March Flashcards
Vikramaditya Vedic Clock, recently seen in the news, is located in which one of the following cities?
Ujjain
Explanation :
The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the Vikramaditya Vedic Clock, which is mounted on an 85-foot tower within Jantar Mantar in Ujjain.
About Vikramaditya Vedic Clock:
It is the world’s first ‘Vedic Clock’, designed to display time according to the ancient Indian traditional Panchang (time calculation system).
It has been positioned on an 85-foot tower within Jantar Mantar in Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh.
It also provides information on planetary positions, Muhurat, astrological calculations, and predictions.
In addition to this, it also indicates Indian Standard Time (IST) and Greenwich Mean Time (GMT).
The clock will calculate time from one sunrise to another.
The period between the two sunrises will be divided into 30 parts, whose one hour consists of 48 minutes, according to ISD.
The reading will start from 0:00 with the sunrise functions for 30 hours (an hour of 48 minutes).
It has been developed by Lucknow-based Sanstha Arohan, using digital interventions, enabling it to be connected to the internet and provide a wide range of features through a mobile app named after the clock.
Why Ujjain?
Ujjain’s rich heritage in timekeeping dates back centuries, with the city playing a pivotal role in determining India’s time zones and time difference.
Ujjain is located at the precise point of interaction with zero meridian and Tropic of Cancer.
Before 82.5E longitude was adopted for IST, Ujjain (75.78E) was considered as Bharat’s time meridian.
The Vikrami Panchang and Vikram Samvat calendars are also released from Ujjain, which makes Ujjain the ideal location to have the Vaidik Clock.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livemint.com/news/india/vikramaditya-vedic-clock-pm-modi-inaugurates-worlds-1st-timepiece-based-on-indian-panchang-in-mp-5-points-to-know-11709214157747.html
Consider the following statements regarding Melanochlamys Droupadi, recently seen in the news:
- It is a new marine species of sea slugs.
- It primarily inhabits the Western Coast of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers of the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) recently discovered a new species of head-shield sea slug from Odisha and the West Bengal coast named ‘Melanochlamys Droupadi’.
About Melanochlamys Droupadi:
It is a new marine species of head-shield sea slug with ruby red spot.
This species belonging to Melanochlamys genus was discovered from Digha of West Bengal coast and Udaipur of Odisha coast.
Features:
It is a small invertebrate with a maximum length of up to 7 mm.
Habitat: It inhabits wet and soft sandy beaches.
It is brownish black in colour with a ruby red spot in the hind end.
This particular species of sea slug is hermaphrodite (having both male and female reproductive parts); however, they need another sea slug for reproduction.
It has a shell inside the body. It has a posterior, accounting for 61 percent of its body length.
It continuously secretes transparent mucus to form a sheath that prevents sand grains from entering parapodial space.
It crawls beneath smooth sand to form a moving capsule where the body is rarely visible, leaving behind a trail like a turtle.
What are Sea Slugs?
Sea slugs are a group of molluscs that live primarily in marine habitats and are slug-like.
They can be found from the shallow intertidal to the deep sea and from the polar regions to the tropics.
The sea slugs are rapid hunters and feed upon mobile prey such as other shelled and unshelled sea slugs, roundworms, marine worms, and small fishes.
So far, 18 species have been discovered across the globe.
They are distributed in temperate regions of the Indo-Pacific Oceanic realm, but three species are truly tropically distributed, Melanochlamys papillata from the Gulf of Thailand, Melanochlamys bengalensis from West Bengal and Odisha coast and the present species.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/odisha/2024/Feb/29/zoologists-spot-new-sea-slug-species-name-it-after-prez
Consider the following statements with reference to the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB):
- It is the central authority for combating the illicit trade of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.
- It directly reports to the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In a coordinated operation at sea, the Indian Navy and the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) recently apprehended a suspicious vessel carrying almost 3300 Kgs of contraband.
About Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB):
The NCB was created in March 1986 in terms of Section 4(3) of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, which envisages a Central Authority for the purpose of effectively preventing and combating abuse of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances and their illicit trade.
The NCB works to identify, investigate, and prosecute drug trade offenders and implement preventive measures to reduce the demand and supply of drugs.
The Bureau, subject to the supervision and control of the Central Government, is to exercise the powers and functions of the Central Government in taking measures with respect to:
Co-ordination of actions by various offices, State Governments and other authorities under the N.D.P.S. Act, Customs Act, Drugs and Cosmetics Act, and any other law for the time being in force in connection with the enforcement provisions of the NDPS Act, 1985.
Implementation of the obligation in respect of counter measures against illicit traffic under the various international conventions and protocols.
Assistance to concerned authorities in foreign countries and concerned international organisations to facilitate coordination and universal action for prevention and suppression of illicit traffic in these drugs and substances.
Coordination of actions taken by the other concerned Ministries, Departments and Organizations in respect of matters relating to drug abuse.
Other Functions:
It is the apex coordinating agency. It also functions as an enforcement agency through its zones and sub-zones.
The zones and sub-zones collect and analyse data related to seizures of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substance, study trends, modus operandi, collect and disseminate intelligence, and work in close cooperation with the Customs, State Police and other law enforcement agencies.
In addition to its enforcement activities, the NCB also works to improve awareness, educate the public on the dangers of drugs and drug abuse, and provide support to those affected by the illegal drug trade.
NCB is responsible for maintaining and updating the National Data Bank on Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances, and related matters.
NCB maintains and updates the National Register of Treatment Providers and Narcotic Drug Dependents.
NCB provides expert advice to the Central Government on narcotics, psychotropic substances, and related matters.
The NCB directly reports to the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
The Government of India provides all administrative and financial support to NCB for its smooth functioning and strengthening, as required from time to time.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://indiannavy.nic.in/content/indian-navy-%E2%80%93-narcotics-control-bureau-anti-narcotics-operations-sea-0
Consider the following statements with reference to the Thwaites Glacier, recently seen in the news:
- It is located in Amundsen Sea in West Antarctica.
- Its melting contributes to more than 50% of the current global sea level rise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Unveiling new details about Antarctica’s “Doomsday Glacier”, scientists have revealed that the Thwaites Glacier has been losing ice since the 1940s.
About Doomsday Glacier:
Thwaites Glacier, also known as the “Doomsday Glacier,” is located in the remote Amundsen Sea in West Antarctica.
It’s a wide and fast-flowing glacier, roughly the size of Florida or Great Britain, and it has been a significant focus of scientific study due to its sensitivity to climate change.
It is one of the most vulnerable and important glaciers in the world in terms of future global sea-level rise.
Satellite measurements have shown that the glacier is losing an enormous amount of ice each year, nearly 50 billion tons annually, contributing to rising global sea levels. The glacier already contributes 4% of global sea level rise.
If the entire Thwaites Glacier were to melt, it could raise the world’s oceans by about 65 centimeters (over 2 feet).
It also acts as a buffer, holding back neighboring glaciers that contain around three meters of potential sea level rise.
A critical concern is that much of Thwaites sits on land that is below sea level, in a configuration known as “marine-based.”
This situation means that as the glacier’s grounding line – the point where the glacier’s ice lifts off the land and starts floating on the sea – retreats inland, it can pass over deeper and deeper valleys.
This process allows more and more ice to discharge into the sea, which might accelerate the glacier’s melt in a phenomenon known as “marine ice sheet instability.”
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.wionews.com/science/antarcticas-doomsday-glacier-began-retreat-in-1940s-by-el-nino-new-study-694603
Consider the following statements regarding Very Short-Range Air Defence System (VSHORADS), recently seen in the news:
- It is a Man Portable Air Defence System (MANPAD) specially designed to counter low-altitude aerial threats.
- It consists of surface-to-air missiles with a range of up to 100 km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted two flight tests of the Very Short-Range Air Defence System (VSHORADS) missile.
About Very Short-Range Air Defence System (VSHORADS):
VSHORADS is a fourth-generation Man Portable Air Defence System (MANPAD) specially designed to counter low-altitude aerial threats over short distances.
These are short-range, lightweight, and portable surface-to-air missiles that can be fired by individuals or small groups.
It has been designed and developed indigenously by DRDO’s Research Centre Imarat (RCI), Hyderabad, in collaboration with other DRDO laboratories and Indian industry partners.
Features:
It is designed to provide short-range air defence capabilities to protect ground forces and critical assets from aerial threats, including helicopters and low-flying aircraft.
It has a range of up to 6-km.
The missile incorporates many novel technologies, including a Dual-band IIR Seeker, a miniaturised Reaction Control System, and integrated avionics.
It is propelled by a dual-thrust solid motor.
The missile and its launcher were designed by the DRDO to be portable, which enables their quick deployment over difficult terrain.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/drdo-vsrads-chandipur-odisha-defence-ministry-2508872-2024-03-01
Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘juice jacking’?
It is a form of cyber attack that involves tampering with public USB charging ports.
Explanation :
Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued a cautionary message to mobile phone users about juice jacking.
The term “juice jacking” was first coined in 2011 by investigative journalist Brian Krebs.
It is a form of cyberattack where a public USB charging port is tampered with and infected using hardware and software changes to steal data or install malware on devices connected to it.
The attack is used by hackers to steal users’ passwords, credit card information, addresses, and other sensitive data stored on the targeted device.
This type of attack has been a growing concern, with incidents reported in various public spaces such as airports, hotels, and shopping centres.
RBI emphasised the importance of protecting personal and financial data while using mobile devices.
How to prevent such attacks?
To protect themselves from juice jacking and other cyber threats, mobile phone users have to use their personal chargers and avoid connecting their devices to public USB ports.
Additionally, using a Virtual Private Network (VPN) and ensuring that devices have the latest security updates installed can help mitigate the risk of cyberattacks.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/info-tech/juice-jacking-rbi-issues-warning-against-charging-mobile-phones-using-public-ports/article67895091.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the International Big Cat Alliance:
- It is an initiative of the International Union for the Conservation of Nature.
- It aims at the conservation of snow leopard, jaguar and puma.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Union Cabinet formally announced the establishment of International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) with one-time budgetary support of Rs 150 crore from the Central Government until 2028.
It is an initiative launched by Prime Minister of India in April 2023 in Mysuru commemorating the 50th anniversary of Project Tiger.
The objective of the IBCA is to ensure cooperation for the conservation of seven big cats: lion, tiger, leopard, cheetah, snow leopard, jaguar and puma. Five of these cats, apart from jaguar and puma, are found in India.
Membership: It is open to 97 ‘range’ countries, which contain the natural habitat of these big cats, as well as other interested nations, international organizations, etc.
It aims for mutual cooperation among countries for mutual benefit in furthering the conservation agenda.
It would have a multipronged approach in broad basing and establishing linkages manifold in several areas and help in knowledge sharing, capacity building, networking, advocacy, finance and resources support, research and technical support, education and awareness.
Governance Structure:
A General Assembly consisting of all member countries.
A Council of at least seven but not more than 15 member countries elected by the General Assembly for a term of 5 years, and a Secretariat.
Upon the recommendation of the Council, the General Assembly will appoint the IBCA Secretary General for a specific term.
Funding: It has secured Government of India’s initial support of Rs. 150 crore for five years (2023-24 to 2027-28).
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2010124
Consider the following statements with reference to the Jacaranda Tree:
- It is a deciduous hard tree that grows well in tropical climatic region.
- Its bark and roots are used for medicinal purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The early onset bloom of jacaranda set off alarm bells among residents and scientists in Mexico City.
It’s also known by its synonym Jacaranda acutifolia.
It is a deciduous tree, Jacaranda mimosifolia comes from the Bignoniaceae family.
Blue jacaranda is native of Brazil and North West Argentina.
These are hardy trees that grow well in tropical climes, well-drained soil and plenty of sun to showcase their lavender touch.
They are widely grown in warm parts of the world and in greenhouses for their showy blue or violet flowers and attractive, oppositely paired, compound leaves.
Uses: In Brazil, its wood is used to make guitars. It has no edible use, its bark and root has medicinal advantages.
It is also recommended as an alternative wood carving tree species, especially in Kenya.
Ecological significance: They attract more hummingbirds and bees than many native trees, so a change in flowering could lead to a decrease in these populations.
Concern: Some jacarandas began blooming in early January, when they normally awaken in spring.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/early-jacaranda-bloom-sparks-debate-about-climate-change-in-mexico/article67890852.ece
With reference to United Nations Human Rights Council, consider the following statements:
- All United Nations (UN) member countries are members of this Council.
- Its members are not eligible for immediate re-election after two consecutive terms.
- Its members are elected by the majority of the members of UN General Assembly through direct and secret ballot.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
At the 55th Human Rights Council of the United Nations, India exercised its ‘Right to Reply’ for a staunch response to Turkey and Pakistan for the mention of Jammu and Kashmir on the platform.
It is an intergovernmental body within the United Nations whose mission is to promote and protect human rights around the world.
It was created by the General Assembly on 15 March 2006 by replacing the Commission on Human Rights.
It has 47 members elected for staggered three-year terms on a regional group basis.
Tenure of the council: The members of the Council serve for a period of three years and are not eligible for immediate re-election after serving two consecutive terms.
The members are elected by the majority of members of the General Assembly of the United Nations through direct and secret ballot.
The General Assembly takes into account the candidate States’ contribution to the promotion and protection of human rights, as well as their voluntary pledges and commitments in this regard.
The Council’s Membership is based on equitable geographical distribution.
Function:
It investigates allegations of breaches of human rights in UN member states, and addresses important thematic human rights issues such as freedom of association and assembly, freedom of expression, freedom of belief and religion, women’s rights, LGBTI rights, and the rights of racial and ethnic minorities.
Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-hits-out-at-pakistan-for-raking-up-kashmir-issue-at-unhrc/article67899032.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the BioTRIG technology:
- It is a waste management technology based on the pyrolysis system.
- It can help in reducing greenhouse gas emissions from communities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A recent study has claimed that BioTRIG, a new waste management technology could help rural Indians.
It is a new waste management technology based on the pyrolysis system.
It works by sealing the waste inside an oxygen-free chamber and heating it above 400 degrees Celsius. Useful chemicals are produced in the process.
In the study, the researchers outlined that three products of pyrolysis — bio-oil, syngas and biochar fertiliser — could help rural Indians live healthier and greener lives.
Significance
The syngas and bio-oil facilitate heat and power the pyrolysis system in future cycles and surplus electricity is utilized to power local homes and businesses.
The clean-burning bio-oil to replace dirty cooking fuels in homes and using biochar to store carbon, while improving soil fertility.
Computer simulations showed that the BioTRIG system could also be effective in real-world applications.
It could help reduce greenhouse gas emissions from communities by nearly 350 kg of CO2-eq per capita per annum.
It could help rural Indians cut indoor air pollution, improve soil health, and generate clean power
What is Pyrolysis?
It is a kind of chemical recycling that turns leftover organic materials into their component molecules.
It works by sealing the waste inside an oxygen-free chamber and heating it to more than 400 degrees Celsius, producing useful chemicals in the process.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/waste/new-waste-management-technology-could-improve-life-in-rural-india-claims-study-94713
This Tiger Reserve is located in Telangana and is the second-largest Tiger Reserve in terms of core area. Previously, it was part of the Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve. It covers a part of the Nallamala Forest and is home to a variety of fauna including leopard, wild dog, Indian wolf and Indian fox. This is the most likely description of:
Amrabad Tiger Reserve
Explanation :
The leopard population increased considerably in Amrabad Tiger Reserve, according to the ‘Status of Leopards in India’ report released recently.
About Amrabad Tiger Reserve:
Location: It is located in the Nagarkurnool and Nalgonda districts in the southern part of Telangana.
Spread over 2611.4 square kilometers, it is one of the largest tiger reserves in India. It is the second-largest Tiger Reserve in terms of core area.
Earlier, it was part of ‘Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve, but post-state bifurcation, the northern part of the reserve was vested with Telangana state and renamed ‘Amrabad Tiger Reserve’. The southern portion continues to be ‘NSTR’ with Andhra Pradesh.
ATR covers a part of the Nallamala Forest and is home to a variety of flora and fauna.
Major reservoirs like the Srishailam Dam and Nagarjunsagar Dam are fed by the river Krishna and its several perennial streams that originate in the Tiger Reserve.
Flora:
Dense grass occurs in 30% of the area and is scattered in an additional 20%.
Dominant tree species include Terminalia tomentosa, Hardwickia binata, Madhuca latifolia. Diospyros melanoxylon, Gardenia latifolia, etc.
Fauna:
Major wild animals found are Tiger, Leopard, Wild dog, Indian Wolf, Indian fox, Rusty-spotted cat, Small Indian civet, Sloth bear, Honeybadger, Wild boar etc.
Over 303 bird species have been identified in this region. Some important groups include Eagles, Pigeons, Doves, Cuckoos, Woodpeckers, Drongos etc.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://telanganatoday.com/amrabad-tiger-reserve-plagued-with-staff-and-funds-crunch-2
Consider the following statements with reference to Nano Urea:
- It is a nanotechnology-based revolutionary Agri-input that provides nitrogen to plants.
- It is developed and patented by the Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India will replace the consumption of 2.5 million tonnes (mt) of conventional urea with nano urea in FY24, the Union Chemicals and Fertilizers Minister said at a press conference recently.
About Nano Urea:
It is a nanotechnology-based revolutionary Agri-input that provides nitrogen to plants.
It is developed and patented by the Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO).
IFFCO Nano Urea is the only nano fertilizer approved by the Government of India and included in the Fertilizer Control Order (FCO).
Features:
Compared to conventional urea prill, Nano Urea has a desirable particle size of about 20-50 nm, and more surface area (10,000 times over 1 mm urea prill), and number of particles (55,000 nitrogen particles over 1 mm urea prill).
It contains 4.0% total nitrogen (w/v).
Benefits:
It is produced by an energy-efficient, environment-friendly production process with less carbon footprints.
Increased availability to crops by more than 80%, resulting in higher nutrient use efficiency.
It is expected to improve crop productivity, soil health, and nutritional quality of produce and address the “imbalanced and excessive use” of conventional fertilizer.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.livemint.com/industry/agriculture/india-to-replace-2-5-million-tonnes-of-conventional-urea-with-nano-urea-in-fy24-minister-says-11709299067061.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Genome India Project:
- It is a pan-India initiative focused on the whole genome sequencing of 10% of the Indian population.
- It is funded by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Genome India Project recently announced that it had finished sequencing 10,000 Indian genomes.
About Genome India Project:
It is a pan-India initiative focused on the whole genome sequencing of representative populations across India.
Goal: The goal is to start with and execute whole genome sequencing and subsequent data analysis of 10,000 individuals representing the country’s diverse population.
This is a mission-mode, multi-institution consortium project, the first of its kind in India, supported and funded by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India.
The specific aims of the project are:
Create an exhaustive catalog of genetic variations (common, low frequency, rare, single nucleotide polymorphisms, or SNPs, and structural variations) in Indians.
Create a reference haplotype structure for Indians. This reference panel can be used for imputing missing genetic variation in future studies.
Design genome-wide arrays for research and diagnostics at an affordable cost.
Establish a biobank for DNA and plasma collected for future use in research.
What is Genome?
A genome is the complete set of genetic information in an organism.
In living organisms, the genome is stored in long molecules of DNA called chromosomes.
In humans, the genome consists of 23 pairs of chromosomes located in the cell’s nucleus, as well as a small chromosome in the cell’s mitochondria.
A genome contains all the information needed for an individual to develop and function.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/decoding-the-script-on-the-genome-india-project-and-its-sequencing-10000-indian-genomes/article67899979.ece
With reference to National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT), consider the following statements:
- Round-the-clock availability on all days of the year.
- Penal interest provision for delay in credit or return of transactions.
- No charges to savings bank account customers for online NEFT transactions.
- Positive confirmation to the remitter by SMS/E-mail
How many of the statements given above are advantages of NEFT?
All four
Explanation :
The National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) reported its highest-ever daily number of transactions at 4.10 crore recently.
About National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT):
NEFT is a nation-wide centralised payment system owned and operated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
It is an electronic method of transferring money online.
Most Indian banks provide the NEFT feature on internet banking and mobile banking.
It enables transferring funds from the account maintained with any bank to any other bank branch, provided the transaction is attempted between the banks that participate in the NEFT payment system.
Organisations, companies, and individuals can use it to transfer funds from one bank account to another.
As per Reserve Bank of India (RBI) guidelines, the payments made via NEFT are processed and settled in half-hourly batches.
Minimum Transfer Value: Rs. 1
Maximum transfer value: No limit
NEFT offers the following advantages for funds transfer or receipt:
Round-the-clock availability on all days of the year.
Near-real-time funds transfer to the beneficiary account and settlement in a secure manner.
Pan-India coverage through large network of branches of all types of banks.
The beneficiary need not visit a bank branch for depositing the paper instruments. Remitter can initiate the remittances from his / her home / place of work using internet banking, if his / her bank offers such a service.
Positive confirmation to the remitter by SMS / e-mail on credit to beneficiary account.
Penal interest provision for delay in credit or return of transactions.
No levy of charges by RBI from banks.
No charges to savings bank account customers for online NEFT transactions.
The transaction charges have been capped by the RBI.
Besides fund transfers, NEFT system can be used for a variety of transactions, including the payment of credit card dues to the card issuing banks, payment of loan EMIs, inward foreign exchange remittances, etc.
The transaction has legal backing.
Available for one-way funds transfers from India to Nepal.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/business/banks/neft-transactions-report-highest-ever-daily-transactions-at-4-10-crore-says-rbi-12386101.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Foreign Exchange Reserves:
- The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the custodian of the foreign exchange reserves in India.
- India’s Foreign Exchange Reserves include foreign currency assets and Special Drawing Rights (SDRs).
- The biggest contributor to India’s foreign exchange reserves is Gold.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
India’s foreign exchange reserves surged by $2.98 billion to $619.07 billion recently.
About Foreign Exchange Reserve:
Foreign Exchange Reserves (also called Forex Reserves) are reserve assets held by a central bank in foreign currencies.
Foreign assets comprise assets that are not denominated in the domestic currency of the country.
These may include foreign currencies, bonds, treasury bills, and other government securities.
Reserves are denominated and expressed in the US dollar, which is the international numeraire for the purpose.
RBI is the custodian of the foreign exchange reserves in India.
India’s foreign exchange reserves comprise of;
Foreign Currency Assets (FCAs): These are maintained in currencies like the US dollar, euro, pound sterling, Australian dollar, and Japanese yen.
Gold
SDR (Special Drawing Rights): This is the reserve currency with the IMF.
RTP (Reserve Tranche Position): This is the reserve capital with the IMF.
The biggest contributor to India’s Forex reserves is foreign currency assets, followed by gold.
Purpose:
They are used to back liabilities on their own issued currency, support the exchange rate, and set monetary policy.
To ensure that RBI has backup funds if their national currency rapidly devalues or becomes altogether insolvent.
If the value of the Rupee decreases due to an increase in the demand for the foreign currency, then RBI sells the dollar in the Indian money market so that depreciation of the Indian currency can be checked.
A country with a good stock of forex has a good image at the international level because the trading countries can be sure about their payments.
A good forex reserve helps in attracting foreign trade and earns a good reputation with trading partners.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/indicators/indias-forex-reserves-up-by-2-98-bn-to-619-07-as-of-feb-23/articleshow/108134148.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements with reference to the semiconductor fabrication:
- It is a process in which raw silicon wafers are turned into Integrated Circuits (ICs).
- It uses photolithography technology which enables the creation of intricate circuitry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Cabinet approved the country’s first semiconductor fab to be made by the Tata Group in collaboration with Powerchip Taiwan.
A semiconductor fab – short for fabrication in which raw silicon wafers are turned into Integrated Circuits (ICs).
The process includes creating intricate patterns on the wafer using light and chemicals, depositing different materials to form components, and etching away unwanted materials.
This results in the formation of transistors, interconnects, and other elements that make up a semiconductor device.
Fabrication is a complex and precise process that requires specialized equipment and expertise.
A semiconductor fab facility always includes a clean room because its environment is carefully controlled to eliminate dust and vibrations and to keep the temperature and humidity within a specific narrow range.
Contamination can enter the fab environment through external sources, resulting in damages to products that can affect overall yield.
What kind of technology is used in fabs?
Photolithography:
It is a crucial step in semiconductor fabrication where patterns are transferred onto silicon wafers.
A photosensitive material, called photoresist, is applied to the wafer and exposed to light through a mask.
The exposed areas are chemically etched, creating the desired pattern. This process enables the precise definition of features on the wafer, enabling the creation of intricate circuitry.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/technology/cabinet-approves-countrys-first-semiconductor-fab-by-tata-group-and-taiwans-psmc-in-dholera-12377111.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Network Planning Group:
- It includes heads of the Network Planning Division of all connectivity infrastructure Ministries & Departments.
- It guides Ministries responsible for creation of economic zones.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The 66th meeting of Network Planning Group (NPG) was held in New Delhi, under the chairpersonship of Additional Secretary, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade to evaluate three projects from Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) and two projects from Ministry of Railways (MoR).
It is an Integrated Multimodal Network Planning Group (NPG) with heads of Network Planning Division of all connectivity infrastructure Ministries & Departments.
It is responsible for unified planning and integration of the proposals and assist the Empowered Group of Secretaries (EGoS) in respect of its mandate.
It facilitates regular interactions between the stakeholders.
It will guide all the Departments/ Ministries responsible for creation of economic zones and connectivity infrastructure during the planning phase itself.
The parameters/prescribed norms of the overall National Master Plan will be the overarching objective of the NPG for examining and sanctioning future projects thus leading to minimising of disruptions and strive for the creation of an ideal & efficient operating system for all infrastructure projects in the country.
Its role is to ensure:
integration of networks;
enhance optimization through modification/expansion/new network creation;
avoid duplication of works for holistic development of any region;
reduction logistics costs through micro-plan detailing.
What is PM GatiShakti?
It is an approach for growth accelerating trustworthy infrastructure through synchronized, holistic, integrated and comprehensive planning based on knowledge, technology and innovation.
PM GatiShakti National Master Plan provides comprehensive database of the ongoing & future projects of various Ministries i.e. Infrastructure Ministries & Ministries and States involved in development of Economic Zones, integrated with 200+ GIS layers thereby facilitating planning, designing and execution of the infrastructure projects with a common vision.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2010476
With reference to Improvised Explosive Device, consider the following statements:
- It is a type of unconventional explosive weapon.
- It does not require an electronic power source.
- Ammonium nitrate and urea nitrate are used to build these explosives.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
At least nine people were injured after an explosion at the bustling Rameshwaram Cafe in Bengaluru’s Whitefield area possibly by an Improvised Explosive Device (IED).
IED is a type of unconventional explosive weapon that can take any form and be activated in a variety of ways.
An IED is basically a home-made bomb because they are improvised.
IEDs can come in many forms, ranging from a small pipe bomb to a sophisticated device capable of causing massive damage and loss of life.
They can be deployed using a vehicle, carried, placed, or thrown by a person, delivered in a package, or concealed on the roadside.
While they have been in used for over a century, the term “IED” first entered common usage during the United States’ Iraq invasion (beginning in 2003), where such bombs were commonly used against US forces.
Components
Each IED comprises a few basic components, which can come in various forms, depending on resources available to the bomb-maker.
These include an initiator or a triggering mechanism, (which sets the explosion off), a switch (which arms the explosive), a main charge (which causes the explosion), a power source (since most IEDs contain an electric initiator, they require an electronic power source), and a container.
Additionally, IEDs may be packed with additional materials or “enhancements” such as nails, glass, or metal fragments designed to increase the amount of shrapnel released by the explosion — and thus the damage it causes.
Enhancement may also include hazardous materials such as toxic chemicals, or radio-active circumstances — an IED packed with, say, depleted Uranium will be colloquially called a “dirty bomb”
Some common materials used to build IEDs include fertilisers such as ammonium nitrate and urea nitrate, gunpowder, and hydrogen peroxide.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/bengaluru-bomb-blast-ied-9190684/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Bureau of Energy Efficiency:
- It was established under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001.
- It works under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, 22nd Foundation Day of the Bureau of Energy Efficiency was celebrated in New Delhi where the union Power and New & Renewable Energy Minister commends BEE for its innovative and world-leading programmes and released the State Energy Efficiency Index 2023.
It was established in 2002 under the provisions of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001.
Objective: The primary objective of BEE is to reduce energy intensity in the Indian economy.
Function and Duties
It co-ordinates with designated consumers, designated agencies and other organizations; recognizes, identifies and utilizes the existing resources and infrastructure, in performing the functions assigned to it under the Energy Conservation Act.
The EC Act provides for regulatory and promotional functions which are assigned to the organisation.
Regulatory functions
Develop minimum energy performance standards for equipment and appliances under Standards and Labelling
Develop minimum energy performance standards for Commercial Buildings
Develop Energy Consumption Norms for Designated Consumers
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Power
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2010550
Exercise Samudra Laksamana, is conducted between India and:
Malaysia
Explanation :
The Exercise Samudra Laksamana kicked off on February 28 and will continue until March 2, taking place at or off the coast of Visakhapatnam.
It is a joint naval exercise between the Indian Navy and Royal Malaysian Navy.
It is the 3rd edition of this exercise.
Indian Naval Ship Kiltan and Royal Malaysian Ship KD Lekir are participating in this exercise which has harbour professional interactions followed by the operational phase at sea.
At harbour, crew of both ships will have various professional interactions, Subject Matter Expert Exchange on topics of mutual interest, sports fixtures, and other interactions.
These interactions are aimed to enhance knowledge base, share best practices and further cooperation on maritime aspects.
During sea phase, units would be jointly honing skills while conducting various operations at sea.
The exercise aims to strengthen bonds and enhance interoperability between the Indian and Royal Malaysian Navy.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2010643
The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India is roughly about 29 degrees. However, the actual distance measured from north to south is 3,214 km, and that from east to west is only 2,933 km. Which one of the following is the main reason for this difference?
The distance between two longitudes decreases towards the poles
Explanation :
● The Indian mainland extends between 8°4’N to 37°6’ N latitudes and from 68°7’ E to 97°25’ E longitudes. Thus, the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India is about 29 degrees. It measures about 3,214 km from north to south, and 2,933 km from east to west.
● Though the latitudinal and longitudinal extent is almost the same, the actual distances do differ considerably. This difference is based on the fact that the distance between two longitudes decreases towards the poles whereas the distance between two latitudes remains the same everywhere. The longitudinal expanse of India is measured in east-west direction and the latitudinal expanse is measured in north-south direction.
● The east-west distance between two successive meridians of longitude is maximum at the equator (111 km). However, it decreases as one moves from the equator to the poles. At poles, all the meridians of longitude merge in a single point and the distance between lines of longitude is zero. On the other hand, the distance between any two successive parallels of latitude remains almost uniform, i.e. 111 km and never meets the other latitude.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Sikkim and Darjeeling Himalayas are best-suitable for tea plantations in India. Which of the following factors help in tea cultivation in these regions?
- Karewa formations
- Moderate slope
- Well-distributed rainfall throughout the year
- Shiwalik formations
- Mild winters
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2, 3 and 5 only
Explanation :
● Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas are flanked by Nepal Himalayas in the west and Bhutan Himalayas in the east.
● Karewas are the thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines. The Kashmir Himalayas are famous for Karewa formations, which are useful for the cultivation of Zafran, a local variety of saffron. The Karewa formations are not present in Sikkim and Darjeeling Himalayas. So, point 1 is not correct.
● Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas have physical conditions such as moderate slope, thick soil cover with high organic content, well distributed rainfall throughout the year and mild winters, making it highly suitable for tea plantations in this region. So, points 2, 3 and 5 are correct.
● As compared to the other sections of the Himalayas, these along with the Arunachal Himalayas are conspicuous by the absence of the Shiwalik formations. In place of the Shiwaliks here, the ‘duar formations’ are important, which have also been used for the development of tea gardens. So, point 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
In the context of Indian Geography, “Dhaoladhar” and “Nagtibha” are:
local names of Lesser Himalayas
Explanation :
● The Lesser Himalayas (Himachal) is the range lying to the south of the Himadri (Great Himalayas) and forms the most rugged mountain system. It is locally known as Dhaoladhar in Himachal Pradesh and Nagtibha in Uttarakhand. The ranges are mainly composed of highly compressed and altered rocks. The Pir Panjal, Dhauladhar and Mahabharat ranges are a part of Himachal range. Pir Panjal is the longest range of Himachal range. This range consists of the famous valley of Kashmir, the Kangra and Kullu Valley in Himachal Pradesh.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Peninsular Block of India, consider the following statements:
- Rajmahal Hills and Karbi Anglong Plateau are part of the block.
- Malda fault separates northeastern India from the Chotanagpur plateau.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
● The northern boundary of the Peninsular Block may be taken as an irregular line running from Kachchh along the western flank of the Aravali Range near Delhi and then roughly parallel to the Yamuna and the Ganga as far as the Rajmahal Hills and the Ganga delta. Apart from these, the Karbi Anglong and the Meghalaya Plateau in the northeast and Rajasthan in the west are also extensions of this block. The northeastern parts are separated by the Malda fault in West Bengal from the Chotanagpur plateau. So, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
● The Peninsular plateau has undergone recurrent phases of upliftment and submergence accompanied by crustal faulting and fractures. The Bhima fault is located in the state of Maharashtra near Latur and Osmanabad. It is a part of the Deccan Plateau. It is well known for its recurrent seismic activities. These spatial variations have brought in elements of diversity in the relief of the Peninsular plateau.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to the features of the Himalayas, consider the following statements:
- The Himalayas were formed due to the collision of the Eurasian and Indo-Australian plates.
- They are broader in the eastern region than in the west.
- They are spread across six countries including India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
● The Himalayan mountain range was formed by the collision of two tectonic plates, the Eurasian plate and the Indo-Australian plate, a few million years ago. As a result of this collision, the edges of these plates began to fold, resulting in the formation of the Himalayas. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The Himalayas cover a total distance of 2,400 kilometers. The width of the mountain ranges is wider in the western region with a distance of 500 km, while it is narrower in the eastern region with a distance of 200 km. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● The Himalayan range is made up of three parallel ranges often referred to as the Greater Himalayas, the Lesser Himalayas, and the Outer Himalayas. These pass through six countries: India, Pakistan, Afghanistan, China, Bhutan and Nepal. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the answer.
With reference to the Northern Plains of India, consider the following statements:
- The Western part of these plains is dominated by Doab formation.
- The Bhabar region has deposits of heavy materials of rocks and boulders.
- The Terai region is characterized by a luxurious growth of natural vegetation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
· The Northern Plain is broadly divided into three sections. The Western part of the Northern Plain is referred to as the Punjab Plains. Formed by the Indus and its tributaries, the larger part of this plain lies in Pakistan. The Indus and its tributaries — the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas and the Satluj originate in the Himalayas. This section of the plain is dominated by the doabs. So, statement 1 is correct.
· Bhabar is a narrow belt ranging between 8-10 km parallel to the Shivalik foothills at the break-up of the slope. As a result of this, the streams and rivers coming from the mountains deposit heavy materials of rocks and boulders, and at times, disappear in this zone. So, statement 2 is correct.
· South of the Bhabar is the Terai belt, with an approximate width of 10-20 km where most of the streams and rivers re-emerge without having any properly demarcated channel, thereby creating marshy and swampy conditions known as the Tarai. This has a luxurious growth of natural vegetation and houses a varied wildlife. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Arrange the following geographical formations in India from north to south:
- Aravalli range
- Ajanta range
- Malwa plateau
- Satpura range
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1-3-4-2
Explanation :
● Aravalli Range, the hill system of northern India, runs northeasterly for 350 miles (560 km) through Rajasthan state. Isolated rocky offshoots continue to just south of Delhi.
● Malwa Plateau, plateau region in north-central India. It is bounded by the Madhya Bharat Plateau and Bundelkhand Upland to the north, the Vindhya Range to the east and south, and the Gujarat Plains to the west. Of volcanic origin, the plateau comprises central Madhya Pradesh state and southeastern Rajasthan state.
● Satpura Range, range of hills, part of the Deccan plateau, western India. The hills stretch for some 560 miles (900 km) across the widest part of peninsular India, through Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh states. The range, the name of which means “Seven Folds,” forms the watershed between the Narmada (north) and Tapti (south) rivers.
● Ajanta range (Ajanta Hills) is a hill in the State of Maharashtra, India. It is located at an elevation of 694 meters above sea level.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to western ghats, consider the following statements:
- They are spread across only five states in India.
- They are younger than the Himalayan mountains.
- Unlike eastern ghats, they are comparatively higher in elevation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
● Western ghats are a chain of mountains running parallel to India’s western coast, covering an area of around 140,000 km² in a 1,600 km long stretch. The Ghats traverse the States of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● Western ghats are older than the great Himalayan Mountain chain. They contain high montane forest ecosystems which influence the Indian monsoon weather pattern. They also aid in moderating the tropical climate of the region. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● Western Ghats are comparatively higher in elevation and more continuous than the Eastern Ghats. Their average elevation is about 1,500 m with the height increasing from north to south. Eastern Ghats comprising the discontinuous and low hills are highly eroded by the rivers. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following is not correct with reference to the Indian Coastal Plains?
Both the coastal plains have well-developed deltas.
Explanation :
● As compared to the western coastal plain, the eastern coastal plain is broader and is an example of an emergent coast. There are well-developed deltas here, formed by the rivers flowing eastward into the Bay of Bengal. These include the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri. The western coastal plains are an example of submerged coastal plains. Because of this submergence, it is a narrow belt and provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbors. The Malabar coast has got certain distinguishing features in the form of ‘Kayals’ (backwaters).
● The steep slope of the Western Ghats contributes to the rapid flow of the rivers draining this region. They do not have to travel far to drain into the sea. As a result, they do not transport the sediments needed to form deltas.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Islands of India, consider the following statements:
- All Islands in India are of coral origin.
- Pitti island is a part of the Nicobar Islands.
- India’s only active volcano is found in the Andaman and Nicobar group of Islands.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
● The Lakshadweep Islands group lies close to the Malabar coast of Kerala. This group of islands is composed of small coral islands. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are an elevated portion of submarine mountains. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● Pitti island, also known as Pakshipitti, is an uninhabited coral islet in the Lakshadweep. It is an important nesting site for pelagic birds such as the sooty tern, greater crested tern, and brown noddy. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● India’s only active volcano is found on Barren Island in the Andaman and Nicobar group of Islands. Barren Island is about 140 kilometers from Port Blair in the Andaman Sea. The Barren Island volcano is the only active volcano in Indian territory, the Andaman Islands. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to Plaint, consider the following statements:
- It is a legal document in which the contents of a civil suit are laid out.
- It serves as the initial step in starting a lawsuit.
- It does not make any mention of evidence regarding the case.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently held that an application seeking amendment of plaint shouldn’t be allowed under Order 6 Rule 17 of CPC if the amendment alters the nature of the suit.
About Plaint:
A plaint is a legal document that contains the claims made by the plaintiff when they bring a case to a civil court. (A plaintiff is a person who brings a civil action in a court of law).
It serves as the initial step in starting a lawsuit.
In fact, in the very plaint, the contents of the civil suit are laid out.
Through such a plaint, the grievances of the plaintiff are spelled out, as well as the possible causes of action that can arise out of the suit.
A plaint which is presented to a civil court of appropriate jurisdiction contains everything, including facts to relief that the plaintiff expects to obtain.
Order VII of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) particularly deals with a plaint.
A few of the essentials of a plaint implicit in itself are those only material facts, and not all facts or the law as such is to be stated, the facts should be concise and precise, and no evidence should be mentioned.
Particulars of a Plaint (Rules 1 to 8 of Order VII of the CPC):
The name of the civil or commercial court where the lawsuit will be filed.
Information about the plaintiff, including their name, address, and description.
Details about the defendant, including their name, residence and description.
If the plaintiff has any health issues or disabilities, these should be mentioned.
The facts that give rise to the cause of action and where this cause of action occurred.
Facts that help determine the court’s jurisdiction.
Information about the relief or remedy the plaintiff is seeking from the court.
If the plaintiff wants to set off a portion of their claim, the amount allowed should be stated.
The value of the subject matter of the suit, not just for jurisdiction but also for court fees.
Verification by the plaintiff under oath.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/order-6-rule-17-cpc-amendment-of-plant-shouldnt-be-allowed-if-it-alters-nature-of-suit-supreme-court-250947
Consider the following statements regarding the Press and Registration of Periodicals Act (PRP Act), 2023:
- It provides for an online system for facilitating the registration of newspapers.
- It also includes academic books and journals under the purview of mandatory registration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The registration of newspapers and other periodicals will be governed by the provisions of the Press and Registration of Periodicals Act, 2023, and its Rules, which came into effect recently.
About Press and Registration of Periodicals Act (PRP Act), 2023:
It has replaced the colonial era Press and Registration of Books Act dating back to 1867.
The office of Press Registrar General of India – PRGI (erstwhile Registrar of Newspapers for India – RNI) shall be carrying out the purposes of the new Act.
It provides for an online system for facilitating the registration of newspapers and other periodicals in the country.
The new system replaces the existing manual, cumbersome processes involving multiple steps and approvals at various stages, which were causing unnecessary hardships to the publishers.
The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting had launched the Press Sewa Portal ((presssewa.prgi.gov.in), the online portal of the Press Registrar General, for receiving various applications as mandated by the new Act.
All applications, including the intimation by the printer of a periodical, application for registration of a facsimile edition of a foreign periodical, the application by a publisher for obtaining a certificate of registration of a periodical, application for revision of certificate of registration, application for transfer of ownership of periodicals, furnishing annual statement by the publisher of a periodical, and procedure for desk audit for verification of circulation of a periodical will be online through the Press Sewa Portal.
Accordingly, publishers intending to bring out periodicals need to register their titles before publishing them.
Notably, the PRP Act exempts books and journals from the purview of registration necessitated by the old PRB Act, focusing solely on periodicals, which are defined as publications, including newspapers, published and printed at regular intervals containing public news or commentary, but excluding scientific, technical, and academic books or journals.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/new-prp-act-2023-comes-into-effect-registration-of-periodicals-goes-online/article67907912.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Nhava Sheva Port:
- It was developed as a satellite port to relieve the Port of Mumbai from heavy congestion.
- It deals with almost half of the country’s imports and exports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Customs officials recently seized a dual-use consignment on a Karachi-bound ship at Nhava Sheva port, suspecting it could be used for Pakistan’s nuclear programs.
About Nhava Sheva Port:
The Port of Nhava Sheva lies to the east of the Port of Mumbai, about six nautical miles away across Thane Creek on the Arabian Sea.
It is also commonly known as the Jawaharlal Nehru Port, as it is run by the Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust.
It is known to be the busiest port in India and deals with almost half of the country’s imports and exports.
The Port of Nhava Sheva and the Port of Mumbai have a common entry channel that stretches about 21 kilometres (33.9 miles) and at a depth of 10.1 to 11 metres (33 to 36 feet).
The Port of Nhava Sheva was commissioned in 1989, as a satellite port to relieve the Port of Mumbai from heavy congestion.
As a small port in its early years, it only had single terminals for bulk cargos and containers.
It has since expanded to include five privately-operated port terminals for containerized cargo handling and also a facility for handling bulk liquid cargo.
It is recognized as one of the top 30 global container ports in terms of size and capacity.
Hence both statements are correct.
Newshttps://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/mumbai-news/customs-seize-karachi-bound-consignment-at-nhava-sheva-port-101709407590322.html
Consider the following statements regarding Obesity:
- It can be hereditary as numerous genes identified with adiposity and weight gain.
- A Body Mass Index (BMI) of over 10 is considered obese.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The global rate of obesity has quadrupled in children and doubled in adults since 1990, according to a new analysis published in The Lancet, a medical journal, recently.
About Obesity:
Obesity is defined by excess body fat (adipose tissue) that may impair health.
It is a long-term (chronic) health condition that progresses over time.
Causes:
Obesity is the result of an imbalance between daily energy intake and energy expenditure, resulting in excessive weight gain.
It is a multifactorial disease caused by a myriad of genetic, cultural, and societal factors.
Various genetic studies have shown that obesity is extremely heritable, with numerous genes identified with adiposity and weight gain.
Other causes of obesity include reduced physical activity, insomnia, endocrine disorders, medications, the accessibility and consumption of excess carbohydrates and high-sugar foods, and decreased energy metabolism.
Healthcare providers commonly use the Body Mass Index (BMI) to define obesity in the general population.
A BMI over 25 is considered overweight, and over 30 is obese.
Obesity is associated with cardiovascular disease, dyslipidemia, and insulin resistance, causing diabetes, stroke, gallstones, fatty liver, hypoventilation syndrome, sleep apnea, and cancers.
It is the second-most common cause of preventable death after smoking.
Obesity needs multiprong treatment strategies and may require lifelong treatment.
What is Body Mass Index (BMI)?
It is a person’s weight in kilograms divided by the square of their height in meters. For example, a BMI of 25 means 25kg/m2.
For most adults, an ideal BMI is in the 18.5 to 24.9 range.
A high BMI can indicate high body fatness.
BMI screens for weight categories that may lead to health problems, but it does not diagnose the body fatness or health of an individual.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/lifestyle/health/global-malnourishment-1-in-8-people-are-obese-101709290549657.html
The ‘SAMOA Pathway’ is related to which one of the following groupings?
Small Island Developing States (SIDS)
Explanation :
More funding is needed to support Small Island Developing States (SIDS) on the frontlines of climate change, the UN Secretary-General said recently.
About Small Island Developing States (SIDS):
SIDS are a distinct group of 39 States and 18 Associate Members of United Nations regional commissions that face unique social, economic, and environmental vulnerabilities.
The three geographical regions in which SIDS are located are: the Caribbean, the Pacific, and the Atlantic, Indian Ocean and South China Sea (AIS).
SIDS were recognized as a special case both for their environment and development at the 1992 United Nations Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.
They are highly vulnerable developing countries as they suffer from low economic diversification, often characterised by high dependence on tourism and remittances, volatility due to fluctuations in private income flows and the prices of raw materials, and debt stress situations.
For SIDS, the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)—the ocean under their control—is, on average, 28 times the country’s land mass.
Thus, for many SIDS, the majority of the natural resources they have access to come from the ocean.
UN Programmes of Action in Support of SIDS:
Barbados Programme of Action: In 1994, the Barbados Programme of Action (BPoA) prescribed specific actions that would enable SIDS to achieve sustainable development. The Conference also adopted the Barbados Declaration, a statement of political will underpinning the commitments contained in the BPoA.
Mauritius Strategy: In 2005, the Mauritius Strategy for further implementation of the BPoA was adopted to address remaining gaps in implementation.
SAMOA Pathway (2014): The SAMOA Pathway recognizes the adverse impacts of climate change and sea-level rise on SIDS’ efforts to achieve economic development, food security, disaster risk reduction, and ocean management, among other challenges.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://news.un.org/en/story/2024/03/1147177
Consider the following statements regarding the World Wildlife Day:
- It is celebrated to promote sustainable practices that can help conserve biodiversity.
- The idea of celebrating this day was first proposed by India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
World Wildlife Day is observed annually on March 3 to raise awareness about the importance of wildlife conservation.
It is celebrated to promote sustainable practices that can help conserve biodiversity and raise public awareness of the need to protect and care for animals.
It aims to raise awareness of the interconnectedness of all living things on our planet and to promote peaceful coexistence between humans and animals through activism, campaigning and education.
History
It was first proposed by Thailand to the UN General Assembly in 2013.
The idea was to set aside a day to promote awareness of wild animals and plants around the world.
The General Assembly adopted a resolution on 20 December 2013, designating March 3 as World Wildlife Day in 2014.
The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), a global agreement to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival, was signed on this day in 1973.
Theme of WWD 2024: “Connecting People and Planet: Exploring Digital Innovation in Wildlife Conservation,” highlights the potential of technology to advance conservation efforts.
This theme is particularly relevant in today’s digital age, where technological advances can offer novel solutions to long-standing conservation challenges.
Significance
It is an important global awareness event for the protection and conservation of animals.
It serves as a reminder of the inherent value of animals and the need to treat them with kindness, decency and respect.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/lifestyle/festivals/world-wildlife-day-2024-date-theme-history-significance-and-all-you-need-to-know-101709373292256.html
Consider the following statements regarding the International Energy Agency (IEA):
- It is an inter-governmental organization within the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).
- All member countries of United Nations are member of the IEA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the International Energy Agency said that strong GDP growth and a weak monsoon drove up India’s energy-related carbon emissions by around 190 million tonnes in 2023, though the country’s per capita emissions remain far below the global average.
International Energy Agency:
It is an autonomous inter-governmental organisation within the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) framework.
Mission: It works with governments and industry to shape a secure and sustainable energy future for all.
Background
It was created in response to the 1973-1974 oil crisis when an oil embargo by major producers pushed prices to historic levels, and exposed the vulnerability of industrialised countries to dependency on oil imports.
It was founded in 1974 to ensure the security of oil supplies.
Membership: It is made up of 31 member countries, 13 association countries, and 5 accession countries.
Criteria for membership: A candidate country to the IEA must be a member country of the OECD. In addition, it must demonstrate several requirements.
Crude oil and/or product reserves equivalent to 90 days of the previous year’s net imports, to which the government has immediate access (even if it does not own them directly) and could be used to address disruptions to global oil supply;
A demand restraint programme to reduce national oil consumption by up to 10%;
Legislation and organisation to operate the Co-ordinated Emergency Response Measures (CERM) on a national basis;
Legislation and measures to ensure that all oil companies under its jurisdiction report information upon request;
All member countries of United Nations are not member of this organization.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/gdp-growth-weak-monsoon-india-energy-carbon-emission-9192108/
Consider the following statements regarding the INS Jatayu:
- It is the Indian Naval base located in Andaman and Nicobar region.
- It aims to extend operational surveillance, reach and sustenance of Indian Navy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Indian Navy will commission Naval Detachment Minicoy as INS Jatayu in the presence of the Chief of the Naval Staff on 06 Mar 2024.
It is the second Naval base in Lakshadweep after INS Dweeprakshak in Kavaratti.
With the commissioning of INS Jatayu, the Indian Navy will strengthen its foothold in the Lakshadweep islands and along with extending operational surveillance, reach and sustenance.
It will usher in a new era of capacity building and comprehensive development of the island territories.
The event marks an important milestone in the Navy’s resolve to incrementally augment security infrastructure at the strategically important Lakshadweep Islands.
Key facts about Minicoy Island
It is the southernmost island of Lakshadweep which straddles the vital Sea Lines of Communications (SLOCs).
Naval Detachment Minicoy was set up in early 1980s under the operational command of Naval Officer-in-Charge (Lakshadweep).
Significance of the naval detachment
Basing of an independent Naval unit with requisite infrastructure and resources will enhance the overall operational capability of the Indian Navy in the islands.
The base will enhance operational reach and facilitate Indian Navy’s operational effort towards Anti-Piracy and Anti-Narcotics Operations in Western Arabian Sea. It will also augment Indian Navy’s capability as the first responder in the region and augment connectivity with the mainland.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2010884
Consider the following statements regarding the National Urban Co-operative Finance and Development Corporation:
- It is set up as an umbrella organisation for the Urban Cooperative Banks.
- It operates as a Non-Banking Finance Company.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the union Cooperation Minister launched the National Urban Co-operative Finance and Development Corporation Limited (NUCFDC).
It is the umbrella organisation for the Urban Cooperative Banks.
Aim: It aims to ensure specialized functions and services to cooperative banks, facilitate communication between banks and regulators, and address challenges faced by Urban Cooperative Banks.
Also to modernize and strengthen the Urban Cooperative Banking Sector, which will benefit both the banks and their customers.
It has received a Certificate of Registration from the Reserve Bank of India to operate as a Non-Banking Finance Company.
It will also operate as a Self-Regulatory Organisation for the sector.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://newsonair.gov.in/News?title=Home-Minister-Amit-Shah-to-inaugurate-National-Urban-Cooperative-Finance-and-Development-Corporation-in-New-Delhi&id=478300
The Nainativu Island, recently seen in news, is located in:
Palk Strait
Explanation :
Recently, the Sri Lanka Sustainable Energy Authority and Indian company signed the contract for building “Hybrid Renewable Energy Systems” in Delft or Neduntheevu, Nainativu and Analaitivu islands off Jaffna peninsula.
Nainativu Island:
It is located in the Palk Strait, the stretch of sea that separates Sri Lanka from southern India.
It’s close to the famous island of Delft (also known as Neduntheevu).
This tiny island is fairly close to the northern Sri Lankan city of Jaffna.
It is an important pilgrimage place for both Hindus and Buddhists.
Historical significance: Historians note the island is mentioned in the ancient Tamil Sangam literature where it was mentioned as Manipallavam
Nagapooshani Amman Kovil, a historic Hindu temple dedicated to the principal goddess of Tamil Hindus, Amman is located in this Island.
She is identified with the famous Tamil deity Meenakshi from Madurai from mainland India.
The Mahavamsa, which is literally the ‘Great Chronicle’, was composed by the Monk Mahanama in the 6th century A.D.
According to the chronicle the Buddha came to this Island, literally meaning ‘Serpent Island’, on his second visit to Sri Lanka, five years after attaining enlightenment.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/displacing-chinese-project-indian-firm-set-to-build-hybrid-power-systems-in-sri-lankas-northern-islands/article67903081.ece
With reference to Plaint, consider the following statements:
- It is a legal document in which the contents of a civil suit are laid out.
- It serves as the initial step in starting a lawsuit.
- It does not make any mention of evidence regarding the case.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently held that an application seeking amendment of plaint shouldn’t be allowed under Order 6 Rule 17 of CPC if the amendment alters the nature of the suit.
About Plaint:
A plaint is a legal document that contains the claims made by the plaintiff when they bring a case to a civil court. (A plaintiff is a person who brings a civil action in a court of law).
It serves as the initial step in starting a lawsuit.
In fact, in the very plaint, the contents of the civil suit are laid out.
Through such a plaint, the grievances of the plaintiff are spelled out, as well as the possible causes of action that can arise out of the suit.
A plaint which is presented to a civil court of appropriate jurisdiction contains everything, including facts to relief that the plaintiff expects to obtain.
Order VII of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) particularly deals with a plaint.
A few of the essentials of a plaint implicit in itself are those only material facts, and not all facts or the law as such is to be stated, the facts should be concise and precise, and no evidence should be mentioned.
Particulars of a Plaint (Rules 1 to 8 of Order VII of the CPC):
The name of the civil or commercial court where the lawsuit will be filed.
Information about the plaintiff, including their name, address, and description.
Details about the defendant, including their name, residence and description.
If the plaintiff has any health issues or disabilities, these should be mentioned.
The facts that give rise to the cause of action and where this cause of action occurred.
Facts that help determine the court’s jurisdiction.
Information about the relief or remedy the plaintiff is seeking from the court.
If the plaintiff wants to set off a portion of their claim, the amount allowed should be stated.
The value of the subject matter of the suit, not just for jurisdiction but also for court fees.
Verification by the plaintiff under oath.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/order-6-rule-17-cpc-amendment-of-plant-shouldnt-be-allowed-if-it-alters-nature-of-suit-supreme-court-250947
Consider the following statements regarding the Press and Registration of Periodicals Act (PRP Act), 2023:
- It provides for an online system for facilitating the registration of newspapers.
- It also includes academic books and journals under the purview of mandatory registration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The registration of newspapers and other periodicals will be governed by the provisions of the Press and Registration of Periodicals Act, 2023, and its Rules, which came into effect recently.
About Press and Registration of Periodicals Act (PRP Act), 2023:
It has replaced the colonial era Press and Registration of Books Act dating back to 1867.
The office of Press Registrar General of India – PRGI (erstwhile Registrar of Newspapers for India – RNI) shall be carrying out the purposes of the new Act.
It provides for an online system for facilitating the registration of newspapers and other periodicals in the country.
The new system replaces the existing manual, cumbersome processes involving multiple steps and approvals at various stages, which were causing unnecessary hardships to the publishers.
The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting had launched the Press Sewa Portal ((presssewa.prgi.gov.in), the online portal of the Press Registrar General, for receiving various applications as mandated by the new Act.
All applications, including the intimation by the printer of a periodical, application for registration of a facsimile edition of a foreign periodical, the application by a publisher for obtaining a certificate of registration of a periodical, application for revision of certificate of registration, application for transfer of ownership of periodicals, furnishing annual statement by the publisher of a periodical, and procedure for desk audit for verification of circulation of a periodical will be online through the Press Sewa Portal.
Accordingly, publishers intending to bring out periodicals need to register their titles before publishing them.
Notably, the PRP Act exempts books and journals from the purview of registration necessitated by the old PRB Act, focusing solely on periodicals, which are defined as publications, including newspapers, published and printed at regular intervals containing public news or commentary, but excluding scientific, technical, and academic books or journals.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/new-prp-act-2023-comes-into-effect-registration-of-periodicals-goes-online/article67907912.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Nhava Sheva Port:
- It was developed as a satellite port to relieve the Port of Mumbai from heavy congestion.
- It deals with almost half of the country’s imports and exports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Customs officials recently seized a dual-use consignment on a Karachi-bound ship at Nhava Sheva port, suspecting it could be used for Pakistan’s nuclear programs.
About Nhava Sheva Port:
The Port of Nhava Sheva lies to the east of the Port of Mumbai, about six nautical miles away across Thane Creek on the Arabian Sea.
It is also commonly known as the Jawaharlal Nehru Port, as it is run by the Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust.
It is known to be the busiest port in India and deals with almost half of the country’s imports and exports.
The Port of Nhava Sheva and the Port of Mumbai have a common entry channel that stretches about 21 kilometres (33.9 miles) and at a depth of 10.1 to 11 metres (33 to 36 feet).
The Port of Nhava Sheva was commissioned in 1989, as a satellite port to relieve the Port of Mumbai from heavy congestion.
As a small port in its early years, it only had single terminals for bulk cargos and containers.
It has since expanded to include five privately-operated port terminals for containerized cargo handling and also a facility for handling bulk liquid cargo.
It is recognized as one of the top 30 global container ports in terms of size and capacity.
Hence both statements are correct.
Newshttps://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/mumbai-news/customs-seize-karachi-bound-consignment-at-nhava-sheva-port-101709407590322.html
Consider the following statements regarding Obesity:
- It can be hereditary as numerous genes identified with adiposity and weight gain.
- A Body Mass Index (BMI) of over 10 is considered obese.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The global rate of obesity has quadrupled in children and doubled in adults since 1990, according to a new analysis published in The Lancet, a medical journal, recently.
About Obesity:
Obesity is defined by excess body fat (adipose tissue) that may impair health.
It is a long-term (chronic) health condition that progresses over time.
Causes:
Obesity is the result of an imbalance between daily energy intake and energy expenditure, resulting in excessive weight gain.
It is a multifactorial disease caused by a myriad of genetic, cultural, and societal factors.
Various genetic studies have shown that obesity is extremely heritable, with numerous genes identified with adiposity and weight gain.
Other causes of obesity include reduced physical activity, insomnia, endocrine disorders, medications, the accessibility and consumption of excess carbohydrates and high-sugar foods, and decreased energy metabolism.
Healthcare providers commonly use the Body Mass Index (BMI) to define obesity in the general population.
A BMI over 25 is considered overweight, and over 30 is obese.
Obesity is associated with cardiovascular disease, dyslipidemia, and insulin resistance, causing diabetes, stroke, gallstones, fatty liver, hypoventilation syndrome, sleep apnea, and cancers.
It is the second-most common cause of preventable death after smoking.
Obesity needs multiprong treatment strategies and may require lifelong treatment.
What is Body Mass Index (BMI)?
It is a person’s weight in kilograms divided by the square of their height in meters. For example, a BMI of 25 means 25kg/m2.
For most adults, an ideal BMI is in the 18.5 to 24.9 range.
A high BMI can indicate high body fatness.
BMI screens for weight categories that may lead to health problems, but it does not diagnose the body fatness or health of an individual.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/lifestyle/health/global-malnourishment-1-in-8-people-are-obese-101709290549657.html
The ‘SAMOA Pathway’ is related to which one of the following groupings?
Small Island Developing States (SIDS)
Explanation :
More funding is needed to support Small Island Developing States (SIDS) on the frontlines of climate change, the UN Secretary-General said recently.
About Small Island Developing States (SIDS):
SIDS are a distinct group of 39 States and 18 Associate Members of United Nations regional commissions that face unique social, economic, and environmental vulnerabilities.
The three geographical regions in which SIDS are located are: the Caribbean, the Pacific, and the Atlantic, Indian Ocean and South China Sea (AIS).
SIDS were recognized as a special case both for their environment and development at the 1992 United Nations Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.
They are highly vulnerable developing countries as they suffer from low economic diversification, often characterised by high dependence on tourism and remittances, volatility due to fluctuations in private income flows and the prices of raw materials, and debt stress situations.
For SIDS, the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)—the ocean under their control—is, on average, 28 times the country’s land mass.
Thus, for many SIDS, the majority of the natural resources they have access to come from the ocean.
UN Programmes of Action in Support of SIDS:
Barbados Programme of Action: In 1994, the Barbados Programme of Action (BPoA) prescribed specific actions that would enable SIDS to achieve sustainable development. The Conference also adopted the Barbados Declaration, a statement of political will underpinning the commitments contained in the BPoA.
Mauritius Strategy: In 2005, the Mauritius Strategy for further implementation of the BPoA was adopted to address remaining gaps in implementation.
SAMOA Pathway (2014): The SAMOA Pathway recognizes the adverse impacts of climate change and sea-level rise on SIDS’ efforts to achieve economic development, food security, disaster risk reduction, and ocean management, among other challenges.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://news.un.org/en/story/2024/03/1147177
Consider the following statements regarding the World Wildlife Day:
- It is celebrated to promote sustainable practices that can help conserve biodiversity.
- The idea of celebrating this day was first proposed by India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
World Wildlife Day is observed annually on March 3 to raise awareness about the importance of wildlife conservation.
It is celebrated to promote sustainable practices that can help conserve biodiversity and raise public awareness of the need to protect and care for animals.
It aims to raise awareness of the interconnectedness of all living things on our planet and to promote peaceful coexistence between humans and animals through activism, campaigning and education.
History
It was first proposed by Thailand to the UN General Assembly in 2013.
The idea was to set aside a day to promote awareness of wild animals and plants around the world.
The General Assembly adopted a resolution on 20 December 2013, designating March 3 as World Wildlife Day in 2014.
The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), a global agreement to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival, was signed on this day in 1973.
Theme of WWD 2024: “Connecting People and Planet: Exploring Digital Innovation in Wildlife Conservation,” highlights the potential of technology to advance conservation efforts.
This theme is particularly relevant in today’s digital age, where technological advances can offer novel solutions to long-standing conservation challenges.
Significance
It is an important global awareness event for the protection and conservation of animals.
It serves as a reminder of the inherent value of animals and the need to treat them with kindness, decency and respect.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/lifestyle/festivals/world-wildlife-day-2024-date-theme-history-significance-and-all-you-need-to-know-101709373292256.html
Consider the following statements regarding the International Energy Agency (IEA):
- It is an inter-governmental organization within the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).
- All member countries of United Nations are member of the IEA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the International Energy Agency said that strong GDP growth and a weak monsoon drove up India’s energy-related carbon emissions by around 190 million tonnes in 2023, though the country’s per capita emissions remain far below the global average.
International Energy Agency:
It is an autonomous inter-governmental organisation within the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) framework.
Mission: It works with governments and industry to shape a secure and sustainable energy future for all.
Background
It was created in response to the 1973-1974 oil crisis when an oil embargo by major producers pushed prices to historic levels, and exposed the vulnerability of industrialised countries to dependency on oil imports.
It was founded in 1974 to ensure the security of oil supplies.
Membership: It is made up of 31 member countries, 13 association countries, and 5 accession countries.
Criteria for membership: A candidate country to the IEA must be a member country of the OECD. In addition, it must demonstrate several requirements.
Crude oil and/or product reserves equivalent to 90 days of the previous year’s net imports, to which the government has immediate access (even if it does not own them directly) and could be used to address disruptions to global oil supply;
A demand restraint programme to reduce national oil consumption by up to 10%;
Legislation and organisation to operate the Co-ordinated Emergency Response Measures (CERM) on a national basis;
Legislation and measures to ensure that all oil companies under its jurisdiction report information upon request;
All member countries of United Nations are not member of this organization.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/gdp-growth-weak-monsoon-india-energy-carbon-emission-9192108/
Consider the following statements regarding the INS Jatayu:
- It is the Indian Naval base located in Andaman and Nicobar region.
- It aims to extend operational surveillance, reach and sustenance of Indian Navy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Indian Navy will commission Naval Detachment Minicoy as INS Jatayu in the presence of the Chief of the Naval Staff on 06 Mar 2024.
It is the second Naval base in Lakshadweep after INS Dweeprakshak in Kavaratti.
With the commissioning of INS Jatayu, the Indian Navy will strengthen its foothold in the Lakshadweep islands and along with extending operational surveillance, reach and sustenance.
It will usher in a new era of capacity building and comprehensive development of the island territories.
The event marks an important milestone in the Navy’s resolve to incrementally augment security infrastructure at the strategically important Lakshadweep Islands.
Key facts about Minicoy Island
It is the southernmost island of Lakshadweep which straddles the vital Sea Lines of Communications (SLOCs).
Naval Detachment Minicoy was set up in early 1980s under the operational command of Naval Officer-in-Charge (Lakshadweep).
Significance of the naval detachment
Basing of an independent Naval unit with requisite infrastructure and resources will enhance the overall operational capability of the Indian Navy in the islands.
The base will enhance operational reach and facilitate Indian Navy’s operational effort towards Anti-Piracy and Anti-Narcotics Operations in Western Arabian Sea. It will also augment Indian Navy’s capability as the first responder in the region and augment connectivity with the mainland.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2010884
Consider the following statements regarding the National Urban Co-operative Finance and Development Corporation:
- It is set up as an umbrella organisation for the Urban Cooperative Banks.
- It operates as a Non-Banking Finance Company.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the union Cooperation Minister launched the National Urban Co-operative Finance and Development Corporation Limited (NUCFDC).
It is the umbrella organisation for the Urban Cooperative Banks.
Aim: It aims to ensure specialized functions and services to cooperative banks, facilitate communication between banks and regulators, and address challenges faced by Urban Cooperative Banks.
Also to modernize and strengthen the Urban Cooperative Banking Sector, which will benefit both the banks and their customers.
It has received a Certificate of Registration from the Reserve Bank of India to operate as a Non-Banking Finance Company.
It will also operate as a Self-Regulatory Organisation for the sector.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://newsonair.gov.in/News?title=Home-Minister-Amit-Shah-to-inaugurate-National-Urban-Cooperative-Finance-and-Development-Corporation-in-New-Delhi&id=478300
The Nainativu Island, recently seen in news, is located in:
Palk Strait
Explanation :
Recently, the Sri Lanka Sustainable Energy Authority and Indian company signed the contract for building “Hybrid Renewable Energy Systems” in Delft or Neduntheevu, Nainativu and Analaitivu islands off Jaffna peninsula.
Nainativu Island:
It is located in the Palk Strait, the stretch of sea that separates Sri Lanka from southern India.
It’s close to the famous island of Delft (also known as Neduntheevu).
This tiny island is fairly close to the northern Sri Lankan city of Jaffna.
It is an important pilgrimage place for both Hindus and Buddhists.
Historical significance: Historians note the island is mentioned in the ancient Tamil Sangam literature where it was mentioned as Manipallavam
Nagapooshani Amman Kovil, a historic Hindu temple dedicated to the principal goddess of Tamil Hindus, Amman is located in this Island.
She is identified with the famous Tamil deity Meenakshi from Madurai from mainland India.
The Mahavamsa, which is literally the ‘Great Chronicle’, was composed by the Monk Mahanama in the 6th century A.D.
According to the chronicle the Buddha came to this Island, literally meaning ‘Serpent Island’, on his second visit to Sri Lanka, five years after attaining enlightenment.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/displacing-chinese-project-indian-firm-set-to-build-hybrid-power-systems-in-sri-lankas-northern-islands/article67903081.ece
The Yars Missile, recently seen in the news, is an intercontinental ballistic missile developed by which one of the following countries?
Russia
Explanation :
Russia’s defence ministry recently announced a successful test fire of Yars intercontinental ballistic nuclear missile.
About Yars Missile:
The Yars (also known as RS-24 or SS-29) is a Russian-made intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) with multiple independently targetable warheads, each capable of targeting different objectives.
Features:
It is a three-stage, solid propellant, MIRV-capable (Multiple Independently Targetable Reentry Vehicles) ICBM.
The Yars is a modified version of the Topol-M missile system.
The missile is 23 meters long and can be launched from a silo or mobile launcher.
It has a range of 10,500 km.
Launch Weight: 49600 kg
The missile can be armed with up to 10 MIRVs, each containing a thermonuclear warhead weighing 300 kilotons.
It has the capability to manoeuvre during flight and deploy both active and passive decoys, which gives Yars an advantage against modern missile defence systems.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/world-news/day-after-putins-nuke-war-warning-russia-tests-nuclear-ballistic-yars-missile-101709299152994.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the grey zone warfare activities:
- It is defined as the exploitation of operational space between peace and war to change the status quo through the use of coercive actions.
- Cyberattacks, economic coercion and election meddling are examples of grey zone warfare activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In commentaries on China and Taiwan, ‘grey zone warfare’ crops up in descriptions of Chinese actions around the island that it claims as its own.
About Grey Zone Warfare:
Grey zone warfare generally means a middle, unclear space that exists between direct conflict and peace in international relations.
It can be broadly defined as the exploitation of operational space between peace and war to change the status quo through the use of coercive actions which remain below a threshold that, in most cases, would prompt a conventional military response.
Activities characterised as grey zone warfare methods range from the use of proxies for kinetic action or change of territorial status quo through coercion to non-kinetic subversive actions such as cyberattacks, economic coercion, disinformation campaign, election meddling, and more recently, weaponisation of migrants.
There are typical aspects that tend to be present in most grey zone warfare activities.
The first is that grey zone elements remain below the threshold that would justify a military response, often through the use of non-military tools.
The second common characteristic of grey zone activities is that they unfold gradually over time rather than involving bold, all-encompassing actions to achieve objectives in one step.
The third characteristic, which applies to some but not all the activities in this sphere, is a lack of attributability. Most grey zone campaigns involve actions, whereby the aggressor aims for plausible deniability of its action.
In cases where grey zone actions are open and attributable, they are justified using extensive legal and political arguments. In addition, aggressors also recruit other countries to their point of view.
Grey zone campaigns target specific vulnerabilities in the targeted countries.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/grey-zone-warfare-meaning-examples-china-taiwan-9193251/
Consider the following statements with reference to Burkina Faso:
- It is a Western African country bordering the Atlantic Ocean.
- It was a former French colony that gained independence and became a republic with a Presidential system of government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Around 170 people were “executed” in attacks on three villages in northern Burkina Faso recently.
About Burkina Faso:
It is a landlocked country in western Africa.
As it straddles the Prime Meridian, it has territories in both the Eastern and Western Hemispheres.
Borders: It shares its borders with six other nations - Mali to the north and west, Niger to the east and Benin to the southeast, while to the south it touches Togo, Ghana, and Ivory Coast.
Capital: Ouagadougou
Geography:
It is predominantly characterized by savannahs, plateaus and low mountains in the southwest.
The northern region, known as the Sahel, is arid and desert-like.
History: Burkina Faso, previously known as Upper Volta, was once part of French West Africa since 1896. It gained independence from France in 1960 and changed its name to Burkina Faso in 1984.
Languages:
The official language of Burkina Faso is French, which is used in government and education.
There are many indigenous languages spoken throughout the country, with Moore (Mossi) being one of the most widely spoken.
Economy: It is largely based on agriculture, which employs over 80% of the workforce. It is one of the world’s poorest countries.
Government: It is a republic with a presidential system of government. It has experienced political transitions and changes in leadership over the years.
Terrorist groups, including groups affiliated with Al-Qa’ida and the Islamic State - began attacks in the country in 2016 and conducted attacks in the capital in 2016, 2017 and 2018.
By early 2023, insecurity in Burkina Faso had displaced more than 2 million people and led to significant jumps in humanitarian needs and food insecurity.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
Newshttps://www.ndtv.com/world-news/170-people-executed-in-attacks-on-3-villages-in-burkina-faso-report-5167872
Consider the following statements with reference to protoplanetary disks:
- They are common by-products of star formation, from which planets may eventually form.
- The major portion of a protoplanetary disk consists of dust particles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Observations by the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) show that a protoplanetary disk around a young star in the Orion Nebula is losing massive amounts of hydrogen each year.
About Protoplanetary Disk:
A protoplanetary disk is a disk of gas (99% by mass) and dust (1%), orbiting a newly formed star, from which planets may eventually form or be in the process of forming.
Disks are common by-products of star formation, and range in mass from 0.001 to 0.3 Solar masses (1027–1029 kg) and in size from several tens to almost 1,000 Astronomical Units (1012–1014 m).
How are they formed?
Stars form from cold interstellar molecular clouds. A molecular cloud is an interstellar cloud of gas and dust in which molecules can form, the most common of which is hydrogen (H2).
As they collapse into protostars under the force of gravity, the remaining matter forms a spinning disk.
Eventually, the star stops accreting matter, leaving the disk in orbit around it.
The leftover gas and dust inside that protoplanetary disk become the ingredients for planet formation.
Organic molecules present in the original molecular cloud become part of the protoplanetary disk and the planets that form from it.
The chemical composition of the protoplanetary disk determines the composition of the eventual planets that form from it.
Protoplanetary disks typically disperse after 2–3 million years through the coalescence of their matter into planets and photoevaporation by the stellar radiation.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
Consider the following:
- Mexico
- China
- Sudan
- Iraq
- Nigeria
How many of the above countries are members of OPEC+?`
Only four
Explanation :
OPEC+ members led by Saudi Arabia and Russia recently agreed to extend voluntary oil output cuts first announced in 2023 as part of an agreement among oil producers to boost prices following economic uncertainty.
About OPEC+:
It is a group of oil-exporting countries which meets regularly to decide how much crude oil to sell on the world market.
Origin: These nations came to an accord towards the end of 2016 “to institutionalize a framework for cooperation between OPEC and non-OPEC producing countries on a regular and sustainable basis.”
These nations aim to work together on adjusting crude oil production to bring stability to the oil market.
OPEC+ controls about 40% of global oil supplies and more than 80% of proven oil reserves.
At the core of this group are the members of OPEC (the Organization of the Oil Exporting Countries), which are mainly Middle Eastern and African countries.
Members: It comprises OPEC countries plus Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan, Russia, Mexico, Malaysia, South Sudan, Sudan and Oman.
What is the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)?
It is a permanent intergovernmental organization of oil-exporting countries.
Mission:
To coordinate and unify the petroleum policies of its member countries.
Ensure the stabilization of oil prices in the international oil markets, with a view to eliminating harmful and unnecessary fluctuations.
Formation: It was founded in Baghdad, Iraq, with the signing of an agreement in September 1960 by five countries, namely the Islamic Republic of Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela.
Currently, it has 12 members, including Algeria, Congo, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon, Libya, Nigeria and the United Arab Emirates.
Headquarters: Vienna, Austria.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/several-opec-nations-extend-oil-cuts-to-boost-prices/article67911267.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights:
- It is mandated to monitor the effective implementation of the Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009.
- Its members are appointed by the President of India for a term of 5 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights has sought action against an app for allegedly disseminating explicit and objectionable material, including content targeted at children.
It has been constituted by the Government of India, under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005.
Mandate: The Commission is mandated under section 13 of the CPCR Act, 2005 “to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.”
It is also mandated to monitor the proper and effective implementation of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012; Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 and Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009.
Composition
A chairperson who, is a person of eminence and has done outstanding work for promoting the welfare of children
Six members, out of which at least two are women, from the following fields, is appointed by the Central Government from amongst person of eminence, ability, integrity, standing and experience in Education, Child health, care, welfare or child development; Juvenile justice or care of neglected or marginalized children or children with disabilities, Elimination of child labour or children in distress, Child psychology or sociology; and Laws relating to children.
These members are appointed by the Central Government for a term of 3 years.
Nodal Ministry: It works under the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/ncpcr-seeks-action-against-app-for-distributing-obscene-content/articleshow/108184501.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Lahore Resolution:
- It was adopted by the All-India Muslim League in 1940.
- It called for an independent state for India’s Muslims.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Pakistan has decided to hold its National Day celebrations in New Delhi again this year, which is observed on March 23, the day the Lahore Resolution was adopted in 1940 by the Muslim League.
It was adopted by the All-India Muslim League during its general session in Lahore from March 22 to March 24, 1940, formally called for an independent state for India’s Muslims.
The resolution does not include the word ‘Pakistan’ anywhere.
The Lahore Resolution was criticised by many Indian Muslims, like Abul Kalam Azad and the Deoband ulema led by Husain Ahmad Madani, who advocated for a united India.
What did the Resolution say?
Geographically contiguous units are demarcated into regions which should be so constituted, with such territorial readjustments as may be necessary, that the areas in which the Muslims are numerically in a majority as in the North-Western and Eastern Zones of India, should be grouped to constitute “Independent States” in which the constituent units shall be autonomous and sovereign.”
In other parts of India where the Mussalmans are in a minority, adequate, effective and mandatory safeguards shall be specially provided in the constitution for them and other minorities for the protection of their religious, cultural, economic, political, administrative and other rights and interests in consultation with them.”
What was the lead-up to the Lahore Resolution?
Till the early 1930s, many Muslims had been agitating for better representation and safeguarding of their rights within the Indian Union, and the separate electorate granted to them in the Government of India Act, 1935, was a step towards that.
The Muslim League session was held days after the Khaksar tragedy, when members of a Muslim group called the Khaksars, fighting for India’s independence, were shot at by the British on March 19 in Lahore, killing many.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-history/pakistan-national-day-lahore-resolution-explained-9193702/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Innovations for Defence Excellence (Idex):
- It aims to cultivate an innovation ecosystem in the aerospace sector in collaboration with startups.
- It is funded and managed by the Defence Innovation Organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Innovations for Defence Excellence-Defence Innovation Organisation (iDEX-DIO), under the aegis of Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence, is organising DefConnect 2024 at Manekshaw Centre, New Delhi on March 04, 2024.
It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Defence, Government of India launched in 2018.
Objective: The objective of the scheme is to cultivate an innovation ecosystem in the Defence and Aerospace sector by collaborating with startups, innovators, MSMEs, incubators, and academia.
Funding: It will be funded and managed by a ‘Defence Innovation Organization (DIO)’ which has been formed as a ‘not for profit’ company as per the Companies Act 2013 for this purpose, by the two founder memberse. Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs) - HAL & BEL.
It functions as the executive arm of DIO, carrying out all the required activities while DIO will provide high level policy guidance to iDEX.
It offers grants and support for R&D with significant potential for future adoption in Indian defence and aerospace.
It is currently engaged with around 400+ Startups and MSMEs.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2011043
With reference to Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) 1954, consider the following:
- It covers advertisement of medicines intended for human or animal use.
- It is applicable to written and oral advertisements only.
- It extends to talismans and mantras that allegedly possess miraculous powers for healing.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Supreme Court has prohibited Patanjali Ayurved from disseminating advertisements that claim to treat medical conditions such as BP, diabetes, fevers, epilepsy, and lupus, as outlined in the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act of 1954.
It is a legislative framework to control the advertisement of drugs and prohibit claims of magical qualities in remedies.
It encompasses various forms of advertisements, including written, oral, and visual mediums.
Under the Act, the term “drug” refers to medicines intended for human or animal use, substances for diagnosis or treatment of diseases, and articles affecting the body’s functions.
Other than articles meant for consumption, the definition for “magic remedy” under this Act also extends to talismans, mantras, and charms that allegedly possess miraculous powers for healing or influencing bodily functions.
It imposes strict regulations on the publication of advertisements related to drugs.
It prohibits advertisements that give false impressions, make false claims, or are otherwise misleading.
Violations of these provisions can result in penalties, including imprisonment or fines, upon conviction.
The term “advertisement,” under the Act, extends to all notices, labels, wrappers, and oral announcements.
Who comes under the Magic Remedies Act?
The Act applies to all individuals and entities involved in the publication of advertisements, including manufacturers, distributors, and advertisers.
The Act can hold both individuals and companies accountable for contraventions.
If a company violates the act, individuals in charge of its business operations may also be deemed guilty unless they can prove lack of knowledge or demonstrate due diligence in preventing the offense.
Directors, managers, or officers of the company may also be held liable if they consented to or neglected the offense.
Punishment
Violating the Act can result in imprisonment, fines, or both.
If this is the first conviction for the violator, they may face up to six months in prison, fines or both.
For subsequent conviction, imprisonment may extend to one year, fine, or both.
The Act does not include any limits for the fines that may be imposed on individuals or organisations.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/supreme-courts-ban-on-patanjali-ads-explained/article67899090.ece
The Global Resource Outlook report is a flagship report of:
United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
Explanation :
Global Resource Outlook 2024 was launched on the final day of the Sixth United Nations Environmental Assembly (UNEA-6) at the UNEP headquarters in Nairobi, Kenya.
It is the flagship report of the International Resource Panel of United Nations Environment Programme.
This year’s report sheds light on how resources are essential to the effective implementation of the Agenda 2030 and multilateral environmental agreements to tackle the triple planetary crisis.
It brings together the best available data, modelling and assessments from 180 countries, seven world regions and four income groups, to analyse trends, impacts and distributional effects of resource use.
Highlights of the report
It presents a stark picture of global inequality, where low-income countries consume six times less materials compared to wealthy countries, despite generating 10 times less climate impacts.
Global production and consumption of material resources has grown more than three times over the last 50 years, growing at an average of more than 2.3 per cent a year, despite the increase being the main driver of the triple planetary crisis.
The consumption and use of resources is largely driven by demand in upper income countries.
The extraction and processing of material resources — including fossil fuels, minerals, non-metallic minerals and biomass — accounts for over 55 per cent of greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions and 40 per cent of particulate matter poisoning the environment.
The extraction and processing of agricultural crops and forestry products accounts for 90 per cent of land-related biodiversity loss and water stress and a third of GHG emissions.
The extraction and processing of fossil fuels, metals and non-metallic minerals including sand, gravel and clay account for 35 per cent of global emissions.
Despite this, resource exploitation could increase by almost 60 per cent from 2020 levels by 2060 — from 100 to 160 billion tonnes.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/environment/unea-6-extraction-use-of-world-s-resources-has-grown-three-times-more-in-50-years-94766
Where will be Project Seabird, India’s largest naval infrastructure project, located?
Karwar, Karnataka
Explanation :
The Defence Minister will inaugurate two big piers and seven towers with 320 homes for Navy officers and Defence civilians as part of Project Seabird at Naval Base Karwar in Karnataka.
About Project Seabird:
The largest naval infrastructure project for India, it involves the creation of a naval base at Karwar, Karnataka, on the west coast of India.
History:
In the post-Indo-Pak War of 1971 scenario, India learned that the Indian Navy needs an additional naval base since Mumbai Harbour faced congestion, which led to security issues for its Western Fleet.
The project was originally conceived by Admiral OS Dawson, the Chief of Naval Staff, in the early 1980s.
It was initially sanctioned in 1985, and the foundation stone was laid on October 24, 1986, by Rajiv Gandhi.
This is a massive project spread over around 11,000 acres of land. With the first sealift facility in the country and a transfer system for docking and undocking ships and submarines.
Its first phase, which included the construction of a deep-sea harbour, breakwaters dredging, a township, a naval hospital, a dockyard uplift centre and a ship lift, was commissioned in 2005.
The development of phase 2 of INS Kadamba commenced in 2011.
This phase is further divided into 2A and 2B. It was planned to expand the facilities to dock additional warships and a new Naval Air Station, among other projects.
Once completed, it will be the largest naval base in the Eastern Hemisphere.
It will be able to accommodate around 32 warships, 23 submarines, and hangers for several aircraft.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://newsonair.gov.in/News?title=Defence-Minister-Rajnath-Singh-to-Inaugurate-Key-Infrastructure-at-Naval-Base-Karwar-for-Project-Seabird-Expansion&id=478441
Consider the following statements with reference to the Women, Business and Law Index:
- It is a World Bank index measuring the enabling environment for women’s economic opportunity.
- India is ranked within the top fifty countries in the 2024 index.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India’s rank improved to 113 out of 190 countries in the World Bank’s Women, Business and Law index.
About Women, Business and Law Index:
It is a World Bank index measuring the enabling environment for women’s economic opportunity in 190 economies.
The index measures how laws and regulations affect women’s economic opportunity on a scale from 0 to 100, where 100 means equal legal rights for men and women.
The report covers eight related areas: Mobility, workplace, pay, marriage, parenthood, entrepreneurship, assets, and pension.
The data offer objective and measurable benchmarks for evaluating global progress toward legal gender equality.
It demonstrates the progress made while emphasising the work still to be done to ensure economic empowerment for all.
Highlights of 2024 Index:
It is the 10th edition of the report.
Globally, none of the countries has a full score in the new index, indicating that women did not enjoy equal rights in any of the countries.
India’s ranking improved to 113 out of 190 countries.
Indian women enjoyed 60% of the legal rights given to men as per the new report, lower than the global average of 64.2%.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/india-ranks-113-out-of-190-countries-in-the-world-banks-legal-gender-gap-index/articleshow/108212920.cms?from=mdr
Which of the following best describes the ‘Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS)’?
A process that captures CO2 emissions from large point sources and stores them underground.
Explanation :
Germany recently announced that it would allow carbon capture and off-shore storage for certain industrial sectors.
About is Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS):
CCS refers to a host of different technologies that capture CO2 emissions from large point sources like refineries or power plants and trap them beneath the Earth.
Notably, CCS is different from Carbon dioxide Removal (CDR), where CO2 is removed from the atmosphere.
It’s a three-step process, involving: capturing the carbon dioxide produced by power generation or industrial activity, such as steel or cement making; transporting it; and then storing it deep underground.
CCS involves three different techniques of capturing carbon, including post-combustion, pre-combustion, and oxyfuel combustion.
In post-combustion, CO2 is removed after the fossil fuel has been burnt. By using a chemical solvent, CO2 is separated from the exhaust or ‘flue’ gases and then captured.
Pre-combustion involves removing CO2 before burning the fossil fuel. First, the fossil fuel is partially burned in a ‘gasifier’ to form synthetic gas. CO2 can be captured from this relatively pure exhaust stream. The method also generates hydrogen, which is separated and can be used as fuel.
In oxyfuel combustion, the fossil fuel is burnt with almost pure oxygen, which produces CO2 and water vapour. The water is condensed through cooling, and CO2 is separated and captured.
Out of the three methods, oxyfuel combustion is the most efficient, but the oxygen burning process needs a lot of energy.
After capture, CO2 is compressed into a liquid state and transported to suitable storage sites.
Possible storage sites for carbon emissions include saline aquifers or depleted oil and gas reservoirs.
There are also only a few operational CCS projects across the world, even though the technology has been pushed for decades.
According to the International Energy Agency (IEA), there were 40 operational CCS projects in 2023, which captured more than 45 metric tonnes (Mt) of CO2 annually.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/what-carbon-capture-climate-change-9195282/
With reference to Copper Age, consider the following statements:
- It was a transitional phase from the Neolithic period to the Bronze Age.
- It is characterized by the emergence of metallurgy along with stone tools.
- It coincides with the beginnings of the development of agriculture and long-distance trade.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Archaeologists in Italy recently made a remarkable discovery of a 5,000-year-old cemetery that belonged to a Copper Age society.
About Copper Age:
The Copper Age, or Chalcolithic time period, is a period that spans from about 5,000 to 2,000 years ago, depending on the region.
It was a transitional phase from the Neolithic period (the New Stone Age) to the Bronze Age.
Features:
It is characterized by the emergence of metallurgy, especially the use of copper, along with stone tools.
It coincides with the beginnings of craft specialization, the development of agriculture, long-distance trade, and increased sociopolitical complexity.
Farmers typically raised domestic animals such as sheep-goats, cattle, and pigs, a diet supplemented by hunting and fishing.
Crops grown by Chalcolithic farmers included barley, wheat, and pulses.
A main identifying characteristic of the Chalcolithic period is polychrome painted pottery.
Houses built by Chalcolithic farmers were constructed of stone or mudbrick.
One characteristic pattern is a chain building, a row of rectangular houses connected to one another by shared party walls on the short ends.
Another pattern, seen in larger settlements, is a set of rooms around a central courtyard, which may have facilitated the same sort of social arrangement.
In archaeology, the first signs of massacres, battles, and warrior burials begin appearing with the rise of the Copper Age.
By the end of the Copper Age, people discovered that by adding tin to copper, a stronger and more durable metal could be created: bronze. From that point on, the Bronze Age begins.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/5000-year-old-copper-age-cemetery-discovered-in-italy/articleshow/108214039.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Human Papillomavirus (HPV) Vaccination:
- It prevents HPV infections that can progress to cancer or genital warts.
- The HPV vaccination is more efficacious if given between the age group of 0-5 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Every year, March 4 is observed as International HPV Awareness Day.
What is Human Papillomavirus (HPV)?
HPV is a group of more than 200 related viruses, of which more than 40 are spread through direct sexual contact.
Among these, two HPV types cause genital warts, and about a dozen HPV types can cause certain types of cancer.
More than 95% of cervical cancer is caused by the HPV virus.
Transmission:
It is the most common Sexually Transmitted Infection (STI) globally.
It also spreads through skin-to-skin contact.
Once infected, most people do not develop any symptoms, thereby not being aware that they have the virus.
Most of the time, the body can find and clear out HPV. But if the virus stays in the body for a long time, it can cause cancer.
Getting vaccinated against HPV helps prevent cancer in men and women.
HPV Vaccination:
The HPV vaccine is a series of shots that can protect you from an HPV infection.
It prevents HPV infections that can progress to cancer or genital warts.
It is more efficacious if given between the age group of 9-26 years.
Once a person gets HPV, the vaccine may not be as effective.
The HPV vaccine isn’t given during pregnancy.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/a-vaccine-that-prevents-six-cancers/article67913312.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the ADITI Scheme:
- It is a scheme to promote innovations in critical and strategic defence technologies.
- Under this scheme, startups are given grant-in-aid of up to Rs 25 crore.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister of Defence launched the ADITI scheme during DefConnect 2024 in New Delhi.
Acing Development of Innovative Technologies with iDEX (ADITI) is a scheme to promote innovations in critical and strategic defence technologies.
Aim: It aims to develop about 30 deep-tech critical and strategic technologies in the proposed timeframe.
Eligibility: Under the scheme, start-ups are eligible to receive grant-in-aid of up to Rs 25 crore for their research, development, and innovation endeavours in defence technology.
The scheme will nurture the innovation of youth and help the country leap forward in the field of technology.
Time period: This scheme worth Rs 750 crore for the period 2023-24 to 2025-26.
It falls under the iDEX (Innovations for Defence Excellence) framework of the Department of Defence Production (DDP), Ministry of Defence.
It also envisages creating a ‘Technology Watch Tool’ to bridge the gap between the expectations and requirements of the modern Armed Forces and the capabilities of the defence innovation ecosystem.
In the first edition of ADITI, 17 challenges – Indian Army (3), Indian Navy (5), Indian Air Force (5) and Defence Space Agency (4) - have been launched.
To motivate young innovators, iDEX was expanded to iDEX Prime, with the assistance increasing from Rs 1.5 crore to Rs 10 crore.
The idea behind the schemes/initiatives such as ADITI, iDEX, iDEX Prime is to also transform India into a knowledge society.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2011171
Consider the following statements with reference the Digital Intelligence Platform:
- It contains information regarding the cases detected as misuse of telecom resources.
- It is developed by the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Minister of Communications, Railway, and Electronics & Information Technology Chauhan launched the Department of Telecommunications (DoT)’s ‘Digital Intelligence Platform (DIP)’ and ‘Chakshu facility on Sanchar Saathi portal.
It is developed by the Department of Telecommunications (Ministry of Communication). It is a secure and integrated platform for real time intelligence sharing, information exchange and coordination among the stakeholders, Telecom Service Providers (TSPs), Law Enforcement Agencies (LEAs), banks and Financial Institutions (FIs), social media platforms, identity document issuing authorities etc.
The portal also contains information regarding the cases detected as misuse of telecom resources.
The shared information could be useful to the stakeholders in their respective domains.
It also works as backend repository for the citizen-initiated requests on the Sanchar Saathi portal for action by the stakeholders.
The DIP is accessible to the stakeholders over secure connectivity and the relevant information is shared based on their respective roles. The said platform is not accessible to citizens.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2011383
Consider the following statements with reference to the Cavum clouds:
- These are known as hole-punched clouds.
- These are formed when aeroplanes pass through layers of cumulonimbus clouds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) shared captivating pictures of clouds on a social media platform, showcasing the breathtaking view of Cavum clouds as seen from space.
These clouds are also known as “hole-punch clouds or fallstreak holes.”
How are Cavum clouds formed?
These are formed when aeroplanes pass through layers of altocumulus clouds, which are mid-level clouds containing supercooled water droplets (water below freezing temperature but still in liquid form).
As the aircraft moves through, a process known as adiabatic expansion can cause the water droplets to freeze into ice crystals.
These ice crystals eventually become too heavy and fall out of the cloud layer, creating a hole in the clouds.
These “mysterious clouds” has been ongoing for over 13 years.
They are formed when planes pass through at a relatively steep angle.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/science/nasa-satellite-captures-odd-holes-in-clouds-caused-by-aeroplanes-explained-101709455977290.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Risa Textile:
- It is a hand-woven cloth used as headgear in Tripura.
- It is presented as a mark of honour to distinguished recipients.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Tripura’s traditional tribal attire ‘risa’ gets received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag recently.
It is a handwoven cloth used as a female upper garment, and also as headgear, a stole, or a present to express respect.
It is woven in colourful designs and has a crucial social and religious significance.
Adolescent Tripuri girls are first given a risa to wear in an event called Risa Sormani, at age 12 to 14.
Religious relevance: The risa is used in religious festivals such as Garia Puja by tribal communities, a turban by men during weddings and festivals, a cummerbund over the dhoti, a head scarf by young girls and boys, and a muffler during winters.
The cloth is also used as a makeshift hanger to hold an infant on mothers’ backs.
It is presented as a mark of honour to distinguished recipients.
Risa is common in almost all 19 indigenous tribal communities of Tripura.
The traditional Tripuri female attire consists of three parts — risa, rignai and rikutu.
Risa is a handwoven cloth used as a female upper garment.
Rignai is primarily worn as the lower garment and literally means ‘to wear’.
Rituku is mainly used as a wrap, or like a ‘chunri’ or a ‘pallu’ of the Indian saree. It is also used to cover the heads of newly married Tripuri women.
The complete Tripuri attire is claimed to have originated even before the time of the Manikya kings, who ruled Tripura for over 500 years starting from the 15th century.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/tripura-traditional-attire-risa-gi-tag-manik-saha-9193575/lite/
With reference to Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor, consider the following statements:
- It produces more nuclear fuel than it consumes.
- It uses the Uranium-Plutonium Mixed Oxide (MOX) fuel.
- It is designed and constructed indigenously by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India witnessed the start of the process of core-loading the indigenous Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) at the Madras Atomic Power Station in Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu.
It is a machine that produces more nuclear fuel than it consumes.
Fuel: The Fast Breeder Reactor (FBR) will initially use the Uranium-Plutonium Mixed Oxide (MOX) fuel.
The Uranium-238 “blanket” surrounding the fuel core will undergo nuclear transmutation to produce more fuel, thus earning the name ‘Breeder’.
The use of Throium-232, which in itself is not a fissile material, as a blanket is also envisaged in this stage.
By transmutation, Thorium will create fissile Uranium-233 which will be used as fuel in the third stage.
Coolant: It uses liquid sodium, a highly reactive substance, as coolant in two circuits. Coolant in the first circuit enters the reactor and leaves with (heat) energy and radioactivity. Via heat-exchangers, it transfers only the heat to the coolant in a secondary circuit.
The latter transfers the heat to generators to produce electricity.
In terms of safety, the PFBR is an advanced third generation reactor with inherent passive safety features ensuring a prompt and safe shut down of the plant in the event of an emergency.
It has been fully designed and constructed indigenously by Bhartiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Ltd (BHAVINI) with significant contribution from more than 200 Indian industries including MSMEs.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/prototype-fast-breeder-reactor-stage-2-nuclear-programme-thorium/article67912583.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Begonia Narahari, recently seen in the news:
- It is a newly discovered species of flowering plant endemic to the Western Ghats.
- It is classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Researchers recently discovered a new flowering plant species in Arunachal Pradesh, named Begonia Narahari.
About Begonia Narahari:
It is a newly discovered species of flowering plant in the Begonia genus from the Begoniaceae family.
The species, named naraharii, pays tribute to former CSIR-Northeast Institute of Science and Technology (NEIST) director Prof. Garikapati Narahari Sastry in recognition of his significant contributions to establishing the Germplasm Conservation Centre for the Bioresources of Northeast and his commitment to the well-being of the northeastern region.
Begonia Narahari stands out for its vivid blue iridescence under direct light, a distinctive feature that aids in its identification alongside comparisons with related species.
As of now, Begonia naraharii is known only from the Demwe locality in the Lohit district of Arunachal Pradesh.
Due to limited information on its global population, the species is provisionally classified as Data Deficient (DD) following IUCN species assessment guidelines.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://bnnbreaking.com/world/india/breakthrough-in-botany-new-begonia-species-discovered-in-arunachal-pradesh-by-ustm-and-csir-neist-researchers
What is the primary function of the RAD51 recombinase (RAD51) gene?
Homologous recombination and DNA repair
Explanation :
Researchers recently identified the RAD51 protein as a key player in preventing DNA re-replication.
About RAD51:
RAD51 recombinase (RAD51) is a gene that encodes a protein that functions in homologous recombination and DNA repair.
RAD51 has the function of finding and invading homologous DNA sequences to enable accurate and timely DNA repair.
Breaks in DNA can be caused by natural and medical radiation or other environmental exposures and also occur when chromosomes exchange genetic material in preparation for cell division.
The RAD51 protein binds to the DNA at the site of a break and encases it in a protein sheath, which is an essential first step in the repair process.
In the nucleus of many types of normal cells, the RAD51 protein interacts with many other proteins, including BRCA1 and BRCA2, to fix damaged DNA.
The BRCA2 protein regulates the activity of the RAD51 protein by transporting it to sites of DNA damage in the nucleus.
The interaction between the BRCA1 protein and the RAD51 protein is less clear, although research suggests that BRCA1 may also activate RAD51 in response to DNA damage.
By helping repair DNA, these three proteins play a role in maintaining the stability of a cell’s genetic information.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.news-medical.net/news/20240304/RAD51-protein-identified-as-a-key-player-in-preventing-DNA-re-replication.aspx
Consider the following statements with reference to the LEAPS (Logistics Excellence, Advancement and Performance Shield) Initiative:
- It is a flagship initiative by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
- Only established MSMEs in the logistics sector are eligible to be recognized under the initiative.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry, organised a LEAPS Valedictory Session in New Delhi recently.
About LEAPS (Logistics Excellence, Advancement and Performance Shield) Initiative:
It is a flagship initiative by the logistics division of DPIIT, Ministry of Commerce and Industry, designed to acknowledge and celebrate the best practices and innovations within the logistics industry.
It would celebrate the demonstrated leadership of the logistics sector in transforming the Indian logistics industry and realizing the combined vision of the National Logistics Policy 2022 and PM GatiShakti.
The National Logistics Policy was introduced to create a single-window e-logistics market, focusing on the need for skill development, economic growth, and competitiveness in the logistics sector. It aims to reduce logistics costs, improve India’s ranking in the Logistics Performance Index, and establish a data-driven decision support mechanism.
The PM Gati Shakti Programme aims to understand current gaps in logistics connectivity and facilitate the development of logistics infrastructure (creating connectivity between roadways, rail transport, waterways, and air transport) so as to reduce logistics costs. The programme has an estimated cost of ₹100 trillion.
LEAPS will create a new benchmark globally by not only recognizing players in the logistics sector, but also the MSMEs, Startups and logistics sector enablers who have been providing innovative solutions across the logistics ecosystem.
From air and sea freight service providers to educational institutions contributing to skill development in logistics, the awards span a broad spectrum of the industry.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2011584
With reference to total solar eclipse, consider the following statements:
- It is a condition when the Moon passes between the Sun and the Earth and completely blocks the Sun’s disk.
- The Sun’s corona is exclusively visible during a solar eclipse.
- It will be marked by a sudden increase in air temperatures.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A total solar eclipse will make the Sun disappear on April 8, 2024, as the world will witness a rare celestial event graze through the skies.
About Total Solar Eclipse:
A total solar eclipse is a condition when the Moon passes between the Sun and the Earth and completely blocks the Sun’s disk, casting a huge shadow on the surface.
People viewing the eclipse from locations where the Moon’s shadow completely covers the Sun–known as the path of totality–will experience a total solar eclipse.
As per NASA, during this timeframe, the sky will darken, resembling the onset of dawn or dusk.
Weather permitting, individuals along the path of totality will have the opportunity to observe the Sun’s corona, its outer atmosphere typically obscured by the Sun’s bright face.
The Sun’s corona, the outermost layer of its atmosphere extending millions of kilometers into space, is exclusively visible during a solar eclipse. Appearing as a faint, pearly-white halo encircling the darkened disk of the Sun, it becomes observable only during this celestial event.
This solar eclipse will be characterised by a phenomenon known as totality - a condition when viewers may be able to see the chromosphere (a region of the solar atmosphere, appearing as the thin circle of pink around the Moon) along with the corona.
The totality will offer a rare view where you can momentarily see the stars during the time as the surroundings go completely dark.
It will also be marked by a dip in air temperatures.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/what-is-total-solar-eclipse-that-will-make-the-sun-disappear-in-april-2510412-2024-03-05
Consider the following statements regarding Holistic Progress Card (HPC), recently seen in the news:
- It was developed to provide a comprehensive view of students’ academic performance in Higher Education Institutions.
- It promotes a shift from summative to formative assessment, fostering competency-based evaluation and holistic growth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The traditional report cards students receive in schools are set to undergo a major change, with the National Council for Educational and Research Training (NCERT) introducing a new ‘holistic progress card’ (HPC).
About Holistic Progress Card (HPC):
HPC, developed by Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development (PARAKH), a standard-setting body under the NCERT, for the foundational stage (Classes 1 and 2), preparatory stage (Classes 3 to 5), and middle stage (Classes 6 to 8), as per suggestions by the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, marks a paradigm shift in assessing students’ overall progress.
HPC incorporates feedback from parents, classmates, and even self-evaluation by students.
The approach aims to provide a comprehensive view of students’ academic performance, cognitive abilities, socio-emotional skills, and creativity during class activities.
HPC aligns with the National Curriculum Framework for School Education (NCFSE) to prioritise a learner-centric evaluation.
Features:
HPC, will no longer depend on marks or grades to evaluate a student’s academic performance. Instead, it will rely on a 360-degree evaluation.
Under the HPC model, the students will be regularly assessed through class activities where they are not just passive learners but active agents.
The activities will prompt students to apply diverse skills and competencies that will demonstrate whether they have been able to grasp concepts.
The difficulty level they experience while performing a task will also be assessed.
Teachers, thus, will be able to register the strengths of a student, such as their ability to “collaborate”, “follow instructions”, show “creativity” or “empathy”, etc.
Similarly, weaknesses like “lack of attention”, “peer pressure”, “lack of preparation” will help teachers identify areas where students need help.
A key feature of the HPC is that students will have a say too, evaluating their own as well as their classmates’ performance.
It encourages students to reflect on their progress through statements such as “I learned something new” or “I expressed my creativity.”
At the middle stage (Classes 6 to 8), students are prompted to set academic and personal goals.
An “ambition card” allows students to outline their aspirations, areas for improvement, and the necessary skills and habits to fulfill their ambitions.
The HPC seeks to involve parents in the learning process, integrating their insights on homework, classroom engagement, and balancing screen time with extracurricular activities.
Peer evaluation is also a key element, with students assessing their classmates’ contributions to activities.
Benefits:
The HPC goes beyond numerical grades, focusing on descriptive and analytical evaluations that encompass academic achievements as well as the development of critical skills in a child.
It promotes a shift from summative to formative assessment, fostering competency-based evaluation and holistic growth.
Additionally, it seeks to provide teachers and parents with insights to support each student in learning.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/holistic-progress-card-ncert-explained-9197296/
Consider the following statements with reference to the ‘e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi’ Platform:
- It is a digital platform of the Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority.
- It helps to mitigate distress sales of crops by providing farmers with viable post-harvest storage options.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister for Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution, Commerce and Industry and Textiles launched ‘e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi’ (Digital Gateway) in New Delhi.
It is a digital gateway of the Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA).
It is the initiative with its simplified digital process can ease the procedure of farmers’ storage at any registered WDRA warehouse for a period of 6 months at 7% interest per annum.
This digital intervention is poised to mitigate distress sales by providing farmers with viable post-harvest storage options.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2011283
Consider the following statements with reference to the Cycas circinalis:
- It is a palm-like tree that originated during the Carboniferous period.
- It is mainly found in the Western Himalayan Region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Cycas circinalis is on the verge of extinction in the northern part of the Kerala State after being hit by an unknown and fast spreading plant disease.
It is popularly known as Eenthu Pana in Kerala.
It is known by different names like Mund isalu (Kannada), madana kama raja (Tamil) and Malabari supari (Marathi).
These are cycads (family Cycadaceae) which are one of the world’s most threatened plant groups.
These family trees have originated 300 million years ago during the Carboniferous period, cycads are the oldest extant group of seed plants.
Features
It is an evergreen palm-like tree that grows up to 25 ft.
It typically occurs in fairly dense, seasonally dry scrubby woodlands in hilly areas.
It is also facultative deciduous in extremely dry times.
Eenthu Pana is like areca nut. It cannot be prepared unless it’s completely dry and this is difficult as it’s usually plucked in the rainy season.
They bear fruits after 40 to 50 years in most cases.
Geographical distribution: It is known to be an Indian endemic, restricted to the Western Ghats, in the states of Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and the south of Maharashtra.
Out of the nine species of cycads recognised within India, six are endemic.
Applications: It is a nutraceutical plant for several indigenous communities in the Western Ghats.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/rare-tree-fights-a-losing-battle-in-north-kerala/article67909889.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the MethaneSAT:
- It is a satellite that tracks and measures methane emissions at a global scale.
- It is developed by the European Space Agency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the MethaneSAT satellite was launched aboard a SpaceX Falcon9 rocket from California.
It will track and measure methane emissions at a global scale.
It will provide more details and have a much wider field of view than any of its predecessors.
The entity behind MethaneSAT is the Environmental Defense Fund (EDF) — a US-based nonprofit environmental advocacy group.
It is developed in collaboration with Harvard University, the Smithsonian Astrophysical Observatory, and the New Zealand Space Agency.
It will orbit the Earth 15 times a day, monitoring the oil and gas sector.
It will create a large amount of data, which will tell “how much methane is coming from where, who’s responsible, and are those emissions going up or down over time”,
The data collected by this will be made public for free in near real-time. This will allow stakeholders and regulators to take action to reduce methane emissions.
Features
It is equipped with a high-resolution infrared sensor and a spectrometer.
It can track differences in methane concentrations as small as three parts per billion in the atmosphere, which enables it to pick up smaller emissions sources than the previous satellites.
It also has a wide-camera view — of about 200 km by 200 km — allowing it to identify larger emitters so-called “super emitters”.
The collected data will be analysed using cloud-computing and AI technology developed by Google — the company is a mission partner — and the data will be made public through Google’s Earth Engine platform.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/methanesat-satellite-methane-emmissions-9197297/
Claude 3, recently seen in news, is a:
large language model
Explanation :
Recently, Artificial Intelligence start-up Anthropic announced its latest family of AI models called Claude 3.
Claude is a group of Large Language Models (LLMs) developed by Anthropic.
The chatbot is capable of handling text, voice messages, and documents and is capable of generating faster, contextual responses compared to its peers.
The family includes three state-of-the-art AI models in the ascending order of capabilities – Claude 3 Haiku, Claude 3 Sonnet, and Claude 3 Opus.
Each model offers an increasingly powerful performance, offering a balance between intelligence, speed, and cost based on their specific use case.
Among the new releases, Claude 3 Opus is the most powerful model, Claude 3 Sonnet is the middle model that is capable and price competitive, and Claude 3 Haiku is relevant for any use case that requires instant responses.
How to access these models?
Claude Sonnet powers the Claude.ai chatbot for free at present and users only need an email sign-in.
However, Opus is only available through Anthropic’s web chat interface and if a user is subscribed to the Claude Pro service on the Anthropic website.
All new models come with a 2,00,000-token window, signifying possibly better performance, accuracy and the capacity to input more information in a user prompt.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/anthropic-new-claude-3-ai-model-comparison-gpt-9197032/
With reference to UDGAM Portal, consider the following:
- It is developed by the Reserve Bank of India.
- It facilitates the registered users to search unclaimed deposits across multiple banks at one place.
- It provides information related to both individuals and non-individuals category unclaimed deposit.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, the Reserve Bank of India said 30 banks are facilitating people to search their unclaimed deposits/accounts through UDGAM portal.
UDGAM refers to Unclaimed Deposits-Gateway to Access inforMation, which is an online portal developed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
It facilitates the registered users to search unclaimed deposits/accounts across multiple banks at one place in a centralised manner.
There are 30 banks, which are part of UDGAM portal, and they cover around 90% of unclaimed deposits (in value terms) in Depositor Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund of RBI.
All unclaimed deposits/accounts that are part of Depositor Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund of RBI.
This portal provides information related to both individuals and non-individuals category unclaimed deposits.
Individuals: For searching unclaimed deposits in individual category, a user has to provide inputs such as name of the account holder, name of the bank (one or more banks can be selected) and any one or more of the five inputs viz., Permanent Account Number (PAN), Driving License Number, Voter ID Number, Passport Number and Date of Birth of the account holder.
Non-Individuals: For searching unclaimed deposits in non-individual category, a user has to provide inputs such as name of the entity, name of the bank (one or more banks can be selected) and any one or more of the four inputs viz., Name of the authorised signatory, PAN, Corporate Identification Number (CIN) and Date of Incorporation.
It facilitates only the search of unclaimed deposits/accounts across multiple banks at one place and provides information on claim/settlement process of each bank.
The unclaimed deposits can be claimed only from the respective bank.
After registration on the portal a person will get Unclaimed Deposit Reference Number (UDRN) which is a unique number generated through Core Banking Solution (CBS) by banks and assigned to each Unclaimed account/ deposit transferred to Depositor Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund of RBI.
This number is used so that the account holder or the bank branch where account is maintained, cannot be identified by any third party.
The UDRN enables the bank branches to seamlessly settle claims received from the customers/depositors, who have made successful search in UDGAM portal.
Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/banking/finance/banking/30-banks-join-rbi-udgam-portal-for-unclaimed-deposits/articleshow/108243139.cms
Fourier’s Law, recently seen in news, is related to:
Law of heat conduction
Explanation :
Scientists have discovered an exception to a 200-year-old Fourier’s Law that governs how heat diffuses through solid materials.
About Fourier’s Law:
Fourier’s law, or Law of Heat Conduction, describes how heat is transferred, or conducted, through solid materials.
As molecules vibrate and electrons shuttle about, the heat diffuses from the hotter end of an object to the colder end.
It states that the rate of heat conduction through a plane layer is proportional to the temperature gradient across the layer and the heat transfer area of the layer.
Basically, it is an empirical relation between the rate of heat conduction, heat transfer, and temperature gradient in the direction of heat flow.
Formula: q = - k▽T, where,
q is the heat flux, which is expressed as energy per unit area per unit time.
k is the heat conductivity coefficient (thermal conductivity). The dimension is area per unit time, so typical units for expressing it would be m2/s.
∇T is the temperature gradient (K/m).
The thermal conductivity of the material (k) is also known as the proportionality constant that is obtained in the formula. A high value of k denotes that the material is a good thermal conductor, and easily transfers energy through it.
What is Conduction?
Conduction is the process by which heat energy is transmitted through collisions between neighboring atoms or molecules.
Conduction occurs more readily in solids and liquids, where the particles are closer together than in gases, where particles are further apart.
Anything that involves direct physical contact to transfer heat is an example of conduction.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.sciencealert.com/startling-exception-discovered-to-200-year-old-law-of-physics
Where is Rupa Tarakasi, a renowned silver craft, predominantly practised?
Cuttack
Explanation :
The famous silver filigree (Rupa Tarakasi) of the millennium Cuttack city in Odisha recently received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
About Rupa Tarakasi:
It is one of the most exquisite silver crafts.
This centuries-old, sophisticated craft is practised in the silver city of Cuttack, Odisha.
Origin:
While the exact origin of the filigree art in Cuttack is not clear, it is known to have existed as far back as the 12th century.
The art form received considerable patronage under the Mughals.
Over the years, as Cuttack transitioned through the hands of different rulers, the silver filigree took on a new form with each.
Process:
In this work of craft, silver bricks are transformed into thin, fine wires (tara) or foils, from which silver filigree is made with all designs (kasi).
While different grades of silver are used in the main metal alloy, the craftsmen also use other metals like copper, zinc, cadmium, and tin.
The artists involved with this filigree work are called “Rupa Banias” or “Roupyakaras” (in Odia).
This craftsmanship extends to creating various items, including jewellery worn by Odissi dancers, decorative artifacts, accessories, and religious and cultural pieces.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.telegraphindia.com/india/odisha-cuttack-citys-silver-filigree-receives-geographical-indication-tag/cid/2004527
With reference to the Dying Declaration under the Indian Evidence Act 1872, consider the following statements:
- It is admissible as evidence in all proceedings, civil or criminal.
- It should be given in writing only and must clearly convey the person’s intention.
- Only a magistrate can record a dying declaration.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently held that the conviction of the accused can be sustained solely based on the dying declaration if the declaration made by the victim inspires the confidence of the court and proves to be trustworthy.
About Dying Declaration:
A Dying Declaration is a statement made by a person who is dead. It is dealt with under clause (1) of Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act 1872.
Generally, it relates to the cause of death of the declarant. It is admissible as evidence in all proceedings, civil or criminal.
The reason behind this can be followed by the Latin maxim ‘Nemo Mariturus Presumuntur Mentri’ which means that “Man Will Not Meet His Maker with Lying on His Mouth”.
Format:
There is no specific format required for a dying declaration. It can be given orally, in writing, through gestures or signs, by a thumb impression, or even in the form of a question and answer.
However, the statement must clearly and assertively convey the person’s intention. Ideally, a written declaration should be recorded using the exact words stated by the person making the statement.
In cases where a magistrate records the dying declaration, it is usually done in a question-and-answer format. This allows the magistrate to gather maximum relevant information accurately.
Who can record a Dying Declaration?
The best form of declaration of dying would be the one recorded by the Magistrate.
However, according to the Supreme Court’s guidelines, anyone can record the dying statement.
A dying statement can also be recorded by public servants or by a doctor as well, where the victim is hospitalized.
Evidentiary Value:
A dying declaration carries significant weight in legal proceedings and can serve as the sole basis for a conviction without the need for additional corroborating evidence.
However, the court must ensure that the statement of the deceased was not influenced, coached, or a result of imagination.
It must also ascertain that the deceased was of sound mind and had a clear opportunity to observe and identify the assailants.
If the person making the dying statement is likely to live, his statement is inadmissible as a dying statement.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/conviction-can-be-solely-based-on-dying-declaration-if-it-inspires-confidence-supreme-court-251436
Consider the following statements with reference to Section 319 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC):
- It confers power on the Court to proceed against persons, other than those named as accused in the chargesheet.
- The court can exercise power under this Section on its own.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Supreme Court of India recently rendered a landmark judgment clarifying the exercise of discretionary powers under Section 319 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).
About Section 319 of the CrPC:
This Section confers power on the Court to proceed against persons, other than those named as accused in the chargesheet, appearing to be guilty of offence.
Section 319 CrPC finds its roots in this powerful doctrine, “Judex damnatur cum nocens absolvitor”, which means the judge is condemned when the guilty is acquitted.
It conveys the significant principle that a wrongdoer must not be spared from the hands of justice.
Essentials of Section 319 CrPC:
Additional Accused Persons: Section 319 empowers the court to summon and try other persons, in addition to those already named as accused in the case, if it appears that they have also committed the offence being tried.
Evidence During Trial: The court can exercise this power either on its own or based on an application by the prosecution or the defense. This means that if during the trial, the court becomes aware of the involvement of other individuals, it can summon them for trial.
Sufficient Evidence: The court must have sufficient evidence against the additional accused persons to justify summoning them for trial. The provision doesn’t allow the court to act solely on suspicion; there must be some prima facie evidence connecting them to the offense.
Opportunity to be Heard: Before summoning any additional accused, the court should provide them with an opportunity to be heard. This ensures that they can present their side of the story and contest the decision to add them as accused.
Joined in the Same Trial: Once the additional accused are summoned and brought before the court, they will be tried along with the original accused in the same trial.
Separate Trial if Necessary: In case the court finds that the evidence against the additional accused requires a separate trial, it may direct such a separate trial.
Protection of Rights: The rights and safeguards available to the original accused, including the right to a fair trial and legal representation, also extend to the additional accused.
Discretion of the Court: The decision to summon additional accused persons rests on the discretion of the court. The court will consider factors such as the nature of the offense, the evidence available, and the interests of justice before making a decision.However, the Supreme Court held that
It should be employed sparingly and when the situation clearly calls for it.
Only when there is clear and convincing evidence against a person in the evidence provided to the court should this power be used, and not arbitrarily or carelessly.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://lawtrend.in/while-allowing-an-application-under-section-319-of-the-crpc-the-test-to-be-applied-is-more-than-just-a-prima-facie-case-sc/
India’s First Under-River Metro Tunnel passes through which one of the following rivers?
Hooghly
Explanation :
Prime Minister recently inaugurated a metro train service between Howrah Maidan and Esplanade in Kolkata, marking the opening of India’s first under-river metro tunnel.
About India’s First Under-River Metro Tunnel:
It is a part of Kolkata Metro’s East-West Corridor.
It passes under the Hooghly River in the city’s northeast, with the tunnel 13 meters below the riverbed and 37 meters below ground level.
It forms part of the 4.8 km underground section from Howrah Maidan to Esplanade.
It is the second section of the East-West Metro corridor and has been built at a cost of Rs 4,965 crore.
The stretch also has the deepest metro station in the country, the Howrah Maidan station, at 32 metres below ground level.
The metro is expected to cover the 520-meter stretch under the Hooghly River in 45 seconds.
Key Facts about River Hooghly:
The Hooghly River, also known as the Bhagirathi-Hooghly and Kati-Ganga Rivers, is one of the significant rivers in West Bengal.
It is a distributary or arm of the Ganges River, about 260 km long.
Course:
It is formed in Murshidabad, where the Ganga splits into two parts, while the part flowing through Bangladesh is called the Padma.
The other part is the Hooghly, which flows through a heavily industrialized area of West Bengal.
The Hooghly River is silted up above Kolkata, and the river flows to the west and south to the estuary of Rupnarayan and then south and southwest to enter the Bay of Bengal through a 32-kilometer-wide estuary.
The Hooghly’s majority of water comes from the Farakka Feeder Canal instead of natural water.
The Farakka Barrage is a dam that diverts water from the Ganges into a canal near the town of Tildanga in Malda district. This supplies the Hooghly with adequate water even in the dry season.
Haldi, Ajay, Damodar, and Rupnarayan are the rivers that feed the lower reaches of the Hooghly.
The important cities near the Hoogli River are Jiaganj, Azimganj, Murshidabad, and Baharampur.
It is spanned by a cantilever bridge between Haora and Kolkata and by the Bally Bridge between Bally and Baranagar.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.financialexpress.com/business/infrastructure-pm-modi-in-bengal-indias-first-under-river-metro-tunnel-in-kolkata-is-ready-for-inauguration-along-with-other-key-projects-heres-all-you-need-to-know-3414982/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Frontier Technology Labs:
- They are an advanced version of Atal Tinkering Labs established to promote digital inclusion.
- They are funded by the World Bank in collaboration with the Ministry of Finance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), NITI Aayog and Meta have announced the launch of Frontier Technology Labs (FTLs).
It is an advanced version of Atal Tinkering Lab.
The initiative aims to advance the government’s agenda of digital inclusion, skilling and growth.
Collaboration: Atal Innovation Mission and Meta will partner to set up FTLs in schools of strategic importance to ensure that students from diverse backgrounds across India will have equal opportunities to learn and engage with frontier technologies.
Funding: The FTLs will be funded by Meta and Atal Innovation Mission will be the knowledge partner.
It is equipped with state-of-the-art infrastructure, including all components of the Tinkering Lab to empower students to innovate using technologies like Artificial Intelligence, Augmented & Virtual Reality, Blockchain, Cybersecurity, Robotics, 3D Printing, and Internet of Things.
The FTLs are a part of Meta’s Education to Entrepreneurship initiative, launched in September 2023, to seamlessly connect students, youth, workforce, and micro-entrepreneurs with futuristic technologies, taking digital skilling to the grassroots.
These labs will be managed by Meta’s partner 1M1B (One Million for One Billion).
Significance: The labs support the Government’s focus on equipping youth with digital skills to succeed in the evolving landscape of technology and the global economy.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2011896
Consider the following statements regarding the Majuli mask:
- It is a handmade masks traditionally used to depict characters in bhaonas.
- It is made of bamboo, clay and dung.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the traditional Majuli masks and Majuli manuscript painting in Assam were given a Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
These are handmade masks traditionally used to depict characters in bhaonas, or theatrical performances with devotional messages under the neo-Vaishnavite tradition, introduced by the 15th-16th century reformer saint Srimanta Sankardeva.
Srimanta Sankardeva established this art of masks through a play called Chinha Jatra.
The word means explaining through images. At that time, to attract ordinary people to Krishna bhakti.
The masks can depict gods, goddesses, demons, animals and birds — Ravana, Garuda, Narasimha, Hanuman, Varaha Surpanakha all feature among the masks.
They can range in size from those covering just the face (mukh mukha), to those covering the whole head and body of the performer (cho mukha).
Material used: The masks are made of bamboo, clay, dung, cloth, cotton, wood and other materials available in the riverine surroundings of their makers
Traditional practitioners are working to take the art out of their traditional place in sattras, or monasteries, and give them a new, contemporary life.
Sattras are monastic institutions established by Srimanta Sankardev and his disciples as centres of religious, social and cultural reform.
Majuli has 22 sattras, and the patent application states that the mask-making tradition is by and large concentrated in four of them — Samaguri Sattra, Natun Samaguri Sattra, Bihimpur Sattra and Alengi Narasimha Sattra.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/gi-tag-for-majuli-masks-history-cultural-significance-9197633/
Consider the following statements regarding the NITI For States platform:
- It is a cross-sectoral knowledge platform designed to become a Digital Public Infrastructure.
- It is accessible through multiple devices including mobile phones.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Minister of Communications, Railways, and Electronics & Information Technology will launch NITI Aayog’s NITI For States platform and Viksit Bharat Strategy Room’ at Rang Bhawan auditorium, New Delhi.
It is a cross-sectoral knowledge platform designed to become a Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) for Policy and Good Governance.
The significant features of the platform include
A multi-sectoral live repository of 7,500 Best Practices, 5,000 Policy documents, 900+ datasets, 1,400 data profiles, and 350 NITI publications.
The knowledge products on the platform span 10 sectors including Agriculture, Education, Energy, Health, Livelihoods and Skilling, Manufacturing, MSME, Tourism, Urban, Water resources & WASH across two cross-cutting themes - Gender and Climate Change.
The platform is an intuitive and user-friendly interface that allows users to easily navigate; and it is accessible through multiple devices including mobile phones.
This platform will facilitate the digital transformation of governance by equipping government officials with robust, contextually relevant, and actionable knowledge and insights, thereby enhancing the quality of their decision-making.
It will also support cutting-edge level functionaries like district collectors and block-level functionaries by giving them access to innovative best practices across various States and UTs.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2011838
Consider the following statements regarding the International Centre of Excellence for Dams:
- It will act as a technological arm of the Ministry of Jal Shakti to provide support services for the Indian and overseas dam owners.
- It will carry out applied research and technology transfer in dam safety management at national and international levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Ministry of Jal Shakti (MoJS) signed a Memorandum of Agreement (MoA) with the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) Bangalore for the establishment of an International Centre of Excellence for Dams (ICED).
It will act as a technological arm of the Ministry to provide specialised technical support in investigations, modelling, research and innovations, and technical support services for the Indian and overseas dam owners.
This MoA will remain valid for ten years or till the duration of the Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project (DRIP) Phase-II and III Scheme, whichever is earlier, from the date of signing this MoA.
The Centre will work on dam safety to support the Ministry and provide solutions to various emerging challenges faced in dam safety through scientific research.
It will also offer area specific academic courses (including training programs and workshops) and carry out applied research and technology transfer in dam safety management at local, regional, national and international levels.
Funding: The Ministry of Jal Shakti will provide a grant of 118.05 crore rupees for the procurement of goods, and machinery for the establishment of new laboratories as well as strengthening of existing laboratories, initiation of research activities, and construction and modernisation of infrastructure for setting up and functioning of ICED.
It will carry out research in two core areas:
Advanced construction and rehabilitation materials & Material testing for dams and
Comprehensive (multi-hazard) risk assessment of dams
ICED will give the right impetus towards building an Atmanirbhar Bharat and will also provide a window of opportunity for disseminating knowledge and expertise in the dam safety area to many underdeveloped and developing nations in future.
ICED, IISc Bangalore is the second International Centre in the area of Dam Safety.
The first ICED has been institutionalized at IIT Roorkee upon signing of MoA in February 2023.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://newsonair.gov.in/News?title=MoJS-Partners-with-IISc-Bangalore-to-Establish-International-Centre-of-Excellence-for-Dams%2C-Boosting-%26%2339%3BMake-in-India%26%2339%3B-Initiative-in-Dam-Safety&id=478555
With reference to Star dunes, consider the following:
- They are primarily found in Africa, Asia and North America.
- They have been spotted on Mars.
- A unique luminescence dating technique is used to measure the age of the star dune.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Scientists unveiled the first in-depth study of a star dune, revealing the internal structure of these geological features and showing how long it took for one of them to form.
Star dunes - or pyramid dunes - are named after their distinctive shapes and reach hundreds of metres in height.
They are found in Africa, Asia and North America and also have been spotted on Mars and on Saturn’s large moon Titan.
Star dunes make up just under 10% of the dunes in Earth’s deserts.
These are the tallest ones, surpassing other types such as crescent-shaped barchan dunes and straight and lengthy linear dunes.
These are formed in areas with complex wind regimes, where winds blowing from different directions, and net sand accumulation, points within the desert where big piles of sand can be blown around to form giant dunes.
Geographical distribution
Earth’s largest star dunes are found in the Badain Jaran desert in western China.
Namib Sand Sea in Namibia, large sand seas in Algeria such as the Grand Erg Oriental and Grand Erg Occidental, and Rub’ al Khali in Saudi Arabia.
In North America, Great Sand Dunes National Park in Colorado contains a series of them.
Recent research about Star dunes
The research team from the UK travelled to the southeast of Morocco to examine the 100-meter-high and 700-meter-wide Lala Lallia.
They discovered that the very base of the dune was 13,000 years old, but the upper part of the structure had only been formed in the last 1,000 years or so
They have estimated the age of star dune of Lala Lallia in Morocco, for the first time.
The scientists used a technique called luminescence dating to work out the age of the star dune.
The method calculates when the grains of sand were last exposed to daylight.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/scientists-reveal-secrets-of-earths-magnificent-desert-star-dunes/article67916025.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the National Cooperative Database (NCD), recently seen in the news:
- It is a digital dashboard wherein data of cooperative societies, including both National and State Federations have been captured.
- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Cooperation Minister will launch the National Cooperative Database (NCD) to foster a cooperative-centric economic model.
About National Cooperative Database (NCD):
It is an initiative of the Ministry of Cooperation.
Under this initiative, the Ministry of Cooperation has recognized the imperative need for a robust database to capture vital information about India’s vast cooperative sector.
NCD has been developed in collaboration with State Governments, National Federations and stakeholders, and aims to foster a cooperative-centric economic model.
It is a web-based digital dashboard wherein data of cooperative societies, including National/State Federations have been captured.
The data of cooperative societies has been entered and validated by States/ UTs nodal officials at RCS/ DRCS offices, and the data of federations has been provided by various national/state federations.
NCD has collected/mapped information about 8 lakh cooperatives with collective membership of more than 29 crores spread across various sectors in the country.
The information collected from cooperative societies are on various parameters, such as their registered name, date, location, number of members, sectoral information, area of operation, economic activities, financial statements, status of audit etc.
NCD serves as a crucial tool for efficient communication between the Central Ministry, States/UTs, and Cooperative Societies, benefiting all stakeholders in the cooperative sector.
The database provides comprehensive contact details for registered societies, facilitating smooth communication between government entities and these societies.
NCD offers a myriad of benefits, including:
Single-point access
comprehensive and updated data
user-friendly interface
vertical and horizontal linkages
query-based reports and graphs
Management Information System (MIS) reports
data analytics
Geographical Mapping
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.india.com/news/sahakar-se-samriddhi-amit-shah-to-launch-national-cooperative-database-on-friday-6771073/
Which among the following best describes ‘Dolutegravir’, recently seen in the news?
An antiviral drug used in the treatment of HIV infection.
Explanation :
Resistance to the antiretroviral drug dolutegravir (DTG) is increasing among HIV patients, a new report by the World Health Organization (WHO) highlighted.
About Dolutegravir (DTG):
It is an antiviral drug used with other medications to treat human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, the virus that can cause the acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).
Dolutegravir is in a class of medications called HIV integrase inhibitors.
It works by decreasing the amount of HIV in your blood and increasing the number of immune cells that help fight infections in your body.
Although dolutegravir does not cure HIV, using it along with other medications may decrease your chance of developing AIDS and HIV-related illnesses such as serious infections or cancer.
Since 2018, WHO has recommended the use of dolutegravir as the preferred first- and second-line HIV treatment for all population groups.
It is more effective, easier to take, and has fewer side effects than other drugs currently in use.
Common side effects of dolutegravir may include:
headache;
tiredness; or
sleep problems (insomnia).
Some side effects can be serious. These include severe skin rashes and allergic reactions, liver problems, and drug interactions.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/health/who-highlights-growing-hiv-drug-resistance-to-dolutegravir-urges-global-action-94850
Sea Defenders-2024, recently seen in the news, is a joint Coast Guard exercise involving India and which one of the following countries?
United States
Explanation :
The United States Coast Guard’s (USCG) Bertholf ship reached Port Blair ahead of the ‘Sea Defenders-2024’ joint exercise.
About Sea Defenders-2024:
It is a joint exercise between the Indian Coast Guard and the United States Coast Guard.
Location: Off the coast of Port Blair, Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
The two-day exercise will focus on maritime piracy and asymmetric threats, including simulated drone attacks on commercial merchant traffic, joint maritime search and rescue operations, major firefighting, marine pollution response, and counter-drug interdiction exercises.
The event will also witness a simulated medical evacuation to enhance readiness in emergency situations.
It will highlight the importance of international cooperation in addressing maritime challenges as well as the partnership between the Indian and US Coast Guards.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/amp/india/story/us-coast-guard-ship-bertholf-arrives-in-port-blair-ahead-if-joint-exercise-2512035-2024-03-07
Consider the following statements with reference to Orans:
- They are traditional sacred groves found in Chhattisgarh.
- They form the natural habitat for the Great Indian Bustard (GIB).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Communities, particularly those in western Rajasthan, are concerned about the state’s proposal to classify orans (sacred groves) as deemed forests.
About Orans:
Orans are traditional sacred groves found in Rajasthan.
These are community forests, preserved and managed by rural communities through institutions and codes that mark such forests as sacred.
There are often local deities associated with Oran.
They are rich in biodiversity and usually include a water body.
Communities in Rajasthan have been conserving these Orans for centuries, and their lives have been intricately linked around these spaces.
Orans are also spaces where herders take their livestock for grazing and are places for communal congregations, festivals, and other social events, the performance of which is linked to agrarian rhythms and the continued commitment of the communities towards environmental conservation.
Orans also form the natural habitat for India’s most critically endangered bird, the Great Indian Bustard (GIB), a protected species under the Wildlife Protection Act, which is also the State bird of Rajasthan.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/forests/villagers-oppose-declaring-orans-as-deemed-forests-fearing-loss-of-access-and-livelihood-94834
With reference to Article 131 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
- It gives the Supreme Court (SC) exclusive and original jurisdiction over legal issues originating between States or between States and the Union.
- The word ‘State’ under Article 131 does not include any private citizen, company, or a government department.
- It also extends to disputes arising out of any treaty, agreement, or covenant which came into being before the commencement of the Constitution.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Noting that it’s a State’s right to approach it under Article 131 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court (SC) recently disapproved of the Centre insisting on withdrawal of a suit filed by the Kerala Government as a pre-condition for giving consent to the state for additional borrowing.
About Article 131 of the Indian Constitution:
According to Article 131, the SC has exclusive and original jurisdiction over legal issues originating between States or between States and the Union.
Original jurisdiction is the power of the court to hear and determine a dispute in the first instance.
The bare reading of Article 131 states that - Original jurisdiction of the SC:
Subject to the provisions of this Constitution, the SC shall, to the exclusion of any other court, have original jurisdiction in any dispute:
between the Government of India and one or more States; or
between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more other States on the other; or
between two or more States, if and in so far as the dispute involves any question (whether of law or fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends.
The nature of Article 131 is subject to provisions of the Constitution and is limited to disputes involving legal rights, as mentioned in the Article itself.
Thus, disputes of political nature are not covered under this, unless legal rights are at stake.
The SC held that the meaning of the word ‘State’ under Article 131 does not include any private citizen, company, or a government department, even if it had filed a complaint along with any State Governments.
Restrictions:
The original jurisdiction of the SC does not extend to disputes arising out of any treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad, or any other similar instrument which came into being before the commencement of the Constitution.
The parliament may exclude the jurisdiction of the SC in disputes relating to the use, distribution, or control of the water of any inter-state river;
Suits brought by private individuals against the government of India.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.tribuneindia.com/news/india/centre-cant-insist-on-withdrawal-of-suit-by-kerala-as-it-has-right-to-move-top-court-under-article-131-supreme-court-597891
Consider the following statements with reference to the School Soil Health Programme:
- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Education and the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
- It provides for the establishment of soil labs in Eklavya Model Schools only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
.
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister for Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare and Union Minister for Rural Development inaugurated School Soil Health Programme, New Delhi.
Department of Agriculture and Farmers welfare (Ministry of Education) in collaboration with Department of School Education and Literacy (Ministry of Agriculture and farmers welfare) has undertaken a pilot project on school soil health programme.
Features
Under the project, 20 soil labs were set up in 20 schools of Kendriya and Navodaya Vidylaya of rural areas.
Study modules were developed and training was given to students and teachers.
Mobile application was customized for the school programme and portal is having a separate segment for the programme where in all the activities of students has been documented.
Now, this programme has been scaled up in 1000 schools.
Kendriya Vidyalya, Navodaya Vidyalya and Eklavya Model Schools have been taken under this programme. Schools are being onboarded on the portal and online batches are being created.
Department of Agriculture and Farmers welfare (DA&FW) through National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) will setup soil labs in these schools.
School students will collect soil samples, test in the labs set up in schools and generate Soil health Card.
After generating Soil Health Card, they will go to the farmers and educate them about recommendation of Soil health Card.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2012238
Consider the following statements with reference to the IndiaAI mission:
- Under this mission, indigenous Large Multimodal Models will be developed.
- It aims to provide deep-tech AI startups streamlined access to funding to enable futuristic AI Projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister of India has approved the comprehensive national-level IndiaAI mission with a budget outlay of Rs.10,371.92 crore.
The IndiaAI mission will establish a comprehensive ecosystem catalyzing AI innovation through strategic programs and partnerships across the public and private sectors.
The Mission will be implemented by ‘IndiaAI’ Independent Business Division (IBD) under Digital India Corporation (DIC).
It has the following components:
IndiaAI Compute Capacity: The IndiaAI compute pillar will build a high-end scalable AI computing ecosystem to cater to the increasing demands from India’s rapidly expanding AI start-ups and research ecosystem.
The ecosystem will comprise AI compute infrastructure of 10,000 or more Graphics Processing Units (GPUs), built through public-private partnership. It will act as a one-stop solution for resources critical for AI innovation.
IndiaAI Innovation Centre: The IndiaAI Innovation Centre will undertake the development and deployment of indigenous Large Multimodal Models (LMMs) and domain-specific foundational models in critical sectors.
IndiaAI Datasets Platform: It will streamline access to quality non-personal datasets for AI Innovation. A unified data platform will be developed to provide a one-stop solution for seamless access to non-personal datasets to Indian Startups and Researchers.
IndiaAI Application Development Initiative: It will promote the AI applications in critical sectors for the problem statements sourced from Central Ministries, State Departments, and other institutions. The initiative will focus on developing/scaling/promoting adoption of impactful AI solutions with potential for catalyzing large scale socio-economic transformation.
IndiaAI FutureSkills: It is conceptualized to mitigate barriers to entry into AI programs and will increase AI courses in undergraduate, masters-level, and Ph.D. programs. Further, Data and AI Labs will be set-up in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities across India to impart foundational level courses.
IndiaAI Startup Financing: This pillar is conceptualized to support and accelerate deep-tech AI startups and provide them streamlined access to funding to enable futuristic AI Projects.
The approved IndiaAI Mission will propel innovation and build domestic capacities to ensure the tech sovereignty of India.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2012355
Haiper, recently in news, refers to a/an:
Artificial Intelligence-powered video generation tool
Explanation :
Recently, former members of Google’s DeepMind team, have introduced Haiper, a cutting-edge AI-powered video generation tool.
It is an all-in-one visual foundation model that allows everyone, with or without technical training, to generate high-quality video content with ease.
The founders claim that Haiper brings forward cutting-edge machine learning with the belief that creativity should be “fun, surprising, and shareable”.
According to Haiper, its model is a powerful perceptual foundation model-driven AI that has been designed for a “new path towards AGI” (artificial general intelligence, an AI software with human-like intelligence and the ability to self-learn).
It offers tools such as text-to-video, animated static images, video repainting tools, etc.
Users can go on to the website, log in with their email addresses, and start generating videos for free by typing in text prompts.
At present, users can only generate HD video spanning 2 seconds, and a slightly lower-quality video could go up to four seconds.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/haiper-text-to-video-model-9200839/
Taeniogonalos deepaki, recently in news, is a:
wasp
Explanation :
Entomologists of the Ashoka Trust for Research in Ecology and the Environment have discovered a new species of wasp in the Western Ghat region of Karnataka.
Taeniogonalos deepaki was discovered in the Belgaum region of Karnataka.
It is named after the medical doctor and nature enthusiast Dr Deepak Deshpande who collected the specimen.
The genus Taeniogonalos belongs to the family Trigonalyidae of the order Hymenoptera.
The Trigonalyidae family consists of a type of insects called hyperparasitoids that “sneak into” parasitoids, or insects whose larvae develop on or within the bodies of other insects.
Distribution: The Taeniogonalos genus is distributed in Afrotropical, oriental, eastern palaearctic, nearctic, Australian and neotropical regions; 6 of the species have been reported earlier from India and 20 from China.
The scientists have also reported the first male description of another species, Taeniogonalos eurysoma.
Most of the Taeniogonalos species have been reported from south India.
What is a parasitoid?
It is an organism that has young that develop on or within another organism (the host), eventually killing it.
Parasitoids have characteristics of both predators and parasites.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/new-species-parasitoid-wasp-discovered-in-western-ghats/article67925337.ece
With reference to Uttar Poorva Transformative Industrialization Scheme, consider the following:
- It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented by NITI Aayog.
- It is aimed at developing industries and generating employment in the North East Region.
- It requires all eligible industrial units to commence their production or operation within 4 years from the grant of registration.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister of India approved the proposal of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade for Uttar Poorva Transformative Industrialization Scheme, 2024 (UNNATI – 2024).
The scheme, aimed at developing industries and generating employment in the North East Region, seeks to create productive economic activity in manufacturing and services.
The main objective of the UNNATI scheme is to generate gainful employment, leading to the overall socio-economic development of the region.
It is set to be effective from the date of notification and will run until March 31, 2034, inclusive of eight years of committed liabilities.
Expenditure involved:
The financial outlay of the proposed scheme is Rs.10,037 crore for the scheme period from the date of notification for 10 years. (Additional 8 years for committed liabilities).
This will be a Central Sector Scheme.
The scheme is proposed to be divided into two parts. Part, A caters to the incentives to the eligible units (Rs. 9737 crores), and Part B, is for implementation and institutional arrangements for the scheme. (Rs. 300 Crore).
Salient features of the scheme
Scheme period: The scheme will be effective from the date of Notification and up to 31.03.2034 along with 8 years of committed liabilities.
Application period for registration: Industrial unit will be allowed to apply for registration from the date of notification up to 31.03.2026
Commencement of Production or operation: All eligible Industrial Units to commence their production or operation within 4 years from the grant of registration.
Districts are categorized in two zones: Zone A (Industrially Advanced Districts) & Zone B (Industrially Backward Districts)
Earmarking of funds: 60% of the outlay of Part A has been earmarked to 8 NE states and 40% on First-In-First-Out (FIFO) basis.
All new Industrial units and Expanding units would be eligible for the respective incentives.
Implementation of the scheme will be overseen by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) in cooperation with the States.
Committees at the national and state levels, including the Steering Committee and State Level Committee, will monitor implementation, ensure transparency, and recommend registration and incentives claims.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2012360
Which one of the following is the theme for International Women’s Day 2024?
Invest in women: Accelerating Progress
Explanation :
International Women’s Day was recently celebrated globally.
About International Women’s Day:
It is an annual event celebrated on March 8.
The day raises awareness on a number of issues, including violence and abuse against women, women’s reproductive rights, gender equality, and women’s achievements in various fields.
On this day, several events take place globally to respect and acknowledge the achievements of women.
March also marks the start of Women’s History Month around the world. It begins on March 1 and ends on March 31.
The campaign theme for International Women’s Day 2024 is “Invest in women: Accelerating Progress”.
History:
First celebrated in the United States on February 28, 1909, in New York City, the event was organised on the suggestion of activist Theresa Malkiel.
In August 1910, German delegates of International Socialist Women’s Conference, held in Copenhagen, Denmark, drew inspiration from American activists, and proposed to establish an annual ‘Women’s Day’.
On March 19 of the following year, more than a million people in Austria-Hungary, Denmark, Germany, and Switzerland celebrated Women’s Day.
Since then, International Women’s Day has evolved into a worldwide day of acknowledgment and festivity.
As the women’s liberation movement swept around the world in the 1970s, the United Nations designated 1975 International Women’s Year and celebrated the holiday for the first time. Two years later, in 1977, it designated March 8 International Women’s Day.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/when-is/international-womens-day-2024-theme-history-significance-9200754/
With reference to United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF), consider the following statements:
- It supports immunization programs for childhood diseases and programs to prevent the spread of HIV/AIDS.
- It has been awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace.
- It is financed entirely by the government contributions of United Nations member countries.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Over 230 million girls and women alive today have undergone female genital mutilation (FGM), according to a newly released UNICEF report.
About UNICEF:
The United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF), originally known as the United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund, was created by the United Nations General Assembly on December 11, 1946, to provide emergency food and healthcare to children and mothers in countries that had been devastated by World War II.
In 1950, UNICEF’s mandate was extended to address the long-term needs of children and women in developing countries everywhere.
In 1953, it became a permanent part of the UN System, and the words “international” and “emergency” were dropped from the organization’s name, though it retained the original acronym, “UNICEF”.
UNICEF works in over 190 countries and territories and in the world’s toughest places to reach the children and young people in greatest need.
UNICEF works with partners around the world to promote policies and expand access to services that protect all children.
UNICEF supports immunization programs for childhood diseases and programs to prevent the spread of HIV/AIDS; it also provides funding for health services, educational facilities, and other welfare services.
Since 1996, UNICEF programs have been guided by the Convention on the Rights of the Child (1989), which affirms the right of all children to “the enjoyment of the highest attainable standard of health and to facilities for the treatment of illness and rehabilitation of health.
Funding: UNICEF’s activities are financed by both government and private contributions.
Headquarters: New York, United States.
It was awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace in 1965.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/world/2024/Mar/08/over-230-million-girls-and-women-alive-today-have-undergone-female-genital-mutilation-unicef
Which one of the following is the primary purpose of the Ossification Test, recently seen in the news?
To estimate a person’s age
Explanation :
The Supreme Court, while denying the plea of juvenility preferred by a convict in a murder case, observed that to determine age, the ossification test stands last in the order of priorities.
About Ossification Test:
Ossification is the process of bone formation that occurs in humans from infancy until the end of adolescence.
During this time, various bones in the body undergo calcification, or hardening, as minerals such as calcium and phosphorus are deposited in the bone matrix.
As a person ages, the rate of bone formation slows down, and eventually, the bones become more brittle and prone to fracture.
Due to the predictable nature of this process, scientists have been able to develop methods for estimating a person’s age based on the degree of bone ossification in specific bones.
One such method is the ossification test, also known as the epiphyseal fusion test.
This test involves examining x-rays of certain bones in the body, specifically the clavicle, sternum, and pelvis, to determine the degree of ossification.
These bones are chosen because they tend to undergo the most dramatic changes in structure as a person ages.
Based on the degree of ossification, the professional can estimate the person’s age within a certain range.
Drawbacks:
It only provides an individual’s ‘estimated’ age rather than their actual age.
Even when testing several joints, the ossification test allows a buffer of at least six months on either side. It occasionally displays a four-year fluctuation.
There can be significant individual variation in the rate and pattern of bone ossification.
Additionally, factors such as disease, injury, and malnutrition can all affect the degree of bone ossification, making it more difficult to accurately estimate a person’s age.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/not-murder-but-culpable-homicide-not-amounting-to-murder-supreme-court-reduces-sentence-of-husband-who-burnt-wife-alive-in-sudden-quarrel-251677?infinitescroll=1
Consider the following statements with reference to fireflies:
- They are found in temperate and tropical regions on every continent except Antarctica.
- They use their light, called bioluminescence, to communicate with their fellow fireflies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers recently identified the key transcription factors that regulate the development of light organs and bioluminescence in the firefly.
About Fireflies:
Fireflies, also known as lightning bugs, are beetles.
They get the names “firefly” and “lightning bug” because of the flashes of light they naturally produce. This phenomenon is called bioluminescence.
There are about 2,000 firefly species.
Distribution: They are found in temperate and tropical regions on every continent except Antarctica.
Features:
They are soft-bodied beetles that range from 5 to 25 mm (up to 1 inch) in length.
Fireflies use their light, called bioluminescence, to light up the ends of their abdomen to communicate with their fellow fireflies. (Animals that produce light are called luminescent).
They have special organs under their abdomens that take in oxygen. Inside special cells, they combine the oxygen with a substance called luciferin to make light with almost no heat.
Each firefly species has its own pattern of light flashing, and males use this pattern to attract females of the same species.
Bioluminescence in fireflies is nearly 100 percent efficient, meaning little energy is wasted to produce their light.
Lifespan: From egg to adulthood, fireflies can live up to a year.
Most fireflies are nocturnal, although some species are diurnal.
They mostly feast on plant pollen and nectar.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-03-transcription-factors-bioluminescence-firefly.html
Sela Tunnel, recently seen in the news, is located in which one of the following States?
Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation :
On the eve of the fourth anniversary of the border conflict with China in eastern Ladakh, Prime Minister is all set to inaugurate the long-awaited Sela Tunnel.
About Sela Tunnel:
It is the longest bi-lane road tunnel in the world, at an altitude above 13,000 feet.
Location: It is located in the West Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh.
It will connect Tezpur, in Assam, with Tawang, in Arunachal Pradesh.
It was built by the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) under Project Vartak, and the tunnel’s construction commenced on April 1, 2019.
Features:
The project comprises two tunnels: Tunnel 1 is 1,003 meters long, and Tunnel 2 is a 1,595-meter twin-tube tunnel.
The project also includes two roads measuring 8.6 km.
The tunnel has been designed for a traffic density of 3,000 cars and 2,000 trucks per day, with a maximum speed of 80 kmph.
Need:
Located near the Sela Pass, this all-weather tunnel was needed because the Balipara-Charidwar-Tawang Road remains closed for a long time every year, courtesy of snowfall and landslides caused by heavy rainfall.
The tunnel is significant as it will provide all-weather connectivity to Tawang, bordering China.
The tunnel will cut down the travel time between Tezpur and Tawang by over an hour.
It will also provide for faster deployment of weapons, soldiers, and equipment to forward areas near the Line of Actual Control (LAC).
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/arunachal-pradesh/explained-the-strategic-importance-of-the-sela-tunnel-in-arunachal-pradesh-2928727
Consider the following statements with reference to the Coral Reef Watch Programme:
- It is an online tool that provides a global analysis of Sea Surface Temperature (SST).
- It is developed by the International Union for Conservation of Nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Coral Reef Watch Programme has warned that the Earth is on the brink of experiencing a fourth global mass coral bleaching event.
It is a free online tool that provides a global analysis of Sea Surface Temperature (SST) and outlooks to identify coral reefs that are at risk of bleaching.
It is offering the world’s only global early-warning system of coral reef ecosystem environmental changes.
It remotely monitors conditions that can cause coral bleaching, disease, and death; delivers information and early warnings in near real-time to extensive and diverse user community; it uses operational climate forecasts to provide outlooks of stressful environmental conditions on coral reefs worldwide.
Its products are primarily Sea Surface Temperature (SST)-based but also incorporate light and ocean color, among other variables.
It has been using remote sensing, modeled, and in situ data to operate a decision support system to help all stakeholders around the world prepare for and respond to coral reef ecosystem stressors, predominantly resulting from climate change and the warming of the Earth’s oceans.
This online tool was developed by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/environment/fourth-global-mass-coral-bleaching-great-barrier-reef-severely-affected-corals-seen-dying-94913
Consider the following statements with reference to the Blue Leaders:
- It is a group of countries working to save the global ocean.
- India is not a member of this group.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Blue Leaders High-Level Event on Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction was held in Belgium.
The Blue Leaders are an ambitious group of countries calling for urgent action to save the global ocean in the face of the climate crisis, overfishing, pollution, and other threats.
The Blue Leaders are committed to two major goals:
Securing a new international target to protect at least 30% of the global ocean through a network of highly and fully protected marine areas by 2030.
The rapid and successful conclusion of a new High Seas Treaty that provides for the establishment of fully and highly protected marine areas in the high seas and strengthens management of human activities outside protected areas.
The first Blue Leaders event took place in New York on the margins of the 2019 United Nations General Assembly and the second in Madrid, Spain during the 2019 UN Climate Change Conference, ‘The Blue COP.’
At each of these events, the Blue Leaders have championed the call to realize the protection of 30% of the ocean by 2030 (30x30) in that they are focused on calling for 30% to be fully and highly protected.
“Fully protected” means that no extractive or destructive activities are allowed and “highly protected” means only light extractive activities, such as subsistence or small-scale fishing with minimal impact, are allowed.
Fully protected ocean parks where extractive, polluting, and destructive human pursuits are banned provide sanctuaries for ocean wildlife.
Member countries: The group of Blue Leaders has 24 countries as its members.
India is not a member of this group.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/environment/countries-hope-to-bring-bbnj-or-high-seas-treaty-into-force-by-2025-only-2-have-ratified-it-so-far-94909
Consider the following statements with reference to the IRIS AI Robot:
- It is powered by Robotics and Generative AI technologies.
- It can speak only English and Hindi language.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A groundbreaking development in education has emerged from Kerala’s Thiruvananthapuram, where a school has introduced India’s first AI teacher robot, Iris.
It is powered by Robotics and Generative AI technologies. Iris boasts a dedicated Intel processor and coprocessor for seamless performance.
Its Android App interface allows users to control and interact with the robot, ensuring a personalized learning experience.
It is not just a passive presence in the classroom but a dynamic voice assistant and interactive learning tool.
It acts as an AI voice-controlled assistant, responding to user queries, providing explanations, and delivering educational content.
It engages users in interactive learning experiences through personalized content generation, quizzes, and interactive activities.
Equipped with a 4-wheel chassis, Iris can move freely within its environment, facilitating interaction with users and navigating through learning spaces.
Its hands, featuring 5 DoF each, enable Iris to manipulate objects, perform demonstrations, and engage in hands-on learning activities.
The robot can teach subjects from nursery to Class 12.
The robot currently speaks three languages - English, Hindi and Malayalam.
It is created by the Maker Labs.
Hence only statement 1 is correct
News: https://www.businesstoday.in/technology/news/story/dressed-in-saree-meet-indias-first-ever-ai-teacher-robot-named-iris-420551-2024-03-07
Consider the following statements regarding the Pritzker Architecture Prize:
- It was instituted by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO in 1945.
- It is granted every year to a living architect for significant contributions to the field.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Japanese architect Riken Yamamoto was declared winner of the 2024 Pritzker Architecture Prize.
It is the highest international award in the field, which is sometimes referred to as the “Architecture Nobel” and “the profession’s highest honor.”
The prize has been awarded every year since its founding in 1979.
It is awarded to a living architect/s for significant achievement.
It was established by the Pritzker family of Chicago through their Hyatt Foundation.
Objective: To honour a living architect whose built work demonstrates talent, vision and commitment, who has produced consistent and significant contributions to humanity and the built environment through the art of architecture”.
The laureate receives $100,000 and also a bronze medallion.
Works of Riken Yamamoto
Yamamoto is the ninth laureate from Japan.
His famous works are the Hiroshima Nishi Fire Station (2000) has a transparent façade and glass walls and floors that allow passersby to look inside.
The Koyasu Elementary School (2018), spacious, open terraces not only make learning the arts — dance, music, painting but also encourage students to interact.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/the-work-of-pritzker-laureate-riken-yamamoto-a-mission-to-defeat-isolation-9201983/
With reference to Parrot fever, consider the following:
- It is caused by bacteria.
- It affects both birds and humans.
- Currently, there is no treatment available for the disease.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
In a recent outbreak parrot fever, has claimed the lives of five individuals across Europe this year.
It is also known as psittacosis.
It is caused by the bacterium Chlamydophila psittaci (C. psittaci).
The bacteria can infect many mammals — including dogs, cats and horses — but most often infects birds.
It primarily affects birds but can be transmitted to humans through inhalation of contaminated particles from feathers or droppings.
The disease is more common in people who come into close contact with birds — such as poultry workers, veterinarians and pet-bird owners.
Humans can catch psittacosis by inhaling airborne particles containing C. psittaci, but human-to-human transmission of the disease is very rare, with only a handful of cases ever reported.
Symptoms: Includes fever, headache, muscle pains, coughing, difficulty breathing, and symptoms resembling pneumonia.
Severe cases may lead to complications such as myocarditis or other neurological symptoms.
Treatment: Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or tetracycline, administered orally for two to three weeks.
Supportive care, including over-the-counter medications for symptomatic relief and maintaining proper hygiene practices, is also crucial for recovery.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/parrot-fever-heres-all-you-should-know-about-the-deadly-disease-that-has-claimed-five-lives-in-europe/articleshow/108325551.cms?from=mdr
The ‘Gulf of Tonkin Incident’ is related to which one of the following?
Vietnam War
Explanation :
China has officially disclosed a new baseline outlining its territorial claims in the northern part of the Gulf of Tonkin, an area shared with Vietnam.
About Gulf of Tonkin:
It is a crescent-shaped, shallow, semi-enclosed water body situated in the South China Sea’s northwestern portion.
Borders: The gulf is bordered by the northern coastline of Vietnam in the west and northwest; by China’s Guangxi Zhuang Autonomous Region in the north; and by the Leizhou Peninsula and Hainan Island in the east.
It is referred to as “Beibu Gulf” in Chinese and “Bac Bo Gulf” in Vietnamese.
Many rivers empty into the Gulf of Tonkin, with the Red River (Yuan River in Chinese) supplying the major riverine discharge along with some smaller rivers.
It is connected with the South China Sea via the gulf’s mouth in the south and the Hainan Strait (Qiongzhou Strait) in the northeast.
Major Ports: In Northern Vietnam, the gulf’s main ports include Haiphong and Ben Thuy, whereas, in China, its major port is Beihai (Pakhoi).
The Gulf of Tonkin is best known for the infamous “Gulf of Tonkin Incident”.
It was a complex naval event in the Gulf of Tonkin, off the coast of Vietnam, that occurred from August 2 to August 4, 1964, during the Vietnam War.
The report of North Vietnamese torpedo boats firing on two U.S. destroyers in 1964 resulted in the U.S. Congress adopting the Gulf of Tonkin Resolution to support increased U.S. troop involvement in the Vietnam War.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.eurasiantimes.com/after-philippines-china-schemes-to-encroach/#google_vignette
With reference to the Right against Self-Incrimination in India, consider the following statements:
- Under this right, no person can be compelled to be a witness to support a prosecution against himself.
- It cannot be applied in cases where an object or document is searched or seized from the possession of the accused.
- This immunity is available in both civil and criminal proceedings.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Cooperating with police probe does not mean that the accused is obligated to make self-incriminating statements, the Supreme Court said recently.
What is Self-Incrimination?
A declaration or an act that occurs during an investigation where a person or witness incriminates themselves either explicitly or implicitly is known as self-incrimination.
In simpler words, it is the act of implicating or exposing one’s own self to criminal prosecution.
Right against Self-Incrimination in India:
The Indian Constitution provides immunity to an accused against self-incrimination under Article 20(3): ‘No person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself’.
It is based on the legal maxim “nemo teneteur prodre accussare seipsum”, which means “No man is obliged to be a witness against himself.”
Features of Article 20(3):
A person accused of any offence would be presumed to be innocent unless proven guilty.
The burden of proving the accused guilty lies with the prosecution.
The accused is not required to make any statement against his own will.
The Supreme Court (SC) widened the scope of this immunity by interpreting the word ‘witness’ to include oral as well as documentary evidence so that no person can be compelled to be a witness to support a prosecution against himself.
This prohibition cannot be applied in cases where an object or document is searched or seized from the possession of the accused.
For the same reason, the clause does not bar the medical examination of the accused or the obtaining of a thumb impression or specimen signature from him.
This immunity is available only in criminal proceedings.
The SC has made it clear that in order to claim this immunity from being compelled to make a self-incriminating statement, it is necessary that a formal accusation must have been made against the person at the time of interrogation.
He cannot claim immunity at some general inquiry or investigation on the ground that his statement may, at some later stage, lead to an accusation.
The compulsory administration of the narco-analysis technique amounts to ‘testimonial compulsion’ and thereby triggers the protection of Article 20(3) of the Constitution.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.barandbench.com/news/participation-probe-self-incriminating-statement-supreme-court
Right to Repair Portal, recently seen in the news, is an initiative of which one of the following ministries?
Ministry of Consumer Affairs
Explanation :
The stakeholders meeting on Right to Repair Portal India was held recently.
About Right to Repair Portal:
The Ministry of Consumer Affairs (MCA) has launched the Right to Repair Portal India (https://righttorepairindia.gov.in/) to provide consumers with access to repair information for their products and reduce e-waste.
The launch was made on the occasion of National Consumer Rights Day 2022.
Features:
It provides information about the circular economy, which is the new economic model that focuses on repairing and reusing products, as opposed to throwing them away.
The portal brings together information from different sectors, including automobiles, consumer durables, mobile and electronics, and farming equipment.
All public information related to products, services, warranties, terms, and conditions, etc. will also be easily accessible through this portal.
It gives consumers access to affordable repair mobile phones, appliances, and other electronic devices by original equipment manufacturers (OEMs) or third-party repairers.
The aim is to offer a cheaper alternative to expensive replacements to customers, instead of buying new products altogether.
The portal will carry information for enabling consumers to self-repair, knowing about authorized repairers, and promoting third party repairers.
It will also benefit small repair shops, as a list of authorised third-party repairs will be provided.
The portal also allows consumers to submit feedback and suggestions on products and services.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://indiacsr.in/department-of-consumer-affairs-conducts-stakeholders/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Shankaracharya Temple:
- It is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Shiva.
- It was built by Chola ruler, Rajendra I.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Devotees recently thronged Shankaracharya Temple in Srinagar to celebrate Maha Shivratri.
About Shankaracharya Temple:
The Shankaracharya Temple in Srinagar, located on top of the Shankaracharya Hill, is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Shiva and is one of the oldest shrines in Kashmir.
The temple dates back to 200 BC, however present structure was probably constructed in 9th Century AD.
It is said that the temple was originally built by Jaluka, the son of Emperor Ashoka, a follower of Buddhist religion; and hence, the temple is also regarded as sacred by the Buddhist people, and they called this temple as Pas-Pahar.
Also known as Jyesteshwara Temple, the temple is named after the great philosopher Shankaracharya who is believed to have visited Srinagar about ten centuries ago.
The Shiva Linga he worshipped is located in the temple.
It is believed that Adi Shankaracharya attained spiritual enlightenment at this place, and it was after this enlightenment that he went out and formed the four Hindu schools of Advaita, or the philosophy of non-dualism.
Features:
The temple’s architecture reflects a blend of Hindu and Buddhist styles and boasts intricate carvings that depict various mythological stories.
The early Shihara styleis prominently evident in the building design and is indicative of a horseshoe arch type of pattern.
The temple sits on a solid rock and is constructed on a high octagonal platform that is approachable by a flight of around 243 steps.
It is at a height of 1100 ft.
The main sanctum sanctorum houses a black stone idol of Lord Shiva along with other deities.
The top of the temple affords a sweeping view of the valley below.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.aninews.in/news/national/general-news/j-k-devotees-throng-shankaracharya-temple-in-srinagar-to-celebrate-maha-shivratri20240308132009/
Consider the following statements with reference to mumps:
- It is a contagious disease caused by a bacterium.
- It only affects cattle and cannot be transmitted to humans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Kerala is facing an outbreak of mumps, with over 10,000 children affected in less than 70 days.
About Mumps:
Mumps is a contagious disease caused by the mumps virus, which belongs to a group of viruses known as paramyxoviruses.
The illness starts with mild symptoms such as headache, fever, and fatigue. But then it typically leads to severe swelling in certain salivary glands (parotitis) that causes puffy cheeks and a tender, swollen jaw.
Transmission: Humans are the only known host for the mumps virus, which is spread via direct contact or by airborne droplets from the upper respiratory tract of infected individuals.
Who does mumps affect?
Mumps most commonly affects children between the ages of 2 to 12 who haven’t received the mumps vaccine.
However, adolescents and adults can get mumps despite being vaccinated against it. This occurs because there’s waning immunity to the vaccine after several years.
Incubation Period: The average incubation period for mumps is 16 to 18 days, with a range of 12 to 25 days.
Symptoms: Many children have no or very mild symptoms. The following are the most common symptoms of mumps that may be seen in both adults and children:
Discomfort in the salivary glands (in the front of the neck) or the parotid glands (immediately in front of the ears). Either of these glands may become swollen and tender.
Difficulty chewing
Pain and tenderness of the testicles
Fever
Headache
Muscle aches
Tiredness
Loss of appetite
Treatment: There is no specific treatment for mumps. The various symptoms may be relieved with medicines.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/kerala/2024/Mar/09/10000-cases-in-70-days-kerala-now-has-a-mumps-outbreak
Consider the following statements regarding the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft:
- It is India’s fifth-generation fighter multirole fighter jet.
- It will have low electro-magnetic signature, which make it difficult for enemy radar to detect it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) cleared a Rs 15,000 crore project to design and develop the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA).
It is India’s fifth-generation fighter multirole fighter jet.
Features
It will have advanced stealth features to avoid detection by enemy radar.
Fuel and Weapon: The aircraft will have a large, concealed internal fuel tank of 6.5-tonne capacity, and an internal weapons bay for a range of weapons, including indigenous weapons.
Engine: The AMCA Mk1 variant will have the US-built GE414 engine of the 90 kilonewton (kN) class, while the more advanced AMCA Mk2 will fly on the more powerful 110kN engine, which will be developed indigenously by DRDO’s Gas Turbine Research Establishment (GTRE) in collaboration with a foreign defence major.
The aircraft will have a low electro-magnetic signature, which will make it difficult for enemy radar to detected it.
At the same time, it will have powerful sensors and new weapons, so it is able to register the signature of enemy aircraft and take them out.
The Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) under the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) will be the nodal agency for executing the programme and designing the aircraft.
It will be manufactured by state-owned Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/india-indigenous-fifth-gen-fighter-jet-amca-9204814/
Consider the following statements regarding the District Institutes of Education and Training:
- These are designed to provide quality training and support to teachers and teacher educators.
- These are established as a result of the National Policy on Education 2020.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Union Minister of Education and Skill Development & Entrepreneurship launched various initiatives namely, DIETS of Excellence and National Mission for Mentoring (NMM) in School and Teacher Education, developed by the Department of School Education & Literacy (DoSEL).
To strengthen teacher training, the District Institutes of Education and Training (DIET) will be developed into centres of excellence.
Funding: Financial assistance, totalling to Rs 9000 crores, will be provided to States/UTs for the physical upgradation of all 613 District Institutes of Education and Training (DIETs) to develop them as DIET of Excellence in the country in a phased manner in the next five years.
Upto Rs. 15 Crore per DIET will be provided under the Centrally Sponsored Scheme of Samagra Shiksha for improving various infrastructural facilities.
What are DIETS?
It is an integral part of India’s education system.
It was established in every district of India as a result of the National Policy on Education 1986.
DIETs were designed to provide quality training and support to teachers, teacher educators, and other educational personnel.
The National Policy on Education 1986 was the first step towards achieving this goal.
They were intended to serve as a hub of academic excellence and professional development.
The initial focus of DIETs was on providing pre-service and in-service training to teachers and teacher educators.
They work closely with schools to identify the specific needs of students and develop teaching strategies that cater to those needs.
They also work with the State Council of Educational Research and Training (SCERT) to develop curriculum frameworks that are aligned with national education policies.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2013066
Inflection 2.5, recently in news, is a:
Large Language Model
Explanation :
Recently, Inflection AI company launched its latest LLM, Inflection 2.5, an upgrade to its model that powers its friendly chatbot Pi personal assistant.
It is an “upgraded in-house model that is competitive with all the world’s leading LLMs.
The newly upgraded Large Language Model comes with its signature personality and uniquely empathetic fine-tuning.
It has made some stellar strides in areas of IQ such as coding and mathematics.
With the new upgrade, Pi has now been endowed with world-class real-time web search capabilities to ensure that users get access to high-quality and up-to-date information in real time.
The new LLM, users are talking to the Pi chatbot about a wider range of topics including discussing current events, getting local restaurant recommendations, studying for a biology exam, drafting business plans, coding, and even fun discussions on hobbies.
What is PI chatbot?
Pi is an AI chatbot with which one can have deep and meaningful conversations.
To access the chatbot, one needs to log on to Inflection.AI, click on Meet Pi, and simply start talking to the chatbot right away.
It is more humane and has been promoted as a chatbot that has a personality.
It is more like a companion to humans and is free to use.
The chatbot comes with a voice, in six distinct voices, to choose from adding life to conversations.
The chatbot has been shown billions of lines of text on the open web.
This allows Pi to have conversations with users and answer a wide variety of questions, according to the company.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/pi-chatbot-powered-inflection-llm-9205004/
Consider the following statements with reference to the gold nanoparticles:
- They have large surface-to-volume ratios and the ability to quench fluorescence.
- They have excellent biocompatibility and low toxicity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Experts recently said that Gold nanoparticles used in medicines and beauty products may not only protect the skin from external infestations but can also help arrest the effects of ageing.
Gold nanoparticles (AuNPs) are small gold particles with a diameter of 1 to 100 nm.
Once dispersed in water, AuNPs are also known as colloidal gold.
These are also called as ‘gold bhasma,’
Properties
Spherical AuNPs possess useful attributes such as size- and shape-related optoelectronic properties, large surface-to-volume ratio, excellent biocompatibility and low toxicity.
Important physical properties of AuNPs include surface plasmon resonance (SPR) and the ability to quench fluorescence.
Spherical AuNPs exhibit a range of colors (e.g., brown, orange, red and purple) in aqueous solution as the core size increases from 1 to 100 nm.
These are not – toxic, not phototoxic, not genotoxic, non-irritant and non-sensitizing
Applications
Electronics: Gold nanoparticles are designed for use as conductors from printable inks to electronic chips. Nanoscale gold nanoparticles are being used to connect resistors, conductors, and other elements of an electronic chip.
Photodynamic Therapy: Near-IR absorbing gold nanoparticles produce heat when excited by light at wavelengths from 700 to 800 nm. This enables these nanoparticles to eradicate targeted tumors.
Therapeutic Agent Delivery: Therapeutic agents can also be coated onto the surface of gold nanoparticles. The large surface area-to-volume ratio of gold nanoparticles enables their surface to be coated with hundreds of molecules
Sensors – These are used in a variety of sensors. For example, a colorimetric sensor based on gold nanoparticles can identify if foods are suitable for consumption.
Diagnostics: These are also used to detect biomarkers in the diagnosis of heart diseases, cancers, and infectious agents.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/healthcare/biotech/healthcare/gold-nanoparticles-can-help-arrest-ageing-experts/articleshow/108329282.cms?from=mdr
With reference to Golden Langurs, consider the following statements:
- It is found exclusively in the Western Ghats of India.
- Its fur changes colours according to the seasons.
- It is listed as an ‘endangered species’ in the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
According to the comprehensive population estimation by the Primate Research Centre NE India (PRCNE), Assam Forest Department, Bodoland Territorial Council, Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History (SACON), and Conservation Himalayas there are an estimated 7,396 golden langurs in India.
It can be most easily recognized by the color of their fur, after which they are named.
It has been noted that their fur changes colors according to the seasons.
The color of the young also differs from adults in that they are almost pure white.
Geographic Range:
It is limited to Assam, India and neighboring Bhutan where they live year-round.
The area they inhabit is restricted to the region surrounded by four geographical landmarks: the foothills of Bhutan (north), Manas river (east), Sankosh river (west), and Brahmaputra river (south).
Habitat
They occupy moist evergreen and tropical deciduous forests as well as some riverine areas and savannas in Assam and Bhutan.
They are very much dependent on trees, living in the upper canopy of sub-tropical forests in the south and in more temperate forests in the north.
They may be found at elevations close to sea level in the south and up to 3000 m at the foothills of Bhutan in the north.
Conservation status
IUCN: Endangered
CITES: Appendix I
Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 : Schedule I
Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/indias-golden-langur-population-estimated-at-7396/article67931902.ece
International Boundary
:
Countries involved
Explanation :
The Durand Line: It is a boundary established in the Hindu Kush in 1893 running through the tribal lands between Afghanistan and British India. In modern times it has marked the border between Afghanistan and Pakistan. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
McMahon Line: The McMahon Line is a geographical border between Northeast India and Tibet, coined by Henry MacMahon at the 1914 Simla Convention. It is named after Henry McMahon, who was the foreign secretary of British India and the chief negotiator of the convention at Simla. The proposal was signed by McMahon and Lonchen Satra on behalf of the Tibetan Government. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Johnson Line: It is a boundary line between India and China in the western sector that was proposed by the British in the 1860s. It extends up to the Kunlun Mountains and puts Aksai Chin in the then princely state of Jammu and Kashmir. Independent India used the Johnson Line as a boundary between India and China while China rejected it. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
McDonald Line: It was a proposed boundary between India and China, by the British Indian Government to China in 1899. So, pair 4 is not correctly matched.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Channel
:
Separates
Explanation :
The Great Channel in the Indian Ocean separates the Great Nicobar Island of India and Aceh Province of Indonesia. It is known as the ‘Six Degree Channel’ because it is six degrees north of the equator. The Great Channel spans 163 kilometers (88 nautical miles) between Indira Point in Great Nicobar and Rondo Island in Aceh Province, Indonesia. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
The Eight Degree Channel serves as India’s and the Maldives’ maritime border. It separates the Maldives and the Minicoy Islands. It gets its name from its location north of the equator on the 8-degree latitude line. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
The Nine Degree Channel is an Indian Ocean channel that connects the Laccadive Islands of Kalpeni and Suheli Par, as well as Maliku Atoll. Lakshadweep and Minicoy are separated by the Nine Degree Channel. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (c) is the answer.
Himalayan Pass
Connecting places
Explanation :
Shipki La Pass is present in Himachal Pradesh. It is located in Kinnaur district in Himachal Pradesh and Ngari Prefecture in Tibet, China. The pass is one of India’s border posts for trade with Tibet along with Nathu La Pass in Sikkim, and Lipulekh Pass in Uttarakhand. So, pair 1 is correctly matched
Zoji La is a mountain pass at an elevation of 3.528m (11575ft) above the sea level, located in the Kargil district of Ladakh, in India. Zojila Pass connects Ladakh to Srinagar and the rest of India. Currently, the Zojila tunnel between Baltal and Minamarg on the Srinagar-Leh section is under construction and is expected to be completed by 2024. Once completed, the tunnel will provide all-year connectivity between Leh and Srinagar. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Nathu La is a mountain pass on the Dongkya Range that separates Sikkim and the Chumbi Valley at an elevation of 14,250 feet (4,340 m). It is one of the highest motorable roads in the world and it connects Sikkim and China. The Chumbi river flows through his pass. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Khardung La connects Leh and Nubra Valley and also serves as a gateway to the famous Siachen Glacier. Historically it was a major caravan route from Leh in India to Kashgar in Central Asia. So, pair 4 is correctly matched.
Galwan valley is situated to the:
South-East of Siachen
Explanation :
The Galwan valley refers to the land that sits between steep mountains that buffet the Galwan River. The river has its source in Aksai Chin, on China’s side of the LAC, and it flows from the east to Ladakh, where it meets the Shyok river on India’s side of the LAC.
The valley is strategically located between Ladakh in the west and Aksai Chin in the east, which is currently controlled by China as part of its Xinjiang Uyghur Autonomous Region. At its western end are the Shyok river and the Darbuk-Shyok-Daulet Beg Oldie (DSDBO) road.
Pangong Tso or Pangong Lake is an endorheic lake spanning eastern Ladakh and West Tibet situated at an elevation of 4,225 m. It is divided into five sub lakes, called Pangong Tso, Tso Nyak, Rum Tso and Nyak Tso. It is located to the south of Galwan valley.
Kargil is situated roughly at equal distance(200KM) from Srinagar, Leh , Padum Zanskar and Skardo Baltistan. It is located to the west of Galwan valley.
The Siachen Glacier is a glacier located in the eastern Karakoram range in the Himalayas. Galwan valley is located to the southeast of Siachen Glacier. It is the Second-Longest glacier in the World’s Non-Polar areas.
The Kalapani territory is an area under Indian administration as part of Pithoragarh district in the Kumaon Division of the Uttarakhand state, but it is also claimed by Nepal since 1997.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Glacier
State
Explanation :
The Dokriani glacier also referred to as “Bamak ‘’ by the locals is a medium sized glacier of the Bhagirathi basin in Uttarakhand. This glacier is formed by the two cirques, originating at the northern slope of the Draupadi Ka Danda perched at 5,600 m and Jaoni Peak at 6,000 m respectively. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
The Pensilungpa Glacier (PG), located in Zanskar, Ladakh, is retreating, and a recent study has attributed the retreat to an increase in the temperature and a decrease in precipitation during winters. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
The enormous Chorabari Glacier also known as Chorabari Bamak Glacier is situated in the Garhwal Himalayas of Uttarakhand. One of the two snouts of this glacier serves as a prominent source for the Mandakini River, which is a tributary of the Alaknanda River. The other snout at 3,835 meters about 12,582 feet above sea level drains into Chorabari tal. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Durung Drung Glacier is located in Jammu and Kashmir’s Kargil district, close to the Pensi La Pass Mountains on the Zanskar Road. It is approximately 14500 feet above sea level. This glacier is located in the north-eastern Himalayan range and is surrounded by long rivers of snow and ice. This is also a source for the Stod River and a tributary of the Zanskar River. So, pair 4 is not correctly matched.
Arrange the following geographical formations in India from north to south:
- Aravalli range
- Ajanta range
- Malwa plateau
- Satpura range
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1-3-4-2
Explanation :
Aravalli Range, the hill system of northern India, runs northeasterly for 350 miles (560 km) through Rajasthan state. Isolated rocky offshoots continue to just south of Delhi.
Malwa Plateau, plateau region in north-central India. It is bounded by the Madhya Bharat Plateau and Bundelkhand Upland to the north, the Vindhya Range to the east and south, and the Gujarat Plains to the west. Of volcanic origin, the plateau comprises central Madhya Pradesh state and southeastern Rajasthan state.
Satpura Range, range of hills, part of the Deccan plateau, western India. The hills stretch for some 560 miles (900 km) across the widest part of peninsular India, through Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh states. The range, the name of which means “Seven Folds,” forms the watershed between the Narmada (north) and Tapti (south) rivers.
Ajanta range (Ajanta Hills) is a hill in the State of Maharashtra, India. It is located at an elevation of 694 meters above sea level.
Which one of the following rivers in India cuts the Tropic of Cancer twice?
Mahi
Explanation :
The Mahi basin extends over states of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Gujrat. It is bounded by Aravalli hills on the north and the north-west, by Malwa Plateau on the east, by the Vindhyas on the south and by the Gulf of Khambhat on the west. Mahi is one of the major interstate west flowing rivers of India.
Mahi River is the only river in India that cuts the Tropic of Cancer twice, first in Madhya Pradesh from where it flows towards Rajasthan and enters Gujarat where it cuts for the second time.
Doab
Location between
Explanation :
Doab is a Persian term which means ‘Between the Two’. Doab in the context of Punjabi language is interpreted as the area between the two rivers. The plains of Punjab are divided into Panch-doabs (doabs of five rivers) which have special names-
Bist Doab: Between Satluj and Beas rivers. So, Pair 1 is correctly matched.
Sindh Sagar Doab: Between Jhelum and Indus rivers. So, Pair 2 is correctly matched.
Rachna Doab: Between Ravi and Chenab rivers. So, Pair 3 is correctly matched.
Chhaj Doab: Between Chenab and Jhelum rivers. So, Pair 4 is not correctly matched.
Bari Doab: Between Beas and Ravi rivers.
You and your friend decide to go on a river rafting trip on the Brahmaputra River from Arunachal Pradesh to Assam. In this context, consider the following statements:
- As you enter Assam, you would cross the Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere reserve.
- Later, you would cross the Kaziranga National Park, before reaching the Dibrugarh oil refinery.
- Going downstream, you will find the Deepor Beel Ramsar site to the south of the Brahmaputra.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Dibru-Saikhowa National Park is a national park located in Dibrugarh and Tinsukia districts of Assam, India. It was designated a Biosphere Reserve in July 1997. As you travel from Arunachal Pradesh to Assam, you will cross this first. So, statement 1 is correct.https://lh7-us.googleusercontent.com/zMun2auEtghBoXpCk7Zpi5UNkdLedZEYl5gTQOyGVAY5NYeWXoCsIe8o67yzcWTMOqAh8ul4xiTWwexg23PqnMo_pd_0lkFVWX305u_DnkE1pC_mWyYHa4AYe0xLTCZjbIbrlvkxZMgiCg_MvJs38-o
Kaziranga National Park is a national park in the Golaghat, Karbi Anglong and Nagaon districts of the state of Assam, India. The sanctuary, which hosts two-thirds of the world’s great one-horned rhinoceroses, is a World Heritage Site. Along the Brahmaputra River, Dibrugarh is located upstream as compared to Kaziranga National Park, as is clear from the map above. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Deepor Beel is located to the south-west of Guwahati city, in Kamrup (on map) Metropolitan district of Assam, India. It is a permanent freshwater lake and a former channel of the Brahmaputra River, to the south of the main river. It is also a designated wetland under the Ramsar Convention. Manas river joins the Brahmaputra further downstream as compared to the Deepor Beel. So, statement 3 is correct.
https://vajiramandravi.s3.us-east-1.amazonaws.com/media/word_images/65ec4d008a1978059f3e53d0.png
Consider the following statements:
- Kushiyara is a distributary of the Barak River.
- The Barak River flows through Manipur, Nagaland and Mizoram.
- The Kushiyara River forms the boundary between India and Bangladesh.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Kushiyara River is a distributary of the Barak River which originates in the uplands of Assam and flows through it, and then on to Bangladesh. It forms on the India-Bangladesh border as a branch of the Barak River, when the Barak separates into the Kushiyara and Surma. So, statement 1 is correct.
Barak River rises in Manipur and is part of the Surma-Meghna River System. It flows in the states of Manipur, Nagaland, Mizoram and Assam. It drains into the Bay of Bengal after flowing through Bangladesh. So, statement 2 is correct.
From its origin at the mouth of the Barak, also known as the Amshid bifurcation point, the Kushiyara River flows westward forming the boundary between Assam in India, and the Sylhet District of Bangladesh. So, statement 3 is correct.
Which one of the following is the primary reason for excluding food and energy prices from core inflation calculation?
Their prices can be too volatile or fluctuate wildly.
Explanation :
Core inflation is likely to remain low, around 3% in the near term, owing to weak rural demand, softness in housing inflation, and lower input cost pressures, according to economists.
About Core Inflation:
It is the change in the costs of goods and services excluding the price variations in seasonal elements, such as those related to food and energy.
Food and energy prices are exempt from this calculation because their prices can be too volatile or fluctuate wildly.
Core inflation represents the long-term trend in the price level.
Why is it important?
It is used to determine the impact of rising prices on consumer income.
To deal with such situations, many central banks use measures of core inflation that are designed to filter transitory price movements.
If the increase in the price index is due to temporary shocks that could soon reverse themselves, it may not require any monetary policy action.
On the other hand, prices of other commodities do not fluctuate as regularly as those of food and fuel: as such, increase in their prices could be taken relatively to be much more of a permanent nature.
It follows logically for Central Banks to target only core inflation, as it reflects the demand-side pressure in the economy.
Core inflation, by eliminating the volatile components from the headline helps in identifying the underlying trend in headline inflation and is believed to predict future inflation better.
It is a convenient guide to help the central bank achieve its objective of controlling total inflation.
Whenever core inflation rises, Central Banks increase their key policy rates to suck excess liquidity from the market, and vice versa. It is, therefore, a preferred tool for framing long-term policy.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/indicators/core-inflation-to-stay-around-3-till-q1-fy25-economists/articleshow/108185502.cms?from=mdr
With reference to sponge iron, consider the following statements:
- It is produced from the direct reduction of iron ore by a reducing gas.
- It is used as a substitute for scrap in induction and electrical furnaces in the steel industry.
- India is the world’s largest producer of sponge iron.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The domestic sponge iron manufacturers fear a continuous shortage of iron ore may bring them to the brink of collapse.
About Sponge Iron:
Direct-reduced iron (DRI), also called sponge iron, is produced from the direct reduction of iron ore (in the form of lumps, pellets, or fines) by a reducing gas produced from natural gas or coal.
The reducing gas is a mixture, the majority of which is hydrogen (H2) and carbon monoxide (CO), which act as reducing agents.
This process of reducing the iron ore in solid form by reducing gases is called direct reduction.
Why is it called Sponge Iron?
The process of sponge iron manufacturing involves the removal of oxygen from iron ore.
When that happens, the departing oxygen causes micropores in the ore body, turning it porous.
When the eventual product is observed under a microscope, it resembles a honeycomb structure, which looks spongy in texture. Hence the name sponge iron.
Significance:
Its significance in the steel industry ranges from an alternative to scrap to boosting furnace efficiency.
It is used as a substitute for scrap in induction and electrical furnaces.
The reason for this is that melting scrap is expensive and also in short supply, so sponge iron is the perfect alternative when it comes to using it in the production of high-quality steel.
It is an iron source that is relatively uniform in composition, and virtually free from tramp elements.
India is the world’s largest producer of sponge iron, most of which is produced primarily through the coal-based method of production. India produces 20% of the world’s sponge iron with over 200 plants.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/industry-ore-shortage-hitting-steel-production-says-sponge-iron-industry-seeks-ban-on-exports-3420528/
Yaounde Declaration, recently seen in the news, is related to which one of the following issues?
Malaria eradication
Explanation :
Ministers of Health from African countries with the highest burden of malaria recently signed the Yaounde Declaration with the objective of ending malaria deaths.
About Yaounde Declaration:
It was signed by the health ministers of 11 African countries with the highest burden of malaria, committing to accelerated action to end deaths from the malaria disease.
It was signed at the Yaoundé conference, co-hosted by the World Health Organization (WHO) and the Government of Cameroon.
The conference gathered Ministers of Health, global malaria partners, funding agencies, scientists, civil society organizations, and other principal malaria stakeholders.
The 11 countries that signed the declaration are: Burkina Faso, Cameroon, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Ghana, Mali, Mozambique, Niger, Nigeria, Sudan, Uganda and Tanzania. These countries carry roughly 70% of the global malaria burden.
They pledged to sustainably and equitably address the threat of malaria in the African region, which accounts for 95% of malaria deaths globally.
They committed to provide stronger leadership and increased domestic funding for malaria control programmes; to ensure further investment in data technology; to apply the latest technical guidance in malaria control and elimination; and to enhance malaria control efforts at the national and sub-national levels.
The ministers further pledged to increase health sector investments to bolster infrastructure, personnel, and programme implementation; to enhance multi-sectoral collaboration; and to build partnerships for funding, research, and innovation.
In signing the declaration, they expressed their “unwavering commitment to the accelerated reduction of malaria mortality” and “to hold each other and our countries accountable for the commitments outlined in this declaration.”
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/world/yaounde-declaration-health-ministers-of-11-african-countries-commit-to-end-malaria-deaths-94922
With reference to Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), consider the following statements:
- They were established on the recommendations of the Narasimham Committee.
- RBI has set a Priority Sector Lending (PSL) target of 40% of total outstanding advances for RRBs.
- The Chairman of these banks are nominated by the Central Government.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The most critical issue of the 2019 amalgamation of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) was that of technology, systems and procedures, as different banks followed different systems and procedures despite the same core banking platform, says a new book.
About Regional Rural Banks (RRBs):
RRBs are banks formed in collaboration by the Central Government, State Governments, and Sponsoring Commercial Banks to give loans to rural areas.
Their mission is to fulfill the credit needs of the relatively unserved sections in rural areas: small and marginal farmers, agricultural labourers, and socio-economically weaker sections.
The RRBs mobilize financial resources from rural / semi-urban areas and grant loans and advances mostly to small and marginal farmers, agricultural labourers, and rural artisans.
Origin:
The Narasimham Committee on Rural Credit (1975) recommended the establishment of RRBs.
The establishment of RRBs finds its route in the ordinance passed on 26th September 1975, and the RRB Act of 1976.
Prathama Grameen Bank was the first RRB bank and was established on 2nd October 1975.
RRBs were configured as hybrid micro banking institutions, combining the local orientation and small-scale lending culture of the cooperatives with the business culture of commercial banks.
RRBs perform various functions in the following heads:
Providing banking facilities to rural and semi-urban areas.
Carrying out government operations like the disbursement of wages of MGNREGA workers, distribution of pension, etc.
Providing Para-Banking facilities like locker facilities, debit and credit cards, mobile banking, internet banking, UPI etc.
The RBI has set a Priority Sector Lending (PSL) target of 75% of total outstanding advances for RRBs as against 40% for Scheduled Commercial Banks.
Ownership: The shareholding pattern of RRBs among the three sponsoring entities is 50:35:15 among the central government, sponsoring bank, and state government, respectively.
The area of operation of RRBs is limited to the area as notified by the Government of India, covering one or more districts in the State.
Regulation: Regional Rural Banks are regulated by the RBI and supervised by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).
Sources of Funds: It comprise of owned funds, deposits, borrowings from NABARD, Sponsor Banks and other sources, including SIDBI and the National Housing Bank.
Management: The Board of Directors manages these banks, overall affairs, which consists of one Chairman, three Directors as nominated by the Central Government, a maximum of two Directors as nominated by the concerned State Government, and a maximum of three Directors as nominated by the sponsor bank.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.theweek.in/wire-updates/business/2024/03/08/lst4-book-banking.html
Consider the following statements regarding Samudrayaan Mission:
- It is India’s first manned mission to explore the deep ocean.
- The Ministry of Science and Technology is the nodal ministry to implement this mission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT) has completed a key test for India’s first manned submersible mission called Samudrayaan, the earth sciences ministry said recently.
About Samudrayaan Mission:
It is India’s first manned mission to explore the deep ocean.
It is aimed to develop a self-propelled manned submersible to carry three human beings to a water depth of 6,000 meters in the ocean with a suite of scientific sensors and tools for deep ocean exploration.
It is designed to study the deep ocean resources and conduct biodiversity assessments as well.
The mission will not disturb the ecosystem as the submersible is used solely for exploration purposes.
The project is part of the larger Deep Ocean Mission, which supports the Central Government’s Blue Economy policy.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES)
What is MATSYA 6000?
It is a manned submersible vehicle developed by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), Chennai.
It was developed under the Samudrayaan mission to facilitate humans in the deep ocean in exploring mineral resources.
It has an endurance of 12 hours of operational period and 96 hours in case of emergency.
It will allow scientific personnel to observe and understand unexplored deep-sea areas by direct interventions. Further, it will enhance the capability for deep-sea man-rated vehicle development.
Expected to be launched in 2024-25, it would make India only one among six countries (US, Russia, Japan, France, and China) to have piloted a crewed under-sea expedition beyond 5,000 metres.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/samudrayaans-key-test-is-complete-says-govt-101710011020012.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Self Help Group – Bank Linkage Programme:
- It was launched by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).
- It aims to provide financial services to unreached and underserved poor households.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Prime Minister of India on 11th March will disburse around Rs 8,000 crore Bank loans to Self Help Groups (SHGs) at subsidised interest rate through Bank Linkage Camps set up by Banks in each district.
It was launched by NABARD in 1992 which has blossomed into the world’s largest microfinance project.
It has evolved as a cost-effective mechanism for providing financial services to unreached and underserved poor households.
The components of Self Help Group (SHG) Bank linkage (BL) are as follows:
Training and sensitization of Bank Branch Managers
Training and positioning of Bank Sakhis at Rural Bank Branches
Initiate Community Based Repayment Mechanism (CBRM) at Rural Bank Branches
Credit Linkage of SHGs
What are Self-Help Groups?
These are small, informal, and voluntary associations of individuals, usually from similar socio-economic backgrounds, who come together to address common social and economic needs.
SHGs are primarily focused on empowering their members, particularly women, through mutual support, collective decision-making, and skill development.
The SHGs which follow ‘Panchsutras’ viz. conduct of regular group meetings, regular savings within the group, internal lending based on the demand of members, timely repayment of loan and maintenance of proper books of accounts are considered to be of good quality and over years have proved themselves to be good customers of Banks.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2013130
Consider the following statements with reference to the Academy Awards:
- These are given annually by the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences.
- They were first presented in the year 1929.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the highly anticipated 96th Academy Awards ceremony concluded with flair at the Ovation Hollywood in Los Angeles.
These awards are popularly known as the Oscars given for artistic and technical merit in the film industry.
These are given annually by the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences (AMPAS).
The awards are an international recognition of excellence in cinematic achievements.
The awards were first presented in 1929, and winners receive a gold-plated statuette commonly called Oscar.
The various category winners are awarded a copy of a golden statuette, officially called the “Academy Award of Merit”.
Winners are chosen from the 24 categories: best picture, actor, actress, supporting actor, supporting actress, directing, original screenplay and adapted screenplay etc.
Nomination: Only members of the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences may nominate and vote for candidates for the Oscars.
The academy is divided into various branches of film production, and the nominees in each award category are chosen by the members of the corresponding branch.
The entire academy membership nominates the candidates for best picture and votes to determine the winners in most of the categories.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/entertainment/hollywood/oscars-2024-live-updates-96th-academy-awards-oppenheimer-christopher-nolan-9206159/
The Second Thomas Shoal reef, recently in news, is located in:
South China Sea
Explanation :
A recent incident in the Second Thomas Shoal area, where the Philippines claims that China Coast Guard ships caused two collisions with their boats and water cannoned one of them, has renewed global interest in the flashpoint.
It is a submerged reef located in the Spratly Islands in the South China Sea.
The Philippines first took possession of the Second Thomas Shoal in the late 1990s, setting an outpost on the drowned BRP Sierra Madre.
This Second World War-era ship was intentionally grounded by the Philippines to create an outpost for the country and boost the Philippines’ claim over the Spratly Islands.
The Philippines continues to maintain its presence there and the ship serves as a military outpost, manned by a small contingent of troops.
It is a low-tide elevation located within the exclusive economic zone of the Philippines
What is the issue?
The Philippines claims that the shoal lies within its Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), which, under international law, extends up to 200 nautical miles.
The Second Thomas Shoal lies about 108 nautical miles (200 km) from the Philippine island of Palawan.
China claims sovereignty over most of the South China Sea, including the Second Thomas Shoal, based on the historical and controversial Nine-dash line.
China’s claims cut into the EEZs of Vietnam, the Philippines, Malaysia, Brunei and Indonesia.
In 2013, the Philippines had filed a case against China with the Permanent Court of Arbitration in The Hague, challenging the legality of China’s claims and activities in the South China Sea, including the Second Thomas Shoal.
The Philippines took China to international court after the latter seized effective control of the Scarborough Shoal in 2012.
The court ruled in favour of the Philippines in 2016, but China rejected the judgment.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/second-thomas-shoal-a-symbol-of-defiance/article67933279.ece
Exercise Cutlass Express, recently in news, is a:
multinational maritime exercise sponsored by U.S. Africa Command (AFRICOM)
Explanation :
INS Tir, the lead ship of First Training Squadron (1TS) participated in Exercise Cutlass Express - 24 (CE – 24) held at Port Victoria, Seychelles from 26 Feb – 08 Mar 24.
It is an exercise conducted in East African coastal regions and the West Indian Ocean to counter malign influence, aggression and activity along overlapping command seams and maritime regions.
It is a premier multinational maritime exercise sponsored by U.S. Africa Command (AFRICOM) and led by U.S. Naval Forces Europe-Africa/U.S. Sixth Fleet.
This exercise is a cornerstone of maritime security and cooperation in the strategic waters of the East African coast and the Western Indian Ocean.
It brings together maritime forces from East Africa, West Indian Ocean nations, Europe, North America, and several international organizations to enhance maritime law enforcement capacity, promote national and regional security, and increase interoperability among participating nations.
As part of Cutlass Express 2024, the Indian Navy actively engaged with participants from 16 friendly foreign countries.
Training was conducted on theoretical and practical aspects of Maritime Interdiction Operations, Visit Board Search and Seizure procedures and Diving operations. During the sea phase, the ship’s VBSS team boarded Seychelles Coast Guard (SCG) ship LE Vigilant and demonstrated procedures of boarding operations.
The Indian Navy has been participating in the exercise since 2019.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2013170
Consider the following statements with reference to Green Hydrogen:
- It is produced using electrolysis of water.
- It is stored in cylinders at a much lower pressure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) plans to convene a meeting with relevant stakeholders to discuss the development of specialised cylinders for green hydrogen storage.
It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy.
The carbon intensity ultimately depends on the carbon neutrality of the source of electricity (i.e., the more renewable energy there is in the electricity fuel mix, the “greener” the hydrogen produced).
Green Hydrogen has enormous potential to decarbonize several sectors, reduce carbon emissions and achieve energy independence.
The production of Green Hydrogen using renewable energy sources like solar, wind, and hydropower is sustainable and environmentally friendly, making it an attractive option for the transition to a low-carbon future.
Green hydrogen can replace traditional fossil fuels in transportation and industry, providing a constant and reliable source of energy.
Hydrogen is stored in cylinders at a much higher pressure.
Gas cylinders are typically categorised into four types, depending upon the materials used.
Type 1 and Type 2 are suitable for storage, while Type 3 is preferred for storage and transportation, and Type 4 is recommended for on-board storage.
Unlike Compressed Natural Gas (CNG), which is stored at a pressure of around 3,600 psi, the pressure at which hydrogen is stored ranges between 5,000-10,000 psi.
A vehicle can be powered by hydrogen in two ways– burning it in an internal combustion engine or using a fuel cell to convert it into electricity to charge on-board batteries.
While both Type 3 and Type 4 cylinders are reinforced with carbon fibre, which makes them light and ideal for use in vehicles, Type 4 cylinders are even lighter as they are lined with a polymer as opposed to the aluminium lining in Type 3 cylinders.
Application of Green hydrogen
It has numerous applications and can be used in fuel cells to power vehicles and provide electricity.
It can also be used in heating systems and in the production of chemicals and fertilizers.
Furthermore, green hydrogen can be used in microgrids, providing electricity to remote areas and enabling energy independence.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/mnre-to-discuss-specialised-cylinders-for-hydrogen-storage-with-stakeholders-9206935/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS):
- It is the National Standard Body of India, which operates various product certification schemes.
- It functions under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Government of India recently initiated a scheme through the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) for the upgradation and strengthening of the laboratory network in the country.
About Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS):
BIS is the National Standard Body of India established under the BIS Act 2016 for the harmonious development of the activities of standardization, marking, and quality certification of goods and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
The BIS is the successor of the Indian Standards Institution (ISI), which was created in 1947 to ensure quality control and competitive efficiency in the rapid industrialization expected in the early decades of India’s independence.
BIS is functioning under the administrative control of the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
BIS has been providing traceability and tangibility benefits to the national economy in a number of ways: providing safe, reliable quality goods; minimizing health hazards to consumers; promoting exports and imports substitute; control over proliferation of varieties etc. through standardization, certification, and testing.
It operates product certification schemes through which it grants licenses to manufacturers covering practically every industrial discipline, from agriculture and textiles to electronics.
Certification by the BIS is mandatory for certain classes of products—such as milk powder, X-ray equipment, and gas cylinders—that directly affect public health and safety.
In other cases, voluntary, or optional certification or self-certification by the manufacturer may be permitted.
The BIS employs a large staff of engineers, scientists, and statisticians; testing is carried out in its own laboratories as well as in independent facilities that demonstrate compliance with laboratory guidelines established by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO).
The agency is headquartered in New Delhi and maintains regional and branch offices throughout the country.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2013454
With reference to the Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT), consider the following statements:
- It is designed to curb tax avoidance by companies that manipulate their financial statements to reduce their taxable income artificially.
- It is applicable to only Indian companies registered under the Companies Act, 2013.
- It is calculated on the taxable profits of a company.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The Mumbai bench of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) recently observed that the assessee was entitled to claim credit for Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) under the Vivad se Vishwas (VSV) Scheme for the year under consideration.
About Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT):
It is a provision in the Income Tax Act of India.
It primarily applies to companies and is designed to ensure that companies that report substantial book profits but pay little to no income tax due to various exemptions and deductions are subject to a minimum level of taxation.
The primary objective behind the MAT tax in India is to curb tax avoidance by companies that manipulate their financial statements to reduce their taxable income artificially.
With the introduction of MAT, companies have to pay a fixed percentage of their profits as MAT.
MAT is applicable to all companies, including foreign companies.
However, it does not apply to companies that have been granted exemption under Section 10AA of the Income Tax Act, which pertains to Special Economic Zones (SEZs).
MAT is calculated under Section 115JB of the Income-tax Act.
All companies are required to pay corporate tax based on which is higher of the following:
Normal Tax Liability: Tax computed as per the normal provisions of the Income-tax Law, i.e., by applying the relevant tax rate to the taxable income of the company.
Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT): Tax computed at 15% (previously 18.5%) on book profit plus cess and surcharge.
MAT is calculated on the “book profits” of a company, which is different from the taxable profits computed under the regular provisions of the Income Tax Act.
What is MAT credit? When the amount of MAT for a company is greater than its normal tax liability, the difference between MAT and normal tax liability is called MAT Credit.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.taxscan.in/assessee-entitled-to-claim-credit-for-mat-under-vsv-scheme-for-year-under-consideration-itat/380889/
Which one of the following is the primary basis for dividing Earth’s history into units on the Geological Time Scale?
Earth’s rock layers and fossils found within them
Explanation :
Scientists have voted against a proposal to declare a new geological epoch called the Anthropocene to reflect how profoundly human activity has altered the planet.
About Anthropocene Epoch:
It is an unofficial unit of geologic time, used to describe the most recent period in Earth’s history when human activity started to have a significant impact on the planet’s climate and ecosystems.
The word Anthropocene is derived from the Greek words anthropo, for “man,” and cene, for “new,” coined and made popular by biologist Eugene Stormer and chemist Paul Crutzen in 2000.
There are numerous phenomena associated with this proposed epoch, such as global warming, sea-level rise, ocean acidification, mass-scale soil erosion, the advent of deadly heat waves, deterioration of the biosphere, and other detrimental changes in the environment.
What is the Geological Time Scale?
Earth’s history is divided into a hierarchical series of smaller chunks of time, referred to as the geologic time scale.
These divisions, in descending length of time, are called eons, eras, periods, epochs, and ages.
These units are classified based on Earth’s rock layers, or strata, and the fossils found within them.
From examining these fossils, scientists know that certain organisms are characteristic of certain parts of the geologic record. The study of this correlation is called stratigraphy.
Current Epoch: Officially, the current epoch is called the Holocene, which began 11,700 years ago after the last major ice age.
Debate:
Scientists still debate whether the Anthropocene is different from the Holocene.
The term Anthropocene has not been formally adopted by the International Union of Geological Sciences (IUGS), the international organization that names and defines epochs.
The primary question that the IUGS needs to answer before declaring the Anthropocene an epoch is if humans have changed the Earth system to the point that it is reflected in the rock strata.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://edition.cnn.com/2024/03/05/world/anthropocene-epoch-rejected-scn/index.html
Which among the following best describes INS Tushil, recently seen in the news?
It is a Talwar-class stealth frigate.
Explanation :
INS Tushil, India’s latest naval asset, initiated its sea trials from Russia’s Baltiysk naval base recently.
About INS Tushil:
It is the first Krivak-III frigate to be acquired under Project 11356M.
Project 11356M:
India in 2016 signed an Inter-Governmental Agreement (IGA) with Russia to purchase/construct four additional Admiral Grigorovich-class (Project 11356M) frigates through a partnership between Russian and Indian shipyards.
Russia will supply two of the frigates (INS Tushil and INS Tamala), while the other two will be constructed in India.
The Talwar-class frigates, or Project 11356, are a class of stealth-guided missile frigates.
Under the IGA, Russia would provide technical assistance in setting up production of 11356 project frigates in India.
The construction of the ships is based on the Indian Navy’s specific requirements to meet the entire spectrum of naval warfare in all three dimensions of air, surface, and sub-surface.
Features:
These ships feature “stealth technology” in terms of low radar and underwater noise signatures.
These ships are being equipped with major Indian-supplied equipment such as surface-to-surface missiles, sonar systems, surface surveillance radar, communication suites, and anti-submarine warfare systems, along with Russian surface-to-air missiles and gun mounts.
The frigates are designed to fight submarines and warships in brown and blue waters and repel air attacks both independently and within formations.
The displacement is 3620 tons, the length is 124.8 meters. The full speed is 30 knots, and the cruising range is 4850 miles.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.republicworld.com/defence/indian-armed-forces/ins-tushil-begins-sea-trials-from-russian-naval-base-despite-hurdles-from-ukraine/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019:
- It provides a path to Indian citizenship to persecuted religious minorities from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan who migrated to India before December 31, 2014.
- It does not apply to the tribal areas included in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) recently notified the Citizenship Amendment Rules, 2024 that would enable the implementation of the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) passed by the Parliament in 2019.
About Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019:
The Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) amends the Citizenship Act of 1955 to provide a path to Indian citizenship for Hindus, Sikhs, Christians, Buddhists, Jains, and Parsis who migrated from neighbouring Muslim-majority countries such as Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Afghanistan, before December 31, 2014.
Under the CAA, migrants who entered India till December 31, 2014, and had suffered “religious persecution or fear or religious persecution” in their country of their origin would be made eligible for accelerated citizenship.
It relaxed the residence requirement for naturalisation of these migrants from twelve years to just six.
The cut-off date for citizenship is December 31, 2014, which means the applicant should have entered India on or before that date.
The law exempts the tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Tripura as included in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, including the tribal areas of Karbi Anglong in Assam, Garo Hills in Meghalaya, Chakma district in Mizoram, and Tribal areas district in Tripura.
It also includes a provision for the cancellation of Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) registration if the OCI cardholder violates any provision of the Citizenship Act or any other applicable law.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/modi-government-announces-citizenship-amendment-act-rules-4-years-after-bill-was-passed/article67939010.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Software Technology Parks of India:
- It is an autonomous organization under the Union Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
- It aims to promote micro, small and medium entrepreneurs in the field of IT/IT Enabled Services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Software Technology Parks of India (STPI) launched its 24th Center of Entrepreneurship (CoE) - “FinGlobe,” dedicated to fostering innovation and growth in the financial technology sector, at STPI-Gandhinagar, GIFT City.
It is a premier autonomous Science and Technology organization under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
It is engaged in promoting IT/ITES Industry, innovation, R&D, start-ups, product/IP creation in the field of emerging technologies like IoT, Blockchain, Artificial Intelligence (AI), Machine Learning (ML), Computer Vision, Robotics and Robotics Process Automation (RPA) etc.
Objectives
To promote the development and export of software and software services including Information Technology (I.T.) Enabled Services / Bio-IT.
To provide statutory and other promotional services to the exporters by implementing Software Technology Park/ Electronics and Hardware Technology Park Schemes and other such schemes this may be formulated and entrusted by the Government from time to time.
To provide data communication services including value added services to IT / IT Enabled Services related industries.
To promote micro, small and medium entrepreneurs by creating conducive environment for entrepreneurship in the field of IT / IT Enabled Services.
It has expanded its presence pan-India since its inception in 1991 with 3 centres to disperse tech-driven entrepreneurship to Tier-II/III cities.
Today, STPI has 64 centres of which 56 centres are in Tier-II/III cities.
Significance: These centres have been playing a pivotal role in boosting IT/ITeS/ESDM exports from the respective region, generating employment, and fostering startups to develop software products.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2013511
Consider the following statements with reference to Lachit Borphukan:
- He was an army commander of the Ahom kingdom.
- He defeated the Mughal forces, led by Raja Ramsingh-I, in the Battle of Saraighat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India unveiled a 125-foot bronze statue of Ahom general Lachit Borphukan at his burial site in eastern Assam’s Jorhat district.
He was a legendary army commander of the Ahom kingdom (1228-1826),
He was known for his leadership in the 1671 ‘Battle of Saraighat’.
He defeated the Mughal forces, led by Raja Ramsingh-I, in this battle, and thwarted a drawn-out attempt by them to take back Assam.
He was chosen as one of the five Borphukans of the Ahom kingdom by king Charadhwaj Singha and given administrative, judicial, and military responsibilities.
Borphukan preferred guerrilla tactics which provided an edge to his smaller, but fast moving and capable forces.
He was buried at the ‘maidam’ — burial grounds for Ahom royals and nobles — at Hollongapar, after passing away a year after the battle at the age of 49 due to illness.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/who-is/pm-modi-bronze-statue-ahom-general-assam-lachit-borphukan-9204755/
Consider the following statements regarding the Revamped Pharmaceuticals Technology Upgradation Assistance (RPTUAS) Scheme:
- It aims to support the upgradation of pharmaceutical industries to the WHO-Good Manufacturing Practice standards.
- Under this scheme, subsidies are provided based on the annual profit of the company.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers has announced the Revamped Pharmaceuticals Technology Upgradation Assistance (RPTUAS) Scheme.
The objective is to offer “subsidies based on quality” reimbursement, aiding pharmaceutical companies in achieving revised Schedule M and WHO-GMP certifications.
The revised guideline aims to support the pharmaceutical industry’s up-gradation to the Revised Schedule-M & WHO-GMP standards, enhancing the quality and safety of pharmaceutical products manufactured in our country.
Key Features of the Revised Scheme:
Broadened Eligibility Criteria: Reflecting a more inclusive approach, eligibility for the PTUAS has been expanded beyond Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises to include any pharmaceutical manufacturing unit with a turnover of less than 500 crores that requires technology and quality upgradation. Preference remains for MSMEs, supporting smaller players in achieving high-quality manufacturing standards.
Flexible Financing Options: The scheme introduces more flexible financing options, emphasizing subsidies on reimbursement basis, over traditional credit-linked approach.
Comprehensive Support for Compliance with New Standards: In alignment with revised Schedule-M and WHO-Good Manufacturing Practice (GMP) standards, the scheme now supports a broader range of technological upgrades. Eligible activities include improvements such as HVAC systems, water and steam utilities, testing laboratories etc.
State Government Scheme Integration: The revised scheme allows integration with state government schemes, enabling units to benefit from additional top-up assistance. This collaborative approach aims to maximize support for the pharmaceutical industry in their technology upgradation efforts.
The new benefit limit is based on turnover of the company. Units with less than Rs 5 crore turnover will get an incentive of 20 percent of investment under eligible activities.
The units with turnover ranging from Rs 50 crore to less than Rs 250 crore will get an incentive of 15 percent of investment, while for those with turnover ranging from Rs 250 crore to less than Rs 500 crore, it will be 10 percent of investment under eligible expenses.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2013379
Consider the following statements with reference to the Per- and Polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS):
- These are a group of human-made chemicals used in the food packaging industry.
- These substances degrade easily in the environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
MIT chemists have designed a sensor that detects tiny quantities of perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) chemicals found in food packaging, nonstick cookware, and many other consumer products.
These are a group of human-made chemicals that have been widely used in various industrial and commercial applications.
They were first used in the 1940’s and are now in hundreds of products.
Properties
These compounds are also known as “forever chemicals” because they do not break down naturally.
Chemically, individual PFAS can be very different. However, all have a carbon-fluorine bond, which is very strong and therefore, they do not degrade easily.
These are known for their unique properties, such as high chemical stability and resistance to heat, grease, and water.
Applications: These are used in stain- and water-resistant fabrics and carpeting, cleaning products, paints, and fire-fighting foams.
Impacts:
The widespread use of PFAS has resulted in increasing levels of contamination of the air, water, and soil.
Exposure to PFA attributes to variety of health risks including decreased fertility, developmental effects in children, interference with body hormones, increased cholesterol levels and increased risk of some cancers.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-03-sensor-chemicals.html
With reference to Agni-5 missile, consider the following statements:
- It uses a three-stage solid-fuelled engine.
- It has a range of 10000 km.
- It is equipped with Multiple Independently targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) technology.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India announced successful maiden flight test of Agni-5 missile with MIRV technology, code-named Mission Divyastra, boosting India’s defence capability.
The maiden flight test of the locally developed Agni-5 missile with multiple independently targetable re-entry vehicle (MIRV) technology and code named as Mission Divyastra.
Key features of Agni-5 missile
It uses a three-stage solid fuelled engine and has a range of 5,000km.
Agni-5 has been successfully tested multiple times since 2012.
Agni series has medium to Intercontinental versions of Agni missile systems 1 to 5 with a varying ranges — starting from 700 km for Agni-1 to 5000 km and above for Agni-5.
In June 2021, DRDO successfully tested Agni P, a canisterised missile with a range capability between 1,000 and 2,000 km.
This means that the missile can be launched from road and rail platforms, making it easier for it to be deployed and launched at a quicker pace.
What is MIRV technology?
It can target multiple targets that can be hundreds of kilometers apart with a single missile.
This Agni, capable of carrying nuclear warheads, has a range of more than 5,000 km, making it a long-range missile.
These missiles can be launched from land or from sea from a submarine.
In contrast to a traditional missile, which carries one warhead, MIRVs can carry multiple warheads.
Warheads on MIRVed missiles can be released from the missile at different speeds and in different directions.”
This has propelled India into an exclusive league of countries that have the capability to deploy MIRV missile systems, including the US, the UK, France, Russia and China.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/agni5-gets-multiple-warheads-capability-101710181316478.html
Consider the following statements with reference to Exercise ‘Bharat Shakti’, recently seen in the news:
- It is an integrated tri-service firepower and manoeuvre exercise.
- It was conducted in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Prime Minister recently witnessed the tri-service exercise ‘Bharat Shakti’ in Pokhran, Rajasthan.
About Exercise ‘Bharat Shakti’:
It is an integrated tri-service firepower and manoeuvre exercise, showcasing the prowess of indigenously manufactured defence equipment across the three services.
Location: Pokhran, Rajasthan.
The exercise involves the showcasing of the calibrated tactical employment of niche technology in a tri-services environment against perceived threats.
The exercise displays an array of indigenous weapon systems and platforms as a demonstration of the prowess of the country, premised on the nation’s Aatmanirbharata initiative.
It will also simulate realistic, synergised, multi-domain operations displaying the integrated operational capabilities of the Indian armed forces to counter threats across land, air, sea, cyber, and space domains.
It features indigenous weapon systems: T-90 (IM) Tanks, Dhanush and Sarang Gun Systems, Akash Weapons System, Logistics Drones, Robotic Mules, ALH, and various unmanned aerial vehicles from the Indian Army showcasing the advanced ground warfare and aerial surveillance capabilities.
The Indian Navy displays Naval Anti-Ship Missiles, Autonomous Cargo Carrying Aerial Vehicles, and Expendable Aerial Targets.
The Indian Air Force showcases indigenous aircraft: Light Combat Aircraft Tejas, Light Utility Helicopters, and Advanced Light Helicopters.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/pm-modi-witnesses-bharat-shakti-tri-service-exercise-in-rajasthan/articleshow/108430956.cms
Kochrab Ashram, recently seen in the news, is located in which one of the following States?
Gujarat
Explanation :
The Prime Minister inaugurated the redeveloped Kochrab Ashram in Ahmedabad, Gujarat, recently to mark the 94th anniversary of the Dandi March.
About Kochrab Ashram:
It was the first ashram founded by Mahatma Gandhi in 1915, following his return to India from South Africa.
Location: It is located in Kochrab village, situated on the outskirts of Ahmedabad, Gujarat.
It was called Satyagraha Ashram based on his ideas of achieving India’s independence from British rule through peaceful methods.
Establishment:
Gopal Krishna Gokhale requested Mahatma Gandhi to return to India, which needed his skills as a community organizer.
Mahatma Gandhi began his association with Ahmedabad after returning to India from South Africa.
About his decision to settle in Ahmedabad in 1915, Gandhi wrote that, as a Gujarati, he should be able to serve the country best through the Gujarati language.
On 20th of May, 1915, Gandhi began living in a bungalow in Kochrab village.
The bungalow, which he soon rechristened as the Satyagraha Ashram, was given to him by his fellow lawyer and colleague, Jeevanlal Desai.
Mahatma Gandhi based himself here for about one-and-a-half years before moving to the new campus of Sabarmati Ashram.
It is a colonial-style building with a white-washed façade.
The campus has hostels and kitchens.
The Gandhi Memorial Museum in the ashram campus has a small collection of artifacts associated with the life of Mahatma Gandhi and historical photographs.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://theprint.in/india/modi-inaugurates-redeveloped-kochrab-ashram-in-gujarat-gandhis-first-home-after-returning-to-india/1998165/
With reference to the Gulf of Oman, consider the following statements:
- It is the western extension of the Arabian Sea and lies in the Middle East.
- It is the only entrance to the Persian Gulf from the Indian Ocean.
- It is bordered by Pakistan, Iran, UAE, Oman and Saudi Arabia.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
China, Iran and Russia recently began a joint naval drill in the Gulf of Oman.
About Gulf of Oman:
The Gulf of Oman, also known as the Gulf of Makran, is the western extension of the Arabian Sea and lies in the Middle East.
It forms the only entrance to the Persian Gulf from the Indian Ocean.
The Gulf connects the Arabian Sea with the Strait of Hormuz, which then empties into the Persian Gulf.
Bordering Countries: It is bordered by Pakistan and Iran in the north; by the United Arab Emirates (UAE) in the west and by Oman in the south. Muscat, the capital of Oman, is located on the coast of the gulf.
It is about 320 km wide at its widest point between Cape al-Hadd in Oman and the Gwadar Bay on the Iran-Pakistan border. It narrows to 35 miles (56 km) at the Strait of Hormuz.
It is approximately 560 km long.
The gulf is relatively shallow because of its origin as a fissure in the mountain spine now divided between Iran and Oman.
Some of the significant islands that are located in the Gulf of Oman include Sheytan Island, Al Fahal Island, Dimaniyat Islands, and the Sawadi Islands.
The major international shipping ports that are situated in the Gulf of Oman include Port Sultan Qaboos Muttrah in Muscat, Oman; Chabahar Port in Iran; the Port of Fujairah and Khor Fakkan Container Terminal in the UAE.
Roughly one-third of the world’s oil is exported via the Strait of Hormuz and the Gulf of Oman.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://apnews.com/article/iran-russia-china-joint-naval-drill-53a1b3a6f9fd2c4199d2ad7d8cd5a49e
With reference to the Uniform Code for Pharmaceutical Marketing Practices (UCPMP) 2024, consider the following statements:
- It prohibits pharma companies from offering gifts and travel facilities to healthcare professionals or their family members.
- It also holds companies responsible for the actions of the medical representatives.
- The pharma companies should not make claims and comparisons of their drug’s usefulness, and the word “safe” must not be used without qualification.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Central Government recently rolled out a Uniform Code for Pharmaceutical Marketing Practices (UCPMP) for pharmaceutical companies.
About UCPMP 2024:
It has been implemented to control unethical practices in the pharma industry.
The updated guidelines include drug endorsement, promotion, ethical conduct for medical representatives, and maintaining relationships with healthcare professionals.
Important Provisions:
It prohibits pharma companies from offering gifts and travel facilities to healthcare professionals or their family members.
The UCPMP mandates that medical representatives must not employ any inducement or subterfuge to gain an interview, and they must not pay, under any guise, for access to a healthcare professional.
It also holds companies responsible for the actions of the medical representatives.
It also bans the supply of free samples to those who are not qualified to prescribe such a product.
Each pharma company also needs to maintain details such as product name, doctor name, the number of samples given, date of supply of free samples to healthcare practitioners, etc., and the monetary value of samples so distributed should not exceed two percent of the company’s domestic sales per year.
All pharmaceutical associations must constitute an Ethics Committee for Pharmaceutical Marketing Practices (ECPMP), set up a dedicated UCPMP portal on their website, and take further necessary steps towards the implementation of this Code.
It also lists in detail how the drug should be promoted, both in texts and in the audio-visual market.
The information about drugs must be balanced, up-to-date, and verifiable, and must not mislead either directly or by implication.
The pharma companies should not make claims and comparisons of their drug’s usefulness, and the word “safe” must not be used without qualification.
The word “new” must not be used to describe any drug which has been generally available or any therapeutic intervention which has been generally promoted in India for more than a year.
The responsibility for adherence to the code rests with the Chief Executive Officer of pharmaceutical companies.
It also detailed the penalties for violating the code and how complaints will be handled.
Any violations of the code will be addressed by the ECPMP, ensuring accountability and oversight.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Mar/12/no-freebies-cash-centre-rolls-out-pharma-marketing-code-to-curb-unethical-practices
Consider the following statements with reference to the Index of Industrial Production (IIP):
- It indicates the relative change in physical production in the field of industries during a specified year as compared to the previous year.
- It is computed and published by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation recently released the Quick Estimates of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) for January 2024, revealing a growth of 3.8 percent.
About Index of Industrial Production (IIP):
It is one of the prime indicators of economic development for the measurement of trends in the behavior of industrial production over a period of time with reference to a chosen base year.
IIP is a short-term indicator measuring industrial growth until the actual result of detailed industrial surveys become available.
It indicates the relative change in physical production in the field of industries during a specified year as compared to the previous year.
It is computed and published by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, on a monthly basis.
Calculation:
The IIP is a quantum index, the production of items is expressed in physical terms. However, the unit of reporting in respect of certain items like machinery, machine tools, shipbuilding, etc. is in value terms.
The IIP is compiled as a simple weighted arithmetic mean of production relatives by using Laspeyre’s formula.
In order to remove the effect of price rises from the index, the production figures of such items are deflated on the basis of Wholesale Price Indices (Base 2011-12), compiled by the Office of Economic Adviser, Ministry of Commerce and Industry, before the compilation of the index.
Base Year:
The base year is always given a value of 100.
The current base year for the IIP series in India is 2011-12.
So, if the current IIP reads as 116, it means that there has been 16% growth compared to the base year.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://theprint.in/economy/index-of-industrial-production-grows-by-3-8-per-cent-in-january-2024/1998157/
Gorsam Kora festival, recently in news, is celebrated in:
Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation :
The Gorsam Kora festival, symbolised the enduring friendship between India and Bhutan commenced on 7th March and concluded on 10th March this year.
It is held in Arunachal Pradesh’s Zeminthang Valley along the Nyanmjang Chu River.
History
This annual festival is held at Gorsam Chorten, a 93 feet tall Stupa, built during 13th century AD by a local monk- Lama Pradhar.
This is also the place where the 14th Dalai Lama had his first rest after fleeing from Tibet in 1959.
It features cultural performances and Buddhist rituals at the Gorsam Chorten, which is older than the Tawang Monastery.
Many devotees including large number of Bhutanese nationals visit during Gorsam Kora festival to celebrate the virtuous occasion during the last day of the first month of the Lunar calendar.
It attracted pilgrims and Lamas from Bhutan, Tawang, and neighbouring regions, epitomising the spirit of camaraderie and cultural exchange.
The festival featured a diverse array of events, including enthralling performances by local cultural troupes and by the Indian army bands, martial performances like Mallakhamb and Zanjh Pathaka.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/what-you-need-to-know-about-gorsam-kora-festival-in-tawang/articleshow/108369529.cms?UTM_Source=Google_Newsstand&UTM_Campaign=RSS_Feed&UTM_Medium=Referral
Consider the following statements with reference to the Graphics Processing Unit:
- It is a computer chip which provides graphics and images by performing rapid mathematical calculations.
- It does not have its own Random Access Memory (RAM).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
As the world rushes to make use of the latest wave of AI technologies, one piece of high-tech hardware has become a surprisingly hot commodity: the Graphics Processing Unit, or GPU.
It is a computer chip that renders graphics and images by performing rapid mathematical calculations.
GPUs are used for both professional and personal computing. Originally, GPUs were responsible for the rendering of 2D and 3D images, animations and video.
Like a Central Processing Unit (CPU), a GPU is also a chip component in computing devices.
One important difference, though, is that the GPU is specifically designed to handle and accelerate graphics workloads and display graphics content on a device such as a PC or smartphone.
A typical modern CPU is made up of between 8 and 16 “cores”, each of which can process complex tasks in a sequential manner.
GPUs, on the other hand, have thousands of relatively small cores, which are designed to all work at the same time (“in parallel”) to achieve fast overall processing.
This makes them well suited for tasks that require a large number of simple operations which can be done at the same time, rather than one after another.
How does a GPU work?
GPUs work by using a method called parallel processing, where multiple processors handle separate parts of a single task.
A GPU will also have its own RAM to store the data it is processing. This RAM is designed specifically to hold the large amounts of information coming into the GPU for highly intensive graphics use cases.
For graphics applications, the CPU sends instructions to the GPU for drawing the graphics content on screen.
The GPU executes the instructions in parallel and at high speeds to display the content on the device – a process known as the graphics or rendering pipeline.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/what-is-a-gpu-an-expert-explains-the-chips-powering-the-ai-boom-and-why-theyre-worth-trillions/article67942511.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Directorate General of Foreign Trade:
- It is responsible for granting the Exporter Importer Code Number to Indian exporters and importers.
- It works under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) has granted an exemption to the import of certain goods, including viscose staple fibre and numerous steel items, from quality control orders (QCOs) under the advance authorisation scheme.
It is a government organization in India responsible for the formulation of exim guidelines and principles for indian importers and indian exporters of the country.
Before 1991, DGFT was known as the Chief Controller of Imports & Exports (CCI&E).
It is an attached office of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and is headed by Director General of Foreign Trade.
It has been assigned the role of “facilitator”.
It is responsible for implementing the Foreign Trade Policy or Exim Policy with the main objective of promoting Indian exports.
The DGFT also issues scrips/authorization to exporters and monitors their corresponding obligations through a network of 24 regional offices.
Functions
To implement the Exim Policy or Foreign Trade Policy of India by introducing various schemes and guidelines through its network of dgft regional offices thought-out the country.
To Grant Exporter Importer Code Number to Indian Exporter and Importers. IEC Number is a unique 10 digit code required by the traders or manufacturers for the purpose of import and export in India.
It permits or regulate Transit of Goods from India or to countries adjacent to India in accordance with the bilateral treaties between India and other countries.
To promote trade with neighboring countries.
To grant the permission of free export in Export Policy Schedule 2.
Setting standard input-output norms is also controlled by the DGFT.
Headquarter: New Delhi
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/economy/dgft-steps-in-with-qco-exemptions-following-concerns-raised-by-industry-9210829/
Consider the following statements regarding the Khelo India Rising Talent Identification (KIRTI) programme:
- It is an athlete-centric programme under the Union Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
- It is aimed at school children between 9 and 18 years of age.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Union Minister for Youth Affairs and Sports inaugurated the unique Khelo India Rising Talent Identification (KIRTI) programme amidst much enthusiasm at the Sector 7 sports complex, in Chandigarh.
It is aimed at school children between nine and 18 years.
The nation-wide scheme will have two main objectives:
To hunt talent from every nook and corner of the country and
To use sports as a tool to curb addiction towards drugs and other gadgetry distractions.
KIRTI made a solid launch across 50 centres in India. Fifty thousand applicants are being assessed in the first phase across 10 sports, including athletics, boxing, wrestling, hockey, football and wrestling.
KIRTI aims to conduct 20 lakh assessments across the country throughout the year to identify talent through notified Talent Assessment Centres.
It wants to reach out to every block in the country and connect with those kids who want to play a sport but don’t know how.
KIRTI’s athlete-centric programme is conspicuous by its transparent selection methodology based on Information Technology.
Data analytics based on Artificial Intelligence is being used to predict the sporting acumen in an aspiring athlete.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2013801
With reference to Hyodol Robot, consider the following statements:
- It is an AI care robot which offers customized care for seniors.
- It uses the large language model for conversation.
- It cannot be linked to smart home devices.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
South Korean company Hyodol has come up with a way to use Artificial Intelligence (AI) to beat loneliness among elders with dementia.
These look like cuddly soft toys, their advanced language processing and ability to recognise emotions, talk, and play music can offer some form of engagement to seniors.
It is an AI care robot that offers customised care for seniors.
The robot does this by relying on data collected by living and having conversations with them.
The doll can hold full conversations and it comes with a companion app and web monitoring platform for caretakers to monitor remotely.
Besides, it comes with safety features that can raise an alert when no movement has been detected for a certain period of time.
It also comes with touch interaction, check-ins, a health coach, voice messages, 24-hour voice reminders, music, quizzes, exercise suggestions, and more.
Moreover, caregivers with access to the app will be able to send and receive voice messages, make group announcements, and monitor motion detection.
The robot also continuously monitors the health condition of its users through health Q&A two times a day.
This robot collects verbal/nonverbal data for 24 hours from the users through AI.
Technology used
The AI robot can hold conversations owing to the large language model that has been integrated into it.
The robots provide convenient and easily managed intelligent services for users and are easy to develop and debug.
Besides, the AI robot can be linked to smart home devices and comes with an interface for easy interactions for all users.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/hyodol-an-ai-robot-to-help-senior-citizens-beat-loneliness-9210716/
Why is March 14 celebrated as the International Day of Mathematics?
To recognize the mathematical constant, Pi.
Explanation :
The International Day of Mathematics (IDM) is celebrated every year on 14 March.
About International Day of Mathematics:
International Day of Mathematics, or Pi Day, is celebrated on March 14 every year to recognize the mathematical constant, Pi.
The day is celebrated by mathematics enthusiasts and educators worldwide to recognize and appreciate the significance of mathematics in our lives.
The theme of International Day of Mathematics 2024 is ‘Playing with Math’.
Why March 14?
The approximate value of Pi is 3.14.
The date, when written in the format of month/day (3/14), matches the first three digits of the mathematical constant.
History:
The first Pi Day was celebrated in 1988 by physicist Larry Shaw at the San Francisco Exploratorium.
In 2009, the United States House of Representatives designated March 14 as Pi Day.
UNESCO marked Pi Day as the ‘International Day of Mathematics’ during its general conference in 2019.
Mathematician and physicist Albert Einstein, known for the “General Theory Of Relativity,” was born on Pi Day in 1879.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thequint.com/lifestyle/international-day-of-mathematics-2024-date-theme-history-and-significance
With reference to the Global Methane Tracker 2024, consider the following statements:
- It is released by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
- The United States leads in methane emissions from oil and gas operations.
- China leads in methane emissions from coal operations.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Methane emissions from fuel use in 2023 were close to being the highest ever at 120 million tonnes (Mt), according to the International Energy Agency’s (IEA) Global Methane Tracker 2024.
About Global Methane Tracker:
It is an annual report released by the International Energy Agency (IEA).
It is based on the most recently available data on methane emissions from the energy sector and incorporates new scientific studies, measurement campaigns, and information collected from satellites.
Highlights of Global Methane Tracker 2024:
Methane emissions from fuel use in 2023 were close to being the highest ever at 120 million tonnes (Mt). This is a small rise compared to 2022.
Bioenergy, a form of renewable energy generated by plant and animal waste, caused another 10 million tons of emissions.
Of the 120 Mt of methane that escaped into the atmosphere, around 80 million tons of methane emissions came from just 10 countries. The United States leads in methane emissions from oil and gas operations and is “closely followed” by Russia. China, on the other hand, leads in emissions from coal operations.
While studies suggested emissions are falling in some regions, overall emissions remain far too high to meet the world’s climate goals.
The world needs to slash methane emissions from fossil fuels by 75 percent by 2030 to achieve the Paris Agreement goal of limiting warming to 1.5°C.
The IEA estimated that this goal would require about $170 billion in spending. This is less than 5 percent of the income generated by the fossil fuel industry in 2023.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/energy/methane-emissions-from-fossil-fuels-remain-high-despite-progress-us-tops-list-of-emitters-iea-94991
Which among the following best describes Euscorpiops Krachan, recently seen in the news?
It is a new species of scorpion.
Explanation :
Researchers recently discovered a previously unknown species of scorpion, scientifically classified as Euscorpiops Krachan.
About Euscorpiops Krachan:
This new species belongs to the subgenus Euscopiops and has been named Euscorpiops Krachan after the national park in Thailand, where it was found.
Scorpions in this genus have limited distribution ranges with a high degree of endemism.
They can be found mainly in mountain areas, particularly in places with numerous rock crevices.
Features:
It presents most of the features exhibited by scorpions of the subgenus Euscorpiops.
They are very small in comparison to most other species of the subgenus, reaching just over 1 inch in length.
They are brownish in colour; however, females are darker than males.
They also have eight eyes and eight legs.
Other scorpions of the Scorpiops genus hunt through ‘ambush or sit-and-wait type of foraging’. It is believed that the new species employs similar strategies while hunting.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/trends/new-scorpion-species-with-8-eyes-and-8-legs-found-in-thai-national-park-12452331.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the ‘Vocal for Local’ Initiative:
- It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- As a part of this initiative, local products from 500 aspirational blocks have been mapped and consolidated under Aakanksha brand.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
NITI Aayog recently launched the ‘Vocal for Local’ initiative under its Aspirational Blocks Programme.
About ‘Vocal for Local’ Initiative:
It is an initiative of NITI Aayog under its Aspirational Blocks Programme to encourage a spirit of self-reliance among the people and propel them towards sustainable growth and prosperity.
As a part of this initiative, local products from 500 aspirational blocks have been mapped and consolidated under the Aakanksha brand.
Aakanksha is an umbrella brand, which could be supplemented into multiple sub-brands that have the potential to create an international market.
In order to encourage these products, a dedicated window for the Aspirational Blocks Programme under the brand name Aakanksha has been established on the Government e-Marketplace (GeM) portal.
The partners will also provide technical and operational supportfor the facilitation of e-commerce onboarding, establishing linkages, financial/digital literacy, documentation/certification, and skill enhancement, among others.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2014411#:~:text=In%20a%20move%20towards%20bolstering,from%20various%20states%20and%20blocks.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Lyme Disease:
- It is a vector-borne infectious disease caused by a virus.
- It is primarily transmitted to humans through air, food, or water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
A case of Lyme disease has been recently reported in the Ernakulam district of Kerala.
About Lyme Disease:
It is a vector-borne infectious disease caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi.
Transmission:
It is primarily transmitted to humans through the bite of infected black-legged ticks, often referred to as deer ticks.
Lyme disease cannot spread:
between humans
from pets to humans
through air, food, or water
Lice, mosquitoes, fleas, and flies also do not transmit it.
It is prevalent in wooded and grassy areas worldwide, particularly during warmer months. It is most commonly reported in North America, Europe, and some parts of Asia.
Symptoms:
Early symptoms of Lyme disease start between 3 to 30 days after an infected tick bite you.
It commonly manifests with symptoms such as fever, headache, fatigue, and a characteristic “bull’s-eye” red rash called erythema migrans (EM).
Erythema migrans serves as a hallmark sign, aiding in the early diagnosis and management of this tick-borne illness.
Left untreated, it can lead to more severe complications affecting the joints, heart, and nervous system.
Treatment:
The standard treatment for Lyme disease is antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, especially in the early stages.
In later stages, intravenous antibiotics may be required.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/kochi/lyme-disease-reported-in-keralas-ernakulam/articleshow/108456877.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Atmospheric Research Testbed:
- It is established by the Indian Space Research Organisation.
- It will have in-situ instruments to provide observations of convection, clouds and precipitation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, Minister of Earth Sciences virtually inaugurated the first phase of the Atmospheric Research Testbed in Central India (ART-CI) in Sehore district in Madhya Pradesh.
It is established by Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), MoES at Silkheda for better understanding on processes governing monsoon convection.
ART-CI will have an extensive set of remote-sensing and in-situ instruments that will provide continuous observations of convection, clouds, precipitation, soil moisture, radiation, microphysics to capture major modes of variability.
Phases
In the first phase, an ART would be set up in central India to study convection, land-atmosphere interactions and precipitation processes. It is expected to provide a sound basis for other research testbed programs in climatologically interesting and important areas.
In the second phase, ART is to be set up in the northeast/eastern part of the country to study severe thunderstorm processes.
Objectives
It is for better understanding on processes governing monsoon convection and land-atmosphere interactions over the monsoon core region and to measure relevant meteorological parameters using the state-of-the-art observational systems.
To organize intense observational campaigns along with weather prediction model runs for testing hypotheses and to improve physical parameterizations in the models related to convection and land surface processes.
Outreach, Training and Dissemination of ART-CI data sets. The testbed will be made into an international facility for intense observational campaigns and testing physical parameterization schemes including sensitivity runs.
It has nearly 25 high-end instruments like the aethalometer for aerosol studies, cloud condensation nuclei counter, laser ceilometer to measure cloud sizes, micro rain radar to calculate raindrop size and its distribution have been installed.
A Ka-band cloud radar and a C-band doppler weather radar will also help track the movement of rain-bearing systems over this zone.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/govt-lab-to-monitor-sea-water-quality-and-testbed-to-track-monsoon-systems-inaugurated-9210907/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Devin AI:
- It is the world’s first AI software engineer.
- It has been developed by Google for software development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A US-based company called Cognition has announced the launch of a new artificial intelligence chatbot called Devin which it claims to be world’s first fully autonomous AI software engineer.
It is the world’s first AI software engineer.
What can Devin do?
The AI agent comes with some advanced capabilities in software development, including coding, debugging, problem-solving, etc.
It uses machine learning algorithms to constantly learn and improve its performance and adapt according to new challenges.
In simple words, Devin can build and deploy apps end-to-end and can also train and fine-tune its own AI models.
It can plan and execute complex engineering tasks that would require thousands of decisions.
It can recall relevant context at each step, self-learn over time, and even fix mistakes.
This software engineer has the ability to proactively collaborate with the user.
It reports progress in real-time, is capable of accepting feedback, and works along with the user through design choices as needed.
Performance
On the SWE-Bench benchmark (a benchmark for evaluating large language models on real-world software issues found on GitHub), Devin correctly resolved 13.86 per cent of the issues without any assistance compared with the 1.96 per cent unassisted and 4.80 per cent assisted of the previous state-of-the-art model.
It is capable of augmenting efficiency and speed within software development processes by automating repetitive tasks, instantly generating code, expediting project timelines, and cutting down development expenses substantially.
It is immune to human errors or inconsistencies.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/new-updates/meet-devin-worlds-1st-fully-autonomous-ai-software-engineer-which-can-leave-laks-of-indians-engineers-jobless/articleshow/108461770.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding the Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme 2024:
- It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Heavy Industries.
- It is a fund-limited scheme to accelerate the adoption of Electric Vehicles in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Ministry of Heavy Industries announces Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme 2024.
It aims to further accelerate the adoption of Electric Vehicles in the country.
This is a fund-limited scheme with a total outlay of Rs. 500 crore for the period of 4 months, w.e.f. 1st April 2024 till 31st July 2024.
It is for faster adoption of electric two-wheeler (e-2W) and three-wheeler (e-3W) to provide further impetus to the green mobility and development of electric vehicle (EV) manufacturing eco-system in the country.
Eligible EV categories:
Two Wheelers (electric) (e-2W)
Three-wheeler (electric) including registered e-rickshaws & e-carts and L5 (e-3W)
With greater emphasis on providing affordable and environment friendly public transportation options for the masses, scheme will be applicable mainly to those e-2W and e-3Ws registered for commercial purposes.
Further, in addition to commercial use, privately or corporate owned registered e-2W will also be eligible under the scheme.
To encourage advance technologies, the benefits of incentives, will be extended to only those vehicles which are fitted with advanced battery.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Heavy Industries
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2014366
Consider the following statements regarding the PB-SHABD Platform:
- It has been designed to provide daily news feeds in video formats to the subscribers.
- Its service is being offered free of cost for the first year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Union Minister of Information and Broadcasting launched PB-SHABD, a news sharing service from Prasar Bharati and websites of DD News and Akashvani News as well as updated News on Air mobile app at an event in National Media Centre, New Delhi.
Prasar Bharti - Shared Audio Visuals for Broadcast and Dissemination (PB-SHABD) platform has been designed to provide daily news feeds in video, audio, text, photo and other formats to the subscribers from media landscape.
It is powered by the vast network of Prasar Bharati reporters, correspondents and stringers, the service would bring you the latest news from different parts of the country.
It will be a single point source of news content for all organizations.
SHABD service is being offered free of cost for the first year as an introductory offer and will provide news stories in all major Indian languages across fifty categories.
The shared feeds can be used for customized storytelling across different platforms.
As an introductory offer, the services would be available free of cost and help the smaller newspapers, TV channels and digital portals immensely.
What is Prasar Bharti?
It is the Public Service Broadcaster of the country.
It is a statutory autonomous body established in 1997 under the Prasar Bharati Act.
Objective: To conduct public broadcasting services intended to inform and entertain the public.
It comprises the Doordarshan Television Network and All India Radio, which were earlier media units of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
Headquarter: New Delhi
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2014202
With reference to Small and Medium Real-Estate Investment Trusts, consider the following statements:
- It aims to regulate the fractional ownership industry and safeguard investor interests.
- The minimum subscription size of this scheme unit will be 50 lakh rupees.
- It requires a minimum of 200-unit holders, excluding the investment manager, its related parties and associates.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) recently introduced amendments to the REIT Regulations of 2014, outlining provisions for the establishment of small and medium real-estate investment trusts, known as SM REITs or micro REITs.
These are specialised real estate investment trusts that differ from conventional REITs in their scale and focus.
Aim: To regulate the fractional ownership industry and safeguard investor interests, incorporating both commercial and residential properties within the new framework.
The minimum subscription size of this scheme unit will be 10 lakh and treated as one unit.
The SM REIT scheme requires a minimum of 200 unit holders, excluding the investment manager, its related parties and associates.
An investment manager responsible for setting up an SM REIT is required to have a net worth of at least ₹20 crore, and a separate trustee will be appointed for oversight.
The micro REITs will be able to list with an asset value of at least Rs 50 crore and a maximum of Rs 500 crore.
These funds are to be used for acquiring and managing real estate assets, generating income for the investors.
The ownership of these assets will be structured through one or more schemes, each operating under Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs).
While traditional REITs primarily invest in large-scale commercial properties, such as office buildings and shopping malls, SM REITs concentrate on smaller and medium-sized properties with lower value.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/et-explains/sm-reits-can-help-investors-bet-on-high-value-assets/articleshow/108473681.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the World Gold Council (WGC):
- It is an intergovernmental organization whose members comprise the world’s largest gold producers.
- It was established to promote the use of and demand for gold through marketing, research, and lobbying.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) bought 8.7 tonne of gold in January, making it the largest purchase by the central bank since July 2022, according to World Gold Council data.
About World Gold Council (WGC):
It is the market development organisation for the gold industry.
WGC is a nonprofit association formed in 1987 whose members comprise the world’s leading and most forward-thinking gold mining companies.
The WGC was established to promote the use of and demand for gold through marketing, research, and lobbying.
Headquartered in London, with operations in India, China, Singapore, and the USA, the WGC covers the markets which comprise about three-quarters of the world’s annual gold consumption.
The WGC is also the global authority on gold, and they offer comprehensive analyses of the industry.
It is an advocate for gold consumption. The WGC aims to maximize the industry’s potential growth by monitoring and defending existing gold consumption.
It achieves this by setting up gold standards, proposing policies, ensuring fairness and sustainability in the gold mining industry, and promoting the usage and demand for gold for individuals, industries, and institutions.
It also co-sponsors research in the development of new uses for gold, or of new products containing gold.
WGC was the creator of the first gold exchange-traded fund.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/banking-finance-rbis-gold-purchase-highest-in-almost-two-years-3425809/
Consider the following statements with reference to the National Mission for Edible Oils-Oil Palm (NMEO-OP):
- It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme which targets a substantial increase in oil palm cultivation and crude palm oil production.
- It aims to increase the area of oil palm to 10 lakh hectares by 2025-26.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Prime Minister recently inaugurated the first Oil Palm Processing Mill under Mission Palm Oil in Arunachal Pradesh.
About National Mission for Edible Oils - Oil Palm (NMEO-OP):
Launched by the Government of India in 2021, NMEO-OP targets a substantial increase in oil palm cultivation and crude palm oil production.
It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with a special focus on the North east region and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, with a focus on increasing the area and productivity of oilseeds and Oil Palm.
Scheme Outlay: A financial outlay of Rs. 11,040 crores have been made for the scheme, out of which Rs. 8,844 crore is the Government of India share and Rs. 2,196 crore is the State share, and this includes the viability gap funding also.
Targets:
To increase the area of oil palm to 10 lakh hectares from 3.5 lakh ha during 2019-20 by 2025-26 (an additional 6.50 lakh ha).
To increase the Crude Palm Oil production from 0.27 lakh tonnes during 2019-20 to 11.20 lakh tonnes by 2025-26.
Increase consumer awareness to maintain a consumption level of 19.00 kg/person/annum till 2025-26.
The State Department of Agriculture, State Department of Horticulture, Central University, ICAR-Institutions, CDDs, SAUs, KVKs, Central Agencies/Cooperatives, Oil palm processors/ Associations, DD Kisan, AIR, DD, TV channels will be the implementing stake holders of the NMEO-Oil palm.
Features: The salient features of NMEO-OP include assistance for planting material, inputs for intercropping upto gestation period of 4 years and for maintenance, establishment of seed gardens, nurseries, micro irrigation, bore well/pumpset/water harvesting structure, vermi compost units, solar pumps, harvesting tools, custom hiring centre cum harvester Groups, farmers and officers training, and for replanting of old oil palm gardens etc.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://krishijagran.com/news/pm-modi-inaugurates-india-s-first-oil-palm-processing-mill-under-national-mission-on-edible-oil/
Which one of the following is the primary objective of Sagar Parikrama?
To create awareness of various schemes of the Government available to fishermen in coastal areas
Explanation :
The Union Minister for Fisheries, Animal Husbandry, and Dairying will release a book and video on “Sagar Parikrama”.
About Sagar Parikrama:
It is an outreach program intended to reach out fishermen community across the entire coastal belt of the country through a predetermined sea route.
The initiative has been launched to understand the issues, experiences, and aspirations of fishermen and also to create awareness of various schemes and programs of the Government available to fishermen in coastal areas.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry, and Dairying.
The Sagar Parikrama Yatra spanned over 12 captivating phases in just 44 days. The Yatra meticulously navigated the diverse coastal tapestry of India, covering an impressive coastal length of 7,986 Kilometres out of 8,118 Kilometres, touching 3,071 fishing villages in 80 coastal districts of all the Coastal States/UTs.
During the Sagar Parikrama events, certificates and sanctions related to the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) and Kisan Credit Card (KCC) were awarded to progressive fishermen, fish farmers, and young fishery entrepreneurs.
Literature on various schemes, including PMMSY, KCC, and others, was disseminated through print media, electronic media, videos, and digital campaigns to raise awareness among fishers.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2014611#:~:text=Sagar%20Parikrama%20aims%20to%20facilitate,issues%20faced%20by%20fisher%20folks.
With reference to Private Placement, consider the following statements:
- It is the sale of stock shares or bonds to pre-selected investors and institutions.
- It has higher regulatory requirements than a public offering.
- Qualified Institutional Placement is a private placement exclusively available to listed companies.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
SEBI recently decided to repeal certain circulars that provided relaxation in cases involving the allotment of securities through a private placement route.
About Private Placement:
A private placement is the sale of stock shares or bonds to pre-selected investors and institutions rather than publicly on the open market.
Investors invited to participate in private placement programs include wealthy individual investors, banks and other financial institutions, mutual funds, insurance companies, and pension funds.
One advantage of a private placement is its relatively few regulatory requirements.
By opting for private placements, companies can maintain closer relations with investors, negotiate flexible terms, and potentially retain greater control over the company’s direction and growth strategies.
There are two kinds of private placement: preferential allotment and qualified institutional placement.
Preferential allotment:
It is a method of private placement where a company issues new shares to a select group of existing shareholders or to a specific group of investors, often at a price lower than the prevailing market price.
Purpose: This method is especially common when the company wants to reward or retain existing shareholders, such as promoters, by offering them the opportunity to purchase additional shares.
SEBI regulations and the Companies Act govern preferential allotment in India.
A company must take permission from its shareholders to carry on with preferential allotment.
Qualified Institutional Placement (QIP):
QIP is a private placement exclusively available to listed companies.
Under QIP, a listed company can issue shares or other securities to qualified institutional buyers (QIBs), such as mutual funds, banks, insurance companies, and foreign institutional investors, without making a public offering.
Purpose: Companies use QIP to raise capital from institutional investors quickly and efficiently. Companies choose this option when they require funds for expansion, reducing debt, or other corporate purposes.
SEBI has established guidelines for QIP issuances in India.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/sebi-decides-repeal-certain-circulars-private-placement-securitie-9212897/
With reference to the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970, consider the following statements:
- It applies to any establishment in which twenty or more workmen are employed on any day of the accounting year as contract labour.
- It applies to the establishments if any work is performed in an intermittent nature.
- It does not apply to establishments situated in the Special Economic Zones (SEZs).
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently observed that the workers employed to perform perennial/permanent nature of work couldn’t be treated as contract workers under the Contract Labour (Regulation & Abolition) Act, 1970 to deny them the benefit of regularization of a job.
About Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970:
This Act has been enacted to regulate the employment of contract labour in certain establishments, and to provide for its abolition in certain circumstances, and for matters connected therewith.
It aims to prevent the exploitation of contract labour and also introduce better conditions of work.
It extends to the whole of India.
Applicability:
To any establishment in which twenty or more workmen are employed on any day of the of the accounting year as contract labour.
To any contractor who employs or who employs twenty or more workers on any day of the accounting year.
Also, it does not apply to the establishments if any work is performed in the intermittent nature.
It does not apply to establishments situated in the Special Economic Zone (SEZ).
Salient Features of the Act:
Every establishment which proposes to employ contract workers for its work is required to obtain a certificate of registration from the appropriate Government.
Every contractor who has employed twenty or more workers on any day of the month has to obtain a license for engaging contract labour working for any establishment.
The granted licence will be valid for the specified period and may be renewed from time to time.
Payment of Wages:
It is the responsibility of the contractor to pay the required wages to each worker employed under contract labour before the expiry of the stipulated period.
If the contractor fails to make the payment within the stipulated period, then the principal employer shall be liable to make the payment of wages in full or the unpaid balance due.
The wages are to be fixed by the Commissioner of Labour.
For contravention of the provisions of the Act or any rules made thereunder, the punishment is imprisonment for a maximum term upto 3 months and a
fine upto a maximum of Rs.1000/-.
The Act provides for the constitution of Central and State Advisory Boards to advise the concerned governments on matters arising out of the administration of the Act.
The Central or State Government after consultation with the appropriate advisory boards may prohibit the employment of contract labour in any process, operation or other work in any establishment.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/workers-employed-to-perform-perennialpermanent-nature-of-work-cant-be-treated-as-contractual-workers-supreme-court-allows-regularisation-252130
Consider the following:
- India
- Australia
- United States of America
- New Zealand
- Japan
How many of the above are members of the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF)?
All five
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister of Commerce & Industry joined the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) Virtual Ministerial Meeting.
It is a regional arrangement to build cooperation and economic integration in the Indo-Pacific region.
It was launched in May 2022.
This framework is intended to advance resilience, sustainability, inclusiveness, economic growth, fairness, and competitiveness for member economies.
IPEF will seek to complement and build on existing regional architecture and support the global rules-based trading system.
Member countries: It has 14 regional partners – Australia, Brunei, Fiji, India, Indonesia, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, the United States, and Vietnam.
The economic framework broadly rests on four pillars: Trade, Supply chain resilience, Clean Energy, Decarbonization, and Infrastructure Taxes and anti-corruption measures
The IPEF is not a Free Trade Agreement (FTA), but it allows members to negotiate the parts they want to.
India and IPEF:
India has been actively participating in the IPEF, but not in all pillars.
India has decided to opt out of the trade pillar of the IPEF as most issues promoted by the IPEF do not align with India’s trade policies.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2014732
Consider the following statements with reference to the Human Development Index:
- It is released by the World Economic Forum.
- It measures country’s average achievements in three basic aspects namely health, knowledge and standard of living.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
India has moved up a rank on the global Human Development Index (HDI), according to the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) report ‘Breaking the gridlock: Reimagining cooperation in a polarised world’ released on March 13.
It is a summary composite measure of a country’s average achievements in three basic aspects of human development: health, knowledge and standard of living.
It is a measure of a country’s average achievements in three dimensions of human development:
a long and healthy life, as measured by life expectancy at birth;
knowledge, as measured by mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling; and
a decent standard of living, as measured by GNI per capita in PPP terms in US$.
The HDI sets a minimum and a maximum for each dimension, called “goalposts”, then shows where each country stands in relation to these goalposts.
This is expressed as a value between 0 and 1. The higher a country’s human development, the higher its HDI value.
The HDI is the geometric mean of normalized indices for each of the three dimensions.
The HDI also embodies Amartya Sen’s “capabilities” approach to understand human well-being, which emphasizes the importance of ends (like a decent standard of living) over means (like income per capita).
Since 1990, the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) has been publishing the Human Development Report every year and HDI is part of this report.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-ranks-134th-in-global-human-development-index-says-undp-report/article67951875.ece
Darien Gap, recently seen in news, is a physiographic link between:
Central and South America
Explanation :
The Darien Gap route that spans parts of Central and South America has seen an increasing number of people attempting to pass on their way to claiming asylum in the US.
It is a stretch of densely forested jungle across northern Colombia and southern Panama. Roughly 60 miles (97 kilometres) across, the terrain is muddy, wet and unstable.
It has become a major route for global human migration.
It is the geographic region of the easternmost Isthmus of Panama that extends into northwestern Colombia, around the Gulf of Urabá (a section of the Gulf of Darién).
It forms the physiographic link between Central and South America.
A hot, humid area typified by tropical rainforests, mangrove swamps, and low mountain ranges with cloud forest vegetation, Darién has always been sparsely populated.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/governance/what-is-the-darien-gap-and-why-are-more-migrants-risking-this-latin-american-route-to-get-to-the-us–95020
Consider the following statements with reference to the Criminal Case Management System:
- It enables easy and streamlined compilation of terror-related data across India.
- It has been developed and designed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
In a major fillip to India’s fight against terrorism and organised crime, Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation virtually inaugurated a unique digital Criminal Case Management System (CCMS) and also launches a mobile app ‘Sankalan in New Delhi.
It will enable the National Investigation Agency (NIA) personnel to better coordinate in terrorism and organized crime cases, thereby improving justice delivery.
The new stand-alone version of CCMS has been developed and designed by the National Investigation Agency (NIA).
It is a user-friendly and easy-to-deploy, customizable, browser-based software to help the State Police forces in their investigations and prosecution.
The state-of-the-art CCMS software would not only bring standardisation into investigations but also enable easy and streamlined compilation of terror-related data across the country.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2014738
With reference to Nana Jagannath Shankarseth, consider the following statements:
- He is often described as the “architect” of Mumbai (then Bombay).
- He was the first Indian to be nominated to the Legislative Council of Bombay.
- He founded the Native School of Bombay.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Maharashtra cabinet decided to ask the Ministry of Railways to rename Mumbai Central station after Nana Jagannath Shankarseth.
He was a social reformer, educationist, and philanthropist is often described as the “architect” of Mumbai (then Bombay).
He made extremely valuable contributions in terms of both ideas and money to multiple sectors, to lay a strong foundation for the Mumbai city.
He was greatly inspired by the legendary merchant and philanthropist Sir Jamsetjee Jeejeebhoy.
He became the first Indian to be nominated to the Legislative Council of Bombay.
What are some of Shankarseth’s most significant contributions?
Education:
Shankarseth was deeply committed to the growth and spread of education in Bombay, and donated land owned by his family for educational institutions.
He founded the Native School of Bombay, which was renamed first as the Bombay Native Institution, and then as the Board of Education.
Finally, this institution evolved into the prestigious Elphinstone College.
Museum, Temples:
Shankarseth was among the wealthy donors who helped promote Dr Bhau Daji Lad Museum in Byculla, which was designed by a famous London-based architect.
The Bhawani Shankar Temple near Nana Chowk was Shankarseth’s tribute to his late mother Bhawanibai Murkute.
Railways
The first train in India ran between Boribunder and Thane on April 16, 1853.
The 34-km project undertaken by the Great Indian Peninsular Railway Company.
The committee that gave the project impetus included Sir Jamsetjee Jeejeebhoy and Nana Shankarseth.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/mumbai-central-named-after-nana-jagannath-shankarseth-who-was-he-9214447/
Consider the following statements regarding the Gulf of Carpentaria, recently seen in the news:
- It is a shallow rectangular sea located in the Southern Indian Ocean.
- It is a rare modern example of an epicontinental sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A new tropical cyclone warning has been recently issued for the Gulf of Carpentaria.
About Gulf of Carpentaria:
It is a shallow rectangular sea on the northern coast of Australia and an inlet of the eastern Arafura Sea (a Pacific Ocean sea separating New Guinea and Australia).
The gulf has an area of 120,000 square miles (310,000 square km) and a maximum depth of 230 feet (70 metres).
It is 590 kilometers wide at the mouth and 675 kilometers wide near the southern coast. It is over 700 kilometers long, from north to south.
The gulf covers a continental shelf common to both New Guinea and Australia.
A ridge extends across Torres Strait, separating the floor of the gulf from the Coral Sea to the east.
It is a rare modern example of an epicontinental sea (a shallow sea on top of a continent), a feature much more common at earlier times in the Earth’s geologic history.
At least 20 rivers empty into the gulf, including the Roper, Wilton, Walker, Calvert, Flinders, McArthur, and Norman Rivers.
There are several islands in the gulf, with Groote Eylandt, being the largest.
The gulf also contains fringing reefs and coral colonies.
It gained international recognition in the 20th and 21st centuries following the discovery and exploitation of several mineral resources, including manganese and bauxite.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://au.news.yahoo.com/another-cyclone-alert-northern-australia-041400573.html
Noctis Volcano, a recently discovered massive volcano, was found on which one of the following planets?
Mars
Explanation :
Scientists recently discovered a massive volcano on Mars, temporarily designated ‘Noctis volcano’, that has been active until recent times, with the possible remains of a relict glacier at its base.
About Noctis Volcano:
It is a newly-discovered volcano located just south of Mars’ equator, in Eastern Noctis Labyrinthus, west of Valles Marineris, the planet’s vast canyon system.
The volcano sits on the eastern edge of a broad regional topographic rise called Tharsis, home to three other well-known giant volcanoes: Ascraeus Mons, Pavonis Mons, and Arsia Mons.
The massive structure spans over 9,022 meters in elevation, higher than the highest peak, Mount Everest, on Earth.
The volcano is spread in a huge area with a width of over 450 kilometres.
The central summit area is marked by several elevated mesas forming an arc, reaching a regional high and sloping downhill away from the summit area.
The gentle outer slopes extend out to 225 kilometres (140 miles) away in different directions.
The caldera remnant–the remains of a collapsed volcanic crater once host to a lava lake–can be seen near the centre of the structure.
Lava flows, pyroclastic deposits (made of volcanic particulate materials such as ash, cinders, pumice, and tephra), and hydrated mineral deposits occur in several areas within the structure’s perimeter.
It was active for a very long time on the Red Planet, and in its southeastern part lies a thin, recent volcanic deposit beneath which glacier ice is likely still present.
Points to Remember:
Mars’ Olympus Mons is a shield volcano towering at a height of 21.9 km, making it two and a half times taller than Mount Everest.
It is the largest volcano in the entire Solar System.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.news9live.com/science/giant-volcano-discovered-on-mars-is-promising-location-to-hunt-for-life-2467482
Consider the following statements regarding the Agreement on Pre-notification of the ‘Flight Testing of Ballistic Missiles’:
- It was signed between India and Pakistan immediately following the Indo-Pakistan War of 1971.
- It applies only to tests conducted with surface-to-surface ballistic missiles launched from land or sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Pakistan recently urged India to comply with the timeline stipulated in the Agreement on pre-notification of flight testing of ballistic missiles as it took note of the first flight test of India’s indigenously developed Agni-5 missile.
About Agreement on Pre-notification of the ‘Flight Testing of Ballistic Missiles’:
It was signed between India and Pakistan on October 3, 2005.
According to the pact, both countries are supposed to send each other an ‘advance notification’ of the flight test that they intend to undertake of any land or sea- launched, surface-to-surface ballistic missiles.
The notification should be “no less than three days in advance of the commencement of a five-day launch window within which it intends to undertake flight tests of any land or sea-launched, surface-to-surface ballistic missile”.
Each country also has to ensure that the test launch sites don’t fall within 40 km and the impact area isn’t within 75 km of the International Boundary or the Line of Control along the side of the country undertaking the test.
Each party shall also further ensure that the planned trajectory of the ballistic missile being flight tested shall not cross the International Boundary or the Line of Control between India and Pakistan, and further, it shall maintain a horizontal distance of at least 40 km from the International Boundary and the Line of Control.
The parties shall treat the bilateral pre-Notification exchanged under this agreement as confidential, unless otherwise agreed upon.
The notification shall be conveyed through the respective Foreign Offices and the High Commissions, as per the format annexed to the agreement.
The agreement states that pre-notification applies only to tests conducted with surface-to-surface ballistic missiles launched from land or sea. The agreement does not apply to cruise missiles.
The agreement also does not apply to surface-to-air missiles.
A party may withdraw from this agreement by giving six months written notice to the other, indicating its intention to abrogate the agreement.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/pakistan-urges-india-to-comply-with-stipulated-timeline-of-flight-testing-of-ballistic-missiles/articleshow/108502028.cms?from=mdr
With reference to the African Development Bank (AfDB), consider the following statements:
- It does not have members from outside the African continent.
- It is a financial provider to private companies investing in the Bank’s regional member countries.
- Nigeria is the largest shareholder in the bank.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The head of the African Development Bank is calling for an end to loans given in exchange for the continent’s rich supplies of oil or critical minerals used in smartphones and electric car batteries.
About African Development Bank (AfDB):
It is a regional multilateral development finance institution established to contribute to the economic development and social progress of African countries–the institution’s regional member countries.
The bank is also known as the Banque Africaine de Développement.
It was founded following an agreement signed by member states in 1963 in Khartoum, Sudan, which became effective in 1964.
Mission: To help reduce poverty, improve living conditions for Africans, and mobilize resources for the continent’s economic and social development.
AfDB seeks to stimulate and mobilize internal and external resources to promote investments as well as provide its regional member countries with technical and financial assistance.
It is a financial provider to African governments and private companies investing in the Bank’s regional member countries.
Headquarters: Abidjan, Côte d’Ivoire
The AfDB Bank Group comprises three entities: the African Development Bank, the African Development Fund (ADF), and the Nigeria Trust Fund (NTF).
While the AfDB issues loans to African middle-income countries, the ADF supports countries that do not have sufficient resources to benefit from regular AfDB financing. These countries are offered interest-free loans and grants to finance sustainable development.
The NTF was founded in 1976 with capital from Nigeria. It provides cofinancing for AfDB measures and financing for NTF-specific measures in the public and private sectors in low-income member countries.
Membership: It has 81 member countries: 54 from the African continent and the other 27 from other regions around the world.
Shareholding:
The shareholding of the Bank is 60%-40% between regional member countries and non-regional member countries respectively.
Nigeria is the largest shareholder of AfDB.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://apnews.com/article/african-development-bank-natural-resources-loans-china-66adc38e589c12589ed7831a8e56ca5e
Consider the following:
- Paper currency
- Promissory Note
- Bills of Exchange
- Cheque
How many of the above come under the ambit of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?
Only three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently observed that mere filing of the cheque dishonor complaint under the Negotiable Instruments Act would not grant a right to a complainant to seek interim compensation.
About Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881:
It came into force on 1st March 1881, and it extends to the whole of India.
It was enacted to provide a uniform legal framework for the use of negotiable instruments in India.
A negotiable instrument is a piece of paper that guarantees the payment of a certain sum of money, either immediately upon demand or at any predetermined period, and whose payer is typically identified.
It is a document that is envisioned by or made up of a contract that guarantees the unconditional payment of money and may be paid now or at a later time.
Section 13 of the Act states that, “A negotiable instrument means a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque payable either to order or to bearer”.
However, no section of this act affects the usage of paper currency, which is governed by the Indian Paper Currency Act of 1871.
The Act has been amended several times to ensure that it is in line with changing business practices and legal requirements.
It was amended in 1988 and now includes cheque defaulters as well. A person who issues cheques without sufficient balance in their account is considered a ‘defaulter’ and the act of ‘cheque bounce’ is a criminal offence.
The 2015 amendment allows filing cheque bounce cases in a court at a place where the cheque was presented for clearance and not the place of issue.
Promissory Notes:
It is a written promise to pay a specific amount of money to the person named in the document.’
It can be transferred by endorsement and delivery.
In the case of State Bank of India vs. Gangadhar Ramchandra Panse, the court held that a promissory note must contain an unconditional promise to pay a specific amount of money. If the promise is conditional, the document will not be considered a promissory note.
Bills of Exchange:
It is a written order by the maker to the payee to pay a certain amount of money to a third party.
The person who issues the bill is called the ‘drawer,’ and the person to whom the payment is to be made is called the ‘drawee.’ The person in whose favor the payment is to be made is called the ‘payee.’
It can be transferred by endorsement and delivery.
In the case of Bank of India vs. O.P. Swarnakar, the court held that a bill of exchange is a negotiable instrument that can be transferred by endorsement and delivery. The transfer of a bill of exchange is valid even if the transferor does not own the instrument at the time of transfer.
Cheques:
A cheque is a written order by the drawer to the bank to pay a certain amount of money to the payee. The bank is required to pay the amount mentioned in the cheque to the payee or their authorized representative.
It can be transferred by endorsement and delivery.
In the case of Canara Bank vs. Nuclear Power Corporation of India Ltd, the court held that a cheque must be drawn on a specified bank and must not be expressed to be payable otherwise than on demand.
The court also held that the bank is under a legal obligation to pay the cheque amount to the payee or their authorized representative, even if the drawer has insufficient funds in their account.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/s143a-ni-act-interim-compensation-in-cheque-dishonour-cases-isnt-mandatory-supreme-court-252443
Consider the following statements with reference to the World Monuments Fund:
- It is an independent organization devoted to safeguarding the world’s cultural heritage sites.
- It is headquartered in New York.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Eri (tank) network in the Kazhuveli watershed region in Villupuram district that comprises of an incredible network of tanks created thousands of years ago is to be proposed for nomination to the World Monuments Fund Watch 2025 programme.
It is the leading independent organization devoted to safeguarding the world’s most treasured places to enrich people’s lives and build mutual understanding across cultures and communities.
Since 1965, its global team of experts has preserved the world’s diverse cultural heritage using the highest international standards at more than 700 sites in 112 countries.
Partnering with local communities, funders, and governments, WMF draws on heritage to address some of today’s most pressing challenges: climate change, underrepresentation, imbalanced tourism, and post-crisis recovery.
Headquarter: New York City
In 2015, WMF India became the most recent entry to the World Monuments Fund family of affiliates, established under India’s Companies Act, following the country’s policy to include heritage conservation in corporate social responsibility programs.
What is the World Monuments Watch?
It is a nomination-based program that connects local heritage preservation to global awareness and action.
Every two years, the Watch rallies support to places in need and the people who care for them, spotlighting new challenges.
At its core, the Watch’s call to action seeks to empower timely preservation efforts that improve the lives of communities.
The 2025 Watch will include 25 places, each telling an urgent local story with global relevance.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/conservationists-to-propose-kazhuveli-watershed-region-in-tn-for-nomination-to-world-monuments-fund-watchlist-2025/article67945935.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to Nonalcoholic Steatohepatitis:
- It is a liver inflammation caused by a buildup of fat in the liver.
- It occurs because of insulin resistance and type 2 diabetes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Madrigal Pharmaceuticals Inc.’s drug Rezdiffra gained the first US approval to treat a potentially deadly liver disease called nonalcoholic steatohepatitis, or NASH that affects millions worldwide.
It is liver inflammation and damage caused by a buildup of fat in the liver.
It is part of a group of conditions called nonalcoholic fatty liver disease.
NASH can get worse and cause scarring of the liver, which leads to cirrhosis. But the disease doesn’t always get worse.
It is similar to the kind of liver disease that is caused by long-term, heavy drinking. But NASH occurs in people who don’t abuse alcohol.
Symptoms: As NASH progresses and liver damage gets worse, one may start to have symptoms such as:
Fatigue (feeling tired all the time).
Weight loss for no clear reason.
General weakness.
An ache in the upper right part of your belly.
Causes: Things that put people at risk for NASH and for liver damage include: obesity, insulin resistance and type 2 diabetes, high cholesterol and high triglycerides, metabolic syndrome etc.
Treatment for NASH includes managing conditions that increase your risk for NASH or make it worse. You can:
Reduce your total cholesterol level.
Reach a healthy weight. Losing 3% to 10% of your total body weight can make a difference.
Control diabetes.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/world-news/first-drug-to-treat-common-lethal-liver-disease-gets-us-nod-101710503866713.html
SIMA, an AI gaming agent, is developed by:
Explanation :
Google DeepMind revealed its latest AI gaming agent called SIMA which can follow natural language instructions to perform tasks across video game environments.
Scalable Instructable Multiworld Agent (SIMA) as an AI Agent which can process data and take action themselves.
It can be called a generalist AI Agent that is capable of doing different kinds of tasks.
Features
It is like a virtual buddy who can understand and follow instructions in all sorts of virtual environments – from exploring mysterious dungeons to building lavish castles.
It can accomplish tasks or solve challenges assigned to it.
It “understands” your commands as it has been trained to process human language.
So when one asks it to build a castle or find the treasure chest, it understands exactly what these commands mean.
One distinct feature of this AI Agent is that it is capable of learning and adapting.
SIMA does this through the interactions it has with the user. The more you interact with SIMA, the smarter it gets by learning from its experiences and improves over time. This makes it better at understanding and fulfilling user requests.
However, SIMA goes beyond that and can follow instructions in a variety of game settings. This could potentially introduce more helpful AI agents for other environments.
Google has partnered with game developers to train SIMA on a variety of video games.
These research marks the first time an agent has demonstrated it can understand a broad range of gaming worlds and follow natural-language instructions to carry out tasks within them, as a human might.”
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/sima-google-deepmind-new-ai-video-games-9215895/
Consider the following statements with reference to the ETHANOL 100 fuel:
- It has a very low octane rating.
- It can be used in Flex-Fuel Vehicles (FFVs) designed to run on gasoline.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister for Petroleum & Natural Gas and Housing and Urban Affairs, launched ‘ETHANOL 100, a revolutionary automotive fuel at Indian Oil Retail Outlet.
It has a high-octane rating, typically between 100-105.
It proves ideal for high-performance engines, ensuring improved efficiency and power output all while minimizing environmental impact.
Moreover, ETHANOL 100’s versatility shines through, as it can be used in a wide array of vehicles, including Flex-Fuel Vehicles (FFVs) designed to run on gasoline, ethanol, or any blend of the two.
Its practicality and potential to become a mainstream fuel option with the right infrastructure in place.
It includes 93-93.5 percent ethanol blended with 5 percent petrol and 1.5 percent co-solvent, which is a binder.
It stands as a cleaner, greener alternative to gasoline, boasting lower emissions of greenhouse gases and pollutants, thus aiding in combating climate change and enhancing air quality in our communities.
What are flex-fuel vehicles?
These are designed to run on a variety of fuels.
These are equipped with an internal combustion engine (ICE) which can run on petrol or ethanol or methanol, giving consumers choice at the point of sale of the fuel.
Apart from a few modifications, flex fuel vehicles are similar to petrol-only cars.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2015031
Atapaka Bird Sanctuary, recently in news, is located in:
Andhra Pradesh
Explanation :
In recent times, nature lovers, bird watchers, students and many tourists have been having an enjoyable time at Atapaka Bird Sanctuary with thousands of migratory birds arriving at Kolleru Lake.
It is situated on the Kolleru Lake in the Indian State Andhra Pradesh.
It is the home to a vast repertoire of birds. It is especially known for sheltering Pelicans.
It spans over an area of 673 square kilometres with wetland marsh habitat extending across two districts namely West Godavari and Krishna.
Atapaka Bird Sanctuary falls under Kaikalur forest range.
The common species that can be witnessed in the sanctuary include Cormorants, Common Redshanks, Pied Avocets, Black-winged Stilts, Red-crested Pochards etc.
Key facts about Kolleru Lake
It is the largest freshwater lake in India.
It is located in Andhra Pradesh between the Krishna and Godavari deltas.
The lake serves as a natural flood-balancing reservoir for these two rivers.
The lake is fed directly by water from the seasonal Budameru and Tammileru streams, and is connected to the Krishna and Godavari systems by over 68 inflowing drains and channels.
It serves as a habitat for migratory birds.
The lake was notified as a wildlife sanctuary in November 1999 under India’s Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, and designated a wetland of international importance in 2002 under the international Ramsar Convention.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/over-150-lakh-migratory-birds-visited-sanctuaries-wetlands-in-andhra-pradesh-this-winter-say-forest-officials/article67950893.ece
With reference to T+0 Settlement, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:
- It means that the funds and securities for a transaction will be settled on the day the trade was entered.
- At present, all the transactions in the Indian securities markets operate on T+0 Settlement cycle.
- Shorter settlement cycles are expected to mitigate counterparty risk and enhance market liquidity.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) recently approved the launch of the beta version of the T+0 settlement on an optional basis.
About T+0 Settlement:
T+0 settlement means that the funds and securities for a transaction will be settled on the day the trade was entered.
At present, the Indian securities markets operate on a T+1 settlement cycle, where the settlement happens on the next day of trade.
In 2002, the regulator cut down the settlement period from T+5 to T+3, and in 2003, SEBI further reduced it to T+2. In 2021, the T+1 settlement started and was gradually implemented, with the final phase completed in January 2023.
The T+0 settlement cycle will now be offered as an alternative alongside T+1.
Advantages:
Instant receipt of funds and securities to the investor.
It will eliminate the risk of any kind of settlement shortage and give greater control over funds and securities to the investor.
There is expected to be lower counterparty risk and increased liquidity in the market.
Although the T+0 settlement system is not as common as T+1 or T+2 settlement cycles, there are a few countries and markets that have adopted T+0 settlement.
The Moscow Exchange (MOEX), Korea Exchange (KRX), Taiwan Stock Exchange (TWSE), and Hong Kong Stock Exchange (HKEX) offer T+0 settlements for certain types of trades and transactions.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/business/markets/sebi-to-rollout-beta-version-of-t0-settlement-12462771.html
Which one of the following cities is located on the banks of Shipra River?
Ujjain
Explanation :
A performance audit conducted by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) on the degradation of the Shipra River, threw up a host of significant findings.
About Shipra River:
The Shipra, also known as the Kshipra, is a river in Madhya Pradesh.
It is a perennial river and is considered as sacred as the Ganga River by the Hindus.
Course:
Origin: It originates in the Vindhya Range from a hill called Kakri-Tekdi, which is in the north of Dhar and situated at a distance of 11km from Ujjain.
This river is 195km long, out of which 93km flow through Ujjain.
It flows across the Malwa Plateau to join the Chambal River.
Religious Significance:
The Puranas, or ancient Hindu texts, put forward that the Shipra originated from the heart of Varaha, Lord Vishnu’s incarnation as a boar.
Also on the banks of the Shipra is Sage Sandipani’s ashram or hermitage, where Krishna, Lord Vishnu’s eighth incarnation, had studied.
It finds mention not only in ancient Hindu texts but also in Buddhist and Jain scriptures.
The holy city of Ujjain is located on the right bank of the Shipra River. The famous Kumbha Mela takes place in the ghats of this city, once every 12 years, a yearly celebration of the river goddess Kshipra.
Major Tributaries: Khan and Gambhir
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/xplore/2024/Mar/16/cag-alert-on-unacceptable-pollution-ofkshipra-river-in-madhya-pradesh-2
Consider the following statements regarding the Eastern Maritime Corridor (EMC):
- It is a proposed sea route between the Indian port of Chennai and the Russian port of St. Petersburg.
- It is significantly shorter than the current route between the Indian and Russian ports via the Suez Canal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Red Sea crisis has shifted attention to the Eastern Maritime Corridor (EMC) - the proposed trade route for coking coal, crude oil, LNG, fertilizers and containers.
About Eastern Maritime Corridor (EMC):
It is a proposed sea route between the Indian port of Chennai and the Russian port of Vladivostok.
The corridor is estimated to bring down transportation time between Indian and Russian ports in the Far East Region by up to 16 days.
Once complete, it will take 24 days, down from presently over 40 days, to transport goods from India to Far East Russia.
The present trade route between Mumbai and St. Petersburg covers a distance of 8,675 nautical miles.
The EMC will cover a distance of about 5,600 nautical miles, which is significantly shorter than the current route via the Suez Canal.
For India, it will provide a shorter and more efficient route to access the markets of the Far East, such as China and Japan.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://m.dailyhunt.me/news/uae/english/rtnews-epaper-dh96328373a69d4bb48b5584371207706f/this+new+trade+route+could+revolutionize+russiaindia+trade+and+strategic+partnership-newsid-n592279706
Consider the following statements with reference to the Rice Bran:
- It is one of the main byproducts in the process of rice milling.
- It is currently mostly used as animal feed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Central Government has extended the ban on exports of de-oiled rice bran by another four months, according to an official notification put out by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) recently.
About Rice Bran:
It is one of the main byproducts in the process of rice milling.
It is the outer brown layer of brown rice and is separated during the milling process.
One hundred kilogram (100 kg) of paddy rice will generate approximately 5−10 kg of bran.
The bran fraction contains 14-18% oil.
Rice bran oil is popular as a “healthy oil” in Japan, Asia, and particularly India.
It is a pale yellow, odourless, nutty-flavoured oil with a sweet taste.
It is a good source of unsaturated fats, vitamin E, and other important nutrients.
The nutrient composition of rice bran depends on the rice variety and the efficiency of the milling system.
It is currently mostly used as animal feed. The oily nature makes bran an excellent binder for animal feeds.
Health Effects:
It has anti-diabetic, lipid-lowering, hypotensive, antioxidant, and anti-inflammatory effects, while its consumption also improves bowel function.
It contains substances that might decrease how much cholesterol the body absorbs.
It might also decrease calcium absorption, which might help prevent certain types of kidney stones from forming.
Hence both statements are correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Section 82 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC):
- A proclamation can be issued by a court if it has reason to believe that the person has concealed himself.
- A proclamation cannot be issued without first issuing a warrant.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently held that an accused would not be entitled to pre-arrest bail if the non-bailable warrant and the proclamation under Section 82(1) Cr.P.C. is pending against him.
About Section 82 of Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C):
It provides for the issuing of a proclamation in a case where the court has reason to believe that the person has concealed himself or has absconded in order to evade the execution of warrants issued against him.
The court may form its opinion suo motu from the material on a record or on the presentation of evidence by the prosecution.
Through a written proclamation, the court orders the accused to appear at a specific place, and a specific time should be given; it should not be less than 30 days from the date of publishing of the proclamation.
It can only be invoked as a matter of last resort where the power of issuing warrants has been exhausted by the court.
The provisions under this section are not for punishing the accused but have the sole purpose of compelling him to appear before the court.
Therefore, a proclamation cannot be issued without first issuing a warrant.
The issuing of the proclamation cannot be done in an arbitrary manner, but there should be reasons recorded by the court to substantiate the order of the proclamation.
Subsection (2) of Section 82 deals with the procedure through which a proclamation is issued. The provision provides that the proclamation shall be published as follows:
It is read in some conspicuous place in the town or village where the accused person ordinarily resides.
It is affixed at some conspicuous part of the house where such a person ordinarily resides. It can also be fixed in some conspicuous part of town or village.
It shall be affixed at a conspicuous part of the courthouse.
The proclamation can also be circulated through a daily newspaper circulated in the place where the person ordinarily resides.
Proclaimed Offender:
A person who is accused of serious offences under the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, if he fails to appear as per the requirements of the proclamation, the court can declare him a proclaimed offender after inquiring into the matter.
A police officer can arrest a person who has been declared a proclaimed offender without any warrant.
Even a private person can arrest a proclaimed offender and present him to the nearest police station.
The title of proclaimed offender ceases to exist as soon as the person is arrested or otherwise becomes capable of being presented before the court.
Section 174A of the IPC, 1860, also provides that where a person has been declared a proclaimed offender under Section 82 of the CrPC, he shall be liable for a term of imprisonment that may extend to seven years and shall also be liable to a fine in tandem with such a punishment.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Grievance Redressal Assessment and Index:
- It is designed and published by NITI Aayog on an annual basis.
- It uses data from the Centralised Public Grievance Redressal and Management System.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Ministry of Home Affairs has consistently ranked amongst the top 10 ministries in 2023-24 in the Grievance Redressal Assessment Index (GRAI), performing well in all 15 specified indicators.
It was conceptualised and designed by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG), Government of India.
Objective: To present an organisation-wise comparative picture and provide valuable insights about strengths and areas of improvement regarding the grievance redressal mechanism.
It is based on a comprehensive index in the dimensions of Efficiency, Feedback, Domain and Organisational Commitment
It uses data from the Centralised Public Grievance Redressal and Management System (CPGRAMS).
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
With reference to Model Code of Conduct (MCC), consider the following statements:
- It serves as a mechanism to curb any misuse of state machinery and financial resources by the ruling party.
- It bars Ministers from announcing financial grants once the elections are announced.
- It is backed by the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Chief Election Commissioner asked all political parties to strictly adhere to the Model Code of Conduct (MCC), which lays down a list of dos and don’ts for leaders and parties ahead of elections.
It traces its origins back to the assembly elections in Kerala in 1960.
It serves as a set of conventions unanimously agreed upon by all stakeholders involved in the electoral process.
Its primary objective is to ensure that campaigns, polling, and counting proceed in an orderly, transparent, and peaceful manner.
Additionally, it serves as a mechanism to curb any misuse of state machinery and financial resources by the ruling party.
It does not possess any statutory backing but has been upheld by the Supreme Court on multiple occasions.
What Activities Are Prohibited After Implementation of MCC?
Ministers and other authorities are barred from announcing any financial grants or making commitments once the elections are announced, as per the guidelines of the election panel.
Once the dates for the Lok Sabha elections are announced, ministers and other authorities are also restricted from laying foundation stones or initiating projects or schemes of any kind, except civil servants.
No project or scheme that may sway voters in favor of the ruling party can be announced after the enforcement of the Model Code of Conduct.
Additionally, ministers are prohibited from using official machinery for campaign purposes.
Official visits must not be combined with any electioneering activities after the enforcement of the Model Code of Conduct.
Furthermore, the use of official machinery or personnel for electioneering purposes is strictly forbidden.
Ministers and other authorities are not allowed to sanction grants or payments from discretionary funds once the elections are announced.
The utilization of official machinery or personnel for electioneering is strictly prohibited, as per the guidelines of the Election Commission of India (ECI).
Government accommodations should not serve as campaign offices or be used for holding public meetings for election propaganda by any party, as prohibited by the poll body.
The Election Commission of India (ECI) prohibits the issuance of advertisements at the cost of the public exchequer in newspapers and other media during the election period.
The misuse of official mass media for partisan coverage of political news and publicity regarding achievements to favor the ruling party should be strictly avoided, as noted in the MCC guidelines.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Pandavula Gutta, a Geo Heritage site recently seen in news, is located in:
Telangana
Explanation :
Recently, Pandavula Gutta has been officially recognised as the sole Geo-heritage site in Telangana.
It is a geological marvel older than the Himalayan hills.
It is located in Jayashankar Bhupalpally district in Telangana is home to many prehistoric habitation sites.
This site was first discovered in the year 1990.
It is rich in terms of number of paintings, rock shelters and its habitation, right from the mesolithic to medieval times.
The paintings also feature geometrical designs and impressions in green, red, yellow and white pigment colours.
These cave paintings offer a rare glimpse into the prehistoric man’s rock art identified on walls and ceilings of caves, rock shelters and isolated boulders.
The rock art paintings depict wild life like Bison, Antelope, Tiger, Leopard etc. Other shapes like swastika symbol, circles and squares, weapons such as bows, arrows, sword and lancer etc are present in these paintings.
Hemoglobin A1C Test is primarily used to test which one of the following diseases?
Diabetes
Explanation :
India is estimated to have 10.13 crore people with diabetes, and another 13.6 crore people who are pre-diabetic, according to a nationwide study published in 2023.
It is one of the most commonly-used tests to diagnose pre-diabetes and diabetes (both type 1 and type 2) and to help manage diabetes.
It is also known as the glycated haemoglobin or glycosylated haemoglobin test.
Hemoglobin is the part of your red blood cells that carries oxygen from your lungs to the rest of your body.
It is an important blood test that gives a good indication of how well your diabetes is being controlled.
Consider the following statements regarding the ULLAS initiative:
- It aims to provide basic education, digital and financial literacy to citizens aged 15 and above.
- It is an initiative of the Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Department of School Education and Literacy (DoSEL), Ministry of Education, Government of India, is set to conduct the Foundational Literacy and Numeracy Assessment Test (FLNAT) as part of the ULLAS - Nav Bharat Saaksharta Karyakram on 17th March 2024, across 23 states.
The Understanding Lifelong Learning for All in Society (ULLAS) initiative is poised to revolutionise education and literacy across the nation.
It is done by fostering a learning ecosystem that reaches every individual, bridging the gaps in basic literacy and critical life skills.
It imparts basic education, digital and financial literacy and critical life skills to citizens aged 15 and above who lost on the opportunity to go to school. It is being implemented through volunteerism.
The objectives of the scheme is to impart not only Foundational Literacy and Numeracy but also to cover other components which are necessary for a citizen of 21 st century such as
Critical Life Skills (including financial literacy, digital literacy, commercial skills, health care and awareness, child care and education, and family welfare);
Vocational Skills Development (with a view towards obtaining local employment);
Basic Education (including preparatory, middle, and secondary stage equivalency)
Continuing Education (including engaging holistic adult education courses in arts, sciences, technology, culture, sports, and recreation, as well as other topics of interest or use to local learners, such as more advanced material on critical life skills).
ULLAS app which is user-friendly and interactive app available both on android and ios.
It will serve as a digital gateway for learners to engage in diverse learning resources through the DIKSHA portal of NCERT.
The ULLAS app can be used for registration of learners and volunteers either through self-registration or by surveyors.
With reference to Haider Ali, consider the following statements:
- He established an arms factory at Dindigul, with the help of the French.
- He maintained friendly relations with the Nawab of Arcot.
- He forced the English forces to accept a very humiliating treaty of Madras.
- His attack on Travancore for restoration of his sovereign rights led to the second Anglo-Mysore war.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Haidar Ali took the help of the French to set up an arms factory at Dindigul (now in Tamil Nadu), and also introduced Western methods of training for his army. He realised that the exceedingly mobile Marathas could be contained only by a swift cavalry, that the cannons of the French-trained Nizami army could be silenced only by an effective artillery, and that the superior arms from the West could only be matched by arms brought from the same place or manufactured with the same know-how.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Haidar had territorial disputes with the Nawab of Arcot and differences with the Marathas. However, during the first Anglo-Mysore war, Haidar paid the Marathas to turn them neutral.
Statement 3 is correct: Haider Ali joined forces with Nizam in the first Anglo-Mysore war to attack the Nawab of Arcot. By suddenly attacking Madras, he forced the English to conclude a very humiliating treaty in 1769—Treaty of Madras. The treaty provided for the exchange of prisoners and mutual restitution of conquests. Haidar Ali was promised the help of the English in case he was attacked by any other power.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Tipu Sultan and not Haider Ali attacked Travancore for restoration of his sovereign rights. This led to the third Anglo-Mysore war. Travancore had purchased Jalkottal and Cannanore from the Dutch in the Cochin state. As Cochin was a feudatory of Tipu, he considered the act of Travancore as a violation of his sovereign rights.
Why did the East India Company not annex Bengal after the Battle of Plassey?
- The Company was not willing to take over the responsibility of administration.
- East India Company’s prime objective at that time was the expansion of trade.
- The local rulers in India were ready to grant privileges to the East India Company.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Victory for the British East India Company in the Battle of Plassey was the start of nearly two centuries of British rule in India. For an event with such momentous consequences, it was a surprisingly unimpressive military encounter, the defeat of the Nawab of Bengal owing much to betrayal. The battle of Plassey was never really fought because; Mir Jafar was bribed by Robert Clive. The Company was still unwilling to take over the responsibility of administration.
Statement 2 is correct: The company established trading posts in Surat (1619), Madras (1639), Bombay (1668), and Calcutta (1690). By 1647, the company had 23 factories, each under the command of a factor or master merchant and governor, and 90 employees in India. The main objective of any business is to earn a profit so the prime objective of East India Company was the expansion of trade.
Statement 3 is correct: East India company’s prime objective was the expansion of trade. This could be done without conquest, because the local rulers were willing to grant privileges to the east India company. So, company decided not to take over territories directly.
With reference to the impact of the ‘Battle of Buxar’, consider the following statements:
- The real power of administration shifted from the Nawab to the Naib-Subedar.
- Awadh was immediately annexed into the Company’s territory.
- Treaty of Allahabad was signed between Robert Clive and Shah Alam II.
- The East India Company was given the diwani of the province of Bengal.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
2 only
Explanation :
Battle of Buxar; The combined armies of Mir Kasim (Nawab of Bengal), Shuja-ud-daulah (Nawab of Awadh) and Shah Alam II (Mughal Emperor) were defeated by the English forces under Major Hector Munro at Buxar on October 22, 1764.
Statement 1 is correct: After the war, the real power of administration lay in the hands of the naib-subahdar, who could be appointed or dismissed by the English. The Nawab was made a titular head.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Awadh was not annexed, but was made a Buffer State. Because, annexation would have placed the Company under an obligation to protect an extensive land frontier from the Afghan and the Maratha invasions.
Statement 3 is correct: The victory of the British led to the signing of the Treaty of Allahabad (1765) by Robert Clive with Shah Alam II. By this treaty the Company got the Diwani right to collect land revenue from the princely states of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa. Besides, the Company obtained three districts, Burdwan, Chittagong and Midnapur, in Bengal and sovereignty over Calcutta.
Statement 4 is correct. In 1765 the Mughal emperor appointed the Company as the Diwan of the provinces of Bengal. The Diwani allowed the Company to use the vast revenue resources of Bengal. This solved a major problem that the Company had earlier faced. After the battle of Buxar, the East India Company became the real masters of Bengal.
With reference to the events that led to the Battle of Plassey, consider the following statements:
- Seizure of the English fort at Calcutta by Siraj ud-Daulah.
- Rampant misuse of trade privileges by East India Company officials.
- Occurrence of the Black Hole tragedy.
- Abolition of duty-free trade for the East India Company.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The following were the factors responsible for the Battle of Plassey, 1757:
The English fortified Calcutta without the nawab’s permission.
The Company further tried to mislead him, and compounded their sin by giving asylum to a political fugitive, Krishna Das, son of Raj Ballabh who had fled with immense treasures against the nawab’s will.
Siraj ud-Daulah’s attack and seizure of the English fort at Calcutta brought their hostility into the open. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The officials of the Company made rampant misuse of its trade privileges that adversely affected the nawab’s finances. So, Statement 2 is correct.
‘Black Hole Tragedy’ where Siraj-ud-daula is believed to have imprisoned 146 English persons who were lodged in a very tiny room due to which 123 of them died of suffocation. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Mir Kasim decided to abolish duty free trade for the English East India Company which led to Battle of Buxar in 1764. So, Statement 4 is incorrect.
With reference to the ‘Battle of Pollilur’, consider the following statements:
- It was fought between the forces of Tipu Sultan and the East India Company during the second Anglo-Mysore war.
- It resulted in the acceptance of the subsidiary alliance by the Kingdom of Mysore.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Battle of Pollilur took place in September 1780. It was one of the key engagements in the second Anglo-Mysore war fought between 1780 and 1784. The forces of the Kingdom of Mysore led by Hyder Ali and Tipu Sultan decimated the East India Company (EIC) soldiers under Colonel William Baillie in the Battle of Pollilur. So, statement 1 is correct.
The defeat of Mysore in the fourth Anglo-Mysore war paved the way for the acceptance of the Subsidiary Alliance. The war began on April 17, 1799, and ended on May 4, 1799, with the fall of Seringapatam. After the fall of Seringapatam, the English chose a boy from the earlier Hindu royal family of Mysore as the maharaja and also imposed on him the subsidiary alliance system. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Battle of Plassey:
- It led to the monopolization of trade and commerce in Bengal by the East India Company.
- It came to an end by the Treaty of Allahabad.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
●The Battle of Plassey: The arrival of a strong force under the command of Robert Clive at Calcutta from Madras strengthened the English position in Bengal. Clive forged a secret alliance with the traitors of the nawab—Mir Jafar, Rai Durlabh, Jagat Seth (an influential banker of Bengal), and Omichand. Under the deal, Mir Jafar was to be made the nawab who in turn would reward the Company for its services. The secret alliance of the Company with the conspirators further strengthened the English position. So the English victory in the Battle of Plassey (June 23, 1757) was decided before the battle was even fought. Due to the conspiracy of the nawab’s officials, the 50,000-strong force of Siraj was defeated by a handful of Clive’s forces. Siraj-ud-daula was captured and murdered by the order of Mir Jafar’s son, Miran. The Battle of Plassey was placed at the disposal of the English vast resources of Bengal. After Plassey, the East India Company virtually monopolized the trade and commerce of Bengal. So, Statement 1 is correct.
● The Battle of Plassey had political significance for it laid the foundation of the British Empire in India; it has been rightly regarded as the starting point of British rule in India. Also, it led to the signing of the Treaty of 1760 between Mir Kasim and the Company. Mir Kasim agreed to cede to the Company the districts of Burdwan, Midnapur, and Chittagong. The Company would get half of the share in the chunam trade of Sylhet and so on. The Treaty of Allahabad (1765) was concluded after the Battle of Buxar.So, statement 2 is not correct.
With reference to residents appointed in Indian states by the Company after the Battle of Buxar (1764), consider the following statements:
- They served as political or commercial agents for the East India Company.
- They strictly maintained non-interference in the internal affairs of Indian states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
After the Battle of Buxar (1764), the Company appointed Residents in Indian states. They were political or commercial agents and their job was to serve and further the interests of the Company. So, statement1 is correct.
Through the Residents, the Company officials began interfering in the internal affairs of Indian states. They tried to decide who was to be the successor to the throne, and who was to be appointed to administrative posts.So, statement 2 is not correct.
Wars
Resultant Treaties
Explanation :
Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Treaty of Salbai was signed between Warren Hastings and Mahadaji Scindia and it was resultant of First Anglo-Maratha war (1775-82). Accordingly, Salsette and Bassein were given to the British.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: The First Anglo-Mysore War (1766–1769) was a conflict in India between the Haider Ali and the East India Company. It was ended by the Treaty of Madras.
The Treaty of Purandhar was a doctrine signed on 1 March 1776 by the peshwa of the Maratha Empire and the British East India Company.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: The Treaty of Gwalior was signed between the British and Sindhia in November 1817. This treaty was signed during Third Anglo-Maratha War.
Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: The Treaty of Mangalore (March, 1784) lead to an end of the Second Mysore War. Whereas, Treaty of Srirangapatam was conclusive treaty of third Anglo-Mysore war and under this treaty nearly half of the Mysorean territory was taken over by the victors.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
The British army defeated Tipu Sultan in a brief but fierce war in 1799 thus putting an end to the ambitions of the Mysore state. In this context, which of the following was/ were the consequence(s) of this war?
- All the territories of Mysore were given to the British ally, the Nizam of Hyderabad.
- Mysore was restored to the descendants of the original Rajas from whom Haidar
Ali seized power.
- Subsidiary alliance was imposed on the new Mysore State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The East India Company, which ruled huge tracts of the subcontinent, recognised that Tipu’s powerful army was one of the greatest threats to their expansion in India. It fought three wars against Tipu and his father, Hyder Ali, between 1767 and 1792.
- The threat from Mysore was finally removed on 4 May 1799, when the British - supported by the army of their Indian ally, the Nizam of Hyderabad - stormed and captured Tipu’s capital, Seringapatam, after a month-long siege. Tipu was killed in the fighting, and with his death the Fourth Mysore War (1799) ended.
- After the war nearly half of Tipu’s dominions were divided between the British and their ally, the
Nizam. The reduced Kingdom of Mysore was restored to the descendants of the original rajas from whom Haidar Ali had seized power. Hence statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
- A special treaty of subsidiary alliance was imposed on the new Raja by which the GovernorGeneral was authorised to take over the administration of the state in case of necessity. Mysore was in fact made a complete dependency of the company. Hence statement 3 is correct.
With reference to 3rd Anglo Maratha war (1817 – 1818), consider the following statements:
- The reason for this war was the British conflict with the Pindaris whom the British suspected were being protected by the Marathas.
- Treaty of Bassein was signed after the war between Peshwa and the East India Company.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The third Anglo-Maratha war was the last and decisive War in Anglo-Maratha relations.
Background:
Lord Hastings had the imperialistic design of imposing British paramountcy.
By the Charter Act of 1813, the East India Company’s monopoly of trade in China (except tea) ended, and hence the company needed more markets.
The Pindaris, made up of many castes and classes, were attached to Maratha armies as mercenaries. When the Marathas became weak, the Pindaris could not get regular employment.
As a consequence, they started plundering neighbouring territories, including those of the Company. The English charged the Marathas with giving shelter to the Pindaris. So, statement 1 is correct.
Pindari leaders like Amir Khan and Karim Khan surrendered while Chitu Khan fled into the jungles.
The Treaty of Bassein, described as a treaty with a cipher (the Peshwa), wounded the feelings of the other Maratha leaders.
Lord Hastings’ actions taken against the Pindaris were seen as a transgression of the sovereignty of the Marathas; they served to unite the Maratha Confederacy once again.
A repentant Bajirao II made a last bid in 1817 by rallying together the Maratha chiefs against the English in the course of the Third Anglo-Maratha War.
The course of the war:
The Peshwa attacked the British Residency at Poona. Appa Sahib of Nagpur attacked the residency at Nagpur, and the Holkar made preparations for war.
But by then, the Marathas had lost almost all those elements which are needed for the growth of power. The political and administrative conditions of all the Maratha states were confused and inefficient.
The Bhonsle at Nagpur and the Sindhia at Gwalior had also become weak. So the English, striking back vigorously, succeeded in not allowing the Peshwa to exert his authority again on the Maratha confederacy.
Result:
The Peshwa was defeated at Khirki, Bhonsle at Sitabuldi, and Holkar at Mahidpur.
Some important treaties were signed. These were:
June 1817, Treaty of Poona, with the Peshwa.
November 1817, Treaty of Gwalior, with Sindhia.
January 1818, Treaty of Mandasor, with Holkar.
In June 1818, the Peshwa finally surrendered, and the Maratha Confederacy was dissolved. The Peshwaship was abolished.
Peshwa Bajirao became a British retainer at Bithur in Kanpur.
Pratap Singh, a lineal descendant of Shivaji, was made ruler of a small principality, Satara, formed out of the Peshwa’s dominions.
Treaty of Bassein was signed after the 2nd Anglo Maratha war. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Which one of the following statements best describes a ballistic missile?
A rocket-propelled, self-guided strategic-weapons system
Explanation :
North Korea recently fired short-range ballistic missiles towards its eastern waters as the United States Secretary of State prepared to open a democracy summit in neighbouring South Korea.
About Ballistic Missiles:
A ballistic missile is a rocket-propelled, self-guided strategic-weapons system that follows a ballistic trajectory to deliver a payload from its launch site to a predetermined target.
They are powered initially by a rocket or series of rockets in stages, but then follow an unpowered trajectory that arches upwards before descending to reach its intended target.
They can carry conventional high explosives as well as chemical, biological, or nuclear munitions.
They can be launched from aircraft, ships, and submarines, in addition to land-based silos and mobile platforms.
There are four general classifications of ballistic missiles based on their range, or the maximum distance the missile can travel:
Short-range: less than 1,000 kilometers (approximately 620 miles), also known as “tactical” ballistic missiles.
Medium-range: between 1,000 and 3,000 kilometers (approximately 620-1,860 miles), also known as “theater” ballistic missiles.
Intermediate-range: between 3,000 and 5,500 kilometers (approximately 1,860-3,410 miles)
Long-range: more than 5,500 kilometers (approximately 3,410 miles), also known as intercontinental or strategic ballistic missiles.
Short- and medium-range ballistic missiles are referred to as theater ballistic missiles, whereas ICBMs, or long-range ballistic missiles, are described as strategic ballistic missiles.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.aljazeera.com/news/2024/3/18/north-korea-fires-ballistic-missiles-as-blinken-visits-seoul
With reference to Persian Gulf, consider the following statements:
- It is an extension of the Gulf of Oman and connects to the Indian Ocean via the Strait of Hormuz.
- It lies between the Arabian Peninsula and Iran.
- It is bounded by Qatar, Saudi Arabia and Oman.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Chinese bookings for tankers carrying crude oil from the Persian Gulf have risen in recent days, adding to signs that the biggest importer is sourcing more from the area amid shipping disruptions in the Red Sea.
About Persian Gulf:
It is part of the Indian Ocean.
It is located in Western Asia.
It is an extension of the Gulf of Oman and connects to the Indian Ocean via the Strait of Hormuz in the east.
It is also referred to as the Arabian Gulf or Gulf of Iran.
It lies between the Arabian Peninsula and Iran to the southwest and northeast, respectively.
It covers approximately 251,000 km2, with a maximum depth of 90 meters and an average depth of 50 meters.
It is bounded by several countries, including Iran to the north, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates on the peninsula and Bahrain, Iraq and Kuwait in the northwest.
Its western end is marked by the major river delta of the Shatt al-Arab, which carries the waters of the Euphrates and Tigris rivers.
It has a coastline length of about 5,117 km, with Iran having the longest coastline (1,536 km).
Islands:
There are several islands in the Persian Gulf, including Bahrain, the Persian Gulf state. Bahrain comprises over 50 islands centered on the Bahrain Island.
Qeshm Island is the largest island in the Persian Gulf, covering approximately 1,491 km2 (almost 2.5 times the size of Bahrain).
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.bnnbloomberg.ca/china-adds-persian-gulf-oil-bookings-as-red-sea-crisis-persists-1.2043715#:~:text=China%20Adds%20Persian%20Gulf%20Oil%20Bookings%20as%20Red%20Sea%20Crisis%20Persists,-Sharon%20Cho%2C%20Bloomberg&text=Crude%20oil%20shipping%20routes%20have,vessels%20in%20the%20Red%20Sea.
Consider the following statements regarding interim bail:
- It is a temporary form of bail granted during the pendency of an application for anticipatory or regular bail.
- It is conditional and can be extended based on the circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently granted interim anticipatory bail to a Muslim poet from Assam accused of posting an obscene poem about Hindu deities Lord Ram and Sita.
About Interim Bail:
It is a temporary form of bail granted during the pendency of an application for anticipatory or regular bail.
It provides a brief respite for the accused, temporarily releasing them from custody.
It is conditional and can be extended based on the circumstances.
If the interim bail expires and the accused fails to meet the requirements for its continuation or pay the necessary amount, their right to freedom is revoked, and they may be retaken into custody.
It serves as an interim measure until a final decision is made on the bail application, preventing unnecessary detention of the accused during this period.
In the case of Sukhwant Singh & Ors v. State of Punjab, the Supreme Court held that the interim bail is a measure especially to safeguard the reputation of an accused. Also, the court has the inherent power to grant bail to a person whose bail application is still pending for disposal.
If the accused’s request for anticipatory bail or interim bail is denied by the court, the police may detain him without a warrant.
The ability of the High Court and Sessions Court to grant anticipatory bail is covered under Section 438 of the CrPC.
As per S.438 CrPC, the court has to consider the following in order to decide whether to reject the anticipatory bail application or to give an interim relief order:
The nature and gravity of the accusation
The background and criminal history of the accused, which include previous imprisonment due to any cognizable offence.
Probability of the accused escaping from justice
If there is a possibility that the intention behind the allegations made against the accused is to injure and degrade the accused through his arrest.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.barandbench.com/news/supreme-court-grants-interim-bail-muslim-poet-accused-insulting-hindu-gods
Consider the following statements regarding Foot-and-Mouth Disease (FMD):
- It is a highly contagious bacterial disease of livestock.
- It is highly fatal in adult animals, with mortality rates of over 60%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The foot-and-mouth disease (FMD) has affected around 60% of milch cattle in Pilibhit district, Uttar Pradesh.
About Foot-and-Mouth Disease (FMD):
It is a highly contagious viral disease of livestock that has a significant economic impact. The disease affects cattle, swine, sheep, goats, and other cloven-hoofed ruminants.
It does not affect horses, dogs, or cats.
Intensively reared animals are more susceptible to the disease than traditional breeds.
It is a transboundary animal disease (TAD) that deeply affects the production of livestock and disrupts regional and international trade in animals and animal products.
It is also not related to hand, foot and mouth disease, which is a common childhood illness caused by a different virus.
The organism which causes FMD is an aphthovirus of the family Picornaviridae.
There are seven strains (A, O, C, SAT1, SAT2, SAT3, and Asia1) which are endemic in different countries worldwide.
Immunity to one type does not protect an animal against other types or subtypes.
FMD is characterised by fever and blister-like sores on the tongue and lips, in the mouth, on the teats, and between the hooves.
The disease is rarely fatal in adult animals, but there is often high mortality in young animals.
The disease causes severe production losses, and while the majority of affected animals recover, the disease often leaves them weakened and debilitated.
It was the first disease for which the World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH, founded as OIE) established official status recognition.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/fmd-disease-affects-60-per-cent-milch-cattle-in-pilibhit/articleshow/108552270.cms
Passing off action under trademark rules primarily involves:
Unauthorized use of unregistered trademarks
Explanation :
The Delhi High Court recently cancelled a trademark registration titled “Dolma Aunty Momos” in the name of one Mohammed Akram Khan, after Dolma Tsering moved court against him for using her trademark.
About ’Passing off’ under Trademark Rules:
Passing off action basically refers to the unauthorised use of goods, services, and the goodwill attached to another person’s business, which would amount to misrepresentation.
The notion of Passing off in the Indian Trademarks Act, 1999, seeks to safeguard the goodwill associated with unregistered trademarks.
When the trademark has been registered by the owner and infringement happens, then it becomes a suit for infringement, but if the trademark has not been registered by the owner and infringement happens, then it becomes a case of passing off.
Passing off is a common law tort which occurs when a person sells his products as the goods of another, wherein the trademark owner can take legal action to remedy this violation.
While passing off is not defined under the Indian Trademarks Act 1999, Section 27 recognizes the common law rights of a Trademark owner wherein the owner can initiate legal proceedings against any person for passing off goods or services as the goods of another person or as services provided by another person.
Passing off occurs when there is illegal use of a trademark or trade name in such a way that the public is misled into believing that the products or services supplied by one party are genuinely those of another.
This misrepresentation can harm the goodwill and reputation of the legitimate owner of the trademark.
Establishing passing off can be difficult since claimants must demonstrate the possibility of public misunderstanding about the origin of the products or services.
The essential question in passing off cases is whether the defendant’s behavior is such that it causes uncertainty and possibly harms the plaintiff’s goodwill.
Passing off encompasses a larger variety of commercial operations, including trade, business, and non-business initiatives, in addition to commodities and services.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/delhi-dolma-aunty-momos-trademark-passing-off-9219191/
Consider the following statements regarding the Co-branded Credit card:
- It can only be used for purchases made at the co-branding retailer.
- It bears the logo of the credit card company only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The tightening of compliance regulations by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) may prompt banks to lean towards collaborating with larger fintech companies for co-branded credit card partnerships.
It is a card that is issued jointly by a card-issuer and a co-branding entity bearing the names of both the partnering entities.
These cards typically bear the logos of both the credit card company and the retailer.
Usage: They can be used in any location where the card network is accepted, not just with the co-branding retailer.
Features: They typically come with rewards or other benefits that are tied specifically to purchases made at the co-branding retailer, and usually offer rewards or benefits for general purchases as well.
Recognition: The retailer’s logo and the card network’s logo usually appear on the card.
How Co-Branded Cards Work?
Co-branded cards work like any normal credit card. They can be used for any purchase wherever cards in that network (such as Mastercard, Visa, American Express, or Discover) are accepted.
Co-branded card relationships can be structured in a variety of ways. But basically, in order to issue a co-branded credit card, a merchant (such as a department store, gas station, or airline) or another organization (like a university or nonprofit) must partner with a financial institution, which provides the actual credit.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/banking-finance-tightening-of-compliance-rules-by-rbi-banks-to-prefer-big-fintechs-for-co-branded-cards-3427885/
With reference to revenue-based financing, consider the following statements:
- It is a collateralised debt against a percentage of gross revenue.
- It is an alternative financing product for digitally enabled businesses.
- It does not involve any transfer of an ownership stake to investors.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Revenue-based financing (RBF) is gaining traction amongst statups and digital SMEs, as venture capital flow continues to be dry and traditional credit remains out of reach for many.
It is a non-collateralised debt against a percentage of gross revenue.
It is an alternative financing product for digitally-enabled businesses, where they can raise capital in exchange for a percentage of their gross revenue as a monthly repayment, in addition to a fixed fee between 8-10% of the principal amount.
It is usually opted by companies with steady revenue flow that have a high requirement for short-term working capital, such as cloud kitchens, e-commerce merchants, financial services companies or software-as-a-service firms.
In this type of investment investors receive a regular share of the businesses income until a predetermined amount has been paid.
Typically, this predetermined amount is a multiple of the principal investment and usually ranges between three to five times the original amount invested.
Revenue-based Financing vs. Debt and Equity-based Financing
Revenue-based financing seems similar to debt financing because investors are entitled to regular repayments of their initially invested capital.
However, revenue-based funding does not involve interest payments. Instead, the repayments are calculated using a particular multiple that results in returns that are higher than the initial investment.
Also, in revenue-based financing, a company is not required to provide collateral to investors.
Unlike equity-based investment models, there is no transfer of an ownership stake in a company to investors.
Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/industry-startups-are-now-crowding-for-revenue-based-financing-3427972/
Exercise “LAMITIYE, is conducted between India and:
Seychelles
Explanation :
Indian Army contingent departed for Seychelles to participate in the Tenth edition of Joint Military Exercise “LAMITIYE-2024”.
It is a joint military exercise between the Indian Army and Seychelles Defence Forces (SDF).
‘LAMITIYE’ meaning ‘Friendship’ in the Creole language is a biennial training event and has been conducted in Seychelles since 2001.
45 personnel each from the GORKHA RIFLES of the Indian Army and Seychelles Defence Forces (SDF) will participate in the 2024 exercise.
The aim of the Exercise is to enhance interoperability in Sub-conventional Operations in Semi-Urban environment under Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter on Peace Keeping Operations.
The Exercise will enhance cooperation and interoperability between both the sides during Peace Keeping Operations. The exercise will also build and promote bilateral military relations in addition to exchanging skills, experiences and good practices between both armies.
Both sides will jointly train, plan and execute a series of well-developed tactical drills for neutralization of likely threats that may be encountered in Semi-Urban environment, while exploiting and showcasing new-generation equipment and technology.
The exercise will contribute immensely in developing mutual understanding and magnify jointness between the troops of both the Armies.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2015283
Consider the following statements regarding the Integrated Assessment Models:
- It examines possible futures of the energy, climate system and economies.
- It combines different strands of knowledge to model human society.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The UN Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) uses ‘modelled pathways’ to estimate what it will take to limit the warming of the earth’s surface and these pathways are drawn using Integrated Assessment Models (IAMs).
These are complex models that examine possible futures of the energy and climate system and economies.
They are “integrated” because they combine different strands of knowledge to model human society alongside parts of the Earth system.
Its macroeconomic models can point to future growth levels in terms of GDP; its energy models can project future consumption; vegetation models can examine land-use changes; and earth-system models use the laws of physics to understand how climate evolves.
With such integration across disciplines, IAMs are meant to provide policy-relevant guidelines on climate action.
They prioritise least-cost assessments — for example, the absolute cost of setting up a solar plant or undertaking afforestation in India is lower than in the U.S.
However, experts have said they could exercise the option of enabling countries to equitably share the burden of action, where the richest undertake more drastic mitigation action more immediately.
They capture human-society interactions by describing them as coupled systems on the relevant geographical and intertemporal scales for policy-making.
They typically include a description of human activity (e.g. energy and land use), direct drivers of environmental change (e.g. emissions, land use and resource use), resulting impacts (e.g. climate change and consequences for crop yields) and response options.
Significance
The most common use of IAMs is in the field of climate mitigation.
A key purpose of IAMs is to provide orientation knowledge for the deliberation of future climate action strategies by policymakers, civil society and the private sector.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/the-problem-of-equity-in-ipcc-reports-explained/article67962175.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Lake Baikal:
- It is located in Russia and was designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
- It is the oldest existing freshwater lake on Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recent study showed that ancient ecosystem of Lake Baikal is at risk of global warming.
It is located in the southern part of eastern Siberia within the republic of Russia.
It is the oldest existing freshwater lake on Earth (20 million–25 million years old), as well as the deepest continental body of water.
It had its start in the time of the dinosaurs and began to take its modern form well before the appearance of the Homininae.
It is having a maximum depth of 5,315 feet (1,620 metres).
It is also the world’s largest freshwater lake by volume, containing about one-fifth of the fresh water on Earth’s surface.
Into Lake Baikal more than 330 rivers and streams flow.
The largest of which include the Selenga, Barguzin, Upper (Verkhnyaya) Angara, Chikoy, and Uda.
It is known as the ‘Galapagos of Russia’, its age and isolation have produced one of the world’s richest and most unusual freshwater faunas, which is of exceptional value to evolutionary science.
In 1996 Lake Baikal was designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.livescience.com/planet-earth/climate-change/worrisome-and-even-frightening-ancient-ecosystem-of-lake-baikal-at-risk-of-regime-change-from-warming
With reference to peatlands, consider the following statements:
- They are terrestrial wetland ecosystems in which waterlogged conditions prevent plant material from fully decomposing.
- They occupy more than 10% of the Earth’s terrestrial surface.
- They are carbon-rich ecosystems that store more carbon than all other vegetation types in the world combined.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A new study finds that canals used to drain soggy peatlands in Southeast Asia are likely hotspots for greenhouse gas emissions.
About Peatlands:
Peatlands are terrestrial wetland ecosystems in which waterlogged conditions prevent plant material from fully decomposing.
Consequently, the production of organic matter exceeds its decomposition, which results in a net accumulation of peat.
Peatlands occur in every climatic zone and continent and cover 4.23 million km2, which corresponds to 2.84% of the Earth’s terrestrial surface.
The majority of the world’s peatlands occur in boreal and temperate parts of the Northern Hemisphere, especially, Europe, North America, and Russia, where they have formed under high precipitation-low temperature climatic regimes.
Peatlands include landscapes that are still actively accumulating peat, others that are no longer accumulating and do not support the principal peat forming plants, and peatlands used for economic uses such as agriculture, forestry, and excavation for energy and heat generation, horticulture, and other uses.
About 84% of the world’s peatlands are considered to be in natural, or near-natural state.
Drained peatlands make up about 16% of the world’s peatlands, or 0.5% of the Earth’s terrestrial surface.
Due to the process of peat accumulation, peatlands are carbon-rich ecosystems. Peatlands are the largest natural terrestrial carbon store. They store more carbon than all other vegetation types in the world combined.
Damaged peatlands are a major source of greenhouse gas emissions, responsible for almost 5% of global anthropogenic CO2 emissions.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-03-canals-peatlands-underappreciated-hotspots-carbon.html
Consider the following statements with reference to genetic rescue:
- It is the process of increasing population growth with new genetic variation by migrating individuals into another small population.
- It aims to alleviate genetic load and enhance the viability of endangered species and populations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Genetic rescue is proposed as a method to conserve Ranthambore National Park’s tiger population.
About Genetic Rescue:
Genetic rescue is the process of increasing population growth with new genetic variation by migrating individuals into another small population (i.e., gene flow).
In practice, wildlife managers take individuals from a larger, healthier population and bring them to a smaller population to introduce new variation and eventually help grow the population.
This conservation strategy aims to alleviate genetic load, decrease extinction risk, and enhance the viability of endangered species and populations.
It is often employed in conservation biology to mitigate the negative effects of inbreeding depression, which can occur when individuals within a population mate with close relatives, leading to decreased reproductive success and viability of offspring.
Genetic rescue can have both beneficial and deleterious effects, depending on factors such as the magnitude and duration of gene flow, as well as the genetic and non-genetic factors influencing population dynamics.
There can be risks involved with moving animals around, so it’s often thought of as a last resort.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/wildlife-biodiversity/conservation-not-enough-for-the-highly-inbred-ranthambore-tigers-they-require-genetic-rescue-95077
With reference to the World Air Quality Report 2023, consider the following statements:
- It is published by the World Health Organization (WHO).
- India has the worst air quality among all the countries in the report.
- Delhi is the most polluted capital city in the world.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Delhi was identified as the capital city with the poorest air quality, according to a new report by World Air Quality Report 2023.
About World Air Quality Report 2023:
It is published by the Swiss organisation IQAir.
It included data from 7,812 locations in 134 countries, regions, and territories.
Highlights:
With an average air annual particulate matter 2.5 (PM2.5) concentration of 54.4 micrograms per cubic metre, India had the third worst air quality.
India was better than only two of its neighbouring countries, Bangladesh and Pakistan.
While Bangladesh remained the most polluted country in the world, with an average PM2.5 concentration of 79.9 micrograms per cubic metre, Pakistan was second, with a level of 73.7.
It also identified Delhi as the most polluted capital city in the world for the fourth consecutive time.
Bihar’s Begusarai was termed the world’s most polluted metropolitan area.
Ten out of the top 11 most polluted cities in the world are from India, the other being Lahore in Pakistan.
96 percent of the Indian population experiences PM2.5 levels more than seven times the WHO annual PM2.5 guideline.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://news.abplive.com/news/india/bihar-begusarai-tops-list-of-most-polluted-metropolitan-area-delhi-has-poorest-air-world-air-quality-report-2023-by-swiss-organisation-iqair-1673001
Developing Countries Trading Scheme (DCTS), recently seen in the news, is related to which one of the following countries?
United Kingdom
Explanation :
Exporters seeking to avail duty concessions on shipments to the UK will have to adhere to the new British rules under the Developing Countries Trading Scheme (DCTS).
About Developing Countries Trading Scheme (DCTS):
It is a scheme introduced by the United Kingdom (UK) Government to facilitate developing countries to integrate into the global economy, create stronger trade and investment partnerships and strengthen supply chains.
It is a simpler and more generous preferential trading scheme which has been designed to boost trade with developing countries in order to support their development.
It reduces or removes rates of duty, or tariffs, on imports from eligible developing countries into the UK.
It also enables UK businesses to access thousands of products from around the globe at lower prices, reducing costs for UK consumers.
The DCTS applies to 65 countries, that are:
least developed countries (LDCs) as defined by the United Nations.
low-income countries (LIC) and lower middle-income countries (LMIC) as defined by the World Bank.
DCTS will provide duty-free, quota-free trade to LDCs on everything but arms and duty-free, quota-free trade on 85% of eligible goods to most low LIC and LMIC countries.
The DCTS does not extend to countries and territories deemed by the World Bank as ‘upper-middle income’ for three consecutive years, or to LICs and LMICs who have a free trade agreement (FTA) with the UK.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/exporters-need-to-follow-new-uk-rules-to-avail-duty-benefits-dgft-9221363/
Where is the Barberton Greenstone Belt, recently seen in the news, located?
South Africa
Explanation :
Scientists recently found signs of some of the earliest known earthquakes at the Barberton Greenstone Belt.
About Barberton Greenstone Belt:
It is situated on the eastern edge of the Kaapvaal Craton in South Africa.
It is known for its gold mineralisation and for its komatiites, an unusual type of ultramafic volcanic rock named after the Komati River that flows through the belt.
Some of the oldest exposed rocks on Earth (greater than 3.6 Ga) are located in the Barberton Greenstone Belt of the Eswatini–Barberton areas, and these contain some of the oldest traces of life on Earth, second only to the Isua Greenstone Belt of Western Greenland.
The Makhonjwa Mountains make up 40% of the Baberton belt.
Geological sampling indicates that some rock formations in these mountains are 3.2 to 3.6 billion years old.
What are ultramafic rocks?
Ultramafic (or ultrabasic) rocks are dark-colored igneous and meta-igneous rocks that are rich in minerals containing magnesium and iron (“mafic” minerals) and have a relatively low content of silica.
They are generally composed of more than 90 percent mafic minerals—that is, they have a high content of magnesium oxide (more than 18 percent MgO) and iron oxide (FeO). Their silica content is less than 45 percent, and their potassium content is low.
The Earth’s mantle is thought to be composed of ultramafic rocks.
Most of the exposed ultramafic rocks have been found in orogenic (mountain-forming) belts.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livescience.com/planet-earth/oldest-evidence-of-earthquakes-found-in-strange-jumble-of-33-billion-year-old-rocks-from-africa
Consider the following statements with reference to the wearable devices:
- These are electronic devices that can be worn as accessories and implanted in the user’s body.
- They are able to replicate the functionality offered by a smartwatch.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Samsung officially announced the launch of a new smart ring-shaped wearable device, Galaxy Ring, as part of its Galaxy Unpacked event earlier this year.
Wearable technology, also known as “wearables,” is a category of electronic devices that can be worn as accessories, embedded in clothing, implanted in the user’s body, or even tattooed on the skin.
Wearable devices come in many shapes and sizes, including smart watches and sports watches, fitness trackers, head-mounted displays, smart jewellery, smart clothing, and even implantable devices.
At a minimum, wearable devices are equipped with sensors, software and connecting technology.
Working
The sensors gather information from the person wearing the device, and the software gathers the data and sends it to a device with processing capacity via a wireless connection.
The ecosystem on which wearable technology works is known as the Internet of Things (IoT).
It is the same principle as smart technology used at home, on devices such as thermostats that can be operated from a mobile device outside the home, or smart speakers, but applied at a personal level.
What makes an IoT solution even more attractive is the interpretation of the data gathered by the sensors.
Benefits
Smart rings can provide more accurate readings than smartwatches, because they can use the capillaries (small blood vessels) in your finger to get their readings.
Another advantage of smart rings is that they have a longer battery life than smartwatches.
Drawbacks
Smart rings can’t and won’t be able to replicate the functionality offered by a smartwatch.
Smart rings are unlikely to come with GPS or a screen.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/how-to/apple-samsung-smart-rings-to-be-available-soon-whats-wearable-tech-is-it-worth-buying-here-is-all-you-should-know/articleshow/108542930.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement:
- It sets out a target of a $100 billion investment into India from the European Free Trade Association countries.
- Under this partnership, India is not mandated to eliminate tariffs on various products.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The India-EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) is the latest in India’s recent Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) which ventures into some uncharted territory.
It is the latest in India’s Free Trade Agreements.
Features
Investment: TEPA sets out a target of a $100 billion investment into India from EFTA countries and consequent one million jobs over a 15-year period.
It also provides India the ability to withdraw its tariff concessions if such expected investment is not achieved.
If India is not satisfied, it can pull back its tariff concessions in a proportionate manner after 18 years.
Trade in goods: India is mandated to eliminate tariff on most products within seven to 10 years.
With regard to India’s exports to EFTA, there will be no material impact since most products face very low or zero tariff for nations which have the Most Favoured Nation (MFN) status in EFTA countries.
Trade in services: On services, both India and the EFTA members have committed to liberalisation across a wide range of sectors.
Sustainable development: The TEPA’s chapter on Trade and Sustainable Development (TSD), comprising commitments on environment and labour aspects, represents a first for India in any FTA.
The TSD chapter refers to a range of multilateral environmental agreements and labour conventions, whose implementation is based on a balance of rights and obligations.
Intellectual Property Rights (IPR): The EFTA countries are home to several pharmaceutical and high technology MNCs, whose ask has been commitments on protection of IPRs that exceed the WTO’s Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement.
The TEPA’s IPR Annex requires swift rejection of “prima facie unfounded” oppositions. This potentially opens up India’s internal regulatory process to external scrutiny on whether this standard was met.
Similarly, a statutory requirement under Indian law is filing of an annual statement on working of a patent.
The TEPA mandates that this periodicity be increased to three years, with annual statements to be required only in specified cases, which potentially raises the concern that the statutory requirement as it exists under Indian law, may need reconsideration to make it case specific.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/what-do-ftas-with-european-countries-signal-explained/article67964270.ece
Exercise Tiger Triumph is conducted between India and:
USA
Explanation :
Exercise Tiger Triumph is scheduled on the Eastern Seaboard from 18 to 31 March 2024.
It is a bilateral tri-Service Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) Exercise between India and the USA.
The exercise is aimed at developing interoperability for conducting HADR operations and refine Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) to enable rapid and smooth coordination between forces of both countries.
The Harbour Phase is scheduled from 18 to 25 Mar 24.
Personnel from both navies would participate in Training Visits, Subject Matter Expert Exchanges, Sports Events and Social interactions.
On completion of the Harbour Phase, the ships, with the troops embarked, would sail for the Sea Phase and undertake Maritime, Amphibious and HADR operations in accordance with injected situations.
Indian Navy Ships with integral helicopters and landing crafts embarked, Indian Navy aircraft, Indian Army personnel and vehicles and Indian Air Force aircraft and helicopters along with the Rapid Action Medical Team (RAMT) would be participating in the exercise.
The US would be represented by US Navy Ships with embarked troops of the US Marine Corps and US Army.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2015397
Consider the following statements regarding the Bugun Liocichla:
- It is a bird found only in the Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary.
- It is categorized as a ‘critically endangered’ species under the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Buguns, one of the major tribes, mainly living adjacent to Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary in Arunachal Pradesh’s have set an example by donating 1,470 hectares of forest land to the state forest department, giving a push to efforts for protection of Bugun Liocichla bird.
It is a small babbler (only 20 cm) with olive-grey plumage and black cap.
It has become an attraction of the birdwatchers since it was discovered as a new bird species in 2006.
It is found only in the Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary landscape and nowhere else in the world.
The avian species is critically endangered with only 14 individual birds spotted so far in the Braiduah village under the Singchung sub-division.
As a major step towards conservation, the Arunachal Pradesh government finally notified Braiduah Community Reserve under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
The reserve is situated adjacent to the Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/arunachal-pradesh/arunachal-tribe-donates-land-for-critically-endangered-songbird-bugun-liocichla-2940635
Consider the following statements with reference to the IceCube observatory:
- It is a device located at the South Pole of Earth.
- It detects the subatomic particles called Neutrinos.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Scientists using data from the IceCube Neutrino Observatory in Antarctica believe they have potentially found the first evidence for astrophysical tau neutrinos, called “ghost particles”
It is a device at the earth’s South Pole that detects subatomic particles called neutrinos.
It was built and is maintained by the IceCube Collaboration, which consists of many universities worldwide led by the University of Wisconsin, Madison.
It consists of thousands of sensors buried more than 1.4 km beneath the ice plus multiple detectors above the surface.
IceCube is the world’s biggest ‘neutrino telescope’; its sensors are distributed throughout a cubic kilometre of ice.
Working
When a neutrino interacts with the ice surrounding the sensors, it may produce some charged particles and some radiation.
The sensors detect the radiation to infer the detection of a neutrino and use the radiation’s properties to understand more about the particle.
Neutrinos come in different types. IceCube can identify some of them in real-time.
For others, IceCube collects data for many years and scientists then comb through them to find neutrino interaction events.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/ghost-particles-astronomers-neutrinos-9216444/
The Battle of Okinawa is a major battle that took place during which one of the following wars?
World War II
Explanation :
The Battle of Okinawa (April 1–June 21, 1945) was the last major battle of World War II and one of the bloodiest.
It was fought between U.S. and Japanese forces on Okinawa.
Okinawa is the largest of the Ryukyus Islands and lies 350 miles from mainland Japan.
The Americans wanted control of Okinawa because it had four airfields and could support tactical and strategic air operations.
Capturing Okinawa was regarded as a vital precursor to a ground invasion of the Japanese home islands.
Code named Operation Iceberg, the invasion of Okinawa and other islands in the Ryukyus began on April 1, 1945.
The immense size of the invasion forces made it the largest amphibious assault in the Pacific War.
It involved more than 1,500 ships of all types. Total American forces numbered approximately 548,000; of these, there were approximately 183,000 combat troops for the assault.
By the time Okinawa was secured by American forces on June 22, 1945, the United States had sustained over 49,000 casualties, including more than 12,500 men killed or missing.
Okinawans caught in the fighting suffered greatly, with an estimate as high as 150,000 civilians killed.
Of the Japanese defending the island, an estimated 110,000 died.
The enormous casualties and the brutal fighting that occurred on Okinawa forced military planners to reconsider the invasion of Japan.
It directly influenced the American decision to use atomic bombs on Hiroshima and Nagasaki.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/world-news/us-news/us-returns-22-artifacts-looted-after-battle-of-okinawa-to-japan-heres-how-they-were-discovered-101710755257300.html
What is biomining primarily used for?
Extracting metals from ores using micro-organisms
Explanation :
Delhi’s biomining project to clear landfill sites is likely to miss the latest deadline of 2024.
About Biomining:
It is the technique of extracting metals from ores and other solid materials, typically using micro-organisms (bacteria, archae, fungi, or plants).
Biomining techniques may also be used to clean up sites that have been polluted with metals.
Process:
Valuable metals are commonly bound up in solid minerals.
Some microbes can oxidize those metals, allowing them to dissolve in water.
This is the basic process behind most biomining, which is used for metals that can be more easily recovered when dissolved than from solid rocks.
A different biomining technique, for metals which are not dissolved by the microbes, uses microbes to break down the surrounding minerals, making it easier to recover the metal of interest directly from the remaining rock.
When the metal of interest is directly dissolved, the biomining process is called “bioleaching,” and when the metal of interest is made more accessible or “enriched” in the material left behind, it is called “bio oxidation.”
What metals are currently biomined?
Most current biomining operations target valuable metals like copper, uranium, nickel and gold that are commonly found in sulfidic (sulfur-bearing) minerals.
Microbes are especially good at oxidizing sulfidic minerals, converting metals like iron and copper into forms that can dissolve more easily.
Compared to typical mining that uses hazardous chemicals and has a large CO2 footprint, biomining represents an environmentally friendly alternative, producing very little (if at all) hazardous waste.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/delhi-news/biomining-at-landfills-in-ghazipur-bhalswa-set-to-miss-latest-deadline-101710698558937.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Central Plantation Crops Research Institute (CPCRI):
- It is an agricultural research institute under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
- It undertakes research on coconut, arecanut, cocoa and palmyra palm.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Union Minister of State for Agriculture and Farmers Welfare recently inaugurated the Krishi Sammelan (Farmer’s Meet), organised by the ICAR-Central Plantation Crops Research Institute.
About Central Plantation Crops Research Institute (CPCRI):
It was established by the Government of Madras in 1916 for coconut research.
Later, it was acquired by the Indian Central Coconut Committee in 1947.
The CPCRI was established in 1970 as one of the agricultural research institutes in the National Agricultural Research System (NARS) under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
Headquarters: Kasaragod, Kerala
Mandate:
The institute had the mandate to undertake research on coconut, arecanut, cocoa, cashew, oil palm, and spices at the time of establishment.
The research on cashew, oil palm and spices was later delinked from CPCRI to form separate institutes.
In 2023, a new mandate crop, Palmyra Palm, was added to its institute.
The research programmes of the institute are organized under five divisions viz. Crop Improvement, Crop Production, Crop Protection, Physiology, Biochemistry and Post Harvest Technology and Social Sciences.
The Institute also holds the International Coconut Gene Bank for South Asia at Kidu in Karnataka.
The Institute also serves as the headquarters of the All-India Co-ordinated Research Project (AICRP) on Palms.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://icar.org.in/sushri-shobha-karandlaje-inaugurates-krishi-sammelan-organised-icar-cpcri-rc
With reference to the European Union’s Artificial Intelligence Act, consider the following statements:
- It is the world’s first comprehensive Artificial Intelligence law.
- It bans systems that violate or threaten human rights.
- It will apply to any company doing business in the European Union.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Lawmakers in the European Parliament recently voted overwhelmingly in favour of the Artificial Intelligence Act, putting the landmark legislation on track to take effect by the end of the year.
About European Union’s Artificial Intelligence Act:
It is the world’s first comprehensive Artificial Intelligence law.
It lays down rules and guidelines for specific risks associated with the use of AI in areas like biometric authentication, facial recognition, high-risk domains such as healthcare, and deep fakes.
Taking a horizontal, risk-based approach that will apply across sectors of AI development, the EU AI Act classifies the technology into four categories: Prohibited, high-risk, limited-risk and minimal-risk.
Systems that violate or threaten human rights through, for example, social scoring—creating “risk” profiles of people based on “desirable” or “undesirable” behaviour — or mass surveillance are banned outright.
High-risk systems, which have a significant impact on people’s lives and rights, such as those used for biometric identification or in education, health, and law enforcement, will have to meet strict requirements, including human oversight and security and conformity assessment, before they can be put on the market.
Systems involving user interaction, like chatbots and image-generation programmes, are classified as limited-risk and are required to inform users that they are interacting with AI and allow them to opt out.
The most widely used systems, which pose no or negligible risk, such as spam filters and smart appliances, are categorised as minimal-risk. They will be exempt from regulation, but will need to comply with existing laws.
The law will apply to any companies doing business in the European Union and allows for penalties of up to 7% of global turnover or €35 million, whichever is higher, for those that don’t keep their use of AI under control.
The Act also enshrines the right of consumers to make complaints about the inappropriate use of AI by businesses and to receive meaningful explanations for decisions taken by an AI that affect their rights.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/editorials/an-intelligent-balance-9219714/
Consider the following:
- United States
- China
- India
- United Kingdom
How many of the above countries are members of the International Partnership for Hydrogen and Fuel Cells in the Economy (IPHE)?
All four
Explanation :
The 41st Steering Committee Meeting of the International Partnership for Hydrogen and Fuel Cells in the Economy (IPHE) kicked off in New Delhi recently.
About the International Partnership for Hydrogen and Fuel Cells in the Economy (IPHE):
IPHE, established in 2003, is an international inter-governmental partnership currently consisting of 23 member countries and the European Commission.
Objective: To facilitate and accelerate the transition to clean and efficient energy and mobility systems using fuel cells and hydrogen technologies.
IPHE serves as a mechanism to organize and implement effective, efficient, and focused international research, development, demonstration, and commercial utilization activities related to hydrogen and fuel cell technologies.
It also provides a forum for sharing information on policies and technology status, as well as on initiatives, codes, and standards to accelerate the cost-effective transition to the use of fuel cells and hydrogen in the economy.
The IPHE also informs broad stakeholder groups, including policymakers and the public, on the benefits of, and challenges to, establishing widespread commercial hydrogen and fuel cell technologies in the economy.
Members: Australia, Canada, European Commission, India, Netherlands, Switzerland, Austria, Chile, France, Italy, Norway, UAE, Belgium, China, Germany, Japan, South Africa, United Kingdom, Brazil, Costa Rica, Iceland, South Korea, Singapore, and the United States.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://energy.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/renewable/india-hosts-41st-iphe-meeting-focuses-on-accelerating-hydrogen-economy/108613393
‘State of Global Climate Report’ is an annual report released by which one of the following organisations?
World Meteorological Organisation (WMO)
Explanation :
The new annual State of the Global Climate report, published recently by the World Meteorological Organisation (WMO), found that 2023 was the hottest year on record.
About State of Global Climate Report 2023:
It is an annual report published by the World Meteorological Organisation (WMO).
Dozens of experts and partners contribute to the report, including UN organizations, National Meteorological and Hydrological Services (NMHSs), and Global Data and Analysis Centers, as well as Regional Climate Centres, the World Climate Research Programme (WCRP), the Global Atmosphere Watch (GAW), the Global Cryosphere Watch, and the Copernicus Climate Change Service operated by ECMWF.
Highlights of the 2023 Report:
2023 was the hottest year on record, with the global average near-surface temperature at 1.45 °Celsius (with a margin of uncertainty of ± 0.12 °C) above the pre-industrial baseline.
It was the warmest ten-year period on record.
Numerous records for indicators of the climate system, including greenhouse gas levels (GHGs), surface temperatures, ocean heat, sea level rise, Antarctic Sea ice cover, glacier retreat, etc., were broken.
On an average day in 2023, nearly one third of the global ocean was gripped by a marine heatwave, harming vital ecosystems and food systems.
Towards the end of 2023, over 90% of the ocean had experienced heatwave conditions at some point during the year.
The global set of reference glaciers suffered the largest loss of ice on record (since 1950), driven by extreme melt in both western North America and Europe, according to preliminary data.
In 2023, renewable capacity additions increased by almost 50% from 2022, for a total of 510 gigawatts (GW), the highest rate observed in the past two decades.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/wmo-state-of-climate-report-9223032/
In the context of Indian economy, the term ‘reverse flipping’ refers to:
Moving the domicile of overseas start-ups to India
Explanation :
Startups such as Pine Labs, Zepto, Meesho are the latest new-age companies looking to move headquarters to India.
About Reverse Flipping:
It is a term used to describe the trend of overseas start-ups shifting their domicile to India and listing on Indian stock exchanges.
The general motivation for a reverse flip is the increased certainty of an exit at a higher valuation in India.
This trend has been gaining traction in recent years, as start-ups look to capitalise on India’s large and growing economy, access to deeper pools of venture capital, favourable tax regimes, better intellectual property protection, a young and educated population, and favourable government policies.
The Economic Survey 2022-23 recognised the concept of reverse flipping and proposed ways to accelerate the process, such as simplifying the processes for tax vacations, taxation of ESOPs, capital movements, decreasing tax layers, and the like.
What is flipping:
Flipping is when an Indian company transforms into a 100% subsidiary of a foreign entity after it has moved its headquarters overseas, including a transfer of its Intellectual Property (IP) and others.
It effectively transforms an Indian startup (company) into a 100% subsidiary of a foreign entity, with the founders and investors retaining the same ownership via the foreign entity, having swapped all shares.
What’s the harm to India from flipping?
Brain drain of entrepreneurial talent from India.
It results in value creation in foreign jurisdictions rather than in India.
It also results in the loss of Intellectual Property and Tax Revenue for the country.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/tech/startups/startups-reverse-flip-pine-labs-zepto-meesho-in-queue-for-india-return/articleshow/108627034.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements with reference to the International Seabed Authority (ISA):
- It is an autonomous international organization to regulate mining and related activities within the territorial waters of member countries.
- It came into existence upon the entry into force of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Council of the International Seabed Authority (ISA) commenced the first part of its 29th session recently.
About International Seabed Authority (ISA):
It is an autonomous international organization established in 1994 to regulate mining and related activities in the international seabed beyond national jurisdiction, an area that includes most of the world’s oceans.
The ISA came into existence upon the entry into force of the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), which codified international law regarding territorial waters, sea lanes, and ocean resources.
ISA is the organization through which states parties to UNCLOS organize and control all mineral-resources-related activities in the Area (the seabed and ocean floor and the subsoil thereof, beyond the limits of national jurisdiction) for the benefit of humankind as a whole.
In so doing, ISA has the mandate to ensure the effective protection of the marine environment from harmful effects that may arise from deep-seabed-related activities.
Headquarters: Kingston, Jamaica
Members: As of May 2023, ISA has 169 Members, including 168 Member States and the European Union.
Functions:
The ISA is responsible for granting licenses and regulating activities related to the exploration and exploitation of mineral resources in the international seabed.
It ensures that these activities are carried out in a manner that protects the marine environment and promotes the equitable and efficient utilization of resources.
Structure:
The supreme authority of the ISA is the assembly, in which all ISA members are represented.
The assembly sets general policies, establishes budgets, and elects a 36-member council, which serves as the ISA’s executive authority.
The council approves contracts with private corporations and government entities for exploration and mining in specified areas of the international seabed.
The council oversees implementation of the seabed provisions of the UNCLOS and establishes provisional rules and procedures (subject to approval by the assembly) by which the ISA exercises its regulatory authority.
The secretary-general of the ISA is nominated by the council and is elected by the assembly to a four-year term.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.isa.org.jm/news/isa-council-opens-the-first-part-of-its-29th-session/#:~:text=Kingston%2C%20Jamaica%20%E2%80%93%20The%20Council%20of,for%20mineral%20resources%20in%20the
Consider the following statements with reference to equinoxes:
- The March equinox occurs when the Southern Hemisphere starts to tilt toward the sun.
- In the Northern Hemisphere, the March equinox signals the beginning of spring.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
March 19 marked the spring or vernal equinox, the first day of spring in the Northern Hemisphere.
About Spring Equinox:
As Earth revolves around the Sun, there are two moments each year when the Sun is exactly above the equator.
These moments — called equinoxes — occur around March 19, 20 or 21 and September 22 or 23.
Equinox literally means “equal night,” since the length of day and night is nearly equal in all parts of the world during the equinoxes.
The March equinox marks when the Northern Hemisphere starts to tilt toward the sun, which means longer, sunnier days.
In the Northern Hemisphere, the March equinox is called the vernal equinox, because it signals the beginning of spring (vernal means fresh or new like the spring).
The September equinox is called the autumnal equinox because it marks the first day of fall (autumn).
When the Northern Hemisphere starts to tilt toward the sun in spring, the Southern Hemisphere starts to tilt away from the sun, signaling the start of fall.
Thus, in the Southern Hemisphere, the March equinox is called the autumnal equinox, and the September equinox is called the vernal equinox.
While the March equinox brings later sunrises, earlier sunsets, chillier winds and dry, falling leaves in the Southern Hemisphere, while the reverse happens in the Northern Hemisphere.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/offbeat/spring-begins-know-about-vernal-equinox-that-brings-on-a-new-season-5266999
Consider the following statements regarding the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI):
- It is an autonomous body established under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
- It provides for licensing, registration and accreditation for food business operators.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
With food poisoning and diarrhoea becoming a common occurrence, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is working towards creating a network of 34 microbiology labs across the country that will be equipped to test food products for 10 pathogens.
About Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI):
It is an autonomous body established under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
The FSSAI has been established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, which is a consolidating statute related to food safety and regulation in India.
Vision: Build a new India by enabling citizens to have safe and nutritious food, prevent diseases, and lead a healthy and happy life.
Mission: Set globally benchmarked standards for food, encourage and ensure that food businesses adhere to these standards, adopt good manufacturing and hygiene practices, and ultimately enable citizens to access safe and right food.
Functions:
FSSAI is responsible for protecting and promoting public health through the regulation and supervision of food safety.
It lays down standards and guidelines in relation to articles of food, and provides for licensing, registration, and accreditation for food business operators.
Anyone selling or importing food in India needs a food licence issued by FSSAI.
FSSAI also directly monitors compliance of food regulations, especially in the area of food imports to India.
FSSAI officers carry out food import controls and ensure that the contain no harmful ingredients. To do this, they send selected test products from the import to accredited laboratories for inspection.
The FSSAI is also responsible for the accreditation of food testing laboratories throughout India.
The FSSAI is responsible for the Food Certification in India.
It is mandated to specify systems for enforcing its standards, for accreditation of certification systems, and for certification of food safety management systems for food businesses.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/fssai-sets-up-lab-network-to-test-food-for-pathogens-9223580/
‘Brucethoa isro’, recently seen in the news, is a:
new species of deep-sea isopod
Explanation :
Researchers recently named a new species of deep-sea isopod discovered off the Kerala coast after the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
About Brucethoa isro:
It is a new species of deep-sea isopod discovered off the Kollam coast, Kerala.
The tiny fish-parasitic crustacean, belonging to the genus Brucethoa, was recovered from the base of the gill cavity of the Spinyjaw greeneye, a marine fish.
It is the second species within this genus to be documented in India.
It has been named Brucethoa isro in honour of the Indian space agency’s successful space missions.
Females of the species tend to be larger than males. Females grow to about 19 mm in length and 6 mm in width, while males are smaller at around half the size.
What are Isopods?
Isopods are an order of invertebrates (animals without backbones) that belong to the greater crustacean group of animals, which includes crabs and shrimp.
Scientists estimate that there are around 10,000 species of isopods (all belonging to the order “Isopoda”).
They also live in many different types of habitats, from mountains and deserts to the deep sea, and they are distributed worldwide.
Features:
They are one of the most morphologically diverse of all the crustacean groups, coming in many different shapes and sizes and ranging from micrometers to a half-meter in length.
Isopods often do not look alike, but they do have common features. For example, all isopods have two pairs of antennae, compound eyes, and four sets of jaws.
The body of all isopods consists of seven segments, each with its own pair of walking legs.
Isopods have a short abdominal section composed of six segments, called “pleons,” and one or more of these segments is fused into a tail section.
About half of the known species of isopods live in the ocean. Others live in coastal and shelf waters, moving around on the seafloor or living in plants.
Most are free-living, but a number of marine species are parasitic on other animals.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/new-species-of-deep-sea-isopod-discovered-off-kollam-coast-named-after-isro/article67973305.ece
With reference to the subduction zone, consider the following statements:
- It is a spot where two of the planet’s tectonic plates collide and one dives beneath the other.
- It occurs only when a continental lithosphere and an oceanic lithosphere collide with each other.
- It comprises the most seismically and volcanically active zones in the world.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A recent study by scientists in Portugal predicts the ‘Ring of Fire’ subduction zone beneath the Gibraltar Strait may lead to the Atlantic Ocean’s closure in 20 million years.
About Subduction Zone:
A subduction zone is a spot where two of the planet’s tectonic plates collide and one dives, or subducts, beneath the other.
Tectonic plates are pieces of the Earth’s rigid outer layer that slowly move across the planet’s surface over millions of years.
This is the main tenet of plate tectonics, the theory that portions of Earth’s shell glide over the lower mantle, taking continents with them.
That outer layer, known as the lithosphere, consists of the Earth’s crust and the upper section of the mantle, a dense, hot layer beneath the crust.
When two tectonic plates meet at a subduction zone and one slides underneath the other, this lithosphere material curves down into the hot mantle.
This tectonic process can produce some of the planet’s most powerful earthquakes, tsunamis, and volcanoes.
This subduction process frequently occurs because of the two different types of lithospheres that make up tectonic plates: Continental and oceanic.
Because oceanic material is denser than continental lithosphere, when the two collide at a subduction zone, the oceanic portion sinks into the mantle beneath the more buoyant continental lithosphere.
Subduction zones can also occur when both colliding plate sections consist of oceanic material. In these cases, older, denser oceanic lithosphere sinks below younger, more buoyant oceanic lithosphere.
A new oceanic lithosphere forms at the spots where plates separate, allowing hot mantle material to rise to the surface. As it moves away from those boundaries, this lithosphere cools and gets denser. Thus, older oceanic lithosphere can more easily sink.
The sinking plate, or “slab,” at a subduction zone tends to bend at an angle of about 30 degrees from Earth’s surface, though some angles are flatter or steeper than this.
Sometimes, subduction can begin spontaneously, without the forces of collision between plates. This happens as the lithosphere becomes unstable and sinks under the force of gravity. The oceanic lithosphere may grow so old and dense that it collapses and spontaneously forms a subduction zone.
Subduction zones occur in a horseshoe shape around the edge of the Pacific Ocean, offshore of the USA, Canada, Russia, Japan, and Indonesia, and down to New Zealand and the southern edge of South America.
Called the “Ring of Fire,” these subduction zones comprise “the most seismically and volcanically active zone in the world,”, responsible for more than 80% of the world’s biggest earthquakes and most of the planet’s active volcanoes.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/science/subduction-zone-discovered-beneath-gibraltar-strait-concerns-raised-over-future-of-atlantic-ocean/articleshow/108645478.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the National Internet Exchange of India (NIXI):
- It was set up to extend the use of Internet Service Protocols (ISPs) to route domestic traffic within the country.
- It functions as the Indian Registry for Internet Names and Numbers (IRINN).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The National Internet Exchange of India (NIXI) is set to unveil the BhashaNet portal at the upcoming Universal Acceptance (UA) Day in a move towards advancing digital inclusion and promoting linguistic diversity in India.
About National Internet Exchange of India (NIXI):
It was established in 2003 as a not-for-profit organization under the Companies Act 2013.
NIXI was set up to extend the use of Internet Service Protocols (ISPs) for the purpose of routing domestic traffic within the country instead of taking it all the way abroad, thereby resulting in a better quality of service (reduced latency) and reduced bandwidth charges for ISPs by saving on international bandwidth.
It is tasked to increase internet penetration and adoption in India by facilitating the various infrastructure aspects to enable the Internet ecosystem to be managed and used by the masses.
.IN is India’s Country Code Top Level Domain (ccTLD). The Government of India delegated the operations of INRegistry to NIXI in 2004. The INRegistry operates and manages India’s .IN ccTLD.
Another activity being carried out by NIXI is that of the National Internet Registry (NIR). The NIR is known as the Indian Registry for Internet Names and Numbers (IRINN).
It offers IXPs towards building Internet Exchange Points.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://theprint.in/economy/national-internet-exchange-to-unveil-bhashanet-portal-on-universal-acceptance-day/2008986/
With reference to the World Happiness Report 2024, consider the following statements:
- The Nordic nations dominate the top rankings, with Finland topping the list.
- India is ranked among the top 50 countries in the report.
- Pakistan remains the world’s unhappiest country, as per the report.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Finland has once again claimed the title of the world’s happiest country for the seventh consecutive year, according to the annual UN-sponsored World Happiness Report released recently.
About World Happiness Report:
The annual World Happiness Report is a partnership of Gallup, the Oxford Wellbeing Research Centre, the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN), and the World Happiness Report’s Editorial Board.
It is based on global survey data from people based on people’s own assessments of their happiness, as well as economic and social data.
The report considers six key factors: social support, income, health, freedom, generosity, and the absence of corruption.
It assigns a happiness score based on an average of data over a three-year period.
Highlights of World Happiness Report 2024:
The Nordic nations continue to dominate the top rankings. Finland topped the list for the seventh year in a row.
The other top 10 countries are Denmark, Iceland, Sweden, Israel, Netherlands, Norway, Luxembourg, Switzerland, and Australia.
Out of the 143 countries surveyed, Afghanistan remained at the bottom of the list.
For the first time in over a decade, the United States and Germany have slipped out of the top 20 happiest nations, landing at 23rd and 24th place, respectively.
The report underscores a change wherein the happiest countries no longer include any of the world’s most populous nations. Only the Netherlands and Australia, both with populations exceeding 15 million, are present in the top 10.
Where does India stand?
India is ranked 126th on the list, the same as last year, in the happiness index.
Older age is associated with higher life satisfaction in India.
The report said that older Indian men, particularly those in higher age brackets, presently married, and those with an education, tend to report greater life satisfaction compared to their counterparts.
However, older women in India report lower life satisfaction than older men.
Satisfaction with living arrangements, perceived discrimination, and self-rated health emerged as the top three predictors of life satisfaction.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/rest-of-world/worlds-happiest-countries-full-list-and-where-india-stands/articleshow/108633024.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Earth Hour:
- It is a symbolic lights-out event to promote awareness of climate change challenges and energy conservation.
- It is organized by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The power discoms in the national capital are gearing up to make the ‘Earth Hour’ a success by encouraging their consumers to switch off non-essential lights and electric appliances for one hour on March 23 night.
About Earth Hour:
It is a global grassroots movement uniting people to take action on environmental issues and protect the planet.
It is organized by the World Wildlife Fund (WWF).
It started in Sydney, Australia, in 2007 as a symbolic lights-out event and has since grown into a global movement involving millions of people in over 190 countries and territories.
It takes place towards the end of March every year.
“Earth Hour” encourages people to switch off all lights for an hour, from 8:30 p.m. to 9:30 p.m. local time, to promote awareness of climate change challenges and energy conservation.
Governments and companies also participate by turning off non-essential lights in their buildings, monuments, and landmarks to raise awareness about the impact of energy consumption on our planet.
This symbolic act, known as the ‘lights off’ moment, unites people worldwide in a show of support for the planet and serves as a reminder of the environmental issues facing us.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/switch-off-non-essential-appliances-during-earth-hour-on-mar-23-urges-bses-124031900928_1.htm
Consider the following statements with reference to asbestos:
- It has high heat conductivity and low resistance to electricity.
- India imports asbestos from Russia, China and Kazakhstan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the United States’ Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) announced a comprehensive ban on all forms of the deadly carcinogen asbestos.
Asbestos is a generic term for a group of six silicate minerals with similar but distinct properties.
These are generally divided into two sub-groups; serpentine and amphiboles. Serpentine asbestos (chrysotile or white asbestos) was the most commonly used type of asbestos.
Properties:
These are resistant to heat and corrosion.
It is non-flammable even at very high temperatures and is extremely flexible and durable.
It has good tensile strength.
It has low heat conductivity and high resistance to electricity.
It was once widely used in construction materials, insulation and consumer goods.
India’s asbestos requirement is met through imports from Russia, Kazakhstan, Brazil and China.
The newly banned chrysotile asbestos in USA was primarily used by the chlor-alkali industry, which produces chlorine bleach, caustic soda and other chemicals used in water treatment.
Health impacts:
According to the World Health Organization, all varieties of asbestos are associated with conditions such as lung cancer, mesothelioma, laryngeal cancer, ovarian cancer and asbestosis, a lung fibrosis.
If products containing asbestos are disturbed, tiny asbestos fibers are released into the air.
When asbestos fibers are breathed in, they may get trapped in the lungs and remain there for a long time.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/health/united-states-bans-white-asbestos-last-of-its-kind-still-in-use-95093
With reference to the World Forest Day, consider the following statements:
- It is celebrated on March 21 every year.
- The Food and Agriculture Organisation and the United Nations Forum on Forests are the coordinators of the International Day of Forests.
- The theme of the World Forestry Day 2024 is “Forests and Health”.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
World Forest Day, also known as International Day of Forests, is celebrated on March 21 each year.
The day aims to respect and promote the value of a wide range of forests. Countries are encouraged to take part in regional, global, and local drives to set up a scope of forest and tree-related campaigns, like planting campaigns.
The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) and the United Nations Forum on Forests are the coordinators of the International Day of Forests.
It is observed on March 21 every year.
History:
In 1971, the General Assembly of the European Confederation of Agriculture proposed that we should celebrate a day dedicated to forests.
March 21 was chosen as World Forestry Day by the United Nations as it coincides with the Vernal Equinox and Autumn Equinox in northern and southern hemispheres.
The theme for this year is - Forests and Innovation: New Solutions for a Better World.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/lifestyle/festivals/world-forestry-day-2024-date-history-significance-and-all-that-we-need-to-know-101710932545438.html
Project GR00T, a multimodal AI system, belongs to:
Nvidia
Explanation :
Recently, AI chip leader Nvidia announced Project GR00T which promises to revolutionise the evolution of humanoid robots.
The project GR00T stands for Generalist Robot 00 Technology.
It is a multimodal AI system that acts as the mind for humanoid robots, allowing them to learn new skills and interact with the real world.
Robots built on this platform are designed to understand natural language and emulate movements by observing human actions, such as instantly learning coordination, dexterity, and other skills.
This can help the robots navigate and engage with the real world around them.
The project aims to empower humanoid robots with human-like understanding and movement using Artificial Intelligence (AI).
It is essentially a general-purpose foundation model for humanoid robots.
It is at the vanguard of Nvidia’s efforts to drive breakthroughs in robotics and embodied AI (robots, virtual assistants, or other intelligent systems that can interact with and learn from a physical environment).
The model has been trained on NVIDIA GPU-accelerated simulation, and enables the humanoids to learn from human demonstrations with imitation learning, and from the robotics platform NVIDIA Isaac Lab for reinforcement learning.
While imitation learning involves observing an expert performing a task and learning to imitate those actions, reinforcement learning is a machine learning method that trains software to make decisions to achieve the most optimal results.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/what-is-nvidias-project-gr00t-impact-robotics-9225089/
Consider the following statements with reference to Lianas:
- They are climbing plants that are more resilient to variations in moisture and temperature.
- They have the highest carbon sequestration capacity amongst tropical vegetation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
As the world grapples with rising temperatures, a groundbreaking study led by the University of the Sunshine Coast, Australia exposes an unlikely menace of Lianas.
Lianas (also known as vines, climbing plants or climbers) are plants with long, flexible, climbing stems that are rooted in the ground and usually have long dangling branches.
They particularly thrive in disturbed forest areas — such as those affected by logging, natural treefalls, landslides because they can quickly grow towards the forest canopy using trees as support.
In terms of climate, lianas are more resilient to variations in moisture and temperature, which gives them a competitive advantage over trees.
Lianas use their climbing ability, resilience to climatic stress and efficient water and nutrient usage to outcompete trees for sunlight and resources.
They compete for sunlight in the canopy and suppress trees.
Their lower carbon sequestering capacity compared to trees further exacerbates the threat to carbon storage.
Impacts on forest ecosystem
An increase in lianas’s competitive success over trees can significantly affect the forest ecosystem.
Lianas, being a disturbance-favouring plant form, can impact trees from the understory to the canopy.
Their prolific growth following heavy disturbance can lead to decreased tree regeneration, growth and survival, altering forest structure and ecosystem function, which, in turn, can affect the subsequent recovery of forest.
Its proliferation can alter nutrient cycling within forests and decrease the overall resilience of forests to environmental changes, making ecosystems more susceptible to further disturbances.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/interviews/forests/-lianas-threaten-earth-s-carbon-sinks–95139
With reference to the cocoa crop, consider the following statements:
- It is a plantation crop native to the Amazon basin of South America.
- It requires deep and well-drained soil for its growth.
- In India, it is cultivated mainly in Northeastern states.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A shortage of cocoa beans has led to a near shutdown of processing plants in Ivory Coast and Ghana, the two countries responsible for 60% of global production.
It is an important plantation crop grown for chocolates around the world.
It is known as a crop of humid tropics and is native to the Amazon basin of South America.
It is mainly grown in an area of land around the equator between 20 degrees latitude north and south.
Required climatic conditions
It can be grown up to 300 m above mean sea level.
Rainfall: It requires an annual rainfall of 1500-2000 mm.
Temperature: The temperature range of 15°-39°C with an optimum of 25°C is considered ideal.
Soil: It requires deep and well-drained soils. The majority of the area under Cocoa cultivation is on clay loam and sandy loam soil.
It grows well in the pH range of 6.5 to 7.0.
Shade requirement
Cocoa was evolved as an under-storey crop in the Amazonian forests. Thus commercial cultivation of cocoa can be taken up in plantations where 50 per cent of light is ideally available.
Major producing regions in the world: About 70 percent of the world’s cocoa beans come from four West African countries: Ivory Coast, Ghana, Nigeria and Cameroon.
In India, it is mainly cultivated in Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu mainly as intercrop with Arecanut and Coconut.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/africa/cocoa-beans-are-in-short-supply-what-this-means-for-farmers-businesses-and-chocolate-lovers-95128
With reference to White Dwarf, consider the following statements:
- It is the stellar core left behind after a dying star has exhausted its nuclear fuel.
- It supports the nuclear fusion reactions that generate energy.
- Its luminosity can be used by astronomers to measure how long-ago star formation began in a particular region.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Astronomers report the detection of four white dwarf stars of a recently discovered rare DAQ spectral subclass.
About White Dwarf:
A white dwarf is the stellar core left behind after a dying star has exhausted its nuclear fuel and expelled its outer layers to form a planetary nebula.
It is what stars like the Sun become after they have exhausted their nuclear fuel.
White dwarfs no longer support nuclear fusion reactions that generate energy, but they are still extremely hot.
A typical white dwarf is half as massive as the Sun, yet only slightly bigger than Earth.
This makes white dwarfs one of the densest collections of matter, surpassed only by neutron stars.
A newly born white dwarf consists of helium, carbon, and oxygen nuclei, swimming in a sea of highly energetic electrons.
Unlike most other stars that are supported against their own gravitation by normal gas pressure, white dwarf stars are supported by the degeneracy pressure of the electron gas in their interior.
Degeneracy pressure is the increased resistance exerted by electrons composing the gas, as a result of stellar contraction.
Unless it is accreting matter from a nearby star, the white dwarf cools down over the next billion years or so.
It is predicted that they would ultimately form ‘black dwarfs’, although the Universe is likely not old enough for any black dwarfs to exist yet.
The luminosity of white dwarfs can therefore be used by astronomers to measure how long-ago star formation began in a particular region.
Many nearby, young white dwarfs have been detected as sources of soft, or lower-energy, X-rays.
By providing important ‘fossil’ records of the stars that they formed from, white dwarfs are an important cosmological tool.
In 2006, Hubble was the first telescope to directly observe white dwarfs in globular star clusters, which astronomers reported as the dimmest stars ever seen in a globular star cluster.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://phys.org/news/2024-03-daq-white-dwarfs.html
Which among the following best describes ‘snowpacks’?
Compacted layers of snow that accumulate on the ground
Explanation :
In a new research, scientists have come up with a new technique to measure the amount of water held in snowpacks and for how long.
About Snowpacks:
In mountainous areas that experience a winter season, precipitation can fall in the form of snow.
Snow that has fallen on the ground and does not melt for months due to below-freezing temperatures is called a snowpack.
Snowpacks can consist of multiple layers of snow, each one from a different snowfall, that become compacted under the weight of the subsequent layers that lie on top.
The snowpack remains on the ground until the arrival of above-freezing temperatures in the spring, which causes it to start to melt.
The water from the melting snowpack is called snowmelt.
It is an important water source that keeps streams flowing in the warmer months.
It is also an important water source for humans, replenishing reservoirs.
The depth of the snowpack is influenced not only by the amount of snowfall but also by temperature and wind.
Strong winds can evaporate snow cover, eroding the top layers of the snowpack, while an increase in temperature can cause layers to melt.
In areas with an abundance of snow and proper conditions, the snowpack can accumulate to a depth of three meters (10 feet) or more.
The density of a snowpack—how closely packed the snow particles are—increases as more layers accumulate, pushing down on the layers below.
Weak layers, such as snow-covered surface hoar, can increase the risk of avalanches.
Snowpack data is valuable for monitoring the effects of climate change.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ptinews.com/story/national/New-technique-devised-to-measure-water-held-in-snowpacks–could-help-manage-supply/1362826
Consider the following statements regarding Section 153A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC):
- It attempts to punish those who engage in promoting any kind of enmity among different groups.
- The offences under Section 153A are non-cognizable and non-bailable in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court reiterated that to constitute an offence under Section 153A of the Indian Penal Code, the essential ingredient is to create a sense of enmity and disharmony amongst two or more groups or communities.
About Section 153A of the IPC:
It attempts to punish those who engage in promoting any kind of enmity among different groups on the basis of religion, caste, race, place of birth or residence, or even language.
The provision puts a liability on those who
Spread enmity in the form of words (spoken or written), visual representations, and signs with the intention of causing disharmony, hatred, or disturbance among people belonging to different groups, religions, castes, or communities.
Spread disharmony and disturb the public tranquility of the people belonging to different racial and religious groups.
Aid in the organising of certain movements, drills that encourage as well as train the participants of such movements to use criminal force and violence upon people belonging to other racial and religious groups and communities.
Offence on moral turpitude is also covered in this section.
The offence is a cognizable offence and the punishment for the same may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.
However, the punishment of the offence committed in a place of worship is enhanced up to five years and a fine.
Further, the offence under Section 153A is non-bailable in nature, wherein the accused is tried by the magistrate of the first class.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/no-s153a-ipc-offence-without-presence-of-two-or-more-communities-supreme-court-quashes-case-against-journalist-253069
With reference to tactical nuclear weapons, consider the following statements:
- They attack enemy targets causing widespread destruction and radioactive fallout.
- The explosive yield of tactical nuclear weapons can range up to one thousand kilotons.
- They are the least-regulated category of nuclear weapons covered in arms control agreements.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Western officials recently confirmed that Russia has moved tactical nuclear weapons from its own borders into neighboring Belarus, several hundred miles closer to NATO territory.
About Tactical Nuclear Weapons:
Nuclear weapons, just like other weapons, can be categorised into two types: strategic and tactical.
Strategic Nuclear Weapons: They refer to nuclear weapons that have bigger objectives, such as destroying cities or larger targets, with larger war-waging objectives in mind.
Tactical Nuclear Weapons (TNWs):
They are nuclear weapons used for specific tactical gains on the battlefield.
They are intended to devastate enemy targets in a specific area without causing widespread destruction and radioactive fallout.
These are designed for use in battle as part of an attack with conventional weapon forces.
These warheads can be delivered via a variety of missiles, torpedoes, and gravity bombs from naval, air, or ground forces. They could even be simply driven into an area and detonated.
The explosive yield of tactical nuclear weapons can range from under one kiloton to about 100 kilotons, whereas strategic nuclear weapons can have a yield of up to one thousand kilotons.
Delivery systems for tactical nuclear weapons also tend to have shorter ranges, typically under 310 miles(500 kilometres), compared with strategic nuclear weapons, which are typically designed to cross continents.
They are the least-regulated category of nuclear weapons covered in arms control agreements.
Countries possessing TNWs:
Nine countries have tactical nuclear weapons, according to the Federation of American Scientists.
They are Russia, the United States, China, France, the United Kingdom, Pakistan, India, Israel, and North Korea.
Russia has a stockpile of an estimated 2,000 tactical nuclear missiles.
The U.S. has an estimated 200 tactical nuclear bombs, half of which are at bases in Europe.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://foreignpolicy.com/2024/03/14/russia-nuclear-weapons-belarus-putin/
Consider the following statements with reference to Ebola:
- It is caused by viruses that are found primarily in sub-Saharan Africa.
- Currently, there is no known treatment for the disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Scientists recently found a new way in which Ebola reproduces in the human body, identifying a potential target for drugs to prevent the viral disease.
About Ebola:
Ebola virus disease (EVD, or Ebola) is a rare but severe illnessin humans.
It is caused by several species of viruses from the genus Ebolavirus, that are found primarily in sub-Saharan Africa.
It gets its name from the Ebola River, which is near one of the villages in the Democratic Republic of Congo where the disease first appeared.
Transmission:
Ebola isn’t as contagious as more common viruses like colds, influenza, or measles.
It spreads to people by contact with the skin or bodily fluids of an infected animal, like a monkey, chimp, or fruit bat.
Then it moves from person to person in the same way.
Those who care for a sick person or bury someone who has died from the disease often get it.
You can’t get Ebola from air, water, or food. A person who has Ebola but has no symptoms can’t spread the disease, either.
There are occasional Ebola disease outbreaks in people, occurring primarily on the African continent.
Symptoms:
Symptoms of Ebola can start two to 21 days after being infected by the virus.
Symptoms start out flu-like but can progress to severe vomiting, bleeding, and neurological (brain and nerve) issues.
Treatment:
There is no known treatment for Ebola, although experimental vaccines and therapeutics are being tested.
Recovery seems to depend in part on how much virus a person was initially exposed to, how early treatment is started, and the patient’s age and immune response.
Current therapy consists of maintenance of fluid and electrolyte balance and the administration of blood and plasma to control bleeding.
Mortality:
Mortality rates for EVD range from 25 percent to 90 percent, with an average of 50 percent.
Death usually occurs as a result of shock due to fluid loss rather than blood loss.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/science/scientists-find-potential-new-drug-target-to-prevent-ebola/articleshow/108581949.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to Usha Mehta:
- She started secret Congress Radio during the Quit India Movement.
- She participated in a protest march against the Simon Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Ae Watan Mere Watan movie was released recently which is based on the biography of Indian freedom fighter Usha Mehta.
Usha Mehta was born in a village named Saras, near Surat in Gujarat in 1920.
She was a true Gandhian at heart and was popularly known as Ushaben.
At the age of eight in 1928, she participated in a protest march against the Simon Commission.
On 14 August 1942, she and her associates established the Secret Congress Radio during Quit India Movement, a covert radio station that went on air on 27 August.
It played a crucial role in keeping the freedom movement leaders connected with the public.
Setting up an underground station
Background: At the advent of the War in 1939, the British had suspended all amateur radio licences across the Empire. Operators were supposed to turn in all equipment to the authorities, with severe punishment for those who failed to do so.
Alongside Mehta, Babubhai Khakar, Vithalbhai Jhaveri, and Chandrakant Jhaveri were key figures in organising Congress Radio.
Congress Radio case
The trial of the five accused in the— Mehta, Babubhai Khakar, Vithalbhai Jhaveri, Chandrakant Jhaveri, and Nanak Gainchand Motwane (who sold key pieces of equipment to the team) — generated a lot of excitement in Bombay.
Vithalbhai and Motwane were acquitted, Mehta, Babubhai, and Chandrakant received stern sentences.
Usha Mehta was released from Pune’s Yerawada Jail in March 1946, and hailed in the nationalist media as “Radio-ben”.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-history/ae-watan-mere-watan-the-story-of-usha-mehta-and-congress-radio-9225440/
Consider the following statements regarding the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Startup Forum:
- It facilitates cross-border incubation and acceleration programs.
- India has never organized the Startup Forum of the SCO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The fourth edition of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Startup Forum was organized on 19th March 2024 in New Delhi.
It is a platform for the stakeholders from the startup ecosystems from all SCO Member States to interact and collaborate.
It aims to create multilateral cooperation and engagement for startups among the SCO Member States. This engagement will empower the local startup ecosystems in the SCO Member States.
The following are the objectives of the engagement:
Sharing of best practices to promote entrepreneurship and innovation to build knowledge-exchange systems.
Bringing Corporates and Investors across to work closely with startups and provide local entrepreneurs with much-needed support and market access.
Increasing scaling opportunities for startups by providing solutions in the field of social innovation and provide the Governments with a plethora of innovative solutions
Facilitating cross-border incubation and acceleration programs that will enable the startups to explore international markets and get focused mentorship.
India will host the second meeting of the Special Working Group for Startups and Innovation (SWG) in November 2024 and SCO Startup Forum 5.0 in January 2025.
Previously, Startup India had organized various initiatives for SCO Member states including:
SCO Startup Forum 1.0: The SCO Startup Forum in 2020 laid the foundation for multilateral cooperation and engagement for startups among the SCO Member States.
SCO Startup Forum 2.0: The two-day Forum was held virtually in 2021 through a customized platform representing the Indian culture in augmented reality. SCO Startup Hub, a single point of contact for the SCO startup ecosystem, was launched in this forum.
SCO Startup Forum 3.0: DPIIT organised the first ever physical SCO Startup Forum in 2023 for the SCO Member States.
1st Meeting of the SWG: The first Meeting of the SCO Special Working Group on Startups and Innovation (SWG), permanently chaired by India, was organised on the theme ‘Growing from Roots’ in 2023.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2015890
Which of the following countries are part of the IMT Tri-Lateral Exercise, recently in the news?
India, Mozambique and Tanzania
Explanation :
INS Tir and INS Sujata will participate in the forthcoming edition of India Mozambique Tanzania (IMT) Tri Lateral (TRILAT) Exercise.
It is a joint maritime exercise scheduled from 21-29 Mar 24.
The first edition of IMT TRILAT exercise conducted in Oct 22, saw participation of INS Tarkash with the Tanzanian and Mozambique Navies.
The current edition of the exercise is planned in two phases. As part of the harbour phase scheduled from 21-24 Mar 24, Naval ships Tir and Sujata will engage with the respective Navies at the ports of Zanzibar (Tanzania) and Maputo (Mozambique).
This phase would begin with a Planning Conference followed by conduct of joint harbour training activities like Damage Control, Fire Fighting, Visit Board Search and Seizure procedures, Medical Lectures, Casualty Evacuation and Diving operations.
The sea phase of the exercise is covering practical aspects of countering asymmetric threats, Visit Board Search and Seizure procedures, boat handling, manoeuvres and firing exercise. A joint EEZ surveillance is also planned during the sea phase.
The exercise will conclude with a joint debrief scheduled at Nacala (Mozambique).
During the harbour stay, Indian Naval ships would be open for visitors and partake in sports & cultural exchanges with host Navies.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2015968
Consider the following statements regarding the Fact Check Unit of the Press Information Bureau (PIB):
- It is headed by the Union Minister of Electronics and Information Technology.
- It acts as a deterrent to creators and disseminators of fake news and misinformation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology notified the Press Information Bureau’s Fact Check Unit under IT Rules of 2021.
It was established in 2019.
It was started with an objective of acting as a deterrent to creators and disseminators of fake news and misinformation.
It also provides people with an easy avenue to report suspicious and questionable information pertaining to the Government of India.
It is mandated to counter misinformation on Government policies, initiatives and schemes either suo motu or under a reference via complaints.
The FCU actively monitors, detects, and counters disinformation campaigns, ensuring that false information about the Government is promptly exposed and corrected.
Organisation
It is headed by a senior DG/ADG level officer of the Indian Information Service (IIS). The day-to-day operations of the Unit are handled by IIS officers at various levels.
The Unit reports to the Principal Director General, PIB who functions as the Principal Spokesperson of the Government of India.
Fact-Check Mechanism
Users send requests over WhatsApp, email or a web portal. Each such request received is considered as a ‘Query’. Queries are segregated by the Unit based on their relevance to matters pertaining to Government of India.
Only queries pertaining to Government of India are considered and taken up as Actionable Queries, while others are deemed not relevant for action.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/centre-notifies-fact-check-unit-under-pib/article67972524.ece
With reference to the International Telecommunication Union, consider the following statements:
- It is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN).
- It coordinates between governments and private sector bodies for global telecommunication.
- India has been an active member of this organization since 1947.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, Dr Neeraj Mittal was unanimously elected as co-chair of the Digital Innovation Board of International Telecommunication Union (ITU) formed under the aegis of Innovation and Entrepreneurship Alliance for Digital Development.
It is the United Nations specialized agency for information and communication technologies.
It was established in 1865 as International Telegraph Union.
In 1947 the ITU became a specialized agency of the United Nations.
It is an intergovernmental organization that coordinates between governments and private sector bodies with respect to global telecommunication and information communication technology (ICT) services.
Member countries: It has a membership of 193 countries and more than 1000 companies, universities and international and regional organizations.
Functions:
allocate global radio spectrum and satellite orbits;
coordination and setting of technical standards related to telecommunication/ICT;
work to improve access to ICTs in underserved communities worldwide;
India and ITU: India has been an active member of the ITU since 1869 and has been a regular member of the ITU Council since 1952.
Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2015963
Consider the following statements with reference to the Enforcement Directorate (ED):
- It is mandated with the investigation of offence of money laundering and violations of foreign exchange laws.
- It is under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Enforcement Directorate (ED) recently conducted fresh raids in at least five places across West Bengal, in connection with the alleged multi-crore school recruitment scam in the state.
About Enforcement Directorate (ED):
It is a multi-disciplinary organization mandated with the investigation of offence of money laundering and violations of foreign exchange laws.
It was established in 1956 as an ‘Enforcement Unit’ under the Department of Economic Affairs.
Later, in 1957, this unit was renamed the ‘Enforcement Directorate’.
It is under the administrative control of the Department of Revenue (under the Ministry of Finance) for operational purposes.
ED is responsible for enforcement of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA), Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA), and Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (FEOA).
ED has the power to attach the assets of the culprits found guilty of the violation of FEMA.
It has also been empowered to undertake, search, seizure, arrest, prosecution action, and survey, etc. against the offences committed under PMLA.
Appointment of Director of ED: The ED Director is appointed by the central government on the recommendation of a committee:
chaired by the Central Vigilance Commissioner and
members comprising of Vigilance Commissioners, Home Secretary, Secretary DOPT, and Revenue Secretary.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/kolkata-news/wb-recruitment-scam-ed-raids-five-places-including-house-of-state-minister-101711086677829.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the National Green Tribunal (NGT):
- It has been established under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
- Its Chairperson is appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India (CJI).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The principal bench of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) in New Delhi has initiated action on the Netravati Waterfront Promenade Development Project in Mangaluru.
About Netravati River:
Origin: It rises between Kudrermukh and Ballalaryan Durga in the Dakshina Kannada district of Karnataka at an elevation of about 1000 m.
It flows generally in a North-South direction for 40 km up to Gohattu, where it takes a turn towards the West and there after flows in East-West direction up to its out fall into the Arabian Sea near Mangalore.
Tributary: The Kumaradhara, a major left-bank tributary join near the village Uppinangadi.
The climate of the basin is characterized by heavy rainfall, high humidity, and oppressive weather in the hot season.
What is National Green Tribunal?
It has been established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010.
It is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of the filing of the same.
Composition
It comprises the Chairperson, the Judicial Members, and the Expert Members.
They shall hold office for a term of 5 years and are not eligible for reappointment.
The Chairperson is appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India (CJI).
A Selection Committee shall be formed by the central government to appoint the Judicial Members and Expert Members.
There are to be at least 10 and a maximum of 20 full-time Judicial members and Expert Members in the tribunal.
New Delhi is the Principal Place of Sitting of the Tribunal, and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai shall be the other four places of sitting of the Tribunal.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/water/netravati-riverfront-project-ngt-takes-cognisance-of-crz-environmental-norm-violation-allegations-seeks-report-95189
Consider the following statements regarding the Signals Technology Evaluation and Adaptation Group (STEAG):
- It is a unit dedicated to researching and evaluating futuristic communication technologies.
- It conducts technical scouting, development and management of core ICT solutions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Indian Army has initiated a significant development in its technological capabilities by establishing the Signals Technology Evaluation and Adaptation Group (STEAG).
About Signals Technology Evaluation and Adaptation Group:
It is a unit dedicated to researching and evaluating futuristic communication technologies like 6G, artificial intelligence (AI), machine learning, and quantum computing for military applications.
Objective: Its primary objective is to nurture technologies across wired and wireless systems, covering a wide spectrum of domains including electronic exchanges, mobile communications, software-defined radios, electronic warfare systems, and more.
The unit will conduct technical scouting, evaluation, development, and management of core ICT solutions while providing user interface support through the maintenance and upgrade of contemporary technologies.
It will help bridge the divide between the armed forces on the one hand and industry and academia on the other.
It is aligned with the tenets of Atmanirbhar Bharat and Start-Up India.
Significance
It will play a crucial role in fostering self-reliance in high-end communication technologies, which have traditionally been dominated by countries with advanced economies and research ecosystems.
The establishment of this Center of Excellence is expected to be a game-changer in India’s quest for technological self-sufficiency.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/national/army-raises-specialised-technology-unit-steag-for-future-warfare/article67964758.ece
The Galapagos Islands, often mentioned in news, is located in:
Pacific Ocean
Explanation :
The Galapagos Islands, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is facing a pressing issue: rising visitor numbers threatening the delicate balance of this unique ecosystem.
About Galapagos Islands:
Location: It is situated in the Pacific Ocean, roughly 600 miles off the coast of Ecuador.
The Archipelago is a group of 19 islands, 13 large and 6 small, and dozens of islets and rocks that cover an area of over 17,000 square miles.
It is distributed on either side of the Equator with an underwater wildlife spectacle with abundant life.
Repeated volcanic eruptions helped to form the rugged mountain landscape of the Galápagos Islands.
In comparison with most oceanic archipelagos, the Galapagos are very young with the largest, and youngest islands, Isabela and Fernandina, with less than one million years of existence, and the oldest islands, Española and San Cristóbal, somewhere between three to five million years.
Mount Azul, at 5,541 feet, is the highest point of the Galapagos Islands.
Climate: It is characterized by low rainfall, low humidity, and relatively low air and water temperatures.
It is designated as a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1978.
Biodiversity:
The Galápagos are best known for their diverse array of plant and animal species. Many species are endemic, as they are not found anywhere else in the world.
These include the giant Galápagos tortoise (Chelonoidis nigra), the marine iguana (Amblyrhynchus cristatus), the flightless cormorant (Phalacrocoraz harrisi), and the Galápagos penguin.
The Galápagos penguin (Spheniscus mendiculus) is the only penguin species to live in the Northern Hemisphere.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.timesnownews.com/travel/news/paradise-with-a-price-galapagos-islands-doubles-entry-fees-article-108644061
With reference to Sea Cucumbers, consider the following statements:
- They are invertebrates that live on the seafloor.
- They exhibit both sexual and asexual reproduction.
- They are found in all marine environments throughout the world.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Researchers have discovered the pivotal role that sea cucumbers play in maintaining the health of the world’s reefs.
About Sea Cucumber:
These are part of a larger animal group called echinoderms and are invertebrates that live on the seafloor.
Their body shape is similar to a cucumber, but they have small tentacle-like tube feet that are used for locomotion and feeding.
There are about 1,250 species of sea cucumber, all of which belong to the taxonomic class Holothuroidea.
They are found in all marine environments throughout the world, from shallow to deep-sea environments. Sea cucumbers are benthic, meaning they live on the ocean floor.
They excrete inorganic nitrogen and phosphorus, enhancing the productivity of benthic biota.
Reproduction:
Sea cucumbers exhibit both sexual and asexual reproduction.
Unlike most terrestrial animals, sea cucumber eggs undergo external fertilization—females release eggs into the water that are fertilized when they come into contact with sperm that males have released.
Conservation status:
Wildlife Protection Act of 1972: Schedule I
CITES: Appendix II
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deeperblue.com/sea-cucumbers-found-to-play-a-crucial-role-in-reef-health/
RLV - LEX 02, recently seen in news, is a/an:
reusable landing vehicle
Explanation :
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has successfully conducted the Pushpak Reusable Landing Vehicle (RLV) LEX 02 landing experiment at the Aeronautical Test Range in Chitradurga, Karnataka.
This landing experiment is the second of the series conducted at the Aeronautical Test Range.
After the RLV-LEX-01 mission was accomplished last year, RLV-LEX-02 demonstrated the autonomous landing capability of reusable launch vehicle (RLV) from off-nominal initial conditions at release from helicopter.
How was the experiment conducted?
The RLV LEX-02 mission demonstrated the autonomous landing capability of the reusable launch vehicle from challenging initial conditions after release from a helicopter.
It is named Pushpak, the winged vehicle was lifted by an Indian Air Force Chinook helicopter and released from an altitude of 4.5 km.
It autonomously approached the runway with cross-range corrections and landed precisely, coming to a halt using its brake parachute, landing gear brakes, and nose wheel steering system
The winged body and all flight systems used in RLV-LEX-01 were reused in the RLV-LEX-02 mission after due certification/ clearances.
The mission was accomplished by Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) along with the Liquid Propulsion System Centre (LPSC) and the ISRO Inertial Systems Unit (IISU).
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/isro-successfully-conducts-pushpak-reusable-landing-vehicle-landing-experiment/article67979052.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the MeitY Startup Hub:
- It aims to foster entrepreneurship and innovation in the technology sector.
- It acts as a national coordination center for all the incubation centers of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Ministry of Electronics & IT Startup Hub is empowering innovation, driving growth and forging success within the vast landscape of Startup Mahakhumbh 2024.
It is established as an Independent Business Division (IBD) under the aegis of Digital India Corporation (DIC) under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), Government of India.
It is aimed at fostering entrepreneurship and innovation in the technology sector.
It supports startups, incubators, and Centers of Excellence (CoEs) through various programs and initiatives to drive digital transformation and promote India’s leadership in emerging technologies.
Mission: It has a mission to build a conducive innovation and start-up ecosystem by bringing together various technology innovation stakeholders and paving the way toward a strong economy built on the twin engines of innovation and technological advancement.
It acts as a national coordination, facilitation, and monitoring center that will integrate all the incubation centers, start-ups, and innovation-related activities of MeitY.
What is Digital India Corporation?
It has been set up by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), Government of India, to innovate, develop and deploy ICT and other emerging technologies for the benefit of the common man.
It plays the role of a leader in promoting e-Governance by taking forward the projects and activities of the Digital India Programme, to facilitate its stakeholders to realise its goals.
It also provides strategic support to Ministries & Departments, both at Central and State level for carrying forward the mission of Digital India Programme by way of Capacity Building for e-governance projects, promoting best practices, encouraging Public-Private Partnerships (PPP), nurturing innovation and technology in various domains.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2015516
Order of the Druk Gyalpo, recently in news, is the highest civilian award of:
Bhutan
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India received Bhutan’s highest civilian award, the ‘Order of the Druk Gyalpo’, during his two-day State visit to the neighbouring nation.
It stands as Bhutan’s most esteemed civilian accolade, reserved for individuals who have demonstrated exceptional contributions to society, embodying values of service, integrity, and leadership.
As per ranking and precedence established, the Order of the Druk Gyalpo was instituted as the decoration for lifetime achievement and is the pinnacle of the honour system in Bhutan, taking precedence over all orders, decorations and medals.
The award has been conferred to Prime Minister of India in recognition of outstanding contribution to the growth of India-Bhutan relations and for his distinguished service to the Bhutanese nation and people.
The present Prime Minister of India became the first foreign head of government to receive Bhutan’s highest civilian honour.
Others to receive this award include Her Majesty The Royal Queen Grandmother Ashi Kesang Choden Wangchuck in 2008; His Holiness Je Thrizur Tenzin Dendup in 2008; and His Holiness Je Khenpo Trulku Ngawang Jigme Choedra in 2018.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/what-is/pm-modi-conferred-bhutan-highest-civilian-award-order-of-druk-gyalpo-9228926/
Consider the following statements:
- Lac is a resinous substance that is secreted by certain insects.
- Gulaal Gota is made Muslim lac makers called Manihaars only in Rajasthan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
With Holi set to be celebrated on March 25, in some parts of Rajasthan’s Jaipur, an old tradition will play out where colours will be thrown through a unique medium called the “Gulaal Gota”.
It is a small ball made of lac, filled with dry gulaal.
Gulaal Gotas are made by Muslim lac makers, called Manihaars, only in Jaipur (Rajasthan).
The tradition of using Gulal Gota goes back to 400 years when the erstwhile Jaipur royal family members would play Holi with them.
How it is prepared?
The making of Gulaal Gotas involves first boiling the lac in water to make it flexible. Lac is a resinous substance that is secreted by certain insects. It is also used to make bangles.
After shaping the lac, colour is added to it. At first red, yellow, and green are added as other colours can be obtained through their combinations.
After the processing is done, artisans heat the lac. It is then blown into a spherical shape with the help of a blower called “phunkni”.
Then, gulaal is filled in the balls before they are sealed with lac.
Lac is brought from Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand and the female scale insect is one of the sources of lac.
The lac insects also yield resin, lac dye and lac wax.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/holi-tradition-jaipur-gulaal-gota-history-9229158/
With reference to Vechur cow, consider the following statements:
- It is a rare dwarf cattle breed of India.
- It is mainly found in the State of Maharashtra.
- It is a disease-resistant cow breed and easy to maintain with low food requirements.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Dr. Sosamma Iype won the Padma Shri in 2022 for one of her remarkable work of saving and resurrecting a breed of indigenous cattle, the Vechur cow.
It is one of the rare dwarf cattle breeds of India, and it is considered to be the smallest cattle breed in the world.
It is known by the name of a place Vechur - a small place by the side of Vembanad lake near Vaikam in Kottayam district of South Kerala.
These are light red, black or fawn and white in colour.
The animals are well adapted to the hot and humid climate of the area. Milk production is relatively higher than any other dwarf cattle.
It is docile, short, disease-resistant and easy to maintain with low food requirement as compared to other crossbred species.
It is resistant to Mastitis (blockage of teats in the udder), foot and mouth diseases, and respiratory infections and require almost no veterinary care.
The medicinal property of its milk has been accepted by Ayurveda too. Since the Vechur cow milk has got higher proportion of smaller fat globules and saturated fatty acids, it would be therapeutically useful in malabsorption syndrome.
It is also considered to be the ideal food for children and convalescents.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/the-curious-case-of-sosamma-iype-and-the-vechur-cow/article67969473.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Evolution of Civil Services in India:
- The Charter Act of 1853 made the earliest attempt to include Indians in civil services.
- Lord Dufferin appointed the Floud Commission to recommend the reforms in civil services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
●Charter Act of 1853: It introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants. The covenant civil service3 was, thus, thrown open to the Indians also. Accordingly, the Macaulay Committee (the Committee on the Indian Civil Service) was appointed in 1854. The Charter Act of 1833 attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection of civil servants and stated that the Indians should not be debarred from holding any place, office and employment under the Company. However, this provision was negated after opposition from the Court of Directors. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
●Floud Commission, a land revenue commission, was established by the government of Bengal in 1938. It was the Aitchison Commission on Public Services (1886) that recommended reform in civil service. It was appointed under the rule of Lord Dufferin. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the evolution of the police system in India:
- Lord Cornwallis restored the institution of Faujdars.
- Lord Bentinck abolished the office of the Superintendent of Police.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
●Warren Hastings restored the institution of faujdars and asked the zamindars to assist them in the suppression of dacoits, violence and disorder. In 1775, faujdar thanas were established in the major towns of large districts and were assisted by several smaller police stations. So, statement 1 is not correct.
●William Bentinck (Governor-General, 1828-35) abolished the office of the SP. The collector/magistrate was now to head the police force in his jurisdiction and the commissioner in each division was to act as the SP. This arrangement resulted in a badly organized police force, putting a heavy burden on the collector/magistrate. Presidency towns were the first to have the duties of collector/magistrate separated. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following put forward the “Theory of Economic Drain” also known as the “economic imperialism” theory.?
Dadabhai Naoroji
Explanation :
Dadabhai Naoroji put forward the “Drain Theory” in 1867. The theory is also known as the “economic imperialism” theory.
The theory suggests that the British economic policies were draining India and that the main cause of India’s poverty was the drain of Indian wealth and resources to England. Naoroji criticized the fact that about one-fourth of the revenues raised in India went to England.
Naoroji was an Indian scholar, trader, and politician who served as a Liberal Party Member of Parliament (MP) in the United Kingdom House of Commons from 1892 to 1895. He was a founding member of the Indian National Congress and was elected president three times.
Naoroji’s “Drain Theory” was published in his book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India. The theory has been further analyzed and developed by researchers including R.P. Dutt and MG Ranade.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- The British colonial policies led to commercialization of Indian agriculture.
- The Industrial Revolution in Britain led to the increase in demand for raw materials for the manufacturing factories in Europe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
●Commercialization of agriculture means production of certain specialized agricultural crops for commercial consideration rather than for family consumption. It began in the latter half of the nineteenth century, due to British colonial policies in India, when commercial crops like cotton, jute, groundnut, oilseeds etc began to be cultivated. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Industrial Revolution, also known as the First Industrial Revolution, was a period of globa
l transition of the human economy towards more widespread, efficient and stable manufacturing processes that succeeded the Agricultural Revolution, starting from Great Britain and spreading to continental Europe and the United States, that occurred during the period from around 1760 to about 1820–1840.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Ryotwari Settlement:
- It was influenced by Ricardo’s theory of rent.
- The Ryotwari settlement was introduced in the beginning of the 19th century in many parts of Bombay and Madras Presidencies.
- The peasant was recognised as the owner of the land as long as he was able to pay the revenue but the exploitation continued with the high revenue demands
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
●The Ryotwari experiment was started by Alexander Reed in Baramahal in 1792 and was continued by Thomas Munro from 1801 when he was asked to take charge of the revenue administration of the Ceded Districts. Instead of zamindars, they began to collect revenue directly from the village, fixing the amount each village had to pay. After this, they proceeded to assess each cultivator or ryot separately and thus evolved the Ryotwari System.
●This system of land revenue was instituted in the late 18th century by Sir Thomas Munro, Governor of Madras in 1820. This was practised in the Madras and Bombay areas, as well as Assam and Coorg provinces. In this system, the peasants or cultivators were regarded as the owners of the land. So, statement 1 is correct.
●In this system, the peasants or cultivators were regarded as the owners of the land. They had ownership rights, could sell, mortgage or gift the land. The taxes were directly collected by the government from the peasants. The rates were 50% in dryland and 60% in the wetland. So, Statement 2 is correct.
●The Ryotwari system did not also eliminate village elites as intermediaries between the government and the peasantry. As privileged rents and special rights of the mirasidars were recognised and caste privileges of the Brahmans respected, the existing village power structure was hardly altered, and indeed even more strengthened by the new system. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Economic Impact of British Rule in India:
- India became a net exporter of textiles that flooded the European markets.
- The spread of the money economy helped in the commercialization of agriculture.
- The loss of traditional livelihood was compensated by heavy industrialization.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Charter Act of 1813 allowed one-way free trade for the British citizens who made cheap and machine-made imports flood the Indian market. Tariffs of nearly 80 percent were imposed on Indian textiles by Britain increasing the prices of Indian products. As a result, Indian products found it more and more difficult to penetrate the European markets. After 1820, European markets were virtually closed to Indian exports. Cheap British-made cloth flooded the Indian market. So, statement 1 is not correct.
There was an emergence of the commercialization of agriculture. The new market trend of commercialization and specialization was encouraged by many factors—the spread of the money economy, the replacement of custom and tradition by competition and contract, the emergence of a unified national market, growth of internal trade, improvement in communications through rail and roads and boost to international trade given by entry of British finance capital, etc. So, statement 2 is correct.
The loss of traditional livelihood was not accompanied by a process of industrialization in India as had happened in other rapidly industrializing countries of the time. This resulted in the deindustrialization of India at a time when Europe was witnessing an intensified Industrial Revolution. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Permanent Settlement:
- The revenue amount to be paid was fixed permanently which was not to be increased ever in the future.
- It was initially implemented in North-West India.
- It was devised on the assumption of regular flow of revenue to the Company.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Charles Cornwallis (1738-1805) was the commander of the British forces during the American War of Independence and the Governor General of Bengal when the Permanent Settlement was introduced there in 1793. They were asked to collect rent from the peasants and pay revenue to the Company. The amount to be paid was fixed permanently, that is, it was not to be increased ever in the future. So, statement 1 is correct.
Company introduced the Permanent Settlement in 1793. It was implemented in Bengal and Bihar. By the terms of the settlement, the rajas and taluqdars were recognized as zamindars. So, statement 2 is not correct.
It was felt that this would ensure a regular flow of revenue into the Company’s coffers and at the same time encourage the zamindars to invest in improving the land. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer
Which of the following was the chief architect of Mahalwari Settlement?
Holt Mackenzie
Explanation :
Holt Mackenzie devised the new system which came into effect in 1822; in the North Western Provinces of the Bengal Presidency (most of this area is now in Uttar Pradesh). He felt that the village was an important social institution in north Indian society and needed to be preserved. Under his directions, collectors went from village to village, inspecting the land, measuring the fields, and recording the customs and rights of different groups. This system came to be known as the Mahalwari settlement. Its features were:
· The estimated revenue of each plot within a village was added up to calculate the revenue that each village (mahal) had to pay.
· This demand was to be revised periodically, not permanently fixed.
· The charge of collecting the revenue and paying it to the Company was given to the village headman, rather than the zamindar.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Development of the Judiciary in
British India:
- Warren Hastings established District Diwani Adalats that were placed under the collector.
- Cornwallis brought Europeans in India under the jurisdiction of local courts.
- William Bentinck set up a Law Commission for the codification of Indian laws.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
District Diwani Adalats and District Fauzdari Adalats were established by Warren Hastings in districts to try civil disputes and criminal disputes respectively. District Diwani Adalats were placed under the collector and District Fauzdari Adalats were placed under an Indian officer assisted by qazis and muftis. These adalats also were under the general supervision of the collector. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Cornwallis Code introduced by Cornwallis separated the revenue and justice administration. It also brought European subjects under the jurisdiction of local courts. Government officials were made answerable to the civil courts for actions done in their official capacity. So, statement 2 is correct.
William Bentinck set up a Law Commission under Lord Macaulay for the codification of Indian laws in the year 1833. On the basis of this codification, a Civil Procedure Code (1859), an Indian Penal Code (1860), and a Criminal Procedure Code (1861) was prepared. So, statement 3 is correct.
In the context of General Service Enlistment Act 1856, consider the following statements:
- The act was passed under the Governorship of Lord Dalhousie.
- It declared that the sepoys would not be given the foreign service allowance when serving in Sindh or in Punjab.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Statement 1 is incorrect: The General Service Enlistment Act 1856 was passed by Lord Canning.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The General Service Enlistment Act decreed that all future recruits to the Bengal Army would have to give an undertaking to serve anywhere required by the government. For the religious Hindu of the time, crossing the seas meant loss of caste. This caused resentment.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to preventive detention:
- It refers to the detention of an individual without a trial or conviction by a court.
- Parliament has the exclusive power to enact a law for preventive detention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Observing that preventive detention is a draconian measure and any such move based on a capricious or routine exercise of powers must be nipped in the bud, the Supreme Court has set aside a Telangana High Court order rejecting a detenu’s appeal.
About Preventive Detention:
Preventive detention refers to the detention of an individual without a trial or conviction by a court.
The primary objective of preventive detention is not to punish an individual for a past offence but to prevent them from committing an offence in the future.
Preventive detention laws are enacted by governments to ensure public safety and maintain social order.
Constitutional Provisions and Safeguards:
Article 22 of the Indian Constitution grants protection to individuals who are arrested or detained.
It has two parts—the first part deals with cases of ordinary law, which includes situations where an individual is detained as part of a criminal investigation.
The second part deals with cases of preventive detention law, which pertains to the detention of individuals without a trial or conviction.
Article 22(4) states that no law providing for preventive detention shall authorise the detention states that of a person for a longer period than three months unless an Advisory Board reports sufficient cause for extended detention.
The detainee is entitled to know the grounds of his detention. The state, however, may refuse to divulge the grounds of detention if it is in the public interest to do so.
The detaining authorities must give the detainee earliest opportunities for making representation against the detention.
Who can make laws under Preventive Detention?
Parliament has the exclusive power to enact a law for preventive detention for reasons connected with defence, foreign affairs, or security of India.
Both Parliament and State Legislature have powers to enact a law for preventive detention for reasons related to the maintenance of public order or the maintenance of supplies or services essential to the community.
Laws that provide for Preventive Detention:
In India, various laws provide for preventive detention, including the National Security Act (NSA) of 1980, the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) of 1967, and state-specific laws like the Maintenance of Internal Security Act (MISA) and the Public Safety Acts (PSA) in certain states.
Under these laws, authorities can detain an individual for a specific period, typically up to 12 months, without presenting formal charges or conducting a trial.
The detention order is issued by a designated authority or government official and is subject to periodic review by an advisory board.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/preventive-detention-by-routine-exercise-of-powers-must-be-nipped-in-bud-supreme-court-9230894/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Teesta River:
- It is a trans-Himalayan River flowing through India, Bhutan and Bangladesh.
- It is a tributary of the Brahmaputra River.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The tourism department of the Gorkhaland Territorial Administration (GTA) resumed rafting in the Teesta River recently after a gap of five months.
About Teesta River:
It is a trans-Himalayan River flowing through the Indian States of Sikkim and West Bengal and Rangpur in Bangladesh.
It is a tributary of the Brahmaputra River.
Origin: It originates in the Himalayas and flows through the Indian States of Sikkim and West Bengal before entering Bangladesh, where it flows into the Brahmaputra.
It has a total length of about 309 kilometers.
Flowing through the length of Sikkim, the Teesta River is considered to be the lifeline of the state.
The flow of the Teesta is greatest during the summer (June to September), when the monsoon rains are heaviest and glaciers supply abundant meltwater.
Main Tributary: Rangeet River
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.telegraphindia.com/west-bengal/tourism-department-of-gorkhaland-territorial-administration-resumes-rafting-on-teesta-river/cid/2008706
Consider the following statements with reference to the Gulf of Mannar:
- It is part of the Laccadive Sea of the Indian Ocean.
- It lies between the northwest coast of Sri Lanka and the southeast coast of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A recent study concluded that coral cover in the Gulf of Mannar region had declined from 37% in 2005 to 27.3% in 2021.
About Gulf of Mannar:
Along the southeast coast of India lies the Gulf of Mannar, a part of the Laccadive Sea of the Indian Ocean, containing 21 islands.
It spans a total distance of around 125 miles in breadth and 100 miles in length between the northwest coast of Sri Lanka and the southeast coast of India.
It is bounded to the northeast by Rameswaram (island), Adam’s (Rama’s) Bridge (a chain of shoals), and Mannar Island.
It receives several rivers, including the Tambraparni (India) and the Aruvi (Sri Lanka).
The port of Tuticorin is on the Indian coast. The gulf is noted for its pearl banks and sacred chank (a gastropod mollusk).
Key facts about the Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park:
It is one of the biologically richest coastal regions in all of the mainland of India.
It is the first Marine Biosphere Reserve in South and South East Asia.
In India, the Gulf of Mannar region in Tamil Nadu is one of the four major coral reef areas, and the others are the Gulf of Kutch in Gujarat, Lakshadweep and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
It is designated as a Biosphere Reserve.
This Biosphere Reserve encompasses a chain of 21 islands (2 islands already submerged) and adjoining coral reefs off the coasts of the Ramanathapuram and Tuticorin districts.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/xplore/2024/Mar/23/live-coral-cover-in-gulf-of-mannar-down-to-27
With reference to electoral trusts, consider the following statements:
- They are set up by companies to distribute the contributions received from other companies and individuals to political parties.
- The names of electoral trusts clearly indicate the name of the company/group of companies which set up the trusts.
- An individual who is not a citizen of India cannot contribute to electoral trusts.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The recently released list of corporate contributors to political parties under electoral bonds is under examination, although many of these have been frequent donors, paying large sums to political parties through electoral trusts.
About Electoral Trusts:
These are trusts set up by companies with the objective to distribute the contributions received from other companies and individuals to political parties.
The companies which are registered under section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956, are only eligible to make an application for approval as an electoral trust.
The names of electoral trusts, currently, do not indicate the name of the company/group of companies which set up the trusts.
Who can and who cannot contribute to electoral trusts?
Who can:
An individual who is a citizen of India
A company registered in India
An association of persons (Indian residents)
Who cannot:
An individual who is not a citizen of India
Other electoral trusts (approved under the Electoral Trusts Scheme)
Contributors without PAN
NRIs without a passport number
For administrative expenses, the electoral trusts are permitted to set aside a maximum of 5 percent of the total funds collected during a financial year. The remaining 95 percent of total income of the trusts, including any surplus from the previous financial year, is required to be distributed to eligible political parties.
What Laws/Rules govern the creation and functioning of electoral trusts?
The Central Government amended the Income Tax Rules, 1962, on January 31, 2013, to insert Rule 17CA, which lists the functions of electoral trusts approved by the Central Bureau of Direct Taxes (CBDT).
The Central Government also launched ‘The Electoral Trusts Scheme, 2013, which specified the eligibility and procedure for registration as an electoral trust, apart from laying down the format for their registration.
Consider the following statements with reference to Right Whales:
- They are one of the species of the stout-bodied whales.
- All species of right whales are classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A recent study finds that female right whales may never breed after entanglement in fishing gear.
About Right Whales:
Right whale, (family Balaenidae) is any of four species of stout-bodied whales having an enormous head measuring one-quarter to one-third their total body length.
While they differ genetically, and in conservation status, they do not differ significantly in their external appearance.
From the 17th to 19th century, these whales were hunted for their oil and their strong, elastic baleen.
Because of the considerable economic value of these products, this cetacean gained its name because it was the “right whale” to take.
Adult right whales are generally between 45 and 52 feet in length and can weigh up to 70 tons.
When feeding, these whales swim slowly and use baleen to eat schools of small, shrimp-like crustaceans, called zooplankton.
Conservation Status:
Right whales were nearly exterminated by uncontrolled hunting, and the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) considers two of the four species as endangered. They have been completely protected by international agreements since 1946.
Whereas at least 10,000 bowheads and approximately 13,000 southern right whales remain, northern right whales are rare, with North Atlantic right whales numbering only in the hundreds and North Pacific right whales numbering only slightly more.
The IUCN classifies the North Pacific right whale as an endangered species and the North Atlantic right whale as a critically endangered species.
Consider the following statements with reference to the World Tuberculosis (TB) Day:
- It is celebrated every year on March 24.
- The theme of World Tuberculosis Day 2024 is “Yes! We can end TB”.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
World Tuberculosis (TB) Day is celebrated on March 24 annually to spread awareness around the deadly disease.
It is celebrated to raise awareness around the disease, increase efforts to eradicate the disease, and mobilise support for those affected by TB.
Background
March 24, 1882 is considered a significant date in the battle against tuberculosis as it is on this day that Dr Robert Koch discovered the bacteria that causes TB.
This groundbreaking announcement led to better understanding, diagnosis, and eventual treatment of the disease.
It was not before the year 1982, on the centenary of Dr. Koch’s discovery that the International Union Against Tuberculosis and Lung Disease (IUATLD) proposed observing March 24 as World TB Day to raise awareness about TB and its global impact.
The first World TB Day was officially observed in 1983, and since then, it has become an annual event.
Theme of World Tuberculosis day 2024: “Yes! We can end TB”.
Significance of the day: World Tuberculosis Day aims to unite governments, health organizations, and communities worldwide in their commitment to end the TB epidemic by ensuring access to quality care for all those affected.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Gram-Negative Bacteria:
- It can pass along genetic materials that allow other bacteria to become drug resistant.
- It causes infections including pneumonia and bloodstream infections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Technology Development Board (TDB) has penned an agreement with two companies and has sanctioned a grant of ₹75 Lakhs towards the project “ANAGRANINF for the development of a Novel Class of Antibiotics Against Gram-Negative Bacterial-Infections.
The primary objective of this project is to develop a novel lead compound, particularly an antibiotic, adept at inhibiting the FabI enzyme and combatting critical gram-negative pathogens.
What is a Gram-negative bacteria?
They have a much thinner peptidoglycan cell wall, but in addition they have an outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharides surrounding the cell and are consequently termed diderms.
These bacteria have built-in abilities to find new ways to be resistant and can pass along genetic materials that allow other bacteria to become drug resistant as well.
It causes infections including pneumonia, bloodstream infections, wound or surgical site infections, and meningitis in healthcare settings.
Gram-negative bacteria are resistant to multiple drugs and are increasingly resistant to most available antibiotics.
Examples: Bacteria include enterobacter species, salmonella species and pseudomonas species.
Krutrim AI model, recently seen in news, is developed by:
Ola
Explanation :
Earlier this year, Indian multinational ridesharing company, Ola, introduced Krutrim AI, claiming it as “India’s own AI”.
It is envisioned to be personalised assistant, which can simplify personal and professional life by getting a variety of tasks done for you.
This AI model hopes to bridge the gap between conventional AI and the specific needs based on Indian languages and culture.
It uses Natural Language Processing (NLP) — a component of AI — to understand the nuances of human language, including colloquialisms and cultural contexts.
Machine Learning (ML) algorithms enable it to learn from vast data sets and improve its responses over time. Moreover, Deep Learning, a sophisticated branch of ML, helps it recognise patterns and analyse complex data.
One of the distinguishing features of Krutrim AI is that it has the ability to understand the intent of the user.
While most AI models rely on keyword matching and statistical probabilities, Krutrim AI reportedly dives deeper to understand the user’s request.
It can help with a variety of creative and knowledge retrieval tasks. One can write an email, seek information on topics of interest, learn new skills, plan travel or learn a new recipe, and more.
Consider the following statements with reference to arsenic:
- It is a naturally occurring semi-metallic element distributed in Earth’s crust.
- It is highly toxic in its inorganic form.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A new study underlines the risk of using water contaminated with arsenic to cook rice, a staple food serving more than half the world’s population.
It is a naturally occurring, semi metallic element widely distributed in the Earth’s crust.
It is widely distributed throughout the environment in the air, water and land.
It is a chemical element in the nitrogen group (Group 15 of the periodic table), existing in both gray and yellow crystalline forms.
It is highly toxic in its inorganic form.
People are exposed to elevated levels of inorganic arsenic through drinking contaminated water, using contaminated water in food preparation and irrigation of food crops, industrial processes, eating contaminated food and smoking tobacco.
Health Impacts: Long-term exposure to inorganic arsenic, mainly through drinking-water and food, can lead to chronic arsenic poisoning. Skin lesions and skin cancer are the most characteristic effects.
In India, the states of West Bengal, Jharkhand, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Assam, Manipur and Chhattisgarh are reported to be most affected by arsenic contamination of groundwater above the permissible level.
With reference to the vote-from-home facility, consider the following statements:
- First-time voters
- Media persons carrying authorisation letters from the Election Commission of India
- Central Armed Police Forces personnel deployed on poll duty
- People aged 60 and above
How many of the above are eligible for the vote-from-home facility in India?
Only two
Explanation :
The Election Commission of India (ECI) has, for the first time in the history of the Lok Sabha elections, extended its ‘vote-from-home’ facility to Persons with Disabilities (PwD) and senior citizens aged 85 and above.
Who is eligible?
People aged 85 and above.
Persons with Disabilities: The disability shall not be less than 40% of the prescribed handicap and certified by the certifying authority.
Media persons covering ‘polling day activities’: Carrying authorisation letters from the Election Commission
Workers from essential services: Services such as metros, railways and health care.
Service voters: Personnel of the armed forces posted away from their hometowns, Central Armed Police Forces personnel deployed away from home and those on poll duty.
How to avail the vote-from-home facility?
Key to the process is Form 12D, which is a letter informing the Assistant Returning Officer (ARO) that the person may not be in a position to go to the polling station to vote.
The form can be downloaded online from the ECI website or collected from the office of the representative district officer of a parliamentary constituency.
The form has to be filled and submitted within five days of notification of the polling date.
Once filed, two polling officials, accompanied by a videographer and a security person, will visit the elector’s home and oversee the postal ballot voting process.
The voter will receive an intimation about the date and approximate time of visit via SMS or through post. The home voting option will be attempted twice.
The polling team will schedule a second visit if the elector fails to be at the given address during the first visit.
If the voter is absent on the second visit, “a further visit will not be entertained.” The voter will subsequently be ineligible to vote both at polling booths and through the home voting scheme.
Who among the following is authorized to permit or reject the transfer of captive elephants according to the Captive Elephant (Transfer of Transport) Rules, 2024?
Chief Wildlife Warden (CWW)
Explanation :
The Union Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change recently notified Captive Elephant (Transfer or Transport) Rules, 2024.
Captive Elephants under the Wildlife Protection Act (WPA), 1972:
Elephants are, according to the provisions of the WPA, a Schedule 1 species, and therefore, be it wild or captive, cannot be captured or traded under any circumstances.
Section 12 of the Act allows Schedule I animals to be translocated for ‘special purposes’ such as education and scientific research.
They can also be translocated for population management of wildlife without harming any wild animals and the collection of specimens for recognised zoos/museums.
Captive elephants, because of their historical role in forest management, timber transport, presence in estates of erstwhile royal families and in temple precincts for religious purposes can be owned and therefore come under a special category. However, strict rules guide the transfer of such elephants.
Section 40(2) of the WPA prohibits the acquisition, possession, and transfer of a captive elephant without the written permission of the Chief Wildlife Warden(CWW) of the State.
The Environment Ministry in 2021 brought in an amendment that allowed the transfer of elephants for ‘religious or any other purposes’.
Captive Elephant (Transfer or Transport) Rules, 2024:
It lays down the procedure to be followed for the transfer of captive elephants within a State or between two States.
The notification authorises the CWW of States and UTs to permit or reject the transfer of captive elephants.
The CWW shall permit the inter and intra-State transfers if the owner of the elephant is no longer in a position to maintain it or if the animal will have a better upkeep than in the present circumstances.
The transfer of captive elephants won’t be permissible unless the genetic profile of the animal has been entered in the electronic monitoring application of the MoEFCC (Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change).
The application for transfer of captive elephants should be made to the Deputy Conservator of Forests (DCF), having jurisdiction over the area where the elephant is registered.
The DCF will conduct an inquiry and physical verification of the facility where the elephant is presently housed, and also the facility where the elephant is proposed to be housed and obtain a certificate of a veterinary practitioner, and then forward the details to the CWW, who within seven days will accept or reject the transfer.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/what-are-the-new-rules-for-elephant-transfers-explained/article67988618.ece
With reference to the National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF), consider the following statements:
- It is placed in the Public Account of India and does not require Parliamentary approval for withdrawal of funds.
- It does not cover man-made disasters such as chemical or nuclear disasters.
- Its accounts are audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) every year.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Karnataka government has moved the Supreme Court seeking a direction to the Centre to release financial assistance from the National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) to the state for drought management.
About National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF):
It is defined in Section 46 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
It is a fund managed by the Central Government to meet the expenses for emergency response, relief, and rehabilitation due to any threatening disaster situation or disaster.
NDRF is constituted to supplement the funds of the State Disaster Response Funds (SDRF) in case of a disaster of severe nature, provided adequate funds are not available in SDRF.
It is placed in the “Public Account” of the GOI under “reserve funds not bearing interest”. Since it is placed in the Public Accounts, the government does not require parliamentary approval to take money out of this fund.
Eligibility:
NDRF guidelines state that natural calamities of cyclones, drought, earthquake, fire, flood, tsunami, hailstorm, landslide, avalanche, cloud burst, pest attack, and cold wave and frost considered to be of severe nature by the Government of India (GoI) and requiring expenditures by a state government in excess of the balances available in its own SDRF will qualify for immediate relief assistance from NDRF.
The NDRF also covers man-made disasters such as terrorist attacks, chemical or biological disasters, or nuclear disasters as notified by the Central Government.
For availing the NDRF funds, states are required to submit a memorandum indicating the sector-wise damage and need for funds. The Centre, on its part, assesses the damage and grants the additional funds to states.
The financial assistance from NDRF is for providing immediate relief and is not compensation for loss/damage to properties /crops. In other words, the NDRF amount can be spent only towards meeting the expenses for emergency response, relief, and rehabilitation.
The NDRF is not used for disaster preparedness, restoration, reconstruction, and mitigation. These activities are funded by other schemes such as the National Disaster Mitigation Fund (NDMF), the National Cyclone Risk Mitigation Project (NCRMP), National Flood Management Programme (NFMP), etc.
Sources of Financing NDRF:
It is financed through the levy of a cess on certain items, chargeable to excise and customs duty, and approved annually through the Finance Bill.
The requirement for funds beyond what is available under the NDRF is met through general budgetary resources.
The National Executive Committee (NEC) of the National Disaster Management Authority takes decisions on the expenses from NDRF.
The NDRF accounts are audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) every year.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/karnataka-approaches-supreme-court-over-funds-for-drought-management-5301234
With reference to the Chalukyas of Kalyani, consider the following statements:
- They expanded and reached the zenith of power during the rule of Tailapa II.
- The administration was mainly hereditary and the kingdom was managed by feudatories.
- They minted punch-marked gold coins called pagodas.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A 900-year-old Kannada inscription from the Kalyana Chalukya dynasty has been found in a state of utter neglect at Gangapuram, a temple town, in Mahaboobnagar district, Telangana.
About Chalukya Dynasty:
The Chalukyas ruled over the central Indian plateau of the Deccan between the sixth and twelfth centuries.
During that period, they ruled as three closely related but individual dynasties.
The Chalukyas of Badami, who ruled between the sixth and eighth centuries, and the two sibling dynasties of the Chalukyas of Kalyani, or the Western Chalukyas, and the Chalukyas of Vengi, or the Eastern Chalukyas.
Key Facts about Chalukyas of Kalyani:
Primarily a Kannadiga dynasty, they were known after their capital city, Kalyani. It is present in the modern-day Bidar district of Karnataka.
The empire was established by Tailapa II when the Western Chalukya was a feudatory of the Rashtrakuta Empire and Tailapa II governed Tardavadi in the Bijapur district of Karnataka.
In the 300 years long rule in the western Deccan and southern part of the Indian peninsula, Chalukya of Kalyani expanded and reached the zenith of power during the rule of Vikramaditya VI (1076-1126 CE).
It is considered the most successful period of the later Chalukya rulers in Karnataka’s history, and many scholars refer to this period as the ‘Chalukya Vikrama era’.
Vikramaditya VI was not only controlling feudatories in the northern region, such as Kadamba Jayakesi II of Goa, Silhara Bhoja, and the Yadava King; he won several battles against the Chola dynasty.
He won the battle of Vengi in 1093 and defeated Cholas again in 1118. He gained the rights on territories amid hostilities with the Cholas.
The victory in the battle of Vengi alleviated the Chola influence, and during this time, Vikramaditya VI became the emperor of a vast territory spanning from the Kaveri River in the south to the Narmada River in the north and along the western ghats.
Decline:
After Vikramaditya VI’s death, the consistent confrontation with the Chola dynasty exploited both empires and gave opportunities to their subordinates to rebel.
After 1126, the Western Chalukya empire started declining, and by the time of Jagadhekamalla II, everything was falling apart.
Administration, Art, and Architecture:
The Western Chalukya administration was mainly hereditary, where the king passed his powers to the male heir and brother in the absence of a male heir.
The whole kingdom was divided and managed by feudatories such as the Hoysala and the Kakatiya.
While the Chalukya Dynasty maintained a great army of infantries, cavalries, elephant units, etc, the Western Chalukyas followed the trend and achieved a great extent of power.
They were primarily Hindus but also acknowledged and tolerant of Buddhism and Jainism.
The Chalukyas contributed greatly to the development of Kannada and Telugu literature.
The Western Chalukya minted punch-marked gold coins called pagodas with Kannada legends.
Coins were minted, and cryptograms of temples, lions, and lotus were imprinted on them.
Their architecture is a link between the Badami Chalukya architecture of the 8th century and the Hoysala architecture of the 13th century. The Western Chalukya dynasty is considered to be a crucial era for the evolution of Deccan architecture.
Their art is also called the ‘Gadag style’becausenumerous temples were built in the Tungabhadra-Krishna doab region in the present-day Gadag district.
Their temples depict both religious and secular themes.
The Mallikarjuna temple of Bellary, Siddeshvara temple in Haveri,Kallesvara temple in Davangere district, etc are a few of the finest examples of later Chalukya architecture.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/900-year-old-chalukyan-inscription-discovered-in-state-of-utter-neglect-at-gangapuram/article67987200.ece
Digital Markets Act (DMA), recently seen in the news, is related to which one of the following organizations?
European Union (EU)
Explanation :
Apple, Alphabet’s Google and Meta Platforms will be investigated for potential breaches of the EU’s new Digital Markets Act, European antitrust regulators said recently.
About Digital Markets Act (DMA):
It is the European Union’s (EU’s) law to make the markets in the digital sector fairer and more contestable.
It aims to create a safer internet, empower citizens, enhance consumer protections, and foster higher-quality digital services.
In order to do so, the DMA establishes a set of clearly defined objective criteria to identify “gatekeepers”.
Gatekeepers are large digital platforms providing so-called core platform services, such as online search engines, app stores, and messenger services.
Gatekeepers will have to comply with the do’s (i.e., obligations) and don’ts (i.e., prohibitions) listed in the DMA.
The DMA is one of the first regulatory tools to comprehensively regulate the gatekeeper power of the largest digital companies.
Key Measures:
Tighter restrictions on how digital gatekeepers can use people’s data—users must give their explicit consent for their activities to be tracked for advertising purposes.
Messaging services and social media platforms teaming up and sharing users. This could mean, for example, Meta-owned WhatsApp users being able to send messages directly to a completely different messaging service, such as Telegram.
Presenting users with the option to uninstall preloaded applications on devices.
Gatekeepers are banned from ranking their own products or services higher than others in online searches.
The DMA complements, but does not change EU competition rules, which continue to apply fully.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/tech-news-technology/apple-google-meta-targeted-in-eus-first-digital-markets-act-probes-9233569/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Smart Meter National Programme (SMNP):
- It aims to replace 25 crore conventional meters with smart meters in India.
- It is being implemented by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Kerala’s move towards an alternate model for the rollout of smart electricity meters, effectively jettisoning the Centre’s Rs 3 lakh crore smart meters project, comes as a spanner in the works for the Union Government scheme.
What is a Smart Meter?
A smart meter is used for recording the consumption of electricity, but it also measures voltage levels.
While traditional meters measure the power consumption of a home or business, smart meters live up to their name and transmit the same information every 15 minutes or hourly to utility providers.
Since they are connected to the internet, smart meters can communicate information to the consumer about usage and also to the utility provider for monitoring purposes and accurate billing.
About Smart Meter National Programme (SMNP):
It is an initiative by the Government of India to promote the use of smart meters across the country.
The aim of the SMNP is to improve the billing and collection efficiencies of distribution companies (DISCOMs) operating in the country.
SMNP aims to replace 25 crore conventional meters with smart meters in India.
The scheme is being implemented by Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL).
EESL is a joint venture of four National Public Sector Enterprises: NTPC Limited, PFC, REC, and POWERGRID, and was set up under the Ministry of Power.
This roll-out is under the Build-Own-Operate-Transfer (BOOT) model, wherein EESLwillundertake all the capital and operational expenditure with zero upfront investment from states and utilities.
EESL recovers the cost of these meters through the monetization of energy savings, resulting from enhanced billing accuracy, avoided meter reading costs, and other efficiencies.
The smart meters are installed as per guidelines issued by the Central Electricity Authority (CEA).
Benefits associated with smart meters:
For consumers, smart meters can help save on electricity bills by allowing them to track their consumption and make decisions accordingly.
For utilities, smart meters can improve operational efficiency and help in managing power demand.
Smart meters are connected through a web-based monitoring system, which will help reduce commercial losses of utilities, enhance revenues, and serve as an important tool in power sector reforms.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/business/economy/how-smart-is-the-centres-smart-meter-plan-and-why-keralas-move-to-opt-out-underscores-some-of-the-schemes-inadequacies-9233379/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Cannabis:
- It is found mainly in the Indo-Gangetic plains and the Deccan region.
- It can be used to treat haematoma conditions in animals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Bhang, obtained from the Cannabis sativa plant or true hemp, is popularly consumed on the occasion of Holi across India.
It is found mainly in the Indo-Gangetic plains – in Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and West Bengal – along with the Deccan region.
Cannabis is termed Ganzai in Telugu, Ganja in Tamil, and Bangi in Kannada.
Three products can be obtained from the plant – fibre, oil, and narcotics.
Bhang is obtained from the seeds and leaves of the plant, which are reduced to powder. Then, the powder is filtered and prepared for drinking, mixed often with cold, flavoured milk or thandai on Holi.
Other uses of Cannabis
Hemp-seed oil is used in varnish industries as a substitute for linseed oil, and in the manufacturing of soft soap. It has many medicinal uses, too.
As per ICAR, the ash of cannabis is applied on animals’ skin in cases of haematoma, a condition in which blood clots outside of the blood vessels.
It is cultivated in the Chhota/Bada Bhangal of Kangra and the Karsog area of Mandi district in Himachal Pradesh.
While cultivation for extraction of addictive narcotics is illegal, states allow controlled and regulated cultivation of cannabis for obtaining its fibre and seed for industrial or horticultural purposes.
Treating paddy seed with bhang is effective in paddy seed germination and this treatment is common in temperate areas of Jammu and Kashmir, where temperature during nursery raising is low.
The cannabis plants are used for controlling threadworms in paddy nurseries by the farmers of the Solki area of Rajouri district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Cannabis leaves are heated and crushed to make a paste for treating honey bee or wasp sting.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/holi-bhang-uses-cannabis-medicine-9232220/
Consider the following statements with reference to the District Election Management Plan:
- It is prepared after every State Legislative Assembly election.
- It includes a political map outlining constituencies and infrastructure statistics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The conduct of elections requires meticulous planning and execution to ensure a free, fair, and inclusive electoral process and a cornerstone of this planning process is the District Election Management Plan (DEMP).
It is a comprehensive document that uses statistics and analysis to ensure the smooth conduct of elections.
When is the DEMP prepared?
As per the Election Commission of India, the DEMP is to be prepared at least six months before the tentative poll day.
Executing the DEMP requires a collaborative effort involving election officials, administrative authorities, law enforcement agencies etc.
Elements of DEMP:
The plan starts with a district profile that serves as the foundation of the electoral strategy.
This includes a political map outlining constituencies, key demographic and infrastructure statistics, a brief on the district’s administrative setup and socio-economic features.
The plan encompasses detailed strategies for improving the availability and accessibility of polling stations, ensuring that all stations have essential facilities like ramps, electricity, lighting, drinking water, toilets, and internet connectivity.
Special attention is given to voters with disabilities (PwD) and senior citizens through help desks, 24/7 control rooms, home voting options, and advanced postal ballot voting for essential service personnel.
Another critical component of the DEMP is the Systematic Voters’ Education and Electoral Participation (SVEEP) plan, which focuses on increasing electoral participation.
It outlines a comprehensive strategy for the planning, training, welfare, and deployment of election personnel. It highlights the importance of creating a poll personnel database, categorising available personnel by cadre and group while assessing their requirement and strategies to address gaps in personnel needs across various election roles.
The plan also includes training district-level teams to enforce the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) and providing a training program for all election personnel to ensure they have the necessary skills and knowledge.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/what-is-the-district-election-management-plan-explained/article67992065.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to Bima Sugam:
- It is an e-commerce platform that facilitates both buying and claim settlement of insurance policies.
- It onboards all companies that offer life and non-life insurance products.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has approved the setting up of Bima Sugam.
It is like an e-commerce platform where insurance companies can sell their products.
It onboards all the companies that offer life and non-life insurance products under one roof.
It aims to provide an ‘end-to-end’ digital journey to all policyholders like from buying insurance policies to renewals to claim settlement to portability to grievance redressal
This marketplace serves as a one-stop solution for all insurance stakeholders, including customers, insurers, intermediaries and agents, thereby, promoting transparency, efficiency, and collaboration across the entire insurance value chain
It will be a unified platform, which will be integrated with various government databases, insurers, intermediaries, insurance repositories, etc., for fetching customer details, providing product information, and buying and servicing Insurance policies.
Bima Sugam aims to eliminate the paperwork as you can simply have your policy in an electronic format.
Customers can view all their policies — life, health and non-life insurance — in one single application or window under Bima Sugam.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/wealth/insure/bima-sugam-gets-irdai-approval-insurance-policies-set-to-be-more-affordable-buying-policies-claim-settlement-to-be-easier/articleshow/108723257.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements with reference to the Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary:
- It is located near the border of Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh and Telangana.
- The perennial river Mahanadi flows through this sanctuary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Telangana is presently grappling with forest fires in Tadvai region of Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary.
It was declared as wildlife sanctuary in 1953.
The sanctuary is located near the border of Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh and Telangana.
The perennial river Dayyam Vagu flows through this beautiful sanctuary. This Vagu separates the wildlife sanctuary into two parts.
The sanctuary is also famous for the Sammakkka Sarakka Jathra, one of the Asia’s largest tribal jahtra, taking place here every two years.
The River Godavari also passes through the sanctuary.
Vegetation: The region falls in the tropical dry deciduous type of vegetation.
Flora: The sanctuary is thus rich in the growth of teak, bamboo and other trees like madhuca and terminalia. Climbers are the unique features which are found in abundance across the length and breadth of this Sanctuary.
Fauna:
The keystone species in the sanctuary are Indian gour and giant squirrel.
It provides the dwelling ground for Tiger, Leopard, Jackals Sloth Bear, Panther, Wolf, Wild Dogs,Chousingha, Sambar
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/hyderabad/forest-fires-singe-telangana-wildlife-sanctuaries/articleshow/108772149.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to vaccines:
- All vaccines trigger the production of B cells in the human body.
- All vaccines activate long-lasting plasma cells in the bone marrow.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
In recently published a review of 34 currently licensed vaccines for the duration of their protective immunity and found that only five vaccines provide long-lasting protection spanning more than 20 years and only three provide lifelong protection.
Post-vaccination immunity develops in a complex process.
Process
In the fundamental immunological mechanism, our lymph nodes first produce the memory B cells that confer long-term protection against a disease.
These cells ‘memorise’ the antigen the vaccine has delivered.
When a foreign object like a virus enters the body bearing the same antigen, the B cells will trigger the production of a large number of potent antibodies to destroy it, removing the infection.
These memory B cells require T cell support, and only vaccines that stimulate T cells can also induce the body to produce them. Further, not all vaccines – including the polysaccharide typhoid and the pneumococcal vaccines – prompt the body to make B cells.
In some cases, frequent boosters are required to enhance the duration of immunity the cells confer, ranging from six months to a few years.
Also, vaccines trigger the production of memory B cells to different degrees, plus having memory B cells alone does not guarantee protection.
Another essential immune cell, called long-lasting plasma cell (LLPC), migrates from the lymph node to the bone marrow and may endure for decades.
LLPCs are the main immunological factor in vaccine-induced immunity. Every vaccine tries to create long-lasting plasma cells for lifelong protection.
The measles and rubella vaccines produce these cells in the bone marrow. However, some potent vaccines, such as the mRNA COVID-19 shots, fail to activate these cells in the bone marrow.
To provide long-term protection, then, vaccines must generate memory B cells and LLPCs in the bone marrow. Different vaccines differ in their ability to produce these cells, explaining the disparity in their durabilities.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/why-do-so-many-contemporary-vaccines-have-low-durability-explained/article67990455.ece
Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘ex-parte injunction’?
A court order issued without hearing from the other party involved.
Explanation :
Courts should not grant ex-parte injunctions against the publication of a news article, barring in exceptional cases, as it may have severe ramifications for the right to freedom of speech, the Supreme Court said recently.
About Ex-parte Injunction:
It is a court order that is issued without hearing from the other party involved in the case. It is also known as a temporary restraining order.
This type of injunction is only granted in emergency situations where there is a risk of irreparable harm if immediate action is not taken.
The court will consider the evidence presented by the person requesting the injunction and decide whether to grant it or not.
What is an Injunction?
In India, an injunction is a legal remedy available to parties who wish to prevent the other party from carrying out a certain action or behavior.
Injunctions can be granted in a variety of situations, such as in cases of intellectual property infringement, breach of contract, or defamation.
An injunction is a powerful legal tool that acts as a court order requiring a party to do or cease doing specific actions.
It plays a crucial role in many legal battles, serving as a preventive measure to stop legal wrongs or as a remedy to enforce rights.
Injunctions are a discretionary remedy, and the court will consider various factors before deciding whether to grant an injunction. These factors may include the urgency of the matter, the balance of convenience, and the likelihood of success in the underlying lawsuit.
Types of Injunctions in India:
Temporary Injunctions: They are granted to preserve the status quo until a final decision can be reached. These are usually granted at the start of a case and can last for the duration of the legal proceedings.
Permanent Injunctions: They are granted after the court has made a final determination in the case. They prohibit the defendant from continuing a particular action or behavior.
Mandatory Injunctions: They require the defendant to carry out a particular action. They are often granted in cases of breach of contract, where the plaintiff requires the defendant to fulfill their contractual obligations.
Prohibitory Injunctions: They prohibit the defendant from carrying out a particular action or behavior. They are often granted in cases of intellectual property infringement or defamation.
In India, the law regarding injunction is provided under the Specific Relief Act, 1963 and the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
What happens if the party violates the injunction? If a party violates the injunction, they may be held in contempt of court and could face penalties such as fines or imprisonment.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/pre-trial-injunction-against-news-publication-may-have-severe-ramifications-for-freedom-of-speech-sc/articleshow/108789776.cms
With reference to the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA), consider the following statements:
- It can be applied only after an area has been declared “disturbed” under the provisions of the Act.
- Under AFSPA, the armed forces can use force or even open fire after giving due warning if they feel a person is in contravention of the law.
- Under no circumstances, legal proceedings can be initiated against any person in respect of anything done in the exercise of the powers conferred by this Act.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Union Home Minister recently said the Central Government will consider revoking the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act in Jammu and Kashmir.
About Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA):
It is a law enacted by the Parliament in 1958 which gives the armed forces special powers and immunity to maintain public order in “disturbed areas”.
When is it applied? It can be applied only after an area has been declared “disturbed” under section 2 of the Act.
What is a Disturbed area? An area can be considered to be disturbed due to differences or disputes among different religious, racial, language, or regional groups or castes or communities.
Who declares an area as disturbed?
The Central Government, or the Governor of the State or administrator of the Union Territory, can declare the whole or part of the State or Union Territory as a disturbed area.
It can be invoked in places where “the use of armed forces in aid of the civil power is necessary”.
The ‘special powers’ of armed forces under AFSPA are:
They have the authority to prohibit a gathering of five or more persons in an area, can use force or even open fire after giving due warning if they feel a person is in contravention of the law.
If reasonable suspicion exists, the army can also arrest a person without a warrant, enter or search a premises without a warrant, and ban the possession of firearms.
Any person arrested or taken into custody may be handed over to the officer in charge of the nearest police station along with a report detailing the circumstances that led to the arrest.
These armed forces are immune from prosecution unless the Union Government provides sanctions to the prosecuting agencies.
Where is AFSPA in force now? Apart from Nagaland, the AFSPA is currently in force in Jammu and Kashmir, Assam and Manipur except Imphal, and Arunachal Pradesh.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/centre-to-consider-revoking-afspa-pull-back-troops-from-j-k-amit-shah-5317736
With reference to the National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC), consider the following statements:
- It is an autonomous body of the University Grants Commission (UGC).
- It is involved in the accreditation of Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) in India.
- At present, the assessment by NAAC is done on a voluntary basis.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC), in its executive council meeting held recently, decided to introduce a binary categorisation of “accredited” or “not accredited” for higher educational institutions, departing from the letter grade system.
About National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC):
It is an autonomous body of the University Grants Commission (UGC), under the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD).
It was established in 1994 in pursuance of the recommendations made by the National Policy of Education, 1986, and the Programme of Action (POA), 1992, which lay special emphasis on evaluating the quality of higher education in India.
Head Quarter: Bengaluru.
Function: Evaluation, assessment, and accreditation of Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) in the country.
Assessment is a performance evaluation of an institution and its units and is accomplished through a process based on self-study and peer review using defined criteria.
Accreditation refers to the certification given by NAAC, which is valid for a period of five years.
The ratings of institutions range from A++ to C.If an institution is graded D, it means it is not accredited.
Eligibility Criteria: HEIs with a record of at least two batches of students graduated or been in existence for six years, whichever is earlier, are eligible to apply for the process of Assessment and Accreditation (A&A) of NAAC and fulfill all the specified conditions.
At present, the Assessment and Accreditation by NAAC is done on a voluntary basis.
NAAC has identified seven criteria: i. Curricular aspects, ii. Teaching-learning and evaluation, iii. Research, Consultancy and extension, iv. Infrastructure and learning resources, v. Student support and progression, vi. Governance and leadership and vii. Innovative practices as the basis for its assessment procedure.
Composition:
It functions through its General Council (GC) and Executive Committee (EC), comprising educational administrators, policymakers, and senior academicians from a cross-section of the Indian higher education system.
The Chairperson of the UGC is the President of the GC of the NAAC.
The Chairperson of the EC is an eminent academician nominated by the President of the GC (NAAC).
The Director is the academic and administrative head of NAAC and is the member-secretary of both the GC and the EC.
NAAC is advised by theadvisory and consultative committees constituted from time to time.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.newindianexpress.com/opinions/2024/Mar/21/naacs-accreditation-system-needs-change-to-be-creditable
What is the primary role of ICGS Samudra Paheredar, recently seen in the news?
Pollution response at sea
Explanation :
External Affairs recently visited Indian Coast Guard ship Samudra Paheredar, which is in Manila Bay in the Philippines, as part of an overseas deployment to ASEAN countries.
About ICGS Samudra Paheredar:
It is a specialised Pollution Control Vessel (PCV) of the Indian Coast Guard.
It is the second PCV of India (the first being ICGS Samudra Prahari).
It was indigenously built by ABG Shipyard, Surat.
It was commissioned in2012.
It is stationed on the East Coast of India in Vishakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
Features:
The ship is 94.10 metres long, draws 4,300 tons at maximum displacement, and is propelled by 3,000-kilowatt twin diesel engines, producing power that is further enhanced by twin shaft generators for a maximum speed of 21 knots.
At economical speed, the ship has an endurance of 6,500 nautical miles and can stay at sea for 20 days.
The ship’s primary role is pollution response at sea and is equipped with the most advanced and sophisticated pollution response and control equipment for mitigating oil spills, which includes containment equipment like hi-sprint booms and river booms, recovery devices like skimmers, and side sweeping arms.
The ship is capable of unhindered oil-recovery operations, with a storage capacity of 502 kilolitres.
The special features include an integrated platform management system, a power management system, and a high-powered external firefighting system.
It is capable of operating one twin-engine ALH/ Chetak helicopter.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/eam-jaishankar-visits-indian-coast-guard-ship-samudra-paheredar-in-philippines/articleshow/108795787.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements with reference to the Monuments of National Importance (MNI):
- Once a monument or a site is declared to be MNI, their protection and upkeep is the responsibility of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI).
- A one-kilometer radius of MNI is considered a ‘prohibited area’ where there is a ban on construction activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) recently decided to delist 18 protected monuments as they have ceased to be of “national importance”.
About Monuments of National Importance (MNI):
The Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act (AMASR Act), 1958 (amended in 2010), provides for the declaration and conservation of ancient and historical monuments, and archaeological sites, and remains of national importance.
Presently, there are 3,693MNI in India. Uttar Pradesh (745 monuments/sites) has the highest number.
Declaration:
The Central Government issues a notification of its intention to declare any ancient monument which archaeologically, historically, or architecturally qualifies to be of national importance by giving two months’ notice, inviting views/objections from the public.
After considering the views/objections received within the stipulated period, the Central Government may declare the ancient monument to be of national importance by publishing a notification in the official gazette.
Once a monument or a site is declared to be MNI, their protection and upkeep is the responsibility of the Archaeological Survey of India, under the Ministry of Culture.
ASI undertakes the conservation, preservation, and maintenance of MNI throughout the country.
The One-hundred-meter radius of the monument is then considered a ‘prohibited area’ where there is a ban on construction activities. Further 200 meters (i.e., 100+200 meters) are considered a ‘regulated area’ where there are regulations on construction.
The ASI also has the power to delist monuments it deems to “have ceased to be of national importance” under Section 35 of the Act. Once a monument is delisted, the ASI becomes no longer responsible for protecting these monuments.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/archaeological-survey-protect-delist-lost-monuments-here-is-why-2519567-
Consider the following statements with reference to the Meme coins:
- These are categories of cryptocurrencies in the digital currency space.
- These are highly volatile in nature and have a massive supply.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Meme coins started as a humorous, satirical take on the internet and often lacking in any real underlying value have gained significant popularity.
These are a unique category of cryptocurrencies, have gained significant popularity in the digital currency space. These coins trace their origin to the growth of meme culture on the internet.
These are also known as ‘memetic tokens’ or ‘community coins’, meme coins are digital currencies created as a form of satire or humorous tribute to the internet culture.
They often feature quirky names, logos, and branding that reference popular memes, jokes, or internet phenomena.
Key characteristics :
These are highly volatile in nature, subject to extreme changes in value over short periods, driven by the current buzz surrounding the token.
They typically have a massive or uncapped supply, leading to very low values per token.
These coins leverage blockchain technology, often utilising smart contracts on platforms like Ethereum and Solana.
Creating a meme coin is relatively easy compared to traditional cryptocurrencies.
With the proliferation of blockchain platforms and decentralized finance (DeFi) tools, virtually anyone can launch a meme coin with minimal technical expertise and resources.
These coins are primarily driven by speculation and community engagement, lacking fundamental value or unique use cases. Also, the prices of meme coins can experience rapid fluctuations, making them risky investments.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/finance/news/explainer-what-are-meme-coins-and-should-you-add-them-in-your-portfolio-124032500286_1.html
Consider the following statements with reference to black carbon:
- It is the dark, sooty material emitted when biomass is not fully combusted.
- It is a long-lived climate pollutant.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
According to a 2016 study, the residential sector contributes 47% of India’s total black carbon emissions.
It is the dark, sooty material emitted alongside other pollutants when biomass and fossil fuels are not fully combusted.
It comprises a significant portion of particulate matter or PM, which is an air pollutant.
It is a short-lived climate pollutant with a lifetime of only days to weeks after release in the atmosphere.
It is an important contributor to warming because it is very effective at absorbing light and heating its surroundings. It contributes to warming by converting incoming solar radiation to heat.
It also influences cloud formation and impacts regional circulation and rainfall patterns.
When deposited on ice and snow, black carbon and co-emitted particles reduce surface albedo (the ability to reflect sunlight) and heat the surface.
Impacts:
It contributes to global warming and poses severe risks. Studies have found a direct link between exposure to black carbon and a higher risk of heart disease, birth complications, and premature death.
It has a warming impact on climate that is 460-1,500 times stronger than CO2.
Most black carbon emissions in India arise from burning biomass, such as cow dung or straw, in traditional cookstoves.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/the-need-to-curb-black-carbon-emissions-explained/article67995735.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Magnetotactic bacteria:
- It is a prokaryotic organism that arranges themselves along the Earth’s magnetic field.
- It thrives in the suboxic conditions of the Bay of Bengal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Consider the following statements:
- The Border Roads Organisation was formed to develop infrastructure in remote areas of the north-east States of India.
- The Union Minister of Defence acts as Chairman of the Border Roads Development Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) connected strategically important all-weather 298-km long road from Manali to Leh through Darcha and Nimmu on the Kargil–Leh Highway.
It is a road construction executive force in India that provides support to Indian Armed Forces.
Establishment: It was formed on 7 May 1960 to secure India’s borders and develop infrastructure in remote areas of the north and north-east States of the country.
In order to ensure coordination and expeditious execution of projects, the Government of India set up the Border Roads Development Board (BRDB) with the Prime Minister as Chairman of the Board and Defence Minister as Deputy Chairman.
It develops and maintains road networks in India’s border areas and friendly neighboring countries.
This includes infrastructure operations in 19 states and three union territories (including Andaman and Nicobar Islands) and neighboring countries such as Afghanistan, Bhutan, Myanmar, Tajikistan and Sri Lanka.
Officers and personnel from the General Reserve Engineer Force (GREF) form the parent cadre of the BRO.
It is also staffed by Officers and Troops drawn from the Indian Army’s Corps of Engineers on extra regimental employment (on deputation).
BRO is also included in the Order of Battle of the Armed Forces, ensuring their support at any time.
Motto of the organization: Shramena Sarvam Sadhyam (everything is achievable through hardwork)
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/national/bro-connects-298-km-long-nimmu-padam-darcha-road-to-ladakh-region/article67995218.ece
With reference to Krishi Integrated Command and Control Centre, consider the following statements:
- It provides information on crop yields and drought situation through Geographic Information Systems (GIS).
- It uses artificial intelligence and remote sensing to collect and process data.
- It generates a customised advisory only in English and Hindi language.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Agriculture Minister inaugurated a Krishi Integrated Command and Control Centre (ICCC) set up at Krishi Bhavan in New Delhi.
It is a tech-based solution involving multiple IT applications and platforms, which is designed to help in making informed decisions.
It is housed in the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare.
Objectives: It will enable comprehensive monitoring of the farm sector by making available at one place geospatial information received from multiple sources, including remote sensing; plot-level data received through soil survey and weather data from the India Meteorological Department (IMD) etc.
Working: It uses state of the art technologies such as artificial intelligence, remote sensing, and Geographic Information Systems (GIS) to collect and process large amounts of granular data — on temperatures, rainfall, wind speed, crop yields and production estimations — and presents it in graphical format.
Features of this centre
It provides information on crop yields, production, drought situation, cropping patterns (geographic region-wise and year-wise) in map, timeline, and drill-down views.
Here one can also see the relevant trends (periodic and non-periodic), outliers, and Key Performance Indicators (KPIs), and receive insights, alerts, and feedback on agriculture schemes, programmes, projects, and initiatives.
It uses platforms including the Krishi Decision Support System (DSS) to collect micro-level data, process it, and present the macro picture.
It can create an ecosystem based on which individual farmer-level advisories can be generated through apps like Kisan e-mitra, a chatbot developed for PM-Kisan beneficiaries.
The AI-/ machine learning-based system will identify a farmer through his/ her mobile number or Aadhaar, and match it with the farmer’s field information obtain through land records, historical crop sowing information from the crop registry, weather data from IMD, etc.
It will then generate a customised advisory in the local language of the farmer. For this, the system will use the Bhashini platform that allows translation into several Indian languages.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/iccc-integrated-farm-data-dashboard-for-customised-solutions-9235150/
With reference to stomata, consider the following statements:
- They are tiny openings or pores in plant tissue that allow for gas exchange.
- The majority of stomata in terrestrial plants are located on the upper surface of the leaves.
- They help to reduce water loss by closing when conditions are hot or dry.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Scientists recently discovered a novel regulatory mechanism that controls the opening of stomata in plants.
About Stomata:
Stomata are tiny openings or pores in plant tissue that allow for gas exchange.
They are typically found in plant leaves but can also be found in some stems.
Stomata allow a plant to take in carbon dioxide, which is needed for photosynthesis.
They also help to reduce water loss by closing when conditions are hot or dry.
Stomata look like tiny mouths which open and close as they assist in transpiration.
Plants that reside on land typically have thousands of stomata on the surfaces of their leaves.
The majority of stomata are located on the underside of plant leaves, reducing their exposure to heat and air currents.
In aquatic plants, stomata are located on the upper surface of the leaves.
A stoma (singular for stomata) is surrounded by two types of specialized plant cells that differ from other plant epidermal cells. These cells are called guard cells and subsidiary cells.
Guard cells are large, crescent-shaped cells, two of which surround a stoma and are connected to at both ends.
A stomate opens and closes in response to the internal pressure of guard cells.
These cells enlarge and contract to open and close stomatal pores.
Guard cells work to control excessive water loss, closing on hot, dry, or windy days and opening when conditions are more favourable for gas exchange.
Guard cells also contain chloroplasts, the light-capturing organelles in plants.
Subsidiary cells, also called accessory cells, surround and support guard cells.
They act as a buffer between guard cells and epidermal cells, protecting epidermal cells against guard cell expansion.
For most plants, dawn triggers a sudden increase in stomatal opening, reaching a maximum near noon, which is followed by a decline because of water loss.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://phys.org/news/2024-03-discovery-amino-acid-unveils-stomata.html#google_vignette
Consider the following statements with reference to the polar vortex:
- It is a small area of high-pressure and warm air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles.
- It always exists near the poles but weakens in summer and strengthens in winter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The polar vortex circling the Arctic is swirling in the wrong direction after surprise warming in the upper atmosphere triggered a major reversal event recently.
About Polar Vortex:
The polar vortex is a large area of low-pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles.
It always exists near the poles but weakens in summer and strengthens in winter.
The term “vortex” refers to the counter-clockwise flow of air that helps keep the colder air near the poles.
Many times, during winter in the northern hemisphere, the polar vortex will expand, sending cold air southward with the jet stream.
This occurs fairly regularly during wintertime and is often associated with large outbreaks of Arctic air in the United States and Canada.
Portions of Europe and Asia also experience cold surges connected to the polar vortex.
The polar vortex extends from the tropopause (the dividing line between the stratosphere and troposphere) through the stratosphere and into the mesosphere (above 50 km).
Low values of ozone and cold temperatures are associated with the air inside the vortex.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.livescience.com/planet-earth/weather/polar-vortex-is-spinning-backwards-above-arctic-after-major-reversal-event
Consider the following statements regarding the South East Africa Montane Archipelago (SEAMA):
- It is a newly recognised mountainous ecoregion with several endemic species.
- It has the distinction of receiving the least amount of rainfall in southern Africa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A recent study in southern Africa has unearthed a wealth of previously undocumented biodiversity in a newly recognised ecoregion called the South East Africa Montane Archipelago (SEAMA).
About South East Africa Montane Archipelago (SEAMA):
It is a newly recognised mountainous ecoregion.
It stretches across northern Mozambique to Mount Mulanje in Malawi, southern Africa’s second-highest mountain.
The ecoregion encompasses 30 granitic inselbergs reaching > 1000 m above sea level, hosting the largest(Mt Mabu) and smallest (Mt Lico) mid-elevation rainforests in southern Africa, as well as biologically unique montane grasslands.
SEAMA has distinctly higher annual rainfall and humidity, especially in the dry season, compared to surrounding regions.
Endemic taxa include 127 plants, 45 vertebrates (amphibians, reptiles, birds, mammals), and 45 invertebrate species (butterflies, freshwater crabs), and two endemic genera of plants and reptiles.
This endemism arose from divergence events coinciding with the repeated isolation of these mountains from the pan-African forests, together with the mountains’ great age and relative climatic stability.
Since 2000, the SEAMA has lost 18% of its primary humid forest cover (up to 43% in some sites)—one of the highest deforestation rates in Africa.
The major cause of montane forest loss in SEAMA is slash and burn shifting agricultural practices, typically used for subsistence food production by local communities, along with charcoal production, for household cooking, and as a source of revenue.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/africa/southern-africa-s-new-ecoregion-brimming-with-undocumented-life-but-in-urgent-need-of-conservation-95244
Consider the following statements with reference to the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO):
- It is a project of international collaboration between the European Space Agency (ESA) and the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
- It is the longest-lived Sun-watching satellite to date.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, a citizen scientist spotted a comet in an image from the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO) spacecraft, which has now been confirmed to be the 5,000th comet discovered using SOHO data.
About Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO):
It is a project of international collaboration between the European Space Agency (ESA) and the U.S. National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Launched in 1995, SOHO was designed to study the Sun.
In order to provide continuous observations, it was maneuvered to orbit the first Lagrangian Point (L1), a point some 1.5 million km (900,000 miles) from Earth toward the Sun where the gravitational attraction of Earth and the Sun, combine in such a way that a small body remains approximately at rest relative to both.
It carries 12 scientific instruments to study the solar atmosphere, helioseismology, and the solar wind.
Information from the mission has allowed scientists to learn more about the Sun’s internal structure and dynamics, the chromosphere, the corona, and solar particles.
Though its mission was scheduled to run until only 1998, it has continued collecting data, adding to scientists’ understanding of our closest star, and making many new discoveries, including thousands of comets.
SOHO is the longest-lived Sun-watching satellite to date.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://science.nasa.gov/science-research/heliophysics/esa-nasa-solar-observatory-discovers-its-5000th-comet/
Afanasy Nikitin Seamount, recently seen in the news, lies in which one of the following oceans?
Indian Ocean
Explanation :
India recently applied to the International Seabed Authority (ISBA) for rights to explore two vast tracts in the Indian Ocean seabed, including a cobalt-rich crust long known as the Afanasy Nikitin Seamount (AN Seamount).
About Afanasy Nikitin Seamount:
The AN Seamount is a structural feature (400 km-long and 150 km-wide) in the Central Indian Basin, located about 3,000 km away from India’s coast.
It comprises a main plateau, rising 1200 m above the surrounding ocean floor (4800m), and secondary elevated seamount highs.
It is rich in deposits of cobalt, nickel, manganese, and copper.
What is a Seamount?
It is an underwater mountain formed through volcanic activity.
These are recognised as hotspots for marine life.
Like volcanoes on land, seamounts can be active, extinct, or dormant volcanoes.
These are formed near mid-ocean ridges, where the earth’s tectonic plates are moving apart, allowing molten rock to rise to the seafloor.
The planet’s two most-studied mid-ocean ridges are the Mid-Atlantic Ridge and the East Pacific Rise.
Some seamounts have also been found near intraplate hotspots—regions of heavy volcanic activity within a plate—and oceanic island chains with volcanic and seismic activity called island arcs.
Significance of seamounts:
They provide information about the mantle’s composition and how tectonic plates evolve.
These are helpful in understanding their influence on how water circulates and absorbs heat and carbon dioxide.
They are good places for life because they can cause localised ocean upwelling, the process by which nutrient-rich water from deep within the ocean moves up to the surface.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/sensing-china-threat-india-joins-race-to-mine-new-sea-patch/article67995397.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the mushk budiji:
- It is an indigenous aromatic rice variety primarily grown in the Western Ghats region.
- It has received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, scientists at the Sher-e-Kashmir University of Agricultural Sciences and Technology (SKUAST), Srinagar, reported that altitude and temperature play an important role in the development of mushk budiji aroma.
It is an indigenous aromatic rice variety is usually grown at an altitude ranging from 5000 to 7000 ft above mean sea level in Highland Himalayas.
It is short, bold aromatic rice grown in the higher reaches of Kashmir valley.
The cooked rice is unique and possesses a harmonious blend of taste, aroma and rich organoleptic properties.
It is mainly is grown in areas of Sagam, Panzgam and Soaf Shali of district Anantnag and Beerwah belt of district Budgam.
The consumption of aromatic rice in Kashmir has now been limited to special occasions, marriages, and festivals.
It has received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/mushk-budiji-rice-aroma-export-quality-genetic-study/article67997695.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Moyar valley:
- It extends through the core area of Mudumalai Tiger Reserve.
- It is the only region in peninsular India with the biggest nesting colony of Gyps vultures in the wild.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Moyar valley is the biggest nesting colony of critically endangered Gyps vultures in the wild.
It is also known as Maayar valley.
Location: It extends from Gudalur through the core area of Mudumalai Tiger Reserve.
This entire stretch is a wildlife haven and important biome in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
It is sheltering several vital species like tiger and elephant and the critically endangered Gyps vulture.
It is the only region in peninsular India where you have the biggest nesting colony of Gyps vultures in the wild.
How it supports Gyps population?
This valley offers plenty of wild kills and natural deaths of wildlife from Moyar village to Bhavanisagar.
This provides a stable food-chain to nature’s scavengers, simply because these carcasses are mostly free from NSAIDs (Non-Steroidal Anti-inflammatory Drugs)
and other poisonous chemicals.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/amp/story/states/tamil-nadu/2024/Mar/23/protect-moyar-valley-the-home-of-critically-endangered-gyps-vulture
Consider the following statements with reference to Quantum Cryptography:
- It uses the naturally occurring properties of quantum mechanics to transmit data.
- It can be used to copy data encoded in a quantum state without alerting the sender or receiver.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Consider the following statements regarding the Investment facilitation for Development (IFD):
- It was launched at the 11th World Trade Organisation’s Ministerial Conference.
- It aims to create legally binding provisions to facilitate investment flows.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
One of the significant developments at the 13th Ministerial Conference (MC13) of the World Trade Organization (WTO) in Abu Dhabi was the non-adoption of the agreement on Investment Facilitation for Development (IFD).
It is a joint initiative launched at the 11th WTO Ministerial Conference (MC11) in 2017 on a plurilateral basis by 70 countries.
This was done through a process known as the Joint Statement Initiative.
Aim: This agreement aims to create legally binding provisions to facilitate investment flows.
It also aims to develop predictable, transparent and open investment rules that will contribute to more efficient investment flows and increased business confidence and it is now in a formal negotiation phase.
Objective: A core objective of the framework is to facilitate greater participation by developing and least-developed WTO Members in global investment flows.
The IFD agreement was finalised in 2023 and at present around 120 of 166 WTO member countries (more than 70% of the membership) back this agreement.
Key areas included in the IFD Agreement to promote and facilitate investment:
Improving regulatory transparency and predictability: such as publishing investment-related measures and establishing enquiry points;
Streamlining and speeding up administrative procedures: such as removing duplicative steps in approval processes and simplifying applications;
Enhancing international cooperation and addressing the needs of developing members – such as providing technical assistance and capacity-building for developing countries and least developed countries; and
Other issues: such as implementing provisions to encourage responsible business conduct.
India is not a part of this initiative.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/wtos-investment-facilitation-negotiations-are-not-illegal/article67999080.ece
With reference to Treasury Bills, consider the following statements:
- These are zero coupon securities and pay no interest.
- These are short term debt instruments issued by the Government of India.
- These are purchased only by the nationalized banks.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India notified the calendar for the issuance of Treasury Bills for the quarter ending June 2024.
Treasury bills or T-bills are money market instruments.
These are short term debt instruments issued by the Government of India.
Maturity period: At present, treasury bills are issued in three maturities — 91-day, 182-day and 364-day.
These are zero coupon securities and pay no interest. Instead, they are issued at a discount and redeemed at the face value at maturity.
Who can buy?
Individuals, trusts, institutions and banks can purchase T-Bills. But they are usually held by financial institutions.
They have a very important role in the financial market beyond investment instruments.
Banks give treasury bills to the RBI to get money under repo. Similarly, they can also keep it to fulfil their Statutory Liquid Ratio (SLR) requirements.
How do T-bills work?
Treasury bills are issued at a discount to original value and the buyer gets the original value upon maturity.
For example, a Rs 100 treasury bill can be availed of at Rs 95, but the buyer is paid Rs 100 on the maturity date.
The return on treasury bill depends on liquidity position in the economy. When there is a liquidity crisis, the returns are higher, and vice versa.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2016488
With reference to the offence of Criminal Conspiracy under the Indian Penal Code (IPC), consider the following statements:
- It involves an agreement between two or more persons to commit an illegal act.
- In a conspiracy, all members are equally liable for an act of one of the members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently dismissed the review petitions filed against its judgment which held that proceedings under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) cannot be initiated by invoking Section 120B of the IPC if the alleged criminal conspiracy was not related to a scheduled offence.
About Section 120B of the IPC:
Section 120A of the IPC defines the offence of criminal conspiracy.
Section 120B of the IPC, on the other hand, defines the punishment for criminal conspiracy.
Criminal Conspiracy under IPC is an agreement between two or more persons to commit an illegal act or to commit a lawful act by illegal means.
In other words, it is a criminal offence where two or more individuals agree to plan and execute a criminal act.
Section 120A of the IPC states: “When two or more persons agree to do or cause to be done, an illegal act or an act which is not illegal by illegal means, such an agreement is designated a criminal conspiracy.”
For a conspiracy to be established, there must be an agreement between the conspirators, a common intention to commit an illegal act, and an overt act in furtherance of that intention.
The agreement does not have to be in writing or expressed verbally; it can be inferred from the conduct of the parties.
The Doctrine of Agency in a Criminal Conspiracy:
It is said that a criminal conspiracy is a partnership in crime because every member involved is a joint and mutual agent to each other for the common purpose, i.e., execution of the conspired crime.
By this doctrine of agency, the law contemplates that the act of one of the members in the conspiracy is deemed as the act by each of them, due to all members being equally liable.
Punishment for Criminal Conspiracy:
Under the purview of IPC 120B, conspiracy is divided into two categories depending on the nature, gravity, and punishment for the said offences. Also, whether the case is bailable or not, depends on the above-mentioned circumstances.
In the first part, it states that if the conspiracy is to commit an offence of serious nature, an offence which is punishable with death imprisonment, imprisonment for life, or with rigorous imprisonment for at least a term of 2 years or more, or if there is no punishment mentioned in the code for the offence committed, such person shall be treated in the same manner as of the offence committed and abetted by him.
Whereas, in the other part of Section 120B, conspiracy other than the offence committed under the first part, conspiracy to commit an illegal act is covered. In this kind of cases, the section provides a uniform punishment, which means imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend up to six months, a fine, or both.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/pmla-cant-applied-using-s120b-ipc-if-criminal-conspiracy-wasnt-related-to-scheduled-offence-supreme-court-rejects-eds-review-petition-253478
Consider the following statements regarding the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940:
- It regulates the import, manufacture and sale or distribution of drugs and cosmetics.
- It classifies medications into different schedules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently held that cognizance cannot be taken of an offence under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, based on a complaint filed by a police officer.
About Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940:
It regulates the import, manufacture, and sale or distribution of drugs and cosmetics through licences and permits.
Its main objective is to ensure that the drugs and cosmetics marketed in India are reliable, efficient, and in compliance with national standards.
The associated Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945, which were formulated in association with the 1940 Act, provide provisions for classifying medications into schedules and instructions for the storage, sale, presentation, and prescription of each schedule.
What is a drug?
A drug includes medicines or medical devices for external or internal use for human beings or animals, and all substances intended to be used for or in the diagnosis, treatment, mitigation, or prevention of any disease or disorder in human beings or animals.
Drugs are extracts of certain plants, animal parts, herbs, or minerals. A drug is any chemical substance (natural or man-made) that alters biological structure or functioning when absorbed.
What is a cosmetic? The term cosmetic refers to any substance or product used to rub, pour, sprinkle, or spray on, or introduce into, or otherwise apply to, the body or any part of any object for cleansing, beautifying, or improving the appearance.
Objectives:
The Act oversees medication imports into India, ensuring that no substandard or counterfeit drugs enter the country.
The Act prohibits the production of inferior or counterfeit pharmaceuticals in the country.
The Act requires only qualified and competent personnel to sell and distribute medicines, as well as the manufacture, sale, and distribution of Ayurvedic, Siddha, Unani, and Homeopathic drugs.
The provisions of the Act control the import, manufacture, sale, and distribution of cosmetics.
To have drug inspectors visit licensed premises regularly.
Monitoring pharmaceutical and cosmetic standards by collecting samples and analyzing them in accredited laboratories.
Creating distinctive regulations to control the manufacture, standardization, and storage of biological and special products, as well as prescribing how different types of drugs and cosmetics should be labeled and packed.
To form a Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) and Drugs Consultative Committees (DCC) for allopathic and allied drugs, as well as cosmetics.
Salient Features:
The maximum penalty is life imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 10 lakhs or three times the confiscated goods’ value, whichever is greater.
Other gazette officers, in addition to officers from the Drug Controller’s Office, are authorised to initiate prosecution under the Act; some of the offences are cognizable and non-bailable;
Specialised courts for the trial of offences covered by the Act;
Provision for the aggregation of minor offences.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/cognizance-of-offence-under-drugs-cosmetics-act-1940-cant-be-taken-based-on-police-officers-complaint-supreme-court-253512
What is the typical goal of the plaintiff in a SLAPP lawsuit?
To discourage public participation from engaging in societal issues
Explanation :
A supreme court bench recently recorded observations on how courts should decide pre-trial injunctions against media organisations, and the growing use of SLAPP suits “to prevent the public from knowing about or participating in important affairs in the public interest”.
About SLAPP Suits:
The term ‘SLAPP’, stands for strategic lawsuit against public participation.
The concept of a SLAPP lawsuit evolved in the US, where it was observed that certain lawsuits were filed targeting individual or group litigants who voiced their concern over important or considerable social issues in the public arena.
The subject matter of the suit would target an act of public participation, such as engaging in an issue of societal or political significance, in the form of journalism, advocacy, whistleblowing, peaceful protests or boycotts, activism, or simply speaking out against abuse of power.
As such, winning the lawsuit is not the focus. The plaintiff’s goal is typically accomplished if the defendant succumbs to fear, intimidation, mounting legal costs or simple exhaustion and abandons the criticism.
The remedies sought are usually substantial amounts of damages, and generally aggressive or disproportionate to the subject matter of the dispute.
SLAPP suits are routinely filed for libel, slander, defamation, abuse of process, malicious prosecution, conspiracy, invasion of privacy, and tortious interference with contract or business relationships.
The most common SLAPP suits have often involved a powerful corporation suing local citizens for speaking against their company.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/supreme-court-bloomberg-article-zee-slapp-9236658/
What are ‘Cicadas’?
Sound-producing colourful insects
Explanation :
Scientists recently uncovered a dazzling new cicada species known colloquially as “Butterfly Cicadas” from Meghalaya.
About Butterfly Cicada:
It is a newly discovered species of cicada belonging to the genus Becquartina.
It brings the total number of known species in the genus Becquartina to seven.
It was discovered in Meghalaya.
It marks the first-ever record of this genus in the country.
The colorful wings of the cicada earned it the nickname “butterfly cicada”, with the species name “bicolour” reflecting its two distinct colour forms.
Features:
The species is localised in the Garo Hills and Ri-Bhoi districts, preferring thick forests and native vegetation.
Active from April to June, the cicada’s calling patterns vary between Garo Hills and Ri-Bhoi districts. In Garo Hills, males call rigorously in the morning and evening, while in Ri-Bhoi, calls are heard during daylight hours.
The basal one-third of the hind wing is rich saffron, and the apical two-thirds are matte black with prominent rich saffron squarish spots.
What are Cicadas?
Cicada, (family Cicadidae) is any of a group of sound-producing insects.
They have two pairs of membranous wings, prominent compound eyes, and three simple eyes (ocelli).
Cicadas are medium to large in size, ranging from 2 to 5 cm (0.8 to 2 inches).
Male cicadas produce loud noises by vibrating membranes (tymbals) near the base of the abdomen.
Female cicadas usually lay their eggs in woody plant tissues that drop from the plant when, or shortly after, the eggs hatch.
More than 3,000 species of cicadas are known. Most of them are tropical and occur in deserts, grasslands, and forests.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.eastmojo.com/meghalaya/2024/03/28/meghalaya-researchers-discover-stunning-new-cicada-species/?Y29uc3VtcHRpb24=ae841aee-ba1d-47e8-85db-18ef6930d511
Consider the following statements regarding the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002:
- It provides for the confiscation of the entire property (movable and immovable) of a person involved in money laundering.
- The Enforcement Directorate (ED) is responsible for investigating the offences of money laundering under the PMLA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Punjab and Haryana high court has made it clear that courts can order release of an accused of money laundering under police custody without fulfilling twin conditions as mandated under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002.
What is Money Laundering?
PMLA defines money laundering as an act of directly or indirectly attempting to indulge or knowingly assisting or knowingly being a party or actually involved in concealing, possessing, acquiring, using, projecting as untainted property, or claiming as untainted property, in any manner whatsoever, the proceeds of crime.
It is defined as the process through which an illegal fund, such as black money, is obtained from illegal activities and disguised as legal money, eventually portrayed as white money.
About Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002:
It is an act to prevent money laundering and to provide for the confiscation of property derived from or involved in money laundering.
The Act was formulated for the following objectives:
Prevent money-laundering.
Combat/prevent the channelising of money into illegal activities and economic crimes.
Provide for the confiscation of property derived from, or involved/used in, money laundering.
Penalise the offenders of money laundering offences.
Appointing an adjudicating authority and appellate tribunal for taking charge of money laundering matters.
Provide for matters connected and incidental to the acts of money laundering.
The Enforcement Directorate (ED) in the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, is responsible for investigating the offences of money laundering under the PMLA.
Financial Intelligence Unit–India (FIU-IND), under the Department of Revenue, is the central national agency responsible for receiving, processing, analyzing, and disseminating information relating to suspect financial transactions.
The scheduled offences are separately investigated by the agencies mentioned under respective acts, for example, the local police, CBI, customs departments, SEBI, or any other investigative agency, as the case may be.
Actions that can be initiated against the person involved in money laundering:
Seizure/freezing of property and records, and attachment of property obtained with the proceeds of crime.
Any person who commits the offence of money laundering shall be punishable with:
Rigorous imprisonment for a minimum term of three years, and this may extend up to seven years.
Fine (without any limit).
The PMLA and rules notified thereunder impose obligations on banking companies, financial institutions, and intermediaries and persons carrying on a designated business or profession, to verify identity of clients, maintain records and furnish information to FIU-IND.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/chandigarh-news/money-laundering-cases-courts-can-order-release-of-accused-under-police-custody-hc-101711566996974.html
Consider the following statements with reference to CoViNet:
- It is network of global laboratories to identify potential novel coronaviruses.
- It is an initiative of World Health Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, World Health Organisation (WHO) has launched a new network for coronaviruses, CoViNet.
It is a network of global laboratories with expertise in human, animal and environmental coronavirus surveillance.
It will identify and monitor potentially novel coronaviruses that could emerge shortly.
The network will now have animal health and environmental surveillance and timely risk assessment to feed WHO policies and protective measures.
In low- and middle-income countries, CoViNet will support the building of more laboratories to monitor MERS-CoV and novel coronaviruses of public health importance.
Data generated through CoViNet’s efforts will guide the work of WHO’s Technical Advisory Groups on Viral Evolution (TAG-VE) and Vaccine Composition (TAG-CO-VAC) and others, ensuring global health policies and tools are based on the latest scientific information.
It currently comprises 36 laboratories from 21 countries in all six WHO regions.
Three Indian laboratories namely; the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research-National Environmental Engineering Research Institute, the Indian Council of Medical Research-National Institute of Virology in Pune, and the Translational Health Science and Technology Institute are part of this network.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/health/who-launches-covinet-a-global-laboratory-to-monitor-emerging-coronaviruses-95277
Consider the following statements regarding the Kalam-250:
- It is a stage-2 of Vikram-1 space launch vehicle.
- It is developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, Skyroot Aerospace, the leading space-tech company, has successfully test-fired the Kalam-250 at the propulsion testbed of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), at its Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
It is a stage-2 of Vikram-1 space launch vehicle.
It is a high-strength carbon composite rocket motor, which uses solid fuel and a high-performance Ethylene-Propylene-Diene terpolymers (EPDM) thermal protection system (TPS).
The stage includes a carbon ablative flex nozzle along with high-precision electro-mechanical actuators for thrust vector control of the vehicle, aiding in achieving the desired trajectory.
The second stage of Vikram-1 will play a crucial role in the ascent of the launch vehicle, propelling it from the atmosphere to the deep vacuum of outer space.
It is developed by the Skyroot Aerospace.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/hyderabad-based-skyroot-successfully-test-fires-kalam-250-stage-2-of-vikram-1-space-launch-vehicle/article68001573.ece
Consider the following statements regarding United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees:
- It was established in the aftermath of the Second World War.
- It awards Nansen Refugee Award for recognition of service to the cause of refugees.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
As per the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR), over 4,500 Rohingya refugees set off on dangerous journeys across the Bay of Bengal and the Andaman Sea IN 2023.
It protects refugees worldwide and facilitates their return home or resettlement.
History: It was established by the General Assembly of the United Nations in 1950 in the aftermath of the Second World War to help the millions of people who had lost their homes.
It is a global organization dedicated to saving lives, protecting rights and building a better future for people forced to flee their homes because of conflict and persecution.
It was awarded Nobel Peace Prizes in 1954 and 1981.
It has started Nansen Refugee Award in 1954 for recognition of outstanding service to the cause of refugees, displaced or stateless people.
Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/rohingya-crisis-refugee-death-sea-bangladesh-indonesia-myanmar-explainer/article68001155.ece
The Food Waste Index Report 2024 is published by:
United Nations Environment Programme
Explanation :
According to the Food Waste Index Report 2024, households across the globe wasted over one billion meals a day in 2022.
It a study jointly authored by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and WRAP (Waste and Resources Action Programme), a U.K.-based non-profit.
The Food Waste Index tracks the global and national generation of food and inedible parts wasted at the retail and consumer (household and food service) levels.
Highlights of the report
It noted that in 2022, there were 1.05 billion tonnes of food waste generated (including inedible parts), amounting to 132 kilograms per capita and almost one-fifth of all food available to consumers.
It stressed the importance of expanding and strengthening data infrastructure to enable the tracking and monitoring of food waste.
Many low- and middle-income countries continue to lack adequate systems for tracking progress to meet Sustainable Development Goal 12.3 of halving food waste by 2030, particularly in retail and food services.”
At present, only four G-20 countries (Australia, Japan, U.K., U.S.) and the European Union have food waste estimates suitable for tracking progress to 2030.
Hotter countries appear to generate more food waste per capita in households, potentially due to higher consumption of fresh foods with substantial inedible parts and a lack of robust cold chains.
As compared to urban areas, rural ones generally wasted less food, due to “greater diversion of food scraps to pets, livestock, and home composting”.
As of 2022, only 21 countries had included food loss and/or waste reduction in their climate plans or Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).
The report defines “food waste” as “food and the associated inedible parts removed from the human food supply chain”.
Food loss” is defined as “all the crop and livestock human-edible commodity quantities that, directly or indirectly, completely exit the post-harvest/slaughter production/supply chain up to, and excluding, the retail level”.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/world-wastes-1-billion-meals-a-day-says-un-report/article68002532.ece
With reference to Mohiniyattam, consider the following statements:
- It is a classical dance mainly performed in Kerala.
- It is generally performed in temples.
- It is always performed in groups.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
In a historic move, the Kerala Kalamandalam, a deemed university for arts and culture, has lifted gender restrictions to learn Mohiniyattam.
It is an Indian classical dance form that evolved in the state of Kerala.
History and Evolution
Its roots date back to the age-old Sanskrit Hindu text on performing arts called ‘Natya Shastra’.
It is used to be performed by Devadasis (temple dancers) in temples during the rule of the Chera kings from 9 to 12 C.E.
Later on it developed further as a performing art during the 18th and 19th centuries due to the patronage of several princely states.
Features:
It is conventionally a solo dance performed by female artists.
It adheres to the Lasya type that showcases a more graceful, gentle and feminine form of dancing.
Theme: The dance form Mohiniyattam has love and devotion to God as its major themes, with usually Lord Vishnu or his incarnation Lord Krishna as the lead character.
It emotes a play through dancing and singing, where the song is customarily in Manipravala, which is a mix of Sanskrit and Malayalam language.
The recitation may be performed by the dancer or a vocalist, with the music style being Carnatic.
The dance is characterized by its graceful swaying body movements with no abrupt jerks or sudden leaps.
More than the footwork, emphasis is given to hand gestures and Mukhabhinaya or subtle facial expressions.
The hand gestures, 24 in number, are mainly adopted from ‘Hastha Lakshana Deepika’, a text followed by Kathakali.
Costumes in Mohiniyattam include plain white or ivory cream traditional sari embroidered with bright gold-laced brocade.
Instruments used: Mridangam, Madhalam, ldakka, flute, Veena and Kuzhitalam(cymbals).
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/kalamandalam-opens-doors-for-boys-to-learn-mohiniyattam/article67998584.ece
With reference to solar flares, consider the following statements:
- They occur at the surface of the Sun and emit large bursts of electromagnetic radiation.
- They last for only a few seconds and cannot be seen in white light.
- B-class solar flares are the largest explosions in our solar system.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Earth was recently hit by an X-class solar flare that was strong enough to ionize part of the planet’s atmosphere.
What are Solar Flares?
Solar flares are large explosions that occur at the sun’s surface when twisted magnetic-field lines suddenly snap, emitting large bursts of electromagnetic radiation.
Flares are our solar system’s largest explosive events.
They are seen as bright areas on the sun, and they can last from minutes to hours.
In a matter of just a few minutes, they heat the material to many millions of degrees and produce a burst of radiation across the electromagnetic spectrum, including from radio waves to x-rays and gamma rays.
Although solar flares can be visible in white light, they are often more readily noticed via their bright X-ray and ultraviolet emissions.
Effect of solar flare on Earth:
The intense radiation emitted during a solar flare can affect satellite communications, disrupt radio signals, and even pose a risk to astronauts in space.
Additionally, the increased solar radiation can lead to geomagnetic storms, which may impact power grids and cause auroras (northern and southern lights) at lower latitudes.
About X-Class Solar Flares:
Flares are classified according to their strength. The smallest ones are B-class, followed by C, M and X, the largest.
Similar to the Richter scale for earthquakes, each letter represents a ten-fold increase in energy output.
So, an X is 10 times an M and 100 times a C.
Within each letter class, there is a finer scale from 1 to 9.
C-class flares are too weak to noticeably affect Earth. M-class flares can cause brief radio blackouts at the poles and minor radiation storms that might endanger astronauts.
The biggest X-class flares are by far the largest explosions in our solar system.
X-class flares are most common during solar maximum.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livescience.com/space/the-sun/powerful-x-class-solar-flare-slams-earth-triggering-radio-blackout-over-the-pacific-ocean
Which one of the following is the primary objective of the India-led Group of Friends (GOF) grouping, recently seen in news?
Facilitating accountability for acts of violence against UN peacekeepers
Explanation :
At the second meeting of the India-led Group of Friends (GOF), India launched a new database designed to record crimes against peacekeepers and monitor progress in holding perpetrators accountable.
About ‘Group of Friends’ to Promote Accountability for Crimes Against Peacekeepers:
It will seek to facilitate the promotion of accountability for all acts of violence against United Nations (UN) peacekeepers and seek facilitation of capacity building and technical assistance to the host state authorities.
It was launched in 2022.
It comprises of 40 member states. India, Bangladesh, Egypt, France, Morocco and Nepal are co-chairs.
It will actively engage and share information with the UN Secretary-General and assist the member states hosting or those who have hosted peacekeeping operations, in bringing to justice the perpetrators of such acts; serve as an informal platform at the UN to exchange information, share best practices, and mobilize resources directed at facilitating accountability for crimes committed against peacekeepers; and monitor progress on bringing accountability for crimes against peacekeepers.
It will convene two meetings of its members per year, organise and host one event per year involving Permanent Missions and other stakeholders, to take the plan forward, thereby ensuring greater safety and security for peacekeepers.
Group of Friends represents the “political will” of member states, particularly of the troop and police contributing countries, to champion the implementation of the provisions of U.N. Security Council resolution 2589, which was adopted in 2021 under India’s Presidency of the Council.
Resolution 2589 had called upon member states, hosting or having hosted UN peacekeeping operations, to take all appropriate measures to bring to justice perpetrators of the killing of, and all acts of violence against UN personnel, including, but not limited to, their detention and abduction.
India and UN Peacekeeping:
India is the largest cumulative contributor of peacekeepers to the UN, having deployed more than 2,60,000 peacekeepers over the last seven decades.
India has lost 177 of its peacekeepers in the line of duty, the largest by far from any troop-contributing country.
With more than 6000 peacekeepers deployed in nine out of twelve peacekeeping missions, India is a strong proponent of accountability for crimes against peacekeepers.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/un-india-launches-new-database-to-promote-accountability-for-crime-against-peacekeepers/articleshow/108838286.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements with reference to Cnemaspis vangoghi:
- It is a new species of flowering plant.
- It is endemic to the Western Ghats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Scientists from the Thackeray Wildlife Foundation in India recently discovered a new species of lizard named Cnemaspis vangoghi.
About Cnemaspis vangoghi:
It is a new species of lizard discovered from the Southern Western Ghats in Tamil Nadu.
Cnemaspis vangoghi is named for Dutch painter Vincent Van Gogh (1853–1890), as the striking colouration of the new species is reminiscent of one of his most iconic paintings, ‘The Starry Night’.
It is described as a small-sized gecko, reaching up to 3.4 cm in length.
It has a distinctive yellow head and forebody, adorned with light blue spots on the back.
This lizard prefers living among rocks and can occasionally be found on buildings and trees.
Alongside Cnemaspis vangoghi, another species named Cnemaspis sathuragiriensis was identified, named after its type locality, the Sathuragiri Hills.
Both species inhabit low-elevation, deciduous forests within the Srivilliputhur-Megamalai Tiger Reserve, adding to the five previously known endemic vertebrates of the region.
These diurnal creatures are mainly active during the cooler hours of early morning and evening, predominantly found on rocks.
Their restricted localities present an intriguing case of micro-endemism in low-elevation species.
Micro-endemism refers to a phenomenon in ecology and biogeography where a species or a group of species are restricted to a very small geographic area, often on the scale of a few square kilometers or even less.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/a-starry-night-new-lizard-species-discovered-in-india-named-after-van-gogh-2520655-2024-03-29
With reference to Non-Performing Asset (NPA), consider the following statements:
- It is a loan or advance for which the principal or interest payment remained overdue for a period of 90 days.
- An asset is classified as a doubtful asset if it remains as an NPA for a period less than or equal to 12 months.
- Provisions are amounts that banks set aside from their profits to cover losses on NPAs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The gross Non-Performing Assets (GNPA) of the Indian banks are projected to see further improvement, potentially reaching up to 2.1 per cent by the end of the fiscal year 2025, as per a recent report.
About Non-Performing Asset (NPA):
It is a loan or advance for which the principal or interest payment remained overdue for a period of 90 days.
They can include various types of loans, such as personal loans, business loans, mortgages and credit card debt.
When the ratio of NPAs in a bank’s loan portfolio rises, its income and profitability fall, its capacity to lend falls and the possibility of loan defaults and write-offs rises.
Types of NPAs: Different types of NPAs depend on how long they remain in the NPA category
Sub-Standard Assets: An asset is classified as a sub-standard asset if it remains as an NPA for a period less than or equal to 12 months.
Doubtful Assets: An asset is classified as a doubtful asset if it remains as an NPA for more than 12 months.
Loss Assets: An asset is considered a loss asset when it is “uncollectible” or has such little value that its continuance as a bankable asset is not suggested. However, some recovery value may be left in it as the asset has not been written off wholly or in parts.
NPA Provisioning:
Provisioning means an amount that the banks set aside from their profits or income in a particular quarter for non-performing assets, such as assets that may turn into losses in the future.
Provisions are amounts that banks set aside to cover losses on NPAs.
It is a method by which banks provide for bad assets and maintain a healthy book of accounts.
Provisioning is done according to which category the asset belongs.
Gross non-performing assets (GNPA) and Net non-performing assets (NNPA): Banks are required to make their NPA numbers public and to the RBI from time to time. There are primarily two metrics that help us understand any bank’s NPA situation.
GNPA: GNPA is an absolute amount. It tells you the total value of gross non-performing assets for the bank in a particular quarter or financial year, as the case may be.
NNPA: NNPA subtracts the provisions made by the bank from the GNPA. Therefore, net NPA gives you the exact value of non-performing assets after the bank has made specific provisions.
The NNPA is a measure of the actual losses that a bank has incurred on its NPAs. A high NNPA indicates that a bank has incurred large losses on its NPAs.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://assets-news.housing.com/news/wp-content/uploads/2021/06/25140608/What-is-a-non-performing-asset-NPA-in-real-estate-FB-1200x700-compressed.jpg
Consider the following statements regarding the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) 2.0:
- It is designed to provide universal coverage of water supply through functional taps to all households in all the statutory towns in the country.
- It will promote a circular economy of water through the development of the City Water Balance Plan (CWBP) for each city covered under the scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs has sanctioned 39 more sewage treatment plants (STPs) under the AMRUT scheme, and these plants will be used in the Musi Riverfront Development project.
About AMRUT Scheme:
It was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in 2015, in 500 selected cities and towns across the country.
It focuses on the development of basic infrastructure in the selected cities and towns in the sectors of water supply, sewerage and septage management, storm water drainage, green spaces and parks, and non-motorized urban transport.
A set of Urban Reforms and Capacity Building have been included in the mission.
AMRUT Mission has been subsumed under AMRUT 2.0, which was launched in 2021.
AMRUT 2.0, which was launched for a period of five years, from the financial year 2021-22 to the financial year 2025-26, is designed to provide universal coverage of water supply through functional taps to all households in all the statutory towns in the country and coverage of sewerage/septage management in 500 cities covered in the first phase of the AMRUT scheme.
AMRUT 2.0 will promote a circular economy of water through the development of the City Water Balance Plan (CWBP) for each city focusing on recycle/reuse of treated sewage, the rejuvenation of water bodies, and water conservation.
It will help cities to identify scope for projects focusing on universal coverage of functional water tap connections, water source conservation, rejuvenation of water bodies and wells, recycle/reuse of treated used water, and rainwater harvesting.
Based on the projects identified in CWBP, Mission envisages making cities ‘water secure’ through a circular economy of water.
The mission also has a reform agenda on ease of living of citizens through reduction of non-revenue water, recycle of treated used water, rejuvenation of water bodies, augmenting double entry accounting system, urban planning, strengthening urban finance etc.
Other components of AMRUT 2.0 are:
Pey Jal Survekshan to ascertain equitable distribution of water, reuse of wastewater, mapping of water bodies, and promote healthy competition among the cities /towns.
Technology Sub-Mission for water to leverage latest global technologies in the field of water.
Information, Education, and Communication (IEC) campaign to spread awareness among the masses about conservation of water.
The total indicative outlay for AMRUT 2.0 is ₹2,99,000 crore including Central share of ₹76,760 crore for five years.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/39-stps-from-amrut-scheme-to-line-musi-river-in-hyderabad/article6800
Consider the following statements with reference to the Unstructured Supplementary Service Data protocol:
- It is a communications protocol used in the Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM) networks.
- It is an instant messaging service where messages received through this are stored on the subscriber’s device.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Department of Telecom has asked telecom operators to deactivate USSD-based call forwarding with effect from April 15 and move to alternative methods to re-activate it.
It is a communications protocol used in the Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM) networks for sending short text messages.
It is an instant messaging service and messages are not stored on the operator side or on the subscriber’s device.
USSD format: It generally exist as one of two types, depending on their origin:
A USSD Pull is an outgoing request from the user in the form of an MMI command.
A USSD Push is a message from the operator that is displayed on the user’s screen.
The user can send the operator a request in the form of a USSD command. Commands consist of the * and # characters and numeric codes.
The chain begins with * or # (which can occur more than once, separating commands from subcommands) and usually ends with #.
The maximum length of a USSD message is 182 characters, but in practice even the longest requests rarely exceed 20.
Mobile subscribers use the USSD service just by dialling any active code on their phone screens.
It is used to display balance deduction in mobile phones where a message pops-up on the device screen after a call or outgoing SMS.
It is also used for checking IMEI numbers of mobiles.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/telecom/telecom-policy/dot-asks-telcos-to-suspend-ussd-based-call-forwarding-switch-to-alternate-mode-from-apr-15/articleshow/108882510.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements with reference to the Decision Support System (DSS) for air quality:
- It is developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM).
- It is a numerical model-based framework to forecast the air quality of Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Decision Support System (DSS), which identifies sources of pollution in Delhi’s air, will resume functioning from September this year with some new features.
It is developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) Pune.
It is a numerical model-based framework to forecast Delhi’s air quality and sources of local and regional pollution which can impact the air.
DSS provides quantitative information about
The contribution of emissions from Delhi and the surrounding 19 districts to the air quality in Delhi.
The contribution of emissions from 8 different emission sectors in Delhi to the air quality Delhi.
The contribution from biomass-burning activities in the neighboring states to the degradation of air quality in Delhi, and
The effects of possible emission source-level interventions on the forecast severe air-quality event in Delhi.
The system, which works only in winter and is stopped from March to August.
Now, the system will also forecast how Delhi’s emissions impact the air of eight surrounding districts in NCR.
The two models — System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting And Research (Safar) and DSS — had temporarily stopped sharing data on air pollution for the country as there were differences between their forecasts and source contribution.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/delhi/system-to-identify-pollution-sources-back-in-2-0-version/articleshow/108861722.cms
The Eco-Niwas Samhita, which is a residential energy conservation building code, was developed by:
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Explanation :
The Eco-Niwas Samhita (ENS) introduced the Residential Envelope Transmittance Value (RETV), a metric measuring heat transfer through a building’s envelope.
It is a Residential Energy Conservation Building code developed by Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).
The code sets standards to limit heat gain and loss and ensure adequate natural ventilation and day lighting potential.
It was launched in two parts:
ENS 2018 (Part 1) sets minimum standards for building envelope designs for energy-efficient residential buildings.
ENS Part 2 launched by the Bureau as ENS 2021 focuses on the building’s code compliance and electromechanical systems. It also addresses other aspects such as Energy Efficiency in Electro-Mechanical Equipment for Building Operation, Renewable Energy Generation, Embodied Energy of Walling Materials and Structural Systems.
What is the Residential Envelope Transmittance Value?
It is a metric measuring heat transfer through a building’s envelope.
Lower RETV values lead to cooler indoor environments and decreased energy usage. For optimal efficiency, improved occupant comfort, and lower utility expenses, it’s recommended to maintain an RETV of 15W/m2 or less.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/on-sustainable-building-materials-explained/article67999691.ece
With reference to Panneer thiratchai, consider the following statements:
- It is a grape variety cultivated in the Cumbum valley of Tamil Nadu.
- It is harvested only during the months of January and April.
- It has received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Cumbum valley—grapes city of south India contributes up to 85% of panneer thiratchai production in the country.
It is a grape variety mainly cultivated in the Cumbum valley of Tamil Nadu.
These grapes were first introduced in Tamil Nadu by a French priest in 1832.
A unique factor about ‘panneer’ grapes is that, these are harvested all through the year as against only during January and April in the rest of India.
It is extremely popular among farmers because of quick growth and early maturity.
The grapes grown are suitable for making wine, spirit, jams, canned grape juice and raisins.
It has received Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2023.
Health benefits: These grapes are rich in vitamins, tartaric acid and antioxidants and reduce the risk of some chronic diseases. They are also known for a superior taste apart from the purplish-brown colour.
Key facts about the Cumbum valley
It is located at the Western Ghats in Tamil Nadu is known as the ‘Grapes city of South India’ and cultivates the Panneer Thratchai.
This variety which is also known as Muscat Hamburg constitutes almost 85% of the grape-growing areas in Tamil Nadu.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/tamil-nadu/2024/Mar/29/panneer-thiratchai-a-sweet-treat-from-cumbum-that-is-available-throughout-the-year
With reference to C-Vigil app, consider the following statements:
- It is developed by the Election Commission of India.
- It allows citizens to report cases of violations of the Model Code of Conduct anonymously.
- It allows users to capture the live incidents only.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Since the announcement of General Elections 2024, over 79,000 complaints have been received on C-Vigil app.
It is a mobile application developed by the Election Commission of India (ECI) to enable citizens to report violations of the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) during elections.
Features of the app
It is user-friendly and easy to operate application, which connects vigilant citizens with the District Control Room, Returning Officer and Flying Squads Teams.
By using this app, the citizens can immediately report on incidents of political misconduct within minutes and without having to rush to the office of the returning officer.
As soon as the complaint is sent on the cVigil app, the complainant will receive a unique ID through which the person will be able to track the complaint on their mobile.
Users capture audios, photos or videos in real-time, and a “100-minute” countdown for time-bound response to complaints is ensured.
The app automatically enables a geo-tagging feature as soon as the user switches on their camera in the cVIGIL to report a violation. This means that flying squads could know the precise location of a reported violation, and the image captured by citizens could be used as evidence in the court of law.
It uses GPS to track the location of the violation.
It allows users to capture the live incidents only.
It has a feature to report the case of MCC violation anonymously.
One can track the progress of the complaint in this app.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2016637
With reference to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF), consider the following statements:
- It is an inter-governmental standard-setting body dedicated to combating money laundering and terrorist financing.
- It was established in the aftermath of the 2007-08 global financial crisis.
- India is a founding member of the FATF.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) has found that many countries are yet to fully implement its requirements aimed at preventing misuse of virtual assets and virtual asset service providers (VASPs).
About Financial Action Task Force (FATF):
FATF is an inter-governmental policy-making and standard-setting body dedicated to combating money laundering and terrorist financing.
Objective: To establish international standards, and to develop and promote policies, both at national and international levels, to combat money laundering and the financing of terrorism.
Origin:
It was established in 1989 during the G7 Summit in Paris to develop policies against money laundering.
In 2001 its mandate expanded to include terrorism financing.
Headquarters: Paris, France.
FATF members include 39 countries, including the United States, India, China, Saudi Arabia, Britain, Germany, France, and the EU as such.
India became a member of FATF in 2010.
What are FATF ‘grey list’ and ‘blacklist’? FATF has 2 types of lists:
Black List: Countries known as Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs) are put on the blacklist. These countries support terror funding and money laundering activities. The FATF revises the blacklist regularly, adding or deleting entries.
Grey List: Countries that are considered a safe haven for supporting terror funding and money laundering are put on the FATF grey list. This inclusion serves as a warning to the country that it may enter the blacklist.
Three countries North Korea, Iran, and Myanmar are currently in FATF’s blacklist.
Consequences of being on the FATF blacklist:
No financial aid is given to them by the International Monetary Fund (IMF), the World Bank, the Asian Development Bank (ADB) and the European Union (EU).
They also face a number of international economic and financial restrictions and sanctions.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/many-countries-yet-to-fully-implement-measures-to-prevent-misuse-of-virtual-assets-and-vasps-fatf/article68009634.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Central Pollution Control Board:
- It is a statutory organisation constituted under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
- It provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MOEFCC) of the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has spent only 20 percent of the environment protection charge and environmental compensation collected so far on mitigating air pollution in Delhi-NCR and protecting the environment.
About Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB):
It is a statutory organisation constituted in 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
Further, CPCB was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
It provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change (MOEFCC) of the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and advises the Central Government on any matter concerning the prevention and control of water and air pollution and the improvement of the quality of air.
Principal Functions of the CPCB:
to promote the cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by prevention, control, and abatement of water pollution
to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.
Standardization activity of CPCB:
CPCB lays down standards for streams or wells in consultation with the State Governments and also lays down standards for the quality of air.
CPCB also prepares manuals, codes and guidelines relating to the treatment and disposal of sewage and trade effluents, as well as for stack gas cleaning devices, stacks, and ducts.
In general, the following nine categories of standards are developed by CPCB:
National ambient air quality
Water Quality Criteria from different sources
Standards for Emission or Discharge of Environmental Pollutants from various Industries (Issued under Environment Protection Rules, 1986)
Standards for Treatment and Disposal of Bio-Medical waste by Incineration
Guidelines for the disposal of Common Hazardous Wastes by Incineration
Emission norms for vehicles
Auto fuel quality
Emission standard, Noise limits for Diesel Engines
Emission & Noise Limit of LPG & CNG Generator Sets
Apart from the above, under the Comprehensive Industry Document Series (COINDS), CPCB also formulates the Minimal National Standards (MINAS) specific for various categories of industries with regards to their effluent discharge (water pollutants), emissions (air pollutants), noise levels, and solid waste. These standards are required to be adopted by State Governments as minimal standards.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/cpcb-report-to-ngt-shows-80-pc-environmental-funds-remain-unutilised/articleshow/108795532.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements:
- Madagascar is located off the coast of East Africa in the Indian Ocean.
- Madagascar is a semi-presidential republic.
- Eighty percent of Madagascar’s economy is fueled by agricultural industries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
A tropical cyclone named Gamane that swept across the island of Madagascar killed at least 18 people and displaced thousands more, the country’s disaster management office said recently.
About Madagascar:
Located off the coast of East Africa in the Indian Ocean, Madagascar is the second-largest island country in the world.
It covers an area of 592,800 sq. kilometers.
Geography: The country can be divided into three parallel longitudinal physiographic regions.
The coastal strip in the east, the central plateau, and the western regions of low plateaus and plains.
The Tsaratanana Massif region at the northern end of the island is home to Madagascar’s highest point, Maromokotro, at 2,876 m.
History:
France invaded the island in 1883. France officially declared Madagascar a French colony in 1896.
After World War II, in 1947, locals fought for their independence from France in what became known as the Malagasy Uprising. In 1960, Madagascar finally became an independent nation.
Capital: Antananarivo
Languages: Malagasy, French
Government: It is a semi-presidential republic. The public elects a president, who in turn appoints a prime minister to put together a cabinet to advise the president.
Economy: Eighty percent of Madagascar’s economy is fueled by agricultural industries, including forestry and fishing. Among the island’s most frequently sold agricultural products are coffee, vanilla, and sugarcane.
Biodiversity:
Lush rainforests, dry deserts, and grassy plains cover the island, with coral reefs and mangrove forests stretching along its coastlines.
Almost 90 percent of the plants and animals living on Madagascar aren’t found anywhere else in the world.
That’s because strong ocean currents have isolated the island from the African continent, so the species living there haven’t traveled beyond the island’s borders.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/world/story/madagascar-cyclone-gamane-kills-at-least-18-displaces-thousands-2521270-2024-03-30
Consider the following statements with reference to P-800 Onyx Missile:
- It is a supersonic medium-range cruise missile developed by the United States of America.
- It can be launched from surface ships, submarines and land-based equipment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Russia’s Onyx supersonic cruise missile, which has frequently struck Ukrainian targets in Odesa near the Black Sea, is slated to get deadlier with a new target seeker.
About Onyx Missile:
The P-800 Onyx missile, also known as Oniks, is a supersonic medium-range cruise missile developed by Russia.
It is designed to combat surface ship groups, as well as to destroy ground targets in conditions of strong fire and electronic countermeasures.
Features:
Also known as Russian Brahmos, it can reach speeds of over 3,000 km/h, making it extremely difficult to intercept.
Additionally, the missile operates at an altitude of 10-15 meters above land or water, further enhancing its stealth capabilities.
The missile has a range of up to 300 kilometers in its default trajectory and a range of 120 km in a low-altitude trajectory.
It can be launched from surface ships, submarines, and land-based equipment.
It is a self-guided munition, designed with the “shoot and forget” principle in mind.
Unlike some other missiles that rely on extensive target data, the Onyx missile requires minimal information about its target to strike it successfully.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.eurasiantimes.com/brahmos-analog-russias-p-800-onyx-supersonic-cruise/
The Konda Reddi Tribe primarily inhabits which one of the following States in India?
Andhra Pradesh
Explanation :
The indigenous knowledge of the Konda Reddi tribe, a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group inhabiting the Papikonda hill range in the Godavari region, has proven resourceful.
About Konda Reddi Tribe:
Konda Reddis is a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group inhabiting the banks of the river Godavari and also in the hilly forest tracts of Godavari and Khammam districts of Andhra Pradesh.
Their mother tongue is Telugu in its purest and chaste form, with a unique accent.
Subdivisions:
The Konda Reddy tribe is divided into exogamous septs for regulating matrimonial relations.
Like other Telugu-speaking people, their surnames are prefixed to individual names.
Generally, each sept is exogamous, but certain septs are considered as brother septs, and marriage alliances with brother septs (agnate relations) are prohibited.
Family and Marriage:
The family is patriarchal and patrilocal. Monogamy is a rule, but polygamous families are also found.
Marriage by negotiations, by love and elopement, by service, by capture, and by exchange are socially accepted ways of acquiring mates.
Religion: The primary religion practiced by the Konda Reddi is Folk Hinduism, characterized by local traditions and cults of local deities worshiped at the community level.
Political Organization:
They have their own institution of social control called ‘Kula Panchayat’.
Each village has a traditional headman called ‘Pedda Kapu’.
The office of the headman is hereditary, and the headman is also the Pujari (priest) of the village deities.
Livelihood:
They are primarily shifting cultivators and largely depend on flora and fauna of forest for their livelihood.
They collect and sell non timber forest produce like tamarind, adda leaves, myrobolan, broom sticks, etc., to supplement their meagre income.
They cultivate largely jowar, which is their staple food.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/39-stps-from-amrut-scheme-to-line-musi-river-in-hyderabad/article68006473.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to Fish Otolith:
- It is a biomineralised ear stone which helps fish in creating balance and hearing.
- It is present in all fish species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Ornaments from fish otoliths have made a market debut, which are crafted by a group of enthusiastic fisherwomen in Vizhinjam, trained by scientists from the Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI).
Otoliths are biomineralised ear stones that help fish hear and provide it with a sense of balance.
These are important in fish studies as they have species-specific shapes and grow throughout their life.
They are commonly known as “earstones,” are hard, calcium carbonate structures located directly behind the brain of bony fishes.
There are three types of otoliths, all of which aid fish in balance and hearing:
Sagitta: The largest of the 3 pairs of otoliths, sagitta is involved in the detection of sound and the process of hearing, or converting sound waves into electrical signals.
Asteriscus: This type of otolith is involved in the detection of sound and the process of hearing.
Lapillus: This type of otolith is involved in the detection of gravitational force and sound.
Different species have otoliths of different shapes and sizes; and cartilaginous fishes, such as sharks, skates, and rays, have none.
Significance
These otoliths can be used to identify the species, size, age, growth rate, and season of death of an individual fish.
Analysis of the oxygen isotope values of fish otoliths can provide information on the temperature of the water in which the fish lived.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/reader?utm_source=Hindu&utm_medium=Menu&utm_campaign=Header
Consider the following statements with reference to the Vaikom Satyagraha:
- It was aimed at establishing the rights of the oppressed classes.
- It was supported by Sree Narayana Guru.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India’s one of the most supported and widely accepted protests, ‘Vaikom Satyagraha’, is celebrated its 100 years recently.
It is the first anti-caste movement, as the pupil of the depressed class and untouchables were restricted from entering the temple.
This Satyagraha was to establish the rights of the oppressed classes to walk on the roads to the Shree Mahadeva Temple in Vaikom in Kottayam district.
Background
The issue of temple entry was first raised by Ezhava leader TK Madhavan in a 1917 editorial in his paper Deshabhimani.
In AICC (All India Congress Committee) meeting in Kakinada 1923, K Madhavan along with Sardar Panikkar and KP Kesava Menon submitted a petition to the Travancore legislative council.
The petition sought to grant the right to temple entry and worship of gods for all sections of the society irrespective of caste, creed, and community.
It was launched on 30th March 1924.
The movement in the vicinity of Mahadev temple in Kottayam district of Kerala took place during 1924-1925.
Factors responsible to Satyagraha
Christian missionaries, supported by the East India Company, had expanded their reach and many lower castes converted to Christianity to escape the clutches of an oppressive system that continued to bind them.
Maharaja Ayilyam Thirunal took many progressive reforms and the most important of these was the introduction of a modern education system with free primary education for all – even lower castes.
Prominent people who supported this Satyagraha are Sree Narayana Guru and Periyar E.V Ramaswamy.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-history/remembering-vaikom-satyagraha-a-100-years-later-9241758/
Consider the following statements with reference to the INDRA app:
- It disseminates weather-related information and forecasts.
- It is developed by the Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space Applications and Geo-informatics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, INDRA app was launched in an event conducted by School of Naval Oceanology & Meteorology (SNOM) and Indian Naval Meteorological Analysis Centre (INMAC) at Southern Naval Command as part of the World Meteorological Day celebrations.
INDRA App:
The Indian Naval Dynamic Resource for Weather Analysis (INDRA) app will help to disseminate weather related information and forecasts empowering optimal & quick decision making.
The application has been developed by BISAG (Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space Applications and Geo-informatics) in coordination with Directorate of Naval Oceanology and Meteorology, Indian Navy.
Key facts about BISAG
It is an Autonomous Scientific Society registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
It undertakes technology development & management, research & development, facilitate National & International cooperation, capacity building and support technology transfer & entrepreneurship development in area of geo-spatial technology.
The organisation has three main domain areas: Satellite Communication, Geo-informatics and Geo-spatial technology.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY), Government of India.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2016642
Consider the following statements with reference to the International Rice Research Institute:
- It is a subsidiary body of the Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO).
- Its headquarters is located in New Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Recently, the interim director general of the International Rice Research Institute (IRRI) said that the focus of the IRRI-South Asia Regional Centre (ISARC) is to develop rice varieties with low methane emissions.
It is an independent, nonprofit, research and educational institute, founded in 1960 by the Ford and Rockefeller foundations with support from the Philippine government.
It is the world’s premier research organization dedicated to reducing poverty, hunger, and malnutrition through rice science.
It aims to improve the health and welfare of those who depend on rice-based agri-food systems, and promote and protect the environmental sustainability of rice farming for future generations.
The institute has offices in 17 rice-growing countries in Asia and Africa.
IRRI’s research for development is characterized by its collaborative nature: from alliances with advanced research institutes; through strong collaborations and capacity development with governments and national agricultural research and extension systems.
The Government of India vide its Gazette notification recognises IRRI as an international organisation and accorded privileges and immunities (As per UN Privileges and Immunities Act 1947) that are applicable to United Nations (UN) organizations, for all offices and activities of IRRI in India including, for the IRRI South Asia Regional Centre.
Headquarter: Los Banos, Philippines.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/others/irriisarc-targets-low-methane-rice-varieties-101711642290542.html
With reference to UNESCO Global Geoparks, consider the following statements:
- These are the geological heritage sites of special scientific importance.
- This designation is given for a period of four years.
- All economic activities are restricted in these geoparks.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, UNESCO’s Executive Board has endorsed the addition of 18 sites to the UNESCO Global Geoparks network.
These are single, unified geographical areas where sites and landscapes of international geological significance are managed with a holistic concept of protection, education and sustainable development.
These comprise a number of geological heritage sites of special scientific importance, rarity or beauty.
The UNESCO Global Geopark designation was created in 2015 and recognizes “geological heritage of international significance”.
The establishment of a UNESCO Global Geopark is a bottom-up process involving a strong local multiple partnership with long-term public and political support.
It is not a formal legislative designation, though the defining geological heritage sites within a UNESCO Global Geopark must be protected under indigenous, local, regional or national legislation as appropriate.
This status does not imply restrictions on any economic activity inside a UNESCO Global Geopark where that activity complies with indigenous, local, regional and/or national legislation.
Recognition Period: A UNESCO Global Geopark is given this designation for a period of four years after which the functioning of the site re-examined during a revalidation process.
Restrictions: The selling or destruction of the geological value of a UNESCO Global Geopark or of material either from within the Geopark or from anywhere else in the world is not permitted.
Global Geoparks Network
It is a non-profit International Association officially established in 2014 subject to French legislation.
It is the official partner of UNESCO for the operation of the UNESCO Global Geoparks.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.unesco.org/en/articles/unesco-names-18-new-geoparks
Consider the following statements:
- Capital goods industries manufacture goods for direct consumption.
- Consumer goods industries produce machinery and equipment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Statement 1 is incorrect: Capital Goods Industry: The industry includes all those goods that produce inputs for the other products. Hence, the final product of such industries does not help in the direct consumption by the customers, rather they act as an input for the further industries.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Consumer goods industries are companies that produce and sell products for direct use by consumers. These products are purchased by households and individuals, not by manufacturers and industries.
Therefore, option d is the correct answer.
This policy was a response to the challenges faced by the Indian economy, including a balance of payments crisis and a slow economic growth. The government introduced a series of important measures aimed at liberalising various sectors, privatising state-owned enterprises and integrating the Indian economy with the global markets.
Which of the following policies is referred to in the above paragraph?
New Industrial Policy, 1991
Explanation :
The Government of India introduced the New Economic Policy (NEP) in 1991 to respond to a balance of payments crisis. The NEP is credited to former Prime Minister Manmohan Singh as its architect. The NEP also emphasized implementing structural reforms to boost economic efficiency. It refers to the series of policy changes aimed at opening up the country’s economy to the world, with the objective of making it more market-oriented and consumption-driven.
The policy’s short-term goals included: Restoring balance of payments equilibrium and Controlling inflation.
The NEP’s main features included:
Liberalization: Abolished the practice of getting licenses by the private sector for starting a new venture in India
Privatization: Transform all economic activities from public sector to private sector
Globalization: Allow the international flow of goods, capital, services, technology, human resources, etc. without too many restrictions
Therefore, option b is the correct answer.
The status of Maharatna, Navratna or Miniratna to a Central Public Sector Enterprise is given by which of the following?
Ministry of Finance
Explanation :
Option b is the correct answer: The Government of India’s Department of Public Enterprises (DPE) under the Ministry of Finance grants the status of Maharatna, Navratna, and Miniratna to Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs). The DPE is the nodal department for all CPSEs, and it develops policies and guidelines for evaluating and improving their performance.
The Human Development Index is published by the
United Nations Development Programme
Explanation :
Option b is the correct answer: The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) publishes the Human Development Index (HDI). The HDI is a measure of human development that considers a country’s health, education, income, and living conditions. The HDI is based on the idea that human development means people have long and healthy lives, are knowledgeable, and have a decent standard of living.
With reference to Bretton woods institutions, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- IMF (International Monetary Fund) facilitates the balanced growth of international trade.
- The World Bank aims to reduce poverty.
- IMF provides policy advice to governments and Central Banks based on analysis of economic trends.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: The IMF was established in 1945. The IMF’s mandate includes facilitating the expansion and balanced growth of international trade, promoting exchange stability, and providing the opportunity for the orderly correction of countries’ balance of payments problems.
Statement 2 is correct: The World Bank aims to reduce poverty by offering assistance to middle-income and low-income countries. While the International Monetary Fund (IMF) oversees the stability of the world’s monetary system.
Statement 3 is correct: IMF provides policy advice to governments and Central Banks based on analysis of economic trends and cross-country experiences.
Therefore, option c is the correct answer.
Which of the following correctly defines the Agricultural Extension Services?
It involves spreading of information, skills, and technologies to the farming communities
Explanation :
An agricultural extension service provides technical aid to farmers on any agricultural issues. It works to supply them with the essential inputs and services that support and increase their agricultural production. These services help farmers improve their livelihoods through information, skills, and technologies. These services include technical, facilitation, and advisory services. They provide farmers with knowledge and skills to improve their productivity, food security, and livelihoods. This includes:
Practical information on improved seeds, soil quality, tools, water management, crop protection, agricultural practices, and livestock
Application of this knowledge on the farm
Therefore, option (a) is the answer.
India is not a member of which one of the following constituent organizations of the World Bank Group?
International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID)
Explanation :
The World Bank Group consists of:
International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), established in 1945, provides debt financing on the basis of sovereign guarantees.
International Finance Corporation (IFC), established in 1956, provides various forms of financing without sovereign guarantees, primarily to the private sector.
International Development Association (IDA), established in 1960, provides concessional financing (interest-free loans or grants), usually with sovereign guarantees.
International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID), established in 1965, works with governments to reduce investment risk.
Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA), established in 1988, provides insurance against certain types of risk, including political risk, primarily to the private sector.
India is a member of four of the five constituents of the World Bank Group viz., IBRD, IFC, IDA and MIGA.
India is not a member of the International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID).
Therefore, option (a) is the answer.
Consider the following statement regarding Special Drawing Rights:
- It is considered as a currency and a claim on the IMF.
- It is an interest-bearing international reserve asset created by the IMF.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
It is not a currency, nor a claim on the IMF, but is potentially a claim on freely usable currencies of IMF members. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The Special Drawing Right (SDR) is an interest-bearing international reserve asset created by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) in 1969 to supplement other reserve assets of member countries. It is based on a basket of international currencies comprising the U.S. dollar, Japanese yen, euro, pound sterling, and Chinese Renminbi. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Degree of inequality in income and wealth in an economy is shown by which of the following?
Lorenz curve
Explanation :
The Lorenz curve is used to represent economic inequality as well as unequal wealth distribution. The farther away the curved line is way from the straight diagonal line, the higher the level of inequality.
With reference to the economic development post-independence, what were the reasons for larger promotion of the public sector in the Indian economy?
- Adoption of a socialistic pattern of the economic system.
- Lack of enough capital with private industrialists.
- Absence of big markets to encourage private investments.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Upon gaining independence, policymakers grappled with a pivotal question: what roles should the government and the private sector assume in driving industrial development? Initially, Indian industrialists faced constraints due to limited capital and a relatively small market size, hindering significant investment in industrial ventures. Consequently, government intervention became essential to foster industrial growth. Moreover, the adoption of socialist principles steered the government towards controlling key sectors of the economy, as outlined in the Second Five Year Plan. So, options 1,2 and 3 are correct.
This meant that the government would have complete control of those industries that were vital for the economy. The policies of the private sector would have to be complementary to those of the public sector, with the public sector leading the way. Moreover, to promote regional equality in growth and development it was necessary to have a state led control over vital sectors of the economy.
Therefore, option c is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Voting in elections to Rajya Sabha:
- As per the Constitution, representatives of each State to the Rajya Sabha are elected directly by the elected members of their Legislative Assembly.
- It is conducted through an open ballot.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Only 2
Explanation :
The Rajya Sabha elections in the States of Uttar Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh and Karnataka witnessed cross-voting by MLAs belonging to different parties.
This has once again raised concerns about the sanctity of the election process.
As per Article 80 of the Constitution, representatives of each State to the Rajya Sabha are elected indirectly by the elected members of their Legislative Assembly. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The June 1998 Rajya Sabha elections in Maharashtra witnessed cross-voting.
Hence, in order to rein in the MLAs from such cross-voting, an amendment to the Representation of the People Act, 1951 was carried out in 2003.
Section 59 of the Act was amended to provide that the voting in elections to Rajya Sabha shall be through an open ballot. So, statement 2 is correct.
The MLAs of political parties are required to show their ballot paper to the authorised agent of their Party.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Payments Bank in India:
- These are differentiated and not universal banks.
- They are financial services company that cannot accept more than ₹1 lakh in deposits per account.
- It can issue credit cards and provide loans to customers like traditional banks.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India barred Paytm Payments Bank Ltd from accepting fresh deposits and making credit transactions.
This decision essentially bars Paytm Payments Bank from offering all its core services — including accounts and wallets.
While the action is technically not a cancellation of Paytm Payments Bank’s licence, it practically constricts the company’s operations to a great extent.
Payments bank
Based on the recommendations of the Nachiket Mor Committee, Payments Bank was set up by RBI in 2014.
They are differentiated and not universal banks. So, statement 1 is correct.
These operate on a smaller scale.
Activities that can be performed by the Payment Banks
A payments bank is a financial services company that cannot accept more than ₹2 lakh in deposits per account. So, statement 2 is not correct.
It is not allowed to lend directly but can sell loan products. So, statement 3 is not correct.
It can promote other third-party loan products.
Payments banks are permitted to make personal payments and receive cross border remittances on the current accounts.
It can issue debit cards.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA):
- It is a global alliance that aims to conserve the world’s seven main big cats.
- It is headquartered in India.
- The conservation of Puma and Jaguar will be undertaken by the programme.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Union Cabinet approved the establishment of International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) with headquarters in India with a one-time budgetary support of Rs.150 crore for a period of five years from 2023-24 to 2027-28.
Framework of Agreement of IBCA has been drafted largely on the pattern of International Solar Alliance (ISA).
About
The International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) is a global alliance that aims to conserve the world’s seven main big cats. So, statement 1 is correct.
It will provide a platform for the member nations to share knowledge and expertise and extend support to recovery efforts in potential habitats.
Aim
To work towards the protection and conservation of the seven major big cats — tiger, lion, leopard, snow leopard, puma, jaguar and cheetah. So, statement 3 is correct.
HQ -India. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following voters:
- Members of the paramilitary forces
- Individuals who away from their home constituency for work
- Individuals detained under preventive custody orders during the election period
How many of the above are eligible for postal voting?
All three
Explanation :
In the next Lok Sabha and State Assembly elections, elderly citizens aged 85 and above can choose postal ballots.
The government has changed the rule, increasing the eligibility age from the previous limit of 80 years.
Eligibility for postal voting
Service voters:
Members of the armed forces, paramilitary forces, and other government employees deployed on election duty far from their home constituencies. So, point 1 is correct.
Absentee voters:
Individuals who are unable to vote in person due to reasons such as being away from their home constituency for work, illness, or disability. So, point 2 is correct.
Electors on election duty:
Government officials and polling staff who are assigned duties at polling stations other than their own.
Electors under preventive detention:
Individuals who are detained under preventive custody orders during the election period. So, point 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which one of the following steps would involve the use of Bulk Drugs (APIs) while manufacturing a new pharmaceutical medication?
Synthesizing the active ingredient that gives the medication its therapeutic effect
Consider the following statements:
- The Parliament can by a law admit into the Union, new States on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit.
- Article 3 of the Constitution of India allows the formation of new States and alteration of the names of existing States by the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A tripartite agreement between TIPRA Motha and the governments of Tripura and India was signed to bring a lasting solution to the problems of the state’s indigenous people.
The pact seeks to resolve all issues faced by Tripura’s indigenous people regarding history, land and political rights, economic development, identity, culture and language.
Article 2: Parliament may by law admit into the Union, or establish, new States on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit. So, statement 1 is correct.
Article 3 comes into play in the case of formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States by the Parliament. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Judges of the High Court:
- Article 217 of Indian Constitution covers the appointment and conditions of a High Court Judge.
- They can hold the office until they are 65 years old.
- A Collegium comprising the Chief Justice of India and two senior-most judges recommends the names for their appointment.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
In an unprecedented move, Justice Abhijit Gangopadhyay, a sitting judge of the Calcutta High Court, said that he will resign as a judge and join politics.
Article 217 of Indian Constitution covers the appointment and conditions of a High Court Judge. So, statement 1 is correct.
It says that every Judge of a High Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the State.
A High Court judge holds office until they are 62 years old. So, statement 2 is not correct.
A Collegium comprising the CJI and two senior-most judges recommends the names for the appointment for Judges of HCs. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
A country is experiencing increasing cyberattacks on its critical infrastructure, along with disinformation campaigns spreading through social media platforms to create confusion and undermine public trust in the government. Which type of warfare best describes this situation?
Grey zone warfare
Explanation :
On the last day of the 2024 Raisina Dialogue, India’s Chief of Defence Staff General Anil Chauhan said that grey zone warfare is the latest in informal warfare.
During a discussion titled ‘The New Wars: Policies, Practices, and Preparation’, he gave an example of the situation in the South China Sea.
Grey zone warfare involves the use of tactics that fall between the traditional concepts of war and peace.
It aims to achieve strategic objectives through unconventional means, such as cyberattacks, disinformation campaigns, and other non-kinetic methods.
In the scenario described, the combination of cyberattacks and disinformation campaigns to undermine public trust aligns with the characteristics of grey zone warfare.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- Unlike Article 19(1), Article 105 of the Constitution does not include freedom of speech.
- While Article 105 is an absolute privilege given to the Members of the Parliament, Article 19(1)(a) applies to citizens and is subject to reasonable restrictions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Only 2
What is the significance of Super Tuesday in the United States presidential election process?
It is the day when the presidential primaries or caucuses are held in the largest number of U.S. states and territories.
What is MethaneSAT?
A satellite mission designed to detect and measure methane emissions from human activities.
Explanation :
MethaneSAT — a satellite which will track and measure methane emissions at a global scale — was launched aboard a SpaceX Falcon9 rocket from California.
MethaneSAT is a satellite mission developed by the Environmental Defense Fund (EDF) and partners.
Its purpose is to detect and measure methane emissions from human activities, such as oil and gas production, agriculture, and waste management, with the goal of providing actionable data to help reduce methane emissions.
Article of Indian Constitution
Special Provisions for States
Explanation :
In a meeting with representatives from Ladakh, Union Home Minister offered to extend Article 371-like protections to the region.
The Minister assured the representatives that their concerns related to jobs, land, and culture would be taken care of.
However, he said that the Centre cannot bestow statehood on the Union Territory nor guarantee its inclusion under the Sixth Schedule.
Instead, the government is considering giving Ladakh special provisions under Article 371 of the Constitution.
Article 371 to 371-I in Part XXI of the constitution contain special provision for 10 states:
Art 371 - Maharashtra & Gujarat. So, pair 1 is not ocrrectly matched.
Art 371 A – Nagaland. So, pair 2 is not ocrrectly matched.
Article 371 C – Manipur. So, pair 3 is not ocrrectly matched.
Art 371 F - Sikkim
What is the Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV)?
A dedicated launch vehicle developed by ISRO to deploy small satellites into space.
Explanation :
Recently, PM Modi laid the foundation stone of the second rocket launchport of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) at Kulasekarapattinam.
It is situated at a geographically advantageous location in coastal Tamil Nadu’s Thoothukudi district.
It will be extensively and exclusively used for commercial, on-demand, and small satellite launches in the future.
Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) is the new small satellite launch vehicle developed by ISRO to cater for the launch of small satellites.
It has a three-stage launch vehicle, having a lift-off weight of about 120 tonnes and is 34 metres in length and 2 metres in diameter.
Consider the following statements with reference to the International Energy Agency (IEA):
- IEA was established by members of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) in response to the Arab oil embargo of 1973.
- World Energy Outlook report is published by the IEA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Centre has tweaked the new ₹75,000-crore PM-Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojna (Prime Minister’s Rooftop Solar: Free Electricity Scheme). Originally, the plan aimed to fully pay for 1-3 KW solar system installations in one crore households by partnering with renewable energy service companies. Now, the scheme will cover only up to 60% of the installation costs.
The International Energy Agency (IEA) is an autonomous intergovernmental organization based in Paris.
It was established in 1974 by members of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) in response to the Arab oil embargo of 1973. So, statement 1 is correct.
Reports Published by IEA
World Energy Outlook – So, statement 2 is correct.
Oil Market Report
World Energy Employment Report
Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to the GIG Economy?
It refers to a labor market characterized by the prevalence of short-term contracts.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Election Commission of India:
- The Constitution does not lay down a specific legislative process for the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners.
- The Election Commissioners have tenure of six years, or up to the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier.
- The Constitution has debarred the retiring Election Commissioners from any further appointment by the Government.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Days ahead of the announcement of the schedule for the upcoming Lok Sabha election, Election Commissioner Arun Goel resigned.
About
Election Commission is a permanent and independent body.
By Article 324 of the Constitution of India, it is vested with the power of conducting elections to – Parliament; State Legislatures; Office of President and Vice-President of India.
Appointment and Tenure of Commissioners
The Constitution does not lay down a specific legislative process for the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners. So, statement 1 is correct.
Article 324(2) says appointment of CEC and other ECs shall be subject to provisions of any law made by the Parliament.
Until recently, there was no such law.
The President used to make the appointment on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
Now, the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 guides the appointment of election commissioners.
Tenure
They have tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Constitution has not debarred the retiring Election Commissioners from any further appointment by the Government. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
The European Free Trade Association (EFTA) is a/an:
intergovernmental organisation of Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland that have agreed to eliminate tariffs on trade among themselves
Explanation :
India-European Free Trade Association signed a Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA).
India has been working on a TEPA with EFTA countries comprising Switzerland, Iceland, Norway & Liechtenstein.
This agreement aims to encourage investments and enhance trade in goods and services between the two parties.
The EFTA is the intergovernmental organisation of Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland.
It was set up in 1960 (by the Stockholm Convention in 1960)by its then seven Member States for the promotion of free trade and economic integration between its members.
The organisation operates in parallel with the European Union (EU), and all four member states participate in the European Single Market and are part of the Schengen Area.
However, they are not a party to the European Union Customs Union.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS):
- It is the apex body which makes all the important decisions on all matters of India’s security.
- It is chaired by the Union Minister of Defence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) has cleared a Rs 15,000 crore project to design and develop the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA), India’s fifth-generation multirole fighter jet.
About CCS
CCS is a cabinet committee of the GoI that acts as the apex body when it comes to the appointments of the officials in the national security bodies.
It also makes all the important decisions on defence policy and expenditure and generally, all matters of India’s security. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Committee is chaired by the Prime Minister of India. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Members of CCS
Prime Minister of India;
Union Minister of Defence
Union Minister of Home Affairs
Union Minister of Finance and Corporate Affairs
Union Minister of External Affairs
Functions of CCS
The CCS deals with all the issues related to the defence and security of India.
The CCS deals with all issues related to the law and order of our country and national security.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Citizenship (Amendment) Act (CAA) 2019:
- The Act seeks to amend the definition of illegal immigrant for Sikh, Parsi and Buddhist immigrants.
- It covers immigrants from Pakistan, Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Sri Lanka.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has notified the Citizenship Amendment Rules, 2024 that would enable the implementation of the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA).
The Act was passed on December 11, 2019, receiving assent from the President on December 12 the same year.
The MHA had earlier notified that the Act will come into force from January 10, 2020. Since the rules were not framed yet, the Act could not be implemented.
About CAA
The Act seeks to amend the definition of illegal immigrant for Hindu, Sikh, Parsi, Buddhist, Jains and Christian (but not Muslim) immigrants from Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh, who have lived in India without documentation. So, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
They will be granted fast track Indian citizenship in 5 years (11 years earlier).
The Act (which amends the Citizenship Act 1955) also provides for cancellation of Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) registration where the OCI card-holder has violated any provision of the Citizenship Act or any other law in force.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Agni Missile:
- It is a component of the Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP).
- Agni V is an Inter-continental ballistic missile with a maximum range upto 8000 Km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India has announced the successful testing of an Agni missile capable of carrying multiple warheads meant to hit multiple targets simultaneously.
The test was carried out from Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island off the Odisha coast.
The success of Mission Divyastra, as the test was named, was announced by PM Modi.
This technology will ensure that a single missile can deploy multiple war heads at different locations.
This system is equipped with indigenous avionics systems and high accuracy sensor packages, which ensured that the re-entry vehicles reached the target points within the desired accuracy.
The Agni missile is a component of the Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP) that was launched by India in 1983.S o, statement 1 is correct.
The family consists of short to long range surface to surface ballistic missiles. These are
Agni I - short-range ballistic missile (range – 700 to 1200 km)
Agni II – medium-range ballistic missile (range – 2000 to 3500 Km)
Agni III – intermediate-range ballistic missile (range – 3000 to 5000 Km)
Agni IV - intermediate-range ballistic missile (range – 3500 to 4000 Km)
Agni V – Inter-continental ballistic missile (range -5500 to 8000 Km). So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Geographical Indication (GI) tag:
- It is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess characteristics that are attributable to that origin.
- It is granted only to agricultural products, excluding handicrafts and manufactured goods.
- Its purpose is to prevent the use of misleading names or labels on products that may deceive consumers about the product’s true origin.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The famous Cuttack Rupa Tarakasi (Silver Filigree) and the traditional Majuli masks in Assam were given a Geographical Indication (GI) tag by the Centre.
A GI tag is a sign used on products with a specific geographical origin and distinctive qualities attributed to that origin. So, statement 1 is correct.
GI tags can be granted to a wide range of products, including agricultural, natural, manufactured, and handicraft goods. So, statement 2 is not correct.
One of the main purposes of a GI tag is to protect consumers from misleading information about the origin of products. So, statement 3 is correct.
Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI)?
It is an independent organization dedicated to researching and analyzing global arms trade.
Explanation :
The latest data on international arms transfers has been released by the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI). As per this report, India was the world’s top arms importer between 2019-2023.
SIPRI is an independent international institute dedicated to research into conflict, armaments, arms control and disarmament.
Established in 1966, SIPRI is based in Stockholm, Sweden.
Consider the following statements:
- A judge of a Supreme Court after ceasing to hold office cannot appear as a lawyer before any court or authority in India.
- The Comptroller and Auditor General of India cannot take up any other employment with Central or State governments after demitting office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently a Calcutta High Court judge and a senior IPS officer in West Bengal resigned from their posts and joined political parties. This has brought up concerns about whether it’s right for constitutional authorities and government officials to join political parties after they leave their jobs.
A judge of a Supreme Court after ceasing to hold office cannot appear as a lawyer before any court or authority in India. So, statement 1 is correct.
A judge of a High Court has similar restrictions except for appearance before the Supreme Court or other High Courts.
The CAG and the chairman/members of the Public Service Commission cannot take up any other employment with Central or State governments after demitting office. So, statement 2 is correct.
These restrictions are laid down to avoid favouritism, during the period of holding such positions, towards the government in power with an intent of securing any post-retirement benefit.
Consider the following statements with reference to the PM-SURAJ portal:
- This portal will act as a one-stop point where people from disadvantaged sections of society can monitor the progress of all loan and credit schemes already available to them.
- The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment is the nodal ministry responsible for its implementation.
- This initiative will help in providing financial assistance directly to beneficiaries, eliminating middlemen and commissions.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
PM Modi launched the Pradhan Mantri Samajik Utthan evam Rozgar Adharit Jankalyan (PM-SURAJ) portal for credit support to entrepreneurs from disadvantaged sections of society.
About PM-SURAJ
The portal will act as a one-stop point where people from disadvantaged sections of society can apply for and monitor the progress of all loan and credit schemes already available to them. So, statement 1 is correct.
This initiative will help in providing financial assistance directly to beneficiaries, eliminating middlemen and commissions. So, statement 3 is correct.
It aims at uplifting the most marginalised segments of society.
Implementing agency
This will be implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and its departments. So, statement 2 is correct.
How does the Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI) differ from the traditional Human Development Index (HDI)?
IHDI accounts for disparities within countries by adjusting for inequality in health, education and income, whereas HDI does not consider inequality.
Explanation :
India’s ranking on the United Nations Human Development Index (HDI) improved by one position in 2022 to 134 out of 193 countries ranked compared to 135 out of 191 countries in 2021.
The primary distinction between IHDI and HDI lies in their treatment of inequality. IHDI adjusts for disparities within countries by incorporating measures of inequality in health, education and income, providing a more nuanced assessment of human development.
In contrast, HDI does not account for inequality and simply measures average achievements in health, education, and income.
Consider the following statements:
- The concept of “One Nation, One Election” envisions a system in which all state and Lok Sabha elections must be held simultaneously.
- At present, only Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim hold simultaneous elections coinciding with Lok Sabha Election.
- Article 83, Article 172 of Indian constitution deals with the term of Lok Sabha and State Assemblies respectively.
- Articles 85 and 174 deal with the dissolution of Lok Sabha and State Assemblies
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All four
Explanation :
The High-level Committee (HLC) on One Nation, One Election submitted its report to President Droupadi Murmu. The report said that simultaneous elections would lead to a fundamental transformation in the electoral process and overall governance.
The concept of “One Nation, One Election” envisions a system in which all state and Lok Sabha elections must be held simultaneously. So, statement 1 is correct.
After the two pre-mature dissolutions of the Lok Sabha in 1998 and 1999, only four State Assemblies have been going to polls along with the Lok Sabha elections in the last two decades.
At present, only Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim hold simultaneous elections. So, statement 2 is correct.
Clause (2) of Article 83, Article 172(1) of Indian constitution deals with the term of Lok Sabha and State Assemblies respectively. So, statement 3 is correct.
These Houses can be dissolved ahead of the scheduled expiry of the term of five years [Articles 85(2)(b) and 174(2)(b)]. So, statement 4 is correct.
Which of the following statements best describes synoptic systems?
Synoptic systems are weather systems that span a few hundred to several thousand kilometers.
Consider the following statements regarding maritime piracy and the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS):
- Maritime piracy is defined under UNCLOS as any illegal acts of violence or detention committed for private ends by the crew or passengers of a private ship or aircraft.
- UNCLOS grants coastal states the right to punish pirates captured within their territorial waters.
- The International Maritime Organization (IMO) is responsible for coordinating efforts to combat piracy and armed robbery at sea.
- UNCLOS requires all signatory states to allow foreign naval vessels to enter their territorial waters for the purpose of combating piracy and armed robbery at sea.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only three
Consider the following statements regarding the Global Counter-Terrorism Strategy:
- The UN General Assembly reviews the strategy every five years.
- Anti-semitism is mentioned in the Global Counter-Terrorism Strategy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
India abstained from voting on a UN General Assembly resolution on Islamophobia, calling out the prevalence of “religiophobia” against Hinduism, Buddhism, Sikhism, and other faiths.
The resolution was introduced on the International Day to Combat Islamophobia by Pakistan and co-sponsored by China.
The UN General Assembly reviews the strategy every two years, making it a living document attuned to Member States’ counter-terrorism priorities. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Christianophobia, Islamophobia and anti-semitism are also mentioned in the Global Counter-Terrorism Strategy. Hinduphobia has not been included in the strategy. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to India’s Foreign Exchange Reserve:
- Department of Economic Affairs is the custodian of the foreign exchange reserves in India.
- It consists of foreign currency assets, gold, SDR and reserve tranche position with IMF.
- Rise in the price of international crude oil has no impact on Indian foreign exchange reserves.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
India’s forex kitty jumped by USD 10.47 billion to USD 636.09 billion for the week ended March 8.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the custodian of the Foreign exchange reserves in India. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The Foreign exchange reserves of India consist of four categories: Foreign Currency Assets; Gold; SDR; and Reserve with the International Monetary Fund (also known as reserve tranche position). So, statement 2 is correct.
Since India is an oil-importing currency, a rise in crude oil prices decreases the forex reserves. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the geographical features of the Nilgiris:
- The Nilgiris are characterized by rolling hills, dense forests and abundant biodiversity.
- The highest peak in the Nilgiris is Doddabetta.
- The Nilgiris boast numerous scenic attractions, including the picturesque hill station of Ooty, popularly known as the “Queen of Hill Stations.”
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All three
Explanation :
For the past one week, forest fires have been raging in the Coonoor forest range in the Nilgiris in Tamil Nadu.
The Nilgiris, nestled within the Western Ghats, are renowned for their picturesque landscapes, rolling hills, dense forests, and rich biodiversity. So, statement 1 is correct.
Doddabetta, towering at an elevation of approximately 2,637 meters (8,650 feet), stands as the highest peak in the Nilgiris, offering breathtaking views of the surrounding areas. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Nilgiris are home to several scenic attractions, including Ooty, a popular hill station known for its captivating beauty and pleasant climate. Ooty earned the title “Queen of Hill Stations” due to its captivating landscapes, lush green valleys, and rolling hills. So, statement 3 is correct.
The global sea surface temperature (SST) is an essential indicator of climate variability and oceanic conditions. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the application of SST data?
A fisheries management agency uses SST data to assess the impact of climate change on fish populations and adjust fishing quotas accordingly.
Explanation :
The average global sea surface temperature (SST) — the temperature of the water at the ocean surface — for February 2024 stood at 21.06 degree Celsius.
This is the highest recorded temperature in a dataset that goes back to 1979. The previous record of 20.98 degree Celsius was set in August 2023.
SST data is widely used in various fields, including fisheries management. By analysing SST trends, fisheries management agencies can monitor changes in ocean temperatures and their effects on fish habitats, migration patterns and breeding grounds.
This information helps them make informed decisions about setting fishing quotas and implementing conservation measures to sustainably manage fish stocks in the face of climate change.
Which one of the following statements best describes the political system of Hong Kong?
Hong Kong follows the One Country, Two Systems framework, maintaining a separate legal and political system from mainland China.
Explanation :
The Hong Kong legislature has passed a new national security law unanimously, granting the government more power to curb dissent.
The passing of the ‘Safeguarding National Security Bill’ comes in the wake of a political crackdown sparked by the 2019 pro-democracy protests.
Hong Kong follows the “One Country, Two Systems” framework, maintaining a separate legal and political system from mainland China.
It enjoys a high degree of autonomy in internal affairs, including its legal, economic, and political systems.
While the central government in Beijing retains authority over defense and foreign affairs, Hong Kong has its own Chief Executive and Legislative Council and residents enjoy rights and freedoms not available in mainland China.
Which one of the following statements regarding the air quality guidelines set by the World Health Organization (WHO) is correct?
WHO air quality guidelines provide recommendations for acceptable levels of key air pollutants to protect public health.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Fact Check Unit (FCU):
- FCU is a statutory body notified under the Press Information Bureau.
- Social media platforms are legally obligated to take down content flagged as misinformation by this FCU.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Centre has notified the fact check unit under the Press Information Bureau as the authorized unit for the Union government.
It has been notified under the recently amended Information and Technology Rules of 2021.
The Union Electronics and IT Ministry has notified the FCU under the Press Information Bureau as a statutory body. So, statement 1 is correct.
The FCU has powers to flag what it believes is false information related to the Central government and its agencies on social media sites.
With this notification, social media platforms are now legally obligated to take down content flagged as misinformation by this fact check unit, or risk facing litigation. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the small-scale liquefied natural gas (SSLNG):
- SSLNG facilities are primarily used to serve remote or isolated regions, providing access to natural gas where traditional pipeline infrastructure is not feasible.
- SSLNG can be transported and distributed via trucks or railcars offering flexibility in reaching markets with limited infrastructure.
- India’s first SSLNG unit has been inaugurated at Vijaipur, Madhya Pradesh.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, India’s first small-scale liquefied natural gas (SSLNG) unit was inaugurated at GAIL (India) Ltd’s Vijaipur complex in Madhya Pradesh. So, statement 3 is correct.
SSLNG involves the liquefaction of natural gas at small-scale facilities, typically producing volumes ranging from 20,000 to 500,000 tons per year.
SSLNG facilities are commonly used to serve remote or isolated regions, providing access to natural gas where traditional pipeline infrastructure is not economically feasible. So, statement 1 is correct.
SSLNG can be transported and distributed via various modes such as trucks, railcars, or small ships, offering flexibility in reaching markets with limited infrastructure. So, statement 2 is correct.
What is the purpose of the initiative “Atoms4NetZero”?
To advocate the development and deployment of advanced nuclear technologies to support global efforts towards achieving net-zero carbon emissions.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Enforcement Directorate
(ED):
- ED is responsible for enforcement of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
(FEMA) & Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA).
- ED has the power to attach the assets of the culprits found guilty of the violation of FEMA.
- It has been empowered to undertake, search, seizure and arrest against the offences committed under PMLA.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Delhi Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal was arrested by the Enforcement Directorate (ED) in the Delhi Excise policy-linked money laundering case.
The arrest, the first of a sitting Chief Minister, came hours after the Delhi High Court refused to grant protection to Mr. Kejriwal from any coercive action by the agency.
The Enforcement Directorate was established in the year 1956 as an ‘Enforcement Unit’ under the Department of Economic Affairs.
Later, in 1957, this Unit was renamed as ‘Enforcement Directorate’.
Functions of ED
ED is responsible for the enforcement of the Foreign Exchange Management Act,1999 (FEMA), and certain provisions under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA). So, statement 1 is correct.
ED has the power to attach the assets of the culprits found guilty of the violation of FEMA. So, statement 2 is correct.
It has also been empowered to undertake, search, seizure, arrest, prosecution action, and survey, etc. against the offences committed under PMLA. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements:
- The Durand Line was established in 1893 as the border between British India and the Emirate of Afghanistan.
- The Afghanistan-Pakistan border is characterized by rugged mountainous terrain.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Pakistani fighters carried out airstrikes inside the Afghan provinces of Paktika and Khost, leading to fighting along the border.
The Durand Line is the ~1,640-mile (2,640-kilometer) border between Afghanistan and Pakistan. It was established in 1893 as the border between British India and the Emirate of Afghanistan. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Afghanistan-Pakistan border is known for its rugged mountainous terrain, including the Hindu Kush, which poses significant challenges for border control and monitoring. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Afghanistan-Pakistan border is not heavily fortified with border walls and fences. Rugged terrain poses significant challenges for border control and monitoring.
The term “Gulaal Gota”, sometimes mentioned in the news, refers to?
A type of colorful powder used in India during the Holi festival for smearing and throwing as part of the celebrations.
Explanation :
It is a small ball made of lac, filled with dry gulaal. They are made by Muslim lac makers, called Manihaars, only in Jaipur.
The tradition of using Gulal Gota goes back to 400 years when the erstwhile Jaipur royal family members would play Holi with them.
Gulaal Gota refers to the colorful powder used during the Holi festival in India for smearing and throwing as part of the celebrations.
Which one of the following statements best describes the Islamic State Khorasan (ISIS-K)?
ISIS-K is an Islamic State group affiliate that emerged in late 2014 as a breakaway faction of the Pakistani Taliban.
ISIS-K is an Islamic State group affiliate that emerged in late 2014 as a breakaway faction of the Pakistani Taliban.
IRDAI is a statutory body established under the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act of 1999.
Which of the following statements regarding Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is correct?
TFR is a measure of the average number of children that would be born to a woman over her lifetime
Explanation :
A recent study by Lancet on global fertility rates has projected fall in India’s total fertility rate (TFR).
TFR is the average number of children a woman would have during her lifetime if she were to experience the current age-specific fertility rates, and if she lived from birth until the end of her reproductive life.
TFR is calculated by assuming that the women are subject to the fertility rates of a given period during their whole lives and are not subject to mortality.
TFR is a demographic and socio-economic statistic.
Consider the following statements with reference to the New Collective Quantitative Goal (NCQG):
- NCQG is a new global climate finance goal that the Conference of the Parties serves as the meeting of the Parties to the Paris Agreement.
- This money is meant to support actions against climate change in poorer countries
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Climate experts believe that the focus of this year’s climate change conference in Baku, Azerbaijan (COP 29 scheduled for November 11-24) will be on finance.
As per them, the expression that is likely to be heard most frequently at COP29 is NCQG —or New Collective Quantitative Goal (on finance).
The New Collective Quantified Goal on Climate Finance (NCQG) is a new global climate finance goal that the Conference of the Parties serving as the meeting of the Parties to the Paris Agreement (CMA) shall set from a floor of USD 100 billion per year, prior to 2025. So, statement 1 is correct.
This money is meant to support actions against climate change in poorer countries. So, statement 2 is correct.
It will be more than the $100 billion that rich countries promised to collect each year starting from 2020.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI):
- It was established in the year 1861 by Alexander Cunningham.
- It is an executive body tasked with the conservation and preservation of cultural monuments in the country.
- It works under the administrative control of PMO.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has decided to delist 18 centrally protected monuments. These 18 monuments are part of an earlier list of monuments that the ASI had said were untraceable.
The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) was established in the year 1861 by Alexander Cunningham. So, statement 1 is correct.
After independence, it was established as a statutory body under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958 (AMASR Act). So, statement 2 is not correct.
ASI is responsible for archaeological research and the conservation and preservation of cultural monuments in the country.
Its activities include carrying out surveys of antiquarian remains, exploration and excavation of archaeological sites, conservation and maintenance of protected monuments etc.
Concerned Ministry: Ministry of Culture. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the trade settlement cycle:
- T+ settlement cycle is primarily used in the context of stock exchanges to ensure timely delivery of securities and payment for transactions.
- “T+ n” settlement cycle refers to the number of days it takes for a trade to be settled after the transaction date.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) and National Stock Exchange (NSE) launched the T+0 or same-day trade settlement, from March 28, 2024.
The T+0 settlement will be optional for 25 stocks and will be applicable only for trades executed between 9:15 a.m. and 1:30 p.m.
Previously Indian markets operated on a T+1 settlement cycle for all stocks.
The T+ settlement cycle is primarily used in the context of stock exchanges to ensure timely delivery of securities and payment for transactions. So, statement 1 is correct
“T+n” settlement cycle refers to the number of days it takes for a trade to be settled after the transaction date, with “T” representing the transaction date and the “+n” representing the number of days. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Most Favoured Nation (MFN) status:
- MFN status is a preferential trade agreement between two countries that grants each other trade advantages and benefits.
- Under the MFN principle, a country extends the same trade advantages to all its trading partners, ensuring non-discriminatory treatment.
- World Trade Organization (WTO) mandates that member countries grant MFN status to each other.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, Pakistan’s Foreign Minister said that his country may seriously examine the question of resuming trade with India.
Pakistan had stopped trade after the constitutional changes in Jammu and Kashmir in 2019.
MFN status is not a preferential trade agreement but rather a principle of non-discrimination in international trade. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Under the MFN principle, a country extends the same trade advantages to all its trading partners, ensuring non-discriminatory treatment. So, statement 2 is correct.
The World Trade Organization (WTO) mandates that member countries grant MFN status to each other, ensuring non-discriminatory trade practices. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Great Indian Bustard (GIB):
- It is a critically endangered bird species.
- It is primarily found in grasslands and semi-arid regions of India, particularly in states like Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Maharashtra.
- Habitat loss, hunting and collision with power lines are among the major threats to its survival.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, the Supreme Court said it will review its April 2021 order to bury underground all power lines in the habitat of the Great Indian Bustard (GIB). This was after the Centre found the order practically impossible to implement over long distances.
The Great Indian Bustard (GIB) is indeed a critically endangered bird species. So, statement 1 is correct.
GIB is primarily found in grasslands and semi-arid regions of India, particularly in states like Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Maharashtra. So, statement 2 is correct.
Habitat loss, hunting, and collision with power lines are indeed among the major threats to the survival of the Great Indian Bustard. So, statement 3 is correct.
Which of the following code represents the correct statement with respect to the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010?
A.
FCRA-registered organizations can receive funds for educational purposes from foreign companies.
B.
Political parties can receive a foreign donation from a foreign company in which an Indian holds 50% or more shares.
C.
Public servants, as defined under the Indian Penal Code, are prohibited from receiving foreign funds.
Explanation :
The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) extended the validity of Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) registration of NGOs and associations till June 30.
The Ministry has extended the validity of NGOs at least nine times since 2020 as the applications could not be processed within the stipulated time frame.
Registrations of many NGOs are up for renewal since September, 2020. The registration is renewed every five years.
FCRA registered associations can receive foreign contributions for purposes – social, educational, religious, economic and cultural.
Under the Act, certain persons are prohibited from accepting any foreign contribution. These include - election candidates, editor or publisher of a newspaper, judges, government servants, members of any legislature, and political parties, among others.
It should be noted that in 2017 the MHA, through the Finance Bill route, paved the way for political parties to receive funds from the Indian subsidiary of a foreign company or a foreign company in which an Indian holds 50% or more shares. Election candidates are not allowed.
The 2020 Amendment Act added public servants (as defined under the Indian Penal Code) to the list of prohibited persons.
Agalega Islands, recently in the news, belong to which of the following countries?
Mauritius
Explanation :
Agalega Islands lies approximately 650 nautical miles (1,050 km) north of Mauritius.
It is a group of two islands with a total area of 26 sq km and a native population of about 300 people.
The term ‘Front of Packaging Labelling (FoPL)’ recently in news is associated with which of the following sector?
Packaged Food items
Explanation :
Front-of-package warning labelling is a simple, practical and effective tool to inform the public about products that can harm health and help guide purchasing decisions.
In India, FoPL on packaged foods was recommended in 2014 by an expert committee constituted by the FSSAI.
Consider the following statements with reference to National Legal Services Authority (NALSA):
- Union Law Minister acts as the executive chairman of National Legal Services Authority (NALSA).
- NALSA provides free legal aid and advice to the weaker sections of society.
- The first Lok Adalat was held in Rajasthan in 1982.
How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The executive chairman of the organization is the second-most senior judge of the Supreme Court. So, statement 1 is not correct.
NALSA provides free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections of the society. So, statement 2 is correct.
The first Lok Adalat was held in Gujarat in 1982. So, statement 3 is not correct.
With reference to Line of Actual Control (LAC), consider the following statements:
- LAC is divided into three sectors.
- The Indo-China border running from the eastern side of Bhutan to Arunachal Pradesh is known as the McMahon line.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India-China border is divided into three sectors. So, statement 1 is correct.
the eastern sector which spans Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim,
the middle sector in Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh, and
the western sector in Ladakh.
The Indo-China border running from the eastern side of Bhutan to Arunachal Pradesh is known as the McMahon line. So, statement 2 is correct.
It was negotiated between Tibet and Great Britain at the end of the Shimla Conference (October 1913–July 1914) and named for the chief British negotiator, Sir Henry McMahon.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
