OCTOBER 2024 Flashcards
Pranahita Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which state?
A.Assam
B.Gujarat
C.Himachal Pradesh
D.Telangana
D. TEGANGANA
Explanation :
The National Board for Wildlife’s decision to defer road expansion projects affecting the Pranhita Wildlife Sanctuary reflects growing environmental concerns.
About Pranahita Wildlife Sanctuary:
Location: It is located in the Adilabad district of Telangana.
It covers an area of around 136 sq. km.
It is located in the scenic landscape of the Deccan plateau. It covers the thick deciduous teak forests.
Pranahitha River flows adjoining the eastern boundary of the sanctuary while the Godavari River runs towards the southern boundary of this sanctuary, which is also renowned for the presence of prehistoric rock formations.
The topography is hilly with dense forests and plateaus.
Flora: Common plants and trees found in the sanctuary include Dalbergia sissoo, Ficus spp., Dalbergia latifolia, Dalbergia paniculata, Pterocarpus marsupium, and many more.
Fauna:
The sanctuary is famously known for Blackbuck and is home to over 20 species of reptiles, 50 species of birds, and 40 species of mammals.
It is home to various types of species, especially mammals that include tigers, leopards, rhesus, langurs, hyenas, wild dogs, sloth bear, forest cat and many more.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/nagpur/wildlife-sanctuary-road-widening-deferral-a-victory-for-conservation/articleshow/114746005.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Chronic Wasting Disease (CWD):
- It is a progressive and fatal neurological disease affecting humans.
- There is no vaccine or treatment for CWD.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
B
Explanation :
New York State authorities recently confirmed a case of Chronic Wasting Disease (CWD) in a deer facility, emphasizing the disease’s impact on deer, elk, and moose populations.
About Chronic Wasting Disease (CWD):
It is a progressive and fatal neurological disease affecting deer, elk, moose, and other cervids (members of the deer family).
It’s caused by abnormal proteins called prions that damage brain tissue, leading to severe neurological symptoms, weight loss and eventually death.
CWD is part of a group of diseases known as Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies (TSEs), which also include mad cow disease in cattle and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease in humans.
Transmission:
CWD spreads between animals through bodily fluids, like saliva, urine, and feces, as well as contaminated soil and plants.
There is currently no evidence that CWD can infect humans.
The disease can persist in the environment for long periods, making it challenging to control.
Symptoms:
Symptoms appear slowly and may include drastic weight loss, lack of coordination, drooling, excessive thirst, lack of fear of humans, and eventually death.
Symptoms might not be visible for up to 16 months after infection.
Treatment: It is always fatal in infected animals. There is no vaccine or treatment.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/life-style/health-fitness/health-news/what-is-chronic-wasting-disease-detected-in-new-york-symptoms-and-prevention-tips/articleshow/114735410.cms
Simhachalam Temple, recently seen in the news, lies in which state?
A.Kerala
B.Madhya Pradesh
C.Andhra Pradesh
D.Odisha
c
Explanation :
During recent conservation efforts, epigraphists from the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) uncovered a Telugu inscription on the wall above the statue of Lord Hanuman at the 13th-century Simhachalam temple.
About Simhachalam Temple:
Simhachalam Temple, originally known as Varaha Lakshmi Narasimha Temple, is a Hindu temple located in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
It is dedicated to the incarnation (avatar) of Vishnu known as Narasimha
(the man-lion).
History:
It was constructed in the 11th century by the Gajapati rulers of Odisha.
Kulottunga Chola I of Tamilnadu, made endowments to this temple, as evidenced from inscriptions dating back to the year 1087.
The Vengi Chalukyas of Andhra Pradesh renovated the original shrine in the 11th century.
Much of the structure as it stands today is the result of renovation by Narasimha I, of the Eastern Ganga dynasty in the second quarter of the 13th century CE.
Krishna Deva Raya, the Vijayanagar monarch, visited this temple in the year 1516, as seen from inscriptions here.
Architecture:
The temple’s architecture is a blend of Kalinga and Dravidian styles, with its main sanctum adorned with intricate carvings and sculptures.
The presiding deity, Lord Narasimha, is depicted with a human torso and a lion’s face, exuding a sense of divine power and grace.
It boasts of a beautiful stone chariot drawn by horses.
The Kalyana Mandapa within the temple has 16 pillars with bas reliefs depicting the incarnations of Vishnu.
The outer walls of the sanctum depict images of a royal personality (said to be King Narasimha) in various postures.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.deccanchronicle.com/southern-states/andhra-pradesh/ancient-telugu-inscription-discovered-at-simhachalam-temple-1834227
What is the primary purpose of the Civil Registration System (CRS) Mobile App, recently seen in the news?
A.To facilitate voter registration
B.To assist with birth and death registrations
C.To monitor census data in real-time
D.To track migration patterns within the country
B
Explanation :
Union Home Minister recently launched the Civil Registration System (CRS) mobile application to “integrate technology with governance”.
About Civil Registration System (CRS) Mobile App:
It is designed to facilitate the registration of births and deaths across India.
It was developed by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India.
It aims to simplify and expedite the registration process for citizens, making it more accessible and efficient.
The new app will allow citizens to register births or deaths at any time from any place in their state’s official language.
Key Facts about Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India (RGCCI):
It is an office under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India, responsible for conducting the decennial Census of India, compiling demographic and population statistics, and overseeing the Civil Registration System (CRS) in the country.
Established in 1961, the RGCCI is a crucial body for policy-making, providing data that informs social, economic, and political decisions at all levels of government.
The Registrar General of India is the head of the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/amit-shah-launches-mobile-app-for-birth-death-registration-unveils-statue-of-sardar-patel-ahead-of-his-birth-anniversary/article68812058.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO):
- It is a legally binding multilateral treaty signed by all the member states of the United Nations (UN).
- In order to verify compliance with its provisions, the treaty establishes a global network of monitoring facilities and allows for on-site inspections of suspicious events.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
B
Explanation :
The recent rumours of a nuclear test by Iran were promptly refuted by the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO).
About Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO):
It is an international organization based in Vienna, Austria, established to implement the Comprehensive NuclearTest-Ban Treaty (CTBT), which aims to ban all nuclear explosions worldwide.
CTBT is a multilateral treaty opened for signature in 1996 by which states agree to ban all nuclear explosions in all environments, for military or civilian purposes.
The treaty envisages the mechanisms that control such prohibition, including distant monitoring and data collection.
It was signed by 183 states and ratified by 164 but has not entered into force as eight specific states among 44 (so-called Annex-2 states whose signatures are required for the Treaty to enter into force, namely the US, China, Iran, Egypt, Israel, India, Pakistan, and North Korea) have not ratified the treaty yet.
In order to verify compliance with its provisions, the treaty establishes a global network of monitoring facilities and allows for on-site inspections of suspicious events.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Oct/29/global-n-monitoring-system-transparent
Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Indian System of Medicine:
- It is a statutory body and its members are appointed by the central government.
- It helps in framing policies for regulating medical institutions and medical professionals of the Indian System of Medicine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
C
Explanation :
Recently, the National Commission for Indian System of Medicine (NCISM) conducted a workshop for drafting Ayurveda Process Handbook at NCISM office.
It is the statutory body constituted under NCISM Act, 2020.
An Act to provide for a medical education system that improves access to quality and affordable medical education, and ensures the availability of adequate and high-quality medical professionals of the Indian System of Medicine in all parts of the country.
Composition: It consists of 29 members, appointed by the central government. A Search Committee will recommend names to the central government for the post of Chairperson, part-time members, and presidents of the four autonomous boards set up under the NCISM.
Functions
Framing policies for regulating medical institutions and medical professionals of the Indian System of Medicine
Assessing the requirements of healthcare-related human resources and infrastructure.
Ensuring compliance by the State Medical Councils of the Indian System of Medicine with the regulations made under the Bill
Ensuring coordination among the autonomous boards.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2069028
Consider the following statements regarding the Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture:
- It is a Central Sponsored Scheme (CSS) implemented for the holistic growth of the horticulture sector.
- It provides technical advice and administrative support to State Horticulture Missions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
C
Explanation :
The Union Government has reportedly decided to include four new components – Hydroponics, Aquaponics, Vertical Farming, and Precision Agriculture – under the Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH).
It is a Central Sponsored Scheme (CSS) that is being implemented w.e.f. 2014-15 for holistic growth of the horticulture sector.
It promotes the cultivation of fruits, vegetables, root and tuber crops, mushrooms, spices, flowers, aromatic plants, coconut, cashew, cocoa and bamboo.
MIDH also provides technical advice and administrative support to State Governments/ State Horticulture Missions (SHMs) for the Saffron Mission and other horticulture-related activities Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY)/NMSA.
Funding:
Under MIDH, the Government of India (GOI) contributes 60%, of the total outlay for developmental programmes in all the states except states in North East and Himalayas, 40% share is contributed by State Governments.
In the case of North Eastern States and Himalayan States, GOI contributes 90%.
In the case of the National Horticulture Board (NHB), Coconut Development Board (CDB), Central Institute for Horticulture (CIH), Nagaland and the National Level Agencies (NLA), GOI contributes 100%.
Key Components
National Horticulture Mission (NHM) - Focuses on the development of horticulture in states and union territories.
Horticulture Mission for North East and Himalayan States (HMNEH) - Addresses the specific needs of the northeastern and Himalayan regions.
National Bamboo Mission (NBM) - Dedicated to promoting bamboo cultivation and its value chain.
Coconut Development Board (CDB) - Works on the development of the coconut sector.
Central Institute of Horticulture (CIH): It was established at Medizipehima, Nagaland in 2006-07 for providing technical back stopping through capacity building and training of farmers and Field functionaries in the North Eastern Region.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/midh-guidelines-cost-norms-9643177/#:~
Consider the following statements regarding the North Atlantic right whale:
- It is a migratory species found in the temperate and sub-polar waters of the North Atlantic Ocean.
- It is categorized as endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
A
Explanation :
A group of researchers that studies the whales said that the population of North Atlantic right whale increased about 4% from 2020 level after the whale’s population fell by about 25% from 2010 to 2020.
These whales are migratory animals, spending the winter in warmer waters and migrating to the poles for cooler waters in late summer.
These whales inhabit the temperate and subpolar waters of the North Atlantic and North Pacific oceans.
Habitat: Depending on the time of year and which hemisphere they’re found, right whales will spend much of their time near bays and peninsulas and in shallow, coastal waters.
Distribution: These are generally restricted to the coastal waters of the East Coast of the United States and Canada.
Three recognized species of right whales occur in different parts of the world. These are Southern right whales (Eubalaena australis), North Atlantic right whales (Eubalaena glacialis) and North Pacific right whales.
These whales often skim feed at or just below the water surface, slowly swimming through clouds of plankton with their mouths half open and then straining the plankton through their long baleen plates.
Conservation status
IUCN: Critically endangered
CITES: Appendix I
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/right-whale-population-grows-4-but-extinction-remains-a-threat-9633806/
Consider the following statements regarding the Mission Amrit Sarovar:
- It was launched to overcome the water crisis in rural areas of India.
- Under this mission separate financial allocation is provided to build Amrit Sarovars by the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
A
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India said that over 60,000 Amrit Sarovars constructed across villages leaving behind a legacy for future generations.
It was launched on 24th April 2022 with the resolve to build 75 Amrit Sarovars during the 75th year of independence as a part of Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav.
It helps to overcome the water crisis in rural areas of the country.
Every Amrit Sarovar will have a pond area of at least 1 acre with a water holding capacity of about 10,000 cubic metre.
It focuses on water conservation, people’s participation and proper utilization of soil excavated from the water bodies to boost infrastructural projects.
This Mission has been launched with a whole Government Approach which involves 6 Ministries/Department namely:
Dept of Rural Development, Department of Land Resources, Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation, Department of Water Resources, Ministry of Panchayati Raj, Ministry of Forest, Environment and Climate changes.
There is no separate financial allocation for Mission Amrit Sarovar.
Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space Application and Geo-informatics (BISAG-N) has been engaged as a Technical Partner for the Mission.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2068995
Greenhouse Gas Bulletin is published by:
A.World Bank
B.World Economic Forum
C.United Nations Environment
Programme
D.World Meteorological Organization
D
Explanation :
According to a new report by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO), greenhouse gas levels surged to a new record in 2023, rising by more than 10% in just two decades.
Greenhouse Gas Bulletin has been published annually since 2004 by the World Meteorological Organization.
It shows globally averaged surface mole fractions for Carbon Dioxide (CO2), Methane (CH4) and Nitrous Oxide (N2O) and compares them with the mole fractions during the previous year and with preindustrial levels.
It also provides insights into the change in radiative forcing by long-lived GHGs (LLGHGs) and the contribution of individual gases to this increase.
It is one of WMO’s flagship publications released to inform the UN Climate Change conference (COP).
Highlights of the Bulletin
The globally averaged surface concentration of carbon dioxide reached 420 parts per million (ppm), methane 1934 parts per billion and nitrous oxide 336.9 parts per billion (ppb) in 2023.
Carbon dioxide is the single most important greenhouse gas in the atmosphere related to human activities, accounting for approximately 64 per cent of the warming effect on the climate, mainly because of fossil fuel combustion and cement production,
The long-term carbon dioxide increase is due to fossil fuel combustion, but there are year-to-year variations due to the El Nino–Southern Oscillation, which impacts photosynthetic carbon dioxide uptake, respiratory release, and fires.
Methane is a powerful greenhouse gas which remains in the atmosphere for about a decade. Methane accounts for about 16 per cent of the warming effect of long-lived greenhouse gases.
Nitrous oxide, an ozone depleting chemical, accounts for about 6 per cent of the radiative forcing – the warming effect on the climate – by long-lived greenhouse gases.
From 1990 to 2023, radiative forcing — the warming effect on our climate — by long-lived greenhouse gases increased by 51.5%, with CO2 accounting for about 81 per cent of this increase.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/with-11-increase-over-2-decades-carbon-dioxide-accumulates-faster-in-atmosphere/article68805442.ece
Consider the following statements:
- It is a transboundary river which flows through China, Nepal and India.
- It is a prominent tributary of the Ganges.
- It is known as the “sorrow of Bihar”.
The above statements correctly describe which one of the following rivers?
Kosi
Explanation :
Several regions of Bihar are facing severe flooding due to the heavy release of water from the Kosi Barrage in Birpur, following intense rainfall.
About Kosi River:
It is a transboundary river which flows through China, Nepal, and India.
It is a prominent tributary of the Ganges.
Course:
Origin: The river Kosi is formed by the confluence of three streams, namely the Sun Kosi, the Arun Kosi, and the Tamur Kosi, all of which have their origin in the Himalayan region of Nepal and Tibet.
About 30 miles (48 km) north of the Indian-Nepalese frontier, the Kosi is joined by several major tributaries and breaks southward through the Siwalik Hills at the narrow Chatra Gorge.
The river then emerges on the great plain of northern India in Bihar state on its way to the Ganges River, which it enters south of Purnea after a course of about 450 miles (724 km).
The Kosi drains an area of 74,500 sq.km, of which only 11,070 sq.km lie within Indian Territory.
The Kosi River valley is bounded by steep margins that disconnect it from the Yarlung Zangbo River to the north, the Mahananda River to the east, the Gandaki to the west, and the Ganga to the south.
Because of its great outflushing of debris, the Kosi has no permanent channel in its course through the great plain of northern India.
It is well known for its tendency to change course generally in a westward direction. During the last 200 years, the river has shifted westwards for a distance of about 112 km and has laid waste large tracks of agricultural land.
Kosi is known as the “sorrow of Bihar”, as it has caused widespread human suffering in the past due to flooding and very frequent changes in course, when it flows from Nepal to Bihar.
Tributaries: It has seven major tributaries: Sun Koshi, Tama Koshi or Tamba Koshi, Dudh Koshi, Indravati, Likhu, Arun, and Tamore or Tamar.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/patna/severe-flooding-in-bihar-kosi-barrage-water-release-disrupts-normal-life/articleshow/113803067.cms
Which among the following best describes ‘White Goods’?
A. Electronic devices such as televisions and computers. B. Cleaning supplies like detergents and soaps C. Large home appliances such as refrigerators and washing machines. D. Home furniture made from white-colored materials.
Large home appliances such as refrigerators and washing machines.
Explanation :
The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) recently asked white goods manufacturers to participate in large numbers to avail fiscal benefits under the production-linked incentive (PLI) scheme for the sector.
About White Goods:
White goods traditionally refer to large home appliances such as stoves, refrigerators, freezers and washing machines.
Originally, such goods were only available in white, hence the designation.
Today, the same goods are offered in an array of colors but are still collectively referred to as white goods.
White goods are also used in a different connotation within other categories.
In fabrics, white goods can refer to home products made from linen, cotton, or other white base materials. This includes curtains, towels, and sheets.
White goods can also refer to colorless spirits.
In the alcoholic beverage industry, white goods are often used as a collective designation for colorless spirits such as vodka and gin.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.bizzbuzz.news/industry/govt-invites-white-goods-makers-to-explore-pli-1337962
‘Mount Erebus’, recently seen in the news, is located in which one of the following countries?
A.
Canada
B.
Australia
C.
Iceland
D.
Antarctica
Antarctica
Explanation :
In a strange incident, Antarctica’s second largest volcano, Mount Erebus, is spewing out gold dust, which has left scientists in complete shock.
About Mount Erebus:
It is the world’s southernmost active volcano.
Location: It is situated on Ross Island, Antarctica.
It was discovered in 1841 by the British explorer Sir James Clark Ross, who named it after his ship, the Erebus.
It stands at an elevation of about 3,794 meters (12,448 feet).
It’s a stratovolcano characterized by a conical shape and layers of hardened lava, tephra, and volcanic ash.
Mount Erebus is known for its persistent lava lake.
The lake has been active since at least 1972 and is one of only a few long-lived lava lakes on Earth.
It constantly churns and occasionally spews bombs of molten rock in Strombolian eruptions.
Because the volcano is in a remote location, researchers monitor it using satellites.
The largest Antarctic settlement—McMurdo Station, operated by the United States—stands within sight of the volcano (about 40 kilometers or 25 miles away).
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.timesnownews.com/travel/destinations/antarcticas-mount-erebus-is-releasing-gold-dust-worth-rs-5-lakh-scientists-explain-why-article-113665728
Harpoon Missile, recently seen in the news, was developed by which one of the following countries?
A.
Germany
B.
United States of Amercia
C.
China
D.
India
United States of Amercia
Explanation :
The first shipment of 100 land-based Harpoon anti-ship missile systems ordered from the United States has reportedly arrived in Kaohsiung, Taiwan.
About Harpoon Missile:
The Harpoon (RGM-84/UGM-84/AGM-84) is a U.S.-designed subsonic antiship cruise missile that has been in service since 1977.
Numerous variants have been produced since its inception, including air-, ship-, and sub-launched versions.
It is currently in service with the armed forces of more than 30 countries, including India.
Features:
It is an all-weather, over-the-horizon, anti-ship missile system.
A single missile measures 4.5 m in length and weighs 526 kg.
Propulsion: Turbojet, solid propellant.
Its low-level, sea-skimming cruise trajectory, active radar guidance, and warhead design assure high survivability and effectiveness.
It is capable of executing both land-strike and anti-ship missions.
This missile is fitted with a heavy 221-kilogram penetration blast warhead.
It uses GPS-aided inertial navigation to hit a designated target aimpoint.
Range: 90-240 km
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.eurasiantimes.com/taiwan-receives-first-shipment-of-harpoon/#google_vignette
Consider the following statements regarding Neutrinos:
- They are tiny subatomic particles that barely interact with anything else.
- They are one of the rarest particles in the universe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers exploring neutrinos in dense environments like supernovae and neutron star mergers discovered that these “ghost particles” can become entangled, sharing quantum states and evolving chaotically.
About Neutrinos:
Neutrinos are tiny subatomic particles, often called ‘ghost particles’ because they barely interact with anything else.
Neutrinos are, however, the most common particle in the universe.
Approximately 100 trillion neutrinos pass completely harmlessly through your body every second.
Their tendency not to interact very often with other particles makes detecting neutrinos very difficult.
Neutrinos have no charge; they are neutral, as their name implies.
They belong to the family of particles called leptons, which are not subject to the strong force.
Neutrinos don’t interact at all with the strong nuclear force that binds atomic nuclei together, but they do interact with the weak force that controls radioactive decay.
Neutrinos come from all kinds of different sources and are often the product of heavy particles turning into lighter ones, a process called “decay.”
Neutrinos are created by various radioactive decay, such as during a supernova, by cosmic rays striking atoms, etc.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://scitechdaily.com/in-the-heart-of-supernovae-ghost-particles-reveal-new-quantum-secrets/
Consider the following statements regarding the Cruise Bharat Mission:
- It aims to boost the tremendous potential of cruise tourism in India.
- It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Tourism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister of Ports, Shipping & Waterways (MoPSW) launched the ‘Cruise Bharat Mission’ from the Mumbai port.
It is aimed at boosting the tremendous potential of cruise tourism in the country and to propel the country’s cruise tourism industry by doubling cruise passenger traffic within five years; i.e. by 2029.
It will be implemented in three phases, beginning from 1 October 2024 up to 31 March 2029.
The Phase 1 (01.10.2024 – 30.09.2025) will focus on conducting studies, master planning, and forming cruise alliances with neighbouring countries. It will also modernise existing cruise terminals, marinas, and destinations to enhance the potential of cruise circuits.
The Phase 2 (01.10.2025 – 31.03.2027) will concentrate on developing new cruise terminals, marinas, and destinations to activate high-potential cruise locations and circuits.
Phase 3 (01.04.2027 – 31.03.2029) will focus on integrating all cruise circuits across the Indian Subcontinent, marking the maturity of the cruise ecosystem while continuing the development of cruise terminals, marinas, and destinations.
The mission has identified key initiatives across five strategic pillars.
The Sustainable Infrastructure & Capital: It addresses infrastructure gaps, focusing on developing world-class terminals, marinas, water aerodromes, and heliports, alongside digitalisation (e.g., facial recognition) and decarbonisation (e.g., shore power).It includes creating a National Cruise Infrastructure Master Plan 2047, setting up a cruise-focused SPV under Indian Ports Association (IPA), and establishing a cruise development fund.
The Operations Including Technology Enabled: This pillar aims to streamline operations, ensuring smooth embarkation, disembarkation, and destination visits with a focus on digital solutions such as e-clearance systems and e-visa facilities.
The Cruise Promotion & Circuit Integration: It focuses on international marketing and investment promotion, including linking cruise circuits, hosting events like the “Cruise India Summit,” and forming alliances with neighbouring countries.
The Regulatory, Fiscal & Financial Policy: This pillar is centred on creating tailored fiscal and financial policies, with a focus on tax scenarios, cruise regulations, and the launch of a National Cruise Tourism Policy.
The Capacity Building and Economic Research: This pillar emphasizes skill development, creating a Centre of Excellence for cruise-related economic research, and formulating National Occupational Standards to promote youth employment in the cruise industry.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Ports, Shipping & Waterways
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2060272
With reference to Overseas Citizen of India, consider the following statements:
- They get a multiple entry, multi-purpose life-long visa for visiting India.
- They are eligible to hold Indian constitutional posts.
- They require permission to visit protected areas in India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Consulate General of India in New York has clarified that rumours circulating on social media regarding Overseas Citizen of India (OCIs) becoming reclassified as “foreigners” are false.
The Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) scheme was introduced in August 2005 which provides for registration of all Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) who were citizens of India on January 26, 1950, or thereafter, or were eligible to become citizens of India on the said date.
Who cannot be an OCI?
An applicant is not eligible to get an OCI card if his/her parents or grandparents have ever been a citizen of Pakistan or Bangladesh.
Foreign military personnel either in service or retired are also not entitled for grant of OCI.
However, the spouse of foreign origin of a citizen of India or spouse of foreign origin of an OCI, whose marriage has been registered and subsisted for not less than two years, can apply for an OCI card.
Advantages of OCI card holders
An OCI card holder — essentially a foreign passport holder — gets a multiple entry, multi-purpose life-long visa for visiting India, and is exempt from registration with local police authority for any length of stay in the country.
The OCI card holder is
Not entitled to vote; to be a member of a Legislative Assembly or of a Legislative Council or of Parliament; to hold Indian constitutional posts such as that of the President, Vice President, Judge of the Supreme Court or High Court.
He or she cannot normally hold employment in the government.
Latest rules regarding OCIs
On March 4, 2021, the Ministry of Home Affairs issued a gazette notification amending the rules regarding OCI card holders.
These rules required OCI card holders to seek permission or a permit to visit protected areas in India.
The same restrictions apply to foreign nationals visiting Jammu & Kashmir and Arunachal Pradesh.
They need to secure a special permit to undertake “any research”, to undertake any “missionary” or “Tablighi” or “journalistic activities” or to visit any area in India notified as “protected”, “restricted” or “prohibited”.
They are at par with “foreign nationals” in respect of “all other economic, financial and educational fields” for the purposes of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 2003 although past circulars by the Reserve Bank of India under FEMA continued to hold ground.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/who-is-overseas-citizen-of-india-what-are-the-rights-and-privileges-of-oci-card-holders-9596359/
Exercise KAZIND, recently in news, is conducted between India and:
A.
Saudi Arabia
B.
Kazakhstan
C.
Japan
D.
France
Kazakhstan
Explanation :
The 8th edition of Exercise KAZIND is scheduled to be conducted from 30th September to 13th October 2024 at Surya Foreign Training Node, Auli, Uttarakhand.
It is a joint military Exercise held every year between India-Kazakhstan.
The Indian Armed Forces, comprising 120 personnel, are being represented by a battalion of the KUMAON Regiment of the Indian Army, along with other arms and services, as well as personnel from the Indian Air Force.
The Kazakhstan contingent will be represented mainly by personnel from Land Forces and Airborne Assault Troopers.
Aim: To enhance joint military capability of both sides to undertake counter terrorism operations in a sub conventional scenario under Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter.
It will focus on operations in the semi-urban and mountainous terrain. Objectives to be achieved from the Joint Exercise are high degree of physical fitness, rehearsing and refining drills for operations at tactical level and sharing of best practices.
Tactical drills to be rehearsed during the Joint Exercise include joint response to a terrorist action, establishment of a Joint Command Post, establishment of an Intelligence and Surveillance Centre
Joint Exercise KAZIND-2024 will enable both sides to share best practices in tactics, techniques and procedures of conducting joint operations.
It will facilitate developing inter-operability, bonhomie and camaraderie between the two armies. The Joint Exercise will also enhance defence cooperation, further augmenting bilateral relations between the two friendly nations.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2060265
Consider the following statements regarding Tsetse flies:
- They are found in local patches of dense vegetation along banks of rivers.
- They transmit the Trypanosoma parasites, which are responsible for sleeping sickness in humans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
According to a new atlas published by Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) Tsetse flies are present in 34 African countries.
Tsetse flies (genus Glossina) transmit trypanosomes, which are unicellular parasites that cause sleeping sickness in humans.
They are holometaboulos insects, females giving birth to full-grown larvae which rapidly pupate in the soil.
They are arranged taxonomically and ecologically into three groups: the fusca, or forest, group (subgenus Austenina); the morsitans, or savanna, group (subgenus Glossina); and the palpalis, or riverine, group (subgenus Nemorhina).
Habitat:
They are found in local patches of dense vegetation along banks of rivers.
Also found in lakes in arid terrain, and also in dense, wet, heavily forested equatorial rainforest
They feed on blood and transmit the Trypanosoma parasites, which are responsible for sleeping sickness in humans and animal trypanosomosis or “Nagana” in cattle.
They are also linked to nagana in African livestock, resulting in annual agricultural losses estimated in the billions of dollars.
The collected data confirmed the presence of Glossina species in 34 countries, ranging from Northern Senegal (around 15 degrees north) to South Africa (Kwazulu-Natal province at 28.5 degrees south).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/africa/tsetse-fly-present-in-34-countries-in-africa-confirms-fao-atlas
Consider the following statements regarding the Dadasaheb Phalke Award:
- It is presented by the Directorate of Film Festivals, an organisation set up by the Union Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
- It is India’s highest award in the field of cinema.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Legendary actor Mr. Mithun Chakraborty will be honoured with the Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime Achievement Award for the year 2022.
It is India’s highest award in the field of cinema.
It is presented annually at the National Film Awards ceremony by the Directorate of Film Festivals, an organisation set up by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
The recipient is honoured for their “outstanding contribution to the growth and development of Indian cinema”.
The award prize consists of a golden lotus, a cash prize of ₹10 lakh and a shawl.
The award was introduced by the Government of India to commemorate Dadasaheb Phalke’s contribution to Indian cinema, who is popularly known as and often regarded as “the father of Indian cinema”.
It was first presented in 1969. The first recipient of the award was actress Devika Rani, “the first lady of Indian cinema.
Who was Dhundiraj Govind ‘Dadasaheb’ Phalke?
He was born in 1870 at Trimbak in Maharashtra.
He studied engineering and sculpture and developed an interest in motion pictures after watching the 1906 silent film The Life of Christ.
Before venturing into films, Phalke worked as a photographer, owned a printing press, and had even worked with the famed painter Raja Ravi Varma.
In 1913, Phalke wrote, produced, and directed India’s first feature film, the silent Raja Harishchandra. A commercial success, it propelled Phalke to make 95 more films and 26 short films in the next 19 years.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/entertainment/movies/dadasaheb-phalke-award-reward-for-mithun-chakrabortys-versatility/article68702059.ece
With reference to Climate Equity Monitor, consider the following statements:
- It is an online dashboard for assessing equity in climate action and inequalities in emissions at the global level.
- It has been developed by the National Informatics Centre in collaboration with the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MOEFCC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Climate equity monitor is an online dashboard for assessing, at the international level, equity in climate action, inequalities in emissions, energy and resource consumption. It is aimed at monitoring the performance of Annex-I Parties under the UNFCCC (developed countries) based on the foundational principles of the Climate Convention. It also gives an insight about the disparity between the emissions of developed and developing countries. So, statement 1 is correct.
It has been conceptualized and developed by independent researchers from India- the Climate change group at the M.S Swaminathan Research Foundation (MSSRF), Chennai, and the Natural Sciences and Engineering department at the National Institute of Advanced Studies (NIAS) Bengaluru, with other independent researchers. So, statement 2 is not correct.
3 only
Explanation :
Srivilliputhur- Megamalai Tiger Reserve is the fifth tiger reserve in Tamil Nadu which covers an area comprising 1,01,657.13 hectares (1,016.5713 square km), combining the Srivilliputhur Grizzled Giant Squirrel Wildlife Sanctuary and Megamalai Wildlife Sanctuary. The reserve covers the region in four districts - Madurai, Virudhunagar, Tirunelveli and Theni. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
The Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple Tiger Reserve (BRT) is located in Chamarajanagar district of Karnataka State. The tiger reserve derives its name from ‘BILIGIRI ‘, the white rocky cliff which has a temple of Lord ‘VISHNU’ locally known as ‘Rangaswamy’. The major forest types of the reserve are southern tropical evergreen forests, southern tropical semi-evergreen forests and southern tropical moist deciduous forests. As many as 26 mammals have been recorded and 215 species of birds are endemic to the region. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Buxa Tiger Reserve is situated in Jalpaiguri District, West Bengal. The Reserve stretches over a length of 50 km from West to East and 35 km from North to South. The forests of the reserve can be broadly classified as the ‘Moist Tropical Forest’ of Champion. As many as 68 species of mammals have been recorded. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
With reference to the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS), consider the following statements:
- It is an environmental treaty under the aegis of the United Nations.
- All kind of agreements invoked under the convention are automatically legally binding.
- The convention covers the species of migratory birds only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Convention on Migratory Species (CMS):
As an environmental treaty of the United Nations, CMS provides a global platform for the conservation and sustainable use of migratory animals and their habitats. As the only global convention specializing in the conservation of migratory species, their habitats and migration routes, CMS complements and co-operates with a number of other international organizations, NGOs and partners in the media as well as in the corporate sector. So, statement 1 is correct.
Migratory species threatened with extinction are listed on Appendix I of the Convention. CMS Parties strive towards strictly protecting these animals, conserving or restoring the places where they live, mitigating obstacles to migration and controlling other factors that might endanger them. Migratory species that need or would significantly benefit from international cooperation are listed in Appendix II of the Convention. For this reason, the Convention encourages the Range States to conclude global or regional agreements. In this respect, CMS acts as a framework Convention.
The agreements may range from legally binding treaties (called Agreements) to less formal instruments, such as Memoranda of Understanding, and can be adapted to the requirements of particular regions. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The conventions cover species of birds, fishes, mammals, reptiles, insects, etc. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Nations like China, the USA, Russia, Canada and various nations of Southeast Asia are non-parties to the convention. India became a party to the convention in November 1983.
Kunming Declaration recently seen in news is related to
Biodiversity Conservation
Explanation :
More than 100 countries on the 13th of October 2021 pledged to make the protection of habitats an integral part of their respective government’s policies. The delegations from these countries were attending the United Nations Biodiversity Conference in the Chinese city of Kunming.
The Kunming Declaration signed by all countries calls for “urgent and integrated action” to reflect biodiversity considerations in all sectors of the global economy.
According to the Kunming Declaration, the delegate countries have committed to “ensuring the development, adoption, and implementation of an effective post-2020 global biodiversity framework, that includes the provision of the necessary means of implementation.
This shall be in line with the convention and appropriate mechanism for monitoring, reporting, and review, to reverse the current loss of biodiversity and ensure that biodiversity is put on a path to recovery by 2030.
Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘genetic drift’?
A.
It is a change in the gene pool of a small population that takes place strictly by chance.
B.
It is a change in the genetic traits of an individual that takes place strictly by chance.
C.
It is a change in the genetic code of a pathogen, especially a virus, upon interaction with a host.
D. It is the genetic variation among organisms sharing common ancestry.
It is a change in the gene pool of a small population that takes place strictly by chance.
Explanation :
Genetic drift: It is also called genetic sampling error or ‘Sewall Wright effect’. It is a change in the gene pool of a small population that takes place strictly by chance. It can result in genetic traits being lost from a population or becoming widespread in a population without respect to the survival or reproductive value of the alleles involved.
Genetic drift can occur only in small, isolated populations in which the gene pool is small enough that chance events can change its makeup substantially. In larger populations, any specific allele is carried by so many individuals that it is almost certain to be transmitted by some of them unless it is biologically unfavorable.
With reference to the IUCN red list of threatened species, consider the following statements:
- Critically Endangered species are those that have had a population decline of more than 90 percent over the previous three generations.
- Endangered species are those that have a current population size of fewer than 250 mature individuals.
- Vulnerable species are those that have a probability of extinction in the wild of at least 10 percent in 100 years.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
The International Union for Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) Red List of Threatened Species is the world’s most comprehensive information source on the global extinction risk of animals, fungi and plants.
IUCN Red List Categories and Criteria:
Critically Endangered: Species that possess an extremely high risk of extinction as a result of rapid population declines more than 90 percent over the previous 10 years (or three generations), a current population size of fewer than 50 mature individuals, or probability of extinction in the wild to be more than 50% in 10 years or 3 generations. So, statement 1 is correct.
Endangered: Species that possess a very high risk of extinction as a result of rapid population declines of more than 70 percent over the previous 10 years (or three generations), a current population size of fewer than 250 mature individuals, or probability of extinction in the wild to be more than 20% in 20 years or 5 generations. So, statement 2 is correct.
Vulnerable: Species that possess a very high risk of extinction as a result of rapid population decline of more than 50 percent over the previous 10 years (or three generations), a current population size of fewer than 1,000 mature individuals, or probability of extinction in the wild to be more than 10% in 100 years. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
With reference to Nagoya Protocol, consider the following statements:
- It pre-dates the Cartagena protocol on biosafety.
- It covers traditional knowledge associated with genetic resources.
- Global Environment Facility acts as the financial mechanism for the protocol.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The Nagoya Protocol on access to genetic resources and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from their utilization (ABS) to the Convention on biological diversity (CBD) is a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity.
It was adopted on 29 October 2010 in Nagoya, Japan and entered into force on 12 October 2014 whereas Cartagena protocol on biosafety was adopted on 29 January 2000 and entered into force on 11 September 2003. So, statement 1 is not correct.
It applies to genetic resources that are covered by the CBD, and to the benefits arising from their utilization. The Nagoya Protocol also covers traditional knowledge (TK) associated with genetic resources that are covered by the CBD and the benefits arising from its utilization. So, statement 2 is correct.
Global Environment Facility (GEF) serves as the institutional structure to operate the financial mechanism for the Nagoya protocol. The GEF was established on the eve of the Rio Earth Summit to tackle our planet’s most pressing environmental problems. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements:
- Conservation of Migratory Species (CMS) is the only global convention specialising in the conservation of migratory species.
- TRAFFIC is an organisation established by the United Nations Environment Programme.
- Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES) is legally binding on its parties.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
As an environmental treaty of the United Nations, CMS provides a global platform for the conservation and sustainable use of migratory animals and their habitats. As the only global convention specialising in the conservation of migratory species, their habitats and migration routes, CMS complements and co-operates with a number of other international organisations, NGOs and partners in the media as well as in the corporate sector. Migratory species threatened with extinction are listed on Appendix I of the Convention. So, statement 1 is correct.
TRAFFIC is an organisation that was established in 1976 by WWF and IUCN as a wildlife trade monitoring network to undertake data collection, analysis, and provision of recommendations to inform decision-making on wildlife trade. TRAFFIC became an independent non-profit organization in 2017, with WWF and IUCN sitting on its Board of Directors along with independent Board members. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES) was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of IUCN (The World Conservation Union). Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties – in other words they have to implement the Convention – it does not take the place of national laws. Rather it provides a framework to be respected by each Party, which has to adopt its own domestic legislation to ensure that CITES is implemented at the national level. So, statement 3 is correct.
Explanation :
As an environmental treaty of the United Nations, CMS provides a global platform for the conservation and sustainable use of migratory animals and their habitats. As the only global convention specialising in the conservation of migratory species, their habitats and migration routes, CMS complements and co-operates with a number of other international organisations, NGOs and partners in the media as well as in the corporate sector. Migratory species threatened with extinction are listed on Appendix I of the Convention. So, statement 1 is correct.
TRAFFIC is an organisation that was established in 1976 by WWF and IUCN as a wildlife trade monitoring network to undertake data collection, analysis, and provision of recommendations to inform decision-making on wildlife trade. TRAFFIC became an independent non-profit organization in 2017, with WWF and IUCN sitting on its Board of Directors along with independent Board members. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES) was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of IUCN (The World Conservation Union). Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties – in other words they have to implement the Convention – it does not take the place of national laws. Rather it provides a framework to be respected by each Party, which has to adopt its own domestic legislation to ensure that CITES is implemented at the national level. So, statement 3 is correct.
2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
Pollutants and pollinators:
A pollinator is anything that helps carry pollen from the male part of the flower (stamen) to the female part of the same or another flower (stigma). The movement of pollen must occur for the plant to become fertilized and produce fruits, seeds, and young plants. So, statement 1 is not correct. Pollination Images, Stock Photos & Vectors | Shutterstock
Flowers release odors as chemicals called volatile organic compounds, which help insects locate flowers. Pollutants could react with flowers and change the scents of flowers, making them harder to find. So, statement 2 is correct.
There are several causes for the decline in the number of pollinators. Most of them are the result of an increase in human activities:
Land-use change and fragmentation
Changes in agricultural practices including use of chemical pesticides, fungicides and insecticides
Change in the cropping pattern and crops like the cultivation of Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs) and mono-cropping. So, statement 3 is correct.
High environmental pollution from heavy metals and nitrogen
Growth of invasive alien species
Research suggested that not all insects are equally impacted by pollutants. Beetles and parasitic wasps appeared resilient to pollutants. The researchers suspect that this could be because the above insects relied on visual cues rather than odour to reach flowers. Impact on bees: A study shows that air pollution causes behavioural, physiological and genetic changes in wild bees. Pollutant impact on bees is observed even in areas well within the current national standards for Particulate Matter pollution. Pollution impacts survival rates among bees exposed to air pollution and could harm pollination services in forest or agrarian ecosystems near urban areas. So, statement 4 is correct.
‘Oxybenzone, Octocrylen and Octinoxate’ considered as the Toxic ’O3s’, are most likely present in which of the following?
Sunscreens
Explanation :
Oxybenzone, octocrylene, and octinoxate:
Oxybenzone, octinoxate and octocrylene are active ingredients present in more than two-thirds of all sunscreens. They pose a threat to public health, marine life and coral reefs.
Octocrylene in sun protection products degrades into benzophenone, a carcinogen that can also interfere with key hormones and reproductive organs.
The “Toxic 3 Os” have been shown to destroy coral and trigger health risks to people and marine life. They cause human cell damage that has been linked to cancer, disrupt hormones, have been found in breast milk, blood and urine and are known allergens.
These chemicals are also devastating to coral reefs and marine life. They wash off people’s bodies when they swim and contaminate through wastewater runoff and cause ‘zombie’ coral which looks healthy but is unable to reproduce, coral bleaching as well as other issues.
Oxybenzone is particularly toxic to corals at concentrations as low as a few parts per trillion, the equivalent of three drops in an Olympic-size swimming pool may be enough to severely damage or kill coral.
Which of the following are the sources of dioxin pollution?
- Production of herbicides
- Waste incineration
- Cigarette smoke
- Chlorine bleaching of pulp and paper
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
Dioxins are called persistent organic pollutants (POPs), meaning they take a long time to break down once they are in the environment. Dioxins are highly toxic and can cause cancer, reproductive and developmental problems, damage to the immune system, and can interfere with hormones.
Dioxins are found throughout the world in the environment, and they accumulate in food chains, concentrating mainly in the fatty tissue of animals. Some sources of dioxins:
Industrial activities: Dioxin is not produced or used commercially in the United States. It is a contaminant formed during the production of some chlorinated organic compounds, including a few herbicides such as Silvex.
Burning: Combustion processes such as waste incineration (commercial or municipal) or burning fuels (like wood, coal or oil) form dioxins.
Bleaching: Chlorine bleaching of pulp and paper and other industrial processes can create small quantities of dioxins in the environment.
Smoking: Cigarette smoke also contains small amounts of dioxins.
Which of the following pollutants are included in the National Air Quality Index (NAQI)?
- PM10
- CO2
- Lead (Pb)
- SO2
- O3
- NH3
Select the correct answer using the code given below
1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
Explanation :
National Air Quality Index (NAQI): It is an index that categorizes air quality into six AQI categories Good, Satisfactory, Moderately polluted, Poor, Very Poor, and Severe. It measures eight pollutants: PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and Lead (Pb), for which short-term (up to 24-hours) National ambient air quality standards are prescribed. So, points 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are correct and point 2 is not correct.
Based on the measured ambient concentrations of a pollutant, a sub-index is calculated, which is a linear function of concentration.
Consider the following statements:
- Thermal pollution can result in the overpopulation of certain species.
- Cogeneration is the on-site generation of electricity from waste heat.
- Trigeneration can provide cooling effects along with heat and power.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Thermal pollution is any deviation from the natural temperature in a habitat. Primary producers (such as plants and cyanobacteria) are affected by warm water because higher water temperature increases plant growth rates, resulting in a shorter lifespan and overpopulation of the species which can cause an algal bloom which, in turn, reduces the oxygen levels. So, statement 1 is correct.
Cogeneration or combined heat and power (CHP) is the on-site generation of electricity from waste heat. When generating electricity from coal, natural gas or nuclear power only a fraction of the actual energy content released during combustion is converted into electricity. The remainder of the energy is lost as waste heat. In a CHP power plant, this waste heat is recovered for other applications such as space heating or other industrial processes that require heat. It does not produce organic manure. So, statement 2 is correct.
Trigeneration or combined cooling, heat and power (CCHP), is the process by which some of the heat produced by a cogeneration plant is used to generate chilled water for air conditioning or refrigeration. An absorption chiller is linked to the combined heat and power (CHP) to provide this functionality. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Which of the following are among the major sources of methane emissions?
- Wetlands
- Stubble burning
- Hydrogen fuel cells
- Oil, gas, and coal extraction activities
- Paddy fields
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 2, 4 and 5 only
Explanation :
Methane:
Methane is a powerful greenhouse gas that traps heat 28 times more effectively than carbon dioxide over a 100-year timescale. Concentrations of methane have increased by more than 150% since industrial activities and intensive agriculture began.
After carbon dioxide, methane is responsible for about 23% of climate change in the twentieth century. Methane is produced under conditions where little to no oxygen is available.
About 30% of methane emissions are produced by wetlands, including ponds, lakes and rivers. Another 20% is produced by agriculture, due to a combination of livestock, waste management and rice cultivation. Activities related to oil, gas, and coal extraction release an additional 30%. So, points 1 and 4 are correct.
The remainder of methane emissions come from minor sources such as wildfire, biomass burning, permafrost, termites, dams, and the ocean.
Stubble burning has been reckoned among the major contributors of air pollution especially in South Asia. It is a significant source of gaseous pollutants such as, carbon dioxide (CO2), carbon monoxide (CO), nitrogen oxides (NOx), sulfur oxides (SOx), and methane (CH4) as well as particulate matters (PM10 and PM2.5) causing serious damage to human health and the environment. So, point 2 is correct.
Growing rice or paddy cultivation produces methane. Methane from rice contributes around 1.5 percent of total global greenhouse gas emissions, and could grow substantially. So, point 5 is correct.
Hydrogen generates electrical power in a fuel cell, emitting only water vapor and warm air. Hence it is not a source of methane emissions. So, point 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Which of the following can be the sources of Sulfur dioxide (SO2) pollution?
- Thermal power plants
- Petroleum refineries
- Cement manufacturing industries
- Paper pulp manufacturing industries
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
Sulfur dioxide is a colorless gas or liquid with a strong, choking odor. It dissolves easily in water to form sulfuric acid which is a major component of acid rain. Sulfur dioxide contributes to the decay of building materials and paints, including monuments and statues.
Most of the sulfur dioxide (SO2) released into the environment comes from electric utilities, especially those that burn coal. Some other sources of sulfur dioxide include petroleum refineries, cement manufacturing, paper pulp manufacturing, and metal smelting and processing facilities. In nature, volcanic eruptions can release sulfur dioxide into the air.
Which of the following are the essential conditions for the formation of Karst topography?
- Limestone should be porous.
- Position of the limestone should be above the groundwater table.
- Adequate rainfall in the region.
- Limestone should be faulted.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
Karst is a type of landscape where the dissolving of the bedrock has created sinkholes, sinking streams, caves, springs, and other characteristic features. Karst is associated with soluble rock types such as limestone, marble, and gypsum.
Limestones should not be porous wherein permeability is largely controlled by joints and not by the mass of rocks because if limestones are porous, the water may pass through the rock mass and thus the whole rock mass will become weak and will collapse. On the other hand, if limestones are nonporous and thickly bedded, water will infiltrate through joints resulting in effective corrosion of limestones along the joints and solution holes would be formed. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The position of limestones should be above the groundwater table so that surface drainage may disappear through sinks, blind valleys and sinking creeks to have subterranean (subsurface) drainage so that cave, passages and galleries and associated features may be formed. So, statement 2 is correct.
There should be enough rainfall so that the required amount of water is available to dissolve carbonate rocks. So, statement 3 is correct.
The limestones should be highly folded, or fractured or faulted. So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Karst relief features:
- Stalactite is a depositional feature growing upwards from the cave floor.
- They are found along the Northern and Eastern Himalayas in India.
- For Karst formations, the carbonate rocks should be very close to the ground.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 and 3 only
Karst is a type of landscape where the dissolving of the bedrock has created sinkholes, sinking streams, caves, springs, and other characteristic features. Karst is associated with soluble rock types such as limestone, marble, and gypsum. In general, a typical karst landscape forms when much of the water falling on the surface interacts with and enters the subsurface through cracks, fractures, and holes that have been dissolved into the bedrock. After traveling underground, sometimes for long distances, this water is then discharged from springs, many of which are cave entrances.
Some of the Depositional features in the Karst topography are:
Dripstones: Calcareous deposits from dripping of water in dry caves
Stalactite: The column of dripstones hanging from the cave ceiling
Stalagmites: Calcareous columns of dripstones growing upward from the cave floor. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Cave pillars: Formed when both stalactites and stalagmites meet each other.
Helictites and Heligmites are dripstones growing sideward from stalactites and stalagmites respectively.
In India, the limestone topography has been identified in the Vindhyan region, Himalayas (mainly Jammu and Kashmir, Uttarakhand), Eastern Himalayas, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh, Meghalaya, etc. So, statement 2 is correct.
One of the essential conditions for the development of Karst topography is that the Carbonate rocks should be very close to the ground surface so that rainwater may easily and quickly infiltrate into the beds of limestones and may corrode the rocks to form solutional landforms. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Solifluction:
- It is a process of biological weathering.
- It occurs when upper portions of soil get saturated and lower parts are impervious to water percolation.
- The process is common in moist temperate regions.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Solifluction is slow downslope flowing soil mass or fine-grained rock debris saturated or lubricated with water. It is not associated with weathering rather is associated transfer of weathered material. It is a transfer of mass of rock debris down the slopes under the direct influence of gravity. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Solifluction occurs when the upper portions get saturated and when the lower parts are impervious to water percolation. Because permafrost is impermeable to water, soil overlying it may become oversaturated and slide downslope under the pull of gravity. Soil that has been opened and weakened by frost action is most susceptible. Movement is at a maximum rate of a few inches per day, eventually producing smooth, gentle, concave slopes. Original stratifications of the soil become contorted if not completely destroyed. So, statement 2 is correct.
Solifluction is a common slope process in Earth’s cold climate regions in settings such as seasonally frozen ground at high altitudes or in areas underlain by permafrost; so, statement 3 is correct.
Karst topography is a result of which type of weathering process?
A.
Physical weathering
B.
Chemical weathering
C.
Biological weathering
D.
None of the above
Chemical weathering
Explanation :
Weathering denotes the process of wearing, breaking up, and fragmentation of the rock that creates the surface of the ground and that remains exposed to the weather.
Chemical weathering is when chemicals in the rain and moving water react with rocks and minerals to change or weaken them somehow. Chemical weathering always causes some type of chemical reaction within the rock or mineral itself. The process results from forces of weather like rain action, variations in temperature, and frost action.
Any limestone or dolomitic region showing typical landforms produced by the action of groundwater through the processes of solution and deposition are called Karst topography. In rocks like limestone or dolomites rich in calcium carbonate, the surface water as well as groundwater through the chemical process of solution and precipitation deposition develops varieties of landforms. Thus, primarily it is a form of chemical weathering. So, option (b) is correct.
3 only
Explanation :
Chemical Weathering Processes - A group of weathering processes viz; solution, carbonation, hydration, oxidation and reduction act on the rocks to decompose, dissolve or reduce them to a fine clastic state through chemical reactions by oxygen, surface and/or soil water and other acids.
Solution: when something is dissolved in water or acids, the water or acid with dissolved contents is called a solution. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
Carbonation: It is the reaction of carbonate and bicarbonate with minerals and is a common process helping the breaking down of feldspars and carbonate minerals.
Hydration: It is the chemical addition of water. Mineral takes up water and expand; this expansion causes an increase in the volume of the material itself or rock. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Oxidation: It means a combination of a mineral with oxygen to form oxides or hydroxides. Oxidation occurs when there is ready access to the atmosphere and oxygenated waters. Rock breakdown occurs due to the disturbance caused by addition of oxygen. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
The term ‘Convergent evolution’ refers to:
A.
the process by which distinctly related groups evolve similar adaptation traits.
B.
the process by which the same species evolve different adaptation traits.
C.
the process of contemporaneous evolution of two ecologically linked taxonomic groups.
D.
the process of evolution of different species into a similar species.
the process by which distinctly related groups evolve similar adaptation traits.
Explanation :
Convergent evolution is the process by which unrelated or distinctly related groups evolve similar morphologies or adaptation traits. It occurs when descendants resemble each other more than their ancestors did with respect to some features.
Convergence is often associated with similarity of function, as in the evolution of wings in birds, bats, and flies. Example of convergent evolution: reduced limbs of whales and penguins.
Which of the following ministries is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem (NMSHE)?
Ministry of Science & Technology
Explanation :
National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan ecosystem (NMSHE):
It was launched in 2010 under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). The primary objective of the mission is to develop in a time-bound manner a sustainable national capacity to continuously assess the health status of the Himalayan ecosystem and enable policy bodies in their policy-formulation functions as also to assist states in the Indian Himalayan region with the implementation of actions selected for sustainable development.
The Department of Science & Technology, Ministry of Science & Technology has been given the responsibility to coordinate the implementation of NMSHE.
With reference to the Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS), consider the following statements:
- It is an initiative of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO).
- The sole criteria for the selection of a site is ‘Agro-biodiversity’.
- Saffron heritage of Kashmir is the only recognized GIAHS site in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) programme, an initiative of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) aims to identify, support and safeguard agricultural systems that sustain and conserve our biodiversity and genetic resources for food and agriculture, rural livelihoods, knowledge systems, cultures and remarkable landscapes. So, statement 1 is correct.
GIAHS sites are based on five selection criteria and an action plan. The five selection criteria include Food and livelihood security, Agrobiodiversity, Traditional and adapted knowledge, Cultures Values systems and social organizations, Landscapes and seascapes features. So, statement 2 is not correct.
It works at local, national and global for holistic preservation of the sites:
At global level by identification, selection and recognition of GIAHS.
At national level by capacity building in policy, regulatory and incentive mechanisms.
At local Level by empowerment of local communities and technical assistance for sustainable resource management, promoting traditional knowledge and enhancing viability of these systems through economic incentives.
GIAHS sites in India: 1) Traditional agriculture system, koraput, 2) Saffron heritage of Kashmir and 3) Kuttanad below sea level farming system. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Arrange the following geographical locations, from West to East:
Suez Canal > Persian Gulf > Strait of Hormuz > Gulf of Oman
The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt, connecting the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea through the Isthmus of Suez and dividing Africa and Asia.
The Persian Gulf is the extension of Gulf of Oman through the Strait of Hormuz and lies between Iran to the northeast and the Arabian Peninsula to the southwest.
The Strait of Hormuz is a strait between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman.
The Gulf of Oman is a gulf that connects the Arabian Sea with the Strait of Hormuz, which then runs to the Persian Gulf.
Which of the following statements accurately describes karst topography?
A.
It is primarily formed by volcanic activity.
B.
It features large, flat plains with minimal elevation changes.
C.
It is characterized by limestone erosion leading to sinkholes, caves, and rugged terrain.
D.
It is found exclusively in arid desert regions.
It is characterized by limestone erosion leading to sinkholes, caves, and rugged terrain.
Explanation :
Karst topography is a landscape formed from the dissolution of soluble rocks, primarily limestone, but also dolomite and gypsum. The process involves chemical weathering, where acidic water seeps into the ground, dissolving the rock over time. This leads to features such as:
Sinkholes: Depressions or holes in the ground caused by the collapse of surface material into underground voids.
Caves: Underground passages formed by the erosion of rock.
Stalactites and stalagmites: Mineral formations that occur in caves due to dripping water.
Options a, b, and d are not correct because
a) Volcanic activity is related to igneous landforms, not karst.
b) Flat plains do not characterize karst; instead, it features a rugged and irregular surface.
d) Karst topography can occur in various climates, not just arid regions, and is commonly found in humid areas where limestone is prevalent.
The Kuno National Park lies in which one of the following states?
Madhya Pradesh
Explanation :
With monsoon season almost at its fag end, Kuno National Park is looking forward to augment the prey base for cheetahs.
About Kuno National Park:
Location:
It is located in the Sheopur district in Madhya Pradesh.
It is nestled near the Vindhyan Hills.
It is named after the Kuno River (One of the main tributaries of the Chambal River) that cuts across it.
Initially established as a wildlife sanctuary, it was only in 2018 that the government changed its status into a national park.
Kuno National Park was selected under ‘Action Plan for Introduction of Cheetah in India’.
Vegetation: Kuno is primarily a grassland region, though a few rocky outcrops are found here too.
Flora: Kardhai, Salai, and Khair trees dominate the forested area of Kuno National Park, which is mostly mixed forest.
Fauna: The protected area of the forest is home to the jungle cat, Indian leopard, sloth bear, Indian wolf, striped hyena, golden jackal, Bengal fox, and dhole, along with more than 120 bird species.
Consider the following statements regarding the Alzheimer’s Disease:
- It is a brain condition that causes a progressive decline in memory, thinking, learning, and organizing skills.
- It is the most common type of dementia, and there is no cure for this disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Alzheimer’s disease, a progressive neurodegenerative disorder, poses a significant global health challenge, particularly as the aging population continues to grow.
About Alzheimer’s Disease:
It is a brain condition that causes a progressive decline in memory, thinking, learning, and organizing skills.
It is the most common type of dementia, accounting for 60-80% of all dementia cases.
It involves parts of the brain that control thought, memory, and language.
It can seriously affect a person’s ability to carry out daily activities.
The condition usually affects people aged 65 years and over, with only 10% of cases occurring in people younger than this.
Cause: The exact cause of Alzheimer’s disease is not fully understood, but it is believed to be influenced by a combination of genetic, environmental, and lifestyle factors.
Symptoms:
The early signs of the disease include forgetting recent events or conversations.
Over time, it progresses to serious memory problems and loss of the ability to perform everyday tasks.
Treatment: There’s no cure for Alzheimer’s, but certain medications and therapies can help manage symptoms temporarily.
Five-Hundred Aperture Spherical Telescope (FAST), the world’s largest and most sensitive radio telescope, is located in which one of the following countries?
China
Explanation :
China has kicked off a second phase of construction to enhance the capabilities of the Five-Hundred Aperture Spherical Telescope (FAST).
About Five-Hundred Aperture Spherical Telescope (FAST):
It is a radio telescope in China’s Guizhou Province.
It is the world’s largest and most sensitive radio telescope, with a receiving area equivalent to 30 football fields.
It measures 500 meters in diameter.
Scientific Goals:
Detect neutral hydrogen at the edge of the universe; reconstruct the images of the early universe;
Discover pulsars, establish a pulsar timing array, and participate in pulsar navigation and gravitational wave detection in the future;
Join the International Very-Long-Baseline Interferometry Network to obtain hyperfine structures of celestial bodies;
Perform high resolution radio spectral survey. Detect weak space signals;
Participate in the search for extraterrestrial intelligence.
FAST uses a data system developed at ICRAR (International Center for Radio Astronomy) in Perth, Australia, and at ESO (European Southern Observatory) to manage the huge amounts of data it generates.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Mission for Edible Oils - Oil Palm (NMEO-OP):
- It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with a special focus on the North-east region and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
- It targets a substantial increase in oil palm cultivation and crude palm oil production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The second day of a National Level Multi-Stakeholder Consultative Workshop on Sustainable Oil Palm Cultivation under the National Mission on Edible Oils-Oil Palm (NMEO-OP) was held recently.
About National Mission for Edible Oils - Oil Palm (NMEO-OP):
Launched by the Government of India in August 2021, NMEO-OP targets a substantial increase in oil palm cultivation and crude palm oil production.
It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with a special focus on the North east region and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, with a focus on increasing the area and productivity of oilseeds and Oil Palm.
Scheme Outlay: A financial outlay of Rs. 11,040 crores have been made for the scheme, out of which Rs. 8,844 crore is the Government of India share and Rs. 2,196 crore is the State share, and this includes the viability gap funding also.
Targets:
To increase the area of oil palm to 10 lakh hectares from 3.5 lakh ha during 2019-20 by 2025-26 (an additional 6.50 lakh ha).
To increase the Crude Palm Oil production from 0.27 lakh tonnes during 2019-20 to 11.20 lakh tonnes by 2025-26.
Increase consumer awareness to maintain a consumption level of 19.00 kg/person/annum till 2025-26.
The State Department of Agriculture, State Department of Horticulture, Central University, ICAR-Institutions, CDDs, SAUs, KVKs, Central Agencies/Cooperatives, Oil palm processors/ Associations, DD Kisan, AIR, DD, TV channels will be the implementing stake holders of the NMEO-Oil palm.
Features: The salient features of NMEO-OP include assistance for planting material, inputs for intercropping upto gestation period of 4 years and for maintenance, establishment of seed gardens, nurseries, micro irrigation, bore well/pumpset/water harvesting structure, vermi compost units, solar pumps, harvesting tools, custom hiring centre cum harvester Groups, farmers and officers training, and for replanting of old oil palm gardens, etc.
Hence both statements are correct.
Which of the following are common examples of electrolytes?
A.
Metals and gases
B.
Acids, bases, and salts
C.
Proteins and vitamins
D.
Carbohydrates and lipids
Acids, bases, and salts
Explanation :
Researchers recently developed an electrolyte with high conductivity, formability, and electrochemical stability.
About Electrolyte:
Electrolytes are minerals that give off an electrical charge when they dissolve in fluids like blood and urine.
The most familiar electrolytes are acids, bases, and salts, which ionize when dissolved in such solvents as water or alcohol.
Many salts, such as sodium chloride, behave as electrolytes when melted in the absence of any solvent; and some, such as silver iodide, are electrolytes even in the solid state.
Your body makes electrolytes. You also get these minerals from foods, drinks, and supplements.
Electrolytes in blood, tissue, urine and other body fluids play a critical role in balancing body fluids, regulating your heart rhythm, and supporting nerve and muscle function.
An electrolyte imbalance occurs when you have too much or not enough of certain minerals in your body. This imbalance may be a sign of a problem like kidney disease.
An electrolyte panel is a blood test that measures electrolyte levels.
Consider the following statements regarding Swallowtail Butterflies:
- They act as an indicator species in environment.
- They are found across all the continents except the Antarctica.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A new study has found that overexploitation of 25 species of host plants valued for their medicinal properties has affected swallowtail butterflies in forests on the Brahmaputra’s northern bank.
These are a group of butterflies in the family Papilionidae (order Lepidoptera).
Appearance: They are named for the characteristic tail-like extensions of the hindwings, although many species are tailless.
Distribution: The swallowtail butterflies (Papilio) are found worldwide except in the Arctic.
India hosts 77 of the 573 swallowtail butterfly species recorded across the world so far.
Many swallowtails mimic the coloration and patterns of butterflies that are protected by a bad taste.
Threats: Illegal cattle farming within the protected areas, agriculture and tea cultivation near the habitats, illegal tree felling, and pesticide use to be among the crucial factors contributing to the decline in the number of these Swallowtail butterflies.
Ecological Importance of Butterflies: These are valuable indicators of the environment, whose health can influence their presence, abundance, and diversity.
With reference to BharatGen initiative, consider the following statements:
- It is an initiative which generates high-quality text and multimodal content in various Indian languages.
- It is the first Indian government supported Multimodal Large Language Model Initiative.
- It is implemented by the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT).
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the BharatGen initiative was launched by the union Ministry of Science & Technology.
It is an initiative which will create generative AI systems that can generate high-quality text and multimodal content in various Indian languages.
It is the first Indian government supported Multimodal Large Language Model Initiative.
It is implemented by IIT Bombay under the National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS).
Features of BharatGen
The multilingual and multimodal nature of foundation models;
Bhartiya data set based building, and training;
Open-source platform development of an ecosystem of generative AI research in the country.
The project is expected to be completed in two years along with plans to benefit several government, private, educational, and research institutions.
What is Multimodal Large Language Model?
It is designed to process and generate multiple modalities, including text, images, and sometimes audio and video.
These models are trained on large datasets containing text and image data, allowing them to learn the relationships between different modalities.
They can be used in many ways, including image captioning, visual question answering, and content recommendation systems that use text and image data to provide personalized recommendations.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Anna DARPAN Project, recently in news, is an initiative of:
Food Corporation of India
Explanation :
Recently, the Food Corporation of India (FCI) has selected Coforge Limited as the system integrator (SI) for its digital transformation project, Anna DARPAN.
The project aims to streamline and enhance the supply chain management system at various levels.
This system will be designed to improve efficiency and productivity by creating an interactive and user-friendly UI design.
It will also enable data-driven decision-making by leveraging data analytics to support strategic and operational decisions. The system will be integrated with internal and external systems, and a mobile-first approach will be prioritized to ensure that it is accessible anytime, anywhere.
As part of the project, Coforge will be responsible for the end-to-end design, development, implementation, and maintenance of the Anna DARPAN system.
The development team will leverage the latest technology and a state-of-the-art IT environment to build a cloud-based platform for hosting the system.
It will be powered by a service mesh architecture, which will facilitate seamless communication among microservices.
In the requirement gathering, analysis, and documentation phase of the project, Coforge will have extensive visibility into FCI’s operations, including a deep understanding of its requirements, existing process flows, and potential integration opportunities with current FCI-related applications.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve:
- It is located at the tri-junction of three states namely Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
- It has a common boundary with Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, a survey of herpetofauna – reptiles and amphibians – within the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (MTR), led to the identification of 33 reptiles and 36 amphibians that were recorded from the region for the first time.
Location: It is located in the Nilgiris District of Tamil Nadu state at the tri-junction of three states, viz, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
The name Mudumalai means the ancient hill range because it is as old as 65 million years when the Western Ghats were formed.
It has a common boundary with Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) on the West, and Bandipur Tiger Reserve (Karnataka) on the North.
The Theppakadu elephant camp is a popular tourist attraction.
Vegetation: A variety of habitats ranging from tropical evergreen forest, moist deciduous forest, moist teak forest, dry teak forest, secondary grasslands and swamps are found here.
Flora: The Reserve has tall grasses, commonly referred to as “Elephant Grass”, Bamboo of the giant variety, valuable timber species like Teak, Rosewood, etc.
Fauna: Elephants, Gaur, Tiger, Panther, Spotted Deer, Barking Deer, Wild Boar, Porcupine etc.
Highlights of the Survey
Two critically endangered species of amphibians, Micrixalus spelunca, commonly known as the cave dancing frog, and Nyctibatrachus indraneili, the Indraneil’s Night Frog were found here.
Other Endangered species of amphibians like the endemic Star-eyed Bush Frog, Nilgiri Bush Frog and Nilgiris wart frog were also found.
Hence both statements are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Jal Hi AMRIT scheme:
- It was launched under the AMRUT 2.0 scheme.
- It aims to incentivise State & Union Territories to attain the best quality of used treated water at the treatment facilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister for Housing and Urban Affairs said that the government has introduced the Jal Hi AMRIT scheme in its first 100 days.
It was launched under the AMRUT 2.0 scheme.
Under this initiative, it is envisaged to incentivise State & UTs to manage the used water (sewage) treatment plants (UWTPs/ STPs) efficiently for ensuring recyclable good quality treated water, meeting environmental standards, on a sustained basis.
The purpose of the exercise is to build the competition among the cities, develop capacities and incentivise them to attain the best quality of used treated water at the treatment facilities.
The main focus is thus on capacity building & incentivizing qualitative improvements in the treated discharge effluent.
A mid-course assessment and water quality testing will be conducted, culminating in a final assessment & award of Clean Water Credits in terms of Star-rating (between 3 stars to 5 stars) certificate valid for six months.
Key facts about AMRUT 2.0 scheme
It was launched for a period of five years, from the financial year 2021-22 to the financial year 2025-26.
It is designed to provide universal coverage of water supply through functional taps to all households in all the statutory towns in the country and coverage of sewerage/septage management in 500 cities covered in the first phase of the AMRUT scheme.
AMRUT 2.0 will promote a circular economy of water through the development of City Water Balance Plan (CWBP) for each city focusing on recycle/reuse of treated sewage, the rejuvenation of water bodies, and water conservation.
Hence both statements are correct.
With reference to the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), consider the following statements:
- It is entrusted with the task of fixing the benchmark policy rate (repo rate) required to contain inflation.
- It is a six-member committee with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor as Chairperson.
- It takes decisions based on a majority vote.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Central government recently appointed new monetary policy committee members with immediate effect.
About is Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):
The MPC was set up after a Memorandum of Understanding between the government and the RBI about the conduct of the new inflation-targeting monetary policy framework.
The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (RBI Act) has been amended by the Finance Act, 2016 to provide for a statutory and institutionalized framework for an MPC.
Under Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act, 1934, the central government is empowered to constitute a six-member MPC.
Function: The MPC is entrusted with the task of fixing the benchmark policy rate (repo rate) required to contain inflation within the specified target level.
The MPC replaced the previous arrangement of the Technical Advisory Committee.
Composition:
MPC will have six members: the RBI Governor (Chairperson), the RBI Deputy Governor in charge of monetary policy, one official nominated by the RBI Board, and the remaining three members would represent the Government of India.
The external members hold office for a period of four years.
The quorum for a meeting shall be four Members, at least one of whom shall be the Governor and, in his absence, the Deputy Governor, who is the Member of the MPC.
The MPC takes decisions based on a majority vote. In case of a tie, the RBI governor will have the second or casting vote.
The decision of the MPC would be binding on the RBI.
RBI’s Monetary Policy Department (MPD) assists the MPC in formulating the monetary policy.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/government-picks-three-new-members-to-join-rbis-monetary-policy-committee/article68706640.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Sahara Desert:
- It is the world’s largest desert, occupying more than 10% of Earth’s land area.
- The Sahel region serves as a transition zone between the Sahara Desert in the north and the humid savannas of Sub-Saharan Africa in the south.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Sahara Desert is undergoing a rare transformation as heavy rainfall brings unexpected greenery to its arid landscape.
About Sahara Desert:
The Sahara, located in Northern Africa, is the world’s largest hot desert and the third most extensive desert after the polar deserts of Antarctica and the northern Arctic.
It spans over 9,200,000 sq. km (8% of the earth’s land area).
The Sahara Desert encompasses a major portion of North Africa, occupying about 31% of the entire African continent.
The countries within the Sahara Desert are Morocco, Mali, Mauritania, Egypt, Libya, Algeria, Chad, the Niger Republic, some parts of Sudan, a small portion of Nigeria, and a small part of Burkina Faso.
The desert is bounded by the Mediterranean Sea and the Atlas Mountains on the northern side; the Red Sea on the eastern side; the Atlantic Ocean on the western side and the semiarid Sahel region on the southern side.
The majority of the Sahara is made up of barren, rocky plateaus, as well as salt flats, sand dunes, mountains, and dry valleys.
The large Nile and Niger rivers, along with the seasonal lakes and aquifers, provide the main source of water for the major desert oases.
The highest peak in the Sahara is Emi Koussi (3,415m), a volcano located in the Tibesti Mountains, Chad.
The Sahel region serves as a transition zone between the hot desert in the north and the humid savannas of Sub-Saharan Africa in the south.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/science/nasa-shares-stunning-images-of-unusual-greenery-in-the-sahara-desert-following-rainfall/articleshow/113702422.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan:
- It aims to foster holistic development in tribal villages, bringing transformative changes to the socio-economic landscape of the region.
- It envisions saturation of critical gaps in social infrastructure, health, education, and livelihood.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Prime Minister recently launched the Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan in Jharkhand with an outlay of around Rs 80,000 crore.
About Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan:
It aims to foster holistic development in tribal villages, bringing transformative changes to the socio-economic landscape of the region.
The Abhiyan will cover around 63,843 villages, benefiting more than 5 crore tribal people in 549 districts, and 2,911 blocks spread across all tribal majority villages and aspirational blocks in 30 States/UTs.
It envisions saturation of critical gaps in social infrastructure, health, education, and livelihood through 25 interventions implemented by 17-line ministries of Govt of India by convergence and outreach; and ensures holistic and sustainable development of tribal areas and communities.
The scheme has a total outlay of Rs.79,156 crores (Central Share: Rs.56,333 crore and State Share: Rs. 22,823 crore).
It has been planned based on the learning and success of Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM JANMAN), which was launched in November, 2023.
With a budget outlay of Rs. 24,104 crores, the PM-JANMAN focuses on the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG) population.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.indiatvnews.com/jharkhand/pm-modi-launches-dharti-aaba-janjatiya-gram-utkarsh-abhiyan-5-lakh-crore-people-to-benefit-2024-10-02-955090
What type of disorder is Sickle Cell Disease (SCD)?
Inherited blood disorder
Explanation :
The pharmaceutical giant Pfizer recently announced it would voluntarily withdraw its sickle cell disease therapy, Oxbryta, from worldwide markets, owing to the emergence of clinical data that links “fatal events” to the drug.
About Sickle Cell Disease (SCD):
It is an inherited blood disorder.
It is marked by flawed hemoglobin.
Hemoglobin is the molecule in red blood cells (RBCs) that carries oxygen to the tissues of the body.
How does it affect blood flow?
Normally, RBCs are disc-shaped and flexible enough to move easily through the blood vessels.
People with SCD have atypical hemoglobin molecules called hemoglobin S, which can distort RBCs into a sickle, or crescent, shape.
These sickled RBCs do not bend or move easily and can block blood flow to the rest of the body.
SCD interferes with the delivery of oxygen to the tissues.
What causes it?
The cause of SCD is a defective gene, called a sickle cell gene.
A person will be born with SCD only if two genes are inherited—one from the mother and one from the father.
Symptoms:
Early stage: Extreme tiredness or fussiness from anemia, painfully swollen hands and feet, and jaundice.
Later stage: Severe pain, anemia, organ damage, and infections.
Treatments:
A bone marrow transplant (stem cell transplant) can cure SCD.
However, there are treatments that can help relieve symptoms, lessen complications, and prolong life.
Gene therapy is also being explored as another potential cure.
The UK recently became the first country to approve gene therapy treatment for SCD.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.cnbc.com/2024/10/01/healthy-returns-pfizer-pulls-sickle-cell-disease-drug-from-markets.html
Consider the following statements regarding Manatees:
- They are aquatic mammals which inhabit shallow, marshy coastal areas and rivers.
- All three manatee species are classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Biologists, along with partners and the public, have been responding to reports of stranded manatees in Florida, United States, after Hurricane Helene struck Florida recently.
About Manatees:
Manatees are aquatic mammals that belong to a group of animals called Sirenia. This group also contains dugongs.
Dugongs and manatees are very similar in appearance and behavior, but there is one key difference: their tails.
Manatees have paddle-shaped tails, and dugongs have fluked tails, giving them a whale-like appearance.
Habitat: Manatees inhabit shallow, marshy coastal areas and rivers.
There are three species, or types, of manatee.
The Amazonian manatee lives in the Amazon River and in fresh water in South America. This species is only found in freshwater.
The African manatee lives in tropical West Africa.
The Caribbean manatee is found in Florida and the West Indies.
Features:
Adult manatees may reach a length of 15 feet (4.6 meters) and a weight of 1,660 kilograms.
Dull gray, blackish, or brown in colour, all three manatee species have stout tapered bodies ending in a flat rounded tail used for forward propulsion.
The forelimbs are modified into flippers; there are no hind limbs.
In order to breathe, they must swim to the water’s surface for air.
Lifespan: 50 to 60 years
They are herbivores. They graze along the seabed and eat seagrasses, giving them the nickname “sea cow”.
They spend up to eight hours a day grazing and can consume 4 to 9 percent of their body weight in aquatic vegetation daily.
Apart from mothers and their young, or males following a receptive female, manatees are generally solitary animals.
Conservation Status: All three manatee species are listed as ‘Vulnerable’ by the IUCN’s Red List of Threatened Species.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.yahoo.com/news/florida-manatees-rescued-being-stranded-193551351.html
Consider the following statements regarding SARTHIE 1.0 initiative:
- It is intended to empower disadvantaged communities in India.
- It aims to bridge the awareness gap and ensure the effective implementation of social welfare programmes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Department of Social Justice and Empowerment (DoSJE), Government of India, and the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) launched the SARTHIE 1.0.
It is an initiative intended to empower disadvantaged communities, including Scheduled Castes (SCs), Other Backward Classes (OBCs), Senior Citizens, Transgender Persons, Victims of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, persons engaged in the act of Begging, Denotified and Nomadic Tribes, and more.
It aligns with the United Nations 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, particularly the goals focused on eradicating poverty, reducing inequality, and promoting social protection policies that ensure greater equality for all.
The collaboration aims to bridge the awareness gap and provide legal assistance to ensure the effective implementation of social welfare programmes.
It offers synergy between the executive and the judiciary and ensures that social justice is further strengthened.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2060443
With reference to Honey Badger, consider the following statements:
- It is an omnivorous and nocturnal mammal species.
- It is only found in the Asia region.
- It is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972.
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, for the first time a honey badger has been captured on camera in the Terai East Forest Division (TEFD) of Uttarakhand.
It is also known as the Ratel, and is related to skunks, otters, ferrets, and other badgers.
Honey badgers are omnivorous and nocturnal mammals that belong to the weasel family.
These creatures are known for their powerful, curved claws, which they use to dig burrows for shelter. Their diet is diverse, consisting of small animals, fruit and honey.
They are known for their solitary nature and their ability to twist and turn to escape predators.
Distribution: They are found in parts of Africa and Asia.
In India it has been recorded in a few other locations, such as Bannerghatta National Park in Karnataka, Chilika Lagoon in Odisha and Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve in Maharashtra.
Ecological Significance:
They play a vital role in maintaining ecological balance by preying on smaller animals and pests, helping to control populations and protect crops.
They contribute to nutrient cycling by enriching the soil through their diet and waste.
They are important indicators of ecosystem health, ensuring a diverse and thriving environment for other species.
Conservation status
IUCN: Least Concern
Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972: Schedule I
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/uttarakhands-terai-forest-yields-first-ever-honey-badger-recording-on-camera
Lake Prespa, recently in news, is located in:
Europe
Explanation :
According to experts, of the 450 hectares of Little Prespa Lake in Albania, at least 430 hectares have been transformed into swamps or dried up.
It is one of the oldest tectonic lakes in Europe, and also the highest tectonic lake on the Balkan Peninsula.
It lies at the junction of three major geological masses: a granite massif on the East, a karstic massif belonging to Galicica on the West, and the Suva Gora on the South.
The region is famous for having rocks from the oldest Paleozoic form to sediments belonging to the young Neogene era.
It is made up of the Great Prespa Lake (Albania, Greece and the Republic of Macedonia) and Small Prespa Lake.
The majority of Little Prespa Lake, also known as Small Lake Prespa, sits in Greek territory, with just its southern tip crossing into Albania.
Rising temperatures and increasingly mild winters with little snowfall and a scarcity of precipitation have battered the lake.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/little-prespa-lake-on-albanian-greek-border-slowly-dying/article68712101.ece
Consider the following statements regarding solar eclipse:
- It occurs when the Moon moves in the middle of the Earth and the Sun.
- It is witnessed only during a full moon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
An annular solar eclipse was visible in parts of South America on October 2 while a partial solar eclipse was visible in parts of South America, Antarctica, North America, the Atlantic Ocean, and the Pacific Ocean.
It takes place when the Moon moves in the middle of the Earth and the Sun.
The Moon blocks the light of the Sun, either fully or partially, which casts a huge shadow on some parts of the world.
A solar eclipse is witnessed only during the new moon — when the Moon and Sun are aligned on the same side of Earth.
A new moon occurs about 29.5 days because that is how long it takes the Moon to orbit Earth. It takes place only between two to five times annually.
It is because the Moon does not orbit Earth in the same plane as the Earth orbits the Sun. In fact, the Moon is tilted by about five degrees with respect to Earth.
As a result, most of the time when the Moon is in between the Sun and Earth, its shadow is either too high or too low to fall on the Earth.
There are four different types of solar eclipses,
Total Solar eclipse: It occurs when the Moon blocks the Sun entirely, the areas in the centre of the Moon’s shadow at the time witness a total solar eclipse.
The sky darkens and people who are in the path of a total solar eclipse can get a glimpse of the Sun’s corona — the outer atmosphere — which is usually not visible due to the bright face of the Sun.
Annular solar eclipse: It occurs when the Moon passes in front of the Sun but is at or near the farthest point from Earth, an annular solar eclipse occurs.
In this scenario, the Moon covers the Sun in such a way that only the periphery of the Sun remains visible — looking like a ring of fire.
Partial solar eclipse: It takes place when the Moon blocks just a part of the Sun, giving it a crescent shape. During both partial and annular eclipses, the regions outside the area covered by the Moon’s umbra — the middle and the darkest part of the lunar shadow — will see a partial solar eclipse. Partial solar eclipse is the most common type of solar eclipse.
Hybrid solar eclipse: It is the rarest type of solar eclipse and it is witnessed when an eclipse shifts between annular and total as the shadow of the Moon moves across the globe.
In this case, some parts of the world see a total solar eclipse, while others observe an annular solar eclipse.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/annular-solar-eclipse-9596368/
Consider the following statements regarding the National Biodiversity Strategy and Action Plans Tracker:
- It aims to make biodiversity policies accessible to all stakeholder countries.
- It is developed by the United Nations Environment Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
National Biodiversity Strategy and Action Plans Tracker revealed that only 10% of nations fulfil their biodiversity commitments ahead of COP16.
It is a new tool developed by World Wildlife Fund for Nature (WWF), for monitoring the progress of countries in developing their NBSAPs that align with the goals of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF).
Aim: It aims to make biodiversity policies accessible to all stakeholders, ensuring transparency and accountability as countries prepare for COP16.
NBSAPs are crucial blueprints for countries to outline their strategies to tackle biodiversity loss and meet international targets. These plans are aimed at ensuring that nations can mobilise action and funding to help restore ecosystems and safeguard wildlife.
Key facts about Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework
It was adopted during the 15th meeting of the Conference of the Parties, or COP15, to the UN Convention on Biological Diversity in December 2022.
It aims to support the achievement of sustainable development goals and build on previous strategic plans.
It sets a bold path towards global harmony with nature by 2050.
In adopting the GBF, all parties’ committees set national targets to implement it.
Goals and targets
The GBF consists of 23 targets (set for 2030) and four global goals (set for 2050) to preserve biodiversity for current and future generations.
The targets address reducing threats to biodiversity, meeting people’s needs through sustainable use and benefit-sharing, and tools and solutions for implementation and mainstreaming.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/only-10-of-nations-fulfil-their-biodiversity-commitments-ahead-of-cop16-reveals-nbsap-tracker
What was the main objective of the Vaikom Satyagraha?
Protest against untouchability and caste discrimination
Explanation :
The Tamil Nadu government has cleared the decks for the construction of a memorial for social reformer Periyar E.V. Ramasamy, one of the leaders of the Vaikom Satyagraha, at Arookutty in Alappuzha, Kerala.
About Vaikom Satyagraha:
It was a social reform movement which originated and took its place at Vaikom, then part of the princely state of Travancore, in Kottayam district of Kerala, during the period of 1924-1925.
It was the dawn of temple entry movements in India.
Background:
The Vaikom Mahadevar Temple was the epicenter of the town, and Dalits were prohibited from entering the temple premises or even using the road that encircled the temple.
In AICC (All India Congress Committee) meeting in Kakinada in 1923, T. K Madhavan, along with Sardar Panikkar and KP Kesava Menon, submitted a petition to the Travancore legislative council.
The petition sought to grant the right to temple entry and worship of gods for all sections of the society, irrespective of caste, creed, and community.
During a tour of the region by leaders like K. Kelappan, a demand was made to allow everyone to use the road, but the temple authorities refused.
This refusal led to the commencement of Satyagraha.
The Satyagraha was led by prominent leaders such as K. Kelappan, T. K. Madhavan, and K. P. Kesava Menon, among others.
Young volunteers from all over Kerala joined the Satyagraha to fight against untouchability.
A lot of prominent political and social personalities, including Mahatma Gandhi, had a role in the satyagraha.
Mahatma Gandhi supported the movement unconditionally and visited Vaikom in 1925.
Periyar E.V. Ramasamy arrived in Vaikom on April 13, 1924, after several of the movement’s leaders were jailed, and he provided crucial leadership to it.
Sree Narayana Guru also extended his support and co-operation to the Vaikom Satyagraha.
Despite the authorities’ attempts to suppress the Satyagraha, it ultimately succeeded in opening the temple roads to everyone.
The Satyagraha came to a close on November 23, 1925, a total of 604 days after it began in March, 1924.
In another three years, the Travancore government would order that temple roads across the state be opened to all.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/government-picks-three-new-members-to-join-rbis-monetary-policy-committee/article68706640.ece
Consider the following statements regarding United States Commission on International Religious Freedom (USCIRF):
- It is an independent, bipartisan U.S. federal government agency.
- It reviews the facts and circumstances of violations of religious freedom internationally and makes policy recommendations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India has strongly rejected a report by the US Commission on International Religious Freedom (USCIRF), which flagged “increasing abuses” against religious minorities in the country.
About United States Commission on International Religious Freedom (USCIRF):
It is an independent, bipartisan U.S. federal government agency.
It was created by the 1998 International Religious Freedom Act (IRFA), as amended.
Functions: USCIRF reviews the facts and circumstances of violations of religious freedom internationally and makes policy recommendations to the President, the Secretary of State, and Congress.
Composition:
USCIRF’s nine Commissioners are appointed by either the President or Congressional leaders of each political party.
Their work is supported by a professional, nonpartisan staff.
USCIRF issues an annual report that assesses the US government’s implementation of IRFA, highlights “Countries of Particular Concern” engaging in severe religious freedom violations, documents the conditions of religious freedom in many countries, and provides policy recommendations.
It uses international standards to monitor religious freedom violations globally.
Article 18 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights affirms that:
“Everyone has the right to freedom of thought, conscience, and religion; this right includes freedom to change his religion or belief, and freedom, either alone or in community with others and in public or private, to manifest his religion or belief in teaching, practice, worship, and observance.”
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/india-rejects-malicious-report-by-uscirf-on-religious-freedom-abuses-desist-from-such-agenda-driven-efforts-101727958001074.html
With reference to the Joint United Nations Programme on HIV/AIDS (UNAIDS), consider the following statements:
- It works closely with global and national partners towards ending the AIDS epidemic by 2030 as part of the Sustainable Development Goals.
- It leads the world’s most extensive data collection on HIV epidemiology, programme coverage and finance.
- It publishes the most authoritative and up-to-date information on the HIV epidemic—vital for an effective AIDS response.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Without India doing a large part of the heavy lifting, it is unlikely that the world will meet the Sustainable Development Goal of ending AIDS as a public health threat by 2030, UNAIDS director for the Asia Pacific said recently.
About Joint United Nations Programme on HIV/AIDS (UNAIDS):
It is an innovative joint venture of the United Nations family established in 1994.
It leads and inspires the world to achieve its shared vision of zero new HIV infections, zero discrimination, and zero AIDS-related deaths.
UNAIDS unites the efforts of 11 UN organizations—UNHCR, UNICEF, WFP, UNDP, UNFPA, UNODC, UN Women, ILO, UNESCO, WHO, and the World Bank—and works closely with global and national partners towards ending the AIDS epidemic by 2030 as part of the Sustainable Development Goals.
UNAIDS fulfils its mission by:
Uniting the efforts of the United Nations system, civil society, national governments, the private sector, global institutions and people living with and most affected by HIV;
Speaking out in solidarity with the people most affected by HIV in defense of human dignity, human rights, and gender equality;
Mobilizing political, technical, scientific, and financial resources and holding ourselves and others accountable for results;
Empowering agents of change with strategic information and evidence to influence and ensure that resources are targeted where they deliver the greatest impact and bring about a prevention revolution; and
Supporting inclusive country leadership for sustainable responses that are integral to and integrated with national health and development efforts.
It leads the world’s most extensive data collection on HIV epidemiology, programme coverage and finance and publishes the most authoritative and up-to-date information on the HIV epidemic—vital for an effective AIDS response.
The Joint Programme is coordinated by the UNAIDS Secretariat, headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/102033/OPS/GOMDDO7OJ.1+GCVDDPTJI.1.html
Consider the following:
- Cattle
- Coffee
- Cotton
- Wheat
How many of the above commodities are targeted by the European Union Deforestation Regulation (EUDR)?
Only two
Explanation :
Giving relief to exporters of certain products, the European Commission has proposed to extend the implementation of its deforestation regulation by one year.
About European Union Deforestation Regulation (EUDR):
It was scheduled to commence on 30 December 2024.
It has been introduced to limit the EU market’s impact on global deforestation/forest degradation and biodiversity loss, promote deforestation-free supply chains, reduce the EU’s contribution to greenhouse gases (GHG) emissions, and protect human rights and the rights of indigenous people.
Under the EUDR, certain products for export to the European Union (EU) will have to meet new rules relating to the land on which they were produced.
Commodities targeted by the EUDR are:
Cattle (including beef)
Cocoa
Wood
Coffee
Oil Palm
Rubber
Soya
It also extends to a range of relevant products derived from these commodities, such as leather, chocolate, and paper.
Exporters will need to prove that these goods/products do not originate from land where forests haven’t been cut since Jan. 1, 2021, regardless of whether the deforestation was legal in the countries of origin.
They will need to provide clear evidence to EU operators and EU traders to support this.
Small businesses further down the supply chain are subject to the same obligations and retain legal responsibility if regulations are violated.
But they are not liable for due diligence for parts of their products that were already subject to review.
Failure to comply can result in financial penalties and restricted access to the EU market.
Country Benchmarking:
The EUDR will also have a country benchmarking system. This will determine the deforestation and degradation risk of each nation.
Nations will be classed on a 3-tier system, from low-risk to high-risk.A nation’s risk classification will establish the level of scrutiny by the EU. This includes the proportion of consignments inspected by the relevant authorities.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/eu-proposes-extension-of-deadline-to-implement-deforestation-regulation/article68715027.ece
Charon, recently seen in the news, is the largest moon of which one of the following planets?
Pluto
Explanation :
Scientists have detected the gases carbon dioxide and hydrogen peroxide on Pluto’s largest moon, ‘Charon’.
About Charon:
It is the largest of Pluto’s five moons, about half the size of Pluto.
It was discovered telescopically on June 22, 1978, by James W. Christy and Robert S. Harrington at the U.S. Naval Observatory station in Flagstaff, Arizona.
The moon was named for Charon, the ferryman of dead souls to the realm of Hades (the Greek counterpart of the Roman god Pluto) in Greek mythology.
Charon is 754 miles (1,214 kilometers) across, and Pluto is about 1,400 miles wide.
Its mass is more than one-tenth of Pluto’s mass.
Since, Charon is so large and massive with respect to Pluto– the two are sometimes referred to as a double dwarf planet system.
The distance between them is 12,200 miles (19,640 km).
The same surfaces of Charon and Pluto always face each other, a phenomenon called mutual tidal locking.
In addition, Charon always shows the same hemisphere to Pluto, because (like many other moons) its rotation period is identical to its orbital period.
Charon orbits Pluto every 6.4 Earth days.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/world-news/carbon-dioxide-hydrogen-peroxide-detected-on-pluto-s-largest-moon-charon-124100200505_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding International Medical Device Regulators Forum:
- It aims to speed up the adoption of international medical device regulatory harmonisation and convergence.
- India is an affiliate member of this forum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, India has become an affiliate member of the International Medical Device Regulators Forum (IMDRF).
The IMDRF was established in 2011.
It is a group of global medical device regulators whose aim is to speed up the adoption of international medical device regulatory harmonisation and convergence.
Members: Its members include national regulatory authorities of the U.S., Australia, Canada, the European Union, Japan, the United Kingdom, Brazil, Russia, China, South Korea, Singapore and the World Health Organization (WHO).
The membership helps to harmonize regulatory requirements across the globe, which reduces the complexity for manufacturers and helps in safeguarding public health by promoting collaboration, harmonizing regulations, and promoting convergence.
It also helps to support innovation and timely access to new medical devices.
Significance to India
India will participate in IMDRF Open Sessions to have information exchange on technical topics with other regulators, discussion on latest medical device regulatory strategies and trends, provide feedback on India’s experience and perspectives.
This will strengthen the CDSCO’s medical device regulatory system, helping meet emerging technical challenges that are increasingly diverse, to ensure protection of public health and safety, and continue to maintain the goal of international recognition for its Medical Device regulation.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-becomes-affiliate-member-of-international-medical-device-regulators-forum/article68712952.ece
Consider the following languages:
- Marathi
- Kannada
- Gujarati
How many of the above have been declared as ‘Classical Language/Languages’ by the Government of India?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister of India has approved to confer the status of Classical Language to Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese and Bengali languages.
The recognition of a classical language is based on criteria established by a Linguistic Experts Committee.
According to the committee, the following revised benchmarks must be met for a language to be considered “classical”:
High antiquity of (its) is early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500- 2000 years.
A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a heritage by generations of speakers.
Knowledge texts, especially prose texts in addition to poetry, epigraphical and inscriptional evidence.
The Classical Languages and literature could be distinct from its current form or could be discontinuous with later forms of its offshoots.
Other Recognised Classical Languages are: Tamil ( 2004), Sanskrit (2005), Telugu( 2008), Kannada (2008), Malayalam( 2013) and Odia (2014).
Benefits of Classical Language Status
Once a language is designated as classical, the Ministry of Education provides various benefits to promote it, including:
Two major international awards annually for scholars of eminence in the language.
Establishment of a Centre of Excellence for Studies in the Classical Language.
Requesting the University Grants Commission (UGC) to create Professional Chairs in Central Universities dedicated to the classical language.
Hence only points 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2061660
Consider the following statements regarding Pygmy hog:
- It is the smallest and rarest species of wild pig in the world.
- It is considered as a flagship species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, nine captive-bred pygmy hogs were released in western Assam’s Manas National Park.
It is the smallest and rarest species of wild pig in the world.
It is one of the very few mammals that build its own home, or nest, complete with a ‘roof’.
It is an indicator species as its presence reflects the health of its primary habitat, tall and wet grasslands.
Habitat: It prefers undisturbed patches of grassland dominated by early succession riverine communities, typically comprising dense tall grass intermixed with a wide variety of herbs, shrubs and young trees.
Currently, the viable population of this pig in the wild is in the Manas Tiger Reserve in Assam.
Conservation status:
IUCN: Critically Endangered
The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I
Key facts about Manas National Park
It is located in the state of Assam. It is contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park in Bhutan.
It is a national park, UNESCO Natural World Heritage site, a Project Tiger reserve, an elephant reserve and a biosphere reserve.
Rivers: The Manas River passes through this park
Flora: It contains some of the largest remaining grassland habitats in the sub-Himalayan grassland ecosystems.
Fauna: It is known for its rare and endangered endemic wildlife such as the Assam roofed turtle, hispid hare, golden langur and pygmy hog.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/assam/nine-captive-bred-pygmy-hogs-released-in-assam-national-park/article68705582.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Prime Minister’s Internship Scheme:
- It offers hands-on exposure to real-world business environments to youths of India.
- It is open to all Indian youth who have graduated from any recognized institution in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister’s Internship Scheme, which was announced by Union Finance Minister during her Budget speech was launched.
It will enhance youth employability in India by offering them hands-on exposure to real-world business environments.
The scheme represents a transformative opportunity to bridge the skills gap and drive sustainable growth in India.
Aim: The scheme aims to provide internship opportunities to one crore youth over five years, in the top 500 companies.
The pilot project will be implemented through an online portal managed by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA).
A monthly stipend of ₹4,500 will be provided to the interns from the central government via DBT (Direct Benefit transfer), with an additional ₹500 offset provided by the company’s Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) fund.
They will also be provided a one-time grant of Rs 6,000 upon joining and insurance coverage under PM Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana and PM Suraksha Bima Yojana.
Internship period: One year
Who is eligible for the scheme?
Candidates aged between 21 and 24 years who are not engaged in full-time employment are eligible for the one-year internship programme.
Internships are available to those who have passed class 10 or higher.
Individuals from families with government jobs are excluded
It is not open to post-graduates.
A candidate who graduated from premier institutes such as IIT, IIM, or IISER, and those who have CA, or CMA qualification would not be eligible to apply for this internship.
Anyone from a household that includes a person who earned an income of ₹8 lakh or more in 2023-24, will not be eligible.
Benefits of the scheme
It will provide on-job training to youth and an exposure to real-life work environment.
The scheme will also benefit the industry by creating a pipeline of skilled, work-ready youth who can be employed post-internship both in large as well as micro, small and medium enterprise.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/education/careers/prime-minister-internship-scheme-eligibility-how-to-apply/article68712342.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the International Energy Efficiency Hub:
- It is a platform which fosters collaboration and promotion of energy efficiency worldwide.
- Bureau of Energy Efficiency is designated as the implementing agency for the Hub on behalf of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister of India has approved India’s membership to the Energy Efficiency Hub.
It is a global platform dedicated to fostering collaboration and promoting energy efficiency worldwide.
It was established in 2020 as the successor to the International Partnership for Energy Efficiency Cooperation (IPEEC), in which India was a member,
The hub brings together governments, international organizations, and private sector entities to share knowledge, best practices, and innovative solutions.
Member countries: Sixteen countries have joined the Hub (Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, Denmark, European Commission, France, Germany, Japan, Korea, Luxembourg, Russia, Saudi Arabia, United States and United Kingdom).
Implementing agency: Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), the statutory agency, has been designated as the implementing agency for the Hub on behalf of India.
BEE will play a crucial role in facilitating India’s participation in the Hub’s activities and ensuring that India’s contributions align with its national energy efficiency goals.
Significance:
India will gain access to a vast network of experts and resources, enabling it to enhance its domestic energy efficiency initiatives.
The country will also contribute to global efforts to address climate change by promoting energy-efficient technologies and practices.
The country’s participation in this global platform will help to accelerate the transition to a low-carbon economy and improve energy security.
This move solidifies India’s commitment to sustainable development and aligns with its efforts to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2061655
Which one of the following is the best description of ‘Pseumenes siangensis’, that was in the news recently?
A newly discovered wasp species from Eastern Himalayas.
Explanation :
Entomologists recently discovered a new species of potter wasp from Arunachal Pradesh, named Pseumenes siangensis.
About Pseumenes siangensis:
It is a new species of wasp belonging to genus Pseumenes.
The genus Pseumenes belongs to the subfamily Eumeninae, commonly called potter wasps.
It is primarily distributed across the Oriental region.
These are solitary wasps identified with their construction of small, pot-like mud structures that they use as nests for their larvae.
Around 3,795 species of these wasps have been described across 205 genera.
India has previously reported only one species of the genus, making the recent discovery of Pseumenes siangensis “a significant addition” to the country’s wasp diversity.
Pseumenes siangensis was discovered from Upper Siang District of Arunachal Pradesh, in the Eastern Himalayas.
It is named after Siang Valley where it was found.
At about 30.2 mm in length, the new species differs from others in having specific morphological features and colour patterns.
It has a critical role in controlling pest populations as the larvae primarily feed on caterpillars and other insects.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/environment/new-potter-wasp-species-discovered-in-eastern-himalayas-2-3220320
Where is ‘Ceres’, a dwarf planet recently seen in the news, located in the solar system?
Between Mars and Jupiter, in the asteroid belt
Explanation :
Researchers recently said Ceres is a very icy object that possibly was once a muddy ocean world.
About Ceres:
It is a dwarf planet and the largest object in the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter.
It’s the only dwarf planet located in the inner solar system.
It was the first member of the asteroid belt to be discovered when Giuseppe Piazzi spotted it in 1801.
Ceres is named for the Roman goddess of corn and harvests. The word cereal comes from the same name.
Called an asteroid for many years, Ceres is so much bigger and so different from its rocky neighbors that scientists classified it as a dwarf planet in 2006.
When NASA’s Dawn arrived in 2015, Ceres became the first dwarf planet to be explored by a spacecraft.
Features:
With a radius of 296 miles (476 kilometers), Ceres is 1/13 the radius of Earth.
Ceres is 2.8 astronomical units (AU) away from the Sun. One AU is the distance from the Sun to Earth.
Ceres takes 1,682 Earth days to make one trip around the Sun.
As Ceres orbits the Sun, it completes one rotation every 9 hours, making its day length one of the shortest in the solar system.
Ceres formed along with the rest of the solar system about 4.5 billion years ago when gravity pulled swirling gas and dust in to become a small dwarf planet.
Ceres is more similar to the terrestrial planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars) than its asteroid neighbors, but it is much less dense.
Ceres probably has a solid core and a mantle made of water ice. Ceres’ crust is rocky and dusty with large salt deposits.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://earthsky.org/space/dwarf-planet-ceres-muddy-ocean-world/
Consider the following statements regarding Motor Neuron Disease (MND):
- It is a rare condition that progressively damages parts of the nervous system and leads to muscle weakness.
- There’s no cure for MND, but treatment can help reduce the impact the symptoms have on life.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers recently developed DNA molecules which contain “invisibility cloak” sequences which can selectively target diseased cells in motor neuron disease.
About Motor Neuron Disease (MND):
It is a rare condition that progressively damages parts of the nervous system.
This leads to muscle weakness, often with visible wasting.
MND is also called amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) and Lou Gehrig’s disease.
Cause:
MND happens when specialist nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord, called motor neurones, stop working properly and die prematurely. This is known as neurodegeneration.
Motor neurons instruct the muscles to move by passing on signals from the brain. They play a role in both conscious and automatic movements, such as swallowing and breathing.
As MND progresses, it can become more difficult to do some or all of these activities.
Generally, MND is believed to be caused by a combination of environmental, lifestyle, and genetic factors.
20% of cases are linked to genetic causes. Half of genetic cases will be in people who have a family history of MND.
It mainly affects people in their 60s and 70s, but it can affect adults of all ages.
Symptoms:
The symptoms of MND start gradually over weeks and months.
They tend to appear on one side of the body first and get progressively worse.
MND often begins with weakness of the muscles in the hands, feet, or voice, although it can start in different areas of the body and progress in different patterns and at different rates.
People with MND become increasingly disabled.
Average life expectancy after diagnosis is one to five years, with 10 percent of people with MND living 10 years or more.
Treatment: There’s no cure for MND, but treatment can help reduce the impact the symptoms have on your life.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://medicalxpress.com/news/2024-10-dna-molecules-invisibility-cloak-sequences.html
The Chenchus Tribe primarily resides in which one of the following states?
Andhra Pradesh
Explanation :
The Chenchus of Penukumadugu have lived in the dense Nallamala forests for centuries; however, their inability to keep up with the relentless pace of modernisation has led to dwindling work opportunities under the MGNREGA.
About Chenchus:
The Chenchus are a Telugu-speaking food-gathering tribe living in the Nallamalai forests of Andhra Pradesh.
They are listed as Scheduled Tribe in Andhra Pradesh.
They are a conservative tribal group and have not made many changes in their lifestyle or tried to adapt to modernity.
They live in the enclosed space and geography, leading a life of an unbroken continuity.
The Chenchu live life with exemplary simplicity. Most of them still gather food from the forest and roam in it to find things to meet their needs.
The bow and arrow and a small knife are all the Chenchus possess to hunt and live.
The Chenchus collect forest products like roots, fruits, tubers, beedi leaf, mohua flower, honey, gum, tamarind and green leaves and make a meagre income of it by selling these to traders and government cooperatives.
A Chenchu village is known as “Penta”.
Each penta consists of a few huts that are spaced apart and are grouped together based on kinship pattern.
“Peddamanishi”, or the village elder, is generally the authority to maintain social harmony in a family or a village.
Generally, his counsel and word are final in all matters of the village.
Small conjugal families predominate, with women taking equal rank with men and marrying only upon maturity.
Chenchus worship a number of deities. Chenchus have also adopted certain religious practices from Hindus.
For ages, the Chenchus have been associated with the famous Srisailam temple (dedicated to Lord Shiva and Devi Brahmaramba) in Andhra Pradesh, situated at the heart of Chenchu land.
The Chenchus enjoy special privileges at Srisailam temple.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/a-tribe-out-of-time-how-chenchus-have-been-caught-between-ancestral-past-and-uncertain-future-in-andhra-pradesh/article68714155.ece
The Negro River is a major tributary of which one of the following rivers?
Amazon River
Explanation :
One of the Amazon River’s main tributaries, the Negro River, has dropped to its lowest level in 122 years, Brazil’s geological service recently.
About Negro River:
The Rio Negro is one of the largest tributaries of the Amazon River.
It is also one of the world’s largest rivers in terms of discharge.
Course:
Origin: It originates in several headstreams, including the Vaupés (Mapés) and the Guainía, which rise in the rain forest of eastern Colombia.
It flows along the Colombian and Venezuelan border before crossing into Brazil, where it becomes the Rio Negro.
The Negro meanders generally east-southeastward, picking up the Branco River and other tributaries, to Manaus, Brazil (the largest city in the Amazon Rainforest).
There it joins the Solimões River to form the Amazon.
It passes through Colombia, Venezuela, and Brazil.
Its length is about 1,400 miles (2,250 km), of which 850 miles (1,370 km) are in Brazil.
The river was named the Negro, which means black in Portuguese because of the water’s dark coloration.
It is caused by the decomposition of organic matter and the presence of tannins leached from surrounding vegetation, giving the river its distinctively rich coloration.
The Rio Negro is the largest blackwater river in the world, and despite the coloration, the water contains little sediment and ranks as one of the cleanest rivers on Earth.
The reserves and national parks along the Rio Negro form a giant protected area called the Central Amazon Ecological Corridor, which is the largest section of protected Amazon Rainforest.
At 52 million hectares, this is also one of the world’s largest protected areas.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.msn.com/en-ca/news/world/drought-has-dried-an-amazon-river-tributary-to-its-lowest-level-in-122-years/ar-AA1rI9ts
Consider the following statements regarding Akashteer Systems:
- It is an advanced Air Defence Control and Reporting Systems which safeguards the country from aerial threats.
- It is developed by Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Amid heightened global security concerns, the Indian Army has significantly enhanced its air defence capabilities with the acquisition of 100 Akashteer air defence systems.
These are advanced Air Defence Control and Reporting Systems (ADCRS) which will serve as a critical asset in safeguarding the country from aerial threats, including missile and rocket attacks.
It is a sophisticated, integrated control and reporting system designed to neutralize enemy threats swiftly.
The system is capable of managing all aspects of air defence for the Army, integrating multiple radar systems, sensors, and communication technologies into a single operational framework.
It provides a real-time battlefield view, allowing military personnel to detect, track, and engage aerial threats such as incoming missiles or enemy aircraft.
It brings together various surveillance assets, radar systems, and communication nodes, enabling precise coordination of air defence operations.
It is suitable for a wide range of operational environments.
It is developed by Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL).
Significance: This enhances the Indian Army’s ability to monitor airspace and deliver timely responses to any imminent threats.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/defence-indias-air-defence-strengthens-with-akashteer-systems-for-the-army-3629848/
Consider the following statements regarding National Agriculture Code:
- It serves as a guide for farmers, agriculture universities, and officials involved in the agriculture field.
- It is prepared by the Bureau of Indian Standards.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has begun the process of formulating a National Agriculture Code (NAC), on the lines of the existing National Building Code and National Electrical Code.
It will cover the entire agriculture cycle, and will also contain a guidance note for future standardisation.
The code will have two parts. The first will contain general principles for all crops, and the second will deal with crop-specific standards for the likes of paddy, wheat, oilseeds, and pulses.
The NAC will serve as a guide for farmers, agriculture universities, and officials involved in the field.
It will cover all agriculture processes and post-harvest operations, such as crop selection, land preparation, sowing/transplanting, irrigation/drainage, soil health management, plant health management, harvesting/threshing, primary processing, post-harvest, sustainability, and record maintenance.
It will also include standards for input management, like use of chemical fertilisers, pesticides, and weedicides, as well as standards for crop storage and traceability.
Crucially, the NAC will cover all new and emerging areas like natural farming and organic farming, as well as the use of Internet-of-Things in the field of agriculture.
Objectives
Create an implementable national code covering recommendations for agriculture practices taking agroclimatic zones, crop type, socio economic diversity of the country and all aspects of agrifood value chain into consideration;
To act as an enabler of quality culture in Indian agriculture by providing the required reference to policy makers, agriculture departments and regulators for incorporating the provisions of NAC in their schemes, policies, or regulations;
To create a comprehensive guide for the farming community to ensure effective decision making in agricultural practices;
To integrate relevant Indian Standards with recommended agricultural practices.
To address the horizontal aspects of agriculture such as SMART farming, sustainability, traceability and documentation; and
To aid in the capacity building program organized by agriculture extension services and civil society organisations.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/national-agriculture-code-bureau-of-indian-standards-9603867/
Consider the following statements regarding the EnviStats India 2024:
- It is compiled in accordance with the System of Environmental- Economic Accounting.
- It is compiled and released by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) compiled and released the 7th consecutive issue of the publication “EnviStats India 2024: Environment Accounts”.
It is compiled in accordance with the SEEA (System of Environmental- Economic Accounting)
The current publication which is seventh in series covers Energy Accounts, Ocean Accounts, Soil Nutrient Index and Biodiversity.
Highlights EnviStats India 2024
There has been around 72% increase in the number and around 16% increase in area for the Total Protected Area during the period 2000 to 2023.
The coverage of Mangroves, which is an important sub ecosystem of the ocean ecosystem, has increased around 8% over the years 2013 to 2021.
The report also includes the taxonomic faunal and floral diversity of India, the status of the Leopard and Snow leopard, information on Genetic Conservation using data from the stakeholder Ministries/agencies.
Also, the Species Richness of International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List of Threatened species by taxonomic groups has been compiled using spatial datasets from IUCN.
What is the System of Environmental- Economic Accounting?
It is an agreed international statistical standard for describing the interaction between the economy and the environment, as well as the stocks and changes in stocks of environmental assets
It aims to integrate perspectives from other disciplines and, where relevant, provide an improved body of information for environmental economic accounts.
There are two sides of SEEA–the SEEA-Central Framework (SEEA-CF) and the SEEA-Ecosystem Accounting (SEEA-EA)
SEEA-Central Framework: It focuses on the individual components of the environment that provide material and space for all economic activities.
SEEA-Ecosystem Accounting: It is a complementary framework of SEEA-CF constitutes an integrated and comprehensive statistical framework for organising data about habitats and landscapes, measuring the ecosystem services, tracking changes in the ecosystem assets, and linking this information to economic and other human activity.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2060296
With reference to Fluorescent Nano-Diamond, consider the following statements:
- It is a nanometre-sized diamond made of carbon nanoparticles.
- It can be used as sensors in many high-value industries and strategic sectors.
- It is unstable under light and toxic to living things.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
In a recent study published in Nature Communications, physicists from Purdue University in the U.S. reported levitating Fluorescent Nano-Diamonds (FNDs) in a high vacuum and spinning them very fast, paving the way for multiple applications in industry.
These are nanometre-sized diamonds made of carbon nanoparticles.
Properties
They are produced in a high temperature and high pressure process.
FNDs are stable under light and aren’t toxic to living things.
FNDs don’t blink when irradiated for a long time.
Their fluorescence lifespan is greater than 10 nanoseconds (ns) — a relatively long duration — which makes them better than quantum dots.
FNDs can also be doped to enhance their electrical, magnetic, thermal, and/or optical properties.
Applications
They have many applications in high-resolution imaging, microscale temperature sensing, and correlative microscopy, among others.
Medical Diagnostics: In biology, scientists use FNDs to track cells and their progeny over long periods.
They can be used as sensors in many high-value industries and strategic sectors.
FNDs containing nitrogen vacancy (NV) − centres can be used to produce the macroscopic version of the quantum superposition of electrons.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/scientists-spin-diamonds-at-a-billion-rpm-to-test-the-limits-of-physics/article68705918.ece
Bodo Napham and Bodo Ondla’, which have received Geographical Indications tag, are from:
Assam
Explanation :
Recently, the Geographical Indications Registry in Chennai has granted the GI tag to eight products from the Assam region, including traditional food items and several unique varieties of rice beer.
Unique varieties of rice beer
‘Bodo Jou Gwran’: It has the highest percentage of alcohol (about 16.11%) when compared with other varieties of rice beer made by the Bodo community.
‘Maibra Jou Bidwi’: It is known locally as ‘Maibra Jwu Bidwi’ or ‘Maibra Zwu Bidwi’, is revered and served as a welcome drink by most Bodo tribes. It’s prepared by fermenting half-cooked rice (mairong) with less water, and adding a little ‘amao’ (a potential source of yeast) to it.
‘Bodo Jou Gishi’: It is also a traditionally fermented rice-based alcoholic beverage.
Traditional Food Products
Bodo Napham’: It is an important and favourite dish of fermented fish prepared anaerobically in a tightly sealed container in a process that requires about two-three months.
Bodo Ondla’: A rice powder curry flavoured with garlic, ginger, salt, and alkali.
Bodo Gwkha’: It is locally also known as ‘Gwka Gwkhi’, it’s prepared during the Bwisagu festival.
‘Bodo Narzi’: It is a semi-fermented food prepared with jute leaves (Corchorus capsularis), a rich source of Omega 3 fatty acids, vitamins and essential minerals, including calcium and magnesium.
Bodo Aronai’: It is a small, beautiful cloth (1.5-2.5 meters long and 0.5 meter wide)
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/gi-tags-for-bodo-rice-beers-and-other-culinary-delights/article68706590.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Hirakud Dam:
- It is the longest dam in India.
- It is built across the river Godavari.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Built six decades ago, the canal network connected to Hirakud Dam, one of the biggest projects in eastern India, is all set to be renovated.
About Hirakud Dam:
It is the longest dam in India and the longest earthen dam in the world.
Total Length: 25.79 km
The dam is built across the river Mahanadi at about 15 km upstream of Sambalpur town in the state of Odisha.
It is made of earth, concrete, and masonry.
The dam forms a vast reservoir known as the Hirakud Reservoir or Hirakud Lake. It is the biggest artificial lake in Asia, with an area of 746 sq.km.
This is one of the oldest hydel projects of India, being the first post-independence major multipurpose river valley project in the country. It was inaugurated in 1957.
Purpose:
The project provides 1,55,635 hectares of Kharif and 1,08,385 ha of Rabi irrigation.
The installed capacity for power generation is 359.8 MW.
More than 436,000 hectares of land in the Mahanadi delta also get irrigated by the water which is released from the powerhouse.
Besides, the project provides flood protection to 9500 sq. km of delta area.
Cattle Island:
It is a small island in the Hirakud reservoir.
It is inhabited by a large herd of wild cattle, which are believed to be the descendants of cattle that were left behind by villagers when the dam was constructed in the 1950s.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/odisha/six-decade-old-canal-system-of-odishas-hirakud-dam-to-get-facelift/article68721543.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Very Short-Range Air Defence System (VSHORADS):
- It is a Man Portable Air Defence System (MANPAD) developed for neutralising low-altitude aerial threats at short ranges.
- It has a range of up to 200 km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers recently said Ceres is a very icy object that possibly was once a muddy ocean world.
About Very Short-Range Air Defence System (VSHORADS):
VSHORADS is a Man Portable Air Defence System (MANPAD) developed for neutralising low-altitude aerial threats at short ranges.
It has been indigenously designed and developed by DRDO’s Research Centre Imarat, Hyderabad, in collaboration with other DRDO laboratories and industry partners.
The design of the missile, including launcher, has been highly optimized to ensure easy portability, and it doesn’t require a lot of personnel to operate.
The VSHORADS missile incorporates many novel technologies, such as the miniaturised Reaction Control System (RCS) and integrated avionics.
It is propelled by a dual-thrust solid motor.
It has a range of up to 6 km.
The missile system, being man-portable and specifically optimised for lightweight compared to other missile systems, can be deployed quickly in the mountains close to the Line of Actual Control, with China in Ladakh and Arunachal Pradesh.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/drdo-announces-completion-of-development-trials-of-man-portable-air-defence-system/article68721950.ece
Which of the following statements is not correct about hammerhead sharks?
A. They have 360-degree vision due to their uniquely shaped heads. B. They can migrate long distances depending on seasonal changes. C. All species of hammerhead sharks are considered critically endangered under IUCN. D. They are viviparous, meaning they give birth to live young.
All species of hammerhead sharks are considered critically endangered under IUCN.
Explanation :
Scientists recently discovered a new species of hammerhead shark named Sphyrna alleni from the Caribbean and the Southwest Atlantic.
About Hammerhead Sharks:
Named for the unusual and distinctive form of their heads, hammerhead sharks belong to the family Sphyrnidae.
They are characterized by a flattened hammer- or shovel-shaped head, or ‘cephalofoil’.
These distinctive heads serve multiple purposes, including granting the sharks 360-degree vision as well as better hunting abilities.
There are nine species of Hammerhead Sharks, each with varying lengths.
The great hammerhead shark is the largest of all hammerhead species, reaching a maximum known length of 20 feet.
Distribution:
They are widely distributed in tropical and temperate marine waters near the coasts and above the continental shelves.
They may migrate seasonally, moving equatorward during the winter and poleward during the summer.
In years with warm El Niño conditions, hammerhead sharks may range many hundreds of kilometres farther than normal.
Features:
The upper sides of these fish are greyish-brown or olive-green, and they have white bellies.
They have very impressive triangular, serrated teeth—like the edge of a saw’s blade.
The hammerhead also has special sensors across its head that helps it scan for food in the ocean.
They are viviparous: they retain fertilized eggs within the body and give birth to live young
They can live 20-30 years.
They are exothermic animals, meaning that they have no internal way to control their body temperature.
Hammerhead sharks are one of the most threatened shark families, mainly due to overexploitation, with all species but one (Sphyrna gilberti) being globally listed as Vulnerable, Endangered, or Critically Endangered by the IUCN.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.sci.news/biology/sphyrna-alleni-13318.html
Consider the following statements regarding Lake Kivu, recently seen in the news:
- It is the largest lake in Africa.
- It is located between the Democratic Republic of Congo and Rwanda.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
At least 78 people are dead after a boat carrying 278 passengers capsized in eastern Congo’s Lake Kivu recently.
About Lake Kivu:
It is one of the great lakes of East Africa, situated between the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) to the west and Rwanda to the east.
It is Rwanda’s largest lake and the sixth largest in Africa.
It is in the Albertine Rift, the western branch of the East African Rift.
Lying at 1,460 metres above sea level, it occupies 1,040 square miles (2,700 sq.km).
58% of its waters are lying in the DRC; the rest are situated in Rwanda.
It is 90 km long and 50 km wide.
The lake has a maximum depth of 475 m and an average depth of 220 m.
Its irregular shores form a number of inlets and peninsulas, and plenty of waterfalls.
Lake Kivu empties into the Rusizi River, which flows southwards into Lake Tanganyika.
The tenth largest inland island on the planet, Idjwi Island, is located on Kivu Lake.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/world/at-least-78-dead-after-boat-sinks-in-congos-lake-kivu-says-governor-3218491
Rani Durgavati was the descendant of one of the following dynasties?
Chandel Dynasty
Explanation :
The Madhya Pradesh cabinet recently approved the formation of a panel to develop a memorial and garden dedicated to Gond queen Rani Durgavati for Rs 100 crore.
About Rani Durgavati:
Rani Durgavati (1524-2024) was the descendant of the famous Chandela dynasty of Mahoba and the queen of the Gond kingdom of Garha-Katanga.
She was born on 5th October 1524 A.D. in the family of famous Chandel emperor Keerat Rai.
The Chandel Dynasty is famous in Indian history for the valiant king Vidyadhar, who repulsed the attacks of Mehmood Gaznavi.
His love for sculptures is shown in the world famed temples of Khajuraho and Kalanjar Fort.
Rani Durgavati was born in Kalinjar (Banda, U.P.), one of the most important forts of medieval India.
In 1542, she was married to Dalpatshah, the eldest son of King Sangramshah of the Gond Dynasty. Chandel and Gond dynasties got closer as a consequence of this marriage.
She gave birth to a son in 1545 A.D. who was named Vir Narayan.
Dalpatshah died in about 1550 A.D. As Vir Narayan was too young at that time, Durgavati took the reins of the Gond kingdom in her hands.
Two ministers, Adhar Kayastha and Man Thakur, helped the Rani in looking after the administration successfully and effectively.
Rani moved her capital to Chauragarh in place of Singaurgarh. It was a fort of strategic importance situated on the Satpura hill range.
It is said that trade flourished during this period. Peole were prosperous.
Like her husband’s predecessors, she extended her territory and accomplished the political unification of Gondwana, also called Garha-Katanga, with courage, generosity, and tact.
She distinguished herself as a warrior and fought with unvarying success against Baz Bahadur, the Sultan of Malwa.
In the year 1562, Akbar vanquished the Malwa ruler Baj Bahadur and annexed the Malwa with Mughal dominion. Consequently, the state boundary of Rani touched the Mughal kingdom.
She is chiefly remembered for defending Gondwana against the Mughal Empire. She took on the might of the Mughal Empire with great courage and leadership.
Though she finally faced defeat at the hands of the Mughal army, she is remembered as a warrior in blood and spirit.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatvnews.com/madhya-pradesh/rani-durgavati-memorial-and-garden-gets-madhya-pradesh-cabinet-approval-to-be-built-in-jabalpur-rs-100-crore-cost-2024-10-05-955686
Consider the following statements regarding Global Strategic Preparedness, Readiness and Response Plan:
- It aims at reducing the burden of disease, suffering and deaths from dengue and other Aedes-borne arboviral diseases.
- It was launched by the World Health Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Global Strategic Preparedness, Readiness and Response Plan (SPRP) to tackle dengue and other Aedes-borne arboviruses was launched by the World Health Organisation.
It aims at reducing the burden of disease, suffering and deaths from dengue and other Aedes-borne arboviral diseases such as Zika and chikungunya, by fostering a global coordinated response.
The SPRP comprises five key components namely
Emergency coordination: Establishing leadership and coordination activities;
Collaborative surveillance: Developing and using tools for early detection and control of dengue and other Aedes-borne outbreaks, including strengthened indicator and event-based surveillance, epidemiological analysis, laboratory diagnostics, and field investigations;
Community protection: Engaging communities through active dialogue and local adaptation of prevention and response measures, including mosquito population control;
Safe and scalable care: Ensuring effective clinical management and resilient health services to ensure patients can receive adequate care and prevent illness and death; and
Access to countermeasures: Promoting research and innovation for improved treatments and effective vaccines against these diseases.
The Strategic Plan will be implemented over one year until September 2025.
It is aligned with the Global Vector Control Response 2017–2030, a global strategy to strengthen vector control worldwide, and the Global Arbovirus Initiative, launched in 2022, which focuses on tackling mosquito-borne arboviruses with epidemic potential.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/healthcare-who-launches-plan-to-tackle-dengue-and-other-aedes-borne-diseases-3629647/
Consider the following statements regarding the Co-district Initiative:
- It aims to address the administrative challenges being faced by the administration in the districts.
- It is an initiative of the government of Assam.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Assam government launched a new concept of “co-district” within a district administration by doing away with the existing system of civil sub-divisions.
Co-districts’ are smaller administrative units below the districts led by an officer of the rank of Assistant District Commissioner.
The objective of this first-of-its-kind initiative in the country is to take governance one step closer to people.
It is expected to address the administrative challenges being faced by the administration in the districts.
The co-district commissioners will have powers and responsibilities similar to those of the district commissioners.
The functions that these offices are tasked with carrying out include land revenue matters, development and welfare work, excise and disaster management work.
These will have administrative control over all departments within the co-district and have magisterial powers such as the issue of permissions for events.
These will conduct routine administrative tasks such as the issue of ration cards, caste certificates, and sale permission of land.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Oct/04/taking-governance-closer-to-people-assam-launches-unique-co-district-initiative
Consider the following statements regarding Indian Grey wolf:
- It is mainly found in scrub, grasslands and semi-arid pastoral agro-ecosystems in India.
- It is categorized as critically endangered species under the IUCN Red list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Indian grey wolf, with its keen instincts, is believed to target and prey upon the weaker, sicker individuals, essentially acting as nature’s culling system in the rugged landscapes of central Karnataka.
It is a subspecies of grey wolf that ranges from Southwest Asia to the Indian Subcontinent.
It travels in smaller packs and is less vocal than other variants. They are nocturnal and hunt from dusk to dawn.
Appearance: It is intermediate in size lies between the Tibetan and Arabian wolf, and lacks the former’s luxuriant winter coat due to its living in warmer conditions.
Habitat: The Indian wolf inhabits areas dominated by scrub, grasslands and semi-arid pastoral agro-ecosystems.
They live in warmer conditions.
Distribution: It has a wide distribution range that extends from the Indian subcontinent to Israel. There are about 3,000 animals in India, some in captivity.
Conservation Status
IUCN: Least concern
CITES : Appendix 1
Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972 : Schedule I
Threat: Habitat loss and depletion of prey species etc.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/guardians-of-the-flock-wolves-may-be-villains-in-bahraich-but-are-sacred-beings-for-koppals-kuruba-shepherds
Business- Ready Index, is prepared by:
World Bank
Explanation :
The Indian government is aligning state business readiness rankings with the upcoming World Bank’s B-READY index.
The B-READY index (Business- Ready Index) is a successor to the Ease of Doing Business rankings, which were discontinued in 2021 due to irregularities.
It is a ground-breaking initiative that aims to focus on quantitatively assessing the business environment across world economies.
It envisages taking into consideration more diverse factors while arriving at the rating.
Global financial institutions and multi-national companies will use the B-Ready framework as a benchmark to understand the regulatory and policy environment of a country.
It will be published annually, taking into consideration three main pillars: regulatory framework, public services, and efficiency.
The index incorporates digitalization, environmental sustainability, and gender equality into each indicator, ensuring a holistic and forward-thinking approach to business evaluation.
It tracks ten parameters covering a firm’s lifecycle from starting, operating, closing, and reorganising.
The index will expand in three stages, covering 54 economies initially and reaching up to 180 countries by 2026.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/business/economy/govt-looking-to-align-some-indicators-of-indias-brap-2024-index-with-the-world-banks-b-ready-index-12835460.html
Lipulekh Pass, recently in news, is located near the trijunction of:
India, Nepal, China
Explanation :
Recently, Pilgrims had the first-ever view of the sacred Kailash peak from the Old Lipulekh pass inside the Indian territory.
Location: It is a high-altitude mountain pass located in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand, near the trijunction of India, Nepal, and China.
It links the Indian state of Uttarakhand with the Tibet region of China.
It lies at an altitude of approximately 5,334 meters (17,500 feet).
Its elevation and strategic location make it a gateway to the higher reaches of the Himalayas.
The Old Lipulekh pass is situated in the Vyas valley of Pithoragarh district in Uttarakhand and it carries immense religious significance.
It is the first Indian border post opened for trade with China in 1992.
This was followed by the opening of Shipki La Pass, Himachal Pradesh in 1994 and Nathu La Pass, Sikkim in 2006.
Significance
Ancient Trade Route: Lipulekh Pass has been utilized for centuries as a trade route, connecting the Indian subcontinent with the Tibetan plateau.
Religious Significance: The pass also has religious significance, being an integral part of the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra, a sacred pilgrimage for Hindus.
Devotees undertake this arduous journey to reach Mount Kailash, considered the abode of Lord Shiva, and the nearby Mansarovar Lake.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/pilgrims-get-first-ever-view-of-kailash-peak-from-indian-territory/article68717139.ece
With reference to Progeria, consider the following statements:
- It is an extremely rare, progressive genetic disorder.
- It causes children to age rapidly.
- It significantly affects a child’s intelligence or brain development.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Sammy Basso, who was the longest living survivor of the rare genetic disease progeria, recently died at the age of 28.
About Progeria:
Progeria, also known as Hutchinson-Gilford progeria syndrome, is an extremely rare, progressive genetic disorder.
It causes children to age rapidly.
A tiny genetic mutation causes the disease.
It is reported to occur in 1 in 4 million newborns worldwide.
Newborns with the disorder appear to be healthy at birth but usually start to show signs of premature agingduring their first one to two years of life.
Their growth rate slows, and they don’t gain weight as expected.
Progeria doesn’t affect a child’s intelligence or brain development.
However, their rapid aging causes distinct physical characteristics, including:
Hair loss (baldness).
Prominent eyes.
Aged, wrinkled skin.
A thin, beaked nose.
Disproportionately small face compared to head size.
Loss of fat under the skin.
As children with progeria get older, they get diseases you’d expect to see in people age 50 and older, including bone loss, hardening of the arteries, and heart disease.
The condition is always fatal. Heart problems or strokes are the eventual cause of death in most children with progeria.
The average life expectancy for a child with progeria is about 15 years. Some with the condition may die younger, and others may live longer, even to about 20 years.
There’s no cure for progeria. A drug called lonafarnib has been shown to slow down the progression of the disease.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/europe/survivor-of-rare-rapid-ageing-disease-progeria-dies-at-28/articleshow/113986054.cms
Consider the following statements regarding English Channel:
- It is a narrow arm of the Atlantic Ocean.
- It separates the southern coast of England from the northern coast of France.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Several people, including a child, died trying to cross the English Channel from France to England, the French Interior Minister said recently.
About English Channel:
It is a narrow arm of the Atlantic Ocean.
It separates the southern coast of England (part of Great Britain) from the northern coast of France.
The channel andthe North Sea are connected at the Strait of Dover in the east.
The current name, “English Channel,” dates back to the 18th century. Before then, the English mostly referred to the waterway as a “Narrow Sea.”
The French refer to the Channel as “la Manche” because of its sleevelike shape.
With an area of some 29,000 square miles (75,000 square km), it is the smallest of theshallow seas covering the continental shelf of Europe.
It is 350 miles (560 kilometers) long. At its widest point, it is 150 miles (240 kilometers) across. At its narrowest, it is only 21 miles (34 kilometers) across.
It is a shallow waterway with an average depth of 63 m.
Climate: Temperate maritime climate, with warm summers and cold winters.
The main islands are the Isle of Wight and the Channel Islands (a collection of islands including Jersey, Guernsey, Alderney, and Sark).
It is one of the world’s busiest shipping areas, linking southern England, the United Kingdom to northern France.
It accounts for up to 20% of the global maritime trade and connects the Atlantic Ocean to the North Sea.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/amp/world/story/several-migrants-die-cross-english-channel-uk-french-interior-minister-bruno-retailleau-2611998-2024-10-06
Fattah-2, recently seen in the news, is a hypersonic ballistic missile, developed by which one of the following countries?
Iran
Explanation :
Iran recently fired more than 180 ballistic missiles, including its hypersonic medium-range Fattah-2, in a major offensive aimed at overwhelming Israel’s air defences.
About Fattah-2:
Fattah, which means conqueror in Farsi, is a hypersonic ballistic missile.
It was developed by Iran. It is a new version of its first domestically made hypersonic ballistic missile named ‘Fattah’.
Features:
It is equipped with a hypersonic glide vehicle (HGV) warhead that canmanoeuvre and glide at hypersonic speed.
It uses a liquid-fuel rocket propellant. The liquid fuel engine has the ability toadjust the thrust force.
The precision-guided two-stage missile can hit targets within a range of 1500 kilometres with a velocity ofMach 15 (fifteen times the speed of sound, i.e 18522 km/hr).
Measuring 12 meters in length, it can carry 200 kilograms of explosives.
It is capable of significant trajectory changes during flight to evade defence systems.
While the missile can accelerate outside the Earth’s atmosphere, its aerodynamic control surfaces allow for steering within the atmosphere.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/world/story/iran-fattah-2-hypersonic-missile-features-all-you-need-to-know-israel-air-defence-attack-2609892-2024-10-02
Consider the following statements regarding Pashtuns:
- They are an ethnic group of people found throughout Afghanistan and Pakistan.
- They are united primarily by a common language, Farsi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Pakistan government recently banned the Pashtun Tahafuz Movement (PTM), a group which fights for the rights of ethnic Pashtuns, citing it as a threat to national security.
About Pashtuns:
Pashtuns—also known as “Pathans” and “Pakhtuns”—are an ethnic group of people found throughout Afghanistan and Pakistan.
They reside primarily in the region that lies between the Hindu Kush in northeastern Afghanistan and the northern stretch of the Indus River in Pakistan.
The Pashtuns in Pakistan were separatedfrom those in Afghanistanby the ‘Durand Line’, which divided the region between British India and Afghanistan in the late 19th century.
The Pashtun constitute the largest ethnic group of the population of Afghanistan (40-50 percentof the population) and bore the exclusive name of Afghan before that name came to denote any native of the present land area of Afghanistan.
The Pashtun are united primarily by a common language, Pashto (an official language of Afghanistan).
They are generally able to speak Farsi (Persian), when necessary, often relying on the language in the context of trade dealings in the region.
Other commonalities include Sunni Islam and a common social code (Pashtunwali) that governs both ethical behaviour and custom.
Kinship is the basisof Pashtun society.
Each tribe, consisting of kinsmen who trace descent in the male bloodline from a common tribal ancestor, is divided into clans, subclans, and patriarchal families.
Occupation:
Most Pashtun are sedentary farmers, combining cultivation with animal husbandry. Some are migratory herders and caravaners.
Many Pashtuns serve in the military. Smaller numbers hold political posts.
Henceonly statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/pakistan-government-bans-ethnic-pashtun-party/article68725748.ece
Kawal Tiger Reserve lies in which one of the following states?
Telangana
Explanation :
The forest department organised its first ‘Cyclothon’ recently to celebrate World Wildlife Week 2024 at the buffer zone of the Kawal Tiger Reserve.
About Kawal Tiger Reserve:
It is located in the north-eastern part of Telangana State along the banks of the river Godavari, forming part of the Deccan Peninsula-central highlands.
Spanning over 2015 sq. km, the reserve is nestled in the Sahyadri Mountain Ranges.
The government of India declared Kawal Wildlife Sanctuary a Tiger Reserve in 2012.
It has a diverse habitat comprising dense forests, grasslands, open areas, rivers, streams, and water bodies.
Rivers: The reserve is the catchment for the rivers Godavari and Kadam, which flow towards the south of the sanctuary.
Geographically, the reserve is situated in the southern-most tip of the Central Indian Tiger Landscape, having linkages with the Tadoba-Andhari (Maharashtra) and Indravati (Chhattisgarh)tiger reserves.
Vegetation:Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest.
Flora: Teak is found extensively, along with Bamboo.
Fauna:
It is home to a diverse range of animals, including Cheetal, Sambar, Barking Deer, Nilgai, Sloth Bear, Indian Bison, Panther, and Tiger.
Reptiles like Crocodile, Python, Monitor Lizard, Star Tortoise, and Cobra can also be found within its boundaries.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.deccanchronicle.com/southern-states/telangana/forest-dept-holds-first-cyclothon-in-kawal-tiger-reserve-1828529
Consider the following statements regarding Global Framework on Chemicals fund:
- It was established during the fifth International Conference on Chemicals Management.
- It minimizes harm from chemicals and protects the environment and human health.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Global Framework on Chemicals fund was launched its first project, targeting the safe and sustainable management of chemicals and waste.
It was established during the fifth International Conference on Chemicals Management (ICCM5) in September 2023.
It supports countries in implementing this international agreement that guides countries and stakeholders in jointly addressing the lifecycle of chemicals, including products and waste.
The objective of the Fund is
To support implementation activities in developing countries, least developed countries, Small Island Developing States and countries with economies in transition.
This will be achieved by financing projects and programmes that will support transformative change to prevent, or where prevention is not feasible, minimize harm from chemicals and waste to protect the environment and human health,
The Executive Board takes the operational decisions and oversees the functioning of the Fund. It is composed of:
2 National representatives of each United Nations region
Representatives of all donors and contributors.
Financing: The Fund provides financial support of 300,000 to 800,000 USD for an implementation period of up to three years.
Funding for the GFC Fund is provided through voluntary contributions.
What is Global Framework on Chemicals?
The framework is based around 28 targets that aim to improve the sound management of chemicals and waste.
The multi-sectoral agreement focuses on chemicals and waste and calls for the prevention of illegal trade, the strengthening of national legal frameworks, and the elimination of highly hazardous pesticides in agriculture by 2035.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.unep.org/news-and-stories/press-release/new-fund-support-chemicals-and-waste-management-developing-economies
Consider the following statements regarding the Emergency Use Listing Procedure:
- It is a risk-based procedure for assessing and listing unlicensed vaccines and therapeutics.
- A vaccine is listed under this procedure if an existing product is not successful in eradicating the disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The World Health Organization (WHO) announced that it has listed the first mpox in vitro diagnostic (IVD) under its Emergency Use Listing (EUL) procedure.
EUL procedure is a risk-based procedure for assessing and listing unlicensed vaccines, therapeutics and in vitro diagnostics.
It aims to expedite the availability of these products to people affected by a public health emergency.
This will assist interested UN procurement agencies and Member States in determining the acceptability of using specific products, based on an essential set of available quality, safety, and efficacy and performance data.
Criteria for products listing under EUL
The disease for which the product is intended is serious or immediately life threatening has the potential of causing an outbreak, epidemic or pandemic.
Existing products have not been successful in eradicating the disease or preventing outbreaks.
The product is manufactured in compliance with current Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) in the case of medicines and vaccines and under a functional Quality Management System (QMS) in the case of IVDs.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/healthcare-who-approves-first-mpox-diagnostic-test-for-emergency-use-3630188/
Consider the following statements regarding Respiratory Synctial Virus Infection:
- It can spread from person to person through the air by coughing and sneezing.
- It only infects newborn babies across the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the World Health Organization recommended vaccinating pregnant women and administering infants with an antibody to prevent severe respiratory synctial virus (RSV) infection in newborns.
RSV, which typically causes cold-like symptoms, is a leading cause of severe infection and death in babies and older adults.
Symptoms: They include, Runny nose, Decrease in appetite and Cough etc.
Transmission: RSV spreads from person to person through
The air by coughing and sneezing;
Direct contact, such as kissing the face of a child who has RSV;
Touching an object or surface with the virus on it, then touching your mouth, nose, or eyes before washing your hands;
Premature infants, babies younger than 6 months old, people above age 65 and people who have a compromised immune system, chronic lung disease or congenital heart condition can get a more severe case of RSV.
People who have an RSV infection are usually contagious for 3 to 8 days. But sometimes infants and people with weakened immune systems can continue to spread the virus for as long as 4 weeks.
A severe infection leads to pneumonia and bronchiolitis.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/who-recommends-maternal-vaccine-and-antibody-shot-to-prevent-rsv-in-infants/article68709342.ece
Barnawapara wildlife sanctuary, is located in:
Chhattisgarh
Explanation :
Two wild buffalo calves, born in Barnawapara wildlife sanctuary in Chhattisgarh has kindled hope of conservation of the highly endangered animal species in Chhattisgarh.
Location: It is located in the district of Raipur in Chhattisgarh.
The rivers Balmedhi, Jonk and Mahanadi are the lifeline river which runs along the sanctuary.
River Balamdehi forms the western boundary and Jonk River forms the northeastern boundary of the Sanctuary.
Flora: The sanctuary contains major vegetation of Teak, Sal and Mixed forest.
Fauna: Cheetal, Sambhar, Nilgai and Wild Boar, Sloth Bear, Wild Dog, are commonly seen.
Key facts about Indian Wild Buffalo
It is the state animal of Chhattisgarh (India) and is a large species of bovine native to the Indian Sub-continent and South East Asia.
Habitat: It is mainly found in the alluvial grasslands, marshes, swamps and river valleys.
In India, they are generally concentrated in North East India in Kaziranga National Park, Manas and Dibru-Saikhowa National Parks, Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary and Bura Chapori Wildlife Sanctuary, D’Ering Memorial Wildlife Sanctuary in Arunachal Pradesh.
Conservation Status
IUCN: Endangered
Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule 1
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanchronicle.com/nation/current-affairs/two-wild-buffalo-calves-born-kindle-hope-of-conservation-in-chhattisgarh-1828498
With reference to Eco-Sensitive Zone, consider the following statements:
- It is an area created as a shock absorber for the protected areas.
- In this zone agricultural and horticulture activities are prohibited.
- In this transition area commercial establishment of hotels are regulated.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Many leaders of both the ruling BJP and opposition parties in Gujarat have protested against the proposed Eco-Sensitive Zones around Gir forest.
As per the National Wildlife Action Plan (2002-2016), issued by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, land within 10 km of the boundaries of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries is to be notified as eco-fragile zones or Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZ).
While the 10-km rule is implemented as a general principle, the extent of its application can vary.
Areas beyond 10-km can also be notified by the Union government as ESZs, if they hold larger ecologically important “sensitive corridors”.
It acts as buffer zones around Protected Areas — national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, tiger reserves, etc. — so that the wildlife has a transition zone around them.
Significance of ESZ
Eco-Sensitive Zones are created as “shock absorbers” for the protected areas, to minimize the negative impact on the “fragile ecosystems” by certain human activities taking place nearby.
These areas are meant to act as a transition zone from areas requiring higher protection to those requiring lesser protection.
Permitted activities in ESZ: Ongoing agricultural or horticultural practices, rainwater harvesting, organic farming, among others.
No commercial mining, stone quarrying, large hydroelectric projects, polluting industries, brick kilns, etc. are allowed in ESZ.
Commercial establishment of hotels, resorts, small-scale non-polluting industries and the construction of civic amenities are regulated.
What makes Gir unique?
Gir PA includes the Gir National Park, the Gir Wildlife Sanctuary, the Paniya Wildlife Sanctuary and the Mitiyala Wildlife Sanctuary, spread across the Junagadh, Amreli and Gir Somnath districts in Gujarat’s Saurashtra region in its south.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/eco-sensitive-zone-gir-forest-protest-9607089/
Consider the following statements regarding Ni-kshay Poshan Yojana (NPY):
- It is a direct benefit transfer (DBT) scheme under the National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP) in India.
- It provides a financial incentive of Rs.10000/- per month for each notified tuberculosis (TB) patient for duration for which the patient is on anti-TB treatment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Union Health Ministry has doubled the monthly nutrition support under Ni-Kshay Poshan Yojana from the existing Rs 500 to Rs 1,000 per month for all TB patients, during treatment.
About Ni-kshay Poshan Yojana (NPY):
NPY was launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoH&FW) as a centrally sponsored scheme under the National Health Mission (NHM) in April 2018.
It is a direct benefit transfer (DBT) scheme under the National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP) in India.
Objective: Provides incentives for nutritional support to tuberculosis (TB) patients.
Beneficiary: All notified TB patients are beneficiaries of the scheme.
Eligibility:
All patients with TB who are notified to the government on or after April 1, 2018, including those who are already being treated for TB, are eligible for financial incentives.
To be eligible for the incentives, patients must be registered or notified on the NIKSHAY portal.
Benefits: Financial incentive of Rs.1000/- per month for each notified TB patient for duration for which the patient is on anti-TB treatment.
The incentives can be distributed in Cash (only via DBT, preferably through Aadhaar enabled bank accounts) or in-kind.
This scheme is implemented across all States and UTs in India.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.tribuneindia.com/news/health-ministry-enhances-monthly-support-for-tb-patients/
Consider the following statements regarding Rudder:
- It is a primary flight control surface which controls rotation about the vertical axis of an aircraft.
- It is a movable surface which is used to steer the aircraft.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) recently asked operators of Boeing 737 aircraft with a specific rudder part to not use the planes for low-visibility landings due to a “possible risk of jamming”.
About Rudder:
The rudder is a primary flight control surface which controls rotation about the vertical axis of an aircraft. This movement is referred to as “yaw”.
It is a movable surface that is mounted on the trailing edge of the vertical stabilizer or fin.
Unlike a boat, the rudder is not used to steer the aircraft; rather, it is used to overcome adverse yaw induced by turning or, in the case of a multi-engine aircraft, by engine failure and also allows the aircraft to be intentionally slipped when required.
In most aircraft, the rudder is controlled through the flight deck rudder pedals which are linked mechanically to the rudder.
Deflection of a rudder pedal causes a corresponding rudder deflection in the same direction; that is, pushing the left rudder pedal will result in a rudder deflection to the left.
This, in turn, causes the rotation about the vertical axis moving the aircraft nose to the left.
In large or high-speed aircraft, hydraulic actuators are often used to help overcome mechanical and aerodynamic loads on the rudder surface.
Rudder effectiveness increases with aircraft speed. Thus, at slow speed, large rudder input may be required to achieve the desired results.
Smaller rudder movement is required at higher speeds, and, in many more sophisticated aircraft, rudder travel is automatically limited when the aircraft is flown above manoeuvring speed to prevent deflection angles that could potentially result in structural damage to the aircraft.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/boeing-737-planes-with-a-specific-rudder-part-not-to-be-used-for-low-visibility-landings-dgca/article68728359.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Advanced Glycation End products (AGEs):
- They are formed in the human body by metabolism, but the major source of AGEs is food.
- They help to stabilize protein structures and promote hormone secretion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A diet rich in advanced glycation end products (AGEs) is among the leading causes of India being the world’s diabetic capital, notes a first-of-its-kind clinical trial finding published recently.
About Advanced glycation end products (AGEs):
AGEs (also known as glycotoxins) are harmful molecules formed by the glycation and oxidation of lipids and proteins.
Glycation is the process of combining other molecules with sugars.
Oxidation is the process of combining other molecules with oxygen.
AGEs are formed in your body by metabolism, but the major source of AGEs is food.
They are formed in food by grilling, toasting, roasting, broiling, frying, and other high-temperature cooking.
Tobacco use is yet another source of AGEs.
AGE production in the body increases with age.
Why are AGEs harmful?
AGEs are present in the body at all times. At low levels, they don’t cause significant injury.
However, they cause cell and tissue damage when they reach high concentrations.
AGEs combine with receptors located on blood vessels and several other organs to cause damage to organ systems.
These compounds can impact the function of proteins within the cells, alter the behavior of hormones, cytokines, and free radicals, and modify the extracellular matrix between cells.
AGEs activate inflammatory and other destructive processes in many systems of your body.
AGEs are involved in the development of various chronic inflammatory diseases such as type II diabetes mellitus, vascular and cardiovascular diseases, osteoporosis, and arthritis.
Hyperglycemia (high blood levels of glucose) is one condition associated with more AGE production, causing blood vessel damage in people with diabetes.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/consumption-of-ultra-processed-and-fast-foods-leading-cause-of-diabetes-in-india-reveals-new-study/article68729384.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the World Association of Zoos and Aquariums (WAZA):
- It was established as a consequence of 1992 Rio Earth Summit.
- It is the only organisation representing zoos and aquariums at the global level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The World Association of Zoos and Aquariums (WAZA) recently suspended the membership of the Delhi Zoo over concerns about the treatment of its lone African elephant named Shankar.
About World Association of Zoos and Aquariums (WAZA):
It is the umbrella organization for the world zoo and aquarium community.
Established in 1935, it is the only organisation representing zoos and aquariums at the global level.
WAZA’s mission is to guide, encourage, and support the zoos, aquariums, and like-minded organisations of the world in animal care and welfare, environmental education, and global conservation.
Its members include leading zoos and aquariums, and regional and national Associations of Zoos and Aquariums, as well as some affiliate organizations, such as zoo veterinarians or zoo educators, from all around the world.
Some of the activities of WAZA are:
Promoting cooperation between zoological gardens and aquariums in relation to the conservation, management, and breeding of animals in captivity.
Encouraging highest standards of animal welfare and husbandry.
Promoting and coordinating cooperation between national and regional associations and their constituents.
Assist in representing zoological gardens and aquariums in other international organizations or assemblies.
Promoting wildlife conservation, environmental research, and environmental education.
WAZA has formed partnerships with leading international conservation organisations.
Together, they are committed to tackle global issues such as the illegal wildlife trade, coral-reef restoration, marine litter, sustainable palm oil and climate change.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/delhi/global-body-suspends-delhi-zoo-membership-on-welfare-of-its-lone-african-elephant-9609039/
Which one of the following organizations publishes the annual “State of Global Water Resources Report”?
World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
Explanation :
According to the State of Global Water Resource report 2023, the year 2023 marked the driest year for global rivers in over three decades.
About State of Global Water Resource Report:
It is an annual report published by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) since 2021.
It offers a comprehensive and consistent overview of water resources worldwide.
It is based on input from dozens of National Meteorological and Hydrological Services and other organizations and experts.
Highlights of the 2023 Report:
The year 2023 marked the driest year for global rivers in 33 years.
The last five consecutive years have recorded widespread below-normal conditions for river flows, with reservoir inflows following a similar pattern.
It notes that 2023 was also the second consecutive year in which all regions in the world with glaciers reported ice loss, the year in which “glaciers suffered the largest mass loss ever registered in 50 years.
More than 600 gigatons (Gt) of water were lost across all glaciated regions of the world.
The report says 3.6 billion people currently face inadequate access to water at least one month a year, and this is expected to increase to more than 5 billion by 2050.
The world is far off-track with Sustainable Development Goal 6 on water and sanitation.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/world/2024/Oct/08/2023-driest-year-for-global-rivers-in-over-three-decades-wmo-report
Consider the following statements regarding the World Telecommunication Standardization Assembly:
- It is one of the three world conferences organized by the International Telecommunication Union.
- It is held once in every four years and plays a pivotal role in setting global telecommunication standards.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The World Telecommunication Standardization Assembly (WTSA) of International Telecommunication Union (ITU) will be held in New Delhi from October 14 to 24, 2024.
It has been held every four years since 2002.
It serves as the governing conference of the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) Standardisation Sector (ITU-T).
It is one of the three world conferences organized by the International Telecommunication Union.
It define the work program, working methods, and structure of study groups” for ITU’s Telecommunication Standardization Sector
This event plays a pivotal role in setting global telecommunication standards, making India’s hosting of the WTSA a significant milestone.
WTSA 2024 will be preceded by the Global Standards Symposium (GSS) on October 14, 2024, at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
The GSS is a high-level forum for policy debates on ICT standardization, addressing its evolving dynamics and technical implications.
Key facts about International Telecommunication Union
It is the United Nations specialized agency for information and communication technologies.
It was established in 1865 as the International Telegraph Union.
In 1947 the ITU became a specialized agency of the United Nations.
It is an intergovernmental organization that coordinates between governments and private sector bodies with respect to global telecommunication and information communication technology (ICT) services.
Member countries: It has a membership of 193 countries and more than 1000 companies, universities and international and regional organizations.
Functions:
allocate global radio spectrum and satellite orbits;
coordination and setting of technical standards related to telecommunication/ICT;
work to improve access to ICTs in underserved communities worldwide;
India and ITU: India has been an active member of the ITU since 1869 and has been a regular member of the ITU Council since 1952.
Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2062953
Consider the following statements regarding Black Carbon:
- It is formed by the complete combustion of wood and fossil fuels.
- It influences cloud formation and impacts regional circulation and rainfall patterns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
According to a new study, India’s reliance on kerosene-based lamps accounts for about 10 per cent of the total residential black carbon emissions.
It is commonly known as soot, is a component of fine particulate air pollution (PM2.5).
It is formed by the incomplete combustion of wood and fossil fuels, a process which also creates carbon dioxide (CO2), carbon monoxide, and volatile organic compounds.
Most black carbon emissions in India arise from burning biomass, such as cow dung or straw, in traditional cookstoves.
It has a warming impact on climate that is 460-1,500 times stronger than CO2.
Impacts on Environment and human Health
It warms the atmosphere because it is very effective at absorbing light.
It exacerbates warming of the air and surfaces in regions where it is concentrated, altering weather patterns and ecosystem cycles.
It lasts only days to weeks in the atmosphere but has significant direct and indirect impacts on the climate, snow and ice, agriculture, and human health.
It also influences cloud formation and impacts regional circulation and rainfall patterns.
When deposited on ice and snow, black carbon and co-emitted particles reduce surface albedo (the ability to reflect sunlight) and heat the surface.
It contributes to global warming and poses severe risks. Studies have found a direct link between exposure to black carbon and a higher risk of heart disease, birth complications, and premature death.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/energy/indias-potent-black-carbon-emissions-from-kerosene-lamps-make-up-10-of-total-residential-emissions-study
Consider the following statements regarding Unified Genomic Chip:
- It helps farmers identify high-quality cattle early and enhance dairy farming efficiency in India.
- It is developed by the National Dairy Development Board of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India launched two programs of the Animal Husbandry Department for the benefit of the livestock - ‘ Indigenous Sex Sorted Semen’ and ‘ Unified Genomic Chip’.
It aimed at helping farmers identify high-quality cattle early and enhance dairy farming efficiency in India.
The chip comes in two versions
The ‘Gau Chip’ for cattle and the ‘Mahish Chip’ for buffalo.
It is developed by the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying (DAHD), under the Ministry of Animal Husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries.
Purpose: The purpose of this chip is to help the farmers to make informed decisions on animal selection by identifying young, high-quality bulls at an early age.
Benefit: The chip is tailored for Indian cattle breeds and will help improve the quality of cattle and enhance the dairy farming sector.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/industry/agriculture/pm-modi-launches-unified-genomic-chip-for-cattle-how-will-it-help-farmers-124100500405_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding MicroRNA:
- It helps in fine-tuning the expression of genes in different cell types and under varying conditions.
- It is a small and non-coding molecule of RNA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The 2024 Nobel Prize for Medicine has been awarded to scientists Victor Ambros and Gary Ruvkun for their discovery of microRNA — tiny molecules which play a crucial role in how genes function.
MicroRNAs, or miRNAs, are small, non-coding molecules of RNA.
They are typically around 19-24 nucleotides long and play an important role in determining how much messenger RNA (mRNA), which carries genetic information, eventually gets translated into protein.
Role in human body
These microRNAs act as molecular switches, fine-tuning the expression of genes in different cell types and under varying conditions.
They regulates the production of proteins by bonding with and subsequently silencing the mRNA at an appropriate juncture. The process is called post-transcriptional gene regulation.
MicroRNAs help fine-tune various cellular processes like development, growth, and metabolism. Their role is essential in maintaining normal cell function, and disruptions in microRNA activity have been linked to diseases such as cancer.
Mutations in genes coding for microRNAs have been found in humans, causing conditions such as congenital hearing loss, eye and skeletal disorders.
Significance of microRNA discovery
The discovery of microRNAs has provided scientists with new tools to investigate gene regulation and has significantly expanded our understanding of how genetic information is processed and utilized in living organisms.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/2024-nobel-prize-in-physiology-or-medicine-what-is-the-research-that-won-the-prize-explained/article68728993.ece
With reference to Indian Wild Ass, consider the following statements:
- It is mainly found in the Little Rann of Kutch in Gujarat.
- It is placed under Schedule- IV of the Wildlife Protection Act (1972).
- It helps in seed dispersal and promotion of vegetation growth in its habitat.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The population of wild asses in Gujarat has been estimated at 7,672, as per the 10th Wild Ass Population Estimation (WAPE) conducted by the Gujarat government earlier this year.
It is a sub-species of Asian Wild Ass (Equus hemionus).
It is locally called as khur in Gujarat region.
It possesses remarkable characteristics, such as its ability to survive in the extreme conditions of Gujarat’s Wild Ass Sanctuary.
The primary food source for these animals is the grass that grows on the islands in the desert.
Appearance: It is characterized by distinctive white markings on the anterior part of the rump and on the posterior part of the shoulder and a stripe down the back that is bordered by white.
Distribution: The khur was formerly widespread in the arid zone of northwestern India and Pakistan, westwards through much of central Asia. It is now limited to the Little Rann of Kutch in Gujarat.
Habitat: Desert and grassland ecosystems.
Conservation Status:
IUCN: Near threatened.
CITES: Appendix II
Wildlife Protection Act (1972): Schedule-I
Ecological Significance: It is helpful in seed dispersal in the area which helps in promoting vegetation growth and diversity. Besides, it is helpful in habitat creation for other species as it clears pathways by consuming grasses.
Threats: Increased human presence, both for salt farming and agriculture, extensive cattle grazing, poses a major threat to the delicate ecosystem and its wildlife.
Irrigation canals that bring water to the southern rim of the Little Rann can also add salinity to the soil.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/ahmedabad/gujarat-wild-asses-endangered-species-govt-9608398/
Which of the following is not considered as a revenue receipt of the Government of India?
A. Grants in aid received from the USA. B. Interest received on loans given to Sri Lanka. C. Corporate tax levied on Reliance Industries profit income. D. Loans taken by the Government of India from the International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Loans taken by the Government of India from the International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Explanation :
Revenue receipts can be defined as those receipts that neither create any liability nor cause any reduction in the assets of the government. They are regular and recurring in nature and the government receives them in the normal course of activities. Revenue receipts include the following:
Grants in Aid Contributions: These are receipts from foreign governments and multilateral bodies as a gift to the government which need not be repaid. Thus, grants in aid received from the USA forms a part of the Revenue Receipts of the Government of India.
Interest receipts: It is the interest income from the loans given by the Central Government to State governments and other government bodies. Thus, interest received on loans given to Sri Lanka forms a part of the Revenue Receipts of the Government of India.
Corporate Tax: It is levied on a company’s profit income.
Capital receipts are loans taken by the government from the public, borrowings from foreign countries and institutes, and borrowings from the RBI. Recovery of loans given by the Centre to states and others is also included in capital receipts. Thus, loans taken by the Government of India from the IMF comes under the Capital Receipts of the Government of India.
Therefore, option (d) is the answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the crowding-out effect:
- The government adopts expansionary fiscal policy to avoid crowding out of private investment in an economy.
- A high fiscal deficit may lead to a crowding-out effect in an economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The crowding-out effect is an economic theory arguing that rising public sector spending drives down or even eliminates private sector spending.
Sometimes, the government adopts an expansionary fiscal policy stance and increases its spending to boost economic activity. This leads to an increase in interest rates. Increased interest rates affect private investment decisions. With higher interest rates, the cost for funds to be invested increases and affects their accessibility to debt financing mechanisms. This leads to lesser investment ultimately and crowds out the impact of the initial rise in the total investment spending. So, statement 1 is not correct.
When a government borrows to meet its spending needs, it causes a decrease in the quantity of funds that is available to meet the investment needs of the private sector. Thus, a higher fiscal deficit may also lead to a crowding-out effect in an economy as the government funds this deficit through increased borrowing. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to public accounts of India:
- Public Account funds do not belong to the government and have to be finally paid back to the persons and authorities that deposited them.
- Expenditures from the Public Accounts are not required to be approved by the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Public Account of India accounts for flows for those transactions where the government is merely acting as a banker. This fund was constituted under Article 266 (2) of the Constitution. All money received other than those included in the Consolidated Fund of India are held in Public Accounts of India. There are five major heads of accounts under the Public Account — (i) Small Savings, Provident Fund and Other Accounts (ii) Reserve Funds (iii) Deposits and Advances (iv) Suspense and Miscellaneous and (v) Remittances.
Examples of those are provident funds, small savings and so on. Public Account funds do not belong to the government and have to be finally paid back to the persons and authorities that deposited them. Because of this nature of the fund, expenditures from it are not required to be approved by the Parliament. So, statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Fiscal Drag’?
A situation wherein inflation or income growth moves taxpayers into higher tax brackets.
Explanation :
Fiscal drag is an economic term whereby inflation or income growth moves taxpayers into higher tax brackets. Therefore, fiscal drag has the effect of raising government tax revenue without explicitly raising tax rates.
Option b refers to the concept of Automatic stabilizers. It is a type of fiscal policy designed to offset fluctuations in a nation’s economic activity through their normal operation without additional, timely authorization by the government or policymakers. Certain government policies are used as stabilizers that automatically adjust tax rates and transfer payments in a manner that is intended to stabilize incomes, consumption, and business spending over the business cycle.
option c talks about the Fiscal Cliff. It is a combination of expiring tax cuts and reduced government spending to correct imbalance in budget and check fiscal stimulus. So, statement c is not correct.
Fiscal policy - Fiscal policy refers to the use of government spending and tax policies to influence economic conditions, especially macroeconomic conditions, including aggregate demand for goods and services, employment, inflation, and economic growth.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of ‘off-budget borrowing’ by the Government of India?
It includes the deferred payments of bills by the Centre.
Explanation :
Off-budget borrowings are loans that are taken not by the Centre directly, but by another public institution which borrows on the directions of the central government. Such borrowings are used to fulfill the government’s expenditure needs. But since the liability of the loan is not formally on the Centre, the loan is not included in the national fiscal deficit.
Parliament does not exercise control over these borrowings. A Comptroller and Auditor General report of 2019 had pointed out that this route of financing puts major sources of funds outside the control of Parliament. “Such off-budget financing is not part of the calculation of the fiscal indicators despite fiscal implications,” said the report.
Off-budget borrowings include -
The loans that public sector undertakings were supposed to take on the government’s behalf, and,
The deferred payments of bills and loans by the Centre.
Fiscal deficit is the most important metric to understand the financial health of any government’s finances. As such, it is keenly watched by rating agencies — both inside and outside the country. That is why most governments want to restrict their fiscal deficit to a respectable number. This helps keep the country’s fiscal deficit within acceptable limits & hence, doesn’t affect the credit rating of a nation.
Consider the following statements with reference to Government’s dividend receipts from the Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE):
- Dividends and profits received from the CPSE form a part of capital receipts of the Government.
- There is no minimum ceiling of dividends that a CPSE is mandated to pay the Government.
- Indian Railways is not required to pay dividends to the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3 only
Explanation :
Non-Tax Revenue is the recurring income earned by the government from sources other than taxes. The dividends and profits received from central public sector enterprises (CPSEs) form a part of Non-Tax Revenue. So, statement 1 is not correct.
According to the guidelines of the Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM), CPSEs are required to pay a minimum annual dividend of 30% of profit after tax or 5% of net worth, whichever is higher to the Central Government. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Before 2017, Railways paid a return on the budgetary support it received from the government every year, known as dividend. The rate of dividend was about 5%.
After the merger of the Railway Budget with the Union Budget from 2017-18, Railways are not required to pay dividend to the central government. So, statement 3 is correct.
Which of the following are the components of the ‘Twin Deficit’ problem faced by many countries?
- Fiscal deficit
- Revenue deficit
- Capital account deficit
- Current account deficit
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 and 4 only
Explanation :
Economies that have both a fiscal deficit and a current account deficit are often referred to as having “twin deficits.”
A fiscal deficit, or budget deficit, occurs when a nation’s spending exceeds its revenues.
A current account is a measure of a country’s trade and financial transactions with the rest of the world. This includes the difference between the value of its exports of goods and services and its imports, as well as net payments on foreign investments and other transfers from abroad.
Twin deficits imply that the country’s economy is importing more than it is exporting, and the country’s government is spending more money than it is generating. India is a country that often suffers from twin deficit challenges.
Which of the following are the possible impacts of a high fiscal deficit in an economy?
- Increase in the interest rates
- Downgrading of the country’s credit rating
- Increase in tax rates
- Balance of payment (BoP) crisis
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
The difference between total revenue and total expenditure of the government is termed as fiscal deficit. It is an indication of the total borrowings needed by the government.
A deficit is usually financed through borrowing from either the central bank of the country or raising money from capital markets by issuing different instruments like treasury bills and bonds. When the governments borrow more to finance their fiscal deficits and accumulate more debt, interest rates tend to go up.
A high fiscal deficit increases the danger of credit rating agencies downgrading the country’s credit rating as there is a spike in government borrowing to finance the deficits and the government’s ability to meet its debt obligations is under doubt.
Governments may also impose higher taxes to cover the burden of a high fiscal deficit and generate more revenue.
Larger fiscal deficits have adverse effects on balance of payment (BoP) too. External loans raised to finance the fiscal deficit can lead to a BoP crisis.
Consider the following statements with reference to Monetization of Deficit.
- The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act of 2003 prohibits the RBI from monetizing the Central Government’s deficit for any reason.
- It leads to an increase in inflation in an economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Monetized Deficit means the increase in the net RBI credit to the central government, such that the monetary needs of the government could be met easily.
Though the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 barred the Central Government from borrowing from the Reserve Bank of India, it has provided an escape clause. Accordingly, the RBI could subscribe to the primary issue of central government securities in case the government exceeds the fiscal deficit target on grounds of national security, act of war, national calamity, collapse of agriculture, etc. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Since, a monetized deficit involves the central bank printing more currency to finance the debt; this increases the money supply in the economy leading to inflation. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Performance Budgeting:
- Funding is based on program efficiency and necessity rather than budget history.
- It was first introduced in 2015 in the Central Ministries in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Performance budgeting is a system of presenting public expenditure in terms of functions and programmes reflecting the government output and its cost; whereas, Zero-based budgeting (ZBB) is a budgeting process that allocates funding based on program efficiency and necessity rather than budget history. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The government is obligated to report on “what is done” and “how much is done” for the good of the people in the Performance Budget. The ‘Outcome Budget’ is how the Performance Budget is referred to in India. It is designed to serve the purposes of long range planning.
A ‘Performance Budget’ is one in which the outcome of an activity is used as the basis for a budget. The performance budget was created in the United States for the first time ever in 1949.The Central government announced its decision to introduce performance budgeting in four central ministries in 1968. In 1977-78, about 32 developmental departments in the Central government introduced performance budgeting in their selected units. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Fiscal consolidation is one of the objectives of India’s economic policy. Which among the following would help in fiscal consolidation?
- Increasing taxes
- Getting more loans
- Reducing subsidies
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Fiscal consolidation refers to the ways and means of narrowing the fiscal deficit. The difference between total revenue and total expenditure of the government is termed as fiscal deficit. It is an indication of the total borrowings needed by the government. Hence, increasing revenue collection by increasing taxes and decreasing the total expenditure by reducing subsidies of the government can lead to fiscal consolidation. So, point 1 and point 3 are correct.
Loan taken is considered as a liability which governments are supposed to pay at a later stage. Hence, getting more loans will only increase the fiscal deficit. So, point 2 is not correct.
Which one of the following best describes the term ‘Effective Capital Expenditure’?
It is the Capital Expenditure taken together with provision made for creation of capital assets through Grants-In-Aid to States.
Explanation :
The ‘Effective Capital Expenditure’ is the Capital Expenditure taken together with the provision made for creation of capital assets through Grants-in-Aid to States.
According to the Budget 2022-23, Effective Capital Expenditure of the Central Government is estimated at Rs. 10.68 lakh crore in 2022-23, which will be about 4.1% of GDP.
Consider the following statements with reference to Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003:
- It mandates the Government to bring down the Current Account Deficit to zero within a certain period.
- It permits exceeding the fiscal deficit targets only in the case of a Financial Emergency imposed under the Indian Constitution.
- Borrowings by the Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) are exempted from the purview of this Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3 only
Explanation :
The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003 sets a target for the government to establish financial discipline in the economy, improve the management of public funds and reduce fiscal deficit. The FRBM Act provides specific targets to be achieved to reduce revenue deficit and fiscal deficit only. Reducing Current Account Deficit is not a mandate of FRBM Act. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The FRBM Act provides for an ‘escape clause’ in which the exceeding annual fiscal deficit target is permitted on the grounds of national security, act of war, national calamity, collapse of agriculture severely affecting farm output and incomes, structural reforms in the economy with unanticipated fiscal implications, decline in real output growth of a quarter by at least three per cent points below its average of the previous four quarters. Imposition of Financial Emergency is not a ground. So, statement 2 is not correct.
‘Off budget financing’ also known as ‘extra’ budget borrowing is used by the Centre to finance its expenditures while keeping the debt off from its annual statement. Such borrowings are not counted in the calculation of the fiscal deficit under the FRBM ACT.
Since, the borrowings by the PSUs do not form part of the budget and are termed as ‘Off budget financing’, they are not counted under the FRBM Act. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Capital to Risk-weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR):
- It is the bank’s capital in relation to its risk-weighted assets and current liabilities.
- Indian banks must maintain a higher CRAR than those stipulated by the Basel III norms.
- Regional Rural Banks are exempted from maintaining CRAR in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The capital adequacy ratio, also known as the capital-to-risk weighted assets ratio (CRAR), is a bank’s capital in relation to its risk-weighted assets and current liabilities. Central banks and bank regulators decide to prevent commercial banks from taking excess leverage and becoming insolvent in the process. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Basel III norms stipulated a capital to risk-weighted assets of 8%. However, as per RBI norms, Indian scheduled commercial banks must maintain a CAR of 9%, while Indian public sector banks are emphasised to maintain a CAR of 12%. So, statement 2 is correct.
According to RBI’s mandate, RRBs need to maintain CRAR like other banks. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding RBI Retail Direct scheme:
- It allows retail investors to buy and sell government securities online in primary and secondary markets.
- Under the scheme, a retail investor can take a loan against securities available in his/her account.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
RBI Retail Direct Scheme allows retail investors to buy and sell government securities (G-sec) online both in the primary and secondary markets. According to details provided by RBI, these small investors can now invest in G-Secs by opening a gilt securities account with the RBI. The account opened will be called Retail Direct Gilt (RDG) Account. So, statement 1 is correct.
Once the account is opened, retail investors can buy government securities in the primary market, where government bonds are issued for the first time or buy/sell the existing government bonds in the secondary market. Securities purchased will be credited to the RDG Account on the day of settlement. As per RBI, no fee will be charged for opening and maintaining ‘Retail Direct Gilt account’.
A nomination facility will also be provided to the registered user. There can be a maximum of two nominees. In the event of death of the registered investor, the securities available in the RDG Account can be transmitted to the RDG Account or any other Government securities account of the nominee on submission of death certificate and transmission form.
A retail investor can take a loan against the securities available in the RDG account. Retail investors will have a facility to gift government securities to other retail investors. So, statement 2 is correct.
“It refers to offer of shares against distributable profit to existing shareholders. The shareholders share in the profit is converted as shares. It is also known as scrip issue or capitalisation issue”. This is the most likely description of
Bonus issue
Explanation :
Private placement means offering shares directly to financial institutions, mutual funds and high worth investors. Private placements are made to Qualified Institutional Buyers.
Rights issue refers to the offer of security to the existing shareholders in the Follow-on Public Offering. It flows to the existing shareholders as a matter of legal right.
Bonus issue refers to the offer of shares against distributable profit to existing shareholders. The shareholders share in the profit is converted as shares. It is also known as a scrip issue or capitalisation issue.
Sweat equity issue denotes the offer of shares to employees or Directors of the company, which issue shares as a recognition of their hard labour(sweat), which results in a contribution to the company in the form of intellectual property rights, technical know-how, etc. It is usually issued at a discounted price.
Consider the following statements:
- In the event of the liquidation of a business, the holders of its bonds have the last claim on any residual cash.
- While stockholders can vote on specific company issues, bondholders have no voting rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Stocks are securities that represent a fraction of the ownership of the issuing corporation. Bonds are a fixed obligation to pay that are issued by a corporation or government entity to investors. The difference between stocks and bonds is that stocks are shares in the ownership of a business, while bonds are a form of debt that the promises to repay at some point in the future.
In the event of the liquidation of a business, the holders of its stock have the last claim on any residual cash, whereas the holders of its bonds have a considerably higher priority, depending on the terms of the bonds. This means that stocks are a riskier investment than bonds. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The holders of stock can vote on certain company issues, such as the election of directors. Bondholders have no voting rights. So, statement 2 is correct.
Which of the following functions are performed by Micro ATMS?
- Cash Deposits
- Cash Withdrawal
- Fund Transfer
- Balance Enquiry
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
Micro ATM is a device that is used by a million Business Correspondents to deliver basic banking services. The platform will enable Business Correspondents (who could be a local kirana shop owner and will act as ‘micro ATM’) to conduct instant transactions.Micro ATM
The micro platform will enable function through low cost devices (micro ATMs) that will be connected to banks across the country. This would enable a person to instantly deposit or withdraw funds regardless of the bank associated with a particular BC. This device will be based on a mobile phone connection and would be made available at every BC. Customers would just have to get their identity authenticated and withdraw or put money into their bank accounts. This money will come from the cash drawer of the BC. Essentially, BCs will act as bank for the customers and all they need to do is verify the authenticity of customer using customers’ UID. The basic transaction types, to be supported by micro ATM, are Deposit, Withdrawal, Fund transfer and Balance enquiry.
Consider the following statements with reference to Additional Tier-1 (AT-1) bonds:
- These are unsecured bonds that carry no maturity date.
- Banks issuing AT-1 bonds can skip interest payouts for a particular year or reduce bonds face value.
- Banks can issue these bonds on an electronic platform, and only institutional investors can subscribe to them.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
AT-1, short for Additional Tier-1 bonds, are a type of unsecured, perpetual bonds that banks issue to shore up their core capital base to meet the Basel-III norms.
These bonds are perpetual and carry no maturity date. Instead, they carry call options that allow banks to redeem them after five or ten years. But banks are not obliged to use this call option and can pay only interest on these bonds for eternity. So, statement 1 is correct.
Banks issuing AT-1 bonds can skip interest payouts for a particular year or even reduce the bonds’ face value without causing a ruckus with their investors, provided their capital ratios fall below certain threshold levels. These thresholds are specified in their offer terms. So, statement 2 is correct.
If the RBI feels that a bank is tottering on the brink and needs a rescue, it can simply ask the bank to cancel its outstanding AT-1 bonds without consulting its investors. This is what has happened to YES Bank’s AT-1 bond-holders, who are said to have invested ₹10,800 crore.
Last year, SEBI had tightened its regulations of additional tier-1 bonds or AT-1 bonds and ensured that these risky instruments are less accessible to retail investors. This it did by ensuring that banks could issue these bonds only on an electronic platform, only institutional investors could subscribe to them and introduced a minimum allotment size and trading lot size of ₹ one crore. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Oil bonds:
- These are issued by Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) to offset losses that they suffer.
- Oil bonds qualify as Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) securities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The government issues oil bonds to compensate Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) to offset losses that they suffer from shielding consumers from rising crude oil prices. The government issued these bonds mainly from 2005 to 2010. So, statement 1 is not correct.
These bonds were issued to OMCs in place of cash when the central government used to administer or fix petrol and diesel prices. The government fixed petrol and diesel prices to cushion consumers from costly international crude oil price shocks. For instance, previously, if crude oil prices were high, oil refining and marketing companies would technically sell petrol and diesel at retail outlets at a loss. The government, however, compensated oil companies by issuing long-term bonds that they could redeem at a later date, typically ranging between 15-20 years.
These bonds are, in essence, promissory notes of deferred payment of subsidies that the government owes to oil marketing companies. Since the government did not subsidise these companies upfront, these payouts did not show up in budget documents until the repayment of the principal or interest components took place.
Moreover, oil bonds do not qualify as statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) securities, making them less liquid when compared to other government securities. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Commercial Papers:
- These are long term capital market debt instruments issued by companies to raise funds.
- These are issued in the form of a promissory note and are not backed by collateral.
- CPs are usually sold at a discount to their face value and carry higher interest rates than bonds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Commercial Paper, also called CP, is a short-term debt instrument issued by companies to raise funds generally for a time period up to one year. It is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of a promissory note and was introduced in India for the first time in 1990. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Companies that enjoy high ratings from rating agencies often use CPs to diversify their sources of short-term borrowings. This gives investors an additional instrument. They are typically issued by large banks or corporations to cover short-term receivables and meet short-term financial obligations, such as funding for a new project.
CPs have a minimum maturity of seven days and a maximum of up to one year from the date of issue. However, the maturity date of the instrument should typically not go beyond the date up to which the credit rating of the issuer is valid. They can be issued in denominations of Rs 5 lakh or multiples thereof.
Since such instruments are not backed by collateral, only firms with high ratings from a recognised credit rating agency can sell such commercial papers at a reasonable price. So, statement 2 is correct.
CPs are usually sold at a discount to their face value and carry higher interest rates than bonds. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements:
- Hallmarking is mandatory for selling diamond jewellery in India.
- Gold watches and fountain pens are exempted from mandatory hallmarking.
- The standards for hallmarking for jewellery are prescribed by the India Bullion and Jewellers Association.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Hallmarking is the accurate determination and official recording of the proportionate content of precious metal in precious metal articles. Hallmarks are thus official marks used in many countries as a guarantee of purity or fineness of precious metal articles.Must Know Facts About Gold Hallmarking - The Jewellery Diaries
With effect from 16 June 2021, Hallmarking was made mandatory for gold jewellery/ artefacts in only in 256 districts in India and for jewellers having annual turnover above Rs 40 lakh. The government notified two categories—gold jewellery and gold artefacts; and silver jewellery and silver artefacts—under the purview of hallmarking. So, hallmarking in India is available for jewellery of only two metals—gold and silver. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The gold watches, fountain pens and special types of jewellery such as Kundan, Polki and Jadau are exempted from hallmarking in India. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), a statutory body functioning under Department of Consumer affairs, Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution, Government of India fixes the standards for hallmarking jewellery in India. So, statement 3 is not correc
Consider the following statements with reference to National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP):
- It is designed to unlock the value of investments in brownfield public sector assets by tapping institutional and long-term capital.
- NMP helps realise value from idle assets by transferring ownership in the projects to private parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The NMP is designed to unlock the value of investments in brownfield public sector assets by tapping institutional and long-term capital. So, government-owned roads, railways, power plants, gas pipelines, airports, ports, warehouses etc could be leased out for a specified period to non-government entities. The government will receive money for the transfer either in the form of an upfront payment or as a revenue share. So, statement 1 is correct.
In a monetisation transaction, the government is basically transferring revenue rights to private parties for a specified transaction period in return for upfront money, a revenue share, and commitment of investments in the assets. Real estate investment trusts (REITs) and infrastructure investment trusts (InvITs), for instance, are the key structures used to monetise assets in the roads and power sectors. Under NMP, the primary ownership of the assets under these structures, hence, continues to be with the Government with the framework envisaging hand back of assets to the public authority at the end of transaction life. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP):
- It is a group of social and economic infrastructure projects that aims to achieve the $5 trillion economy by 2024-25.
- Entire cost of the NIP is shared equally between the Central and the concerned State Governments.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) is a group of social and economic infrastructure projects in India over a period of five years with an initial sanctioned amount of ₹102 lakh crore to achieve the $5 Trillion economy by 2024-25. NIP will cover the period from 2019-20 to 2024-25. So, statement 1 is correct.
As per the NIP, Central Government (39 per cent) and State Government (39 per cent) are expected to have an equal share of funding of the projects followed by the private sector (22 per cent). Since the private sector would absorb 22 per cent of the project cost, the state and the central governments will not bear the entire cost of the project. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Which of the following statements is/are correct about Treasury Bills?
- They were first issued in India post-1991 reforms.
- Generally, they are issued at a discount and redeemed at par.
- Currently, retail investors cannot subscribe to treasury bills in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2 only
Explanation:
Treasury bills were first issued in India in 1917. They are issued via auctions conducted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) at regular intervals. Individuals, trusts, institutions, and banks can purchase T-Bills. But they are usually held by financial institutions. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Treasury bills are issued at a discount to the original value, and the buyer gets the original value upon maturity. For example, a Rs 100 treasury bill can be availed of at Rs 95, but the buyer is paid Rs 100 on the maturity date. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Reserve Bank of India recently unveiled a scheme allowing retail investors to participate in the government securities market directly. They can open and maintain a ‘Retail Direct Gilt Account’ (RDG Account) with the RBI through a portal, which will also provide access to primary issuance of G-Secs (T-Bills) and the secondary market as well. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Amangarh Tiger Reserve lies in which one of the following states?
Uttar Pradesh
Explanation :
The body of an eight-year-old tiger was found on the border of Amangarh Tiger Reserve recently.
About Amangarh Tiger Reserve:
It is situated in the Bijnor district of Uttar Pradesh.
It encompasses an area of approximately 9,500 hectares (equivalent to 95 square kilometres).
It lies adjacent to the Corbett Tiger Reserve, serving as a crucial corridor for Asiatic Elephants, Tigers, and various other wildlife species.
It was originally part of the Jim Corbett National Park, and after the state of Uttarakhand was carved out of Uttar Pradesh, Jim Corbett went to Uttarakhand, and Amangarh remained in Uttar Pradesh.
Flora: The vegetation of the tiger reserve is a combination of grasslands, wetlands, and dense forest.
Fauna:
Mammals: Tiger, Elephant, Swamp Deer, Sambar, Cheetal, Hog Deer, Kakar, Langur, Sloth Bear, Porcupine, Otter.
Birds: Hornbill, Red Jungle Fowl, Pea Fowl, Bengal Florican, Fishing Eagle, Serpent Eagle, Osprey, Woodpeckers, Shama, Indian Pitta, Paradise Flycatcher, Orioles, Emerald Dove.
Reptiles: Monitor Lizard, Turtles, Python, Gangetic Dolphin, Mugger, Gharia, etc.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/others/tiger-found-dead-in-amangarh-tiger-reserve-101728315543500.html
Consider the following statements regarding Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA):
- It has powers to take suo-moto actions, recall products, and order reimbursement of the price of goods/services.
- It has powers to pass orders of discontinuation of practices that are unfair and prejudicial to consumers’ interests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Ola Electric, an electric two-wheeler manufacturer, recently received a show-cause notice from the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) for alleged violations of consumer rights, misleading advertisements, and unfair trade practices.
About Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA):
The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 was notified on August 9, 2019 and came into force on July 20, 2020.
It replaced the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
Under the provisions of the Act, the CCPAwas established in July 2020.
CCPA aims to protect the rights of consumers by cracking down on unfair trade practices and false and misleading advertisements that are detrimental to the interests of the public and consumers.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution.
CCPA is empowered to:
Protect, promote, and enforce the rights of consumers as a class, and prevent violation of consumers rights under this Act.
Prevent unfair trade practices and ensure that no person engages himself in unfair trade practices.
Ensure that no false or misleading advertisement is made of any goods or services which contravenes the provisions of this Act or the rules or regulations made thereunder.
Ensure that no person takes part in the publication of any advertisement which is false or misleading.
Composition:
It will have a Chief Commissioner as head, and only two other commissioners as members — one of whom will deal with matters relating to goods while the other will look into cases relating to services.
Powers:
The CCPA can make interventions when necessary to prevent consumer detriment arising from unfair trade practices and to initiate class action, including enforcing recall, refund and return of products.
The CCPA has an investigation wing, headed by a director-general, which may conduct inquiry or investigation into consumer law violations.
The CCPA has been granted wide powers to take suo-moto actions, recall products, order reimbursement of the price of goods/services, cancel licenses, and file class actions suits, if a consumer complaint affects more than one individual.
The CCPA has powers to pass orders of discontinuation of practices that are unfair and prejudicial to consumers’ interests and impose penalties in cases of false or misleading advertisements.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/companies/ola-electric-receives-show-cause-notice-from-central-consumer-protection-authority/article68732229.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Machine Learning (ML):
- It is a branch of Artificial Intelligence (AI) focused on building computer systems that learn from data.
- Using historical data as input, these algorithms can make predictions, classify information, and generate new content.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The 2024 Nobel Prize in physics has been awarded to John Hopfield and Geoffrey Hinton for foundational discoveries and inventions that enable machine learning with artificial neural networks.
About Machine Learning (ML):
ML is a branch of artificial intelligence (AI) focused on building computer systems that learn from data.
ML allows computer systems to continuously adjust and enhance themselves as they accrue more “experiences.”
ML algorithms are trained to find relationships and patterns in data.
Using historical data as input, these algorithms can make predictions, classify information, cluster data points, reduce dimensionality and even generate new content.
Examples of the latter, known as generative AI, include OpenAI’s ChatGPT, Anthropic’s Claude, and GitHub Copilot.
Training ML algorithms often demands large amounts of high-quality data to produce accurate results.
Applications:
ML is widely applicable across many industries. For example, e-commerce, social media and news organizations use recommendation engines to suggest content based on a customer’s past behavior.
In self-driving cars, ML algorithms and computer vision play a critical role in safe road navigation.
In healthcare, ML can aid in diagnosis and suggest treatment plans.
Other common ML use cases include fraud detection, spam filtering, malware threat detection, predictive maintenance, and business process automation.
What is Deep Learning?
It is a method in AI that teaches computers to process data in a way that is inspired by the human brain.
It is a subset of ML which simulates the complex decision-making power of the human brain.
Deep learning models can recognize complex patterns in pictures, text, sounds, and other data to produce accurate insights and predictions.
Deep learning methods are used to automate tasks that typically require human intelligence, such as describing images or transcribing a sound file into text.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/nobel-prize-in-physics-2024-winners-john-hopfield-geoffrey-e-hinton/article68732003.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Mount Dhaulagiri:
- It is the second-highest mountain in the world.
- It is located in Nepal and is part of the Himalayan Mountain range.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Five Russian mountaineers recently lost their lives during an expedition on Mount Dhaulagiri.
About Mount Dhaulagiri:
It is the seventh-highest mountain in the world.
It has an elevation of 8,167 meters (26,795 feet) above sea level.
It is located in the Dhaulagiri Himal Mountain range of west-central Nepal and is part of the Himalayan Mountain range.
It is also one of the “eight-thousanders” — the fourteen mountains on Earth that are more than 8,000 metres (26,247 ft) above sea level.
Dhaulagiri means “white mountain” in Sanskrit, and it is known for its snowy peaks and glaciers.
It is the highest mountain located entirely within Nepal.
It extends about 120km from the Kaligandaki River to the Bheri River in the west.
It is also the highest point of the Gandaki River Basin.
It is one of the most challenging mountains to climb due to its difficult terrain and unpredictable weather conditions.
The first successful expedition to Mt. Dhaulagiri was led by the Swiss climber, Max Eiselin, in 1960.
Henceonly statement 2 is correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/south-asia/fall-claims-lives-of-five-russian-climbers-on-nepals-mount-dhaulagiri/articleshow/114039417.cms
Consider the following:
- Indonesia
- Vietnam
- Myanmar
- Sri Lanka
- Singapore
How many of the above countries are members of Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)?
Only four
Explanation :
The Prime Minister is set to strengthen India’s strategic ties with Southeast Asia as he heads to Vientiane, Laos, for the 21st ASEAN-India Summit.
About Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN):
It is an intergovernmental organization of ten Southeast Asian countries.
It was established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand, with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration).
It aims to promote economic and security cooperation among its ten members.
Members:
Founding members of ASEAN: Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand.
Brunei joined in 1984, Vietnam in 1995, Laos and Myanmar in 1997, and Cambodia in 1999.
Secretariat: Jakarta, Indonesia.
Fundamental principles of ASEAN are:
Mutual respect for the independence, sovereignty, equality, territorial integrity, and national identity of all nations.
The right of every state to lead its national existence free from external interference, subversion, or coercion.
Non-interference in the internal affairs of one another.
Settlement of differences or disputes in a peaceful manner.
Renunciation of the threat or use of force.
Effective cooperation among themselves.
The institutional mechanism of ASEAN include:
ASEAN Summit: It meets annually to discuss regional issues and set policy directions.
ASEAN Coordinating Council (ACC): It oversees the implementation of ASEAN agreements and decisions.
ASEAN Secretariat: It supports and facilitates ASEAN’s activities and initiatives.
ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF): It is a platform for dialogue and cooperation on political and security issues among ASEAN member countries and their partners.
Decision Making: It is done through consultation and consensus.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.financialexpress.com/world-news/asean-india-summit-2024-pm-heads-to-laos-trade-connectivity-security-on-agenda/3635025/
Consider the following statements regarding Trachoma:
- It is a bacterial infection that affects the human eyes.
- It is a contagious infection and the World Health Organisation declared it as a neglected tropical disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the World Health Organisation (WHO) has declared that the Government of India has eliminated Trachoma as a public health problem becoming the third country in the South-East Asia Region to achieve this milestone.
It is a bacterial infection that affects the eyes.
It is caused by the bacterium Chlamydia Trachomatis.
How does it spreads?
It is contagious; spreading through contact with the eyes, eyelids, nose or throat secretions of infected people, if left untreated it causes irreversible blindness.
It is found in communities who are living in poor environmental conditions.
WHO has termed Trachoma as a neglected tropical disease and its estimation suggests that 150 million people worldwide are affected by Trachoma and 6 million of them are blind or at risk of visually disabling complications.
Initiatives of Government of India
The Government of India launched the National Trachoma Control Program in 1963 and later on Trachoma control efforts were integrated into India’s National Program for Control of Blindness (NPCB).
As a result, in 2017, India was declared free from infectious Trachoma. However, surveillance continued for trachoma cases in all the districts of India from 2019 onwards till 2024.
The National Trachomatous Trichiasis (TT only) Survey was also carried out in 200 endemic districts of the country under National Programme for Control of Blindness & Visual Impairment (NPCBVI) from 2021-24, which was a mandate set by WHO in order to declare that India has eliminated Trachoma as a public health problem.
To eliminate trachoma as a public health problem, WHO recommends the SAFE strategy.
The SAFE strategy includes: Surgery to treat the blinding stage (trachomatous trichiasis); Antibiotics to clear the infection, particularly the antibiotic azithromycin; Facial cleanliness and Environmental improvement, particularly improving access to water and sanitation.
The 17 other countries that have eliminated trachoma are: Benin, Cambodia, China, Gambia, Ghana, Islamic Republic of Iran, Lao People’s Democratic Republic, Malawi, Mali, Mexico, Morocco, Myanmar, Nepal, Oman, Saudi Arabia, Togo and Vanuatu.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2063310®=3&lang=1
Consider the following statements regarding the Major Atmospheric Cherenkov Experiment (MACE) Observatory:
- It aims to study supernovae, black holes, and gamma-ray bursts.
- It is indigenously built by the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the MACE Observatory has been inaugurated by the Secretary DAE & Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission, at Hanle, Ladakh.
The Major Atmospheric Cherenkov Experiment (MACE) Observatory is the largest imaging Cherenkov telescope in Asia.
Location: It is located at an altitude of ~4,300 m, at Hanle, Ladakh.
It is Asia’s Largest and World’s Highest Imaging Cherenkov Observatory.
The MACE project aims to foster international collaborations, advancing India’s contributions to space research and bolstering India’s position in the global scientific community.
It is indigenously built by Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) with support from Electronics Corporation of India (ECIL), Hyderabad, and other Indian industry partners.
It will help the scientific community enhance its understanding in the fields of astrophysics, fundamental physics, and particle acceleration mechanisms.
The MACE telescope will observe high-energy gamma rays, contributing to global efforts to understand the most energetic phenomena in the universe, such as supernovae, black holes, and gamma-ray bursts.
It plays a significant role not only in advancing scientific research but also in supporting the socio-economic development of Ladakh.
Hence both statements are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Exercise Malabar:
- It is a bilateral naval exercise held between India and the US navy.
- It is conducted annually in the Indian Ocean and Pacific Oceans alternatively.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the naval fleet exercise Malabar-2024 was flagged off at the Eastern Naval Command (ENC), Visakhapatnam.
It was started in 1992 as a bilateral naval exercise between India and US navy.
The first Malabar Exercise in the Bay of Bengal took place in 2007.
It was expanded into a trilateral format with the inclusion of Japan in 2015.
In 2020, the Australian Navy joined the Malabar Exercise, making it a quadrilateral naval exercise.
It takes place annually in the Indian Ocean and Pacific Oceans alternatively.
The exercise aims to strengthen cooperation and security in the Indo-Pacific region.
Malabar 2024 will focus on a broad range of activities designed to enhance cooperation and operational capabilities, including discussions on special operations, surface, air, and anti-submarine warfare through a Subject Matter Expert Exchange (SMEE).
Complex maritime operations such as anti-submarine warfare, surface warfare, and air defense exercises will be conducted at sea, with an emphasis on improving situational awareness in the maritime domain.
The exercise will feature participation of various Indian naval platforms, including guided missile destroyers, multi-purpose frigates, submarines, fighter aircraft and helicopters.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Halari donkey:
- It is used by the Bharwad and Rabari pastoralists for carrying luggage during migration.
- It is mainly found in the semi-arid region of Rajasthan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The endangered Halari donkeys, native to the Halar region of Gujarat, are considered to be intelligent animals which work closely with human beings.
It is native to the Halar region of Gujarat especially found in the in the semi-arid landscape of Jamnagar and Dwarka districts
Appearance: It is white in colour, and is larger and more resilient than other donkey breeds.
They are social animals and form close bonds with people, supporting them for transport needs.
Uses
The Bharwad and Rabari pastoralists are the main communities which use this donkey as a pack animal to carry luggage during migration with small ruminants.
The Kumbhar (potter) community also uses this animal for pottery work in Dwarka in the Jamnagar region.
Halari donkey milk is known for its sweetness. Milk powder made from it can fetch upwards of ₹7,000 a kg in the international market, and is used for cosmetic purposes.
Conservation status: It is considered endangered; the surviving population of the Halari donkey numbers fewer than 500.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary, recently in news, is located in:
Bihar
Explanation :
Recently, the Bihar government announced that the Centre has given its nod for a tiger reserve at the Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary.
It is the largest sanctuary located in the Kaimur District of Bihar.
It is nestled in the Vindhyachal hill ranges.
Rivers: The Sanctuary forms a very important catchment to Kav, Sone and Durgawati river systems with important tributaries.
It is connected with Chandraprabha Wildlife Sanctuary of UP, which again has links with Sanjay Dubri Tiger Reserve and Panna landscape in Madhya Pradesh through stepping stone forests of Marihan, Sukrit, Chunar ranges and wildlife sanctuaries of Ranipur (UP).
Vegetation: This region has a thick covering of mosaic prairie, tropical dry deciduous backwoods, and swampy bogs.
Fauna: The main animals found are Bengal tigers, Indian leopards, Indian boars, sloth bears, sambar deers, chitals, four-horned antelope and nilgais.
Flora: The plants found here include Salai (BoswelliaSerrata), Siddha, Indian Rosewood (Sheesham), Jamun, Teak, Koraiya, Saal, and Jheengarare some species of plant life.
Where is the National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) being developed?
Lothal, Gujarat
Explanation :
The Union Cabinet recently approved the development of the National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) in Lothal, Gujarat.
About National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC):
Under the Sagarmala programme, the Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways is developing the NMHC, a world-class facility at Lothal, Gujarat.
NMHC is set to become an international tourist destination, showcasing India’s maritime heritage from ancient to modern times through an edutainment approach utilizing the latest technology.
The project will be completed in phases:
Phase 1A will have NMHC museum with 6 galleries, which also includes an Indian Navy & Coast Guard gallery envisaged to be one of the largest in the country with external naval artifacts, replica model of Lothal township surrounded by an open aquatic gallery, and a jetty walkway.
Phase 1B will have NMHC museum with 8 more galleries, Light house museum which is planned to be the world’s tallest, Bagicha complex (with a car parking facility for about 1500 cars, a food hall, a medical centre, etc.).
Phase 2 will have Coastal States Pavilions (to be developed by respective coastal states and union territories), Hospitality Zone (with maritime theme eco resorts and museuotels), Recreation of real time Lothal City, Maritime Institute and hostel and 4 theme-based parks (Maritime & Naval Theme Park, Climate Change Theme Park, Monuments Park, and Adventure & Amusement Park).
Phases 1A and 1B of the project are to be developed in EPC mode, and Phase 2 of the project will be developed through land subleasing/ PPP to establish NMHC as a world-class heritage museum.
A separate society will be set up for the development of future phases, to be governed by a Governing Council headed by the Minister of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
This society will manage the implementation and operation of the NMHC.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/cabinet-approves-development-of-national-maritime-heritage-complex-in-lothal-gujarat/articleshow/114077403.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding Agasthyamalai Bambootail, recently seen in the news:
- It is a new species of butterfly.
- It was discovered in the Western Ghats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A group of researchers recently discovered a new species of damselfly, Agasthyamalai Bambootail, from Manjadininnavila in Thiruvananthapuram district, Kerala.
About Agasthyamalai Bambootail:
It is a new species of damselfly.
It is a rare species belonging to the group of bambootails, so named because of their long cylindrical abdomen resembling a bamboo stalk.
It was discovered from the Agasthyamalai landscape of Western Ghats.
The only other species in this genus is the Malabar Bambootail (Melanoneura bilineata) that is found in the Coorg-Wayanad landscape of the Western Ghats.
The members of this genus can be separated from other bambootails by the absence of the anal bridge vein in their wings.
This genus of damselflies has long black bodies with brilliant blue markings.
The new species differs from the Malabar Bambootail in the structure of prothorax, anal appendages, and secondary genitalia.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/kerala/2024/Oct/10/new-species-of-damselfly-discovered-at-manjadininnavila-in-kerala
With reference to the Congo River, consider the following statements:
- It is a river in west-central Africa.
- It is the world’s deepest river.
- It drains into the Indian Ocean.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A recent study found that cacao farming in the Congo Basin, the world’s largest carbon sink, is linked with up to seven times more deforestation than other agricultural activities.
About Congo River:
The Congo River, or Zaire River, is a river in west-central Africa.
With a length of 2,900 miles (4,700 km), it is the continent’s second longest river, after the Nile.
It is also the world’s second-largest river by discharge volume after the Amazon River.
It is also the world’s deepest river, with a maximum depth of 720 feet (220m), too deep for light to penetrate.
Course:
Origin: It rises in the highlands of northeastern Zambia between Lakes Tanganyika and Nyasa (Malawi) as the Chambeshi River at an elevation of 5,760 feet (1,760 metres) above sea level.
Its course then takes the form of a giant counterclockwise arc, flowing to the northwest, west, and southwest before draining into the Atlantic Ocean at Banana (Banane) in the Democratic Republic of the Congo.
The Congo River zigzags across the equator twice as it flows.
It also empties water and sediment into one of the largest carbon sinks in the world, the Congo Plume in the Atlantic.
The Congo River system runs through the Republic of the Congo, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, the Central African Republic, western Zambia, northern Angola, and parts of Cameroon and Tanzania.
Its drainage basin covers an area of 1,335,000 square miles (3,457,000 square km). It’s the world’s second-largest river basin, after the Amazon River Basin.
The basin is bordered by the Sahara Desert to the north, the Atlantic Ocean to the south and west, and the East African lakes region to the east.
Major Tributaries: Lomami, Kasai, Lulonga, Ubangi, Aruwimi, Itimbiri, and Mongala rivers.
The mix of equatorial climate and massive water source provided by the river provides the perfect ingredients for the second-largest tropical rainforest in the world, the Congo Basin rainforest.
The Congo is easily navigable for most of its length, and much of the trade of Central Africa passes along it.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://news.mongabay.com/2024/10/the-worlds-chocolate-cravings-speed-up-deforestation-in-the-congo-basin-study/
In which one of the following groups of states is the Tharu tribe mostly found?
Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar
Explanation :
The Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) homes bring smiles to women of the Tharu tribe in Kheri district near the Indo-Nepal border.
About Tharu Tribe:
The Tharu tribe is one of the indigenous groups living in the Terai plain on the Indo-Nepal border.
They live in both India and Nepal.
In the Indian terai, they live mostly in Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, and Bihar.
In 1967, this tribe was documented as a Scheduled Tribe by the Government of India.
Language: They have their own language called Tharu or Tharuhati, a language of the Indo-Aryan subgroup of the Indo-Iranian group of the Indo-European family.
Economy: Most Tharu practice agriculture, raise cattle, hunt, fish, and collect forest products.
Most of their food involves rice, lentils, and vegetables.
They build their homes from bamboo and mud.
Society:
Despite their patrilineal social system, women have property rights greatly exceeding those recognized in Hindu society.
Tharu marriages are patrilocal within the tribe.
A common feature of the Tharu community is the joint family system of living in long houses.
Tharus live in compact villages, usually in the middle of a forest clearing. Each village is governed by a council and a headman.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/lucknow/transforming-lives-pmay-homes-empower-women-of-the-tharu-tribe-in-kheri/articleshow/114096810.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Kinzhal Missile, recently seen in the news:
- It is a hypersonic ballistic missile developed by Russia.
- It has a reported range of over 15,000 km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Russian Defence Ministry recently claimed a group strike using Kinzhal missiles on Ukraine.
About Kinzhal Missile:
The Kh-47M2 Kinzhal (Dagger) is a Russian nuclear capable, hypersonic air-launched ballistic missile system that entered service in December 2017.
It was one of six “next generation” weapons unveiled by Russian President Putin during a speech in March 2018.
Features:
It can reach speeds of up to Mach 10 (12,350 km/hr).
The high speed of the Kinzhal gives it better target penetration than lighter, slower cruise missiles.
It has a reported range of 1,500-2,000 km while carrying a nuclear or conventional payload of 480 kg.
It is designed to be launched from MiG-31 fighter jets at altitudes of about 18 km (59,000 ft).
It has been deployed on various aircraft, including the MiG-31K, Tu-160M, Tu-22M3M, and reportedly the Su-34.
This missile maneuvers during all stages of its flight to overcome hostile air defense systems.
It can reportedly hit both static targets and mobile ones such as aircraft carriers.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/videos/russia-unleashes-thermobaric-weapon-kinzhal-missile-ukraine-loses-200-troops-300-drones-putin-101728491428145.html
Consider the following statements regarding Caracal:
- It is a nocturnal animal found in Malwa Plateau and the Aravalli hill range.
- It is categorized as a critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Gujarat government has announced the establishment of a Caracal (Henotaro) Breeding and Conservation Center in the Chadva Rakhal region of Kutch, with a budget allocation of ₹10 crore.
It is an elusive, primarily nocturnal animal which has traditionally been valued for its litheness and extraordinary ability to catch birds in flight.
In India, it is called siya gosh, a Persian name that translates as ‘black Ear’.
They typically use abandoned porcupine burrows and rock crevices for maternal dens, but can be found with their young in dense vegetation.
They live in small herds and their shy and elusive nature makes them difficult to spot in the wild.
Habitat: They live in woodlands, savannahs and in scrub forests.
Distribution:
The most suitable habitat for caracals in Rajasthan, Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh is located in Kutch, the Malwa Plateau, the Aravalli hill range and the Bundelkhand region.
It is found in several dozen countries across Africa, the Middle East, Central and South Asia.
Threats: Large-scale hunting, illegal trading and loss of natural habitats are considered significant threats to the species.
Conservation status:
IUCN: Least concern
The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/others/gujarat-govt-to-set-up-caracal-breeding-and-conservation-centre-in-kutch-101728211660497.html
Consider the following statements regarding Rice Fortification:
- It is a process of adding Fortified Rice Kernels which is nearly identical to traditional rice in aroma and taste.
- It helps in addressing the micronutrient deficiency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Union Cabinet extended the universal supply of fortified rice in all central government schemes providing free food grain under the National Food Security Act, 2021, in its present form, until December 2028.
Fortification is the process of adding Fortified Rice Kernels (FRK), containing FSSAI prescribed micronutrients (Iron, Folic Acid, Vitamin B12) to normal Rice in the ratio of 1:100 (Mixing 1 Kg of FRK with 100 Kg custom milled rice).
Fortified rice is nearly identical to traditional rice in aroma, taste, and texture. This process is done in the rice mills at the time of milling of rice.
It is a cost effective, culturally appropriate strategy to address micronutrient deficiency in countries with high per capita rice consumption.
Rice Fortification is a 2 step process – (1) Production of Fortified Rice Kernels (FRK) (2) Blending of rice with FRK.
Processes used for rice is fortification:
Various technologies, such as coating, dusting, and ‘extrusion’, are available to add micronutrients to regular rice.
Adding micronutrient technology involves the production of fortified rice kernels (FRKs) from a mixture using an ‘extruder’ machine. It is considered to be the best technology for India.
Dry rice flour is mixed with a premix of micronutrients, and water is added to this mixture, which is then passed through a twin-screw extruder with heating zones.
Kernels similar in shape and size to rice are produced, which must “resemble the normal milled rice as closely as possible”.
The kernels are dried, cooled, and packaged. FRK has a shelf life of at least 12 months.
The kernels are blended with regular rice to produce fortified rice. Under the Ministry’s guidelines, 10 g of FRK must be blended with 1 kg of regular rice.
According to FSSAI norms, 1 kg of fortified rice will contain the following: iron (28 mg-42.5 mg), folic acid (75-125 microgram), and vitamin B-12 (0.75-1.25 microgram).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/what-is-fortified-rice-why-did-centre-extend-initiative-for-its-distribution-in-schemes-9612561/
IBSAMAR Exercise, recently in news, is conducted between:
India, Brazil and South Africa
Explanation :
Indian Navy’s frontline stealth frigate, INS Talwar arrived at Simon’s Town, South Africa to participate in the eighth edition of exercise IBSAMAR.
It is a joint multinational maritime exercise among Indian, Brazilian, and South African Navy.
The exercise aims to enhance interoperability and strengthen cohesion between the three navies. The broad concept is based on Blue Water Naval Warfare, encompassing the dimensions of Surface and Anti-Air Warfare.
The harbour phase of IBSAMAR VIII will include professional exchanges, Damage Control & Firefighting drills, Visit, Board, Search, and Seizure drills, cross-boarding, aviation safety lectures, joint diving operations, an Ocean Governance seminar, sports interactions, cross-decks visits, and interaction among Special Forces and Junior Officers.
Significance: Multi-lateral interactions are crucial bridges of friendship that increase mutual trust and enhance interoperability among navies of like-minded littoral nations towards the common goal of a peaceful maritime domain and positive maritime environment.
INS Talwar:
It was commissioned on 18 June 2003 and is a part of the Indian Navy’s Western Fleet, based in Mumbai under the Western Naval Command.
The visit of INS Talwar aims to further strengthen the ties and reaffirm India’s commitment to constructive collaboration and mutual growth.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2063543
INS Nirdeshak, recently in news, is a:
Survey Vessel
Explanation :
Recently, the Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE) Ltd delivered INS Nirdeshak to the Indian Navy.
It is the second in a series of four Survey Vessels (Large) being built by the Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers.
Features:
It displaces about 3400 tons and overall length is 110 meters. It can achieve speeds in excess of 18 knots.
It is propelled by two marine diesel engines combined with fixed-pitch propellers.
It was built using ‘Integrated Construction’ technology. This was in compliance with applicable provisions and regulations of the Classification Society (IRS).
It is fitted with state-of-the art hydrographic equipment such as data acquisition and processing system, autonomous underwater vehicle, remotely operated vehicle, DGPS long range positioning systems, digital side scan sonar, etc.
It has an indigenous content of over 80% by cost.
Significance: The delivery of Nirdeshak is a tribute to the collaborative efforts of a large number of stakeholders, MSMEs and the Indian industry in enhancing the maritime prowess of the nation in the Indian Ocean Region.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/external-affairs-defence-security/news/grse-delivers-second-of-four-survey-vessel-ins-nirdeshak-to-indian-navy-124100800901_1.html
With reference to Universal Postal Union, consider the following statements:
- It is a United Nations specialized agency set up under the Treaty of Bern.
- It sets the rules for international mail exchanges.
- A non-member country of the United Nations can’t become member of this organization.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, on the occasion of World Post Day, the Department of Posts, Government of India, unveiled a special set of commemorative postage stamps celebrating the 150th anniversary of the Universal Postal Union (UPU).
It is a United Nations specialized agency and the postal sector’s primary forum for international cooperation.
It was established by the Treaty of Bern of 1874. It is the second oldest international organization worldwide.
Functions:
It coordinates postal policies among member nations in addition to the worldwide postal system.
It sets the rules for international mail exchanges and makes recommendations to stimulate growth in mail, parcel and financial services volumes and improve the quality of service for customers.
It fulfils an advisory, mediating and liaison role and provides technical assistance where needed.
Member countries:
Any member country of the United Nations may become a member of the UPU.
Any non-member country of the United Nations may become a UPU member, provided that its request is approved by at least two-thirds of the member countries of the UPU.
The UPU now has 192 member countries.
Structure: It consists of four bodies,
The Congress: It is the supreme authority of the UPU and meets every four years.
The Council of Administration: It ensures the continuity of the UPU’s work between Congresses, supervises its activities and studies regulatory, administrative, legislative and legal issues.
The Postal Operations Council: It is the technical and operational mind of the UPU and consists of 48 member countries elected during Congress.
The International Bureau: Fulfilling a secretariat function, the International Bureau provides logistical and technical support to the UPU’s bodies.
Headquarters: Bern, Switzerland
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2063440
What is the primary objective of the Humsafar Policy, recently seen in the news?
To enhance facilities along national highways.
Explanation :
Aimed at providing wayside amenities along national highways, Union Road Transport Minister recently launched ‘Humsafar Policy.
About Humsafar Policy:
It is a comprehensive initiative aimed at enhancing facilities along India’s national highways.
The policy seeks to improve the convenience, safety, and comfort of highway travelers by providing a wide range of services at key locations along the road network.
Under this policy, rest stops equipped with essential amenities like clean washrooms, food courts, parking spaces, and first-aid services will be developed across major highways.
Dedicated rooms for baby care, equipped with changing tables and other essentials, will be provided for families travelling with young children.
It includes provisions for creating multi-utility spaces at regular intervals to cater to the diverse needs of travelers.
These spaces will feature fuel stations, electric vehicle (EV) charging points, convenience stores, and other roadside services that are expected to reduce driver fatigue and improve overall road safety.
Dormitories will be introduced at fuel stations to provide short-term accommodation for truck drivers, travellers, and those requiring a rest break during long-distance travel.
Accessibility will be a key focus, with wheelchair provisions made available for differently-abled travellers.
The initiative also aims to promote sustainability by incorporating green technologies, such as solar-powered facilities and EV infrastructure, contributing to India’s environmental goals.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.deccanherald.com/india/nitin-gadkari-launches-humsafar-policy-to-provide-wayside-amenities-3224351
Which one of the following is the best description of ‘Ardetosaurus viator’, that was in the news recently?
A newly discovered species of sauropod dinosaur.
Explanation :
Paleontologists have identified a new genus and species of sauropod dinosaur named Ardetosaurus viator from a semi-articulated specimen found in the 1990s in northern Wyoming, the United States.
About Ardetosaurus viator:
It is a newly discovered species of dinosaur that roamed Earth during the Late Jurassic epoch, some 150 million years ago.
It was a type of diplodocid, a family of sauropod dinosaurs that includes some of the longest creatures ever to walk the planet.
What are Sauropods?
Sauropods were the largest of all dinosaurs and the largest land animals that ever lived.
They existed for a minimum of 135 million years, from the beginning of the Jurassic 201 million years ago to the end of the Cretaceous, 66 million years.
Sauropod remains have been found on every continent, except Antarctica.
They are best recognized by their long necks and long tails, and their success can be attributed to their extreme size, an intricate bird-like air sac system, as well as their unique feeding and digestive strategies and oviparous reproduction.
One of the most recognizable sauropod families is Diplodocidae.
These sauropods are generally characterized by their extremely long necks and even longer tails.
Diplodocids are known from North and South America, Europe, and Africa.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.sci.news/paleontology/ardetosaurus-viator-13336.html
Consider the following statements regarding Myopia:
- It is an eye condition that causes blurry vision when looking at nearby objects.
- Negative (minus) powered lenses are used to correct Myopia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A recent analysis of studies across the world estimates that global incidence of myopia could exceed 740 million cases in another 25 years.
About Myopia:
Myopia, also known as nearsightedness, is an eye condition that causes blurry distance vision.
People who are nearsighted have more trouble seeing things that are far away (such as when driving) than things that are close up (such as when reading or using a computer).
What causes Myopia?
For normal vision, light passes through the clear cornea at the front of the eye and is focused by the lens onto the surface of the retina, which is the lining of the back of the eye that contains light-sensing cells.
People who are nearsighted typically have eyeballs that are too long from front to back.
As a result, light entering the eye is focused too far forward, in front of the retina instead of on its surface.
It is this change that causes distant objects to appear blurry.
The longer the eyeball is, the farther forward light rays will be focused and the more severely nearsighted a person will be.
Eye experts are still unsure of the exact cause of myopia, but believe it to be a mix of hereditary and environmental factors.
Nearsightedness usually begins in childhood or adolescence.
It tends to worsen with age until adulthood, when it may stop getting worse (stabilize). In some people, nearsightedness improves in later adulthood.
Symptoms: Nearsightedness can lead to squinting, eyestrain, headaches, and significant visual impairment.
Treatment:
Glasses or contact lenses can correct myopia in children and adults.
For adults only (with rare exceptions for children), there are several types of refractive surgeries that can also correct myopia.
Negative (minus) powered lenses are used to correct nearsightedness.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/102960/OPS/GAPDENQG9.1+GSSDENR32.1.html
Consider the following statements regarding Footrot Disease:
- It is a highly contagious bacterial disease affecting ruminants.
- It tends to be seasonal, with the highest incidence occurring during the wet seasons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The footrot disease is killing the sheep and goats of Gaddi shepherds in Himachal Pradesh.
About Footrot Disease:
It is a highly contagious disease affecting the interdigital (between the toes) tissue of ruminants.
It is one of the most common causes of lameness in cattle and sheep and can result in serious economic loss.
Once present in a herd/flock, footrot can be very difficult to control.
Causative Agent: It is caused by the Dichelobacter nodosus bacteria in association with a number of other bacteria.
Transmission:
Feet infected with D.nodosus serve as the source of infection for other cattle by contaminating the environment.
Infectious agents gain entry through the skin as a consequence of injury caused by sharp pieces of stone, metal, wood, stubble, or thorns.
Footrot tends to be seasonal, with the highest incidence occurring during the wet seasons.
Symptoms: Expression of virulent footrot disease includes:
chronic and severe lesions
lameness
loss of production
death, in severe cases.
Treatment:
The interdigital tissue should be cleaned, debrided, and disinfected.
One antibiotic treatment is usually adequate if administered on the first day of disease.
Recovery is generally observed in three to four days.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.tribuneindia.com/news/himachal/footrot-disease-kills-sheep-goats-in-himachal-gaddi-shepherds-suffer-big-losses/
Where is the Katkari Tribe primarily found in India?
Maharashtra and Gujarat
Explanation :
Over 550 people from the Katkari tribe were recently given caste certificates in a special ceremony held at Male village, Pune.
About Katkari Tribe:
It is a primitive tribe found in Maharashtra (Pune, Raigad, and Thane districts) and parts of Gujarat.
It is one of the 75 Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India.
They were historically forest dwellers.
Katkaris are also known as Kathodis because of their old occupation of making Katha(Catechu), the thickened sap from wood of Khair (Acacia catechu).
Language: They are bilingual, speaking the Katkari language amongst themselves and Marathi with others. A few of them speak Hindi as well.
Occupation:
They serve as agricultural labourers and sell firewood and some jungle fruits.
They also take up fishing for domestic consumption, coal making, and brick manufacturing.
They have tremendous knowledge about uncultivated foods like fish, crabs, animals, birds, tubers/rhizomes, wild vegetables, fruits, nuts, etc.
A majority of the Katkari families are landless. The landless rate of 87% among the Katkari is much higher than 48% for rural households in India as a whole.
As a result of landlessness, migration is rampant, and livelihoods are seasonal.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/pune/people-katkari-tribe-get-caste-certificates-9614319/
Consider the following statements regarding LUPEX Mission:
- It is a joint mission of ISRO and Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA).
- It aims to explore the planet Mars atmosphere and availability of water on its surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the National Space Commission, India’s apex body on space missions, cleared the fifth lunar mission, the Lunar Polar Exploration Mission.
Lunar Polar Exploration Mission (LUPEX) is a collaborative mission between ISRO and Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA).
Objective: To explore the moon’s southern polar region, investigating the presence of water and other elements, potentially in the form of surface ice.
It aims to showcase innovative surface exploration technologies. The special focus is on vehicular transport and lunar night survival.
It features both a lander and a rover.
JAXA is responsible for developing and operating the rover, and ISRO for developing and operating the lander that will carry the rover.
The rover will drive on its own to search for areas where water is likely to be present and sample the soil by digging into the ground with a drill.
The plan is to acquire data by analyzing the collected samples in detail with observation equipment mounted on the rover.
The rover will be equipped with instruments for measuring the water content of regolith (lunar sand), drilling, and sampling, as well as with other world-first and world-leading technologies for the driving system and batteries.
The rover will carry not only the instruments of ISRO and JAXA but also those of the US space agency NASA and the European Space Agency (ESA).
The mission is scheduled to launch in 2025.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.firstpost.com/explainers/indias-fifth-lunar-mission-lupex-gets-a-nod-heres-all-you-need-to-know-13822745.html
Consider the following statements regarding Red Panda:
- It is primarily an herbivorous and indicator species.
- In India, the majority of this species is found in the Eastern Himalayan region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Red Panda Program of Darjeeling’s Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park has been selected as a finalist for the World Association of Zoos and Aquariums (WAZA) Conservation Award 2024.
It is primarily an herbivorous, shy, solitary and arboreal animal.
It is considered an indicator species for ecological change.
It uses its long, bushy tails for balance and to cover them in winter, presumably for warmth.
Appearance: It is the size of a house cat, the red panda is famous for its cute face and adorable defense stance.
Distribution: It lives in the mountainous forests of Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar, and Nepal. Almost 50% of their habitat is in the Eastern Himalayas.
Conservation status
IUCN Red list: Endangered
CITES: Appendix I
Wildlife Protection Act 1972: Schedule I
Threats: The loss of nesting trees and bamboo in the Eastern Himalayas—the location of almost 50% of the red panda’s habitat—is causing a decline in red panda populations across much of their range.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/kolkata/darjeeling-zoos-red-panda-programme-top-3-finalists-world-association-of-zoos-and-aquariums-conservation-award-9609725/
Living Planet Report, recently in news, is published by:
World Wide Fund for Nature
Explanation :
The Living Planet Report 2024 revealed that the average size of monitored wildlife populations has decreased by 73 per cent since 1970.
It is published biennially by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF).
It is a comprehensive study of trends in global biodiversity and the health of the planet.
The Living Planet Report 2024 is the 15th edition of the report.
The WWF uses the Living Planet Index (LPI), which tracks the average trends in wildlife populations rather than focusing on increases or declines in individual species numbers.
By monitoring changes in species population sizes over time, the LPI serves as an early warning indicator of extinction risk and helps assess ecosystem efficiency.
Highlights of the Living Planet Report 2024
The sharpest decline is reported in freshwater ecosystems at 85%, followed by terrestrial ecosystems at 69% and marine ecosystems at 56%.
WWF highlighted declines in monitored animal populations around the world as follows
Latin America and the Caribbean, where populations have dropped by 95 per cent
Africa: 76 % decline.
Asia-Pacific region: 60 % decline.
Central Asia and: 35% decline
North America: 39 % decline.
Major threats to wildlife include: Habitat loss, over exploitation, climate change, pollution, invasive species, diseases were the dominant drivers of the decline of wildlife.
Habitat loss was driven by unsustainable agriculture, fragmentation, logging, mining, to name a few causes.
Ongoing mass coral reef bleaching, affecting over 75 per cent of the world’s reefs, the Amazon rainforest, the collapse of the subpolar gyre and the melting of the Greenland and West Antarctic ice sheets are all nearing critical tipping points.
More than half of the United Nations-mandated Sustainable Development Goals for 2030 are unlikely to meet their targets, with 30 percent of them either already missed or worse off than their 2015 baseline.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/wildlife-population-declined-by-73-in-50-years-wwf-report-9612568/
Consider the following statements regarding Reserve Bank Climate Risk Information System:
- It aims to bridge the gap in climate-related data that is currently available in a fragmented manner.
- It will have a web-based directory and data portal for regulated entities to ensure smooth adaptation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India proposes to create a data repository namely, the Reserve Bank Climate Risk Information System (RB-CRIS).
It will bridge the gap in climate-related data that is currently available in a fragmented manner.
Presently the available climate related data is characterised by various gaps such as fragmented and varied sources, differing formats, frequencies and units.
It will comprise of two parts
The first part will be a web-based directory, listing various data sources, (meteorological, geospatial, etc.) which will be publicly accessible in the RBI website.
The second part will be a data portal comprising of datasets (processed data in standardised formats).
The RBI plans a phased launch of RB-CRIS starting with the web-based directory, followed by a gradual introduction of the data portal for regulated entities to ensure smooth adaptation.
It is crucial for regulated entities to undertake climate risk assessments for ensuring stability of their balance sheets and that of the financial system.
On February 28, 2024, RBI had issued draft guidelines for a ‘Disclosure Framework on Climate-Related Financial Risks,’ requiring regulated entities (REs) to disclose information across four key areas: governance, strategy, risk management, and metrics and targets.
The framework aims to inform stakeholders—such as regulators, investors, and customers—about the climate-related risks faced by REs and their strategies for addressing these issues.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/markets/capital-market-news/rbi-announces-creation-of-climate-risk-information-system-124100900398_1.html
Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary, recently in news, is located in:
Kerala
Explanation :
A two-day vulture survey that concluded in the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary recently has recorded the presence of 80 vultures across nine locations.
Location: It is located in Wayanad, Kerala, in the southern trenches of the Western Ghats.
It is an integral part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
It is bordered by the protected areas of Nagarhole and Bandipur in Karnataka on the northeastern side and Mudumalai in Tamil Nadu on the southeastern side.
Tribes living in these forests include some scheduled adivasis, such as Paniyas, Kattunaikkans, Kurumas, Ooralis, Adiyans, and Kurichiyas.
Flora:
It is a mosaic of the Western Ghats’ significant vegetation types, ranging from moist deciduous to dry deciduous and semi-evergreen patches.
Teak, rosewood, eucalyptus, and silver oakplantations cover roughly one-third of the sanctuary.
Fauna:
It is also home to animals like elephants, panthers, tigers, jungle cats, civet cats, monkeys, wild dogs, bisons, deer and bears.
It is known for having the largest population of tigers in Kerala.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/wayanad-wildlife-sanctuarys-vulture-survey-records-80-birds/article68740590.ece
Chaukhamba Peak, recently seen in the news, lies in which one of the following states?
Uttarakhand
Explanation :
The two foreign women mountaineers who were stranded at an altitude of over 6,000 metres for three days during the expedition to Chaukhamba-3 peak were successfully rescued by the Indian Air Force (IAF) teams using choppers recently.
About Chaukhamba Peak:
It is a four-pillar shaped enormous peak located in the northern Indian state of Uttarakhand, west of the Hindu holy town of Badrinath.
It is a mountain massif that has four summits, along a northeast-southwest trending ridge situated in the Gangotri group of the Garhwal Himalayas.
Being named as Chaukhamba Peak I, II, III, and IV, all of them have different elevations that lie between 7,138 m and 6,854 m.
Chaukhamba peak I remain the tallest of all the four summits, i.e., 7,138 m above sea level.
It towers above the Gangotri glacier, forming the eastern anchor of the group.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/dehradun-news/iaf-choppers-rescue-2-foreign-woman-mountaineers-stranded-near-chaukhamba-3-peak-101728197194117.html
Where does the Saryu River primarily originate?
Foothills of Himalayas
Explanation :
A 35-year-old woman died recently after drowning in the Saryu River in Kapkot.
About Saryu River:
It is a river that flows through the Indian states of Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh.
It is also known as the Sarayu or Sarju River.
This river is of ancient significance, finding mentions in the Vedas and the Ramayana.
Course:
It originates primarily from the foothills of the Himalayas and becomes an auxiliary river to the Sharada.
It flows through Kapkot, Bageshwar, and Seraghat towns before discharging into the Sharada River at Pancheshwar at the India-Nepal border.
Sharada River (also known as Kali River) then flows into the Ghaghara River in Sitapur District, Uttar Pradesh.
Lower Ghaghara is popularly known as Sarayu in India, especially while it flows through the city of Ayodhya.
Ayodhya, the birthplace of Lord Rama, is situated on the banks of the river Sarayu.
The banks of Sarayu in Ayodhya are a common site for various religious rituals.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/dehradun/tragic-drowning-in-saryu-river-sparks-outrage-over-alleged-dam-safety-violations/articleshow/114127198.cms
What is the primary function of cartilage in a joint?
To allow the joint to move smoothly and absorb shock
Explanation :
World Arthritis Day is observed annually on October 12th to raise awareness about arthritis, a condition affecting millions worldwide.
About Arthritis:
Arthritis is inflammation or degeneration of one or more joints.
A joint is the area where 2 bones meet.
There are more than 100 different types of arthritis.
Causes:
Arthritis involves the breakdown of structures of the joint, particularly cartilage.
Normal cartilage protects a joint and allows it to move smoothly.
Cartilage also absorbs shock when pressure is placed on the joint, such as when you walk.
Without the normal amount of cartilage, the bones under the cartilage become damaged and rub together.
This causes swelling (inflammation), and stiffness.
The most common types of arthritis are osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis.
Osteoarthritis causes cartilage — the hard, slippery tissue that covers the ends of bones where they form a joint — to break down.
Rheumatoid arthritis is a disease in which the immune system attacks the joints, beginning with the lining of joints.
Treatment: Treatments vary depending on the type of arthritis. The main goals of arthritis treatments are to reduce symptoms and improve quality of life.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/health/world-arthritis-day-2024-8-exercises-that-can-reduce-pain-in-the-joints-6765780
Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve lies in which one of the following states?
Maharashtra
Explanation :
Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve is preparing to introduce a captivating addition to its offerings for the first time – a thrilling ropeway safari.
About Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve:
Location: It is located in the Chandrapur district in Maharashtra.
It is the largest and oldest Tiger Reserve of Maharashtra.
The origin of the name “Tadoba” lies with the name of the god “Tadoba” or “Taru”, worshipped by the tribes that live in the dense forests of the Tadoba and Andhari regions. “Andhari” refers to the Andhari River that meanders through the forest.
The total area of the reserve is 625.4 sq. km. This includes Tadoba National Park, covering 116.55 sq. km, and Andhari Wildlife Sanctuary, covering 508.85 sq. km.
Corridor: The reserve has corridor linkages with Nagzira-Navegaon and Pench Tiger Reserves within the State.
Habitat:
Biogeographically, the reserve falls in the Central Plateau province of the Deccan Peninsula.
The habitat has undulating topography in the north and is rich in biodiversity.
Vegetation: Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous
There are two lakes and one waterway in the reserve, Tadoba Lake, Kolsa Lake, and the Tadoba River.
Flora:
It is blessed with thick forests covered with teak trees and other vegetation such as crocodile bark, salai, tendu, karaya gum, and mahua madhuca.
The reserve is adorned with patches of grass and bamboo shrubberies.
Fauna:
The notable faunal species include the tiger, leopard, sloth bear, wild dog, gaur, chital, and sambar.
As many as 280 species of birds are found, apart from reptiles (54 species), amphibians (11 species), and fishes (84 species).
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.outlooktraveller.com/whats-new/tadoba-national-park-to-soon-offer-worlds-first-ever-ropeway-safari-for-aerial-wildlife-viewing
Which countries were involved in the development of the Taurus Missile?
Germany and Sweden
Explanation :
As Ukraine begs for Taurus missiles to counter the Russian military, the South Korean Air Force fired the German-origin Taurus missile in a live fire drill.
About Taurus Missile:
It is a German-origin precision-guided, long-range air-to-surface cruise missile.
This missile was developed in the mid-1990s as a joint effort between the German company LFK (now MBDA Deutschland) and the Swedish company Saab Bofors Dynamics.
It is capable of precision strikes on stationary and semi-stationary targets.
Features:
Weighing in at 1,400 kg and measuring approximately 5.1 meters in length, this versatile missile can be deployed from a variety of platforms.
Powered by a turbofan engine, the missile achieves subsonic speeds with impressive fuel efficiency.
It features a dual-stage warhead known as MEPHISTO, which is specifically designed to penetrate hardened bunkers and underground facilities before detonation.
It flies at an altitude of only 35 meters, which makes it almost impossible for radar systems to detect.
Range: 500 km
The missile’s guidance system merges GPS, INS (Inertial Navigation System), and TERCOM (Terrain Contour Matching) technologies, guaranteeing unerring precision even in GPS-denied environments.
Its low radar cross-section and advanced defense mechanisms protect it against interception and neutralization attempts.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.eurasiantimes.com/irst-time-in-7-years-south-korea/
Consider the following statements regarding Brahmi Script:
- It is the earliest writing system developed in India.
- In India, traces of Brahmi script were found in both Indo-Gangetic Plain and Deccan plateau region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, a Brahmi inscription was found in Dharanikota village at Amaravathi mandal in Palnadu district. The script on the inscription is written in Prakrit language and Brahmi characters of 2nd century C.E.
The Brahmi script is the earliest writing system developed in India after the Indus script.
It is one of the most influential writing systems; all modern Indian scripts and several hundred scripts found in Southeast and East Asia are derived from Brahmi.
Most examples of Brahmi found in North and Central India represent the Prakrit language.
The earliest known Brahmi inscriptions are from the edicts of Ashoka, the third Mauryan emperor of Magadha who ruled most of the sub-continent between 268 and 232 BCE.
Traces of the script have been discovered not just in the Gangetic plains but also in excavated sites in Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Sri Lanka, mostly on pottery shards.
Among the many descendant scripts of Brahmi are those of the Indo-Gangetic Plain, such as Devanagari and the Bengali and Gujarati scripts; those of the Deccan region, including the scripts for Tamil, Telugu, Malayalam, and Kannada;
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/brahmi-inscription-found-in-dharanikota/article68741300.ece
Consider the following statements regarding AstroSat:
- It is India’s first dedicated multi-wavelength space observatory.
- It aims to study high energy processes in binary star systems containing neutron stars and black holes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, India’s AstroSat and NASA’s space observatories have captured dramatic eruptions from stellar wreckage around a massive black hole.
It is India’s first dedicated multi-wavelength space observatory aimed at studying celestial sources in X-ray, optical, and UV spectral bands simultaneously.
It was launched by the Indian launch vehicle PSLV from Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota, on September 28, 2015.
The spacecraft control center at Mission Operations Complex (MOX) of ISRO Telemetry, Tracking and Command Network (ISTRAC), Bengaluru, manages the satellite during its entire mission life.
The minimum useful life of the AstroSat mission is around 5 years.
It carries a total of five scientific payloads enabling imaging and studying the temporal and spectral properties of galactic and extra- galactic cosmic sources in a wide range of wavelengths on a common platform.
Objectives:
To understand high energy processes in binary star systems containing neutron stars and black holes.
Estimate magnetic fields of neutron stars.
Study star birth regions and high energy processes in star systems lying beyond our galaxy.
Detect new briefly bright X-ray sources in the sky.
Perform a limited deep-field survey of the Universe in the Ultraviolet region.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/isro-astrosat-nasa-dramatic-eruptions-black-hole-9614929/
Anaconda strategy, recently in news, is:
a military strategy to suffocate other country economically and militarily
Explanation :
Taiwan’s navy commander recently claimed that the People’s Liberation Army (PLA) is using an ‘anaconda strategy’ to squeeze the island nation.
It refers to a military strategy with the primary objective to suffocate the Confederacy economically and militarily, similar to how an anaconda snake coils around and asphyxiates its prey.
It was proposed by Union General Winfield Scott during the early stages of the American Civil War.
China’s ‘anaconda strategy’ against Taiwan reportedly involves a mix of military maneuvers, psychological tactics, and cyber warfare to eventually weaken Taiwan’s defenses. The ultimate goal appears to be to force Taiwan into submission without engaging in a full-scale invasion.
China is encircling Taiwan by both sea and air, increasing the number of air incursions to Taiwan Strait, and employing its ships to operate around the country in what appears to be an effort to tire out Taiwan’s navy and air force.
It could be the prelude to a more violent showdown in the future.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.economist.com/asia/2024/10/03/china-is-using-an-anaconda-strategy-to-squeeze-taiwan
Consider the following statements regarding MLA Local Area Development Fund:
- It is a one time grant given to MLAs for local development such as repairing roads, and streetlights
- Each MLA does not directly receive the funds but they can recommend projects for the scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Delhi cabinet approved a 50% hike in MLA-LAD (local area development) funds, increasing the annual allocation to legislators from the current ₹10 crore to ₹15 crore.
It is modelled on a similar programme for MPs, providing funding for each constituency directly from the government.
While MLAs and MPs do not directly receive the funds, they can recommend projects for the scheme.
Both MLALAD and MPLAD have their own sets of guidelines but the projects funded by them are usually restricted to “durable infrastructure work”, from repairing roads to building community centres.
Under the scheme, each MLA has the choice to suggest to the Deputy Commissioner of his/her district, to the extent of allocations given from year to year, to be taken up by his/her constituency.
MLALAD funds are issued every year to MLAs for local development such as repairing roads, and streetlights, developing parks, and laying sewer lines in colonies.
The type of work under this scheme should be developmental in nature based on locally felt.
The work should be such that it can be completed within one financial year and lead to the creation of durable assets.
The amount provided under MLALAD Scheme is released in the form of Grant-in-aid for utilisation by the districts
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/delhi-news/delhi-cabinet-hikes-mla-lad-funds-by-50-bjp-calls-it-deception-101728582993557.html
With reference to Horseshoe crab, consider the following statements:
- It has a segmented body and a thick chitinous cuticle called an exoskeleton.
- It is mainly found in shallow coastal waters and spawns mostly on intertidal beaches.
- It is only found in the Indian Ocean region.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Horseshoe crabs have been around for millions of years, but their habitats are increasingly being degraded and study finds that they are also in demand for the medical industry.
It belongs to a class called Merostomata, living fossils, or those organisms that haven’t changed in millennia.
It is a marine chelicerate arthropod. The Chelicerata is a division within the Arthropoda, containing animals such as spiders, scorpions, harvestmen, mites and ticks.
Like all arthropods, they have a segmented body and segmented limbs and a thick chitinous cuticle called an exoskeleton.
Habitat: They are living in shallow coastal waters on soft sandy or muddy bottoms and spawns mostly on intertidal beaches at summer-spring high tides.
There are four extant horseshoe crab species:
The American horseshoe crab (Limulus polyphemus) along the eastern coast of the USA and in the Gulf of Mexico,
The tri-spine horseshoe crab (Tachypleus tridentatus),
The coastal horseshoe crab (Tachypleus gigas)
The mangrove horseshoe crab (Carcinoscorpius rotundicauda)
The last three are Indo-Pacific species found mainly in the coastal waters of India, Southeast Asia, China and Japan.
In India Odisha is the largest habitat of horseshoe crabs.
Conservation status in India: Wildlife Protection Act 1972: Schedule IV
IUCN Status:
American horseshoe crab: Vulnerable
Tri-spine horseshoe crab: Endangered
The two other species are not listed yet
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/the-blue-blooded-sea-creature-on-odishas-coastline/article68736825.ece
Consider the following:
- Wainganga
- Manjra
- Pranhita
- Tungabhadra
How many of the above are tributaries of the Godavari River?
Only three
Explanation :
The Nashik Municipal Corporation (NMC) has planned to outsource 60 sanitary workers through a private agency to clean the Godavari River and its tributaries.
About Godavari River:
It is India’s second-longest river after the Ganga and the third-largest in India, drains about 10% of India’s total geographical area.
It is also called Dakshina Ganga, which translates into South Ganges River.
Course:
The origin of the Godavari River is in Brahmagiri Mountain at Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of Maharashtra.
It runs for a length of about 1,465 kilometers.
It finally empties itself into the Bay of Bengal at Narasapuram in West Godavari district, Andhra Pradesh.
The river mainstem travels through three states: Maharashtra, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh, while its basin includes Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, parts of Chattisgarh, and Odisha.
It has a drainage basin of some 121,000 square miles (313,000 square km).
The basin is bounded by the Satmala hills, the Ajanta range, and the Mahadeo hills on the north, by the Eastern Ghats on the south and the east, and by the Western Ghats on the west.
The Godavari basin receives its maximum rainfall during the Southwest monsoon.
Tributaries: The principal tributaries of the river are the Pravara, the Purna, the Manjra, the Penganga, the Wardha, the Wainganga, the Pranhita (combined flow of Wainganga, Penganga, Wardha), the Indravati, the Maner, and the Sabri.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/nashik/nashik-outsources-60-sanitary-workers-for-godavari-river-and-tributaries-cleanup/articleshow/114157261.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO):
- It is the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) of India for the medical devices industry.
- It works under the Union Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) has met safety, efficacy, and quality - indicators for a functional vaccine regulatory system by the World Health Organization (WHO), the government said recently.
About Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO):
It is the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) of India for the medical devices industry under the provisions of the Drugs & Cosmetics Rules.
It works under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.
Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) is the head of the CDSCO.
Headquarters: New Delhi.
Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, CDSCO is responsible for,
Approval of New Drugs;
Conduct of Clinical Trials;
Laying down the standards for Drugs;
Control over the quality of imported Drugs in the country;
Coordination of the activities of State Drug Control Organizations;
CDSCO, along with state regulators, is jointly responsible for the grant of licenses for certain specialized categories of critical drugs, such as blood and blood products, I. V. Fluids, Vaccine and Sera.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/science/nasa-shares-stunning-images-of-unusual-greenery-in-the-sahara-desert-following-rainfall/articleshow/113702422.cms
Where is the Komodo Dragon primarily found?
Indonesia
Explanation :
The Indonesian government is proposing partial closures of Komodo National Park in 2025 to ease the strain from the increasing number of visitors drawn to its unique ecosystem.
About Komodo Dragon:
It is the largest extant lizard species.
Scientific Name: Varanus komodoensis
It is a monitor lizard of the family Varanidae.
It occurs on Komodo Island and a few neighbouring islands of the Lesser Sunda Islands of Indonesia.
Features:
The lizard grows to 3 metres (10 feet) in total length and attains a weight of about 135 kg (about 300 pounds).
Their tongues are yellow and forked.
Adults are an almost-uniform stone color with distinct, large scales, while juveniles may display a more vibrant color and pattern.
Although most young are produced through sexual reproduction, females that are isolated from males sometimes produce offspring through parthenogenesis.
They are well-known for their venomous bite, which contains toxins that cause massive blood loss and shock in their prey.
They can run swiftly and occasionally attack and kill human beings.
Lifespan: 30 years
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Endangered
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://cosmosmagazine.com/nature/komodo-dragon-under-pressure/
Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL):
- UNIFIL was established to oversee the Israeli withdrawal from Lebanon and to restore peace and security in the area.
- The largest number of UNIFIL peacekeepers come from India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Israeli forces launched an attack on the headquarters of the United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (Unifil) in southern Lebanon recently.
About United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL):
UNIFIL is a peacekeeping force in Lebanon, originally set up by the UN Security Council in March 1978 after Israel first invaded Lebanon in what became known as the South Lebanon Conflict.
UNIFIL was established to oversee the Israeli withdrawal from Lebanon and to restore peace and security in the area.
After a 34-day war in Lebanon between Hezbollah and Israel in 2006, in which 1,100 Lebanese people were killed, UNIFIL’s mandate was expanded to monitor the cessation of hostilities and support Lebanese armed forces deployed throughout southern Lebanon.
It has around 10,500 peacekeepers coming from 48 troop contributing countries.
The largest number of UNIFIL peacekeepers come from Indonesia. Italy, India, Nepal and China also contribute a large number of soldiers to the peacekeeping force.
Funding: UNIFIL is funded through a separate account approved on an annual basis by the General Assembly.
It is a part of UN Peacekeeping force.
UNIFIL’s rules of engagement allow the use of force only if necessary for self-defense or to carry out its duties.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.firstpost.com/world/peacekeepers-in-peril-why-israel-is-targeting-unifil-the-un-force-in-lebanon-amid-global-criticism-13824484.html
In which one of the following regions is the Aurora Borealis most commonly observed?
Near the Arctic Circle
Explanation :
The night sky was illuminated recently by the northern lights, or aurora borealis, visible in parts of the world including the United States, Canada, the United Kingdom, Germany, and even Hanle village in Ladakh.
What are Auroras?
An aurora is a natural light display in Earth’s sky, predominantly seen in high-latitude regions (around the Arctic and Antarctic).
Auroras are caused by the interaction of energetic particles (electrons and protons) of the solar wind with atoms of the upper atmosphere.
Auroras display dynamic patterns of brilliant lights that appear as curtains, rays, spirals, or dynamic flickers covering the entire sky.
They are also commonly known as the northern lights (aurora borealis) or southern lights (aurora australis).
What is the Aurora Borealis?
Often called the Northern Lights, it occurs in the northern hemisphere, predominantly in regions near the Arctic Circle.
This includes countries like Norway, Sweden, Finland, Iceland, Canada, and Alaska.
The northern lights result from charged particles from the sun, mainly electrons and protons, colliding with the Earth’s magnetosphere and interacting with gases in the Earth’s atmosphere.
These collisions produce colourful displays of light, primarily in green, red and purple hues.
The bright colors of the northern lights are dictated by the chemical composition of Earth’s atmosphere.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/upsc-current-affairs/upsc-essentials/knowledge-nugget-of-the-day-northern-lights-or-aurora-borealis-9617045/
Consider the following statements regarding Synthetic Medical Images:
- These are generated by AI or computer algorithms without being captured by traditional imaging devices.
- These images help healthcare providers in AI development without the risk of violating patients’ privacy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The rise of AI-generated synthetic medical images can provide an ethical, scalable, and cost-effective solution to the medical field.
It is generated by AI or computer algorithms without being captured by traditional imaging devices such as MRI, CT scans, or X-rays.
These images are entirely constructed using mathematical models or AI techniques like generative adversarial networks (GANs), diffusion models, and autoencoders.
In the medical field, synthetic medical images are created in a similar way, where the AI generates entirely new medical scans or radiological images that mimic real ones but are not derived from any actual patient data.
How are these images created?
A variational autoencoder (VAE) takes an image, compresses it into a simpler form called the latent space, and then tries to recreate the original image from that compressed version.
The process continuously improves the image by minimising the difference between the real image and the recreated version.
GANs involve a generator that creates synthetic images from random data and a discriminator that determines whether the image is real or synthetic.
Both improve through competition—the generator tries to make its images more realistic, while the discriminator gets better at spotting fakes.
Diffusion models begin with a bunch of random noise and gradually transform it into a realistic image, using a step-by-step process that slowly shapes the noise into something that resembles the images it was trained on.
These methods generate synthetic images in various fields, including healthcare and research.
Advantages
Ability to facilitate intra- and inter-modality translation.
Intramodality translation: It refers to generating synthetic images within the same type of imaging modality, such as improving or reconstructing MRI scans based on other MRI data.
Inter-modality translation: It involves generating synthetic images by translating between different types of imaging modalities, such as creating CT scans from MRI data.
Privacy protection: These images are generated without patient data, they circumvent privacy concerns, making it easier for researchers and healthcare providers to share and collaborate on AI development without the risk of violating patient confidentiality.
Cost effective: Synthetic medical images also address the time and cost of collecting real medical data.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/the-rise-of-ai-generated-synthetic-medical-images-a-new-frontier-or-potential-pitfall/article68732520.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Water chestnut:
- It is an aquatic vegetable that grows only in the Wular Lake in Kashmir.
- It contains potassium, fiber and a high amount of carbohydrates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Water chestnut, grass-like sedge which grows in the Wulkar lake is in high demand during autumn in Kashmir.
It is known as goer in Kashmir, is an aquatic vegetable that grows in the Wular Lake in Kashmir.
It is popularly known as Singhara ka atta in India, it grows underwater.
The plants have extremely sharp spines with barbs that can cause serious injuries if stepped upon.
It is native to Europe, Asia, and Africa and is also known as water caltrops.
It is dense with potassium and fiber. It barely contains any sodium or fat, but is high in carbohydrates.
How is it used?
The edible kernel, concealed beneath a thick outer layer, is peeled off, dried, and pounded into flour.
People also use the sturdy dried outer shells as fuel in the traditional fire pots known as kangri during winter.
Water chestnut is eaten in dishes during Navratri. It is also easily digestible and provides energy, which is crucial when fasting.
When peeled, the chestnut reveals white flesh with a crunchy, juicy texture and a sweet taste.
Over the years, dry weather and increasing marshy land around the lake caused a decline in production of water chestnuts and have adversely affected livelihoods.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/jammu-and-kashmir/news-in-frames-wulars-autumn-nibbles/article68748079.ece#:
Consider the following statements regarding Shale gas:
- It is a natural gas which can be extracted by using Hydraulic fracturing method.
- It is produced from the decomposition of organic matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A recent study by the scientists from Birbal Sahni institute of Palaeosciences, Lucknow (BSIP) indicated significant shale gas generation potential in eastern South Karanpura coalfield in the Ramgarh district of Jharkhand.
Shale gas is natural gas found in shale deposits, where it is trapped in microscopic or submicroscopic pores.
This natural gas is a mixture of naturally occurring hydrocarbon gases produced from the decomposition of organic matter (plant and animal remains).
Typically, shale gas consists of 70 to 90 percent methane (CH4), the main hydrocarbon target for exploration companies.
How is it extracted?
It is extracted by a commonly known method called Hydraulic fracturing.
In this method deep holes are drilled down into the shale rock, followed by horizontal drilling to access more of the gas, as shale reserves are typically distributed horizontally rather than vertically.
Fracking fluids containing sand, water and chemicals are then pumped at high pressure into the drilled holes to open up fractures in the rock, enabling the trapped gas to flow into collection wells. From there it is piped away for commercial use.
India holds promising reserves of Shale Gas & Oil resources and the following sedimentary basins are considered prospective from Shale oil and gas point of view:
Cambay Basin, Gondwana Basin, KG Basin, Cauvery Basin, Indo-Gangetic Basin and Assam & Assam-Arakan Basin
Applications: This is the gas used for generating electricity and for domestic heating and cooking.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2063700®=3&lang=1
Consider the following statements regarding Tele MANAS:
- It aims to provide free tele-mental health services all over the country.
- It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Education.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Tele MANAS is now available as a comprehensive mobile platform – Tele MANAS App – developed for the public.
Tele Mental Health Assistance and Networking Across States (Tele MANAS) was started by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare 2022.
It seeks to function as a comprehensive, integrated, and inclusive 24x7 tele-mental health facility.
It aims to provide free tele-mental health services all over the country round the clock, particularly to people in remote or underserved areas.
Tele-MANAS will be organised in a two-tier system:
Tier 1 comprises state Tele-MANAS cells, which include trained counsellors and mental health specialists.
Tier 2 will comprise specialists at the District Mental Health Programme (DMHP)/Medical College resources for physical consultation and/or e-Sanjeevani for audio-visual consultation.
Currently, there are 51 operational Tele-MANAS cells functioning across all 36 States and UTs, offering services in 20 different languages.
Another feature added to the programme this year is the video consultations facility which will be undertaken by the mental health professionals who are taking audio call escalations to get further information about the caller as part of history taking and clarification.
Key facts about Tele MANAS App
It is offered under the National Tele Mental Health Programme of India.
The app has a library of information including tips on self-care, recognizing distress signals and managing early signs of stress, anxiety, and emotional struggles.
This mobile app will also help users connect for free and access confidential mental health support through trained mental health professionals across India, 24x7 for immediate counselling.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/sleep-disturbances-sadness-of-mood-stress-and-anxiety-top-the-list-of-callers-on-govt-mental-health-helpline/article68741204.ece
Consider the following statements regarding T-90 Bhishma tank:
- It has an advanced thermal sighting system which can detect targets up to 8 kilometers.
- It can only be used in mountains region by the Indian army.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
In a significant move towards self-reliance, the Indian Army has rolled out its first overhauled T-90 Bhishma tank, further enhancing its operational readiness.
It is Indian Army’s main battle tank since 2003.
It is known for its firepower, speed, and protection. With this overhaul, the tank has become even more powerful and lethal.
The tank is manned by a crew of three—commander, gunner, and driver—who work in close coordination to engage and destroy targets.
Features
It is equipped with a 125 mm smoothbore gun, capable of firing various types of shells.
An anti-aircraft gun mounted on top can bring down targets within a two kilometre range, and the tank can fire up to 800 shells per minute.
Its compact size enables it to manoeuvre quickly through forests, mountains, and marshy terrain at a speed of up to 60 kilometres per hour.
It has advanced thermal sighting system, the tank can detect targets up to 8 kilometers (5 miles) away, day or night.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/indian-army-rolls-out-its-first-overhauled-t-90-bhishma-tank-further-enhancing-its-operational-readiness/
Consider the following statements regarding the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO):
- It is a corporate fraud investigating agency set up by the Government of India.
- It is a multi-disciplinary organization under the Union Ministry of Finance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) recorded the statement of the daughter of Kerala Chief Minister and owner of a now-dormant information technology firm, raising a political storm recently.
About Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO):
It is a corporate fraud investigating agency set up by the Government of India.
The SFIO was established on 21st July, 2015. Section 211 of the Companies Act, 2013, accorded a statutory status to the SFIO.
SFIO is a multi-disciplinary organization under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, consisting of experts in the fields of accountancy, forensic auditing, law, information technology, investigation, company law, capital markets and taxation for detecting and prosecuting or recommending for prosecution white-collar crimes/frauds.
SFIO takes up for investigation cases characterized by:
Complexity and having interdepartmental and multidisciplinary ramifications.
Substantial involvement of public interest to be judged by size, either in terms of monetary.
The possibility of investigation leading to or contributing towards a clear improvement in systems, laws, or procedures.
Investigate serious cases of fraud received from Department of Company Affairs.
Investigation into the affairs of a company is assigned to SFIO, where the Government is of the opinion that it is necessary to investigate into the affairs of a company-
on receipt of a report of the Registrar or inspector under section 208 of the Companies Act, 2013
on intimation of a special resolution passed by a company that its affairs are required to be investigated
In the public interest; or on request from any department of the Central Government or a State Government
The SFIO can also take up cases on its own only when decided by the Director of the SFIO, and also giving the reasons for taking up the case in writing.
Upon assignment of a case to the SFIO, no other investigative agency can proceed with an investigation for any offence under the Act.
SFIO is headed by a Director as Head of Department in the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government of India.
The Director is assisted by Additional Directors, Joint Directors, Deputy Directors, Senior Assistant Directors, Assistant Directors, Prosecutors, and other secretarial staff.
The headquarters of SFIO is at New Delhi with its regional offices at Mumbai, Chennai, Hyderabad, and Kolkata.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/news-reports-of-sfio-questioning-kerala-cms-daughter-veena-vijayan-in-chennai-roils-kerala-politics/article68748465.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Alkanes:
- They are organic compounds that consist entirely of single-bonded carbon and hydrogen atoms.
- They are highly reactive and show great chemical affinity for other substances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers have developed a novel method to activate alkanes using confined chiral Brønsted acids, significantly enhancing the efficiency and selectivity of chemical reactions.
About Alkanes:
Alkanes are organic compounds that consist entirely of single-bonded carbon and hydrogen atoms and lack any other functional groups.
Alkanes have the general formula CnH2n + 2 (where n is an integer).
Alkanes can be subdivided into three groups: the linear straight-chain alkanes, branched alkanes, and cycloalkanes.
They show little chemical affinity for other substances and are chemically inert to most laboratory reagents.
They are also relatively inert biologically and are not often involved in the chemistry of living organisms.
Alkanes do, however, react with oxygen, halogens, and a few other substances under appropriate conditions.
Reaction with oxygen occurs during combustion in an engine or furnace when an alkane is used as a fuel.
Carbon dioxide and water are formed as products, and a large amount of heat is released.
They are commercially very important, being the principal constituent of gasoline and lubricating oils and are extensively employed in organic chemistry.
Examples of alkane include methane, ethane, propane, butane, etc.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://scitechdaily.com/catalyst-magic-game-changing-method-for-alkane-activation-discovered-in-japan/
Consider the following statements regarding Earthworms:
- They break down dead and decaying organic matter into rich humus soil, thereby supporting plant growth.
- They dig tiny channels and make holes that aerate soil and improve drainage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Tens of thousands of species of earthworms are likely to be wriggling in the world’s soil, yet to be discovered by scientists – which will probably take more than 100 years to do.
About Earthworms:
They are terrestrial worms of the class Oligochaeta (phylum Annelida)—in particular, members of the genus Lumbricus.
Earthworms are harmless, often beneficial residents of the soil.
Earthworms occur in virtually all soils of the world in which the moisture and organic content are sufficient to sustain them.
Features:
The earthworm body is divided into ringlike segments. Some internal organs, including the excretory organs, are duplicated in each segment.
They don’t have lungs; they breathe through their skin.
They also lack eyes, so instead use receptors in their skin to sense light and touch.
Earthworms have five “hearts” that pump blood through their bodies.
Their food consists of decaying plants and other organisms; as they eat, however, earthworms also ingest large amounts of soil, sand, and tiny pebbles.
Earthworms are hermaphrodites, meaning an individual worm has both male and female reproductive organs.
Benefits:
Earthworms’ breakdown dead and decaying organic matter into rich humus soil, thereby supporting plant growth.
Earthworms release waste from their bodies called castings. Castings contain many nutrients that the plant can use.
They also dig tiny channels and make holes that aerate soil and improve drainage.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.newscientist.com/article/2451401-there-could-be-30000-species-of-earthworms-wriggling-around-the-world/
Kalleshwar Temple lies in which one of the following states?
Karnataka
Explanation :
A 13th-century stone inscription, or Veeragallu, has been recently uncovered during the renovation of the ancient Kalleshwar temple.
About Kalleshwar Temple:
It is a Hindu temple located in the town of Bagali in the Davangere district of Karnataka.
It is one of the oldest temples in the region and is dedicated to Lord Shiva.
The construction of the temple spans the rule of two Kannada dynasties: the Rashtrakuta Dynasty during the mid-10th century, and the Western Chalukya Empire, during the reign of founding King Tailapa II around 987 AD.
Architecture:
The temple is a single shrine construction with an adjoining hall (mantapa).
The temple, which faces east, comprises a sanctum, an antechamber (or vestibule or antarala, whose tower is called the sukhanasi), that connects the sanctum to a gathering hall (sabhamantapa), which is preceded by a main hall (mukhamantapa).
The Shikara of the temple is a perfect example of early Cholan architecture.
The temple houses a large Shivalinga, which is believed to be more than a thousand years old.
This temple is protected as a monument of national importance by the Archaeological Survey of India.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.cnbc.com/2024/10/01/healthy-returns-pfizer-pulls-sickle-cell-disease-drug-from-markets.html
Consider the following statements:
- It is the largest tiger reserve in the country.
- It is located in the Nallamala hill ranges of Andhra Pradesh.
- The river Krishna traverses through this reserve.
The above statements correctly describe which one of the following Tiger Reserves?
Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
Explanation :
According to the recently released ‘EnviStats India-2024’ report, the Nagarjuna Sagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve (NSTR) has been ranked first among India’s 55 tiger reserves for its leopard population, with an estimated 360 leopards.
About Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve (NSTR):
Location: It is located in the Nallamala hill ranges (an offshoot of the Eastern Ghats) of Andhra Pradesh.
This is the largest tiger reserve in the country, spreading over an area of 5937 sq. km.
It hosts the largest tiger population in the Eastern Ghat landscape.
It is named after two major dams in the area, Nagarjuna Sagar Dam and Srisailam Dam.
Two wildlife sanctuaries, namely Rajiv Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and Gundla Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary (GBM), constitute the NSTR.
The river Krishna traverses through this reserve for a linear distance of around 270 kilometers.
Topography: It consists of plateau, ridges, gorges, and deep valleys.
Vegetation: Tropical dry deciduous forests having an undergrowth of bamboo and grass.
Flora: The habitat has several endemics like Andrographis nallamalayana, Eriolaena lushingtonii, Crotalaria madurensis Var, Dicliptera beddomei, and Premna hamiltonii.
Fauna:
Top faunal species include Tiger, Leopard, Wolf, Wild Dog and Jackal.
The prey species are represented by Sambar, Chital, Chowsingha, Chinkara, Mouse Deer, Wild boar, and Porcupine.
The river Krishna has Muggers, Otters and Turtles.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/andhra-pradesh/2024/Oct/14/nagarjuna-sagar-srisailam-tiger-reserve-tops-in-increase-of-leopard-population
Consider the following statements regarding Rare disease:
- It is a health condition of low prevalence that affects a small number of people compared with other diseases.
- In India, under the National Policy for Rare Diseases (NPRD) financial assistance up to Rs 50 lakh is provided to patients.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Delhi High Court issued directions aimed at improving the availability of so-called “orphan drugs”, which are medications used to treat “rare diseases”.
A rare disease is a health condition of low prevalence that affects a small number of people compared with other prevalent diseases in the general population.
There are 7,000-8,000 classified rare diseases, but less than 5% have therapies available to treat them.
A condition is considered to be a rare disease if its prevalence is less than one case per 1,000 population.
Categories of rare diseases:
In India, rare diseases are categorised into three groups based on the nature and complexity of available treatment options.
Group 1 includes diseases that can be treated with a one-time curative procedure.
Group 2 diseases require long-term or lifelong treatment which are relatively less costly and have shown documented benefits, but patients need regular check-ups.
Group 3 diseases are those for which effective treatments are available, but they are expensive and must often continue lifelong. There are challenges in selecting the right beneficiaries for these treatments.
Financial assistance for rare diseases in India:
In 2021, the National Policy for Rare Diseases (NPRD) was launched, under which financial assistance up to Rs 50 lakh is provided to patients receiving treatment at an identified Centres of Excellence (CoE).
The CoEs include AIIMS in Delhi, PGIMER in Chandigarh and the Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education and Research at Kolkata’s SSKM Hospital.
The Union Health Ministry opened a Digital Portal for Crowdfunding & Voluntary Donations with information about patients and their rare diseases, the estimated cost of treatment, and bank details of the CoEs.
Donors can choose the CoE and patient treatments they wish to support. Each CoE also has its own Rare Disease Fund, which is used with approval from its governing authority.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-health/issues-in-the-treatment-of-rare-diseases-and-what-the-govt-can-do-9618942/
Consider the following statements regarding the X-band radar system:
- It emits smaller wavelengths which allow the radar to produce images of higher resolution.
- It is used for studies about cloud development and light precipitation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
After recent devastating floods and landslides in Kerala’s Wayanad district, the Union Ministry of Earth Sciences approved an X-band radar to be installed in the district.
An X-band radar is radar that emits radiation in the X-band of the electromagnetic spectrum: 8-12 GHz, corresponding to wavelengths of around 2-4 cm.
The smaller wavelengths allow the radar to produce images of higher resolution.
However, the greater the frequency of some radiation, the faster it will be attenuated.
Applications:
The new radar is expected to be able to monitor the movements of particles, such as soil, to inform landslide warnings.
The device will also perform high temporal sampling, that is, rapidly sample its environs, allowing it to spot particle movements happening in shorter spans of time.
These radars are typically used for studies about cloud development and light precipitation due to their abilities to detect tiny water particles and snow.
What is Radar?
Radar is short for ‘radio detection and ranging’.
The device uses radio waves to determine the distance, velocity, and physical characteristics of objects around the device.
A transmitter emits a signal aimed at an object whose characteristics are to be ascertained (in meteorology, this could be a cloud). A part of the emitted signal is echoed by the object back to the device, where a receiver tracks and analyses it.
Weather radar, also known as a Doppler radar, is a common application of this device. The Doppler effect is the change in frequency of sound waves as their source moves towards and away from a listener.
In meteorology, Doppler radars can reveal how fast a cloud is moving and in which direction based on how the cloud’s relative motion changes the frequency of the radiation striking it.
A pulse-Doppler radar can measure the intensity of, say, rainfall by emitting radiation in pulses and tracking how often they’re reflected to the receiver.
This way, modern Doppler radars can monitor weather conditions and anticipate new wind patterns, the formation of storms, etc.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/what-is-wayanads-new-x-band-radar-explained/article68750044.ece
Tenkana Jayamangali, recently in news, is a:
Spider
Explanation :
A new species of spider, discovered at the origin of Jayamangali river at Devarayanadurga reserve forest of Karnataka has now been recognised as a new genus by arachnologists.
A new species of spider, named as Tenkana Jayamangali, has been found at Devarayanadurga reserve forest of Karnataka.
It was named after the nearby Jayamangali River.
It is a sister species to T arkavathi and T manu.
It has been added as a new genus of Tenkana jumping spiders (Salticidae, Plexippina) from South Asia.
Key points about Tenkana genus:
Distribution: The southern states of India (Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Telangana) and the northern region of Sri Lanka.
Tenkana appears to be an exclusively ground-dwelling group.
It is often found among relatively complex microhabitats of shaded short grasses with dry leaf litter in groves or relatively simpler microhabitats in open, sunny, sparse short grasses associated with rocky outcrops in relatively dry habitats.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/karnataka/2024/Oct/14/new-genus-of-jumping-spider-found
Consider the following statements regarding Dragon drones:
- They release a substance called thermite which is a mixture of aluminium and iron oxide.
- These thermite induced drones can only affect trees and military-grade vehicles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A deadly new weapon has taken to the skies in the Russia-Ukraine war. Both sides have posted visuals of drones appearing to rain down fire — earning this weapon the moniker of “dragon drone”.
Dragon drones essentially release a substance called thermite — a mixture of aluminium and iron oxide — developed a century ago to weld railroad tracks.
Working:
When ignited (usually with the help of an electrical fuse), thermite triggers a self-sustaining reaction that is quite difficult to extinguish.
It can burn through almost anything, from clothes to trees to military-grade vehicles, and can even burn underwater. On humans, it causes severe, possibly fatal, burns and bone damage.
Combining thermite with high-precision drones that can bypass traditional defences makes dragon drones ‘highly effective’ and ‘dangerous’.
In recent time these dragon drones are believed to have been first deployed in the Russia-Ukraine war around September.
International regulation:
The use of thermite in war is not prohibited under international law.
However, the use of such incendiary weapons against civilian targets is barred under the Convention on Certain Conventional Weapons — Cold War-era guidance issued under the auspices of the United Nations.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/dragon-drones-russia-ukraine-war-9618024/
Q10. With reference to Murine Typhus, consider the following statements:
- It is caused by the flea-borne bacteria Rickettsia typhi.
- It is found mainly in coastal tropical and subtropical regions.
- It can spread from one person to another.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A 75-year-old man from Kerala who recently travelled to Vietnam and Cambodia was diagnosed with the bacterial disease murine typhus.
It is an infectious disease caused by the flea-borne bacteria Rickettsia typhi.
Transmission:
It is transmitted to humans through the bites of infected fleas.
It is also known as endemic typhus, flea-borne typhus or flea-borne spotted fever.
Rodents like rats, mice and mongoose, are known to be reservoirs of the disease.
The disease-carrying fleas can also live on other small mammals, including pets such as cats and dogs. Once a flea is infected, it can spread the disease for the rest of its life.
Transmission can also happen through exposure of mucous membranes to infected flea faeces.
It is spread when infected flea faeces come into contact with cuts or scrapes in the skin.
Murine typhus is not spread from one person to another, or from person to fleas.
The disease has been reported in coastal tropical and subtropical regions, where rats are prevalent.
In India, cases of murine typhus have been reported in the Northeast, Madhya Pradesh and Kashmir.
Symptoms:
The symptoms usually appear seven to 14 days after the exposure and include fever, headaches, body aches, joint pains, nausea, vomiting, and stomach aches.
Some people may later develop rashes on the skin, days after the initial symptoms.
Treatment:
There is no vaccine currently available against the disease.
The antibiotic doxycycline is considered effective in therapy, but early diagnosis is vital for treatment.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-health/kerala-murine-typhus-flea-borne-9618057/
What is the primary product of the Haber-Bosch process?
Ammonia
Explanation :
A hundred million tonnes of nitrogen are now removed from the atmosphere and converted into fertilizer via the Haber-Bosch process, adding 165 million tonnes of reactive nitrogen to the soil.
About Haber-Bosch Process:
It is a process that fixes nitrogen with hydrogen to produce ammonia (NH3)—a critical part in the manufacture of plant fertilizers.
The process was developed in the early 1900s by Fritz Haber and was later modified to become an industrial process to make fertilizers by Carl Bosch.
It is considered by many scientists and scholars as one of the most important technological advances of the 20th century.
It is extremely important because it was the first of the processes developed that allowed people to mass-produce plant fertilizers due to the production of ammonia.
It was the first industrial chemical process to use high pressure for a chemical reaction.
How the Haber-Bosch Process Works?
It directly combines nitrogen from the air with hydrogen under extremely high pressures and moderately high temperatures.
A catalyst made mostly from iron enables the reaction to be carried out at a lower temperature than would otherwise be practicable.
The removal of ammonia from the batch as soon as it is formed ensures that an equilibrium favouring product formation is maintained.
The lower the temperature and the higher the pressure used, the greater the proportion of ammonia yielded in the mixture.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/how-did-the-haber-bosch-process-change-the-world/article68752579.ece
The term “adaptive radiation” in the context of Darwin’s finches refers to:
evolution of multiple species from a single ancestor
Explanation :
In research published recently, biologists have identified a key connection between ecology and speciation in Darwin’s finches, famous residents of the Galapagos Islands.
About Darwin’s Finches:
Darwin’s finches, named after Charles Darwin, are small land birds.
They comprise a group of 15 species endemic to the Galápagos (14 species) and Cocos (1 species) Islands in the Pacific Ocean.
The group is monophyletic and originated from a common ancestral species that reached the Galápagos Archipelago from Central or South America.
Descendants of this ancestor on the Archipelago then colonized Cocos Island.
Darwin’s finches are all very similar in shape, size, and colour, but there are a few differences which can help when identifying them. These include diet, habitat, and beak size and shape.
They’re known for their remarkably diverse beak form and function, evolved to suit the different food types available across the islands.
From seeds and fruits to invertebrates and even blood, their widely varied beak shapes and sizes have allowed each species to occupy different niches of the islands.
Darwin’s finches are the classic example of adaptive radiation, the evolution of groups of plants or animals into different species adapted to specific ecological niches.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-10-playing-songs-darwin-finches-link.html
Consider the following statements regarding Jordan Valley:
- It stretches from the Sea of Galilee in the north to the Dead Sea in the south.
- It is located along Jordan’s eastern border with Israel and the West Bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Shiite militia group, The Islamic Resistance in Iraq, recently claimed responsibility for conducting two drone strikes on Israeli sites in the Jordan Valley.
About Jordan Valley:
It is a rift valley in the Middle East in southwestern Asia.
A segment of the East African Rift System, the Jordan Valley is about 105 kilometers long and stretches from the Sea of Galilee in the north to the Dead Sea in the south.
It is located along the Jordan River and along Jordan’s western border with Israel and the West Bank.
It comprises over a fifth of the territory of the West Bank.
It drops more than 1,400 feet (430 metres) below sea level at the Dead Sea, the lowest natural point on Earth’s surface.
Its width extends about 6 miles (10 km), though it becomes narrower in some locations.
Though the valley is sparsely populated, some communities exist, most notably the city of Jericho in the West Bank.
The Jordan Valley holds immense religious importance for Christianity, Judaism, and Islam.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.india.com/news/world/lesser-known-group-claims-drone-attacks-israeli-sites-jordan-valley-iraq-west-bank-lebanon-hezbollah-palestine-7322975/
With reference to Article 142 of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
- It grants the Supreme Court extraordinary powers to deliver justice.
- It is used to address gaps in existing laws for pending cases.
- Laws enacted to make unenforceable the decree made under Article 142 may be declared void.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently refused to entertain a PIL seeking directions under Article 142 to include sexual offences against men, trans persons, and animals under the newly enacted Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS).
About Article 142:
It deals with the Supreme Court’s power to exercise its jurisdiction and pass an order for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it.
It provides the apex court with a special and extraordinary power and is meant to provide justice to litigants who have suffered traversed illegality or injustice in the course of legal proceedings.
Article 142(1) states that “The Supreme Court, in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it, and any decree so passed or order so made shall be enforceable throughout the territory of India in such manner as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament and, until provision in that behalf is so made, in such manner as the President may by order prescribe”.
Article 142 allows the Supreme Court to deliver justice in exceptional cases where existing provisions or laws are not applicable.
If a legislative enactment seeks to make unenforceable the decree or order of the Supreme Court made under Article 142, in relation to the cause and the parties between whom it was made, such law would be void for contravening Article 142[8].
This power cannot be used to “supplant” substantive law applicable to the case or cause under consideration of the court.
Significant cases where Article 142 was invoked:
Babri Masjid Case: The article was used in the Ram Janmabhoomi-Babri Masjid land dispute case and was instrumental in the handover of the disputed land to a trust to be formed by the union government.
Bhopal Gas Tragedy: The SC invoked its plenary powers in the Union Carbide vs Union Govt case and intervened to provide compensation to victims of the deadly Bhopal Gas Tragedy.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/supreme-court-refuses-to-entertain-plea-to-criminalise-sexual-offences-against-men-trans-persons-animals-in-bns-272371
Mount Adams, a stratovolcano recently seen in the news, lies in which country?
United States of America
Explanation :
Mount Adams, Washington’s largest volcano, has recently shown a surge in seismic activity after remaining largely dormant for thousands of years.
About Mount Adams:
It is a stratovolcano located in Washington State, United States.
At 12,277 feet (3,742 meters) high and 18 miles (29 kilometers) wide, Mount Adams is the largest active volcano in Washington, surpassing Mount Rainier — the state’s highest peak — by volume.
Mount Adams lies in the middle of the Mount Adams volcanic field—a 1,250 sq.km area comprising at least 120, mostly basaltic volcanoes that form spatter and scoria cones, shield volcanoes, and some extensive lava flows.
Mount Adams supports over 10 active glaciers that provide water to the forests, streams, and meadows below.
The most recent eruption at the site occurred sometime between 3,800 and 7,600 years ago, when humanity was still in the Stone Age.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/travel/travel-news/is-mount-adams-going-to-erupt-after-thousands-of-years-of-dormancy-find-out-here/articleshow/114168851.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the MAHA- EV Mission:
- It focuses on the development of key Electric Vehicle technologies to reduce dependency on imports and promote domestic innovation in India.
- It is an initiative of the Anusandhan National Research Foundation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The newly operationalised Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) initiated the Mission for Advancement in High-Impact Areas -Electric Vehicle (MAHA- EV) Mission.
It focuses on the development of key EV technologies to reduce dependency on imports, promote domestic innovation, and position India as a global leader in the EV sector.
It is part of ANRF’s Advancement in High-Impact Areas (MAHA) program designed to catalyze multi-institutional, multi-disciplinary, and multi-investigator collaboration to tackle critical scientific challenges.
It aims to accelerate technological advancement in key sectors that have a high impact on the nation’s future growth to create a global standing in the area.
It is concentrating on three critical technology verticals– Tropical EV Batteries and Battery Cells, Power Electronics, Machines, and Drives (PEMD) and Electric Vehicle Charging Infrastructure.
Significance
The mission will enhance domestic capabilities in the design and development of essential EV components.
It will strengthen competitiveness and position India as a hub for EV component development, driving global competitiveness and innovation.
By accelerating the shift towards electric mobility, it will contribute to a greener and sustainable future.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/anusandhan-national-research-foundation-launches-pmecrg-maha-ev-initiatives/
Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF):
- It is funded only by the elected governments around the world.
- It helps children and young people whose lives and futures are at risk.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF) has said that Indian suppliers are the third largest provider of organisation’s health and nutrition support to children globally.
The United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund (UNICEF) was established in 1946, in the aftermath of World War II.
Mandate: To help children and young people whose lives and futures are at risk – no matter what role their country had played in the war.
It works in over 190 countries and territories to protect the rights of every child.
Funding: UNICEF’s work is funded entirely through the voluntary support of millions of people around the world and our partners in government, civil society and the private sector.
Awards: It has received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1965, the Indira Gandhi Prize in 1989, and the Princess of Asturias Award in 2006.
It publishes important Reports: The State of the World’s Children, The State of the World’s Children reports.
Global Initiatives:
In 2012, UNICEF worked with Save the Children and The United Nations Global Compact to develop the Children’s Rights and Business Principles, and now these guidelines form the basis of UNICEF’s advice to companies.
UNICEF’s Data Must Speak Initiative (DMS) helps countries unlock existing data to expand access to education and improve learning for all.
Headquarters: It is headquartered in New York City.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/india-becomes-3rd-largest-supplier-of-health-nutrition-support-to-unicef/
THAAD Missile System, recently in news, is developed by:
USA
Explanation :
As Israel intensifies its military operation against Hezbollah militants in Lebanon, the United States announced it will deploy a missile defence system, the Terminal High Altitude Area Defence (THAAD) battery, to Israel.
It is a missile defense system that can engage and destroy short-, medium-, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles during their terminal phase of flight.
Key features
It has a “hit to kill” approach which blasts missiles as they enter their target zone during their descent.
It uses kinetic energy to destroy incoming nuclear warheads.
Target range: It can cover a wide area, engaging targets at distances between 150-200 kilometers (93-124 miles).
Development of THAAD
It was developed by the US after their experience of Iraq’s Scud missile attacks during the Persian Gulf War in 1991.
In 2008, the US deployed an early missile warning radar, a part of the THAAD system to Israel. Similar deployments were also made in 2012 and 2019, aiding Israel’s ability to emerge as a military power.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/us-thaad-israel-significant-9619724/
Consider the following statements regarding Biopolymers:
- These are manufactured from biological sources such as fats, vegetable oils.
- These materials do not get decomposed by bacteria in the soil environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the union minister inaugurated India’s first Demonstration Facility for Biopolymers in Pune.
About Biopolymers:
These are materials that have been manufactured from biological sources such as fats, vegetable oils, sugars, resins, and proteins.
The biopolymers have complex structures than synthetic polymers therefore they are more active in vivo.
Furthermore, as biopolymers are biodegradable their decomposition is easily done by bacteria in the soil environment, as compared to synthetic polymers which causes environmental pollution due to incineration.
Characteristics
They can control life processes of living organisms and are environmentally friendly.
They are decomposed by the processes named –oxidation (mainly reaction with oxygen), hydrolysis (decomposition by water) or by some enzymes.
Some of them are compostable and can show some chemical properties in their surface.
Bio polymers like polylactic acid, polyglycolate , poly 3-hydroxy butyrate etc. may show plastic properties and instead.
Benefits:
These polymers can reduce carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere and also decrease carbon emissions.
This happens because bio-degradation of these chemical compounds can release carbon dioxide that can be reabsorbed by crops grown as a substitute in their place.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2064526
Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the Inter-Parliamentary Union:
- It is an international organization of Parliaments established to promote representative democracy.
- It is financed primarily by its members out of public funds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Lok Sabha Speaker, leading an Indian Parliamentary Delegation at the 149th Assembly of the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) in Geneva, emphasised the importance of multilateralism in his address.
It is the international organization of Parliaments which was established in 1889 in Paris to promote representative democracy and world peace.
It facilitates parliamentary diplomacy and empowers parliaments and parliamentarians to promote peace, democracy, and sustainable development around the world.
It was the first multilateral political organization in the world, encouraging cooperation and dialogue between all nations.
Members: It comprises 180 member parliaments and 15 associate members.
It promotes democracy and helps parliaments become stronger, younger, gender-balanced, and more diverse.
It also defends the human rights of parliamentarians through a dedicated committee made up of MPs from around the world.
The IPU moved its headquarters to Geneva in 1921.
Funding: It is financed primarily by its members out of public funds.
Structure
IPU Assembly: It is the principal statutory body that expresses the views of the IPU on political issues. It brings together parliamentarians to study international problems and make recommendations for action.
Governing Council: It is the plenary policy making body of the IPU. It is composed of three representatives from each member parliament. The President of the IPU is ex-officio President of the Governing Council.
The Council establishes the annual programme and budget of the IPU.
Executive Committees: In accordance with the IPU statutes, this 17-member body oversees the administration of the IPU and provides advice to the Governing Council. The 15 members of the Executive Committee are elected by the Council for a four-year term.
The President of the IPU is an ex officio member and President of the Committee.
Standing Committees: There are three Standing Committees set up by the IPU Governing Council to assist the Assembly in its work.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Oct/14/om-birla-highlights-indias-push-for-multilateralism-innovation-at-ipu-assembly-in-geneva
Which of the following factors are responsible for influencing oceanic currents?
- Heating by solar energy.
- Planetary winds.
- Gravitational force of the earth.
- Coriolis force.
- Differences in water density
- Temperature difference.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Explanation :
The primary forces that influence the currents are: (i) heating by solar energy; (ii) wind; (iii) gravity; (iv) Coriolis force. Heating by solar energy causes the water to expand. That is why, near the equator the ocean water is about 8 cm higher in level than in the middle latitudes. This causes a very slight gradient and water tends to flow down the slope. Wind blowing on the surface of the ocean pushes the water to move. Friction between the wind and the water surface affects the movement of the water body in its course. Gravity tends to pull the water down the pile and create gradient variation. The Coriolis force intervenes and causes the water to move to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. So, statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
Differences in water density affect vertical mobility of ocean currents. Water with high salinity is denser than water with low salinity and in the same way cold water is denser than warm water. Denser water tends to sink, while relatively lighter water tends to rise. Cold-water ocean currents occur when the cold water at the poles sinks and slowly moves towards the equator. Warm-water currents travel out from the equator along the surface, flowing towards the poles to replace the sinking cold water. So, statements 5 and 6 are correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to water resource distribution:
- More than half of the world’s fresh water is stored as groundwater.
- Lakes contain less than 20% of the world’s fresh surface water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Global Water Distribution
Hydrosphere | Aspen Global Change Institute71% of the Earth’s surface is covered in water. 97 per cent of that water is saltwater in the ocean and seas. The remaining 3 per cent is freshwater.
68.7% of the fresh water on Earth is frozen in icecaps and glaciers. 30.1% per cent is stored as groundwater. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Only 0.30 per cent of the freshwater is present in lakes, rivers and swamps. Among these fresh surface water, 87 per cent is stored in lakes and only 2 per cent is present in rivers. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to jet streams:
- These are relatively narrow bands of strong wind in the upper levels of the atmosphere.
- They generally blow from west to east all across the globe.
- Jet streams are stronger in the northern hemisphere in the months of June and July.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Jet streams are relatively narrow bands of strong wind in the upper levels of the atmosphere. They impact weather, air travel and many other things that take place in our atmosphere. So, statement 1 is correct.
They generally blow from west to east all across the globe but the flow often shifts to the north and south. Earth has four primary jet streams: two polar jet streams, near the north and south poles, and two subtropical jet streams closer to the equator. So, statement 2 is correct.
Jet streams follow the boundaries between hot and cold air. Since these hot and cold air boundaries are most pronounced in winter, jet streams are the strongest for both the northern and southern hemisphere winters. In the months of June and July northern hemisphere witness summer. So, statement 3 is not correct.
With reference to Polar Vortex, consider the following statements:
- It expands due to the weakening of the jet stream and brings extreme cold waves to North America.
- All the cold weather in the Northern hemisphere is due to its permanent nature in the Arctic.
- It becomes stable and remains confined within the jet stream influence during the winter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The polar vortex is a large area of low pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles. It always exists near the poles, but weakens in summer and strengthens in winter. The term “vortex” refers to the counter-clockwise flow of air that helps keep the colder air near the Poles.What is the Polar Vortex?
When the low-pressure system is strong and healthy, it keeps the jet stream travelling around Earth in a circular path. The jet stream is a band of reliably strong wind that plays a key role in keeping colder air north and warmer air south. But when the vortex weakens, part of the weakened low-pressure system can break off. This breaking-off process is what can cause colder temperatures in North America. So, statement 1 is correct.
Cold temperatures due to the polar vortex are not rare in the Northern region near the arctic. But not all cold weather comes from the polar vortex. Although cold air from the polar vortex can be pushed south, it typically remains parked in polar regions. It takes pretty unusual conditions for the vortex to weaken or migrate far south. Other weather conditions can cause cold arctic weather to travel south, too. So, statement 2 is not correct.
In winter, the polar vortex sometimes becomes less stable and expands. Many times during winter in the northern hemisphere, the north polar vortex will expand, sending cold air southward with the jet stream. This is called a polar vortex event, defined as the “breaking off” of a part of the vortex. So, statement 3 is not correct.
With reference to the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC), consider the following statements:
- Additional rainfall in the Indian Ocean negatively affects the AMOC.
- A weakening AMOC may decrease the temperature and precipitation over Europe.
- Freshwater from Greenland ice sheets and the Arctic region can slow down AMOC.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
The Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC) is a large system of ocean currents. It is the Atlantic branch of the ocean conveyor belt or Thermohaline circulation (THC), and distributes heat and nutrients throughout the world’s ocean basins.
As per the 2019 study the Indian Ocean may also be helping the slowing down of AMOC. As the Indian Ocean warms faster and faster, it generates additional precipitation. With so much precipitation in the Indian Ocean, there will be less precipitation in the Atlantic Ocean, leading to higher salinity in the waters of the tropical portion of the Atlantic. This saltier water in the Atlantic, as it comes north via AMOC, will get cold much quicker than usual and sink faster. So, statement 1 is correct.
Gulf Stream, a part of the AMOC, is a warm current responsible for mild climate at the Eastern coast of North America as well as Europe. Without a proper AMOC and Gulf Stream, Europe will be very cold. Modeling studies have shown that an AMOC shutdown would cool the northern hemisphere and decrease rainfall over Europe. It can also have an effect on the El Nino. So, statement 2 is correct.
Freshwater from melting Greenland ice sheets and the Arctic region can make circulation weaker as it is not as dense as saltwater. The freshwater from the melting ice reduces the salinity and density of the water. Now, the water is unable to sink as it used to and weakens the AMOC flow. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following with reference to Western Disturbances (WD):
- They are anti-cyclonic circulations occurring at the tropospheric and stratospheric levels.
- They are responsible for snowfall and fog in northern India.
- The moisture they carry comes from the Mediterranean Sea or the Atlantic Ocean.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Western disturbances (WDs) are formally defined by the India Meteorological Department as “cyclonic circulation/trough in the mid and lower tropospheric levels or as a low-pressure area on the surface, which occurs in middle latitude westerlies and originates over the Mediterranean Sea, Caspian Sea and the Black Sea and moves eastwards across north India”. WDs are, at the most fundamental level, synoptic-scale vertical perturbations embedded in the subtropical westerly jet stream (STWJ). They are often associated with extreme rainfall events in the Karakoram and Hindu Kush regions of Pakistan and north India. So, statement 1 is not correct.
A WD is associated with rainfall, snowfall and fog in northern India. Upon its arrival in Pakistan and northern India, clouds along with rain and snow also arrive. The moisture which WDs carry with them comes from the Mediterranean Sea and/or from the Atlantic Ocean. Dense fog is witnessed in the plains of northern India. As the western disturbance will be bringing more moisture, there will be an increase in fog. So, statement 2 and statement 3 are correct.
Winds are blowing anti-clockwise in the northern hemisphere. Such an anti-clockwise flow of air indicates a low-pressure region. This low pressure is associated with the WD. To normalise the reduced air pressure over Rajasthan, moist winds from the Arabian Sea seem to be blowing towards Rajasthan. As a result, cloudy weather and rains will be witnessed in the green-shaded areas of central and northern India.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- The easterly jet stream steers the tropical depressions into India.
- The tracks of tropical depressions are the areas of lowest rainfall in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The easterly jet stream steers the tropical depressions into India. These depressions play a significant role in the distribution of monsoon rainfall over the Indian subcontinent. So, statement 1 is correct.
The tracks of these depressions are the areas of highest rainfall in India. The frequency at which these depressions visit India, their direction and intensity, all go a long way in determining the rainfall pattern during the southwest monsoon period. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Which the following statements is/are correct with reference to the ocean currents?
- The Kuroshio Current is a cold current running from Taiwan to the Bering Strait.
- The Benguela current is a warm current in the Pacific Ocean.
- El Nino current makes the Peruvian coastal desert green and an ideal harvest of cotton.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
3 only
Explanation :
Kuroshio system is a warm current composed of several currents and drifts similar to the Gulf stream system of the Atlantic ocean. This system runs from Taiwan to the Bering Strait and consists of the Kuroshio current, the Kuroshio extension, the North Pacific drift, the Tsushima current and the counter Kuroshio current. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Winds blowing over the cold current discourage rainfall. This is seen in the Kalahari Desert along the western coast of South Africa in the Atlantic ocean and the Atacama desert along the western coast of South America in the Pacific ocean because of the existence of Benguela and Peru currents respectively. So, statement 2 is not correct.
A subsurface warm current known as El Nino current flows from north to south between 3°S and 36°S latitudes at a distance of about 180km from the Peruvian coast. The southward shifting of the counter equatorial warm current during southern winter gives birth to the El Nino current. The temperature on the Peruvian coast does not fall considerably because of this current. The heavy rainfall associated with the strong El Nino event makes coastal Peruvian deserts green and there is a rich harvest of cotton, coconuts and bananas but there is an oceanic biological disaster. So, statement 3 is correct.
Which of the following is the primary cause of deep-water ocean current formation?
Density difference
Explanation :
Surface Currents occur on the top layer of the ocean and are primarily driven by wind. They affect the water on the upper 300m of the ocean. As opposed to surface currents that occur on the upper surface of the ocean, deep-water currents occur deep inside the ocean. As they occur far below the surface, they are not influenced by the wind. However, they arise as a result of variation in the density of the ocean water and are controlled by the temperature and salt content of the water.
Which of the following is a cold current of the southern hemisphere?
Benguela current
Explanation :
The Benguela Current is a cold, wide current that flows northwards along the west coast of southern Africa. It is an eastern boundary current and forms the eastern flank of the South Atlantic Gyre. The ocean current “begins” roughly where the eastward-flowing South Atlantic Current swings northward at the Agulhas.
Consider the following statements regarding the salinity of ocean waters:
- Rocks on land are the major source of salts dissolved in seawater.
- Sodium and chloride ions make up more than 80 per cent of all dissolved ions in the ocean.
- Salinity is generally low at the equator and poles, while mid-latitudes have high salinity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Salt in the ocean comes from two sources: runoff from the land and openings in the seafloor. Rocks on land are the major source of salts dissolved in seawater. Rainwater that falls on land is slightly acidic, so it erodes rocks. This releases ions that are carried away to streams and rivers that eventually feed into the ocean. So, statement 1 is correct.
Two of the most prevalent ions in seawater are chloride and sodium. Together, they make up around 85 per cent of all dissolved ions in the ocean. Magnesium and sulphate make up another 10 per cent of the total. Other ions are found in very small concentrations. So, statement 2 is correct.
The concentration of salt in seawater (salinity) varies with temperature, evaporation and precipitation. Salinity is generally low at the equator and at the poles and high at mid-latitudes. The average salinity is about 35 parts per thousand. Salinity, generally, increases with depth and there is a distinct zone called the halocline, where salinity increases sharply. Other factors being constant, increasing the salinity of seawater causes its density to increase. High salinity seawater, generally, sinks below the lower salinity water. This leads to stratification by salinity. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- Real GDP is an inflation-adjusted measure for assessing domestic economic production.
- If inflation is negative, real GDP will be lower than nominal GDP and vice versa.
- Real GDP provides a better basis for judging long-term national economic performance than Nominal GDP.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Because GDP is one of the most important metrics for evaluating the economic activity, stability, and growth of goods and services in an economy, it is usually reviewed from two angles: Nominal and Real.
Real GDP is an inflation-adjusted measure that reflects the value of all goods and services produced by an economy in a given year (expressed in base-year prices) and is often referred to as constant-price GDP, inflation-corrected GDP. Thus, Real GDP takes into consideration adjustments for changes in inflation. Real GDP is calculated by dividing nominal GDP over a GDP deflator. So, statement 1 is correct.
Nominal GDP is a macroeconomic assessment of the value of goods and services using current prices in its measure. The main difference between nominal GDP and real GDP is the taking of inflation into account. Since nominal GDP is calculated using current prices, it does not require any adjustments for inflation. This means that if inflation is positive, real GDP will be lower than nominal, and vice versa. Without a real GDP adjustment, positive inflation greatly inflates GDP in nominal terms. So, statement 2 is not correct.
As such, real GDP provides a better basis for judging long-term national economic performance than nominal GDP. Using a GDP price deflator, real GDP reflects GDP on a per quantity basis. Without real GDP, it would be difficult to identify just from examining nominal GDP whether production is actually expanding—or it’s just a factor of rising per-unit prices in the economy. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which among the following are included under the economic territory of India?
- Indian ships moving between UK and Pakistan regularly
- Passenger planes operated by Air India between Russia and Japan
- India’s territorial waters
- Embassies, Consulates and military establishments of India located abroad
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
Domestic territory, as used in national accounting, has a special meaning and is much bigger than the political frontiers of a country. According to United Nations, “Economic territory is the geographical territory administered by a government within which persons, goods and capital circulate freely.” Domestic territory is also called economic territory.
The following items are included in the domestic territory:
The territory lying within the political frontiers of a country. It includes territorial waters also.
Ships and aircrafts owned and operated by the residents between two or more countries. For Instance, Indian ships moving between UK and Pakistan regularly or passenger planes operated by Air India between Russia and Japan are parts of the domestic territory of India.
Fishing vessels, oil and natural gas rigs and floating platforms operated by the residents of a country in the international waters or engaged in extraction in areas where the country has exclusive rights of operation. For example, fishing boats operated by Indian fishermen in the international waters of the Indian Ocean will be considered as a part of domestic territory of India.
Embassies, Consulates and military establishments of the country located abroad.
What domestic territory does NOT include?
Territorial enclaves (like embassies) used/administered by foreign governments.
International Organisations which are physically located within geographical boundaries of a country. Their offices form part of international territory.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Which among the following are excluded from Gross National Product (GNP) measurements?
- Sales of used items
- Government transfer payments
- Purchase of stock and bonds
- Inventory spending by business enterprises
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation :
GNP is the final value of goods and services produced by domestically owned means of production (using domestic labour and resources), GDP is the final value of goods and services produced within a given country’s border.
GNP=C+G+I+NX+NFP
The calculation is broken up as follows:
Consumption (C) is the actual consumption spending of the household sector. It consists of food, clothing and all consumer spending.
Goods and services (G) are the next largest component of government purchases. These items include salaries for government employees, national defence, and state and local government spending. Government transfer payments, such as unemployment compensation, are not included.
Investment spending (I) is not what we commonly think of when we discuss investing. It does not include the purchases of stocks and bonds. Rather, investment spending includes business spending that will improve the ability to produce in the future. Inventory spending, capital improvements, and building machinery are included in this category. Investment in housing construction is also included.
The net exports (NX) component is equal to exports (goods and services purchased by foreigners) minus imports (goods and services purchased by domestic residents).
Finally, net factor payments (NFP) are the net amount of payments that an economy pays to foreigners for inputs used in producing goods and services, less money the economy receives for selling the same factors of production.
GNP uses only the values of output currently produced. Therefore, it excludes sales of used items and existing houses. For example, GNP includes new cars on dealers’ lots but not the used cars selling on the same lot.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the 15th Finance Commission:
- It used 2011 population data for making its recommendations.
- For calculating the individual share of states in the divisible pool of taxes, the most weight has been given to ‘Tax and Fiscal efforts.’
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The 15th Finance Commission was constituted by the President of India in November 2017, under the chairmanship of NK Singh. Its recommendations will cover a period of five years from the year 2021-22 to 2025-26.
Key features of its recommendations include
The share of states in the central taxes for the 2021-26 period is recommended to be 41%, the same as that for 2020-21. This is less than the 42% share recommended by the 14th Finance Commission for the 2015-20 period. The adjustment of 1% is to provide for the newly formed union territories of Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh from the resources of the centre.
The criteria for the distribution of central taxes among states for the 2021-26 period is the same as that for 2020-21. However, the reference period for computing income distance and tax efforts are different (2015-18 for 2020-21 and 2016-19 for 2021-26), hence, the individual share of states may still change.
The Terms of Reference of the Commission required it to use the population data of 2011 while making recommendations. Accordingly, the Commission used 2011 population data for its recommendations. So, statement 1 is correct.
For horizontal devolution, it has suggested 12.5% weightage to demographic performance, 45% to income distance, 15% each to population and area, 10% to forest and ecology and 2.5% to tax and fiscal efforts. Thus, maximum weightage has been given to ‘Income distance’ while determining the individual share of states in the divisible pool of taxes. Income distance is the distance of a state’s income from the state with the highest income. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the primary deficit:
- It shows the government’s borrowing needs in order to pay the interest on the loans it has taken out.
- Zero primary deficit signifies that the government has borrowed money to pay interest payments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit (Total expenditure – Total income of the government) – Interest payments (of previous borrowings)
Primary Deficit indicates the borrowing requirements of the government, excluding interest payments. Primary deficit is measured to know the amount of borrowing that the government can utilize, excluding the interest payments. Thus, it does not include the debt servicing expenditures of the government. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The difference between the primary deficit and fiscal deficit reflects the amount of interest payment on public debt generated in the past. So, a decrease in primary deficit shows progress towards fiscal health. Hence, when the primary deficit is zero, the fiscal deficit becomes equal to the interest payment. This means that the government has resorted to borrowings just to pay off the interest payments. So, statement 2 is correct.
Which of the following subsidies can be categorized as ‘Product Subsidies’?
- Fertilizer subsidies
- Interest subsidies to farmers
- Subsidies to railways
- Input subsidies to farmers
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Product subsidies are paid or received per unit of product. Whereas, Production subsidies are paid or received with relation to production and are independent of the volume of actual production. It is provided to encourage the production of a specific good or service by reducing its cost of production.
Examples of Product subsidies include food, petroleum and fertilizer subsidies, interest subsidies given to farmers, households, etc. through banks.
Examples of production subsidies include subsidies to Railways, input subsidies to farmers, subsidies to the village and small industries, administrative subsidies to corporations or cooperatives, etc.
The term ‘Equalisation Levy 2.0’ was recently seen in the news. It is levied on
non-resident e-commerce operators.
Explanation :
The equalisation levy is meant to nullify the advantage of foreign e-commerce firms without a physical presence in India over local competitors. It came into effect in June 2016. The levy is often referred to as ‘Google tax’.
India based e-commerce operators are already subject to taxes in India for revenue generated from the Indian market. However, in the absence of the Equalisation Levy, non-resident e-commerce operators (not having any Permanent Establishment in India but significant economic presence) are not required to pay taxes in respect of the consideration received in the e-commerce supply or services made in the Indian market. The EL levied at 2% is applicable on non-resident e-commerce operators, not having a permanent establishment in India.
It is a recognition of the principle that in a digital world, a seller can engage in business transactions without any physical presence, and governments have a legitimate right to tax such transactions.
Which of the following are likely consequences if the Indian Rupee has full Capital Account Convertibility?
- Increase in financial market liquidity
- Access to Foreign Capital becomes easy
- Volatility in the exchange rate
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Convertibility is the ease with which a country’s currency can be converted into gold or another currency through global exchanges. It indicates the extent to which the regulations allow inflow and outflow of capital to and from the country.
Currencies that aren’t fully convertible, on the other hand, are generally difficult to convert into other currencies.
Current Account Convertibility
Any currency may be current account or capital account convertible, or both.
Current account convertibility refers to the freedom to convert your rupees into other internationally accepted currencies and vice versa without any restrictions whenever you make payments.
Capital Account Convertibility
Similarly, capital account convertibility means the freedom to conduct investment transactions without any constraints. India has come a long way in liberating the capital account transactions in the last three decades and currently has Partial Capital Account Convertibility.
Some of the recent moves include increasing the foreign portfolio investment limits in the Indian debt markets, introducing the Fully Accessible Route (FAR) — through which non-residents can invest in specified government securities without any restrictions and the easing of the external commercial borrowing framework by relaxing end-user restrictions. Inward FDI is allowed in most sectors, and outbound FDI by Indian incorporated entities is allowed as a multiple of their net worth. However, the rupee continues to remain capital account non-convertible.
Advantages and disadvantages of Full capital account convertibility
Increased Liquidity in Financial Markets: Full capital account convertibility opens up the country’s markets to global players including investors, businesses, and trade partners. This allows easy access to capital for different businesses and sectors, positively impacting a nation’s economy. So, point 1 is correct
Easy Access to Foreign Capital: Local businesses can benefit from easy access to foreign loans at comparatively lower costs—lower interest rates. Indian companies currently have to take the ADR/GDR route to list on foreign exchanges. After full convertibility, they will be able to directly raise equity capital from overseas markets. So, point 2 is correct
Foreign Debt: Businesses can easily raise foreign debt, but they are prone to the risk of high repayments if exchange rates become unfavorable. If the U.S. dollar appreciates against the Indian rupee, more rupees will be needed to get the same number of dollars, making the repayment costly.
Capital flows are sensitive to macroeconomic conditions: Any deterioration in fiscal conditions, inflation management, balance of payments, or any other macroeconomic shock may cause a cessation or reversal of capital flows.
Volatility in the exchange rate: An open capital account demands a complete ‘let go’ of the exchange rate management and volatile capital flows and can therefore lead to extreme volatility in the exchange rate and large departures from its equilibrium value. So, point 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
With reference to Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS), consider the following statements:
- The maximum retail price of fertilizers is fixed by the Government.
- Urea is kept out of its purview.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) Policy is being implemented w.e.f. 1.4.2010 by the Department of Fertilizers and a fixed amount of subsidy (at the fixed rate) decided on an annual basis, is provided on each grade of subsidized Phosphatic & Potassic (P&K) fertilizers depending on its Nutrient Content. The scheme was set up to ensure the availability of phosphatic and potassic fertilizers to farmers at an affordable price, as the retail prices of such non-urea fertilisers are decontrolled and set by manufacturers. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Urea is kept outside the purview of the NBS policy. Urea is kept under the Government’s price control, and it is provided to the farmers at a statutorily notified Maximum Retail Price (MRP). So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to Sugarcane Sector in India, consider the following statements:
- The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane has seen a consistent decrease in the last ten years.
- The views of State Governments are considered while fixing the FRP of sugarcane.
- State Governments cannot announce State Advised Price (SAP) over and above the FRP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Significance of sugarcane and sugar industry for India’s economy can be gauged from the fact that it is the country’s second-largest agro-based industry, next to cotton. India is the largest consumer and the second-largest producer of sugar in the world.
Over the years, India has become a sugar surplus nation as reflected from the trend of sugar production and consumption. Since 2010-11, production has outstripped consumption except in 2016-17. This has been possible because of various measures undertaken by the Government. For example, the interest of the farmers is protected by the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane which has doubled in a span of ten years (from ₹ 145 per quintal in 2011-12 to ₹ 290 per quintal in 2021-22). FRP is the minimum price at which sugarcane is to be purchased by sugar mills from farmers. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The Government fixes MSP of 22 mandated agricultural crops and Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane on the basis of the recommendations of Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP) and after due consideration of the views of State Governments and the concerned Central Ministries/ Departments. The 22 mandated crops include 14 Kharif crops viz. paddy, jowar, bajra, maize, ragi, tur (arhar), moong, urad, groundnut, soybean (yellow), sunflower seed, sesamum, niger seed, cotton and 6 Rabi crops viz. wheat, barley, gram, masur (lentil), rapeseed and mustard, safflower and 2 commercial crops viz. jute and copra. In addition to that, MSP for toria and de-husked coconut are also fixed on the basis of MSPs of rapeseed & mustard and copra respectively. So, statement 2 is correct.
In addition, some state governments announce State Advised Price (SAP) at levels higher than FRP. Additionally, sugar mills that buy sugarcane are mandated to purchase crops from farmers within a specified radius known as the Cane Reservation Area. In this way, sugarcane farmers are insured and protected against price risk. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
The term ‘Participatory Guarantee System for India (PGS-India)’, recently seen in news is related to
Certification of organic farming.
Explanation :
Participatory Guarantee System of India (PGS-India) is a process of certifying organic products, which ensures that their production takes place in accordance with laid-down quality standards. It is a quality assurance initiative that is locally relevant, emphasize the participation of stakeholders, including producers and consumers and operate outside the frame of third-party certification.
The organic certifications are given under the Large Area Certification (LAC) Scheme of the PGS-India certification programme. Under LAC, each village in the area is considered as one cluster/group. All farmers with their farmland and livestock need to adhere to the standard requirements and on being verified get certified en-mass without the need to go under conversion period. Certification is renewed on an annual basis through verification by a process of peer appraisals as per the process of PGS-India.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to Producer Organisations, consider the following statements:
- It is a legal entity formed by primary producers.
- It can be registered as a cooperative society, trust or a company.
- There is 100% tax deduction to Farmer Producer Company having a total turnover up to Rs. 100 crores.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
A Producer Organisation (PO) is a legal entity formed by primary producers, viz. farmers, milk producers, fishermen, weavers, rural artisans, craftsmen. A PO can be a producer company, a cooperative society or any other legal form which provides for sharing of profits/benefits among the members. In some forms like producer companies, institutions of primary producers can also become members of PO. So, statement 1 is correct.
Producer Organisations can be registered under any of the following legal provisions:
Cooperative Societies Act/ Autonomous or Mutually Aided Cooperative Societies Act of the respective State
Multi-State Cooperative Society Act, 2002
Producer Company under Section 581(C) of Indian Companies Act, 1956, as amended in 2013
Section 25 Company of Indian Companies Act, 1956, as amended as Section 8 in 2013
Societies registered under Society Registration Act, 1860
Public Trusts registered under Indian Trusts Act, 1882.
So, statement 2 is correct.
The Government in the Union Budget 2018-19, has provided a tax benefit to the FPOs. It is, therefore, been proposed to extend the 100% tax deduction to Farmer Producer Company having a total turnover up to Rs. 100 crores. In other words, any Producer company making a turnover of up to 100 Crores and earning profit out of the same, will now not need to pay any corporate tax, 100% tax deduction has been allowed by proposing an extension to section 80P by inserting section 80PA to the Act. The benefit shall be available for a period of five years from the FY 2018-19. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to Initial Coin Offerings (ICO):
- It is a unique way adopted by cryptocurrency start-ups to raise money from the market.
- They are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Just on the same lines as the initial public offering (IPO) of stocks, an initial coin offering is a unique way adopted by cryptocurrency startups and other manufacturing firms to raise money from the market. The companies which adopt this route fund their enterprises by selling their own cryptocurrency, often accepting payment in other forms of cryptocurrency (mostly Bitcoin or Ethereum). Unlike IPOs, ICOs don’t involve any investment bank or underwriters and rarely any equity or voting rights are offered to the investors here. So, statement 1 is correct.
Currently, there is no regulation or any ban on the use of cryptocurrencies in the country. The Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) order banning banks from supporting crypto transactions, was reversed by the Supreme Court order of March 2020. The Cryptocurrency and Regulation of Official Digital Currency Bill, 2021 seeks to prohibit all “private cryptocurrencies” in India. However, it allows for certain exceptions to promote the underlying technology of cryptocurrency and its uses.
While the rights in the case of shares bought in an Initial Public Offering(IPO) are legally protected by the elaborate securities market regulations of the country, the legal status of ICO ‘tokens’ is not defined because many countries, including India, haven’t yet framed any regulations for them. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to Tax Expenditure:
- It is the expenditures incurred by the Government in the collection of taxes.
- Tax deferral is a part of tax expenditure in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Tax Expenditures, as the word might indicate, does not relate to the expenditures incurred by the Government in the collection of taxes. Rather it refers to the opportunity cost of taxing at concessional rates, or the opportunity cost of giving exemptions, deductions, rebates, deferrals credits etc. to the taxpayers. Tax expenditures indicate how much more revenue could have been collected by the Government if not for such measures. In other words, it shows the extent of indirect subsidy enjoyed by the taxpayers in the country. Tax expenditures or the revenue forgone are sanctioned in the tax laws. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Tax deferral is another aspect of tax expenditure. Tax deferral occurs when the taxpayer, on account of being allowed higher deductions under the tax statute is able to defer his tax liability by claiming an allowance (e.g. depreciation allowance) as a deduction over shorter time period whereas he may be spreading the same depreciation claim over a number of years in his own accounts. As depreciation does not entail cash outgo, this is a tax deferral. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
The term “Hibakusha” refers to:
survivors of the atomic bombings of Hiroshima and Nagasaki
Explanation :
Nihon Hidankyo, the organisation that worked for the welfare of the survivors of the 1945 bombings of Hiroshima and Nagasaki—called the hibakusha—has been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize for 2024.
About Hibakusha:
Hibakusha is the Japanese word for survivors of the 1945 atomic bomb attacks on Hiroshima and Nagasaki.
On August 6, 1945, the United States dropped the Little Boy atomic bomb on Hiroshima, Japan.
Three days later, the US dropped a second atomic bomb, known as Fat Man, on Nagasaki, Japan.
By the end of 1945, more than 200,000 people died as a direct result of these bombings.
Many thousands of people survived with injuries from the attacks. They came to be known as hibakusha, which translates to bomb-affected-people.
Niju hibakusha, double survivors, applies to more than 160 people who were present at both Hiroshima and Nagasaki.
Currently, the combined number of ‘hibakusha’ who are alive is officially 1,06,825, according to Japan’s Ministry of Health, Labor and Welfare. Their average age is 85.6 years.
Hibakusha receives support from the Japanese government, including a medical allowance.
However, in Japan there continues to be discrimination against both the hibakusha and their children, and even grandchildren, based on the common belief that they may be physically or psychologically weakened and that radiation effects are hereditary or contagious.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/%E2%80%8Bsufferers-awarded-on-the-2024-nobel-peace-prize/article68756834.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO):
- It is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN) that leads international efforts to defeat hunger.
- It is headquartered in Rome, Italy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
World Food Day is celebrated annually on October 16 across the globe to honour the establishment of the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).
About Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO):
It is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN) that leads international efforts to defeat hunger.
It is the oldest permanent specialized agency of the UN, established in October 1945.
Mandate: To improve nutrition, increase agricultural productivity, raise the standard of living in rural populations, and contribute to global economic growth.
The FAO coordinates the efforts of governments and technical agencies in programs for developing agriculture, forestry, fisheries, and land and water resources.
Other Functions:
Carries out research;
Provides technical assistance on projects in individual countries;
Operates educational programs through seminars and training centres;
Maintains information and support services, including keeping statistics on world production, trade, and consumption of agricultural commodities;
Publishes a number of periodicals, yearbooks, and research bulletins.
Headquarters: Rome, Italy.
Members: It currently has 194 Member States plus the European Union (member organization).
Funding: FAO receives 100 percent of its funding from its member countries.
In case of scarcity or conflict, the FAO usually does not intervene directly with food relief operations. Within the UN system, these activities are generally entrusted to the World Food Program.
Reports published by the FAO: The State of the World’s Forests (SOFO), The State of World Fisheries and Aquaculture (SOFIA), The State of Agricultural Commodity Markets (SOCO), The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World (SOFI).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/information/story/world-food-day-2024-date-history-significance-and-all-you-need-to-know-2617225-2024-10-16
Roopkund Lake, recently seen in the news, is located in which one of the following states?
Uttarakhand
Explanation :
Climate change is affecting Roopkund Lake in Uttarakhand, causing it to shrink annually.
About Roopkund Lake:
Roopkund, also known as the “ lake of skeletons” is a glacial lake in Uttarakhand.
It is situated at 16,500 feet above sea level at the base of Mt. Trishul in the Garhwal Himalayas.
Measuring a mere 130 feet in width, the lake is encased in ice for the majority of the year.
It is surrounded by snow-capped peaks and lush green meadows.
Mystery:
It is called the “lake of skeletons” as the glacial body conceals numbers of human skeletons, some with preserved flesh. These skeletons become visible when snow melts in the region.
These skeletal remains, dating back to around the 9th century AD, have led to various theories about the cause of death.
A 2019 study by scientists from India, the US, and Germany challenged the belief that the skeletons belonged to a single group that perished in a single event, instead suggesting they were genetically diverse individuals who died over a span of up to 1,000 years.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/dehradun/roopkund-lake-shrinks-the-skeleton-lake-threatened-by-climate-change/articleshow/114195219.cms
Hellfire Missiles, recently seen in the news, are developed by which one of the following countries?
United States of America
Explanation :
India recently concluded a deal with the US for the procurement of 170 AGM-114R Hellfire missiles.
About Hellfire Missile:
The AGM-114 Hellfire missile is one of the most popular short-range air-to-ground (sometimes air-to-air) laser-guided, subsonic tactical missiles used by the United States military as well as 30 US allies.
The United States began developing the AGM-114 Hellfire in 1972 to address the Army’s requirement for a helicopter-launched anti tank missile to counter Soviet armor formations.
The missile is used to target armored vehicles, including tanks, bunkers, radar systems and antennas, communications equipment, soft targets, or hovering helicopters.
It is the missile of choice for several kinds of unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs), such as the MQ-1B Predator, MQ-9 Reaper, and MQ-1C Grey Eagle.
Features:
It has a length of 1.62 m, a diameter of 17.7 cm and a wingspan of 0.71 m.
Each Hellfire weighs 45.4 kg-49 kg including an 8 kg-9 kg multipurpose warhead.
It is propelled by a single-stage solid-propellant solid-fuel rocket motor.
The missile has a maximum velocity of 950 mph.
Range: 7-11 km
The AGM-114R multipurpose missile is the latest in the Hellfire II missile range.
Also known as the Hellfire Romeo, the missile integrates the capabilities of all previous Hellfire II variants.
It can be launched from several different kinds of fixed-wing aircraft and helicopters, surface ships, and military ground vehicles.
It uses a semi-active laser guidance system and an integrated blast fragmentation sleeve warhead to engage targets that previously needed several Hellfire variants to destroy.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/103431/OPS/G58DF830K.1+GS8DF8QAK.1.html
Consider the following:
- The suit must be in proceeding.
- The right of title of an immovable property is directly and specifically in question.
- The suit must be collusive in nature.
- The property in question is being transferred by either party.
How many of the above are the required elements for the applicability of the rule of lis pendens under Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
Only three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court has reiterated that once a transaction is found to be hit by the doctrine of lis pendens, then the defences of being a bona fide purchaser and lack of notice regarding the sale agreement are not available.
About Doctrine of Lis Pendens:
Lis pendens in common parlance means “a pending legal action”.
The maxim representing this doctrine means that ‘during the pendency of litigation, nothing new should be introduced, and to maintain the status quo, to abstain from doing anything which may affect any party to the litigation.
It is based on the principle that during the pendency of a suit, the subject matter of it (i.e. the property in the suit) should not be transferred to a third party.
It is dealt with in Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, which provides that if there is any transfer of any immovable property pending litigation, the same shall not affect the rights of the parties in respect to the immovable property.
The outcome of the litigation, passed by a court of competent jurisdiction, in the matter during the pendency of which the transfer had taken place would be binding upon such a purchaser, who has purchased the property during the pending litigation.
It serves to protect the rights and interests of parties involved in a pending law suit concerning a specific property.
Effect of Doctrine of Lis Pendens:
The effect of the rule of lis pendens is not to invalidate or avoid the transfer but to make it subject to the result of the litigation.
According to this rule, therefore, whosoever purchases a property during the pendency of a suit is bound by the judgment that may be made against the person from whom he derived title, even though such a purchaser was not a party to the action or had no notice of the pending litigation.
Conditions for Applicability: The Supreme Court has stated the required elements for the applicability of the rule of lis pendens under Section 52. They are as follows:
The suit must be in proceeding.
The instituted suit should be filed in court with competent jurisdiction.
The right of title of an immovable property is directly and specifically in question.
The suit directly affects the rights of the other party.
The property in question is being transferred by either party.
The suit must not be collusive (a suit in which a decree is obtained by a fraud or collusion) in nature.
Non-Applicability of Doctrine: This doctrine is not applicable in certain cases. They are as follows:
Sale made by mortgagor in exercise of his power conferred under the deed.
In cases where only the transferor is affected.
In cases where proceedings are collusive in nature.
When the property is not described correctly and makes it unidentifiable.
When the right to the said property is not directly in question and alienation is permitted.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/s52-tp-act-once-transaction-is-hit-by-lis-pendens-bona-fide-purchase-or-lack-of-notice-of-agreement-not-defences-supreme-court-272377
Consider the following statements regarding the e-Migrate Portal:
- It aims to provide a safe and transparent framework for migrant workers by offering various services.
- It offers multilingual helpline support and ensures timely redressal of issues faced by migrant workers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Ministry of External Affairs and the Ministry of Labour and Employment launched the updated e-Migrate portal and mobile app.
It is an online platform launched by the Government of India to facilitate and manage the migration of Indian workers seeking employment abroad.
It aims to provide a safe and transparent framework for migrant workers by offering various services, including: information access, documentation, helpline support, integration with services and awareness campaigns
It promotes safe and legal mobility channels for Indian migrants.
The enhanced e-Migrate portal aligns with the United Nations’ Sustainable Development Goal 10, promoting orderly and responsible migration.
Features:
The upgraded platform offers 24/7 multilingual helpline support and a feature for feedback, ensuring timely redressal of issues faced by workers abroad, especially in the Gulf region.
The revamped system integrates with Digilocker, enabling secure, paperless document submission.
Additionally, a partnership with Common Service Centres (CSCs) will expand immigration services to rural areas in local languages, enhancing accessibility.
The platform also supports job-seekers by offering a one-stop marketplace for overseas employment opportunities.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/nri/latest-updates/india-launches-e-migrate-v2-0-web-portal-and-mobile-app-to-help-to-promote-safe-and-legal-mobility/articleshow/114209233.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding Swell wave:
- It is the formation of long wavelength waves on the surface of the seas.
- It is formed due to the presence of the local winds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) has issued extensive advisories for swell waves for Andaman and Nicobar and Lakshadweep islands as well as parts of coastal areas.
A swell is the formation of long wavelength waves on the surface of the seas. These are composed of a series of surface gravity waves.
Swell waves organise themselves into groups of similar heights and periods, and then travel long distances without much change.
Formation:
They occur not due to the local winds, but rather due to distant storms like hurricanes, or even long periods of fierce gale winds.
During such storms, huge energy transfer takes place from the air into the water, leading to the formation of very high waves. Such waves can travel thousands of kilometres from the storm centre until they strike shore.
Features:
Swells have a narrower range of frequencies and directions than locally generated wind waves, because swell waves have dispersed from their generation area, have dissipated and therefore lost an amount of randomness, taking on a more defined shape and direction.
These waves can propagate in directions that differ from the direction of the wind, in contrast to a wind sea.
Their wavelengths may rarely exceed more than 150 m. Swell wavelength, also, varies from event to event. Occasionally, swells which are longer than 700 m occur as a result of the most severe storms.
It occurs without precursors or any kind of local wind activity and as a result.
In India early warning systems like the Swell Surge Forecast System launched by the Indian National Centre for Ocean InformationServices (INCOIS) in 2020 — gives fore waring seven days in advance.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/what-are-swell-waves-explained/article68755965.ece
Mechazilla, recently in news, is a/an:
Rocket-catching structure
Explanation :
Recently, SpaceX has achieved a significant milestone in space exploration by landing its Starship rocket using an innovative structure called “Mechazilla.”
It is the nickname for the large 400-ft rocket-catching structure at SpaceX’s Starbase.
Feature:
It features two enormous mechanical arms, often referred to as “chopsticks.” These arms are designed to catch the Super Heavy booster in midair as it returns to Earth.
Working of Mechazilla:
Launch and Ascent: The SpaceX Starship rocket, along with its Super Heavy booster, launches from the ground.
Booster Separation: After reaching a certain altitude, the booster separates from the upper stage of the rocket.
Controlled Descent: The booster begins descending back to Earth, using precision thrusters to control its path.
Catching the Booster: As the booster nears the landing site, Mechazilla’s giant arms move into position. The booster hovers briefly before the arms catch it, ensuring a safe and controlled landing.
Significance:
Reusable: This new method of rocket recovery is far more efficient and reusable compared to traditional landing techniques.
Cost effective: By catching the booster midair, SpaceX can quickly refurbish and reuse it, significantly reducing launch costs and increasing the sustainability of space missions.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
https://www.businesstoday.in/technology/news/story/what-is-mechazilla-the-giant-arms-that-caught-the-massive-starship-rocket-midair-449875-2024-10-14
Consider the following statements regarding Ossification test:
- It is a medical procedure that analyses bones in order to determine age.
- It is used to assess skeletal maturity in children with growth disorders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Mumbai court ordered for an ossification test to determine whether one of the persons accused in the murder case of a political leader is a minor or not.
An ossification test is a medical procedure that analyses bones in order to determine age.
This test involves taking x-rays of certain bones in the body, such as the clavicle, sternum, and pelvis, to determine the degree of growth in our bones.
Because certain bones harden and fuse with each other at certain ages according to a human’s developmental stage, the bones can be a way of marking age.
These bones are chosen because they tend to undergo the most dramatic changes in their form as a person ages.
Example: The clavicle, for instance, is a long bone connecting the shoulder blade to the sternum. It undergoes a gradual fusion of growth plates as a person matures.
In children and adolescents, ossification reflects the progression of bone development, with certain bones hardening at specific ages.
Application of Ossification test:
This test is commonly used in forensic science and legal contexts to accurately determine an individual’s age when needed.
It is also used in some medical settings, such as to assess skeletal maturity in children with growth disorders.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/what-is-ossification-test-which-one-of-baba-siddique-murder-accused-underwent-101728865976230.html#:~:text=An%20ossification%20test%20is%20a,of%20growth%20in%20our%20bones.
Q10. With reference to Diphtheria, consider the following statements:
- It is a bacterial infection of the nose and throat.
- It is a contagious infection which can usually spread through respiratory droplets.
- There is no treatment available for this infection.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
To contain the diphtheria outbreak in Deeg district of Rajasthan, teams of the state health department and World Health Organization (WHO) have landed in the district and started vaccination.
It is a serious contagious bacterial infection of the nose and throat.
It is caused by strains of bacteria called Corynebacterium diphtheriae that make a toxin.
Transmission:
It can spread from person to person, usually through respiratory droplets, like from coughing or sneezing.
People can also get sick from touching infected open sores or ulcers.
The bacteria can also infect the skin, causing open sores or ulcers. However, diphtheria skin infections rarely result in severe disease.
Although diphtheria can be treated with medications, in advanced stages, the bacterial infection can damage the heart, kidneys and nervous system.
Symptoms:
Typical symptoms of the infection include a sore throat, fever, swollen neck glands and weakness.
Within 2–3 from infection, the dead tissue in the respiratory tract forms a thick, grey coating that can cover tissues in the nose, tonsils and throat, making it hard to breathe and swallow.
Treatments
neutralization of unbound toxin with Diphtheria Antitoxin (DAT)
antibiotics to prevent further bacterial growth;
monitoring and supportive care to prevent and treat complications, e.g. airway obstruction, myocarditis.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/jaipur/who-team-reaches-rajasthans-deeg-after-7-children-die-of-diphtheria-in-a-month-9620301/
With reference to the Bushveld Igneous Complex, consider the following statements:
- It is the largest layered igneous intrusion within the Earth’s crust.
- It is located in western Australia.
- It contains the world’s largest reserves of platinum-group metals.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Researchers recently discovered pockets of living microbes in a 2-billion-year-old rock from the Bushveld Igneous Complex in South Africa, providing insights into early life on Earth and potentially aiding the search for life on Mars.
About Bushveld Igneous Complex (BIC):
It is the largest layered igneous intrusion within the Earth’s crust.
It is located in northern South Africa, exposed at the edge of the Transvaal Basin.
It covers a pear-shaped area of over 66,000 sq. km.
The complex varies in thickness, sometimes reaching 9 kilometres (5.6 mi) thick.
It is renowned for containing some of the richest ore deposits.
The complex contains the world’s largest reserves of platinum-group metals (PGMs), i.e., platinum, palladium, osmium, iridium, rhodium, and ruthenium, along with vast quantities of iron, tin, chromium, titanium, and vanadium.
BIC is divided into an eastern and western lobe, with a further northern extension. All three sections of the system were formed around the same time, about 2 billion years ago.
Formation:
Vast quantities of molten rock from the Earth’s mantle were brought to the surface through long vertical cracks in the Earth’s crust, creating the geological intrusion known as the BIC.
The effects of these injections of molten rock over time, combined with the crystallisation of different minerals at different temperatures, resulted in the formation of a structure rather like a layered cake consisting of distinct rock strata including three PGM-bearing layers, referred to as reefs.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://scitechdaily.com/earths-oldest-living-organisms-discovered-trapped-in-2-billion-year-old-rock/
The Battle of Walong was a part of which of the following wars?
Sino-Indian War of 1962
Explanation :
To mark the 62nd anniversary of the iconic battle of Walong during the 1962 war with China, the Army is planning a month-long series of commemorative events.
About Battle of Walong:
Set during the 1962 Sino-Indian War, it occurred at the easternmost tip of Arunachal Pradesh, near the tri-junction of India, China, and Myanmar.
As Chinese forces launched a full-scale offensive, Indian troops were tasked with defending Walong, the only advanced landing ground in the region, a vital supply route that connected remote border posts.
After Tawang, Walong was China’s main offensive in the eastern sector during the war.
The Chinese had overwhelming numbers on their side—an estimated 15,000 soldiers to India’s 2,500, accompanied by superior weaponry and artillery.
Yet, despite being heavily outnumbered and outgunned, Indian soldiers displayed remarkable resolve.
The Indian Army units involved included battalions from the Kumaon Regiment, Sikh Regiment, Gorkha Rifles, Assam Rifles, and Dogra Regiment.
Their tenacity and courage managed to hold back the Chinese advance for nearly three weeks, despite dire shortages of ammunition and supplies.
The battle resulted in significant losses for India, with around 830 soldiers either killed, wounded, or captured.
Yet, their defence stands as a powerful symbol of the valour and sacrifice of the Indian Army.
It went down in history as the only Indian counterattack during the 1962 war.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/indian-army-lines-up-month-long-commemorative-events-to-mark-62-years-of-battle-of-walong/article68760497.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Third-Party Litigation Funding (TPLF):
- It is a financial arrangement where a third party with no prior connection to the litigation funds the plaintiff.
- TPLF is expressly prohibited in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The idea of Third-Party Litigation Funding (TPLF) has quickly emerged as a game-changer, potentially opening courtroom doors for many who felt they had been shut out.
About Third-Party Litigation Funding (TPLF):
TPLF, often referred to as litigation finance, is a financial arrangement in which a third party (with no prior connection to the litigation) in a legal dispute provides funding to support the plaintiff’s pursuit of a legal claim.
In return, the third-party funder receives a portion of the proceeds if the case is successful.
Plaintiffs do not have to repay the funding if their lawsuit is not successful.
This funding model allows entities to bring lawsuits without shouldering the financial risks associated with litigation.
The emergence of TPLF has been driven by various factors, including the escalating costs of legal proceedings, the complexity of modern litigation, and the desire to level the playing field between parties with disparate financial resources.
Disputes that attract TPLF generally include commercial contracts, international commercial arbitration, class action suits, tortious claims like medical malpractice and personal injury claims, anti-trust proceedings, insolvency proceedings, and other like claims that have a calculated chance of resulting in a substantial monetary award.
TPF is not expressly prohibited in India. In fact, several judgments highlight its benefits and express that there is a need for its regulation.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/reimagining-access-to-justice/article68760605.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Kaizen:
- It is a Chinese business philosophy that encourages continuous improvement involving employees at all levels of a company.
- The goal of Kaizen is to make small changes over a period of time to drive continuous improvement within a company.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The month-long strike at Samsung’s manufacturing facility in Tamil Nadu has brought to the spotlight the stressful working conditions in these factories shaped and determined by their management philosophy, which draws inspiration from the Japanese production method called Kaizen.
About Kaizen:
Kaizen is a compound of two Japanese words that together translate as “good change” or “improvement.”
Kaizen is a Japanese business philosophy that encourages continuous improvement involving employees at all levels of a company.
The concept of kaizen encompasses a wide range of ideas.
Those include making the work environment more efficient by creating a team atmosphere, improving processes and procedures, ensuring employee engagement, and making jobs more fulfilling, less tiring, and safer.
The goal of Kaizen is to make small changes over a period of time to drive continuous improvement within a company.
The Kaizen process recognizes that small changes now can add up to huge impacts in the future.
Ultimately, that can mean better quality control, more efficient processes, and the elimination of waste, among other benefits.
Under Kaizen, improvements can be initiated by any employee at any time.
The philosophy is that everyone has a stake in the company’s success, and everyone should strive, at all times, to help make the business better.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/103551/OPS/GFNDFCAG4.1+GCIDFDLK9.1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP):
- It is a framework designed to combat air pollution in the Delhi-NCR region.
- The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) oversees the implementation of GRAP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Centre’s air pollution control panel for Delhi-NCR recently directed state governments in the region to implement the first stage of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP).
About Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP):
GRAP is a framework designed to combat air pollution in the Delhi-NCR region.
It was introduced as an emergency response mechanism, and its implementation is triggered when the Air Quality Index (AQI) reaches “poor” levels.
GRAP is particularly important during the winter months when air quality tends to plummet.
Who implements GRAP?
The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) in NCR and adjoining areas oversees the implementation of GRAP.
It collaborates with the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
The CAQM has constituted a sub-committee for the operationalization of the GRAP.
This body includes officials from the CAQM, member secretaries of pollution control boards of Uttar Pradesh, Delhi, Haryana, Rajasthan, the Central Pollution Control Board, a scientist from the IMD, one from the IITM, and a Health Advisor.
The sub-committee is required to meet frequently to issue orders to invoke the GRAP.
The orders and directions of the CAQM will prevail in case of any conflict between directions issued by the State governments and the CAQM.
Different stages of GRAP: GRAP consists of four stages, each with targeted actions to be taken by the necessary authorities and agencies. These are the following:
Stage I: “Poor” air quality (Delhi AQI: 201-300)
Stage II: “Very Poor” air quality (Delhi AQI: 301-400)
Stage III: “Severe” air quality (Delhi AQI: 401-450)
Stage IV: “Severe+” air quality (Delhi AQI > 450)
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/delhi-ncr-activates-stage-1-of-anti-pollution-plan-grap-1-what-it-means-6792146
With reference to Kaziranga National Park, consider the following:
- It is located in the state of Assam.
- It is declared as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO.
- The River Manas passes through this national park.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
More than 446 butterfly species have been recorded in Assam’s Kaziranga National Park (KNP), making it a habitat with the second highest concentration in the country after the Namdapha National Park in Arunachal Pradesh.
It is situated in the north-eastern part of the country in the districts of Golaghat and Nagoan in the state of Assam.
It is the single largest undisturbed and representative area in the Brahmaputra Valley floodplain.
In 1985, the park was declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO.
Rivers:
The river Diffalu, a tributary of the Brahmaputra, flows through the National Park area (core/critical tiger habitat), while another tributary, Moradifalu, flows along its southern boundary.
Landscape:
It is of sheer forest, tall elephant grass, rugged reeds, marshes, and shallow pools.
Flora:
It is primarily famous for its dense and tall elephant grasses intermixed with small swamplands.
It also includes an abundant cover of water lilies, water hyacinths and lotus.
Rattan Cane, a type of climbing palm, is also found here.
Fauna:
Many endangered and threatened species like Rhino, Tiger, Eastern swamp deer, Elephant, Buffalo, Hoolock gibbon, Capped langur, and Gangetic River dolphin are commonly found in the habitat.
It is inhabited by the world’s largest population of one-horned rhinoceroses, as well as many mammals.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/environment/flora-fauna/kaziranga-national-park-records-446-butterfly-species/articleshow/114293038.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the SAMARTH Scheme:
- It aims to incentivize and supplement the efforts of the industry in creating jobs in the organized textile sector.
- It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Textiles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Central Government has extended the Samarth Scheme for two years (FY 2024-25 and 2025-26) with a budget of Rs. 495 Crore to train 3 lakh persons in textile-related skills.
The Scheme for Capacity Building in Textiles Sector (SAMARTH) is a demand-driven and placement-oriented umbrella skilling programme.
Aim:
It aims to incentivize and supplement the efforts of the industry in creating jobs in the organized textile and related sectors, covering the entire value chain of textiles, excluding Spinning and Weaving.
In addition to the entry-level skilling, a special provision for an upskilling/re-skilling programme has also been operationalized under the scheme towards improving the productivity of the existing workers in the Apparel & Garmenting segments.
Under this scheme skilling programme is implemented through the following Implementing Agencies:
Textile Industry.
Institutions/Organizations of the Ministry of Textiles/State Governments having training infrastructure and placement tie-ups with the textile industry.
Reputed training institutions/ NGOs/ Societies/ Trusts/ Organizations/ Companies /Start-Ups / Entrepreneurs active in the textile sector having placement tie-ups with the textile industry.
Nodal Ministry: Union Ministry of Textiles.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2065497
Consider the following statements regarding West Nile virus:
- It is commonly found in Africa, Europe and the Middle East regions.
- It is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected black-legged ticks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Ukraine is grappling with a severe outbreak of West Nile virus (WNV), with health officials raising alarms as the death toll rises.
West Nile Virus (WNV) is a member of the flavivirus genus and belongs to the family Flaviviridae. It was first isolated in a woman in the West Nile district of Uganda in 1937. It is commonly found in Africa, Europe, the Middle East, North America and West Asia. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), it typically spikes between the summer and autumn months of June and September.
Transmission:
Human infection is most often the result of bites from infected mosquitoes. Mosquitoes become infected when they feed on infected birds, which circulate the virus in their blood for a few days.
The virus may also be transmitted through contact with other infected animals, their blood, or other tissues.
Symptoms:
Infection with WNV is either asymptomatic (no symptoms) in around 80% of infected people or can lead to West Nile fever or severe West Nile disease.
About 20% of people who become infected with WNV will develop West Nile fever and symptoms include fever, headache, tiredness, and body aches, nausea, vomiting, occasionally skin rash.
So far, 19 countries, including Albania, Austria, Bulgaria, Croatia, Cyprus, Czechia, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Italy, North Macedonia, Romania, Serbia, Slovakia, Slovenia, Spain and Türkiye and Kosovo have reported outbreaks.
Treatment:
No vaccine is available for WNV and only supportive treatments can be provided to neuroinvasive WNV patients.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/health/deadly-west-nile-virus-spreads-across-ukraine-11-fatalities-since-july
Consider the following statements regarding the International Solar Alliance (ISA) Assembly:
- It is the apex decision-making body of the International Solar Alliance.
- It meets annually and India is the President of this assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the curtain raiser for the Seventh Session of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) Assembly was hosted in New Delhi.
It is the apex decision-making body of the International Solar Alliance (ISA), representing each Member Country.
This body makes decisions concerning the implementation of the ISA’s Framework Agreement and coordinated actions to be taken to achieve its objective.
Functions:
The Assembly deliberates matters of substance, such as the selection of the Director General, the functioning of ISA, approval of the operating budget, etc.
It meets annually at the ministerial level at the ISA’s seat.
It assesses the aggregate effect of the programmes and other activities in terms of deployment of solar energy, performance, reliability, cost and scale of finance.
Members:
120 countries are signatories to the ISA Framework Agreement, of which 102 countries have submitted the necessary instruments of ratification to become full members of the ISA.
India holds the office of the President of the ISA Assembly, with the Government of the French Republic as the co-president.
The Seventh Session of the ISA Assembly will deliberate on initiatives of ISA that impact energy access, security, and transitions with a focus on:
Empowering Member Countries to adopt solar energy as the energy source of choice
Make energy access universal by supporting solar entrepreneurs to scale up local solutions
Mobilise finance to speed up solar deployment
What is International Solar Alliance?
It was formed at the 21st Conference of Parties (COP21) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) held in Paris in 2015.
It is an action-oriented, member-driven, collaborative platform for increased deployment of solar energy technologies.
Headquarters: National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE) in Gurugram, India.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2065532
Consider the following statements regarding the Drugs Technical Advisory Board:
- It is the highest statutory decision-making body on technical matters related to drugs in India.
- It works under the Union Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) has recommended the inclusion of all antibiotics in the definition of new drugs in the New Drugs and Clinical Trial (NDCT) Rules, 2019.
It is the highest statutory decision-making body on technical matters related to drugs in India. It is established as per the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940. It is part of the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO).
Function:
It advises the Central Government and the State Governments on technical matters arising out of the administration of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, of 1940 and to carry out the other functions assigned to it by this Act.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
What is new drug?
According to Rule 122 E of the Drug and Cosmetic Rules 1945, a new drug can be one which has not been used in the country and has not been recognised as effective and safe by the licensing authority for the proposed claims.
It could also be an approved drug with modified or new claims including indications, dosage, and new route of administration.
If brought into the new drug bracket, the manufacturing, marketing, and sale of antibiotics will be documented.
Also, the manufacturing and marketing clearance will have to be obtained from the Central government instead of the State drug administration, and patients will be able to buy antibiotics only on prescription.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/to-curb-antimicrobial-resistance-government-may-include-antibiotics-in-definition-of-new-drug/article68760723.ece
Petra, recently seen in the news, is an archaeological city located in which country?
Jordan
Explanation :
Archaeologists have uncovered a secret tomb in Petra, Jordan, revealing 2000-year-old skeletons and a chalice resembling the Holy Grail.
About Petra:
It is a historic and archaeological city located in southern Jordan.
It was the center of an Arab kingdom in Hellenistic and Roman times.
Petra was established in 312 AC, which makes it around 2000 years old.
It became the capital of the Nabateans people, an Arab tribe, who were referred to in the Bible.
Under Nabataean rule, Petra prospered as a centre of the spice trade that involved such disparate realms as China, Egypt, Greece and India.
The Romans conquered Petra in 106 A.C, and they turned the territory into a Roman province of Arabia.
During the second and third centuries, Petra continued to grow, and in the seventh century, the Romans lost the power of Petra to Islam.
In the 12th century, Petra was once again taken by different leaders, and for a while, Petra was hidden until it was found by Swiss explorer Johann Ludwig Burckhardt in 1812.
Features:
Many of Petra’s buildings were carved directly into rocky sandstone cliffs.
The name Petra comes from the Greek word for “rock.”
The city of Petra was built on a terrace with the Wadi Musa (the Valley of Moses) running through it from east to west.
The valley is enclosed by sandstone cliffs veined with shades of red and purple varying to pale yellow.
Petra is home to roughly 800 tombs, therefore known as the “Royal Tombs”, with the most renowned being ‘The Treasury’.
To support the ancient city’s large population, its inhabitants maintained an extensive hydrological system, including dams, cisterns, rock-carved water channels, and ceramic pipes.
Petra has also been referred to as the “Rose City” because of the color of the stones used in its buildings.
Petra has been a UNESCO World Heritage Site since 1985.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/travel/travel-news/2000-year-old-skeletons-and-holy-grail-cup-unearthed-in-secret-petra-tomb/articleshow/114281093.cms
Which among the following best describes INS Samarthak, recently seen in the news?
It is a Multi-Purpose Vessel (MPV).
Explanation :
Larsen and Toubro recently launched the INS ‘Samarthak’, a multi-purpose vessel for the Indian Navy.
About INS Samarthak:
It is the first of two Multi-Purpose Vessels (MPVs) for the Indian Navy.
The vessel was designed and constructed in-house by Larsen and Toubro (L&T) Shipyard at Kattupalli, aligning to the Centre’s ‘Make in India’ initiative and ‘Atmanirbhar Vision’.
It is a highly specialised, multi-role platform designed to support the development and testing of next-generation weapons and sensors for the Indian Navy.
It will also perform a variety of other functions, including maritime surveillance, patrolling, launching and recovering surface and aerial targets, providing humanitarian assistance, and combating sea pollution.
It measures 107 meters in length, 18.6 meters in width, and has a displacement of over 3,750 tonnes.
The vessel can achieve a maximum speed of 15 knots.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/chennai/lt-unveils-ins-samarthak-a-game-changer-multi-purpose-vessel-for-indian-navy/articleshow/114262044.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the World Energy Outlook report:
- It is an annual report published by the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC).
- It identifies and explores the biggest trends in energy demand and supply, as well as what they mean for energy security, emissions, and economic development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
India is poised to face a higher increase in energy demand than any other country over the next decade, according to the World Energy Outlook 2024.
About World Energy Outlook 2024:
It is an annual report published by the International Energy Agency (IEA).
It is the most authoritative global source of energy analysis and projections.
It identifies and explores the biggest trends in energy demand and supply, as well as what they mean for energy security, emissions, and economic development.
Highlights of 2024 Report:
Projections based on current policy settings indicate that the world is entering a new energy context, marked by persistent geopolitical hazards but also an abundance of various fuels and technologies.
This includes a surplus of oil and Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) expected in the second half of the 2020s, alongside a significant increase in manufacturing capacity for key clean energy technologies.
The report finds that low-emissions energy sources are set to generate more than half of the world’s electricity by 2030.
Meanwhile, demand for coal, oil, and gas is expected to peak by the end of this decade.
Global electricity demand growth is projected to accelerate further, adding the equivalent of Japan’s annual electricity consumption to global use each year.
Highlights Related to India:
India is poised to face a higher increase in energy demand than any other country over the next decade, mainly because of its size and the scale of rising demand from all sectors.
According to the Stated Policies Scenario (STEPS), India is on track to add over 12,000 cars daily to its roads over the period to 2035.
Built-up space is set to increase by over 1 billion square metres annually. This is larger than the total built space in South Africa.
By 2035, iron and steel production are on track to grow by 70%. The cement output is set to rise by nearly 55%.
The stock of air conditioners is projected to grow by over 4.5 times, resulting in electricity demand from air conditioners in 2035 more than Mexico’s total expected consumption that year.
The total energy demand in India is set to increase by nearly 35% by 2035, and electricity generation capacity nearly triple to 1400 GW.
Coal is set to retain a strong position in the energy mix in India over the next decades, with the country projected to add about 60 gigawatts of new coal-fired power capacity by 2030.
Coal-based electricity generation is projected to increase by over 15 per cent.
Coal provided 40 percent of the energy used in industries like steel, cement, and manufacturing in 2023. By 2035, coal use in industry is expected to grow by 50 percent.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/india-faces-higher-increase-in-energy-demand-over-next-decade-iea-101729074049017.html
Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which state?
Madhya Pradesh
Explanation :
As per the latest development, Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary will see cheetahs being reintroduced in a move to promote tourism in the region.
About Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary:
Location: It is situated in northwestern Madhya Pradesh, with one of its boundaries running along the border of Rajasthan.
It lies in the Khathiar-Gir dry deciduous forests ecoregion.
The sanctuary was notified in 1974 and is spread over an area of 368 sq. km.
The River Chambal flows through the sanctuary, dividing it into two parts.
Topography: The sanctuary is characterized by its diverse topography, which includes hills, plateaus, and the catchment area of the Gandhi Sagar Dam on the Chambal River.
Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary and the reservoir are also designated Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA).
Vegetation: Northern tropical dry deciduous forest, Northern tropical dry mixed deciduous forest and Dry deciduous scrub.
Flora: The principal tree species found here are Khair, Salai, Kardhai, Dhawda, Tendu and Palash.
Fauna:
Herbivores like Chinkara, Nilgai, and Spotted Deer, and carnivores like the Indian Leopard, Striped Hyena, and Jackal are found in good numbers in the region.
It also has a good population of crocodiles, fish, otters, and turtles.
The sanctuary has many places of historical, archaeological and religious importance, such as Chaurasigarh, Chaturbhujnath temple, Bhadkaji rock paintings, Narsinghjhar Hinglajgarh fort, Taxakeshwar temple, etc.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/travel/travel-news/gandhi-sagar-sanctuary-set-to-become-indias-next-cheetah-haven-after-kuno/articleshow/114275696.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Employees Deposit Linked Insurance (EDLI) Scheme:
- It is managed and administered by the Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC).
- The maximum assured benefit that can be paid to the nominee or legal heir under the EDLI scheme is Rs. 20 lakhs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The Centre has decided to extend providing benefits of the Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance (EDLI) Scheme to all subscribers of the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation and their family members till further notice.
About Employees Deposit Linked Insurance (EDLI) Scheme:
EDLI is an insurance scheme that was launched by the Government in 1976.
This scheme was launched with the objective of providing social security benefits to the employees of the private sector for whom such benefits were not commonly provided by the employer.
The EDLI scheme is managed and administered by the Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO), and the scheme provides term life insurance cover on the life of the member employee.
The EDLI scheme covers all organizations registered under the Employees Provident Fund (EPF) and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.
This scheme works in combination with the EPF and the Employees’ Pension Scheme (EPS).
The extent of the benefit is decided by the last drawn salary of the employee.
The registered nominee of the EDLI scheme receives a lump-sum payment in the event of the death of the EPF member, during the period of the service.
The nominee registered in the EDLI is the same as registered in the EPF Scheme.
Features:
Maximum assured benefit up to Rs 7 lakh to be paid to the nominee or legal heir of the EPF member if death occurs while in service.
Minimum assurance benefit is Rs 2.5 lakh in case the deceased member was in continuous employment for 12 months prior to his or her death.
This life insurance benefit being given to the EPFO member is free of cost for the PF/EPF account holders.
Minimal contribution by the employer at 0.5% of employee’s monthly wages, up to wage ceiling of Rs 15,000; no contribution made by the employee.
Auto-enrolment of PF members in the EDLI scheme.
Benefit directly credited to the bank account of legal heir or nominee.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/benefits-under-edli-scheme-to-continue-for-pf-subscribers/article68766218.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Karakoram Wildlife Sanctuary:
- It is located to the north of Hemis National Park and to the east of Deosai National Park.
- River Shyok and Nubra Rivers are the major water sources of this sanctuary
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the standing committee of the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) has approved five significant road stretches, including four that pass through the Karakoram Wildlife Sanctuary along the Line of Actual Control (LAC).
Location: It is located in the union territory of Ladakh along the territory’s border with Jammu and Kashmir.
It is situated just to the north of Hemis National Park and to the east of Deosai National Park.
It is well known for its diverse landscape, featuring snow-covered peaks, alpine fields, and deep ravines.
Climatic condition: The average temperature during the warmest month is lower than 0 degrees Celsius in some heights and remains below 10 degrees Celsius in other parts.
Major Peaks: Major peaks within this Wildlife Sanctuary include Saltoro Kangri, Saser Kangri I, and K12.
Rivers: Shyok and Nubra Rivers are the major water sources of this sanctuary.
Vegetation: It is rich in alpine vegetation, medicinal plants, cold desert flora, endemic and rare species, and glacier vegetation.
Fauna: Ural, the argali, Tibetan gazelle, Siberian ibex, the bharal (blue sheep), and the snow leopard, Tibetan antelope (chiru) and Bactrian camel etc.
Flora: It comprises broad-leaved shrubs namely the Rosia webbiana, Ephedra, Caragianae and several other bushes.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/wildlife-board-approves-5-roads-in-ladakh-including-daulat-beg-oldie-route-124101700391_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding African Penguin:
- It breeds naturally in burrows dug into guano.
- It is categorized as endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A new study by an international team of researchers from South Africa and the United Kingdom has found that artificial nests can enhance the breeding success of African penguins.
Appearance: It has a black stripe and a pattern of unique black spots on its chest, as well as pink glands above its eyes that become pinker as the penguin gets hotter. Males are larger than females and have larger beaks.
Habitat: It is usually found within 40 kilometers of the shore, coming onshore to a variety of coastal habitats to breed, molt, and rest.
Distribution: This penguin breeds on the African mainland from Hollams Bird Island, Namibia to Bird Island, Algoa Bay, South Africa.
The species breeds naturally in burrows dug into guano (a natural substance composed of the excrement of birds, bats, and seals), which protects them from the extreme heat of their environment.
This penguin’s average lifespan in the wild is 20 years.
It feeds on pelagic schooling fish, particularly sardine and anchovy.
Conservation status
IUCN: Endangered
Threats: Global-warming-induced shifts in the marine and atmospheric environment are destructive to the African penguin’s habitat and comprise a major threat to the bird.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/artificial-nests-boost-breeding-success-by-165-in-endangered-african-penguins
Consider the following statements regarding Brown dwarfs:
- They reach stable luminosities by thermonuclear fusion of normal hydrogen.
- They accumulate material like a star, not like a planet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Scientists have puzzled over the object known as Gliese 229B, the first known brown dwarf discovered 30 years ago is actually twins orbiting each other.
Brown dwarfs are sometimes called failed stars because they’re lighter than stars but heavier than gas giant planets.
Features
These objects have a size between that of a giant planet like Jupiter and that of a small star.
Brown dwarfs accumulate material like a star, not like a planet.
They can also have clouds made out of precipitates in their atmospheres. However, while we have water clouds on Earth, the clouds on brown dwarfs are much hotter and likely made up of hot silicate particles.
Thus, they hold onto their lighter elements (hydrogen and helium) more effectively than planets and have a relatively low metal content.
They do not have enough mass for their cores to burn nuclear fuel and radiate starlight. This is why they are sometimes referred to as “failed stars.”
The difference between brown dwarfs and stars is that, unlike stars, brown dwarfs do not reach stable luminosities by thermonuclear fusion of normal hydrogen.
Both stars and brown dwarfs produce energy by fusion of deuterium (a rare isotope of hydrogen) in their first few million years.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/brown-dwarf-discovered-decades-ago-actually-twins-circling-9624039/
Consider the following statements regarding the Hand-in-Hand Initiative:
- It is a flagship program of the Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO).
- It seeks to eradicate poverty and end hunger and malnutrition by using biophysical and socio-economic data.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) Director-General opens the third Hand-in-Hand Investment Forum.
It was launched in 2019 and is a flagship program of the Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO).
It prioritizes countries and territories where poverty and hunger are highest, national capacities are limited, or operational difficulties are greatest due to natural or man-made crises.
It seeks to eradicate poverty (SDG1), end hunger and malnutrition (SDG2), and reduce inequalities (SDG10) by accelerating market-based transformation of agri-food systems to raise incomes, improve nutrition, empower poor and vulnerable populations, and strengthen resilience to climate change.
Approach: It uses geospatial, biophysical and socio-economic data, as well as advanced analytics to identify territories where agricultural transformation and sustainable management of forest and fisheries have the greatest potential for alleviating poverty and hunger.
Its area of intervention includes developing value chains for priority commodities, building agro-industries and efficient water management systems, introducing digital services and precision agriculture
Member countries: 72 countries have joined this Initiative.
What is FAO?
It is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN) that leads international efforts to defeat hunger.
It is the oldest permanent specialized agency of the UN, established in October 1945.
Mandate: To improve nutrition, increase agricultural productivity, raise the standard of living in rural populations, and contribute to global economic growth.
Members: It currently has 194 Member States plus the European Union (member organization).
Headquarters: Rome, Italy.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.fao.org/newsroom/detail/world-food-forum–more-countries-are-participating-in-the-fao-hand-in-hand-initiative-s-innovative-investment-approach/en
Consider the following statements regarding the SARTHI System:
- It is an innovative solution to reduce post-harvest losses in perishable food transportation.
- It was developed by the Indian Institute of Science.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the National Institute of Food Technology Entrepreneurship and Management, Kundli (NIFTEM-K) has introduced Solar Assisted Reefer Transportation with Hybrid Controls and Intelligence (SARTHI) system.
It is an innovative solution to reduce post-harvest losses in perishable food transportation.
Features
It features dual compartments designed to store fruits and vegetables at different temperatures, addressing their unique storage needs.
It is an integration of IoT and real-time monitoring.
The data acquired from the sensors is integrated with IoT (Internet of Things) and sent to the cloud which can be downloaded using a mobile app for getting a real-time information about the quality parameters and physiological changes occurring during the transportation of fresh fruits and vegetables.
Its sensors measure temperature, humidity, ethylene, and CO2 levels, sending data to a mobile app for quality assessment.
The system also includes a solar-powered air handling unit that ensures temperature control during halts.
Significance:
This design helps extend shelf life and reduces losses due to chilling injury or moisture loss.
This technology allows transporters to make informed decisions, potentially rerouting produce to closer markets if spoilage is detected, cutting energy waste and reducing carbon footprints.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/industry-niftem-k-unveils-sarthi-smart-reefer-transportation-to-curb-post-harvest-losses-3641613/
Consider the following statements regarding the Spotted Locust:
- It is endemic to South America.
- It is an herbivore insect that eats leaves of the host tree.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Farmers in Idukki, Kerala, are now reeling under the menace of spotted locust infestation.
About Spotted Locust:
It is a colorful grasshopper belonging to the family Pyrgomorphidae found in South and Southeast Asia.
Scientific Name: Aularches miliaris
Habitat: They are found on bushes or grasses in the agricultural area or forest.
Features:
The head and thorax are dark blue with yellow bands under the eyes to the mouth; the abdomen is red with black bands.
The legs are dark blue, and the femur has a yellow serrated pattern. The wings are green-brown with many yellow spots.
The bright warning colourskeep away predators, and their defence when disturbed includes the ejection of a toxic foam.
This species can also make a sharp rasping voice.
The movement of this species is slow, which makes them easily caught.
It jumps in low and doesn’t fly.
It is an herbivore (folivore) insect that eats leaves of the host tree.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/after-snails-farmers-in-idukki-battling-locust-infestation-experts-say-change-in-climate-pattern-could-be-a-cause/article68769484.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Next Generation Missile Vessels (NGMV):
- They are heavily armed war vessels being built for the Indian Navy.
- They are being built by the Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
American engine manufacturer General Electric recently announced that its LM2500 marine engines have been chosen to power Indian Navy’s Next Generation Missile Vessels (NGMV).
About Next Generation Missile Vessels (NGMV):
The NGMVs would be heavily armed war vessels incorporating stealth, high speed, and offensive capability being built for the Indian Navy.
Six NGMVs are being built by government-run Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL) at a cost of Rs 9,805 crore.
The delivery of ships is scheduled to commence from March 2027.
The primary role of the ships would be to provide offensive capability against enemy warships, merchantmen, and land targets.
These ships will be capable of conducting Maritime Strike Operations and Anti Surface Warfare Operations and would be a potent instrument of sea denial for enemy ships, especially at choke points.
In a defensive role, these ships would be employed for Local Naval Defence operations and seaward defence of Offshore Development Area.
Features:
The core of the NGMV propulsion system is the LM2500, a marine gas turbine, manufactured by the American engine manufacturer General Electric. LM2500 is engineered to unleash superior power while meeting stealth requirements.
With a top speed of 35 knots (64 kmph), these vessels carry an array of anti-surface weapons.
The CSL will equip the vessels with loitering munitions, unmanned vehicles, and other guided weapons to add to its firepower.
The NGMVs’ primary weapon is anticipated to be the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile, capable of striking targets at long ranges.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/general-electrics-lm2500-marine-engines-to-power-navys-next-gen-missile-vessels/article68768983.ece
With reference to the Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT) System, consider the following statements:
- It provides safe and secure financial transactions for its members.
- It is used by banks mainly to give instructions for transferring funds between accounts.
- It is overseen by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS).
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Russian envoy in India recently called for an alternative to the SWIFT system used for global payments, from which Russia was expelled after the beginning of war in Ukraine.
About SWIFT System:
It is a member-owned cooperative that provides safe and secure financial transactions for its members.
Establishment: It was founded in 1973 by 239 banks from 15 countries.
SWIFT is a network that banks use to communicate with each other securely, mainly to give instructions for transferring funds between accounts.
SWIFT is the largest and most streamlined method for international payments and settlements.
SWIFT works by assigning each financial organization a unique code with either eight or 11 characters, known as a bank identifier code, or BIC.
By standardizing communication protocols, SWIFT ensures that financial institutions can reliably conduct cross-border transactions, reducing the risks and inefficiencies associated with international banking.
Although SWIFT is crucial to global financial infrastructure, it’s not a financial institution.
SWIFT does not hold or transfer assets but facilitates secure, efficient communication between member institutions. It transmits essential details such as the recipient’s account information and transfer amount.
Headquartered in La Hulpe, Belgium, the system is overseen by the central banks of the G10 countries, the European Central Bank, and the National Bank of Belgium.
Its shareholders represent around 3,500 member organisations.
SWIFT shareholders elect a board of 25 directors who govern the organisation and oversee management of the SWIFT system.
Because membership in SWIFT allows countries to easily conduct international financial transactions, exclusion from SWIFT is an economic sanction that can be used against countries whose actions are condemned by the global community.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/103815/OPS/GF7DFLA6M.1+GJVDFNG33.1.html
Yars Missile, recently seen in the news, is developed by:
Russia
Explanation :
Russia is testing the combat readiness of a unit equipped with Yars intercontinental ballistic missiles in a region northwest of Moscow.
About Yars Missile:
The Yars RS-24 (NATO designation SS-29) is a Russian-made mobile nuclear intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) that can be mounted on truck carriers or deployed in silos.
The first production of Yars began in 2004. It is believed to have entered into service in February 2010.
Features:
The missile is estimated to be 22.5 meters in length and 2 meters in diameter.
It is a three-stage, solid propellant, MIRV-capable (Multiple Independently Targetable Reentry Vehicles) ICBM.
The total launch weight of the RS-24 is assessed to be 49,000 kg.
It is expected to have a minimum range of 2,000 km and a maximum range of 10,500 km.
The missile uses a guidance upgraded system of the inertial and Glonass systems.
The missile can be armed with up to 10 MIRVs, each containing a thermonuclear warhead weighing 300 kilotons.
It has the capability to manoeuvre during flight and deploy both active and passive decoys, which gives Yars an advantage against modern missile defence systems.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/russia-tests-readiness-of-yars-nuclear-missile-unit/article68768106.ece
The Soliga Tribe primarily resides in which of the following States?
Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
Explanation :
The issue of clean drinking water remains a major challenge for the tribal communities in Chamarajanagar district, Karnataka, especially in the villages inhabited by the Soliga tribes.
About Soliga Tribe:
The Soliga, also spelt Solega, are a group of indigenous, forest-dwelling people found mostly in Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.
The term “Soliga” literally translates to “children of bamboo”, which reflects the tribe’s relationship with nature and their belief that they too have emerged from it.
They reside in the peripheral forest areas near Biligiri Rangana Hills and Male Mahadeshwara Hills.
They are the first tribal community living inside the core area of a tiger reserve in India(Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple Tiger Reserve)to get their forest rights officially recognised by a court of law.
According to 2011 Census, the population of Soliga is about 33,871 in Karnataka and 5,965 in Tamil Nadu.
Language: The Dravidian language sholaga is spoken by the Soliga. They also speak Kannada and Tamil.
The Soligas live in single-room huts, built of bamboo and mud.
Economy:
The traditional economy of the Soliga is mostly based on shifting cultivation and collection of minor forest produce.
Honey is an important part of the diet for the Soliga people, who still forage large parts of their food from the biodiversity-rich Ghats.
The Soligas believe in coexisting with the environment and have indigenous ways of using nature to make unique utility products, such as the ‘jottai’, which is a cup made out of leaves.
Religion: Along with adhering to Hindu customs, the Soliga people practice naturism and animism.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehansindia.com/karnataka/drinking-water-plants-for-soliga-tribe-fall-into-disrepair-915157
Consider the following statements regarding Long-billed Vulture:
- It is a usually found in savannas and other open habitats.
- It is native to Asian region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A study published recently has highlighted that the population of the critically endangered long-billed vulture has seen a steady increase between 2015 and 2021, with the species exhibiting a 74% breeding success rate in the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (MTR).
It is an old World vulture native to Asian region.
They are also known as Indian long-billed vultures due to their comparatively longer beak.
It is a medium-sized and bulky scavengers feeding mostly on the carcasses of dead animals.
Females of this species are smaller than males.
Habitat: They are usually found in savannas and other open habitats around villages, cities, and near cultivated areas.
Distribution: These are native to India, Pakistan, and Nepal.
Conservation status
IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered
Threats: The Indian vulture has suffered a 97-99% population decrease due to poisoning caused by the veterinary drug diclofenac. This drug is toxic for vultures; it was given to working animals as it reduced joint pain and so kept them working for longer.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/long-billed-vultures-nesting-success-rate-high-in-mudumalai-tiger-reserve/article68763612.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Trojan asteroids:
- These are remnants of the primordial material that formed the outer planets.
- These occupy a stable Lagrange Point in a planet’s orbit around the sun.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Scientists have finally discovered a Trojan asteroid for Saturn, thereby establishing the presence of these celestial bodies alongside all giant planets in our solar system.
Trojan asteroids are a class of asteroids that occupy a stable Lagrange Point in a planet’s orbit around the sun.
These are usually found around Lagrange Point L4 or L5 points which makes them gravitationally stable.
These are thought to be remnants of the primordial material that formed the outer planets.
Their orbit around the sun is similar to the orbit of the planet they are associated with.
These were discovered by German astrophotographer Max Wolf in 1906, but they were named so later.
They have unusual orbits, remain gravitationally stable for long periods of time and studying them can provide useful insights into the evolution of the solar system.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/science-for-all-newsletter-what-are-trojan-asteroids/article68760559.ece
Mera Hou Chongba festival is celebrated in:
Manipur
Explanation :
Recently, people in Manipur celebrated Mera Hou Chongba festival symbolizing unity amongst the indigenous people.
It is an annual festival observed in order to strengthen the cordial bond between the indigenous communities living in hills and valley people.
It is only a festival wherein both hills and valley indigenous communities are observed together in the State
This festival has been celebrated right from the time of Nongda Lairen Pakhangba in the first Century C.E.
Every year, in the month of Mera, which falls in September/October, this festival is celebrated, in which all the village Chiefs or Khullakpas and peoples from the surrounding hill areas fully take part
The royal palace officials share the same dias as the multiple village chiefs from communities such as the Mao, Kabui, Zeme, Kom, Liangmei, and many more.
The main function of Mera Hou Chongba festival is the exchange of gifts between the King and village Chiefs and performance of cultural show and sports.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/manipur-set-to-celebrate-mera-hou-chongba-2024-tomorrow/
Consider the following statements regarding Musaned Platform:
- It aims to provide stable working environment for both the employee and employers.
- It is launched by the International Labour organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, Saudi Arabia platform called Musaned to to ensure wage protection, human rights of expat workers.
It is a digital platform launched by the Saudi Arabia.
Under this platform foreign workers in the domestic (household) work sector can check the existing employment contracts and follow updates in a dedicated Musaned labour app.
Features
This system allows foreign embassies to have “view access” on the system on “all the details related to their citizens working in Saudi (employer name, location, endorsed contract.”).
It allows the foreign missions a “view access” is aimed at resolving labour disputes more efficiently.
It will benefit at least 10 African countries like Sudan, Ethiopia, Uganda, Egypt and Kenya as well as nine Asian countries such as India, Bangladesh, Pakistan, Vietnam, Philippines and Sri Lanka.
It can be linked with contract insurance and health benefits.
This platform would protect human rights and provide “stable working environment” for both the employee as well as the employers.
The most important feature of this platform is that it provides a “wage protection system” by following the employers’ obligations to pay the monthly wages for the workers.
The digital platform can track financial transactions between the employers and the foreign workers, thereby ensuring the employers will fulfil the contractual obligations towards the foreign workers.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/saudi-arabia-launches-digital-platform-to-ensure-wage-protection-human-rights-of-expat-workers/article68765278.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Hyperuniformity:
- It involves density fluctuations in the long-wavelength range decay to zero.
- It can be used to control various physiological functions in cells.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers have explored the mechanism behind the emerging property of recently discovered exotic disordered state of matter, known as “hyperuniformity”.
It is a property of certain heterogeneous media in which density fluctuations in the long-wavelength range decay to zero.
Hyperuniform disordered materials have been observed in a variety of settings, such as in quasicrystals, large-scale structures of universe, soft and biological emulsions and colloids, etc.
Feature: One of the most striking characteristics of such a state is that mass fluctuations are greatly suppressed as the system size grows.
Applications:
Hyperuniform materials have distinctive characteristics that could have technological or biological applications.
The mechanism of hyperuniformity could be used to control various physiological functions in cells, and energy-efficient photonic devices (such as photonic band-gap materials)
It could be used for optical data transmission and communications.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2065669#:~
Ramgarh Vishdhari Tiger Reserve lies in which state?
Rajasthan
Explanation :
The carcass of a nearly nine-year old tigress RVTR-2 was found in the newly notified Ramgarh Vishdhari Tiger Reserve (RVTR) in Bundi
About Ramgarh Vishdhari Tiger Reserve:
Location: It lies in the southeastern part of Rajasthan in Bindi district with representation of both Vindhyan and Aaravalli elements.
It consists of 481.91 sq. km. as the core area and 1019.98 sq. km. as the buffer area, for a total area of 1501.89 sq. km.
It is in continuation with the buffer area of Ranthambore tiger reserve on the north-eastern side and Mukundara Hills tiger reserve on the southern side.
It was notified as a tiger reserve on May 16, 2022.
River: Mez, a tributary of the Chambal River, passes through the tiger reserve.
Vegetation: Dry Deciduous Forest
Topography: It varies from gentle slopes to steep rocky cliffs, from the flat-of hills of Vindhyas to the conical hillocks and sharp ridges of the Aravallis.
Flora:
The habitat is dominated by Dhok (Anogeissus pendula) trees.
Other important flora includes Khair (Acacia catechu), Ronj (Acacia Leucophloea), Amaltas (Cassia fistula), Gurjan (Lannea coromodelica), Saler (Boswellia serrata), etc.
Fauna:
The area is dominated by Leopards and Sloth bears.
Other important fauna includes Jungle cat, Golden jackal, Hyaena, Crested Porcupine, Indian Hedgehog, Rhesus macaque, hanuman langur, etc.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/jaipur/tigress-death-missing-cub-hit-reintroduction-plan-in-ramgarh-vishdhari-reserve/articleshow/114282221.cms
The Kameng River is a tributary of which major river?
Brahmaputra
Explanation :
An Indian Air Force (IAF) havildar and his 14-year-old son were swept away by strong currents in the Kameng River recently.
About Kameng River:
It is one of the chief tributaries of the Brahmaputra River.
It flows in Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
It is referred to as the “Jia Bharali” in Assam’s higher reaches. The river is also known as the Bhareli in some areas.
Course:
Origin: The river originates in the eastern Himalayan Mountains, in the Tawang district from the glacial lake below snowcapped Gori Chen Mountain at an elevation of 6,300 metres or 20,669 ft on the India-Tibet border in South Tibet.
Then it flows through Bhalukpong Circle of West Kameng District, Arunachal Pradesh, and Sonitpur District of Assam, India.
It forms the boundary between East and West Kameng Districts and also the boundary between Sessa and Eaglenest sanctuaries in the westside and Pakke Tiger Reserve eastside.
As it reaches its lower stretches, the river transforms into a braided channel and merges with the Brahmaputra at Tezpur, just east of the Kolia Bhomora Setu bridge.
It is about 264 kilometers long.
The drainage basin of the Kameng River is about 11,843 sq.km.
Major Tributaries: Tippi River, Tenga River, Bichom River, and Dirang Chu River.
It is home to several ethnic communities, including the Monpa, Sherdukpen, and Aka tribes.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatodayne.in/arunachal-pradesh/story/arunachal-iaf-havildar-and-son-swept-away-in-kameng-river-rescue-operations-underway-1108305-2024-10-19
Consider the following statements regarding Kala-azar:
- It is caused by a protozoan parasite.
- There are no medications available to treat Kala-azar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India could be at the threshold of eliminating Kala-azar as a public health problem, with the country having managed to keep the number of cases under one in 10,000 as per the WHO parameters for elimination certification for two consecutive years now.
About Kala-azar:
Kala-azar, also known as visceral leishmaniasis (VL), is a severe form of leishmaniasis caused by the protozoan parasite Leishmania donovani.
It is transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected female sandfly, primarily Phlebotomus argentipes in India.
The disease affects some of the world’s poorest people and is associated with malnutrition, population displacement, poor housing, a weak immune system and lack of financial resources.
People with HIV and other conditions that weaken their immune system, are more likely to get sick from a Leishmania infection.
Symptoms: The disease is characterized by irregular bouts of fever, substantial weight loss, swelling of the spleen and liver, and severe anaemia if left untreated, which can lead to death within two years.
Diagnosis: Diagnosis combines clinical signs with parasitological or serological tests, such as the rK39 diagnostic kit.
Treatment: There are several anti-parasitic medications available that treat leishmaniasis.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/kala-azar-cases-under-control-for-two-years-india-gears-to-apply-for-elimination-certificate/article68772300.ece
With reference to the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC), consider the following:
- Nepal
- Bhutan
- Myanmar
- Thailand
- Bangladesh
How many of the countries are members of BIMSTEC?
All five
Explanation :
India’s National Centre for Good Governance (NCGG) has initiated its first-ever Mid-Career Training Programme for civil servants from the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) nations.
About BIMSTEC:
BIMSTEC is a regional organization comprising seven member states lying in the littoral and adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal constituting a contiguous regional unity.
It came into being on 6 June 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration.
It constitutes seven Member States: five deriving from South Asia, including Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and two from Southeast Asia, including Myanmar and Thailand.
The main aim of the BIMSTEC was the promotion of economic cooperation between countries bordering the Bay of Bengal.
BIMSTEC has identified 14 priority areas of mutual cooperation where a member country takes lead.
India is the lead country for Transport & Communication, Tourism, Environment & Disaster Management and Counter Terrorism & Transnational Crime.
Permanent Secretariat: Dhaka, Bangladesh
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indianewsnetwork.com/en/20241016/india-launches-first-training-programme-for-civil-servants-from-bimstec-nations
Consider the following statements regarding the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD):
- is the most comprehensive binding international agreement in the field of nature conservation and the sustainable use of natural resources.
- It has the objective to fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the utilisation of genetic resources.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The 16th Conference of Parties (COP16) to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is set to begin in Cali, Colombia.
About Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD):
CBD, with currently 196 contracting parties, is the most comprehensive binding international agreement in the field of nature conservation and the sustainable use of natural resources.
It was opened for signing at the UN Conference on Environment and Development in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.
It has three overarching objectives:
The conservation of biological diversity (genetic diversity, species diversity, and habitat diversity).
The sustainable use of biological diversity.
The fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the utilisation of genetic resources.
It covers biodiversity at all levels: ecosystems, species, and genetic resources.
The CBD’s governing body is the Conference of the Parties (COP). This ultimate authority of all governments (or Parties) that have ratified the treaty meets every two years to review progress, set priorities, and commit to work plans.
The Secretariat is based in Montreal, Canada.
To support implementation of the CBD objectives, two internationally binding agreements were adopted within the framework of the Convention on Biological Diversity.
The Cartagena Protocol, which was adopted in 2000 and entered into force in 2003, regulates the transboundary movement of living modified organisms (LMOs).
The Nagoya Protocol, adopted in 2010, establishes a legally binding framework for access to genetic resources and the fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising from their use.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/dte-at-cop16-years-big-biodiversity-meet-set-to-begin-in-cali-colombia
Consider the following statements regarding Pyrocystis noctiluca:
- It is mainly found in tropical and subtropical seas and oceans.
- It is marine plankton and produces bioluminescence in response to water movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers described a species of bioluminescent phytoplankton, called Pyrocystis noctiluca, balloons to six times their original size of a few hundred microns.
It is unicellular marine plankton and produces bioluminescence in response to water movement.
The bioluminescence takes place in specialised organelles called scintillons. By combining the protein luciferine and the enzyme luciferase light is produced.
Habitat: It is found in tropical and subtropical seas and oceans.
It is denser than seawater and should sink. But at the beginning of its life cycle, it swells, reducing its density and traveling up the water column. At the end of its seven-day life cycle, the cell then starts to divide into two daughter cells as it sinks.
When the division is completed, the two newborn cells inflate by filling up with seawater — ballooning to six times their original size in around 10 minutes.
It is able to navigate vertically upward in the ocean by ballooning to six times its size.
Photosynthesis: It makes a once-in-a-lifetime trip from about 125 meters deep to about 50 meters, where there’s more of the sunlight that they need to photosynthesize.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/plankton-balloon-to-six-times-their-size-to-reach-ocean-surface/article68769349.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Marine Heat Wave:
- It occurs when the surface temperature of a particular region of the sea rises above the average temperature.
- It damages marine habitats and also impacts coral reefs and species displacement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers found that marine heat waves (MHWs) deep in oceans may be “significantly under-reported” and caused by ocean currents.
A marine heat wave is an extreme weather event.
It occurs when the surface temperature of a particular region of the sea rises to 3 or 4 degree Celsius above the average temperature for at least five days.
MHWs can last for weeks, months or even years, according to the US government’s agency National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA).
Impacts
MHWs are prolonged temperature events that can cause severe damage to marine habitats, such as impacts to coral reefs and species displacement.
These events are becoming more frequent due to global warming, with notable occurrences off Australia’s East Coast and Tasmania, as well as the northeast Pacific coast and North Atlantic.
Higher ocean temperatures, which are associated with MHWs, can make storms like hurricanes and tropical cyclones stronger.
MHWs also fuel the growth of invasive alien species, which can be destructive to marine food webs.
When storms travel across hot oceans, they gather more water vapour and heat. This results in more powerful winds, heavier rainfall and more flooding when storms reach the land — meaning heightened devastation for humans.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/new-study-ocean-heat-waves-9626685/
Azores Island, recently in news, is located in:
North Atlantic Ocean
Explanation :
The regional assembly of Portugal’s Azores Islands approved the creation of the largest protected marine area in the North Atlantic to reach international conservation goals well ahead of time.
Location: The Azores Archipelago is a group of nine islands in the North Atlantic region.
Origin: The islands and islets are of volcanic origin, some of which have been inactive since they were formed. The archipelago is part of the Autonomous Region of the Azores.
These are volcanic islands that originated from the Azores Plateau. The island group lies above the Azores Triple Junction, a junction where three of the world’s main tectonic plates (Eurasian, North American, and African) meet.
The Mid-Atlantic Ridge is the main structure between the African-Eurasian Plate and the North American Plate crossing the Azores Plateau.
The islands lie in a northwest-southeast direction, and are divided into three groups: northwest, central and eastern.
Mountain: Mount Pico, located on Pico Island, is the highest point on the archipelago.
Climate: Oceanic subtropical climate.
Fauna: The islands’ Laurel forests are home to numerous species, including endemic plants and animals.
At least two endemic bird species still survive on the archipelago, including the Azores bullfinch restricted to laurel forests, and the Monteiro’s storm petrel.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://theprint.in/environment/azores-create-largest-marine-protected-area-in-north-atlantic/2318511/
Consider the following statements regarding African Baobab:
- It keeps soil conditions humid and slows soil erosion through its massive root system.
- It is a long-lived deciduous tree mainly found in the equatorial regions of Africa countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
New research by South African ecologists has refuted the claim that the African Baobab (Adansonia digitata) tree is dying due to climate change.
Baobabs are long-lived deciduous, small to large trees from 20 to 100 ft tall with broad trunks and compact tops.
These trees can live to become thousands of years old. The oldest baobab tree on record was the Panke baobab in Zimbabwe, which lived to be a venerable 2450 years old.
Distribution: These solitary trees are also incredibly resilient, thriving in dry, open areas such as the savannas of southern Africa and western Madagascar.
Ecological significance:
Baobab trees are fundamental to the entire dry African savanna ecosystem. They help keep soil conditions humid, aid nutrient recycling, and slow soil erosion with their massive root systems.
It absorbs and stores water from the rainy season in its massive trunk, producing a nutrient-dense fruit in the dry season, which can grow up to a foot long.
The fruit contains tartaric acid and Vitamin C, serving as a vital nutrient and food source for many species.
These baobabs play a vital role in their ecosystem; mitigate impacts of climate change, providing food and shelter to animals and humans.
Its fruit is recognised as having high fibre content, acting as a natural prebiotic that promotes the growth of beneficial bacteria in the gut.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/africa/new-research-refutes-claim-that-the-african-baobab-is-dying-to-climate-change
With reference to Vitiligo disease, consider the following:
- It is a chronic skin disorder that occurs when melanocytes are destroyed.
- It can be cured permanently by using phototherapy treatment.
- It affects both men and women equally.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A new Kannada film is attempting to take the veil of stigma off from a vitiligo disease that is usually the subject of stereotypes and ignorance in India.
It is a chronic skin disorder that occurs when melanocytes, the cells responsible for producing melanin, are destroyed.
This condition arises due to the malfunction or destruction of melanocytes, the cells responsible for producing melanin, the pigment that gives skin its colour.
Those affected develop depigmented patches that may occur anywhere on the body, including the skin, hair, and even the lining of the mouth.
While the precise cause of vitiligo remains unclear, research suggests it could result from a combination of autoimmune responses, genetic predispositions, and environmental factors.
In autoimmune cases, the immune system mistakenly attacks its melanocytes, leading to a gradual loss of pigmentation.
The condition often begins with small white patches, which may slowly expand over time. Dermatologists point out that potential triggers could include oxidative stress, physical trauma, severe sunburn, or chemical exposure.
It can develop at any age, though it is most common before the age of 30.
The disease affects between 0.5 per cent and 2 per cent of the global population, with estimates suggesting that up to 100 million people worldwide live with the condition. It affects both men and women equally.
Treatment:
At present, vitiligo does not have a permanent cure.
However, several treatments aim to manage symptoms and restore skin pigmentation.
Options include topical corticosteroids, calcineurin inhibitors, and phototherapy, which work to slow depigmentation and encourage the regeneration of melanocytes.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/health/kannada-film-bili-chukki-halli-hakki-draws-attention-to-vitiligo-a-disease-shrouded-in-myth-and-stigma
Which one of the following is the best description of ‘Coelogyne tripurensis’, that was in the news recently?
A newly discovered species of orchid.
Explanation :
A new species of orchid named Coelogyne tripurensis was recently discovered in Jampui Hills, in Tripura’s North District.
About Coelogyne tripurensis:
It is a new species of orchid.
It was discovered from the moist broadleaf forests of Jampui Hills in Tripura, situated at the westernmost fringe of the Indo-Myanmar Biodiversity Hotspot.
This genus, consisting of around 600 species, is native to the Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia and the Southwest Pacific Islands.
The genus consists of mostly epiphytic (rarely lithophytic and terrestrial) taxa and is widely popular among horticulturists for its high ornamental value and easy growth requirements.
The section of Coelogyne to which the new species belongs, Fuliginosae, is characterised by unique features such as showy flowers, a distinctive labellum, and keels.
Species belonging to this group show a high degree of phenotypic plasticity, rendering them challenging to delineate.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatodayne.in/tripura/story/tripura-new-orchid-species-coelogyne-tripurensis-discovered-in-jampui-hills-1108108-2024-10-18
With reference to the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act (PCMA), 2006, consider the following statements:
- It has provisions to prohibit child marriages, provide relief to victims, and enhance punishment for those who abet, promote, or solemnize such marriages.
- The District Collector is the nodal officer at the district level for the purpose of implementation of the Act.
- Child Marriage Prohibition Officers (CMPO) are to be appointed in every state to prohibit child marriages and ensure the protection of the victims as well as the prosecution of the offenders.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court has rejected the government’s plea to enforce the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act (PCMA) over personal laws, urging Parliament to consider banning child betrothals.
About Prohibition of Child Marriage Act (PCMA):
PCMA came into force in 2006 to prevent child marriage and ensure the eradication of the practice.
It replaced the Child Marriage Restraint Act of 1929.
The primary object of the Act is to prohibit the solemnization of child marriage.
This Act is armed with enabling provisions to prohibit child marriages, provide relief to victims and enhance punishment for those who abet, promote, or solemnize such marriages.
As per the act, the age of marriage for boys is 21, and for girls, it is 18, and any marriage of people below this age will be considered an illegal child marriage, an offence, and is punishable under the law.
Any person can report an incidence of child marriage before or after it has been solemnized.
Nodal Officer:
The District Collector is the Nodal Officer at the district level for the purpose of implementation of the Act.
He/she shall periodically review the implementation of the Act within the respective district and take all necessary measures for the proper and effective implementation of the Act.
Child Marriage Prohibition Officers (CMPO) are to be appointed in every state to prohibit child marriages and ensure the protection of the victims as well as the prosecution of the offenders.
The CMPO has been empowered to provide necessary legal aid to victims of child marriage and to produce children in need of care and protection before the Child Welfare Committee or a First-Class Judicial Magistrate, where there is no Child Welfare Committee.
Petition:
The petition to nullify the child marriage can be made in court only by the girl or boy, who is below 18 years of age at the time of marriage.
However, a guardian along with the CMPO can file the annulment petition on behalf of the child, if they are still minors.
The District Court can grant nullity of marriage. The District Court includes the Family Court, the Principal Civil Court of Original Jurisdiction and any other civil court specified by the State Government.
Punishments:
Child marriage is an offence punishable with hard imprisonment, or with a fine or both.
The courts can issue injunctions prohibiting the solemnization of child marriages.
The offences under the Act are cognizable and non-bailable.
Protection:
The law provides for all support and aid, including medical aid, legal aid, counselling, and rehabilitation support for children once they are rescued.
It gives legal status to all children born from child marriages and makes provisions for their custody and maintenance.
It provides for the residence and maintenance of the female contracting party.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/supreme-court-refuses-to-extend-child-marriage-ban-to-all-faiths/articleshow/114363674.cms
“Izdeliye 305” is a helicopter-launched air-to-surface missile developed by which country?
Russia
Explanation :
Russian state corporation Rostec has claimed that its Light Multipurpose Guided Rocket, also known as “Izdeliye 305” or “Product 305,” has demonstrated remarkable resistance to jamming and interference on the battlefield in Ukraine.
About Izdeliye 305:
The Izdeliye 305 missile, also known as the Light Multipurpose Guided Rocket (LMUR), is a highly precise Russian helicopter-launched air-to-surface missile.
It is capable of targeting a broad range of threats, including armored vehicles, various structures and vessels.
Features:
It measures approximately 1.94 meters in length with a diameter of around 200 millimeters and weighs about 105 kilograms.
Its aerodynamic design minimizes drag, while it’s foldable wings and tail stabilizers enhance maneuverability during flight.
The missile is powered by a solid-fuel rocket engine.
The missile’s advanced guidance system includes a combination of inertial navigation and an active radar homing system.
Additionally, it features an infrared sensor, making it effective in different weather conditions and capable of targeting both stationary and moving objects.
It has the ability to engage targets at distances of up to 14.5 kilometers.
It is equipped with robust communication systems to mitigate risks from jamming.
LMUR can carry various warheads, with the most common being a high-explosive warhead designed for destroying armoured vehicles and infrastructure.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.eurasiantimes.com/n-russia-calls-izdeliye-305-best-missil/
“Sri Singeeswarar Temple”, recently seen in the news, is located in which one of the following states?
Tamil Nadu
Explanation :
A set of copper plate inscriptions with two leaves dating back to the 16th Century CE have been recently discovered at the Sri Singeeswarar temple in Tiruvallur district, Tamil Nadu.
About Sri Singeeswarar Temple:
It is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Shiva.
It is located at Mappedu Village near Perambakkam in Thiruvallur District of Tamil Nadu.
The temple was built by Aditya Karikalan II in the year 976 AD.
He is the father of the great Chola emperor Rajaraja Cholan, who built the Thanjavur Big Temple.
Later, during the reign of Krishnadevaraya, his viceroy, Dalavai Ariyanadha Mudaliar, used his influence and built the Rajagopuram-Main Tower, compound wall, and 16-pillar Mandap in the year 1501.
The Temple is built in Dravidian architecture style, and the Rajagopuram consists of 5 tiers.
The presiding deity is called Singeeswarar. Singeeswarar is found in the form of a slightly big Shiva Lingam in the sanctum.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/copper-plates-from-vijayanagara-kingdom-discovered-in-tiruvallur-district/article68775736.ece
Zeilad Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which state?
Manipur
Explanation :
The Rongmei Naga Council Manipur (RNCM), a powerful Naga citizens’ group, has strongly opposed the proposed oil exploration at Zeilad Wildlife Sanctuary in Manipur‘s Tamenglong district.
About Zeilad Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is located in the Tamenglong district of Manipur.
It had been established in 1982 and was located specifically on the Indo-Myanmar border.
It covers an area of 21 sq. km.
It is in the basin of the Barak River and has hilly terrain.
A group of seven lakes, Zeilad, Guiphuapzei, Nrouzei, Tuangpuizei, Goulungzei, and Napsemzei, are part of this sanctuary. Zeilad Lake is the biggest and most famous.
Forest Type: Semi-evergreen and Wet Hill Forest.
It is a haven for various species of flora and fauna, including migratory birds and exotic fish species.
Flora: Michelia champaca, Toona ciliata, Schima wallichii, Gmelina arborea, Messua ferrea, Artocarpus hirsute, Mangifera indica, Castanopsis hystrix, etc.
Fauna:
Its faunal species include Tiger, Leopard, Leopard cat, small Indian civet, Common Langur, Hoolock gibbon, Great Indian Hornbill, barking deer, flying squirrel, etc.
Marine animals like fish, tortoises and pythons are spotted in the lake waters.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://nenews.in/manipur/manipur-rongmei-naga-council-opposes-oil-exploration-in-zeilad-wildlife-sanctuary/15010/
Consider the following statements regarding the Moonlight Programme:
- It is an initiative of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
- It consists of a constellation of five lunar satellites which provide telecommunication and navigation services for the Moon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the European Space Agency (ESA) at the International Astronautical Congress, launched its Moonlight Lunar Communications and Navigation Services (LCNS) programme.
The programme will have a constellation of about five lunar satellites (one for high data rate communications and four for navigation) that will allow accurate autonomous landings, high-speed communication and surface mobility.
It is Europe’s first-ever dedicated satellite constellation for telecommunication and navigation services for the Moon.
These satellites will reportedly enable data transfer over 2,50,000 miles or 4,00,000 kilometres between the Earth and the Moon.
The prime focus of the Moonlight programme will be to offer coverage at the Moon’s South Pole.
The South Pole of the moon is a key area for many missions owing to lighting conditions and the potential presence of water ice within craters that perpetually remain in the shadows.
As part of the programme, the first step will be the launch of Lunar Pathfinder, a communications relay satellite built by Surrey Satellite Technology LTD, in 2026.
The initial services of the programme will reportedly begin by the end of 2028, and the system is said to be fully operational by 2030.
The ESA is working with NASA and the Japanese space Agency JAXA on LunaNet, which is essentially a framework to standardise communication and navigation for the Moon.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/what-is-moonlight-programme-europes-mission-for-lunar-explorations-9626741/
Consider the following statements regarding the National Water Awards:
- It is given by the Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation.
- It is awarded for creating awareness among the people about the importance of water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Hon’ble President of India will confer the 5th National Water Awards 2023 on October 22nd 2024 at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi.
The first edition of the National Water Awards was introduced by the Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation in 2018.
The award focuses on the good work and efforts made by individuals and organizations across the country in attaining the government’s vision of a ‘Jal Samridh Bharat’.
The awards are for creating awareness among the people about the importance of water and motivating them to adopt best water usage practices.
The 5th National Water Awards, 2023, is given for 09 categories viz Best State, Best District, Best Village Panchayat, Best Urban Local Body, Best School or College, Best Industry, Best Water User Association, Best Institution (other than school or college) and Best Civil Society.
In the category of Best State, the first prize has been conferred upon Odisha, with Uttar Pradesh securing the second position and Gujarat and Puducherry jointly securing the third position.
Each award winner will be conferred with a citation and a trophy as well as cash prizes in certain categories.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2066443
Exercise Naseem-Al-Bahr is held between India and:
Oman
Explanation :
Recently, INS Trikand and Dornier Maritime Patrol Aircraft participated in the Indo-Oman bilateral naval exercise Naseem-Al-Bahr held in Goa.
It is a bilateral naval exercise between India and Oman.
It was initiated in 1993, symbolising the long-term strategic relationship between the two countries.
Oman is the first country in the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) which has been conducting bilateral exercises with India jointly.
The exercise was conducted in two phases: with the harbour phase followed by the sea phase.
As part of harbour activities, personnel from both Navies engaged in professional interactions, including Subject Matter Expert Exchanges and planning conferences. In addition, sports fixtures and social engagements were also held.
During the sea phase of the exercise both ships carried out various evolutions, including gun firings at surface inflatable targets, close-range anti-aircraft firings, manoeuvres, and Replenishment at Sea Approaches (RASAPS).
The integral helicopter operated from INS Trikand and undertook cross-deck landings and vertical replenishment (VERTREP) with RNOV Al Seeb.
Additionally, the Indian Navy’s Dornier aircraft provided Over-the-Horizon Targeting (OTHT) data with the participating ships.
Significance: The exercise helped strengthen interoperability and enhanced understanding of each other’s best practices.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2066452
Consider the following statements regarding Abhidhamma Divas:
- It commemorates the day when Lord Buddha descended from the celestial realm, Tāvatiṃsa-devaloka to Sankassiya.
- It coincides with the end of the first Rainy Retreat (Vassa) and the Pavāraņā festival.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India addressed a ceremony in celebration of the International Abhidhamma Divas and recognition of Pali as a classical language in New Delhi.
Abhidhamma Divas commemorates the day when Lord Buddha descended from the celestial realm, Tāvatiṃsa-devaloka, to Sankassiya (now Sankisa Basantapur) in Uttar Pradesh.
The Asokan Elephant Pillar, a historical marker at the site, marks this significant event.
According to Theravāda Buddhist texts, Lord Buddha spent three months teaching the Abhidhamma to the deities in Tāvatiṃsa, including his mother.
The celebration of Abhidhamma Divas coincides with the end of the first Rainy Retreat (Vassa) and the Pavāraņā festival, a time when monks and nuns conclude their retreat period with a ceremony.
This year International Abhidhamma Divas was hosted by the Ministry of Culture in collaboration with the International Buddhist Confederation (IBC).
Teachings of Abhidhamma
The Abhidhamma adopts a specialized and analytical approach to explore reality.
It offers a detailed framework for understanding the nature of existence, addressing the processes of birth, death, and mental phenomena in a precise and abstract manner.
The four ultimate realities in the Abhidhamma are: “citta” (consciousness), “cetasika” (mental factors), “rūpa” (materiality), and “nibbāna” (final liberation).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressNoteDetails.aspx?NoteId=153285&ModuleId=3®=3&lang=1
Consider the following statements regarding Smart Insulin (NNC2215):
- It consists of a ring-shaped structure and a molecule with a similar shape to glucose called a glucoside.
- It is developed by the Indian Institute of Science in collaboration with the World Health Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, scientist scientists from Denmark, the UK, and Czechia, and the University of Bristol have developed insulin called NNC2215 that automatically responds to changing blood glucose levels.
The newly developed insulin named NNC2215 comprises two parts: a ring-shaped structure and a molecule with a similar shape to glucose called a glucoside.
How it works?
When blood sugar levels are low, the glucoside binds to the ring, keeping the insulin in an inactive state to prevent further lowering of blood sugar.
But, as blood glucose rises, the glucoside is replaced by glucose itself, triggering the insulin to shift its shape and become active, helping bring blood sugar levels down to safer ranges.
Researchers who developed NNC2215 found it to be as effective as human insulin at lowering blood glucose in rats and pigs.
Diabetes
Diabetes is a chronic disease that occurs when the pancreas can no longer make insulin, or the body cannot make good use of the insulin it produces.
Insulin is a hormone that regulates blood glucose.
Types of Diabetes
Type 1 diabetes: It often starts in childhood, and occurs when the pancreas does not produce insulin (or enough insulin).
Type 2 diabetes: It results from the body’s ineffective use of insulin that it produces.
Gestational diabetes (GDM): It is a type of diabetes that consists of high blood glucose during pregnancy and is associated with complications for both mother and child.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-health/how-smart-insulin-promises-to-revolutionise-diabetes-treatment-9627565/
Which one of the following is the best description of ‘Crepidium assamicum’, that was in the news recently?
A newly discovered species of orchid.
Explanation :
A new species of orchid, named Crepidium assamicum, was discovered in Dibru Saikhowa National Park recently.
About Crepidium assamicum:
It is a new species of orchid under the genus Crepidium.
It was discovered in Dibru Saikhowa National Park, Assam.
It was discovered by assistant professors of the Department of Botany, Guwahati College, Dr. Jintu Sarma and Khyanjeet Gogoi, popularly known as the Orchid Man of Assam.
With this, the total species of Crepidium in India has increased to 19, and globally, the number touched the mark of 281.
Scientific reports verify that there are about 27,000 species of diverse orchids in the world, with India hosting about 1,265 of them and Northeast India about 800. Assam harbors about 414 species of orchids.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://assamtribune.com/assam/orchid-man-of-assam-associate-discovered-new-species-of-flora-1555418
With reference to the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA), consider the following statements:
- It is a specialised agency of the United Nations (UN).
- It applies nuclear safeguards – consisting of monitoring, inspection, information analysis and other activities.
- IAEA implements comprehensive safeguards agreements mandated by the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT).
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The 2024 edition of the IAEA’s Climate Change and Nuclear Power report has been released, highlighting the need for a significant increase in investment to achieve goals for expanding nuclear power.
About International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA):
It is the world’s foremost intergovernmental forum for scientific and technical cooperation in the nuclear field.
It is widely known as the world’s “Atoms for Peace and Development” organization within the United Nations family.
It works for the safe, secure, and peaceful uses of nuclear science and technology.
History: Though established as an autonomous organisation, independently of the United Nations through its own international treaty, the IAEA Statute, the IAEA reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and Security Council.
Headquarters: Vienna, Austria.
Currently, it has 178 member states.
Structure:
The General Conference, consisting of all members, meets annually to approve the budget and programs and to debate the IAEA’s general policies.
The Board of Governors, which consists of 35 members who meet about five times per year, is charged with carrying out the agency’s statutory functions, approving safeguards agreements, and appointing the director general.
The day-to-day affairs of the IAEA are run by the Secretariat, which is headed by the director general.
Functions of IAEA:
The Agency works with its Member States and multiple partners worldwide to promote the safe, secure and peaceful use of nuclear technologies.
It applies nuclear safeguards – consisting of monitoring, inspection, information analysis, and other activities – to verify that nuclear activities remain peaceful and detect and deter their diversion, including to weapons-related purposes.
In particular, the IAEA implements comprehensive safeguards agreements mandated by the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT), which serve as a first line of defence against nuclear weapons proliferation.
IAEA assists its Member States and promotes the exchange of scientific and technical information between them.
IAEA enhances national, regional, and international capacities to respond to nuclear and radiological incidents, which is essential to minimizing their impact.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.iaea.org/newscenter/news/new-iaea-report-on-climate-change-and-nuclear-power-focuses-on-financing
Consider the following statements regarding Nature Restoration Law (NRL), recently seen in the news:
- It is a European Union (EU) law to tackle the triple crises of climate change, biodiversity loss, and environmental degradation.
- It sets binding targets on member states to restore degraded ecosystems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Nature Restoration Law (NRL), which was enacted by the European Union (EU), is an inspiring model from which India can draw points to tackle its growing environmental crises.
About Nature Restoration Law (NRL):
It is a European Union (EU) law to tackle the triple crises of climate change, biodiversity loss, and environmental degradation.
It is the first continent-wide, comprehensive law of its kind.
It is a key element of the EU Biodiversity Strategy, which sets binding targets to restore degraded ecosystems, in particular those with the most potential to capture and store carbon and to prevent and reduce the impact of natural disasters.
Under the NRL, Member States will have to restore at least 20% of the EU’s land and sea by 2030, including terrestrial, coastal and freshwater, forest, agricultural, and urban areas.
By 2050, the measures should extend to all ecosystems “requiring restoration”.
The EU NRL also targets an obligation to improve urban green spaces, contribute to free-flowing rivers by removing artificial barriers, increase pollinator populations, and contribute to the target of 3 billion additional trees throughout the EU.
Member States must adopt “restoration plans” detailing how they intend to achieve these targets and ensure that the restored areas do not significantly deteriorate.
While drafting these Nature Restoration Plans, Member States also need to consider socio-economic impacts and benefits and estimate the financial needs for its implementation.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/the-case-for-a-na
Consider the following statements regarding Hornets:
- They are a breed of social wasps, living in large, highly organized colonies.
- They are found only in Europe and North America.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
According to a recent study, a species of hornet that often munches on foods containing alcohol can hold its liquor, without any side effects, at levels that no other known animal can tolerate.
About Hornets:
Hornets are a breed of social wasps, living in large, highly organized colonies.
They are a group of 20 species occurring naturally only in Asia, Europe, and Africa, with one species introduced to North America.
Hornets belong to the insect family Vespidae. This family contains each species of hornet as well as wasps such as yellow jackets, paper wasps, potter wasps and pollen wasps.
Hornets tend to be black or brown with yellow or yellowish markings.
Due to their size, hornets have a reputation for being more dangerous than other wasp species, though they are not always more aggressive.
Hornets release more venom per sting than any other stinging insect.
One species, the northern giant hornet, or Asian giant hornet (V. mandarinia), which is native to Asia, is the largest known wasp species in the world.
Typically, hornets like to build their nests in high areas.
Diet:
Hornets are known to have a rich diet of sugar and protein, among other things.
They prey on other insects, including honeybees and social wasps, and chew them into a paste as food for their larvae.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.newscientist.com/article/2452557-hornets-can-hold-their-alcohol-like-no-other-animal-on-earth/
With reference to nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarines (SSBNs), consider the following statements:
- INS Vikrant
- INS Arihant
- INS Shivalik
- INS Arighaat
- INS Aridhaman
How many of the above are India’s SSBNs?
Only three
Explanation :
India quietly launched its fourth nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine (SSBN) at the Ship Building Center (SBC) in Visakhapatnam, enhancing its nuclear deterrence capabilities.
About India’s fourth nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine (SSBN):
The fourth SSBN is codenamed S4.
It boasts nearly 75 percent Indigenous content and is equipped with K-4 ballistic missiles, which have a range of 3,500 km and are fired through vertical launching systems.
While the first of its class, INS Arihant carries 750 km range K-15 nuclear missiles, its successors, INS Arighaat and INS Aridhaman, are all upgrades of the previous ones and carry only K-4 ballistic missiles.
The launch of S4 follows the commissioning of INS Arighaat in August 2024, and the INS Aridhaman is set for commissioning next year. Both INS Arihant and INS Arighaat are already on deep-sea patrols.
Naming: Since national security planners named India’s first leased nuclear attack submarine INS Chakra as S1, INS Arihant was named S2, INS Arighaat S3, INS Aridhaman S4 and hence the newly launched one is the last of its class, S4* with the formal name yet to be given.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/india-launches-4th-nuclear-missile-submarine-101729560730642.html
Consider the following statements regarding the eShram One-Stop Solution:
- It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
- It provides seamless access to different Social Security Schemes to the registered unorganised workers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister of Labour & Employment and Youth Affairs & Sports launched the eShram One Stop Solution in New Delhi.
It will provide seamless access to different Social Security Schemes to the unorganised workers registered on the eShram portal.
Purpose: The primary purpose of the eShram One Stop Solution is to simplify the registration process for unorganised workers and facilitate their access to government welfare schemes.
This platform will act as a bridge, connecting the workers to the numerous benefits offered by the government and making the registration process easier and more transparent”.
It entails consolidating and integrating data from various Central Ministries/Departments into a single repository.
Key welfare schemes such as the One Nation One Ration Card, Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, National Social Assistance Programme, National Career Service, Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan etc. have been integrated with eShram.
What is eShram Portal?
It was launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment in 2021 for the registration and creation of a comprehensive National Database of Unorganized Workers.
The registration in the portal is fully Aadhaar verified and Aadhaar seeded. Any unorganised worker can register himself or herself on the portal on a self-declaration basis.
It allows an unorganised worker to register himself or herself on the portal on a self-declaration basis, under 400 occupations in 30 broad occupation sectors.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/markets/capital-market-news/ministry-of-labour-employment-launches-eshram-one-stop-solution-for-welfare-of-unorganised-workers-124102100959_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Bioluminescence:
- It is a natural phenomenon produced primarily by microscopic plankton called dinoflagellates.
- It occurs when the luciferase enzyme reacts with the luciferin compound in the presence of oxygen.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Chennai recently experienced a captivating natural spectacle as bioluminescent waves illuminated its coastline, drawing the attention of both residents and tourists.
It is a natural phenomenon produced by certain marine organisms; primarily microscopic plankton called dinoflagellates. These planktons emit light on the ocean surface at night. Bioluminescence is widespread among deep-sea animals in general.
Many marine creatures like sponges, jellyfish, worms, species of fish, anthropods, echinoderms and unicellular alga exhibit bioluminescence to either evade predators, attract prey or during mating.
This occurs when the luciferase enzyme reacts with the luciferin compound in the presence of oxygen to produce a cold light.
This is widespread in lagoons and sometimes breakwaters and is particularly visible during warm weather conditions.
The dinoflagellates follow a circadian cycle (24-hour cycle) and as a result, this phenomenon occurs during the night which is visible in low light conditions.
This unique phenomenon has been visible on some other beaches in India including Havelock Island in the Andamans, Thiruvanmiyur Beach in Chennai, Mattu Beach in Karnataka and Bangaram Island in Lakshadweep.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/chennai-beaches-lit-up-by-enchanting-bioluminescence-what-is-it-2620477-2024-10-21
Caenorhabditis elegans, recently in news, is a:
Nematode
Explanation :
Recently, while accepting the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine this year, molecular biologist Gary Ruvkun spent a few minutes lauding his experimental subject: a tiny worm named Caenorhabditis elegans.
Caenorhabditis elegans is a nematode worm which is a small, relatively simple, and precisely structured organism.
C. elegans grows within 3-5 days from a fertilised egg to a millimetre-long adult, and it has provided profound insights into the human body, as well as biology. It is widely used in research to understand neuronal and molecular biology. It was the first multicellular organism to have its full genome sequenced and neural wiring mapped.
It has two sexes—a hermaphrodite and a male. The hermaphrodite can be viewed most simply as a female that produces a limited number of sperm: she can reproduce either by self-fertilization, using her own sperm, or by cross-fertilization after transfer of male sperm by mating.
Self-fertilization allows a single heterozygous worm to produce homozygous progeny.
What are Nematodes?
These are any worm of the phylum Nematoda.
These are among the most abundant animals on Earth.
They occur as parasites in animals and plants or as free-living forms in soil, freshwater, marine environments, and even such unusual places as vinegar, beer malts, and water-filled cracks deep within Earth’s crust.
Features
Nematodes are bilaterally symmetrical, elongate, and usually tapered at both ends. Some species possess a pseudocoel, a fluid-filled body cavity between the digestive tract and the body wall.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/lucknow/man-sets-himself-on-fire-near-assembly-in-up-9608974/
Consider the following statements regarding Nilgiri tit Butterfly:
- It is found in the Kalakkad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve.
- It is classified under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Butterfly enthusiasts from the Nilgiris have recorded for the first time in India, the Nilgiri tit Butterfly (Hypolycaena nilgirica) utilising a large terrestrial orchid plant as a host.
It belongs to the family Lycaenidae.
It was first described in 1884 from Coonoor in the Nilgiris, it has since been recorded in Sri Lanka.
It was also found in Kalakkad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve, Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary of Idukki district, and Silent Valley National Park of Palakkad district in Kerala.
Appearance
The male is dark reddish purple-brown on the upper side. It has two black spots capped in orange near the tails. The female is pale brown.
Habitat:
They inhabit forests and lush home gardens, especially those with orchids.
It was noted to lay its eggs on the inflorescence (complete flower head) of the larval host plant, Eulophia epidendraea, a terrestrial orchid species.
This is the first known record of the butterfly using this particular species of plant as a host. This terrestrial orchid was found on rocky slopes in humid areas. This endemic butterfly is classified under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Coimbatore/nilgiris-butterfly-experts-record-host-plant-of-endemic-butterfly-species/article68778787.ece#:~:text=The%20Nilgiri%20tit%20was%20noted,as%20a%20host%2C%20they%20said
With reference to Malaria, consider the following:
- It is primarily found in tropical countries.
- It is caused by Plasmodium parasites and spreads through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes.
- It is a contagious disease and can spread from one person to another.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, Egypt was officially declared ‘malaria-free’ by the World Health Organization (WHO).
It is an acute febrile illness caused by Plasmodium parasites, which are spread to people through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. It is a life-threatening disease primarily found in tropical countries.
Transmission
It is not contagious and cannot spread from one person to another; the disease is transmitted through the bites of female Anopheles mosquitoes.
Five species of parasites can cause malaria in humans and 2 of these species – Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium vivax – pose the greatest threat.
Symptoms
The first symptoms of malaria usually begin within 10–15 days after the bite from an infected mosquito.
Fever, headache and chills are typically experienced, though these symptoms may be mild and difficult to recognize as malaria.
In malaria-endemic areas, people who have developed partial immunity may become infected but experience no symptoms.
Prevention:
Vector control interventions: Vector control is the main approach to prevent malaria and reduce transmission.
Treatment:
It is preventable and curable.
Early diagnosis and treatment of malaria reduces disease and prevents deaths, and also contributes to reducing transmission.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/africa/egypt-becomes-2nd-country-globally-in-2024-to-be-declared-malaria-free
Rajaji Tiger Reserve lies in which state?
Uttarakhand
Explanation :
The wildlife panel of the Union Environment Ministry has deferred nod to the National Highway Authority of India’s (NHAI) four-lane project, which was proposed to pass through Rajaji Tiger Reserve and Shivalik Elephant Reserve in Uttarakhand.
About Rajaji Tiger Reserve:
It is spread over three districts of Uttarakhand: Haridwar, Dehradun and Pauri Garhwal.
It is located in the Shivalik range of the Himalayas and spread over 820 kms.
It was named after the famous freedom fighter Rajgopalachari, popularly known as “Rajaji”
Its location in a transition zone between temperate western Himalayas and central Himalayas enhances the species diversity.
It forms an important part of the Terai-Arc landscape (7500 km) between the Yamuna River in the northwest and the Sharda River in the southeast.
Vegetation: The area is covered with diverse forest types ranging from semi-evergreen to deciduous and from mixed broad-leaved to Terai grassland and has been classified as Indus-Ganges Monsoon Forest type.
Flora: Some popular floras found in this park include: Rohini, Palash, Shisham, Sal, Sandan, Khair, Arjun, Baans, Semul, Chamaror, etc.
Fauna: It has a sizeable population of Tigers and Asian Elephants. It is home to a variety of wild animals like Leopard, Jungle cat, Himalayan Black Bear, Sloth Bear, Striped Hyena, Goral, Sambar, Wild Pig, Spotted Deer, Barking Deer, etc.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.tribuneindia.com/news/uttarakhand/centre-defers-nod-to-4-lane-project-passing-via-ukhand-tiger-reserve/
With reference to the Black Sea, consider the following:
- Russia
- Turkey
- Azerbaijan
- Georgia
- Romania
How many of the above countries border the Black Sea?
Only four
Explanation :
Russia’s increased attacks on the Black Sea ports in Ukraine are delaying vital aid reaching Palestinians and stopping crucial grain supplies from being delivered to the global south, the British Prime Minister said recently.
About Black Sea:
It is a large inland sea located at the southeastern extremity of Europe.
It is one of the marginal seas of the Atlantic Ocean.
It covers an area of approximately 436,000 square kilometers (168,000 square miles).
It is bound to the west by the Balkan Peninsula in Southeastern Europe, to the east by the Caucasus, to the north by the East European Plains, and to the south by Anatolia of Western Asia.
Bordering countries:
The sea is bordered to the north by Russia and Ukraine, Turkey to the south, Bulgaria to the west, and Georgia to the east.
Romania also has an opening to the Black Sea.
The Crimean Peninsula extends into it from the north.
Russia has the longest coastline on the sea (2,300 km), followed by Turkey (1,329 km) and Ukraine (1,282 km).
It is connected with the Aegean Sea (an arm of the Mediterranean Sea) through the Bosporus Strait, the Sea of Marmara, and the Dardanelles Strait, and with the Sea of Azov by the Kerch Strait.
It was created when structural upheavals in Asia Minor split off the Caspian basin from the Mediterranean Sea, and the Black Sea gradually became isolated; salinity is now less than half that of the world’s oceans.
The Black Sea receives freshwater inflows all around the basin. It is a meeting point for many rivers, such as the Danube, Southern Bug, Dnieper, Rioni, and Dniester.
It is the largest meromictic basin, which means the movement of water between the lower and upper layers of the Sea is rare.
It is one of the world’s largest anoxic basins, meaning it has areas with very little dissolved oxygen.
Islands: It contains several islands, with the largest ones being Snake Island (Ukraine), Giresun Island (Turkey), and St. Ivan Island (Bulgaria).
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.reuters.com/world/uk-warns-russian-strikes-black-sea-delay-grain-supplies-palestinians-global-2024-10-22/
The ‘Korowai tribe’, recently seen in the news, is located in:
Indonesia
Explanation :
An Indian travel vlogger recently travelled deep into the jungles of Indonesia to meet the Korowai tribe, often referred to as a ‘human-eating’ tribe, and documented his experience on social media.
About Korowai Tribe:
The Korowai tribe is a group of indigenous people who live in the southeastern part of Papua, Indonesia.
The Korowai people have a deep connection to the forest, which they rely on for their survival. They hunt and gather food from the forest, including wild animals and plants.
Until around 1975, Korowai had almost no contact with the outside world.
They are famous for their treehouses.
Built-in 8-15 meters off the ground, though there are houses that were up to 45 meters on a tall tree.
The tribe has no particular hierarchy system, as the Korowai people treasure equality and harmony between them.
They have been sensationalised in modern media for their association with cannibalism, a practice of eating human flesh.
While it is believed that the tribe historically practised cannibalism as part of their spiritual and social beliefs, it has largely faded over time.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/technology/social/what-does-human-flesh-taste-like-youtuber-dheeraj-meena-embarks-to-explore-the-hidden-world-of-the-korowai-tribe/articleshow/114459568.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Cornea:
- It is the clear outer layer at the front of the eye.
- It is responsible for focusing most of the light that enters the eye.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare may amend the Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act (THOTA), 1994, to facilitate the retrieval of the cornea from all Indian patients who die in hospitals, without consent from the family.
About Cornea:
The cornea is the clear outer layer at the front of the eye.
It covers the pupil (the opening at the center of the eye), iris (the colored part of the eye), and anterior chamber (the fluid-filled inside of the eye).
The cornea’s main function is to refract, or bend light. The cornea is responsible for focusing most of the light that enters the eye.
Its specific shape plays a key role in how your eyesight works and filters some ultraviolet (UV) rays.
Except at its margins, the cornea contains no blood vessels, but it does contain many nerves and is very sensitive to pain or touch.
Since there are no nutrient-supplying blood vessels in the cornea, tears and the aqueous humor (a watery fluid) in the anterior chamber provide the cornea with nutrients.
As light passes through the cornea, it is partially refracted before reaching the lens.
The curvature of the cornea, which is spherical in infancy but changes with age, gives it its focusing power.
When the curve becomes irregular, it causes a focusing defect called astigmatism, in which images appear elongated or distorted.
Because corneas are the first line of defense for the surface of your eye, they’re also prone to injuries and damage.
The cornea tends to repair itself quickly from minor abrasions.
However, deeper abrasions may cause scars to form on the cornea, which causes the cornea to lose its transparency, leading to visual impairment.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/centre-eyes-presumed-consent-for-cornea-retrieval-in-hospital-deaths/article68783423.ece
The Han River flow through which one of the following major cities?
Seoul
Explanation :
With an aim to exploit the Musi banks for commercial use, the Telangana government is looking at the Great Hangang (Han River) project in South Korea as a model for attracting private firms to develop riverfronts.
About Han River:
It is a major river in South Korea and the fourth-longest river on the Korean peninsula.
Course:
It originates from the confluence of the Namhan (South Han) and Bukhan (North Han) rivers in the eastern part of South Korea.
The river flows through Seoul, the capital city, and eventually empties into the Yellow Sea.
Of the Han’s 319-mile (514-km) length, 200 miles (320 km) are navigable, and it has been a valuable river transportation route since ancient times.
Several ancient Korean kingdoms, including the Goguryeo, Baekje, and Silla, vied for control of the river due to its strategic importance.
In the past, the river was highly polluted due to industrial waste, but significant efforts in the 1980s and 1990s helped restore its water quality.
The Han River has several islands, including Seonyudo, which has been transformed into a beautiful ecological park.
Banpo Bridge: Famous for its Moonlight Rainbow Fountain, the Banpo Bridge spans the Han River in Seoul. It has the world’s longest bridge fountain.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/hyderabad/telangana-government-eyes-south-koreas-han-river-project-to-revitalize-musi-river/articleshow/114476008.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Space Docking Experiment:
- It involves two vehicles—‘Chaser’ and the ‘Target’ which come together and connect in space.
- It helps in assembling space stations or transferring astronauts and cargo.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Hyderabad-based company handed over two 400 kg class satellites to ISRO, which will be part of the Space Docking Experiment planned by the space agency later this year.
It is one of ISRO’s most significant steps towards developing autonomous docking technology.
The mission involves two vehicles—‘Chaser’ and the ‘Target’—coming together and connecting in space.
Docking systems allow two spacecraft to connect in orbit, enabling critical operations like assembling space stations, refueling, or transferring astronauts and cargo.
It will also test how well the combined spacecraft maintains stability and control after docking, ensuring smooth operations for future missions.
India’s SPADEX experiment is unique because it focuses on developing indigenous, scalable, and cost-effective docking technology.
This experiment involves two spacecraft docking autonomously in orbit, demonstrating precision, navigation, and control capabilities critical for future missions.
SPADEX is designed to serve a wide range of spacecraft sizes and mission objectives, including potential collaborations for building space stations or deep space exploration.
The history of docking systems dates back to the Cold War when the Soviet Union achieved the first successful docking in space.
On October 30, 1967, the Soviets completed the historic docking of Kosmos 186 and *Kosmos 188—the first fully automated docking between two unmanned spacecraft.
This paved the way for later space exploration efforts, including long-term stays aboard space stations.
Significance: It is key to achieving India’s long-term space exploration goals, including manned spaceflight, satellite maintenance, and future space station construction.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/2-satellites-part-of-space-docking-experiment-handed-over-to-isro-124101801018_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Cloud chamber:
- It is a scientific apparatus that mimics the conditions required for cloud formation.
- India is building its first cloud chamber at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India is establishing a first-of-its-kind cloud chamber at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune.
A cloud chamber is a scientific apparatus that mimics the conditions required for cloud formation.
It resembles a closed cylindrical or tubular drum, inside which water vapour, aerosols, etc. are injected.
Under the desired humidity and temperature inside this chamber, a cloud can develop.
India is building a cloud chamber with convection properties, as required to study Indian monsoon clouds. Globally, there are only a handful of convective cloud chambers.
Objective: The objective of establishing a convective cloud chamber is to gain a better understanding of cloud physics under conditions commonly affecting Indian weather systems. Thereafter, this knowledge can be used for strategic planning of weather modification.
The Pune facility will allow scientists to study the seed particles that form cloud droplets or ice particles in a sustained manner.
Cloud physics basically involves the study of cloud behaviour during normal and extreme conditions; intra-particle interactions inside a cloud; the formation of rain droplets and ice particles; the influence of moisture added into the atmosphere due to cyclones or low pressure systems; and interactions between different cloud layers, among others.
Significance: Scientists will have the flexibility to tailor physical and atmospheric parameters to suit environmental requirements that influence the Indian weather and climate.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/why-india-is-building-a-cloud-chamber-mission-mausam-9633221/
Anguiculus dicaprioi, recently in the news, is a:
Snake
Explanation :
A team of scientists have discovered a new species of snake in the Western Himalayas, whom they have named after Hollywood star, Leonardo Di Caprio.
Anguiculus dicaprioi is a member of the Colubridae, the largest family of snakes on the planet with 304 genera and 1,938 species.
Features
The new species has dozens of small-sized teeth.
It grows around 22 inches and has a broad collar with small dark brown spots.
It has a “robust skull”, and a “steeply domed snout”.
This species lives at heights of around 6,000 feet above sea level.
Researchers suggested the common name ‘DiCaprio’s Himalayan snake’.
Distribution: The snake is found in Chamba, Kullu and Shimla in Himachal Pradesh, Nainital in Uttarakhand and Chitwan National Park in Nepal.
These snakes are mostly active from late May to August and are not seen at other times of the year.
What are Colubrid Snakes?
A colubrid is any of the numerous, diverse, largely nonvenomous snakes that comprise the reptile family Colubridae.
The Colubridae family is one of the largest snake families, consisting of over 1,800 species.
They are characterized by the absence of hind limbs.
They are found in various regions around the world, except for Antarctica and some remote oceanic islands.
Habitats: They inhabit a wide range of environments, including forests, grasslands, deserts, wetlands, and aquatic habitats.
The majority of colubrid snakes are non-venomous.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/new-snake-species-in-western-himalayas-named-after-hollywood-star-leonardo-dicaprio
Consider the following statements regarding Betelgeuse:
- It is a red supergiant star known for its periodic dimming and brightening up.
- It is located in the Ursa Major constellation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recent research has unveiled a surprising discovery about Betelgeuse that, the star’s enigmatic brightening and dimming patterns may be caused by an unseen companion star.
It is a red supergiant star that forms the left shoulder of the constellation of Orion.
It is one of the brightest stars in the night sky and one of the largest stars ever discovered.
The star is approximately 650 light-years from Earth.
The star is nearing the end of its life span, and when it dies, the resulting explosion will be bright enough to see during the day for weeks.
It is one of the largest known stars, measuring more than 700 million miles (1.2 billion kilometers) in diameter.
It is known for its periodic dimming and brightening up.
It exhibits two distinct pulsation patterns: a short-term cycle of about a year and a longer six-year cycle.
The researchers concluded that the longer cycle, known as a long secondary period, is likely caused by the Betelbuddy’s (companion star) orbital motion through Betelgeuse’s surrounding dust.
What is Red supergiant star?
A red giant forms after a star has run out of hydrogen fuel for nuclear fusion, and has begun the process of dying.
They are evolved stars with masses between 10 and 25 times that of the Sun.
A star classed as a supergiant may have a diameter several hundred times that of the Sun and a luminosity nearly 1,000,000 times as great.
Supergiants are tenuous stars, and their lifetimes are probably only a few million years, extremely short on the scale of stellar evolution.
These stars have cool extended atmospheres.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/betelgeuse-the-star-that-could-explode-in-front-of-our-eyes-is-not-alone-2621163-2024-10-22
With reference to Clostridioides difficile bacteria, consider the following:
- It causes an infection of the colon, which is the longest part of the large intestine.
- It creates illness often after using antibiotic medicines.
- It mainly affects children below 5 years of age.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Researchers are developing the first successful vaccine against the highly contagious and difficult-to-treat Clostridioides difficile bacteria, using the technology behind the revolutionary mRNA vaccines that tackled COVID-19.
It is a bacterium that causes an infection of the colon, the longest part of the large intestine. Symptoms can range from diarrhea to life-threatening damage to the colon.
Illness from C. difficile often occurs after using antibiotic medicines.
It mostly affects older adults in hospitals or in long-term care settings. People not in care settings or hospitals also can get C. difficile infection.
Symptoms
Watery diarrhea, mild belly cramping and tenderness.
People who have a severe C. difficile infection tend to lose too much bodily fluid; a condition called dehydration.
C. difficile infection that is severe and sudden can cause the colon to become inflamed and get larger, called toxic megacolon.
Transmission:
It can be transmitted from patient to patient by the hands of healthcare workers.
Roughly one-third of infected individuals will have recurrent infections.
Treatment:
Treatments include a lengthy course of strong antibiotics, which also kill off beneficial bacteria in the gut, and fecal transplants to deliver healthy bacteria.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/mrna-vaccine-shows-promise-against-c-difficile-in-animal-study/
Who among the following publishes the World Economic Outlook (WEO)?
International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Explanation :
Global growth is expected to remain stable, yet underwhelming, at 3.2% in 2024 and 2025, according to the IMF’s recent dispatch of its World Economic Outlook (WEO).
About World Economic Outlook (WEO):
It is a comprehensive report published twice a year by the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
The WEO is usually published in April and October, followed by the less comprehensive WEO updates in July and January.
It includes the IMF’s estimates and forecasts for global output growth and inflation as well as for real gross domestic product (GDP) growth, consumer prices, current account balances, and unemployment in the IMF’s 190 member countries, grouped by region and development status.
The WEO also includes several chapters on selected pressing economic issues.
The data is drawn from IMF representatives’ consultations with member countries and is included in the WEO database.
Highlights of the recent report:
Global growth is expected to remain stable, yet underwhelming, at 3.2% in 2024 and 2025.
For India, the IMF has maintained its GDP growth estimate at 7% for 2024, followed by 6.5% next year, but linked the moderation in growth from last year to the exhaustion of “pent-up demand accumulated during the pandemic.
The world’s largest economy, the United States, is poised to grow at 2.8% in 2024 and 2.2% in 2025. Meanwhile, the IMF expects China’s economy to grow at 4.8% in 2024 and 4.5% in 2025.
The IMF’s overall forecast for emerging markets and developing economies remained stable for the next two years in its latest outlook, hovering around 4.2% and steadying at 3.9% by 2029.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/web-only/2024/Oct/22/why-the-global-economic-slowdown-is-here-to-stay-for-now
What is Bioacoustics?
Investigation of sound production, dispersion, and reception in animals.
Explanation :
Bioacoustics combined with artificial intelligence (AI) can revolutionize biodiversity monitoring both on land and in aquatic settings, according to researchers.
About Bioacoustics:
It is a cross-disciplinary science that combines biology and acoustics.
Usually, it refers to the investigation of sound production, dispersion, and reception in animals.
Bioacoustics research can include approaches whereby scientists focus on specific species and conduct fieldwork to record their vocalizations at close range.
Alternatively, it may involve the placement of passive acoustic monitors in a set location to record audio data over a longer period of time.
In terms of conservation research, bioacoustics:
Allows us to quickly gather in-depth information about ecosystems, including species’ presence (determined by their vocalizations), rain patterns, and human activity.
Helps us monitor threatened species, examine habitat use and migration patterns, and understand how ecosystems recover from disturbance events like logging or forest fires.
Provides data to guide conservation planning and support the development of new conservation strategies.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-10-bioacoustics-ai-animal-populations-forest.html
Consider the following statements regarding Pong Dam:
- It is an earth-fill embankment dam located in Himachal Pradesh.
- It is constructed on the Sutlej River.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Even after five decades have passed since thousands of families were uprooted to make way for the construction of Pong Dam, the cases of 6,736 families who await rehabilitation are still pending.
About Pong Dam:
The Pong Dam, also known as the Beas Dam, is an earth-fill embankment dam constructed on the river Beas in the wetland of Shivalik hills in the Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh.
The purpose of the dam is water storage for irrigation and hydroelectric power generation.
The construction of the dam began in the year 1961 and was completed in 1974, and at that time it was known as the tallest of its type in the country.
The raised water level thus invariably created an artificial lake called the Maharana Pratap Sagar, after the great ruler of Mewar.
It was declared a bird sanctuary in 1983 due to its waterfowl diversity. It received the designation of Ramsar Wetland in 2002.
It is home to several species of avifauna, some of which include Bar-headed Geese, Red-neck Grebe, northern lapwing, common teal, spot-billed duck, Eurasian coot, black stork, egrests, etc.
It is the most important fish reservoir in the foothills of the Himalayas in Himachal Pradesh.
Features of Dam:
The Pong Dam is a 133 m tall and 1,951 m long earth-fill embankment dam with a gravel shell.
It is 13.72 m wide at its crest, which sits at an elevation of about 435.86 m above sea level.
The base of the Pong Dam is about 610 m wide and has a total volume of 35,500,000 meter cubes.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/chandigarh-news/pong-dam-displacement-5-decades-on-over-6k-families-still-await-rehabilitation-101729272564033.html
Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which state?
Karnataka
Explanation :
The Karnataka Forest Department has been urged to reject the proposal for the Barachukki mini-hydel project, which necessitates the diversion of forest land in the Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ) of the Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary.
About Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is a protected area located in the Mandya, Chamarajanagar, and Ramanagar districts of Karnataka.
It was established in 1987.
The Cauvery River passes through its midst.
The sanctuary spans an area of 1027.535 sq. km.
To the east and northeast, the Sanctuary is bordered by Tamil Nadu state.
Vegetation: The major portion of the forests are of South Indian dry deciduous type.
Flora: The dense forests are dominated by teak and sandalwood trees.
Fauna:
It is home to mammals like elephant, wild boar, leopard, dhole, spotted deer, barking deer, four-horned antelope, chevrotain, common langur, Grizzled giant squirrel, etc.
The river Cauvery also houses various species of reptiles like the Mugger crocodile, Indian mud turtles, and various species of snakes.
This is also one of the few places to find mahseer fish.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/objections-raised-to-mini-hydel-project-in-cauvery-wildlife-sanctuary-esz/article68783133.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik) Scheme:
- The scheme envisages providing connectivity to unserved and underserved airports of the country through the revival of existing airstrips and airports.
- The government works in partnership with airlines to provide subsidies and incentives to operate flights on underserved and unserved routes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Indian Government recently announced an extension of the regional air connectivity scheme UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik) for another 10 years.
About UDAN Scheme:
It is a regional airport development and “Regional Connectivity Scheme” (RCS) of the Union Government of India.
It was initially launched on October 21, 2016, for a 10-year period.
The primary objective of the scheme is to provide affordable and efficient air travel options to residents of tier-2 and tier-3 cities, remote areas, and regions with limited or no air connectivity.
The scheme envisages providing connectivity to unserved and underserved airports of the country through the revival of existing airstrips and airports.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Civil Aviation
Under the UDAN Scheme, the government works in partnership with airlines to provide subsidies and incentives to operate flights on underserved and unserved routes.
The government provides financial support to airlines through a Viability Gap Funding (VGF) model, which covers the difference between the cost of operations and the expected revenue on the identified routes.
Aviation companies bid for air routes. The company that asks for the lowest subsidy is awarded the contract. Under this fare for each flight, the airline has to book half, or a minimum of 9, or a maximum of 40 seats.
Under the scheme, the airfare for a one-hour journey by a ‘fixed wing aircraft’ or half an hour’s journey by a helicopter for about 500 km has been fixed at Rs.2500/-.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/travel/travel-news/india-affordable-flights-for-another-decade-as-govt-extends-udan-scheme-for-10-more-years/articleshow/114466006.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the LISA Mission:
- It is a collaborative effort between the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) and the European Space Agency (ESA).
- It aims to detect and study gravitational waves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) revealed the first look of the prototype for six telescopes that will help LISA’s three spacecraft detect gravitational waves in space.
The Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (Lisa) mission is a collaborative effort between National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) and the European Space Agency (ESA) set to launch in the mid-2030s.
The main objective of the mission is to detect and study gravitational waves by putting three spacecrafts into the Earth’s orbit and positioning them in a triangular format with 1.6 million miles on each side.
It will be the “first gravitational wave detector in space” and will “explore the fundamental nature of gravity and black holes”. It will also probe the rate of expansion of the Universe.
All three spacecraft will have two telescopes each. The LISA mission will use lasers to detect gravitational waves.
The LISA mission will comprise three spacecraft. These three spacecrafts will fly in a triangular formation behind the Earth as our planet orbits the Sun.
The spacecraft will sit in a heliocentric orbit, about 50 million km from Earth, with a distance of around 2.5 million km between each spacecraft.
LISA will detect ripples in spacetime through subtle changes in the distances between free-floating cubes nestled within each spacecraft.
Changes in the relative distances between these golden cubes will be tracked with extreme accuracy using laser interferometry
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/nasa-reveals-first-look-at-six-telescopes-lisa-tasked-with-detecting-gravitational-waves-2621703-2024-10-23
Consider the following statements regarding Giant salmon carp Fish:
- It is mainly found in the Mekong River.
- It is categorized as a critically endangered species under the IUCN red list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A huge Giant salmon carp fish in the Mekong River thought to be extinct has been spotted three times in recent years.
It is also known as the Mekong giant salmon carp, is a species of freshwater fish in the family Cyprinidae and a single species in the monotypic genus Aaptosyax.
Appearance: The predatory fish can grow up to 4 feet in length, and has a conspicuous knob at the tip of its lower jaw. A striking patch of yellow surrounds its large eyes.
It is endemic to the middle reaches of the Mekong River in northern Cambodia, Laos and Thailand.
Its population is much reduced (>90%) as a result of overfishing and habitat degradation.
Conservation status
IUCN: Critically Endangered
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/giant-fish-thought-to-be-extinct-is-spotted-in-the-mekong-river-9633689/lite/
Lake Erie, recently in the news, forms the border between:
United States and Canada
Explanation :
Research has shown that toxins from these bacteria called microcystin can make animals and people sick when they come into contact with the infected water of Lake Erie.
It is the fourth largest of the five Great Lakes of North America.
It forms the boundary between Canada (Ontario) to the north and the United States to the west, south, and east.
The lake’s principal tributary rivers are the Detroit (carrying the discharge of Lake Huron), Huron, and Raisin rivers of Michigan etc.
The lake discharges at its eastern end through the Niagara River.
It is an important link in the St. Lawrence Seaway.
What is Microcystin?
It is a single-celled freshwater cyanobacterium that forms colonies surrounded by mucilage.
The genus Microcystis contains several species which often form massive blooms and which produce toxins.
Microcystin is a potent liver toxin and possible human carcinogen.
It inhibits the activities of protein phosphatase-1 and protein phosphatase-2A, which leads to disruption of the cytoskeleton network and subsequent cell death.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/researchers-study-health-risks-of-toxic-algae-in-lake-erie-9633737/
Consider the following statements regarding the PM-YASASVI Scheme:
- It is an umbrella scheme aimed at uplifting students from Other Backward Classes (OBC) and Economically Backward Classes.
- It is implemented by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has implemented the PM Young Achievers Scholarship Award Scheme for Vibrant India (PM-YASASVI).
It is a comprehensive umbrella scheme aimed at uplifting students from Other Backward Classes (OBC), Economically Backward Classes (EBC), and Denotified Tribes (DNT) by providing them with access to quality education during their formative years.
It has consolidated and enhanced several earlier initiatives, including the Dr. Ambedkar Post-Matric Scholarship Scheme for EBCs and the Dr. Ambedkar Pre-Matric and Post-Matric Scholarship Scheme for DNTs, which were subsumed under this program starting from 2021-22.
By integrating these schemes, PM YASASVI aims to ensure a more streamlined and impactful approach to supporting the educational needs of socially and economically disadvantaged students.
Objective: The overarching goal of the scheme is to promote educational empowerment among these vulnerable groups, helping them overcome financial barriers and complete their education.
Under this Scheme students can avail of a Pre-Matric Scholarship from Class 9 to 10 and Post-Matric Scholarship for their higher studies at the post-matriculation or post-secondary stage.
Eligibility: The Pre-Matric Scholarship is designed for students in classes IX and X attending government schools with Family income below Rs. 2.5 lakh.
Implementing Agency: Department of Social Justice and Empowerment, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2067373
With reference to Escherichia coli, consider the following:
- It is a type of bacteria that can be found in the intestines of humans only.
- It can be transmitted to humans through contaminated food and water.
- It causes urinary tract infections in humans.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
According to a report from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), a person died and 49 others fell ill following an E. coli outbreak linked to McDonald’s Quarter Pounder hamburgers.
Escherichia coli, commonly known as E. coli, is a type of bacteria that can be found in the intestines of humans and animals.
E. coli is a rod-shaped bacterium of the Enterobacteriaceae family.
While most strains of E. coli are harmless and even beneficial, some strains can cause illness and infections.
Some kinds of E. coli can cause diarrhea, while others cause urinary tract infections, respiratory illness and pneumonia, and other illnesses.
Transmission: It can be transmitted to humans through contaminated food, water, or contact with fecal matter from infected individuals or animals.
How does E. coli make you sick?
The most familiar strains of E. coli that make you sick do so by producing a toxin called Shiga.
This toxin damages the lining of your small intestine and causes diarrhea.
These strains of E. coli are also called Shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC).
Symptoms:
The most common symptoms of E.coli infection include fever of more than 102 degree F, persistent diarrhoea, bloody diarrhoea, and vomiting.
The main problem, however, is dehydration due to the inability of the patient to retain water and fluids.
In very few cases, people may get acute kidney injury.
Treatment:
Most E. coli infections are self-limiting and resolve on their own without treatment. However, it’s essential to stay hydrated during the course of the illness.
Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-health/mcdonalds-linked-outbreak-in-united-states-what-is-e-coli-9635584/
What is the primary cause of Scurvy Disease?
Lack of vitamin C
Explanation :
A once-common ailment from the 15th century, scurvy, is making an unexpected comeback in the 21st century.
About Scurvy:
It is a disease caused by a significant lack of vitamin C (ascorbic acid) in your diet.
Scurvy has been known since ancient Greek and Egyptian times.
Causes:
Humans cannot synthesize vitamin C. It needs to come from external food sources, especially fruits and vegetables or fortified foods.
Thus, scurvy is caused by not eating enough fresh fruits and vegetables.
Also, cooking destroys some of the vitamin C found in food.
Symptoms:
It can include anemia, exhaustion, spontaneous bleeding, limb pain, swelling, and sometimes ulceration of the gums and loss of teeth.
It can be fatal if left untreated.
Treatment: It is treatable with oral or intravenous vitamin C supplements.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.ndtv.com/feature/15th-century-disease-scurvy-is-making-a-comeback-say-canadian-doctors-6865021
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR):
- It is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.
- It administers various scholarship programs annually and awards scholarships under different schemes to foreign students.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) recently held a conference of Buddhist monks and scholars in Colombo on bequeathing Pali the status of a classical language by the Indian government.
About Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR):
It is an autonomous body under the Ministry of External Affairs, Government of India, involved in India’s external cultural relations through cultural exchange with other countries and their people.
It promotes, through its network of cultural centres, Indian culture abroad.
ICCR was founded in 1950 by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, independent India’s first Education Minister.
Objectives:
to actively participate in the formulation and implementation of policies and programmes pertaining to India’s external cultural relations;
to foster and strengthen cultural relations and mutual understanding between India and other countries;
to promote cultural exchanges with other countries and people;
It administers various scholarship programs annually and awards about 3000+ scholarships under 21 different schemes to foreign students from about 180 countries.
Amongst these 21 schemes, six are funded by ICCR from its grant, and others are administered on behalf of MEA and the Ministry of Ayush.
The scholarships offer studies in a variety of courses from undergraduate to postdoctoral level in different leading universities and educational institutions spread all over India.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/iccr-organises-conference-on-pali-as-classical-language-in-colombo/article68792044.ece
Consider the following:
- Russia
- Georgia
- Iran
- Turkmenistan
- Armenia
How many of the above countries border the Caspian Sea?
Only three
Explanation :
The Caspian Sea has been shrinking since the mid-1990s, but the rate at which it’s disappearing has sped up since 2005.
About Caspian Sea:
It is the world’s largest inland body of water, covering a total surface area of about 386,400 sq. km.
It is located between Asia and Europe.
It lies to the east of the Caucasus Mountains and to the west of the vast steppe of Central Asia.
Bordering countries: It is bordered by Russia and Azerbaijan on the west, Kazakhstan and Turkmenistan on the north and east, and Iran on the south.
The sea was named for the Kaspi, ancient peoples who once lived on its western shores.
Formation:
Going by the definition of a sea, the Caspian Sea is a lake and not a sea, as it is an enclosed water body without any direct outlet to the ocean.
However, 5.5 million years ago, it was part of the ancient Parathethys Sea (an ancient sea in the Tethys Ocean) and got landlocked as a result of tectonic uplift and sea-level fall.
Hence, the seafloor of the Caspian Sea is composed of oceanic basalt and not continental granite.
The composition of the water of the Caspian Sea also varies from almost fresh in the northern parts of the lake to saltier southwards.
The mean salinity of the Caspian Sea is now about one-third that of the oceans.
Three major rivers—the Volga, the Ural, and the Terek—empty into the Caspian from the north.
Baku, the capital of Azerbaijan, is the largest city on the Caspian. Another important city along the Caspian is Iran’s Nowshahr.
The sea is also known for its abundance of energy resources (oil and natural gas reserves in offshore fields and onshore on the coast of the sea).
It is the source of most of the world’s caviar.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://edition.cnn.com/2024/10/24/climate/caspian-sea-shrinking-pollution/index.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Skimmer:
- It is a species of bird native to South Asia.
- It is classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
At Lower Manair Dam, around 150 to 200 rare Indian Skimmer birds were spotted recently, marking a first for Telangana.
About Indian Skimmer:
It is one of the three species that belong to the skimmer genus Rynchops in the family Laridae.
It is native to South Asia.
It gets its name from the way it feeds, flying low over the water surface and ‘skimming’ for fish.
Scientific Name: Rynchops albicollis
Distribution:
It is mainly found in India, Bangladesh, and Pakistan, with some populations extending to Nepal and Myanmar.
One of the key areas for spotting Indian Skimmers is the Chambal River, which runs through northern India.
The population is estimated at 2,450-2,900 mature individuals.
Habitat: It occurs primarily on larger, sandy, lowland rivers, around lakes and adjacent marshes, and, in the non-breeding season, in estuaries and coasts.
Features:
It grows to a length of 40-43 cm.
The Indian Skimmer has a striking appearance. Its upper body is black, while its underbelly is white.
The most eye-catching feature is its beak, which is orange with a lower mandible that is much longer than the upper one.
This special beak helps the bird skim across the surface of the water to catch small fish and aquatic creatures.
The bird’s wings are long and angular, designed for fast, precise flight.
Conservation status:
IUCN: Endangered
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/telangana/2024/Oct/24/rare-indian-skimmer-birds-spotted-at-lower-manair-dam-in-telangana
The ‘EOS-06 Satellite’ is designed primarily for studies related to which of the following?
Earth’s oceans and coastal zones
Explanation :
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is closely monitoring Cyclonic Storm ‘Dana’ heading toward Odisha and West Bengal with its EOS-06 and Insat-3DR satellites.
About EOS-06:
EOS-06, also known as Oceansat-3, is an Earth observation satellite developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
It was launched successfully on November 26, 2022, using ISRO’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV-C54).
EOS-06 is part of the Oceansat series of satellites, which are designed to monitor and study various aspects of the Earth’s oceans and coastal zones.
The primary objective of EOS-06 is to provide continuity to the services of its predecessors (Oceansat-1 and Oceansat-2) with enhanced payload capabilities to support oceanographic and atmospheric studies.
This includes applications in ocean surface studies, coastal zone management, and marine weather forecasting.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/isro-satellites-track-cyclone-dana-as-it-approaches-eastern-coast/articleshow/114551508.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Pink cocaine:
- It contains ingredients like methamphetamine and ketamine.
- It can cause hallucinations and create breathing issues in humans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
According to the Drug Enforcement Administration and epidemiologists “pink cocaine,” has become a dangerous and increasingly popular part of the club scene in U.S. cities.
The pink cocaine generally does not contain any cocaine.
Composition: Common ingredients found in pink cocaine include methamphetamine, ketamine (a dissociative anaesthetic known for its hallucinogenic effects), MDMA (ecstasy), benzodiazepines, crack, and caffeine.
It gets its pink hue from food colouring and typically includes at least one stimulant and one depressant.
This drug cocktail is also known by street names such as tusi, tuci, cocaina rosada, tucibi, pink powder etc.
Health effects: It can cause hallucinations and can impact breathing and heart attacks, high blood pressure, a heightened risk of stroke, behavioural changes, addiction, anxiety, depression, and even psychosis.
It contains unpredictable contents that pose significant risks to users, and experts warn that some batches may be contaminated with fentanyl, a potent opioid fueling the surge in overdose deaths.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.livemint.com/news/world/what-is-pink-cocaine-know-more-about-dangerous-drug-linked-to-liam-payne-sean-diddy-combs-and-others-11729679471334.html
Consider the following statements regarding Gram Panchayat-Level Weather Forecasting Initiative:
- It provides Gram Panchayats with a five-day weather forecast and hourly updates.
- It is developed in collaboration between the Union Ministry of Forest, Environment and Climate Change and the India Meteorological Department.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the government of India launched the Gram Panchayat-Level Weather Forecasting in Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi.
The initiative is developed in collaboration between the Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR) and the India Meteorological Department (IMD), Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).
It is aimed at “empowering rural communities and enhancing disaster preparedness at the grassroots, and will benefit farmers and villagers across the country”.
The initiative will provide Gram Panchayats with a five-day weather forecast and hourly updates, enabling rural communities to better plan agricultural activities and prepare for weather-related risks.
It will deliver weather updates via e-GramSwaraj, the Meri Panchayat app, and Gram Manchitra portals. e-GramSwaraj is already operational.
Users can see data on the current temperature, wind speed, cloud cover (in percentage), rainfall, and relative humidity at the level of gram panchayats; five-day forecasts of minimum and maximum temperatures, rainfall, cloud cover, wind direction, and wind speed, and an overall weather forecast.
Significance: It will “strengthen grassroots governance and promote sustainable agricultural practices, making rural populations more climate-resilient and better equipped to tackle environmental challenges”.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/weather-forecasts-at-panchayat-level-what-will-be-known-and-how-it-will-help-9636666/
“Exercise SIMBEX”, is conducted between India and:
Singapore
Explanation :
The 31st edition of the Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercise (SIMBEX) is scheduled from 23 to 29 Oct 2024, in the Eastern Naval Command at Visakhapatnam.
It is an annual bilateral Naval exercise between the Indian Navy and the Republic of Singapore Navy (RSN).
It has been conducted since 1994.
SIMBEX, which began as ‘Exercise Lion King’ in 1994, has since evolved into one of the most significant bilateral maritime collaborations between the Indian Navy and the Republic of Singapore Navy (RSN).
It holds the distinction of being the longest continuous naval exercise that the Indian Navy has conducted with any other country.
The exercise will be conducted in two phases - the Harbour Phase at Visakhapatnam and the Sea Phase in the Bay of Bengal.
This year’s edition aims to further strengthen the strategic partnership between India and Singapore by enhancing interoperability, improving maritime domain awareness, and fostering cooperation to address common maritime challenges.
The Harbour Phase will include Subject Matter Expert Exchanges (SMEEs), cross-deck visits, sports fixtures, and pre-sail briefings between personnel from both navies.
The Sea Phase will witness advanced naval drills, including live weapon firings, anti-submarine warfare (ASW) training, anti-surface and anti-air operations, seamanship evolutions, and tactical manoeuvres.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2067816
Consider the following statements regarding the Environment Ship Index:
- It evaluates the amount of nitrogen oxide (NOX) and sulphur oxide (SOX) that is released by a ship.
- It identifies seagoing ships that perform better in reducing air emissions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Mormugao Port Authority has gained global recognition by being listed as an incentive provider on the Environment Ship Index (ESI) portal, acknowledged by the International Association of Ports and Harbours (IAPH).
It is a non-governmental organization (NGO) established in November 1955.
It has been developed into a global alliance of ports, representing today some 185 ports and 160 port-related businesses in 88 countries as of 31 August 2024.
The member ports together handle well over 60% of the world’s sea-borne trade and over 60% of the world’s container traffic.
It aims to be the global trade association of choice for port authorities and operators, representing their interests at the regulatory level at the International Maritime Organization, the World Customs Organization, the International Standards Organization and other global alliances.
Headquarters: Tokyo, Japan.
Initiative of Mormugao Port Authority
The port’s incentive program, ‘Harit Shrey,’ launched in October 2023, offers discounts on port charges based on Environment Ship Index (ESI) scores, rewarding ships with higher environmental performance.
Since the introduction of the “Harit Shrey scheme,” many ships have benefited from the incentives aimed at reducing greenhouse gas emissions.
This initiative supports the broader goal of achieving long-term emission reductions in maritime operations.
What is Environment Ship Index?
It identifies seagoing ships that perform better in reducing air emissions than required by the current emission standards of the International Maritime Organization, the Environmental Ship Index.
It evaluates the amount of nitrogen oxide (NOX) and sulphur oxide (SOX) that is released by a ship and includes a reporting scheme on the greenhouse gas emission of the ship.
The ESI is a good indication of the environmental performance of ocean-going vessels and will assist in identifying cleaner ships in a general way.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2067621
With reference to the Asiatic golden cat, consider the following:
- It is a solitary, diurnal and territorial species.
- It is mainly found in dry deciduous forests and subtropical evergreen forests.
- It is categorized as a ‘Critically Endangered’ species under the IUCN Red List.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
After a long absence, the Asiatic golden cat has been spotted again in Assam’s Manas National Park, marking a significant conservation success.
It is a medium-sized cat with relatively long legs.
Other names: They are known as the “fire cat” in Thailand and Burma and as the “rock cat” in parts of China.
Appearance: Their fur ranges in color from cinnamon to various shades of brown, and also gray and black (melanistic).
They are solitary and territorial. Once considered nocturnal, a radio-tracking study showed them to be diurnal and crepuscular.
These are polygynous (mating with multiple females) with no breeding season.
Habitat: This cat is known to occur across a wide range of habitats, including dry deciduous forests, subtropical evergreen forests, tropical rainforests, temperate and sub-alpine forests, and at elevations ranging from 0 m to 3,738 m.
Distribution: The species occurs in Southeast Asia, from Nepal and Tibet to Southern China, Sumatra and India.
Conservation Status:
IUCN: Near threatened
CITES: Appendix I
Wildlife (Protection) Act of India, 1972: Schedule 1
Threats: Habitat destruction that follows deforestation, as well as a decreasing numbers of ungulate preys. Another major threat is the illegal wildlife trade.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/travel/travel-news/assam-rare-and-elusive-asiatic-golden-cat-makes-a-comeback-in-manas-national-park/articleshow/114467914.cms
Which one of the following is the best description of ‘Begonia neisti’, that was in the news recently?
A new species of flowering plant discovered in Northeast India.
Explanation :
A team of researchers recently made a significant discovery in the remote Dibang Valley of Arunachal Pradesh, uncovering a new species of flowering plant, Begonia neisti.
About Begonia neisti:
It is a new species of flowering plant.
It was discovered in the Dibang Valley district of Arunachal Pradesh.
The plant belongs to the begonia sect platycentrum.
The genus Begonia is one of the largest groups in the plant kingdom, with more than 2,100 known species globally, many of which are valued for their ornamental appeal.
The species has been named ‘begonia neisti’ to honour the North East Institute of Science and Technology (NEIST) on the successful completion of its 60 years and its immense contribution through science and technology towards the benefit of the local people of the Northeast region of India.
Begonia neisti boasts striking variegated leaves adorned with white-silver circular spots and dark brownish-red patches near the veins.
The large leaves and the distinctive white stripealong the stems and petioles give the plant an unusual appearance, setting it apart from other Begonia species.
The plant thrives on moist, hilly slopes between Hunli and Anini, blooming from November to January.
Classified as Data Deficient (DD) by the IUCN Red List, Begonia neisti’s habitat is threatened by road expansion, sparking concerns about its future.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/government-picks-three-new-members-to-join-rbis-monetary-policy-committee/article68706640.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the National Mission for Manuscripts (NMM):
- It was established by the Ministry of Education, Government of India.
- The majority of existing Indian manuscripts are in Sanskrit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Union Ministry of Culture is set to “revive and relaunch” the National Mission for Manuscripts (NMM) and is mulling the formation of an autonomous body to help preserve ancient texts in India.
About National Mission for Manuscripts (NMM):
It was established in February 2003, by the Ministry of Tourism and Culture, Government of India.
Mandate: Documenting, conserving and disseminating the knowledge preserved in the manuscripts.
Motto: ‘Conserving the past for the future’
A unique project in its programme and mandate, the NMM seeks to unearth and preserve the vast manuscript wealth of India.
India possesses an estimated of ten million manuscripts, probably the largest collection in the world.
These cover a variety of themes, textures, and aesthetics, scripts, languages, calligraphies, illuminations, and illustrations.
While 75% of the existing manuscripts are in Sanskrit, 25% are in regional languages, according to the NMM.
Objectives:
Locate manuscripts through a national-level survey and post-survey.
Document each and every manuscript and manuscript repository, for a National Electronic Database that currently contains information on four million manuscripts making this the largest database on Indian manuscripts in the world.
Conserve manuscripts incorporating both modern and indigenous methods of conservation and training a new generation of manuscript conservators.
To train the next generation of scholars in various aspects of Manuscript Studies like languages, scripts and critical editing and cataloguing of texts and conservation of manuscripts.
To promote access to manuscripts by digitising the rarest and most endangered manuscripts.
To promote access to manuscripts through the publication of critical editions of unpublished manuscripts and catalogues.
To facilitate the public’s engagement with manuscripts through lectures, seminars, publications and other outreach programmes.
To achieve this mandate, the mission has established more than 100 Manuscripts Resource Centres and Manuscripts Conservation Centres all over India.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/government-seeks-to-relaunch-national-manuscript-mission-set-up-autonomous-body/article68795963.ece
With reference to the Emissions Gap Report 2024, consider the following statements:
- It is published by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO).
- Among major economies, China recorded the steepest increase in greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions in FY23.
- The transport sector is the largest contributor to GHG emissions in the world.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
None
Explanation :
If countries continue with their current environmental policies, it would lead to 3.1 degrees Celsius warming over pre-industrial levels, according to the recently published Emissions Gap Report 2024.
About Emissions Gap Report (EGR):
It is an annual report published by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
The EGR series tracks our progress inlimiting global warming well below 2°Cand pursuing 1.5°C in line with the Paris Agreement.
Since 2010, it has provided an annual science-based assessment of the gap between estimated future global greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions if countries implement their climate mitigation pledges and where they should be to avoid the worst impacts of climate change.
Each year, the report also highlights key opportunities to bridge the emissions gap, tackling a specific issue of interest.
With the aim to inform the climate negotiations among UN Member States, the EGR is launched every year ahead of the UN Climate Change Conference of the Parties (COP).
Highlights of 2024 EGR:
The report, titled “No More Hot Air… Please!”, underscores that if countries fail to collectively cut annual GHG emissions by 42 percent by 2030 and by 57 percent by 2035, the Paris Agreement’s 1.5°C global temperature target will become unattainable within a few years.
For the 2°C target, reductions of 28 percent by 2030 and 37 percent by 2035 are required.
Without a significant enhancement in Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) targets, the UNEP warns global temperatures could rise by 2.6-3.1°C by the century.
NDCs are national climate action plans updated every five years by countries to align with the Paris Agreement, which seeks to limit global temperature rise to well below 2°C, ideally to 1.5°C.
GHG emissions increased by 1.3 percent in 2023 relative to 2022, with the power sector being the largest contributor, followed by transport, agriculture, and industry.
Among major economies, India in FY23 recorded the steepest increase in GHG emission, climbing 6.1 percent, with China trailing close behind at 5.2 percent.
In contrast, GHG emissions decreased in both the European Union (EU) and the United States (US) by 7.5 percent and 1.4 percent, respectively.
Despite India’s rise, its 2023 GHG emission remains relatively low at 4,140 million metric tons of carbon dioxide equivalent (MtCO₂e) against China’s 16,000 and the US’s 5,970.
The EU’s emission was slightly lower than India’s, at 3,230 MtCO₂e.
India is the third largest emitter globally, behind China and the United States.
The six largest GHG emitters accounted for 63% of global GHG emissions. By contrast, the least developed countries accounted for only 3%.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/uns-new-report-card-reveals-world-may-fail-to-achieve-paris-agreement-goals-101729778835181.html
The Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary is situated on the northern terminal of which mountain range?
Aravalli Range
Explanation :
The Delhi High Court recently directed local authorities to shift all the monkeys of the Capital to the Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary on priority.
About Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary:
It lies in southern Delhi and the northern parts of Faridabad and Gurugram districts of Haryana state.
It is located on the southern ridge of Delhi, and it is covered with the northern terminal of the Aravalli Hill Range, which is one of the oldest mountain ranges.
It is also part of the Sariska-Delhi Wildlife Corridor, which runs from the Sariska Tiger Reserve in Rajasthan to Delhi Ridge.
It covers an area of 32.71 sq. km.
Vegetation:
As per Champion & Seth (1968), the vegetation falls under the Northern Tropical Thorn Forests type.
The native plants exhibit xerophytic adaptations such as thorny appendages, and wax-coated, succulent, and tomentose leaves.
Flora: Consists of Prosopis juliflora as the dominant exotic species and Diospyros montana as the dominant native species in the sanctuary.
Fauna: Golden Jackals, Striped-Hyenas, Indian crested-Porcupines, Civets, Jungle Cats, Snakes, Monitor Lizards, Mongoose, etc.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Delhi/high-court-tells-authorities-to-shift-delhis-monkeys-to-asola-bhatti-wildlife-sanctuary/article68797544.ece
The Kadar Tribe primarily resides in which of the following states?
Kerala and Tamil Nadu
Explanation :
In a first, the Kadar tribe of Vazhachal, Kerala, has taken on active restoration of natural forests degraded by invasive alien species.
About Kadar Tribe:
The Kadars are an indigenous community residing primarily in the southern parts of India.
They are predominantly found in the forests of Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
The Kadar tribe is classified as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) by the Government of India.
Their name, “Kadar,” is derived from the word “kaadu,” which means forest in Tamil and Malayalam, reflecting their deep connection with the forest environment.
Language: They speak a Dravidian language known as Kadar or Kadars, which is influenced by Tamil and Malayalam.
Occupation:
They are traditionally a nomadic group, known for their hunter-gatherer lifestyle.
They have a profound knowledge of the forest and its resources, relying on gathering honey, fruits, tubers, and medicinal plants for their sustenance.
Hunting, though less prevalent today, was also a significant part of their livelihood.
In recent years, some Kadars have taken up small-scale agriculture and wage labor, but they continue to depend heavily on forest produce for their livelihood.
They are known for their traditional medicinal knowledge, particularly in the use of herbs and plants for healing.
Kadar has a symbiotic relationship with nature, and they believe in the coexistence of Kadar and Kaadu (forest).
The Kadar have traditional protocols to ensure the sustainable use of forest resources.
Every practice of resource collection—be it honey, firewood, resin, or herbs—is designed to allow time for regeneration.
The Kadar community follows a simple social structure, typically organized around extended families.
They live in small settlements called “hamlets” or “oorus,” usually comprising a few huts made of bamboo, leaves, and other forest materials.
Their population was estimated at approximately 2,000 individuals in the early 21st century.
They worship jungle spirits and their own kindly creator couple, as well as local forms of the Hindu deities.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/a-tribal-community-takes-charge-against-invasive-alien-species/article68796281.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Water hyacinth:
- It is a perennial aquatic plant native to tropical regions of South America.
- It is used as a bio-fertiliser in some organic agriculture practices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Andhra Pradesh Handicrafts Development Corporation is planning to impart training to artisans in manufacturing eco-friendly products and decorative materials with water hyacinth.
It is a perennial, free-floating aquatic plant native to tropical regions of South America, and now present on all continents except Antarctica.
This plant rapidly increases biomass and forms dense mats in lakes, dams and irrigation channels and chokes them.
This is not an indigenous species but was introduced to India during British colonial rule as an ornamental aquatic plant from South America. The plant produces beautiful purple flowers that have high aesthetic value.
It is rich in fibrous stems that can be processed into a wide array of handbags, interior decorative material, table mats, baskets and other products.
Impact on environment: This simple, floating aquatic plant is also an obnoxious weed that has been suffocating surface freshwater sources like rivers, rivulets, streams, ponds, dams, lakes and bogs, making the waterbodies unsuitable for commercial fishery, transportation and recreation.
Significance
The plant has been used as a bio-fertiliser in some organic agriculture practices.
It has been reported that this plant is a good phytoremediation species, suggesting it has the ability to trap and remove toxic metabolites and harmful heavy metals from water.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/ap-handicrafts-development-corporation-to-train-artisans-in-water-hyacinth-crafts/article68795277.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Nemaline Myopathy:
- It is a rare genetic muscle disorder characterised by the presence of thread-like structures within muscle fibres.
- It can be cured from regular treatment by using antibiotics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Chief Justice of India of India during a national consultation on children’s rights, discussed about nemaline myopathy, a genetic condition affecting his foster daughters.
It is a rare genetic muscle disorder characterised by the presence of thread-like structures within muscle fibres affecting mobility and functionality.
It is also known as rod myopathy and is a rare congenital disorder that weakens the skeletal muscles.
This condition is hereditary, stemming from genetic mutations that impact muscle proteins.
It is found in approximately 1 in every 50,000 births.
The disorder can vary in severity, ranging from mild cases with minimal impact on daily life to more severe forms that lead to substantial muscle weakness, requiring significant medical intervention.
Symptoms
Muscle weakness in the face, neck, and trunk, along with difficulties in feeding, breathing, and sometimes deformities.
Affected individuals may also experience foot deformities, abnormal curvature of the spine (scoliosis), and joint deformities (contractures).
Treatment: There is no cure for this disease. Currently, treatment for nemaline myopathy is largely symptomatic and focuses on supportive care, including physiotherapy and muscle-strengthening exercises.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/cji-opens-up-about-foster-daughters-battle-with-nemaline-myopathy-what-is-this-rare-disorder-101729347257708.html
With reference to Bhu-Aadhaar, consider the following:
- It is issued as part of the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP).
- It is a 14-digit alpha-numeric identity given to each land parcel.
- Its alpha-numeric identity changes if the land is transferred and subdivided.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
According to data available on the rural development ministry’s portal, around 30 percent of the rural land parcels in the country have been given a Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) or Bhu-Aadhaar.
Bhu-Aadhaar is also known as a Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN).
ULPIN was launched in 2021 as part of the Central government’s Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP).
It aims to streamline and bring uniformity to the process adopted by states in assigning unique identification numbers to land parcels.
It is accorded to a land parcel based on the longitude and latitude coordinates of the land parcel and depends on detailed surveys and geo-referenced cadastral maps.
Under this initiative a 14-digit alpha-numeric identity is given to each land parcel.
It contains State code, District code, Sub-district code, Village code and a unique plot ID number.
Once the ULPIN or Bhu-Aadhaar is generated, it is stamped on the physical land record document held by the owner.
The same ULPIN will be permanently attached to the plot of land. Even if the land is transferred, subdivided, or undergoes any change, the ULPIN will remain the same for that geographic boundary.
Key objectives of ULPIN/Bhu-Aadhaar are
To assign a unique ID to each plot of land for easy identification and retrieval of records.
To create accurate digital land records with details of land owners, plot boundaries, area, usage, etc.
To link land records and property registration processes
To facilitate online delivery of land record services
To assist in government planning by maintaining updated land data
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://theprint.in/india/governance/3-years-on-30-of-rural-land-parcels-have-bhu-aadhaar-centre-pushes-for-completion-by-2026/2325001/
Consider the following statements regarding the Center for Generative AI:
- It will be established by the IndiaAI’ and Meta at IIT Jodhpur.
- It aims to nurture 1 lakh youth developers & entrepreneurs in AI skills over the next 3 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, ‘IndiaAI’ and Meta announced the establishment of the Center for Generative AI, Shrijan at IIT Jodhpur.
It will identify and empower the next generation of AI innovators and entrepreneurs using open-source AI and exploring possibilities in Large Language Models (LLM).
The research under its aegis will be shared with students via AICTE and through direct connection with colleges.
Shrijan will engage young developers to deploy open-source LLMs across India and unearth indigenous use cases through Hackathons.
It will conduct master training activation workshops for select colleges, data labs, and ITIs, introducing them to foundations of LLMs to ignite interest.
It will help support in creation of student-led startups experimenting with Open Source LLMs by identifying the young developers.
Srijan is to foster an indigenous research ecosystem in the country.
It aims to nurture 1 lakh youth developers & entrepreneurs in AI skills over the next 3 years.
The idea is to remain future-ready in our Development of innovative Indigenous AI solutions in key areas like healthcare, education, agriculture, smart cities, smart mobility, sustainability, and financial and social inclusion.
IIT Jodhpur COE Srijan will collaborate with academic, government & industry stakeholders both national & global to advance GenAI research and technology.
This includes Open science innovation, Development and transfer technology solutions, Education & capacity building besides Policy advisory and governance.
Funding: Meta has committed to invest up to INR 750 Lakhs (as a donation) over the period of three years. The IndiaAI will support the researcher working in the CoE being set up at IIT Jodhpur’s Centre Srijan.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2068251
Consider the following statements regarding the Great Eared Nightjar:
- It is mainly found in parts of India and Sri Lanka to the Malay Peninsula.
- It prefers to dwell in Savanna grassland areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Great Eared Nightjar is one of the most mesmerizing creatures, due to its striking resemblance with a mythical dragon, especially when perched.
The name ‘nightjar’ comes from the bird’s nocturnal habits and the fact that its calls are often described as jarring.
Their diet usually consists of smaller insects. Instead of making nests really high up on trees, they typically roost on the ground or low branches.
Nightjars are well known for their silent flight, which is due to the structure of their feathers. Hence, they can easily sneak up on their prey and also move away without anyone noticing if faced with a potential threat.
Unlike other birds, the Great Eared Nightjar lays its eggs directly on the floor instead of building a nest.
Habitat: These birds prefer to dwell in thick forests, woodlands and mangroves. Since they are nocturnal, you can catch them flying only at dusk or dawn, searching for food.
Distribution: The Nightjar can be found roaming the skies from parts of India and Sri Lanka to the Malay Peninsula, the Philippines, and Indonesia.
Conservation status
IUCN: Least Concern
Threat: Due to rapid loss in their habitat, they are under threat.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/is-it-a-bird-or-a-baby-dragon-all-about-the-mysterious-creature/articleshow/114519413.cms
The ‘Triton Island’, recently seen in the news, is located in:
South China Sea
Explanation :
Recent satellite imagery reveals a significant military buildup on Triton Island, the closest landmass in the disputed Paracels archipelago to Vietnam.
About Triton Island:
It is a tiny island that’s part of the Paracel Islands chain located in the South China Sea.
It covers a tiny area of about 1.2 square kilometers and is situated southwest of the main islands in the group.
The island is approximately 4,000 feet long by 2,000 feet wide and, until recently, was completely uninhabited.
The Paracel Islands are claimed by multiple countries, primarily China, Vietnam, and Taiwan, as part of their territorial waters, making the region politically sensitive.
Although Triton Island is uninhabited, it plays a strategic role due to its location in the South China Sea, an area known for its rich fishing grounds and potential oil and gas reserves.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.eurasiantimes.com/china-deploys-counter-stealth-radar/
Consider the following statements regarding Coking Coal:
- It typically contains less carbon, more ash and more moisture than thermal coal.
- It is an essential ingredient in the production of steel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
India’s coking coal imports for the first six months of the current fiscal (April – September) were at a six-year-high at 29.6 million tonnes (mt) with shipments from Russia witnessing a substantial rise of over 200 per cent during this period.
About Coking Coal:
Metallurgical coal, also known as met and coking coal, is a naturally occurring sedimentary rock found within the earth’s crust.
It typically contains more carbon, less ash, and less moisture than thermal coal, which is used for electricity generation.
It is an essential ingredient in the production of steel, making it one of the most widely used building materials on earth.
It is bituminous coal with a suitable quality that allows the production of metallurgical coke, or simply named coke.
Coke is the main product of the high-temperature carbonisation of coking coal.
It is an essential input material in steel making as it is used to produce pig iron in blast furnaces, acting as the reducing agent of iron ore and as the support of the furnace charge.
It takes around 770 kilograms of coal to make one ton of steel, with approximately 70 percent of global steel produced in basic oxygen blast furnaces.
The largest producers of coking coal were China (676 million tons in 2022-62%), Australia (169 million tons in 2022-15%), Russia (96 million tons in 2022-9%), USA (55 million tons-5%), and Canada (34 million tons-3%).
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/indias-coking-coal-imports-surge-to-six-year-high/article68792701.ece
Benog Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which state?
Uttarakhand
Explanation :
Ninety-five bird species and 22 butterfly species were sighted during the 8th Uttarakhand Bird Festival at Benog Wildlife Sanctuary.
About Benog Wildlife Sanctuary:
Location: It is situated about 11 kilometers from Mussoorie, a popular hill station in the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand.
It was established in the year 1993 and is named after the highest peak in the area, Benog Hill, which rises to a height of 2,250 meters above sea level.
It is a part of Rajaji National Park.
It is located on a pine-clad slope and is surrounded by snowcapped peaks of the Himalayan ranges.
Aglar River, a tributary of the Yamuna River flows through the sanctuary.
Flora:
It is home to a variety of plant species, including oak and rhododendron forests.
It is surrounded by benedictory pines, old cedar trees, and medicinal plants that grow in large amounts in this area.
Fauna:
It is home to a variety of rare and common fauna, like the Himalayan goat, panther, leopard, deer, and bear.
The place is known for the rare species of birds that habitat in its area. The sanctuary is home to several species of exotic birds, such as the White Capped Water Red star and the Red Billed Blue Magpie, to name a few.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/dehradun/birds-and-butterflies-galore-highlights-from-the-8th-uttarakhand-bird-festival/articleshow/114436093.cms
With reference to the Gulf of Oman, consider the following:
- Pakistan
- Iran
- United Arab Emirates
- Oman
How many of the above countries border the Gulf of Oman?
All four
Explanation :
Saudi Arabia and Iran have recently conducted joint naval exercises in the Sea of Oman, as relations strengthen between the long-time regional rivals.
About Gulf of Oman:
The Gulf of Oman, also known as the Gulf of Makran, is the western extension of the Arabian Sea and lies in the Middle East.
It forms the only entrance to the Persian Gulf from the Indian Ocean.
The Gulf connects the Arabian Sea with the Strait of Hormuz, which then empties into the Persian Gulf.
It was part of an ancient trade route linking the Arabian Sea to the Persian Gulf, which enabled maritime trade between civilisations of the Indian Subcontinent. The Middle East and the Mediterranean.
Bordering Countries: It is bordered by Pakistan and Iran in the north; by the United Arab Emirates (UAE) in the west; and by Oman in the south.
Muscat, the capital of Oman, is located on the coast of the Gulf.
It is about 320 km wide at its widest point between Cape al-Hadd in Oman and the Gwadar Bay on the Iran-Pakistan border. It narrows to 35 miles (56 km) at the Strait of Hormuz.
It is approximately 560 km long.
The gulf is relatively shallow because of its origin as a fissure in the mountain spine now divided between Iran and Oman.
Some of the significant islands that are located in the Gulf of Oman include Sheytan Island, Al Fahal Island, Dimaniyat Islands, and the Sawadi Islands.
The major international shipping ports that are situated in the Gulf of Oman include Port Sultan Qaboos Muttrah in Muscat, Oman; Chabahar Port in Iran; the Port of Fujairah; and Khor Fakkan Container Terminal in the UAE.
Roughly one-third of the world’s oil is exported via the Strait of Hormuz and the Gulf of Oman.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.middleeastmonitor.com/20241024-saudi-and-iran-hold-joint-naval-drills-in-sea-of-oman-and-plan-red-sea-exercises/
Consider the following statements regarding Abhay Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW SWC), recently seen in the news:
- It is built by India’s leading shipbuilding and repairing company, Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE).
- It is being designed with 100 percent Indigenous content.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The seventh Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW SWC), ‘Abhay’, was launched recently.
About Abhay Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW SWC):
It is built by India’s leading shipbuilding and repairing company, Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE).
This vessel is the seventh in an eight-ship ASW SWC series, an initiative from a 2019 contract between the Ministry of Defence (MoD) and GRSE.
These ships are being designed with over 80 percent Indigenous content.
Designed for anti-submarine operations in coastal waters, these advanced craft are also capable of Low-Intensity Maritime Operations (LIMO) and mine-laying activities, enhancing the Navy’s operational reach and defensive capabilities along India’s coastlines.
These 77-meter-long, 10-meter-wide warships are engineered for powerful subsurface surveillance in coastal waters.
They can track various surface and underwater targets and conduct coordinated anti-submarine operations with aircraft.
The ASW SWCs are compact, waterjet-propelled vessels capable of reaching speeds up to 25 knots, providing agility and swift response in tactical situations.
Equipped with an advanced anti-submarine warfare suite, these ships carry lightweight torpedoes, ASW rockets, and mines, making them formidable assets for coastal defence.
They are armed with a 30 mm Close-in Weapon System (CIWS) and 12.7 mm Stabilized Remote-Control Guns, ensuring a robust defence against aerial and surface threats.
The ships are fitted with a Hull-Mounted Sonar and Low-Frequency Variable Depth Sonar for comprehensive underwater surveillance, enhancing their detection and engagement capabilities in anti-submarine operations.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.theweek.in/news/defence/2024/10/26/another-milestone-for-indian-navy-seventh-anti-submarine-warfare-shallow-water-craft-launched.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Great Indian Bustard:
- It is the heaviest of the flying birds which inhabits dry grasslands and scrublands.
- It is mainly found in the Rajasthan and Maharashtra regions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In a groundbreaking feat, a baby great Indian bustard was born via artificial insemination (AI) at the Sudasari Great Indian Bustard Breeding Centre in Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan.
It is a bustard found on the Indian subcontinent.
It is among the heaviest of the flying birds.
Habitat: It inhabits dry grasslands and scrublands.
Distribution: It is found mainly in the Thar Desert of Rajasthan which holds about 100 individuals. Also found in the arid regions of Maharashtra (Solapur), Karnataka (Bellary and Haveri) and Andhra Pradesh (Kurnool)
Features:
It is a large bird with a horizontal body and long, bare legs, giving it an ostrich-like appearance.
The sexes are roughly the same size, with the largest individuals weighing 15 kg (33 pounds).
It can easily be distinguished by its black crown on the forehead, contrasting with the pale neck and head.
The body is brownish, and the wings are marked with black, brown, and grey.
They breed mostly during the monsoon season, when females lay a single egg on open ground.
Lifespan: 12-15 years
These birds are opportunistic eaters. Their diet ranges widely depending on the seasonal availability of food. They feed on grass seeds, insects like grasshoppers and beetles, and sometimes even small rodents and reptiles.
Conservation Status:
IUCN: Critically Endangered
Wildlife (Protection)Act, 1972: Schedule 1
CITES: Appendix 1
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/jaipur/just-150-left-glimmer-of-hope-for-great-indian-bustard-after-first-ever-artificial-insemination-birth-in-jaisalmer-9637461/
Consider the following statements regarding the Pandemic Fund Project:
- It is designed to enhance animal health security by upgrading and expanding animal health laboratories.
- It is funded by the Food and Agriculture Organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying launched the Pandemic Fund Project on “Animal Health Security Strengthening in India for Pandemic Preparedness and Response”, in New Delhi.
It is a $25 Million initiative funded by the G20 Pandemic Fund.
It is designed to enhance the country’s “animal health security” by upgrading and expanding animal health laboratories and developing laboratory networks.
Implementation partners: The fund is to be implemented in partnership with the Asian Development Bank (ADB), the World Bank and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and to be utilised by August 2026.
The Fund supports the existing initiatives of the department through enhancing disease surveillance, including genomic and environmental surveillance for early warning, laboratory infrastructure development, and cross-border collaboration, and will create a more integrated system for monitoring and managing “zoonotic” diseases.
The Fund is also aimed at developing human capacity-building initiatives to enhance the skills and capabilities of animal health human resources.
It will also be used to upgrade data management systems, and enhancing analytics capabilities will enable better risk assessment, improved decision-making and more effective communication strategies related to animal health risks.
The project hopes to strengthen institutional capacity at both national and regional levels by supporting the development of a disaster management framework for the livestock sector.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2068146
With reference to the 21st Livestock Census, consider the following:
- It aims to collect information about sixteen animal species.
- It collects data on the contribution of pastoralists to the livestock sector.
- It will not carry out a headcount of poultry birds and stray animals in the country.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying launched the 21st Livestock Census in New Delhi.
The Livestock Census is conducted every five years.
The census carries out a headcount of the number of domesticated animals, poultry, and stray animals in the country.
The census takes into account information about the species, breed, age, sex, and ownership status of the animals in question.
Background: Since 1919, a total of 20 livestock censuses have been carried out so far, with the last being conducted in 2019.
The enumeration process for the 21st census will take place between October 2024 to February 2025.
Focus of 21st Livestock Census
According to the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying, information on sixteen animal species will be collected in the 21st census. These include: cattle, buffalo, mithun, yak, sheep, goat, pig, camel, horse, ponies, mule, donkey, dog, rabbit, and elephant.
In total, the census will capture information on 219 indigenous breeds of these sixteen species recognised by ICAR-National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR).
Besides these, the census will also carry out a headcount of poultry birds such as fowl, chicken, duck, turkey, geese, quail, ostrich, and emu.
The census this time will be fully digitised, like the last one in 2019.
This will include “online data collection through a mobile application, monitoring at various levels through a digital dashboard, capturing the latitude and longitude of data collection location, and generation of livestock census report through software.
The 21st census will capture several new data points. These include:
Data on pastoral animals and pastoralists: The census will, for the first time, collect data on the contribution of pastoralists to the livestock sector, their socio-economic status, and livestock holding.
More details, granular information: The census will find out the proportion of households whose major income comes from the livestock sector. It will also contain data on the gender of stray cattle.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/livestock-census-21st-9640278/
Consider the following statements regarding the Flue Gas Desulphurisation:
- It is a technology to eliminate sulphur compounds from exhaust emissions.
- It is done through the addition of absorbents like ammonia or sodium sulphite.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Union Minister for Power and New and Renewable Energy (NRE) recently presided over a meeting to review the results of a study conducted by IIT-Delhi on the effect of installing Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) technology on SO2 emissions in various categories of cities.
It is a technology to eliminate sulphur compounds from exhaust emissions.
Flue gas is the emitted material produced when fossil fuels such as coal, oil, natural gas, or wood are burned for heat or power.
FGD Process:
FGD is done through the addition of absorbents, which can remove up to 95% of the sulphur dioxide from the flue gas.
Substances such as ammonia or sodium sulphite are used as absorbents; however, the use of lime or limestone slurry (wet limestone scrubbing) is also widespread.
The uncleaned flue gas is sprayed in a scrubber tower (absorber tower) with a mixture of water and limestone (scrubbing slurry), whereby most of the sulphur dioxide is bonded by chemical reaction.
How Sulfur dioxide impact life?
Sulfur dioxide is a major air pollutant which impacts all life.
It is also a precursor of acid rain, which has significant adverse impacts on forests, freshwaters, and soils, in turn killing insect and aquatic life forms, causing paint to peel, corrosion of steel structures such as bridges, and weathering of stone buildings and statues.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/pollution/a-central-meeting-showed-pushback-against-tech-in-power-plants-to-reduce-so2-emissions-here-s-why-it-s-a-bad-idea-96080
Consider the following statements regarding Cybersquatting:
- It is an act of registering or using a domain name to profit from a trademark, corporate or personal name of an individual.
- It is penalised under the Information Technology Act 2000 in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, a Delhi-based developer registered the domain, ‘JioHotstar,’ which ignited a debate on cybersquatting.
It is an act of registering or using a domain name to profit from a trademark, corporate or personal name of an individual.
Usually, cybersquatting is seen as a form of extortion or even as an attempt to take over business from its rival.
Types of Cybersquatting
Typo squatting: In this domains are bought with typological errors in the names of well-known brands. Examples of such misspelt domains are yajoo.com, facebok.com etc. The intention behind this act is to divert the target audience whenever they misspell a domain name.
Identity theft: In cases pertaining to identity theft, the website of an already existing brand is copied with the intention of confusing the target consumer.
Name jacking: It involves impersonating a well-known name/ celebrity in cyberspace. Instances of name jacking would include creating fake websites/ social media accounts with a celebrity’s name.
Reverse cybersquatting: It means an event whereby a person/s falsely claims a trademark as their own and falsely accuses the domain owner of cybersquatting. In essence, this act is the opposite of cybersquatting.
In India, there are no specific laws that condemn, prohibit or penalize the act of cybersquatting.
However, domain names are considered as trademarks under the Trademark Act, 1999. Hence, any person who starts using an identical/similar domain name will be held liable for trademark infringement as described under Section 29 of the Trademark Act, 1999.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/jiohotstar-what-is-cybersquatting-is-it-punishable-in-india-9639922/lite/
Dong Feng-26 Missile, recently seen in the news, is developed by which country?
China
Explanation :
China’s stockpile of DF-26 Intermediate-Range Ballistic Missiles (IRBMs) has grown substantially, with new satellite imagery capturing nearly 60 new launchers at a prominent Beijing-based production site.
About DF-26 Missile:
DF-26 (Dong Feng-26) is a Chinese Intermediate-Range Ballistic Missile (IRBM).
It possesses the capability to strike both land-based and maritime targets.
Features:
The missile measures 14 m long, 1.4 m in diameter, and has a launch weight of 20,000 kg.
Propulsion: Two-stage solid propellant
It is capable of reaching targets at a range of approximately 3,000-4,000 kilometers (1,860-2,485 miles).
The DF-26 comes with a ‘modular design,’ meaning that the launch vehicle can accommodate two types of nuclear warheads and several types of conventional warheads.
It is known for its advanced guidance systems, including the ability to adjust its trajectory during flight, making it highly maneuverable.
The DF-26 missile is recognized for its anti-ship variant, commonly referred to as the DF-26B. This variant is specifically designed to target naval vessels, including aircraft carriers.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.eurasiantimes.com/china-expands-and-strengthens-its/
Lord’s Resistance Army, recently seen in the news, is an armed rebel group belonging to which one of the following regions?
Central Africa
Explanation :
A court in Uganda has sentenced Lord’s Resistance Army (LRA) commander Thomas Kwoyelo to 40 years in prison after a landmark war crimes trial over his role in the group’s two-decade reign of violence.
About Lord’s Resistance Army:
It is a Ugandan rebel group currently operating in the border region of the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC), the Central African Republic (CAR), and South Sudan.
It was established by Joseph Kony in 1988 with the claim of restoring the honor of his ethnic Acholi people and installing a government based on his personal version of the Ten Commandments.
It has been one of central Africa’s cruelest and most enduring armed groups over the past 30 years.
The LRA has abducted over 67,000 youth, including 30,000 children, for use as child soldiers, sex slaves, and porters, and has brutalized communities since its inception in 1987.
It was designated as a terrorist group by the United States and prompted the first ever set of arrest warrants by the International Criminal Court (ICC) against the LRA’s leader, Joseph Kony, and other top commanders.
The group draws income from elephant ivory, gold, and diamonds and has received support from the Government of Sudan since 1994.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.aljazeera.com/news/2024/10/25/uganda-sentences-lra-commander-thomas-kwoyelo-to-40-years-for-war-crimes
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR):
- It is the apex body for coordinating, guiding, and managing research and education in agriculture.
- The Union Minister of Agriculture is the President of the ICAR.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry, and Dairying recently held a meeting to discuss the role of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) Fisheries Extension Network in strengthening technology transfer in fisheries.
About Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR):
It is an autonomous organisation under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE), Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India.
Formerly known as the Imperial Council of Agricultural Research, it was established on 16 July 1929 as a registered society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, in pursuance of the report of the Royal Commission on Agriculture.
The Council is the apex body for coordinating, guiding, and managing research and education in agriculture, including horticulture, fisheries, and animal sciences, in the entire country.
The ICAR has its headquarters in New Delhi.
With 113 ICAR institutes and 74 agricultural universities spread across the country, this is one of the largest national agricultural systems in the world.
The Union Minister of Agriculture is the President of the ICAR. The Principal Executive Officer of the ICAR is the Director-General, who is also the Secretary to the Government of India in the Department of Agricultural Research and Education.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.etvbharat.com/en/!bharat/strengthening-technology-transfer-icar-fisheries-extension-network-takes-centre-stage-enn24102605120
Consider the following statements regarding Sambhar Lake:
- It is the largest freshwater lake in India.
- It is located in Punjab.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Over 40 migratory birds, belonging to two to three different species, have been found dead around Sambhar Lake in Jaipur district recently, prompting concerns among the officials.
About Sambhar Lake:
It is the largest saltwater lake in India.
It is located in the districts of Nagaur and Jaipur in Rajasthan.
This saline wetland is elliptical in shape, with a length of 35.5 km and a breadth varying between 3 km and 11 km.
It covers an area in excess of 200 sq.km., surrounded on all sides by the Aravalli hills.
The water from two major ephemeral streams, namely Mendha and Runpangarh, along with numerous rivulets and surface runoff feeds the lake.
It was designated as a Ramsar site in the year 1990.
Several migrating birds visit the waterbody during the winter.
Along with Phulera and Deedwana, the wetland is the most important wintering area for flamingoes (both Phoniconaias minor and Phoenicopterus roseus) in India outside the Rann of Kachchh.
The other winged visitors to the area include pelicans, common shelduck, red shank, and common sandpiper, black-winged stilt, Kentish plover, and Ringed plover, Ruff, and Sociable lapwing.
Sambhar Lake produces 2,10,000 tonnes of salt each year, placing Rajasthan among the top three salt-producing states of India.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/jaipur-news/over-40-migratory-birds-died-at-sambhar-lake-in-rajasthan-officials-101730032038799.html
Bordoibam-Bilmukh Bird Sanctuary lies in which state?
Assam
Explanation :
Once a flourishing refuge for numerous bird species, Assam’s Bordoibam-Bilmukh Bird Sanctuary now faces an alarming biodiversity crisis, with avian diversity plummeting by over 70%.
About Bordoibam-Bilmukh Bird Sanctuary:
It is a small wetland located at the boundary of the Dhemaji and Lakhimpur districts of Assam.
It covers an area of around 11.25 sq.km.
It was in 1996 that the then government of Assam officially declared this region a wildlife sanctuary.
It was part of the River Subansiri (tributary of Brahmaputra), which now flows 7 km away from the lake.
The sanctuary experiences moist tropical climate and receives about 2000 mm rainfall every year.
The vegetation of the sanctuary comprises of flooded valley grassland and wetland.
A large number of migratory waterfowl are seen in winter while some globally threatened species such as the Spot-billed Pelican Pelecanus philippensis and Lesser Adjutant Leptoptilos javanicus are seen all over the year.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.eastmojo.com/assam/2024/10/27/avian-diversity-falls-over-70-at-assams-bordoibam-bilmukh-bird-sanctuary/
Consider the following statements regarding Tardigrades:
- They are known as water bears which can withstand extreme conditions.
- They can be observed in all kinds of environments, from the deep sea to sand dunes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A team of researchers has identified the genetic mechanisms that help a newly discovered species of tardigrades (Hypsibius henanensis) withstand high levels of radiation.
These are known as water bears or moss piglets; tardigrades have long fascinated scientists as they can withstand extreme conditions.
They are free-living tiny invertebrates belonging to the phylum Tardigrada.
Around 1,300 species of tardigrades are found worldwide.
Habitat:
They are considered aquatic because they require a thin layer of water around their bodies to prevent dehydration, they’ve also been observed in all kinds of environments, from the deep sea to sand dunes.
Freshwater mosses and lichens are their preferred habitat, hence their nickname, moss piglet.
Researchers found three factors that help this species survive radiation.
It has the ability to quickly repair double-strand breaks in DNA due to radiation exposure, by using a protein called TRID1.
The second factor involved a gene that was switched on during exposure to radiation, resulting in the generation of two proteins that are known to be important for the mitochondrial synthesis of ATP—in tardigrades, it appears they also help with DNA repair.
It has the ability to minimize damage from radiation by producing a large number of proteins that serve as effective antioxidants—they clear out free radicals before they can cause problems in the creature’s cells.
Significance: The findings could one day be harnessed to help protect astronauts from radiation during space missions, clean up nuclear pollution or improve cancer treatment, according to a report in Nature.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/tardigrade-radiation-resistance-cancer-treatment-genetic-mechanisms-hypsibius-henanensis-9641916/
Consider the following statements regarding Coral Triangle:
- It includes countries like Indonesia, Malaysia and Papua New Guinea.
- It is known as the ‘Amazon of the seas’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A report released at the 16th Conference of Parties (COP16) to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) highlighted alarming facts about oil and gas activities in the Coral Triangle.
The Coral Triangle, often referred to as the ‘Amazon of the seas’, is a huge marine area spanning over 10 million square kilometres.
It includes countries like Indonesia, Malaysia, Papua New Guinea, Singapore, the Philippines, Timor-Leste, and the Solomon Islands.
Significance: This region is home to 76 per cent of the world’s coral species and supports more than 120 million people who rely on its resources for their livelihoods.
Threats: Unsustainable fishing practices, pollution from coastal development, and climate change-induced coral bleaching pose significant risks to the health and resilience of these ecosystems.
What are Corals?
Corals are essentially animals, which are sessile, meaning they permanently attach themselves to the ocean floor.
Corals share a symbiotic relationship with single-celled algae called zooxanthellae.
The algae provide the coral with food and nutrients, which they make through photosynthesis, using the sun’s light.
They use their tiny tentacle-like hands to catch food from the water and sweep into their mouth.
Each individual coral animal is known as a polyp and it lives in groups of hundreds to thousands of genetically identical polyps that form a ‘colony’.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/coral-triangle-at-risk-new-report-highlights-fossil-fuel-threats-and-impacts-on-biodiversity-and-communities
With reference to Sohrai’s painting, consider the following statements:
- It is an indigenous mural art form.
- It is mainly made by tribal women of Northeastern India.
- The theme of this painting is based on natural elements of the universe like forests and rivers.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Prime Minister of India gifted the Sohrai painting to the Russian President during the recently held BRICS summit in Kazan.
It is an indigenous mural art form.
It is also interesting to note that the word ‘Sohrai’ comes from soro – translating to ‘to drive with a stick’.
This art form dates back to the Meso-chalcolithic period (9000-5000 BC).
The Isko rock shelter excavated in Barkagaon, Hazaribagh area also has rock paintings that are exactly similar to the traditional Sohrai paintings.
Theme: It is usually based on natural elements of the universe, including forests, rivers, and animals amongst others.
These ancient paintings are made by tribal (Adivasi) women with the use of natural substances like charcoal, clay, or soil.
The very primitive form of Sohrai art was in the form of cave paintings.
It is practised by indigenous communities, particularly in the States of Jharkhand, Bihar, Odisha, and West Bengal.
It is the art of the women of the Kurmi, Santal, Munda, Oraon, Agaria and Ghatwal tribes.
The region of Hazaribagh in Jharkhand has received the GI tag for this art form.
Sohrai paintings are distinctive for their vibrant colours, intricate patterns, and symbolic motifs;
There is a Sohrai festival held every year, marking the harvesting season and the arrival of winter.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/pm-modi-gifts-jharkhands-art-to-russias-president-putin-during-brics-summit/
Consider the following statements regarding the Nature Conservation Index:
- It is a data-driven analysis assessing each country’s progress in balancing conservation and development.
- It was developed by the United Nations Environment Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India with an abysmal score of 45.5 (out of 100) has been ranked 176th in the Global Nature Conservation Index, 2024.
It is developed by Goldman Sonnenfeldt School of Sustainability and Climate Change at Ben-Gurion University of the Negev.
The NCI is a data-driven analysis assessing each country’s progress in balancing conservation and development.
It is aimed at helping governments, researchers, and organisations identify concerns and enhance conservation policies for long-term biodiversity protection.
This is the first-ever edition of the index which ranks countries based on their efforts vis-à-vis four pillars:
Managing protected areas, addressing threats against biodiversity, nature and conservation governance, and future trends in a country’s natural resource management.
Highlights
India’s rank at the bottom is mainly attributed to inefficient land management and rising threats to its biodiversity.
The assessment highlighted multiple threats to India’s biodiversity, including habitat loss and fragmentation caused by agriculture, urbanisation and infrastructural development, with climate change posing an additional risk.
The top-ranking countries were Luxembourg, Estonia, and Denmark, with others including Zimbabwe and Costa Rica finding their way into the top 10.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/2024-global-nature-conservation-index-india-ranked-176-out-of-180-countries-labelled-among-worst-performers
Rani Chennamma is associated with which one of the following events?
Kittur Rebellion
Explanation :
On the 200th anniversary of Kittur Vijayotsava, a commemorative Postage stamp was released at the historic Kittur Rani Channamma Stage, Kittur Fort Premises.
She was born in Kakati, a small village in today’s Belagavi district of Karnataka.
She became queen of Kitturu (now in Karnataka) when she married Raja Mallasarja of the Desai family.
After Mallasarja died in 1816, his eldest son, Shivalingarudra Sarja, ascended the throne.
Before he died in 1824, Shivalingarudra adopted a child, Shivalingappa, as the successor.
However, the British East India Company refused to recognise Shivalingappa as the successor of the kingdom under the ‘doctrine of lapse’.
Key facts about the Kittur Rebellion
John Thackery, the British official at Dharwad, launched an attack on Kittur in October 1824.
In this first battle British forces lost heavily and the Collector and political agent, St. John Thackeray was killed by the Kitturu forces.
Two British officers, Sir Walter Elliot and Mr. Stevenson, were also taken as hostages.
However, the British army again attacked the Kittur Fort and captured it.
Rani Chennamma and her family were imprisoned and jailed at the fort in Bailhongal, where she died in 1829.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2067654
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C):
- It has been established under the Ministry of Science and Technology (MHA) to deal with cybercrime in the country in a coordinated and comprehensive manner.
- I4C brings together academia, industry, the public and government in the prevention, detection, investigation, and prosecution of cybercrimes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) recently issued an alert against illegal payment gateways created using mule bank accounts by transnational organised cyber criminals facilitating money laundering as a service.
About Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C):
I4C has been established under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) to deal with cybercrime in the country in a coordinated and comprehensive manner.
The I4C focuses on tackling issues related to cybercrime for citizens, including improving coordination between various Law Enforcement Agencies (LEAs) and stakeholders.
The centre is located in New Delhi.
Functions:
To act as a nodal point in the fight against cybercrime.
Identify the research problems and needs of LEAs and take up R&D activities in developing new technologies and forensic tools in collaboration with academia/research institutes within India and abroad.
To prevent misuse of cyberspace for furthering the cause of extremist and terrorist groups.
Suggest amendments, if required, in cyber laws to keep pace with fast changing technologies and international cooperation.
To coordinate all activities related to the implementation of Mutual Legal Assistance Treaties (MLAT) with other countries related to cybercrimes in consultation with the concerned nodal authority in MHA.
Components of I4C:
National Cybercrime Threat Analytics Unit (TAU): For reporting threats pertaining to cybercrimes at regular intervals.
National Cybercrime Reporting Portal (NCRP): To report various cybercrime complaints by citizens at all India levels on a common platform on a 24x7 basis from “anywhere, anytime”.
National Cybercrime Training Centre (NCTC): To impart training to government officials, especially state law enforcement agencies.
National Cybercrime Research and Innovation Centre: To carry out research for the development of indigenous tools for the prevention of cybercrimes.
Platform for Joint Cyber Crime Coordination Team: For coordination, sharing of modus operandi of cybercrimes, data/information among states/UTs LEAs.
Cybercrime Ecosystem Management Unit: For creating mass awareness in cyber hygiene for prevention of cybercrimes.
National Cybercrime Forensic Laboratory (Investigation) Ecosystem: For helping LEAs in cyber forensics investigation.
I4C brings together academia, industry, public and government in the prevention, detection, investigation, and prosecution of cybercrimes.
I4C has envisaged the Cyber Crime Volunteers Program to bring together citizens with passion to serve the nation on a single platform and contribute in fight against cybercrime in the country.
Other Initiatives:
Citizen Financial Cyber Fraud Reporting and Management System: For immediate reporting of financial cyber frauds and preventing the siphoning of funds by cyber criminals on a near-real-time basis.
National Toll-Free Helpline number ‘1930’ has been operationalized to provide citizen assistance in lodging online cyber complaints.
CyberDost handle on various social media platforms to generate cyber awareness among citizens.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/cybercriminals-using-mule-accounts-to-set-up-illegal-payment-gateways-for-money-laundering-mha/article68807572.ece
Marapi Volcano, recently seen in the news, lies in which country?
Indonesia
Explanation :
One of Indonesia’s most active volcanoes, Marapi Volcano, erupted recently, spewing thick columns of ash at least three times and blanketing villages with debris, but no casualties were reported.
About Marapi Volcano:
It is an active volcano located in the Padang Highlands of western Sumatra, Indonesia.
The mountain is part of the Ring of Fire—a long, horseshoe-shaped, seismically active belt that rings the Pacific Ocean.
The highest peak among several volcanoes in the highlands, Mount Marapi rises to 9,485 feet (2,891 meters) above sea level.
It has steep slopes with dense vegetation on its lower flanks.
Its summit contains the Bancah caldera, which has a diameter of 0.9 miles (1.4 km) and is characterized by a series of overlapping craters.
Mount Marapi is often confused with a similar active volcano called Mount Merapi, which is located near the center of the island of Java, Indonesia.
It has erupted 11 times during the early 21st century, with its deadliest single event having killed 60 people in 1979.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.republicworld.com/world-news/indonesias-mount-marapi-volcano-erupts-ash-column-reaches-2000-metres-watch
In which region does the Koel River primarily flow?
Damodar Valley
Explanation :
In a tragic incident, three students, who were studying XI standard, went to take a bath in the Koel River in the Lohardaga district of Jharkhand, and drowned in deep waters.
About Koel River:
Koel River originates from the Palamau Tiger Reserve, Jharkhand, and flows in the western part of Palamu District.
The river is divided into two parts - the North Koel River and the South Koel River.
The former river is tapped near Kutku for irrigation reasons and finally joins with the Son River.
The latter one flows across the Indian state of Orissa near Rourkela, before merging with the Brahmani River.
Flowing through the hilly terrain of Jharkhand and Odisha, the Koel River is part of the larger Damodar Valley region, known for its mineral-rich landscape.
It is prone to seasonal flooding, particularly during the monsoon months.
Hydropower Potential: The North Koel Dam, also known as the Mandal Dam, was constructed on the North Koel River in Jharkhand, intended to generate hydroelectric power and supply irrigation water.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.etvbharat.com/en/!bharat/three-students-drown-while-taking-bath-in-jharkhands-koel-river-enn24102803834
Mount Fuji lies in which one of the following countries?
Japan
Explanation :
Japan’s Mount Fuji remained snow-less recently, the latest date that its majestic slopes have been bare since records began 130 years ago.
About Mount Fuji:
Mount Fuji, also known as Fuji-san, is the highest mountain in Japan, standing at 3,776 meters.
It is situated close to the Pacific coast in the Yamanashi and Shizuoka prefectures in the heart of the large island of Honshu, about 100km to the southwest of the Tokyo-Yokohama metropolitan area.
Unlike other famous high-elevation mountains in the world, Mt. Fuji is not part of a large mountain range.
It is a stratovolcano that has been dormant since its last eruption in 1707 but is still generally classified as active by geologists.
It has a prominent summit crater and is constructed from innumerable basaltic lava flows, each a few meters thick.
It has a smooth slope and a wide, spreading base, creating a beautiful skyline as it narrows to a magnificent peak.
It is said that the main cause of Mt. Fuji’s volcanic activity is the Pacific Plate sinking under the bottom of the Philippine Plate.
On the northern slopes of Mount Fuji lie the Fuji Five Lakes (Fuji Goko), comprising, east to west, Lake Yamanaka, Lake Kawaguchi, Lake Sai, Lake Shōji, and Lake Motosu, all formed by the damming effects of lava flows.
Despite its active volcanic nature, Fuji’s summit is covered in snow most times of the year.
The mountain is the major feature of Fuji-Hakone-Izu National Park, and it is at the centre of a UNESCO World Heritage site designated in 2013.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/still-no-snow-on-japans-mount-fuji-breaking-record-6895286
Consider the following statements regarding Konark Sun Temple:
- It is located on the coastline of Andhra Pradesh.
- It is a classic example of the Kalinga architecture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Prime Minister’s ‘Mann Ki Baat’—through which he interacts with citizens on various issues—had recently made references to Odissi dance and Konark temple.
About Konark Sun Temple:
Location: It is located on the coastline of Odisha in Puri district.
Also called the Surya Devalaya, the temple is dedicated to the Hindu god Surya.
Textual evidence indicates that Narasimha I (who reigned between 1238 and 1264) of the Eastern Ganga dynasty built the temple in 1250.
It was designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984.
Features:
It is a classic example of the Odisha style of architecture or Kalinga architecture.
The temple complex has the appearance of a 100-foot-high solar chariot, with 24 wheels and pulled by six horses, all carved from stone.
It is oriented towards the east so that the first rays of the sunrise strike the main entrance.
The wheels of the temple are sundials, which can be used to calculate time accurately to a minute.
Around the base of the temple, there are images of animals, foliage, warriors on horses, and other interesting structures.
The temple also features elaborate stone carvings depicting scenes from Hindu mythology.
The temple, built from Khondalite rocks, is also known as ‘BLACK PAGODA’ due to its dark colour.
The temple remains a site of contemporary worship for Hindus, during the annual Chandrabhaga Festival, around the month of February.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/odisha/2024/Oct/28/pm-modi-hails-odishas-heritage-in-mann-ki-baat
Consider the following statements regarding the FCI Grievance Redressal System App:
- It aims to improve responsiveness and accountability by providing rice millers with a convenient platform to lodge complaints.
- It is an initiative of the Union Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution launched the Mobile Application of FCI Grievance Redressal System (FCI GRS) for Rice Millers in New Delhi.
It will facilitate rice millers in addressing their grievances with the FCI in an efficient and transparent manner.
It is part of the Government’s ongoing efforts to harness technology for good governance.
It aims to improve responsiveness and accountability by providing rice millers with a convenient platform to lodge complaints, monitor its status and receive responses on their mobile devices in end-to-end digitized manner.
Key Features of the App
User-Friendly Grievance Submission: Millers can easily register their grievances on their mobile through a user-friendly interface, simplifying communication with FCI. They have to register only once and thereafter any number of grievances can be lodged wherein each grievance will have Unique Grievance ID.
Real –Time Tracking: It offers real-time updates on grievance status, keeping millers informed and ensuring transparency.
Automatic Assignment & Fast Resolution: Within FCI, once grievance is received, it will be automatically assigned to concerned Nodal Officers for further action. The App provides facility to Nodal Officer to either get grievance investigated by Quick Response Team or get feedback from the concerned Division.
Geo-Fencing for Quick Response Teams (QRTs): Where grievance redressal involves visit to site by QRT team, the mobile application will capture the physical visit by the team members through the geo-fencing tool.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2068878
Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana:
- It aims to empower tribal communities in India and establishes a framework for sustainable development.
- Under this Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojana helps the development of road and telecom connectivity, education and health services facilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Pradhan Mantri Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana (PMVKY) is a landmark initiative which has been conceived as a comprehensive strategy to address the unique challenges faced by tribal communities in India.
It is a landmark initiative that was launched on October 28, 2014.
It aims to empower tribal communities in India, recognizing their historical neglect. The initiative not only provides financial assistance but also establishes a framework for sustainable development.
Six Key Steps under PMVKY
Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojana
It revamps the existing Special Central Assistance to Tribal Sub-Plan, which focuses on integrated village development in 36,428 villages with significant tribal populations.
It targets critical sectors such as road and telecom connectivity, education, health services, and sanitation, all of which aim to raise the living standards of tribal communities.
Development of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)
It is designed to ensure the socio-economic upliftment of the most marginalized tribal communities (PVTC families) while preserving their cultural heritage.
The initiative provides financial support to state governments for tailored developmental activities in the housing, health, and education sectors.
The Pradhan Mantri PVTG Development Mission has been launched to enhance further living conditions and provide PVTG families with access to basic facilities.
Under this mission Rs. 15,000 crore will be allocated over three years for essential amenities like secure housing, clean drinking water, sanitation, education, health, nutrition, and enhanced connectivity.
Support to Tribal Research Institutes (TRI): It facilitates research and documentation efforts related to tribal communities. Financial assistance is allocated to state governments and UTs based on their proposals to strengthen the knowledge base concerning tribal cultures and challenges.
Pre-Matric Scholarships: It caters to students in grades IX and X, the scholarship is available for students with a parental income of up to ₹2.50 lakhs, ensuring that financial constraints do not hinder educational advancement.
Post-Matric Scholarships: These have similar terms and conditions to the Pre-Matric scheme but are for Scheduled Tribe students studying beyond class 10.
Administrative Assistance for Project Management Units: The PMVKY also allocates funds to establish project management units within state governments, ensuring that schemes related to the welfare of Scheduled Tribes are effectively monitored and implemented.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2068917
With reference to Raigad Fort, consider the following:
- It is located in the state of Maharashtra.
- It is surrounded by valleys shaped by the Krishna and Godavari.
- It was labeled as the Gibraltar of the East by the British historian Grant Duff.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A replica of Raigad Fort has been made as a backdrop at the venue of Rashtriya Ekta Diwas parade in Kevadiya to showcase the stories of incredible valour, heroic deeds and innovative warfare techniques of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.
It is a hill fort situated in the Raigad district, Maharashtra.
It is surrounded by valleys shaped by the Kal and Gandhari rivers and stands as an isolated massif without connections to neighbouring hills.
Grant Duff, a British historian of the Maratha period has drawn parallels between Raigad and the Rock of Gibraltar. He has gone to the extent of labelling Raigad as the Gibraltar of the east.
History
In 1653 CE, Raigad (then known as Rairi) was captured by the Maratha forces from the Mores’.
Shivaji Maharaj assigned the work of reconstruction of the fort to Hiroji Indulkar.
Subsequently, on 6th June, 1674 CE a grand coronation ceremony of Shivaji Maharaj was held on Raigad post, during which he attained the title of “Chhatrapati”.
The fort served as the second capital of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj and played an important role in the administration and expansion of the Maratha Kingdom.
Features:
There were two main gates both flanked by bastions, Nana Darwaza and Maha Darwaza.
It is remarkable for its magnificently designed gates, fortification walls and imposing monuments.
Other structures within the fort are: Naqqar Khana, Sirkai Devi Temple, Jagadishwar Temple – a shrine dedicated to Lord Siva - including the Hall of Public Audience (Rajsadar), Royal Complex, Queens’ palace Bazarpeth, Manore (pleasure pavilions), Wadeshwar Temple, Khublada Burj, Massid Morcha, Nanne Darwaza
The Royal Complex: It includes Ranivasa, Rajsadar, Naqqarkhana, Mena Darwaza, and Palkhi Darwaja, is well-fortified and accessible only through three entrances: Naqqarkhana, Mena Darwaja, and Palkhi Darwaja. This fortified complex is commonly known as Balle Qilla (citadel).
Rajsadar (Hall of Public Audience): This is where Shivaji Maharaj used to hold his court (darbar) to dispense justice on routine matters and to receive dignitaries and envoys. It is a rectangular structure facing east.
Holicha Mal: It is located outside Naqqarkhana. It is a wide-open ground that was most likely used for the annual Holi festival.
The fort of Raigad is part of the 12 forts nominated for UNESCO World Heritage under the title “Maratha Military Landscapes of India”.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2068819
Consider the following statements regarding the Land Port Authority of India:
- It was constituted for the development and management of facilities for the cross-border movement of passengers and goods.
- It is a statutory body established under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation inaugurated a new Passenger Terminal Building and a Maitri Dwar in Petrapole, West Bengal built at a cost of Rs. 487 crore by the Land Port Authority of India (LPAI).
It is an authority constituted under the Land Ports Authority Act, 2010.
It was constituted for the development and management of facilities for cross border movement of passengers and goods at designated points along the international borders of India.
Mandate:
It is responsible for creating, upgrading, maintaining and managing border infrastructure in India. It manages several Integrated Check Posts (ICPs) all across Borders of India.
Composition:
Chairperson and Members are appointed by the Central Government.
Tenure:
Both Chairperson and Members have tenure for a period of five years from the date on which he assumes office and till he attains the age of sixty years, whichever is earlier.
Functions:
It is mandated to develop, sanitize and manage the facilities for cross border movement of passengers and goods at designated points along the international borders of India.
Nodal ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs.
Key points about Petrapole
Petrapole is the largest land port in South Asia and it is a vital gateway for trade and commerce between India and Bangladesh.
It is also the eighth largest international immigration port of India, and facilitates the movement of over 23.5 lakh passengers annually between India and Bangladesh.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2068695
Which of the following best describes Dyslexia, recently in the news?
It is a learning disorder that involves difficulty in reading.
Explanation :
Recently, as part of the nation-wide ‘Act4Dyslexia’ campaign, key monuments in Delhi, including Rashtrapati Bhawan, Parliament House, North and South Blocks, and India Gate, have been illuminated in red, the colour for Dyslexia Awareness.
It is a learning disorder that involves difficulty reading due to problems identifying speech sounds and learning how they relate to letters and words (decoding).
It is also called a reading disability, dyslexia is a result of individual differences in areas of the brain that process language.
It is not due to problems with intelligence, hearing or vision.
It is often misunderstood as the ‘slow-learner syndrome’.
The exact cause of dyslexia isn’t clear. However, several clues hint at how and why most cases happen.
Genetics: It is highly genetic and runs in families. A child with one parent with dyslexia has a 30% to 50% chance of inheriting it.
Differences in brain development and function: Research shows people with dyslexia have differences in brain structure, function and chemistry.
Disruptions in brain development and function: Infections, toxic exposures and other events can disrupt fetal development and increase the odds of later development of dyslexia.
Specific Learning Disabilities, including dyslexia, were officially recognized under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act of 2016, which mandates equal opportunities in education, employment, and other aspects of life.
The National Education Policy 2020 reinforces this mandate, emphasizing inclusive education from foundational to higher education levels. NEP 2020 reforms focus on early identification, teacher capacity building, and providing necessary support and accommodations to students.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/rashtrapati-bhavan-parliamentl-light-up-red-dyslexia-9643373/
Consider the following statements:
- India is the second-largest rice producer in the world.
- China is the largest consumer of rice in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Government of India lifted the ban on the export of Non-Basmati White Rice. However, it set a minimum export price (MEP) of $490 per tonne.
India is the second-largest rice producer in the world, after China. So, statement 1 is correct.
China is the world’s largest consumer of rice. In 2023/2024, China consumed about 150 million metric tons of rice, which is more than any other country. So, statement 2 is correct.
Which of the following statements about Cyber Slavery are correct?
- Cyber slavery typically involves deceptive job offers that lure individuals into exploitative situations, often through forced labor in online scams.
- Victims of cyber slavery are primarily recruited from developed countries where internet infrastructure is highly advanced.
- Key tactics in cyber slavery include manipulation through debt bondage, social isolation, and threats.
- International regulations on cyber slavery are well-established, effectively reducing the number of such cases globally.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
The Union Ministry of Telecommunications has informed a high-level inter-ministerial panel that it will disconnect 2.17 crore mobile connections obtained through forged documents or used in cybercrime, and block 2.26 lakh mobile handsets.
Cyber slavery is a form of modern-day human trafficking where individuals are deceived into exploitative roles, often forced to work in online scams through manipulation. So, statement 1 is correct.
Victims are mostly recruited from developing or less economically stable countries where job scarcity makes people vulnerable to deceptive offers. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Tactics like debt bondage, social isolation, and threats are commonly used to control and exploit victims. So, statement 3 is correct.
International regulations on cyber slavery are still evolving, and enforcement remains challenging due to cross-border jurisdictional issues. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding schemes and their nodal ministries:
- Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
- The nodal ministry for Swachh Bharat Mission – Grameen is the Ministry of Rural Development.
- The implementation of Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban is entrusted with the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
AMRUT scheme works under the administrative control of Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Launched in 2015, the mission focuses on infrastructure creation that has a direct link to provision of better services to the citizens. So, statement 1 is correct.
The nodal ministry for Swachh Bharat Mission – Grameen is Ministry of Jal Shakti. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The implementation of Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban is entrusted with Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, only one of the above statements are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog:
- It acts as a platform to bring the States to work together in national interest and thereby fosters cooperative federalism.
- The CEO of NITI Aayog is appointed by the Prime Minister of India for a fixed tenure.
- The Governing Council of NITI Aayog is chaired by the Vice-Chair of the organization.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
NITI Aayog, was formed via a resolution of the Union Cabinet on 1 January 2015. It was constituted to replace the Planning Commission - instituted in 1950.
It is the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, providing directional and policy inputs.
NITI Aayog acts as a platform to bring the States to act together in national interest and thereby fosters cooperative federalism. So, statement 1 is correct.
CEO of NITI Aayog is appointed by the PM for a fixed tenure. S/he enjoys the rank of Secretary to the Government of India. So, statement 2 is correct.
Governing Council of NITI Aayog is chaired by the PM and comprises Chief Ministers of all the States and UTs with legislatures and Lt Governors of other Union Territories. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct
Consider the following statements:
- The Bab-el-Mandeb Strait connects the Red Sea to the Arabian Sea, facilitating maritime navigation between the Mediterranean Sea and the Indian Ocean.
- The Gulf of Aden lies between Yemen on the Arabian Peninsula and Somalia in the Horn of Africa.
- The Red Sea has minimal freshwater inflows, leading to high salinity levels compared to other seas.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
As tensions in West Asia escalated following Iran’s missile attack on Israel, India called for restraint and the protection of civilians.
The Bab-el-Mandeb Strait is a narrow passage that connects the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden, not directly to the Arabian Sea. The Red Sea, Gulf of Aden, and Bab-el-Mandeb form part of the maritime route between the Mediterranean Sea and the Indian Ocean. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The Gulf of Aden is located between Yemen and Somalia, forming a critical part of the maritime route to the Indian Ocean. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Red Sea has high salinity due to minimal freshwater inflow and high evaporation rates, distinguishing it from other major seas. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI):
- Anyone wanting to operate a food business in India must register or obtain a license from the FSSAI.
- FSSAI has been established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
- It is responsible for monitoring and regulating food processing, distribution, sale, and import to ensure food safety and quality.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Uttar Pradesh government has recently mandated that food establishments prominently display the names of the operator, proprietor, manager, and relevant personnel to customers.
Earlier, on July 22, the Supreme Court stayed similar orders issued by police in Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand for the kanwar yatra, stating that only the competent authority under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 (FSSA) could issue such directives. The court emphasized that the police could not take over this authority.
Anyone wishing to operate a food business in India must register or obtain a license from the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI). So, statement 1 correct.
FSSAI was established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006. So, statement 2 is correct.
It is responsible for monitoring and regulating food processing, distribution, sale, and import to ensure food safety and quality. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, all three of the above statements are correct.
Consider the following statements about River Kosi:
- It is formed by the confluence of three streams namely the Sun Kosi, the Arun Kosi and Tamur Kosi all taking their origin in the Himalayan region of Nepal and Tibet.
- It is often referred to as the “Sorrow of Bihar” due to frequent flooding and extensive damage to surrounding regions.
- Trijunga, Bhutahi Balan, Kamla Balan and Bagmati are the right bank tributaries of River Kosi.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
The river Kosi is formed by the confluence of three streams namely the Sun Kosi, the Arun Kosi and Tamur Kosi all taking their origin in the Himalayan region of Nepal and Tibet. So, statement 1 is correct.
Known as the “Sorrow of Bihar,” the Kosi River frequently changes course, causing severe flooding and damage in Bihar. So, statement 2 is correct.
Apart from the three streams which form the Kosi, a number of tributaries join the river in course of its flows through the plains from the right bank. These are Trijunga, Bhutahi Balan, Kamla Balan and Bagmati. So, statement 3 is correct.
The Chagos Islands, a group of atolls and islands in the Indian Ocean, are located closest to which of the following countries?
Maldives
Explanation :
Britain has recently agreed to transfer sovereignty of the Chagos Islands, to Mauritius. India welcomed the agreement, seeing it as completing the decolonization of Mauritius.
The Chagos Islands are located in the Indian Ocean, south of the Maldives and are geographically closest to the Maldives.
Which of the following languages has been accorded Classical Language status in India?
A. Marathi, Assamese, and Bengali B. Tamil, Kannada, and Malayalam C. Pali, Prakrit, and Odia
All of the above
Explanation :
The Union Cabinet has extended the “classical language” tag to Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, and Bengali.
Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, and Odia already enjoy this status.
Recently, in July 2024, the Linguistic Experts Committee (LEC) unanimously revised the criteria for classical status. The criteria now include:
High antiquity of early texts, and recorded history over a period of 1500- 2000 years;
A body of ancient literature/ texts, which is considered a heritage by generations of speakers;
Epigraphic and inscriptional evidence;
Knowledge texts, especially prose texts in addition to poetry; and
That classical languages and literature could be distinct from its current form or could be discontinuous with later forms of its offshoots.
Consider the following statements:
- Entry 50 of List 2 of the Constitution of India is about taxes on mineral rights, subject to any limitations imposed by Parliament by law relating to mineral development.
- Mineral-bearing lands fall under the term “land” as per Entry 49 of List 2 of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Supreme Court, in a nine-judge Constitution Bench, dismissed review petitions against its earlier ruling that royalty paid by mining operators to the Central government is not a tax, and that states can impose cess on mining activities.
Entry 50 of List 2 of the Constitution of India is about taxes on mineral rights, subject to any limitations imposed by Parliament by law relating to mineral development. So, statement 1 is correct.
Mineral-bearing lands fall under the term “land” as per Entry 49 of List 2 of the Constitution, enabling states to tax such lands. So, statement 2 is correct.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the United Nations Secretary-General (UNSG)?
S/he is appointed by the General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council, usually serving a renewable term of five years.
Explanation :
Recently, Israel has banned United Nations Secretary- General (UNSG) António Guterres from entering the country. Israel accused him of “backing” Hamas, Hezbollah, the Houthis, and Iran.
The United Nations Secretary-General is appointed by the General Assembly, based on the recommendation of the Security Council, and typically serves a renewable term of five years.
The Security Council’s recommendation is subject to the veto power of its permanent members.
Country X, a major supplier of rare earth metals critical to the electronics industry, imposes export restrictions on Country Y due to ongoing political tensions. Which of the following best describes this action?
Economic coercion, where Country X uses its trade dominance to exert political pressure on Country Y
Explanation :
The action taken by Country X is an example of economic coercion or weaponisation of trade, where it uses its dominance in a critical resource (rare earth metals) to put pressure on Country Y.
This tactic is often used to achieve political objectives by limiting access to essential resources.
Which of the following best illustrates the purpose of Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs) in promoting innovation?
IPRs provide legal protection to creators, granting them exclusive rights to their work for a limited time, encouraging investment in research and development.
Explanation :
The primary purpose of IPRs is to encourage innovation by granting creators exclusive rights to benefit from their creations for a limited time.
This incentivizes investment in research and development, allowing inventors and creators to potentially recoup their costs and benefit from their work before it enters the public domain.
Which of the following statements about Artificial Neural Networks (ANN) is not correct?
A. An artificial neuron consists of inputs, weights, a bias, an activation function, and an output. B. ANNs are inspired by biological neural networks and are structured in layers. C. The activation function in an ANN is used to make the model linear. D. Backpropagation is a common method used to adjust weights in an ANN during training.
The activation function in an ANN is used to make the model linear.
Explanation :
The 2024 Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded to John Hopfield and Geoffrey Hinton for their foundational contributions to AI, particularly in machine learning with artificial neural networks.
An artificial neuron does indeed consist of inputs, weights, a bias, an activation function, and an output. So, option (a) is correct.
ANNs are inspired by biological neural networks and typically contain multiple layers: input, hidden, and output layers. So, option (b) is correct.
The activation function introduces non-linearity into the model, allowing ANNs to solve complex problems. It does not make the model linear. So, option (c) is not correct.
Backpropagation is widely used to adjust weights in an ANN, improving the model’s accuracy by minimizing error during training. So, option (d) is correct.
Which of the following best describes the Kessler Syndrome?
A chain reaction in which collisions between space debris generate additional debris, increasing the likelihood of further collisions and potentially rendering certain orbits unusable
Explanation :
ISRO announced the successful re-entry of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle-C37 (PSLV-C37) upper stage into Earth’s atmosphere on October 6. This achievement aligns with global efforts to reduce space debris, supporting ISRO’s goal of achieving debris-free space missions by 2030.
The Kessler Syndrome refers to a self-sustaining chain reaction of collisions in orbit, where each collision generates more debris, leading to further collisions and potentially making certain orbits unusable.
Gravitational pull does not actively clear space debris; it affects lower orbits, but this does not describe the Kessler Syndrome.
Space debris is not primarily influenced by magnetic fields in such a way as to cluster and form regions of high risk, as described here.
Consider the following statements:
- Standing deposit facility (SDF) is a window for banks to borrow from the central bank in an emergency situation when inter-bank liquidity dries up completely.
- Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) is a liquidity window through which the central bank gives banks an option to park excess liquidity with it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) decided to keep the repo rate unchanged at 6.5%, marking the tenth consecutive time the rate has remained steady.
Standing deposit facility (SDF) - It is a liquidity window through which the RBI will give banks an option to park excess liquidity with it. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Marginal Standing Facility - It is a window for banks to borrow from the central bank in an emergency situation when inter-bank liquidity dries up completely. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the rice fortification?
Fortified rice is produced by adding nutrients to rice kernels during the cooking process.
Explanation :
The Union cabinet, chaired by PM Modi, approved the continuation of the universal supply of fortified rice under all Union government schemes, including the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY), from July 2024 until December 2028.
Rice fortification does indeed involve adding essential vitamins and minerals, such as iron, folic acid, and Vitamin B12, to rice to enhance its nutritional content
Fortified rice aims to combat micronutrient deficiencies, especially in regions where rice is a staple food.
Fortified rice is created by blending rice with fortified kernels or by coating rice grains with a nutrient-rich mix during processing, not by adding nutrients during cooking. So, option (c) is not correct.
India has introduced fortified rice in government schemes, such as the PDS, to address widespread malnutrition.
Which of the following statements regarding the types of coal are correct?
- Anthracite has the highest carbon content and calorific value among all types of coal.
- Bituminous coal is primarily used in electricity generation and has a lower carbon content than lignite.
- Lignite, also known as brown coal, is the youngest form of coal and has the lowest calorific value.
- Peat is technically not considered coal but is the precursor material from which coal forms.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
A recent study by iForest (International Forum for Environment, Sustainability and Technology) reveals that India will need over $1 trillion (Rs 84 lakh crore) over the next 30 years for a just transition away from coal.
Anthracite has the highest carbon content and calorific value among all types of coal. So, statement 1 is correct.
Bituminous coal is used in electricity generation but has a higher carbon content than lignite, not lower. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Lignite, often called brown coal, is the youngest and has the lowest carbon content and calorific value. So, statement 3 is correct.
Peat is indeed the precursor to coal and is not technically classified as coal. So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements about the European Union’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM):
- The primary aim of CBAM is to prevent carbon leakage by imposing a tax on carbon-intensive imports into the EU.
- CBAM applies only to EU member countries and excludes goods imported from non-EU countries.
- CBAM is expected to impact industries like cement, steel, aluminum and fertilizers.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The primary aim of CBAM is indeed to prevent carbon leakage (where companies relocate to regions with laxer emission norms) by imposing taxes on carbon-intensive imports into the EU. So, statement 1 is correct.
CBAM applies to goods imported from non-EU countries to ensure fair competition with EU producers facing stricter emission norms. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Industries like cement, steel, aluminum and fertilizers are targeted by CBAM due to their significant carbon footprints. So, statement 3 is correct.
Which of the following Indian states share a land border with China?
- Sikkim
- Nagaland
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Himachal Pradesh
- Meghalaya
- Uttarakhand
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 3, 4 and 6 only
Consider the following statements regarding the Zojila Tunnel:
- It aims to provide all-weather connectivity between Srinagar and Leh in the Union Territory of Ladakh.
- It will be one of the longest and highest tunnels in Asia upon completion.
- It passes through the Zanskar Range of the Himalayas.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Consider the following statements regarding the New Development Bank (NDB):
- The fourth BRICS Summit in New Delhi established the NDB.
- The bank is headquartered in Shanghai, China.
- It works on one country one vote principle and no member has any veto powers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Prime Minister Narendra Modi attended 16th BRICS Summit, along with Chinese President Xi Jinping and South African President Cyril Ramaphosa. The summit is hosted by Russian President Vladimir Putin in the city of Kazan.
At the fourth BRICS Summit in New Delhi (2012), the participating leaders considered the possibility of setting up a New Development Bank. It was during the sixth BRICS Summit in Fortaleza (2014) that the leaders signed the Agreement establishing the New Development Bank (NDB). So, statement 1 is not correct.
HQ- Shanghai, China. So, statement 2 is correct.
The first regional office of the NDB is in Johannesburg, South Africa.
The Agreement on the NDB specifies that every member will have one vote no one would have any veto powers. So, statement 3 is correct.
Which of the following statements about cloud seeding is/are correct?
- It is a weather modification technique that involves dispersing substances like silver iodide, potassium iodide into clouds to encourage rainfall.
- It can only be performed on cumulus clouds due to their specific temperature and moisture levels.
- It has been found effective in reducing the intensity of thunderstorms and hailstorms.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 and 3 only
With respect to Geoengineering, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
- Solar Radiation Management (SRM) aims to reflect a portion of the Sun’s energy back into space to reduce global temperatures.
- Carbon Dioxide Removal (CDR) is focused on enhancing natural processes that absorb CO₂.
- Ocean fertilization is a method used in CDR, aiming to stimulate phytoplankton growth to increase carbon sequestration in the ocean.
- Stratospheric aerosol injection is considered a low-risk technique of SRM because it primarily affects only the local atmosphere.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The recent study in Geophysical Research Letters explores geoengineering, specifically solar radiation management, to mitigate global warming.
It suggests spraying millions of tonnes of diamond dust into Earth’s upper atmosphere to reflect solar radiation away from the planet, potentially cooling it.
Solar Radiation Management (SRM) techniques aim to reflect a portion of the Sun’s energy to reduce global temperatures. So, statement 1 is correct.
CDR involves both enhancing natural processes (like reforestation) and direct air capture techniques. So, statement 2 is correct
Ocean fertilization is a CDR technique aimed at increasing carbon sequestration by stimulating phytoplankton growth. So, statement 3 is correct.
Stratospheric aerosol injection is a high-risk technique with potential global implications, not a low-risk, localized intervention. So, statement 4 is not correct.
What is the primary purpose of the Pusa Decomposer developed by the Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI)?
To decompose stubble left after crop harvesting, reducing air pollution caused by stubble burning.
Which of the following organizations is responsible for naming tropical cyclones in the North Indian Ocean, including the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea?
Regional Specialized Meteorological Centre (RSMC)
Explanation :
Severe Cyclonic Storm Dana made landfall on the Odisha coast.
The Regional Specialized Meteorological Centre (RSMC) in New Delhi, operated by the Indian Meteorological Department (IMD), is responsible for naming tropical cyclones in the North Indian Ocean region, including the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea.
The RSMC receives naming suggestions from member countries of the WMO’s regional committee for the area.
In the context of the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY), consider the following statements:
- The scheme provides loans to small and micro enterprises under the categories of Shishu, Kishore, Tarun and Tarun Plus each defined by a specific loan amount range.
- The implementing institutions for PMMY loans include both public sector banks and microfinance institutions.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The government has increased the loan limit under the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) from Rs 10 lakh to Rs 20 lakh, introducing a new ‘Tarun Plus’ category aimed at supporting emerging entrepreneurs.
This enhancement will aid entrepreneurs in growth and expansion, furthering the Mudra Scheme’s mission to “fund the unfunded” and strengthen India’s entrepreneurial ecosystem.
PMMY provides collateral-free loans under three categories: Shishu (up to ₹50,000), Kishore (₹50,001 to ₹5 lakh), and Tarun (₹5 lakh to ₹10 lakh). So, statement 1 is correct.
PMMY loans can be accessed through multiple financial institutions, including public and private sector banks, regional rural banks (RRBs), microfinance institutions (MFIs), and non-banking financial companies (NBFCs), thus offering widespread accessibility to beneficiaries. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
In the context of a Living Will in India, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
- It is a legal document through which a person can specify their medical treatment preferences in the event of terminal illness or permanent vegetative state.
- It can only be executed with the consent of two medical practitioners appointed by the treating hospital.
- The Supreme Court of India has recognized the right to make a Living Will under the ambit of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 and 3 only
Which of the following best describes the primary function of the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)?
To promote the development of international air navigation and ensure safe, orderly, and efficient international air transport.
Explanation :
The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations that primarily focuses on setting global standards and regulations for aviation safety, security, efficiency, and environmental protection in international air transport.
It promotes collaboration among member countries to ensure safe and orderly international aviation, but it does not directly regulate fuel standards, provide funding, or manage airline fares and mergers.
Which of the following statements regarding the Livestock Census in India is correct?
The 20th Livestock Census introduced digital data collection for the first time, aiming to enhance accuracy and transparency.
In the context of Peer-to-Peer (P2P) lending platforms in India, which of the following is a key characteristic?
P2P lending allows individual lenders to lend money directly to individual borrowers, with the platform only facilitating the transaction.
Explanation :
In August 2024, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed strict rules on peer-to-peer (P2P) lending platforms. As a result, the industry’s asset under management (AUM) plummeted by 35% — from an estimated ₹10,000 crore to ₹6,500 crore.
The main purpose of P2P platforms is to connect lenders and borrowers, without being directly involved in the loans themselves. There are mixed views on whether P2P platforms can adapt to the changes imposed by RBI.
P2P platforms do not lend from their own funds; instead, they connect individual lenders and borrowers.
While RBI regulates P2P lending platforms, it does not set fixed interest rates; interest rates are negotiated between lenders and borrowers on the platform.
P2P lending allows individuals to lend money directly to other individuals, with the platform providing a marketplace and overseeing the transaction.
P2P lending platforms are open to both individual and small business borrowers, not limited to corporate entities.
Consider the following statements regarding the Census in India:
- It is conducted every five years under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- The first Census in India was conducted in the year 1947 after gaining independence.
- Population census is listed in the Concurrent List of Seventh Schedule in the Indian Constitution.
- The Census in India includes the enumeration of only Indian citizens and does not include foreign nationals residing in the country.
How many of the above statements are correct?
None of the above
Explanation :
The Centre is reportedly preparing to conduct the Census, which was delayed in 2021 due to Covid-19. Although official confirmation is pending, the Census is expected to begin next year.
This exercise is crucial as it ties into two major issues: the delimitation of Parliamentary constituencies, stalled for five decades, and the implementation of women’s reservation in Parliament.
India’s Census, which has followed a decadal schedule since 1881, missed its 2021 mark for the first time.
Beginning in the year 1872, when the first census was conducted non-synchronously, the census enumeration exercise in India is carried out in every 10 years. The responsibility of conducting the decadal census rests with the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, Ministry of Home Affairs. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The first synchronous census was taken under British rule in 1881, by W.C. Plowden, Census Commissioner of India. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Population census is listed in Union List (entry 69) of the Seventh Schedule in the Indian Constitution. So, statement 3 is not correct.
The Census in India includes the enumeration of all individuals, both Indian citizens and foreign nationals, who are present in the country at the time of the Census. It is a comprehensive count of the entire population, regardless of their citizenship status. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the election expenditure limit for candidates in India?
The Election Commission of India (ECI) periodically revises the expenditure limit based on inflation and other economic factors.
Consider the following statements:
- ASEAN was established with the primary objective of promoting political stability among its member states.
- ASEAN has a formalized Free Trade Area (FTA) agreement with India, aimed at enhancing economic integration.
- Timor-Leste is one of the members of ASEAN.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The 21st ASEAN-India Summit, held in Vientiane, Lao PDR, marked a decade of India’s Act East Policy.
ASEAN was originally founded in 1967 with objectives centered on promoting regional peace, stability, and mutual assistance among member states. However, economic collaboration also became a significant focus over time. So, statement 1 is not correct.
ASEAN and India have indeed established the ASEAN-India Free Trade Area (AIFTA) which came into effect in 2010, promoting trade and economic integration. So, statement 2 is correct.
Timor-Leste joined the ASEAN in 2022 as an Observer. ASEAN has agreed in principle to accept Timor-Leste as its 11th member. It has not yet become a full member of ASEAN. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS):
- The BIS is a statutory organization that operates under the Ministry of Commerce.
- It is the national standards body of India that sets standards for products and services and certifies products.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2 only
Explanation :
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has begun the process of formulating a National Agriculture Code (NAC), on the lines of the existing National Building Code and National Electrical Code
About BIS
BIS is the national standards body of India that sets standards for products and services and certifies products. So, statement 2 is correct.
The BIS is a statutory organization that operates under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. So, statement 1 is not correct.
It was established under the Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 2016.
Consider the following statements with respect to the East Asia Summit (EAS):
- EAS is a forum for leaders of countries in the Indo-Pacific region to discuss political, security, and economic challenges.
- The EAS is the only leaders-led forum that brings together the US, China, Russia, India, RoK, and Australia.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
PM Modi attended the 19th East Asia Summit (EAS) on 11 October 2024 in Vientiane, Lao PDR.
About EAS
The East Asia Summit (EAS) is a forum for leaders of countries in the Indo-Pacific region to discuss political, security, and economic challenges. So, statement 1 is correct.
The EAS was established in 2005 by the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and is held annually.
Members
The EAS was originally attended by 16 countries from East Asia, Southeast Asia, South Asia, and Oceania.
In 2011, membership expanded to 18 countries, including Russia and the United States.
Ten member states of the ASEAN – Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam;
along with Australia, China, Japan, India, New Zealand, the Republic of Korea, Russia and the United States.
The EAS is the only leaders-led forum that brings together the US, China, Russia, India, RoK, and Australia. So, statement 2 is correct.
The United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL) was initially established in 1978 with the primary mandate to:
monitor the withdrawal of Israeli forces from southern Lebanon
Explanation :
India expressed concern over the worsening security situation in West Asia after two UN peacekeepers were injured near Lebanon’s border with Israel.
This marks the most serious escalation since Israel asked the UN peacekeeping force, UNIFIL, to relocate from positions near Hezbollah rocket launch sites in Lebanon. The request was declined by the UN.
UNIFIL, present in southern Lebanon since 1978, has an observational mandate that was expanded in 2006 following the Israel-Hezbollah war.
The United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL) was established on March 19, 1978 by the United Nations Security Council:
Purpose: To confirm Israel’s withdrawal from Lebanon, restore international peace and security, and help the Lebanese government regain authority in the area
Response to: Israel’s invasion of southern Lebanon
Consider the following statements with reference to the applications of biotechnology:
- Genetically Modified (GM) crops can be developed to resist pests, thus reducing the need for chemical pesticides and increasing agricultural productivity.
- Biotechnology can be used to produce biofuels, offering an alternative to fossil fuels and helping reduce carbon emissions.
- CRISPR technology allows for precise genetic modifications in crops and livestock, enhancing traits such as disease resistance and yield.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Genetically Modified (GM) crops can indeed be engineered to resist pests, reducing the need for chemical pesticides and increasing productivity. So, statement 1 is correct.
Biotechnology is widely used to produce biofuels, such as ethanol from crops, which can reduce reliance on fossil fuels and lower carbon emissions. So, statement 2 is correct.
CRISPR technology allows precise editing of genes, making it possible to modify traits in crops and livestock for disease resistance and yield improvement. So, statement 3 is correct.
Which one of the following is the primary cause of Trachoma?
Bacterial infection
Explanation :
The World Health Organisation (WHO) has declared that the Government of India has eliminated Trachoma as a public health problem.
Trachoma is caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. It is a contagious bacterial infection that affects the eyes and can lead to blindness if untreated. Trachoma is preventable and primarily occurs in areas with poor sanitation and limited access to clean water.
Which one of the following incentives is most likely to be included in the “Orphan Drug Act”?
Providing extended market exclusivity and tax credits for research and development
Explanation :
The Delhi High Court recently issued directions to improve the availability of orphan drugs, which are used to treat rare diseases.
The Centre provides financial assistance to Centres of Excellence (CoE) for treatment, but stakeholders have approached the courts, citing difficulties in accessing these funds.
An “Orphan Drug Act” typically provides incentives such as extended market exclusivity, tax credits, and grants to encourage pharmaceutical companies to develop drugs for rare diseases, often termed “orphan drugs.”
These incentives help offset the high costs and limited profitability associated with producing treatments for small patient populations.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Arrange the following Lakes of North America in correct sequence from north to south direction:
- Lake Superior
- Lake Michigan
- Lake Huron
- Lake Erie
- Lake Ontario
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1- 3 – 2 – 5 – 4
Explanation :
The correct north-to-south order of the Great Lakes is as follows: Lake Superior (northernmost), Lake Huron, Lake Michigan, Lake Ontario, Lake Erie
In India, the Right to Form and Join Trade Unions is protected under which of the following Constitutional provisions?
Article 19(1)(c)
Explanation :
The protests by Samsung India workers in Sriperumbudur, Tamil Nadu, center on their fundamental right to form a registered trade union to collectively bargain for better employment terms.
The workers aim to negotiate a collective agreement with Samsung regarding their work conditions.
The Right to Form and Join Trade Unions in India is protected under Article 19(1)(c) of the Indian Constitution, which guarantees all citizens the right “to form associations or unions.” This right, however, is subject to reasonable restrictions in the interest of public order, morality, or sovereignty and integrity of India.
Greenwashing, often seen in news, refers to
The activities that companies/countries indulge in to present misleading or dubious claims about their climate action
Explanation:
The Centre has introduced new guidelines to prevent companies from making false or misleading claims about their products’ environmental benefits.
These rules, issued by the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA), require companies to provide scientific evidence to support their claims.
The guidelines are part of a broader effort to crack down on misleading advertisements. These norms would complement the existing Guidelines for Prevention of Misleading Advertisements and Endorsement for Misleading Advertisements 2022, which deal with false or exaggerated claims in advertisements in general.
Greenwashing refers to a range of activities that companies or even countries indulge in to present misleading or dubious claims about their climate action.
There is a growing tendency among firms & govts. to mark all kinds of activities as climate-friendly. Many of these claims are unverifiable, misleading, or dubious.
Which of the following frequency bands is most commonly used for satellite communication due to its ability to penetrate clouds, rain, and other atmospheric conditions effectively?
C-band
Explanation :
Speaking on the sidelines of the India Mobile Congress, Telecom minister said that satcom spectrum will be allocated administratively but will come at a cost.
As per the announcement, the cost of spectrum and the formula of allocation will be decided by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI).
The C-band frequency range (4-8 GHz) is widely used in satellite communications due to its effective penetration through atmospheric conditions like rain and clouds, which makes it more reliable for broadcasting and telecommunications.
Other bands like L-band and Ultra high frequency (UHF) are used for specific satellite functions but do not provide the same level of resilience in adverse weather conditions as C-band does.
Consider the following statements regarding the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO):
- SCO is a permanent intergovernmental international organization created in 2004.
- India and Pakistan became the member of the organization in 2017.
- The organisation’s official languages are Russian, Chinese and English.
- Iran is an observer state in the organisation
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The 23rd Meeting of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Council of Heads of Government (CHG) was held in Islamabad, Pakistan. The summit concentrated on the bloc’s trade and economic agenda.
External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar led the Indian delegation at the summit.
SCO is a permanent intergovernmental international organisation, created in June 2001 in Shanghai (China). The SCO Charter was signed in June 2002, and entered into force in September 2003. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
India and Pakistan became the member of SCO in 2017 (in Astana summit). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The SCO’s official languages are Russian and Chinese. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
In 2021 SCO summit, held in Dushanbe, Iran became the full member of SCO. Earlier, it was an observer state in the organisation. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
Which of the following conditions is a type of hemoglobinopathy characterized by the production of abnormal hemoglobin, leading to distorted red blood cells?
Sickle Cell Anemia
Explanation :
The Centre defended its initiative to supply fortified rice, aimed at combating micronutrient deficiencies, amid safety concerns and claims that it benefits multinational companies.
The Union Food Ministry emphasized that iron-fortified rice is safe, following World Health Organization (WHO) guidelines, and is globally recognized.
Sickle Cell Anemia is a hemoglobinopathy caused by a mutation in the hemoglobin gene, leading to the production of abnormal hemoglobin S.
This causes red blood cells to become rigid and sickle-shaped, impairing blood flow and oxygen delivery.
Thalassemia is another hemoglobinopathy but involves reduced hemoglobin production rather than abnormal hemoglobin structure.
Hemophilia and leukemia are not hemoglobinopathies; they affect blood clotting and white blood cells, respectively.
Consider the following statements with respect to “direct tax-to-GDP ratio”:
- It is an economic indicator that measures the proportion of a country’s total direct tax revenue relative to its Gross Domestic Product.
- It essentially shows how much direct tax is collected compared to the overall size of the economy.
- A higher ratio indicates the government is effectively collecting more direct taxes from its citizens, allowing for greater funding of public services and investments.
- It signifies a potentially stronger tax administration and better compliance within the economy.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All four
Which of the following statements accurately describes a characteristic of Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs) in India?
NBFCs cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves.
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has prohibited four non-banking finance companies (NBFCs) from approving and disbursing loans.
This action was taken due to their violation of several regulations, including charging excessively high interest rates.
The issue highlights a broader concern, as numerous NBFCs and lending apps, both legal and illegal, are reportedly engaging in predatory loan pricing and harsh recovery practices.
Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs) in India are financial institutions that provide a range of banking services but do not hold a banking license.
They cannot accept demand deposits, cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves, and are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
NBFCs play a crucial role in the financial system by providing credit and other financial services, but they do not offer traditional banking services like savings accounts.
A property is purchased in the name of a relative to conceal the true ownership and avoid taxation. Under the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act, 1988, which of the following actions can be taken against this property?
The government can seize the property and take legal action against both the true owner and the person in whose name the property is held.
Explanation :
The Supreme Court set aside its 2022 judgment, which had declared certain provisions [Section 3(2) and Section 5] of the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act, 1988, unconstitutional. The case was referred for fresh adjudication before a new bench.
The decision to recall the earlier ruling was made after allowing a petition filed by the Central Government.
Under the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act, 1988, properties held in benami (in the name of someone else to conceal the real owner) are prohibited. The government has the authority to seize such properties, and both the true owner and the person in whose name the property is held can face legal action. The act aims to combat black money and promote transparency in property transactions.
Which of the following best describes Non-Kinetic Warfare?
Strategies that utilize cyber-attacks, propaganda, and psychological operations to influence and destabilize an opponent.
Explanation :
The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Defence has prioritized 17 subjects for deliberation, with a key focus on India’s preparedness to counter hybrid warfare.
Hybrid warfare describes a conflict in which non-kinetic (non-military) tactics are employed to complement military action.
Non-Kinetic Warfare refers to tactics and strategies that do not involve direct physical confrontation or the use of conventional weapons.
Instead, it encompasses methods such as cyber warfare, information warfare, psychological operations, and propaganda aimed at undermining the opponent’s stability and influencing their decision-making processes.
Consider the following statements regarding Dedicated Freight Corridors (DFCs) in India:
- The Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC) connects Ludhiana in Punjab to Dankuni in West Bengal.
- The Western Dedicated Freight Corridor (WDFC) runs from Delhi to Mumbai and is expected to significantly reduce transit times for freight.
- DFCs are exclusively meant for passenger trains to increase the speed of goods transportation.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
With reference to child marriages in India, consider the following statements:
- The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act (PCMA) of 2006 allows the annulment of child marriages, but it does not automatically void such marriages.
- In Karnataka and Haryana, child marriages are declared void from the start, unlike the provisions under PCMA.
- Under Indian law, a girl married before the age of 18 cannot seek maintenance under any circumstances.
How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
PCMA allows the child in the marriage to annul it, meaning it is “voidable” and not automatically void. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Karnataka and Haryana have made child marriages void ab initio, differing from the national PCMA. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Under PCMA, civil remedies like maintenance can be granted even in child marriages, depending on the context. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
With reference to biodiversity and climate change, consider the following statements:
- Climate change exacerbates biodiversity loss, while biodiversity conservation can mitigate some impacts of climate change.
- Mangrove forests serve as carbon sinks, sequestering more CO₂ than tropical forests.
- The Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework aims to achieve 50% of the world’s lands and oceans under protection by 2030.
How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Climate change accelerates biodiversity loss, and conserving ecosystems can help mitigate climate impacts. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Mangroves are highly efficient carbon sinks, often sequestering more carbon per area than tropical forests. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The Kunming-Montreal Framework has set a target to protect 30% of the world’s lands and oceans by 2030, not 50%. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
With reference to zoonotic diseases, consider the following statements:
- These are infections that can only transfer from humans to animals and not the other way around.
2, Deforestation and loss of wildlife habitats are factors contributing to the rise of zoonotic diseases.
3, Rabies, one of the oldest known zoonotic diseases, is preventable with timely vaccination.
How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Zoonotic diseases can transfer both from animals to humans and vice versa. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Habitat loss increases human-wildlife interaction, raising the risk of zoonotic transmissions. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Rabies is a preventable zoonotic disease if vaccination is administered promptly. So, Statement 3 is correct.
