March Flashcards
Vikramaditya Vedic Clock, recently seen in the news, is located in which one of the following cities?
Ujjain
Explanation :
The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the Vikramaditya Vedic Clock, which is mounted on an 85-foot tower within Jantar Mantar in Ujjain.
About Vikramaditya Vedic Clock:
It is the world’s first ‘Vedic Clock’, designed to display time according to the ancient Indian traditional Panchang (time calculation system).
It has been positioned on an 85-foot tower within Jantar Mantar in Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh.
It also provides information on planetary positions, Muhurat, astrological calculations, and predictions.
In addition to this, it also indicates Indian Standard Time (IST) and Greenwich Mean Time (GMT).
The clock will calculate time from one sunrise to another.
The period between the two sunrises will be divided into 30 parts, whose one hour consists of 48 minutes, according to ISD.
The reading will start from 0:00 with the sunrise functions for 30 hours (an hour of 48 minutes).
It has been developed by Lucknow-based Sanstha Arohan, using digital interventions, enabling it to be connected to the internet and provide a wide range of features through a mobile app named after the clock.
Why Ujjain?
Ujjain’s rich heritage in timekeeping dates back centuries, with the city playing a pivotal role in determining India’s time zones and time difference.
Ujjain is located at the precise point of interaction with zero meridian and Tropic of Cancer.
Before 82.5E longitude was adopted for IST, Ujjain (75.78E) was considered as Bharat’s time meridian.
The Vikrami Panchang and Vikram Samvat calendars are also released from Ujjain, which makes Ujjain the ideal location to have the Vaidik Clock.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livemint.com/news/india/vikramaditya-vedic-clock-pm-modi-inaugurates-worlds-1st-timepiece-based-on-indian-panchang-in-mp-5-points-to-know-11709214157747.html
Consider the following statements regarding Melanochlamys Droupadi, recently seen in the news:
- It is a new marine species of sea slugs.
- It primarily inhabits the Western Coast of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers of the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) recently discovered a new species of head-shield sea slug from Odisha and the West Bengal coast named ‘Melanochlamys Droupadi’.
About Melanochlamys Droupadi:
It is a new marine species of head-shield sea slug with ruby red spot.
This species belonging to Melanochlamys genus was discovered from Digha of West Bengal coast and Udaipur of Odisha coast.
Features:
It is a small invertebrate with a maximum length of up to 7 mm.
Habitat: It inhabits wet and soft sandy beaches.
It is brownish black in colour with a ruby red spot in the hind end.
This particular species of sea slug is hermaphrodite (having both male and female reproductive parts); however, they need another sea slug for reproduction.
It has a shell inside the body. It has a posterior, accounting for 61 percent of its body length.
It continuously secretes transparent mucus to form a sheath that prevents sand grains from entering parapodial space.
It crawls beneath smooth sand to form a moving capsule where the body is rarely visible, leaving behind a trail like a turtle.
What are Sea Slugs?
Sea slugs are a group of molluscs that live primarily in marine habitats and are slug-like.
They can be found from the shallow intertidal to the deep sea and from the polar regions to the tropics.
The sea slugs are rapid hunters and feed upon mobile prey such as other shelled and unshelled sea slugs, roundworms, marine worms, and small fishes.
So far, 18 species have been discovered across the globe.
They are distributed in temperate regions of the Indo-Pacific Oceanic realm, but three species are truly tropically distributed, Melanochlamys papillata from the Gulf of Thailand, Melanochlamys bengalensis from West Bengal and Odisha coast and the present species.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/odisha/2024/Feb/29/zoologists-spot-new-sea-slug-species-name-it-after-prez
Consider the following statements with reference to the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB):
- It is the central authority for combating the illicit trade of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.
- It directly reports to the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In a coordinated operation at sea, the Indian Navy and the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) recently apprehended a suspicious vessel carrying almost 3300 Kgs of contraband.
About Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB):
The NCB was created in March 1986 in terms of Section 4(3) of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, which envisages a Central Authority for the purpose of effectively preventing and combating abuse of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances and their illicit trade.
The NCB works to identify, investigate, and prosecute drug trade offenders and implement preventive measures to reduce the demand and supply of drugs.
The Bureau, subject to the supervision and control of the Central Government, is to exercise the powers and functions of the Central Government in taking measures with respect to:
Co-ordination of actions by various offices, State Governments and other authorities under the N.D.P.S. Act, Customs Act, Drugs and Cosmetics Act, and any other law for the time being in force in connection with the enforcement provisions of the NDPS Act, 1985.
Implementation of the obligation in respect of counter measures against illicit traffic under the various international conventions and protocols.
Assistance to concerned authorities in foreign countries and concerned international organisations to facilitate coordination and universal action for prevention and suppression of illicit traffic in these drugs and substances.
Coordination of actions taken by the other concerned Ministries, Departments and Organizations in respect of matters relating to drug abuse.
Other Functions:
It is the apex coordinating agency. It also functions as an enforcement agency through its zones and sub-zones.
The zones and sub-zones collect and analyse data related to seizures of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substance, study trends, modus operandi, collect and disseminate intelligence, and work in close cooperation with the Customs, State Police and other law enforcement agencies.
In addition to its enforcement activities, the NCB also works to improve awareness, educate the public on the dangers of drugs and drug abuse, and provide support to those affected by the illegal drug trade.
NCB is responsible for maintaining and updating the National Data Bank on Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances, and related matters.
NCB maintains and updates the National Register of Treatment Providers and Narcotic Drug Dependents.
NCB provides expert advice to the Central Government on narcotics, psychotropic substances, and related matters.
The NCB directly reports to the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
The Government of India provides all administrative and financial support to NCB for its smooth functioning and strengthening, as required from time to time.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://indiannavy.nic.in/content/indian-navy-%E2%80%93-narcotics-control-bureau-anti-narcotics-operations-sea-0
Consider the following statements with reference to the Thwaites Glacier, recently seen in the news:
- It is located in Amundsen Sea in West Antarctica.
- Its melting contributes to more than 50% of the current global sea level rise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Unveiling new details about Antarctica’s “Doomsday Glacier”, scientists have revealed that the Thwaites Glacier has been losing ice since the 1940s.
About Doomsday Glacier:
Thwaites Glacier, also known as the “Doomsday Glacier,” is located in the remote Amundsen Sea in West Antarctica.
It’s a wide and fast-flowing glacier, roughly the size of Florida or Great Britain, and it has been a significant focus of scientific study due to its sensitivity to climate change.
It is one of the most vulnerable and important glaciers in the world in terms of future global sea-level rise.
Satellite measurements have shown that the glacier is losing an enormous amount of ice each year, nearly 50 billion tons annually, contributing to rising global sea levels. The glacier already contributes 4% of global sea level rise.
If the entire Thwaites Glacier were to melt, it could raise the world’s oceans by about 65 centimeters (over 2 feet).
It also acts as a buffer, holding back neighboring glaciers that contain around three meters of potential sea level rise.
A critical concern is that much of Thwaites sits on land that is below sea level, in a configuration known as “marine-based.”
This situation means that as the glacier’s grounding line – the point where the glacier’s ice lifts off the land and starts floating on the sea – retreats inland, it can pass over deeper and deeper valleys.
This process allows more and more ice to discharge into the sea, which might accelerate the glacier’s melt in a phenomenon known as “marine ice sheet instability.”
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.wionews.com/science/antarcticas-doomsday-glacier-began-retreat-in-1940s-by-el-nino-new-study-694603
Consider the following statements regarding Very Short-Range Air Defence System (VSHORADS), recently seen in the news:
- It is a Man Portable Air Defence System (MANPAD) specially designed to counter low-altitude aerial threats.
- It consists of surface-to-air missiles with a range of up to 100 km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted two flight tests of the Very Short-Range Air Defence System (VSHORADS) missile.
About Very Short-Range Air Defence System (VSHORADS):
VSHORADS is a fourth-generation Man Portable Air Defence System (MANPAD) specially designed to counter low-altitude aerial threats over short distances.
These are short-range, lightweight, and portable surface-to-air missiles that can be fired by individuals or small groups.
It has been designed and developed indigenously by DRDO’s Research Centre Imarat (RCI), Hyderabad, in collaboration with other DRDO laboratories and Indian industry partners.
Features:
It is designed to provide short-range air defence capabilities to protect ground forces and critical assets from aerial threats, including helicopters and low-flying aircraft.
It has a range of up to 6-km.
The missile incorporates many novel technologies, including a Dual-band IIR Seeker, a miniaturised Reaction Control System, and integrated avionics.
It is propelled by a dual-thrust solid motor.
The missile and its launcher were designed by the DRDO to be portable, which enables their quick deployment over difficult terrain.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/drdo-vsrads-chandipur-odisha-defence-ministry-2508872-2024-03-01
Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘juice jacking’?
It is a form of cyber attack that involves tampering with public USB charging ports.
Explanation :
Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued a cautionary message to mobile phone users about juice jacking.
The term “juice jacking” was first coined in 2011 by investigative journalist Brian Krebs.
It is a form of cyberattack where a public USB charging port is tampered with and infected using hardware and software changes to steal data or install malware on devices connected to it.
The attack is used by hackers to steal users’ passwords, credit card information, addresses, and other sensitive data stored on the targeted device.
This type of attack has been a growing concern, with incidents reported in various public spaces such as airports, hotels, and shopping centres.
RBI emphasised the importance of protecting personal and financial data while using mobile devices.
How to prevent such attacks?
To protect themselves from juice jacking and other cyber threats, mobile phone users have to use their personal chargers and avoid connecting their devices to public USB ports.
Additionally, using a Virtual Private Network (VPN) and ensuring that devices have the latest security updates installed can help mitigate the risk of cyberattacks.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/info-tech/juice-jacking-rbi-issues-warning-against-charging-mobile-phones-using-public-ports/article67895091.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the International Big Cat Alliance:
- It is an initiative of the International Union for the Conservation of Nature.
- It aims at the conservation of snow leopard, jaguar and puma.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Union Cabinet formally announced the establishment of International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) with one-time budgetary support of Rs 150 crore from the Central Government until 2028.
It is an initiative launched by Prime Minister of India in April 2023 in Mysuru commemorating the 50th anniversary of Project Tiger.
The objective of the IBCA is to ensure cooperation for the conservation of seven big cats: lion, tiger, leopard, cheetah, snow leopard, jaguar and puma. Five of these cats, apart from jaguar and puma, are found in India.
Membership: It is open to 97 ‘range’ countries, which contain the natural habitat of these big cats, as well as other interested nations, international organizations, etc.
It aims for mutual cooperation among countries for mutual benefit in furthering the conservation agenda.
It would have a multipronged approach in broad basing and establishing linkages manifold in several areas and help in knowledge sharing, capacity building, networking, advocacy, finance and resources support, research and technical support, education and awareness.
Governance Structure:
A General Assembly consisting of all member countries.
A Council of at least seven but not more than 15 member countries elected by the General Assembly for a term of 5 years, and a Secretariat.
Upon the recommendation of the Council, the General Assembly will appoint the IBCA Secretary General for a specific term.
Funding: It has secured Government of India’s initial support of Rs. 150 crore for five years (2023-24 to 2027-28).
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2010124
Consider the following statements with reference to the Jacaranda Tree:
- It is a deciduous hard tree that grows well in tropical climatic region.
- Its bark and roots are used for medicinal purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The early onset bloom of jacaranda set off alarm bells among residents and scientists in Mexico City.
It’s also known by its synonym Jacaranda acutifolia.
It is a deciduous tree, Jacaranda mimosifolia comes from the Bignoniaceae family.
Blue jacaranda is native of Brazil and North West Argentina.
These are hardy trees that grow well in tropical climes, well-drained soil and plenty of sun to showcase their lavender touch.
They are widely grown in warm parts of the world and in greenhouses for their showy blue or violet flowers and attractive, oppositely paired, compound leaves.
Uses: In Brazil, its wood is used to make guitars. It has no edible use, its bark and root has medicinal advantages.
It is also recommended as an alternative wood carving tree species, especially in Kenya.
Ecological significance: They attract more hummingbirds and bees than many native trees, so a change in flowering could lead to a decrease in these populations.
Concern: Some jacarandas began blooming in early January, when they normally awaken in spring.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/early-jacaranda-bloom-sparks-debate-about-climate-change-in-mexico/article67890852.ece
With reference to United Nations Human Rights Council, consider the following statements:
- All United Nations (UN) member countries are members of this Council.
- Its members are not eligible for immediate re-election after two consecutive terms.
- Its members are elected by the majority of the members of UN General Assembly through direct and secret ballot.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
At the 55th Human Rights Council of the United Nations, India exercised its ‘Right to Reply’ for a staunch response to Turkey and Pakistan for the mention of Jammu and Kashmir on the platform.
It is an intergovernmental body within the United Nations whose mission is to promote and protect human rights around the world.
It was created by the General Assembly on 15 March 2006 by replacing the Commission on Human Rights.
It has 47 members elected for staggered three-year terms on a regional group basis.
Tenure of the council: The members of the Council serve for a period of three years and are not eligible for immediate re-election after serving two consecutive terms.
The members are elected by the majority of members of the General Assembly of the United Nations through direct and secret ballot.
The General Assembly takes into account the candidate States’ contribution to the promotion and protection of human rights, as well as their voluntary pledges and commitments in this regard.
The Council’s Membership is based on equitable geographical distribution.
Function:
It investigates allegations of breaches of human rights in UN member states, and addresses important thematic human rights issues such as freedom of association and assembly, freedom of expression, freedom of belief and religion, women’s rights, LGBTI rights, and the rights of racial and ethnic minorities.
Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-hits-out-at-pakistan-for-raking-up-kashmir-issue-at-unhrc/article67899032.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the BioTRIG technology:
- It is a waste management technology based on the pyrolysis system.
- It can help in reducing greenhouse gas emissions from communities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A recent study has claimed that BioTRIG, a new waste management technology could help rural Indians.
It is a new waste management technology based on the pyrolysis system.
It works by sealing the waste inside an oxygen-free chamber and heating it above 400 degrees Celsius. Useful chemicals are produced in the process.
In the study, the researchers outlined that three products of pyrolysis — bio-oil, syngas and biochar fertiliser — could help rural Indians live healthier and greener lives.
Significance
The syngas and bio-oil facilitate heat and power the pyrolysis system in future cycles and surplus electricity is utilized to power local homes and businesses.
The clean-burning bio-oil to replace dirty cooking fuels in homes and using biochar to store carbon, while improving soil fertility.
Computer simulations showed that the BioTRIG system could also be effective in real-world applications.
It could help reduce greenhouse gas emissions from communities by nearly 350 kg of CO2-eq per capita per annum.
It could help rural Indians cut indoor air pollution, improve soil health, and generate clean power
What is Pyrolysis?
It is a kind of chemical recycling that turns leftover organic materials into their component molecules.
It works by sealing the waste inside an oxygen-free chamber and heating it to more than 400 degrees Celsius, producing useful chemicals in the process.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/waste/new-waste-management-technology-could-improve-life-in-rural-india-claims-study-94713
This Tiger Reserve is located in Telangana and is the second-largest Tiger Reserve in terms of core area. Previously, it was part of the Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve. It covers a part of the Nallamala Forest and is home to a variety of fauna including leopard, wild dog, Indian wolf and Indian fox. This is the most likely description of:
Amrabad Tiger Reserve
Explanation :
The leopard population increased considerably in Amrabad Tiger Reserve, according to the ‘Status of Leopards in India’ report released recently.
About Amrabad Tiger Reserve:
Location: It is located in the Nagarkurnool and Nalgonda districts in the southern part of Telangana.
Spread over 2611.4 square kilometers, it is one of the largest tiger reserves in India. It is the second-largest Tiger Reserve in terms of core area.
Earlier, it was part of ‘Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve, but post-state bifurcation, the northern part of the reserve was vested with Telangana state and renamed ‘Amrabad Tiger Reserve’. The southern portion continues to be ‘NSTR’ with Andhra Pradesh.
ATR covers a part of the Nallamala Forest and is home to a variety of flora and fauna.
Major reservoirs like the Srishailam Dam and Nagarjunsagar Dam are fed by the river Krishna and its several perennial streams that originate in the Tiger Reserve.
Flora:
Dense grass occurs in 30% of the area and is scattered in an additional 20%.
Dominant tree species include Terminalia tomentosa, Hardwickia binata, Madhuca latifolia. Diospyros melanoxylon, Gardenia latifolia, etc.
Fauna:
Major wild animals found are Tiger, Leopard, Wild dog, Indian Wolf, Indian fox, Rusty-spotted cat, Small Indian civet, Sloth bear, Honeybadger, Wild boar etc.
Over 303 bird species have been identified in this region. Some important groups include Eagles, Pigeons, Doves, Cuckoos, Woodpeckers, Drongos etc.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://telanganatoday.com/amrabad-tiger-reserve-plagued-with-staff-and-funds-crunch-2
Consider the following statements with reference to Nano Urea:
- It is a nanotechnology-based revolutionary Agri-input that provides nitrogen to plants.
- It is developed and patented by the Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India will replace the consumption of 2.5 million tonnes (mt) of conventional urea with nano urea in FY24, the Union Chemicals and Fertilizers Minister said at a press conference recently.
About Nano Urea:
It is a nanotechnology-based revolutionary Agri-input that provides nitrogen to plants.
It is developed and patented by the Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO).
IFFCO Nano Urea is the only nano fertilizer approved by the Government of India and included in the Fertilizer Control Order (FCO).
Features:
Compared to conventional urea prill, Nano Urea has a desirable particle size of about 20-50 nm, and more surface area (10,000 times over 1 mm urea prill), and number of particles (55,000 nitrogen particles over 1 mm urea prill).
It contains 4.0% total nitrogen (w/v).
Benefits:
It is produced by an energy-efficient, environment-friendly production process with less carbon footprints.
Increased availability to crops by more than 80%, resulting in higher nutrient use efficiency.
It is expected to improve crop productivity, soil health, and nutritional quality of produce and address the “imbalanced and excessive use” of conventional fertilizer.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.livemint.com/industry/agriculture/india-to-replace-2-5-million-tonnes-of-conventional-urea-with-nano-urea-in-fy24-minister-says-11709299067061.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Genome India Project:
- It is a pan-India initiative focused on the whole genome sequencing of 10% of the Indian population.
- It is funded by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Genome India Project recently announced that it had finished sequencing 10,000 Indian genomes.
About Genome India Project:
It is a pan-India initiative focused on the whole genome sequencing of representative populations across India.
Goal: The goal is to start with and execute whole genome sequencing and subsequent data analysis of 10,000 individuals representing the country’s diverse population.
This is a mission-mode, multi-institution consortium project, the first of its kind in India, supported and funded by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India.
The specific aims of the project are:
Create an exhaustive catalog of genetic variations (common, low frequency, rare, single nucleotide polymorphisms, or SNPs, and structural variations) in Indians.
Create a reference haplotype structure for Indians. This reference panel can be used for imputing missing genetic variation in future studies.
Design genome-wide arrays for research and diagnostics at an affordable cost.
Establish a biobank for DNA and plasma collected for future use in research.
What is Genome?
A genome is the complete set of genetic information in an organism.
In living organisms, the genome is stored in long molecules of DNA called chromosomes.
In humans, the genome consists of 23 pairs of chromosomes located in the cell’s nucleus, as well as a small chromosome in the cell’s mitochondria.
A genome contains all the information needed for an individual to develop and function.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/decoding-the-script-on-the-genome-india-project-and-its-sequencing-10000-indian-genomes/article67899979.ece
With reference to National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT), consider the following statements:
- Round-the-clock availability on all days of the year.
- Penal interest provision for delay in credit or return of transactions.
- No charges to savings bank account customers for online NEFT transactions.
- Positive confirmation to the remitter by SMS/E-mail
How many of the statements given above are advantages of NEFT?
All four
Explanation :
The National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) reported its highest-ever daily number of transactions at 4.10 crore recently.
About National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT):
NEFT is a nation-wide centralised payment system owned and operated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
It is an electronic method of transferring money online.
Most Indian banks provide the NEFT feature on internet banking and mobile banking.
It enables transferring funds from the account maintained with any bank to any other bank branch, provided the transaction is attempted between the banks that participate in the NEFT payment system.
Organisations, companies, and individuals can use it to transfer funds from one bank account to another.
As per Reserve Bank of India (RBI) guidelines, the payments made via NEFT are processed and settled in half-hourly batches.
Minimum Transfer Value: Rs. 1
Maximum transfer value: No limit
NEFT offers the following advantages for funds transfer or receipt:
Round-the-clock availability on all days of the year.
Near-real-time funds transfer to the beneficiary account and settlement in a secure manner.
Pan-India coverage through large network of branches of all types of banks.
The beneficiary need not visit a bank branch for depositing the paper instruments. Remitter can initiate the remittances from his / her home / place of work using internet banking, if his / her bank offers such a service.
Positive confirmation to the remitter by SMS / e-mail on credit to beneficiary account.
Penal interest provision for delay in credit or return of transactions.
No levy of charges by RBI from banks.
No charges to savings bank account customers for online NEFT transactions.
The transaction charges have been capped by the RBI.
Besides fund transfers, NEFT system can be used for a variety of transactions, including the payment of credit card dues to the card issuing banks, payment of loan EMIs, inward foreign exchange remittances, etc.
The transaction has legal backing.
Available for one-way funds transfers from India to Nepal.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/business/banks/neft-transactions-report-highest-ever-daily-transactions-at-4-10-crore-says-rbi-12386101.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Foreign Exchange Reserves:
- The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the custodian of the foreign exchange reserves in India.
- India’s Foreign Exchange Reserves include foreign currency assets and Special Drawing Rights (SDRs).
- The biggest contributor to India’s foreign exchange reserves is Gold.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
India’s foreign exchange reserves surged by $2.98 billion to $619.07 billion recently.
About Foreign Exchange Reserve:
Foreign Exchange Reserves (also called Forex Reserves) are reserve assets held by a central bank in foreign currencies.
Foreign assets comprise assets that are not denominated in the domestic currency of the country.
These may include foreign currencies, bonds, treasury bills, and other government securities.
Reserves are denominated and expressed in the US dollar, which is the international numeraire for the purpose.
RBI is the custodian of the foreign exchange reserves in India.
India’s foreign exchange reserves comprise of;
Foreign Currency Assets (FCAs): These are maintained in currencies like the US dollar, euro, pound sterling, Australian dollar, and Japanese yen.
Gold
SDR (Special Drawing Rights): This is the reserve currency with the IMF.
RTP (Reserve Tranche Position): This is the reserve capital with the IMF.
The biggest contributor to India’s Forex reserves is foreign currency assets, followed by gold.
Purpose:
They are used to back liabilities on their own issued currency, support the exchange rate, and set monetary policy.
To ensure that RBI has backup funds if their national currency rapidly devalues or becomes altogether insolvent.
If the value of the Rupee decreases due to an increase in the demand for the foreign currency, then RBI sells the dollar in the Indian money market so that depreciation of the Indian currency can be checked.
A country with a good stock of forex has a good image at the international level because the trading countries can be sure about their payments.
A good forex reserve helps in attracting foreign trade and earns a good reputation with trading partners.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/indicators/indias-forex-reserves-up-by-2-98-bn-to-619-07-as-of-feb-23/articleshow/108134148.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements with reference to the semiconductor fabrication:
- It is a process in which raw silicon wafers are turned into Integrated Circuits (ICs).
- It uses photolithography technology which enables the creation of intricate circuitry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Cabinet approved the country’s first semiconductor fab to be made by the Tata Group in collaboration with Powerchip Taiwan.
A semiconductor fab – short for fabrication in which raw silicon wafers are turned into Integrated Circuits (ICs).
The process includes creating intricate patterns on the wafer using light and chemicals, depositing different materials to form components, and etching away unwanted materials.
This results in the formation of transistors, interconnects, and other elements that make up a semiconductor device.
Fabrication is a complex and precise process that requires specialized equipment and expertise.
A semiconductor fab facility always includes a clean room because its environment is carefully controlled to eliminate dust and vibrations and to keep the temperature and humidity within a specific narrow range.
Contamination can enter the fab environment through external sources, resulting in damages to products that can affect overall yield.
What kind of technology is used in fabs?
Photolithography:
It is a crucial step in semiconductor fabrication where patterns are transferred onto silicon wafers.
A photosensitive material, called photoresist, is applied to the wafer and exposed to light through a mask.
The exposed areas are chemically etched, creating the desired pattern. This process enables the precise definition of features on the wafer, enabling the creation of intricate circuitry.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/technology/cabinet-approves-countrys-first-semiconductor-fab-by-tata-group-and-taiwans-psmc-in-dholera-12377111.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Network Planning Group:
- It includes heads of the Network Planning Division of all connectivity infrastructure Ministries & Departments.
- It guides Ministries responsible for creation of economic zones.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The 66th meeting of Network Planning Group (NPG) was held in New Delhi, under the chairpersonship of Additional Secretary, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade to evaluate three projects from Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) and two projects from Ministry of Railways (MoR).
It is an Integrated Multimodal Network Planning Group (NPG) with heads of Network Planning Division of all connectivity infrastructure Ministries & Departments.
It is responsible for unified planning and integration of the proposals and assist the Empowered Group of Secretaries (EGoS) in respect of its mandate.
It facilitates regular interactions between the stakeholders.
It will guide all the Departments/ Ministries responsible for creation of economic zones and connectivity infrastructure during the planning phase itself.
The parameters/prescribed norms of the overall National Master Plan will be the overarching objective of the NPG for examining and sanctioning future projects thus leading to minimising of disruptions and strive for the creation of an ideal & efficient operating system for all infrastructure projects in the country.
Its role is to ensure:
integration of networks;
enhance optimization through modification/expansion/new network creation;
avoid duplication of works for holistic development of any region;
reduction logistics costs through micro-plan detailing.
What is PM GatiShakti?
It is an approach for growth accelerating trustworthy infrastructure through synchronized, holistic, integrated and comprehensive planning based on knowledge, technology and innovation.
PM GatiShakti National Master Plan provides comprehensive database of the ongoing & future projects of various Ministries i.e. Infrastructure Ministries & Ministries and States involved in development of Economic Zones, integrated with 200+ GIS layers thereby facilitating planning, designing and execution of the infrastructure projects with a common vision.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2010476
With reference to Improvised Explosive Device, consider the following statements:
- It is a type of unconventional explosive weapon.
- It does not require an electronic power source.
- Ammonium nitrate and urea nitrate are used to build these explosives.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
At least nine people were injured after an explosion at the bustling Rameshwaram Cafe in Bengaluru’s Whitefield area possibly by an Improvised Explosive Device (IED).
IED is a type of unconventional explosive weapon that can take any form and be activated in a variety of ways.
An IED is basically a home-made bomb because they are improvised.
IEDs can come in many forms, ranging from a small pipe bomb to a sophisticated device capable of causing massive damage and loss of life.
They can be deployed using a vehicle, carried, placed, or thrown by a person, delivered in a package, or concealed on the roadside.
While they have been in used for over a century, the term “IED” first entered common usage during the United States’ Iraq invasion (beginning in 2003), where such bombs were commonly used against US forces.
Components
Each IED comprises a few basic components, which can come in various forms, depending on resources available to the bomb-maker.
These include an initiator or a triggering mechanism, (which sets the explosion off), a switch (which arms the explosive), a main charge (which causes the explosion), a power source (since most IEDs contain an electric initiator, they require an electronic power source), and a container.
Additionally, IEDs may be packed with additional materials or “enhancements” such as nails, glass, or metal fragments designed to increase the amount of shrapnel released by the explosion — and thus the damage it causes.
Enhancement may also include hazardous materials such as toxic chemicals, or radio-active circumstances — an IED packed with, say, depleted Uranium will be colloquially called a “dirty bomb”
Some common materials used to build IEDs include fertilisers such as ammonium nitrate and urea nitrate, gunpowder, and hydrogen peroxide.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/bengaluru-bomb-blast-ied-9190684/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Bureau of Energy Efficiency:
- It was established under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001.
- It works under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, 22nd Foundation Day of the Bureau of Energy Efficiency was celebrated in New Delhi where the union Power and New & Renewable Energy Minister commends BEE for its innovative and world-leading programmes and released the State Energy Efficiency Index 2023.
It was established in 2002 under the provisions of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001.
Objective: The primary objective of BEE is to reduce energy intensity in the Indian economy.
Function and Duties
It co-ordinates with designated consumers, designated agencies and other organizations; recognizes, identifies and utilizes the existing resources and infrastructure, in performing the functions assigned to it under the Energy Conservation Act.
The EC Act provides for regulatory and promotional functions which are assigned to the organisation.
Regulatory functions
Develop minimum energy performance standards for equipment and appliances under Standards and Labelling
Develop minimum energy performance standards for Commercial Buildings
Develop Energy Consumption Norms for Designated Consumers
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Power
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2010550
Exercise Samudra Laksamana, is conducted between India and:
Malaysia
Explanation :
The Exercise Samudra Laksamana kicked off on February 28 and will continue until March 2, taking place at or off the coast of Visakhapatnam.
It is a joint naval exercise between the Indian Navy and Royal Malaysian Navy.
It is the 3rd edition of this exercise.
Indian Naval Ship Kiltan and Royal Malaysian Ship KD Lekir are participating in this exercise which has harbour professional interactions followed by the operational phase at sea.
At harbour, crew of both ships will have various professional interactions, Subject Matter Expert Exchange on topics of mutual interest, sports fixtures, and other interactions.
These interactions are aimed to enhance knowledge base, share best practices and further cooperation on maritime aspects.
During sea phase, units would be jointly honing skills while conducting various operations at sea.
The exercise aims to strengthen bonds and enhance interoperability between the Indian and Royal Malaysian Navy.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2010643
The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India is roughly about 29 degrees. However, the actual distance measured from north to south is 3,214 km, and that from east to west is only 2,933 km. Which one of the following is the main reason for this difference?
The distance between two longitudes decreases towards the poles
Explanation :
● The Indian mainland extends between 8°4’N to 37°6’ N latitudes and from 68°7’ E to 97°25’ E longitudes. Thus, the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India is about 29 degrees. It measures about 3,214 km from north to south, and 2,933 km from east to west.
● Though the latitudinal and longitudinal extent is almost the same, the actual distances do differ considerably. This difference is based on the fact that the distance between two longitudes decreases towards the poles whereas the distance between two latitudes remains the same everywhere. The longitudinal expanse of India is measured in east-west direction and the latitudinal expanse is measured in north-south direction.
● The east-west distance between two successive meridians of longitude is maximum at the equator (111 km). However, it decreases as one moves from the equator to the poles. At poles, all the meridians of longitude merge in a single point and the distance between lines of longitude is zero. On the other hand, the distance between any two successive parallels of latitude remains almost uniform, i.e. 111 km and never meets the other latitude.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Sikkim and Darjeeling Himalayas are best-suitable for tea plantations in India. Which of the following factors help in tea cultivation in these regions?
- Karewa formations
- Moderate slope
- Well-distributed rainfall throughout the year
- Shiwalik formations
- Mild winters
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2, 3 and 5 only
Explanation :
● Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas are flanked by Nepal Himalayas in the west and Bhutan Himalayas in the east.
● Karewas are the thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines. The Kashmir Himalayas are famous for Karewa formations, which are useful for the cultivation of Zafran, a local variety of saffron. The Karewa formations are not present in Sikkim and Darjeeling Himalayas. So, point 1 is not correct.
● Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas have physical conditions such as moderate slope, thick soil cover with high organic content, well distributed rainfall throughout the year and mild winters, making it highly suitable for tea plantations in this region. So, points 2, 3 and 5 are correct.
● As compared to the other sections of the Himalayas, these along with the Arunachal Himalayas are conspicuous by the absence of the Shiwalik formations. In place of the Shiwaliks here, the ‘duar formations’ are important, which have also been used for the development of tea gardens. So, point 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
In the context of Indian Geography, “Dhaoladhar” and “Nagtibha” are:
local names of Lesser Himalayas
Explanation :
● The Lesser Himalayas (Himachal) is the range lying to the south of the Himadri (Great Himalayas) and forms the most rugged mountain system. It is locally known as Dhaoladhar in Himachal Pradesh and Nagtibha in Uttarakhand. The ranges are mainly composed of highly compressed and altered rocks. The Pir Panjal, Dhauladhar and Mahabharat ranges are a part of Himachal range. Pir Panjal is the longest range of Himachal range. This range consists of the famous valley of Kashmir, the Kangra and Kullu Valley in Himachal Pradesh.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Peninsular Block of India, consider the following statements:
- Rajmahal Hills and Karbi Anglong Plateau are part of the block.
- Malda fault separates northeastern India from the Chotanagpur plateau.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
● The northern boundary of the Peninsular Block may be taken as an irregular line running from Kachchh along the western flank of the Aravali Range near Delhi and then roughly parallel to the Yamuna and the Ganga as far as the Rajmahal Hills and the Ganga delta. Apart from these, the Karbi Anglong and the Meghalaya Plateau in the northeast and Rajasthan in the west are also extensions of this block. The northeastern parts are separated by the Malda fault in West Bengal from the Chotanagpur plateau. So, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
● The Peninsular plateau has undergone recurrent phases of upliftment and submergence accompanied by crustal faulting and fractures. The Bhima fault is located in the state of Maharashtra near Latur and Osmanabad. It is a part of the Deccan Plateau. It is well known for its recurrent seismic activities. These spatial variations have brought in elements of diversity in the relief of the Peninsular plateau.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.