OCTOBER 2024 Flashcards
Pranahita Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which state?
A.Assam
B.Gujarat
C.Himachal Pradesh
D.Telangana
D. TEGANGANA
Explanation :
The National Board for Wildlife’s decision to defer road expansion projects affecting the Pranhita Wildlife Sanctuary reflects growing environmental concerns.
About Pranahita Wildlife Sanctuary:
Location: It is located in the Adilabad district of Telangana.
It covers an area of around 136 sq. km.
It is located in the scenic landscape of the Deccan plateau. It covers the thick deciduous teak forests.
Pranahitha River flows adjoining the eastern boundary of the sanctuary while the Godavari River runs towards the southern boundary of this sanctuary, which is also renowned for the presence of prehistoric rock formations.
The topography is hilly with dense forests and plateaus.
Flora: Common plants and trees found in the sanctuary include Dalbergia sissoo, Ficus spp., Dalbergia latifolia, Dalbergia paniculata, Pterocarpus marsupium, and many more.
Fauna:
The sanctuary is famously known for Blackbuck and is home to over 20 species of reptiles, 50 species of birds, and 40 species of mammals.
It is home to various types of species, especially mammals that include tigers, leopards, rhesus, langurs, hyenas, wild dogs, sloth bear, forest cat and many more.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/nagpur/wildlife-sanctuary-road-widening-deferral-a-victory-for-conservation/articleshow/114746005.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Chronic Wasting Disease (CWD):
- It is a progressive and fatal neurological disease affecting humans.
- There is no vaccine or treatment for CWD.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
B
Explanation :
New York State authorities recently confirmed a case of Chronic Wasting Disease (CWD) in a deer facility, emphasizing the disease’s impact on deer, elk, and moose populations.
About Chronic Wasting Disease (CWD):
It is a progressive and fatal neurological disease affecting deer, elk, moose, and other cervids (members of the deer family).
It’s caused by abnormal proteins called prions that damage brain tissue, leading to severe neurological symptoms, weight loss and eventually death.
CWD is part of a group of diseases known as Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies (TSEs), which also include mad cow disease in cattle and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease in humans.
Transmission:
CWD spreads between animals through bodily fluids, like saliva, urine, and feces, as well as contaminated soil and plants.
There is currently no evidence that CWD can infect humans.
The disease can persist in the environment for long periods, making it challenging to control.
Symptoms:
Symptoms appear slowly and may include drastic weight loss, lack of coordination, drooling, excessive thirst, lack of fear of humans, and eventually death.
Symptoms might not be visible for up to 16 months after infection.
Treatment: It is always fatal in infected animals. There is no vaccine or treatment.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/life-style/health-fitness/health-news/what-is-chronic-wasting-disease-detected-in-new-york-symptoms-and-prevention-tips/articleshow/114735410.cms
Simhachalam Temple, recently seen in the news, lies in which state?
A.Kerala
B.Madhya Pradesh
C.Andhra Pradesh
D.Odisha
c
Explanation :
During recent conservation efforts, epigraphists from the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) uncovered a Telugu inscription on the wall above the statue of Lord Hanuman at the 13th-century Simhachalam temple.
About Simhachalam Temple:
Simhachalam Temple, originally known as Varaha Lakshmi Narasimha Temple, is a Hindu temple located in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
It is dedicated to the incarnation (avatar) of Vishnu known as Narasimha
(the man-lion).
History:
It was constructed in the 11th century by the Gajapati rulers of Odisha.
Kulottunga Chola I of Tamilnadu, made endowments to this temple, as evidenced from inscriptions dating back to the year 1087.
The Vengi Chalukyas of Andhra Pradesh renovated the original shrine in the 11th century.
Much of the structure as it stands today is the result of renovation by Narasimha I, of the Eastern Ganga dynasty in the second quarter of the 13th century CE.
Krishna Deva Raya, the Vijayanagar monarch, visited this temple in the year 1516, as seen from inscriptions here.
Architecture:
The temple’s architecture is a blend of Kalinga and Dravidian styles, with its main sanctum adorned with intricate carvings and sculptures.
The presiding deity, Lord Narasimha, is depicted with a human torso and a lion’s face, exuding a sense of divine power and grace.
It boasts of a beautiful stone chariot drawn by horses.
The Kalyana Mandapa within the temple has 16 pillars with bas reliefs depicting the incarnations of Vishnu.
The outer walls of the sanctum depict images of a royal personality (said to be King Narasimha) in various postures.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.deccanchronicle.com/southern-states/andhra-pradesh/ancient-telugu-inscription-discovered-at-simhachalam-temple-1834227
What is the primary purpose of the Civil Registration System (CRS) Mobile App, recently seen in the news?
A.To facilitate voter registration
B.To assist with birth and death registrations
C.To monitor census data in real-time
D.To track migration patterns within the country
B
Explanation :
Union Home Minister recently launched the Civil Registration System (CRS) mobile application to “integrate technology with governance”.
About Civil Registration System (CRS) Mobile App:
It is designed to facilitate the registration of births and deaths across India.
It was developed by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India.
It aims to simplify and expedite the registration process for citizens, making it more accessible and efficient.
The new app will allow citizens to register births or deaths at any time from any place in their state’s official language.
Key Facts about Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India (RGCCI):
It is an office under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India, responsible for conducting the decennial Census of India, compiling demographic and population statistics, and overseeing the Civil Registration System (CRS) in the country.
Established in 1961, the RGCCI is a crucial body for policy-making, providing data that informs social, economic, and political decisions at all levels of government.
The Registrar General of India is the head of the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/amit-shah-launches-mobile-app-for-birth-death-registration-unveils-statue-of-sardar-patel-ahead-of-his-birth-anniversary/article68812058.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO):
- It is a legally binding multilateral treaty signed by all the member states of the United Nations (UN).
- In order to verify compliance with its provisions, the treaty establishes a global network of monitoring facilities and allows for on-site inspections of suspicious events.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
B
Explanation :
The recent rumours of a nuclear test by Iran were promptly refuted by the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO).
About Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO):
It is an international organization based in Vienna, Austria, established to implement the Comprehensive NuclearTest-Ban Treaty (CTBT), which aims to ban all nuclear explosions worldwide.
CTBT is a multilateral treaty opened for signature in 1996 by which states agree to ban all nuclear explosions in all environments, for military or civilian purposes.
The treaty envisages the mechanisms that control such prohibition, including distant monitoring and data collection.
It was signed by 183 states and ratified by 164 but has not entered into force as eight specific states among 44 (so-called Annex-2 states whose signatures are required for the Treaty to enter into force, namely the US, China, Iran, Egypt, Israel, India, Pakistan, and North Korea) have not ratified the treaty yet.
In order to verify compliance with its provisions, the treaty establishes a global network of monitoring facilities and allows for on-site inspections of suspicious events.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Oct/29/global-n-monitoring-system-transparent
Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Indian System of Medicine:
- It is a statutory body and its members are appointed by the central government.
- It helps in framing policies for regulating medical institutions and medical professionals of the Indian System of Medicine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
C
Explanation :
Recently, the National Commission for Indian System of Medicine (NCISM) conducted a workshop for drafting Ayurveda Process Handbook at NCISM office.
It is the statutory body constituted under NCISM Act, 2020.
An Act to provide for a medical education system that improves access to quality and affordable medical education, and ensures the availability of adequate and high-quality medical professionals of the Indian System of Medicine in all parts of the country.
Composition: It consists of 29 members, appointed by the central government. A Search Committee will recommend names to the central government for the post of Chairperson, part-time members, and presidents of the four autonomous boards set up under the NCISM.
Functions
Framing policies for regulating medical institutions and medical professionals of the Indian System of Medicine
Assessing the requirements of healthcare-related human resources and infrastructure.
Ensuring compliance by the State Medical Councils of the Indian System of Medicine with the regulations made under the Bill
Ensuring coordination among the autonomous boards.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2069028
Consider the following statements regarding the Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture:
- It is a Central Sponsored Scheme (CSS) implemented for the holistic growth of the horticulture sector.
- It provides technical advice and administrative support to State Horticulture Missions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
C
Explanation :
The Union Government has reportedly decided to include four new components – Hydroponics, Aquaponics, Vertical Farming, and Precision Agriculture – under the Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH).
It is a Central Sponsored Scheme (CSS) that is being implemented w.e.f. 2014-15 for holistic growth of the horticulture sector.
It promotes the cultivation of fruits, vegetables, root and tuber crops, mushrooms, spices, flowers, aromatic plants, coconut, cashew, cocoa and bamboo.
MIDH also provides technical advice and administrative support to State Governments/ State Horticulture Missions (SHMs) for the Saffron Mission and other horticulture-related activities Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY)/NMSA.
Funding:
Under MIDH, the Government of India (GOI) contributes 60%, of the total outlay for developmental programmes in all the states except states in North East and Himalayas, 40% share is contributed by State Governments.
In the case of North Eastern States and Himalayan States, GOI contributes 90%.
In the case of the National Horticulture Board (NHB), Coconut Development Board (CDB), Central Institute for Horticulture (CIH), Nagaland and the National Level Agencies (NLA), GOI contributes 100%.
Key Components
National Horticulture Mission (NHM) - Focuses on the development of horticulture in states and union territories.
Horticulture Mission for North East and Himalayan States (HMNEH) - Addresses the specific needs of the northeastern and Himalayan regions.
National Bamboo Mission (NBM) - Dedicated to promoting bamboo cultivation and its value chain.
Coconut Development Board (CDB) - Works on the development of the coconut sector.
Central Institute of Horticulture (CIH): It was established at Medizipehima, Nagaland in 2006-07 for providing technical back stopping through capacity building and training of farmers and Field functionaries in the North Eastern Region.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/midh-guidelines-cost-norms-9643177/#:~
Consider the following statements regarding the North Atlantic right whale:
- It is a migratory species found in the temperate and sub-polar waters of the North Atlantic Ocean.
- It is categorized as endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
A
Explanation :
A group of researchers that studies the whales said that the population of North Atlantic right whale increased about 4% from 2020 level after the whale’s population fell by about 25% from 2010 to 2020.
These whales are migratory animals, spending the winter in warmer waters and migrating to the poles for cooler waters in late summer.
These whales inhabit the temperate and subpolar waters of the North Atlantic and North Pacific oceans.
Habitat: Depending on the time of year and which hemisphere they’re found, right whales will spend much of their time near bays and peninsulas and in shallow, coastal waters.
Distribution: These are generally restricted to the coastal waters of the East Coast of the United States and Canada.
Three recognized species of right whales occur in different parts of the world. These are Southern right whales (Eubalaena australis), North Atlantic right whales (Eubalaena glacialis) and North Pacific right whales.
These whales often skim feed at or just below the water surface, slowly swimming through clouds of plankton with their mouths half open and then straining the plankton through their long baleen plates.
Conservation status
IUCN: Critically endangered
CITES: Appendix I
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/right-whale-population-grows-4-but-extinction-remains-a-threat-9633806/
Consider the following statements regarding the Mission Amrit Sarovar:
- It was launched to overcome the water crisis in rural areas of India.
- Under this mission separate financial allocation is provided to build Amrit Sarovars by the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
A
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India said that over 60,000 Amrit Sarovars constructed across villages leaving behind a legacy for future generations.
It was launched on 24th April 2022 with the resolve to build 75 Amrit Sarovars during the 75th year of independence as a part of Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav.
It helps to overcome the water crisis in rural areas of the country.
Every Amrit Sarovar will have a pond area of at least 1 acre with a water holding capacity of about 10,000 cubic metre.
It focuses on water conservation, people’s participation and proper utilization of soil excavated from the water bodies to boost infrastructural projects.
This Mission has been launched with a whole Government Approach which involves 6 Ministries/Department namely:
Dept of Rural Development, Department of Land Resources, Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation, Department of Water Resources, Ministry of Panchayati Raj, Ministry of Forest, Environment and Climate changes.
There is no separate financial allocation for Mission Amrit Sarovar.
Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space Application and Geo-informatics (BISAG-N) has been engaged as a Technical Partner for the Mission.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2068995
Greenhouse Gas Bulletin is published by:
A.World Bank
B.World Economic Forum
C.United Nations Environment
Programme
D.World Meteorological Organization
D
Explanation :
According to a new report by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO), greenhouse gas levels surged to a new record in 2023, rising by more than 10% in just two decades.
Greenhouse Gas Bulletin has been published annually since 2004 by the World Meteorological Organization.
It shows globally averaged surface mole fractions for Carbon Dioxide (CO2), Methane (CH4) and Nitrous Oxide (N2O) and compares them with the mole fractions during the previous year and with preindustrial levels.
It also provides insights into the change in radiative forcing by long-lived GHGs (LLGHGs) and the contribution of individual gases to this increase.
It is one of WMO’s flagship publications released to inform the UN Climate Change conference (COP).
Highlights of the Bulletin
The globally averaged surface concentration of carbon dioxide reached 420 parts per million (ppm), methane 1934 parts per billion and nitrous oxide 336.9 parts per billion (ppb) in 2023.
Carbon dioxide is the single most important greenhouse gas in the atmosphere related to human activities, accounting for approximately 64 per cent of the warming effect on the climate, mainly because of fossil fuel combustion and cement production,
The long-term carbon dioxide increase is due to fossil fuel combustion, but there are year-to-year variations due to the El Nino–Southern Oscillation, which impacts photosynthetic carbon dioxide uptake, respiratory release, and fires.
Methane is a powerful greenhouse gas which remains in the atmosphere for about a decade. Methane accounts for about 16 per cent of the warming effect of long-lived greenhouse gases.
Nitrous oxide, an ozone depleting chemical, accounts for about 6 per cent of the radiative forcing – the warming effect on the climate – by long-lived greenhouse gases.
From 1990 to 2023, radiative forcing — the warming effect on our climate — by long-lived greenhouse gases increased by 51.5%, with CO2 accounting for about 81 per cent of this increase.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/with-11-increase-over-2-decades-carbon-dioxide-accumulates-faster-in-atmosphere/article68805442.ece
Consider the following statements:
- It is a transboundary river which flows through China, Nepal and India.
- It is a prominent tributary of the Ganges.
- It is known as the “sorrow of Bihar”.
The above statements correctly describe which one of the following rivers?
Kosi
Explanation :
Several regions of Bihar are facing severe flooding due to the heavy release of water from the Kosi Barrage in Birpur, following intense rainfall.
About Kosi River:
It is a transboundary river which flows through China, Nepal, and India.
It is a prominent tributary of the Ganges.
Course:
Origin: The river Kosi is formed by the confluence of three streams, namely the Sun Kosi, the Arun Kosi, and the Tamur Kosi, all of which have their origin in the Himalayan region of Nepal and Tibet.
About 30 miles (48 km) north of the Indian-Nepalese frontier, the Kosi is joined by several major tributaries and breaks southward through the Siwalik Hills at the narrow Chatra Gorge.
The river then emerges on the great plain of northern India in Bihar state on its way to the Ganges River, which it enters south of Purnea after a course of about 450 miles (724 km).
The Kosi drains an area of 74,500 sq.km, of which only 11,070 sq.km lie within Indian Territory.
The Kosi River valley is bounded by steep margins that disconnect it from the Yarlung Zangbo River to the north, the Mahananda River to the east, the Gandaki to the west, and the Ganga to the south.
Because of its great outflushing of debris, the Kosi has no permanent channel in its course through the great plain of northern India.
It is well known for its tendency to change course generally in a westward direction. During the last 200 years, the river has shifted westwards for a distance of about 112 km and has laid waste large tracks of agricultural land.
Kosi is known as the “sorrow of Bihar”, as it has caused widespread human suffering in the past due to flooding and very frequent changes in course, when it flows from Nepal to Bihar.
Tributaries: It has seven major tributaries: Sun Koshi, Tama Koshi or Tamba Koshi, Dudh Koshi, Indravati, Likhu, Arun, and Tamore or Tamar.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/patna/severe-flooding-in-bihar-kosi-barrage-water-release-disrupts-normal-life/articleshow/113803067.cms
Which among the following best describes ‘White Goods’?
A. Electronic devices such as televisions and computers. B. Cleaning supplies like detergents and soaps C. Large home appliances such as refrigerators and washing machines. D. Home furniture made from white-colored materials.
Large home appliances such as refrigerators and washing machines.
Explanation :
The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) recently asked white goods manufacturers to participate in large numbers to avail fiscal benefits under the production-linked incentive (PLI) scheme for the sector.
About White Goods:
White goods traditionally refer to large home appliances such as stoves, refrigerators, freezers and washing machines.
Originally, such goods were only available in white, hence the designation.
Today, the same goods are offered in an array of colors but are still collectively referred to as white goods.
White goods are also used in a different connotation within other categories.
In fabrics, white goods can refer to home products made from linen, cotton, or other white base materials. This includes curtains, towels, and sheets.
White goods can also refer to colorless spirits.
In the alcoholic beverage industry, white goods are often used as a collective designation for colorless spirits such as vodka and gin.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.bizzbuzz.news/industry/govt-invites-white-goods-makers-to-explore-pli-1337962
‘Mount Erebus’, recently seen in the news, is located in which one of the following countries?
A.
Canada
B.
Australia
C.
Iceland
D.
Antarctica
Antarctica
Explanation :
In a strange incident, Antarctica’s second largest volcano, Mount Erebus, is spewing out gold dust, which has left scientists in complete shock.
About Mount Erebus:
It is the world’s southernmost active volcano.
Location: It is situated on Ross Island, Antarctica.
It was discovered in 1841 by the British explorer Sir James Clark Ross, who named it after his ship, the Erebus.
It stands at an elevation of about 3,794 meters (12,448 feet).
It’s a stratovolcano characterized by a conical shape and layers of hardened lava, tephra, and volcanic ash.
Mount Erebus is known for its persistent lava lake.
The lake has been active since at least 1972 and is one of only a few long-lived lava lakes on Earth.
It constantly churns and occasionally spews bombs of molten rock in Strombolian eruptions.
Because the volcano is in a remote location, researchers monitor it using satellites.
The largest Antarctic settlement—McMurdo Station, operated by the United States—stands within sight of the volcano (about 40 kilometers or 25 miles away).
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.timesnownews.com/travel/destinations/antarcticas-mount-erebus-is-releasing-gold-dust-worth-rs-5-lakh-scientists-explain-why-article-113665728
Harpoon Missile, recently seen in the news, was developed by which one of the following countries?
A.
Germany
B.
United States of Amercia
C.
China
D.
India
United States of Amercia
Explanation :
The first shipment of 100 land-based Harpoon anti-ship missile systems ordered from the United States has reportedly arrived in Kaohsiung, Taiwan.
About Harpoon Missile:
The Harpoon (RGM-84/UGM-84/AGM-84) is a U.S.-designed subsonic antiship cruise missile that has been in service since 1977.
Numerous variants have been produced since its inception, including air-, ship-, and sub-launched versions.
It is currently in service with the armed forces of more than 30 countries, including India.
Features:
It is an all-weather, over-the-horizon, anti-ship missile system.
A single missile measures 4.5 m in length and weighs 526 kg.
Propulsion: Turbojet, solid propellant.
Its low-level, sea-skimming cruise trajectory, active radar guidance, and warhead design assure high survivability and effectiveness.
It is capable of executing both land-strike and anti-ship missions.
This missile is fitted with a heavy 221-kilogram penetration blast warhead.
It uses GPS-aided inertial navigation to hit a designated target aimpoint.
Range: 90-240 km
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.eurasiantimes.com/taiwan-receives-first-shipment-of-harpoon/#google_vignette
Consider the following statements regarding Neutrinos:
- They are tiny subatomic particles that barely interact with anything else.
- They are one of the rarest particles in the universe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers exploring neutrinos in dense environments like supernovae and neutron star mergers discovered that these “ghost particles” can become entangled, sharing quantum states and evolving chaotically.
About Neutrinos:
Neutrinos are tiny subatomic particles, often called ‘ghost particles’ because they barely interact with anything else.
Neutrinos are, however, the most common particle in the universe.
Approximately 100 trillion neutrinos pass completely harmlessly through your body every second.
Their tendency not to interact very often with other particles makes detecting neutrinos very difficult.
Neutrinos have no charge; they are neutral, as their name implies.
They belong to the family of particles called leptons, which are not subject to the strong force.
Neutrinos don’t interact at all with the strong nuclear force that binds atomic nuclei together, but they do interact with the weak force that controls radioactive decay.
Neutrinos come from all kinds of different sources and are often the product of heavy particles turning into lighter ones, a process called “decay.”
Neutrinos are created by various radioactive decay, such as during a supernova, by cosmic rays striking atoms, etc.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://scitechdaily.com/in-the-heart-of-supernovae-ghost-particles-reveal-new-quantum-secrets/
Consider the following statements regarding the Cruise Bharat Mission:
- It aims to boost the tremendous potential of cruise tourism in India.
- It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Tourism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister of Ports, Shipping & Waterways (MoPSW) launched the ‘Cruise Bharat Mission’ from the Mumbai port.
It is aimed at boosting the tremendous potential of cruise tourism in the country and to propel the country’s cruise tourism industry by doubling cruise passenger traffic within five years; i.e. by 2029.
It will be implemented in three phases, beginning from 1 October 2024 up to 31 March 2029.
The Phase 1 (01.10.2024 – 30.09.2025) will focus on conducting studies, master planning, and forming cruise alliances with neighbouring countries. It will also modernise existing cruise terminals, marinas, and destinations to enhance the potential of cruise circuits.
The Phase 2 (01.10.2025 – 31.03.2027) will concentrate on developing new cruise terminals, marinas, and destinations to activate high-potential cruise locations and circuits.
Phase 3 (01.04.2027 – 31.03.2029) will focus on integrating all cruise circuits across the Indian Subcontinent, marking the maturity of the cruise ecosystem while continuing the development of cruise terminals, marinas, and destinations.
The mission has identified key initiatives across five strategic pillars.
The Sustainable Infrastructure & Capital: It addresses infrastructure gaps, focusing on developing world-class terminals, marinas, water aerodromes, and heliports, alongside digitalisation (e.g., facial recognition) and decarbonisation (e.g., shore power).It includes creating a National Cruise Infrastructure Master Plan 2047, setting up a cruise-focused SPV under Indian Ports Association (IPA), and establishing a cruise development fund.
The Operations Including Technology Enabled: This pillar aims to streamline operations, ensuring smooth embarkation, disembarkation, and destination visits with a focus on digital solutions such as e-clearance systems and e-visa facilities.
The Cruise Promotion & Circuit Integration: It focuses on international marketing and investment promotion, including linking cruise circuits, hosting events like the “Cruise India Summit,” and forming alliances with neighbouring countries.
The Regulatory, Fiscal & Financial Policy: This pillar is centred on creating tailored fiscal and financial policies, with a focus on tax scenarios, cruise regulations, and the launch of a National Cruise Tourism Policy.
The Capacity Building and Economic Research: This pillar emphasizes skill development, creating a Centre of Excellence for cruise-related economic research, and formulating National Occupational Standards to promote youth employment in the cruise industry.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Ports, Shipping & Waterways
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2060272
With reference to Overseas Citizen of India, consider the following statements:
- They get a multiple entry, multi-purpose life-long visa for visiting India.
- They are eligible to hold Indian constitutional posts.
- They require permission to visit protected areas in India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Consulate General of India in New York has clarified that rumours circulating on social media regarding Overseas Citizen of India (OCIs) becoming reclassified as “foreigners” are false.
The Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) scheme was introduced in August 2005 which provides for registration of all Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) who were citizens of India on January 26, 1950, or thereafter, or were eligible to become citizens of India on the said date.
Who cannot be an OCI?
An applicant is not eligible to get an OCI card if his/her parents or grandparents have ever been a citizen of Pakistan or Bangladesh.
Foreign military personnel either in service or retired are also not entitled for grant of OCI.
However, the spouse of foreign origin of a citizen of India or spouse of foreign origin of an OCI, whose marriage has been registered and subsisted for not less than two years, can apply for an OCI card.
Advantages of OCI card holders
An OCI card holder — essentially a foreign passport holder — gets a multiple entry, multi-purpose life-long visa for visiting India, and is exempt from registration with local police authority for any length of stay in the country.
The OCI card holder is
Not entitled to vote; to be a member of a Legislative Assembly or of a Legislative Council or of Parliament; to hold Indian constitutional posts such as that of the President, Vice President, Judge of the Supreme Court or High Court.
He or she cannot normally hold employment in the government.
Latest rules regarding OCIs
On March 4, 2021, the Ministry of Home Affairs issued a gazette notification amending the rules regarding OCI card holders.
These rules required OCI card holders to seek permission or a permit to visit protected areas in India.
The same restrictions apply to foreign nationals visiting Jammu & Kashmir and Arunachal Pradesh.
They need to secure a special permit to undertake “any research”, to undertake any “missionary” or “Tablighi” or “journalistic activities” or to visit any area in India notified as “protected”, “restricted” or “prohibited”.
They are at par with “foreign nationals” in respect of “all other economic, financial and educational fields” for the purposes of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 2003 although past circulars by the Reserve Bank of India under FEMA continued to hold ground.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/who-is-overseas-citizen-of-india-what-are-the-rights-and-privileges-of-oci-card-holders-9596359/
Exercise KAZIND, recently in news, is conducted between India and:
A.
Saudi Arabia
B.
Kazakhstan
C.
Japan
D.
France
Kazakhstan
Explanation :
The 8th edition of Exercise KAZIND is scheduled to be conducted from 30th September to 13th October 2024 at Surya Foreign Training Node, Auli, Uttarakhand.
It is a joint military Exercise held every year between India-Kazakhstan.
The Indian Armed Forces, comprising 120 personnel, are being represented by a battalion of the KUMAON Regiment of the Indian Army, along with other arms and services, as well as personnel from the Indian Air Force.
The Kazakhstan contingent will be represented mainly by personnel from Land Forces and Airborne Assault Troopers.
Aim: To enhance joint military capability of both sides to undertake counter terrorism operations in a sub conventional scenario under Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter.
It will focus on operations in the semi-urban and mountainous terrain. Objectives to be achieved from the Joint Exercise are high degree of physical fitness, rehearsing and refining drills for operations at tactical level and sharing of best practices.
Tactical drills to be rehearsed during the Joint Exercise include joint response to a terrorist action, establishment of a Joint Command Post, establishment of an Intelligence and Surveillance Centre
Joint Exercise KAZIND-2024 will enable both sides to share best practices in tactics, techniques and procedures of conducting joint operations.
It will facilitate developing inter-operability, bonhomie and camaraderie between the two armies. The Joint Exercise will also enhance defence cooperation, further augmenting bilateral relations between the two friendly nations.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2060265
Consider the following statements regarding Tsetse flies:
- They are found in local patches of dense vegetation along banks of rivers.
- They transmit the Trypanosoma parasites, which are responsible for sleeping sickness in humans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
According to a new atlas published by Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) Tsetse flies are present in 34 African countries.
Tsetse flies (genus Glossina) transmit trypanosomes, which are unicellular parasites that cause sleeping sickness in humans.
They are holometaboulos insects, females giving birth to full-grown larvae which rapidly pupate in the soil.
They are arranged taxonomically and ecologically into three groups: the fusca, or forest, group (subgenus Austenina); the morsitans, or savanna, group (subgenus Glossina); and the palpalis, or riverine, group (subgenus Nemorhina).
Habitat:
They are found in local patches of dense vegetation along banks of rivers.
Also found in lakes in arid terrain, and also in dense, wet, heavily forested equatorial rainforest
They feed on blood and transmit the Trypanosoma parasites, which are responsible for sleeping sickness in humans and animal trypanosomosis or “Nagana” in cattle.
They are also linked to nagana in African livestock, resulting in annual agricultural losses estimated in the billions of dollars.
The collected data confirmed the presence of Glossina species in 34 countries, ranging from Northern Senegal (around 15 degrees north) to South Africa (Kwazulu-Natal province at 28.5 degrees south).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/africa/tsetse-fly-present-in-34-countries-in-africa-confirms-fao-atlas
Consider the following statements regarding the Dadasaheb Phalke Award:
- It is presented by the Directorate of Film Festivals, an organisation set up by the Union Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
- It is India’s highest award in the field of cinema.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Legendary actor Mr. Mithun Chakraborty will be honoured with the Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime Achievement Award for the year 2022.
It is India’s highest award in the field of cinema.
It is presented annually at the National Film Awards ceremony by the Directorate of Film Festivals, an organisation set up by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
The recipient is honoured for their “outstanding contribution to the growth and development of Indian cinema”.
The award prize consists of a golden lotus, a cash prize of ₹10 lakh and a shawl.
The award was introduced by the Government of India to commemorate Dadasaheb Phalke’s contribution to Indian cinema, who is popularly known as and often regarded as “the father of Indian cinema”.
It was first presented in 1969. The first recipient of the award was actress Devika Rani, “the first lady of Indian cinema.
Who was Dhundiraj Govind ‘Dadasaheb’ Phalke?
He was born in 1870 at Trimbak in Maharashtra.
He studied engineering and sculpture and developed an interest in motion pictures after watching the 1906 silent film The Life of Christ.
Before venturing into films, Phalke worked as a photographer, owned a printing press, and had even worked with the famed painter Raja Ravi Varma.
In 1913, Phalke wrote, produced, and directed India’s first feature film, the silent Raja Harishchandra. A commercial success, it propelled Phalke to make 95 more films and 26 short films in the next 19 years.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/entertainment/movies/dadasaheb-phalke-award-reward-for-mithun-chakrabortys-versatility/article68702059.ece
With reference to Climate Equity Monitor, consider the following statements:
- It is an online dashboard for assessing equity in climate action and inequalities in emissions at the global level.
- It has been developed by the National Informatics Centre in collaboration with the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MOEFCC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Climate equity monitor is an online dashboard for assessing, at the international level, equity in climate action, inequalities in emissions, energy and resource consumption. It is aimed at monitoring the performance of Annex-I Parties under the UNFCCC (developed countries) based on the foundational principles of the Climate Convention. It also gives an insight about the disparity between the emissions of developed and developing countries. So, statement 1 is correct.
It has been conceptualized and developed by independent researchers from India- the Climate change group at the M.S Swaminathan Research Foundation (MSSRF), Chennai, and the Natural Sciences and Engineering department at the National Institute of Advanced Studies (NIAS) Bengaluru, with other independent researchers. So, statement 2 is not correct.
3 only
Explanation :
Srivilliputhur- Megamalai Tiger Reserve is the fifth tiger reserve in Tamil Nadu which covers an area comprising 1,01,657.13 hectares (1,016.5713 square km), combining the Srivilliputhur Grizzled Giant Squirrel Wildlife Sanctuary and Megamalai Wildlife Sanctuary. The reserve covers the region in four districts - Madurai, Virudhunagar, Tirunelveli and Theni. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
The Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple Tiger Reserve (BRT) is located in Chamarajanagar district of Karnataka State. The tiger reserve derives its name from ‘BILIGIRI ‘, the white rocky cliff which has a temple of Lord ‘VISHNU’ locally known as ‘Rangaswamy’. The major forest types of the reserve are southern tropical evergreen forests, southern tropical semi-evergreen forests and southern tropical moist deciduous forests. As many as 26 mammals have been recorded and 215 species of birds are endemic to the region. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Buxa Tiger Reserve is situated in Jalpaiguri District, West Bengal. The Reserve stretches over a length of 50 km from West to East and 35 km from North to South. The forests of the reserve can be broadly classified as the ‘Moist Tropical Forest’ of Champion. As many as 68 species of mammals have been recorded. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
With reference to the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS), consider the following statements:
- It is an environmental treaty under the aegis of the United Nations.
- All kind of agreements invoked under the convention are automatically legally binding.
- The convention covers the species of migratory birds only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Convention on Migratory Species (CMS):
As an environmental treaty of the United Nations, CMS provides a global platform for the conservation and sustainable use of migratory animals and their habitats. As the only global convention specializing in the conservation of migratory species, their habitats and migration routes, CMS complements and co-operates with a number of other international organizations, NGOs and partners in the media as well as in the corporate sector. So, statement 1 is correct.
Migratory species threatened with extinction are listed on Appendix I of the Convention. CMS Parties strive towards strictly protecting these animals, conserving or restoring the places where they live, mitigating obstacles to migration and controlling other factors that might endanger them. Migratory species that need or would significantly benefit from international cooperation are listed in Appendix II of the Convention. For this reason, the Convention encourages the Range States to conclude global or regional agreements. In this respect, CMS acts as a framework Convention.
The agreements may range from legally binding treaties (called Agreements) to less formal instruments, such as Memoranda of Understanding, and can be adapted to the requirements of particular regions. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The conventions cover species of birds, fishes, mammals, reptiles, insects, etc. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Nations like China, the USA, Russia, Canada and various nations of Southeast Asia are non-parties to the convention. India became a party to the convention in November 1983.
Kunming Declaration recently seen in news is related to
Biodiversity Conservation
Explanation :
More than 100 countries on the 13th of October 2021 pledged to make the protection of habitats an integral part of their respective government’s policies. The delegations from these countries were attending the United Nations Biodiversity Conference in the Chinese city of Kunming.
The Kunming Declaration signed by all countries calls for “urgent and integrated action” to reflect biodiversity considerations in all sectors of the global economy.
According to the Kunming Declaration, the delegate countries have committed to “ensuring the development, adoption, and implementation of an effective post-2020 global biodiversity framework, that includes the provision of the necessary means of implementation.
This shall be in line with the convention and appropriate mechanism for monitoring, reporting, and review, to reverse the current loss of biodiversity and ensure that biodiversity is put on a path to recovery by 2030.