November 2024 Flashcards
With reference to Sudan, consider the following statements:
- It is a country located in northeastern Africa.
- It has a significant coastline along the Gulf of Aden.
- Much of Sudan consists of deserts and arid grasslands with little in the way of vegetation.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
In a move strongly condemned by the UK and US, Russia has vetoed a draft UK-backed UN Security Council resolution calling for a ceasefire in Sudan.
About Sudan:
It is a country located in northeastern Africa.
Bordering Countries: South Sudan, Ethiopia, Eritrea, Egypt, Libya, Chad and the Central African Republic.
It borders the Sahara on the north and extends southward to the forests of West Africa and the Congo River basin.
Sudan also has a significant coastline along the Red Sea.
This narrow strip of water gives vital access to the Indian Ocean as well as the Mediterranean Sea through the Suez Canal.
Capital: Sudan’s capital, Khartoum, is located roughly in the centre of the country, at the junction of the Blue Nile and White Nile rivers.
Currency: Sudanese pounds (SDG)
Colonial Rule:
Following Egyptian occupation early in the 19th century, an agreement in 1899 set up a joint British-Egyptian government in Sudan, but it was effectively a British colony.
Military regimes favoring Islamic-oriented governments have dominated national politics since Sudan gained independence from the Anglo-Egyptian co-rule in 1956.
For more than a century, Sudan—first as a colonial holding, then as an independent country—included its neighbour South Sudan, home to many sub-Saharan African ethnic groups.
Prior to the secession of the south in 2011, Sudan was the largest African country, with an area that represented more than 8 percent of the African continent and almost 2 percent of the world’s total land area.
Much of Sudan consists of deserts and arid grasslands with little in the way of vegetation. Massive plains and plateaus cover most of the nation.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.bbc.com/news/articles/c33elmnzj0po
Consider the following statements regarding GSAT-N2 (GSAT-20):
- It is India’s advanced communication satellite launched onboard SpaceX’s Falcon-9 rocket.
- It is designed to provide data and internet services to remote regions and enable in-flight Internet connectivity across the Indian subcontinent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India’s GSAT-N2 (GSAT-20) communication satellite was successfully launched by SpaceX’s Falcon-9 rocket recently.
About GSAT-N2 (GSAT-20):
It is India’s advanced communication satellite.
It was developed by New Space India Limited (NSIL), the commercial arm of ISRO under the Department of Space.
It was launched onboard SpaceX’s Falcon-9 rocket into a geosynchronous transfer orbit.
It is designed to provide data and internet services to remote regions and enable in-flight Internet connectivity across the Indian subcontinent.
It will provide significant data transmission capacity, particularly for India’s Smart Cities Mission.
Features:
It is a high-throughput communication satellite operating in the Ka-band.
The satellite is equipped with multiple spot beams and is designed to support a large user base, utilizing small user terminals.
GSAT-N2 features 32 user beams—8 narrow spot beams over the Northeast region and 24 wide spot beams covering the rest of India.
These beams will be supported by hub stations across mainland India.
The satellite’s Ka-band high-throughput communication payload provides a throughput of around 48 Gbps.
The GSAT-N2 satellite, with a lift-off mass of 4,700 kg, has a mission life of 14 years.
This is India’s highest throughput satellite and the only one exclusively operating in the highly sought-after Ka-band.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/spacexs-falcon-9-deploys-indias-gsat-n2-satellite-into-orbit/article68883503.ece
The Eastern Maritime Corridor (EMC) connects which one of the following cities?
Chennai and Vladivostok
Explanation :
The Chennai-Vladivostok eastern maritime corridor has become operational and is carrying oil, food, and machines, the Minister for Ports, Shipping, and Waterways said recently.
About Eastern Maritime Corridor (EMC):
The Chennai-Vladivostok Sea route, also known as the EMC, will link Russia’s east coast with South India.
The EMC offers a significant reduction in both cargo transit time between India and the Russian Far East of up to 16 days and in distance by up to 40%, promising substantial efficiency gains in transportation.
Currently, the route from Mumbai to St. Petersburg, Russia, via the Western Sea Route and Suez Canal spans 8,675 nautical miles or 16,066 km.
At present, a large container ship from India takes around 40 days to reach Russia’s Far East region through Europe.
In contrast, the distance from Chennai to Vladivostok via the EMC is significantly shorter, at only 5,647 nautical miles, or 10,458 km.
This translates to substantial savings of 5,608 km in distance, providing significant reductions in logistical costs and enhancing the efficiency of cargo transportation between Russia, India, and Asia.
En route, EMC passes through the Sea of Japan, the East China Sea, the South China Sea, the Malacca Straits, the Andaman Sea, and the Bay of Bengal.
The route includes port options if needed, such as Dalian, Shanghai, Hong Kong, Ho Chi Minh City, Singapore, Kuala Lumpur, Bangkok, Dhaka, Colombo, and Chennai.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/108096/OPS/GITDJQPI1.1+GEMDJRVHU.1.html
Consider the following statements regarding Cluster Munitions:
- They are weapons which deliver clusters of smaller explosive submunitions to destroy multiple military targets dispersed over a wide area.
- India is a signatory to the Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM), which prohibits the use, development, production, acquisition, stockpiling, and transfer of cluster munitions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A Russian ballistic missile with cluster munitions struck a residential area in northern Ukraine’s Sumy, killing 11 persons including two children, and injuring 84 others recently.
About Cluster Munitions:
Cluster munitions, or cluster bombs, are weapons which, as the name suggests, deliver clusters of smaller explosive submunitions onto a target.
Depending on the model, the number of submunitions can vary from several to more than 600.
Cluster munitions can be delivered by aircraft, artillery and missiles.
Most submunitions are intended to explode on impact. The vast majority are free-falling, meaning that they are not individually guided towards a target.
However, many submunitions fail to explode on initial impact, leaving duds that act like landmines, posing a threat to civilians for years and even decades.
They were developed in World War II and are part of many governments’ weapons stockpiles.
Their main purpose was to destroy multiple military targets dispersed over a wide area, such as tank or infantry formations, and to kill or injure combatants.
The Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM) prohibits under any circumstances the use, development, production, acquisition, stockpiling, and transfer of cluster munitions, as well as the assistance or encouragement of anyone to engage in prohibited activities.
More than 120 states have joined the Convention. Notable exceptions include the United States, Russia, Ukraine, Israel, India, and China.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/108096/OPS/GITDJQPI5.1+G8BDJQQ67.1.html
Maori Tribe, recently seen in the news, is indigenous to which country?
New Zealand
Explanation :
New Zealand’s parliament was briefly suspended following a protest by the Indigenous Māori group’s legislators, who staged a “haka”, or ceremonial dance, against a contentious Bill.
About Maori:
The Maori Tribe is an indigenous tribe who have inhabited New Zealand for centuries.
Maori were originally settled primarily in the northern parts of the North Island, New Zealand. South Island was much more sparsely settled.
Culturally, they are Polynesians, most closely related to eastern Polynesians.
Maori culture has endured centuries of torture and struggle, first in the hands of the ‘Crown’, and later others who wished to claim a spot on their land.
Language: Maori is classified as part of the Polynesian Group of the Eastern Oceanic Branch of the Austronesian languages.
Approximately one-third of the Maori still speak their ancestral language, with the vast majority fluent in English as well.
According to data from the 2013 census, there were 598,605 Māori in the country, making up 14.9 percent of the total population.
Their distinctive costumes serve as a visual expression of their heritage, reflecting their deep connection to the land and ancestral spirits.
The most famous aspect of the Maori culture is the Haka, a powerful war dance known for its intensity, facial expressions, and rhythm.
Another very prominent identity of the Maori people is their tattoos, which can be seen on their faces.
These tattoos are called ‘ta moko’ which is a traditional Maori art form, deeply symbolic and respected.
Ta moko designs are unique to each person and are a depiction of their social status, their genealogy, what they have done for society, and more.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/new-zealand-haka-maori-treaty-significance-9674718/
The Thai sacbrood virus, recently seen in the news affects which of the following species?
Asiatic honey bee
Explanation :
Research has uncovered the transmission of pathogens between managed honey bees and wild pollinators, a process called pathogen spillover and spillback.
The Thai sacbrood virus is one of the greatest threats facing the Asiatic honey bee.
The particular viral strain that attacks western honey bees is less virulent.
The disease caused by the virus’s infection kills the bees’ larvae. The particular viral strain that attacks western honey bees is less virulent.
Geographical spread: In 1991-1992, a Thai sacbrood virus outbreak devastated around 90% of Asiatic honey bee colonies in South India and reemerged in 2021 in Telangana. The virus has been reported from other parts of the world, including China and Vietnam.
Key facts about Indian Bees
India hosts more than 700 bee species, including four Indigenous honey bees: Asiatic honey bee (Apis cerana indica), giant rock bee (Apis dorsata), dwarf honey bee (Apis florea), and the stingless bee (sp. Trigona). Western honey bees were introduced in India in 1983 to increase the country’s honey yield.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_international/issues/107931/OPS/G0BDILPT8.1+GMTDJN8P0.1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the ‘One Day One Genome’ Initiative:
- It will highlight the unique bacterial species found in India and emphasize their critical roles in the environment.
- It is coordinated by the Biotechnology Research and Innovation Council-National Institute of Biomedical Genomics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Department of Biotechnology (DBT) and Biotechnology Research and Innovation Council (BRIC) introduced the ‘One Day One Genome’ initiative to showcase the enormous microbial potential of India.
It will highlight the unique bacterial species found in our country and emphasize their critical roles in the environment, agriculture and human health.
This initiative is coordinated by the Biotechnology Research and Innovation Council-National Institute of Biomedical Genomics (BRIC-NIBMG) an institute of the Department of Biotechnology.
This initiative aims to release a fully annotated bacteriological genome isolated in the country freely available to the public.
This will be complemented with a detailed graphical summary, infographics and genome assembly/annotation details.
These documents will thus give an idea about the scientific and industrial use of these microbes.
Consequently, microbial genomics data will become more accessible to the general public, scientific researchers and thereby stimulate discussions; innovations directly benefit the entire community and ecosystem.
Role of microorganisms
Microorganisms are crucial for our ecosystem. They play an important role in all biogeochemical cycles, soil formation, mineral purification, degradation of organic wastes and toxic pollutants along with methane production.
Cumulatively they help to maintain the homeostasis in our planet.
In agriculture, they help in nutrient cycling, nitrogen fixation, maintaining soil fertility, controlling pest and weeds and stress responses.
Microorganisms symbiotically associate with plants and help them in nutrient and water uptake.
There are much more microbial cells than the number of human cells in a human body. They are essential for our digestion, immunity and even mental health.
All infectious diseases are mainly caused by pathogenic microorganisms on the other hand non-pathogenic microorganisms are indispensable for our defense against infectious diseases.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2074247
Consider the following statements regarding the Grievance Redressal Assessment and Index:
- It is conceptualized and designed by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances.
- It presents vertical and horizontal analysis of the root causes of effective redressal of grievances of each Ministries and Departments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the union Minister of State (Independent Charge) Science & Technology has launched Grievance Redressal Assessment and Index (GRAI) 2023.
It was conceptualized and designed by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG), Govt. of India based on the recommendation of Parliamentary Standing Committee of Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
Objective: It has an objective to present organization-wise comparative picture and provide valuable insights about strengths and areas of improvement regarding grievance redressal mechanism.
The first edition of GRAI 2022 was released on 21 June 2023.
Eighty-nine Central Ministries and Departments were assessed and ranked based on a comprehensive index in the dimensions of (1) Efficiency, (2) Feedback, (3) Domain and (4) Organisational Commitment and corresponding 11 indicators.
To compute the index, data between January and December 2023 was used from the Centralised Public Grievance Redressal and Management System (CPGRAMS).
Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, O/o the Comptroller & Auditor General of India and Department of Investment & Public Asset Management have topped the rankings in Group A, B and C respectively.
This report presents a two-dimensional (vertical and horizontal) analysis of the root causes of effective redressal of grievances of each Ministries and Departments in an easily discernible colour coded analysis.
The report also presents brief description of technical partners DARPG has engaged to facilitate the Ministries and Departments to optimally utilize CPGRAMS as a means of effective grievance redressal media.
This report presents a clear roadmap with an advisory for the Ministries and Departments to leverage CPGRAMS and its features like IGMS 2.0, TreeDashboard, etc., to enhance grievance redressal.
The roadmap for improvement emphasizes integrating advanced technologies like AI and ML for data analysis, predictive analytics and preventive measures while revising ATR formats for better reporting.
Capacity building for GROs, enhancing accountability through audits and extending CPGRAMS integration to the third-tier of government are key recommendations.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2074321
Koima remadevii, recently seen in the news is a:
Fish
Explanation :
A team of researchers have discovered Koima, a new genus of freshwater fish endemic to the Western Ghats.
The generic name, Koima is derived from Malayalam and is the vernacular word used for loaches.
It encompasses two known species that were previously assigned under the genus Nemacheilus.
Features of genus Koima
It has unique colour pattern comprising a yellowish-brown ground colour, single row of black spots on lateral line, all fins hyaline, and absence of a uniform banding pattern on dorsal side.
Habitat:
Kunthi, Bhavani, Moyar, Kabini, and Pambar rivers in the Western Ghats.
Species belongs to Genus koima
Koima remadevii
It typically inhabits swift-flowing riparian streams with substrates comprising rocks, boulders, and gravel, with sand and silt patches scattered throughout.
Koima remadevii thrives in fast-flowing streams with rocky substrates. These fish seek shelter in the gaps between rocks and beneath boulders, finding protection from strong currents.
Currently it is only known from its type locality in the Kunthi river inside Silent Valley National Park.
Koima monilis:
It inhabits various tributaries of the Cauvery River, occupying microhabitats ranging from large rivers to small, fast-flowing streams at elevations between 350 and 800 m.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/a-new-genus-of-freshwater-fish-discovered-in-western-ghats/article68872417.ece
With reference to Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve, consider the following:
- It is located in the state of Chhattisgarh.
- It serves as the origin of Hasdeo, Gopad and the Baranga river.
- It is connected to the Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve on its western border.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change informed the Nation about the notification of the Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve, Chhattisgarh, as the 56th Tiger Reserve of the country.
It is located in the northern part of the state of Chhattisgarh, bordering Madhya Pradesh and Jharkhand.
It is the third largest tiger reserve in the country after Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve in Andhra Pradesh and Manas Tiger Reserve in Assam.
This tiger reserve is connected to the Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh to the West and Palamau Tiger Reserve in Jharkhand to the East.
It is nestled in the Chota Nagpur plateau and partly in the Baghelkhand plateau.
It is contiguous with the Sanjay Dubri Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh.
Rivers: It serves as the origin of significant rivers such as Hasdeo, Gopad and Baranga and a catchment area for rivers like Neur, Bijadhur, Banas, Rehand, and numerous smaller rivers and rivulets.
Terrain: It is blessed with varied terrains, dense forests, streams and rivers favourable for harbouring a rich faunal diversity and contains critical habitats for the tiger.
Fauna: A total of 753 species, including 365 invertebrates and 388 vertebrates, have been documented here by the Zoological Survey of India.
Other Tigers reserves in Chhattisgarh: Udanti-Sitanadi, Achanakmar, and Indravati Reserves.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2074302
Hwasong-19, recently seen in the news, is an intercontinental ballistic missile developed by which one of the following countries?
North Korea
Explanation :
North Korea recently declared that it successfully test-fired its latest intercontinental ballistic missile, the ‘Hwasong-19.
About Hwasong-19:
It is a North Korean intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM).
As the latest addition to the Hwasong series, the Hwasong-19 incorporates solid-fuel propulsion, which allows it to be deployed more rapidly than liquid-fueled missiles, making it harder to detect and intercept.
It is estimated to be at least 28 meters long (92 feet), while advanced U.S. and Russian ICBMs are less than 20 meters long (66 feet).
Analysts estimate that if launched on a standard trajectory, the Hwasong-19 could cover distances exceeding 13,000 kilometers, enough to target the U.S. mainland.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.india.com/news/world/hwasong-19-north-korea-test-fires-new-solid-fuel-missile-know-its-implications-and-significance-7364199/
Consider the following statements regarding Asset Recovery Interagency Network–Asia Pacific (ARIN-AP):
- It is a prominent multi-agency network dedicated to tackling crime proceeds across the Asia-Pacific region.
- The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is the nodal agency for India in this network.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India, represented by the Directorate of Enforcement (ED), has been included in the Steering Committee of the Asset Recovery Interagency Network-Asia Pacific (ARIN-AP).
About Asset Recovery Interagency Network–Asia Pacific (ARIN-AP):
It is a prominent multi-agency network dedicated to tackling crime proceeds across the Asia-Pacific region.
It was established to facilitate cross-border collaboration on asset tracing, freezing, and confiscation.
The aim of ARIN-AP is to increase the effectiveness of members’ efforts in depriving criminals of their illicit profits on a multi-agency basis by establishing itself as the center of professionals’ network in tackling the proceeds of crime.
The network includes 28 member jurisdictions and nine observers, serving as an informal yet robust framework within the CARIN, or Camden Asset Recovery Inter-Agency Network.
ARIN-AP operates through a network of contact points, enabling effective communication and intelligence exchange among member agencies, and of more than 100 jurisdictions in the CARIN Network.
The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) is the nodal agency for India in this network.
The law enforcement agencies across ARIN-AP and CARIN jurisdictions benefit from this network, as it aids in tracing assets related to criminal activities, both movable and immovable, across frontiers.
Through ARIN-AP and the larger CARIN Network, agencies can exchange information on individuals, assets, and companies informally, often expediting the identification and recovery of proceeds of crime.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-joins-arin-ap-steering-committee-to-assume-presidency-and-host-annual-general-meeting-in-2026/article68815088.ece
With reference to Arsenic, consider the following statements:
- It is a naturally occurring substance that can be found in air, water and soil.
- It is a chemical element in the nitrogen group.
- It is highly toxic in its inorganic form.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
A study conducted by Columbia University has revealed that long-term exposure to arsenic in water may increase cardiovascular disease.
About Arsenic:
Arsenic is a naturally occurring substance that can be found in air, water, and soil.
It can also be released into the environment by certain agricultural and industrial processes, such as mining and metal smelting.
It is a chemical element in the nitrogen group (Group 15 of the periodic table), existing in both gray and yellow crystalline forms.
Arsenic comes in two forms (organic and inorganic). It is highly toxic in its inorganic form.
People in the general population may be exposed to arsenic through drinking contaminated water, using contaminated water in food preparation and irrigation of food crops, industrial processes, eating contaminated food, and smoking tobacco.
Arsenic poisoning:
It can occur when you take in high levels of arsenic.
Drinking contaminated water causes most cases.
Symptoms of immediate arsenic poisoning include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
Long-term exposure can cause skin changes such as darkening and lesions.
Treatment may include the use of a chelating agent or bowel irrigation.
Applications:
Arsenic is a well-known poison. Arsenic compounds are sometimes used as rat poisons and insecticides, but their use is strictly controlled.
Arsenic is used as a doping agent in semiconductors (gallium arsenide) for solid-state devices.
It is also used in bronzing, pyrotechnics, and for hardening shot.
Arsenic compounds can be used to make special glass and preserve wood.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.etvbharat.com/en/!bharat/long-term-exposure-to-arsenic-in-water-may-increase-cardiovascular-disease-study-enn24110104828
Consider the following statements regarding the Empowered Committee for Animal Health (ECAH):
- The primary role of the ECAH is to regulate the import of veterinary medicines into India.
- It was set up under the aegis of the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The 8th meeting of the Empowered Committee for Animal Health (ECAH) held recently, emphasized advancements in India’s animal health.
About Empowered Committee for Animal Health (ECAH):
Established in 2021, ECAH serves as the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying’s (DAHD’s) think tank, providing evidence-based insights and policy recommendations on national health programs, emerging disease threats, One Health initiatives, and regulatory frameworks for veterinary vaccines, drugs, and biologicals.
It brings together various animal health experts to collaborate on achieving the completion of its goals.
It was set up under the aegis of the Office of Principal Scientific Adviser (PSA) to the Government of India.
It is chaired by the Principal Scientific Adviser (PSA), Government of India, and vice-chaired by the Secretary, Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying (DAHD), Ministry of Animal Husbandry, Dairying, and Fisheries.
The members represented on the committee include experts from the Central Drug Standard Control Organization (CDSCO), the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), the Indian Veterinary Research Institute (IVRI), the Veterinary Council of India (VCI), and prominent academics from notable veterinary institutes and industry.
ECAH is focused on creating resilient, farmer-centric animal health systems in India and bringing forth changes to ensure the long-term success of India’s livestock sector by
Acting as a think tank to provide inputs on animal health programmes of national importance.
Streamlining and improving the process of regulatory approval to protect public, animal health, and the environment by examining the safety, efficacy, and quality of veterinary products.
Overseeing and supporting programmes/initiatives to drive uptake of innovative practices in the Indian animal health sector.
Assessing the threat of and offering guidance on emerging animal diseases that have epidemic/pandemic potential.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://krishijagran.com/news/ecahs-8th-meeting-strengthens-animal-health-with-new-vaccines-digital-mission-and-one-health-initiatives/
With reference to the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM), consider the following statements:
- It is an independent body constituted to give advice on economic and related issues to the Government of India, specifically to the Prime Minister.
- The advice tendered by the EAC-PM is binding on the Government.
- It is common for the Council to be reconstituted time and again with different organizational structures headed by various economists.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Bibek Debroy, chairman of the Prime Minister’s economic advisory council (EAC-PM) and a top economist, passed away recently.
About Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM):
It is an independent body constituted to give advice on economic and related issues to the Government of India, specifically to the Prime Minister.
The Terms of Reference of EAC-PM include:
Analysing any issue, economic or otherwise, referred to it by the Prime Minister and advising him thereon.
Addressing issues of macroeconomic importance and presenting views thereon to the Prime Minister. These could be either suo-motu or on reference from the Prime Minister or anyone else.
Attending any other task as may be desired by the Prime Minister from time to time.
The role of EAC-PM is advisory in nature and not binding on the Government.
In addition to its advisory role, the EAC-PM also plays an important role in fostering greater economic understanding and awareness among the public. The council regularly interacts with stakeholders and the public and communicates its findings and recommendations through reports, presentations, and public events.
Composition:
EAC-PM is headed by a chairperson and consists of eminent economists as members.
It is supported in its functions by a team of officials and administrators.
There is no fixed definition of the exact number of members and staff of the EAC-PM.
It is common for the Council to be reconstituted time and again with different organizational structures headed by various economists who are of recognized international eminence.
For administrative, logistic, planning, and budgeting purposes, the NITI Aayog serves as the nodal agency for the EAC-PM.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/bibek-debroy-chairman-of-pm-s-economic-advisory-council-and-top-economist-passes-away-101730437780225.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Namo Drone Didi Scheme:
- It aims to provide drones to Women SHGs for providing rental services to farmers for agriculture purposes.
- It is completely funded by the central government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Government has approved the Central Sector Scheme ‘Namo Drone Didi’ for providing Drones to the Women Self Help Groups (SHGs) under DAY-NRLM, with an outlay of Rs. 1261 Crores.
The scheme aims to provide drones to 14500 selected Women SHGs during the period from 2024-25 to 2025-2026 for providing rental services to farmers for agriculture purposes (application of liquid fertilizers and pesticides for the present).
Components of the operational guidelines are:
The Scheme will be governed at the Central level by the Empowered Committee of the Secretaries of Department of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare, Department of Rural Development, Department of Fertilizers, Ministry of Civil Aviation and Ministry of Women and Child Development.
The Implementation and Monitoring Committee headed by the Additional Secretary, Department of Rural Development and having representation from all other stakeholders will be responsible for effective planning, implementation and monitoring of the scheme.
Financial Assistance: A Central Financial Assistance @ 80% of the cost of drone and accessories/ancillary charges up to a maximum of ₹ 8.0 lakhs will be provided to the women SHGs for purchase of drones as a package.
The Cluster Level Federations (CLFs) of SHGs/SHGs may raise the balance amount (total cost of procurement minus subsidy) as loan under National Agriculture Infra Financing Facility (AIF).
Interest subvention @ 3% on the AIF loan will be provided to the CLFs/SHGs.
The CLFs/SHGs shall also have the option to access loans from other sources/programmes/schemes of the Ministry of Rural Development.
One of the members of the women SHGs will be selected for 15 day training consisting of mandatory drone pilot training and additional training for agriculture purposes for nutrient and pesticide application.
The Lead Fertilizer Companies (LFCs) responsible for the States will be the implementing agencies of the scheme at the State level.
The drones will be procured by the LFCs through a fair and transparent process and the ownership of drones will be placed with the CLF of SHGs or SHGs.
The State Departments of Agriculture & State Mission Directors of DAY-NRLM will have a very strong convergence and they will take the ownership of the scheme for its successful implementation at the ground level with the help of the State Level Committee.
The scheme will be monitored through an IT based Management Information System (MIS) i.e. Drone Portal which will act as end-to-end software for service delivery and monitoring, funds flow and disbursement of funds.
Significance: It is envisaged that the initiatives under the scheme will provide sustainable business and livelihood support to SHGs and they would be able to earn additional income for them.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2070029
Consider the following statements regarding the Analogue Space Mission:
- It is a simulated mission conducted on Earth that mimics the conditions and challenges of actual space exploration.
- The Indian Space Research Organisation launched its first Analogue Space Mission in Leh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Indian Space Research Organisation has launched its first analogue space mission in Leh, marking a significant milestone in the country’s space exploration efforts.
The Analogue space missions are simulated missions conducted on Earth that mimic the conditions and challenges of actual space exploration.
These missions are crucial for testing technologies, studying human behaviour, and preparing for future long-duration space flights.
Aim: It aims to replicate the living conditions astronauts would face on missions to destinations like the Moon, Mars, or asteroids.
Objective: To replicate conditions of living in an interplanetary habitat, tackling the potential obstacles that astronauts may face on future deep-space missions.
They provide a controlled environment to study the physical and psychological effects of isolation and confinement, which are critical for understanding how humans will cope with extended space travel.
It will attempt to simulate life in an interplanetary habitat to tackle the challenges of a base station beyond Earth.
India’s mission is a joint effort which involves the Human Spaceflight Centre of ISRO, AAKA Space Studio, the University of Ladakh, IIT Bombay, and is backed by the Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council.
Throughout the mission, participants will conduct activities to simulate life on another planet, such as habitat design testing, resource management research, and psychological studies on isolation’s impact on crew members.
Significance: It serves as platforms for testing new technologies and operational concepts. They help in evaluating systems related to habitat design, life support, in-situ resource utilisation (ISRU), and crew health monitoring.
It aligns with India’s larger goal of advancing its human spaceflight and interplanetary exploration capabilities, including the Gaganyaan project, which seeks to send Indian astronauts into space.
Examples of Analogue Missions:
Nasa’s NEEMO: Conducted underwater to simulate microgravity conditions, allowing crews to perform tasks similar to those expected in space.
SIRIUS Program (UAE): It focuses on understanding the psychological impacts of isolation during long-duration missions. It includes international collaborations to conduct various scientific experiments.
Arctic Mars analogue Svalbard Expedition (AMASE): Uses the Svalbard archipelago’s extreme environments to test equipment and procedures relevant to Mars exploration.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/simulating-extraterrestrial-life-isro-s-analogue-mission-begins-in-ladakh-124110100362_1.html
With reference to PARAKH Rashtriya Sarvekshan 2024, consider the following statements:
- It aims to create a broader understanding of the educational landscape in India.
- It collects samples from only government and government-aided district school students.
- It will cover students from Grades 3, 6, and 9 across India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The National Achievement Survey (NAS), a nationwide survey meant to assess students’ learning progress, will be held on December 4 this year under a new name – PARAKH Rashtriya Sarvekshan 2024.
The introduction of PARAKH aims to create a broader understanding of the educational landscape in India.
It is spearheaded by the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) and the CBSE, assesses school students’ learning achievements.
A sample of school students from government, government-aided and private schools from each district in the country take the assessment, which is in the form of multiple-choice questions across different subjects.
It will cover students from Grades 3, 6, and 9 across key subjects like Language, Mathematics, Science, Social Science, and “The World Around Us.”
It will evaluate the overall effectiveness of schools across multiple districts. By using a combination of paper-based assessments and Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) technology, PARAKH introduces a more streamlined method of data collection and analysis.
It collects performance data along with contextual data (school, teacher, and pupil questionnaires).
It will evaluate entire schools as entities, providing a system-level assessment of education across districts. This change aligns more closely with international surveys such as the Programme for International Student Assessment (PISA).
Its approach is system-level, focusing on foundational, preparatory, and middle stages of education as outlined in the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
It provides report cards at the national level, the state level and the district level.
It is managed by the National Assessment Center, PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development), which is located within the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) and under supervision of the Ministry of Education (MoE).
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/national-survey-of-students-parakh-what-is-it-9645786/
Consider the following statements regarding Light Detection and Ranging (LiDAR):
- It is a remote sensing technology that uses light in the form of a pulsed laser.
- It is used to generate three-dimensional information about the shape of the Earth and its surface characteristics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, scientists have detected a lost Mayan city, hidden for centuries by the dense Mexican jungle, using LiDAR.
Light Detection and Ranging (LiDAR) is a remote sensing technology that uses light in the form of a pulsed laser to measure ranges (or variable distances) of a sensor, usually mounted aboard an aircraft, to Earth’s surface.
LiDAR data can be used to create high-resolution 3-D models of ground elevation with a vertical accuracy of upto 10 cm.
Working:
LiDAR instrumentation comprises a laser, a scanner, and a GPS receiver.
The rapidly firing laser travels to the ground where it hits vegetation, building, and various topographic features. This light is reflected or scattered, and recorded by the LiDAR sensor.
The system calculates the light pulses’ two-way travel time to arrive at the distance between the terrain and the sensor.
It processes this information with Global Positioning System (GPS) and Inertial Measurement System (IMS) data, to create an elevation map of Earth.
LiDAR data is initially collected as a “point cloud” of all individual points reflected from everything on the surface, including structures and vegetation.
The specific of how much light energy was returned to the sensor allows further identification of different features, such as vegetation, buildings, etc. For example, tree canopies, however dense they may be, allow some light to pass through and hit the ground.
Its data can be further refined to produce what scientists call a “bare earth” Digital Elevation Model, in which structures and vegetation are stripped away.
Applications
It is used to generate precise, three-dimensional information about the shape of the Earth and its surface characteristics.
This is obviously very useful information for geographers, policy makers, conservationists, and engineers.
It has also shown potential as a tool of archaeological discovery.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/lidar-remote-sensing-system-which-helped-discover-lost-mayan-city-9647753/
Exercise GARUD SHAKTI, is conducted between India and:
Indonesia
Explanation :
The Indian Army contingent comprising 25 personnel departed for Cijantung, Jakarta, Indonesia to take part in the Exercise GARUD SHAKTI 24 which will be conducted from 1st to 12th of November 2024.
It is the 9th edition of India-Indonesia Joint Special Forces exercise.
The Indian contingent is being represented by troops from The Parachute Regiment (Special Forces).
The aim of Exercise is to acquaint both the sides with each other’s operating procedures, enhance mutual understanding, cooperation and interoperability between the Special Forces of both armies.
It is designed to develop bilateral military cooperation and strengthen bond between two armies through conduct of discussions and rehearsal of tactical military drills.
It will involve planning and execution of special operations, orientation to advance special forces skills, sharing of information on weapon, equipment, innovations, tactics, techniques & procedures.
It will also involve jointly practicing Special Forces Operations in Jungle terrain, strikes on terrorist camps and a Validation Exercise integrating basic and advance special forces skills apart from gaining an insight into the lifestyle and culture of both countries to foster military cooperation.
Significance: will provide an opportunity to both the contingents to strengthen their bond and share best practices. It will also act as a platform to achieve shared security objectives and foster bilateral relations between two friendly nations.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2069969®=3&lang=1
With reference to the ‘Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction,’ consider the following statements:
- It provides member states with concrete actions to protect developmental gains from the risks of disaster.
- It is the successor instrument to the ‘Hyogo Framework for Action.’
- It covers technological hazards in addition to the natural hazards.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
About Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030:
It was the first major agreement of the post-2015 development agenda and provides member states with concrete actions to protect developmental gains from the risks of disaster.
It was adopted by the UN member states at the Third UN World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction in Sendai, Japan, on March 18, 2015.
It is the successor instrument to the Hyogo Framework for Action (HFA) 2005-2015.
The Sendai Framework advocates for:
The substantial reduction of disaster risk and losses in lives, livelihoods, and health and in the economic, physical, social, cultural, and environmental assets of persons, businesses, communities, and countries.
It recognizes that the State has the primary role to reduce disaster risk, but that responsibility should be shared with other stakeholders, including local government, the private sector, and other stakeholders.
Four Priorities:
Understanding disaster risk
Strengthening disaster risk governance to manage disaster risk
Investing in disaster risk reduction for resilience
Enhancing disaster preparedness for effective response and “Building Back Better” in recovery, rehabilitation, and reconstruction.
Targets:
Substantially reduce global disaster mortality.
Substantially reduce the number of affected people globally.
Reduce direct disaster economic loss in relation to global GDP.
Substantially reduce disaster damage to critical infrastructure and disruption of basic services.
Substantially increase the number of countries with national and local disaster risk reduction strategies.
Substantially enhance international cooperation to developing countries.
Substantially increase the availability of and access to multi-hazard early warning systems and disaster risk information and assessments to people.
The Sendai Framework covers technological hazards in addition to natural hazards, which represent an evolution compared to its predecessor, the Hyogo Framework for Action.
These technological hazards include chemical/industrial hazards further to radiological, nuclear, biological, and others.
It works hand in hand with the other 2030 Agenda agreements, including the Paris Agreement on Climate Change, the Addis Ababa Action Agenda on Financing for Development, the New Urban Agenda, and ultimately the Sustainable Development Goals.
The United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR) is tasked to support the implementation, follow-up and review of the Sendai Framework.
Hence all of the three statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-committed-to-sendai-framework-for-disaster-risk-reduction-pms-aide-pk-mishra/article68822730.ece
What is the main goal of the “First in the World Challenge” initiative, recently seen in the news?
To promote the development of groundbreaking health technologies
Explanation :
About “First in the World Challenge” Initiative:
The “First in the World” Challenge, inspired by the success of Chandrayaan-3, is a major initiative of the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) designed to promote the development of groundbreaking health technologies.
The scheme aims to foster novel, out-of-the box, futuristic ideas, new knowledge generation, discovery/development of breakthrough health technologies (vaccines, drugs/therapeutics, diagnostics, interventions, etc.) that have never been thought of, tested, or tried in the world till date.
This high-risk, high-reward program will provide funding for projects at various stages, from proof-of-concept to prototype and final product development.
The proposal must have bold research ideas with significant wide-ranging impact and, if successful, should have potential ‘first of its kind’ biomedical and technological innovations for better health outcomes in the global context.
Proposals aiming for ‘incremental’ knowledge’ or ‘process innovation ‘will not be funded through this scheme.
The proposals can be submitted by an individual or by a team of researchers (either from a single institute or from multiple institutes).
Every team application must designate one Principal Investigator from the team who will be responsible for technical, administrative, and financial deliverables.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/icmr-announces-first-in-the-world-challenge-to-encourage-scientists-to-find-innovative-ideas-to-tackle-health-issues/article68822688.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA):
- People with OSA repeatedly stop and start breathing while they sleep.
- It occurs when a blockage in the airway keeps air from moving through the windpipe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
About Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA):
It is the most common sleep-related breathing disorder.
People with OSA repeatedly stop and start breathing while they sleep.
It occurs when a blockage in the airway keeps air from moving through the windpipe while one is asleep.
The blockage and lack of airflow can cause the blood oxygen levels to drop, triggering a survival reflex in the brain that wakes ones up just enough to breathe again.
This happens off and on many times during sleep.
While that reflex is key in keeping one breathing, it also disrupts the sleep.
When the breathing is reduced and someone is not taking in enough oxygen, it’s called hypopnea. If the breathing completely stops, it’s called apnea.
Snoring is one of the biggest symptoms of OSA.
Anyone at any age can have OSA. But it’s most common in middle-aged and older adults.
OSA has significant implications for cardiovascular health, mental illness, quality of life, and driving safety.
Treatment: Treatments for OSA are available.
One treatment is a device that uses positive pressure to keep the airway open during sleep.
Another option is a mouthpiece to thrust the lower jaw forward during sleep.
In some people, surgery might be an option too.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/105843/OPS/GOTDHK8RP.1+G1QDHLCPV.1.html
With reference to the Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR), consider the following statements:
- It is an autonomous organisation working under the aegis of the Ministry of Education, Government of India.
- It was established on the recommendation of the National Education Policy, 1968.
- It provides grants to promote research in social sciences in India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
About Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR):
It was established in the year 1969 by the Government of India to promote and fund research in the social sciences in the country. It was established on the recommendation of Prof. V. K. R. V. Rao Committee.
It is an autonomous organisation working under the aegis of the Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education.
Functions: It provides grants for projects, fellowships, international collaboration, capacity building, surveys, publications, etc. to promote research in social sciences in India.
ICSSR has developed the ICSSR Data Service to serve as a national data service for promoting a powerful research environment through sharing and reuse of data among the social science community in India.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/faculty-of-icssr-institutes-appeal-to-education-minister-to-expedite-implementation-of-delayed-7th-cpc-pay-scales/article68819978.ece
Which type of frost forms quickly in very cold, wet climates and can look like solid ice?
Rime
Explanation :
Researchers have developed a new strategy that involves adding a thin layer of graphene oxide that prevents frost formation before it begins.
About Frost:
Frost is water vapor, or water in gas form, that becomes solid.
Frost usually forms on objects like cars, windows, and plants that are outside in air that is saturated, or filled, with moisture.
Areas that have a lot of fog often have heavy frosts.
Frost forms when an outside surface cools past the dew point.
The dew point is the point where the air gets so cold that the water vapor in the atmosphere turns into liquid. This liquid freezes.
If it gets cold enough, little bits of ice, or frost, form.
The ice is arranged in the form of ice crystals.
There are different types of frost. The most common are radiation frost (also called hoarfrost), advection frost, window frost, and rime.
Radiation frost is frost in the form of tiny ice crystals that usually shows up on the ground or exposed objects outside. Hoarfrost also forms in refrigerators and freezers.
Advection frost is a collection of small ice spikes. Advection frost forms when a cold wind blows over the branches of trees, poles, and other surfaces.
Window frost forms when a glass window is exposed to cold air outside and moist air inside. Window frost is familiar to winter residents of cold climates. Indoor heat and cold outdoor temperatures form this type of frost.
Rime forms quickly, usually in very cold, wet climates. It also forms in windy weather. It sometimes looks like solid ice. Ships traveling through cold places like the Arctic Ocean often end up with rime covering at least part of the exposed part of the ship.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/105843/OPS/GOTDHK8RP.1+G1QDHLCPR.1.html
Gastrodia lohitensis, recently in news, is:
an orchid species
Explanation :
About Gastrodia lohitensis:
It is a leafless orchid species found in bamboo thickets around Tezu and it is named after Lohit district of Arunachal Pradesh.
Features:
The orchid presents unique adaptations, thriving without sunlight by extracting nutrients from fungi in decomposing leaf litter.
It grows 50-110 cm tall, the orchid’s defining features include a pair of linear calli and ridges on its flower lip, setting it apart from closely related species in Southeast Asia.
It flourishes only in dense, shaded bamboo canopies, underlining its limited ecological niche.
Threats: With just a small range in the district, it faces pressures from local land use, including bamboo harvesting and agriculture.
Conservationists stress that the survival of this rare orchid depends on protecting its fragile habitat in Arunachal Pradesh’s biodiverse landscape.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatodayne.in/arunachal-pradesh/story/new-orchid-species-discovered-in-arunachal-pradeshs-lohit-district-1113677-2024-10-30
Consider the following statements regarding Thadou Tribe:
- They are indigenous people reside in the State of Manipur.
- They celebrate Hun-Thadou cultural festival at the arrival of the New Year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
About Thadou Tribe:
They are an indigenous people who live in the hill country adjacent to the Imphal Valley in the northeastern Indian State of Manipur.
Other names: Chillya, Kuki, Kukihin, Teizang and Theruvan.
Language: They speak Chin and Thado which belongs to the Tibeto-Burman family of the Sino-Tibetan languages.
The village chiefs house is usually the largest dwelling within the village. Outside it there is a platform upon which men gather to discuss matters of importance and to mediate disputes.
Economy: They practice subsistence activities include animal domestication, cultivation, hunting, and fishing. Jhum (slash-and-burn) agriculture is predominant.
Religious Beliefs: The god Pathen is believed by the Thadou to have created everything. He is also believed to be the ruler of the universe. Sacrifice is offered to Pathen for health or assistance in time of trouble.
Festival: The Hun-Thadou cultural festival is an annual celebration of this community which is celebrated at the arrival of the New Year.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/thadou-tribe-leaders-in-historic-convention-seeks-to-protect-distinct-identity-not-part-of-kuki-6929721
With reference to Kodo millet, consider the following:
- It is one of the drought-tolerant crops and contains vitamins and minerals.
- The tropical and subtropical regions are best suited for its cultivation.
- In India, it is only grown in the Himalayan States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
About Kodo millet:
Kodo millet (Paspalum scrobiculatum) is also known as Kodra and Varagu in India.
It is one of the “hardiest crops, drought tolerant with high yield potential and excellent storage properties,” It is rich in vitamins and minerals.
It is a staple food for many tribal and economically weaker sections in India.
Required climatic condition:
The tropical and subtropical regions are best suited for Kodo millet cultivation.
It is grown on poor soils, and widely distributed in arid and semi-arid regions.
The millet is believed to have originated in India and Madhya Pradesh is one of the largest producers of the crop, according to a 2020 research paper.
Apart from MP, the millet is cultivated in Gujarat, Karnataka, Chhattisgarh, and parts of Tamil Nadu.
The crop is grown in India, Pakistan, the Philippines, Indonesia, Vietnam, Thailand, and West Africa.
According to the research paper, “CPA (Cyclopiazonic acid) is one of the major mycotoxins associated with the kodo millet seeds causing kodo poisoning which was first recognised during the mid-eighties”.
Kodo poisoning occurs mainly due to the consumption of kodo grains, when “maturing and harvesting if the grains had encountered with rainfall, resulting in a fungal infection leading to ‘poisoned kodo’ which is locally known as ‘Matawna Kodoo’ or ‘Matona Kodo’ in northern India.”
Kodo poisoning mainly affects the nervous and cardiovascular systems and the chief symptoms include “vomiting, giddiness, and unconsciousness, small and rapid pulse, cold extremities, shaking of limbs and tremors.”
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/kodo-millet-death-elephants-9650402/
Consider the following statements regarding the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau:
- It is a statutory body established to combat organized wildlife crime in the country.
- It works under the union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate change.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
About Wildlife Crime Control Bureau:
It is a statutory multi-disciplinary body established by the Government of India to combat organized wildlife crime in the country. It was constituted by amending the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
Mandate: Under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972it is mandated to
To collect and collate intelligence related to organized wildlife crime activities and to disseminate the same to State and other enforcement agencies for immediate action so as to apprehend the criminals.
To establish a centralized wildlife crime data bank.
To assist foreign authorities and international organization concerned to facilitate co-ordination and universal action for wildlife crime control.
In capacity building of the wildlife crime enforcement agencies for scientific and professional investigation into wildlife crimes and assist State Governments to ensure success in prosecutions related to wildlife crimes;
It advises the Government of India on issues relating to wildlife crimes having national and international ramifications, relevant policy and laws.
It also assists and advises the Customs authorities in inspection of the consignments of flora & fauna as per the provisions of Wild Life Protection Act, CITES and EXIM Policy governing such an item.
It has developed an online Wildlife Crime Database Management System to get real time data in order to help analyse trends in crime and devise effective measures to prevent and detect wildlife crimes across India.
This system has been successfully used to analyse trends, helping put in preventive measures as well as for successfully carrying out operations such as Operation SAVE KURMA, THUNDERBIRD, WILDNET, LESKNOW, BIRBIL, THUNDERSTORM, LESKNOW-II
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate change
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2070350
Exercise VAJRA PRAHAR is conducted between India and:
The United States of America
Explanation :
About VAJRA PRAHAR:
It is the joint military exercise between Indian army and the United States of America army.
The exercise is scheduled to be conducted at Orchard Combat Training Centre in Idaho, USA.
The Indian Army contingent will be represented by Special Forces units and the US Army contingent will be represented by Green Berets of the USA.
The aim of Exercise VAJRA PRAHAR is to promote military cooperation between India and the US through enhancement of interoperability, jointness and mutual exchange of special operations tactics.
The exercise will enhance combined capabilities in executing joint Special Forces Operations in desert/ semi desert environment. And also, it will focus on high degree of physical fitness, joint planning and joint tactical drills.
Significance: It will enable the two sides to share their best practices and experiences for conduct of joint Special Forces Operations. The exercise will facilitate developing inter-operability, bonhomie and camaraderie between soldiers of both the countries.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2070099
Turtle Wildlife Sanctuary, recently seen in the news, lies in which one of the following states?
Uttar Pradesh
Explanation :
The National Green Tribunal has castigated three district magistrates of Uttar Pradesh and the member secretary of the state’s pollution control board for granting permission “in a mechanical manner” for mining works in the state’s turtle wildlife sanctuary.
About Turtle Wildlife Sanctuary:
Turtle (Kachhua) Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Varanasi District of Uttar Pradesh.
It was touted as the first freshwater turtle wildlife sanctuary in the country.
The protected area is a 7 km stretch of the Ganga River flowing through Varanasi city from Ramnagar Fort to Malviya Rail/Road Bridge.
The sanctuary was declared to ensure the survival of turtles released into the Ganga River in Varanasi.
The turtles were released to promote organic removal of half-burnt human corpses, which are dumped into the river after final rites under Hindu tradition.
To get rid of these without hurting the sentiments of the people, the Ganga Action Plan supported the breeding and release of turtles into the river.
The idea behind the action was that this will in turn nurture a good population of the already dwindling population of Indian softshell turtles.
Turtle hatchlings are reared at the breeding center in Sarnath and subsequently released into the Ganges River once they become mature enough to survive in their natural habitat.
According to the local officials, about 2,000 turtle eggs are brought to the centre from the Chambal and Yamuna rivers every year.
The sanctuary is also home to the Gangetic Dolphin, other species of turtles, and several species of fish, including Rohu, Tengra, and Bhakur.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/ngt-castigates-up-officials-for-mining-permissions-in-turtle-sanctuary-124103100188_1.html
With reference to the Global Tuberculosis (TB) Report 2024, consider the following statements:
- There is a significant decrease in the new TB cases reported in 2023 when compared to 2022.
- The majority of people who developed TB were men.
- India accounts for more than a quarter of the global TB burden.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Global TB Report 2024 has acknowledged the tremendous progress India has made in closing the gap of missed TB cases since 2015.
About Global TB Report:
It is an annual report published by the World Health Organization (WHO).
It provides a comprehensive and up-to-date assessment of the TB epidemic and of progress in prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of the disease at global, regional, and country levels.
Highlights of the 2024 Report:
It shows 8.2 million people were newly diagnosed with TB in 2023, a figure that represents the highest number of TB cases recorded by the WHO since it began global TB monitoring in 1995.
It also marks a significant increase from the 7.5 million new TB cases reported in 2022.
Although the estimated number of 1.25 million TB deaths in 2023 is down from the 1.32 million recorded in 2022 and continues a declining trend from the height of the COVID-19 pandemic, that number still far surpasses the 320,000 COVID deaths officially reported to the WHO last year.
The data show that 30 mostly low- and middle-income countries (LMICs) bear 87% of the global TB burden, with five countries—India (26%), Indonesia (10%), China (6.8%), the Philippines (6.8%), and Pakistan (6.3%)—combining for 56% of the burden.
55 percent of people who developed TB were men, 33 percent were women, and 12 percent were children and young adolescents.
According to the report, a significant number of new TB cases are driven by five major risk factors: undernutrition, HIV infection, alcohol use disorders, smoking, and diabetes.
In 2023, India was estimated to have had 27 lakh TB cases, of which 25.1 lakh persons were diagnosed and put on treatment.
This has buoyed India’s treatment coverage to 89 percent in 2023 from 72 percent in 2015, thereby bridging the gap of missing cases.
It acknowledged a drop in India’s TB incidence - from 237 per lakh population in 2015, to 195 per lakh population in 2023, accounting for a 17.7 percent decline.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://health.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/industry/the-global-tb-report-2024-by-who-acknowledged-indias-progress-in-tackling-tuberculosis/114846952
Which of the following scenarios best explains the use of a transponder?
Identifying and tracking an aircraft
Explanation :
The Central government has planned to install indigenously developed transponders on one lakh fishing vessels for a two-way communication and support system that enhances the safety and security of fishermen at sea.
About Transponder:
A transponder is a wireless communication, monitoring, or control device that picks up and automatically responds to an incoming signal.
The term is a combination of transmitter and responder.
Transponders are typically used for detecting, identifying, and locating objects, but they can also be used in other technologies, such as satellites to relay communications signals.
Transponders are commonly found in both civilian and military aircraft and in objects, such as car keys.
How do transponders work?
Transponders operate using radio frequencies and respond to wireless monitoring, communications, and control device signals.
When sent a signal-also called an interrogator-a transponder responds by returning an identifying signal.
The information included in the response varies depending on the type of transponder but can include location and identifying codes.
The transponder automatically sends back a radio signal at a predetermined frequency.
To receive and send signals simultaneously, receiving and transmitting signals must be set at different frequencies.
For Example: An air traffic controller can send an interrogator signal and receive identifying information on an aircraft. This enables the control tower to track the aircraft in the surrounding airspace and provide other information to help the pilots maintain adequate distance from other aircraft.
Transponders are used with the following technologies:
aircraft identification;
communications satellites;
vehicle keys;
optical communications;
sonar;
electronic toll collection systems;
lap timing and tire identification for motor sports; and
magnetic labels on credit cards.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.etvbharat.com/en/!bharat/indigenously-developed-transponders-to-be-installed-on-1-lakh-fishing-vessels-to-enhance-safety-of-fishermen-enn24102906397
Consider the following statements regarding Alstonia scholaris, recently seen in the news:
- It is an evergreen tropical tree used in traditional medicine.
- It is widespread across the Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia, and southern China.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Even though Cyclone Dana triggered heavy rain in Kolkata, it did bring relief to those with allergies and asthma, as the heavy showers led to chhatim trees chhatim trees (Alstonia scholaris) shedding the flowers that have a strong fragrance.
About Alstonia scholaris:
Alstonia scholaris, commonly called blackboard tree, scholar tree, milkwood, or devil’s tree in English, is an evergreen tropical tree in the dogbane family (Apocynaceae).
It is called ‘Saptaparna’ in India. It has been cited in the Charaka and Sushrutha Samhithas.
Distribution: This tree is widespread across the Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia, and southern China, thriving in tropical and subtropical climates.
Features:
It grows to a height of 10–20 meters, sometimes reaching up to 40 meters.
It has dark grey bark and a crown of simple, whorled leaves arranged in clusters of seven, giving rise to the name “saptaparni” (meaning “seven-leaves”).
Flowers: Small, fragrant, and greenish-white flowers bloom in clusters during late autumn and early winter.
Uses:
The bark, leaves, and other parts of Alstonia scholaris have been used in traditional medicine for treating respiratory conditions, fever, skin disorders, and digestive issues.
The soft, lightweight wood of the blackboard tree was historically used for making writing slates and blackboards, which is how it got the common name “blackboard tree.”
IUCN status: Least Concern
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/kolkata/cyclone-dana-eases-chhatim-allergy-suffering-for-kolkata-residents/articleshow/114854394.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Iron Beam, recently seen in the news:
- It is a laser-based missile defense system developed by Israel.
- Its operational range extends up to hundreds of kilometers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Israel’s ‘Iron Beam’, designed to use high-power laser to down projectiles, will be operational within a year, according to reports.
About Iron Beam:
The Iron Beam, also known as Magen or Light Shield, is a new laser-based missile defence system developed by Israel.
It is a 100kW class High Energy Laser Weapon System (HELWS) that is expected to become the first operational system in its class.
It is a directed-energy weapon air defence system that fires powerful beams of light that can destroy fast-moving projectiles.
Built by Rafael Advanced Defense Systems, Iron Beam was first unveiled in 2014.
Its operational range extends up to 7 km (4.3 miles).
Advantages:
With a continuous energy supply for the laser, the advantage lies in never depleting ammunition, ensuring a sustained capability for defense.
The absence of conventional ammunition will directly result in significant cost savings.
Complementing Israel’s Irom Dome, it can be integrated with a range of platforms and can become part of any multilayer defence system.
Disadvantages:
Diminished effectiveness during restricted visibility, such as heavy cloud cover or adverse weather conditions.
It cannot operate effectively in wet conditions—the more moisture in the atmosphere, the more water particles absorb the laser’s energy.
Iron Beam requires a direct line of sight between the system and its target, making its placement far more critical.
It also has a much slower rate of fire, requiring five seconds or so to transmit sufficient energy to destroy its target.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/iron-beam-israels-new-era-anti-missile-defence-system-will-use-lasers-6925570
Consider the following statements regarding the black hole V404 Cygni:
- It is located in the constellation of Cygnus.
- It was formed by the supernova process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A new study says scientists have discovered a “black hole triple” in space for the first time.
The system comprises a black hole at its centre, currently in the process of consuming a small star spiralling very close to it.
There is also a second star, which appears to be circling the black hole but is actually far away.
The discovery of the system, located about 8,000 light years away from Earth has raised questions about how black holes are formed.
Many black holes discovered until now have been part of binary systems, consisting of a black hole and a secondary object (such as a star or another black hole).
But the black hole triple not only has one star which orbits the black hole about every 6.5 days, but also a more far-off star which orbits it every 70,000 years.
It is situated in the constellation of Cygnus, the system features one of the oldest known black holes, the V404 Cygni, which is nine times as big as the Sun in our solar system.
V404 Cygni has two stars around it as the black hole did not arise from a supernova, which typically kicks away outer stars in the explosion.
Instead, it was formed through another process called “direct collapse”, where the star caves in after expending all its fuel, but does not explode.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/first-black-hole-triple-system-discovered-what-does-it-mean-9649210/
Consider the following statements regarding Hydrogel:
- It is a three-dimensional network composed of hydrophobic polymers.
- It can change its structure in response to local temperature and salt concentration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A new way discovered by a team of researchers at the Department of Chemical Sciences in Bose Institute to create hydrogels using tiny protein fragments of just five amino acids from the SARS-CoV-1 virus, could help improve targeted drug delivery & reduce side effects.
It is a three-dimensional network composed of hydrophobic polymers synthesized by crosslinking water-soluble polymers.
Hydrogels can retain a large quantity of water within their network without disturbing their original structure. This imparts flexibility and swelling properties to the hydrogel structures.
It is a “smart” material that can change its structure in response to its environment, such as the local temperature, pH, salt or water concentration.
What is SARS?
Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is a viral respiratory disease caused by the virus SARS-CoV-1.
It is an airborne virus and can spread through small droplets of saliva in a similar way to the cold and influenza.
It can also be spread indirectly via surfaces that have been touched by someone who is infected with the virus.
Symptoms of SARS include: Persistent, high fever, Chills, Headache, Body aches.
Treatment: There’s no established treatment specifically for SARS.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2069176
With reference to Markhor, consider the following statements:
- It is a wild goat species found in the mountainous regions of Central and South Asia.
- It is a diurnal animal and known for its thick fur.
- It is considered a critically endangered species under the IUCN Red list.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only Two
Explanation :
Markhor, the largest wild goat in the world, is battling for survival in Jammu and Kashmir and measures must be taken to protect its habitat to increase its population.
The markhor is a wild goat species indigenous to the mountainous regions of Central and South Asia.
It is known for its thick fur, flowing beard and corkscrew horns.
It is considered to be an apt flagship species for catalysing conservation in these mountain tracks.
It is adapted to mountainous terrain, between 600 and 3,600 m elevation, with open woodlands, scrublands and light forests.
It is a diurnal animal and is mainly active in the early morning and late afternoon.
It is found in the moist to semi-arid mountain tracts of Pakistan, India, Afghanistan, Uzbekistan, Turkmenistan and Tajikistan.
In J&K, Markhor’s population is found in Shopian, Banihal pass to Shamsbari area of the Kazinag Uri and Pir Panjal range in Poonch.
IUCN : ‘Near Threatened’
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 : Schedule I
CITES: Appendix I
Threats: Its population has been affected mostly by unabated human intervention and biotic factors.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.greaterkashmir.com/opinion/markhor-preserve-worlds-largest-goat-in-jk/
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Green Building Council:
- It is part of the Confederation of Indian Industry and provides green building rating programmes in India.
- It considers sustainable station facility and energy efficiency for giving green building ratings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Himachal Pradesh Chief Minister announced that the upcoming Durgesh Aranya Zoological Park will become India’s first zoo to earn certification from the Indian Green Building Council (IGBC) for sustainable and eco-friendly infrastructure.
It is part of the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) which was formed in the year 2001.
It is India’s Premier certification body.
The council offers a wide array of services which include developing new green building rating programmes, certification services and green building training programmes.
The council also organises Green Building Congress, its annual flagship event on green buildings.
It is also among the 5 countries that are in the board of World Green Building Council discussing global issues at COP and similar global platforms.
The rating is based on six environmental categories which include sustainable station facility, health, hygiene and sanitation, energy efficiency, water efficiency, smart and green initiatives and innovation and development.
Headquarter: Hyderabad.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/himachal-pradeshs-durgesh-aranya-zoological-park-set-to-become-indias-first-zoo-with-igbc-certification-cm-sukhu/
Consider the following statements regarding Papua New Guinea:
- It is located in the Southern Indian Ocean.
- It is a constitutional monarchy and a member of the Commonwealth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
At the just-concluded 16th Conference of Parties (COP16) to the Convention on Biological Diversity, local environmental groups from Papua New Guinea raised these urgent issues and called for international action to stop illegal logging that is damaging one of the most biodiverse areas on the planet.
It is an island country that lies in the south-western Pacific Ocean.
It includes the eastern half of New Guinea (the world’s second largest island) and many small offshore islands.
Neighbours: Indonesia to the west, Australia to the south, and the Solomon Islands to the south-east.
Terrain: It is mainly mountainous but has low-lying plains in southern New Guinea.’
The islands that constitute Papua New Guinea were settled over a period of 40,000 years by a mixture of peoples who are generally referred to as Melanesians.
Language: English is the main language of government and commerce. In most everyday contexts, the most widely spoken language is Tok Pisin.
The country is a constitutional monarchy and a member of the Commonwealth. The British monarch, represented by a governor-general, is head of state, and the Prime Minister is head of government.
Papua New Guinea’s rainforests are rich in biodiversity, housing rare species such as birds of paradise, tree kangaroos, and the Queen Alexandra’s birdwing butterfly.
These forests represent only one per cent of Earth’s land but play a vital role in absorbing carbon and supporting the lives and traditions of Papua New Guinea’s indigenous peoples.
Capital: Port Moresby
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/papua-new-guineas-rainforests-in-danger-illegal-logging-crises-fuel-human-rights-abuses-and-threaten-biodiversity
Gobind Sagar Lake lies in which one of the following states?
Himachal Pradesh
Explanation :
Himachal Chief minister recently inaugurated water sports activities at Gobind Sagar Lake.
About Gobind Sagar Lake:
It is a manmade reservoir located in the Una and Bilaspur districts of Himachal Pradesh.
It is named in honour of Guru Gobind Singh, the tenth Sikh Guru.
Its source is the Bhakra Dam on the Sutlej River.
One of the world’s highest gravity dams, the Bhakra dam is perched at an elevation of 225.5 m above its lowest foundations.
Gobind Sagar reservoir is 90 k.m. long and encompasses an area of approximately 170 sq. k.m.
The maximum and mean depths of the reservoir are 163.07 m and 55 m, respectively, making it one of the deepest man-made lakes in the world.
It is surrounded by lush green hills and the snow-capped peaks of the Himalayas.
It is also the third-largest in the country concerning the storage of water.
It helps in supplying water for irrigation to the states of Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan, significantly benefiting agriculture in the region.
Flora and Fauna:
In 1962, the lake was recognized as the ‘waterfowl refuge.’
Even today, the Gobind sagar lake is home to many species of birds and animals like Panther, Wolf, Chausinga, Sambar, Hyena, Sloth bear, Nilgai, Chinkara and wild boar.
It is home to fifty species and sub-species of fishes namely Tor Putitora (Mahasheer), Labeo Dero (Gid), Mystus Seenghala (Singhara) and mirror carp.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/chandigarh-news/sukhvinder-sukhu-launches-water-sports-at-bilaspur-s-gobind-sagar-lake-101730266363050.html
With reference to the Central Water Commission (CWC), consider the following statements:
- It is a premier technical organization of India in the field of water resources.
- It functions as an attached office of the Union Ministry of Jal Shakti.
- It can carry out investigations, construction, and execution of schemes for control, conservation, and utilization of water resources throughout the country.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Glacial lakes and other water bodies across the Himalayan region saw a 10.81% increase in area from 2011 to 2024 due to climate change, signalling a heightened risk of glacial lake outburst floods (GLOFs), according to a Central Water Commission’s (CWC) report.
About Central Water Commission (CWC):
It is a premier technical organization of India in the field of water resources.
It is presently functioning as an attached office of the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development, and Ganga Rejuvenation, Government of India.
Headquarters: New Delhi
Functions:
The Commission is entrusted with the general responsibilities of initiating, coordinating,and furthering, in consultation with the State Governments concerned, schemes for control, conservation, and utilization of water resourcesthroughout the country for purposes of Flood Control, Irrigation, Navigation, Drinking Water Supply, and Water Power Development.
It also undertakes the investigations, construction, and execution of any such schemes as required.
Organisation Structure:
It is headed by a Chairman, with the status of Ex-Officio Secretary tothe Government of India.
The work of the Commission is divided among 3 wings, namely,
Designs and Research (D&R) Wing
River Management (RM) Wing
Water Planning and Projects (WP&P) Wing.
Each wing is placed under the charge of a full-time member with the status of Ex-Officio Additional Secretary to the Government of India.
Each wing, comprising a number of organisations, is responsible for the disposal of tasks and duties falling within the scope of functions assigned to them.
The National Water Academy,locatedin Pune, is responsible for training of central and state in-service engineers and it functions directly under the guidance of theChairman.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/himalayan-glacial-lakes-saw-1081-area-expansion-from-2011-to-2024-report/article68825163.ece
Kalka-Shimla Railway, recently seen in the news, connects which of the following two states in India?
Haryana and Himachal Pradesh
Explanation :
Himachal Pradesh Chief Minister recently urged the Central government to explore the possibility of running trains on the Kalka-Shimla narrow-guage railway, a UNESCO world heritage site, on green hydrogen.
About Kalka-Shimla Railway (KSR):
It is a narrow-gauge railway in North India which traverses a mostly mountainous route from Kalka (Haryana) to Shimla (Himachal Pradesh).
Construction:
The railway was built in 1898 to connect Shimla, the summer capital of British India, with the rest of the Indian rail system.
The project’s chief engineer was H. S. Harington.
The 96 k.m. long, single-track line, often called the toy train line, was opened in 1903.
It passes through 18 stations, 102 tunnels, and over 850 bridges.
Total change of altitude: From Kalka (655 meters)to Shimla (2,076 meters).
The world’s highest multi-arch gallery bridge at Kanoh and the world’s longest tunnel at Barog (at the time of construction) of the KSR were the testimony of the brilliant engineering skills applied to make this railway line.
It was a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2008.
The rail network holds the Guinness Book of World Records for its 96-kilometers steepest rise in altitude with a crossover of 800 bridges and viaducts.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/himachal-pradesh/himachal-urges-centre-to-explore-possibility-of-running-trains-on-green-hydrogen-on-kalka-shimla-heritage-rail-track/article68828638.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Yanadi Tribe, recently seen in the news:
- It is one of the major scheduled tribes of Kerala.
- It is one of the most educated and economically prosperous tribal groups in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Three children of the Yanadi tribe who went missing from their homes at Kalekhanpeta in Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, were traced recently.
About Yanadi Tribe:
Yanadis are one of the major scheduled tribes of Andhra Pradesh.
They are among the most vulnerable tribal groups in India. They live in extreme conditions of poverty and social exclusion.
A significant population of Yanadis live in the plains of Nellore, a district in the eastern coastal state of Andhra Pradesh.
Their population according to 2001 census reports is 4,62,167 in Andhra Pradesh.
Their mother tongue is Telugu.
Historically, the Yanadis have been associated with occupations such as hunting,gathering, and agriculture, relying on their intimate knowledge of the land and its resources for sustenance.
They have rich traditional health knowledge, including knowledge for everyday healthcare and specialized knowledge (e.g., snakebite cures).
They harness the medicinal potential of plants for treating gastrointestinal disorders, respiratory ailments, skin conditions, and reproductive health issues.
Yanadis have many religious beliefs and festivalsconnected with the forest flora.
Dhimsa Dance: It is a dance performed by the Yanadi tribe during festivals and special occasions.
Henceboth statements are not correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/three-runaway-yanadi-tribe-children-traced-restored-to-family/article68826314.ece
What makes the Tumaini Festival unique compared to other festivals worldwide?
It is the only festival held within a refugee camp
Explanation :
Tumaini Festival in Malawi unites refugees and locals through music, art, and crafts, fostering connection and hope.
About Tumaini Festival:
Founded in 2014, the Tumaini Festival is a cultural event held annually within the Dzaleka Refugee Camp in Malawi.
It is the only festival of its kind in the world that is held within a refugee camp.
The festival is organized and managed by refugees, creating a platform for displaced people that fosters community, solidarity, and cultural exchange.
The Tumaini Festival attracts thousands of attendees every year and features performances by acts from all around the world.
The festival showcases a diverse array of artistic expressions, including music, dance, theater, and visual arts.
It received a Cultures of Resistance Award (CoR Award) in 2024.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/malawi-festival-unites-refugees-and-locals/article68825927.ece
Ningol Chakkouba festival, recently in news, is celebrated in:
Manipur
Explanation :
Recently, Ningol Chakkouba festival was held with religious fervour and gaiety across the State of Manipur.
The festival is held every year on the second day of the lunar month of Hiyangei of the Meitei calendar.
The festival is mainly celebrated by the Meiteis but nowadays many other communities also have started to celebrate it as it emphasises the importance of happiness and reunion of a family in bringing peace and harmony in a society.
Ningol means ‘married woman’ and Chakouba means ‘invitation for feast’; so the festival is the one where the married women are invited to their parents’ home for a feast.
The main component of the festival is the visit of married sisters to their maternal homes for grand feast and joyous reunion followed by giving away the gifts.
It is customary for the son of the family to extend a formal invitation to his sister for Ningol Chakkouba a week before the gathering. The festival is held today outside Manipur where Manipuris are settled.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/ningol-chakkouba-festival-celebrated-with-religious-fervor-and-gaiety-across-manipur/
Consider the following statements regarding Ralengnao ‘Bob’ Khathing:
- He was the first individual from Manipur to get the King’s Commission during World War II.
- He was given the award of Member of British Empire (MBE) for his role in galvanising Naga support against the Japanese in Burma.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, defence Minister inaugurated the Major Ralengnao ‘Bob’ Khathing Museum of Valour at Tawang in Arunachal Pradesh.
Ranenglao ‘Bob’ Khathing was born on February 28, 1912, in Manipur’s Ukhrul district. He was a Tangkhul Naga.
During World War II he became the first Manipuri to get the King’s Commission.
Bob Khathing’s Army service
He was given the coveted award of Member of British Empire (MBE) for his role in galvanising Naga support against the Japanese in Burma and India and also the Military Cross (MC) for his acts of bravery above and beyond the call of duty.
Bob was commissioned into the 9/11 Hyderabad Regiment (now Kumaon Regiment). In 1942, he was transferred to the Assam Regiment in Shillong.
During the Second World War, he was part of a guerrilla outfit called Victor Force, raised by the British to combat the Japanese on the Burma-India road.
He was appointed as advisor to a force known as SANCOL, comprising 153 Gurkha Parachute Battalion which was formed in June 1944 under command of Major John Saunders, to this force.
He led the expedition to peacefully integrate Tawang into India.
He was also instrumental in establishing essential military and security frameworks, such as the Sashastra Seema Bal, Nagaland Armed Police, and the Naga Regiment.
He was the first person of tribal origin to serve as an ambassador for India in then Burma, now Myanmar.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-history/bob-khathing-museum-of-valour-who-was-he-tawang-9652860/
Consider the following statements regarding Orphan drugs:
- These are pharmaceutical agents developed specifically to treat rare diseases.
- These drugs receive tax credits and several incentives to encourage their development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India faces significant challenges in ensuring the development, affordability, and accessibility of orphan drugs, especially compared to other countries like the United States and the European Union.
These are pharmaceutical agents developed specifically to treat rare (orphan) diseases.
These diseases, though affecting only a small portion of the population, often lead to life-threatening or chronically debilitating conditions. Definitions of orphan drugs vary depending on the regulatory framework.
There is no formal prevalence-based definition in India, the NPRD of 2021 outlines a framework for diagnosing and treating rare diseases, with a low prevalence threshold expected.
Orphan drugs are categorised based on the types of diseases they target and their regulatory status.
Diseases such as genetic disorders, rare cancers, metabolic disorders, and autoimmune conditions frequently fall under the orphan disease category.
Genetic disorders include conditions like cystic fibrosis and Duchenne muscular dystrophy,
Rare cancers like neuroblastoma and gliomas also qualify for orphan drug development.
Metabolic disorders, such as Gaucher’s disease and Fabry disease, and autoimmune diseases, like systemic sclerosis, also benefit from orphan drugs.
For a drug to receive orphan drug designation, it must meet certain criteria that vary across countries.
Typically, the disease in question must have a low prevalence, the condition must lack approved treatments, or the orphan drug must provide significant benefits over current treatment options.
Developers of orphan drugs must also provide scientific evidence that the drug has the potential to treat or alleviate the condition.
This evidence can be presented at any stage of drug development, from preclinical research to late-phase clinical trials.
Once designated, orphan drugs receive several incentives to encourage their development, including market exclusivity, tax credits for research and development (R&D) expenses, and fee waivers for regulatory applications.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/understanding-orphan-drugs-what-are-they-how-are-they-classified-and-what-are-their-challenges-in-the-indian-context/article68806270.ece
Consider the following statements regarding LignoSat Satellite:
- It is constructed from magnolia wood tasked to demonstrate the cosmic potential of the renewable material.
- It is developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The world’s first wooden satellite LignoSat built by Japanese researchers was launched into space in an early test of using timber in lunar and Mars exploration.
LignoSat”, a fusion of “ligno” (the Latin word for wood) and “satellite”.
It is developed through collaborative research and development by a team comprising members from Kyoto University and Sumitomo Forestry Co.
Objective: Their objective is to leverage the eco-friendliness and cost-effectiveness of wood in space exploration.
It is tasked to demonstrate the cosmic potential of the renewable material as humans explore living in space.
It is constructed from magnolia wood, chosen for its durability and adaptability.
It will first be sent to the International Space Station (ISS) aboard a SpaceX rocket from the Kennedy Space Center.
Once it reaches the ISS, it will be released from the Japanese experiment module to test its durability and strength.
Researchers will receive data from the satellite to monitor its performance, including signs of strain and its ability to withstand extreme temperature changes.
Why is wood used? : Wooden satellites are viewed as more environmentally friendly upon reentering the Earth’s atmosphere at the conclusion of their mission. Unlike metal satellites, which pose air pollution risks due to the generation of metal particles during reentry, wooden satellites mitigate these concerns.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.reuters.com/technology/space/worlds-first-wooden-satellite-developed-japan-heads-space-2024-11-05/
Mount Lewotobi Laki-laki, recently in news, is situated in:
Indonesia
Explanation :
Recently, at least 10 people died after Mount Lewotobi Laki-laki in eastern Indonesia erupted and forced authorities to evacuate several nearby villages.
It is located on Flores Island.
It is the volcanic mountain situated in East Nusa Tenggara province of Indonesia.
The volcano is part of a twin-volcano system that the local residents perceive as male and female mountains.
The ongoing volcanic eruption has occurred at the male counterpart of the system (Lewotobi Lakilaki) while the female mountain is known as Lewotobi Perempuan.
The two mountains are classified as stratovolcanoes which are the most commonly occurring volcanoes around the world and are formed by the layers of lava that repeatedly oozes out of the crater.
It is not uncommon for Indonesia to witness such volcanic eruptions as it is situated along the famous ‘Ring of Fire’ in the Pacific region- an encirclement dotted by active volcanoes that sit on top of vigorous tectonic plates that often collide and lead to seismic activity causing earthquakes and tsunamis.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/natural-disasters/volcano-erupts-at-indonesias-mount-lewotobi-laki-laki-9-dead-thousands-evacuated-as-volcanic-ash-burns-houses
Which one of the following conditions can result from a deficiency in Vitamin D?
A.
Rickets
B.
Hyperparathyroidism
C.
Hypocalcemia
All of the above
Explanation :
Scientists have made some notable discoveries about how Vitamin D deficiency early in life can trigger problems with the body’s immune system.
About Vitamin D:
Vitamin D (also referred to as calciferol) is a fat-soluble vitamin that is naturally present in a few foods, added to others, and available as a dietary supplement.
It is also produced endogenously when ultraviolet (UV) rays from sunlight strike the skin and trigger vitamin D synthesis.
During periods of sunlight, vitamin D is stored in fat and then released when sunlight is not available.
Foods that naturally have vitamin D include egg yolks, saltwater fish, and liver.
Why is vitamin D so important?
Vitamin D promotes calcium absorption and helps maintain adequate levels of calcium and phosphorus in the blood, which is necessary for healthy bones and teeth.
Without sufficient vitamin D, bones can become thin, brittle, or misshapen.
Vitamin D also plays a role in your nervous system, musculoskeletal system, and immune system.
Vitamin D Deficiency:
A lack of vitamin D can lead to bone diseases such as osteoporosis or rickets. Osteoporosis is a disease in which your bones become weak and are likely to fracture (break).
With chronic and/or severe vitamin D deficiency, a decline in calcium and phosphorus absorption by your intestines leads to hypocalcemia (low calcium levels in your blood).
This leads to secondary hyperparathyroidism (overactive parathyroid glands attempting to keep blood calcium levels normal).
Both hypocalcemia and hyperparathyroidism, if severe, can cause symptoms, including muscle weakness and cramps, fatigue, and depression.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.sciencealert.com/vitamin-d-deficiency-can-trigger-autoimmune-conditions-heres-why
Minuteman III Missile, recently seen in the news, is an intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) developed by which one of the following countries?
United States of America
Explanation :
The US army would be carrying out a test launch of a Minuteman III hypersonic nuclear missile hours after voting close on Election Day.
About Minuteman III Missile:
The LGM-30G Minuteman III is an American intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM).
“L” in LGM is the US Department of Defense designation for silo-launched; “G” means surface attack; and “M” stands for guided missile.
It first became operational in the early 1970s.
It is the sole land-based component of the U.S. nuclear triad.
It was designed and manufactured by the Boeing Corporation.
Originally, it was only supposed to be kept in service for about ten years, but instead, it has been modernized as its replacement, the Ground-Based Strategic Deterrent (GBSD), is due to become available for use in 2029.
It was the first U.S. missile fitted with multiple independently targetable re-entry vehicles (MIRVs).
The United States currently has an estimated 440 Minuteman III missiles in its arsenal.
Features:
It is a three-stage, solid-fuel missile.
The missile is 18.2 m long with a diameter of 1.85 m and a launch weight of 34,467 kg.
Speed: Approximately 15,000 mph (Mach 23 or 24,000 kph) at burnout (Hypersonic).
It has a maximum range of 13,000 km and is capable of carrying a payload of three re-entry vehicles.
It now carries a single nuclear warhead pursuant to arms control agreements between the United States and Russia.
The Minuteman missiles are dispersed in hardened silos and connected to an underground launch control center through a system of hardened cables.
It has a fast launch time, nearly 100 percent testing reliability, and backup airborne launch controllers to preserve retaliatory capabilities.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.timesnownews.com/world/us/us-news/united-states-to-test-hypersonic-nuclear-missile-minuteman-iii-after-polls-close-report-article-114992067
With reference to the Common Cat Snake, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:
- It is endemic to South Asia.
- Its venom is extremely dangerous to humans.
- It is classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The elusive common cat snake was recently discovered in the Valmiki Tiger Reserve, Bihar.
About Common Cat Snake:
Common Cat Snake, also known as Indian gamma snake, is a species of rear-fanged snake endemic to South Asia.
Scientific Name: Boiga trigonata
In India, it is found all over the country, excluding north-east states after Sikkim; it is also, not found in Indian islands.
Habitat: It can be found in almost all kinds of forests and wide ranges of elevations.
While venomous, the Common Cat Snake’s venom is not considered highly dangerous to humans. It primarily uses its venom to subdue prey.
Features:
It is a medium-sized snake that is usually found in the 70-100 cm range.
Its body is slender, thin, and bears a thin tail.
Its upper body colour is grey-brown, with cream-coloured irregular markings, margined with black colour.
Its underside is yellow-white or yellow-brown.
Its head is large, triangular-shaped, and distinctly broader than the neck.
Unlike other cat snakes of its range, this species bears characteristic “gamma” or “Y”-shaped marking that helps in its quick identification on the field.
Lifespan: 12-20 years
Diet: It primarily consists of small vertebrates.
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.news18.com/viral/rare-cat-snake-spotted-in-bihars-valmiki-tiger-reserve-9109474.html
Consider the following statements regarding Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC):
- It is the primary payload of the Aditya-L1 Mission.
- It is built by the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Scientists at the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) Bengaluru recently reported the “first significant” results from the Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) payload onboard the ADITYA-L1 Mission.
About Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC):
It is the primary payload of the Aditya-L1 Mission-India’s first mission to observe the Sun from a vantage point 1.5 million kilometres from the earth.
It is an internally occulted solar coronagraph capable of simultaneous imaging, spectroscopy, and spectro-polarimetry close to the solar limb.
It is built by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) at its CREST (Centre for Research and Education in Science and Technology) campus at Hosakote, Karnataka.
The VELC consists of a coronagraph, spectrograph, polarimetry module, and detectors, aside from auxiliary optics.
Purpose:
It will observe the solar corona, which is the tenuous, outermost layer of the solar atmosphere.
VELC can image the solar corona down to 1.05 times the solar radius, which is the closest any such payload has imaged.
It will analyze the coronal temperature, plasma velocity, density, etc.
It will also study Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) and the solar wind.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Nov/05/first-significant-results-from-payload-onboard-maiden-solar-mission-aditya-l1
With reference to the International Energy Agency (IEA), consider the following statements:
- It is an autonomous intergovernmental organisation within the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) framework.
- It was created in response to the 1973-1974 oil crisis.
- India is a founding member of IEA.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The global market for clean energy technologies is set to rise from $700 billion in 2023 to more than $2 trillion by 2035 – close to the value of the world’s crude oil market in recent years, says a first of its kind study by the International Energy Agency (IEA).
About International Energy Agency (IEA):
It is an autonomous intergovernmental organisation within the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) framework.
Mission: It works with governments and industry to shape a secure and sustainable energy future for all.
Background:
It was created in response to the 1973-1974 oil crisis when an oil embargo by major producers pushed prices to historic levels and exposed the vulnerability of industrialised countries to dependency on oil imports.
It was founded in 1974 to ensure the security of oil supplies.
IEA’s mandate has expanded over time to include tracking and analyzing global key energy trends, promoting sound energy policy, and fostering multinational energy technology cooperation.
It is the global energy authority, providing data, analysis, and solutions on all fuels and all technologies.
In recent years, the IEA has also focused on renewable energy and initiatives focused on environmental protection and stopping climate change.
Membership: It is made up of 31 member countries, 13 association countries, and 5 accession countries.
Criteria for membership: A candidate country to the IEA must be a member country of the OECD. In addition, it must demonstrate several requirements.
Crude oil and/or product reserves equivalent to 90 days of the previous year’s net imports, to which the government has immediate access (even if it does not own them directly) and could be used to address disruptions to global oil supply;
A demand restraint programme to reduce national oil consumption by up to 10%;
Legislation and organisation to operate the Co-ordinated Emergency Response Measures (CERM) on a national basis;
Legislation and measures to ensure that all oil companies under its jurisdiction report information upon request;
Measures are in place to ensure the capability of contributing its share of an IEA collective action.
India joined this organization in 2017 as an Associate member.
Reports published by IEA: World Energy Outlook, World Energy Balances, Energy Technology Perspectives, World Energy Statistics and Net Zero by 2050.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.fortuneindia.com/macro/global-clean-tech-market-to-grow-to-2-trillion-by-2035-iea/119009
Exercise VINBAX, is conducted between India and:
Vietnam
Explanation :
The Exercise “VINBAX 2024” is scheduled to be conducted from 04 to 23 November 2024 at Ambala and Chandimandir.
It is a bilateral army exercise conducted between India and Vietnam.
This edition marks a significant increase in the scope with Bi Service level participation for the first time by personnel of Army and Air Force from both the countries.
The Indian Army contingent comprising 47 personnel is being represented by a Regiment of the Corps of Engineers along with personnel from other arms and services.
The aim of VINBAX-2024 is to enhance joint military capability of both sides in employment and deployment of Engineer Company and Medical Teams to undertake engineering tasks as part of United Nation Contingent in Peacekeeping Operations under Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter.
The conduct of VINBAX-2024 as a field training exercise with enhanced scope from previous editions of bilateral exercise will strengthen mutual confidence, interoperability and enable sharing of best practices between the Indian Army and Vietnam People’s Army.
A 48 hours Validation Exercise with Humanitarian Assistance & Disaster Relief demonstration and equipment display is also part of the schedule to assess the standards achieved by both contingents
The joint exercise will also provide an opportunity to the troops of both the Contingents to learn about the social and cultural heritages of each other.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2070563
Consider the following statements regarding the Proba-3 mission:
- It is the European Space Agency’s (ESA) first mission dedicated to precision formation flying.
- It aims to create an artificial eclipse by precisely coordinating two independent satellites.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the union minister of Science and Technology said that India will launch the European Space Agency’s Proba-3 mission early next month from the spaceport at Sriharikota.
It is the European Space Agency’s (ESA) first mission dedicated to precision formation flying.
It is the innovative mission which will demonstrate precision formation flying between two satellites to create an artificial eclipse, revealing new views of the Sun’s faint corona.
The core objective of the mission is to create an artificial eclipse by precisely coordinating two independent satellites. This capability will enable scientists to observe the Sun’s corona, a region typically obscured by the intense brightness of the Sun.
It consists of two small satellites — a Coronagraph spacecraft and a solar-disc-shaped Occulter spacecraft.
Working
By flying in tight formation about 150 metres apart, the Occulter will precisely cast its shadow onto the Coronagraph’s telescope, blocking the Sun’s direct light.
This will allow the Coronagraph to image the faint solar corona in visible, ultraviolet and polarised light for many hours at a time.
It will provide new insights into the origins of coronal mass ejections (CMEs) — eruptions of solar material that can disrupt satellites and power grids on Earth.
The mission will also measure total solar irradiance, tracking changes in the Sun’s energy output that may influence Earth’s climate.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/europes-proba-3-mission-to-arrive-in-india-for-launch-aboard-pslv-xl-by-isro-2626279-2024-11-01
With reference to PM Vishwakarma scheme, consider the following statements:
- It aims to strengthen and nurture the family-based practice of traditional skills.
- It was launched by the Union Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises.
- It is available only for rural artisans and craftsmen across India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
More than two million applications have been successfully registered under the PM Vishwakarma scheme which was launched in 2023.
It is a central sector scheme launched by the Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises.
It offers services like market linkage support, skill training, and incentives for digital transactions to artisans and craftspeople engaged in specified trades.
Time period: Five years (FY 2023-24 to FY 2027-28).
Aim:
To strengthen and nurture the Guru-Shishya parampara, or family-based practice of traditional skills by artisans and craftspeople working with their hands and tools.
The scheme also aims at improving the quality as well as the reach of the products and services of artisans and craftspeople and to ensure that the Vishwakarmas are integrated with the domestic and global value chains.
Eligibility & coverage:
It is available for rural and urban artisans and craftsmen across India.
It covers 18 traditional crafts such as Boat Maker; Armourer; Blacksmith; Hammer and Tool Kit Maker; etc.
Five lakh families will be covered in the first year and 30 lakh families over five years.
Key Benefits
Enhanced Access to Tooling Facilities: Improves MSMEs’ access to tooling resources, boosting their efficiency and productivity.
Industry-Ready Manpower: Provides training programs to equip participants with skills that meet industry standards.
Support for Process and Product Development: Facilitates development initiatives within relevant sectors to enhance competitiveness.
Consultancy and Job Work Services: Offers tailored consultancy and job work to address the specific needs of various industries.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2070639
Consider the following statements regarding the IL-35 Protein:
- It helps to protect against type 1 and autoimmune diabetes.
- It increases particular immune cells that produce inflammatory chemicals in pancreas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Scientists at the Institute of Advanced Study in Science and Technology (IASST) in Guwahati, an autonomous institute under the Department of Science and Technology, have discovered a specific protein IL-35 that can aid in new treatments for type I and autoimmune diabetes mellitus.
It is a specific protein of IL-12α and IL-27β chains.
It helps to protect against type 1 and autoimmune diabetes.
It regulates macrophage activation, T-cell proteins, and regulatory B cells.
It inhibited pancreatic beta cell-attacking immune cells. Additionally, IL-35 lowered particular immune cells that produce inflammatory chemicals, reducing pancreatic cell infiltration, a key contributor in type 1 diabetes and autoimmune diabetes mellitus.
What is autoimmune diabetes mellitus?
Autoimmune diabetes mellitus or T1DM is an organ-specific autoimmune disease.
It affects the insulin-producing pancreatic beta cells, after an inflammatory process leads to a chronic deficiency of insulin in genetically susceptible individuals.
It ultimately results in lifelong dependence on exogenous insulin.
It is a complex multifactorial disease in which both genetic susceptibility and environmental factors promote the autoimmune responses against beta cells.
Several environmental risk factors have been suggested as candidate triggers of islet autoimmunity, including certain viruses higher birthweight, infant weight gain, dysbiosis of the gut microbiota and various dietary factors (e.g., vitamin D deficiency, omega-3 fatty acid deficiency, high milk consumption)
There are no preventive or immunosuppressive therapies that can prevent damage or disease manifestations.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2070862
Consider the following statements regarding the Gravity energy storage:
- It is a new technology that stores energy using gravity.
- It is more cost-effective for large-scale applications, with lower level costs of energy and storage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Gravity energy storage is emerging as a viable solution to address a major challenge of solar and wind power.
It is a new technology that stores energy using gravity.
How it works?
It involves lifting a heavy mass during excess energy generation and releasing it to produce electricity when demand rises or solar energy is unavailable.
The types of weights used are often water, concrete blocks or compressed earth blocks.
Unlike pumped-hydro energy storage, gravity energy storage offers more flexibility in site selection.
A typical setup involves a heavy piston within a fluid-filled cylindrical container.
When solar energy production exceeds demand, surplus electricity lifts the piston, converting the surplus electrical energy into stored energy.
When demand surpasses supply, the piston descends, driving water through a turbine to generate electricity supply to meet demand.
Advantages
It can last for decades with minimal maintenance, unlike batteries that degrade over time.
It avoids harmful chemical reactions, reducing environmental impact and disposal issues, an important consideration in the move towards a greener planet.
It can also be more cost-effective for large-scale applications, with lower level costs of energy and storage.
It is particularly advantageous in areas with space constraints or environmental concerns that restrict the deployment of other storage systems.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/energy/how-gravity-can-be-harnessed-to-store-renewable-energy
The Bidar Fort is located in which one of the following states?
Karnataka
Explanation :
About Bidar Fort:
Bidar Fort is situated in Bidar city of the northern plateau of Karnataka, India.
The history of Bidar Fort dates back over 500 years, starting with the reign of the Western Chalukya dynasty.
Sultan Ahmed Shah Wali of the Bahmani dynasty made Bidar his capital in 1430 and renovated it as an impressive citadel.
Arcitecture:
It had been built of trap rock. Stone and mortar were used to build the fort-walls.
The entrance gate has a lofty dome, the interior of which had been painted in bright colours.
Bidar Fort includes:
Islamic and Persian architecture,
Seven main entrances,
37 bastions (Balcony like structures extending from the fort) of octagonal shape with metal shielded cannons,
Mosques and mahals,
Thirty plus Islamic monuments.
About Bahmani Kingdom:
The Bahmani Kingdom rose to power after the Turkish Governor Ala-ud-din Hassan Bahman Shan established an independent empire by revolting against the Sultan of Delhi Sultanate, Muhammad Bin Tughlaq in 1347.
It was the first independent Islamic kingdom in South India that rose to power.
It was established in present-day Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Andhra Pradesh.
They set up the capital in Ahsanabad (Gulbarga) between 1347 and 1425 and later moved to Bidar.
There were a total of fourteen sultans ruling over this kingdom. Among them, Alauddin Bahman Shah, Muhammad Shah I and Firoz Shah were important.
The Bahmani kingdom reached its peak under the guidance of Mahmud Gawan, who served with great distinction as Prime Minister of three Bahamni Sultans for about twenty-three years from 1458 to 1481 AD.
Mahmud Gawan extended the empire by reconquering Goa, which was under the Vijayanagar Empire at the time.
Around 1518, Krishnadeva Raya of the Vijayanagar Empire defeated the last ruler of the Bahmani Empire.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/bengaluru-news/waqf-board-identifies-17-monuments-inside-historic-bidar-fort-in-karnataka-as-its-property-101730890377358.html
Consider the following statements with reference to Spinal Muscular Atrophy:
- It is a genetic disease that affects the central nervous system.
- It is classified as a motor neuron disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
About Spinal Muscular Atrophy:
Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) is a genetic disease affecting the central nervous system, peripheral nervous system, and voluntary muscle movement (skeletal muscle).
It involves the loss of nerve cells called motor neurons in the spinal cord and is classified as a motor neuron disease.
Types of SMA:
There are five subtypes of SMA- type 0, 1, 2, 3, 4. Healthcare providers classify them based on the age of onset, as well as the severity and life expectancy.
Symptoms:
Spinal muscle atrophy symptoms vary and may be mild or disabling, but involve a weakness of the muscles that control movement. Involuntary muscles are not affected, such as those in the heart, blood vessels and digestive tract.
The weakness in SMA tends to be more severe in the muscles that are close to the center of your body than in the muscles farther away from your body’s center.
Treatment: Unfortunately, there isn’t a cure for SMA. Treatment for SMA mainly seeks to manage symptoms and prevent complications. Symptom management therapies may include:
Physical therapy, which can help improve posture, prevent joint immobility and slow muscle weakness.
Occupational therapy, which can improve your ability to perform daily tasks.
Assistive devices, like orthopaedic braces, crutches, walkers and wheelchairs.
Therapy for speech and swallowing difficulties.
A feeding tube if swallowing is too difficult and/or dangerous.
Assisted ventilation for breathing issues.
Medications for SMA: Between 2016 and 2020, the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved treatments that can significantly improve the course of SMA. They include:
Disease-modifying therapy
Gene replacement therapy
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/bengal-boy-with-spinal-muscular-atrophy-sma-receives-rs-16-crore-life-saving-medicine-2628798-2024-11-06
The Kumbhalgarh-Todgarh Raoli Sanctuary is located in which one of the following states?
Rajasthan
Explanation :
About Kumbhalgarh Wildlife Sanctuary:
Location: It is situated in the Rajsamand district of Rajasthan.
Covering a total surface area of 578 sq km and stretching across the Aravalli ranges, it encircles parts of Udaipur, Rajsamand and Pali districts.
Once the hunting grounds of royals, this area was declared a wildlife sanctuary in 1971.
The wildlife sanctuary encompasses the historic Kumbhalgarh Fort and is also named after the fort.
Rivers:
River Banas also graces the sanctuary and is the primary source of water.
The rainwater on the western slopes flows as small rivers such as Sukdi, Mithdi, Sumer and Kot, all of which are the tributaries of River Luni that ultimately merge into the Arabian Sea.
Flora:
Many types of flora are found here, mainly a variety of herbal flora like Dhok, Salar and Khair.
Fauna:
It provides a suitable habitat for endangered and rare wild animals, including four horned antelope, sambar, wild boar, nilgai, sloth bear, leopard and caracal.
About Todgarh Raoli Sanctuary
It spans approximately 495 square kilometers across the districts of Ajmer, Pali and Rajsamand.
It has been named after Colonel James Tod, a British officer who chronicled Rajasthan’s history.
It was established in 1983.
The sanctuary encompasses the ancient Raoli forest, home to numerous indigenous tribes.
Flora: It is characterized by dry deciduous forests, with prominent species such as teak, bamboo, and dhok trees. The forest canopy is interspersed with flowering plants like kachnar (Bauhinia variegata), palash (Butea monosperma) and the vibrant flame of the forest, which add a splash of color to the greenery, especially during the blooming season.
Fauna: It is a crucial habitat for several species, including the elusive leopard, sloth bear, and sambar deer. Birdwatchers can delight in the sight of over 200 bird species, including the grey junglefowl, Indian pitta and crested serpent eagle.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/improve-habitat-before-designating-kumbhalgarh-as-tiger-
The ancient town of Al-Natah was recently discovered in which one of the following countries?
Saudi Arabia
Explanation :
About Al-Natah:
French archaeologist Guillaume Charloux and his crew led the discovery.
Excavation at the Khaybar oasis has found that a sophisticated Bronze Age town existed between 2400 and 1500 BCE.
Features: The town reveals-
The presence of an organised settlement in an era previously believed to be dominated by nomadic pastoral societies,
It is enclosed by a 14.5-kilometre wall and occupying a 2.6-hectare area,
It housed up to 500 residents who lived in multi-story dwellings.
The town was likely a centre for agricultural production and trade, sustaining a cooperative society in the otherwise arid environment.
Residents of Al-Natah lived in rectangular dwellings, constructed from materials such as stone and mudbrick, with narrow paths connecting the various structures.
The town’s layout included burial sites, with some graves and tiered towers marking higher social status.
A similar town in southern Saudi Arabia, Al Faw, was given Unesco World Heritage Site status this year.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/feature/al-natah-4-000-year-old-ancient-town-discovered-in-saudi-arabian-oasis-6931813
Okinawicius tekdi, recently seen in the news is a species of:
Spider
Explanation :
About Okinawicius tekdi:
The spider has been named Okinawicius tekdi, after the Marathi word for hill, and takes the number of jumping spiders in India to 326.
The species was first described by Atharva Kulkarni, an MSc student in environmental science from MIT-World Peace University in Pune.
A spider species was last discovered in Pune over 30 years ago.
About Spider species:
Spiders are a group of arthropods that have segmented bodies, a hard exoskeleton and legs that are joined.
One of the most defining characteristics of spiders is they have eight legs.
Spiders are also known for spinning webs and using these webs to trap their prey.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/pune/exciting-discovery-new-jumping-spider-species-found-in-punes-baner-hill/articleshow/114991171.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Kumbh Mela:
- It received patronage from various royal dynasties like Chola and Vijayanagara empires.
- It is celebrated four times over a course of 12 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Mahakumbh Mela is scheduled to take place in the holy city of Prayagraj from January 13 to February 26.
It is a sacred pilgrimage that is celebrated four times over a course of 12 years.
Kumbh Mela is the world’s largest peaceful gathering, draws millions of pilgrims who bathe in sacred rivers seeking to purify themselves from sins and attain spiritual liberation.
This sacred event rotates between four locations in India-Haridwar, Ujjain, Nashik, and Prayagraj- each situated by a holy river, from the Ganges to the Shipra, the Godavari, and the confluence of the Ganges, Yamuna, and the mythical Sarasvati in Prayagraj.
Historical background
The roots of the Kumbh Mela stretch back thousands of years, finding early references during the Maurya and Gupta periods (4th century BCE to 6th century CE).
During the medieval period, the Kumbh Mela received patronage from various royal dynasties, including the Chola and Vijayanagara empires in the south, and the Delhi Sultanate and Mughals in the north.
Even Mughal emperors such as Akbar are noted to have participated in the celebrations, illustrating a spirit of religious tolerance.
British administrators observed and documented the festival, intrigued by its massive scale and the diverse congregations it drew. Figures such as British colonial administrator James Prinsep chronicled the Kumbh Mela in the 19th century, detailing its ritualistic practices, the vast congregations, and the socio-religious dynamics at play.
Post-independence, the Maha Kumbh Mela gained even greater significance, symbolizing national unity and India’s rich cultural heritage. Recognized by UNESCO in 2017 as an intangible cultural heritage of humanity, the Kumbh Mela stands as a testament to the survival and evolution of ancient traditions in an era of modernization.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2070943
Consider the following statements regarding Titanium:
- It is a highly dense metal which cannot be easily fabricated.
- It is used in prosthetic devices because it does not react with fleshy tissue and bone.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Indian Rare Earths Limited and Ust-Kamenogorsk Titanium and Magnesium Plant JSC, (UKTMP JSC) Kazakhstan have signed an agreement to establish Indo-Kazakh joint venture company (JVC): IREUK Titanium Limited for production of Ti Slag in India.
It is the fourth most abundant element in the Earth’s crust.
It often occurs in ore deposits in the form of chemical compounds with iron or oxygen.
It is present in meteorites and the sun.
Ores of Titanium: The two prime commercial minerals are Ilmenite (FeTiO3) and Rutile (TiO2).
Properties
It is very corrosion resistant and generally not affected by air, water, acids or bases.
It has a low density, good strength, is easily fabricated, and has excellent corrosion resistance.
It is the only element that burns in nitrogen.
Applications:
It is useful in aircraft, spacecraft, ships, and other high-stress applications.
It also is used in prosthetic devices, because it does not react with fleshy tissue and bone.
Titanium oxide spectra are used by astronomers to identify cool red dwarf stars.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2070748
With reference to PM Vidyalaxmi Scheme, consider the following statements:
- It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
- It is applicable to educational institutions which are determined by the National Institutional Ranking Framework rankings.
- Under this scheme any student who gets admission in quality Higher Education Institution (QHEIs) will get collateral free loan.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only Two
Explanation :
Recently, the union cabinet approved the PM Vidyalaxmi scheme, which seeks to provide financial support to meritorious students in their pursuit of higher education.
It is a Central Sector Scheme.
Features
Under this scheme any student who gets admission in quality Higher Education Institution (QHEIs) will be eligible to get collateral free, guarantor free loan from banks and financial institutions to cover full amount of tuition fees and other expenses related to the course.
The scheme will be administered through a simple, transparent and student-friendly system that will be inter-operable and entirely digital.
It will be applicable to the top quality higher educational institutions of the nation, as determined by the NIRF rankings - including all HEIs, government and private, that are ranked within the top 100 in NIRF in overall, category-specific and domain specific rankings; state government HEIs ranked in 101-200 in NIRF and all central government governed institutions.
This list will be updated every year using the latest NIRF ranking.
Loan provision
For loan amounts up to ₹ 7.5 lakhs, the student will also be eligible for a credit guarantee of 75% of outstanding default. This will give support to banks in making education loans available to students under the scheme.
In addition to the above, for students having an annual family income of up to ₹ 8 lakhs, and not eligible for benefits under any other government scholarship or interest subvention schemes, 3 percent interest subvention for loan up to ₹ 10 lakhs will also be provided during moratorium period.
The interest subvention support will be given to one lakh students every year. Preference will be given to students who are from government institutions and have opted for technical/ professional courses.
An outlay of ₹ 3,600 Crore has been made during 2024-25 to 2030-31.
The Department of Higher Education will have a unified portal “PM-Vidyalaxmi” on which students will be able to apply for the education loan as well as interest subvention, through a simplified application process to be used by all banks.
Payment of interest subvention will be made through E-voucher and Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) wallets.
Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2071131
Consider the following statements regarding the Ranthambore Tiger Reserve:
- It is located on the junction of Aravalis and Vindhyan ranges in Rajasthan.
- It is bordered by the River Chambal in the North.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, Rajasthan’s Chief Wildlife Warden has constituted a three-member committee after an internal report said that as many as 25 tigers were missing at the Ranthambore Tiger Reserve.
It lies on the junction of Aravalis and Vindhyan ranges in Eastern Rajasthan.
It is one of the largest tiger reserves in northern India.
It was once a royal hunting ground for the Maharajas of Jaipur.
The scenery changes significantly from the gentle and steep slopes of the Vindhyas to the sharp and conical hills of the Aravali valley.
The Rivers Chambal in the south and the Banas River in the north bound the tiger reserve.
The reserve is dotted with steep rocky hills, and the dominant architecture of Ranthambore Fort (built in the 10th era and a UNESCO World Heritage Site) adds to its landscape.
A major environmental feature is the ‘Great Boundary Fault’where the Vindhyas plateau meets the Aravali range.
Vegetation: Tropical dry deciduous and tropical thorn type.
Flora: Pure sands of Dhok tree (Anogeissus pendula) interspersed with grasslands at the plateaus; meadows in valleys and luxuriant foliage around the canals make the jungle.
Fauna: Tiger, Leopard, wild boar, sloth bear, striped hyena, rhesus macaque etc are found here.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/jaipur/a-third-of-ranthambores-75-tigers-missing-rajasthan-sets-up-probe-committee-9655313/
Consider the following statements regarding the MAHASAGAR Initiative:
- It is Indian Navy’s flagship initiative which is conducted bi-annually.
- It highlights the necessary imperatives for training and Corporation towards mitigation of common maritime challenges in the Indian Ocean Region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?`
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the third edition of the high-level virtual interaction MAHASAGAR was conducted by the Indian Navy.
Maritime Heads for Active Security And Growth for All in the Region (MAHASAGAR- which means vast ocean in Hindi) –, is the Indian Navy’s flagship outreach for high-level virtual interaction among the leaders.
The initiative, started by the Indian Navy, is conducted bi-annually and has garnered wide acceptance among the participating nations ever since its inception in 2023.
Participating countries: Indian Ocean Region littorals viz., Bangladesh, Comoros, Kenya, Madagascar, Maldives, Mauritius, Mozambique, Seychelles, Sri Lanka and Tanzania.
The interaction’s theme of this edition was ‘Training Cooperation to Mitigate Common Maritime Security Challenges in IOR’, which highlights the present and necessary imperatives for Training Corporation towards mitigation of common maritime challenges in the Indian Ocean Region.
During the current edition, the principals candidly dwelled on the imperatives of quality training and opportunities for training collaboration between IOR littorals towards developing requisite capacities and skilled manpower to tackle Common Maritime Security Challenges in the IOR.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2070981
Consider the following statements regarding the Chhath Puja:
- It is celebrated in the states of Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
- It is dedicated to God Surya and celebrated between the months of October and November.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
\Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minster of India extended his greetings on the occasion of Chhath Puja.
It is an important Hindu festival celebrated in states like Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, and West Bengal.
This festival is dedicated to God Surya and his sister Shashti Devi, often referred to as Chhathi Maiya, and it involves religious rituals.
The most unique feature of this Chhath Puja is that there is no Murti Pujan or Idol Worshipping.
The festival is celebrated between the months of October and November.
The Chhath festival begins as the Diwali festival ends.
It is celebrated for four consecutive days and celebrated with great reverence and dedication.
The first day of the Chhath Puja includes taking a dip in the holy river/any water body. People also take the Ganges water to their homes to perform special offerings and rituals. Houses are thoroughly cleaned on this day.
The second day of Chhath, also known as Kharna, involves devotees observing a day-long fast, which is broken in the late evening after performing the worship of Mother Earth.
The third day of Chhath goes into the preparation of the prasad (offerings) for the evening offerings, also known as Sanjhiya Arghya. In the evening, large numbers of devotees gather on the banks of rivers and make offerings (Arghya) to the setting sun. The night of the third day witnesses a colorful event known as Kosi.
On the fourth and final day of Chhath, family members and friends go to the banks of rivers before sunrise and make offerings (Arghya) to the rising sun. After this ritual, devotees break their fast and distribute Prasad to neighbors and relatives.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/chhath-puja-what-is-it-bihar-9657918/
Consider the following statements regarding Tuna Fish:
- It is a warm blooded pelagic marine fish.
- It is found in tropical and temperate regions of all oceans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Department of Fisheries, under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying has notified the Development of Tuna Cluster in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY).
They are pelagic marine fish, spending their entire lives relatively near the surface of tropical, subtropical and temperate oceans and seas.
There are seven main species of tuna consumed by humans including albacore, skipjack, yellowfin and three species of bluefin tuna.
Habitat: They can be found in tropical and temperate regions of all oceans.
Unlike other fish, tuna are warm blooded. Their body temperatures are as much as 12 degrees C higher than the water they swim in.
Tuna swim incredible distances as they migrate.
Significance of Tuna Cluster: It is expected to generate economies of scale, increase incomes, and accelerate organized growth in fisheries across the country.
Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana
It was launched in September 2020 with an aim to double the income of fish farmers and fishers in the country.
It focuses on activities with potential to generate employment such as seaweed and ornamental fish cultivation. It also emphasises on the breeding technique for quality brood, seed & feed and species diversification.
It is an umbrella scheme with two separate Components namely (a) Central Sector Scheme (CS) and (b) Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS).
The CSS Component is further segregated into Non-beneficiary oriented and beneficiary orientated subcomponents/activities under the following three broad heads:
Enhancement of Production and Productivity
Infrastructure and Post-harvest Management
Fisheries Management and Regulatory Framework
PMMSY will be implemented in all the States and Union Territories for a period of 5 (five) years from FY 2020-21 to FY 2024-25.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2071329
With reference to Black-Footed Ferret, consider the following statements:
- It is a nocturnal species native to the North America.
- It exhibits a phenomenon known as delayed implantation.
- It is categorized as critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Antonia, a cloned black-footed ferret at the Smithsonian’s National Zoo and Conservation Biology Institute, has produced two healthy offspring that will help build genetic diversity in their recovering population.
It belongs to the weasel family and is the only ferret that is native to North America.
These are considered an alert, agile, and curious mammal, and are known to exhibit keen senses of smell, sight, and hearing.
Distribution: It is ranged throughout the interior regions of North America, from southern Canada to northern Mexico.
Habitat: It can be found in the short or middle grass prairies and rolling hills of North America.
They live within the abandoned burrows of prairie dogs and use these complex underground tunnels for shelter and hunting.
It is nocturnal and is active mostly during the night, with peak hours around dusk.
Ferrets reduce their activity levels in the winter, sometimes remaining underground for up to a week.
These are carnivores; they mostly eat prairie dogs, also sometimes mice, ground squirrels, or other small animals.
Reproduction: They exhibit a phenomenon known as “delayed implantation,” in which the fertilized egg does not start developing until conditions are appropriate for gestation.
Conservation status
IUCN: Endangered
CITES: Appendix I
Threats: It is believed that the loss of natural habitat and rise in the incidence of diseases are the biggest reasons behind the decline in their population.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/successful-birthing-by-cloned-black-footed-ferret-raises-new-hope-for-conservation-of-endangered-species
Consider the following statements regarding the Agrivoltaic Farming:
- It is the practice of growing crops underneath solar panels.
- It reduces land-use efficiency because of solar panel usage in the farm.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Seventh Session of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) culminated New Delhi. During the site visit, the practical implementation of agrivoltaic systems was showcased to the delegates of various countries.
It is the practice of growing crops underneath solar panels.
The panels are positioned 2-3 metres off the ground and sit at an angle of 30 degrees, providing shade and offering crops protection from the weather.
This farming primarily focuses on the simultaneous use of land for both agriculture and solar energy generation.
It’s also sometimes referred to as agrisolar, dual use solar, low impact solar.
Solar panels have to sometimes be elevated or suspended to allow plants to grow beneath them.
Another option is putting them on the roofs of greenhouses. This allows enough light and rainwater to reach the crops, as well as providing access for farm machinery.
It uses poles or frames to mount solar panels on the ground, leaving space for crops to grow under or around them. Some solar panels can also rotate or form a canopy to adjust the amount of sunlight and shade on the crops.
Advantages
This increases land-use efficiency, as it lets solar farms and agriculture share ground, rather than making them compete against one another.
And certain crops appear to thrive when grown in such environments, according to a number of recent studies.
The shade from the panels protects vegetables from heat stress and water loss.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/agrivoltaic-farming-focuses-on-simultaneous-use-of-land-for-agriculture-solar-energy/
Consider the following statements regarding the Millimeter wave:
- It refers to electromagnetic wave with frequency between 30-300 GHz.
- It enables lower data rates transmission in telecommunications.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT) and the Indian Institute of Technology-Roorkee (IIT-Roorkee) for have signed an agreement under the Telecom Technology Development Fund (TTDF) scheme of the DoT with the development of a “millimeter wave transceiver for 5G rural connectivity”.
It refers to electromagnetic wave with frequency between 30-300 GHz and wavelength between 10 mm and 1 mm.
Its frequency spectrum is used for wireless high-speed communications. It is also known as the extremely high frequency, or EHF, band by the International Telecommunication Union.
Advantages
It enables higher data rates compared with lower frequencies when used in telecommunications, such as those used for Wi-Fi and current cellular networks.
The higher frequency range has a high tolerance for bandwidth.
It offers less latency due to its higher speeds and bandwidth.
There is less interference, as mmWaves don’t propagate and interfere with other neighboring cellular systems.
Significance of recent agreement
It will also encourage small and medium scale industries to setup their manufacturing units in India which will create job opportunities to our own engineering graduates, due to the use of polymer-based structure in conjunction with metals.
This will also reduce our over dependence on semiconductor fabrication industries. The proposed cost for the development of technology is extremely small as against the opportunities it would create.
Additionally, the project also aims to contribute to generate Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs) and develop a skilled workforce to support the emerging millimetre wave/Sub-THz technology for 5G/6G.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/info-tech/c-dot-iit-roorkee-tie-up-to-develop-millimeter-wave-transceiver-for-5g-rural-connectivity/article68837124.ece
Consider the following:
- Myanmar
- Australia
- India
How many of the above countries are the members of Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership?
Only two
Explanation :
In a departure from the government’s stated position, the top official from the Niti Aayog on said India should be part of the China-backed Regional Economic partnership (RCEP) trade bloc.
It is a proposed agreement between the member states of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (Asean) and its free trade agreement (FTA) partners.
The pact aims to cover trade in goods and services, intellectual property, etc.
Member Countries: The RCEP bloc comprises 10 ASEAN group members (Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Malaysia, Myanmar, Singapore, Thailand, the Philippines, Laos and Vietnam) and their six FTA partners - China, Japan, South Korea, Australia and New Zealand.
RCEP negotiations were launched in November 2012 and entered into force on 1 January 2022
Objective
RCEP aims to create an integrated market with 16 countries, making it easier for products and services of each of these countries to be available across this region.
The negotiations are focused on the following: Trade in goods and services, investment, intellectual property, dispute settlement, e-commerce, small and medium enterprises, and economic cooperation.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/policy/economy-india-should-join-china-led-rcep-says-niti-ceo-3659198/
Consider the following statements regarding Airships:
- These are vertical-lift vehicles that achieve flight by using buoyant gasses that are less dense than surrounding air.
- These airships use helium which is non-combustible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, a few companies are attempting to control the buoyancy of airships — a longstanding challenge that has prevented their use for cargo transportation.
Airships are lighter-than-air, vertical-lift vehicles that achieve flight by using buoyant gasses that are less dense than surrounding air.
There are three main types of airships: non-rigid (or blimps), semi-rigid and rigid.
Typically, these bullet-shaped craft are filled with helium or hydrogen, and composed of three main parts: a balloon-like hull, a gondola and a propulsion system.
Airships were the first aircraft capable of controlled powered flight and were thought to be the future of travel for some years in the early 20th century.
How airships work?
Airships are lighter-than-air aircraft that are lifted by gas with a density lower than atmospheric gases. This principle also operates in helium balloons.
Early airships used hydrogen as the lifting gas since it was cheap, easy to produce, and the lightest existing gas. But hydrogen was also extremely flammable.
Most modern airships use helium, which is non-combustible.
Uses: They see limited use today as advertising platforms, for aerial observation by scientists and militaries, and in the tourism industry.
Advantages: Airships are significantly less polluting than aeroplanes as they do not burn fossil fuels to achieve lift. They can also reach more places than ships or trucks.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/how-climate-change-is-bringing-back-the-idea-of-airships-9658936/
With reference to CARICOM (Caribbean Community), consider the following statements:
- It was established by the Treaty of Chaguaramas.
- It aims to promote economic integration and cooperation among its members.
- India is an observer member country of this community.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, India and CARICOM held their second Joint Commission meeting, an important event that reviewed and charted the future of their multifaceted relationship.
CARICOM, which stands for Caribbean Community, is the oldest surviving integration movement in the developing world.
It is an organization of Caribbean countries and dependencies originally established as the Caribbean Community and Commons Market in 1973 by the Treaty of Chaguaramas.
Main Purposes:
Promote economic integration and cooperation among its members;
To ensure that the benefits of integration are equitably shared;
To coordinate foreign policy;
Members:
It has 15 members; Antigua and Barbuda, The Bahamas, Barbados, Belize, Dominica, Grenada, Guyana, Haiti, Jamaica, Montserrat, Saint Kitts and Nevis, Saint Lucia, Saint Vincent and the Grenadines, Suriname, and Trinidad and Tobago.
Anguilla, Bermuda, the British Virgin Islands, the Cayman Islands, and the Turks and Caicos Islands have associate member status, and Aruba, Colombia, the Dominican Republic, Mexico, Puerto Rico, and Venezuela maintain observer status.
The Chairmanship of the Community is rotated every six months among the member countries’ Heads.
Secretariat: The CARICOM Secretariat in Georgetown, Guyana, is the principal administrative organ of the Community and is headed by a Secretary General who is the Chief Executive Officer of the Community.
In 2007, CARICOM officially inaugurated the Caribbean Court of Justice (CCJ), which serves as the final court of appeal for CARICOM members and also handles regional trade disputes.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/india-news/india-and-caricom-bolster-ties-in-second-joint-commission-meeting/3658987/
Consider the following statements regarding Bran:
- It is the edible broken seed coat present on cereal grains.
- Its removal from millets results in increasing the protein and dietary fibre.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A recent study highlights that keeping bran on millets improves the health benefits and should be promoted in Indian diets to improve diet quality.
It is the edible broken seed coat, or protective outer layer, of wheat, rye, or other cereal grains, separated from the kernel.
In flour processing, the coarse chaff, or bran, is removed from the ground kernels by sifting or bolting in a rotating, meshed, cylindrical frame.
It provides dietary fiber and many different bioactive substances, including phenolic compounds, which can exert a beneficial effect on human health.
Removing the bran from millets results in decreasing the protein, dietary fibre, fat, mineral and phytate content in them while increasing the carbohydrates and amylose content.
Dehusked millets are nutritious and should be promoted in Indian diets to improve diet quality, debranned millets are nutritionally inferior, can increase the glycemic load of Indian diets.
What are Millets?
Millets are a highly varied group of small-seeded grasses, widely grown around the world as cereal crops or grains for fodder and human food.
This crop is favoured due to its productivity and short growing season under dry, high-temperature conditions (hardy and drought-resistant crops).
Millets are a powerhouse of nutrients, which score over rice and wheat in terms of minerals, vitamins, and dietary fibre content, as well as amino acid profile.
Though rich in both iron and zinc, wheat’s protein content comprises glutens, known to trigger gastrointestinal and autoimmune disorders in many people.
Millets are high in minerals such as calcium, iron, phosphorus, and potassium, and they are an excellent source of phyto-chemicals such as phenolic compounds when compared to other major cereals (rice, wheat, maize),
Millets provide a range of health benefits such as antiaging, anticarcinogenic, anti-atherosclerogenic, antibacterial, and antioxidant effects.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/keep-the-bran-on-millets-to-retain-health-benefits-study/article68841361.ece
Allulose, recently seen in news, is a/an:
sweetening agent
Explanation :
Recently, South Korea has become a top testing ground for the sweetener allulose.
It is also known as D-allulose and d-psicose, and is naturally present in only certain foods like wheat, raisins, figs, molasses.
It is also commercially produced from beet sugar or corn using specific enzymes.
It’s also available as a sugar substitute and can be used in recipes for people who want to cut back (or cut out) sugar, including people with diabetes.
Manufacturers and researchers say it is 70% as sweet as sugar and almost calorie-free.
Side effects: High doses may cause side effects like nausea, diarrhea, and other gastrointestinal symptoms.
It is approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA), which considers it “generally recognized as safe” (GRAS). It’s also approved in some other countries, including Japan, Mexico, Singapore and South Korea.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/south-korean-companies-and-foodies-bet-on-sugar-substitute-allulose/
Consider the following statements regarding the INS Vikrant:
- It is India’s first indigenously designed and manufactured aircraft carrier.
- It uses the Short Take-Off but Arrested Recovery (STOBAR) method to launch and recover aircraft.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the President of India witnessed the Indian Navy’s demonstration on INS Vikrant.
It is India’s first indigenously designed and manufactured aircraft carrier.
The ship has been designed in-house by Indian Navy’s Warship Design Bureau and constructed by M/s Cochin Shipyard Limited.
It strengthens the country’s standing as a ‘Blue Water Navy’ — a maritime force with global reach and capability to operate over deep seas.
With it, India also joined the elite group of nations – the US, Russia, France, the UK and China – who are capable of designing and constructing aircraft carriers.
Features:
Its full-load displacement is 43,000 tonnes.
Endurance: 8,600 miles (13,890 kilometres)
Aircraft capacity: It can accommodate up to 30 fixed-wing aircraft, including fighter jets, and rotary-wing aircraft, such as anti-submarine warfare helicopters and utility helicopters.
It can operate an air wing of 30 aircraft comprising MiG-29K fighter jets, Kamov-31, MH-60R multi-role helicopters, in addition to indigenous Advanced Light Helicopters and Light Combat Aircraft (Navy).
It uses the STOBAR (Short Take-Off but Arrested Recovery) method to launch and recover aircraft for which it is equipped with a ski- jump to launch aircraft and three ‘arrester wires’ for their recovery.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2071695
Consider the following statements regarding cyanobacteria:
- These are microscopic organisms found naturally in all types of water.
- These organisms can multiply quickly in warm and nutrient-rich environments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers found the mutant cyanobacteria and named it as Chonkus, which could help fight climate change.
These are also called blue-green algae, are microscopic organisms found naturally in all types of water.
These single-celled organisms live in fresh, brackish (combined salt and freshwater), and marine water.
These organisms use sunlight to make their own food.
In warm, nutrient-rich (high in phosphorus and nitrogen) environments, cyanobacteria can multiply quickly, creating blooms that spread across the water’s surface.
Cyanobacteria blooms can form in warm, slow-moving waters that are rich in nutrients from sources such as fertilizer runoff or septic tank overflows.
It needs nutrients to survive. The blooms can form at any time, but most often form in late summer or early fall.
Key facts about Chonkus
It was discovered in the shallow sunlit waters off the coast of Italy’s Vulcano Island, where volcanic gas-rich groundwater seeps into the sea.
It has the capacity to absorb a lot more carbon than the average cyanobacteria floating in the ocean.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.sciencenews.org/article/chonkus-climate-change-cyanobacteria
With reference to Equine Piroplasmosis, consider the following statements:
- It is a tick-borne protozoal disease that affects horses and mules.
- It is endemic to tropical and temperate areas of the world.
- It can be cured by a vaccine.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
In a significant achievement for India’s animal health sector, the Indian Council of Agricultural Research-National Research Centre on Equines (ICAR-NRC Equine) in Hisar has been granted World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH) Reference Laboratory status for Equine Piroplasmosis.
It is a tick-borne protozoal disease of horses, mules, donkeys and zebras.
Transmission: Infected animals may remain carriers of these blood parasites for long periods and act as sources of infection for tick vectors. These parasites are also easily spread by blood contaminated instruments.
It is endemic in tropical and temperate areas of the world with ticks capable of carrying the disease.
Symptoms:
The clinical signs of equine piroplasmosis are often nonspecific, and the disease can easily be confused with other conditions.
Piroplasmosis can occur in peracute, acute and chronic forms.
The acute cases are more common, and are characterised by fever that usually exceeds 40°C, reduced appetite and malaise, elevated respiratory and pulse rates, congestion of mucous membranes, and faecal balls that are smaller and drier than normal.
Treatment: There are no vaccines available.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2071817
Consider the following statements regarding the Competition Commission of India:
- It is a statutory body established under the Competition Act, 2002.
- Its members are appointed by the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Competition Commission of India (CCI) said in its non-public documents that food delivery giants in India are in breach of the antitrust and competition laws of India, with their business practices favouring select restaurants listed on their platforms.
It is a statutory body which was established in March 2009 under the Competition Act, 2002.
The goal of CCI is to create and sustain fair competition in the economy that will provide a ‘level playing field’ to the producers and make the markets work for the welfare of consumers.
The priority of the Commission is to eliminate practices having adverse effects on competition, promote and sustain competition, protect the interests of consumers, and ensure freedom of trade in the markets of India.
Mandate: To implement provisions of The Competition Act, 2002 which –
prohibits anti-competitive agreements and abuse of dominant position by enterprises;
regulates mergers and acquisitions (M&A) which can have an adverse effect on competition within India. Thus, deals beyond a certain threshold are required to get clearance from CCI.
It oversees the operations of big enterprises to ensure they are not abusing their ‘dominant position’ or power by controlling supply, setting up high purchase prices, or adopting practices that are unethical and may harm budding enterprises.
Composition:
It has the composition of a quasi-judicial body, with one chairperson and six additional members.
All members of the CCI are appointed by the Central Government.
Headquarters: New Delhi.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/business/cci-says-zomato-swiggy-in-breach-of-antitrust-laws-in-india-report-101731060962204.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Horn of Africa:
- It comprises the countries of Djibouti, Eritrea, Ethiopia and Somalia.
- It is separated from the Arabian Peninsula by the Bab el-Mandeb Strait.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
According to a joint report released by the UN and the Intergovernmental Authority on Development, IGAD, and an East African bloc that at least 65 million people are food insecure in the Horn of Africa.
It is the easternmost extension of African land.
It comprises the countries of Djibouti, Eritrea, Ethiopia, and Somalia.
Part of the Horn of Africa region is also known as the Somali peninsula.
It contains such diverse areas as the highlands of the Ethiopian Plateau, the Ogaden desert, and the Eritrean and Somalian coasts and is home to the Amhara, Tigray, Oromo, and Somali peoples, among others.
Costal line: Its coasts are washed by the Red Sea, the Gulf of Aden, and the Indian Ocean, and it has long been in contact with the Arabian Peninsula and southwestern Asia.
The Horn of Africa is separated from the Arabian Peninsula by the Bab el-Mandeb Strait (the strait connecting the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden).
The region faces severe food insecurity, worsened by the climate crisis and conflict, and malnutrition and cholera are key challenges.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/over-65-million-people-food-insecure-in-horn-of-africa-un-and-igad-report/
Consider the following statements regarding Sagarmala Parikrama:
- It is supported by the Indian Navy’s Naval Innovation and Indigenisation Organisation.
- It paves the way for future deployment of autonomous vessels in critical sea lanes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, an autonomous surface vessel built by Sagar Defence Engineering has completed a 1,500-km voyage from Mumbai to Thoothukudi under without human intervention.
Sagarmala Parikrama journey was virtually flagged off by Union Defence Minister on October 29 during Swavlamban event.
It is supported by the Indian Navy’s Naval Innovation and Indigenisation Organisation (NIIO), Technology Development Acceleration Cell (TDAC), and the Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX).
The Sagarmala Parikrama aligns with global advancements in autonomous surface and underwater systems, offering transformative applications in both military and civilian sectors.
This first-of-its-kind journey highlights India’s growing expertise in autonomous maritime technology and establishes a significant milestone in developing cutting-edge, unmanned systems for national security.
Applications: It paves the way for future deployment of autonomous vessels in critical sea lanes, coastal surveillance, and anti-piracy operations, expanding the Indian Navy’s operational reach.
Key facts about Naval Innovation and Indigenisation Organisation
It is a three-tiered organization launched by the Defence Ministry.
Naval Technology Acceleration Council (N-TAC) will bring together the twin aspects of innovation and indigenisation and provide apex level directives.
A working group under the N-TAC will implement the projects.
A Technology Development Acceleration Cell (TDAC) has also been created for induction of emerging disruptive technology in an accelerated time frame.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/autonomous-surface-vessel-completes-1500-km-voyage-from-mumbai-to-thoothukudi/article68837704.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Digital Population Clock:
- It is a joint project taken up by the ISRO and the Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
- It has been equipped with a satellite connection for precise timekeeping.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, Bengaluru’s first digital population clock was inaugurated at the Institute for Social Economic Change (ISEC).
It will access real-time estimates of Karnataka’s and population of India.
The project was jointly taken up by ISEC, and the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW).
It would update the figures of the state’s population for every 1.10 minute (one minute 10 seconds) and the country’s population at every two seconds.
It aims to increase awareness of population dynamics and provide accurate data for research.
The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) is installing similar clocks in 18 Population Research Centres across India.
The clock has been equipped with a satellite connection for precise timekeeping. It operates autonomously with all necessary components integrated into the system
It is also equipped with state-of-the-art software and tools to facilitate detailed demographic studies.
Significance: The clock will play a pivotal role in advancing our understanding of population trends.
The new census data research workstation would further strengthen the academic research, policy analysis, and capacity building in population studies.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/bengaluru-news/bengalurus-first-digital-population-clock-to-be-launched-today-to-track-real-time-demographic-changes-report-101731041958563.html
Which of the following country developed PyPIM Platform?
Israeli
Explanation :
Israeli researchers have developed PyPIM that enables computers to process data directly in memory, bypassing the need for the central processing unit (CPU).
It combines the Python programming language with digital processing-in-memory (PIM) technology.
It uses new instructions to enable operations to be performed directly in memory.
The platform allows developers to write software for PIM computers using familiar programming languages like Python.
The researchers aim to tackle the “memory wall” problem, where increases in processor speeds and memory capacity outpace data transfer rates.
This innovation addresses the energy- and time-intensive data transfers between memory and the CPU, which have increasingly become bottlenecks in modern computing.
By performing some computations in memory, this approach reduces dependence on the CPU, leading to significant time and energy savings.
Traditional computer programs rely on separate hardware components for memory and processing, requiring data to be transferred from memory to the CPU for computation.
To support in-memory computing, the researchers developed a platform called PyPIM.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://ddindia.co.in/2024/11/israeli-researchers-develop-software-enabling-in-memory-processing-bypassing-cpu/
Consider the following statements regarding Zambia:
- It is a landlocked country situated in south-central Africa.
- It is bounded to the north by the Tanzania.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, India-Zambia holds 6th Session of Joint Permanent Commission in Lusaka.
It is a landlocked country in south-central Africa.
It is situated on a high plateau and takes its name from the Zambezi River, which drains all but a small northern part of the country.
Bordering countries:
It is bounded to the north by the Democratic Republic of the Congo, and to the south by Zimbabwe and Botswana.
Tanzania borders the country to the north-east, Malawi to the west and Mozambique to the southeast. Angola borders Zambia to the west and Namibia to the southwest.
Economy: Zambia’s economy is heavily dependent on mining, in particular the mining of copper.
Most Zambians speak Bantu languages of the Niger-Congo language family.
Major water fall: Victoria Falls on Zambezi River.
Zambia is home to Lake Kariba, the largest artifically created reservoir in the world by volume. It was created by constructing the Kariba Dam on the Zambezi River,
Capital city: Lusaka
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-zambia-hold-6th-session-of-joint-permanent-commission/article68839912.ece
Exercise AUSTRAHIND, is conducted between India and:
Australia
Explanation :
The 3rd edition of joint military Exercise AUSTRAHIND commenced at Foreign Training Node, Pune in Maharashtra. The exercise will be conducted from 8th to 21st November 2024.
It is a joint military exercise held between India and Australia.
It is an annual event conducted alternatively in India and Australia. Last edition of the same exercise was conducted in Australia in December 2023.
The Indian contingent comprising 140 personnel will be represented mainly by a battalion of the DOGRA Regiment and 14 personnel from the Indian Air Force.
Aim of Exercise AUSTRAHIND is to promote military cooperation between India and Australia through enhancement of interoperability in conduct of joint sub conventional operations in semi-urban environment in semi-desert terrain under Chapter VII of the UN mandate.
The exercise will be conducted in two phases – combat conditioning and tactical training phase and validation phase.
Drills/ aspects to be rehearsed during the exercise will include response to a terrorist action of capturing a defined territory; establishment of a Joint Operations Centre; conduct of joint counter terrorism operations like Raid and Search and Destroy Missions; securing of a helipad; employment of drones and counter drone measures and Special Heli Borne Operations, among others.
Significance: It will enable the two sides to share their best practices in tactics, techniques and procedures of conducting tactical operations.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2071767
Which among the following best describes Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP), recently seen in the news?
A rare, life-threatening blood disorder.
Explanation :
A recent study has found an association between the inactivated COVID-19 vaccine CoronaVac from Sinovac Biotech and immune thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP).
About Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP):
It is a rare, life-threatening blood disorder.
“Thrombotic” refers to the blood clots that form.
“Thrombocytopenic” means the blood has a lower-than-normal platelet count.
“Purpura” refers to purple bruises caused by bleeding under your skin.
In TTP, blood clots form in small blood vessels throughout your body.
The clots can limit or block the flow of blood to your organs, such as your brain, kidneys, and heart. This can prevent your organs from working properly and damage your organs.
The increased clotting that occurs in TTP also uses up your platelets. Platelets are tiny blood cells that help form blood clots.These cell fragments stick together to seal small cuts and breaks in your blood vessels to stop bleeding.
When your platelets are used up, you do not have enough platelets to form blood clots when necessary. This can cause internal bleeding, bleeding underneath the skin, and other bleeding problems.
What causes TTP?
TTP occurs when you do not have the right amount of an enzyme (a type of protein in your blood) called ADAMTS13.
This enzyme controls how your blood clots. If you do not have enough ADAMTS13, your body makes too many blood clots.
TTP can be inherited or acquired.
TTP usually occurs suddenly and lasts for days or weeks, but it can continue for months.
TTP can also cause red blood cells to break apartfaster than your body can replace them. This leads to a rare form of anemia called hemolytic anemia.
Symptomsof TTP may include any of the following:
Bleeding into the skin or mucus membranes
Confusion
Fatigue, weakness
Fever
Headache
Pale skin color or yellowish skin color
Shortness of breath
Fast heart rate (over 100 beats per minute)
TTP can be fatal. Without treatment, it can cause long-term problems, such as brain damage or a stroke.
Treatment: Plasma treatments and medicines are the most common ways to treat TTP. If these treatments do not work, you may need surgery.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/inactivated-covid-19-vaccine-coronavac-associated-with-ttp/article68845853.ece
Shettihalli Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which one of the following states?
Karnataka
Explanation :
Environmental activists have sounded an alarm over the growing threat to elephants in Shettihalli Wildlife Sanctuary, following the death of a young male elephant due to electrocution.
About Shettihalli Wildlife Sanctuary:
Location: It is located in Shimoga District of Karnataka.
It covers an area of 395.6 sq. km.
It was declared a wildlife sanctuary on 23rd November 1974.
Mandagadde Natural Bird Sanctuary, present on a small island in the River Tunga, is also a part of this sanctuary.
The Tunga Anicut Dam is situated within the sanctuary and provides shelter for otters and water birds.
There are a large number of human settlements inside Shettihalli Sanctuary, mainly consisting of families that were displaced by the construction of the Sharavathi Dam in the 1960s.
Vegetation:
The sanctuary has mostly Dry and Moist Deciduous Forests in the eastern and central parts.
Towards the west, with an increase in rainfall, there are Semi-evergreen Forests.
Flora: Major tree species include silver oak, teak, Indian Thorny Bamboo, Calcutta Bamboo, Asan, Tectona Grandis, Sweet Indrajao, Amla, etc.
Fauna:
It houses mammals like Tiger, Leopard, Wild Dog, Jackal, Gaur, Elephant, Sloth Bear Sambar, Spotted Deer, Wild Pig, Common Langur, Bonnet Macaque, etc.
Birds include Hornbills, Kingfishers, Bulbuls, Parakeets, Doves, Pigeons, Babblers, Flycatchers, Munias, Swallows, Woodpeckers, Peafowl, Jungle fowl and Partridges.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/mysuru/urgent-action-needed-to-save-elephants-activists-raise-alarm-over-electrocution-threat-in-shettihalli-sanctuary/articleshow/115060736.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the ‘One Sun One World One Grid’ (OSOWOG) Initiative:
- It is an initiative to introduce a transnational electricity grid that supplies renewable energy power worldwide.
- The project is being spearheaded by the governments of India and the United States in partnership with the International Solar Alliance (ISA) and the World Bank Group.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India is in advanced discussions with Oman, UAE, Saudi Arabia, Maldives, and Singapore to establish cross-border electricity transmission lines as part of the ambitious ‘One Sun One World One Grid’ (OSOWOG) initiative.
About One Sun One World One Grid’ (OSOWOG) Initiative:
The idea for the OSOWOG initiative was put forth by the Prime Minister of India, at the First Assembly of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) in October 2018.
It is an initiative to introduce a transnational electricity grid that supplies power worldwide.
The project is being spearheaded by the governments of India and the UK in partnership with the International Solar Alliance (ISA) and the World Bank Group.
Vision: It aims to connect different regional grids through a common grid that will be used to transfer renewable energy power and, thus, realize the potential of renewable energy sources, especially solar energy.
The idea is to harness solar and other renewable energy sources from different parts of the world, where the sun is shining at any given moment, and efficiently transmit that power to areas where it is needed.
SOWOG aims to provide power to about 140 countries through a common grid that will ensure the transfer of clean and efficient solar power.
The OSOWOG initiative is to be carried outin 3 phases:
In the first phase, the Indian grid would be connected to the grids of the Middle East, South Asia, and South-East Asia to develop a common grid. This grid would then be used to share solar energy as needed, in addition to other renewable energy sources.
The second phase would connect the functional first phase to the pool of renewable resources in Africa.
The third phase would look at achieving true global interconnection with the aim of 2,600 GW of interconnection by 2050. The goal is to integrate as many countries as possible to create a single power grid of renewable energy. This can then be accessed by all countries.
It will bring together a global coalition of national governments, international financial and technical organisations, legislators, power system operators, and knowledge leaders to accelerate the construction of the new infrastructure needed for a world powered by clean energy.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://energy.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/power/india-in-talks-with-gulf-asia-nations-for-cross-border-power-grid-links-under-osowog/114998530
What is a menhir?
A large upright standing stone
Explanation :
An Iron Age menhir, a memorial pillar locally known as ‘Niluvu Rayi’ found in Kamasanpalli village of Nagarkurnool district in Telangana, faces neglect.
About Menhir:
A menhir is a large upright standing stone.
Menhirs may be found singly as monoliths, or as part of a group of similar stones.
They are widely distributed across Europe, Africa, and Asia, but are most numerous in Western Europe.
Their size can vary considerably; but their shape is generally uneven and squared, often tapering towards the top.
Often menhirs were placed together, forming circles, semicircles, or vast ellipses.
Megalithic menhirs were also placed in several parallel rows, called alignments. The most famous of these are the Carnac, France, alignments, which include 2,935 menhirs.
They are sometimes engraved with abstract forms (line, spiral) or with objects’ images like axes.
Identifying the uses of menhirs remains speculation. However, it is likely that many uses involved fertility rites and seasonal cycles.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/neglected-iron-age-menhir-in-kamasanpalli-village-faces-destruction/article68841916.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Ottavalo’s Andean Mouse, recently seen in the news:
- It was discovered in the high Andes of northern Ecuador.
- The most distinguishable physical feature of Ottavalo’s Andean Mouse is its extremely large ears.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A new species of mouse with a remarkably long tail, dubbed Otavalo’s Andean mouse, has been discovered near a dormant volcano in Ecuador.
About Ottavalo’s Andean Mouse:
It is a new species of mouse with a remarkably long tail.
It was discovered near Mojanda, a dormant volcano with a caldera filled with lakes. The site is about a 50-mile trip from Quito, a city situated in the high Andes of northern Ecuador.
It has been identified as endemic to the temperate, high-altitude Andean regions of the montane forest.
It was named in honor of the local Otavalo culture,which is widely recognized for its musical heritage and skilled weaving and textile commerce.
Features:
In comparison to related species, the Otavalos Andean mouse is slightly larger, with shorter hair on its back.
It has a coat of “fine, dense, and soft” fur.
The fur on its back and sides is described as “dark drab,” while its sides show a more brownish tone.
On its stomach, the fur is a lighter gray with a hint of “ground cinnamon,” giving it a distinct color gradient across its body.
The most distinguishable feature of the new mouse species is its tail, which is longer than the length of the entire body combined.
The tail is overall covered with fine hairs and a row of scales with a white tip.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/this-newly-discovered-mammal-species-has-a-tail-that-is-longer-than-its-entire-body/articleshow/115063767.cms
QS World University Rankings, recently in news is released by:
Quacquarelli Symonds
Explanation :
India with a total of 163 universities ranked is the most represented country in the recently released 16th edition of the World University Rankings: Asia by Quacquarelli Symonds.
It has been published annually since 2009 by Quacquarelli Symonds, which highlights the top universities in Asia each year.
The methodology used to create the ranking is similar to that used for the QS World University Rankings, but with some additional indicators and adapted weightings.
The 11 indicators used to compile the QS Asia University Rankings are
academic reputation (30%), Employer reputation (20%), Faculty/student ratio (10%), International research network (10%), Citations per paper (10%) and papers per faculty (5%), Staff with a PhD (5%), Proportion of inbound exchange students (2.5%) and proportion of outbound exchange students (2.5%)
Highlights
This ranking assesses 984 institutions covering 25 countries in Eastern, Southern, South-Eastern and Central Asia.
Peking University retains the top spot, The University of Hong Kong the second, with the National University of Singapore confirmed in third.
India boasts two institutions within the top 50 and seven in the top 100 of the QS Asia Rankings 2025, with the Indian Institute of Technology Delhi (IITD) leading at 44th place.
The University of Petroleum and Energy Studies (UPES) achieved the most significant improvement among Indian institutions, climbing 70 spots to 148th.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2072018
Consider the following statements regarding the Snakebite envenoming:
- It is a life-threatening medical condition caused by venomous snake bites.
- It was declared as a notifiable disease by the Tamil Nadu government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Tamil Nadu government has officially declared snakebite envenomation as a notifiable disease under the Tamil Nadu Public Health Act, 1939.
It is a life-threatening medical condition caused by venomous snake bites.
It is a major health concern in rural and snake-endemic regions.
It poses a risk to vulnerable populations, including agricultural workers, children, and those living in tropical and subtropical areas.
Snake antivenoms are effective treatments to prevent or reverse most of the harmful effects of snakebite envenoming and are included in the WHO list of essential medicines.
The World Health Organization (WHO) has recognised snakebite as a global public health issue and launched a strategy to reduce snakebite-induced deaths and disabilities worldwide.
India’s Action plan
The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare earlier this year published the National Action Plan for Prevention and Control of Snakebite Envenoming.
The plan aims to halve snakebite deaths by 2030 through a ‘One Health’ approach, integrating human, animal, and environmental health interventions.
Advantages of notifiable disease
By making snakebite a notifiable disease, the Tamil Nadu government aims to improve the collection of vital data, strengthen clinical infrastructure, and ensure the efficient distribution of anti-snake venom.
This move is expected to lead to better prevention strategies, reduce mortality rates, and enhance treatment facilities across the state.
Under the new directive, both government and private hospitals are now required to report cases of snakebites and related fatalities to the government.
This mandatory reporting system will be integrated with the State’s Integrated Health Information Platform under the Integrated Disease Surveillance Program.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/tamil-nadu-declares-snakebite-envenoming-a-notifiable-disease/article68845241.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Seaplane:
- It is a class of aircraft that can land, float, and take off on water.
- It can be used to observe coastal activity such as border control and investigations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Kerala tourism Ministry is launching a seaplane service meant to boost the tourism sector at Bolgatty Waterdrome in Kochi.
It is any of a class of aircraft that can land, float, and take off on water.
It is a fixed-winged aeroplane designed for taking off and landing on water. It offers the public the speed of an aeroplane with the utility of a boat.
Types of Seaplane
Floatplanes: Floatplanes are the most common type of seaplane. They have floats, which are buoyant structures, permanently attached to the fuselage. Floatplanes rely solely on water for takeoff and landing, making them ideal for flying over lakes, rivers, and coastal areas.
Flying Boats: Unlike amphibious seaplanes and floatplanes, flying boats have their hull entirely designed to float on water. These aircraft have a boat-like shape, with the main body of the plane floating on the water’s surface. Flying boats are capable of carrying larger passenger loads and have the capability to take off and land in rougher water conditions.
Advantages of seaplanes
They can fly low and have access to both land and sea, they are perfectly suitable for coastal surveillance.
They can observe coastal activity such as border control, investigations or weather anomalies.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/thiruvananthapuram/kerala-to-launch-seaplane-service-to-boost-tourism-connectivity/articleshow/115110807.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Caterpillar Fungus:
- It is a fungal parasite of larvae that belongs to the ghost moth.
- It is mainly found in the Western Ghats region of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
New research into a chemical produced by a caterpillar fungus that has shown promise as a possible cancer treatment has revealed how it interacts with genes to interrupt cell growth signals.
Caterpillar fungus (Ophiocordyceps Sinensis) is a fungal parasite of larvae (caterpillars) that belongs to the ghost moth.
It is endemic to the Tibetan Plateau, including the adjoining high Himalaya (3,200-4,500 metres above sea level).
It is locally known as Kira Jari (in India), Yartsagunbu (in Tibet), Yarso Gumbub (Bhutan), Dong Chong Xia Cao (China) and Yarsagumba (in Nepal).
In the Indian Himalayas, the species has been documented in the region from the alpine meadows of protected areas such as Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve, Askot Wildlife Sanctuary, Kanchendzonga Biosphere Reserve and Dehan-Debang Biosphere Reserve.
Conservation status
IUCN: Vulnerable
What researchers found?
The chemical Cordycepin, interrupts the cell growth signals that are overactive in cancer, an approach that could be less damaging to healthy tissues than most currently available treatments.
Cordycepin is converted to cordycepin triphosphate, and this molecule was found to directly affect cancer cells.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/reader?utm_source=Hindu&utm_medium=Menu&utm_campaign=Header&_gl=11gwidj9_gcl_au*ODg4NTE5NjE3LjE3MjU0MTMzMTAuMjcwMjM2NzQyLjE3MzExMTcyMDUuMTczMTExNzIwNQ..
Consider the following statements regarding the National Company Law Tribunal:
- It is a quasi-judicial authority incorporated for dealing with corporate disputes.
- It was established based on the recommendation of the Bibek Debroy committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Supreme Court of India highlighted that there is often a shortage of members in National Company Law Tribunal and inadequate infrastructure to support their functioning.
It is a quasi-judicial authority incorporated for dealing with corporate disputes that are of civil nature arising under the Companies Act,2013.
It was constituted on 1 June 2016 under the Companies Act, 2013.
It was established based on the recommendation of the Balakrishna Eradi committee on law relating to the insolvency and the winding up of companies.
Composition: It shall consist of a President and such number of Judicial and Technical Members as may be required.
What are the Powers of NCLT?
It is not limited or bound by the rules laid down in the Code of Civil Procedure and is guided by the principles of natural justice, subject to the other provisions of this Act and of any rules that are made by the Central Government.
It can enforce any order that it gives in the same manner as a court would enforce it.
It has the power to scrutinize its own orders.
It has the power to regulate their own procedure.
It is the adjudicating authority for the insolvency resolution process of companies and limited liability partnerships under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/industry-sc-ruling-brings-nclt-under-staffing-to-the-fore-3660192/
Consider the following statements regarding the Kayakalp Scheme, recently seen in the news:
- It is an initiative launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) under the Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana.
- It aims to promote cleanliness, hygiene, and infection control in Public Health Facilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Rajasthan College Education Commissionerate has directed 20 government colleges to get the front facade of their buildings and entry halls painted orange under the Kayakalp Scheme.
About Kayakalp Scheme:
It is an initiative launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) on May 15, 2015, under Swachh Bharat Abhiyan to promote cleanliness and enhance the quality of healthcare facilities in India.
Objectives:
To promote cleanliness, hygiene, infection control, and environment-friendly practices in Public Health Facilities (PHFs).
To incentivise and recognise PHFs that show exemplary performance in adhering to standard cleanliness and infection control protocols.
To inculcate a culture of ongoing assessment and peer review of performance related to hygiene, cleanliness, and sanitation.
To create and share sustainable practices related to improved cleanliness in PHFs linked to positive health outcomes.
The Kayakalp assessment is a three-tier process involving internal, peer, and external assessment. At the beginning of each financial year, a health facility is assessed, scored, and documented using the pre-defined assessment tool.
The parameters on which the performance of the facility would be judged are as follows:
Hospital/Facility Upkeep
Sanitation and Hygiene
Waste Management
Infection Control
Support Services
Hygiene Promotion
To appreciate the hard work and dedication of the healthcare centres, five awards are provided under this scheme:
Two best district hospitals.
Two best community health centres or sub-district hospitals
One primary health centre in every district.
Cash awards and citations are provided to the winners judged by the set criteria.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/106953/OPS/GSBDIMEE1.1+G74DIMEOF.1.html
‘Arpactophilus pulawskii’, recently seen in the news is a/an:
new species of wasp
Explanation :
In a groundbreaking discovery for Indian entomology, researchers have identified a new species of aphid wasp, Arpactophilus pulawskii, in Nagaland’s Khuzama district.
About Arpactophilus pulawskii:
It is a new species of aphid wasp (target aphids as prey).
It was discovered in Nagaland’s Khuzama district at an altitude of over 1,800 meters.
Arpactophilus species are primarily native to the Australasian region.
Members of this genus display remarkable morphological variation, including differences in body length and head shape, and some exhibit modifications in head size and shape.
They are particularly fascinating because they are among the few social wasps that exhibit social behavior.
They are known for their distinctive nesting behavior, with females using silk from their abdomen to create protective cells in old termite galleries or mud nests.
This discovery marks the first recorded presence of the genus Arpactophilus outside Australasia.
Arpactophilus pulawskii features a distinct square-shaped head with an inverted V-shaped uplifted clypeus and rust-colored body markings.
Additionally, it has a uniquely textured thorax that further sets it apart.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.eastmojo.com/nagaland/2024/11/08/new-wasp-species-found-in-nagaland-first-record-outside-australasia/
Scarborough Shoal, recently seen in the news, lies in which one of the following regions?
South China Sea
Explanation :
China recently released geographic coordinates marking baselines around the contested Scarborough Shoal in the South China Sea.
About Scarborough Shoal:
The Scarborough Shoal (also known in English as the Scarborough Reef) is an oceanic coral atoll that developed on top of a seamount into a triangle shape in the eastern part of the South China Sea.
It is located some 220 kilometers west of the Philippines’ Island of Luzon.
It is the largest atoll in the South China Sea, submerged at high tide with few rocks above sea level.
This atoll extends 18 km along its northwest-southeast axis and reaches 10 km along its northeast-southwest axis.
The deep waters around the shoal make it a productive fishing area, rich in marine life, and the lagoon also contains many commercially valuable shellfish and sea cucumbers.
The shoal is the source of an ongoing and, so far, unresolved dispute between the People’s Republic of China and the Philippines, with both countries claiming that the shoal lies within their territory and saying they have exclusive rights to access its waters.
There are no structures built on Scarborough Shoal, but the feature is effectively controlled by China, which has maintained a constant coast guard presence at the feature since 2012.
China, which now refers to the shoal as Huangyan Island, makes a historical claim to the area, stating that they can trace their ownership of the area back to the Yuan Dynasty of the 1200s.
The Philippines claim the area on the basis of geography, as it is much closer to the Philippines’ main island of Luzon, which contains the capital, Manila, but lies over 500 miles from China.
It is considered within the Philippines’ 200-nautical mile exclusive economic zone, based on the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.firstpost.com/world/china-posts-baselines-for-contested-south-china-sea-shoal-amid-dispute-with-p
The Toto Tribe, one of the most endangered tribes in the world, primarily resides in which one of the following states?
West Bengal
Explanation :
Totos, one of the smallest tribes in the world, are fighting for identity and suffering from infrastructure woes.
About Toto Tribe:
Toto is an aboriginal Indo-Bhutanese tribe concentrated in the village of Totopara in Alipurduar district of West Bengal.
The Totopara village falls under the periphery of Jaldapara Wildlife Sanctuary.
It nestles just to the south of the border between Bhutan and West Bengal, on the bank of the Torsa River.
Anthropologically, the Toto tribe is a branch of the Tibetan-Mongoloid ethnic group.
They are one of the most endangered tribes in the world, with just over 1,600 members surviving. The Toto tribe is often described as ‘a vanishing tribe’ on the verge of extinction.
They are categorised as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG).
Toto Language: It is a Sino-Tibetan language spoken by the Toto people and is written in the Bengali script.
Totos are endogamous and are divided into 13 exogamous clans, from which they choose to marry.
Unique to their culture is the idea of having only a single wife, and they strongly advocate an anti-dowry system, unlike neighbouring tribal practices.
Their houses are elevated bamboo huts covered by thatched roofs.
Beliefs: Toto people consider themselves Hindus who also worship nature.
Economy:
In the past, Totos were mainly food gatherers and practiced slashes and burn types of cultivation.
Along with this, the Toto families earn a good amount of money by working as porters for carrying oranges from the different gardens of Bhutan to Totopara.
With the passage of time, occupational diversification has taken place. At present, they became settled agriculturists.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.eastmojo.com/premium/2024/11/10/totos-a-primitive-tribe-near-india-bhutan-border-are-fighting-for-survival/
Consider the following statements regarding Eurasian Otter:
- It is a semi aquatic carnivorous mammal native to Eurasia.
- It is classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A rescue operation conducted by the Pune Forest Department and RESQ Charitable Trust has revealed a rare Eurasian Otter in Indapur, Pune District, a species previously unrecorded in this area.
About Eurasian Otter:
The Eurasian otter, also known as the European otter, Eurasian River otter, common otter, and Old-World otter, is a semiaquatic carnivorous mammal native to Eurasia.
Scientific Name: Lutra lutra
Distribution:
It has one of the widest distributions of all palearctic mammals, spanning countries in the Middle-East, Europe, Northern Africa, across to Eastern Russia, China, and other Asian countries.
In India, it occurs in northern, northeast and southern India.
Habitat:
It lives in a wide variety of aquatic habitats, including highland and lowland lakes, rivers, streams, marshes, swamp forests, and coastal areas, independent of their size, origin, or latitude.
In the Indian subcontinent, it is found in cold hills and mountain streams.
Features:
It is an elusive, solitary otter.
It has sleek brown fur, which is often paler on the underside, and a long, lithe body with a thick tail and short legs.
Adaptations for an aquatic lifestyle include webbed feet, the ability to close the small ears and the nose when underwater, and very dense, short fur that traps a layer of air to insulate the animal.
Many sensitive hairs (‘vibrissae’) frame the snout; these help the otter to locate prey.
It has an acute sense of sight, smell, and hearing.
Vocalizations include a high-pitched whistle between a mother and her cubs, twittering noises produced during play-fighting, and cat-like noises when fighting.
Conservation Status:
IUCN: Near threatened
Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule II
CITES: Appendix I
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/pune/rare-eurasian-otter-pune-district-first-time-9662696/
Consider the following statements regarding the Arrow-3 Missile Defence System:
- It was jointly developed by Israel and the United States of America.
- It is primarily designed to intercept ballistic missiles outside the Earth’s atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Israel’s Defence Ministry has begun coordinating joint preparations with the German Federal Ministry of Defence for the initial deployment of Israel’s Arrow-3 missile interception system on German soil in 2025.
About Arrow-3 Missile Defence System:
It is an exo-atmospheric anti-ballistic missile defence system for long-range threat engagement.
The Arrow 3 interceptor is part of a series of the Arrow Weapon System (AWS), the world’s first national, operational, and stand-alone Anti Tactical Ballistic Missiles (ATBM) defense system.
It was jointly developed by Israel Aerospace Industries and the Missile Defence Agency in the US.
Initially deployed in 2017, Arrow-3 is the top layer of Israel’s sophisticated air-defense network, which also includes the Arrow 2, David’s Sling, and the Iron Dome active defence systems.
It is designed to take out ballistic missiles while they are still outside of the atmosphere.
Features:
It uses two-stage solid-fueled interceptors to engage short- and medium-range ballistic missiles and consists of a launcher, radar, and battle management system.
It is hypersonic, which travels five times the speed of sound.
It provides a range of 2,400 km and can intercept threats at an altitude of 100 km.
It has early warning and fire control radar. It provides extended-range acquisition as well as multi-target acquisition and tracking capabilities.
How does it work?
It uses hit-to-kill technology to destroy incoming missiles.
The missile is launched vertically, and then the direction is changed towards the estimated interception point.
The high-resolution electro-optical sensor acquires the target for the kill vehicle to hit the target and destroy the warhead.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/israel-moves-forward-on-deploying-arrow-3-missile-defence-system-in-germany-in-2025/articleshow/115148758.cms?from=mdr
With reference to Sutlej River, consider the following statements:
- It is the longest of the five tributaries of the Indus River.
- It rises on the north slope of the Himalayas in southwestern Tibet.
- It enters India by flowing through the Lipulekh Pass in Uttarakhand.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Anger mounts in Sri Ganganagar district, Rajasthan, against alleged pollution in the river Sutlej, which they blame on factories in the neighbouring Punjab.
About Sutlej River:
It is the longest of the five tributaries of the Indus River.
It is also known as “Satadree”.
The Sutlej River is primarily located to the north of the Vindhya Range, east of the Pakistani Central Makran Range, and south of the Hindu Kush region.
Course:
Origin: It rises on the north slope of the Himalayas in Lake Rakshastal in southwestern Tibet at an elevation above 15,000 feet (4,600 metres).
It is one of only three Trans Himalayan rivers originating in the high Tibetan Plateau that cuts across the mighty Himalayan ranges. The other two are the Indus and the Brahmaputra.
The Sutlej enters India by flowing west and south-westwards through the Shipki La Pass in Himachal Pradesh at an altitude of 6,608 metres.
The river then flows through Punjab near Nangal before meeting the Beas River. The merger of these two rivers goes on to form 105 Km of the India-Pakistan border.
The river continues to flow for another 350 Km before joining the Chenab River.
The combination of the Sutlej and Chenab Rivers forms the Panjnad, which finally flows into the Indus River.
Length: It has a total length of 1550 km, out of which 529 km is in Pakistan.
The hydrology of the Sutlej is controlled by spring and summer snowmelt in the Himalayas and by the South Asian monsoon.
Tributaries: It has many tributaries, with Baspa, Spiti, Nogli Khad, and Soan River being its main ones.
Water from the Sutlej River has been allocated to India according to the Indus Waters Treaty of 1960.
There are several major hydroelectric projects on the Sutlej, including the 1,000 MW Bhakra Dam, the 1,000 MW Karcham Wangtoo Hydroelectric Plant, and the 1,530 MW Nathpa Jhakri Dam.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/jaipur/anger-mounts-in-rajasthan-district-over-pollution-in-river-sutlej-local-leaders-say-punjabs-industries-to-blame-9661987/
Consider the following statements regarding Hokersar wetland:
- It is a Ramsar site located in Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir.
- It is a natural perennial wetland contiguous to the Jhelum basin.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Lack of water due to excess deficit rainfall at the Hokersar wetland in the Kashmir Valley in recent years has impacted the arrival of migratory bird populations in the region.
About Hokersar wetland:
It is known as the ‘Queen Wetland of Kashmir’, Hokersar (also known as Hokera) is a designated Ramsar site is located in Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir.
It is a natural perennial wetland contiguous to the Jhelum basin.
It gets water from the Doodhganga River (Tributary of Jhelum).
It is located at the northwest Himalayan biogeopgraphic province of Kashmir, back of the snow-draped Pir Panchal.
Fauna: It is the only site with remaining reedbeds of Kashmir and a pathway of 68 waterfowl species like Large Egret, Great Crested Grebe, Little Cormorant, Common Shelduck, Tufted Duck and endangered White-eyed Pochard.
It is an important source of food, spawning ground and nursery for fishes, besides offering feeding and breeding ground to a variety of water birds.
What is the Ramsar Convention?
This convention was signed on 2nd February 1971 to preserve the ecological character of their wetlands of international importance.
It is named after Ramsar, the Iranian city where the treaty was signed in 1971, and places chosen for conservation under it are given the tag ‘Ramsar site’.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/lack-of-rainfall-impacts-arrival-of-migratory-birds-in-kashmir-valleys-hokersar-wetland
Which one of the following natural phenomena can also produce lightning?
A.
Volcanic eruptions
B.
Large hurricanes
C.
Intense Forest fires
All of the above
Explanation :
Climate change is making lightning strikes around the world more common and deadlier.
About Lightning:
It strikes are possible because electrical charges can build up in a cloud beyond the ability of air to keep resisting their movement.
It is an electrical discharge between charged particles in a cloud and the ground.
It can occur between opposite charges within the thunderstorm cloud (intra-cloud lightning) or between opposite charges in the cloud and on the ground (cloud-to-ground lightning).
It is one of the oldest observed natural phenomena on earth. It can be seen in volcanic eruptions, extremely intense forest fires, surface nuclear detonations, heavy snowstorms, in large hurricanes, and obviously, thunderstorms.
While a lightning strike occurs between a cloud and an object on or near the ground, it takes the path of least resistance, which means it moves towards the closest object with the highest electric potential.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/how-do-lightning-rods-prevent-lightning-strikes-from-reaching-people/article68852652.ece
Amchang Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which one of the following states?
Assam
Explanation :
Recently, a highly decomposed carcass of an elephant was discovered in the Khanapara range of the Amchang Wildlife Sanctuary.
About Amchang Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is located in the state of Assam.
It comprises three Reserve forests-Khanapara, Amchang, and South Amchang.
It stretches from the Brahmaputra River in the northto the hilly forests of Meghalaya in the south, forming a continuous forest belt through Meghalaya’s Maradakdola Reserve Forests.
Flora: Khasi Hill Sal Forests, East Himalayan Mixed Deciduous Forest, Eastern Alluvial Secondary Semi-evergreen Forests and East Himalayan Sal Forests.
Fauna: Flying fox, Slow loris, Assamese macaque, Rhesus macaque, Hoolock gibbon, Porcupine. White-backed Vulture, Slender-billed Vulture.
Tree yellow butterflies (gancana harina) are found at the Amchang wildlife sanctuary which is indigenous to Thailand, Malaysia, Singapore and northeast India.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://assamtribune.com/assam/forest-dept-under-scrutiny-after-elephant-carcass-found-in-amchang-wildlife-sanctuary-1557482
Consider the following statements regarding Asia-Pacific Telecommunity (APT):
- It is an intergovernmental organization established with the aim of promoting ICT development in the Asia-Pacific region.
- It was founded on the joint initiatives of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP) and the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India has hosted the South Asian Telecommunication Regulators’ Council (SATRC), organised by the Asia Pacific Telecommunity (APT), in Delhi recently.
About Asia-Pacific Telecommunity (APT):
APT is an intergovernmental organization established in February 1979 with the aim of promoting ICT development in the Asia-Pacific region.
APT was founded on the joint initiatives of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP) and the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).
Currently, the APT has a strength of 38 Members, 4 Associate Members and more than 140 Affiliate Members (private companies and academia whose works are relevant to the ICT field).
Functions:
APT fosters the development of telecommunication services and information infrastructure throughout the region.
It plays a crucial role in coordinating and harmonizing policies, regulations, and technical standards related to ICT.
APT conducts various preparatory activities for international conferences, including the ITU Plenipotentiary Conference (PP), World Radiocommunication Conferences (WRCs), World Telecommunication Standardization Assemblies (WTSAs), World Summit on the Information Society (WSIS), and World Telecommunication Development Conferences (WTDCs).
The organization also hosts working groups and forums to address specific issues such as spectrum management, policy, and standardization.
APT also organizes a variety of capacity building programs related to ICT topics and implements several pilot projects to promote ICT development in the region.
In addition, APT provides sub-regional platforms to facilitate achieving sub-regional common interests.
For example, the South Asian Telecommunication Regulators’ Council (SATRC), under the umbrella of APT, organizes working groups for policy and regulation, and spectrum to facilitate harmonization among parties concerned.
The SATRC meeting is an annual event where heads of telecommunication regulatory bodies from SATRC member countries discuss and coordinate regulatory and other issues related to telecommunication and ICT.
SATRC is composed of the heads of the regulatory bodies of nine South Asian countries, namely, Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Iran, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.
Affiliate members from these countries are also taking active participation in SATRC activities.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/107121/OPS/GVBDIQGA3.1+GV2DISURA.1.html
Consider the following statements regarding Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN), recently seen in the news:
- It is a rare, life-threatening skin condition.
- The most common trigger for TEN are viral infections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers from Australia and Germany have for the first time cured patients suffering from toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN), a deadly skin disease.
About Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN):
TEN, also known as Lyell’s syndrome, is a rare, life-threatening skin condition.
TEN is the most severe form of Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS).
Both conditions are caused by a reaction to medications-often antibiotics or anticonvulsants.
People with weakened immune systems are more likely to develop SJS or TEN.
Symptoms may include:
A painful, red area that spreads quickly
The skin may peel without blistering
Raw areas of skin
Discomfort
Fever
Condition spread to eyes, mouth/throat, and genitals/urethra/anus
TEN causes large areas of blistering and peeling skin on at least 30% of your body, including mucous membranes like the mouth, eyes and genitals.
Because the skin normally acts as a protective barrier, extensive skin damage can lead to a dangerous loss of fluids and allow infections to develop.
Serious complications can include pneumonia, overwhelming bacterial infections (sepsis), shock, multiple organ failure, and death.
It has a mortality rate of approximately 30 percent.
Treatment:
TEN requires emergency medical treatment at a hospital.
If a medicine is causing the skin reaction, it is discontinued.
While the skin heals, supportive care includes controlling pain, caring for wounds and making sure you’re getting enough fluids.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://assamtribune.com/health-and-fitness/australian-german-research-finds-world-first-cure-for-deadly-skin-disease-1557568
The Sirpur Lake, recently seen in the news, is located in which one of the following cities?
Indore
Explanation :
Following the order of the National Green Tribunal, a team of Indore Municipal Corporation along with police removed encroachments and 30 stalls from the catchment area in Sirpur Lake recently.
About Sirpur Lake:
It is a human-made wetland located in Indore, Madhya Pradesh.
It is a 670-acre lake, which is more than 130 years old, made by Maharaja Shivajirao Holkar to generate water supply for the city of Indore.
The Indore City Gazette, 1908, has many references to Sirpur Lake, utilised for water supply and recreational purposes.
It is a shallow, alkaline, nutrient-rich lake that floods during the monsoon.
Sirpur Lake boasts a diverse habitat, featuring extensive wetlands, shrub forests, grasslands, tall trees, and shallow and deep-water areas.
Fauna:
It is inhabited by 189 species of birds, belonging to 55 families.
It is arguably one of the only remaining birdwatching sites where water birds can be recorded within city limits.
Commonly sighted species include the painted stork, bar-headed goose, Eurasian wigeon, and several species of egrets, herons, and kingfishers.
It is also home to several species of reptiles, insects, butterflies, and fish.
It was designated a Ramsar site under the Ramsar Convention on January 7, 2022.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.freepressjournal.in/indore/indore-sirpur-lake-freed-from-encroachment-step-towards-conserving-ramsar-site
With reference to Aligarh Muslim University, consider the following statements:
- It is a government-run education institution situated in Aligarh, Uttar Pradesh.
- It was originally established by social reformer Sir Syed Ahmad Khan as the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College.
- The university is open to all, irrespective of caste, creed, religion, or gender.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently overruled its 1967 judgement about the Aligarh Muslim University (AMU) that became the basis for denying the minority status to the institute.
About Aligarh Muslim University:
It is a government-run education institution situated in Aligarh, Uttar Pradesh.
History:
It was originally established by social reformer Sir Syed Ahmad Khan as the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College in 1875.
In the aftermath of the 1857 Indian War of Independence, the College was built on Khan’s conviction that it was important for Muslims to gain education and become involved in public life and government services in India.
Raja Jai Kishan helped Sir Syed establish the college.
Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College became AMU in 1920, following the Aligarh Muslim University Act.
From its very inception, it has kept its door open to members of all communities and from all corners of the country and the world.
The university is open to all irrespective of caste, creed, religion, or gender.
AMU is recognised by the University Grant Commission (UGC) and the Association of Indian Universities (AIU).
AMU offers more than 300 courses in the traditional and modern branches of education.
It draws students from all states in India and from different countries, especially Africa, West Asia, and Southeast Asia.
In some courses, seats are reserved for students from SAARC and Commonwealth Countries.
It has three off-campus centres: AMU Malappuram Campus (Kerala), AMU Murshidabad Centre (West Bengal), and Kishanganj Centre (Bihar).
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/aligarh-muslim-university-minority-status-case-sc-overrules-1967-judgement-124110800481_1.html
The Subansiri Lower Hydro Electric Project is located on the border of which of the following states?
Arunachal Pradesh and Assam
Explanation :
Power generation is set to commence at the highly controversial Subansiri Lower Hydroelectric Project from next year.
About Subansiri Lower Hydro Electric Project (SLHEP):
It is an under-construction gravity dam on the Subansiri River in North Eastern India on the borders of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
It is a run-of-river project.
It will be the single largest hydroelectric plant in India when completed.
The dam will be 116 m high from the river bed level and 130 m from the foundation. The length of the dam will be 284 m.
The project is being developed by the state-run National Hydro Power Corporation (NHPC).
It is expected to supply 2,000 MW of power (eight 250 MW units) when completed.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.etvbharat.com/en/!state/assam-subansiri-lower-hydroelectric-project-nearing-completion-enn24111105247
Consider the following statements regarding the Dicliptera polymorpha:
- It is a distinctive species which has fire-resilient and dual-blooming properties.
- It is mainly found in the northern slopes of the Himalayas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, researchers discovered a new species of the genus Dicliptera in the Northern Western Ghats of India and named it as Dicliptera polymorpha.
About Dicliptera polymorpha:
It is a distinctive species, notable for its fire-resilient, pyrophytic habit and its unusual dual-blooming pattern.
In addition to its typical post-monsoon flowering, the species exhibits a second, vigorous burst of flowering triggered by the grassland fires commonly set by locals in the region.
This species is taxonomically unique, with inflorescence units (cymules) that develop into spicate inflorescences.
It is the only known Indian species with this spicate inflorescence structure, with its closest allies being found in Africa.
The species was named Dicliptera polymorpha to reflect its diverse morphological traits.
It thrives on slopes in open grasslands of the northern Western Ghats, an area exposed to extreme climatic conditions such as summer droughts and frequent human-induced fires. Despite these harsh conditions, the species has adapted to survive and bloom twice a year.
The first flowering phase occurs from post-monsoon (early November) to March or April, while the second flowering phase in May and June is triggered by fires.
During this second phase, the woody rootstocks produce dwarf flowering shoots, leading to a more abundant but shorter flowering period.
The species’ unique adaptation to fire and its limited habitat range in the Western Ghats highlight the need for careful management of grassland ecosystems.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2072410
Consider the following statements regarding the ‘EV as a Service’ programme:
- It aims to boost e-mobility in government offices and deploy E-Cars in government departments.
- It is an initiative of the Convergence Energy Services Limited.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Union Minister of Power and Housing & Urban Affairs launched ‘EV as a Service’ programme of Convergence Energy Services Limited (CESL) at Major Dhyan Chand National Stadium.
It aims to boost e-mobility in government offices; to deploy 5,000 E-Cars in government departments over the next two years.
It is an initiative of Convergence Energy Services Limited (CESL), a subsidiary of Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL)
By leveraging a flexible procurement model, the programme allows for the deployment of a variety of E-Car makes/models, enabling Govt. offices to choose E-Cars that best align with their operational requirements.
It may be noted that CESL has already deployed nearly 2000 nos. of E-Cars across India and is also facilitating the deployment of approx. 17,000 E-Buses.
It not only supports the government’s environmental sustainability vision, but also aligns with India’s ambitious goal of achieving net zero emissions by 2070.
What is CESL?
It is a newly established subsidiary of state-owned Energy Efficiency Services Limited, itself a joint venture of public sector companies under the Ministry of Power, Government of India.
It builds upon the decentralized solar development experience in under-served rural communities in India, and over time, using battery energy storage, will deliver renewable energy solutions to power agricultural pumps, street lighting, domestic lighting and cooking appliances in villages.
CESL will also work to enable battery powered electric mobility and its infrastructure and design business models to increase the uptake of electric vehicles in India.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2072136
Consider the following statements regarding the Pinaka Multi-Barrel Rocket Launcher:
- It consists of a multi-tube launcher vehicle and has a range of 60 to 75 kilometers.
- It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
France is considering India’s Pinaka Multi-Barrel Rocket Launch (MBRL) system for its requirements and is soon going to carry out a detailed evaluation of the system.
About Pinaka Multi-Barrel Rocket Launch (MBRL) system:
It is designed by the Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE), a laboratory of the DRDO.
It was first used during the Kargil War, where it successfully neutralised Pakistan Army positions on the mountain tops.
It delivers lethal and responsive fire against a variety of area targets, such as exposed enemy troops, armoured and soft-skin vehicles, communication centres, air terminal complexes, and fuel and ammunition dumps.
Features:
It consists of a multi-tube launcher vehicle, a replenishment-cum-loader vehicle, a replenishment vehicle, and a command post vehicle.
The rocket launcher has two pods containing six rockets each and can neutralise an area of 700 × 500 square metres within 48 seconds.
The launcher system is supported on four hydraulically actuated outriggers at the time of firing.
Range: It has a range of 60 to 75 kilometers.
The system is mounted on a Tatra truck for mobility.
Its success has already extended beyond India’s borders, with countries like Armenia placing orders, and many others expressing interest in acquiring the system.
It is suitable for different types of military engagements, such as counter-terrorism, border defence, and conventional warfare.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/france-evaluating-indias-pinaka-rocket-system-for-its-requirements/article68852947.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Gluten:
- It is a protein naturally found in all vegetables and fruits.
- It cannot be broken down by the enzyme called protease in the human body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Gluten is infamous for the allergic reaction it induces in some people.
About Gluten:
It is a protein found in the wheat plant and some other grains.
Many cereal grains — but in particular barley, wheat, and rye — contain specific proteins that, when mixed with water and kneaded, create an elastic mass.
Two important types of these proteins are gliadins and glutenins. At the microscopic level, gluten is an elastic mesh of the protein molecules.
It is naturally occurring, but it can be extracted, concentrated and added to food and other products to add protein, texture and flavor.
It also works as a binding agent to hold processed foods together and give them shape.
It allows the dough to rise and gives it its chewy character.
The ability of gliadins and glutenins to create gluten makes them prized ingredients in the food industry.
Issues of Gluten:
An enzyme called protease helps digest proteins but it cannot break down gluten. When such gluten reaches the small intestine, the body can develop gastrointestinal problems.
Coeliac disease: It’s characterised by a severe allergic reaction in the small intestine, prompting the immune system to produce a large number of antibodies that attack the body’s own proteins. The disease is present in around 2% of the general population.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/gluten-animator-of-the-dough/article68851884.ece#:~
Consider the following statements regarding the Exercise ‘Antariksha Abhyas’:
- It aims to provide enhanced understanding of space based assets and services.
- It is conducted by the Indian Space Research Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
First Ever Space Exercise ‘Antariksha Abhyas – 2024’ hosted by Defence Space Agency begins in New Delhi.
It is an exercise to war-game the growing threats from and to Space Based Assets and Services
It is being conducted by the Defence Space Agency of Headquarters Integrated Defence Staff
It is a first of its kind exercise being conducted and is expected to help secure national strategic objectives in space and integrate India’s space capability in military operations.
It aims to provide enhanced understanding of space based assets and services and to gain understanding of operational dependency on space segment between stakeholders.
In addition, it intends to identify vulnerabilities in conduct of operations in the event of denial or disruptions of space based services.
It will have participants from the Defence Space Agency and its allied units along with personnel from the Army, Navy and the Air Force. Specialist branches under Headquarters Integrated Defence Staff viz Defence Cyber Agency, Defence Intelligence Agency and Strategic Forces Command would also be active participants in conduct of the exercise.
Representatives from Indian Space Research Organisation and the Defence Research & Development Organisation will also take part in it.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2072518
Consider the following statements with reference to Citizenship:
- At present, no country in the world follows the jus soli citizenship system.
- Currently, Indian nationality law follows the jus sanguinis system of citizenship instead of the jus soli system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Countries around the world have established different systems and rules that govern the attribution of citizenship, the major ones being by birth, by naturalization or by marriage. Most countries follow one of the two following systems:
jus soli
jus sanguinis
Jus soli is a Latin term meaning law of the soil. Many countries follow jus soli, more commonly known as birth right citizenship. Under this concept, the citizenship of an individual is determined by the place where the individual was born. So a child of an immigrant is a citizen as long as he/she is born in the country of immigration. The US follows the jus soli system to determine citizenship. Therefore, whoever is born in the US and is subject to its jurisdiction is automatically granted US citizenship. Currently, around 30 countries in the world follow this. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Jus sanguinis is when a person acquires citizenship through descent, i.e. through their parents or ancestors independent of where he/she is born. Traditionally, as evidenced by the Citizenship Act of 1955, citizenship in India was acquired by birth on Indian soil (jus soli) or by descent (the son or daughter of Indian citizens are themselves an Indian citizen, even if they were born abroad). The reforms which took place from 1987 onwards tended to fully replace the old jus soli by a form of jus sanguinis as at least one of the parents had to be born Indian (and after 2003, the other parent should not be considered as illegal at the time of birth). Thus, currently Indian nationality law follows jus sanguinis system of citizenship. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore option (b) is the correct answer.
In which among the following cases, the Government of India may terminate the citizenship of an Indian citizen?
- A World Bank employee who is an Indian citizen and has been living in another country for the past seven years continuously.
- The citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India.
- The citizen has, within five years after registration or naturalization, been imprisoned in the USA for three years.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The Citizenship Act (1955) prescribes three ways of losing citizenship whether acquired under the Act or prior to it under the Constitution, viz, renunciation, termination and deprivation:
By Renunciation: Any citizen of India of full age and capacity can make a declaration renouncing his Indian citizenship. Upon the registration of that declaration, that person ceases to be a citizen of India. However, if such a declaration is made during a war in which India is engaged, its registration shall be withheld by the Central Government. Further, when a person renounces his Indian citizenship, every minor child of that person also loses Indian citizenship. However, when such a child attains the age of eighteen, he may resume Indian citizenship.
By Termination: When an Indian citizen voluntarily (consciously, knowingly and without duress, undue influence or compulsion) acquires the citizenship of another country, his Indian citizenship automatically terminates. This provision, however, does not apply during a war in which India is engaged.
By Deprivation: It is a compulsory termination of Indian citizenship by the Central government, if:
the citizen has obtained citizenship by fraud.
the citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India. So, statement 2 is correct.
the citizen has unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during a war;
the citizen has, within five years after registration or naturalization, been imprisoned in any country for two years. So, statement 3 is correct
the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously. However, this will not apply if he’s a student abroad or is in the service of a government in India or an international organization of which India is a member, or has registered annually at an Indian consulate his intention to retain his Indian citizenship. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to Assam Accord of 1985:
- It was a Memorandum of Settlement (MoS) signed between representatives of the Government of India and the leaders of the Assam Movement.
- According to the Accord, any foreigners who arrived after January 1, 1966, would be identified and may be deported in accordance with the law.
- Clause 6 of the Accord was inserted to safeguard the socio-political rights and culture of the “indigenous people of Assam”.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Assam Accord came at the culmination of a movement against immigration from Bangladesh. The Assam Accord was a Memorandum of Settlement signed by the Governments of India and Assam, and the All Assam Students’ Union (AASU) and the All Assam Gana Sangram Parishad (AAGSP) in New Delhi on August 15, 1985. So, statement 1 is correct.
Clause 5 of the Assam Accord deals with the issue of foreigners, that is, detection of foreigners in Assam, deletion of their names from the voters’ list and their deportation through practical means. The foreigners were classified under three heads for identification and differential treatment under Clause 5 of the Assam Accord. Two dates are of significance in the Assam Accord: 1st of January 1966 and 24th of March 1971.
“All persons who came to Assam prior to 1.1.1966, including those amongst them whose name appeared on the electoral rolls used in 1967 elections, shall be regularised,” states Clause 5 of the Assam Accord. In simple words, illegal immigrants who entered Assam till December 31, 1965 were to be granted citizenship with voting rights immediately.
As per the accord, foreigners who came to Assam on or after March 25, 1971 shall continue to be detected, deleted and expelled in accordance with law. Immediate and practical steps shall be taken to expel such foreigners. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Clause 6 of the Assam Accord says that constitutional, legislative and administrative steps will be taken by the Centre to “protect, preserve and promote the cultural, social, linguistic identity and heritage of the Assamese people”. So, statement 3 is correct
Therefore option (b) is the correct answer
Which among the following are essential elements of a Nation-State?
- Population
- Territory
- Army
- Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation :
Modern Nation-State has four essential elements. These are:
Population: The State is a human institution. It is the people who make a State. Antarctica is not a State as is it is without any human population. The population must be able to sustain a state
Territory: Just as every person belongs to a state, so does every square yard of earth. There is no state without a fixed territory. Living together on a common land binds people together. The territory has to be definite because it ensures the exercise of political authority.
Government: The purpose for which people live together cannot be realized unless they are properly organized and accept certain rules of conduct. The agency created to enforce rules of conduct and ensure obedience is called government. It is through this medium that common policies are determined, common affairs regulated and common interests promoted. Without a government, the people will lack cohesion and means of collective action
Sovereignty: A people inhabiting a definite portion of territory and having a government do not constitute a state so long as they do not possess sovereignty. India before 15 August 1947 had all the other elements of the state but it lacked sovereignty and therefore it was not a State. Sovereignty is the supreme power by which the state commands and exerts political obedience from its people. A state must be internally supreme and free from external control.
Therefore, every state must have a population, a definite territory, a duly established government and sovereignty. The absence of any of these elements deprives it the status of statehood. The first two elements constitute the physical or material basis of the state while the last two form its political and spiritual basis.
Army is not an essential element of a State.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Evolution of Indian states and union territories’:
- At the time of Independence, India comprised three categories of political units, namely British provinces, Governor’s provinces and princely states.
- In 1950, the Constitution contained a fourfold classification of states and class of territory of the Indian Union – Part A, B, C and D.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
India comprised two categories of political units at the time of Independence namely British provinces (under the direct rule of British Government) and Princely states (under the rule of native princes). It was in the Indian Independence Act (1947) that two separate and independent dominions of India and Pakistan were created. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The Constitution of 1950 distinguished between three main types of states and a class of territories. Part A states, which were the former Governors’ provinces of British India, were ruled by a Governor appointed by the President and an elected State Legislature.
Part B states, which were former princely states or unions of princely states, governed by a rajpramukh, who was usually the ruler of a constituent state, and an elected legislature. The rajpramukh was appointed by the President of India.
Part C states included both the former chief commissioners’ provinces and some princely states, and each was governed by a chief commissioner appointed by the President of India.
The sole Part D territory was the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which was administered by a lieutenant governor appointed by the central government. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- Creation of a new State in India requires amendment of Schedule 1 to the Constitution.
- If India wants to settle a boundary dispute with Pakistan, it can be done by executive action.
- If India wants to cede a part of its territory to a neighbouring country, it can be done only by amending the Constitution under Article 368.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
One of the special features of the Union of India is that the union is indestructible, but the power conferred on the Parliament includes the power to form a new state or union territory by uniting a part of any State or Union territory to other State or Union territory. The identity of States can be altered or even expunged by the Parliament. The Constituent Assembly declined a motion in the concluding stages to designate India as ‘’Federation of States’’.
Article 1 elucidates India as a ‘’Union of States’’. These states are specified in the First Schedule to the Constitution. The First Schedule lists the States and Territories of India and also lists if any changes to the borders. Thus, creating a new state in India requires an amendment of Schedule 1 to the Constitution. So, statement 1 is correct.
Articles 2 and 3 enable the Parliament by law to admit a new state, increase, decrease the area of any state. Moreover, the Constitution (Article 4) itself declares that laws made for admission or establishment of new states (under Article 2) and formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states (under Articles 3) are not to be considered as amendments of the Constitution under Article 368.
But the Supreme Court in the Berubari Union case (1960) held that the power of the Parliament to diminish the area of a state (under Article 3) does not cover the cession of Indian territory to a foreign country. Hence, Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state only by amending Article 368. So, statement 3 is correct.
On the other hand, the Supreme Court in 1969 ruled that settlement of a boundary dispute between India and another country does not require a constitutional amendment. It can be done by executive action as it does not involve the cession of Indian territory to a foreign country. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer
Consider the following statements with reference to Citizenship:
- The Constitution of India does not define the term citizen.
- All the provisions under Part II of the Constitution that deals with Citizenship came into force on 26th January 1950.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Constitution of India is the primary legal instrument that lays down who is deemed to be a Citizen of India. The Constitution of India does not define the term citizen. Citizenship is listed in the Union List under the Constitution and thus is under the exclusive jurisdiction of Parliament. The Conferment of a person as a citizen of India is governed under Articles 5 to 11 by Part II of the Constitution of India. However, it contains neither any permanent nor any elaborate provisions in this regard. It only identifies the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement (i.e., on January 26, 1950). It does not deal with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement. It empowers the Parliament to enact a law to provide for such matters and any other matter relating to citizenship. Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Citizenship Act (1955), which has been amended from time to time. So, statement 1 is correct.
Some provisions of the Constitution pertaining to citizenship, elections, provisional parliament, temporary and transitional provisions, and short title contained in Articles 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 60, 324, 366, 367, 379, 380, 388, 391, 392 and 393 came into force on November 26, 1949, itself. The remaining provisions (the major part) of the Constitution came into force on January 26, 1950. This day is referred to in the Constitution as the ‘date of its commencement’, and celebrated as the Republic Day. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to Overseas Citizens of India (OCI):
- A person whose parents/grandparents had been a citizen of Pakistan or Bangladesh becomes ineligible to apply for OCI.
- OCI enjoy all the rights and privileges granted to NRIs in financial, economic and educational fields in all aspects.
- OCI cannot enjoy rights conferred under Article 16 of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
No person, who or either of whose parents or grandparents or great grandparents is or had been a citizen of Pakistan, Bangladesh or such other country as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify, shall be eligible for registration as an Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder. So, statement 1 is correct.
OCI holders enjoy parity with NRIs in financial, economic and educational fields except in the acquisition of agricultural or plantation properties. So, statement 2 is not correct.
OCI card is not a substitute for an Indian visa and therefore, the passport which displays the lifetime visa must be carried by OCI holders while travelling to India. OCI is not to be misconstrued as ‘dual citizenship’. OCI does not confer political rights. The registered Overseas Citizens of India shall not be entitled to the rights conferred on a citizen of India under article 16 of the Constitution with regard to equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Arrange the following States/Union Territories in ascending year of their formation:
- Daman and Diu
- Dadra and Nagar Haveli
- Sikkim
- Puducherry
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2-1-4-3
Explanation :
The Twelfth Amendment of the Constitution of India, 1962 incorporated Goa, Daman and Diu as the eighth Union territory of India, The 12th Amendment retroactively came into effect on 20 December 1961, the day following the formal ceremony of official Portuguese surrender.
The Tenth Amendment of the Constitution of India was passed to incorporate Dadra and Nagar Haveli as a union territory, effective 11 August 1961.
Puducherry was administered as an ‘acquired territory’, till 1962 when it was made a union territory by the 14th Constitutional Amendment Act, effective 16 August 1962.
The 36th Constitutional Amendment Act (1975) was enacted to make Sikkim a full-fledged state of the Indian Union (the 22nd state).
So, the correct sequence is 2-1-4-3.
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Union Governments power to acquire foreign territory’:
- Being a sovereign state, India can acquire foreign territories according to the modes recognized by international laws.
- India acquired several foreign territories such as Sikkim, Goa and Pondicherry before the commencement of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Being a sovereign state, India can acquire foreign territories according to the modes recognized by international law, i.e., cession (following treaty, purchase, gift, lease or plebiscite), occupation (hitherto unoccupied by a recognized ruler), conquest or subjugation. Article 2, empowers the parliament ‘to admit into new states on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit.
Thus article 2 grant two power to the parliament:
The power to admit into the union of India new state.
The power to establish new state. So, statement 1 is correct.
India acquired several foreign territories such as Dadra and Nagar Haveli; Goa, Daman and Diu; Pondicherry; and Sikkim after the commencement of the Constitution. Goa -1961; Pondicherry – 1954; Sikkim -1975. So, statement 2 in not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Reorganization of states’:
- The States Reorganization Commission under the chairmanship of Fazl Ali, completely rejected the idea of reorganization of states based on language.
- By the State Reorganization Act of 1956, the distinction between Part B and Part C states was done away.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The creation of Andhra state in 1953 as first linguistic state intensified the demand from other regions as well. This forced government to appoint a three-member State Reorganization Commission under the chairmanship of Fazl Ali. It broadly accepted language as the basis of the reorganization of states. But it rejected the theory of ‘One language one state’. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The Commission suggested the abolition of the four-fold classification of states under the original Constitution and creation of 16 states and 3 centrally administered territories.
By the States Reorganization Act (1956) and the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act (1956), the distinction between Part A and Part B states was done away and Part C states were abolished. Some of them are merged with adjacent states and some were designated as union territories. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Union Territories in India:
- The President has the power to put a Union Territory under the jurisdiction of the high court of an adjacent state.
- The constitution does not provide any special provisions for the administration of newly acquired territories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Articles 239 to 241 in Part VIII of the Constitution deal with the union territories. Every union territory is administered by the President acting through an administrator appointed by him. The President can also appoint the governor of a state as the administrator of an adjoining union territory.
The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists (including the State List) for the union territories. The Parliament can establish a high court for a union territory or put it under the jurisdiction of the high court of an adjacent state. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The Constitution does not contain any separate provisions for the administration of acquired territories. But, the constitutional provisions for the administration of union territories also apply to the acquired territories. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements:
- The Government of India can cede an Indian territory to a foreign country by an executive action.
- Settlement of a boundary dispute between India and a neighboring country can be done through an Act of Parliament only.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Article 3 of the Constitution of India talks about the power of the Parliament to reorganize the states. In a reference made by the President to the Supreme Court in 1960, the question came whether the power of the Parliament to diminish the area of a state under Article 3, includes power to cede territory to a foreign country. The Supreme Court held that the power of Parliament to diminish the area of a state (under Article 3) does not cover cession of Indian territory to a foreign country. Hence, an Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state only by amending the Constitution under Article 368. So, statement 1 is not correct.
On the other hand, the Supreme Court in 1969 ruled that settlement of a boundary dispute between India and another country does not require a Constitutional Amendment. It can be done by executive action as it does not involve cession of Indian territory to a foreign country. The 100th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2015 was enacted to give effect to the acquiring of certain territories by India and transfer of certain other territories to Bangladesh in pursuance of the agreement and its protocol entered into between the Governments of India and Bangladesh. So, statement 2 is not correct.
With reference to martial law, consider the following statements:
- It affects not only the Fundamental Rights but also the Centre-State relations.
- It suspends the government and ordinary law courts in a specific area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Article 34 provides for the restrictions on fundamental rights while martial law is in force in any area within the territory of India. Martial Law affects only Fundamental Rights. National Emergency affects not only Fundamental Rights but also Centre-state relations, distribution of revenues and legislative powers between centres and states and may extend the tenure of the Parliament. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Martial law suspends the government and ordinary law courts. It is imposed in some specific area of the country to restore the breakdown of law and order due to any reason. It has no specific provision in the Constitution. So, statement 2 is correct.
With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
- Fundamental Rights include compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years.
- Directive Principles of States Policy provide for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years.
- Fundamental duties include the parent’s duty to provide opportunities for education to his child between the age of six and fourteen years.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Article 21A was added to the Fundamental Rights by the Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002. As per the Article, the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine. Accordingly, the Right to Education Act was enacted in 2009. So, statement 1 is correct.
According to Article 45 (that is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy), it is a duty on the State to provide for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years. The content of the Article was substituted by the the Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002. So, statement 2 is correct.
Article 51A(k) ( that is a part of Fundamental Duties) puts a duty on who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years. The Article was added after the Constitution (Eighty- sixth Amendment) Act, increasing the number of Fundamental duties from ten to eleven. So, statement 3 is correct.
With reference to the Gram Panchayat Development Plans (GPDP), consider the following statements:
- Gram Panchayats are constitutionally mandated for the preparation of the GPDP.
- Gram Panchayats would develop annual plans for the development of villages.
- It aims to improve efficiency and efficacy in public service delivery in local areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
The Gram Panchayats are constitutionally mandated for preparation of Gram Panchayat Development Plans (GPDP) for economic development and social justice utilising resources available with them. Article 243G added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, gives the power to the Gram Panchayat for the preparation of plans for economic development and social justice. The Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP) should be in convergence with schemes of all related Central Ministries / Line Departments related to 29 subjects listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution. So, statement 1 is correct.
Under GPDP, it envisioned that gram panchayats would develop five yearly and annual plans for the development of villages. GPDP would be prepared by the Gram Panchayats on the basis of participatory planning and convergence of resources and grants. The State Government communicates the allocation of resource envelope to all the local bodies, which provides information to each panchayat about the availability of funds under different schemes. So, statement 2 is correct.
The objectives of GPDP are as follows:
To ensure overall and integrated development of the rural areas governed by Gram Panchayats, which is not only geared towards infrastructure development but also towards social, economic and community development
To enable and engage the community in participatory planning and decision-making processes
To ensure identification and addressing local needs of all communities through participatory planning and convergence of resources
To improve efficiency and efficacy in public service delivery in local areas. So, statement 3 is correct.
Strengthening accountability measures at the Gram Panchayat level.
Which of the following reasons have led to sub-optimal performance of the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) in India?
- Lack of adequate devolution of powers
- Large dependence on government funding
- Excessive control by bureaucracy
- Existence of parallel administrative bodies
- No taxation powers to Gram Panchayats
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
The performance of the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) has not been satisfactory even after the 73rd Amendment Act (1992). The various reasons for this sub-optimal performance are as follows –
Many States have not taken adequate steps to devolve 3Fs (i.e., functions, funds and functionaries) to the PRIs to enable them to discharge their constitutionally stipulated function. So, point 1 is correct.
A review of money received and own source funds shows the overwhelming dependence of Panchayats on government funding. So, point 2 is correct.
In some States, the Gram Panchayats have been placed in a position of subordination. Hence, the Gram Panchayat Sarpanches have to spend extraordinary amount of time visiting Block Offices for funds and/or technical approval. So, point 3 is correct.
Often, Parallel Bodies (PBs) are created for supposedly speedy implementation and greater accountability. However, the PBs usurp the legitimate space of PRIs and demoralize the PRIs by virtue of their superior resource endowments. So, point 4 is correct.
An important power devolved to GP (Gram Panchayat) is the right to levy tax on property, business, markets, fairs and also for services provided, like street lighting or public toilets, etc. Very few Panchayats use their fiscal power to levy and collect taxes. So, point 5 is not corr
Which of the following parts highlights the secular character of the Constitution of India?
- Preamble
- Fundamental Rights
- Directive Principle of State Policy
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
The Constitution of India stands for a Secular State. Hence, it does not uphold any particular religion as the official religion of the Indian State. The following provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State –
The term ‘secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976. The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship. So, point 1 is correct.
Following Fundamental Rights also highlights the secular character of the Constitution -
The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws (Article 14).
The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion (Article 15).
Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment (Article 16).
All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate any religion (Article 25).
Every religious denomination or any of its section shall have the right to manage its religious affairs (Article 26).
No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion of a particular religion (Article 27).
No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by the State (Article 28).
Any section of the citizens shall have the right to conserve its distinct language, script or culture (Article 29).
All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice (Article 30).
So, point 2 is correct.
As per the Directive Principles of State Policy, the State shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code (Article 44). So, point 3 is correct.
With reference to the Preamble of the Constitution, consider the following statements:
- It limits the powers of the Legislatures.
- The term ‘fraternity’ was added to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment.
- It can be amended under Article 368.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3 only
Explanation :
The term ‘Preamble’ refers to the introduction or preface to the Constitution. It contains the summary or essence of the Constitution. It is based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’, drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. The Preamble is a part of the Constitution, is in consonance with the opinion of the founding fathers of the Constitution. However, two things should be noted: 1. The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislature. 2. It is non-justiciable, that is, its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law. So, statement 1 is not correct.
It has been amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), which added three new words–Socialist, Secular and Integrity. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The question as to whether the Preamble can be amended under Article 368 of the Constitution arose for the first time in the historic Kesavananda Bharati case (1973). The court held that the Preamble can be amended, subject to the condition that no amendment is done to the basic features. In other words, the Court held that the basic elements or the fundamental features of the Constitution as contained in the Preamble cannot be altered by an amendment under Article 368. So, statement 3 is correct.
Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of independent India are taken from Government of India Act, 1935?
- Office of Governor
- Emergency provisions
- Federal Scheme
- Independence of judiciary
- Amendment procedure
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Source: 1. Government of India Act 1935:
Features:
Office of Governor. So, point 1 is correct.
Federal Scheme. So, point 2 is correct.
Emergency Provisions. So, point 3 is correct.
Source: 2. United States Constitution:
Features:
Fundamental rights
Independence of judiciary and judicial review. So, point 4 is not correct.
Impeachment of the president
Removal of Supreme Court and high court judges
Post of vice-president
Source: 3. South African Constitution:
Features
Procedure for amendment of the Constitution. So, point 5 is not correct.
Election of members of Rajya Sabha.
Consider the following statements with reference to panchayat raj institutions:
- The question regarding the disqualification of a member of panchayat is decided by the Governor of the State after consultation with the State Election Commission.
- The chairperson of a panchayat at the village level shall be elected in such a manner as the state legislature determines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Under Article 243F of the Constitution, if a question arises as to whether a member of a Panchayat has become subject to any disqualification, the question shall be referred to such authority as the State legislature may provide by law. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Under Article 243C of the Constitution, the chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels shall be elected indirectly - by and from amongst the elected members thereof. However, the chairperson of a panchayat at the village level shall be elected in such a manner as the State legislature determines. So, statement 2 is correct.
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act does not apply to which of the following group of states?
Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram
Explanation :
The 73rd Constitutional amendment Act does not apply to the states of Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram and certain other areas. These areas include, (a) the scheduled areas and the tribal areas in the states; (b) the hill areas of Manipur for which district councils exist; and (c) Darjeeling district of West Bengal for which Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council exists.
Which of the following functional items are placed within the purview of Panchayats under the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution?
- Minor Forest produce
- Regulation of slaughterhouses and tanneries
- Khadi, village and cottage industries
- Public distribution system
- Slum improvement and upgradation
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
The Eleventh Schedule contains the 29 functional items placed within the purview of panchayats. Some of them are:
Agriculture, including agricultural extension
Animal husbandry, dairying and poultry
Social forestry and farm forestry
Minor forest produce
Khadi, village and cottage industries
Rural housing
Drinking water
Rural electrification, including distribution of electricity
Poverty alleviation programme
Education, including primary and secondary schools
Public distribution system
Women and child development
Health and sanitation
Regulation of slaughterhouses and tanneries and Slum improvement and up-gradation are kept within the purview of municipalities under the Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution.
Consider the following statements with reference to the 73rd Amendment Act of 1992:
- Not less than half of the total number of offices of chairpersons in the panchayats at each level must be reserved for women.
- It provides for the reservation of seats for backward classes in the proportion of their population in every panchayat.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
73rd Amendment Act of 1992 provides for the reservation of seats for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in every panchayat (i.e., at all the three levels) in the proportion of their population to the total population in the panchayat area. Further, the state legislature shall provide for the reservation of offices of chairperson in the panchayat at the village or any other level for the SCs and STs.
The act provides for the reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for women (including the number of seats reserved for women belonging to the SCs and STs). Further, not less than one-third of the total number of offices of chairpersons in the panchayats at each level shall be reserved for women. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The act also authorizes the legislature of a state to make any provision for reservation of seats in any panchayat or offices of chairperson in the panchayat at any level in favour of backward classes. So, statement 2 is not correct.
With reference to provisions of Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act 1996, consider the following statements:
- Gram Sabha is responsible for the identification of beneficiaries for poverty alleviation programmes.
- Gram Panchayat does the actual planning and implementation of developmental projects in the Scheduled Areas.
- The reservation for the Scheduled Tribes in Panchayats shall not be more than one-third of the total number of seats.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The provisions of Part IX of the constitution relating to the Panchayats are not applicable to the Fifth Schedule areas. However, the Parliament may extend these provisions to such areas, subject to such exceptions and modifications as it may specify. Under this provision, the Parliament has enacted the “Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act”, 1996, popularly known as the PESA Act or the Extension Act.
According to the provisions, every Gram Sabha shall (i) approve of the plans, programmes and projects for social and economic development before they are taken up for implementation by the Panchayat at the village level; and (ii) be responsible for the identification of beneficiaries under the poverty alleviation and other programmes. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the appropriate level shall be consulted before making the acquisition of land in the Scheduled Areas for development projects and before resettling or rehabilitating persons affected by such projects in the Scheduled Areas. However, the actual planning and implementation of the projects in the Scheduled Areas shall be coordinated at the state level. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The reservation of seats in the Scheduled Areas in every Panchayat shall be in proportion to the population of the communities for whom reservation is sought to be given under Part IX of the Constitution. However, the reservation for the Scheduled Tribes shall not be less than one-half of the total number of seats. Further, all seats of Chairpersons of Panchayats at all levels shall be reserved for the Scheduled Tribes. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following:
- It is located in Maharashtra.
- It is the northernmost tiger habitat in western ghats.
- The history of the area dates back to the Maratha Empire, and many forts built or captured by the first Maratha Emperor Shivaji Bhonsle can be found here.
The above statements correctly describe which one of the following protected areas?
Sahyadri Tiger Reserve
Explanation :
In a boost for wildlife enthusiasts and tourists, a new tiger has been spotted in the renowned Sahyadri Tiger Reserve in Maharashtra.
About Sahyadri Tiger Reserve:
Location: It is located in the Sahyadri Ranges of the Western Ghats in Maharashtra.
It is the northernmost tiger habitat in western ghats, with an area of almost 741.22 sq. km.
The reserve spreads over Koyna Wildlife Sanctuary, forming the northern portion, and Chandoli National Park, forming the southern part of the reserve. STR was created by merging the areas of these two forests in 2007.
The central portion of Sahyadri Tiger Reserve is occupied by the “Shivsagar” reservoir ofthe Koyana River and the “Vasant Sagar” reservoir of the Warana River.
History:
The history of the area dates back to the Maratha Empire, and many fortsbuiltor captured by the first MarathaEmperor Shivaji Bhonsle can be found here.
The legendary temple from which Shivaji received the Bhavani Sword from divine providence is also said to be among the many ruins in this region.
Habitat:
The total area of STR is undulating, with steep escarpments along the western boundary.
The most distinct feature is the presence of numerous barren rocky and lateritic plateaus, locally called “Sadas”, with less perennial vegetation and overhanging cliffs on the edges, along with numerous fallen boulders with dense thorny bushes.
STR is the only place where climax and near-climax vegetation are plentiful and prospects of adverse anthropogenic influence in the future are minimal.
Flora:
The forest cover here is that of moist evergreen, semi-evergreen, moist, and dry deciduous vegetation.
There are many medicinal and fruit-bearing trees along with the commercial hardwood trees in the reserve.
The most common floral species found here are Anjani (Memecylon umbellatum), Jambhul (Syzygium cumini),and Pisa (Actinodaphaone Angustifolia).
Fauna:
The main carnivores are the tiger, leopard, and some lesser cats along with the wolf, jackal, and wild dog.
The large herbivores are several deer species like Barking Deer, Sambar, and other large and small animals like Indian Bison, Sloth Bear, Mouse Deer, Giant Indian Squirrel, and Macaque.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.freepressjournal.in/pune/good-news-new-male-tiger-spotted-in-sahyadri-tiger-reserve
With reference to the Voyager 2 Spacecraft, consider the following statements:
- It was launched to study the outer planets of the solar system and then continue on an interstellar mission.
- It is the only spacecraft to have ever visited Uranus and Neptune.
- It is currently the most distant human-made object from Earth.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Nearly four decades after Nasa’s Voyager 2 spacecraft made its historic flyby of Uranus, scientists have uncovered new revelations about the ice giant’s peculiar magnetic field.
About Voyager 2 Spacecraft:
It is an unmanned space probe launched by NASA on August 20, 1977, just a few weeks before its sister craft,Voyager 1.
Primary mission: Its mission was to study the outer planets of our solar system, including Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune and their moons, and then continue on an interstellar mission.
It is the only spacecraft to have ever visited Uranus and Neptune.
It carries a Golden Record, a phonograph record containing sounds and images from Earth, intended to be a message to any potential extraterrestrial civilizations it might encounter in the future.
Firsts:
It is the only spacecraft to study all four of the solar system’s giant planets at close range.
It discovered a 14th moon of Jupiter.
It was the first human-made object to fly past Uranus.
At Uranus, Voyager 2 discovered 10 new moons and two new rings.
It was the first human-made object to fly by Neptune.
At Neptune, Voyager 2 discovered five moons, four rings, and a “Great Dark Spot.”
After completing its primary mission, Voyager 2 continued on its journey into interstellar space, where it is still sending back data on the interstellar medium and the heliosphere.
It is the second spacecraft to enter interstellar space. On Dec. 10, 2018, the spacecraft joined its twin—Voyager 1—as the only human-made objects to enter the space between the stars.
It is currently the second most distant human-made object from Earth, after Voyager 1.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/voyager-2-visited-uranus-in-1986-something-more-happened-when-it-arrived-2632223-2024-11-12
Consider the following statements regarding the HAWK Missile, recently seen in the news:
- It is an all-weather low-to medium-altitude ground-to-air missile system.
- It was developed and designed by the Israeli Defence Company, Rafael Advanced Defense Systems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
It is up to the United States to decide what to do with Taiwan’s decommissioned HAWK anti-aircraft missiles, the island’s Defence Minister said recently.
About HAWK Missile:
The HAWK (Homing All the Way Killer) MIM-23 is an all-weather low-to medium-altitude ground-to-air missile system.
It was developed and designed by the American Defence Company, Raytheon.
It was initially designed to destroy aircraft and was later adapted to destroy other missiles in flight.
The missile entered service in 1960, and a program of extensive upgrades has kept it from becoming obsolete.
It was superseded by the MIM-104 Patriot in United States Army service by 1994.
It was finally phased out of US service in 2002, with the last users, the US Marine Corps, replacing it with the man-portable IR-guided visual range FIM-92 Stinger.
The HAWK missile system has been widely exported and is still used by various countries globally, including NATO allies and countries in Asia and the Middle East.
It employs a Semi-Active-Radar-Homing (SARH) guidance system.
The Hawk missile is transported and launched from the M192 towed triple-missile launcher and is propelled by a dual-thrust motor, with a boost phase and a sustain phase.
The HAWK can engage multiple targets simultaneously and is effective in a variety of weather conditions.
However, it is generally considered outdated compared to more modern systems like the Patriot missile defense system.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/world-news/us-news/up-to-us-to-decide-what-to-do-with-decommissioned-hawk-missiles-taiwan-says-101731464321680.html
Consider the following:
- Indian currency donated by a foreign source
- Foreign securities donated by a foreign source
- Interest accrued on foreign contributions
How many of the above qualify as a ‘foreign contribution’ under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 2010?
All three
Explanation :
The Union Ministry of Home Affairs has, for the first time, explicitly listed the reasons for denying the clearance needed under the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act to receive funds from abroad.
About Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act:
It is a law enacted by Parliament to regulate foreign contributions (especially monetary donations) provided by certain individuals or associations to NGOs and others within India.
The FCRA was originally enacted in 1976, and significantly revised in 2010.
The Act falls under the purview of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
‘Foreign Contribution’ means the donation, delivery, or transfer made by any foreign source of any:
Any article (not being an article given to a person as a gift for his/her personal use, the market value of which is not more than one lakh rupees);
Any currency, whether Indian or foreign.
Any security, including foreign security.
This will also cover:
Contribution received from any person who has in turn received it from a foreign source.
Interest accrued on foreign contributions deposited in the bank
It creates registration requirements and spending restrictions on Indian nonprofit organizations receiving foreign donations.
The Act aims to prevent foreign organisations from influencing electoral politics, social, political, economic, or religious discussions in India for wrong purposes and activities detrimental to the public interest.
Contributions made by a citizen of India living in another country (e.g., a Non-Resident Indian (NRI) from his/her personal savings through the normal banking channels, will not be treated as foreign contributions.
Who can Receive Foreign Contributions? Any person can receive a foreign contribution provided:
The person has a definite cultural, economic, educational, religious, or social programme;
The person must have obtained FCRA registration/prior permission from the Central Government and
Person includes
an individual;
a Hindu Undivided Family;
an association;
a company registered under Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013;
The foreign contribution received has to be utilised only for the purpose for which it has been received, and not more than 20% of the foreign contribution received in a financial year can be utilised to defray administrative expenses.
The FCRA requires every person or NGO seeking to receive foreign donations to open a bank account for the receipt of foreign funds in the State Bank of India, Delhi.
Registration under FCRA: The FCRA is applicable to all associations, groups and NGOs which intend to receive foreign donations.
It is mandatory for all such NGOs to register themselves under the FCRA.
The applicant should not be fictitious or benami and should not have been prosecuted or convicted for indulging in activities aimed at conversion through inducement or force, either directly or indirectly, from one religious faith to another.
The registration is initially valid for five years, and it can be renewed subsequently if they comply with all norms.
Registered associations can receive foreign contributions for social, educational, religious, economic, and cultural purposes.
Registration can be cancelled if an inquiry finds a false statement in the application.
Once the registration of an NGO is cancelled, it is not eligible for re-registration for three years.
The ministry also has the power to suspend an NGO’s registration for 180 days pending inquiry, and can freeze its funds.
All orders of the government can be challenged in the High Court.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/no-fcra-for-ngos-linked-to-conversions-radical-groups-govt-101731350776141.html
Consider the following statements regarding Comb Jellies:
- They are transparent, gelatinous invertebrates that drift through the waters.
- They have stinging tentacles and are highly poisonous.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Comb jellies, also known as ctenophore Mnemiopsis leidyi, can defy age and revert to younger versions of themselves, according to a study published recently.
About Comb Jellies:
They are transparent, gelatinous invertebrates that drift through the waters of our global ocean.
They are one of the oldest multicellular phyla in the animal kingdom, probably existing already for more than 500 million years.
There are between 100 and 150 known species of comb jellies, the best known of which are found close to shore.
Description:
They are colorful, simple invertebrates that are part of the family Ctenophora.
Each species varies in length, but the average size of a comb jelly is about four inches long.
Comb jellies get their name from their eight rows of plates made of fused cilia(little hairs) that they use to move through the water, which look like combs.
They are the largest animals known to use cilia for locomotion.
They have two large, trailing tentacles that branch out to create the appearance of a net-like structure of many tentacles.
These organs serve as sticky fishing lines, which they use to trap and move prey to their bodies.
These animals have two major cell layers, the external epidermis and internal gastrodermis; in between these cell layers is the mesoderm that is what gives the animals their gelatinous appearance.
Many species are bioluminescent, meaning they can use proteins in their bodies to create an ethereal blue or green glow in response to stimuli like touch.
Comb jellies are carnivorous and opportunistic, feeding on whatever passes them by.
Unlike their close relatives, the jellyfish, comb jellies do not have stinging tentacles and are harmless to humans.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/marine-creatures-comb-jelly-age-reverse-new-study-9664246/
Consider the following statements regarding the Bio-derived foam:
- It is made from bio-based epoxy resins and hardeners derived from tea leaves.
- It disintegrates safely in landfills without contaminating groundwater.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers from the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) have developed biodegradable foam that could transform the packaging industry, while addressing critical environmental concerns.
Bio-derived foam offers a sustainable alternative to plastic materials used in traditional Fast-Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG) packaging.
The foam is made from bio-based epoxy resins, made from non-edible oils approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and hardeners derived from tea leaves.
It offers industries an environmentally responsible alternative to conventional expanded polystyrene (EPS) and polyurethane foam.
The new foam’s unique chemical structure features dynamic covalent bonds that can break and reform under external stimuli, allowing the foams to be mechanically reprocessed or dissolved in eco-friendly solvents without losing strength.
Unlike conventional packaging materials that persist in landfills for centuries, these bio-foams can disintegrate within three hours when exposed to eco-friendly solvents at 80°C.
It disintegrates safely in landfills without contaminating groundwater, offering a sustainable alternative to traditional plastic foams.
Significance: The Indian foam market is currently valued at $7.9 billion, and is expected to reach $11.1 billion by 2032, according to an analysis report by ‘Research and Markets’.
With less than 1% of the 2.3 million tonnes of plastic foam produced annually being recycled, this innovation addresses a pressing environmental challenge.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/karnataka/bengaluru/iisc-researchers-develop-recyclable-eco-friendly-bio-derived-foam-for-fmcg-packaging-3270469
Consider the following statements regarding the Long Range Land Attack Cruise Missile:
- It can be launched from both mobile ground-based systems and frontline ships by using a universal vertical launch module.
- It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted the maiden flight test of its Long Range Land Attack Cruise Missile (LRLACM).
It is designed to be launched from both mobile ground-based systems and frontline ships, using a universal vertical launch module, further enhancing its operational flexibility.
It is also able to execute complex manoeuvres while flying at different speeds and altitudes, showcasing the missile’s versatility and precision.
The LRLACM is equipped with state-of-the-art avionics and software that enhances its performance and reliability.
These missiles are typically subsonic and can follow terrain-hugging flight paths, making them harder to detect and intercept, thus allowing for a strategic advantage in penetrating enemy defenses.
Developed by: It is developed by DRDO’s Aeronautical Development establishment in Bengaluru, the LRLACM is the result of collaboration between various DRDO laboratories and Indian industries.
Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) in Hyderabad and Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) in Bengaluru served as the Development-Cum-Production Partners.
The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) had previously approved LRLACM as a Mission Mode Project, sanctioned under the Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) procedure.
Significance: The missile’s successful test is seen as a key milestone in advancing India’s defence capabilities, particularly in the area of long-range precision strikes.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/drdos-long-range-land-attack-cruise-missile-passes-maiden-flight-test/articleshow/115221794.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding Gotti Koya tribes:
- They are mainly concentrated in the Northeastern states of India.
- They practice Podu form of shifting cultivation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes has asked the Union Home Ministry and Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha to submit a detailed report on the status of the Gotti Koya tribals.
They are one of the few multi-racial and multi-lingual tribal communities in India.
The Koya population is concentrated in Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Odisha.
Language: They speak Koya, which is a Dravidian language. It is closely related to Gondi and has been strongly influenced by Telugu.
Occupation:
They practice Podu form of shifting cultivation, as practiced by various tribal groups in forest areas has for long been an economic survival versus environmental sustenance issue.
They earn a living through animal husbandry and minor forest produce.
Festival: The most important fair celebrated by Koyas is the Sammakka Saralamma Jatra once in two years on full moon day of the Magha Masam (January or February) at Medaram village in Mulug taluk of Warangal district.
They held ST status in Chattisgarh but they were not granted ST status in their migrated states such as Telangana.
Society and Culture
All Koya belong to one of five sub-divisions called gotrams. Every Koya is born into a clan, and he cannot leave it.
The Koyas have a patrilineal and patrilocal family. The family is called “Kutum”. The nuclear family is the predominant type.
Monogamy is prevalent among the Koya
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/maoist-violence-st-panel-urges-centre-states-to-submit-detailed-report-on-status-of-gotti-koya-tribals/article68851897.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Inter-State Council:
- It is established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India.
- Its members are nominated by the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Union government reconstituted the Standing Committee of the Inter-State Council (ISC) and named the Home Minister as its chairman.
It is established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India to facilitate coordination and cooperation between the central government and the state governments.
The formation of a permanent Inter-State council was supported by the Sarkaria Commission.
The Inter-State council can be set up by the President If at any time it appears to the President that the establishment of such a council would be in the public interest. In 1990, the first such body was established by the presidential order.
The Council consists of;
Chairman : Prime Minister
Members: Chief Ministers of all States
Chief Ministers of Union Territories having a Legislative Assembly and Administrators of UTs not having a Legislative Assembly.
Six Ministers of Cabinet rank in the Union Council of Ministers to be nominated by the Prime Minister.
The Council is charged with the duty of:
Inquiring into and advising upon disputes which may have arisen between States.
Investigating and discussing subjects in which some or all of the States, or the Union and one or more of the States, have a common interest.
Making recommendations upon any such subject and particularly recommendations for the better coordination of policy and action.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Nov/11/centre-reconstitutes-standing-committee-of-inter-state-council-appoints-amit-shah-chairman
With reference to NISAR Satellite, consider the following statements:
- It is jointly developed by ISRO and NASA.
- It consists of both L-band and S-band synthetic aperture radar (SAR) instruments.
- It will be launched in Medium Earth orbit.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
ISRO and NASA are planning to launch a new satellite called NISAR in early 2025 that will help keep track of Earth’s surface on land and ice covered areas.
It is a Low Earth Orbit (LEO) observatory jointly developed by NASA and ISRO.
It will be launched by using ISRO’s Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark II rocket.
It consists of both L-band and S-band synthetic aperture radar (SAR) instruments, which makes it a dual-frequency imaging radar satellite.
NISAR will be the first satellite mission to use two different radar frequencies (L-band and S-band) to measure changes in our planet’s surface.
It is capable of penetrating clouds and can collect data day and night regardless of the weather conditions.
NASA has provided the L-band radar, GPS, a high-capacity solid-state recorder to store data, and a payload data subsystem. ISRO has provided the S-band radar, the GSLV launch system, and spacecraft.
It also consists of a large 39-foot stationary antenna reflector made of a gold-plated wire mesh which will be used to focus “the radar signals emitted and received by the upward-facing feed on the instrument structure.
Objectives:
It will measure Earth’s changing ecosystems, dynamic surfaces, and ice masses, providing information about biomass, natural hazards, sea level rise, and groundwater.
NISAR will observe Earth’s land and ice-covered surfaces globally with 12-day regularity on ascending and descending passes.
The satellite will observe movements from earthquakes, ice sheet movements, landslides and volcanic activity, track changes in forests, wetlands and farmland and even check infrastructure stability.
The NISAR mission will also benefit researchers focused on volcanic activity by helping track surface bulging or sinking caused by magma movement. This data will contribute to understanding volcanic behaviours and determining if such deformations hint at imminent eruptions.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/science-technology/new-nasa-isro-satellite-nisar-to-revolutionise-earth-monitoring-disaster-preparedness
The Sukhna Lake is located in which one of the following places?
Chandigarh
Explanation :
The Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, has finally issued a notification demarcating an area from 1 km to 2.035 km around the Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary as an eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) on the Haryana side.
About Sukhna Lake:
It is an artificial lake located in Chandigarh, India.
It lies at the foothills (Shivalik hills) of the Himalayas.
It was created in 1958 by damming the Sukhna Choe, a seasonal stream coming down from the Shivalik Hills.
It spans an area of approximately 3 sq.km. The lake is 1.52 km long and 1.49 km wide.
It is declared a National Wetland by the Government of India.
The catchment area of the lake has rugged terrain and steep slopes, and the soils are predominantly alluvial sandy embedded with layers of clay and are highly susceptible to soil erosion by water run-off action.
The water flowing into the lake is heavily loaded with silt.
Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary:
Adjacent to Sukhna Lake is the Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary. Spread over an area of about 26 square kilometers, the sanctuary is home to various species of birds, mammals, and reptiles.
It is a sanctuary for many exotic migratory birds like the Siberian duck, Storks, and Cranes, during the winter months.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.tribuneindia.com/news/chandigarh/up-to-2-km-panchkula-area-around-sukhna-lake-declared-eco-sensitive-zone/
Which one of the following is the best description of ‘Crinum andhricum’, that was in the news recently?
It is a new species of flowering plant
Explanation :
Botanists recently discovered a new species of flowering plant ‘Crinum andhricum’ in the Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh.
About Crinum andhricum:
It is a new species of flowering plant.
It was recorded from the Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh.
The species was named after Andhra Pradesh in recognition of the State where it was first found.
It is part of the Amaryllidaceae family.
It is the latest addition to India’s Crinum species, bringing the total to 16, with several being endemic to India.
Features:
It has distinct features, including wider, oblanceolate perianth lobes (the outer part of the flower) and a greater number of flowers per cluster, producing between 12 and 38 flowers in each.
The plant’s pedicelled flowers (with a stalk-like structure) make it unique among species in the region.
The flowers of Crinum andhricum are waxy white, blooming between April and June.
Standing on a tall stem that reaches up to 100 cm, the plant is well-suited to dry, rocky crevices in the Eastern Ghats.
The leaves are large, elliptic, and have smooth, entire margins.
Based on its current limited distribution and environmental threats, the researchers have given Crinum andhricum a preliminary status of ‘Data Deficient’ under the IUCN guidelines.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/andhra-pradesh/2024/Nov/13/new-species-of-flower-p
Consider the following statements regarding Walking Pneumonia, recently seen in the news:
- It is a type of atypical pneumonia most commonly caused by a bacterium.
- Unlike typical pneumonia, walking pneumonia is not contagious.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
In recent weeks, doctors have reported cases of “walking pneumonia,” a mild yet persistent lung infection that can mimic symptoms of a common cold.
About Walking Pneumonia:
It is a type of atypical pneumonia most commonly caused by the bacteria Mycoplasma pneumoniae, but other bacteria or viruses can also cause it.
It often presents symptoms similar to those of a common cold or mild respiratory infection, including cough, sore throat, low-grade fever, and fatigue.
While it may not cause severe illness, it can still be disruptive, with symptoms lingering for weeks if left untreated.
Unlike typical pneumonia, which can lead to severe lung inflammation and difficulty breathing, walking pneumonia is often less intense, allowing people to carry on with their daily activities, which is how it earned its name in the 1930s.
It is also called ‘silent’ pneumonia because sometimes people don’t experience symptoms despite X-rays showing fluid-filled air sacs in the lungs.
Transmission: It is contagious. It’s spread through airborne droplets from close contact, such as coughing, sneezing, or speaking.
Treatment: It is often manageable with rest, fluids, and, in some cases, antibiotics.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/health/story/what-is-walking-pneumonia-the-lung-disease-often-mistaken-for-a-common-cold-2632657-2024-11-13
Consider the following statements regarding Wildlife Institute of India (WII):
- It is an autonomous institution established under the Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change, Government of India.
- It is located in Dehradun, Uttarakhand.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Experts from the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) have claimed that the controversial ‘Project Cheetah’ in Kuno National Park, Madhya Pradesh, has proven to be a successful endeavour by the Centre.
About Wildlife Institute of India (WII):
It is an autonomous institution established in 1982 under the Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change, Government of India, for nurturing the growth of wildlife science in the country.
Location:
It is located in Dehradun, Uttarakhand.
It shares the boundaries with the famous Rajaji National Park.
It is an internationally acclaimed institution, which offers training programs, academic courses,and advisory in wildlife research and management.
It is actively engaged in research across the breadth of the country on biodiversity related issues.
Objectives:
Build up scientific knowledge on wildlife resources.
Train personnel at various levels for conservation and management of wildlife.
Carry out research relevant to management including the development of techniques appropriate to Indian conditions.
Provide information and advice on specific wildlife management problems.
Collaborate with international organizations on wildlife research, management, and training.
Develop as a regional centre of international importance on wildlife and natural resource conservation.
The institute carries out research work in the fields of study, which include Biodiversity, policy related to wildlife, Endangered Species, Wildlife management, forensic Wildlife research work, Eco-development, Spatial Modelling, and studies related to changing climatic conditions.
The board is chaired by the Union Minister and has representatives from the centre and state governments as well as institutions and academia.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.thestatesman.com/india/wii-experts-hail-success-of-project-cheetah-centre-plans-expansion-to-gandhi-sagar-wildlife-sanctuary-1503363999.html#google_vignette
The State of the Climate 2024 report is released by which one of the following organizations?
World Meteorological Organisation (WMO)
Explanation :
State of the Climate 2024 Report once again issues a Red Alert at the sheer pace of climate change in a single generation, turbo-charged by ever-increasing greenhouse gas levels in the atmosphere.
About State of the Climate 2024 Report:
It was released by the World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) during the United National Climate Conference (COP29) in Baku.
Highlights:
The year 2024 is on track to be the warmest year on record after an extended streak of exceptionally high monthly global mean temperatures.
From January to September of this year, the global average temperature was 1.54 degrees above the pre-industrial level, with climate warming boosted by the El Niño weather pattern.
It said 2015-2024 would be the warmest ten years on record, adding that ocean warming rates show a particularly strong increase in the past two decades and the planet’s seas will continue to heat up irreversibly.
2023 already showed the highest observed levels of greenhouse gas emissions on record, and real-time data indicates they continued to rise in 2024.
The volume of heat-trapping carbon dioxide increased by 51% between 1750 and 2023.
This is clearly visible in the world’s oceans, which absorb about 90% of the excess heat from global warming. They reached record heat in 2023 already, and preliminary data for 2024 shows a continuation of that trend.
Simultaneously, glaciers around the world are losing ice at an accelerating rate.In 2023 alone, glaciers receded more quickly than at any other point since records began 70 years ago—losing the equivalent of five times the volume of water held in the Dead Sea.
The loss is attributed to extreme melting in North America and Europe.
Rapid glacial melt contributes to rising sea levels. From 2014-2023, global mean sea level rose at a rate of 4.77 mm per year, more than double the rate between 1993 and 2002.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://wmo.int/publication-series/state-of-climate-2024-update-cop29
World Intellectual Property Indicators report is published by:
World Intellectual Property Organization
Explanation :
The World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) has published the World Intellectual Property Indicators (WIPI) 2024, underscoring global trends in intellectual property (IP) filings.
The report reveals significant growth in patent, trademark, and industrial design applications across top economies.
Highlights of the report
India has secured a spot in the global top 10 for all three major intellectual property (IP) rights—patents, trademarks, and industrial designs.
India recorded the fastest growth in patent (+15.7%) applications in 2023 among the top 20 origins, marking the fifth consecutive year of double-digit growth.
India ranks sixth globally for patents with 64,480 applications, with resident filings accounting for over half of all submissions (55.2%)—a first for the country.
The report indicates a steady rise (36.4%) in India’s industrial design applications, which aligns with increasing emphasis on product design, manufacturing, and creative industries within India.
The top three sectors—Textiles and Accessories, Tools and Machines, and Health and Cosmetics—made up almost half of all design filings,
Between 2018 and 2023, patent and industrial design applications more than doubled.
India’s patent-to-GDP ratio also saw significant growth, rising from 144 to 381 in the past decade, indicating that IP activity is scaling alongside economic expansion.
India ranked fourth globally in trademark filings, with a 6.1% increase in 2023. Nearly 90% of these filings were by residents, with key sectors including Health (21.9%), Agriculture (15.3%), and Clothing (12.8%) leading the way.
India’s trademark office holds the second-largest number of active registrations worldwide, with over 3.2 million trademarks in force, reflecting the country’s strong position in global brand protection.
Key findings show a record of 3.55 million patent applications filed worldwide in 2023, up 2.7% from 2022 with notable contributions from leading economies in Asia. This increase was largely driven by residents in China, the United States, Japan, South Korea, and India.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2072706
Consider the following statements regarding the Booker Prize:
- It is the world’s leading literary award given for a single work of fiction.
- It is awarded to novel originally written in English and published in the UK and Ireland in the year of the prize.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
British writer Samantha Harvey won the Booker Prize 2024 for fiction with Orbital, a short, wonder-filled novel set aboard the International Space Station.
It is the world’s leading literary award for a single work of fiction.
Founded in the UK in 1969, the Booker Prize initially rewarded Commonwealth writers and now spans the globe: it is open to anyone regardless of origin.
It aims to promote the finest in fiction by rewarding the best novel of the year written in English.
Eligibility:
The Booker Prize awards any novel originally written in English and published in the UK and Ireland in the year of the prize, regardless of the nationality of their author.
The novel must be an original work in English (not a translation)
It must be published by a registered UK or Irish imprint; self-published novels are not eligible.
The winner receives £50,000 and each of the shortlisted authors will be given £2,500.
The Booker Prize Foundation: It is a registered charity established in 2002. Since then it has been responsible for the award of the Man Booker Prize for Fiction, and for the Man Booker International Prize since its inauguration in 2005.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/british-writer-samantha-harveys-space-station-novel-orbital-wins-the-booker-prize-for-fiction/article68861481.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Cardiovascular Kidney Metabolic (CKM) Syndrome:
- It is a health disorder attributable to connections among obesity, diabetes, and chronic kidney disease.
- It is caused by the Extra adipose tissue (body fat) or body fat in human body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
An unhealthy lifestyle and the influence of globalisation are silently shaping a major global health issue called Cardiovascular Kidney Metabolic (CKM) syndrome.
It is defined as a health disorder attributable to connections among obesity, diabetes, chronic kidney disease (CKD), and cardiovascular disease (CVD), including heart failure, atrial fibrillation, coronary heart disease, stroke, and peripheral artery disease.
Metabolic means getting energy from food. Obesity and Type 2 diabetes are metabolic conditions. Each of the four conditions in CKM syndrome can lead to or worsen one another.
Cause:
Extra adipose tissue (body fat) or body fat that’s abnormal causes CKM syndrome.
This type of tissue releases substances that inflame and damage tissues in your heart, kidneys and arteries.
Inflammation makes insulin less effective. It also encourages plaque and kidney damage to develop.
Symptoms: Chest pain, Shortness of breath, Syncope (passing out), Swelling in your legs, feet, hands or ankles etc.
Treatment: At an early stage, you may only need to make some lifestyle changes, like getting more physical activity. If you’re at a middle stage, you may need to take medicines to manage blood pressure, cholesterol and blood sugar.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/the-ckm-syndrome-as-the-price-of-modernity/article68864463.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Exercise ‘Sea Vigil-24:
- It aims to raise awareness amongst coastal communities about maritime security.
- It is a joint maritime exercise between QUAD countries in the Indian Ocean every year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Indian Navy is set to conduct the fourth edition of the ‘Pan-India’ Coastal Defence Exercise ‘Sea Vigil-24’ on 20 & 21 Nov 24.
It is the National Level Coastal Defence Exercise was conceptualised in 2018 to validate various measures that have been instituted towards enhancing maritime security since ‘26/11’.
The concept of ‘Sea Vigil’ is to activate the Coastal Security apparatus across India and assess the overarching Coastal Defence mechanism.
This fourth edition of Ex Sea Vigil involves 06 Ministries and 21 Organisations/ agencies.
The exercise will focus on strengthening the security of coastal assets like ports, oil rigs, Single Point Moorings, Cable Landing Points and critical coastal infrastructure including the coastal population.
This year participation by other Services (Indian Army and Air Force) and planned deployment of a large number of ships and aircraft have enhanced the tempo of the exercise.
This comprehensive exercise will engage complete coastal security infrastructure and all maritime stakeholders, including the fishing community and coastal populace, simultaneously.
One of the aims of the exercise is to raise awareness amongst coastal communities about maritime security, and thus, involvement of fishing communities, coastal populace, and students from NCC and Bharat Scouts and Guides will add to the fervour of the endeavour.
Exercise Sea Vigil coordinated by the Indian Navy stands out as a national level initiative that provides a holistic appraisal of India’s maritime defence and security capabilities.
It is serving as a precursor to the Theatre Level Readiness Operational Exercise (TROPEX), conducted biennially by the Indian Navy.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2073000
With reference to Amorphophallus Titanum, consider the following statements:
- It is a flower which blooms once in a decade.
- It mimics the stench of rotting flesh to attract its pollinators.
- It is endemic to the rainforests of Western Ghats of India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
People in Geelong city have beelined to witness an unusual event – the blooming of the Amorphophallus Titanum (called Titan Arum in short).
Amorphophallus Titanum (called Titan Arum in short) blooms once in a decade and is one of the largest in the world — growing over 10 ft in height.
It is also called as Corpse Flower.
It was first described by Italian botanist Odoardo Beccari in 1878.
Features
It blooms approximately once every decade, with each flowering lasting merely 24 to 48 hours.
It mimics the stench of rotting flesh to attract its pollinators — carnivorous bees and flies that feed on corpses.
The dark, red interior of the spathe that is exposed when it is fully open looks like the surface of a piece of uncooked meat, and the spadix in the centre even warms up to provide the perfect simulation of a warm, abandoned body.
It looks peculiar, with a tall, crooked, pale yellowish phallic structure — the ‘spadix’ — rising from the centre of what looks like an upturned meat skirt — its dark red, thick, waxy ‘spathe’, which is the spiral, petal-like structure that holds within it the inflorescence.
Habitat: It blossoms on limestone hills in the rainforests of western Sumatra, Indonesia, where it is called bunga bangkai (bunga means flower and bangkai means corpse).
Conservation status
IUCN: Endangered
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/giant-flower-that-smells-of-dead-bodies-blooms-in-australia-what-we-know-about-the-rare-species
The Solomon Islands are located in which one of the following oceans?
Pacific Ocean
Explanation :
A team of researchers recently discovered the world’s largest coral colony in the Solomon Islands.
About Solomon Islands:
The Solomon Islands are two parallel chains of volcanic islands and small coral atolls in the south-western Pacific Ocean.
It consists of nearly 1,000 islands (6 large main islands and over 900 smaller islands), of which 147 are inhabited.
Thenearest neighbours are Vanuatu to the southeast and Papua New Guinea to the west.
The archipelago covers an area of 461,000 sq.km., of which 28,446 sq.km. is landmass.
The country is mainly mountainous and covered in forests, although it has some extensive plains.
Once a Britishprotectorate, the Solomon Islands achieved independence as arepublic in 1978.
Capital: The capital, Honiara, is located on Guadalcanal, the largest island.
Ethnic groups: Melanesian 93%, Polynesian 4%, Micronesian 1.5%, other 1.5%.
Languages: English (official); about 120 vernaculars, including Solomon Islands pidgin.
Government:
It is a parliamentary democracy within the Commonwealth, with a unicameral Parliament and a ministerial system of government.
The British monarch is represented by a governor general, chosen by the Parliament for a 5-year term.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/science/scientists-discover-the-largest-coral-colony-on-earth-in-the-solomon-islands-key-insights-on-its-size-and-age/articleshow/115306320.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Amber, recently seen in the news:
1.It is primarily made of petrified wood.
- It is typically found in shades of blue and green.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Scientists recently discovered amber for the first time in Antarctica, which adds to growing evidence that temperate rainforests existed on every continent during the mid-Cretaceous period.
About Amber:
It is fossil tree resin that has achieved a stable state through loss of volatile constituents and chemical change after burial in the ground.
Amber has been found throughout the world, but the largest and most significant deposits occur along the shores of the Baltic Sea in sands 40 to 60 million years old.
Amber occurs as irregular nodules, rods, or droplike shapes in all shades of yellow with nuances of orange, brown, and, rarely, red.
Milky-white opaque varieties are called bone amber.
The turbidity of some amber is caused by inclusions of many minute air bubbles.
Many hundredsofspecies of fossil insects and plants are found as inclusions.
Deeply coloured translucent to transparent amber is prized as gem material.
Ornamental carved objects, beads, rosaries, cigarette holders, and pipe mouthpieces are made from amber.
Amberoid, or “pressed amber,” is produced by fusing together small pieces of amber under pressure. Parallel bands, or flow structure, in amberoid help to distinguish it from natural amber.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://interestingengineering.com/science/90-million-year-old-amber-discovered-in-antarctica
Consider the following statements regarding the Sumi Naga Tribe:
- They mostly inhabit the central and southern regions of Manipur.
- They are the most widespread tribe amongst the Nagas in terms of settlement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Ahuna, a post-harvest festival of the Sumi Naga tribe, was recently celebrated with a spirit of oneness.
About Sumi Naga Tribe:
The Sumi, or Sema Naga, is one of the major Naga tribes of Nagaland.
Sumi Nagas mostly inhabit the central and southern regions of Nagaland.
Sumis are the most widespread tribe amongst the Nagas in terms of settlement.
Village settlement is one of the important features of the Sumitribe.
As compared to the other Naga tribes, Sumis practiced the establishment of villages more than any others, and this practice is found in recent years as well.
The Sumis practiced headhunting like other Naga tribes before the arrival of the Christian missionaries and the subsequent conversion of the tribe’s people to Christianity.
Sumi Language is a Tibeto-Burman language.
The two major festivals of Sumi Nagas are Tuluni and Ahuna.
Ahuna is a traditional post-harvest festival of the Sumis. It signifies the celebration of the season’s harvest in thanksgiving, while invoking the spirits for good fortune in the New Year.
Tuluni festival is celebrated to welcome the arrival of the new crop/fruit from the field. Prayers are offered to thank God for the abundant yield in the preceding year.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/guwahati/sumi-tribe-unites-in-colorful-celebration-of-ahuna-festival/articleshow/115299504.cms
World Diabetes Day commemorates the birthday of which scientist?
Sir Frederick Banting
Explanation :
World Diabetes Day was recently observed to raise awareness about diabetes, its prevention, and management.
About World Diabetes Day:
It is celebrated globally on November 14 every year.
This date commemorates the birthday of Sir Frederick Banting, who, along with Charles Best, co-discovered insulin in 1922, a medical breakthrough that has since transformed the lives of millions living with diabetes.
The theme for World Diabetes Day 2024 is ‘Access to Diabetes Care: Empowering Better Health for All.’
History:
World Diabetes Day was first established in 1991 by the International Diabetes Federation (IDF) and the World Health Organisation (WHO) as a response to the growing concerns around the diabetes epidemic.
In 2006, the United Nations officially recognised it, making it a global observance.
The initiative draws attention to the challenges posed by diabetes, including the need for more accessible healthcare, and raises awareness of lifestyle changes that can mitigate the risks associated with diabetes.
It is marked by various events, including awareness campaigns, educational seminars, health check-ups, and fundraising activities.
Blue Circle Monuments are illuminated worldwide as a symbol of unity in the fight against diabetes, and people are encouraged to wear blue to show their support.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.ndtv.com/health/world-diabetes-day-2024-10-foods-that-are-secretly-increasing-your-risk-of-diabetes-4570952
Consider the following statements regarding Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs):
- A failure of any of these banks can lead to systemic and significant disruption to essential economic services across the country and can cause an economic panic.
- In order to be listed as a D-SIB in India, a bank needs to have assets that exceed 10 percent of the national GDP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
State Bank of India, HDFC Bank and ICICI Bank have again been named as Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs) by the Reserve Bank of India.
About Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs):
D-SIB means that the bank is too big to fail.
According to the RBI, some banks become systemically important due to their size, cross-jurisdictional activities, complexity, and lack of substitutes and interconnection.
A failure of any of these banks can lead to systemic and significant disruption to essential economic services across the country and can cause an economic panic.
As a result of their importance, the government is expected to bail out these banks in times of economic distress to prevent widespread harm.
Additionally, D-SIBs follow a different set of regulations in relation to systemic risks and moral hazard issues.
Due to this perception, these banks enjoy certain advantages in funding.
The system of D-SIBs was adopted in the aftermath of the 2008 financial crisis, where the collapse of many systemically important banks across various regions further fueled the financial downturn.
How are D-SIBs determined?
Since 2015, the RBI has been releasing the list of all D-SIBs.
They are classified into five buckets, according to their importance to the national economy.
In order to be listed as a D-SIB, a bank needs to have assets that exceed 2 percent of the national GDP.
The banks are then further classified on the level of their importance across the five buckets.
Right now, there are three D-SIBs in India—SBI, HDFC Bank, and ICICI Bank.
ICICI Bank and HDFC Bank are in bucket one, while SBI falls in bucket three, with bucket five representing the most important D-SIBs.
What regulations do these banks need to follow?
Due to their economic and national importance, the banks need to maintain a higher share of risk-weighted assets as Tier-I equity.
SBI, since it is placed in bucket three of D-SIBs, has to maintain Additional Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) at 0.60 percent of its Risk-Weighted Assets (RWAs).
ICICI and HDFC, on the other hand, have to maintain Additional CET1 at 0.20 percent of their RWA due to being in bucker one of D-SIBs.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.business-standard.com/finance/news/sbi-hdfc-icici-remain-domestic-systemically-important-banks-in-2024-rbi-124111300672_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Know Your Medicine (KYM)’ app:
- It is part of National Anti-Doping Agency India’s mission to raise anti-doping awareness and education.
- It allows users to easily verify whether a specific medicine is listed as prohibited by the World Anti-Doping Agency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Union Minister for Youth Affairs & Sports has launched a nationwide appeal to strengthen the fight against doping in sports, urging athletes, coaches, and the entire sporting community to embrace the National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) India’s ‘Know Your Medicine (KYM)’ app.
It is part of NADA India’s broader mission to raise anti-doping awareness and education, equipping athletes with essential information to stay clean.
The app allows users to easily verify whether a specific medicine or its ingredients contain any substances listed as prohibited by the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA).
By offering this quick and seamless verification, the KYM app helps athletes to stay informed and uphold integrity of sport, fostering a culture of fair and ethical sportsmanship.
Its unique features of image and audio search, enables users to select their sport category and search specific sport related information making it convenient for the user to effortlessly access the desired information.
National Anti-Doping Agency
It was established by the Government of India, with the objective of acting as the independent Anti-Doping Organization for India having a vision of dope-free sports.
It was set up as a registered society under the Societies Registration Act of 1860 on November 2005.
The primary functions
To implement the Anti-Doping Code to achieve compliance by all sports organizations in the Country.
To coordinate dope testing program through all participating stakeholders.
To promote anti-doping research and education to inculcate the value of dope free sports.
To adopt best practice standards and quality systems to enable effective implementation and continual improvement of the program.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2073312
Consider the following statements regarding the SVASTIK initiative:
- It is a national initiative which is coordinated by the CSIR-National Institute of Science Communication and Policy Research.
- It was launched to communicate scientifically validated traditional knowledge of India to society.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the director of CSIR-National Institute of Science Communication and Policy Research (NIScPR) provided an overview of SVASTIK initiative at the International Conference on Communication and Dissemination of Traditional Knowledge (CDTK-2024).
The Scientifically Validated Traditional Knowledge (SVASTIK) is a national initiative which is coordinated by CSIR-NIScPR.
SVASTIK aims to preserve and perpetuate the practice of the appropriate tradition, instill the scientific temperament of verifying tradition scientifically, and boost public faith in our traditional knowledge and practices.
Various research organisations, higher education institutions, experts and NGOs have joined hands with SVASTIK to document and disseminate content on scientifically validated Indian traditional knowledge.
The initiative was launched to communicate scientifically validated traditional knowledge of India to society.
The NIScPR has disseminated socially engaging SVASTIK stories in 17 Indian languages via social media.
Moreover, our two SVASTIK publications provide authenticated stories on traditional knowledge, inspiring young students to explore science.
What is CSIR?
It is India’s leading publicly funded R&D organization that promotes advance knowledge in natural sciences and engineering, and translates it for the benefit of the people.
It is a registered Society under Societies Registration Act, 1860.
It has a dynamic network of 37 national laboratories, 39 outreach centres, 1 Innovation Complexes, and three units with a pan-India presence.
Organisation Structure
President: Prime Minister of India (Ex-officio)
Vice President: Union Minister of Science and Technology (Ex-officio)
Governing Body: The Director-General is the head of the governing body.
The other ex-officio member is the finance secretary (expenditures).
Other members’ terms are of three years.
Headquarter: New Delhi
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2073026
Consider the following statements regarding Mealworm Larvae:
- It is capable of consuming polystyrene which is used in food and electronic packaging.
- It is only found in African countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Scientists from the International Centre of Insect Physiology and Ecology who have found that the larvae of the Kenyan lesser mealworm can chew through polystyrene.
The lesser mealworm is the larval form of the Alphitobius darkling beetle. The larval period lasts between 8 and 10 weeks.
The lesser mealworms are mostly found in poultry rearing houses which are warm and can offer a constant food supply — ideal conditions for them to grow and reproduce.
Distribution: These are thought to have originated in Africa, they can be found in many countries around the world.
Mealworm larvae are capable of consuming polystyrene.
The bacteria living in the mealworms’ gut help them break down the complex polymers in plastic.
These bacteria produce enzymes capable of digesting the plastic.
What is polystyrene?
It is known as Styrofoam.
Applications: It is a plastic material that’s widely used in food, electronic and industrial packaging.
It’s difficult to break down and therefore durable.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/africa/plastic-eating-insect-discovered-in-kenya
Consider the following statements regarding the Operation Dronagiri:
- It demonstrates the potential applications of geospatial technologies and innovations in improving the quality of life.
- It is implemented by Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Secretary, Department of Science and Technology launched Operation Dronagiri at Foundation for Innovation and Technology Transfer (FITT), Indian Institute of Technology Delhi, New Delhi.
It is a pilot project under National Geospatial Policy 2022 to demonstrate the potential applications of geospatial technologies and innovations in improving the quality of life of citizens and ease of doing business.
It is part of the numerous efforts of DST in liberalising geospatial data, developing geospatial infrastructure, geospatial skill and knowledge as well as standards in implementing the policy.
In the first phase it will be implemented in the states of Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Assam, Andhra Pradesh & Maharashtra.
In the above mentioned states it will be run and use cases will be demonstrated to showcase the potential applications of integration of geospatial data and technology in 3 sectors –Agriculture, Livelihoods, Logistics and Transport.
Several Government departments, Industry, Corporate and Startups will be partnered with in the first phase. This will create the base for its Nationwide roll out.
It gains a powerful backbone with support from Integrated Geospatial Data Sharing Interface (GDI), that will make spatial data accessible and bring transformation.
The activities under Operation Dranagiri will be overseen by IIT Tirupati Navavishkar I-Hub Foundation (IITTNiF).
The Geospatial Innovation Accelerators (GIAs) at IIT Kanpur, IIT Bombay, IIM Calcutta and IIT Ropar will act as the operational arms of Operation Dronagiri.
Implementing agency: The entire implementation process will be driven by Geospatial Innovation Cell, Department of Science and Technology.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2073284
With reference to Mobility Arrangement for Talented Early-professionals Scheme, consider the following statements:
- It is an initiative of Australia under the Migration and Mobility Partnership Arrangement (MMPA).
- It provides Indian university graduates and early career professionals a chance to work in Australia for two years.
- It provides opportunities only to those who are having a Bachelor’s degree in engineering.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only Two
Explanation :
Australia has come up with a new scheme called MATES that allows talented young people from India to work in the country for some time.
Mobility Arrangement for Talented Early-professionals Scheme (MATES) gives Indian university graduates and early career professionals a chance to work in Australia for two years.
Background:
Australia and India entered into a Migration and Mobility Partnership Arrangement (MMPA).
The MMPA is a bilateral framework that supports and promotes two-way migration and mobility between the two countries, while addressing issues pertaining to illegal and irregular migration. MATES has been established under the MMPA.
This scheme will open for professionals from December this year.
Eligibility
It is open to Indian nationals who are aged 30 or younger at the time of application;
Have not previously participated in MATES;
Have proficient English language skills (overall IELTS or equivalent score of at least 6, with a minimum score of 5 for each of the four modules);
Have graduated within 2 years from an eligible educational institution at the time of application;
Hold a qualification (Bachelor’s degree or higher) in one of the following: renewable energy, mining, engineering, Information Communications Technology (ICT), artificial intelligence (AI), financial technology (FinTech) and agricultural technology (AgriTech).
Graduates from the top 100 universities of India as per the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) ranking 2024 will be eligible for this scheme.
MATES participants will be able to live and work in Australia for up to 2 years.
It will commence as a pilot programme with 3,000 places for primary applicants per programme per year.
Participants will be able to apply to bring dependents (spouses and dependent children). Dependants will have work rights in Australia, and will not count towards the annual cap.
Visa holders will have 12 months to make their first entry into Australia, and may stay in Australia for 24 months from the date of first entry. The visa will allow multiple entries to Australia.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/all-about-mates-a-new-scheme-for-young-indians-to-work-in-australia-9669891/
Consider the following statements regarding Barak River:
- The river runs through Manipur, Nagaland, Mizoram, and Assam in India.
- The major portion of the river falls in Bangladesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Three bodies, recently discovered in Manipur’s Barak River, are feared to be connected to the disappearance of six people from a displacement camp.
About Barak River:
It is the second largest river in Northeast India after the Brahmaputra.
The river runs through Manipur, Nagaland, Mizoram, Assam in India, and Bangladesh.
Course:
Origin: It rises from the Manipur hills, south of Mao in Senapati district of Manipur at an elevation of 2,331 m.
It flows then along Nagaland-Manipur border through hilly terrains and enters Assam.
It further enters Bangladesh where it is known by the name of the Surma and the Kushiyara and later called the Meghna before receiving the combined flow of the Ganga and the Brahmaputra.
It finally outfalls into the Bay of Bengal.
Length: Barak has a length of about 900 km of which, 564 km fall in India.
The major part of the basin is covered with forest, accounting for 72.58% of the total area, and only 1.92% of the basin is covered by water bodies.
It is bounded on the north by the Barail range separating it from the Brahmaputra sub-basin, on the east by the Naga and Lushai hills, and on the south and west by Bangladesh.
Tributaries: The principal tributaries of Barak are the Jiri, the Dhaleswari, the Singla, the Longai, the Sonai, and the Katakhal.
The composite Ganga–Brahmaputra–Meghna basin covers nearly one-third of the land area of the Indian Union.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/3-bodies-found-in-manipurs-barak-river/articleshow/115348829.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Methamphetamine:
- It is a powerful, highly addictive stimulant that affects the central nervous system.
- It takes the form of a white, odorless, bitter-tasting crystalline powder that easily dissolves in water or alcohol.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In a major crackdown on drug trafficking, law enforcement agencies seized approximately 700 kg of methamphetamine from an international drug syndicate operating in Gujarat recently.
About Methamphetamine:
Methamphetamine, commonly referred to as meth, is a powerful, highly addictive stimulant that affects the central nervous system.
It takes the form of a white, odorless, bitter-tasting crystalline powder that easily dissolves in water or alcohol.
It was developed early in the 20th century from its parent drug, amphetamine, and was used originally in nasal decongestants and bronchial inhalers.
Like amphetamine, methamphetamine causes increased activity and talkativeness, decreased appetite, and a pleasurable sense of well-being or euphoria.
However, methamphetamine differs from amphetamine in that, at comparable doses, much greater amounts of the drug get into the brain, making it a more potent stimulant.
The use of methamphetamine in higher doses can induce psychosis, bleeding in the brain, skeletal muscle breakdown, and seizures.
Moreover, it can cause violent behavior, mood swings, and psychosis such as paranoia, delirium, auditory and visual hallucination, and delusions when used chronically.
It also has longer-lasting and more harmful effects on the central nervous system.
Methamphetamine is potent and easy to produce. These characteristics make it a drug with high potential for widespread misuse.
Chronic long-term methamphetamine use can be highly addictive, and if it is discontinued abruptly, it might lead to withdrawal symptoms that can be persistent for months after use.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/gujarat-ats-ncb-seize-500kg-drugs-in-joint-op-with-navy/articleshow/115329615.cms
Consider the following countries:
- China
- United States of America
- India
- Canada
- Russia
How many of the above are the member economies of the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)?
Only four
Explanation :
US President and the Chinese counterpart recently warned of turbulent times ahead, in remarks at an Asia-Pacific economic summit in Lima.
About Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC):
It is a regional economic forum established in 1989 with the purpose of promoting free trade and investment and enhancing cooperation in social and development areas to advance prosperity, sustainable, and inclusive economic growth in the region.
What Does APEC Do?
APEC ensures that goods, services, investment, and people move easily across borders.
Members facilitate this trade through faster customs procedures at borders, more favorable business climates behind the border, and aligning regulations and standards across the region.
APEC has contributed to the reduction of barriers to trade in the region over time, leading to the expansion of economic growth and international trade.
Member Countries:
Currently, APEC has 21 members. The 21 members are not necessarily 21 countries.
Each member is considered an “economy” since APEC is primarily concerned with trade and economic dealings.
The grouping’s current members are Australia, Brunei, Hong Kong, New Zealand, Papua New Guinea, the Philippines, Indonesia, China, Japan, South Korea, Russia, Canada, the United States, Mexico, Peru, Chile, Malaysia, Vietnam, Singapore, Thailand, and Taiwan.
The 21 APEC member economies account for nearly 40 percent of the global population, almost half of global trade, and approximately 60 percent of global GDP.
APEC holds annually the APEC Economic Leaders Meeting, attended by the heads of government of all APEC members.
Decisions made within APEC are reached by consensus, and commitments are undertaken on a voluntary basis.
APEC’s activities are coordinated by the APEC Secretariat located in Singapore.
In 2021, the APEC Economic Leaders’ Meeting endorsed the Putrajaya Vision 2040, providing a future direction for APEC which focuses on 3 priorities:
open trade and investment;
innovation and digitalization;
sustainable and inclusive economic growth;
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/world-news/at-asia-pacific-summit-xi-jinping-and-joe-biden-hint-at-a-turbulent-future-under-donald-trumps-shadow-101731707628027.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Partnerships for Accelerated Innovation and Research (PAIR) Initiative, recently seen in the news:
- It is an initiative of the University Grants Commission (UGC).
- It aims to promote innovation and collaborative research between institutions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Centre recently launched an initiative called Partnerships for Accelerated Innovation and Research (PAIR) to support research in universities, especially central and state public universities.
About Partnerships for Accelerated Innovation and Research (PAIR) Initiative:
It is an initiative of the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF).
Objectives:
Stimulate scientific innovation in institutions with limited research in a mentorship mode by leveraging the knowledge and expertise of top-ranking institutions.
Support internationally competitive research with substantial impact and outcome.
Foster successful and productive collaborative networks between diverse institutions.
Propel the advancement of institutions by (i) upscaling and building advanced research infrastructure and capabilities, (ii) enhancing the quality of research, and (iii) facilitating infusion of best practices and research culture.
While being aligned with the objectives set by the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, the PAIR programme will cultivate research excellence in central and state public universities by fostering collaborations with top-tier institutions via a mentorship-driven hub and spoke model.
The hubs will guide emerging institutions (spokes) in research activities, provide access to harness their resources and expertise, thus bridging the gap between institutions and nurturing a robust research ecosystem in India.
In the first phase, the Hub institutions would include the top 25 National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) overall ranking as well as Institutions of National Importance within the top 50 NIRF overall ranking.
The spoke institutions will include, Central and State Public Universities and select NITs and IIITs.
Eligibility conditions would be expanded to include other universities and institutions in the subsequent phases.
Each PAIR network would consist of one hub and up to seven spoke institutions.
Only one proposal per hub institution is allowed, with a mandatory involvement of multi-departmental faculty teams from spoke institutions.
Regional diversity among participants will also be ensured.
The programme would help stimulate innovation in emerging institutions by leveraging mentorship from high-ranking institutions.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Nov/14/centre-launches-initiative-to-support-research-innovation-in-varsities
Consider the following statements regarding Scarlet Tanager, recently seen in the news:
- It is a songbird native to Eastern Europe.
- It is classified as ‘Least Concern’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The rare bird, Scarlet Tanager, was recently spotted in the UK for the first time in 40 years.
About Scarlet Tanager:
It is a strikingly beautiful songbird native to North America.
Scientific Name: Piranga olivacea
Habitat: Breeds in deciduous and mixed deciduous-evergreen forests; winters in forests and forest edges.
They migrate to tropical forests in Central and South America during winter.
Features:
They are medium-sized songbirds with fairly stocky proportions. They average seven inches in length.
They have thick, rounded bills suitable both for catching insects and eating fruit.
The head is fairly large, and the tail is somewhat short and broad.
In spring and summer, adult males are an unmistakable, brilliant red with black wings and tails.
Females and fall immatures are olive-yellow with darker olive wings and tails.
After breeding, adult males molt to female-like plumage, but with black wings and tail.
The Scarlet Tanager’s song is often described as sounding like a “robin with a cold.” The bird’s call, an emphatic “chip-burr,” is also distinctive and often can be a giveaway to the bird’s location in a leafy treetop.
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/webstories/world/rare-bird-spotted-in-uk-first-in-40-years-27475
Consider the following statements regarding the Exercise Poorvi Prahar:
- It serves as a platform for further absorption and integration of advanced technological tools and joint command structures.
- It is a joint military exercise between India and Nepal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Indian Army is conducting a high-intensity tri-service exercise, ‘Poorvi Prahar’, in the forward areas of Arunachal Pradesh.
It aims to hone the combat effectiveness of the Army, Navy, and Air Force in executing Integrated Joint Operations in the challenging mountainous terrain of the region, enhancing inter-service coordination and operational readiness.
It brings together a wide spectrum of cutting-edge military platforms and systems, showcasing India’s advancements in modern warfare technology.
A key feature of this exercise is the integration of innovative technologies that are reshaping the future of military operations.
Troops are operating and refining skills with Swarm Drones, First Person View (FPV) Drones, and Loitering Munitions, cutting-edge technologies that dramatically enhance situational awareness, precision strikes, and operational flexibility.
The incorporation of these tools into the exercise reflects the military’s commitment to leveraging next-generation technologies to bolster defence capabilities.
It serves as a platform for further absorption and integration of advanced technological tools and joint command structures that improve collaboration across services.
One of the core components of the exercise is the development of a Common Operating Picture (COP) through joint control structures that optimise coordination between ground, air, and naval forces.
Real-time information is seamlessly shared through systems operating on satellite communications, powered by AI-driven analytics, enabling more precise decision-making and faster response times.
By conducting Ex Poorvi Prahar, the Indian Armed Forces are enhancing their ability to execute seamless, multi-domain operations across land, air, and sea, reinforcing India’s strategic deterrence capabilities.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/poorvi-prahar-tri-service-exercise-arunachal-pradesh-army-navy-air-force-operational-readiness-2633041-2024-11-13
Consider the following statements regarding the Avian Botulism:
- It is caused by the ingestion of a toxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum.
- The Avian botulism causing bacteria requires high water temperatures and low oxygen levels for its growth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
High temperatures and reduced salinity in Sambhar lake may have created conditions conducive to avian botulism, resulting in the mass deaths of migratory birds in Rajasthan.
It is caused by the ingestion of a toxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum, which leads to paralysis and can be fatal for birds.
These bacterial spores are widespread in wetland sediments and are found in most wetland habitats, including invertebrates such as insects, molluscs, and crustaceans, as well as in many vertebrates, including healthy birds.
There are seven types of botulism toxins (A-G). Wild birds are affected by type C and type E.
Environmental conditions thought to contribute to toxin production include high water temperatures and low oxygen levels in the water.
Key facts about Sambhar Lake:
It is the largest saltwater lake in India.
It is located in the districts of Nagaur and Jaipur in Rajasthan.
It covers an area in excess of 200 sq.km., surrounded on all sides by the Aravalli hills.
The water from two major ephemeral streams, namely Mendha and Runpangarh, along with numerous rivulets and surface runoff feed the lake.
It was designated as a Ramsar site in the year 1990.
Several migrating birds visit the waterbody during the winter.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/extreme-weather-may-have-triggered-avian-botulism-leading-to-600-bird-deaths-in-rajasthan
Consider the following statements regarding AI-enabled e-Tarang System:
- It is developed by the Defence Research and Development organization.
- It will improve planning for interference-free operation of defence equipment during both wartime and peacetime.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Ministry of Defence launched the AI-enabled e-Tarang System.
It is unique software, developed in collaboration with Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space Applications and Geo-informatics (BISAG-N).
It will improve planning for interference-free operation of defence equipment during both wartime and peacetime.
It will enable automated, efficient planning and management of Defence Spectrum, as well as support development of newer technologies in higher frequency bands.
It is set to support rapid decision-making, thereby allowing seamless integration of newer technologies critical for modern defence applications.
Key facts about the BISAG-N:
It is an Autonomous Scientific Society of the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY), Government of India.
It undertakes technology development & management, research & development, facilitate National & International cooperation, capacity building and support technology transfer & entrepreneurship development in the area of geo-spatial technology.
The Organisation has three main domain areas: Satellite Communication, Geo-informatics and Geo-spatial technology.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2073259
Dicliptera srisailamica, recently in news is a species of:
Flowering plant
Explanation :
Recently, a team of botanists from the Botanical Survey of India (BSI) has identified Dicliptera srisailamica, a flowering plant found in the Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
It is a new plant species belonging to the Acanthaceae family.
It is named after the temple town of Srisailam.
It was found in rare patches along stream banks and rocky edges near waterfalls.
Features;
The plant is an erect herb, reaching up to 90 cm, with four-angled stems covered in fine, deflexed hairs when young.
Its leaves are ovate, with prominent veins and smooth margins.
The plant blooms with small, pink, bi-lipped flowers arranged in clusters, commonly seen from October to January.
It has short, downturned hairs on the stem and distinctive bracts around the flowers.
The capsules containing the seeds are also covered in simple hairs.
It adds to the diversity of this plant family, which is represented globally by 223 known species. In India, the Dicliptera genus includes 27 species, eight of which are endemic to the country.
Andhra Pradesh alone is home to seven recorded species of Dicliptera, contributing significantly to the flora of the Eastern Ghats.
This discovery adds to the diversity of India’s flora, as Dicliptera is known for its tropical and subtropical presence worldwide.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/andhra-pradesh/2024/Nov/15/new-flowering-plant-species-discovered-in-eastern-ghats-of-andhra-telangana
With reference to Zebrafish, consider the following statements:
- It is a freshwater fish found in tropical and subtropical regions.
- It has adequate regeneration capacity of almost all its organs, including the brain and heart.
- It is categorized as critically endangered species under IUCN Red list.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, Chinese astronauts successfully reared four zebrafish in space which was part of the Shenzhou-18 mission.
It is a small (2-3 cm long) freshwater fish found in tropical and subtropical regions.
The
vertebrate takes its name from the horizontal blue stripes running the length of its body.
Habitat: It is native to South Asia’s Indo-Gangetic plains, where they are mostly found in the paddy fields and even in stagnant water and streams.
Features:
It attracts developmental biologists due to its adequate regeneration capacity of almost all its organs, including the brain, heart, eye, and spinal cord.
It possesses several advantages over rodent models in the study of vertebrate development and disease.
These include hundreds of embryos in a single clutch and optical clarity of the developing embryo (have transparent larvae and embryos), which allows live imaging at the organism level.
They are easily bred in large numbers with a relatively low maintenance cost.
Approximately 70 percent of zebrafish genes are also present in a similar form in humans.
Over 80 percent of genes that are known to trigger disease in humans are also present in this fish.
Conservation status:
IUCN: Least concerned.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/chinese-astronauts-successfully-rear-four-zebrafish-in-space-2633986-2024-11-15
India recently signed a Memorandum of Implementation (MoI) for the “co-development” of the UNICORN (Unified Complex Radio Antenna) mast with which one of the following countries?
Japan
Explanation :
India and Japan recently signed a Memorandum of Implementation (MoI) for the “co-development” of the UNICORN (Unified Complex Radio Antenna) mast for deployment on Indian Navy ships.
About Unified Complex Radio Antenna (UNICORN):
It is a state-of-the-art integrated antenna system.
It is a mast with integrated communication systems that help improve the stealth characteristics of ships.
Developed jointly by three Japanese companies (NEC Corporation, Sampa Kogyo K.K., and The Yokohama Rubber Co., Ltd.), these antennas are currently fitted on the Japan Maritime Self-Defence Force’s Mogami-class frigates.
Unlike conventional masts, UNICORN consolidates antennas attached to multiple points on a mast into a single radar dome, a radome.
This innovation significantly reduces the cross-section of naval platforms, thereby enhancing their stealth characteristics and enabling them to operate with reduced electronic signatures.
In addition, the optimal placement of the antennas improves the maximum detection distance of radio waves emitted from outside and simplifies maintenance and installation processes.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-japan-sign-agreement-for-unicorn-masts-for-indian-naval-warships/article68876564.ece
Consider the following statements:
- It is a critical tiger habitat located in the Vindhyan mountain range in the northern part of Madhya Pradesh.
- The landscape is characterized by a ‘Table Top’ topography.
- Ken River flows from south to north through the reserve.
The above statements correctly describe which one of the following Tiger Reserves?
Panna Tiger Reserve
Explanation :
Mass vaccination of stray dogs in and around Panna Tiger Reserve (PTR) in Madhya Pradesh has begun amid the threat of the spread of Canine Distemper Virus (CDV) infection in the wild animals of the PTR.
About Panna Tiger Reserve:
Location: It is a critical tiger habitat located in the Vindhyan mountain range in the northern part of Madhya Pradesh.
Standing over an area of 542 sq.km., it is the only Tiger Reserve in the entire Bundhelkhand region.
It was declared a Project Tiger Reserve by the Government of India in 1994.
Landscape:
It is characterized by a ‘Table Top’ topography.
It consists of extensive plateaus and gorges.
River: Ken River flows from south to north through the reserve.
The reserve is also dotted with two thousand-year-old rock paintings.
Flora:
The dominant vegetation type is dry deciduous forest interspersed with grassland areas.
In the north, it is surrounded by teak forest, and in the east, it is surrounded by teak-Kardhai mixed forest. It is the northernmost boundary of natural distribution to teak (Tectona grandis).
The tree species Acacia catachu dominates the dry, steep slopes of the plateaus here.
Fauna:
It supports a sizable population of Tiger, Sloth Bear, Leopard, and Striped Hyena.
Other prominent carnivores are Jackal, Wolf, Wild Dog, Jungle Cat, and Rusty Spotted Cat.
The NE-SW running Vindhya Hill ranges link the eastern and western population of wild animals.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanchronicle.com/nation/current-affairs/mp-canine-distemper-virus-infection-looms-in-panna-tiger-reserve-1838832
With reference to the General Provident Fund (GPF), consider the following statements:
- It is a savings scheme that is available only for government employees in India.
- It mandates government employees to contribute a certain percentage of their salary towards the fund.
- The contributions are deducted from the employee’s monthly salary, and the amount earns interest at a predetermined rate.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
A division bench of the Madras High Court recently upheld the Central Administrative Tribunal’s orders granting pension rights under the General Provident Fund (GPF) scheme to retired Kendriya Vidyalaya teachers.
About General Provident Fund (GPF):
It is a savings scheme introduced in 1960 that is available only for government employees in India.
The primary objective of GPF is to provide a dependable source of income after retirement to government employees.
With a GPF account, all government employees can contribute a certain percentage of their salary to the GPF.
Unlike the Employees Provident Fund (EPF), the contributions toward the GPF are made only by the employee.
The total amount that is accumulated throughout the employment term is paid to the employee at the time of retirement.
As per the GPF rules, the following are eligible to subscribe to a GPF account:
All temporary government servants who have given their service for continuously one year.
All re-employed pensioners (except those eligible for admission to the contributory provident fund).
All permanent government servants.
Contribution:
It is a mandatory scheme for government employees, requiring them to contribute a certain percentage of their salary towards the fund.
The contributions are deducted from the employee’s monthly salary, and the amount earns interest at a predetermined rate.
The amount for the GPF subscription is fixed by the subscriber-only. The minimum contribution is 6% of the salary, while the maximum can go up to 100%.
Withdrawal:
Employees can withdraw their savings from the fund upon retirement or resignation from service.
A GPF is flexible, allowing employees to withdraw money from the fund for various reasons, such as marriage, education, and medical emergencies.
Employees can also take out loans against their GPF account, subject to certain conditions.
Employees who transfer to another government department or leave their jobs can withdraw their GPF balance or transfer it to their new employer.
The GPF sum will be paid to their nominee if the employee passes away.
Interest rates on GPF are revised periodically according to the government’s issued notifications.
The GPF scheme is administered by the Department of Pension and Pensioners’ Welfare, falling under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
This scheme offers several benefits to government employees, including tax savings, low-risk investments and guaranteed returns.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livelaw.in/labour-service/no-explicit-option-cpf-means-automatic-transition-gpf-scheme-madras-hc-upholds-pension-rights-of-kv-teachers-274915
Consider the following statements regarding Lake Kariba:
- It is the world’s largest man-made lake.
- It is located along the border between Botswana and Namibia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A punishing drought has drained the huge Kariba Lake close to record lows, raising the prospect that the Kariba Dam, which powers the economies of Zambia and Zimbabwe, may have to shut down for the first time in its 65-year history.
About Lake Kariba:
It is a lake in central Africa, along the border between Zambia and Zimbabwe.
It is positioned 810 miles upstream from the Indian Ocean.
It is the world’s largest man-made lake. It covers an area of 2,000 square miles (5,200 square km).
It was formed by damming the Zambezi River in the Kariba Gorge, where the river narrows between hills of hard rock 250 miles (400 km) below Victoria Falls.
The Kariba Dam consists of a double-arch wall. It is 128 meters in height, 617 meters in length, 13 meters wide at its top, and 24 meters wide at the base.
It provides considerable electric power to both Zambia and Zimbabwe and supports a thriving commercial fishing industry.
The lake encompasses a total of 102 islands, including well-known ones like Chete Island and Spurwing Island.
The Chete Island boasts the world’s largest expanse of protected, undeveloped wetlands and hosts the largest single population of African elephants.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.theguardian.com/global-development/2024/nov/11/levels-are-dropping-drought-saps-zambia-and-zimbabwe-of-hydropower
In birds, leucism results in:
pale plumage with possible white patches
Explanation :
Tamil Nadu Forest Department staff and members of a non-governmental organisation recently rescued a rare peacock with white feathers, caused by a genetic condition called leucism.
About Leucism:
It is an abnormal condition of reduced pigmentation affecting various animals (such as birds, mammals, and reptiles) that is marked by overall pale color or patches of reduced coloring.
It is caused by a genetic mutation which inhibits melanin and other pigments from being deposited in feathers, hair or skin.
In birds, leucism affects only the bird’s feathers, this means they do not have the normal, classic plumage colors.
They may have white patches where the bird should not have any, or their overall plumage may look pale or bleached out.
Albinism vs. Leucism:
Albinism is a rare genetic mutation with a complete absence of (or very little) melanin production.
Melanin is a natural pigment in the skin, hair, eyes, and even brain tissue.
The type and amount of melanin in animals determine the colour of the skin, hair, and eyes.
With the lack of melanin production, albinos have white or pinkish coloured skin and red eyes due to the underlying blood vessels showing through from behind the eyes.
With leucism, there is only a partial loss of melanin production and/or distribution.
The animal can have white or patchy coloured skin, hair, and/or feathers. The pigment cells in the eyes, legs, and bills of birds, however, are not affected.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/rare-white-peacock-rescued-in-coimbatore/article68875515.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Red-Headed Vulture:
- It is called the Asian King vulture.
- It is typically found in Central India, Nepal, Myanmar and Thailand regions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Red-Headed Vulture sighted for the first time at Manhampothikunnu near Mavungal in Kasaragod, Kerala.
This is one of the 9 species of Vulture which are found in India.
It is called the Asian King vulture or Pondicherry Vulture.
Appearance: It is a dark, medium-sized vulture with a bare reddish head and loose flaps on the side of the neck.
Distribution: The Red-Headed Vulture is typically found in Central India, Nepal, Myanmar, Thailand, Vietnam, and parts of Kerala, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu.
It weighs around 5 kg and averages over 80 cm in length, the vulture is primarily solitary, often seen alone or with a mate.
Its black plumage is marked by a distinctive white patch on the abdomen, which becomes more prominent during flight.
Breeding: Breeding typically takes place between November and January.
Conservation status
IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered
Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule 1
Issue: It was extensively found in India but its numbers drastically reduced after diclofenac poisoning.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/in-a-first-rare-red-headed-vulture-spotted-in-kasaragod/article68872430.ece
Bodo Tribal community, recently in news, is inhibited mainly in:
Assam
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister inaugurated the 1st Bodoland Mahotsav in New Delhi.
It is a mega event on language, literature, and culture to sustain peace and build a Vibrant Bodo Society.
Theme: The theme for the Mahotsav is ‘Peace and Harmony for Prosperous Bharat’ with a focus on the rich culture, language and education of the Bodo community along with other communities from the Bodoland Territorial Region.
It aims to capitalise on the richness of cultural and linguistic heritage, ecological biodiversity and touristic potential of Bodoland.
It is also about celebrating the remarkable journey of recovery and resilience ever since the signing of the Bodo Peace Accord in 2020.
Key facts about Bodo Tribe
They are the earliest known ethnic group to inhabit to Assam (erstwhile Pragjyotishpur and Kamrupa) with their distinctive culture and linguistic traits belong to the Mongoloid stock of the Indo-Mongoloids or Indo-Tibetans. Linguistically the Bodos include a large group of people who are the speakers of the Tibeto-Burman Speeches of the North and East Bengal, Assam and Burma.
They are the Bodos or Boros of the Brahmaputra Valley, they are known as Meches in Lower Assam, West Bengal and Nepal.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/cultural-festival-in-national-capital-to-showcase-vibrant-bodo-society/
Consider the following statements regarding the Senna Tora Plant:
- It is a potential species of invasive plant native to Central America.
- It germinates during the time of southwest monsoon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Tamil Nadu Forest Department is experimenting with the removal of a potential new species of invasive plant Senna tora that has begun emerging in parts of the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (MTR).
It is a native species of Central America.
Habitat: It is an annual, perennial or subshrub and grows primarily in the wet tropical biome.
It is emerging in drier areas and germinates after the southwest monsoon and gradually withers by the end of the year.
Uses: It is used as animal food, a poison and a medicine, has environmental uses and for food.
Key facts about Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (MTR)
Location: It is located in the Nilgiris District of Tamil Nadu state at the tri-junction of three states, viz, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
The name Mudumalai means the ancient hill range because it is as old as 65 million years when the Western Ghats were formed.
It has a common boundary with Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) on the West, and Bandipur Tiger Reserve (Karnataka) on the North.
The Theppakadu elephant camp is a popular tourist attraction.
Vegetation: A variety of habitats ranging from tropical evergreen forest, moist deciduous forest, moist teak forest, dry teak forest, secondary grasslands and swamps are found here.
Flora: The Reserve has tall grasses, commonly referred to as “Elephant Grass”, Bamboo of the giant variety, valuable timber species like Teak, Rosewood, etc.
Fauna: Elephants, Gaur, Tiger, Panther, Spotted Deer, Barking Deer, Wild Boar, Porcupine etc.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/how-tn-forest-dept-is-tackling-senna-tora-plants-an-emerging-threat-to-mudumalais-native-ecology/article68866831.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Carbon dioxide:
- It is a colourless gas having a faint sharp odour.
- It is one of the most important greenhouse gases in the atmosphere and is the primary driver of anthropogenic climate change.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India’s carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions from burning fossil fuels are expected to increase by 4.6% in 2024, the highest among major economies, according to a new report by Global Carbon Project.
It is a colourless gas having a faint sharp odour and a sour taste.
It is an important heat-trapping gas, also known as a greenhouse gas.
It comes from the extraction and burning of fossil fuels (such as coal, oil, and natural gas), wildfires, and natural processes like volcanic eruptions.
It is one of the most important greenhouse gases (GHG) in the atmosphere and is the primary driver of anthropogenic climate change.
The presence of the gas in the atmosphere keeps some of the radiant energy received by Earth from being returned to space, thus producing the so-called greenhouse effect.
Carbon dioxide is used as a refrigerant, in fire extinguishers, for inflating life rafts and life jackets, blasting coal, foaming rubber and plastics, promoting the growth of plants in greenhouses, immobilizing animals before slaughter, and in carbonated beverages.
Studies have shown that CO2 has contributed more than any driver to climate change.
It is much more abundant in the atmosphere compared to CH4 and HFCs.
CO2 remains in the atmosphere longer than the other major GHGs emitted due to human activities.
After a pulse of CO2 is emitted into the atmosphere, 40% will remain in the atmosphere for 100 years and 20% will reside for 1000 years, while the final 10% will take 10,000 years to turn over,” a report by the Union of Concerned Scientists (UCS), a US-based non-profit organisation
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/co2-climate-change-9673231/
With reference to the Press Council of India, consider the following:
- It was first set up by the recommendation of Justice J.R. Mudholkar commission.
- It is a quasi-judicial body and acts as a watchdog of the press in India.
- Its chairman is nominated by the President of India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
National Press Day, observed on November 16, marks the day the Press Council of India (PCI) began its operations in 1966.
It was first set up in 1966 by the parliament on the recommendations of the First Press Commission under the chairmanship of Justice J.R Mudholkar.
The present council functions under the Press Council Act 1978.
It is a statutory, quasi-judicial body that acts as a watchdog of the press in India.
Composition:
It consists of a chairman and 28 other members.
The Chairman is nominated by a committee consisting of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha, the Speaker of Lok Sabha, and one representative of the council member.
The Chairman, by convention, has been a retired judge of the Supreme Court.
The term of the Chairman and the members of the Council is 3 years.
Primary Function:
To check the media practice and to keep an eye on the freedom of the press.
Other Functions:
Helping newspapers to maintain their independence;
Building up a code of conduct for journalists and newspapers according to high professional standards;
Reviewing any development which is likely to restrict the supply and dissemination of news of public interest and importance;
Reviewing such cases where assistance has been received by any newspaper or news agency in India from foreign sources, as referred to it by the Central Government;
It adjudicates the complaints either against the Press for violation of journalistic ethics or by the Press for interference with its freedom.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressNoteDetails.aspx?NoteId=153422&ModuleId=3®=3&lang=1
What is epilepsy?
A chronic brain disorder that causes recurring seizures.
Explanation :
National Epilepsy Day is celebrated every year in India on November 17 to raise awareness about the disease, the struggles associated with it, and the importance of early diagnosis and treatment.
About Epilepsy:
Epilepsy — also known as a seizure disorder — is a chronic brain disorder where nerve cells don’t signal properly, which causes recurring seizures.
During a seizure, many neurons send signals at the same time, much faster than normal.
This surge of excessive electrical activity may cause involuntary movements, sensations, emotions, and/or behaviors.
The disturbance of normal nerve cell activity may cause a loss of awareness.
Some people recover immediately after a seizure, while others may take minutes to hours to feel like themselves again.
Causes:
Epilepsy has many possible causes, but about half of people living with epilepsy do not know the cause.
In some cases, epilepsy is clearly linked to genetic factors, developmental brain abnormalities, infection, traumatic brain injury (TBI), stroke, brain tumors, or other identifiable problems.
Seizure symptoms can vary widely:
Some people may lose awareness during a seizure while others don’t.
Some people stare blankly for a few seconds during a seizure.
Others may repeatedly twitch their arms or legs, movements known as convulsions.
Having a single seizure doesn’t mean you have epilepsy. Epilepsy is diagnosed if you’ve had at least two unprovoked seizures at least 24 hours apart.
Anyone can develop epilepsy. It affects both men and women of all races, ethnic backgrounds, and ages.
Around 50 million people worldwide have epilepsy, making it one of the most common neurological diseases globally.
Treatment:
Treatment with medicines or sometimes surgery can control seizures for most people with epilepsy.
Some people require lifelong treatment. For others, seizures go away.
Some children with epilepsy may outgrow the condition with age.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.news18.com/lifestyle/national-epilepsy-day-2024-history-seizure-types-symptoms-prevention-tips-9122463.html
Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which state?
Karnataka
Explanation :
The recommendations of the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) to notify the entire Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary as a core and critical area of Bandipur Tiger Reserve are yet to be implemented.
About Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is situated in H.D. Kote taluk of Mysuru district, Karnataka.
It lies north of Bandipur National Park.
The sanctuary includes the backwaters of Nugu Dam on its western side and shares borders with Alaganchi State Forest, a part of Bandipur Tiger Reserve on the southwest side.
Nugu Dam is built across the Nugu River, a tributary of the Cauvery.
It is also an integral part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
Rainfall: The area receives rainfall from both southwest and northeast monsoons. The average amount of rainfall received in this area is 1000 mm.
Vegetation: The forests comprise southern mixed deciduous trees and dry deciduous scrubs.
Flora: Some of the tree species found in this region include Dipterocarpus indicus, Calophyllum tomentosum, and Hopea parviflora.
Fauna:
The sanctuary supports a diverse range of fauna, including elephants, tigers, leopards, wild dogs, striped hyenas, sloth bears, gaurs, sambhars, chitals, and four-horned antelopes.
It is also home to two important riverine wildlife species: the smooth-coated otter and the marsh crocodile, emphasizing its rich biodiversity.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/ntca-recommends-declaring-nugu-as-a-core-critical-area-of-bandipur/article67562019.ece
With reference to the Dead Sea, consider the following statements:
- It is a saline lake in southwestern Asia located between Jordan and Israel.
- It is Earth’s lowest land-based feature.
- It is the Earth’s saltiest water body.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Researchers have discovered meter-high chimneys on the floor of the Dead Sea formed by the spontaneous crystallization of minerals from groundwater with an extremely high salt content flowing up out of the lake floor.
About Dead Sea:
The Dead Sea, also known as the Salt Sea, is a saline lake in southwestern Asia located between Jordan and Israel.
Its eastern shore is in Jordan, and the western shore is in Israel.
However, the western shore’s southern half belongs to Israel, while the shore’s northern half is in the West Bank, an area claimed by both Israel and Palestine.
It lies to the east of the Mediterranean Sea and south of the Sea of Galilee.
It is located at an elevation of 430.5 meters below sea level, making it the Earth’s lowest land-based feature.
It covers approximately 605 sq. km. It is 50 kilometres long and 15 kilometres wide at its widest point.
Salinity: The Dead Sea is one of the Earth’s saltiest water bodies, almost ten times saltier than ordinary seawater. It has a salinity of 34.2%.
It is the fourth saltiest body of water in the world, ranking behind Antarctica’s Don Juan Pond and Lake Vanda, and Djibouti’s Lake Assal.
The Dead Sea has one main inlet (the Jordan River) but does not have an outlet and so loses its water mainly through evaporation.
The high saline level and the harsh climate make the lake devoid of life, except for algae and other microorganisms.
It has a density of 1.240 kg/L, which makes swimming in its waters similar to floating.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-11-white-smokers-lake-floor-spectacular.html
Consider the following statements regarding Midnight Zone:
- It is the single largest habitat on the planet, accounting for 70% of all seawater.
- In addition to the lack of light, the midnight zone is characterized by a steady temperature and extreme hydrostatic pressure.
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A team of researchers recently discovered a glowing “mystery mollusk” named Bathydevius Caudactylus within the ocean’s midnight zone.
About Midnight Zone:
The ocean water column is made up of five zones: the sunlight zone (epipelagic), the twilight zone (mesopelagic), the midnight zone (bathypelagic), the abyssal zone (abyssopelagic), and the hadal zone (trenches).
Sunlight is rapidly absorbed as it travels through water. Red, orange, and yellow are absorbed quickly, leaving the water a brilliant blue, but even these wavelengths disappear as light travels deeper.
By about 1,000 meters (about 3,300 feet) depth, even the faintest light has been extinguished, leaving these deep ocean waters in perpetual darkness.
The resulting bathypelagic, or midnight, zone extends to about 4,000 meters (about 13,100 feet), which reaches the ocean floor in many places.
The midnight zone is the single largest habitat on the planet, accounting for 70% of all seawater.
In addition to the lack of light, the midnight zone is characterized by a steady temperature of around 4° Celsius (39° Fahrenheit).
Life that exists in this zone must be able to function in cold temperatures and withstand extreme hydrostatic pressure.
Pressure varies with depth, and in this zone, it ranges from 100 to 400 atmospheres.
Organisms here have special adaptations including well-developed visual systems, bioluminescence used both to lure prey and attract mates, and well-developed auditory systems that allow them to hear other animals moving nearby.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/all-about-the-mystery-mollusk-discovered-in-the-ocean-s-midnight-zone-7007215
Cao Bang crocodile newt, is a new species of crocodile newt discovered from which one of the following regions?
Southeast Asia
Explanation :
A new species of crocodile newt, the Cao Bang crocodile newt, has been discovered in Vietnam.
About Cao Bang crocodile newt:
Cao Bang crocodile newt, or Tylototriton Koliaensis, is a new species of crocodile newt.
It was found in Vietnam’s mountainous farm.
It lives in a mountain forest at elevations of 3,300 feet or more where the weather fluctuates from a colder dry season to a warmer rainy season.
Features:
The Cao Bang crocodile newts are medium-sized and are about 5 inches in length.
It has stout bodies with rough skin, and its scales are like knobs or warts.
The heads of the crocodiles are large, and their limbs are very long and thin.
It is completely black in colour with a uniform hue of bright orange on marks of fingertips and toes.
The bottom part of the crocodile has a dark gray stomach and an orange stripe down to the center of the tail.
The newts breed during the rainy summer in the slow-flowing streams or temporary pools, and they hide under rocks and cavities during the winter.
What is a crocodile newt?
It is a genus of salamanders found primarily in Asia.
They are called “crocodile newts” because of their rough, textured skin that resembles the hide of a crocodile.
Most species are dark brown or black with bright orange or red markings on their head, back, and tail.
They often live near slow-moving streams, ponds, or marshes where they can lay eggs and find food.
Species Examples: Tylototriton verrucosus (Himalayan crocodile newt), Tylototriton shanjing (Emperor newt), Tylototriton kweichowensis (Kweichow crocodile newt).
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/new-species-of-crocodile-with-orange-figer-tips-found-in-vietnams-farm/articleshow/115363897.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Hypersonic missiles:
- These missiles have a speed at least five times the speed of sound.
- These missiles fly at lower altitudes than ballistic missiles and can enable responsive, long-range strike options.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully flight-tested a long-range hypersonic missile off the coast of Odisha.
The missile can carry various payloads for ranges greater than 1,500 km for the Armed Forces.
It has been indigenously developed by laboratories of the Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Missile Complex, Hyderabad, along with various other DRDO labs and industry partners.
What are Hypersonic missiles?
The term “Hypersonic” refers to a speed at least five times the speed of sound (also called Mach-5).
A key feature of such missiles is manoeuvrability, setting them apart from a ballistic missile that follows a set course or trajectory.
Hypersonic Cruise Missiles use scramjet engines to sustain hypersonic speeds throughout their flight, flying at lower altitudes and also possessing manoeuvrability.
The two types of hypersonic weapons systems are Hypersonic Glide Vehicles (HGV) and Hypersonic Cruise Missiles.
The HGVs are launched from a rocket before gliding to the intended target while HCMs are powered by air-breathing high-speed engines or ‘scramjets’ after acquiring their target.
Advantages of hypersonic missiles
Hypersonic weapons can enable responsive, long-range strike options against distant, defended or time-critical threats (such as road-mobile missiles) when other forces are unavailable, denied access or not preferred.
Conventional hypersonic weapons use only kinetic energy, i.e. energy derived from motion, to destroy unhardened targets or even underground facilities.
They fly at lower altitudes than ballistic missiles, which means that they may be harder to track at long distances with some surface-based sensors, such as certain radar.
Russia and China are believed to be ahead in developing hypersonic missiles while the US is developing a range of such weapons under an ambitious programme.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/drdo-long-range-hypersonic-missile-capabilities-9674060/
Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary, recently in the news, is located in:
Odisha
Explanation :
Recently, Indian Bisons or Gaurs were counted in the first-ever census of the animals conducted in Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary.
Location: It is situated in the Bargarh district of Odisha near the Hirakud dam (Mahanadi River).
It finds a special mention because of noted freedom fighter Veer Surendra Sai. During his rebellion against the British, his base at ‘Barapathara” was located within the sanctuary.
It was declared a wildlife sanctuary in 1985.
Vegetation: Dry deciduous mixed forests.
Flora: Major trees found here are Sal, Asana, Bija, Aanla, Dhaura etc.
Fauna: A huge variety of wild animals reside in the dense forest of the sanctuary, such as Tiger, Sloth Bear, Leopard, Hyena, Spotted Deer, Antelopes, Sambar, Gaur, Nilgai, Bison, Langur Monkeys etc.
Key facts about Indian Bison
Indian Bison are one of the largest extant bovines. It is one of the largest species among wild cattle, reaching a shoulder height of up to 220 cm.
Habitat: They are found on the forested hills and grassy areas of south to southeast Asia.
Distribution: There are about 13,000 to 30,000 gaurs in the world with approximately 85% of the population present in India. It is also found in Burma and Thailand.
The Western Ghats in southern India constitute one of the most extensive extant strongholds of gaur, in particular in the Wayanad – Nagarhole – Mudumalai – Bandipur complex.
The gaur is the State Animal of Goa and Bihar.
Conservation:
IUCN: vulnerable
CITES: Appendix I
The Wild Life Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/odisha/2024/Nov/17/659-indian-bisons-counted-in-debrigarh-odisha
Consider the following statements regarding the King Cobra:
- It is the largest venomous snake whose neurotoxin venom causes respiratory arrest and cardiac failure.
- It is endemic to the Western Ghats region of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
In ground-breaking research, a well-known wildlife biologist from Agumbe has proved that king cobra (Ophiophagus hannah) the longest venomous snake in the world, has four different species.
It is the world’s largest venomous snake and an active hunter.
The main feature that distinguishes the king cobra from other cobras is the possession of 11 large scales on the crown of its head.
It preys almost exclusively on other snakes, prowling in forests, fields, and villages in the daytime as well as at night.
It was in 1836 that a broad spectrum of king cobra species was named Ophiophagus hannah by Danish naturalist, Theodore Edward Cantor.
The amount of venom that they can deliver in a single bite is enough to kill 10 people or even an elephant.
The neurotoxin venom of King Cobra affects the respiratory centres, causing respiratory arrest and cardiac failure.
The king cobras are the only snakes in the world to build nests that are 4 ftx 3 ft and the female king cobras are found ferociously guarding them.
The study identified four species of king cobra:
Ophiophagus kaalinga: Found in the Western Ghats of southwestern India, this species has fewer than 40 bands on its body.
Ophiophagus hannah: Inhabiting northern and eastern India, the Andaman Islands, eastern Pakistan, Indo-Burma, Indo-China, and Thailand, this species displays 50 to 70 bands.
Ophiophagus bungarus: Found in the Malay Peninsula, Greater Sunda Islands, and parts of southern Philippines, it features more than 70 bands.
Ophiophagus salvatana: Native to Luzon in the northern Philippines, this species lacks bands altogether.
Conservation status
IUCN: Vulnerable
CITES: Appendix II
Threats: Their survival is threatened by habitat destruction and exploitation of their skin, food, medicine, and the pet trade.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/kaalinga-will-be-the-scientific-name-for-kalinga-sarpa/article68878600.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Willingdon Island:
- It is a man-made island.
- It is located in the Eastern coastal region of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The rejuvenation of Willingdon Island, once a bustling hub for port-related activities, has taken centre stage in discussions at trade union forums, with calls for concrete measures to restart its commercial operations.
It is among the most beautiful locations in the Kochi area of Kerala.
This is a man-made island, named after Lord Willingdon who was a British Viceroy of India.
It is among the biggest of its kind in India.
It is also home to the Kochi Naval Base of the Indian Navy, the Central Institute of Fisheries Technology and the Port of Kochi.
The island is connected to the mainland by the Venduruthy Bridge.
Who was Lord Willingdon (1931 - 1936)?
He was the 22nd Viceroy and Governor-General of India.
Major events during his tenure
Introduction of the Government of India Act, 1935.
The Second Round Table Conference, held in 1931, saw the participation of Gandhi as a representative of the Congress.
British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald introduced the Communal Award in 1932.
The Poona Pact of 1932 was reached between Gandhi and Ambedkar to address provisions related to fair representation of backward classes.
The Third Round Table Conference, held in 1932, failed as neither Gandhi nor Congress attended.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/logistics/willingdon-island-a-delayed-restart/article68878556.ece
With reference to the Tsunami Ready Recognition Programme, consider the following:
- It is an initiative of the International Seabed Authority.
- It aims to build resilient communities through awareness and preparedness strategies that will protect life.
- It is implemented as a voluntary, performance-based community recognition programme.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, twenty-four coastal villages in Odisha were recognised by the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission of UNESCO as ‘Tsunami Ready’.
It is an international community-based recognition programme developed by the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC) of UNESCO.
Aim: It aims to build resilient communities through awareness and preparedness strategies that will protect life, livelihoods and property from tsunamis in different regions.
The main goal of the Programme is to improve coastal community preparedness for tsunamis and to minimize the loss of life, livelihoods and property.
This is achieved through a collaborative effort to meet a standard level of tsunami preparedness through the fulfilment of a set of established indicators.
To get this recognition communities must meet all 12 indicators, which cover Assessment, Preparedness, and Response, will be recognized as ‘Tsunami Ready’ by the UNESCO/IOC. The recognition is renewable every four years.
It is implemented as a voluntary, performance-based community recognition programme that promotes an understanding of the concept of readiness as an active collaboration among national and local warning and emergency management agencies, government authorities, scientists, community leaders and the public.
What is a Tsunami?
Tsunamis are large waves generated by sudden movements of the ocean floor that displace a large volume of water. These are usually associated with earthquakes.
A tsunami is a series of extremely long waves caused by a large and sudden displacement of the ocean, usually the result of an earthquake below or near the ocean floor. This force creates waves that radiate outward in all directions away from their source, sometimes crossing entire ocean basins.
Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/odisha/24-coastal-villages-in-odisha-recognised-by-unesco-as-tsunami-ready/article68871356.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to Gupta age:
- During it, the eldest son always inherited the throne from the father.
- They organised a system of provincial and local administration.
- The land taxes were increased in number, and those on trade and commerce were decreased.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The kingship was hereditary, but royal power was limited by the absence of a firm practice of primogeniture. The throne did not always go to the eldest son. This created uncertainties, of which the chiefs and high officials could take advantage. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The Guptas organised a system of provincial and local administration. Gupta territories were divided into provinces, each under the administration of a governor. The provinces were further divided into districts, and the lowest unit of administration was a village. So, statement 2 is correct.
Land revenue was a major source of income for the state besides fines. In the Gupta period, land taxes were increased in number, and those on trade and commerce were decreased. Probably the king collected taxes varying from one-fourth to one-sixth of the produce. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements in the context of the Dahsala System of Land Revenue:
- It was instituted during Akbar’s reign in India.
- It stated that one-third of the average production is the State’s share.
- It provided for the State’s demand in kind only.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
In 1580, Akbar instituted a new system called the dahsala. Under this system, the average produce of different crops and the average prices prevailing over the last ten (dah) years were calculated. One-third of the average produce was the state share. So, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
The state demand was, however, stated in cash. This was done by converting the state share into money based on a schedule of average prices over the past ten years. Thus, the produce of a bigha of land under share was given in maunds. But based on average prices, the state demand was fixed in rupees per bigha. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Later, a further improvement was made. Not only were local prices taken into account, Parganas having the same type of productivity were grouped into separate assessment circles. Thus, the peasant was required to pay based on local productivity and local prices.
In the reign of the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb, the term Zawabit denoted
a secular decree issued by the Emperor
Explanation :
Aurangzeb while taking his stand on the Hanafi school of Muslim law which had been traditionally followed in India, did not hesitate in issuing secular decrees, called as zawabit.
A compendium of his decrees, and government rules and regulations had been collected in a work called Zawabit-i-Alamgiri.
Theoretically, the zawabits supplemented the sharia. In practice, however, they sometimes modified the sharia, in view of the conditions in India which were not provided for in the sharia.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Congress-Khilafat Swaraj Party:
- It was formed to end the boycott of the Legislative Councils.
- It was formed in 1922 with Motilal Nehru as its first President.
- The new party was to function as a group separate from the Congress party.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
After the withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement, there was general mood of discouragement in the Congress Party. A fresh lead was now given by C.R.Das and Motilal Nehru who advocated a new political activity under the changed conditions. They said that nationalists should end the boycott of the Legislative Councils, enter them, obstruct their working according to official plans, expose their weaknesses, and thus use them to arouse public enthusiasm. In December 1922, Das and Motilal Nehru formed the Congress-Khilafat Swaraj Party with Das as President and Motilal Nehru as one of the secretaries. So, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
The new party was to function as a group within the congress. It accepted the Congress programme except in one respect- it would take part in council elections. Even though the Swarajists had little time for preparations, they did very well in the election of November 1923. They won 42 seats out of the 101 elected seats in the Central Legislative Assembly. With the cooperation of other Indian groups, they repeatedly outvoted the Government in the Central Assembly and several of the Provincial Councils. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Who among the following leaders were actively involved in the Non-Cooperation Movement of 1920?
- Bal Gangadhar Tilak
- C.R Das
- Vallabhbhai Patel
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The Non-Cooperation Movement was formally launched on 1 August 1920. That day was also marked by the death of Lokmanya Tilak, which witnessed strikes and processions to mourn the passing way of this great national leader. So, point 1 is not correct.
A special session of the Congress was held in Calcutta in September 1920 to finally deliberate and decide the issue of non-cooperation. It gave its assent to non-cooperation, despite some opposition by those interested in Council entry. By the time of the regular Congress Session in December 1920 held at Nagpur, the programme of non-cooperation was accepted without opposition. It involved the surrender of government titles and honorary positions, boycott of government schools and colleges, law courts, and foreign cloth. It could also be extended to include resignation from government service and nonpayment of government taxes. Moreover, it was decided to set up national schools and colleges, establish and strengthen the panchayats for settlement of disputes, promotion of hand spinning and weaving, condemnation and renunciation of untouchability, maintenance of communal amity and strict observance of non-violence. Thus, for the first time, an open extra-constitutional programme of mass mobilisation was started by the Congress.
Although the boycott of the law courts was not as successful, many leading lawyers of the country like C.R. Das, Motilal Nehru, Saifuddin Kitchlew, C. Rajagopalachari, M.R. Jayakar, Vallabhbhai Patel, Asaf Ali and T. Prakasham quit their practice. The boycott of foreign cloth became a very successful programme. So, point 2 and point 3 are correct.
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Mughal campaigns continued in the Deccan under Shah Jahan. Campaigns were launched against Ahmadnagar, the Bundelas were defeated and Orchha seized. In the north-west, the campaign to seize Balkh from the Uzbegs was unsuccessful and Qandahar was lost to the Safavids. In 1632 Ahmadnagar was finally annexed and the Bijapur forces sued for peace. In 1657-1658, there was conflict over succession amongst Shah Jahan’s sons. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Prince Akbar rebelled against Aurangzeb and received support from the Marathas and the Deccan Sultanate. He finally fled to Safavid Iran. After Akbar’s rebellion Aurangzeb sent armies against the Deccan Sultanates. Bijapur was annexed in 1685 and Golconda in 1687. From 1698 Aurangzeb personally managed campaigns in the Deccan against the Marathas who started guerrilla warfare. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
In 1585-1605 – there was expansion of Akbar’s empire. Campaigns were launched in the north-west. Qandahar was seized from the Safavids, Kashmir was annexed, as also Kabul, after the death of Mirza Hakim. Campaigns in the Deccan started and Berar, Khandesh and parts of Ahmadnagar were annexed. In the last years of his reign Akbar was distracted by the rebellion of Prince Salim, the future Emperor Jahangir. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Consider the following statements with reference to the societal structure during the Gupta period:
- The status of women started improving
- Evidence of the practice of Sati has been found
- The position of Shudras started to improve marginally
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The structure of the society was undergoing a change in the Gupta period. Women had the right to stridhana. The free representation of females in art also suggests no purdah system in society. However, the overall status of women continued to decline in the Gupta period. The main reason for the subordination of women was their complete dependence on men for their livelihood. The women were not entitled to inherit property. The first evidence of Sati in India also comes from the Gupta era. So, statement 1 is not correct.
There is evidence of the presence of sati system. The first evidence of sati (immolation of widow) is found in an inscription (AD 510) at Eran in Madhya Pradesh. In the Harshacarita of Bana, the queen performs sati on the death of her husband, king Prabhakaravardhana. Even Rajyashri, sister of Harsha was about to perform sati when Harsha rescued her. So, statement 2 is correct.
The position of shudras, however, improved somewhat during this period. They were allowed to listen to the epics and the Puranas. They could also perform some domestic rituals that were earlier prohibited for them. In the seventh century, Hsuan Tsang calls Shudras as agriculturists and the vaishyas as traders. A distinction was made between Shudras and untouchables, the latter being treated lower in status than the Shudras. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements with regard to Gupta ruler Samudragupta:
- His achievements are recorded in the Hathigumpha inscription at Udayagiri caves.
- He celebrated his conquests by performing Ashvamedha and by issuing commemorative coins.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Chandragupta was succeeded by his son Samudragupta (A.D. 335–375). Samudragupta followed a policy of conquest and enormously enlarged his kingdom. His achievements are recorded in a long inscription (prashasti), written in pure Sanskrit by his court poet Harisena. The inscription is engraved on a Pillar at Allahabad. It enumerates the people and the regions conquered by Samudragupta. Hathigumpha inscription at Udayagiri caves is the main source of information about Kalinga ruler Kharavela. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Samudragupta celebrated his conquests by performing a horse sacrifice (ashvamedha) and by issuing ashvamedha type of coins (the coins portraying the scene of sacrifice) on the occasion. Samudragupta was not only a conqueror but also a poet, a musician and a patron of learning. His love for music is attested by his coins representing him playing on a vina (lute). So, statement 2 is correct.
With reference to the period of the Mughal dynasty in Medieval India, Pahi-Kashta and khud-kashta refers to
Peasants
Explanation :
Sources of the seventeenth century refer to two kinds of peasants – khud-kashta and pahi-kashta. The Peasants who possessed the land they tilled were called Khudkashta.
Pahi-kashta were non-resident cultivators who belonged to some other village but cultivated lands elsewhere on a contractual basis. People became pahi-kashta either out of choice – for example when terms of revenue in a distant village were more favourable or out of compulsion – for example, forced by economic distress after a famine.
With regard to the Office of President, consider the following statements
- The method of election of the President has been taken from the Irish Constitution
- The election is held following the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote, and the voting is by open ballot
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The method of election of the President in India has been borrowed from Ireland. The removal of the President was borrowed from the US. So, statement 1 is correct.
The election is held under the system of proportional representation (PR) by means of the single transferable vote (STV) method. The voting takes place by a secret ballot system. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The manner of election of the President is provided by Article 55 of the Constitution. The President is elected not directly by the people but by members of the electoral college consisting of:
the elected members of both Houses of the Parliament
the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States and
the elected members of Legislative Assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi, Jammu & Kashmir and Puducherry (Since 1992 through 70th Constitutional Amendment Act)
Consider the following statements about the powers of the President:
- All international treaties and agreements are made in the name of the President.
- If no party or coalition gets a majority in the Lok Sabha, the President appoints a leader who, in her opinion, can muster majority support in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The President is the Head of State, and all international treaties and agreements are made in his name. So, statement 1 is correct.
When a party or coalition secures a clear majority in the elections, the President has to appoint the leader of the majority party or the coalition that enjoys majority support in the Lok Sabha.
When no party or coalition gets a majority in the Lok Sabha, the President exercises her discretion. The President appoints a leader who, in her opinion, can muster majority support in the Lok Sabha. In such a case, the President can ask the newly appointed Prime Minister to prove majority support in the Lok Sabha within a specified time. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Presidential election in India:
- Voting by members of the electoral college for President of India is not compulsory.
- Voting as per one’s free will at the Presidential election will not come within the ambit of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Voting at an election to the Office of President of India is not compulsory, like the voting at elections to the House of the People and State Legislatures where also there is no compulsion to vote. The ‘electoral right’ of a voter is defined in section 171A (b) of the Indian Penal code to ‘mean the right of a person to stand, or not to stand as, or to withdraw from being, a candidate or to vote or refrain from voting at the election’. Thus, every elector at the Presidential election has the freedom of making a choice to vote for any of the candidates or not to vote at the election, as per his free will and choice. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Supreme Court in Kuldip Nayar case observed that Voting or not voting as per his/her own free will at the Presidential election will not come within the ambit of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India and the electors are at liberty to vote or not to vote at the Presidential election as per their own free will and choice. So, statement 2 is correct.
With reference to the veto powers of the President, which of the following statements are correct?
- The President can use veto powers on both private as well as Government Bills.
- He cannot withhold his assent in case of a Money Bill.
- He has an absolute veto in case of the Bills reserved for his consideration by the Governor of a State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 only
Explanation:
Normally, veto power will be exercised by the President only in the case of private member Bills, but in case of resignation of the Council of Ministers, the next Council of Ministers with a commanding majority in parliament advises the president to use veto power against the government Bill, So, statement 1 is correct.
As per Article 111, in case of a money bill, the President may either declare his assent or withhold his assent, but cannot send it for reconsideration. So, statement 2 is not correct.
In case of a Bill reserved by the State Governor, the President can direct the Governor to return the Bill to the State Legislature for reconsideration, if the legislature again passes the bill and sends it back for the President’s assent, he can still refuse his assent. Thus, in the case of state bills, the President can exercise an absolute veto. However, he can apply veto power only on the aid and advice of the Union Council of Ministers. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the President of India:
- Members of Legislative Councils do not take part in electing the President of India.
- S/he can be impeached only for the violation of the Constitution.
- S/he takes the oath to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
The Indian President is the head of the state and he is also called the first citizen of India. He is a part of the Union Executive, provisions of which are dealt with in Article 52-78 including articles related to the President (Article 52-62).
The following group of people are not involved in electing the President of India:
1. Nominated Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
- Nominated Members of State Legislative Assemblies
- Members of Legislative Councils (Both elected and nominated) in bicameral legislatures.
- Nominated Members of union territories of Delhi and Puducherry
So, statement 1 is correct.
The President of India can be impeached only for the “violation of the Constitution”. However, the phrase “violation of the Constitution” is not defined in the Constitution. So, statement 2 is correct.
Before entering upon his office, the President has to make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation. In his oath, the President swears:
1. To faithfully execute the office;
- To preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law; and
- To devote himself to the service and well-being of the people of India.
So, statement 3 is correct.
With reference to the Pardoning Power of the President, consider the following statements:
- It is available against sentences of court-martial as well as sentences of death.
- It can be exercised only after the conviction of an accused.
- It is an absolute power not governed by the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Article 72 of the Indian Constitution states that the President shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishment or to suspend remit or commute the sentence of any persons convicted of any offense- in all cases where the punishment or sentence is by a court-martial in all cases where the punishment or sentence is for an offense against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the Union extends; in all cases where the sentence is a sentence of death. So, statement 1 is correct.
A pardon may be absolute or conditional. It may be exercised at any time either before legal proceedings are taken or during their pendency or after conviction. The rejection of one clemency petition does not exhaust the pardoning power of the President. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The pardoning power of the President is not an absolute one but is governed by the advice of the Council of Ministers. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the powers of the President:
- The President has final legislative powers to make regulations in case of the Union territory of Lakshadweep.
- The President has the power to alter the boundaries of scheduled areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The President has some special powers relating to Union Territories. Administration of such territories are directly administered by the Administrator, responsible to the President alone, but the President has the final legislative power to make regulations relating to the Andaman and Nicobar Islands; the Lakshadweep; Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu and may even repeal or amend any law made by Parliament as may apply to such territories (Article 240). So, statement 1 is correct.
Subject to amendment by Parliament, the President shall have the power, by order, to declare an area to be a Scheduled Area or declare that an area shall cease to be a Scheduled Area, alter the boundaries of Scheduled Areas. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the election of the Indian President:
- It is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation.
- ‘None of the above’ (NOTA) option on the ballot paper is available in the election.
- It is conducted by the Election Commission of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Article 54 of the Indian Constitution states that the President is elected by an Electoral College, which consists of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all the States and also of NCT of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry. As per Article 55(3) of the Constitution of India, the election of the President shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote; the voting at such election shall be by secret ballot. So, statement 1 is correct.
Provisions of NOTA are not applicable in the election of the President. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Under Article 324 of the Constitution of India, the authority to conduct elections to the Office of President is vested in the Election Commission of India. So, statement 3 is correct.
Which of the following qualifications is/are required for the Office of the President according to the Constitution?
- He should be qualified to be elected as a member of Lok Sabha.
- He should not hold any office of profit under the Union, state, or local government.
- He should have completed at least 30 years of age.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2only
Explanation :
Article 58 provided the qualification for election as President as follows:
He should be an Indian Citizen.
His age should be a minimum of 35 years, so statement (3) is not correct.
He should qualify the conditions to be elected as a member of the Lok Sabha. So statement (1) is correct.
He should not hold any office of profit under the central Government, state government, or any public authority. So, statement (2) is correct.
Consider the following differences with reference to President of USA and India:
- Unlike the USA’s President, the Indian President can only be removed by the houses of Parliament.
- The grounds for impeachment are broader in the USA than in India.
- No President has been impeached so far in both countries.
- Impeachment of Indian President is implicit in the constitution while that of USA’s President is explicit.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Impeachment is the act or process of impeaching a public official—formally accusing them of misconduct committed while in office. Article 61 of the Constitution provided the procedure for President’s impeachment for ‘violation of Constitution.’ So, statement (4) is not correct. Following are the differences between the USA and India in the Impeachment Procedure:
Consider the following statements:
- If India declares a war against the Islamic State (ISIS), it must be approved by President.
- President’s satisfaction in promulgation of ordinance is final and conclusive and beyond judicial review.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Every executive action that the Indian Government takes is to be taken in President’s name. He may/may not make rules to simplify the transaction of business of the Central Government. He seeks administrative information from the Union government. He requires PM to submit, for consideration of the council of ministers, any matter on which a minister has taken a decision, but which has not been considered by the council.
The President of India is the Chief Commander of the Indian Armed Forces. Any decision to conclude peace or war is finally approved by him. However, after his approval, the Parliament must also assent to it within a certain period. So, statement 1 is correct.
Article 123 deals with the ordinance making power of the President. President has many legislative powers, and this power is one of them. Supreme Court in RC Cooper vs. Union of India (1970) held that the President’s decision to promulgate ordinance could be challenged on the grounds that ‘immediate action’ was not required, and the ordinance had been issued primarily to bypass debate and discussion in the legislature. It was argued in DC Wadhwa vs. the State of Bihar (1987) that the legislative power of the executive to promulgate ordinances is to be used in exceptional circumstances and not as a substitute for the law-making power of the legislature. So, it is not outside the purview of judicial review. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements in the context of the President of India:
- He can hold office beyond his term of five years until his successor assumes charge.
- He can resign from office by addressing the resignation letter to the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Regarding the term of the President’s Office, the President holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters his office. The President can hold office beyond his term of five years until his successor assumes charge. So, statement 1 is correct.
He is also eligible for re-election to that office. He may be elected for any number of terms. However, in the U.S.A., a person cannot be elected to the office of the President more than twice.
He can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the Vice-President. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Chief Minister of any state will not be eligible to vote in the Presidential election if
he is a member of the state legislative council
Explanation :
The President is elected not directly by the people but by members of the Electoral College consisting of:
the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament;
the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states; and
the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.
Thus, the nominated members of both Houses of Parliament, the nominated members of the state legislative assemblies, the members (both elected and nominated) of the state legislative councils (in case of the bicameral legislature) and the nominated members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in the election of the President. Where an assembly is dissolved, the members cease to be qualified to vote in the presidential election, even if fresh elections to the dissolved Assembly are not held before the presidential election. So, only option (d) is correct.
Which one of the following best defines ‘Amicus Curiae’?
A person not a party to the litigation who volunteers to help the court.
Explanation :
Amicus Curiae is Latin for “friend of the court’’. As per the definition in Merriam Webster amicus Curiae is defined as -One (such as a professional person or organization) that is not a party to a particular litigation but that is permitted by the court to advise it in respect to some matter of law that directly affects the case in question.
Amicus curiae refers to a person who volunteers to help the court in deciding some matters; however it is the discretion of the court whether to accept it or not. In certain cases, the court appoints the amicus curiae, where there is no one to represent one of the parties to the case or where the question in the case refers to the greater public good.
Consider the following statements with reference to review petition in Supreme Court:
- It is the last constitutional resort available for redressal of grievances in the Court.
- Any person aggrieved by a ruling can seek a review and not necessarily by the parties to the case.
- They are heard through written arguments by the judges in their chambers and no open court hearing is allowed in any case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
In India, a binding decision of the Supreme Court/High Court can be reviewed in a review petition. The court has the power to review its rulings to correct a “patent error” and not “minor mistakes of inconsequential import”. So, when a review takes place, the law is that it is allowed not to take fresh stock of the case but to correct grave errors that have resulted in the miscarriage of justice.
It is not necessary that only parties to a case can seek a review of the judgment on it. As per the Civil Procedure Code and the Supreme Court Rules, any person aggrieved by a ruling can seek a review. However, the court does not entertain every review petition filed. It exercises its discretion to allow a review petition only when it shows the grounds for seeking the review. So, statement 2 is correct.
As per 1996 rules framed by the Supreme Court, a review petition must be filed within 30 days of the date of judgment or order. The rules state that review petitions would ordinarily be entertained without oral arguments by lawyers. It is heard “through circulation” (written arguments) by the judges in their chambers. In exceptional cases, the court allows an oral hearing. In a 2014 case, the Supreme Court held that review petitions in all death penalty cases will be heard in open court by a Bench of three judges. So, statement 3 is not correct.
However, a review petition is not the last constitutional resort available for redressal of grievances in court. In Roopa Hurra v Ashok Hurra (2002), the court itself evolved the concept of a curative petition, which can be heard after a review is dismissed to prevent abuse of its process. A curative petition is also entertained on very narrow grounds like a review petition and is generally not granted an oral hearing. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Chief Justice of India (CJI):
- The CJI has no fixed tenure and his tenure is same as that of other Supreme Court judges.
- He has the sole discretion of deciding the composition of benches and assigning cases to judges.
- Article 126 mandates the incumbent CJI to recommend to the government his successor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The Constitution has not fixed the tenure of CJI. However, Article 124 states that all Supreme Court judges (including CJI) hold office until he/she attains the age of 65 years. So, statement 1 is correct.
Recently, the Supreme Court in the Shanti Bhushan vs Supreme Court of India case ruled that the Chief Justice of India was the first among equals (judges) and had “exclusive prerogative in the allocation of cases and the constitution of benches”. “As a repository of constitutional trust CJI is an institution in himself.” There was no concept of “senior” or “junior” SC judges as all are equally competent to decide any case allotted to them by the Chief Justice of India, who alone had the power to constitute benches and assign cases. CJI was the master of the roster and had sole discretion. So, statement 2 is correct.
As per the Memorandum of Procedure governing the appointment of members of the higher judiciary, “appointment to the office of the Chief Justice of India should be of the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court considered fit to hold the office”. It stipulates that the law minister would, at an appropriate time, seek the recommendation of the outgoing Chief Justice of India for the appointment of the next CJI. Under this process, after receipt of the recommendation of the CJI, the law minister puts it before the Prime Minister who advises the President in the matter of appointment. Hence it can be inferred that the recommendations of the CJI are not binding upon the government. So, statement 3 is not correct.
With reference to lipids, consider the following statements:
- They help regulate hormones and transmit nerve impulses in humans.
- They are part of the cell membranes and control the transportation of materials across cells.
- They are found in higher quantities in fried food and dairy products.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
According to a recent study, a low metabolic flexibility to lipid in skeletal muscle may promote ectopic lipid accumulation, thus inducing metabolic disturbances.
About Lipids:
Lipids are fatty, waxy, or oily compounds that are essential to many body functions and serve as the building blocks for all living cells.
Lipids are mainly composed of hydrocarbons in their most reduced form, making them an excellent form of energy storage, as when metabolized, the hydrocarbons oxidize to release large amounts of energy.
Lipids are not soluble in water as they are non-polar, but are thus soluble in non-polar solvents such as chloroform.
Lipids help regulate hormones, transmit nerve impulses, cushion organs, and store energy in the form of body fat.
They’re part of the cell membranes and help control what goes in and out of the cells.
The three main types of lipids are phospholipids, sterols (including the different types of cholesterol), and triglycerides (which account for over 95% of lipids in food).
Lipids are found in higher quantities in fried foods, animal fats, and dairy products like cream, butter, and cheese.
Though lipids are important to your health, consuming excessive amounts in food can lead to diseases like atherosclerosis (“hardening of the arteries”), hypertension (high blood pressure), and coronary artery disease.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.nature.com/articles/s41598-024-79092-w
Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve lies in which state?
Tamil Nadu
Explanation :
An initiative taken by the Forest Department to conduct evening coaching classes for school children in 10 tribal hamlets located within the Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (STR) has significantly enhanced their learning skills.
About Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve:
Location: It is located at the junction of the Eastern and the Western Ghats in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, in the Erode District of Tamil Nadu.
Its area is contiguous with the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve, Bandipur Tiger Reserve (Karnataka), and BR Tiger Reserve and Wildlife Sanctuary (Karnataka).
Together, these reserves-forming the Nilgiris biosphere landscape, have the biggest tiger population in the world, at over 280 tigers.
Terrain: It is hilly and undulated, with altitudes ranging between 750m and 1649m.
Vegetation: It consists of southern tropical dry thorn forests, mixed deciduous forests, semi-evergreen forests, and Riparian forests.
Climate:
It is subtropical and dry.
The summers are hot and dry; the monsoons are wet and cooler, with river flooding.
Rivers: Some of the prominent rivers in the region include the Bhavani, Moyar, and Noyyal rivers.
Tribal Communities: It is home to several indigenous tribal communities, including the Irula and Kurumba tribes.
Flora: Common species of trees and shrubs found are Albizzia amara, Chloroxylon swictenia, Gyrocarpus jacquini, Neem, Tamarind, Sandalwood, Randi dumetorum, Zizyphus, and associates.
Fauna: The major species are Elephant, Tiger, Panther, Sloth bear, Gaur, Black Buck, Spotted deer, Wild boar, Black napped hare, Common langur Nilgiri langur, Striped neck mongoose, and Bonnet macaque.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Coimbatore/evening-coaching-classes-enhance-skills-of-tribal-students-in-sathyamangalam-tiger-reserve/article68881434.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Sabarmati River:
- It is a monsoon-fed river that originates in the Vindhya Mountain Range.
- The major portion of the river flows through Gujarat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Sabarmati Riverfront development project, which aims to transform around 38 kilometres of riverbanks from Ahmedabad to Gandhinagar across seven phases, has begun monetizing its first phase, covering around 11 kilometres on either side of the river.
About Sabarmati River:
It is a monsoon-fed river that originates in the Aravalli Hills of Rajasthan near Udaipur and meets in the Bay of Khambhat in Arabian sea.
The Sabarmati basin extends over the states of Rajasthan and Gujarat, having an area of 21,674 sq.km with a maximum length and width of 300 km and 150 km.
It covers a total distance of 371 km, out of which 48 km is traversed in Rajasthan and the remaining 323 km in Gujarat.
It flows north-south through Ahmedabad, bisecting the city into its western and eastern halves.
Its total catchment area is 21,674 sq. km. It is bounded by the Aravalli Hills in the north and north-east, the Rann of Kutch in the west, and the Gulf of Khambhat in the south.
The major part of the basin is covered with agriculture, accounting for 74.68% of the total area.
Its principal tributaries joining from left are the Wakal, the Hathmati, and the Vatrak, whereas the Sei joins the river from right.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/others/sabarmati-riverfront-kicks-off-4-000-cr-land-monetisation-plan-with-first-auction-101732003657014.html
Consider the following statements regarding the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA):
- It is an independent international agency to lead a collaborative worldwide movement for doping-free sport.
- Its governance and funding are based on an equal partnership between the sport movement and governments of the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India will host a 4-day Global Learning and Development Framework (GLDF) Results Management Training in collaboration with the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) in New Delhi.
About World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA):
WADA was established in 1999 as an international independent agency to lead a collaborative worldwide movement for doping-free sport.
Its governance and funding are based on an equal partnership between the sport movement and governments of the world.
It is a Swiss private law, not-for-profit foundation. Its seat is in Lausanne, Switzerland, and its headquarters are in Montreal, Canada.
Its primary role is to develop, harmonize, and coordinate anti-doping rules and policies across all sports and countries.
Its key activities include scientific research, education, the development of anti-doping capacities, and monitoring the World Anti-Doping Code (Code), the document harmonizing anti-doping policies in all sports and all countries.
Governance Structure:
A 42-member Foundation Board, the agency’s highest policy-making body, is jointly composed of representatives of the Olympic Movement (the IOC, National Olympic Committees, International Sports Federations, and athletes) and representatives of governments from all five continents.
A 16-member Executive Committee, to which the Board delegates the management and running of the agency, including the performance of all its activities and the administration of its assets.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/india-to-host-wada-gldf-results-management-training-in-new-delhi-from-nov-19/
Consider the following statements regarding the Bharat National Cyber Security Exercise (Bharat NCX 2024), recently seen in the news:
- It includes immersive training on cyber defense and incident response and collaborative platforms for government and industry stakeholders.
- It is being conducted by the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In), Ministry of Information & Electronics Technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Bharat National Cyber Security Exercise (Bharat NCX 2024) was inaugurated at a high-profile ceremony organized by the National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS) in collaboration with Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU) in New Delhi recently.
About Bharat NCX 2024:
It is a landmark initiative to fortify India’s cybersecurity resilience.
It is being conducted by the National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS) Govt. of India in strategic partnership with Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU).
This flagship event serves as a unifying platform for over 300 participants, representing a diverse spectrum of government agencies, public organizations, and the private sector, all resolutely committed to the safeguarding of critical information infrastructure through training sessions, Live Fire, and Strategic exercises.
Key Features:
The exercise includes immersive training on cyber defense and incident response, live-fire simulations of cyberattacks on IT and OT systems, and collaborative platforms for government and industry stakeholders.
A Strategic Decision-Making Exercise will bring together senior management from across sectors to simulate decision-making in a national-level cyber crisis, enhancing their ability to respond to high-pressure situations with strategic acumen.
The CISO’s Conclave will feature Chief Information Security Officers from the government, public, and private sectors sharing insights, participating in panel discussions, and exploring the latest trends and government initiatives in cybersecurity.
On the sidelines, the Bharat Cybersecurity Startup Exhibition will showcase innovative solutions from Indian startups, emphasizing their role in enhancing the nation’s cybersecurity infrastructure.
The exercise also highlights leadership engagement and capacity building, fostering a unified approach to emerging cyber challenges.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://ciso.economictimes.indiatimes.com/amp/news/cybercrime-fraud/bharat-ncx-2024-inaugurated-to-strengthen-cyber-defense-strategic-decision-making/115418580
Exercise Sanyukt Vimochan, recently in news, is a:
Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) exercise.
Explanation :
Recently, the Indian Army successfully conducted the Exercise, ‘Sanyukt Vimochan 2024’ at Ahmedabad and Porbandar on 18-19 November 2024.
It is a multilateral annual joint Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) Exercise.
The exercise conducted by the Konark Corps of Southern Command of Indian Army, was conducted at Ahmedabad and Porbandar, Gujarat.
The inaugural event of the exercise at Ahmedabad featured a Table Top Exercise, focusing on the theme of ‘Cyclone in Coastal Region of Gujarat’. Representatives from National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), Gujarat State Disaster Management Authority (GSDMA), Meteorological Department and FICCI attended the event along with Indian Armed Forces officials.
It is aimed at addressing gaps in interagency integration and cooperation, ensuring a swift and coordinated response to natural disasters.
It also witnessed Multi-Agency Capability Demonstration held at Chowpatty Beach at Porbandar on 19 November 24.
The Multi-Agency Capability Demonstration featured various agencies practicing coordinated logistics, rapid response and effective disaster management strategies in a simulated cyclone scenario.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2074664®=3&lang=1
Consider the following statements regarding the Cloud seeding:
- It is a weather modification technique which aims to reduce precipitation by introducing substances into clouds.
- It involves dispersing materials such as silver iodide and potassium iodide.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, Delhi is grappling with severe air pollution, the concept of cloud seeding has emerged as a potential short-term solution to combat the hazardous air quality.
Cloud seeding, also known as artificial rain, is a weather modification technique that aims to enhance precipitation by introducing substances into clouds to stimulate rainfall.
How is it done?
The science behind cloud seeding involves dispersing materials such as silver iodide, potassium iodide, or dry ice into clouds to encourage the formation of rain or snow.
These particles serve as nuclei for water droplets to form around, potentially leading to increased precipitation.
The process can be carried out using aircraft, ground-based generators, or even rockets in some cases.
Cloud seeding is done to increase the radius of the cloud droplets so that they will grow bigger and because of gravity, they will come down as rainfall.
In the context of air pollution, cloud seeding is seen as a potential method to “wash away” particulate matter and other pollutants from the air.
The theory is that increased rainfall could help settle dust and other airborne particles, temporarily improving air quality.
Challenges: Suitable atmospheric conditions are necessary for the technique to be effective, including the presence of clouds with sufficient moisture.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/what-is-cloud-seeding-the-science-behind-artificial-rain-that-delhis-air-needs-2635857-2024-11-19
Consider the following statements regarding the Acute Mountain Sickness:
- It occurs when the body cannot acclimatise to high elevation.
- It creates a condition called high-altitude cerebral edema (HACE), where fluid collects in the brain.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Every year, numerous tourists succumb to the effects of high-altitude sickness in the pristine but challenging inner Himalayas.
High-altitude sickness, or Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS), occurs when the body cannot acclimatise to high elevations, typically over 8,000 feet (2,400 metres).
As altitude increases, the air pressure and oxygen levels decrease, leading to hypoxia — a shortage of oxygen in the body’s tissues.
Symptoms:
Early symptoms of AMS include headache, nausea, fatigue, and shortness of breath.
If left untreated, it can escalate into high-altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE), a life-threatening condition where fluid accumulates in the lungs, or high-altitude cerebral edema (HACE), where fluid collects in the brain.
Both conditions require immediate medical intervention, and descent to lower altitudes is often the only way to prevent fatal outcomes.
At higher altitudes, the body tries to adjust by increasing the breathing rate, which can cause hyperventilation, and produce more red blood cells to carry oxygen, which thickens the blood and strains the heart.
In cases of HAPE, fluid accumulation in the lungs exacerbates breathing difficulties, while HACE causes symptoms like confusion, hallucinations, and even coma.
The primary cause of high-altitude sickness is rapid ascent without allowing the body time to acclimatise. Gradual ascent, which allows the body to adapt to lower oxygen levels, is the best way to prevent high-altitude illnesses.
Treatment: The most effective treatment is immediate descent to lower altitudes. Symptoms usually improve significantly with a descent of 300-1,000 metres. Supplemental oxygen or a portable hyperbaric chamber can also help alleviate symptoms of AMS and HACE in emergencies.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/the-dangers-of-high-altitude-sickness-explained/article68887127.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Binar Space Program:
- It aims to advance understanding of the Solar System and lower the barrier for operating in space.
- It is a satellite research program belongs to Australia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, three tiny Australian satellites from Curtin University’s Binar Space Program burned up in Earth’s atmosphere due to solar activity.
It is a satellite research program operating out of Curtin University, Australia.
It aims to advance our understanding of the Solar System and lower the barrier for operating in space.
The program began operations with its first satellite, Binar-1, in September 2021. This was less than a year into solar cycle 25 when solar activity was relatively low.
In these conditions, the ten-centimetre cube satellite started at an altitude of 420 km and survived a full 364 days in orbit.
The program’s follow-up mission – Binar-2, 3, and 4 – were three equally sized CubeSats. However, they were expected to last approximately six months owing to the extra surface area from new deployable solar arrays and a forecast increase in solar activity.
As the Sun kicked into high gear, these three satellites burned up in the atmosphere much sooner than expected.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/as-sun-nears-peak-of-solar-cycle-small-satellites-are-paying-the-price/article68885742.ece
With reference to Army Tactical Missile System (ATACMS), consider the following:
- It is a conventional surface-to-surface artillery weapon system.
- It has the ability to carry cluster munitions and destroy a targeted area by releasing hundreds of bomblets.
- It is only operated by the United States of America.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, Russia’s Defence Ministry said that Ukraine fired six US-made Army Tactical Missile System (ATACMS) at Russia’s Bryansk region.
It is a conventional surface-to-surface artillery weapon system capable of striking targets well beyond the range of existing Army cannons, rockets, and other missiles.
It is manufactured by the US defense company Lockheed Martin.
It is also designated M39 by the US Army, and its Department of Defence (DoD) designation is MGM-140.
The missile first saw use during the 1991 Persian Gulf War.
This weapon’s known operators other than the US are Bahrain, Greece, South Korea, Taiwan, and the United Arab Emirates.
Features:
ATACMS are 24/7, all-weather, surface-to-surface, inertially guided ballistic missiles.
Range: It has a range of about 190 miles (305 km).
Propulsion: Single-stage, solid propellant.
These missiles are fired from the High Mobility Artillery Rocket System (HIMARS) and the M270 Multiple Launch Rocket System (MLRS) platforms.
It has the ability to carry cluster munitions, which destroy a targeted area by releasing hundreds of bomblets instead of a single warhead.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/world/story/russia-says-ukraine-fired-us-made-atacms-missiles-after-ban-lifted-2635948-2024-11-19
With reference to Guyana, consider the following statements:
- It is a country located in the northeastern part of South America.
- It is bordered by Suriname, Brazil, and Venezuela.
- It was a French colony from the early 19th century to the mid-20th century.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Indian Prime Minister arrived in Guyana recently, marking the first visit by an Indian leader in more than 50 years to the South American country with diaspora ties.
About Guyana:
It is a country located in the northeastern part of South America.
Borders:
It is bordered by the Atlantic Ocean to the north, by Suriname (along the Courantyne River) to the east, by Brazil to the south and southwest, and by Venezuela to the west.
It shares its maritime borders with Barbados and Trinidad and Tobago.
Although geographically situated in South America, the country is culturally and historically connected to the Caribbean and is a founding member of the Caribbean Community (CARICOM).
History:
Indigenous peoples inhabited Guyana prior to European settlement, and their name for the land, guiana (“land of water”), gave the country its name.
Originally a Dutch colony in the 17th century, by 1815 Guyana had become a British possession.
Guyana achieved independence from the UK in 1966.
Present-day Guyana reflects its British and Dutch colonial past and its reactions to that past.
Guyana is involved in territorial disputes with both Suriname and Venezuela that are legacies of colonial rule.
It is the only English-speaking country of South America.
The capital and chief port of Guyana is Georgetown.
It has been a member of the Commonwealth since 1970.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/world-news/indias-prime-minister-meets-with-caribbean-leaders-in-guyana-with-security-in-mind-101732123765065.html
Where is the International Film Festival of India (IFFI) currently held annually?
Goa
Explanation :
The 55th edition of the International Film Festival of India (IFFI) kick-started with a star-studded opening ceremony at the Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Indoor Stadium in Panaji, Goa, recently.
About International Film Festival of India (IFFI):
The IFFI, founded in 1952, is one of the most significant film festivals in Asia.
It is held annually, currently in the state of Goa.
The IFFI aims at providing a common platform for filmmakers of the world to project their excellence in film art, contributing to the understanding and appreciation of film cultures of different nations in the context of their social and cultural ethos, and promoting friendship and cooperation among people of the world.
The first edition of the event was held in Mumbai, which in the subsequent years moved to Calcutta, Delhi, Madras, and Trivandrum.
It is the only film festival in South Asia that is accredited by the International Federation of Film Producers and Associations (FIAPF)as a Competitive Feature Film Festival.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/entertainment/movies/iffi-2024-a-star-studded-55th-international-film-festival-of-india-kicks-off-in-goa/article68891319.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Aquaculture:
- It is the propagation and husbandry of aquatic plants, animals, and other organisms for commercial, recreational, and scientific purposes.
- Globally, aquaculture already supplies more than half of all seafood consumed by humans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations has offered its technical expertise and knowledge to deal with the impact of climate change on the country’s aquaculture and the fishing community engaged with it.
About Aquaculture:
It is the propagation and husbandry of aquatic plants, animals, and other organisms for commercial, recreational, and scientific purposes.
Aquaculture is an approximate aquatic equivalent to agriculture—that is, the rearing of certain marine and freshwater organisms to supplement the natural supply.
This includes production for supplying other aquaculture operations, for providing food and industrial products, for stocking sport fisheries, for supplying aquatic bait animals, for stocking fee-fishing operations, for providing aquatic organisms for ornamental purposes, and for supplying feedstocks to the pharmaceutical and chemical industries.
It is one of the fastest-growing forms of food production in the world. Globally, aquaculture already supplies more than half of all seafood consumed by humans.
Major Producers:
China is firmly at the top of the global aquaculture production, producing nearly 60% of farmed seafood.
Other leaders include Indonesia, India, and Vietnam.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/climate-change-is-biggest-disruptor-in-aquaculture-fao-can-help-india-adapt-manuel-barange/article68890941.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the State of the World’s Children 2024 (SOWC-2024) Report, recently seen in the news:
- It has been published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
- India and China are expected to account for more than a third of the world’s child population by 2050, according to the Report.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The world is facing an unprecedented crisis with nearly half of all children – about 1 billion – living in countries that face a high risk of climate and environmental hazards, the UNICEF’s State of the World’s Children 2024 (SOWC-2024) report, said recently.
About State of the World’s Children (SOWC) Report:
It is the annual flagship publication of the United Nations Children’s Fund’s (UNICEF’s).
Each SOWC report closely examines a key issue affecting children.
These have ranged from children with disabilities, conflict and war, child labour, urbanization, early childhood development, and much more, making it the most comprehensive analysis of global trends that impact children.
The report includes supporting data and statistics.
Highlights of SOWC-2024:
This year, The State of the World’s Children report was launched on 20 November, celebrated globally as World Children’s Day–UNICEF’s annual day of action for and by children, with focus on ‘Listen to the Future,’ voices of children and young people on the world they want.
India, China, Nigeria, and Pakistan are expected to account for more than a third of the world’s child population by 2050.
India is estimated to have the largest share at 350 million, despite a decline of 106 million compared to today.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/childrens-wellbeing-under-threat-in-2050-warns-unicef/article68888766.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Central Value Added Tax (CENVAT) Credit:
- Under CENVAT, manufacturers get credit for the tax paid on raw materials, which they can later use to offset the excise duty they owe the tax department.
- Taxes paid on capital goods cannot be claimed as credit under the CENVAT credit scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
About Central Value Added Tax (CENVAT) Credit:
CENVAT allows a manufacturer to utilise the credit of excise duty or additional duty paid for the procurement of input services to pay off the excise duty on his/her final productor output services.
Under CENVAT, manufacturers get credit for the tax paid on raw materials, which they can later use to offset the excise duty they owe the tax department.
It was introduced as a modification to the previously functioning Modified Value Added Tax, or MODVAT.
During the course of the manufacture of final products, the raw materials travel through various stages of production, wherein a duty is levied on every value-added at each stage.
CENVAT, therefore, eliminates this double taxation, thereby simplifying taxation for manufacturers and consumers at large.
In 2004, the government established ‘The CENVAT Credit Rules’ in order to implement CENVAT across the country and offer Indian manufacturers of final products certain tax credits on the excise duty payable by them.
CENVAT credit refers to the set-off available to manufacturers if they utilise some specific inputs for manufacturing their products.
A manufacturer can claim CENVAT credit on the following cases:
Excise duty on a final product: For manufacturers and producers of final products.
Service tax on output services: For providers of taxable and exempted services.
Inputs and capital goods: If these goods are being partially processed.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telcos-can-claim-cenvat-credit-for-towers-shelters-sc/article68890347.ece
Candidatus phytoplasma, recently in news, is a:
Bacteria
Explanation :
Researchers have identified a new microbe called Candidatus phytoplasma responsible for a peculiar disease that has been affecting the sesame fields of Midnapore in West Bengal.
It is a microbe with cell wall lacking Mollicutes bacteria.
These bacteria thrive in the nutrient-rich phloem and sieve cells of plants.
Transmission: The transmission of these pathogens takes place primarily through phloem feeder insects (leafhoppers, plant-hoppers, psyllids, and dodders), which are known to infect many commercially valuable crops like Catharanthus, tobacco, maize, and grapevine.
The manifestations of the disease are disfigurement and virescence of the floral parts, giving a leafy appearance.
Key facts about Sesame
Sesame (Sesamum indicum) is the oldest indigenous oilseed crop, with longest history of cultivation in India.
The crop is grown in almost all parts of the country. More than 85% production of sesame comes from West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
Sesame oil is excellent from a medicinal point of view. It contains antioxidants, and it is perfect for heart patients.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2075043
Consider the following statements regarding the Bhu-Neer Portal:
- It has been developed by Central Ground Water Authority in collaboration with the National Informatics Centre.
- It is designed to provide comprehensive details regarding the legal framework governing groundwater extraction in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Hon’ble Minister of Jal Shakti, digitally launched the newly developed “Bhu-Neer” portal during the concluding ceremony of India Water Week 2024.
It is an advanced portal developed by Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA), under the Ministry of Jal Shakti, in collaboration with the National Informatics Centre (NIC).
It is for improved groundwater regulation across the country.
Features
This portal will serve as a one-stop platform for managing and regulating groundwater resources, aimed at ensuring transparency, efficiency, and sustainability in groundwater usage.
It is designed to provide comprehensive details regarding the legal framework governing groundwater extraction, regulations at the state and national levels.
Its centralized database will allow users to access critical information on groundwater compliance, policies, and sustainable practices.
The portal is developed with several user-friendly features to offer streamlined process flow to the project proponents seeking groundwater withdrawal permits.
Having a simplified yet informative interface, and features like PAN based single Id system, NOC with QR code etc., “Bhu-Neer” marks a significant improvement over its previous version NOCAP.
The “Bhu-Neer” portal, is another step towards promoting Ease of Doing Business by making ground water regulation a seamless and faceless exercise.
The portal is now live for public use and all project proponents can visit the portal for ground water withdrawal related queries, clarifications, tracking application status, payment of statutory charges.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2074919
Consider the following statements regarding the Biofloc Technology:
Statement-I: It is a cost-effective and environmentally friendly fish farming approach.
Statement-II: It utilizes the beneficial bacteria that convert organic wastes into biomass, to be consumed by the fishes.
Statement-III: It keeps the water clean without needing to change it often.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Both Statement–II and Statement–III are correct and both of them explain Statement–I
Explanation :
India’s aquaculture sector has increasingly adopted Biofloc Technology (BFT) and Recirculating Aquaculture Systems (RAS).
About Biofloc Technology:
Biofloc Technology is a closed tank-based fish farming approach which cleans the water in fish tanks by using beneficial bacteria.
Heterotrophic bacteria (commonly Bacillus, Pseudomonas, Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter, Acinetobacter, and Alcaligenes) are used to convert organic waste (such as uneaten feed and fish waste) into microbial biomass, which can then be consumed by the fish or shrimp.
This process keeps the water clean without needing to change it often and at the same time reduces the risk of disease as well in the fish. Water stays cleaner hence farmers do not need to depend on external use of chemicals or antibiotics.
It also saves money on feed, as fish can get extra nutrients from the recycled waste, making it sustainable, cost-effective and environmentally friendly for fish farming.
Hence option a is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/agriculture/waaw-2024-emerging-technologies-in-aquaculture-to-promote-increased-production-while-preventing-diseases
Consider the following statements regarding the Global Energy Efficiency Alliance:
- It is an India-lead initiative, launched during the UNFCCC-COP29 in Azerbaijan.
- It encourages strategic public-private partnerships and bolster investments in energy efficiency initiatives.
- It aims to double the global energy efficiency rates by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
About Global Energy Efficiency Alliance:
The UAE has unveiled an ambitious initiative to establish the ‘Global Energy Efficiency Alliance’ during COP29, hosted in Azerbaijan.
It aims to double the global energy efficiency rates by 2030 and contribute to significant emission reductions.
It also encourages strategic public-private partnerships and bolster investments in energy efficiency initiatives.
This initiative aligns with the ‘UAE Consensus’ from COP28, where all 198 participating countries in COP28, organisations, and companies committed to reducing carbon emissions and minimising natural resource consumption.
Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/uae-launches-global-energy-efficiency-alliance-at-cop29/
Consider the following statements regarding the AroTrack device:
- It detects harmful aromatic xenobiotic water pollutants such as phenol and xylenols.
- It has been developed by the Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
About AroTrack:
Recently, scientists at the Indian Institute of Technology Bombay (IIT Bombay) have developed water-pollutant detecting device called ‘AroTrack’.
It accurately detects harmful aromatic xenobiotic pollutants such as phenol or benzene, xylenols
It uses proteins typically found in bacteria living in heavily polluted environments to effectively identify multiple aromatic pollutants in water.
This protein undergoes a highly selective ATP hydrolysis chemical reaction if an aromatic compound is present in the sample.
This reaction is expressed with a change in the colour of the protein solution, which AroTrack can then detect the pollutants.
AroTrack contains a light emitting diode [LED]-phototransistor assembly that shines a light of appropriate wavelength through the sample and detects how much is absorbed.
The key component of the device is a biosensing module called MopR - a sensitive sensor for detecting phenol.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/iit-bombay-scientists-develop-water-pollutant-detecting-device-arotrack/article68883355.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the International Cooperative Alliance (ICA), recently seen in the news:
- It is a non-profit international association which unites, represents, and serves cooperatives worldwide.
- Its members are international and national cooperative organisations from all sectors of the economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India is all set to host the global conference of the International Cooperative Alliance (ICA) for the first time.
About International Cooperative Alliance (ICA):
The ICA is a non-profit international association which unites, represents and serves cooperatives worldwide.
Founded in 1895, it is one of the oldest non-governmental organisations and one of the largest ones measured by the number of people represented with one billion cooperative members on the planet.
It is the apex body representing cooperatives, which are estimated to be around 3 million worldwide, providing a global voice and forum for knowledge, expertise, and coordinated action for and about cooperatives.
Its members are international and national cooperative organisations from all sectors of the economy.
More than 306 organisations from 105 countries are members of the ICA.
ICA operates a central office in Brussels, Belgium, and four regional offices for Africa, the Americas, Asia-Pacific and Europe.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-to-host-global-conference-of-cooperatives-for-the-first-time/article68894786.ece
‘Raorchestes asakgrensis’, recently seen in the news, is a:
newly discovered species of frog
Explanation :
A new frog species named Raorchestes asakgrensis was recently discovered from Meghalaya.
About Raorchestes asakgrensis:
It was named after the Eman Asakgre Community Reserve in the Garo Hills of Meghalaya, where it was discovered, to honour the local community’s support in conservation efforts.
Features:
Found at an elevation of 174 meters in Eman Asakgre, this small arboreal frog is distinctive for its pointed snout and visible tympanum.
Males measure about 20.49 mm in snout-vent length, with females slightly larger at 22.8 mm.
Males call from shrubs at dusk, perched 1.5 meters or higher, with calling activity peaking after the first monsoon rains.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/tamil-nadu/2024/Nov/21/sacon-team-from-tns-anaikatti-discovers-new-frog-species-in-meghalaya-during-two-year-study
With reference to the International Criminal Court (ICC), consider the following statements:
- It is the only permanent international criminal tribunal.
- It was established by the Vienna Convention.
- Its primary purpose is to hold individuals accountable for grave crimes of international concern.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The International Criminal Court recently issued arrest warrants for Israeli Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu, his former Defence Minister and Hamas officials, accusing them of war crimes and crimes against humanity.
About International Criminal Court (ICC):
It is a global court which seeks to hold to account those guilty of some of the world’s worst crimes.
It is the only permanent international criminal tribunal.
Background:
The ICC was established by an international agreement, the Rome Statute, on 17 July 1998.
The Rome Statute sets out the Court’s jurisdiction, structures and functions.
The Statute entered into force on 1 July 2002.
Mandate: It investigates and, where warranted, tries individuals charged with the gravest crimes of concern to the international community: genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and the crime of aggression.
HQ: Hague, Netherlands.
Members: 123 nations are States Parties to the Rome Statute and recognize the ICC’s authority; the notable exceptions being the US, China, Russia, Israel, and India.
Funding: The Court is funded by contributions from the States Parties and by voluntary contributions from Governments, international organizations, individuals, corporations, and other entities.
Composition:
Judges: The court has eighteen judges, each from a different member country, elected to non-renewable nine-year terms.
The Presidency: Consists of three judges (the President and two Vice-Presidents) elected from among the judges. It represents the Court to the outside world and helps with the organization of the work of the judges.
Judicial Divisions: 18 judges in 3 divisions, the Pre-Trial Division, the Trial Division, and the Appeals Division.
Office of the Prosecutor (OTP): OTP is responsible for receiving referrals and any substantiated information on crimes within the jurisdiction of the Court. OTP examines these referrals and information, conducts investigations, and conducts prosecutions before the Court.
Registry: The core function of the Registry is to provide administrative and operational support to the Chambers and the Office of the Prosecutor.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
Where is the MeerKAT Radio Telescope, recently seen in the news, located?
South Africa
Explanation :
An international team of astronomers has employed the MeerKAT radio telescope to investigate giant radio galaxies in the field of the Cosmological Evolution Survey (COSMOS).
About MeerKAT Radio Telescope:
MeerKAT is a connected array of radio telescopes located in the Northern Cape province of South Africa.
It was originally known as the Karoo Array Telescope (KAT), that would consist of 20 receptors. When the South African government increased the budget to allow the building of 64 receptors, the team renamed it “MeerKAT”, – i.e., “more of KAT”.
It is part of South Africa’s contribution to the global Square Kilometre Array (SKA)project, which aims to build the largest and most sensitive radio telescope in the world.
It is a precursor instrument to the mid-frequency component of the Square Kilometre Array (SKA).
It uses radio signals from space to study the evolution of the universe and everything it contains.
It comprises 64 dishes, each 13.5 metres in diameter, with maximum separations of 8 km.
The receivedsignals travel to a subterranean processor building that combines them and allows the telescopes to work together as a single instrument.
It is currently the most powerful radio interferometer at centimeter wavelengths.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://phys.org/news/2024-11-giant-radio-galaxy-meerkat.html
Tungareshwar Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which state?
Maharashtra
Explanation :
About Tungareshwar Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is located in the Palghar district of Maharashtra, 75 km away from Mumbai.
The sanctuary is spread over an area of 85 sq. km., which is mostly hilly.
It serves as a vital corridor between Sanjay Gandhi National Park (also known as Borivali National Park) and Tansa Wildlife Sanctuary.
It is characterized by hilly terrain,dense forests, and small rivers or streams.
The forest is a unique blend of Dry Deciduous, Moist Deciduous, and Semi-Evergreen.
It is home to several species of trees, including teak, bamboo, and mango.
Some commonly spotted animals in the sanctuary include Leopard, Wild Boar, Barking Deer, Langur, Bonnet and Rhesus Macaque, and Black-naped Hare. A multitude of birds, including the Crested Serpent-eagle, Jungle Owlet, White-eyed Buzzard, Oriental Honey-buzzard, Emerald Dove, and Heart-spotted Woodpecker, can be found here.
Several ancient temples are within its boundaries. The most famous of these temples is the Tungareshwar Temple, dedicated to Lord Shiva.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.theweek.in/wire-updates/national/2024/11/19/lgd35-green-tungareshwar-report.html
Climate Change Performance Index, recently in news, is published by:
Germanwatch
Explanation :
Recently, the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI 2025) report was released at the annual UN climate conference in Baku.
It is published by think tanks Germanwatch, New Climate Institute, and Climate Action Network International.
It tracks the progress of the world’s largest emitters in terms of emissions, renewables, and climate policy.
It was first published in 2005.
Highlights of the report
India ranked 10th on a list of over 60 countries assessed for efforts to fight climate change.
The 63 countries, along with the European Union, assessed in the CCPI are responsible for 90% of global emissions.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/india-drops-two-places-but-remains-among-top-10-climate-performers-report/article68892444.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Ustad Bismilliah Khan Yuva Puraskar:
- It was instituted by the Sangeet Natak Akademi.
- It is given annually to outstanding young artists in the fields of music, dance and drama.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Union Minister of Culture and Tourism will confer the Ustad Bismilliah Khan Yuva Puraskar for the years 2022 and 2023 to 82 young artists in a special ceremony at Dr Ambedkar International Centre, Janpath, New Delhi.
It was instituted by the Sangeet Natak Akademi in the name of Bharat Ratna Ustad Bismillah Khan for young performing art practitioners upto the age of 40 years in 2006.
It is given annually to outstanding young artists in the fields of music, dance, drama, folk & tribal arts and puppetry in a special ceremony held in Delhi and also outside Delhi.
The Yuva Puraskar carries a purse money of Rs 25,000/- (Rupees twenty-five thousand only), a plaque and an angavastram.
The reason behind instituting the Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar was to encourage and motivate the young artists in the field of music, dance, drama, folk and tribal art forms and other allied performing art forms of the country.
Who was Ustad Bismillah Khan?
He was a famous Shehnai musician.
It was Ustad ‘Bismillah” Khan who also played at the first Republic Day celebration in 1950.
Bismillah Khan was the first Indian to be invited to perform at the prestigious Lincoln Centre Hall in the United States of America.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2075433
With reference to Global Alliance Against Hunger and Poverty, consider the following:
- It will serve as a platform for connecting countries in need of assistance with public policies targeted towards eradicating hunger and poverty.
- India is not a member of this initiative.
- It is funded by the member countries and International organization.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The G20 Leaders’ Summit held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil was headlined by the official launch of the Global Alliance Against Hunger and Poverty.
It will serve as a platform for connecting countries in need of assistance with public policies targeted towards eradicating hunger and poverty, with partners willing to offer expertise or financial support.
It consists of 81 countries (including India), 26 international organisations, 9 financial institutions, and 31 philanthropic foundations and non-governmental organisations have already joined the Alliance.
Any member country can access proven best practices from other members and identify potential partners willing to assist in the development of its own national model.” Assistance may be in the form of technical expertise or financial support.
The Alliance has identified an evidence-based policy basket, which comprises more than 50 policy instruments that member countries can avail support for.
Of particular importance are the six “Sprints 2030”, high-impact areas which will see target-oriented initiatives catering to the most vulnerable.
These include: school meals; cash transfers; smallholder and family farming support programs; socio-economic inclusion programs; integrated maternal and early childhood interventions; and water access solutions.
Funding:
The Alliance does not boast an exclusive fund.
It envisions playing a matchmaking role, connecting countries in need with motivated donors and technical support.
The $2-3 million required annually for its operations will come from member countries and institutions such as the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), UNICEF, and the World Bank.
Hence option b is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/what-is-global-alliance-against-hunger-and-poverty-launched-at-brazil-g20-9682533/
Consider the following statements regarding the Cold wave:
- It is an unusual weather occurrences caused by extremely low temperatures in the near-surface atmosphere.
- It is defined by the India Meteorological Department in India based on temperature threshold in both hilly and plain area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the National Programme on Climate Change and Human Health (NPCCHH) under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare issued an advisory for Telangana and 16 other states and Union Territories about cold wave conditions.
Cold waves are unusual weather occurrences caused by extremely low temperatures in the near-surface atmosphere.
Their duration can range from several days to a few weeks, contingent upon the geography and climatic conditions of the region.
The India Meteorological Department (IMD) defines cold wave conditions based on temperature thresholds.
For plains, the minimum temperature has to be less than or equal to 10°C
For hilly regions the minimum temperature has to be less than or equal to 0°C.
Health risks from extreme cold
The advisory cautions that prolonged exposure to cold can cause severe health issues, including hypothermia and frostbite.
Non-freezing cold injuries, such as Immersion Foot—caused by prolonged exposure to cold, wet conditions—are also a risk.
In extreme cases, cold exposure may result in fatalities if adequate precautions are not taken.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana-among-17-states-and-uts-in-core-cold-wave-zone/article68889511.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Artificial Intelligence (AI) data bank:
- It aims to propel innovation and boosting the India’s national security.
- It will provide a diverse datasets essential for creating scalable and inclusive AI solutions to researchers and developers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Ministry of Science and Technology launched India’s first Artificial Intelligence (AI) data bank.
It is aimed at propelling innovation and boosting the country’s national security.
The initiative will provide researchers, startups, and developers access to high-quality, diverse datasets essential for creating scalable and inclusive AI solutions.
It was launched by Minister of Science and Technology Minister at the 7th Edition of the ASSOCHAM AI Leadership Meet 2024.
It will enhance “national security through real-time analytics of satellite, drone, and IoT data”.
It also aligns with the country’s goal to utilise AI for predictive analytics in disaster management and cyber security.
What is Artificial Intelligence?
It is a field of science concerned with building computers and machines that can reason, learn, and act in such a way that would normally require human intelligence.
AI is a broad field that encompasses many different disciplines, including computer science, data analytics and statistics, hardware and software engineering, linguistics, neuroscience, and even philosophy and psychology.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/indias-1st-ai-data-bank-to-boost-national-security-launched/
Trishna Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which State?
Tripura
Explanation :
About Trishna Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is situated in South Tripura District.
Three types of forests are found in the Sanctuary - Tropical Semievergreen Forest, Moist Mixed Deciduous Forest, and Savanah woodland.
Apart from the forest, the sanctuary has a number of perennial water rivulets, waterbodies, and grasslands.
Flora:
The sanctuary is dotted with 230 tree species, 400 herbs, 110 shrubs, and 150 climbers.
Medicinal plants can also be seen here. Some of the prominent medicinal plant species are Kurcha, Tulsi, Vasak, Sarpaganda, Rudraksha, Bel, etc.
One species of Bamboo Oxytenanthera nigrociliata, locally known as Kaillai, is common here.
Fauna:
The great attraction of this sanctuary is a sizeable population of Gaur or Indian Bison.
It is also the home to highly endangered only ape species of the Indian subcontinent i.e, the Hoolock Gibbon, and primates like Capped Langur and Golden Langur.
Other animals include Leopards, Wild cats, Pheasants, Lalmukh Bandars, Wild Boars, etc.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.eastmojo.com/tripura/2024/11/22/one-arrested-for-poaching-deer-near-tripuras-trishna-wildlife-sanctuary/
Reykjanes Peninsula, recently seen in the news, lies in which country?
Iceland
Explanation :
About Reykjanes Peninsula:
Reykjanes is a peninsula in southwest Iceland, characterized by immense lava fields, volcanoes, and heightened geothermal activity.
It runs along the Mid-Atlantic Rift, where the Eurasian and the North American tectonic plates are drifting apart.
Due to this geological setting, the whole peninsula is extremely volcanically active, covered with moss-coated lava fields and cone-shaped mountains.
It has several high-temperature geothermal areas, three of which have been harnessed to generate electricity.
It is home to some 30,000 people, or nearly 8% of the country’s total population.
UNESCO recognised Reykjanes as a UNESCO Global Geopark in 2015.
Since 2021, the Reykjanes Peninsula has seen a marked increase in volcanic activity, with eruptions occurring frequently.
There are frequent earthquakes due to the movement of the tectonic plates, but are commonly minor events that can hardly be felt by humans.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/volcano-erupts-in-icelands-reykjanes-peninsula-for-seventh-time-in-a-year/article68892899.ece
Arkavathi River, recently seen in the news, is a tributary of which one of the following rivers?
Kaveri
Explanation :
About Arkavathi River:
It is an important mountain river in Karnataka.
It is a significant tributary of the Kaveri River.
Course:
Origin: It originates at Nandi Hills of the district of Chikkaballapura, Karnataka at an elevation of 1478 meters.
It joins the Kaveri River around 34 km south of Kanakapura in the Ramanagara District, Karnataka.
One-third of Bengaluru city falls within its 4,150 sq. km. river basin.
Total Length: 190 km.
It has three tributaries; the Kumudavathi, Suvarnamukhi, and Vrishabhavathi.
Reservoirs: The Arkavathi feeds two important reservoirs:
Hesaraghatta Reservoir: Built in 1894 to supply drinking water to Bangalore.
Thippagondanahalli Reservoir (T.G. Halli): Also supplies drinking water to Bangalore.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/karnataka/mercury-cancer-causing-pesticide-found-in-arkavathy-river-water-samples-3286677
Consider the following statements regarding Nano Urea:
- It is developed and patented by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
- It is more efficient in terms of nutrient uptake and releases nitrogen more slowly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
State-owned National Fertilizers Limited (NFL) recently announced its entry into nano liquid urea production.
About Nano Urea:
It is a nanotechnology-based agri-input that provides nitrogen to plants.
It is developed and patented by the Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO). IFFCO Nano Urea is the only nano fertilizer approved by the Government of India and included in the Fertilizer Control Order (FCO).
Features:
Compared to conventional urea prill, Nano Urea has a desirable particle size of about 20-50 nm, and more surface area (10,000 times over 1 mm urea prill), and number of particles (55,000 nitrogen particles over 1 mm urea prill).
It contains 4.0 % total nitrogen (w/v).
Benefits:
It is produced by an energy-efficient, environment-friendly production process with less carbon footprints.
It is more efficient in terms of nutrient uptake and releases nitrogen more slowly.
It reduces the amount of nitrogen lost to the atmosphere as greenhouse gases.
It is expected to improve crop productivity, soil health, and nutritional quality of produce and address the “imbalanced and excessive use” of conventional fertilizer.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/indl-goods/svs/chem-/-fertilisers/national-fertilizers-ltd-to-foray-into-nano-liquid-urea-production/articleshow/115574731.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) Ltd:
- It is the leading Central Public Sector Undertaking (CPSU) dedicated to the development and expansion of Renewable Energy (RE) capacity in India.
- It serves as an implementing agency for the development of renewable energy projects as part of fulfilling India’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India’s Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI), a major player in the country’s renewable energy sector, is currently facing bribery allegations.
About Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) Ltd:
It is the leading Central Public Sector Undertaking (CPSU) dedicated to the development and expansion of Renewable Energy (RE) capacity in India. It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
It was established to facilitate the implementation of the National Solar Mission.
It was incorporated in 2011 as a not-for-profit company (Sec. 25 of Companies Act, 1956) and converted to a commercial company in 2015 (Sec. 3 of the Companies Act, 2013).
It is the only CPSU dedicated to the renewable energy sector.
SECI serves as an implementing agency for the development of Solar, Wind and Hybrid Projects as part of fulfilling the country’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).
It has been accorded the status of Mini-Ratna Category-I CPSU.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/renewables/solar-energy-corp-the-rise-of-seci-in-india-and-adani-bribery-bombshell/articleshow/115555686.cms?from=mdr
RS-26 Rubezh missile, recently in news, is possessed by:
Russia
Explanation :
About RS-26 Rubezh:
RS-26 Rubezh is a Russian intercontinental ballistic missile which was first successfully tested in 2012.
Its development was led by the Moscow Institute of Thermal Technology (MITT), one of Russia’s leading ballistic missile design centers.
It is estimated to be 12 metres long and weigh 36 tons and can carry an 800-kg (1,760-lb) nuclear warhead.
Its estimated range, between 2,000 and 6,000 kilometers, corresponds to the medium-range ballistic missile category, primarily used for regional strikes.
It is capable of carrying Multiple independently targetable reentry vehicles (MIRV).
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/world/story/russia-ukraine-war-icbm-rs-26-rubezh-fired-dnipro-vladimir-putin-2637280-2024-11-21
Consider the following statements regarding the Cicadas:
- These are hemipteran insects found in natural forests with large trees.
- These insects are the important source of nitrogen and help in aerating the soil.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, for the first time in more than 200 years, two specific broods of the 13- and 17-year cicadas have emerged together in North America.
About Cicadas:
Cicadas are hemipteran insects known for their loud, complex and species-specific acoustic signals or songs.
The generic diversity of cicadas in India and Bangladesh ranks the highest in the world, followed by China.
A cicada will have the best chance of survival if it can emerge from the ground when its predators are lying dormant.
Most cicadas are canopy dwellers and are found in natural forests with large trees.
Scientists divide the over 3,000 cicada species into two groups: annual and periodical.
They emerge from the ground at different times each summer.
They’re usually dark with greenish markings.
These insects avoid predators by camouflaging themselves in the trees and flying from hungry birds and moles.
They prune mature trees, aerate the soil, and once they die, their bodies serve as an important source of nitrogen for growing trees.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/three-groups-of-cicadas-emerge-together-for-first-time-in-1547-years/article68885699.ece
With reference to ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting-Plus (ADMM-Plus), consider the following:
- It was established to strengthen security and defence cooperation in the region.
- The inaugural ADMM-Plus was convened in Hanoi, Vietnam.
- India is not a member of this initiative.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Raksha Mantri of India engaged in a series of high-level discussions with counterparts from the United States, Japan, and the Philippines during the 11th ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting-Plus (ADMM-Plus) held in Vientiane, Laos.
About ADMM-Plus:
It is a platform for ASEAN and its eight Dialogue Partners Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, Republic of Korea, Russia and the United States.
It was established to strengthen security and defence cooperation for peace, stability, and development in the region.
The inaugural ADMM-Plus was convened in Hanoi, Vietnam, on 12 October 2010.
Since 2017, the ADMM-Plus meets annually, to allow enhanced dialogue and cooperation among ASEAN and the Plus Countries in the midst of an increasingly challenging regional security environment.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/rajnath-singh-strengthens-defence-partnerships-at-admm-plus-summit-in-laos/
Consider the following statements regarding the Waves, an over-the-top (OTT) platform:
- It has been developed by the Prasar Bharati.
- It aims to cater to India’s growing demand for streaming services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the public broadcaster Prasar Bharati has stepped into the over-the-top (OTT) space with the launch of its new app ‘Waves’.
About Waves:
Waves is a digital platform developed by Prasar Bharati.
It aims to cater to India’s growing demand for streaming services.
It offers a wide range of content, including live TV, video on demand, games, radio streaming, and e-commerce options via the ONDC network. Its offerings include:
On-demand content: Movies, shows, ebooks, and historical visuals
Live events: Religious programmes, cricket tournaments, and other big events
Games: Suitable for all age groups
Online Shopping options
Currently, the app provides access to around 65 live channels, including private broadcasters.
What is over-the-top (OTT) platform?
It refers to any streaming service that delivers content through wireless internet. OTT bypasses traditional forms of media consumption, such as cable or set-top boxes.
Key features of OTT platforms include on-demand access, flexible subscription models, cross-device availability, and personalized content recommendations.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/companies/news/prasar-bharati-s-new-ott-waves-brings-back-tv-nostalgia-here-s-how-124112200355_1.html
Ashtamudi Lake, recently in news, is located in:
Kerala
Explanation :
About Ashtamudi Lake:
It is a Ramsar wetland located in Kollam district of Kerala.
The word Ashtamudi means Eight braids in Malayalam which can be explained by the palm-shaped topography of the lake with multiple branches.
It is because of its eight ‘arms’ or channels, that the lake is named Ashtamudi.
It is the second largest lake in Kerala, which has found its way into the sea through the Neendakara estuary.
Kallada river is the major source of water for Ashtamdui lake.
The historical significance of Ashtamudi lake dates back to the 14th century when the lake surroundings were the important port connecting the ancient city of Quilon to the rest of the world.
Historical records of the Moroccan explorer Ibn Battuta highlights Quilon city, in the banks of Ashtamudi lake as one of the major trading centers in the ancient period.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/a-lake-ecosystem-gasping-for-breath/article68893355.ece
Consider the following statements:
- It is a small mid-altitude lake situated in Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir.
- It is surrounded by the Pir Panjal mountains.
- It is popular for the floating market where vendors have their own wooden boats and approach tourists.
The above statements correctly describe which one of the following lakes?
Dal Lake
Explanation :
The famous Chinar boat race 2024 was organised recently in J&K’s Dal Lake by the Army.
About Dal Lake:
It is a small mid-altitude lake situated in Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir.
It is surrounded by the Pir Panjal mountains.
It is named the “Jewel in the crown of Kashmir” or “Srinagar’s Jewel”.
It is the second-largest lake in Jammu and Kashmir.
The lake covers an area of 18 sq.km. and is part of a natural wetland which covers 21.1 sq.km.
The wetland is divided by causeways into four basins: Gagribal, Lokut Dal, Bod Dal, and Nagin (although Nagin is also considered an independent lake).
The shoreline of the lake, is about 15.5 kilometres (9.6 mi), is encompassed by a boulevard lined with Mughal-era gardens, parks, houseboats, and hotels.
The floating gardens, known as “Raad” in Kashmiri, blossom with lotus flowers during July and August.
It is also popular for the floating market where vendors have their own Shikaras/wooden boats and approach tourists.
The depth of water varies from 6 metres at its deepest to 2.5 metres at its shallowest.
During the winter season, the temperature sometimes reaches −11 °C (12 °F), freezing the lake.
Islands:
Dal Lake includes 3 islands, 2 of which are marked with beautiful Chinar trees.
The island located on the Lakut Dal is known as Roph Lank (Silver Island), is marked with the presence of majestic Chinar trees at the four corners, thus known as Char-Chinari (Four Chinars).
The second Chinar Island, known as Sone Lank (Gold Island), is located on the Bod Dal (Big Dal) and overlooks the holy shrine of Hazratbal.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/famous-chinar-boat-race-organised-in-jks-dal-lake/
Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which State?
Assam
Explanation :
Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary is witnessing a surge in the arrival of migratory birds as the winter season sets in.
About Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary:
Location: It is located on the southern bank of the river Brahmaputra in Morigaon district, adjacent to Guwahati in Assam.
It was declared a reserve forest in 1971 and a wildlife sanctuary in 1987.
It is home to the highest population density of the Indian One-Horned Rhinoceros species (around 102 rhinos in an area of 38.8 sq. km).
Landscape: It is dominated by alluvial lowlands and marshland.
The Brahmaputra River offers a natural boundary to the premises of the sanctuary on the north, while the Garanga Beel offers a natural boundary to its south.
Flora:
72% of Pabitora consists of wet savannah of Arundo donax, Erianthus ravennae, Phragmites karka, Imperata cylindrica, and Saccharum spp.
Water hyacinth (Eichornia crassipes) is a major problem, especially to waterfowl, as it forms thick mats on the water surface.
Fauna:
Besides rhinoceros, the other animals are leopard, wild boar, Barking deer, wild buffalo, etc.
It is also home to more than 375 species of resident and migratory birds, such as the Indian pied Hornbill, Osprey, Hill Myna, Kalij Pheasant, etc.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.northeasttoday.in/2024/11/18/assam-pobitora-wildlife-sanctuary-witnesses-surge-in-migratory-birds/
Consider the following statements regarding the Eastern Imperial Eagle:
- It is a large, graceful bird of prey that is native to South America.
- It is classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
About Eastern Imperial Eagle:
It is a large, graceful bird of prey that breeds in southeastern Europe and extensively through West and Central Asia.
Scientific Name: Aquila heliaca
Like all eagles, the Eastern imperial eagle is a member of the family Accipitridae. Furthermore, its well-feathered legs mark it as a member of the subfamily Aquilinae.
It tends to live in forests, where it will build a huge, conspicuous nest in an isolated tall tree.
Most populations are migratory and winter in northeastern Africa, the Middle East, and South and East Asia.
Habitat: Old forests, and the forests in mountains, hills, and along rivers are all common habitats.
Features:
It is a large eagle. Adult total length can range from 68 to 90 cm with a typical wingspan of 1.76 to 2.2 m.
The species displays reverse sexual dimorphism as do most birds of prey, in which males are usually smaller than the females.
They have a pale golden crown and nape and a grey base that extends to the tail. They also have very apparent white “braces” on their scapulars.
Like other eagles, they have strong legs and feet. Their feet include long, curved talons that they use to seize, kill, and carry their prey.
They also have large eyes that are located slightly to the side of the head. These eyes provide them with extremely keen eyesight, allowing them to spot prey from high in the air.
IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/rare-imperial-eagle-spotted-in-kole-fields/article68886583.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Chagas disease, recently seen in the news:
- It is an inflammatory, infectious disease caused by a parasite.
- It is commonly found in sub-Saharan Africa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
About Chagas Disease:
Chagas (CHAH-gus) disease is an inflammatory, infectious disease caused by the protozoan parasite, Trypanosoma cruzi.
This parasite is found in the feces of the triatomine (reduviid) bug.
This bug is also known as the “kissing bug.”
Chagas disease is common in South America, Central America, and Mexico, the primary home of the triatomine bug.
Also called American trypanosomiasis, Chagas disease can infect anyone. Left untreated, Chagas disease later can cause serious heart and digestive problems.
Treatment:
During the acute phase of infection, treatment of Chagas disease focuses on killing the parasite.
In people who have chronic Chagas disease, it’s no longer possible to kill the parasite. Treatment in this later phase is about managing signs and symptoms.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://entomologytoday.org/2024/11/21/chagas-disease-parasite-survive-dead-kissing-bugs/
Consider the following statements regarding the Dibang Multi-Purpose Hydro Power Project:
- It is a flood control cum hydroelectric power project to be developed on the Dibang River in Arunachal Pradesh.
- The project envisages the construction of the highest Concrete-Gravity Dam of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Union Minister of State for Consumer Affairs, Food, and Public Distribution recently visited the Dibang Multi-Purpose Hydro Power project site at Arunachal Pradesh’s Dambuk village as part of her two-day tour to the Lower Dibang Valley district.
About Dibang Multi-Purpose Hydro Power Project:
It is a flood control cum hydroelectric power project planned to be developed on the Dibang River, a tributary of the Brahmaputra River, in Arunachal Pradesh.
At 2,880MW installed capacity, it will be the country’s biggest hydropower facility.
It is being developed by India’s state-run National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC).
The Project is designed as an energy storage project, with flood moderation as one of the key objectives, besides power generation.
Project Features:
The project envisages the construction of a 278m-high and 375m-long concrete gravity dam, which will be the highest Concrete-Gravity Dam of India.
The Dam is planned to be constructed with Roller Compacted Concrete (RCC) technique and it will be the highest RCC Dam of the World.
The dam will create a 43 km-long reservoir with a gross storage capacity of 3.85 billion cubic metres.
It includes six Horseshoe-shaped head race tunnels of length varying from 300 m to 600 m with 9 m diameter, an underground Power House, and six horseshoe-shaped tail race tunnels of length varying from 320m to 470 m with 9 m diameter.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.indiatodayne.in/arunachal-pradesh/story/arunachal-union-mos-visits-dibang-hydro-power-project-site-interacts-with-shgs-1123166-2024-11-19
Jobs at Your Doorstep report, recently in news, is prepared by:
World Bank
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister for Education along with Minister of Labour and Employment and Youth Affairs launched a World Bank’s report titled Jobs at Your Doorstep: A Jobs Diagnostics for Young People in Six States, at an event in New Delhi.
This report serves as both a diagnostic and roadmap to providing strategic linkages and convergence between education and the jobs agenda of India.
It goes deep into the job landscape of six states: Himachal Pradesh, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, and Rajasthan, and identifies key priority sectors and roles that offer the highest employment potential for young people graduating from secondary school.
The report is a skills gap analysis that attempts to align trades offered in schools industry-specific needs of the districts where the schools are present.
It underscores the significant benefits of embedding skill-based education from Classes 9-12 to prepare students for diverse career paths relying on a bottom-up approach.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2075944
Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Project Veer Gatha’:
- It is a joint initiative of the Union Ministry of Defence and Ministry of Education.
- It aims to disseminate the inspiring tales of selfless sacrifice and courage of the Gallantry Awardees among the students.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
More than 1.76 crore school students from all 36 States and UTs have participated enthusiastically in Project Veer Gatha 4.0.
About Project Veer Gatha:
It was instituted in 2021 with the aim of disseminating the inspiring tales of valour, selfless sacrifice and courage of the Gallantry Awardees and the life stories of these bravehearts among the students to inculcate the spirit of patriotism amongst them.
Project Veer Gatha enhanced this noble aim by providing a platform for the school students to do creative projects/activities based on heroic deeds and sacrifice of gallantry award winners.
Three editions of the Veer Gatha Project have been conducted in 2021, 2022 and 2023, respectively.
It is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Defence and Ministry of Education.
Key facts about Gallantry Awards:
Gallantry Awards have been instituted by the Government of India to honour the acts of bravery and sacrifice of the officers/personnel of the Armed Forces, other lawfully constituted Forces and civilians.
These are announced twice in a year - first on the occasion of the Republic Day and then on the occasion of the Independence Day.
These awards are the Ashoka Chakra, the Kirti Chakra and the Shaurya Chakra.
Order of precedence of these awards is the Param Vir Chakra, the Ashoka Chakra, the Mahavir Chakra, the Kirti Chakra, the Vir Chakra and the Shaurya Chakra
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2075099
With reference to Compressed Biogas, consider the following:
- It is the a of biogas devoid of impurities like carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulphide.
- It has calorific value much more than the Compressed Natural Gas.
- It helps India in reducing import of natural gas and crude.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
India’s first modern, self-sufficient gaushala with a state-of-the-art Compressed Biogas (CBG) plant was launched in Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh.
CBG is produced by purifying biogas from waste and biomass sources, such as agricultural waste, animal manure, and sewage treatment plant waste, through a process called anaerobic decomposition.
The purified biogas is then compressed to high pressure and further processed to remove impurities like carbon dioxide, moisture, and hydrogen sulfide.
CBG has calorific value and other properties similar to CNG and hence can be utilized as green renewable automotive fuel.
Thus it can replace CNG in automotive, industrial and commercial areas, given the abundance biomass availability within the country.
Conversion of agricultural residue, cattle dung and municipal solid waste (MSW) into CBG in a commercial scale is expected to have the following benefits
Import reduction of natural gas and crude.
Utilization of agricultural residue, cattle dung and MSW for the production of CBG and thus to achieve reduction in emissions and pollution.
A boost towards fulfillment of National commitments in achieving climate change goals.
Providing a buffer against energy security concerns and crude/gas price fluctuations.
Contribution towards Swachh Bharat Mission through responsible waste
management
Lowering pollution and carbon emission.
Providing additional source of revenue to the farmers, rural employment and amelioration of the rural economy
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2075883
Consider the following statements regarding the Minke whales:
- These are found only in the tropical region.
- These species can detect high-frequency sounds as high as 90 kilohertz.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
For the first time, scientists have directly measured the hearing range of minke whales, discovering that the species can detect high-frequency sounds as high as 90 kilohertz (kHz), according to a new study.
They are members of the baleen or “great” whale family and are the smallest of the rorquals.
There are two recognized species of minke whales with partially overlapping ranges
The Common minke whale (Balaenoptera acutorostrata), and the Antarctic minke whale (B. bonaerensis).
Dwarf minke whales are an unnamed subspecies of the common minke whale that occurs almost exclusively in the Southern Hemisphere.
In addition the North Atlantic and North Pacific common minke whales also have separate sub-species designations (B. a. acutorostrata in the North Atlantic and B. a. scammoni in the North Pacific).
Distribution: Minke whales are widely distributed through most tropical, temperate and polar regions from approximately 65°S to 80°N.
Common minke whales are found in all ocean basins, with the dwarf minke whale subspecies more or less limited to the Southern Hemisphere.
They feed most often in cooler waters at higher latitudes and can be found in both coastal/inshore and oceanic/offshore areas.
IUCN Conservation status
Common minke whale: Least concern
Antarctic minke whale : Data deficient
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/hearing-tests-show-that-minke-whales-can-hear-high-frequency-sounds/article68898711.ece
Nafithromycin, recently in news, is:
an antibiotic
Explanation :
In a ground breaking step for India’s biotechnology sector, Union Minister formally launched the first indigenous antibiotic “Nafithromycin” for resistant infections.
It is an antibiotic which has been developed with the support of “Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council” (BIRAC).
It has been brought to market under the trade name “Miqnaf”.
It is the country’s first indigenously developed antibiotic aimed at tackling Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR).
This innovation is designed to treat Community-Acquired Bacterial Pneumonia (CABP).
Nafithromycin’s efficacy stands out as it targets both typical and atypical pathogens, offering a potent solution where no new antibiotic in this class has been developed worldwide for over three decades.
The antibiotic has minimal gastrointestinal side effects, no significant drug interactions, and remains unaffected by food, making it a versatile option for patients.
It offers 10x Efficacy with Just 3 doses to Combat Drug-Resistant Pneumonia.
The development of Nafithromycin represents 14 years of dedicated research and an investment of ₹500 crores, with clinical trials spanning the U.S., Europe, and India.
Key facts about Community-Acquired Bacterial Pneumonia
It is one of the most common infectious diseases and an important cause of mortality and morbidity worldwide.
Typical bacterial pathogens that cause CAP include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2075174
Hojagiri folk dance, recently seen in the news, is associated with which one of the following tribes?
Reang
Explanation :
The ethnic Reang community has demanded that Tripura declare a holiday on Hojagiri Day, which celebrates the traditional Hojagiri dance.
About Reang Tribe:
The Reang tribe, who locally call themselves “Bru”, is the second largest tribal community of Tripura after the old Tripuri clan.
They are the only Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTGs) residing in the state of Tripura.
Apart from Tripura, they are also found in the neighbouring state of Mizoram and a few in Assam.
According to the 2011 census of India report, the total population of the Reang tribe is about 1,88,080.
Reangs are said to have come first from Shan State of upper Burma (now Myanmar) in different waves to the Chittagang Hill Tracts and then to the Southern part of Tripura.
Similarly, another group entered Tripura via Assam and Mizoram during the 18th Century.
Reangs belongs to Indo-Mongoloid racial stock.
Their language is known as “Kaubru,” which has a tonal effect on the Kuki language, though broadly it is the Kok-Borok dialect.
The language belongs to the Tibeto-Burmese linguistic family.
Ethnically, Reangs are divided into two major clans: Meska and Molsoi.
The Reangs are a well-knit ethnic group having a rigid, well-ordained, and well-structured self-governing system.
Economy: The Reangs are primarily an agriculturist tribe. In the past, they mostly used to practise the ‘Huk’ or Jhum cultivation, like most other Tripuri tribes. But now shifted to modern agriculture practice.
Religious Belief:
At present, most of the Reangs in Tripura follow Hinduism, and most of their deities are akin to gods and goddesses of Hindu faith.
Reangs have faith in different deities like Buraha, Bonirao, Songragma, Jampira, Lampra, etc.
Hojagiri folk dance of the Reang clan had achieved an unprecedented acclaim all over the world.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/india/reang-tribe-language-tripura-govt-9686640/
Consider the following statements regarding the Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD):
1.It is a viral haemorrhagic disease mostly found in southern India.
- It is mainly transmitted to humans through the bite of infected mosquitoes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Chikkamagaluru District health officials are on high alert to prevent Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD), also known as monkey fever, in the district.
About Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD):
KFD, also referred to as Monkey Fever, is a tick-borne viral haemorrhagic disease mostly found in southern India.
The disease was first reported from the Kyasanur Forest of Karnataka in India in 1957; hence, it is known as Kyasanur Forest disease (KFD).
The causal agent, Kyasanur Forest Disease Virus (family Flaviviridae, genus Flavivirus), is a member of the tick-borne encephalitis (TBE) complex.
Transmission:
It is transmitted by a range of tick species, with Haemophysalis spinigera being considered the principal vector.
A wide range of small rodents, monkeys, and birds are thought to play a role in KFD virus transmission.
Transmission to humans may occur after a tick bite or contact with an infected animal, most importantly a sick or recently dead monkey.
No person-to-person transmission has been established yet.
The epidemic period usually begins in October or November and peaks from January to April, then declines by May and June.
Symptoms: Sudden onset of high-grade fever, prostration, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and occasionally neurological and haemorrhagic manifestations.
Between 5 and 10% of people who are known to be affected by KFD die.
Treatment:
There is no specific cure for KFD.
Supportive care is crucial, including fluid balance, providing oxygen, managing blood pressure, and treating additional infections.
Vaccine: A vaccine for KFD is available and recommended in the parts of India where KFD is found.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/mysuru/chikkamagaluru-takes-action-against-kyasanur-forest-disease-outbreak/articleshow/115598975.cms
What is the primary characteristic of antlion larvae?
They build cone-shaped pits to trap ants and other insects.
Explanation :
Researchers recently spotted a large-sized adult antlion, Palpares contrarius, that resembles a dragonfly for the first time in Tamil Nadu on the Madras Christian College (MCC) campus.
About Antlions:
Antlions are insects belonging to the order Neuroptera. They are classified in the family Myrmeliontidae.
They are named for the predatory nature of the larvae, which commonly trap ants and other small insects in pits dug into the ground.
Antlions are found throughout the world, primarily in dry, sandy regions.
It is very difficult to spot them during the day and can be spotted at night near illuminated spots.
Features:
Adult antlions resemble damselflies, but they have softer bodies, a lacy wing pattern, and long clubbed antennae.
The bodies of antlions are long and slender and grayish in color.
The wings are generally clear, but some species have spots on their wings.
Antlions are weak fliers and can be found at night near lights.
They come in various shapes and sizes, with larvae typically measuring from a few millimeters to several centimeters, depending on the species.
Antlion larvae have rounded bodies with long sickle-shaped jaws. The larvae are found at the base of cone-shaped pits in sandy areas.
They usually remain in the larval stage for one to two years, depending on the species.
Once they pupate, they require up to one month to complete their development. Adult antlions survive for one to two months.
Antlions are harmless and cause no damage to flowers, people, or structures.
They are highly beneficial and feed on ants and other insects that fall into their traps.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/chennai/rare-antlion-species-discovered-in-tamil-nadu-resembles-dragonfly/articleshow/115633281.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Dongfeng-100 (DF-100), recently seen in the news:
- It is a Chinese supersonic cruise missile.
- It has a reported range of more than 8,000 kilometers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
China increased the range of its supersonic cruise missile DF-100, i.e., Dongfeng-100.
About Dongfeng-100 (DF-100):
Dongfeng-100, also known as Changjian-100 (CJ-100), is a Chinese supersonic cruise missile.
It was publicly introduced during China’s 70th National Day parade on October 1, 2019.
It is designed for precision strikes and features capabilities aimed at engaging a wide variety of targets, including land-based infrastructure, reinforced installations, underground bunkers, and large warships.
Features:
The missile is a land-based system with a range reportedly between 3,000 and 4,000 kilometers.
10×10 transporter erector launchers are used to launch it. But it can also be launched from a bomber.
It has a length exceeding 9 meters, a projectile diameter ranging between 0.7 and 1 meter, and a payload capacity of over 500 kilograms.
The missile is powered by a ramjet engine and achieves speeds of Mach 5 during its terminal phase.
It boasts supersonic speeds throughout nearly all phases of its flight, enhancing the missile’s survivability and ability to penetrate air defenses.
This missile goes up to a height of 30 kilometers after launch, after which it turns towards the target.
Its guidance system includes inertial navigation, terrain matching, scene matching, and satellite positioning, providing high accuracy.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.india.com/news/world/china-enhances-range-of-its-killer-missile-can-now-hit-american-and-japanese-military-bases-in-its-name-is-7417997/
Consider the following statements regarding the CBSE Merit Scholarship Scheme for Single Girl Child:
- The applicant should be the single girl child of her parents and be an Indian national.
- Students who are selected for the scholarship will receive an amount of ₹500/- per month from class 6 to 12.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
In an official notification, the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has invited online applications for the single girl child merit scholarship scheme.
About CBSE Merit Scholarship Scheme for Single Girl Child:
It aims to provide scholarships to meritorious female students who are the only children of their parents and have passed the CBSE Class X examination with 60% or more marks and are continuing their further school education in Class XI and Class XII.
The scheme is aimed at recognizing the efforts of parents in promoting education among girls and to providing encouragement to meritorious students.
It provides financial aid every month to the selected students, so they can continue their higher education.
Eligibility Criteria:
The applicant should be the single girl child of her parents and be an Indian national.
To be eligible for the scholarship scheme, all single girl students must have 60 percent or more marks in the CBSE Class 10 Examination.
They should be studying Class 11 and 12 in CBSE-affiliated schools with tuition fees not exceeding Rs 1,500 per month.
NRI applicants of the Board are also eligible for the award. The tuition fee for the NRIs should be a maximum of Rs. 6,000/- per month.
Students with gross parental/family income up to Rs. 8 lakh per annum are eligible for scholarships under the scheme.
Scholarship amount:
Students who are selected for the scholarship will receive an amount of ₹500/- per month.
The amount is payable for a maximum period of two years. Payment will be made through ECS/NEFT.
Renewal options: Existing scholarship holders can renew their scholarship for Class XII if they secured 50% or more marks in their Class XI exams.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.news18.com/education-career/cbse-begins-application-process-single-girl-child-merit-scholarship-scheme-check-details-9131358.html
Kanhirapoil Megalithic site, recently in news, is located in:
Kerala
Explanation :
About Kanhirapoil Megalithic site:
It is located in the State of Kerala.
Major findings:
24 pairs of prehistoric footprints and a human figure have been found carved into rock on private property.
The carvings, made with iron tools, include footprints varying in size from six to ten inches, suggesting representations of both children and adults.
At the end of the footprints, a human figure has been intricately etched, accompanied by four circular pits around it.
These carvings bear similarities to prehistoric rock art found in Avalakki Pera in Udupi district in Karnataka.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/prehistoric-rock-cut-footprints-and-human-figure-unearthed-at-kanhirapoil/article68893518.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Guru Tegh Bahadur:
- He built the city of Anandpur Sahib near the Sutlej River in Punjab.
- He was the ninth Guru of the Sikh religion and contributed poetic hymns to Granth Sahib.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Guru Tegh Bahadur Martyrdom Day is observed every year on 24 November to honour the sacrifice of the ninth Sikh Guru.
Guru Teg Bahadur’s name earlier was Teyag Mal and he was the ninth of ten Gurus of the Sikh religion.
His father and the sixth Guru of Sikhs, Guru Hargobind Sahib (1595-1644) changed the name to Teg Bahadur.
He got his name from his fighting and sword skills on the battlefield.
He was known as Hind ki Chadar, or the ‘Shield of India.
Works
He built the city of Anandpur Sahib (in Rupnagar/Ropar district, on the edge of Shivalik Hills, near the Sutlej River, in Punjab). Here the last two Sikh Gurus lived and where Guru Gobind Singh founded the Khalsa Panth in 1699.
Religious work: He contributed more than 100 poetic hymns to Granth Sahib which cover various topics, such as the nature of God, human attachments, body, mind, dignity, service etc.
Diplomat: He was instrumental in the conciliation between Raja Bishan Singh and Raja Paranpal, thus avoiding a war.
Martyrdom:
He was first arrested by the Mughals on the orders of Aurangzeb in 1665.
He was publicly beheaded in 1675 on the orders of Mughal emperor Aurangzeb in Delhi.
His martyrdom is remembered as the Shaheedi Divas of Guru Tegh Bahadur every year on 24 November, according to the Nanakshahi calendar released by the Shiromani Gurdwara Parbandhak Committee in 2003.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/information/story/shaheedi-diwas-of-guru-tegh-bahadur-ji-all-you-need-to-know-2639141-2024-11-24
With reference to Methanol Poisoning, consider the following:
- It is a condition which arises when methanol is absorbed through the skin.
- It typically occurs when counterfeit alcohol contains ethanol which is converted into methanol after consuming.
- It damages optic nerves and other vital organs in humans.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, six tourists tragically lost their lives in Laos due to suspected methanol poisoning which has raised global alarm.
About methanol poisoning:
It is a serious and potentially life-threatening condition that arises when methanol—a type of alcohol widely used in industrial applications—is ingested, inhaled, or absorbed through the skin.
Methanol’s toxic effects emerge after the body metabolises it into harmful compounds like formaldehyde and formic acid.
These byproducts can wreak havoc on the nervous system, optic nerves, and other vital organs.
How does alcohol cause methanol poisoning?
It typically occurs when counterfeit or illicit alcohol, often containing methanol, is consumed instead of ethanol—the type of alcohol found in beverages.
In the body, methanol is metabolised by the liver enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase into formaldehyde and then into formic acid, both of which are toxic.
Methanol poisoning can indeed be fatal if left untreated. The toxic byproducts lead to complications.
Metabolic Acidosis: A dangerous drop in blood pH levels.
Optic Nerve Damage: Potentially resulting in partial or complete blindness.
Central Nervous System Depression: Causing confusion, coma, or death.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/lifestyle/health/methanol-poisoning-how-drinking-alcohol-cause-it-laos-deaths-9687404/
Consider the following statements regarding the Phytoplankton:
- It is a microscopic plant that plays a vital role in the marine food web.
- It blooms abundantly when there is availability of sunlight and nutrients in the marine waters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The research found that drought in southern Africa’s drylands had caused the strongest phytoplankton bloom in about 27 years, south-east Madagascar.
Phytoplanktons are microscopic plants, but they play a huge role in the marine food web.
Like plants on land, phytoplankton performs photosynthesis to convert the sun’s rays into energy to support them, and they take in carbon dioxide and produce oxygen.
Phytoplankton bloom:
Phytoplankton population explosion-blooms occur when sunlight and nutrients are abundantly available to the plants.
When light, nutrients and other conditions, such as temperature, are at the best level for phytoplankton, they can rapidly multiply and flourish. This leads to the development of phytoplankton bloom.
They grow and reproduce to a point where they are so dense that their presence changes the color of the water in which they live.
Blooms can be quick events that begin and end within a few days or they may last several weeks.
Ecological significance:
Phytoplankton is estimated to produce about 50 per cent of Earth’s oxygen.
They have a crucial role in the global carbon cycle.
They provide an essential food source for organisms like zooplanktons.
Just like land plants, they grow more in certain seasons.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/madagascars-huge-ocean-algae-bloom-was-caused-by-dust-from-drought-stricken-southern-africa
Narasapuram lace craft, recently secured Geographical Indication (GI) tag, is from:
Andhra Pradesh
Explanation :
The famous Narasapuram lace craft has bagged the prestigious Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
Narsapur is situated on the bank of Godavari River in the State of Andhra Pradesh.
It is believed that the women of the farming community of this region started creating highly attractive artefacts from colourful lace, about 150 years ago.
The craft has survived the Indian famine (1899) and the Great Depression (1929). By the early 1900s, above 2,000 women were involved in the craft in the Godavari region.
The lace work is done using thin threads and these are again woven with thin crochet needles of varying sizes.
Narsapur’s famed hand-made crochet industry produces doilies, pillow covers, cushion covers, bed spreads, table-runners, and table cloths etc
Many of these products are exported to markets in the US, UK, and France.
What is GI Tag?
Geographical Indications (GI tags) are signs used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess distinctive qualities, reputation, or characteristics attributable to that place of origin.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanchronicle.com/southern-states/andhra-pradesh/narsapur-lace-eighth-indian-product-to-secure-gi-tag-1840765
Samos Island, recently seen in the news, is a part of which country?
Greece
Explanation :
About Samos Island:
It is a Greek island located in the Eastern Aegean Sea.
It is one of the largest and most easterly Greek islands.
It lies close to the Turkish coasts. It is located just 1700m from the Asia Minor Turkish Coast.
The area of the island is 478 sq.km.
It is characterized by steep mountain ranges, sandy beaches, azure sea water, olive groves, and green pine forests.
Mount Kerketeus, the highest peak (1,433 metres), forms the western tip of the island.
Climate: It has a Mediterranean climate with long, hot summers and relatively short, mild winters.
It is home to the Pythagoreion and the Heraion of Samos, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, which includes the Eupalin Aqueduct, a marvel of ancient engineering.
Samos is the birthplace of the Greek philosopher and mathematician Pythagoras, for whom the Pythagorean theorem is named.
It is also the birthplace ofthe famous astronomer of ancient times, Aristarchus, who first suggested a heliocentric solar system at 500 B.C.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.devdiscourse.com/article/law-order/3170343-tragedy-at-sea-migrant-boat-sinks-near-samos
Consider the following statements regarding the Gelephu Mindfulness City (GMC), recently seen in the news:
- It is an innovative urban development project that integrates economic growth with mindfulness, holistic living, and sustainability.
- It is located in the south-central part of Bhutan along the border with India in Assam.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
About Gelephu Mindfulness City (GMC):
It is an innovative urban development project that integrates economic growth with mindfulness, holistic living, and sustainability.
The GMC project has been envisioned by the King of Bhutan, Jigme Khesar Namgyel Wangchuck.
It is located in the south-central part of Bhutan and covers over 2500 square kilometers (bigger than Singapore).
It is a first-of-its-kind Special Administrative Region (SAR) in Bhutan.
It would directly benefit India in many ways since this city has been purposely placed along the border with India in Assam.
Features of GMC:
The city will be built around a series of inhabitable bridges.
It is expected to be a low-rise city which will have its own university and health care facilities for both western and traditional medicine.
The planned city will have eleven “ribbonlike neighborhoods” that incorporate the area’s 35 rivers and streams.
Neighborhoodswill be designed like mandalas, with repeated patterns organized around a central public space.
The city will have its own international airport.
It will also have several markets and spiritual centres.
To protect against flooding, paddy fields will be built along the rivers, “forming urban terraces that cascade down from the hills to the valley,”.
It will have its own government and have the independence to have its ownlawmaking, as well as an independent judiciary.
The GMC will have two protected areas - a national park and a wildlife sanctuary.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/as-india-inaugurates-global-co-operatives-alliance-bhutan-pitches-gelephu-as-biggest-co-operative-project/article68911123.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Pterosaurs:
- They were the first reptiles capable of flight.
- They are direct ancestors of modern birds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
About Pterosaurs:
Pterosaurs were highly successful flying reptiles that flourished during all periods (Triassic, Jurassic, and Cretaceous) of the Mesozoic Era (252.2 million to 66 million years ago).
Pterosaurs were not only the first reptiles capable of flight; they were also the first vertebrates to fly, a feat they accomplished by using strong forelegs to launch their bodies into the air.
Pterosaurs are not dinosaurs. Both are archosaurs, also called “ruling reptiles,” a group to which birds and crocodiles also belong.
It included the largest vertebrate ever known to fly: the late Cretaceous Quetzalcoatlus.
Pterosaurs are not closely related to either birds or bats and thus provide a classic example of convergent evolution.
They went extinct at the end of the Cretaceous period, around 65.5 million years ago, during the mass extinction known as the Cretaceous-Tertiary extinction event.
When the pterosaurs disappeared, their role as the dominant vertebrates in the skies was taken over by the birds, which are considered to be of dinosaur ancestry.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.sci.news/paleontology/nipponopterus-mifunensis-13453.html
26 November is celeberated as Constitution Day for which of the following reasons?
A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar presented the Draft Constitution before the Constituent Assembly on this day B. It was the day on which the Constituent Assembly held its final session C. The Constitution of India was adoted on this day D. The Constitution of India came into effect on this day
The Constitution of India was adoted on this day
Explanation :
About Constitution Day:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar presented the Draft Constitution before the Constituent Assembly on 4 November 1948.
Constitution Day, also known as Samvidhan Divas, is celebrated every year on November 26 to commemorate the day the Constitution of India was adopted in 1949.
The Constituent Assembly held its final session on 24 January 1950.
It finally came into effect on January 26, 1950, on which Republic Day is celeberated.
In 2015, under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, the government designated November 26 as Constitution Day to promote constitutional values and coincide with Ambedkar’s 125th birth anniversary. Before this, the day was celebrated as Law Day.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/constitution-day-parliament-samvidhan-divas-live-updates-november-26-2024/article68912733.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM):
- It is a flagship initiative set up by the Ministry of Science and Technology.
- It aims to create and encourage an environment of innovation and entrepreneurship across schools, educational organisations, research institutes and industries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Union Cabinet recently approved the continuation of its flagship Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), under NITI Aayog, with an allocation of ₹2,750 crore until March 31, 2028.
About Atal Innovation Mission (AIM):
AIM is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog in 2016 with an objective to create and encourage an environment of innovation and entrepreneurship across schools, educational organisations, research institutes, and industries, including MSMEs.
AIM has two functions:
Promote entrepreneurship by encouraging innovators to become entrepreneurs through financial support as well as mentorship.
Promote innovation by creating a platform where ideas are generated through like-minded individuals.
AIM has created four programs to support these functions:
Atal Tinkering Labs
Atal Incubation Centres
Atal New India Challenges and Atal Grand Challenges
Mentor India
Apart from these programs, AIM also seeks and collaborates with academia, industries, NGOs, and individuals to enable an atmosphere of innovation.
All the initiatives of AIM are currently monitored and managed systematically using real-time MIS systems and dynamic dashboards.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/continuation-of-atal-innovation-mission-approved-101732561454747.html
PAN 2.0 Project, recently in news, is a:
a project initited by the Income Tax Department of India
Explanation :
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), chaired by the Prime Minister has given its approval for the PAN 2.0 Project.
About PAN 2.0:
It is an e-Governance project for re-engineering the business processes of taxpayer registration services through technology driven transformation of PAN/TAN services for enhanced digital experience of the taxpayers.
This will be an upgrade of the current PAN/TAN 1.0 eco-system consolidating the core and non-core PAN/TAN activities as well as PAN validation service.
It is a project of the Income Tax Department.
The PAN 2.0 Project enables technology driven transformation of Taxpayer registration services and has significant benefits including:
Ease of access and speedy service delivery with improved quality;
Single Source of Truth and data consistency
Eco-friendly processes and cost optimization; and
Security and optimization of infrastructure for greater agility.
The PAN 2.0 Project resonates with the vision of the Government enshrined in Digital India by enabling the use of PAN as Common Identifier for all digital systems of specified government agencies.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2077104
Consider the following statements regarding the National Gopal Ratna Award:
- It is distributed in the field of livestock and dairy sector in India.
- It is given on the occasion of National Milk Day.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying (DAHD) declared the winners of the National Gopal Ratna Awards (NGRA) for the year 2024.
About National Gopal Ratna Awards:
It is one of the highest National Awards in the field of livestock and dairy sector.
These awards will be given on the occasion of National Milk Day celebrations.
Objective
The National Gopal Ratna Awards are conferred with an objective to recognize and encourage all individuals like Farmers rearing indigenous animals, AI Technicians and Dairy cooperative societies/Milk Producer Company/Dairy farmers Producers Organizations working in the sector of animal husbandry and dairying.
The Award is conferred in three categories, namely,
Best Dairy Farmer Rearing Indigenous Cattle/buffalo Breeds,
Best Artificial Insemination Technician (AIT) and
Best Dairy Cooperative/ Milk Producer Company/ Dairy Farmer Producer Organization.
From this year onwards, the Department has incorporated a Special award for North Eastern Region (NER) States, in all the three categories under National Gopal Ratna Awards, so as to encourage and boost the dairy development activities in NER.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2076431
With reference to One Nation One Subscription scheme, consider the following:
- It is a Central Sector Scheme launched to enhance the research and development facilities in India.
- It provides country-wide access to scholarly research articles and journal publication.
- Under this scheme, subscription is coordinated by the Department of Higher Education of the Union Ministry of Education.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the union cabinet has approved One Nation One Subscription scheme.
It is a new Central Sector Scheme for providing country-wide access to scholarly research articles and journal publication.
The scheme will be administered through a simple, user friendly and fully digital process.
This will be a “One Nation One Subscription” facility for the government higher education institutions and R&D laboratories of the central government.
This will supplement the ANRF initiative to promote research and development and foster a culture of research and innovation throughout government universities, colleges, research institutions, and R&D laboratories.
The benefits of One Nation One Subscription scheme will be provided to all Higher Educational Institutions under the management of the Central or State Government and Research & Development Institutions of the Central Government, through a national subscription coordinated by a central agency, namely the Information and Library Network (INFLIBNET), an autonomous inter-university centre of the University Grants Commission (UGC).
The Department of Higher Education will have a unified portal “One Nation One Subscription” through which the institutions will be able to access the journals.
The Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) will periodically review the usage of One Nation One Subscription and publications of Indian authors of these institutions.
Funding: A total of about Rs.6,000 crore has been allocated for One Nation One Subscription for 3 calendar years, 2025, 2026 and 2027 as a new Central Sector Scheme.
Significance:
It will build on and further enhance the scope and reach of the range of initiatives undertaken by the Government of India over the past decade in the domains of education, for maximizing access to quality higher education for the youth of India.
The initiative will expand access to scholarly journals to a vast diaspora of students, faculty, researchers and scientists of all disciplines, including those in tier 2 and tier 3 cities, thereby promoting core as well as interdisciplinary research in the country.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2077097
Consider the following statements regarding Rajaraja Chola I:
- He built the Brihadisvara Temple in Thanjavur which is dedicated to Lord Shiva.
- He launched naval campaign and captured Sumatra.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The birth anniversary of the legendary Chola emperor Raja Raja Chola I is celebrated every year during the Sadhaya Vizha in Thanjavur of Tamil Nadu.
He was born as Arulmozhi Varman in 947 CE, he rose to become one of history’s most illustrious and visionary rulers.
He was revered as Raja Raja the Great, he inherited the legacy of his ancestors and crafted an empire that flourished both militarily and culturally.
Reign: Raja Raja’s reign, from 985 to 1014 CE, was marked by military prowess and profound administrative vision.
Military Conquest:
During his reign, the Cholas expanded beyond South India with their domains stretching from Sri Lanka in the south to Kalinga in the north.
Raja Raja Chola also launched several naval campaigns that resulted in the capture of the Malabar Coast as well as the Maldives and Sri Lanka. His son, Rajendra I captured Sumatra.
Titles:
After the defeat of the Pandyas by him he took the title Pandya Kulashani meaning a thunderbolt to the race of the Pandyas.
He also adopted the title of Mummudi Chola means the Chola who wears the three crowns.
In 1010, Raja Raja built the Brihadisvara Temple in Thanjavur dedicated to Lord Shiva.
The temple and the capital acted as a center of both religious and economic activity.
During his reign, the texts of the Tamil poets Appar, Sambandar and Sundarar were collected and edited into one compilation called Thirumurai.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/news-in-frames-a-mighty-king-remembered/article68904976.ece
With reference to the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) Scheme, consider the following:
- It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare.
- Under this, Model Demonstration Farms will be established at Krishi Vigyan Kendras.
- It provides certification system and dedicated common branding to provide access to market their natural farming produce.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister of India approved the launching of the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) Scheme.
It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare.
It has been launched to promote natural farming in mission mode across the country as a standalone scheme.
It aims at promoting NF practices for providing safe & nutritious food for all.
The Mission is designed to support farmers to reduce input cost of cultivation and dependency to externally purchased inputs.
Features
In the next two years, NMNF will be implemented in 15,000 clusters in Gram Panchayats, which are willing, & reach 1 crore farmers and initiate Natural Farming (NF) in 7.5 lakh Ha area.
Preference will be given to areas having prevalence of practising NF farmers, SRLM / PACS / FPOs, etc.
Further, need-based 10,000 Bio-input Resource Centres (BRCs) will be set-up to provide easy availability and accessibility to ready-to-use NF inputs for farmers.
Under NMNF, around 2000 NF Model Demonstration Farms shall be established at Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs), Agricultural Universities (AUs) and farmers’ fields, and shall be supported by experienced and trained Farmer Master Trainers.
The willing farmers will be trained in Model Demonstration Farms on the NF package of practices, preparation of NF inputs, etc. near their villages in KVKs, Agricultural Universities and practising NF farmers’ fields. 18.75 lakh trained willing farmers will prepare inputs like Jeevamrit, Beejamrit, etc. by using their livestock or procure from BRCs. 30,000 Krishi Sakhis/ CRPs will be deployed for awareness generation, mobilisation and handholding of willing farmers in the clusters.
Farmers will be provided with an easy simple certification system and dedicated common branding to provide access to market their natural farming produce. Real time geo-tagged & referenced monitoring of NMNF implementation shall be done through an online portal.
Convergence with existing schemes and support structures of Government of India/ State Governments/ National & International Organisations shall be explored for enhancing local livestock population, development of NF Model Demonstration Farms at Central Cattle Breeding Farms/ Regional Fodder Stations, provide market linkages at district/ block/ GP levels through convergence for local farmers’ markets, APMC (Agricultural Produce Market Committee) Mandis, Haats, Depots, etc.
Additionally, students will be engaged in NMNF through the RAWE program and dedicated Undergraduate, Postgraduate & Diploma courses on NF.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2077094
Consider the following statements regarding the Pennaiyar River:
- It is a major river in southern India, flowing through Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.
- It is one of the largest west-flowing rivers which empties into the Arabian Sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently asked the Union government to place on record the report prepared by a committee negotiating a dispute between Tamil Nadu and Karnataka over the sharing of the Pennaiyar river water.
About Pennaiyar River:
It is a major river in southern India, flowing through Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.
It is also known as the South Pennar River, Dakshina Pinakini in Kannada, and Thenpennai, Ponnaiyar, in Tamil.
Course:
Origin: It originates in the Nandi Hills in the Chikkaballapura district of Karnataka.
It then flows southward for 80 km through Karnataka to northwestern Tamil Nadu, where it turns southeastward and flows 320 km to enter the Bay of Bengal at Cuddalore, Tamil Nadu.
The basin is bounded on the northwest and south by various ranges of the Eastern Ghats, like the Velikonda Range, the Nagari Hills, the Javadu Hills, the Shevaroy Hills, the Chitteri Hills and the Kalrayan Hills, and in the east by the Bay of Bengal.
It drains an area of 16,019 sq.km., out of which nearly 77 percent lies in Tamil Nadu.
Major tributaries are the Chinnar, Markanda, Vaniar, and Pamban.
The only major metropolitan city in the catchment is Bengaluru, which also happens to be the biggest polluter of the river.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/sc-seeks-report-on-dispute-between-tamil-nadu-karnataka-over-sharing-of-pennaiyar-river-water/article68915111.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI):
- It is a regulatory body under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
- It is mandatory for all TV advertisements in India to follow ASCI codes for self-regulation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI) released its Half-Yearly Complaints Report for 2024-25, revealing a high number of misleading and illegal ads, particularly in real estate and offshore betting.
About Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI):
It is a voluntary self-regulatory organization of the advertising industry in India.
Established in 1985, ASCI is registered as a non-profit company under Section 25 of the Company Act.
ASCI is committed to the cause of self-regulation in advertising, ensuring the protection of the interests of consumers.
ASCI seeks to ensure that advertisements conform to its Code for Self-Regulation, which requires advertisements to be legal, decent, honest, and truthful and not hazardous or harmful while observing fairness in competition.
It is mandatory for all new TV advertisements in India to comply with the Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI) codes and include a self-declaration certificate (SDC) starting June 18, 2024.
ASCI looks into complaints across all media, such as Print, TV, Radio, hoardings, SMS, Emailers, Internet/web-site, product packaging, brochures, promotional material, and point of sale material, etc.
Structure:
A Board of Governors, which includes 16 members drawn from prominent businesses, media agencies, and advertisers, among others.
The Consumer Complaints Council (CCC), a body that investigates complaints and decides whether advertisements adhere to the Advertisement Standards Council of India Code.
A Secretariat, headed by the Secretary General, oversees the day-to-day operations of the organisation.
While ASCI is not a government body, its role has been widely acknowledged, and in 2006, the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting issued a mandate requiring all TV advertisements in India to follow ASCI’s codes.
ASCI is a part of the Executive Committee of the International Council on Ad Self-Regulation (ICAS).
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://brandequity.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/advertising/real-estate-and-betting-top-asci-half-yearly-complaints/115696330
Raimona National Park lies in which State?
Assam
Explanation :
Personnel of the Assam Forest Department and Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) recently arrested three poachers from the Raimona National Park in Kokrajhar.
About Raimona National Park:
It is located along the Indo-Bhutan border in Kokrajhar district in the Bodoland Territorial Region (BTR), Assam.
It was declared a national park on June 5, 2021.
It shares contiguous forest patches of Phibsoo Wildlife Sanctuary and Jigme Singye Wangchuck National Park in Bhutan, creating a trans-boundary conservation landscape of more than 2,400 sq km.
Rivers: The Sonkosh River runs beside the west of the park and the Saralbhanga River on the eastern part.
Vegetation: It includes as many as twelve different types and sub-types of forests ranging from very moist sal forests, sub-Himalayan high alluvial semi-evergreen forests, savannah forests, moist-mixed deciduous forests, riparian fringing forests, to khoir-sisoo forests.
Flora: This park flourishes with myriads of orchid species, other tropical rainforest species, and riverine grasslands.
Fauna:
The park is famous for its endemic species, golden langur, which has been named the mascot of the Bodoland region.
It is also inhabited by various other species, such as elephants, Bengal tiger, wild bison, white-spotted deer, clouded leopard and wild buffalo.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/three-poachers-arrested-assam-rai-mona-national-park-kokrajhar-leopard-skin-flesh-seized-2638565-2024-11-23
Consider the following statements regarding the International Pathogen Surveillance Network (IPSN), recently seen in the news:
- It is a public health network to prevent and detect infectious disease threats before they become epidemics or pandemics.
- It relies on insights generated from pathogen genomics which helps analyze the genetic material of disease-causing micro-organisms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The International Pathogen Surveillance Network recently announced the first round of grants towards understanding disease threats.
About International Pathogen Surveillance Network (IPSN):
It is a public health network to prevent and detect infectious disease threats before they become epidemics or pandemics.
The IPSN, with a Secretariat hosted by the World Health Organization (WHO) Hub for Pandemic and Epidemic Intelligence, brings together experts worldwide at the cutting-edge of genomics and data analytics, from governments, philanthropic foundations, multilateral organizations, civil society, academia, and the private sector.
All share a common goal: to detect and respond to disease threats before they become epidemics and pandemics, and to optimize routine disease surveillance.
IPSN will rely on insights generated from pathogen genomics, which helps analyze the genetic material of viruses, bacteria, and other disease-causing micro-organisms to determine how they spread and how infectious or deadly they may be.
Using these data, researchers can identify and track diseases to improve outbreak prevention, response, and treatments.
Members will work together in dedicated groups focusing on specific challenges, supported by funding through the IPSN to scaleup ideas and projects in pathogen genomics.
By strengthening the pathogen genomic surveillance ecosystem, the IPSN enables faster detection of new pathogens and enhanced tracking of the spread and evolution of diseases.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/international-pathogen-surveillance-network-announces-first-round-of-grants-towards-understanding-disease-threats/article68915390.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act, 1991:
- It is a law to prohibit the conversion of any place of worship and maintain its religious character as it existed on 15 August 1947.
- It does not apply to an ancient and historical monument, or an archaeological site covered by the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The recent riots in Sambhal in Uttar Pradesh once again question whether the Places of Worship Act, 1991, passed to prevent exactly such communal conflagrations, is as good as dead.
About Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act, 1991:
It is described as “An Act to prohibit conversion of any place of worship and to provide for the maintenance of the religious character of any place of worship as it existed on the 15th day of August 1947, and for matters connected there with or incidental thereto.”
No person can convert any place of worship of any religious denomination or any section thereof into a place of worship of a different section of the same religious denomination or of a different religious denomination.
The Act also prohibits court intervention in problems concerning the religious nature of such places.
Exemption:
The disputed site at Ayodhya was exempted from the Act. Due to this exemption, the trial in the Ayodhya case proceeded even after the enforcement of this law.
Besides the Ayodhya dispute, the Act also exempted:
Any place of worship which is an ancient and historical monument, or an archaeological site covered by the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958.
A suit that has been finally settled or disposed of.
Any dispute that has been settled by the parties or conversion of any place that took place by acquiescence before the Act commenced.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/explained-places-of-worship-act-1991-is-as-good-as-dead/articleshow/112277803.cms
Black thrips, recently in news, is a/an:
invasive pest species
Explanation :
About Black thrips:
It is an invasive pest species.
It was first reported in India in 2015 on Papaya.
These insects lacerate the tender leaves and flowers before consuming the tissues. Lacerations, especially of the flower, impair fruit formation.
It is polyphagous, i.e., it can feed on different plant species.
It feeds on tender flowers, causes large scale shedding of flowers, stunting and malformation of fruits and fruit drop in chilli, leading to severe yield loss.
In addition to chilli, it damages crops such as cotton, bell pepper, red and black grams, mango, watermelon, and others.
From 2015, the pest has been found feeding on both agriculture, horticulture and ornamental crops and widely distributed across Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Karnataka, Kerala, Maharashtra, Odisha and Tamil Nadu.
Reasons of its upsurge in India: Absence of natural enemies of this particular invasive pest in the area of invasion for natural control of the pest species and excessive use of chemical pesticides and staggered plantings also might be the reasons for their outbreak.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/chilli-crop-in-karnatakas-ballari-region-under-black-thrips-attack-again/article68910794.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Dunlin:
- It is a small shorebird which breeds in the arctic and subarctic regions during summer season.
- It is categorized as Near Threatened species under the IUCN Red list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Dunlin was among the 192 avian species spotted during the recently held Kochi edition of the Kerala Bird Race.
It is a small shorebird with a droopy bill and is a fully migratory circumpolar breeder.
Appearance:
Dunlins are a medium-sized sandpiper with a slightly down-curved black bill.
Unique feature: During the summer breeding season, they have a large black belly spot and orange feathers on their back and in winter and nonbreeding season, they are all white with a gray back and head.
A group of Dunlin is known as a “flight,” “fling,” or “trip.”
Habitat: During the breeding season, they live in coastal tundra areas. In the winter, they live along mudflats, estuaries, marshes and coastlines.
They spend the summer breeding season in the arctic and subarctic regions, and winter along both coasts of the United States and Mexico.
Diet: Insects form the main part of the Dunlin’s diet on the nesting grounds; they eat mollusks, worms, and crustaceans during the winter and on migration.
Conservation status
IUCN: Near threatened
Threats: It is threatened by habitat loss caused by wetland draining, global warming, and invasive plants, particularly at migration staging and wintering areas.
It is also vulnerable to avian influenza.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Kochi/dunlin-a-near-threatened-species-spotted-during-kerala-bird-race/article68906263.ece
With reference to Global Matchmaking Platform, consider the following:
- It is designed to fast-track the decarbonisation of heavy-emitting industries in emerging and developing economies.
- It was conceptualized during the 28th United Nations Climate Change conference (COP28).
- Its secretariat is hosted by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) and the Climate Club launched the Global Matchmaking Platform (GMP).
It is designed to fast-track the decarbonisation of heavy-emitting industries in emerging and developing economies.
The idea of the Global Matchmaking Platform was born in December 2023 at the 28th United Nations Climate Change conference (COP28), with the launch of the Climate Club.
It connects country-specific needs with global technical and financial assistance to reduce emissions in energy and emissions-intensive industrial sectors.
It connects countries with a network of delivery partners, offering comprehensive technical and financial support for industrial decarbonization efforts.
These partners assist nations in key areas such as policy development, the transfer of innovative technologies, and facilitating investments to drive the transition to zero and low-emission industrial practices including assistance for enhancing the emissions goals.
This mechanism allows countries to tailor their decarbonization pathways while streamlining access to guidance and resources provided by partner organizations to achieve deep emissions reductions.
The GMP for industry decarbonisation is being built as a support mechanism of the Climate Club, with the secretariat hosted by the UNIDO.
Its activities are also supported by the Climate Club interim Secretariat jointly hosted by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) and the International Energy Agency (IEA).
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/climate-change/cop29-climate-club-launches-global-matchmaking-platform-for-ind
With reference to Design Law Treaty, consider the following:
- It harmonizes the procedural frameworks for industrial design protection.
- It provides for a grace period of 12 months following a first disclosure of the design.
- India has signed the final act of this treaty.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
After nearly two decades of negotiations, the member states of the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) adopted the landmark Design Law Treaty (DLT).
It seeks to harmonize the procedural frameworks for industrial design protection, improving the efficiency and accessibility of registration processes across multiple jurisdictions.
The treaty requires 15 contracting parties to enter into force.
Key features:
It provides for a grace period of 12 months following a first disclosure of the design, during which such disclosure will not affect its validity for registration.
It provides relief measures and offer some flexibility to applicants to prevent them from losing their rights if they miss a deadline.
Simplified Renewal Process: Simplifies the procedure for requesting the renewal of a design registration.
E-filing Systems: Promotes the introduction of e-filing systems for designs and the electronic exchange of priority documents.
Technical Assistance: Ensures the availability of technical assistance to developing and least developed countries for the implementation of the treaty.
Benefits:
Its goal is to ensure that the benefits of streamlined design protection are accessible to all stakeholders, with particular emphasis on small and medium-sized enterprises (SMEs), startups, and independent designers.
By standardizing procedural requirements, the DLT reduces administrative burdens, thereby promoting global creativity in design.
When combined with initiatives like the Startup India program and the Startups Intellectual Property Protection (SIPP) scheme, these provisions will help empower startups and SMEs to secure design rights globally, boosting their competitiveness and supporting market growth.
India recently signed the final act of this treaty.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2077272
With reference to Sjogren’s disease, consider the following:
- It is an autoimmune condition which targets the body’s moisture-producing glands.
- It is more common in men than in women.
- It can be treated by managing dryness with salivary stimulants and substitutes.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Experts say that Sjogren’s disease in India is a silent epidemic, underdiagnosed and poorly understood.
It is a chronic disorder in which the immune system mistakenly targets the body’s moisture-producing glands.
It is an under-recognised autoimmune condition that often remains undiagnosed for years.
Prevalence: It is roughly 10 times more common in women than in men and usually manifests in the 30s and 40s, although it can appear at any age, even in children.
Symptoms:
The most common complaints are dry eyes and dry mouth, which can severely impact quality of life.
Dry eyes may feel gritty, especially on awakening and during prolonged screen use, while dry mouth can lead to difficulty in swallowing and a significantly increased risk of dental problems.
Sjögren’s can present with joint pain, fatigue, and swelling in the salivary glands, making it a complex, multisystem disease
Treatment:
Treatment involves managing dryness with salivary stimulants and substitutes, and lifestyle adjustments. For systemic symptoms, immunosuppressive medications are used.
Patients need to avoid triggers like air conditioning and excessive screen time.
Sunglasses with UV protection and frequent use of gel-based lubricating drops can make a significant difference
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/explained-what-is-sj%C3%B6grens-disease-how-is-it-treated/article68908930.ece
In the context of evolution of Civil Services during the colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:
- Merit based modern Civil Service in India was introduced on the recommendations of Lord Macaulay’s Report of the Indian Civil Services.
- Indian Civil Service Examination began to be held in India only after independence.
- Federal Public Service Commission was established under the Government of India Act, 1919.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Civil Servants for the East India Company used to be nominated by the Directors of the Company and thereafter trained at Haileybury College in London and then sent to India. Following Lord Macaulay’s Report of the Select Committee of British Parliament, the concept of a merit-based modern Civil Service in India was introduced in 1854. The Report recommended that patronage-based system of East India Company should be replaced by a permanent Civil Service based on a merit-based system with entry through competitive examinations. For this purpose, a Civil Service Commission was set up in 1854 in London and competitive examinations were started in 1855. So, statement 1 is correct.
Initially, the examinations for Indian Civil Service were conducted only in London. The maximum age was 23 years and the minimum age was 18 years. The syllabus was designed such that European Classics had a predominant share of marks. All this made it difficult for Indian candidates. Nevertheless, in 1864, the first Indian, Shri Satyendranath Tagore, brother of Shri Rabindaranath Tagore succeeded. Three years later 4 other Indians succeeded. Throughout the next 50 years, Indians petitioned for simultaneous examinations to be held in India without success because the British Government did not want many Indians to succeed and enter the ICS. It was only after the First World War and the Montagu Chelmsford reforms that this was agreed to. From 1922 onwards the Indian Civil Service Examination began to be held in India also, first in Allahabad and later in Delhi with the setting up of the Federal Public Service Commission. The Examination in London continued to be conducted by the Civil Service Commission. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Government of India Act, 1919 provided for the establishment in India of a Public Service Commission which should “discharge, in regard to recruitment and control of the Public Services in India, such functions as may be assigned thereto by rules made by the Secretary of State in Council”. The Lee Commission, in their report in the year 1924, recommended that the statutory Public Service Commission contemplated by the Government of India Act, 1919 should be established without delay. Subsequent to the provisions of Section 96(C) of the Government of India Act, 1919 and the strong recommendations made by the Lee Commission in 1924 for the early establishment of a Public Service Commission, it was on October 1, 1926 that the Public Service Commission was set up in India for the first time.
Further, the Government of India Act, 1935 envisaged a Public Service Commission for the Federation and a Provincial Public Service Commission for each Province or group of Provinces. Therefore, in terms of the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935 and with its coming into effect on 1st April, 1937, the Public Service Commission became the Federal Public Service Commission. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The Hunter Commission mostly confined its recommendations to primary and secondary education. The commission— (i) emphasised that the state’s special care is required for extension and improvement of primary education, and that primary education should be imparted through vernacular. (ii) recommended transfer of control of primary education to newly set up district and municipal boards. (iii) recommended that secondary (High School) education should have two divisions—● literary—leading up to university. ● vocational—for commercial careers. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Saddler University Commission (1917-19): A separate board of secondary and intermediate education should be set up for administration and control of secondary and intermediate education. The School course should cover 12 years. Students should enter university after an intermediate stage (rather than matric) for a three-year degree course in university. This was done to (a) prepare students for the university stage; (b) relieve universities of a large number of below university standard students, and (c) provide collegiate education to those not planning to go through the university stage. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Hartog Committee (1929): Regarding women’s education, the committee recommended that the education of boys and girls should get equal importance; more primary schools for girls should be established; and the curriculum should include hygiene, home science, and music in secondary schools. Attention should also be given to the training of women for teaching jobs. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- Indian Councils Act of 1861 empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances without the concurrence of the legislative council in cases of emergency.
- Government of India Act of 1919 relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The portfolio system started by Lord Canning under the Indian Councils Act, 1861 was the beginning of the Cabinet system in India. Ordinance of the President can be traced back to Act of 1861 was also noteworthy because it empowered Viceroy (post the 1857 war, through the Act for Good Government of India, 1858, another post of Viceroy was created – Governor-General and Viceroy were the same individual acting in different capacities) to issue ordinances without any concurrence of the legislative council in cases of emergency and these ordinances were to have a life of six months. So, statement 1 is correct.
Government of India Act of 1919 or Montague-Chelmsford reforms, which initiated the process of demarcating and separating central and provincial subjects, a concept which is a vital part of the Indian Constitution in the form of the 7th schedule which classifies subjects into three lists (Union List, State List, and Concurrent List). So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
3 only
Explanation :
The Emperor Akbar classified the lands and fixed a different revenue to be paid by each.
Polaj is land which is annually cultivated for each crop in succession and is never allowed to lie fallow. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
Parauti is land left out of cultivation for a time that it may recover its strength. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Banjar is land uncultivated for five years or more. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
With reference to growth and expansion of East India Company in India, consider the following statements:
- Captain Hawkins was sent to the Jahangir’s court to obtain royal favors.
- The English opened the first factory in South India located at Masulipatnam in the year 1611.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
An English association or company to trade with the East was formed in 1599 under auspices of a group of merchants known as ‘Merchant adventures’. The company, known as the East India Company, was granted a royal charter and the exclusive privilege to trade in the East by Queen Elizabeth on December 31, 1600.
In 1608, it decided to open a factory at Surat on the west coast of India and sent captain Hawkins to Jahangir’s court to obtain royal favors. Consequently, the English company was given permission by a royal Farman to open factories at several places on the west coast. So, statement 1 is correct.
The English opened their first factory in the South at Masulipatnam in 1611. But they soon shifted the center of their activity to Madras, the lease of it was granted to them by the local Raja in 1639. The Raja authorized them to fortify the place, to administer it, and to coin money on condition of payment to him of half of the customs revenue of the port. Here the English built a small fort around their factory called Fort Saint George. So, statement 2 is correct.
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Bangaduta was a weekly newspaper founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy and Dwarakanath Tagore. It was published in 1882 in Calcutta in four languages which are English, Bengali, Persian and Hindi. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Paridasak is a weekly newspaper published by Bipin Chandra Pal at the age of 22 years in the year 1886. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
G.D Subramaniya Aiyar founded ‘The Hindu’ English newspaper as a weekly in the year 1878. He also founded the Tamil newspaper called as Swadesamitran in 1882. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
With reference to the development of education during British rule, consider the following statements:
- Raja Ram Mohan Roy protested against the government’s proposal to establish more Oriental Colleges in Bengal.
- Wood’s Dispatch discarded the importance of vernacular languages.
- The Hunter Education Commission recommended that primary instruction should be through the vernacular language.
- Macaulay’s Minute on Education favoured the revival of the indigenous educational system of Sanskrit.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Raja Ram Mohan Roy protested against the Government’s proposal to strengthen the Calcutta, Madras and Banaras Sanskrit College and establishment of more oriental colleges in Bengal. He wrote to Lord Amherst in 1823 that Sanskrit education could only be expected to load the minds of youth with grammatical niceties and metaphysical distinctions of life, which are of little or no practical use to their possessors or to society. So, statement 1 is correct.
Wood’s Dispatch (1854) declared that, for higher education, English was the most perfect medium of education. It also emphasised the importance of the vernacular languages, it was through the medium of vernacular language that European knowledge could infilter to the masses. It proposed the setting up of vernacular primary schools in the villages at the lowest stage, followed by Anglo-vernacular high schools and affiliated colleges at the district level. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Hunter Education Commission (1882) headed by William Hunter, emphasised the state’s special care for the extension and improvement of primary education. Primary instruction should be regarded as the instruction of the masses through the vernacular. So, statement 3 is correct.
Pressing his debate to westernise India, Thomas Macaulay (President, General Committee of Public Instruction), on February 2, 1835, circulated Minute on Education – a treatise that offered definitive reasons for why the East India Company and the British government should spend money on the provision of English language education, as well as the promotion of European learning, especially the sciences, in India. He advocated the substitution of western culture for the Indian and set as the aim of education the creation of a class of Indians who would be “Indian in blood and colour but English in tastes, in opinions, in morals in intellect”. He recommended English as a proper medium of higher education; questioned the usefulness of oriental languages and literature and considered expenditure on them as wasteful. His Minute on education sought to withdraw the encouragement that had been provided under Hastings to the Vernaculars and Sanskrit. William Bentinck approved Macaulay’s Minute and rejected the proposals of Adam who had been appointed by Bentinck himself to make a survey of indigenous education of some districts of Bengal and Bihar. Adam in his third report had favoured the revival of the indigenous educational system. Though he wanted European knowledge to be the chief subject of instruction, he proposed that the medium of instruction should be the vernaculars and not English. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Charter Act of 1833:
- The East India company’s monopoly over trade with China and in tea ended.
- The law member became a full member of the Governor-General Executive Council.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Key features of ‘The Charter Act of 1833’:
The Company’s monopoly over trade with China and in tea ended. So, statement 1 is correct.
A law member was added to the governor-general’s council for professional advice on law-making. He became a full member under the Charter Act of 1853. So, statement 2 is not correct.
All restrictions on European immigration and the acquisition of property in India were lifted. Thus, the way was paved for the wholesale European colonisation of India.
The lease of 20 years to the Company was further extended. Territories of India were to be governed in the name of the Crown.
Indian laws were to be codified and consolidated.
In India, a financial, legislative and administrative centralisation of the government was envisaged.
1 and 3 only
As per the buddhist and jaina texts, there were 16 powerful states that flourished in the early 6th century BCE. They were two kinds of mahajanapadas—monarchies (rajyas) and non-monarchical states known as ganas or sangha.
The principality of the Vajji (Vrijji) was in eastern India, north of the Ganga, extending up to the Nepal hills. Most historians consider the Vajji a confederacy of eight or nine clans. Vaishali was both the capital of the Lichchhavis and of the Vajji confederacy, and is identified with modern Basarh in north Bihar. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Vatsa or Vamsa, south of the Ganga, was noted for its fine cotton textiles. Its capital was Kaushambi, identified with Kosam village on the right bank of the Yamuna. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
The principality of the Matsyas was located in the Jaipur area in Rajasthan, extending into the Alwar and Bharatpur areas as well. Their capital was Viratanagara (modern Bairat), named after Virata, founder of the kingdom. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
With reference to the Delhi sultanate, consider the following statements:
- Iqtedar’s post was transferable in nature.
- Kharaj was a hereditary land assignment given to members of the royal family.
- Khums was a tax levied on irrigation activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Under the iqta system, the land was divided into small tracts called iqta and given to administrative officers and nobles in lieu of the services they performed for the state. The holder of iqta was designated as Iqtedar or muqti. He was responsible for the collection of revenue from these territories and also worked as administrative head. They were supposed to retain the revenue equivalent to their personal pay as well as the salaries of troops employed by them. The surplus, if any, was to be deposited in the royal treasury.
Iqta was not hereditary and did not entitle the Muqti the right of ownership. They could be transferred and revoked by the Sultans. So, statement 1 is correct.
Kharāj was a type of individual Islamic tax on agricultural land and its produce developed under Islamic law. Originally, it was paid only by non-Muslims, whereas Muslims had to pay the ‘ushr – a religious tithe (i.e one tenth of the annual produce to religious authority). Eventually, however, the term kharaj comes to describe any tax paid to the Muslim authorities. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Khums represent a tax on the war spoils and looted immovable property. It was applied by Islamic rulers on infidels (Hindus, Jains, Buddhists). So, statement 3 is not correct.
With reference to reforms of Alauddin Khilji, consider the following statements:
- He paid the salaries by assigning a jagir.
- He introduced a scientific method of measurement of land.
- Jazia was imposed on non-Muslims.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Alauddin Khilji set up a strong central government and took up various administrative, military, revenue, military and economic reforms during his rule. His administrative reforms include the restriction on matrimonial relations among nobles and officers as well as the prohibition on secret meetings and parties etc. He prevented the interference of Ulemas in administration.
His military reforms include the maintenance of a strong and huge standing army to safeguard his empire. He introduced the system of branding horses (dagh). He abolished the Jagir system and paid the salaries of soldiers in cash. Ariz-i-Mumalik was in charge of the appointment of soldiers. So, statement 1 is not correct.
His revenue reforms include the introduction of a scientific method of measurement of land for the assessment of land revenue. He imposed heavy taxes on the Sardars, Jagidars and Ulemas. The post of a special officer called “Mustakhraj ‘’ was created to collect land revenue from peasants. So, statement 2 is correct.
Jazia was imposed on non-Muslims. They had to pay it along with other taxes like pilgrim tax, octroi etc. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Mauryan economy:
- There was a well-developed system of taxation as mentioned in Chanakya’s Arthashastra.
- The samaharta was the chief custodian of the state treasury and storehouse, and the sannhidata was the highest officer in charge of assessment.
- The collection of taxes, payment of officers, exchange etc. was facilitated by punch-marked silver coins.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
The Maurya period constitutes a landmark in the system of taxation in ancient India. Kautılya names many taxes to be collected from peasants, artisans and traders. This required a strong and efficient machinery for assessment, collection and storage. So, statement 1 is correct.
The samaharta was the highest officer in charge of assessment, and the sannhidata was the chief custodian of the state treasury and storehouse. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The punch-marked silver coins, which carry the symbols of the peacock, and the hill and crescent, formed the imperial currency of the Mauryas. They have been discovered in large numbers. Apparently, they contributed to the collection of taxes and payment of officers in cash. Further because of its uniformity the currency must have facilitated market exchange. So, statement 3 is correct.
With reference to Mauryan period, consider the following statements:
- Monumental stone sculpture appeared for the first time in the Indian subcontinent during this period.
- Sandstone pillars were made during Ashokan rule.
- This period saw the beginning of rock-cut architecture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The art of the Maurya period is linked to political ideology and religious practice. Many of the surviving remains of art and architecture were the direct result of the patronage of the Maurya kings, especially Ashoka, and fall within the category of ‘court art’.
The discoveries at the site of Dholavira indicate that the origins of monumental stone sculpture and architecture in the Indian subcontinent go back to the Harappan civilization. However, after the decline of that civilization, there is a long gap, and it is only in the Maurya period that monumental stone sculpture and architecture appear on the scene again. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Ashokan Pillars are made of sandstone quarried at Chunar. They are considered to be monoliths, that is, carved out of a single piece of stone. The pillars have a lustrous, polished surface. They do not have a base, and the plain, smooth circular shaft tapers slightly upwards to a height of 12–14 m. A cylindrical bolt joins the top of the shaft to the ‘capital’—a stone carved in the shape of an inverted lotus (often referred to as the ‘bell capital’). So, statement 2 is correct.
The Maurya period saw the beginning of rock-cut architecture. The Barabar and Nagarjuni hills contain several caves that were inhabited by ascetics in ancient times. Three caves in the Barabar hills have dedicatory inscriptions of Ashoka, and three in the Nagarjuni hills have inscriptions of his son Dasharatha. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following dynasties:
- Haryanka
- Brihadratha
- Nandas
- Shishunaga
Which of the following is the correct chronological order of their rule?
2-1-4-3
Explanation :
The above-mentioned dynasties, Haryanka, Brihadratha, Nandas and Shishunaga, dynasties ruled over the Magadha region before the Mauryan Period. The kingdom of Magadha roughly covered the modern Patna and Gaya districts of Bihar. The Puranas give lists of Magadhan kings, starting with Brihadratha. This dynasty came to an end in the 6th century BCE, making way for the Haryankas.
During the reign of Haryanka rulers (545-430 BCE), Bimbisara and Ajatasatru and Udayin, the prosperity of Magadha reached its zenith. Udayin’s successors were weak rulers and hence Magadha was captured by Shishunaga. Thus the Haryanka dynasty came to an end and the Shishunaga dynasty came to power ( 430-364 BCE).
Shisunaga defeated the king of Avanti which was made part of the Magadhan Empire. After Shishunaga, the mighty empire began to collapse. His successor was Kakavarman or Kalasoka. Kalasoka was killed by the founder of the Nanda dynasty (364-324 BCE). The fame of Magadha scaled new heights under the Nanda dynasty founded by Mahapadma Nanda.
Which of the following are part of 12 Jyotirlingas located in India?
- Kedarnath
- Omkareshwar
- Mahabaleshwar
- Pashupatinath
- Somnath
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 2 and 5 only
Explanation :
A Jyotirlinga is a shrine where Lord Shiva is worshipped in the form of a fiery column of light. ‘Jyoti’ means ‘radiance’ and Lingam, the Shiva Lingam-‘the mark or sign’ of the Almighty or the phallus symbol. Hence, Jyotirlinga means the radiant sign of the Almighty.
There are twelve traditional Jyotirlinga shrines in India. The 12 Jyotirlingas are Somnath in Gujarat, Mallikarjuna at Srisailam in Andhra Pradesh, Mahakaleswar at Ujjain in Madhya Pradesh, Omkareshwar in Madhya Pradesh, Kedarnath in Uttarakhand, Bhimashankar at Pune in Maharashtra, Viswanath at Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh, Trimbakeshwar at Nashik in Maharashtra, Baidyanathnath Temple in Deoghar District of Jharkhand, Aundha Nagnath at Aundha in Hingoli District in Maharashtra, Rameshwar at Rameshwaram in Tamil Nadu and Grushneshwar at Ellora near Aurangabad, in Maharashtra.
With reference to the Congress Seva Dal, consider the following statements:
- It was established at the Belgaum Session of the Indian National Congress in 1924.
- Subhash Chandra Bose was its first President and had Jawaharlal Nehru and Umabai Kundapur as its members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Congress Seva Dal is the grassroot frontal organisation of Indian National Congress (INC). The organisation has a chapter in all the states and union territories of the India and is present in over 700+ districts today.
On January 1, 1924 the Congress Seva Dal was established as the Hindustan Seva Mandal with Jawaharlal Nehru as its first president. So, statement 2 is not correct.
According to the resolution at Kakinada Session of the INC, the Dal was to work under the supervision of the Congress party’s working committee. Umabai Kundapur was the founding president of the women’s wing of the Dal. So, statement 1 is not correct.
During British rule, who among the following established the Provincial Government of India in Kabul, Afghanistan?
Raja Mahendra Pratap Singh
Explanation :
The Provisional Government of India was a provisional government-in-exile established in Kabul, Afghanistan on December 1, 1915, by Raja Mahendra Pratap Singh.
Its purpose was to gather support from the Afghan Amir as well as Russia, Germany, and Japan for India’s independence movement.
Raja Mahendra Pratap Singh declared himself as the President, and his fellow revolutionary Maulana Barkatullah of Bhopal, as the Prime Minister, of the Provisional Government.
Raja Mahendra Pratap Singh was more of a reformer who promoted education. He gave up his own residence in Mathura to be converted into a technical school named Prem Mahavidyalaya in 1909. It is said to have been the country’s first polytechnic.
Consider the following statements with reference to the conquest of India by the British:
- Battle of Wandiwash
- Battle of Ambur
- Battle of Plassey
What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
2-3-1
Explanation :
Second Carnatic War (1749-54) - Dupleix, the French governor who had successfully led the French forces in the First Carnatic War, sought to increase his power and French political influence in southern India by interfering in local dynastic disputes to defeat the English. The combined armies of Muzaffar Jang, Chanda Sahib and the French defeated and killed Anwarud-din at the Battle of Ambur (near Vellore) in 1749. Muzaffar Jang became the subahdar of Deccan, and Dupleix was appointed governor of all the Mughal territories to the south of the River Krishna.
The arrival of a strong force under the command of Robert Clive at Calcutta from Madras strengthened the English position in Bengal. Clive forged a secret alliance with the traitors of the nawab—Mir Jafar, Rai Durlabh, Jagat Seth (an influential banker of Bengal) and Omichand. Under the deal, Mir Jafar was to be made the nawab who in turn would reward the Company for its services. The secret alliance of the Company with the conspirators further strengthened the English position. So the English victory in the Battle of Plassey (June 23, 1757) was decided before the battle was even fought. The Battle of Plassey placed at the disposal of the English vast resources of Bengal. After Plassey, the English virtually monopolised the trade and commerce of Bengal.
Third Carnatic War (1758-63) - In 1758, the French army under Count de Lally captured the English forts of St. David and Vizianagaram. Now, the English became offensive and inflicted heavy losses on the French fleet under Admiral D’Ache at Masulipatnam. Battle of Wandiwash: The decisive battle of the Third Carnatic War, was won by the English on January 22, 1760 at Wandiwash (or Vandavasi) in Tamil Nadu. General Eyre Coote of the English totally routed the French army under Count Thomas Arthur de Lally and took Bussy as prisoner.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Battle of Plassey:
- It led to the monopolization of trade and commerce of Bengal.
- It was the result of disagreements over the Treaty of Allahabad.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Battle of Plassey: The arrival of a strong force under the command of Robert Clive at Calcutta from Madras strengthened the English position in Bengal. Clive forged a secret alliance with the traitors of the nawab—Mir Jafar, Rai Durlabh, Jagat Seth (an influential banker of Bengal) and Omichand. Under the deal, Mir Jafar was to be made the nawab who in turn would reward the Company for its services. The secret alliance of the Company with the conspirators further strengthened the English position. So the English victory in the Battle of Plassey (June 23, 1757) was decided before the battle was even fought. Due to the conspiracy of the nawab’s officials, the 50,000-strong force of Siraj was defeated by a handful of Clive’s forces. Siraj-ud-daula was captured and murdered by the order of Mir Jafar’s son, Miran. The Battle of Plassey was placed at the disposal of the English vast resources of Bengal. After Plassey, the English virtually monopolised the trade and commerce of Bengal. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Battle of Plassey had political significance for it laid the foundation of the British empire in India; it has been rightly regarded as the starting point of British rule in India. Also, it led to the signing of the Treaty of 1760 between Mir Kasim and the Company. Mir Kasim agreed to cede to the Company the districts of Burdwan, Midnapur and Chittagong. The Company would get half of the share in the chunam trade of Sylhet and so on. Treaty of Allahabad (1765) was concluded after the Battle of Buxar. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Civil Disobedience Movement:
- Assam witnessed a successful strike against the ‘Cunningham circular’ which proposed higher taxes for local tribes.
- A volunteer brigade ‘Khudai khidmatgars’ led the movement in the Peshawar region.
- Rani Gaidinliu revolted against the foreign rule in the north-eastern region of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Civil Disobedience Movement, also known as ‘Salt Satyagraha’, was launched by Gandhi in 1930 against British rule in India. While the civil disobedience of the salt law was the central theme, people resorted to other forms of upsurge across the country.
In Assam, ‘Cunningham Circular’ banned students’ participation in politics, forcing parents and students to furnish assurances of good behaviour. A student strike against it was seen in May 1930. So, statement 1 is not correct.
In Peshawar, Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan had organised a volunteer brigade ‘Khudai Khitmatgars’, who led the movement in a non-violent manner. So, statement 2 is correct.
At the young age of thirteen, Rani Gaidinliu, a Naga spiritual leader raised the banner of revolt against foreign rule among the Naga tribes. She urged the people not to pay taxes or work for the British. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements:
- Biological Oxygen Demand is a measure of the amount of oxidizable substances in a water sample that can lower Dissolved Oxygen (DO) concentrations.
- Introduction of excess fertilisers to a water body can lessen the amount of dissolved oxygen in it.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) represents the amount of oxygen consumed by bacteria and other microorganisms while they decompose organic matter under aerobic (oxygen is present) conditions at a specified temperature. The presence of a sufficient concentration of dissolved oxygen is critical to maintaining the aquatic life and aesthetic quality of streams and lakes. Determining how organic matter affects the concentration of dissolved oxygen (DO) in a stream or lake is integral to water- quality management. The decay of organic matter in water is measured as biochemical or chemical oxygen demand. Oxygen demand is a measure of the amount of oxidizable substances in a water sample that can lower DO concentrations. So, statement 1 is correct.
Certain environmental stresses (hot summer temperatures) and other human-induced factors (introduction of excess fertilisers to a water body) can lessen the amount of dissolved oxygen in a water body, resulting in stresses on the local aquatic life. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements:
- Itai itai disease can be caused by the consumption of fish and shellfish contaminated with methylmercury.
- Blue baby syndrome is caused due to exposure to toxic Cadmium elements.
- Minamata Convention is a legally binding international treaty to prevent mercury pollution.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Cadmium (Cd) is one of the most toxic elements to which humans could be exposed at work or in the environment. The outbreak of itai-itai disease, which is the most severe stage of chronic Cd poisoning, occurred in the Cd-polluted Jinzu River basin in Toyama. In this area, the river was contaminated by slag from a mine upstream; as a consequence, the soil in rice paddies was polluted with heavy metals including Cd through irrigation water from around 1910 to the 1960s. Minamata disease is a disease of the central nervous system, caused by the consumption of fish and shellfish contaminated with methylmercury So, statement 1 is not correct.
Blue baby syndrome is a potentially fatal condition that occurs when the haemoglobin (Fe2+) in an infant’s red blood cells is oxidised to methemoglobin (Fe3+). Because methemoglobin is unable to transport oxygen, the condition produces symptoms of cyanosis. The most common environmental agent associated with this diagnosis is nitrate-contaminated water; however, foods that are high in nitrate or nitrite may also be involved. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Named after Minamata, a city in Japan where close to 2,500 people had serious health damage as a result of mercury pollution in the mid-20th century. Legally-binding international treaty to prevent emissions and releases of mercury. The objective of the convention is to protect human health and the environment from anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Other Effective Area-Based Conservation Measures’ (OECMs):
- It is a designation given to an area for achieving effective in-situ conservation of biodiversity within the Protected Area.
- The OECM tag imposes legal obligations on the government to conserve the endemic species in that area.
- Aravalli Biodiversity Park in Gurugram is India’s first OECM site.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3 only
Explanation :
‘Other Effective Area-Based Conservation Measures’ (OECMs) is a conservation designation for areas that are achieving the effective in-situ conservation of biodiversity outside of protected areas. While protected areas must have a primary conservation objective, this is not necessary for OECMs. OECMs may be managed for many different objectives but they must deliver effective conservation. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The OECM tag is given by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). The OECM tag does not bring any legal, financial or management implications, but designates the area as a biodiversity hotspot on the international map. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Recently, the Aravalli Biodiversity Park in Gurugram, Haryana has been notified as the first OECM site in India. So, statement 3 is correct.
With reference to the green voyage 2050 project, consider the following statements:
- It is a partnership project between the government of Norway and the International maritime organization (IMO).
- It aims to reduce the total annual GHG emissions by at least 50% by 2030 compared to 1990.
- The participating countries from south Asia include only India and Sri Lanka.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
The GreenVoyage2050 Project is a partnership project between the Government of Norway and the International Maritime Organization (IMO) launched in May 2019. So, statement 1 is correct.
The goal is to provide support to developing countries in their efforts to reduce GHG emissions from ships. One of its aims is to reduce the total annual GHG emissions by at least 50% by 2050 compared to 2008. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The participating countries can be broadly categorized into “new pilot countries” and “pioneer pilot countries”. All partnering countries will be provided training on the regulatory developments related to MARPOL, capacity-building on sustainable port initiatives and measures to reduce emissions at the ship-port interface. The participating countries include Azerbaijan, Belize, China, Cook Islands, Ecuador, Georgia, India, Kenya, Malaysia, Solomon Islands, South Africa, Sri Lanka. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding wetland ecosystems in India:
- Wetlands act as natural carbon sinks by sequestering large amounts of carbon dioxide.
- Mangroves are considered a type of coastal wetland.
- All wetlands in India are protected under the Ramsar Convention.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Only Two
Explanation :
Wetlands, such as peatlands and marshes, play a vital role in carbon sequestration by storing organic matter, which prevents the release of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. So, statement 1 is correct.
Mangroves, found in intertidal regions along coastlines, are classified as coastal wetlands due to their unique ecosystem services, such as erosion control and biodiversity support. So, statement 2 is correct.
Protection Under Ramsar Convention: Not all wetlands in India are protected under the Ramsar Convention. The Ramsar list includes only a specific number of recognized wetlands of international importance. India has 85 designated Ramsar sites, but many other wetlands remain unprotected. So, statement 3 is incorrect.
Which among the following best describes ‘Sabal-20’, recently seen in the news?
an aerial logistics drone
Explanation :
In a significant move to bolster the Indian Army’s logistical capabilities, the private drone manufacturer EndureAir has delivered its innovative Sabal 20 logistics drone to the Eastern theatre of operations.
About Sabal-20 Logistics Drone:
It is an electric-unmanned helicopter based on variable pitch technology, designed specifically for aerial logistics.
It was manufactured by the private drone manufacturer EndureAir.
It is designed to fulfill demanding operational requirements, assisting with tasks including precise logistics, high-altitude operations, and long-distance deliveries.
Features:
The drone features tandem rotor configuration, and the design “ensures remarkable stability, superior high-altitude performance, minimised turbulence risk, and outstanding lifting capacity across diverse terrains”.
It is capable of carrying payloads of up to 20 kg, which is equivalent to 50 percent of its own weight, with scalable options for future requirements.
It can operate in confined and rugged terrain, while its low RPM (revolutions per minute) design minimises noise, enhancing stealth in sensitive missions.
One of the standout features of the Sabal 20 is its vertical take-off and landing (VTOL) technology, which allows the drone to operate in confined spaces and difficult environments.
It also has cutting-edge autonomous flight capabilities and user-friendly controls that simplify complex tasks, ensuring reliable performance even when it is beyond the line of sight of the operator.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/defence-made-in-india-indian-army-receives-advanced-sabal-20-logistics-drone-from-endureair-3678389/
Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat’ Campaign, recently seen in the news:
- It was launched by the Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
- The campaign will call on every State and Union Territory to devise an action plan aimed at reducing the child marriage rates below 5% by 2029.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
About ‘Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat’ Campaign:
It was launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development, Government of India.
It seeks to engage multiple stakeholders in a collective effort to eliminate child marriage in India.
It will focus on the seven high-burden states-West Bengal, Bihar, Jharkhand, Rajasthan, Tripura, Assam, and Andhra Pradesh-and nearly 300 high-burden districts where child marriage rates are high as compared to the national average.
The campaign will call on every State and Union Territory to devise an action plan aimed at reducing the child marriage rates below 5% by 2029.
Child marriage rates dropped from 47.4% in 2006 to 23.3% in 2019-21, according to government data.
A key feature of the initiative is the launch of the Child Marriage Free Bharat portal, a platform to raise awareness, report cases, and monitor progress.
The portal is designed to facilitate effective monitoring of Child Marriage Prohibition Officers (CMPOs) by strengthening supervision and evaluation mechanisms to ensure their active role in preventing child marriages and supporting affected individuals.
The people will be able to register their complaints pertaining to child marriage, and these will be directed straight to the concerned CMPOs anywhere in the country.
All states have been directed to log on to the portal and register the CMPOs so that there is real-time monitoring of cases.
Nodal officers will be assigned at the Centre for monitoring the portal.
It seeks to enhance public access to information, making it easily available to enable better communication and support.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/child-marriage-free-india-campaign-minister-annapurna-devi-launches-portal-101732763488799.html
President’s Standard and Colours is the highest honour that can be awarded to which among the following in India?
- a military unit
- mlitary training establishments
- State/UT Police forces
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2, and 3
Explanation :
About President’s Standard and Colours:
It is the highest honour that can be awarded to any military unit, military training establishments, or State/UT Police Forces of India.
It is bestowed upon a military unit in recognition of exceptional service rendered to the nation, both in peace and in war.
It is also known as “Rashtrapati ka Nishaan” in Hindi.
History:
The award has its history way back to ancient Indian traditions.
In ancient times, whenever any military unit marches, they carried ‘dhwajas’ or ‘patakas’ or simply a flag of their respective kings to demonstrate their king’s supremacy. The flag had emblems or messages of their kings to other rulers.
During British rule in India, the tradition continues. The military unit of the British Armed Forces of that time carried the king’s/queen’s version of the flag whenever they go for a military march.
On November 23, 1950, the ‘king’s colour’ of the erstwhile British Indian regiments was laid to rest in Chetwode Hall, Dehradun, to make way for the ‘colours’ of the President of the Republic of India.
The Indian Navy was the first Indian Armed Forces to be awarded the President Colour by Dr. Rajendra Prasad on May 27, 1951.
Award:
It is a type of special flag, also known as ‘Nishaan’, which is awarded to a military unit in an organised ceremony.
Colours are generally presented personally by the President, who is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces, and in case of the President’s non-availability, by the Service Chief.
The flag consists of a golden border in the middle and the insignia of a respective military unit, training establishments, and police forces in the centre.
Sometimes, it may also contain the motto, important achievements, and battle participation of those military units to which the award is bestowed.
During any ceremonial parade, the President’s Colour, i.e., the special flag of a military unit, is kept in a special position, and soldiers often march with the President’s Colour on important dates, like their establishment anniversary.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/pune/army-chief-presents-presidents-colours-mechanised-infantry-9693952/
Explanation :
About President’s Standard and Colours:
It is the highest honour that can be awarded to any military unit, military training establishments, or State/UT Police Forces of India.
It is bestowed upon a military unit in recognition of exceptional service rendered to the nation, both in peace and in war.
It is also known as “Rashtrapati ka Nishaan” in Hindi.
History:
The award has its history way back to ancient Indian traditions.
In ancient times, whenever any military unit marches, they carried ‘dhwajas’ or ‘patakas’ or simply a flag of their respective kings to demonstrate their king’s supremacy. The flag had emblems or messages of their kings to other rulers.
During British rule in India, the tradition continues. The military unit of the British Armed Forces of that time carried the king’s/queen’s version of the flag whenever they go for a military march.
On November 23, 1950, the ‘king’s colour’ of the erstwhile British Indian regiments was laid to rest in Chetwode Hall, Dehradun, to make way for the ‘colours’ of the President of the Republic of India.
The Indian Navy was the first Indian Armed Forces to be awarded the President Colour by Dr. Rajendra Prasad on May 27, 1951.
Award:
It is a type of special flag, also known as ‘Nishaan’, which is awarded to a military unit in an organised ceremony.
Colours are generally presented personally by the President, who is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces, and in case of the President’s non-availability, by the Service Chief.
The flag consists of a golden border in the middle and the insignia of a respective military unit, training establishments, and police forces in the centre.
Sometimes, it may also contain the motto, important achievements, and battle participation of those military units to which the award is bestowed.
During any ceremonial parade, the President’s Colour, i.e., the special flag of a military unit, is kept in a special position, and soldiers often march with the President’s Colour on important dates, like their establishment anniversary.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/pune/army-chief-presents-presidents-colours-mechanised-infantry-9693952/
2 only
Explanation :
For the first time in the history of India’s election process, 19 members from the Jarawa Tribe in Andaman and Nicobar Islands had been included in India’s electoral roll.
About Jarawa Tribe:
The Jarawas are an indigenous tribe which lives in the Andaman Islands.
They are classified as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG).
They inhabit parts of the Middle Andaman and South Andaman Islands. The region is characterized by dense forests, mangroves, and pristine beaches, providing a rich habitat.
They are regarded as descendants of the Jangil tribe, which is now extinct.
Some believe the ancestors of the Jarawas were part of the first successful human migrations out of Africa.
The Jarawas have traditionally been hunter-forager-fishermen, and are known as warriors who fiercely defend their territory.
After the British established a colonial presence in the Andaman Islands in 1789, the population of Jarawas declined massively.
However, the Jarawas survived the British colonial presence and World War II.
Over the years, the contact between the Jarawas and the outsiders increased, and since 1997, they have initiated contacts with settled populations, where they traded and interacted with tourists, got medical aid, and even sent their children to school.
At present, their number ranges between 250 to 400 individuals.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.tribuneindia.com/news/india/19-members-of-jarawa-tribe-included-in-electoral-roll-for-first-time/
Consider the following statements regarding the Baltic Sea:
- It is a semi-enclosed inland sea located in Northern Europe.
- Its water salinity levels are much higher than those of the World Oceans due to a lack of inflow of fresh water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
About Baltic Sea:
It is a semi-enclosed inland sea located in Northern Europe. It is an arm of the North Atlantic Ocean.
It extends northward from the latitude of southern Denmark almost to the Arctic Circle and separating the Scandinavian Peninsula from the rest of continental Europe.
It connects to the Atlantic Ocean through the Danish Straits.
It has a coastline of approximately 8,000 km.
Surrounding Countries: Denmark, Germany, Poland, Lithuania, Latvia, Estonia, Russia, Finland, and Sweden.
It covers an area of approximately 377,000 sq.km. The sea is approximately 1,600 km long and 193 km wide.
It is connected to the White Sea via the White Sea Canal and to the North Sea’s German Bight via the Kiel Canal.
The Baltic Sea contains three major gulfs: the Gulf of Bothnia to the north, the Gulf of Finland to the east, and the Gulf of Riga slightly to the south of that.
It is often cited as the world’s largest brackish inland water body.
Its water salinity levels are lower than that of the World Oceans due to the inflow of fresh water from the surrounding land and the sea’s shallowness.
More than 250 rivers and streams empty their waters into the Baltic Sea. Neva is the largest river that drains into the Baltic Sea.
It is home to over 20 islands and archipelagos. Gotland, located off the coast of Sweden, is the largest island in the Baltic Sea.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.theguardian.com/world/2024/nov/27/swedish-pm-says-baltic-sea-now-high-risk-after-suspected-cable-sabotage
SAREX-24, recently in news, is a:
Indian Coast Guard’s maritime exercise
Explanation :
The 11th edition of Indian Coast Guard’s National Maritime Search and Rescue Exercise & Workshop (SAREX-24) will be in Kochi, Kerala on November 28-29, 2024.
It is conducted under the aegis of National Maritime Search and Rescue Board.
The theme of the exercise is ‘Enhancing Search and Rescue capabilities through Regional collaboration’.
It signifies ICG’s commitment to provide succor during large-scale contingencies regardless of location, nationality or circumstances in the Indian Search & Rescue Region and beyond.
This event will feature various programmes, including table-top exercise, workshop & seminars involving participation of senior officials from government agencies, Ministries & Armed Forces, various stakeholders and foreign delegates.
The sea exercise involving two large scale contingencies will be carried out off the Kochi coast with participation of ships & aircraft of ICG, Navy, Indian Air Force, Passenger Vessel & Tug from Cochin Port Authority and boats from the Customs.
The response matrix in the sea exercise will involve various methods to evacuate distressed passengers, wherein the advent of new-age technology using satellite-aided distress beacons, drones to deploy a life buoy, air droppable life rafts, operation of remote controlled life buoy will be demonstrated.
The exercise is designed not only to evaluate efficiency of operations and coordination with national stakeholders, but also to aptly focus on cooperative engagements with the littorals and friendly countries.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2077822
Consider the following statements regarding the Surface Hydrokinetic Turbine (SHKT) technology:
- It uses kinetic energy of flowing water with practically zero potential head for generation of electrical energy.
- It is helpful in meeting round-the-clock renewable energy in areas with poor grid accessibility.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Central Electricity Authority (CEA) has recognized Surface Hydrokinetic Turbine (SHKT) technology under the Hydro Category to drive innovations and explore alternate technologies.
It uses kinetic energy of flowing water with practically zero potential head for generation of electrical energy unlike conventional units, which utilize potential energy of water through construction of suitable civil structures such as dam, diversion weir and barrages for creation of necessary ‘Head’.
Advantages
This technology support the power sector in meeting the growing demand for base-load, round-the-clock renewable energy, especially in areas with poor grid accessibility.
Surface Hydrokinetic turbines are easy to install and cost-effective.
This technology provides win-win situation both for renewable energy buyers and generators.
Adoption of SHKT technology shall mark a significant milestone in leveraging India’s extensive water infrastructure, including canals, hydropower tailrace channels, etc. for sustainable energy generation.
This technology has huge potential in GW scale with lot of opportunities to harness renewable energy, leading to overall growth of power sector.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2077470
With reference to OPCW-The Hague Award, consider the following:
- It is awarded to individual and organizations who make contributions to achieve a world free of chemical weapons.
- It was established by the Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons in collaboration with United Nations.
- It was conferred recently to the Indian Chemical Council.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The 2024 OPCW The Hague Award was conferred upon the Indian Chemical Council (ICC) at a ceremony during the 29th Session of the Conference of the States Parties (CSP) of the Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW) at Hague.
The Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons established the ‘OPCW-The Hague Award’ in collaboration with the Municipality of The Hague in 2014.
It is part of the OPCW’s ongoing effort to highlight significant contributions made by individuals and organisations, widely from academia, researchers, chemical industry, and civil society to achieve a world free of chemical weapons.
Recipient of the award receives a medallion, a certificate and share of the €90,000 award fund.
Key facts about the Indian Chemical Council
It is India’s premier body representing the chemical industry which was established in 1938.
It is the apex national body representing all branches of the Chemical Industry in India such as Organic & Inorganic Chemicals, Plastics & Petrochemicals & Petroleum Refineries etc.
The Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Government of India, has authorised all ICC offices (Mumbai, New Delhi, Kolkata and Chennai) to issue the CERTIFICATE OF ORIGIN for the exporters.
Initiatives of ICC:
ICC’s ‘Nicer Globe’ initiative has had a substantial impact on chemical transportation safety in India, offering real-time monitoring and emergency response capabilities.
It has conducted other activities to promote chemical safety and security through its ‘Responsible Care’ (RC) programme and the introduction of the Security Code of RC.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2077867
Consider the following statements regarding the E-Daakhil Portal:
- It provides a speedy and hassle-free mechanism for filing consumer complaints.
- It was launched by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Walfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Department of Consumer Affairs is proud to announce the successful nationwide implementation of the E-Daakhil portal, now operational in every state and union territory of India.
It was introduced as inexpensive, speedy and hassle-free mechanism for filing consumer complaints.
It was first launched on 7th September 2020 by the National Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission.
Features:
It is an innovative online platform designed to streamline the consumer grievance redressal process, providing an efficient and convenient way for consumers to approach the relevant consumer forum, dispensing the need to travel and be physically present to file their grievances.
The portal offers an intuitive and easy-to-navigate interface, allowing consumers to file complaints with minimal effort.
From filing complaints to tracking their status, E-Daakhil ensures a paperless and transparent process with respect to filing of cases.
Any consumer or Advocate can sign up on the e-Daakhil platforms with the required authentication by receiving an OTP on their registered cell phone or an activation link on their registered email address. They can then move on with filing a complaint.
The portal has facilitated all aggrieved consumers to submit complaints to consumer commissions online in the comfort of their own homes, to pay the appropriate fees, and track the progress of the case online.
It is accessible to consumers across all regions of India, from metropolitan cities to remote areas.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2077857
Network Readiness Index, recently in news, is published by:
Portulans Institute
Explanation :
India has improved its position by eleven slots and is now placed at 49th rank as per the Network Readiness Index 2024 (NRI 2024) report released on 21st November 2024.
It maps the network-based readiness landscape of 133 economies based on their performances in four different pillars: Technology, People, Governance, and Impact, covering a total of 54 variables.
The report has been published by the Portulans Institute, an independent non-profit research and educational institute based in Washington DC.
Highlights of the report
India has not only improved its ranking, but also improved its score from 49.93 in 2023 to 53.63 in 2024. It is noteworthy that India leads in several indicators.
The report states that India secured 1st rank in ‘AI scientific publications’, ‘AI talent concentration’ and ‘ICT services exports’, 2nd rank in ‘FTTH/Building Internet subscriptions’, ‘Mobile broadband internet traffic within the country’ and ‘International Internet bandwidth’, 3rd rank in ‘Domestic market scale’ and 4th rank in ‘annual investment in telecommunication services.
India has ranked 2nd in the group of lower-middle-income countries after Vietnam.
As per the report, India has demonstrated significant digital progress, with notable strengths in technological innovation and digital transformation.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2078014
Consider the following statements regarding the Bar-Tailed Godwit, recently seen in the news:
- It is a migratory shorebird renowned for its extraordinary endurance during migration.
- It is classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
In an unusual occurrence, five bar-tailed godwits were spotted by a naturalist at Pulicat lake recently.
About Bar-Tailed Godwit:
It is a remarkable migratory shorebird renowned for its extraordinary endurance during migration.
Scientific Name: Limosa lapponica
Distribution:
It is distributed in northern Europe and Asia, western Alaska, Africa, the Persian Gulf, India, southeast Asia, China, and Australia.
These godwit species breed in the Arctic region.
In India, wintering bar-tailed godwit species are distributed in the states of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Goa, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal, Tripura, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Bar-tailed Godwits are the world record holders for non-stop flight: they have been recorded travelling 13,500 km from Alaska to Tasmania in only 11 days flying at an average of more than 50 km/h, losing almost half of their body weight along the way.
Features:
They are quite large waders, with females being bigger than males.
It is mainly mottled brown above and lighter and more uniform buff below.
It has dull white underwings and a long, slightly upturned bill.
As the name suggests, the white tail is barred with brown.
IUCN Red List: Near Threatened
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/chennai/unprecedented-gathering-5-bar-tailed-godwits-spotted-at-pulicat-lake/articleshow/115671129.cms
Girnar Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which State?
Gujarat
Explanation :
About Girnar Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is located in the Junagadh district of Gujarat.
It spans the rugged terrain of the Girnar hills, which are a part of the Saurashtra region.
It was declared a wildlife sanctuary in 2008.
Situated around the Girnar hills, this sanctuary is home to several endangered species, including the Asiatic lion.
Flora:
Predominantly dry deciduous forests with species like teak, dhak, acacia, and other drought-resistant plants.
The sanctuary supports a mix of dense forest, open scrub, and grasslands.
Fauna:
It is filled with abundant wildlife, including Asiatic lions, spotted deer, Sambar, Chousinghas, Chinkaras, leopards, Indian golden jackals, and around 300 species of birds, which include both resident and migratory.
It serves as an extension of the Gir National Park’s lion population.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/ahmedabad/from-94-in-2000-to-83-in-2020-cept-varsity-study-highlights-decline-in-vegetation-in-gujarats-girnar-wildlife-sanctuary-over-2-decades-9688463/
The Ngada festival, recently seen in the news, is considered the most important festival for which one of the following tribes?
Rengma Naga
Explanation :
The Rengma Naga tribe concluded a two-day celebration of the Ngada festival-cum-Mini Hornbill Festival at the Tseminyu RSA ground in Nagaland recently.
About Rengma Naga Tribe:
The Rengma Naga are a Tibeto-Burman ethnic group inhabiting the Northeast Indian states of Nagaland and Assam.
According to the 2011 Census of India, the population of Rengmas in Nagaland stands at 62,951 and the population of Rengmas in Assam is around 22,000.
They call themselves by the names of “Njong” or “Injang”.
They belong to the Mongoloid racial stock.
It is believed that Rengmas, along with other Naga tribes, migrated from Southeast Asia across the Yunnan Mountain ranges and settled down on the upper Burma region.
Slavery used to be practised among the Rengmas, and the slaves were most commonly known by the names menugetenyu and itsakesa.
By the time the Britishers/ British arrived in the Naga region, slavery was a declining practice, and no Rengma appears to have been a slave during that time.
Economy:
The Rengma tribes are agriculturalists.
They grow paddy through Jhum cultivation and wet cultivation. Besides paddy staple crops, seasonal crops and fruits are also grown.
Religion: Traditionally, Rengma tribes are worshippers of supernatural beings. Now most of the Rengma tribes are Christians.
Festivals:
Rengma Tribes celebrate a lot of seasonal festivals that are related to their agriculture.
“Ngada” is the most important festival of Rengma tribes.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://nenow.in/north-east-news/nagaland/nagaland-rengma-naga-tribe-celebrates-ngada-festival.html
Tato-I Hydroelectric Project, recently seen in the news, will be located in which State?
Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation :
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs recently approved investing Rs 1750 crores for the Tato-I Hydro Electric Project (HEP) in Arunachal Pradesh’s Shi Yomi District.
About Tato-I Hydroelectric Project:
The project, estimated at Rs. 1750 crore, will be located in Shi Yomi District of Arunachal Pradesh.
The project, with an installed capacity of 186 MW (3 x 62 MW), is expected to be completed in 50 months and will generate 802 million units (MU) of electricity annually.
The power generated will improve the power supply in Arunachal Pradesh and contribute to balancing the national grid.
It will be developed through a joint venture between the North Eastern Electric Power Corporation Ltd. (NEEPCO) and the Arunachal Pradesh government.
The central government will provide ₹77.37 crore for infrastructure such as roads, bridges, and transmission lines, along with ₹120.43 crore in financial assistance for the state’s equity share.
Arunachal Pradesh will receive 12% of the generated power for free, with an additional 1% allocated to a Local Area Development Fund (LADF).
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://theprint.in/india/government-approves-investment-for-tato-i-hydroelectric-project/2375051/
Consider the following statements regarding AUKUS:
- It is a trilateral security partnership between the United Kingdom, the United States of America, and Australia.
- It has a component which is designed to equip Australia with nuclear-powered attack submarines (SSNs).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Chinese ambassador to New Zealand cautions that joining AUKUS could harm NZ-China relations.
About AUKUS:
It is a trilateral security partnership between the United Kingdom, the United States of America, and Australia agreed in 2021 that focuses on technology sharing in the Indo-Pacific region.
The alliance is widely understood to be a strategic buildup in response to, and a deterrence against, Chinese aggression and ambitions in that strategically important area.
AUKUS is intended to strengthen the ability of each government to support security and defense interests, building on longstanding and ongoing bilateral ties.
It consists of two key pillars.
Pillar 1 focuses on supporting Australia to acquire its first conventionally armed, nuclear-powered submarine fleet. It does not involve the transfer of nuclear weapons to Australia.
Pillar 2 focuses on cooperation in eight advanced military capability areas: artificial intelligence (AI), quantum technologies, innovation, information sharing, and cyber, undersea, hypersonic, counter-hypersonic, and electronic warfare domains.
Submarine Component:
It is designed to equip Australia with nuclear-powered attack submarines (SSNs).
In total, Australia will end up with eight of the new nuclear submarines, called SSN-AUKUS.
These submarines will be based on a British design but have American technology or an American combat system.
AUKUS will make Australia the seventh country in the world to be armed with nuclear-powered submarines and the second, after the United Kingdom, with whom the United States has shared this technology.
It will significantly enhance Australia’s undersea capabilities in the Indo-Pacific as nuclear-powered submarines offer many advantages, such as extended range, endurance, and stealth—features.
These countries, however, made it clear that their aim is not to arm the new submarines with nuclear weapons. This is because Australia is a signatory to the Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty (NPT), which bans it from acquiring or deploying nuclear weapons.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.devdiscourse.com/article/law-order/3172302-new-zealands-balancing-act-aukus-and-china-relations
What causes Japanese Encephalitis?
Virus
Explanation :
The national capital has reported an “isolated” case of Japanese Encephalitis, official sources said recently.
About Japanese Encephalitis:
It is a potentially severe viral zoonotic disease caused by the Japanese Encephalitis(B) virus.
Transmission:
The virus is transmitted from animals – particularly pigs and birds belonging to the Ardeidae family, such as cattle egrets, pond herons, etc. – to humans by the Culex mosquito of the Vishnui group.
There is no human-to-human transmission of the virus.
The disease is most common in rural areas of Asia, particularly during monsoon seasons when mosquito breeding is prevalent.
Symptoms:
It affects the brain, leading to symptoms like fever, headache, vomiting, and neurological signs such as confusion, seizures, and paralysis.
While many infected individuals may show mild or no symptoms, severe cases can lead to permanent brain damage or death.
Prevention and Treatment:
Vaccination is the most effective prevention strategy, particularly in endemic regions.
Early diagnosis and supportive treatment can help manage symptoms, but there is no specific antiviral treatment for Japanese Encephalitis.
According to the central government guidelines, two doses of the vaccine have been a part of the Universal Immunisation Programme since 2013.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/delhi-news/delhi-reports-isolated-case-of-japanese-encephalitis-7123977
Consider the following statements regarding the OPEC+ Group:
- It is a group of oil-importing countries which aims to bring stability to the oil market.
- It mainly consists of Middle Eastern and African countries as its members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, crude oil prices stayed steady after an unexpected jump in US gasoline stock supplies and delaying of the OPEC+ meeting on output policy.
It is a group of 22 oil-exporting countries which meets regularly to decide how much crude oil to sell on the world market.
These nations aim to work together on adjusting crude oil production to bring stability to the oil market.
Origin: These nations came to an accord towards the end of 2016 “to institutionalize a framework for cooperation between OPEC and non-OPEC producing countries on a regular and sustainable basis.”
At the core of this group are the 12 members of OPEC (the Organization of the Oil Exporting Countries), which are mainly Middle Eastern and African countries.
Members: It comprises 12 OPEC countries plus Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan, Russia, Mexico, Malaysia, South Sudan, Sudan, and Oman.
What is OPEC?
It is a permanent intergovernmental organization of oil-exporting countries.
Formation: It was established in 1960 by the five founding members Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela.
Angola withdrew its membership effective 1 January 2024. Currently, it has 12 members, including Algeria, Congo, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon, Libya, Nigeria, and the United Arab Emirates.
Headquarters: Vienna, Austria.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/market/commodities-oil-prices-hold-steady-as-opec-delays-output-meeting-brent-at-72-91-3679468/
Consider the following statements regarding the K-4 Missile:
- It is a nuclear-capable solid-fuelled ballistic missile.
- It has been developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, India has tested K4 missile from submarine INS Arighaat off the coast of Visakhapatnam.
It is a nuclear-capable ballistic missile with a range of around 3,500 km.
It is a solid-fuelled missile which was tested at least five times in the last few years from submersible platforms.
The successful launch of the K-4 missile adds another layer of strength to India’s nuclear triad, which includes land-based missiles, air-launched nuclear weapons, and submarine-launched platforms.
It has been developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Significance: It provides major boost to India’s nuclear deterrence and strategic capabilities.
Key facts about the INS Arighaat
It was commissioned in August 2024.
It is India’s second nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine (SSBN), following India’s first nuclear submarine, INS Arihant.
It was constructed at the Indian Navy’s Ship Building Centre (SBC) in Visakhapatnam.
It can carry up to four nuclear-capable K-4 SLBMs (Submarine Launched ballistic Missile) with a range of over 3500 kilometers or twelve conventional warhead K-15 SLBMs with a range of about 750 kilometers.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/india-successfully-tests-k-4-nuclear-capable-missile-from-ins-arighaat-submarine-101732781511255.html
With reference to the Eklavya Online Digital Platform, consider the following statements:
- It is an initiative of the Indian army.
- It has been developed by the Bhaskaracharya National Institute of Space Applications and Geoinformatics.
- It enables the army officers to get domain specialisation in the field of their choice.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, chief of the Indian Army launched an online learning platform for the Indian Army nicknamed as “Eklavya”.
It has been developed under the aegis of Headquarters Army Training Command with Army War College as the sponsor agency.
The platform has been developed by the “Bhaskaracharya National Institute of Space Applications and Geoinformatics” (BISAG-N), Gandhinagar, along with support from Directorate General of Information Systems.
This platform has been hosted on the Army Data Network and features a scalable architecture. This enables Headquarters Army Training Command to seamlessly integrate any number of training establishments of the Indian Army, each capable of hosting an extensive range of courses.
This initiative aligns with the Indian Army propelling itself into the “Decade of Transformation” as envisioned by the COAS and also with Indian Army’s theme for 2024 as the “Year of Technology Absorption.”
Student officers are permitted to register for multiple courses simultaneously.
There are three categories of courses hosted
‘Pre-Course Preparatory Capsules’: It has study material for all offline physical courses being conducted at various Category ‘A’ training establishments. The aim is to shift the “basics” to the online courses so that physical courses have more and more contemporary content with a focus on the “application part”.
Appointment or specific assignment-related courses: The courses in this category will also enable the army officers to get domain specialisation in the field of their choice, which will further aid their employment planning.
Professonal Development Suite: To include courses on Strategy, Operational Art, Leadership, Organisational Behaviour, Finance, Art of Reading, Power Writing, Emerging Technology etc.
The Eklavya also has the functionality of a searchable “Knowledge Highway”, wherein various journals, research papers and articles etc are uploaded under a single window.
The platform will go a long way in encouraging continuous professional military education in the officers, decongest and enrich the existing physical course, preparing officers for specialist appointments and encouraging domain specialisation.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2078584
Consider the following statements regarding the Siberian Demoiselle crane:
- It is a migratory and smallest crane species which inhibits in steppes and plains.
- It is categorised as ‘Critically Endangered’ under the IUCN Red list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A Siberian Demoiselle crane, nicknamed Sukpak, has broken the record for the longest migratory flight to Rajasthan, India, covering over 3,676km.
It is the smallest of crane species which is both solitary and social in behavior.
This bird is symbolically significant in the culture of India, where it is known as Koonj or Kurjaa.
These cranes are migratory birds, travelling long distances from their breeding to their wintering grounds.
Habitat: It inhabits fields, deserts, steppes, and plains with water in general vicinity.
Distribution: They are found in central Eurosiberia, ranging from the Black Sea to Mongolia and Northeast China.
Breeding range: They breed in Central Eurasia, from the Black Sea to North East China and Mongolia. It winters in the Indian subcontinent and sub-Saharan Africa.
While Demoiselle cranes typically travel through Himalayan valleys and enter India via Nepal, Sukpak took a different route, flying through Russia, Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Afghanistan, and Pakistan before entering India through Jaisalmer.
Conservation efforts in India: Khichan is a key stop for migratory birds in Rajasthan also it has become India’s first reserve dedicated this species.
Conservation status
IUCN: Least Concern
Threats: They are threatened by drainage of wetlands and habitat loss, illegal pet trade and suffer hunting pressure.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/siberia-to-rajasthan-crane-sets-a-flight-record-3676-km/articleshow/115712079.cms
With reference to Silica, consider the following statements:
- It is a chemical compound composed of the two most abundant elements in Earth’s crust.
- It is the main constituent of more than 90 percent of the known rocks.
- It can exist in crystalline as well as non-crystalline forms.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) on Friday recently directed the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) to prepare detailed pan-India guidelines for silica sand mining and silica washing plants.
About Silica:
Silica is another name for the chemical compound composed of two most abundant elements in Earth’s crust, silicon and oxygen, SiO2.
The mass of Earth’s crust is 59 percent silica, the main constituent of more than 95 percent of the known rocks.
Silica exists in many different forms that can be crystalline as well as non-crystalline (amorphous).
Silica has three main crystalline varieties: quartz (by far the most abundant), tridymite, and cristobalite.
Other varieties include coesite, keatite, and lechatelierite.
Uses:
Silica sand is used in buildings and roads in the form of portland cement, concrete, and mortar, as well as sandstone.
Silica is also used in grinding and polishing glass and stone; in foundry molds; in the manufacture of glass, ceramics, silicon carbide, ferrosilicon, and silicones; as a refractory material; and as gemstones.
Silica gel is often used as a desiccant to remove moisture.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/uttar-pradesh/silica-mining-ngt-asks-cpcb-to-prepare-pan-india-guidelines/article68928948.ece
The High Energy Stereoscopic System (HESS) Observatory, recently seen in the news, primarily detects which one of the following lights?
Gamma Rays
Explanation :
Scientists at the HESS observatory in Namibia have found the most energetic cosmic rays ever detected, reaching up to 40 teraelectronvolts.
About High Energy Stereoscopic System (HESS) observatory:
It is an array of Cherenkov Telescopes located in the Khomas Highlands in Namibia.
H.E.S.S. started operations in 2003 and has been operated very successfully since then.
It observes gamma rays, the most energetic form of light, in the very high energy range (>100 GeV), which are produced by some of the most violent processes in the universe.
Being in the southern hemisphere, H.E.S.S. is very well located for observations of gamma-ray sources within our galaxy, the Milky Way.
Since gamma rays cannot penetrate the Earth’s atmosphere, H.E.S.S. detects them indirectly via their interactions with the air molecules.
Besides sources from our Milky Way sources, it has a rich and wide physics program, covering also outbursts in very distant galaxies and fundamental physics questions related to dark matter and Lorentz invariance.
The H.E.S.S. observatory is operated by a collaboration of more than 260 scientists from about 40 scientific institutions and 13 different countries.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/what-do-we-know-about-the-highest-energy-cosmic-rays-discovered-recently/articleshow/115813194.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Niger River:
- It is the longest and largest river in West Africa.
- It flows through only two countries, Nigeria and Niger.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
In a tragic incident, at least 27 people died while over 100, including women, were missing after a boat capsized along the Niger River in central Nigeria.
About Niger River:
It is the principal river of western Africa.
With a length of 2,600 miles (4,200 km), it is the third longest river in Africa, after the Nile and the Congo.
In West Africa, it’s the longest and largest river and is nicknamed the “Boomerang River” due to its serpentine shape.
Course: The Niger rises in Guinea 150 miles (240 kilometers) from the Atlantic Ocean, from where the river detours into the Sahara Desert, taking a sharp right turn near Mali’s Timbuktu city, and then flowing southeast into the Gulf of Guinea.
Niger, Guinea, Cote de Ivoire, Mali, Burkina Faso, Algeria, Benin, Chad, Cameroon, and Nigeria are the ten African countries that the river runs through.
The Niger River Basin covers 7.5 percent of the African continent, and its main tributary is the Benue River.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.indiatvnews.com/news/world/nigeria-boat-capsizes-niger-river-dead-missing-abuja-search-rescue-survivors-latest-updates-2024-11-30-964115
Phlegraean Fields, recently seen in the news, lies in which country?
Italy
Explanation :
The Phlegraean Fields, now considered one massive super volcano, are beginning to stir, making the scientific community uneasy.
About Phlegraean Fields:
The Phlegraean Fields (also known in Italian as ‘Campi Flegrei’) is an active volcanic area located in the vicinity of Naples, Italy.
Unlike the nearby Mount Vesuvius, Campi Flegrei is not characterised by a single volcano.
It is more of a volcanic system, with several centres situated within a depressed area called a caldera (essentially a deep sinkhole or cauldron).
The caldera has a diameter of about 12-15 km (7.5-9.3 miles).
It was formed 39,000 years ago after an eruption emptied it of magma. According to a new hypothesis, this eruption could have been the beginning of the end of the Neanderthal.
One-third of it lies under the Tyrrhenian Sea, between the Italian mainland and the country’s island of Sardinia.
It is the largest active caldera in Europe. It is much larger than the cone-shaped Vesuvius, which destroyed the ancient Roman city of Pompeii in AD79, and is much more active.
Phlegraean Fields has been in a restless state since 1950. It is a result of a phenomenon known as bradyseism, which scientists understand to be the gradual movement of part of Earth’s surface caused by the filling or emptying of an underground magma chamber or hydrothermal activity.
It last erupted in 1538, after an interval of about 3000 years. This eruption, although minor in comparison, formed Monte Nuovo, a new mountain.
Scientists consider Phlegraean Fields to be a supervolcano whose eruptions can have worldwide effects.
These volcanic fields are among the top eight emitters of volcanic carbon dioxide worldwide.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.earth.com/news/supervolcano-italy-solfatara-crater-phlegraean-fields-shows-signs-of-waking-up/
Consider the following statements regarding Handigodu Disease:
- It is a rare and peculiar disease restricted to a specific geographic region in Karnataka.
- It primarily affects the respiratory system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Karnataka Health and family welfare minister Dinesh Gundu Rao recently directed the health department officials to undertake a scientific study of Handigodu disease.
About Handigodu Disease:
It is a rare and peculiar osteoarthritic disorder (bone and joint disease) prevalent in Shimoga and Chikmaglur Districts of Karnataka.
It is named after the village of Handigodu, where it was first noticed, in Shimoga district of the state of Karnataka.
It is an inherited degenerative osteoarthropathy.
In this progressive skeletal system disorder, affected individuals are presented with severe joint and hip pain.
In certain extreme cases in adults, crippled individuals are made to crawl due to pain.
Lack of normal growth is noticeable from early childhood, such as deformation of the limbs and dwarfism.
Symptom onset is at preadolescence (as early as age 10) to young adulthood.
Difficulty in walking and pain in hip joints eventually affect HS patients’ locomotion and nominal routine chores.
The prevalence of HS in the general population may not be meaningful as it is restricted to a specific geographic region. However, it is known to have killed over 1000 people since it was first noticed around 1975.
Though not clinically identical, Handigodu Disease is akin to Mseleni Joint Disease in the Zululand of South Africa.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://health.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/policy/min-orders-study-on-handigodu-disease-seeks-detailed-report/115749920
Consider the following statements regarding the Commission of Railway Safety:
- It is a statutory body that acts as the railway safety authority in the country.
- It works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Railways.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Commissioner of Railway Safety (CRS) has pointed out “glaring lapses” right from the planning stage to the execution of the new Pamban rail bridge.
It is a statutory body that acts as the railway safety authority in the country.
It deals with matters pertaining to safety of rail travel and train operation and is charged with certain statutory functions as laid down in the Railways Act (1989), which are of an inspectorial, investigatory & advisory nature.
The most important duty of the Commission is to ensure that any new Railway line to be opened for passenger traffic conforms to the standards and specifications prescribed by the Ministry of Railways.
The Commission also conducts statutory inquiries into serious train accidents occurring on the Indian Railways and makes recommendations for improving safety on the Railways in India.
Nodal Ministry: It is working under the administrative control of the Ministry of Civil Aviation of the Government of India.
The reason or principle behind this, put simply, is to keep the CRS insulated from the influence of the country’s railway establishment and prevent conflicts of interest.
It is headed by a Chief Commissioner of Railway Safety (CCRS).
Headquarter: It is headquartered in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/new-pamban-rail-bridge-commissioner-of-railway-safety-permits-operation-of-trains-but-flags-glaring-lapses/article68917864.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Unites Nations Peacebuilding Commission:
- It is an inter-governmental advisory body that supports peace efforts in conflict-affected countries.
- Its members are elected from the United Nations General Assembly, the Security Council, and the Economic and Social Council.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, India has been re-elected to the U.N. Peacebuilding Commission (PBC) for 2025–2026.
It was established on 20 December 2005 by resolutions of the United Nations General Assembly and the UN Security Council.
It is an intergovernmental advisory body that supports peace efforts in conflict-affected countries and is a key addition to the capacity of the International Community in the broad peace agenda, according to its website.
The PBC is composed of 31 Member States, elected from the General Assembly, the Security Council, and the Economic and Social Council.
The top financial contributing countries and the top troop-contributing countries to the United Nations system are also members.
The Commission is mandated:
To bring together all relevant actors to marshal resources and to advise on and propose integrated strategies for post-conflict peacebuilding and recovery;
To focus attention on the reconstruction and institution-building efforts necessary for recovery from conflict and to support the development of integrated strategies in order to lay the foundation for sustainable development.
To provide recommendations and information to improve the coordination of all relevant actors within and outside the United Nations, to develop best practices, to help to ensure predictable financing for early recovery activities and to extend the period of attention given by the international community to post-conflict recovery, the Commission said.
To promote an integrated, strategic and coherent approach to peacebuilding.
India is among the largest contributors of uniformed personnel to U.N. Peacekeeping.
It currently deploys about 6,000 military and police personnel to UN operations in Abyei, the Central African Republic, Cyprus, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Lebanon, the Middle East, Somalia, South Sudan, and Western Sahara.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-re-elected-to-un-peacebuilding-commission/article68926154.ece
With reference to Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) programme, consider the following:
- It is a programme launched under the World Trade organization (WTO) SAFE Framework of Standards.
- It aims to enhance international supply chain security and facilitate movement of legitimate goods.
- Under this programme an entity engaged in international trade and compliant with supply chain security standards will be granted AEO status.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) organised a two-day global India Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) programme in association with World Bank on 28th and 29th Nov. 2024, in New Delhi.
It is a programme under the aegis of the World Customs Organization (WCO) SAFE Framework of Standards to secure and facilitate Global Trade.
The programme aims to enhance international supply chain security and facilitate movement of legitimate goods.
Under this programme, an entity engaged in international trade is approved by Customs as compliant with supply chain security standards and granted AEO status & certain benefits.
An AEO is a business entity involved in the international movement of goods requiring compliance with provisions of the national customs law.
It is approved by or on behalf of the national administration in compliance with the World Customs Organization (WCO).
The WCO in June, 2005, with a view to secure the international supply chain, adopted the SAFE Framework of Standards
AEO is one of the three pillars on which the SAFE FoS is formed.
AEO helps to build a closer partnership between the customs department and the trade industry.
WCO SAFE FoS is the basis of the Indian AEO programme.
What is the India AEO programme?
It was introduced in India by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) in 2011.
It is a voluntary programme administered by the CBIC.
It seeks to provide benefits in the form of simplified customs procedures and faster customs clearances to those business entities that offer a high degree of security guarantees regarding their role in the supply chain.
Thus, an entity with an AEO status can be considered a reliable trading partner and a secure trader.
This segmentation approach enables customs resources to focus on less-non-compliant or risky businesses for control.
Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2079189
Consider the following statements regarding the Global Engagement Scheme:
- It promotes India’s rich cultural heritage and enhance India’s image in the global arena.
- Under this scheme, grants are sanctioned to fostering closer friendship and cultural contacts between India and foreign country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister for Culture and Tourism informed Rajya Sabha about the Global Engagement Scheme.
It was previously known as Scheme for promotion of International Cultural Relations.
It promotes India’s rich cultural heritage and enhance India’s image in the global arena in a concerted manner.
It has following three components:
Festival of India: It is organized abroad to promote people to people connect and bilateral cultural contacts. The artists from diverse cultural fields such as Folk Art including Folk Music, Folk Dance, Folk Theatre & Puppetry, Classical and Traditional Dance, Experimental/ Contemporary Dance, Classical/ Semi Classical Music, Theatre etc. perform in the ‘Festivals of India’ abroad.
Grant in aid to Indo Foreign Friendship Cultural Societies Scheme: The Grants under this scheme are sanctioned with the object of fostering closer friendship and cultural contacts between India and foreign country concerned.
Contribution Grant: This component is meant for Indian contribution towards membership of International Organizations like ICROM, UNESCO, World Heritage Fund and to facilitate Indian participation and hosting of international meetings
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Culture
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2078474#:~
Koraga tribe, recently in news, mainly found in:
Kerala and Karnataka
Explanation :
The Revenue department in Kerala has initiated steps to provide land titles (patta) to the Koraga tribe (ST) group in Kasaragod and Manjeswaram taluks under a project called Operation Smile.
Koragas are one of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) found in the southern part of India particularly Kerala and Karnataka.
Language: At present most of the Koragas are speaking Tulu language but they have their independent language.
Koragas are divided into a number of exogamous clans or sects. The clan is known as bali. There are 17 balis found among Koragas.
Economy: The Koragas are basically agriculturists and eke out their livelihood depending on the forest produce such as bamboo, cane, creepers for basketry.
They sing songs and perform folkdances, rituals and magics to appease their deity for bountiful crops and eradicate epidemics.
Dholu and Voote (Drum and Flute) were two important musical instruments of the Koragas.
The Family among the Koraga is matrilineal, the decent being reckoned along the female line. But residence after marriage is patrilocal.
The property is equally divided among both son and daughters.
The Koragas were worshippers of different Bhuta’s (Bhuta Kola is a ritual folk dance in Tulu Nadu) such as Panjurli, Kallurti, Korathi and Guliga etc.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/koraga-tribal-community-in-kerala-set-to-receive-land-titles-under-operation-smile-project/article68922091.ece
Consider the following statements regarding delimitation in India:
- It is conducted by a Delimitation Commission, which is a temporary body constituted under the Constitution of India.
- The main purpose of delimitation is to redraw the boundaries of the Lok Sabha and State Assembly constituencies based on the census.
- The latest delimitation exercise in India was conducted after the 2011 Census.
- The Delimitation Commission’s decisions are final and cannot be challenged in any court of law.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
2 and 4 only
Explanation :
The delayed Census, which may begin next year and conclude by 2026, is crucial for two major political processes: the delimitation of constituencies and the implementation of women’s reservation in elected bodies.
Article 82 and Article 170 of the Constitution empowers the Parliament to readjust the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies of States respectively, after every census.
Accordingly, Parliament establishes a Delimitation Commission through specific Acts to oversee this process.
Hence, the Delimitation Commission is constituted under the Delimitation Act enacted by Parliament, not under the Constitution. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The primary purpose of delimitation is to redraw boundaries of constituencies based on the most recent census to ensure fair representation. So, statement 2 is correct.
The latest delimitation exercise was conducted based on the 2001 Census, and the 2011 Census has not been used for delimitation purposes. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
The Delimitation Commission’s decisions are final and have the force of law; they cannot be challenged in any court. So, statement 4 is correct.
With reference to DANA (Depresión Aislada en Niveles Altos), consider the following statements:
- DANA is a weather phenomenon characterized by a low-pressure system at high altitudes that becomes isolated from the general atmospheric circulation.
- It is typically associated with intense weather events such as heavy rainfall, thunderstorms, and flash floods.
- DANA is most commonly observed in tropical regions due to its reliance on warm ocean currents.
- The term “DANA” is primarily used in meteorology to describe weather patterns in Europe and the Mediterranean region.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1, 2, and 4 only
Explanation :
DANA refers to a low-pressure system at high altitudes that becomes cut off from the main atmospheric circulation, leading to isolated weather phenomena. So, Statement 1 is correct.
It is associated with extreme weather, including heavy rainfall and flash floods, due to the instability it causes in the atmosphere. So, Statement 2 is correct.
DANA is not typically linked to tropical regions; it is more common in temperate regions, especially Europe and the Mediterranean, where it causes significant weather disruptions. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
The term “DANA” is widely used in meteorology for describing isolated high-altitude depressions in the Mediterranean and European regions. So, Statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Economic sanctions are often used as a tool of foreign policy. Consider the following scenarios:
- A country bans exports of advanced semiconductor technology to another country to curb its military advancements.
- A group of nations freezes the foreign assets of a country’s ruling elite to pressure political reforms.
- A country restricts the export of essential agricultural goods to a sanctioned nation, leading to humanitarian crises.
- A regional bloc imposes trade restrictions on a member state due to violations of human rights norms.
Which of the above scenarios demonstrate the primary objectives of economic sanctions as a foreign policy tool?
1, 2, and 4 only
Explanation :
Sanctions typically restrict trade, investment, and financial transactions with targeted entities, aiming to curb their economic and operational activities by cutting off access to resources and systems.
Restricting access to technology like semiconductors is a strategic use of sanctions to hinder military or technological advancement. So, statement 1 is correct.
Freezing assets targets the ruling elite, aiming to induce policy changes or political reforms without directly impacting the broader population. So, statement 2 is correct.
While sanctions aim to exert pressure, their intentional use to cause humanitarian crises is contrary to international norms and often condemned. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Trade restrictions due to human rights violations demonstrate the use of sanctions to enforce adherence to agreed standards. So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following pollutants:
- SO2
- CO2
- O3
- NH3
Which of the above-mentioned pollutant(s) is/are monitored for determining National Air Quality Index?
1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
National Air Quality Index (AQI) was launched in October 2014 to disseminate information on air quality in an easily understandable form for the general public.
The measurement of air quality is based on eight pollutants, namely, PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and Pb.
Hence, CO2 is not included for the measurement of air quality under the National Air Quality Index.
Consider the following statements regarding the Article 341 of the Constitution:
- The President of India has the authority to specify the Scheduled Castes in various states and union territories.
- Parliament through a law has the power to include in any caste from the Scheduled Castes list specified by the President.
- Once a caste is included in the Scheduled Castes list, it cannot be removed.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Commission of Inquiry, led by former Chief Justice of India Justice K.G. Balakrishnan, has received a one-year extension to submit its report on granting Scheduled Caste (SC) status to Dalit converts.
Article 341(1) empowers the President of India to specify the castes, races, or tribes, or parts of or groups within castes, races, or tribes which shall be deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to that state or union territory. So, statement 1 is correct.
As per Article 341(2), Parliament has the authority to make a law to include or exclude any caste from the list of Scheduled Castes specified by the President. So, statement 2 is correct.
A caste can be removed from the Scheduled Castes list by a law made by Parliament. So, statement 3 is not correct.
During a heatwave, urban areas experience significantly higher temperatures compared to surrounding rural areas. Which of the following explains this phenomenon in the context of the Urban Heat Island (UHI) effect?
A. Urbanization leads to the replacement of natural vegetation with impervious surfaces like asphalt and concrete, which absorb and re-radiate solar energy, increasing temperatures. B. The use of air conditioning systems in urban buildings generates excess heat, contributing to the warming of urban environments.
Both a and b
Explanation :
The Tamil Nadu government recently declared a heatwave as a State-specific disaster, enabling relief measures for those affected and compensation for families of heat-related casualties.
About Urban Heat Island (UHI)
UHI effect refers to the phenomenon where urban areas experience significantly higher temperatures than their rural surroundings.
Causes of Urban Heat Island (UHI)
Surface Characteristics
Urban areas have more asphalt, concrete, and buildings that absorb and retain heat, unlike rural areas with vegetation that provide cooling through evapotranspiration. So, option (a) is correct.
Heat Generated by Human Activities: Industrial processes, vehicles, air conditioning units, and other machinery generate heat.
Reduced Vegetation: Less green space and fewer trees mean less shading and cooling from plants.
Building Density: Tall buildings and narrow streets can trap heat and reduce airflow, limiting cooling.
Waste Heat: Energy consumption for lighting, heating, and cooling buildings releases additional heat. So, option (b) is correct.
Digital arrest scams are increasingly being used by fraudsters to exploit individuals. Consider the following statements about these scams:
- In a digital arrest scam, fraudsters impersonate law enforcement officials and threaten victims with legal consequences.
- Such scams often involve fake arrest warrants sent via emails or messaging apps, demanding immediate financial transfers.
- Public awareness and digital literacy campaigns are key to combating digital arrest scams.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All three
Consider the following statements regarding the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) domestic gold holdings:
- RBI holds gold both as part of its foreign exchange reserves and as backing for currency issuance.
- Gold held by the RBI is stored only within India for security reasons.
- RBI’s decision to increase its gold reserves is influenced by global economic uncertainties and the need for asset diversification.
- RBI is mandated to maintain a fixed percentage of its reserves in gold, as per the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has brought back nearly 130 metric tonnes of gold owned by it and kept in safe custody of the Bank of England in the last two-and-a-half years.
This decision marks a shift in the RBI’s approach to safeguarding its gold reserves, with a 60% increase in domestic gold holdings during this period.
The RBI holds gold as part of its foreign exchange reserves and for other purposes, such as backing the currency. So, Statement 1 is correct.
While a portion of the gold reserves is stored domestically, a significant portion is stored in international locations like the Bank of England for liquidity and trading purposes. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The RBI increases its gold reserves to diversify its portfolio and hedge against global economic uncertainties, such as inflation or currency volatility. So, Statement 3 is correct.
The RBI Act, 1934, does not mandate a fixed percentage of reserves in gold, allowing the RBI flexibility in managing its reserves. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the U.S. Presidential Election:
- The U.S. presidential election is held every four years to elect the President and Vice President of the United States.
- It follows an indirect voting process, where citizens vote for a slate of electors who then choose the President and Vice President.
- The general election occurs on the first Tuesday after the first Monday in November.
- Voters in each state cast their ballots for President, effectively choosing electors who will represent their state in the Electoral College.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All four
Explanation :
The U.S. presidential election is held every four years to elect the President and Vice President of the United States. So, statement 1 is correct.
It follows an indirect voting process, where citizens vote for a slate of electors who then choose the President and Vice President. So, statement 2 is correct.
The general election occurs on the first Tuesday after the first Monday in November. So, statement 3 is correct.
Voters in each state cast their ballots for President, effectively choosing electors who will represent their state in the Electoral College. So, statement 4 is correct.
With reference to benchmark indices in India, consider the following statements:
- Benchmark indices like the Sensex and Nifty represent the overall performance of the stock market.
- Sensex consists of the top 30 companies listed on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE), while Nifty represents the top 100 companies on the National Stock Exchange (NSE).
- Benchmark indices are often used by investors to gauge market trends and compare the performance of their portfolios.
- Both Sensex and Nifty are weighted by market capitalization, giving higher weightage to companies with larger market value.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1, 3, and 4 only
Explanation :
Benchmark indices faced renewed selling pressure on November 4, with all sectoral indices declining in early trade. The selloff was triggered by multiple factors, primarily external ones, which outweighed domestic influences.
Benchmark indices like Sensex and Nifty provide a snapshot of the overall market performance. So, statement 1 is correct.
Sensex represents the top 30 companies on the BSE, but Nifty consists of the top 50 companies on the NSE, not 100. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Investors use benchmark indices to understand market trends and evaluate the performance of their investments. So, statement 3 is correct.
Both indices are market-capitalization-weighted, meaning companies with higher market value have a greater influence on index movement. So, statement 4 is correct.
Which of the following statements regarding Dedicated Freight Corridors (DFC) in India is/are correct?
- The Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC) runs from Ludhiana in Punjab to Dankuni in West Bengal.
- The Western Dedicated Freight Corridor (WDFC) is being constructed with financial assistance from the World Bank.
- Dedicated Freight Corridors are designed to reduce the logistics cost and enhance the speed of freight movement in India.
- The corridors are exclusively for passenger and freight train movement.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
The Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC) runs from Ludhiana in Punjab to Dankuni in West Bengal, spanning around 1,856 km. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Western Dedicated Freight Corridor (WDFC) is being constructed with financial assistance from the Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA), not the World Bank. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Dedicated Freight Corridors aim to reduce logistics costs and enhance the speed of freight movement, contributing significantly to economic growth. So, statement 3 is correct.
Dedicated Freight Corridors are designed exclusively for freight trains, not passenger trains. So, statement 4 is not correct.
A public school in India affiliated with the state board & wholly maintained by state funds mandates the recitation of religious prayers during morning assemblies. A group of parents challenges this practice, citing Article 28 of the Constitution. Which of the following is/are the appropriate interpretation of Article 28 in this context?
- Article 28 prohibits religious instruction in educational institutions wholly funded by the state.
- Religious instruction can be provided in institutions that are administered by the state but established under an endowment or trust requiring such instruction.
- The school’s practice violates Article 28 as it is a public institution wholly maintained by state funds.
- The school can mandate religious prayers as long as it allows students to opt out without any penalty.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court, in a three-judge bench led by Chief Justice D Y Chandrachud, upheld the Constitutional validity of the Uttar Pradesh Board of Madarsa Education Act, 2004. This Act regulates madarsa education in Uttar Pradesh.
Previously, in March, the Allahabad High Court struck down the Act, citing a violation of secularism principles. However, the Supreme Court stayed this High Court ruling in April, allowing the Act to remain effective until the Supreme Court’s final decision.
The recent verdict affirms the law’s legitimacy, emphasizing its compliance with Constitutional standards.
Article 28(1) prohibits religious instruction in educational institutions that are wholly funded by the state. So, statement 1 is correct.
Article 28(2) allows religious instruction in institutions administered by the state but established under an endowment or trust that mandates such instruction. So, statement 2 is correct.
Since the school is wholly maintained by state funds, mandating religious prayers violates Article 28(1). So, statement 3 is correct.
The option to “opt out” of religious prayers does not override the prohibition under Article 28(1) for wholly state-funded institutions. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Which of the following best describes a characteristic of organized crime?
It operates as a structured group with the goal of obtaining financial or other material benefits.
Which of the following is a key feature of the H-1B Visa Program of the United States?
It enables U.S. employers to hire highly skilled foreign professionals in specialized fields like IT, engineering, and healthcare.
Explanation :
The H-1B visa program allows U.S. employers to temporarily hire foreign professionals in specialized fields requiring advanced knowledge, such as IT, engineering, mathematics, science, and healthcare.
It does not grant permanent residency; it is a non-immigrant visa tied to employer sponsorship.
Consider the following statements regarding the International Olympic Committee (IOC):
- IOC is responsible for selecting the host cities for both the Summer and Winter Olympic Games.
- IOC is an inter-governmental organization established by the United Nations to oversee international sports competitions.
- The President of the IOC is elected for a term of four years and can serve a maximum of two consecutive terms.
- The IOC has the authority to include or exclude sports from the Olympic Games program.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
1 and 4 only
Only one
Explanation:
The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has changed the release time of retail inflation (CPI) and factory output (IIP) data from 5:30 pm to 4 pm on the 12th of each month. This adjustment aims to give more time for data analysis on the release day and aligns with the closing hours of India’s major financial markets.
Whole Sale Price Index (WPI) - Ministry of Commerce and Industries
Consumer Price Index (CPI) - Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
Index of Industrial Production (IIP) - Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL) - the Labour Bureau in the Ministry of Labour and Employment
Which of the following was a significant outcome of the 2015 Framework Agreement signed between the Government of India and the National Socialist Council of Nagaland (NSCN-IM)?
It recognized the “unique history and position” of the Nagas and aimed to resolve the insurgency through peaceful dialogue.
Consider the following statements regarding the International Solar Alliance (ISA):
- The ISA was launched jointly by India and France during the Paris Climate Conference in 2015.
- Its primary objective is to promote the efficient use of solar energy to reduce dependence on fossil fuels globally.
- Only countries lying between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn are eligible to join the ISA.
- The ISA is headquartered in Gurugram, Haryana, India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1, 2, and 4 only
Explanation :
India, alongside France, established the International Solar Alliance (ISA) at the 2015 Paris Climate Conference to promote solar energy deployment, particularly in developing nations. So, statement 1 is correct.
Promoting the efficient use of solar energy to reduce global dependence on fossil fuels is a key objective of the ISA. So, statement 2 is correct.
Initially, the ISA focused on countries located between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn. However, it was later opened to all UN member states, regardless of geographical location. So, statement 3 is not correct.
The ISA’s headquarters are located in Gurugram, Haryana, India. So, statement 4 is correct.
A medium-sized company notices that employees are unable to access their files, and a pop-up message demands cryptocurrency payment to regain access. At the same time, several employees report receiving emails that appear to be from the company’s IT department, asking them to click on a link to update their credentials.
Which of the following steps should the company take immediately to address the situation effectively?
- Disconnect the affected systems from the network to prevent further spread of ransomware.
- Pay the ransom to recover the files as quickly as possible.
- Inform employees not to click on suspicious links and reset all system credentials.
- Report the incident to cybersecurity authorities and begin forensic analysis.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1, 3, and 4 only
Explanation :
According to the 2023-24 annual report of the Department of Personnel Training (DoPT), a crucial defense unit was affected by a ransomware attack in 2023.
Disconnecting affected systems is a critical step to contain the spread of ransomware. So, statement 1 is correct.
Paying the ransom is not recommended, as it does not guarantee data recovery and may encourage further attacks. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Educating employees and resetting credentials can prevent phishing attacks from escalating further. So, statement 3 is correct.
Reporting the incident to cybersecurity authorities and conducting forensic analysis are essential for understanding the attack and preventing future incidents. So, statement 4 is correct.
Kodo millet can become poisonous under certain conditions. Consider the following statements regarding this phenomenon:
- Kodo millet may become toxic if improperly stored, leading to fungal contamination and the production of mycotoxins.
- The primary toxin associated with poisonous Kodo millet is produced by aflatoxins, commonly found in cereals and pulses.
- Consumption of poisonous Kodo millet can lead to neurological disorders and symptoms like tremors and convulsions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Ten elephants from a herd of thirteen have tragically died in Madhya Pradesh’s Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve.
Forest officials suspect the deaths were caused by “mycotoxins associated with kodo millet,” a grain that can be toxic under specific conditions.
Kodo millet can become toxic if not stored properly, as poor storage conditions lead to fungal contamination and the production of harmful toxins like mycotoxins. So, statement 1 is correct.
The primary toxin in such cases is not aflatoxin but rather other fungal toxins, such as those from Penicillium or Fusarium species. Aflatoxins are more commonly associated with groundnuts and other specific crops, not Kodo millet. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consumption of contaminated Kodo millet can lead to neurological symptoms like tremors, convulsions, and even poisoning-related fatalities in severe cases. So, statement 3 is correct.
With reference to the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) and the Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP), consider the following statements:
- Both RCEP and CPTPP are mega free trade agreements (FTAs) aimed at promoting regional economic integration.
- RCEP includes India as a member, whereas CPTPP does not.
- CPTPP has higher standards for labor, environment, & intellectual property compared to RCEP.
- Both agreements include China as a member.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1 and 3 only
Consider the following statements:
- The Indian states that share a border with Manipur are Nagaland, Assam, and Mizoram.
- Manipur also shares a border with Myanmar (Burma) to the south and east.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Indian states that share a border with Manipur are Nagaland, Assam, and Mizoram:
Nagaland: To the north of Manipur
Assam: To the west of Manipur
Mizoram: To the south and southwest of Manipur. So, statement 1 is correct.
Manipur also shares a border with Myanmar (Burma) to the south and east. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Commission of Railway Safety (CRS):
- CRS operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Railways.
- CRS is responsible for ensuring the safety of railway operations and investigating railway accidents.
- Approval from the CRS is mandatory before the introduction of new railway lines or rolling stock for passenger operations.
- CRS functions as per the provisions of the Railways Act, 1989.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
2, 3, and 4 only
Which of the following statements about the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Amendment Act, 2024 is/are correct?
- Minor violations under the Act now attract fines instead of imprisonment.
- The central government now has the authority to override State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) in specific scenarios.
- Consent from the SPCB is no longer required to establish industries or treatment plants.
- The central government is empowered to set guidelines for appointing SPCB chairpersons.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1, 2, and 4 only
Explanation :
The Central Government has notified new rules to streamline the process of inquiry and imposition of penalties for water pollution offenses under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
These rules are called the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) (Manner of Holding Inquiry and Imposition of Penalty) Rules, 2024.
The Rules come in the backdrop of the amendments made to the Water Act earlier this year. This notification strengthens regulatory oversight while streamlining the adjudication process for water pollution violations.
Minor violations under the Act now attract fines instead of imprisonment. So, statement 1 is correct.
The central government can override SPCBs under specific circumstances. So, statement 2 is correct.
Industries or treatment plants still require SPCB consent, except for specific exemptions issued by the central government in consultation with the CPCB. So, statement 3 is not correct.
It grants the central government authority to prescribe guidelines for the nomination of chairpersons of State Pollution Control Boards. So, statement 4 is correct.
Which of the following best describes a trade war?
A situation where two or more countries impose escalating tariffs and trade barriers against each other.
Explanation :
A trade war occurs when countries impose tariffs, quotas, or other trade restrictions on each other’s goods in retaliation, aiming to protect domestic industries or achieve political goals.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs) in India?
D-SIBs are financial institutions whose failure could significantly impact the country’s economy due to their size, interconnectedness, or complexity.
A state in India is experiencing prolonged unrest and insurgent activities, leading to difficulties in maintaining law and order. The government considers invoking the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA). Which of the following consequences is most likely to occur upon its implementation?
The armed forces will gain special powers, including the authority to search premises, arrest individuals without warrants, and use force if necessary.
Which of the following best defines Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI)?
An investment by foreign entities in the shares, bonds, and other financial assets of a country, without direct ownership or control over the companies.
Explanation:
The recent 10% dip in India’s Nifty50 index, marking a “correction” phase, is attributed to foreign investors reallocating funds from Indian stocks to undervalued Chinese equities after China’s government introduced two stimulus packages aimed at reviving its economy.
The lower price-earnings ratios of Chinese stocks made them more appealing to global investors.
Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) refers to the investment made by foreign investors in financial assets like stocks, bonds, and other securities in a foreign country. It does not involve direct ownership or management control, distinguishing it from Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).
What is CLSA (formerly Credit Lyonnais Securities Asia) primarily known for?
Offering investment banking, brokerage, and research services.
Explanation :
In a strategic shift, Hong Kong-based brokerage CLSA increased its India allocation to 20% overweight, reversing its October stance favoring China.
CLSA (formerly known as Credit Lyonnais Securities Asia) is a leading brokerage and investment group known for its equity research, sales, trading, and investment banking services. Established in 1986, CLSA is recognized for its in-depth market research and strong presence in the Asian financial markets. It does not focus on retail banking or sovereign wealth fund management.
Consider the following statements about Jeevan Pramaan:
1.It is a biometric-enabled digital service aimed at pensioners.
2.The service eliminates the need for pensioners to physically present themselves at pension disbursing agencies.
3.It is applicable only to central government pensioners in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Pensioners, including retirees from government, Defense, Railways, PSUs, and educational institutions, must submit a life certificate annually in November to continue receiving pensions.
Since 2014, Digital Life Certificates (DLCs) via the Jeevan Pramaan system allow online submission without visiting banks or post offices.
The Department of Pension and Pensioners’ Welfare (DoPPW) is running its third DLC campaign from November 1-30, with 1,900 camps to assist pensioners.
Physical submission of life certificates at banks or post offices remains an option for those who prefer it.
Jeevan Pramaan is a biometric-enabled digital service specifically designed to help pensioners. So, Statement 1 is correct.
This service allows pensioners to submit their digital life certificates online, removing the need for them to visit pension disbursing agencies physically. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The service is not restricted to central government pensioners; it is also available to state government pensioners and other pension disbursing organizations. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
Which of the following statements about the Press Council of India (PCI) is correct?
The PCI aims to preserve the freedom of the press and maintain standards of journalistic ethics.
Explanation :
The Press Council of India celebrated National Press Day 2024 at the National Media Centre, New Delhi.
The Press Council of India (PCI) is a statutory body, not a constitutional body. It was established under the Press Council Act of 1978.
The PCI can issue warnings, admonitions, or directions to the press for unethical conduct but does not have the power to impose penalties or enforce punitive actions.
The primary objective of the PCI is to preserve the freedom of the press and ensure high standards of journalistic ethics.
The chairman of the PCI is appointed by a committee that includes the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, and one member of the PCI chosen by its members.
What is the Abraham Accord primarily associated with?
A peace agreement aimed at normalizing relations between Israel and several Arab nations.
Explanation :
Saudi Arabia recently hosted a summit involving leaders from Arab and Islamic nations to address the escalating crisis in Palestine.
The leaders collectively called for an immediate cessation of Israel’s military actions in Gaza and Lebanon.
The Abraham Accord refers to a series of agreements brokered by the United States in 2020 to normalize diplomatic relations between Israel and Arab countries such as the United Arab Emirates (UAE), Bahrain, Morocco, and Sudan.
It marked a significant shift in Middle Eastern geopolitics, promoting peace, cooperation, and mutual recognition between Israel and its Arab neighbors.
With reference to the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP), consider the following statements:
- GRAP can be implemented only during the winter season in Delhi-NCR to tackle seasonal air pollution.
- It categorizes pollution control measures based on air quality levels, ranging from moderate to severe plus.
- The implementation of GRAP requires the approval of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) before activating emergency measures.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
2 only
Explanation :
The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) has enforced Stage 4 of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) in Delhi-NCR. This measure follows the region’s Air Quality Index (AQI) crossing into the ‘severe plus’ category, signaling a critical air pollution emergency.
GRAP is not limited to the winter season; it can be implemented whenever air quality worsens, though it is most commonly activated in winter due to higher pollution levels. So, statement 1 is not correct.
GRAP provides a graded framework of measures based on the severity of air pollution, categorized as Moderate, Poor, Very Poor, Severe, and Severe Plus. Actions vary with these levels, such as restricting vehicle usage or halting construction activities. So, statement 2 is correct.
GRAP is directly implemented by CAQM without requiring separate approval from the National Green Tribunal (NGT). So, statement 3 is not correct.
Which of the following pair is correctly matched?
Supersonic speed: Greater than 1 Mach but less than 5 Mach
Explanation :
India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully flight-tested a long-range hypersonic missile off the coast of Odisha.
A supersonic missile travels at the speed between Mach 1 and Mach 5. So, option (b) is correct.
A hypersonic missile travels at speeds of Mach 5 and higher – five times faster than the speed of sound. So, option (c) is not correct.
A subsonic missile travels at a speed of less than 1 Mach. So, option (a) is not correct.
Which of the following statements about the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) is correct?
The CAQM has the authority to coordinate air pollution control measures across Delhi-NCR and adjoining areas in Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.
Explanation :
While Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) has a statutory mandate under the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021, it specifically focuses on Delhi-NCR and nearby regions, not all Indian states.
The CAQM was created to streamline and coordinate efforts to control air pollution in Delhi-NCR and neighboring states like Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh, addressing transboundary pollution issues such as stubble burning.
The CAQM supplements existing bodies like the CPCB; it does not replace them.
While implementing GRAP is one of its responsibilities, the CAQM has a broader mandate, including monitoring, planning, and enforcement of pollution control measures in the region.
With reference to the G20, consider the following statements:
- The G20 was established in 1999 in response to the Asian financial crisis to include emerging economies in global economic discussions.
- The presidency of the G20 rotates annually among its members, and the presiding nation sets the agenda for that year.
- Unlike the United Nations, the G20 has a permanent secretariat headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The G20 was established in 1999 after the Asian financial crisis, recognizing the need to include emerging economies in global financial discussions along with advanced economies. So, statement 1 is correct.
The presidency of the G20 rotates annually, and the host country determines the agenda for the year. So, statement 2 is correct.
The G20 does not have a permanent secretariat. Instead, the host country is responsible for organizing meetings and maintaining continuity through a “Troika” system (the past, current, and future presidencies). So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding earthquake:
- Earthquakes are caused by the sudden release of energy in the Earth’s crust, resulting in the generation of seismic waves.
- The point within the Earth where an earthquake originates is called the epicenter.
- The Richter scale measures the intensity of an earthquake based on the amount of energy released.
- Earthquake waves include primary (P-waves) and secondary (S-waves), with P-waves arriving at a seismic station before S-waves.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation:
Earthquakes are caused by the sudden release of energy in the Earth’s crust, resulting in the generation of seismic waves that propagate outward from the point of origin. So, statement 1 is correct.
The point within the Earth where an earthquake originates is called the focus or hypocenter, while the epicenter is the point on the Earth’s surface directly above the focus. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Richter scale measures the magnitude of an earthquake, not the intensity, and it is based on the logarithm of the amplitude of seismic waves recorded by seismographs. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Earthquake waves include primary (P-waves) and secondary (S-waves), with P-waves being faster and arriving at a seismic station before S-waves. So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Competition Commission of India (CCI):
- CCI is a non-statutory body established to eliminate practices having adverse effect on competition.
- CCI is mandated to undertake competition advocacy, create public awareness and impart training on competition issues.
- CCI does not have the power to impose monetary penalties upon violation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
2 only
Explanation :
WhatsApp plans to appeal the Competition Commission of India’s (CCI) ruling imposing a $25.4 million fine for anti-competitive practices related to its 2021 privacy policy.
The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is a statutory body established in March 2009 under the Competition Act, 2002. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The commission is a quasi-judicial body who also gives opinions to statutory authorities.
It is also mandated to undertake competition advocacy, create public awareness and impart training on competition issues. So, statement 2 is correct.
CCI has the power to inquire into a certain agreement as well as the dominant position of enterprises.
It has the power to inquire into any acquisition or combination if it determines that such acquisition or combination may adversely affect competition in the Indian market.
It has the power to regulate its own procedures.
It has the power to impose monetary penalties upon violation of the Competition Act, 2002. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Which of the following statements about the geographical location of Guyana is/are correct?
- It is located in the northern part of South America.
- It is bordered by the Atlantic Ocean to the west.
- Brazil, Venezuela, and Suriname are its neighboring countries.
- It is part of the Caribbean region.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
1, 3, and 4 only
Consider the following statements regarding the PM Vidya Lakshmi Scheme:
- It is a financial assistance scheme launched by the Ministry of Education for subsidizing education expenses exclusively for girl students in India.
- It provides an integrated platform for students to access and apply for education loans.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Only 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Cabinet chaired by PM Modi approved a new Central Sector Scheme, PM Vidyalaxmi, which seeks to provide financial support to meritorious students applying for higher education.
Students will now be eligible to get collateral-free, guarantor-free loans from banks and financial institutions to cover the tuition fees and other expenses related to the course.
PM Vidya Lakshmi is not limited to girl students, nor is it specifically aimed at providing subsidies in general. It is an online portal designed for all students to access education loans and scholarships. So, statement 1 is not correct.
PM Vidya Lakshmi portal facilitates students by providing a single-window system to apply for higher education loan. So, statement 2 is correct.
Based on the Food and Agriculture Organization’s (FAO) definition of hunger, which of the following measures would directly address strategies to combat hunger in a country?
- Increasing access to affordable and nutritious food for households below the poverty line.
- Providing skill development programs for unemployed youth.
- Strengthening the public distribution system to ensure consistent food supply.
- Promoting urban gardening initiatives to increase local food availability.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
1, 3, and 4 only
Explanation :
Definition of Hunger by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) – Hunger refers to a condition where a person’s caloric intake is insufficient to meet their minimum dietary energy requirements over an extended period.
Increasing access to affordable and nutritious food for households below the poverty line This directly addresses the lack of caloric intake, aligning with the FAO definition. So, statement 1 is correct.
Providing skill development programs for unemployed youth. While this is a long-term strategy for economic growth, it does not directly address the immediate issue of insufficient caloric intake. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Strengthening the public distribution system to ensure consistent food supply This ensures food accessibility and helps combat hunger directly. So, statement 3 is correct.
Promoting urban gardening initiatives to increase local food availability. Urban gardening improves food accessibility and availability, helping combat hunger. So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the International Criminal Court (ICC):
- ICC is a permanent international tribunal established to prosecute individuals for genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and the crime of aggression.
- The ICC has jurisdiction over crimes committed within the territory of its member states only.
- The Rome Statute, adopted in 2010, serves as the founding treaty of the ICC.
- The ICC can prosecute individuals who are nationals of non-member states if the crimes were committed on the territory of a member state or if the United Nations Security Council refers the situation to the court.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The International Criminal Court (ICC) has issued arrest warrants for Israel Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu, former defense minister Yoav Gallant, and Hamas leader Ibrahim Al-Masri for alleged war crimes and crimes against humanity.
The International Criminal Court is a permanent court to prosecute serious international crimes committed by individuals. It tries crimes such as genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and aggression. So, statement 1 is correct.
The ICC has jurisdiction over crimes committed within the territory of its member states and crimes committed by nationals of member states, regardless of the location of the crime. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Rome Statute, adopted in 1998, serves as the founding treaty of the ICC. So, statement 3 is not correct.
The ICC can prosecute individuals who are nationals of non-member states if the crimes were committed on the territory of a member state or if the United Nations Security Council refers the situation to the court. So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Paris Agreement:
- The primary goal of the Paris Agreement is to limit global temperature rise to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels, with efforts to limit the increase to 1.5°C.
- Under the Agreement, all countries are legally bound to meet their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).
- The Agreement includes provisions for developed countries to provide financial support to developing nations for climate action.
- The Agreement operates under the framework of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
1, 3, and 4 only
Explanation :
Argentina’s President Javier Milei is reportedly considering withdrawing from the Paris Agreement, following his government’s decision to pull negotiators from the COP29 climate summit.
Paris Agreement overarching goal is to hold “the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels” and pursue efforts “to limit the temperature increase to 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels. So, statement 1 is correct.
While countries are required to submit and update their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs), meeting the targets is not legally binding under the Agreement. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Developed countries are expected to provide financial assistance to help developing nations adapt to climate change and transition to low-carbon economies. So, statement 3 is correct.
The Agreement was adopted in 2015 as part of the UNFCCC framework. So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA):
- NTCA was constituted under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1976.
- Prime Minister of India is the ex-officio chairman of NTCA.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Indian government has notified the 56th Tiger Reserve of the country in Chhattisgarh. Guru Ghasidas - Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve of Chhattisgarh is going to be the 3rd largest in the country.
The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) has been constituted under section 38 L (1) of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Further, as per the section 38 L, sub section 2 of the said Act, the authority consists of the Minister in charge of the Ministry of Environment and Forests (as Chairperson), the Minister of State in the Ministry of Environment and Forests (as Vice-Chairperson), three members of Parliament, Secretary, Ministry of Environment and Forests and other members. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements about the 1949 Geneva Conventions:
- It consist of four treaties that establish international legal standards for humanitarian treatment during armed conflicts.
- The conventions apply only to conflicts between states and exclude non-international armed conflicts.
- Fourth Geneva Convention specifically focuses on the protection of civilians during wartime.
- The conventions form the core of international humanitarian law and have been ratified by almost all countries in the world.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
1, 3, and 4 only
Explanation :
The 1949 Geneva Conventions are a set of four treaties aimed at protecting individuals who are not participating in hostilities (e.g., civilians, medical personnel) and those who are no longer participating (e.g., wounded soldiers, prisoners of war). So, statement 1 is correct.
While the conventions were originally designed for international armed conflicts, Common Article 3 applies specifically to non-international armed conflicts, ensuring minimum standards of protections even in civil wars. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Fourth Geneva Convention explicitly addresses the protection of civilians and prohibits acts like torture, deportation, and taking hostages. So, statement 3 is correct.
The 1949 Geneva Conventions are universally accepted, with nearly every country ratifying them, making them a cornerstone of international humanitarian law. So, statement 4 is correct.
While traveling on a ship from Mumbai to Bandar Abbas Port, which water bodies and ports will one encounter along the route?
Arabian Sea, Chabahar Port, Gulf of Oman, Strait of Hormuz
Explanation:
The route passes through the Arabian Sea, then enters the Gulf of Oman before reaching the critical maritime chokepoint, the Strait of Hormuz.
Finally, upon entering the Persian Gulf, one arrives at Bandar Abbas Port, a major Iranian port city located close to Chabahar Port.
Which of the following statements about the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA) are correct?
- UNEA is the governing body of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
- It is the world’s highest-level decision-making body on environmental issues.
- Resolutions passed by UNEA are legally binding on all member states.
- UNEA usually meets biennially at UNEP headquarters in Nairobi, Kenya.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
1, 2, and 4 only
Explanation :
UNEA oversees UNEP and sets global environmental policies and priorities. So, statement 1 is correct.
UNEA is the world’s highest-level decision-making body on the environment. UNEA brings together representatives from all UN member states to address critical environmental challenges. So, statement 2 is correct.
UNEA resolutions are not legally binding but carry significant moral and political weight, guiding international environmental policy. So, statement 3 is not correct.
UNEA usually meets biennially at UNEP headquarters in Nairobi, Kenya. So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian National Satellite System (INSAT):
- INSAT is a series of geostationary satellites launched and operated by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO).
- The primary functions of INSAT include communication, broadcasting, meteorology, and search and rescue operations.
- INSAT system was commissioned with the launch of INSAT-1A in 1990.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
INSAT is a series of geostationary satellites operated by ISRO. So, statement 1 is correct.
INSAT’s functions include communication, broadcasting, weather monitoring, and search and rescue. So, statement 2 is correct
INSAT system was commissioned with the launch of INSAT-1B in August 1983 (INSAT-1A, the first satellite was launched in April 1982 but could not fulfil the mission). So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Current Account Deficit (CAD):
- CAD occurs when a country’s total imports of goods, services, and investments exceed its total exports.
- A persistent high CAD can be a sign of a nation’s economic strength and stability.
- The current account includes trade in goods and services, income from abroad, and unilateral transfers.
- CAD can be financed by borrowing from foreign lenders or by attracting foreign investments.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only three
Explanation :
CAD arises when a country imports more than it exports. So, statement 1 is correct.
A persistent high CAD is generally viewed as a sign of economic weakness, as it indicates a reliance on foreign capital. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The current account does include trade in goods and services, income from abroad, and unilateral transfers. So, statement 3 is correct.
A CAD can indeed be financed through foreign borrowing or by attracting foreign investments. So, statement 4 is correct.
What is the primary objective of the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) established by the Government of India?
To promote research and innovation by bridging the gap between academia, industry, and government.
Explanation :
The ANRF is designed to enhance India’s research and innovation ecosystem by fostering collaboration between academia, industry, and the government across multiple disciplines, including science, technology, and social sciences.
ANRF will act as an apex body to provide high-level strategic direction of scientific research in the country as per recommendations of the National Education Policy (NEP). With the establishment of ANRF, the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) established by an act of Parliament in 2008 has been subsumed into ANRF.
It does not focus exclusively on space and nuclear energy nor on standardizing publications or scholarships for studying abroad.
What was the primary focus of United Nations Security Council (UNSC) Resolution 1701, adopted in 2006?
Establishing a ceasefire between Israel and Hezbollah following the 2006 Lebanon War.
Explanation :
Israel and Lebanon have entered into a ceasefire. This happened a day after Israel’s security cabinet approved a US-backed proposal to end the 13-month-long conflict that escalated in September.
This ceasefire has been modeled after UNSC Resolution 1701 from the 2006 conflict.
UNSC Resolution 1701 was adopted to end the hostilities between Israel and Hezbollah during the 2006 Lebanon War.
Consider the following statements regarding Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF):
- It is a farming method in which the farmer is going to have no input costs at all.
- In India, it was originally promoted by agriculturist Subhash Palekar.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
2 only
Explanation :
The Union Cabinet approved the launch of the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) as a standalone Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare.
Zero Budget does not mean that farmer is going to have no costs at all, but rather that any costs will be compensated for by income from intercrops or other resources of additional income. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZNBF) is the practice of growing crops without the use of any external inputs, such as pesticides and fertilizers.
Shri Subhesh Palekar, a Padma Shri awardee from Vidarbha, is a pioneer of this unique technique which he calls ZBNF. The ZBNF promises to drastically cut production costs as most of the inputs are drawn from natural resources. So, statement 2 is correct.
