January 2024 Flashcards
Which of the following statements best reflects the essence of CBDR-RC in this context?
Countries with higher economic capabilities should bear the primary responsibility for addressing climate change, while considering the varying capacities of different nations.
Explanation :
As the world’s third-largest emitter of greenhouse gases, India is a crucial player in the global fight against climate change.
India has, in the last few years, become increasingly proactive at the annual climate change conference, also known as the Conference of Parties (COP).
India had hosted one of these conferences — COP8, way back in 2008.
The principle of Common But Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities (CBDR-RC) recognizes that all countries share a common responsibility to address global issues like climate change.
However, it acknowledges that countries have different levels of economic development and capacities.
According to CBDR-RC, developed countries, with higher economic capabilities, should take on a greater responsibility in addressing environmental challenges, while considering the varying capacities of less developed nations.
This principle seeks to balance the shared global responsibility with an understanding of the different circumstances of individual countries.
Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC):
- UNFCCC was adopted at the Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.
- The ultimate objective of UNFCCC is to stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system.
- The Kyoto Protocol is a legally binding treaty that operates under the UNFCCC.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All three
Explanation :
1992 Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit gave rise to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).So, statement 1 is correct.
The ultimate objective of the UNFCCC, as stated in Article 2, is to stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system.So, statement 2 is correct.
The Kyoto Protocol is a legally binding treaty that operates under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). It was adopted in December 1997 and aims to reduce greenhouse gases and carbon dioxide emissions. So, statement 3 is correct.
In the aftermath of a severe cyclone, Country X, a developing nation, has experienced extensive damage to its infrastructure, loss of agricultural productivity, and displacement of communities. Country X seeks assistance from the Loss and Damage Fund established under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
Which of the following best describes the purpose and function of the Loss and Damage Fund in this context?
The fund will help developing countries that are vulnerable to the consequences of climate change.
Explanation :
On the opening day of the COP28 climate conference in Dubai, a loss and damage fund to help vulnerable countries cope with the impact of climate change has been officially launched.
The loss and damage fund was first announced during COP27 in Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt, last year.
The initial funding is estimated to be $475 million:
host UAE pledged $100 million,
the European Union promised $275 million,
$17.5 million from the US, and
$10 million from Japan.
The Loss and Damage (L&D) fund is a financial mechanism that helps countries deal with the irreversible consequences of climate change.
The fund provides financial assistance to poorer nations as they deal with the negative consequences of climate change. These consequences include rising sea levels, extreme heat waves, desertification, forest fires, and crop failures.
The Loss and Damage Fund was first announced at COP27 in Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt in 2022. The fund was adopted by consensus at COP28 in Dubai, with several countries pledging around $700 million.
It should be noted that Loss and damage means different things to different groups and there is no agreed upon definition within the UNFCCC.
Consider the following statements regarding the tropical cyclones:
- These are large-scale weather systems characterized by low-pressure centers and strong winds circulating in a counter-clockwise direction in the Northern Hemisphere.
- They typically form over tropical and subtropical waters, fueled by warm ocean temperatures and high humidity.
- The Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale is commonly used to categorize tropical cyclones based on their wind speeds and potential for damage.
- The strongest winds and heaviest rainfall in a tropical cyclone are typically found in the outer bands or spiral rainbands surrounding the eye.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All Four
Explanation :
The India Meteorological Department (IMD) has forecast a cyclonic storm, Cyclone Michaung, over the southwest Bay of Bengal on December 3.
Cyclone Michaung is the fourth tropical cyclone of the year over the Bay of Bengal.
Tropical cyclones are large-scale weather systems characterized by low-pressure centres and strong winds circulating in a counterclockwise direction in the Northern Hemisphere. In the Southern Hemisphere, they circulate in a clockwise direction. So, statement 1 is correct.
Tropical cyclones typically form over tropical and subtropical waters, where the ocean temperatures are warm and there is high humidity. These warm oceanic conditions provide the energy necessary for their formation and intensification.So, statement 2 is correct.
The Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale is commonly used to categorize tropical cyclones based on their wind speeds and potential for damage. It classifies hurricanes into five categories based on sustained wind speeds, ranging from Category 1 (weakest) to Category 5 (strongest).So, statement 3 is correct.
The strongest winds and heaviest rainfall in a tropical cyclone are typically found in the outer bands or spiral rainbands surrounding the eye. These bands extend outward from the center and contribute to the overall size and impact of the cyclone. So, statement 5 is correct.
Which of the following best describes the purpose and significance of the Global Stocktake in the context of climate action?
The Global Stocktake is a periodic review that assesses the collective progress of countries in achieving the long-term goals of the Paris Agreement, including limiting global temperature rise.
Explanation :
The first-ever global stocktake was concluded at the UN Climate Change Conference (COP28) held in Dubai.
The Global Stocktake happened for the first time, since the Paris Agreement in 2015.
The global stocktake is a process for countries and stakeholders to see where they are collectively making progress towards meeting the goals of the Paris Climate Change Agreement – and where they are not.
Basically, the global stocktake is like taking inventory.
It means looking at everything related to where the world stands on climate action and support, identifying the gaps, and working together to chart a better course forward to accelerate climate action.
The stocktake takes place every five years, with the first-ever stocktake set to conclude at COP28.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB):
- It has been set up under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- It functions as the National storehouse of fingerprint records of convicted persons.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) released its annual report on crime in India for the year 2022.
The report is a compilation of data on reported crime from across the country, and provides the big picture of broad trends in crime registration.
NCRB was set-up in 1986 under the administrative control of Ministry of Home Affairs.So, statement 1 is correct.
It is responsible for collecting and analysing crime data as defined by the Indian Penal Code and Special and Local Laws. NCRB is headquartered in New Delhi.
It also functions as the National storehouse of fingerprint (FP) records of convicted persons including FP records of foreign criminals.So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following pairs: Volcano - Place
- Mont Etna - Italy
- Mt. Marapi - Malaysia
- Mauna Loa - Hawaii, USA
How many of the pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
Only two
Explanation :
The death toll from a volcanic eruption in Indonesia has gone up to 22, after rescuers found nine more bodies. This eruption of Mt. Marapi was the deadliest since 1979, when an eruption killed 60 people.
Frequent volcanic eruptions in Marapi have hampered rescue efforts for days.
Mount Etna is located in Sicily, Italy.
Mount Merapi is a volcanic mountain peak located near the centre of the island of Java, Indonesia.
Mauna Loa is located in the United States, on the island of Hawaii. It’s part of Hawaii Volcanoes National Park and is the largest active volcano on Earth by mass and volume.
Consider the following statements regarding the World Meteorological Organization (WMO):
- It is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
- The Secretariat of WMO is headquartered at New York.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Only 1
Explanation :
“The Global Climate 2011-2020: A Decade of Acceleration” is a report published by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO).
Established by the ratification of the WMO Convention on 23 March 1950, WMO became the specialised agency of the UN. So, statement 1 is correct.
It is responsible for promoting international cooperation on -
Meteorology (weather and climate),
Operational hydrology and
Related geophysical sciences.
The Secretariat, headquartered in Geneva, is headed by the Secretary-General and its supreme body is the World Meteorological Congress. So, statement 2 is not correct.
WMO publishes - Greenhouse Gas Bulletin, Status of Global Climate, etc., reports
Consider the following statements:
- Critical minerals are essential for economic development and national security.
- The government of India, in July 2023, released a list of 20 critical minerals for India.
- In order to maintain resilience supply chain for critical minerals, India is planning to join Mineral Security Partnership (MSP).
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Twenty blocks of critical minerals are currently on auction for commercial mining by the private sector.
The bidding process began on November 29, and bids can be submitted until January 22 next year.
A mineral is critical when the risk of supply shortage and associated impact on the economy is (relatively) higher than other raw materials.
These minerals are essential for economic development and national security, and their lack of availability/ the concentration of extraction/ processing in a few geographical locations could potentially lead to supply chain vulnerabilities. So, statement 1 is correct.
In July 2023, government of India released a list of 30 critical minerals for India. So, statement 2 is not correct.
These minerals are Antimony, Beryllium, Bismuth, Cobalt, Copper, Gallium, Germanium, Graphite, Hafnium, Indium, Lithium, Molybdenum, Niobium, Nickel, PGE, Phosphorous, Potash, REE, Rhenium, Silicon, Strontium, Tantalum, Tellurium, Tin, Titanium, Tungsten, Vanadium, Zirconium, Selenium and Cadmium.
India has recently been inducted into MSP. So, statement 3 is not correct.
MSP is a US-led collaboration of 14 countries that aims to catalyse public and private investment in critical mineral supply chains globally.
Consider the following statements regarding Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:
- PVTGs are identified based solely on their economic status and income levels.
- Currently, there are 75 PVTGs in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Only 2
Explanation :
PVTGs are more vulnerable among the tribal groups.
Due to this factor, more developed and assertive tribal groups take a major chunk of the tribal development funds, because of which PVTGs need more funds directed for their development.
In this context, in 1975, the Government of India declared 52 tribal groups as PVTGs on the recommendation of Dhebar commission.
Currently, there are 75 PVTGs out of 705 Scheduled Tribes.So, statement 2 is correct.
The PVTGs are spread over 18 states and one Union Territory (UT), in the country (2011 census).
Odisha has the highest number (more than 2.5 lakh) of PVTGs.
Characteristics of PVTGs:
Population – stagnant/declining
Technology – pre-agricultural
Literacy Level – extremely low
Economy – Subsistence level
So, statement 1 is not correct.
Who are Sammakka and Sarakka in the context of Indian cultural and religious traditions?
Folk deities revered by the Koya tribe in the Indian state of Telangana.
Explanation :
The Lok Sabha took up the Central Universities (Amendment) Bill, 2023 for consideration and passing.
The Bill seeks to establish a Central Tribal University in Telangana which will be named ‘Sammakka Sarakka Central Tribal University’.
Sammakka and Sarakka are revered as folk deities among the Koya tribe in the Indian state of Telangana. They are worshipped during the biennial Sammakka Saralamma Jatara, one of the largest tribal festivals in Asia.
The festival is dedicated to these tribal goddesses and attracts a large number of devotees from various tribal communities.
What is Pompe Disease?
A rare genetic disorder that results in the buildup of glycogen in the body’s cells, particularly in muscles, leading to muscle weakness and other complications.
Explanation :
Nidhi Shirol, India’s first Pompe disease patient, passed away at the age of 24 years after battling the disease.
She spent the last six years in a semi-comatose state.
Pompe Disease is a rare genetic disorder caused by a deficiency of the enzyme acid alpha-glucosidase (GAA). This deficiency leads to the accumulation of glycogen in various tissues, particularly in muscles.
The disease primarily affects the muscles and can result in progressive muscle weakness, respiratory issues, and other complications.
Consider the following statements regarding the Article 99 of the UN Charter:
- It is a special political tool that allows the UN Secretary-General to call a meeting of the Security Council.
- It is the only independent political tool given to the Secretary-General in the UN Charter.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres used a rarely used power to warn the Security Council of a humanitarian catastrophe in Gaza.
He urged the members to demand an immediate humanitarian cease-fire.
In this context, Guterres invoked Article 99 of the UN Charter, a diplomatic tool that allows the UN head to raise issues that may threaten international peace and security.
Article 99 of the UN Charter is a special political tool that allows the UN Secretary-General to call a meeting of the Security Council. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Secretary-General can use this tool to bring to the Security Council’s attention any matter that they believe may threaten international peace and security.
Article 99 is the only independent political tool given to the Secretary-General in the UN Charter.It is seen as a discretionary power.So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statement regarding the Lok Sabha Ethics Committee:
- The committee has 20 members.
- The members of the Ethics Committee are appointed by the President.
- Members of the Committee are appointed for a period of two year.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
None of the above
Explanation :
The Lok Sabha expelled Trinamool Congress member Mahua Moitra over the “cash-for-query” allegation through a voice vote amid chaos.
Union Parliamentary Affairs Minister had moved the motion to expel Ms. Moitra as per the recommendation of Ethics Committee report.
The report found her guilty of sharing her credentials with others, accepted gifts for favours from a businessman.
Appointment of members in Lok Sabha Ethics Committee:
The committee should not contain more than 15 members. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The members of the Ethics Committee are appointed by the Speaker for a period of one year. So, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Digital Lending:
- Digital lending refers to the use of online platforms and technology to connect borrowers with lenders without the involvement of traditional financial institutions.
- Digital lending platforms often use alternative data sources, such as social media profiles and transaction history, for credit assessment and decision-making.
- Regulatory oversight of digital lending practices is consistent globally, ensuring uniform standards for consumer protection.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) kept the repo rate unchanged for the fifth time in a row at 6.5 per cent.
While announcing various steps, RBI also said that it will lay down guidelines for web aggregators of loan products to bring more transparency to digital lending.
Digital lending involves the use of online platforms and technology to connect borrowers with lenders, often bypassing traditional banking channels.So, statement 1 is correct.
Digital lending platforms frequently leverage alternative data sources beyond traditional credit scores, including social media activity and transaction history, to assess the creditworthiness of borrowers.So, statement 2 is correct.
Regulatory oversight of digital lending practices varies across countries, and there is no consistent global framework. Regulatory approaches differ, and some regions may have more robust consumer protection measures than others.So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI):
- CCPI is a scoring system that measures the climate protection performance of countries.
- The CCPI uses a standardized framework to compare the climate performance of 63 countries and the EU.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2024 was released on the sidelines of the ongoing COP28 at Dubai.
India ranked 7th in this year’s Climate Change Performance Index, up one spot from the previous one.
About
CCPI is a scoring system that measures the climate protection performance of countries. It was first published in 2005.So, statement 1 is correct.
It is designed to improve transparency in international climate politics.
It also allows for the comparison of climate protection efforts and progress made by individual countries.
Function
The CCPI uses a standardized framework to compare the climate performance of 63 countries and the EU, which together account for over 90% of global greenhouse gas emissions. So, statement 2 is correct.
The climate protection performance is assessed in four categories: GHG Emissions, Renewable Energy, Energy Use and Climate Policy.
The analysis also reports on the extent to which each country is taking actions in the areas of emissions, renewable energy and energy use in order to achieve the climate goals set in Paris.
Ranking
Rankings are based on each country’s overall score. No country performs well enough in all index categories to achieve an overall very high rating.
Published by
Germanwatch, the New Climate Institute and the Climate Action Network publish the index annually.
Consider the following statements regarding the Marine Commandos (MARCOS):
- It is a special operations force of the Indian Army that conducts operations in air, water, and land.
- MARCOS are also trained to conduct swift and stealthy response in denied territories.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Only 2
Explanation :
The Indian Navy is planning to acquire indigenously-made swimmer delivery vehicles — also known as underwater chariots and midget submarines.
This is part of efforts to modernise and strengthen the capabilities of its Marine Commandos (MARCOS) for special undersea operations.
About
MARCOS stands for Marine Commandos. It is a special operations force of the Indian Navy that conducts operations in air, water, and land. So, statement 1 is not correct.
MARCOS was founded in February 1987 and is also known as the Marine Commando Force (MCF).
MARCOS are modelled after the US Navy SEALs and the Royal Marines.
Function
MARCOS are trained to conduct the following operations:
Maritime and amphibious warfare
Counter-terrorism
Unconventional warfare
Rescue missions
Reconnaissance
Raids
Swift and stealthy response in denied territories. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR):
- On 10 December 1948, the UN General Assembly approved the Universal Declaration of Human Rights at a meeting in Paris.
- The declaration consists of a preamble and 30 articles setting out fundamental rights and freedoms.
- UDHR articulates a broad range of civil, political, economic, social, and cultural rights.
- The UDHR is not legally binding on the member states of the United Nations.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All four
Explanation :
December 10, 2023 marked the 75th anniversary of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR).
UDHR is the landmark document enshrining human rights and fundamental freedoms for all individuals.
On 10 December 1948, the UN General Assembly approved the Universal Declaration of Human Rights at a meeting in Paris.So, statement 1 is correct.
A relatively compact document, the declaration consists of a preamble and 30 articles setting out fundamental rights and freedoms.So, statement 2 is correct.
These 30 articles articulate a broad range of civil, political, economic, social, and cultural rights. So, statement 3 is correct.
These rights are considered universal, meaning they apply to all people regardless of nationality, ethnicity, gender, religion, or any other status.
It is not a legally binding treaty, but it has served as a source of inspiration for the development of international human rights law.So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Zonal Council of India:
- It is a non-constitutional, non-statutory body.
- There are five zonal councils in India.
- North Eastern Council is one of the zonal councils which looks after the special problems of North Eastern region.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation Shri Amit Shah chaired the 26th meeting of the Eastern Zonal Council in Patna, Bihar.
Zonal Councils are the statutory and not the constitutional bodies. It was set up under the States Re-organisation Act, 1956.So, statement 1 is not correct.
The five councils are: The Northern Zonal Council; The Central Zonal Council; The Eastern Zonal Council; The Western Zonal Council; The Southern Zonal Council. So, statement 2 is correct.
The North Eastern States are not included in the Zonal Councils. Their special problems are looked after by the North Eastern Council, set up under the North Eastern Council Act, 1972.So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the New Pension Scheme (NPS):
- It offers pensions to government employees on the basis of their last drawn salary.
- In NPS, contributions are defined, but benefits depend on the market.
- Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) is the nodal agency responsible for the implementation of NPS.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only 2
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released the report “State Finances: A Study of Budgets of 2023-24”.
In this report, the RBI said that the return to the Old Pension Scheme (OPS) by a few states would put a huge burden on their finances.
This will restrict them from undertaking capital expenditure to drive the growth.
As a substitute of OPS, the NPS was introduced by the Central government in April, 2004.
This pension programme is open to employees from the public, private and even the unorganised sectors except those from the armed forces.
The scheme encourages people to invest in a pension account at regular intervals during the course of their employment.
After retirement, the subscribers can take out a certain percentage of the corpus.
The beneficiary receives the remaining amount as a monthly pension, post retirement.
Hence, pension is not determined on the basis of last drawn salary. So, statement 1 is not correct.
NPS doesn’t guarantee fix returns as it is subjected to market volatility. In NPS, contributions are defined, but benefits depend on the market. So, statement 2 is correct.
Nodal agency: Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA). So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
A windfall tax is:
None of the above
Explanation :
A windfall tax is imposed on companies that have seen their profits extraordinarily not because of any clever investment decision or an increase in efficiency or innovation, but simply because of favourable market conditions.
Consider the following provisions:
- Article 102(1) of the constitution
- Article 191(1) of the constitution
- Tenth Schedule of the Constitution
- Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951
How many of the above provision(s) deal(s) with the disqualification of MPs/MLAs?
All four
Explanation :
Disqualification of a lawmaker is prescribed in three situations.
First is through the Articles 102(1) and 191(1) for disqualification of a member of Parliament and a member of the Legislative Assembly respectively.
The grounds here include holding an office of profit, being of unsound mind or insolvent or not having valid citizenship.
The second prescription of disqualification is in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution.
This provides for the disqualification of the members on grounds of defection.
The third prescription is under The Representation of The People Act (RPA), 1951.
This law provides for disqualification for conviction in criminal cases.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- Rule Number 373 of Lok Sabha empowers presiding officers to direct an MP to withdraw from the House for any disorderly conduct.
- Rule 255 of Rajya Sabha empowers the Chairman of Rajya Sabha to direct any Member to withdraw immediately from the House for any disorderly conduct.
- Rajya Sabha can not suspend its members without passing a motion for the same.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Fourteen opposition MPs (13 from the Lok Sabha and one from the Rajya Sabha) were suspended after they protested against a security breach in the parliament.
For Lok Sabha
Rule Number 373 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business
It empowers presiding officers to direct an MP to withdraw from the House for any disorderly conduct.So, statement 1 is correct.
This rule says that any Member so ordered to withdraw shall remain absent during the remainder of the day’s sitting.
Rules 374 and 374A-
Rule 374 empowers the Presiding officers to name the legislators if the MP continues disrupting the House even after repeated warnings.
After that, the House can move a motion to suspend the MP for a period not exceeding the remainder of the session
Rule 374A was incorporated in the Rule Book in December 2001.The intention was to circumvent the necessity of adopting a motion for suspension.
Under this rule, the Speaker can name an MP, who shall then automatically stand suspended for five days or the remaining part of the session.
For Rajya Sabha
Rule 255 of the Rule Book of Rajya Sabha
It empowers the Chairman of Rajya Sabha to direct any Member to withdraw immediately from the House for any disorderly conduct.So, statement 2 is correct.
Rule 256
This rule empowers the Chairman to name the members who persistently disregards the authority of the Chair or abuses the rules of the Council.
After that, the House may adopt a motion suspending the Member for a period not exceeding the remainder of the session.
It should be noted that, unlike Lok Sabha (under rule 374A), Rajya Sabha can not suspend its members without passing a motion for the same. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the impeachment of a US President:
- Under the US Constitution, the President can be removed from office for treason, bribery, or other high crimes and misdemeanors.
- Criminal charges can be brought against a sitting President.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Only 1
Explanation :
The US House has approved an impeachment inquiry into United States President Joe Biden and his family.
This was after Republicans raised allegations against his son Hunter Biden for profiting in business dealings with foreign entities.
Impeachment is a process that involves a legislative body or tribunal charging a public official with misconduct.
Under the US Constitution, the president can be removed from office for “treason, bribery, or other high crimes and misdemeanors.” However, these terms have not been defined.So, statement 1 is correct.
Criminal charges cannot be brought against a sitting President.So, statement 2 is not correct.
However, the Constitution does allow for separate criminal charges once a president is removed.
It is a process that involves both political and legal elements.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.