January 2024 Flashcards
Which of the following statements best reflects the essence of CBDR-RC in this context?
Countries with higher economic capabilities should bear the primary responsibility for addressing climate change, while considering the varying capacities of different nations.
Explanation :
As the world’s third-largest emitter of greenhouse gases, India is a crucial player in the global fight against climate change.
India has, in the last few years, become increasingly proactive at the annual climate change conference, also known as the Conference of Parties (COP).
India had hosted one of these conferences — COP8, way back in 2008.
The principle of Common But Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities (CBDR-RC) recognizes that all countries share a common responsibility to address global issues like climate change.
However, it acknowledges that countries have different levels of economic development and capacities.
According to CBDR-RC, developed countries, with higher economic capabilities, should take on a greater responsibility in addressing environmental challenges, while considering the varying capacities of less developed nations.
This principle seeks to balance the shared global responsibility with an understanding of the different circumstances of individual countries.
Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC):
- UNFCCC was adopted at the Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.
- The ultimate objective of UNFCCC is to stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system.
- The Kyoto Protocol is a legally binding treaty that operates under the UNFCCC.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All three
Explanation :
1992 Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit gave rise to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).So, statement 1 is correct.
The ultimate objective of the UNFCCC, as stated in Article 2, is to stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system.So, statement 2 is correct.
The Kyoto Protocol is a legally binding treaty that operates under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). It was adopted in December 1997 and aims to reduce greenhouse gases and carbon dioxide emissions. So, statement 3 is correct.
In the aftermath of a severe cyclone, Country X, a developing nation, has experienced extensive damage to its infrastructure, loss of agricultural productivity, and displacement of communities. Country X seeks assistance from the Loss and Damage Fund established under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
Which of the following best describes the purpose and function of the Loss and Damage Fund in this context?
The fund will help developing countries that are vulnerable to the consequences of climate change.
Explanation :
On the opening day of the COP28 climate conference in Dubai, a loss and damage fund to help vulnerable countries cope with the impact of climate change has been officially launched.
The loss and damage fund was first announced during COP27 in Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt, last year.
The initial funding is estimated to be $475 million:
host UAE pledged $100 million,
the European Union promised $275 million,
$17.5 million from the US, and
$10 million from Japan.
The Loss and Damage (L&D) fund is a financial mechanism that helps countries deal with the irreversible consequences of climate change.
The fund provides financial assistance to poorer nations as they deal with the negative consequences of climate change. These consequences include rising sea levels, extreme heat waves, desertification, forest fires, and crop failures.
The Loss and Damage Fund was first announced at COP27 in Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt in 2022. The fund was adopted by consensus at COP28 in Dubai, with several countries pledging around $700 million.
It should be noted that Loss and damage means different things to different groups and there is no agreed upon definition within the UNFCCC.
Consider the following statements regarding the tropical cyclones:
- These are large-scale weather systems characterized by low-pressure centers and strong winds circulating in a counter-clockwise direction in the Northern Hemisphere.
- They typically form over tropical and subtropical waters, fueled by warm ocean temperatures and high humidity.
- The Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale is commonly used to categorize tropical cyclones based on their wind speeds and potential for damage.
- The strongest winds and heaviest rainfall in a tropical cyclone are typically found in the outer bands or spiral rainbands surrounding the eye.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All Four
Explanation :
The India Meteorological Department (IMD) has forecast a cyclonic storm, Cyclone Michaung, over the southwest Bay of Bengal on December 3.
Cyclone Michaung is the fourth tropical cyclone of the year over the Bay of Bengal.
Tropical cyclones are large-scale weather systems characterized by low-pressure centres and strong winds circulating in a counterclockwise direction in the Northern Hemisphere. In the Southern Hemisphere, they circulate in a clockwise direction. So, statement 1 is correct.
Tropical cyclones typically form over tropical and subtropical waters, where the ocean temperatures are warm and there is high humidity. These warm oceanic conditions provide the energy necessary for their formation and intensification.So, statement 2 is correct.
The Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale is commonly used to categorize tropical cyclones based on their wind speeds and potential for damage. It classifies hurricanes into five categories based on sustained wind speeds, ranging from Category 1 (weakest) to Category 5 (strongest).So, statement 3 is correct.
The strongest winds and heaviest rainfall in a tropical cyclone are typically found in the outer bands or spiral rainbands surrounding the eye. These bands extend outward from the center and contribute to the overall size and impact of the cyclone. So, statement 5 is correct.
Which of the following best describes the purpose and significance of the Global Stocktake in the context of climate action?
The Global Stocktake is a periodic review that assesses the collective progress of countries in achieving the long-term goals of the Paris Agreement, including limiting global temperature rise.
Explanation :
The first-ever global stocktake was concluded at the UN Climate Change Conference (COP28) held in Dubai.
The Global Stocktake happened for the first time, since the Paris Agreement in 2015.
The global stocktake is a process for countries and stakeholders to see where they are collectively making progress towards meeting the goals of the Paris Climate Change Agreement – and where they are not.
Basically, the global stocktake is like taking inventory.
It means looking at everything related to where the world stands on climate action and support, identifying the gaps, and working together to chart a better course forward to accelerate climate action.
The stocktake takes place every five years, with the first-ever stocktake set to conclude at COP28.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB):
- It has been set up under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- It functions as the National storehouse of fingerprint records of convicted persons.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) released its annual report on crime in India for the year 2022.
The report is a compilation of data on reported crime from across the country, and provides the big picture of broad trends in crime registration.
NCRB was set-up in 1986 under the administrative control of Ministry of Home Affairs.So, statement 1 is correct.
It is responsible for collecting and analysing crime data as defined by the Indian Penal Code and Special and Local Laws. NCRB is headquartered in New Delhi.
It also functions as the National storehouse of fingerprint (FP) records of convicted persons including FP records of foreign criminals.So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following pairs: Volcano - Place
- Mont Etna - Italy
- Mt. Marapi - Malaysia
- Mauna Loa - Hawaii, USA
How many of the pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
Only two
Explanation :
The death toll from a volcanic eruption in Indonesia has gone up to 22, after rescuers found nine more bodies. This eruption of Mt. Marapi was the deadliest since 1979, when an eruption killed 60 people.
Frequent volcanic eruptions in Marapi have hampered rescue efforts for days.
Mount Etna is located in Sicily, Italy.
Mount Merapi is a volcanic mountain peak located near the centre of the island of Java, Indonesia.
Mauna Loa is located in the United States, on the island of Hawaii. It’s part of Hawaii Volcanoes National Park and is the largest active volcano on Earth by mass and volume.
Consider the following statements regarding the World Meteorological Organization (WMO):
- It is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
- The Secretariat of WMO is headquartered at New York.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Only 1
Explanation :
“The Global Climate 2011-2020: A Decade of Acceleration” is a report published by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO).
Established by the ratification of the WMO Convention on 23 March 1950, WMO became the specialised agency of the UN. So, statement 1 is correct.
It is responsible for promoting international cooperation on -
Meteorology (weather and climate),
Operational hydrology and
Related geophysical sciences.
The Secretariat, headquartered in Geneva, is headed by the Secretary-General and its supreme body is the World Meteorological Congress. So, statement 2 is not correct.
WMO publishes - Greenhouse Gas Bulletin, Status of Global Climate, etc., reports
Consider the following statements:
- Critical minerals are essential for economic development and national security.
- The government of India, in July 2023, released a list of 20 critical minerals for India.
- In order to maintain resilience supply chain for critical minerals, India is planning to join Mineral Security Partnership (MSP).
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Twenty blocks of critical minerals are currently on auction for commercial mining by the private sector.
The bidding process began on November 29, and bids can be submitted until January 22 next year.
A mineral is critical when the risk of supply shortage and associated impact on the economy is (relatively) higher than other raw materials.
These minerals are essential for economic development and national security, and their lack of availability/ the concentration of extraction/ processing in a few geographical locations could potentially lead to supply chain vulnerabilities. So, statement 1 is correct.
In July 2023, government of India released a list of 30 critical minerals for India. So, statement 2 is not correct.
These minerals are Antimony, Beryllium, Bismuth, Cobalt, Copper, Gallium, Germanium, Graphite, Hafnium, Indium, Lithium, Molybdenum, Niobium, Nickel, PGE, Phosphorous, Potash, REE, Rhenium, Silicon, Strontium, Tantalum, Tellurium, Tin, Titanium, Tungsten, Vanadium, Zirconium, Selenium and Cadmium.
India has recently been inducted into MSP. So, statement 3 is not correct.
MSP is a US-led collaboration of 14 countries that aims to catalyse public and private investment in critical mineral supply chains globally.
Consider the following statements regarding Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:
- PVTGs are identified based solely on their economic status and income levels.
- Currently, there are 75 PVTGs in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Only 2
Explanation :
PVTGs are more vulnerable among the tribal groups.
Due to this factor, more developed and assertive tribal groups take a major chunk of the tribal development funds, because of which PVTGs need more funds directed for their development.
In this context, in 1975, the Government of India declared 52 tribal groups as PVTGs on the recommendation of Dhebar commission.
Currently, there are 75 PVTGs out of 705 Scheduled Tribes.So, statement 2 is correct.
The PVTGs are spread over 18 states and one Union Territory (UT), in the country (2011 census).
Odisha has the highest number (more than 2.5 lakh) of PVTGs.
Characteristics of PVTGs:
Population – stagnant/declining
Technology – pre-agricultural
Literacy Level – extremely low
Economy – Subsistence level
So, statement 1 is not correct.
Who are Sammakka and Sarakka in the context of Indian cultural and religious traditions?
Folk deities revered by the Koya tribe in the Indian state of Telangana.
Explanation :
The Lok Sabha took up the Central Universities (Amendment) Bill, 2023 for consideration and passing.
The Bill seeks to establish a Central Tribal University in Telangana which will be named ‘Sammakka Sarakka Central Tribal University’.
Sammakka and Sarakka are revered as folk deities among the Koya tribe in the Indian state of Telangana. They are worshipped during the biennial Sammakka Saralamma Jatara, one of the largest tribal festivals in Asia.
The festival is dedicated to these tribal goddesses and attracts a large number of devotees from various tribal communities.
What is Pompe Disease?
A rare genetic disorder that results in the buildup of glycogen in the body’s cells, particularly in muscles, leading to muscle weakness and other complications.
Explanation :
Nidhi Shirol, India’s first Pompe disease patient, passed away at the age of 24 years after battling the disease.
She spent the last six years in a semi-comatose state.
Pompe Disease is a rare genetic disorder caused by a deficiency of the enzyme acid alpha-glucosidase (GAA). This deficiency leads to the accumulation of glycogen in various tissues, particularly in muscles.
The disease primarily affects the muscles and can result in progressive muscle weakness, respiratory issues, and other complications.
Consider the following statements regarding the Article 99 of the UN Charter:
- It is a special political tool that allows the UN Secretary-General to call a meeting of the Security Council.
- It is the only independent political tool given to the Secretary-General in the UN Charter.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres used a rarely used power to warn the Security Council of a humanitarian catastrophe in Gaza.
He urged the members to demand an immediate humanitarian cease-fire.
In this context, Guterres invoked Article 99 of the UN Charter, a diplomatic tool that allows the UN head to raise issues that may threaten international peace and security.
Article 99 of the UN Charter is a special political tool that allows the UN Secretary-General to call a meeting of the Security Council. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Secretary-General can use this tool to bring to the Security Council’s attention any matter that they believe may threaten international peace and security.
Article 99 is the only independent political tool given to the Secretary-General in the UN Charter.It is seen as a discretionary power.So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statement regarding the Lok Sabha Ethics Committee:
- The committee has 20 members.
- The members of the Ethics Committee are appointed by the President.
- Members of the Committee are appointed for a period of two year.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
None of the above
Explanation :
The Lok Sabha expelled Trinamool Congress member Mahua Moitra over the “cash-for-query” allegation through a voice vote amid chaos.
Union Parliamentary Affairs Minister had moved the motion to expel Ms. Moitra as per the recommendation of Ethics Committee report.
The report found her guilty of sharing her credentials with others, accepted gifts for favours from a businessman.
Appointment of members in Lok Sabha Ethics Committee:
The committee should not contain more than 15 members. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The members of the Ethics Committee are appointed by the Speaker for a period of one year. So, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Digital Lending:
- Digital lending refers to the use of online platforms and technology to connect borrowers with lenders without the involvement of traditional financial institutions.
- Digital lending platforms often use alternative data sources, such as social media profiles and transaction history, for credit assessment and decision-making.
- Regulatory oversight of digital lending practices is consistent globally, ensuring uniform standards for consumer protection.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) kept the repo rate unchanged for the fifth time in a row at 6.5 per cent.
While announcing various steps, RBI also said that it will lay down guidelines for web aggregators of loan products to bring more transparency to digital lending.
Digital lending involves the use of online platforms and technology to connect borrowers with lenders, often bypassing traditional banking channels.So, statement 1 is correct.
Digital lending platforms frequently leverage alternative data sources beyond traditional credit scores, including social media activity and transaction history, to assess the creditworthiness of borrowers.So, statement 2 is correct.
Regulatory oversight of digital lending practices varies across countries, and there is no consistent global framework. Regulatory approaches differ, and some regions may have more robust consumer protection measures than others.So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI):
- CCPI is a scoring system that measures the climate protection performance of countries.
- The CCPI uses a standardized framework to compare the climate performance of 63 countries and the EU.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2024 was released on the sidelines of the ongoing COP28 at Dubai.
India ranked 7th in this year’s Climate Change Performance Index, up one spot from the previous one.
About
CCPI is a scoring system that measures the climate protection performance of countries. It was first published in 2005.So, statement 1 is correct.
It is designed to improve transparency in international climate politics.
It also allows for the comparison of climate protection efforts and progress made by individual countries.
Function
The CCPI uses a standardized framework to compare the climate performance of 63 countries and the EU, which together account for over 90% of global greenhouse gas emissions. So, statement 2 is correct.
The climate protection performance is assessed in four categories: GHG Emissions, Renewable Energy, Energy Use and Climate Policy.
The analysis also reports on the extent to which each country is taking actions in the areas of emissions, renewable energy and energy use in order to achieve the climate goals set in Paris.
Ranking
Rankings are based on each country’s overall score. No country performs well enough in all index categories to achieve an overall very high rating.
Published by
Germanwatch, the New Climate Institute and the Climate Action Network publish the index annually.
Consider the following statements regarding the Marine Commandos (MARCOS):
- It is a special operations force of the Indian Army that conducts operations in air, water, and land.
- MARCOS are also trained to conduct swift and stealthy response in denied territories.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Only 2
Explanation :
The Indian Navy is planning to acquire indigenously-made swimmer delivery vehicles — also known as underwater chariots and midget submarines.
This is part of efforts to modernise and strengthen the capabilities of its Marine Commandos (MARCOS) for special undersea operations.
About
MARCOS stands for Marine Commandos. It is a special operations force of the Indian Navy that conducts operations in air, water, and land. So, statement 1 is not correct.
MARCOS was founded in February 1987 and is also known as the Marine Commando Force (MCF).
MARCOS are modelled after the US Navy SEALs and the Royal Marines.
Function
MARCOS are trained to conduct the following operations:
Maritime and amphibious warfare
Counter-terrorism
Unconventional warfare
Rescue missions
Reconnaissance
Raids
Swift and stealthy response in denied territories. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR):
- On 10 December 1948, the UN General Assembly approved the Universal Declaration of Human Rights at a meeting in Paris.
- The declaration consists of a preamble and 30 articles setting out fundamental rights and freedoms.
- UDHR articulates a broad range of civil, political, economic, social, and cultural rights.
- The UDHR is not legally binding on the member states of the United Nations.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All four
Explanation :
December 10, 2023 marked the 75th anniversary of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR).
UDHR is the landmark document enshrining human rights and fundamental freedoms for all individuals.
On 10 December 1948, the UN General Assembly approved the Universal Declaration of Human Rights at a meeting in Paris.So, statement 1 is correct.
A relatively compact document, the declaration consists of a preamble and 30 articles setting out fundamental rights and freedoms.So, statement 2 is correct.
These 30 articles articulate a broad range of civil, political, economic, social, and cultural rights. So, statement 3 is correct.
These rights are considered universal, meaning they apply to all people regardless of nationality, ethnicity, gender, religion, or any other status.
It is not a legally binding treaty, but it has served as a source of inspiration for the development of international human rights law.So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Zonal Council of India:
- It is a non-constitutional, non-statutory body.
- There are five zonal councils in India.
- North Eastern Council is one of the zonal councils which looks after the special problems of North Eastern region.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation Shri Amit Shah chaired the 26th meeting of the Eastern Zonal Council in Patna, Bihar.
Zonal Councils are the statutory and not the constitutional bodies. It was set up under the States Re-organisation Act, 1956.So, statement 1 is not correct.
The five councils are: The Northern Zonal Council; The Central Zonal Council; The Eastern Zonal Council; The Western Zonal Council; The Southern Zonal Council. So, statement 2 is correct.
The North Eastern States are not included in the Zonal Councils. Their special problems are looked after by the North Eastern Council, set up under the North Eastern Council Act, 1972.So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the New Pension Scheme (NPS):
- It offers pensions to government employees on the basis of their last drawn salary.
- In NPS, contributions are defined, but benefits depend on the market.
- Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) is the nodal agency responsible for the implementation of NPS.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only 2
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released the report “State Finances: A Study of Budgets of 2023-24”.
In this report, the RBI said that the return to the Old Pension Scheme (OPS) by a few states would put a huge burden on their finances.
This will restrict them from undertaking capital expenditure to drive the growth.
As a substitute of OPS, the NPS was introduced by the Central government in April, 2004.
This pension programme is open to employees from the public, private and even the unorganised sectors except those from the armed forces.
The scheme encourages people to invest in a pension account at regular intervals during the course of their employment.
After retirement, the subscribers can take out a certain percentage of the corpus.
The beneficiary receives the remaining amount as a monthly pension, post retirement.
Hence, pension is not determined on the basis of last drawn salary. So, statement 1 is not correct.
NPS doesn’t guarantee fix returns as it is subjected to market volatility. In NPS, contributions are defined, but benefits depend on the market. So, statement 2 is correct.
Nodal agency: Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA). So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
A windfall tax is:
None of the above
Explanation :
A windfall tax is imposed on companies that have seen their profits extraordinarily not because of any clever investment decision or an increase in efficiency or innovation, but simply because of favourable market conditions.
Consider the following provisions:
- Article 102(1) of the constitution
- Article 191(1) of the constitution
- Tenth Schedule of the Constitution
- Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951
How many of the above provision(s) deal(s) with the disqualification of MPs/MLAs?
All four
Explanation :
Disqualification of a lawmaker is prescribed in three situations.
First is through the Articles 102(1) and 191(1) for disqualification of a member of Parliament and a member of the Legislative Assembly respectively.
The grounds here include holding an office of profit, being of unsound mind or insolvent or not having valid citizenship.
The second prescription of disqualification is in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution.
This provides for the disqualification of the members on grounds of defection.
The third prescription is under The Representation of The People Act (RPA), 1951.
This law provides for disqualification for conviction in criminal cases.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- Rule Number 373 of Lok Sabha empowers presiding officers to direct an MP to withdraw from the House for any disorderly conduct.
- Rule 255 of Rajya Sabha empowers the Chairman of Rajya Sabha to direct any Member to withdraw immediately from the House for any disorderly conduct.
- Rajya Sabha can not suspend its members without passing a motion for the same.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Fourteen opposition MPs (13 from the Lok Sabha and one from the Rajya Sabha) were suspended after they protested against a security breach in the parliament.
For Lok Sabha
Rule Number 373 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business
It empowers presiding officers to direct an MP to withdraw from the House for any disorderly conduct.So, statement 1 is correct.
This rule says that any Member so ordered to withdraw shall remain absent during the remainder of the day’s sitting.
Rules 374 and 374A-
Rule 374 empowers the Presiding officers to name the legislators if the MP continues disrupting the House even after repeated warnings.
After that, the House can move a motion to suspend the MP for a period not exceeding the remainder of the session
Rule 374A was incorporated in the Rule Book in December 2001.The intention was to circumvent the necessity of adopting a motion for suspension.
Under this rule, the Speaker can name an MP, who shall then automatically stand suspended for five days or the remaining part of the session.
For Rajya Sabha
Rule 255 of the Rule Book of Rajya Sabha
It empowers the Chairman of Rajya Sabha to direct any Member to withdraw immediately from the House for any disorderly conduct.So, statement 2 is correct.
Rule 256
This rule empowers the Chairman to name the members who persistently disregards the authority of the Chair or abuses the rules of the Council.
After that, the House may adopt a motion suspending the Member for a period not exceeding the remainder of the session.
It should be noted that, unlike Lok Sabha (under rule 374A), Rajya Sabha can not suspend its members without passing a motion for the same. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the impeachment of a US President:
- Under the US Constitution, the President can be removed from office for treason, bribery, or other high crimes and misdemeanors.
- Criminal charges can be brought against a sitting President.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Only 1
Explanation :
The US House has approved an impeachment inquiry into United States President Joe Biden and his family.
This was after Republicans raised allegations against his son Hunter Biden for profiting in business dealings with foreign entities.
Impeachment is a process that involves a legislative body or tribunal charging a public official with misconduct.
Under the US Constitution, the president can be removed from office for “treason, bribery, or other high crimes and misdemeanors.” However, these terms have not been defined.So, statement 1 is correct.
Criminal charges cannot be brought against a sitting President.So, statement 2 is not correct.
However, the Constitution does allow for separate criminal charges once a president is removed.
It is a process that involves both political and legal elements.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following oceanic features is not located near the Maldives?
Java Trench
Explanation :
The Maldives government has decided to not renew an agreement with India that allowed India to conduct hydrographic surveys in Maldivian waters.
The agreement was signed in 2019 during PM Modi’s visit to the islands, when President Ibrahim Solih was in power.
The Java Trench is located in the eastern Indian Ocean, to the southeast of the Indian subcontinent.
It is not in proximity to the Maldives, which is situated in the central-western part of the Indian Ocean. The other options, Chagos-Laccadive Ridge, Addu Atoll, and Nine-Degree Channel, are geographically closer to or associated with the Maldives region.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
The Northern Sea Route (NSR) has gained geopolitical and economic significance in recent years. Which of the following statements regarding the NSR is correct?
The NSR is a navigable Arctic shipping route that runs along the Russian Arctic coast.
Explanation :
The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration’s (NOAA) annual Arctic Report Card has been released.
As per this report, the 2023 summer was the warmest on record in the Arctic, which, due to climate change, has warmed nearly four times faster than the globe since 1979.
The study indicates Arctic amplification is taking place at a very fast rate.
Arctic amplification is the increasingly ramped-up warming that is taking place in the area of the world north of 67 degrees N latitude.
India has been showing greater interest regarding the NSR for a variety of reasons.
The Northern Sea Route (NSR), the shortest shipping route for freight transportation between Europe and countries of the Asia-Pacific region, straddles four seas of the Arctic Ocean.
It is a navigable Arctic shipping route that follows the Russian Arctic coastline, providing a shorter route between Europe and Asia via the Arctic Ocean.
Running to 5,600 km, the Route begins at the boundary between the Barents and the Kara seas (Kara Strait) and ends in the Bering Strait.
As per one research paper, distance savings along the NSR can be as high as 50% compared to the currently used shipping lanes via Suez or Panama.
What is the Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG)?
A research consortium focused on studying the genomic variations of the SARS-CoV-2 virus in India.
Explanation :
A case of JN.1, a sub-variant of COVID-19 that’s currently spreading in the US and China, has been found in Kerala.
It was found as part of the ongoing routine surveillance by INSACOG (Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium).
INSACOG is a national multi-agency consortium of Genome Sequencing Laboratories laboratories.
It was established by the Government of India in December 2020 for genomic surveillance of SARS-CoV-2 in India.
Presently, there are 28 laboratories under this Consortium which monitor the genomic variations in SARS-CoV-2.
Which of the following is not an objective of Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra?
To raise awareness about and track the implementation of flagship central schemes
Reach out to the vulnerable who are eligible under various schemes but have not availed benefit
Neither a nor b
Explanation :
PM Modi is on a two-day visit to Varanasi where he addressed a Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra event.
About
The Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra is a government initiative being undertaken across the country, to raise awareness about and track the implementation of flagship central schemes.So, option (a) is correct.
These schemes include programmes like Ayushman Bharat, Ujjwala Yojana, PM Surkasha Bima, PM SVANidhi, etc.
Aims
Reach out to the vulnerable who are eligible under various schemes but have not availed benefit so far; So, option (b) is correct.
Dissemination of information and generating awareness about schemes;
Interaction with beneficiaries of government schemes through their personal stories/ experience sharing; and
Enrolment of potential beneficiaries through details ascertained during the Yatra.
Consider the following statements regarding Assam Rifles:
- Besides maintaining law and order in the Northeast, the Assam Rifles also guards the border with Myanmar and Bangladesh in the region.
- Assam Rifles comes under the full control of Ministry of Home Affairs.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The Assam Rifles is planning critical operational changes so that it can be deployed for conventional roles along the Line of Actual Control (LAC) in contingencies.
At the same time, it will continue to perform its traditional counter-insurgency duties in the Northeast and guarding the India-Myanmar border.
Besides maintaining law and order in the Northeast (a task it performs together with the Army), the Assam Rifles also guards the border with Myanmar in the region.So, statement 1 is not correct.
BSF guards the border with Bangladesh.
Assam Rifles is the only paramilitary force with a dual control structure:
The administrative control of the force is with the MHA.
Its operational control is with the Indian Army, which is under the Ministry of Defence (MoD).
So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements about telecom spectrum auction:
- Telecom spectrum auction is a process through which government assigns rights to use radio frequencies to telecom operators.
- The auctioning of spectrum helps in determining its market value and ensures efficient utilization by telecom service providers.
- Spectrum auction in India is conducted by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI).
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Telecommunications Bill, 2023 was introduced in the Lok Sabha by Union minister for Communications, Electronics & Information Technology.
Among its many significant provisions is one on national security, which allows the government to temporarily take control of telecom services in case of an emergency.
Telecom spectrum auction is a process through which the government allocates radio frequencies, but it’s more about assigning rights to use these frequencies rather than direct allocation. So, statement 1 is correct.
Telecom spectrum auctions help determine the market value of spectrum by letting telecom operators bid for the rights. This process ensures that the spectrum is efficiently allocated to those who value it the most. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Department of Telecommunications (DoT) conducts spectrum auctions in India. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) provides recommendations to the government on spectrum auctions. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the India’s involvement in Arctic:
- The Himadri research station, located in Ny Alesund, Svalbard in Norway, was started by India in July 2008.
- India is also a member of Arctic Council.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Only 1
Explanation :
Raman Research Institute (RRI) will participate in the first winter Indian expedition to the Arctic region.
RRI is an autonomous research institute engaged in research in basic sciences.
This will be for the first time that researchers will examine the characterisation of the radio frequency environment in the Svalbard region of the Arctic.
The Himadri research station, located in Ny Alesund, Svalbard in Norway, was started in July 2008. So, statement 1 is correct.
In 2014, India deployed IndArc, a multisensory observatory in Kongsfjorden.
In 2016, India’s northernmost atmospheric laboratory was established at Gruvebadet.
India is Observer to the Arctic Council since 2013. Its membership as an observer was renewed in 2019 for another five years. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Council is the leading intergovernmental forum promoting cooperation on common Arctic issues.
Established by the eight Arctic States — the countries whose territories fall in the Arctic region — through the Ottawa Declaration of 1996.
Member Nations of the Council - Canada, the Kingdom of Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, the Russian Federation, Sweden and United States.
Consider the following statements regarding Lumpy Skin Disease:
- It is a contagious viral disease primarily affecting humans.
- The causative agent of Lumpy Skin Disease belongs to the Poxviridae family.
- It poses a significant threat to cattle and can have economic implications for the livestock industry.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
only 2
Explanation :
A Parliamentary Standing Committee has raised concerns about the accuracy of information regarding cattle deaths due to Lumpy Skin Disease (LSD).
The committee pointed out a discrepancy between the data provided by the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying (DAHD) and the actual situation on the ground, suggesting that the reported numbers may not align with reality.
LSD is caused by the lumpy skin disease virus (LSDV), which is a virus of the capripoxvirus genus in the poxviridae family. So, statement 2 is correct.
Sheeppox virus and goatpox virus are the other members of the genus capripoxvirus.
The LSDV mainly affects cattle — cow and its progeny, and the Asian water buffaloes.So, statement 1 is not correct.
Lumpy Skin Disease is a significant threat to cattle, causing nodules and lesions on the skin. It can lead to economic implications for the livestock industry due to reduced milk production, weight loss, and mortality in severe cases.So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the geographical location of the Red Sea:
- It is narrow strip of water extending south-eastward from Suez, Egypt, to the Bab el-Mandeb Strait.
- It is a narrow inland sea between the Arabian Peninsula and Africa.
- It separates the coasts of Egypt, Sudan, and Eritrea from those of Saudi Arabia and Yemen.
- Red Sea contains some of the world’s hottest and saltiest seawater.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All four
Explanation :
U.S. Defense Secretary had announced the creation of a multinational operation to safeguard commerce in the Red Sea.
This was following a series of missile and drone attacks by Yemen’s Iran-aligned Houthis.
Red Sea is narrow strip of water extending southeastward from Suez, Egypt, to the Bab el-Mandeb Strait. So, statement 1 is correct.
Basically, it is a narrow inland sea between the Arabian Peninsula and Africa.So, statement 2 is correct.
The Red Sea separates the coasts of Egypt, Sudan, and Eritrea from those of Saudi Arabia and Yemen. So, statement 3 is correct.
The Red Sea contains some of the world’s hottest and saltiest seawater. So, statement 4 is correct.
It is one of the most heavily travelled waterways in the world, carrying maritime traffic between Europe and Asia.
What does the 14th Amendment of the United States Constitution primarily address?
Equal protection under the law and citizenship rights
Explanation :
The top court in the US state of Colorado ordered former US President Donald Trump to be taken off the ballot in the state for the Presidential elections next year.
The Supreme Court in Colorado ruled that Trump stands “disqualified from holding the office of President under Section Three of the Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution.
The 14th Amendment of the United States Constitution, ratified in 1868, primarily addresses issues of equal protection under the law and citizenship rights.
It includes the Equal Protection Clause and the Citizenship Clause, which grants citizenship to “all persons born or naturalized in the United States” and guarantees them equal protection of the laws.
Consider the following statements regarding the Northeast Monsoon:
- It is also known as the winter monsoon in the Indian subcontinent.
- It is characterized by the reversal of wind direction, with winds blowing from land to sea.
- The Northeast Monsoon brings significant rainfall to the eastern coastal regions of southern India.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Tamil Nadu has battled heavy rainfall throughout December.
In the beginning of the month, parts of Chennai and its neighbourhood experienced massive flooding because of Cyclone Michaung.
The northeast monsoon is also known as the winter monsoon in the Indian subcontinent. So, the statement 1 is correct.
The northeast monsoon is characterized by winds blowing from land to sea. It is also known as the retreating monsoon. So, statement 2 is correct.
It marks the end of the southwest monsoon and is a transition from the hot rainy season to dry winter conditions.
The northeast monsoon brings cold, dry air from the northeast direction, leading to dry and cool weather in the region.
The Northeast Monsoon brings significant rainfall mainly to the eastern coastal regions of southern India, including Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and parts of Karnataka. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements about the Pir Panjal Range:
- It is a sub-range of the Himalayas.
- The famous Banihal Pass is located in this Range.
- It separates the Kashmir Valley from the Chenab Valley.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Four Army personnel were killed and three injured when their vehicles were ambushed by militants in in Rajouri district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Areas in the Pir Panjal range and to its south are also easier to access.
Any militant crossing over from the lower heights of Jammu have to traverse through multiple high ranges like Pir Panjal before they reach Kashmir Valley.
This challenges their logistical preparations and motivation.
Hence shorter and intense contacts have become the norm in the Jammu region
Pir Panjal is a sub-range of the Himalayas. So, statement 1 is correct.
The famous Banihal Pass is located in the Pir Panjal Range.So, statement 2 is correct.
Pir Panjal Range separates the Kashmir Valley from the Chenab Valley. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF):
- It works under the administrative control of Cabinet Committee of Security.
- CISF is not mandated to provide protection to the VIP protectees.
- It does not provide security to private / joint venture industrial undertakings.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
None of the above
xplanation :
Days after the Parliament security breach, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has asked the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) to carry out a survey of the Parliament premises for regular deployment.
CISF works under the administrative control of Ministry of Home Affairs. So, statement 1 is not correct.
CISF has also been mandated to provide protection to the VIP protectees of Z+, Z, Y and X category across the country. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The CISF Act was amended to enable the Force to provide security, on payment basis, to private / joint venture industrial undertakings, which are vital for the security and economy of the country. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
What is the Information Fusion Centre-Indian Ocean Region (IFC-IOR)?
A regional center that facilitates information sharing and enhances maritime domain awareness in the Indian Ocean.
Explanation :
As per two maritime agencies, a drone strike damaged a merchant ship off the coast of India on December 23 but caused no casualties.
Indian Navy’s Information Fusion Centre for Indian Ocean Region (IFC-IOR) is coordinating the communication between the Navy and shipping company.
In December 2018, Indian launched the IFC-IOR, at Information Management and Analysis Centre (IMAC) Gurugram.
It was established for regional collaboration on maritime security issues such as:
maritime terrorism, illegal unregulated and unreported fishing (IUUF), piracy, armed robbery on the high seas, and human and contraband trafficking.
The IFC-IOR aims to engage with partner nations and multi-national maritime constructs.
The idea is to develop comprehensive maritime domain awareness and share information on vessels of interest (i.e., information on white shipping).
White shipping information refers to exchange of advance information on the identity and movement of commercial non-military merchant vessels.
Consider the following statements regarding the Wrestling Federation of India (WFI):
- Wrestling Federation of India (WFI) is a governing body of wrestling in India.
- It follows the rules and regulations set by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) and United World Wrestling (UWW).
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Sports Ministry have requested the Indian Olympic Association to constitute ad-hoc committee to manage and control affairs of the federation.
Earlier, the ministry had suspended the newly elected Wrestling Federation of India (WFI) body.
About
Wrestling Federation of India (WFI) is a governing body of wrestling. So, statement 1 is correct.
It was founded in 1958 and is based in New Delhi.
It promotes wrestling players for the Olympics, Asian Games, National Wrestling Championships, and World Wrestling Championships.
Affiliation
The Wrestling Federation of India is affiliated with the Indian Olympic Association (IOA).
It follows the rules and regulations set by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) and United World Wrestling (UWW).So, statement 2 is correct.
UWW is the international governing body for the sport of wrestling.
Its duties include overseeing wrestling at the World Championships and Olympics.
Consider the following statements regarding the Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM):
- The aim of this mission is to increase the reach of farm mechanization to small and marginal farmers.
- Purchase of drones have not been included under this mission.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Only 1
Explanation :
The aim of this mission is to increase the reach of farm mechanization to small and marginal farmers and to the regions & difficult area where farm power availability is low. So, statement 1 is correct.
The new guideline, published by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, has provisions related to subsidy for purchase/hiring of agricultural drone to make drone technology affordable to the stakeholders of this sector. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements:
- National Academy of Indian Railways (NAIR) is a training institute for Indian Railways (IR) officers.
- Gati Shakti Vishwavidyalaya (GSV) is sponsored by the Ministry of Railways.
- Indian Railways Institute of Disaster Management (IRIDM) is a national institute in Bengaluru that offers disaster management courses and training.
- Commissioner of Railway Safety (CRS) is a statutory body which is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Civil Aviation.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All four
Explanation :
The Ministry of Railways has made training in disaster management mandatory for railway officers.
The National Academy of Indian Railways (NAIR), Vadodara, and the Indian Railway Institute of Disaster Management (IRIDM), Bengaluru, would work together in imparting the comprehensive training programme.
The National Academy of Indian Railways (NAIR) is a training institute for Indian Railways (IR) officers. So, statement 1 is correct.
It was established in 1930 as the Railway Staff College and moved to its current location in Vadodara, Gujarat in 1952.
Gati Shakti Vishwavidyalaya (GSV) is a central university in Vadodara, Gujarat, India.
It was established in 2018 as the National Rail and Transportation Institute (NRTI) and upgraded to a central university in 2022.
The university is sponsored by the Ministry of Railways and is mandated to work across railways, shipping, ports, highways, roads, waterways, and aviation.So, statement 2 is correct.
IRIDM is a national institute in Bengaluru that offers disaster management courses and training. So, statement 3 is correct.
IRIDM envisioned in High Level Committee (HLC) on Disaster Management in Indian Railways, was Commissioned in the year 2019.
The Commissioner of Railway Safety (CRS) is a statutory body. It is headed by the Chief Commissioner of Railway Safety.
The CRS does not report to the Ministry of Railways of the Railway Board.
It is, in fact, under the administrative control of the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA). So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements:
- The Department of Investments and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) under Ministry of Disinvestment is the nodal department for disinvestment.
- Disinvestment means sale or liquidation of assets by the government, usually Central and state public sector enterprises, projects, or other fixed assets.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2 only
Explanation :
As the upcoming general elections approach, the government is slowing down its push for privatization.
As a result, the disinvestment target for current fiscal year is again likely to be missed.
Disinvestment means sale or liquidation of assets by the government, usually Central and state public sector enterprises, projects, or other fixed assets. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Department of Investments and Public Asset Management (DIPAM), under Ministry of Finance, is the nodal department for disinvestment. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Application Supported by Blocked Amount (ASBA)-like facility:
- It allows investors to buy and sell shares in the secondary market without having to pay for the shares upfront.
- Under this facility, the investor’s bank account is only debited for the amount equivalent to the shares that have been allotted to them after the trading session is completed.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
ASBA is a facility introduced by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) that allows investors to buy and sell shares in the secondary market without having to pay for the shares upfront. So, statement 1 is correct
ASBA is a unique system that allows investors to apply for shares in an Initial Public Offering (IPO) without having to pay upfront. Under this facility, the investor’s bank account is only debited for the amount equivalent to the shares that have been allotted to them after the trading session is completed. So, statement 2 is correct.
This facility helps investors avoid the hassle of transferring funds to their trading account before buying or selling shares and reduces the risk of failed transactions.
Which of the following is NOT associated with the Guru Gobind Singh?
A. Institutionalization of Khalsa
B.Five items to be worn by Sikhs all the time
C.Compilation of Sikh scripture by the name of Adi Granth
D.Sikh scripture Ādi Granth made as the perpetual Sikh guru
Compilation of Sikh scripture by the name of Adi Granth
Explanation :
Recently, PM Modi said India is now coming out of the mindset of slavery and has full faith in its people, their abilities and heritage.
He made those remarks while speaking at a ‘Veer Bal Diwas’ event to commemorate the martyrdom of two sons of Guru Gobind Singh.
This was the second celebration of the Veer Bal Diwas.
The fifth Sikh Guru, Guru Arjan compiled Sikh scripture by the name of Adi Granth. It contained the hymns of the previous Gurus and may saints.
Consider the following statements regarding Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA):
- The UAPA in its current form cannot designate individuals as terrorists.
- No court can initiate legal proceedings for any offense under the UAPA without prior sanction from the central or state government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
only 2
Explanation :
Israel has listed Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT) as a terror organisation to symbolise the marking of 15th year of commemoration of the 26/11 Mumbai attacks.
The listing has been done by Israel on its own, without any request from India.
India has a zero-tolerance policy towards terrorism. It designates a group as a terrorist organisation under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA).
The UAPA was amended in 2019 to include the provision of designating an individual as a terrorist. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Section 45(1) of the UAPA says no court shall take cognizance of any offence under the Act without the previous sanction of the central or state government or any officer authorised by them. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following Indian States/UT:
1.Jammu and Kashmir
2.Himachal Pradesh
3.Uttarakhand
4.Sikkim
5.Arunachal Pradesh
Which of the above Indian States/UT share boundary with China?
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Explanation :
India shares 3488 km of border with China that runs along the states/UT of Jammu and Kashmir (1597 km), Himachal Pradesh (200 km), Sikkim (220 km), Uttarakhand (345 km) and Arunachal Pradesh (1126 km).
Which of the following does not represent a method by which Pegasus Spyware can infect a phone?
A.Zero click attack
B.Malicious link
C.Wireless transmitter
D.None of the above
None of the above
Explanation :
The Washington Post and Amnesty International report claims that Pegasus spyware targeted journalists in India.
The intrusion was detected in October 2023 after Apple warned users, including MPs, of potential ‘state-sponsored attacks’ on their iPhones.
Consider the following statements regarding the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India:
- Reserve Bank of India is the nodal agency responsible for policies related to FDI in India.
- In India, FDI limit, through automatic route, in insurance sector is 74%.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
only 2
Explanation :
Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade is the nodal institution responsible for policy formulation regarding the FDI in India. So, statement 1 is not correct.
In August 2021, the government allowed the 74% FDI limit in the insurance sector. So, statement 2 is correct.
With reference to UN Refugee Convention 1951, consider the following statements:
- The 1951 convention was initially limited to protecting European refugees after the World War II.
- The convention does not consider war criminals as refugees.
- India is not a signatory to the convention.
How many of the statement(s) given above is/are not correct?
None
Explanation :
UN Refugee Convention, 1951 is a United Nations multilateral treaty that defines who is a refugee, and sets out the rights of individuals who are granted asylum and the responsibilities of nations that grant asylum.
The Convention was initially limited to protecting European refugees after the World War II. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The 1967 protocol removes these geographical as well as temporal limits that were part of the 1951 Convention.
The Convention sets out which people do not qualify as refugees. e.g., war criminals. So, Statement 2 is correct.
India is not a signatory to the UN Refugee Convention, 1951.So, Statement 3 is correct.
With reference to Securities & Exchange Board of India (SEBI), consider the following statements:
- It is a statutory body.
- It functions under the jurisdiction of Ministry of Finance.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
SEBI is a statutory body established under the provisions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992.So, Statement 1 is correct.
Securities and Exchange Board of India is an autonomous organization that works under overall administrative supervision of the Union Finance Ministry and is accountable to the Parliament. So, Statement 2 is correct.
With reference to National Cyclone Risk Mitigation Project (NCRMP), consider the following statements:
- NCRMP is an initiative of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
- National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is the implementing agency of the project.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The objective of the National Cyclone Risk Mitigation Project (NCRMP) is to undertake suitable structural and non-structural measures to mitigate the effects of cyclones in the coastal states and UTs of India. The project is assisted by the World Bank.
The Project has identified 13 cyclone prone States and Union Territories (UTs), with varying levels of vulnerability.
Category I – High Vulnerability States:
Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Odisha, Tamil Nadu and West Bengal.
Category II – Low Vulnerability States:
Maharashtra, Karnataka, Kerala, Goa, Pondicherry, Lakshadweep, Daman and Diu, Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
National Cyclone Risk Mitigation Project is an initiative of the Ministry of Home Affairs. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
NCRMP is implemented by the National Disaster Management Authority along with coordination from the respective state governments and the National Institute for Disaster Management (NIDM).So, Statement 2 is correct.
Which of the following chemical elements are found in e-waste material?
1.Lead
2.Mercury
3.Cadmium
4.Barium
5.Polyvinyl chloride
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Explanation :
Electronic waste (e-waste) encompasses a wide range of discarded electronic devices such as computers, mp3 players, televisions and cell phones.
Used electronics which are destined for refurbishment, reuse, resale, recycling through material recovery, or disposal are also considered e-waste.
E-waste contains chemicals such as lead, mercury, cadmium, barium, lithium, brominated flame retardants (BFRs) and polyvinyl chloride (PVC).
With reference to Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), consider the following statements:
- OIC is the second-largest inter-governmental organisation in the world.
- India has the status of an Observer State in the OIC.
- Secretariat of OIC is located in Jeddah, Saudi Arabia.
How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
After United Nations General Assembly, OIC is the second-largest inter-governmental organisation in the world. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Currently, OIC has 57 member states.
India does not have the status of observes state in the OIC. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
However, in 2019, India’s Minister of External Affairs was invited as a ‘Guest of Honour’ at the Council of Foreign Ministers of the OIC.
Jeddah in Saudi Arabia serves as the secretariat of the OIC. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Eurozone:
- It consists of all the European Union (EU) countries that have fully incorporated the euro as their national currency.
- The member countries have the sole authority to set the monetary policy for their respective jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The eurozone economy is set for only modest growth next year, despite wages rising faster than inflation for the first time in three years, according to a recent poll of economists.
About Eurozone:
The eurozone, officially known as the euro area, is a geographic and economic region that consists of all the European Union countries that have fully incorporated the euro as their national currency.
As of January 2023, the eurozone consists of 20 countries in the European Union (EU):
Austria, Belgium, Croatia, Cyprus, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Netherlands, Portugal, Slovakia, Slovenia, and Spain.
Not all European Union nations participate in the eurozone; some opt to use their own currency and maintain their financial independence.
The European Central Bank (ECB) exercises the sole power to set the monetary policy for the Eurozone countries.
The ECB exercises the sole authority to decide the printing and minting of euro notes and coins. It also decides the interest rate for the Eurozone.
The ECBs is headed by a president and a board, comprising the heads of the central banks of the participating nations.
How do countries join Eurozone?
In order to join the euro area, EU member states are required to fulfil so-called ‘convergence criteria’ which consists of price stability, sound public finances, the durability of convergence, and exchange rate stability.
These binding economic and legal conditions were agreed upon in the Maastricht Treaty in 1992 and are also known as ‘Maastricht criteria’.
All EU Member States, except Denmark, are required to adopt the euro and join the euro area once they are ready to fulfill them.
The Treaty does not specify a particular timetable for joining the euro area but leaves it to member states to develop their own strategies for meeting the condition for euro adoption.
The European Commission and the ECB jointly decide whether the conditions are met for euro area candidate countries to adopt the euro.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.ft.com/content/395e8684-a354-4e19-bd09-85b9d98868ef
Agreement on the Prohibition of Attack against Nuclear Installations and Facilities is signed between which of the following countries?
Indian and Pakistan
Explanation :
Agreement on the Prohibition of Attack against Nuclear Installations and Facilities
About Agreement on the Prohibition of Attack against Nuclear Installations and Facilities:
It was signed on December 31, 1988, by the then Pakistani Prime Minister Benazir Bhutto and Indian PM Rajiv Gandhi.
The treaty came into force on January 27, 1991, and has two copies each in Urdu and Hindi.
Need for the Agreement:
In 1986, the Indian army carried out a massive exercise ‘Brasstacks’, raising fears of an attack on nuclear facilities.
Since then, both countries have been negotiating to reach an understanding towards the control of nuclear weapons, which culminated in the treaty.
Provisions:
The agreement mandates both countries to inform each other about any nuclear installations and facilities to be covered under the agreement on the first of January of every calendar year, providing a confidence-building security measure environment.
The term ‘nuclear installation or facility’ includes nuclear power and research reactors, fuel fabrication, uranium enrichment, iso-topes separation, and reprocessing facilities, as well as any other installations with fresh or irradiated nuclear fuel and materials in any form and establishments storing significant quantities of radioactive materials.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/india-pakistan-exchange-list-of-nuclear-installations/videoshow/106457836.cms?from=mdr
With reference to Bubble Baby Syndrome, consider the following statements:
- It is a rare genetic disorder.
- It affects infection-fighting white blood cells in the body.
- The most common treatment for his condition is a stem cell transplant.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
A two-month-old girl with bubble baby syndrome underwent bone marrow transplant (BMT) in Mumbai recently.
About Bubble Baby Syndrome:
‘Bubble baby syndrome,’ known medically as Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) is very rare genetic disorder that causes life-threatening problems with the immune system.
It is a type of primary immune deficiency.
The disease is known as “living in the bubble” syndrome because living in a normal environment can be fatal to a child who has it.
What happens in SCID?
In a developing baby, the immune system starts in the bone marrow. Stem cells can become any of three different types of blood cells.
red blood cells
white blood cells
platelets
White blood cells (WBCs) protect the body from infections and foreign invaders. There are different kinds of WBCs, including lymphocytes.
Lymphocytes come in two main types: B-cells and T-cells. These cells are key to fighting infections.
T cells identify, attack, and kill “invaders.”
B cells make antibodies that “remember” an infection and are ready in case the body is exposed to it again.
SCID is a “combined” immunodeficiency because it affects both of these infection-fighting white blood cells.
In SCID, the child’s body has too few lymphocytes or lymphocytes that don’t work properly.
Because the immune system doesn’t work as it should, it can be difficult or impossible for it to battle the germs—viruses, bacteria, and fungi—that cause infections.
Causes:
Inherited mutations in more than different genes cause SCID.
This means one or both birth parents pass down the disease to their child.
Symptoms: Babies with SCID may appear healthy at birth, but problems can start soon after, such as:
failure to thrive
chronic diarrhea
frequent, often serious respiratory infections
oral thrush (a type of yeast infection in the mouth)
other bacterial, viral, or fungal infections that can be serious and hard to treat.
Treatment:
SCID is a pediatric emergency. Without treatment, babies are not likely to survive past their first birthday.
The most common treatment is a stem cell transplant (also called a bone marrow transplant). This means the child receives stem cells from a donor. The hope is that these new cells will rebuild the child’s immune system.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.deccanherald.com/india/two-month-old-becomes-the-youngest-to-get-bone-marrow-transplant-in-mumbai-2830602
With reference to Indian Pangolin, consider the following statements:
- It is endemic to the Deccan Peninsula only.
- It is an insectivore and a nocturnal mammal.
- It prefers soil that is soft and semi-sandy which is suitable for digging burrows.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The pangolin conservation project launched to protect pangolins has succeeded at Pench Tiger Reserve and Satpura Tiger Reserve, as the mammals have started to breed there.
What are Pangolins?
Pangolins, also known as scaly anteaters, are the only known mammals with large keratin scales covering their skin.
Of the eight species found worldwide (four each in Asia and Africa), two are found in India: the Indian Pangolin (Manis crassicaudata) and the Chinese Pangolin (Manis pentadactyla).
About Indian Pangolin:
The Indian pangolin, also called the thick-tailed pangolin, is native to the Indian subcontinent.
They are one of the most trafficked mammals in the world, despite an international ban on their trade.
Distribution: It lives in India (south of the Himalayas), Bangladesh, Southern Nepal, Sri Lanka, and small parts of Pakistan.
Habitat:
They are well adapted to desert regions and prefer barren, hilly areas. Their habitat extends up to 2,500 feet above sea level.
Overall, they prefer soil that is soft and semi-sandy, suitable for digging burrows.
They have also been shown to survive in various types of tropical forests, open land, grasslands, and in close proximity to villages.
Features:
Like other pangolins, it has large, overlapping scales on its body, which act as armor.
The Indian pangolin’s armor is among the most effective in the mammalian world. It has about 13 rows of moveable, sharp scales covering its body, which are shed periodically.
The colour of its scales varies depending on the colour of the earth in its surroundings.
It can also curl itself into a ball as self-defense against predators.
It is an insectivore, feeding on ants and termites.
It is nocturnal and it rests in deep burrows during the day.
Conservation status:
IUCN Red List: Endangered
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I
CITES: Appendix I
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.freepressjournal.in/bhopal/mp-wildlife-pangolin-conservation-project-succeeds-in-state
The KH-22 supersonic cruise missile is developed by:
Russia
Explanation :
Ukraine Air Force spokesperson recently disclosed that the country’s air defense units were unable to shot down any of the KH-22 supersonic cruise missiles launched by Russia.
About KH-22 Missile:
It is a Soviet-era long-range airborne supersonic cruise missile.
Armed with a nuclear or highly explosive fragmenting cumulative warhead, it was initially designed to destroy aircraft carriers and other large warships, or even groups of such carriers.
The Kh-22 family was developed in the USSR in the 1960s and specifically designed to be launched from Tupolev-22 bombers.
Later, both the missiles and the aircraft were modernized as part of the so-called “Kh-22 special air-to-surface missile complex.”
Upgraded in the 1970s, the missile had an impressive speed of 4,000 kilometers per hour, a 1,000-kilogram warhead, and a range of 500 kilometers.
It weighs 5,820 kilograms.
A total of approximately 3,000 such missiles were produced in the USSR.
After the USSR collapsed, quite a few of them remained in Ukraine. However, soon after independence in 1991, Ukraine gave up its nuclear and strategic aviation arsenal.
In 2000, Ukraine transferred 386 Kh-22 missiles to Russia as an installment against the gas debt.
The successor to the Kh-22 became the Kh-32, which can be carried by the new Russian Tu-22M3M bombers. The new missile features a conventional warhead, an improved rocket motor, and a new radar imaging terminal seeker. It has a longer range but a smaller warhead.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.eurasiantimes.com/deadlier-than-hypersonic-weapon-why-ukraine-fears-russias/
Consider the following statements regarding the e-SCR portal:
- It provides the digital version of the Supreme Court’s judgments.
- It is developed with the help of the National Informatics Centre.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 AND 2
Explanation :
The Electronic Supreme Court Reports (e-SCR) portal starting with just 2,238 translated judgments as of January 2023 and ending the year with over 31,000 rulings translated.
It is an initiative to provide the digital version of the apex court’s judgments in the manner as they are reported in the official law report.
The Supreme Court has developed a search engine with the help of the National Informatics Centre.
It is comprising elastic search technique in the database of e-SCR and the search facility in e-SCR provides for free text search, search within search, case type and case year search, judge search, year and volume search and bench strength search options.
It will provide free access to it’s about 34,000 judgements to lawyers, law students and the common public.
These verdicts will be available on the apex court website, its mobile app and on the judgment portal of the National Judicial Data Grid (NJDG).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/scs-translation-projects-raced-ahead-in-2023-as-retd-hc-judges-law-clerks-help-ai/article67692773.ece
Cigaritis meghamalaiensis, recently seen in the news, is a:
Butterfly
Explanation :
The pristine hills of the Meghamalai in Tamil Nadu have thrown up a new species of ‘silverline’ butterflies.
Cigaritis meghamalaiensis is the new species of butterfly.
It has become the first butterfly species to be described from the Western Ghats in 33 years.
The researchers had first come across the distinct species belonging to the Cigaritis genus in the high elevations of Periyar in Idukki in 2018.
Further explorations have revealed the species to be confined to the Meghamalais and the adjoining Periyar Tiger Reserve.
Appearance
The discal and post-discal bands on the forewing underside of the adult butterfly are conjoined and lie parallel from their origin at the costa.
The unique feature distinguishes the new species from all other Cigaritis occurring in Peninsular India and Sri Lanka.
There are seven species of Cigaritisin the Western Ghats, viz., C. vulcanus, C. schistacea, C. ictis, C. elima elima, C. lohita lazularia, C. lilacinus, and C. abnormis. Of these, all except C. lilacinus have been reported from the southern Western Ghats.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/meghamalai-hills-present-a-new-winged-beauty/article67692971.ece
With reference to Carbon-14 isotope, consider the following statements:
- It is created when cosmic rays collide into the atoms of the gases.
- It combines with atmospheric oxygen to form carbon monoxide.
- It enters the plants via photosynthesis.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The technique called radiocarbon dating brought the first verifiable way to do this to many fields of science, transforming them – and our world – to a significant degree.
Dating’ is a method by which the age of an object can be determined. Radiocarbon dating refers to a method that does this using radiocarbon, a name for the isotope carbon-14.
How does carbon-14 form?
It is created in the earth’s atmosphere when cosmic rays – energetic streams of charged particles coming from sources in outer space – slam into the atoms of the gases and release neutrons.
When these neutrons interact with the nitrogen-14 nitrogen isotope, they can produce carbon-14.
Since cosmic rays are ceaselessly passing through the earth’s atmosphere, carbon-14 is created constantly there.
It is readily combines with atmospheric oxygen to form radioactive carbon dioxide.
This compound then enters the bodies of plants (via photosynthesis), animals (when they consume plants), and other biomass through the carbon cycle.
It is in the form of carbon dioxide and other carbon compounds, would have to be able to diffuse into the earth’s various ecosystems such that the concentration of carbon-14 in the atmosphere was comparable to the concentration of carbon-14 in the planet’s other biospheres.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/radiocarbon-dating-history-science-revolution-politics-explained/article67692713.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the X-ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat) mission:
- It is launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
- It aims to study black hole binaries and low-magnetic field neutron stars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) launched the PSLV-C58 X-ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat) mission.
It is the first dedicated scientific satellite from ISRO to carry out research in space-polarisation measurements of X-ray emission from celestial sources.
It carries two payloads namely
POLIX: It is an X-ray Polarimeter for astronomical observations in the energy band of 8-30 keV.
The payload is being developed by Raman Research Institute (RRI), Bangalore in collaboration with U R Rao Satellite Centre (URSC).
It is expected to observer about 40 bright astronomical sources of different categories during the planned lifetime of XPoSat mission of about 5 years.
This is the first payload in the medium X-ray energy band dedicated for polarimetry measurements.
XSPECT: It is an X-ray SPECtroscopy and Timing payload onboard XPoSat, which can provide fast timing and good spectroscopic resolution in soft X-rays.
It can provide long-term monitoring of spectral state changes in continuum emission, changes in their line flux and profile, simultaneous long term temporal monitoring of soft X-ray emission in the X-ray energy range 0.8-15 keV.
It would observe several types of sources viz X-ray pulsars, blackhole binaries, low-magnetic field neutron star (NS) in LMXBs, AGNs and Magnetars.
The launch put India in an elite category as it has become the second (after NASA’s Imaging X-ray Polarimetry Explorer (IXPE) launched in 2021) nation to send an observatory to study astronomical sources such as black holes, neutron stars among others
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/pslv-rocket-with-x-ray-polarimeter-and-10-other-satellites-lifts-off-from-sriharikota/article67694577.ece
The Exercise Desert Cyclone is conducted between India and:
United Arab Emirates
Explanation :
The Joint Military Exercise ‘Desert Cyclone 2024’ between India and UAE will be held from January 2 to January 15 in Rajasthan.
It is the inaugural edition of joint military exercise “Desert Cyclone 2024”between India and the United Arab Emirates (UAE).
The exercise aims to enhance interoperability by learning & sharing best practices in Urban Operations.
This exercise is marking a significant milestone in the strategic partnership.
Key facts about India and UAE relations
India and the UAE established diplomatic relations in 1972 and UAE opened its Embassy in Delhi in 1972 whereas, India opened its Embassy in Abu Dhabi in 1973.
The first-ever India-UAE Joint Air Forces exercise took place in September 2008 at the Al-Dhafra base in Abu Dhabi.
India has also been a regular participant at the biennial International Defence Exhibition (IDEX) in Abu Dhabi.
Earlier this year, two ships of the Indian Navy, INS Visakhapatnam, and INS Trikand participated in bilateral exercise ‘Zayed Talwar’ with the UAE to enhance interoperability and synergy between the two navies.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://newsonair.gov.in/News?title=Joint-Military-Exercise-Desert-Cyclone-between-India-and-UAE-begins-in-Rajasthan&id=474368
Consider the following statements regarding Green Honeycreeper:
- It is a species of small bird native to the South and Southeast Asia.
- It is classified as Endangered under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Ornithologists in Colombia recently photographed a wild green honeycreeper with distinct half-green, or female, and half-blue, male, plumage.
About Green Honeycreeper:
It is a small bird in the tanager family.
Scientific Name: Chlorophanes spiza
Distribution: The New World Tropics (Rainforests in Central and South America), from Mexico to Brazil.
Features:
It is 13–14 cm long and weighs 14 to 23 grams.
Its plumage is strikingly sexually dimorphic. The male is mainly blue-tinged green with a black head and a mostly bright yellow bill. The female is grass-green, paler on the throat, and lacks the male’s iridescence and black head.
They are called Green Honeycreepers because the females and young birds are bright green with red eyes.
Although males have, on average, slightly longer wings and tails than females, there is considerable variation within each sex and much overlap.
It feeds largely on nectar, fruit, and insects and often frequents feeders supplying fruit.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://www.sci.news/biology/bilaterally-gynandromorphic-green-honeycreeper-12523.html
Chandaka-Dampara Wildlife Sanctuary is located in:
Odisha
Explanation :
As a first, the Forest Department in Odisha has planned a ‘nocturnal trail’ for people, especially students and researchers, in the Chandaka-Dampara Wildlife Sanctuary.
About Chandaka-Dampara Wildlife Sanctuary:
Location: It lies partly within Khurda and partly in Cuttack Districts of Odisha State, and is in close proximity to the state capital, Bhubaneswar.
It is nestled in the Khordha uplands of the ‘North-Eastern Ghats’ biotic region.
Spread over 193.39 sq.km of rolling table land and small sprawling hillocks, it is a wildlife sanctuary since August 1982.
It is known for the successful conservation of elephants, which is the principal species here.
Vegetation: The floral diversity of the sanctuary is distributed in six types, which include secondary moist miscellaneous semi-evergreen forests, moist Kangada (Xyliaxylocarpa) forests, Coastal Sal forests, thorny bamboo brakes, planted Teak, and Eupatorium scrub.
There are two water reservoirs, Deras Dam and Jhumka Dam, situated within the sanctuary.
Flora: The main tree species are Kochila, Kalicha, Belo, Kangada, Giringa, Sunari, Sal, Kumbhi, Jamu, Karanja, Teak, and Sidha.
Fauna:
Apart from elephants, other mammals include Leopard, Chital, Barking deer, Mouse deer, Wild pig, Common langur, Rhesus monkey, small Indian civet, etc.
Prominent birds of the sanctuary are Peafowl, Red jungle fowl, Crested serpent eagle, Great horned owl, Black headed oriole, etc.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/odisha/2024/jan/01/forest-department-in-odishaplans-nocturnal-trail-in–dampara-wildlife-sanctuary-2646736.html
With reference to the River Devika Project, consider the following statements:
- It is a river rejuvenation project implemented in Jammu and Kashmir.
- It plans to develop bathing “ghats” and catchment areas.
- Its entire cost is borne by the State Government.
How many of the above statements are correct?
only two
Explanation :
North India’s first river rejuvenation project, ‘Devika’, is in the final stages. and it will be soon dedicated to the nation by the Prime Minister.
About River Devika Project:
Built on the lines of ‘Namami Ganga’, the project was launched in February 2019.
It is north India’s first river rejuvenation project.
The project is implemented along the Devika River in Jammu and Kashmir.
It has been included in the Government of India’s National River Conservation Project (NRCP).
Under the project, bathing “ghats” (places) on the banks of the Devika River will be developed, encroachments will be removed, natural water bodies will be restored, and catchment areas will be developed along with cremation ground.
The project includes the construction of three sewage treatment plants with 8 MLD, 4 MLD and 1.6 MLD capacities, a sewerage network of 129.27 km, the development of two cremation ghats, protection fencing and landscaping, small hydropower plants, and three solar power plants.
Built at a cost of over Rs 190 crore, the sharing of fund allocation is in the ratio of 90:10 by the centre and UT, respectively.
On completion of the project, the rivers will see a reduction in pollution and an improvement in water quality.
It will offer a unique destination both for pilgrim tourists as well as recreation tourists, in addition to being a state-of-the-art cremation centre.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.financialexpress.com/business/infrastructure-pm-modi-set-to-unveilnbspnorth-indias-first-river-rejuvenation-project-devika-check-key-features-here-3352377/
What is the maximum punishment under the Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) for a driver who causes a serious road accident due to careless driving and leaves without informing the police or any official?
10 years in jail and a fine of Rs 7 lakh
Explanation :
The countrywide truckers’ stir has been called off recently as the government assured that it would consult stakeholders before implementing a contentious law against hit-and-run.
About the new hit-and-run law:
As per the Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS), which is a replacement for the British-era Indian Penal Code (IPC), if a driver causes a serious road accident due to careless driving and then leaves without informing the police or any official, they could be punished with up to 10 years in jail and a fine of Rs 7 lakh.
BNS has established two distinct categories under the umbrella of “causing death by negligence.”
The first category addresses causing death through any rash or negligent act that does not amount to culpable homicide.
Offenders in this category may face imprisonment for up to five years and a fine.
The second category deals with causing death through rash and negligent driving, not amounting to culpable homicide.
If the individual escapes without promptly reporting the incident to a police officer or magistrate, they could be subjected to up to 10 years of imprisonment and a fine.
What was the hit-and-run law before?
The old, British-era IPC did not have a specific provision for hit-and-run cases.
Actions in such cases were taken under Section 304 A of the IPC.
As per this section, an individual causing the death of another due to a reckless or negligent act could face a maximum jail term of two years or a fine.
All cases of hit-and-run, along with other forms of activities that came under the ambit of causing death by a “rash and negligent act” were lodged under Section 304A of the IPC.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/hit-and-run-stir-breakthrough-truckers-body-appeals-for-end-to-protests-4788602
Consider the following statements regarding Karman Line:
- It is an imaginary line that demarcates the earth’s atmosphere from outer space.
- It is established by the United Nations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Kármán line lacks a specific national demarcation, resembling the concept of international waters.
About Karman Line:
Located at 100 km (62 miles) above sea level, it is an imaginary line that demarcates the earth’s atmosphere from space.
It was established in the 1960s by a record-keeping body called the Fédération Aéronautique Internationale (FAI).
It was named after aerospace pioneer Theodore von Kármán.
Though not all scientists and spacefarers accept it (for example, the Federal Aviation Administration, NASA, and the U.S. military place the line between outer space and the atmosphere at 80 km (50 miles) above the Earth’s surface), a majority of countries and space organisations recognise this boundary between earth sky and space.
It is based on physical reality in the sense that it roughly marks the altitude where traditional aircraft can no longer effectively fly.
Anything traveling above the Kármán line needs a propulsion system that doesn’t rely on lift generated by Earth’s atmosphere—the air is simply too thin that high up.
In other words, the Kármán line is where the physical laws governing a craft’s ability to fly shift.
Anyone who crosses this line qualifies as an astronaut.
Why do we need a Kármán line?
The 1967 Outer Space Treaty says that space should be accessible to all countries and can be freely and scientifically investigated.
Defining a legal boundary of what and where space can help avoid disputes and keep track of space activities and human space travel.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.financialexpress.com/business/defence-the-crucial-role-of-the-krmn-line-in-space-defense-strategies-3352829/
Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Statistical Commission:
- Its members are elected by the United Nations Economic and Social Council.
- India is currently a member of the Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, India started its four-year term as a member of the United Nations Statistical Commission.
It was established in 1947 and is the highest body of the global statistical system.
It brings together the Chief Statisticians from member states from around the world.
Functions:
It is the highest decision-making body for international statistical activities, responsible for setting statistical standards and the development of concepts and methods, including their implementation at the national and international levels.
The Statistical Commission oversees the work of the United Nations Statistics Division (UNSD), and it is a Functional Commission of the UN Economic and Social Council.
Membership: The Commission consists of 24 member countries of the United Nations elected by the United Nations Economic and Social Council based on an equitable geographical distribution according to the following pattern:
Five members from African States
Four members from Asia-Pacific States
Four members from Eastern European States
Four members from Latin American and Caribbean States
Seven members from Western European and other States
Term: The term of office of members is four years.
India was a member of the Statistical Commission last in 2004 and the country is returning to the UN agency after a gap of two decades.
Headquarter: New York
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/india-starts-four-year-term-as-un-statistical-commission-member/articleshow/106445998.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Direct-to-Mobile (D2M) technology:
- It is a combination of broadband and broadcast that uses mobile phones to capture territorial digital TV signals.
- It can be used in emergency alert warning purposes without depending on internet/cellular networks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Indian telecom operators have asked the government to auction the spectrum that will be used for direct-to-mobile (D2M) technology services.
The science behind D2M is similar to that of an FM radio, where a receiver within the device can tap into different radio frequencies.
This new-age technology is a combination of broadband and broadcast that uses mobile phones to capture territorial digital TV signals.
Using D2M, multimedia content, including live TV matches, can be streamed to phones directly without using the internet.
D2M can ensure-
Emergency alerts are delivered directly, reliably and without dependence on internet/cellular networks.
Disaster Management audio content is delivered directly and authentically in a targeted manner.
With D2M, governments can broadcast citizen-centric information.
This approach benefits consumers by reducing their reliance on internet data consumption for staying informed and entertained.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/gadgets-news/why-telcos-are-asking-govt-to-auction-direct-to-mobile-services-spectrum/articleshow/106323835.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Hattee community:
- They are governed by a traditional council called Khumbli.
- They live in the North eastern states of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Himachal Pradesh state government has finally issued notification to give Scheduled Tribe (ST) status to the Hattee community of Trans-Giri area of Sirmaur district.
They are a close-knit community who got their name from their tradition of selling homegrown vegetables, crops, meat and wool etc. at small markets called ‘haat’ in towns.
Their homeland straddles the Himachal-Uttarakhand border in the basin of the Giri and Tons rivers, both tributaries of the Yamuna.
This community’s men generally don a distinctive white headgear during ceremonies, is cut off from Sirmaur by two rivers called Giri and Tons. Tons divide it from the Jaunsar Bawar area of Uttarakhand.
The Hattees who live in the trans-Giri area and Jaunsar Bawar in Uttarakhand were once part of the royal estate of Sirmaur until Jaunsar Bawar’s separation in 1815.
They are governed by a traditional council called Khumbli.
The two Hattee clans, in Trans-Giri and Jaunsar Bawar, have similar traditions, and inter-marriages are common.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/himachal-pradesh-implements-st-tag-for-hattees-after-centre-clarifies-on-sc-community-of-same-name/article67696001.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Warli Tribes:
- They mainly live in the bordering regions of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
- They celebrate a festival called Bohada.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Indigenous Warli Tribe, living near Sanjay Gandhi National Park in Maharashtra teaches a lesson about peaceful coexistence with leopards.
They are an adivasi indigenous tribe who live in the mountainous, coastal, and bordering regions of Gujarat and Maharashtra.
The word ‘Warli’ is derived from the word ‘Warla,’ which means ‘piece of land’.
Language - The Warli people speak Varli or Warli, an Indo-Aryan language. The language is typically classified as Marathi, but it is also known as Konkani or Bhil.
Culture – They have their own animistic beliefs, way of life, customs, and traditions, and they have adopted many Hindu beliefs.
The Warli culture is centred on the concept of Mother Nature, and natural elements are frequently depicted as focal points in Warli painting.
The Warli tribe values folk art as well as gods, goddesses, and ritual culture. They use painting to depict their traditional way of life, customs, and traditions. The majority of these paintings are created by women.
Style & attire - The Warli Tribe women wear a Lugden that is worn until the knee and is typically a one yard sari. The Maharashtrian rural regions influenced the sari. The knee length draping resembles the Maharashtrian sari draping style.
Festival: Bohada is a three-day mask festival held by the Warli tribes. During this celebration, mask owners wear these masks and perform several times.
Dance & music - The Warli Tribes perform Tarpa Dance along with Tarpa music instruments.
They usually perform in groups. One person plays music with a Tarpa instrument and the rest of the people form a circle keeping the musician in the centre and dance with people.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/maharashtra-s-indigenous-warlis-teach-a-lesson-about-peaceful-coexistence-with-leopards-93659
Consider the following statements regarding the Genocide Convention 1948:
- Under it, an act of imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group is called as genocide.
- India has not ratified this convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, South Africa moved the International Court of Justice (ICJ), for an urgent order declaring that Israel was in breach of its obligations under the 1948 Genocide Convention.
The term ‘genocide’ is often loosely used when speaking of attacks against various communities across the world.
It has been defined using set criteria in the UN’s Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide, moved in the General Assembly in 1948.
It says, “In the present Convention, genocide means any of the following acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group, as such:
Killing members of the group;
Causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group;
Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part;
Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group;
Forcibly transferring children of the group to another group.
As per this convention the genocide is a crime whether committed during wartime or peacetime.
India ratified the convention in 1959; there is no legislation on the subject.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/why-south-africa-filed-genocide-case-israel-icj-9089770/
Consider the following statements regarding Kavaratti Island:
- It is located in the centre of the Lakshadweep archipelago.
- It is being developed as a smart city under the flagship Smart Cities Mission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Prime Minister received a warm welcome in Kavaratti, Lakshadweep, recently as he arrived to inaugurate and lay the foundation for numerous development projects.
About Kavaratti Island:
Kavaratti is the capital of Lakshadweep (smallest Union Territory of India) and its most developed island.
It lies 360 km of the coast of the State of Kerala.
It is located in the centre of the Lakshadweep archipelago. It is located between Agatti Island on the west and Andrott Island on the east.
It has an area of 4.22 sq km. The maximum length of the island is 5.8 km, and width is 1.6 km.
The island is 2 to 5 m above the mean sea level on the western side and 2 to 3 m on the eastern side.
There is a shallow lagoon on the western side of the island, and coconut palms grow on the northern side.
The island is home to 12 atolls, five submerged banks, and three coral reefs.
Strangely, Kavaratti has a small inland lake at its northern end.
Kavaratti town is noted for the carved wooden pillars and roofs of its mosques and the carved stones of its graveyards.
It has the maximum percentage of non–islanders as residents.
Languages Spoken: Malayalam and Mahl
Karavatti has been selected as one of the hundred Indian cities to be developed as a smart city under the flagship Smart Cities Mission.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.latestly.com/socially/india/news/pm-narendra-modi-arrives-in-kavaratti-to-inaugurate-lay-foundation-for-development-projects-watch-video-5667318.html
Consider the following:
- Balhatya Pratibandhak Griha
- Satyashodhak Samaj
- Mahila Seva Mandal
- Arya Mahila Sabha
How many of the above are related to Savitribai Phule?
Only three
Explanation :
Every year on January 3rd, India celebrates a special day called Savitribai Phule Jayanti.
About Savitribai Phule:
Born in a small village in Satara district of Maharashtra on January 3, 1831, Savitribai Phule was an Indian social reformer, poet, and powerful voice in the Indian freedom struggle.
She was an active participant in the women’s liberation movement.
Savitribai trained at Ms. Farar’s Institution in Ahmednagar and at Ms. Mitchell’s school in Pune to become the first female teacher in India.
Savitribai Phule and her husband, Jyotirao Phule (one of the most famous social reformers in Maharashtra), opened India’s first school for women in Pune in 1848.
Despite resistance from society, by 1851, Phule was running 18 schools for children of different castes, with a strength of 150 girls.
They also established two educational trusts: the Native Female School, Pune, and the Society for Promoting the Education of Mahars, Mangs, and others from downtrodden castes.
In 1852, the British government acknowledged the great work of the Phule family in the field of education and honored Savitribai by naming her the best teacher.
She, along with her husband, Jyotirao Phule, actively worked against the caste-based discrimination prevalent in society.
She played a crucial role in grooming Jyotirao Phule’s pioneering institution, Satyashodhak Samaj (1873) that fought for equality of all classes.
In 1852, she initiated the Mahila Seva Mandal, a platform aimed at creating awareness about women’s rights. Notably, this platform brought together members of all castes, challenging entrenched social hierarchies.
Savitribai Phule was a vocal advocate for the rights of widows. She campaigned against the prevailing customs that forced widows into a life of deprivation and for the right of widows to remarry.
Savitribai organized a barbers’ strike in both Mumbai and Pune to demonstrate their opposition to the practice of shaving the heads of widows.
Savitribai also fought against dowry and other oppressive social customs.
In 1863, Jyotirao and Savitribai began Balhatya Pratibandhak Griha, India’s first home prohibiting infanticide, helping pregnant Brahmin widows and rape victims.
Savitribai Phule wrote two books, Kavya Phule in 1854 and Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar in 1892, which are collections of her poems.
She wrote the famous poem ‘Go Get Education’ to encourage backward and oppressed class people to get an education.
Her birth anniversary, celebrated as Savitribai Phule Jayanti, is a day to commemorate her legacy and contributions to education and social equality.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/information/story/savitribai-phule-jayanti-celebrating-the-lady-who-lit-the-lamp-of-learning-2483498-2024-01-03
Kuna National Park is located near which one of the following mountain ranges?
Vindhya
Explanation :
Three cubs were born to the Namibian cheetah Aasha at Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh’s Sheopur district recently.
About Kuna National Park:
Location:
It is located in the Sheopur district of Madhya Pradesh.
It is nestled near the Vindhyan Hills.
It is named after the Kuno River (one of the main tributaries of the Chambal River) that cuts across it.
Initially established as a wildlife sanctuary, it was only in 2018 that the government changed its status into a national park.
It was selected under ‘Action Plan for Introduction of Cheetah in India’. It has gained international recognition for conservation and restoration because of the recent reintroduction of cheetahs.
Vegetation: The vegetation in the park varies from tropical dry deciduous forest to savannah grasslands.
Landscape: It is characterized by rocky hills, ravines, and plateaus.
Flora: Kardhai, Salai, and Khair trees dominate the forested area.
Fauna:
The protected area of the forest is home to the jungle cat, Indian leopard, sloth bear, Indian wolf, striped hyena, golden jackal, Bengal fox, and dhole, along with more than 120 bird species.
It is known for its population of Asiatic lions, which were translocated from Gir National Park in Gujarat in 2021 as part of a conservation effort to establish a second population of the species.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/india/namibian-cheetah-aasha-gives-birth-to-3-cubs-in-kuno-9093800/
Consider the following statements regarding Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC):
- It is a statutory body.
- It works under the Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Quality Council of India (QCI) and Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) recently signed an initial pact to enhance the quality of the latter’s products, train artisans, and introduce ‘Made in India’ label for Khadi.
About Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC):
It is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act of 1956.
It is an apex organization under the Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises, with regard to khadi and village industries within India.
The KVIC is charged with the planning, promotion, organisation and implementation of programmes for the development of Khadi and other village industries in rural areas in coordination with other agencies engaged in rural development wherever necessary.
The functions of the KVIC are as follows:
To build a strategic reserve of raw materials and implements for supply to producers.
To create common service facilities for processing raw materials as semi-finished goods and provisions for facilities for marketing KVI products.
To enhance the sale and marketing of Khadi and other products of village industries or handicrafts.
To be responsible for encouraging and promoting research in the production techniques and equipment employed in the Khadi and Village Industries sectors.
To provide financial assistance to institutions and individuals for developing and guiding the Khadi and Village industries through the supply of designs, prototypes, and other technical information.
To assure the genuineness of the products and to set standards for the quality of products from Khadi and Village Industries.
At the state level, Khadi & Village Industries Boards were set up to effectively implement the schemes of KVIC in their respective states.
The following are the schemes covered under the KVIC:
Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP)
Market Promotion Development Assistance (MPDA)
Interest Subsidy Eligibility Certificate (ISEC)
Workshed Scheme for Khadi Artisans
Strengthening the infrastructure of existing weak Khadi institutions and assistance for marketing infrastructure
Khadi Reform and Development Programme (KRDP)
Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of Traditional Industries (SFURTI)
Honey Mission
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.theweek.in/wire-updates/business/2024/01/03/des21-gj-khadi.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Swadesh Darshan Scheme:
- It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched by the Union Ministry of Culture.
- Operation & Maintenance (O&M) of the projects is the responsibility of the respective State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Kármán line lacks a specific national demarcation, resembling the concept of international waters.
About Swadesh Darshan Scheme:
It was launched in 2015 by the Ministry of Tourism, Government of India, to develop sustainable and responsible tourism destinations in the country.
It is 100% centrally funded scheme.
Under the scheme, the Ministry of Tourism provides financial assistance to State governments, Union Territory Administrations or Central Agencies for development of tourism infrastructure in the country.
Operation & Maintenance (O&M) of the projects sanctioned under Swadesh Darshan Scheme is the responsibility of the respective State Government/UT Administration.
Swadesh Darshan 2.0:
The Ministry of Tourism has revamped its Swadesh Darshan scheme as Swadesh Darshan 2.0 (SD2.0) for development of sustainable and responsible tourist destinations covering tourism and allied infrastructure, tourism services, human capital development, destination management and promotion backed by policy and institutional reforms.
The objective for the Swadesh Darshan 2.0 scheme envisage increase in private sector investment in tourism & hospitality.
It may help in increasing Public Private Partnerships (PPP) in the field of tourism and operation and maintenance of the created assets under the scheme.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bhubaneswar/explore-debrigarh-wildlife-sanctuary-and-khinda-in-sambalpur/articleshow/106500179.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the SMART (Scope for Mainstreaming Ayurveda Research in Teaching Professionals) Program:
- It intends to promote robust clinical studies in Ayurveda academic institutions/hospitals across India.
- It is an initiative of NITI Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS) along with National Commission for Indian System of Medicine (NCISM) has launched ‘SMART 2.0’ program.
Scope for Mainstreaming Ayurveda Research among Teaching professionals (SMART) program promotes robust clinical studies in priority areas of Ayurveda with Ayurveda academic institutions/hospitals across the country through mutual collaboration.
The objective of ‘SMART 2.0’ is to generate a tangible evidence to demonstrate efficacy and safety of Ayurveda interventions using interdisciplinary research methods and translating it into public health care.
The study aims at safety, tolerability and adherence to Ayurveda formulations in the priority research areas of Bal Kasa, malnutrition, insufficient lactation, Abnormal Uterine Bleeding, Osteoporosis in post-menopausal women and Diabetes Mellitus (DM) II.
What is CCRAS?
It is an autonomous body of the Ministry of AYUSH (Ayurveda, Yoga & Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and Homeopathy), Government of India.
It is an apex body in India for the formulation, coordination, development and promotion of research on scientific lines in Ayurveda and Sowa-Rigpa system of medicine.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1992696
Consider the following statements regarding the Square Kilometer Array Observatory:
- It is the world’s biggest radio telescope to address a wide variety of scientific goals.
- India is part of this international mega science project.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Government of India has accorded its approval for India’s participation in the international mega science project, Square Kilometer Array (SKA), at an estimated cost of 1250 Cr rupees.
It is a state of the art, mega science international facility to build the world’s biggest and most sensitive radio telescope for addressing a wide variety of cutting-edge science goals.
The SKAO, collocated in Australia (SKA-Low) and South Africa (SKA-Mid) with operational headquarters in the UK, is expected to revolutionize radio astronomy, while driving the growth of many important new state-of-the-art technologies.
Other ten countries involved are - Australia, Canada, China, India, Italy, New Zealand, South Africa, Sweden, and the Netherlands.
India and SKAO
Subsequent to this approval, India will be signing the SKAO treaty to become a full-fledged member of the SKA Observatory and thus join the growing list of countries participating in the project.
This approval covers funding support for the construction phase of the international SKA Observatory (SKAO) spread over the next 7 years.
The project will be jointly funded by the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) and Department of Science and Technology (DST), with DAE as the lead agency.
The Indian participation in SKA is a truly nationwide, inclusive project led by a consortium of more than 20 academic and research institutes (with NCRA-TIFR as the nodal institute).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1992811
Consider the following statements regarding the Kochi-Lakshadweep islands submarine optical fiber connection project:
- It aims to increase in internet connectivity to eleven Lakshadweep Islands.
- It is funded by Universal Services Obligation Fund (USOF).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India in Kavaratti, Lakshadweep, inaugurated Kochi-Lakshadweep islands submarine optical fiber connection (KLI-SOFC) project.
It is the submarine cable connectivity project from Mainland (Kochi) to eleven Lakshadweep Islands namely, Kavaratti, Agatti, Amini, Kadmat, Chetlet, Kalpeni, Minicoy, Androth, Kiltan, Bangaram and Bitra has been extended.
The project is funded by Universal Services Obligation Fund (USOF), Department of Telecommunication.
Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) was the Project Executing Agency and the work was awarded to M/s NEC Corporation India Pvt Ltd through Global Open Tendering process.
The major activities related to the project include Marine Route Survey, Submarine Cable laying, Civil Construction of CLS stations, Installation, Testing and Commissioning of End Terminals (SLTE).
Significance of the project
The KLI-SOFC project will lead to an increase in internet speed unlocking new possibilities & opportunities.
For the first time since independence, Lakshadweep will be connected through Submarine Optic Fibre Cable.
The dedicated submarine OFC will ensure a paradigm shift in communication infrastructure in the Lakshadweep islands, enabling faster and more reliable internet services, telemedicine, e-governance, educational initiatives, digital banking, digital currency usage, digital literacy etc.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1992734
With reference to Sikki grass, consider the following statements:
- It is known as golden grass due to its golden luster on drying.
- It is mainly grown in the Deccan Plateau region.
- It is used in making handicrafts.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
only two
Explanation :
Sikki artisans suffer livelihood losses amid climate change and failed promise of government in providing financial help in setting up of Sikki stalls in countrywide trade fairs held round the year.
Sikki grass belongs to the zizanoides grass family.
It is a rich yellowish variety of reed grass, locally known as ‘Kaincha’ is called Golden Grass due to its golden luster on drying.
Scientifically called Chrysopogon zizanioides, it finds mention in ancient Sanskrit texts such as the Ramayana, where it is referred to as viran, sugandhimool, ushir and nalad.
This grass grows indigenously in the Tarai regions of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar and has an average height of 3-4 feet.
While the stem is used to make artefacts, the roots are used for extracting oil that is used both for perfumery and medicinal purposes.
In the hilly terrains, it is also now grown to arrest soil erosion.
Sikki got the geographical identification tag in 2018.
Uses:
It is most known for is its handicraft. It has been a source of livelihood for many since antiquity.
It is used to make traditional items such as multipurpose baskets, ornaments, show pieces and many more utility items that are still considered valuable in rural India.
Challenges
One of the serious challenges that Sikki craftsmen are facing currently is the brunt of climate change that has impacted the quality of the grass.
The deteriorating quality of grass due to continual spike in temperature that impacts the softness of Sikki.
Brittle grass needs extra processing time and is not suitable for making baskets or other artefacts.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/climate-change/-government-failed-us-sikki-artisans-suffer-livelihood-losses-amid-climate-change-state-apathy-93681
Consider the following statements regarding the Fog Pass Devices:
- It is a GPS based navigation device which provides on-board real-time information.
- It is suitable only to diesel locomotives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, to ensure smooth rail operations, Indian Railways have provisioned 19,742 Fog Pass Devices during the foggy weather.
It is a GPS based navigation device that helps the loco pilot to navigate during dense fog conditions.
It provides on-board real-time information (Display as well as voice guidance) to Loco Pilots regarding location of fixed landmarks such as Signal, Level Crossing gate (Manned & Unmanned), Permanent Speed Restrictions, Neutral Sections etc.
It displays approach indications of next three approaching fixed landmarks in geographical order accompanied with voice message approximately 500m on approach.
General features of Fog Pass Device
Suitable for all types of sections like single line, double line, electrified as well as non electrified sections.
Suitable for all types of electric and diesel locomotives, EMUs/MEMUs/ DEMUs.
Suitable for train speeds up to 160 KMPH.
It has built-in re-chargeable battery back-up for 18 hrs.
It is portable, compact in size, light in weight (not more than 1.5 Kg including battery) and of robust design.
Loco Pilot can carry the device easily with him to the locomotive on resuming his duty.
It can be easily placed on the cab desk of locomotive.
It is a standalone system.
It is unaffected by weather conditions like Fog, Rain or Sunshine.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1992743
With reference to Graphene, consider the following statements:
- It is a one-atom-thick layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice.
- It is almost perfectly transparent and is impermeable to gases.
- It is a poor conductor of heat and electricity.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Researchers recently created the world’s first functional semiconductor made from graphene.
About Graphene:
Graphene is a one-atom-thick layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice.
It is the building-block of Graphite (which is used, among others things, in pencil tips).
It was first isolated in 2004.
Properties:
Graphene is the world’s thinnest material; it is only one atom thick, one million times thinner than human hair.
However, it is very strong, stronger than steel and diamond.
It is an excellent conductor of heat and electricity. It conducts electricity better than copper.
It is almost perfectly transparent, as it absorbs only 2% of light.
It is impermeable to gases, even those as light as hydrogen and helium.
Applications:
Mechanical strength: It can be used to enhance the strength of other materials.
Thermal applications:
It is a great material for making heat-spreading solutions, such as heat sinks or heat dissipation films.
This could be useful in both microelectronics (for example, to make LED lighting more efficient and longer-lasting) and in larger applications, for example, thermal foils for mobile devices.
Energy storage:
Since graphene is the world’s thinnest material, it also has an extremely high surface-area-to-volume ratio. This makes graphene a very promising material for use in batteries and supercapacitors.
Graphene may enable batteries and supercapacitors (and even fuel cells) that can store more energy and charge faster, too.
It has a lot of promise for additional applications: anti-corrosion coatings and paints, efficient and precise sensors, faster and more efficient electronics, flexible displays, efficient solar panels, faster DNA sequencing, drug delivery, and more.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://lifestyle.livemint.com/smart-living/innovation/semiconductor-graphene-silicon-quantum-computing-science-111704368420342.html
Which among the following best describes Photocatalyst?
A substance that changes the rate of a chemical reaction upon exposure to light
Explanation :
Researchers at IISER Bhopal recently developed a new photocatalyst called UC-POP-Au, which absorbs the entire spectrum of light, making it a potent catalyst for chemical processes.
About Photocatalyst:
The term photocatalyst is a combination of two words: photo, related to photon, and catalyst, which is a substance altering the reaction rate in its presence.
Therefore, photocatalysts are materials that change the rate of a chemical reaction upon exposure to light. This phenomenon is known as photocatalysis.
The illumination of the catalyst causes the generation of free charges (electrons and holes) that can participate in chemical reactions, altering the reaction rate.
Photocatalysis includes reactions that take place by utilizing light and a semiconductor. All the photocatalysts are basically semiconductors.
There are various materials that show photocatalytic capability, and titanium dioxide (TiO2) is said to be the most effective.
The photocatalytic reactions can be categorized into two types based on the appearance of the physical state of the reactants.
Homogeneous photocatalysis: When both the semiconductor and reactant are in the same phase, i.e. gas, solid, or liquid.
Heterogeneous photocatalysis: When both the semiconductor and reactant are in different phases.
It is valuable for applications like air and water purification, self-cleaning surfaces, and even in some aspects of solar energy conversion.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/iiser-bhopal-researchers-develop-material-to-break-down-chemical-warfare-agents-like-mustard-gas/articleshow/106551041.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding NHPC Limited:
- It is mandated to develop hydroelectric power in the country.
- It works under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
NHPC has inked an initial pact to invest Rs 4,000 crore in 750 MW Kuppa Pumped Hydro Storage Project at Chhota Udaipur in Gujarat.
About NHPC Limited:
NHPC Limited (formerly known as National Hydroelectric Power Corp.) is a Government of India Mini Ratna Category-I Public Sector Enterprise under the Ministry of Power.
It was incorporated in the year 1975 under the Companies Act, 1956, with the objective of developing hydroelectric power in the country.
With an authorized share capital of Rs.15,000 crore. NHPC is a premier organization in the country for the development of hydropower.
The company is mandated to plan, promote, and organize an integrated and efficient development of power in all aspects through conventional and non-conventional sources in India and abroad.
NHPC is headquartered in Faridabad, Haryana.
The main functions of the NHPC include
Planning, execution, operation, and maintenance of hydroelectric power projects.
Exploring new sites for hydroelectric projects.
Development of small hydroelectric projects
Research and Development (R&D) in the field of hydroelectric power
Through long-term power purchase agreements, it sells electricity to electricity utilities owned by state governments/private distribution companies on a wholesale basis.
It also carries out business operations, which include the planning of wind and tidal wave projects in the country, and has interests in various projects in the construction and under development phases.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/renewables/nhpc-pledges-to-invest-rs-4000-cr-in-750-mw-kuppa-hydro-storage-project-in-gujarat/articleshow/106549371.cms?from=mdr
The “workation” or “digital nomad” visa, recently seen in the news, was introduced by which one of the following countries?
south korea
Explanation :
South Korea recently introduced a new visa for foreigners allowing them to visit the country on a working holiday or workation.
About Workation Visa:
The “workation” or “digital nomad” visa allows foreign nationals to visit South Korea on a working holiday.
Eligibility:
Foreign nationals with an annual income twice as much as South Korea’s per capita gross national income will be eligible to apply for the visa.
It will be given to those having a work experience of over a year in one industry and are eligible for remote work.
Moreover, the applicants must also have medical insurance of over 100 million won (₹63,62,655.45) and must cover medical treatment and repatriation fees.
The visa will also be allowed to the families of these employees.
The visa, which is valid for a year and renewable for up to two years, can be issued at South Korean embassies, and those currently residing in the country under a temporary visa can also apply for it if they meet the requirements. (Currently, foreign nationals interested in working and traveling in Korea need a tourist visa, which is limited to stays of less than 90 days)
The people who are awarded this visa cannot be hired by any company in South Korea to work or undertake any profit-making activity.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/world-news/south-korea-launches-workation-visa-for-foreigners-all-you-must-know-124010200526_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding Aspergillus fumigatus:
- It is a species of virus that causes diseases in humans.
- It is found only in freshwater bodies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 or 2
Explanation :
An international team of researchers recently unveiled ground-breaking findings on the fungus Aspergillus fumigatus, which can cause deadly disease in humans.
About Aspergillus fumigatus:
It is a species of fungus that causes diseases in humans.
It can be found throughout the environment, including in soil, plant matter, and household dust.
The fungus can also produce airborne spores called conidia. Most people can inhale many of these spores on a daily basis.
In a healthy individual, the immune system often clears them from the body without a problem. However, for some people, inhaling A. fumigatus, spores can lead to a potentially severe infection.
Aspergillus fumigatus is considered an opportunistic organism. It has low virulence (ability to cause damage) and causes disease only in some circumstances, like:
A severely weakened state caused by sickness, poor nutrition, advanced age, etc.
Immunosuppression by diseases or medicines
Implants use, such as prosthetic devices
Illness Caused:
An infection that’s caused by an Aspergillus species of fungus is referred to as aspergillosis.
Aspergillus can cause allergic reactions, chronic lung conditions, and an invasive disease that spreads to your brain, kidneys, lungs, or other organs.
Symptoms:
The symptoms of aspergillosis vary depending on the type and location of your body.
Symptoms of infections or allergic reactions in your lungs are the most common. They include:
Coughing (sometimes coughing up blood).
Shortness of breath (dyspnea).
Noisy breathing (wheezing).
Chest pain.
Fever.
Fatigue and weight loss can be symptoms of chronic pulmonary aspergillosis.
Treatment: Treatments include surgery and antifungal medications.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-01-secrets-disease-fungus-aspergillus-fumigatus.html
Consider the following statements regarding the PRERANA program:
- It is a week-long residential program for school students.
- It aims to engage students in diverse indigenous knowledge systems and latest State-of-Art technologies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Department of School Education & Literacy, Ministry of Education, Government of India has launched ‘Prerana: An Experiential Learning program’.
It aims to offer a meaningful, unique, and inspiring experience to all participants, thereby empowering them with leadership qualities.
It is driven by a strong commitment to integrate principles of Indian education system and the philosophy of value-based education which is a corner stone of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
It is a week-long residential program for selected students of class IX to XII.
A batch of 20 selected students (10 boys and 10 girls) will attend the program, every week from various parts of the country.
It will run from a Vernacular School, established in 1888, in one of the oldest living cities of India, Vadnagar, district Mehsana, Gujarat.
The curriculum of Prerana School prepared by IIT Gandhi Nagar is rooted in nine value based themes: Swabhiman and Vinay, Shaurya and Sahas, Parishram and Samarpan, Karuna and Sewa, Vividhta and Ekta, Satyanishtha and Shuchita, Navachar and Jigyasa, Shraddha aur Vishwas, and Swatantrata and Kartavya.
The day-wise program schedule will feature yoga, mindfulness, and meditation sessions, followed by experiential learning, thematic sessions, and hands on interesting learning activities.
Evening activities will include visits to ancient and heritage sites, inspirational film screenings, mission life creative activities, talent shows etc. ensuring a holistic learning approach.
Apart from this, students will engage in diverse activities, embracing indigenous knowledge systems, latest State-of-Art technologies, and learnings from inspirational personalities.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1993086
Polygonum Chaturbhujanum, recently seen in the news, is a:
herb plant
Explanation :
Recently, a new plant species of Polygonum genus has been discovered at Gol Pahadi Island of the Pench Tiger Reserve (PTR) in Maharashtra during a survey.
A new plant species named Polygonum Chaturbhujanum has been discovered at Gol Pahadi island of PTR.
It is a herb.
Six plant species endemic to India have also been found in Pench.
They are Aegineta indica, Boerhavia crispa, Habenaria gibsonii var foetida, Iphigenia pallida, Petalidium barlerioides and Barleria gibsoniii
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/environment/new-plant-species-discovered-in-maharashtras-pench-tiger-reserve-forest-official/articleshow/106546436.cms?from=mdr
With reference to Red weaver ants, consider the following statements:
- These are recognized as bio-control agents.
- They protect a variety of tropical crops against insect pests.
- The chutney made with these ants has received a Geographical Identification (GI) tag.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, the Similipal kai chutney made with red weaver ants by the tribal people of Odisha’s Mayurbhanj district (Odisha) received the geographical identity tag.
The savoury chutney is popular in Mayurbhanj region for its healing properties and also deemed important for nutritional security of the tribal people.
Many indigenous people from Mayurbhanj district venture into nearby forest to collect kai pimpudi (red weaver ant).
Around 500 tribal families have been eking out a living by collecting and selling these insects and a chutney made with them.
Health benefits
The scientists analysed the red weaver ants and found it contains valuable proteins, calcium, zinc, vitamin B-12, iron, magnesium, potassium, sodium, copper, amino acids, among others. Consuming the species can help boost the immune system and prevent diseases.
The tribal healers also prepare a medicinal oil in which they dip the ants along with pure mustard oil.
After a month, this concoction is used as body oil for babies and to cure rheumatism, gout, ringworm and other diseases by the tribes.
The local people also consume this to stay fit and strong.
Key facts about red weaver ants
These are indigenous to Mayurbhanj and are found in abundance in the jungles of every block area of the district, including in the Similipal Tiger Reserve, throughout the year.
They feed on small insects and other invertebrates like beetles, flies and hymenopterans.
They do not sting but have a painful bite into which they can secrete irritant chemicals from their abdomens,
They are also recognised as bio-control agents because they are aggressive and will prey on most arthropods entering their territory.
They protect a variety of tropical crops against insect pests, acting as an alternative to chemical insecticides.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/food/mayurbhanj-s-red-ant-chutney-receives-gi-tag-why-this-is-important-for-nutritional-security-of-tribals-93707
Consider the following statements regarding the Wetland City Accreditation:
- It is given to cities which have taken exceptional steps to safeguard their urban wetlands.
- No Indian city has received this recognition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has submitted three nominations from India for Wetland City Accreditation (WCA) of Indore (Madhya Pradesh), Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh) & Udaipur (Rajasthan) under the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands.
The Ramsar Convention during COP12 held in the year 2015 approved a voluntary Wetland City Accreditation system under Resolution XII.10
It recognizes cities which have taken exceptional steps to safeguard their urban wetlands.
It also recognizes the importance of wetlands in urban and peri-urban environments and to take appropriate measures to conserve and protect these wetlands.
This voluntary scheme provides an opportunity for cities that value their natural or human-made wetlands to gain international recognition and positive publicity for their efforts.
This scheme aims to further promote the conservation and wise use of urban and peri-urban wetlands, as well as sustainable socio-economic benefits for local populations.
To be formally accredited, a candidate for WCA should satisfy the standards used to implement each of the six international criteria mentioned Operational Guidance for WCA of the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands.
Since Ramsar COP13, 43 cities from 17 countries have been officially recognized as “Wetland Cities”.
There is no India city which has received this recognition.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1993224
Consider the following statements regarding the Northeast African Cheetah:
- It is mainly found in the Horn of Africa region.
- It is categorized as critically endangered species under the IUCN Red list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A group of experts have appealed to the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) to reclassify the status of the Northeast African Cheetah (Acinonyx jubatus soemmeringii) to ‘endangered’ from ‘vulnerable’.
It is found in the Horn of Africa.
It is also known as the Sudan cheetah. This subspecies is more closely related to the Southern African cheetah than to Saharan cheetah populations.
The cheetah’s long tail helps it keep its balance when changing direction mid-chase. Cheetahs can make even 90-degree turns with ease while sprinting.
Appearance: The Northeast African cheetah is fairly large. Physically, it most resembles the East African cheetah
Distribution: Contemporary records are known in South Sudan and Ethiopia. These animals live in wide open lands, grasslands, semi-arid areas, and other open habitats where prey is abundant such as in the East Sudanian Savanna.
Threat: The subspecies’ cubs are being heavily trafficked across the Red Sea to Arab countries like Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates and Yemen.
Conservation status
IUCN: Vulnerable
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/world/upgrade-horn-of-africa-cheetah-status-to-endangered-experts-appeal-to-iucn-93711
Consider the following statements regarding the National Real Estate Development Council (NAREDCO):
- It is an industry association for the real estate sector in India.
- It works under the aegis of the Union Ministry of Finance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Real estate body NAREDCO recently said it plans to organise a builders’ conference in Ayodhya to tap its commercial and residential opportunities.
About National Real Estate Development Council (NAREDCO):
It was established in 1998 under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs of the Government of India.
It is the leading industry association for the real estate sector in the country.
Its primary objective is to provide a legitimate platform for the government, the real estate industry, and the general public to address their concerns and find effective solutions to the challenges faced by the real estate sector.
NAREDCO’s mission is to improve the real estate industry’s building, construction, and marketing standards.
It contributes to the development of national fiscal policies and acts as a catalyst for economic growth in the Indian real estate sector.
With a membership base comprising over 10000+ members across India with its State NAREDCO chapters, NAREDCO plays a crucial role in policy formulation by representing the viewpoints of its members to various ministries on a regular basis.
All major national developers and public sector organizations in the fields of housing and real estate development, finance, and marketing are members of NAREDCO.
Structure:
The organizational structure of NAREDCO includes National, State, and City Councils.
The councils ensure that the policy recommendations accurately reflect the real conditions on the ground and cover the entire geography.
The National Council focuses on macro-level issues, the State Councils address state-level concerns, and the City Councils tackle local and on-ground issues.
The Union Minister for Housing and Urban Affairs, Govt. of India, serves as the Chief Patron of NAREDCO.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/naredco-plans-event-to-showcase-real-estate-opportunities-in-ayodhya-124010500705_1.html
The PRITHvi VIgyan (PRITHVI) scheme, recently seen in the news, primarily focuses on:
Earth observation
Explanation :
To enhance the understanding of the Earth and its vital signs, the Union Cabinet recently approved the “PRITHVI VIgyan (PRITHVI)” scheme.
About PRITHVI Scheme:
It is an initiative of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) to enhance the understanding of the Earth and its vital signs.
This overarching initiative, with an allocation of Rs 4,797 crore for the period 2021-26, aims to significantly enhance research, modeling, and service delivery across crucial areas like weather, climate, oceans, and the polar regions.
The Prithvi scheme integrates five existing sub-schemes:
Atmosphere and Climate Research-Modelling Observing Systems and Services (ACROSS)
Ocean Services, Modelling Application, Resources and Technology (O-SMART)
Polar Science and Cryosphere Research (PACER)
Seismology and Geosciences (SAGE)
Research, Education, Training, and Outreach (REACHOUT).
These programs collectively aim to enhance our understanding of the Earth’s vital signs and translate scientific knowledge into practical services that benefit society, the environment, and the economy.
What will the Prithvi Scheme do?
One of the primary objectives of Prithvi is to augment and sustain long-term observations across the atmosphere, ocean, geosphere, cryosphere, and solid earth.
This will enable recording and monitoring of the Earth System’s vital signs and changes.
Additionally, the scheme focuses on developing predictive models for weather, ocean, and climate hazards, as well as advancing the understanding of climate change science.
Exploration of the polar regions and high seas is another key aspect, aiming at discovering new phenomena and resources.
The scheme also emphasizes the development of technology for the exploration and sustainable harnessing of oceanic resources for societal applications.
Various components of the PRITHVI scheme are interdependent and are carried out in an integrated manner through the combined efforts of the concerned institutes under the MoES.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.businesstoday.in/latest/economy/story/cabinet-approves-rs-4797-crore-prithvi-scheme-to-boost-earth-science-research-412021-2024-01-05
Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Chennai’?
Stealth-guided missile destroyer
Explanation :
The Indian Navy recently said that it has responded to a hijacking attempt on vessel MV Lila Norfolk by engaging its mission-deployed platforms, including its maritime patrol aircraft (MPA) P8I and INS Chennai.
About INS Chennai:
It is the Indian Navy’s indigenously designed and constructed guided missile destroyer.
It is the third and last ship of the Kolkata-class stealth-guided missile destroyers (Project 15A).
It was constructed by the Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL) at Mumbai.
It was commissioned into the Indian Navy on November 21, 2016.
Features:
It measures 163 meters in length and has a beam of 17.4 meters.
Displacement: Over 7,500 tons.
Top Speed: 30 knots (approx. 55 KM/hour)
It is powered by four reversible gas turbine engines.
It can carry 350 to 400 people.
Armament: It is armed with Vertical launch and long-range surface-to-air and surface-to-surface missile systems like supersonic BrahMos, ‘Barak-8’ Long Range Surface to Air missiles.
The ship is equipped to fight under nuclear, biological and chemical (NBC) warfare conditions.
It is fitted with a modern Surveillance Radar, which provides target data to the gunnery weapon systems of the ship.
The ship’s Anti-Submarine Warfare capabilities are provided by the indigenously developed Rocket Launchers and Torpedo Launchers.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/navy-ins-chennai-vessel-hijacked-arabian-sea-15-indians-9096189/
With reference to Fuel Cells, consider the following statements:
- It is a device that generates electricity through a chemical reaction.
- It has lower or zero emissions compared to combustion engines.
- It can supply electrical energy for a shorter period of time when compared to batteries.
How many of the above statements are correct?
only two
Explanation :
ISRO recently said it has successfully tested a futuristic fuel cell-based power system.
About Fuel Cell:
A fuel cell is a device that generates electricity by a chemical reaction.
Fuel cells can be used in a wide range of applications, providing power for applications across multiple sectors, including transportation, industrial/commercial/residential buildings, and long-term energy storage for the grid in reversible systems.
Working:
A fuel cell consists of two electrodes—a negative electrode (or anode) and a positive electrode (or cathode).
Both electrodes must be immersed in and separated by an electrolyte, which may be a liquid or a solid but must, in either case, conduct ions between the electrodes in order to complete the chemistry of the system.
A fuel, such as hydrogen, is supplied to the anode, where it is oxidized, producing hydrogen ions and electrons.
An oxidizer, such as oxygen, is supplied to the cathode, where the hydrogen ions from the anode absorb electrons from the latter and react with the oxygen to produce water.
The difference between the respective energy levels at the electrodes (electromotive force) is the voltage per unit cell.
The amount of electric current available to the external circuit depends on the chemical activity and amount of the substances supplied as fuel.
A single fuel cell generates a tiny amount of direct-current (DC) electricity. In practice, many fuel cells are usually assembled into a stack.
Advantages of Fuel Cells:
Fuel cells have lower or zero emissions compared to combustion engines. Hydrogen fuel cells emit only water, addressing critical climate challenges as there are no carbon dioxide emissions.
There are also no air pollutants that create smog and cause health problems during the operation of a fuel cell.
They are quiet during operation as they have few moving parts.
They can operate at higher efficiencies than combustion engines.
A fuel cell resembles a battery in many respects, but it can supply electrical energy over a much longer period of time.
This is because a fuel cell is continuously supplied with fuel and air (or oxygen) from an external source, whereas a battery contains only a limited amount of fuel material and oxidant that are depleted with use.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/isro-tests-futurist-fuel-cell-system-that-could-power-space-station/articleshow/106562024.cms?from=mdr
EB-5 Immigrant Investor Program, recently seen in the news, belongs to:
USA
Explanation :
The United States Department of State recently released data that indicates significant progress in the processing of EB-5 applications that are currently pending, especially those from Indian citizens.
About EB-5 Immigrant Investor Program:
The EB-5 (employment-based, 5th preference), or US golden visa, provides a special road for overseas investors and their families to seek permanent residency and Green Cards in the United States.
It is administered by the United States Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS).
It was created in 1990 to stimulate the U.S. economy through job creation and capital investment by foreign investors.
Under this program, investors (and their spouses and unmarried children under 21) are eligible to apply for lawful permanent residence (become a Green Card holder) if they:
Make the necessary investment in a commercial enterprise in the United States, and
Plan to create or preserve 10 permanent full-time jobs for qualified U.S. workers.
A new commercial enterprise means any for-profit activity formed for the ongoing conduct of lawful business, including:
A sole proprietorship;
Partnership (whether limited or general);
Holding company and its wholly owned subsidiaries (provided that each subsidiary is engaged in a for-profit activity formed for the ongoing conduct of a lawful business);
Joint venture;
Corporation;
Business trust;
Limited liability company; or
Other entity, which may be publicly or privately owned.
This definition does not include noncommercial activity, such as owning and operating a personal residence.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/investing-abroad-eb-5-golden-visa-final-action-date-for-indian-applicants-advanced-by-2-years-3355543/
Consider the following statements regarding the Kadambas of Goa:
- They were the subordinates of Chalukyas of Kalyana.
- Kadamba Shasthadeva conquered the city of Chandavara.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, an inscription said to be of 10th century A.D. Kadamba period has been discovered in the Mahadeva temple at Cacoda in southern Goa.
The Kadambas of Goa were the subordinates of Chalukyas of Kalyana.
Chalukyan emperor Tailapa II appointed Kadamba Shasthadeva as mahamandaleshwara of Goa for his help in overthrowing the Rashtrakutas.
Kadamba Shasthadeva conquered the city of Chandavara from the Shilaharas in 960 A.D.
Later, he conquered the port of Gopakapattana (present Goa).
Gundayya, the son of Talara Nevayya, may have participated in this battle, and won the port at the cost of his life.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Mangalore/10th-century-kadamba-inscription-written-in-kannada-sanskrit-found-in-goa/article67704655.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Pallas fish eagle:
- It is mainly found in the Central Asian Countries.
- It is usually seen in desert areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
After 10 years, the Pallas fish eagle, was sighted in the Chilika during the bird census carried out by the Chilika wildlife division.
It is also known as Pallas’s sea eagle or band-tailed fish eagle, is a large, brownish sea eagle.
It can be seen near lakes, marshes and large rivers, from lowlands to 5,000 metres of elevation.
It feeds primarily on fish, but many other preys are part of its diet.
It breeds usually near water in a large nest placed in tall tree.
Distribution: It is found in east Palearctic in Kazakhstan, Russia, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, Mongolia, China, India, Nepal, Bangladesh and Myanmar.
It is partially migratory.
Conservation status
IUCN Red List: Endangered
Threats: Humans contribute to the decline of this species through habitat degradation, pollution, and draining or overfishing lakes.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bhubaneswar/pallas-fish-eagle-sighted-in-chilika-after-10-years/articleshow/106560837.cms
With reference to Thanjavur dolls, consider the following statements:
- It was initially brought to Thanjavur by Maratha rulers.
- It is made up of hard Teakwood.
- It is awarded with Geographical Indication tag.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Thanjavur dolls are facing stiff competition from electronic toys and e-commerce platforms, besides a severe labour crunch and shortage of clay.
The craft was brought to Thanjavur by Maratha ruler Raja Serfoji in the early 19th Century.
In Tamil language, it is called as Thanjavur thalayatti bommai.
Thanjavur dolls are primarily of two kinds, one is the bobble-head version, and the other is the tilting doll version.
Material used:
Doll-makers use papier-mâché, plaster of Paris and other materials for the body.
A mixture of vandal mann (fine silt deposited by rushing streams of water), kali mann (clayey riverbed mud), and manal (loose aggregate) is required to make the dolls’ pedestals.
Copper sulphate powder is added as a fungicide.
Process:
All the dolls have a lightweight body made of tapioca flour, papier-mache and plaster of Paris cooked and kneaded to the consistency of ‘roti’ dough.
Each toy is made in halves, by pressing the rolled-out ‘doll dough’ into cement moulds, with liberal dusting of chalk powder.
Dolls pass through at least seven stages from mould to assembly before they are packed for despatch, with each step, such as painting the facial features and costume embellishments, requiring a skilled artisan’s attention
The dancing doll has four sections (including the arms that are individually glued to the torso), each balancing on the other with the help of inner metal loop hooks that create the light bobbing movement.
It earned Geographical Indication tag in 2009.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/keeping-thanjavur-doll-industry-out-of-the-doldrums-is-no-childs-play/article67707476.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Rejupave technology:
- It is developed by the CSIR-Central Road Research Institute.
- It is used in constructing high-altitude bituminous roads at low temperature conditions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) has utilised road construction technology i.e Rejupave technology to build high-altitude bituminous road sections at the Sela tunnel and LGG-Damteng-Yangste (LDY) road near the India-China border in Arunachal Pradesh.
It is developed by India’s oldest and premier road research organisation, CSIR-Central Road Research Institute (CSIR-CRRI).
It is beneficial in constructing high-altitude bituminous roads at low and sub-zero temperature conditions.
This technology brings down the production and rolling temperature of bituminous mixes by 30 degrees Celsius to 400 degrees Celsius with negligible heat loss in the bituminous mix during transit, despite long haulage time amid snowfall.
This technology’s asphalt modifier is a bio oil-based product, which significantly lowers the heating requirement of bituminous mixes besides preserving the bituminous mix temperature during transit.
Significance
Rejupave’ asphalt modifier in cold climatic regions will have improved long-term durability and better resistance to thermal cracking under low-temperature conditions.
It also bring down the greenhouse gas emissions in the pristine eco-sensitive mountainous environment of Arunachal Pradesh
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/arunachal-pradesh-bro-indigenous-technology-road-construction-india-china-border-2484577-2024-01-05
Consider the following statements regarding the Plasma waves:
- These are only observed in outer space.
- These are identified as the short-time scale fluctuations in the electric and magnetic field observations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Scientists have detected existence of high-frequency plasma waves in the Martian Upper Atmosphere with novel narrowband and broadband features that can help to understand plasma processes in the Martian plasma environment.
These waves are often observed in the Earth’s magnetosphere, a magnetic field cavity around the Earth.
In general, plasma waves are identified as the short-time scale fluctuations in the electric and magnetic field observations.
These plasma waves play an important role in the energization and transport of the charged particles in the Earth’s magnetosphere.
Some of the plasma waves like electromagnetic ion cyclotron waves act as a cleaning agent for the Earth’s radiation belt, which is hazardous to our satellites.
Knowing this scenario, researchers are curious to understand the existence of various plasma waves in the vicinity of unmagnetized planets like Mars.
The planet Mars do not have any intrinsic magnetic field therefore the high-speed solar wind coming from the Sun interacts directly with the Mars atmosphere, like an obstacle in the flow.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1993601
With reference to the Falkland Island, consider the following statement:
1) It is located in the South Atlantic Ocean.
2) It is under the administrative control of United Kingdom.
3) It is being disputed by Brazil.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
two only
Explanation :
The Falkland Islands is an archipelago in the South Atlantic Ocean on the Patagonian Shelf. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The islands are British overseas territories located in the South Atlantic, 8,000 miles from Britain. Sovereignty over the islands has been contested by Argentina since 1833. Hence statement 2 is correct and 3 is incorrect.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
The Lake Titicaca is shared by which of the following countries?
Peru and Bolivia
Explanation :
Lake Titicaca sits 3 810 m above sea level and is situated between Peru to the west and Bolivia to the east.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Atacama Desert, consider the following statements:
1) It is located in the northern part of Chile.
2) It is one of the driest deserts in the World.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Atacama Desert is a desert plateau located on the Pacific coast of South America, in the north of Chile. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Atacama Desert forms part of the arid Pacific fringe of South America. Dry subsidence created by the South Pacific high-pressure cell makes the desert one of the driest regions in the world. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Read the following statements:
1) This river passes through desert region in the North America.
2) This river forms the Grand Canyon.
3) Lake Mead is located on this river.
Which of the following river is described in the above statements?
Colorado river
Explanation :
The Colorado River is one of the principal rivers in the Southwestern United States and in northern Mexico.
Hoover Dam and Lake Mead, spanning the Arizona-Nevada state line, are located in the Black Canyon of the Colorado River.
Therefore, option (b) is correct answer.
Which of the following countries are landlocked?
1) Paraguay
2) Colombia
3) Bolivia
4) Uruguay
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Paraguay and Bolivia are the two landlocked countries in South America.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following country is being famous for one of the largest copper reserve in the world?
Chile
Explanation :
Chile has the world’s largest copper reserves of any country by far.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
The Caspian Sea surrounded by which of the following countries?
1) Kazakhstan
2) Turkmenistan
3) Iran
4) Azerbaijan
5) Russia
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
1,2,3,4,5
The Caspian Sea is bordered by five countries: Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Iran, Azerbaijan, and Russia.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Kuril Islands, consider the following statements:
1) The Kuril Islands are disputed islands between China and Japan
2) The Kuril Islands is located in East China Sea
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The Kuril Islands are a chain of islands that stretch between the Japanese island of Hokkaido and the Russian Kamchatka Peninsula. They are disputed islands between Russia and Japan. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The Kuril Islands are a chain of islands that stretch between the Japanese island of Hokkaido at their southern end and the Russian Kamchatka Peninsula at their northern end. The islands separate the Sea of Okhotsk from the Pacific Ocean. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is correct answer.
Which of the following region has Mediterranean type of Climate?
1) Central Chile
2) California
3) South-western tip of Africa
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
1,2,3
Explanation :
Mediterranean regions are defined by their unique climate, which is characterized by a hot drought period in summer and cool wet period in winter. They partly cover the Mediterranean Basin, California, southwestern and southern Australia, central Chile and southern Africa.
Therefore, option (d) is correct answer.
Which of following deserts are located in North America?
1) Great Basin Desert
2) Mojave Desert
3) Sonoran Desert
4) Simpson Desert
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
1,2,3
Explanation :
North American deserts are grouped into four major types - the Great Basin Desert, Sonoran Desert, Chihuahuan Desert and Mojave Desert - depending on their characteristic physical features (rainfall, topography, soil types) and characteristic vegetation and associated animal communities.
Simpson Desert is in Australia. The Simpson Desert is an erg that contains the world’s longest parallel sand dunes.
Therefore, option (c) is correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding Laokhowa and Burhachapori Wildlife Sanctuaries:
- They are Protected Areas (PAs) in Arunachal Pradesh.
- They are located on the southern bank of the river Brahmaputra.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Two rhinos have recently returned to the Laokhowa and Burhachapori Wildlife Sanctuary after almost a 40-year gap following a successful anti-encroachment operation.
About Laokhowa and Burhachapori Wildlife Sanctuaries:
Location:
The Laokhowa and Burhachapori Wildlife Sanctuaries are two centrally located Protected Areas (PAs) of Assam.
They are located on the southern bank of the river Brahmaputra.
In fact, though these two wildlife sanctuaries have two different names, they are eologically and geographically a singular entity.
They are surrounded by many key Pas, like Kaziranga National Park to the east, Orang National Park and Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuaries to the west, Pakke-Nameri NPs to the north, and the rich reserve forests of Karbi Anglong to the south.
They act as a connecting corridor for the migration of animals between Kaziranga and Orang National parks and hence, has been identified as buffer zones of Kaziranga Tiger Reserve.
Landscape: It comprises of a mosaic of wet alluvial grassland, riparian, and semi-evergreen forests dotted by wetland and river systems.
Flora:
A unique vegetation of this sanctuary is the abundance of freshwater mangrove trees.
There are many species of trees and medicinal plants in the sanctuary. Trees like simul, korai, ajar, hijal, etc. are found in the area.
Fauna:
It is home to the Great Indian one-horned rhinoceros, tiger, leopard, wild buffalo, hog deer, wild pig, and elephants.
The highly endangered Gangetic River Dolphins are still seen in the waters of the Brahmaputra River adjacent to these Pas.
The numerous natural and perennial wetlands are functioning as breeding grounds for various kinds of local fish species and highly important bird species such as Storks like Adjutant, Lesser Adjutant, White Stork, Black Necked Stork, Black Stork etc.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.latestly.com/agency-news/india-news-two-rhinos-return-to-assam-wildlife-sanctuary-after-40-yrs-5673606.html
Which one of the following best describes the ‘30 Doradus B’?
A supernova remnant
Explanation :
Nasa’s Chandra X-ray Observatory recently captured a stunning image of 30 Doradus B, a supernova remnant that is part of a vibrant region of space where stars have been forming for millions of years.
About 30 Doradus B:
30 Doradus B, also cataloged as NGC 2060, is a supernova remnant found in the Large Magellanic Cloud, a small satellite galaxy of the Milky Way.
It is part of a large star-forming region where stars have been continuously forming for the past 8 to 10 million years.
It is a complex landscape of dark clouds of gas, young stars, high-energy shocks, and superheated gas, located 160,000 light-years away from Earth.
What is a Supernova?
A supernova is the explosion of a star whose luminosity after an eruption suddenly increases many millions of times its normal level.
Supernovas are “the largest explosion that takes place in space.”
A star can go supernova in one of two ways:
Type I supernova: The star accumulates matter from a nearby neighbour until a runaway nuclear reaction ignites.
Type II supernova: The star runs out of nuclear fuel and collapses under its own gravity.
Supernovas can briefly outshine entire galaxies and radiate more energy than our sun will in its entire lifetime.
They’re also the primary source of heavy elements in the universe.
They heat up the interstellar medium, distribute heavy elements throughout the Galaxy, and accelerate cosmic rays.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/nasa-telescope-rings-in-2024-by-capturing-two-mega-star-explosions-in-space-2484340-2024-01-04
Consider the following statements regarding the recent RBI Norms for Politically-Exposed Persons (PEPs):
- PEPs are individuals who are or have been entrusted with prominent public functions by a foreign country.
- The RBI regulated entities (REs) are not allowed to transact with PEPs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently updated Know Your Customer (KYC) norms for politically exposed persons (PEPs) who transact with regulated entities (REs), seeking to comply with the recommendations of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF).
New RBI Norms for Politically-Exposed Persons (PEPs):
Who are PEPs? In the amended KYC master direction, the central bank defines PEPs as “individuals who are or have been entrusted with prominent public functions by a foreign country, including the heads of states/governments, senior politicians, senior government or judicial or military officers, senior executives of state-owned corporations, and important political party officials”.
REs have the option of establishing a relationship with PEPs (whether as customers or beneficial owners).
REs have to perform regular customer due diligence and also follow additional conditions prescribed by the RBI to transact with PEPs.
Some additional conditions include establishing an appropriate risk management system to determine whether the customer or the beneficial owner is a PEP.
REs have to take reasonable measures to establish the source of funds/ wealth.
They also need to get approval from senior management to open an account for a PEP.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.business-standard.com/finance/news/rbi-gives-clarity-to-politically-exposed-persons-term-to-meet-fatf-norms-124010500364_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding Indrayani River:
- It is a tributary of the Bhima River.
- It originates in the Western Ghats in Karnataka.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The recent reappearance of toxic foam on the Indrayani river once again raised concerns about pollution here.
About Indrayani River:
It is a tributary of the Bhima River, which again is a tributary of the Krishna River.
Course:
It originates in Kurvande village near Lonavla, a hill station in the Sahyadri mountains of Maharashtra.
Fed by rain, it flows east from there to meet the Bhima River.
It follows a course mostly north of the city of Pune.
The river has great religious importance, and the two sacred towns of Alandi and Dehu are situated on its banks.
Dehu is known to be a sacred place for being the hometown of the poet Saint Tukaram, who was a popular saint of Maharashtra, and Alandi holds the samadhi of the poet Dnyaneshwar.
Valvan Dam at Kamshet, situated on the Indrayani River, is a hydroelectric generating station.
Key Facts about Bhima River:
The Bhima River (also known as the Chandrabagha River) is a major river in southwest India.
It is a major tributary of the Krishna River.
Course:
It originates in the Bhimashankar hills near Karjat on the western side of the Western Ghats, in the Pune District of Maharashtra.
Bhima flows southeast through the states of Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Telangana.
The Bhima River merges into the Krishna River at Kadlur (Raichur) in Karnataka.
This 861km-long river has the Western Ghats on the west, the Balaghat Range in the north, and the Mahadeo Hills in the south.
The total basin area of the river is 48,631 sq. km, out of which 75 percent lie in the state of Maharashtra.
Major tributaries are the Sina and Nira rivers.
Pandharpur is an important pilgrimage centre located on the right bank of the Bhima River.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/pune/toxic-foam-on-indrayani-river-again-official-inaction-blamed/articleshow/106530186.cms
With reference to Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose, consider the following statements:
- He was strongly influenced by Swami Vivekananda’s teachings.
- He formed the Forward Bloc during the Civil Disobedience Movement.
- He reorganized the Indian National Army against British forces during the Second World War.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Leaders like Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose are “immortal” and do not need bestowing of a recognition through a judicial diktat, the Supreme Court said recently.
About Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose:
He was an Indian nationalist leader who was a key figure in the Indian independence movement against British colonial rule.
He was born on January 23, 1897, in Cuttack, Orissa.
In 1920, he passed the civil service examination, but in April 1921, after hearing of the nationalist turmoil in India, he resigned from his position.
Bose then joined the Indian National Congress and actively participated in the Indian independence movement.
Bose at first worked with C.R. Das in Bengal, under whose mentorship he flowered.
He was a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi and Jawaharlal Nehru.
Bose was elected president of the Indian National Congress for two consecutive terms but resigned from the post following ideological conflicts with Mahatma Gandhi.
In 1939, he formed the Forward Bloc, an organization aimed at unifying all the anti-British forces in India.
Netaji was strongly influenced by Swami Vivekananda’s teaching and was known for his patriotic zeal as a student.
At the outset of the Second World War, he fled from India and traveled to the Soviet Union, Germany and Japan, seeking an alliance with the aim of attacking the British in India.
With Japanese assistance, he reorganized and later led the Indian National Army, formed from Indian prisoners-of-war and plantation workers from Malaya, Singapore, and other parts of Southeast Asia, against British forces.
With Japanese monetary, political, diplomatic, and military assistance, he formed the Azad Hind Government in exile, and regrouped, and led the Indian National Army in battle against the allies at Imphal and in Burma.
He is believed to have died on August 18, 1945, in a plane crash over Taiwan. The exact circumstances of his death are still shrouded in mystery and controversy.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/apex-court-dismisses-plea-seeking-to-declare-netaji-as-son-of-the-nation-101704483811863.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Bobbili veena:
- It is a large plucked string instrument used in Carnatic music.
- It is crafted from Jack-wood tree logs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Despite the longstanding fame of the Bobbili veena, the livelihoods of craftsmen face challenges due to a lack of demand from the public and required patronage from the government.
It is the traditional ‘Saraswati Veena’ from Bobbili is famed for its fine tune and distinctive notes.
It is a large plucked string instrument used in Carnatic music.
The making of the veena began in the 17th century during the reign of Pedda Rayudu, the king of Bobbili Samsthanam who was a great patron of music.
Features
These veenas are painstakingly crafted from Jack-wood tree logs in Gollapalli, a town in Bobbili (AndhraPradesh).
It takes almost a full month for a log of mute wood to be crafted into a fine musical instrument.
Jack-wood is preferred as it is light and the unique grain of the wood renders the quality of swara or tone.
A single piece of wood is used to create the instrument giving it the name ‘Ekandi Veena’.
These Veenas are also remarkable for the exquisite designs etched on the body, making each piece exclusive.
With their origin dating back to the Seventeenth Century, these veenas are played in a distinctive style, which also led to the coinage of the ‘Bobbili Veena Sampradayam’.
It earned a Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2012 for its unique design and high-quality craftsmanship.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/strung-out-bobbilli-veena-craftsmen-struggle-for-livelihood/article67698603.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Sohrai Painting:
- It is an indigenous mural art form.
- It is practiced by communities in the North eastern states of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Remote Bengal village began their New Year with workshop on ancient indigenous art i.e Sohrai Painting.
It is an indigenous mural art form.
It is also interesting to note that the word ‘Sohrai’ comes from soro – translating to ‘to drive with a stick’.
This art form dates back to the Meso-chalcolithic period (9000-5000 BC).
The Isko rock shelter excavated in Barkagaon, Hazaribagh area also has rock paintings that are exactly similar to the traditional Sohrai paintings.
Theme: It is usually based on natural elements of the universe, this includes forests, rivers, animals amongst others.
These ancient paintings are made by tribal (Adivasi) women with the use of natural substances like charcoal, clay, or soil.
The very primitive form of the Sohrai art was in the form of cave paintings.
It is practiced by indigenous communities, particularly in the States of Jharkhand, Bihar, Odisha, and West Bengal.
The region of Hazaribagh in Jharkhand that has received the GI tag for this art form.
It is the art of the women of the Kurmi, Santal, Munda, Oraon, Agaria, Ghatwal tribes.
Sohrai paintings are distinctive for their vibrant colours, intricate patterns, and symbolic motifs;
There is a Sohrai festival held every year, marking the harvesting season and the arrival of winter.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/kolkata/remote-bengal-village-to-begin-new-year-with-workshop-on-ancient-indigenous-art/article67709259.ece
With reference to the Tapioca plant, consider the following statements:
- It is known for its tuberous roots.
- It thrives best in a tropical, warm and humid climate.
- It requires black soil for its growth.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
only 2
Explanation :
The ICAR-Central Tuber Crops Research Institute (CTCRI) here has issued an advisory on feeding animals with parts of cassava (tapioca) in view of the incident in Idukki where 13 cows died in a farm recently.
It is a major horticulture crop cultivated on nearly 3 lakh hectares in Tamil Nadu, producing 60 lakh tonnes of the crop.
It is cultivated throughout the tropical world for its tuberous roots, from which cassava flour, breads, tapioca, a laundry starch, and an alcoholic beverage are derived.
Climatic conditions required
Soil: Any well-drained soil, preferably red lateritic loamy soil.
It thrives best in a tropical, warm, humid climate
Rainfall: Well-distributed rainfall of over 100 cm per annum.
This crop can be cultivated upto an elevation of 1000 m.
All parts of cassava/tapioca – leaves, stem, tuber and rind – contain the compounds called cyanogenic glucosides (CNGs), that is, linamarin and lotaustralin which are hydrolysed by endogenous enzyme linamarase to acetone cyanohydrin which may break down spontaneously liberating free hydrogen cyanide.
Both acetone cyanohydrin and free cyanide are toxic.
Its leaves contain about 10 times higher amount of CNGs than roots.
The CNG content of cassava leaves decreases with the increase in the age of the leaves.
The rind contains 10-30 times higher cyanoglucoside content than the edible parts.
Feeding crushed peels or leaves immediately after crushing or without proper drying poses a high risk of cyanide poisoning in animals.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/central-tuber-crops-research-institute-issues-advisory-on-using-parts-of-tapioca-plant-to-feed-cattle/article67711066.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Project Veer Gatha:
- It is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Defence and Ministry of Education.
- It aims to disseminate the details of bravery of the Gallantry Awardees among students.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The third edition of Project ‘Veer Gatha’, as part of Republic Day celebrations, has witnessed an overwhelming pan India response.
It is a joint initiative of Ministry of Defence and Ministry of Education.
It was instituted under Gallantry Awards Portal (GAP) in 2021.
Aim: With the aim to disseminate the details of acts of bravery of the Gallantry Awardees and the life stories of these brave hearts among the students so as to raise the spirit of patriotism and instill amongst them values of civic consciousness.
Project Veer Gatha deepened this noble aim by providing a platform to the school students to do creative projects/activities based on gallantry award winners.
As part of this, the students framed different projects through various media like art, poems, essays and multimedia on these gallantry award winners and best projects were awarded at national level by the Ministry of Defence and the Ministry of Education.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1993582
Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary, recently seen in news, is located in:
Arunachal Pradesh
xplanation :
Researchers at the Indian Institute of Science (IISc.) in Bengaluru have found that many bird species have started shifting to higher elevations due to rising temperatures in Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary.
It is a protected area of India in the Himalayan foothills of West Kameng District, Arunachal Pradesh.
It conjoins Sessa Orchid Sanctuary to the northeast and Pakhui Tiger Reserve across the Kameng river to the east.
It is situated in the biodiversity hotspot of Eastern Himalayas and home to over 500 bird species.
Altitude ranges are extreme: from 500 metres (1,640 ft) to 3,250 metres (10,663 ft).
It is also a part of the Kameng Elephant Reserve.
It is notable as a prime birding site due to the extraordinary variety, numbers and accessibility of species.
It derives its name from Red Eagle Division of the Indian army which was posted in the area in the 1950s.
Flora: The temperate cloud forest is intermixed with dense bamboo patches and broadleaved evergreen forest across a wide altitudinal range, with conifers and rhododendrons at the higher elevations.
Fauna: Capped langur, Bengal tiger, Asian elephant, red panda, Asiatic black bear, Arunachal macaque and gaur.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/iisc-study-in-arunachal-pradesh-reveals-how-logging-and-climate-change-impact-montane-birds/article67709047.ece
What is ‘Timorebestia koprii’, that was in the news recently?
A carnivorous worm
Explanation :
Scientists recently uncovered the fossils of the newfound species of carnivorous worm, named Timorebestia koprii, or “terror beast”, in northern Greenland.
About Timorebestia koprii:
Timorebestia koprii, meaning ‘terror beasts’, is a species of carnivorous worm, one of the earliest carnivorous animals to have colonized the water column during the early Cambrian period (541 million to 485.4 million years ago).
The fossils were discovered from the Early Cambrian Sirius Passet fossil locality in North Greenland.
They were giants of their day and would have been close to the top of the food chain. That makes it equivalent in importance to some of the top carnivores in modern oceans, such as sharks and seals back in the Cambrian period.
Features:
It could grow to be up to 12 inches (30 centimeters) long, making it one of the largest swimming animals in its time period.
It also had some unusual physical characteristics, such as a row of fins flanking each side of its body, a pair of long antennae, and a huge jaw structure.
Timorebestia is a distant but close relative of a living group of tiny marine worms known as arrow worms, or chaetognaths. These are much smaller ocean predators today that feed on tiny zooplankton.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livescience.com/planet-earth/fossils/terror-beast-fossils-unearthed-in-greenland-are-more-than-half-a-billion-years-old
Consider the following statements regarding Lunar Gateway Station:
- It is a component of NASA’s Artemis program.
- It will be the first space station ever to exist outside of Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The UAE recently announced its participation in developing a module on Nasa’s Lunar Gateway Station alongside the USA, Japan, Canada, and the European Union.
About Lunar Gateway Station:
It is a primary component of NASA’s Artemis program.
Artemis intends to establish a long-term base on the Moon (Artemis base), and the Lunar Gateway will serve as a multi-purpose outpost that orbits the Moon.
The Gateway is a multinational project involving four of the International Space Station partner agencies: NASA, the European Space Agency (ESA), Japan’s Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA), and the Canadian Space Agency (CSA).
Basically, the Gateway Station is similar to the International Space Station currently in low Earth orbit, but the Gateway will orbit the Moon.
Incidentally, the Gateway will be the first space station ever to exist outside of low Earth orbit, or LEO.
From the Gateway, NASA and international partners can provide essential support for long-term human presence on the lunar surface, as well as launch additional missions for deep space exploration.
Its flight path is a highly elliptical orbit, bringing it both relatively close to the Moon’s surface and also far away, making it easier to pick up astronauts and supplies from Earth, around a five-day trip.
It will also offer a place to relay communications and act as a base for scientific research.
The Gateway will weigh around 40 tonnes and consist of a service module, a communications module, a connecting module, an airlock for spacewalks, a place for the astronauts to live, and an operations station to command the Gateway’s robotic arm or rovers on the Moon.
Astronauts will be able to occupy it for up to 90 days at a time, occasionally travelling to the lunar surface to conduct science and test new technologies.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://theprint.in/world/uae-announces-its-participation-in-nasas-lunar-gateway-station/1914334/
With reference to Dynamic Asset Allocation (DAA), consider the following statements:
- It involves adjustment of the weights in a portfolio based on the overall market performance.
- In DAA, portfolio managers enjoy a high degree of flexibility in their choice of investments.
- Its transaction costs are very low when compared with a strategic asset allocation strategy.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Asset management company (AMC) PPFAS Mutual Fund recently filed for an open-ended dynamic asset allocation scheme with the capital market regulator, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
About Dynamic Asset Allocation:
DAA is an investment strategy that involves the frequent adjustment of the weights in a portfolio based on the overall market performance or the performance of certain securities.
Most of the funds in this category are invested and spread across various sectors, including equity funds, real estate, stocks, and bonds.
Under the dynamic allocation strategy, a portfolio manager assesses the current market conditions and the performance of each asset class.
He uses the results of the assessment to reduce the weights of assets with bad performance and increase the weights of assets with strong performance.
Generally, a dynamic strategy is used in reaction to existing risks and market downturns.
Unlike the strategic asset allocation strategy, dynamic asset allocation does not involve a target mix of assets. Thus, portfolio managers enjoy a high degree of flexibility in their choice of investments.
Dynamic allocation requires active portfolio management. Therefore, the success of the strategy depends not only on the market conditions but also on the portfolio manager’s ability to make good investment decisions and to adequately respond to changes in the market.
Dynamic Asset Allocation Example:
Suppose global equities enter a six-month bear market.
An investment manager using dynamic asset allocation may decide to reduce a portfolio’s equity holdings and increase its fixed-interest assets to reduce risk.
For example, if the portfolio was initially equities heavy, the manager may sell some of its equity holdings and purchase bonds.
If economic conditions improve, the manager may increase the portfolio’s equity allocation to take advantage of a more bullish outlook for stocks.
Advantages:
Returns: The frequent adjustments in the mix of assets can possibly provide higher returns on the investment portfolio.
Adjustment to market changes: Unlike static asset allocation, dynamic allocation is highly flexible. The strategy can quickly respond to market changes and market risks.
Disadvantages:
Transaction costs: The frequent rebalancing the weights within the portfolio is associated with transaction costs.
Active management: It requires tight control of the investment portfolio and constant observation of emerging market trends. Therefore, the asset allocation strategy requires the skills and knowledge of a professional portfolio manager and may often demand extensive sources (e.g., employees for research).
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/business/personal-finance/ppfas-mutual-fund-applies-for-dynamic-asset-allocation-scheme-with-sebi-12005191.html
Consider the following statements regarding Taurus Missile, recently seen in the news:
- It is an air-to-surface cruise missile.
- It is developed by the United States of America.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Pressure is mounting on German Chancellor to give the green light for long-range Taurus missiles that would be a significant boost to Kyiv’s weapons arsenal for striking critical Russian assets.
About Taurus Missile:
Taurus KEPD 350, known as the ‘bunker buster’, is a Swedish-German long-range air-to-surface cruise missile.
The high-precision stand-off guided missile system can penetrate through dense air defence systems and destroy hard and deeply buried stationary and semi-stationary military targets on the ground.
The missile attacks target bridges, ships in ports, runways, command, control and control centers, bunkers, port facilities, and air base buildings.
It is in service with the German (Luftwaffe) and Spanish Air Forces.
Features:
It has an overall weight of 1,400kg.
It has a length of 16.7 feet, a wingspan of 6.7 feet, and diameter of 3.5 feet.
The missile is constructed of modular pieces that can be assembled in different ways depending on the mission. Its electronic systems are also modular.
It is suitable for day and night and all-weather deployment.
It has low observability and terrain-masking features for survivability.
The modular design and reliability reduce the lifecycle cost of the system.
The missile carries about 481kg of inert multi-effect penetrator high sophisticated and target optimized (MEPHISTO) dual-stage warhead system for superior target penetration.
It is powered by a turbofan engine which provides the missile with a cruise speed of about Mach 0.6 to 0.95 at very low altitudes.
The missile has a range of up to 500km (270nm).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.newsweek.com/ukraine-taurus-long-range-missile-germany-russia-1858437
Consider the following statements regarding Gokturks:
- They were contemporaries of Indus Valley Civilization.
- They lived in ancient Inner Asia and the steppes of Central Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Archaeologists in Kazakhstan recently discovered two gold ornaments in a 1,500-year-old tomb that feature the earliest known depictions of the great khan, or “khagan,” of the Göktürks.
About Gokturks:
The Göktürks were a nomadic confederation of Turkic peoples who lived in ancient Inner Asia and the steppes of Central Asia.
They emerged into history in the early sixth century AD from obscure tribal origins.
The Göktürk rulers originated from the Ashina tribe, an Altaic people who lived in the northern corner of the area presently called Xinjiang.
The Göktürks, under the leadership of Bumin Khan (d. 552) and his sons, succeeded the Xiongnu as the main Turkic power in the region and took hold of the lucrative Silk Road trade during the sixth century.
Under their leadership, the Göktürks rapidly expanded to rule huge territories in north-western China, North Asia, and Eastern Europe (as far west as the Crimea). At their height, the Gokturks controlled a vast area stretching from Eastern Europe all the way across northern China.
They were the first Turkic tribe known to use the name “Turk” as a political name.
Their religion, Tengriism, a form of shamanism centered on a celestial deity, Tengrii, includes elements which resemble concepts of Confucian and Hindu thought.
From 552 to 745, Göktürk leadership bound the nomadic Turkic tribes together into an empire, which eventually collapsed due to a series of dynastic conflicts.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.livescience.com/archaeology/1500-year-old-gold-buckles-depicting-ruler-majestically-sitting-on-a-throne-discovered-in-kazakhstan
Consider the following statements regarding the Hog deer:
- It is found throughout India and Southeast Asia region.
- It is categorized as Scheduled I species under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In a significant discovery, the hog deer has been spotted for the first time at the Rajaji Tiger Reserve.
It is a solitary creature but sometimes spotted feeding as small groups in open fields when food there is plentiful.
For the most part it is sedentary and does not migrate.
Males tend to be territorial and mark their territory with glandular secretions.
This species exhibits sexual dimorphism. The females are slightly smaller than males and lack antlers.
Distribution
It has a native geographic range throughout India, including the Himalayan foothill zone and Southeast Asia, including Burma and Thailand.
Humans have introduced free-ranging populations of this deer in Sri Lanka, Australia and the United States, including Texas, Florida, and Hawaii.
Habitat:
It appears to prefer dense forests; however, they are often observed in clearings, grasslands and occasionally wet grasslands.
This variation is usually associated with time of year and food distribution.
Conservation status
IUCN: Endangered
Wildlife Protection Act 1972: Scheduled I
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/dehradun/in-a-first-hog-deer-spotted-inside-rajaji-tiger-reserve/articleshow/106588427.cms
Trichoderma, which was recently in news, is a:
bio-pesticide
Explanation :
The Indian Institute of Spices Research (IISR) Kozhikode have successfully developed a new granular lime-based Trichoderma formulation.
The formulation named ‘Tricholime’, integrates Trichoderma and lime into a single product, making the application easier for farmers.
Trichoderma is a fungal biocontrol agent, has proven effective in suppressing several soil-borne plant pathogens and serves as a successful bio-pesticide and bio-fertilizer in crop production.
Recognizing the importance of Trichoderma and the challenges posed by traditional lime applications, the scientists at IISR developed ‘Tricholime’ to integrate lime and Trichoderma.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/kozhikode/iisr-develops-new-granular-lime-based-trichoderma-bio-pesticide-fertiliser/article67706359.ece
With reference to Sponge, consider the following statements:
- It is a living animal which is made of loosely arranged cells.
- It provides home for many other animals, plants, and microorganisms in a mutual symbiotic relationship.
- Unlike seaweed, it possesses remarkable resilience to climate change.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Warming ocean forced women in Zanzibar to switch from seaweed to climate-resilient sponge farming to stay afloat.
Sponge farming is a relatively new business opportunity that does not harm the marine environment.
A sponge is a living animal which is made of loosely arranged cells that surround a skeleton of fibres.
The specialised cells nestled within thousands of tiny chambers, act as microscopic pumps, and tirelessly drawing water into the sponge’s body with their whip-like tails.
Sponges provide homes for many other animals, plants, and microorganisms. In many cases, they all work together in a mutual symbiotic relationship.
Sea sponges exist in all oceans around the world and make up 20% of the global silicon biological sink.
This unique pumping mechanism, which helps sponges extract nutrition and oxygen, also purifies the ocean water by removing impurities, including sewage.
Uniqueness: Sponges, unlike seaweed, possess remarkable resilience to climate change, require minimal maintenance, and command premium market prices,
Reproduction: Most sponges are hermaphrodites, harbouring both male and female reproductive organs, enabling them to self-propagate effortlessly.
New sponges emerge from small buds that detach from the parent sponge and begin independent growth.
Even damaged or fragmented sponges can regenerate into new individuals.
This remarkable regenerative ability underpins the ease and feasibility of commercial sponge farming.
Uses:
These sponges are used for bathing and general hygiene because they are naturally antibacterial and antifungal and can resist odours.
Research has also shown that the spongy creatures play an important role themselves in combating climate change.
Their skeletons break down into microscopic pieces of silicon, which helps control the carbon cycle in the ocean and reduces the greenhouse effect.
Dissolved silicon is critical for the growth of diatoms, tiny organisms which absorb large amounts of CO2 in the ocean using photosynthesis.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/africa/saved-by-sponge-93521
Consider the following statements regarding the Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX):
- It aims to cultivate an innovation ecosystem in the Defence and Aerospace sector in India.
- It is entirely funded and managed by the Ministry of Defence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Innovations for Defence Excellence- Defence Innovation Organization (iDEX-DIO) is all set to participate in the tenth edition of the Vibrant Gujarat Summit 2024 from 10 to 12 January 2024 at Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Defence, Govt of India launched in 2018.
The objective of the scheme is to cultivate an innovation ecosystem in the Defence and Aerospace sector by collaborating with startups, innovators, MSMEs, incubators, and academia.
iDEX offers grants and support for R&D with significant potential for future adoption in Indian defence and aerospace.
It is currently engaged with around 400+ Startups and MSMEs.
It is recognized as a game-changer in the defence ecosystem, iDEX has received the PM Award for Innovation in the defence sector.
Funding: It will be funded and managed by a ‘Defence Innovation Organization (DIO)’ which has been formed as a ‘not for profit’ company as per the Companies Act 2013 for this purpose, by the two founder members i.e. Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs) - HAL & BEL.
iDEX will function as the executive arm of DIO, carrying out all the required activities while DIO will provide high level policy guidance to iDEX.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1993941
Consider the following statements regarding the Kapdaganda Shawl:
- It is woven and embroidered by the tribal women in northeast India.
- It has received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Seven products from Odisha, ranging from the Similipal Kai chutney made with red weaver ants to the embroidered Kapdaganda shawl, have bagged the coveted Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
It is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin.
This is typically used for agricultural products, foodstuffs, wine and spirit drinks, handicrafts and industrial products.
The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 seeks to provide for the registration and better protection of geographical indications relating to goods in India.
This GI tag is valid for 10 years following which it can be renewed.
Kapdaganda Shawl
It is woven and embroidered by the women of the Dongria Kondh tribe, a particularly vulnerable tribal group (PVTG) in the Niyamgiri hills in Odisha’s Rayagada and Kalahandi districts.
The shawl reflects the rich tribal heritage of the Dongria Kondhs.
The shawl is worn by both men and women and the Dongrias gift it to their family members as a token of love and affection.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/odisha-gi-tag-products-significance-9098672/
With reference to Maldives, consider the following statements:
- It consists of a chain of small coral islands.
- Its islands are protected by barrier reefs from the destructive effects of monsoons.
- It has a presidential form of government.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only three
Explanation :
The Maldives government recently suspended three of its ministers after they shared offensive remarks against the Indian Prime Minister on social media.
About Maldives:
It is a low-lying island country in the north-central .
Its closest neighbours are India, about 600 kilometres north-east, and Sri Lanka, about 645 kilometres north-east.
Geography:
It consists of a chain of about 1,200 small coral islands and sandbanks (some 200 of which are inhabited), grouped in clusters, or atolls.
The atolls have sandy beaches, lagoons, and a luxuriant growth of coconut palms, together with breadfruit trees and tropical bushes.
The islands extend more than 510 miles (820 km) from north to south and 80 miles (130 km) from east to west.
None of the coral islands stand more than 1.8 metres (six feet) above sea level.
Barrier reefs protect the islands from the destructive effects of monsoons.
Capital: Male
Languages:
The official language is an Indo-European language called Dhivehi (or Maldivian).
Arabic, Hindi, and English are also spoken.
Islam is the state religion.
Economy: It revolves mainly around tourism.
Constitutional Framework: The constitution of the Maldives was adopted in 2008.
The head of state and government is the president, assisted by a vice president and a cabinet.
The president and vice president are directly elected by universal suffrage to a maximum of two five-year terms.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/india/video/maldives-suspends-3-ministers-over-derogatory-remark-against-pm-modi-2485454-2024-01-07
Consider the following statements regarding the National Centre for Seismology (NCS):
- It is the nodal agency for monitoring earthquake activity and conducting seismological research in India.
- It works as an attached office of the Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
An earthquake of magnitude 3.9 hit Jammu and Kashmir’s Kishtwar district recently, as reported by the National Centre for Seismology.
About National Centre for Seismology (NCS):
NCS is the nodal agency of the Government of India for monitoring of earthquake activity and conducts seismological research in the country.
It is an attached office of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MOES). .
The NCS monitors earthquake activity all across the country through its 24×7 round-the-clock monitoring center for better understanding of earthquake source processes and their effect on the cause of earthquake-safe society.
It consists of various divisions:
Earthquake Monitoring and Services
Earthquake Hazard and Risk Assessments
Geophysical Observation Systems
It operates and maintains the NSN, or the National Seismological Network. The NSN consists of 153 seismological observatories spread across the country.
NSN is capable of recording earthquakes and events of magnitude (M)≥2.5 in and around Delhi, M≥3.0 for the North East (NE) region, M≥3.5 in the peninsular and extra-peninsular areas, and M≥4.0 in border regions.
Whenever an earthquake occurs in the country, its information is immediately disseminated by NCS to a variety of user agencies, including disaster management authorities.
The NCS shares this information via earthquake bulletins within five minutes of an earthquake.
It is also involved in the monitoring of aftershock and swarm activity, if occurred, throughout the country.
Another important activity implemented by the NCS is microzonation. It is a site-specific study that provides a more realistic and reliable representation of ground motion characteristics.
It is useful in land use and urban planning, as well as in retrofitting of existing buildings.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/magnitude-3-9-earthquake-hits-kishtwar-in-jk/articleshow/106529430.cms?from=mdr
With reference to the World Heritage Committee, consider the following statements:
- It is a committee of the United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization.
- It has the final say on whether a property is inscribed on the World Heritage List.
- It consists of representatives from all the United Nations member states.
How many of the above statements are correct?
only two
Explanation :
In a historic milestone, India is set to take the reins as the chair of UNESCO’s World Heritage Committee for the very first time.
About World Heritage Committee:
It is a committee of the United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization.
The Committee is responsible for the implementation of the World Heritage Convention, defines the use of the World Heritage Fund, and allocates financial assistance upon requests from States Parties.
It has the final say on whether a property is inscribed on the World Heritage List.
It examines reports on the state of conservation of inscribed properties and asks States Parties to take action when properties are not being properly managed.
It also decides on the inscription or deletion of properties on the List of World Heritage in Danger.
Structure:
It consists of representatives from 21 of the States Parties to the Convention elected by their General Assembly.
A Committee member’s term of office is six years, but most state parties choose voluntarily to be members of the committee for only four years in order to give other states parties an opportunity to be on the committee.
Bureau of the World Heritage Committee:
The Bureau consists of seven states parties elected annually by the Committee: a Chairperson, five Vice-Chairpersons, and a Rapporteur.
The Bureau of the Committee coordinates the work of the Committee and fixes the dates, hours, and order of business of meetings.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://zeenews.india.com/india/in-a-first-india-to-chair-host-unesco-world-heritage-committee-2707621.html
Consider the following statements regarding the National Housing Bank (NHB):
- It is an All-India Financial Institution (AIFl) wholly owned by the Government of India.
- It regulates the Housing Finance Companies (HFCs) in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
In a regulatory filing, LIC recently said the board has cleared the proposal to invest in a new company, promoted by the NHB, for residential mortgage-backed securities.
About National Housing Bank (NHB):
NHB is an All-India Financial Institution (AIFl) established under the National Housing Bank Act, 1987.
It is wholly owned by the Government of India.
Objective: To operate as a principal agency to promote housing finance institutions both at local and regional levels and to provide financial and other support to such institutions.
The main functions of NHB include:
Supervision and grievance redressal regarding Housing Finance Companies (HFCs).
Ensures that HFCs meet regulatory capital requirements as required by BASEL norms, have a proper risk management framework in place, have good governance practices, etc.
Financing in the form of extending refinancing options to primary lenders and lending directly with respect to projects undertaken by public housing agencies.
Promotion and Development.
NHB supervises HFCs, while regulation of HFCs is with the RBI.
Head Office: New Delhi
The general superintendence, direction, and management of the affairs and business of NHB vest in its Board of Directors.
NHB RESIDEX: It is the country’s first official housing price index (HPI). It captures movements in the prices of residential real estate prices.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.zeebiz.com/companies/news-lic-to-pick-up-10-percent-stake-in-nhb-promoted-company-271330
Which one of the following best describes ‘Sky Dew’, that was in the news recently?
A high-altitude observation balloon
Explanation :
Israel recently deployed Sky Dew along the Lebanese border as tensions with Hezbollah escalated.
About Sky Dew:
Sky Dew is a massive balloon-like structure in the shape of a puffed aircraft.
The high-altitude observation balloon acts as a detection radar blip for small unmanned aircraft and cruise missiles.
It is one of the largest aerial threat warning systems in the world.
The technology has been jointly developed by Israel Defense and US company TCOM. The project was entirely funded by the U.S. Department of Defence.
The Israel Air Force was handed over the Sky Dew in 2022.
The system comprises a blimp capable of flying at high altitudes with radar and detection systems to scan a wide range in any direction.
The radar on the balloon is capable of observing at 250 km and tracking multiple targets, including low-altitude ones and those in valleys.
It can carry 7,000 pounds and has an operational altitude of 10,000 feet.
It offers a significant advantage in its ability to remain in surveillance for extended periods without needing fuel or crew replacement.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/middle-east/sky-dew-massive-radar-blimp-launched-by-israel-to-monitor-hezbollah-activities/articleshow/106633064.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding the Elasmobranch:
- These animals have a skeleton made of cartilage, rather than bone.
- These diverse species are found in the tropical and subtropical Indo-Pacific Ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The meat of sharks and rays (Elasmobranch), for long consumed by tribal and coastal people in India, has found favour among new demographic categories such as foreign tourists and Indian middle- and upper classes.
The term elasmobranch refers to the sharks, rays, and skates.
These animals have a skeleton made of cartilage, rather than bone.
The other subclass of cartilaginous fish, the Holocephali, consists of Chimaeras – ratfish (Genus Chimaera) and elephantfish (Genus Callorhynchus).
The main differences between these two subclasses are the structure of their gills and how they grow in the embryo.
Holocephali has four gill slits with a gill cover (an operculum), while Elasmobranchs have five to seven external gill slits with no gill cover.
Characteristics of Elasmobranchs
Its skeleton is made of cartilage rather than bone.
They have five to seven gill openings on each side.
Rigid dorsal fins (and spines if present)
Spiracles to aid in breathing
The upper jaw of elasmobranchs is not fused to their skull.
Elasmobranchs have several rows of teeth which are continually replaced.
They don’t have swim bladders, but instead their large livers are full of oil to provide buoyancy.
They reproduce sexually with internal fertilization and either bear live young or lay eggs.
Elasmobranch skin is made of tiny, hard, tooth-like placoid scales called denticles.
These are renowned for their highly tuned senses, which make them incredibly successful in their environment.
Their distribution ranges from near shore regions to the deep oceanic waters.
Some species are known to travel long distances, hence can be considered as highly migratory. Their stock can be found in more than one Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)
They are widely distributed in the Oceans but are most diverse in the tropical and subtropical Indo-Pacific Ocean.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/shark-ray-meat-consumption-no-longer-restricted-to-india-s-tribal-coastal-peoples-paper-93760
Camptothecin, which was seen recently in news, is a:
anti-cancer drug
Explanation :
Researchers at the Indian Institutes of Technology Madras and Mandi have metabolically engineered Nothapodytes nimmoniana plant cells to increase production of anti-cancer drug camptothecin (CPT).
Camptothecin (CPT) is an important anti-cancer drug lead molecule for high-value drugs like Topotecan and Irinotecan.
It is a potent topoisomerase I inhibitor extracted mainly from - Camptotheca acuminata (native to Eastern Asia) and Nothapodytes nimmoniana (native to India).
It is majorly produced in Southeast Asian region, with the plant being largely found only in China and India.
However, the conjunction of climate change and extensive deforestation undertaken for CPT extraction has pushed these plants into the endangered species category.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/iit-researchers-engineer-plant-cells-to-produce-drug-for-cancer/article67683237.ece
With reference to Sisal Plant, consider the following statements:
- It is Xerophytic leaf fibre producing plant.
- It is mainly grown in the northeastern states of India.
- It thrives best on dry, permeable, sandy-loam soils.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A research team at Stanford University has found the absorption capacity of a sisal-based material to be higher than those in commercial menstrual pads.
It is a xerophytic, monocarp, semi-perennial leaf fibre producing plant.
The leaves are thick, fleshy and often covered with waxy layer, typical characteristics of xerophytic plants.
Its leaves grow up to 2 m long. The lifespan of a sisal plant is about 7-10 years, during which it produces 200-250 usable leaves.
Each leaf has about a thousand fibres that can be used to make ropes, paper, and cloth.
It could be used to make a highly absorbed material as well.
Climatic condition
It is well adapted to arid environments as the species is xerophytic in nature.
Temperature and Rain: It can withstand a maximum temperature 40-45°C and grows well with evenly distributed rainfall of 60-125 cm.
Soil: It thrives best on dry, permeable, sandy-loam soils with good amount of liming materials (Ca and Mg) but can also grow on various other types of soils.
In India it is grown in light calcareous and gravelly soils with good drainage
It is well adapted mainly in Odisha, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, part of Bihar, western part of West Bengal and many southern states.
It is mainly propagated by vegetative means such as ‘bulbils’ and ‘suckers’.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/sisal-leaves-sanitary-napkins-sustainable-manu-prakash-explained/article67715759.ece
Chandubi Festival is celebrated in:
Assam
Explanation :
Recently, the Chandubi Festival was celebrated along the Chandubi Lake in the state of Assam.
It is organised every year for five days starting from the first day of the New Year along the Chandubi lake, which is situated in the state of Assam.
The main attractions of the Chandubi festival are the local folk culture, ethnic cuisine, local handloom and dresses, boating, etc.
The major aim of the Chandubi Festival is to promote eco-tourism in this biodiversity hotspot of Assam.
Preserving the waterbody, the water level of which has rapidly been lowering over the years, has been the motive for organising the festival every year.
The festival has been providing an opportunity to generate livelihood to different tribes – Rabhas, Garos, Gorkhas and tea tribes – living in the area by selling different food items and homemade beverages, and traditionally woven attires.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/photos/lifestyle/all-you-need-to-know-about-assams-chandubi-festival-101704285156164-1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Peregrine Lander:
- It was launched by the European Space Agency.
- It is designed to carry scientific instruments and other payloads to the Moon’s surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Peregrine Lunar Lander was launched aboard the United Launch Alliance’s Vulcan rocket to embark on its pioneering journey to explore the Moon.
It is designed to carry scientific instruments and other payloads to the Moon’s surface, specifically targeting the Sinus Viscositatis region.
This area, also known as the Bay of Stickiness, lies adjacent to the Gruitheisen Domes near the Oceanus Procellarum, or Ocean of Storms.
Aim: To locate water molecules on the moon, measure radiation and gases around the lander, and evaluate the lunar exosphere (the thin layer of gases on the moon’s surface).
The mission’s scientific goals are ambitious:
To analyze the lunar exosphere, assess the thermal properties and hydrogen content of the lunar regolith, study magnetic fields, examine the radiation environment, and test advanced solar arrays.
Peregrine Mission 1 will transport approximately ten payloads, with a total mass capacity of 90 kilograms.
The scientific payload features cutting-edge instruments such as the Laser Retro-Reflector Array (LRA), Linear Energy Transfer Spectrometer (LETS), Near-Infrared Volatile Spectrometer System (NIRVSS), PROSPECT Ion-Trap Mass Spectrometer (PITMS), and Neutron Spectrometer System (NSS).
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/nasa-peregrine-lander-launched-successfully-artemis-mission-ula-vulcan-rocket-2485658-2024-01-08
Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple (BRT) Tiger Reserve is located in:
Karnataka
Explanation :
The Karnataka Forest Department recently started collecting green tax, Rs 10 from two-wheelers and Rs 20 from four-wheelers, entering BR Hills through BRT Tiger Reserve.
About Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple (BRT) Tiger Reserve:
Location: It is located in the Chamarajanagar district of Karnataka State.
The tiger reserve derives its name from ‘BILIGIRI ‘, the white rocky cliff which has a temple of Lord ‘VISHNU’, locally known as ‘Rangaswamy’.
This unique bio-geographical entity, situated in the middle of the bridge between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats in South India, was constituted as a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1974.
BRT Wildlife Sanctuary was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2011.
The total area of the Tiger Reserve is 574.82 Km².
Vegetation: The forests of BRT Tiger Reserve are principally of dry deciduous type and are interspersed with moist deciduous, semi-evergreen, evergreen, and shola patches occurring at varying altitudes.
Flora: The major species include Anogeissus latifolia, Dalbergia paniculata, Grewia teliaefolia, Terminalia alata, Terminalia bellirica, Terminalia paniculata, etc.
Fauna: Animals including tiger, elephant, leopard, wild dog, bison, sambar, spotted deer, barking deer, four-horned antelope, sloth bear, wild boar, common langur, bonnet macaque, varieties of reptiles, birds, etc., are found in the Tiger Reserve.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/mysuru/br-hills-green-tax-karnataka-forest-department-collects-token-tax-from-vehicles/articleshow/106587842.cms
Consider the following statements regarding REC Limited:
- It is a Central Public Sector Undertaking under the Ministry of Power.
- It is involved in financing projects in the power sector value chain from generation to distribution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
REC Ltd. recently announced its ambitious plan to increase its financial sanctioning in the infrastructure space, including roads and highways, to ₹1 lakh crore in the current financial year.
About REC Limited:
REC Limited (formerly Rural Electrification Corporation Limited) is a Central Public Sector Undertaking under the Ministry of Power involved in financing projects in the complete power sector value chain from generation to distribution.
It is registered with the RBI as a Non-Banking Finance Company (NBFC), a Public Financial Institution (PFI) and an Infrastructure Financing Company (IFC).
History:
It was incorporated in 1969, in the backdrop of severe drought and famine in the country, to energize agricultural pump-sets for irrigation purposes, thereby reducing the dependency of agriculture on monsoons.
REC has evolved and expanded its financing mandate to cover the entire Power-Infrastructure sector, comprising Generation, Transmission, Distribution, Renewable Energy and new technologies like Electric Vehicles, Battery Storage, Green Hydrogen etc.
More recently REC has also diversified into the Non-Power Infrastructure sector comprising Roads & Expressways, Metro Rail, Airports, IT Communication, Social and Commercial Infrastructure (Educational Institution, Hospitals), Ports and Electro-Mechanical (E&M) works in respect of various other sectors like Steel, Refinery, etc.
Financing: REC provides long-term loans and other financing products to State, Centre, and Private Companies for creation of infrastructure assets in the country.
REC funds its business with market borrowings of various maturities, including bonds and term loans, apart from foreign borrowings.
RECPDCL (REC Power Development and Consultancy Limited), the wholly owned subsidiary of REC, provides a range of value-added consultancy services in the power sector.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://energy.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/power/rec-sets-1-lakh-crore-sanction-target-for-roads-and-highways-in-fy24/106652438
What is ‘Ugram’, seen in the news recently?
An indigenous assault rifle
Explanation :
The Defence Research and Development Organisation recently launched an indigenous assault rifle named ‘Ugram’.
About Ugram:
‘Ugram’ is a state-of-the-art indigenous assault rifle.
It has been developed by the Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE), a unit of DRDO, in collaboration with a private industry partner.
It was developed in less than 100 days.
It has been developed as per the General Staff Qualitative Requirements (GSQR) of the army into consideration.
Features:
The rifle will deploy rounds of 7.62 mm calibre, making it more ferocious than rifles that use 5.62 mm calibre rounds, like the INSAS rifle, which is popularly used by the armed forces in India, including paramilitary forces.
It has an effective range of 500 metres.
It weighs less than four kilograms.
The rifle has a 20-round magazine that fires robust and in full auto mode.
Key Facts about Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO):
It is the R&D wing of the Ministry of Defence, Govt. of India, with a vision to empower India with cutting-edge defence technologies and a mission to achieve self-reliance in critical defence technologies and systems.
It is India’s largest research organisation.
Formation: The organisation was formed in 1958 from the amalgamation of the then-existing Technical Development Establishment (TDEs) of the Indian Army and the Directorate of Technical Development & Production (DTDP) with the Defence Science Organisation (DSO).
Headquarters: New Delhi.
It has a network of laboratories engaged in developing defence technologies covering various fields, like aeronautics, armaments, electronics, land combat engineering, life sciences, materials, missiles, and naval systems.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.aninews.in/news/national/general-news/drdo-launches-indigenous-assault-rifle-ugram-for-armed-forces20240109173930/#google_vignette
Consider the following statements regarding Drishti 10 ‘Starliner’:
- It is an indigenously manufactured Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV).
- It is an all-weather military platform which has clearance to fly in both segregated and unsegregated airspace.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Chief of Naval Staff recently flagged off the first indigenously manufactured Drishti 10 ‘Starliner’ Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) for the Navy.
About Drishti 10 ‘Starliner’:
It is an indigenously manufactured Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV).
It was developed by Adani Defence and Aerospace.
It is an advanced intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) platform with 36 hours endurance and a 450 kg payload capacity.
It is an all-weather military platform which has clearance to fly in both segregated and unsegregated airspace.
It is designed to possess high endurance, combat-proven capabilities, and advanced features, providing a significant boost to India’s naval capabilities.
The UAV’s autonomous nature, coupled with its mission effectiveness and payload configuration options, makes it an invaluable asset for strategic operations.
One of the distinguishing features of the Drishti 10 ‘Starliner’ is its minimal maintenance requirements, making it cost-effective and operationally efficient.
This characteristic ensures increased operational readiness, reducing downtime, and maximizing deployment opportunities.
It is equipped with advanced communication systems, including satellite communication and Line-of-Sight (LOS) data links, ensuring reliable and secure data transmission.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/navy-to-get-first-india-made-starliner-drone-today-4833642
Prasadam, India’s first “Healthy and Hygienic Food Street”, was recently opened at:
Ujjain
Explanation :
Union Minister for Health & Family Welfare recently inaugurated the country’s first healthy & hygienic food street, ‘Prasadam’, at Neelkanth Van, Mahakal Lok, in Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh.
About Prasadam:
It is the country’s first “Healthy and Hygienic Food Street”.
It has been opened at Neelkanth Van, Mahakal Lok, in Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh.
It will connect people in every corner of the country with pure and safe local and traditional food.
Spread over 939 square metres with 19 shops, Prasadam offers convenient and culturally rich dining options for the 1-1.5 lakh devotees who visit the Mahakaleshwar Temple daily.
The food street is designed to provide various facilities, including a kids’ play area, drinking water facility, CCTV surveillance, parking, public conveniences, and seating spaces.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://health.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/industry/indias-first-healthy-hygienic-food-street-prasadam-inaugurated-in-ujjain/106630212
Consider the following statements regarding the Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas:
- It commemorates the return of Mahatma Gandhi from South Africa to India in 1915.
- It is an annual event celebrated every year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India extended greetings on the occasion of Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas.
It is also known as Non-Resident Indian (NRI) Day, is celebrated on January 9 to mark the contribution and achievements of the overseas Indian community to the development of India.
It is the flagship event of the Ministry of External Affairs.
The day also commemorates the return of Mahatma Gandhi, the greatest Pravasi, from South Africa to India in 1915, who led India’s freedom struggle and changed the lives of Indians forever.
It was first celebrated in 2003.
It was an annual event earlier, but in 2015, the government revised its format to celebrate PBD once every two years.
It has become a platform to connect the Indian diaspora with their roots and encourage their continued engagement with India’s progress.
It is held in different cities, to showcase the diversity and progress of different regions of India.
Till date, 17 conventions have been held. The last Pravasi Bharatiya Divas was celebrated in the Indore of Madhya Pradesh in 2023.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1994382
Consider the following statements regarding the International Classification of Diseaseas (ICD):
- It is developed by the World Health Organization (WHO).
- In India, the Central Bureau of Health Intelligence serves as the Collaboration Centre for ICD-related activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
World Health Organization’s International Classification of Diseaseas (ICD) 11 TM Module 2, Morbidity Codes launch event will be held in New Delhi on 10th January, 2024.
It is developed by the World Health Organization (WHO) to classify diseases internationally.
The global data on diseases currently available is mainly based on healthcare practices to be diagnosed through modern biomedicine.
It serves a broad range of uses globally and provides critical knowledge on the extent, causes and consequences of human disease and death worldwide via data that is reported and coded with the ICD.
Clinical terms coded with ICD are the main basis for health recording and statistics on disease in primary, secondary and tertiary care, as well as on cause of death certificates.
These data and statistics support payment systems, service planning, and administration of quality and safety, and health services research.
Diagnostic guidance linked to categories of ICD also standardizes data collection and enables large scale research.
The classification of data and terminology relating to diseases based on Ayush systems such as Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani etc. is not yet included in the WHO ICD series.
Central Bureau of Health Intelligence (CBHI) is an agency under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare that serves as the WHO Collaboration Centre for ICD-related activities.
It facilitates the collection and dissemination of data on various diseases and mortality.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1994614
With reference to Supreme Court Legal Services Committee, consider the following statements:
- It was constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
- A sitting Supreme Court judge is the chairman of this committee.
- Its chairman is nominated by the President of India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Supreme Court judge Justice BR Gavai has been nominated as the Chairman of the Supreme Court Legal Services Committee (SCLSC).
It was constituted under Section 3A of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
It was to provide “free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of society”, in cases falling under the top court’s jurisdiction.
Section 3A of the Act states that the Central Authority (the National Legal Services Authority or NALSA) shall constitute the committee.
Composition
It consists of a sitting SC judge, who is the chairman, along with other members possessing the experience and qualifications prescribed by the Centre.
Both the chairman and other members will be nominated by the Chief Justice of India (CJI). Further, the CJI can appoint the Secretary to the Committee.
The Committee, in turn, can appoint officers and other employees as prescribed by the Centre, in consultation with the CJI.
Rule 10 of the NALSA Rules, 1995, entails the numbers, experience, and qualifications of the SCLSC members.
Under Section 27 of the 1987 Act, the Centre is empowered to make rules in consultation with the CJI, by notification, to carry out the provisions of the Act.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/justice-gavai-sc-legal-services-committee-chairman-aid-india-nalsa-9095489/
INS Kabra, recently seen in the news, is a:
offshore patrol vessel
Explanation :
Indian warship, INS Kabra, an indigenous fast attack craft, docked at the Colombo port in a move aimed at fostering bilateral ties between India and Sri Lanka.
It is a naval vessel named after an island of the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago.
It belongs to the Car Nicobar class of high-speed offshore patrol vessels are built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE) for the Indian Navy.
It was eighth in a series of 10 Fast Attack Crafts.
The vessels are designed as a cost-effective platform for patrol, anti-piracy and rescue operations in India’s Exclusive Economic Zone.
The class and its vessels are named for Indian islands. They are the first water jet propelled vessels of the Indian Navy.
With a top speed of over 35 knots, and excellent manoeuvrability offered by her water-jet propulsion, the ship is ideally suited for high-speed interdiction of fast moving targets.
It is with the latest regulations of the International Maritime Organisation on sea complies pollution control.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/ins-kabra-docks-in-colombo-move-aimed-at-boosting-maritime-cooperation-124011000034_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Eucalyptus Snout Beetle:
- It is a pest indigenous to African continent.
- It results in stunted growth and deflation of plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Scientists have found a natural remedy to protect eucalyptus forest plantations from a pest, eucalyptus snout beetle, which is known to cause serious damage to eucalypts.
It is a leaf-feeding beetle that is a major defoliator of eucalypts.
It is also known as eucalyptus weevil.
The pest is indigenous to Australia but occurs in many countries throughout the world where eucalypts are grown.
The beetle feeds on leaves, buds and shoots, resulting in stunted growth and deflation and causing heavy losses.
It can cause damage over vast areas as it had a great flight capability and gets transferred with transport of forest products.
The pest is mainly controlled with the help of microwasps Anaphes spp — an expensive solution.
This led a team of scientists to look for naturally occurring pathogenic fungi to tackle the problem.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/world/scientists-characterise-a-natural-pathogenic-fungi-to-help-save-eucalyptus-forests-from-devastating-pest-93788
Consider the following statements regarding Spiral Galaxies:
- They contain a central bulge surrounded by a flat, rotating disk of stars.
- They are the least observed type of galaxies in the Universe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Hubble Space Telescope recently captured an image of the spiral galaxy, MCG-01-24-014, revealing the enigmatic beauty of what is known as ‘forbidden’ light.
About Spiral Galaxy:
Spiral galaxies are twisted collections of stars and gas that often have beautiful shapes and are made up of hot, young stars.
Most of the galaxies that scientists have discovered so far are spiral galaxies, as opposed to the other two main categories of galaxy shapes—elliptical and irregular.
Approximately 60% of all galaxies are thought to be spiral galaxies.
The Milky Way, the galaxy that includes Earth and our solar system, is an example of a spiral galaxy.
Structure:
Most spiral galaxies contain a central bulge surrounded by a flat, rotating disk of stars.
The bulge in the center is made up of older, dimmer stars and is thought to contain a supermassive black hole.
Approximately two-thirds of spiral galaxies also contain a bar structure through their center, as does the Milky Way.
The disk of stars orbiting the bulge separates into arms that circle the galaxy.
These spiral arms contain a wealth of gas and dust and younger stars that shine brightly before their quick demise.
Spiral galaxies are thought to evolve into elliptical galaxies as the spirals get older.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/hubble-telescope-captures-forbidden-light-coming-from-deep-space-2485892-2024-01-08
Consider the following statements regarding Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM):
- It is a tariff on carbon-intensive products proposed by the United Nations.
- It imposes a charge on the embedded carbon content of certain imports that is equal to the carbon price of domestic production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
India recently flagged concerns relating to sensitive and confidential trade data of its exporters getting compromised while complying with the European Union’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM).
About Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM):
What is it? It is a proposed European Union (EU) tariff on carbon-intensive products.
Purpose: To put a fair price on the carbon emitted during the production of carbon intensive goods that are entering the EU and to encourage cleaner industrial production in non-EU countries.
It was adopted on May 17, 2023, and the CBAM transitional period started October 1, 2023.
It is designed to counter the risk of carbon leakage and operates by imposing a charge on the embedded carbon content of certain imports that is equal to the carbon price of domestic production.
How does it Work?
If implemented as planned, EU importers will have to buy carbon certificates corresponding to the carbon price that would have been paid in the EU if the goods had been produced locally.
The price of the certificates would be calculated according to the auction prices in the EU carbon credit market.
The amount of certificates required would be defined yearly by the quantity of goods and the embedded emissions in those goods imported into the EU.
Companies in countries with a domestic carbon pricing regime equivalent to the EU’s will be able to export to the EU without buying CBAM certificates.
The CBAM will initially affect goods imported from non-EU countries that are particularly carbon-intensive, namely specified goods within the cement, electricity, fertilisers, aluminium, iron, steel, and hydrogen sectors, as well as some upstream and downstream products (mainly iron, steel, and aluminium).
Transition Period:
In the transitional phase of the implementation of the CBAM, from October 1, 2023, to December 31, 2025, affected companies are subject to a reporting obligation without financial obligations.
During this period, importers must determine and document direct and indirect emissions that occur in the course of the production process of the imported goods.
In addition, affected EU importers are obliged to prepare a quarterly CBAM report that provides information on the imported quantity of CBAM goods, the direct and indirect embedded emissions contained therein (reporting on indirect embedded emissions is initially only for cement, electric power, and fertiliser), as well as any carbon taxes effectively paid in the country of production.
With the start of certificate trading from January 1, 2026, importers are obliged to purchase sufficient emission allowances for imported embedded emissions during the year.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/eu-carbon-tax-india-flags-risk-of-trade-info-getting-compromised-9104194/
With reference to the Henley Passport Index 2024, consider the following statements:
- It is based on exclusive data from the International Air Transport Association (IATA).
- Indian citizens are allowed visa-free travel to more than 100 countries.
- Afghanistan occupies the bottom spot on the list.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
only two
Explanation :
The average number of visa-free destinations nearly doubling since 2006, according to 2024 Henley Passport Index.
About Henley Passport Index:
It is the original, authoritative ranking of all the world’s passports according to the number of destinations their holders can access without a prior visa.
It started in 2006 as the Henley & Partners Visa Restrictions Index (HVRI).
The index is based on exclusive data from the International Air Transport Association (IATA), the largest, most accurate travel information database, and enhanced by Henley & Partners’ research team. (Henley & Partners is a London-based advisory firm).
The index includes 199 different passports and 227 different travel destinations.
The number of countries that a specific passport can access becomes its visa-free ‘score’.
Highlights of Henley Passport Index 2024:
France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Singapore, and Spain hold the top spot as the world’s most powerful passports, allowing visa-free entry to 194 global destinations.
The top 10 is largely dominated by European countries.
The average number of destinations travellers are able to access visa-free has nearly doubled, from 58 in 2006 to 111 in 2024.
India’s passport ranked 80th in the list, with citizens allowed to travel to 62 countries without a visa.
Afghanistan occupies the bottom spot on the list, with access to just 28 countries without a visa.
Syria, with visa-free access to only 29 destinations, holds the second-lowest position, followed by Iraq with 31 and Pakistan with 34.
The United Arab Emirates was the fastest climber over the past decade, jumping to 11th place and offering access to 183 destinations without a visa.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/6-countries-share-top-spot-for-most-powerful-passports-check-indias-rank-101704943453231.html
Which one of the following best describes ‘Sidersaura marae’?
A newly discovered species of dinosaur
Explanation :
Paleontologists in Argentina recently found fossil fragments of a new species of dinosaur named Sidersaura marae.
About Sidersaura marae:
It is a new species of sauropod dinosaur.
It lived during the Cenomanian age of the Late Cretaceous epoch, between 96 and 93 million years ago, in today’s Patagonian region.
It belongs to the Rebbachisauridae, a large family of sauropod dinosaurs known from fragmentary fossil remains from South America, Africa, North America, Europe, and Asia.
These dinosaurs are distinguished from other sauropods by their distinctive teeth. Some species had tooth batteries similar to those of hadrosaurs and ceratopsian dinosaurs.
Rebbachisaurids were very important dinosaurs in Cretaceous ecosystems and disappeared in the middle of this period in an extinction event that took place 90 million years ago.
It is one of the last rebbachisaurids.
Features of Sidersaura marae:
It was up to 20 m in length, had an estimated mass of 15 tons, and had a very long tail.
One of the characteristics that distinguishes Sidersaura marae from other dinosaurs is the star-shaped shape of the hemal arches (tail bones).
Its skull bones are robust, unlike those of the rest of its closest relatives.
Another cranial feature that differentiates Sidersaura marae from other rebbachisaurids is its frontoparietal foramen, which is basically a hole in the roof of the skull.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.sci.news/paleontology/sidersaura-marae-12594.html
Einstein Probe (EP), a new astronomical satellite, was recently launched by:
China
Explanation :
China recently sent a new astronomical satellite called the Einstein Probe into space to observe mysterious transient phenomena in the universe that flicker like fireworks.
About Einstein Probe (EP):
The EP is a mission of the Chinese Academy of Sciences (CAS) dedicated to time-domain high-energy astrophysics.
The primary scientific goal of the EP is to explore the transient and variable X-ray sky, capturing powerful bursts of high-energy light emanating from objects such as merging neutron stars and black holes.
It was successfully launched on January 9, 2024, from the Xichang Satellite Launch Center in China with a “Long March-2C” rocket.
It is equipped with state-of-the-art X-ray mirrors and detectors.
Unlike conventional X-ray telescopes, Einstein Probe’s unique design allows it to monitor almost a tenth of the sky simultaneously, discovering new sources as they light up in X-rays and enabling in-depth studies of known and new celestial phenomena over extended periods.
It will also detect light from gamma-ray bursts, supernovae, flares from other stars,and events within the Solar System, such as emissions from comets.
The satellite has a weight of ～1450 kg and an average power of ～1212 W in total.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.deccanherald.com/science/space/china-launches-new-satellite-einstein-probe-shaped-like-a-lotus-to-observe-violent-cosmic-phenomena-2841452
Consider the following statements regarding the Rock glacier:
- It is a mass of rock, ice, snow and water that moves slowly down a mountain.
- It is formed when the glacier recedes or thaws.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A new study revealed that over 100 active permafrost structures identified in Jhelum basin, can cause catastrophic disasters in future.
A rock glacier is a mass of rock, ice, snow, mud, and water that moves slowly down a mountain under the influence of gravity.
Unlike an ice glacier, rock glaciers usually have very little ice visible at the surface.
The rock glacier might consist of a mass of ice covered by rock debris, or it might consist of a mass of rock with interstitial ice.
Formation:
Rock glaciers typically form in mountainous regions where there is a combination of permafrost, rock debris, and ice.
One common scenario involves a pre-existing glacier that accumulates debris and rocks as it moves.
Over time, if the glacier recedes or thaws, the debris-covered ice can transform into a rock glacier.
These are classified as ‘active’ or ‘relict’ to indicate the status of permafrost within them, identified by the appearance of the rock surfaces.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-change/over-100-active-permafrost-structures-identified-in-jhelum-basin-can-cause-catastrophic-disasters-in-future-study-93796
Consider the following statements regarding the Momentum investing:
- It is a style of investing where investors buy assets with rising prices.
- Momentum investors generally do not conduct a deep analysis of the intrinsic value of the asset.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Many academic studies have shown that momentum investing can generate high returns that comfortably beat the benchmark indices.
It refers to a style of investing wherein investors purchase assets such as stocks or bonds that are consistently rising in price while selling assets whose prices are falling.
Momentum investors buy assets with rising prices in the hope that the upward price momentum of these assets would continue, thus allowing them to sell these assets at higher prices in the future to make profits.
It is based on the philosophy that there can be discernible trends in asset prices and that these trends tend to persist over time.
The persistence of such trends gives investors an opportunity to recognise and participate in them early enough to make significant profits from their investments.
Similarly, they sell assets that are falling in price expecting the fall in prices to continue for some time.
Momentum investors generally do not conduct a deep analysis of the fundamental or intrinsic value of the assets in which they invest their money.
They invest purely based on whether the price of an asset is showing a strong trend, either upward or downward, that they can ride on.
The “buy high, sell higher” philosophy of momentum investing is in stark contrast to the traditional “buy low, sell high” advice given to investors.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/specials/text-and-context/the-logic-behind-momentum-investing/article67724617.ece
With reference to Yakshagana, consider the following statements:
- It is a traditional folk dance from Andhra Pradesh.
- Its themes include Hindu epics of Ramayana or Mahabharata.
- Its main storyteller is known as Bhagawatha.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A century-old Yakshagana mela in Dakshina Kannada will resume its all-night performances following approval from the Karnataka High Court.
It is a famous Yakshagaana troupe started in the mid-19th century.
The Yakshagaana troupe, Kateel Sri Durgaparameshwari Yakshagaana Dashavatara Mandali, popularly known as Kateel Mela is an important ‘Harake Seva’ (hosting the Yakshagana show for God fulfilling a wish) troupe.
It performs on request by devotees who have taken a vow (Harake) to arrange a show of Yakshagaana for fulfillment of a desire or as a service.
Key facts about Yakshagana
It is a traditional folk dance form popular in Coastal Karnataka.
It is a rare combination of dance, music, song, scholarly dialogues and colourful costumes.
Traditionally, men portray all roles, including the female ones, though women are now part of Yakshagana troupes.
A typical troupe consists of 15 to 20 actors and a Bhagawatha, who is the master of ceremonies and the main storyteller.
Elements of Yakshagana
The Act: Each performance typically focuses on a small sub-story (known as ‘Prasanga’) from ancient Hindu epics of Ramayana or Mahabharata.
The show consists of both stage performances by talented artists and commentary (performed by the lead singer or Bhagawatha) accompanied by traditional music.
The Music: Musical instruments used in Yakshagana include Chande (drums), Harmonium, Maddale, Taala (mini metal clappers) and flute among others.
The Dress: Costumes used in Yakshagana are very unique and elaborate. Large size headgear, coloured faces, elaborate costumes all over the body and musical beads on the legs (Gejje).
Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Mangalore/kateel-yakshagana-mela-to-revert-to-all-night-shows-from-january-14/article67723137.ece
The ‘Exercise Sea Dragon’ is a:
maritime exercise
Explanation :
Indian Navy’s P8I aircraft landed at Guam, a US island territory in Western Pacific, to participate in Exercise Sea Dragon – 24.
It is an elite multinational maritime exercise that encourages professional exchanges and teamwork among participating navies.
Participating countries: India, Japan, South Korea, Australia, and the US.
The exercise seeks to improve skills in a variety of maritime combat domains through a number of aerial and ground-based tasks, including:
Anti-submarine warfare (ASW): Locating and neutralising enemy submarines hiding beneath the seas.
Surface warfare: Coordinated attacks on hostile surface vessels using superior weaponry and tactics.
Air defence: Putting up an impenetrable air barrier to keep friendly forces safe from aerial threats.
Search and rescue (SAR): Tracking down and saving maritime personnel in need.
Communication and coordination: Synchronising activities across several platforms and exchanging information in a seamless manner.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://newsonair.gov.in/Main-News-Details.aspx?id=474838
Consider the following statements regarding the Report Fish Disease app:
- It is developed by the National Informatics Centre, Pune.
- It has a Geo-tagging technology to empower fish farmers with a platform to report diseases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The National Surveillance Programme for Aquatic Animal Diseases (NSPAAD) project has introduced a mobile app ‘Report Fish Disease’ to track and monitor fish diseases across the country.
The mobile application intends to empower fish farmers with a convenient and efficient platform to report diseases on their farms.
Central Institute of Fisheries Technology (CIFT) is one of the collaborative partners of the NSPAAD project of which ICAR-NBFGR is the lead institute, under which this app is developed.
Features
Its intuitive and user-friendly interface enables easy accessibility to fish farmers.
The app offers easy disease reporting format, where farmers can easily report disease outbreaks by providing essential information such as location, species affected, symptoms observed, and images.
Significance
Geo-tagging technology facilitates swift response from authorities and the receivers get real-time updates on the status of their reported cases, ensuring transparency and accountability in the disease management process.
The app also serves as an information hub, providing farmers with valuable resources on disease prevention, treatment, and best aquaculture practices.
It is to provide a comprehensive package to ensure diagnosis, prevention, control, and treatment of aquatic animal diseases, thereby providing solutions for encouraging the aquaculture farmers.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/report-fish-disease-mobile-app-to-monitor-fish-diseases-launched/article67722762.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme (ABSS):
- It is launched by the NITI Aayog.
- It aims for better traffic circulation, inter-modal integration in Indian Railways.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Udupi station under the Konkan Railway Corporation Ltd. (KRCL) network was recently included in the Railway Ministry’s Amrit Bharat Station Scheme (ABSS) for redevelopment.
About Amrit Bharat Station Scheme (ABSS):
It is an ongoing Indian Railways mission launched in February 2023 by the Ministry of Railways to redevelop 1,309 stations nationwide.
The scheme aims to transform railway stations into modern, well-equipped hubs with improved passenger amenities, better traffic circulation, inter-modal integration, and enhanced signage.
It is based on Master Planning for the long term and the implementation of the elements of the Master Plan as per the needs and patronage of the station.
The scheme shall cater for the introduction of new amenities as well as the upgradation and replacement of existing amenities.
The ultimate goal is to transform these stations into vibrant city centres over the long term.
Key Features:
Modern passenger amenities: This includes providing clean and hygienic waiting areas, restrooms, Special amenities for the disabled, and food and beverage outlets.
Improved traffic circulation: This includes creating separate entry and exit points for passengers and vehicles, widening roads and footpaths, and providing adequate parking facilities.
Inter-modal integration: This includes providing seamless connectivity between railway stations and other modes of transport, such as buses, taxis, and auto-rickshaws.
Upgraded signage: This includes providing clear and visible signage in multiple languages to guide passengers.
Sustainability: This includes using energy-efficient lighting and appliances.
Eco-friendliness:
Rainwater harvesting systems and green spaces
Ballastless tracks, which reduce noise and vibration
Roof plazas, where available, provide additional space for commercial activities and passenger amenities.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Mangalore/railway-ministry-includes-udupi-station-under-amrit-bharat-station-scheme-for-redevelopment/article67730492.ece
With reference to the Congo River, consider the following statements:
- It is the second-longest river in Africa, after the Nile.
- It drains into the Indian Ocean.
- The Congo River basin makes up the world’s second-largest rainforest.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
only two
Explanation :
The Congo River has risen to its highest level in more than 60 years, causing flooding throughout the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) and the Congo Republic that has killed more than 300 people recently.
About Congo River:
It is a River in west-central Africa.
It is also called the Zaire River.
With a length of 2,900 miles (4,700 km), it is the continent’s second-longest river, after the Nile, and the ninth-longest in the world.
The river gets its name from the ancient Kongo Kingdom, which existed near the mouth of the river.
The Congo River system runs through the Republic of the Congo, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, the Central African Republic, western Zambia, northern Angola, and parts of Cameroon and Tanzania.
Course:
It rises in the highlands of northeastern Zambia between Lakes Tanganyika and Nyasa (Malawi) as the Chambeshi River at an elevation of 5,760 feet (1,760 metres).
Its course then takes the form of a giant counterclockwise arc, flowing to the northwest, west, and southwest before draining into the Atlantic Ocean at Banana (Banane) in the Democratic Republic of the Congo.
Its course through the rainforest causes it to cross the equator twice.
It is the deepest river in the world. It reaches depths of over 750 feet (230 meters).
The river also has the second-largest flow in the world, with a discharge of 1.5 million cubic feet of water per second, trailing only the Amazon, and the second-largest watershed of any river.
It drains an area of 3.7 million square kilometers (1.4 million square miles) known as the Congo Basin.
Much of the basin is covered by rich tropical rainforests and swamps. Together these ecosystems make up the bulk of Central Africa’s rainforest, which, at 178 million hectares (2005), is the world’s second-largest rainforest, second only to the Amazon Rainforest in South America.
The main tributaries are the Ubangi, Sangha, and Kasai.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.reuters.com/world/africa/hundreds-dead-congo-river-basin-submerged-by-generational-floods-2024-01-11/
Consider the following statements regarding Aligarh Muslim University (AMU):
- It is a private institution with all seats reserved for minorities.
- It was originally established by social reformer Sir Syed Ahmad Khan as the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College in 1875.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently said that over the last hundred years, Aligarh Muslim University (AMU) has continued to be an institute of national importance, without the minority tag, and asked how it matters for the people whether it is a minority institution or not.
About Aligarh Muslim University (AMU):
It is a government-run education institution situated in Aligarh, Uttar Pradesh.
History:
It was originally established by social reformer Sir Syed Ahmad Khan as the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College in 1875.
In the aftermath of the 1857 Indian War of Independence, the College was built on Khan’s conviction that it was important for Muslims to gain education and become involved in public life and government services in India.
Raja Jai Kishan helped Sir Syed establish the college.
Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College became AMU in 1920, following the Aligarh Muslim University Act.
From its very inception, it has kept its door open to members of all communities and from all corners of the country and the world. The university is open to all irrespective of caste, creed, religion, or gender.
AMU is recognised by the University Grant Commission (UGC) and the Association of Indian Universities (AIU).
AMU offers more than 300 courses in the traditional and modern branches of education.
It has three off-campus centres: AMU Malappuram Campus (Kerala), AMU Murshidabad Centre (West Bengal), and Kishanganj Centre (Bihar).
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.deccanherald.com/india/uttar-pradesh/how-does-it-matters-whether-aligarh-muslim-university-is-a-minority-institution-or-not-sc-asks-2845234
Consider the following statements regarding Article 30 of the Constitution of India:
- It provides for the rights of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
- It applies only to religious minorities in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently attempted to strike a balance by remarking that the intent of Article 30 of the Constitution was not to ghettoise minorities by insisting they had the upper hand in administration of the institution.
About Article 30:
It is one of the many provisions that ensure the preservation of minority rights.
Article 30 of the Indian Constitution states the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
It says: “All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.”
It was adopted on December 8, 1948.
Features:
It consists of provisions that safeguard various rights of the minority community in the country, keeping in mind the principle of equality as well.
Article 30(1) says that all minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
The right is provided by this clause on two types of minorities, namely, religious and linguistic minorities.
Article 30(1A) deals with the fixation of the amount for the acquisition of property of any educational institution established by minority groups.
Article 30(2) states that the government should not discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a minority, whether based on religion or language, while giving aid.
Concept of Minorities:
The Constitution of India uses the word minority but does not define it.
Article 29 of the Indian Constitution uses the word ‘minorities’ in its marginal heading, but it speaks about “any section of the citizens inhabiting the territory of India or any part of the country should have the right to protect their language or script or culture, which is different and varied.
It also says that citizens should be allowed to take admission in any educational institution which is maintained by the State or getting help from State funds whether they vary in religion, race, caste, language, or any of them.
Article 30 of the Constitution of India talks only about religious and linguistic minorities.
Religious Minority: The basic ground for a community to be nominated as a religious minority is the numerical strength of the community.
Section 2, clause (c) of the National Commission of Minorities Act, declares six communities as minority communities. They are:
Muslims
Christians
Buddhists
Sikhs
Jains and
Zoroastrians (Parsis)
Linguistic Minorities:
Class or group of people whose mother language or mother tongue is different from that of the majority groups is known as the linguistic minorities.
Article 350-A of the Indian Constitution imposes an obligation on the states to try to provide enough facilities for instruction in the mother language at the primary level of education to children belonging to the linguistic minority community.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/sc-article-30-on-minority-institutes-not-intended-to-ghettoise-communities/articleshow/106740524.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding Zero Effect, Zero Defect Scheme (ZED):
- It offers certification for environmentally conscious manufacturing.
- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Zero Effect, Zero Defect scheme (ZED) by the MSME Ministry has achieved the 1 lakh certification milestone, the ministry said recently.
About Zero Effect, Zero Defect Scheme (ZED):
Launched in October 2016 and revamped in April 2022, the ZED scheme offers certification for environmentally conscious manufacturing under three certification levels (gold, silver, and bronze) classified according to 20 performance-based parameters such as quality management, timely delivery, process control, waste management, etc.
The major objectives of the ZED Scheme are:
To create proper awareness in MSMEs about ZED manufacturing and motivate them for the assessment of their enterprise for a ZED rating.
To drive manufacturing with the adoption of Zero Defect production processes without impacting the environment (Zero Effect).
To encourage MSMEs to constantly upgrade their quality standards in products and processes.
To support the “Make in India” campaign.
The scheme provides financial assistance of up to 75 percent of the total cost of certification, with a maximum subsidy ceiling of Rs 50,000, along with up to Rs 2 lakh in support for handholding/consultancy to achieve the next certification level.
For technology upgradation, the scheme offers assistance of up to Rs 3 lakhs for moving towards zero effect solutions/pollution control measures/cleaner technology.
MSMEs are charged Rs 10,000 for bronze certification, Rs 40,000 for silver certification, and Rs 90,000 for gold certification.
In December 2023, the MSME Ministry made the ZED scheme free for women-led MSMEs.
In addition, the government will now make guarantee payment of 100 percent financial support for the certification costs under the scheme.
The ZED certification is valid for three years, and the MSME units are required to re-apply for the certificate as per the validity of the scheme.
Currently, the scheme is applicable for manufacturing MSMEs only.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.financialexpress.com/business/sme/govts-zed-scheme-for-msmes-hits-1-lakh-certification-milestone-check-schemes-details/3361926/
Consider the following statements regarding the VIPER Rover:
- It is NASA’s first mobile robotic mission to the Moon.
- It will analyze ice on the surface of the Moon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
NASA has invited people to send their names to the surface of the Moon aboard the agency’s first robotic lunar rover VIPER – short for Volatiles Investigating Polar Exploration Rover.
The Volatiles Investigating Polar Exploration Rover, or VIPER will get a close-up view of the location and concentration of ice and other resources at the Moon’s South Pole.
It is NASA’s first mobile robotic mission to the Moon.
It will directly analyze ice on the surface and subsurface of the Moon at varying depths and temperature conditions within four main soil environments.
The data VIPER transmits back to Earth will be used to create resource maps, helping scientists determine the location and concentration of ice on the Moon and the forms it’s in, such as ice crystals or molecules chemically bound to other materials.
It navigates across the rugged terrain of the lunar South Pole and gathers valuable data that will help us better understand the history of the Moon and the environment where NASA is planning to send Artemis astronauts.
Mission duration: 100 Earth days, covering 3 cycles of lunar day and night.
It will land at the South Pole of the Moon in late 2024.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/fly-your-name-to-the-moon-aboard-nasas-first-robotic-lunar-rover-9105574/
Consider the following statements regarding the Cannabinoids:
- These are class of compounds found in the cannabis plant.
- These are capable of producing a variety of neurological effects in animals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Scientists at CSIR-Indian Institute of Integrative Medicine (IIIM), Jammu, have found that tetrahydrocannabidiol (THCBD) which is phytocannabinoids, a class of compounds found in the cannabis plant, possess some hitherto unexplored antibiotic properties.
Cannabinoids are a class of compounds found in the cannabis plant.
The prefix ‘phyto’ in phytocannabinoid means it comes from a plant.
Cannabinoids bind to receptors in the bodies of animals to produce a variety of neurological effects.
The researchers extracted cannabidiol from a cannabis plant and made it react with hydrogen, using palladium as a catalyst.
This process yielded a mixture of molecules with the same composition and order of atoms but different structures. One of them was THCBD.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/csir-iiim-jammu-tetrahydrocannabidiol-antibiotic-effects-explained/article67729896.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Thylakoid membrane:
- It is a little pouch located in the chloroplasts of plants.
- It is not found in cyanobacteria.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers at the University of Liège, Belgium have identified thylakoid microstructures in fossil cells that are 1.75 billion years old.
Thylakoids are little pouches located in the chloroplasts of plants.
They store chlorophyll, the substance in plant that reacts to sunlight and triggers photosynthesis.
These membranes are dense, mostly galactolipid, protein-containing bilayers in which photosynthesis occurs in photosynthetic organisms.
They are found in ancient, light-sensitive bacteria called cyanobacteria.
The cyanobacteria multiplied in the oceans billions of years ago, and are believed to be responsible for the vast stores of oxygen that are found in the atmosphere and thus, a precursor to life.
It is now believed that thylakoid membranes in cyanobacteria were what made them capable of using sunlight to create energy and release oxygen.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/newsletter/newsletter-science/what-are-thylakoid-membranes/article67726287.ece
Consider the following statements regarding National Sports Awards:
- Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is given for outstanding performances in sports spanning over a period of four years.
- Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy is given to an individual for top performance in inter-university tournaments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the President of India presented the National Sports and Adventure Awards 2023 at a function in Rashtrapati Bhavan.
National Sports Awards are given every year to recognize and reward excellence in sports.
Categories of National Sports Award
Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award: It is considered India’s highest sporting honour, the Khel Ratna was established in 1991-92.
The award is named after the Indian hockey legend, Major Dhyan Chand
The award is given for outstanding performances in sports spanning over a period of four years and the Khel Ratna winners receive a medallion, certificate and a cash prize.
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy (MAKA): It was instituted in 1956–1957. It is given to an institution or university for top performance in inter-university tournaments over the last one year.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://newsonair.gov.in/News?title=President-Droupadi-Murmu-to-present-National-Sports-Awards-at-Rashtrapati-Bhavan&id=474808
Consider the following statements regarding Baleen whale:
- Theses possess unique epidermal modifications of the mouth to filter food from water.
- These are known as ecosystem engineers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Roughly 19 million years old fossil jaw bone of a baleen whale estimated to be around nine metres in length found recently.
These are any cetacean possessing unique epidermal modifications of the mouth called baleen, which is used to filter food from water.
Most mammals have teeth in their mouth. Baleen whales are a strange exception.
Baleen is a large rack of fine, hair-like keratin used to filter out small krill from the water.
This structure enabled baleen whales to feed efficiently on enormous shoals of tiny zooplankton in productive parts of the ocean, which facilitated the evolution of larger and larger body sizes.
There are 14 species of baleen whale including the blue, bowhead, right, humpback, minke and gray whale.
Baleen whales are generally larger than toothed whales except for the sperm whale which is very big and has teeth.
Many baleen whales migrate annually, travelling long distances between cold water feeding areas and warm water breeding areas.
The large whale fossils from Australasia and South America seem to suggest that for most of the evolutionary history of baleen whales, whenever a large baleen whale shows up in the fossil record, it is in the Southern Hemisphere.
Baleen whales are ecosystem engineers, their huge bodies consuming tremendous amounts of energy.
Upon death, these whales provide an abundance of nutrients to deep-sea ecosystems.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/19-million-year-old-fossil-jaw-bone-hints-the-biggest-whales-first-evolved-somewhere-unexpected/article67709575.ece
The AN-32 Aircraft is a:
Soviet-origin military transport aircraft
Explanation :
The Indian Air Force (IAF) recently located the wreckage of an An-32 aircraft that went missing nearly seven-and-a-half years ago.
About AN-32 Aircraft:
The AN-32 (Antonov AN-32) is a Soviet-origin military transport aircraft.
It is designed and manufactured by the Antonov Design Bureau of Ukraine for the Indian Air Force (IAF).
It was purchased by India from the erstwhile Soviet Union in 1984. The IAF has a fleet of around 100 AN-32 planes.
Its NATO reporting name is Cline.
Features:
The aircraft is designed to manoeuvre day and night in tropical and mountainous regions, even in hot climatic conditions (up to 55°C).
It is powered by two single-shaft turboprop engines.
An-32 can fly at a maximum speed of 530km/h, and its cruise speed is 470km/h.
The range and service ceiling of the aircraft are 2,500km and 9,500m, respectively.
The aircraft weighs around 16,800kg, and its maximum take-off weight is 27,000kg.
It can takeoff and land on rough airfields and dirt runways.
The aircraft can transport either 7.5tons of cargo, 50 passengers, 42 paratroopers, or 24 patients and three medical crews over domestic and international air routes.
It also has a limited bombing role and is used for para-trooping operations.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/wreckage-of-iafs-an-32-aircraft-traced-seven-and-a-half-years-after-it-went-missing/articleshow/106768753.cms?from=mdr
What is ‘HD 63433d’, that was in the news recently?
An Earth-like exoplanet
Explanation :
Astronomers recently unveiled the discovery of an Earth-like planet, younger and closer than any previously identified, named HD 63433d.
About HD 63433d:
It is an Earth-like exoplanet that orbits a sun-like star called HD 63433 (also known as TOI 1726).
The star is about 73 light years away from the sun and is part of the group of stars moving together that make up the constellation Ursa Major.
The star HD 63433 shares similarities with our sun in size and type but is significantly younger, at roughly 400 million years old.
It is the smallest confirmed exoplanet, younger than 500 million years old.
It’s also the closest Earth-sized planet discovered so far, and it’s about 400 million years old.
For comparison, Earth and the rest of our solar system are around 4.5 billion years old, meaning HD 63433 d appears to be just around 10% of the age of our planet.
It’s the third planet found in orbit around its star. This planet is eight times closer to its star than Mercury is to the Sun.
Because of its proximity to its star, which has 99% the mass of our sun, the planet is tidally locked, just like the moon is to Earth.
This means that one side of the planet, its dayside, constantly faces the star and is permanently blasted with stellar radiation, while the cooler nightside perpetually faces out into space.
This pushes surface temperatures on the planet’s dayside up around 2,300 degrees Fahrenheit (1,260 degrees Celsius).
Its orbit is remarkably short, completing a full revolution around its star every 4.2 days.
Being so hot, so close to its star, and so small, this planet likely lacks a substantial atmosphere.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.earth.com/news/new-earth-like-planet-discovered-in-big-dipper-constellation/
Consider the following statements regarding Krishna Raja Sagara (KRS) Dam:
- It is a gravity dam located in Karnataka.
- It is built on the Krishna River.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The High Court of Karnataka recently banned all types of mining and quarrying activities within a 20-km radius of the historic Krishnarajasagar (KRS) dam in Mandya district.
About Krishna Raja Sagara (KRS) Dam:
It is a type of gravity dam located below the confluence of the river Kaveri with its tributaries, Hemavati and Lakshmana Tirtha, in the district of Mandya in Karnataka.
History:
The dam was constructed during the rule of the Maharaja of Mysore, Krishnaraja Wadiyar IV, and it was named in his honor.
The construction of the KRS Dam began in 1911 and was completed in 1931.
The dam was designed by Sir M. Visvesvaraya, a famous Indian engineer (often referred to as the ‘architect of modern Mysore’ or ‘father of planning in India’).
The creative beautification of the whole dam complex has been the achievement of Sir Mirza Ismail, the then Dewan of the princely State of Mysore.
Usage:
The water from the dam is used for irrigation in Mysore and Mandya and is the main source of drinking water for Mysore, Mandya, and Bengaluru city.
It also ensures power supply to the Shivanasamudra hydroelectric power station.
The water released from this dam flows into the state of Tamil Nadu and is stored in the Mettur dam in the Salem district.
Features:
It was built using a mixture of surki mortar and limestone.
It is 2,621 meters (8,600 feet) long and 40 meters (130 feet) high.
Its reservoir is about 130 sq. km, which was the largest in Asia at the period when it was built.
It was the first dam to install automated crest gates.
Brindavan Gardens, an ornamental garden, is attached to the dam.
The garden is designed based on the Shalimar Gardens of Kashmir in the Mughal style.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/karnataka-high-court-bans-all-mining-activity-within-20-km-radius-of-krs-dam-near-mysuru/article67718557.ece
Who sets the Bharat stage (BS) emission standards and their implementation timeline in India?
Central pollution control board
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently directed the Union government to frame a national policy to phase out heavy-duty diesel vehicles like trucks and trailers, and replace them with BS-VI vehicles.
About BS-VI Norms:
Bharat stage (BS) emission standards are laid down by the government to regulate the output of air pollutants from internal combustion engine and spark-ignition engine equipment, including motor vehicles.
India has adopted BS Emission Standards since 2000, modelled on European Union norms.
The first emission norms with the name ‘India 2000’ were introduced in the year 2000. BS2 and BS3 were introduced in 2005 and 2010, while BS4 norms came into effect in 2017 with stricter emission standards or norms.
The BS standards regulate tailpipe emissions of air pollutants, including particulate matter, SOx, and NOx, as well as carbon monoxide, hydrocarbons, and methane.
Who sets them? The standards and timeline for implementation are set by the Central Pollution Control Board under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.
In April 2020, India leapfrogged from BS-IV to the implementation of BS-VI. The central government has mandated that vehicle makers must manufacture, sell, and register only BS-VI (BS6) vehicles from April 1, 2020.
It is applicable for cars, trucks, buses, three-wheelers, and two-wheelers (motorcycles, scooters, and mopeds).
This emission norm does not apply to off-highway equipment and vehicles such as tractors, back-hoe loaders, excavators, etc.
Difference between BS-IV and BS-VI:
Both BS-IV and BS-VI are unit emission norms that set the maximum permissible levels for pollutants that an automotive or a two-wheeler exhaust can emit.
Compared to BS4, BS6 emission standards are stricter.
The main difference is in the amount of sulphur in the fuel, which is reduced from 50 ppm in BS IV fuel to 10 ppm in BS VI fuel for both gasoline and diesel. Hence, BSVI engines produce less harmful emissions and pollutants.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/frame-policy-to-phase-out-heavy-diesel-vehicles-supreme-court-to-centre-101705001702814.html
With reference to the SBI Green Rupee Term Deposit (SGRTD) Scheme, consider the following statements:
- It is open to resident individuals, non-individuals, and non-resident Indian (NRI) customers.
- Pre-mature withdrawals are not allowed under the scheme.
- Its deposits are covered under the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC).
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The State Bank of India (SBI) recently introduced the SBI Green Rupee Term Deposit (SGRTD) scheme to mobilize funds to support environment friendly initiatives and projects.
About SBI Green Rupee Term Deposit (SGRTD) Scheme:
It is an initiative of the State Bank of India (SBI) with the aim of raising money to finance environment-friendly projects.
The deposit scheme is open to resident individuals, non-individuals, and non-resident Indian (NRI) customers.
The current framework permits green deposits to be denominated in rupees only.
It offers investors the flexibility to choose from three distinct tenors: 1,111 days, 1,777 days, and 2,222 days.
Interest Rate:
SGRTD will offer 10 basis points (bps) interest rates below the card rate for retail and bulk deposits for respective tenors.
Senior Citizens/ Staff/ Staff Senior Citizens are eligible for an additional interest rate over the applicable rate for the public.
The benefit of additional interest shall not be available to NRI Senior Citizens/NRI Staff.
Pre-mature withdrawals are allowed under the scheme.
Loan/ overdraft facility will be available against the deposit.
What is Green Deposit?
A Green deposit is an interest-bearing deposit, received by the regulated entities (RE) for a fixed period, the proceeds of which are earmarked for being allocated towards green finance.
The deposits raised under the framework are covered by the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC).
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/business/sbi-unveils-green-rupee-term-deposit-scheme/article67735211.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Classical languages in India:
- A language which has early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years is considered as classical language.
- There are currently eight languages which have the status of a classical language.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the West Bengal Chief Minister urged central government to include ‘Bengali’ as a classical language.
Criteria evolved by Government of India to determine declaration of a language as a Classical language is as under:-
High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years;
A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers;
The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community;
The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Currently, six languages enjoy the ‘Classical’ status: Tamil (declared in 2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014).
The benefits it provides once a language is notified as a Classical language:
Two major annual international awards for scholars of eminence in classical Indian languages.
A Centre of Excellence for studies in Classical Languages is set up.
The University Grants Commission is requested to create, to start with at least in the Central Universities, a certain number of Professional Chairs for the Classical Languages so declared.”
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/mamata-asks-pm-to-officially-list-bengali-as-classical-language/article67731576.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the ANUBHAV Awards scheme:
- It recognizes the contribution made by Retired Officials to Nation building while working in Government.
- All retiring Central Government employees/pensioners are eligible for this award.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The submission deadline for ANUBHAV Awards Scheme 2024 is March 31, 2024.
It recognizes the contribution made by Retired Officials to Nation building while working in Government and to document the administrative history of India by written narratives.
The ANUBHAV Portal, established in March 2015, serves as an online platform for retiring and retired government employees to share their experiences.
The portal was launched by Government of India, Ministry of personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions, Department of Pension & Pensioners’ welfare.
Objectives
It aims to create a database of significant suggestions and work experiences.
It channelise the human resource of retiring employees for nation building.
Enable Ministries/ Departments to take crucial steps while considering useful and replicable suggestions.
Eligibility: To participate in the scheme, retiring Central Government employees/pensioners are required to submit their Anubhav write ups, 8 months prior to retirement and up to 1 year after their retirement.
Thereafter, the write-ups will be published after assessment by concerned Ministries/Departments. The published write-ups will be shortlisted for Anubhav Awards and Jury Certificates.
Each ANUBHAV Awardees will be felicitated with a medal and certificate and a Prize of 10,000 rupees, where as a Jury certificate Winner will be presented with a medal and a certificate.
Till date, 54 ANUBHAV awards have been conferred from 2016 to 2023.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1995472
Consider the following statements regarding I-STEM (Indian Science, Technology, and Engineering facilities Map) portal:
- It aims to assists users to locate the specific facility they need for their Research and Development work.
- It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Science and Technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
I-STEM (Indian Science, Technology, and Engineering facilities Map) is launching the Samavesha project at IISc., Bengaluru, on January 16 to enhance research collaboration in India by enhancing accessibility to facilities and labs.
I-STEM (Indian Science, Technology, and Engineering facilities Map) is an initiative of the Office of Principal Scientific Advisor, Government of India.
It is developed with the concept “One Nation One Portal” for the scientific community, aimed at “Linking Researchers and Resources”.
It assists users to locate the specific facility they need for their R&D work and identify the one that is either located closest to them or available the soonest.
The organisation, acting as custodian of the facility may charge the fee for running and maintaining the resources beyond the Project Duration.
A panel of Experts will be formed in due course to assist the users by providing information to optimally utilise resources available through I-STEM’s S&T Chat Room.
A Digital Catalogue of Technologies and Technologies Products mandated by the Empowered Technology Group is an integral part of the I-STEM web portal.
A platform for conducting and hosting industry challenges as mandated by the Empowered Technology Group (ETG) is being developed for Start-ups and Academia for making India “Aatmnirbhar”.
Through a recent GoI directive, institutions with R&D facilities funded by agencies of the GoI are now mandated to list these facilities on the I-STEM Portal.
I-STEM protects the IP involved in building the I-STEM Portal, a provisional patent application entitled, “A method and process for efficient use of geographically dispersed resources”, has been filed with the Indian Patent Office.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/i-stem-to-launch-samavesha-project-on-january-16-at-iisc-bengaluru-to-connect-researchers-with-labs-and-equipment/article67733360.ece
Consider the following statements regarding cervical cancer:
- It is caused by the Human papillomavirus (HPV).
- It is a sexually transmitted infection which can affect the skin.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In a bid to reduce cases of cervical cancer, the government is likely to roll out an immunisation campaign against Human Papillomavirus (HPV) in the second quarter of the year.
It starts in the cells of the cervix. The cervix is the lower, narrow end of the uterus (womb).
In a small percentage of people the virus survives for years, contributing to the process that causes some cervical cells to become cancer cells.
Causes
Various strains of the Human papillomavirus (HPV) play a role in causing most cervical cancer.
Human papillomavirus (HPV) is a common sexually transmitted infection which can affect the skin, genital area and throat.
When exposed to HPV, the body’s immune system typically prevents the virus from harming.
Types of HPV Vaccines available
Quadrivalent vaccine (Gardasil): It protects against four types of HPV (HPV 16, 18, 6 and 11).
Bivalent vaccine (Cervarix): It protects against HPV 16 and 18 only.
Non-valent vaccine (Gardasil 9): It protects against nine strains of HPV.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/health-wellness/hpv-vaccine-cervical-cancer-girls-immunisation-programme-9106759/
With reference to New Generation AKASH missile, consider the following statements:
- It is a surface-to-air missile.
- It can intercept the high-speed unmanned aerial vehicles.
- It has active electronically scanned array radar.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) conducted a successful flight-test of the New Generation AKASH (AKASH-NG) missile from the Integrated Test Range (ITR), Chandipur off the coast of Odisha.
It is surface-to-air new generation missile.
The missile intercepted the high-speed unmanned aerial vehicle at a very low altitude.
The test has validated the functioning of the complete weapon system consisting of a missile with an indigenously developed radio frequency seeker, launcher, multi-function radar and command, control and communication system.
This was the first trial of the missile against a live target, which was successfully intercepted and destroyed.
Features
It is a new generation state-of-the-art surface-to-air missile (SAM) for the Indian Air Force (IAF) to destroy high manoeuvring low radar cross section agile aerial threats.
This advanced variant comes with active electronically scanned array (AESA) multi-function radar that features all three functions - search, track and fire control in one platform.
It can defend an area 10 times better compared to any short-range SAM and is capable of engaging up to 10 targets simultaneously.
It can strike targets up to 40 km as against the earlier variant’s maximum range of 30 km.
With a canisterised launcher and a much smaller ground system, the missile has been developed with better deployability compared to other similar systems.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1995445
Consider the following statements:
- All the executive actions of the Government of India are taken in the name of the President of India.
- The Prime Minister makes rules for more convenient transactions of the business of the Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
● All executive actions of the Government of India are taken in the President’s name. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The President can make rules specifying the manner in which the orders and other instruments made and executed in his name shall be authorised.
● The President (not Prime Minister) can make rules for more convenient transactions of business of the Union Government, and for allocation of the said business among the ministers. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to the ordinance making power of the President?
- While the President can promulgate an ordinance on the advice of the Council of Ministers, s/he can withdraw it at her/his own discretion.
- The satisfaction of the President for promulgation of an ordinance is non-justiciable in nature.
- An ordinance cannot be issued by the President to amend the Constitution of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
3 only
Explanation :
● Article 123 of the Constitution of India empowers the President to promulgate the ordinance during the recess of the Parliament. These ordinances have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament but are in the nature of temporary laws.
● An ordinance can be promulgated by the President when one or both the Houses of the Parliament are not in session. An ordinance can be promulgated even if one of the Houses is in session because a law can be passed by both Houses not by one House alone.
● The power of the President to promulgate the ordinances is not a discretionary power. The President can promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only on the advice of the Council of Ministers. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● In R.C. Cooper vs. Union of India (1970) case, the Supreme Court held that the President’s decision to promulgate ordinance could be challenged on the grounds that ‘immediate action’ was not required and the ordinance had been issued primarily to bypass the legislative scrutiny. The 38th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1975 made the President’s satisfaction final and conclusive and beyond judicial review. Later, the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 made the satisfaction of the President to consider a ground enough for promulgating an ordinance justiciable. It is justiciable on grounds of malafide. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● An ordinance like any other legislation, can be retrospective, that is, it may come into force from a back date. It may modify or repeal any act of Parliament or another ordinance. It can alter or amend a tax law also. However, it cannot be issued to amend the Constitution. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- The President can be removed from the office only for ‘violation of the Constitution’.
- Nominated members of Parliament participate in the impeachment of the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
● The President of India can be impeached only for the “violation of the Constitution”. However, the phrase “violation of the Constitution” is not defined in the Constitution. So, statement 1 is correct.
● An impeachment of a President is a quasi-judicial procedure in the Parliament. In this context, two things should be noted:
O The nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they do not participate in his election.
O The elected members of the legislative assemblies of states and the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in the impeachment of the President though they participate in his election. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to the President of India, consider the following statements:
- S/He is the supreme commander of the defense forces of India.
- S/He appoints the chiefs of the Army, the Navy and the Air Force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
● The President of India enjoys certain Military Powers. S/He is the supreme commander of the defense forces of India. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Being the supreme commander of the defense forces of India, s/he appoints the chiefs of the Army, the Navy and the Air Force. S/He can declare war or conclude peace, subject to the approval of the Parliament. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the election of the President of India:
- The ‘None of the above’(NOTA) option is not available on the ballot paper.
- No candidate has been elected unopposed in the Presidential elections till date.
- All disputes regarding the election are decided by the Election Commission of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Article 54 of the Indian Constitution states that the President is elected by an Electoral College, which consists of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all the States and also of NCT of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
● Provisions of None of The Above (NOTA) are not applicable in the election of the President of India. According to the Supreme court of India NOTA option is meant only for universal adult suffrage and direct elections and not polls held by the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote as done in the Rajya Sabha or Presidential elections. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The country’s seventh President Neelam Sanjiva Reddy was the only one to be elected unopposed to the post. In 1977, following the death of Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed, Vice President B.D Jatti took over as acting President. Later, Neelam Sanjiva Reddy succeeded Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed in 1977. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President are inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court of India. The Supreme court’s decision in this regard is final. The election of a person as President cannot be challenged on the ground that the electoral college was incomplete. If the election of a person as President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him before the date of such declaration of the Supreme Court are not invalidated and continue to remain in force. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
A 36 years old person who is a citizen of India, is qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha and does not hold any office of profit. In this context, the person is qualified for appointment to which of the following other offices?
- President of India
- Governor
- Vice-President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
● A person to be eligible for election as President should fulfil the following qualifications:
o S/He should be a citizen of India.
o S/He should have completed 35 years of age.
o S/He should be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha.
o S/He should not hold any office of profit under the Union Government or any State Government or any local authority or any other public authority. So, point 1 is correct.
● The Constitution lays down only two qualifications for the appointment of a person as a Governor. These are:
o He should be a citizen of India.
o He should have completed the age of 35 years.
o Article 157 states that no person shall be eligible for appointment as Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty-five years. In contrast, a person must not be less than 25 years of age in the case of the Lok Sabha. So, point 2 is correct.
● A person to be eligible for election as Vice-President should fulfill the following qualifications:
o He should be a citizen of India.
o He should have completed 35 years of age.
o He should be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha. So, point 3 is not correct.
o He should not hold any office of profit under the Union Government or any State Government or any local authority or any other public authority.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Presidents in India and the United States of America (USA), consider the following statements:
- While the Indian President is part of the Parliament, the American President is not a part of the US Congress.
- The Indian President can dissolve the Lok Sabha but the American President cannot dissolve the lower house of the US Congress.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
● According to Article 79 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the President of India and the two Houses of Parliament known as Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and House of the People (Lok Sabha). The Presidential form of government, on the other hand, lays stress on the separation of legislative and executive organs. Hence, the American President is not regarded as a constituent part of the United States (US) Congress. Hence the US President and his secretaries are not responsible to the Congress for their acts. They neither possess membership in the Congress nor attend its sessions. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The President of the United States of America (USA) cannot dissolve the House of Representatives, the lower house of the Congress. The Indian President can dissolve the Lok Sabha on recommendation of the Prime Minister. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to Indian polity, consider the following statements:
- The advice tendered by the Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.
- Civil proceedings can be instituted against the President during the term of his office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
● The Council of Ministers aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. However, the President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice and the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration. The advice tendered by the Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court. So, statement 1 is correct.
● According to the Article 361 of the Constitution of India, no criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of office. However, this immunity is limited to the period of the term of their office only and does not extend beyond that. Civil proceedings can be started against them during their term of office in respect of their personal acts after giving two months’ advance notice. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following pairs
- Absolute veto - Withholding of assent of the bill passed by the legislature
- Qualified veto - Can be overridden by the legislature only through an ordinary majority
- Suspensive veto - Can be overridden by the legislature only through a special majority
- Pocket veto - Taking no action on the bill passed by the legislature
1 and 4 only
Explanation :
● Under Article 111 of the Indian Constitution, the President has the veto power over the bills passed by the Parliament, that is, he can withhold his assent to the bills.
● The President of India is vested with three—absolute veto, suspensive veto and pocket veto.
● Absolute veto is withholding of assent to the bill passed by the legislature. The bill then ends and does not become an Act. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
● Qualified veto can be overridden by the legislature with a higher majority. There is no qualified veto in the case of an Indian President; it is possessed by the American President. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
● Suspensive veto can be overridden by the legislature with an ordinary majority. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
● Pocket veto is taking no action on the bill passed by the legislature. So, pair 4 is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to the President, consider the following statements:
- The Constitution of India mandates that the President is required to consult the chief minister of the state while appointing the Governor.
- The President can return a money bill reserved by the Governor for reconsideration of the State Legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The Governor of a state is the chief executive head of the state. But, like the President, he is a nominal executive head (titular or constitutional head). The Governor also acts as an agent of the central government.
● The Constitution lays down only two qualifications for the appointment of a person as a Governor. These are:
o He should be a citizen of India.
o He should have completed the age of 35 years.
● Two conventions regarding the appointment of Governor have been developed over the years. First, he should be an outsider, that is, he should not belong to the state where he is appointed, so that he is free from local politics. Second, while appointing the governor, the President is required to consult the chief minister of the state concerned, so that the smooth functioning of the constitutional machinery in the state is ensured. However, both the conventions have been violated in some of the cases. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● The Governor has three alternatives when a money bill, after it is passed by the State Legislature (unicameral or bicameral), is presented to him:
○ He may give his assent to the Bill, the Bill then becomes an Act
○ He may withhold his assent to the Bill, the Bill then ends and does not become an Act
○ He may reserve the Bill for the consideration of the President
● When a Money Bill is reserved by the Governor for the consideration of the President, the President has two alternatives:
○ He may give his assent to the Bill, the Bill then becomes an Act
○ He may withhold his assent to the Bill, the Bill then ends and does not become an Act. Thus, the President cannot return a Money Bill for the reconsideration of the State Legislature (as in the case of the Parliament). So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding Chittorgarh Fort:
- It is located in Madhya Pradesh.
- It used to be the capital of the Mewar rulers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Taking note of the history and legacy of the Chittorgarh Fort, Rajasthan, the Supreme Court recently issued directions for its protection against blasting activities.
About Chittorgarh Fort:
Built by local Maurya rulers in the 7th century A.D., the Chittorgarh Fort in Rajasthan is one of the largest forts in India.
The common belief is that Chitrangada Mori, the local Maurya ruler, developed the fort originally. Later, the fort was captured by the Mewar rulers in 728 CE.
It used to be the capital of the Mewar rulers.
It is situated on a 180-meter-high hill that rises from the banks of river Berach.
The Fort has been witness to several legendary warriors in Indian history, including Badal, Gora, Maharana Pratap, Rana Kumbha, Patta, and Jaimal, among others.
It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2013.
Features:
The fort is known for its seven gates, namely Padan Gate, Ganesh Gate, Hanuman Gate, Bhairon Gate, Jodla Gate, Lakshman Gate, and the main gate, which is named after Lord Ram.
These gates were built to protect the fort from the enemy attacks, and the arches even protect the elephants from entering.
Sprawling across 700 acres and a circumference of 13 km, the fort has a kilometre-long road that takes up to the rampart after passing through the seven gates.
The walls are made of lime mortar and rise up to 500 metres above ground level.
The fort houses four palaces, 19 temples, including Jain and Hindu temples, 20 water bodies, and four memorials.
Jauhar Mela:
Every year, a Jauhar Mela is held in Chittorgarh.
This Rajput festival celebrates the anniversary of one of the jauhars.
Though there’s no specific name given, it is believed that the fair commemorates Rani Padmini’s jauhar and celebrates Rajputana valour.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/supreme-court-chittorgarh-fort-protection-blasting-activities-within-5-kms-prohibited-246644
With reference to LiDAR, consider the following statements:
- It is a remote sensing method that uses light in the form of a pulsed laser.
- A topographic lidar typically uses a near-infrared laser to map the land.
- It generates precise, three-dimensional data of both natural and man-made environments.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
A huge city hidden by the luxuriant vegetation of the Amazon rainforest was recently discovered in Ecuador by a LiDAR survey.
About LiDAR:
Lidar, which stands for Light Detection and Ranging, is a remote sensing method that uses light in the form of a pulsed laser to measure ranges (variable distances) to the Earth.
These light pulses—combined with other data recorded by the airborne system — generate precise, three-dimensional information about the shape of the Earth and its surface characteristics.
A lidar instrument principally consists of a laser, a scanner, and a specialized GPS receiver.
Airplanes and helicopters are the most commonly used platforms for acquiring lidar data over broad areas.
How Does it Work?
A LiDAR system calculates how long it takes for beams of light to hit an object or surface and reflect back to the laser scanner.
The distance is then calculated using the velocity of light. These are known as ‘Time of Flight’ measurements.
Two types of lidar are topographic and bathymetric.
Topographic lidar typically uses a near-infrared laser to map the land, while bathymetric lidar uses water-penetrating green light to also measure seafloor and riverbed elevations.
Lidar systems allow scientists and mapping professionals to examine both natural and man-made environments with accuracy, precision, and flexibility.
It is used in a wide range of land management and planning efforts, including hazard assessment (including lava flows, landslides, tsunamis, and floods), forestry, agriculture, geologic mapping, and watershed and river surveys.
What is the difference between Radar and LiDAR?
LiDAR works in a similar way to Radar and Sonar yet uses light waves from a laser, instead of radio or sound waves.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/3-000-year-old-city-hidden-in-amazon-rainforest-discovered-4847729
Saqqara, recently seen in the news, is located in which one of the following countries?
Egypt
Explanation :
Archaeologists in Egypt recently unearthed tombs containing mummy masks and a ‘god of silence’ statue at Saqqara.
About Saqqara:
It is part of the necropolis (burial place) of the ancient Egyptian city of Memphis.
It is located on the western bank of the Nile, 40 kilometers south of Cairo, the capital of Egypt.
Saqqara’s name derives from the name of the burial god Sokar.
It was an active burial ground for more than 3500 years and is Egypt’s largest archaeological site.
It is where the transition from the use of the mastaba (ancient Egyptian tombs, in the form of a massive brick or stone mound with battered walls on a rectangular base) as a burial site to the pyramid design that is more popularly known today took place.
Sakkara is best known for the Step Pyramid, the oldest of Egypt’s 97 pyramids.
It was built in 2700 BC for King Djoser (Zoser) of the 3rd Dynasty by the architect and genius Imhotep, who was the first to build stone tombsin honor of the king’s majesty.
Today, it is considered one of the oldest stone structures built by man, and it was the first time the Ancient Egyptians would attempt to use limestone.
Zoserís Pyramid is entirely built of limestone, small bricks of limestone, and not of the best quality, and yet it has remained for more than 4700 years.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livescience.com/archaeology/ancient-egyptians/ancient-egyptian-mummy-masks-tombs-and-god-of-silence-statue-discovered-at-saqqara
Consider the following statements regarding Pench Tiger Reserve (PTR):
- It is located in the southern reaches of Chhattisgarh.
- It is designated as India’s first Dark Sky Park.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Pench Tiger Reserve in Maharashtra has been designated as India’s first Dark Sky Park and the fifth in Asia, protecting the night sky and preventing light pollution.
About India’s First Dark Sky Park:
The Pench Tiger Reserve (PTR) in Maharashtra is India’s first Dark Sky Park within a tiger reserve for earmarking areas around the park that restrict light pollution for stargazers to access pristine dark skies.
Dark Sky Place certification focuses on lighting policy, dark sky-friendly retrofits, outreach and education, and monitoring the night sky.
This designation positions PTR as a sanctuary where tourists can witness celestial spectacles, shielded from the intrusion of artificial light pollution.
PTR became the fifth such park in Asia.
The certification was given by the International Dark-Sky Association, a global dark-sky movement to promote astronomy.
Key Facts about Pench Tiger Reserve (PTR):
Location: The Reserve is located in the southern reaches of the Satpura hills in the Seoni and Chhindwara districts in Madhya Pradesh and continues in Nagpur district in Maharashtra as a separate Sanctuary.
It is named after the Pench River, which flows from north to south through the Reserve.
It comprisesthe Indira Priyadarshini Pench National Park, the Pench Mowgli Sanctuary, and a buffer.
The area of the Pench Tiger Reserve and the surrounding area is the real story area of Rudyard Kipling’s famous “The Jungle Book”.
Terrain: It is undulating, with most of the area covered by small hills and steep slopes on the sides.
Vegetation: The undulating topography supports a mosaic of vegetation ranging from a moist sheltered valley to an open, dry deciduous forest.
Flora: The reserve boasts a diverse range of flora, including teak, saag, mahua, and various grasses and shrubs.
Fauna:
The area is especially famous for large herds of Chital, Sambar, Nilgai, Gaur (Indian Bison), and wild boar.
The key predator is the tiger, followed by leopard, wild dogs, and wolf.
There are over 325 species of resident and migratory birds, including the Malabar Pied Hornbill, Indian Pitta, Osprey, Grey-Headed Fishing Eagle, White-Eyed Buzzard, etc.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.livemint.com/news/india/maharashtra-pench-tiger-reserve-becomes-indias-first-dark-sky-park-all-you-need-to-know-11705123164919.html
With reference to the PM-eBus Sewa Scheme, consider the following statements:
- Under the Scheme, 10,000 e-buses will be deployed across cities in the country.
- City bus operations will be done on a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model.
- It will cover cities with a population of one million and above only.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Union Housing and Urban Affairs Minister recently said that the Ministry has floated tenders for procuring buses under the PM-eBus Sewa scheme.
About PM-eBus Sewa Scheme:
Under the PM-eBus Sewa Scheme, 10,000 e-buses will be deployed across cities in the country.
The scheme was introduced to give a push to the slow adoption of e-buses in public transport.
Support for Operation:
Under this scheme, city bus operations will be done on a Public Private Partnership (PPP) model.
This scheme will support bus operations for 10 years.
States/Cities shall be responsible for running the bus services and making payments to the bus operators.
The Central Government will support these bus operations by providing subsidies to the extent specified in the proposed scheme.
Funding:
It has been allocated a total funding of Rs 57,613 crore.
Out of this financial provision, the central government will contribute Rs 20,000 crore, while the remaining portion will be covered by the state governments.
Coverage: It will cover cities with a population of 300,000 and above and will include all the capital cities of the ‘Union Territories, North Eastern Region, and Hill States’.
There are two segments of the scheme: Augmenting the city bus services and Associated Infrastructure, and Green Urban Mobility initiatives.
Augmenting the city bus services and Associated Infrastructure: Under this segment, the scheme will augment city electric bus operations by extending Central Assistance (CA) for 10,000 electric bus operation on Public Private Partnership (PPP) model, bus depots and behind-the-meter power infrastructure.
Green Urban Mobility Initiatives (GUMI): Under this segment, the scheme will support the implementation of GUMI projects for complementing bus services and demonstrating a reduction in Greenhouse Gas (GHG) emissions in urban areas.
The segment will include support for implementing the National Common Mobility Card (NCMC)-based Automatic Fare Collection System (AFCS), bus priority infrastructure, etc.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tenders-for-e-buses-floated-under-pm-ebus-sewa-union-urban-affairs-minister/article67734734.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Himalayan Wolf:
- It is genetically adapted to live in hypoxic conditions.
- It is categorized as critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Himalayan Wolf has been assessed for the first time in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)’s Red List and categorised as ‘Vulnerable’.
The Himalayan Wolf (Canis lupus chanco), a prominent lupine predator found across the Himalayas.
It is also called as Tibetan wolves, which live at more than 4,000 metres altitudes are genetically distinct from grey wolves.
Living at such high altitudes, these wolves have genetically adapted themselves to live in low oxygen (hypoxic) conditions.
Distribution:
In China, the Himalayan wolf lives on the Tibetan Plateau in the provinces of Gansu, Qinghai, Tibet, and western Sichuan.
In northern India, it occurs in the Union Territory of Ladakh and in the Lahaul and Spiti region in northeastern Himachal Pradesh.
Conservation status
IUCN: Vulnerable
CITES: Appendix I
Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I
Threats: It is illegally hunted for trade in its fur and body parts including paws, tongues, heads, and other parts.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/the-first-ever-iucn-assessment-of-the-himalayan-wolf-is-out-and-it-is-grim-93852
Consider the following statements regarding the Cape Verde:
- It is located to the west coast of Africa.
- It is certified as Malaria free country by the World Health Organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the World Health Organization (WHO) has certified Cabo Verde (also known as Cape Verde) as a malaria-free country.
It is also known as Cape Verde which comprises a group of islands that lie off the west coast of Africa.
It is located nearby Senegal and is the nearest point on the continent.
This volcanic archipelago includes ten islands and five islets, divided into the windward (Barlavento) and leeward (Sotavento) groups.
Climate: Generally moderate, the climate is characterized by stable temperatures with extreme aridity.
The terrain of the Cabo Verde islands varies from the geologically older, flatter islands in the east and the newer, more mountainous islands in the west.
Population: The overwhelming majority of the population of Cabo Verde is of mixed European and African descent and is often referred to as mestiço or Crioulo.
Capital: Praia
Languages: Portuguese, Cape Verdean Creole
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/africa/who-certifies-cabo-verde-malaria-free-third-african-country-to-do-so-93862
Consider the following statements regarding the Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT) project:
- It is located on the island of Hawaii.
- It is an optical and infrared telescope which enables observations into deep space.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, an official delegation from the Department of Science and Technology visited Mauna Kea to discuss “challenges” to the Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT) project.
It has been conceived as a 30-metre diameter primary-mirror optical and infrared telescope that will enable observations into deep space.
It is proposed as a joint collaboration involving institutions in the U.S., Japan, China, Canada, and India.
It will be the world’s most advanced and capable ground-based optical, near-infrared, and mid-infrared observatory.
It will integrate the latest innovations in precisions control, segmented mirror design, and adaptive optics.
At the heart of the telescope is the segmented mirror, made up of 492 individual segments. Precisely aligned, these segments will work as a single reflective surface of 30m diameter.
Location: Mauna Kea, an inactive volcano on the island of Hawai’i in the United States.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/science-ministry-team-visits-hawaii-to-take-stock-of-international-telescope-project/article67734975.ece
Bramhagiri Wildlife Sanctuary, which was recently in news, is located in:
Karnataka
Explanation :
Researchers from the National Centre for Biological Sciences (NCBS) found a new butterfly species in Karnataka’s Bramhagiri Wildlife Sanctuary, Kodagu.
The butterfly species – Conjoined Silverline (Cigaritis conjuncta) found from the Western Ghats biodiversity hotspot, India.
Features
The new butterfly is the size of a one rupee coin but is invaluable to conservationists.
It is endemic to mid-elevation evergreen forests of the Western Ghats.
It has fused spots and bands on the underside of wings, and shiny silver lines in the centre of those bands.
The two sites where they have been located are at an elevation of 900 meters (Iruppu Falls) and 1,300 meters (Honey Valley).
India houses more than 1,400 species of butterflies, but very few new ones have been discovered in the last few decades.
Key points about the Bramhagiri Wildlife Sanctuary
It is situated in southern side in Kodagu district of Karnataka.
It is named after the highest peak of the sanctuary is called Brahmagiri Hill.
River: River Laxmantirtha, a very important tributary of river Cauvery originates in it.
Vegetation: It is covered with semi evergreen to wet evergreen forests with high altitude grassland shoal forests.
Flora: Rosewood, Nandi, Mathi, Honne, Sura Honne, White Cedar, Red Cedar and Saldhupa etc.
Fauna: Tiger, Elephants, and Indian Gaur are the big mammals commonly found here.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/karnataka/2024/jan/12/new-butterfly-species-in-kodagu-sanctuary-2650194.html
With reference to Lentils, consider the following statements:
- It requires well drained, loam soils for its growth.
- It is only cultivated in Asia and African continent.
- It requires cold temperature during its vegetative growth.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
only two
Explanation :
India is set to become the world’s largest producer of lentil (masoor) during the 2023-24 crop years on account of higher acreage.
It is a valuable human food, mostly consumed as dry seeds.
In India, it’s mostly consumed as ‘Dal’ by removal of outer skin and separation of cotyledons.
Lentil is also called as Masur and Malka (bold seeded).
Climatic condition
Lentil requires cold climate.
It is very hardy and can tolerate frost and severe winter to a great extent.
It requires cold temperature during its vegetative growth and warm temperature at the time of maturity.
Temperature: The optimum temperature for growth is 18-300 C. Its range of cultivation extends to an altitude of 3,500 m in north-west hills.
Soil: Well drained, loam soils with neutral reaction are best for lentil cultivation. Acidic soils are not fit for growing lentil.
It is widely cultivated throughout Europe, Asia, and North Africa.
The Lentil growing states in India are Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Punjab, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, etc
It is easy to cook and easily digestible with high biological value. Dry leaves, stems, empty and broken pods are used as valuable cattle feed.
According to Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), the world top lentil growers in 2022 were Canada, India, Australia, Turkey and Russia.
Despite being the second largest producer of lentil, India has so far been importing mainly from Australia, Canada, Russia, Singapore, and Turkey.
During the current year, it also imported some quantities of lentil from UAE, USA, Sri Lanka and Nepal.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/commodities/indias-lentil-production-set-to-touch-all-time-high-govt-9107369/
Consider the following:
- Hasdeo
- Malaprabha
- Seonath
- Hemavati
- Ong
How many of the above are tributaries of Mahanadi River?
only three
Explanation :
The state-owned Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) recently discovered two significant natural gas reserves in the Mahanadi basin block in the Bay of Bengal.
About Mahanadi River Basin:
It is the 8th largest river basin in the country, with a total catchment area of 139681.51 sq. km, which is nearly4.28% of the total geographical area of the country.
The catchment area of the basin extends over major parts of Chhattisgarh and Odisha and comparatively smaller portions of Jharkhand, Maharashtra, and Madhya Pradesh.
The basin has a maximum length and width of 587 km and 400 km, respectively.
It is bounded by the Central India hills on the north, by the Eastern Ghats on the south and east, and by the Maikala range on the west.
Physiographically, the basin can be divided into four regions, namely, the northern plateau, the Eastern Ghats, the coastal plain, and the erosional plains of central table land.
The first two are hilly regions.
The coastal plain is the delta area, which is highly fertile.
The central tableland is the central interior region of the basin, traversed by the river and its tributaries.
The basin receives about 90% of its rainfall during the monsoon season.
The major part of the basin is covered with agricultural land, accounting for 54.27% of the total area, and 4.45% of the basin is covered by water bodies.
The main soil types found in the basin are red and yellow soils.
Key Facts about Mahanadi River:
It is one of the major east-flowing peninsular rivers in India.
Origin: The river originates from the Sihawa range of hills in the Dhamtari district of Chhattisgarh state.
It ranks second to the Godavari River among the peninsular rivers in respect of water potential.
The total length of the river form origin to its outfall into Bay of Bengalis 851 km of which 357 km lies in Chhattisgarh and 494 km in Odisha.
Tributaries: The Seonath, the Hasdeo, the Mand, and the Ib join Mahanadi from left, whereas the Ong, the Tel, and the Jonk join it from right.
Hirakud Dam: The Hirakud Dam, the world’s longest earthen dam (26km), is constructed across the Mahanadi River, about 15 km from Sambalpur in Odisha.
Chilika Lake: Chilika, named wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention, gets 61% of its inland flow from the Mahanadi River system, mainly from its distributaries, Daya and Bhargabi.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livemint.com/industry/energy/in-a-big-push-to-indias-energy-security-ongc-makes-two-significant-gas-discoveries-in-mahanadi-basin-block-11705238333129.html
Punganur Cow, recently seen in the news, is native to which one of the following states?
Andhra Pradesh
Explanation :
The Prime Minister was recently seen feeding several Punganur cows with fodder with his own hands at his residence in New Delhi.
About Punganur Cow:
Standing at just around 70-90 cm tall and weighing less than 200kg, it is among the world’s most dwarf cattle breeds.
It is native to Punganur village in the Chittoor district of Andhra Pradesh.
It has high resilience to drought and can adapt to low-quality feed.
It is also prized for its milk, which boasts a higher fat content, making it ideal for producing ghee.
A Punganur cow can give around 1 to 3 litres a day, and the milk fat content is 8 percent as compared to 3 to 4 percent in other native breeds.
The milk is also rich in nutrients such as Omega fatty acids, calcium, potassium, and magnesium.
Body colour: It is white, grey, or light brown to dark brown or red in colour. Sometimes, animals with white colour mixed with red, brown, or black patches are also seen.
It has a broad forehead and short horns. The horns are crescent-shaped and often lose curving backward and forward in males and lateral and forward in females.
Punganur cows are considered eco-friendly, requiring less water, feed, and space compared to hybrid breeds.
Cultural Significance: Even today, many temples in Andhra Pradesh, including the famous Tirupati Thirumala Temple, use the milk of a Punganur cowfor Ksheeraabhishekam (milk offering to the deity).
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.news18.com/india/pm-modi-feeds-punganur-cows-on-makar-sankranti-heres-why-you-should-adopt-this-golden-breed-8740237.html
Consider the following statements regarding Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC):
- It is the statutory committee that functions under the Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India.
- The clearance of GEAC is mandatory for the environmental release of Genetically Modified (GM) crops in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently questioned the Centre on why reports of the court-appointed Technical Experts Committee (TEC) on the biosafety of genetically modified (GM) crops were not looked into by the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC).
About Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC):
It is the statutory committee constituted under the “Rules for the Manufacture, Use/Import/Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells (Rules, 1989)” framed under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
It functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change (MoEF&CC).
Functions:
It is responsible for the approval of activities involving large-scale use of hazardous living microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from an environmental perspective.
The committee is also responsible for the appraisal of proposals relating to the release of genetically engineered (GE) organisms and products into the environment, including experimental field trials.
Clearance of GEAC is mandatory for the environmental release of GM crops.
The committee or any person authorized by it has the power to take punitive action under the Environment Protection Act.
Composition:
GEAC is chaired by the Special Secretary/Additional Secretary of MoEF&CC and co-chaired by a representative from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT).
Presently, it has 24 members and meets every month to review the applications in the areas indicated above.
The members comprise experts from other ministries as well as institutions such as the ICAR, ICMR, CCMB, and so on.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/gm-mustard-supreme-court-9107917/
Consider the following statements regarding Astra Missile:
- It is a beyond-visual-range (BVR) air-to-air missile.
- It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Minister of State for Defence recently flagged off the indigenously developed Astra Missiles for supply to the Indian Air Force (IAF) at Bharat Dynamics in Hyderabad.
About Astra Missile:
Astra is a beyond-visual-range (BVR) air-to-air missile designed to be mounted on fighter aircraft.
It is indigenously developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and manufactured by Bharat Dynamics Ltd. (BDL) for the Indian Air Force (IAF).
The missile is designed to engage and destroy highly manoeuvring supersonic aircraft.
It is the best in its class of weapon systems in the world in the category of air-to-air missiles.
The missile is being developed in multiple variants to meet specific requirements.
The ASTRA Mk-I Weapon System, integrated with SU-30 Mk-I aircraft, is being inducted into the Indian Air Force (IAF).
Features of ASTRA Mk-I:
It has a range of 80 to 110 km in a head-on chase and can travel at 4.5 Mach speed (almost hypersonic).
The missile also has a locally developed Ku-band active radar guidance system and a 15-kg warhead.
It offers the pilot the option to choose between “Lock on Before Launch – LOBL” and “Lock on After Launch – LOAL” and later allows the aircraft to shoot and scoot to safety after firing the missile in the direction of the target.
It is based on advanced solid-fuel ducted ramjet (SFDR) engine technology.
It is capable of operating under all weather conditions, both day and night, and offers high overall reliability and a very high ‘‘Single Shot Kill Probability – SSKP”.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/hyderabad/made-in-hyderabad-bvr-astra-missiles-to-boost-iaf-arsenal/articleshow/106848832.cms
Indian Army Day is celebrated every year to commemorate which one of the following events?
General KM Cariappa taking over the command of the Indian Army from the last British Commander-in-Chief in 1949
Explanation :
The President and Prime Minister recently conveyed their warm wishes to Indian Army personnel on the occasion of Army Day.
About Indian Army Day:
Indian Army Day is celebrated every year on January 15.
On the special occasion of Army Day, the officials will perform a parade in the presence of higher dignitaries, and its salute is taken by the Indian Army Chief.
History:
On January 15, 1949, Field Marshal K.M. Cariappa became the first Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army, and took over authority from the British Commander-in-Chief General Francis Butcher, and became the first Indian to command the Army in its long, rich history.
From 1949 until 2022, the Army Day parade was organised at the Cariappa Parade Ground in the Delhi Cantonment.
In 2023, the Southern Command was responsible for the parade in Bengaluru. It was the first time the Army Day parade was held outside the country’s capital.
Indian Army Day 2024:
This year marks the 76th Army Day.
This year, the parade will be held under the command of Army’s ‘Central Command, which is headquartered in Lucknow.
The theme of Indian Army Day 2024 is “In Service of the Nation”.
This year’s theme also resembles the motto of the Indian Army, “Service Before Self.”
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/delhi-news/president-murmu-and-prime-minister-narendra-modi-wish-indian-army-on-army-day-101705292775313.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar:
- It recognizes scientific contributions of researchers, technologist and innovators.
- Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar award is given to recognize and encourage young scientists.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The nominations for Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar 2024 awards are invited on Award Portal of Ministry of Home Affairs from 14th January 2024 to 28th February 2024.
The Government of India has announced the “Rastriya Vigyan Puraskar” in the field of Science, Technology and Innovation.
The National Award recognizes outstanding and inspiring scientific, technological and innovation contributions of researchers, technologist and innovators.
The awards shall be given in following four categories:
Vigyan Ratna (VR): Maximum of three awards to be bestowed to recognize life time achievements & contributions made in given field of Science and Technology.
Vigyan Shri (VS): Maximum of 25 awards to be given to recognize the distinguished contributions in given field of Science and Technology.
Vigyan Yuva: Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (VY-SSB) award: Maximum of 25 awards to be given to recognize and encourage young scientists who made an exceptional contribution in given field of Science and Technology.
Vigyan Team (VT) award: Maximum of three awards may be awarded to a team comprising of three or more scientists/researchers/innovators who have made an exceptional contribution working in a team in given field of Science and Technology.
It shall be given in the following 13 domains, namely: Physics, Chemistry, Biological Sciences, Mathematics & Computer Science, Earth Science, Medicine, Engineering Sciences, Agricultural Science, Environmental Science, Technology & Innovation, Atomic Energy, Space Science and Technology, and Others.
The awards this year are being coordinated by Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) under the Ministry of Science and Technology.
The awards shall be announced on National Technology Day (11th May).
The Award Ceremony for all categories of awards will be held on National Space Day (23rd August).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1995945
Consider the following statements regarding the Makar Sankranti:
- It marks the Sun changing directions and shifting its trajectory towards the north.
- This festival follows the lunar cycle.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Cultural celebrations are held across many states of India under different names – Makar Sankranti, Pongal, Magh Bihu, etc. on January 14.
It marks the Sun changing directions and shifting its trajectory towards the north, therefore, entering the Makara or Capricorn zodiac sign.
The day is a marker for a change of season – warmer months are close and we are moving away from winter, which is seen as a period of inactivity in many ways.
It is said that the northward journey of the sun (Uttarayan) begins on this day.
Unlike most festivals that follow the lunar cycle, Makar Sankranti follows the solar cycle and thus, is celebrated almost on the same day every year.
Astronomically, the Earth revolves around the Sun in an elliptical orbit that requires about 365 1/4 days to complete, as it continues to rotate on its own axis.
The earth’s spin axis is tilted with respect to its orbital plane. This, along with its distance from the Sun, determines the change in seasons for life on Earth.”
For the Northern Hemisphere, the axis points most toward the sun in June (specifically around June 21), and away from the sun around December 21.
This corresponds to the Winter and Summer Solstice (solstice is Latin for “the sun stands”). For the Southern Hemisphere, this is reversed.”
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/makar-sankranti-pongal-lohri-significance-rituals-9109065/
With reference to Kachchhi Kharek (dates), consider the following statements:
- It is grown in Kutch region and harvested at the khalal stage.
- It grows best in moist weather condition.
- It has adaptability to extreme drought situation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Kachchhi Kharek, the indigenous variety of dates of Kutch, has become the second fruit of Gujarat to get a geographical indication (GI) tag from the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks (CGPDT) of India.
The presence of dates in Kachchh (Kutch) is believed to be around 400-500 years old.
It is believed that date palm groves along the north-western border of India have developed from the seeds thrown by the settlers, who used to visit Middle-East countries for Haj.
It is also probable that the Arab gardeners working in the palaces of the former rulers of Kachchh might also have contributed to the import of the date seeds and offshoots from Arab countries.
Features
Dates grown in Kutch are harvested at the khalal stage, the stage when fruits have matured, accumulated sucrose, and have turned red or yellow but are still crisp.
The Kutch date season typically commences on June 15 each year, and the trees are known for their tolerance to salinity and adaptability to extreme drought and heat conditions.
In other countries, they are allowed to ripen further till they become soft and dark brown or black in colour.
Kachchh is the only place around the globe where fresh dates are economically cultivated, marketed, and consumed.
There are around two million date palms in Kutch today and around 1.7 million of them are seedling-origin palms of deshi (indigenous) varieties.
They are seedling propagated palms, each of them is a unique palm in itself, representing a vast range of diversity in characteristics.
The area is accounting for more than 85 % of total dates palm cultivation in India.
These dates in Kutch have to be harvested at khalal stage as they can’t withstand moist weather.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/ahmedabad/kachchhi-kharek-indigenous-dates-of-kutch-become-gujarats-2nd-fruit-to-get-gi-tag-9107483/
Sinomicrurus gorei, recently seen in the news, is a:
snake
Explanation :
Researchers from Mizoram University’s zoology department have discovered a new species of coral snake in Mizoram.
It has been named Sinomicrurus gorei after British India doctor Gore.
The reptile is locally known as ‘Rulṭhihna’ due to its striking resemblance to a Mizo traditional amber necklace called ‘Ṭhihna’.
There are a total of nine species of Sinomicrurus coral snakes have been discovered worldwide, and out of these, only one species called Sinomicrurus macclellandi is found in Northeast India.
It has unique patterns and different scales, hemipenis, DNA, and skull.
Until this research, Sinomicrurus gorei was considered the same species as Sinomicrurus macclellandi due to their close resemblance.
The new study also revealed that while Sinomicrurus macclellandi can lay 6-14 eggs at a time, Sinomicrurus gorei lays up to three eggs.
In Mizoram, Sinomicrurus macclellandi is primarily found in hilly or elevated areas, while Sinomicrurus gorei is found in both low-lying and hilly areas.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.theweek.in/wire-updates/national/2024/01/13/cal3-mz-new-snake-species.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Kalaram Mandir:
- It is located in Nashik, Maharashtra.
- It is located on the banks of River Godavari.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India visited the Kalaram Mandir on the banks of the Godavari in the Panchavati area of Nashik, Maharashtra.
The Kalaram temple derives its name from a black statue of the Lord — Kala Ram translates literally to “Black Ram”.
It was built in 1792 with the efforts of Sardar Rangarao Odhekar.
It is located on the banks of Godavari in the Panchavati area of the city.
Features
The sanctum sanctorum has statues of Ram, Sita, and Lakshman, and a black idol of Hanuman at the main entrance.
The main temple has 14 steps, which represent the 14 years of Ram’s exile. It has 84 pillars, which represents the cycle of 84 lakh species that one has to complete in order to be born as a human.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-history/nashik-kala-ram-temple-modi-ambedkar-9106708/
Consider the following statements regarding Gut Microbiota:
- It refers to bacteria, viruses, fungi and parasites that live in the human gut.
- Infants inherit their first gut microbes during birth or breastfeeding.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Scientists are finding that the gut microbiota may be linked to heart health, some cancers, and even the colour of urine.
About Gut Microbiota:
The human gut microbiota refers to the trillions of microbes, such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, that live in the human gut.
Previously, people referred to the gut microbiota as the microflora of the gut.
The gut microbiome is the environment they live in.
Establishment of the human gut microbiota:
Infants inherit their first gut microbes during vaginal delivery or breastfeeding (chestfeeding).
Later, your diet and other environmental exposures introduce new microbes to your biome.
The gut microbiota assists in a range of bodily functions, including:
harvesting energy from digested food
protecting against pathogens
regulating immune function
strengthening the biochemical barriers of the gut and intestine
Changes in microbiota composition can affect these functions.
Disease:
While there are beneficial bacteria in the gut, there are also harmful bacteria that can enter the Gastrointestinal (GI) tract and cause infection.
These infections include food poisoning and other GI diseases that result in diarrhea and vomiting.
Research suggests that bacterial populations in the GI system play a role in developing gut conditions, including inflammatory bowel diseases (IBD), such as Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis.
Low microbial diversity in the gut also has links to obesity and type 2 diabetes.
The status of the gut microbiota also has links to metabolic syndrome.
Disturbing the microbiota with antibiotics can also lead to disease, including infections that become resistant to antibiotics.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/gut-microbiota-heart-health-cancer-explained/article67740462.ece
What distinguishes the windfall tax from normal taxation?
A.
It is only applicable to small businesses.
B.
It is imposed during economic recessions.
C.
It is related to unexpected external events and not linked to a company’s actions.
D.
It is only applicable to the service industry.
It is related to unexpected external events and not linked to a company’s actions.
Explanation :
India cut its windfall tax on petroleum crude to 1,700 rupees ($20.53) a tonne from 2,300 rupees a tonne, according to a recent government notification.
About Windfall Tax:
What is it? It is a tax levied by governments against certain industries when economic conditions allow those industries to experience significantly above-average profits.
The term “windfall” refers to an unexpected rise in profits, and the tax on windfall gains is known as the windfall tax.
When is it imposed?
When the government notices a sudden increase in an industry’s revenue, they impose this tax.
However, these revenues cannot be linked to anything the company actively pursues, such as its business strategy or expansion.
Rather, it is related to a one-off external event for which the business is not responsible.
Consequently, a Windfall Tax is imposed on an industry’s profits when it experiences a sharp increase in revenue due to unrelated external events.
A recent example is the sudden rise in the profits of the oil and gas industries due to the Russia-Ukraine conflict.
The unexpected windfalls are taxed by the government over and above the normal tax rates.
The most common industries that fall target to windfall gains tax include oil, gas, and mining.
Purpose:
Redistribution of unexpected gains when high prices benefit producers at the expense of consumers;
To fund social welfare schemes;
As a supplementary revenue stream for the government;
As a way for the Government to narrow the country’s widening trade deficit.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/economy/news/govt-cuts-windfall-tax-on-crude-petroleum-to-rs-1-700-a-tonne-effective-tue-123101701413_1.html
With reference to Tibetan Brown Bear, consider the following statements:
- It inhabits alpine forests, meadows and steppes, close to the tree line.
- Its sense of smell is much more acute than its hearing and sight.
- It has a general lifespan of around 60 to 70 years.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A rare and elusive bear, the Tibetan brown bear, has been recently sighted in Sikkim, making it the first confirmed record of the animal being sighted in India.
About Tibetan Brown Bear:
The Tibetan brown bear, also known as the Tibetan blue bear, is one of the rarest subspecies of bears in the world and is rarely sighted in the wild.
Scientific Name: Ursus arctos pruinosus
Distribution:
Historically found mainly on the alpine eastern Tibetan plateau (4,500 to 5,000 metres) in eastern Tibet, western China, Nepal, and Bhutan.
Remaining bears in the wild seem to be confined to eastern Tibet and Bhutan.
Habitat: It inhabits alpine forests, meadows, and steppes, close to the tree line.
This rare bear is very different from the more commonly found Himalayan black bear in terms of its appearance, habitat, and behaviour.
Features:
It has shaggy, dark brown to black fur, a cream to cinnamon face, and a white collar that broadens from the shoulders to the chest.
It has small ears covered with long black fur.
Lifespan: around 20 to 30 years.
Its sense of smell is much more acute than its hearing and sight.
They are solitary, but the territories between two Himalayan brown bears have been seen to overlap. They are one of the most terrestrial of the bears.
It feeds on marmots and alpine vegetation.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
CITES: Appendix I
Wildlife Protection Act of 1972: Schedule II
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.telegraphindia.com/west-bengal/first-sight-of-rare-bear-tibetan-brown-bear-in-sikkim-makes-it-first-confirmed-record/cid/1993810
Consider the following statements regarding Farsi Language:
- It belongs to the Indo-European languages.
- It is written in the Arabic script.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The External Affairs Minister recently announced that the Government of India has decided to include Farsi (Persian) as one of the nine classical languages in India under the New Education Policy.
About Farsi:
Farsi, also known as Persian Language, is the most widely spoken member of the Iranian branch of the Indo-Iranian languages, a subfamily of the Indo-European languages.
It is the official language of Iran, and two varieties of Persian known as Dari and Tajik are official languages in Afghanistan and Tajikistan, respectively.
Significant populations of Farsi speakers can be found in other Persian Gulf countries (Bahrain, Iraq, Oman, Yemen, and the United Arab Emirates), as well as large communities in the US.
It has about 62 million native speakers, ranking it among the world’s 20 most widely spoken first languages.
Farsi in Iran is written in a variety of the Arabic script called Perso-Arabic, which has some innovations to account for Persian phonological differences. This script came into use in Persia after the Islamic conquest in the seventh century.
Its relatives are the languages of northern India and, more distantly, the major European languages including English.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://theprint.in/world/farsi-to-be-one-of-indias-nine-classical-languages-jaishankar/1925081/
With reference to Vote-On-Account, consider the following statements:
- It must be discussed and passed in the Lok Sabha like a full budget.
- It cannot propose changes in the tax regime.
- It is proposed for an entire financial year.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The Finance Minister is all set to present her sixth Budget in a row and since it is general elections year, the government will be allowed only to present an Interim Budget or Vote-on-account instead of a regular full Budget.
About Interim Budget vs Vote-On-Account:
An interim budget serves as a framework for managing provisional expenditures over a short duration, usually spanning a few months, until a new government takes office at the central level.
An interim budget generally includes the current state of the economy, plan and non-plan expenditures and receipts, changes in tax rates, revised estimates of the current financial year, and estimates for the coming financial year.
Despite being presented for the entire year, similar to a regular budget, the interim budget is subject to constraints imposed by the Election Commission.
These constraints aim to prevent the government from implementing policies that could unduly influence the general public before the commencement of voting.
The Parliament passes a Vote-on-account to meet essential expenditures such as salaries of central government staff, funding of ongoing projects, and other government expenditures.
In other words, it accounts for only expenditures to be borne by the outgoing government for a period of two months, which may be extended to four months on special circumstances.
The interim budget serves as a financial plan during a transitional period, typically when there are only a few months left in the current government’s tenure. The vote-on-account can be approved within the framework of the interim budget.
Like a full budget, an interim budget will be discussed and passed in the Lok Sabha, and in the case of a vote-on-account, it will be passed without any formal discussion as such.
An interim budget can propose changes in the tax regime, whereas a vote-on-account cannot change the tax regime under any circumstances.
Vote-On-Account is a parliamentary approval for withdrawing money from the Consolidated Fund of India from April to June/July or until the new Government presents its full-fledged budget.
It can be termed an advance grant, interim arrangement, and authorisation for the outgoing government to draw the money from the above-said fund and meet short-term expenditures.
As far as validity is concerned, the interim budget is valid throughout the year whereas the vote-on-account is valid only for a period of two to four months.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.businesstoday.in/union-budget/story/union-budget-2024-what-is-the-difference-between-an-interim-budget-and-vote-on-account-413162-2024-01-14
Consider the following:
- Malaprabha
- Harangi
- Arkavati
- Bhavani
- Doni
How many of the above are tributaries of Cauvery River?
Only three
Explanation :
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has served notices to Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala governments, based on a report by the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) that has highlighted the massive reduction of green cover in the Cauvery basin over the past five decades.
It extends over states of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and Union Territory of Puducherry.
It is bounded by the Western Ghats on the west, by the Eastern Ghats on the east and the south and by the ridges separating it from Krishna basin and Pennar basin on the north.
The Cauvery River is one of the major rivers of the peninsula.
Origin: It rises at an elevation of 1,341 m at Talakaveri on the Brahmagiri range near Cherangala village of Kodagu district of Karnataka.
The river drains into the Bay of Bengal at Poompuhar in the Mayiladuthurai district of Tamil Nadu.
Major left bank tributaries: Harangi, the Hemavati, the Shimsha and the Arkavati.
Major right bank tributaries: Lakshmantirtha, the Kabbani, the Suvarnavati, the Bhavani, the Noyil and the Amaravati
The basin can be divided into three parts – the Westen Ghats, the Plateau of Mysore and the Delta.
The delta area is the most fertile tract in the basin.
The principal soil types found in the basin are black soils, red soils, laterites, alluvial soils, forest soils and mixed soils. Red soils occupy large areas in the basin. Alluvial soils are found in the delta areas.
National Parks in this basin: Bandipur National Park, Nagarhole National Park and the Bannerghatta National Park.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/forests/concerns-raised-over-decimation-of-green-cover-in-cauvery-basin-ngt-issues-notice-to-southern-states-93875
Consider the following statements regarding the Gentoo Penguin:
- It is mainly found in the Antarctic Peninsula.
- It is typically found along the shoreline.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, a photographer has spotted an extremely rare all-white Gentoo penguin in Chilean Antarctica.
It is exclusively found in the Southern Hemisphere between 45 and 65 degrees south latitude.
Within this range, gentoos are found on the Antarctic Peninsula as well as many sub-Antarctic islands.
One of the most predominant locations gentoos inhabit is the Falkland Islands in the South Atlantic Ocean.
Habitat: Gentoo penguins typically are found along the shoreline. This allows the penguins to be able to quickly access food while remaining close to their nest.
The major difference between gentoo penguins and other penguin species are their head markings.
Gentoos feature two white wedges around their eyes that are connected by a medium-sized line across the tops of their heads.
Their heads are mostly covered in black feathers but small flecks of white feathers can also be found.
Conservation Status
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.wionews.com/science/extremely-rare-white-gentoo-penguin-spotted-in-antarctica-heres-why-its-unique-680223
Consider the following statements regarding the FASTag:
- It employs Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology for making toll payments.
- It is not vehicle specific and can be transferred to another vehicle.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) has launched the ‘One Vehicle, One FASTag’ initiative.
FASTag is a device that employs Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology for making toll payments directly while the vehicle is in motion.
It is a RFID passive tag used for making toll payments directly from the customers linked prepaid or savings/current account.
It is affixed on the windscreen of the vehicle and enables the customer to drive through toll plazas, without stopping for any toll payments.
The toll fare is directly deducted from the linked account of the customer.
It is also vehicle specific and once it is affixed to a vehicle, it cannot be transferred to another vehicle.
FASTag can be purchased from any of the National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) Member Banks.
If a FASTag is linked to the prepaid account, then it needs to be recharged/ topped-up as per the usage of the customer.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Jan/15/complete-kyc-for-fastag-before-jan-31-to-avoid-deactivation-mandates-centre
Consider the following statements regarding the Instrument Landing System in aviation sector:
- It is a ground-based radio navigation system.
- It helps pilots in maintaining the correct approach path during low-visibility conditions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Thick mist which hampers flight operations, necessitating the reliance on instruments like the “Instrument Landing System” (ILS) to navigate through the obscured surroundings.
It is a ground-based radio navigation system that provides pilots with accurate information about their aircraft’s position and alignment with the runway.
It comprises two main components, the localiser, and the glide slope,
The localizer ensures lateral alignment, guiding the aircraft along the correct azimuth toward the runway centerline.
Simultaneously, the glide slope provides vertical guidance, aiding pilots in maintaining the proper descent angle for a safe landing.
It guides pilots along both horizontal and vertical axes, aiding them in maintaining the correct approach path during low-visibility conditions.
With the help of ILS systems, pilots are able to understand how their aircraft is positioned with respect to an airport runway without needing to physically see it.
This system warns pilots in case their jets are not flying to meet the runway’s centreline.
It will also warn pilots in case their jets are too low or too high and thus, at the risk of undershooting or overshooting the runway.
Both of these tasks performed by the Instrument Landing System are crucial in ensuring landing in cases where the pilots aren’t able to see the runway clearly.
In addition to ILS, modern aircraft are equipped with advanced avionics and autopilot systems that enhance precision during foggy landings.
These systems, often coupled with radar altimeters, help maintain a stable descent and ensure the aircraft follows the designated glide path with minimal reliance on external visibility.
It is a standard International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) precision landing aid that is used to provide accurate azimuth (angular measurement in a spherical coordinate system) and descent guidance signals for guidance to flight for landing on the runway under adverse weather conditions.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/airlines-aviation-fe-explained-how-do-flights-land-safely-despite-fog-and-low-visibility-the-wizardry-tech-that-makes-it-possible-3365428/
‘Exercise Ayutthaya’ is conducted between India and:
A.
Bangladesh
B.
Nepal
C.
Sri Lanka
D.
Thailand
Explanation :
Recently, the maiden Bilateral Maritime Exercise -Ayutthaya’ between the Indian Navy (IN) and Royal Thai Navy (RTN) was conducted.
The India-Thailand Bilateral Exercise is being named as ‘Ex-Ayutthaya’, which literally translates to ‘The Invincible One’ or ‘Undefeatable’.
It symbolises the significance of two of the oldest cities Ayodhya in India and Ayutthaya in Thailand, the historic legacies, rich cultural ties and shared historical narratives dating back to several centuries.
Indigenously built Indian Naval ships Kulish and IN LCU 56 participated in the inaugural edition of the exercise.
With the institution of a Bilateral Exercise, both navies have taken a step towards strengthening operational synergy and progressively increasing the exercise complexity.
During the maiden edition of the exercise, participating units from both navies conducted surface and anti-air exercises including weapon firing, seamanship evolutions and tactical manoeuvres.
The 36th edition of India-Thailand Coordinated Patrol (Indo-Thai CORPAT) was also conducted along with the maiden bilateral exercise.
Maritime Patrol Aircraft from both navies participated in the Sea Phase of the exercise.
As part of Government of India’s vision of SAGAR (Security And Growth for All in the Region), the Indian Navy has been proactively engaging with countries in the Indian Ocean Region towards enhancing regional maritime security.
The Indian Navy and Royal Thai Navy have maintained a close and friendly relationship which has strengthened over the years.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1996344
With reference to Guru Gobind Singh, consider the following statements:
- He was the 10th and last Guru of the Sikhs.
- He founded the Sikh warrior community called Khalsa.
- He was an author of the Dasam Granth.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Guru Gobind Singh Jayanti, or the Prakash Parv of the tenth Sikh Guru, is celebrated on January 17 this year.
About Guru Gobind Singh:
He was the 10th and last Guru of the Sikhs.
Born as Gobind Rai on December 22, 1666, in Patna, Bihar, Guru Gobind Singh was the son of the ninth Guru of Sikhism, Guru Teg Bahadur.
He became the spiritual and temporal leader of the Sikhs on November 11, 1675, at the age of nine, following the martyrdom of his father, Guru Tegh Bahadur, at the hands of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb in 1675.
He was renowned as a warrior, a poet, and a prophet.
He is fondly remembered by Sikhs as a defender of the faith and a champion of equality and justice.
Among his notable contributions to Sikhism are founding the Sikh warrior community called Khalsa in 1699.
He introduced the Five Ks, the five articles of faith that Khalsa Sikhs wear at all times. These are Kesh: uncut hair, Kangha: a wooden comb, Kara: an iron or steel bracelet worn on the wrist, Kirpan: a sword, and Kacchera: short breeches.
Throughout his life, he engaged in numerous battles against the Mughal Empire and their allies, totaling 21 battles.
Some of the notable battles include the Battle of Bhangani, the Battle of Nadaun, the Battle of Anandpur, the Battle of Chamkaur, the Battle of Muktsar, and the Battle of Khidrana.
He authored numerous literary works in various languages. Among his famous works are Jaap Sahib, the Tav-Prasad Savaiye, and the Benti Chaupai.
He further codified Sikh law, wrote martial poetry and music, and was the reputed author of the Sikh work called the Dasam Granth (“Tenth Volume”).
Guru Gobind Singh proclaimed that he was the last of the personal Gurus. From that point forward, the Sikh Guru was to be the holy book, the Guru Granth Sahib (Sikh Holy Book).
He was assassinated in 1708, at the age of 41.
His birth anniversary is called Guru Gobind Singh Jayanti, and his death anniversary is called Guru Gaddi Diwas.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livemint.com/news/india/guru-gobind-singh-jayanti-2024-history-wishes-and-timeless-quotes-by-the-last-guru-of-sikhism-11705419714195.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Panama Canal:
- It is an artificial waterway that connects the Atlantic Ocean with the Pacific Ocean.
- The United States has full authority regarding the administration and operation of the canal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Scientists recently stumbled upon a lost forest in the Panama Canal, dating back around 22 million years.
About Panama Canal:
It is an artificial waterway that connects the Atlantic Ocean with the Pacific Ocean.
The canal cuts across the Isthmus of Panama and is a conduit for maritime trade.
It was cut through one of the narrowest saddles of the isthmus that joins North and South America.
It is one of the two most strategic artificial waterways in the world, the other being the Suez Canal.
It is approximately 80 kilometers long.
It consists of a series of locks that raise and lower the water level to facilitate the passage of ships through the continental divide.
History:
France began work on the canal in 1881, but financial troubles and diseases made the initiative fail.
The United States took over the project on May 4, 1904, and opened the canal on August 15, 1914, and then managed the waterway until 1999.
On December 31, 1999, Panama took over full operation, administration, and maintenance of the Canal, in compliance with the Torrijos-Carter Treaties negotiated with the United States in 1977.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.republicworld.com/science/mind-blowing-22-million-year-old-lost-forest-discovered-in-panama-canal-all-you-need-to-know/
What is ‘Paramyrothecium indicum’, that was in the news recently?
A phytopathogenic fungus
Explanation :
Scientists recently discovered a new species of fungus in Kerala, named ‘Paramyrothecium indicum’.
About Paramyrothecium indicum:
It is a new species of phytopathogenic fungus.
Phytopathogens are parasites surviving on a plant host.
Most of Paramyrothecium are phytopathogens.
They are responsible for “serious plant diseases which might negatively affect crop productivity.
Paramyrothecium leaf spots are a type of fungal disease that can affect a variety of plants.
Some species of Paramyrothecium produce secondary metabolites with bio-herbicidal potentials” and, therefore, may find application in controlling weeds.
Key Facts about Fungi:
Fungi, along with Animalia (animals), Plantae (plants), Protista, Archaea/Archaebacteria, and Bacteria or Eubacteria, form the six ‘kingdoms’ of biology.
Fungiincludes the yeasts, rusts, smuts, mildews, molds, and mushrooms.
They are eukaryotic organisms, i.e., their cells contain membrane-bound organelles and clearly defined nuclei.
Reproduction: Fungi usually reproduce both sexually and asexually.
Distribution:
Fungi are either terrestrial or aquatic, the latter living in freshwater or marine environments.
They are found in all temperate and tropical regions of the world where there is sufficient moisture to enable them to grow.
A group called the decomposers grows in the soil or on dead plant matter, where they play an important role in the cycling of carbon and other elements.
Some are parasites of plants causing diseases such as mildews, rusts, scabs, or canker. In crops, fungal diseases can lead to significant monetary losses for the farmer.
A very small number of fungi cause diseases in animals. In humans, these include skin diseases such as athletes’ foot, ringworm, and thrush.
Fungi are essential to many household and industrial processes, notably the making of bread, wine, beer, and certain cheeses.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://news.careers360.com/kfri-bhu-bsi-scientists-discover-new-fungus-species-kerala-thrissur-paramyrothecium-indicum-botany
Consider the following statements regarding Pinaka Weapon System:
- It is a multi-barrel rocket launcher developed by India.
- It has a range of more than 1000 km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
According to defence officials, two South American countries have shown interest in the Pinaka multi-barrel rocket launchers.
About Pinaka:
Pinaka is a Multi-Barrel Rocket Launcher (MBRL).
The Pinaka MBRL is designed by the Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE), a laboratory of the DRDO.
It was first used during the Kargil War, where it successfully neutralised Pakistan Army positions on the mountain tops.
It delivers lethal and responsive fire against a variety of area targets, such as exposed enemy troops, armoured and soft-skin vehicles, communication centres, air terminal complexes, and fuel and ammunition dumps.
Features:
It consists of a multi-tube launcher vehicle, a replenishment-cum-loader vehicle, a replenishment vehicle, and a command post vehicle.
The rocket launcher has two pods containing six rockets eachand can neutralise an area of 700 × 500 square metres within 48 seconds.
The launcher system is supported on four hydraulically actuated outriggers at the time of firing.
It has a range of 60 to 75 kilometers.
The system is mounted on a Tatra truck for mobility.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.firstpost.com/india/south-american-nations-showing-interest-in-pinaka-drdo-working-on-developing-it-with-strike-ranges-up-to-200-km-13621732.html
Consider the following statements regarding Kolam Tribal Community:
- They are listed as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG).
- They are found mainly in north east Indian States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Central government will extend basic facilities to the endangered Kolam tribe under the Jan Jati Adivasi Nyay Maha Abhiyan, with a focus on health and education.
About Kolam Tribes:
Kolam tribes, also known as Kolamboli, Kulme and Kolmi, occupy a major portion of Madhya Pradesh.
The main concentration of this tribe is on the plains and in the mountainous region.
These tribal groups are reckoned as scheduled tribes and apart from Madhya Pradesh they reside in some parts of Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh.
They are listed as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) in the state of Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh.
History:
Around the twelfth century, the Kolam served as priests for the Gond, representing some of their important gods.
It is generally accepted that the Kolam descended from the original population in the area.
Since they now live near the Gond, they have adopted much of the Gond lifestyle.
The Kolam people aredivided into different clans, like Chal Deve, Pach Deve, Saha Deve, and Sat Deve.
Marriages between the same clans are not permissible.
The Kolams use the name of their clans as their surnames.
Their society is patrilineal, meaning that the line of descent is traced through the males.
The Kolam are mainly farmers and forest workers. In times past, they used shifting cultivation on the hill slopes. Today, they primarily live as settled farmers and use plow cultivation.
They speak a Dravidian language called Kolami, and nearly all of the adults also speak Marathi, Telugu, or Gondi.
They also speak other languages like Marathi, Telugu or Gondi.
For writing, this Kolma tribal community uses the famous Devnagari script.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.deccanchronicle.com/south/telangana/vulnerable-tribal-villages-set-to-benefit-from-centres-scheme-878612
Recently, Japanese Yen Denominated Green Bonds were issued by:
REC limited
Explanation :
REC Limited, a Maharatna Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) under the Ministry of Power, has achieved a significant milestone by issuing its inaugural Japanese Yen (JPY) 61.1 billion green bonds under Global Medium Term Notes Programme.
It is REC Limited’s eleventh venture into the international bond market and inaugural Yen Bond issuance, which is also the first Yen Green Bonds issuance by any Indian PSU
Time period: 5-year, 5.25-year and 10-year bonds issued at yield of 1.76%, 1.79% and 2.20% respectively
It is the largest ever Euro-Yen issuance in South and South East Asia
It is the largest Yen-denominated issuance from India.
Largest non-sovereign Yen-denominated issuance ever from South and South East Asia
The transaction witnessed interest from both Japanese and international accounts, with number of orders from each at 50%, international allocation being one of the highest for any other Indian Yen deal.
These bonds will be rated Baa3/BBB–/BBB+ (Moody’s/Fitch/JCR) and will be listed exclusively on Global Securities Market of India International Exchange (India INX) and NSE IFSC in GIFT City, Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1996580
Consider the following statements regarding the Light-emitting diodes:
- It is a semiconductor device which emits light when electric current flows through it.
- It has a significantly lower environmental impact compared to incandescent light.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Light-emitting diodes (LEDs) succeed the incandescent bulbs and fluorescent lamps of previous centuries as the world’s light-source of choice.
A diode is an electronic component which has two points of contact, or terminals, called its anode and cathode.
A diode’s primary purpose is to allow current to flow in only one direction.
An LED is a semiconductor device which emits light when electric current flows through it.
It can produce all three primary colours – red, green, and blue – different LEDs can be combined on a display board to produce a large variety of colours.
Advantages of LED
Energy Efficiency: It requires far less electricity to produce the same light as incandescent bulbs. LEDs use approximately 75-80% less energy than traditional incandescent bulbs
Durability: LED bulbs are highly durable and resistant to shocks, vibrations, and temperature fluctuations.
Instant Illumination: It provides instant illumination without the warm-up period required by incandescent bulbs.
Heat Generation: LED bulbs generate very little heat, making them safer to handle and more efficient in terms of energy utilization.
Environmental Impact: LEDs have a significantly lower environmental impact compared to incandescent. The energy efficiency and longer lifespan result in reduced greenhouse gas emissions and less waste.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/light-emitting-diode-physics-haitz-law-explained/article67743616.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the African dream herb:
- It grows only in tropical lowlands.
- Its dark brown and spherical seed is used to play ‘Hambi Kepathu’ game in Assam.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A dying traditional game, given a fresh lease of life at the ongoing Karbi Youth Festival (KYF) in central Assam’s Karbi Anglong district, has fuelled a drive for conserving a creeper known as the African dream herb.
A perennial climbing vine that is used by African traditional healers to induce vivid dreams that enables them to communicate efficiently with their ancestors.
Common names: Giant sea bean, African dream herb, snuff box and Entada rheedii
Distribution and habitat: It is indigenous to Africa, Asia, Australia and Madagascar. It grows in tropical lowlands, along the coastline and river banks, in woodland, thickets and riverine rain forests.
Uses
A paste made from the leaves, bark and roots is used to clean wounds, treat burns and heal jaundice in children.
Tea made from the whole plant is used to improve blood circulation to the brain and heal the after-effects of a stroke.
The bark is used to treat diarrhoea, dysentery and parasitic infections.
This creeper yields a dark brown and spherical seed, almost the size of a human patella or kneecap, used to play ‘Hambi Kepathu’. Associated with the origin of the Karbi community.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/in-assam-creeper-conservation-rides-revived-karbi-traditional-game/article67744074.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the e-SAKSHI Application:
- It is used for revised fund flow procedure under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLAD) Scheme.
- It was launched by the Union Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Minister of State (Independent Charge) of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) launched the MPLADS e-SAKSHI Mobile Application.
It was launched for revised fund flow procedure under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLAD) Scheme.
It will bring forth a myriad of benefits, revolutionizing the way Members of Parliament engage with and manage development projects in their constituencies.
It would offer convenience and accessibility, allowing MPs to propose, track, and oversee the projects at their fingertips.
This real-time access enhances decision-making processes, enabling swift responses to emerging needs or issues.
The application will streamline the communication between MPs and relevant authorities, facilitating a more efficient exchange of information.
It will promote transparency by providing MPs with instant updates on the status and progress of their proposed projects.
It has the features for budget management, ensuring MPs can monitor expenditures.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1996730
Pakke Paga Hornbill Festival is mainly celebrated in:
Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation :
The 9th edition of the Pakke Paga Hornbill Festival (PPHF), a state festival of Arunachal Pradesh, will take place at Seijosa in the Pakke Kessang district from January 18-20, 2024.
The first-ever PPHF was held in 2015.
The aim was to recognise the role played by the Nyishi tribal group in conserving hornbills in Pakke Tiger Reserve (PTR).
Other objectives were to raise alternative sources of income for the region and to create awareness in the rest of India about the wonders of PTR and its surrounding areas.
This year, the festival’s theme is Domutoh Domutoh, Paga hum Domutoh. It translates to ‘Let Our Hornbills Remain’ in the Nyishi language.
This year’s festival aims to underscore the critical need for preserving these iconic birds.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/arunachal-pradesh-s-pakke-paga-hornbill-festival-gears-up-for-its-9th-edition-93924
Which one of the following is the primary objective of the Chang’e 6 mission?
To retrieve samples from the lunar south pole.
Explanation :
The China National Space Administration (CNSA) recently announced that the Chang’e 6 sample return mission is on track to land on the surface of the Moon in the first half of 2024.
About Chang’e 6 Mission:
The Chang’e 6 mission is a planned lander designed to return samples from the lunar south pole.
The mission aims to land on the Moon, collect samples from the lunar surface, and return them to Earth. This process will contribute crucial data to unravel the Moon’s geological mysteries.
Representing the first attempt to retrieve samples from the far side of the Moon, Chang’e 6 is set to bring back up to two kilograms of lunar samples, adopting a configuration similar to the successful Chang’e 5 mission.
The mission involves international collaboration, with payloads from the European Space Agency (ESA) and the French space agency CNES.
ESA contributes a lunar surface ion tester, while CNES provides equipment for measuring radon gas and its decay products.
Additionally, an Italian laser corner reflector for radar instrument calibration and Pakistan’s ICUBE-Q CubeSat will be part of the mission.
Chang’e 6 will consist of both a lander and a rover.
The lander will touch down on the lunar surface, while the rover will explore specific regions, conduct experiments, and aid in the sample collection process.
The returned samples will be made available to the global scientific community for study.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.news9live.com/science/chinas-change-6-sample-return-mission-to-moon-to-launch-in-first-half-of-2024-2405265
Consider the following statements with reference to the Asian Buddhist Conference for Peace (ABCP):
- It is a voluntary movement of followers of Buddhism with both monastic (monks) and lay members.
- It is headquartered in Dharamshala, Himachal Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Indian Vice President recently inaugurated the 12th General Assembly of the Asian Buddhist Conference for Peace in New Delhi.
About Asian Buddhist Conference for Peace (ABCP):
It was founded in 1970 in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia, as a voluntary movement of followers of Buddhism with both monastic (monks) and lay members.
Its aim is to bring together the efforts of Buddhists in support of consolidating universal peace, harmony, and cooperation among people in Asia.
It is currently headquartered at the Gandanthegchenling Monastery in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia and the Supreme Head of Mongolian Buddhists is the ABCP President.
The aims of ABCP: Striving to disseminate and implement the teachings of the Lord Buddha, ABCP aims to:
Bring together the efforts of Buddhists in support of consolidating universal peace, harmony, and cooperation among the peoples of Asia.
Furthering their economic and social advancement and promoting respect for justice and human dignity.
Disseminating the Buddhist culture, tradition, and heritage.
History:
The roots of founding of ABCP lay in the Cold War politics of peace movements, and consolidation of allies, and building popular outreach among the masses through various organizations.
Most Venerable Gabji Samaagiin Gombojav, Khambo Lama of Mongolia, Venerable J. Gomboyev from Buriat, Khambo Lama of the former Soviet Union, Venerable Kushok Bakula Rinpoche from India, and Buddhist leaders from Sri Lanka and Nepal came together and officially founded the Asian Buddhist Conference for Peace (ABCP) in 1970 with a permanent headquarters in Ulaanbaatar.
It drew active participation from Mongolia, Japan, India, Laos, Vietnam, Cambodia, Bhutan, Russian Far East, Sri Lanka, Thailand, and other regional countries.
ABCP was registered as an observer to the UN’s Economic and Social Council in 1988 in recognition of its contribution to the well-being of humanity.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://newsonair.gov.in/Main-News-Details.aspx?id=475376
Consider the following:
- Puri
- Gangotri
- Sringeri
- Dwarka
How many of the above are monastic centers (maths) established by Adi Shankaracharya?
Only three
Explanation :
The four Shankaracharyas recently said that they will not attend the inauguration of the Ram temple in Ayodhya.
About Shankaracharyas:
Shankaracharya, literally ‘teacher of the way of Shankara’, is a religious title used by the heads of the four Hindu maths (monasteries) that were established by the eighth-century Hindu saint Adi Shankara.
Adi Shankara established these maths to impart knowledge. These maths consist of religious shrines, temples, libraries, and residences.
These maths are located in Dwarka (Gujarat), Joshimath (Uttarakhand), Puri (Odisha), and Sringeri (Karnataka).
Each math, called peetha or pitha in Sanskrit, was tasked with serving as the custodian of one Veda each and keeping alive Vedic literature.
Govardhan Mathin Puri is the custodian of the Rig Veda, while the Dwarka Sharada Peetham in Gujarat is responsible for the Sam Veda.
The Sringeri Sharada Peetham in Karnataka is responsible for the Yajur Veda, and Jyotir Math in Uttarakhand’s Joshimath for the Atharva Veda.
Vijayanagara kingdom was the first to patronise the Sringeri math in the 14th century CE.
The Shankaracharyas also oversee the Dashanami Sampradaya, an order of renunciates (those who have renounced the secular way of life).
Who was Adi Shankaracharya?
Adi Shankaracharya, or Shankara, as he was known, was an ancient Indian philosopher and theologian who lived in the early 8th century CE.
Birth: He was born in Kalady, a village in present-day Kerala.
Revered as an avatar of Lord Shiva, it is believed that he mastered the Vedas when he was just 16.
Philosophical Contributions:
At a very young age, Shankara started criss-crossing the length and breadth of India to spread his commentaries on the Brahma Sutras, Upanishads, and the Bhagavad Gita amid a rise in Jainism and Buddhism.
He is best known for his role in the development and propagation of Advaita Vedanta, a non-dualistic school of Hindu philosophy.
The fundamental philosophy of Advaita Vedanta lies in the unity of atma (soul), or individual consciousness, and brahma or the ultimate reality.
According to this philosophy of non-duality, God and humans are not two and the material world is an “illusion”.
His most important work is his efforts to synthesize the six sub-sects, known as ‘Shanmata.’ ‘Shanmata’, which literally translates to ‘six religions,’ is the worship of six supreme deities.
He also founded ‘Dashanami Sampradaya,’ which talks about leading a monastic life.
While Shankaracharya was a firm believer in ancient Hinduism, he condemned the ‘Mimamsa school of Hinduism’, which was purely based on ritual practices.
Four Mathas: He established four prominent monastic centers in India, each associated with one of the cardinal directions: Sringeri in the south, Dwarka in the west, Puri in the east, and Badrinath in the north.
Death: Adi Shankaracharya is believed to have attained Samadhi (a state of deep meditation or realization) at the young age of 32 in Kedarnath in the Himalayas.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-history/shankaracharyas-adi-shankara-ram-temple-9110633/
Vadnagar, recently seen in the news, is an ancient town located in which one of the following States?
Gujarat
Explanation :
The remains of a 2,800-year-old human settlement have been recently discovered in Gujarat’s Vadnagar.
About Vadnagar:
Vadnagar is a town and municipality in the Mehsana district of the North Gujarat region of Gujarat state.
It is a multi-layered and multi-cultural mercantile settlement, with its history stretching back to nearly 8thCentury BCE.
As a historical city, it was known by various names, such as Vridhanagar, Anandapur, Anartapur, and Nagar.
The town represents a continuously evolving historic urban landscape/area that played a major role in the hinterland trade network of Western India.
It is mentioned often in the Puranas and even in the travelogue of the great Chinese traveler, Hieu-en-Tsang (7th century), as a rich and flourishing town.
Features:
The ancient town of Vadnagar is an L-shaped town with Sharmishtha Lake located on its northeastern edge.
The whole ancient town of Vadnagar is built over an ancient mound. The topography of the mound is gently rising, with its highest point in the middle of the settlement, also called Darbar Ghat.
Vadnagar town is divided into several blocks, also called Mohallas or Madhs. These mohallas are named after a temple, a community, or an occupation.
The town’s fortifications, arched gateways (toranas), temples, wells, residential structures (kothis), and excavated sites like Buddhist monasteries and dedicated stupas showcase the architectural influence of various cultural periods.
The oldest temple, Ambaji Mata Temple, dates back to the 10th - 11thCentury CE, while other important Hindu and Jain temples within the town are from 17thCentury onward.
The current residential layer of the town is from late Gaekwad period (late 18thCentury CE).
Vadnagar town is surrounded by fortifications made of bricks and partly stone, covering an area of 1km east-west and 700 m north-south.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/remains-of-2800-years-old-human-settlement-800-bc-found-vadnagar-pm-modi-native-village-gujarat-2489637-2024-01-17
The Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA), often mentioned in the news, aims to:
provide scholarships to meritorious students from Scheduled Caste (SC) communities for higher education
Explanation :
The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) recently issued instructions for Residential Private Schools interested in joining SHRESHTA Scheme.
About Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA):
The scheme aims to provide access to the best private residential schools for meritorious students from Scheduled Caste (SC) communities.
It will provide scholarships to meritorious students from SC communities to study in private and NGO-run residential schools for Classes 9-12.
The scheme is expected to provide admissions to around 3,000 students in Classes 9 and 11 each year.
The core objectives of the scheme are to enhance the reach of the development initiatives of the government and fill in the gap in service-deprived SC dominant areas in the education sector.
The scheme will collaborate with voluntary organisations to provide an environment that can help create conditions for socio-economic upliftment and the overall development of the SC communities.
Implementation agency: The Department of Social Justice and Empowerment, Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment.
The scheme is being implemented in two modes.
First, there are SHRESHTA schools, which consist of the best CBSE/ state board-affiliated private residential schools.
Under SHRESHTA, outstanding students from SC communities, across states and UTs, will be selected annually through the National Entrance Test for SHRESHTA (NETS) and will be admitted to these schools for education in Classes 9 through 12.
The schools that will be part of this scheme will be selected based on a performance score of above 75 percent pass rate in Class 10 and 12 board examinations over the past three years.
The second mode is based on NGO and voluntary organisation-run schools and hostels. The institutions run by such organisations that run up to Class 12 will also be made part of the scheme.
Eligibility:
Students whose annual parental income is less than Rs 2,50,000 and who belong to SC communities are eligible to participate in this scheme.
Only those candidates who have passed or are appearing in Class VIII/X in the given academic session can apply for taking admission to Class IX/XI.
The scheme will cover the tuition fee, the hostel fee, and the mess fees for qualifying students.
Students will also be allowed to choose from a range of schools based on their merit.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.freepressjournal.in/education/cbse-issues-instructions-for-private-schools-joining-2023-24-sc-student-scheme
Qanat system, recently seen in news, is a:
ancient water-supply system
Explanation :
Some of Africa’s dry areas face serious water shortages due to minimal rainfall. An ancient system of drawing water from aquifers, the “qanat system”, could help.
It is an ancient type of water-supply system, developed and still used in arid regions of the world.
It taps underground mountain water sources trapped in and beneath the upper reaches of alluvial fans and channels the water downhill through a series of gently sloping tunnels.
The qanats have been used for centuries in arid and semi-arid parts of north Africa, the Middle East and Asia, where water supplies are limited.
It’s known by a variety of names, “foggara” in north Africa, “falaj” in Oman and “qarez” in parts of Asia.
Many old qanāts are still used in Iran and Afghanistan, chiefly for irrigation.
It’s a system that’s managed by everyone and its benefits are shared.
Some of the region’s qanat systems, like those in Iran, are protected under heritage status.
Significance of the system
The qanat is sustainable as it works with gravity and no electricity is needed. It can even be used to create clean energy.
Water lost to evaporation is minimal in comparison to surface water supplies.
It can have a wide scale impact. Qanats are multiple kilometres long and once this water hits a floodplain, it can irrigate multiple hectares of land.
It fosters social cohesion. Many people, with different skills, are involved in maintaining the system.
The lifespan of the system extends beyond that of a deep water well, which is only about 20 years. Tunnels do not clog as easily as wells.
The quality of water coming from the mountains is much better than water on the plains. It’ll have lower salinity and be better for crops and people.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/water/an-ancient-system-that-could-bring-water-to-dry-areas-93926
Consider the following statements regarding the National Essential Diagnostics List:
- It includes essential diagnostics list related to only non-communicable diseases.
- India is the first country to release this list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has begun the process of revising the current National Essential Diagnostics List (NEDL) and invited relevant stakeholders to offer suggestions on adding or deleting diagnostic tests to the current list by the end of February.
The NEDL lists the essential and most basic tests that should be available at various levels of healthcare facilities in the country, including at the village level, in sub-health centres, health and wellness centres, and primary health centres.
The ICMR had released the first NEDL in 2019 to make the availability of diagnostics an essential component of the healthcare system.
The list includes general laboratory tests for a broad range of common conditions for the diagnosis of communicable and non-communicable diseases, disease-specific tests for HIV, hepatitis, tuberculosis, dengue, malaria, and area-endemic diseases.
India is the first country to release the NEDL.
Since 2018, the World Health Organisation (WHO) recommends the development and implementation of a National Essential Diagnostics List (NEDL) to facilitate the availability of In-Vitro Diagnostics (IVDs) across the various tiers of the healthcare pyramid, facilities with or without a laboratory onsite.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/icmr-starts-revising-current-national-essential-diagnostics-list-for-first-time/article67744728.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian vulture:
- It is an old world vulture native to Asia.
- It is usually found in savannas and other open habitats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Consider the following statements regarding the Indian vulture:
- It is an old world vulture native to Asia.
- It is usually found in savannas and other open habitats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
First in many years, a vulture was spotted in the skyline of Thane which has not been spotted over two decades in the city.
The Indian vulture (Gyps indicus) is an Old World vulture native to Asia.
They are also known as Indian long-billed vultures due to their comparatively longer beak.
It is a medium-sized and bulky scavengers feeding mostly on the carcasses of dead animals.
Females of this species are smaller than males.
Distribution: These are native to India, Pakistan, and Nepal.
Habitat: They are usually found in savannas and other open habitats around villages, cities, and near cultivated areas.
Threats: The Indian vulture has suffered a 97-99% population decrease due to poisoning caused by the veterinary drug diclofenac. This drug is toxic for vultures; it was given to working animals as it reduced joint pain and so kept them working for longer.
Conservation status
IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/mumbai/rare-sight-of-indian-vulture-spotted-in-thane/article67749435.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Thiruvalluvar:
- He was a Tamil poet and philosopher.
- His most popular work is Thirukkuṛaḷ which is a collection of couplets on ethics and politics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India paid tributes to Saint Thiruvalluvar on Thiruvalluvar Day.
Thiruvalluvar Day was first celebrated on May 17 and 18 in 1935.
In the present time, it is usually observed either on January 15 or 16 in Tamil Nadu and is a part of Pongal celebrations.
The occasion is named after and honours the poet, Thiruvalluvar.
Who is Thiruvalluvar?
He was a poet and philosopher, is regarded as a cultural icon by Tamils.
He is fondly referred to as Valluvar by Tamils.
His most popular work is Thirukkuṛaḷ, a collection of couplets on ethics, politics, economy and love.
Thiruvalluvar’s primary work Thirukkural contains 1330 couplets (kurals) that are divided into 133 sections of 10 couplets each.
The text is divided into three parts with teachings on dharma, artha, and kama (virtue, wealth and love).
Each section covers a wide range of topics and imparts moral, ethical, and practical guidance to the readers.
The couplets are composed in a concise and poetic form, making them easily memorable and quotable.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1996501
Senna spectabilis, recently in news, is a/an:
Invasive plant
Explanation :
The Forest Department of Tamil Nadu has cleared 356.50 hectares of invasive growth of Senna spectabilis that posed a threat to biodiversity conservation in Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (STR).
It is a species of the legume family.
It is native to South and Central America and is grown as an ornamental plant as it has bright yellow flowers.
It was introduced as shade trees for coffee and firewood in the country; it soon became a threat to native tree species as its dense foliage prevented the growth of other indigenous trees and grass species.
It is considered as Least Concern under the IUCN Red List.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Coimbatore/invasive-species-removed-from-over-356-hectares-in-sathyamangalam-tiger-reserve/article67744453.ece
The Crohn’s disease, a type of Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD), most commonly affects:
small intestines
Explanation :
A recent Scientific Reports study investigated the association between migraine and the development of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD).
About Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD):
IBD is a term that describes disorders involving long-standing (chronic) inflammation of tissues in your digestive tract.
For some people, IBD is only a mild illness. For others, it’s a debilitating condition that can lead to life-threatening complications.
Types of IBD include:
Ulcerative colitis: This condition involves inflammation and sores (ulcers) along the lining of your large intestine (colon) and rectum.
Crohn’s disease.
This type of IBD is characterized by inflammation of the lining of your digestive tract, which often involves the deeper layers of the digestive tract.
Crohn’s disease most commonly affects the small intestine. However, it can also affect the large intestine and, uncommonly, the upper gastrointestinal tract.
A third category, indeterminate colitis IBD, refers to IBD that has features of both Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.news-medical.net/news/20240115/Migraine-linked-to-increased-risk-of-inflammatory-bowel-disease-in-new-study.aspx
Consider the following statements regarding Bhitarkanika National Park:
- It is India’s second-largest mangrove ecosystem after the Sunderbans.
- It is situated on a delta formed by rivers Godavari and Krishna.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Odisha’s Bhitarkanika National Park will soon be connected by rail as the proposed Jajpur Road-Dhamra railway line will pass through the park.
About Bhitarkanika National Park:
Location: It is located in Kendrapara district in the state of Odisha.
It is India’s second-largest mangrove ecosystem after the Sunderbans.
The national park that is sprawling across 672 km² of mangrove swamp is situated on a delta formed by rivers, namely Brahmani, Baitarani, and Dhamra.
The national park was established in September 1998 and was built in the heart of the Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary, founded in 1975.
Proximity to the Bay of Bengal makes the soil of the area enriched with salts; the vegetation and species of the sanctuary are comprised of those that are mainly found in the tropical and subtropical intertidal regions.
It is home to a multitude of mud huts, creeks, backwaters, and estuaries.
The area was designated as the second Ramsar Site of the state in August 2002.
Flora:
It houses various species of mangrove spread across its forest region, marshy lands, creeks, etc.
Thespia, casuarinas, sundari, and indigo bush grasses are some of the other varieties of flora that flourish in the area.
Fauna:
Bhitarkanika has one of the largest populations of endangered saltwater crocodiles in India.
Gahirmatha Beach, which forms the boundary of the park in the east, is the largest colony of Olive Ridley Sea Turtles.
Other mammals include monkeys, jackals, common langurs, otter, sambar deer, jungle cats, fox, Mongoose, wolfs, fishing cats, hyenas, etc.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/odisha/2024/Jan/15/odisha-bhitarkanika-national-park-to-get-railway-link
With reference to Isopods, consider the following statements:
- They are invertebrates.
- Their body consists twelve segments.
- Almost half of them live in the oceans.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
An international team of marine biologists recently discovered a unique isopod, a form of crustacean, that has been formally identified as a new species of the genus Booralana.
About Isopod:
Isopods are an order of invertebrates (animals without backbones) that belong to the greater crustacean group of animals, which includes crabs and shrimp.
Scientists estimate that there are around 10,000 species of isopods (all belonging to the order “Isopoda”).
They also live in many different types of habitats, from mountains and deserts to the deep sea, and they are distributed worldwide.
Features:
They are one of the most morphologically diverse of all the crustacean groups, coming in many different shapes and sizes and ranging from micrometers to a half-meter in length.
Isopods often do not look alike, but they do have common features. For example, all isopods have two pairs of antennae, compound eyes, and four sets of jaws.
The body of all isopods consists of seven segments, each with its own pair of walking legs.
Isopods have a short abdominal section composed of six segments, called “pleons,” and one or more of these segments is fused into a tail section.
Each pleon has a set of biramous (branching in two) limbs called “pleopods” that are used for swimming and respiration.
About half of the known species of isopods live in the ocean. Others live in coastal and shelf waters, moving around on the seafloor or living in plants.
Most are free-living, but a number of marine species are parasitic on other animals.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-01-deep-sea-crustacean-bahamas.html
What is the primary objective of the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF)?
Bridging the rural-urban digital divide
Explanation :
Telecom service providers have urged the Ministry of Finance to suspend the universal service obligation fund (USOF) levy until the existing corpus is exhausted.
About Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF):
USOF was set up by an Act of Parliament in December 2003 by amending the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885.
The objective of the USOF is to provide access to telecom services in a nondiscriminatory manner to people in rural and remote areas at affordable and reasonable prices, thereby bridging the rural-urban digital divide.
For commercially non-viable rural and remote areas, USOF provides subsidy support in the form of Net Cost or Viability Gap Funding (VGF) to incentivize telecom service providers for the expansion of telecommunications and broadband services in those areas.
Funding Mechanism:
The USOF is funded through a levy on the revenue earned by telecom operators.
The government imposes a Universal Service Levy (USL) on the gross revenue of the telecom companies, which is a percentage of their Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR).
This levy is collected and deposited into the USOF.
Administration:
USOF is headed by the Administrator, USO Fund who is appointed by the Central Government, for the administration of the fund.
It is an attached office of the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), Ministry of Communications.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/budget/news/budget-wish-list-telecom-industry-calls-for-junking-usof-slashing-duties-124011800938_1.html
Guruvayoor Sree Krishna Swamy Temple, also known as the Dwarka of the South, is located in:
Kerala
Explanation :
The Prime Minister, who is on a two-day visit to Kerala, offered prayers at Sreekrishna Temple, Guruvayur, recently.
About Guruvayur Temple:
Guruvayoor Sree Krishna Swamy Temple, also known as the Dwarka of the South, is dedicated to Lord Vishnu and the young form of Lord Krishna.
It is located in the small town of Guruvayur, in the Thrissur District of Kerala.
The earliest temple records date back to the 17th century, but other literary texts and legends indicate that the temple may be around 5000 years old.
Features:
Lord Krishna, or Guruvayoorappan, is the chief deity of this temple.
The temple is built in the traditional Kerala architectural style.
The central shrine is believed to have been rebuilt in 1638 C.E.
Structures like the Nalambalam (temple structure surrounding the sanctum sanctorum), Balikkal (sacrificial stone), and Deepastambam (pillar of lights) are situated on the temple premises.
The wall of the sanctum sanctorum is decked with ancient 17th-century murals.
Another famous sight here is the Dwajasthamba. It is a flagstaff, around 70 feet tall, fully covered with gold.
One of the most popular offerings at Guruvayoor temple is Thulabharam, where devotees are weighed against bananas, sugar, jaggery, and coconuts equivalent to their weight on a giant pair of scales.
The temple is also noted for being home to a large population of captive male Asian elephants.
The Punnathur Kotta elephant sanctuary, where 56 elephants live, is very close to the temple.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/pm-modi-visits-guruvayur-temple-in-kerala-attends-wedding-of-bjp-leader-suresh-gopis-daughter/article67747434.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Distress Alert Transmitter:
- It is developed by the Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS).
- It helps fishermen at sea in sending emergency messages from fishing boats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has developed an improvised Distress Alert Transmitter (DAT) with advanced capabilities and features for the fishermen at sea to send emergency messages from fishing boats.
The first version of DAT has been operational since 2010.
The fishermen at sea send emergency messages from fishing boats.
The messages are sent through a communication satellite and received at a central control station (INMCC: Indian Mission Control Centre) where the alert signals are decoded for the identity and location of the fishing boat.
The extracted information is forwarded to Maritime Rescue Co-ordination Centres (MRCCs) under Indian Coast Guard (ICG).
Using this information the MRCC co-ordinates to undertake Search and Rescue operations to save the fishermen at distress.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/isro-develops-second-generation-distress-alert-transmitter/article67752250.ece
With reference to Jagannath Temple, consider the following statements:
- It is built during the reign of Eastern Ganga dynasty.
- It is a built in the Nagara style of architecture.
- A famous annual Ratha Yatra festival is held in this temple.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Chief Minister of Odisha unveiled a sprawling heritage corridor around the Jagannath Temple in Puri.
It is located in Puri, Odisha.
It is one of the most famous and sacred Hindu temples in the world.
It is dedicated to Lord Jagannath, a form of the Hindu deity Vishnu.
It is believed to have been built during the reign of King Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva, of the Eastern Ganga dynasty, in the 12th century.
This temple is called ‘Yamanika Tirtha’ where, according to the Hindu beliefs, the power of ‘Yama’, the god of death has been nullified in Puri due to the presence of Lord Jagannath.
Architecture: The Jagannath Temple is a striking example of Kalinga architecture, a distinct style prevalent in the Odisha region.
The temple’s main structure, the sanctum sanctorum, or the garbhagriha, houses the idols of Lord Jagannath, Balabhadra, and Subhadra.
Ratha Yatra is a Hindu festival associated with Lord Jagannath held at Puri in Odisha.
The festival commemorates Jagannath’s annual visit to Gundicha Temple via Mausi Maa Temple (aunt’s home) near Balagandi Chaka, Puri.
The most famous Rath Yatra festival begins on the second day of the bright half of the lunar month of Ashadha (June–July) and lasts for nine days.
During this time, the deities are taken out of the Jagannath Puri Temple and placed on three massive chariots.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/jagannath-temple-corridor-an-attempt-to-counter-bjps-hindutva-push-ahead-of-elections/article67749767.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Soliga community in India:
- They reside in the Cauvery River Basin region.
- They are the first tribal community living inside the core area of a tiger reserve in India to get their forest rights officially recognised by a court of law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The recently launched Forgotten Trails: Foraging Wild Edibles, authored by Malemleima Ningombi and Harisha RP, chronicled the foods that Soligas and Yeravas tribes forage from the forests.
Indigenous groups Soligas and Yeravas have been living in the Cauvery Basin and the surrounding hills of peninsular India for thousands of years.
Soligas, one of the oldest indigenous communities in the country, are the original inhabitants of Karnataka and live mostly in the Chamarajanagar and Mandya districts.
Honey is an important part of the diet for the Soliga people, who still forage large parts of their food from the biodiversity-rich Ghats.
They reside in the peripheral forest areas near Biligiri Rangana Hills and Male Mahadeshwara.
They are the first tribal community living inside the core area of a tiger reserve in India to get their forest rights officially recognised by a court of law.
Soligas use Silver cockscomb as a nutritious leafy green vegetable, as it is high in nutrients such as beta-carotene and folic acids, and have vitamin E, calcium and iron.
Also the scientific community has named a new genus (Soliga ecarinata) of wasp after this community.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/food/what-do-tribal-groups-like-the-soligas-and-yeravas-eat–93874
Consider the following statements regarding the Pulikulam cattle breed:
- It is an indigenous cattle breed of Tamil Nadu.
- It is famously used in a local game called Jalikattu.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Interest in indigenous cattle breeds like the Pulikulam is reviving which is famous for a local game called Jalikattu in Tamil Nadu.
It is a popular draught and game breed of Tamil Nadu.
The cattle originated from Pulikulam, a village located in Sivaganga district of Tamil Nadu.
It is also known as Palingu maadu, Mani maadu, Jallikattu maadu, Mattu maadu and Kilakattu maadu.
These are maintained as migratory herds, and its draught and manure capabilities play a significant role in the rural livelihood of the communities rearing them for draught and organic agricultural production.
This breed of cattle is famous for a local game called Jalikattu where bulls are used as a bull-taming sport.
It is commonly seen in Salem and Coimbatore district of Tamil Nadu and part of Bangalore district of Karnataka.
Pulikulam / Alambadi bulls are dark grey, almost black and cows grey or white.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/interviews/agriculture/interest-in-indigenous-cattle-breeds-like-the-pulikulam-is-reviving-karthikeya-sivasenapathy-93972
The Chandaka-Dampara Wildlife Sanctuary is located in:
Odisha
Explanation :
After relocating deer from Cuttack, the Odisha state government is planning to introduce Sambar and Gaur (bison) in the Chandaka-Dampara wildlife sanctuary.
It is located in Khurda district of Odisha represents the north-eastern limits of Eastern Ghats.
It is also a home to a number of threatened wild animals and birds.
This landscape has got a sanctuary status in 1982.
The climate of the area is tropical climate with three distinct and well marked seasons i.e. summer, Rainy season and winter.
Vegetation: Flora is moderately diverse with intimate mixture of evergreen and deciduous elements. The area comes under semi-evergreen forest zone but the interplay of biotic factors has changed the original character of the vegetation.
Flora: Dhaman (Grewia Tiliaefolia), Bankapasia (Kydia calycina), Jamu (Syzyggium Cuminii), Gandhana (Premna mucronata), Kansa (Hymenodictyon excelsum), Kusum (Schleichera oleosa), Marua (Vitex pinnata), Sidha (Lagerstroemia parviflora), Karanja, Thorny bamboo etc.
Fauna: Elephants, Chital, Barking Deer, Wild Boar, Rhesus Monkey, Pangolin, Sloth Bear, Indian Wolf, Hyena and other mammals.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/odisha/2024/Jan/17/odisha-sambar-bison-to-be-introduced-in-chandaka-wildlife-sanctuary
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Tectonic Plate:
- It is a minor tectonic plate located in the north-eastern hemisphere.
- It forms a divergent boundary with the Eurasian plate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers recently unveiled new seismic data indicating that the Indian tectonic plate is splitting in two beneath the Tibetan plateau.
About Indian Tectonic Plate:
It is a minor tectonic plate located in the north east hemisphere.
It is bound by four major tectonic plates. North of the Indian plate is the Eurasian plate; to the south east is the Australian plate; to the south-west is the African plate; and to the west is the Arabian plate.
As the Indian plate is moves northward relative to the Eurasian plate and collides with it, a convergent boundary is created.
On the opposite side, the Indo-African boundary is divergent.
The western Indo-Arabian boundary is lateral relative to each other, giving rise to a transform boundary.
It was previously thought that the Indian and Australian plates formed one single plate as there is no clear type of boundary but recent seismologic evidence suggests that the two plates will have a transform boundary, as the drift velocities of these two plates are different even if the general direction of motion of the two plates is similar.
The collision of the Indian plate with the Eurasian plate about 50 million years ago resulted in the erection of the Himalayan Mountains.
As the Indian plate is still active today and drifts at a velocity of about 5 cm per year, earthquakes occur in the northern part of the plate.
Because of the low-grade metamorphism that resulted in the collision of the Indian plate with the Eurasian plate, many micaceous minerals are mined in the northern part of the country; in fact, India is the greatest producer of mica blocks and splitting.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/indian-tectonic-plate-is-breaking-into-two-its-happening-beneath-tibet-2489741-2024-01-17
Consider the following statements regarding the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO):
- It operates under the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
- It has been accorded a statutory status under the Companies Act, 2013.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court, while dismissing a petition for quashing a complaint filed by the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO), has left a crucial question of law open i.e., whether SFIO are police officer(s) under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
About Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO):
It is a corporate fraud investigating agency set up by the Government of India.
The SFIO was established on 21st July, 2015, and operates under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
Section 211 of the Companies Act, 2013, accorded a statutory status to the SFIO.
Objective: The core objective of the SFIO is to be an investigative and law enforcement agency to detect and prosecute or recommend to prosecute white-collar frauds or crimes.
Types of Investigations: SFIO will usually take up the following types of cases sent by the Central Government:
Complex cases needing investigation across multi-discipline and inter-departmental affairs.
Cases with a huge monetary impact on the public.
Cases where investigation can lead to the cleaning up of systems and the implementation of changes in laws and procedures.
Serious fraud cases sent by the Department of Company Affairs.
SFIO can also take up cases on its own only when decided by the Director of the SFIO, and also giving the reasons for taking up the case in writing.
Upon assignment of a case to the SFIO, no other investigative agency can proceed with an investigation for any offence under the Act.
The Central Government can ask the SFIO to investigate a company in the following cases:
When it receives a report from the Registrar or Inspector under Section 208 of the Companies Act 2013.
When the company itself passes a special resolution and requests an investigation.
Where there is a huge monetary impact on the public or for other large-scale public interest cases.
When any Central Government or State Government department makes a request for an investigation.
Organisational Structure:
It consists of experts in the fields of accountancy, forensic auditing, law, information technology, investigation, company law, capital markets and taxation.
SFIO is headed by a Director as Head of Department in the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government of India.
The Director is assisted by Additional Directors, Joint Directors, Deputy Directors, Senior Assistant Directors, Assistant Directors Prosecutors, and other secretarial staff.
Headquarters: The headquarters of SFIO is in New Delhi, with five regional offices in Mumbai, New Delhi, Chennai, Hyderabad, and Kolkata.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/are-sfio-officers-police-officers-under-code-of-criminal-procedure-supreme-court-leaves-question-of-law-open-247046
With reference to the Guidelines for Registration and Regulation of Coaching Center 2024, consider the following statements:
- Each branch of a coaching center is considered a separate entity and requires individual registration.
- Students below the age of 18 are not permitted to enrol in any coaching center.
- Any fee increase during the course duration is strictly prohibited.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Ministry of Education’s Department of Higher Education recently introduced the “Guidelines for Registration and Regulation of Coaching Center 2024.”
About Guidelines for Registration and Regulation of Coaching Center 2024:
According to the guideline, a ‘coaching center’ includes a center established, run, or administered by any person to provide coaching for any study programme, competitive examinations, or academic support to students at the school, college, and university level for more than 50 students.
Guidelines:
Registration process:
Coaching centers are required to submit applications for registration to the competent authority within their local jurisdiction, complying with specified forms, fees, and document requirements outlined by the appropriate government.
Notably, if a coaching center has multiple branches, each branch is considered a separate entity, necessitating individual registration.
Marketing Standards:
Coaching centers must refrain from making misleading promises or guarantees regarding ranks or marks to attract parents and students.
Transparency is emphasized, with coaching centers mandated to maintain an updated website containing information on tutors’ qualifications, courses, curriculum details, duration, hostel facilities, and fees.
Student Enrolment: Students below the age of 16 are not permitted to enroll, and entry is allowed only after the completion of secondary school examinations.
Fee Structure:
Tuition fees for various courses must be fair and reasonable, with detailed receipts provided.
A comprehensive prospectus, displayed prominently, should include information on courses, duration, classes, tutorials, hostel facilities, fees, exit policies, and fee refund procedures.
Any fee increase during the course duration is strictly prohibited. This applies to both course fees and hostel-related charges.
Exit Policy: In the case of mid-course withdrawals, a pro-rata refund is mandated within 10 days.
Infrastructure Requirements:
Coaching centers must allocate a minimum of one square meter per student in each class.
Adherence to fire safety and building codes, along with obtaining Fire and Building Safety Certificates, is compulsory.
Proper electrification, ventilation, lighting arrangements, and security measures are essential.
The coaching center should also be equipped with CCTV cameras, a first aid kit, and medical assistance.
Study hours:
Classes should not coincide with school hours to ensure regular attendance.
Weekly offs for both students and tutors are mandatory.
Class sizes should align with maintaining a healthy teacher-student ratio.
Mental wellbeing of students:
Coaching centers should establish a mechanism for immediate intervention to provide targeted and sustained assistance to students in distress and stressful situations.
The competent authority may take steps to ensure that a counselling system is developed by the coaching centre and is easily available for the students and parents.
Complaint Mechanism:
Students, parents, or coaching center tutors/employees can file complaints against coaching centers, and coaching centers can file complaints against students/parents.
These complaints will be resolved within thirty days by the competent authority or an inquiry committee established for this purpose by the appropriate government.
Penalty: If the coaching center breaches any terms or conditions of registration or general requirements, it will face penalties: ₹25,000 for the first violation, Rs 1 lakh for a second offense, and registration revocation for subsequent breaches.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/services/education/new-rules-for-coaching-centres-here-is-what-parents-and-students-should-know-about-fees-study-hours-penalties-minimum-area/articleshow/106950384.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding Tomahawk Missile, recently seen in the news:
- It is a Russian-made short-range ballistic missile.
- It is designed to fly at a low altitude, making it difficult to detect on radar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Japan recently signed a deal with its ally, the United States, to buy 400 long-range Tomahawk missiles.
About Tomahawk Missile:
It is a US-made long-range cruise missile used for deep-land attack warfare.
It can be launched from a ship or submarine and deliver its warhead precisely to a target at a long range.
It flies at low altitudes to strike fixed targets, such as communication and air-defense sites, in high-risk environments where manned aircraft may be vulnerable to surface-to-air missiles.
Features:
It is designed to fly at subsonic speed while maintaining a low altitude, making it difficult to detect on radar.
It uses tailored guidance systems to manoeuvre at such low elevations.
It has an accuracy of about 5 meters (16 feet).
The 6-meter (18.4-foot) long missile has a range of up to 2,400 km (1,500 miles) and can travel as fast as 885 km (550 miles) per hour.
Tomahawks are launched vertically from ships, but they can be launched horizontally from torpedo tubes on attack submarines or from external launchers attached to a submarine’s hull.
Propulsion: It is powered by a solid propellant during its launch phase. Thereafter, it is powered by a turbofan engine that does not emit much heat, which makes infrared detection difficult.
It uses satellite-assisted navigation and TERCOM (Terrain Contour Matching) radar to guide it to a target.
It is capable of twisting and turning like a radar-evading fighter plane, skimming the landscape at an altitude of only 30–90 metres (100–300 feet).
It can carry either conventional or nuclear payloads.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/japan-inks-deal-to-buy-400-long-range-missiles-from-us-4887550
Consider the following statements regarding Caddisflies:
- They are moth-like insects that are attracted to lights at night.
- They are found only in freshwater habitats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers at Baba Ghulam Shah Badshah University recently discovered a novel species of Caddisfly, named Rhyacophila masudi sp. nov., in Jammu and Kashmir.
About Caddisflies:
Caddisflies are moth-like insects that are attracted to lights at night and live near lakes or rivers.
Distribution: They are found worldwide, usually in freshwater habitats but sometimes in brackish and tidal waters.
Features:
Adult caddisflies are commonly 3 to 15 millimetres in length.
Like all insects, caddisflies have 6 legs, 2 antennae, and 3 body parts.
Generally dull brownish, adult caddisflies resemble moths, with hairy wings and long antennae, but caddisflies do not have the long siphoning mouthparts that butterflies and moths have.
Caddisflies hold their wings tent-like over their bodies when they are not flying.
Like stoneflies, mayflies, and dobsonflies, immature caddisflies are aquatic, living in streams and lakes.
Caddisfly larvae look similar to the larvae of mayflies, aquatic beetles, and other aquatic insects, but can usually be distinguished by the presence of a “case.”
Most caddisfly larvae construct and live in a protective case made from small pebbles, twigs, or other debris. The larvae build these cases using silk produced from glands in their moths.
They feed primarily on plant juices and flower nectar, though a few are predaceous.
Importance:
Caddisflies are a vital component of aquatic ecosystems. The insects play a crucial role in the food chain.
Not only do they serve as a primary food source for various fish species, they also contribute to water purification by filtering algae and other potentially problematic organisms.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://kashmirobserver.net/2024/01/18/bgsbu-researchers-discover-new-caddisfly-species/
Consider the following statements with reference to Khelo India Youth Games- 2023:
- It was organized by the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports.
- Tamil Nadu is hosting the sixth edition of the Khelo India Youth Games.
- Silambam was introduced as a demo sport for the first time in Khelo India Youth Games.
How many of the above statements are correct?
all three
Explanation :
Khelo India Youth Games- 2023 :
Tamil Nadu is hosting the sixth edition of the Khelo India Youth Games. This is the first time that Khelo India Youth Games are being held in South India.
The Games will be played across four cities of Tamil Nadu, namely Chennai, Madurai, Trichy and Coimbatore from 19th to 31st January 2024.
This edition of Khelo India Youth Games will see participation from over 5600 athletes with over 275 competitive events across 26 sports disciplines and 1 demo sport.
Silambam, a traditional sport of Tamil Nadu, is being introduced as a demo sport for the first time in the history of Khelo India Youth Games and the sport of Squash shall be organised for the first time in this edition of the Games.
The Mascot: ‘Veera Mangai’. Rani Velu Nachiyar, fondly known as Veera Mangai, was an Indian queen who waged a war against British colonial rule.
The logo: The figure of poet Thiruvalluvar.
Objective: To revive the sports culture in India at the grass-root level by building a strong framework for all sports played in our country and establish India as a great sporting nation.
It is an annual event. The first edition was held in 2018 in Delhi.
Organised by: Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports.
Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1997938
Consider the following statements with reference to Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar 2024:
- The awards are given to children in the age group 5 – 18 years for their excellence in various fields.
- Bal Shakti Puraskar is given as recognition to individuals who have made an outstanding contribution towards service for children in the field of child development.
- Bal Kalyan Puraskar is given to children with exceptional abilities and outstanding achievement in the fields of innovation.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar: The awards are given to children in the age group 5 – 18 years for their excellence in seven categories for Bravery, Art & Culture, Environment, Innovation, Science & Technology, Social Service and Sports.
Objective: Encourage children who had shown exceptional achievement in any field including academics, arts, culture and sports etc.
The two categories covered under these Awards are as follows:
Bal Shakti Puraskar (earlier called National Child Award) –
These awards are to be given as recognition to children with exceptional abilities and outstanding achievement in the fields of innovation, scholastic achievements, sports, arts & culture, social service and bravery which deserves recognition.
Each awardee will be given a medal, a cash prize of Rs. 1,00,000/-, book vouchers worth Rs. 10,000/-, a certificate and citation.
Bal Kalyan Puraskar (earlier called National Child Welfare Award)
Individual - These Awards are given as recognition to individuals who have made an outstanding contribution towards service for children in the field of Child Development, Child Protection and Child Welfare for not less than 7 years and have a positive impact on the lives of children.
The number of awards would be three. The award consists of a cash prize of Rs. 1, 00,000/ - (one lakh), a citation and a certificate to each awardee.
Institution - These awards are given to institutions who have done exceptional work for the cause of children in any field of child welfare. The number of awards would be three.
The award for institution consists of a prize of Rs. 5,00,000/ - each and a citation and a certificate.
Hence, only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1997638
Consider the following statements with reference to the Central Consumer Protection Authority:
- It is empowered to order the discontinuation of unfair trade practices and misleading advertisements.
- It is administered by the Union Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
About Central Consumer Protection Authority:
As provided in the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) has been established w.e.f. 24th July, 2020.
Objective: To promote, protect and enforce the rights of consumers as a class.
Composition:
It will have a Chief Commissioner as head, and only two other commissioners as members — one of whom will deal with matters relating to goods while the other will look into cases relating to services.
It will be empowered:
To conduct investigations into violations of consumer rights and institute complaints/prosecution,
Order recall of unsafe goods and services,
Order discontinuation of unfair trade practices and misleading advertisements,
Impose penalties on manufacturers/endorsers/publishers of misleading advertisements.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution.
Hence both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://newsonair.gov.in/News?title=Central-Consumer-Protection-Authority-issues-notice-to-Amazon-for-sale-of-sweets-under-misleading-name-of-Shri-Ram-Mandir-Ayodhya-Prasad&id=475565
SLIM (Smart Lander for Investigating Moon) mission, recently seen in the news, is launched by:
Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA)
Explanation :
About SLIM:
SLIM (Smart Lander for Investigating Moon) was launched by the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) in September 2023 aboard the H-IIA rocket from the Tanegashima spaceport.
It aims to demonstrate precision landing within 100 metres through new technologies.
It also carried two mini robotic rovers developed by Sony and Tomy for reconnaissance.
The mission aims to revitalise Japan’s space program which suffered setbacks like the failure of the flagship H3 rocket in March 2023.
Objectives:
The mission aims to observe X-rays coming from deep space and to identify their wavelengths with unprecedented precision.
It will use state-of-the-art spectroscopy to measure changes in the brightness of celestial objects at different wavelengths.
It detects X-rays with energies ranging from 400 to 12,000 electron volts. (For comparison, the energy of visible light is 2 to 3 electron volts.)
This range will provide astrophysicists with new information about some of the universe’s hottest regions, largest structures, and objects with the strongest gravity.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/world/japan-jaxa-japan-slim-lands-on-moon-moon-lander-lunar-lander-9118097/
Valabhi, Phamsana, Latina, Shekhari, and Bhumija are mainly related to which one of the following styles of architecture?
Nagara style
Explanation :
About the Nagara style:
Nagara architecture is a classical architecture of temple design in northern India, contrasted with Dravida architecture in southern India.
Nagara temples have a shikhara (mountain peak) over the garbha griha (sanctum sanctorum), a circumambulatory passage around it, and one or more mandapas (halls).
Shikhara is a symbolic representation of the cosmic order and the divine presence.
There are five modes of shikhara design: Valabhi, Phamsana, Latina, Shekhari, and Bhumija.
Valabhi and Phamsana are Early Nagara modes, derived from barrel-roofed wooden structures.
Latina is a single, slightly curved tower with four equal sides, dominant for three centuries.
Shekhari and Bhumija are composite Latinas with attached sub-spires or miniature spires, creating a complex and ornate appearance.
These modes are scholastic classifications, not rigid categories. There is much variation and innovation within and across these modes.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/nagara-style-ayodhya-ram-temple-9118010/
With reference to the Kra Isthmus, consider the following statements:
- It is located in Malaysia.
- It is the narrowest part of the Malay Peninsula.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Kra Isthmus in Thailand is the narrowest part of the Malay Peninsula.
The Thai Canal any of several proposals for a canal that would connect the Gulf of Thailand with the Andaman Sea across the Kra Isthmus in southern Thailand.
Therefore, option (b) is correct answer.
Which of the following country in South-East Asia is landlocked?
Laos
Explanation :
Laos is the only landlocked country in Southeast Asia bordered by Cambodia, China, Myanmar, Thailand and Vietnam.
Therefore, option (b) is correct answer.
The Spratly Islands, Paracel Islands, and Scarborough Shoal often appear in news, they are located in which of the following waterbody?
South China sea
Explanation :
The disputes involve the islands, reefs, banks, and other features of the South China Sea, including the Spratly Islands, Paracel Islands, Scarborough Shoal, and various boundaries in the Gulf of Tonkin.
Territorial disputes in the South China Sea involve conflicting island and maritime claims in the region by several sovereign states, namely the China, Taiwan, Brunei, Malaysia, the Philippines, and Vietnam.
Therefore, option (b) is correct answer.
With reference to the Gobi Desert, consider the following statements:
- It is located in China and Magnolia.
- It is considered as hot desert.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Gobi Desert a large, cold desert and grassland region in northern China and southern Mongolia.
Therefore, option (a) is correct answer.
The person ‘A’ wants to go Vietnam from Guwahati by land route, how many minimum numbers of countries he will visit including the country of origin and destination?
3
Explanation :
India – China – Vietnam
Question has asked minimum countries. The correct answer is 3.
Therefore, option (a) is correct answer.
Which of the following countries have coastline with the Persian Gulf?
- Iran
- Iraq
- United Arab Emirates
- Yemen
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Eight nations have coasts along the Persian Gulf: Bahrain, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates. The Persian gulf’s strategic location has made it an ideal place for human development over time.
Therefore, option (c) is correct answer.
River : Flows Into
Explanation :
Mekong river flows into the South China Sea. Hence, pair 1 is incorrect.
Tigris River flows into the Persian Gulf. Hence, pair 2 is correct.
Yangtze river flows into the East China Sea. Hence, pair 3 is correct.
Irrawaddy River flows into the Andama Sea. Hence, pair 4 is incorrect.
Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?
Jordan is a landlocked country between Israel, Syria, Saudi Arabia, and Iraq.
Consider the following statements:
- The Java and Sumatra islands are separated by strait of Malacca.
- Turkey is located between Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Sumatra and Java are separated by Sunda Strait. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Turkey is located between Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
The Levant region is located in which of the following area?
West Asia
Explanation :
The Levant is an approximate historical geographical term referring to a large area in the Eastern Mediterranean region of West Asia.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Global Alliance for Global Good - Gender Equity and Equality:
- It is established by the United Nations (UN).
- It aims to bring investment opportunities in women’s education, health and enterprise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
India successfully established a “Global Alliance for Global Good - Gender Equity and Equality” to promote women’s empowerment and gender equality.
About Global Alliance for Global Good - Gender Equity and Equality:
It is a new alliance for global good, gender equity, and equality established by India on the sidelines of the 54th annual World Economic Forum (WEF) meeting in Davos.
The alliance will bring together worldwide best practices, knowledge sharing, and investment opportunities in women’s education, health, and enterprise.
This initiative marks a significant stride toward achieving multiple Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), including SDG 3 (Good Health and Well-Being), 4 (Quality Education), 5 (Gender Equality and Empowerment), 17 (Global Partnership for Development) and more.
It has garnered support from industry leaders such as MasterCard, Uber, Tata, TVS, Bayer, Godrej, the Serum Institute of India, IMD Laussane, and over 10,000 partners from industry through the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII).
Supported by the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation, the alliance will be housed and anchored by the CII Centre for Women Leadership.
The WEF has come on board as a ‘Network Partner’ and Invest India as an ‘Institutional Partner’.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/world/davos-2024-india-sets-up-alliance-for-global-good-gender-equity-and-equality-12084971.html
The Kanger Valley National Park is located in:
Chhattisgarh
Explanation :
In a first-of-its-kind model of convergence, Kanger Valley National Park is working with a coalition of various organizations and government departments to prepare a landscape-based ecological restoration plan for the national park.
About Kanger Valley National Park:
Location:
It is located in Jagdalpur, in the Bastar district of Chhattisgarh state.
It is located on the banks of the Kholaba River (tributary of the Godavari River).
The National Park derives its name from the Kanger River, which flows in its length.
It got the status of a national park in 1982.
The average width of the park (north to south) is 6 km. while the average length (west to east) is 34 km. The area of the park is 200 square kilometers.
The entire Park constitutes core area and there is no buffer zone.
Topography: It is noted for its highly heterogeneous land formations, ranging from low, flat, and gentle areas to steep slopes, plateaus, valleys, and stream courses.
It is home to three exceptional caves, famous for their amazing geological structures: Kutumbasar, Kailash, and Dandak- Stalagmites and Stalactites.
National Park is known for the presence of underground limestone caves with dripstone and floston. The stalagmites and stalactite formations are still increasing.
Tirathgarh Waterfall is located in the park.
The Park also has a sizable tribal population.
Flora: It is a typical mixed humid deciduous type of forest in which the Sal, Saugaun, teak, and bamboo trees are available in abundance.
Fauna:
Major wild animals include tigers, mouse deer, leopards, wildcat, sambar, chital, barking deer, langurs, jackals, rhesus macaque, flying squirrel, etc.
The aerial fauna at the park consists of common hill myna, red jungle fowl, spotted owlet, racket-tailed drongos, parrots, etc.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/raipur/restoration-plan-for-kanger-valley-park-convergence-model-for-ecological-restoration/articleshow/106943005.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Lampreys, recently seen in the news:
- They are boneless, jawless fish with eel-like bodies.
- They are found only in Africa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A recent study has uncovered two potential new species of lamprey fish in California waters.
About Lamprey Fish:
Lampreys are boneless, jawless fish with eel-like bodies that date back over 350 million years.
They belong to a relic (primitive) group of jawless fish called Agnathans.
They live in coastal and fresh waters and are found in temperate regions around the world, except Africa.
Features:
They range from about 15 to 100 centimetres (6 to 40 inches) long.
Unlike “bony” fish like trout, cod, and herring, lampreys lack scales, fins, and gill covers.
They breathe through a distinctive row of seven pairs of tiny gill openings located behind their mouths and eyes.
Like sharks, their skeletons are made of cartilage.
Lamprey’s jawless mouth is a circular, fleshy sucker filled with hundreds of small teeth and a rasping tongue.
They are migratory fish, moving between fresh and saltwater to complete their lifecycle.
They spend most of their lives at sea and only move into freshwater to spawn and for their juvenile life stage.
They attach themselves to large animals like fish and whales using their sucker mouth. They feed as parasites, rasping into the host’s flesh with their sharp teeth and sucking out blood.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-01-species-lamprey-fish-documented-california.html
Consider the following:
- Haryana
- Gujarat
- Rajasthan
- Maharashtra
How many of the above States does the Aravalli Range pass through?
All three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently opined that if the State of Rajasthan believes that the mining activities in the Aravali Range pose a threat to the environment, it can also prevent mining activities in the Aravalli Range.
About Aravalli Range:
It is a mountain range located in northwestern India.
It is one of the oldest fold mountains in the world.
It runs approximately 670 km (430 mi) in a south-west direction, starting near Delhi, passing through southern Haryana and Rajasthan, and ending in Gujarat.
The range contains a series of ridges and peaks, which have widths between 6 miles and 60 miles, and elevations that vary between 1,000 and 3,000 feet.
The highest point of the Aravalli range is Guru Shikhar, which stands at an elevation of 5,650 feet on Mount Arbuda.
It is 15 km from Mount Abu, which is a popular hill station in the Aravalli Range.
Rivers: Three major rivers and their tributaries flow from the Aravalli, namely the Banas and Sahibi rivers, which are tributaries of the Yamuna, as well as the Luni River, which flows into the Rann of Kutch.
The Aravalli acts as the edge which separates the Thar desert from the plains and plateaus of eastern Rajasthan.
Formation:
It is part of the Aravalli-Delhi orogenic belt, which is a large and complex geological structure formed due to the collision of tectonic plates during the Proterozoic era.
It is part of the Indian Shield, that was formed from a series of cratonic collisions.
In ancient times, Aravalli were extremely high, but since have worn down almost completely by millions of years of weathering.
The range is rich in mineral resources like copper, zinc, lead, and marble.
It is divided into two sections: the Sambhar-Sirohi ranges, taller and including Guru Shikhar; and the Sambhar-Khetri ranges, consisting of three ridges that are discontinuous.
There are several national parks and wildlife sanctuaries that fall within the belt of Aravalli Hills. Sariska National Park, Kumbhalgarh Sanctuary, and Mount Abu Sanctuary are among them.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/supreme-court-asks-cec-to-examine-issues-related-to-mining-in-aravali-hills-247100
With reference to Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-Urban) Scheme, consider the following statements:
- It is implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), Government of India.
- All houses under PMAY-U have basic amenities like toilet, water supply, electricity and kitchen.
- It provides ownership of houses in the name of female member or in joint name.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Prime Minister recently broke down in tears while addressing a crowd during an event to dedicate homes constructed under the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Urban Scheme.
About Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U) Scheme:
PMAY-U, being implemented since June 2015, is one of the major flagship programmes being implemented by the Government of India under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA).
Objective: To provide all weather pucca houses to all eligible beneficiaries in the urban areas of the country by the year 2022, through States/UTs/Central Nodal Agencies.
The scheme covers the entire urban area of the country, i.e., all statutory towns as per Census 2011 and towns notified subsequently, including Notified Planning/ Development Areas.
The scheme is being implemented through four verticals:
Beneficiary Led Construction/ Enhancement (BLC)
Affordable Housing in Partnership (AHP)
In-situ Slum Redevelopment (ISSR)
Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS).
In August 2022, the Union Cabinet approved the continuation of PMAY-U up to 31st December 2024, with all verticals except CLSS, for the completion of already sanctioned houses till 31st March 2022.
Funding: The credit linked subsidy component will be implemented as a Central Sector Scheme while other three components will be implemented as Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS).
All houses under PMAY-U have basic amenities like toilet, water supply, electricity, and kitchen.
The Mission promotes women empowerment by providing ownership of houses in the name of female member or in joint name.
Preference has also been given to differently abled persons, senior citizens, SCs, STs, OBCs, Minority, single women, transgender and other weaker & vulnerable sections of the society.
PMAY-U has adopted a cafeteria approach to suit the needs of individuals based on the geographical conditions, topography, economic conditions, availability of land, infrastructure etc.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://news.abplive.com/news/india/pm-modi-emotional-in-tears-solapur-maharashtra-pmay-urban-scheme-remembers-childhood-video-1657711
With reference to Non-Aligned Movement (NAM), consider the following statements:
- It was established in 1961 at the height of the Cold War.
- Its permanent secretariat is based in New Delhi.
- Only the United Nations members can take part in the NAM.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Non-Aligned Movement (NAM)
Recently, the 19th Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) summit was held in Kampala, the capital of Uganda on 19 and 20 January.
About NAM Summit:
The 19th NAM Summit was held under Uganda’s leadership in Kampala. Uganda has taken over as chair from Azerbaijan, to run until 2027.
Theme: ‘Deepening Cooperation for Shared Global Affluence.’
Key discussions at the summit:
Israel-Hamas war
India’s “Vishwa Mitra” initiative
A call for multipolar world
About Non-Aligned Movement:
The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) is an alliance of developing nations that refuses to identify with any major superpower.
It was established in 1961 at the height of the Cold War. Whereas it started with Bandung Conference held in Indonesia in 1955.
Current members:
120 countries: 53 from Africa, 39 from Asia, 26 from Latin America and the Caribbean and two from Europe.
It also includes the non-UN member state of Palestine, 17 other observer countries, and 10 observer organizations.
India is one of the founding member.
After the United Nations, NAM is the second-largest grouping of nations.
NAM does not have a permanent secretariat or a formal founding charter, act, or treaty
The summit usually takes place every three years.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.firstpost.com/explainers/what-is-the-nam-summit-that-s-jaishankar-is-attending-in-uganda-13636742.html
Consider the following statements with reference to Atal Bhujal Yojna:
- It aims to improve the management of groundwater resources in water stressed areas.
- It incentivises the States for achievements in improved groundwater management practices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the meeting for review of progress of Atal Bhujal Yojana was held at Khajuraho, Madhya Pradesh.
About Atal Bhujal Yojana:
Atal Bhujal Yojana is a central sector scheme which was launched in 2019.
Duratoion: Period of 5 years (2020-21 to 2024-25), Increased by 2 years in May, 2023.
Objective: The major objective of the Scheme is to improve the management of groundwater resources in select water stressed areas in identified states.
The scheme is being taken up in 8220 water stressed Gram Panchayats of seven states: Haryana, Gujarat, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
Scheme components: It has two major components:
Institutional Strengthening and Capacity Building Component for strengthening institutional arrangements for sustainable ground water management in the States including improving monitoring networks, capacity building, strengthening of Water User Associations, etc.
Incentive Component for incentivising the States for achievements in improved groundwater management practices namely, data dissemination, preparation of water security plans, implementation of management interventions through convergence of ongoing schemes, adopting demand side management practices etc.
Funding:
The scheme is being funded by the Government of India and the World Bank on 50:50 basis.
Total cost of scheme is Rs. 6,000 crore, Out of this, Rs. 3,000 is loan from the
World Bank and Rs. 3,000 crore is matching contribution from the Government of India.
Implemented Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti.
The key results areas are:
Strengthened institutional framework and effective ground water data monitoring and disclosure.
Improved planning and implementation of groundwater management interventions.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1997895
The Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary is located in:
Haryana
Explanation :
The Union government is promoting nature tourism at 16 Ramsar sites, including Chilika Lake and Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary, to support conservation and local economies.
About Sultanpur National Park:
Formerly known as Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary, it spans 1.42 sq km consisting primarily of marshy lakes and floodplains.
Location: The Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary is located in the Gurgaon district of Haryana, 46 km from Delhi.
Ramsar Site: It was recognised as a Ramsar site, a wetland of international importance in 2021.
Biodiversity: The vegetation is characterized by tropical and dry deciduous types such as grasses, dhok, khair, tendu, jamun, neem, berberis, and species of Acacia.
Over 320 bird species have been recorded at Sultanpur, making it a vital wintering ground. Some iconic species found here are the Common Hoopoe, Purple Sunbird, Black Francolin, Little Cormorant, Indian Cormorant, Siberian Crane and Greater Flamingo.
Other migratory birds that flock seasonally include Common Teal, Common Greenshank and Ruff.
While large wild mammals are absent, the park’s terrestrial fauna is represented by animals like the nilgai.
Sultanpur National Park is an ecologically significant protected wetland that provides habitat to an array of resident and migratory birds.
Conservation efforts: The Haryana government has carried out some development works at the sanctuary like the construction of mounds, widening of paths, and digging four tube wells. Efforts are being made to improve vegetation in the area by planting more trees.
Alternative livelihood program: As part of the Union government’s Amrit Dharohar initiative, to promote tourism at Ramsar sites, the sanctuary has been included in a pilot project for skill development of facilitators, tourism service providers, and stakeholders.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/centre-to-focus-on-developing-ramsar-wetlands-for-nature-tourism/article67759192.ece
With reference to gangetic dolphin, consider the following statements:
- It can only live in freshwater.
- It is essentially blind and they hunt by emitting ultrasonic sounds.
- It is found only in India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, A gangetic dolphin rescued in Odisha. It may be indicator of more freshwater dolphins in river.
About Gangetic dolphin:
Common Name: Susu
Scientific Name: Platanista gangetica gangetica.
Population: Less than 1800 (1200 to 1800).
Habitat: Ganges river dolphins once lived in the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems of Nepal, India, and Bangladesh.
Some characteristics:
The Ganges river dolphin can only live in freshwater.
It is essentially blind and they hunt by emitting ultrasonic sounds.
It has a sturdy, yet flexible, body with large flippers and a low triangular dorsal fin.
Calves are chocolate brown at birth and then have grey-brown smooth, hairless skin as adults.
Females are larger than males and give birth once every two to three years to only one calf.
Conservation status:
IUCN: Endangered
Wildlife (Protection) Act: Schedule-I
CITES: Appendix I
Government’s conservation efforts:
In 2009, Gangetic dolphins were declared the national aquatic animal of India.
Prime Minister announced ‘Project Gangetic Dolphin’ on August 15, 2023 for the conservation of the Gangetic dolphins.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/india/gangetic-dolphin-rescued-in-odisha-may-be-indicator-of-more-freshwater-dolphins-in-river-94000
Consider the following statements regarding the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act:
- Public servants are prohibited from accepting foreign donations.
- Organizations require the government’s permission to receive funding from abroad.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Centre for Policy Research (CPR), a leading Indian public policy think tank, had its FCRA license canceled, culminating in a series of government actions since IT raids in September 2022.
About FCRA (Foreign Contribution Regulation Act):
Purpose: FCRA stands for Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, which is a law enacted by the Parliament of India to regulate the acceptance and utilization of foreign contributions by individuals, associations, and companies.
Prohibition: The Act prohibits the receipt of foreign contributions “for any activities detrimental to the national interest”.
Registration: Organizations require the government’s permission to receive funding from abroad.
Implementation: The Act is implemented in convergence with various Union government Ministries and agencies, State authorities, and a network of formal and informal institutions and individuals.
Amendments: The Act has been amended over time, with the latest amendment being the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Act, 2020. The Bill makes the following changes to the Act:
Public servants and foreign donations: Public servants are prohibited from accepting foreign donations.
Restriction on donation transfer: Foreign donations cannot be transferred to any other person, regardless of their registration status under the Act.
Identity proof requirement: Aadhaar number, passport copy, or Overseas Citizen of India card must be provided as identity proof by those seeking permission, registration, or renewal of registration to accept foreign donations.
FCRA account: Foreign donations can only be received in an “FCRA account” in a specified branch of the State Bank of India in New Delhi.
Unutilised foreign donations: The government can halt the use of unutilised foreign donations if the Act is violated.
Registration certificate renewal: Every person with a registration certificate must renew it within six months before it expires.
Administrative expense limit: The limit for using foreign donations for administrative purposes has been reduced from 50% to 20%.
Voluntary surrender of registration certificate: The central government can allow a person to surrender their registration certificate.
Suspension period: The government can suspend the registration of a person for up to 360 days, instead of 180 days.
Penalties: The Act provides for penalties for making false statements, delivering false accounts, and for contravention of any provision of the Act.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/centre-for-policy-research-wrath-of-the-state/article67760485.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT) Programme:
- It aims to bolster domestic electrolyser manufacturing and green hydrogen production.
- It will be implemented by the Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Rs. 17,490 crore has been set aside for the Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT) programme, to bolster domestic electrolyser manufacturing, green hydrogen production.
About Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT) Programme:
It is a subcomponent of National Green Hydrogen Mission.
Aim: To bolster domestic electrolyser manufacturing and green hydrogen production.
In the initial stage, two distinct financial incentive mechanismswere proposed with an outlay of ₹ 17,490 crore up to 2029-30:
Incentive for manufacturing of electrolysers
Incentive for production of green hydrogen.
Dependingon the markets and technology development, specific incentive schemes and programmes will continue to evolve as the Mission progresses.
Implementing agency: The Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) would be the implementing agency responsible for the scheme’s execution.
What is National Green Hydrogen Mission?
It is implemented by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy with an outlay of ₹ 19,744 crore from FY 2023–24 to FY 2029–30.
The overarching objective of the Mission is to make India a global hub for the production, usage, and export of Green Hydrogen and its derivatives.
The expected outcomes of the mission by 2030, are as follows:
India’s Green Hydrogen production capacity is likely to reach 5 MMT per annum, contributing to reduction in dependence on the import of fossil fuels. Achievement of Mission targets is expected to reduce a cumulative ₹ 1 lakh crore worth of fossil fuel imports by 2030.
This is likely to leverage over ₹8 lakh crore in total investments and create over 6 lakh jobs.
Nearly 50 MMT per annum of CO2 emissions are expected to be averted through the production and use of the targeted quantum of Green Hydrogen.
It has a provision for supporting pilot projects for low-carbon steel, mobility, shipping, and ports.
The Mission provides allocations for various sub-components of the Mission such as SIGHT, Pilot projects, R&D etc. to fund specific selected projects.
There is no State-wise allocation made under the Mission.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/energy/mnre-launches-scheme-to-incentivise-production-of-green-hydrogen-94003
The Parambikulam Tiger Reserve is located in:
Kerala
Explanation :
A recent faunal survey at the Parambikulam Tiger Reserve has added 11 new species records including three birds, four butterflies and four odonates to its database.
About Parambikulam Tiger Reserve:
Location: It is nestled in the picturesque and extensive Nelliampathy–Anamalai landscape of the Western Ghats Mountains in Palakkad and Thrissur districts of Kerala.
It was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2009, with a total area of 643.66 sq Km.
Vegetation:
The reserve supports diverse habitat types, viz., evergreen, semievergreen, moist deciduous, dry deciduous, and shola forests.
Other unique habitats like montane and marshy grasslands, locally known as ‘vayals’, are also found.
Flora:
The reserve houses teak, rosewood, sandalwood, and neem trees.
It is credited with the world’s first scientifically managed plantation of teak. It is home to the world’s oldest and tallest teak tree named ‘Kannimara’, which is 450 years old and at a height of 40 meters.
Fauna:
The common animals found are Leopard, Elephant, Gaur, Spotted Deer,
Sambar, Barkingdeer, Common Langur, Nilgiri Langur, Malabar giant squirrel, Sloth Bear, and Wild dog.
The only South Indian wild goat, the Nilgiri Tahr is found on the high-altitude rocky hills and grasslands in the tiger reserve.
The tiger reserve is also home to several rare small animals like Tarantula (large bodied spiders).
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/parambikulam-tiger-reserve-welcomes-new-residents/article67759339.ece
With reference to the Great Indian Bustard, consider the following statements:
- It is mainly found in the Thar Desert of Rajasthan.
- It breeds mostly during the monsoon season.
- It is classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently directed the Centre to come clean on its plans to save the critically endangered Great Indian Bustard.
About Great Indian Bustard:
It is a bustard found on the Indian subcontinent.
Scientific Name: Ardeotis nigriceps
It is among theheaviest of the flying birds.
Distribution: The species has a current viable population of 100- 150 individuals in India and mainly survives in the Thar Desert of Rajasthan that holds about 100 individuals.
Habitat: It inhabits dry grasslands and scrublands.
Features:
It is a large bird with a horizontal body and long, bare legs, giving it an ostrich-like appearance.
The sexes are roughly the same size, with the largest individuals weighing 15 kg (33 pounds).
It can easily be distinguished by its black crown on the forehead, contrasting with the pale neck and head.
The body is brownish, and the wings are marked with black, brown, and grey.
They breed mostly during the monsoon season, when females lay a single egg on open ground.
Lifespan: 12-15 years
These birds are opportunist eaters. Their diet ranges widely depending on the seasonal availability of food. They feed on grass seeds, insects like grasshoppers and beetles, and sometimes even small rodents and reptiles.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered
Wildlife (Protection)Act, 1972: Schedule 1
CITES: Appendix 1
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/how-do-you-plan-to-save-the-great-indian-bustard-sc-asks-government/article67757330.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Wular Lake:
- It is the largest freshwater lake in India and is located in Jammu and Kashmir.
- It is fed by the Chenab River.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Wular Lake has got around four to five lakh migratory birds so far this winter, including seven new species.
About Wular Lake:
It is the largest freshwater lake in India.
It is located in the Bandipore district of Jammu and Kashmir.
It lies at the north end of the Vale of Kashmir, 20 miles (32 km) north-northwest of Srinagar.
It is spread over a total area of 200 square km covering almost 24 km in length and 10 km in breadth.
The lake basin was formed as a result of tectonic activity and is fed by the Jhelum River.
The lake lies at an altitude of 1,580 m.
It is also said to be a remnant of Satisar Lake, that existed in ancient times.
This lake also has a small island in its centre called the ‘Zaina Lank’. This island was constructed by King Zainul-Abi-Din.
In 1990, it was designated as a Ramsar Site.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/chandigarh-news/4-lakh-migratory-birds-to-arrive-at-kashmir-s-wular-lake-7-new-species-sighted-101705692209855.html
What is the primary purpose of the NASA’s Ingenuity Mars Helicopter?
Performing experimental flight tests on Mars
Explanation :
NASA has re-established contact with its Ingenuity helicopter on Mars, the US space agency said recently.
About Ingenuity Mars Helicopter:
It is a small, autonomous aircraft. that flew to Mars aboard NASA’s Perseverance rover.
It was sent to Mars to perform experimental flight tests to determine if powered, controlled flight at the Red Planet was possible.
Ingenuity’s mission is experimental in nature and completely independent of the rover’s science mission.
Ingenuity was deployed to the surface on April 4, 2021.
On April 19, it became the first aircraft in history to make a powered, controlled flight on another planet.
It rose to a height of 10 feet, hovered for 30 seconds, and then descended back to the ground.
The flight lasted 39.1 seconds.
It managed to fly in Mars’ thin atmosphere, which isn’t conducive for flying.
It’s piloted by onboard guidance, navigation, and control systems running algorithms.
Perseverance acts as a relay between the chopper and the earth.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/nasa-re-establishes-contact-with-ingenuity-helicopter-on-mars-after-outage-4902668
Consider the following statements regarding the Bureau of Police Research and Development:
- It assists in modernization of the State Police forces.
- It works under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPRD) has warned users of different scams perpetrated through messaging platform WhatsApp.
It was set up in 1970 under the Ministry of Home Affairs by replacing the Police Research and Advisory Council.
Objectives
To identify the needs and problems of the police in the country.
To undertake research projects and studies, and suggest modalities to overcome problems and challenges and meet the needs and requirements of the police.
It was also mandated to keep abreast of the latest developments in the fields of science and technology, both in India and abroad, with a view to promoting the use of appropriate technology in police work.
It is also assisting the States in modernization of the State Police Forces and Correctional Administration.
The Bureau was established with the following two divisions initially; Research, Statistics & Publication and Development
On the recommendations of the Gore-Committee the bureau created a Training Division in 1973.
More recently, the BPRD has also been entrusted with the responsibility of anchoring and coordinating the work of the National Police Mission.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/bprd-warns-users-of-scams-data-breach-acts-on-whatsapp/article67756242.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Willingdon Island:
- It is a man-made island.
- It is located on the Eastern coast of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Cochin Port Joint Trade Union Forum has urged Prime Minister of India to take effective steps to revive the lost glory of Willingdon Island.
It is among the most beautiful locations in the Kochi area.
This is a man-made island, named after Lord Willingdon who was a British Viceroy of India.
It is among the biggest of its kind in India.
It is a major commercial centre and has some of the best hotels in the city.
It is also home to the Kochi Naval Base of the Indian Navy, the Central Institute of Fisheries Technology and the Port of Kochi.
It handles millions of tonnes of freight every year.
The island is connected to the mainland by the Venduruthy Bridge.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/logistics/cochin-port-unions-urge-pm-modi-to-revive-lost-glory-of-willingdon-island/article67751425.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Arogya Maitri cube:
- It is a mobile hospital for rapid response and comprehensive healthcare.
- It is developed under the initiative named Project BHISHM.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Arogya Maitri Disaster Management Cube has been deployed in Ayodhya to bolster medical readiness and response capabilities during the upcoming ‘Pran Pratishtha’ ceremony.
It is a revolutionary mobile hospital equipped with cutting-edge technology.
This cube is a part of the broader initiative named “Project BHISHM” – Bharat Health Initiative for Sahyog, Hita and Maitri.
Features
It is tailored to treat up to 200 casualties, emphasizing rapid response and comprehensive care.
The Aid Cube is equipped with several innovative tools designed to enhance disaster response and medical support during emergencies.
It integrates Artificial Intelligence (AI) and data analytics to facilitate effective coordination, real-time monitoring, and efficient management of medical services in the field.
The whole unit contains 72 easily transportable components that can be conveniently carried by hand, cycle, or even drone, providing unmatched flexibility.
In the face of mass casualty incidents (MCIs), where requirements range from basic aid to advanced medical and surgical care, the Aid Cube stands out with its ability to be deployed within an astonishing 12 minutes.
These cubes are robust, waterproof, and light, designed for various configurations, making them ideal for diverse emergency scenarios.
From airdrops to ground transportation, the cube can be rapidly deployed anywhere, ensuring immediate response capability.
It has advanced medical equipment, RFID-tagged for efficient repacking and redeployment.
The state-of-the-art BHISHM software system integrated into a provided tablet allows operators to locate items quickly, monitor their usage and expiry, and ensure readiness for subsequent deployments.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1998368
With reference to Skink, consider the following statements:
- It is a fast moving reptile.
- It is a burrowing animal.
- It is only found in deserts.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, a team from the Thackeray Wildlife Foundation (TWF) has discovered the first-ever viviparous skink genus and five new species belonging to it from peninsular India.
Skink is the common name for the lizards that comprise the family Scincidae.
It is typically a smooth and shiny with small or rudimentary legs.
It is a type of reptile that has been around since the time of the dinosaurs.
They are mostly secretive ground dwellers or burrowers.
Skinks are highly alert, agile and fast moving and actively forage for a variety of insects and small invertebrates.
Habitat: They can be found in a variety of habitats, from deserts to rainforests, and are well-known for their ability to camouflage with their surroundings.
Distribution: These are represented throughout most of the world but are especially diverse in Southeast Asia and its associated islands, the deserts of Australia, and the temperate regions of North America.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/science/researches-discover-5-new-species-of-reptiles-that-give-birth-to-their-young-ones-2858121
The Havisure vaccine, recently seen in the news, is developed to treat:
Hepatitis A
Explanation :
Recently, the Indian Immunologicals Ltd (IIL) a wholly owned subsidiary of National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) launched India’s first indigenously developed Hepatitis A vaccine ‘Havisure’ in Hyderabad.
It is a two-dose vaccine — first dose administered at above 12 months of age and the second at least six months after the first dose.
The vaccine is recommended for children as part of the routine immunization as well as for individuals at risk of exposure or travel to the regions with high hepatitis A prevalence.
In addition to this people with occupational risk of infection and suffering from chronic liver diseases also require Hepatitis A vaccination.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/health/healthcare/indias-first-indigenously-developed-hepatitis-a-vaccine-launched-in-hyderabad-2857818
Consider the following statements regarding the Food and Agriculture Organization’s Committee on Fisheries:
- It addresses issues on international fishing and aquaculture.
- India has been elected as the First Vice Chair of its Sub-Committee on Fisheries Management.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India has been elected as the First Vice Chair of the Food and Agriculture Organization’s Committee on Fisheries (COFI) Sub-Committee on Fisheries Management.
It is a subsidiary body of the Food and Agriculture Organization.
It was established by the FAO Conference in 1965.
Functions
It addresses issues on international fishing and aquaculture, providing policy guidance on fisheries management, recognising global challenges, and promoting collective solutions to ensure the environmental, economic and social sustainability of the fishing industry.
The grouping makes recommendations to the FAO Council or its Director-General.
It has also been used as a forum in which global agreements and non-binding instruments were negotiated.
The Committee also reviews specific matters relating to fisheries and aquaculture referred to it by the Council
The Sub-Committee on Fisheries Management is a new sub-group formed under the COFI in 2022, during the 35th session of the FAO Committee on Fisheries (COFI), held in Rome.
It will work closely with the two other COFI sub-committees, the Sub-Committee on Aquaculture and the Sub-Committee on Fish Trade.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://newsonair.gov.in/News?title=India-elected-as-First-Vice-Chair-of-COFI-Sub-Committee-on-Fisheries-Management&id=475549
‘Andrographis theniensis’, recently seen in news, is a:
Plant
Explanation :
A new plant species has been discovered in Theni district of Tamil Nadu in the Western Ghats by a research student from Wanaparthy.
It is a plant, which was named ‘Andrographis theniensis’ after the location (Theni).
The new plant resembles Andrographis megamalayana.
It has glabrous leaves and stems, a nine-veined lower lip, pale yellowish sparse hair on the middle lobe of the lower lip and yellow anther.
Andrographis is a tropical Asian genus native to Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka and the West Himalaya.
However, a majority of Andrographis taxa are distributed in southern India and Sri Lanka, particularly in Western and Eastern Ghats.
There are nearly 25 Andrographis species in India.
Uses: This genus is traditionally used to treat various ailments such as cold, cough, fever, jaundice, diarrhoea, cardiovascular and hepatic diseases in both codified and non-codified medicinal systems.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/hyderabad/new-plant-species-discovered-in-western-ghats-by-t-researcher/articleshow/107022167.cms
With reference to Subhash Chandra Bose, consider the following statements:
- He was elected as the president of the Indian National Congress for two consecutive terms.
- He formed the Forward Bloc.
- He formed Azad Hind Government in exile with the support of the Soviet Union.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Prime Minister of India has extended greetings to the people of India on Parakram Diwas.
It is celebrated on January 23 to commemorate the birth anniversary of freedom fighter Subhash Chandra Bose.
This year marks the 127th birth anniversary of Bose, fondly known as ‘Netaji’.
Parakram Diwas aims to instil fearlessness and patriotism, especially among the youth, inspiring them to stand strong in the face of challenges.
Key points about Subhas Chandra Bose
He was born on January 23, 1897, in Cuttack, Orissa.
In 1920, he passed the civil service examination, but in April 1921, after hearing of the nationalist turmoil in India, he resigned from his position.
He was an Indian nationalist leader who was a key figure in the Indian independence movement against British colonial rule.
Bose then joined the Indian National Congress and actively participated in the Indian independence movement.
President of Indian National Congress: Bose was elected president of the Indian National Congress for two consecutive terms but resigned from the post following ideological conflicts with Mahatma Gandhi.
In 1939, he formed the Forward Bloc, an organization aimed at unifying all the anti-British forces in India.
At the outset of the Second World War, he fled from India and traveled to the Soviet Union, Germany and Japan, seeking an alliance with the aim of attacking the British in India.
With Japanese assistance, he reorganized and later led the Indian National Army, formed from Indian prisoners-of-war and plantation workers from Malaya, Singapore, and other parts of Southeast Asia, against British forces.
Also with Japanese monetary, political, diplomatic, and military assistance, he formed the Azad Hind Government in exile, and regrouped, and led the Indian National Army in battle against the allies at Imphal and in Burma.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1998700
Consider the following statements regarding the Gir cattle breed:
- It has tolerant to stress conditions and resistant to various tropical diseases.
- It is a native cow breed from the state of Maharashtra.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India has imported 40,000 doses of bull semen from Brazil for the first time to boost milk output via artificial insemination of Gir and Kankrej cattle breeds.
It is a famous Indian-born dairy cattle breed.
It is also known as “Bhodali”, “Desan”, “Gujarati”, “Kathiawari”, “Sorthi”, and “Surati”.
Its native tract is Gir hills and forests of Kathiawar in Gujarat.
It is a world-renowned breed known for its tolerance to stress conditions and resistant to various tropical diseases.
This breed has been imported by countries like Brazil, USA, Venezuela and Mexico.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.livemint.com/news/india/india-imports-bull-semen-from-brazil-to-raise-milk-production-11705860259448.html
The Exercise Cyclone is conducted between India and:
Egypt
Explanation :
The Indian Army contingent comprising 25 personnel reached Egypt to take part in the India-Egypt Joint Special Forces Exercise CYCLONE.
It is the 2nd edition of the Exercise Cyclone which will be conducted at Anshas, Egypt from 22nd January to 1st February 2024.
The first edition of the exercise was conducted last year in India.
The Indian contingent is being represented by troops from The Parachute Regiment (Special Forces) and Egyptian contingent comprising 25 personnel is being represented by Egyptian Commando Squadron and Egyptian Airborne Platoon.
Aim of the Exercise is to acquaint both the sides with each other’s operating procedures in the backdrop of Special Operations in desert/ semi desert terrain under Chapter VII of United Nations Charter.
Exercise CYCLONE is designed to develop bilateral military cooperation and strengthen bond between two armies through conduct of discussions and rehearsal of tactical military drills.
It will involve planning and execution of special operations in sub conventional domain and conducted in three phases.
While the first phase will include Military Exhibitions and Tactical Interactions, second phase will focus on training on Improvised Explosive Device (IED), counter IED and Combat First Aid. The third and final phase will encompass Joint Tactical Exercise based on Fighting in Built-up Area and Hostage Rescue Scenarios.
The Exercise will provide an opportunity to both the contingents to strengthen their bond and share best practices.
It will also act as a platform to achieve shared security objectives and foster bilateral relations between two friendly nations.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1998549
Consider the following statements regarding the Scrub typhus:
- It is an infectious disease caused by bacteria.
- It is more prevalent in hot summer months.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
According to a new study conducted in Tamil Nadu’s Vellore, every millimetre increase in rainfall could lead to a 0.5 to 0.7 per cent rise in monthly scrub typhus cases.
It is an infectious disease caused by bacteria called Orientia tsutsugamushi.
It is transmitted through infected mites.
Symptoms
The symptoms typically include fever, headache, body ache and sometimes a rash.
In severe cases, the infection can lead to respiratory distress, brain and lung inflammation, kidney failure and multi-organ failure, ultimately resulting in death.
Several factors like vector abundance, climatic factors, exposures like farming and owning domestic animals, outdoor activities and sanitation, affect its prevalence.
This disease is more prevalent in cooler months.
In Northeast India, cases of scrub typhus occur from July to November in Manipur, July to October in Sikkim and September to November in Darjeeling.
It will not spread from person to person.
Treatment: Scrub typhus should be treated with the antibiotic doxycycline. Doxycycline can be used in persons of any age.
There is no vaccine available for this disease.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/health/climate-impact-tamil-nadu-study-links-vector-borne-scrub-typhus-cases-with-high-rainfall-humidity-93997
With reference to Binturong, consider the following statements:
- It is a nocturnal animal which is also known as the bearcat.
- It is found in India only.
- It has scent glands which they use to mark trees and foliage.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Kaziranga National Park and Tiger Reserve in Assam has received the addition of two new mammalian species, the elusive binturong (Arctictis binturong) and the small-clawed otter.
Binturong is the largest civet in India colloquially known as the bearcat.
Common names: Asian Bearcat and the Asian Civet.
Scientific name: Arctictis binturong
It is a generally solitary and nocturnal animal that spends the majority of its time moving about slowly and cautiously amongst the trees.
It has scent glands which are located just under its tail. These glands are used to mark trees and foliage to outline an individual’s territory.
It belongs to the same family as other small carnivores including Civets, Genets, Mongooses, and Fossa.
The binturong is one of only two carnivores that has a prehensile tail. (The other is the kinkajou).
The prehensile tail acts almost like another leg helping both with climbing, and gripping onto branches to give the Binturong more stability.
Habitat: It is a medium sized carnivore that is found inhabiting the dense forests of South-East Asia.
Distribution: China, India, Thailand, Cambodia, Laos, Malaysia, Indonesia, the Philippines and on the island of Borneo.
Conservation status
IUCN: Vulnerable
Wildlife Protection Act of 1972: Schedule I
CITES: Appendix III
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/life/science/kazirangas-fauna-enhanced-as-two-new-mammalian-species-enlisted-bkg/3371445/
Which one of the following best describes FiloBot, recently seen in the news?
a new innovative plant-inspired robot
Explanation :
Recently, a new innovative plant-inspired robot which is named FiloBot has been developed that climbs up structures just like climbing vines.
It is different from conventional climbing robots as it doesn’t depend on pre-programmed movements.
It instead absorbs 3D printing filament through its head and extends its length over time, just like a creeper.
The team utilised a combination of plant behaviours like phototropism, negative phototropism and gravitropism and utilises these naturally occurring behaviours in high-tech robots.
The tests for FiloBot have been successful and displayed remarkable adaptability that adjusts its growth trajectory dynamically in response to moving light intensity.
Significance
By equipping autonomous systems with transportable additive manufacturing techniques merged with bioinspired behavioural strategies, future robots can navigate unstructured and dynamic environments and even be capable of self-building infrastructure.
This new innovation has opened new potential impact of technology that can be applied in robotics, where adaptability and responsiveness redefine the capabilities of climbing robots.
Other similar innovations
A similar snake-like robot was unveiled by NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL), which was specifically crafted to work on rough terrains of our solar system’s planets and moons.
The robot named Exobiology Extant Life Surveyor (EELS 1.0) is engineered to navigate diverse landscapes, including ice, sand, cliff walls, deep craters and lava tubes.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.wionews.com/science/filobot-a-plant-inspired-robot-that-shoots-up-like-a-vine-plant-681879
With reference to Madhika language, consider the following statements:
- It is spoken by the Chakaliya community.
- It has its own script.
- It is largely influenced by Havyaka Kannada language.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
In the remote colony of Kookanam, near Karivellur grama panchayat in Kerala, the Chakaliya community is grappling with the imminent loss of its unique language Madhika.
It is a language spoken by the Chakaliya community.
It does not have script.
Despite sounding similar to Kannada it can still bewilder listeners due to its diverse influences.
It is a blend of Telugu, Tulu, Kannada, and Malayalam.
It is largely influenced by Havyaka Kannada, an old form of Kannada.
It is fast becoming extinct with the younger generation opting for Malayalam.
Key facts about Chakaliya community
The community was nomadic and worshippers of Thiruvenkatramana and Mariamma.
They migrated to northern Malabar from the hilly regions of Karnataka centuries ago.
Initially they were recognised as Scheduled Tribe, it was later included in the Scheduled Caste category in Kerala.
The mention of the community can be found in the book Caste and Tribes of Southern India.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/with-just-two-speakers-a-language-in-kannur-is-on-the-brink/article67756691.ece
The Exercise Khanjar is conducted between India and:
Kyrgyzstan
Explanation :
Recently, India-Kyrgyzstan Joint Special Forces Exercise KHANJAR has commenced at the Special Forces Training School in Bakloh, Himachal Pradesh.
It was first initiated in December 2011, in Nahan, India.
It is the 11th edition of India-Kyrgyzstan Joint Special Forces Exercise.
It is an annual event conducted alternatively in both the countries.
The Indian Army contingent comprising 20 personnel is being represented by troops from The Parachute Regiment (Special Forces) and the Kyrgyzstan contingent comprising 20 personnel is represented by Scorpion Brigade.
Aim of the exercise is to exchange experiences and best practices in Counter Terrorism and Special Forces Operations in Built-up Area and Mountainous Terrain under Chapter VII of United Nations Charter.
The exercise will emphasise on developing Special Forces skills, advanced techniques of insertion and extraction.
The exercise will provide an opportunity for both the sides of fortify defence ties while addressing common concerns of international terrorism and extremism.
The exercise will also accord opportunity to showcase capabilities of cutting edge indigenous defence equipment besides achieving shared security objectives and foster bilateral relations.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1998544
Consider the following statements regarding the Lake Retba:
- It is located in Egypt.
- It is known as Pink Lake due to proliferation of halophilic green algae.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Lake Retba’s waters are virtually devoid of life is on the verge of disappearing due to pollution and mining.
It is also known as Lac Rose (the Pink Lake).
Location: It is located north of the Cap Vert peninsula of Senegal, northeast of Dakar.
The lake is isolated from the sea by sand dunes.
Its fresh water comes from the seasonal water table in the dunes, which are higher than the lake. Thus the sea provides most of the lake’s water and all of its salt.
The Pink Lake is one of the main tourist destinations in the Dakar region, primarily because of the pink colour of its waters.
Why it is pink?
The pink coloration is due to the proliferation of halophilic green algae (living in a salty environment), Dunaliella salina, which contain red pigments.
The alga is associated with halophilic bacteria of the genus Halobacterium.
This microscopic alga’s resistance to salt comes from its high concentration of carotenoid pigments, which protect it from light, and its high glycerol content.
In fact, Dunaliella salina contains at least four antioxidant pigments (beta-carotene, astaxanthin, lutein and zeaxanthin), which are rich in vitamins and trace elements.
When salinity is high, algae with red pigments thrive, and when salinity is low, they give way to other algae rich in green pigments.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/africa/senegal-s-pink-lake-is-on-the-verge-of-disappearing-how-to-protect-it-93979?utm_source=izooto&utm_medium=on_site_interactions&utm_campaign=Exit_Intent_Recommendations
Hercules, a funnel web spider, is mostly found in:
Australia
Explanation :
In a recent discovery on the Central Coast, approximately 80 km north of Sydney, the largest male funnel web spider ever recorded, named “Hercules,” has made headlines.
It is the largest male funnel web spider ever recorded.
Characteristics
The spider’s impressive size, measuring 3.1 inches from foot to foot.
It is equipped with fangs capable of penetrating human nails, Hercules stands as the world’s most venomous arachnid.
It represents the first male of such magnitude.
Male funnel web spiders are known to be more lethal than their female counterparts
Range:
These are commonly found in forested regions and gardens spanning from Sydney, Australia, the coastal city of Newcastle in the north and the Blue Mountains to the west.
Habitat: The warm and humid climate along Australia’s east coast provides an ideal breeding ground for funnel web spiders.
What is a funnel-web spider?
These are one of the most dangerous arachnids in the world.
There are 36 described species of Australian funnel-web spiders and they are currently placed in three genera: Hadronyche, Atrax and Illawarra.
The spider has venom, which is filled with 40 different toxic proteins.
Its raw venom, is the best way to make life-saving antivenom.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/recordbreaking-male-funnel-web-spider-hercules-at-australian-reptile-park/articleshow/107060777.cms
With reference to Saint Shankardeva, consider the following statements:
- He was a Vaishnavite reformer.
- He started the first-ever Kirtan Ghar at Bordowa in Assam.
- His teaching focused on prayer and chanting instead of idol worship.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, one of the Indian politician was prevented from visiting Batadrava Than.
Location: It is located in Nagaon district of Assam,
It is also known as the Bordowa Than, is one of the most sacred sites for Assamese Vaishnavites.
It is a temple complex at the birthplace of revered Vaishnavite reformer-saint Srimanta Sankardeva.
Sankardeva founded the first-ever Kirtan Ghar at Bordowa in 1494 AD to practise and preach the neo Vaishnavite faith during the fifteenth century in Assam, and propagated the Ek Saran Naam Dharma.”
Features
It is enclosed by a brick wall and has two entrances.
The Kirtan Ghar, a capacious prayer house, was initially built by Sankardev using temporary materials.
Connected to the Kirtan Ghar is the Manikut, a place dedicated to housing sacred texts, scriptures, and manuscripts.
The campus encompasses diverse structures such as Natghar (Drama hall), Alohighar (Guest room), Sabhaghar (Assembly hall), Rabhaghar (Music room), Hatipukhuri, Aakashi Ganga, Doul mandir (festive temple), and others.
Additionally, a mini museum is present, showcasing historical articles and artifacts.
A very big festival “Doul Mohotsava” (Holi) is a yearly attraction for the devotees in Bordowa.
Key facts about Shankardeva and his philisophy
Sankardeva espoused a society based on equality and fraternity, free from caste differences, orthodox Brahmanical rituals and sacrifices.
The Ek Saran Naam Dharma focused on worship in the form of bhakti (devotion) to Lord Krishna, through singing and congregational listening of His name and deeds.
His teaching focused on prayer and chanting (naam) instead of idol worship.
His dharma was based on the four components of deva (god), naam (prayers), bhakats (devotees), and guru (teacher).
The Neo-Vaishnavite reformist movement that Sankardeva started is behind the monastic institutions called Thans/Sattras that dot Assam.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-politics/rahul-gandhi-prevented-batadrava-than-significance-9122417/
Consider the following statements regarding the encryption:
- It protects data from unauthorised access.
- Symmetric encryption uses the different key to encrypt and decrypt the data.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
End-to-end (E2E) encryption protects information in a way that has transformed human rights organisations’, law-enforcement agencies’, and technology companies’ outlook on their ability to access and use information.
Encryption is a way of protecting data from unauthorised access or tampering.
It works by transforming the data into a secret code that only the intended recipient can decipher.
This comes in useful for various cases, such as securing online communications, storing sensitive information, and verifying digital identities.
There are two main types of encryption:
Symmetric: It uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt the data. In symmetric encryption, the key used to encrypt some information is also the key required to decrypt it.
Asymmetric: It uses a pair of keys: one public and one private. The public key can be shared with anyone, but the private key must be kept secret.
The term encryption is generally used when referring to the privacy of stored data, while end-to-end encryption protects data as it’s transferred between a location – which is crucial wherever there’s a rapid exchange of information.
In an E2EE-enabled app, only person on each end – the sender and receiver – can read any exchanged messages.
This is because messages get encrypted on your device before being sent and only are decrypted when they reach your intended recipient.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/end-to-end-encryption-messaging-apps-explained/article67765395.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Election Seizure Management System:
- It is developed to digitize data for intercepted items during elections.
- It is available for use only to Central law enforcement agencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Election Commission of India (ECI) has conducted a training programme in virtual mode on the recently introduced Election Seizure Management System (ESMS) for the officers concerned from Andhra Pradesh.
It is a dedicated technology platform designed and developed to digitize data for intercepted/Seized items (Cash/Liquor/Drugs/ Precious Metal/Freebies/Other Items) direct from field through Mobile App.
It also allows Banks to generate QR code based receipt for case movement.
Key Features
Automate desired report in required format for all stake holders
Dashboard analytics for received data from multiple agencies
Avoid duplicate data entry by Agencies
Banks may generate QR code-based receipt in PDF format and issue for legal cash transfer.
In this platform all the enforcement agencies such as police, transportation authorities, Central tax agencies and others share information in real time.
The platform is for real-time updates on seizures from the field.
It is a system that ensures seamless coordination and intelligence sharing amongst enforcement agencies.
It is a platform where all the central and state enforcement agencies will be onboarded.
These agencies are required to upload details of every recorded movement and seizure of illicit cash, liquor, drugs etc.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/eci-conducts-training-programme-on-esms/article67769519.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Agulhas long-billed lark:
- It is a nest building animal.
- It is endemic to Northen Europe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Agulhas long-billed lark is adapting and surviving despite farming taking over their nesting grounds in South Africa.
It is a small passerine bird.
It builds nests on the ground mainly in Renosterveld fynbos, a type of vegetation filled with grasses and wild spring flowers.
It is a South African endemic species restricted to the Agulhas plains.
These are generally “little brown birds” that are often difficult to identify.
These larks prefer to nest in Renosterveld.
Habitat: It appears to have adapted quite well to its modified habitats, like farmlands, although its distribution is patchy for unknown reasons.
Distribution: Its restricted range is centred on the Agulhas arable farmlands, from east of the Hottentots-Holland mountain range to Mossel Bay.
Conservation status
IUCN: Near-threatened
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/africa/south-africa-s-agulhas-long-billed-lark-adapting-and-surviving-despite-farming-taking-over-their-nesting-grounds-94049
Consider the following statements regarding the Insat-3DS satellite:
- It is developed by the ISRO and the India Meteorological Department (IMD).
- It is part of a series of climate observatory satellites.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Indian Space Research Organisation has completed all key tests on Insat-3DS satellite before the final review which will be followed by its shipping to the spaceport in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
It is a collaborative effort between ISRO and the India Meteorological Department (IMD).
It is part of a series of climate observatory satellites aimed at enhancing climate services. Comprising three dedicated Earth observation satellites, including INSAT-3D and INSAT-3DR already in orbit.
It will launched by using the Geosynchronous Launch Vehicle (GSLV-F14).
What is GSLV-F14?
It a more advanced rocket utilising liquid propellant.
The rocket, distinguished by its higher capacity and the use of cryogenic liquid propellants in all three stages, presents a more complex engineering challenge but allows for a substantially higher lift-off weight capacity.
Key facts about INSAT-3DR
It is an advanced meteorological satellite of India configured with an imaging System and an Atmospheric Sounder.
The significant improvements incorporated in INSAT-3DR are:
Imaging in Middle Infrared band to provide night time pictures of low clouds and fog
Imaging in two Thermal Infrared bands for estimation of Sea Surface Temperature (SST) with better accuracy
Higher Spatial Resolution in the Visible and Thermal Infrared bands
Payloads: INSAT-3DR carries a multi spectral Imager, 19 channel Sounder, Data Relay Transponder and Search and Rescue Transponder.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/key-tests-completed-on-insat3ds-launch-soon/articleshow/107093326.cms?from=mdr
Mpemba effect, recently seen in the news, refers to:
fast freezing of hot water than cold water in similar conditions
Explanation :
The Mpemba effect continues to captivate scientists with its complex interplay of physical mechanisms.
It is named after Tanzanian student Erasto Mpemba, who brought attention to this counterintuitive phenomenon in 1969, makes for curious observation.
The effect is that hot water can freeze faster than cold water in similar conditions.
While Aristotle, Francis Bacon, and René Descartes had noticed the effect centuries earlier, the Mpemba effect caught scientists’ attention only more recently.
Different Experiments
Researchers have conducted numerous experiments to determine the causes of this confusing phenomenon, but a consensus conclusion remains wanting.
One cause, they have posited, is microbubbles left suspended in water that has been heated by boiling.
These cavities promote convection and transfer heat faster as the water cools.
Evaporation: as warmer water evaporates more, it also takes away some heat (evaporation is inherently endothermic, which is how sweat cools your skin). Both convection and accelerated heat transfer are enhanced in warmer water because such water is less dense.
Yet another factor could be the presence of frost in cold water. Frost is an insulator and could slow the loss of heat.
Scientists have also considered whether compounds in water like calcium carbonate could be precipitated by boiling, and then dissolve, thus increasing the water’s freezing point.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/reader?utm_source=Hindu&utm_medium=Menu&utm_campaign=Header
With reference to the Bharat Ratna award, consider the following statements:
- It is the highest civilian award instituted in the year 1954.
- Lal Bahadur Shastri was the first individual to be honoured with this award posthumously.
- It carries a monetary grant of 25 lakh rupees.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Karpoori Thakur, a prominent Gandhian socialist leader and former Bihar chief minister will be awarded the ‘Bharat Ratna’ posthumously.
It is the highest civilian Award of the country which was instituted in the year 1954.
Eligibility:
Any person without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex is eligible for these awards.
Though usually conferred on India-born citizens, the Bharat Ratna has been awarded to one naturalised citizen, Mother Teresa, and to two non-Indians, Pakistan national Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan and former South African President Nelson Mandela.
The original statutes did not provide for posthumous awards but were amended in 1955 to permit them. Former Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri became the first individual to be honoured posthumously.
It is awarded in recognition of exceptional service/performance of the highest order in any field of human endeavour.
The recommendations for Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister himself to the President and no formal recommendations for this are necessary.
The number of annual awards is restricted to a maximum of three in a particular year.
On conferment of the award, the recipient receives a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a medallion. The award does not carry any monetary grant.
In terms of Article 18 (1) of the Constitution, the award cannot be used as a prefix or suffix to the recipient’s name.
However, should an award winner consider it necessary, he/she may use the following expression in their biodata/letterhead/visiting card etc. to indicate that he/she is a recipient of the award.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/socialist-icon-karpoori-thakur-awarded-bharat-ratna-a-day-before-centenary/article67769726.ece
With reference to the Design-Linked Incentive scheme, consider the following statements:
- It offers design infrastructure support to startups and MSMEs.
- It aims to indigenize semiconductor content involved in the electronic products.
- The National Informatics Centre is the nodal agency for its implementation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Since announcement, the Design-Linked Incentive scheme (DLI) scheme has approved only seven start-ups, markedly short of its target of supporting 100 over five years.
It aims to offer financial incentives as well as design infrastructure support across various stages of development and deployment of semiconductor design(s) for Integrated Circuits (ICs), Chipsets, System on Chips (SoCs), Systems & IP Cores and semiconductor linked design(s) over a period of 5 years.
Objectives
Nurturing and facilitating the growth of the domestic companies, startups and MSMEs.
Achieving significant indigenization in semiconductor content and IPs involved in the electronic products deployed in the country, thereby facilitating import substitution and value addition in electronics sector.
Strengthening and facilitating access to semiconductor design infrastructure for the startups and MSMEs.
Duration: The scheme shall be initially be for three (3) years from 01-01-2022.
The scheme has three components
Chip Design infrastructure support: Under this C-DAC will setup the India Chip Centre to host the state-of-the-art design infrastructure (viz. EDA Tools, IP Cores and support for MPW (Multi Project Wafer fabrication) & post-silicon validation) and facilitate its access to supported companies.
Product Design Linked Incentive: Under this component, a reimbursement of up to 50% of the eligible expenditure subject to a ceiling of 15 Crore rupees per application will be provided as fiscal support to the approved applicants who are engaged in semiconductor design.
Deployment Linked Incentive: Under this an incentive of 6% to 4% of net sales turnover over 5 years subject to a ceiling of ₹30 Crore per application will be provided to approved applicants whose semiconductor design for Integrated Circuits (ICs), Chipsets, System on Chips (SoCs), Systems & IP Cores and semiconductor linked design are deployed in electronic products.
Nodal Agency: C-DAC (Centre for Development of Advanced Computing)
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/the-need-to-overhaul-a-semiconductor-scheme/article67768726.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Halwa Ceremony, recently seen in the news:
- It is a tradition performed every year to celebrate a successful budget presentation.
- It takes place every year in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Union Finance Minister participated in the ‘Halwa Ceremony’ on recently, a tradition observed before the annual budget presentation.
About Halwa Ceremony:
It is a tradition performed every year ahead of the budget and signifies the official initiation of the printing process of various documents related to the budget.
It involves the preparation of the traditional dessert ‘halwa’ in a massive kadhai (wok), which is then served to all those who are directly associated with the budget-making process.
The finance minister gives the go-ahead by stirring the kadhai and serving the sweet to officials.
It takes place in the basement of the Finance Ministry’s North Block in Central Delhi, where a special printing press is located.
It serves as a formal ‘send-off’ for the ministry officials and staff engaged in preparing the Union government’s annual financial statement.
Subsequently, the top officials involved with the budget enter a designated ‘lock-in’ period, isolating themselves within the ministry premises and cutting off from their families to preserve the confidentiality surrounding the final budget document.
The officials are required to stay in the Finance Ministry till the finance minister finally presents the budget.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/business/watch-nirmala-sitharaman-takes-part-in-halwa-ceremony-ahead-of-interim-budget-101706108246962.html
With reference to the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA), consider the following statements:
- It is a statutory body constituted under the Companies Act, 2013.
- It regulates the auditing profession and accounting standards in India.
- Its members are appointed by an industry led consortium from private sector.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) is going to inspect the Big Four audit firms as well as other top auditors of large listed entities in 2024.
About National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA):
It is a statutory body constituted under Section 132 of the Companies Act, 2013.
It was established as an independent authority to regulate the auditing profession and accounting standards in India.
Its goal is to enhance the country’s financial statement quality and consistency and to guarantee that businesses and financial institutions report accurate and fair information.
Composition:
The Companies Act requires the NFRA to have a chairperson who will be appointed by the Central Government and a maximum of 15 members.
The appointment of such chairperson and members are subject to the following qualifications:
They should be having an expertise in accountancy, auditing, finance, or law.
They are required to make a declaration to the Central Government that there is no conflict of interest or lack of independence in their appointment.
All the members, including the chairperson, who are in full-time employment, should not be associated with any audit firm (including related consultancy firms) during their term of office and 2 years after their term.
The NFRA has the following responsibilities:
Make recommendations on the foundation and laying down of accounting and auditing policies and standards;
Monitor and enforce the compliance of the accounting standards and auditing standards:
Oversee the quality of service of the professionals (such as auditors, CFOs, etc.) and suggest measures required for improvement in the quality of service;
Perform other functions related to the above.
Powers:
NFRA has the power to investigate, either suo moto or on a reference made to it by the Central Government, into the matters of professional or other misconduct committed by any member or firm of chartered accountants registered under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949.
It has the same powers as are vested in a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, while trying a suit.
Where professional or other misconduct is proved, it shall have the power to impose punishment.
Any person who is not satisfied with the order of the NFRA can then make an appeal to the Appellate Authority.
Jurisdiction of NFRA:
The jurisdiction of the NFRA for the investigation of Chartered Accountants and their firms would extend to listed companies and large unlisted public companies, the thresholds for which shall be prescribed in the Rules.
The Central Government can also refer such other entities for investigation where public interest would be involved.
Head Office: New Delhi
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/policy/economy-nfra-to-inspect-big-4-others-in-2024-too-3374318/
The Grantha script, once used to write Sanskrit, was mainly from:
South East Asia and Tamil Nadu
Explanation :
A team of archaeologists recently discovered two stone inscriptions of ‘Grantham’ and Tamil dating 11th and 16th centuries respectively at Pazhnchervazhi village near Kangayam.
About Grantham Inscriptions:
Grantha is an important historical script that was once used to write Sanskrit throughout South East Asia and greater Tamil Nadu.
The word Grantha denotes in Sanskrit ‘a literary work’. Evidently, the script used for writing the Sanskrit works obtained the same name.
At one time, it was prevalent throughout South India.
When the Malayalam language began to freely borrow words as well as the rules of grammar from Sanskrit, this script was adopted for writing that language and was known as Arya Ezhuthu.
Both Grantha and Tamil scripts appear alike in modern forms. The evolution of both scripts from Brahmi was also more or less similar.
The development of the Grantha script in Tamil Nadu may be divided into four periods. The archaic and ornamental, the transitional, the medieval, and the modern.
Archaic and ornamental variety is commonly known as Pallava Grantha. Mahendravarman’s Tiruchirappalli rock cut cave and other cave temple inscriptions, Narasimhan’s Mamallapuram, Kanchi Kailasanatha, and Saluvankuppam temple inscriptions, Mutharaiyar’s Senthalai inscriptions are examples of this variety.
The transitional variety of Grantha inscriptions roughly belong to three centuries between 650 CE and 950 CE. Later Pallava’s (Nandivarman’s Kasakudi, Udayendram plates, etc.) and Pandyan Nedunjadaiyan’s Anaimalai inscriptions are samples of this.
The medieval variety dates from about 950 CE to 1250 CE. Inscriptions of the imperial Cholas of Thanjavur are examples of this.
The modern variety belongs to the later Pandya’s and Vijayanagarar periods.
It was popular in Tamil Nadu until the early 20th century.
After the introduction of printing machines, many Sanskrit books transcribed from palm leaves were printed in Grantha script.
After Independence, the popularity of Hindi in Deva Nagari script influenced all printing works, and Grantha script went out of vogue.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Coimbatore/stones-with-11th-century-grantham-16th-century-tamil-inscriptions-discovered-near-kangayam-in-tamil-nadu/article67768637.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Default Bail:
- It is given when the police fail to complete the investigation within the time frame stipulated under the law.
- It is liable to be cancelled upon submission of the charge sheet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently held that default bail cannot be claimed on the ground that the investigation is pending against other accused.
About Default Bail:
The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) provides for three kinds of bail. Section 438 provides for Anticipatory Bail, Section 439 provides for Regular bail whereas Section 167(2) provides for default/statutory bail.
Default bail, also known as statutory bail, is a type of bail which accrues as a right to an accused detained in custody, when the police fail to or are unable to complete the investigation and file the chargesheet within the time frame stipulated under the law.
When a person is arrested under any section of any act, there is an obligation on the arresting authority to complete the investigation within a specified time. This period is mandatory, and not obligatory.
The statutory time frame for completing the investigation of offences under the IPC, and for filing of the charge sheet varies depending on the gravity of the offence.
For offences punishable with imprisonment up to 10 years, the investigation must be completed within 60 days of arrest.
For offences punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for more than 10 years, the investigation must be completed within 90 days of arrest (excluding investigation/arrests made under special statutes).
Therefore, when a person is arrested and the police is not able to complete investigation within the specified period, it is their default, and the arrested person cannot be kept behind bars beyond this period. This entitlement is called default bail.
This is enshrined in Section 167(2) of the CrPC, where it is not possible for the police to complete an investigation in time.
Principles:
It is a right, regardless of the nature of the crime.
The stipulated period within which the charge sheet has to be filed begins from the day the accused is remanded for the first time.
It includes days spent in both police and judicial custody, but not days spent in house-arrest.
For an accused to be entitled to default bail, the accused must have been in custody during the entire statutory period for the investigation, and the accused must not have been released on bail during that period.
A requirement for the grant of statutory bail is that the right should be claimed by the person in custody.
If the charge sheet is not filed within the stipulated period, but there is no application for bail under Section 167(2), there is no automatic bail.
Once the accused files an application for bail under Section 167(2), it is considered that he/she has enforced the right to be released on default bail.
This right only comes into place after the stipulated time limit for investigation has expired.
If the accused fails to apply for default bail after the investigation time period has expired and the investigating agency files a charge-sheet or seeks more time before the accused makes such an application for default bail, then the right to default bail is no longer applicable. The Magistrate can then grant further time for the completion of the investigation.
However, the accused may still be released on bail under other legal provisions of the Code.
The default bail is not liable to be cancelled even after the completion of the investigation and the submission of the charge sheet. The default bail can be cancelled only on the grounds and considerations on which a regular bail can be cancelled.
Default Bail as Fundamental Right:
The Supreme Court, while hearing an appeal regarding default bail, said that default bail under the first proviso of Section 167(2) of the CrPC. is a fundamental right and not merely a statutory right as it is, a procedure established by law under Article 21 of the Constitution.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/default-bail-cant-be-claimed-on-ground-investigation-pending-against-other-accused-supreme-court-wadhwans-dhfl-case-247515
Section 420 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) primarily deals with:
Cheating and dishonest inducement
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently held that while prosecuting a person for the offence of cheating under Section 420 of the IPC, it is to be seen whether the deceitful act of cheating was coupled with an inducement leading to the parting of any property by the complainant.
About Section 420 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC):
Section 420 of the IPC, or IPC 420 as it is commonly known, deals with the act of cheating and dishonestly inducing the person deceived to deliver any property to any person, or to make, alter, or destroy the whole or any part of a valuable security, or anything which is signed or sealed and capable of being converted into a valuable security.
Section 415 of the IPC defines the offence of cheating. In simpler terms, cheating is a dishonest act performed in order to gain some advantage out of it.
Section 420 IPC is a serious form of cheating that includes inducement (to lead or move someone to happen) in terms of the delivery of property as well as valuable securities.
This section is also applicable to matters where the destruction of property is caused by cheating or inducement.
The person found guilty under this section shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term that may extend to seven years and shall also be liable to a fine.
The offence is cognizable and non-bailable.
The essential ingredients that go into the making of an offence under Section 420, IPC are:
That the representation made by the accused was false;
That the accused knew that the representation was false at the very time when he made it;
That the accused made the false representation with the dishonest intention of deceiving the person to whom it was made; and
That the accused thereby induced that person to deliver any property or to do or to omit to do something which he would otherwise not have done or omitted.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/mere-cheating-will-not-attract-s420-ipc-offence-accused-must-dishonestly-induce-cheated-person-to-deliver-property-supreme-court-247430?infinitescroll=1
Consider the following statements regarding Smart rings:
- It is equipped with advanced sensors that can track stress levels.
- It can be used for contactless payment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Smart rings are the tiny but mighty wearables which are useful in health tracking and more in a barely noticeable device.
These are tiny yet mighty, smart rings pack impressive technology into a small ring-sized device.
They can monitor health stats, control other devices, and much more, much like their bulkier smartwatch counterparts.
Equipped with advanced sensors, smart rings track metrics including heart rate, blood oxygen levels, sleep quality, steps, and even stress levels.
The data is then viewable on a connected smartphone app, allowing users to analyse trends and progress towards health goals.
Beyond wellness tracking, some smart rings add convenience through features like gesture controls and haptic feedback for notifications.
For example, a simple flick of the finger lets you do things like dim smart lights or cue up a playlist. When a call or message comes in, a subtle buzz on the finger lets you know without having to grab your phone.
What can Smart rings do?
The biggest perk offered by smart rings is their constant health monitoring, which is designed such that it requires barely any user intervention.
It offers personalised breathing exercises and guided meditations to help users improve their mood.
It has a convenient feature of contactless payment.
Smart rings typically include gesture recognition, so you can perform gestures like twisting or tapping the ring to do things like turn off lights, adjust your thermostat, unlock doors, and more.
For security, smart rings can also function as access badges, letting you unlock doors and gates with a simple touch of your finger.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/tech-news-technology/what-are-smart-rings-9126057/
Consider the following statements regarding the National Voters’ Day:
- It is celebrated on 25th January every year to create electoral awareness amongst citizens.
- It is celebrated to mark the foundation day of the Election Commission of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Election Commission of India is celebrating 14th National Voters’ Day (NVD) on 25th January 2024.
It has been celebrated on January 25 every year since 2011, across the country to mark the foundation day of the Election Commission of India, i.e. 25th January 1950.
Purpose: The main purpose of the NVD celebration is to create electoral awareness amongst citizens and encourage them to participate in the electoral process.
Dedicated to the voters of the country, the National Voters’ Day is also used to facilitate enrolment of voters, especially the newly eligible young voters.
New voters are felicitated and handed over their Elector Photo Identity Card (EPIC) in the NVD functions held across the country.
NVD is celebrated at the national, state, district, constituency and polling booth levels, which makes it one of the largest celebrations in the country.
NVD 2024 theme - ‘Nothing Like Voting, I Vote For sure’
On January 25, 2024, the Election Commission of India celebrates its 75th year of service to the Nation.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1999141
Consider the following statements regarding the Wandering albatrosses:
- It is the world’s largest flying bird found exclusively in the in the Southern Hemisphere.
- It is listed as critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Wandering albatrosses are threatened with extinction and climate change could put their nesting sites at risk.
It is the world’s largest flying bird, with a wingspan reaching an incredible 3.5 metres.
These birds are oceanic nomads: they spend most of their 60 years of life at sea and only come to land to breed.
These are found almost exclusively in the Southern Hemisphere.
Their playground is the vast Southern Ocean — the region between the latitude of 60 degrees south and the continent of Antarctica.
Marion Island and Prince Edward Island together support about half of the entire world’s wandering albatross breeding population.
Habitat: They breed on several subantarctic islands, which are characterized by peat soils, tussock grass, sedges, mosses, and shrubs.
They are monogamous and pairs mate for life.
Conservation status
IUCN: Vulnerable
Threats: The most likely cause is longline fishing, as they become hooked and will drown, as well as the ingestion of plastics, which kills both chicks and adults.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/world/albatrosses-are-threatened-with-extinction-and-climate-change-could-put-their-nesting-sites-at-risk-94072
With reference to Soda Lake, consider the following statements:
- It occurs naturally in both arid and semi-arid areas.
- Africa and Asia have the highest number of soda lakes.
- It is a less productive ecosystem as compared to the freshwater lakes.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Scientists have discovered that a shallow “soda lake” in western Canada could be a good match for Darwin’s “warm little ponds” where life got started on the primordial Earth.
It is a lake with a pH value usually between 9 and 11.
High carbonate concentration, especially sodium carbonate, is responsible for the alkalinity of the water.
It may also contain a high concentration of sodium chloride and other salts making it saline or hypersaline Lake.
These are highly productive ecosystems compared to the freshwater lakes.
These are the most productive aquatic environment on Earth because of the availability of dissolved carbon dioxide.
They occur naturally in both arid and semi-arid areas.
Geology and Genesis
Geological, climatic, and geographic requirements are required for a lake to become alkaline.
A topography that limits the outflow of water from the lake is needed.
An endorheic basin is formed when the water is confined without the outflow.
The pH of the water in the depression rises through the evaporation of the lake which requires suitable climate like the desert climate to balance between the inflow and evaporation.
The rate at which carbonate salt dissolve in the lake water depends on the ecology of the surrounding area.
The relative absence of magnesium and calcium is critical in the formation of the soda lake since magnesium or calcium is likely to dissolve quickly and displace the carbonate ion thus neutralizing the pH of the lake water.
Examples Of Soda Lakes
Africa and Asia have the highest number of soda lakes since the two continents have vast desert conditions which are perfect for the formation of soda lakes.
Most of the soda lakes in Africa are located in Eastern Africa, especially in Kenya, Tanzania, and Ethiopia.
Lake Natron in Tanzania is one of the most outstanding soda lakes in Africa
India and China have the highest number of soda lakes in Asia.
Some of the soda lakes in Asia include Lake Van, Tso Kar Salt Lake, Pangong Salt Lake, and Lake Zabuye.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-01-shallow-soda-lakes-cradles-life.html#google_vignette
‘Disease X’, recently seen in news, is a:
hypothetical pathogen for future pandemic
Explanation :
Recently, the World Health Organisation (WHO) emphasized the urgent need for global preparedness against a potential new pandemic, referred to as ‘Disease X’.
It is referred to as a hypothetical pathogen or threat that can cause a major pandemic in future.
It could be a new agent, a virus, a bacterium, or a fungus without any known treatment.
The term coined by scientists and the World Health Organization could be any of the 25 families of viruses that have the capability to cause illness in people.
Disease X was included in the WHO’s updated Blueprint list of diseases back in 2018.
Scientists are of the opinion that Disease X could be 20 times more deadly than SARS-Covid virus that caused pandemic recently.
It represents an illness which is currently unknown but could pose a serious microbial threat to humans in the future.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/health/the-pandemic-treaty-can-help-the-world-brace-for-disease-x-who-director-general-94094
Consider the following statements regarding Emperor Penguins:
- They are the smallest of all the penguin species.
- They are found throughout the Antarctic continent and sub-Antarctic islands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Four new emperor penguin colonies have been identified in Antarctica from satellite imagery recently.
About Emperor Penguin:
It is the largest of all the different kinds of penguin species.
Scientific Name: Aptenodytes forsteri
Distribution:
They are found throughout the Antarctic continent and sub-Antarctic islands.
In breeding months (April to November), emperor penguin colonies are found between 66° and 78° south latitude along the Antarctic coastline.
Habitat: It is the most ice-adapted of any penguin species, inhabiting pack ice and surrounding marine areas. They spend their entire lives on Antarctic ice and in its waters.
Features:
Adults are coloured black and white with areas of orange and yellow on the head, neck, and breast.
They are approximately 120 cm tall and weigh around 40 kg.
They have wingspans ranging from 76 to 89 cm.
They gain and lose weight rapidly during breeding and feeding seasons. On average, females tend to weigh less than males.
They have two layers of feathers, a good reserve of fat, and proportionally smaller beaks and flippers than other penguins to prevent heat loss.
They also huddle close together in large groups to keep themselves and each other warm.
They are capable of diving to depths of approximately 550 metres (1,800 feet) in search of food; they are the world’s deepest-diving birds.
They breed in the winter.
Lifespan: 15 to 20 years
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Near Threatened
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.bbc.com/news/science-environment-68071718
Consider the following statements regarding the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (NBR):
- It is located in the Eastern Ghats.
- It was the largest protected forest area in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
More than 300 vultures were recorded in the recently completed synchronous vulture survey in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (NBR).
About Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (NBR):
Location:
It is located in the Nilgiri Mountains of the Western Ghats.
It encompasses parts of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka.
It was the first biosphere reserve in India, established in 1986.
The total area of the reserve is 5,520 sq. km. It is the largest protected forest area in India.
The Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary, Wyanaad Wildlife Sanctuary, Bandipur National Park, Nagarhole National Park, Mukurthi National Park, and Silent Valley are the protected areas present within this reserve.
Vegetation: It harbours a wide spectrum of ecosystem types, such as tropical evergreen forests, Montane sholas and grasslands, semi-evergreen forests, moist deciduous forests, dry deciduous forests, and thorn forests.
Climate: The annual rainfall of the reserve ranges from 500 mm to 7000 mm, with temperatures ranging from 0°C during the winter to 41°C during the summer.
Tribal Population: Tribal groups like the Todas, Kotas, Irullas, Kurumbas, Paniyas, Adiyans, Edanadan Chettis, Cholanaickens, Allar, Malayan, etc., are native to the reserve.
It is India’s first biosphere reserve under UNESCO’s Man and the Biosphere Programme.
Flora:
About 3,300 species of flowering plants can be seen here. Of the 3,300 species, 132 are endemic to the NBR.
Some of the plants entirely restricted to the NBR include species of Adenoon, Calacanthus, Baeolepis, Frerea, Jarodina, Wagatea, Poeciloneuron, etc.
Fauna:
It includes the largest known population of two endangered animal species, namely the Nilgiri Tahr and the Lion-tailed macaque and the largest South Indian population of elephant, tiger, gaur, sambar, and chital.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/indias-southernmost-vulture-population-stands-at-320-individuals/article67775835.ece
Hermit crabs are commonly found in which one of the following habitats?
Sandy- or muddy-bottomed marine waters
Explanation :
The majority of terrestrial hermit crab species worldwide have used trash as shells, according to a recent study by experts.
About Hermit Crab:
Hermit crabs are small crustaceans that lack a shell and must “borrow” one from another animal.
They use empty snail shells (e.g., whelk or periwinkle) or other hollow objects as a shelter for partial containment and protection of the body.
Habitat: Hermit crabs, worldwide in distribution, occur in sandy- or muddy-bottomed marine waters and occasionally on land and in trees.
Features:
They can grow up to 6 inches long.
There are two pairs of antennae and five pairs of legs.
They are opportunistic scavengers, feeding on anything they can find.
They have tough pincers but a soft body, which they coil up inside their borrowed shell, using their hooked tail to help them to grip on.
They molt (shed their skin) and change shells as they grow.
Despite their name, hermit crabs are social creatures and can live together in pairs or groups.
They can live for up to 10 years.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.washingtonpost.com/science/2024/01/26/hermit-crabs-shells-plastic-trash/
What does it mean for qubits to be in a superposition in the context of Quantum Computing?
They exist in multiple states simultaneously.
Explanation :
Researchers have unveiled a novel approach that integrates quantum computing with the study of living organisms.
About Quantum Computing:
It is an area of computer science focused on the development of technologies based on the principles of quantum theory.
Quantum theory explains the behaviour of energy and material at the atomic and subatomic levels.
It is based on the principles of the superposition of matter and quantum entanglement and uses a different computation method from the traditional one.
Quantum computers have the capability to sift through huge numbers of possibilities and extract potential solutions to complex problems and challenges.
How does it work?
Where classical computers store information as bits with either 0s or 1s, quantum computers use qubits.
While classical bits always represent either one or zero, a qubit can be in a superposition of one and zero simultaneously until its state is measured.
In addition, the states of multiple qubits can be entangled, meaning that they are linked quantum mechanically to each other.
Qubits can be made by manipulating atoms, electrically charged atoms called ions, or electrons, or by nanoengineering so-called artificial atoms, such as circuits of superconducting qubits, using a printing method called lithography.
What is Superposition and Entanglement?
They are two features of quantum physics on which quantum computing is based.
They empower quantum computers to handle operations at speeds exponentially higher than conventional computers and with much less energy consumption.
Superposition:
A qubit places the quantum information that it contains into a state of superposition.
This refers to a combination of all possible configurations of the qubit.
Groups of qubits in superposition can create complex, multidimensional computational spaces.
Complex problems can be represented in new ways in these spaces.
Entanglement:
Pairs of qubits can be made to become entangled.
This means that the two qubits then exist in a single state.
In such a state, changing one qubit directly affects the other in a manner that’s predictable.
Quantum algorithms are designed to take advantage of this relationship to solve complex problems.
While doubling the number of bits in a classical computer doubles its processing power, adding qubits results in an exponential upswing in computing power and ability.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.earth.com/news/quantum-computing-can-help-decode-the-mysteries-of-aging-and-disease/
Which of the following are Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs)?
- Chikungunya
- Kala Azar
- Dengue
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
World Neglected Tropical Diseases Day is observed every year on January 30.
About Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs):
NTDs are a diverse group of 20 conditions/diseases that are mainly prevalent in tropical areas, where they thrive among people living in impoverished communities.
They are caused by a variety of pathogens (including viruses, bacteria, parasites, fungi, and toxins) and are associated with devastating health, social, and economic consequences.
These include Guinea worm, Chikungunya, Dengue, Kala Azar (Visceral Leishmaniasis), and Elephantiasis (Lymphatic Filariasis), among others, and India is home to about 12 NTDs.
The World Health Organization (WHO) estimates that NTDs affect more than 1 billion people, while the number of people requiring NTD interventions (both preventive and curative) is 1.6 billion.
The epidemiology of NTDs is complex and often related to environmental conditions. Many of them are vector-borne, have animal reservoirs, and are associated with complex life cycles. All these factors make their public-health control challenging.
Global Initiative to end NTDs: The WHO’s new road map for 2021–2030 calls for three strategic shifts to end NTDs:
From measuring process to measuring impact.
From disease-specific planning and programming to collaborative work across sectors.
From externally driven agendas reliant on programmes that are country-owned and country-financed.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.who.int/campaigns/world-ntd-day/2024
With reference to the PM Young Achievers Scholarship Award Scheme (PM YASASVI), consider the following statements:
- It is a scholarship scheme for Other Backward Classes (OBCs), Economically Backward Classes (EBCs), and Denotified Nomadic Tribes (DNTs) students.
- Under it, students can avail of Pre-Matric Scholarships and Post-Matric Scholarships for their education.
- It will be available for studies both in India and other countries.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A total of ₹32.44 Crore has been released for Pre-matric Scholarships and ₹387.27 Crore for Post-Matric Scholarships to States/Union Territories (UTs) under the PM YASASVI scheme in 2023.
About PM Young Achievers Scholarship Award Scheme (PM YASASVI):
It is a scholarship scheme for Other Backward Class (OBCs), Economically Backward Class (EBC), and Denotified Nomadic Tribes (DNT) students.
Under this scheme, students can avail of Pre-Matric Scholarships from Classes 9 to 10 and Post-Matric Scholarships for their higher education at the post-matriculation or post-secondary level.
Exceptional students also have the opportunity to receive scholarships for top-tier schools and colleges.
Additionally, hostel facilities are provided for OBC students through a construction scheme.
Eligibility:
Other Backward Class (OBC), Economically Backward Classes (EBC), and Denotified, Nomadic, and Semi-Nomadic Tribes (DNT)
Parents or guardians annual income is not more than Rs. 2.50 Lakhs.
Studying in a Top Class School in Class 9 or 11.
These scholarships shall be available for studies in India only and will be awarded by the Government of State/Union Territory to which the applicant actually belongs, i.e., permanently settled.
Entitlement: Upto Rs. 75,000 p.a. for Class 9/10, Rs. 1,25,000 p.a. for Class 11/12, covering the school tuition fee/hostel fee.
Implementing Agency: Department of Social Justice and Empowerment, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/education/news/pm-yasasvi-2023-scheme-rs-32-44-cr-for-pre-matric-rs-387-27-crore-for-post-matric-scholarships-allotted-101706243426243.html
Which of the following agencies are eligible for financial assistance under the Market Access Initiative (MAI) Scheme?
- Indian Missions abroad
- Export Promotion Councils
- Commodity Boards
- Individual Exporters
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
Ahead of the interim Budget 2024, exporters have urged the government to allocate funds worth $3.88 billion for the Market Access Initiative (MAI) scheme.
About Market Access Initiative (MAI) Scheme:
It is an export promotion scheme envisaged to act as a catalyst to promote India’s exports on a sustained basis.
The scheme is formulated on focus product-focus country approach to evolve specific markets and specific products through market studies and surveys.
Assistance would be provided to Export Promotion Organizations/Trade Promotion Organizations/National Level Institutions/ Research Institutions/Universities/Laboratories, Exporters etc., for the enhancement of exports through accessing new markets or through increasing their share in the existing markets.
Under the Scheme, the level of assistance for each eligible activities has been fixed.
The following activities will be eligible for financial assistance under the Scheme:
Marketing Projects Abroad
Capacity Building
Support for Statutory Compliances
Studies
Project Development
Developing Foreign Trade Facilitation web Portal
To support Cottage and handicrafts units
Eligible Agencies: Departments of Central Government and Organisation of Central/State Governments including
Indian Missions abroad
Export Promotion Councils
Registered trade promotion Organisation
Commodity Boards
Apex Trade Bodies recognized under Foreign Trade Policy of Govt of India
Recognized Industrial & Artisan Clusters
Individual Exporters (only for statutory compliance etc.)
National Level Institutions (e.g. Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs), Indian Institutes of Management (IIMs), National Institute of design (NIDs), NIFT etc.)/ Research Institutions/Universities/ Recognized laboratories, etc.
The funding for each project will be on cost-sharing basis with the sharing pattern ranging from 65% to 50% at the minimum.
It is administered by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India, through the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT).
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/budget/news/interim-budget-2024-exporters-seek-higher-allocation-for-mai-scheme-124012600659_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Armado, recently seen in the news:
- It is India’s first Armoured Light Specialist Vehicle (ALSV).
- It is indigenously built by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The new Mahindra Armado recently made its first appearance at the Republic Day Parade.
About Armado:
It is India’s first Armoured Light Specialist Vehicle (ALSV).
It is a fully indigenous vehicle designed and built by the Mahindra Defence Systems (MDS) for the Indian armed forces.
It can be used in counter-terrorist and special forces operations. It can also be used by quick reaction teams, as a reconnaissance vehicle and for patrolling the borders.
Features:
It has a seating capacity of six passengers, including the driver, and can be configured to seat up to eight.
Above the standard 1,000 kg load capacity, the ASLV can carry another 400 kg.
It gets ballistic protection up to the B7 level and STANAG level-2. This means that its armour offers protection against armour-piercing rifles.
Also, the ASLV gets protection on all sides (front, side and rear) from ballistics and explosives.
Powering the 4-wheeler is a 3.2-litre multi-fuel diesel engine that generates 216 hp of maximum power.
Armado takes just 12 seconds to accelerate from 0 to 60 kmph, and runs at a speed of more than 120 kmph.
It also gets a self-cleaning-type exhaust scavenging and air filtration system for extreme dusty climate, like deserts.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://news.abplive.com/auto/mahindra-armado-military-vehicle-makes-its-debut-at-republic-day-parade-1659668
Houthis are an armed religious and political group in which one of the following countries?
Yemen
Explanation :
Yemen’s Iran-aligned Houthis have stepped up their attacks on commercial vessels transiting the Red Sea.
About Houthis:
The Houthis, officially known as Ansar Allah (Partisans of God), are an armed religious and political movement in Yemen.
Houthis are Zaydi Shiites, or Zaydiyyah. Shiite Muslims are the minority community in the Islamic world, and Zaydis are a minority of Shiites, significantly different in doctrine and beliefs from the Shiites who dominate in Iran, Iraq, and elsewhere.
They are a minority in Yemen, which is predominantly Sunni Muslim, but they are a significant one, numbering in the hundreds of thousands and making up as much as a third of the overall population.
Its members advocate regional autonomy for Zaidis in northern Yemen.
They have been fighting Yemen’s Sunni-majority government since 2004.
The Houthis took over the Yemeni capital Sanaa in September 2014 and seized control over much of north Yemen by 2016.
The Houthi movement began as an effort to maintain tribal autonomy in northern Yemen and protest Western influence in the Middle East.
Today, the Houthis seek a greater role in the Yemeni government and continue to advocate for Zaidi minority interests.
The movement is known for its virulently anti-American and anti-Semitic rhetoric.
Several of the group’s leaders have been designated as terrorists by the United States.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatvnews.com/news/world/houthis-escalate-attacks-on-red-sea-missile-hits-british-fuel-tanker-in-gulf-of-aden-latest-updates-2024-01-27-913898
Consider the following statements regarding BrahMos:
- It is a supersonic cruise missile that can be launched from land, sea and air.
- It has a range of more than 1000 kilometers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India is all set to begin the export of ground systems for the BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles to the Philippines.
About BrahMos:
It is a supersonic cruise missile that can be launched from land, sea, and air.
It has been developed by Brahmos Aerospace, a joint venture of India and Russia.
It is named after the rivers Brahmaputra (India) and Moskva (Russia).
Features:
It is a two-stage missile with a solid propellant booster engine as its first stage, which brings it to supersonic speed and then gets separated. The liquid ramjet, or second stage then takes the missile closer to 3 Mach speed in the cruise phase.
It is one of the fastest cruise missiles currently operationally deployed, with a speed of Mach 2.8, which is nearly three times more than the speed of sound.
It has a launch weight of 2,200-3,000 kg.
The extended-range variant of the missile can strike land and sea targets at a maximum range of 400 to 500 kilometers with supersonic speed all throughout the flight.
It operates on the “Fire and Forgets” principle, adopting varieties of flights on its way to the target.
Its cruising altitude could be up to 15 km, and its terminal altitude is as low as 10 meters.
It carries a conventional warhead weighing 200 to 300 kg.
It is equipped with stealth technology designed to make it less visible to radar and other detection methods.
It has an inertial navigation system (INS) for use against ship targets, and an INS/Global Positioning System for use against land targets.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/brahmos-supersonic-missile-systems-to-be-exported-to-philippines-in-next-10-days-drdo-chief-2493544-2024-01-25
Consider the following statements:
1) The New Zealand is part of Micronesia.
2) The Zealandia is mostly submerged continent.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Most Polynesian islands and archipelagos, including the Hawaiian Islands and Samoa, are composed of volcanic islands built by hotspots (volcanoes). The other land masses in Polynesia — New Zealand, Norfolk Island, and Ouvéa, the Polynesian outlier near New Caledonia. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Zealandia is an almost entirely submerged mass of continental crust in Oceania that subsided after breaking away from Gondwana 83–79 million years ago. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
New Zealand’s two main islands, North and South Islands, are separated by?
Cook strait
Explanation :
New Zealand’s two main islands, North and South Islands, are separated by the Cook Strait.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Great Barrier Reef, consider the following statements:
1) It is located to the west of Australia.
2) It is the largest coral reef in the world.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Great Barrier Reef is a site of remarkable variety and beauty on the north-east coast of Australia. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Stretching for 1,429 miles over an area of approximately 133,000 square miles , the Great Barrier Reef is the largest coral reef system in the world. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following Desert is not located in Australia?
Great Basin Desert
Explanation :
The Great Basin Desert is located in USA.
Rivers-flows into
Explanation :
The Ob flows north and west across western Siberia in a twisting diagonal from its sources in the Altai Mountains to its outlet through the Gulf of Ob into the Kara Sea of the Arctic Ocean. Hence, pair 1 is correct.
The Murray River originates form Australian Alps and flows into Southern Ocean. Hence, pair 2 is correct.
Darling River, River, southeastern Australia. It is the longest member of the Murray-Darling river system. It rises in several headstreams in the Great Dividing Range and flows generally southwest across New South Wales for 2,739 km to join the Murray River at the Victoria border. Hence, pair 3 is correct.
With reference to the Antarctica, consider the following statements:
1) It has the highest average elevation.
2) It is a polar desert.
3) It is a smallest continent.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Antarctica is, on average, the coldest, driest, and windiest of the continents, and it has the highest average elevation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
It is mainly a polar desert, with annual precipitation of over 200 mm (8 in) along the coast and far less inland. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Antarctica is the fifth-largest continent, being about 40% larger than Europe, and has an area of 14,200,000 km2. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
In which of the following region is Svalbard archipelago located?
Artic Ocean
Explanation :
Svalbard is a Norwegian archipelago in the Arctic Ocean. North of mainland Europe, it lies about midway between the northern coast of Norway and the North Pole.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
The Australian Continent is not surrounded by which of the following water body?
Berring Sea
Explanation :
Australia is surrounded by several significant bodies of water, including the Pacific Ocean, Indian Ocean, Southern Ocean, Tasman Sea, Coral Sea, Timor Sea, and the Arafura Sea.
Therefore option (d) is the correct answer.
The commercial livestock rearing is practised in which of the following region?
1) New Zealand
2) Australia
3) Argentina
4) Uruguay
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
New Zealand, Australia, Argentina, Uruguay and United States of America are important countries where commercial livestock rearing is practised.
Unlike nomadic herding, commercial livestock rearing is more organised and capital intensive. This is a specialised activity in which only one type of animal is reared. Important animals include sheep, cattle, goats and horses.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
With refence to the Australia, consider the following statements:
1) Australia has the world’s largest known uranium reserve.
2) The Great Artesian Basin is one of the largest underground freshwater resources in the world.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Australia’s uranium reserves are the world’s largest, with around one-third of global resources. Australia is also the world’s third largest producer behind Kazakhstan and Canada. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Great Artesian Basin is one of the largest underground freshwater resources in the world. It is Australia’s largest groundwater basin. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to K-Shaped Recovery, consider the following statements:
- It occurs when different parts of the economy recover at different rates after a recession.
- It is generally caused by disparities that existed before the recession.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Finance Minister recently rejected the theory that India’s ongoing recovery is ‘K-shaped’.
About K-Shaped Recovery:
A K-shaped recovery occurs when, following a recession, different parts of the economy recover at different rates, times, or magnitudes.
It leads to changes in the structure of the economy or the broader society as economic outcomes and relations are fundamentally changed before and after the recession.
This type of recovery is called K-shaped because the paths of different parts of the economy, when charted together, may diverge, resembling the two arms of the Roman letter “K.”
The portion of the economy that recovers quickly is represented by the upper part of the K, while the lower part represents those groups that recover more slowly.
Reasons:
K-shaped recoveries are generally caused by disparities that existed before the recession or by a recession that impacts populations and groups differently.
It is possible due to the creative destruction of old industries due to the development of new industries and technologies during the recession.
Government strategies like monetary and fiscal policies used to combat the recession can lead to a K-shaped recovery. Due to the nature of the economic policies, certain industries will benefit more than others.
Due to the nature of the recession, it can exert a unique impact on different parts of the economy, especially when a recession is coupled with a negative real economic shock that results in a lasting negative impact on certain parts of the economy.
Example: During the COVID-19 pandemic, North America saw a K-shaped recovery where the richer individuals and industries recovered faster compared to the poor.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/business/economy/fm-sitharaman-rejects-k-shaped-recovery-theory-for-india-asks-doubters-to-explain-12125621.html
With reference to the PM CARES Fund, consider the following statements:
- It was set up to deal with any emergency and provide relief to the distressed.
- It consists entirely of voluntary contributions and does not receive any budgetary support.
- It cannot accept donations and contributions from individuals and organizations based in foreign countries.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
only two
Explanation :
The Delhi High Court recently set aside an order of the Central Information Commission (CIC) directing the Income Tax (IT) department to provide details regarding the tax exemption granted to the PM Cares Fund under the Right to Information Act, 2005.
About PM CARES Fund:
It was created on March 28, 2020, following the COVID-19 pandemic in India.
It was set up to have a dedicated national fund to deal with any emergency and provide relief to the distressed.
Fund Constitution:
It has been registered as a Public Charitable Trust.
The Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the PM CARES Fund, and the Minister of Defence, Minister of Home Affairs, and Minister of Finance of the Government of India are ex-officio Trustees of the Fund.
The Chairperson of the Board of Trustees (Prime Minister) shall have the power to nominate three trustees to the Board of Trustees who shall be eminent persons in the fields of research, health, science, social work, law, public administration, and philanthropy.
Any person appointed a Trustee shall act in a pro bono capacity.
Objectives:
To undertake and support relief or assistance of any kind relating to a public health emergency or any other kind of emergency, calamity, or distress, either man-made or natural, including the creation or upgradation of healthcare or pharmaceutical facilities, other necessary infrastructure, funding relevant research, or any other type of support.
To render financial assistance, provide grants of payments of money, or take such other steps as may be deemed necessary by the Board of Trustees for the affected population.
To undertake any other activity which is not inconsistent with the above objectives.
Fund Finance:
The fund consists entirely of voluntary contributions from individuals/organizations and does not receive any budgetary support.
Donations to PM CARES Fund would qualify for 80G benefits for 100% exemption under the Income Tax Act, 1961.
Donations to the PM CARES Fund will also qualify to be counted as Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) expenditure under the Companies Act, 2013
PM CARES Fund has also got an exemption under the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA), and a separate account for receiving foreign donations has been opened.
This enables the CARES Fund to accept donations and contributions from individuals and organizations based in foreign countries.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livelaw.in/high-court/delhi-high-court/delhi-high-court-pm-cares-fund-tax-exemption-rti-cic-order-it-department-247377
With reference to the International Court of Justice (ICJ), consider the following statements:
- It is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN).
- It consists of 15 judges, all from different countries, who are elected to nine-year terms.
- The court’s judgments in contentious cases are final and binding on the state parties.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The International Court of Justice recently ruled that it will not throw away the genocide case against Israel.
About International Court of Justice (ICJ):
The ICJ, also known as the World Court, is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN).
It was established in June 1945 by the Charter of the UN and began work in April 1946.
The seat of the Court is at the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands).
Of the six principal organs of the UN, it is the only one not located in New York, United States.
The hearings of the ICJ are always public.
Official Languages: French and English
Powers and Functions: The Court may entertain two types of cases:
First, it can act as a dispute settlement body between two member States in what are called “contentious cases.” Such disputes may concern, in particular, land frontiers, maritime boundaries, territorial sovereignty, the non-use of force, violation of international humanitarian law, non-interference in the internal affairs of States and diplomatic relations.
Second, it can accept requests to issue an advisory opinion on a legal question referred to it by a UN body or specialized agency. These opinions can clarify the ways in which such organizations may lawfully function or strengthen their authority in relation to their member States.
The court’s judgments in contentious cases are final and binding on the parties to a case, and without appeal.
Unlike the Court’s judgments, advisory opinions are not binding.
The ICJ decides disputes in accordance with international law as reflected in international conventions, international custom, general principles of law recognized by civilized nations, judicial decisions, and the writings of the most highly qualified experts on international law.
Composition:
It consists of 15 judges, all from different countries, who are elected to nine-year terms by majority votes in the UN General Assembly and the Security Council.
The judges, one-third of whom are elected every three years, are eligible for reelection.
Once elected, a member of the Court is a delegate neither of the government of his own country nor of any other State.
In addition, the ICJ Statute allows a state party to a case before it which does not have a judge of its nationality on the bench to appoint a person to sit as judge ad hoc in that specific case.
The Court is assisted by a Registry, its permanent administrative secretariat, which is independent of the United Nations Secretariat.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/world-news/international-court-of-justice-refuses-to-dismiss-genocide-case-against-israel-101706273813414.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Free Movement Regime (FMR), recently seen in the news:
- It allows the citizens of India or Nepal to travel within 16 km on either side of the Indo-Nepal Border.
- It was introduced in 2018 under the Government of India’s Act East policy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Home Minister recently said the Free Movement Regime (FMR) agreement with Myanmar would be reconsidered to stop border residents from moving into each other’s country without any paperwork.
About Free Movement Regime (FMR):
Under the FMR, all the hill tribes, whether they are citizens of India or Myanmar, can travel within 16 km on either side of the Indo-Myanmar Border (IMB).
They can cross the border by producing a border pass with a one-year validity issued by the competent authority and can stay up to two weeks per visit.
The FMR was implemented in 2018 as part of the Central government’s Act East policy.
FMR is implemented by both governments for the people living along the IMB.
This helps locals get more culturally assimilated with trans-border villages through weddings, celebrating common festivals together, and trans-border trade.
It is a reflection of the physical, ethnic, linguistic, cultural, and fraternal linkages among the trans-border villagers.
Key Facts about Indo-Myanmar Border (IMB):
It runs for 1,643 km in the four states of Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, and Arunachal Pradesh.
It runs from the tripoint with China in the north to the tripoint with Bangladesh in the south.
Assam Rifles is tasked with guarding the IMB.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/reconsidering-the-free-movement-regime-explained/article67773825.ece
Futala Lake, recently seen in the news, lies in which state?
Maharashtra
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently asked the Maharashtra government and its metro rail corporation not to carry out any construction activity at the famous Futala Lake in Nagpur.
About Futala Lake:
Futala Lake, also known as Telankhedi Lake, is located in the western part of Nagpur, Maharashtra.
It is believed to be more than 200 years old.
It is spread over 60 acres.
Built by the Bhonsle kings of Nagpur, this lake is known for its colorful fountains.
The lake is surrounded on three sides by forest and a landscaped beach on the fourth side.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/maharashtra/sc-restrains-maharashtra-from-continuing-with-construction-at-futala-lake-in-nagpur-2866192
Which one of the following is the primary cause of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) in high-income countries?
Tobacco smoking
Explanation :
Health experts list the causes of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease beyond smoking, including environmental toxins, genetic predispositions, and occupational hazards.
About Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD):
It is a chronic inflammatory lung disease that causes obstructed airflow from the lungs.
There are two main forms of COPD:
Chronic bronchitis, which involves a long-term cough with mucus.
Emphysema, which involves damage to the lungs over time.
Most people with COPD have a combination of both conditions.
Causes:
It’s typically caused by long-term exposure to irritating gases or particulate matter, most often from cigarette smoke.
Tobacco smoking accounts for over 70% of COPD cases in high-income countries. In low- and middle-income countries (LMIC), tobacco smoking accounts for 30–40% of COPD cases, and household air pollution is a major risk factor.
Signs and symptoms:
The most common symptoms of COPD are difficulty breathing, chronic cough (sometimes with phlegm) and feeling tired.
COPD symptoms can get worse quickly. These are called flare-ups. These usually last for a few days and often require additional medicine.
People with COPD are at increased risk of developing heart disease, lung cancer, and a variety of other conditions.
Treatment:
COPD isn’t curable, but it can get better by not smoking, avoiding air pollution, and getting vaccines.
It can be treated with medicines, oxygen, and pulmonary rehabilitation.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/lifestyle/health/beyond-smoking-understanding-and-treating-chronic-obstructive-pulmonary-disease-101706361544978.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Tasar Silk:
- India is the largest producer of Tasar Silk in the world.
- In India, it is primarily produced in Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Jharkhand’s tableau in the recently held Republic Day parade showcased the skill of tribal women in the production of Tasar silk.
About Tasar Silk:
It is a type of wild silk, which is made from silkworms that feed on plants like Asan and Arjun.
People from different parts of India call it tusaar, tusser, tushar, tusa, tassore, and tasar etc.
Producers:
Globally, it is produced in China, Sri Lanka, and Bangladesh.
India is the second-largest producer of tussar silk and the exclusive producer of Indian tussar (also known as tropical tussar), which is largely tended to by tribals.
In India, it is primarily produced in Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, and Chhattisgarh. Currently, Jharkhand is one of the largest producers.
Features:
It is famous and valued for its natural golden colour. The silk can also be found in shades of brown, cream, and orange.
The color is caused by the production process due to the presence of carotenoids in the silk.
It is known for its distinctive texture, which is often described as being ‘rough’ or ‘crinkly.’
This is due to the fact that the fibers of tasar silk are shorter than those of other silks, such as mulberry silk.
As a result, tasar silk fabrics are less smooth and have a more uneven surface.
Tasar silk fabrics have a characteristic weave that is different from other types of silk.
The threads of tasar silk are often thicker than those of other silks, and they are woven in a way that creates a ‘checkerboard’ pattern.
It is lightweight yet surprisingly strong, with a luxuriously soft feel often compared to that of cashmere or velvet.
It does not retain moisture, and this quality makes it a delight to wear in warmer climates of the world.
Tasar silk is more porous, which makes it more wearable.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.ptinews.com/story/national/j-khand-s-in-r-day-parade-showcases-skill-of-tribal-women-in-tasar-silk-production/1243253
With reference to the All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2021-2022 released recently, consider the following statements:
- In 2021-22, the overall Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in higher education has increased, compared to the previous survey.
- Private Universities account for the majority of the total enrollment in higher education.
- The GER of Schedule Caste (SC) and Schedule Tribe (ST) students has decreased by 5% in 2021-22.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The Ministry of Education, Government of India, released the All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2021-2022 recently.
About All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE):
The AISHE report has been published by the Ministry of Education since 2011.
Aim: To portray the status of higher education in the country.
The survey covers all the institutions in the country engaged in imparting higher education.
Data is being collected on several parameters, such as teachers, student enrollment, programmes, examination results, education finance, and infrastructure.
Indicators of educational development such as Institution Density, Gross Enrolment Ratio, Pupil-teacher ratio, Gender Parity Index, Per Student Expenditure will also be calculated from the data collected through AISHE.
For the purpose of this survey, Higher Education is defined as education, that is obtained after completing 12 years of schooling or equivalent.
Highlights of AISHE 2021-22:
In 2021-22, the overall gross enrolment ratio (GER) in higher education for the age group 18-23 years increased to 28.4%, from 27.3% in 2020- 21 and 23.7% in 2014- 15, the base year.
Female GER increased to 28.5% (2.07 crore) in 2021-22 from 27.9 (2.01 crore) in 2020-21 and 22.9 percent in 2014-15.
The GER of Schedule Caste (SC) and Schedule Tribe (ST) students has also increased by around 2%. In 2020-21, the GER of SC students was 25.6% and ST was 23.4%, while in 2021-22 it increased to 27.2% and 25.8% respectively.
The enrolment of OBC students has also increased to 1.63 crore in 2021-22 from 1.13 crore in 2014-15.
About 78.9 per cent of the total students are enrolled in undergraduate level courses and 12.1 per cent are enrolled in postgraduate level courses.
Among disciplines at the undergraduate-level in AISHE 2021-22, enrolment is highest in Arts (34.2%), followed by science (14.8%), Commerce (13.3%), and Engineering and Technology (11.8%).
Among streams at postgraduate-level in AISHE 2021-22, maximum students are enrolled in Social Science (21.1%), followed by science (14.7).
Government Universities constituting 58.6% of total Universities, contribute 73.7% of total enrolment, and Private Universities account for 26.3% of total enrolment.
The total number of Universities / University level institutions registered is 1,168, Colleges 45,473 and Standalone Institutions 12,002.
As per the survey, the total number of faculty/teachers in 2021-22 is 15.98 lakh, of which about 56.6% are male and 43.4% are female.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatvnews.com/education/news/enrolment-in-higher-education-increased-to-4-33-crore-in-2021-22-a-hike-of-26-5-pc-since-2014-education-ministry-survey-updates-2024-01-27-913906
Where is Hazrat Nizamuddin Aulia Dargah, recently seen in the news, located?
Delhi
Explanation :
French President recently visited the Hazrat Nizamuddin Aulia Dargah in south Delhi.
About Hazrat Nizamuddin Aulia Dargah:
It is located in Delhi’s Nizamuddin West area.
It is the mausoleum of the famous Sufi saint, Nizamuddin Auliya (1238-1325 CE).
It was built in the 14th Century C.E.
Features:
It consists of a square chamber surrounded by verandahs, which are pierced by arched openings, while its roof is surmounted by a dome pringing from an octagonal drum.
The dome is ornamented by vertical stripes of black marble and is crowned by a lotus-cresting.
Inside the dargah complex, one can find the tombs of Nizamuddin Auliya’s saints: Jahanara Begum, Shah Jahan’s favorite daughter, and poet Amir Khusru.
Towards the north side of Dargah, there is a stepwell.
On the north-eastern side, there is a 16th-century tomb of Atgah Khan, who was a powerful minister in Emperor Akbar’s court.
The site is also known for its evening qawwali devotional music sessions.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livemint.com/news/french-president-emmanuel-macron-sufi-music-hazrat-nizamuddin-dargah-delhi-watch-video-republic-day-2024-chief-guest-11706336510088.html
Consider the following statements regarding Community Reserves:
- They act as buffer zones and migration corridors between established protected forests in India.
- Only areas that are uninhabited and completely owned by the Government of India may be declared as a Community Reserve.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Arunachal Pradesh, at the recently held Republic Day parade, showcased its Singchung Bugun Village Community Reserve, a 17-square-kilometre biodiversity hotspot.
About Singchung Bugun Village Community Reserve:
It is a 17-square-kilometre biodiversity hotspot located in Arunachal Pradesh, around 40 km from the famous Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary.
The reserve was created in 2017 to protect biodiversity in the region.
It is home to critically endangered species such as the passerine bird Bugun Liocichla (Liocichlabugunorum), which is named after the Buguns community.
It was one of the first bird species to be discovered in India since the country’s independence in 1947, and it lives only on the Buguns’ community lands.
The Buguns are an indigenous community with a population of about 2,000 people, spread across 12 villages that are dotted outside the forests of Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary.
What is a Community Reserve?
Conservation reserves and community reserves in India are terms denoting protected areas of India which typically act as buffer zones, connectors, and migration corridors between established national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and reserved and protected forests in India.
Such areas are designated as conservation reserves if they are uninhabited and completely owned by the Government of India but used for subsistence by communities, and community reserves if part of the land is privately owned.
These protected area categories were first introduced in the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act of 2002, an amendment to the Wildlife Protection Act (WLPA) of 1972.
These categories were added because of reduced protection in and around existing or proposed protected areas due to private ownership of land, and land use.
The provisions of the WLPA apply to an area once it has been declared a community reserve.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.ptinews.com/story/national/arunachal-s-bugun-community-reserve-home-to-endangered-species/1243108
Dalma Wildlife Sanctuary, recently seen in the news, is located in:
Jharkhand
Explanation :
The canopy walk facility at a height of 25 feet at the Dalma Sanctuary will be set up soon.
About Dalma Wildlife Sanctuary:
Location:
It is located 10 kilometers from the city of Jamshedpur in the state of Jharkhand.
It is situated around the Dalma Hillson the Chottanagpur Plateau.
The Sanctuary gets its name from the “Dalma mai” a local goddess who is revered and worshipped by the local people and the people of adjoining villages of Dalma.
Inaugurated in 1975, it contains a significant population of Indian Elephants.
The sanctuary covers almost 193 sq. km. of forest area.
The entire forest of Dalma Sanctuary falls in the catchment of the Subarnarekha River and Dimna Lake of Jamshedpur.
Vegetation: The forests of Dalma come under the category “Dry peninsular Sal” and “Northern dry mixed deciduous Forest”.
Flora: Medicinal plants like Ananatmula, Satawari, Sarpgandha, etc. are abundant in the sanctuary. Various types of trees, climbers, herbs, shrubs, and orchids are found here.
Fauna:
Beside elephants, the sanctuary has a considerable population of other wildlife like barking deer, wild boar, giant squirrel, porcupine, pangolin, sloth bear, etc.
Commonly seen birds in the sanctuary are falcons, golden oriole, Indian tree pie, paradise fly catchers, grey hornbills, Indian peafowl, etc.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/ranchi/dalma-wildlife-sanctuary-to-offer-canopy-walk-facility-by-mid-feb/articleshow/107022439.cms
With reference to the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI), consider the following statements:
- It deals with anti-smuggling matters in India.
- It works under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- It suggests remedies for loopholes in the law and procedures to combat smuggling.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) officers developed an intelligence and intercepted seven consignments which had arrived from Hong Kong at the Foreign Post Office in New Delhi recently.
About Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI):
It is the premier intelligence and enforcement agency of the Government of India on anti-smuggling matters.
It works under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs, Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
It came into existence on December 4, 1957.
Functions:
Collection of intelligence about smuggling of contraband goods, narcotics, under-invoicing, etc. through sources in India and abroad, including secret sources.
Analysis and dissemination of such intelligence to the field formations for action and working on such intelligence, where necessary.
Keeping watch over important seizures and investigation cases. Associating with or taking over the investigations which warrant specialized handling by the Directorate.
Guiding important investigation/prosecution cases. Keeping liaison with foreign countries, Indian Missions, and Enforcement agencies abroad on anti-smuggling matters.
To keep in liaison with C.B.I. and through them with the INTERPOL. To refer cases registered under the Customs Act to the Income Tax Department for action under the Income Tax Act.
To keep statistics of seizures, and prices/rates etc. for watching trends of smuggling and supply required material to the Ministry of Finance and other Ministries.
To study and suggest remedies for loopholes in law and procedures to combat smuggling.
The DRI, with its Headquarters in New Delhi, has 12 zonal units, 35 regional units, and 15 sub-regional units.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2000257
What makes Saheli unique among oral contraceptive pills?
It is the only non-steroidal pill with zero side effects.
Explanation :
Dr Nitya Anand, who discovered India’s first oral contraceptive pill, ‘Saheli’, passed away recently.
About Saheli:
Saheli is the world’s first and only oral non-steroidal contraceptive pill.
‘Saheli’, aka Centchroman (ormeloxifene 30mg), is the only non–steroidal pill with zero side effects available in the world.
The pill, launched by HLL in 1991, is free from side effects like weight gain, nausea, vomiting and headaches as it contains the molecule Centchroman (ormeloxifene) as the active ingredient.
All common brands of oral contraceptive pills contain hormones like oestrogen or progesterone, or a combination of both; only Saheli is free of these steroids and hence has no side effects.
This drug was included in the National Family Welfare Programme in 1995.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/trends/dr-nitya-anand-man-who-discovered-indias-first-oral-contraceptive-pill-saheli-dies-at-99-12136341.html
With reference to the Supreme Court (SC) of India, consider the following statements:
- The Constitution gives e original jurisdiction to the SC for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
- International Commercial Arbitration can be initiated in the SC.
- It can reconsider its final judgment or order by way of a curative petition.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the Diamond Jubilee celebration of the Supreme Court.
About Supreme Court of India (SC):
History:
The Supreme Court of India is the apex judicial body under the Constitution of India.
Article 124 of the Constitution states that “There shall be a Supreme Court of India.”
The Supreme Court came into existence on January 26, 1950, with the coming into force of the Constitution.
On January, 28, 1950, two days after India became a Sovereign Democratic Republic, the Supreme Court was inaugurated.
The Supreme Court initially functioned from the old Parliament House till it moved to the present building located on Tilak Marg, New Delhi, in 1958.
The first President of India, Dr. Rajendra Prasad, inaugurated the present building of the Supreme Court of India on August 4, 1958.
Number of Judges:
The original Constitution of 1950 envisaged a Supreme Court with a Chief Justice and 7 puisne Judges, leaving it to Parliament to increase this number.
Considering the increase in workload, Parliament increased the number of Judges from 8 in 1950 to 11 in 1956, 14 in 1960, 18 in 1978, 26 in 1986, 31 in 2009, and 34 in 2019 (current strength).
Today, the judges sit in benches of two and three and come together in larger benches of 5 and more (Constitution Bench) to decide any conflicting decisions between benches of the Supreme Court or any substantial questions concerning the interpretation of the Constitution.
The proceedings of the Supreme Court are conducted in English.
Powers and Functions:
The Supreme Court has original, appellate, and advisory jurisdiction.
It serves both as the final court of appeals and the final interpreter of the Constitution.
Its exclusive original jurisdiction extends to any dispute between the Government of India and one or more States or between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more States on the other, or between two or more States, if and insofar as the dispute involves any question (whether of law or fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends.
In addition, Article 32 of the Constitution gives extensive original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
It is empowered to issue directions, orders, or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari, to enforce them.
The Supreme Court has been conferred with the power to direct the transfer of any civil or criminal case from one High Court to another High Court or from a Court subordinate to another High Court.
Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, International Commercial Arbitration can also be initiated in the Supreme Court.
The appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court can be invoked by a certificate granted by the High Court concerned under Article 132(1), 133(1) or 134 of the Constitution in respect of any judgement, decree, or final order of a High Court in both civil and criminal cases, involving substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution.
Appeals also lie to the Supreme Court in civil matters if the High Court concerned certifies:
that the case involves a substantial question of law of general importance, and
that, in the opinion of the High Court, the said question needs to be decided by the Supreme Court.
In criminal cases, an appeal lies to the Supreme Court if the High Court
has on appeal reversed an order of acquittal of an accused person and sentenced him to death or to imprisonment for life or for a period of not less than 10 years, or
has withdrawn for trial before itself any case from any Court subordinate to its authority and has in such trial convicted the accused and sentenced him to death or to imprisonment for life or for a period of not less than 10 years, or
certified that the case is a fit one for appeal to the Supreme Court.
Parliament is authorised to confer on the Supreme Court any further powers to entertain and hear appeals from any judgement, final order or sentence in a criminal proceeding of a High Court.
The Supreme Court also has a very wide appellate jurisdiction over all Courts and Tribunals in India in as much as it may, in its discretion, grant special leave to appeal under Article 136 of the Constitution from any judgment, decree, determination, sentence or order in any cause or matter passed or made by any Court or Tribunal in the territory of India.
The Supreme Court has special advisory jurisdiction in matters which may specifically be referred to it by the President of India under Article 143 of the Constitution.
Election Petitions under Part III of the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952, are also filed directly in the Supreme Court.
Under Articles 129 and 142 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court has been vested with power to punish for contempt of Court, including the power to punish for contempt of itself.
The Supreme Court can reconsider its final judgment or order by way of a curative petition on limited grounds after the dismissal of the review petition.
As the highest court in India, the Supreme Court’s judgments are binding on all other courts in the country.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2000184
Consider the following statements regarding Alpenglow, recently seen in the news:
- It is a natural phenomenon when mountain slopes are illuminated by the sun.
- Its occurrence depends on atmospheric conditions like clouds, humidity and particulates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Astronaut Lora O’Hara, currently stationed aboard the International Space Station, recently shared images showcasing the Alpenglow phenomenon near the Hindu Kush mountain range.
About Alpenglow:
It is a natural phenomenon when mountain slopes are illuminated by the sun as it rises or sets.
The slopes turn a rosy, reddish, or orange hue depending on the angle of the sun and atmospheric conditions.
It occurs during the twilight hours before sunrise or after sunset. It can also occur in the first minutes after the sun rises or sets.
Alpenglow typically occurs in the range of colors between red, pink, and orange.
This is because, these are the longest warm rays of electromagnetic wave (light) — they reach various surfaces, while cold rays are shorter and disappear faster in the atmosphere.
Its vibrancy and color depend on the location of the sun, the angle of the light, and other atmospheric conditions like clouds, humidity, and particulates.
It can change quickly depending on how fast the sun sets on any given day.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.republicworld.com/science/magical-astronaut-captures-stunning-alpenglow-phenomenon-near-hindu-kush-from-iss-see-pictures/
Consider the following statements regarding the Western Equine Encephalitis virus infection:
- It is transmitted to humans through mosquitoes.
- Its virus has a long single-stranded RNA genome.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the International Health Regulations National Focal Point (IHR NFP) in Argentina alerted the World Health Organization of a human case of Western Equine Encephalitis Virus (WEEV) infection.
It is a mosquito-borne infection caused by the Western Equine Encephalitis Virus (WEEV), which belongs to the Togaviridae family of viruses.
The virus has an approximately 11.5 kilobases long single-stranded RNA genome.
It is a recombinant of the eastern equine encephalitis virus (EEEV) and a Sindbis-like virus.
Passerine birds are thought to be the reservoir and equine species as intermediate hosts.
The primary mode of transmission of the infection to humans is through mosquitoes which act as vectors for the virus.
Symptoms:
While most of the infections are asymptomatic, the infection may lead to severe consequences in rare cases.
An estimated 4-5% of cases may manifest as infection/inflammation of the brain, resulting in neurological symptoms and sequelae of disease.
Treatment: With no specific antiviral treatment, symptomatic care is crucial, especially for neurologic symptoms.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/outbreak-of-western-equine-encephalitis-virus-in-argentina/article67780160.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Dogri folk dance:
- It is a famous folk dance form of Arunachal Pradesh.
- It is performed during functions and social gatherings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the union government of India conferred Padma Shri award to Jammu’s Dogri folk dancer Romalo Ram.
It is a dance performed in Duggar region of Jammu.
It is generally performed by a group of artists whose main leader sings the song as well as dances while others are in the sitting position providing beats of Drums and Chimta.
It is performed in functions and social gatherings.
There are other varieties of this dance with the men and women or only women performing dance in groups to the music of some famous folk song in colourful traditional dresses.
Dogra folk-dances have an important role as a part of worship, ceremonies and a pastime but the main force behind the folk-dances is the celebratory mood.
Other dance forms of Jammu region: Dheku, Phummani, jagarana, Ckauki, Chhajja, Kuddha, Hirana etc. are main dances. Bhagtan, Raas, Chandrauli etc. are main folk-drama styles.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/chandigarh-news/padma-honour-for-jammu-dogri-dancer-kashmir-woodcarver-shimla-vocalist-101706377214608.html
With reference to Kinnow fruit, consider the following statements:
- It requires well drained clay-loam soil for its growth.
- It can with stand soaring temperature as high as 40°C.
- In India, Uttarakhand holds the major share of Kinnow producing area.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Kinnow growers in Punjab are apprehending losses this season as nearly half of the 13 lakh tonnes of the crop are yet to be harvested even as the season will end in less than two months.
Kinnow / Mandarin, commonly pronounced as Kinoo or Kinu is a citrus fruit.
It is largely cultivated fruit of North India, and Punjab holds the major share of Kinnow / Mandarin producing area of the country, with other states including Rajasthan, Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu, and Kashmir.
It is a hybrid of two varieties viz. Citrus nobilis and Citrus deliciosa.
It is commonly confused with Oranges, due to the similarity in their appearances, seasonal availability and nutritional benefits offered by both the fruits.
It comprises a high amount of juice content, making them ideal for extracting juice and pulp.
Climatic conditions
Temperature: It can be grown successfully in a temperature range of 10-35°C.
It has the ability to withstand soaring temperature as high as 40°C during summer and 0°C during winter.
Soil: Sites having well drained clay-loam soils with 6.0-7.5 pH are ideal for its cultivation.
Rain: 300-400mm
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/chandigarh-news/no-juicy-returns-for-punjab-kinnow-growers-as-prices-drop-101706380034407.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Nitrogen hypoxia:
- It is used in capital punishment for prisoners.
- It involves pure oxygen being pumped into the human body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, Alabama successfully executed a man who spent decades on death row using a new method called nitrogen hypoxia.
Hypoxia is a medical term for a state of insufficient oxygen in the body.
Nitrogen hypoxia is a process where pure nitrogen gas, or nitrogen gas at concentrations high enough to be lethal, is inhaled to the point of causing asphyxiation.
It is a relatively new alternative to more common forms of capital punishment, like lethal injection and electrocution
In this method of execution, a respirator mask is placed over the inmate’s face, pure nitrogen is pumped into person’s lungs instead of oxygen.
It leads to unconsciousness and then death from lack of oxygen.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/science/alabamas-new-execution-method-what-is-nitrogen-hypoxia/articleshow/107190740.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian grey wolf:
- It is mainly found in grasslands and semi-arid pastoral agro-ecosystems.
- It is placed under the schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Wildlife enthusiasts and experts are abuzz with excitement after the recent sighting of Indian grey wolf in the expansive confines of National Chambal Sanctuary in Etawah.
Scientific Name: Canis lupus pallipes
It is a subspecies of grey wolf that ranges from Southwest Asia to the Indian Subcontinent.
They live in warmer conditions.
It is intermediate in size between the Tibetan and Arabian wolf and lacks the former’s luxuriant winter coat due to it living in warmer conditions.
It travels in smaller packs and is less vocal than other its variants. They are nocturnal and hunt from dusk to dawn
Description: It is of intermediate in size lies between the Tibetan and Arabian wolf, and lacks the former’s luxuriant winter coat due to its living in warmer conditions.
Habitat: The Indian wolf inhabits areas dominated by scrub, grasslands and semi-arid pastoral agro-ecosystems.
Distribution: It has a wide distribution range that extends from the Indian subcontinent to Israel. There are about 3,000 animals in India, some in captivity.
Conservation Status
IUCN: Least concern
Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972 : Schedule I
CITES : Appendix 1
Threat: Habitat loss and depletion of prey species etc.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/lucknow-news/wolves-returning-to-chambal-first-sighting-in-two-decades-101706380034684.html
Ratle Hydro Electric Project is a run-of-river hydroelectric project being built on:
Chenab
Explanation :
The government recently announced diversion of Chenab river water through diversion tunnels to expedite the 850-MW Ratle Hydro Electric Project in Jammu & Kashmir.
About Ratle Hydro Electric Project:
It is an 850 MW run-of-river hydroelectric power project being built on the Chenab River in the Kishtwar District of Jammu and Kashmir.
The project is being developed by Ratle Hydroelectric Power Corporation (RHPCL), which was formed as a joint venture (JV) between Jammu & Kashmir State Power Development Corporation (JKSPDC) and India’s state-owned National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC).
The project comprises a 133-meter-talland 194.8-meter-longconcrete gravity dam, a diversion dam, and an underground powerhouse on the right bank of the river.
Key Facts about Chenab River:
It is a major river of India and Pakistan.
Origin: It is formed by the confluence of two streams, Chandra and Bhaga, at Tandi in the upper Himalayas in the Lahaul and Spiti Districts of Himachal Pradesh.
In its upper reaches, it is also known as the Chandrabhaga.
It is a tributary of the Indus River.
Course:
It flows west through Jammu and Kashmir union territory, between the steep cliffs of the Siwalik Range (south) and the Lesser Himalayas (north).
Turning southwest, it continues into Pakistan, descending from the uplands into the broad alluvial lowlands of Punjab province.
After receiving the Jhelum River near Trimmu, the Chenab empties into the Sutlej River, a tributary of the Indus River.
Its total length is about 605 miles (974 km) and it feeds several irrigation canals.
Tributaries: The tributaries of the Chenab River include Miyar Nalla, Sohal, Thirot, Bhut Nalla, Marusudar, and Lidrari.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.deccanherald.com/india/jammu-and-kashmir/govt-diverts-chenab-river-water-to-expedite-hydroelectric-project-in-jammu-and-kashmir-2869124
The ‘INS Sumitra’, seen in the news recently, is a:
Patrol vessel
Explanation :
The Indian Navy’s INS Sumitra recently rescued fishermen hijacked by pirates along the east coast of Somalia and the Gulf of Aden.
About INS Sumitra:
It is the fourth and last Saryu-class patrol vessel of the Indian Navy.
It is based on an indigenous design and constructed by Goa Shipyard Limited.
It was commissioned in 2014 and is based in Chennai under the Eastern Naval Command.
The primary role of the ship is to undertake surveillance of the country’s exclusive economic zone (EEZ) besides other operational tasks such as anti-piracy patrols, fleet support operations, maritime security of offshore assets, and escort operations.
Features:
Measuring about 105 metres in length, 13 metres in breadth, and displacing 2,200 tonnes, the ship can achieve a speed of 25 knots.
The ship has a range of 6,500 nautical miles.
It is propelled by two diesel engines.
The ship’s weapon and sensor outfits include a 76.2 mm gun (super rapid gun mount), close-in weapon systems, and the latest navigational and early warning radars.
It is capable of embarking one Dhruv/Chetak helicopter.
It is also equipped with two rigid inflatable fast-motor boats.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/red-sea-attack-by-houthi-militants-indian-navy-ins-sumitra-iranian-vessel-somali-pirates-2494932-2024-01-29
How does Generative AI differ from traditional AI systems?
It produces new content rather than making predictions.
Explanation :
A new report predicts that Generative AI (genAI) is poised to become a $100 billion industry by 2026.
About Generative AI:
Generative AI, or generative artificial intelligence, is a form of artificial intelligence (AI) in which algorithms automatically produce content in the form of text, images, audio, and video.
Unlike traditional AI systems that are designed to recognize patterns and make predictions, generative AI creates new content.
Generative AI is powered by foundation models (large AI models) that can multi-task and perform out-of-the-box tasks, including summarization, Q&A, classification, and more.
These systems have been trained on massive amounts of data.
It works by using a Machine Learning (ML) model to learn the patterns and relationships in a dataset of human-created content. It then uses the learned patterns to generate new content.
Typically, it starts with a simple text input, called a prompt, in which the user describes the output they want. Then, various algorithms generate new content according to what the prompt is asking for.
Popular Generative AI Tools:
ChatGPT: ChatGPT is an AI-powered chatbot developed by OpenAI, with a unique ability to not only generate written content but also converse with users fluently.
Bard: Bard is a generative AI chatbot created by Google, based on LaMDA language model technology. It can answer questions asked by users or create new content from text or image prompts.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://news.abplive.com/technology/genai-predicted-to-become-a-100-billion-industry-by-2026-says-altindex-com-generative-ai-chatgpt-openai-1660388
What is the primary source of Mitochondrial coxiella effector F (MceF) protein?
Bacteria
Explanation :
Researchers recently discovered a previously unidentified protein named mitochondrial coxiella effector F (MceF) with antioxidant properties produced by Coxiella burnetii, a Gram-negative intracellular bacterium.
About Mitochondrial coxiella effector F (MceF):
It is a bacterial protein capable of keeping human cells healthy even when the cells have a heavy bacterial burden.
It is produced by Coxiella burnetii, a Gram-negative intracellular bacterium.
After invading host cells, Coxiella burnetii releases MceF into cells.
MceF interacts with glutathione peroxidase 4 (GPX4), an anti-oxidant enzyme located in the mitochondria, to improve mitochondrial function by promoting an anti-oxidizing effect that averts cell damage and death, which may occur when pathogens replicate inside mammalian cells.
Key Facts about Coxiella burnetii:
It is a Gram-negative intracellular bacterium.
It is the causative agent of a serious infection called Q fever, a zoonotic disease that can affect humans and animals.
The bacterium is primarily transmitted to humans through the inhalation of contaminated aerosols from infected animals, particularly through the air-borne particles from placental tissues, urine, feces, and milk of infected domestic animals like cattle, sheep, and goats.
It causes atypical pneumonia in humans and coxiellosis in some animals, such as cattle, sheep, and goats.
It is highly adapted to invade and control macrophages and monocytes–white blood cells that are part of the organism’s front-line immune defense–inhibiting the host’s responses to the infection.
Unlike other bacteria, which cause disease only when they multiply to reach large numbers, a single C. burnetii is enough to make a healthy person sick.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://scitechdaily.com/scientists-have-discovered-a-previously-unknown-protein-capable-of-keeping-human-cells-healthy/
Consider the following statements regarding Anti-Profiteering provisions under the Goods and Services Tax (GST):
- Under these provisions, it’s illegal for a business to not pass on the benefits of the GST rate benefits to the end consumer.
- The GST Council has the power to determine the methodology for determining whether a taxable person is engaging in illegal profiteering.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Delhi High Court recently upheld the constitutional validity of anti-profiteering provisions in the Goods and Services Tax (GST).
What is the meaning of anti-profiteering under GST?
Any reduction in the GST rate or benefit of input tax credit should be passed on to the end consumer and not retained by the business. This is the basis of the anti-profiteering provisions under GST.
Under anti-profiteering provisions, it’s illegal for a business to not pass on the benefits of the GST rate benefits to the end consumer, and thereby indulging in illegal profiteering.
Who regulates anti-profiteering under the GST?
The Anti-Profiteering Rules, 2017(defined under Section 171 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act 2017), prevents entities from making excessive profits due to the lowering of GST.
The Government has created the National Anti-Profiteering Authority (NAA) to find and take action against taxable registered persons indulging in illegal profiteering.
NAA has the power to determine the methodology and procedure for determining whether a taxable person is engaging in illegal profiteering.
Reporting to the Anti-Profiteering Authority:
Any interested party who has information to believe a taxable person is engaging in illegal profiteering from GST can refer the matter to the local screening committee.
The State level Screening Committee shall examine the matter constituted by the State Governments consisting of officers of the State Government.
If the screening committee determines that the information contains merit, the committee shall forward it with recommendations to the Standing Committee on Anti-Profiteering, which consists of officers of both the State Government and Central Government.
If the Standing Committee contains enough proof to show that the taxable person engaged in illegal profiteering, then the committee shall refer to the Director General of Safeguards for a detailed investigation.
Investigation by the Director General of Safeguards:
All matters referred by the Standing Committee will be investigated by the Director General of Safeguards.
The Director General of Safeguards will collect evidence, conduct an investigation, and issue notices to the interested parties. The notice must contain the following details:
The description of the goods or services in respect of which the proceedings have been initiated.
Summary of the statement of facts on which the allegations are based.
The time limit allowed to the interested parties and other persons who may have information related to the proceedings for furnishing their reply.
Once all the information and hearings are complete, the Director General of Safeguards will provide a report of findings.
A report of findings must be submitted by the Director General of Safeguards, normally within 3 months or within 6 months if an extension is provided.
Order under Anti-Profiteering Provisions: Once all the proceedings are completed and a report is obtained from the Director General of Safeguards, the Members of Committee will pass an order. An order from the Authority could mandate
Reduction in prices.
Return to the recipient, an amount equivalent to the amount not passed on by way of a commensurate reduction in prices along with interest.
Imposition of penalty as specified under the Act.
Cancellation of GST registration.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.business-standard.com/economy/news/delhi-hc-upholds-validity-of-anti-profiteering-provisions-under-gst-124012900587_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding Laughing gull:
- It is mainly found on the Atlantic coast of North America.
- It is a completely herbivore animal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, Laughing gull, a migratory bird from North America, has been sighted for the first time in the country at the Chittari estuary in Kasaragod district.
The bird is known for its unique laughter-like calls which resemble human laughter.
Habitat: These are a coastal species and are only occasionally seen very far inland.
Distribution: These bird are mainly found on the Atlantic coast of North America, the Caribbean, and northern South America.
Diet: They are opportunistic carnivores and scavengers. They eat mainly fish, shellfish, crabs, mollusks, insects, bird eggs, and young birds.
Features
These are medium-sized gulls with fairly long wings and long legs that impart a graceful look when they are flying or walking. They have stout, fairly long bills.
They take 2-3 years to gain adult plumage.
Conservation Status
IUCN: Least Concern
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/in-a-first-in-the-country-laughing-gull-from-north-america-spotted-at-chittari-estuary-in-kasaragod/article67786315.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Economic Community of West African States:
- It was established through the Lagos Treaty in 1975.
- It aims to create a borderless region that is governed on the principles of democracy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the military regimes in Burkina Faso, Mali and Niger announced their immediate withdrawal from the West African bloc ECOWAS.
Economic Community of West African States is also known as CEDEAO in French.
It is the regional group which was established in 1975 through the Lagos Treaty.
Mandate: Promoting economic integration among its members.
The vision of ECOWAS is the creation of a “borderless region” that is well-integrated and governed in accordance with the principles of democracy, rule of law and good governance.
Members: Benin, Cape Verde, Cote d’ Ivoire, The Gambia, Ghana, Guinea, Guinea Bissau, Liberia, Nigeria, Sierra Leone, Senegal and Togo.
ECOWAS’ larger aims are to have a single common currency and create a single, large trading bloc in areas of industry, transport, telecommunications, energy, financial issues, and social and cultural matters.
Along with the goals of economic cooperation, it has attempted to quell military conflicts in the region.
It also operated a regional peacekeeping operation known as ECOMOG, led by Nigeria in the 1990s and early 2000s.
Headquarter: Abuja, Nigeria.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/burkina-mali-niger-quit-west-african-bloc-ecowas/article67786621.ece
With reference to E Ink display, consider the following statements:
- It is a special type of screen technology.
- It works using tiny microcapsules filled with charged particles.
- Unlike LCD and LED displays, it requires a backlight.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
With their crisp, paper-like screens, E Ink displays like the Kindle are a pleasure to read on.
These are a special type of screen technology often used in e-readers like the Amazon Kindle.
The technology was originally developed in the 1990s at MIT and is now owned by E Ink Corporation.
Working:
The screens work using tiny microcapsules filled with positively charged white particles and negatively charged black ones suspended in fluid inside the display.
By applying positive or negative electrical charges to different areas of the screen, the white or black particles can be made to rise to the surface, creating the text and images on the display.
Unlike LCD and LED displays that use a backlight, E Ink displays reflect light – just like paper. This makes them easier on the eyes for long reading sessions.
They also require very little power since they don’t need a backlight and only use energy when the image changes.
The lack of backlighting also means that they are easier to read under brighter lighting conditions, which isn’t the case with LCD/LED displays at all – legibility actually takes a hit under bright sunlight.
Other applications: It is used in bus stop displays and walking direction signs and restaurants menu boards etc.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/tech-news-technology/e-ink-displays-why-they-should-catch-on-9129270/
Exercise Sada Tanseeq is conducted between India and:
Saudi Arabia
Explanation :
In a major boost of ties the militaries of India and Saudi Arabia are conducting their first Joint Military Exercise named as Sada Tanseeq.
It is the inaugural edition of India-Saudi Arabia Joint Military Exercise ‘SADA TANSEEQ’ commenced at Mahajan, Rajasthan.
The Exercise is scheduled to be conducted from 29th January to 10th February 2024.
Aim of the Exercise is to train troops of both sides for Joint Operations in Semi Desert terrain under Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter.
The Exercise will enable both the sides to share their best practices in the tactics, techniques and procedures of conducting operations in sub-conventional domain.
It will facilitate developing interoperability, bonhomie and camaraderie between troops from both the sides.
The Exercise will involve Establishment of Mobile Vehicle Check Post, Cordon & Search Operation, House Intervention Drill, Reflex Shooting, Slithering and Sniper Firing.
The Exercise will provide an opportunity to both the contingents to strengthen their bond.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2000315
Consider the following statements regarding Sloth bear:
- They live in a variety of dry and moist forest habitats.
- They are endemic to India only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Karnataka has witnessed instances of human-sloth bear confrontations, raising concerns for both communities and wildlife enthusiasts.
Scientific Name: Melursus ursinus
Sloth bears are one of the eight bear species found across the world.
They are myrmecophagous, meaning, they find bugs and termites to be their most sought after meal.
Habitat: They live in a variety of dry and moist forests and in some tall grasslands, where boulders, scattered shrubs and trees provide shelter.
Distribution: They mainly inhabit the region of India, Nepal, Sri Lanka and presumably Bhutan.
Appearance: They have long, shaggy dark brown or black fur and curved claws, which are the longest out of any of the bear species.
Conservation Status
IUCN: Vulnerable
Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule 1
Key to mitigate human-sloth bear confrontations: Enhancing habitat connectivity, minimising human-wildlife interaction zones, and implementing responsible waste management practices.
Sloth Bear Sanctuaries in India: Daroji Sloth Bear Sanctuary (Karnataka)
, Jessore Sloth Bear Sanctuary (Gujarat).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/in-jambavan-s-land-sloth-bears-mostly-coexist-peacefully-with-humans-in-karnataka-but-conflict-is-not-non-existent-94149
Corruption Perception Index (CPI) is released annually by:
Transparency International
Explanation :
India’s rank in the Corruption Perception Index (CPI) 2023 has slipped to 93 out of 180 countries, with a score of 39.
About Corruption Perception Index (CPI):
It is an annual index released by Transparency International, a global civil society organization.
Since its inception in 1995, the Corruption Perceptions Index has become the leading global indicator of public sector corruption.
The CPI ranks 180 countries and territories by their perceived levels of public sector corruption on a scale of zero (highly corrupt) to 100 (very clean).
It uses data from 13 external sources, including the World Bank, World Economic Forum, private risk and consulting companies, think tanks and others.
The scores reflect the views of experts and business people, not the public.
Highlights of CPI 2023:
CPI-2023 results show that most countries have made little to no progress in tackling public sector corruption.
CPI global average score remains unchanged at 43 for the twelfth year in a row.
Denmark topped the index for the sixth consecutive year.
Somalia was ranked last, other countries occupying the bottom spots included: Venezuela, Syria, South Sudan and Yemen.
India has tied with Maldives, Kazakhstan, and Lesotho to rank at 93 out of 180 countries. In 2022, India was ranked at 85.
Pakistan scored 29 with a rank of 133 and China, scored 42 occupying rank 76.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/india-ranks-93-on-corruption-index-china-at-76-denmark-tops/articleshow/107264443.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding Eravikulam National Park:
- The Anamudi peak is situated on the southern side of the park.
- It has the largest surviving population of endangered Nilgiri tahr.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Eravikulam National Park (ENP), the natural habitat of the Nilgiri tahr, will soon be closed for the calving season of the species.
About Eravikulam National Park:
Location: It is located along the Western Ghats in the Idukki district of Kerala.
It was declared as National Park in 1978.
The Park covers an area of 97 sq.km.
The highest peak south of the Himalayas, the Anamudi (2695 meters), is situated on the southern side of the park.
This is also the land of “Neelakurinji”, the flower that blooms once every twelve years.
Climate: The park receives heavy showers during the southwest (June/July) and retreating (October/November) monsoons and is one of the wettest areas of the world.
Vegetation: The major part of the park is covered with rolling grasslands, but several patches of shola forests are also found in the upper part of the valley.
Flora:
Important flora includes Actinodaphne bourdilloni, Microtropis ramiflora, Pittosporum tetraspermium, Sysygium aronottianum, Chrysopogon Zelanieus, etc.
The shola grasslands are exceptionally rich in balsams and orchids, including the long thought extinct variety Brachycorythis wightii.
Fauna:
The Nilgiri Tahr, Gaur, Sloth Bear, Nilgiri Langur, Tiger, Leopard, Giant Squirrel, and wild dog are the common species.
Half the world population of the endangered Nilgiri Tahr lives here.
The Atlas moth, the largest of its kind in the world, is seen in this park.
140 species of birds, of which 10 are unique to the Western Ghats. More than 100 varieties of butterflies have been recorded here.
Key Facts about Nilgiri tahr:
It is an endangered mountain ungulate endemic to the southern part of the Western Ghats.
Scientific Name: Nilgiritragus hylocrius
Locally, the animal is called ‘Varayaadu’.
They are known for their gravity-defying skills in climbing steep cliffs, earning them the nickname Mountain Monarch.
It is the state animal of Tamil Nadu.
Distribution:
Their present distribution is limited to approximately 5% of the Western Ghats in southern India (Kerala and Tamil Nadu).
Eravikulam National Park in Kerala has the highest density and largest surviving population of Nilgiri tahr.
Habitat: They inhabit the open montane grassland habitats at elevations from 1200 to 2600 m of the South Western Ghats.
Features:
It has a stocky body with short, coarse fur and a bristly mane.
Both sexes have curved horns, which are larger in the males, reaching up to 40 cm in males and 30 cm in females.
Adult males develop a light grey area or ’saddle’ on their backs and are hence called ‘saddlebacks’.
It has a short grey-brown or dark coat.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Endangered
Wildlife (Protection) Act of India, 1972: Schedule I
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/eravikulam-national-park-to-be-shut-from-february-1-for-calving-season-of-nilgiri-tahr/article67793519.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Snow Leopard:
- It is found only in the western Himalayan region.
- It is classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The first scientific survey of the snow leopard in India shows the country is home to 718 of the elusive cats, the government said recently.
About Snow Leopard:
It is a large, long-haired Asian cat, classified as either Panthera uncia or Uncia uncia in the family Felidae.
Geographic Range:
Snow leopards live across a vast area in northern and central Asia’s high mountains, including the Himalayan region.
In the Himalayas, they live in high alpine areas, mostly above the tree line and up to 18,000 feet in elevation.
They are found in 12 countries, including China, Bhutan, Nepal, India, Pakistan, Russia, and Mongolia.
In India, it is seen in Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.
Features:
Measuring from nose to tail, the length of an average adult is 1000 to 1300 mm.
They have thick grey and yellow-tinged fur, with solid spots on their head, neck, and lower limbs and rosettes over the rest of the body.
They also have very long, thick tails that they use for balancing on rocks and wrapping around their bodies for protection from the cold.
Their short forelimbs and long hind limbs make them very agile, and they can jump as much as 50 feet in length.
They are solitary, and the only prolonged social contact occurs while females are raising their cubs.
Conservation status:
IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
CITES: Appendix I
Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972: Schedule I
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://www.livemint.com/news/india-says-its-elusive-snow-leopard-population-is-at-718-11706632981602.html
With reference to the Alzheimer’s disease, consider the following statements:
- It causes a progressive decline in memory, thinking, learning and organizing skills.
- It is the most common type of dementia.
- There is currently no cure for Alzheimer’s.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
As per a recent study, rare medical accidents can lead to the transmission of Alzheimer’s from one human to another.
About Alzheimer’s Disease:
It is a brain condition that causes a progressive decline in memory, thinking, learning, and organizing skills.
It is the most common type of dementia, accounting for 60-80% of all dementia cases.
It involves parts of the brain that control thought, memory, and language.
It can seriously affect a person’s ability to carry out daily activities.
The condition usually affects people aged 65 years and over, with only 10% of cases occurring in people younger than this.
Cause: The exact cause of Alzheimer’s disease is not fully understood, but it is believed to be influenced by a combination of genetic, environmental, and lifestyle factors.
Symptoms:
The early signs of the disease include forgetting recent events or conversations.
Over time, it progresses to serious memory problems and loss of the ability to perform everyday tasks.
Treatment: There’s no cure for Alzheimer’s, but certain medications and therapies can help manage symptoms temporarily.
What is Dementia?
Dementia is not a specific disease but is rather a general term for the impaired ability to remember, think, or make decisions that interferes with doing everyday activities.
Alzheimer’s disease is the most common type of dementia. However, there are several other types of dementia, each with its own underlying causes. Some of the common types of dementia include: Vascular Dementia, Lewy Body Dementia, Frontotemporal Dementia, and Mixed Dementia.
Though dementia mostly affects older adults, it is not a part of normal aging.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/life-style/health-fitness/health-news/can-alzheimers-disease-spread-from-human-to-human/photostory/107249084.cms?from=mdr
With reference to the H-1B Visa, consider the following statements:
- It allows US companies to employ foreign workers in specialty occupations.
- It is a multiple-entry visa valid for ten years.
- If the H1-B holder is changing jobs, he or she must reapply for a new visa.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The U.S. State Department recently launched a program to renew the much sought-after H-1B foreign work visas domestically.
About H-1B Visa:
It is a non-immigrant visa that allows US companies to employ foreign workers in specialty occupations that require theoretical or technical expertise for a specified period.
A specialty occupation is one that requires the application of a body of highly specialized knowledge and the attainment of at least a bachelor’s degree or its equivalent.
The intent of the H-1B provisions is to help employers who cannot otherwise obtain needed business skills and abilities from the U.S. workforce by authorizing the temporary employment of qualified individuals who are not otherwise authorized to work in the United States.
Occupations that qualify for the H-1B visa are typically in fields such as technology, finance, engineering, architecture, or more.
Eligibility: In order to be eligible for the H1B visa, you will need:
A valid job offer from a U.S. employer for a role that requires specialty knowledge
Proof of a bachelor’s degree or equivalent experience in that field
The US employer must show that there is a lack of qualified U.S. applicantsfor the role.
Cap:
The annual H-1B visa limit is 85,000. There are 65,000 regular H-1B visas each year, and an additional 20,000 visas are reserved for applicants with advanced degrees.
Some exceptions to the H-1B visa cap include people entering the U.S. to work in higher education or affiliated research/non-profit organizations.
Applicants are selected for adjudication via lottery system.
Features:
The H-1B visa is valid for three years and can be extended one time for an additional three years. In general, the H-1B is valid for a maximum of six years.
There is no limit to the number of H1-B Visas that an individual can have in his or her lifetime.
H1-B holders can seek Green Card or Lawful Permanent Residency for themselves and their family.
If the H1-B holder is changing jobs, he or she must reapply for a new visa.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livemint.com/news/world/us-visa-washington-launches-pilot-programme-to-renew-h-1b-visas-domestically-all-you-need-to-know-11706666978101.html
Salher fort, Shivneri fort and Panhala Fort, recently seen in news, are located in:
Maharashtra
Explanation :
The “Maratha Military Landscapes of India” will be India’s nomination for recognition as UNESCO World Heritage List for the year 2024-25.
The Maratha Military Landscapes of India, which developed between 17th and 19th centuries, represent an extraordinary fortification and military system envisioned by the Maratha rulers.
This extraordinary network of forts, varying in hierarchies, scales and typological features, is a result of integrating the landscape, terrain and physiographic characteristics distinctive to the Sahyadri mountain ranges, the Konkan Coast, Deccan Plateau and the Eastern Ghats in the Indian Peninsula.
The twelve component parts of this nomination are, Salher fort, Shivneri fort, Lohgad, Khanderi fort, Raigad, Rajgad, Pratapgad, Suvarnadurg, Panhala Fort, Vijay durg, Sindhudurg in Maharashtra and Gingee Fort in Tamil Nadu.
Among these, Salher fort, Shivneri fort, Lohgad, Raigad, Rajgad and Gingee fort are hill forts, Pratapgad is hill-forest fort, Panhala is hill-plateau fort, Vijaydurg is coastal fort whereas Khanderi fort, Suvarnadurg and Sindhudurg are island forts.
The inception of the Maratha Military ideology dates back to 17th Century during the reign of the Maratha King Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj by the 1670 CE and continued through subsequent rules until Peshwa rule till 1818 CE.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2000461
Consider the following statements regarding the Bharat 5G Portal:
- It serves the interests of startups in 6G and 5G domains.
- It acts as a one-stop solution for all quantum and Intellectual Property Rights related issues.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Secretary, Department of Telecommunications (DoT), Ministry of Communications (MoC), launched the “Bharat 5G Portal- an integrated portal” on the sidelines of ‘Bharat Telecom 2024.
It is a comprehensive platform serving the interests of startups, industry and academia in quantum, 6G, IPR and 5G domains.
It also features the Future Tech-Experts registration portal in collaboration with PANIIT USA, aimed to help and advise the Indian Telecom ecosystem to advance the goal of Atmanirbhar Bharat.
It acts as a one-stop solution for all quantum, IPR, PoCs/Pilot, 5G and 6G-related works, capturing academic R&D developments, industry standards, OEMs, startups/MSMEs, and subject matter experts.
It aims to propel India’s 5G capabilities, foster innovation, collaboration, and knowledge-sharing within the telecom sector.
Other 5G related initiatives in India
Prime Minister of India in the India Mobile Congress, awarded 100 “5G Use Case Labs” to educational institutions across the countries to build competencies and engagement in 5G technologies for students & start-up communities.
All the 100+ Labs/institutions are connected through a dedicated portal (Digital network of 100 5G Labs).
It acts as a knowledge dissemination platform for the institutions/students/start-ups wherein 5G use cases are being tested/developed.
Telecommunications Consultants India Limited (TCIL) is implementation agency for installation of 100 Labs and portal development.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2000654
With reference to Shumang Leela, consider the following statements:
- It is a traditional form of theatre performed in Manipur.
- It is only performed by men.
- It is believed to be descended from Lai Haraoba festival.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The artists of Shumang Leela bearing the brunt of the enduring ethnic violence in Manipur which is also jeopardizing the vibrant cultural fabric of the state.
It is a traditional form of theatre in Manipur.
In this the roles of female artists are all played by male actors and male characters are played by female artists in case of female theatre groups.
It was started as a comic genre for royalty and has evolved into a powerful medium for mass education, entertainment, and relaxation.
In this, the roles of women are all played by men, called Nupi Shabis.
The female roles are taken up by transgender actors.
The tradition is believed to be descended from Lai Haraoba, a ritual of the Meitei community of Manipur.
Purpose: The plays provide a vehicle for educating the public about social, political, and economic issues.
Types - Shumang Leela is of two types
Nupa Shumang Leela – It is Performed only by men
Nupi Shumang Leela – It is Performed only by women
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/north-east-india/manipur/manipur-shumang-leela-performers-ethnic-strife-9131208/
Agasthyagama edge, recently seen in news, is a:
kangaroo lizard
Explanation :
Recently, scientists have discovered a new kangaroo lizard species from the Western Ghats.
Researchers named the new, scaly reptiles after the Evolutionarily Distinct and Globally Endangered of Existence (EDGE) program through the Zoological Society of London.
The new species Agasthyagama edge or the northern kangaroo lizard belongs to the Agamidae family.
A group of scientists discovered the new species from the southern Western Ghats at Kulamavu in Idukki.
The species is the second one of the Agasthyagama genus after A. beddomii or Indian kangaroo lizard that has been previously reported from Sivagiri hills in Tamil Nadu.
Features
A reduced fifth toe makes these reptiles poor climbers and hence do not climb trees like other lizards.
Instead, they are mostly terrestrial and found in areas with dense leaf litter cover.
They feed on small insects, this variety of kangaroo lizard run fast and hide within dry leaves to evade predators.
It is known to have a maximum snout-vent length of 4.3 cm.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/scientists-discover-new-kangaroo-lizard-species-from-western-ghats/article67792494.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Lab-grown fish:
- It is produced by isolating specific cells from fish.
- The final product replicates the texture and nutritional qualities of ‘real’ fish meat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, ICAR-Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI) has entered into a collaborative research agreement with a private-sector start-up offering cultivated meat technology solutions to grow fish meat in the laboratory.
It is merely a type of lab-grown — or cultivated/ cultured — meat.
Seafood without the sea is ‘grown’ in the same way as other cultivated meats are grown — without the need to raise and kill an animal.
Process: Cultivated fish meat is produced by isolating specific cells from fish and growing them in a laboratory setting using media that is free of animal components.
The final product is expected to replicate the flavour, texture, and nutritional qualities of ‘real’ fish meat.
Role of Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute
It will focus on the genetic, biochemical, and analytical work related to the project.
In its cell culture lab, it will carry out research on early cell line development of high-value marine fish species — a process that involves isolating and cultivating fish cells for further research and development.
It will initially focus on developing cell-based meat of fish such as pomfret, kingfish, and seerfish.
Recently, a number of countries have made great strides in this pioneering technology.
Israel is the frontrunner, followed by Singapore, the United States and China.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/how-to-grow-seafood-outside-the-sea-and-why-a-govt-lab-in-kochi-has-taken-up-this-project-9133764/
Consider the following statements regarding the tsunami:
- Tsunamis are shallow-water waves with long wavelengths and high speeds.
- The 2004 Indian Ocean Tsunami was primarily triggered by a massive underwater earthquake off the coast of Sumatra.
- Tsunami waves can lose energy and decrease in height as they approach the coastline due to friction with the seabed and land.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Tsunami waves hit several parts of Japan’s coastal areas and urgent evacuation warnings were issued.
Tsunamis are shallow-water waves characterized by long wavelengths and high speeds. So, statement 1 is correct.
The 2004 Indian Ocean Tsunami was primarily triggered by a massive underwater earthquake off the coast of Sumatra. So, statement 2 is correct.
Tsunami waves typically gain height and energy as they approach the coastline due to the reduction of water depth, leading to catastrophic effects. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the polarization of X-rays:
- X-rays are electromagnetic waves that can be polarized by scattering processes.
- Polarization of X-rays refers to the orientation of the electric field vector of the X-ray waves.
- X-rays undergo polarization due to their extremely long wavelengths.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) put its first polarimetry mission X-ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat) on January 1.
ISRO’s PSLV-C58 has launched XPoSAT Satellite.
XPoSat is the world’s second satellite-based mission dedicated to making X-ray polarimetry measurements.
X-rays comprise electric and magnetic waves that are constantly in motion. Being sinusoidal waves, they do not follow a patterned direction of motion.
Whereas, a polarised X-ray is both organised and has two waves vibrating in the same direction.
X-rays can indeed be polarized by scattering processes, such as Compton scattering. So, statement 1 is correct.
Polarization of X-rays refers to the orientation of the electric field vector of the X-ray waves. So, statement 2 is correct.
X-rays can undergo polarization despite their short wavelengths, especially through scattering processes. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
The Free Movement Regime (FMR) is a significant policy framework in certain regional agreements. Which of the following statements regarding Free Movement Regime is correct?
FMR enables the free movement of people, goods, services and capital within member countries.
Explanation :
As per the govt officials, the Union government is all set to scrap the Free Movement Regime (FMR) along the Myanmar border.
People living in border areas, who could cross over to India, will soon require visas.
The Free Movement Regime is a pact between India and Myanmar that allows tribes living along the border on either side to travel up to 16 km inside the other country without a visa.
FMR is being seen as a part of the India’s Act East policy.
FMR allows the unrestricted movement of people, goods, services, and capital within member countries, fostering economic integration and cooperation.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
The Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, is a crucial legal document in India. Consider the following statements regarding the IPC:
- It is a comprehensive code that covers substantive criminal laws.
- It recognizes the concept of insanity as a defense against criminal liability.
- It classifies offenses into cognizable and non-cognizable categories.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Transporters and auto-driver associations in India are protesting against a new law related to hit-and-run incidents.
The three-day strike was launched to protest against the stringent jail and fine regulations under the newly implemented Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) for hit-and-run cases.
The IPC is a comprehensive code that covers substantive aspects of criminal law in India. So, statement 1 is correct.
Substantive criminal law defines what constitutes a criminal offense, the elements of the offense, and the penalties or punishments associated with it.
E.g.,IPC Section 300 defines the offense of murder, stating that culpable homicide becomes murder if the act is done with the intention of causing death or with the knowledge that it is likely to cause death.
This section outlines the substantive elements of the crime.
Procedural criminal law governs the legal procedures that must be followed during the investigation, prosecution, and adjudication of criminal cases.
The IPC does recognize the concept of “insanity” as a defense against criminal liability. It is covered under Section 84, which deals with the defense of unsoundness of mind. So, statement 2 is correct.
The IPC classifies offenses into two categories: cognizable offenses, for which the police can make an arrest without a warrant, and non-cognizable offenses, for which the police generally require a warrant to make an arrest. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following scenarios best describes the application of short selling?
A.
An investor purchases shares of a company and immediately sells them for a profit.
B.
An investor purchases shares of a company and holds onto them for a long-term investment strategy.
C.
An investor sells shares of a company in the market with the expectation that the company’s stock price will fall in the near future.
D.
An investor borrows shares of a company from a broker and sells them in the market with the intention of buying them back at a lower price to return to the broker.
D.
An investor borrows shares of a company from a broker and sells them in the market with the intention of buying them back at a lower price to return to the broker.
Explanation :
The Supreme Court of India has reinforced the Securities and Exchange Board of India’s (SEBI) ongoing investigation into the Adani-Hindenburg controversy.
Soon after the Hindenburg Report was published, Adani Group stocks plummeted by USD 140 billion.
Short selling involves borrowing shares from a broker and selling them in the market with the expectation that the stock price will decline.
The investor aims to buy back the shares at a lower price to return them to the broker, pocketing the difference as profit.
This process is a common strategy used by investors to profit from declining stock prices in the market.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Science Congress (ISC):
- 108th ISC was held in Nagpur.
- ISC is organized by the Indian Science Congress Association.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
PM Modi had inaugurated the 108th Indian Science Congress (ISC) held in Nagpur in January 2023 via video conferencing. So, statement 1 is correct.
ISC is a one-of-its-kind event in the country which brings together the scientific communities on a platform for their interaction with students and the general public on matters related to science.
The event is organized by the Indian Science Congress Association (ISCA). So, statement 2 is correct.
ISCA is an independent body functioning with the support of the Department of Science and Technology (DST) in the central government.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Aditya L1 Mission:
- It is ISRO’s second expedition to study the Sun.
- Under the mission, the spacecraft will be placed in a halo orbit around the Lagrange point 5 of the Sun-Earth system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Aditya L1, India’s first mission to study the Sun, is inching closer to its destination, & was injected into its final orbit on January 6 evening.
The spacecraft was launched on September 2 and it got into what is known as a ‘halo orbit’ around the Lagrange Point 1 (L1).
L1 is one of the five spots in the moving Sun-Earth system, where the gravitational effects of the two bodies roughly balance each other.
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully launched the observatory that will study the Sun from 1.5 million kilometres away.
It is the space organisation’s maiden expedition to study the Sun. So, statement 1 is not correct.
It is also ISRO’s second astronomy observatory-class mission after AstroSat (2015).
Launched by the PSLV-C57, Aditya-L1 mission aims to study prospects of Sun.
The solar probe was carried into space by the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) in ‘XL’ configuration.
This mission is India’s solar mission where the spacecraft will be placed in a halo orbit around the Lagrange point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs):
- RUPPs include those political parties that have not gained sufficient votes to be a state/national party.
- Such parties enjoy all the benefits extended to the recognised parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Election Commission of India introduced new regulations for allocating symbols to Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs).
Now, these parties must provide:
audited accounts from the last three financial years,
expenditure statements from the last two elections, and
the signature of the authorized party official along with their symbol application.
Registration of political parties
Article 324 of the Indian Constitution grants the ECI the authority to register political parties.
The registration of all political parties is governed by the provisions of Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
According to the ECI, any party seeking registration must file an application (to the Secretary to the ECI) within 30 days of its formation.
About RUPPs
These parties include:
newly registered ones,
those that haven’t gained sufficient votes to be a state/national party. So, statement 1 is correct.
those that have never participated in elections since their registration.
Such parties do not enjoy all the benefits extended to the recognised parties. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements best describes the application of Biometric Enabled Seamless Travel experience (BEST)?
BEST is a technology-driven initiative that allows travellers to seamlessly navigate through various checkpoints at airports using biometric identification.
Explanation :
Explanation:
Recently, air travellers took to social media to express their shock and anger because their privacy was being violated at airports.
This was mainly happening due to the forceful promotion of the Digi Yatra initiative by the Union government.
DigiYatra was rolled out as an entirely voluntary programme from December 2022.
In December 2022, it was rolled out at three airports, including Delhi.
Since then, it has been implemented at 11 airports, and will be expanded to 14 more in the months to come.
It is an industry-led initiative co-ordinated by the Ministry of Civil Aviation in line with Digital India’s vision to transform the nation into a digitally empowered society.
The ‘DigiYatra’ is a Biometric Enabled Seamless Travel experience (BEST) based on Facial Recognition Technology.
BEST is a technology-driven initiative implemented at airports to enhance the travel experience of passengers.
It allows travellers to seamlessly navigate through various checkpoints such as check-in, security, and boarding gates using biometric identification methods like fingerprints or facial recognition.
This initiative aims to improve security, efficiency, and passenger experience at airports.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS):
- Maritime piracy is defined under UNCLOS as any illegal acts of violence or detention committed for private ends by the crew or passengers of a private ship or aircraft.
- UNCLOS grants coastal states the right to prosecute and punish pirates captured within their territorial waters.
- The International Maritime Organization (IMO) is responsible for coordinating efforts to combat piracy and armed robbery at sea, in accordance with UNCLOS provisions.
- UNCLOS requires all signatory states to allow foreign naval vessels to enter their territorial waters for the purpose of combating piracy and armed robbery at sea.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Consider the following statements regarding the National Cancer Grid (NCG):
- The primary objective of the NCG is to facilitate collaboration among cancer care institutions and to standardize treatment protocols across the country.
- NCG aims to provide free cancer treatment to all patients in India, regardless of their socio-economic status.
- NCG is an initiative of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Given the escalating cases of cancer, the shortage of specialists poses a significant challenge in curbing fatalities.
To address this gap, Mumbai’s Tata Memorial Hospital (TMH), the biggest cancer hospital in India, is turning to artificial intelligence (AI).
By establishing a Bio-Imaging Bank for cancer, the hospital is utilising deep learning to craft a cancer-specific tailored algorithm.
The National Cancer Grid (NCG) is a network of cancer centers, research institutes, and patient groups in India.
It aims to create a network of cancer centres, research institutes, patient groups and charitable institutions across India with the objective of developing uniform standards of patient care for -
Prevention, diagnosis and treatment of cancer;
Providing specialised training and education in oncology and
Facilitating collaborative basic, translational and clinical research in cancer.
The primary objective of the NCG is to facilitate collaboration among cancer care institutions and to standardize treatment protocols across the country. So, statement 1 is correct.
While the NCG aims to improve access to quality cancer care, it does not specifically aim to provide free treatment to all patients in India. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The NCG was established in 2012 as a government of India initiative through the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) and its grant-in-aid institution, theTata Memorial Centre. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court Legal Services Committee (SCLSC):
- The Committee was constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
- The Committee consists of a sitting SC judge along with other members possessing the experience and qualifications prescribed by the Centre.
- Both the chairman and other members of the Committee are nominated by the CJI.
- The aim of this committee to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of society in cases falling under the top court’s jurisdiction.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All four
Explanation :
Supreme Court judge Justice BR Gavai has been nominated as the Chairman of the Supreme Court Legal Services Committee (SCLSC).
Supreme Court Legal Services Committee (SCLSC)?
Background
The idea of a legal aid programme was earlier floated in the 1950s.
However, it was in 1980 that a committee at the national level was established under the chairmanship of then SC judge Justice PN Bhagwati.
The Committee for Implementing Legal Aid Schemes started monitoring legal aid activities throughout India.
Legal backing
The Supreme Court Legal Services Committee was constituted under Section 3A of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. So, statement 1 is correct.
Aim
The aim of this committee to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of society in cases falling under the top court’s jurisdiction. So, statement 4 is correct.
Composition
Section 3A of the Act states that the Central Authority (the National Legal Services Authority or NALSA) shall constitute the committee.
The committee consists of a sitting SC judge, who is the chairman, along with other members possessing the experience and qualifications prescribed by the Centre. So, statement 2 is correct.
Both the chairman and other members will be nominated by the CJI. Further, the CJI can appoint the Secretary to the Committee. So, statement 3 is correct.
The Committee, in turn, can appoint officers and other employees as prescribed by the Centre, in consultation with the CJI.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- Coal currently accounts for 44% of India’s primary energy sources and 70% of its power generation.
- According to the Draft National Electricity Plan 2022, coal’s share in the electricity generation mix will decrease to 50% by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India has much higher electricity from carbon-sources than the world average.
Coal currently accounts for 44% of India’s primary energy sources and 70% of its power generation. So, statement 1 is correct.
The country’s coal-fired power plants have an average age of 13 years and India has 91,000 MW of new proposed coal capacity in the works, second only to China.
According to the Draft National Electricity Plan 2022, coal’s share in the electricity generation mix will decrease to 50% by 2030, compared to the current contribution of 70%. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following oceanic features is not located near the Maldives?
Java Trench
Explanation :
The Maldives government suspended three deputy ministers after they took to social media to make derogatory remarks against PM Modi.
The Java Trench is located in the eastern Indian Ocean, to the southeast of the Indian subcontinent.
It is not in proximity to the Maldives, which is situated in the central-western part of the Indian Ocean. The other options, Chagos-Laccadive Ridge, Addu Atoll, and Nine-Degree Channel, are geographically closer to or associated with the Maldives region.
Therefore, option (d) is the answer.
Power of remission is a:
A.
Constitutional power
B.
Statutory power
Explanation :
The Supreme Court has struck down the remission granted by the Gujarat government to 11 convicts, who are out of jail, in the Bilkis Bano case.
The apex court directed these convicts to report to jail authorities within two weeks.
These men were convicted for gang-raping her and murdering her family members in 2002. All 11 of them were sentenced to life imprisonment for the crime.
Later, in August 2022, the Gujarat government released all 11 convicts.
Power of remission as a constitutional power: Both the President (Article 72) and the Governor (Article 161) have been vested with sovereign power of pardon by the Constitution
Power of remission as a statutory power: The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) provides for remission of prison sentences, which means the whole or a part of the sentence may be cancelled.
Under Section 432 of CrPC, the ‘appropriate government’ may suspend or remit a sentence, in whole or in part, with or without conditions.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following objectives:
- Reach out to the vulnerable who are eligible under various schemes but have not availed benefit so far
- Dissemination of information and generating awareness about schemes
- Interaction with beneficiaries of government schemes through their personal stories/ experience sharing
How many of the above statement(s) is/are the objectives of Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra?
All three
Explanation :
The Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi interacted with beneficiaries of Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra via video conferencing.
The Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra is a government initiative being undertaken across the country, to raise awareness about and track the implementation of flagship central schemes.
These schemes include programmes like Ayushman Bharat, Ujjwala Yojana, PM Surkasha Bima, PM SVANidhi, etc.
Aims
Reach out to the vulnerable who are eligible under various schemes but have not availed benefit so far. So, statement 1 is correct.
Dissemination of information and generating awareness about schemes. So, statement 2 is correct.
Interaction with beneficiaries of government schemes through their personal stories/ experience sharing. So, statement 3 is correct.
Enrolment of potential beneficiaries through details ascertained during the Yatra.
Implementation
The programme is being undertaken with the active involvement of various Union ministries and state governments.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
The Artemis programme is a series of ongoing lunar missions run by NASA. In this context, consider the following pairs:
Explanation :
The Artemis programme is a series of ongoing lunar missions run by NASA.
Different phases under this programme
One Artemis mission has already been completed. In late 2022, Artemis 1, an uncrewed test flight, orbited and flew beyond the Moon.
Artemis 2 will be a crewed flight beyond the Moon which will take humans the farthest they’ve ever been in space.
Artemis 3 will be the first crewed Moon landing mission since Apollo 17 in 1972.
NASA aims to land the first female astronaut and first astronaut of colour on the lunar surface.
They will spend a week on the Moon performing scientific studies, before returning to Earth.
Artemis 4 will deliver a core part of a new lunar space station (named ‘Gateway’) into orbit around the Moon, and land another two astronauts on the Moon’s surface.
Artemis 5 will add another important module to Gateway and involve a third crewed lunar landing to undertake further surface science.
Consider the following statements regarding the minorities in India:
- The subject of identification of the minority community is on the Concurrent List.
- Currently, the central government decides who gets the minority community status in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A seven-judge Bench of the Supreme Court started hearing the matter pertaining to Aligarh Muslim University’s minority character.
The expression minorities appear in some Articles of the Constitution, but is not defined anywhere.
Identification
The subject of identification of the minority community is on the Concurrent List. So, statement 1 is correct.
Currently, the central government decides who gets the minority community status in India. It is done under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the regulatory framework for organ donation in India:
- The Transplantation of Human Organs Act, 2009 regulates organ donation in India.
- Under the Transplantation of Human Organs Act, commercialization of organs has been allowed in certain cases.
- National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organization (NOTTO) coordinates all the activities associated with organ donation at national level.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Delhi High Court has prescribed an ideal timeline of 6-8 weeks to complete the process of transplanting organs from living donors.
It directed the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare to ensure that timelines under The Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act, 1994, and Rules, 2014 are prescribed for all steps in the process of considering organ-donation applications.
In 1994, The Transplantation of Human Organs Act (THOA) was promulgated by the government of India. Hence, the THOA, 1994 regulates the organ donation in India. So, statement 1 is not correct.
THOA, 1994 made commercialization of organs a punishable offence and legalized the concept of brain death in India allowing deceased donation by obtaining organs from brain stem dead person. So, statement 2 is not correct.
National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organization (NOTTO) is a national level organization set up under Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Besides laying down policy guidelines and protocols for various functions, it coordinates all the activities associated with organ donation at national level. So statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the 2016 Nabam Rebia judgment:
- The 2016 Nabam Rebia judgment was related to the disqualification of legislators in a state assembly.
- The judgment highlighted the importance of maintaining the separation of powers.
- It addressed issues related to the appointment and removal of the Speaker of a state legislative assembly.
- The judgment emphasized the need for transparency and accountability in the functioning of state governments.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Maharashtra Speaker ruled that the Eknath Shinde faction was the legitimate and real Shiv Sena, having the support of the majority of the party’s MLAs.
The 2016 Nabam Rebia judgment did not concern the disqualification of legislators in a state assembly. Instead, it revolved around the constitutional validity of actions taken by the Governor of Arunachal Pradesh regarding the convening of the state legislative assembly. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The judgment indeed highlighted the importance of maintaining the separation of powers. It underscored the principle that the Governor, as part of the executive branch, should not interfere with the functioning of the legislative branch (state assembly) beyond the powers vested in the office. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Nabam Rebia judgment addressed issues related to the appointment and removal of the Speaker of the Arunachal Pradesh Legislative Assembly. It ruled against the actions of the Governor in convening a session of the legislative assembly and presiding over the proceedings to remove the Speaker. So, statement 3 is correct.
While transparency and accountability are important principles in governance, the Nabam Rebia judgment did not specifically emphasize these aspects in the functioning of state governments. The focus of the judgment was primarily on upholding constitutional principles and preserving the independence of state legislative bodies from executive interference. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the International Court of Justice (ICJ):
- The ICJ is one of the principal organs of the United Nations.
- It is the only principal organ of UN which is not located in New York city.
- No Indian has been a member of the ICJ so far.
- English, French and Portugese are the official languages of ICJ.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The International Court of Justice (ICJ) has been asked to consider whether Israel is committing genocide against the Palestinians in Gaza. South Africa brought the case to the court.
The ICJ is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). So, statement 1 is correct.
The seat of the ICJ is at the Peace Palace in the Hague (Netherlands). It is the only one of the six principal organs of the UN that is not located in New York City. So, statement 2 is correct.
Four Indians have been members of the ICJ so far. Justice Dalveer Bhandari, former judge of the Supreme Court, has been serving at the ICJ since 2012. So, statement 3 is not correct.
English and French are the ICJ’s official languages. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Swachh Survekshan:
- It has been launched as part of the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan – Urban.
- It was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) with Quality Council of India (QCI) as its implementation partner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Surat in Gujarat and Indore in Madhya Pradesh were jointly declared cleanest cities of the country at the annual clean city awards 2023 of the Union Urban Affairs Ministry.
This was for the seventh year in a row that Indore has been ranked as the cleanest city in India.
It is an annual survey of cleanliness, hygiene and sanitation in cities and towns across India, launched as part of the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (specifically under SBA-Urban). So, statement 1 is correct.
It was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) with Quality Council of India (QCI) as its implementation partner. So, statement 2 is correct.
The SBA was launched (on 2nd October 2014) to make India clean and free of open defecation by 2nd October 2019.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding cervical cancer and Human papillomavirus (HPV):
- Cervical cancer is primarily caused by HPV, a sexually transmitted infection.
- Regular Pap smear tests are effective in diagnosing cervical cancer.
- Cervical cancer affects only older women and is not a significant health concern for younger individuals.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The government is set to roll out a HPV vaccination campaign for girls in the 9-14 years age group.
It is a significant step which has potential to reduce the incidence of cervical cancer in India.
Cervical cancer is primarily caused by certain types of Human papillomavirus (HPV), a sexually transmitted infection. Persistent infection with high-risk HPV types is a major risk factor for the development of cervical cancer. So, statement 1 is correct.
Regular Pap smear tests are effective in detecting abnormal cervical cell changes caused by HPV infection, thus aiding in the early diagnosis and prevention of cervical cancer. So, statement 2 is correct.
While cervical cancer is more common in older women, it can affect women of all ages, including younger individuals. Early detection and preventive measures such as HPV vaccination are crucial for reducing the risk of cervical cancer across all age groups. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Operation Sadbhavana:
- The Indian Army launched Operation SADBHAVANA’ for the people living in remote areas of Union Territory (UT) of Ladakh.
- The projects under this scheme are selected after taking local aspirations into consideration.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Army has adopted Topa Pir village in Poonch district as a model village under the Sadbhavana scheme.
Indian Army launched ‘Operation SADBHAVANA’ for the people living in remote areas of Union Territory (UT) of Ladakh in February 2023. So, statement 1 is correct.
Under this, Indian Army is undertaking multiple welfare activities such as running of Army Goodwill Schools, Infrastructure Development Projects and Education Tours etc.
The objectives achieved through this scheme are national integration tours, women empowerment, employment generation, education and development activities towards nation building.
‘Operation SADBHAVANA’ projects are selected after taking local aspirations into consideration, in conjunction with local civil administration. So, statement 2 is correct.
It is ensured that there is no duplicacy with projects of civil administration.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY):
- PMFBY is a crop insurance scheme launched by the Government of India to provide financial support to farmers in case of crop failure due to natural calamities.
- Farmers enrolled under PMFBY are required to pay the entire premium amount for crop insurance.
- PMFBY covers all food crops, oilseeds, and annual commercial/horticultural crops grown in India.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The insured gross cropped area of non-loanee farmers under Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) has reached a new high.
This indicates growing acceptance of the Centre’s crop insurance scheme.
PMFBY is indeed a crop insurance scheme launched by the Government of India to provide financial support to farmers in case of crop failure due to natural calamities such as drought, flood, cyclone, pest/disease outbreak, etc. So, statement 1 is correct.
In PMFBY, farmers are required to pay only a nominal premium amount for crop insurance. The central and state governments share the premium subsidy in a predefined ratio, and the farmers’ share of the premium is significantly subsidized to make crop insurance affordable for them. So, statement 2 is not correct.
PMFBY covers major food crops, oilseeds, and annual commercial/horticultural crops as notified by the central government. However, the coverage of specific crops may vary from year to year based on the decisions of the government and the insurance companies involved. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM):
- CAQM is a non-statutory body tasked with formulating and implementing comprehensive policies to manage and control air quality in the country.
- CAQM also focuses on regulating and monitoring noise pollution levels in metropolitan areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The sudden deterioration in air quality prompted the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) to invoke stage 3 measures under the Graded Response Action Plan (Grap) across Delhi-NCR with immediate effect.
CAQM is a statutory body formed under the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas, Act 2021. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The commission aims at better coordination, research, identification, and resolution of problems related to air quality in NCR and adjoining areas.
CAQM specifically addresses air quality management, not noise pollution. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding Brus, also referred to as Reangs:
- Brus are an indigenous ethnic community primarily found in the northeastern states of India, particularly in the states of Tripura, Mizoram, and Assam.
- Brus have faced displacement and conflicts, leading to their migration from Mizoram to neighboring states such as Tripura.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Tripura government has allocated land for the rehabilitation of the last batch of Mizoram Bru refugees.
These refugees were granted permanent settlement in Tripura through a Home Ministry-initiated quadripartite agreement signed in January 2020.
Brus, also known as Reangs, are an indigenous ethnic community primarily found in the northeastern states of India, particularly in the states of Tripura, Mizoram, and Assam. So, statement 1 is correct.
Brus have faced displacement and conflicts, leading to their migration from Mizoram to neighboring states such as Tripura. The displacement was primarily due to ethnic tensions and violence in Mizoram. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding Brus, also referred to as Reangs:
- Brus are an indigenous ethnic community primarily found in the northeastern states of India, particularly in the states of Tripura, Mizoram, and Assam.
- Brus have faced displacement and conflicts, leading to their migration from Mizoram to neighboring states such as Tripura.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Tripura government has allocated land for the rehabilitation of the last batch of Mizoram Bru refugees.
These refugees were granted permanent settlement in Tripura through a Home Ministry-initiated quadripartite agreement signed in January 2020.
Brus, also known as Reangs, are an indigenous ethnic community primarily found in the northeastern states of India, particularly in the states of Tripura, Mizoram, and Assam. So, statement 1 is correct.
Brus have faced displacement and conflicts, leading to their migration from Mizoram to neighboring states such as Tripura. The displacement was primarily due to ethnic tensions and violence in Mizoram. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):
- MPI is a measure of poverty that captures the simultaneous deprivations experienced by individuals in health, education, and living standards.
- MPI is calculated based on income levels alone and does not consider non-monetary aspects of poverty.
- The MPI was developed by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI).
- MPI assesses poverty at the individual level and does not take into account regional or national disparities.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
As per the NITI Aayog’s Discussion Paper ‘Multidimensional Poverty in India since 2005-06’, 24.82 crore people escaped multidimensional poverty in last nine years.
The National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) by Niti Aayog measures the multidimensional poverty in India.
The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is a measure of poverty that captures the simultaneous deprivations experienced by individuals in health, education, and living standards. So, statement 1 is correct.
MPI does not rely solely on income levels but considers multiple dimensions of poverty, including health, education, and living standards. It provides a more comprehensive understanding of poverty. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The MPI was developed by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) as a comprehensive measure of poverty. So, statement 3 is correct.
While MPI primarily assesses poverty at the individual level, it can also be disaggregated to assess poverty at regional, national, or even global levels. It allows for the examination of poverty across different demographic groups and geographical areas. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding Western Disturbances:
- These are weather systems originating from the Mediterranean region and moving eastwards across the Indian subcontinent.
- They bring precipitation to northern and north-western parts of India, particularly during the winter months.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
One of Kashmir’s main winter tourism attractions, Gulmarg, has been bereft of snow this season.
This has led to a plunge in the flow of tourists and severely hitting the business of ski resorts.
Western Disturbances are weather systems that originate from the Mediterranean region and move eastwards across the Indian subcontinent, particularly affecting northern and north-western parts of India. So, statement 1 is correct.
Western Disturbances bring precipitation, including rain and snow, to northern and north-western parts of India, especially during the winter months. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding Sistan – Baluchestan:
- It is a province located in southeastern Iran, bordering Pakistan and Afghanistan.
- It is known for its arid and desert landscapes, as well as its diverse ethnic communities including Baloch, Pashtun, and Persian.
- It is one of the least economically developed regions in Iran.
- The Chabahar Port, a strategic maritime facility, is located in the Sistan – Baluchestan province.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All four
Explanation :
Recently, Iran bombed two bases of militant group Jaish al-Adl in Pakistan’s Balochistan province with missiles and drones.
Iran has not yet specified the reason behind the attack.
This attack killed two children and injured three others. As a result, Pakistan has recalled its ambassador and expelled the Iranian envoy.
Sistan – Baluchestan is a province located in southeastern Iran, sharing borders with Pakistan and Afghanistan. So, statement 1 is correct.
Sistan – Baluchestan is known for its arid and desert landscapes, as well as its diverse ethnic communities including Baloch, Pashtun, and Persian. So, statement 2 is correct.
Sistan – Baluchestan is one of the least economically developed regions in Iran, facing challenges such as poverty, unemployment, and lack of infrastructure. So, statement 3 is correct.
While the Chabahar Port is located in southeastern Iran. It is situated in Sistan and Baluchistan Province on the Mokaran coast. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA):
- The DGCA is the regulatory body of the Government of India in the field of Civil Aviation, primarily dealing with safety issues.
- DGCA is a non-constitutional, non-statutory body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A passenger aboard an IndiGo flight physically assaulted the aircraft’s pilot while he was making an announcement regarding delays.
The airline declared the passenger unruly, and further action will be guided by the Civil Aviation Requirements (CAR) on “Handling of unruly passengers”.
The CAR are issued by the aviation watchdog Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA).
The DGCA is the regulatory body of the Government of India in the field of Civil Aviation, primarily dealing with safety issues. So, statement 1 is correct.
It became a statutory body under the Aircraft (Amendment) Act, 2020.
It is responsible for regulation of air transport services to/from/within India and for enforcement of civil air regulations, air safety and airworthiness standards. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to GM crops:
- They are engineered to resist pests and diseases, reducing the need for chemical pesticides and promoting sustainable agriculture practices.
- They do not pose any long-term environmental effects and potential health risks on their consumption.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court has reserved its judgment on public interest litigations (PILs) challenging the government’s decision to allow the commercial release of the GM mustard variant Dhara Mustard Hybrid-11 (DMH-11).
Conventional plant breeding involves crossing species of the same genus to provide the offspring with the desired traits of both parents.
Genetic engineering aims to transcend the genus barrier by introducing an alien gene in the seeds to get the desired effects.
The alien gene could be from a plant, an animal or even a soil bacterium.
E.g., Bt cotton has two alien genes from the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt).
It allows the crop to develop a protein toxic to the common pest pink bollworm.
In Bt brinjal, a gene allows the plant to resist attacks of fruit and shoot borer.
Seeds produced using genetic engineering are called Genetically Modified Seeds.
GM crops are engineered to resist pests and diseases, reducing the need for chemical pesticides and promoting sustainable agriculture practices. However, there are concerns about the long-term environmental effects and potential health risks associated with consuming GM foods. So, statement 1 is correct and 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Who was Rani Velu Nachiyar?
A queen and warrior from the kingdom of Sivaganga in Tamil Nadu, known for her role in resisting British colonialism during the 18th century.
Explanation :
Prime Minister inaugurated the opening ceremony of the Khelo India Youth Games 2023 in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
The opening ceremony of the 6th Khelo India Youth Games 2023 was held at the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium in Chennai.
The mascot for the games is Veera Mangai.
Rani Velu Nachiyar, fondly called Veera Mangai, was an Indian queen who waged a war against British colonial rule.
The mascot symbolizes the valour and spirit of Indian women, embodying the strength of women power.
Rani Velu Nachiyar was a queen and warrior from the kingdom of Sivaganga in Tamil Nadu. She played a significant role in resisting British colonialism during the 18th century.
Rani Velu Nachiyar is remembered for her valor and leadership in fighting against British forces and for her efforts to protect her kingdom from foreign domination.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Great Indian Bustard (GIB):
- This bird is found mainly in Rajasthan and Gujarat.
- It has been categorized as vulnerable by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court directed the Centre to come clean on its plans to save the critically-endangered Great Indian Bustard by February 2024.
This bird, found mainly in Rajasthan and Gujarat. So, statement 1 is correct.
It has been categorized as critically endangered by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements best describes the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC)?
NSDC is a public-private partnership organization established to promote skill development initiatives in collaboration with industry partners.
Explanation :
With assistance from the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC), the governments of Uttar Pradesh and Haryana are hiring around 10,000 workers to go to Israel, mainly for construction work.
The National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) is a not-for-profit public limited company that was established in July 2008.
The Ministry of Finance established NSDC as a Public Private Partnership (PPP) model.
The Government of India, through the MSDE, holds 49% of the NSDC’s share capital, while the private sector holds the remaining 51%.
Currently, the NSDC is under the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the World Economic Forum:
- It is the international non-governmental organization for Public-Private Cooperation.
- It is headquartered in New York.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
This year’s edition of the World Economic Forum (WEF) annual meeting was held in January.
The overarching theme for WEF 2024 was’Rebuilding Trust’.
The World Economic Forum is the international non-governmental organization for Public-Private Cooperation. So, statement 1 is correct.
It was founded in January 1971 by German engineer and economist Klaus Schwab.
The Forum engages the foremost political, business, cultural and other leaders of society to shape global, regional and industry agendas.
It has no independent decision-making power.
HQ: Cologny-Geneva, Switzerland. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements regarding Left Wing Extremism (LWE) is correct?
Left Wing Extremism often involves armed struggle against the state and seeks to establish a classless society through revolutionary means.
Explanation :
At a review meeting of Chhattisgarh’s Left-Wing Extremism (LWE) situation held in Raipur, Union Home Minister emphasised the need to free the affected pockets of the State within the next three years.
The minister highlighted that the problem was confined only to certain pockets of Chhattisgarh.
In the past couple of months, the number of anti-Naxal operations have been on the rise in Bastar and other LWE-affected areas of the State.
Left Wing Extremism typically involves armed struggle against the state and aims to establish a classless society through revolutionary means.
It opposes hierarchical structures and centralized authority, seeking to dismantle existing power structures and redistribute resources.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements about the Batadrava Than temple is correct?
The temple is located in the state of Assam and is associated with the life of Srimanta Sankardeva, the 15th-century Assamese saint-scholar.
Explanation :
Congress leader Rahul Gandhi was prevented from visiting Assam’s Batadrava Than, where he was going as part of his Bharat Jodo Nyay Yatra.
The Batadrava Than, or Bordowa Than, is a temple complex at the birthplace of revered Vaishnavite reformer-saint Srimanta Sankardeva.
It is located in Nagaon district, Assam.
Srimanta Sankardev established Than Satra in 1494 A.D. at the age of 19.
It is one of the most sacred sites for Assamese Vaishnavites.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Suryodaya Yojana:
- The scheme attempts to help reach the target of 40 GW rooftop solar capacity.
- The scheme will involve installing solar power systems at rooftops of official buildings only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Prime Minister announced the ‘Pradhan Mantri Suryodaya Yojana’, a government scheme under which one crore households will get rooftop solar power systems.
This scheme is a new attempt to help reach the target of 40 GW rooftop solar capacity. So, statement 1 is correct.
It will involve installing solar power systems at rooftops for residential consumers. The scheme would help not only reduce electricity bills of the poor and middle class, but also push India’s goal of becoming self-reliant in the energy sector. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
In the context of artificial intelligence (AI), what does the term “sovereign AI” refer to?
Sovereign AI denotes AI systems developed and controlled by governments or state entities, with a focus on national security and strategic interests.
Explanation :
As per the Union Minister of State for Electronics and IT, the ambitious artificial intelligence (AI) Mission may soon head for Cabinet approval and could have an outlay of more than Rs 10,000 crore.
As part of the programme, the government wants to:
develop its own ‘sovereign AI’,
build computational capacity in the country, and
offer compute-as-a-service to India’s startups.
Sovereign AI refers to AI systems that are developed and controlled by governments or state entities. These AI systems are often utilized for purposes related to national security, defense, and strategic interests of a country.
So, option (d) is the correct answer.
Which of the following code represents incorrect statement with respect to the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act?
A.
FCRA registered organizations can receive fund for political purposes from a purely foreign company.
B.
Election candidates can receive the foreign donation from a foreign company in which an Indian holds 50% or more shares.
C.
Public servants, as defined under the Indian Penal Code, are allowed to receive foreign funds.
Explanation :
FCRA registered associations can receive foreign contribution for purposes – social, educational, religious, economic and cultural. Code a is not correct.
Under the Act, certain persons are prohibited to accept any foreign contribution. These include - election candidates, editor or publisher of a newspaper, judges, government servants, members of any legislature, and political parties, among others. Code b is not correct.
It should be noted that in 2017 the MHA, through the Finance Bill route, paved the way for political parties to receive funds from the Indian subsidiary of a foreign company or a foreign company in which an Indian holds 50% or more shares. Election candidates are not allowed.
The 2020 Amendment Act added public servants (as defined under the Indian Penal Code) to the list of prohibited persons. Code c is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer
Consider the following statements regarding the India-Bangladesh Border (IBB):
- IBB touches the Indian states of West Bengal, Tripura, Assam, Meghalaya and Mizoram.
- The IBB is marked by several rivers, including the Brahmaputra, Ganges, and Meghna.
- The Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) signed in 2015 resolved all border-related disputes between India and Bangladesh.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The India-Bangladesh border is India’s longest border measuring 4,096.7 km.
It passes through West Bengal (2216.7 km), Assam (263 km), Meghalaya (443 km), Tripura (856 km) and Mizoram (318 km). So, statement 1 is correct.
The IBB is marked by several rivers, including the Brahmaputra, Ganges, and Meghna. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) was signed in 1974, but it was only implemented in 2015 after a series of constitutional amendments were made by both countries. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements about NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organization) is correct?
NATO is a military alliance founded to provide collective defense and security against external threats to its member states.
Explanation :
Sweden’s attempt to join NATO cleared a major hurdle after Turkey’s parliament supported its membership.
For a new country to join the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO), all the existing members have to approve it.
Turkey and Hungary had been opposing Sweden’s entry for almost the past two years.
NATO, established in 1949, is indeed a military alliance formed to provide collective defense and security against external threats to its member states.
The organization is headquartered in Brussels, Belgium, and operates independently from the United Nations. NATO membership extends beyond the European Union, encompassing both EU and non-EU member states that share common security interests.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which famous geographical feature is located in France?
Saint-Tropez
Species - IUCN red list
Explanation :
The snow leopard is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN’s Red List of the Threatened Species. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The hangul is classified as Critically Endangered by the IUCN Red List, as its population has declined drastically over the years due to habitat loss, overgrazing by domestic livestock, poaching, predation, diseases and human-wildlife conflicts.So, Statement 2 is correct.
Black-necked crane is classified as Near Threatened by the IUCN’s Red List. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which is the nodal agency to implement price stabilization measures under the “Operation Greens”?
National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd (NAFED)
Explanation :
NAFED is an apex organization of marketing cooperatives for agricultural produce in India.
Objective: To promote the trade of agricultural produce and forest resources across the nation.
It is the nodal agency to implement price stabilization measures under the “Operation Greens”. Operation Greens seeks to stabilize the supply of Tomato, Onion and Potato (TOP) crops and to ensure availability of TOP crops throughout the country round the year without price volatility.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to a Neutron Star, consider the following statements:
- Similar to black hole, a neutron star is formed due to the supernova explosion.
- Mass of a neutron star will always be greater than the mass of a black hole.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Like black holes, neutron star is formed due to the process known as supernova explosion when the centre of a very big star falls in upon itself, or collapses. So, statement 1 is correct.
The major difference between a black hole and a neutron star is the mass of these celestial bodies. The mass of a neutron star is generally 1 to 3 times the mass of Sun. Anything greater than that will be identified as a black hole. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, Option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to Lightning, consider the following statements:
- Cumulonimbus clouds are the only clouds that produce lightning and thunderstorms.
- Copper is used in lighting conductors installed in buildings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Cumulonimbus clouds are a type of cumulus cloud associated with thunder storms and heavy precipitation.
They are formed beneath 20,000 ft. and are relatively close to the ground. This is why they have so much moisture. They are the only clouds that produce lighting and thunderstorms. So, statement 1 is correct.
Copper is a good conductor of electricity. Hence, it is used in lightning conductors installed in buildings. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to Anti-defection law, consider the following statements:
1.91st Amendment Act is commonly known as the ‘anti-defection law’.
- Disqualification on the basis of defection is not applicable in case of a merger of two or more parties.
- Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is decided by the presiding officer of the House.
How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 provided for the disqualification of the members of Parliament and state legislatures on the ground of defection from one political party to another. So, statement 1 is not correct.
This act is often referred to as the ‘anti-defection law’.
Disqualification on the ground of defection does not apply if a member goes out of his party as a result of a merger of the party with another party. So, statement 2 is correct.
A merger takes place when two- thirds of the members of the party have agreed to such a merger.
Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is decided by the presiding officer of the House. So, statement 3 is correct.
In Kihoto Hollohan case (1993), the Supreme Court held that the decision of the presiding officer is subject to judicial review on the grounds of mala fides, perversity, etc.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to Eklavya Model Residential School (EMRS), consider the following statements:
- EMRS aims to impart quality education to children belonging to Scheduled Tribes (ST) in remote areas.
- The model schools cater to students from Class I to Class XII.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
2 only
Explanation :
EMRS started in 1997-98 with the aim of imparting quality education to children belonging to Scheduled Tribes (ST) in remote areas.
The EMRS aims to enable students to avail of opportunities in high and professional educational courses and get employment in various sectors. So, statement 1 is correct.
The schools focus not only on academic education but on the all-round development of the students.
Each school has a capacity of 480 students, catering to students from Class VI to XII.
These are being set up by grants provided under Article 275(1) of the Constitution. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to Puppetry in India, consider the following statements:
- Kundhei is a type of string puppet art originating from Rajasthan.
- Gombeyatta is a type of puppet art with its origin in Karnataka.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Kundhei is a type of string puppet art originating from the state of Odisha. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Gombeyatta is a type of puppet art with its origin in Karnataka. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Term and Description
Explanation :
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is as follows:
WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political; So, pair 1 is correct.
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; So, pair 2 is correct.
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all; So, pair 3 is correct.
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; So, pair 4 is correct.
IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following pollutants with reference to National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS):
- Nickle
- Sulphur Dioxide
- Carbon Monoxide
How many of the above pollutant(s) is/are listed in the NAAQS?
All three
Explanation :
Under Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1981, Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) had notified air quality standards in 2009.
These standards uniformly set the maximum permissible limits for pollutants across the country.
12 pollutants are added to the list:
Particulate Matter 10 (PM10), Particulate Matter 2.5 (PM2.5) , Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2), Sulphur Dioxide (SO2), Carbon Monoxide (CO), Ozone (O3), Ammonia (NH3), Lead (Pb), Benzene, Benzopyrene, Arsenic, Nickel.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
