against electronic countermeasures.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.eurasiantimes.com/e-surface-to-air-missiles-that-protect-capitol-hill/
With reference to Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs), consider the following statements:
- They purchase the bad debts of a bank at a mutually agreed value and attempt to recover those debts by itself.
- ARCs are registered under the RBI and regulated under the SARFAESI Act, 2002.
- ARCs raise the majority of their money by way of deposits.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently issued new rules aimed at streamlining and tightening the settlement process for dues payable by borrowers to Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs).
About Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs):
An ARC is a specialized financial institution that purchases the bad debts of a bank at a mutually agreed value and attempts to recover those debts or associated securities by itself.
ARCs help banks clean up their balance sheets by acquiring financial assets from banks and financial institutions through auctions or bilateral negotiations.
ARCs are registered under the RBI and regulated under the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Securities Interest Act, 2002 (SARFAESI Act, 2002).
They function under the supervision and control of the RBI.
As per the RBI, ARC performs the functions namely Acquisition of financial assets, Change or takeover of Management or Sale or Lease of Business of the Borrower, Rescheduling of Debts, Enforcement of Security Interest and Settlement of dues payable by the borrower.
ARCs take over a portion of the bank’s debts, which qualify as Non-Performing Assets (NPAs). Therefore, ARCs are involved in the business of asset reconstruction, securitisation, or both.
All the rights previously held by the lender (the bank) in regard to the debt are transferred to the ARC.
The required funds to purchase such debts can be raised from Qualified Buyers.
Qualified Buyers include Financial Institutions, Insurance companies, Banks, State Financial Corporations, State Industrial Development Corporations, trustee or ARCs registered under SARFAESI and Asset Management Companies registered under SEBI that invest on behalf of mutual funds, pension funds, FIIs, etc.
The Qualified Buyers are the only persons from whom the ARC can raise funds.
ARCs are prohibited from raising money by way of deposit.
To commence the business of securitisation or asset reconstruction, an ARC is required to have a minimum net owned fund (NOF) of Rs 300 crore and thereafter, on an ongoing basis.
They are also mandated to maintain a capital adequacy ratio of a minimum of 15% of its total risk-weighted assets.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/finance/news/rbi-arc-asset-reconstruction-company-mandate-borrower-settlements-125012000740_1.html
SSI Mantra, recently in news, is a:
surgical tele-robotic system
Explanation :
India’s first indigenous surgical tele-robotic system, SSI Mantra successfully conducted two complex heart surgeries with patient in Jaipur and the operating surgeon in Gurgaon.
SSI Mantra is a robotic system developed by medical technology company, SSI Ltd which is the first-of-its-kind system in India.
It has been approved by the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) in India under Class B and Class C surgical devices.
These approvals affirm the safety, efficacy, and regulatory compliance of the system for use in hospitals across India.
It facilitates complex surgery such as Totally Endoscopic Coronary Artery Bypass (TECAB).
Advantages: The advantages include reduced time of operation, better precision, minimal operation trauma to the body in terms of incision, blood loss, recovery time and chances of infection.
Challenges:
Latency time, ensuring good connectivity, anticipating and being prepared for medical and technical problems are the challenges associated with the procedure.
It is involved higher costs – both capital as well as operating and these facilities are more available in metro and tier-1 cities.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/two-complex-heart-surgeries-over-a-distance-of-286-km/article69113071.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Kalaripayattu:
- It is one of the oldest and most scientific martial art forms in the world
- It is widely practiced in Kerala and consists of Vattenthirippu Style and Arappukkai Style.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Kerala’s martial art form Kalaripayattu has become a bone of contention ahead of the 38th edition of the National Games which is scheduled to commence from January 28 in Uttarakhand.
It is one of the oldest and most scientific martial art forms in the world, aimed at mind and body coordination.
It originated and is widely practiced in Kerala. The term “Kalari” in Malayalam refers to a traditional gymnasium where this martial art, known as Payattu, is taught.
According to mythology, the warrior sage Parasurama is credited with establishing Kalarippayattu.
The four stages of Kalaripayattu are:
Maippayattu: It is the body conditioning phase where the person is schooled to prepare their body for a fight. Only after qualifying this stage can the practitioner proceed to the next phase of training.
Kolthari: In this stage, a person is taught attack and self-defense with the help of wooden weapons such as short sticks, and long sticks.
Angathari: Once the person overcomes the fear of fighting with wooden weapons, sharp metal objects are introduced — in the third stage.
Verumkai: This stage includes research-based bare-hand fighting. Students are taught body anatomy so that they know what points they can hit and what they cannot.
The main ethnic styles of Kalarippayattu found in the three regions of northern Kerala (Malabar) are: Vattenthirippu Style, Arappukkai Style and Pillathangi Style.
It is believed that Kalarippayattu was introduced to China at the Shaolin Temple in the 5th century AD by Bodhidharma, who was originally from Thanjavore, a cultural center that was part of Kerala but is now in Tamil Nadu.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/38th-national-games-tussle-over-kalaripayattus-removal-from-competition-list-9786314/
With reference to Entity Locker, consider the following:
- It is a secure, cloud-based solution that simplifies the storage and verification of documents for a wide range of entities.
- It is developed by the National eGovernance Division of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
- It can only be integrated with the Goods and Services Tax Network.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The National eGovernance Division (NeGD), under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has developed Entity Locker.
It is a secure, cloud-based solution that simplifies the storage, sharing, and verification of documents for a wide range of entities, including large organisations, corporations, micro, small, and medium Enterprises (MSMEs), trusts, startups and societies.
It is designed to transform the management and verification of business/organisation documents.
The platform is a critical component of India’s Digital Public Infrastructure, aligning with the vision of the Union Budget 2024-25 for enhanced digital governance and ease of doing business.
It is built on a robust technological framework that integrates with multiple government and regulatory systems,
It offers:
Real-time access and verification of documents through integration with government databases
Consent-based mechanisms for secure sharing of sensitive information
Aadhaar-authenticated role-based access management to ensure accountability
10 GB of encrypted cloud storage for secure document management
Legally valid digital signatures for authenticating documents
Benefits
Streamlines document sharing and access with partners and stakeholders
Built-in features simplify adherence to regulations and reporting requirements
Ensures accountability by tracking all document-related activities
Consolidates storage and security to reduce administrative overhead
Minimizes document processing times and operational bottlenecks
Seamless integration with Government organisations
It provides seamless integration with systems such as the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, the Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN), the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) and other regulatory institutions provides businesses instant access to critical documents.
It supports various use cases, including: Vendor verification on the procurement portal, expedited loan applications for MSMEs, FSSAI compliance documentation, vendor verification during registration in GSTN, MCA and tendering process, streamlined corporate annual filings
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2094574
Consider the following statements regarding Contract Farming:
- It is agreement between farmers and buyers on the terms and conditions for the production and marketing of farm products.
- It will help farmers in generating more stable income and better planning.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India has emerged as a major exporter of French Fries, which owes much to contract farming through which companies procuring potato directly from growers and deepening farmer engagement.
It is an agreement between farmers (producers) and buyers in which both agree in advance on the terms and conditions for the production and marketing of farm products.
These conditions usually specify the price to be paid to the farmer, the quantity and quality of the product demanded by the buyer, and the date for delivery to buyers.
In some cases the contract may also include more detailed information on how the production will be carried out or if inputs such as seeds, fertilizers and technical advice will be provided by the buyer.
Advantages to farmers
Financial support: Easier access to inputs, services and credit.
It will help in improved production and management skills.
Secure market or access new markets.
It helps in reduction of price-related risks.
It will generate more stable income and helps in better planning.
Introduction of new technologies.
Concerns of farmers
Flexibility issue: Loss of flexibility to sell to alternative buyers when prices increase.
Possible delays in payments and late delivery of inputs.
Risk of indebtedness from loans provided by the buyer.
Impact on environment: It creates environmental risks from growing only one type of crop.
Unequal bargaining power between farmers and buyers.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/french-fries-export-contract-farming-win-win-9787669/
With reference to Midges, consider the following:
- These are tiny insects which are more closely related to mosquitoes in their feeding habits.
- These are known to transmit the blue tongue disease virus to livestock.
- These are endemic to the African countries.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Researchers from the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) have identified 23 species of blood-sucking flies (Midges), 13 of them recorded for the first time in the country, in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
These are tiny insects which are similar in appearance to flies but are more closely related to mosquitoes in their feeding habits.
They belong to the Culicoides genus and are locally called bhusi files.
Food habit: These flies feed on the blood of livestock such as sheep, goats, and cattle, as well as wild animals like deer.
Amongst them five species are known to transmit the bluetongue disease virus which is a condition that can be fatal to livestock.
Bluetongue disease manifests through symptoms including blue discolouration of the tongue, fever, facial swelling, and excessive salivation.
It can potentially lead to death in affected animals and poses a significant threat to livestock farming and the agricultural economy.
The study, conducted in 2022 and 2023, revealed that 17 of the 23 species identified are known to bite humans, although no human disease transmission has been reported.
The 13 new species recorded for India are C. barnetti, C. gouldi, C. flaviscutellaris, C. flavipunctatus, C. hui, C. histrio, C. guttifer, C. perornatus, C. okinawensis, C. quatei, C. obscurus, C. coronalis, and C. kusaiensis.
The Indian Culicoides fauna now includes 93 valid species, many of which are recognised as confirmed or potential vectors of important pathogens of animal health.
Key facts about Culicoides
Distribution: It is a large genus of the family Ceratopogonidae with cosmopolitan distribution excluding New Zealand and Antarctica, includes species that are among the smallest haematophagous members of the order Diptera.
The midges of this family are gaining significant attention due to their role as vectors of almost 60 viruses, 40 protozoans, and 24 filarial nematodes, impacting not only livestock and wildlife but also humans.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/23-species-of-blood-sucking-flies-recorded-in-andaman-nicobar-islands/article69115378.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Jahandar Shah’s reign:
- He granted only Chauth and not Sardeshmukhi of the Deccan area to the Maratha rulers.
- He abolished Jizyah and the Ijara system of farming.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
During Jahandar Shah’s reign, the administration was virtually in Zulfiqar Khan’s hands. Zulfiqar made a private arrangement with Daud Khan Panni leading to granting Chauth and Sardeshmkhi of the Deccan to the Maratha ruler. So statement 1 is not correct.
He also abolished Jizyah but encouraged the ijarah system or revenue farming. Under ijarah, the govt began to contract with revenue farmers and intermediaries to pay the govt a fixed amount of money. At the same time, they were free to collect whatever they could from the peasant. So statement 2 is not correct.
With reference to the features of Ganas or Sanghas during ancient India, which of the following statements is/ are correct?
- They were closely associated with Kshatriya varna.
- They were oligarchies but ruled by hereditary monarchs.
- They were generally situated in the foothills of the Himalayas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
The ganas were closely associated with the Kshatriyas and were named after the ruling Kshatriya clan; members were linked to each other through real or claimed kinship ties. However, apart from this hereditary elite, various other groups—Brahmanas, farmers, artisans, wage labourers, slaves, etc.—lived in these principalities and had a subordinate status, politically, economically and socially. So, statement 1 is correct.
Though not democracies, governance in these polities was certainly marked by a corporate element. Power was vested in the hands of an aristocracy comprising the heads of leading Kshatriya families. There was no single hereditary monarch. Instead, there was a chief (known variously as ganapati, gana-jyestha, ganaraja, or sanghamukhya) and an aristocratic council. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Most of the ganas, especially the politically important ones, were located in or near the Himalayan foothills in eastern India, while the major kingdoms occupied the fertile alluvial tracts of the Ganga valley. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements:
- The Rummindei Inscription mentions the effects of the Kalinga War on Ashoka.
- As an effect of the Kalinga war, Ashoka embraced Buddhism under the influence of Buddhist monk Upagupta.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Rummindei Pillar Inscription mentions the exemption of taxes for Lumbini village by Ashoka as Lord Buddha was born there. The effects of the Kalinga war were described by Ashoka himself in the Rock edict XIII. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Another most important effect of the Kalinga war was that Asoka embraced
Buddhism under the influence of Buddhist monk Upagupta.
So, statement 2 is correct.
With reference to the agrarian structure in medieval India, consider the following statements:
- Richer Peasants or peasant proprietors were termed khud-kasht.
- Pahi-kasht were tenant cultivators who migrated from other villages.
- Those cultivators who did not have lands of their own were known as muzarian.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
The village population comprised different sections and categories of people, each with different functions and status. The superior section of the village society was composed of zamindars, muqaddams, chaudhari, qanungo (rural aristocracy). They owed their status partly to hereditary superior right in land and partly to their position in the apparatus of revenue administration.
Peasants were not a homogeneous group. The rich peasants often formed part of the rural elite. They were commonly termed as khud-kasht, kalantaran, or paltis and halmir in Persian documents. They possessed their own granary, well, house, and ploughs. They used to get their land cultivated with the help of hired labour in addition to their family labour. So, statement 1 is correct.
Pahis (their counterpart in the Deccan was upari) were not the resident cultivator but they were peasants cultivating the lands in villages other than their own. Usually they were the migrants from the neighbouring villages/parganas to the villages either deserted or where cultivable land was available. They were generally assessed at concessional rates (1/3 of the produce). The village patel (village headmen) normally played an important role in bringing these new asamis (pahis). State encouraged the pahis to settle in new villages. In such cases ploughs, oxen, manure and money were provided by the state. So, statement 2 is correct.
Those cultivators who did not have lands of their own were known as muzarian. The muzarian were the tenants who used to cultivate the land of superior castes/ landholders. They also served as state sponsored tenants. In that case they were asked to cultivate surplus lands or abandoned lands. In the village there were also share-croppers. They were referred to in Rajasthani documents as sanjhedars. So, statement 3 is correct.
Which of the following are the features of Gandhara School of art?
- It originated and flourished under the patronage of Kushanas.
- Its theme is Indian but the style has Greco-Roman elements.
- Buddha images have curly hair and muscular body.
- The sculptures were made using red sandstone.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The Gandhara school flourished between the 1st and 5th centuries CE; it continued till the 7th in parts of Kashmir and Afghanistan. The best of the Gandhara sculptures was produced during the first and second centuries CE. It originated during the reign of Indo-Greek rulers but the real patrons of this school of art were the Sakas and the
Kushans, particularly Kanishka. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The Gandhara school shows a marked syncretism. Its themes were Indian but its style Greco-Roman. Images of Buddhas and bodhisattvas were favourite themes. Hence it is sometimes referred to as Greco-Buddhist art. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Greco-Roman influence is clear in the facial features and curly or wavy hair, the muscular body, and the fine, deeply delineated folds of the robes. So, statement 3 is correct.
Most of the Gandhara sculptures are made of stone. In the beginning, blue schist and green phyllite were the main materials used by sculptors. Stucco (lime plaster) began to be used in the 1st century CE, and it had almost completely replaced stone by the 3rd century. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the societal structure during the Gupta period:
- The status of women started improving
- Evidence of the practice of Sati has been found
- The position of Shudras started to improve marginally
Which of the statements given above are correct?
. 2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The structure of the society was undergoing a change in the Gupta period. Women had the right to stridhana. The free representation of females in art also suggests no purdah system in society. However, the overall status of women continued to decline in the Gupta period. The main reason for the subordination of women was their complete dependence on men for their livelihood. The women were not entitled to inherit property. The first evidence of Sati in India also comes from the Gupta era. So, statement 1 is not correct.
There is evidence of the presence of sati system. The first evidence of sati (immolation of widow) is found in an inscription (AD 510) at Eran in Madhya Pradesh. In the Harshacarita of Bana, the queen performs sati on the death of her husband, king Prabhakaravardhana. Even Rajyashri, sister of Harsha was about to perform sati when Harsha rescued her. So, statement 2 is correct.
The position of shudras, however, improved somewhat during this period. They were allowed to listen to the epics and the Puranas. They could also perform some domestic rituals that were earlier prohibited for them. In the seventh century, Hsuan Tsang calls Shudras as agriculturists and the vaishyas as traders. A distinction was made between Shudras and untouchables, the latter being treated lower in status than the Shudras. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements with regard to Gupta ruler Samudragupta:
His achievements are recorded in the Hathigumpha inscription at Udayagiri caves.
He celebrated his conquests by performing Ashvamedha and by issuing commemorative coins.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Chandragupta was succeeded by his son Samudragupta (A.D. 335–375). Samudragupta followed a policy of conquest and enormously enlarged his kingdom. His achievements are recorded in a long inscription (prashasti), written in pure Sanskrit by his court poet Harisena. The inscription is engraved on a Pillar at Allahabad. It enumerates the people and the regions conquered by Samudragupta. Hathigumpha inscription at Udayagiri caves is the main source of information about Kalinga ruler Kharavela. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Samudragupta celebrated his conquests by performing a horse sacrifice (ashvamedha) and by issuing ashvamedha type of coins (the coins portraying the scene of sacrifice) on the occasion. Samudragupta was not only a conqueror but also a poet, a musician and a patron of learning. His love for music is attested by his coins representing him playing on a vina (lute). So, statement 2 is correct.
2 only
Explanation :
Akbar Shah II (1806-37): He gave the title of Raja to Rammohan Roy. In 1835, the coins bearing the names of Mughal emperors were stopped. The Battle of Plassey was fought in the year of 1757. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
Farrukhsiyar (1713-1719): After killing Jahandar Shah with the help of Sayyid brothers—Abdulla Khan and Hussain Ali (known as ‘King Makers’), Farrukhsiyar became the new emperor. He followed a policy of religious tolerance by abolishing Jizya and the pilgrimage tax. In 1717, he gave farmans to the British. In 1719, the Sayyid brothers, with the help of Peshwa Balaji Vishwanath, dethroned Farrukhsiyar. Later, he was blinded and killed. It was the first time in Mughal history that an emperor was killed by his nobles. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Alamgir II (1754-1758): He was a grandson of Jahandar Shah. Ahmed Shah Abdali, the Iranian invader, reached Delhi in January 1757. During his reign, the Battle of Plassey was fought in June 1757. Akbar Shah II (1806-37) gave the title of Raja to Ram Mohan Roy. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
In the context of the early Vedic period gana, grama, and sardha refer to
tribal groups performing the military functions
Explanation :
The king in the early Vedic period did not maintain any regular or standing army, but in times of war, he mustered a militia whose military functions were performed by different tribal groups called gana, grama, sardha etc. By and large it was a tribal system of government in which the military element was strong. There was no civil system or territorial administration because people were in a state of perpetual expansion, migrating from one area to another.
Units of political and territorial organization during the early Vedic period were Rashtra (the nation), Jana (the people), vis (the clan), grama (the Village) and kula (the family).
Vrajapati was the officer who enjoyed authority over the pasture ground.
There is no evidence of any officer concerned with the tax collection in the early Vedic period.
2 and 4 only
Explanation :
Larger kingdoms were formed during the later Vedic period. Many jana or tribes were amalgamated to form janapadas or rashtras in the later Vedic period. Hence the royal power had increased along with the increase in the size of the kingdom. The king performed various rituals and sacrifices to strengthen his position.
The rajasuya was the royal consecration ceremony. Apart from a number of agrarian fertility rites, it included a ritual cattle raid, in which the rajan raided the cattle of his kinsmen, and also a game of dice, which the king won. At a larger, symbolic level, in the rajasuya, the king was presented as standing in the centre of the cyclical processes of regeneration of the universe. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
The Agnihotra was a simple domestic sacrifice, to be performed daily by the head of a dvija household. Also called daiva yajna, havana or homa, it is the Vedic way of purifying the atmosphere by fumigating clarified butter, grains, odoriferous substances, dried cow-dung cakes, herbal powder and sticks of specified trees, along with the chanting of mantras. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
The vajapeya sacrifice was connected with the attainment of power and prosperity, and also contained a number of fertility rites. It included a ritualchariot race in which the rajan raced against his kinsmen and defeated them. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
The ashvamedha was a horse sacrifice associated with claims to political paramountcy and incorporated several fertility rites as well. So, pair 4 is correctly matched.
With reference to the Later Vedic Period, consider the following statements:
- The importance of the Samiti and the Sabha had diminished during this period.
- Vajapeya and Rajasuya sacrifices were performed to strengthen the status of the King.
- The concept of private property emerged for the first time as the control of the clan over resources declined.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The period between 1500 B.C and 600 B.C is divided into the Early Vedic Period or Rig Vedic Period (1500 B.C -1000 B.C) and the Later Vedic Period (1000 B.C -600 B.C).
In the later Vedic period, a large number of new officials were involved in the administration in addition to the existing purohita, senani and gramani. They include the treasury officer, tax collector and royal messenger. At the lower levels, the administration was carried on by the village assemblies. The importance of the Samiti and the Sabha had diminished during the later Vedic period. So, statement 1 is correct.
Later Vedic texts reflect a transition from a tribal polity based on lineage to a territorial state. Larger kingdoms were formed during the later Vedic period. Hence the royal power had increased along with the increase in the size of the kingdom. The king performed various rituals and sacrifices to strengthen his position. They include Rajasuya (consecration ceremony), Asvamedha (horse sacrifice) and Vajpeya (chariot race). So, statement 2 is correct.
During the Later Vedic period land was occupied by extended families, and the clan seems to have exercised general rights over land. The notion of individual private property ownership is associated with the right to buy, sell, gift, bequeath, and mortgage, had not yet emerged. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the reign of Harshavardhana:
- Like the Gupta period, punishments were not severe in his reign.
- Women’s position was strengthened by rights like choosing a husband and widow remarriage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Cruel punishments of the Mauryan period continued in the times of Harsha. Hiuen Tsang condemned the trials as barbarous and superstitious. He said that criminal punishment was severe and offenders were imprisoned, as well as there was trial by ordeal. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The position of women was not satisfactory. The institution of Swayamvara (the choice of choosing her husband) had declined. Remarriage of widows was not permitted, particularly among the higher castes. The system of dowry had also become common. The practice of Sati was also prevalent. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements:
- Nalanda University was founded by the Pushyabhuti ruler Harshavardhana.
- Nalanda University was a centre of Mahayana Buddhism, while Valabhi University was a centre of Hinayana Buddhism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Chinese travellers of ancient India mentioned a number of educational institutions. The most famous among them were the Hinayana University of Valabhi and the Mahayana University of Nalanda. So, statement 2 is correct.
Hiuen Tsang gives a very valuable account of Nalanda University. The term Nalanda means“giver of knowledge”. It was founded by Kumaragupta I during the Gupta period. It was patronised by his successors and later by Harsha. The professors of the University were called panditas. Some of its renowned professors were Dingnaga, Dharmapala, Sthiramati and Silabadhra. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Kachari kingdom:
- It was a medieval kingdom based in Odisha.
- It is also known as the Dimasa kingdom as the rulers belonged to the Dimasa tribe of the present Chhattisgarh state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Kachari kingdom was a powerful kingdom in medieval Assam. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Kachari kingdom was also known as Dimasa kingdom as the rulers belonged to the Dimasa tribe who are part of the Greater Kachari ethnic group. Dimasa tribe is an indigenous, ethnolinguistic community living in Assam & Nagaland. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Adi Shankaracharya:
- He was born in Kalady, Kerala in 788 AD.
- He propagated the Dvaita Vedanta School of philosophy.
- He established Akhaya System to prepare a warrior class that could fight for Hinduism against foreign invaders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Adi Sankaracharya’s birthplace likely to be declared as a national monument. The National Monuments Authority chairman said that they shall prepare a detailed report on the significance of Adi Sankaracharya’s birthplace, which dates back to the early eighth century and submits it to the ASI for due consideration.
About Adi Shankaracharya
Adi Shankaracharya was an Indian philosopher and theologian who was born in Kalady, Kerala in 788 AD. So, statement 1 is correct.
Adi Shankaracharya propagated the philosophy called “Advaita Vedanta”.
Advaita Vedanta refers to the non-dualistic school of Hindu philosophy, which is derived mostly from the Upanishads.
The term comes from the Sanskrit Advaita, meaning “not two,” Veda, meaning “knowledge,” and Anta, meaning “end” or “goal”.
Advaita School believes that Brahman (Universe) is the one and only reality and everything else is a mere appearance, projection, formation or illusion.
Dvaita Vedanta is a sub-school in the Vedanta tradition of Hindu philosophy that was founded by the 13th-century scholar Madhvacharya. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Adi Shankaracharya is believed to have established Akhara System to prepare a warrior class that could fight for Hinduism against foreign invaders. The word ‘akhara’ literally means a wrestling arena. The reason behind creating a force of monks and seers was that they would not have a family of their own, and hence would not be weakened by materialistic desires. So, statement 3 is correct.
With reference to the observations of Megasthenes, consider the following statements:
- Slavery and usury were absent in India during the Mauryan period.
- There was no famine in the Mauryan empire and peace and prosperity prevailed.
- Pataliputra had a well-developed municipal administration.
- Indians worshipped Lord Shiva and Krishna.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
Megasthenes was the ambassador of the Bactrian king Selecus Nicator in the court of Chandragupta Maurya who stayed in India from 304 BC to 299 BC. Megasthenes informs in his book Indica that there was no slavery and practice of usury in India during the Mauryan period. So, statement 1 is correct.
He informs that there exists no famine in India, peace and prosperity prevails throughout the extent of the Mauryan empire. So, statement 2 is correct.
Pataliputra city was surrounded by a wooden palisade and had a well-developed municipal administration managed by various officials such as Nagaraka, Adhyaksha, Paanyadhyaksha etc. So, statement 3 is correct.
He informs that Indians during the Mauryan period worshipped Dionysius (Lord Shiva) and Heracles (Lord Krishna). So, statement 4 is correct.
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Shivaji’s (Maratha) system of administration was largely borrowed from the administrative practices of the Deccani states. Although he designated eight ministers, sometimes called the Ashtapradhan, it was not like a council of ministers, each minister being directly responsible to the ruler.
The most important ministers were the Peshwas, who looked after the finances and general administration, and the Sar-i-naubat (Senapati) which was a post of honour and was generally given to one of the leading Maratha chiefs. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Majumdar was the accountant, while the Wakenavis was responsible for intelligence, posts and household affairs. The Surunavis or Chitnis helped the king with his correspondence. The Dabir was master of ceremonies and also helped the king in his dealings with foreign powers. The Nyayadhish and Panditrao were in charge of justice and charitable grants. So, statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements about Mughal emperor Bahadur Shah:
- He adopted a non-conciliatory approach towards the Sikh Guru Gobind Singhji.
- He led the campaign against the Sikh rebels and recovered the Lohgarh fort.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Bahadur Shah tried to conciliate the rebellious Sikhs by making peace with Guru Gobind Singhji and gave him a high mansab. So, statement 1 is not correct.
But after the death of Guru Gobind Singhji, Banda Bahadur rebelled and Bahadur Shah himself led the campaign against him and recovered the Lohgrah Fort in 1712. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Harappan Art:
- Dancing girl made of Steatite was found at Harappa.
- Unicorn was the most frequently depicted animal on Harappan seals.
- Seal depicting Mother Goddess with plants growing from her womb was found at Rakhigarhi.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The stone sculpture of a dancing girl made of steatite is found at Harappa. And the dancing girl made of bronze is found at Mohenjo Daro which is the oldest bronze sculpture in the whole world. So, statement 1 is correct.
Unicorn was the most commonly depicted animal on the Harappan seals. Fish was the most common zoomorphic sign depicted. Other animals which were depicted on Harappan seals are Elephant, bull, tiger, rhinoceros, antelope and crocodile. So, statement 2 is correct.
Seal depicting the Mother Goddess with plants growing from her womb is found at Mohenjodaro. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Jorwe culture belongs to the:
Chalcolithic Period
Explanation :
In the later phase of the Chalcolithic period (1300-1000 BC) there were houses with 5 rooms, four rectangular and one circular suggesting that families were large. Settlements became stable and widespread in this phase, which is called the Jorwe culture.
The culture is so called, Jorwe, because its type-site is provided by Jorwe, a 38 village situated on the Pravata river. A good number of sites possess the traits of the Jorwe culture. Every Jorwe village was a nucleated settlement with more than 35 houses of different sizes, circular or rectangular. The Chalcolithic economy, therefore, was a village economy.
Hallur, Barudih, Sangana-kallu and Nagarjunakonda are related to
sites associated with the Neolithic phase in India.
Neolithic, also called New Stone Age, is the final stage of cultural evolution or technological development among prehistoric humans. It was characterized by stone tools shaped by polishing or grinding, dependence on domesticated plants or animals, settlement in permanent villages, and the appearance of such crafts as pottery and weaving. The Neolithic followed the Paleolithic Period, or the age of chipped-stone tools, and preceded the Bronze Age, or early period of metal tools.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Harappan Civilization:
- There was existence of multi-cropping as evidences has been discovered from the area.
- People used to consume multigrain and high-protein laddoos.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The prevalence of agriculture is indicated by finds of grain in excavations. Moreover, terracotta models of the plough have been found at sites in Cholistan and at Banawali (Haryana). Archaeologists have also found evidence of a ploughed field at Kalibangan (Rajasthan), associated with Early Harappan levels. The field had two sets of furrows at right angles to each other, suggesting that two different crops were grown together. So, statement 1 is correct.
Seven laddoos were discovered during the excavation of a Harappan archaeological site in 2017 at Binjor in western part of Rajasthan and were given to the Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeosciences (BSIP), Lucknow, for scientific analysis. According to a new scientific study, the Harappan people used to consume high-protein multigrain “laddoos” around 4,000 years ago. Two figurines of bulls and a hand-held copper adze (a tool similar to an axe, used for cutting or shaping wood) were also excavated. So, statement 2 is correct.
Which of the following Harappan cities specialised in shell working?
- Chanhudaro
- Balakot
- Amri
- Kot Diji
- Dholavira
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 2 and 5 only
Explanation :
Making shell objects was an important Harappan craft. Beads, bracelets, Bangles and decorative inlay work of shell have been discovered from many cities. Chanhudaro and Balakot were important centres of shell work.
Further evidence of site specialisation comes from Gujarat. An intensive surface survey and excavations at Nageshwar (in Jamnagar district) have shown that this site was exclusively devoted to shell-working and specialised in making bangles.
Evidence of shell working also comes from Kuntasi, Dholavira, Rangpur, Lothal, Nagwada, and Bagasra. This craft was clearly very important in the Gujarat region of the Harappan culture zone.
With reference to Harappan civilisation, consider the following statements:
- The architecture of Dholavira shows a large-scale use of sandstone.
- Lothal includes a large open area called the stadium within the citadel complex.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Dholavira is located on Kadir island in the Rann of Kutch in Gujarat. The architecture of Dholavira shows a large-scale use of sandstone, combined in places with mud-brick—a feature of the Harappan sites of Gujarat. The layout of this settlement is unlike that of any other Harappan site. It is surrounded by an outer fortification wall made of mudbrick with a facade of stone blocks on the outer face, with imposing bastions and two major gateways in the middle of the northern and southern walls. So, statement 1 is correct.
At Dholavira at least three different sections were identified within the outer walls. There was a small ‘castle’ area, a ‘bailey’ area to its west, and a larger ‘middle town’ to the north, all with their own enclosing walls. A lower town lay to the east. An interesting feature of Dholavira is a large open area (called the ‘stadium’) between the castle–bailey and the middle town, which may have been used for special ceremonial occasions. So, statement 2 is not correct.
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Mohenjodaro is in Sindh province of Pakistan. Mohenjodaro was located close to the right bank of River Indus. The buildings on the citadel mound of Mohenjodaro are among the things we associate most closely with the Harappan civilization. In the north are the Great Bath, the so-called ‘granary’, and ‘college of priests. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Lothal is located between the Sabarmati River and its tributary, the Bhogavo, in Saurashtra in Gujarat. It was a modest-sized settlement, roughly rectangular in plan. The most distinctive feature of Lothal is the dockyard, which lies on the eastern edge of the site. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Kalibangan gets its name from the thick clusters of black bangles lying all over the surface of its mounds. This site lies on the banks of the dry bed of the Ghaggar river, in the Hanumangarh district of Rajasthan. There is a smaller western mound and a larger eastern one with an open space in between. There is also a smaller, third mound, which only has a large number of fire altars. Both the citadel complex and lower town were fortified. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Harappa is situated on the banks of river Ravi in Western Punjab, Pakistan. The mounds of Harappa cover an extensive area of about 150 ha. The higher citadel mound lies to the west, with a lower but larger lower town to its south-east. South of the citadel mound is a cemetery of the mature Harappan phase. The citadel at Harappa was shaped roughly like a parallelogram. So, pair 4 is not correctly matched.
Consider the following statements regarding the Diamond Imprest Authorisation (DIA) Scheme, recently seen in the news:
- It was introduced by the Department of Commerce to allow duty-free import of natural cut and polished diamonds for export purposes.
- All diamond exporters are eligible for availing the benefit under this scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Commerce Ministry recently introduced the Diamond Imprest Authorization (DIA) Scheme, aiming to enhance the global competitiveness of India’s diamond industry.
About Diamond Imprest Authorisation (DIA) Scheme:
It was introduced by the Department of Commerce, Government of India, to allow duty-free import of natural cut and polished diamonds for export purposes.
The Scheme will be implemented with effect from 01.04.2025.
Key Features of the Scheme:
This scheme allows the duty-free import of Natural Cut and Polished Diamonds, of less than ¼ Carat (25 Cents).
This scheme mandates export obligation with value addition of 10%.
All diamond exporters holding Two Star Export House status and above and having US $15 million exports per year are eligible for availing the benefit under this scheme.
The scheme is made in response to the beneficiation policies undertaken in a number of natural diamond mining countries like Botswana, Namibia, Angola, etc, where diamond manufacturers are obliged to open cut and polishing facilities for a minimum percentage of value addition.
Support for MSME Exporters: Designed to create a level playing field for MSMEs, the scheme enables smaller exporters to compete effectively with larger industry players.
It is aimed towards retaining India’s position as a global leader in the entire value chain of the diamond industry.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/amid-fading-exports-job-losses-new-scheme-to-restore-diamond-trade-sheen/article69124045.ece
With reference to the National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC), consider the following statements:
- It is a Government of India fully owned public enterprise.
- It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Mines.
- It is India’s single largest iron ore producer.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
India’s state-run miner NMDC is expected to extract 6,500 carats of diamonds, worth $3.4 million, this fiscal year from ores in a mine near Panna Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh.
About National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC):
Incorporated in 1958 as a Government of India fully owned public enterprise, NMDC is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Steel, Government of India.
The company was categorised as “NAVRATNA” Public Sector Enterprise in 2008.
The company is engaged in the exploration of a range of minerals, including iron ore, copper, rock phosphate, limestone, dolomite, gypsum, bentonite, magnesite, diamond, tin, tungsten, graphite, and beach sands.
NMDC is India’s single largest iron ore producer, presently producing over 45 million tonnes of iron ore from its fully mechanized mines in Bailadila Sector in Chhattisgarh and Donimalai in Bellary-Hospet region in Karnataka.
NMDC is considered to be one of the low-cost producers of iron ore in the world.
The company sells most of their high-grade iron ore production to the Indian domestic steel market, primarily pursuant to long-term sales contracts.
It also operates the only mechanized diamond mine in India at Panna, Madhya Pradesh.
All of the NMDC mining complexes have been rated 5 Star by the Indian Bureau of Mines, Ministry of Mines.
The registered office is located in the city of Hyderabad, Telangana.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/indias-nmdc-to-extract-diamonds-worth-34-mln-from-mine-near-tiger-reserve/article69124179.ece
Asan Conservation Reserve (ACR) lies in which state?
Uttarakhand
Explanation :
A bird counting campaign at the Asan Wetland in Dehradun district of Uttarakhand has yielded impressive results, with volunteers identifying 5,225 birds across 117 different species.
About Asan Conservation Reserve (ACR):
It is a 444-hectare stretch of the Asan River running down to its confluence with the Yamuna River in Dehradun district of Uttarakhand.
The Asan River, unlike other rivers which flow north to south, flows in a west to east direction.
It was declared as a Conservation Reserve in 2005 under Section 36A of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
It is the first Ramsar site in Uttarakhand.
It is also listed as an Important Bird Area (BNHS and BirdLife International) and is popular for sightings of native and migratory birds.
Strategically located within the Central Asian Flyways (CAF), the reserve homes 330 species of birds, including critically endangered-white-rumped vulture, Baer’s pochard; endangered-Egyptian vulture, steppe eagle, black-bellied tern; and vulnerable-marbled teal, common pochard, Indian spotted eagle, etc.
Other non-avian species present include 49 fish species, one of these being the endangered Putitor mahseer.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2025/Jan/21/52k-birds-of-117-species-in-uttarakhands-asan-wetland
Consider the following statements regarding Vaigai River:
- Its basin entirely lies in the state of Tamil Nadu.
- It originates from the Western Ghats and drains into the Palk Strait.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Madras high court recently directed the local bodies to file an action plan with a timeline to prevent pollution in the Vaigai river.
About Vaigai River:
It is a river in Tamil Nadu.
Course:
Origin: It originates from the Varusanadu and Megamalai hills of the Western Ghats.
It travels through the Pandya Nadu region of Tamil Nadu generally in the south-east direction and rarely causes floods.
It drains into the Palk Strait near the Pamban Bridge in Ramanathapuram district.
Length: It is 258 kilometres long.
It drains an area of 7,741 sq.km, which entirely lies in the state of Tamil Nadu.
The river basin is flanked by the Western ghats on the south and west, the southern slope of Palani hills (Kodaikanal hills), Sirumalai hills, Alagar hills etc. on the north, and the Bay of Bengal on the east.
Vaigai gets major feed from the Periyar Dam in Kerala. Water from the Periyar River in Kerala is diverted into the Vaigai River in Tamil Nadu via a tunnel through the Western Ghats.
Tributaries: Its main tributaries are Suruliyaru, Mullaiyaru, Varaganadhi, Manjalaru, Kottagudi, Kridhumaal, and Upparu.
The river finds a mention in Sangam literature dated to 300 before Common Era.
It is the major river in the fabled city of Madurai, the capital of the ancient and prosperous Pandya kingdom located in southern Tamil Nadu.
The river fulfills the drinking water requirements of five districts in Tamil Nadu, namely, Theni, Madurai, Ramnathapuram, Sivagangai, and Dindigul.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/madurai/hc-seeks-action-plan-to-prevent-pollution-in-vaigai-river/articleshow/117406499.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Pralay Missile:
- It is long-range surface-to-surface missile.
- It has been indigenously developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Indigenously developed Pralay missile will be showcased during Republic Day Parade for the first time, Defence Secretary stated recently.
About Pralay Missile:
It is an indigenously developed short-range, quasi-ballistic surface-to-surface missile.
It has been developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) based on the Prithvi Defence Vehicle from the Indian ballistic missile programme.
It has been developed for deployment along the Line of Actual Control (LAC) and Line of Control (LoC).
Features:
It is powered by a solid-propellant rocket motor.
The missile has a range of 150-500 km and can be launched from a mobile launcher.
It has a payload capacity of 500-1,000 kg.
The missile is capable of carrying conventional warheads.
It is equipped with guidance systems that provide a Circular Error Probable (CEP) of less than 10 meters.
The missile reaches terminal speeds of Mach 6.1 and can engage targets such as radar installations, command centers, and airstrips.
It has the ability to change its path after covering a certain range midair.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/republic-day-2025-pralay-missile-to-make-debut-during-parade-say-sources-2667277-2025-01-20
Ratnagiri, recently in news, is located in:
Odisha
Explanation :
Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has discovered significant Buddhist remains during renewed excavations at the historic Ratnagiri site in Jajpur district adding another chapter to its 1,200-year-old legacy.
Location: It is located 100 km northeast of Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
The site stands on a hill between Birupa and Brahmani rivers and is Odisha’s most famous — and the most excavated Buddhist site.
It is part of the famous Diamond Triangle of Odisha along with Udaygiri and Lalitgiri, Ratnagiri – translated as the ‘Hills of Jewels’
Time Period: Experts date Ratnagiri to the 5th and 13th Century, although the peak period of construction is dated between the 7th and 10th centuries.
It was a center for Mahayana and Tantrayana (also known as Vajrayana) Buddhism.
There are some studies that suggest that the renowned Chinese Buddhist monk and traveller, Hiuen Tsang, who visited Odisha, during 638-639 AD.
It was first documented as a historical site in 1905.
So far ASI have unearthed a colossal Buddha head, a massive palm, an ancient wall and inscribed Buddhist relics, all of which are estimated to date back 8th and 9th Century AD.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/long-reads/asi-excavations-at-odishas-ratnagiri-puts-spotlight-on-ancient-buddhist-site-its-se-asia-links-9784948/
Consider the following statements regarding antivenom:
- It is usually produced by injecting healthy and mature venom of snakes into horses.
- It works by specifically binding to the venom toxins to render them ineffective.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A terrible number, estimated 58000 snakebite cases renders India the ‘snakebite capital’ of the world and in this regard antivenoms plays a crucial role.
Antivenoms, or antivenins, are life-saving medicines used to treat snakebites.
They work by specifically binding to the venom toxins to render them ineffective, allowing the body’s natural defence systems to clear them safely over time.
How lethal is snake venom?
Snake venom is one of nature’s most lethal weapons, a complex cocktail of toxic proteins.
Haemotoxins destroy blood cells and disrupt clotting. Neurotoxins block nerve signals and paralyse. Cytotoxins dissolve tissue at the bite site. The effects are often fatal without medical intervention.
Productions of Antivenoms
French physician Albert Calmette in the 1890s developed the first antivenom using horses, a practice that continues today.
To produce antivenom, healthy and mature venomous snakes are first captured from the wild by trained experts who then “milk” the snakes to extract the venom.
Next, they immunise horses with increasing doses of venom over many weeks, allowing their immune systems to produce antibodies.
Over time, the horses develop a robust immune response, producing antibodies that neutralise venom toxins.
They are produced by injecting small amounts of venom into animals, usually horses, which then produce antibodies as part of their immune response. These antibodies become antivenoms.
The experts extract these antibodies from the horse’s blood and purify and formulate them as antivenoms.
The antibodies thus produced are very specific to the type of toxins injected.
Polyvalent antivenoms (PVAs) currently used in India target multiple species. However, their efficacy varies against less common snakes.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/reader?utm_source=Hindu&utm_medium=Menu&utm_campaign=Header&_gl=19st4zo_gcl_au*MTQ2MTcyNjU3My4xNzMzMTk0MTg3Ljg2MTk5NjQ4NS4xNzM3MzkyNjE3LjE3MzczOTI2MTc.
With reference to oysters, consider the following:
- These are marine animals found in brackish habitats.
- These species reproduce through broadcast spawning in warm waters.
- These species are not capable of changing their gender.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A groundbreaking find by Southern Cross University has shown oysters might be able to help treat a growing worldwide public health problem: antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
Oysters are marine animals belongs to the phylum Mollusca found in brackish habitats.
Appearance: They are very irregular in shape and the valves of some are highly calcified.
Characteristics
These marine animals can filter up to 1.3 gallons of water per hour.
Oysters are animals with eyes all over their body. These eyes help them escape their predators.
Shell-hiding: These creatures are known to hide in their shell upon sensing danger. The shells then close tightly to protect them.
These animals do not have a central nervous system. Therefore, they cannot feel pain like humans.
Diet: They are animals that eat algae and other food particles that are usually drawn to their gills.
Reproduction: They are known to reproduce through broadcast spawning in warm waters and are also capable of changing their gender.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2025-01-discovery-oyster-blood-proteins-antibiotic.html#google_vignette
Consider the following statements regarding the Scramjet Engine:
- It generates thrust through supersonic air flow and combustion.
- It can be used in next-generation hypersonic missiles and faster civilian air transportation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has successfully carried out a cutting-edge Active Cooled Scramjet Combustor ground test for 120 seconds for the first time.
It is an upgraded version of the Ramjet and generates thrust through supersonic air flow and combustion.
It moves at hypersonic speed and performs best at high speeds, greater than Mach 5.
Hypersonic missiles are a class of advanced weaponry that travel at speeds greater than Mach 5 i.e., five times the speed of sound or more than 5,400 km/hr.
These advanced weapons have the potential to bypass existing Air Defence Systems and deliver rapid and high-impact strikes.
Several nations including USA, Russia, India and China are actively pursuing hypersonic technology.
The key to hypersonic vehicles is scramjets, which are air breathing engines capable of sustaining combustion at supersonic speeds without using any moving parts.
Developed by: Defence Research & Development Laboratory (DRDL), a Hyderabad-based laboratory of Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has taken the initiative in developing a long-duration supersonic combustion ramjet or scramjet powered hypersonic technology.
Significance: The successful ground test marks a crucial milestone in developing next-generation hypersonic missiles, faster civilian air transportation and facilities for putting satellites into orbit at a low cost.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2094886
Mount McKinley, recently in news, is located in:
North America
Explanation :
Recently, the US President signed an executive order renaming Denali to Mount McKinley.
It is the highest peak in North America.
Location: It is located near the centre of the Alaska Range, with two summits rising above the Denali Fault, in south-central Alaska, U.S.
The mountain is essentially a giant block of granite that was lifted above Earth’s crust during a period of tectonic activity that began about 60 million years ago.
It rises abruptly some 18,000 feet (5,500 metres) from Denali Fault at its base to the higher, more southerly of its two summits.
The upper half of the mountain is covered with permanent snowfields that feed many glaciers like Kahiltna Glacier, the Muldrow Glacier, the Peters Glacier, the Ruth Glacier, and the Traleika Glacier.
It forms the central feature of the Denali National Park and Preserve.
Mount Ibu is an active volcano located in which country?
Indonesia
Explanation :
Mount Ibu in eastern Indonesia has erupted at least a thousand times this month, according to an official report.
About Mount Ibu:
It is an active volcano located along the NW coast of Halmahera Island, Indonesia.
It is a 1,325-meter (4,347-foot) stratovolcano with a truncated summit and a number of large nested summit craters.
It is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire.
Mount Ibu has a history of frequent eruptions, with most activity involving lava flows, ash plumes, and pyroclastic activity.
What are Stratovolcanoes?
Stratovolcanoes, also called composite volcanoes, are typically steep-sided, symmetrical cones built of alternating layers of lava flows, volcanic ash, and other eruptive products.
Unlike flat shield volcanoes, they have higher peaks.
They are typically found above subduction zones, and they are often part of large volcanically active regions, such as the Ring of Fire that frames much of the Pacific Ocean.
Stratovolcanoes comprise the largest percentage (~60%) of the Earth’s individual volcanoes.
They are formed from viscous, sticky lava that does not flow easily.
The lava therefore builds up around the vent, forming a volcano with steep sides. Stratovolcanoes are more likely to produce explosive eruptions due to gas building up in the viscous magma.
They are usually about half-half lava and pyroclastic material, and the layering of these products gives them their other common name of composite volcanoes.
Andesite (named after the Andes Mountains) is perhaps the most common rock type of stratovolcanoes, but stratovolcanoes also erupt a wide range of different rocks in different tectonic settings.
Most stratovolcanoes have a crater at the summit containing a central vent or a clustered group of vents.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/indonesias-mount-ibu-erupted-1000-times-this-month/article69118266.ece
What is unique about the Mannan community, recently seen in the news??
They are an adivasi tribal dynasty with an existing kingship.
Explanation :
Raman Rajamannan, the king of the Mannan community and the only tribal king in Kerala, will participate in the Republic Day parade in Delhi.
About Mannan Community:
The Mannan is a scheduled tribe (ST) of Kerala.
It is the only Adhivasi tribal dynasty with a kingship currently existing in South India.
The life of the Mannan Community is closely related to the Tamil culture.
They speak a dialect similar to Tamil but without a script.
It is believed that they were originally from Tamil Nadu and later migrated to Idukki during the period of Poonjar Rajavamsham (kings).
Nearly 97 percent of the Mannan community’s population reside in Idukki District.
Though they used to stay in remote forests, they were forced to migrate to plots allotted by the government at the outskirts of the Periyar Tiger Reserve, a few decades back, following a government ban on deforestation in the preserved area.
They follow a matrilineal system of descent, and their ruler, the Raja Mannan, is elected by community headmen from among those eligible by heredity.
Their primary occupation is agriculture, including coconut harvesting, cultivation of herbs, etc.
They practice Hinduism.
Their main celebrations include the Kalavoot, Meenoot and Mutthiamman Festival.
Mannankoothu is a unique ritual art form performed by the Mannans. The art form is staged mainly during worship, harvest times and weddings.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/raman-rajamannan-king-of-mannan-tribe-to-attend-republic-day-parade/article69128229.ece
With reference to the Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY), consider the following statements:
- A SSY account can be opened by a parent or legal guardian of the girl’s child until she attains the age of 18 years.
- Only one account is allowed for a girl child and a family can open a maximum of two SSY accounts.
- The amount invested, interest earned and maturity amount in the SSY account is tax-free.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
This year marks the 10 years of Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana encouraging families to invest in the bright futures of their daughters, fostering a culture of inclusion and progress.
About Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY):
It is a savings scheme launched back in 2015 as part of the government initiative Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao campaign.
This scheme enables guardians to open a savings account for their girl child with an authorized commercial bank or India Post branch.
Eligibility criteria:
The applicant must be a citizen of India.
The account can be opened by a parent or legal guardian of the girl’s child.
The girl child must be below the age of 10 years.
Only one account is allowed for a girl child.
A family can open only 2 SSY scheme accounts.
NRIs are not eligible to open these accounts.
Key Features:
Minimum & Maximum Deposit:
Investment of minimum Rs. 250 and maximum Rs. 1.5 lakh in a financial year. Subsequent deposits in multiples of Rs. 100.
No limit on the number of deposits either in a month or in a Financial Year.
Tenure: The maturity period of SSY is 21 years from the account opening. However, contributions have to be made for the first 15 years only. Thereafter, the SSY account will continue to earn interest until maturity.
The SSY account shall be mandatorily operated by the girl child after she attains the age of 18 years.
Interest: Interest on SSA as announced by Government of India every quarter will be applicable and compounded annually.
Partial withdrawal:
Withdrawal shall be allowed after the account holder attains the age of eighteen years or has passed the tenth standard, whichever is earlier.
For higher education 50% of the balance at the end of the previous financial year can be withdrawn. For marriage of adult account holder, 100% withdrawals permitted.
Premature Closure: Allowed in the event of death of the depositor or in cases of extreme compassionate grounds such as medical support in life threatening diseases to be authorized by an order by the Central Government.
Tax Benefits: On investing in this scheme, tax exemption is also available under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act. The amount invested, interest earned and maturity amount is tax free.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressNoteDetails.aspx?NoteId=153679&ModuleId=3®=3&lang=1
Consider the following statements regarding Chandra X-Ray Observatory:
- It is one of NASA’s premier space telescopes specially designed to detect X-ray emissions.
- It is located in the Atacama Desert, Chile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
An international team of researchers using NASA’s James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) and the Chandra X-ray Observatory has discovered a bizarre black hole that may provide insights into the genesis and growth of supermassive black holes.
About Chandra X-Ray Observatory:
It is one of NASA’s premier space telescopes specially designed to detect X-ray emission from very hot regions of the Universe such as exploded stars, clusters of galaxies, and matter around black holes.
It was launched on July 23, 1999, aboard the Space Shuttle Columbia (STS-93).
Because X-rays are absorbed by Earth’s atmosphere, Chandra must orbit above it, up to an altitude of 139,000 km (86,500 mi) in space.
It is part of NASA’s fleet of “Great Observatories” along with the Hubble Space Telescope, the Spitizer Space Telescope and the now deorbited Compton Gamma Ray Observatory.
It is managed by NASA’s Marshall Center for the Science Mission Directorate, NASA Headquarters, Washington, D.C.
It is the world’s most powerful X-ray telescope. It has eight-times greater resolution and is able to detect sources more than 20-times fainter than any previous X-ray telescope.
Chandra allows scientists from around the world to obtain X-ray images of exotic environments to help understand the structure and evolution of the universe.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidistws/th/th_delhi/issues/116838/OPS/GT9DSRKMQ.1+GQUDSRL0R.1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Airport Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA):
- It is a statutory body set up on the recommendations of the Naresh Chandra Committee.
- It regulates tariffs and other charges for aeronautical services at all airports in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Parliament’s Public Accounts Committee (PAC) recently directed the Airport Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA) to give a detailed reply in writing on the criteria used to calculate User Development Fee (UDF) charged by airport operators, the total revenue earned and and how it is utilised among other things.
About Airport Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA):
AERA is a statutory body constituted under the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Act, 2008.
It was set up on the recommendations of the Naresh Chandra Committee to prepare the road map for the civil aviation sector.
AERA is an independent regulatory body tasked with overseeing the economic regulation of major airports in India.
Headquarters: Delhi
Function: The AERA regulates tariffs and other charges (development fee and passenger service fee) for aeronautical services (air traffic management, landing, and parking of aircraft, ground handling services) at major airports.
For the remaining airports, tariffs are determined by the Airports Authority of India (AAI).
Its main objectives include creating a level playing field, fostering healthy competition among major airports, promoting investment in airport facilities, and regulating tariffs for aeronautical services.
It was set up keeping in mind that the country needs to have an independent regulator who has transparent rules and can take care of the interests of the service providers as well as those of the consumers.
Major airports:
The 2008 Act designates an airport as a major airport if it has an annual passenger traffic of at least 15 lakhs.
An amendment to the act in 2019 increased this threshold to 35 lakh annual passengers.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/parliamentary-panel-raises-questions-on-arbitrary-user-development-fee-charged-by-airports/article69128096.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the National Voters’ Day:
- It is observed annually on January 25 to commemorate the foundation day of the Election Commission of India.
- It aims to underline the centrality of the voter and raise electoral awareness among citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The 15th National Voters’ Day (NVD) will be celebrated across the country on 25th January.
It has been observed annually on January 25 since 2011 to commemorate the foundation day of the Election Commission of India, established on January 25, 1950, a day before India became a Republic.
Aim: This event aims to underline the centrality of the voter and raise electoral awareness among citizens and inspire their active participation in the democratic process.
It is dedicated to the voters of the nation, National Voters’ Day also promotes the enrolment of new voters, particularly young individuals who have recently become eligible. Across the country, new voters are honored and presented with their Elector Photo Identity Card (EPIC) during NVD ceremonies.
It is celebrated at the level of national, state, district, constituency, and polling booth NVD stands as one of the country’s most widespread and significant celebrations.
This Year’s Theme “Nothing Like Voting, I Vote for Sure” is a continuation of last year’s theme emphasizing the importance of participation in the electoral process, and encouraging voters to take pride in exercising their franchise.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2095170
With reference to Chinar tree, consider the following:
- It changes its leaves color with the seasons.
- Its twigs and roots are used for making dyes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The iconic Chinar trees in Kashmir have been geo-tagged and equipped with QR-code for digital protection of the Valley’s heritage tree.
Scientific name: Platanus orientalis.
Other names: It is also known as Oriental plane tree, maple tree and locally it is called as Boueen.
Features
It is a large, well spreading deciduous tree growing up to a height of 30 meters and girth of 10 to 15 meters at ground level.
It is said that the oldest Chinar tree in Kashmir, around 700 years old, was planted by the Sufi Saint Syed Qasim Shah in Chattergam, in central Kashmir’s Budgam district.
It takes around 30 to 50 years for the trees to reach their mature height and around 150 years for them to grow to their full size.
Uniqueness: The Chinar tree’s leaves change colors with the seasons, transforming from deep green in summer to vibrant shades of red, amber, and yellow in autumn.
Uses: The tree has several properties - leaves and bark are used as medicine, the wood, known as lace wood is used for delicate interior furniture and the twigs and roots are used for making dyes.
Key facts about the Geo-tagging of Chinar
Under the geo-tagging process, QR codes are attached to each surveyed tree, recording information about 25 characteristics, including its geographical location, health, age, and growing patterns, enabling conservationists to track changes and address risk factors.
The project, spearheaded by J&K Forest Research Institute (FRI) of J&K Forest Department involves geo-tagging and QR coding of Chinar trees to enable their monitoring and management.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2025/Jan/22/kashmir-chinars-get-digital-protection-through-geo-tagging-with-qr-code
With reference to Stargardt disease, consider the following:
- It is commonly caused by changes in a gene, ABCA4.
- It only affects old age people across the globe.
- There is currently no cure available for the disease.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Researchers from Switzerland say they have developed a gene editing technique that could perhaps help treat Stargardt disease.
It is also known as Stargardt macular degeneration, is commonly caused by changes in a gene, ABCA4. This gene influences how your body uses Vitamin A.
It is an inherited disease that leads to progressive vision loss in children and young adults. It is usually bilateral, involving both eyes.
People with Stargardt disease have too much lipofuscin – it builds up over the macula, which is the central part of the retina and is responsible for clear and sharp central vision.
Everybody’s eyes contain a yellowish-brown pigment called lipofuscin that builds up in cells as people age.
Symptoms:
The most common symptom of Stargardt disease is a slow loss of central vision in both eyes. Some people lose their central vision more quickly than others.
Other symptoms may include: Gray, black, or hazy spots in the center of your vision, sensitivity to light and color blindness
Prevalence:
This disease was seen more commonly in males, presenting during the second decade of life.
The disease prevalence was estimated at 1 in 8000 to 10000 populations, with deterioration of visual acuity leading to legal blindness and loss of central visual acuity
Treatment: There is currently no cure available for the disease.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/can-gene-editing-help-with-genetic-eye-conditions-a-new-study-explores-the-possibility/article69108472.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Forever Chemicals:
- These are toxic, man-made, hazardous chemicals that have dangerous effects on the environment.
- These are listed under the Stockholm Convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The European Commission intends to propose a ban on the use of PFAS, or “forever chemicals”, in consumer products, with exemptions for essential industrial uses.
Perfluoroalkyl and Polyfluoroalkyl Substances (PFAS) are toxic, man-made, hazardous chemicals that have dangerous effects on the environment and our health.
They are called “forever chemicals” because of their tendency to stick around in the atmosphere, rainwater and soil for long periods of time.
They are known to stay in the environment virtually forever and contribute to environmental degradation which adversely impacts the health of all organisms including human beings.
PFAs can migrate to the soil, water and air during their production and use.
These are listed in the Stockholm Convention.
Applications: They are used in thousands of items, from cosmetics and non-stick pans to aircraft and wind turbines, due to their resistance to extreme temperatures and corrosion.
Impacts of PFAS on human health: A variety of health risks that are attributed to PFA exposure, including decreased fertility, developmental effects in children, interference with body hormones, increased cholesterol levels and increased risk of some cancers.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/eu-plans-ban-on-forever-chemicals-in-consumer-products/article69127341.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Spotted Hyena:
- It is a carnivorous species which is mainly found in semi-desert and savannah region of Africa.
- It is categorized as critically endangered species under the IUCN list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
In a new study, Egyptian researchers have discovered a spotted hyena (Crocutta crocutta), one of Africa’s most abundant carnivores, appeared in southern Egypt after 5,000 years.
It is also called the laughing hyena. It is a fascinating and intelligent creature with a very interesting social system.
It is a carnivorous animal that hunt and scavenge.
It is a strong and capable hunter and the largest member of the hyena family.
They have excellent night vision, being mostly nocturnal, hunting at night, and sleeping or staying near their den in the daytime.
They have a matriarchal social order of related individuals that are called clans.
Appearance:
It has a sandy, yellowish or gray coat with black or dark brown spots on the over most of the body.
It looks like a dog but is closely related to cats, civets, and genets.
The spots are darkest in younger animals and can be almost completely absent in very old animals.
Females and males look exactly the same except that females are a little larger.
Habitat: It is common in many types of open, dry habitat including semi-desert, savannah, acacia bush, and mountainous forest.
Distribution: These hyenas live throughout sub-Saharan Africa.
Conservation Status
IUCN: Least Concern
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/africa/is-climate-change-expanding-the-range-of-the-spotted-hyena-north-into-egypt-study-raises-questions-after-individual-seen-in-country-after-5000-years
Mount Ibu is an active volcano located in which country?
Indonesia
Explanation :
Mount Ibu in eastern Indonesia has erupted at least a thousand times this month, according to an official report.
About Mount Ibu:
It is an active volcano located along the NW coast of Halmahera Island, Indonesia.
It is a 1,325-meter (4,347-foot) stratovolcano with a truncated summit and a number of large nested summit craters.
It is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire.
Mount Ibu has a history of frequent eruptions, with most activity involving lava flows, ash plumes, and pyroclastic activity.
What are Stratovolcanoes?
Stratovolcanoes, also called composite volcanoes, are typically steep-sided, symmetrical cones built of alternating layers of lava flows, volcanic ash, and other eruptive products.
Unlike flat shield volcanoes, they have higher peaks.
They are typically found above subduction zones, and they are often part of large volcanically active regions, such as the Ring of Fire that frames much of the Pacific Ocean.
Stratovolcanoes comprise the largest percentage (~60%) of the Earth’s individual volcanoes.
They are formed from viscous, sticky lava that does not flow easily.
The lava therefore builds up around the vent, forming a volcano with steep sides. Stratovolcanoes are more likely to produce explosive eruptions due to gas building up in the viscous magma.
They are usually about half-half lava and pyroclastic material, and the layering of these products gives them their other common name of composite volcanoes.
Andesite (named after the Andes Mountains) is perhaps the most common rock type of stratovolcanoes, but stratovolcanoes also erupt a wide range of different rocks in different tectonic settings.
Most stratovolcanoes have a crater at the summit containing a central vent or a clustered group of vents.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/indonesias-mount-ibu-erupted-1000-times-this-month/article69118266.ece
What is unique about the Mannan community, recently seen in the news??
They are an adivasi tribal dynasty with an existing kingship.
Explanation :
Raman Rajamannan, the king of the Mannan community and the only tribal king in Kerala, will participate in the Republic Day parade in Delhi.
About Mannan Community:
The Mannan is a scheduled tribe (ST) of Kerala.
It is the only Adhivasi tribal dynasty with a kingship currently existing in South India.
The life of the Mannan Community is closely related to the Tamil culture.
They speak a dialect similar to Tamil but without a script.
It is believed that they were originally from Tamil Nadu and later migrated to Idukki during the period of Poonjar Rajavamsham (kings).
Nearly 97 percent of the Mannan community’s population reside in Idukki District.
Though they used to stay in remote forests, they were forced to migrate to plots allotted by the government at the outskirts of the Periyar Tiger Reserve, a few decades back, following a government ban on deforestation in the preserved area.
They follow a matrilineal system of descent, and their ruler, the Raja Mannan, is elected by community headmen from among those eligible by heredity.
Their primary occupation is agriculture, including coconut harvesting, cultivation of herbs, etc.
They practice Hinduism.
Their main celebrations include the Kalavoot, Meenoot and Mutthiamman Festival.
Mannankoothu is a unique ritual art form performed by the Mannans. The art form is staged mainly during worship, harvest times and weddings.
With reference to the Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY), consider the following statements:
- A SSY account can be opened by a parent or legal guardian of the girl’s child until she attains the age of 18 years.
- Only one account is allowed for a girl child and a family can open a maximum of two SSY accounts.
- The amount invested, interest earned and maturity amount in the SSY account is tax-free.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
This year marks the 10 years of Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana encouraging families to invest in the bright futures of their daughters, fostering a culture of inclusion and progress.
About Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY):
It is a savings scheme launched back in 2015 as part of the government initiative Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao campaign.
This scheme enables guardians to open a savings account for their girl child with an authorized commercial bank or India Post branch.
Eligibility criteria:
The applicant must be a citizen of India.
The account can be opened by a parent or legal guardian of the girl’s child.
The girl child must be below the age of 10 years.
Only one account is allowed for a girl child.
A family can open only 2 SSY scheme accounts.
NRIs are not eligible to open these accounts.
Key Features:
Minimum & Maximum Deposit:
Investment of minimum Rs. 250 and maximum Rs. 1.5 lakh in a financial year. Subsequent deposits in multiples of Rs. 100.
No limit on the number of deposits either in a month or in a Financial Year.
Tenure: The maturity period of SSY is 21 years from the account opening. However, contributions have to be made for the first 15 years only. Thereafter, the SSY account will continue to earn interest until maturity.
The SSY account shall be mandatorily operated by the girl child after she attains the age of 18 years.
Interest: Interest on SSA as announced by Government of India every quarter will be applicable and compounded annually.
Partial withdrawal:
Withdrawal shall be allowed after the account holder attains the age of eighteen years or has passed the tenth standard, whichever is earlier.
For higher education 50% of the balance at the end of the previous financial year can be withdrawn. For marriage of adult account holder, 100% withdrawals permitted.
Premature Closure: Allowed in the event of death of the depositor or in cases of extreme compassionate grounds such as medical support in life threatening diseases to be authorized by an order by the Central Government.
Tax Benefits: On investing in this scheme, tax exemption is also available under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act. The amount invested, interest earned and maturity amount is tax free.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressNoteDetails.aspx?NoteId=153679&ModuleId=3®=3&lang=1
Consider the following statements regarding Chandra X-Ray Observatory:
- It is one of NASA’s premier space telescopes specially designed to detect X-ray emissions.
- It is located in the Atacama Desert, Chile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
An international team of researchers using NASA’s James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) and the Chandra X-ray Observatory has discovered a bizarre black hole that may provide insights into the genesis and growth of supermassive black holes.
About Chandra X-Ray Observatory:
It is one of NASA’s premier space telescopes specially designed to detect X-ray emission from very hot regions of the Universe such as exploded stars, clusters of galaxies, and matter around black holes.
It was launched on July 23, 1999, aboard the Space Shuttle Columbia (STS-93).
Because X-rays are absorbed by Earth’s atmosphere, Chandra must orbit above it, up to an altitude of 139,000 km (86,500 mi) in space.
It is part of NASA’s fleet of “Great Observatories” along with the Hubble Space Telescope, the Spitizer Space Telescope and the now deorbited Compton Gamma Ray Observatory.
It is managed by NASA’s Marshall Center for the Science Mission Directorate, NASA Headquarters, Washington, D.C.
It is the world’s most powerful X-ray telescope. It has eight-times greater resolution and is able to detect sources more than 20-times fainter than any previous X-ray telescope.
Chandra allows scientists from around the world to obtain X-ray images of exotic environments to help understand the structure and evolution of the universe.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidistws/th/th_delhi/issues/116838/OPS/GT9DSRKMQ.1+GQUDSRL0R.1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Airport Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA):
- It is a statutory body set up on the recommendations of the Naresh Chandra Committee.
- It regulates tariffs and other charges for aeronautical services at all airports in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Parliament’s Public Accounts Committee (PAC) recently directed the Airport Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA) to give a detailed reply in writing on the criteria used to calculate User Development Fee (UDF) charged by airport operators, the total revenue earned and and how it is utilised among other things.
About Airport Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA):
AERA is a statutory body constituted under the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Act, 2008.
It was set up on the recommendations of the Naresh Chandra Committee to prepare the road map for the civil aviation sector.
AERA is an independent regulatory body tasked with overseeing the economic regulation of major airports in India.
Headquarters: Delhi
Function: The AERA regulates tariffs and other charges (development fee and passenger service fee) for aeronautical services (air traffic management, landing, and parking of aircraft, ground handling services) at major airports.
For the remaining airports, tariffs are determined by the Airports Authority of India (AAI).
Its main objectives include creating a level playing field, fostering healthy competition among major airports, promoting investment in airport facilities, and regulating tariffs for aeronautical services.
It was set up keeping in mind that the country needs to have an independent regulator who has transparent rules and can take care of the interests of the service providers as well as those of the consumers.
Major airports:
The 2008 Act designates an airport as a major airport if it has an annual passenger traffic of at least 15 lakhs.
An amendment to the act in 2019 increased this threshold to 35 lakh annual passengers.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/parliamentary-panel-raises-questions-on-arbitrary-user-development-fee-charged-by-airports/article69128096.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the National Voters’ Day:
- It is observed annually on January 25 to commemorate the foundation day of the Election Commission of India.
- It aims to underline the centrality of the voter and raise electoral awareness among citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The 15th National Voters’ Day (NVD) will be celebrated across the country on 25th January.
It has been observed annually on January 25 since 2011 to commemorate the foundation day of the Election Commission of India, established on January 25, 1950, a day before India became a Republic.
Aim: This event aims to underline the centrality of the voter and raise electoral awareness among citizens and inspire their active participation in the democratic process.
It is dedicated to the voters of the nation, National Voters’ Day also promotes the enrolment of new voters, particularly young individuals who have recently become eligible. Across the country, new voters are honored and presented with their Elector Photo Identity Card (EPIC) during NVD ceremonies.
It is celebrated at the level of national, state, district, constituency, and polling booth NVD stands as one of the country’s most widespread and significant celebrations.
This Year’s Theme “Nothing Like Voting, I Vote for Sure” is a continuation of last year’s theme emphasizing the importance of participation in the electoral process, and encouraging voters to take pride in exercising their franchise.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2095170
With reference to Chinar tree, consider the following:
- It changes its leaves color with the seasons.
- Its twigs and roots are used for making dyes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The iconic Chinar trees in Kashmir have been geo-tagged and equipped with QR-code for digital protection of the Valley’s heritage tree.
Scientific name: Platanus orientalis.
Other names: It is also known as Oriental plane tree, maple tree and locally it is called as Boueen.
Features
It is a large, well spreading deciduous tree growing up to a height of 30 meters and girth of 10 to 15 meters at ground level.
It is said that the oldest Chinar tree in Kashmir, around 700 years old, was planted by the Sufi Saint Syed Qasim Shah in Chattergam, in central Kashmir’s Budgam district.
It takes around 30 to 50 years for the trees to reach their mature height and around 150 years for them to grow to their full size.
Uniqueness: The Chinar tree’s leaves change colors with the seasons, transforming from deep green in summer to vibrant shades of red, amber, and yellow in autumn.
Uses: The tree has several properties - leaves and bark are used as medicine, the wood, known as lace wood is used for delicate interior furniture and the twigs and roots are used for making dyes.
Key facts about the Geo-tagging of Chinar
Under the geo-tagging process, QR codes are attached to each surveyed tree, recording information about 25 characteristics, including its geographical location, health, age, and growing patterns, enabling conservationists to track changes and address risk factors.
The project, spearheaded by J&K Forest Research Institute (FRI) of J&K Forest Department involves geo-tagging and QR coding of Chinar trees to enable their monitoring and management.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2025/Jan/22/kashmir-chinars-get-digital-protection-through-geo-tagging-with-qr-code
With reference to Stargardt disease, consider the following:
- It is commonly caused by changes in a gene, ABCA4.
- It only affects old age people across the globe.
- There is currently no cure available for the disease.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Researchers from Switzerland say they have developed a gene editing technique that could perhaps help treat Stargardt disease.
It is also known as Stargardt macular degeneration, is commonly caused by changes in a gene, ABCA4. This gene influences how your body uses Vitamin A.
It is an inherited disease that leads to progressive vision loss in children and young adults. It is usually bilateral, involving both eyes.
People with Stargardt disease have too much lipofuscin – it builds up over the macula, which is the central part of the retina and is responsible for clear and sharp central vision.
Everybody’s eyes contain a yellowish-brown pigment called lipofuscin that builds up in cells as people age.
Symptoms:
The most common symptom of Stargardt disease is a slow loss of central vision in both eyes. Some people lose their central vision more quickly than others.
Other symptoms may include: Gray, black, or hazy spots in the center of your vision, sensitivity to light and color blindness
Prevalence:
This disease was seen more commonly in males, presenting during the second decade of life.
The disease prevalence was estimated at 1 in 8000 to 10000 populations, with deterioration of visual acuity leading to legal blindness and loss of central visual acuity
Treatment: There is currently no cure available for the disease.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/can-gene-editing-help-with-genetic-eye-conditions-a-new-study-explores-the-possibility/article69108472.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Forever Chemicals:
- These are toxic, man-made, hazardous chemicals that have dangerous effects on the environment.
- These are listed under the Stockholm Convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The European Commission intends to propose a ban on the use of PFAS, or “forever chemicals”, in consumer products, with exemptions for essential industrial uses.
Perfluoroalkyl and Polyfluoroalkyl Substances (PFAS) are toxic, man-made, hazardous chemicals that have dangerous effects on the environment and our health.
They are called “forever chemicals” because of their tendency to stick around in the atmosphere, rainwater and soil for long periods of time.
They are known to stay in the environment virtually forever and contribute to environmental degradation which adversely impacts the health of all organisms including human beings.
PFAs can migrate to the soil, water and air during their production and use.
These are listed in the Stockholm Convention.
Applications: They are used in thousands of items, from cosmetics and non-stick pans to aircraft and wind turbines, due to their resistance to extreme temperatures and corrosion.
Impacts of PFAS on human health: A variety of health risks that are attributed to PFA exposure, including decreased fertility, developmental effects in children, interference with body hormones, increased cholesterol levels and increased risk of some cancers.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/eu-plans-ban-on-forever-chemicals-in-consumer-products/article69127341.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Spotted Hyena:
- It is a carnivorous species which is mainly found in semi-desert and savannah region of Africa.
- It is categorized as critically endangered species under the IUCN list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
In a new study, Egyptian researchers have discovered a spotted hyena (Crocutta crocutta), one of Africa’s most abundant carnivores, appeared in southern Egypt after 5,000 years.
It is also called the laughing hyena. It is a fascinating and intelligent creature with a very interesting social system.
It is a carnivorous animal that hunt and scavenge.
It is a strong and capable hunter and the largest member of the hyena family.
They have excellent night vision, being mostly nocturnal, hunting at night, and sleeping or staying near their den in the daytime.
They have a matriarchal social order of related individuals that are called clans.
Appearance:
It has a sandy, yellowish or gray coat with black or dark brown spots on the over most of the body.
It looks like a dog but is closely related to cats, civets, and genets.
The spots are darkest in younger animals and can be almost completely absent in very old animals.
Females and males look exactly the same except that females are a little larger.
Habitat: It is common in many types of open, dry habitat including semi-desert, savannah, acacia bush, and mountainous forest.
Distribution: These hyenas live throughout sub-Saharan Africa.
Conservation Status
IUCN: Least Concern
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/africa/is-climate-change-expanding-the-range-of-the-spotted-hyena-north-into-egypt-study-raises-questions-after-individual-seen-in-country-after-5000-years
Typhon Missile System, recently seen in the news, was developed by which country?
United States
Explanation :
The U.S. military has relocated its Typhon missile launchers within the Philippines to enhance their mobility and survivability, amid rising tensions with China and Russia.
About Typhon Missile System:
Typhon, also called the Mid-Range Capability (MRC), is a highly versatile and powerful missile system designed for surface-to-surface operations.
It is a mobile, ground-launched missile system developed to provide the U.S. Army with enhanced long-range strike capabilities.
Manufactured by U.S. firm Lockheed Martin, the Typhon Weapon System leverages a modular design that allows it to fire various missile types.
The system is primarily equipped with two types of advanced missiles: the Standard Missile 6 (SM-6) and the Tomahawk cruise missile.
The SM-6 (Range: 500 km) is a surface-to-air missile with the added capability to strike surface targets, while the Tomahawk (Range: 2,500 km) is a cruise missile traditionally used for land-attack but increasingly capable of anti-ship missions as well.
A full Typhon Weapon System battery comprises four launchers, a command post, and reload and support vehicles, all on trailers.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/us-deploys-typhon-missile-launchers-to-new-location-in-philippines/articleshow/117478666.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Mauritius:
- It is an island country in the Indian Ocean, located off the eastern coast of Africa.
- The majority of the population of Mauritius is of European origin.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Indian Navy’s INS Sarvekshak completed the final phase of the hydrographic survey of Mauritius covering an extensive area of over 25,000 square nautical miles.
About Mauritius:
It is an island country in the Indian Ocean, located off the eastern coast of Africa.
It occupies a total area of 2,040 sq. km.
Capital: Port Louis
One of the smallest countries in the world, this island nation can be found just east of Madagascar in the middle of the Indian Ocean.
It is made up of the main island of Mauritius and several outlying islands, like Ambre Island, Est Island, Cerfs Island, Benitiers Island, etc.
The island of Mauritius is a volcanic island formed by volcanic activity around 8 million years ago.
The highest peak in Mauritius, the 828 m tall Mount Piton, is located in the southwest of the plateau.
The chief water source is Lake Vacoas.
Climate: The climate is maritime subtropical, with fairly uniform temperatures throughout the year.
Languages: Mauritius national language is English, but the majority of the population speak Creole or French.
Independence: Mauritius gained independence from the UK in 1968 as a Parliamentary Republic and has remained a stable democracy.
Government: Mauritius is a republic with one legislative house; the head of state is the president, and the head of government is the prime minister.
It is a member of the Common Market for Eastern and Southern Africa (COMESA) and the Southern African Development Community (SADC).
Both the Indian Ocean Rim Association and the Indian Ocean Commission have their headquarters in Mauritius.
Population:
Approximately two-thirds of the population is of Indo-Pakistani origin, most of whom are descendants of indentured labourers brought to work in the sugar industry during the 19th and early 20th centuries.
About one-fourth of the population is Creole (of mixed French and African descent), and there are small numbers of people of Chinese and Franco-Mauritian descent.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/indian-navy-completes-hydrographic-survey-of-25000-sq-nautical-miles-of-mauritius/article69132555.ece
Dhanauri Wetland, recently seen in the news, lies in which state?
Uttar Pradesh
Explanation :
The principal bench of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) recently directed the Uttar Pradesh government to place on record in four weeks the status of notifying the Dhanauri water body as a wetland.
About Dhanauri Wetland:
It is located in Greater Noida, Gautam Buddha Nagar district, Uttar Pradesh, close to the Okhla bird sanctuary and Surajpur wetland.
It is nestled within the floodplains of the Yamuna Basin, within 15 kms of the River Yamuna.
The wetland, which is mostly composed of marshes, is a significant site for the vulnerable Sarus Crane (Antigone antigone).
Besides the Sarus Crane, some of the bird species reported in the Dhanauri wetland are Common teal, Mallard, Northern-Pintail, Greylag geese, Bar-headed geese, Woolly-necked Stork, Black-necked stork, Painted Stork, and Eurasian marsh harrier among others.
It is classified as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/delhi/dhanauri-wetland-status-jewar-airport-ngt-9793272/lite/
Which one of the following is the best description of ‘Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS)’, that was in the news recently?
A.
It is a disorder caused by poor blood circulation.
B.
It is viral infection that damages lungs.
C.
It is a hormonal disorder causing excessive growth of tissues.
None of the above.
Explanation :
Around 59 people in Pune have been recently affected with Guillain-Barre Syndrome.
About Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS):
It’s a neurological disorder in which the body’s immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system.
This is the part of the nervous system outside the brain and spinal cord.
It controls muscle movement, pain signals, and temperature and touch sensations.
GBS is also called acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy (AIDP).
It can occur at any age, but it most commonly affects people between 30 and 50.
Causes:
The exact cause of the disease remains unclear, but it is often observed following a viral or bacterial infection, vaccination, or major surgery.
At such times, the immune system becomes hyperactive, leading to this rare condition.
Symptoms:
Patients often begin with an unknown fever, followed by weakness and other nervous system-related symptoms.
It can increase in intensity over a period of hours, days, or weeks until certain muscles cannot be used at all.
Some cases of GBS are very mild and only marked by brief weakness. Others cause nearly devastating paralysis, leaving the person unable to breathe on their own.
Treatment:
There is no known cure for this syndrome.
The most commonly used treatment is intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG), which is made from donated blood that contains healthy antibodies.
This helps calm down the immune system’s attack on the nerves.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/health/story/what-is-guillain-barre-syndrome-affecting-59-people-in-pune-2669059-2025-01-23
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Partnership Act, 1932:
- It is a comprehensive law that defines a partnership, its formation, its rights, and its dissolution.
- It is applicable to all types of partnerships in India formed for any purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court of India, in a recent ruling, reaffirmed the mandatory nature of Section 69 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, ruling that partners of unregistered firms cannot enforce contractual rights against one another.
About Indian Partnership Act, 1932:
It is a comprehensive law that defines a partnership, its formation, its rights, and its dissolution.
The Act is based on the English Partnership Act, 1890.
It is applicable to the whole of India.
This Act is applicable to all types of partnerships, except for those formed for charitable purposes.
The Act defines partnership as the relation between persons who have agreed to share the profits of a business carried on by all or any of them acting for all.
It provides for the mutual rights and duties of partners, registration of firms, dissolution of the firm, and settlement of disputes among partners.
The partnership deed is the most crucial document which is used to determine the rights and obligations of partners in the firm.
The Act also lays down provisions for the rights of minor partners and their liabilities.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://lawtrend.in/partners-of-unregistered-firms-cannot-enforce-contractual-rights-against-each-other-under-partnership-act-supreme-court/
Consider the following statements regarding the Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar:
- It is awarded to selfless service rendered by individuals and organisations in India in the field of disaster management.
- Under this cash prize given to the winning institution shall be utilized for disaster management related activities only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) has been selected for the Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar-2025, in the Institutional Category, for its excellent work in Disaster Management.
Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar was instituted by the Government of India to recognise and honour the invaluable contribution and selfless service rendered by individuals and organisations in India in the field of disaster management.
It is announced every year on January 23, the birth anniversary of Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose.
Eligibility
Only Indian nationals and Indian institutions are eligible to apply for the award.
Institutions, voluntary organisations, corporate entities, academic/research institutions, response/ uniformed forces or any other institution may apply as an institution for the award.
The candidate for the award must have worked in the area of Disaster Management like Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness, Rescue, Response, Relief, Rehabilitation, Research/ Innovations or Early Warning related work in India.
Award
In case the winner being an institution, it shall receive a certificate and a cash prize of Rs.51 lakhs. This cash prize shall be utilized by the winning institution for disaster Management related activities only.
In case of the winner being an individual, winner shall receive a certificate and a cash prize ofRs.5.00 lakhs.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2095323
Lake Victoria, recently in news, is border by:
Tanzania, Uganda, and Kenya
Explanation :
An international team of researchers from North America and Kenya has completed a genetic survey of cyanobacteria in the Winam Gulf of Lake Victoria, Kenya.
It is the world’s second-largest freshwater lake located in East Africa.
Bordering countries: It is bordered by Tanzania, Uganda, and Kenya.
It is also called Victoria Nyanza in Kenya, Nalubaale in Uganda, and Ukerewe in Tanzania.
It is a source of the White Nile River which flows northward and eventually joins the Blue Nile in Sudan to form the Nile River.
The lake supports the largest freshwater fishery in the world, producing 1 million tons of fish per year and employing 200,000 people in supporting the livelihoods of 4 million people.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/africa/new-study-links-lake-victorias-algal-blooms-to-climate-risks-for-us-great-lakes
With reference to KaWaCHaM System, consider the following:
- It is an advanced disaster warning system.
- It is developed with funding from the National Disaster Management Authority and the World Bank.
- It is an initiative of the India Meteorological Department of India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Kerala government launched KaWaCHaM, one of the world’s fastest weather alert systems.
‘KaWaCHaM’ stands for Kerala Warnings Crisis and Hazards Management System, and the word kavacham in Malayalam translates to ‘shield’, symbolising protection.
It is an advanced disaster warning system that integrates alerts, sirens, and global weather models to improve the state’s early disaster preparedness and public safety.
It is designed to enhance rescue and rehabilitation efforts during extreme weather events driven by climate change.
Funding: It is developed with funding from the National Disaster Management Authority and the World Bank as part of the National Cyclone Risk Mitigation Project.
Key features
It includes hazard assessment, alert issuance, and action planning according to threat levels.
The project aims to install 126 sirens and strobe lights on tall towers, government buildings, and schools.
Each siren has three colours—red, yellow, and orange—in the strobe light and is equipped with eight loudspeakers.
These sirens can broadcast warnings up to 1,200 metres away and provide essential information about emergency camps and safety precautions.
The system will include pre-recorded voice messages and audio alerts to provide various warnings.
Under the project, the state integrates all early warning systems into a framework that disseminates knowledge, issues warnings, monitors developing crises and ensures responses.
It has been created to assess hazards, issue alerts, and take action based on the threat level.
Working
KaWaCHaM collects data from various sources, including weather networks such as India Meteorological Department, INCOIS, and CWC, private and public agencies, social media networks, and the Internet.
The warnings will cover sea attacks, heavy rainfall, strong winds, and extreme heat.
It is headed by the state emergency operation centre, will operate at the taluk (subdistrict) level and cover all vulnerable areas.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/natural-disasters/kerala-sets-another-example-of-disaster-preparedness-with-a-coordinated-early-warning-system
Consider the following statements regarding Eurodrone:
- It is a twin-engine -turboprop unmanned aerial vehicle.
- It is designed for long-endurance missions such as intelligence and surveillance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, India has joined Eurodrone programme as an observer state.
Eurodrone or Medium Altitude Long Endurance Remotely Piloted Aircraft System (MALE RPAS) is a twin-turboprop MALE unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV).
Features:
It has a maximum mission payload of 2.3 tonnes and an endurance period—maximum time an aircraft can stay in the air using a single load of fuel—of up to 40 hours, the drone offers superior capabilities compared to other existing remotely piloted aircraft systems.
It is equipped with a twin-engine configuration, the drone is designed for operations in diverse environments, including severe weather conditions.
It was conceived as a “European Programme for European Sovereignty,” the initiative was founded in 2022 and passed its preliminary design review (PDR) in 2024.
The drones are expected to enter service by 2030. Eurodrone is the first RPAS designed for “safe and reliable flight in non-segregated airspace,”
Uses: It is a remotely piloted aircraft system (RPAS) designed for long-endurance missions such as intelligence, surveillance, target acquisition, and reconnaissance (ISTAR), maritime surveillance, anti-submarine warfare, and airborne early warning.
What is Eurodrone programme?
It is part of Europe’s collective defence strategy, reducing reliance on US and Israeli platforms such as the Reaper and Heron drones, respectively.
Members: Germany, France, Italy, and Spain
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://theprint.in/defence/india-joins-e7-1-bn-eurodrone-as-observer-heres-what-4-nation-programme-is-all-about/2457345/
Consider the following statements regarding Rhodamine B:
- It is a water-soluble synthetic dye used in textiles industries.
- It will not create any adverse impact on human health.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A recent ban issued by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) reinforces restrictions, prohibiting the use of Rhodamine B in any food-related applications due to increasing evidence of its carcinogenic properties.
It is a synthetic dye known for its bright pink hue.
It is a water-soluble chemical compound.
It appears green in powder form; it turns vivid fluorescent pink when it comes in contact with water.
Applications
It is commonly utilised in industries such as textiles, paper, and leather.
Its application extends to scientific research due to its fluorescent properties.
Impacts on human health
Its use in consumable products is fraught with health risks.
It can cause DNA damage, leading to mutations and potentially triggering cancerous growths.
Animal research has demonstrated tumor development in organs like the liver and bladder following prolonged exposure to the dye.
In sensitive individuals, they can lead to allergic reactions such as itching, redness, and skin thickening.
Long-term exposure to synthetic dyes like Rhodamine B can result in chronic allergic reactions and permanent skin pigmentation changes.
The chemical is toxic for humans and can cause oxidative stress on cells and tissues if ingested.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/the-hidden-dangers-of-rhodamine-b-a-global-and-local-perspective/article69131089.ece
Nahargarh Wildlife Sanctuary, recently seen in the news, lies in which state?
Rajasthan
Explanation :
The Forest Department has initiated plans to revise the Nahargarh Wildlife Sanctuary boundaries to resolve existing legal complications.
About Nahargarh Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is situated in the Aravalli hills, just 20 kilometres from Jaipur, Rajasthan.
The sanctuary is named after Nahargarh Fort, a historic fort built in the 18th century by Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II, the founder of Jaipur.
It encompasses an area of 720 hectares.
Nahargarh Biological Park, a part of the Nahargarh sanctuary, is famous for the lion safaris.
Flora: The vegetation comprises dry deciduous forests, scrublands, and grasslands.
Fauna:
Common species include leopards, wild boars, deer, lions, tigers, sloth bears, and several small mammals.
It’s a haven for bird watchers, with a variety of species, including peacocks, owls, and eagles.
In addition to mammals and birds, the sanctuary is home to reptiles like Indian rock pythons, monitor lizards, and amphibians like frogs and toads.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/jaipur/forest-department-plans-boundary-revision-for-nahargarh-wildlife-sanctuary/articleshow/117483407.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Doctrine of Merger:
- It provides that when an appellate court passes an order, the order passed by the lower court is merged with that order.
- It applies universally in all cases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Observing that there cannot be more than one decree or operative order governing the same subject matter at a given point in time, the Supreme Court explained the effect of merging the trial court’s decree with that of the decree passed by the High Court in the second appeals.
About Doctrine of Merger:
It is a common law doctrine that is rooted in the idea of maintenance of the decorum of the hierarchy of courts and tribunals.
It provides that when an appellate court passes an order, the order passed by the lower court is merged with that order.
The underlying logic is that there cannot be more than one decree or operative order governing the same subject matter at a given point of time.
The doctrine solves the issue of which order must be enforced and given importance if there are multiple orders passed by both subordinate and superior courts on a single issue.
It clarifies and provides that in this situation, the order passed by the superior court or the successive order would prevail and that the order of the lower court would be merged with the order passed by the superior court.
The doctrine is not recognized statutorily but is a statement of judicial propriety and seeks to instill discipline in the functioning of subordinate adjudicating authorities, whether judicial, quasi-judicial, or administrative.
It is not a doctrine of universal or unlimited application. It will depend on the nature of jurisdiction exercised by the superior forum and the content or subject-matter of the challenge.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/higher-courts-order-becomes-final-trial-courts-order-gets-merged-with-it-supreme-court-explains-doctrine-of-merger-281390
What is the Samudrayaan project under the Deep Ocean Mission?
A project to develop a manned submersible for ocean exploration.
Explanation :
The Ministry of Earth Sciences recently announced that the country is set to launch its first human underwater submersible (Deep-Sea Manned Vehicle) as part of the Deep Ocean Mission.
About Deep Ocean Mission:
It is a mission-mode project to support the Blue Economy Initiatives of the Government of India.
It is a high-level multi-ministerial, multidisciplinary programme for a better understanding of the deep sea living and non-living resources of the Indian Ocean.
It was launched as a Central Sector Scheme with the overall estimated cost of Rs 4,077 crores for two phases of the Mission period during 2021-2026.
The Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) will be the nodal Ministry implementing this multi-institutional Mission.
The mission consists of six major components:
Development of Technologies for Deep Sea Mining and Manned Submersible and Underwater Robotics;
Development of Ocean Climate Change Advisory Services;
Technological innovations for exploration and conservation of deep-sea biodiversity;
Deep Ocean Survey and Exploration;
Energy and freshwater from the Ocean;
Advanced Marine Station for Ocean Biology
The Samudrayaan project under the Deep Ocean Mission is for the development of a manned submersible to carry three people to a depth of 6000 meters in the ocean with a suite of scientific sensors for ocean exploration and observation.
The vehicle is called Matsya 6000.
The entire vehicle design has been completed and various sub-components like underwater battery, propulsion system, underwater telephone, navigation and communication devices, power distribution and control systems, personnel sphere for 500 m water depth, lift support system, control software, etc have been realised.
Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/markets/capital-market-news/india-s-deep-ocean-mission-gains-momentum-set-to-boost-blue-economy-125012400529_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding Shompens:
- They are one of the least studied Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India.
- They reside in dense tropical rain forests of the Andaman Islands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The director of the Andaman and Nicobar Tribal Research Institute (ANTRI), recently underscored the findings of his report on the Shompens, one of the primary aboriginal communities inhabiting the interior forests and coastal areas of the Great Nicobar Islands (GNI).
About Shompens:
They are one of the most isolated tribes on Earth.
They are one of the least studied Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India.
They reside in dense tropical rain forests of the Great Nicobar Island of Andaman and Nicobar group of Islands. Around 95% of the island is covered in rainforest.
Shompen have different origins from most Nicobarese, although both groups have Mongoloid ancestry.
The Shompen habitat is also an important biological hotspot, and there are two National Parks and one Biosphere Reserve, namely Campbell Bay National Park, Galathea National Park, and Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve.
Population: Though according to the Census (2011), the estimated population of Shompen is 229, the exact population of Shompen is unknown till today.
Most of them remain in the forest and have little or no contact with outsiders.
The Shompen are nomadic hunter-gatherers, living in small groups, whose territories are identified by the rivers that criss-cross the rainforest.
Being nomadic, they typically set up forest camps where they live for a few weeks or months, before moving to another site.
They collect a wide variety of rainforest plants, but their staple food is the pandanus fruit, which they call larop.
They also plant small gardens, cultivating lemon, chillies and betel, amongst other plants.
Shompen speak their own language, which has many dialects. Members of one band do not understand the dialect of the other.
They are of short to medium stature, have a round or nearly broad head shape, narrow nose, a broad facial profile, and distinctly exhibit Mongoloid features such as light brown to yellow brown skin and oblique eye features.
They have nuclear families comprising husband, wife, and their unmarried children.
A Shompen family is controlled by the eldest male member, who controls all activities of the women and kids.
Monogamy is the general rule, although polygamy is allowed too.
The Shompen worship the moon, known as Houou, as their goddess, whom they believe created the universe.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/opinion/development-of-nicobar-and-the-shompens-struggle-for-survival-3370240
Consider the following statements regarding Rakhigarhi:
- It is one of the oldest and largest cities of the Indus Valley or Harappan Civilization.
- It is located in Gujarat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A reservoir unearthed recently in Haryana’s Rakhigarhi is not just a marvel of Harappan engineering but also advances evolving research on the Saraswati River.
About Rakhigarhi:
Rakhigarhi is an archaeological site located in Hisar district, Haryana, in the Ghaggar-Hakra river plain.
It is one of the oldest and largest cities of the subcontinent’s earliest known Bronze Age urban culture, the Indus Valley or Harappan Civilization, going back to about 6500 BCE.
Rakhigarhi constitutes one of the only two cities of the Harappan Era (6th millennium–1900 BC) situated within India’s current political boundary, the other being Dholavira in Gujarat.
The site was first discovered in the 1960s by the Archeological Survey of India.
Findings:
The exploration around this site has clearly identified seven archaeological mounds spread over an area of approximately 350 ha.
Rakhigarhi primarily yields evidence of occupation during the Early and Mature Harappan periods, with the site being completely abandoned during the Late Harappan period.
The archaeological excavations revealed the mature Harappan phase, represented by a planned township with mud-brick as well as burnt-brick houses with a proper drainage system.
The ceramic industry is represented by red ware, which included dish-on-stand, vase, jar, bowl, beaker, perforated jar, goblet, and handis.
Animal sacrificial pits lined with mud bricks and triangular and circular fire alters on the mud floor have also been excavated, that signifies the ritual system of the Harappans.
A cylindrical seal with five Harappan characters on one side and a symbol of an alligator on the other is an important find from this site.
Other antiquities include blades; terracotta and shell bangles; beads of semi-precious stones, terracotta, shell and copper objects; animal figurines, toy cart frame and wheel of terracotta; bone points; inscribed steatite seals, and sealings.
The excavations have yielded a few extended burials, which certainly belong to a very late stage, maybe the medieval times.
Rakhigarhi is also well-known as the site which has yielded the only DNA evidence from the Harappan era.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://theprint.in/ground-reports/massive-reservoir-found-at-rakhigarhi-is-giving-us-more-clues-on-saraswati-river/2447317/
Fiscal Health Index, recently in news, is published by:
NITI Aayog
Explanation :
Recently, the Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission launched the inaugural issue of NITI Aayog’s report titled “Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2025” in New Delhi.
It provides a comprehensive assessment of the fiscal health of 18 major States of India.
It is based on five key sub-indices: Quality of Expenditure, Revenue Mobilisation, Fiscal Prudence, Debt Index, and Debt Sustainability, along with insights into state-specific challenges and areas for improvement.
It aims to throw light on the fiscal status at the sub-national level and guide policy reforms for sustainable and resilient economic growth.
It has been developed using data from the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG).
Key Highlights of the Report
With a cumulative score of 67.8, Odisha tops the ranking in fiscal health among 18 major States, followed by Chhattisgarh and Goa with scores of 55.2 and 53.6, respectively.
The achiever States display strong fiscal health, excelling in revenue mobilization, expenditure management, and debt sustainability.
Improvements are seen in states like Jharkhand, which has strengthened fiscal prudence and debt sustainability, while Karnataka faces a decline due to weaker performance in expenditure quality and debt management.
These interstate disparities highlight the need for targeted reforms to address specific fiscal challenges and ensure sustainable growth.
Punjab, Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal, and Kerala were the worst-performing States in the Fiscal Health Index (FHI), each facing significant fiscal challenges, and listed under “aspirational” category.
It has listed Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Telangana, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka under the “front-runners” category.
Tamil Nadu, Bihar, Rajasthan, and Haryana were classified as performers.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2095974
Consider the following statements regarding the SANJAY Surveillance System:
- It is battlefield automated surveillance system which integrates the inputs from all ground and aerial battlefield sensors.
- It is jointly developed by the Indian Army and Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Minister of Defence flagged-off ‘SANJAY - The Battlefield Surveillance System (BSS)’ from South Block, New Delhi.
It is a battlefield automated surveillance system which integrates the inputs from all ground and aerial battlefield sensors, processing them to confirm their veracity, preventing duplication and fusing them to produce a Common Surveillance Picture of the battlefield over secured Army Data Network & Satellite Communication Network.
Features:
It is equipped with state-of-the-art sensors and cutting-edge analytics.
It will monitor the vast land borders, prevent intrusions, assess situations with unparalleled accuracy and prove to be a force multiplier in Intelligence, Surveillance & Reconnaissance.
This would enable commanders to operate in both conventional & sub-conventional operations in a Network Centric Environment.
These systems will be inducted to all operational Brigades, Divisions & Corps of the Indian Army in three phases w.e.f. March to October of 2025, which has been declared as ‘Year of Reforms’ in the Ministry of Defence (MoD).
Developed by: It has been indigenously & jointly developed by the Indian Army and Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL).
Significance:
Its induction will be an extraordinary leap towards data and network centricity in the Indian Army.
It will enhance battlefield transparency and transform the future battlefield through a Centralised Web Application which will provide inputs to Command & Army Headquarters, and the Indian Army Decision Support System.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2095712
With reference to the NVS-02 satellite, consider the following:
- It will replace an older NavIC satellite, Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System 1E.
- It will be placed in a geosynchronous transfer orbit by GSLV-F15.
- It is first time using atomic clock for accurate timekeeping.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
India’s space agency, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), has rolled out its Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) rocket, carrying the NVS-02 satellite, as part of the NavIC navigation system.
It is the second of the five second-generation satellites developed by the space agency to replace the existing satellites in the country’s navigation constellation Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System.
It will be placed in a Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit by GSLV-F15.
NVS-01 was launched on board GSLV-F12 in 2023 and for the first time, an indigenous atomic clock was flown in NVS-01.
Features
It is weighing 2,250 kg and has a power capacity of around 3 kW.
It is configured with navigation payload in three frequency bands L1, L5 and S bands in addition to ranging payload in C-band like its predecessor-NVS-01
It also has a precise atomic clock called the Rubidium Atomic Frequency Standard (RAFS) for accurate timekeeping.
It has a longer lifespan of 12 years and also equipped with indigenously developed, more accurate atomic clocks.
It will replace an older NavIC satellite, IRNSS-1E, and be positioned at 111.75°E in orbit.
It is designed, developed, and integrated at the U R Satellite Centre (URSC).
Significance
It will help improve NavIC’s services, which are used for navigation, precision agriculture, emergency services, fleet management, and even mobile device location services.
By incorporating new L1 band signals, NVS-02 improves NavIC’s compatibility with global navigation systems, ensuring wider adoption and better service.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/100th-launch-isro-nvs-satellite-longer-lifespan-indigenous-atomic-clocks-9797713/
Which of the following best describes Blue carbon?
It is the carbon captured by the world’s ocean and coastal ecosystems.
Explanation :
Recent studies suggest that mangroves and coastal wetlands annually sequester Blue carbon at a rate 10 times greater than mature tropical forests.
Blue Carbon is the carbon captured by the world’s ocean and coastal ecosystems.
The world’s mangroves, sea grasses and salt marshes together comprise ‘blue carbon ecosystems.’ They are nature’s most effective carbon sinks.
Coastal ecosystems such as mangroves, tidal marshes and seagrass meadows sequester and store more carbon per unit area than terrestrial forests and are now being recognised for their role in mitigating climate change.
Activities are causing loss of coastal blue carbon ecosystems
The main causes of conversion and degradation of blue carbon ecosystems vary around the world but are largely driven by human activities.
Common drivers are aquaculture, agriculture, mangrove forest exploitation, terrestrial and marine sources of pollution and industrial and urban coastal development.
Significance of Blue Carbon ecosystems
They have the potential to help people and coastal environments mitigate and adapt to climate change.
They help sustain the environment by mitigating climate change.
These ecosystems also provide essential benefits for climate change adaptation, including coastal protection and food security for many coastal communities.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/climate-change/explained-what-is-blue-carbon
Pangsau Pass, recently in news, lies between:
India and Myanmar
Explanation :
Recently, the Pangsau Pass International Festival was celebrated in Nampong, Arunachal Pradesh.
Pangsau Pass or Pan Saung Pass, 3,727 feet (1,136 m) in altitude, lies on the crest of the Patkai Hills on the India-Myanmar border.
The pass offers one of the easiest routes into Burma from the Assam plains.
It is named after the closest Burmese village, Pangsau, that lies 2 km beyond the pass to the east.
It is the reputed route of the 13th century invasion of Assam in India by the Ahoms, a Shan tribe.
The pass became famous during World War II for being the initial obstacle encountered by American General “Vinegar Joe” Stilwell’s forces in their effort to build a land route to isolated China after the fall of Burma to the Japanese.
The famous lake called the Lake of no return in Myanmar side which can be viewed from Pangsau pass.
Pangsau Pass is considered to be “Hell gate” or “Hell Pass” due to difficult terrains in the Indo-Burma Patkai mountain Range.
Key Facts About the Pangsau Pass International Festival
It is celebrated every year in Nampong which is situated in Changlang district of Arunachal Pradesh.
The festival offers a platform for the cross border trade and cultural exchange with neighbouring country Myanmar to exhibit its culture and other products.
The festival conjoins the tribes of both North East and Myanmar and gives them the opportunity to showcase their culture and traditions to the world.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/guwahati/historic-pangsau-pass-fest-returns-to-india-myanmar-border-after-4-year-hiatus/articleshow/117355205.cms
Udanti Sitanadi Tiger Reserve lies in which state?
Chhattisgarh
Explanation :
At least 12 suspected Maoists were killed in a gunfight with security forces inside the Udanti Sitanadi Tiger Reserve in Chhattisgarh’s Gariaband district recently.
About Udanti Sitanadi Tiger Reserve:
It was established by joining the regions represented by Sitanadi and Udanti wildlife sanctuaries.
The Udanti and Sitanadi wildlife sanctuaries derive their names from the rivers Udanti and Sitanadi, which flow through the respective sanctuaries.
The location of the reserve is strategic since it also connects with the Kanker and North Kondagaon forest divisions, forming a contiguous forest corridor to Indravati Tiger Reserve in the Bastar region.
Total Area: 1872 sq.km.
Vegetation: Mixed vegetation is present in the reserve. Dry deciduous forests, tropical and sub-tropical vegetation are also observed here, especially in the area around streams and waterways.
Flora: It contains various types of forest crops mixed with Sal Forest. The ground is covered with a maze of grass, plants, bushes, and saplings.
Fauna:
Tiger, Chital, Wild Buffaloes, Barking Deer, Muntjac, Striped Hyena, Blue Bull, Sloth Bear, Jungle Cat, Sambhar, Gaur, Four-Horned Antelopes, Bison, Panther, etc. are some of the animals present here.
Along with the Indravati Tiger Reserve , Udanti and Sitanadi are important refuges for the last few herds of the highly endangered Wild Buffalo.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/maoist-encounter-chhattisgarh-odisha-joint-operation-2025-125012100554_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding phytopathogenic fungi:
- Majority of plant diseases are caused by phytopathogenic fungi.
- They infect various parts of plants, including roots, stems, leaves, flowers, and fruits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A new species of phytopathogenic fungi, epicoccum indicum (Ascomycota, Didymellaceae), associated with an emerging leaf spot disease in Chrysopogon zizanioides (vetiver), was recently discovered by researchers at Banaras Hindu University.
About Epicoccum indicum:
It is a new species of phytopathogenic fungi.
The species name refers to India, where it was discovered.
What are Phytopathogenic Fungi?
Phytopathogenic fungi are fungi that cause diseases in plants, leading to significant economic losses in agriculture and horticulture.
70–80% of plant diseases are caused by phytopathogenic fungi.
They infect various parts of plants, including roots, stems, leaves, flowers, and fruits.
Most phytopathogenic fungi belong to the Ascomycetes and the Basidiomycetes.
They use various strategies to colonize plants and cause disease.
They possess a wide range of enzymes destroying the carbohydrate polymers, which constitute the building materials of the cell walls.
Some fungi kill their hosts and feed on dead material (necrotrophs), while others colonize the living tissue (biotrophs).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/varanasi/new-species-of-phytopathogenic-fungi-discovered-by-researchers/articleshow/117562886.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS), recently seen in the news:
- It is a large calibre Gun system developed indigenously by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
- It has a range of over 500 km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) recently showcased a model of the indigenous Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS) on its tableau during the 76th Republic Day parade.
About Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS):
It is a large calibre Gun system with the capability to program and fire future Long Range Guided Munitions (LRGM) to achieve precision and deep strike.
This gun is developed indigenously by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), and the production partners of these ATAGS are two private sector companies–Pune-based Bharat Forge and Tata Advanced Systems.
Features:
It is a 155mm, 52-calibre howitzer.
The ATAGS boasts an impressive range of 48 km, placing it among the longest-range towed artillery systems globally.
The gun is towed by a 6×6 platform, providing excellent mobility across varied terrains.
Its advanced features include a burst firing mode and sophisticated electronics.
It also has the shoot-and-scoot capability and is also the first of its kind gun which is capable of achieving the shortest minimum range at a high angle.
The system is configured with an all-electric drive that will ensure maintenance-free and reliable operation over longer periods of time.
The ATAGS is also designed to operate in extreme temperatures.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/reader
Consider the following statements regarding White-Naped Tit, recently seen in the news:
- It is endemic to India.
- It is classified as ‘critically endangered’ under the IUCN Red List
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Bird enthusiasts recently documented the white-naped tit in North Karnataka’s Kappatagudda hills for the first time, identifying it by its call.
About White-Naped Tit:
The white-naped tit (also called pied tit or white-winged tit) is a passerine bird in the tit family Paridae.
Scientific Name: Machlolophus nuchalis
Distribution:
It is endemic to India.
It is found in two disjunct populations in India: in the northwest (in Gujarat, Haryana, and Rajasthan) and in the south (thorn scrubs of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu).
Habitat: Dry thorn scrub forest
Features:
It is the only pied (black-and-white) tit in India.
The upper parts from forehead to tail are glossy black, with a prominent white patch on the lower nape and upper mantle.
The cheeks and the rest of the underparts are white, with a wide black central band running from throat to vent.
The wings have a large white patch with a few black bars.
It is seen in pairs or small family groups.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/hubballi/discovery-of-rare-white-naped-tit-in-north-karnatakas-kappatagudda-hills-marks-a-first/articleshow/117577896.cms
With reference to the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS), consider the following statements:
- Both current and future Central Government employees covered under National Pension System (NPS) are eligible to opt for the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS).
- Under the UPS, employees who complete 25 years of service will receive 50% of the average basic pay earned during the 12 months prior to retirement.
- If the payout holder passes away after superannuation, the legally wedded spouse will receive a family payout equal to 60% of the payout that was admissible to the holder.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Union Finance Ministry recently notified operationalisation of the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) as an option under the National Pension System (NPS) for central government employees.
About Unified Pension Scheme (UPS):
UPS shall apply to Central Government employees who are covered under the National Pension System (NPS) and who choose this option under the NPS.
Both current and future Central Government employees covered under the NPS have the option to choose between the UPS or continue with the existing NPS plan.
Once a decision is made to switch to the UPS, it is considered final and binding.
Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) may issue regulations for operationalizing the UPS.
The effective date for operationalization of the Unified Pension Scheme shall be April 1, 2025.
Key Features of UPS:
UPS provides a guaranteed payout to employees upon superannuation.
UPS will offer 50% of the average basic pay drawn by a Central government employee during the 12 months prior to retirement, provided they complete 25 years of service.
Employees with less than 25 years of service but more than 10 years will receive a pension on a proportionate basis.
A minimum payout of Rs 10,000 per month is assured for employees with 10 or more years of qualifying service.
For those who choose to retire voluntarily after 25 years of service, the payout will begin from the date they would have reached superannuation if they had continued working.
In the event of the payout holder’s death after superannuation, a family payout at 60% of the payout admissible to the holder will be given to the legally wedded spouse.
Additionally, dearness relief will be available on the assured payout and family payout, calculated in the same manner. Dearness Relief will be worked out in the same manner as Dearness Allowance applicable to serving employees.
UPS or assured payout would not be available in case of removal or dismissal from service or resignation of the employee.
Contributions under the UPS:
Unlike the old pension scheme, UPS is contributory in nature, wherein employees will be required to contribute 10 percent of their basic salary and dearness allowance while the employer’s contribution (the central government) will be 18.5 percent.
However, the eventual payout depends on the market returns on that corpus, mostly invested in government debt.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/central-govt-notifies-unified-pension-scheme-for-employees-101737816891343.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Chronic Pulmonary Aspergillosis:
- It is a chronic lung disease that occurs commonly in pre-existing lung cavities.
- It is caused by bacteria and can be passed from person to person.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, a new research paper has identified a life-threatening fungal infection called chronic pulmonary aspergillosis (CPA), mostly in the damaged lungs of tuberculosis survivors among Assam’s tea plantation workers.
It is an infection caused by Aspergillus fumigatus, a fungus that strikes individuals with immunodeficiency.
It is a chronic lung disease that occurs commonly in pre-existing lung cavities.
It mostly occurs in post-TB or active TB patients and shares similar clinical features with tuberculosis.
It is not contagious, meaning it cannot be passed from person to person.
Symptoms:
It doesn’t always cause symptoms in the early stages. When symptoms do occur, they can vary from person to person. The most common symptom of CPA is coughing up blood.
Other symptoms can include: unintentional weight loss, fatigue, shortness of breath, wheezing
Treatment:
Antifungal medications are the most common treatment for CPA.
Surgery is an option to remove the fungal mass.
Key facts about Aspergillus
Aspergillus species are filamentous fungi that are commonly found in soil, decaying vegetation, and seeds and grains, where they thrive as saprophytes.
Most Aspergillus species are found in a wide variety of environments and substrates on the Earth throughout the year.
Only a few well-known species are considered as important opportunistic pathogens in humans.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/assam/assam-tea-workers-prone-to-post-tb-fungal-disease-study/article69143488.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Corpse flower:
- It is native to the Indonesian island of Sumatra.
- It is categorized as endangered by the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, a “corpse flower” at the Royal Botanic Gardens of Sydney has drawn more than 20,000 curious viewers to a special display for its much-anticipated opening.
It is native to the Indonesian island of Sumatra, gets its name from the literal translation of the Indonesian phrase Bunga bangkai.
Its species name is Amorphophallus titanium.
Features
Some corpse flowers have been known to grow 3 meters (about 10 feet) tall before revealing a phallic spadix (or spike).
Its odor released by the spadix to attract insects is often likened to decaying meat.
Its blooms are often inconsistent. Many will bloom once a decade, though sometimes even more frequently.
Life Cycle of Corpse Flower:
The life cycle depends on the time it takes for the “corm” of the flower to gather enough energy to bloom.
When enough energy has been stored through leaf cycles, the flowering stage begins.
The bloom lasts for a day, with the spathe (the purple, petal-like structure surrounding the spadix) taking hours to fully unfurl.
Insects attracted to the odor are ones that lay their eggs in decaying meat, but they have the benefit of moving pollen between male and female flowers to trigger the flower’s reproductive cycle.
These flowers have both male and female flowers. Female flowers open first to prevent a plant from pollinating itself. Nearby flowers are required to bloom at similar times in order for cross-pollination to be possible.
Chemicals emitted during female flowering are: Dimethyl disulfide, Dimethyl trisulfide, 3-Methylbutanal, Dimethyl sulfide and Methanethiol, Methyl thioacetate and Isovaleric acid.
It is categorized as Endangered by the IUCN.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/corpse-flower-rotting-meat-9799221/
With reference to the Paraquat, consider the following:
- It is used to control the growth of weeds and desiccate crops like cotton.
- It is completely banned in India.
- Its exposure damages human kidney and lungs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, a 24-year old woman was awarded the death sentence by a Thiruvananthapuram court which found her guilty of poisoning her boyfriend in 2022 with a chemical herbicide called paraquat.
Paraquat, also known as paraquat dichloride or methyl viologen, is one of the world’s most-used herbicides.
It is primarily used to control the growth of weeds and desiccate crops like cotton before harvest.
The WHO classifies paraquat as Category 2 (moderately hazardous and moderately irritating) chemical.
Its sale is banned in over 70 countries, including China and the European Union, due to its potent toxicity. It is widely used in the US and in India.
How does paraquat poisoning occur?
Ingestion is the most common route of exposure.
It may also be transferred and absorbed through prolonged skin contact.
Symptoms of poisoning
It depends on the amount, means and length of exposure to the chemical.
If ingested in a small amount, a person would display signs of damage to the heart, kidneys, liver and lungs over several days or weeks.
If ingested in large amount then the person could face acute kidney failure, rapid heart rate, failure of the heart and liver, seizures, and respiratory failure.
The person would immediately display abdominal pain, swelling and pain in the mouth and throat, bloody diarrhoea and nausea.
Treatments
There are no known antidotes for paraquat poisoning but some studies mentions that immunosuppression or charcoal haemoperfusion as treatment.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-health/kerala-woman-death-sentence-paraquat-poison-9798873/
Consider the following statements regarding the Reserve Bank-Integrated Ombudsman Scheme:
- It covers all commercial banks and non-banking financial companies.
- Under this a regulated entity will not have any right to appeal in cases where an award is issued by the ombudsman against it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) resolved 95 per cent of complaints received under the Reserve Bank-Integrated Ombudsman Scheme (RB-IOS) between April 1, 2023, and March 31, 2024.
It was launched on November 12, 2021.
The Scheme adopts ‘One Nation One Ombudsman’ approach by making the RBI’s Ombudsman mechanism jurisdiction neutral.
It integrated the erstwhile three Ombudsman schemes of RBI namely: the Banking Ombudsman Scheme, 2006, the Ombudsman Scheme for Non-Banking Financial Companies, 2018 and the Ombudsman Scheme for Digital Transactions, 2019.
Features
It defines ‘deficiency in service’ as the ground for filing a complaint, with a specified list of exclusions. A deficiency of service is a shortcoming or an inadequacy in the financial service or some other service related to it that the Regulated Entities (RE) is supposed to provide.
A Centralised Receipt and Processing Centre has been set up at RBI, Chandigarh, for receipt and initial processing of physical and email complaints in any language.
The regulated entity will not have any right to appeal in cases where an award is issued by the ombudsman against it for not furnishing satisfactory and timely information.
Banks covered: It covers all commercial banks, Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs), RRBs, Payment System Participants, most Primary (Urban) Cooperative Banks with a deposit size of ₹50 crore and Credit Information Companies.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/banking-and-finance/rbi-ombudsman-scheme-sees-32-81-surge-in-bank-customer-complaints-to-9-34-lakh-9799321/
Consider the following statements regarding the Inland Waterways Authority of India:
- It develops and maintains inland waterway transport infrastructure on national waterways.
- It works under the union Ministry of Jal Shakti.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) sets up new Regional Office at Varanasi.
It is a statutory body established the under the Inland Waterways Authority of India Act (IWAI), 1985.
Purpose: The Authority primarily undertakes projects for development and maintenance of IWT infrastructure on national waterways through grant received from Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
It presently has five regional offices in Guwahati (Assam), Patna (Bihar), Kochi (Kerala), Bhubaneswar (Odisha) and Kolkata (West Bengal).
Headquarter: Noida, Uttar Pradesh
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
The Varanasi Regional Office of IWAI shall look after development works not only on River Ganga but its various tributaries and other national waterways in Uttar Pradesh.
These include rivers like Betwa, Chambal, Gomti, Tons, Varuna and parts of Gandak, Ghaghra, Karamnasa and Yamuna rivers.
IWAI’s Varanasi Regional Office will also be coordinating with the State IWT Authority set up for development of waterways in Uttar Pradesh.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2095758
Consider the following statements regarding WASP-127b, recently seen in the news:
- It is a large exoplanet located in our Milky Way galaxy.
- It is a rocky planet that orbits very far from its host star.
1 only
Explanation :
Scientists recently detected ‘supersonic winds’ travelling at a speed of 33,000 km per hour on a giant gaseous planet named WASP-127b.
About WASP-127b:
It is a large gaseous exoplanet, located in our Milky Way galaxy.
It is approximately 520 light-years from the earth in a tight orbit around a star similar to our sun.
It is a type called a hot Jupiter, a gas giant that orbits very close to its host star.
It orbits its star roughly every four days at just about 5% of the distance between the earth and the sun, leaving it scorched by stellar radiation.
Like our moon is to the earth, one side of WASP-127b perpetually faces its star—the day side. The other side always faces away—the night side.
Its atmosphere is about 2,060 degrees Fahrenheit (1,400 degrees Kelvin/1,127 degrees Celsius), with its polar regions less hot than the rest.
WASP-127b’s diameter is about 30% larger than Jupiter’s, but its mass is only about 16% that of Jupiter’s, making it one of the puffiest planets ever observed.
Like Jupiter, WASP-127b is composed mainly of hydrogen and helium, but its atmosphere also contains traces of more complex molecules such as carbon monoxide and water.
WASP-127b is a gas giant planet, which means that it has no rocky or solid surface beneath its atmospheric layers.
Instead, below the observed atmosphere lies gas that becomes denser and more pressurized the deeper one goes into the planet.
The supersonic jet stream winds circling WASP-127b at its equator are the fastest of their kind on any known planet.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.news18.com/viral/storm-moving-at-33000-kilometres-per-hour-scientists-shocked-at-discovery-ws-ab-9203264.html
Surajpur Wetland lies in which state?
Uttar Pradesh
Explanation :
The Greater Noida authority recently prepared a project to help protect and conserve the Surajpur wetland.
About Surajpur Wetland:
It is situated near Surajpur village in Dadri Tehsil of District Gautam Budh Nagar under the Greater Noida Industrial Development Authority, Uttar Pradesh.
It is an excellent example of an urban wetland in the Yamuna River basin.
It is a green lung for Greater Noida, with 308 hectares of catchment area and 60 hectares of the waterbody alone.
It is classified as an Important Bird Area (IBA) by BirdLife International.
It forms suitable breeding ground for waterfowl such as Spot-billed Duck, Lesser-whistling Duck, Cotton Pygmy Goose, and Comb Duck, and wintering waterfowl such as Red-crested Pochard, Ferruginous Pochard, Bar-headed Goose, Greylag Goose, Common Teal, Northern Shoveler, and Gadwall.
Apart from a large population of avifauna, the wetland also supports six species of mammals, including Nilgai, Indian Grey Mongoose, Indian Hare, Golden Jackal, and Five-striped Squirrel.
The wetland is under threat due to the indiscriminate discharge of highly polluted wastewater into its channels.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/pollution/saving-surajpur-wetland-in-greater-noida
Nagoba Jatara is a tribal festival held in which one of the following states?
Telangana
Explanation :
Nagoba Jatara, the eight-day holy pilgrimage event of Mesram clan Adivasi Gonds, is slated to start at Keslapur village in north Telangana’s tribal heartland of Indervelli mandal in Adilabad district.
About Nagoba Jatara:
Nagoba Jatara is a tribal festival held in January/February in Keslapur village, Adilabad district, Telangana.
It is the second biggest tribal festival in India, after the Sammakka Saralamma Jatara, held in Telangana itself.
It is celebrated for 10 days by the Mesaram clan of Gond tribes.
Tribal people from Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Karnataka, Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh belonging to the Mesaram clan offer prayers at the festival.
The chief deity at the festival is the ‘Nagoba’ (Sri Shek – Cobra).
Rituals:
Few elder members of the Mesram clan go barefoot to the river Godavari a few days before the Jatara, bring holy water, and keep it near the Banyan Tree in front of the Nagoba Temple.
The Jatara includes a ‘Bheting’ ceremony, where new brides are introduced into the clan. New brides come in possession wearing white saris and are led by the elder women to worship the Nagoba, after which they are recognized as a full-fledged member of the clan.
The Gusadi Dance performance by dancers from the Gond tribe is a major special attraction of the event.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/all-set-for-nagoba-jatara-in-keslapur-the-abode-of-serpent-deity-in-telanganas-tribal-heartland-of-indervelli-mandal/article69147507.ece
With reference to the Baltic Sea, consider the following:
- Russia
- Germany
- Sweden
- Norway
- Poland
How many of the above countries share coastline with the Baltic Sea?
Only four
Explanation :
Sweden recently seized a ship suspected of having damaged a fibre-optic cable under the Baltic Sea linking the country to Latvia.
About Baltic Sea:
It is one of the seas of the Atlantic Ocean, situated in Northern Europe.
It is the youngest sea on our planet, emerging some 10,000-15,000 years ago as the glaciers retreated at the end of the last Ice Age.
It is approximately 1,600 km long and 193 km wide, covering an area of approximately 377,000 sq.km.
Surrounding Countries: It has a coastline of approximately 8,000 km, shared by several countries, including Sweden, Poland, Lithuania, Latvia, Finland, Estonia, Germany, Denmark, and Russia.
It is connected to the Atlantic Ocean through the Danish Straits.
It is connected to the White Sea via the White Sea Canal and to the North Sea’s German Bight via Kiel Canal.
The Baltic Sea contains three major gulfs: the Gulf of Bothnia to the north, the Gulf of Finland to the east, and the Gulf of Riga slightly to the south of that.
It is often cited as the world’s largest brackish inland water body.
Its water salinity levels are lower than that of the World Oceans due to the inflow of fresh water from the surrounding land and the sea’s shallowness.
There are about sixty rivers draining into the Baltic Sea. Neva is the largest river that drains into the Baltic Sea.
Islands: It is home to over 20 islands and archipelagos. Gotland, located off the coast of Sweden, is the largest island in the Baltic Sea.
Algal Harmful Blooms are also one of the issues that affect the Baltic Sea.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/world-news/sweden-seizes-ship-suspected-of-baltic-sea-cable-sabotage-101737924948285.html
With reference to Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), consider the following statements:
- It aims to provide financial assistance to farmers suffering from crop damage or loss arising out of unforeseen events.
- All farmers, including sharecroppers and tenant farmers, growing the notified crops in the notified areas are eligible for coverage.
- PMFBY integrates advanced technologies like satellite imaging, drones, and mobile apps for precise estimation of crop loss.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Union government has decided to expand the ambit of the PM Fasal Bima Yojana to include crop damage by animals as a ground for payouts, a long-standing demand by farmers, an official said recently.
About Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY):
Launched on 18th February 2016, PMFBY is a crop insurance scheme by the Department of Agriculture, Cooperation, and Farmers’ Welfare, Ministry of Agriculture.
PMFBY aims to provide financial protection to farmers against crop loss due to natural disasters (hail, drought, famine), pests, and diseases.
PMFBY provides crop insurance at a cost-effective premium to all Indian farmers.
It is implemented through a network of insurance companies and banks.
Objectives:
To provide financial assistance and support to farmers suffering from crop damage or loss arising out of unforeseen events.
To stabilise the income of farmers and ensure continuance in farming.
To encourage the farmers to adopt modern and innovative agricultural practices.
To ensure crop diversification, and creditworthiness of the farmers, enhance growth, and competitiveness of the agriculture sector and protect the farmers from production risks.
Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana Eligibility:
All farmers, including sharecroppers and tenant farmers, growing the notified crops in the notified areas are eligible for coverage.
Compulsory Component: All farmers availing Seasonal Agricultural Operations (SAO) loans from Financial Institutions (i.e. loanee farmers) for the notified crops would be covered compulsorily.
Voluntary Component: The Scheme would be optional for the non-loanee farmers.
Farmers must have an insurable interest in the insured crops.
Farmers must possess a valid and authenticated land ownership certificate or a valid land tenure agreement.
Farmers must not have received compensation for the same crop loss from any other medium or source.
Special efforts shall be made to ensure maximum coverage of SC/ST/Women farmers under the scheme.
Budget allocation and utilization under this should be in proportion to land holdings of SC/ ST/ General along with women in the respective state cluster.
Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana Benefits:
Affordable Premiums:
The maximum premium payable by the farmer will be 2% for the kharif food and oilseed crops.
For rabi food and oilseed crops, it is 1.5% and for yearly commercial or horticultural crops it will be 5%.
The remaining premium is subsidized by the government.
For the farmers in the North-Eastern States, Jammu, Kashmir, and Himachal Pradesh, the government also pays the entire premium.
Comprehensive Coverage:
The scheme covers natural disasters (droughts, floods), pests, and diseases.
Post-harvest losses due to local risks like hailstorms and landslides are also included.
Loss or damage to notified insured crops due to war, nuclear risks, malicious damage and other preventable risks is excluded from the scope of coverage.
Timely Compensation: PMFBY aims to process claims within two months of the harvest to ensure that farmers get the compensation quickly, preventing them from falling into debt traps.
Technology-Driven Implementation:
PMFBY integrates advanced technologies like satellite imaging, drones, and mobile apps for precise estimation of crop loss, ensuring accurate claim settlements.
The National Crop Insurance Portal (NCIP) digitizes processes for seamless farmer-insurer-bank interaction. YES-TECH (Yield Estimation System Based on Technology) ensures remote sensing based accurate yield estimation, while CROPIC (Collection of Real-time photos and Observations of Crops) uses geotagged photos to verify crops for precise damage assessment.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/central-scheme-to-cover-crop-damage-by-animals-101738004052706-amp.html
Fentanyl, recently in news, is a/an
synthetic opioid drug
Explanation :
Recently, the US President Donald Trump said his administration was discussing a 10% punitive duty on Chinese imports as fentanyl is being sent from China to the US via Mexico and Canada.
It is a potent synthetic opioid drug approved by the Food and Drug Administration for use as an analgesic [for pain relief] and anesthetic.
It is approximately 100 times more potent than morphine and 50 times more potent than heroin as an analgesic.
Its overdoses can cause “stupor, changes in pupil size, clammy skin, cyanosis [blue skin], coma, and respiratory failure leading to death”.
What are Opioids?
These are a class of drugs that derive from, or mimic, natural substances found in the opium poppy plant.
Impacts on human body: They activate an area of nerve cells in the brain and body called opioid receptors that block pain signals between the brain and the body.
They produce a variety of effects, including pain relief and euphoria, and are highly addictive. Some common opioids include oxycodone, morphine, codeine, heroin, and fentanyl.
Their overuse can lead to death due to the effects of opioids on the part of the brain which regulates breathing.
An opioid overdose can be identified by a combination of three signs and symptoms: pinpoint pupils, unconsciousness and difficulties with breathing.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/trump-tariff-china-fentanyl-9798825/
Consider the following statements regarding Etikoppaka toys:
- These are exquisite wooden toys which are mainly crafted in Andhra Pradesh.
- These toys have received official recognition with a Geographical Indication tag.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Andhra Pradesh’s eco-friendly wooden Etikoppaka Toys earn accolades at Republic Day parade.
About Etikoppaka Toys:
These are known as Etikoppaka Bommalu, the exquisite wooden toys are rooted in a 400-year-old tradition of craftsmanship.
Origin: These are originating in Etikoppaka village in Andhra Pradesh, the toys are renowned for their smooth contours and vibrant colours.
These toys are made out of wood and are coloured with natural dyes derived from seeds, lacquer, bark, roots and leaves.
The artisans mainly use the wood from trees known as ‘ankudu’ (Wrightia Tinctoria) that is soft in nature.
These toys have no sharp edges. They are rounded on all sides.
In 2017, the toys received official recognition with a Geographical Indication (GI) tag, a hallmark of their authenticity and cultural significance.
The Etikoppaka toys, with their vivid colours and timeless designs, have since gained international recognition.
What is the Geographical Indication (GI) tag?
It is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin.
In India, Geographical Indications registration is administered by the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.
The first product in India to be accorded with GI tag was Darjeeling tea in the year 2004-05.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/republic-day-andhra-pradesh-tableau-etikoppaka-wooden-toys-9800086/
With reference to Namdapha Tiger Reserve, consider the following:
- It is located in the state of Arunachal Pradesh.
- It shares border with the Lawkhowa Wildlife Sanctuary.
- It is home to Blue Vanda which is a rare and endangered orchard.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, an elephant has been camera-trapped in Namdapha Tiger Reserve after 12 years, fuelling conservation hopes.
Location: It is located in the Changlang District of Arunachal Pradesh, surrounded by Myanmar on the South East.
It has a common boundary with Kamlang Wildlife Sanctuary. Lawkhowa Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in Assam between Kaziranga National Park and Orang National Park.
It is nestled between the Dapha Bum ridge of Mishmi Hills, of North Eastern Himalayas and the Patkai Ranges.
Vegetation: It consists of Northern Tropical Evergreen Forest, North Indian Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests, East Himalayan Moist Temperate Forests, Moist Alpine Scrub Forests.
River: Namdapha river flows right across in a North-South direction of the this reserve and hence the name Namdapha has been given.
It is located at the junction of the Indian Sub-continent and Indo-China Biogeographic Regions.
Flora:
It consists of species like Pinus Merkusi and Abies Delavavi being exclusive to the park.
It is home to Blue Vanda which is a rare and endangered orchard.
It also consists of medicinal plants like Mishimi Teeta (Copti teeta), which is used by the local tribes to treat different types of diseases.
Fauna: Elephants, Himalayan Black Bear, Himalayan Sun Bear, Hoolock Gibbon (only Ape in India), Slow Loris etc.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/elephant-recorded-in-indias-namdapha-tiger-reserve-after-12-years/article69146309.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the enhanced Certificate of Origin (eCoO) 2.0 System:
- It is a platform which provides information about Free Trade Agreement.
- It is developed by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) has launched the enhanced Certificate of Origin (eCoO) 2.0 System.
It is an upgrade designed to simplify the certification process for exporters and enhance trade efficiency.
Features: Multi-user access, which enables exporters to authorize multiple users under a single Importer Exporter Code (IEC). Additionally, the system now supports Aadhaar-based e-signing alongside digital signature tokens, providing greater flexibility.
An integrated dashboard offers exporters seamless access to eCoO services, Free Trade Agreement (FTA) information, trade events, and other resources.
The platform also introduces an in-lieu Certificate of Origin feature, allowing exporters to request corrections to previously issued certificates through an easy online application process.
The Certificates of Origin platform processes over 7,000 eCoOs daily, including both preferential and non-preferential certificates, connecting 125 issuing agencies which includes 110 national and regional chambers of commerce & industry
Certificates of Origin is a single access point for all exporters, for all FTAs/PTAs and for all agencies concerned.
The platform has been designed and developed by Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) and Regional & Multilateral Trade Relations (RMTR) Division, Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2096786
Consider the following statements regarding the Wetland Accredited Cities:
- It is a voluntary scheme which provides cities that value their natural or human-made wetlands to gain international recognition.
- Under this recently Mumbai has received this accreditation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, Indore and Udaipur have become the first two Indian cities to join the global list of wetland accredited cities.
It is a voluntary accreditation scheme provides an opportunity for cities that value their natural or human-made wetlands to gain international recognition and positive publicity for their efforts.
It was approved during the Ramsar Convention COP12 held in the year 2015.
Aim: It aims to further promote the conservation and wise use of urban and peri-urban wetlands, as well as sustainable socio-economic benefits for local populations.
The Wetland City Accreditation is valid for 6 years, after which it must be renewed, providing that it continues to fill each of the 6 criteria.
It recognizes cities which have taken exceptional steps to safeguard their urban wetlands.
It also recognizes the importance of wetlands in urban and peri-urban environments and to take appropriate measures to conserve and protect these wetlands.
To be formally accredited, a candidate for WCA should satisfy the standards used to implement each of the six international criteria mentioned in Operational Guidance for WCA of the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands.
Since Ramsar COP13, 74 cities from 17 countries have been officially recognized as “Wetland Cities”.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/indore-and-udaipur-become-the-first-two-indian-cities-to-join-the-global-list-of-wetland-accredited-cities/articleshow/117558751.cms
With reference to the Annual Status of Education Report (ASER), consider the following statements:
- It is a citizen-led survey that provides reliable estimates of children’s schooling and learning levels in rural India.
- It is published by the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT).
- It is a household-based rather than school-based survey.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
After a prolonged decline due to learning losses during the COVID-19 pandemic, there has now been a modest recovery in foundational literacy and numeracy (FLN) among school students, according to the ASER 2024, released recently.
About Annual Status of Education Report (ASER):
It is an annual citizen-led survey that provides reliable estimates of children’s schooling and learning levels in rural India.
ASER is published by the NGO Pratham, and the survey has been conducted every year since 2005.
In 2016, ASER switched to an alternate-year model where the ‘basic’ ASER is conducted in all rural districts of the country every other year rather than annually.
In the gap years, a smaller survey (typically 1-2 districts per state) focuses on other age groups and domains.
The ‘basic’ ASER survey tracks enrollment for children aged 3-16 and assesses basic reading and arithmetic of children aged 5-16.
ASER is a household-based rather than school-based survey.
This design enables all children to be included those who have never been to school or have dropped out; those who are in government schools, private schools, religious, or other types of schools; as well as those who are absent from school on the day of the assessment.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/education/rise-in-govt-school-enrolment-during-covid-reversed-full-recovery-from-learning-loss-aser-report/article69150453.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Asteroids:
- They are the rocky remnants of material leftover from the formation of the solar system.
- The majority of asteroids originate from the Kuiper Belt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A 14-year-old boy from Noida has earned recognition from NASA for his provisional discovery of an asteroid, currently labelled as ‘2023 OG40.’
About Asteroids:
Asteroids, sometimes called minor planets, are the rocky remnants of material leftover from the formation of the solar system and its planets approximately 4.6 billion years ago.
They are small, rocky objects that orbit the Sun in highly flattened, or “elliptical” circles, often rotating erratically, tumbling, and falling through space.
The majority of asteroids originate from the main asteroid belt, a region between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
Asteroids are found in other places, too. For example, some asteroids are found in the orbital path of planets.
This means that the asteroid and the planet follow the same path around the sun.
Earth and a few other planets have asteroids like this.
Although asteroids orbit the Sun like planets, they are much smaller than planets.
Most asteroids are irregularly shaped, though a few are nearly spherical, and they are often pitted or cratered.
Some asteroids are hundreds of miles in diameter, but many more are as small as pebbles.
More than 150 asteroids are known to have a small companion moon (some have two moons).
There are also binary (double) asteroids, in which two rocky bodies of roughly equal size orbit each other, as well as triple asteroid systems.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/trending/trending-in-india/noida-teen-earn-nasa-recognition-for-asteroid-discovery-will-get-to-name-it-9804195/
With reference to Harmful Algal Blooms (HABs), consider the following statements:
- Higher levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
- Excessive nutrients from fertilizers or sewage waste.
- Warmer water temperatures.
How many of the statements given above can intensify algae growth and lead to HABs?
Only two
Explanation :
India’s coastline, rich in biodiversity, is grappling with a growing phenomenon of Harmful Algal Blooms (HABs).
About Harmful Algal Blooms (HABs):
Certain environmental conditions in water bodies can intensify algae growth, causing algal blooms.
The excessive algal growth becomes visible to the naked eye and can be green, blue-green, red, or brown, depending on the type of algae.
Algal blooms can happen in fresh, marine (salt), and brackish (a mixture of fresh and salt) water.
Not all algal blooms are harmful. Most blooms are beneficial because the tiny plants are food for animals in the ocean.
Blooms with the potential to harm human health or aquatic ecosystems are referred to as HABs.
Why do HABs occur?
Certain environmental conditions, such as warmer water temperatures in the summer and excessive nutrients from fertilizers or sewage waste brought by runoff, trigger HABs.
Many different types of algae can cause HABs. However, three types—cyanobacteria, dinoflagellates, and diatoms—cause most blooms that make people and animals sick.
What are impacts from HABs?
HABs can produce toxins which can result in acute or chronic disease in most vertebrates, depending on the type of toxin and amount of toxin absorbed.
HABs can damage the environment by depleting the oxygen in the water, which can kill fish and other living creatures.
HABs that bloom near the water surface can also block sunlight from reaching organisms deeper in the water.
Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/incois-identifies-nine-key-algal-bloom-hotspots-along-indias-east-and-west-coasts/article69131605.ece
Which one of the following statements is not correct about the United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees in the Near East (UNRWA)?
A. UNRWA is unique among UN agencies in that it delivers services directly. B. UNRWA reports only to the UN General Assembly. C. UNRWA is funded almost entirely by voluntary contributions from UN member states.
All the statements given are correct.
Explanation :
Israel’s ambassador to the UN recently announced that Israel will cease cooperation with the UN relief and works agency (UNRWA).
About United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees in the Near East (UNRWA):
It is a UN agency that supports the relief and human development of Palestinian refugees.
Establishment:
UNRWA was established by United Nations General Assembly Resolution 302 (IV) of 8 December 1949.
Objective: To provide relief, health, and education services for Palestinians who lost both their homes and their means of livelihood during the Arab-Israeli wars following the establishment of the State of Israel in 1948.
The agency began operations on 1 May 1950.
In the absence of a solution to the Palestine refugee problem, the General Assembly has repeatedly renewed UNRWA’s mandate, most recently extending it until 30 June 2026.
Headquarters:
It was originally headquartered in Beirut, Lebanon, but was moved to Vienna, Austria, in 1978.
In 1996 the General Assembly moved the agency to the Gaza Strip to demonstrate the Assembly’s commitment to the Arab-Israeli peace process.
UNRWA is unique among UN agencies in that it delivers services directly.
UNRWA’s services encompass education, health care, relief and social services, camp infrastructure and improvement, microfinance, and emergency assistance, including in times of armed conflict.
It supports more than five million registered Palestinian refugees, and their patrilineal descendants, who fled or were expelled from their homes during the 1948 Palestine war, as well as those who fled or were expelled during and following the 1967 Six Day war.
Fields of operations: It provides services in its five fields of operations: Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, the Gaza Strip, and the West Bank, including the East of Jerusalem.
Funding:
UNRWA is funded almost entirely by voluntary contributions from UN member states.
UNRWA also receives some funding from the regular budget of the UN.
UNRWA reports only to the UN General Assembly.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/middle-east/israels-un-ambassador-tells-security-council-unwra-has-48-hours-left/articleshow/117649770.cms
Sharavathy Lion-Tailed Macaque Sanctuary lies in which state?
Karnataka
Explanation :
The State Board of Wildlife recently gave conditional approval for the Sharavathy Pumped Storage Project in the Sharavathy Lion-Tailed Macaque Sanctuary.
About Sharavathy Lion-Tailed Macaque Sanctuary:
It is located in the Sharavathi River Valley of Sagar taluk in Shivamogga District, Karnataka.
It lies in the Western Ghats, mainly covered with evergreen and semi-evergreen forests in the valleys and grassy patches on hilltops.
It was formed by combining the existing Sharavathi Valley Wildlife Sanctuary, Aghanashini Lion-Tailed Macaque Conservation Reserve, and the adjoining reserve forest blocks.
The sanctuary shares its southwestern boundary with the Mookambika Wildlife Sanctuary.
Flora: The sanctuary is immensely rich in species like Dhoopa, Gulmavu, Surahonne, Mavu, Nandi, etc.
Fauna:
It is considered as a key habitat for protecting the endangered Lion-Tailed Macaque (Macaca silenus), considered as endemic to Western Ghats.
Other mammals include tiger, leopard, wild dog, jackal, sloth bear, spotted deer,sambar,barking deer, mouse deer, wild pig, common langur,bonnet macaque,Malabar giant squirrel, etc.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/pumped-storage-project-in-sharavathy-lion-tailed-macaque-sanctuary-gets-condition-approval/article69151832.ece
Lezim dance, recently in news, is mainly performed in:
Maharashtra
Explanation :
Recently, a scene of Lezim dance in the upcoming Bollywood film Chhava, based on the life of Maratha ruler Chhatrapati Sambhaji Maharaj, has led to controversy in Maharashtra.
It is a folk dance from the state of Maharashtra.
It gets its name after a musical instrument- a unique wooden stick, with jingling cymbals attached to it that the dancers carry while performing the dance.
Lezim is as much a rigorous physical exercise, a drill, as a dance: the formations are in twos and fours and sometimes even a circle.
The dance is accompanied by a dhol or dhalgi (small dhol).
There are no winds or string instruments accompanying it, often there is no song accompaniment either, but of late, sometimes, a song is sung.”
Musical Instruments:
Lizem is a kind of musical instrument which was earlier traditionally used as an instrument in all folk dances but today it is primarily used in Ganesha procession.
The dancers carry a wooden stick fixed with jingling cymbals. These jingling cymbals are called Lezim. Dholki, a drum instrument is used as the main percussion music in the performance.
Who was Chhatrapati Sambhaji Maharaj?
He was the eldest son of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.
He came to power following a bloody succession battle with his half-brother Rajaram in 1681.
The Mughal emperor Aurangzeb (1618-1707) was a contemporary and his plan to extend his empire towards the Deccan often resulted in clashes with the Marathas.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/chhava-controversy-why-some-have-objected-to-film-on-chhatrapati-sambhaji-maharaj-9802735/
Consider the following statements regarding Organophosphate:
- These are chemical compounds formed through the esterification process involving phosphoric acid and alcohol.
- These are used in pesticides and insecticides.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, doctors treating patients from J&K’s Baddal village said that organophosphate could be behind the 17 deaths that had spread panic in the village.
It is a chemical that is used in pesticides and insecticides.
Organophosphates are efficiently absorbed by inhalation and ingestion.
These are chemical compounds formed through the esterification process involving phosphoric acid and alcohol.
These are generally used to protect crops from pests and even to control the spread of disease by insects and have extensive application in manufacturing plastics and solvents.
Impact on human Health:
They work by disrupting the transmission of nerve signals in exposed organisms with fatal. Certain organophosphates have caused a different kind of neurotoxicity consisting of damage to the afferent fibers of peripheral and central nerves and associated with inhibition of “neuropathy target esterase”.
What is Esterification?
It is a chemical reaction in which two reactants such as alcohol and acid combine to create an ester as the reaction product.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/jammu-kashmir-mystery-deaths-baddal-pesticides-likely-cause-9802448/
With reference to Indian squid, consider the following:
- It is a cephalopod species that is commonly found in the waters off the coasts of India.
- It is categorized as critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
- It is a fast swimmer and capable of propelling themselves through the water using a jet propulsion system.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Researchers at the Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute, Kochi, claimed to have decoded the gene expression pattern of Indian squid (Uroteuthis duvaucelii).
It is also known as the Indian calamari, is a cephalopod species that is commonly found in the waters off the coasts of India.
Squids are known for their advanced nervous system, exceptional problem-solving skills, and complex behaviours like camouflage and jet propulsion.
Features
They are typically around 20-30 cm in length, although larger specimens can reach up to 50 cm.
It has a distinctive coloration, with a light pinkish-gray body and two large fins on either side. They have eight arms and two longer tentacles that they use to capture prey.
It is a fast swimmer and capable of propelling themselves through the water using a jet propulsion system.
Squids tend to prefer areas with high levels of dissolved oxygen, as this is crucial for their respiration.
Habitat: These are found in a variety of habitats in the Indian Ocean, ranging from coastal waters to the open sea. They are commonly found in depths of 100 to 500 meters, although some species can be found as deep as 1,500 meters.
Distribution: It is known to occur in the Indo-West Pacific in the Indian Ocean, Red Sea, and Arabian Sea, eastwards from Mozambique to the South China Sea and the Philippine Sea, northward to Taiwan.
Conservation status
IUCN: Least Concern
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Kochi/scientists-claim-to-have-decoded-gene-expression-pattern-of-indian-squid/article69151498.ece
“When-listed” platform is an initiative of:
Securities and Exchange Board of India
Explanation :
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is looking to launch a “when-listed” platform.
It is launched for trading of shares of companies that have finished their initial public offering (IPO) and are yet to be listed on stock exchanges.
This is aimed at reducing the activity in the grey market, which is largely unregulated and has a significant influence on listings.
Present timeline of listing shares in India
At present, once the IPO is closed, shares have to be listed on trading platforms in trading plus three working days (T+3), with T being the closing day of the offer. The allotment of shares is done on T+1 day.
In the period between the allotment of shares and listing day, investors trade in the grey market.
What is Grey market?
It refers to an unofficial trading of securities even before they are listed on a stock exchange. This is an unregulated market and works on demand and supply.
Many investors look at the premium offered in the grey market for stock of a company which has launched an IPO, before considering investing in the offer.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/to-curb-grey-market-activity-sebi-is-working-on-launching-when-listed-platform-9792056/
Consider the following statements regarding the Asian Waterbird Census:
- It supports the conservation and management of wetlands and waterbirds worldwide.
- It is part of International Waterbird Census conducted annually.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
As per the Asian Waterbird Census-2025 , a record number of 39,725 birds belonging to 106 species have been sighted in the Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary and adjoining wetlands.
It is a citizen-science programme supports the conservation and management of wetlands and waterbirds worldwide.
It is conducted annually and is part of the global International Waterbird Census (IWC).
It was initiated in 1987 in the Indian subcontinent and since has grown rapidly to cover major region of Asia, from Afghanistan eastwards to Japan, Southeast Asia and Australasia.
The census thus covers the entire East Asian – Australasian Flyway and a large part of the Central Asian Flyway.
In India it is conducted under the aegis of the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) and the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) in early January.
What is Bombay Natural History Society?
It is a Non-Governmental Organisation in India engaged in conservation and biodiversity research.
BNHS has been designated as a ‘Scientific and Industrial Research Organisation’ by the Department of Science and Technology. BNHS is the partner of BirdLife International in India.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/asian-water-bird-census-2025-coringa-adjoining-wetlands-emerge-prime-feeding-habitat-for-106-avian-species/article69151255.ece
Consider the following statements:
- It flows in India and Pakistan.
- It flows only during the monsoon season.
- It originates in the Shivalik Hills of Himachal Pradesh and flows through Haryana and Rajasthan before disappearing into the Thar Desert.
The above statements correctly describe which one of the following rivers?
Ghaggar River
Explanation :
A joint committee constituted by the National Green Tribunal (NGT) has found that the Ghaggar River water contained from two to three times the prescribed limit of biochemical oxygen demand (BOD), making it unfit for outdoor bathing.
About Ghaggar River:
The Ghaggar River is an intermittent river that flows in India and Pakistan.
The river flows only during the monsoon season.
Course: It originates in the Shivalik Hills of Himachal Pradesh and flows through Haryana and Rajasthan before disappearing into the Thar Desert.
This seasonal river feeds two irrigation canals that extend into Rajasthan.
The Hakra, which flows in Pakistan, is the continuation of the Ghaggar River in India, and they are together called the Ghaggar-Hakra River.
Historical Significance:
Several historians identify Ghaggar with the Vedic Saraswati River.
Along the banks of the Ghaggar River, many settlements of the Indus Valley Civilization have been excavated.
Hence it is believed that the ancient settlements on its banks are the creation of ingenious Vedic Aryans.
It is believed that the rivers Sutlej and Yamuna once flowed into the Ghaggar-Hakra river bed.
Tributaries: The main tributaries of the Ghaggar are the Kaushalya River, Markanda, Sarsuti, Tangri, and Chautang.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.tribuneindia.com/news/chandigarh/ghaggar-water-not-suitable-for-bathing-says-ngt-panel/
Kanha Tiger Reserve lies in which state?
Madhya Pradesh
Explanation :
A 2-year-old tigress was found dead in Kanha Tiger Reserve in Mandla district recently.
About Kanha Tiger Reserve:
Kanha Tiger Reserve, also called Kanha National Park, is located in the Mandla and Balaghat districts of Madhya Pradesh.
It is the largest national park of Madhya Pradesh.
It lies within a series of plateaus in the Maikal hills, east of the ancient Satpura range in central India.
Kanha National Park was created on June 1, 1955, and in 1973, it was made the Kanha Tiger Reserve.
It sprawls over an area of 940 sq.km.
Habitat: It is characterized mainly by forested shallow undulations, hills with varying degrees of slopes, plateaus, and valleys.
The forest depicted in the famous novel by Rudyard Kipling, The Jungle Book, is thought by some to be based on jungles, including this reserve.
The region is known for some of the ancient tribal communities, like the Gond and Baiga, that still inhabit the region.
It is also the first tiger reserve in India to officially introduce a mascot, “Bhoorsingh the Barasingha”.
Flora: It is primarily a moist Sal and moist mixed deciduous forest where Bamboo, Tendu, Sal, Jamun, Arjun, and Lendia flourish.
Fauna:
The park has a significant population of Royal Bengal Tiger, leopard, sloth bear, and Indian wild dog.
The Park is respected globally for saving the Barasingha (the state animal of Madhya Pradesh) from near extinction, and has the unique distinction of harbouring the last world population of this deer species.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bhopal/tigress-found-dead-inside-madhya-pradeshs-kanha-tiger-reserve/articleshow/117719394.cms
Kara Sea, recently seen in the news, is a marginal sea of which one of the following oceans?
Arctic Ocean
Explanation :
Amid a rapid expansion of Russian activity in the Arctic region, a nuclear-powered icebreaker named “50 Let Pobedy” (also known as 50 Years of Victory) suffered damage after colliding with a cargo vessel in the Kara Sea.
About Kara Sea:
It is a marginal sea of the Arctic Ocean that is located to the north of Siberia, Russia.
It covers an area of 880,000 sq.km.
The sea has been named after the Kara River.
It is situated between the Franz Josef Land in the northwest, the Novaya Zemlya islands in the west, and the Severnaya Zemlya archipelago in the east.
The Kara Strait and the Novaya Zemlya archipelago separate the Kara Sea from the Barents Sea in the west.
In the east, the Severnaya Zemlya archipelago separates the Kara Sea from the Laptev Sea.
In the north, the Kara Sea is also connected with the Arctic Basin.
It is regarded as one of the world’s coldest seas and remains covered with ice from September to May.
Different rivers, including the Kara, Ob, Pyasina, and Yenisei rivers, drain into the Kara Sea.
The significant islands that are found here include Bely, Dikson, Kamennyye, Oleni, and Taymyr Islands.
The Nordenskiold Archipelago, which is composed of more than 90 islands and five large island subgroups, is the largest island group in the Kara Sea.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.eurasiantimes.com/russian-nuclear-powered-vessel-meets-accident-in-the-kara-sea-icebreakers-seaworthiness-not-lost/#google_vignette
Darfur Region, recently seen in the news, lies in which country?
Sudan
Explanation :
A drone attack on one of the last functioning hospitals in El-Fasher in Sudan’s Darfur region killed 67 people and injured dozens recently.
About Darfur Region:
Darfur is a region in western Sudan.
It lay between Kordofan to the east and Wadai to the west and extended southward to the Al-Ghazāl (Gazelle) River and northward to the Libyan Desert.
It covers about 440,000 sq.km.
Darfur consists of an immense rolling plain that has an area of approximately 440,000 sq.km.
The volcanic highlands of the Marrah Mountains dominate the central part of this plain.
Darfur was an independent sultanate until it was annexed by Sudan in 1916.
The name “Darfur” is derived from “dar fur,” meaning “the land of the Fur” in Arabic.
Population:
The Fur tribe once ruled the Islamic Sultanate of Darfur until the killing in 1916 of the last Sultan of Darfur.
Darfur is home to approximately 80 tribes and ethnic groups, encompassing both nomadic and sedentary communities.
Arabs have long constituted the majority of the population in the northern part of Darfur, while Arabs and Fur have predominated in the southern portion.
Other ethnic groups have included the Beja, Zaghawa, Nubian, and Daju peoples.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/30-killed-in-drone-attack-on-hospital-in-sudans-darfur-report-7556475
What is the primary objective of the BHASHINI platform, recently seen in the news?
A.
To enhance cybersecurity in digital platforms.
B.
To promote e-commerce in India.
C.
To provide online education in multiple languages.
None of the above.
Explanation :
In a first for Northeast India, Tripura has pioneered the use of artificial intelligence for greater digital inclusion by adopting state-of-the-art text-to-speech technology under the BHASHINI initiative, government officials said recently.
About BHASHINI Platform:
BHASHINI, or the BHASHa INterface for India, is India’s Artificial Intelligence (AI)-led language translation platform, breaking down language barriers and enabling conversations between speakers of different Indian languages.
It aims to enhance internet accessibility and digital services in Indian languages, incorporating voice-based functions and promoting content creation in diverse languages.
Launched in July 2022 under the National Language Translation Mission (NLTM), BHASHINI aims to provide technology translation services in 22 scheduled Indian languages.
It aims to make Artificial Intelligence and Natural Language Processing (NLP) resources available in the public domain to be used by Indian MSMEs, startups, and individual innovators.
BHASHINI is implemented by the Digital India BHASHINI Division, a division under the Digital India Corporation, a Section 8 Company of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
The platform is accessible through dedicated Android and iOS apps, providing a user-friendly experience.
This online platform also has a separate ‘Bhasadaan’ section which allows individuals to contribute to multiple crowdsourcing initiatives.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/tripura-bhashini-initiative-digital-inclusion-north-east-9804447/
Consider the following statements regarding RNA Therapy:
- It uses RNA-based molecules to modulate biological pathways to cure a specific condition.
- It cannot be used in Duchenne muscular dystrophy treatment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
In recent days RNA-based precision therapeutics are emerging as a game-changer for genetic disorders, including inherited retinal diseases (IRDs).
It is a term used to describe the use of RNA-based molecules to modulate biological pathways to cure a specific condition.
Unlike DNA or genome-editing therapies, RNA-based therapies offer a safer alternative as they make temporary changes that don’t carry over to future generations, reducing the risk of unintended long-term effects.
Applications of RNA based Therapies
RNA-editing with ADAR enzymes: It can correct specific genetic mutations at the RNA level. This method has the potential to restore protein production in retinal cells without altering the underlying DNA, offering a new way to treat retinal degenerative diseases caused by single-point mutations.
Using of suppressor tRNAs: It is to bypass stop-codon mutations, which can prematurely halt protein synthesis in retinal cells. By enabling the production of full-length proteins, this approach could help restore proper retinal function in IRD patients.
PTC124 Method: It is also known as ataluren, which is already being used to treat patients with cystic fibrosis and Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
Antisense oligonucleotides (ASOs) have already been used successfully to treat diseases such as spinal muscular atrophy and Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/inherited-retinal-diseases-rna-therapeutics-promise-india/article69143245.ece
Consider the following statements regarding F11 bacteria:
- These are a strain of aerobic bacterium adapted to survive in harsh, polluted environments.
- These are capable of breaking down the strong carbon-fluorine bonds in polyfluoroalkyl substances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A recent study shows that the bacterial strain Labrys portucalensis F11 (F11) can breakdown the strong carbon-fluorine bonds in polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) or forever chemicals.
F11 bacteria (Labrys portucalensis) are a strain of aerobic bacterium from the Xanthobacteraceae family.
These have adapted to survive in harsh, polluted environments by using contaminants as energy sources.
These bacteria were originally isolated from contaminated industrial soil in Portugal.
It can break down and transform at least three types of per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS), and some of the toxic byproducts,
What are forever chemicals?
These are toxic, man-made, hazardous chemicals that have dangerous effects on the environment and our health.
They are called “forever chemicals” because of their tendency to stick around in the atmosphere, rainwater and soil for long periods of time.
They are known to stay in the environment virtually forever and contribute to environmental degradation which adversely impacts the health of all organisms including human beings.
PFAs can migrate to the soil, water and air during their production and use.
These are listed in the Stockholm Convention.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://scitechdaily.com/scientists-discover-bacteria-that-eats-forever-chemicals/
With reference to MSME Trade Enablement and Marketing (TEAM) Initiative, consider the following:
- It has been launched under the “Raising and Accelerating MSME Productivity (RAMP)” Programme.
- It is an initiative in partnership with the Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC).
- It will focus on onboarding 5 lakh micro and small enterprises, with 50 per cent of these being SC/ST led businesses.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MoMSME), in partnership with the Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC), has announced the launch of MSME Trade Enablement and Marketing (TEAM) initiative to enable small and micro enterprises to join ONDC.
It has been launched under the “Raising and Accelerating MSME Productivity (RAMP)” Programme.
It is aimed to enable MSMEs to embrace digital commerce and expand their market presence.
Funding: The initiative has a budget of ₹277.35 crore over 3 years.
Targeted beneficiaries: It will focus on onboarding 5 lakh micro and small enterprises, with 50 per cent of these being women-led businesses.
It will focus on
Connecting MSMEs with the ONDC Network.
Provides access to digital storefronts, integrated payment systems, and logistics support.
Reduce operational barriers and helps businesses tap into wider customer bases.
It emphasizes formalizing operations and establishing digital transaction histories, which will enhance the credibility and trust of participating MSMEs.
Over 150 workshops will be held across Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities, targeting key MSME clusters, with special attention to women and SC/ST-led enterprises.
Significance: These workshops will guide businesses through the process of joining the ONDC Network, creating compliant digital catalogues, and using the ecosystem to its full potential.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/team-initiative-with-budget-of-277-crore-launched-to-help-5-lakh-businesses-join-ondc-network/article69150045.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Silicon carbide:
- It is a synthetically produced crystalline compound of silicon and carbon.
- It is hardest ceramic material and has poor thermal conductivity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers at IIT-Madras have tasted success in extracting silicon carbide from (simulated) moon soil.
It is synthetically produced crystalline compound of silicon and carbon.
Its chemical formula is SiC and it is the most widely used non-oxide ceramic.
It was discovered by the American inventor Edward G. Acheson in 1891.
Properties
It is the hardest ceramic material and has excellent thermal conductivity, low thermal expansion.
It has excellent mechanical properties, and excellent resistance to wear and oxidation.
It is also classed as a semiconductor, having an electrical conductivity between that of metals and insulating materials.
Applications
Its primary application is as an abrasive because of its high hardness, which is surpassed only by diamond, cubic boron nitride, and boron carbide.
It is a promising ceramic material with excellent thermo mechanical characteristics.
It is used in refractory linings and heating elements for industrial furnaces, in wear-resistant parts for pumps and rocket engines.
It is used in semiconducting substrates for light-emitting diodes.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/business-tech/silicon-carbide-from-moons-soil/article69143896.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for micro, small and medium enterprises (MCGS-MSMEs):
- It aims at providing 60 per cent guarantee coverage by National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC) to Member Lending Institutions.
- Under this scheme a borrower should be an MSME with valid Udyam Registration Number.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the central government approved the Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for micro, small and medium enterprises (MCGS-MSMEs), guaranteeing loans up to ₹100 crore.
It aims at providing 60 per cent guarantee coverage by National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC) to Member Lending Institutions (MLIs) for credit facility up to Rs 100 crore to eligible MSMEs for purchase of equipment/machinery.
Salient Features
Borrower should be an MSME with valid Udyam Registration Number;
It provides a loan guarantee up to Rs 100 crore, with a minimum of 75 per cent of the project cost allocated for equipment or machinery.
Under the scheme for loans upto Rs.50 crore shall have repayment period of upto 8 years with upto 2 years moratorium period on principal instalments.
For loans above Rs.50 crore, higher repayment schedule and moratorium period on principal instalments can be considered.
Upfront (initial) contribution of 5% of the loan amount shall be deposited at the time of application of guarantee cover.
Annual Guarantee Fee on loan under the Scheme shall be Nil during the year of sanction. During the next 3 years, it shall be 1.5% p.a. of loan outstanding as on March 31 of previous year. Thereafter, Annual Guarantee Fee shall be 1% p.a. of loan outstanding as on March 31 of previous year
The Scheme will be applicable to all loans sanctioned under MCGS-MSME during the period of 4 years from the date of issue of operational guidelines of the scheme or till cumulative guarantee of Rs. 7 lakh crore are issued, whichever is earlier.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2097455
With reference to the Enforcement Case Information Report (ECIR), consider the following statements:
- It is a formal entry of the complaint lodged by the Enforcement Directorate (ED).
- It serves as a starting point for ED’s proceedings, including the attachment of assets and arrests.
- ED is legally bound to provide a copy of the ECIR to the accused.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Enforcement Directorate recently informed the Kerala High Court that 18 ECIRs (Enforcement case information reports) have been registered against cooperative banks/societies in Kerala to investigate money laundering in connection with financial irregularities.
About Enforcement Case Information Report (ECIR):
The ECIR is a formal entry of the complaint lodged by the Enforcement Directorate (ED).
It serves as a starting point for ED’s proceedings, including the attachment of assets and arrests.
There is no mention of the ECIR in the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA Act) or Rules.
However, as per the practice of ED, the ECIR is lodged before taking any action under the PMLA Act.
The ECIR under the PMLA Act is similar to the First Information Report (FIR) lodged by the Police for cognizable offences.
However, the Supreme Court held that ECIR cannot be equated with an FIR.
As per the ED, ECIR is a document meant for identification of a particular case and for departmental convenience and is purely an internal document.
ED is not legally bound to provide a copy of the ECIR to the accused.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/kerala/2025/Jan/31/ed-cases-against-16-coop-banks-two-societies-in-kerala
Consider the following statements regarding Point Nemo, recently seen in the news:
- It is the deepest point on Earth.
- It is located in the Pacific Ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Two young women officers of the Indian Navy onboard the sailing vessel INSV Tarini recently crossed Point Nemo in the southern Pacific as a part of their efforts to circumnavigate the globe under Navika Sagar Parikrama-II.
About Point Nemo:
Point Nemo, also known as the Oceanic Pole of Inaccessibility, holds the distinction of being the farthest point from any landmass on Earth.
This remote point lies in the South Pacific Ocean and is named after Captain Nemo, the sailor from Jules Verne’s famous novel Twenty Thousand Leagues Under the Sea.
Situated approximately 2,688 km from the nearest landmass, this isolated point is famous for its extreme remoteness, with the closest human presence often being aboard the International Space Station orbiting above.
The nearest land in each direction is:
To the north lies Ducie Island, part of the Pitcairn Islands (British Overseas Territory).
To the northeast is Motu Nui, one of the Easter Islands (Chilean dependency).
To the south is Maher Island, part of Antarctica.
Due to its isolation, the waters around Point Nemo have very little marine life, and the region falls within the South Pacific Gyre, known for having some of the clearest and least biologically active ocean waters.
Due to its remoteness and relative lack of marine traffic, Point Nemo has become a popular location for space agencies to dispose of space junk.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/2-indian-navy-women-officers-cross-pacifics-point-nemo-earths-remotest-location-in-sailboat-3380843
What is the Axiom-4 Mission (Ax-4), recently seen in the news?
A private astronaut mission to the International Space Station.
Explanation :
Shubhanshu Shukla, an Indian Air Force (IAF) officer and ISRO astronaut, was recently named the pilot for Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4).
About Axiom-4 Mission (Ax-4):
Ax-4 is the fourth private astronaut mission to the International Space Station (ISS).
It is organized by Axiom Space in collaboration with NASA.
The Ax-4 crew will launch aboard a SpaceX Dragon spacecraft to the ISS from NASA’s Kennedy Space Center in Florida.
Once docked, the private astronauts plan to spend up to 14 days aboard the ISS.
During their time aboard the ISS, the crew will conduct scientific experiments, perform technology demonstrations, and engage in educational outreach.
Research areas include materials science, biology, Earth observation, and more, with the potential to yield groundbreaking discoveries and innovations.
The mission will send the first Indian astronaut to the station as part of a joint effort between NASA and the Indian space agency.
The private mission also carries the first astronauts from Poland and Hungary to stay aboard the ISS.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/shubhanshu-shukla-iaf-officer-becomes-1st-indian-astronaut-for-private-axiom-mission-to-iss-101738256974164.html
Consider the following statements regarding Graphics Processing Unit (GPU):
- A GPU is an electronic circuit board that can quickly perform many mathematical calculations.
- GPUs are designed to handle general-purpose tasks such as running applications and managing system resources.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
As many as six firms will develop Indian foundational Artificial Intelligence (AI) models using newly-provisioned Graphics Processing Units (GPUs) by the IndiaAI Mission, Union Minister for Electronics and Information Technology announced recently.
About Graphics Processing Unit (GPU):
A GPU is an electronic circuit board that can quickly perform many mathematical calculations.
Like a central processing unit (CPU), a GPU is also a chip component in computing devices.
The technology was originally designed to speed up 3-D graphics rendering.
Since its introduction in the 1990s, the GPU has transformed computer software and video games, allowing programmers to produce vivid and realistic images on screens.
More recently, GPUs have been used beyond computer graphics in areas including high-performance computing, machine learning, artificial intelligence (AI), weather forecasting, and cryptocurrency mining.
CPU vs. GPU:
CPUs (central processing units), which are found in every computer, are designed to handle general-purpose tasks such as running applications and managing system resources.
On the other hand, GPUs are optimized for specific tasks such as rendering 3D graphics and video decoding.
CPUs have fewer cores than GPUs, but each core is capable of handling more complex instructions.
This means that CPUs can handle sequential tasks more efficiently than GPUs, but GPUs outperform CPUs when it comes to parallel tasks like image rendering or video encoding/decoding.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://telecom.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/internet/global-ai-race-india-to-build-own-foundational-models-18693-gpus-to-power-compute-facility/117739622
Consider the following statements regarding Leprosy:
- It is a chronic infectious disease caused by a type of bacteria.
- The disease predominantly affects the skin and peripheral nerves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
World Leprosy Day is observed on January 30 every year to make people aware of leprosy and remove the misconceptions spread in society.
About Leprosy:
Leprosy, also known as Hansen’s disease, is a chronic infectious disease caused by a type of bacteria, Mycobacterium leprae.
The disease predominantly affects the skin and peripheral nerves.
Left untreated, the disease may cause progressive and permanent disabilities.
Apart from the physical deformity, persons affected by leprosy also face stigmatization and discrimination.
It is a neglected tropical disease (NTD) that still occurs in more than 120 countries, with more than 200 000 new cases reported each year.
It is known to occur at all ages, ranging from early childhood to old age.
Transmission:
The disease is transmitted through droplets from the nose and mouth of an untreated case of leprosy, containing the causative agent, following prolonged, close contact.
The disease does not spread through casual contact (like shaking hands or hugging, sharing meals or sitting next to each other).
The patient stops transmitting the disease upon initiation of treatment.
Symptoms:
It usually takes about 3 to 5 years for symptoms to appear after you come into contact with the bacteria that cause leprosy.
The main symptom of leprosy is disfiguring skin sores, lumps, or bumps that don’t go away after several weeks or months.
In some cases, body parts may lose their sense of touch and pain, increasing the likelihood of injuries such as cuts and burns.
Treatment:
Leprosy is a curable disease.
The currently recommended treatment regimen consists of three medicines (dapsone, rifampicin and clofazimine) and is referred to as multi-drug therapy (MDT).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.indiatvnews.com/health/world-leprosy-day-2025-debunking-myths-related-to-the-chronic-infectious-disease-2025-01-30-973774
Consider the following statements regarding e-Shram microsite:
- It is a state-specific digital platforms seamlessly integrated with the national e-Shram database.
- It is launched by the Union Ministry of Labour & Employment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister for Labour & Employment launched two significant initiatives – State and Union Territory Microsites under the e-Shram initiative and the Occupational Shortage Index (OSI).
It is a transformative initiative aimed at ensuring that unorganised workers have seamless access to both State and Central government welfare programs.
Features
These microsites are state-specific digital platforms seamlessly integrated with the national e-Shram database.
Facilitating two-way integration between State portals and the eShram portals, this will facilitate simplified registration of unorganised workers.
This will provide a one-stop solution for seamless access to both Central and State welfare programs for unorganised workers, employment opportunities, skilling programmes, etc.
For States/UTs, the microsites provide a ready-to-use digital infrastructure, reducing the need for costly and time-consuming development processes. With real-time analytic dashboards, they facilitate better policy decision-making and allow States to include tools specific to their labour market requirements.
It offers a seamless registration process and access to a wide range of social security benefits.
The platform ensures multilingual accessibility, enabling workers from different regions to access information and services in their preferred language.
Through two-way integration with the e-Shram database, workers receive real-time updates on welfare schemes and employment opportunities.
Significance: It will enhance transparency and efficiency in welfare service delivery.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2097431
Consider the following statements regarding Controlled Cannabis Cultivation:
- It is the regulated cultivation of specific cannabis varieties having minimal intoxicating properties.
- Under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985 State Governments can allow cannabis cultivation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Himachal Pradesh Cabinet approved a pilot study by two universities on the controlled cultivation of cannabis for medicinal and industrial purposes.
About Controlled Cannabis Cultivation:
It is the regulated cultivation of specific cannabis varieties having minimal intoxicating properties, along with strict monitoring to prevent misuse. Such varieties are commonly known as hemp.
The tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) cannabinoid content (a kind of chemical that has an intoxicating effect) in controlled cannabis should be less than or equal to 0.3 per cent.
Under this, authorities focus on its non-narcotic applications, particularly in the pharmaceutical and industrial sectors.
Uses of Hemp: Hemp’s stalks, leaves, and seeds can also be converted into textile, paper, food, cosmetics, biofuel and more. Additionally, cannabidiol (CBD) compounds in the plant are effective in treating chronic pain.
Laws related to cannabis cultivation in India
Cannabis cultivation is largely prohibited in India due to its psychoactive properties.
Section 2 of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985, prohibits the production and sale of cannabis resin and flowers.
It defines charas as the separated resin, in any form (crude or purified), obtained from the cannabis plant. It also includes concentrated preparations such as hashish oil or liquid hashish.
However, it provides exceptions for cannabis cultivation and use for industrial and medicinal purposes under government regulation.
Section 10 of the Act allows State Governments to regulate, permit, or prohibit cannabis cultivation for medicinal and scientific purposes.
Additionally, Section 14 grants the Central government the power to authorise and regulate cannabis cultivation for research or other approved purposes.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/himachal-controlled-cannabis-cultivation-ndps-9807684/#:~:text=
With reference to Human African Trypanosomiasis, consider the following:
- It is a parasitic disease transmitted through the bite of infected tsetse flies.
- It is more prevalent amongst rural populations
- India recently becomes the first country to successfully eliminate this disease.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the World Health Organization (WHO) has announced that Guinea has successfully eliminated the gambiense form of human African trypanosomiasis (HAT) as a public health problem.
It is a parasitic disease transmitted through the bite of infected tsetse flies.
It is also known as sleeping sickness and endemic in sub-Saharan Africa.
Symptoms:
It initially presents with symptoms such as fever, headaches, and joint pain, but can progress to neurological issues like confusion, disrupted sleep, and behavioural changes. If left untreated, the disease can be fatal.
First signs and symptoms emerge a few weeks or months after infection. The disease develops rapidly with multi-organ invasion, including the brain.
It takes 2 forms, depending on the subspecies of the infecting parasite:
Trypanosoma brucei gambiense: It is found in 24 countries of west and central Africa, currently accounts for 92% of reported cases and causes a chronic illness.
A person can be infected for months or even years without major signs or symptoms. When evident symptoms emerge, often the disease is advanced with the central nervous system already affected.
Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense: It is found in 13 countries of eastern and southern Africa accounts for 8% of reported cases and causes an acute disease.
It is more prevalent amongst rural populations which depend on agriculture, fishing, animal husbandry or hunting are the most exposed.
To date, WHO has validated the elimination of the gambiense form of HAT in seven countries: Togo (2020), Benin (2021), Ivory Coast (2021), Uganda (2022), Equatorial Guinea (2022), Ghana (2023) and Chad (2024).
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/health/guinea-successfully-eradicates-sleeping-sickness
Consider the following statements regarding Household Consumption Expenditure Survey:
- It is designed to collect information on consumption and expenditure of the households on goods and services.
- It is published by the Union Ministry of Finance every year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) published the summary findings of the second of the two consecutive surveys on household consumption expenditure survey.
It is designed to collect information on consumption and expenditure of the households on goods and services.
The survey provides data required to assess trends in economic well-being and to determine and update the basket of consumer goods and services and weights used for the calculation of the Consumer Price Index. Data collected in HCES is also used to measure poverty, inequality, and social exclusion.
The Monthly Per Capita Consumption Expenditure (MPCE) compiled from HCES is the primary indicator used for most analytical purposes.
Key Highlights of the Survey
There is a persistent decline in urban-rural consumption difference across India’s major states continues in 2023-24.
The average MPCE on the rise across all Household types in rural and urban Areas.
Among 18 major states, the difference between urban and rural average monthly per capita expenditure (MPCE) of households is the lowest in Kerala, followed by Punjab, Andhra Pradesh (AP) and Bihar.
Consumption inequality, both in rural and urban areas, for almost all the 18 major states has declined in 2023-24 from the level of 2022-23.
At all-India, the Gini coefficient of consumption expenditure has declined to 0.237 in 2023-24 from 0.266 in 2022-23 for rural areas and to 0.284 in 2023-24 from 0.314 in 2022-23 for urban areas.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2097601
Caimanera and Boquerón Ports are located in:
Guantanamo Bay
Explanation :
Recently, the US President signed an executive order directing the preparation of a large-scale migrant detention centre at the US naval base in Guantánamo Bay.
It forms an inlet of the Caribbean Sea, indenting southeastern Cuba.
It is a large and well-sheltered bay, it has a narrow entrance to a harbour and capable of accommodating large vessels.
Ports: It is served by the ports of Caimanera and Boquerón.
The strategic importance of the bay—close to the Windward Passage between Cuba and Haiti that links the Atlantic Ocean to the Caribbean Sea and Panama.
Guantanamo Bay, widely known as “Gitmo,” has been used to house terrorism suspects since the September 11, 2001, attacks, but it also has a small, separate facility known as the Migrant Operations Centre.
This centre has historically held migrants intercepted while attempting to enter the US by boat, primarily from Haiti and Cuba.
The facility occupies only a small part of the base and currently lacks the capacity to house the 30,000 detainees.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/world/trump-us-set-up-30000-person-migrant-detention-center-guantanamo-bay-9806764/
Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY):
- It aims to provide insurance coverage for the entire crop cycle, including pre-sowing and post-harvest stages.
- The premium paid by farmers under the scheme is higher than the premium paid by the government.
- It covers losses due to both natural calamities and pest attacks.
- It mandates that farmers must report the crop loss within 24 hours of the event for compensation under PMFBY.
Which of the statements above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
The Union Cabinet recently approved the continuation of the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) and the Restructured Weather-Based Crop Insurance Scheme until 2025-26.
PMFBY provides coverage for the entire crop cycle, including pre-sowing (insurance coverage for inputs) and post-harvest losses. So, statement 1 is correct.
The premium paid by farmers under PMFBY is generally low, with a significant portion of the premium subsidized by the government. So, statement 2 is not correct.
PMFBY covers losses due to natural calamities, pests, and diseases, including localized risks. So, statement 3 is correct.
The time frame for reporting crop loss is generally 72 hours, but this might vary by the specific event and region. There is also flexibility in reporting through digital platforms. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
The Urengoy-Pomary-Uzhgorod Pipeline is significant because:
it is a major pipeline transporting natural gas from Russia to Europe
Explanation :
Russian natural gas exports to Europe via Soviet-era pipelines through Ukraine were stopped recently as the transit deal expired, with no agreement reached between Moscow and Kyiv. This marks the end of Russia’s oldest gas route to Europe.
The Ukrainian government justified its decision as necessary for national security amid the military conflict.
The Urengoy-Pomary-Uzhgorod Pipeline, also known as the Trans-Siberian Pipeline, is one of the largest natural gas pipelines transporting gas from the Urengoy gas field in Siberia to European markets through Ukraine.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which one of the following technologies is primarily used for enabling in-flight connectivity?
Satellite communication (Satcom)
Explanation :
Air India has become the first Indian airline to offer Wi-Fi internet connectivity on select domestic and international flights. Initially, the service will be free on select domestic flights during a limited introductory period, with plans to expand to other aircraft in the fleet.
Satellite communication (Satcom): Satcom uses geostationary or low-earth orbit satellites to provide internet connectivity during flights, enabling global coverage, especially over oceans and remote areas.
Air-to-ground (ATG) networks: ATG relies on ground-based cellular towers that transmit signals upward to aircraft. This technology is typically used over land.
Terrestrial-based cellular networks: These networks are not used directly for in-flight connectivity, as they are designed for use on the ground.
Fiber-optic cables: These are not feasible for in-flight connectivity due to their physical limitations and inability to function in airborne environments.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Char Dham shrines - Badrinath, Kedarnath, Gangotri and Yamunotri:
- Badrinath is dedicated to Lord Shiva while Kedarnath is dedicated to Lord Vishnu.
- Gangotri and Yamunotri are associated with the origin of sacred rivers Ganga and Yamuna, respectively.
- Char Dham Yatra is undertaken during the winter months when the shrines are fully accessible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Uttarakhand government inaugurated the winter Char Dham circuit, aimed at drawing tourists to the state in the off-season winter months.
The Char Dham consists of the four sacred shrines of Badrinath, Kedarnath, Gangotri, and Yamunotri in the Garhwal Himalayas of Uttarakhand.
Badrinath is dedicated to Lord Vishnu, and Kedarnath is dedicated to Lord Shiva. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Gangotri is linked to the origin of the River Ganga, while Yamunotri is associated with the River Yamuna. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Char Dham Yatra is generally undertaken during the summer months (April to November), as the shrines remain closed in winter due to heavy snowfall. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Yarlung Tsangpo Project?
- It is a hydropower project.
- It is being developed by China to divert water from the Ganga basin to the Brahmaputra basin.
- The Yarlung Tsangpo River is known as the Brahmaputra River in India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
China has approved the construction of the world’s largest hydropower project on the Yarlung Tsangpo river in Tibet, with a capacity of 60,000 MW, three times that of the Three Gorges Dam.
The river flows into Arunachal Pradesh as the Siang, into Assam as the Brahmaputra, and then into Bangladesh before reaching the Bay of Bengal. So, statement 1 is correct.
The project is not aimed at diverting water to the Ganges Basin; instead, it focuses on power generation from the river’s flow. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Yarlung Tsangpo River is known as the Brahmaputra in India. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019?
- The Act prohibits discrimination against transgender persons in employment, education, and healthcare.
- It provides for the establishment of a National Council for Transgender Persons to oversee the implementation of policies.
- Under the Act, a transgender person must undergo sex reassignment surgery to obtain a certificate of identity.
- The Act recognizes the right of transgender persons to self-perceived identity.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation :
The Act explicitly prohibits discrimination against transgender persons in areas such as employment, education, healthcare, and access to public goods and services. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Act mandates the formation of a National Council for Transgender Persons (NCTP) to advise the government and ensure policy implementation. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Act does not require sex reassignment surgery to obtain a certificate of identity. A transgender person can apply for a certificate based on their self-declared identity. So, statement 3 is not correct.
The Act affirms the right of transgender persons to self-identify their gender. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Security Act (NSA), 1980:
- The NSA allows the preventive detention of individuals for up to 12 months if they pose a threat to national security or public order.
- The detainee under the NSA is entitled to legal representation during the detention period.
- The Act empowers the central and state governments to detain foreign nationals and regulate their presence in India.
- An advisory board must review the detention order within 12 weeks of the individual’s detention.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
The NSA allows preventive detention for a maximum period of 12 months to prevent individuals from acting in a manner prejudicial to national security or public order. So, statement 1 is correct.
Under the NSA, detainees are not entitled to legal representation during the detention period. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Act empowers the central and state governments to detain foreign nationals and regulate their presence in India if deemed necessary. So, statement 3 is correct.
An advisory board, consisting of judges or individuals qualified to be judges, must review the detention order within 12 weeks. So, statement 4 is correct.
Under the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009, the No-Detention Policy mandates that:
students cannot be detained in any class until they complete elementary education (up to Class 8)
Explanation :
The Union government recently amended the Rules of the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009, allowing schools, including Central government-run schools, to detain students in Classes 5 and 8 if they fail year-end examinations.
Students will have a second chance to pass through a re-examination after two months of additional teaching. This move aligns with a 2019 amendment that rolled back the RTE Act’s no-detention policy, with 18 States and UTs already reinstating the option to detain students.
The Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009, introduced the No-Detention Policy to ensure that no child is failed or detained until they complete their elementary education (up to Class 8).
This policy aims to reduce dropouts and ensure universal education. However, it was partially amended in 2019 to allow states to hold back students in Class 5 and Class 8 based on their performance, but this was subject to re-examinations and the discretion of states.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
A car manufacturer is planning to launch a new model in the market quickly and at a lower cost. Instead of developing a new vehicle, the company decides to rebrand an existing model of its subsidiary with minor design changes. This strategy is an example of:
Badge engineering
Explanation :
Nearly half of Toyota Kirloskar Motor’s car sales in India over the past year were rebadged Maruti Suzuki models, driving Toyota to its highest-ever wholesale numbers and over 40% year-on-year sales growth in FY24.
The success of “badge engineering” as a sales strategy highlights its growing popularity among carmakers, with expectations of continued use in the coming year.
Badge engineering involves the sharing of a vehicle platform or an entire model between different car manufacturers.
This allows at least one of them to avoid designing or engineering a new model from scratch.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the Avian Influenza (H5N1)?
It is a zoonotic disease that spreads primarily through direct contact with infected birds.
Explanation :
Three tigers and a leopard at a Nagpur rescue center have died from avian influenza (H5N1), a rare instance of the virus affecting rescued wildlife in India.
Avian Influenza (H5N1) is a zoonotic viral infection that primarily affects birds but can infect humans who come into direct contact with infected birds, their droppings, or contaminated environments.
It is not a bacterial infection and cannot be treated with antibiotics. Human-to-human transmission is rare and limited.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
What does it mean when a company is placed on the US Entity List?
The company is restricted from accessing US-origin goods, technology, or software without a license.
Explanation :
The US is finalizing measures to ease regulations hindering civil nuclear cooperation with India, as part of advancing the Indo-US nuclear deal.
US National Security Advisor announced plans to remove Indian government entities, including Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC), Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR), and Indian Rare Earths Limited (IREL), from the US entity list.
This move aims to facilitate collaboration between India’s nuclear institutions and US companies.
The US Entity List, maintained by the Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) under the US Department of Commerce, includes foreign businesses, individuals, and entities that are subject to export restrictions.
Companies on this list cannot access US-origin goods, technologies, or software unless they obtain special licenses, which are often difficult to secure. This measure is used to protect US national security and foreign policy interests.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following best describes an artesian aquifer?
An aquifer where water flows to the surface under natural pressure without the need for pumping
Explanation :
Recently, the residents of Taranagar village in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan, experienced a unique phenomenon when large amounts of water unexpectedly gushed out from underground. The flow stopped naturally without any external intervention.
An artesian aquifer is a confined aquifer where water is under pressure due to the impermeable layers above and below it.
When a well is drilled into such an aquifer, water can rise to the surface naturally without the need for pumping, depending on the pressure and elevation of the aquifer.
This phenomenon occurs in areas where the recharge zone is at a higher elevation than the point of extraction.
Which of the following statements correctly describes Bharatpol?
It is a broadcast hub for real-time action against transnational crimes.
Explanation :
Union Home Minister recently inaugurated the ‘Bharatpol’ portal, developed by the CBI to enhance international police cooperation.
The portal serves as a broadcast hub for real-time action against transnational crimes, enabling central and state law enforcement agencies to connect efficiently with Interpol and expedite investigations.
Bharatpol, developed to streamline international cooperation, addresses delays by making police collaboration more seamless.
The portal was introduced in response to the rise in transnational crimes such as cybercrime, financial crimes, online radicalisation, organised crimes, drug trafficking, and human trafficking.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the rat-hole mining?
- It involves digging narrow vertical shafts into the ground, leading to small horizontal tunnels for extracting minerals.
- This method is predominantly used for coal mining in the northeastern states of India, especially Meghalaya.
- In box-cutting type of rat hole mining, a rectangular opening is created, followed by digging a vertical pit, and then rat-hole-sized tunnels are dug horizontally.
- The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has banned rat-hole mining in India due to its adverse environmental and safety impacts.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
Rat-hole mining involves narrow vertical shafts with small horizontal tunnels where miners extract minerals manually. So, statement 1 is correct.
This method is mainly practiced in Meghalaya for coal mining due to its terrain and geology. So, statement 2 is correct.
Rat-hole mining is environmentally hazardous and unsafe, causing soil erosion, water pollution, and risking miners’ lives.
Box-cutting type: In box-cutting, a rectangular opening is created, followed by digging a vertical pit, and then rat-hole-sized tunnels are dug horizontally for coal extraction. So, statement 3 is correct.
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has banned rat-hole mining in India because of its environmental degradation and unsafe working conditions. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements with reference to the Anoop Baranwal vs Union of India case (2023) is/are correct?
- The Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court decided to change the process for Election Commission appointments in order to secure their independence.
- The Bench created a committee comprising the Prime Minister of India, a Cabinet minister, and the Chief Justice of India (CJI).
- This committee will make recommendations and advise the President on Election Commission appointments until Parliament enacts a separate law on the subject.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 has introduced new mechanisms to widen the scope of selection.
Anoop Baranwal vs Union of India case (2023):
The Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court decided to change the process for Election Commission appointments in order to secure their independence. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Bench created a committee comprising the Prime Minister of India, the Leader of the Opposition in Parliament, and the Chief Justice of India (CJI). So, statement 2 is not correct.
This committee will make recommendations and advise the President on Election Commission appointments until Parliament enacts a separate law on the subject. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following countries share a land boundary with Afghanistan?
- Iran
- China
- Uzbekistan
- Tajikistan
- Turkmenistan
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Explanation :
A high-level meeting between Afghan Taliban leadership and senior Indian officials was held in Dubai, with Indian Foreign Secretary Vikram Misri and Taliban Acting Foreign Minister in attendance.
Iran shares a long western boundary with Afghanistan.
China shares a short boundary with Afghanistan in the northeast at the Wakhan Corridor.
Uzbekistan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan shares northern boundary with Afghanistan.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas (PBD)?
- It is celebrated annually on January 9 to mark the return of Mahatma Gandhi from South Africa to India.
- The Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award is conferred as part of the celebrations to honor exceptional achievements of the Indian diaspora.
- The event is organized by the Ministry of External Affairs in collaboration with a partner state.
- It is celebrated exclusively to commemorate the cultural contributions of Non-Resident Indians (NRIs).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation :
Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the 18th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas convention. This significant event, celebrated once every two years, honoured the contributions of the Indian diaspora to their homeland.
Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas is celebrated on January 9, as it marks the day in 1915 when Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award is the highest honor conferred on members of the Indian diaspora for their outstanding contributions. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The Ministry of External Affairs organizes the event, often in partnership with a state government. So, statement 3 is correct.
PBD is not limited to cultural contributions; it also focuses on economic, technological, and social contributions of the Indian diaspora. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding Genome Sequencing:
- It is the process of determining the complete DNA sequence of an organism’s genome.
- Next-Generation Sequencing (NGS) is the widely used method, known for its speed and high accuracy.
- It can help identify genetic disorders, improve crop varieties, and trace the evolution of pathogens.
- The Human Genome Project was the first successful attempt to sequence the entire genome of all living species.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only three
Explanation :
Prime Minister of India recently announced the completion of the Genome India Project, describing it as a significant achievement in India’s biotechnology revolution.
Genome sequencing involves determining the complete DNA sequence of an organism’s genome, including all of its genes. So, statement 1 is correct.
Next-Generation Sequencing (NGS) is an advanced method used for genome sequencing, offering high speed, accuracy, and cost efficiency compared to earlier methods. So, statement 2 is correct.
Genome sequencing has diverse applications, such as identifying genetic disorders, improving agricultural crops, and tracking the evolution of pathogens like viruses. So, statement 3 is correct.
The Human Genome Project was the first successful attempt to sequence the entire human genome, not the genome of all living species. Specifically, it accounted for 92% of the human genome. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
What is the purpose of the “Community Notes” feature introduced by Meta?
To allow users to suggest edits to misleading or incorrect information on the platform
Explanation :
Meta has announced the end of its independent fact-checking program in the US, sparking criticism and debate about tackling misinformation on social media.
In a blog post titled “More Speech, Fewer Mistakes”, the company outlined changes to its content moderation strategy, replacing fact-checks by fact-checkers with a Community Notes system, similar to X (formerly Twitter).
Community Notes by Meta is designed to enhance content accuracy and combat misinformation on its platforms.
It enables users to collaboratively provide context, corrections, or clarifications to posts that might contain misleading or incorrect information.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Santa Ana Winds?
- These are hot and dry winds that blow from the Pacific Ocean toward the interior of California.
- These winds often exacerbate wildfires by drying out vegetation and increasing wind speeds.
- The winds are caused by high-pressure systems over the Great Basin that force air downslope toward the coast.
- These are most common during the summer months in California.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Wildfires in Los Angeles, California, have killed several people, and destroyed homes, including those of celebrities like Paris Hilton and Billy Crystal.
Santa Ana Winds originate inland, particularly from the Great Basin, not the Pacific Ocean. So, statement 1 is not correct.
These winds significantly increase the risk of wildfires by drying vegetation and spreading flames rapidly. So, statement 2 is correct.
The winds are caused by high-pressure systems over the Great Basin, pushing air downslope. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Santa Ana Winds are most common during the fall and early winter, not the summer months. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements with reference to the SpaDex Mission are correct?
- It is the ISRO’s mission to demonstrate India’s ability to dock two satellites in space, paving the way for future projects involving modular spacecraft assembly.
- It is critical for heavy-payload missions like the Bharatiya Antariksha Station and the Chandrayaan-4 Mission, which involves lunar sample retrieval.
- Chaser (SDX01) and Target (SDX02) satellites will be launched aboard the PSLV C55 rocket for the purpose of the SpaDex Mission.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
SpaDex mission is the ISRO’s mission to demonstrate India’s ability to dock two satellites in space, paving the way for future projects involving modular spacecraft assembly. So, statement 1 is correct.
It is critical for heavy-payload missions like the Bharatiya Antariksha Station (planned for 2028) and the Chandrayaan-4 mission, which involves lunar sample retrieval. So, statement 2 is correct.
Chaser (SDX01) and Target (SDX02) satellites launched aboard the PSLV C60 rocket were docked together. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Kumbh Mela, one of the largest religious gatherings in the world, is celebrated based on:
the conjunction of Jupiter, the Sun, and the Moon in specific zodiac signs
Explanation :
The Maha Kumbh 2025, a grand religious event, started in Prayagraj on January 13, with the first holy bath (snan).
While its exact origins are debated—some tracing it to the Vedas and Puranas and others to the past two centuries—it remains a significant spiritual and cultural festival.
Kumbh Mela is celebrated at four different locations in India (Haridwar, Prayagraj, Nashik, and Ujjain) based on the conjunction of celestial bodies, particularly Jupiter, the Sun, and the Moon in specific zodiac signs. This astronomical alignment determines the timing and location of the Kumbh Mela, which occurs every 12 years at each location.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
What is the primary purpose of using pink fire retardant in wildfire management?
To reduce the spread of wildfires by creating a fire-resistant barrier
Explanation :
Wildfires in Southern California have prompted authorities to deploy planes and helicopters to combat the blaze. Planes sprayed pink fire retardant, a long-used product.
While the fire retardant has been in use for decades, recent research questions its effectiveness and potential environmental impact.
Pink fire retardant is commonly used in wildfire management to slow the spread of fires.
It is dropped from aircraft onto vegetation, creating a barrier that inhibits combustion.
The pink color helps firefighters and pilots visually identify the treated areas. It is not designed to extinguish flames directly but rather to prevent the fire from advancing.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following laws primarily governs the legal restrictions on capturing wild elephants in India?
The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
Explanation :
Recently, the Supreme Court invoked volenti non fit injuria (voluntary assumption of risk) to state that devotees accept the risks of attending festivals with paraded elephants.
The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, is the primary legislation that governs the protection of wild animals, including elephants, in India.
It places stringent restrictions on capturing, hunting, or trading wild elephants, which are listed under Schedule I of the Act, granting them the highest level of protection.
Capturing wild elephants is allowed only under exceptional circumstances with specific permissions from the Chief Wildlife Warden of the state.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
The Z-Morh Tunnel, recently inaugurated in India, is significant because:
It provides an all-weather road connectivity to Ladakh.
Explanation :
Prime Minister of India recently inaugurated the 6.5 km Z-Morh tunnel in Jammu and Kashmir’s Ganderbal district.
Built at a cost of ₹2,400 crore on the Srinagar-Leh National Highway, the tunnel ensures seamless connectivity between Gagangir and Sonamarg, facilitating summer travel to Ladakh and improving regional accessibility.
The project, is overseen by National Highways and Infrastructure Development Corporation Limited (NHIDCL).
It is strategically important for civilian and military purposes, especially given the harsh weather conditions in the region.
While it is a significant infrastructure project, it is not the longest road tunnel in India—that distinction belongs to the Atal Tunnel.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following is the most distinctive feature of the India-Bangladesh border (IBB)?
It includes enclaves, such as the former Chhitmahals, which were resolved through an agreement.
Explanation :
India summoned Bangladesh’s Acting High Commissioner over border security and fencing issues after Bangladesh expressed concerns about alleged violations by the Border Security Force (BSF).
The 4,096.7 km India-Bangladesh border remains a longstanding source of disputes over barbed wire fencing and border management.
The India-Bangladesh border is known for its complexity, including the presence of enclaves known as Chhitmahals, which were small pockets of land belonging to one country but surrounded by the other.
These enclaves were resolved through the Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) of 2015, marking a historic moment in the relations between the two nations.
The border is the longest international boundary India shares with any neighbor, and is not entirely free from disputes, particularly in areas like the Teesta water-sharing issue.
So far, more than 20 border checkpoints in India have been designated as ICPs, of which half are located along the India–Bangladesh border
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Where is the Gaza Strip located?
Between Israel and Egypt, along the Mediterranean coast.
The Gaza Strip is a narrow piece of land located along the eastern coast of the Mediterranean Sea. It borders Israel to the east and north and Egypt to the southwest.
It is under the administrative control of the Palestinian authority but has been the center of ongoing conflict between Palestinians and Israel.
Consider the following statements about Project 15B, a series of guided missile destroyers:
- Project 15B is part of India’s efforts to enhance its naval capabilities and consists of four destroyers.
- The lead ship of Project 15B is named INS Visakhapatnam, commissioned in 2021.
- It represents an advanced iteration of the Kolkata-class destroyers built under Project 15A.
- These are primarily designed for anti-submarine warfare (ASW).
Select the correct code using the options below:
1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation :
Project 15B aims to strengthen the Indian Navy with four advanced destroyers (INS Visakhapatnam, INS Mormugao, INS Imphal, INS Surat). So, Statement 1 is correct.
INS Visakhapatnam is the lead ship of this project, and it was commissioned in 2021. So, Statement 2 is correct.
It represents an advanced iteration of the Kolkata-class destroyers built under Project 15A. So, Statement 3 is correct.
While the destroyers are multi-role vessels, they are not specifically designed for anti-submarine warfare. Their capabilities span multiple aspects of naval defense, including air defense and surface warfare. So, Statement 4 is not correct.
What is the primary aim of the new US AI export rule implemented in 2024?
To prevent the proliferation of AI technologies to countries that may use them for military purposes
Explanation :
The Joe Biden administration, days before leaving office, introduced a regulatory framework titled ‘Framework for Artificial Intelligence Diffusion’ that categorizes countries into three tiers for AI hardware export restrictions. The first tier includes 18 close US allies with minimal restrictions, while the third tier severely restricts exports to countries of concern.
The rules aim to maintain US control over advanced AI chips and models, but their enforcement will depend on the incoming Trump administration.
Consider the following statements about the India Meteorological Department (IMD):
- IMD is responsible for forecasting weather, climate, and natural disasters in India.
- IMD is under the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
- The IMD operates the National Data Centre (NDC) to manage meteorological data across India.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The India Meteorological Department (IMD) celebrated its 150th anniversary on January 15, 2025.
IMD plays a critical role in forecasting weather, providing climate data, and warning about natural disasters such as cyclones and droughts. So, Statement 1 is correct.
IMD is under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), not the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
IMD operates the National Data Centre (NDC) to store and manage meteorological data, which is crucial for weather prediction and research. So, Statement 3 is correct.
What is the primary purpose of the Fast Track Immigration – Trusted Traveller Programme (FTI-TTP)?
To expedite the immigration process for frequent international travelers with low security risks
Explanation :
Union Home Minister Amit Shah inaugurated the Fast Track Immigration – Trusted Traveller Programme (FTI-TTP) at seven airports: Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata, Bengaluru, Hyderabad, Cochin, and Ahmedabad.
Initially launched at Delhi’s IGI Airport seven months ago, FTI-TTP aims to simplify and secure international travel.
The programme will provide world-class immigration facilities with accelerated pathways, including automated gates for faster screening of international travellers.
The Fast Track Immigration – Trusted Traveller Programme (FTI-TTP) is designed to speed up the immigration process for frequent international travelers who have been vetted and are considered low-security risks.
Participants in this program typically undergo a background check and may benefit from reduced waiting times and streamlined processing at immigration checkpoints.
What is the primary objective of spectrum refarming in the telecommunications sector?
To optimize the use of existing radio frequencies by reallocating spectrum to newer technologies
Explanation :
The Union Cabinet has approved the refarming of 687 MHz of spectrum for mobile services, increasing the total available spectrum to 1,587 MHz, with 320 MHz to be released immediately and the rest by 2028-29. The re-farmed spectrum primarily comes from the Ministry of Defence and ISRO.
Spectrum refarming involves reallocating or repurposing existing radio frequency spectrum for newer, more advanced technologies, such as 4G or 5G.
The aim is to make more efficient use of available spectrum, enabling higher data speeds, better coverage, and improved overall network performance.
It helps telecom operators transition to newer technologies without needing to acquire additional spectrum.
Which of the following statement(s) about the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) is/are correct?
- SDSC is located in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh, and is the primary spaceport for ISRO.
- The first satellite launched from SDSC was Aryabhata in 1975.
- It is named after the former ISRO Chairman, who played a pivotal role in the development of India’s space program.
- SDSC is only used for satellite launches and does not serve any other purposes.
Select the correct code using the options below:
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
SDSC, located in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh, is the main spaceport for ISRO, handling satellite launches and space missions. So, statement 1 is correct.
Aryabhata was launched from the Soviet Union in 1975, not from SDSC. However, SDSC has been the launch site for numerous subsequent ISRO missions. So, statement 2 is not correct.
SDSC is named in honor of Satish Dhawan, who made significant contributions to India’s space program, particularly during his tenure as the ISRO Chairman. So, Statement 3 is correct.
SDSC serves multiple purposes, including vehicle assembly, integration, and testing, in addition to satellite launches. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Consider the following statements about the SVAMITVA Scheme:
- The SVAMITVA Scheme aims to provide rural property owners with digital property cards.
- The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development.
- Under this scheme, property mapping is done using drone technology.
- The primary objective of the scheme is to facilitate bank loans against property in rural areas.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only three
Explanation :
Prime Minister Narendra Modi described property cards distributed under the Centre’s SVAMITVA scheme as a “guarantee of economic security.”
The SVAMITVA Scheme provides rural residents with ownership records in the form of digital property cards, ensuring legal recognition of their property. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, not the Ministry of Rural Development. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The scheme uses drone technology to conduct property surveys and create accurate land records. So, statement 3 is correct.
One of the key benefits of the scheme is that property owners can use these records to avail bank loans. So, statement 4 is correct.
With reference to the CROPS Mission, consider the following statements:
- The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) launched the Compact Research Module for Orbital Plant Studies (CROPS) aboard the PSLV-C60 mission.
- The mission has achieved a groundbreaking milestone in space agriculture with the successful germination of cowpea seeds in space.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The successful germination of cowpea seeds in space marks a major step in understanding plant biology in microgravity conditions.
ISRO has achieved a groundbreaking milestone in space agriculture with its Compact Research Module for Orbital Plant Studies (CROPS) aboard the PSLV-C60 mission. So, statement 1 is correct.
The successful germination of cowpea seeds in space marks a major step in understanding plant biology in microgravity conditions. So, statement 2 is correct.
Which of the following is essential to establish the offense of abetment of suicide under Indian law?
A direct or indirect act of instigation, aiding, or conspiracy leading to suicide
Explanation :
The Supreme Court stressed the need to sensitize investigation agencies and courts regarding cases under Section 306 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (IPC), which deals with abetment of suicide.
The Bench emphasized that while genuine cases meeting the legal threshold should be prosecuted, the provision should not be misused to appease the grieving families of the deceased.
To establish abetment of suicide, there must be a clear act of instigation, aiding, or intentional conspiracy that directly influences the person to commit suicide.
Mere knowledge of the person’s mental condition or being present at the scene does not constitute abetment unless there is active encouragement or assistance.
Courts examine whether the accused’s actions created a situation where the deceased had no reasonable option but to take their own life.
Consider following statements about Electoral Trusts in India:
- Electoral trusts are non-profit organizations set up to receive voluntary contributions from individuals and corporate entities for political parties.
- Donations received by an electoral trust must be distributed to political parties registered under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
- Electoral trusts are required to disclose details of their donors and contributions to the public annually.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Electoral trusts are non-profit entities set up to channel funds from donors to political parties in a transparent manner. So, statement 1 is correct.
Electoral trusts can only distribute funds to political parties registered under the Representation of the People Act, 1951. So, statement 2 is correct.
While electoral trusts must submit their contribution details to the Election Commission, they are not required to disclose donor details publicly. Only the total amount received and disbursed is disclosed, not individual donor names. So, statement 3 is not correct.
The “Rarest of Rare” doctrine, used to determine the imposition of the death penalty in India, was laid down in which landmark Supreme Court judgment?
Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980)
Explanation :
Sanjoy Roy, convicted of raping and murdering a doctor at RG Kar Medical College in Kolkata, was sentenced to life imprisonment by a sessions court.
Despite the CBI’s push for the death penalty and public outcry, the court upheld the Supreme Court’s principle of reserving the death penalty for the “rarest of rare” cases, considering both aggravating and mitigating circumstances as outlined in the Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980) judgment.
The Court held that capital punishment should only be imposed in exceptionally grave cases where alternative punishments, such as life imprisonment, are inadequate.
What is the primary purpose of the Strategic Trade Authorization (STA) status granted by the United States?
To facilitate the export of high-tech and dual-use goods to trusted allies
Explanation :
President Donald Trump, in his inaugural speech for a second term, announced a “revolution of common sense” to shift America away from “liberal extremism” and “declinist pessimism.”
Trump reaffirmed support for taxing imports to boost domestic manufacturing and introduced plans for an External Revenue Service to handle taxes on imports, complementing the Internal Revenue Service.
The Strategic Trade Authorization (STA) is a license exception under the U.S. Export Administration Regulations (EAR) that allows certain countries to import high-tech and dual-use items with reduced licensing requirements.
It is primarily granted to trusted allies with strong export control measures.
In 2018, India was granted STA-1 status, allowing easier access to critical defense and high-tech goods, enhancing strategic and technological cooperation between India and the U.S.
Which of the following is the first step in the Dispute Resolution Mechanism under the Indus Water Treaty (IWT), 1960 when India and Pakistan have a disagreement over water-sharing issues?
Resolution through the Permanent Indus Commission (PIC)
Explanation :
Michel Lino, the World Bank-appointed Neutral Expert (NE), declared he is “competent” to decide differences on hydroelectric projects under the Indus Water Treaty (IWT), 1960.
The IWT allocates the three eastern rivers (Sutlej, Beas, Ravi) to India and the three western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab) to Pakistan. Signed in 1960, the treaty aimed at equitable water sharing between the two nations.
The Indus Water Treaty (IWT), 1960, signed between India and Pakistan and brokered by the World Bank, provides a structured three-tier dispute resolution mechanism:
Permanent Indus Commission (PIC): The first step involves resolving disputes through bilateral discussions between Indian and Pakistani officials in the PIC, which meets regularly to exchange data and address concerns.
Neutral Expert: If the issue remains unresolved and pertains to technical differences, a Neutral Expert may be appointed by the World Bank to provide a decision.
Court of Arbitration: If the dispute is serious and legal in nature, it may escalate to a seven-member Court of Arbitration, also facilitated by the World Bank.
Which of the following statement(s) with reference to the recent trends (FY 2023-24) of India’s crude oil imports is/are correct?
- India’s crude oil import bills dropped 16% due to lower international rates.
- The dependency on overseas suppliers rose to a new high.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India’s crude oil imports witnessed a significant shift in December 2024, with increased reliance on West Asian countries like Iraq and the UAE. This adjustment comes as Russian crude oil supplies dwindled due to heightened domestic demand.
Recent trends (FY 2023-24) of India’s crude oil imports:
India’s crude oil import dropped 16% in the fiscal year ended March 31 due to lower international rates, but the dependency on overseas suppliers rose to a new high, official data showed. So, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Import dependence soared to 87.7% in 2023-24, up from 87.4%, according to the Oil Ministry’s Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell (PPAC).
Which of the following statement(s) about the appointment of retired Judges in India is/are correct?
- Retired Judges are appointed by the President of India under Article 224 of the Indian Constitution.
- Retired Judges are appointed only to the Supreme Court of India in cases where the regular judges are unavailable.
- The appointment of Retired Judges requires consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
- Retired Judges have the same powers and functions as regular judges but are appointed for a limited term.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
1, 3, and 4 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Supreme Court proposed appointing retired judges on an ad hoc basis to address the backlog of criminal cases in High Courts. The Court also suggested revisiting its 2021 decision that restricted ad hoc appointments to specific situations.
Article 224A of the Indian Constitution permits the Chief Justice of a High Court to request retired judges to resume duties with the President’s approval.
Although rarely invoked, this provision involves a detailed appointment process, previously clarified by the SC.
Retired Judges are appointed by the President of India under Article 224 of the Constitution, which allows for the appointment of judges for a temporary period. So, statement 1 is correct.
Retired Judges can be appointed to both the Supreme Court and High Courts when there is a need for additional judges. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Chief Justice of India is consulted before appointing a retired Judge, ensuring the right selection process. So, statement 3 is correct.
Retired Judges are given the same powers as regular judges but are appointed for specific, often short-term, cases or periods. So, statement 4 is correct.
In response to increased tariffs imposed by Country X on its steel imports, Country Y decides to reduce taxes on domestically produced steel, offer subsidies to steel manufacturers, and negotiate for tariff reductions through bilateral talks. Which of the following strategies is Country Y employing to counter the tariffs?
Domestic adjustment and trade negotiation
Explanation :
Policymakers and analysts worldwide are anxiously awaiting US President Donald Trump’s tariff announcements.
While no specific tariffs have been announced yet, Trump has instructed his team to study China’s response to the tariffs imposed during his first term before making further decisions.
Country Y is utilizing domestic adjustment by reducing taxes and offering subsidies to support its steel industry, which helps make its steel more competitive against the tariffs from Country X.
Additionally, Country Y is engaging in trade negotiations to reduce the tariffs through bilateral talks, which is a diplomatic way of addressing the issue rather than escalating it further.
This combination of supporting domestic producers and seeking resolution through diplomatic channels is a typical strategy used to counter tariffs.
Which of the following best describes the Essential Religious Practices Doctrine in Indian constitutional law?
It grants religious freedom to individuals but permits the state to intervene in practices considered non-essential to the religion.
Explanation :
Observing that the use of loudspeakers is not an essential part of any religion, Bombay high court directed the state to curb noise pollution by places of worship, irrespective of religion.
The Essential Religious Practices Doctrine in Indian constitutional law allows individuals to practice their religion freely under Article 25 of the Constitution.
However, the state can intervene in religious practices if they do not form an essential part of the religion.
This doctrine was established by the Supreme Court of India to strike a balance between religious freedom and public interest.
Practices that are considered non-essential to the religion can be regulated or restricted by the state to safeguard public health, morality, or order.
The court assesses whether a practice is integral to a religion and, therefore, protected under the Constitution.
Which of the following is a key characteristic of the Iron Age in India?
The introduction and use of iron tools, weapons, and agricultural implements.
Explanation :
A groundbreaking study suggests the Iron Age in Tamil Nadu began as early as 3,345 BCE, pushing back the region’s iron timeline by over a millennium and challenging previous historical beliefs.
The Iron Age in India, which began around 1200 BCE, is primarily characterized by the introduction and widespread use of iron tools, weapons, and agricultural implements.
This period saw the transition from the Bronze Age, marked by the use of iron for more efficient farming tools and weapons, which facilitated societal development.
The period also saw the rise of important cultures like the Vedic culture, but the defining feature was the significant advancement in metallurgy, not the creation of urban civilizations or the composition of religious texts.
The Chinar tree, known for its vibrant autumn colors, is primarily found in which region of India?
Himalayan region of Jammu and Kashmir
Explanation :
The Jammu & Kashmir government has launched the “Tree Aadhaar” mission to conserve the region’s declining chinar trees.
The initiative includes conducting a census of chinar trees and assigning each tree a unique identity to monitor and protect them effectively.
The Chinar tree is a significant species found predominantly in the Himalayan region, especially in Jammu and Kashmir.
It is known for its majestic size and vibrant autumn colors, which make it a symbol of beauty in the region.
Consider the following statement(s) about the Whip System:
- It is a method used by political parties to ensure discipline among their members and to secure voting alignment during important parliamentary proceedings.
- In India, the position of a “whip” is limited to the legislative bodies at the state level and does not extend to the national level.
- Three-line whip is issued to members directing them to vote as per the party line & is the strictest of all the whip.
- If a legislator defies the party’s whip in India, they may face disqualification under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1, 3, and 4 only
Explanation :
Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar recently criticized the party whip system, stating it restricts MPs’ freedom of expression and enforces servility by compelling them to follow the party line.
The whip system is perceived as crucial for ensuring party discipline, particularly during significant votes in Parliament, with penalties like expulsion for non-compliance.
The Whip System is designed to ensure party discipline, directing members on how to vote during important motions or divisions. So, statement 1 is correct.
The whip system applies to both national and state legislative bodies in India, including the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Types
The One-line whip to inform the members about a vote. It allows a member to abstain in case they decide not to follow the party line.
The Two-line whip is issued to direct the members to be present in the House at the time of voting. No special instructions are given on the pattern of voting.
The Three-line whip is issued to members directing them to vote as per the party line. It is the strictest of all the whip. So, statement 3 is correct.
If a legislator disregards the party’s whip, they can be disqualified under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) of the Indian Constitution. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following is the most common trigger for Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS)?
Viral infections, particularly campylobacter infection & cytomegalovirus
Explanation :
Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS) is a rare neurological disorder in which the body’s immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system, leading to muscle weakness and paralysis.
Viral infections are the most common triggers, with campylobacter infection and viral infections like the Zika virus, influenza, and cytomegalovirus being significant contributors.
These infections often precede the onset of GBS symptoms, though other factors like bacterial infections and immunizations may also play a role.
What is the primary objective of the Paris AI Action Summit scheduled for February, 2025?
To discuss and establish international guidelines for the responsible development and deployment of AI.
Explanation :
Amid concerns over regulating AI without stifling innovation, global leaders will meet in Paris on February 10 for a two-day AI Action Summit.
This builds on the 2023 AI Safety Summit in Bletchley Park, which focused on “doomsday” concerns and resulted in 25 states, including the US and China, signing the Bletchley Declaration on AI Safety.
Additionally, the 2024 Seoul summit saw 16 leading AI companies voluntarily commit to transparent AI development.
The Paris AI Action Summit, 2025, aims to bring together global leaders, including heads of state, international organizations, CEOs, academics, and civil society representatives, to discuss and establish international guidelines for the responsible development and deployment of artificial intelligence.
This summit seeks to address the challenges and opportunities presented by AI, emphasizing the need for international cooperation to ensure that AI technologies are developed and used in ways that are ethical, transparent, and beneficial to all.
The summit is expected to result in a declaration outlining commitments and actions to promote sustainable and responsible AI development.
What is the primary objective of the ‘When-Listed’ Mechanism proposed by SEBI?
To allow investors to trade shares of a company during the period between the completion of an IPO and the company’s official listing on the stock exchange.
Explanation :
SEBI plans to launch a “when-listed” platform for trading of shares of companies that have finished their initial public offering (IPO) and are yet to be listed on stock exchanges.
The ‘When-Listed’ Mechanism is designed to provide investors with the opportunity to trade shares during the interval between the completion of an IPO and the company’s official listing.
This approach aims to enhance liquidity and offer greater flexibility to investors during this transitional period.
With reference to the gold import trends in India, consider the following statements:
- India is the world’s second-biggest gold consumer after China.
- The precious metal accounts for over 5% of the country’s total imports.
- In 2023-24, Switzerland is the largest source of gold imports followed by the UAE and South Africa.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
The Ministry of Commerce and Industry recently revised gold import figures for November 2024, reducing the reported value by $5 billion.
India is the world’s second-biggest gold consumer after China. The imports mainly take care of the demand by the jewellery industry. So, statement 1 is correct.
The precious metal accounts for over 5% of the country’s total imports. So, statement 2 is correct.
In 2023-24, India’s gold imports surged by 30 per cent to USD 45.54 billion. Switzerland is the largest source of gold imports, with about 40 per cent share, followed by the UAE (over 16 per cent) and South Africa (about 10 per cent). So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
With reference to Critical Minerals, consider the following statements:
- Critical minerals like lithium is a finite natural resources that is vital for high-tech industries and energy security.
- India has abundant domestic reserves of lithium and cobalt, two of the most important critical minerals for battery production.
- The National Critical Minerals Mission (NCMM) aims to promote domestic exploration, processing, and recycling of critical minerals.
How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Critical minerals like lithium, and rare earth elements are non-renewable( finite) resources essential for electronics, batteries, and defense. So, Statement 1 is correct.
India has very limited domestic reserves of lithium and cobalt, relying on imports. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The National Critical Minerals Mission (NCMM) is an initiative to ensure India’s self-reliance in critical minerals. So, Statement 3 is correct.
With reference to Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India, consider the following statements:
- The WPI is published by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on a monthly basis.
- The WPI does not include services in its basket, focusing only on goods.
- Primary articles have the highest weightage in the WPI composition.
How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The WPI is published by the Office of Economic Adviser (OEA), Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry, and is released monthly. The RBI does not publish the WPI. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
WPI does not include services, unlike the Consumer Price Index (CPI), which tracks both goods and services. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The highest weightage in WPI is given to Manufactured Products, not primary articles. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
