March Flashcards
Vikramaditya Vedic Clock, recently seen in the news, is located in which one of the following cities?
Ujjain
Explanation :
The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the Vikramaditya Vedic Clock, which is mounted on an 85-foot tower within Jantar Mantar in Ujjain.
About Vikramaditya Vedic Clock:
It is the world’s first ‘Vedic Clock’, designed to display time according to the ancient Indian traditional Panchang (time calculation system).
It has been positioned on an 85-foot tower within Jantar Mantar in Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh.
It also provides information on planetary positions, Muhurat, astrological calculations, and predictions.
In addition to this, it also indicates Indian Standard Time (IST) and Greenwich Mean Time (GMT).
The clock will calculate time from one sunrise to another.
The period between the two sunrises will be divided into 30 parts, whose one hour consists of 48 minutes, according to ISD.
The reading will start from 0:00 with the sunrise functions for 30 hours (an hour of 48 minutes).
It has been developed by Lucknow-based Sanstha Arohan, using digital interventions, enabling it to be connected to the internet and provide a wide range of features through a mobile app named after the clock.
Why Ujjain?
Ujjain’s rich heritage in timekeeping dates back centuries, with the city playing a pivotal role in determining India’s time zones and time difference.
Ujjain is located at the precise point of interaction with zero meridian and Tropic of Cancer.
Before 82.5E longitude was adopted for IST, Ujjain (75.78E) was considered as Bharat’s time meridian.
The Vikrami Panchang and Vikram Samvat calendars are also released from Ujjain, which makes Ujjain the ideal location to have the Vaidik Clock.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livemint.com/news/india/vikramaditya-vedic-clock-pm-modi-inaugurates-worlds-1st-timepiece-based-on-indian-panchang-in-mp-5-points-to-know-11709214157747.html
Consider the following statements regarding Melanochlamys Droupadi, recently seen in the news:
- It is a new marine species of sea slugs.
- It primarily inhabits the Western Coast of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers of the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) recently discovered a new species of head-shield sea slug from Odisha and the West Bengal coast named ‘Melanochlamys Droupadi’.
About Melanochlamys Droupadi:
It is a new marine species of head-shield sea slug with ruby red spot.
This species belonging to Melanochlamys genus was discovered from Digha of West Bengal coast and Udaipur of Odisha coast.
Features:
It is a small invertebrate with a maximum length of up to 7 mm.
Habitat: It inhabits wet and soft sandy beaches.
It is brownish black in colour with a ruby red spot in the hind end.
This particular species of sea slug is hermaphrodite (having both male and female reproductive parts); however, they need another sea slug for reproduction.
It has a shell inside the body. It has a posterior, accounting for 61 percent of its body length.
It continuously secretes transparent mucus to form a sheath that prevents sand grains from entering parapodial space.
It crawls beneath smooth sand to form a moving capsule where the body is rarely visible, leaving behind a trail like a turtle.
What are Sea Slugs?
Sea slugs are a group of molluscs that live primarily in marine habitats and are slug-like.
They can be found from the shallow intertidal to the deep sea and from the polar regions to the tropics.
The sea slugs are rapid hunters and feed upon mobile prey such as other shelled and unshelled sea slugs, roundworms, marine worms, and small fishes.
So far, 18 species have been discovered across the globe.
They are distributed in temperate regions of the Indo-Pacific Oceanic realm, but three species are truly tropically distributed, Melanochlamys papillata from the Gulf of Thailand, Melanochlamys bengalensis from West Bengal and Odisha coast and the present species.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/odisha/2024/Feb/29/zoologists-spot-new-sea-slug-species-name-it-after-prez
Consider the following statements with reference to the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB):
- It is the central authority for combating the illicit trade of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.
- It directly reports to the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In a coordinated operation at sea, the Indian Navy and the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) recently apprehended a suspicious vessel carrying almost 3300 Kgs of contraband.
About Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB):
The NCB was created in March 1986 in terms of Section 4(3) of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, which envisages a Central Authority for the purpose of effectively preventing and combating abuse of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances and their illicit trade.
The NCB works to identify, investigate, and prosecute drug trade offenders and implement preventive measures to reduce the demand and supply of drugs.
The Bureau, subject to the supervision and control of the Central Government, is to exercise the powers and functions of the Central Government in taking measures with respect to:
Co-ordination of actions by various offices, State Governments and other authorities under the N.D.P.S. Act, Customs Act, Drugs and Cosmetics Act, and any other law for the time being in force in connection with the enforcement provisions of the NDPS Act, 1985.
Implementation of the obligation in respect of counter measures against illicit traffic under the various international conventions and protocols.
Assistance to concerned authorities in foreign countries and concerned international organisations to facilitate coordination and universal action for prevention and suppression of illicit traffic in these drugs and substances.
Coordination of actions taken by the other concerned Ministries, Departments and Organizations in respect of matters relating to drug abuse.
Other Functions:
It is the apex coordinating agency. It also functions as an enforcement agency through its zones and sub-zones.
The zones and sub-zones collect and analyse data related to seizures of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substance, study trends, modus operandi, collect and disseminate intelligence, and work in close cooperation with the Customs, State Police and other law enforcement agencies.
In addition to its enforcement activities, the NCB also works to improve awareness, educate the public on the dangers of drugs and drug abuse, and provide support to those affected by the illegal drug trade.
NCB is responsible for maintaining and updating the National Data Bank on Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances, and related matters.
NCB maintains and updates the National Register of Treatment Providers and Narcotic Drug Dependents.
NCB provides expert advice to the Central Government on narcotics, psychotropic substances, and related matters.
The NCB directly reports to the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
The Government of India provides all administrative and financial support to NCB for its smooth functioning and strengthening, as required from time to time.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://indiannavy.nic.in/content/indian-navy-%E2%80%93-narcotics-control-bureau-anti-narcotics-operations-sea-0
Consider the following statements with reference to the Thwaites Glacier, recently seen in the news:
- It is located in Amundsen Sea in West Antarctica.
- Its melting contributes to more than 50% of the current global sea level rise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Unveiling new details about Antarctica’s “Doomsday Glacier”, scientists have revealed that the Thwaites Glacier has been losing ice since the 1940s.
About Doomsday Glacier:
Thwaites Glacier, also known as the “Doomsday Glacier,” is located in the remote Amundsen Sea in West Antarctica.
It’s a wide and fast-flowing glacier, roughly the size of Florida or Great Britain, and it has been a significant focus of scientific study due to its sensitivity to climate change.
It is one of the most vulnerable and important glaciers in the world in terms of future global sea-level rise.
Satellite measurements have shown that the glacier is losing an enormous amount of ice each year, nearly 50 billion tons annually, contributing to rising global sea levels. The glacier already contributes 4% of global sea level rise.
If the entire Thwaites Glacier were to melt, it could raise the world’s oceans by about 65 centimeters (over 2 feet).
It also acts as a buffer, holding back neighboring glaciers that contain around three meters of potential sea level rise.
A critical concern is that much of Thwaites sits on land that is below sea level, in a configuration known as “marine-based.”
This situation means that as the glacier’s grounding line – the point where the glacier’s ice lifts off the land and starts floating on the sea – retreats inland, it can pass over deeper and deeper valleys.
This process allows more and more ice to discharge into the sea, which might accelerate the glacier’s melt in a phenomenon known as “marine ice sheet instability.”
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.wionews.com/science/antarcticas-doomsday-glacier-began-retreat-in-1940s-by-el-nino-new-study-694603
Consider the following statements regarding Very Short-Range Air Defence System (VSHORADS), recently seen in the news:
- It is a Man Portable Air Defence System (MANPAD) specially designed to counter low-altitude aerial threats.
- It consists of surface-to-air missiles with a range of up to 100 km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted two flight tests of the Very Short-Range Air Defence System (VSHORADS) missile.
About Very Short-Range Air Defence System (VSHORADS):
VSHORADS is a fourth-generation Man Portable Air Defence System (MANPAD) specially designed to counter low-altitude aerial threats over short distances.
These are short-range, lightweight, and portable surface-to-air missiles that can be fired by individuals or small groups.
It has been designed and developed indigenously by DRDO’s Research Centre Imarat (RCI), Hyderabad, in collaboration with other DRDO laboratories and Indian industry partners.
Features:
It is designed to provide short-range air defence capabilities to protect ground forces and critical assets from aerial threats, including helicopters and low-flying aircraft.
It has a range of up to 6-km.
The missile incorporates many novel technologies, including a Dual-band IIR Seeker, a miniaturised Reaction Control System, and integrated avionics.
It is propelled by a dual-thrust solid motor.
The missile and its launcher were designed by the DRDO to be portable, which enables their quick deployment over difficult terrain.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/drdo-vsrads-chandipur-odisha-defence-ministry-2508872-2024-03-01
Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘juice jacking’?
It is a form of cyber attack that involves tampering with public USB charging ports.
Explanation :
Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued a cautionary message to mobile phone users about juice jacking.
The term “juice jacking” was first coined in 2011 by investigative journalist Brian Krebs.
It is a form of cyberattack where a public USB charging port is tampered with and infected using hardware and software changes to steal data or install malware on devices connected to it.
The attack is used by hackers to steal users’ passwords, credit card information, addresses, and other sensitive data stored on the targeted device.
This type of attack has been a growing concern, with incidents reported in various public spaces such as airports, hotels, and shopping centres.
RBI emphasised the importance of protecting personal and financial data while using mobile devices.
How to prevent such attacks?
To protect themselves from juice jacking and other cyber threats, mobile phone users have to use their personal chargers and avoid connecting their devices to public USB ports.
Additionally, using a Virtual Private Network (VPN) and ensuring that devices have the latest security updates installed can help mitigate the risk of cyberattacks.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/info-tech/juice-jacking-rbi-issues-warning-against-charging-mobile-phones-using-public-ports/article67895091.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the International Big Cat Alliance:
- It is an initiative of the International Union for the Conservation of Nature.
- It aims at the conservation of snow leopard, jaguar and puma.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Union Cabinet formally announced the establishment of International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) with one-time budgetary support of Rs 150 crore from the Central Government until 2028.
It is an initiative launched by Prime Minister of India in April 2023 in Mysuru commemorating the 50th anniversary of Project Tiger.
The objective of the IBCA is to ensure cooperation for the conservation of seven big cats: lion, tiger, leopard, cheetah, snow leopard, jaguar and puma. Five of these cats, apart from jaguar and puma, are found in India.
Membership: It is open to 97 ‘range’ countries, which contain the natural habitat of these big cats, as well as other interested nations, international organizations, etc.
It aims for mutual cooperation among countries for mutual benefit in furthering the conservation agenda.
It would have a multipronged approach in broad basing and establishing linkages manifold in several areas and help in knowledge sharing, capacity building, networking, advocacy, finance and resources support, research and technical support, education and awareness.
Governance Structure:
A General Assembly consisting of all member countries.
A Council of at least seven but not more than 15 member countries elected by the General Assembly for a term of 5 years, and a Secretariat.
Upon the recommendation of the Council, the General Assembly will appoint the IBCA Secretary General for a specific term.
Funding: It has secured Government of India’s initial support of Rs. 150 crore for five years (2023-24 to 2027-28).
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2010124
Consider the following statements with reference to the Jacaranda Tree:
- It is a deciduous hard tree that grows well in tropical climatic region.
- Its bark and roots are used for medicinal purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The early onset bloom of jacaranda set off alarm bells among residents and scientists in Mexico City.
It’s also known by its synonym Jacaranda acutifolia.
It is a deciduous tree, Jacaranda mimosifolia comes from the Bignoniaceae family.
Blue jacaranda is native of Brazil and North West Argentina.
These are hardy trees that grow well in tropical climes, well-drained soil and plenty of sun to showcase their lavender touch.
They are widely grown in warm parts of the world and in greenhouses for their showy blue or violet flowers and attractive, oppositely paired, compound leaves.
Uses: In Brazil, its wood is used to make guitars. It has no edible use, its bark and root has medicinal advantages.
It is also recommended as an alternative wood carving tree species, especially in Kenya.
Ecological significance: They attract more hummingbirds and bees than many native trees, so a change in flowering could lead to a decrease in these populations.
Concern: Some jacarandas began blooming in early January, when they normally awaken in spring.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/early-jacaranda-bloom-sparks-debate-about-climate-change-in-mexico/article67890852.ece
With reference to United Nations Human Rights Council, consider the following statements:
- All United Nations (UN) member countries are members of this Council.
- Its members are not eligible for immediate re-election after two consecutive terms.
- Its members are elected by the majority of the members of UN General Assembly through direct and secret ballot.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
At the 55th Human Rights Council of the United Nations, India exercised its ‘Right to Reply’ for a staunch response to Turkey and Pakistan for the mention of Jammu and Kashmir on the platform.
It is an intergovernmental body within the United Nations whose mission is to promote and protect human rights around the world.
It was created by the General Assembly on 15 March 2006 by replacing the Commission on Human Rights.
It has 47 members elected for staggered three-year terms on a regional group basis.
Tenure of the council: The members of the Council serve for a period of three years and are not eligible for immediate re-election after serving two consecutive terms.
The members are elected by the majority of members of the General Assembly of the United Nations through direct and secret ballot.
The General Assembly takes into account the candidate States’ contribution to the promotion and protection of human rights, as well as their voluntary pledges and commitments in this regard.
The Council’s Membership is based on equitable geographical distribution.
Function:
It investigates allegations of breaches of human rights in UN member states, and addresses important thematic human rights issues such as freedom of association and assembly, freedom of expression, freedom of belief and religion, women’s rights, LGBTI rights, and the rights of racial and ethnic minorities.
Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-hits-out-at-pakistan-for-raking-up-kashmir-issue-at-unhrc/article67899032.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the BioTRIG technology:
- It is a waste management technology based on the pyrolysis system.
- It can help in reducing greenhouse gas emissions from communities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A recent study has claimed that BioTRIG, a new waste management technology could help rural Indians.
It is a new waste management technology based on the pyrolysis system.
It works by sealing the waste inside an oxygen-free chamber and heating it above 400 degrees Celsius. Useful chemicals are produced in the process.
In the study, the researchers outlined that three products of pyrolysis — bio-oil, syngas and biochar fertiliser — could help rural Indians live healthier and greener lives.
Significance
The syngas and bio-oil facilitate heat and power the pyrolysis system in future cycles and surplus electricity is utilized to power local homes and businesses.
The clean-burning bio-oil to replace dirty cooking fuels in homes and using biochar to store carbon, while improving soil fertility.
Computer simulations showed that the BioTRIG system could also be effective in real-world applications.
It could help reduce greenhouse gas emissions from communities by nearly 350 kg of CO2-eq per capita per annum.
It could help rural Indians cut indoor air pollution, improve soil health, and generate clean power
What is Pyrolysis?
It is a kind of chemical recycling that turns leftover organic materials into their component molecules.
It works by sealing the waste inside an oxygen-free chamber and heating it to more than 400 degrees Celsius, producing useful chemicals in the process.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/waste/new-waste-management-technology-could-improve-life-in-rural-india-claims-study-94713
This Tiger Reserve is located in Telangana and is the second-largest Tiger Reserve in terms of core area. Previously, it was part of the Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve. It covers a part of the Nallamala Forest and is home to a variety of fauna including leopard, wild dog, Indian wolf and Indian fox. This is the most likely description of:
Amrabad Tiger Reserve
Explanation :
The leopard population increased considerably in Amrabad Tiger Reserve, according to the ‘Status of Leopards in India’ report released recently.
About Amrabad Tiger Reserve:
Location: It is located in the Nagarkurnool and Nalgonda districts in the southern part of Telangana.
Spread over 2611.4 square kilometers, it is one of the largest tiger reserves in India. It is the second-largest Tiger Reserve in terms of core area.
Earlier, it was part of ‘Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve, but post-state bifurcation, the northern part of the reserve was vested with Telangana state and renamed ‘Amrabad Tiger Reserve’. The southern portion continues to be ‘NSTR’ with Andhra Pradesh.
ATR covers a part of the Nallamala Forest and is home to a variety of flora and fauna.
Major reservoirs like the Srishailam Dam and Nagarjunsagar Dam are fed by the river Krishna and its several perennial streams that originate in the Tiger Reserve.
Flora:
Dense grass occurs in 30% of the area and is scattered in an additional 20%.
Dominant tree species include Terminalia tomentosa, Hardwickia binata, Madhuca latifolia. Diospyros melanoxylon, Gardenia latifolia, etc.
Fauna:
Major wild animals found are Tiger, Leopard, Wild dog, Indian Wolf, Indian fox, Rusty-spotted cat, Small Indian civet, Sloth bear, Honeybadger, Wild boar etc.
Over 303 bird species have been identified in this region. Some important groups include Eagles, Pigeons, Doves, Cuckoos, Woodpeckers, Drongos etc.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://telanganatoday.com/amrabad-tiger-reserve-plagued-with-staff-and-funds-crunch-2
Consider the following statements with reference to Nano Urea:
- It is a nanotechnology-based revolutionary Agri-input that provides nitrogen to plants.
- It is developed and patented by the Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India will replace the consumption of 2.5 million tonnes (mt) of conventional urea with nano urea in FY24, the Union Chemicals and Fertilizers Minister said at a press conference recently.
About Nano Urea:
It is a nanotechnology-based revolutionary Agri-input that provides nitrogen to plants.
It is developed and patented by the Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO).
IFFCO Nano Urea is the only nano fertilizer approved by the Government of India and included in the Fertilizer Control Order (FCO).
Features:
Compared to conventional urea prill, Nano Urea has a desirable particle size of about 20-50 nm, and more surface area (10,000 times over 1 mm urea prill), and number of particles (55,000 nitrogen particles over 1 mm urea prill).
It contains 4.0% total nitrogen (w/v).
Benefits:
It is produced by an energy-efficient, environment-friendly production process with less carbon footprints.
Increased availability to crops by more than 80%, resulting in higher nutrient use efficiency.
It is expected to improve crop productivity, soil health, and nutritional quality of produce and address the “imbalanced and excessive use” of conventional fertilizer.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.livemint.com/industry/agriculture/india-to-replace-2-5-million-tonnes-of-conventional-urea-with-nano-urea-in-fy24-minister-says-11709299067061.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Genome India Project:
- It is a pan-India initiative focused on the whole genome sequencing of 10% of the Indian population.
- It is funded by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Genome India Project recently announced that it had finished sequencing 10,000 Indian genomes.
About Genome India Project:
It is a pan-India initiative focused on the whole genome sequencing of representative populations across India.
Goal: The goal is to start with and execute whole genome sequencing and subsequent data analysis of 10,000 individuals representing the country’s diverse population.
This is a mission-mode, multi-institution consortium project, the first of its kind in India, supported and funded by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India.
The specific aims of the project are:
Create an exhaustive catalog of genetic variations (common, low frequency, rare, single nucleotide polymorphisms, or SNPs, and structural variations) in Indians.
Create a reference haplotype structure for Indians. This reference panel can be used for imputing missing genetic variation in future studies.
Design genome-wide arrays for research and diagnostics at an affordable cost.
Establish a biobank for DNA and plasma collected for future use in research.
What is Genome?
A genome is the complete set of genetic information in an organism.
In living organisms, the genome is stored in long molecules of DNA called chromosomes.
In humans, the genome consists of 23 pairs of chromosomes located in the cell’s nucleus, as well as a small chromosome in the cell’s mitochondria.
A genome contains all the information needed for an individual to develop and function.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/decoding-the-script-on-the-genome-india-project-and-its-sequencing-10000-indian-genomes/article67899979.ece
With reference to National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT), consider the following statements:
- Round-the-clock availability on all days of the year.
- Penal interest provision for delay in credit or return of transactions.
- No charges to savings bank account customers for online NEFT transactions.
- Positive confirmation to the remitter by SMS/E-mail
How many of the statements given above are advantages of NEFT?
All four
Explanation :
The National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) reported its highest-ever daily number of transactions at 4.10 crore recently.
About National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT):
NEFT is a nation-wide centralised payment system owned and operated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
It is an electronic method of transferring money online.
Most Indian banks provide the NEFT feature on internet banking and mobile banking.
It enables transferring funds from the account maintained with any bank to any other bank branch, provided the transaction is attempted between the banks that participate in the NEFT payment system.
Organisations, companies, and individuals can use it to transfer funds from one bank account to another.
As per Reserve Bank of India (RBI) guidelines, the payments made via NEFT are processed and settled in half-hourly batches.
Minimum Transfer Value: Rs. 1
Maximum transfer value: No limit
NEFT offers the following advantages for funds transfer or receipt:
Round-the-clock availability on all days of the year.
Near-real-time funds transfer to the beneficiary account and settlement in a secure manner.
Pan-India coverage through large network of branches of all types of banks.
The beneficiary need not visit a bank branch for depositing the paper instruments. Remitter can initiate the remittances from his / her home / place of work using internet banking, if his / her bank offers such a service.
Positive confirmation to the remitter by SMS / e-mail on credit to beneficiary account.
Penal interest provision for delay in credit or return of transactions.
No levy of charges by RBI from banks.
No charges to savings bank account customers for online NEFT transactions.
The transaction charges have been capped by the RBI.
Besides fund transfers, NEFT system can be used for a variety of transactions, including the payment of credit card dues to the card issuing banks, payment of loan EMIs, inward foreign exchange remittances, etc.
The transaction has legal backing.
Available for one-way funds transfers from India to Nepal.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/business/banks/neft-transactions-report-highest-ever-daily-transactions-at-4-10-crore-says-rbi-12386101.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Foreign Exchange Reserves:
- The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the custodian of the foreign exchange reserves in India.
- India’s Foreign Exchange Reserves include foreign currency assets and Special Drawing Rights (SDRs).
- The biggest contributor to India’s foreign exchange reserves is Gold.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
India’s foreign exchange reserves surged by $2.98 billion to $619.07 billion recently.
About Foreign Exchange Reserve:
Foreign Exchange Reserves (also called Forex Reserves) are reserve assets held by a central bank in foreign currencies.
Foreign assets comprise assets that are not denominated in the domestic currency of the country.
These may include foreign currencies, bonds, treasury bills, and other government securities.
Reserves are denominated and expressed in the US dollar, which is the international numeraire for the purpose.
RBI is the custodian of the foreign exchange reserves in India.
India’s foreign exchange reserves comprise of;
Foreign Currency Assets (FCAs): These are maintained in currencies like the US dollar, euro, pound sterling, Australian dollar, and Japanese yen.
Gold
SDR (Special Drawing Rights): This is the reserve currency with the IMF.
RTP (Reserve Tranche Position): This is the reserve capital with the IMF.
The biggest contributor to India’s Forex reserves is foreign currency assets, followed by gold.
Purpose:
They are used to back liabilities on their own issued currency, support the exchange rate, and set monetary policy.
To ensure that RBI has backup funds if their national currency rapidly devalues or becomes altogether insolvent.
If the value of the Rupee decreases due to an increase in the demand for the foreign currency, then RBI sells the dollar in the Indian money market so that depreciation of the Indian currency can be checked.
A country with a good stock of forex has a good image at the international level because the trading countries can be sure about their payments.
A good forex reserve helps in attracting foreign trade and earns a good reputation with trading partners.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/indicators/indias-forex-reserves-up-by-2-98-bn-to-619-07-as-of-feb-23/articleshow/108134148.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements with reference to the semiconductor fabrication:
- It is a process in which raw silicon wafers are turned into Integrated Circuits (ICs).
- It uses photolithography technology which enables the creation of intricate circuitry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Cabinet approved the country’s first semiconductor fab to be made by the Tata Group in collaboration with Powerchip Taiwan.
A semiconductor fab – short for fabrication in which raw silicon wafers are turned into Integrated Circuits (ICs).
The process includes creating intricate patterns on the wafer using light and chemicals, depositing different materials to form components, and etching away unwanted materials.
This results in the formation of transistors, interconnects, and other elements that make up a semiconductor device.
Fabrication is a complex and precise process that requires specialized equipment and expertise.
A semiconductor fab facility always includes a clean room because its environment is carefully controlled to eliminate dust and vibrations and to keep the temperature and humidity within a specific narrow range.
Contamination can enter the fab environment through external sources, resulting in damages to products that can affect overall yield.
What kind of technology is used in fabs?
Photolithography:
It is a crucial step in semiconductor fabrication where patterns are transferred onto silicon wafers.
A photosensitive material, called photoresist, is applied to the wafer and exposed to light through a mask.
The exposed areas are chemically etched, creating the desired pattern. This process enables the precise definition of features on the wafer, enabling the creation of intricate circuitry.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/technology/cabinet-approves-countrys-first-semiconductor-fab-by-tata-group-and-taiwans-psmc-in-dholera-12377111.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Network Planning Group:
- It includes heads of the Network Planning Division of all connectivity infrastructure Ministries & Departments.
- It guides Ministries responsible for creation of economic zones.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The 66th meeting of Network Planning Group (NPG) was held in New Delhi, under the chairpersonship of Additional Secretary, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade to evaluate three projects from Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) and two projects from Ministry of Railways (MoR).
It is an Integrated Multimodal Network Planning Group (NPG) with heads of Network Planning Division of all connectivity infrastructure Ministries & Departments.
It is responsible for unified planning and integration of the proposals and assist the Empowered Group of Secretaries (EGoS) in respect of its mandate.
It facilitates regular interactions between the stakeholders.
It will guide all the Departments/ Ministries responsible for creation of economic zones and connectivity infrastructure during the planning phase itself.
The parameters/prescribed norms of the overall National Master Plan will be the overarching objective of the NPG for examining and sanctioning future projects thus leading to minimising of disruptions and strive for the creation of an ideal & efficient operating system for all infrastructure projects in the country.
Its role is to ensure:
integration of networks;
enhance optimization through modification/expansion/new network creation;
avoid duplication of works for holistic development of any region;
reduction logistics costs through micro-plan detailing.
What is PM GatiShakti?
It is an approach for growth accelerating trustworthy infrastructure through synchronized, holistic, integrated and comprehensive planning based on knowledge, technology and innovation.
PM GatiShakti National Master Plan provides comprehensive database of the ongoing & future projects of various Ministries i.e. Infrastructure Ministries & Ministries and States involved in development of Economic Zones, integrated with 200+ GIS layers thereby facilitating planning, designing and execution of the infrastructure projects with a common vision.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2010476
With reference to Improvised Explosive Device, consider the following statements:
- It is a type of unconventional explosive weapon.
- It does not require an electronic power source.
- Ammonium nitrate and urea nitrate are used to build these explosives.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
At least nine people were injured after an explosion at the bustling Rameshwaram Cafe in Bengaluru’s Whitefield area possibly by an Improvised Explosive Device (IED).
IED is a type of unconventional explosive weapon that can take any form and be activated in a variety of ways.
An IED is basically a home-made bomb because they are improvised.
IEDs can come in many forms, ranging from a small pipe bomb to a sophisticated device capable of causing massive damage and loss of life.
They can be deployed using a vehicle, carried, placed, or thrown by a person, delivered in a package, or concealed on the roadside.
While they have been in used for over a century, the term “IED” first entered common usage during the United States’ Iraq invasion (beginning in 2003), where such bombs were commonly used against US forces.
Components
Each IED comprises a few basic components, which can come in various forms, depending on resources available to the bomb-maker.
These include an initiator or a triggering mechanism, (which sets the explosion off), a switch (which arms the explosive), a main charge (which causes the explosion), a power source (since most IEDs contain an electric initiator, they require an electronic power source), and a container.
Additionally, IEDs may be packed with additional materials or “enhancements” such as nails, glass, or metal fragments designed to increase the amount of shrapnel released by the explosion — and thus the damage it causes.
Enhancement may also include hazardous materials such as toxic chemicals, or radio-active circumstances — an IED packed with, say, depleted Uranium will be colloquially called a “dirty bomb”
Some common materials used to build IEDs include fertilisers such as ammonium nitrate and urea nitrate, gunpowder, and hydrogen peroxide.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/bengaluru-bomb-blast-ied-9190684/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Bureau of Energy Efficiency:
- It was established under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001.
- It works under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, 22nd Foundation Day of the Bureau of Energy Efficiency was celebrated in New Delhi where the union Power and New & Renewable Energy Minister commends BEE for its innovative and world-leading programmes and released the State Energy Efficiency Index 2023.
It was established in 2002 under the provisions of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001.
Objective: The primary objective of BEE is to reduce energy intensity in the Indian economy.
Function and Duties
It co-ordinates with designated consumers, designated agencies and other organizations; recognizes, identifies and utilizes the existing resources and infrastructure, in performing the functions assigned to it under the Energy Conservation Act.
The EC Act provides for regulatory and promotional functions which are assigned to the organisation.
Regulatory functions
Develop minimum energy performance standards for equipment and appliances under Standards and Labelling
Develop minimum energy performance standards for Commercial Buildings
Develop Energy Consumption Norms for Designated Consumers
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Power
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2010550
Exercise Samudra Laksamana, is conducted between India and:
Malaysia
Explanation :
The Exercise Samudra Laksamana kicked off on February 28 and will continue until March 2, taking place at or off the coast of Visakhapatnam.
It is a joint naval exercise between the Indian Navy and Royal Malaysian Navy.
It is the 3rd edition of this exercise.
Indian Naval Ship Kiltan and Royal Malaysian Ship KD Lekir are participating in this exercise which has harbour professional interactions followed by the operational phase at sea.
At harbour, crew of both ships will have various professional interactions, Subject Matter Expert Exchange on topics of mutual interest, sports fixtures, and other interactions.
These interactions are aimed to enhance knowledge base, share best practices and further cooperation on maritime aspects.
During sea phase, units would be jointly honing skills while conducting various operations at sea.
The exercise aims to strengthen bonds and enhance interoperability between the Indian and Royal Malaysian Navy.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2010643
The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India is roughly about 29 degrees. However, the actual distance measured from north to south is 3,214 km, and that from east to west is only 2,933 km. Which one of the following is the main reason for this difference?
The distance between two longitudes decreases towards the poles
Explanation :
● The Indian mainland extends between 8°4’N to 37°6’ N latitudes and from 68°7’ E to 97°25’ E longitudes. Thus, the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India is about 29 degrees. It measures about 3,214 km from north to south, and 2,933 km from east to west.
● Though the latitudinal and longitudinal extent is almost the same, the actual distances do differ considerably. This difference is based on the fact that the distance between two longitudes decreases towards the poles whereas the distance between two latitudes remains the same everywhere. The longitudinal expanse of India is measured in east-west direction and the latitudinal expanse is measured in north-south direction.
● The east-west distance between two successive meridians of longitude is maximum at the equator (111 km). However, it decreases as one moves from the equator to the poles. At poles, all the meridians of longitude merge in a single point and the distance between lines of longitude is zero. On the other hand, the distance between any two successive parallels of latitude remains almost uniform, i.e. 111 km and never meets the other latitude.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Sikkim and Darjeeling Himalayas are best-suitable for tea plantations in India. Which of the following factors help in tea cultivation in these regions?
- Karewa formations
- Moderate slope
- Well-distributed rainfall throughout the year
- Shiwalik formations
- Mild winters
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2, 3 and 5 only
Explanation :
● Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas are flanked by Nepal Himalayas in the west and Bhutan Himalayas in the east.
● Karewas are the thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines. The Kashmir Himalayas are famous for Karewa formations, which are useful for the cultivation of Zafran, a local variety of saffron. The Karewa formations are not present in Sikkim and Darjeeling Himalayas. So, point 1 is not correct.
● Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas have physical conditions such as moderate slope, thick soil cover with high organic content, well distributed rainfall throughout the year and mild winters, making it highly suitable for tea plantations in this region. So, points 2, 3 and 5 are correct.
● As compared to the other sections of the Himalayas, these along with the Arunachal Himalayas are conspicuous by the absence of the Shiwalik formations. In place of the Shiwaliks here, the ‘duar formations’ are important, which have also been used for the development of tea gardens. So, point 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
In the context of Indian Geography, “Dhaoladhar” and “Nagtibha” are:
local names of Lesser Himalayas
Explanation :
● The Lesser Himalayas (Himachal) is the range lying to the south of the Himadri (Great Himalayas) and forms the most rugged mountain system. It is locally known as Dhaoladhar in Himachal Pradesh and Nagtibha in Uttarakhand. The ranges are mainly composed of highly compressed and altered rocks. The Pir Panjal, Dhauladhar and Mahabharat ranges are a part of Himachal range. Pir Panjal is the longest range of Himachal range. This range consists of the famous valley of Kashmir, the Kangra and Kullu Valley in Himachal Pradesh.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Peninsular Block of India, consider the following statements:
- Rajmahal Hills and Karbi Anglong Plateau are part of the block.
- Malda fault separates northeastern India from the Chotanagpur plateau.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
● The northern boundary of the Peninsular Block may be taken as an irregular line running from Kachchh along the western flank of the Aravali Range near Delhi and then roughly parallel to the Yamuna and the Ganga as far as the Rajmahal Hills and the Ganga delta. Apart from these, the Karbi Anglong and the Meghalaya Plateau in the northeast and Rajasthan in the west are also extensions of this block. The northeastern parts are separated by the Malda fault in West Bengal from the Chotanagpur plateau. So, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
● The Peninsular plateau has undergone recurrent phases of upliftment and submergence accompanied by crustal faulting and fractures. The Bhima fault is located in the state of Maharashtra near Latur and Osmanabad. It is a part of the Deccan Plateau. It is well known for its recurrent seismic activities. These spatial variations have brought in elements of diversity in the relief of the Peninsular plateau.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to the features of the Himalayas, consider the following statements:
- The Himalayas were formed due to the collision of the Eurasian and Indo-Australian plates.
- They are broader in the eastern region than in the west.
- They are spread across six countries including India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
● The Himalayan mountain range was formed by the collision of two tectonic plates, the Eurasian plate and the Indo-Australian plate, a few million years ago. As a result of this collision, the edges of these plates began to fold, resulting in the formation of the Himalayas. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The Himalayas cover a total distance of 2,400 kilometers. The width of the mountain ranges is wider in the western region with a distance of 500 km, while it is narrower in the eastern region with a distance of 200 km. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● The Himalayan range is made up of three parallel ranges often referred to as the Greater Himalayas, the Lesser Himalayas, and the Outer Himalayas. These pass through six countries: India, Pakistan, Afghanistan, China, Bhutan and Nepal. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the answer.
With reference to the Northern Plains of India, consider the following statements:
- The Western part of these plains is dominated by Doab formation.
- The Bhabar region has deposits of heavy materials of rocks and boulders.
- The Terai region is characterized by a luxurious growth of natural vegetation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
· The Northern Plain is broadly divided into three sections. The Western part of the Northern Plain is referred to as the Punjab Plains. Formed by the Indus and its tributaries, the larger part of this plain lies in Pakistan. The Indus and its tributaries — the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas and the Satluj originate in the Himalayas. This section of the plain is dominated by the doabs. So, statement 1 is correct.
· Bhabar is a narrow belt ranging between 8-10 km parallel to the Shivalik foothills at the break-up of the slope. As a result of this, the streams and rivers coming from the mountains deposit heavy materials of rocks and boulders, and at times, disappear in this zone. So, statement 2 is correct.
· South of the Bhabar is the Terai belt, with an approximate width of 10-20 km where most of the streams and rivers re-emerge without having any properly demarcated channel, thereby creating marshy and swampy conditions known as the Tarai. This has a luxurious growth of natural vegetation and houses a varied wildlife. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Arrange the following geographical formations in India from north to south:
- Aravalli range
- Ajanta range
- Malwa plateau
- Satpura range
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1-3-4-2
Explanation :
● Aravalli Range, the hill system of northern India, runs northeasterly for 350 miles (560 km) through Rajasthan state. Isolated rocky offshoots continue to just south of Delhi.
● Malwa Plateau, plateau region in north-central India. It is bounded by the Madhya Bharat Plateau and Bundelkhand Upland to the north, the Vindhya Range to the east and south, and the Gujarat Plains to the west. Of volcanic origin, the plateau comprises central Madhya Pradesh state and southeastern Rajasthan state.
● Satpura Range, range of hills, part of the Deccan plateau, western India. The hills stretch for some 560 miles (900 km) across the widest part of peninsular India, through Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh states. The range, the name of which means “Seven Folds,” forms the watershed between the Narmada (north) and Tapti (south) rivers.
● Ajanta range (Ajanta Hills) is a hill in the State of Maharashtra, India. It is located at an elevation of 694 meters above sea level.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to western ghats, consider the following statements:
- They are spread across only five states in India.
- They are younger than the Himalayan mountains.
- Unlike eastern ghats, they are comparatively higher in elevation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
● Western ghats are a chain of mountains running parallel to India’s western coast, covering an area of around 140,000 km² in a 1,600 km long stretch. The Ghats traverse the States of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● Western ghats are older than the great Himalayan Mountain chain. They contain high montane forest ecosystems which influence the Indian monsoon weather pattern. They also aid in moderating the tropical climate of the region. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● Western Ghats are comparatively higher in elevation and more continuous than the Eastern Ghats. Their average elevation is about 1,500 m with the height increasing from north to south. Eastern Ghats comprising the discontinuous and low hills are highly eroded by the rivers. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following is not correct with reference to the Indian Coastal Plains?
Both the coastal plains have well-developed deltas.
Explanation :
● As compared to the western coastal plain, the eastern coastal plain is broader and is an example of an emergent coast. There are well-developed deltas here, formed by the rivers flowing eastward into the Bay of Bengal. These include the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri. The western coastal plains are an example of submerged coastal plains. Because of this submergence, it is a narrow belt and provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbors. The Malabar coast has got certain distinguishing features in the form of ‘Kayals’ (backwaters).
● The steep slope of the Western Ghats contributes to the rapid flow of the rivers draining this region. They do not have to travel far to drain into the sea. As a result, they do not transport the sediments needed to form deltas.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Islands of India, consider the following statements:
- All Islands in India are of coral origin.
- Pitti island is a part of the Nicobar Islands.
- India’s only active volcano is found in the Andaman and Nicobar group of Islands.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
● The Lakshadweep Islands group lies close to the Malabar coast of Kerala. This group of islands is composed of small coral islands. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are an elevated portion of submarine mountains. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● Pitti island, also known as Pakshipitti, is an uninhabited coral islet in the Lakshadweep. It is an important nesting site for pelagic birds such as the sooty tern, greater crested tern, and brown noddy. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● India’s only active volcano is found on Barren Island in the Andaman and Nicobar group of Islands. Barren Island is about 140 kilometers from Port Blair in the Andaman Sea. The Barren Island volcano is the only active volcano in Indian territory, the Andaman Islands. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to Plaint, consider the following statements:
- It is a legal document in which the contents of a civil suit are laid out.
- It serves as the initial step in starting a lawsuit.
- It does not make any mention of evidence regarding the case.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently held that an application seeking amendment of plaint shouldn’t be allowed under Order 6 Rule 17 of CPC if the amendment alters the nature of the suit.
About Plaint:
A plaint is a legal document that contains the claims made by the plaintiff when they bring a case to a civil court. (A plaintiff is a person who brings a civil action in a court of law).
It serves as the initial step in starting a lawsuit.
In fact, in the very plaint, the contents of the civil suit are laid out.
Through such a plaint, the grievances of the plaintiff are spelled out, as well as the possible causes of action that can arise out of the suit.
A plaint which is presented to a civil court of appropriate jurisdiction contains everything, including facts to relief that the plaintiff expects to obtain.
Order VII of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) particularly deals with a plaint.
A few of the essentials of a plaint implicit in itself are those only material facts, and not all facts or the law as such is to be stated, the facts should be concise and precise, and no evidence should be mentioned.
Particulars of a Plaint (Rules 1 to 8 of Order VII of the CPC):
The name of the civil or commercial court where the lawsuit will be filed.
Information about the plaintiff, including their name, address, and description.
Details about the defendant, including their name, residence and description.
If the plaintiff has any health issues or disabilities, these should be mentioned.
The facts that give rise to the cause of action and where this cause of action occurred.
Facts that help determine the court’s jurisdiction.
Information about the relief or remedy the plaintiff is seeking from the court.
If the plaintiff wants to set off a portion of their claim, the amount allowed should be stated.
The value of the subject matter of the suit, not just for jurisdiction but also for court fees.
Verification by the plaintiff under oath.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/order-6-rule-17-cpc-amendment-of-plant-shouldnt-be-allowed-if-it-alters-nature-of-suit-supreme-court-250947
Consider the following statements regarding the Press and Registration of Periodicals Act (PRP Act), 2023:
- It provides for an online system for facilitating the registration of newspapers.
- It also includes academic books and journals under the purview of mandatory registration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The registration of newspapers and other periodicals will be governed by the provisions of the Press and Registration of Periodicals Act, 2023, and its Rules, which came into effect recently.
About Press and Registration of Periodicals Act (PRP Act), 2023:
It has replaced the colonial era Press and Registration of Books Act dating back to 1867.
The office of Press Registrar General of India – PRGI (erstwhile Registrar of Newspapers for India – RNI) shall be carrying out the purposes of the new Act.
It provides for an online system for facilitating the registration of newspapers and other periodicals in the country.
The new system replaces the existing manual, cumbersome processes involving multiple steps and approvals at various stages, which were causing unnecessary hardships to the publishers.
The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting had launched the Press Sewa Portal ((presssewa.prgi.gov.in), the online portal of the Press Registrar General, for receiving various applications as mandated by the new Act.
All applications, including the intimation by the printer of a periodical, application for registration of a facsimile edition of a foreign periodical, the application by a publisher for obtaining a certificate of registration of a periodical, application for revision of certificate of registration, application for transfer of ownership of periodicals, furnishing annual statement by the publisher of a periodical, and procedure for desk audit for verification of circulation of a periodical will be online through the Press Sewa Portal.
Accordingly, publishers intending to bring out periodicals need to register their titles before publishing them.
Notably, the PRP Act exempts books and journals from the purview of registration necessitated by the old PRB Act, focusing solely on periodicals, which are defined as publications, including newspapers, published and printed at regular intervals containing public news or commentary, but excluding scientific, technical, and academic books or journals.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/new-prp-act-2023-comes-into-effect-registration-of-periodicals-goes-online/article67907912.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Nhava Sheva Port:
- It was developed as a satellite port to relieve the Port of Mumbai from heavy congestion.
- It deals with almost half of the country’s imports and exports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Customs officials recently seized a dual-use consignment on a Karachi-bound ship at Nhava Sheva port, suspecting it could be used for Pakistan’s nuclear programs.
About Nhava Sheva Port:
The Port of Nhava Sheva lies to the east of the Port of Mumbai, about six nautical miles away across Thane Creek on the Arabian Sea.
It is also commonly known as the Jawaharlal Nehru Port, as it is run by the Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust.
It is known to be the busiest port in India and deals with almost half of the country’s imports and exports.
The Port of Nhava Sheva and the Port of Mumbai have a common entry channel that stretches about 21 kilometres (33.9 miles) and at a depth of 10.1 to 11 metres (33 to 36 feet).
The Port of Nhava Sheva was commissioned in 1989, as a satellite port to relieve the Port of Mumbai from heavy congestion.
As a small port in its early years, it only had single terminals for bulk cargos and containers.
It has since expanded to include five privately-operated port terminals for containerized cargo handling and also a facility for handling bulk liquid cargo.
It is recognized as one of the top 30 global container ports in terms of size and capacity.
Hence both statements are correct.
Newshttps://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/mumbai-news/customs-seize-karachi-bound-consignment-at-nhava-sheva-port-101709407590322.html
Consider the following statements regarding Obesity:
- It can be hereditary as numerous genes identified with adiposity and weight gain.
- A Body Mass Index (BMI) of over 10 is considered obese.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The global rate of obesity has quadrupled in children and doubled in adults since 1990, according to a new analysis published in The Lancet, a medical journal, recently.
About Obesity:
Obesity is defined by excess body fat (adipose tissue) that may impair health.
It is a long-term (chronic) health condition that progresses over time.
Causes:
Obesity is the result of an imbalance between daily energy intake and energy expenditure, resulting in excessive weight gain.
It is a multifactorial disease caused by a myriad of genetic, cultural, and societal factors.
Various genetic studies have shown that obesity is extremely heritable, with numerous genes identified with adiposity and weight gain.
Other causes of obesity include reduced physical activity, insomnia, endocrine disorders, medications, the accessibility and consumption of excess carbohydrates and high-sugar foods, and decreased energy metabolism.
Healthcare providers commonly use the Body Mass Index (BMI) to define obesity in the general population.
A BMI over 25 is considered overweight, and over 30 is obese.
Obesity is associated with cardiovascular disease, dyslipidemia, and insulin resistance, causing diabetes, stroke, gallstones, fatty liver, hypoventilation syndrome, sleep apnea, and cancers.
It is the second-most common cause of preventable death after smoking.
Obesity needs multiprong treatment strategies and may require lifelong treatment.
What is Body Mass Index (BMI)?
It is a person’s weight in kilograms divided by the square of their height in meters. For example, a BMI of 25 means 25kg/m2.
For most adults, an ideal BMI is in the 18.5 to 24.9 range.
A high BMI can indicate high body fatness.
BMI screens for weight categories that may lead to health problems, but it does not diagnose the body fatness or health of an individual.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/lifestyle/health/global-malnourishment-1-in-8-people-are-obese-101709290549657.html
The ‘SAMOA Pathway’ is related to which one of the following groupings?
Small Island Developing States (SIDS)
Explanation :
More funding is needed to support Small Island Developing States (SIDS) on the frontlines of climate change, the UN Secretary-General said recently.
About Small Island Developing States (SIDS):
SIDS are a distinct group of 39 States and 18 Associate Members of United Nations regional commissions that face unique social, economic, and environmental vulnerabilities.
The three geographical regions in which SIDS are located are: the Caribbean, the Pacific, and the Atlantic, Indian Ocean and South China Sea (AIS).
SIDS were recognized as a special case both for their environment and development at the 1992 United Nations Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.
They are highly vulnerable developing countries as they suffer from low economic diversification, often characterised by high dependence on tourism and remittances, volatility due to fluctuations in private income flows and the prices of raw materials, and debt stress situations.
For SIDS, the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)—the ocean under their control—is, on average, 28 times the country’s land mass.
Thus, for many SIDS, the majority of the natural resources they have access to come from the ocean.
UN Programmes of Action in Support of SIDS:
Barbados Programme of Action: In 1994, the Barbados Programme of Action (BPoA) prescribed specific actions that would enable SIDS to achieve sustainable development. The Conference also adopted the Barbados Declaration, a statement of political will underpinning the commitments contained in the BPoA.
Mauritius Strategy: In 2005, the Mauritius Strategy for further implementation of the BPoA was adopted to address remaining gaps in implementation.
SAMOA Pathway (2014): The SAMOA Pathway recognizes the adverse impacts of climate change and sea-level rise on SIDS’ efforts to achieve economic development, food security, disaster risk reduction, and ocean management, among other challenges.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://news.un.org/en/story/2024/03/1147177
Consider the following statements regarding the World Wildlife Day:
- It is celebrated to promote sustainable practices that can help conserve biodiversity.
- The idea of celebrating this day was first proposed by India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
World Wildlife Day is observed annually on March 3 to raise awareness about the importance of wildlife conservation.
It is celebrated to promote sustainable practices that can help conserve biodiversity and raise public awareness of the need to protect and care for animals.
It aims to raise awareness of the interconnectedness of all living things on our planet and to promote peaceful coexistence between humans and animals through activism, campaigning and education.
History
It was first proposed by Thailand to the UN General Assembly in 2013.
The idea was to set aside a day to promote awareness of wild animals and plants around the world.
The General Assembly adopted a resolution on 20 December 2013, designating March 3 as World Wildlife Day in 2014.
The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), a global agreement to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival, was signed on this day in 1973.
Theme of WWD 2024: “Connecting People and Planet: Exploring Digital Innovation in Wildlife Conservation,” highlights the potential of technology to advance conservation efforts.
This theme is particularly relevant in today’s digital age, where technological advances can offer novel solutions to long-standing conservation challenges.
Significance
It is an important global awareness event for the protection and conservation of animals.
It serves as a reminder of the inherent value of animals and the need to treat them with kindness, decency and respect.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/lifestyle/festivals/world-wildlife-day-2024-date-theme-history-significance-and-all-you-need-to-know-101709373292256.html
Consider the following statements regarding the International Energy Agency (IEA):
- It is an inter-governmental organization within the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).
- All member countries of United Nations are member of the IEA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the International Energy Agency said that strong GDP growth and a weak monsoon drove up India’s energy-related carbon emissions by around 190 million tonnes in 2023, though the country’s per capita emissions remain far below the global average.
International Energy Agency:
It is an autonomous inter-governmental organisation within the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) framework.
Mission: It works with governments and industry to shape a secure and sustainable energy future for all.
Background
It was created in response to the 1973-1974 oil crisis when an oil embargo by major producers pushed prices to historic levels, and exposed the vulnerability of industrialised countries to dependency on oil imports.
It was founded in 1974 to ensure the security of oil supplies.
Membership: It is made up of 31 member countries, 13 association countries, and 5 accession countries.
Criteria for membership: A candidate country to the IEA must be a member country of the OECD. In addition, it must demonstrate several requirements.
Crude oil and/or product reserves equivalent to 90 days of the previous year’s net imports, to which the government has immediate access (even if it does not own them directly) and could be used to address disruptions to global oil supply;
A demand restraint programme to reduce national oil consumption by up to 10%;
Legislation and organisation to operate the Co-ordinated Emergency Response Measures (CERM) on a national basis;
Legislation and measures to ensure that all oil companies under its jurisdiction report information upon request;
All member countries of United Nations are not member of this organization.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/gdp-growth-weak-monsoon-india-energy-carbon-emission-9192108/
Consider the following statements regarding the INS Jatayu:
- It is the Indian Naval base located in Andaman and Nicobar region.
- It aims to extend operational surveillance, reach and sustenance of Indian Navy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Indian Navy will commission Naval Detachment Minicoy as INS Jatayu in the presence of the Chief of the Naval Staff on 06 Mar 2024.
It is the second Naval base in Lakshadweep after INS Dweeprakshak in Kavaratti.
With the commissioning of INS Jatayu, the Indian Navy will strengthen its foothold in the Lakshadweep islands and along with extending operational surveillance, reach and sustenance.
It will usher in a new era of capacity building and comprehensive development of the island territories.
The event marks an important milestone in the Navy’s resolve to incrementally augment security infrastructure at the strategically important Lakshadweep Islands.
Key facts about Minicoy Island
It is the southernmost island of Lakshadweep which straddles the vital Sea Lines of Communications (SLOCs).
Naval Detachment Minicoy was set up in early 1980s under the operational command of Naval Officer-in-Charge (Lakshadweep).
Significance of the naval detachment
Basing of an independent Naval unit with requisite infrastructure and resources will enhance the overall operational capability of the Indian Navy in the islands.
The base will enhance operational reach and facilitate Indian Navy’s operational effort towards Anti-Piracy and Anti-Narcotics Operations in Western Arabian Sea. It will also augment Indian Navy’s capability as the first responder in the region and augment connectivity with the mainland.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2010884
Consider the following statements regarding the National Urban Co-operative Finance and Development Corporation:
- It is set up as an umbrella organisation for the Urban Cooperative Banks.
- It operates as a Non-Banking Finance Company.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the union Cooperation Minister launched the National Urban Co-operative Finance and Development Corporation Limited (NUCFDC).
It is the umbrella organisation for the Urban Cooperative Banks.
Aim: It aims to ensure specialized functions and services to cooperative banks, facilitate communication between banks and regulators, and address challenges faced by Urban Cooperative Banks.
Also to modernize and strengthen the Urban Cooperative Banking Sector, which will benefit both the banks and their customers.
It has received a Certificate of Registration from the Reserve Bank of India to operate as a Non-Banking Finance Company.
It will also operate as a Self-Regulatory Organisation for the sector.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://newsonair.gov.in/News?title=Home-Minister-Amit-Shah-to-inaugurate-National-Urban-Cooperative-Finance-and-Development-Corporation-in-New-Delhi&id=478300
The Nainativu Island, recently seen in news, is located in:
Palk Strait
Explanation :
Recently, the Sri Lanka Sustainable Energy Authority and Indian company signed the contract for building “Hybrid Renewable Energy Systems” in Delft or Neduntheevu, Nainativu and Analaitivu islands off Jaffna peninsula.
Nainativu Island:
It is located in the Palk Strait, the stretch of sea that separates Sri Lanka from southern India.
It’s close to the famous island of Delft (also known as Neduntheevu).
This tiny island is fairly close to the northern Sri Lankan city of Jaffna.
It is an important pilgrimage place for both Hindus and Buddhists.
Historical significance: Historians note the island is mentioned in the ancient Tamil Sangam literature where it was mentioned as Manipallavam
Nagapooshani Amman Kovil, a historic Hindu temple dedicated to the principal goddess of Tamil Hindus, Amman is located in this Island.
She is identified with the famous Tamil deity Meenakshi from Madurai from mainland India.
The Mahavamsa, which is literally the ‘Great Chronicle’, was composed by the Monk Mahanama in the 6th century A.D.
According to the chronicle the Buddha came to this Island, literally meaning ‘Serpent Island’, on his second visit to Sri Lanka, five years after attaining enlightenment.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/displacing-chinese-project-indian-firm-set-to-build-hybrid-power-systems-in-sri-lankas-northern-islands/article67903081.ece
With reference to Plaint, consider the following statements:
- It is a legal document in which the contents of a civil suit are laid out.
- It serves as the initial step in starting a lawsuit.
- It does not make any mention of evidence regarding the case.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently held that an application seeking amendment of plaint shouldn’t be allowed under Order 6 Rule 17 of CPC if the amendment alters the nature of the suit.
About Plaint:
A plaint is a legal document that contains the claims made by the plaintiff when they bring a case to a civil court. (A plaintiff is a person who brings a civil action in a court of law).
It serves as the initial step in starting a lawsuit.
In fact, in the very plaint, the contents of the civil suit are laid out.
Through such a plaint, the grievances of the plaintiff are spelled out, as well as the possible causes of action that can arise out of the suit.
A plaint which is presented to a civil court of appropriate jurisdiction contains everything, including facts to relief that the plaintiff expects to obtain.
Order VII of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) particularly deals with a plaint.
A few of the essentials of a plaint implicit in itself are those only material facts, and not all facts or the law as such is to be stated, the facts should be concise and precise, and no evidence should be mentioned.
Particulars of a Plaint (Rules 1 to 8 of Order VII of the CPC):
The name of the civil or commercial court where the lawsuit will be filed.
Information about the plaintiff, including their name, address, and description.
Details about the defendant, including their name, residence and description.
If the plaintiff has any health issues or disabilities, these should be mentioned.
The facts that give rise to the cause of action and where this cause of action occurred.
Facts that help determine the court’s jurisdiction.
Information about the relief or remedy the plaintiff is seeking from the court.
If the plaintiff wants to set off a portion of their claim, the amount allowed should be stated.
The value of the subject matter of the suit, not just for jurisdiction but also for court fees.
Verification by the plaintiff under oath.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/order-6-rule-17-cpc-amendment-of-plant-shouldnt-be-allowed-if-it-alters-nature-of-suit-supreme-court-250947
Consider the following statements regarding the Press and Registration of Periodicals Act (PRP Act), 2023:
- It provides for an online system for facilitating the registration of newspapers.
- It also includes academic books and journals under the purview of mandatory registration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The registration of newspapers and other periodicals will be governed by the provisions of the Press and Registration of Periodicals Act, 2023, and its Rules, which came into effect recently.
About Press and Registration of Periodicals Act (PRP Act), 2023:
It has replaced the colonial era Press and Registration of Books Act dating back to 1867.
The office of Press Registrar General of India – PRGI (erstwhile Registrar of Newspapers for India – RNI) shall be carrying out the purposes of the new Act.
It provides for an online system for facilitating the registration of newspapers and other periodicals in the country.
The new system replaces the existing manual, cumbersome processes involving multiple steps and approvals at various stages, which were causing unnecessary hardships to the publishers.
The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting had launched the Press Sewa Portal ((presssewa.prgi.gov.in), the online portal of the Press Registrar General, for receiving various applications as mandated by the new Act.
All applications, including the intimation by the printer of a periodical, application for registration of a facsimile edition of a foreign periodical, the application by a publisher for obtaining a certificate of registration of a periodical, application for revision of certificate of registration, application for transfer of ownership of periodicals, furnishing annual statement by the publisher of a periodical, and procedure for desk audit for verification of circulation of a periodical will be online through the Press Sewa Portal.
Accordingly, publishers intending to bring out periodicals need to register their titles before publishing them.
Notably, the PRP Act exempts books and journals from the purview of registration necessitated by the old PRB Act, focusing solely on periodicals, which are defined as publications, including newspapers, published and printed at regular intervals containing public news or commentary, but excluding scientific, technical, and academic books or journals.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/new-prp-act-2023-comes-into-effect-registration-of-periodicals-goes-online/article67907912.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Nhava Sheva Port:
- It was developed as a satellite port to relieve the Port of Mumbai from heavy congestion.
- It deals with almost half of the country’s imports and exports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Customs officials recently seized a dual-use consignment on a Karachi-bound ship at Nhava Sheva port, suspecting it could be used for Pakistan’s nuclear programs.
About Nhava Sheva Port:
The Port of Nhava Sheva lies to the east of the Port of Mumbai, about six nautical miles away across Thane Creek on the Arabian Sea.
It is also commonly known as the Jawaharlal Nehru Port, as it is run by the Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust.
It is known to be the busiest port in India and deals with almost half of the country’s imports and exports.
The Port of Nhava Sheva and the Port of Mumbai have a common entry channel that stretches about 21 kilometres (33.9 miles) and at a depth of 10.1 to 11 metres (33 to 36 feet).
The Port of Nhava Sheva was commissioned in 1989, as a satellite port to relieve the Port of Mumbai from heavy congestion.
As a small port in its early years, it only had single terminals for bulk cargos and containers.
It has since expanded to include five privately-operated port terminals for containerized cargo handling and also a facility for handling bulk liquid cargo.
It is recognized as one of the top 30 global container ports in terms of size and capacity.
Hence both statements are correct.
Newshttps://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/mumbai-news/customs-seize-karachi-bound-consignment-at-nhava-sheva-port-101709407590322.html
Consider the following statements regarding Obesity:
- It can be hereditary as numerous genes identified with adiposity and weight gain.
- A Body Mass Index (BMI) of over 10 is considered obese.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The global rate of obesity has quadrupled in children and doubled in adults since 1990, according to a new analysis published in The Lancet, a medical journal, recently.
About Obesity:
Obesity is defined by excess body fat (adipose tissue) that may impair health.
It is a long-term (chronic) health condition that progresses over time.
Causes:
Obesity is the result of an imbalance between daily energy intake and energy expenditure, resulting in excessive weight gain.
It is a multifactorial disease caused by a myriad of genetic, cultural, and societal factors.
Various genetic studies have shown that obesity is extremely heritable, with numerous genes identified with adiposity and weight gain.
Other causes of obesity include reduced physical activity, insomnia, endocrine disorders, medications, the accessibility and consumption of excess carbohydrates and high-sugar foods, and decreased energy metabolism.
Healthcare providers commonly use the Body Mass Index (BMI) to define obesity in the general population.
A BMI over 25 is considered overweight, and over 30 is obese.
Obesity is associated with cardiovascular disease, dyslipidemia, and insulin resistance, causing diabetes, stroke, gallstones, fatty liver, hypoventilation syndrome, sleep apnea, and cancers.
It is the second-most common cause of preventable death after smoking.
Obesity needs multiprong treatment strategies and may require lifelong treatment.
What is Body Mass Index (BMI)?
It is a person’s weight in kilograms divided by the square of their height in meters. For example, a BMI of 25 means 25kg/m2.
For most adults, an ideal BMI is in the 18.5 to 24.9 range.
A high BMI can indicate high body fatness.
BMI screens for weight categories that may lead to health problems, but it does not diagnose the body fatness or health of an individual.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/lifestyle/health/global-malnourishment-1-in-8-people-are-obese-101709290549657.html
The ‘SAMOA Pathway’ is related to which one of the following groupings?
Small Island Developing States (SIDS)
Explanation :
More funding is needed to support Small Island Developing States (SIDS) on the frontlines of climate change, the UN Secretary-General said recently.
About Small Island Developing States (SIDS):
SIDS are a distinct group of 39 States and 18 Associate Members of United Nations regional commissions that face unique social, economic, and environmental vulnerabilities.
The three geographical regions in which SIDS are located are: the Caribbean, the Pacific, and the Atlantic, Indian Ocean and South China Sea (AIS).
SIDS were recognized as a special case both for their environment and development at the 1992 United Nations Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.
They are highly vulnerable developing countries as they suffer from low economic diversification, often characterised by high dependence on tourism and remittances, volatility due to fluctuations in private income flows and the prices of raw materials, and debt stress situations.
For SIDS, the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)—the ocean under their control—is, on average, 28 times the country’s land mass.
Thus, for many SIDS, the majority of the natural resources they have access to come from the ocean.
UN Programmes of Action in Support of SIDS:
Barbados Programme of Action: In 1994, the Barbados Programme of Action (BPoA) prescribed specific actions that would enable SIDS to achieve sustainable development. The Conference also adopted the Barbados Declaration, a statement of political will underpinning the commitments contained in the BPoA.
Mauritius Strategy: In 2005, the Mauritius Strategy for further implementation of the BPoA was adopted to address remaining gaps in implementation.
SAMOA Pathway (2014): The SAMOA Pathway recognizes the adverse impacts of climate change and sea-level rise on SIDS’ efforts to achieve economic development, food security, disaster risk reduction, and ocean management, among other challenges.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://news.un.org/en/story/2024/03/1147177
Consider the following statements regarding the World Wildlife Day:
- It is celebrated to promote sustainable practices that can help conserve biodiversity.
- The idea of celebrating this day was first proposed by India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
World Wildlife Day is observed annually on March 3 to raise awareness about the importance of wildlife conservation.
It is celebrated to promote sustainable practices that can help conserve biodiversity and raise public awareness of the need to protect and care for animals.
It aims to raise awareness of the interconnectedness of all living things on our planet and to promote peaceful coexistence between humans and animals through activism, campaigning and education.
History
It was first proposed by Thailand to the UN General Assembly in 2013.
The idea was to set aside a day to promote awareness of wild animals and plants around the world.
The General Assembly adopted a resolution on 20 December 2013, designating March 3 as World Wildlife Day in 2014.
The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), a global agreement to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival, was signed on this day in 1973.
Theme of WWD 2024: “Connecting People and Planet: Exploring Digital Innovation in Wildlife Conservation,” highlights the potential of technology to advance conservation efforts.
This theme is particularly relevant in today’s digital age, where technological advances can offer novel solutions to long-standing conservation challenges.
Significance
It is an important global awareness event for the protection and conservation of animals.
It serves as a reminder of the inherent value of animals and the need to treat them with kindness, decency and respect.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/lifestyle/festivals/world-wildlife-day-2024-date-theme-history-significance-and-all-you-need-to-know-101709373292256.html
Consider the following statements regarding the International Energy Agency (IEA):
- It is an inter-governmental organization within the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).
- All member countries of United Nations are member of the IEA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the International Energy Agency said that strong GDP growth and a weak monsoon drove up India’s energy-related carbon emissions by around 190 million tonnes in 2023, though the country’s per capita emissions remain far below the global average.
International Energy Agency:
It is an autonomous inter-governmental organisation within the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) framework.
Mission: It works with governments and industry to shape a secure and sustainable energy future for all.
Background
It was created in response to the 1973-1974 oil crisis when an oil embargo by major producers pushed prices to historic levels, and exposed the vulnerability of industrialised countries to dependency on oil imports.
It was founded in 1974 to ensure the security of oil supplies.
Membership: It is made up of 31 member countries, 13 association countries, and 5 accession countries.
Criteria for membership: A candidate country to the IEA must be a member country of the OECD. In addition, it must demonstrate several requirements.
Crude oil and/or product reserves equivalent to 90 days of the previous year’s net imports, to which the government has immediate access (even if it does not own them directly) and could be used to address disruptions to global oil supply;
A demand restraint programme to reduce national oil consumption by up to 10%;
Legislation and organisation to operate the Co-ordinated Emergency Response Measures (CERM) on a national basis;
Legislation and measures to ensure that all oil companies under its jurisdiction report information upon request;
All member countries of United Nations are not member of this organization.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/gdp-growth-weak-monsoon-india-energy-carbon-emission-9192108/
Consider the following statements regarding the INS Jatayu:
- It is the Indian Naval base located in Andaman and Nicobar region.
- It aims to extend operational surveillance, reach and sustenance of Indian Navy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Indian Navy will commission Naval Detachment Minicoy as INS Jatayu in the presence of the Chief of the Naval Staff on 06 Mar 2024.
It is the second Naval base in Lakshadweep after INS Dweeprakshak in Kavaratti.
With the commissioning of INS Jatayu, the Indian Navy will strengthen its foothold in the Lakshadweep islands and along with extending operational surveillance, reach and sustenance.
It will usher in a new era of capacity building and comprehensive development of the island territories.
The event marks an important milestone in the Navy’s resolve to incrementally augment security infrastructure at the strategically important Lakshadweep Islands.
Key facts about Minicoy Island
It is the southernmost island of Lakshadweep which straddles the vital Sea Lines of Communications (SLOCs).
Naval Detachment Minicoy was set up in early 1980s under the operational command of Naval Officer-in-Charge (Lakshadweep).
Significance of the naval detachment
Basing of an independent Naval unit with requisite infrastructure and resources will enhance the overall operational capability of the Indian Navy in the islands.
The base will enhance operational reach and facilitate Indian Navy’s operational effort towards Anti-Piracy and Anti-Narcotics Operations in Western Arabian Sea. It will also augment Indian Navy’s capability as the first responder in the region and augment connectivity with the mainland.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2010884
Consider the following statements regarding the National Urban Co-operative Finance and Development Corporation:
- It is set up as an umbrella organisation for the Urban Cooperative Banks.
- It operates as a Non-Banking Finance Company.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the union Cooperation Minister launched the National Urban Co-operative Finance and Development Corporation Limited (NUCFDC).
It is the umbrella organisation for the Urban Cooperative Banks.
Aim: It aims to ensure specialized functions and services to cooperative banks, facilitate communication between banks and regulators, and address challenges faced by Urban Cooperative Banks.
Also to modernize and strengthen the Urban Cooperative Banking Sector, which will benefit both the banks and their customers.
It has received a Certificate of Registration from the Reserve Bank of India to operate as a Non-Banking Finance Company.
It will also operate as a Self-Regulatory Organisation for the sector.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://newsonair.gov.in/News?title=Home-Minister-Amit-Shah-to-inaugurate-National-Urban-Cooperative-Finance-and-Development-Corporation-in-New-Delhi&id=478300
The Nainativu Island, recently seen in news, is located in:
Palk Strait
Explanation :
Recently, the Sri Lanka Sustainable Energy Authority and Indian company signed the contract for building “Hybrid Renewable Energy Systems” in Delft or Neduntheevu, Nainativu and Analaitivu islands off Jaffna peninsula.
Nainativu Island:
It is located in the Palk Strait, the stretch of sea that separates Sri Lanka from southern India.
It’s close to the famous island of Delft (also known as Neduntheevu).
This tiny island is fairly close to the northern Sri Lankan city of Jaffna.
It is an important pilgrimage place for both Hindus and Buddhists.
Historical significance: Historians note the island is mentioned in the ancient Tamil Sangam literature where it was mentioned as Manipallavam
Nagapooshani Amman Kovil, a historic Hindu temple dedicated to the principal goddess of Tamil Hindus, Amman is located in this Island.
She is identified with the famous Tamil deity Meenakshi from Madurai from mainland India.
The Mahavamsa, which is literally the ‘Great Chronicle’, was composed by the Monk Mahanama in the 6th century A.D.
According to the chronicle the Buddha came to this Island, literally meaning ‘Serpent Island’, on his second visit to Sri Lanka, five years after attaining enlightenment.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/displacing-chinese-project-indian-firm-set-to-build-hybrid-power-systems-in-sri-lankas-northern-islands/article67903081.ece
The Yars Missile, recently seen in the news, is an intercontinental ballistic missile developed by which one of the following countries?
Russia
Explanation :
Russia’s defence ministry recently announced a successful test fire of Yars intercontinental ballistic nuclear missile.
About Yars Missile:
The Yars (also known as RS-24 or SS-29) is a Russian-made intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) with multiple independently targetable warheads, each capable of targeting different objectives.
Features:
It is a three-stage, solid propellant, MIRV-capable (Multiple Independently Targetable Reentry Vehicles) ICBM.
The Yars is a modified version of the Topol-M missile system.
The missile is 23 meters long and can be launched from a silo or mobile launcher.
It has a range of 10,500 km.
Launch Weight: 49600 kg
The missile can be armed with up to 10 MIRVs, each containing a thermonuclear warhead weighing 300 kilotons.
It has the capability to manoeuvre during flight and deploy both active and passive decoys, which gives Yars an advantage against modern missile defence systems.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/world-news/day-after-putins-nuke-war-warning-russia-tests-nuclear-ballistic-yars-missile-101709299152994.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the grey zone warfare activities:
- It is defined as the exploitation of operational space between peace and war to change the status quo through the use of coercive actions.
- Cyberattacks, economic coercion and election meddling are examples of grey zone warfare activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In commentaries on China and Taiwan, ‘grey zone warfare’ crops up in descriptions of Chinese actions around the island that it claims as its own.
About Grey Zone Warfare:
Grey zone warfare generally means a middle, unclear space that exists between direct conflict and peace in international relations.
It can be broadly defined as the exploitation of operational space between peace and war to change the status quo through the use of coercive actions which remain below a threshold that, in most cases, would prompt a conventional military response.
Activities characterised as grey zone warfare methods range from the use of proxies for kinetic action or change of territorial status quo through coercion to non-kinetic subversive actions such as cyberattacks, economic coercion, disinformation campaign, election meddling, and more recently, weaponisation of migrants.
There are typical aspects that tend to be present in most grey zone warfare activities.
The first is that grey zone elements remain below the threshold that would justify a military response, often through the use of non-military tools.
The second common characteristic of grey zone activities is that they unfold gradually over time rather than involving bold, all-encompassing actions to achieve objectives in one step.
The third characteristic, which applies to some but not all the activities in this sphere, is a lack of attributability. Most grey zone campaigns involve actions, whereby the aggressor aims for plausible deniability of its action.
In cases where grey zone actions are open and attributable, they are justified using extensive legal and political arguments. In addition, aggressors also recruit other countries to their point of view.
Grey zone campaigns target specific vulnerabilities in the targeted countries.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/grey-zone-warfare-meaning-examples-china-taiwan-9193251/
Consider the following statements with reference to Burkina Faso:
- It is a Western African country bordering the Atlantic Ocean.
- It was a former French colony that gained independence and became a republic with a Presidential system of government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Around 170 people were “executed” in attacks on three villages in northern Burkina Faso recently.
About Burkina Faso:
It is a landlocked country in western Africa.
As it straddles the Prime Meridian, it has territories in both the Eastern and Western Hemispheres.
Borders: It shares its borders with six other nations - Mali to the north and west, Niger to the east and Benin to the southeast, while to the south it touches Togo, Ghana, and Ivory Coast.
Capital: Ouagadougou
Geography:
It is predominantly characterized by savannahs, plateaus and low mountains in the southwest.
The northern region, known as the Sahel, is arid and desert-like.
History: Burkina Faso, previously known as Upper Volta, was once part of French West Africa since 1896. It gained independence from France in 1960 and changed its name to Burkina Faso in 1984.
Languages:
The official language of Burkina Faso is French, which is used in government and education.
There are many indigenous languages spoken throughout the country, with Moore (Mossi) being one of the most widely spoken.
Economy: It is largely based on agriculture, which employs over 80% of the workforce. It is one of the world’s poorest countries.
Government: It is a republic with a presidential system of government. It has experienced political transitions and changes in leadership over the years.
Terrorist groups, including groups affiliated with Al-Qa’ida and the Islamic State - began attacks in the country in 2016 and conducted attacks in the capital in 2016, 2017 and 2018.
By early 2023, insecurity in Burkina Faso had displaced more than 2 million people and led to significant jumps in humanitarian needs and food insecurity.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
Newshttps://www.ndtv.com/world-news/170-people-executed-in-attacks-on-3-villages-in-burkina-faso-report-5167872
Consider the following statements with reference to protoplanetary disks:
- They are common by-products of star formation, from which planets may eventually form.
- The major portion of a protoplanetary disk consists of dust particles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Observations by the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) show that a protoplanetary disk around a young star in the Orion Nebula is losing massive amounts of hydrogen each year.
About Protoplanetary Disk:
A protoplanetary disk is a disk of gas (99% by mass) and dust (1%), orbiting a newly formed star, from which planets may eventually form or be in the process of forming.
Disks are common by-products of star formation, and range in mass from 0.001 to 0.3 Solar masses (1027–1029 kg) and in size from several tens to almost 1,000 Astronomical Units (1012–1014 m).
How are they formed?
Stars form from cold interstellar molecular clouds. A molecular cloud is an interstellar cloud of gas and dust in which molecules can form, the most common of which is hydrogen (H2).
As they collapse into protostars under the force of gravity, the remaining matter forms a spinning disk.
Eventually, the star stops accreting matter, leaving the disk in orbit around it.
The leftover gas and dust inside that protoplanetary disk become the ingredients for planet formation.
Organic molecules present in the original molecular cloud become part of the protoplanetary disk and the planets that form from it.
The chemical composition of the protoplanetary disk determines the composition of the eventual planets that form from it.
Protoplanetary disks typically disperse after 2–3 million years through the coalescence of their matter into planets and photoevaporation by the stellar radiation.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
Consider the following:
- Mexico
- China
- Sudan
- Iraq
- Nigeria
How many of the above countries are members of OPEC+?`
Only four
Explanation :
OPEC+ members led by Saudi Arabia and Russia recently agreed to extend voluntary oil output cuts first announced in 2023 as part of an agreement among oil producers to boost prices following economic uncertainty.
About OPEC+:
It is a group of oil-exporting countries which meets regularly to decide how much crude oil to sell on the world market.
Origin: These nations came to an accord towards the end of 2016 “to institutionalize a framework for cooperation between OPEC and non-OPEC producing countries on a regular and sustainable basis.”
These nations aim to work together on adjusting crude oil production to bring stability to the oil market.
OPEC+ controls about 40% of global oil supplies and more than 80% of proven oil reserves.
At the core of this group are the members of OPEC (the Organization of the Oil Exporting Countries), which are mainly Middle Eastern and African countries.
Members: It comprises OPEC countries plus Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan, Russia, Mexico, Malaysia, South Sudan, Sudan and Oman.
What is the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)?
It is a permanent intergovernmental organization of oil-exporting countries.
Mission:
To coordinate and unify the petroleum policies of its member countries.
Ensure the stabilization of oil prices in the international oil markets, with a view to eliminating harmful and unnecessary fluctuations.
Formation: It was founded in Baghdad, Iraq, with the signing of an agreement in September 1960 by five countries, namely the Islamic Republic of Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela.
Currently, it has 12 members, including Algeria, Congo, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon, Libya, Nigeria and the United Arab Emirates.
Headquarters: Vienna, Austria.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/several-opec-nations-extend-oil-cuts-to-boost-prices/article67911267.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights:
- It is mandated to monitor the effective implementation of the Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009.
- Its members are appointed by the President of India for a term of 5 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights has sought action against an app for allegedly disseminating explicit and objectionable material, including content targeted at children.
It has been constituted by the Government of India, under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005.
Mandate: The Commission is mandated under section 13 of the CPCR Act, 2005 “to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.”
It is also mandated to monitor the proper and effective implementation of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012; Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 and Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009.
Composition
A chairperson who, is a person of eminence and has done outstanding work for promoting the welfare of children
Six members, out of which at least two are women, from the following fields, is appointed by the Central Government from amongst person of eminence, ability, integrity, standing and experience in Education, Child health, care, welfare or child development; Juvenile justice or care of neglected or marginalized children or children with disabilities, Elimination of child labour or children in distress, Child psychology or sociology; and Laws relating to children.
These members are appointed by the Central Government for a term of 3 years.
Nodal Ministry: It works under the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/ncpcr-seeks-action-against-app-for-distributing-obscene-content/articleshow/108184501.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Lahore Resolution:
- It was adopted by the All-India Muslim League in 1940.
- It called for an independent state for India’s Muslims.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Pakistan has decided to hold its National Day celebrations in New Delhi again this year, which is observed on March 23, the day the Lahore Resolution was adopted in 1940 by the Muslim League.
It was adopted by the All-India Muslim League during its general session in Lahore from March 22 to March 24, 1940, formally called for an independent state for India’s Muslims.
The resolution does not include the word ‘Pakistan’ anywhere.
The Lahore Resolution was criticised by many Indian Muslims, like Abul Kalam Azad and the Deoband ulema led by Husain Ahmad Madani, who advocated for a united India.
What did the Resolution say?
Geographically contiguous units are demarcated into regions which should be so constituted, with such territorial readjustments as may be necessary, that the areas in which the Muslims are numerically in a majority as in the North-Western and Eastern Zones of India, should be grouped to constitute “Independent States” in which the constituent units shall be autonomous and sovereign.”
In other parts of India where the Mussalmans are in a minority, adequate, effective and mandatory safeguards shall be specially provided in the constitution for them and other minorities for the protection of their religious, cultural, economic, political, administrative and other rights and interests in consultation with them.”
What was the lead-up to the Lahore Resolution?
Till the early 1930s, many Muslims had been agitating for better representation and safeguarding of their rights within the Indian Union, and the separate electorate granted to them in the Government of India Act, 1935, was a step towards that.
The Muslim League session was held days after the Khaksar tragedy, when members of a Muslim group called the Khaksars, fighting for India’s independence, were shot at by the British on March 19 in Lahore, killing many.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-history/pakistan-national-day-lahore-resolution-explained-9193702/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Innovations for Defence Excellence (Idex):
- It aims to cultivate an innovation ecosystem in the aerospace sector in collaboration with startups.
- It is funded and managed by the Defence Innovation Organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Innovations for Defence Excellence-Defence Innovation Organisation (iDEX-DIO), under the aegis of Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence, is organising DefConnect 2024 at Manekshaw Centre, New Delhi on March 04, 2024.
It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Defence, Government of India launched in 2018.
Objective: The objective of the scheme is to cultivate an innovation ecosystem in the Defence and Aerospace sector by collaborating with startups, innovators, MSMEs, incubators, and academia.
Funding: It will be funded and managed by a ‘Defence Innovation Organization (DIO)’ which has been formed as a ‘not for profit’ company as per the Companies Act 2013 for this purpose, by the two founder memberse. Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs) - HAL & BEL.
It functions as the executive arm of DIO, carrying out all the required activities while DIO will provide high level policy guidance to iDEX.
It offers grants and support for R&D with significant potential for future adoption in Indian defence and aerospace.
It is currently engaged with around 400+ Startups and MSMEs.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2011043
With reference to Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) 1954, consider the following:
- It covers advertisement of medicines intended for human or animal use.
- It is applicable to written and oral advertisements only.
- It extends to talismans and mantras that allegedly possess miraculous powers for healing.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Supreme Court has prohibited Patanjali Ayurved from disseminating advertisements that claim to treat medical conditions such as BP, diabetes, fevers, epilepsy, and lupus, as outlined in the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act of 1954.
It is a legislative framework to control the advertisement of drugs and prohibit claims of magical qualities in remedies.
It encompasses various forms of advertisements, including written, oral, and visual mediums.
Under the Act, the term “drug” refers to medicines intended for human or animal use, substances for diagnosis or treatment of diseases, and articles affecting the body’s functions.
Other than articles meant for consumption, the definition for “magic remedy” under this Act also extends to talismans, mantras, and charms that allegedly possess miraculous powers for healing or influencing bodily functions.
It imposes strict regulations on the publication of advertisements related to drugs.
It prohibits advertisements that give false impressions, make false claims, or are otherwise misleading.
Violations of these provisions can result in penalties, including imprisonment or fines, upon conviction.
The term “advertisement,” under the Act, extends to all notices, labels, wrappers, and oral announcements.
Who comes under the Magic Remedies Act?
The Act applies to all individuals and entities involved in the publication of advertisements, including manufacturers, distributors, and advertisers.
The Act can hold both individuals and companies accountable for contraventions.
If a company violates the act, individuals in charge of its business operations may also be deemed guilty unless they can prove lack of knowledge or demonstrate due diligence in preventing the offense.
Directors, managers, or officers of the company may also be held liable if they consented to or neglected the offense.
Punishment
Violating the Act can result in imprisonment, fines, or both.
If this is the first conviction for the violator, they may face up to six months in prison, fines or both.
For subsequent conviction, imprisonment may extend to one year, fine, or both.
The Act does not include any limits for the fines that may be imposed on individuals or organisations.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/supreme-courts-ban-on-patanjali-ads-explained/article67899090.ece
The Global Resource Outlook report is a flagship report of:
United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
Explanation :
Global Resource Outlook 2024 was launched on the final day of the Sixth United Nations Environmental Assembly (UNEA-6) at the UNEP headquarters in Nairobi, Kenya.
It is the flagship report of the International Resource Panel of United Nations Environment Programme.
This year’s report sheds light on how resources are essential to the effective implementation of the Agenda 2030 and multilateral environmental agreements to tackle the triple planetary crisis.
It brings together the best available data, modelling and assessments from 180 countries, seven world regions and four income groups, to analyse trends, impacts and distributional effects of resource use.
Highlights of the report
It presents a stark picture of global inequality, where low-income countries consume six times less materials compared to wealthy countries, despite generating 10 times less climate impacts.
Global production and consumption of material resources has grown more than three times over the last 50 years, growing at an average of more than 2.3 per cent a year, despite the increase being the main driver of the triple planetary crisis.
The consumption and use of resources is largely driven by demand in upper income countries.
The extraction and processing of material resources — including fossil fuels, minerals, non-metallic minerals and biomass — accounts for over 55 per cent of greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions and 40 per cent of particulate matter poisoning the environment.
The extraction and processing of agricultural crops and forestry products accounts for 90 per cent of land-related biodiversity loss and water stress and a third of GHG emissions.
The extraction and processing of fossil fuels, metals and non-metallic minerals including sand, gravel and clay account for 35 per cent of global emissions.
Despite this, resource exploitation could increase by almost 60 per cent from 2020 levels by 2060 — from 100 to 160 billion tonnes.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/environment/unea-6-extraction-use-of-world-s-resources-has-grown-three-times-more-in-50-years-94766
Where will be Project Seabird, India’s largest naval infrastructure project, located?
Karwar, Karnataka
Explanation :
The Defence Minister will inaugurate two big piers and seven towers with 320 homes for Navy officers and Defence civilians as part of Project Seabird at Naval Base Karwar in Karnataka.
About Project Seabird:
The largest naval infrastructure project for India, it involves the creation of a naval base at Karwar, Karnataka, on the west coast of India.
History:
In the post-Indo-Pak War of 1971 scenario, India learned that the Indian Navy needs an additional naval base since Mumbai Harbour faced congestion, which led to security issues for its Western Fleet.
The project was originally conceived by Admiral OS Dawson, the Chief of Naval Staff, in the early 1980s.
It was initially sanctioned in 1985, and the foundation stone was laid on October 24, 1986, by Rajiv Gandhi.
This is a massive project spread over around 11,000 acres of land. With the first sealift facility in the country and a transfer system for docking and undocking ships and submarines.
Its first phase, which included the construction of a deep-sea harbour, breakwaters dredging, a township, a naval hospital, a dockyard uplift centre and a ship lift, was commissioned in 2005.
The development of phase 2 of INS Kadamba commenced in 2011.
This phase is further divided into 2A and 2B. It was planned to expand the facilities to dock additional warships and a new Naval Air Station, among other projects.
Once completed, it will be the largest naval base in the Eastern Hemisphere.
It will be able to accommodate around 32 warships, 23 submarines, and hangers for several aircraft.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://newsonair.gov.in/News?title=Defence-Minister-Rajnath-Singh-to-Inaugurate-Key-Infrastructure-at-Naval-Base-Karwar-for-Project-Seabird-Expansion&id=478441
Consider the following statements with reference to the Women, Business and Law Index:
- It is a World Bank index measuring the enabling environment for women’s economic opportunity.
- India is ranked within the top fifty countries in the 2024 index.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India’s rank improved to 113 out of 190 countries in the World Bank’s Women, Business and Law index.
About Women, Business and Law Index:
It is a World Bank index measuring the enabling environment for women’s economic opportunity in 190 economies.
The index measures how laws and regulations affect women’s economic opportunity on a scale from 0 to 100, where 100 means equal legal rights for men and women.
The report covers eight related areas: Mobility, workplace, pay, marriage, parenthood, entrepreneurship, assets, and pension.
The data offer objective and measurable benchmarks for evaluating global progress toward legal gender equality.
It demonstrates the progress made while emphasising the work still to be done to ensure economic empowerment for all.
Highlights of 2024 Index:
It is the 10th edition of the report.
Globally, none of the countries has a full score in the new index, indicating that women did not enjoy equal rights in any of the countries.
India’s ranking improved to 113 out of 190 countries.
Indian women enjoyed 60% of the legal rights given to men as per the new report, lower than the global average of 64.2%.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/india-ranks-113-out-of-190-countries-in-the-world-banks-legal-gender-gap-index/articleshow/108212920.cms?from=mdr
Which of the following best describes the ‘Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS)’?
A process that captures CO2 emissions from large point sources and stores them underground.
Explanation :
Germany recently announced that it would allow carbon capture and off-shore storage for certain industrial sectors.
About is Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS):
CCS refers to a host of different technologies that capture CO2 emissions from large point sources like refineries or power plants and trap them beneath the Earth.
Notably, CCS is different from Carbon dioxide Removal (CDR), where CO2 is removed from the atmosphere.
It’s a three-step process, involving: capturing the carbon dioxide produced by power generation or industrial activity, such as steel or cement making; transporting it; and then storing it deep underground.
CCS involves three different techniques of capturing carbon, including post-combustion, pre-combustion, and oxyfuel combustion.
In post-combustion, CO2 is removed after the fossil fuel has been burnt. By using a chemical solvent, CO2 is separated from the exhaust or ‘flue’ gases and then captured.
Pre-combustion involves removing CO2 before burning the fossil fuel. First, the fossil fuel is partially burned in a ‘gasifier’ to form synthetic gas. CO2 can be captured from this relatively pure exhaust stream. The method also generates hydrogen, which is separated and can be used as fuel.
In oxyfuel combustion, the fossil fuel is burnt with almost pure oxygen, which produces CO2 and water vapour. The water is condensed through cooling, and CO2 is separated and captured.
Out of the three methods, oxyfuel combustion is the most efficient, but the oxygen burning process needs a lot of energy.
After capture, CO2 is compressed into a liquid state and transported to suitable storage sites.
Possible storage sites for carbon emissions include saline aquifers or depleted oil and gas reservoirs.
There are also only a few operational CCS projects across the world, even though the technology has been pushed for decades.
According to the International Energy Agency (IEA), there were 40 operational CCS projects in 2023, which captured more than 45 metric tonnes (Mt) of CO2 annually.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/what-carbon-capture-climate-change-9195282/
With reference to Copper Age, consider the following statements:
- It was a transitional phase from the Neolithic period to the Bronze Age.
- It is characterized by the emergence of metallurgy along with stone tools.
- It coincides with the beginnings of the development of agriculture and long-distance trade.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Archaeologists in Italy recently made a remarkable discovery of a 5,000-year-old cemetery that belonged to a Copper Age society.
About Copper Age:
The Copper Age, or Chalcolithic time period, is a period that spans from about 5,000 to 2,000 years ago, depending on the region.
It was a transitional phase from the Neolithic period (the New Stone Age) to the Bronze Age.
Features:
It is characterized by the emergence of metallurgy, especially the use of copper, along with stone tools.
It coincides with the beginnings of craft specialization, the development of agriculture, long-distance trade, and increased sociopolitical complexity.
Farmers typically raised domestic animals such as sheep-goats, cattle, and pigs, a diet supplemented by hunting and fishing.
Crops grown by Chalcolithic farmers included barley, wheat, and pulses.
A main identifying characteristic of the Chalcolithic period is polychrome painted pottery.
Houses built by Chalcolithic farmers were constructed of stone or mudbrick.
One characteristic pattern is a chain building, a row of rectangular houses connected to one another by shared party walls on the short ends.
Another pattern, seen in larger settlements, is a set of rooms around a central courtyard, which may have facilitated the same sort of social arrangement.
In archaeology, the first signs of massacres, battles, and warrior burials begin appearing with the rise of the Copper Age.
By the end of the Copper Age, people discovered that by adding tin to copper, a stronger and more durable metal could be created: bronze. From that point on, the Bronze Age begins.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/5000-year-old-copper-age-cemetery-discovered-in-italy/articleshow/108214039.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Human Papillomavirus (HPV) Vaccination:
- It prevents HPV infections that can progress to cancer or genital warts.
- The HPV vaccination is more efficacious if given between the age group of 0-5 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Every year, March 4 is observed as International HPV Awareness Day.
What is Human Papillomavirus (HPV)?
HPV is a group of more than 200 related viruses, of which more than 40 are spread through direct sexual contact.
Among these, two HPV types cause genital warts, and about a dozen HPV types can cause certain types of cancer.
More than 95% of cervical cancer is caused by the HPV virus.
Transmission:
It is the most common Sexually Transmitted Infection (STI) globally.
It also spreads through skin-to-skin contact.
Once infected, most people do not develop any symptoms, thereby not being aware that they have the virus.
Most of the time, the body can find and clear out HPV. But if the virus stays in the body for a long time, it can cause cancer.
Getting vaccinated against HPV helps prevent cancer in men and women.
HPV Vaccination:
The HPV vaccine is a series of shots that can protect you from an HPV infection.
It prevents HPV infections that can progress to cancer or genital warts.
It is more efficacious if given between the age group of 9-26 years.
Once a person gets HPV, the vaccine may not be as effective.
The HPV vaccine isn’t given during pregnancy.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/a-vaccine-that-prevents-six-cancers/article67913312.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the ADITI Scheme:
- It is a scheme to promote innovations in critical and strategic defence technologies.
- Under this scheme, startups are given grant-in-aid of up to Rs 25 crore.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister of Defence launched the ADITI scheme during DefConnect 2024 in New Delhi.
Acing Development of Innovative Technologies with iDEX (ADITI) is a scheme to promote innovations in critical and strategic defence technologies.
Aim: It aims to develop about 30 deep-tech critical and strategic technologies in the proposed timeframe.
Eligibility: Under the scheme, start-ups are eligible to receive grant-in-aid of up to Rs 25 crore for their research, development, and innovation endeavours in defence technology.
The scheme will nurture the innovation of youth and help the country leap forward in the field of technology.
Time period: This scheme worth Rs 750 crore for the period 2023-24 to 2025-26.
It falls under the iDEX (Innovations for Defence Excellence) framework of the Department of Defence Production (DDP), Ministry of Defence.
It also envisages creating a ‘Technology Watch Tool’ to bridge the gap between the expectations and requirements of the modern Armed Forces and the capabilities of the defence innovation ecosystem.
In the first edition of ADITI, 17 challenges – Indian Army (3), Indian Navy (5), Indian Air Force (5) and Defence Space Agency (4) - have been launched.
To motivate young innovators, iDEX was expanded to iDEX Prime, with the assistance increasing from Rs 1.5 crore to Rs 10 crore.
The idea behind the schemes/initiatives such as ADITI, iDEX, iDEX Prime is to also transform India into a knowledge society.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2011171
Consider the following statements with reference the Digital Intelligence Platform:
- It contains information regarding the cases detected as misuse of telecom resources.
- It is developed by the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Minister of Communications, Railway, and Electronics & Information Technology Chauhan launched the Department of Telecommunications (DoT)’s ‘Digital Intelligence Platform (DIP)’ and ‘Chakshu facility on Sanchar Saathi portal.
It is developed by the Department of Telecommunications (Ministry of Communication). It is a secure and integrated platform for real time intelligence sharing, information exchange and coordination among the stakeholders, Telecom Service Providers (TSPs), Law Enforcement Agencies (LEAs), banks and Financial Institutions (FIs), social media platforms, identity document issuing authorities etc.
The portal also contains information regarding the cases detected as misuse of telecom resources.
The shared information could be useful to the stakeholders in their respective domains.
It also works as backend repository for the citizen-initiated requests on the Sanchar Saathi portal for action by the stakeholders.
The DIP is accessible to the stakeholders over secure connectivity and the relevant information is shared based on their respective roles. The said platform is not accessible to citizens.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2011383
Consider the following statements with reference to the Cavum clouds:
- These are known as hole-punched clouds.
- These are formed when aeroplanes pass through layers of cumulonimbus clouds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) shared captivating pictures of clouds on a social media platform, showcasing the breathtaking view of Cavum clouds as seen from space.
These clouds are also known as “hole-punch clouds or fallstreak holes.”
How are Cavum clouds formed?
These are formed when aeroplanes pass through layers of altocumulus clouds, which are mid-level clouds containing supercooled water droplets (water below freezing temperature but still in liquid form).
As the aircraft moves through, a process known as adiabatic expansion can cause the water droplets to freeze into ice crystals.
These ice crystals eventually become too heavy and fall out of the cloud layer, creating a hole in the clouds.
These “mysterious clouds” has been ongoing for over 13 years.
They are formed when planes pass through at a relatively steep angle.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/science/nasa-satellite-captures-odd-holes-in-clouds-caused-by-aeroplanes-explained-101709455977290.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Risa Textile:
- It is a hand-woven cloth used as headgear in Tripura.
- It is presented as a mark of honour to distinguished recipients.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Tripura’s traditional tribal attire ‘risa’ gets received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag recently.
It is a handwoven cloth used as a female upper garment, and also as headgear, a stole, or a present to express respect.
It is woven in colourful designs and has a crucial social and religious significance.
Adolescent Tripuri girls are first given a risa to wear in an event called Risa Sormani, at age 12 to 14.
Religious relevance: The risa is used in religious festivals such as Garia Puja by tribal communities, a turban by men during weddings and festivals, a cummerbund over the dhoti, a head scarf by young girls and boys, and a muffler during winters.
The cloth is also used as a makeshift hanger to hold an infant on mothers’ backs.
It is presented as a mark of honour to distinguished recipients.
Risa is common in almost all 19 indigenous tribal communities of Tripura.
The traditional Tripuri female attire consists of three parts — risa, rignai and rikutu.
Risa is a handwoven cloth used as a female upper garment.
Rignai is primarily worn as the lower garment and literally means ‘to wear’.
Rituku is mainly used as a wrap, or like a ‘chunri’ or a ‘pallu’ of the Indian saree. It is also used to cover the heads of newly married Tripuri women.
The complete Tripuri attire is claimed to have originated even before the time of the Manikya kings, who ruled Tripura for over 500 years starting from the 15th century.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/tripura-traditional-attire-risa-gi-tag-manik-saha-9193575/lite/
With reference to Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor, consider the following statements:
- It produces more nuclear fuel than it consumes.
- It uses the Uranium-Plutonium Mixed Oxide (MOX) fuel.
- It is designed and constructed indigenously by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India witnessed the start of the process of core-loading the indigenous Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) at the Madras Atomic Power Station in Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu.
It is a machine that produces more nuclear fuel than it consumes.
Fuel: The Fast Breeder Reactor (FBR) will initially use the Uranium-Plutonium Mixed Oxide (MOX) fuel.
The Uranium-238 “blanket” surrounding the fuel core will undergo nuclear transmutation to produce more fuel, thus earning the name ‘Breeder’.
The use of Throium-232, which in itself is not a fissile material, as a blanket is also envisaged in this stage.
By transmutation, Thorium will create fissile Uranium-233 which will be used as fuel in the third stage.
Coolant: It uses liquid sodium, a highly reactive substance, as coolant in two circuits. Coolant in the first circuit enters the reactor and leaves with (heat) energy and radioactivity. Via heat-exchangers, it transfers only the heat to the coolant in a secondary circuit.
The latter transfers the heat to generators to produce electricity.
In terms of safety, the PFBR is an advanced third generation reactor with inherent passive safety features ensuring a prompt and safe shut down of the plant in the event of an emergency.
It has been fully designed and constructed indigenously by Bhartiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Ltd (BHAVINI) with significant contribution from more than 200 Indian industries including MSMEs.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/prototype-fast-breeder-reactor-stage-2-nuclear-programme-thorium/article67912583.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Begonia Narahari, recently seen in the news:
- It is a newly discovered species of flowering plant endemic to the Western Ghats.
- It is classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Researchers recently discovered a new flowering plant species in Arunachal Pradesh, named Begonia Narahari.
About Begonia Narahari:
It is a newly discovered species of flowering plant in the Begonia genus from the Begoniaceae family.
The species, named naraharii, pays tribute to former CSIR-Northeast Institute of Science and Technology (NEIST) director Prof. Garikapati Narahari Sastry in recognition of his significant contributions to establishing the Germplasm Conservation Centre for the Bioresources of Northeast and his commitment to the well-being of the northeastern region.
Begonia Narahari stands out for its vivid blue iridescence under direct light, a distinctive feature that aids in its identification alongside comparisons with related species.
As of now, Begonia naraharii is known only from the Demwe locality in the Lohit district of Arunachal Pradesh.
Due to limited information on its global population, the species is provisionally classified as Data Deficient (DD) following IUCN species assessment guidelines.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://bnnbreaking.com/world/india/breakthrough-in-botany-new-begonia-species-discovered-in-arunachal-pradesh-by-ustm-and-csir-neist-researchers
What is the primary function of the RAD51 recombinase (RAD51) gene?
Homologous recombination and DNA repair
Explanation :
Researchers recently identified the RAD51 protein as a key player in preventing DNA re-replication.
About RAD51:
RAD51 recombinase (RAD51) is a gene that encodes a protein that functions in homologous recombination and DNA repair.
RAD51 has the function of finding and invading homologous DNA sequences to enable accurate and timely DNA repair.
Breaks in DNA can be caused by natural and medical radiation or other environmental exposures and also occur when chromosomes exchange genetic material in preparation for cell division.
The RAD51 protein binds to the DNA at the site of a break and encases it in a protein sheath, which is an essential first step in the repair process.
In the nucleus of many types of normal cells, the RAD51 protein interacts with many other proteins, including BRCA1 and BRCA2, to fix damaged DNA.
The BRCA2 protein regulates the activity of the RAD51 protein by transporting it to sites of DNA damage in the nucleus.
The interaction between the BRCA1 protein and the RAD51 protein is less clear, although research suggests that BRCA1 may also activate RAD51 in response to DNA damage.
By helping repair DNA, these three proteins play a role in maintaining the stability of a cell’s genetic information.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.news-medical.net/news/20240304/RAD51-protein-identified-as-a-key-player-in-preventing-DNA-re-replication.aspx
Consider the following statements with reference to the LEAPS (Logistics Excellence, Advancement and Performance Shield) Initiative:
- It is a flagship initiative by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
- Only established MSMEs in the logistics sector are eligible to be recognized under the initiative.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry, organised a LEAPS Valedictory Session in New Delhi recently.
About LEAPS (Logistics Excellence, Advancement and Performance Shield) Initiative:
It is a flagship initiative by the logistics division of DPIIT, Ministry of Commerce and Industry, designed to acknowledge and celebrate the best practices and innovations within the logistics industry.
It would celebrate the demonstrated leadership of the logistics sector in transforming the Indian logistics industry and realizing the combined vision of the National Logistics Policy 2022 and PM GatiShakti.
The National Logistics Policy was introduced to create a single-window e-logistics market, focusing on the need for skill development, economic growth, and competitiveness in the logistics sector. It aims to reduce logistics costs, improve India’s ranking in the Logistics Performance Index, and establish a data-driven decision support mechanism.
The PM Gati Shakti Programme aims to understand current gaps in logistics connectivity and facilitate the development of logistics infrastructure (creating connectivity between roadways, rail transport, waterways, and air transport) so as to reduce logistics costs. The programme has an estimated cost of ₹100 trillion.
LEAPS will create a new benchmark globally by not only recognizing players in the logistics sector, but also the MSMEs, Startups and logistics sector enablers who have been providing innovative solutions across the logistics ecosystem.
From air and sea freight service providers to educational institutions contributing to skill development in logistics, the awards span a broad spectrum of the industry.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2011584
With reference to total solar eclipse, consider the following statements:
- It is a condition when the Moon passes between the Sun and the Earth and completely blocks the Sun’s disk.
- The Sun’s corona is exclusively visible during a solar eclipse.
- It will be marked by a sudden increase in air temperatures.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A total solar eclipse will make the Sun disappear on April 8, 2024, as the world will witness a rare celestial event graze through the skies.
About Total Solar Eclipse:
A total solar eclipse is a condition when the Moon passes between the Sun and the Earth and completely blocks the Sun’s disk, casting a huge shadow on the surface.
People viewing the eclipse from locations where the Moon’s shadow completely covers the Sun–known as the path of totality–will experience a total solar eclipse.
As per NASA, during this timeframe, the sky will darken, resembling the onset of dawn or dusk.
Weather permitting, individuals along the path of totality will have the opportunity to observe the Sun’s corona, its outer atmosphere typically obscured by the Sun’s bright face.
The Sun’s corona, the outermost layer of its atmosphere extending millions of kilometers into space, is exclusively visible during a solar eclipse. Appearing as a faint, pearly-white halo encircling the darkened disk of the Sun, it becomes observable only during this celestial event.
This solar eclipse will be characterised by a phenomenon known as totality - a condition when viewers may be able to see the chromosphere (a region of the solar atmosphere, appearing as the thin circle of pink around the Moon) along with the corona.
The totality will offer a rare view where you can momentarily see the stars during the time as the surroundings go completely dark.
It will also be marked by a dip in air temperatures.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/what-is-total-solar-eclipse-that-will-make-the-sun-disappear-in-april-2510412-2024-03-05
Consider the following statements regarding Holistic Progress Card (HPC), recently seen in the news:
- It was developed to provide a comprehensive view of students’ academic performance in Higher Education Institutions.
- It promotes a shift from summative to formative assessment, fostering competency-based evaluation and holistic growth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The traditional report cards students receive in schools are set to undergo a major change, with the National Council for Educational and Research Training (NCERT) introducing a new ‘holistic progress card’ (HPC).
About Holistic Progress Card (HPC):
HPC, developed by Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development (PARAKH), a standard-setting body under the NCERT, for the foundational stage (Classes 1 and 2), preparatory stage (Classes 3 to 5), and middle stage (Classes 6 to 8), as per suggestions by the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, marks a paradigm shift in assessing students’ overall progress.
HPC incorporates feedback from parents, classmates, and even self-evaluation by students.
The approach aims to provide a comprehensive view of students’ academic performance, cognitive abilities, socio-emotional skills, and creativity during class activities.
HPC aligns with the National Curriculum Framework for School Education (NCFSE) to prioritise a learner-centric evaluation.
Features:
HPC, will no longer depend on marks or grades to evaluate a student’s academic performance. Instead, it will rely on a 360-degree evaluation.
Under the HPC model, the students will be regularly assessed through class activities where they are not just passive learners but active agents.
The activities will prompt students to apply diverse skills and competencies that will demonstrate whether they have been able to grasp concepts.
The difficulty level they experience while performing a task will also be assessed.
Teachers, thus, will be able to register the strengths of a student, such as their ability to “collaborate”, “follow instructions”, show “creativity” or “empathy”, etc.
Similarly, weaknesses like “lack of attention”, “peer pressure”, “lack of preparation” will help teachers identify areas where students need help.
A key feature of the HPC is that students will have a say too, evaluating their own as well as their classmates’ performance.
It encourages students to reflect on their progress through statements such as “I learned something new” or “I expressed my creativity.”
At the middle stage (Classes 6 to 8), students are prompted to set academic and personal goals.
An “ambition card” allows students to outline their aspirations, areas for improvement, and the necessary skills and habits to fulfill their ambitions.
The HPC seeks to involve parents in the learning process, integrating their insights on homework, classroom engagement, and balancing screen time with extracurricular activities.
Peer evaluation is also a key element, with students assessing their classmates’ contributions to activities.
Benefits:
The HPC goes beyond numerical grades, focusing on descriptive and analytical evaluations that encompass academic achievements as well as the development of critical skills in a child.
It promotes a shift from summative to formative assessment, fostering competency-based evaluation and holistic growth.
Additionally, it seeks to provide teachers and parents with insights to support each student in learning.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/holistic-progress-card-ncert-explained-9197296/
Consider the following statements with reference to the ‘e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi’ Platform:
- It is a digital platform of the Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority.
- It helps to mitigate distress sales of crops by providing farmers with viable post-harvest storage options.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister for Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution, Commerce and Industry and Textiles launched ‘e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi’ (Digital Gateway) in New Delhi.
It is a digital gateway of the Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA).
It is the initiative with its simplified digital process can ease the procedure of farmers’ storage at any registered WDRA warehouse for a period of 6 months at 7% interest per annum.
This digital intervention is poised to mitigate distress sales by providing farmers with viable post-harvest storage options.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2011283
Consider the following statements with reference to the Cycas circinalis:
- It is a palm-like tree that originated during the Carboniferous period.
- It is mainly found in the Western Himalayan Region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Cycas circinalis is on the verge of extinction in the northern part of the Kerala State after being hit by an unknown and fast spreading plant disease.
It is popularly known as Eenthu Pana in Kerala.
It is known by different names like Mund isalu (Kannada), madana kama raja (Tamil) and Malabari supari (Marathi).
These are cycads (family Cycadaceae) which are one of the world’s most threatened plant groups.
These family trees have originated 300 million years ago during the Carboniferous period, cycads are the oldest extant group of seed plants.
Features
It is an evergreen palm-like tree that grows up to 25 ft.
It typically occurs in fairly dense, seasonally dry scrubby woodlands in hilly areas.
It is also facultative deciduous in extremely dry times.
Eenthu Pana is like areca nut. It cannot be prepared unless it’s completely dry and this is difficult as it’s usually plucked in the rainy season.
They bear fruits after 40 to 50 years in most cases.
Geographical distribution: It is known to be an Indian endemic, restricted to the Western Ghats, in the states of Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and the south of Maharashtra.
Out of the nine species of cycads recognised within India, six are endemic.
Applications: It is a nutraceutical plant for several indigenous communities in the Western Ghats.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/rare-tree-fights-a-losing-battle-in-north-kerala/article67909889.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the MethaneSAT:
- It is a satellite that tracks and measures methane emissions at a global scale.
- It is developed by the European Space Agency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the MethaneSAT satellite was launched aboard a SpaceX Falcon9 rocket from California.
It will track and measure methane emissions at a global scale.
It will provide more details and have a much wider field of view than any of its predecessors.
The entity behind MethaneSAT is the Environmental Defense Fund (EDF) — a US-based nonprofit environmental advocacy group.
It is developed in collaboration with Harvard University, the Smithsonian Astrophysical Observatory, and the New Zealand Space Agency.
It will orbit the Earth 15 times a day, monitoring the oil and gas sector.
It will create a large amount of data, which will tell “how much methane is coming from where, who’s responsible, and are those emissions going up or down over time”,
The data collected by this will be made public for free in near real-time. This will allow stakeholders and regulators to take action to reduce methane emissions.
Features
It is equipped with a high-resolution infrared sensor and a spectrometer.
It can track differences in methane concentrations as small as three parts per billion in the atmosphere, which enables it to pick up smaller emissions sources than the previous satellites.
It also has a wide-camera view — of about 200 km by 200 km — allowing it to identify larger emitters so-called “super emitters”.
The collected data will be analysed using cloud-computing and AI technology developed by Google — the company is a mission partner — and the data will be made public through Google’s Earth Engine platform.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/methanesat-satellite-methane-emmissions-9197297/
Claude 3, recently seen in news, is a:
large language model
Explanation :
Recently, Artificial Intelligence start-up Anthropic announced its latest family of AI models called Claude 3.
Claude is a group of Large Language Models (LLMs) developed by Anthropic.
The chatbot is capable of handling text, voice messages, and documents and is capable of generating faster, contextual responses compared to its peers.
The family includes three state-of-the-art AI models in the ascending order of capabilities – Claude 3 Haiku, Claude 3 Sonnet, and Claude 3 Opus.
Each model offers an increasingly powerful performance, offering a balance between intelligence, speed, and cost based on their specific use case.
Among the new releases, Claude 3 Opus is the most powerful model, Claude 3 Sonnet is the middle model that is capable and price competitive, and Claude 3 Haiku is relevant for any use case that requires instant responses.
How to access these models?
Claude Sonnet powers the Claude.ai chatbot for free at present and users only need an email sign-in.
However, Opus is only available through Anthropic’s web chat interface and if a user is subscribed to the Claude Pro service on the Anthropic website.
All new models come with a 2,00,000-token window, signifying possibly better performance, accuracy and the capacity to input more information in a user prompt.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/anthropic-new-claude-3-ai-model-comparison-gpt-9197032/
With reference to UDGAM Portal, consider the following:
- It is developed by the Reserve Bank of India.
- It facilitates the registered users to search unclaimed deposits across multiple banks at one place.
- It provides information related to both individuals and non-individuals category unclaimed deposit.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, the Reserve Bank of India said 30 banks are facilitating people to search their unclaimed deposits/accounts through UDGAM portal.
UDGAM refers to Unclaimed Deposits-Gateway to Access inforMation, which is an online portal developed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
It facilitates the registered users to search unclaimed deposits/accounts across multiple banks at one place in a centralised manner.
There are 30 banks, which are part of UDGAM portal, and they cover around 90% of unclaimed deposits (in value terms) in Depositor Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund of RBI.
All unclaimed deposits/accounts that are part of Depositor Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund of RBI.
This portal provides information related to both individuals and non-individuals category unclaimed deposits.
Individuals: For searching unclaimed deposits in individual category, a user has to provide inputs such as name of the account holder, name of the bank (one or more banks can be selected) and any one or more of the five inputs viz., Permanent Account Number (PAN), Driving License Number, Voter ID Number, Passport Number and Date of Birth of the account holder.
Non-Individuals: For searching unclaimed deposits in non-individual category, a user has to provide inputs such as name of the entity, name of the bank (one or more banks can be selected) and any one or more of the four inputs viz., Name of the authorised signatory, PAN, Corporate Identification Number (CIN) and Date of Incorporation.
It facilitates only the search of unclaimed deposits/accounts across multiple banks at one place and provides information on claim/settlement process of each bank.
The unclaimed deposits can be claimed only from the respective bank.
After registration on the portal a person will get Unclaimed Deposit Reference Number (UDRN) which is a unique number generated through Core Banking Solution (CBS) by banks and assigned to each Unclaimed account/ deposit transferred to Depositor Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund of RBI.
This number is used so that the account holder or the bank branch where account is maintained, cannot be identified by any third party.
The UDRN enables the bank branches to seamlessly settle claims received from the customers/depositors, who have made successful search in UDGAM portal.
Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/banking/finance/banking/30-banks-join-rbi-udgam-portal-for-unclaimed-deposits/articleshow/108243139.cms
Fourier’s Law, recently seen in news, is related to:
Law of heat conduction
Explanation :
Scientists have discovered an exception to a 200-year-old Fourier’s Law that governs how heat diffuses through solid materials.
About Fourier’s Law:
Fourier’s law, or Law of Heat Conduction, describes how heat is transferred, or conducted, through solid materials.
As molecules vibrate and electrons shuttle about, the heat diffuses from the hotter end of an object to the colder end.
It states that the rate of heat conduction through a plane layer is proportional to the temperature gradient across the layer and the heat transfer area of the layer.
Basically, it is an empirical relation between the rate of heat conduction, heat transfer, and temperature gradient in the direction of heat flow.
Formula: q = - k▽T, where,
q is the heat flux, which is expressed as energy per unit area per unit time.
k is the heat conductivity coefficient (thermal conductivity). The dimension is area per unit time, so typical units for expressing it would be m2/s.
∇T is the temperature gradient (K/m).
The thermal conductivity of the material (k) is also known as the proportionality constant that is obtained in the formula. A high value of k denotes that the material is a good thermal conductor, and easily transfers energy through it.
What is Conduction?
Conduction is the process by which heat energy is transmitted through collisions between neighboring atoms or molecules.
Conduction occurs more readily in solids and liquids, where the particles are closer together than in gases, where particles are further apart.
Anything that involves direct physical contact to transfer heat is an example of conduction.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.sciencealert.com/startling-exception-discovered-to-200-year-old-law-of-physics
Where is Rupa Tarakasi, a renowned silver craft, predominantly practised?
Cuttack
Explanation :
The famous silver filigree (Rupa Tarakasi) of the millennium Cuttack city in Odisha recently received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
About Rupa Tarakasi:
It is one of the most exquisite silver crafts.
This centuries-old, sophisticated craft is practised in the silver city of Cuttack, Odisha.
Origin:
While the exact origin of the filigree art in Cuttack is not clear, it is known to have existed as far back as the 12th century.
The art form received considerable patronage under the Mughals.
Over the years, as Cuttack transitioned through the hands of different rulers, the silver filigree took on a new form with each.
Process:
In this work of craft, silver bricks are transformed into thin, fine wires (tara) or foils, from which silver filigree is made with all designs (kasi).
While different grades of silver are used in the main metal alloy, the craftsmen also use other metals like copper, zinc, cadmium, and tin.
The artists involved with this filigree work are called “Rupa Banias” or “Roupyakaras” (in Odia).
This craftsmanship extends to creating various items, including jewellery worn by Odissi dancers, decorative artifacts, accessories, and religious and cultural pieces.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.telegraphindia.com/india/odisha-cuttack-citys-silver-filigree-receives-geographical-indication-tag/cid/2004527
With reference to the Dying Declaration under the Indian Evidence Act 1872, consider the following statements:
- It is admissible as evidence in all proceedings, civil or criminal.
- It should be given in writing only and must clearly convey the person’s intention.
- Only a magistrate can record a dying declaration.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently held that the conviction of the accused can be sustained solely based on the dying declaration if the declaration made by the victim inspires the confidence of the court and proves to be trustworthy.
About Dying Declaration:
A Dying Declaration is a statement made by a person who is dead. It is dealt with under clause (1) of Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act 1872.
Generally, it relates to the cause of death of the declarant. It is admissible as evidence in all proceedings, civil or criminal.
The reason behind this can be followed by the Latin maxim ‘Nemo Mariturus Presumuntur Mentri’ which means that “Man Will Not Meet His Maker with Lying on His Mouth”.
Format:
There is no specific format required for a dying declaration. It can be given orally, in writing, through gestures or signs, by a thumb impression, or even in the form of a question and answer.
However, the statement must clearly and assertively convey the person’s intention. Ideally, a written declaration should be recorded using the exact words stated by the person making the statement.
In cases where a magistrate records the dying declaration, it is usually done in a question-and-answer format. This allows the magistrate to gather maximum relevant information accurately.
Who can record a Dying Declaration?
The best form of declaration of dying would be the one recorded by the Magistrate.
However, according to the Supreme Court’s guidelines, anyone can record the dying statement.
A dying statement can also be recorded by public servants or by a doctor as well, where the victim is hospitalized.
Evidentiary Value:
A dying declaration carries significant weight in legal proceedings and can serve as the sole basis for a conviction without the need for additional corroborating evidence.
However, the court must ensure that the statement of the deceased was not influenced, coached, or a result of imagination.
It must also ascertain that the deceased was of sound mind and had a clear opportunity to observe and identify the assailants.
If the person making the dying statement is likely to live, his statement is inadmissible as a dying statement.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/conviction-can-be-solely-based-on-dying-declaration-if-it-inspires-confidence-supreme-court-251436
Consider the following statements with reference to Section 319 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC):
- It confers power on the Court to proceed against persons, other than those named as accused in the chargesheet.
- The court can exercise power under this Section on its own.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Supreme Court of India recently rendered a landmark judgment clarifying the exercise of discretionary powers under Section 319 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).
About Section 319 of the CrPC:
This Section confers power on the Court to proceed against persons, other than those named as accused in the chargesheet, appearing to be guilty of offence.
Section 319 CrPC finds its roots in this powerful doctrine, “Judex damnatur cum nocens absolvitor”, which means the judge is condemned when the guilty is acquitted.
It conveys the significant principle that a wrongdoer must not be spared from the hands of justice.
Essentials of Section 319 CrPC:
Additional Accused Persons: Section 319 empowers the court to summon and try other persons, in addition to those already named as accused in the case, if it appears that they have also committed the offence being tried.
Evidence During Trial: The court can exercise this power either on its own or based on an application by the prosecution or the defense. This means that if during the trial, the court becomes aware of the involvement of other individuals, it can summon them for trial.
Sufficient Evidence: The court must have sufficient evidence against the additional accused persons to justify summoning them for trial. The provision doesn’t allow the court to act solely on suspicion; there must be some prima facie evidence connecting them to the offense.
Opportunity to be Heard: Before summoning any additional accused, the court should provide them with an opportunity to be heard. This ensures that they can present their side of the story and contest the decision to add them as accused.
Joined in the Same Trial: Once the additional accused are summoned and brought before the court, they will be tried along with the original accused in the same trial.
Separate Trial if Necessary: In case the court finds that the evidence against the additional accused requires a separate trial, it may direct such a separate trial.
Protection of Rights: The rights and safeguards available to the original accused, including the right to a fair trial and legal representation, also extend to the additional accused.
Discretion of the Court: The decision to summon additional accused persons rests on the discretion of the court. The court will consider factors such as the nature of the offense, the evidence available, and the interests of justice before making a decision.However, the Supreme Court held that
It should be employed sparingly and when the situation clearly calls for it.
Only when there is clear and convincing evidence against a person in the evidence provided to the court should this power be used, and not arbitrarily or carelessly.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://lawtrend.in/while-allowing-an-application-under-section-319-of-the-crpc-the-test-to-be-applied-is-more-than-just-a-prima-facie-case-sc/
India’s First Under-River Metro Tunnel passes through which one of the following rivers?
Hooghly
Explanation :
Prime Minister recently inaugurated a metro train service between Howrah Maidan and Esplanade in Kolkata, marking the opening of India’s first under-river metro tunnel.
About India’s First Under-River Metro Tunnel:
It is a part of Kolkata Metro’s East-West Corridor.
It passes under the Hooghly River in the city’s northeast, with the tunnel 13 meters below the riverbed and 37 meters below ground level.
It forms part of the 4.8 km underground section from Howrah Maidan to Esplanade.
It is the second section of the East-West Metro corridor and has been built at a cost of Rs 4,965 crore.
The stretch also has the deepest metro station in the country, the Howrah Maidan station, at 32 metres below ground level.
The metro is expected to cover the 520-meter stretch under the Hooghly River in 45 seconds.
Key Facts about River Hooghly:
The Hooghly River, also known as the Bhagirathi-Hooghly and Kati-Ganga Rivers, is one of the significant rivers in West Bengal.
It is a distributary or arm of the Ganges River, about 260 km long.
Course:
It is formed in Murshidabad, where the Ganga splits into two parts, while the part flowing through Bangladesh is called the Padma.
The other part is the Hooghly, which flows through a heavily industrialized area of West Bengal.
The Hooghly River is silted up above Kolkata, and the river flows to the west and south to the estuary of Rupnarayan and then south and southwest to enter the Bay of Bengal through a 32-kilometer-wide estuary.
The Hooghly’s majority of water comes from the Farakka Feeder Canal instead of natural water.
The Farakka Barrage is a dam that diverts water from the Ganges into a canal near the town of Tildanga in Malda district. This supplies the Hooghly with adequate water even in the dry season.
Haldi, Ajay, Damodar, and Rupnarayan are the rivers that feed the lower reaches of the Hooghly.
The important cities near the Hoogli River are Jiaganj, Azimganj, Murshidabad, and Baharampur.
It is spanned by a cantilever bridge between Haora and Kolkata and by the Bally Bridge between Bally and Baranagar.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.financialexpress.com/business/infrastructure-pm-modi-in-bengal-indias-first-under-river-metro-tunnel-in-kolkata-is-ready-for-inauguration-along-with-other-key-projects-heres-all-you-need-to-know-3414982/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Frontier Technology Labs:
- They are an advanced version of Atal Tinkering Labs established to promote digital inclusion.
- They are funded by the World Bank in collaboration with the Ministry of Finance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), NITI Aayog and Meta have announced the launch of Frontier Technology Labs (FTLs).
It is an advanced version of Atal Tinkering Lab.
The initiative aims to advance the government’s agenda of digital inclusion, skilling and growth.
Collaboration: Atal Innovation Mission and Meta will partner to set up FTLs in schools of strategic importance to ensure that students from diverse backgrounds across India will have equal opportunities to learn and engage with frontier technologies.
Funding: The FTLs will be funded by Meta and Atal Innovation Mission will be the knowledge partner.
It is equipped with state-of-the-art infrastructure, including all components of the Tinkering Lab to empower students to innovate using technologies like Artificial Intelligence, Augmented & Virtual Reality, Blockchain, Cybersecurity, Robotics, 3D Printing, and Internet of Things.
The FTLs are a part of Meta’s Education to Entrepreneurship initiative, launched in September 2023, to seamlessly connect students, youth, workforce, and micro-entrepreneurs with futuristic technologies, taking digital skilling to the grassroots.
These labs will be managed by Meta’s partner 1M1B (One Million for One Billion).
Significance: The labs support the Government’s focus on equipping youth with digital skills to succeed in the evolving landscape of technology and the global economy.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2011896
Consider the following statements regarding the Majuli mask:
- It is a handmade masks traditionally used to depict characters in bhaonas.
- It is made of bamboo, clay and dung.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the traditional Majuli masks and Majuli manuscript painting in Assam were given a Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
These are handmade masks traditionally used to depict characters in bhaonas, or theatrical performances with devotional messages under the neo-Vaishnavite tradition, introduced by the 15th-16th century reformer saint Srimanta Sankardeva.
Srimanta Sankardeva established this art of masks through a play called Chinha Jatra.
The word means explaining through images. At that time, to attract ordinary people to Krishna bhakti.
The masks can depict gods, goddesses, demons, animals and birds — Ravana, Garuda, Narasimha, Hanuman, Varaha Surpanakha all feature among the masks.
They can range in size from those covering just the face (mukh mukha), to those covering the whole head and body of the performer (cho mukha).
Material used: The masks are made of bamboo, clay, dung, cloth, cotton, wood and other materials available in the riverine surroundings of their makers
Traditional practitioners are working to take the art out of their traditional place in sattras, or monasteries, and give them a new, contemporary life.
Sattras are monastic institutions established by Srimanta Sankardev and his disciples as centres of religious, social and cultural reform.
Majuli has 22 sattras, and the patent application states that the mask-making tradition is by and large concentrated in four of them — Samaguri Sattra, Natun Samaguri Sattra, Bihimpur Sattra and Alengi Narasimha Sattra.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/gi-tag-for-majuli-masks-history-cultural-significance-9197633/
Consider the following statements regarding the NITI For States platform:
- It is a cross-sectoral knowledge platform designed to become a Digital Public Infrastructure.
- It is accessible through multiple devices including mobile phones.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Minister of Communications, Railways, and Electronics & Information Technology will launch NITI Aayog’s NITI For States platform and Viksit Bharat Strategy Room’ at Rang Bhawan auditorium, New Delhi.
It is a cross-sectoral knowledge platform designed to become a Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) for Policy and Good Governance.
The significant features of the platform include
A multi-sectoral live repository of 7,500 Best Practices, 5,000 Policy documents, 900+ datasets, 1,400 data profiles, and 350 NITI publications.
The knowledge products on the platform span 10 sectors including Agriculture, Education, Energy, Health, Livelihoods and Skilling, Manufacturing, MSME, Tourism, Urban, Water resources & WASH across two cross-cutting themes - Gender and Climate Change.
The platform is an intuitive and user-friendly interface that allows users to easily navigate; and it is accessible through multiple devices including mobile phones.
This platform will facilitate the digital transformation of governance by equipping government officials with robust, contextually relevant, and actionable knowledge and insights, thereby enhancing the quality of their decision-making.
It will also support cutting-edge level functionaries like district collectors and block-level functionaries by giving them access to innovative best practices across various States and UTs.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2011838
Consider the following statements regarding the International Centre of Excellence for Dams:
- It will act as a technological arm of the Ministry of Jal Shakti to provide support services for the Indian and overseas dam owners.
- It will carry out applied research and technology transfer in dam safety management at national and international levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Ministry of Jal Shakti (MoJS) signed a Memorandum of Agreement (MoA) with the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) Bangalore for the establishment of an International Centre of Excellence for Dams (ICED).
It will act as a technological arm of the Ministry to provide specialised technical support in investigations, modelling, research and innovations, and technical support services for the Indian and overseas dam owners.
This MoA will remain valid for ten years or till the duration of the Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project (DRIP) Phase-II and III Scheme, whichever is earlier, from the date of signing this MoA.
The Centre will work on dam safety to support the Ministry and provide solutions to various emerging challenges faced in dam safety through scientific research.
It will also offer area specific academic courses (including training programs and workshops) and carry out applied research and technology transfer in dam safety management at local, regional, national and international levels.
Funding: The Ministry of Jal Shakti will provide a grant of 118.05 crore rupees for the procurement of goods, and machinery for the establishment of new laboratories as well as strengthening of existing laboratories, initiation of research activities, and construction and modernisation of infrastructure for setting up and functioning of ICED.
It will carry out research in two core areas:
Advanced construction and rehabilitation materials & Material testing for dams and
Comprehensive (multi-hazard) risk assessment of dams
ICED will give the right impetus towards building an Atmanirbhar Bharat and will also provide a window of opportunity for disseminating knowledge and expertise in the dam safety area to many underdeveloped and developing nations in future.
ICED, IISc Bangalore is the second International Centre in the area of Dam Safety.
The first ICED has been institutionalized at IIT Roorkee upon signing of MoA in February 2023.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://newsonair.gov.in/News?title=MoJS-Partners-with-IISc-Bangalore-to-Establish-International-Centre-of-Excellence-for-Dams%2C-Boosting-%26%2339%3BMake-in-India%26%2339%3B-Initiative-in-Dam-Safety&id=478555
With reference to Star dunes, consider the following:
- They are primarily found in Africa, Asia and North America.
- They have been spotted on Mars.
- A unique luminescence dating technique is used to measure the age of the star dune.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Scientists unveiled the first in-depth study of a star dune, revealing the internal structure of these geological features and showing how long it took for one of them to form.
Star dunes - or pyramid dunes - are named after their distinctive shapes and reach hundreds of metres in height.
They are found in Africa, Asia and North America and also have been spotted on Mars and on Saturn’s large moon Titan.
Star dunes make up just under 10% of the dunes in Earth’s deserts.
These are the tallest ones, surpassing other types such as crescent-shaped barchan dunes and straight and lengthy linear dunes.
These are formed in areas with complex wind regimes, where winds blowing from different directions, and net sand accumulation, points within the desert where big piles of sand can be blown around to form giant dunes.
Geographical distribution
Earth’s largest star dunes are found in the Badain Jaran desert in western China.
Namib Sand Sea in Namibia, large sand seas in Algeria such as the Grand Erg Oriental and Grand Erg Occidental, and Rub’ al Khali in Saudi Arabia.
In North America, Great Sand Dunes National Park in Colorado contains a series of them.
Recent research about Star dunes
The research team from the UK travelled to the southeast of Morocco to examine the 100-meter-high and 700-meter-wide Lala Lallia.
They discovered that the very base of the dune was 13,000 years old, but the upper part of the structure had only been formed in the last 1,000 years or so
They have estimated the age of star dune of Lala Lallia in Morocco, for the first time.
The scientists used a technique called luminescence dating to work out the age of the star dune.
The method calculates when the grains of sand were last exposed to daylight.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/scientists-reveal-secrets-of-earths-magnificent-desert-star-dunes/article67916025.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the National Cooperative Database (NCD), recently seen in the news:
- It is a digital dashboard wherein data of cooperative societies, including both National and State Federations have been captured.
- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Cooperation Minister will launch the National Cooperative Database (NCD) to foster a cooperative-centric economic model.
About National Cooperative Database (NCD):
It is an initiative of the Ministry of Cooperation.
Under this initiative, the Ministry of Cooperation has recognized the imperative need for a robust database to capture vital information about India’s vast cooperative sector.
NCD has been developed in collaboration with State Governments, National Federations and stakeholders, and aims to foster a cooperative-centric economic model.
It is a web-based digital dashboard wherein data of cooperative societies, including National/State Federations have been captured.
The data of cooperative societies has been entered and validated by States/ UTs nodal officials at RCS/ DRCS offices, and the data of federations has been provided by various national/state federations.
NCD has collected/mapped information about 8 lakh cooperatives with collective membership of more than 29 crores spread across various sectors in the country.
The information collected from cooperative societies are on various parameters, such as their registered name, date, location, number of members, sectoral information, area of operation, economic activities, financial statements, status of audit etc.
NCD serves as a crucial tool for efficient communication between the Central Ministry, States/UTs, and Cooperative Societies, benefiting all stakeholders in the cooperative sector.
The database provides comprehensive contact details for registered societies, facilitating smooth communication between government entities and these societies.
NCD offers a myriad of benefits, including:
Single-point access
comprehensive and updated data
user-friendly interface
vertical and horizontal linkages
query-based reports and graphs
Management Information System (MIS) reports
data analytics
Geographical Mapping
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.india.com/news/sahakar-se-samriddhi-amit-shah-to-launch-national-cooperative-database-on-friday-6771073/
Which among the following best describes ‘Dolutegravir’, recently seen in the news?
An antiviral drug used in the treatment of HIV infection.
Explanation :
Resistance to the antiretroviral drug dolutegravir (DTG) is increasing among HIV patients, a new report by the World Health Organization (WHO) highlighted.
About Dolutegravir (DTG):
It is an antiviral drug used with other medications to treat human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, the virus that can cause the acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).
Dolutegravir is in a class of medications called HIV integrase inhibitors.
It works by decreasing the amount of HIV in your blood and increasing the number of immune cells that help fight infections in your body.
Although dolutegravir does not cure HIV, using it along with other medications may decrease your chance of developing AIDS and HIV-related illnesses such as serious infections or cancer.
Since 2018, WHO has recommended the use of dolutegravir as the preferred first- and second-line HIV treatment for all population groups.
It is more effective, easier to take, and has fewer side effects than other drugs currently in use.
Common side effects of dolutegravir may include:
headache;
tiredness; or
sleep problems (insomnia).
Some side effects can be serious. These include severe skin rashes and allergic reactions, liver problems, and drug interactions.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/health/who-highlights-growing-hiv-drug-resistance-to-dolutegravir-urges-global-action-94850
Sea Defenders-2024, recently seen in the news, is a joint Coast Guard exercise involving India and which one of the following countries?
United States
Explanation :
The United States Coast Guard’s (USCG) Bertholf ship reached Port Blair ahead of the ‘Sea Defenders-2024’ joint exercise.
About Sea Defenders-2024:
It is a joint exercise between the Indian Coast Guard and the United States Coast Guard.
Location: Off the coast of Port Blair, Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
The two-day exercise will focus on maritime piracy and asymmetric threats, including simulated drone attacks on commercial merchant traffic, joint maritime search and rescue operations, major firefighting, marine pollution response, and counter-drug interdiction exercises.
The event will also witness a simulated medical evacuation to enhance readiness in emergency situations.
It will highlight the importance of international cooperation in addressing maritime challenges as well as the partnership between the Indian and US Coast Guards.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/amp/india/story/us-coast-guard-ship-bertholf-arrives-in-port-blair-ahead-if-joint-exercise-2512035-2024-03-07
Consider the following statements with reference to Orans:
- They are traditional sacred groves found in Chhattisgarh.
- They form the natural habitat for the Great Indian Bustard (GIB).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Communities, particularly those in western Rajasthan, are concerned about the state’s proposal to classify orans (sacred groves) as deemed forests.
About Orans:
Orans are traditional sacred groves found in Rajasthan.
These are community forests, preserved and managed by rural communities through institutions and codes that mark such forests as sacred.
There are often local deities associated with Oran.
They are rich in biodiversity and usually include a water body.
Communities in Rajasthan have been conserving these Orans for centuries, and their lives have been intricately linked around these spaces.
Orans are also spaces where herders take their livestock for grazing and are places for communal congregations, festivals, and other social events, the performance of which is linked to agrarian rhythms and the continued commitment of the communities towards environmental conservation.
Orans also form the natural habitat for India’s most critically endangered bird, the Great Indian Bustard (GIB), a protected species under the Wildlife Protection Act, which is also the State bird of Rajasthan.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/forests/villagers-oppose-declaring-orans-as-deemed-forests-fearing-loss-of-access-and-livelihood-94834
With reference to Article 131 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
- It gives the Supreme Court (SC) exclusive and original jurisdiction over legal issues originating between States or between States and the Union.
- The word ‘State’ under Article 131 does not include any private citizen, company, or a government department.
- It also extends to disputes arising out of any treaty, agreement, or covenant which came into being before the commencement of the Constitution.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Noting that it’s a State’s right to approach it under Article 131 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court (SC) recently disapproved of the Centre insisting on withdrawal of a suit filed by the Kerala Government as a pre-condition for giving consent to the state for additional borrowing.
About Article 131 of the Indian Constitution:
According to Article 131, the SC has exclusive and original jurisdiction over legal issues originating between States or between States and the Union.
Original jurisdiction is the power of the court to hear and determine a dispute in the first instance.
The bare reading of Article 131 states that - Original jurisdiction of the SC:
Subject to the provisions of this Constitution, the SC shall, to the exclusion of any other court, have original jurisdiction in any dispute:
between the Government of India and one or more States; or
between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more other States on the other; or
between two or more States, if and in so far as the dispute involves any question (whether of law or fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends.
The nature of Article 131 is subject to provisions of the Constitution and is limited to disputes involving legal rights, as mentioned in the Article itself.
Thus, disputes of political nature are not covered under this, unless legal rights are at stake.
The SC held that the meaning of the word ‘State’ under Article 131 does not include any private citizen, company, or a government department, even if it had filed a complaint along with any State Governments.
Restrictions:
The original jurisdiction of the SC does not extend to disputes arising out of any treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad, or any other similar instrument which came into being before the commencement of the Constitution.
The parliament may exclude the jurisdiction of the SC in disputes relating to the use, distribution, or control of the water of any inter-state river;
Suits brought by private individuals against the government of India.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.tribuneindia.com/news/india/centre-cant-insist-on-withdrawal-of-suit-by-kerala-as-it-has-right-to-move-top-court-under-article-131-supreme-court-597891
Consider the following statements with reference to the School Soil Health Programme:
- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Education and the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
- It provides for the establishment of soil labs in Eklavya Model Schools only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
.
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister for Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare and Union Minister for Rural Development inaugurated School Soil Health Programme, New Delhi.
Department of Agriculture and Farmers welfare (Ministry of Education) in collaboration with Department of School Education and Literacy (Ministry of Agriculture and farmers welfare) has undertaken a pilot project on school soil health programme.
Features
Under the project, 20 soil labs were set up in 20 schools of Kendriya and Navodaya Vidylaya of rural areas.
Study modules were developed and training was given to students and teachers.
Mobile application was customized for the school programme and portal is having a separate segment for the programme where in all the activities of students has been documented.
Now, this programme has been scaled up in 1000 schools.
Kendriya Vidyalya, Navodaya Vidyalya and Eklavya Model Schools have been taken under this programme. Schools are being onboarded on the portal and online batches are being created.
Department of Agriculture and Farmers welfare (DA&FW) through National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) will setup soil labs in these schools.
School students will collect soil samples, test in the labs set up in schools and generate Soil health Card.
After generating Soil Health Card, they will go to the farmers and educate them about recommendation of Soil health Card.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2012238
Consider the following statements with reference to the IndiaAI mission:
- Under this mission, indigenous Large Multimodal Models will be developed.
- It aims to provide deep-tech AI startups streamlined access to funding to enable futuristic AI Projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister of India has approved the comprehensive national-level IndiaAI mission with a budget outlay of Rs.10,371.92 crore.
The IndiaAI mission will establish a comprehensive ecosystem catalyzing AI innovation through strategic programs and partnerships across the public and private sectors.
The Mission will be implemented by ‘IndiaAI’ Independent Business Division (IBD) under Digital India Corporation (DIC).
It has the following components:
IndiaAI Compute Capacity: The IndiaAI compute pillar will build a high-end scalable AI computing ecosystem to cater to the increasing demands from India’s rapidly expanding AI start-ups and research ecosystem.
The ecosystem will comprise AI compute infrastructure of 10,000 or more Graphics Processing Units (GPUs), built through public-private partnership. It will act as a one-stop solution for resources critical for AI innovation.
IndiaAI Innovation Centre: The IndiaAI Innovation Centre will undertake the development and deployment of indigenous Large Multimodal Models (LMMs) and domain-specific foundational models in critical sectors.
IndiaAI Datasets Platform: It will streamline access to quality non-personal datasets for AI Innovation. A unified data platform will be developed to provide a one-stop solution for seamless access to non-personal datasets to Indian Startups and Researchers.
IndiaAI Application Development Initiative: It will promote the AI applications in critical sectors for the problem statements sourced from Central Ministries, State Departments, and other institutions. The initiative will focus on developing/scaling/promoting adoption of impactful AI solutions with potential for catalyzing large scale socio-economic transformation.
IndiaAI FutureSkills: It is conceptualized to mitigate barriers to entry into AI programs and will increase AI courses in undergraduate, masters-level, and Ph.D. programs. Further, Data and AI Labs will be set-up in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities across India to impart foundational level courses.
IndiaAI Startup Financing: This pillar is conceptualized to support and accelerate deep-tech AI startups and provide them streamlined access to funding to enable futuristic AI Projects.
The approved IndiaAI Mission will propel innovation and build domestic capacities to ensure the tech sovereignty of India.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2012355
Haiper, recently in news, refers to a/an:
Artificial Intelligence-powered video generation tool
Explanation :
Recently, former members of Google’s DeepMind team, have introduced Haiper, a cutting-edge AI-powered video generation tool.
It is an all-in-one visual foundation model that allows everyone, with or without technical training, to generate high-quality video content with ease.
The founders claim that Haiper brings forward cutting-edge machine learning with the belief that creativity should be “fun, surprising, and shareable”.
According to Haiper, its model is a powerful perceptual foundation model-driven AI that has been designed for a “new path towards AGI” (artificial general intelligence, an AI software with human-like intelligence and the ability to self-learn).
It offers tools such as text-to-video, animated static images, video repainting tools, etc.
Users can go on to the website, log in with their email addresses, and start generating videos for free by typing in text prompts.
At present, users can only generate HD video spanning 2 seconds, and a slightly lower-quality video could go up to four seconds.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/haiper-text-to-video-model-9200839/
Taeniogonalos deepaki, recently in news, is a:
wasp
Explanation :
Entomologists of the Ashoka Trust for Research in Ecology and the Environment have discovered a new species of wasp in the Western Ghat region of Karnataka.
Taeniogonalos deepaki was discovered in the Belgaum region of Karnataka.
It is named after the medical doctor and nature enthusiast Dr Deepak Deshpande who collected the specimen.
The genus Taeniogonalos belongs to the family Trigonalyidae of the order Hymenoptera.
The Trigonalyidae family consists of a type of insects called hyperparasitoids that “sneak into” parasitoids, or insects whose larvae develop on or within the bodies of other insects.
Distribution: The Taeniogonalos genus is distributed in Afrotropical, oriental, eastern palaearctic, nearctic, Australian and neotropical regions; 6 of the species have been reported earlier from India and 20 from China.
The scientists have also reported the first male description of another species, Taeniogonalos eurysoma.
Most of the Taeniogonalos species have been reported from south India.
What is a parasitoid?
It is an organism that has young that develop on or within another organism (the host), eventually killing it.
Parasitoids have characteristics of both predators and parasites.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/new-species-parasitoid-wasp-discovered-in-western-ghats/article67925337.ece
With reference to Uttar Poorva Transformative Industrialization Scheme, consider the following:
- It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented by NITI Aayog.
- It is aimed at developing industries and generating employment in the North East Region.
- It requires all eligible industrial units to commence their production or operation within 4 years from the grant of registration.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister of India approved the proposal of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade for Uttar Poorva Transformative Industrialization Scheme, 2024 (UNNATI – 2024).
The scheme, aimed at developing industries and generating employment in the North East Region, seeks to create productive economic activity in manufacturing and services.
The main objective of the UNNATI scheme is to generate gainful employment, leading to the overall socio-economic development of the region.
It is set to be effective from the date of notification and will run until March 31, 2034, inclusive of eight years of committed liabilities.
Expenditure involved:
The financial outlay of the proposed scheme is Rs.10,037 crore for the scheme period from the date of notification for 10 years. (Additional 8 years for committed liabilities).
This will be a Central Sector Scheme.
The scheme is proposed to be divided into two parts. Part, A caters to the incentives to the eligible units (Rs. 9737 crores), and Part B, is for implementation and institutional arrangements for the scheme. (Rs. 300 Crore).
Salient features of the scheme
Scheme period: The scheme will be effective from the date of Notification and up to 31.03.2034 along with 8 years of committed liabilities.
Application period for registration: Industrial unit will be allowed to apply for registration from the date of notification up to 31.03.2026
Commencement of Production or operation: All eligible Industrial Units to commence their production or operation within 4 years from the grant of registration.
Districts are categorized in two zones: Zone A (Industrially Advanced Districts) & Zone B (Industrially Backward Districts)
Earmarking of funds: 60% of the outlay of Part A has been earmarked to 8 NE states and 40% on First-In-First-Out (FIFO) basis.
All new Industrial units and Expanding units would be eligible for the respective incentives.
Implementation of the scheme will be overseen by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) in cooperation with the States.
Committees at the national and state levels, including the Steering Committee and State Level Committee, will monitor implementation, ensure transparency, and recommend registration and incentives claims.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2012360
Which one of the following is the theme for International Women’s Day 2024?
Invest in women: Accelerating Progress
Explanation :
International Women’s Day was recently celebrated globally.
About International Women’s Day:
It is an annual event celebrated on March 8.
The day raises awareness on a number of issues, including violence and abuse against women, women’s reproductive rights, gender equality, and women’s achievements in various fields.
On this day, several events take place globally to respect and acknowledge the achievements of women.
March also marks the start of Women’s History Month around the world. It begins on March 1 and ends on March 31.
The campaign theme for International Women’s Day 2024 is “Invest in women: Accelerating Progress”.
History:
First celebrated in the United States on February 28, 1909, in New York City, the event was organised on the suggestion of activist Theresa Malkiel.
In August 1910, German delegates of International Socialist Women’s Conference, held in Copenhagen, Denmark, drew inspiration from American activists, and proposed to establish an annual ‘Women’s Day’.
On March 19 of the following year, more than a million people in Austria-Hungary, Denmark, Germany, and Switzerland celebrated Women’s Day.
Since then, International Women’s Day has evolved into a worldwide day of acknowledgment and festivity.
As the women’s liberation movement swept around the world in the 1970s, the United Nations designated 1975 International Women’s Year and celebrated the holiday for the first time. Two years later, in 1977, it designated March 8 International Women’s Day.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/when-is/international-womens-day-2024-theme-history-significance-9200754/
With reference to United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF), consider the following statements:
- It supports immunization programs for childhood diseases and programs to prevent the spread of HIV/AIDS.
- It has been awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace.
- It is financed entirely by the government contributions of United Nations member countries.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Over 230 million girls and women alive today have undergone female genital mutilation (FGM), according to a newly released UNICEF report.
About UNICEF:
The United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF), originally known as the United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund, was created by the United Nations General Assembly on December 11, 1946, to provide emergency food and healthcare to children and mothers in countries that had been devastated by World War II.
In 1950, UNICEF’s mandate was extended to address the long-term needs of children and women in developing countries everywhere.
In 1953, it became a permanent part of the UN System, and the words “international” and “emergency” were dropped from the organization’s name, though it retained the original acronym, “UNICEF”.
UNICEF works in over 190 countries and territories and in the world’s toughest places to reach the children and young people in greatest need.
UNICEF works with partners around the world to promote policies and expand access to services that protect all children.
UNICEF supports immunization programs for childhood diseases and programs to prevent the spread of HIV/AIDS; it also provides funding for health services, educational facilities, and other welfare services.
Since 1996, UNICEF programs have been guided by the Convention on the Rights of the Child (1989), which affirms the right of all children to “the enjoyment of the highest attainable standard of health and to facilities for the treatment of illness and rehabilitation of health.
Funding: UNICEF’s activities are financed by both government and private contributions.
Headquarters: New York, United States.
It was awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace in 1965.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/world/2024/Mar/08/over-230-million-girls-and-women-alive-today-have-undergone-female-genital-mutilation-unicef
Which one of the following is the primary purpose of the Ossification Test, recently seen in the news?
To estimate a person’s age
Explanation :
The Supreme Court, while denying the plea of juvenility preferred by a convict in a murder case, observed that to determine age, the ossification test stands last in the order of priorities.
About Ossification Test:
Ossification is the process of bone formation that occurs in humans from infancy until the end of adolescence.
During this time, various bones in the body undergo calcification, or hardening, as minerals such as calcium and phosphorus are deposited in the bone matrix.
As a person ages, the rate of bone formation slows down, and eventually, the bones become more brittle and prone to fracture.
Due to the predictable nature of this process, scientists have been able to develop methods for estimating a person’s age based on the degree of bone ossification in specific bones.
One such method is the ossification test, also known as the epiphyseal fusion test.
This test involves examining x-rays of certain bones in the body, specifically the clavicle, sternum, and pelvis, to determine the degree of ossification.
These bones are chosen because they tend to undergo the most dramatic changes in structure as a person ages.
Based on the degree of ossification, the professional can estimate the person’s age within a certain range.
Drawbacks:
It only provides an individual’s ‘estimated’ age rather than their actual age.
Even when testing several joints, the ossification test allows a buffer of at least six months on either side. It occasionally displays a four-year fluctuation.
There can be significant individual variation in the rate and pattern of bone ossification.
Additionally, factors such as disease, injury, and malnutrition can all affect the degree of bone ossification, making it more difficult to accurately estimate a person’s age.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/not-murder-but-culpable-homicide-not-amounting-to-murder-supreme-court-reduces-sentence-of-husband-who-burnt-wife-alive-in-sudden-quarrel-251677?infinitescroll=1
Consider the following statements with reference to fireflies:
- They are found in temperate and tropical regions on every continent except Antarctica.
- They use their light, called bioluminescence, to communicate with their fellow fireflies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers recently identified the key transcription factors that regulate the development of light organs and bioluminescence in the firefly.
About Fireflies:
Fireflies, also known as lightning bugs, are beetles.
They get the names “firefly” and “lightning bug” because of the flashes of light they naturally produce. This phenomenon is called bioluminescence.
There are about 2,000 firefly species.
Distribution: They are found in temperate and tropical regions on every continent except Antarctica.
Features:
They are soft-bodied beetles that range from 5 to 25 mm (up to 1 inch) in length.
Fireflies use their light, called bioluminescence, to light up the ends of their abdomen to communicate with their fellow fireflies. (Animals that produce light are called luminescent).
They have special organs under their abdomens that take in oxygen. Inside special cells, they combine the oxygen with a substance called luciferin to make light with almost no heat.
Each firefly species has its own pattern of light flashing, and males use this pattern to attract females of the same species.
Bioluminescence in fireflies is nearly 100 percent efficient, meaning little energy is wasted to produce their light.
Lifespan: From egg to adulthood, fireflies can live up to a year.
Most fireflies are nocturnal, although some species are diurnal.
They mostly feast on plant pollen and nectar.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-03-transcription-factors-bioluminescence-firefly.html
Sela Tunnel, recently seen in the news, is located in which one of the following States?
Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation :
On the eve of the fourth anniversary of the border conflict with China in eastern Ladakh, Prime Minister is all set to inaugurate the long-awaited Sela Tunnel.
About Sela Tunnel:
It is the longest bi-lane road tunnel in the world, at an altitude above 13,000 feet.
Location: It is located in the West Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh.
It will connect Tezpur, in Assam, with Tawang, in Arunachal Pradesh.
It was built by the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) under Project Vartak, and the tunnel’s construction commenced on April 1, 2019.
Features:
The project comprises two tunnels: Tunnel 1 is 1,003 meters long, and Tunnel 2 is a 1,595-meter twin-tube tunnel.
The project also includes two roads measuring 8.6 km.
The tunnel has been designed for a traffic density of 3,000 cars and 2,000 trucks per day, with a maximum speed of 80 kmph.
Need:
Located near the Sela Pass, this all-weather tunnel was needed because the Balipara-Charidwar-Tawang Road remains closed for a long time every year, courtesy of snowfall and landslides caused by heavy rainfall.
The tunnel is significant as it will provide all-weather connectivity to Tawang, bordering China.
The tunnel will cut down the travel time between Tezpur and Tawang by over an hour.
It will also provide for faster deployment of weapons, soldiers, and equipment to forward areas near the Line of Actual Control (LAC).
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/arunachal-pradesh/explained-the-strategic-importance-of-the-sela-tunnel-in-arunachal-pradesh-2928727
Consider the following statements with reference to the Coral Reef Watch Programme:
- It is an online tool that provides a global analysis of Sea Surface Temperature (SST).
- It is developed by the International Union for Conservation of Nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Coral Reef Watch Programme has warned that the Earth is on the brink of experiencing a fourth global mass coral bleaching event.
It is a free online tool that provides a global analysis of Sea Surface Temperature (SST) and outlooks to identify coral reefs that are at risk of bleaching.
It is offering the world’s only global early-warning system of coral reef ecosystem environmental changes.
It remotely monitors conditions that can cause coral bleaching, disease, and death; delivers information and early warnings in near real-time to extensive and diverse user community; it uses operational climate forecasts to provide outlooks of stressful environmental conditions on coral reefs worldwide.
Its products are primarily Sea Surface Temperature (SST)-based but also incorporate light and ocean color, among other variables.
It has been using remote sensing, modeled, and in situ data to operate a decision support system to help all stakeholders around the world prepare for and respond to coral reef ecosystem stressors, predominantly resulting from climate change and the warming of the Earth’s oceans.
This online tool was developed by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/environment/fourth-global-mass-coral-bleaching-great-barrier-reef-severely-affected-corals-seen-dying-94913
Consider the following statements with reference to the Blue Leaders:
- It is a group of countries working to save the global ocean.
- India is not a member of this group.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Blue Leaders High-Level Event on Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction was held in Belgium.
The Blue Leaders are an ambitious group of countries calling for urgent action to save the global ocean in the face of the climate crisis, overfishing, pollution, and other threats.
The Blue Leaders are committed to two major goals:
Securing a new international target to protect at least 30% of the global ocean through a network of highly and fully protected marine areas by 2030.
The rapid and successful conclusion of a new High Seas Treaty that provides for the establishment of fully and highly protected marine areas in the high seas and strengthens management of human activities outside protected areas.
The first Blue Leaders event took place in New York on the margins of the 2019 United Nations General Assembly and the second in Madrid, Spain during the 2019 UN Climate Change Conference, ‘The Blue COP.’
At each of these events, the Blue Leaders have championed the call to realize the protection of 30% of the ocean by 2030 (30x30) in that they are focused on calling for 30% to be fully and highly protected.
“Fully protected” means that no extractive or destructive activities are allowed and “highly protected” means only light extractive activities, such as subsistence or small-scale fishing with minimal impact, are allowed.
Fully protected ocean parks where extractive, polluting, and destructive human pursuits are banned provide sanctuaries for ocean wildlife.
Member countries: The group of Blue Leaders has 24 countries as its members.
India is not a member of this group.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/environment/countries-hope-to-bring-bbnj-or-high-seas-treaty-into-force-by-2025-only-2-have-ratified-it-so-far-94909
Consider the following statements with reference to the IRIS AI Robot:
- It is powered by Robotics and Generative AI technologies.
- It can speak only English and Hindi language.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A groundbreaking development in education has emerged from Kerala’s Thiruvananthapuram, where a school has introduced India’s first AI teacher robot, Iris.
It is powered by Robotics and Generative AI technologies. Iris boasts a dedicated Intel processor and coprocessor for seamless performance.
Its Android App interface allows users to control and interact with the robot, ensuring a personalized learning experience.
It is not just a passive presence in the classroom but a dynamic voice assistant and interactive learning tool.
It acts as an AI voice-controlled assistant, responding to user queries, providing explanations, and delivering educational content.
It engages users in interactive learning experiences through personalized content generation, quizzes, and interactive activities.
Equipped with a 4-wheel chassis, Iris can move freely within its environment, facilitating interaction with users and navigating through learning spaces.
Its hands, featuring 5 DoF each, enable Iris to manipulate objects, perform demonstrations, and engage in hands-on learning activities.
The robot can teach subjects from nursery to Class 12.
The robot currently speaks three languages - English, Hindi and Malayalam.
It is created by the Maker Labs.
Hence only statement 1 is correct
News: https://www.businesstoday.in/technology/news/story/dressed-in-saree-meet-indias-first-ever-ai-teacher-robot-named-iris-420551-2024-03-07
Consider the following statements regarding the Pritzker Architecture Prize:
- It was instituted by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO in 1945.
- It is granted every year to a living architect for significant contributions to the field.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Japanese architect Riken Yamamoto was declared winner of the 2024 Pritzker Architecture Prize.
It is the highest international award in the field, which is sometimes referred to as the “Architecture Nobel” and “the profession’s highest honor.”
The prize has been awarded every year since its founding in 1979.
It is awarded to a living architect/s for significant achievement.
It was established by the Pritzker family of Chicago through their Hyatt Foundation.
Objective: To honour a living architect whose built work demonstrates talent, vision and commitment, who has produced consistent and significant contributions to humanity and the built environment through the art of architecture”.
The laureate receives $100,000 and also a bronze medallion.
Works of Riken Yamamoto
Yamamoto is the ninth laureate from Japan.
His famous works are the Hiroshima Nishi Fire Station (2000) has a transparent façade and glass walls and floors that allow passersby to look inside.
The Koyasu Elementary School (2018), spacious, open terraces not only make learning the arts — dance, music, painting but also encourage students to interact.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/the-work-of-pritzker-laureate-riken-yamamoto-a-mission-to-defeat-isolation-9201983/
With reference to Parrot fever, consider the following:
- It is caused by bacteria.
- It affects both birds and humans.
- Currently, there is no treatment available for the disease.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
In a recent outbreak parrot fever, has claimed the lives of five individuals across Europe this year.
It is also known as psittacosis.
It is caused by the bacterium Chlamydophila psittaci (C. psittaci).
The bacteria can infect many mammals — including dogs, cats and horses — but most often infects birds.
It primarily affects birds but can be transmitted to humans through inhalation of contaminated particles from feathers or droppings.
The disease is more common in people who come into close contact with birds — such as poultry workers, veterinarians and pet-bird owners.
Humans can catch psittacosis by inhaling airborne particles containing C. psittaci, but human-to-human transmission of the disease is very rare, with only a handful of cases ever reported.
Symptoms: Includes fever, headache, muscle pains, coughing, difficulty breathing, and symptoms resembling pneumonia.
Severe cases may lead to complications such as myocarditis or other neurological symptoms.
Treatment: Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or tetracycline, administered orally for two to three weeks.
Supportive care, including over-the-counter medications for symptomatic relief and maintaining proper hygiene practices, is also crucial for recovery.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/parrot-fever-heres-all-you-should-know-about-the-deadly-disease-that-has-claimed-five-lives-in-europe/articleshow/108325551.cms?from=mdr
The ‘Gulf of Tonkin Incident’ is related to which one of the following?
Vietnam War
Explanation :
China has officially disclosed a new baseline outlining its territorial claims in the northern part of the Gulf of Tonkin, an area shared with Vietnam.
About Gulf of Tonkin:
It is a crescent-shaped, shallow, semi-enclosed water body situated in the South China Sea’s northwestern portion.
Borders: The gulf is bordered by the northern coastline of Vietnam in the west and northwest; by China’s Guangxi Zhuang Autonomous Region in the north; and by the Leizhou Peninsula and Hainan Island in the east.
It is referred to as “Beibu Gulf” in Chinese and “Bac Bo Gulf” in Vietnamese.
Many rivers empty into the Gulf of Tonkin, with the Red River (Yuan River in Chinese) supplying the major riverine discharge along with some smaller rivers.
It is connected with the South China Sea via the gulf’s mouth in the south and the Hainan Strait (Qiongzhou Strait) in the northeast.
Major Ports: In Northern Vietnam, the gulf’s main ports include Haiphong and Ben Thuy, whereas, in China, its major port is Beihai (Pakhoi).
The Gulf of Tonkin is best known for the infamous “Gulf of Tonkin Incident”.
It was a complex naval event in the Gulf of Tonkin, off the coast of Vietnam, that occurred from August 2 to August 4, 1964, during the Vietnam War.
The report of North Vietnamese torpedo boats firing on two U.S. destroyers in 1964 resulted in the U.S. Congress adopting the Gulf of Tonkin Resolution to support increased U.S. troop involvement in the Vietnam War.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.eurasiantimes.com/after-philippines-china-schemes-to-encroach/#google_vignette
With reference to the Right against Self-Incrimination in India, consider the following statements:
- Under this right, no person can be compelled to be a witness to support a prosecution against himself.
- It cannot be applied in cases where an object or document is searched or seized from the possession of the accused.
- This immunity is available in both civil and criminal proceedings.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Cooperating with police probe does not mean that the accused is obligated to make self-incriminating statements, the Supreme Court said recently.
What is Self-Incrimination?
A declaration or an act that occurs during an investigation where a person or witness incriminates themselves either explicitly or implicitly is known as self-incrimination.
In simpler words, it is the act of implicating or exposing one’s own self to criminal prosecution.
Right against Self-Incrimination in India:
The Indian Constitution provides immunity to an accused against self-incrimination under Article 20(3): ‘No person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself’.
It is based on the legal maxim “nemo teneteur prodre accussare seipsum”, which means “No man is obliged to be a witness against himself.”
Features of Article 20(3):
A person accused of any offence would be presumed to be innocent unless proven guilty.
The burden of proving the accused guilty lies with the prosecution.
The accused is not required to make any statement against his own will.
The Supreme Court (SC) widened the scope of this immunity by interpreting the word ‘witness’ to include oral as well as documentary evidence so that no person can be compelled to be a witness to support a prosecution against himself.
This prohibition cannot be applied in cases where an object or document is searched or seized from the possession of the accused.
For the same reason, the clause does not bar the medical examination of the accused or the obtaining of a thumb impression or specimen signature from him.
This immunity is available only in criminal proceedings.
The SC has made it clear that in order to claim this immunity from being compelled to make a self-incriminating statement, it is necessary that a formal accusation must have been made against the person at the time of interrogation.
He cannot claim immunity at some general inquiry or investigation on the ground that his statement may, at some later stage, lead to an accusation.
The compulsory administration of the narco-analysis technique amounts to ‘testimonial compulsion’ and thereby triggers the protection of Article 20(3) of the Constitution.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.barandbench.com/news/participation-probe-self-incriminating-statement-supreme-court
Right to Repair Portal, recently seen in the news, is an initiative of which one of the following ministries?
Ministry of Consumer Affairs
Explanation :
The stakeholders meeting on Right to Repair Portal India was held recently.
About Right to Repair Portal:
The Ministry of Consumer Affairs (MCA) has launched the Right to Repair Portal India (https://righttorepairindia.gov.in/) to provide consumers with access to repair information for their products and reduce e-waste.
The launch was made on the occasion of National Consumer Rights Day 2022.
Features:
It provides information about the circular economy, which is the new economic model that focuses on repairing and reusing products, as opposed to throwing them away.
The portal brings together information from different sectors, including automobiles, consumer durables, mobile and electronics, and farming equipment.
All public information related to products, services, warranties, terms, and conditions, etc. will also be easily accessible through this portal.
It gives consumers access to affordable repair mobile phones, appliances, and other electronic devices by original equipment manufacturers (OEMs) or third-party repairers.
The aim is to offer a cheaper alternative to expensive replacements to customers, instead of buying new products altogether.
The portal will carry information for enabling consumers to self-repair, knowing about authorized repairers, and promoting third party repairers.
It will also benefit small repair shops, as a list of authorised third-party repairs will be provided.
The portal also allows consumers to submit feedback and suggestions on products and services.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://indiacsr.in/department-of-consumer-affairs-conducts-stakeholders/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Shankaracharya Temple:
- It is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Shiva.
- It was built by Chola ruler, Rajendra I.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Devotees recently thronged Shankaracharya Temple in Srinagar to celebrate Maha Shivratri.
About Shankaracharya Temple:
The Shankaracharya Temple in Srinagar, located on top of the Shankaracharya Hill, is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Shiva and is one of the oldest shrines in Kashmir.
The temple dates back to 200 BC, however present structure was probably constructed in 9th Century AD.
It is said that the temple was originally built by Jaluka, the son of Emperor Ashoka, a follower of Buddhist religion; and hence, the temple is also regarded as sacred by the Buddhist people, and they called this temple as Pas-Pahar.
Also known as Jyesteshwara Temple, the temple is named after the great philosopher Shankaracharya who is believed to have visited Srinagar about ten centuries ago.
The Shiva Linga he worshipped is located in the temple.
It is believed that Adi Shankaracharya attained spiritual enlightenment at this place, and it was after this enlightenment that he went out and formed the four Hindu schools of Advaita, or the philosophy of non-dualism.
Features:
The temple’s architecture reflects a blend of Hindu and Buddhist styles and boasts intricate carvings that depict various mythological stories.
The early Shihara styleis prominently evident in the building design and is indicative of a horseshoe arch type of pattern.
The temple sits on a solid rock and is constructed on a high octagonal platform that is approachable by a flight of around 243 steps.
It is at a height of 1100 ft.
The main sanctum sanctorum houses a black stone idol of Lord Shiva along with other deities.
The top of the temple affords a sweeping view of the valley below.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.aninews.in/news/national/general-news/j-k-devotees-throng-shankaracharya-temple-in-srinagar-to-celebrate-maha-shivratri20240308132009/
Consider the following statements with reference to mumps:
- It is a contagious disease caused by a bacterium.
- It only affects cattle and cannot be transmitted to humans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Kerala is facing an outbreak of mumps, with over 10,000 children affected in less than 70 days.
About Mumps:
Mumps is a contagious disease caused by the mumps virus, which belongs to a group of viruses known as paramyxoviruses.
The illness starts with mild symptoms such as headache, fever, and fatigue. But then it typically leads to severe swelling in certain salivary glands (parotitis) that causes puffy cheeks and a tender, swollen jaw.
Transmission: Humans are the only known host for the mumps virus, which is spread via direct contact or by airborne droplets from the upper respiratory tract of infected individuals.
Who does mumps affect?
Mumps most commonly affects children between the ages of 2 to 12 who haven’t received the mumps vaccine.
However, adolescents and adults can get mumps despite being vaccinated against it. This occurs because there’s waning immunity to the vaccine after several years.
Incubation Period: The average incubation period for mumps is 16 to 18 days, with a range of 12 to 25 days.
Symptoms: Many children have no or very mild symptoms. The following are the most common symptoms of mumps that may be seen in both adults and children:
Discomfort in the salivary glands (in the front of the neck) or the parotid glands (immediately in front of the ears). Either of these glands may become swollen and tender.
Difficulty chewing
Pain and tenderness of the testicles
Fever
Headache
Muscle aches
Tiredness
Loss of appetite
Treatment: There is no specific treatment for mumps. The various symptoms may be relieved with medicines.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/kerala/2024/Mar/09/10000-cases-in-70-days-kerala-now-has-a-mumps-outbreak
Consider the following statements regarding the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft:
- It is India’s fifth-generation fighter multirole fighter jet.
- It will have low electro-magnetic signature, which make it difficult for enemy radar to detect it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) cleared a Rs 15,000 crore project to design and develop the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA).
It is India’s fifth-generation fighter multirole fighter jet.
Features
It will have advanced stealth features to avoid detection by enemy radar.
Fuel and Weapon: The aircraft will have a large, concealed internal fuel tank of 6.5-tonne capacity, and an internal weapons bay for a range of weapons, including indigenous weapons.
Engine: The AMCA Mk1 variant will have the US-built GE414 engine of the 90 kilonewton (kN) class, while the more advanced AMCA Mk2 will fly on the more powerful 110kN engine, which will be developed indigenously by DRDO’s Gas Turbine Research Establishment (GTRE) in collaboration with a foreign defence major.
The aircraft will have a low electro-magnetic signature, which will make it difficult for enemy radar to detected it.
At the same time, it will have powerful sensors and new weapons, so it is able to register the signature of enemy aircraft and take them out.
The Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) under the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) will be the nodal agency for executing the programme and designing the aircraft.
It will be manufactured by state-owned Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/india-indigenous-fifth-gen-fighter-jet-amca-9204814/
Consider the following statements regarding the District Institutes of Education and Training:
- These are designed to provide quality training and support to teachers and teacher educators.
- These are established as a result of the National Policy on Education 2020.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Union Minister of Education and Skill Development & Entrepreneurship launched various initiatives namely, DIETS of Excellence and National Mission for Mentoring (NMM) in School and Teacher Education, developed by the Department of School Education & Literacy (DoSEL).
To strengthen teacher training, the District Institutes of Education and Training (DIET) will be developed into centres of excellence.
Funding: Financial assistance, totalling to Rs 9000 crores, will be provided to States/UTs for the physical upgradation of all 613 District Institutes of Education and Training (DIETs) to develop them as DIET of Excellence in the country in a phased manner in the next five years.
Upto Rs. 15 Crore per DIET will be provided under the Centrally Sponsored Scheme of Samagra Shiksha for improving various infrastructural facilities.
What are DIETS?
It is an integral part of India’s education system.
It was established in every district of India as a result of the National Policy on Education 1986.
DIETs were designed to provide quality training and support to teachers, teacher educators, and other educational personnel.
The National Policy on Education 1986 was the first step towards achieving this goal.
They were intended to serve as a hub of academic excellence and professional development.
The initial focus of DIETs was on providing pre-service and in-service training to teachers and teacher educators.
They work closely with schools to identify the specific needs of students and develop teaching strategies that cater to those needs.
They also work with the State Council of Educational Research and Training (SCERT) to develop curriculum frameworks that are aligned with national education policies.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2013066
Inflection 2.5, recently in news, is a:
Large Language Model
Explanation :
Recently, Inflection AI company launched its latest LLM, Inflection 2.5, an upgrade to its model that powers its friendly chatbot Pi personal assistant.
It is an “upgraded in-house model that is competitive with all the world’s leading LLMs.
The newly upgraded Large Language Model comes with its signature personality and uniquely empathetic fine-tuning.
It has made some stellar strides in areas of IQ such as coding and mathematics.
With the new upgrade, Pi has now been endowed with world-class real-time web search capabilities to ensure that users get access to high-quality and up-to-date information in real time.
The new LLM, users are talking to the Pi chatbot about a wider range of topics including discussing current events, getting local restaurant recommendations, studying for a biology exam, drafting business plans, coding, and even fun discussions on hobbies.
What is PI chatbot?
Pi is an AI chatbot with which one can have deep and meaningful conversations.
To access the chatbot, one needs to log on to Inflection.AI, click on Meet Pi, and simply start talking to the chatbot right away.
It is more humane and has been promoted as a chatbot that has a personality.
It is more like a companion to humans and is free to use.
The chatbot comes with a voice, in six distinct voices, to choose from adding life to conversations.
The chatbot has been shown billions of lines of text on the open web.
This allows Pi to have conversations with users and answer a wide variety of questions, according to the company.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/pi-chatbot-powered-inflection-llm-9205004/
Consider the following statements with reference to the gold nanoparticles:
- They have large surface-to-volume ratios and the ability to quench fluorescence.
- They have excellent biocompatibility and low toxicity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Experts recently said that Gold nanoparticles used in medicines and beauty products may not only protect the skin from external infestations but can also help arrest the effects of ageing.
Gold nanoparticles (AuNPs) are small gold particles with a diameter of 1 to 100 nm.
Once dispersed in water, AuNPs are also known as colloidal gold.
These are also called as ‘gold bhasma,’
Properties
Spherical AuNPs possess useful attributes such as size- and shape-related optoelectronic properties, large surface-to-volume ratio, excellent biocompatibility and low toxicity.
Important physical properties of AuNPs include surface plasmon resonance (SPR) and the ability to quench fluorescence.
Spherical AuNPs exhibit a range of colors (e.g., brown, orange, red and purple) in aqueous solution as the core size increases from 1 to 100 nm.
These are not – toxic, not phototoxic, not genotoxic, non-irritant and non-sensitizing
Applications
Electronics: Gold nanoparticles are designed for use as conductors from printable inks to electronic chips. Nanoscale gold nanoparticles are being used to connect resistors, conductors, and other elements of an electronic chip.
Photodynamic Therapy: Near-IR absorbing gold nanoparticles produce heat when excited by light at wavelengths from 700 to 800 nm. This enables these nanoparticles to eradicate targeted tumors.
Therapeutic Agent Delivery: Therapeutic agents can also be coated onto the surface of gold nanoparticles. The large surface area-to-volume ratio of gold nanoparticles enables their surface to be coated with hundreds of molecules
Sensors – These are used in a variety of sensors. For example, a colorimetric sensor based on gold nanoparticles can identify if foods are suitable for consumption.
Diagnostics: These are also used to detect biomarkers in the diagnosis of heart diseases, cancers, and infectious agents.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/healthcare/biotech/healthcare/gold-nanoparticles-can-help-arrest-ageing-experts/articleshow/108329282.cms?from=mdr
With reference to Golden Langurs, consider the following statements:
- It is found exclusively in the Western Ghats of India.
- Its fur changes colours according to the seasons.
- It is listed as an ‘endangered species’ in the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
According to the comprehensive population estimation by the Primate Research Centre NE India (PRCNE), Assam Forest Department, Bodoland Territorial Council, Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History (SACON), and Conservation Himalayas there are an estimated 7,396 golden langurs in India.
It can be most easily recognized by the color of their fur, after which they are named.
It has been noted that their fur changes colors according to the seasons.
The color of the young also differs from adults in that they are almost pure white.
Geographic Range:
It is limited to Assam, India and neighboring Bhutan where they live year-round.
The area they inhabit is restricted to the region surrounded by four geographical landmarks: the foothills of Bhutan (north), Manas river (east), Sankosh river (west), and Brahmaputra river (south).
Habitat
They occupy moist evergreen and tropical deciduous forests as well as some riverine areas and savannas in Assam and Bhutan.
They are very much dependent on trees, living in the upper canopy of sub-tropical forests in the south and in more temperate forests in the north.
They may be found at elevations close to sea level in the south and up to 3000 m at the foothills of Bhutan in the north.
Conservation status
IUCN: Endangered
CITES: Appendix I
Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 : Schedule I
Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/indias-golden-langur-population-estimated-at-7396/article67931902.ece
International Boundary
:
Countries involved
Explanation :
The Durand Line: It is a boundary established in the Hindu Kush in 1893 running through the tribal lands between Afghanistan and British India. In modern times it has marked the border between Afghanistan and Pakistan. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
McMahon Line: The McMahon Line is a geographical border between Northeast India and Tibet, coined by Henry MacMahon at the 1914 Simla Convention. It is named after Henry McMahon, who was the foreign secretary of British India and the chief negotiator of the convention at Simla. The proposal was signed by McMahon and Lonchen Satra on behalf of the Tibetan Government. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Johnson Line: It is a boundary line between India and China in the western sector that was proposed by the British in the 1860s. It extends up to the Kunlun Mountains and puts Aksai Chin in the then princely state of Jammu and Kashmir. Independent India used the Johnson Line as a boundary between India and China while China rejected it. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
McDonald Line: It was a proposed boundary between India and China, by the British Indian Government to China in 1899. So, pair 4 is not correctly matched.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Channel
:
Separates
Explanation :
The Great Channel in the Indian Ocean separates the Great Nicobar Island of India and Aceh Province of Indonesia. It is known as the ‘Six Degree Channel’ because it is six degrees north of the equator. The Great Channel spans 163 kilometers (88 nautical miles) between Indira Point in Great Nicobar and Rondo Island in Aceh Province, Indonesia. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
The Eight Degree Channel serves as India’s and the Maldives’ maritime border. It separates the Maldives and the Minicoy Islands. It gets its name from its location north of the equator on the 8-degree latitude line. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
The Nine Degree Channel is an Indian Ocean channel that connects the Laccadive Islands of Kalpeni and Suheli Par, as well as Maliku Atoll. Lakshadweep and Minicoy are separated by the Nine Degree Channel. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (c) is the answer.
Himalayan Pass
Connecting places
Explanation :
Shipki La Pass is present in Himachal Pradesh. It is located in Kinnaur district in Himachal Pradesh and Ngari Prefecture in Tibet, China. The pass is one of India’s border posts for trade with Tibet along with Nathu La Pass in Sikkim, and Lipulekh Pass in Uttarakhand. So, pair 1 is correctly matched
Zoji La is a mountain pass at an elevation of 3.528m (11575ft) above the sea level, located in the Kargil district of Ladakh, in India. Zojila Pass connects Ladakh to Srinagar and the rest of India. Currently, the Zojila tunnel between Baltal and Minamarg on the Srinagar-Leh section is under construction and is expected to be completed by 2024. Once completed, the tunnel will provide all-year connectivity between Leh and Srinagar. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Nathu La is a mountain pass on the Dongkya Range that separates Sikkim and the Chumbi Valley at an elevation of 14,250 feet (4,340 m). It is one of the highest motorable roads in the world and it connects Sikkim and China. The Chumbi river flows through his pass. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Khardung La connects Leh and Nubra Valley and also serves as a gateway to the famous Siachen Glacier. Historically it was a major caravan route from Leh in India to Kashgar in Central Asia. So, pair 4 is correctly matched.
Galwan valley is situated to the:
South-East of Siachen
Explanation :
The Galwan valley refers to the land that sits between steep mountains that buffet the Galwan River. The river has its source in Aksai Chin, on China’s side of the LAC, and it flows from the east to Ladakh, where it meets the Shyok river on India’s side of the LAC.
The valley is strategically located between Ladakh in the west and Aksai Chin in the east, which is currently controlled by China as part of its Xinjiang Uyghur Autonomous Region. At its western end are the Shyok river and the Darbuk-Shyok-Daulet Beg Oldie (DSDBO) road.
Pangong Tso or Pangong Lake is an endorheic lake spanning eastern Ladakh and West Tibet situated at an elevation of 4,225 m. It is divided into five sub lakes, called Pangong Tso, Tso Nyak, Rum Tso and Nyak Tso. It is located to the south of Galwan valley.
Kargil is situated roughly at equal distance(200KM) from Srinagar, Leh , Padum Zanskar and Skardo Baltistan. It is located to the west of Galwan valley.
The Siachen Glacier is a glacier located in the eastern Karakoram range in the Himalayas. Galwan valley is located to the southeast of Siachen Glacier. It is the Second-Longest glacier in the World’s Non-Polar areas.
The Kalapani territory is an area under Indian administration as part of Pithoragarh district in the Kumaon Division of the Uttarakhand state, but it is also claimed by Nepal since 1997.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Glacier
State
Explanation :
The Dokriani glacier also referred to as “Bamak ‘’ by the locals is a medium sized glacier of the Bhagirathi basin in Uttarakhand. This glacier is formed by the two cirques, originating at the northern slope of the Draupadi Ka Danda perched at 5,600 m and Jaoni Peak at 6,000 m respectively. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
The Pensilungpa Glacier (PG), located in Zanskar, Ladakh, is retreating, and a recent study has attributed the retreat to an increase in the temperature and a decrease in precipitation during winters. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
The enormous Chorabari Glacier also known as Chorabari Bamak Glacier is situated in the Garhwal Himalayas of Uttarakhand. One of the two snouts of this glacier serves as a prominent source for the Mandakini River, which is a tributary of the Alaknanda River. The other snout at 3,835 meters about 12,582 feet above sea level drains into Chorabari tal. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Durung Drung Glacier is located in Jammu and Kashmir’s Kargil district, close to the Pensi La Pass Mountains on the Zanskar Road. It is approximately 14500 feet above sea level. This glacier is located in the north-eastern Himalayan range and is surrounded by long rivers of snow and ice. This is also a source for the Stod River and a tributary of the Zanskar River. So, pair 4 is not correctly matched.
Arrange the following geographical formations in India from north to south:
- Aravalli range
- Ajanta range
- Malwa plateau
- Satpura range
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1-3-4-2
Explanation :
Aravalli Range, the hill system of northern India, runs northeasterly for 350 miles (560 km) through Rajasthan state. Isolated rocky offshoots continue to just south of Delhi.
Malwa Plateau, plateau region in north-central India. It is bounded by the Madhya Bharat Plateau and Bundelkhand Upland to the north, the Vindhya Range to the east and south, and the Gujarat Plains to the west. Of volcanic origin, the plateau comprises central Madhya Pradesh state and southeastern Rajasthan state.
Satpura Range, range of hills, part of the Deccan plateau, western India. The hills stretch for some 560 miles (900 km) across the widest part of peninsular India, through Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh states. The range, the name of which means “Seven Folds,” forms the watershed between the Narmada (north) and Tapti (south) rivers.
Ajanta range (Ajanta Hills) is a hill in the State of Maharashtra, India. It is located at an elevation of 694 meters above sea level.
Which one of the following rivers in India cuts the Tropic of Cancer twice?
Mahi
Explanation :
The Mahi basin extends over states of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Gujrat. It is bounded by Aravalli hills on the north and the north-west, by Malwa Plateau on the east, by the Vindhyas on the south and by the Gulf of Khambhat on the west. Mahi is one of the major interstate west flowing rivers of India.
Mahi River is the only river in India that cuts the Tropic of Cancer twice, first in Madhya Pradesh from where it flows towards Rajasthan and enters Gujarat where it cuts for the second time.
Doab
Location between
Explanation :
Doab is a Persian term which means ‘Between the Two’. Doab in the context of Punjabi language is interpreted as the area between the two rivers. The plains of Punjab are divided into Panch-doabs (doabs of five rivers) which have special names-
Bist Doab: Between Satluj and Beas rivers. So, Pair 1 is correctly matched.
Sindh Sagar Doab: Between Jhelum and Indus rivers. So, Pair 2 is correctly matched.
Rachna Doab: Between Ravi and Chenab rivers. So, Pair 3 is correctly matched.
Chhaj Doab: Between Chenab and Jhelum rivers. So, Pair 4 is not correctly matched.
Bari Doab: Between Beas and Ravi rivers.
You and your friend decide to go on a river rafting trip on the Brahmaputra River from Arunachal Pradesh to Assam. In this context, consider the following statements:
- As you enter Assam, you would cross the Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere reserve.
- Later, you would cross the Kaziranga National Park, before reaching the Dibrugarh oil refinery.
- Going downstream, you will find the Deepor Beel Ramsar site to the south of the Brahmaputra.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Dibru-Saikhowa National Park is a national park located in Dibrugarh and Tinsukia districts of Assam, India. It was designated a Biosphere Reserve in July 1997. As you travel from Arunachal Pradesh to Assam, you will cross this first. So, statement 1 is correct.https://lh7-us.googleusercontent.com/zMun2auEtghBoXpCk7Zpi5UNkdLedZEYl5gTQOyGVAY5NYeWXoCsIe8o67yzcWTMOqAh8ul4xiTWwexg23PqnMo_pd_0lkFVWX305u_DnkE1pC_mWyYHa4AYe0xLTCZjbIbrlvkxZMgiCg_MvJs38-o
Kaziranga National Park is a national park in the Golaghat, Karbi Anglong and Nagaon districts of the state of Assam, India. The sanctuary, which hosts two-thirds of the world’s great one-horned rhinoceroses, is a World Heritage Site. Along the Brahmaputra River, Dibrugarh is located upstream as compared to Kaziranga National Park, as is clear from the map above. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Deepor Beel is located to the south-west of Guwahati city, in Kamrup (on map) Metropolitan district of Assam, India. It is a permanent freshwater lake and a former channel of the Brahmaputra River, to the south of the main river. It is also a designated wetland under the Ramsar Convention. Manas river joins the Brahmaputra further downstream as compared to the Deepor Beel. So, statement 3 is correct.
https://vajiramandravi.s3.us-east-1.amazonaws.com/media/word_images/65ec4d008a1978059f3e53d0.png
Consider the following statements:
- Kushiyara is a distributary of the Barak River.
- The Barak River flows through Manipur, Nagaland and Mizoram.
- The Kushiyara River forms the boundary between India and Bangladesh.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Kushiyara River is a distributary of the Barak River which originates in the uplands of Assam and flows through it, and then on to Bangladesh. It forms on the India-Bangladesh border as a branch of the Barak River, when the Barak separates into the Kushiyara and Surma. So, statement 1 is correct.
Barak River rises in Manipur and is part of the Surma-Meghna River System. It flows in the states of Manipur, Nagaland, Mizoram and Assam. It drains into the Bay of Bengal after flowing through Bangladesh. So, statement 2 is correct.
From its origin at the mouth of the Barak, also known as the Amshid bifurcation point, the Kushiyara River flows westward forming the boundary between Assam in India, and the Sylhet District of Bangladesh. So, statement 3 is correct.
Which one of the following is the primary reason for excluding food and energy prices from core inflation calculation?
Their prices can be too volatile or fluctuate wildly.
Explanation :
Core inflation is likely to remain low, around 3% in the near term, owing to weak rural demand, softness in housing inflation, and lower input cost pressures, according to economists.
About Core Inflation:
It is the change in the costs of goods and services excluding the price variations in seasonal elements, such as those related to food and energy.
Food and energy prices are exempt from this calculation because their prices can be too volatile or fluctuate wildly.
Core inflation represents the long-term trend in the price level.
Why is it important?
It is used to determine the impact of rising prices on consumer income.
To deal with such situations, many central banks use measures of core inflation that are designed to filter transitory price movements.
If the increase in the price index is due to temporary shocks that could soon reverse themselves, it may not require any monetary policy action.
On the other hand, prices of other commodities do not fluctuate as regularly as those of food and fuel: as such, increase in their prices could be taken relatively to be much more of a permanent nature.
It follows logically for Central Banks to target only core inflation, as it reflects the demand-side pressure in the economy.
Core inflation, by eliminating the volatile components from the headline helps in identifying the underlying trend in headline inflation and is believed to predict future inflation better.
It is a convenient guide to help the central bank achieve its objective of controlling total inflation.
Whenever core inflation rises, Central Banks increase their key policy rates to suck excess liquidity from the market, and vice versa. It is, therefore, a preferred tool for framing long-term policy.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/indicators/core-inflation-to-stay-around-3-till-q1-fy25-economists/articleshow/108185502.cms?from=mdr
With reference to sponge iron, consider the following statements:
- It is produced from the direct reduction of iron ore by a reducing gas.
- It is used as a substitute for scrap in induction and electrical furnaces in the steel industry.
- India is the world’s largest producer of sponge iron.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The domestic sponge iron manufacturers fear a continuous shortage of iron ore may bring them to the brink of collapse.
About Sponge Iron:
Direct-reduced iron (DRI), also called sponge iron, is produced from the direct reduction of iron ore (in the form of lumps, pellets, or fines) by a reducing gas produced from natural gas or coal.
The reducing gas is a mixture, the majority of which is hydrogen (H2) and carbon monoxide (CO), which act as reducing agents.
This process of reducing the iron ore in solid form by reducing gases is called direct reduction.
Why is it called Sponge Iron?
The process of sponge iron manufacturing involves the removal of oxygen from iron ore.
When that happens, the departing oxygen causes micropores in the ore body, turning it porous.
When the eventual product is observed under a microscope, it resembles a honeycomb structure, which looks spongy in texture. Hence the name sponge iron.
Significance:
Its significance in the steel industry ranges from an alternative to scrap to boosting furnace efficiency.
It is used as a substitute for scrap in induction and electrical furnaces.
The reason for this is that melting scrap is expensive and also in short supply, so sponge iron is the perfect alternative when it comes to using it in the production of high-quality steel.
It is an iron source that is relatively uniform in composition, and virtually free from tramp elements.
India is the world’s largest producer of sponge iron, most of which is produced primarily through the coal-based method of production. India produces 20% of the world’s sponge iron with over 200 plants.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/industry-ore-shortage-hitting-steel-production-says-sponge-iron-industry-seeks-ban-on-exports-3420528/
Yaounde Declaration, recently seen in the news, is related to which one of the following issues?
Malaria eradication
Explanation :
Ministers of Health from African countries with the highest burden of malaria recently signed the Yaounde Declaration with the objective of ending malaria deaths.
About Yaounde Declaration:
It was signed by the health ministers of 11 African countries with the highest burden of malaria, committing to accelerated action to end deaths from the malaria disease.
It was signed at the Yaoundé conference, co-hosted by the World Health Organization (WHO) and the Government of Cameroon.
The conference gathered Ministers of Health, global malaria partners, funding agencies, scientists, civil society organizations, and other principal malaria stakeholders.
The 11 countries that signed the declaration are: Burkina Faso, Cameroon, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Ghana, Mali, Mozambique, Niger, Nigeria, Sudan, Uganda and Tanzania. These countries carry roughly 70% of the global malaria burden.
They pledged to sustainably and equitably address the threat of malaria in the African region, which accounts for 95% of malaria deaths globally.
They committed to provide stronger leadership and increased domestic funding for malaria control programmes; to ensure further investment in data technology; to apply the latest technical guidance in malaria control and elimination; and to enhance malaria control efforts at the national and sub-national levels.
The ministers further pledged to increase health sector investments to bolster infrastructure, personnel, and programme implementation; to enhance multi-sectoral collaboration; and to build partnerships for funding, research, and innovation.
In signing the declaration, they expressed their “unwavering commitment to the accelerated reduction of malaria mortality” and “to hold each other and our countries accountable for the commitments outlined in this declaration.”
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/world/yaounde-declaration-health-ministers-of-11-african-countries-commit-to-end-malaria-deaths-94922
With reference to Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), consider the following statements:
- They were established on the recommendations of the Narasimham Committee.
- RBI has set a Priority Sector Lending (PSL) target of 40% of total outstanding advances for RRBs.
- The Chairman of these banks are nominated by the Central Government.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The most critical issue of the 2019 amalgamation of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) was that of technology, systems and procedures, as different banks followed different systems and procedures despite the same core banking platform, says a new book.
About Regional Rural Banks (RRBs):
RRBs are banks formed in collaboration by the Central Government, State Governments, and Sponsoring Commercial Banks to give loans to rural areas.
Their mission is to fulfill the credit needs of the relatively unserved sections in rural areas: small and marginal farmers, agricultural labourers, and socio-economically weaker sections.
The RRBs mobilize financial resources from rural / semi-urban areas and grant loans and advances mostly to small and marginal farmers, agricultural labourers, and rural artisans.
Origin:
The Narasimham Committee on Rural Credit (1975) recommended the establishment of RRBs.
The establishment of RRBs finds its route in the ordinance passed on 26th September 1975, and the RRB Act of 1976.
Prathama Grameen Bank was the first RRB bank and was established on 2nd October 1975.
RRBs were configured as hybrid micro banking institutions, combining the local orientation and small-scale lending culture of the cooperatives with the business culture of commercial banks.
RRBs perform various functions in the following heads:
Providing banking facilities to rural and semi-urban areas.
Carrying out government operations like the disbursement of wages of MGNREGA workers, distribution of pension, etc.
Providing Para-Banking facilities like locker facilities, debit and credit cards, mobile banking, internet banking, UPI etc.
The RBI has set a Priority Sector Lending (PSL) target of 75% of total outstanding advances for RRBs as against 40% for Scheduled Commercial Banks.
Ownership: The shareholding pattern of RRBs among the three sponsoring entities is 50:35:15 among the central government, sponsoring bank, and state government, respectively.
The area of operation of RRBs is limited to the area as notified by the Government of India, covering one or more districts in the State.
Regulation: Regional Rural Banks are regulated by the RBI and supervised by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).
Sources of Funds: It comprise of owned funds, deposits, borrowings from NABARD, Sponsor Banks and other sources, including SIDBI and the National Housing Bank.
Management: The Board of Directors manages these banks, overall affairs, which consists of one Chairman, three Directors as nominated by the Central Government, a maximum of two Directors as nominated by the concerned State Government, and a maximum of three Directors as nominated by the sponsor bank.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.theweek.in/wire-updates/business/2024/03/08/lst4-book-banking.html
Consider the following statements regarding Samudrayaan Mission:
- It is India’s first manned mission to explore the deep ocean.
- The Ministry of Science and Technology is the nodal ministry to implement this mission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT) has completed a key test for India’s first manned submersible mission called Samudrayaan, the earth sciences ministry said recently.
About Samudrayaan Mission:
It is India’s first manned mission to explore the deep ocean.
It is aimed to develop a self-propelled manned submersible to carry three human beings to a water depth of 6,000 meters in the ocean with a suite of scientific sensors and tools for deep ocean exploration.
It is designed to study the deep ocean resources and conduct biodiversity assessments as well.
The mission will not disturb the ecosystem as the submersible is used solely for exploration purposes.
The project is part of the larger Deep Ocean Mission, which supports the Central Government’s Blue Economy policy.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES)
What is MATSYA 6000?
It is a manned submersible vehicle developed by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), Chennai.
It was developed under the Samudrayaan mission to facilitate humans in the deep ocean in exploring mineral resources.
It has an endurance of 12 hours of operational period and 96 hours in case of emergency.
It will allow scientific personnel to observe and understand unexplored deep-sea areas by direct interventions. Further, it will enhance the capability for deep-sea man-rated vehicle development.
Expected to be launched in 2024-25, it would make India only one among six countries (US, Russia, Japan, France, and China) to have piloted a crewed under-sea expedition beyond 5,000 metres.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/samudrayaans-key-test-is-complete-says-govt-101710011020012.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Self Help Group – Bank Linkage Programme:
- It was launched by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).
- It aims to provide financial services to unreached and underserved poor households.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Prime Minister of India on 11th March will disburse around Rs 8,000 crore Bank loans to Self Help Groups (SHGs) at subsidised interest rate through Bank Linkage Camps set up by Banks in each district.
It was launched by NABARD in 1992 which has blossomed into the world’s largest microfinance project.
It has evolved as a cost-effective mechanism for providing financial services to unreached and underserved poor households.
The components of Self Help Group (SHG) Bank linkage (BL) are as follows:
Training and sensitization of Bank Branch Managers
Training and positioning of Bank Sakhis at Rural Bank Branches
Initiate Community Based Repayment Mechanism (CBRM) at Rural Bank Branches
Credit Linkage of SHGs
What are Self-Help Groups?
These are small, informal, and voluntary associations of individuals, usually from similar socio-economic backgrounds, who come together to address common social and economic needs.
SHGs are primarily focused on empowering their members, particularly women, through mutual support, collective decision-making, and skill development.
The SHGs which follow ‘Panchsutras’ viz. conduct of regular group meetings, regular savings within the group, internal lending based on the demand of members, timely repayment of loan and maintenance of proper books of accounts are considered to be of good quality and over years have proved themselves to be good customers of Banks.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2013130
Consider the following statements with reference to the Academy Awards:
- These are given annually by the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences.
- They were first presented in the year 1929.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the highly anticipated 96th Academy Awards ceremony concluded with flair at the Ovation Hollywood in Los Angeles.
These awards are popularly known as the Oscars given for artistic and technical merit in the film industry.
These are given annually by the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences (AMPAS).
The awards are an international recognition of excellence in cinematic achievements.
The awards were first presented in 1929, and winners receive a gold-plated statuette commonly called Oscar.
The various category winners are awarded a copy of a golden statuette, officially called the “Academy Award of Merit”.
Winners are chosen from the 24 categories: best picture, actor, actress, supporting actor, supporting actress, directing, original screenplay and adapted screenplay etc.
Nomination: Only members of the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences may nominate and vote for candidates for the Oscars.
The academy is divided into various branches of film production, and the nominees in each award category are chosen by the members of the corresponding branch.
The entire academy membership nominates the candidates for best picture and votes to determine the winners in most of the categories.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/entertainment/hollywood/oscars-2024-live-updates-96th-academy-awards-oppenheimer-christopher-nolan-9206159/
The Second Thomas Shoal reef, recently in news, is located in:
South China Sea
Explanation :
A recent incident in the Second Thomas Shoal area, where the Philippines claims that China Coast Guard ships caused two collisions with their boats and water cannoned one of them, has renewed global interest in the flashpoint.
It is a submerged reef located in the Spratly Islands in the South China Sea.
The Philippines first took possession of the Second Thomas Shoal in the late 1990s, setting an outpost on the drowned BRP Sierra Madre.
This Second World War-era ship was intentionally grounded by the Philippines to create an outpost for the country and boost the Philippines’ claim over the Spratly Islands.
The Philippines continues to maintain its presence there and the ship serves as a military outpost, manned by a small contingent of troops.
It is a low-tide elevation located within the exclusive economic zone of the Philippines
What is the issue?
The Philippines claims that the shoal lies within its Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), which, under international law, extends up to 200 nautical miles.
The Second Thomas Shoal lies about 108 nautical miles (200 km) from the Philippine island of Palawan.
China claims sovereignty over most of the South China Sea, including the Second Thomas Shoal, based on the historical and controversial Nine-dash line.
China’s claims cut into the EEZs of Vietnam, the Philippines, Malaysia, Brunei and Indonesia.
In 2013, the Philippines had filed a case against China with the Permanent Court of Arbitration in The Hague, challenging the legality of China’s claims and activities in the South China Sea, including the Second Thomas Shoal.
The Philippines took China to international court after the latter seized effective control of the Scarborough Shoal in 2012.
The court ruled in favour of the Philippines in 2016, but China rejected the judgment.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/second-thomas-shoal-a-symbol-of-defiance/article67933279.ece
Exercise Cutlass Express, recently in news, is a:
multinational maritime exercise sponsored by U.S. Africa Command (AFRICOM)
Explanation :
INS Tir, the lead ship of First Training Squadron (1TS) participated in Exercise Cutlass Express - 24 (CE – 24) held at Port Victoria, Seychelles from 26 Feb – 08 Mar 24.
It is an exercise conducted in East African coastal regions and the West Indian Ocean to counter malign influence, aggression and activity along overlapping command seams and maritime regions.
It is a premier multinational maritime exercise sponsored by U.S. Africa Command (AFRICOM) and led by U.S. Naval Forces Europe-Africa/U.S. Sixth Fleet.
This exercise is a cornerstone of maritime security and cooperation in the strategic waters of the East African coast and the Western Indian Ocean.
It brings together maritime forces from East Africa, West Indian Ocean nations, Europe, North America, and several international organizations to enhance maritime law enforcement capacity, promote national and regional security, and increase interoperability among participating nations.
As part of Cutlass Express 2024, the Indian Navy actively engaged with participants from 16 friendly foreign countries.
Training was conducted on theoretical and practical aspects of Maritime Interdiction Operations, Visit Board Search and Seizure procedures and Diving operations. During the sea phase, the ship’s VBSS team boarded Seychelles Coast Guard (SCG) ship LE Vigilant and demonstrated procedures of boarding operations.
The Indian Navy has been participating in the exercise since 2019.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2013170
Consider the following statements with reference to Green Hydrogen:
- It is produced using electrolysis of water.
- It is stored in cylinders at a much lower pressure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) plans to convene a meeting with relevant stakeholders to discuss the development of specialised cylinders for green hydrogen storage.
It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy.
The carbon intensity ultimately depends on the carbon neutrality of the source of electricity (i.e., the more renewable energy there is in the electricity fuel mix, the “greener” the hydrogen produced).
Green Hydrogen has enormous potential to decarbonize several sectors, reduce carbon emissions and achieve energy independence.
The production of Green Hydrogen using renewable energy sources like solar, wind, and hydropower is sustainable and environmentally friendly, making it an attractive option for the transition to a low-carbon future.
Green hydrogen can replace traditional fossil fuels in transportation and industry, providing a constant and reliable source of energy.
Hydrogen is stored in cylinders at a much higher pressure.
Gas cylinders are typically categorised into four types, depending upon the materials used.
Type 1 and Type 2 are suitable for storage, while Type 3 is preferred for storage and transportation, and Type 4 is recommended for on-board storage.
Unlike Compressed Natural Gas (CNG), which is stored at a pressure of around 3,600 psi, the pressure at which hydrogen is stored ranges between 5,000-10,000 psi.
A vehicle can be powered by hydrogen in two ways– burning it in an internal combustion engine or using a fuel cell to convert it into electricity to charge on-board batteries.
While both Type 3 and Type 4 cylinders are reinforced with carbon fibre, which makes them light and ideal for use in vehicles, Type 4 cylinders are even lighter as they are lined with a polymer as opposed to the aluminium lining in Type 3 cylinders.
Application of Green hydrogen
It has numerous applications and can be used in fuel cells to power vehicles and provide electricity.
It can also be used in heating systems and in the production of chemicals and fertilizers.
Furthermore, green hydrogen can be used in microgrids, providing electricity to remote areas and enabling energy independence.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/mnre-to-discuss-specialised-cylinders-for-hydrogen-storage-with-stakeholders-9206935/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS):
- It is the National Standard Body of India, which operates various product certification schemes.
- It functions under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Government of India recently initiated a scheme through the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) for the upgradation and strengthening of the laboratory network in the country.
About Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS):
BIS is the National Standard Body of India established under the BIS Act 2016 for the harmonious development of the activities of standardization, marking, and quality certification of goods and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
The BIS is the successor of the Indian Standards Institution (ISI), which was created in 1947 to ensure quality control and competitive efficiency in the rapid industrialization expected in the early decades of India’s independence.
BIS is functioning under the administrative control of the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
BIS has been providing traceability and tangibility benefits to the national economy in a number of ways: providing safe, reliable quality goods; minimizing health hazards to consumers; promoting exports and imports substitute; control over proliferation of varieties etc. through standardization, certification, and testing.
It operates product certification schemes through which it grants licenses to manufacturers covering practically every industrial discipline, from agriculture and textiles to electronics.
Certification by the BIS is mandatory for certain classes of products—such as milk powder, X-ray equipment, and gas cylinders—that directly affect public health and safety.
In other cases, voluntary, or optional certification or self-certification by the manufacturer may be permitted.
The BIS employs a large staff of engineers, scientists, and statisticians; testing is carried out in its own laboratories as well as in independent facilities that demonstrate compliance with laboratory guidelines established by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO).
The agency is headquartered in New Delhi and maintains regional and branch offices throughout the country.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2013454
With reference to the Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT), consider the following statements:
- It is designed to curb tax avoidance by companies that manipulate their financial statements to reduce their taxable income artificially.
- It is applicable to only Indian companies registered under the Companies Act, 2013.
- It is calculated on the taxable profits of a company.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The Mumbai bench of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) recently observed that the assessee was entitled to claim credit for Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) under the Vivad se Vishwas (VSV) Scheme for the year under consideration.
About Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT):
It is a provision in the Income Tax Act of India.
It primarily applies to companies and is designed to ensure that companies that report substantial book profits but pay little to no income tax due to various exemptions and deductions are subject to a minimum level of taxation.
The primary objective behind the MAT tax in India is to curb tax avoidance by companies that manipulate their financial statements to reduce their taxable income artificially.
With the introduction of MAT, companies have to pay a fixed percentage of their profits as MAT.
MAT is applicable to all companies, including foreign companies.
However, it does not apply to companies that have been granted exemption under Section 10AA of the Income Tax Act, which pertains to Special Economic Zones (SEZs).
MAT is calculated under Section 115JB of the Income-tax Act.
All companies are required to pay corporate tax based on which is higher of the following:
Normal Tax Liability: Tax computed as per the normal provisions of the Income-tax Law, i.e., by applying the relevant tax rate to the taxable income of the company.
Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT): Tax computed at 15% (previously 18.5%) on book profit plus cess and surcharge.
MAT is calculated on the “book profits” of a company, which is different from the taxable profits computed under the regular provisions of the Income Tax Act.
What is MAT credit? When the amount of MAT for a company is greater than its normal tax liability, the difference between MAT and normal tax liability is called MAT Credit.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.taxscan.in/assessee-entitled-to-claim-credit-for-mat-under-vsv-scheme-for-year-under-consideration-itat/380889/
Which one of the following is the primary basis for dividing Earth’s history into units on the Geological Time Scale?
Earth’s rock layers and fossils found within them
Explanation :
Scientists have voted against a proposal to declare a new geological epoch called the Anthropocene to reflect how profoundly human activity has altered the planet.
About Anthropocene Epoch:
It is an unofficial unit of geologic time, used to describe the most recent period in Earth’s history when human activity started to have a significant impact on the planet’s climate and ecosystems.
The word Anthropocene is derived from the Greek words anthropo, for “man,” and cene, for “new,” coined and made popular by biologist Eugene Stormer and chemist Paul Crutzen in 2000.
There are numerous phenomena associated with this proposed epoch, such as global warming, sea-level rise, ocean acidification, mass-scale soil erosion, the advent of deadly heat waves, deterioration of the biosphere, and other detrimental changes in the environment.
What is the Geological Time Scale?
Earth’s history is divided into a hierarchical series of smaller chunks of time, referred to as the geologic time scale.
These divisions, in descending length of time, are called eons, eras, periods, epochs, and ages.
These units are classified based on Earth’s rock layers, or strata, and the fossils found within them.
From examining these fossils, scientists know that certain organisms are characteristic of certain parts of the geologic record. The study of this correlation is called stratigraphy.
Current Epoch: Officially, the current epoch is called the Holocene, which began 11,700 years ago after the last major ice age.
Debate:
Scientists still debate whether the Anthropocene is different from the Holocene.
The term Anthropocene has not been formally adopted by the International Union of Geological Sciences (IUGS), the international organization that names and defines epochs.
The primary question that the IUGS needs to answer before declaring the Anthropocene an epoch is if humans have changed the Earth system to the point that it is reflected in the rock strata.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://edition.cnn.com/2024/03/05/world/anthropocene-epoch-rejected-scn/index.html
Which among the following best describes INS Tushil, recently seen in the news?
It is a Talwar-class stealth frigate.
Explanation :
INS Tushil, India’s latest naval asset, initiated its sea trials from Russia’s Baltiysk naval base recently.
About INS Tushil:
It is the first Krivak-III frigate to be acquired under Project 11356M.
Project 11356M:
India in 2016 signed an Inter-Governmental Agreement (IGA) with Russia to purchase/construct four additional Admiral Grigorovich-class (Project 11356M) frigates through a partnership between Russian and Indian shipyards.
Russia will supply two of the frigates (INS Tushil and INS Tamala), while the other two will be constructed in India.
The Talwar-class frigates, or Project 11356, are a class of stealth-guided missile frigates.
Under the IGA, Russia would provide technical assistance in setting up production of 11356 project frigates in India.
The construction of the ships is based on the Indian Navy’s specific requirements to meet the entire spectrum of naval warfare in all three dimensions of air, surface, and sub-surface.
Features:
These ships feature “stealth technology” in terms of low radar and underwater noise signatures.
These ships are being equipped with major Indian-supplied equipment such as surface-to-surface missiles, sonar systems, surface surveillance radar, communication suites, and anti-submarine warfare systems, along with Russian surface-to-air missiles and gun mounts.
The frigates are designed to fight submarines and warships in brown and blue waters and repel air attacks both independently and within formations.
The displacement is 3620 tons, the length is 124.8 meters. The full speed is 30 knots, and the cruising range is 4850 miles.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.republicworld.com/defence/indian-armed-forces/ins-tushil-begins-sea-trials-from-russian-naval-base-despite-hurdles-from-ukraine/
Degree of inequality in income and wealth in an economy is shown by which of the following?
Lorenz curve
Explanation :
The Lorenz curve is used to represent economic inequality as well as unequal wealth distribution. The farther away the curved line is way from the straight diagonal line, the higher the level of inequality.
