July Flashcards
Consider the following statements regarding Project 76:
- It aims to succeed the renowned Sindhughosh (Kilo) class.
- Under Project 76, Indian Navy is developing the country’s first indigenously conventional diesel-electric submarine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has taken up a preliminary study on the design and development of an indigenous conventional submarine under Project-76.
Under Project 76, the Warship Design Bureau of the Indian Navy is working on designing and developing the country’s first indigenously conventional diesel-electric submarine.
The Indian Navy wants to build 12 submarines under Project 76.
Envisioned as air-independent propulsion (AIP)-equipped diesel-electric attack submarines, these submarines, expected to have a submerged displacement of 3,000 tons, represent a leap beyond their foreign-designed predecessors like Project-751 (India) and Project-75 submarines.
It aims to succeed the renowned Sindhughosh (Kilo) class, emphasizing the Navy’s commitment to maintaining a robust 3,000-ton class of submarines.
It is expected to feature some of the most advance features such as, indigenous Weapon Control system and Lithium-ion batteries.
It represents a pivotal milestone in India’s pursuit of maritime supremacy, amalgamating top-tier French technology from Project 75and the expertise of German/Spanish collaboration from Project 751 (India).
The objective is to initiate the construction of the prototype by 2028.
This undertaking holds immense significance for India’s submarine-building capabilities, aiming to reduce reliance on foreign Original Equipment Manufacturers (OEMs) for submarine design.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/drdo-takes-up-preliminary-study-on-development-of-indigenous-conventional-submarine/article68352888.ece
Minami-Torishima Island, recently in news, is located in:
Pacific Ocean
Explanation :
Researchers recently found a motherlode of around 230 million metric tons of minerals crucial to making electric car batteries on the seabed off Minami-Torishima Island.
Minami-Torishima Island, also known as Marcus Island, is an isolated Japanese coral atoll in the northwestern Pacific Ocean.
It is the easternmost territory belonging to Japan and the only Japanese territory on the Pacific Plate, past the Japan Trench. It lies 1,950 km southeast of central Tokyo.
The shape of the island is close to an equilateral triangle.
It’s formed by a raised coral reef, which is about 2 km on each side and 6 km around.
The terrain is flat, with a maximum altitude of 9 m, but outside of the reef is a steep cliff that’s about 1,000 m deep, and the surrounding waters go down to about 6,000 m at their deepest.
Climate: Located in the transitional zone between tropical and subtropical climates, the Island has an oceanic climate with an average annual temperature of around 25.6 °C.
The exclusive economic zonebased on the baseline of the Minamitorishima Island is some 430,000 km2, larger than Japan’s land area.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.businessinsider.in/thelife/news/japan-found-enough-minerals-off-a-remote-pacific-island-to-fuel-its-ev-plans-for-over-a-decade/articleshow/111264533.cms
With reference to Amoebic Meningoencephalitis disease, consider the following statements:
- It is a rare infection which affects the central nervous system.
- It mainly occurs in the cold climatic conditions.
- There are no standard treatments for the treatment for this disease.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Due to continued rain in Kerala, the health department has issued caution on amoebic meningoencephalitis.
About Amoebic Meningoencephalitis (PAM):
It is a rare, usually fatal, infection of the central nervous system (brain and spinal cord).
It is caused by a type of free-living amoeba (a microscopic, single-celled organism) called Naegleria fowleri.
Naegleria fowleri occurs in shallow surface waters and incorrectly maintained swimming pools, hot tubs, and spas, particularly in warm climates.
The amebas can enter the brain through the nose when people swim in contaminated warm, fresh water.
The amoeba then invades the brainand meninges through the nose.
Symptoms:
Symptoms, which include fever, headache, vomiting, and sensitivity to light, typically appear within five days of infection and progress rapidly.
In the later stages, one can suffer from a stiff neck, seizures, hallucinations, and even coma.
Treatment:
There are no standard treatments for the treatment of PAM.
Combination therapy using medicines to treat parasites offers the most promise.
PAM differs from granulomatous amebic encephalitis, which is another very rare, usually fatal infection of the central nervous system caused by different free-living amebas, Acanthamoeba species or Balamuthia mandrillaris.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/life-style/health-fitness/health-news/kerala-govt-issues-warning-against-amoebic-meningoencephalitis-know-what-it-is/articleshow/111336169.cms
With reference to Santhal Tribes, consider the following statements:
- They are the third largest scheduled tribe community in India after Gonds and Bhils.
- They are nature worshippers, especially sacred groves in their villages.
- Their language is a dialect of Kherwari, a Munda (Austroasiatic) language.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Prime Minister recently paid tribute to the sacrifices and bravery of the Santhal tribal community.
Santhals are the third largest scheduled tribe community in India after Gonds and Bhils.
Their greatest concentration is in the states of Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Orissa, in the eastern part of the country.
Language:
Their language is Santhali, a dialect of Kherwari, a Munda (Austroasiatic) language.
Santhali, written in OI-Chiki script, is recognised as a scheduled language in the Constitution’s Eighth Schedule.
The Santhals were a nomadic stock before they chose to settle on the Chotanagpur plateau.
By the end of the 18th century, they had concentrated in the Santhal Parganas of Jharkhand (earlier Bihar). From there, they migrated to Odisha and West Bengal.
Religion: They are nature worshippers and could be seen paying obeisance at Jaher (sacred groves) in their villages.
Their traditional dress includes dhoti and gamuchha for men and a short-check saree, usually blue and green, for women, who generally put on tattoos.
Various forms of marriage are accepted in Santhal society, including elopement, widow remarriage, levirate, forced (rare), and the one in which a man is made to marry the woman he has impregnated.
Divorce is not a taboo in Santhal society. Either of the couple could divorce the other.
Occupation:
Most Santhals are agriculturists, depending on their farmlands or forests.
Seasonal forest collection is one of the important sources of their subsidiary income.
Dance (enej) and music (sereng) are integral partsof the Santal life.
Their homes, called Olah, have a particular three-colour patternon the outer walls. The bottom portion is painted with black soil, the middle with white, and the upper with red.
Santhal Rebellion (1855-56):
The Santhal uprising, one of the most noted events of revolt against the British Raj, took place in 1855 and 1857.
This was India’s first major peasant uprisingfueled by the implementation of the Permanent Land Settlement in 1793.
It was led by Sido and Kanhu and covered the regions of Bihar.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/ranchi/pm-modi-pays-tribute-to-santhal-freedom-fighters/articleshow/111389298.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the United States of America’s Presidential Election:
- President in the United States is not elected directly by citizens.
- President elections take place every four years in the US.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
US President Joe Biden’s woeful performance in the presidential debate against challenger Donald Trump has re-ignited questions about what would happen should the veteran Democrat step down as party flagbearer at the last minute.
The president and vice president are not elected directly by citizens in the US.
Instead, they are chosen by “electors” through a process called the Electoral College.
The Electoral College is a process in which electors or representatives from each state cast their vote and determine who will be president.
Each state is given a number of electors based roughly on the size of its population.
There are a total of 538 electors selected according to each state’s policy.
When people cast their vote, they are actually voting for electors.
The general elections take place every four years on the first Tuesday of November.
All states except Maine and Nebraska use a “winner-take-all” system.
In this system, the party of the candidate who receives the most votes is awarded all the state’s electors, even if the margin of victory in the state’s popular vote is small.
Following a general election, the slates of electors meet in their state capitals to cast their votes for president and vice president.
The vote occurs on the Monday following the second Wednesday in December.
The candidates who receive a majority, or more than half, of the votes become president and vice president.
If no candidate receives a majority, the president is elected by the House of Representatives, which may choose among the three candidates with the most electoral votes.
There are times when a candidate wins the presidency (electoral votes) but not the popular votes (voted by people during the general election).
The newly elected President and Vice President are inaugurated in January.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/us-election-what-if-biden-leaves-2024-presidential-race-5993373
With reference to European Council, consider the following statements:
- It defines the general political direction and priorities of the European Union.
- It obtained formal status through the Treaty of Maastricht.
- It usually meets every year to discuss the matters of grave concern.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India congratulated H.E António Costa on being elected as next President of the European Council.
It is the European Union’s institution that defines the general political direction and priorities of the European Union.
It was created as an informal forum in 1974 for discussion between heads of state or government of the EU member states.
Treaty of Maastricht: Under this treaty the European Council acquired a formal status and role to provide the impetus and general political guidelines for the EU.
Members: The members of the European Council are the heads of state or government of the 27 EU member states, the European Council President and the President of the European Commission.
It usually meets 4 times a year – but the President can convene additional meetings to address urgent issues.
It generally decides issues by consensus – but by unanimity or qualified majority in some cases. Only the heads of state/government can vote.
What are the functions?
It decides on the EU’s overall direction and political priorities – but does not pass laws.
It deals with complex or sensitive issues that cannot be resolved at lower levels of intergovernmental cooperation
It sets the EU’s common foreign & security policy, taking into account EU strategic interests and defence implications
It nominates and appoints candidates to certain high profile EU level roles, such as the ECB and the Commission
Headquarters: Brussels, Belgium.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2029399
Consider the following statements regarding the Nova Explosion:
- It is an event where a star explodes as it interacts with another star.
- It destroys both interacting stars immediately in this explosion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Global professionals and amateur astronomers waiting for an once-in-a-lifetime nova explosion which will occur in September, 3,000 light-years from the Earth.
It is the dramatic instance of a star exploding as it interacts with another, nearby star.
It’s a one of many, repeated moments during the long, slow, death of two neighboring stars in the same system.
Astronomers are waiting for the fiery explosion of T Coronae Borealis, also dubbed the “Blaze Star” and known to astronomers as “T CrB”.
For T CrB, this nova event happens roughly every 80 years — it’s a like Halley’s Comet event every 76 years — so, astronomers call T CrB a “recurrent” nova.
They believe T CrB’s prior eruptions were observed as long ago as December 1787 and even in October 1217 AD.
When T CrB erupts, its luminosity will increase dramatically, making it visible to the naked eye for several days.
Process
The system contains two stars — a white dwarf and a red giant.
The white dwarf is an incredibly dense remnant of a once larger star. It’s about the size of planet Earth but with the same mass as our sun.
Its neighbor, the red giant, is in its final years of existence and is slowly being stripped of hydrogen by the gravitational pull of the denser white dwarf.
This star “cannibalism” causes a tremendous buildup of pressure and heat, which eventually triggers a huge thermonuclear explosion.
The explosion doesn’t completely destroy the stars, however, and so this event repeats over time. It can carry on for hundreds of thousands of years.
Different nova events have different cycles, ranging from a few years to hundreds of thousands of years.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/september-2024-nova-explosion-9424836/
Consider the following statements regarding the Snowblind malware:
- It is an android malware which uses a built-in android security feature to bypass anti-tamper mechanisms.
- It cannot disable biometric and two-factor authentication of any android device.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A new banking malware called ‘Snowblind’ is targeting Android users to steal banking credentials.
It is a new Android malware that uses a built-in Android security feature to bypass anti-tamper mechanisms and steal banking credentials.
This malware exploits a built-in security feature to bypass anti-tamper protection in apps handling sensitive information.
It works by repacking an app so it is unable to detect the use of accessibility features that can be used to extract sensitive information like login credentials and get remote access to the app.
It exploits a feature called ‘seccomp’, which stands for ‘secure computing’.
It is part of the underlying Linux kernel and the Android operating system and is used to check applications for signs of tampering.
The security firm discovered that Snowblind injects a piece of code that loads before seccomp initialises the anti-tampering measures. This enables the malware to bypass security mechanisms and utilize accessibility services to remotely view the victim’s screen.
Snowblind can also disable biometric and two-factor authentication, two security features commonly used by banking apps to thwart unauthorised access. Like typical Android malware, Snowblind infects users who install apps from untrusted sources.
While the security firm was unable to identify how many devices are affected by the new malware, it says that Snowblind is mostly active in Southeast Asia.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/tech-news-technology/snowblind-malware-uses-an-android-security-feature-to-bypass-security-9418579/
Consider the following statements with reference to eSankhyiki Portal:
- It provides real-time inputs for planners and policy-makers in India.
- It consists of data catalogue module in which Index of Industrial Production information can be accessed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has developed an eSankhyiki portal.
It provides real-time inputs for planners, policy-makers, researchers and the public at large.
The objective of this portal is to establish a comprehensive data management and sharing system for ease of dissemination of official statistics in the country.
It has two modules namely:
Data Catalogue Module: This module catalogues the major data assets of the Ministry at one place for ease of access.
It allows users to search within datasets, including within tables, and download data of interest to increase its value and re-usability.
The module has seven data products, namely National Accounts Statistics, Consumer Price Index, Index of Industrial Production, Annual Survey of Industries, Periodic Labour Force Survey, Household Consumption Expenditure Survey and Multiple Indicator Survey.
The Data Catalogue section already includes over 2291 datasets along with specific metadata and visualization for each dataset for user convenience.
Macro Indicators Module: This module offers time series data of key macro indicators with features for filtering and visualizing data enabling ease of access for the users.
The module also allows users to download custom datasets, visualizations and sharing them through APIs, thereby increasing the re-usability of data.
The first phase of the module includes four major products of MoSPI: National Accounts Statistics, Consumer Price Index, Index of Industrial Production, and Annual Survey of Industries, encompassing the data of last ten years. The portal currently hosts more than 1.7 million records.
It has officially been launched on the Statistics Day.
The initiative is in sync with the theme of the Statistics Day- ‘Use of data for Decision making’ as ease of access of data is the prerequisite for evidence based decision making.
It is a user centric data portal which facilitates use and reuse of information for creating impact through value addition and analysis by the users.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2029708
INS Ranvir, recently in news, belongs to which one of the following classes?
Rajput Class
Explanation :
Recently, the Indian Naval Ship INS Ranvir, of the Eastern Fleet under the aegis of the Eastern Naval Command arrived at Chattogram, Bangladesh as part of an Operational Deployment.
It is a Rajput Class Guided Missile Destroyer which has undergone upgrade with state of art weapons and sensors, majority being indigenous.
It is the fourth of the five Rajput-class destroyers built for the Indian Navy which was commissioned on 28 October 1986.
During this visit, personnel from the Indian and Bangladesh navies will engage in wide range of professional interactions including Subject Matter Expert Exchange (SMEE), cross-deck visits, community outreach and friendly sports fixtures.
On completion of harbour phase, INS Ranvir will participate in a Maritime Partnership Exercise (MPX)/ PASSEX with ships of the Bangladesh Navy.
Significance of the visit: It will further strengthen the longstanding friendship, cooperation as also the robust interoperability between both nations through a series of engagements and activities aligned with Government of India’s focus on Security and Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR).
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2029739
SEBEX 2, recently seen in the news is a/an:
newly developed non-nuclear explosive
Explanation :
India has successfully developed and certified SEBEX 2, a new explosive that is 2.01 times more lethal than standard Trinitrotoluene (TNT).
About SEBEX 2:
SEBEX 2 is said to be among the most powerful non-nuclear explosives in the world.
It utilizes a high-melting explosive (HMX) composition.
This formulation significantly enhances the lethality of warheads, aerial bombs, artillery shells, and other munitions.
It is 2.01 times more deadly than standard TNT (Trinitrotoluene).
Explosive performance is gauged by TNT equivalence, with higher valuesindicating greater lethality.
Currently, the most powerful conventional explosive used in India, specifically in the Brahmos warhead, has a TNT equivalence of about 1.50.
Most conventional warheads worldwide have a TNT equivalence ranging from 1.25 to 1.30
SEBEX 2 was manufactured by Economic Explosives Limited (EEL), Nagpur, a subsidiary of Solar Industries, under the Make in India initiative.
It has been evaluated, tested, and certified by the Indian Navy under its Defence Export Promotion Scheme.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/business/india-business/indias-new-explosive-is-2-01-times-more-lethal-than-tnt-top-facts-about-sebex-2-among-worlds-powerful-non-nuclear-explosives/articleshow/111396078.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Low-Frequency Array (LOFAR):
- It is a pan-European distributed radio interferometer.
- It can observe in several directions simultaneously, which allows for a multi-user operation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Astronomers recently discovered a new radio galaxy using the LOw-Frequency ARray (LOFAR).
About Low-Frequency Array (LOFAR):
It is a highly innovative, pan-European distributed radio interferometer and the first of its kind.
It observes the Universe at low radio frequencies, close to the FM radio band, from 90 to 200 MHz.
It was developed by the Dutch Institute for Radio Astronomy (ASTRON) with the goal of exploring the early, distant universe, solar activity and the terrestrial atmosphere.
LOFAR can observe in several directions simultaneously, which allows for a multi-user operation.
For this reason, LOFAR is novel in its design because it is the first telescope that can look at the entire sky at the same time, unlike other telescopes which you have to point at.
LOFAR does not have moving parts; steering and tracking across the sky are achieved by treating the signal from the individual antennas in each station with advanced digital beam-forming techniques that make the system agile, allowing for rapid repointing of the telescope as well as giving the potential for multiple simultaneous observations in different directions.
The LOFAR main coreis based in the north of the Netherlands, with other stations located in France, Germany, and the United Kingdom.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.wionews.com/science/astronomers-discover-new-radio-galaxy-using-low-frequency-array-lofar-736903
Consider the following statements with reference to the Syntrichia caninervis:
- It is a new species of flowering plant.
- It can tolerate multiple environmental stress factors, including drought, cold and radiation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Scientists have identified a species of desert moss called ‘Syntrichia caninervis’ that could be a game-changer for future space exploration and colonisation efforts.
About Syntrichia caninervis:
It is one of the most abundant desert mosses in the world.
It possesses remarkable tolerance to multiple environmental stress factors (drought, cold and radiation).
Extreme desiccation tolerance: recover within seconds after >98% water loss.
Extraordinary freezing tolerance: withstand −196°C ultra-low temperature.
Super resistance to gamma radiation: with a half-lethal dose estimated to be 5,000 Gy.
Distribution:
It has a widespread global distribution.
It is predominant in dryland regions, including the Gurbantunggut and TenggerDeserts in China and the Mojave Desert in the United States.
S. caninervis crusts are also present in mountainous regions of the Pamir, Tibet, Middle East, Antarctica, and circumpolar regions.
It has a unique adaptation: it uses a tiny hair (awn) on the end of each leaf to collect water, in addition to that collected by the leaves themselves.
What is a Moss?
A moss is a flowerless, spore-producing plant - with the spores produced in small capsules.
Mosses are distributed throughout the world except in salt water and are commonly found in moist shady locations.
They are best known for those species that carpet woodland and forest floors.
Ecologically, mosses break down exposed substrata, releasing nutrients for the use of more-complex plants that succeed them.
They also aid in soil erosion control by providing surface cover and absorbing water, and they are important in the nutrient and water economy of some vegetation types.
Economically important species are those in the genus Sphagnum that form peat.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.wionews.com/science/desert-moss-found-with-potential-to-thrive-on-mars-736771
Consider the following statements with reference to the Project Nexus:
- It is an international initiative to enable instant cross-border retail payments by interlinking domestic Fast Payments Systems (FPSs).
- It was conceptualized by the World Bank (WB).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
RBI recently joined Project Nexus, an initiative to enable instant cross-border retail payments by linking domestic Fast Payment Systems.
About Project Nexus:
It is a multilateral international initiative to enable instant cross-border retail payments by interlinking domestic Fast Payments Systems (FPSs).
Rather than requiring FPS operators to establish multiple custom connections for each country, Nexus provides a standardized, single-connection solution that enables seamless transactions across borders.
With Nexus, an FPS operator can connect to a single network, enabling instant access to other countries within the network.
It was conceptualized by the Innovation Hub of the Bank for International Settlements (BIS).
It aims to connect the FPSs of four ASEAN countries (Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand); and India, who would be the founding members and first mover countries of this platform.
The platform, which can be extended to more countries, is expected to go live by 2026.
When a new country joins Nexus, existing members are automatically connected to that country, and vice versa. This means the network can expand at a near-zero marginal cost for existing members.
By simplifying and unifying the payment infrastructure, Project Nexus seeks to enhance efficiency, reduce costs, and improve the accessibility of international payments.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/mumbai/rbi-to-link-upi-with-asean-payment-systems/articleshow/111415565.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Mars Odyssey:
- It is part of the European Space Agency’s ExoMars program.
- It holds the record for the longest continually active mission in orbit around a planet other than Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
NASA has recently captured an epic view of the largest volcano in our solar system named Olympus Mons using the Mars Odyssey orbiter.
About Mars Odyssey:
It was an early mission in NASA’s Mars Exploration Program.
It was launched from Cape Canaveral, Florida, on April 7, 2001.
The Odyssey spacecraft has been orbiting Mars since 2001.
Odyssey’s original goals were to search for signs of water, make detailed maps of the planet’s surface materials, and determine radiation levels for humans.
The spacecraft holds the record for the longest continually active mission in orbit around a planet other than Earth. Its mission is scheduled to last until 2025.
It created the first global map of chemical elements and minerals that make up the Martian surface.
Odyssey continues to study Mars’s surface to see how the planet changes over time.
The spacecraft also serves as a communications relay to Earth for spacecraft on the surface that lack high-powered antennas and cannot beam information to Earth very quickly.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.moneycontrol.com/science/nasa-captures-view-of-largest-volcano-in-our-solar-system-using-mars-odyssey-orbiter-article-12759190.html
With reference to Nouka baich, consider the following statements:
- It is a traditional boat race conducted in West Bengal.
- It is linked with the worship of the Hindu deity Manasa.
- It is only performed by males.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
With the south-west monsoon gradually setting in, nouka baich boat races will soon begin in several rural pockets of West Bengal.
It is a traditional boat race of West Bengal.
Timing
The races occur in the month of September across riverine Bengal, when the river waters are swollen during the last weeks of the monsoons.
They continue till September, sometimes till October, even November in some places.
These boat races were previously dominated by male but in recent years one can see participation of women too.
These boat races in southern West Bengal are particularly linked with the worship of the Hindu deity Manasa, the goddess of snakes.
The worship of Manasa is the worship of snakes. And the local deity most commonly worshipped in rural south Bengal is Manasa, a deity worshipped by agrarian communities.
Type of boats used
In this race four to five kinds of traditional boats are used for the races.
Other boats that are commonly used for races in Bengal include the Chhip, Kaile Bachhhari, Chande Bachhari, Chitoi and Sorpi.
A special type boat called Sorengi which is about 90 ft long which imitates nature is also seen in these races.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/kolkata/with-onset-of-monsoon-boat-races-set-to-enthral-rural-bengal/article68344541.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Supercapacitor:
- It is energy storage device which include an electrode, electrolyte, separator and current collector.
- It has high-power density, long durability and ultrafast charging characteristics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The researchers of the Government College for Women, Thiruvananthapuram, have devised a method to produce activated carbon, suitable for supercapacitor fabrication, from coconut husks, a major agricultural residue in Kerala.
A supercapacitor is a next-generation energy storage device which is also known as an ultracapacitor.
It has advantages such as high-power density, long durability, and ultrafast charging characteristics as compared to conventional capacitors and Lithium-Ion batteries (LIB).
The main components of supercapacitors include an electrode, electrolyte, separator, and current collector.
An electrode is a solid electric conductor that carries electric current into non-metallic solids, liquids, gases, plasmas, or vacuums.
An electrolyte is a substance that produces an electrically conducting solution when dissolved in a polar solvent, such as water.
Key findings
It is found that the prototype supercapacitors made of coconut husk-derived activated carbon to be four-times more efficient that the existing supercapacitors.
This innovative method not only saves time, but also yields activated carbon with an impressive surface area of 1,200 m2 g-1 and highly porous structures, making it an ideal material for various applications.
The device’s high-power output is capable of powering two LEDs for 20 minutes.
What is a microwave-assisted method?
It is relatively inexpensive and exhibits exceptional supercapacitor capability.
By utilising an advanced microwave pyrolysis reactor one can produce high-quality carbon within five minutes, eliminating impurities like ash and generating zero waste.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/researchers-devise-method-to-develop-eco-friendly-supercapacitors-using-activated-carbon-produced-from-coconut-husks/article68352189.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to Epilepsy:
- It is a condition which is caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain.
- It can be controlled by using deep brain stimulation (DBS) devices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A UK-based teenager, Oran Knowlson who has become the first person in the world to be fitted with a brain implant to help bring his epileptic seizures under control by using deep brain stimulation (DBS) device.
The device uses DBS, which is also utilized for movement disorders associated with Parkinson’s, and other neurological conditions.
Working
The neurostimulator delivers constant electrical impulses to the brain to disrupt or block abnormal seizure-causing signals.
A 3.5 cm square, 0.6 cm in thickness, the device was surgically implanted in Knowlson’s skull and anchored using screws.
The doctor then inserted two electrodes deep into his brain until they reached the thalamus — a relay station for all the motor and sensory information. The ends of the electrodes were connected to the neurostimulator.
The device was switched on after Knowlson recovered from his surgery. It can be recharged by a wireless headphone.
What is epilepsy?
It is a condition that leads to recurring seizures, sees a person experience jerking of arms and legs, temporary confusion, staring spells, or stiff muscles. It is caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain.
The disease has no identifiable cause in nearly 50% of the cases.
Reasons for epilepsy: Head trauma, Tumours in the brain, some infections like meningitis, or even genetics can lead to epilepsy. It can increase the risk of accidents, drownings, and falling.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-health/how-the-worlds-first-brain-implant-to-control-epileptic-seizures-works-9427055/
Which one of the following statements best describes the term Artificial Intelligence (AI) washing?
It is a deceptive promotional practice that exaggerates about a product use of artificial intelligence.
Explanation :
Recently, it is revealed that tech companies and startups market themselves as using AI, but not doing so which forms the basis of ‘AI washing’.
It is a deceptive promotional practice that exaggerates or outright lies about a product or service’s use of artificial intelligence (AI).
Objective: To capitalize on people’s interest in AI and make an offering seem to be more cutting-edge than it really is.
For example, a company may claim their chatbot is “Powered by the latest AI technology” when in reality, it simply matches keywords with pre-written responses.
It is a term derived from greenwashing, where companies exaggerate their environmental friendliness to appeal to customers.
Similarly, businesses that claim to have integrated AI into their products, when they’re actually using less sophisticated technology, can be accused of AI washing.
It is found that the companies had made false statements to their clients about providing ‘expert AI-driven forecasts’ and using machine learning to manage retail client portfolios.
Problems
AI washing can have concerning impacts for businesses, from overpaying for technology and services to failing to meet operational objectives the AI was expected to help them achieve.”
Meanwhile, for investors it can make it harder to identify genuinely innovative companies.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/tech-news-technology/what-is-ai-washing-risks-concerns-examples-9420592/
Consider the following statements with reference to the New Shepard spacecraft:
- It is a suborbital space travel vehicle used for both scientific research and space tourism.
- It is used only within the imaginary line called Karman line.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Jeff Bezos-led Blue Origin has partnered with the Space Exploration and Research Agency (SERA) to give common Indian citizens an opportunity to go into space in New Shepard spacecraft.
It is a suborbital space travel vehicle, offering a unique experience for both scientific research and space tourism.
It is named after Alan Shepard, the first American in space, New Shepard is a fully reusable rocket system designed for human spaceflight.
It consists of two main components: a reusable booster and a pressurized crew capsule.
The capsule can accommodate six passengers, providing each with a window seat to witness breathtaking views of Earth.
Among its notable features are the largest windows ever flown in space, offering an unparalleled visual experience for astronauts.
New Shepard’s 11-minute journey takes passengers beyond the Karman line. During the flight, passengers experience several minutes of weightlessness before making a controlled descent back to Earth aided by parachutes.
In addition to its space tourism potential, New Shepard serves as a valuable platform for scientific research.
What is the Karman line?
Located at 100 km (62 miles) above sea level, it is an imaginary line that demarcates the earth’s atmosphere from space.
It was established in the 1960s by a record-keeping body called the Fédération Aéronautique Internationale (FAI).
It was named after aerospace pioneer Theodore von Kármán.
Though not all scientists and spacefarers accept it (for example, the Federal Aviation Administration, NASA, and the U.S. military place the line between outer space and the atmosphere at 80 km (50 miles) above the Earth’s surface) , a majority of countries and space organisations recognise this boundary between earthsky and space.
Anything traveling above the Kármán line needs a propulsion system that doesn’t rely on lift generated by Earth’s atmosphere—the air is simply too thin that high up.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/meet-new-shepard-blue-origins-spacecraft-set-to-take-indians-to-space-2560597-2024-07-01
With reference to troposphere, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is characterized by decreasing temperature with height.
- Thickness of the troposphere increases from equator to polar region.
- This layer contains dust particles and gases like ozone.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 and 3
Explanation :
The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. The temperature in this layer decreases at the rate of 1°C for every 165m of height. This is the most important layer for all biological activity. The zone separating the troposphere from stratosphere is known as the tropopause. So, statement 1 is correct.
Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator. Thickness of the troposphere is greatest at the equator because heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The troposphere contains dust particles and water vapour. All changes in climate and weather take place in this layer. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to Auroras:
- These are cosmic glowing lights produced by the interaction of charged particles from the sun with atoms in the upper atmosphere.
- It is seen as multi coloured fireworks hanging in the polar sky during mid night in the troposphere and magnetosphere.
- It’s a unique phenomenon which occur only in the earth’s atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
An aurora is a colourful cosmic glowing lights in the sky caused by the Sun. Auroras happen when particles from the Sun interact with gases in the upper atmosphere, causing beautiful displays of light in the sky. Auroras are often seen in areas near the North Pole or South Pole. So, statement 1 is correct.
It is seen as multi coloured fireworks hanging in the polar sky during mid night in the exosphere and magnetosphere. Magnetosphere lies beyond the exosphere. It is earth’s magnetic belt, where proton and electrons, coming out from the sun are trapped by the earth. The magnetic field extends to around 64,000 km above the Earth. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Recently the UAE’s Hope spacecraft, which is orbiting Mars since February 2021, has captured images of glowing atmospheric lights in the Red Planet’s night sky, known as discrete auroras. The data gathered by the orbiter include far and extreme ultraviolet auroral emissions which have never been imaged before at Mars. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to temperature inversion:
- It is a situation in which a layer of warm air at the surface is overlain by a layer of cool air.
- In regions where a pronounced low-level inversion is present, visibility may be greatly reduced below the inversion.
- Inversion aids in the convective transfer of heat from the ground to the upper layers of the atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Temperature inversion, also called thermal inversion, is a reversal of the normal behaviour of temperature in the troposphere, in which a layer of cool air at the surface is overlain by a layer of warmer air (Under normal conditions air temperature usually decreases with height). So, statement 1 is not correct.
Inversions play an important role in determining cloud forms, precipitation, and visibility. In regions where a pronounced low-level inversion is present, convective clouds cannot grow high enough to produce showers and, at the same time, visibility may be greatly reduced below the inversion, even in the absence of clouds, by the accumulation of dust and smoke particles. Because air near the base of an inversion tends to be cool, fog is frequently present there. So, statement 2 is correct.
Inversions also affect diurnal variations in air temperature. The principal heating of air during the day is produced by its contact with a land surface that has been heated by the Sun’s radiation. The heat from the ground is communicated to the air by conduction and convection. Since an inversion will usually control the upper level to which heat is carried by convection, only a shallow layer of air will be heated if the inversion is low and large, and the rise in temperature will be great. Thus, inversion restricts the transfer of heat from the ground to the upper layers of the atmosphere. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the heat budget of the planet Earth:
- More than 75 per cent of the incoming solar radiation is reflected to space even before reaching the earth’s surface.
- The majority of the solar energy absorbed by the earth’s surface is radiated back to space via convection.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The earth as a whole does not accumulate or lose heat. It maintains its temperature. Consider that the insolation received at the top of the atmosphere is 100 per cent. Roughly 35 units are reflected to space even before reaching the earth’s surface. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The remaining 65 units are absorbed, 14 units within the atmosphere and 51 units by the earth’s surface. The earth radiates back 51 units in the form of terrestrial radiation. Of these, 17 units are radiated to space directly and the remaining 34 units are absorbed by the atmosphere (6 units absorbed directly by the atmosphere, 9 units through convection and turbulence and 19 units through latent heat of condensation). So, statement 2 is not correct.
48 units absorbed by the atmosphere (14 units from insolation +34 units from terrestrial radiation) are also radiated back into space. Thus, the total radiation returning from the earth and the atmosphere respectively is 17+48=65 units which balance the total of 65 units received from the sun. This is termed the heat budget or heat balance of the earth.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements is not correct with reference to the structure of the atmosphere?
The air temperature at the tropopause is greater over the equator when compared to poles.
Explanation :
The atmosphere consists of different layers with varying density and temperature.
The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. All changes in climate and weather take place in this layer. The temperature in this layer decreases at the rate of 1°C for every 165m of height. This is the most important layer for all biological activity.
The zone separating the troposphere from stratosphere is known as the tropopause. The air temperature at the tropopause is about minus 80°C over the equator and about minus 45°C over the poles. The temperature here is nearly constant and hence, it is called the tropopause.
The stratosphere is found above the tropopause and extends up to a height of 50 km. One important feature of the stratosphere is that it contains the ozone layer. This layer absorbs ultraviolet radiation and shields life on the earth from intense, harmful forms of energy.
The mesosphere lies above the stratosphere. In this layer, once again, temperature starts decreasing with the increase in altitude and reaches up to minus 100°C at the height of 80 km.
The ionosphere is located between 80 and 400 km above the mesopause. It contains electrically charged particles known as ions, and hence, it is known as ionosphere. Radio waves transmitted from the earth are reflected back to the earth by this layer.
Therefore, option (b) is the answer.
Which of the following are the necessary conditions for the occurrence of Temperature Inversion?
- Presence of dry air
- Short winter nights
- Snow-covered ground surface
- Fast movement of air
- Cloudless and clear sky
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1, 3 and 5 only
Explanation :
Temperature inversion, also called thermal inversion, a reversal of the normal behaviour of temperature in the troposphere, in which a layer of cool air at the surface is overlain by a layer of warmer air. (Under normal conditions air temperature usually decreases with height.)
Necessary conditions for the occurrence of Temperature Inversion
Presence of dry air near the ground surface, so that it may not absorb much heat radiated from the earth’s surface as moist air is capable of absorbing much of the radiant heat from the earth’s surface. So, point 1 is correct.
Long winter nights, so that the loss of heat by terrestrial radiation from the ground surface during the night may exceed the amount of insolation received from the sun through incoming shortwave electromagnetic radiation waves and thus the ground surface becomes too cold. So, point 2 is not correct.
Snow-covered ground surface, so that there is the maximum reflection of incoming solar radiation. Snow, being a bad conductor of heat retards the flow of heat from the ground surface lying below the snow layers to the lower atmosphere. So, point 3 is correct.
The slow movement of air because there is no transfer and mixing of heat in the lower layers of the atmosphere. So, point 4 is not correct.
Cloudless and clear sky, so that the loss of heat through radiation proceeds more rapidly without any obstruction. Clouds absorb terrestrial radiation and hence retard the loss of heat from the earth’s surface. So, point 5 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following factors affect the distribution of Earth’s surface temperature?
- Distance from the coast
- Ocean currents
- Ground slope
- Altitude
- Nature of land and water
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Explanation :
Following are the factors affecting the distribution of Earth’s surface temperature:
Distance from the coast- The marine environment moderates the weather conditions of the coastal areas because there is more mixing of temperatures of the coastal seas and oceans and coastal lands due to the daily rhythm of land and sea breezes. So, point 1 is correct.
Ocean currents- The warm ocean currents raise the average temperature while the cold currents lower the temperatures of affected areas. So, point 2 is correct.
Ground slope- The ground slope facing the sun receives more solar insolation because the sun’s rays reach the surface more or less straight and hence sun-facing ground surfaces record higher temperatures than leeward slopes where the sun’s rays reach more obliquely. So, point 3 is correct.
Altitude - Temperature decreases with increasing altitude at a normal lapse rate from the Earth’s surface. Heat is transferred through the processes of radiation, conduction and convection. So, point 4 is correct.
Land and Water- The contrasting nature of land and water surfaces concerning the incoming shortwave solar radiation largely affects the spatial and temporal distribution of temperature. So, point 5 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- The rate of decrease in temperature with increasing height is called the negative lapse rate.
- Change in temperature due to expansion or contraction of air is called adiabatic change of temperature.
- The decrease in temperature of an ascending saturated air is measured as the moist adiabatic rate.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Temperature decreases with increasing height at the rate of 6.5℃ per 1000m. This rate of decrease in temperature with increasing height is called the Normal Lapse rate. A Negative Lapse rate is an increase in temperature with the height from the earth’s surface. So, statement 1 is not correct.
A definite ascending air with a given volume and temperature expands due to a decrease in pressure and thus cools. On the other hand, descending air contracts and thus its volume decreases but its temperature increases. It is apparent that there is a change in the temperature of air due to ascent or descent but without addition or subtraction of heat. Such type of change of temperature of air due to contraction or expansion of air is called adiabatic change of temperature. So, statement 2 is correct.
The rate of decrease of temperature of an ascending air beyond condensation level (saturated air) is lowered due to the addition of latent heat of condensation to the air. This is called Moist Adiabatic rate wherein the temperature of an ascending air beyond condensation level decreases. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following has contributed to the Evolution of the present-day Atmosphere?
- Solar Winds
- Degassing
- Volcanic activity
- Photosynthesis
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
The early atmosphere, with hydrogen and helium, is supposed to have been stripped off due to the solar winds.
During the earth’s cooling, gases and water vapour were released from the interior solid earth. The early atmosphere largely contained water vapour, nitrogen, carbon dioxide, methane, ammonia and very little free oxygen. Through the process of degassing, the gases were outpoured from the interior.
Continuous volcanic eruptions contributed water vapour and gases to the atmosphere.
Finally, the composition of the atmosphere was modified by the living world through the process of photosynthesis.
Therefore option (d) is the correct answer.
Which of the following best explains “Inselberg”?
An isolated hill, ridge, or small mountain that abruptly protrudes out from a virtually level surrounding plain.
Explanation :
An inselberg is an isolated hill, ridge, or small mountain that abruptly protrudes out from a virtually level surrounding plain. Inselbergs arise from rocks that erode at a slower rate than that of the surrounding rocks. The landform consists of an erosion-resistant rock that protects a softer rock such as limestone. The resistant rock remains isolated as ongoing erosion erodes the less resistant rock around it.
Therefore option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Geological Survey of India (GSI) on August 2021, has identified certain geological sites across the Northeast for the promotion of geo-tourism. It included Umananda island (Assam) which is one of the smallest inhabited islands in the Brahmaputra. The island is actually an inselberg, composed of the rocks of the Assam-Meghalaya gneissic complex.
Additional information:
The other sites identified by GSI:
Mawmluh Cave, Mawblei or God’s Rock, Therriaghat – Meghalaya
Majuli river island- Assam
Chabimura, Unakoti- Tripura
Sangetsar Tso (popularly known as Madhuri Lake)- Arunachal Pradesh.
Loktak Lake- Manipur
Reiek Tlang hill- Mizoram
Naga Hill Ophiolite- Nagaland
Stromatolite Park- Sikkim
Consider the following statements with reference to the spatial distribution of Insolation at the Earth’s Surface.
- Maximum insolation is received at the Equator than subtropical deserts.
- At the same latitude, the insolation is more over the oceans than the continent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Maximum insolation is received over the subtropical deserts, where the cloudiness is the least. The Equator receives comparatively less insolation than the tropics. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Generally, at the same latitude the insolation is more over the continent than over the oceans. In winter, the middle and higher latitudes receive less radiation than in summer. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore option (d) is the correct answer.
With reference to ‘layers of the Earth’s Atmosphere’, which one of the following statements is correct?
Going up from ionosphere to exosphere, the temperature increases continuously.
Explanation :
The atmosphere consists of different layers with varying density and temperature. Density is highest near the surface of the earth and decreases with increasing altitude. The column of atmosphere is divided into five different layers depending upon the temperature condition. They are: troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere and exospherehttps://lh3.googleusercontent.com/KaqwUQqCGv2SFhkDbFon5Dx3h7MLSO7fa3HTM_1v0tl0PAczgW2Jn0x6HraIrmQQ2kpqX53QI91FMXYzEY6o2EAPc_Zf6NL3xBVbCKN9CJgW4MsPq_9HrskDvua0Bod0z9M8niN8
The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator. The temperature in this layer decreases at the rate of 1°C for every 165m of height. This is the most important layer for all biological activity. The zone separating the troposphere from stratosphere is known as the tropopause. The temperature here is nearly constant, and hence, it is called tropopause.
The stratosphere is found above the tropopause and extends up to a height of 50 km. One important feature of the stratosphere is that it contains the ozone layer. This layer absorbs ultra-violet radiation and this causes temperature to rise till it reaches stratopause. Temperature, therefore first decreases in the troposphere, remains constant in the tropopause region and starts increasing in the stratosphere till it reaches stratopause.
The mesosphere lies above the stratosphere, which extends up to a height of 80 km. In this layer, once again, temperature starts decreasing with the increase in altitude and reaches up to minus 100°C at the height of 80 km. The upper limit of mesosphere is known as the mesopause.
The ionosphere is located between 80 and 400 km above the mesopause. It contains electrically charged particles known as ions, and hence, it is known as ionosphere. Temperature here starts increasing with height. The uppermost layer of the atmosphere above the thermosphere is also known as the exosphere.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
The layer of the atmosphere that is nearly cloud-free and provides the most favourable conditions for flying aeroplanes is
stratosphere
Explanation :
The column of atmosphere is divided into five different layers depending upon the temperature condition. They are: troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere and exosphere.
The stratosphere is found above the tropopause and extends up to a height of 50 km. One important feature of the stratosphere is that it contains the ozone layer. This layer absorbs ultra-violet radiation and shields life on the earth from intense, harmful form of energy
The stratosphere is the layer of the atmosphere that is nearly cloud-free and planes usually fly. 35,000 to 42,000 feet is considered as the “preferred region” in the airline industry because if the altitude is too high, the oxygen level becomes too sparse to fuel the engines and if it is too low, there is greater air resistance.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
With reference to biodiversity, consider the following statements:
- Species richness measures the proportion of species at a given site.
- Alpha diversity refers to the diversity within a particular area or ecosystem.
- Tropical latitudes have greater species diversification than temperate regions due to long evolutionary time.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Biodiversity is measured by two major components: Species richness and Species evenness.
Species evenness: It is a measure of the relative abundances of species within a community. It is measured as the proportion of species at a given site, e.g. low evenness indicates that a few species dominate the site. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Species richness: It is the measure of the number of species found in a community
Alpha diversity: It refers to the diversity within a particular area or ecosystem, and is usually expressed by the number of species (i.e., species richness) in that ecosystem.
Beta diversity: It is a comparison of diversity between ecosystems, usually measured as the change in amount of species between the ecosystems
Gamma diversity: It is a measure of the overall diversity for the different ecosystems within a region. So, statement 2 is correct.
In general, species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles. Various reasons are proposed for this phenomenon, some important ones are (a) Speciation is generally a function of time. As tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years and thus, had a long evolutionary time for species diversification, (b) Tropical environments, unlike temperate ones, are less seasonal, relatively more constant and predictable, thus leading to promote niche specialization and lead to a greater species diversity etc. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which among the following is/are the quantitative criteria for a region to qualify as a ‘biodiversity hotspot’?
- It has to have conserved at least 70% of its original native habitat.
- It must contain at least 0.5% of the world’s total species of vascular plants as endemic.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2 only
Explanation :
The term ‘biodiversity hotspot’ was coined by Norman Myers (1988). Conservation International in association with Myers introduced the following two strict quantitative criteria, for a region to qualify as a hotspot:
It has to have lost ≥ 70% of its original native habitat. So, statement 1 is not correct.
It must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants (> 0.5% of the world’s total) as endemic. So, statement 2 is correct.
At present, there are 36 biodiversity rich areas in the world that have been qualified as hotspots.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following:
- Zoological Park
- Seed bank
- Arboreta
- Biosphere reserve
Which of the sites given above are the methods of ex-situ biodiversity conservation?
1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Ex-situ conservation:
It is literally an ‘off site’ conservation policy that involves techniques linking the transfer of an objective species, experiencing various threats, away from its native habitat to a much safer abode.
This involves the conservation of genetic resources, as well as wild and cultivated species. The strategies include the establishment of botanical gardens, zoos, conservation strands and genes, pollen, seed, seedling, tissue culture and DNA banks. This requires knowledge of the genetic structure of population sampling techniques, methods of regeneration and maintenance of varietal gene pools particularly in cross-pollinated plants.
Examples of Ex-situ conservation include Botanical Garden, Zoological Garden, Seed Bank or Gene Bank, Arboreta, Aquaria, Home Garden, cryopreservation, etc.
Biosphere reserve falls under the category of In-situ or on-site conservation.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- To be invasive, a species must adapt to the new area easily and reproduce quickly.
- All invasive species are introduced into a new region accidentally.
- The Global Invasive Species Database is developed by UNEP to address the issue of invasive alien species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Invasive alien plant species are non-native species that spread and interfere in a new ecosystem by posing a serious threat to the native biodiversity, leading to economic loss. Not all non-native species are invasive. For example, popular varieties of wheat, and rice, are not native to the United States. To be invasive, a species must adapt to the new area easily and it must reproduce quickly. So, statement 1 is correct.
Many invasive species are introduced into a new region accidentally but some species are brought to a new area on purpose. These are known as ‘Introduced species’ and often, these species are introduced as a form of pest control, pets or decorative displays. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Global Invasive Species Database (GISD) is developed by International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) to address the issue of invasive alien species. It is a free source of information about invasive alien species and aims to increase public awareness about introduced species that negatively impact biodiversity, and to facilitate effective prevention and management activities by providing easy access to authoritative invasive species information. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- Majority of animals are able to maintain a constant internal body temperature under various environmental conditions.
- Organisms are able to maintain homeostasis by physiological means only.
- Thick-walled spores help bacteria to survive unfavourable conditions.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Homeostasis is any self-regulating process by which an organism tends to maintain stability while adjusting to conditions that are best for its survival.
Organisms use the following methods to cope with the unfavorable environmental conditions:
Conform: It is the condition in which the internal body temperature of an organism is highly influenced by external factors. An overwhelming majority (99 percent) of animals and nearly all plants cannot maintain a constant internal environment. Their body temperature changes with the ambient temperature. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Regulate: It is the ability of some organisms to maintain homeostasis by physiological (sometimes behavioural also) means which ensures constant body temperature, constant osmotic concentration, etc. Homeostasis is any self-regulating process by which an organism tends to maintain stability while adjusting to conditions that are best for its survival. If homeostasis is successful, life continues; if it’s unsuccessful, it results in a disaster or death of the organism. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Suspend: Some organisms try to survive unfavourable conditions by suspending or reducing their metabolic activity. In bacteria, fungi and lower plants, various kinds of thick-walled spores are formed which help them to survive unfavourable conditions. They germinate on the availability of a suitable environment. So, statement 3 is correct.
Migrate: The organism can move away temporarily from the stressful habitat to a more hospitable area and return when the stressful period is over. For example, every winter the famous Keoladeo National Park (Bharatpur) in Rajasthan hosts thousands of migratory birds coming from extremely cold northern regions.
Therefore, option (a) is the answer.
With reference to algae, consider the following statements:
- They are chlorophyll-bearing, autotrophic and predominantly terrestrial organisms.
- An association between algae and fungus is called Lichens.
- They can reproduce by both asexual and sexual methods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Algae are defined as a group of predominantly aquatic (both freshwater and marine), autotrophic, photosynthetic, chlorophyll-bearing and nucleus-bearing organisms that lack the true roots, stems, leaves, and specialized multicellular reproductive structures of plants. So, statement 1 is not correct.
They occur in a variety of other habitats: moist stones, soils and wood. Some of them also occur in association with fungi (lichen) and animals (e.g., on sloth bear).
Lichens are symbiotic associations between fungi (mycobionts, commonly Ascomycetes) and photosynthetic partners (photobionts) which can be green algae (commonly Trebouxia spp.) or diazotrophic cyanobacteria (commonly Nostoc spp.). These mycobiont-photobiont symbioses are regarded as mutualistic. So, statement 2 is correct.
The algae reproduce by vegetative, asexual and sexual methods. Vegetative reproduction is by fragmentation. Asexual reproduction is by the production of different types of spores, the most common being the zoospores. Sexual reproduction takes place through fusion of two gametes. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to ecological succession, consider the following statements:
- Change in the structure of the communities is orderly and sequential.
- The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area are called sere.
- A climax community is in near equilibrium with the environment.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Ecological Succession: It is the process by which the composition and structure of a biological community evolve over time in response to the changing environmental conditions. This change is gradual and fairly predictable, orderly and sequential, parallel with the changes in the physical environment. So, statement 1 is correct.
During ecological succession, some species colonize an area whereas populations of other species decline and even disappear. The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area is called sere(s). The individual transitional communities are termed seral stages or seral communities. So, statement 2 is correct.
These changes lead finally to a community that is in near equilibrium with the environment and that is called a climax community. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the ecological interactions:
- Competition occurs when two populations need a vital resource that is in short supply.
- The process of cross-pollination between flowering plants and bees demonstrates the Phenomenon of Symbiosis.
- In Parasitism one species is harmed while the other is unaffected.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Competition: This is an interaction between two populations in which both species are harmed to some extent. Competition occurs when two populations or species, both need a vital resource that is in short supply. The vital resource could be food, water, shelter, nesting site, mates or space. So, statement 1 is correct.
Mutualism: This is a close association between two species in which both the species benefit. However, some mutualisms are so intimate that the interacting species can no longer live without each other as they depend totally on each other to survive. Such close associations. are called symbiosis. An example of such close mutualistic association is that of termite and their intestinal flagellates. Another familiar example of symbiosis is seen in the pollination of flowers where flowering plants are cross-pollinated by the bees which benefit by getting nectar from the plants and both cannot survive without the other So, statement 2 is correct.
Parasitism: In this type of interaction, one species(host) is harmed and the other called parasite benefits (like nourishment and shelter). Tapeworm, roundworm, malarial parasite, many bacteria, fungi, and viruses are common parasites of humans. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Taiga Ecosystem:
- It is present in the northern hemisphere only.
- Generally the trees in the taiga forest do not shed their leaves during winters.
- It is the world’s largest terrestrial biome.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
The taiga is a forest of the cold, subarctic region. In the northern hemisphere, it lies between the tundra to the north and temperate forests to the south. It forms an uninterrupted belt all around the world, from Scandinavia to Asian Siberia and Canada. The taiga is nowhere in the southern hemisphere, since there is no mass of mainland at the appropriate latitudes. So, statement 1 is correct.
The taiga biome is known for its coniferous (cone-bearing evergreen) forests and many freshwater bodies in the form of rivers, lakes, bogs, fens and marshes. While deciduous trees of temperate forests lose their leaves in winter, conifers never lose their needles. For this reason, conifers are also called evergreens. So, statement 2 is correct.
The taiga, also known as boreal forest, covers about 11% of the land mass of this planet. This makes it the world’s largest terrestrial biome. The boreal forest has cold winters and relatively warm summers. Precipitation is moderate, averaging around 200–600 mm per year, and droughts are relatively rare. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer
In which one of the following states is Aghanashini estuary located?
Karnataka
Explanation :
Recently, ENVIS Centre & Energy and Wetlands Research Group of the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) prepared a proposal for the declaration of Aghanashini estuary in Karnataka as a Ramsar wetland site of international importance.
Aghanashini River in central Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka originates in the Western Ghats and flows westward towards Arabian Sea and a major part of its course flows through the forested gorges and valleys.
Aghanashini estuarine landforms not only accommodate diverse ecosystem functions and human activities but also mediate flood and erosion risks. The rich mangrove vegetation of the estuary plays a significant role in nutrient supply for the diverse faunal community and provide shelter for birds and act as nurseries for many species of fishes and prawns.
Aghanashini estuarian region has unique cultivation of the salt-tolerant rice named Kagga.
Therefore option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the climatological phenomenon called ‘Heat Dome’:
- It involves the trapping of hot ocean air by the atmosphere.
- It is responsible for extensive cloud formation within the high-pressure system.
- Its main cause is a strong temperature differential between the western and eastern Pacific Oceans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
A Heat Dome occurs when the atmosphere traps hot ocean air like a lid or cap. High-pressure circulation in the atmosphere acts like a dome or cap, trapping heat at the surface and favoring the formation of a heatwave. So, statement 1 is correct.
Hot air masses, born from the blazing summer sun, expand vertically into the atmosphere, creating a dome of high pressure that diverts weather systems around them. As high-pressure systems become firmly established, subsiding air beneath them heats the atmosphere by compression and dissipates cloud cover and the dome of high pressure diverts clouds around it. The high summer sun angle combined with those cloudless skies then further heat the ground. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The western Pacific’s temperatures have risen over the past few decades as compared to the eastern Pacific, creating a strong temperature gradient, or pressure differences that drive the wind, across the entire ocean in winter. In a process known as convection, the gradient causes more warm air, heated by the ocean surface, to rise over the western Pacific, and decreases convection over the central and eastern Pacific. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the heat budget of the planet Earth:
- More than 75 per cent of the incoming solar radiation is reflected to space even before reaching the earth’s surface.
- The majority of the solar energy absorbed by the earth’s surface is radiated back to space via convection.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The earth as a whole does not accumulate or lose heat. It maintains its temperature. Consider that the insolation received at the top of the atmosphere is 100 per cent. Roughly 35 units are reflected to space even before reaching the earth’s surface. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The remaining 65 units are absorbed, 14 units within the atmosphere and 51 units by the earth’s surface. The earth radiates back 51 units in the form of terrestrial radiation. Of these, 17 units are radiated to space directly and the remaining 34 units are absorbed by the atmosphere (6 units absorbed directly by the atmosphere, 9 units through convection and turbulence and 19 units through latent heat of condensation). So, statement 2 is not correct.
48 units absorbed by the atmosphere (14 units from insolation +34 units from terrestrial radiation) are also radiated back into space. Thus, the total radiation returning from the earth and the atmosphere respectively is 17+48=65 units which balance the total of 65 units received from the sun. This is termed the heat budget or heat balance of the earth.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding Senna spectabilis, recently seen in the news:
- It is a medium to big tree native to the Indian subcontinent.
- It is classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Environmental organisations recently urged the Forest department to maintain transparency in a project to extract Senna spectabilis from the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary.
About Senna spectabilis:
It is a species of the legume family.
It is a medium to big treenative to South and Central America and is grown as an ornamental plant as it has bright yellow flowers.
It is a fast-growing species, particularly on deep soils, and is fire- and termite-resistant and tolerant of strongly acidic soils.
It is often planted for fuelwood, as an ornamental, and as a shade tree in agroforestry situations.
It is classified as an Invasive Alien Species (IAS) in India.
It is considered an environmental weed by the Global Compendium of Weeds.
In India, it was introduced as shade trees for coffee and firewood; it soon became a threat to native tree species as its dense foliage prevented the growth of other indigenous trees and grass species.
It is classified as Least Concern under the IUCN Red List.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/greens-demand-transparency-in-forest-departments-project-to-eradicate-senna-spectabilis-from-wayanad-wildlife-sanctuary/article68355818.ece
With reference to Down Syndrome, consider the following statements:
- It is a condition in which a person has an extra chromosome or an extra piece of a chromosome.
- Most cases of Down Syndrome are inherited.
- It is a lifelong condition and it cannot be cured.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A recent research study has documented what is potentially the first-ever case of Down syndrome in Neanderthals.
About Down Syndrome:
It is a condition in which a person has an extra chromosomeor an extra piece of achromosome.
Chromosomes are tiny “packages” in your cells that contain your genes.
Genes carry information, called DNA, that controls what you look like and how your body works.
People with Down syndrome have an extra copy of chromosome 21. In some cases, they may have an extra copy of a part of the chromosome.
Having an extra copy of a chromosome is called a trisomy. So sometimes Down syndrome is also called trisomy 21.
This extra copy changeshow a baby’s body and brain develop.
It can cause both mental and physical challenges during their lifetime.
Even though people with Down syndrome might act and look similar, each person has different abilities.
Causes: Down syndrome is usually not inherited. It happens by chance, as an error when cells are dividingduring the early development of the fetus.
Symptoms:
The symptoms of Down syndrome are different in each person. And people with Down syndrome may have different problemsat different times of their lives.
They usually have mild to moderate intellectual disabilities. Their development is often delayed.
Some of the common physical signs of Down syndrome include:
A flat face
Eyes that slant up
A short neck
Small hands and feet
Poor muscle tone
Loose joints
Treatment:
Down syndrome is a lifelong condition and it cannot be cured. Early therapy programs can help improve skills.
Treatments are based on each person’s physical and intellectual needs, strengths, and limitations.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.earth.com/news/down-syndrome-discovered-in-neanderthals-for-the-first-time/
With reference to the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO), consider the following:
- Kyrgyzstan
- China
- Tajikistan
- Russia
- Iran
How many of the countries are members of the SCO?
All five
Explanation :
India has officially announced its participation in the annual summit of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) in Kazakhstan’s Astana recently, with the External Affairs Minister leading the delegation.
About Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO):
It is a permanent intergovernmental international organizationestablished on June 15, 2001, in Shanghai, China.
It is the world’s largest regional organization by geography and population, covering about 80 percent of the Eurasian landmass and 40 percent of the world population.
Objective: Promoting cooperation and peace among its member states, as well as fostering “a new democratic, fair, and rational international political and economic order.
Founding Members: Kazakhstan, China, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan.
The organization expanded to include India and Pakistan in 2017and Iran in 2023, bringing the total to nine member states.
The SCO also includes 3 observer states—Mongolia, Belarus, and Afghanistan.
Following the integration of Iran, the SCO now controls 20 percent of the world’s oil reserves and 44 percent of its natural gas.
Organizational Structure:
The Heads of State Council (HSC) is the supreme decision-making body in the SCO. It meets once a year and adopts decisions and guidelines on all important matters of the organisation.
The organisation has two permanent bodies:
The SCO Secretariat based in Beijing.
The Executive Committee of the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) based in Tashkent, Uzbekistan.
RATS serves to promote the cooperation of member states against terrorism, separatism, and extremism.
The official languages of the SCO are Chinese and Russian.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/s-jaishankar-official-announcement-external-affairs-ministry-lead-india-sco-summit-2024-kazakhstan-2561037-2024-07-02
Through which Indian states does the Saryu River flow?
Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh
Explanation :
An artificial lake formed in the Saryu River remains a “significant threat” as efforts to drain it have failed for the second consecutive day.
About Saryu River:
It is a river that flows through the Indian states of Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh.
It is also known as the Sarayu or Sarju River.
This river is of ancient significance, finding mentions in the Vedas and the Ramayana.
Ayodhya, the birthplace of Lord Rama, is situated on the banks of the river Sarayu. The banks of Sarayu in Ayodhya are a common site for various religious rituals.
Course:
It originates primarily from the foothills of the Himalayas and becomes an auxiliary river to the Sharada.
It flows through Kapkot, Bageshwar, and Seraghat towns before discharging into the Sharada River at Pancheshwar at the India-Nepal border.
Sharada River (also known as Kali River) then flows into the Ghaghara Riverin Sitapur District, Uttar Pradesh.
Lower Ghaghara is popularly known as Sarayu in India, especially while it flows through the city of Ayodhya.
Henceoption b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/dehradun/artificial-lake-in-saryu-poses-threat-due-to-heavy-rainfall/articleshow/111444370.cms
Consider the following statements regardingWorld Drug Report 2024:
- It is an annual report released by the UN Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC).
2.Synthetic opioidsare the most widely used drug worldwide as per the report.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The United Nations (UN) agency tackling crime and drug abuse (UNODC) released its annual World Drug Report recently.
About World Drug Report 2024:
It is an annual report released by the UN Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC).
Highlights of the Report:
The number of people who use drugs has risen to 292 million in 2022, a 20 percent increase over the past ten years.
Cannabis remains the most widely used drug worldwide (228 million users), followed by opioids (60 million users), amphetamines (30 million users), cocaine (23 million users), and ecstasy (20 million users).
Nitazenes, a group of highly potent synthetic opioids, haverecently emerged in several high-income countries, resulting in an increase in overdose deaths.
Though an estimated 64 million people worldwide suffer from drug use disorders, only one in 11 is in treatment.
Women receive less access to treatment than men, with only one in 18 women with drug use disorders in treatment versus one in seven men.
In 2022, an estimated 7 million people were in formal contact with the police (arrests, cautions, and warnings) for drug offences, with about two-thirds of this total due to drug use or possession for use.
In addition, 2.7 million people were prosecuted for drug offences and over 1.6 million were convicted globally in 2022.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://news.un.org/en/story/2024/06/1151446
With reference to Zinc, consider the following statements:
- It has a relatively low melting and boiling point.
- It is majorly used in galvanizing because of its corrosion resistance property.
- Jharkhand has the largest reserves of Zinc in India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Two only
Explanation :
Researchers in France have discovered that zinc plays a crucial role in the health of legume crops.
It is a silvery blue-grey metal with a relatively low melting and boiling point.
Both lead & zinc are found to occur together in ore along with other metals like silver and cadmium.
It is the fourth most widely used metal across the globe, trailing only steel, aluminium and copper. India has the self-sufficiency in respect of zinc.
In India, Rajasthan is endowed with the largest reserves/resources of lead – zinc ore, followed by Andhra Pradesh (3.03%), Madhya Pradesh (1.98%), Bihar etc.
Global reservoirs of Zinc: Australia accounts for 27% of world’s zinc reserves, followed by China (18%), Russia & Mexico (9% each), Peru(8%), Kazakhstan(5%), USA(4%), etc.
Uses:
The largest consumer of zinc is the Galvanising Industry. Owing to its corrosion resistance in varied types of environment, zinc is used for protecting steel by way of galvanizing.
Large quantities of zinc are used to produce die-castings, which are important in the automobile, electrical and hardware industries.
Zinc oxide is widely used in the manufacture of very many products such as paints and rubber etc.
Biological role
It is a trace mineral, meaning that the body only needs small amounts, and yet it is necessary for almost 100 enzymes to carry out vital chemical reactions.
It is a major player in the creation of DNA, growth of cells, building proteins, healing damaged tissue, and supporting a healthy immune system.
Key findings
It found that zinc in plants aids in nitrogen fixation, a process where atmospheric nitrogen is converted into ammonia, an essential nutrient for plants.
Legume crops form a symbiotic relationship with rhizobia, a bacteria that fixes atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules.
However, these nodules are sensitive to environmental factors such as temperature, drought, flooding, soil salinity, and high soil nitrogen levels.
Another vital finding of this study is the identification of a crucial transcription factor that controls nodule breakdown when soil nitrogen levels are high.
The researchers discovered that legumes also use zinc as a secondary signal to integrate environmental factors and regulate nitrogen fixation efficiency. The mechanism works due to a transcriptional regulator called Fixation Under Nitrate (FUN).
FUN is inactivated by zinc through the formation of large filament structures, which are dismantled to release active FUN when zinc levels are low.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/agriculture/unexpected-discovery-reveals-zincs-crucial-role-in-making-legumes-resilient-to-climate-change
Consider the following statements regarding National Test House:
- It provides evaluation, and calibration of raw materials as well as finished products in India.
- It is functioning as a subordinate office under the union Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The union government is working on making the National Test House (NTH) as the apex certification body for all Indian products.
It was formerly known as the Government Test House, boasts a rich legacy dating back to its establishment in 1912.
It is India’s largest multi-location multidisciplinary industrial central government’s testing laboratory dealing with almost all sorts of testing, calibration and quality evaluation related to industry, commerce, trade etc. as per international and national standards.
At present it is providing facilities like testing, evaluation, and calibration of raw materials as well as finished products to the end users through its branches established at Kolkata, Mumbai, Chennai, Ghaziabad, Jaipur, Guwahati, and Varanasi .
Functions
Test and evaluation of materials, products, equipments, modules, system and sub-system in practically all branches of Science & technology.
Test and Certification of Welders under the scheme of Central Authority for Testing and Certification of Welders.
Assist industries in developing indigenous products for export promotion and import substitution besides their quality assurance programme.
Assist BIS in formulation of National Standards.
Assist industries and users’ organization with R & D work in Test Engineering.
Assisting National Accreditation Board for Testing & Calibration Laboratories [NABL] in accreditation of Testing & Calibration Laboratories in the country.
Presently it is functioning as a subordinate office under, of India, Ministry of Consumers Affairs, Food & Public Distribution, and Department of Consumer Affairs.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.livemint.com/news/india/centre-plans-to-make-national-test-house-as-apex-certification-body-for-all-indian-products-11719817904947.html
Xenophrys apatani, recently in news, is a:
Frog
Explanation :
Recently, a team of researchers from the Zoological Survey of India recorded the forest-dwelling frog from the Talle Wildlife Sanctuary and named it as Xenophrys apatani.
It has been named after the dominant Apatani community in recognition of their ingenuity in the conservation of wild flora and fauna.
Distribution: It is distributed along the Eastern Himalayan and the Indo-Burma biodiversity hot spots of the country.
Key facts about Apatani community
The Apatani are a tribal group of people living in the Ziro valley in Arunachal Pradesh.
Language: They speak a local language called Tani and worship the sun and the moon.
Festivals: They have major festivals like Dree, Myoko, Yapung and Murung.
Dree is celebrated with prayers for a bumper harvest and prosperity of all humankind and Myoka celebrates friendship similar to modern friendship day.
They have been practising integrated rice-fish farming in their mountain terraces of Arunachal Pradesh since the 1960s.
They principally use three rice varieties: Emeo, Pyape and Mypia.
Key Facts about Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary
It is located near the beautiful Apatani cultural landscape in the Lower Subansiri District of Arunachal Pradesh.
Rivers like Pange, Sipu, Karing, and Subansiri flow through this sanctuary.
Flora: It has a stunning spectrum of subtropical and alpine forests like silver fir trees, ferns, orchids, bamboo, and rhododendron.
Fauna: Clouded leopard, Himalayan squirrel, Himalayan Black Bear etc.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/arunachal-pradesh/arunachal-pradesh-yields-new-species-of-horned-frog/article68358509.ece
Exercise MAITREE, a joint military exercise is conducted between India and:
Thailand
Explanation :
The Indian Army contingent departed to take part in India- Thailand joint military Exercise MAITREE.
It is the 13th edition of India- Thailand joint military Exercise MAITREE.
The exercise is scheduled to be conducted from 1st to 15th July 2024 at Fort Vachiraprakan in Tak Province of Thailand.
Last edition of the same exercise was conducted at Umroi, Meghalaya in September 2019.
The Indian Army contingent comprising 76 personnel is being represented mainly by a Battalion of the LADAKH SCOUTS along with personnel from other arms and services.
Aim: To foster Military Cooperation between India and Thailand.
The Exercise will enhance combined capabilities in executing Joint Counter Insurgency/ Terrorist Operations in Jungle and Urban Environment under Chapter VII of United Nations Charter.
The Exercise will focus on high degree of physical fitness, joint planning and joint tactical drills.
Tactical Drills to be practiced during the exercise will include Creation of a Joint Operation Centre, establishing an Intelligence & Surveillance Centre, employment of Drones and Counter Drone Systems, Securing of a Landing Site, Small Team Insertion & Extraction, Special Heliborne Operations, Cordon and Search Operations, Room Intervention Drills and Demolition of Illegal Structures.
Exercise MAITREE will enable the two sides to share their best practices in Tactics, Techniques and Procedures for conduct of joint operations.
The Exercise will facilitate developing inter-operability, bonhomie and camaraderie between soldiers of both the countries.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2030153
. Consider the following statements regarding Steel Slag:
- It is an industrial byproduct obtained from the steel manufacturing industry.
- It can be used successfully to treat acidic water discharges from abandoned mines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the member (Science) of Niti Aayog released the Guidelines for Utilization and Processing of Steel Slag as Processed Steel Slag Aggregates in Road Construction.
Steel slag is an industrial byproduct obtained from the steel manufacturing industry.
It is produced in large quantities during steel-making operations that use electric arc furnaces.
It can also be produced by smelting iron ore in a basic oxygen furnace.
Primarily, slag consists of calcium, magnesium, manganese and aluminium silicates and oxides in various combinations.
The cooling process of slag is responsible mainly for generating different types of slags required for various end-use consumers
Applications of Steel Slag
It has found use as a barrier material remedy for waste sites where heavy metals tend to leach into the surrounding environment.
Steel slag forces the heavy metals to drop out of solution in water run off because of its high oxide mineral content.
It has been used successfully to treat acidic water discharges from abandoned mines.
It can replace coarse aggregate due to a higher impact and crushing strength, better anti-skid capacity.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2030010
Consider the following statements with reference to the humid heat:
- It results from high temperatures and high levels of moisture in the air.
- It feels cooler than the same temperature in a dry environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
People in India exposed to extreme levels of humid heat during monsoons increased by at least 67 crores over the period 1951-2020, a research has found.
About Humid Heat:
Humid heat results from high temperatures and high levels of moisture in the air.
This means sweat does not evaporate as easily, making it harder for the body to cool off.
As a result, it can “feel” hotter than the same temperature in a dry environment.
This perceived temperature is known as the heat index, which describes what the temperature feels like to the body when air temperature is combined with relative humidity.
Humid heat tends to be more dangerous as the moisture does not evaporate as efficiently, so more heat remains in the body.
Effects:
It’s common to feel damp and sticky in hot and humid heat, and you might get covered in sweat after a short period of time outside.
It can contribute to feelings of low energy and lethargy.
It can cause hyperthermia—overheating as a result of your body’s inability to effectively let out heat. Hyperthermia can cause:
Dehydration
Fatigue
Muscle cramps
Heat exhaustion
Fainting
Heat stroke
What is Dry Heat?
Dry heat occurs when there is low humidity.
It generally occurs in hot desert climates that receive little precipitation.
The absence of moisture in the air allows water to evaporate more quickly, and temperatures may seem cooler than they would in a humid environment.
Dry heat can feel more tolerable initially, as sweat evaporates quickly, providing some relief.
On the other hand, dry heat can cause dehydration faster.
In dry air, not only does the sweat evaporate quickly off the skin, taking extra heat with it, but the moisture from your saliva and breath will also quickly evaporate, resulting in the unpleasant “dry mouth.”
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/people-in-india-exposed-to-humid-heat-extremes-from-1951-2020-increased-by-67-crore-study/articleshow/111463542.cms?from=mdr
What is the primary function of Coding DNA?
To create proteins in the cell
Explanation :
Using artificial intelligence, researchers have found potential cancer drivers hidden in so-called ‘junk’ regions of DNA.
About Junk DNA:
In genetics, the term junk DNA refers to regions of DNA that are noncoding.
DNA contains instructions (coding) that are used to create proteins in the cell.
However, the amount of DNA contained inside each cell is vast, and not all of the genetic sequences present within a DNA molecule actually code for a protein.
Some of this noncoding DNA is used to produce non-coding RNA components such as transfer RNA, regulatory RNA and ribosomal RNA.
However, other DNA regions are not transcribed into proteins, nor are they used to produce RNA molecules and their function is unknown. These are known as junk regions of DNA.
The proportion of coding versus noncoding DNA varies significantly between species.
In the human genome, for example, almost all (98%) of the DNA is noncoding, while in bacteria, only 2% of the genetic material does not code for anything.
However, over the years, researchers have found evidence to suggest that junk DNA may provide some form of functional activity.
Some lines of evidence suggest that fragments of what were originally non-functional DNA have undergone the process of exaptation throughout evolution.
Exaptation refers to the acquisition of a function through means other than natural selection.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://medicalxpress.com/news/2024-07-class-cancer-mutations-junk-dna.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Nightjars:
- They are medium-sized nocturnal insectivorous birds.
- They are found exclusively in temperate regions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A team of scientists recently described a new species of nightjar, named Caprimulgus ritae, living in the tropical forests Timor and Wetar, Lesser Sunda Islands.
About Nightjars:
They are medium-sized nocturnal insectivorous birds in the family Caprimulgidae and the order Caprimulgiformes.
These birds are found all around the world, with the exception of Antarctica, and certain island groups, such as the Seychelles.
Features:
They are characterized by long wings, short legs, and very short bills.
They feed on flying insects that they catch on the wing at night.
Their grey-brown, mottled, streaked, and stripey plumage provides ideal camouflage in the daytime.
During the day, they sleep on the ground or perched, usually lengthwise, on a branch.
They are among the most difficult bird species to study due to their unobtrusive and nocturnal behavior and cryptic plumage.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.sci.news/biology/caprimulgus-ritae-13064.html
Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Money Mule’?
Someone who transfers or moves illegally acquired money on behalf of someone else
Explanation :
Several high-street banks have either stopped or slowed down opening sole proprietorship and individual current accounts of firms that are less than a year old amid suspicion that they could be ‘money mules’ for laundering and digital frauds.
About Money Mule:
A money mule is someone who transfers or moves illegally acquired money on behalf of someone else.
Criminals recruit money mules to help launder proceeds derived from online scams and frauds or crimes like human trafficking and drug trafficking.
Money mules add layers of distance between crime victims and criminals, which makes it harder for law enforcement to accurately trace money trails.
Money mules can move funds in various ways, including through bank accounts, cashier’s checks, virtual currency, prepaid debit cards, or money service businesses.
Criminals will often use fake job adverts, or create social media posts about opportunities to make money quickly, in order to recruit potential money mules.
Some money mules know they are supporting criminal enterprises; others are unaware that they are helping criminals’ profit.
Money mules often receive a commission for their service, or they might provide assistance because they believe they have a trusting relationship with the individual who is asking for help.
When such frauds are reported, the money mule becomes the target of police investigations.
Even if money mules are not directly involved in the crimes that generate the money, they are accomplices, as they launder the proceeds of such crimes.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/banking/finance/banking/banks-scanning-proprietor-a/cs-to-spot-money-mules/articleshow/111387013.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian Gaur:
- It is indigenous to the south and southeast parts of Asia.
- It is classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
After several decades, the locally extinct Indian gaur has been spotted in the Nagarjunasagar Srisailam Tiger Reserve (NSTR) in Andhra Pradesh.
About Indian Gaur:
The Indian Bison of Gaur is the largest and tallest in the family of wild cattle.
Scientific Name: Bos gaurus
Distribution: Gaurs are indigenous to the South and Southeast parts of Asia.
Habitat:
Gaurs are primarily the denizens of evergreen and semi-evergreen forests along with moist deciduous forests with open grasslands.
They prefer hilly-terrains below an altitude of 1,500-1,800 m with large and undisturbed forest tracts and abundant water.
Features:
The Indian Bison is about 240 cm to 340 cm in length, with a sole tail length of about 70 cm to 105 cm. Their height is about 170 cm to 230 cm.
The adult male weighs around 600 kg to 1500 kg. and the adult female weighs about 400 kg to 1000 kg.
They have a convex shape on the forehead.
The limbs are very strong and sturdy.
Both males and females possess horns. The horns are pale green or yellowish brown in color and are not pointed upward but possess a slightly inward curvature.
They have a typically short tail.
The Gaur is a social animal. They generally live in groups of about 30 to 40.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
Wild Life Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I
It is listed in CITES Appendix I.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/hyderabad/indian-gaur-spotted-in-nagarjunasagar-srisailam-tiger-reserve-after-decades/articleshow/111470651.cms
With reference to Rudram-1, consider the following statements:
- It is an Air-to-surface missile developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.
- It has a maximum range of up to 500 kilometers.
- It is India’s first indigenous anti-radiation missile.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Two only
Explanation :
India has successfully test-fired its first indigenous anti-radiation missile, the Rudram-1, developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) for the Indian Air Force (IAF).
It is an Air-to-surface missile developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.
It is integrated with the IAF’s Sukhoi-30MKI fighter jets which serves as the launch platform.
Features
It is India’s first indigenous anti-radiation missile.
It features Inertial Navigation Systems (INS)-GPS navigation and a Passive Homing Head for final attack, allowing it to accurately hit radiation-emitting targets.
INS-GPS navigation provides a technological edge, enabling accurate targeting over a wide range of frequencies.
Range: The missile can be launched from varying altitudes, ranging from 500 meters to 15 kilometers, and has a range of up to 250 kilometers depending on the launch conditions.
Speed: Up to Mach 2
This flexibility allows the IAF to adapt to different operational scenarios, enhancing its combat effectiveness.
This precision is crucial for Suppression of Enemy Air Defence (SEAD) operations, enabling the destruction of enemy radars and communication sites from long standoff ranges.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/defence-india-successfully-test-fires-new-generation-anti-radiation-missile-rudram-1-3541569/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Metal-organic frameworks:
- They are made up of porous, crystalline materials with a broad range of applications.
- They can be used as filters for crude oil purification.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers have carried out an in-depth analysis of the mechanisms underlying the flexibility of crystals of Metal-organic frameworks (MOFs) and introduced a novel quantitative measure of mechanical flexibility for crystals.
MOFs are a class of porous, crystalline materials with a broad range of applications.
They are composed of metal ions or clusters, which act as the joints, bound by multidirectional organic ligands, which act as linkers in the network structure.
These crystalline materials possess the remarkable ability to absorb gases, such as carbon dioxide and store them as well as act as filters for crude oil purification.
MOFs derive their ability from the presence of nanopores, enhancing their surface areas that, in turn, make them adept at absorbing and storing gases.
Flexibility in crystals has been assessed in terms of a parameter called elastic modulus, which is a measure of a material’s resistance to strain-induced deformation.
New quantitative measure of mechanical flexibility
New study proposes a unique theoretical measure based on the fractional release of elastic stress or strain energy through internal structural rearrangements under symmetry constraints.
This new metric can be readily calculated using standard techniques of simulation and can rate the flexibility of a crystal on a scale of zero to one, zero signifying the least flexibility while one indicates maximum flexibility.
They have limited stability and mechanical weakness which has hindered their broader applications.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2030412
Consider the following statements with reference to the Megafauna:
- It is generally used to describe animals weighing more than 50 kg.
- Ostriches are considered as mega carnivorous species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The discovery of a 41,000-year-old ostrich nest by a team of archaeologists in Prakasam, Andhra Pradesh could provide key information about the extinction of megafauna in the Indian subcontinent.
This term is generally used to describe animals weighing more than 50 kg.
The term was first used by the English naturalist and explorer Alfred Russel Wallace in his 1876 book, The Geographical Distribution of Animals.
Megafauna may be classified based on their dietary type as megaherbivores (plant-eaters), mega carnivores (meat-eaters), and mega omnivores (who eat both plants and meat).
Ostriches are mega omnivores, with an adult ostrich weighing anywhere between 90 and 140 kg, with height between seven and nine feet.
Historical evidence of Megafauna
The earliest documented evidence of the species in the subcontinent was presented by Richard Lydekker in 1884 in the Dhok Pathan deposits in Upper Siwalik (Sivalik) Hills in present-day Pakistan.
Archaeologist S A Sali in 1989 reported the discovery of ostrich eggshell beads and engraved pieces (dating back to roughly 50,000–40,000 years ago) in an Upper Palaeolithic open-air camping site at Patne, Maharashtra.
In 2017, researchers at the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB) in Hyderabad assessed the ages of a batch of fossilised egg shells from Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat, and established the presence of ostriches 25,000 years ago.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/discovery-prehistoric-ostrich-shells-andhra-9426318/
Exercise Nomadic Elephant, a joint military exercise is conducted between India and:
Mongolia
Explanation :
India-Mongolia Joint Military Exercise NOMADIC ELEPHANT is scheduled to be conducted from 03rd to 16th July 2024 in Umroi, Meghalaya.
It is the 16th edition of India-Mongolia Joint Military Exercise.
An Indian contingent of 45 personnel is being represented by a Battalion of SIKKIM SCOUTS along with personnel from other arms and services.
It is an annual training event conducted alternatively in India and Mongolia. Last edition was conducted in Mongolia in July 2023.
Aim: To enhance joint military capability of both sides to undertake counter insurgency operations in a Sub Conventional scenario under Chapter VII of the United Nations Mandate.
The exercise will focus on operations in the semi-urban and mountainous terrain.
Tactical drills during the Exercise include Response to a Terrorist Action, Establishment of a Joint Command Post, establishment of an Intelligence & Surveillance Centre, Securing of a Helipad/ Landing Site etc.
This exercise will enable both sides to share their best practices in Tactics, Techniques and Procedures of conducting joint operations.
The exercise will also facilitate developing interoperability, bonhomie and camaraderie between the two armies. This will also enhance the level of defence cooperation, further augmenting bilateral relations between the two friendly nations.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2030373
Consider the following statements with reference to the Meta 3D Gen AI System:
- It provides both high-resolution textures and material maps.
- It uses Physically-Based Rendering (PBR) techniques to build up 3D content from scratch.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Meta has introduced a new AI tool that can generate or retexture 3D objects in under a minute.
Meta 3D Gen AI System is a combined AI system that can generate high-quality 3D assets, with both high-resolution textures and material maps, all within one minute.
It uses two AI-powered sub-systems called Meta 3D AssetGen and Meta 3D TextureGen.
The system can take text prompts from the user and produce a final output of AI generated 3D content such as characters, props or scenes.
Additionally, the user can also provide the system with an already created 3D mesh, which is essentially the structure of a 3D model, and ask it to add texture to it.
How does it work?
This system uses Physically-Based Rendering (PBR) techniques to build up 3D content from scratch.
The system first takes an input from the user which contains instructions for creating a 3D structure and its design elements including the texture.
In the first step, the Meta 3D AssetGen system creates an initial “3D asset” based on the user prompt. This step produces a 3D mesh with texture and PBR material maps. The inference time for this step is approximately 30 seconds.
In stage two, a higher-quality texture and PBR maps are generated for the 3D asset generated in stage one. This step utilises the Meta 3D TextureGen system that takes approximately 20 seconds, according to the company.
Additionally, the Meta 3D TextureGen system can be used individually by the user as a text-to-texture generator. If the user provides the system with an already generated 3D mesh along with a text prompt detailing the texture they want on the 3D content, the system automatically initiates step two.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/meta-launches-new-ai-text-to-3d-generator/article68362585.ece
Consider the following:
- Bhavani
- Hemavati
- Penganga
- Shimsha
- Lakshmantirtha
How many of the above are tributaries of Kaveri River?
Only four
Explanation :
The Karnataka state government has established a nine-member committee to investigate the contamination of the Kaveri River.
About Kaveri River:
Kaveri River, also known as Cauvery River, is one of the major rivers of southern India, which is considered sacrosanct by the Hindus.
Course:
It rises on Brahmagiri Hill of the Western Ghats in southwestern Karnataka, at an elevation of 1.341m (4,400 ft.) above mean sea level.
It flows in the south and east through Karnataka and Tamil Nadu and then across the southeastern lowlands, and finally surrenders in the Bay of Bengal through two principal mouths.
The total length of the river from origin to outfall is 800 km.
It is bounded by the Western Ghats on the west, by the Eastern Ghats on the east and south and by the ridges separating it from the Krishna basin and Pennar basin on the north.
The Cauvery basin extends over the states of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala, and the Union Territory of Puducherry, draining an area of 81,155 Sq.km
Tributaries: It’s important tributaries joining from left are the Harangi, the Hemavati, the Shimsha, and the Arkavati, whereas the Lakshmantirtha, the Kabbani, the Suvarnavati, the Bhavani, the Noyil, and the Amaravati joins from right.
Dams: Dams constructed across the river are Krishna Raja Sagara Dam and Mettur Dam and the Banasura Sagar Dam on the Kabini River, which is a tributary of Kaveri River.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://english.varthabharati.in/karnataka/bengaluru-state-government-forms-committee-to-address-kaveri-river-contamination
Consider the following statements regarding Common Grass Yellow:
- It is a small butterfly species endemic to northeast India.
- It is classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
For the first time, a large-scale migration of Common Grass Yellow was observed during the three-day butterfly survey which concluded at the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (MTR) recently.
About Common Grass Yellow:
It is a small, charming butterfly species that can be found across Asia, North America, Africa, and Australia.
Scientific Name: Eurema hecabe
Habitat: They like to fly quickly, close to the ground, are found in open grassy or bushy terrain, hence their name.
Features:
They have vibrant yellow wings that can range from a sultry sulfur shade to a lush lemon yellow, shifting with the seasons and their location. This is known as ‘seasonal polyphenism’.
There is black, broad, irregular outer marking on the forewing. The underside of the wing has various black mark with a yellow centre.
They are often seen in large groups, and the females usually fly about by themselves to find nectar from a wide variety of plants.
They are migratory in behavior and are found migrating in large numbers across the entire African, throughout most of Asia south of the Himalayas.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
This species is not legally protected in India under any schedules of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://medicalxpress.com/news/2024-07-class-cancer-mutations-junk-dna.html
Consider the following statements regarding Li-Fi Technology:
- It is a wireless communications technology that uses light to transmit data.
- It provides connections that are much faster and more secure than Wi-Fi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Telecom startup Velmenni recently received a grant from the Ministry of Defence (MoD) under the Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) initiative for its innovative Li-Fi (Light Fidelity) technology.
About Li-Fi Technology:
Li-Fi, which stands for Light Fidelity, is a mobile wireless communications technology that uses light rather than radio frequencies to transmit data.
The father of this technology is Professor Harald Hass.
Li-Fi uses special LED (light-emitting diode) bulbs for the transmission of data.
It is a high-speed, bidirectional, and fully networked wireless communication of data using light.
Li-Fi technology only needs a light source with a chip to transmit an internet signal through light waves.
Li-Fi devices deliver data through visible, infrared, or ultraviolet light.
LiFi provides internet users with wireless connections that are over 100 times faster than Wi-Fi routers because light has a larger bandwidth than radio waves.
It has delivery speeds of up to 224 GB per second.
LiFi can be used in a variety of applications, such as internet access, phone-2-phone or phone-to-TV communications, or in emerging use cases such as extended or mixed reality.
LiFi also provides greater data security because the signal does not pass through walls, and it can be used in areas where radio frequency is undesirable, like hospitals, aeroplanes or under water.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/india/how-velmennis-li-fi-technology-can-help-indian-navy-12760494.html
Which one of the following regions is not a major center of palm distribution?
Europe
Explanation :
Odisha has restricted the cutting of existing palm trees and plans to plant around 1.9 million such trees to reduce casualties from lightning strikes.
About Palm Trees:
Palm is any member of the Arecaceae, or Palmae, a single family of monocotyledonous flowering plants of the order Arecales.
These evergreen plants can grow in the form of shrubs, trees, or long, woody vines called lianas.
Distribution: The great centres of palm distribution are in America and in Asia, from India to Japan and south to Australia and the islands of the Pacific and Indian oceans, with Africa and Madagascar as a third but much less important palm region.
They are characterized by a tall, unbranched stem or, rarely, by a dichotomous branching stem (Hyphaene), and of the same diameter all along from base to top; at the apex, they bear a rosette consisting of coriaceous, either palmate or pinnate, leaves, up to some meters long.
Palmate leaves, like hands, grow in a bunch at the end of a stem. Pinnate leaves are like feathers, growing all along either side of a stem.
Though many species of palms are sturdy and plentiful, as many as 100 species are endangered due to deforestation and unsustainable cultivation practices, such as for the heart of palm, which comes from a part of the tree that cannot be regrown.
The palms with the greatest importance in world commerce are the coconut and the African oil palm (Elaeis guineensis); both are prime sources of vegetable oil and fat.
The rarest palm tree is the Hyophorbe amaricaulis. The only one left currently lives at the Botanic Gardens of Curepipe in Mauritius.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/governance/odisha-resorts-to-palm-tree-planting-to-combat-lightning-deaths-this-year
Typhon Weapons System, recently seen in the news, was developed by which one of the following countries?
United States of America
Explanation :
The Philippine Army has confirmed that the “deadly” Typhon Weapons System, deployed by the United States for joint military exercises, will soon be withdrawn from the country.
About Typhon Weapons System:
Typhon, also known as the Strategic Mid-Range Fires (SMRF) System, is an integrated weapons system being developed by the United States Navy.
It is capable of firing the Standard Missile 6 (SM-6), a ballistic missile defense munition that can also target ships at sea at a range of 370 kilometers (230 miles).
It can also fire the Tomahawk Land Attack Missile, a maneuverable cruise missile.
A full Typhon Weapon System battery comprises four launchers, a command post, and reload and support vehicles, all on trailers.
Offboard sources are used to supply the targeting information.
Typhon launchers are derived from the Mk 41 Vertical Launch System (VLS) in use on various U.S. Navy and foreign warships. This launcher can already fire a wide array of containerized missiles, and other types could be integrated into it in the future.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.eurasiantimes.com/the-philippine-army-confirms-withdrawal/
Consider the following statements regarding Sampoornata Abhiyan:
- It aims to address the issue of open defecation in Aspirational Districts and Aspirational Blocks across India.
- It is an initiative of NITI Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, NITI Aayog launched the ‘Sampoornata Abhiyan’ witnessing significant participation from citizens across the country.
It a 3-month campaign to undertake a sustained effort to achieve saturation of 6 key indicators in Aspirational Districts and 6 key indicators in Aspirational Blocks across the country.
It seeks to achieve saturation in each of the 6 identified indicators in the 112 Aspirational Districts and 500 Aspirational Blocks under the Aspirational Districts Programme and Aspirational Blocks Programme.
Key indicators of Aspirational Blocks include:
Percentage of pregnant women registered for Antenatal Care (ANC) within the first trimester;
Percentage of persons screened for Diabetes against the targeted population in the Block;
Percentage of persons screened for Hypertension against the targeted population in the Block;
Percentage of pregnant women taking Supplementary Nutrition under the ICDS Programme regularly;
Percentage of Soil Health Cards generated against the soil sample collection target; and
Percentage of SHGs that have received a Revolving Fund against the total SHGs in the block
Key indicators of Aspirational Districts includes
Percentage of pregnant women registered for Antenatal Care (ANC) within the first trimester;
Percentage of pregnant women taking Supplementary Nutrition under the ICDS Programme regularly;
Percentage of children fully immunized (9-11 months) (BCG+DPT3+OPV3+Measles 1)
Number of Soil Health Cards distributed;
Percentage of schools with functional electricity at the secondary level; and
Percentage of schools providing textbooks to children within 1 month of the start of the academic session
NITI Aayog, in collaboration with the relevant Central Ministries and Departments, as well as the Governments of States and Union Territories, will work together to ensure the effective and rapid development of these Districts and Blocks.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2030805
Moidams, a mound-burial system, recently seen in news belongs to:
Ahom Dynasty
Explanation :
Ahom era ‘Moidams’, resting place of royal families, in Assam’s Charaideo district have been recommended for inclusion in the UNESCO World Heritage List by its international advisory body International Council on Monuments and Sites (ICOMOS).
International Council on Monuments and Sites was established in 1965 in Warsaw (Poland) as a result of the Venice Charter of 1964 and offers advice to UNESCO on World Heritage Sites.
It is an international non-governmental organisation that is comprised of professionals, experts, representatives from local authorities, companies and heritage organisations, and is dedicated to the conservation and enhancement of the architectural and landscape heritage throughout the world.
Key facts about Moidams
The Moidams (also Maidams) are the mound-burial system of the Ahom dynasty (13th century-19th century).
The mound-burial system of the royals of the Ahom dynasty in Assam’s Charaideo district can be likened to the royal tombs of ancient China and the Pyramids of the Egyptians Pharaohs (kings of ancient Egypt).
The Ahom rule lasted for about 600 years until the British annexed Assam in 1826.
Charaideo, more than 400 km east of Guwahati, was the first capital of the Ahom dynasty founded by Chao Lung Siu-Ka-Pha in 1253.
However, after the 18th century, the Ahom rulers adopted the Hindu method of cremation, entombing the cremated bones and ashes in a Moidam at Charaideo.
The Moidams enshrine the mortal remains of Ahom royalty and are highly venerated.
With the shift of Ahom capital south and eastwards, Moidams have been seen in different parts of Northern Vietnam, Laos, Thailand, Northern Burma, Southern China and Northeast India - together defining the region where Tai-Ahom culture prevailed.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/assam/ahom-moidam-recommended-for-inclusion-in-unesco-world-heritage-list/article68366158.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Australia-India Strategic Research Fund:
- It is jointly managed and funded by the governments of India and Australia.
- It is only used for research in the field of Artificial Intelligence and machine learning.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science and Technology unveiled the results of the 15th round of the Australia-India Strategic Research Fund (AISRF).
It is a bilateral program that supports collaborative research projects between Australia and India.
It aims to strengthen the scientific relationship between the two countries and address common challenges through joint research efforts.
It is a platform for bilateral collaboration in science, jointly managed and funded by the governments of India and Australia.
Objectives
To increase the uptake of leading-edge science and technology (S&T) by supporting collaboration between Australian and Indian researchers in strategically focused, leading-edge scientific research and technology projects, and strengthening strategic alliances between Australian and Indian researchers;
Facilitate India’s and Australia’s access to the global S&T system.
The priority areas for collaborative research projects in Round Fifteen of the Indo-Australian S&T Fund are Artificial Intelligence and machine learning, New and Renewable energy technologies (particularly ultra-low-cost solar and clean hydrogen), and Urban mining and electronic waste recycling.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2030586
Leang Karampuang cave, recently seen in news is located in:
Indonesia
Explanation :
A painting created at least 51,200 years ago was discovered in the limestone cave of Leang Karampuang in the Maros-Pangkep region of the Indonesian island.
It is a limestone cave located on the Indonesian island of Sulawesi.
Key findings
A scene of humans interacting with a pig painted on a cave wall is found in the cave.
The scene, dominated by a representation of a pig that is standing upright along with three smaller human-like figures, is painted in a single shade of dark red pigment.
One figure seems to be holding an object near the pig’s throat. Another is directly above the pig’s head in an upside-down position with legs splayed out.
The third figure is larger and grander in appearance than the others; it is holding an unidentified object and is possibly wearing an elaborate headdress.
This painting predates the cave paintings of Europe, which is at El Castillo in Spain, dating to about 40,800 years ago.
The researchers interpreted the painting as a narrative scene, which they said would make it the oldest-known evidence of storytelling in art.
The earliest Sulawesi rock art is not ‘simple, it is quite advanced and shows the mental capacity of people at the time.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/worlds-oldest-cave-painting-in-indonesia-shows-a-pig-and-people/article68366794.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Hydrogen Mission:
- It provides financial incentive for the domestic manufacturing of electrolysers.
- It aims to make India a global Hub for the production and export of Green Hydrogen and its derivatives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the ministry of new and renewable energy has issued guidelines for funding of testing facilities, infrastructure, and institutional support for development of standards and regulatory framework under the National Green Hydrogen Mission.
It was approved by the Union Cabinet on January 4, 2023.
Aim: To make India a Global Hub for the production, utilization and export of Green Hydrogen and its derivatives.
What are the components of the scheme?
The Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition Programme (SIGHT): Under this two distinct financial incentive mechanisms will be provided
Targeting domestic manufacturing of electrolysers and
Production of Green Hydrogen.
The Mission will also support pilot projects in emerging end-use sectors and production pathways.
Regions capable of supporting large-scale production and/or utilization of Hydrogen will be identified and developed as Green Hydrogen Hubs.
A public-private partnership framework for R&D (Strategic Hydrogen Innovation Partnership – SHIP) will be facilitated under the Mission.
A coordinated skill development programme will also be undertaken under the Mission.
Norms issued for funding testing facilities
The Scheme will be implemented with a total budgetary outlay of Rs. 200 Crores till the financial year 2025-26.
The National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE) will be the Scheme Implementation agency (SIA).
The scheme encompasses the development of robust quality and performance testing facilities to ensure quality, sustainability, and safety in GH2 production and trade.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/renewables/norms-issued-for-funding-of-testing-facilities-infra-for-national-green-hydrogen-mission/articleshow/111495906.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding Gharial:
- It is a freshwater crocodile found only in tributaries of the Yamuna River in India.
- It is classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A lone female Gharial has been spotted for more than three years in a stretch of the river within Kaziranga National Park and Tiger Reserve.
About Gharial:
It is a freshwater crocodile belonging to the Crocodylia Order and Crocodylidae Family.
Scientific Name: Gavialis gangeticus
Distribution:
Historically, the gharial’s range spanned the rivers of Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, and Pakistan.
Today, only fragmented populations remain in Nepan and northern India.
Their major population occurs in three tributaries of the Ganga River: the Chambal and Girwa Rivers in India and the Rapti-Naryani River in Nepal.
The Gharial reserves of India are located in three States: Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan.
Features:
The gharial is one of the largest of all crocodilian species, with males reaching 16 to 20 feet (5 to 6 meters) in length. Females typically grow to lengths of 11.5 to 15 feet (3.5 to 4.5 meters).
They have thick skin covered with smooth epidermal scales that do not overlap.
The snout of the gharial is uniquely the thinnest and most elongated among all the crocodilians.
In addition, the adult males sport a large bulb at the tip of their snout, called the ‘ghara’.
The teeth are more numerous than any other crocodylian species.
It is also the most aquatic of all crocodilians, for it never moves far from the water.
Because of their weak leg muscles, gharials are poorly equipped for locomotion on land.
Conservation Status: The global population of gharials has been reduced from 5000 in the 1940s to a few hundred individuals in the wild.
IUCN Red List: Critically endangered.
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I
CITES: Appendix I
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/wanted-mate-for-the-brahmaputras-lone-gharial/article68362767.ece
Noble Initiative for Rewarding Mains Aspirants of the National Civil Services Examination (NIRMAN), recently seen in the news, is an initiative of which one of the following?
Coal India Limited (CIL)
Explanation :
The Union Minister for Coal and Mines recently launched the portal “Noble Initiative for Rewarding Mains Aspirants of National Civil Services Examination (NIRMAN)”.
About NIRMAN Scheme:
Noble Initiative for Rewarding Mains Aspirants of the National Civil Services Examination (NIRMAN) is a unique Corporate social responsibility (CSR) scheme by Coal India Limited (CIL) designed to support meritorious candidates from its operational districts.
The NIRMAN scheme is tailored to provide financial assistance of ₹1,00,000 to candidates who have successfully cleared the preliminary round of the UPSC Civil Services and Forest Service Examinations in 2024.
The eligible beneficiaries include those with an annual family income of less than ₹8 lakhs, and who are permanent residents of the 39 districts where CIL operates.
This support extends to individuals from Scheduled Castes (SC), Scheduled Tribes (ST), as well as female and third-gender candidates.
The application process for NIRMAN is fully digital, facilitated through a dedicated portal.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2030308
Consider the following statements reference to the Defence Production of India:
- The value of defence production has grown by more than 50% over the last five years.
- The majority of India’s defence production was contributed by Defence Public Sector undertakings (DPSUs) and other PSUs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India recorded its highest-ever growth in indigenous defence production in value terms during Financial Year (FY) 2023-24, the defence ministry announced recently.
About India’s Defence Production:
As per the data received from all Defence Public Sector undertakings (DPSUs), other PSUs manufacturing defence items, and private companies, the value of defence production in the country has gone up to a record-high figure of ₹1,26,887 crore during Financial Year (FY) 2023-24.
It reflects a growth of 16.7% over the defence production of the previous financial year. The value of defence production in FY 2022-23 was ₹1,08,684 crore.
Of the total value of production in 2023-24, 79.2% was contributed by DPSUs and other PSUs, and the remaining 20.8% by the private sector.
The value of defence production has grown by more than 60% since 2019-20, when it stood at ₹79,071 crore.
India produces a raft of weapons and systems, including the Tejas light combat aircraft (LCA), different types of helicopters, warships, tanks, artillery guns, warships, missiles, rockets, and a variety of military vehicles.
Defence exports also reached a record high of Rs 21,083 crore in FY 2023-24, reflecting a 32.5 percent growth over the previous fiscal’s Rs 15,920 crore.
India is currently exporting military hardware to around 85 countries.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-registered-highest-ever-growth-in-value-of-defence-production-in-2023-24-rajnath-singh/article68369910.ece
Indo-Russian Rifles Private Limited (IRRPL), which produces the AK-203 Assault Rifles in India, is located in which state?
Uttar Pradesh
Explanation :
The Indo-Russian Rifles Private Limited (IRRPL), a joint venture between India and Russia, has successfully delivered 35,000 AK-203 Kalashnikov assault rifles to the Indian Army.
About AK-203 Rifle:
It is a modern firearm originating from Russia, designed by the renowned engineer Mikhail Kalashnikov between 2007 and 2010.
It is a gas-operated, magazine-fed, select fire assault rifle.
It is a version of the AK-200 rifle chambered for the 7.62x39mm cartridge used in the Indian Army.
The weapon has the traditional advantages of Kalashnikov assault rifles: reliability and ease of maintenance.
These AK-203 rifles are produced in India using proprietary Russian technologies and certified equipment, ensuring high product quality and adherence to specifications.
It will be manufactured by Indo-Russian Rifles Private Limited (IRRPL).
IRRPL is a joint venture between India and Russia, set up in 2019 to produce AK-203 rifles in the Korwa Ordnance Factory in Amethi district, Uttar Pradesh.
The joint venture plans to ensure 100% localisation of the production of AK-203 rifles in India.
India is the first country outside Russia which has started the production of the AK-200 series assault rifles.
Features of AK-203 Rifle:
Weighing 3.8 kg, this rifle measures between 880 and 940 mm in length with the stock extended, while its barrel is 415 mm long.
Its mechanism is based on a gas-operated action with a rotating bolt, allowing a firing rate of approximately 700 rounds per minute.
With an initial velocity of 715 m/s, the AK-203 offers an effective firing range between 400 and 800 meters, depending on sight adjustments.
The weapon is fed by a 30-round detachable box magazine, although a 50-round quad-column magazine can also be used for increased capacity.
It is equipped with adjustable iron sights, and picatinny rails allow the addition of various optical sighting systems.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/defence-indo-russian-joint-venture-delivers-35000-ak-203-rifles-to-indian-army-3544320/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Krishnaraja Sagar (KRS) Dam:
- It is a type of gravity dam built on the river Krishna and its tributaries.
- It is the main source of drinking water for almost the whole of Bangalore city.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The water level at the Krishnaraja Sagar (KRS) reservoir, across the river Cauvery breached the 100 feet mark against the maximum level of 124.80 feet recently.
About Krishnaraja Sagar (KRS) Dam:
It is a type of gravity dam built on the river Kaveri and its tributaries, Hemavathi and Lakshmana Theertha, in the district of Mandya in Karnataka.
Construction:
The dam was named after Maharaja Krishna Raja Wadiyar IV, the then ruler of the princely state of Mysore, who played a significant role in initiating and funding the construction.
The dam’s primary objectives were to provide water for irrigation, generate hydroelectric power, and mitigate the impact of droughts in the region.
The construction began in 1911 and was completed in 1931.
The dam was designed by Sir M. Visvesvaraya, a famous Indian engineer (often referred to as the ‘architect of modern Mysore’ or ‘father of planning in India’).
The reservoir is spread over an area of 130 Sq. Kms.
Features:
It is 2,621 meters (8,600 feet) long and 40 meters (130 feet) high.
The dam has arch-type 177 iron sluices, and some of them have automatic doors.
The dam was among the first in the world to have automatic sluice gates.
It was constructed using traditional stone masonry and a lime-pozzolan mortar called surki, which acted as the binder.
Brindavan Gardens, an ornamental garden, is attached to the dam.
Usage:
Apart from being the main source of water for irrigation in the most fertile Mysore and Mandya, the reservoir is the main source of drinking water for all of Mysore city and almost the whole of Bangalore city.
It also ensures power supply to the Shivanasamudra hydroelectric power station.
The water released from this dam flows into the state of Tamil Nadu and is stored in the Mettur dam in the Salem district.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/krs-dam-breaches-100-feet-mark-kabini-almost-full-following-rain-in-south-karnataka/article68370546.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the SEHER Programme:
- It is designed to enhance financial literacy and business skills among women entrepreneurs.
- It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
NITI Aayog’s Women Entrepreneurship platform and credit bure have collaborated to launch the SEHER programme.
It is a comprehensive credit education program designed to enhance financial literacy and business skills among women entrepreneurs.
This initiative is expected to enable women to access the financial tools necessary for business growth and job creation.
It is an initiative of NITI Aayog’s Women Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP) and TransUnion CIBIL.
This initiative supports WEP’s goal of improving financing access for women in India’s 63 million MSMEs.
Key facts about the Women Entrepreneurship Platform
It was incubated in NITI Aayog in 2018 as an aggregator platform that transitioned as a public-private partnership in 2022 to build a comprehensive ecosystem supporting women entrepreneurs across India.
WEP aims at empowering women entrepreneurs by overcoming information asymmetry and providing continuum of support across different pillars - Entrepreneurship promotion, Access to Finance; Market Linkages; Training and Skilling; Mentoring and Networking and Business Development Services.
For this, WEP adopts a wide array of interventions with a focus on convergence and collaboration with existing stakeholders.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/wep-and-transunion-cibil-to-collaborate-to-enhance-financial-literacy-and-business-skills-of-women-entrepreneurs/articleshow/111516131.cms?from=mdr
In the context of geography, ‘Aphelion’ is the:
position of the Earth’s orbit that is farthest away from the Sun
Explanation :
Every year earth reaches its aphelion position in the month of July.
It is the point of the Earth’s orbit that is farthest away from the Sun.
It always happens in early July, about two weeks after the June solstice.
Why does it occur? Earth has an aphelion as a result of its orbit being elliptical, rather than circular.
At aphelion, Earth’s distance from the Sun is about 152.1 million km.
Six months later, in early January, Earth reaches perihelion — the point at which it is closest to the Sun. At perihelion, the distance between Earth and the Sun is roughly 147.1 million km.
Does aphelion affect temperatures on Earth?
We get 7% less sunlight at aphelion compared to what we are exposed to at perihelion, leading to slightly milder summers and winters in the Northern Hemisphere.
But this effect is offset by Earth’s tilt on its axis — at different points along its orbit the hemispheres slant either toward or away from the Sun.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/what-is-aphelion-9435726/
Consider the following statements regarding Vampire squid:
- It is a cephalopod found in deep temperate and tropical seas.
- It lives in the oxygen minimum layer of the ocean where virtually no light penetrates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, scientists found a rare vampire squid, the second known living species, inside the deep water off South China Sea.
It is a small (12-inch-long) cephalopod found in deep temperate and tropical seas.
The vampire squid possesses characteristics of both squid and octopi, and occupies its own order in taxonomy (scientific classification).
Habitat
It lives in the tropical and subtropical oceans of the world at depths ranging from 300-3000m with a majority of squids living between the ranges of 1,500-2,500m.
Vampire squids live in the oxygen minimum layer of the ocean where virtually no light penetrates.
Characteristics
It has black chromatophores with reddish-brown ones interspersed.
In contrast to other cephalopods, these chromatophores are non-functional because they have lost the muscles that enable rapid color change.
It shares most other features with other octopods and decapods, but it has several adaptations that allow it to live in a deep-sea environment.
The vampire squid also has photophores which are large circular organs which are located posterior to each adult fin and are also distributed over the surface of the mantle, funnel, head, and aboral surface.
These photoreceptors produce luminescent clouds of glowing particles that allow the vampire squid to glow.
Its most intriguing physical characteristic is that it has proportionally the largest eyes of any animal in the world.
Food habit: They are deep-sea scavengers and in fact usually gravitate toward feces and dead animals.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.wionews.com/trending/rare-vampire-squids-appearance-in-south-china-sea-leaves-biologists-puzzled-737927
With reference to Kalamkari, consider the following statements:
- It is a form of hand-painted paintings on cotton textiles.
- It received patronage from the Mughal dynasty.
- It is one of the popular art forms belonging to Maharashtra.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Kalamkari art form which was once-flourishing is now struggling for survival in contemporary times due to the rise of power looms, escalating raw material costs.
It is a highly popular form of hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile and paintings, practised in Andhra Pradesh.
Kalamkari came up as a textile tradition during the reign of Qutb Shahis at Golconda in the 16-17th century.
The art form originated in Tilang, the region between what is present-day Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
“The word ‘Kalam’ meant pen, while ‘Kari’ meant craftsmanship.
There are two distinct styles of Kalamkari - Srikalahasti and the Pedana style Kalamkari
Pedana style Kalamkari
It is also known as Machilipatnam style which involves vegetable dyed block-painting of a fabric.
The artist prints the outlines as well as the main features of his designs with hand-carved wooden blocks.
It is Persian in character because of the patronage and proximity to the Mughals and the Golconda Sultanate.
The traditional block prints in this art largely use motifs such as interlacing patterns of leaves and flowers, the cartwheel, different forms of the lotus flower etc.
This style has received the Geographical Indications tag.
Srikalahasti’s style
Srikalahasti’s style involves using a traditional pen with a brush to draw the designs.
The Srikalahasti artisans restricted themselves to making a hand-painted cloth that was primarily used in temples, to either hang it behind the deity or on a chariot.
Theme: Mythological figures became the theme of the art that originated in the temple town.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/tradition-in-tatters-kalamkari-colours-fading-in-aps-pedana/article68370530.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Hologram Technology:
- It creates a virtual three-dimensional image by using the interference of light beams.
- The images produced by this technology can only be seen through special 3D glasses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Japan issued its first new banknotes in two decades, yen packed with 3D hologram technology to fight counterfeiting.
It is a virtual three-dimensional image created by the interference of light beams that reflect real physical objects. Holograms preserve the depth, parallax, and other properties of the original item.
Unlike conventional 3D projections, holograms can be seen with the naked eye.
Principle: It uses the principles of interference and diffraction of light waves to record and reconstruct 3D images of objects.
There are two methods for creating holograms: computer-generated holograms for augmented reality glasses and actual holograms for optical displays.
Application: It has a wide range of applications in medicine, the military, weather forecasting, virtual reality, digital art, and security.
How do holograms prevent counterfeiting?
Holograms prevent counterfeiting because of their complexity, making them difficult to replicate using traditional methods.
Holograms’ intricate patterns and properties make them difficult to duplicate completely, which deters counterfeiters.
Additionally, holograms are designed to be easily recognizable by trained individuals, facilitating quick identification of genuine products versus fake ones.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/japan-issues-new-yen-banknotes-packed-with-3d-hologram-technology-to-fight-counterfeiting/article68365679.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Akash Surface-to-Air Missile (SAM):
- It is a long-range cruise missile to protect vulnerable areas and vulnerable points from air attacks.
- It was indigenously designed and developed by India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Indian “Iron-Dome” Akash Surface-to-Air Missile (SAM) is competing against Chinese-made Sky Dragon-50 air defense systems to secure an order from Brazil.
About Akash Surface-to-Air Missile (SAM):
It is a Short-Range Surface-to-Air Missile system to protect vulnerable areas and vulnerable points from air attacks.
It was indigenously designed and developed by India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and is produced by Hyderabad-based Bharat Dynamics Ltd (BDL).
It is designed to protect vulnerable areas from multifarious air threats.
It has the capability to neutralise aerial targets like fighter jets, cruise missiles, and air-to-surface missiles, as well as ballistic missiles.
It is in operational service with the Indian Army and the Indian Air Force.
Features:
It is 5.8 m long, has a diameter of 350 mm and a wingspan of 1,105mm.
It has a launch weight of 720 kg.
The missile can fly at a speed of up to Mach 2.5 and has a height ceiling of 18 km.
It can target aircraft up to 45 km away.
The most important element of the Akash SAM system battery is its high-power, multi-function Rajendra phased array radar.
The 3D passive electronically scanned array Rajendra radar (PESA) can electronically scan and guide the missile towards targets. It provides information on the range, azimuth, and height of a flying target.
The AKASH Weapon System can simultaneously engage Multiple Targets in Group Mode or Autonomous Mode.
It has built-in Electronic Counter-Counter Measures (ECCM) features.
Guidance System: Command Guidance
It is fully automatic, with a quick response time from target detection to kill.
The entire weapon system has been configured on mobile platforms.
It has an open-system architecture that ensures adaptability to existing and futuristic air defence environments.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://ssbcrackexams.com/wp-content/uploads/2024/06/Akash-Surface-to-Air-Missile-System.jpg
With reference to Kaziranga National Park, consider the following statements:
- It is situated in Arunachal Pradesh.
- It is the single largest undisturbed and representative area in the Brahmaputra Valley floodplain.
- It is inhabited by the world’s largest population of one-horned rhinoceroses.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The devastating flood in Assam’s famed Kaziranga National Park (KNP) has claimed the lives of 114 wild animals, while 95 others have been rescued recently.
About Kaziranga National Park:
Location: It is situated in the north-eastern part of the country in the districts of Golaghat and Nagoan in the state of Assam.
It is the single largest undisturbed and representative area in the Brahmaputra Valley floodplain.
It is inhabited by the world’s largest population of one-horned rhinoceroses, as well as many mammals, including tigers, elephants, panthers, and bears, and thousands of birds.
It was declared a National Park in 1974.
It is the first national park in Assam and is spread over an area of 400 sq. km.
The river Diffalu, a tributary of the Brahmaputra, flows through the National Park area (core/critical tiger habitat), while another tributary, Moradifalu, flows along its southern boundary.
In 1985, the park was declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO.
Landscape: It is of sheer forest, tall elephant grass, rugged reeds, marshes, and shallow pools.
Flora:
It is primarily famous for its dense and tall elephant grasses intermixed with small swamplands.
It also includes an abundant cover of water lilies, water hyacinths, and lotus.
Rattan Cane, a type of climbing palm, is also found here.
Fauna: Many endangered and threatened species like Rhino, Tiger, Eastern swamp deer, Elephant, Buffalo, Hoolock gibbon, Capped langur, and Gangetic River dolphin are commonly found in the habitat.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/assam-floods-114-animals-die-in-kaziranga-national-park-95-rescued-124070600579_1.html
Shree Jagannath Temple lies in which one of the following states?
Odisha
Explanation :
The high-level committee constituted under the chairmanship of the Orissa High Court judge for supervising the inventorisation of valuables stored in Ratna Bhandar of Shree Jagannath Temple has fast-tracked the process of opening the temple treasury after 46 years.
About Shree Jagannath Temple:
It is a Hindu temple located in Puri, Odisha.
It is dedicated to Lord Jagannath, a form of the Hindu deity Vishnu.
It is believed to have been built during the reign of King Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva, of the Eastern Ganga dynasty, in the 12th century.
Architecture:
It is a striking example of Kalinga architecture, a distinct style prevalent in the Odisha region.
The temple complex includes shrines, gardens, and sacred tanks, creating a serene atmosphere for devotion.
The temple’s main structure, the sanctum sanctorum, or the garbhagriha, houses the idols of Lord Jagannath, Balabhadra, and Subhadra.
At the pinnacle of the temple, there is a 20-foot-high chakra (wheel) that is positioned in a way to be visible from any part of the city.
Ratha Yatra is a Hindu festival associated with Lord Jagannath temple.
The festival commemorates Jagannath’s annual visit to Gundicha Temple via Mausi Maa Temple (aunt’s home) near Balagandi Chaka, Puri.
It begins on the second day of the bright half of the lunar month of Ashadha (June–July) and lasts for nine days.
During this time, the deities are taken out of the Jagannath Puri Temple and placed on three massive chariots.
It is also one of the four sacred pilgrimage sites, known as the Chaar Dhaams, that hold great significance for Hindus.
It is also a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/odisha/opening-of-ratna-bhandar-of-shree-jagannath-temple-puri-fast-tracked/article68375546.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Pangong Lake:
- It is a freshwater lake located in Jammu and Kashmir.
- The majority of the length of the lake lies in China.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
According to satellite pictures, China’s military is preparing for the long haul in the area surrounding Pangong Lake in eastern Ladakh.
About Pangong Lake:
Pangong Lake, also known as Pangong Tso, is an endorheic lake in the Himalayas situated at a height of about 4,350 m (14,270 ft).
It derives its name from the Tibetan word, “Pangong Tso”, which means “high grassland lake”.
It is one of the world’s highest brackish water lakes, situated at a height of 4350 meters.
It is approximately 140 km from Leh in Jammu and Kashmir.
It is 134 km (83 mi) long and extends from India to China. Approximately 60% of the length of the lake lies in China.
The lake is 5 km (3.1 mi) wide at its broadest point. Altogether, it covers 604 sq.km.
It is famed for its colour changing water, from blue to red and green.
During winter, the lake freezes completely, despite being saline water.
It is not part of the Indus River basin area and is geographically a separate land-locked river basin.
It is in disputed territory. The Line of Actual Control (LAC) passes through the lake.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.firstpost.com/world/satellite-images-reveal-chinas-military-build-up-near-pangong-lake-indias-western-border-13790237.html
Consider the following statements regarding Vaquitas:
- They are the most endangered of the world’s marine mammals.
- They only live in the Gulf of Bothnia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The world’s most endangered marine mammal, the vaquita, is teetering on the edge of extinction.
About Vaquita:
The vaquita is a shy member and the smallest of the porpoise family.
Scientific Name: Phocoena sinus
Vaquitas are the most endangered of the world’s marine mammals. Less than 20 vaquitas remain in the wild.
Distribution:
Vaquitas have the smallest range of any whale, dolphin, or porpoise.
They only live in the northern part of the Gulf of California, an area that is rich in fish and shrimp.
They are most commonly sighted in shallow waters up to 50 metres deep.
Features:
Vaquitas are the smallest cetaceans—the group that includes dolphins, porpoises, and whales—at 4 to 5 feet (1.2 to 1.5 meters) long and 65 to 120 pounds (29.5 to 54.4 kg).
Although they do visually resemble dolphins, their closest relatives, vaquitas, have chunkier bodies and rounded heads with no snouts.
Vaquitas have no beak and are mostly dark gray with lighter gray undersides and black patches on their face.
Their dorsal fins are unique in that they are taller and wider than most other porpoises.
A dark ring around the eyes is another striking feature.
Known for their elusive nature, vaquitas tend to shy away from boats and human activity.
Vaquitas communicate using echolocation (or sonar) by emitting high-frequency clicks.
The decrease in the vaquita population is also related to the totoaba, a large fish that also only lives in the Gulf of California.
Because totoaba and vaquita are similar in size, gillnets illegally set for totoaba are the deadliest for vaquitas.
Conservation Status: Critically Endangered
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/science/vaquita-on-the-brink-population-plummets-in-mexicos-gulf-6049146
Consider the following statements regarding the Zorawar Light Tank:
- It is jointly developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) along with Larsen & Toubro.
- It is equipped with all the modern technologies like Artificial Intelligence and drone Integration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, defence officials said that the prototype of the country’s indigenous light tank Zorawar is ready and will soon be subjected to extensive trials.
It is an indigenously designed and developed Light Tank.
It was jointly developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) along with Larsen & Toubro (L&T) as the lead integrator.
It was named after a military general, Zorawar Singh Kahluria, who had served under Jammu’s Raja Gulab Singh in the 19th Century.
Features
It weighs a maximum 25 tonnes, a key requirement of the light tank which ensures it can be transported by air.
The tank will be able to fire at high angles of elevation and perform the role of limited artillery and is an agile weapon platform.
It is designed to operate in varying terrain, from high-altitude areas and marginal terrains to island territories.
It will be equipped with all the modern technologies, such as Artificial Intelligence, Drone Integration, a high degree of situational awareness, and amphibious operation capability.
Unique about this tank is the weight as well as the combination of the fundamental parameters of a tank, which are the fire, power, mobility and protection. All three are optimized in such a way that the weight is also maintained.
It is expected to be inducted into the Indian Army by the year 2027 after all trials.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/drdo-unveils-indigenous-light-tank-zorawar/article68375255.ece
Mount Etna, recently seen in news, is located in:
Mediterranean Sea
Explanation :
Recently, Italy’s Mount Etna and the smaller Stromboli volcano spewed hot ash and lava, raising alert levels on the Mediterranean island of Sicily.
It is Europe’s most active volcano and one of the largest in the world.
Its recorded volcanic activity dates back to 1500 B.C.
Location: It is on the eastern coast of Sicily.
It is the highest Mediterranean island mountain and the most active stratovolcano in the world.
It is about 3,326 metres high and is the highest peak in Italy South of the Alps.
What is a stratovolcano?
It is also called a composite volcano.
This volcanic landform is characterized by a conical shape formed by layers of volcanic material deposited during successive volcanic eruptions.
These volcanoes tend to slope gently at the base but rise quickly near the summit to form tall mountain peaks.
They are typically found above subduction zones, and they are often part of large volcanically active regions, such as the Ring of Fire that frames much of the Pacific Ocean.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.reuters.com/world/europe/italys-etna-stromboli-volcanoes-erupt-catania-airport-closed-2024-07-05/
Consider the following statements with reference to the People’s Biodiversity Register:
- It serves as a comprehensive record of biodiversity and preservation of land races.
- It is prepared by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change for every state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Thazhakara has become the first grama panchayat in Alappuzha and one of the first in Kerala to update and publish a comprehensive People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR) with the involvement of local communities.
It serves as a comprehensive record of various aspects of biodiversity, including the conservation of habitats, preservation of land races, domesticated stocks and breeds of animals, micro-organisms, and the accumulation of knowledge related to the area’s biological diversity.
The Biological Diversity Act (2002) mandates development of Peoples’ Biodiversity Registers (PBRs) at local level to document as well as safe guard bioresources and associated knowledge.
As per the Biological Diversity Act 2002, Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) are created for “promoting conservation, sustainable use and documentation of biological diversity” by local bodies across the country.
BMCs have been constituted by the local bodies in the States and Union Territories and are entrusted with preparation of the PBRs in consultation with local communities.
It will play a crucial role in conservation, sustainable resource utilisation, and protection of traditional knowledge.
Significance of PBR: It will help local bodies in preparing various projects in agriculture, drinking water, and waste management, among other sectors, with a focus on biodiversity conservation and equitable sharing of benefits.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/divulging-fascinating-facts-thazhakara-panchayat-publishes-second-volume-of-peoples-biodiversity-register/article68366976.ece
Habrocestum swaminathan, recently seen in news, is a:
Spider
Explanation :
Two new species of litter-dwelling jumping spiders from the evergreen forests of the southern Western Ghats have been found by researchers from Christ College, Irinjalakuda.
The newly discovered species, Habrocestum swaminathan and Habrocestum benjamin, which have been added to the illustrious roster of the genus Habrocestum.
These spider species are the unsung heroes of natural pest control and vital indicators of ecosystem health.
Habrocestum swaminathan
It was discovered from the banks of the river Kunthi and was named after M.S. Swaminathan, considering his contributions to the science field and his efforts on the conservation of Silent Valley, from where the Kunthi river originates.
Habrocestum benjamin
It was collected from Thusharagiri, one of the foothills of the Nilgiri biosphere reserve.
These spiders are attractive with beautiful colour patches and were spotted near the Thusharagiri waterfalls, a busy tourist destination. This species was named after Suresh P. Benjamin, a Sri Lanka-based jumping spider specialist.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/two-new-species-of-jumping-spiders-discovered-from-western-ghats/article68371732.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Groyne:
- It is an active structure constructed which extends from the shore into the sea.
- It helps in dissipating wave energy and restricts the transfer of sediment away from the beach.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In a bid to resolve the extensive coastal erosion in Poonthura region in Kerala, the irrigation
department is all set to construct eight groynes at a cost of Rs 17.5 crore.
These are active structures extending from the shore into the sea, most often perpendicular or slightly oblique to the shoreline.
They’re usually made of wood, rock, or sometimes concrete and metal.
They are designed to trap sediment, dissipate wave energy and restrict the transfer of sediment away from the beach through longshore drift.
Longshore drift is caused when prevailing winds blow waves across the shore at an angle which carries sediment along the beach. Groynes prevent this process and therefore slow the process of erosion at the shore.
Advantages
Groynes are easy to construct. They have long term durability and are low maintenance.
They reduce the need for the beach to be maintained through beach nourishment and the recycling of sand.
It traps sediment, leading to beach widening, reduced erosion and greater wave energy dissipation.
It serves as a robust structure (if designed and maintained properly) that can be used for long-term stabilization of coastlines used for societal activities.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/thiruvananthapuram/irrigation-departments-plan-to-construct-8-groynes-to-curb-coastal-erosion-in-thiruvananthapuram/articleshow/111498965.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Earth’s Inner Core:
- It is a solid metallic ball primarily composed of iron and nickel.
- The boundary between the inner and outer cores is called the Gutenberg Discontinuity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Several studies by scientists have suggested that the Earth’s core has slowed down so much that it is now moving in reverse direction.
About Earth’s Inner Core:
It is the innermost part of Earth.
It is located at the Earth’s center, approximately 5,150 kilometers (3,219 miles) beneath the Earth’s surface.
It is a solid metallic ball primarily composed of iron and nickel.
It makes up around 20 percent of the Earth’s mass.
It has a radius of about 759 miles (1,221 kilometers).
It is extremely hot,with temperatures ranging from 7200–9000℉ (4000–5000℃).
The primary contributors to the inner core’s heat are the decay of radioactive elements such as uranium, thorium, and potassium in Earth’s crust and mantle, residual heat from planetary formation, and heat emitted by the solidification of the outer core.
It is under intense pressureof about 3.6 million atmospheres (atm), which keeps it solid despite high temperatures.
It is surrounded by the outer core—a superhot layer of molten metals similar to those in the inner core—which is surrounded by a more solid sea of molten rock, known as the mantle, and the crust.
The boundary between the inner and outer cores is called the Lehman Seismic Discontinuity.
The inner core generates its own magnetic field.
Despite its small volume (less than 1% of the Earth’s volume), the Earth’s inner core contains about 10% of the total magnetic field energy.
It plays a crucial role in outer core liquid motions and the geodynamo, which generates the Earth’s magnetic field.
It rotates in the same direction as the surface of the planet but abit fasterthan the rest of the planet.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.livemint.com/science/news/earths-core-is-now-rotating-in-reverse-direction-slowing-down-what-does-it-mean-11720335849422.html
Consider the following statements regarding Vizhinjam International Seaport:
- It is India’s first deepwater container transshipment port.
- It is located in Tamil Nadu.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
With the completion of the first phase of the country’s first exclusive trans-shipment port, the Vizhinjam Port is all set to receive its first mothership.
About Vizhinjam International Seaport:
It is India’s first deepwater container transshipment port.
Location: It is located at Vizhinjam, a coastal town in Thiruvananthapuram District, Kerala.
It is located around 10 nautical miles from the international shipping routeconnectingEurope and the Persian Gulf with East Asia, through which around 30 percent of global maritime cargo passes.
It is developed in a landlord model with a public-private partnership component on a design, build, finance, operate, and transfer (“DBFOT”) basis.
It is being built by Adani Vizhinjam Ports Private Ltd., a subsidiary of Adani Ports and SEZ Ltd. (APSEZ), India’s largest private sector port operator.
Construction of the port began in December 2015.
It is being designed to primarily cater to the transshipment and gateway container business,with provision for a cruise terminal, liquid bulk berth, and facilities for additional terminals.
It has a natural draft of 18-20 meters, which means that some of the largest container vessels in the world will be able to dock here.
There would be about 30 berths, most of which would be capable of handling mother vessels.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://infra.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/ports-shipping/adani-vizhinjam-port-to-receive-first-mothership-on-july-12/111503552
CAMCOPTER S-100, recently seen in the news, is an unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV), developed by which one of the following countries?
Australia
Explanation :
India is in the process of harnessing the capability of a rotary unmanned aerial system as part of a deal with Austrian company Schiebel for their renowed Camcopter S-100 ahead of the Prime Minister’s visit to the country.
About CAMCOPTER S-100:
It is an Australian unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) using a rotorcraft design.
Produced by the Austrian company Schiebel, it was developed from 2003 to 2005.
Features:
It has a maximum take-off weight (MTOW) of 200 kg with 6 hours endurance.
It has a maximum speed of 220 km/hr and a ceiling of 5,500 m.
It is powered by a heavy fuel engine and has the capability to carrymultiple payloads which are surveillance as well as tactical in nature. The maximum payload weight is 50 kg.
It needs no prepared area or supporting launchor recovery equipment. It operates day and night, under adverse weather conditions.
The S-100 navigates automatically via pre-programmed GPS waypoints or can beoperated directly with a pilot control unit.
Missions are plannedand controlled via a simple point-and-click graphical user interface.
High-definition payload imageryis transmitted to the control station in real time.
Using “fly-by-wire” technology controlled by redundant flight computers, the UAV can complete its mission automatically in the most complex of electromagnetic environments.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.firstpost.com/india/camcopter-s-100-will-provide-much-needed-flexibility-in-sea-based-ops-to-indian-navy-says-schiebel-india-ceo-jajati-mohanty-13789849.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Gandaki River:
- It is a left-bank tributary of the Ganges River.
- The majority of the catchment area of the river lies in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A 15-year-old bridge over the Gandaki River collapsed in Bihar’s Saran district recently, marking the third bridge collapse incident in the district within 24 hours.
About Gandaki River:
The Gandaki River, also known as the Narayani and Gandak, is one of the major rivers in Nepal and a left-bank tributary of the Ganges in India.
Course:
It is formed by the union of the Kali and Trisuli rivers, which rise in the Great Himalaya Range in Nepal.
From this junction to the Indian border, the river is called the Narayani.
It flows southwest into India and then turns southeast along the Uttar Pradesh–Bihar state border and across the Indo-Gangetic Plain.
It enters the Ganges (Ganga) River opposite Patna, Bihar, after a winding course of 475 miles (765 km).
The river has a total catchment area of 46,300 sq.km, out of which 7620 sq km is located in India.
It is bounded on north by the Himalayas, south by the River Ganga, east by the Burhi Gandak Basin and on the west by the Ghagra Basin.
There are about 1,710 glaciers and over 300 lakes in the upper catchment of Gandaki.
Major Tributaries: Daraudi, Seti, Madi, Marsyandi,andBudhi Gandaki.
The river is known for possessing a deep George from the Himalayan region. At its deepest point, the gorge reaches a staggering depth of approximately 3,000 meters (9,800 feet). This makes it one of the deepest river gorges in the world.
The Gandaki River is mentioned in the ancient Sanskrit epic Mahabharata.
Henceonly statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.livemint.com/news/india/bihar-bridge-collapse-15-year-old-bridge-over-gandaki-river-collapses-in-saran-third-in-past-24-hours-11720085399494.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS):
- It was conceptualized by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and driven by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).
- It is a one-stop payment platform for all bills, providing multiple payment modes and instant confirmation of receipt of payment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently announced that all credit card bill payments via third-party applications must now be routed through the Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS).
About Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS):
It is a payment channel system conceptualized by the RBI and driven by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), a subsidiary of RBI.
It is a one-stop payment platform for all bills providing an interoperable and accessible “Anytime Anywhere” bill payment service to all customers across India with certainty, reliability and safety of transactions.
The system will provide multiple payment modes and instant confirmation of receipt of payment.
It is an integrated platform connecting banks and non-banks in bills aggregation business, billers, payment service providers, and retail bill outlets.
It offers customers the convenience of payment by cataloguing various utility providers on one platform.
BBPS offers bill collection categories like electricity, telecom, Mobile Post paid, DTH, gas, water bills etc. through a single window.
Other types of payments, like school / university fees, municipal taxes/ payments, mutual funds and insurance premium, various government taxes, etc. as decided from time to time by the RBI will be incorporated in BBPS.
Different Payment Channels:
Customers can make payments via physical payment collection outlets (bank branches, agent collection stores etc) and digital channels (apps, websites etc) across India.
It provides instant confirmation of payment via an SMS or receipt.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.financialexpress.com/business/banking-finance-explained-bharat-bill-payment-system-why-rbi-wants-all-payments-routed-through-this-system-3542738/
Consider the following statements regarding the Right to Repair Portal:
- It is launched by the Union Ministry of Consumer Affairs.
- It aims to offer a cheaper alternative to expensive replacements to customers, instead of buying new products altogether.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Central government of India asked the automobile companies to join the unified Right to Repair Portal India.
It aims to provide consumers with access to repair information for their products and reduce e-waste.
It was launched by the Union Ministry of Consumer Affairs (MCA) on National Consumer Rights Day 2022.
Features
It provides information about the circular economy, which is the new economic model that focuses on repairing and reusing products, as opposed to throwing them away.
The portal brings together information from different sectors, including automobiles, consumer durables, mobile and electronics, and farming equipment.
All public information related to products, services, warranties, terms, and conditions, etc. will also be easily accessible through this portal.
It gives consumers access to affordable repair mobile phones, appliances, and other electronic devices by original equipment manufacturers (OEMs) or third-party repairers.
The aim is to offer a cheaper alternative to expensive replacements to customers, instead of buying new products altogether.
The portal will carry information for enabling consumers to self-repair, knowing about authorized repairers, and promoting third party repairers.
It will also benefit small repair shops, as a list of authorised third-party repairs will be provided.
It also allows consumers to submit feedback and suggestions on products and services.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/right-repair-centre-asks-automobile-companies-join-unified-portal-9436898/
With reference to Digital Bharat Nidhi, consider the following statements:
- It is used to fund the expansion of telecom networks in remote and rural areas.
- The central government appoints an administrator and he/she will select Digital Bharat Nidhi implementers through a bidding process.
- The contributions made by telecom companies towards the Digital Bharat Nidhi will first be credited to the Public Account of India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) released draft rules to operationalise the Digital Bharat Nidhi, in a fresh attempt by the central government at increasing telecom connectivity in rural areas.
It would replace the erstwhile Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF), which is a pool of funds generated by a 5 per cent Universal Service Levy charged upon all the telecom fund operators on their Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR).
This money would be used to fund the expansion of telecom networks in remote and rural areas.
Working of the Digital Bharat Nidhi
As per the Telecom Act, contributions made by telecom companies towards the Digital Bharat Nidhi will first be credited to the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI).
All revenues that the government receives, including loans raised and all money received in repayment of loans, are credited to the CFI. The government also incurs its expenditures from this fund.
The Central government will deposit the collected funds to the DBN from time to time.
The funds under DBN is used for
Funds collected under the DBN will be used to support universal service through promoting access to and delivery of telecommunication services in underserved rural, remote and urban areas; fund research and development of telecommunication services, technologies, and products; support pilot projects, consultancy assistance and advisory support for improving connectivity; and for the introduction of telecommunication services, technologies, and products.
The DBN shall fund schemes and projects for providing targeted access to telecommunication services for underserved groups of society such as women, persons with disabilities and economically and socially weaker sections, as per the draft rules.
Administration: The Centre will appoint an “administrator” who will select “DBN implementers” through “bidding” or invitation of applications from eligible persons.
This so-called administrator will determine the modalities of providing funding to DBN implementers on a case-by-case basis, including but not limited to full funding, partial funding, co-funding, market risk mitigation, and risk capital.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/digital-bharat-nidhi-rural-telecom-9438127/
Consider the following statements with reference the Copernicus Climate Change Service:
- It is one of six thematic information services provided by the Copernicus Earth Observation Programme.
- It is implemented by the European Centre for Medium-Range Weather Forecasts (ECMWF) on behalf of the European Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Copernicus Climate Change Service (C3S) said that the world witnessed its warmest-ever June last month with the average temperature being 0.67°C above the 1991-2020 average.
It is one of six thematic information services provided by the Copernicus Earth Observation Programme of the European Union.
Copernicus is an operational programme building on existing research infrastructures and knowledge available in Europe and elsewhere.
It supports society by providing authoritative information about the past, present and future climate in Europe and the rest of the World.
It aims to support European climate policies and actions, contributing to building a European society with more resilience against human-induced changing climate.
C3S relies on climate research carried out within the World Climate Research Programme (WCRP) and responds to user requirements defined by the Global Climate Observing System (GCOS).
It is implemented by the European Centre for Medium-Range Weather Forecasts (ECMWF) on behalf of the European Commission.
Key facts about Copernicus Programme
It is the European Union’s Earth Observation Programme.
It consists of a complex set of systems that collect data from multiple sources: earth observation satellites and in situ sensors, such as ground stations, airborne and sea borne sensors.
Copernicus processes this data and provides users with information through a set of services that address six thematic areas: land, marine, atmosphere, climate change, emergency management and security.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/world-went-through-its-warmest-june-in-2024-says-copernicus-climate-centre-service/article68377594.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Pearl Spot Fish:
- It is only found in the Western coastal states of India.
- It is rich in Vitamin D and riboflavin, as well as in minerals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Kerala University of Fisheries and Ocean Studies (Kufos) prepares to launch a genome editing mission to boost pearl spot fish production.
It is commonly known as “Karimeen” in Kerala is an indigenous fish extensively found along the east and south-west coasts of Peninsular India.
Habitat: It is an important candidate species for aquaculture in ponds in both brackishwater and freshwater environments.
It has an elevated laterally compressed body and a small cleft mouth. In the natural habitat, the fish is light green in colour with eight vertical bands.
Seed of pearlspot is available throughout the year along the east and south-west coasts of India. The peak season of abundance is during the months of May-July and November-February.
Distribution: It is one of the most widely available varieties in the South, especially in the Kerala backwaters, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
It is a low-fat, high-protein food, rich in omega 3 fatty acids, which keep our heart and brain healthy.
This variety is also rich in Vitamin D and riboflavin, as well as in minerals such as calcium and phosphorus.
What is Genome Editing?
It is the complete genetic information of an organism and genome editing is a type of genetic engineering in which DNA is inserted, deleted, modified or replaced in the genome of a living organism.
Genome editing targets the insertions to site specific locations.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/kufos-to-launch-genome-editing-mission-to-boost-pearl-spot-production/article68377904.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Brown Palm Civet:
- It is a solitary and nocturnal species endemic to the Western Ghats.
- It is categorised as critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Discover Koyna group, renowned for their discoveries of rare owls and butterflies, observed a rare brown palm civet in the Koyna Wildlife Sanctuary.
It is also known as Jerdon’s palm civets, is endemic to the Western Ghats and plays a vital ecological role as seed dispersers.
It is solitary and nocturnal, small carnivores that thrive in the high altitude tropical rainforests
Distribution: Its distribution extends from Castle Rock in Goa to the southern tip of the Western Ghats in Kalakkad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve. It inhabits rainforest tracts at an elevation of 500–1,300 m.
Food Habit: It is predominantly frugivorous, foraging over a wide range, but has one of the smallest diet ranges among South Asia’s small carnivores.
Conservation status
IUCN: Least Concern
CITES : Appendix III
Key facts about Koyna Wildlife Sanctuary
It is situated in the Western Ghats of Maharashtra.
It is a significant protected area within the larger Western Ghats, a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
The sanctuary is closely associated with the Koyna Dam, which is one of the largest dams in Maharashtra. The dam is built on the Koyna River and serves as a crucial water reservoir for the region.
Flora: It is characterized by a variety of vegetation types, including evergreen forests, semi-evergreen forests, and deciduous forests. The flora includes valuable tree species like teak, shisham, and ain, along with a diverse understorey of shrubs and herbs.
Fauna: It is home to a variety of wildlife, including Indian bison (gaur), Indian elephants, Indian leopards, sloth bears, sambar deer etc.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.freepressjournal.in/pune/rare-sighting-brown-palm-civet-spotted-in-koyna-wildlife-sanctuary
Biligiri Ranganathaswamy Temple Tiger Reserve (BRT) lies in which one of the following states?
Karnataka
Explanation :
A 35-year-old female elephant was found dead at Mavathuru, Bailuru wildlife range of Biligiri Ranganathaswamy Temple Tiger Reserve (BRT) recently.
About Biligiri Ranganathaswamy Temple Tiger Reserve (BRT):
Location:
It is located in the Chamarajanagar district of Karnataka State.
This unique Bio-geographical habitat is in the middle of the bridge between the Western and Eastern Ghats.
The tiger reserve derives its name from ‘BILIGIRI ‘, the white rocky cliff which has a temple of Lord ‘VISHNU’, locally known as ‘Rangaswamy’.
It was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2011.
The total area of the Tiger Reserve is 574.82 sq.km.
Vegetation: The forests of BRT Tiger Reserve are principally of dry deciduous type and are interspersed with moist deciduous, semi-evergreen, evergreen, and shola patches occurring at varying altitudes.
Flora: The major species include: Anogeissus latifolia, Dalbergia paniculata, Grewia teliaefolia, Terminalia alata, Terminalia bellirica, Terminalia paniculata etc.
Fauna: Animals including tiger, elephant, leopard, wild dog, bison, sambar, spotted deer, barking deer, four-horned antelope, sloth bear, wild boar, common langur, bonnet macaque, varieties of reptiles, birds, etc., are found in the Tiger Reserve.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/karnataka/female-jumbo-found-dead-in-brt-3097598
Consider the following statements with reference to the Mitochondrial Diseases:
- They can affect almost any part of the human body.
- There are no cures for these diseases, but treatments may help with symptoms and slow down the disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A group of diseases that affect mitochondria’s capacity to produce the energy organs need to function properly is known as mitochondrial disease (or Mito).
About Mitochondrial Disease:
Mitochondrial diseases are a group of conditions that affect how mitochondria work in your body.
What are Mitochondria?
Mitochondria are membrane-bound cell organelles that generate most of the chemical energy needed to power the cell’s biochemical reactions.
They make it by combining oxygen with the fuel molecules (sugars and fats) that come from your food.
Chemical energy produced by the mitochondria is stored in a small molecule called adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
Generally, mitochondria, and therefore mitochondrial DNA, are inherited only from the mother.
When the mitochondria are defective, the cells do not have enough energy. The unused oxygen and fuel molecules build up in the cells and cause damage.
Mitochondrial diseases can affect almost any part of your body, including the cells of your Brain, Nerves, Muscles, Kidneys, Heart, Liver, Eyes, Ears, and Pancreas.
Causes:
Genetic mutations cause these primary mitochondrial diseases. They usually happen before age 20, and some are more common in infants.
Mitochondrial dysfunction can also occur when mitochondria don’t work as well as they should due to another disease or condition. These are called secondary mitochondrial diseases.
Symptoms:
The symptoms of mitochondrial disease can vary. It depends on how many mitochondria are defective and where they are in the body.
Sometimes only one organ, tissue, or cell type is affected. But often, the problem affects many of them.
Muscle and nerve cells have especially high energy needs, so muscular and neurological problems are common.
Treatment:
There are no cures for these diseases, but treatments may help with symptoms and slow down the disease.
They may include physical therapy, vitamins and supplements, special diets, and medicines.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/health/mitochondrial-donation-all-you-need-to-know-about-this-mito-disease-124070800771_1.html
Sentinel Nuclear Missile, recently seen in the news, was developed by which one of the following countries?
United States of America
Explanation :
The military will continue developing its new LGM-35A Sentinel intercontinental ballistic missile but has told the U.S. Air Force to restructure the program to get its ballooning costs under control.
About Sentinel Nuclear Missile:
It is an intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) being developed by Northrop Grumman, in cooperation with Air Force Global Strike Command, for the US Air Force (USAF).
It will replace the 400 five-decade-old LGM-30 Minuteman III ICBMs, which have been in service with the USAF since the 1970s.
The LGM-35A Sentinel will incorporate digital engineering technologies and employ a modular open system architecture, which will provide interoperability and reduce life-cycle costs.
It will be equipped with a W87-1 thermonuclear missile warhead.
It will feature fully integrated launch, flight and infrastructure systems, as well as modern command and control technology and ground equipment.
The new missile will be launched from silos, whose doors can remain closed during warhead maintenance, eliminating any security threat.
It is expected to have a range exceeding 5,500km and can reach any target across the world in just 30 minutes post-launch following a parabolic trajectory toward its target.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.defensenews.com/air/2024/07/08/pentagon-keeps-commitment-to-sentinel-nuclear-missile-as-costs-balloon/
Panchganga River is a tributary of which one of the following rivers?
Krishna
Explanation :
The Panchganga river water level has been rising and would likely cross warning level of 39 feet soon.
About Panchganga River:
It is an ancient river and a tributary of the Krishna River.
It emerges from the Sahyadri mountain ranges of Maharashtra.
The river originates from Prayag Sangam. The birthplace of this river is called Chikhlee Taluka, a small village in the district of Kolhapur, Maharashtra.
The Five Rivers; the Kasari, the Kumbhi, the Tulsi, the Bhogawati, and the Saraswati convene at the Prayag Sangam to form Panchaganga.
The river flows into the Krishna River at Kurundvad, Maharashtra.
The valley of the Panchaganga River is very fertile, and its sloping banks yield rich crops during the winter season.
The Panchgnaga and its feeders are fordable in the hot season.
Since the last decade, its pollution level is increasing fast. The pollution of the Panchaganga River is due to the disposal of untreated municipal sewage from the Kolhapur town.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/kolhapur/panchaganga-river-water-level-rising-in-kolhapur-district/articleshow/111589978.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Regenerative braking:
- It captures the kinetic energy from braking and converts it into the electrical power that charges the vehicle’s high voltage battery.
- It can improve fuel consumption and reduce the overall braking load taken on by the vehicle’s friction brakes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Regenerative braking is a system designed to convert the kinetic energy of the wheels to a form that can be stored and used for other purposes
About Regenerative Braking:
Regenerative braking is a mechanism found on most hybrid and full-electric vehicles.
It is also called a kinetic energy recovery system.
It captures the kinetic energy from braking and converts it into the electrical power that charges the vehicle’s high voltage battery.
Regenerative braking also slows the car down, which assists the use of traditional brakes.
Electric motors, when used in reverse, function as generators and will then convert mechanical energy into electrical energy. Vehicles propelled by electric motors use them as generators when using regenerative braking, braking by transferring mechanical energy from the wheels to an electrical load.
With regenerative braking, the energy from your spinning wheels is used to reverse the direction of electricity – from the electric motors to the battery.
The electric motor not only acts as an electric generator, but it also helps slow your car down because energy is consumed by the wheels as they rotate the shaft in the electric motor.
It can improve fuel consumption and reduce the overall braking load taken on by the vehicle’s friction brakes, reducing the wear on the brake pads.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/in-an-electric-vehicle-what-is-regenerative-braking-explained/article68380958.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Integrated Tribal Development Programme:
- It is a flagship programme of the Union Ministry of Tribal affairs for sustainable tribal livelihoods.
- It is funded through Tribal Development Fund.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) launched an integrated tribal development programme in the Kulathupuzha grama panchayat in Kerala.
It is a flagship programme of NABARD for sustainable tribal livelihoods.
It is based on the ‘wadi’ model of tribal development, which has evolved with the support of national and international developmental agencies.
Projects under this programme are funded through Tribal Development Fund.
The objective of the Fund is to:
create replicable models of integrated development of tribal families on participatory basis, through adoption of sustainable income generating activities based on potential of the area and the tribal needs;
build and strengthen tribal institutions, which would enable the communities to be partners in policy formulation, execution of programs and improve social and economic status; and
build and strengthen producers’ organizations
Key facts about NABARD
It is a financial institution that was set up by the Indian government to promote sustainable agriculture and rural development in the country.
It is the main regulatory body in the country’s rural banking system.
Formation:
It was established in 1982as a central regulating body for agriculture financing and the rural section.
The government of India established NABARD under the outlines of the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act 1981.
Objective: Promoting agriculture and rural development through participative financial and non-financial interventions, innovations, technology and institutional development for securing prosperity.
Activities undertaken by NABARD for rural development include: Provision of refinance support, Improving rural infrastructure and Supervision of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and Cooperative Banks etc.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/nabard-to-launch-integrated-tribal-development-programme-in-kulathupuzha/article68378098.ece
With reference to Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) Agreement, consider the following statements:
- It is an international treaty under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea.
- It aims to address the issue of the long-term protection of marine biodiversity in the high seas.
- It is not a legally binding treaty.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister of India has approved India to sign the Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) Agreement.
The BBNJ Agreement, or the ‘High Seas Treaty’, is an international treaty under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
It aims to address the growing concerns over the long-term protection of marine biodiversity in the high seas.
It sets precise mechanisms for the sustainable use of marine biological diversity through international cooperation and coordination. Parties cannot claim or exercise sovereign rights over marine resources derived from the high seas and ensure fair and equitable sharing of benefits.
It follows an inclusive, integrated, ecosystem-centric approach based on the precautionary principle and promotes using traditional knowledge and the best available scientific knowledge.
It helps minimise impacts on the marine environment through area-based management tools and establishes rules for conducting environmental impact assessments. It would also contribute to achieving several SDGs, particularly SDG14 (Life Below Water).
The BBNJ Agreement will be the third implementation agreement under UNCLOS if and when it enters into force, alongside its sister implementation agreements: the 1994 Part XI Implementation Agreement (which addresses the exploration and extraction of mineral resources in the international seabed area) and the 1995 UN Fish Stocks Agreement (which addresses the conservation and management of straddling and highly migratory fish stocks).
The BBNJ Agreement was agreed upon in March 2023 and is open for signature for two years starting September 2023.
It will be an international legally binding treaty after it enters force 120 days after the 60th ratification, acceptance, approval or accession.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2031611
Consider the following statements with reference to the Astrophysical Jets:
- These are outflows of ionised matter that are emitted as extended beams from celestial objects.
- These are only formed in and around black holes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A team of scientists from the Aryabhatta Research Institute of observational sciences (ARIES), an autonomous institute of the Department of Science and Technology (DST), on Monday said they have traced the effect of plasma composition on dynamics of astrophysical jets from celestial bodies.
These are outflows of ionised matter that are emitted as extended beams from celestial objects such as black holes, neutron stars, and pulsars.
Highlights of the study
The scientists showed that the change in plasma composition leads to the difference in propagation velocities of the jets even if the initial parameters for the jets remain the same.
Jets composed of electrons and positrons were found to be slowest in comparison to jets containing protons, contrary to expectation. Protons are about two thousand times more massive than electrons or positrons.
It is essential to understand the plasma composition of jets as the change in plasma composition changes the internal energy of the jet which is reflected in the change in propagation speeds.
In addition, the plasma composition also affects the jet structures like number and strength of recollimation shocks, shape and dynamics of reverse shock and so on.
Recollimation shocks are the regions in the jet beam that form due to the interaction of the jet beam with the backflowing material.
The electron-positron jets show more pronounced turbulent structures. The growth of these structures also results in the deceleration of the jets. The formation and growth of turbulent structures are known to affect the stability of the jets. Hence, plasma composition may also influence the long-term stability of the jets.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2031586
Consider the following statements regarding the Project PARI:
- It aims to stimulate dialogue, reflection and inspiration, contributing to the dynamic cultural fabric of India.
- It is executed by the Lalit Kala Akademi, an autonomous institution under the Ministry of Culture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Ministry of Culture, Government of India, on the occasion of the 46th Session of the World Heritage Committee Meeting, which is being held in New Delhi from 21st-31st July 2024, has initiated Project PARI (Public Art of India).
The Project PARI (Public Art of India) aims to stimulate dialogue, reflection, and inspiration, contributing to the dynamic cultural fabric of the nation.
It provides a platform to uplift the aesthetic and cultural outlook of Delhi while adding grandeur to the rich historical legacy of our national capital.
The representation of Art in public spaces is particularly significant as it showcases the nation’s rich and diverse cultural heritage.
The proposed sculptures being created for Project PARI include wide-ranging ideas such as paying tributes to nature, ideas inspired by the Natyashastra, Gandhi ji, toys of India, hospitality, ancient knowledge, Naad or Primeval Soun, Harmony of life, Kalpataru – the divine tree, etc.
Women artists have been an integral part of Project PARI and their participation in large numbers is a testimony of Bharat’s NARI SHAKTI.
This initiative is being executed by the Lalit Kala Akademi, an autonomous institution under the Ministry of Culture.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2031567
Chandravalli cave, recently in news, is located in:
Karnataka
Explanation :
Exploring the Chandravalli cave complex in Chitradurga district of Karnataka is not for the faint-hearted. Its pitch-dark interiors are accessible only through a narrow entrance and visible only with the help of a powerful torch.
It is located in the state of Karnataka.
The cave complex is also known as the Ankali Math, named after a saint from Ankalagi in Belagavi district who is believed to have come and settled here.
The cave has many chambers such as a puja place with a shivlinga , a drawing room, a bedroom, and a water outlet that connects to a tank inside.
Historical significance
Excavations around this site surrounded by three hills have revealed coins, painted bowls, and earthen pots dating back to various dynasties such as the Hoysala, the Satavahana and the Vijayanagara.
There is also a rock inscription of Mayurasharma, the founder of the first Kannada dynasty — the Kadamba dynasty — dating back to AD 450.
The region had connections with Rome and China, as some coins found here reveal. Some of the walls are adorned with paintings done in organic paint.
Key facts about Kadambas
The Kadambas of Goa were the subordinates of Chalukyas of Kalyana.
Chalukya emperor Tailapa II appointed Kadamba Shasthadeva as mahamandaleshwara of Goa for his help in overthrowing the Rashtrakutas.
Kadamba Shasthadeva conquered the city of Chandavara from the Shilaharas in 960 A.D.
Later, he conquered the port of Gopakapattana (present Goa).
Gundayya, the son of Talara Nevayya, may have participated in this battle, and won the port at the cost of his life.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/news-in-frames-a-cavernous-palimpsest/article68377526.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Power of Attorney (POA):
- It is a delegation of power by one person to another, who in turn acts as his agent.
- It lapses only when the creator dies or revokes it or when it is invalidated by a court of law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently observed that there would be an implied revocation of Power of Attorney (“POA”) granted to the agent if the act of the Principal choosing to act for himself is known to an agent and third person.
About Power of Attorney (POA):
It is a legal authorization that gives the agent or attorney-in-fact the authority to act on behalf of an individual referred to as the principal.
It is just a delegation of power by one person to another, who in turn, acts as his agent. There is a principal-agent relationship between them.
The agent may be given broad or limited authority to make decisions about the principal’s property, finances, investments, or medical care, depending on the terms of the POA.
A POA comes into play in the event that the principal is incapacitated by an illness or disability.
The agent may also act on behalf of the principal in case the person is not readily available to sign off on financial or legal transactions.
Types of POA include conventional, also known as a limited power of attorney, durable, which lasts for a lifetime unless you cancel it, springing, which only comes into play for specific events, and medical, also known as a durable power of attorney for healthcare.
The POA lapses when the creator dies, revokes it, or when it is invalidated by a court of law.
A POA also ends when the creator divorces a spouse charged with a POA or when an agent is not able to continue carrying out the outlined duties.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/power-of-attorney-impliedly-revoked-when-principal-acts-independent-of-agency-with-knowledge-to-agent-third-parties-supreme-court-262814
Salazar Pit Viper, recently seen in the news, is found in which one of the following regions?
Northeast India
Explanation :
Salazar Pit Viper, named after Salazar Slytherin from the popular ‘Harry Potter’ series, has been found in Assam’s Kaziranga National Park.
What are Pit Vipers?
Pit viper is any species of viper (a family of venomous snakes) that has, in addition to two movable fangs, a heat-sensitive pit organ between each eye and nostril.
The pit organ is what allows them to sense the infrared thermal radiation (heat) emitted by their prey in the dark.
Habitat: They are found in a variety of habitats, including deserts, forests, grasslands, and wetlands. They may be terrestrial, arboreal, or aquatic.
Distribution:
They are most commonly found in tropical and subtropical regions, but some species can also be found in temperate regions.
They are found on every continent except Antarctica, with the majority of species found in Asia and the Americas.
Some species lay eggs; others produce live young.
Key Facts about Salazar Pit Viper:
It is a species of pit viper first identified in Arunachal Pradesh in 2019.
The snake, which is nocturnal, demonstrates a unique orange-to-reddish stripe, present on the head and body in males.
Scientific Name: Trimeresurus salazar
Members of the genus Trimeresurus are charismatic venomous snakes, with morphologically as well as ecologically diverse species.
They are distributed across east and southeast Asia. At least 48 nominate species are known, of which at least 15 occur in India.
Most species are typically green in color, but some also have yellow, black, orange, red, or gold markings.
Their diet includes a variety of animals, including lizards, amphibians, birds, rodents, and other small mammals.
Trimeresurus snakes are morphologically cryptic, which makes it difficult to distinguish them in the field.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.cnbctv18.com/wildlife/salazar-pit-viper-the-real-life-harry-potter-snake-found-in-kaziranga-national-park-19440235.htm
Consider the following statements with reference to the Equity Mutual Funds:
- They pool money from investors to trade primarily a portfolio of stocks.
- In a Passive Fund, the fund manager builds a portfolio that mirrors a popular market index.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Inflows into India’s equity mutual funds rose 17% sequentially to a record high of Rs 40,608 crore in June, data from the Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI) showed recently.
About Equity Mutual Funds:
It is a type of investment fund that pools money from investors to trade primarily a portfolio of stocks, also known as equity securities.
They are also known as Growth Funds.
Equity Funds are either Active or Passive.
In an Active Fund, a fund manager scans the market, conducts researchon companies, examines performance, and looks for the best stocks to invest.
In a Passive Fund, the fund manager builds a portfolio that mirrors a popular market index, say Sensex or Nifty Fifty.
The fund manager has a passive role in stock selection.
Buy, hold, or sell decisions are driven by the benchmark index, and the fund manager merely needs to replicate the same with minimal tracking error.
Equity Funds can also be divided as per Market Capitalisation, i.e., how much the capital market values an entire company’s equity.
There can be Large Cap, Mid Cap, Small or Micro Cap Funds.
There can be a further classification as Diversified or Sectoral / Thematic.
In the former, the scheme invests in stocks across the entire market spectrum, while in the latter, it is restricted to only a particular sector or theme, say, Infotech or Infrastructure.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bengaluru/record-high-equity-mutual-fund-inflows-in-june/articleshow/111617652.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Denisovans:
- They are an extinct species of Dinosaurs.
- They lived across a wide range of areas and conditions during the last Ice Age.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Denisovans survived and thrived on the high-altitude Tibetan plateau for more than 100,000 years, according to a new study.
About Denisovans:
Denisovans are an extinct species of hominid and a close relative to modern humans.
They’re a recent addition to the human family tree—scientists first identified Denisovan remains from a cave in Siberia in 2010.
Denisovans lived across a wide range of areas and conditions, from the cold mountains of Siberia and Tibet to the jungles of Southeast Asia during the last Ice Age.
Time Period: 500,000 to 30,000 years ago
DNA evidence suggests Denisovans are related to both Neanderthals and modern humans, and may have interbred with both.
Denisovans share a common ancestor with both modern humans and Neanderthals.
This common ancestor, called Homo heidelbergensis, most likely lived in Africa.
Denisovans may have had dark skin, dark hair, and dark eyes.
The Denisovan genome appears to have low genetic diversity, which means their population may never have been very large.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://edition.cnn.com/2024/07/03/science/bone-analysis-denisovans-tibetan-plateau-scn/index.html
Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve lies in which one of the following states?
Madhya Pradesh
Explanation :
The Madhya Pradesh government has initiated an inquiry into the alleged poaching of tigers and irregularities in the newly established Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve
About Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve:
Location: It is spread across Sagar, Damoh, and Narsinghpur districts of Madhya Pradesh.
Covering an expansive area of 2,339 square kilometres, it encompassesareas within the Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary and Durgavati Wildlife Sanctuary.
It is the seventh tiger reserve in Madhya Pradesh.
It is named for Rani Durgavati, the queen of the Gondi people.
The reserve also boasts a diverse landscape, with hills, valleys, rivers, streams, waterfalls, and grasslands.
Rivers: It straddles parts of the Narmada and Yamuna River basins.
The Singorgarh Fort is located within the reserve.
Vegetation: Dry deciduous type
Flora: The chief floral elements include Teak, Saja, Dhaora, Ber, Amla, etc.
Fauna:
Tiger, leopard, wolf, jackal, Indian fox, striped hyena, Nilgai, Chinkara, Chital, Sambhar, Black Buck, Barking deer, Commom Langur, Rhesus Macaque, etc.
It is one of the few remaining strongholds for the White-Rumped and the Indian Vultures, critically endangered raptors of India.
A green corridor linking Panna Tiger Reserve (PTR) with Durgavati will be developed for the natural movement of the tiger to the new reserve.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.theweek.in/wire-updates/national/2024/07/09/del75-env-tiger-reserve-probe.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Regional Analysis of Indian Ocean System:
- It is a data assimilation system developed by Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services.
- It uses salinity and sea surface temperature to assess the health of the Indian Ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) has upgraded its Regional Analysis of Indian Ocean (RAIN), system for gathering information on the health of the Indian Ocean.
It is a data assimilation system developed in Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS).
The previous version used only salinity and sea surface temperature, this upgraded version factors in sea surface height. The system has been under development since 2023 and was implemented in recent months.
The new version has been incorporated with the Sea surface height anomaly (SSHA).
In the new system, for running ocean models, observations are taken at the ocean’s surface and below the water at depths ranging from 3 metres to 2,000 metres, depending on the requirement.
As a result, the ocean current analysis from the additional information obtained has improved the ocean current analysis.
Key facts about Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services
It was established as an autonomous body in 1999 under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) and is a unit of the Earth System Science Organization (ESSO).
Mandate: To provide the best possible ocean information and advisory services to society, industry, government agencies, and the scientific community through sustained ocean observations and constant improvements through systematic and focused research.
Activities:
It provides round-the-clock monitoring and warning services for the coastal population on tsunamis, storm surges, high waves, etc. through the in-house Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre (ITEWC).
The Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC) of UNESCO designated ITEWC as a Regional Tsunami Service Provider (RTSP) to provide tsunami warnings to countries on the Indian Ocean Rim.
It povides daily advisories to fisher folk to help them easily locate areas of abundant fish in the ocean while saving on both fuel and time used to search for the same.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/indian-oceans-health-incois-data-assimilation-system-9441821/
Consider the following statements regarding the Order of Saint Andrew the Apostle:
- It is Russia’s highest civilian honour given to prominent government and public figures.
- It is only awarded to citizens of Russia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister was awarded Russia’s highest civilian honour, the Order of Saint Andrew the Apostle, during his visit to the country.
The award is given to prominent government and public figures, military leaders, and outstanding representatives of science, culture, art, and various sectors of the economy for exceptional services to Russia.
Tsar Peter the Great (1672–1725) established the Order of Saint Andrew in 1698.
It can also be awarded to heads of foreign states for outstanding services to the Russian Federation.
Its name comes from Saint Andrew, who is believed to be one of the apostles or 12 original followers of Jesus. After Christ’s crucifixion, the apostles are said to have travelled great distances to spread his message.
The award consists of
The chain of the Order consists of 17 alternating links, and features a gilded image of the State Emblem of the Russian Federation, a double-headed eagle.
It also includes a badge, a star, and a light blue silk moire ribbon. For those recognised for distinction in combat, the badge and star are adorned with swords.
The order was abolished in 1918 following the Russian Revolution, which overthrew the Tsarist regime. It was re-established in 1998 by an Executive Order of the President of Russia.
Other recipients: Mikhail Kalashnikov, Sergey Mikhalkov, Mikhail Gorbachev, Russian Orthodox Church leader Patriarch Alexy II, and the current head of the Russian Orthodox Church Patriarch Krill.
Foreign leaders who have been honoured in the past include Chinese President Xi Jinping in 2017, and the former President of Kazakhstan, Nursultan Nazarbayev.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/what-is-order-of-saint-andrew-the-apostle-conferred-upon-pm-modi-9443383/
Consider the following statements regarding the Anand Marriage Act:
- It provides statutory recognition to marriage rituals of Sikh community in India.
- Under this, States and Union territories frame respective rules for the registration of Anand marriages.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the National Commission for Minorities held a meeting under the chairmanship of Chairman, National Commission for Minorities, with 18 States/UTs to discuss the implementation and registration of marriages of Sikhs under Anand Marriage Act.
It provides statutory recognition to marriage rituals of Sikh community in India.
The emergence of the Anand Marriage Act dates back to 1909 when the British Imperial Legislative Council passed a legislation for the recognition of the Sikh wedding ceremony Anand Karaj.
The Act aimed to acknowledge and respect the customs and practices of the community.
In 2012, the Parliament passed the Anand Marriage (Amendment) Bill, bringing Sikh traditional marriages under the purview of legal recognition.
While the central government approved the amendments, it was left for individual states and Union territories to frame respective rules for the registration of Anand marriages.
Significance of the Act: It provides statutory recognition to marriage rituals of Sikhs, fulfilling their long-standing demand to not have to solemnise their marriages under the Hindu Marriage Act.
Recent implementation: ‘Jammu and Kashmir Anand Marriage Registration Rules, 2023’ has been framed for the registration of “Anand marriages”, under which tehsildars concerned shall be the registrar of such marriages within their respective territorial jurisdiction, as per a government notification issued.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2031572
Consider the following statements with reference to the CubeSat Radio Interferometry Experiment:
- It aims to investigate the enigmatic origins of radio waves emanating from the Sun.
- It is an initiative of the European Space Agency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
NASA is set to launch a groundbreaking CubeSat Radio Interferometry Experiment (CURIE) mission to unravel the mysteries of solar radio waves.
It aims to investigate the enigmatic origins of radio waves emanating from the Sun, a phenomenon first observed decades ago.
The mission employs an innovative technique called low frequency radio interferometry, marking its first use in space.
CURIE consists of two miniature spacecraft, collectively no larger than a shoebox, which will orbit Earth approximately two miles apart.
This separation enables the instruments to detect minute differences in radio wave arrival times, pinpointing their exact solar origin.
Working
This spacecraft will measure radio waves in the 0.1 to 19 megahertz range, frequencies blocked by Earth’s upper atmosphere, necessitating space-based observations.
CURIE will orbit 360 miles above Earth’s surface to obtain an unobstructed view of the Sun’s radio emissions.
Once in orbit, the two CURIE spacecraft will separate, deploy their eight-foot antennas, and begin collecting data.
This mission not only promises to advance our understanding of solar phenomena but also paves the way for future space-based radio astronomy endeavors
It is sponsored by NASA’s Heliophysics Flight Opportunities for Research and Technology (H-FORT) Program.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/nasas-curie-to-investigate-the-origin-of-suns-radio-waves-2564210-2024-07-09
Naavu Manujaru’ programme, recently in news, is an initiative of the government of:
Karnataka
Explanation :
The Karnataka government has ordered implementation of ‘Naavu Manujaru’ programme from this academic year.
Objective: To improve the capacity of the students to think independently, rationality and understand the pros and cons of every issue. It will also be helpful for the overall development of the students.
It is implemented in all government, aided, and unaided primary and high schools of the State.
Implementation of this programme would involve discussions and dialogues for two hours per week (with three periods of 40 minutes).
It involves discussion on social harmony and its significance, based on local and national festivals, folk games, sports etc.
The discussion also includes thoughts of social reformers, visiting and sharing information on outbound/local famous places, cottage industries, discussion on nuclear and non-nuclear families, discussion on elimination of inequality and dialogue on constitutional values like equality, liberty and fraternity etc.
Implementing agency: The Department of State Educational Research and Training (DSERT) is the implementation authority of this programme.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/karnataka-government-set-to-begin-naavu-manujaru-programme-in-schools-to-inculcate-social-harmony-and-constitutional-values-among-children/article68375895.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the World Population Day (WPD):
- It was established by the United Nations (UN) and first observed in 2011, when the world population reached five billion.
- It highlights the importance of addressing population-related concerns and provides a platform to engage in discussions and take action.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
World Population Day aims to raise awareness about global population issues and their impact on society.
About World Population Day (WPD):
It is observed on July 11 every year.
This significant event highlights the importance of addressing population-related concerns such as reproductive health, family planning, gender equality, and sustainable development.
It provides a platform for governments, organizations, and individuals to engage in discussions and take action.
WPD 2024 Theme: “Leave no one behind; count everyone.”
History:
WPD was established by the United Nations (UN) and first observed in 1989, with participation from over 90 countries.
The idea was inspired by the world population reaching five billion on July 11, 1987, prompting Dr. KC Zachariah, a senior demographer at the World Bank, to suggest marking the occasion as World Population Day.
Facts about Global Population:
In 2011, the world’s population reached 7 billion, and on 15 November 2022, the world’s population reached 8 billion people.
Projections by the UN suggest that the global population will grow to approximately 8.5 billion by 2030, 9.7 billion by 2050, and 10.9 billion by 2100.
India holds the top place with a population of 1.44 billion as of July 2024. India overtook China as the country with the largest population in the world in 2022.
China’s population exceeded 1.4 billion but declined in 2024. Currently, China is second on the list, with a population of 1.42 billion.
With a population of 341 million, the United States is the third most populous country in the world.
More than half of global population growth between now and 2050 is expected to occur in Africa. Africa has the highest rate of population growth among major areas.
In sharp contrast, the populations of 61 countries or areas in the world are expected to decrease by 2050, the majority in Europe.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.ndtv.com/offbeat/world-population-day-2024-know-history-significance-and-theme-6080066
Consider the following statements regarding the Stinger Missile, recently seen in the news:
- It is an intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM).
- It was designed and manufactured by the American Defense Industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
NATO recently signed a nearly $700 million contract to have member countries produce more Stinger missiles.
About Stinger Missile:
The FIM-92 Stinger is a man-portable surface-to-air missile system (MANPADS) that was designed and manufactured by the American Defense Industry.
The system entered into service with the U.S. Army in 1981.
Used currently by the U.S. armed forces and 29 other countries, it is manufactured by Raytheon Missile Systems and under license by EADS in Germany.
It was designed to provide air defense capabilities to the United States and allied troops when forward deployed and thus eliminate the immediate need for air support should an enemy aircraft threaten the troops.
Features:
The missile is 1.52 m long and 70 mm in diameter, with 10 cm fins.
It is lightweight. The missile and its launcher weigh about 15 kilograms. The launcher is reusable.
It can be carried and fired by troops or mounted to a vehicle and used as short-range defense against aircraft.
It uses a passive infrared seeker. The infrared seeker can lock on to the heat the target is producing.
It is a “fire-and-forget” weapon, meaning it requires no input from the gunner once it’s fired.
It can hit targets flying as high as 11,500 feet (3,500 meters), and has a range of about 5 miles (8 kilometers).
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.firstpost.com/world/nato-signs-700-mn-stinger-missile-contract-in-push-for-defence-boost-13791252.html#google_vignette
Consider the following statements with reference to the Borehole Geophysics Research Laboratory (BGRL):
- It is a specialised institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences mandated to execute India’s sole scientific deep-drilling programme.
- It aims to drill the earth’s crust to a depth of 6 km in the Bhuj region of Gujarat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Borehole Geophysics Research Laboratory is executing India’s scientific deep drilling programme in Karad, Maharashtra.
About Borehole Geophysics Research Laboratory (BGRL):
The BGRL in Karad, Maharashtra, is a specialised institute under theMinistry of Earth Sciences mandated to execute India’s sole scientific deep-drilling programme.
Under BGRL, the aim is to drill the earth’s crust to a depth of 6 km and conduct studies to help expand the understanding of reservoir-triggered earthquakes in the Koyna-Warna region of Maharashtra.
This region has been experiencing frequent earthquakes since the Shivaji Sagar Lake, or the Koyna Dam, was impounded in 1962.
BGRL’s 3-km-deep pilot borehole in Koyna is complete; the Ministry of Earth Sciences is committed to reaching a depth of 6 km.
It employs a unique drilling strategy—a hybrid of mud rotary drilling and air hammering.
Benefits of a deep-drilling mission:
Scientifically drilled boreholes can be a hub of direct, unique in situ experiments and observations and monitor a region’s fault lines and seismic behaviour.
They also provide exact and fundamental knowledge of the composition of the earth’s crust, structure, and processes, and help validate models based on surface studies.
Thus, it can inform a range of societal problems related to geohazards and geo-resources.
It can also help expand scientific know-how and technological innovation, especially in seismology (the study of earthquakes).
It can also spur the development of tools and equipment for drilling,observation, data analysis, sensors, etc.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/90348/OPS/G05D1P803.1+GHTD1P8DD.1.html
With reference to Classical Language Status, consider the following statements:
- A high antiquity in its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1,500-2,000 years is a criterion for determining classical language status.
- Till date, six languages have been conferred the status of ‘Classical Language’ in India.
- Malayalam was the latest addition to the list, which received the Classical Language Status in 2014.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Central Government recently decided to tweak the criteria for giving classical language status.
About Classical Language Status:
The current criteria evolved by the government to determine the declaration of a language as a classical language are
It should have high antiquity in its early texts/recorded historyover a period of 1,500-2,000 years.
A body of ancient literature or texts that is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers.
The literary tradition should be original and not borrowed from another speech community.
The said language and literature should be distinct from its modern format; there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Once a language is notified as a classical language, the Education Ministry provides certain benefits to promote it, which include two major annual international awards for scholars of eminence in the said languages.
Apart from this, a centre of excellence for studies in the classical language is set up, and the University Grants Commission is requested to create a certain number ofProfessional Chairs in Central universities for the languages that get the classical tag.
Classical Languages in India:
Till date, six languages have been conferred the status of ‘Classical Language’ in India.
The first language to be accorded that status is Tamil, which was declared a classical language back in 2004.
In the following year, Sanskrit was accorded with the status.
In 2008, Telugu and Kannada were conferred with the status,followed by Malayalam in 2013.
Odia is the latest addition to the list and received status in 2014.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/centre-set-to-tweak-criteria-for-according-classical-language-status/article68381390.ece
Mackenzie River Is the largest and longest river basin of which one the following countries?
Canada
Explanation :
Canada’s longest river, the Mackenzie, is experiencing historically low water levels.
About Mackenzie River:
The Mackenzie River system is the second largest river system on the North American continent, after only the Mississippi-Missouri River system.
It is also Canada’s largest and longest river basin and is the 10th largest river basin in the world.
The Mackenzie River system flows along a course of 4,241 kilometers from its headwaters in the Finlay River to its drainage into the Beaufort Sea in the Arctic Ocean.
The Mackenzie itself is 1,025 miles (1,650 km) long. The river is generally wide, mostly from 1 to 2 miles (1.6 to 3.2 km) across, and in island-dotted sections, 3 to 4 miles (4.8 to 6.4 km) wide.
The Mackenzie and its tributaries together drain an area of about 1.8 million sq.km, which represents about 20% of Canada’s total land area.
Its lake-covered triangular delta measures more than 120 miles (190 km) from north to south and is about 50 miles (80 km) wide along the Arctic shore.
The Peace, Athabasca, and Liard Rivers are some of the most important tributaries of the Mackenzie.
A number of lakes, like the Lake Athabasca, Great Slave Lake, and Great Bear Lake, also form notable parts of the Mackenzie River system.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.timesnownews.com/world/canada/mackenzie-river-in-canada-reaches-historic-low-levels-stranding-communities-article-111642625
Consider the following statements regarding the GRSE Accelerated Innovation Nurturing Scheme:
- It aims to enable MSMEs and Start-Ups to develop innovative solutions for further technological advancement.
- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Defence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Raksha Rajya Mantri launched “GRSE Accelerated Innovation Nurturing Scheme (GAINS 2024) of Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers Limited ( GRSE) in Kolkata.
It is an innovative scheme which seeks solutions to the problems related to the shipyards and promotes technology development using the start-ups created and nurtured in the country.
It encourages and enables MSMEs and Start-Ups to develop innovative solutions for further technological advancement. It will give a new dimension to the future of Indian defence and with technological advancements and dedication it will enhance the strength of our armed forces and enhance maritime security.
It is a unique national scheme to encourage and enable MSMEs and Start-Ups to develop innovative solutions that GRSE may incorporate for further technological advancement.
The aim is to leverage the vast ecosystem of MSMEs and Start-Ups to address present and emerging challenges in the ship design and construction industry, while achieving the objectives of Atma Nirbharta.
This initiative is in keeping with the ‘Make in India’ and ‘Start-up India’ policies of the Government of India.
It is an initiative of the Ministry of Defence.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2032206
Consider the following statements with reference to the Shield-tail snake:
- They are found in the Western Ghats and some parts of Peninsular India.
- They are Venomous and burrowing species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, researchers have discovered a new species of a shield-tail snake in the Meghamalai-Munnar landscape of the Western Ghats.
The newly discovered species of shield-tail snake is named as Uropeltis caudomaculata, in reference to the yellow spot that it has on each side of the base of its tail.
The new species is distinguished primarily by its increased number of ventral scales and its exclusive distribution along the eastern escarpment of the Western Ghats from Meghamalai to approximately 15 km east of Munnar.
It is known to be found in only three localities: Meghamalai Tiger Reserve in Tamil Nadu, Periyar Tiger Reserve and Yellapetty, Munnar in Kerala.
Key facts about Shield-tail snakes
These are non Venomous snakes.
They belong to the Uropeltidae family of primitive snakes endemic to peninsular India & Sri Lanka.
They have a large keratinous shield at the tip of the tail and hence called shield tailed snakes.
Distribution: They are found in the Western Ghats and some parts of Peninsular India.
Habitat: Inhabit hilly forests & occupy tunnels in the leaves, humus, rocks & logs.
They are burrowing species found upto 1 feet below the soil.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/scientists-discover-new-species-of-shield-tail-snake-in-western-ghats-meghamalai-munnar-landscape/article68385582.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the National Gopal Ratna Award:
- It is awarded under the Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM).
- It is given by the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Nominations for the National Gopal Ratna Award for the year 2024 will be opened from the 15th of July.
It is awarded under Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM).
Since 2021 the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying has been conferring National Gopal Ratna Award every year.
Objective: To encourage the Milk producing farmers, dairy cooperative societies/MPC/FPOs and Artificial Insemination Technicians (AITs).
This year also National Gopal Ratna Award is given for the following categories:
Best Dairy farmer rearing indigenous cattle/buffalo breeds
Best Dairy Cooperative Society (DCS)/ Milk producer Company (MPC)/ Dairy Farmer Producer Organization (FPO).
Best Artificial Insemination Technician (AIT).
From this year onward, the Department has incorporated a Special award for North Eastern Region (NER) States so as to encourage and boost the dairy development activities in the North Eastern Region(NER).
NGRA 2024 will consist of a Certificate of merit, a memento and monetary prize in first two categories i.e Best Dairy Farmer and Best DCS/FPO/MPCs.
In case of Best Artificial Insemination Technician (AIT) category, National Gopal Ratna Award-2024 will consist of a Certificate of merit and a memento only. No cash prize will be provided in the Artificial Insemination Technician (AIT) Category.
The awards will be conferred on the occasion of National Milk Day which will be celebrated on 26th November.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2032146
Hannibal Directive, a military tactic recently in news, is belongs to:
Israel
Explanation :
According to a recent report the Israeli military reportedly employed the Hannibal Directive during the October 7 attack by Hamas.
It is a purported operational doctrine of using maximum force to ensure no soldiers are captured, even if it means sacrificing military and civilian lives, a media investigation has found.
It is also known as Hannibal Procedure and Hannibal Protocol
The expression refers to a purported Israel Defence Forces (IDF) operational policy that aims to pre-empt politically painful prisoner swaps by immediately eliminating everyone in the vicinity of a captive Israeli soldier, even if it poses a risk to the soldier himself.
The full text of the purported doctrine has never been published, even though its existence has been an open secret that has long been discussed by soldiers and analysts.
It is believed that the policy was named after the Carthaginian general Hannibal, who apparently chose to kill himself when faced with the possibility of capture by the Romans in c. 181 BCE.
Origin of the doctrine
The Hannibal Doctrine was formulated as a response to the Jibril Agreement of 1985 in which 1,150 Palestinian prisoners were exchanged for three Israelis who had been seized in Lebanon by the Syria-based militant group Popular Front for the Liberation of Palestine-General Command (PFLP-GC).
Criticism: The Hannibal Doctrine has been criticised by legal experts for its disregard for human life.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/what-is-israels-hannibal-directive-9445154/
Consider the following statements regarding Heat dome:
- It occurs when a high-pressure system in the atmosphere traps warm air.
- Its formation is not related to the behaviour of the jet stream.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The entire western United States has come under the grip of a sweltering heatwave, which began last week. The scorching temperatures and dry conditions are a result of a heat dome centred over California.
It is a weather phenomenon where a high-pressure system in the atmosphere traps warm air like a lid on a pot, for an extended period of time.
As the warm air is not able to rise upward, the sky remains clear — clouds are formed under the opposite circumstances as the rising warm air cools down, and the water in it condenses out.
The high-pressure system allows more sunlight to reach the earth, which results in more warming and drying of soil. This leads to less evaporation and reduces the likelihood of the formation of rain clouds.
The longer the heat dome stays in one place, the warmer conditions can get with every passing day. While heat domes cause heat waves, they can occur without heat domes as well.
What is the role of the jet stream?
A heat dome’s formation is tied to the behaviour of the jet stream — an area of fast-moving air high in the atmosphere that usually helps move weather systems along the Earth’s surface.
Typically, the jet stream has a wave-like pattern that keeps moving from north to south and then north again.
When these waves get bigger and elongated, they move slowly and sometimes can become stationary. This is when a high-pressure system gets stuck in place, and leads to the occurrence of a heat dome.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/high-temperatures-us-heat-domes-9445137/
Consider the following statements regarding Bacteriophage:
- It is a type of virus that infects bacteria.
- Thousands of varieties of bacteriophages exist, each of which may infect only one type of bacteria.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers recently developed a simple new way to store, identify, and share phages, making them more accessible to patients who need them.
About Bacteriophage:
A bacteriophage is a type of virus that infects bacteria.
The word “bacteriophage” literally means “bacteria eater,” because bacteriophages destroy their host cells.
They are the most common biological entities in nature.
Also known as phages, these viruses can be found everywhere bacteria exist, including, in the soil, deep within the earth’s crust, inside plants and animals, and even in the oceans.
Thousands of varieties of phages exist, each of which may infect only one type or a few types of bacteria or archaea.
All bacteriophages are composed of a nucleic acid molecule that is surrounded by a protein structure.
The nucleic acid may be either DNA or RNA, and it may be double-stranded or single-stranded.
How does it infect bacteria?
A bacteriophage attaches itself to a susceptible bacterium and infects the host cell.
Following infection, the bacteriophage hijacks the bacterium’s cellular machinery to prevent it from producing bacterial components and instead forces the cell to produce viral components.
Eventually, new bacteriophages assemble and burst out of the bacterium in a process called lysis.
Bacteriophages occasionally remove a portion of their host cells’ bacterial DNA during the infection process and then transfer this DNA into the genome of newhost cells. This process is known as transduction.
Uses:
They are common natural entities that can destroy bacteria that are resistant to drugs such as antibiotics.
Phage therapy holds promising potential in the fight against antimicrobial resistance (AMR).
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://phys.org/news/2024-07-lifesaving-phages-accessible-easier.html
With reference to Dengue, consider the following statements:
- It is a mosquito-borne bacterial infection.
- A person can be infected with dengue multiple times in their life.
- There is no specific medicine to treat dengue.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The High Court of Karnataka recently took suo motu cognisance of the rise and the spread of dengue across the State.
About Dengue:
Dengue (break-bone fever) is a mosquito-borne viral infection.
It is more common in tropical and subtropical climates, mostly in urban and semi-urban areas.
While many dengue infections are asymptomatic or produce only mild illness, the virus can occasionally cause more severe cases, and even death.
Transmission:
It is transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected Aedes mosquito carrying one of four types of dengue virus (DENV).
Dengue isn’t contagious from person to person except when passed from a pregnant person to their child.
An estimated 400 million dengue infections occur worldwide each year, with about 96 million resulting in illness.
A person can be infected with dengue multiple times in their life.
Symptoms:
The most common symptoms are high fever, headache, body aches, nausea, and rash. Most will get better in 1–2 weeks.
A very small portion of people with dengue fever get a severe case. It’s called dengue hemorrhagic fever.
Symptoms show up as the fever begins to ease. These may include vomiting that does not go away, rapid breathing, blood in vomit, and bleeding gums.
Individuals who are infected for the second time are at greater risk of severe dengue. In severe cases, dengue can be fatal.
Treatment:
There is no specific medicine to treat dengue. The focus is on treating pain symptoms.
It is generally treated with supportive care such as pain relievers, bed rest, and fluids.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/karnataka-high-court-takes-suo-motu-cognisance-of-dengue-exigency-based-on-letter-to-the-editor-published-in-newspaper/article68388085.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Technology Development Fund (TDF) Scheme:
- It encourages the participation of public and private industries by providing grants-in-aid for the development of indigenous defence technologies.
- It is executed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has sanctioned seven new projects for the private sector under the Technology Development Fund scheme.
About Technology Development Fund (TDF) Scheme:
It has been established to promote self-reliance in Defence Technology as a part of the ‘Make in India’ initiative.
It is a programme of the Ministry of Defence.
This programme is executed by the DRDO to meet the requirements of the Tri-Services, Defence Production, and DRDO.
The Scheme encourages the participation of public/private industries, especially MSMEs and startups, so as to create an ecosystem for enhancing cutting-edge technology capability in the defence sector.
In addition to providing the grants-in-aid for the development of indigenous technology, the scheme also provides the industry with various benefits.
Funding Support:
The project cost of up to INR 50 crore will be considered for funding.
The funding may be up to 90% of the total project cost.
Industry may work in collaboration with academia or research institutions.The work involvement of academia cannot exceed 40% of the total project cost.
The funding will be linked to mutually agreed milestones.
Funds will be released either in advance against a bank guarantee of the same amount as collateral, or reimbursement based on the completion of milestones.
Subsequent installments will be released on successful completion of milestones.
Project Duration:The maximum development period will be four (4) years.
Eligibility:
A public limited company, a private limited company, a partnership firm, a limited liability partnership,a one-person company, or a sole proprietorship registered as per applicable Indian laws registered in India especially MSMEs and Startups.
The industry must be owned and controlled by a resident Indian citizen.
An entity with excess of 49 percent foreign investment will not be eligible.
Startups must be recognized by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) as per Government of India (GOI) guidelines.
Startups incorporated for less than three years from date of submission of application will be considered as nascent startups.
A nascent Startup should be incubated at one of the Central/State government assisted incubators.
Startups should not have received any grants/grants-in-aid by any government scheme for a similar technology.
The startup must be owned and controlled by a Resident Indian citizen with a shareholding of at least 51%.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/drdo-approves-seven-technologies-for-development-by-private-sector/article68393603.ece
With reference to the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS), consider the following statements:
- Under LRS, all resident individuals, including minors, are allowed to freely remit up to USD 250,000 per financial year.
- Remittances can be made only for permissible current account transactions.
- The remittances can be made in any freely convertible foreign currency.
How many of the statements given above are correc
Only two
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in a notification issued recently allowed resident individuals to open Foreign Currency Account (FCA) in International Financial Services Centres (IFSCs) at GIFT City in Gujarat under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS).
About Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS):
It is a foreign exchange policy initiative introduced by the RBI in 2004.
It is intended to simplify and streamline the process of remitting funds outside India.
This scheme helped Indians overcome international fund transfer restrictions as set by the FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act), 1999.
Under LRS, all resident individuals, including minors, are allowed to freely remit up to USD 250,000 per financial year (April–March).
Only individual Indian residents are permitted to remit funds under LRS. Corporates, partnership firms, HUFs, trusts, etc. are excluded from its ambit.
This can be for any permissible current or capital account transaction, or a combination of both.
The remittances can be made in any freely convertible foreign currency.
Permissible current account transactions under LRS:
Private visit (other than Nepal and Bhutan)
Gift or Donation including a rupee gift to a Non-Resident Indian (NRI) / Person of Indian Origin (PIO), who is a close relative
Emigration
Overseas business trip
Medical treatment abroad
Pursuing studies outside India
Going outside of India for employment
Maintenance of close relatives abroad
Permissible Capital account transactions under LRS:
Opening of a foreign currency account abroad with a bank outside India
Purchase of property abroad
Investments in shares, securities, mutual funds, etc. abroad
Setting up wholly owned subsidiaries (WOS) and Joint Venture (JV) abroad for bonafide business, subject to stipulated terms and conditions
Extending loans in INR to NRIs who are relatives, as defined in the Companies Act, 2013.
The remittance facility under the scheme is not available for the following purposes:
Remittances for any prohibited activities such as margin trading, lottery, etc.
Remittances for the purchase of Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds issued by Indian Companies in the overseas secondary market.
Remittances for trading in foreign exchange abroad
Capital Account remittances, directly or indirectly to countries identified by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) as “non-co-operative countries and territories”, from time to time.
Remittance directly or indirectly to those individuals and entities identified as posing significant risk of committing acts of terrorism, as advised separately by the RBI, to the banks.
There is no restriction on the frequency or number of transactions during a financial year. However, the total amount of foreign exchange remitted through all sources in India under LRS during the current FY should be within the LRS limit as specified by the RBI.
Tax on LRS:
Investments over two years are considered long-term capital gains and impose a tax of 20%on the total profit earned.
Profits earned from investments below two years are taxed at normal income tax slab rates.
Under the LRS scheme, you are liable to pay a 20% TCS (Tax Collected at Source) for remittances exceeding the limit of Rs. 7,00,000, except for education and medical reasons.
However, you can claim a refund for the deductedTCS while filing ITR (income tax return).
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/rbi-allows-resident-indians-to-open-foreign-currency-accounts-in-ifsc-gujarat/article68391888.ece
Which among the following best describes Squalus hima, recently seen in the news?
A new species of dogfish shark discovered off the southwest coast of India.
Explanation :
Scientists from the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) recently discovered a new species of deep-water dogfish shark Squalus hima from a fishing harbour in Kerala along the Arabian Sea.
About Squalus hima:
It is a new species of dogfish shark discovered from southwest coast of India.
Squalus is a genus of dogfish sharks in the family Squalidae. commonly known as spurdogs and are characterized by smooth dorsal fin spines.
They also have an angular short snout, a small mouth almost as wide as the snout, first dorsal fin origin behind the pectoral fins, and body without any spots.
They are exploited for their liver oil, which contains high levels of squalene (or squalane when it is processed for products).
It is in high demand for the pharmaceutical industry, particularly for making high-end cosmetic and anti-cancerous products.
On the Indian coast, two species of Squalus are found from the southwest coast of India, and the new species, Squalus hima n.sp., is very similar to Squalus lalannei, but differs in many characteristics.
The newly discovered Squalus hima differs from other species by the number of precaudal vertebrae, total vertebrae, teeth count, trunk & head heights, fin structure, and fin colour.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/zsi-scientist-discover-new-species-of-dogfish-shark-squalus-hima-from-india/article68393567.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Thirty Meter Telescope:
- It aims to study the early universe and evolution of the first galaxies.
- It is an international project involving India, the United States of America and Canada.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Indian scientists have developed an open-source tool to generate an infrared star catalogue for the Adaptive Optics System (AOS) of the Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT).
It is a revolutionary class of extremely large telescopes that will enable us to explore deeper into space and observe cosmic objects.
It is an ambitious international project involving India, the United States of America, Canada, China, and Japan that aims to significantly advance our understanding of the universe.
It is a next-generation astronomical observatory designed to provide unprecedented resolution and sensitivity with its massive 30-meter primary mirror, advanced adaptive optics system, and state-of-the-art instruments.
Primary goals:
Study the early universe and the formation and evolution of the first galaxies and stars after the Big Bang.
Investigate the formation, structure, and evolution of galaxies across cosmic time.
Study the relationship between supermassive black holes and their host galaxies.
Investigate the formation of stars and planetary systems.
Characterize exoplanets and study their atmospheres.
Key Features of the TMT
Mirror System
Primary Mirror: 30 meters in diameter, composed of 492 hexagonal segments.
Secondary Mirror: Composed of 118 smaller hexagonal segments.
Tertiary Mirror: 3.5 meters by 2.5 meters, positioned centrally within the primary mirror.
The TMT will feature instruments like the Infrared Imaging Spectrometer (IRIS) and the Wide-Field Optical Spectrograph (WFOS) for various observations.
What is an Adaptive Optics System?
The TMT’s AOS, known as the Narrow Field Infrared Adaptive Optics System (NFIRAOS), uses deformable mirrors and laser guide stars to correct atmospheric turbulence, enhancing image resolution.
Indian scientists have developed a tool to generate a comprehensive all-sky catalogue of NIR stars for this system.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/thirty-meter-telescope-significant-for-india-9447787/
Consider the following statements regarding MeDevIS Platform:
- It is the first global open access clearinghouse for information on medical devices.
- It is launched by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the World Health Organization (WHO) has introduced an online platform called MeDevIS.
Medical Devices Information System (MeDevIS) is the first global open access clearinghouse for information on medical devices.
It is designed to support governments, regulators and users in their decision-making on selection, procurement and use of medical devices for diagnostics, testing and treatment of diseases and health conditions
It replaces paper-based literature search across multiple publications with non-standard device names which can add to the complexity.
Along with providing a single platform, MedevIS also aims to help make the naming of the medical devices simpler.
MeDevIS references two international naming systems for medical devices –
The European Medical Device Nomenclature (EMDN): It is mostly used in European countries for registration in the European database.
Global Medical Device Nomenclature (GMDN): It is used in regulatory agencies in Australia, Canada, the United Kingdom and the USA and other Member States.
The naming systems include coding and definitions and can be used in every country to facilitate registration for regulatory approval, procurement and supply, inventories in health facilities, tracking and pricing.
It can be useful for national policy-makers to develop or update their own national lists for procurement of health technologies and devices and can contribute to the progress towards universal health coverage.
It can also help agencies in health insurance and reimbursement policies for patients.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.who.int/news/item/08-07-2024-medevis-platform-announced-to-boost-access-to-medical-technologies-and-devices
Consider the following statements regarding Salvinia molesta:
- It is a fast growing Alien Invasive Aquatic Weed of South-Eastern Brazil origin.
- It has been widely introduced as an ornamental plant and has been used as a mulch for crops in dry areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, it is reported that an exotic beetle released into a vast reservoir in Betul district has successfully eradicated an invasive weed species, Salvinia molesta, within 18 months.
It is a highly detrimental aquatic fern.
It is commonly known as “Water Fern” is an aggressive and a fast growing Alien Invasive Aquatic Weed of the South-Eastern Brazil origin.
It prefers tropical, subtropical or warm temperate areas of the world and grows best in still or slow-moving water bodies including ditches, ponds, lakes, slow rivers and canals.
It is locally known as “Chinese Jhalaar”, this invasive species was first spotted in India in 2018 and had completely carpeted the reservoir by 2019.
Impacts on environment: It may form dense vegetation mats that reduce water-flow and lower the light and oxygen levels in the water.
It has been widely introduced as an ornamental plant and has been used as a mulch for crops in dry areas near water bodies where it grows.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/environment/foreign-insects-turn-allies-in-eradicating-invasive-aquatic-weeds
The Mutual Recognition Agreement for organic products, was recently signed between India and:
Taiwan
Explanation :
Recently, the Mutual Recognition Agreement (MRA) for organic products between India and Taiwan has been implemented.
The implementation of the MRA between India and Taiwan is a landmark achievement as it is the first bilateral agreement for organic products.
The implementing Agencies for the MRA are Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA), Ministry of Commerce and Industry, India and Agriculture and Food Agency, Ministry of Agriculture (AFA), Taiwan.
Under this agreement, agricultural products produced and handled organically in conformity with the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) and accompanied by an organic demonstration document issued by an accredited certification body under NPOP are allowed for sale in Taiwan as organically produced including display of the “India Organic” logo.
Significance
It will ease the export of organic products by avoiding dual certifications; thus, reducing compliance cost, simplifying compliance requirement by adhering to only one regulation and enhancing trade opportunities in the organic sector.
It will pave the way for the export of major Indian organic products such as Rice, Processed Food, Green/Black and Herbal Tea, Medicinal plant products etc to Taiwan.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2032060
Consider the following statements regarding Exercise Pitch Black:
- It is a biennial and multi- national exercise hosted by the Royal Australian Air Force.
- India is participating for the first time in this exercise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
An Indian Air Force (IAF) contingent is participating in Exercise Pitch Black 2024 which is scheduled to be conducted from 12 July 24 to 02 August 24 in Austarlia.
It is a biennial and multi- national exercise hosted by the Royal Australian Air Force (RAAF).
The name ‘Pitch Black’ was derived from the emphasis on night time flying over large un-populated areas.
The 2024 edition is slated to be the largest in the 43 year long history of Ex Pitch Black, which includes participation by 20 countries, with over 140 aircraft and 4400 military personnel of various air forces.
The exercise will be focusing on Large Force Employment warfare aimed at strengthening international cooperation and shall facilitate experience enhancement with the IAF Su-30 MKI operating alongside the F-35, F-22, F-18, F-15, Gripen and Typhoon fighter aircraft.
The IAF contingent comprises of over 150 highly skilled Air Warriors including pilots, engineers, technicians, controllers and other subject matter experts, who will be operating the formidable Su-30 MKI multirole fighters, with the C -17 Globemaster and the IL-78 Air-to-Air Refuelling aircraft in combat enabling roles.
The exercise would provide IAF with an opportunity towards force integration with participating nations and mutual exchange of best practices.
Significance: The exercise provides an excellent opportunity for strengthening the ability of the participating nations to deploy over large distances, support integrated operations in the Indo-Pacific region and building strong aviation associations in a highly challenging environment.
Previous participation of India: The IAF has previously participated in the 2018 and 2022 editions of this exercise.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2032498
With reference to the International Maritime Organisation (IMO), consider the following statements:
- It is a United Nations (UN) specialized agency headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
- It sets policies for international shipping and sets regulations on safety, security and environmental best practices.
- It is involved in legal matters, including liability and compensation issues and the facilitation of international maritime traffic.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
India has called for effective measures to resolve the issue of seafarer abandonment and ensure the safety of the maritime workforce at the 132nd session of the Council of the International Maritime Organization (IMO) in London.
About International Maritime Organisation (IMO):
It is a United Nations (UN) specialized agency with responsibility for the safety and security of shipping and the prevention of marine and atmospheric pollution by ships.
It has an integral role in meeting the targets set out in UN SustainableDevelopment Goal (SDG) 14: Conserve and sustainably use the oceans, seas, and marine resources for sustainable development.
The IMO sets policies for international shipping and sets regulations on safety, security, and environmental best practices.
The IMO is not responsible for enforcing its policies; when a government accepts an IMO policy, that policy becomes a national law that is the government’s responsibility to enforce.
It is also involved in legal matters, including liability and compensation issues and the facilitation of international maritime traffic.
Formation: It was established as the Inter-Governmental Maritime Consultative Organization (IMCO) in 1948, became a specialized agency of the United Nations in 1959, and was renamed the International Maritime Organization in 1982.
It currently has 174 member states.
Structure:
Assembly: It is the highest governing body of the IMO. It consists of all Member States, and it meets once every two years in regular sessions. The Assembly is responsible for approving the work program, voting the budget, and electing the Council.
Council: It is the Executive Organ of the IMO and is responsible, under the Assembly, for supervising the work of the Organization.
Committees: The five policy-making committees are responsible for the development, review, updating, and approval of the organization’s guidelines and regulations.
Funding for the IMO comes from contributions by member states, as well as voluntary donations and commercial activities.
Headquarters: London.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.etvbharat.com/en/!international/india-raises-seafarer-abandonment-crisis-at-imo-secures-membership-in-key-working-group-enn24071006684
Pakke Tiger Reserve lies in which one of the following states?
Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation :
A 4-month-old Asiatic bear cub was rescued from Kolortang village in Lohit district by the wildlife rescue team and transferred to the Centre for Bear Rehabilitation and Conservation (CBRC) in Pakke Tiger Reserve.
About Pakke Tiger Reserve:
It is located in the East Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh.
It is situated north of the river Brahmaputra in the transition zone between the Assam plains and the hilly forests of Arunachal Pradesh.
It is surrounded by the Tenga Reserve Forest to the north, Doimara Reserve Forest on the west, Nameri National Park and Tiger Reserve (Assam) on the south and some agricultural land as well as Papum Reserve Forest on the east.
It is bounded bythe Bhareli or Kameng River in the west and north, and by the Pakke River in the east.
Total Area: 862 sq.km.
The reserve’s elevations range from 100 to 2,000 m (330 to 6,560 ft).
The landscape has high species diversity and endemicity as it forms the transition zone between the Indian and Malayan ecoregions.
Vegetation: The habitat types in the park include lowland semi-evergreen, evergreen forest, and Eastern Himalayan broadleaf forests.
The Nyishi tribe inhibits the area and plays a great role in its conservation.
Flora:
Polyalthia simiarum, Pterospermum acerifolium, Sterculia alata, Stereospermum chelonioides, Ailanthus grandis, and Duabanga grandiflor.
About eight species of bamboo occur in the area.
Fauna: Tiger, leopard, clouded leopard, jungle cat, wild dog jackal, Himalayan black bear, binturong, elephant, gaur, sambar, hog deer, barking deer, wild boar, yellow throated Martin, Malayan giant squirrel, flying squirrel, etc.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.northeasttoday.in/2024/07/11/arunachal-pradesh-4-month-old-asiatic-bear-cub-rescued-in-lohit-district/
Patriot Air Defence System, recently seen in the news, was developed by which one of the following countries?
United States of America
Explanation :
The United States of America and its allies will deliver to Ukraine five additional air defence systems, including Patriot missile batteries and Patriot components.
About Patriot Air Defence System:
The Patriot (MIM-104), which stands for Phased Array Tracking Radar for Intercept on Target, is an all-altitude, all-weather surface-to-air missile defense system to counter tactical ballistic missiles, cruise missiles, and advanced aircraft.
It is the U.S. Army’s most advanced air defense system.
It is a combat-proven air defence system operated by the USand a number of its allies, including Germany, Greece, Israel, Japan, Kuwait, the Netherlands, Saudi Arabia, South Korea, Poland, Sweden, Qatar, the United Arab Emirates, Romania, Spain, and Taiwan.
The system was first used in combat during the 1991 Gulf War, with batteries protecting Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, and Israel, and later used during the U.S. invasion of Iraq in 2003.
Features:
It is a mobile system that usually includes powerful radar, a control station, a power generator, launch stations, and other support vehicles.
It is equipped with a track-via-missile (TVM) guidance system. Midcourse correction commands are transmitted to the guidance system from the mobile engagement control centre.
Depending on the version in use, the interceptor missiles can reach an altitude of more than 24 kilometers and hit targets up to 160 kilometers away.
The system’s radar has a range of over 150 km (93 miles).
The minimum flight time is less than nine seconds, while the maximum is three and a half minutes.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/us-allies-announce-additional-air-defence-systems-for-ukraine/article68387649.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Cholera:
- It is an acute diarrhoeal infection caused by a bacterium.
- Currently, there are no vaccines or treatments available for Cholera.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
With the onset of monsoon, cases of cholera have been detected in two states of India.
About Cholera:
It is an acute diarrhoeal infections caused by eating or drinking food or water that is contaminated with the bacterium Vibrio cholerae.
Cholera causes severe diarrhea and dehydration.
Left untreated, cholera can be fatal within hours, even in previously healthy people.
The disease is most common in places with poor sanitation, crowding, war, and famine. Cholera outbreaks are more common in warm climates.
Cholera is often predictable and preventable. It can ultimately be eliminated where access to clean water and sanitation facilities, as well as good hygiene practices, are ensured and sustained for the whole population.
Symptoms:
Symptoms of cholera can begin as soon as a few hours or as long as five days after infection.
Often, symptoms are mild. But sometimes they are very serious.
About one in 20 people infected have severe watery diarrhea accompanied by vomiting, which can quickly lead to dehydration. This can lead to death if left untreated.
Treatment:
Currently, there are three WHO pre-qualified oral cholera vaccines (OCV), Dukoral, Shanchol, and Euvichol-Plus. All three vaccines require two doses for full protection.
Treatment for cholera can include:
Rehydration therapy
Antibiotics
Zinc supplementation for children
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.financialexpress.com/life/cholera-outbreak-in-india-multiple-cases-reported-in-parts-of-kerala-gujarat-know-all-about-symptoms-and-treatment-3551471/
Consider the following statements with reference to Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC):
- It is the indigenous satellite-based navigation system, developed by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO).
- It enables users to determine their precise geographic location and track their movements anywhere in India and 5000 km beyond India’s territorial boundary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has commissioned a Bengaluru-based firm to indigenously develop a receiver chip to acquire and disseminate Indian time for Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC) developed by ISRO.
About Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC):
NavIC, formerly known as the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), is the indigenous satellite-based navigation system, developed by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO).
NavIC consists of seven satellites (IRNSS-1B, IRNSS-1C, IRNSS-1D, IRNSS-1E, IRNSS- 1F, IRNSS-1G, IRNSS-1I) orbiting Earth to provide accurate positioning and timing information.
Three satellites of the constellation are placed in geostationary orbit, and four satellites are placed in inclined geosynchronous orbit.
The ground network consists of a control centre, precise timing facility, range and integrity monitoring stations, two-way ranging stations, etc.
It enables users to determine their precise geographic location and track their movements anywhere in India and 1500 km beyond India’s territorial boundary.
The system offers various services, such as Standard Positioning Service (SPS) for civilian use, Restricted Service (RS) for authorized users like defence forces, and a Search and Rescue service.
The system provides positioning accuracy of better than 10 metres throughout India and better than 20 metres for the area surrounding India by 1,500 km.
Not all smartphones and navigational gadgets (or navigators) are compatible with NavIC. To use and decode NavIC signals, a navigating gadget should have a NavIC-compatible chipset or microchip incorporated inside it.
NavIC SPS signals are interoperable with the other global navigation satellite system (GNSS) signals, namely GPS (US), Glonass (Russia), Galileo (European Union), and BeiDou (China).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/karnataka/2024/Jul/12/drdo-partners-with-bengaluru-firm-for-indigenous-navic-chip-development
Consider the following statements with reference to the Sarus crane:
- It is a monogamous bird mainly found in wetland areas.
- It is categorized as critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
According to the latest summer census conducted on June 20–21, 2024, the population of Sarus cranes in Uttar Pradesh is rising.
It is the tallest flying bird in the world.
Scientific name: Grus Antigone
Distribution: They live in Southeast Asia, northern India and in northern Australia.
Habitat: They live mainly in wetlands such as canals, marshes and ponds, sometimes near humans.
Appearance
It has a predominantly grey plumage with a naked red head and upper neck and pale red legs.
They are regarded as the least social crane species, found mostly in pairs or small groups of three or four.
They are monogamous birds and pairs mate for life.
Conservation Status
IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
CITES : Appendix II
Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972: Schedule IV
Threats: The main threat to the Sarus crane in India is habitat loss and degradation due to draining the wetland and conversion of land for agriculture.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/uttar-pradesh/census-reveals-surge-in-sarus-crane-population-across-uttar-pradesh/article68389339.ece
With reference to Makhana crop, consider the following statements:
- It is cultivated in stagnant perennial water bodies.
- It is grown in tropical and subtropical climatic conditions.
- Uttar Pradesh is the leading state in production and processing of Makhana in India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Makhana is in demand as a ‘super snack’, with its prices soaring in domestic and international markets since 2019.
Foxnut, commonly known as Makhana, is an important aquatic crop.
It is grown in stagnant perennial water bodies like ponds, land depressions, oxbow lakes, swamps and ditches.
It is a plant of tropical and subtropical climate.
Makhana plant is considered as native of South-East Asia and China, but distributed to almost every part of the world.
Required climatic conditions
Temperature: 200C to 350 C
Relative humidity :50% to 90%
Annual rainfall: 100 cm to 250 cm
Soil: Smooth loamy soil
In India it is mainly distributed in the states of Bihar, West Bengal, Manipur, Tripura, Assam, Jammu & Kashmir, Odisha, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh & Uttar Pradesh but commercially produced in few states only.
Bihar in India is the leading state in its production and processing. It is estimated that Bihar accounts for more than 80 percent of total Makhana production in the country.
Makhana is a product approved under the Union government’s One District One Product scheme, under which subsidies are provided to food processors for branding, marketing, and developing infrastructure.
Benefits of Makhana
It is a kind of hydrophyte used both as drug and food which exhibits much application and development prospects in the fields of medicine, food and economy.
Makhana is the seed of a cash aquatic crop, which was popularly used as herb and food in China. Makhana possessed high nutritional value and many medical and health protection effects.
Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/bihar/makhana-cultivation-in-bihar-running-on-vegetable-protein/article68340701.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Agri-SURE Fund:
- It aims to foster innovation and sustainability in India’s agricultural sector.
- It is managed by the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) has announced an agri fund for Start-Ups & Rural Enterprises (Agri-SURE).
Agri fund for Start-Ups & Rural Enterprises (Agri-SURE) supports start-ups and agripreneurs.
It provides support through investments in sector-specific, sector-agnostic, and debt Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs), as well as direct equity support to start-ups working in Agriculture and allied sectors.
This initiative aims to foster innovation and sustainability in India’s agricultural sector through the establishment of a Rs 750 crore Category-II Alternative Investment Fund (AIF).
While NABARD and the Ministry of Agriculture are contributing ₹250 crore each, the rest ₹250 crore is from other institutions.
The fund is structured to support about 85 agri start-ups with investment sizes of up to ₹25 crore each by the end of its term. T
Its main focus areas include promoting innovative, technology-driven initiatives in agriculture, enhancing the farm produce value chain, creating new rural ecosystem linkages and infrastructure, generating employment, and supporting Farmers Producer Organisations (FPOs).
The fund would encourage entrepreneurship through IT-based solutions and machinery rental services for farmers, driving sustainable growth and development in the agricultural sector.
NABVENTURES a fully owned subsidiary of NABARD will act as the fund manager.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/nabard-announces-750-crore-agri-sure-fund-to-promote-innovation-in-agriculture/article68396955.ece
The World Population Prospects Report, is launched by:
United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs
Explanation :
Recently, the United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (DESA) released the World Population Prospects 2024 report.
Key findings of the report
The world’s population is expected to continue growing over the coming 50-60 years, reaching a peak of around 10.3 billion people in the mid-2080s, up from 8.2 billion in 2024.
After peaking, the global population is projected to start declining gradually, falling to 10.2 billion people by the end of the century.
Fertility Rate: Currently, the global fertility rate stands at 2.25 live births per woman,1 down from 3.31 births in 1990.
More than half of all countries and areas globally have fertility below the replacement level of 2.1 live births per woman.
Life expectancy: Globally, life expectancy at birth reached 73.3 years in 2024, an increase of 8.4 years since 1995. Further reductions in mortality are projected to result in an average longevity of around 77.4 years globally in 2054.
India’s population in 2024 is projected at 1.45 billion and this will peak to 1.69 billion in 2054.
Key facts about United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs
It works closely with governments and stakeholders to help countries around the world meet their economic, social and environmental goals.
It has been helping countries to find common ground on sustainable development, population, social matters, financing for development and many other issues.
It supports building national strategies and plans to achieve the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). UN DESA also plays a key role in assessing progress towards the SDGs through its analytical products, policy advice and technical assistance.
Head Quarter: New York (USA)
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/indias-population-to-peak-in-early-2060s-to-17-billion-before-declining-united-nations/article68395623.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Shigella infection:
- It is an intestinal infection caused by bacteria.
- It is very contagious and children under age 5 are more vulnerable to this infection.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has found an Indian partner to manufacture the breakthrough vaccine for shigella infection.
It is an intestinal infection caused by a family of bacteria known as shigella.
The four species of Shigella are: Shigella sonnei, Shigella flexneri, Shigella boydii and Shigella dysenteriae.
Symptoms: Diarrhea, Stomach pain or cramps, Fever, Nausea or vomiting.
Transmission: It is very contagious. People get infected with shigella when they come in contact with and swallow small amounts of bacteria from the stool of a person who is infected with shigella.
Children under age 5 are most likely to get shigella infection, but it can occur at any age.
Vaccine: Currently, there are no vaccines available for shigella.
Precautions: Wash your hands thoroughly before and after a meal. Wash your hands properly after a bowel movement. Ensure the water that you drink is clean and the fruits and vegetables are fresh.
Disease burden: It has been estimated that shigella triggers a huge disease burden globally, causing nearly 125 million diarrhoeal episodes annually and around 1,60,000 deaths, with a third of these associated with children under five years of age.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://theprint.in/health/icmr-back-in-race-to-offer-worlds-1st-vaccine-for-deadly-shigella-to-tie-up-with-indian-manufacturer/2170297/
Consider the following statements regarding Quantum Navigation:
- It focuses on the movement of a single atom tracked under superheated conditions.
- It is more susceptible to accidental and deliberate outages when compared to global navigation satellite systems (GNSS).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The United Kingdom recently carried out two separate quantum navigation tests, one aboard a Royal Navy ship and another on a small jet plane.
About Quantum Navigation:
Where satellite navigation relies on the signal bouncing back from space, quantum navigation focuses on the movement of a single atom tracked under cryogenic conditions.
Instead of a satellite floating in space, a quantum navigation system is within each individual vehicle, with measurements being made “at point of use”.
This means the signal “doesn’t drift”, making interception much harder to achieve.
Global navigation satellite systems (GNSS) like GPS are susceptible to accidental and deliberate outages, whereas quantum navigation is ‘unjammable’.
But quantum navigation systems are unlikely to replace GNSSs anytime soon.
This is because ultra-cold atoms are needed to achieve quantum navigation, and the equipment is currently sizable.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://theprint.in/tech/whats-quantum-navigation-it-could-even-replace-gps/2171300/
Consider the following statements regarding the Mahabodhi Temple Complex, a UNESCO World Heritage Site:
- It is a holy site related to the life of the Lord Buddha located in Sarnath, Uttar Pradesh.
- The first temple at the complex was built by Emperor Kanishka in the 3rd century B.C.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
A geospatial analysis utilising satellite images and ground surveys has found evidence of the presence of “huge architectural wealth” buried in the Mahabodhi temple complex and its surroundings in Bihar’s Bodh Gaya.
About Mahabodhi Temple Complex:
It is one of the four holy sites related to the life of the Lord Buddha, marking the spot of the Buddha’s Enlightenment (Bodhi).
It is located in Bodh Gaya, in central Bihar, on the banks of the Niranjana River.
It is one of the few surviving examples of early brick structures in India.
The first temple was built by Emperor Asoka in the 3rd century B.C., and the present temple dates from the 5th or 6th centuries.
It is one of the earliest Buddhist temples built entirely in brick, still standing from the late Gupta period, and it is considered to have had a significant influence in the development of brick architecture over the centuries.
The sculpted stone balustrades are an outstanding early example of sculptural reliefs in stone.
It was recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2002.
Features:
The present Temple Complex comprises the 50-meter-high grand Temple, six sacred places within an enclosed area, and a seventh one, the Lotus Pond, just outside the enclosure to the south.
The most important of the sacred places is the giant Bodhi Tree. This tree is to the west of the main temple and is supposed to be a direct descendant of the original Bodhi Tree,under which the Buddha had his enlightenment.
Ashoka’s stone slab purporting to mark the exact position where the Buddha sat is traditionally called the Buddha’s vajrasana (literally “diamond throne” or “thunder seat”).
The grand temple’s pyramidal shikhara (tower) comprises several layers of niches, arch motifs, and fine engravings.
Four towers, each identical to its central counterpart but smaller in size and topped with an umbrella-like dome, adorn the corners of the two-story structure.
A shrine inside the temple holds a yellow sandstone statue of the Buddha encased in glass.
The 4.8-hectare (11.9-acre) complex also includes ancient shrines and modern structures built by Buddhist devotees.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/satellite-images-suggest-architectural-wealth-beneath-mahabodhi-temple-in-bodh-gaya-officials/article68399725.ece
The Asur Community lives primarily in which one of the following State?
Jharkhand
Explanation :
The Asur community, a particularly vulnerable tribal group (PVTG), residing in the Netarhat plateau region of Gumla, will soon receive benefits under the Forest Rights Act (FRA), the Gumla district administration said recently.
About Asur Community:
The Asurs are a very small Austro-Asiatic ethnic group living primarily in the Indian state of Jharkhand, mostly in the Gumla, Lohardaga, Palamu, and Latehar districts.
A small minority lives in the neighbouring states.
They are included in the list of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
As per the 2011 census, the tribe has a population of around 23,000.
They speak the Asur language, which belongs to the Munda family of Austro-asiatic languages.
Occupations:
Asurs are traditionally iron-smelters.
They were once hunter-gatherers, having also been involved in shifting agriculture. However, the majority of them shifted into agriculture, with 91.19 percent enlisted as cultivators in the 2011 census.
Their indigenous technology of iron smelting gives them a distinct identity, as they claim to have descended from the ancient Asuras, who were associated with the art of metal craft.
When smelting, the Asur women sing a song relating the furnace to an expectant mother, encouraging the furnace to give a healthy baby, i.e., good quality and quantity of iron from the ore, and were thence, according to Bera, associated with the fertility cult.
But nowadays, a major section of the population is also attached with mining work.
Society:
The Asur society is divided into 12 clans. These Asur clans are named after different animals, birds, and food grains.
Family is the second-most prominent institution after the clan.
They have their own community council (jati panch) where disputes are settled.
They maintain putative kinship ties with Kharwar, Munda, and other neighbouring tribes.
Except for the burial site, they share all other public spaces with their neighbours.
Traditional male clothing is dhoti, while females wear tattoo marks (depicting totemic objects) upon their bodies as ornaments.
The Asur follow the rule of monogamy, but in cases of barrenness, widower and widow hood, they follow the rule of bigamy or even Polygamy. At the time of marriage, they follow the rule of tribe endogamy.
Religion: The Asur religion is a mixture of animism, animatism, naturalism, and ancestral worships.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/ranchi/asur-tribes-in-netarhat-to-receive-forest-land-rights-in-gumla/articleshow/111722221.cms
Upper Siang Hydropower Project, is a proposed hydropower project, located in which one of the following states?
Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation :
Locals are protesting against the Upper Siang hydropower project in Arunachal Pradesh.
About Upper Siang Hydropower Project:
It is a proposed 11,000-megawatt hydropower project on the Siang River in the Upper Siang district of Arunachal Pradesh.
The Brahmaputra River, which in Arunachal Pradesh is known as the Siang River.
The area is predominantly inhabited by the Adi tribe of Arunachal Pradesh.
The National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC) and the North Eastern Electric Power Corporation (NEEPCO) have jointly been assigned the task of construction of this project.
On 30 December 2022, NHPC submitted a pre-feasibility report of the Project, according to which the installed capacity of the project would be 11,000 MW, the reservoir would have a storage capacity of 9 billion cubic metres (BCM), and the estimated cost of the project would be around Rs. 1,13,000 crores.
It is seen as a strategic move to counter China’s hydel projects on the Yarlung Zangbo (Brahmaputra) River, particularly a 60,000 MW ‘super dam’ in Tibet’s Medog county.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/why-are-locals-protesting-against-a-mega-dam-project-in-arunachal-pradesh-9445669/
What is the primary purpose of NASA’s CHAPEA Project, recently seen in the news?
To simulate year-long stays on the surface of Mars
Explanation :
After a year-long simulated Mars mission as part of the CHAPEA project, a Nasa crew emerged from their 17,000 sq ft habitat at Johnson Space Centre.
About NASA’s CHAPEA Project:
Crew Health and Performance Exploration Analog (CHAPEA) is a series of analog missions conducted by NASA that will simulate year-long stays on the surface of Mars.
It aims to assess and collect data regarding NASA’s food system and physical and behavioral health patterns in humans, which will help during future space missions.
Each mission will consist of four crew members living in Mars Dune Alpha, an isolated 1,700-square-foot habitat.
Mars Dune Alpha is a 3D-printed structure located at Johnson Space Center in Houston, Texas.
It simulates a realistic Mars habitat to support long-duration, exploration-class space missions.
Mars Dune Alpha features include:
Four private crew quarters
Dedicated workstations
Dedicated medical station
Common lounge areas
Galley and food-growing stations
The analog mission will be as Mars-realistic as feasible, which may include environmental stressors such as resource limitations, isolation, equipment failure, and significant workloads.
During the mission, the crew will conduct simulated spacewalks and provide data on a variety of factors, which may include physical and behavioral health and performance.
After the successful completion of this mission recently, two more are scheduled for 2025 and 2026.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/science/wonderful-to-say-hello-nasa-crew-emerge-after-year-long-mars-simulation/articleshow/111555489.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Indian Rosewood:
- It is mainly found growing along river banks.
- It is listed in Appendix II of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) has issued guidelines for its members involved in the sustainable harvest and trade of rosewood specimens.
Rosewood is a commercial term encompassing a wide range of tropical hardwoods in the Fabaceae (Leguminosae) family.
Distribution: It is native to South-East Asia, Papua New Guinea, the Solomon Islands, Sabah, Philippines, Indonesia and Malaysia.
Indian Rosewood
Dalbergia sissoo (North Indian rosewood)
It is a fast-growing, hardy, deciduous crooked rosewood tree is native to the foothills of the Himalayas, ranging from Afghanistan in the west to Bihar, India, in the east.
It has long, leathery leaves and whitish or pink flowers.
It is primarily found growing along river banks above 200 m (700 ft) elevation, but can range naturally up to 1,400 m (4,600 ft).
Dalbergia latifolia (East Indian Rosewood)
Common names: East Indian Rosewood, Black Rosewood, Bombay Black wood, Indonesian Rosewood, Malabar rosewood.
Habitat: Tropical dry deciduous forests, Tropical moist deciduous forests, also in the plains.
Distribution: India, Nepal, Andaman Islands (India), Malay peninsula, Indonesia, Himalayas, China, Malaysia
It is commonly used for furniture, musical instruments, decorative items and veneers.
Conservation status: Currently, these species are listed in Appendix II of the CITES list.
Key facts about CITES
It is an international agreement between governments that aims to ensure that international trade in wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival.
CITES was adopted in 1973 and entered into force in 1975.
Member countries: There are 184 member parties, and trade is regulated in more than 38,000 species.
Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties – in other words, they have to implement the Convention–it does not take the place of national laws.
Secretariat: It is administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/cites-defines-guidelines-on-trade-of-rosewood-species
Consider the following statements regarding the e-office Platform:
- It aims to streamline operations and enhance efficiency across identified government offices.
- The Union Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions is the nodal ministry of this initiative.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
As part of its 100-day agenda, the Government of India has unveiled a plan to implement the e-office platform across 133 attached, subordinate offices, and autonomous bodies.
It aims to streamline operations and enhance efficiency across 133 identified offices.
This initiative is spearheaded by the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions.
Implementation by: The National Informatics Centre (NIC) to be the knowledge partner for implementation of e-Office.
The key components of eOffice are as follows.
File Management System (eFile): It is a workflow-based system that extends the features of existing manual handling of files in addition to a more efficient electronic system.
Knowledge Management System (KMS): It brought the concept of a central repository of documents in an organization. It provides for users to create and manage electronic documents in the workflow, along with versions (tracking history) that can be easily viewed, searched.
Work from Anywhere (WAW) Portal: A gateway for virtual office from anywhere is a one stop-portal for office functions and connects the officials to securely access their office from anywhere.
Smart Performance Appraisal Report Recording Online Window (SPARROW): It is a web-based application for processing of APAR. Employees can fill in their APAR, which is further reported and reviewed by the official hierarchy.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://theprint.in/economy/ministry-of-personnel-public-grievances-pensions-announces-e-office-rollout-to-133-offices/2170049/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Chromium:
- It is a naturally occurring element found in rocks, animals and plants.
- It is unstable in oxygen.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the National Green Tribunal (NGT) ordered the Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) to investigate the chromium contamination of groundwater in the Sukinda Valley of Odisha’s Jajpur district and file its affidavit within the next four weeks.
It is a naturally occurring element found in rocks, animals, plants, soil, and in volcanic dust and gases.
It is a very hard gray solid with a metallic luster.
There are two forms: trivalent chromium, which is safe for humans, and hexavalent chromium, which is a toxin.
Properties
It does not tarnish in air, when heated it borns and forms the green chromic oxide.
Chromium is unstable in oxygen, it immediately produces a thin oxide layer that is impermeable to oxygen and protects the metal below.
Applications
Chromium use in iron, steel, and nonferrous alloys enhances hardenability and resistance to corrosion and oxidation.
The use of chromium to produce stainless steel and nonferrous alloys are two of its more important applications.
Other applications are in alloy steel, plating of metals, pigments, leather processing, catalysts, surface treatments, and refractories.
Where is Sukinda Valley?
It is in the State of Orissa.
It contains 97% of India’s chromite ore deposits and one of the largest open cast chromite ore mines in the world.
Approximately 70% of the surface water and 60% of the drinking water contains hexavalent chromium.
The Brahmani River is the only water source for the residents and treatment facilities are extremely limited.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/pollution/get-clean-water-for-sukinda-valley-residents-ngt-orders-odisha-government
Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary, is located in:
Ladakh
Explanation :
As the summer rush peaks in July, a conservationist looks at how rash development and irresponsible tourism are threatening Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary’s unique animals and environment.
It is located in the Ladakhi Changthang plateau in the Leh district of Jammu and Kashmir.
It covers an area of almost 1,600 sq. km and is home to the highest altitude water lakes, namely, Tso Moriri (which also happens to be the highest lake on earth), Pangong Tso and Tso Kar.
The Changthang region is inhabited by nomadic pastoral communities, primarily the Changpa tribe, who lead a traditional way of life herding yaks, goats, and sheep across the vast grasslands.
This region is steeped in Tibetan Buddhist culture and heritage.
It includes one of the world’s highest villages, Korzok Village, which attracts tourists to the Korzok Monastery.
Fauna: Tibetan wolf, wild yak, bharal, brown bear and the mormot that seems to be present everywhere.
Flora: It is home to almost 200 species of wild plants that grow in the higher pastures and are food for the animals inside the sanctuary.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/ladakh-changthang-wildlife-sanctuary-conservation-tsewang-namgail-snow-leopard-tourism/article68384267.ece
Kharchi Puja, is celebrated in which one of the following states?
Tripura
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India wished everyone, particularly the people of Tripura, on the occasion of Kharchi Puja.
It is one of the main festivals of Tripura.
It is performed during the months of July-August on the eighth day of the new moon.
The meaning of Kharchi can be understood by splitting the word into two Tripuri words “Khar” or Kharta meaning sin and “Chi” or si meaning cleaning. Hence it signifies the cleansing of our sins.
It occurs during the month of ‘Ashad’ on the ‘Shukla Ashtami’ day.
The fourteen Gods are worshipped by the Royal priest ‘Chantai.
It lasts for seven days and it takes place at old Agartala in the Fourteen Gods temple known as the ‘Chaturdasha Devata’ temple premises.
The Kharchi Puja deities do not have a full body; they have only heads which are worshipped.
On the day of the puja, the fourteen Gods are taken from the temple to the river Saidra by the Chantai members and given bathe with the holy river water, then carried back to the temple.
This festival’s customs are completely related to the authentic Tripuri traditions.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2033074
Consider the following statements regarding the Bagmati River:
- It originates in the Kathmandu Valley, Nepal.
- After crossing into Bihar, the Bagmati River flows into the Brahmaputra River.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Flood situations have emerged in Bihar’s Muzaffarpur area as water level of Bagmati River has risen.
About Bagmati River:
It is a river in south-central Nepal and northern Bihar state, India.
It is considered holy by both Hindus and Buddhists.
Course:
It originates from the Bagdwar area in the Shivapuri Hills, located in the northwestern part of Kathmandu Valley, central Nepal, at an elevation of around 2,690 metres (8825 feet) above sea level.
It is fed by springs and monsoon rainfall and a number of tributaries as it flows down from the Kathmandu valley floor and passes through the valley at Chovar.
It flows southward through the Shivalik Range, the southernmost range of the Himalayas.
It continues across the plains of Tarai into Bihar and then flows southeastward to enter the Burhi (“Old”) Gandak River after a course of 225 miles (360 km).
The basin transacts three distinct latitudinal physiographic zones (Mountain, Siwalik, and Terai) of the Nepal Himalayas.
Temples:The banks of this holy river shelter various temples.
The temple of Pashupatinath (a UNESCO World Heritage Site) is nestled on an outcrop above the river north of Kathmandu. It is regarded as one of the holy places of Hinduism.
Gokarneswor temple, located in the north of the Kathmandu Valley, is also an important holy shrine.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.ndtv.com/video/flood-situation-in-bihar-s-muzaffarpur-after-bagmati-river-s-water-level-rises-814427
The National Geophysical Research Institute (NGRI) is located in which one of the following cities?
Hyderabad
Explanation :
A team of scientists from the National Geophysical Research Institute (NGRI) has made a new discovery that sheds light on the ancient connection between the Indian subcontinent and Antarctica.
About National Geophysical Research Institute (NGRI):
NGRI, a constituent research laboratory of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), was established in 1961.
Mission: To carry out research in multidisciplinary areas of the highly complex structure and processes of the Earth system and its extensively interlinked subsystems.
Location: Hyderabad, Telangana
NGRI has the mandate to conduct research for public-good science to enable government agencies, public and private sector stakeholders to make informed decisions about the use of geo-resources sustainably and improve preparedness and resilience to natural hazards.
The research activities fall broadly under three themes:
Geodynamics, which revolves around investigating and modeling fundamental aspects of the Earth system and processes.
Earthquake Hazards, which encompass features on the surface and subsurface of the crust which may potentially endanger lives and properties through catastrophes like earthquakes and landslides, as well as deterioration in pollution levels of groundwater and soil, changes in climatic conditions, and associated environmental issues.
Natural Resources, which comprise the implementation of techniques to identify primary geo-resources, which are the pillars of human civilization and fount of economic growth, like groundwater, hydrocarbons, as well as alternative energy sources and minerals.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/hyderabad/ngri-scientists-uncover-geological-connection-between-india-and-antarctica/articleshow/111739086.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Syphilis:
- It is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by a virus.
- It is treatable and curable, especially in the early stages.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Improved testing has led to the detection of over 6,000 cases of syphilis, a sexually transmitted disease primarily linked to unsafe sex, according to data from the Mumbai AIDS Control Society (MDACS) between 2018-19 and 2022-23.
About Syphilis:
It is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can cause serious health problems if you do not treat it.
It is caused by the bacteria, Treponema pallidum.
After the infection happens, syphilis bacteria can stay in the body for many years without causing symptoms. But the infection can become active again.
Transmission:
People usually get syphilis from sexual contact with someone who has it.
It can also pass from mother to baby during pregnancy, childbirth, and sometimes through breastfeeding.
Symptoms:
Syphilis develops in stages. The symptoms vary with each stage and is often painless.
The disease starts as a sore that’s often painless and typically appears on the genitals, rectum, or mouth.
Sometimes it causes swelling in nearby lymph nodes.
If you do not treat it, syphilis usually causes a non-itchy skin rash, often on your hands and feet.
Many people do not notice symptoms for years. Symptoms can go away and come back.
If left untreated, it can cause serious health issues. It can permanently damage your heart, brain, muscles, bones, and eyes.
Treatment:
Syphilis is treatable and curable. It is easy to cure with antibiotics, especially during the early stages.
Penicillin is the most commonly used medication for syphilis.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/mumbai/syphilis-mumbai-testing-9451801/
Consider the following statements:
- It is a country located on the western coast of Africa.
- It achieved independence from Britain in 1960.
- It is also Africa’s most populous country.
The above statements correctly describe which one of the following countries?
Nigeria
Explanation :
A two-story school collapsed recently in north-central Nigeria, killing 22 students and sending rescuers on a frantic search for more than 100 people trapped in the rubble.
About Nigeria:
It is a country located on the western coast of Africa. It is often called the “Giant of Africa.”
Boundaries:It is bordered to the north by Niger, to the east by Chad and Cameroon, to the south by the Gulf of Guinea of the Atlantic Ocean, and to the west by Benin.
It achieved independence from Britain in 1960.
It covers an area of around 9.24 lakh square kilometres.
It is also Africa’s most populous country.
Capital: Abuja
Language: English is Nigeria’s official language, although many local languages such as Hausa, Yoruba, Igbo, and Ijaw are also spoken.
Money: Naira
Nigeria has a diverse geography, with climates ranging from arid to humid equatorial.
Drainage:
The major drainage areas in Nigeria are the Niger-Benue basin, the Lake Chad basin, and the Gulf of Guinea basin.
The Niger River, for which the country is named, and the Benue, its largest tributary, are the principal rivers.
Major Mountain Range: Cameroonian Highlands
The country has abundant natural resources, notably large deposits of petroleum and natural gas.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/world/collapse-school-northern-nigeria-22-dead-9450475/
Manjeera Wildlife Sanctuary, recently seen in the news, is located in which one of the following states?
Telangana
Explanation :
The Manjeera wildlife sanctuary in Telangana is undergoing a study to potentially become the state’s first Ramsar site.
About Manjeera Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is a wildlife sanctuary and a reservoir located in the Medak district of Telangana.
Originally a crocodile sanctuary, today more than 70 species of birds are spotted here, and is home to the vulnerable species of mugger crocodile.
The sanctuary follows the course of river Manjeera, a tributary of Godavari, and abuts the Manjeera reservoir.
It is a man-made reservoir that provides water for irrigation and also drinking water for the twin cities of Hyderabad and Secunderabad.
The reservoir has nine small islands. These islands contain extensive marshy fringes, which act as nesting sites for waterbirds. Additionally, thick cover of trees also provides nesting spots for birds.
Vegetation: Dry Savannah type of vegetation is found in the sanctuary. The reservoir supports both submergent and emergent types of vegetation.
Flora: Being a freshwater ecosystem, the sanctuary is home to many plant species likeTypha, Babool, Prosopis, Ipomoea and Acacia Ipomea, Vallisneria, Eichhornia, and Reeds, among others.
Fauna:
The sanctuary is a riverine habitat supporting mugger crocodile and fresh water turtles.
The sanctuary is home to prawns, molluscs, and fishes like catla, rohu, murrel, eel, karugu, and chidwa.
The Indian hare, wild boar, mongoose, and jackal are also present.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/hyderabad/hidden-gem-manjeera-wildlife-sanctuary-in-sangareddy-might-become-telanganas-first-ramsar-site/articleshow/111502507.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Wolbachia bacteria:
- It is commonly found in butterflies and bees.
- It cannot make people or animals sick.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers from Shenyang Agricultural University (SAU), China, published a paper in the journal Current Biology showing that Wolbachia bacteria had manipulated the wasp Encarsia formosa to entirely get rid of its males.
It is a common type of bacteria found in insects.
Approximately 6 in 10 of all insects, including butterflies, bees, and beetles, around the world have Wolbachia.
Wolbachia bacteria cannot make people or animals (for example, fish, birds, pets) sick.
Key facts about Encarsia formosa
These are of interest to agricultural scientists because they provide an efficient way to control whiteflies.
Whiteflies feed on the sap of plant leaves, causing productivity losses, and are thus a major agricultural pest.
Whiteflies belong to the insect order Hemiptera whereas wasps belong to the insect order Hymenoptera.
The wasp seeks out the nymphs (or larvae) of whiteflies and lays its eggs on them. When the eggs hatch, the larvae that emerge penetrate the nymph, feed on its tissues, grow to adulthood, and in the process kill the nymph.
The progeny wasps emerge from the nymph’s carcass. As a parasitoid of whiteflies, the female wasp is in effect a search and destroy weapon. The male wasps are superfluous to this role.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/scientists-found-a-bacteria-tricked-a-wasp-to-get-rid-of-its-males/article68403072.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the e-FAST India initiative:
- It aims to transition towards cleaner and greener freight transportation.
- It facilitates deliberation, debates and collaboration between different stakeholders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, NITI Aayog has announced the launch of the ‘NITI GearShift Challenge’ as part of the e-FAST India initiative.
e-FAST was born from the recognition of the urgent need to decarbonize road-based freight transportation in India to realize its 2070 net zero commitments.
It was launched in September 2022.
It aims to galvanize the transition towards cleaner and greener freight transportation.
The platform facilitates active collaborations at both the national and international levels, supports ideation and development of pilot programs on a scalable basis, and explores technology integration and associated research.
It is a platform that facilitates deliberation, debates and collaboration between different stakeholders including the government, Original Equipment Manufacturers, Logistics Service Providers, Shippers, and industry experts to enable the development and adoption of electric technology in the freight sector at scale.
It is supported by the collaborative efforts of 12 knowledge partners.
What is NITI GearShift Challenge?
It was launched by NITI in collaboration with IIM Bangalore, Smart Freight Centre India, CALSTART/Drive to Zero, and WRI India.
This pioneering hackathon aims to foster innovative business models for the adoption of zero-emission trucks (ZETs) in India, addressing the nation’s pressing economic and environmental challenges.
The NITI GearShift Challenge invites students, transport service practitioners, academics, and researchers to develop innovative business models that address financial, technical, and operational challenges in the adoption of electric trucks.
The program has garnered participation from e-FAST India knowledge partners, financial institutions, and industry forums.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/niti-aayog-launches-niti-gearshift-challenge-as-part-of-e-fast-india-initiative/#:~:text=NITI%20Aayog%20has%20announced%20the,pressing%20economic%20and%20environmental%20challenges
Which of the following best describes Chaperones, recently seen in the news?
These are groups of proteins which assist in protein folding.
Explanation :
A team at the S.N. Bose National Centre for Basic Sciences is using a Covalent Magnetic Tweezer (CMT) fabricated in their lab, to study physical and chemical properties of protein molecules and action of chaperones on how these molecules fold and function.
Chaperones are a group of proteins that have functional similarity and assist in protein folding.
They are proteins that have the ability to prevent non-specific aggregation by binding to non-native proteins.
After the new protein chain has been shaped correctly, chaperones move on. Or else the new chain is eliminated.
Without chaperones, newly synthesised proteins would soon become a tangled mess of insoluble aggregates, hindering cellular processes.
Chaperones are needed under physiological conditions too, for normal cellular function.
There are several families of chaperones and each possesses different functions. Examples of chaperon proteins are the “heat shock proteins” (Hsps).
Major chaperones in humans include HSP70, HSC70 and HSP90: the numbers express the size of the proteins in kilodaltons.
In normal cells 1%–2% of all proteins present are heat shock proteins. This number rises threefold during stressful conditions.
Misfolding of proteins can cause a number of diseases namely:
Parkinson’s disease: In which Alpha-synuclein protein, present in neurons, is wrongly folded.
Alzheimer: Brains of Alzheimer’s patients have plaques formed from aggregates of amyloid beta-peptide. This accumulation of amyloid fibrils is toxic, leading to widespread destruction of neurons – a ‘neurodegenerative’ disorder.
Autosomal dominant congenital cataract: In the eye lens, an abundant subset of proteins called alpha-crystallins themselves serve as chaperones – a single R116G mutation in human alpha crystallin is responsible for this.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2032814
Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian flapshell turtle:
- It is an omnivorous and freshwater turtle species.
- It is generally active during night time only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The scientists at the Indian Veterinary Research Institute (IVRI) on a mission to save an Indian flapshell turtle, whose shell cracked after an accident.
It is a freshwater species of turtle found in South Asia.
The “flap-shelled” name stems from the presence of femoral flaps located on the plastron. These flaps of skin cover the limbs when they retract into the shell.
It is morphologically an evolutionary link between the softshell and hardshell aquatic turtles.
Habitat: They live in the shallow, quiet, often stagnant waters of rivers, streams, marshes, ponds, lakes and irrigation canals, and tanks.
These turtles prefer waters with sand or mud bottoms because of their tendency to burrow.
Distribution: They are mainly found in Pakistan, India, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bangladesh (Indus and Ganges drainages), and Myanmar (Irrawaddy and Salween Rivers).
Lifestyle:
They are omnivores.
They are generally solitary and active during the day. They are very well adapted, both morphologically and behaviorally, to drought conditions.
Conservation status
IUCN Red list: Vulnerable
CITES: Appendix I
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://theprint.in/india/ivri-scientists-on-mission-to-save-turtle-with-cracked-shell-in-ups-bareilly/2168676/
Consider the following statements with reference to the SIM swapping scam:
- In this, fraudsters are able to obtain passwords and OTPs that allow them to access their targets’ bank accounts.
- In this scam, fraudsters always require direct communication with the victims.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Google Fi wireless has introduced a security feature called ‘Number Lock’. This new feature empowers users to take control and prevent a growing cybersecurity threat – SIM swapping.
It occurs when a malicious actor convinces your carrier to transfer your phone number to a new SIM card in their possession.
This can grant them access to your calls, texts, two-factor authentication codes, and potentially even financial accounts linked to your number.
Modus operanadi: In the SIM swap scam, fraudsters first take personal details such as phone numbers, bank account details, and addresses with the help of phishing or vishing.
After receiving the personal information, fraudsters visit the mobile operator’s retail outlet, posing as the victim with a forged ID proof, and report a fake theft of the victim’s SIM card and/or mobile phone.
By doing this, they attain a duplicate SIM.
Notably, scamsters can get a duplicate SIM even when the original is working, as they reported a theft of the original SIM card.
Unlike other scams, where scamsters trick people into giving OTPs and private information on a phone call, the SIM swap scam doesn’t require direct communication with the victims.
However, fraudsters do give missed calls to their victims so that the latter leave their phones and ignore the lost network connectivity.
When the SIM is swapped, the accused gains control of the entire SIM. All calls and messages go through their SIM only.
Once in control of the SIM card, they are able to obtain passwords and OTPs that allow them to access their targets’ bank accounts
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/one-tech-tip-protecting-yourself-against-sim-
Vishalgad Fort, recently seen in the news, lies in which one of the following states?
Maharashtra
Explanation :
The anti-encroachment drive at Vishalgad Fort took an ugly turn recently after miscreants resorted to violence, roughed up the local shopkeepers, and pelted stones at policemen on duty at the fort premises.
About Vishalgad Fort:
It is an ancient fort situated at Vishalgad village in Kolhapur district of Maharashtra.
Also called Khelna or Khilna by the locals, Vishalgad Fort was one of the important forts of the Maratha Empire.
History:
It was built in 1058 by Shilahara king Marsinh and was initially known as Khilgil.
In 1209, the then king of Seuna Yadavas of Devagiri defeated Shilaharas and captured the fort.
In 1309, Allauddin Khilji defeated King Ramchandra of the Seuna Yadavas of Devagiri, and soon the fort was attached to the Khilji dynasty.
Later, the fort was under the rule of the Vijayanagar Empire, and then the Adil Shahi dynasty.
In 1659, Shivaji captured the fort from Adilshah and renamed the fort ‘Vishalgad’ which means grand or giant fort.
During the times of the Maratha Empire, Vishalgad was made the capital of a large region consisting of ninety towns and villages in Kolhapur and Ratnagiri districts.
Features:
The structure covers an area of 1130 m and was built on a hilltop in the Sahyadri mountain ranges at a height of 3500 feet above sea level.
The famous Dargah of Hazrat Sayed Malik Rehan Meera Saheb, which is visited by thousands of tourists, is located in the fort.
Some of the temples inside the complex are Amruteshwar Temple, Shri Nrusinha Temple, and Sati`s Vrindavan.
The fortress also includes tombs dedicated to Phulaji Prabhu Deshpande and Baji Prabhu Deshpande, who served under Chatrapati Shivaji.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/pune-news/antiencroachment-drive-at-vishalgad-fort-in-kolhapur-turns-violent-101720984045326.html
Consider the following statements regarding the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO):
- It was established by the Chicago Convention and is headquartered in Montreal, Canada.
- It sets standards and regulations necessary for aviation safety, security, efficiency, and regularity, as well as for aviation environmental protection.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India is set to host the second Asia Pacific (APAC) ministerial conference on civil aviation, which will be jointly organised by the Indian government and the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) APAC.
About International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO):
ICAO is an intergovernmental specialized agency of the United Nations (UN).
It was established in 1947 by the Convention on International Civil Aviation (1944), known as the Chicago Convention.
Headquarters: Montreal, Canada
ICAO was created to promote the safe and orderly development of international civil aviation throughout the world.
It sets standards and regulations necessary for aviation safety, security, efficiency, and regularity, as well as for aviation environmental protection.
It serves as the forum for cooperation in all fields of civil aviation among its 193 member states.
The organization also promotes regional and international agreements aimed at liberalizing aviation markets and helps establish legal standards.
It has several component bodies:
an Assembly of delegates from all member countries that meets every three years
a Council of representatives from 36 member states, elected by and responsible to the Assembly, that sits in continuous session at ICAO headquarters
an Air Navigation Commission appointed by the Council for addressing technical matters, and
various standing committees, including a Committee on Joint Support of Air Navigation Services and a Finance Committee.
The ICAO’s Secretariat is headed by a secretary-general selected by the Council for a three-year term.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://infra.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/aviation/india-to-host-2nd-asia-pacific-ministerial-conference-on-civil-aviation-in-sept/111768818
Consider the following statements regarding the APSTAR-6E Satellite, recently seen in the news:
- It is NASA’s first all-electric propulsion communication satellite.
- It operates in geostationary orbit to deliver efficient and high-capacity broadband communication services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
China’s APSTAR-6E satellite has officially begun operating after successfully passing technical reviews both in orbit and on the ground in Hong Kong.
About APSTAR-6E Satellite:
It is China’s first all-electric propulsion communication satellite.
Developed by the China Aerospace Science and Technology Corporation (CASC), this satellite operates in geostationary orbit.
Launched via a Long March-2C rocket from the Xichang Satellite Launch Center on January 13, 2023, APSTAR-6E completed its journey to geostationary orbit after separating from its independent propulsion module.
As the first in its series, APSTAR-6E holds the distinction of being the world’s initial telecommunication satellite to autonomously transfer from low Earth orbit to geostationary orbit using electric propulsion, marking a significant technological achievement.
It is designed to last 15 years.
Its primary mission is to deliver efficient and high-capacity broadband communication services across Southeast Asia, aiming to provide reliable connectivity at a competitive cost.
It carries 25 Ku-band transponders and three Ka-band gateway transponders that can provide a combined communication throughput of 30 gigabytes per second.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.newsx.com/world/chinas-apstar-6e-sets-milestone-as-first-all-electric-telecom-satellite-in-service/
Consider the following statements regarding Yellow-Legged Buttonquail:
- It is a small bird species endemic to Western Ghats of India.
- It is classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
An elusive and an uncommon breeding migrant bird Yellow legged Buttonquail bird was recently spotted in urban areas of Bopal-Ghuma in Ahmedabad city.
About Yellow-Legged Buttonquail:
It is a small bird species that belongs to the family Turnicidae.
Scientific Name: Turnix tanki
Distribution:
This species is native to a variety of habitats across the Indian subcontinent, East Asia, and Southeast Asia, adapting well to the local environments.
It has two subspecies: T. t. tanki in Pakistan, India, Nepal, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands; and T. t. blanfordii in Myanmar, Indochina, and eastern China.
It also migrates to the Korean peninsula and parts of southeast Russia.
Features:
It measures approximately 16 to 18 centimeters in length and weighs around 50 to 60 grams. The female birds are larger than the males.
This species has a plump and rounded shape, giving it a somewhat compact and stocky appearance.
Its body is covered in a combination of vibrant colors, including shades of brown, gray, and black, which aid in its camouflage within its natural habitat.
The feathers on its upper body are predominantly brown with intricate patterns, while the underparts are lighter in color, often displaying a mix of gray and white tones.
One of the most striking features is its vibrant yellow legs, which give the species its name.
A ground-dwelling bird, it typically opts to run rather than fly when faced with danger.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://animalinformation.com/animal/yellow-legged-buttonquail/
With reference to the UK-India Young Professionals Scheme, consider the following statements:
- It allows degree-holding Indian citizens between 18 and 30 years old to live and work in the UK for up to five years.
- It will enable candidates to enter the UK at any time while their visa is valid and leave and return anytime during their stay.
- A person must be selected in the India Young Professionals Scheme ballot before they can apply for a Young Professionals Scheme visa.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The UK Home Office has unveiled details for the second and final ballot of 2024 under the India Young Professional Scheme.
About Young Professional Scheme:
It was conceived as part of an India-U.K. Migration and Mobility MoU signed in May 2021 and was announced in November at the G20 summit in Bali.
It was formally launched in February 2023.
It will permit up to 3,000 of their degree-holding citizens aged between 18 and 30 to live and work in each other’s countries for two years.
This scheme makes India the first visa-national country to benefit from the scheme.
Features of India Young Professionals Scheme visa:
It allowsIndian citizens between 18 and 30 years old to live and work in the UK for up to 2 years.
It will enable candidates to enter the UK at any time while their visa is valid and leave and return anytime during their stay.
To be eligible for the India Young Professionals Scheme visa,
You have to be an Indian national aged between 18 and 30 years.
You must have a bachelor’s degree or above.
You must have 2,530 pounds in savings.
You must not have any children under the age of 18 who live with you or whom you are financially supporting.
A person must be selected in the India Young Professionals Scheme ballot before they can apply for a Young Professionals Scheme visa.
You cannot apply if you’ve already been in the UK under this scheme or the Youth Mobility Scheme visa.
In case the applicant is issued a visa, they must enter the UK within six months of the date on which the visa was issued.
Once in the UK, the applicant can:
Study -for certain degree programs, such as post-graduation or research in sensitive subjects in the UK, an additional certificate under the Academic Technology Approval Scheme (ATAS) needs to be applied before starting the course or research.
Work in most jobs.
Be self-employed and set up a company - as long as your premises are rented, your equipment is not worth more than £5,000 and you do not have any employees.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/nri/work/uk-announces-second-ballot-for-india-young-professional-scheme-2024/articleshow/111752782.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements with reference to the World Heritage Young Professionals Forum:
- It serves as a platform for young people and heritage experts to foster intercultural learning and exchange.
- It aims to integrate innovative technologies for the promotion of World Heritage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
As an integral part of the 46th session of the World Heritage Committee, and in the framework of the UNESCO World Heritage Education Programme, the Ministry of Culture is hosting the 2024 World Heritage Young Professionals Forum.
It serves as a platform by bringing young people and heritage experts together to foster intercultural learning and exchange.
It also provides an opportunity for the youth to meet and learn about each other’s heritage, discuss common concerns in preservation and discover new roles for themselves in heritage conservation.
Each Forum is focused on a specific topic linked to World Heritage and aligned with the context of the World Heritage properties of the Host Country.
It is joined by both local and international experts, young professionals will engage in a diverse range of activities such as presentations, roundtable discussions, and site visits.
This collaborative approach aims to tackle various sub-themes, including:
Understanding the achievements and challenges of the World Heritage Convention
Climate change and its impact on World Heritage sites
Integrating innovative technologies for the promotion of World Heritage
Strengthening sustainable tourism and development through young entrepreneurship
Through discussions, they’ll acquire deep insights into global principles of World Heritage and Sustainable Development, alongside getting acquainted with the management of India’s local heritage.
Concluding the Forum, these young professionals will deliver their “Declaration to the 46th session of the World Heritage Committee”.
Hence both statements are correct.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2033506
Consider the following statements with reference to the U-WIN Portal:
- It aims to maintain an electronic registry of routine immunizations of only children aged 0-5 years.
- It generates a uniform QR-based, digitally verifiable e-vaccination certificate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The U-WIN portal, a replication of the Covid-19 vaccine management system Co-WIN, is set for a pan-India launch likely by the end of August.
It is aiming to maintain an electronic registry of routine immunizations.
Currently, U-WIN is in pilot mode across all states and Union Territories, except for West Bengal.
It captures every vaccination event for pregnant women and children under the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP).
It will ensure timely administration of vaccine doses by digitally recording every vaccination event under the Universal Immunisation Programme among all pregnant women and children aged 0-5 years.
Features
The platform generates a uniform QR-based, digitally verifiable e-vaccination certificate, similar to Covid vaccination certificate, which can be accessed anytime by the citizens through a single click.
The U-WIN is going to be the single source of information for immunisation services which will record pregnancy details and outcome, newborn registration and immunisation at birth.
It will update vaccination status, and delivery outcome, among others, in real time.
Citizens can self-register for vaccinations via the U-WIN web portal or its Android mobile application, select preferred vaccination centres, and schedule appointments.
Automated SMS alerts inform citizens about registration confirmations, administered doses, and upcoming dose reminders, ensuring timely and age-appropriate vaccinations.
It also facilitates the creation of Ayushman Bharat Health Account (ABHA) IDs for comprehensive health record maintenance.
It also supports the frontline workers to digitally record all vaccination events for children and pregnant women for complete, accurate and easy record maintenance.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/pan-india-rollout-of-u-win-to-track-routine-vaccinations-likely-by-aug-end-124071400270_1.html
Tirzepatide drug, recently in news, is advised for:
weight loss
Explanation :
Recently, in a first, an expert committee of India’s drug regulator gave the green light to the drug tirzepatide and India could soon allow ‘game-changing’ weight-loss drug tirzepatide.
These two weight loss drugs have been approved by the FDA for chronic weight management in adults.
Semaglutide and tirzepatide are polypeptides, small proteins that boost the levels of naturally-occurring hormones in the body, including that of glucagon-like-peptide 1 (GLP-1), which control weight through the brain and digestive tract.
Functioning
Higher GLP-1 levels, released in the gut, spark a reaction by stimulating neurons that alter gut function, leading to a sense of fullness.
This process also taps into a brain mechanism that lights up neural pathways, triggering the sensation of satiety — the feeling of being satisfied and having had enough to eat.
They also help manage glucose levels, making them an effective treatment for diabetes.
Semaglutide only targets GLP-1 receptors.
On the other hand, tirzepatide also boosts a second hormone: glucose-dependent insulinotropic polypeptide (GIP).
The GIP also regulates weight through receptors in brain and fat cells.
These drugs can be prescribed to those who are obese (with a body mass index of over 30), or overweight (with a BMI between 27 and 30), and have at least one other health condition related to their weight (such as high blood pressure, high cholesterol, or type 2 diabetes).
Side effects: Nausea, diarrhoea, vomiting, constipation, abdominal pain, indigestion, injection-site reactions, fatigue, allergic reactions, belching, hair loss, and heartburn.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-health/weight-loss-drug-tirzepatide-how-it-works-side-effects-9453479/
Consider the following statements regarding the Kashmiri willow:
- It is a deciduous tree grown in places with sufficient soil moisture.
- It exhibits high rates of evapotranspiration during the growing season.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Over the last few years, bats made of Kashmiri willow have been attracting global attention after making appearances in international games.
It is mainly grown in the Kashmir region of India.
It is a deciduous tree that can grow up to 30 meters (98 feet). It has slender trunks and a narrow, conical canopy and it takes 20 to 25 years to mature.
These trees do well in the region’s moist and temperate climate, especially along riverbanks and in places with sufficient soil moisture.
Characteristics of Willow
Willows exhibit superior growth and productivity due to their highest capacity to convert solar radiation into chemical energy.
The species exhibits high rates of evapotranspiration during the growing season.
Willows are tolerant to flooding and flourish in saturated soils with oxygen shortage in the root zone.
Willows exhibit an efficient ability to accumulate high levels of toxic metals, especially Cadmium (Cd).
Uses: Cricket bat industry, Packing case industry, Basketry and furniture industry etc.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/bats-made-of-kashmiri-willow-has-been-attracting-global-attention/article68403845.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the FishMIP initiative:
- It provides knowledge to industry and governments to support effective planning for adaptive and resilient seafood sectors.
- It is an initiative of the Food and Agriculture Organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The report produced by the Ecosystem Model Intercomparison Project (FishMIP) projects that exploitable fish biomass declined more than 10 per cent, particularly under the high-emissions scenario, by mid-century for many regions of the world.
The Fisheries and Marine Ecosystem Model Intercomparison Project (FishMIP) was officially launched in 2013.
It provides knowledge to industry and governments to support effective planning for adaptive and resilient seafood sectors under climate change.
It has a network of more than 100 marine ecosystem modellers and researchers from around the world. It is not an initiative of the Food and Agriculture Organization.
The FishMIP and Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) collaborated to understand the long-term impacts of climate change on marine ecosystems and fisheries through a set of state-of-the-art numerical models.
In 2024, FishMIP2.0 was established to increase the reliability of modelling projections and to answer a broader set of policy-related questions relevant to food security and marine resource management, with climate change remaining the overarching theme.
Key facts about Food and Agriculture Organization
It is a specialized agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger and improve nutrition and food security.
Its goal is to achieve food security for all and make sure that people have regular access to enough high-quality food to lead active, healthy lives.
Member countries: With 195 members - 194 countries and the European Union.
Its sister bodies are the World Food Programme (WFP) and the International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD).
Reports published by the FAO: The State of the World’s Forests (SOFO), The State of World Fisheries and Aquaculture (SOFIA), The State of Agricultural Commodity Markets (SOCO), The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World (SOFI)
Headquarter: Rome (Italy).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.fao.org/newsroom/detail/climate-risks-projected-to-affect-fish-biomass-around-the-world’s-ocean–fao-report-says/en
‘Arctic Amplification’ sometimes seen in news is a phenomenon of
a higher rate of temperature increases in the arctic as compared to the mid-latitudes.
Explanation :
Since the mid-20th Century, average global temperatures have warmed, but the warming has not occurred equally everywhere. Temperatures have increased about twice as fast in the Arctic as in the mid-latitudes, a phenomenon is known as “Arctic amplification.”
Loss of sea ice is one of the most cited reasons for faster warming in the Arctic than in the rest of the world. Losing sea ice reduces Earth’s albedo, the lower the albedo, the more a surface absorbs heat from sunlight rather than reflecting it back to space.
Most scientists agree that this rapid warming is a signal of human-caused climate change. Arctic amplification is not the only evidence of rapid climate change in the Arctic. Snow cover over land in the Arctic has decreased, notably in spring, and glaciers in Alaska, Greenland, and northern Canada are retreating. The frozen ground in the Arctic, known as permafrost, is warming and in many areas thawing.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following pairs:
Sl.no
Organisation
Report
Explanation :
Global Environment Outlook, Emissions Gap Report and Adaptation Gap Report are produced by United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). So, only pair 1 is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs), consider the following statements:
- Each Party signatory to the Paris Agreement of 2015 is required to update their NDCs every year.
- NDCs submitted by India include the target of 60 percent of its electricity generation capacity from non-fossil fuels by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
NDC or Nationally Determined Contribution is a climate action plan to cut emissions and adapt to climate impacts. Each Party to the Paris Agreement is required to establish an NDC and update it every five years. So, statement 1 is not correct.
But given the large gap between the emissions cuts required to limit global warming to 1.5°C and the emissions reductions currently planned, the Glasgow Climate Pact in November 2021 called on all countries to revisit and strengthen the targets in their NDCs in 2022.
Since an NDC is a government obligation under the Paris Agreement, one or more national ministries will generally lead its development. But for NDCs to work, they need to be widely understood and used by businesses, civil society, academia and ordinary citizens.
Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC) by India:
To reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 33 to 35 percent by 2030 from 2005 level.
To achieve about 40 percent cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based energy resources by 2030 with the help of the transfer of technology and low-cost international finance including from Green Climate Fund (GCF). So, statement 2 is not correct.
To create an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent through additional forest and tree cover by 2030.
Therefore, option (c) is the answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Global Warming Potential (GWP) of the gases:
- It is a measure of how much energy the emission of 1 ton of a gas will absorb over a given period of time relative to 1 ton of carbon dioxide.
- GWP of methane is the highest among all the greenhouse gases.
- Gases with a higher GWP have a greater potential to absorb infrared radiation.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Greenhouse gases (GHGs) warm the Earth by absorbing energy and slowing the rate at which the energy escapes to space; they act like a blanket insulating the Earth. Different GHGs can have different effects on the Earth’s warming.
GWPs take into account the absorption strength of a molecule and its atmospheric lifetime. Therefore, if methane has a GWP of 23 and carbon has a GWP of 1 (the standard), this means that methane is 23 times more powerful than CO2 as a greenhouse gas. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) was developed to allow comparisons of the global warming impacts of different gases. Specifically, it is a measure of how much energy the emissions of 1 ton of a gas will absorb over a given period of time, relative to the emissions of 1 ton of carbon dioxide (CO2). So, statement 1 is correct.
Methane (CH4) is estimated to have a GWP of 28–36 over 100 years. In comparison, Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), perfluorocarbons (PFCs), and sulphur hexafluoride (SF6) are sometimes called high-GWP gases. GWPs for these gases can be in the thousands or tens of thousands. The IPCC has published refer\ence values for GWPs of several greenhouse gases. Reference standards are also issued and supported by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). So, statement 2 is not correct.
GLOBAL WARMING POTENTIAL (GWP) FOR SELECTED GREENHOUSE GASES (GHG) | Download Table
Longer wavelength infrared radiation is absorbed by greenhouse gases. The greater the GWP of gas, the greater is the absorption of infrared radiation by it. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the answer.
Which of the following are the likely impacts of increasing carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere?
- Increase in global temperatures
- Increase in ocean acidity
- Decrease in plant growth
- Decreased rate of organic matter decay
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Carbon dioxide is the most important gas for controlling Earth’s temperature. Carbon dioxide, methane, and halocarbons are greenhouse gasses that absorb a wide range of energy and then re-emit it. The re-emitted energy travels out in all directions, but some return to Earth, where it heats the surface. Without greenhouse gasses, Earth would be a frozen planet.
Effects of increasing carbon dioxide concentration:
Carbon dioxide directly contributes to the greenhouse effect and it also controls the amount of water vapour in the atmosphere and thus the size of the greenhouse effect. Thus, the rising carbon dioxide concentrations are causing the planet to heat up. So, point 1 is correct.
About 30 percent of the carbon dioxide that people have put into the atmosphere has diffused into the ocean through the direct chemical exchange. Dissolving carbon dioxide in the ocean creates carbonic acid, which increases the acidity of the water. Or rather, a slightly alkaline ocean becomes a little less alkaline. So, point 2 is correct.
Carbon dioxide is essential for plant and phytoplankton growth. An increase in carbon dioxide could increase growth by fertilizing those few species of phytoplankton and ocean plants that take carbon dioxide directly from the water. Also in terrestrial biomes, with more atmospheric carbon dioxide available to convert to plant matter in photosynthesis, plants will be able to grow more. So, point 3 is not correct.
The warming caused by rising greenhouse gases may also bake the soil, accelerating the rate at which carbon seeps out in some places. This is of particular concern in the far north, where frozen soil (permafrost) is thawing. Permafrost contains rich deposits of carbon from plant matter that has accumulated for thousands of years because the cold slows decay. When the soil warms, the organic matter decays fast and carbon (in the form of methane and carbon dioxide) leaks into the atmosphere. So, point 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
In the context of Climate Change, which of the following statements correctly describes ‘Net Zero’ emissions?
A condition where greenhouse gas emissions are in balance with emission reductions.
Explanation :
Reaching net-zero emissions means removing an equal amount of CO2 from the atmosphere as we release it. Despite the growth of sustainable technologies in recent years, carbon emissions continue to increase. Current climate change commitments are not enough to keep the planet within 1.5℃ above pre-industrial times.
The term net-zero applies to a situation where global greenhouse gas emissions from human activity are in balance with emissions reductions. At net zero, carbon dioxide emissions are still generated, but an equal amount of carbon dioxide is removed from the atmosphere as it is released into it, resulting in zero increase in net emissions.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to ‘Green Climate Fund’ (GCF), which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is founded under the aegis of the United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank.
- It is intended to assist developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Green Climate Fund was established by 194 governments to limit or reduce greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions in developing countries, and to help vulnerable societies adapt to the unavoidable impacts of climate change. It was established in the Cancun Agreement and is designated as an operating entity of the Convention’s financial mechanism. It is headquartered in the Republic of Korea. So, statement 1 is not correct.
It aims to limit or reduce greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions in developing countries, and to help vulnerable societies adapt to the unavoidable impacts of climate change. It aims to mobilize funding to invest in low-emission and climate-resilient development. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- Carbon Debt is the quantity of carbon emissions released by an entity.
- A Carbon Credit is equivalent to one ton of carbon dioxide removed from the atmosphere.
- Emission Trading is permitted under the Kyoto Protocol.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Carbon Debt: It is the difference between the amount of carbon dioxide produced by a country, company, etc. and the amount that it offsets. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Carbon Credit: It is a kind of permit that represents one ton of carbon dioxide or equivalent greenhouse removed from the atmosphere. It can be purchased by an individual or, more commonly, a company to make up for carbon dioxide emissions that come from industrial production, delivery vehicles or travel. So, statement 2 is correct.
An emission permit is known alternatively as Carbon Credit. Article 17 of the Kyoto Protocol allows countries that have emission units to spare, emissions permitted but not “used”, to sell this excess capacity to countries that are over their targets. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to the international efforts for the protection of the Ozone layer, consider the following statements:
- The Montreal Protocol is the only UN treaty ever that has been ratified by all 198 UN Member States.
- The Vienna Convention did not require countries to take concrete actions to control ozone-depleting substances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is the landmark multilateral environmental agreement that regulates the production and consumption of nearly 100 man-made chemicals referred to as ozone-depleting substances (ODS). When released into the atmosphere, those chemicals damage the stratospheric ozone layer, Earth’s protective shield that protects humans and the environment from harmful levels of ultraviolet radiation from the sun. Adopted on 15 September 1987, the Protocol is to date the only UN treaty ever that has been ratified by every country on Earth - all 198 UN Member States. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer was adopted in 1985 and entered into force in 1988. In 2009, the Vienna Convention became the first Convention of any kind to achieve universal endorsement. The objectives of the Convention were for parties to adopt legislation or administrative measures against activities that are likely to have adverse effects on the ozone layer. This would be achieved through systematic observations, research and information exchange. The Vienna Convention did not require countries to take concrete actions to control ozone-depleting substances. Instead, in accordance with the provisions of the Convention, the countries of the world agreed to the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer under the Convention, to advance that goal. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements correctly describes ‘Aerosol Radiative Forcing’?
It is the net change in the energy balance of the Earth system due to climatic deviations.
Explanation :
Aerosol Radiative forcing is the net change in the energy balance of the Earth system due to some imposed perturbation. It is usually expressed in watts per square meter averaged over a particular period and quantifies the energy imbalance that occurs when the imposed change takes place. Though usually difficult to observe, calculated RF provides a simple quantitative basis for comparing some aspects of the potential climate response to different imposed agents, especially global mean temperature, and hence is widely used in the scientific community. Forcing is often presented as the value due to changes between two particular times, such as pre-industrial to present-day, while its time evolution provides a more complete picture
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
In the context of Climate Change, which of the following statements correctly describes ‘Net Zero’ emissions?
A. A complete elimination of Global Greenhouse gas emissions. B. A condition where greenhouse gas emissions are in balance with emission reductions. C. Reduced emissions intensity to GDP of a country from their current levels. D. Reduced amount of Carbon dioxide in the future from the pre-industrial levels.
A condition where greenhouse gas emissions are in balance with emission reductions.
Explanation :
Reaching net-zero emissions means removing an equal amount of CO2 from the atmosphere as we release it. Despite the growth of sustainable technologies in recent years, carbon emissions continue to increase. Current climate change commitments are not enough to keep the planet within 1.5℃ above pre-industrial times.
The term net-zero applies to a situation where global greenhouse gas emissions from human activity are in balance with emissions reductions. At net zero, carbon dioxide emissions are still generated, but an equal amount of carbon dioxide is removed from the atmosphere as it is released into it, resulting in zero increase in net emissions.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which one of the following best describes the communities that experience the first and worst effects of climate change?
Frontline communities
Explanation :
Frontline communities are those communities that experience climate change first and often feel the worst effects. They are communities that have higher exposures, are more sensitive, and are less able to adapt to climate change impacts for a variety of reasons.
Frontline communities include people who are both highly exposed to climate risks (because of the places they live and the projected changes expected to occur in those places) and have fewer resources, capacity, safety nets, or political power to respond to those risks (e.g. these people may lack insurance or savings, inflexible jobs, low levels of influence over elected officials, etc.).
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following pairs:
Sl. No.
Initiative
Launched/Coordinated by
Explanation :
Blue Carbon Initiative:
The Blue Carbon Initiative is a global program working to mitigate climate change through the restoration and sustainable use of coastal and marine ecosystems. The Initiative currently focuses on mangroves, tidal marshes and seagrasses. The Initiative is coordinated by Conservation International (CI), the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), and the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission of the United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (IOC-UNESCO). So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
Climate Neutral Now:
The Climate Neutral Now Initiative is one of several initiatives launched by the UNFCCC secretariat to increase climate action by engaging non-Party stakeholders (sub-national governments, companies, organizations, individuals). It was launched in 2015 based on a mandate to promote the voluntary use of carbon market mechanisms recognized under the Convention. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Carbon Action Initiative:
It is a project of UNFCCC that accelerates company action on carbon reduction through the use of investor pressure, thereby enabling sustainable business models and reducing the environmental footprint of companies all over the world. This initiative works within the existent system to alter the carbon footprint of the world’s highest emitting companies. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- Soft corals do not produce reefs.
- Coral bleaching refers to the death of a coral reef.
- Coral bleach can occur due to extremely low tides or too much sunlight.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Coral reefs are the ecosystem of reef building corals that have a symbiotic relationship with photosynthetic algae called zooxanthellae, which live in their tissues. The corals that build reefs are known as “hard” or “reef-building” corals. Soft corals, such as sea fans and sea whips, do not produce reefs. The calcium carbonate that is created by hard corals provides a foundation for baby corals to settle upon, and if the local threats to coral reefs are limited, then the corals will build up over time and create a healthy, vibrant coral reef. So, statement 1 is correct.
Coral bleaching: When corals are stressed by changes in conditions such as temperature, light, or nutrients, they expel the symbiotic algae living in their tissues, causing them to turn completely white. Coral bleaching does not always mean the death of a coral reef. Corals can recover their zooxanthellae in time, but the process requires cooler temperatures. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The leading cause of coral bleaching is climate change. A change in water temperature can cause coral to drive out algae. Coral may bleach for other reasons, like extremely low tides, pollution, or too much sunlight. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to global climate financing:
- Global Environment Facility provides support to both the government agencies and private companies.
- Global Environment Facility is responsible to manage the Special Climate Change Fund.
- Resources generated under the Clean Development Mechanism are used to finance the Adaptation Fund.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
GEF funds are available to developing countries and countries with economies in transition seeking to meet the objectives of international environmental conventions and agreements. Support is provided to government agencies, civil society organizations, private sector companies, research institutions, among other partners, to implement projects and programs related to environmental conservation, protection, and renewal. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Special Climate Change Fund, one of the world’s first multilateral climate adaptation finance instruments, was created at the 2001 Conference of the Parties (COP) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) to help vulnerable nations to address these negative impacts of climate change. The SCCF is managed by the Global Environment Facility (GEF) and operates in parallel with the Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF). Both funds have a mandate to serve the Paris Agreement. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Adaptation Fund (AF) was established in 2001 to finance concrete adaptation projects and programmes in developing countries Parties to the Kyoto Protocol that are particularly vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change. The Adaptation Fund is financed with a share of proceeds from the clean development mechanism (CDM) project activities and other sources of funding. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Which of the following is/are characteristic features of an ecosystem?
- Sustains life on Earth
- Homeostasis
- Ability to evolve as per changing environmental conditions
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Ecosystem is a single unit which sustains life on Earth. So, statement (1) is correct.
The tendency of an ecosystem to maintain its state of stable equilibrium is called as homeostasis. So, statement (2) is correct.
Ability to evolve as per changing environment is the characteristic feature of a specie. The process is called as speciation. So, statement (3) is not correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).
With reference to mangroves, consider the following statements:
- They prevent salinity and seawater ingress into the inland agricultural areas.
- Barnacles and crabs promote their growth by attaching themselves to the young seedlings.
- Growth of the shrimp sector in India has helped in their conservation.
- State of West Bengal followed by Gujarat has the largest mangrove cover in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 4 only
Explanation :
Mangroves are plant communities of the tropical and subtropical intertidal coastal zone. Mangroves ecosystems are known to provide variety of services and goods to mankind. It provides timber and non-timber forest products, medicines, fisheries, recreation, ecotourism, bio-filtration, nursery grounds, coastal protection, and carbon storage and sequestration. Mangrove forests are considered to be the most productive ecosystems with high biomass especially below-ground. Productive, protective, economical and social functions mangrove ecosystems provide us reason to conserve and manage them sustainably. Mangroves also play a very significant role in maintaining the coastal environment, reducing the impact of wave action and erosion in the coastal areas, preventing salinity and seawater ingress into the inland agricultural areas, and also providing protection to the coastline from the impact of cyclones. Apart from these ecological functions, mangroves play a very significant economic role in the lives of the coastal village communities. The villagers are dependent on mangroves mainly for fodder, fuel-wood and fishing activities. So, statement 1 is correct.
Natural hazards and threats to mangroves in India:
Cyclones, typhoons and strong wave action, especially in the geographically vulnerable Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Browsing and trampling by wildlife and livestock (goats, buffaloes and cows), which are often left to graze freely, especially in areas close to human habitation.
Infestation by barnacles which attach to young seedlings, interfering with respiration and photosynthesis and delaying seedling growth. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Damage by oysters to the young leaves and plumules of Rhizophora and Ceriops plants.
Crabs, which attack young seedlings, girdle the root collars and eat the fleshy tissues of the propagules.
Weeds such as Acrostichum aureum and Acanthus species, which often occupy deforested mangrove areas and restrict the re-growth of economic mangrove tree species.
Impact of Shrimp sector: The fast development of the shrimp sector required the conversion of flat, coastal lands to shrimp ponds. Part of the shrimp pond construction took place in mangroves, and shrimp aquaculture has been an important cause of the conversion of mangroves in India. Mangrove conversion has been undertaken by both small-scale extensive farms and by larger-scale semi-intensive and intensive farms. So, statement 3 is not correct.
In India, mangroves are found in the States of West Bengal, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Kerala, Goa, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Gujarat. The Mangroves cover in Gujarat are second only to the Mangroves in the West Bengal on the East Coast in terms of area. So, statement 4 is correct.
What is a “mangrove” forest?Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following creatures is/are venomous in nature?
- Komodo dragon
- Jellyfish
- Python
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Komodo dragon:
Komodo dragons are the largest extant lizard species. The dragon is a monitor lizard of the family Varanidae. It occurs on Komodo Island and a few neighbouring islands of the Lesser Sunda Islands of Indonesia. The popular interest in the lizard’s large size and predatory habits has allowed this endangered species to become an ecotourist attraction, which has encouraged its protection.Komodo Dragon
More than a decade ago, researchers have discovered that the bite of the Komodo dragon is venomous. Magnetic resonance imaging scans revealed complex venom glands in the dragons’ mouths that had never been documented before. So, point 1 is correct.
Jellyfish:
These simple invertebrates are members of the phylum Cnidaria, which includes creatures such as sea anemones, sea whips, and corals. Jellyfish are about 95 percent water. Lacking brains, blood, or even hearts, jellyfish are pretty simple critters. They are composed of three layers: an outer layer, called the epidermis; a middle layer made of a thick, elastic, jelly-like substance called mesoglea; and an inner layer, called the gastrodermis. Jellyfish - Wikipedia
The long tentacles trailing from the jellyfish body can inject a person with venom from thousands of microscopic barbed stingers. Jellyfish stings vary greatly in severity. Most often they result in immediate pain and red, irritated marks on the skin. So, point 2 is correct.
Python:
Pythons are non-venomous snakes found in Asia, Africa and Australia. Because they are not native to North or South America, they are considered Old World snakes. The word python can refer to both the family Pythonidae and the genus Python, found within Pythonidae. There are 41 species of python found within the family Pythonidae. So, point 3 is not correct. Burmese Python
Most Pythons are large, with the reticulated python (Python reticulatus) of Asia attaining a maximum recorded length of 9.6 meters (31.5 feet).
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- Mosses reproduce by creating spores.
- Majority of Lichen is made up of algae, which gives it its distinctive shape.
- Blue-green algae are classified as bacteria.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Mosses: Mosses, also sometimes called bryophytes, are little flowerless plants that tend to grow in tufts or mats. Rather than using flowers and seeds, mosses reproduce by creating spores that are held in a little capsule. The lifecycle of moss can be divided into two stages, the gametophyte stage and the sporophyte stage. So, statement 1 is correct.Moss – tiny plants, huge potential – The Quiet Branches
Lichens: Lichens form from a symbiotic relationship between two different organisms, a fungus and an alga, meaning they are not plants at all. Each of these components provides critical functions that help the individual survive. The fungus makes up most of the lichen, giving it its shape and fruiting bodies while the algae provide the ability to photosynthesize. While algae normally need a lot of water to survive, the fungus provides shelter from drying elements like heat and wind, allowing lichens to exist even in hot dry climates. So, statement 2 is not correct.You’ll Be Lichen This Article - Field Station
Blue-green algae: Although cyanobacteria are called blue-green algae, they are actually bacteria, and are part of the bacteria kingdom, Monera. The “blue” in the common name refers to the fact that they need to live in water, and “green algae” refers to their photosynthetic abilities, like green algae. So, statement 3 is correct.Blue-green algae warning for tourists at Llyn Tegid in Bala - BBC News
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answe
Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Environmental Gradient?
A.
It is the change in the composition of species from one ecosystem to another.
B.
It is the change in a biome with the change in the latitude.
C.
It can be described by changes in environmental characteristics such as elevation, soil acidity and soil composition.
D.
It is the change in both biotic and abiotic factors with a change in depth in an aquatic ecosystem.
It can be described by changes in environmental characteristics such as elevation, soil acidity and soil composition.
Explanation :
Environmental gradients:
Environmental gradients relate to variations in site characteristics and may be described by changes in elevation, changes in site index, or variations in other factors such as soil acidity, soil composition, soil fertility, soil moisture, exposure, edges and interior areas, and even land-use history.
It results in different ecological characteristics with changes in gradient. For example, some tree species are found in greater abundance on sites with a particular aspect (e.g., southern or southeastern); with a higher or lower slope position (e.g., ridge versus valley); that is more productive or have greater soil moisture availability, or within a specific elevational range. White oak (Quercus alba) in the eastern United States, for example, generally prefers south-facing slopes, high slope positions, and xeric (i.e., dry) soils. Trees may respond differently to the resources available in different gradients at different life stages. For example, oak trees at an intermediate life stage (e.g., saplings) may be more sensitive to environmental gradients than oak trees at a seedling or mature life stage.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian Councils Act of 1909:
- It separated the provincial and central budgets for the first time.
- It introduced separate electorates for Muslims as well as Anglo-Indians.
- It provided for the appointment of an Indian to the Viceroy’s executive council.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Government of India Act, 1919 separated for the first time the provincial and central budgets, with provincial legislatures being authorized to make their budgets. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Indian Councils Act, 1909: The act was popularly known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, which made the first attempt to bring in a representative and popular governance in the country. The key provisions were-
(i) the number of elected members in the Imperial and provincial legislative Council was increased,
(ii) non-official majority in provincial legislative council was introduced,
(iii) provision for separate electorates was introduced only for Muslims and not for any other community. (The principle of communal representation for Sikhs, Christians and Anglo-Indians was provided in the Government of India Act, 1919). So, statement 2 is not correct.
(iv) one Indian member was to be appointed for the first time in the Viceroy’s executive council (Satyendra Prasad Sinha was the first Indian to join it as a law member). So, statement 3 is correct.
(v) It permitted members to introduce resolutions and increased their power to ask questions.
(vi) Voting on separate budget items was allowed.
Therefore, option (a) is the answer.
Consider the following events from the Indian freedom struggle:
- Partition of Bengal
- Foundation of Muslim League
- Surat Split of Indian National Congress
- Transfer of India’s capital from Calcutta to Delhi
Select the correct chronological order from the codes given below:
1-2-3-4
Explanation :
Partition of Bengal (1905) divided Bengal region. It was carried out by the Viceroy in India, Lord Curzon, despite strong Indian nationalist opposition. It began a transformation of the Indian National Congress from a middle-class pressure group into a nationwide mass movement (Swadeshi Movement).
Muslim League, (All India Muslim League), was a political group that led the demand for a separate Muslim nation. It was founded in 1906 to safeguard the rights of Indian Muslims. In 1940, the league called for the formation of a Muslim state that would be separate from the independent country of India, because it feared that an independent India would be dominated by Hindus.
In 1907, the Indian National Congress has split into two groups: the Extremists and the Moderates, at the Surat session.
During the Delhi Durbar on 12 December 1911, George V, then Emperor of India, along with Queen Mary, made the announcement that the capital of the British Raj was to be shifted from Calcutta to Delhi, while laying the foundation stone for the Viceroy’s residence in the Coronation Park, Kingsway Camp. Lord Harding was the Viceroy during this time.
Consider the following statements in the context of the Young Bengal Movement:
- It saw wide-spread participation of the masses unlike other reforms movements.
- It strongly supported women’s right to equality and education.
- Krishna Mohan Banerjee and Ram Gopal Ghosh were prominent leaders associated with the movement.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The Young Bengal Movement was started by Henry Vivian Derozio in the early 1830s. It was a radical, intellectual trend among the youth in Bengal drawing inspiration from the French revolution. The main reason for the limited success of the movement is the lack of real link with the masses and their failure to take up peasant’s cause. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Derozions supported women’s right to equality and demanded the education of women. So, statement 2 is correct.
Krishna Mohan Banerjee, Mahesh Chandra Ghosh, Ram Gopal Ghosh and Dakshinarajan Mukherjee were prominent leaders associated with the movement. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Evolution of Civil Services in India:
- The Charter Act of 1853 opened civil services to the Indians.
- The Floud Commission recommended reform in civil service
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Although the Charter Act of 1833 theoretically threw open the services to the Indians, the relevant provisions were never really implemented. After 1857, when the Indians claimed a share in higher services, the Proclamation of 1858 declared the British intention of including the Indians, freely and impartially, in offices under the civil service. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Floud Commission, a land revenue commission, was established by the government of Bengal in 1938. It was the Aitchison Commission on Public Services (1886) that recommended reform in civil service. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the answer.
3 and 4 only
Explanation :
Dev samaj was founded by Shiv Narayan Agnihotri in 1887 at Lahore. The society emphasized on the eternity of the soul, the supremacy of the guru, and the need for good action. Its teachings were compiled in the book called Deva Shastra. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
Sevasadan was founded by a parsi social reformer, Behram ji malabari along with a friend, Diwan Dayaram Gidumal, in 1908. He spoke against child marriage and for the widow remarriage among Hindus. His efforts led to the Age of consent act regulating the age of consent for females. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Dharma sabha was founded by Radha kanta deb in 1830. It was an orthodox society which stood for the preservation of the status quo in social religious matters. It even opposed the abolition of the practice of sati. However, it favored the promotion of western education, even for the girls. Dev samaj was founded by Shiv Narayan Agnihotri in 1887 at Lahore. The society emphasized on the eternity of the soul, the supremacy of the guru, and the need for good action. Its teachings were compiled in the book called Deva Shastra. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Social service league was founded in Bombay by Narayan malhar joshi with an aim to secure for the masses better and reasonable conditions of life and work. They organized many schools, libraries, and cooperative societies. Their activities also included police court agents’ work, legal aid and advice to the poor and illiterate. So, pair 4 is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
What is the primary goal of the ASMITA project, recently seen in the news?
To promote and integrate Indian languages into the education system
Explanation :
The Ministry of Education and the University Grants Commission (UGC) recently unveiled the ASMITA Project, aimed at bolstering the availability of educational resources in Indian languages.
About ASMITA Project:
ASMITA (Augmenting Study Materials in Indian Languages through Translation and Academic Writing) is an initiative to develop 22,000 books in Indian languages in the next five years.
It is a collaborative effort of the UGC and the Bharatiya Bhasha Samiti, a high-powered committee under the Ministry of Education.
The primary objective of this initiative is to promote and integrate Indian languages more deeply into the education system, thereby enriching the learning experience and making it more inclusive.
This project is seen as part of a broader strategy to enhance the accessibility and quality of educational materials across various Indian languages.
Thirteen nodal universities have been identified to lead the project, along with member universities from various regions.
The UGC has also created a standard operating procedure (SOP) for the book-writing process in each assigned language.
The SOP includes the identification of nodal officers, authors, allocation of title, subject, and programme, writing and editing, submission of the manuscript, review and plagiarism check, finalisation, designing, proofreading and e-publication.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatvnews.com/education/news/centre-ugc-launches-asmita-project-to-produce-22000-books-in-indian-languages-education-minister-dharmendra-pradhan-2024-07-17-942184
Consider the following statements with reference to the Late Blight Disease:
- It is a serious viral infection that can affect tomatoes and potatoes.
- The disease can be managed with a timely application of fungicide.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Central Potato Research Institute (CPRI) recently issued an advisory for potato farmers across the country, warning of a high risk of late blight disease in the crop due to changes in weather conditions.
About is Late Blight Disease:
Late blight (Phytophthora infestans) is one of the most serious fungal diseases that can affect tomatoes and potatoes.
Transmission:
It is spread from infected transplants, volunteer potato or tomato plants, and certain weeds botanically related to tomatoes.
Spores of this fungus can be airborne and travel great distances in storms. Rain deposits spores on plants, causing infection.
Late blight is favored by cool, wet weather and will cycle repeatedly if weather conditions are favorable.
Symptoms:
When plants have become infected, lesions (round or irregularly shaped areas that range in colour from dark green to purplish black and resemble frost injury) appear on the leaves, petioles, and stems.
A whitish growth of spore-producing structures may appear at the margin of the lesions on the underleaf surfaces.
Potato tubers develop rot up to 15 mm (0.6 inch) deep.
Secondary fungi and bacteria (particularly Erwinia species) often invade potato tubers and produce rotting that results in great losses during storage, transit, and marketing.
The disease can be managed with a timely application of fungicide, though epidemics can occur rapidly once crops are infected.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/chandigarh-news/cpri-issues-advisory-as-late-blight-disease-threatens-potato-crops-101720823388794.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Jerdon’s Courser:
- It is a nocturnal bird endemic to the Western Ghats of India.
2.It is classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Jerdon’s Courser, a critically endangered species, has not been visually spotted in over a decade.
About Jerdon’s Courser:
It is a nocturnal cursorial (adapted for walking and running) bird endemic to the Eastern Ghats of India.
Scientific Name: Rhinoptilus bitorquatus
It was considered to be extinct from the beginning of the 20th century until its rediscovery in 1986.
Habitat: It inhabits open patches within scrub-forests.
Distribution: It is found only inAndhra Pradesh and Telangana.
Features:
It is a delicate lapwing-like bird with a large eye and a short, bicolored bill.
Its upper plumage is grey-brown, chin and throat are whitish, fore-neck is rufous and separated from its brown breast by a white band.
A second white band runs across the lower portion of its breast (hence it was earlier called a double-banded courser).
The belly is whitish, while its tail is black-and-white (visible in flight). The legs are pale yellow.
The call is a short series of two-noted whistles “tuick-tuoo.”
They are insectivorous, hunting invertebrates by sight.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/visakhapatnam/critically-endangered-jerdons-courser-not-seen-in-a-decade/articleshow/111739906.cms
Tizu River, recently seen in the news, flows through which one of the following states?
Nagaland
Explanation :
The Union Minister of Ports, Shipping and Waterways recently announced that the ministry has decided to carry out feasibility studies to use the National Waterways-101 on the Tizu Zunki River for the transportation of cargo and passengers.
About Tizu River:
Nagaland has four main rivers, namely, Doyang, Dhansiri, Dhiku, and Tizu.
The first three flow towards the west through the Assam plains to join River Brahmaputra, while the Tizu River system flows towards the east and southeast and pours into the Irrawaddy in Myanmar.
The Tizu River forms an important drainage system in the eastern part of Nagaland.
It originates from the central part of Nagaland state and runs through a northeast direction, flows through Kiphire and Phek districts and confluences in the Chindwin River of Myanmar.
The Chindwin River further enters into Irrawaddy River, the largest river of Myanmar.
The River Irrawaddy further drains into the Andaman Seavia the Irrawaddy Delta after travelling through river ports like Mandalay.
The main tributaries of the River Tizu are river Zungki, Lanye, and Likimro.
The Zungki River, which is the biggest tributary of Tizu, starts from the north-eastern part of Changdong forest in the south of Teku, and flows in a southern direction towards Noklak, Shamator, and Kiphire, and finally joins Tizu below Kiphire.
Hence option d is the correct answer
News:https://www.deccanherald.com/india/nagaland/centre-to-explore-tizu-zunki-river-to-connect-hilly-nagaland-with-southeast-asia-for-trade-tourism-2-3107413
With reference to the PM SHRI (PM Schools for Rising India) Scheme, consider the following statements:
- It is a centrally sponsored scheme by the Government of India.
- PM SHRI Schools will be overseen by the Central Government, State/UT Governments, local bodies, as well as Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS) and Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS).
- The selection of PM SHRI schools will be done through Challenge Mode, wherein schools compete for support to become exemplar schools.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
After Punjab, West Bengal, and Delhi refused participation in the PM-SHRI scheme, the Education Ministry has stopped funds to the three states under the Centre’s flagship Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA).
About PM SHRI Scheme:
It is a centrally sponsored scheme by the Government of India.
Its objective is to establish over 14,500 PM SHRI Schools, overseen by the Central Government, State/UT Governments, local bodies, as well as Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS) and Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS).
These schools aim to create an inclusive and welcoming atmosphere for every student, ensuring their well-being and providing a secure and enriching learning environment.
The goal is to offer a diverse range of learning experiences and ensure access to good physical infrastructure and appropriate resources for all students.
The overarching purpose of PM SHRI School is to nurture students in a manner that transforms them into engaged, productive, and contributing citizens.
This aligns with the vision of the National Education Policy 2020, striving to build a society characterized by equity, inclusivity, and pluralism.
Features of PM SHRI Schools:
These schools will not only focus on enhancing cognitive development but also creating holistic and well-rounded individuals equipped with key 21st-century skills.
The pedagogy adopted in these schools will be more experiential, holistic, integrated, play/toy-based (particularly in the foundational years), inquiry-driven, discovery-oriented, learner-centred, discussion-based, flexible, and enjoyable.
The schools will be upgraded with labs, libraries, and art rooms. They will be developed as green schools with water conservation, waste recycling, energy-efficient infrastructure, and integration of the organic lifestyle as part of the curriculum.
The focus will be on the learning outcomes of every child in every grade.
Assessment at all levels will be based on conceptual understanding and application of knowledge to real-life situations and will be competency-based.
A School Quality Assessment Framework (SQAF) is being developed, specifying the key performance indicators to measure outcomes. A quality evaluation of these schools at regular intervals will be undertaken to ensure the desired standards.
The duration of the scheme is from 2022-23 to 2026-27, after which it shall be the responsibility of the States/UTs to continue to maintain the benchmarks achieved by these schools.
The total cost of the project will be Rs 27360 crore spread over a period of 5 years, which includes the central share of Rs 18128 crore.
The selection of PM SHRI schools will be done through Challenge Mode, wherein schools compete for support to become exemplar schools.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.deccanherald.com/india/centre-stops-school-scheme-funds-to-delhi-punjab-bengal-after-states-refuse-to-participate-in-pm-shri-report-3107225
Consider the following statements with reference to the Chandipura virus (CHPV) infection:
- It can be transmitted through sand flies and mosquito species.
- This infection has largely remained limited to children below 15 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Gujarat government said that six children have died of suspected Chandipura virus (CHPV) infection in the state since July 10.
It is a virus of the Rhabdoviridae family, which also includes other members such as the lyssavirus that causes rabies.
Several species of sandflies like Phlebotomine sandflies and Phlebotomus papatasi, and some mosquito species such as Aedes aegypti (which is also the vector for dengue) are considered vectors of CHPV.
The virus resides in the salivary gland of these insects, and can be transmitted to humans or other vertebrates like domestic animals through bites.
The infection caused by the virus can then reach the central nervous system which can lead to encephalitis — inflammation of the active tissues of the brain.
Disease progression can be as rapid as a patient reporting high fever in the morning, and their kidneys or liver being affected by the evening.
Symptoms
The CHPV infection presents initially with flu-like symptoms such as acute onset of fever, body ache, and headache.
It may then progress to altered sensorium or seizures and encephalitis.
Respiratory distress, bleeding tendencies, or anaemia.
The infection often progresses rapidly after encephalitis, which may then lead to mortality within 24-48 hours of hospitalization.
This infection has largely remained limited to children below 15 years.
Treatment: The infection can only be symptomatically managed as currently there is no specific antiretroviral therapy or vaccine available for treatment.
Affected regions in India
The CHPV infection was first isolated in 1965 while investigating a dengue/chikungunya outbreak in Maharashtra.
However, one of the most significant outbreaks of the disease in India was seen in 2003-04 in states such as Maharashtra, northern Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh.
The infection has largely remained endemic to the central part of India, where the population of CHPV infection-spreading sand flies and mosquitoes is higher.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-health/chandipura-virus-infection-chpv-9457349/
Consider the following statements regarding the Srijan Portal:
- It is developed by the Department of Defence Production, Union Ministry of Defence.
- It gives information on items that can be taken up for indigenization by the private sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Department of Defence Production (DDP), Ministry of Defence has notified the fifth Positive Indigenisation List (PIL) consisting of 346 items. The items will only be procured from the Indian Industry after the timelines of indigenisation as indicated in the list available on the Srijan portal.
It is an indigenization portal developed by the Department of Defence Production.
It will give information on items that can be taken up for indigenization by the private sector.
On this portal, DPSUs/OFB/SHQs can display the items which they have been importing or are going to import which the Indian Industry can design, develop and manufacture as per their capability or through a joint venture with OEMs.
The Indian Industry will be able to show their interest. The concerned DPSUs/OFB/SHQs, based on their requirement of the items and their guidelines & procedures will interact with the Indian industry for indigenization.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Defence.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2033571
With reference to the Bhojshala complex, consider the following statements:
- It was built by the Raja Bhoja of the Pala Dynasty.
- It was for the first time attacked by Alauddin Khilji.
- It is currently protected under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The existing structure at the Bhojshala complex constructed using remains of a temple that existed earlier at the site, said the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) in its scientific survey report.
It is located in the Dhar district of Madhya Pradesh.
It was built by Raja Bhoja (1000-1055 A.D.) in 1034 AD, who was the greatest monarch of the Paramara dynasty.
It served as a university and many students used to come here to learn music, Sanskrit, astronomy, yoga, Ayurveda and philosophy.
History
In 1305 AD, it was for the first time attacked by Alauddin Khilji.
In 1514 AD, Mehmudshah Khilji II attacked this complex and tried to convert it into dargah. He encroached land outside Saraswati Temple and built ‘Kamal Moulana’ Makbara.
Inscriptions found:
In the rocks of this complex, two hymns written in Prakrit language of the Karmavatar or crocodile incarnation of Vishnu are engraved.
Two Sarpabandha pillar inscriptions, one containing the Sanskrit alphabet and the main endings of nouns and verbs and the other containing the individual declensions of the ten tenses and moods of Sanskrit grammar.
In 1951, the complex was declared as a monument of national importance under the Ancient and Historical Monument and Archaeological Sites and Remains (Declaration of National Importance) Act, 1951.
It is currently protected by ASI under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958.
Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/madhya-pradesh/existing-structure-at-bhojshala-complex-in-mp-built-from-temple-remains-says-asi-survey/article68406802.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Halwa ceremony:
- It is a tradition performed every year to celebrate a successful budget presentation.
- It involves members of the finance ministry who are involved in the preparation of the budget.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Finance Minister participated in a traditional ‘halwa’ ceremony, marking the final stage for preparation of Union Budget 2024-25 to be unveiled on July 23 in Lok Sabha.
The ceremony is a ritual in which traditional dessert ‘halwa’ is prepared and served to officials and staff members of the finance ministry who are involved in the preparation of the budget.
It is a tradition performed every year ahead of the budget and signifies the official initiation of the printing process of various documents related to the budget.
It is a kind of a ‘send-off’ for finance ministry officials and staff involved in the preparation of the Union government’s annual financial statement.
They enter what is called a ‘lock-in’ period, during which they stay in the basement of North Block, cut off from the world outside with a view to maintaining the secrecy around the final budget document.
It takes place in the basement of the Finance Ministry’s North Block in Central Delhi, where a special printing press is located.
These stringent measures date back to a leak that occurred in 1950. A portion of the Union Budget was leaked while it was being printed at Rashtrapati Bhawan. As a result of the leak, the then Finance Minister, John Matthai, resigned.
Key facts about the Union Budget of India
The Union Budget of India also referred to as the Annual Financial Statement in the Article 112 of the Constitution of India, is the annual budget of the Republic of India.
It is also known as the Annual Financial Statement of the Government; however, the term “budget” is not mentioned in the Constitution.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/economy/fm-halwa-ceremony-final-stage-budget-preparation-9457457/
Consider the following statements regarding World Bank Group (WBG) guarantee platform:
- It is located at the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA).
- It aims to boost WBG annual guarantee issuance to $200 billion by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the World Bank Group (WBG) guarantee platform was opened for business.
It is housed at the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA), brings together products and experts from the World Bank, International Finance Corporation (IFC), and MIGA for simplicity, efficiency, and speed.
It aims to boost WBG annual guarantee issuance to $20 billion by 2030.
WBG Guarantees will serve as a one-stop-shop for all WBG guarantee business, providing the best guarantee solutions for clients to meet project needs and development priorities.
WBG clients can now choose from a simplified market-friendly menu of guarantee options.
The platform will provide three types of coverages:
Credit guarantees for loans to the public or private sector;
Trade finance guarantees for trade finance projects involving public entities;
Political risk insurance against non-commercial risks for private sector projects or public-private partnerships.
Significance
Initiated in 2024, World Bank Group Guarantees consolidates all guarantee products and experts from across the World Bank Group institutions at MIGA.
It provides a simplified and comprehensive menu of guarantee solutions, enabling clients to select the instrument that best suits their needs.
The platform streamlines processes, removes redundancies, and provides greater accessibility by de-risking investments in developing countries.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.worldbank.org/en/news/press-release/2024/07/01/world-bank-group-guarantee-platform-goes-live?intcid=ecr_hp_sidekickB_2024-07-02-GuaranteePR
Which among the following best describes ‘INS Teg’, that was in the news recently?
It is a guided missile frigate
Explanation :
The Indian warship INS Teg has rescued nine sailors, including eight Indians and one Sri Lankan, who were on board the Comoros-flagged oil tanker, MT Falcon Prestige, that had capsized recently off the Oman coast.
About INS Teg:
INS Teg (F45) is the first of three guided missile frigates of the modified INS Talwar-class that India commissioned Russian shipyard Yantar to build under Project-17 A (the other two are INS Tarkash and INS Trikand).
INS Teg was commissioned into Navy service on 27 April 2012.
The Talwar-class guided missile frigates are modified Krivak III-class frigates built by Russia.
These ships use stealth technologies and a special hull design to ensure a reduced radar cross-section.
Much of the equipment on the ship is Russian-made, but a significant number of systems of Indian origin have also been incorporated.
The main differences betweenTegand the earlier Talwar-class ships are the use of BrahMos missiles in place of the Klub-N missiles.
Features of INS Teg:
It is a 3,970-tonne frigate and is armed with eight 290-km BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles.
It is 125-metre-long and can operate an anti-submarine or early-warning helicopter from its deck.
It can reach a top speed of 30 knots (56 km/h; 35 mph).
It has an operating range of 4,500 nautical miles (8334 km).
The stealth frigate, with its unique design,ensures a reduction in its radar cross-section,infrared, magnetic, and acoustic signatures, as well as radiated underwater noise, to heighten its stealth capabilities.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.telegraphindia.com/world/ins-teg-saves-eight-indians-from-stricken-tanker-search-continues-for-other-crew-members/cid/2034462
With reference to the Asian Development Bank (ADB), consider the following statements:
- It provides assistance to its developing member countries, the private sector, and public-private partnerships.
- It has a weighted voting system similar to the World Bank, where votes are distributed in proportion to members’ capital subscriptions.
- China is the largest shareholder of ADB.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Asian Development Bank (ADB) recently retained India’s GDP growth forecast for the current financial year at 7%.
About Asian Development Bank (ADB):
It is a multilateral development bank established on 19th December 1966.
It is the principal international development finance institution for the Asia-Pacific region.
It envisions a prosperous, inclusive, resilient, and sustainable Asia and the Pacific, while sustaining its efforts to eradicate extreme poverty in the region.
Functions:
It provides assistance to its developing member countries, the private sector, and public-private partnerships through grants, loans, technical assistance, and equity investments to promote social and economic development.
ADB maximizes the development impact of its assistance by facilitating policy dialogues, providing advisory services, and mobilizing financial resources through cofinancing operations that tap official, commercial, and export credit sources.
Headquarters: Manila, Philippines.
Membership:
Membership in the ADB is open to members and associate members of the United Nations Economic Commission for Asia and the Far East.
It’s also open to other regional countries and non-regional developed countries that are members of the U.N. or of any of its specialized agencies.
From 31 members at its establishment in 1966, ADB has grown to encompass 68 members, of which 49 are from within Asia and the Pacific and 19 outside.
Control:
ADB is run by a board of governors, which represents the member countries of the ADB.
The ADB was modelled closely on the World Bank and has a similar weighted voting system where votes are distributed in proportion to members’ capital subscriptions.
As of 2022, ADB’s five largest shareholders are Japan and the United States (each with 15.6% of total shares), the People’s Republic of China (6.4%), India (6.3%), and Australia (5.8%).
Source of Funding:
It raises capital regularly through the international bond markets.
The ADB also relies on member contributions, retained earnings from lending, and the repayment of loans for the funding of the organization.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.financialexpress.com/policy/economy-adb-retains-india-growth-forecast-at-7-for-fy25nbsp-3556750/
Where is the Davis Strait located?
Between Greenland and Canada
Explanation :
A microcontinent has been recently discovered in the Davis Strait, between Canada and Greenland.
About the newly discovered Microcontinent:
The discovery was made around the Davis Strait, a large stretch of water located between Canada’s Baffin Island and Greenland.
The strait was formed millions of years ago when the tectonic plates between the two islands shifted, reconfiguring the Earth’s crust.
This resulted in the formation of a thick continental crust in the ocean, which has now been declared a newly discovered primitive microcontinent.
It has been named the Davis Strait proto-microcontinent since it formed owing to the tectonic evolution of the strait in the region.
The microcontinent is 19–24 km thick thinned continental crust and is surrounded by two narrow bands of thin (15–17 km) continental crust.
Key Facts about Davis Strait:
Also known as the northern arm of the Atlantic Ocean, the Davis Strait is situated north of the Labrador Sea amidst southwestern Greenland and southeastern Baffin Island in Nunavut, Canada.
It separates the depths of northern Baffin Bay from the southern Labrador Sea and forms an important part of the Northwest passage route going through the Canadian Arctic Archipelago and connecting the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans.
Baffin Bay is situated between Baffin Island and Greenland’s west coast.
Defined as a marginal sea of the Arctic Ocean, it is also considered a small sea of the North Atlantic.
It is not navigable during the winter months due to the thick ice cover, floating icebergs and heavy fog.
The Davis Strait is approximately 400 miles (650 km) north to south and 200 to 400 miles wide.
It has a water depth ranging from 1000 to 2000 metres, and is comparatively shallower than the southern Labrador Sea.
The Davis Strait is home to complex geological formations such as underwater basins and ridges that were created due to the strike-slip faulting along the Ungava fault Zone around 45 to 62 million years ago.
It triggered plate tectonic movements in the Labrador Sea and the Baffin Bay,leading to the formation of the Strait.
Two different ocean currents are active in the Davis Strait,with contrasting temperatures leading to varying concentrations of ice on the eastern and western sides of the Strait.
From the shores of Greenland, the western Greenland current carries comparatively warmer waters towards the east, while the Labrador current pushes iceberg-filled water southward along the Canadian coast, the Labrador Sea, and subsequently the Atlantic.
Ice conditions reflect this flow regime, with heavy ice movement and icebergs along the western shore contrasting sharply with more open water along the Greenland side.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/travel/travel-news/scientists-discover-a-new-microcontinent-between-greenland-and-canada/articleshow/111773161.cms
Which one of the following is the best description of ‘MV Sea Change’, that was in the news recently?
The world’s first fully electric ferry powered by hydrogen fuel cells.
Explanation :
The world’s first commercial passenger ferry powered by 100% hydrogen fuel, the MV Sea Change, was launched recently at the San Francisco Ferry Building.
About MV Sea Change:
It is the world’s first commercial passenger ferry powered entirely by zero-emission hydrogen fuel cells.
The 75-passenger ferry was built by All American Marine Shipyard for the compatriot shipowner SWITCH Maritime.
The vessel, designed by Incat Crowther, is fitted with hydrogen-powered fuel cells producing electricity to power electric motors, enabling the vessel to operate for about 16 hours, traveling around 300 nautical miles, between refueling sessions.
It can reach speeds up to 20 knots, and its service speed will be about 8-12 knots.
It uses H2 fuel cells to generate electricity through the combination of H2 from storage tanks and oxygen from the ambient air.
Unlike current diesel-powered ferries that emit pollutants, the hydrogen-powered Sea Change produces only heat and water vapor as byproducts. Passengers can even drink the emissions from an onboard water fountain.
Hence option c is the correct answer
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/worlds-first-hydrogen-powered-commercial-ferry-launches-in-san-francisco-9451865/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Spade-Toothed Whales:
- They are the world’s rarest whales, with no live sightings ever recorded.
- Their current known habitat is in the shallow coastal waters of the Atlantic Ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A whale that was found dead on a beach in New Zealand recently has been identified by scientists as a spade-toothed whale, a species so rare it has never been seen alive.
About Spade-Toothed Whale:
Spade-toothed whales are the world’s rarest whales, with no live sightings ever recorded.
The species was first described in 1874 after a lower jaw and two teeth were collected from New Zealand’s Chatham Islands.
The skeletal remains of two other specimens found off islands in New Zealand and Chile enabled scientists to confirm a new species.
Two more recent findings of stranded whales off New Zealand’s North Island in 2010 and 2017 added to the small collection.
Nothing is currently known about the whales’ habitat. The creatures deep-dive for food and likely surface so rarely that it has been impossible to narrow their location further than the southern Pacific Ocean, home to some of the world’s deepest ocean trenches.
No one knows how many there are, what they eat,or even where they live in the vast expanse of the southern Pacific Ocean.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Data Deficient
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.bbc.com/news/articles/c6p20d5xlm8o
Chagos Archipelago, recently seen in the news, is located in:
Indian Ocean
Explanation :
Recently, external affairs minister said that India will continue supporting Mauritius on the issue of Chagos Archipelago in line with its stand on decolonization.
It is an island group located in the central Indian Ocean and is about 1,000 miles (1,600 km) south of the southern tip of the Indian subcontinent.
It is an overseas territory of the United Kingdom that was established on November 8, 1965.
Its key islands include the Diego Garcia atoll, Danger Island, Egmont Islands, Eagle Islands, Nelsons Island, Peros Banhos atoll. ( Diego Garcia island, which houses a strategic US military base).
Climate: It experiences a tropical marine climate with high temperatures and elevated humidity levels. The island’s climate is heavily moderated by the trade winds which blow over the islands.
Chagos Island Dispute
The Chagos dispute centres around the archipelago in the Indian Ocean, which Britain claimed along with Mauritius in 1814.
In 1966, Britain leased Diego Garcia, the largest of the Chagos Islands, to the United States, which was seeking a military base in the region.
The Chagossians, who are mostly descendants of African slaves brought to the islands in the 18th century, have since been engaged in a prolonged legal battle for the right to return to their homeland.
Mauritius, which gained independence from Britain in 1968, has consistently maintained its claim over the Chagos Islands.
In 2019, the International Court of Justice (ICJ) dismissed the UK’s right to govern the Chagos Islands and called on its government to withdraw from the archipelago.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/india-backs-mauritius-efforts-to-reclaim-chagos-archipelago-101721143703215.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Common Services Centres Special Purpose Vehicle:
- It was formed under the Companies Act, 1956 by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
- It provides a centralized collaborative framework for delivery of services to citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Common Services Centres Special Purpose Vehicle (CSC SPV) celebrated 15 glorious years of its establishment.
It is incorporated under the Companies Act, 1956 by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), Government of India.
It monitors the implementation of the Common Services Centers Scheme.
Common Services Centres (CSC) scheme is one of the mission mode projects of the Digital India Programme.
It provides a centralized collaborative framework for delivery of services to citizens through CSCs, besides ensuring systemic viability and sustainability of the scheme.
Key facts about Common Services Centres
It is an initiative of the Ministry of Electronics & IT (MeitY), Government of India.
These act as the front-end delivery points for Government, private and social sector services to rural citizens of India, in an integrated manner.
CSCs are the access points for delivery of various electronic services to villages in India, thereby contributing to a digitally and financially inclusive society.
These are the access points for delivery of essential public utility services, social welfare schemes, healthcare, financial, education and agriculture services, apart from host of B2C services to citizens in rural and remote areas of the country.
It is a pan-India network catering to regional, geographic, linguistic and cultural diversity of the country, thus enabling the Government’s mandate of a socially, financially and digitally inclusive society.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2033770
Consider the following statements with reference to the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme:
- It was launched by the Government of India in view of the Covid-19 crisis.
- The National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Ltd (NCGTC) provides guarantee to the loans provided under this scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, government officials have said that Non-performing assets (NPA) have been around 6 per cent under Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS).
It was launched by the Government of India in 2020 as a special scheme in view of the Covid-19 crisis.
Objective: To provide 100 percent guaranteed coverage to the banks, non-banking financial institutions (NBFCs), and other lending institutions to extend emergency credit to business entities that have suffered due to the Covid-19 pandemic and are struggling to meet their working capital requirements.
It is under the operational domain of the Ministry of Finance, Department of Financial Services (DFS).
National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Ltd (NCGTC) has been set up by the Union Ministry of Finance to manage and provide guarantees to these loans.
ECLGS was launched in different phases - ECLGS 1.0, ECLGS 2.0, ECLGS 3.0, and ECLGS 4.0. In different phases, the scope of this scheme was increased to include multiple sectors.
Sanctions/disbursements are made by lending institutions based on assessment of the borrower’s requirements and eligibility.
Processing charges, foreclosure, and prepayment charges are waived under the scheme.
No collateral is required for this scheme.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/only-6-of-total-loans-under-eclgs-are-bad-debts/article68403088.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Coalition of Epidemic Preparedness Innovations:
- It is an innovative partnership between public, private, philanthropic and civil organisations.
- India is not a part of this initiative.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister for the Ministry of Science & Technology inaugurated Asia’s first health research-related “Pre-clinical Network Facility” under the Coalition of Epidemic Preparedness Innovations (CEPI) in Faridabad.
It was launched in 2017 as an innovative partnership between public, private, philanthropic and civil organisations.
It was founded in Davos (Switzerland) by the governments of Norway and India, the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation, the Wellcome Trust, and the World Economic Forum.
Mission: Its mission is to accelerate the development of vaccines and other biologic countermeasures against epidemic and pandemic threats so they can be accessible to all people in need.
CEPI has supported the development of more than 50 vaccine candidates or platform technologies against multiple known high-risk pathogens or a future Disease X.
Central to CEPI’s pandemic-beating five-year plan for 2022-2026 is the ‘100 Days Mission’ to compress the time taken to develop safe, effective, globally accessible vaccines against new threats to just 100 days.
India- CEPI
The Department of Biotechnology, Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India is supporting the implementation of the Ind-CEPI Mission, “Epidemic preparedness through rapid vaccine development: Support of Indian vaccine development.
It is done through a dedicated Program Management Unit (PMU) at Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2033656
Consider the following statements regarding the National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development:
- It was formed by the Reserve Bank of India under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
- It is a specialized Development Finance Institution in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The government wants to increase the capital base of the National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development, or NaBFID, to 1 trillion through support from banks.
It was set up in 2021, by an Act of the Parliament (The National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development Act, 2021).
It is a specialized Development Finance Institution in India.
Objectives: Addressing the gaps in long-term non-recourse finance for infrastructure development, strengthening the development of bonds and derivatives markets in India, and sustainably boosting the country’s economy.
Regulated by: It shall be regulated and supervised by RBI as an All-India Financial Institution (AIFI).
The principal idea behind the setup of NaBFID is to provide a dedicated and specialized institution focused on addressing the long-term financing needs of the infrastructure sector in India.
What is a Development Finance Institution?
These are organizations owned by the government or public institutions to provide funds for infrastructure and large-scale projects, where it often becomes unviable for large banks to lend.
They provide two types of funds- Medium (1-5 years) and Large (< 5 years).
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.livemint.com/companies/nabfid-development-finance-institutions-dfi-infrastructure-lender-government-public-sector-banks-sbi-11721024885122.
Which among the following best describes Phlogacanthus Sudhansusekharii, recently seen in the news?
A newly discovered plant species from northeast India.
Explanation :
Researchers from the Botanical Survey of India (BSI) recently discovered a new plant species named Phlogacanthus sudhansusekharii, from Itanagar Wildlife Sanctuary in Arunachal Pradesh.
About Phlogacanthus Sudhansusekharii:
It is a newly discovered plant species which belongs to the family ‘Acanthaceae’ and the ‘Phlogacanthus’ genus.
It was discovered from the Itanagar Wildlife Sanctuary in Papum Pare district, Arunachal Pradesh.
The species is named to honor Dr. Sudhansu Sekhar Dash, a scientist at the BSI, for his “significant contribution” to plant and ecological research in the Indian Himalayan region.
The genus ‘Phlogacanthus’ comprises 13 species in India and is spread over mainly the northeastern and eastern Himalayan states.
Key Facts about Itanagar Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is a protected area located in Naharlagun, near the capital city of Arunachal Pradesh.
It covers an area of 140.30 sq. km.
It shares borders with the Pam River in the east, Pachin in the south, Neorochi in the north-east and Chingke stream in the north.
Flora:
The forest is a heterogenous mixture of evergreen and semi-evergreen forest types.
Apart from valleys and foothills, the entire region is hilly, which has given way to pure patches of bamboo.
It is also popular for having different species of orchids.
Fauna:
It is home to a wide variety of wildlife species, including tigers, leopards, clouded leopards, elephants, barking deer, sambar, and various species of primates such as hoolock gibbons and macaques.
It is also home to avian species, including hornbills, eagles, and pheasants.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/environment/new-plant-species-discovered-in-arunachal-pradesh-3110478
Consider the following statements regarding Rwanda:
- It is a landlocked country located in north-western Africa.
- Two major African rivers, the Nile and the Congo, flow through Rwanda.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Rwanda’s President Paul Kagame has smashed his own record by winning recent elections with more than 99% of the vote.
About Rwanda:
It is a landlocked country located south of the equator in east-central Africa.
It is part of the Great Rift Valley region of Africa.
Often referred to as the “land of a thousand hills”, Rwanda’s landscape is mostly hilly and mountainous.
It covers an area of 26,338 sq. km.
Borders: Rwanda shares a border with the four nations of Burundi, Tanzania, Uganda, and the Democratic Republic of the Congo.
Capital: Kigali
Languages: Kinyarwanda, French, English
Money: Rwandan franc
Population:
It is one of the continent’s most densely populated, with approximately a thousand people per square mile.
The Hutu and Tutsi ethnic groups make up most of the country’s population.
The majority of both groups practice Christianity.
Government: In 2003, Rwanda adopted a constitution mapping out a presidential system of government.
Major Moutain Ranges: Albertine Rift and Virunga.
Major Rivers:
Two major African rivers, the Nile and the Congo, flow through Rwanda.
Other major rivers are Kagera, Nyabarongo, Ruzizi, Luhwa, and Akanyaru.
80% of Rwanda’s rivers drain into the Nile through Lake Victoria, while the remaining 20% drain into the Congo via the Rusizi River which also has the lowest elevation in Rwanda at 950 m.
Lakes:
Lakes are everywhere in Rwanda. Lake Kivu, located on the western border of the country with DRC, is the largest among them. It is one of the 20 deepest lakes in the world.
Other notable lakes include Burera, Cohana, Ruhondo, Muhazi, Rweru, and Ihema.
Biodiversity: It is one of the most ecologically diverse places in Africa.
The continent’s Albertine Rift region, which covers much of western Rwanda, is home to about a third of Africa’s birds, 40 percent of its mammals, and 20 percent of the continent’s amphibians and plants.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.bbc.com/news/articles/cnk413ze07lo
With reference to Enemy Property in India, consider the following statements:
- Besides real estate, enemy property may also include bank accounts, shares, gold, and other assets of such individuals.
- Most of these properties belong to people who migrated to China.
- Maharashtra has the highest number of enemy properties, followed by Uttar Pradesh.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The Indian government has begun to auction properties classified as ‘enemy properties’.
About Enemy Property:
Enemy property is those immovable and moveable assets which were left behind by people who took citizenship of Pakistan and China after leaving India during the partition and post the 1962 and 1965 wars.
Besides real estate, enemy property may also include bank accounts, shares, gold, and other assets of such individuals.
The enemy properties are vested with the Custodian of Enemy Property for India (CEPI), an authority created under the Enemy Property Act, 1968.
The 2017 amendment to the Act (Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Act, 2017) stated that the successors of those who migrated to Pakistan and China ceased to have a claim over the properties left behind in India.
The amendment ensured that the law of succession does not apply to enemy property, that there cannot be a transfer of any property vested in the custodian by an enemy, or enemy subject, or enemy firm, and that the custodian shall preserve the enemy property till it is disposed of in accordance with the provisions of the Act.
As per CEPI, there are 13,252 enemy properties in India, valued at over Rs1 lakh crore.
Most of these properties belong to people who migrated to Pakistan, and over 100 to those who migrated to China.
Uttar Pradesh (5,982) has the highest number of enemy properties, followed by West Bengal (4,354).
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/uttar-pradesh/when-a-home-is-enemy-property/article68400176.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Last Universal Common Ancestor (LUCA):
- It is the hypothesized common ancestor from which all modern cellular life descends.
- LUCA existed about one billion years ago.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
In a new study, scientists have said the last universal common ancestor (LUCA) could have formed just few hundred million years after the earth formed.
About LUCA:
LUCA is the hypothesized common ancestor from which all modern cellular life, from single-celled organisms like bacteria to the gigantic redwood trees (as well as us humans), descends.
LUCA represents the root of the tree of life before it splits into the groups, recognized today: Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya.
Modern life evolved from LUCA from various different sources: the same amino acids used to build proteins in all cellular organisms, the shared energy currency (ATP), the presence of cellular machinery like the ribosome and others associated with making proteins from the information stored in DNA, and even the fact that all cellular life uses DNA itself as a way of storing information.
Through genetic analysis and evolutionary modeling, researchers pinpointed LUCA’s existence to about 4.2 billion years ago, just 400 million years after the formation of Earth and our Solar System.
LUCA is not too different from modern prokaryotes, and clearly possessed an early immune system.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/searching-for-luca-the-first-life-form-from-which-all-other-life-descended/article68409763.ece
Section 294 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) deals with which one of the following?
The filing and admission of documents by the prosecution or the accused.
Explanation :
Recently, the Supreme Court observed that an accused cannot be said to be a witness against himself if he was called upon to admit or deny the genuineness of the documents produced by the prosecution under Section 294 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).
About Section 294 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC):
It pertains to the filing of documents by the prosecution or the accused.
This section requires that the particulars of every document filed by either party be included in a list, and the opposing party or their pleaders must be given the opportunity to admit or deny the genuineness of each document.
It applies to all documents filed by the prosecution or the accused, regardless of their nature and character.
It is important to note that the genuineness of the documents is crucial, and without proper proof, reliance cannot be placed upon them.
However, it is also clear that Section 294 of the CrPC does not apply to witnesses who wish to directly produce additional documents during the course of the trial or during the recording of their evidence.
This section specifically applies to documents filed by the prosecution or the accused, not third parties like witnesses.
The purpose of Section 294 of the CrPC is to accelerate the pace of the trial by avoiding the waste of time in recording unnecessary evidence.
It allows for the admission of documents whose genuineness is not disputed by the opposing party.
It aims to ensure transparency and fairness in the judicial process by allowing both the prosecution and the accused to present relevant documents.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
S. 294 CrPC | Calling Accused To Admit/Deny Genuineness Of Documents Produced By Prosecution Not Violation Of Article 20(3) : Supreme Court
Consider the following statements regarding the Gaia Spacecraft:
- It was launched by the European Space Agency.
- It is placed in Lagrange point (L2) to discover extra-solar planets and brown dwarfs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Gaia spacecraft has faced and overcome significant challenges in its mission to map over a billion stars in the Milky Way.
It was launched by the European Space Agency (ESA) in December 2013.
It is being located 1.5 million kilometres from Earth at the second Sun-Earth Lagrange point (L2).
Mission:
It monitors each of its target stars about 14 times per year. It is precisely charting their positions, distances, movements, and changes in brightness.
It is expected to discover hundreds of thousands of new celestial objects, such as extra-solar planets and brown dwarfs, and observe hundreds of thousands of asteroids within our own Solar System.
The mission is also studying more than 1 million distant quasars and providing stringent new tests of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity.
It contains two optical telescopes that work with three science instruments to precisely determine the location of stars and their velocities, and to split their light into a spectrum for analysis.
It is creating an extraordinarily precise three-dimensional map of nearly two billion objects throughout our Galaxy and beyond, mapping their motions, luminosity, temperature and composition.
This huge stellar census is providing the data needed to tackle an enormous range of important open questions relating to the origin, structure and evolutionary history of our Galaxy.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/gaia-spacecraft-mapping-a-billion-stars-in-space-hit-by-micrometeoroid-2568610-2024-07-18
Consider the following statements regarding the Khelo India Rising Talent Identification (KIRTI) program:
- It is aimed at school children between 9 and 18 years age group.
- It has an objective to use sports as a tool to curb addiction towards drugs and other gadgetry distractions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Government’s ambitious Khelo India Rising Talent Identification (KIRTI) program is set to get a fresh boost under the leadership of the Union Minister for Youth Affairs.
It is aimed at school children between nine and 18 years age group.
The nation-wide scheme will have two main objectives:
To hunt talent from every nook and corner of the country and
To use sports as a tool to curb addiction towards drugs and other gadgetry distractions.
KIRTI made a solid launch across 50 centres in India. Fifty thousand applicants are being assessed in the first phase across 10 sports, including athletics, boxing, wrestling, hockey, football and wrestling.
It aims to conduct 20 lakh assessments across the country throughout the FY 2024-25 to identify talent through notified Talent Assessment Centres.
Its athlete-centric programme is conspicuous by its transparent selection methodology based on Information Technology. Data analytics based on Artificial Intelligence are being used to predict the sporting acumen of an aspiring athlete.
With its decentralized and pocket-based talent identification approach will help in achieving the twin objectives of the Khelo India Scheme i.e. excellence in sports, and mass participation in sports.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2034000
. With reference to the Foreigners Tribunal, consider the following statements:
- It is quasi-judicial body formed through the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order of 1964.
- It has the powers of a civil court.
- It has to dispose of a case within 30 days of reference.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Assam government asked the Border wing of the State’s police not to forward cases of non-Muslims who entered India illegally before 2014 to the Foreigners Tribunals (FTs).
These are quasi-judicial bodies formed through the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order of 1964 under Section 3 of the Foreigners’ Act of 1946, to let local authorities in a State refer a person suspected to be a foreigner to tribunals.
The FTs are currently exclusive to Assam as cases of “illegal immigrants” are dealt with according to the Foreigners’ Act in other States.
Composition: Each FT is headed by a member drawn from judges, advocates, and civil servants with judicial experience.
The Ministry of Home Affairs told Parliament in 2021 that there are 300 FTs in Assam but the website of the State’s Home and Political Department says that only 100 FTs are currently functioning, beginning with 11 established before the Illegal Migrants (Determination by Tribunals) Act of 1983 was scrapped in 2005.
Functioning
According to the 1964 order, an FT has the powers of a civil court in certain matters such as summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person and examining him or her on oath and requiring the production of any document.
A tribunal is required to serve a notice in English or the official language of the State to a person alleged to be a foreigner within 10 days of receiving the reference from the authority concerned.
Such a person has 10 days to reply to the notice and another 10 days to produce evidence in support of his or her case.
An FT has to dispose of a case within 60 days of reference. If the person fails to provide any proof of citizenship, the FT can send him or her to a detention centre, now called transit camp, for deportation later.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/assam/how-do-assams-foreigners-tribunals-function-explained/article68419385.
Consider the following statements regarding the Voicebox programme:
- It provides Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) training for voice-over artists focusing only on classical languages of India.
- It is open to professionals with more than two years of experience in the media entertainment sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the National Film Development Corporation (NFDC) has joined hands with Netflix India to launch an upskilling program for voice-over artists in India called “The Voicebox”.
It will offer Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) training for voice-over artists focusing on English, Hindi, Marathi, Bengali, Malayalam, Tamil, Telugu and Gujarati languages.
Eligibility: The program is open to professionals, preferably women, with more than two years of experience in the media and entertainment sector, who are eager to enhance their skills in voice-over.
Funding: It is sponsored by the Netflix Fund for Creative Equity, which has dedicated $100 million a year over five years to setting underrepresented communities up for success in the TV and film industries through programs all around the world.
As part of the program, structured workshops, which would include training (featuring guest lectures and mentoring sessions), followed by an assessment, will be conducted in seven major cities of India - New Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Ahmedabad, Hyderabad, Chennai, and Kochi.
Each batch would accommodate up to 30 candidates, with 210 participants selected through preliminary screening. At least 50% of the participants will be women.
Pearl Academy, India’s leading design institute will join as a Training Partner for this program.
Seven top participants from every batch will be chosen to contribute to Netflix’s special project, “Azaadi ki Amrit Kahaniya”, where they will lend their voice to narrate stories reflecting the Indian independence movement.
Key facts about National Film Development Corporation
It is a public sector enterprise under the aegis of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting (MoIB).
It was formed in the year 1975 by the Government of India.
Objective: The primary objective of planning and promoting an organized, efficient, and integrated development of the Indian film industry.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2034081
Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Water Convention:
- It is a legally binding instrument which promotes the sustainable management of shared water resources.
- It replaces previous bilateral and multilateral agreements for specific basins.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, Ivory Coast joined the United Nations Water Convention, becoming the 10th African nation to do so.
It is also known as the Convention on the Protection and Use of Transboundary Watercourses and International Lakes which was adopted in Helsinki in 1992 and entered into force in 1996.
It is a unique legally binding instrument promoting the sustainable management of shared water resources, the implementation of the Sustainable Development Goals, the prevention of conflicts, and the promotion of peace and regional integration.
History
It was originally negotiated as a regional framework for the pan-European region.
Following an amendment procedure, since March 2016 all UN Member States can accede to it.
Chad and Senegal have become the first African Parties in 2018.
Iraq acceded in March 2023 as the first country from the Middle East, Namibia in June 2023 as the first country from Southern Africa and Panama in July 2023 as the first country from Latin America.
It requires Parties to prevent, control and reduce transboundary impact, use transboundary waters in a reasonable and equitable way and ensure their sustainable management.
Parties bordering the same transboundary waters have to cooperate by entering into specific agreements and establishing joint bodies.
As a framework agreement, the Convention does not replace bilateral and multilateral agreements for specific basins or aquifers; instead, it fosters their establishment and implementation, as well as further development.
Significance: It is a powerful tool to promote and operationalize the achievement of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and its SDGs.
The United Nations Economic Commission for Europe (UNECE), which services the UN Water Convention.
Key facts about Ivory Coast
It shares eight transboundary river basins (Black Volta, Bia, Tanoe, Comoe, Niger, Sassandra, Cavally et Nuon) with six of its neighbours, which include Ghana, Burkina Faso, Mali, Guinea, Liberia, and Sierra Leone.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/africa/ivory-coast-joins-un-water-convention-as-10th-african-nation
“Mashco Piro tribe”, recently seen in the news, primarily resides in:
Amazon jungles
Explanation :
Rare photographs of the Mashco Piro, an uncontacted Indigenous tribe residing in the remote Peruvian Amazon, were published recently.
About Mashco Piro Tribe:
Mashco Piro are believed to be the largest uncontacted tribe on Earth, numbering more than 750 people.
These nomadic hunter-gatherers live in the Amazon jungles of the Madre de Dios Region, close to Peru’s border with Brazil and Bolivia.
They are believed to have fled into the recesses of the jungle during the Amazon Rubber Boom in the late 1800s, a time of enslavement and death for many tribes.
They live on the banks of the Las Piedras River in the Alto Purús National Park in huts constructed of palm leaf. In the rainy season, they retreat to huts in the rain forest.
The Mashco-Piro tribe speaks a dialect of the Piro language.
Way of Life:
Members of the tribe wear very little clothing.
Men, women, and children alike wear only a yellowish-brown cloth above the waist and perhaps arm and leg bands of the same color.
They have medium stature and athletic build.
All have straight black hair worn shoulder length or longer.
Men probably hunt with the weapons they have been seen carrying, such as bows and arrows, as well as spears.
Peru’s government has forbidden all contact with the Mashco Piro, fearing the spread of a disease among the population to which it has no immunity.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/rest-of-world/watch-rare-video-captures-mashco-piro-tribe-in-peruvian-amazon-fleeing-logging-encroachment/articleshow/111831298.cms
Adam’s Bridge is separated by which one of the following?
Gulf of Mannar and Palk Strait
Explanation :
Scientists from the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) have successfully mapped the submerged structure of Adam’s Bridge, also known as Ram Setu.
About Adam’s Bridge:
The Adam’s Bridge, also known as the Ram Sethu Bridge, connects Rameswaram Island, off the southeast coast of India, to Mannar Island, off the northwest coast of Sri Lanka.
It separates the Gulf of Mannar (southwest) from the Palk Strait (northeast).
The bridge is a 48 km long chain of natural limestone shoals.
Some of the sandbanks are dry and the sea in the area is very shallow, being only 1 to 10 metres deep in places, which hinders navigation.
Geologic evidence suggests that Adam’s Bridge represents a former land connection between India and Sri Lanka.
Ram Setu is mentioned in the epic Ramayana, as the bridge constructed by Lord Rama and his vanara (monkey) army.
The bridge was constructed to cross over to Lanka to rescue Goddess Sita from the clutches of the demon king Ravana.
In Valmiki’s Ramayana, the bridge is described as Sethubanthan.
As per Islamic legend, Adam used this bridge to reach Adam’s Peak in Sri Lanka.
The Rameshwaram temple records suggest that Adam’s bridge was completely above sea level till 1480. It was submerged in the shallow sea due to natural calamities.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.republicworld.com/india/isro-scientists-create-first-undersea-mapping-of-ram-setu-using-nasa-satellite-reports
Consider the following statements with reference to the Pralay Missile:
- It is a quasi-ballistic surface-to-surface missile.
- It was developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Armenia’s reported interest in acquiring India’s Pralay missile is a great opportunity for India.
About Pralay Missile:
‘Pralay’ is a 350-500 km short-range, quasi-ballistic surface-to-surface missile with a payload capacity of 500-1,000 kg.
The solid-fuel, battlefield missile is based on the Prithvi Defence Vehicle.
The missile has been developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) in view of the country’s defence requirements along the Line of Actual Control (LAC) and Line of Control (LoC).
Features:
The Pralay, powered by a solid propellant rocket motor, never leaves the atmosphere and follows a flat trajectory.
Range: It can hit targets 150-500 km away.
The missile navigates to its target using inertial guidance. It can be controlled throughout its flight.
It features a radio frequency (DSMAC—Digital Scene-Matching Area Correlation) seeker for terminal guidance.
The missile is fitted with an indigenously developed Fused Silica Radar Dome (RADOME).
The Pralay missile features a jet vane system for thrust vector control, suggesting that the missile can perform evasive maneuvers in the terminal phase of flight.
The missile can feature different types of warheads, including PF (Pre-fragmented), Monolithic PCB (Penetration cum blast), and Submunition PCB.
The Pralay missile features two sets of small fins to reduce its radar signature.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.eurasiantimes.com/armenia-seeks-indian-pralay-missiles/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Newcastle Disease (ND):
- It is a highly contagious and severe disease found worldwide that affects birds.
- It is caused by a bacterium.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Brazil’s agriculture ministry recently declared an animal health emergency in the country’s southernmost state of Rio Grande do Sul after a case of Newcastle disease was detected on a poultry farm.
About Newcastle Disease (ND):
It is a highly contagious and often severe disease found worldwide that affects birds, including domestic poultry.
It is caused by a virus in the family of paramyxoviruses.
It attacks their respiratory, nervous, and digestive systems.
ND only affects birds, particularly poultry, such as chickens.
It can cause illness and death in large numbers of birds quickly.
Transmission:
ND is transmitted most often by direct contact with diseased or carrier birds.
Infected birds may shed the virus in their feces, contaminating the environment.
Transmission can then occur by direct contact with feces and respiratory discharges or by contaminated food, water, equipment, and human clothing.
ND viruses can survive for several weeks in the environment, especially in cool weather.
The disease is very contagious. When the virus is introduced into a susceptible flock, virtually all the birds will be infected within two to six days.
Symptoms: Infected birds may show signs of:
loss of appetite, coughing, gasping, nasal discharge, watery eyes, bright green diarrhoea, and nervous signs such as paralysis and convulsions
combs and wattles may look swollen, enlarged, and discoloured (purple or blue)
reduced egg production, and the few eggs that are produced may be soft shelled and malformed.
Treatment:
There is no treatment for ND, and, in many countries, infected and susceptible birds in the vicinity of an outbreak are culled to contain transmission of the disease.
Prevention is accomplished through vaccination and strict biosecurity.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.reuters.com/world/americas/brazil-declares-animal-health-emergency-rio-grande-do-sul-after-newcastle-2024-07-19/
Ratapani Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in which one of the following states?
Madhya Pradesh
Explanation :
The Madhya Pradesh State Wildlife Board has accorded approval to declare Ratapani Wildlife Sanctuary, on the outskirts of Bhopal, as the eighth tiger reserve of MP.
About Ratapani Wildlife Sanctuary:
It stretches across 823 sq. km in the Raisen and Sehore districts of Madhya Pradesh.
This rocky forest with aquatic environment is spread on the Vindhya Hills.
It runs parallel on the northern side of the Narmada River. The Kolar River forms the western boundary of the Sanctuary.
The sanctuary was first notified in 1976 and then extended in 1983. In 2008, it was declared as a Tiger Reserve.
The Sanctuary has Bhimbetika, “a group of rock shelters and rock paintings”, which is one of the ‘’ World Heritage Site ‘’ declared by UNESCO.
Landscape: It is rugged with hills, valleys, plateaus, and plains.
Flora:
The forest of this Sanctuary is of dry deciduous and moist deciduous types.
About 55% of the area is covered by teak. The remaining mixed forests consist of various dry deciduous species.
Fauna:
The regal striped cat is the apex predator, and estimates suggest that 40 tigers roam these forests.
Chinkara, an endangered species, is also found in the Sanctuary.
It is also home to animals like the Panther, Hyena, Jackal, Indian Fox, Wild Dog, Jungle Cat, Small Indian Civet, Blue Bull, Chinkara, Black Buck, Chausingha, Spotted Deer, Barking Deer, etc.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
S News: https://www.deccanchronicle.com/nation/ratapani-wildlife-sanctuary-may-become-8th-tiger-reserve-of-mp-1st-one-with-proximity-to-state-capital-1810440
Consider the following statements regarding the International Centre for Audit of Local Governance:
- It is a collaborative platform for policymakers, administrators and auditors linked with local governments.
- It serves as a centre of excellence for capacity building of local government auditors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India inaugurated the International Centre for Audit of Local Governance (iCAL) in Rajkot.
It is a collaborative platform for policymakers, administrators and auditors linked with local governments.
It will enhance the local government auditors’ independence to ensure improved financial performance assessment, service delivery, and data reporting.
It will also serve as a centre of excellence for capacity building of local government auditors.
Its primary objectives are to develop and enhance standards for Local Government Audits, strengthen data collection and reporting and empower auditors, executives, and elected representatives through comprehensive training programs and leadership development initiatives.
The establishment of iCAL underscores the importance of Local Governments in achieving Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) by fostering grassroots engagement and nurturing citizen ownership and accountability.
How are local bodies audited in India?
Many state governments have an Examiner of Local Fund Accounts (ELFA) or Director of Local Fund Accounts (DLFA) for auditing their accounts.
ELFA audits the utilisation of funds granted by the state government to local bodies.
The CAG, on the other hand, conducts audits of all funds (including the state and Central governments).
It also exercises control and supervision over the proper maintenance of accounts and auditing for all three levels of PRIs/ULBs. Under its technical guidance and support initiative, CAG also advises and supports ELFA or DLFA.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/centre-audit-local-governance-gujarat-9460978/
Bhusanket Web Portal, which was recently lauched, provides information about:
landslide hazards
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister of Coal and Mines inaugurated the National Landslide Forecasting Centre at Geological Survey of India (GSI) Kolkata and also launched the Bhusanket Web Portal and Bhooskhalan Mobile App.
This web portal will facilitate the dissemination of relevant data and information on landslide hazards, initiating short-range and medium-range landslide forecasting in the country.
Integrated with the Bhusanket Web Portal, the user-friendly Bhooskhalan Mobile App will enable quick dissemination of daily landslide forecasts and allow stakeholders to share and update spatial and temporal information on landslide occurrences.
The app is available on Bhusanket web portal and will soon be available on Google Play Store.
Key facts about Geological Survey of India
It was set up in 1851 primarily to find coal deposits for the Railways.
It is an attached office to the Ministry of Mines.
Its main functions relate to creating and updating of national geoscientific information and mineral resource assessment.
These objectives are achieved through ground surveys, air-borne and marine surveys, mineral prospecting and investigations, multi-disciplinary geoscientific, geo-technical, geo-environmental and natural hazards studies, glaciology, seismo-tectonic study and carrying out fundamental research.
GSI also emphasizes on systematic documentation of all geological processes both surface and subsurface, of the country and its offshore areas.
It functions as a ‘Repository’ for the purpose and uses the latest computer-based technologies for the dissemination of geoscientific information and spatial data, through cooperation and collaboration with other stakeholders in the Geo-informatics sector.
Headquarters: Kolkata and it has six regional offices located in Lucknow, Jaipur, Nagpur, Hyderabad and Shillong.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2034442
With reference to the Bhil tribe, consider the following statements:
- They belong to the Australoid group of tribes.
- They are mainly inhabited in the northeastern states of India.
- They celebrate the Baneshwar fair during the period of Shivratri.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, a large number of people from the Bhil tribe gathered at a rally in Rajasthan’s Mangarh Dham and again raised the “long due” demand for an independent ‘Bhil state’.
Bhils are considered as one of the oldest tribes in India.
The name ‘Bhil’ is derived from the word villu or billu, which according to the Dravidian language is known as Bow.
They could be identified as one of the Dravidian racial tribes of Western India and belong to the Australoid group of tribes.
They are mainly divided into two main groups: the central and eastern or Rajput Bhils.
The central Bhils are found in the mountain regions in the Indian states of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat and Rajasthan. Bhils are also found in the north eastern parts of Tripura.
Language: They speak Bhili, which is an Indo Aryan language.
Religion practice among the Bhils differ from place to place.
Most of them worship local deities like Khandoba, Kanhoba, Bahiroba, and Sitalmata. Some worship the Tiger God called ‘vaghdev’.
They consult Badvas -the hereditary sorcerers on all the occasions.
Main festivals: The Baneshwar fair is the main festival celebrated among the Bhils. This fair is held during the period of Shivratri and is dedicated to Baneshwar Mahadev also known as Lord Shiva.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-politics/bhil-pradesh-tribals-rajasthan-9463871/
Consider the following statements regarding the Cadmium telluride:
- It is an odorless and black crystalline solid.
- It has lowest carbon dioxide emissions and ozone depletion potential.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
According to a study by researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Mandi in Himachal Pradesh, CdTe (Cadmium telluride) technology exhibits some of the least environmental impact among solar cell technologies in India.
It is a material made from the combination of two elements: Cadmium (Cd) and Tellurium (Te).
It is an odorless and black crystalline solid.
Properties
It is insoluble in water but resolves in nitrate acid, resulting in oxidation in moisture air under long time exposure.
It has the lowest carbon dioxide emissions, ozone depletion potential, human health effects, and particulate air pollution.
Applications: It is considered a prospective material for the room temperature semiconductor detector application such as an infrared optical window and lens, thin film solar cell material.
CdTe is the second most common Photo Voltaic (PV) technology in the world, after silicon.
It was one of five solar cell technologies on which the IIT scientists conducted a life-cycle assessment (LCA) to identify the most sustainable options for solar energy production in India.
The other four were mono-silicon, polysilicon, Copper Indium Gallium Selenide (CIGS), and Passivated Emitter & Rear Contact (PERC).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/energy/iit-mandi-researchers-assess-environmental-impact-of-solar-cells-heres-what-they-found
Consider the following statements with reference to the Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite:
- It is designed to discover exoplanets orbit around the brightest dwarf stars in the sky.
- It was launched by the European Space Agency in 2018.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A new study carried out by the Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS) confirmed the theory that there are two black holes at the centre of the four billion light years distant galaxy OJ 287.
It is a NASA mission that’s searching for planets orbiting the brightest stars in Earth’s sky.
It is designed to discover thousands of exoplanets orbit around the brightest dwarf stars in the sky.
It is finding planets ranging from small, rocky worlds to giant planets, showcasing the diversity of planets in our galaxy. It has so far found 410 confirmed exoplanets or “new worlds” circling stars other than the Sun.
The satellite is a follow-up to NASA’s highly successful Kepler space telescope, which found thousands of exoplanets during a decade of work after its launch in 2009.
It was launched on April 18, 2018, aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket out of Cape Canaveral.
It circles Earth in a unique high Earth orbit of 12 to 15 days, which is inclined in such a way that the telescope’s sky view is largely free from obstructions to our bright planet and the Moon.
The prime mission ended on July 4, 2020, and TESS is now on an extended mission.
TESS is finding planets ranging from small, rocky worlds to giant planets, showcasing the diversity of planets in the galaxy.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2034082
With reference to the Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP) Scheme, consider the following statements:
- It is a WTO-compliant scheme of the Ministry of Commerce, Government of India.
- This scheme is open to both manufacturers and merchant exporters, without any threshold of turnover.
- It covers physical exports as well as outbound shipments of services from India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The tea industry has sought higher rates under the RoDTEP scheme to make exports more competitive in overseas markets.
About RoDTEP Scheme:
It is a flagship export promotion scheme of the Commerce Ministry of India.
The WTO-compliant scheme aims to refund to the exporters the embedded central, state, and local duties and taxes paid on inputs that have so far not been refunded or rebated.
RoDTEP was announced in September 2019 to boost domestic exports and replace the export incentive scheme, Merchandise Exports from India (MEIS) scheme.
This came after a World Trade Organization (WTO) ruling stated that the MEIS scheme violated the provisions of the trade agency as it was providing export subsidies for a several range of goods.
The government decided to extend the benefit of the RoDTEP scheme to all goods, with effect from January 1, 2021, according to a notification by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT).
By providing support to crucial export sectors, the government aims to not only enhance their competitiveness but also create employment opportunities and contribute to overall economic growth, aligning with the vision of building an Aatmanirbhar Bharat.
Features:
This scheme is open to both manufacturers and merchant exporters, without any threshold of turnover.
The most important condition is that such goods should have been directly exported by such a person.
The RoDTEP scheme covers physical exports as well as outbound shipments of services from India. Service providers can also claim refunds on applicable hidden levies.
A rebate will have to be claimed as a percentage of the Freight on Board value of exports.
It will be implemented by Customs through a simplified IT System.
Rebates will be issued in the form of a transferable duty credit/ electronic scrip(e-scrip), which will be maintained in an electronic ledger by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC).
The rebates would not be available in respect of duties and taxes already exempted, credited, or remitted.
Rebates on certain export products will also be subject to a value cap per unit of the exported product.
Certain categories which would not avail of the benefits include export goods that are subject to the minimum export price, restricted and prohibited items, deemed exports, supplies of goods manufactured by domestic tariff area units to special economic zones (SEZs), and products manufactured or exported by units situated in SEZs.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.business-standard.com/industry/news/tea-industry-seeks-higher-rodtep-rates-to-make-exports-competitive-overseas-124072000255_1.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagittarius A* (Sgr A*):
- It is a supermassive black hole located at the center of the Milky Way galaxy.
- It is highly active with an estimated mass of about ten times that of the sun.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Scientists recently discovered another intermediate-mass black hole at the centre of a star cluster in the Milky Way, which is close to the supermassive black hole Sagittarius A* (SgrA*).
About is Sagittarius A* (Sgr A*):
It is a supermassive black hole located at the center of our spiral galaxy, the Milky Way.
It is mostly dormant and only occasionally absorbs gas or dust, but nonetheless has an estimated mass 4.3 million times that of the sun.
It is located in the constellation Sagittarius.
It has a diameter of around 14.6 million miles (23.5 million kilometers).
It is a strong source of radio waves. Most of the radio radiation is from a synchrotron mechanism, indicating the presence of free electrons and magnetic fields.
The event horizon of the black hole has a radius of 12 million km (7 million miles).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.wionews.com/science/scientists-spot-intermediate-mass-black-hole-lurking-at-centre-of-milky-way-star-cluster-742691
Consider the following statements with reference to the Rapid Apophis Mission for Space Safety (RAMSES):
- It is a planetary defence mission of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
- It aims to intercept the Apophis asteroid and study its characteristics during its close flyby of Earth in 2029.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The European Space Agency recently announced that its new Ramses spacecraft may accompany the asteroid Apophis before and after its safe, albeit rather close, pass of Earth.
About Rapid Apophis Mission for Space Safety (RAMSES):
It is a planetary defence mission of the European Space Agency (ESA).
It will intercept the asteroid 99942 Apophis and accompany it through its safe but exceptionally close flyby of Earth in 2029.
Roughly 375 m across, Apophis will pass within 32,000 km from Earth’s surface on 13 April 2029.
It will be the closest approach of an asteroid of this size that humankind has ever known about in advance.
For a short time, Apophis will be visible to the naked eye in clear, dark skies for about 2 billion people across much of Europe, and Africa, and parts of Asia.
Apophis will miss Earth. Astronomers have ruled out any chance that the asteroid will collide with our planet for at least the next 100 years.
But the Apophis flyby in April 2029 is an extremely rare natural phenomenon.
Researchers will study the asteroid as Earth’s gravity alters its physical characteristics.
Their findings will improve our ability to defend our planet from any similar object found to be on a collision course in the future.
RAMSES will work in synergy with the NASA mission OSIRIS-APEX and will arrive at Apophis a few days after the closest approach of the asteroid to the Earth, allowing a comparison of the asteroid properties measured by the two missions.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://edition.cnn.com/2024/07/16/science/esa-ramses-apophis-asteroid-mission/index.html
Which one of the following is the primary function of a Radome?
To protect a radar system from environmental elements
Explanation :
The Defence Metallurgical Research Laboratory (DMRL) has made a noteworthy achievement in creating homegrown fused silica radomes for missiles.
About Radome:
A radome is a protective enclosure designed to shield a radar or antenna system from environmental elements without interfering with electromagnetic signal transmission.
These enclosures are made of either rigid, self-supporting materials or air-inflated, flexible fabrics. An assortment of shapes exists to match the specific applications.
The radome helps to maintain the performance and functionality of the antenna by reducing the impact of environmental factors on the antenna’s signal transmission and reception.
It is also used to conceal the antenna’s electronic equipment from public view for security purposes.
In addition to this, radomes are useful in situations where rotating antennas might accidentally collide with other nearby objects or equipment, resulting in damages.
It ensures the durability and performance efficiency of the antenna it houses.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://english.mathrubhumi.com/news/india/defence-lab-dmrl-creates-tech-that-will-add-punch-to-indian-missiles-1.9741901
Consider the following statements with reference to the Zebra Mussel:
- They are invasive, fingernail-sized mollusk that attach themselves to virtually any surface.
- They are native to the Great Lakes of North America.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Zebra mussel, an invasive species capable of wiping out entire aquatic ecosystems, has been found for the first time in the Colorado River, the most important river in the American Southwest.
About Zebra Mussel:
Zebra mussels are an invasive, fingernail-sized mollusk.
Scientific Name: Dreissena polymorpha
Distribution:
They are native to the Caspian and Black Seas, south of Russia and Ukraine.
They entered the Great Lakes of North America in the late 1980s through ballast water discharged from ships.
Since then, they have spread through much of eastern Canada and the United States.
Habitat: They live underwater, attached to natural and manmade substrates such as rocks, wood, plants, native mussels, pipes, docks, boat lifts, swim rafts, moored watercraft, and other debris.
They are easy to identify, with a distinct, flat-bottomed ‘D’ shape to their shells that allows them to sit flat against a solid surface, and black, zigzag stripes against a cream background that earned them their name.
They grow around two inches long at most, and are microscopic in their larval stage, which is known as a “veliger.”
They are short-lived (between two and five years), and begin reproducing at two years of age.
Impacts:
They are filter feeders that attach themselves to virtually any surface.
They breed very quickly, as females can release up to one million eggs each breeding season.
They disrupt food webs by wiping out phytoplankton.
Zebra Mussels are especially harmful for native mussels, many of which are species at risk. They outcompete these speciesfor food and will attach themselves to native mussels, suffocating them.
Their massive clustering on water-intake valves and pipes, bridge abutments, and other structures can cause severe commercial damage.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://phys.org/news/2024-07-invasive-species-colorado-river-capable.html
Consider the following statements regarding the National District Mineral Foundation (DMF) Portal:
- It is a centralized platform to gather information on the District Mineral Foundations across the country.
- It aims to facilitate access to the DMF data and track the developments and utilizations thereunder.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister of Coal and Mines launched the Mineral Exploration Hackathon and the National District Mineral Foundation (DMF) Portal.
It is a centralized platform to gather information on the District Mineral Foundations across the country.
Aim: The aim for launching this portal is to facilitate access to the DMF data and track the developments and utilizations thereunder.
This portal provides details of 645 DMFs in the country with enhanced transparency, featuring centralized visibility of activities, project oversight, and dynamic analytics, as well as a repository of best practices for effective implementation.
Key facts about the District Mineral Foundation
It is a trust set up as a non-profit body under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) (MMDR) Amendment Act 2015.
Purpose: To work in the interest and benefits of persons and areas affected by mining-related operations in a manner as may be prescribed by the respective State Government.
Funding: It is funded through the contributions from the holders of major or minor mineral concessions in the district, as may be prescribed by the Central or State Government.
Jurisdiction:
The operation of DMFs falls under the jurisdiction of the relevant State Government.
The composition and functions of the District Mineral Foundation shall be such as may be prescribed by the State Government.
The fund for DMF is collected at the district level.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2034634
Mesembrius bengalensis, recently seen in the news, is a:
flower fly
Explanation :
Researchers of the Shadpada Entomology Research Lab (SERL) of Christ College, Irinjalakuda, have reported two species of flower flies for the first time from Kerala.
Mesembrius bengalensis and M. quadrivittatus have been discovered from the Kole wetlands and Vilagan Kunnu hillocks of Thrissur district.
Flower flies belong to the family Syrphidae of the order Diptera and are commonly called flower files because they are frequent visitors of flowers like many bees and wasps.
They are flies that evolved to mimic bees or wasps to escape from their predators.
Ecological role: Flower flies are important pollinators. Larvae of these flies are excellent biological control agents and nutrient recyclers.
Key facts about Kole wetlands
It is the largest brackish, humid tropical wetland ecosystem located in the state of Kerala.
Extending from the northern bank of Chalakudy River in the south to the southern bank of Bharathapuzha River in the north
It is situated in the central Asian Flyway of migratory birds.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/two-species-of-flower-flies-reported-for-the-first-time-in-kerala/article68422186.ece
With reference to the National Clean Air Programme, consider the following statements:
- It was launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
- It has a target to achieve a reduction in PM10 level up to 40% by 2025-26.
- Under this programme Central Pollution Control Board monitors city air quality and publishes its findings regularly.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A new study by Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) said that road dust mitigation works undertaken to reduce particulate matter 10 (PM10) pollution is draining a lion’s share — 64% — of funds under the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP).
It was launched in January 2019 by the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
It is a long-term, time-bound, national-level strategy to tackle the air pollution problem across the country comprehensively.
Objectives
Stringently implementing mitigation measures to prevent, control, and abate air pollution.
Strengthening an air quality monitoring network across the country.
Increasing public awareness and capacity-building measures.
Target
NCAP envisages a reduction of 20-30% in PM 10 concentration over baseline in the year 2017 by 2024.
The target has been revised to achieve a reduction in PM10 level by up to 40% or achievement of national standards (60 µg/m3) by 2025-26.
Implementation
Under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) will execute this nationwide program.
131 non-attainment cities have been identified across the country for the implementation of the programme.
City-specific action plans have been developed, which include measures to strengthen the monitoring network, reduce vehicular or industrial emissions, raise public awareness, etc.
The implementation of city-specific action plans is regularly monitored by Central and State Committees, namely the Steering Committee, Monitoring Committee and Implementation Committee.
State Pollution Control Boards monitor city air quality and publish their findings regularly.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/need-more-focus-on-pm2-5-study-says-dust-mitigation-draining-clean-air-scheme-funds-9466056/
Consider the following statements regarding the Modified Interest Subvention Scheme:
- It is a Central Sector Scheme.
- It provides short term Agri-loans to farmers which can be availed through Kisan Credit Card (KCC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Centre plans to increase the upper limit of the short-term crop loans under the Modified Interest Subvention Scheme (MISS) from Rs 3 lakh to Rs 5 lakh.
It is a Central Sector Scheme, 100% funded by the Government of India.
It was launched in the year 2006-07 to provide short-term Agri-loans availed by farmers through Kisan Credit Card (KCC) for their working capital requirements at a concessional rate of interest.
For this, at present, interest subvention is being given to concerned Financial Institutions (Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs)/ Small Finance Banks/ RRBs/ Cooperatives/ Computerized PACS ceded with SCBs) providing the loan.
Working of the scheme
Farmers engaged in Agriculture and other allied activities can acquire Kisan Credit Card loans up to Rs 3 lakh at a benchmark rate of 9%.
However, the Centre provides 2% interest subvention on the benchmark rate, bringing down the effective rate of interest to 7 per cent.
An additional 3% concession for prompt and timely repayment further reduces it to 4% per year.
The implementing agencies for settling the claims under the Interest Subvention Scheme are the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)/National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/interest-subvention-scheme-govt-looks-to-raise-limit-of-crop-loans-from-rs-3l-to-rs-5l-9464549/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Brown bear:
- It is an omnivorous species found in mountain forests and ice fields.
- It is categorized as a critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The recent approval of the Romanian parliament for the culling of almost 500 brown bears to ‘control their overpopulation’ has drawn shock and disbelief from several animal lovers worldwide.
These are omnivorous, eating almost anything nutritious. Their diet changes with the seasonal availability of different food sources.
Habitat: Brown bears occupy a variety of habitats, from desert edges to high mountain forests and ice fields.
Distribution: They are now found in extremely small numbers from western Europe and Palestine to eastern Siberia and the Himalayan region.
Ecosystem Roles: Brown bears are important predators and seed dispersers in the ecosystems in which they live.
Characteristics
These creatures can stand on two legs, walk on the soles of their feet and pick things with their hands like we humans do.
These bears are Europe’s biggest carnivores but are incredibly fast and run at a speed of 30 mph.
Romanian bears communicate with their own kind through scratch marks left on the trees and the smell and sound of each other.
Romania is home to over 60% of the Brown Bears in Europe.
Conservation status
IUCN: Least concern
CITES: Appendix I
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/put-a-scientific-lens-to-romanias-bear-cull-decision-not-a-sentimental-one-rashid-naqash
Consider the following statements with reference to the India Maritime Centre (IMC):
- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways to provide a unified platform for the Indian maritime industry.
- It will be located in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India Maritime Centre (IMC) moves closer to reality under the Maritime India Vision 2030.
About India Maritime Centre (IMC):
It is a cornerstone initiative of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways (MoPSW) under the Maritime India Vision 2030.
The IMC aims to provide a unified platform for the Indian maritime industry, acting as a think tank for policy formulation and industry recommendations.
It is poised to be a pivotal institution in advancing India’s maritime interests both domestically and internationally.
Its primary goals include:
Strengthening India’s participation in the International Maritime Organisation (IMO) and global maritime forums.
Creating a robust domestic maritime sector through a unified and synchronised approach.
Conducting flagship events to build a strong global brand for the Indian maritime cluster.
Providing expert analysis and recommendations for sustainable growth.
Establishing platforms for industry stakeholders to collaborate and network.
Creating a pool of funds to support the industry, including startups.
Mumbai has been finalised as the location for the IMC.
The IMC Secretariat shall be built as a world-class facility, including equipped conference area and meeting rooms.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2034199
Consider the following statements regarding the Upper Karnali Hydro-Electric Power Project:
- It is a run-of-the-river hydropower project being developed on the Karnali River in Nepal.
- The project will supply power to Nepal, India and Bangladesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA) is set to invest approximately ₹290 crore in the Upper Karnali Hydro-Electric Power Project.
About Upper Karnali Hydro-Electric Power Project:
It is a 900 MW run-of-the-river hydropower project being developed on the Karnali River in Nepal.
The project will supply power to Nepal, India and Bangladesh for a contracted period of 25 years.
The Government of Nepal awarded the project to GMR Upper Karnali Hydro Power Limited (GUKHL), a subsidiary of GMR Group India, under a memorandum of understanding (MoU) signed in January 2008.
GMR is developing the project on a build-own-operate-transfer (BOOT) basis.
The Nepal Government received 27% free equity in the project as part of the MoU with GMR.
It is estimated to generate 3,466 million units of electricity, while offsetting approximately two million tons of greenhouse gas emissions a year.
It will feature a concrete gravity dam, headrace tunnels, a fish pass, feeder tunnels, surge and pressure shafts, and silt flushing tunnels.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://energy.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/renewable/ireda-to-invest-290-crore-in-nepals-900-mw-hydroelectric-project/111822509
With reference to the Barents Sea, consider the following statements:
- It is a marginal sea of the Atlantic Ocean.
- It is located along the northern coasts of Norway and Russia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Russia’s Defence Ministry recently said that Russian warplanes prevented two U.S. strategic bombers from violating the state border over the Barents Sea.
About Barents Sea:
It is a marginal sea of the Arctic Ocean covering an area of 1.4 million sq. km.
It is located along the northern coasts of Norway and Russia.
The sea has been named in honor of Willem Barents, who was a famous Dutch explorer.
The sea was known to Vikings and medieval Russians as the Murmean Sea.
Boundaries:
It is bounded by the Svalbard archipelago in the northwest, the Franz Josef Land islands in the northeast, the Novaya Zemlya archipelago in the east, the Norwegian Sea and the Greenland Sea in the west, and the Kola Peninsula in the south.
It is separated from the Kara Sea by the Kara Strait and the Novaya Zemlya archipelago.
The White Sea and the Pechora Sea are two parts of the Barents Sea.
The White Sea is a southern arm of the Barents Sea, which separates the Kola Peninsula from the Russian mainland.
The Pechora Sea is situated in the southeastern part of the Barents Sea.
Features:
The maximum width of the Barents Sea is 1,050 km, and it is about 1,300 km in length.
The sea is relatively shallow and has an estimated average depth of 230 m.
The Barents Sea faces a subarctic climate.
The waters of the Barents Sea have a high salinity of 34 parts per 1,000.
The north-flowing ocean currents transport the warm waters of the Atlantic into the Arctic Ocean through the Barents Sea.
It supports the highest seafloor biodiversity, which includes some of the world’s largest deep-water coral reefs and coastal kelp forests.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://theprint.in/world/russia-says-its-jets-prevented-us-bombers-violating-border-over-barents-sea/2184143/
With reference to Periyar E.V. Ramasamy, consider the following statements:
- He was an Indian social activist and politician who started the Self-Respect Movement.
- He rebelled against Brahminical dominance, gender and caste inequality.
- He participated in non-violent Vaikom satyagraha that demanded the entry of Dalits in temples in Kerala.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Periyar Vision OTT platform was recently launched by Dravidar Kazhagam, a social organisation founded by Periyar E.V. Ramasamy.
About Periyar E.V. Ramasamy:
Erode Venkatappa Ramasamy (17 September 1879 – 24 December 1973), commonly known as Periyar or Thanthai Periyar, was an Indian social activist and politician who started the Self-Respect Movement and Dravidar Kazhagam.
He is known as the ‘Father of the Dravidian movement’.
He rebelled against Brahminical dominance, gender and caste inequality in Tamil Nadu.
He joined the Indian National Congress in 1919 but resigned in 1925 when he felt that the party was only serving the interests of Brahmins.
He questioned the subjugation of non-Brahmin Dravidians, as Brahmins enjoyed gifts and donations from non-Brahmins but opposed and discriminated against non-Brahmins in cultural and religious matters.
In 1924, E.V. Ramasamy participated in non-violent agitation (satyagraha) in Vaikom, Travancore.
He came to be known widely as a leader of the lower castes after he led the movement in 1924 that demanded the entry of Dalits into temples in Kerala.
He is known the most for his Self-respect Movement, which aimed at generating pride in lower castes.
From 1929 to 1932, Ramasamy made a tour of British Malaya, Europe, and the Soviet Union, which influenced him.
In 1939, E.V. Ramasamy became the head of the Justice Party, and in 1944, he changed its name to Dravidar Kazhagam.
While continuing the Self-Respect Movement, he advocated for an independent Dravida Nadu (land of the Dravidians).
E.V. Ramasamy promoted the principles of rationalism, self-respect, women’s rights, and the eradication of caste.
He opposed the exploitation and marginalisation of the non-Brahmin Dravidian people of South India and the imposition of what he considered Indo-Aryan India.
However, he believed in the ideas of Tamil saint Thiruvalluvar and hence held faith in the idea of a single, formless God.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/periyar-vision-ott-app-launched-by-dravidar-kazhagam/article68429095.ece
In the context of Kanwar Yatra, the term ‘Kanwar’ refers to:
A bamboo pole
Explanation :
A plea has been filed before the Supreme Court challenging the recent directive by the Uttar Pradesh government to shop owners to display their names outside shops during the Kanwar Yatra season.
About Kanwar Yatra:
It is an annual Hindu pilgrimage observed every year by Lord Shiva devotees, known as Kanvarias or Bhole.
It usually starts in the month of July or August, commonly known as the month of Sawan, according to the Hindu calendar.
What happens at Kanwar Yatra?
The yatra derives its name from the word ‘kanwar’, meaning a bamboo pole to which containers of holy water are tied at opposite ends.
The devotees travel to pilgrimage places like Haridwar, Gaumukh, Gangotri in Uttarakhand, Sultanganj in Bihar, Prayagraj, Ayodhya, and Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh, and return by carrying Ganga water in Kanwar to seek the blessings of Shiva.
The water is offered to Shiva temples, including the 12 Jyotirlingas across India and other shrines like the Pura Mahadev Mandir and Augharnath in Uttar Pradesh, the famous Kashi Vishwanath temple, and the Baba Baidyanath Temple in Deoghar, Jharkhand. The ritual is known as Jal Abhishek.
Devotees often carry the holy water to offer at temples in their towns and villages.
Many pilgrims believe that once the pot is filled with holy water, it should not touch the ground.
While carrying the water, devotees walk barefoot; some complete the pilgrimage by lying flat on the ground.
They are clad in saffron clothing while undertaking the journey.
Many observe fasts during the pilgrimage, and the consumption of food, water, and salt is restricted.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.barandbench.com/news/kanwar-yatra-up-government-directive-to-display-shop-owner-name-challenged-in-supreme-court
Consider the following statements regarding the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research:
- It is an autonomous research institute established under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
- It is tasked with planning and executing polar expeditions and scientific research in Antarctica and the Arctic.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR) is building a new ocean research vessel to explore the deep Indian Ocean for rare minerals and metals as part of India’s Deep Ocean Mission.
It is an autonomous research institute established in 1998.
It is India’s premier R&D institution responsible for the country’s research activities in the Polar and Southern Ocean realms.
It is tasked with planning and executing polar expeditions and scientific research in Antarctica, the Arctic, the Himalayas and the Southern Ocean.
It is the nodal agency for planning, promoting, coordinating, and executing the entire gamut of polar and southern ocean scientific research in the country and the associated logistics activities.
It also researches some of the country’s strategically vital projects like mapping of Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), continental shelf margins and the Deep Ocean Mission.
The Center maintains a Research Advisory Committee (RAC) to help guide and concentrate the research activities.
Location: It is located in Vasco da Gama, Goa, and was formerly known as the National Center for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR).
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), Government of India.
What is Deep Ocean Mission?
It is an ambitious Indian initiative to explore and harness the depths of the ocean.
It is a five-year mission, approved by the Union Cabinet in 2021, with a budget of nearly ₹4,077 crore.
The mission aims to develop technologies for deep-sea mining, manned submersibles, and underwater robotics, as well as for ocean climate change advisory services, deep-ocean survey and exploration.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2033981
The Second Thomas shoal, recently seen in the news, is located in:
South China Sea
Explanation :
Recently, China and the Philippines have struck a deal to defuse tensions on a contested Second Thomas shoal in the South China Sea.
It is a submerged reef (locally known as Ayungin) located in the Spratly Islands, South China Sea.
The Philippines first took possession of the feature in 1999. The Philippine outpost on Second Thomas Shoal is the BRP Sierra Madre.
What is the issue?
The Second Thomas Shoal lies about 108 nautical miles (200 km) from the Philippine island of Palawan.
China claims sovereignty over most of the South China Sea, including the Second Thomas Shoal, based on the historical and controversial Nine-dash line. China’s claims cut into the EEZs of Vietnam, the Philippines, Malaysia, Brunei and Indonesia.
In 2013, the Philippines filed a case against China with the Permanent Court of Arbitration in The Hague, challenging the legality of China’s claims and activities in the South China Sea, including the Second Thomas Shoal.
The court ruled in favour of the Philippines in 2016, but China rejected the judgment.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/china-and-the-philippines-announce-deal-aimed-at-stopping-stop-clashes-at-fiercely-disputed-shoal/article68431162.ece
With reference to the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, consider the following statements:
- It is a key international human rights treaty adopted by the U.N. General Assembly.
- India is not a party to this initiative.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, India successfully concluded its fourth periodic review by the UN Human Rights Committee under the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) in Geneva.
It is a key international human rights treaty, providing a range of protections for civil and political rights.
The Covenant was adopted by the U.N. General Assembly in 1966 and came into force in 1976.
The ICCPR, together with the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and the International Covenant on Economic Social and Cultural Rights, are considered the International Bill of Human Rights.
The ICCPR obligates countries that have ratified the treaty to protect and preserve basic human rights, such as:
The right to life and human dignity; equality before the law; freedom of speech, assembly, and association; religious freedom and privacy; freedom from torture, ill-treatment, and arbitrary detention; gender equality etc.
The Covenant compels governments to take administrative, judicial, and legislative measures in order to protect the rights enshrined in the treaty and to provide an effective remedy.
As of 2024, 174 countries have been party to this Covenant.
India became a party to the ICCPR in 1979 and has undergone three such reviews so far, the last being in 1997.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/india-completes-annual-un-human-rights-review-101721203858097.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Rogue waves:
- These are relatively rare, large and spontaneous ocean surface waves.
- These are observed both in the Open Ocean as well as in the near-shore area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers have developed a new tool that can be used to predict the emergence of unusually large and unpredictable waves at sea—known as rogue waves.
These are also known as Freak waves and are relatively rare, large and spontaneous ocean surface waves whose heights are larger than the maximum wave height expected for a given sea state.
Formation: These are formed from the coincidental stacking of multiple wind-driven wave crests passing through a single point or arising from a combination of waves
Rogue waves tower to heights greater than twice the size of nearby waves, and they may move in either the same direction, the opposite direction, or at oblique angles to the prevailing wind and wave motion.
They have been observed all over the world ocean and their characteristics are studied in the Mediterranean Sea, the Pacific, the Atlantic, and some parts of the Indian Ocean.
They are very unpredictable and often come unexpectedly from directions other than prevailing wind and waves.
The generation of freak waves is not only restricted to the open ocean but also observed in the near-shore area, where these sudden waves cause damage to coastal structures and danger for small fishing boats.
They look like “walls of water.” They are often steep-sided with unusually deep troughs.
Impacts: They may be hazardous to ships at sea, capable of capsizing a vessel or washing crew members off the deck and into the ocean, and they are powerful enough to damage oil-drilling platforms and lighthouses.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/what-is-governors-immunity-under-article-361-set-to-be-reviewed-by-supreme-court-9467667/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Brown dwarfs:
- They are celestial bodies bigger than a planet but smaller than a star.
- They have enough mass for their cores to burn nuclear fuel and radiate starlight.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers have used James Webb Space Telescope observations to conduct detailed examinations of the atmospheric conditions on a pair of brown dwarfs.
These are celestial bodies bigger than a planet but smaller than a star.
These objects have a size between that of a giant planet like Jupiter and that of a small star.
Brown dwarfs accumulate material like a star, not like a planet.
They can also have clouds made out of precipitates in their atmospheres. However, while we have water clouds on Earth, the clouds on brown dwarfs are much hotter and likely made up of hot silicate particles
Thus, they hold onto their lighter elements (hydrogen and helium) more effectively than planets and have a relatively low metal content.
However, brown dwarfs do not have enough mass for their cores to burn nuclear fuel and radiate starlight. This is why they are sometimes referred to as “failed stars.”
Key facts about James Webb Space Telescope
It was launched in 2021 as a joint endeavour of the USA, European and Canadian space agencies.
It is a large infrared telescope with an approximately 6.5 meter primary mirror.
It does not orbit around the Earth like the Hubble Space Telescope; it orbits the Sun 5 million kilometers away from the Earth at what is called the second Lagrange point or L2.
It was designed specifically to see farther across the cosmos and further back in time than any previous astronomical tool.
One of its key objectives was to find the very first stars to ignite in the nascent Universe.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/webb-telescope-reveals-wild-weather-on-cosmic-brown-dwarfs/article68413285.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Streptococcus thermophilus:
- It is a type of probiotic bacteria found in the digestive tract.
- It is commonly used to produce fermented dairy foods such as yogurt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Scientists at the Agharkar Research Institute (ARI) in India recently discovered a new strain of lactic acid bacteria while investigating the genetic makeup of a different strain of S. thermophilus.
About S. thermophilus:
It is a gram-positive, non-motile, and non-sporulating bacterium that can grow underaerobic and anaerobic conditions.
It is a type of probiotic (“good” bacteria) found in the digestive tract.
It produces lactic acid in the gut (converting lactose into lactic acid).
It can help break down food, absorb nutrients, and fight off “bad” organisms that might cause diseases.
It can help improve lactose digestion in individuals who are lactose intolerant.
It has also been found to have anti-inflammatory properties and may help reduce the risk of inflammatory bowel disease.
S. thermophilus is commonly used to produce fermented dairy foods such as yogurt.
It is also used in probiotic supplements.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://theprint.in/india/indian-scientists-discover-new-probiotic-with-potential-health-benefits/2185622/
With reference to the National Mission on Cultural Mapping (NMCM), consider the following statements:
- It is a scheme administered by the Ministry of Education to create a comprehensive database of artists and art forms in the country.
- It aims to cover all the inhabited villages of India, which are marked as ‘village’, in the Census 2011.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Under the National Mission on Cultural Mapping (NMCM), the government has taken an initiative to provide a comprehensive overview of the cultural heritage of 6.5 lakh villages across India, a PIB press release stated recently.
About National Mission on Cultural Mapping (NMCM):
It is a scheme administered by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.
It was conceptualized to develop a comprehensive database of artists, art forms, and other resources gathered from cultural organizations in the Ministry of Culture, other Ministries, and also States on a robust IT-enabled platform.
The aims and objectives of the Project are as under:
To create awareness about the strengths of cultural heritage and its interface with development and cultural identity.
Cultural mapping of 6.5 lakh villages along with their geographical, demographic profiles, and creative capitals.
Creation of National Registers of Artists and Art practices.
Development of a web portal and mobile app to function as a National Cultural Work Place (NCWP).
The project aims to cover all the inhabited villages of India, which are marked as ‘village’, in the Census List, 2011 published by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India.
The database of the project is accessible through the Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar Web Portal (https://mgmd.gov.in/).
It can be used effectively by any government ministry or other government organization to safeguard and promote the cultures, traditions, art forms, and other cultural identities of the identified villages.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://theprint.in/india/cultural-mapping-initiative-launched-in-india-under-national-mission-on-cultural-mapping/2185590/
With reference to PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana, consider the following statements:
- Under the scheme, households will be provided with a 100% subsidy to install solar panels on their roofs.
- DISCOMs are designated as State Implementation Agencies (SIAs) under the scheme.
- DISCOMs will receive incentives based on their achievements in the installation of additional grid-connected rooftop solar capacity beyond a baseline level.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The government has issued operational guidelines for the implementation of incentives to DISCOMs under the PM-Surya Ghar-Muft Bijli Yojana.
About PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana:
It is a government scheme launched on February 15, 2024, that aims to provide free electricity to households in India.
Under the scheme, households will be provided with a subsidy to install solar panels on their roofs.
The subsidy will cover up to 40% of the cost of the solar panels.
The scheme is expected to benefit 1 crore households across India.
It is estimated that the scheme will save the government Rs. 75,000 crore per year in electricity costs.
The scheme has an outlay of Rs 75,021 crore and is to be implemented till FY 2026-27.
Eligibility:
The household must be an Indian citizen.
The household must own a house with a roof that is suitable for installing solar panels.
The household must have a valid electricity connection.
The household must not have availed of any other subsidy for solar panels.
Under the scheme, DISCOMs are designated as State Implementation Agencies (SIAs) responsible for facilitating various measures, including net meter availability, timely inspection, and commissioning of installations.
DISCOMs will receive incentives based on their achievement in the installation of additional grid-connected rooftop solar capacity beyond a baseline level.
The total financial outlay for the ‘Incentives to DISCOMs’ component is Rs 4,950 crore.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.newsonair.gov.in/govt-issues-operational-guidelines-for-implementation-of-incentives-to-discoms-under-pm-surya-ghar-muft-bijli-yojana/
Which one of the following is the primary objective of the MSME Trade Enablement and Marketing Initiative (MSME-TEAM Initiative)?
To provide financial assistance through Seller Network Participants to MSEs
Explanation :
As a sub-scheme under the Central Sector Scheme “Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance (RAMP)”, the Ministry of MSME launched the “MSME Trade Enablement and Marketing Initiative” (MSME-TEAM Initiative).
About MSME TEAM Initiative:
MSME Trade Enablement and Marketing Initiative” (MSME-TEAM Initiative) aims at assisting five lakh Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) to onboard the Open Network Digital Commerce (ONDC) platform, through awareness workshops which will include hand-holding assistance for onboarding onto the ONDC.
It aims to provide financial assistance to micro and small enterprises (MSEs) through Seller Network Participants, for catalogue preparation, account management, logistics, and packaging material and design.
Of the total five lakh MSEs to be benefited, two and a half lakh MSEs would be women-owned MSEs.
The objective of the MSME-TEAM Initiative is to assist MSEs all across the country.
However, awareness workshops will be conducted preferably in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities and MSME Clusters, for greater outreach, especially among women and SC/ST-owned MSMEs.
The MSME TEAM Initiative, being a sub-scheme, is for a period of three years up to March 2027.
However, MSMEs can continue to onboard onto ONDC, which is an open network.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2035082
Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), recently seen in the news, is related to which one of the following organisations?
European Union (EU)
Explanation :
The Economic Survey has noted that the forthcoming Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM)mooted by the European Union “went against the spirit of the Paris Agreement.”
About Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM):
It is a European Union (EU) tariffon carbon intensive products.
Purpose: To put a fair price on the carbon emitted during the production of carbon intensive goods that are entering the EU and to encourage cleaner industrial production in non-EU countries.
By confirming that a price has been paid for the embedded carbon emissions generated in the production of certain goods imported into the EU, the CBAM will ensure the carbon price of imports is equivalent to the carbon price of domestic production, and that the EU’s climate objectives are not undermined.
If implemented as planned, EU importers will have to buy carbon certificates corresponding to the carbon price that would have been paid in the EU if the goods had been produced locally.
The price of the certificates would be calculated according to the auction prices in the EU carbon credit market.
The number of certificates required would be defined yearly by the quantity of goodsand the embedded emissions in those goods imported into the EU.
EU importers will declare the emissions embedded in their imports and surrender the corresponding number of certificates each year.
If importers can prove that a carbon price has already been paid during the production of the imported goods, the corresponding amount can be deducted.
Companies in countrieswith a domestic carbon pricing regime equivalent to the EU’s will be able to export to the EU without buying CBAM certificates.
CBAM will apply in its definitive regime from 2026, while the current transitional phase lasts between 2023 and 2025.
Only reporting obligations arise during the transitional period, and financial obligations apply from 2026.
CBAM will initially cover several specific products in some of the most carbon-intensive sectors at risk of “carbon leakage”: iron and steel (including some downstream products such as nuts and bolts), cement, fertilizers, aluminium, electricity and hydrogen.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/business/budget/proposed-eu-carbon-tax-protectionist-says-economic-survey/article68433025.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Kalarippayattu:
- It is the traditional martial art form popularly practiced in Kerala.
- It is practiced by men as well as women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Union Minister for Youth Affairs and Sports stated in the Lok Sabha that the Ministry has recognised the Indian Kalarippayattu Federation as the Regional Sports Federation to promote ‘Kalarippayattu’ in the country.
It is the traditional martial art originated and popularly practiced in Kerala.
Mythology has it that the warrior sage Parasurama is the promulgator of Kalaripayattu.
Kalaripayattu is composed of two words, kalari means “place of combat” and payattu means “fighting” in Malayalam.
The four stages of Payattu are:
Maippayattu - Body conditioning exercises
Kolthari - Use of wooden weapons
Angathari: Use of sharp metallic weapons
Verumkai : Bare-handed defense and attack.
Practiced by men and women also underwent training in Kalaripayattu, and still do so to this day.
The major ethnic style of Kalaripayattu exists in the three regions of northern Kerala (Malabar): Vattenthirippu Style, Arappukkai Style and Pillathangi Style.
This martial art stands high and gives trainees incredible strength and stamina, defence techniques, auto reflex, flexibility, confidence, concentration, physical culture and mental discipline etc.
It can be said that Kalarippayattu is Yoga in action. This is the only Martial art associated with a treatment branch which can be introduced in the field of sports medicine also.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2035317
Consider the following statements with reference to the Air Breathing Propulsion Technology:
- It is a technology in which rockets utilise atmospheric oxygen as an oxidiser to burn the fuel.
- It can be used only within the denser layers of the Earth’s atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully carried out the second experimental flight for the demonstration of Air Breathing Propulsion Technology.
In this system the rocket will carry its fuel, but will not carry an on-board oxidiser.
Instead, this system will utilise atmospheric oxygen as an oxidiser to burn the fuel. This makes rockets significantly lighter and more efficient.
However, such air-breathing technologies can be used only within the denser layers of the Earth’s atmosphere, where there is an adequate supply of oxygen.
Such technologies might be feasible in the denser layers of Earth’s atmosphere (up to 70kilometres altitude), and thereafter the rocket must switch to another stage that has both fuel and an on-board oxidizer.
Types of air-breathing propulsion
Ramjet: It is an air-breathing propulsion engine operating on the principle of supersonic combustion. It has the absence of any rotator and relies solely on the forward motion of the engine to compress incoming air.
Scramjet: It is an upgraded version of the Ramjet and generates thrust through supersonic airflow and combustion. It moves at hypersonic speed and performs best at high speeds, greater than Mach 5.
In 2023, India became the fourth country to successfully demonstrate the flight testing of a Scramjet Engine.
Dual-Mode Ramjet (DMRJ): It is a jet engine where a ramjet transforms into a scramjet over Mach 4-8 range and it can efficiently operate both in subsonic and supersonic combustor modes.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/isro-conducts-experimental-flight-of-air-breathing-propulsion-system/article68432854.ece
With reference to the International Organisation of Securities Commissions, consider the following statements:
- It is the body recognized as the global standard setter for financial market regulation.
- The Securities and Exchange Board of India is a member of this commission.
- Its secretariat is located in New York.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The International Organisation of Securities Commissions (IOSCO) is now engaged in strengthening the reporting structure of Sustainability and Environment, Social and Governance (ESG).
It was established in the year 1983.
It is the international body that brings together the world’s securities regulators and is recognized as the global standard setter for financial markets regulation.
Objectives
Enhance investor protection
Ensure markets are fair and efficient
Promote financial stability by reducing systemic risk
Its objectives and Principles of Securities Regulation are endorsed by both the G20 and the Financial Stability Board (FSB).
It is a standard-setting body with more than 200 members representing 95% of the world’s securities regulators.
There are three categories of members: ordinary, associate and affiliate.
Ordinary members, which include the primary futures markets and securities regulators in a given jurisdiction. Each ordinary member has one vote.
Associate members, consisting of additional futures and securities regulators in those jurisdictions that have multiple regulatory bodies. Associate members do not have a vote and aren’t eligible for the Executive Committee, but are members of the Presidents’ Committee.
Affiliate members, which include self-regulatory organizations, stock exchanges, and stock market industry associations.
These members do not have a vote and are not eligible for either the Executive Committee or the President’s Committee, but may be members of the Self-Regulatory Organizations (SRO) Consultative Committee.
The Securities and Exchange Board of India is a member of this commission.
Secretariat: Madrid, Spain.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/the-many-challenges-of-brsr/article68415160.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Digital Postal Index Number:
- It is an initiative to establish a standardized, geo-coded addressing system in India.
- It is developed by the Department of Posts in collaboration with the National Informatics Centre.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Department of Posts has issued a beta version of National Addressing Grid under the brand name of DIGIPIN, which can be used for creating and sensing geo-location of addresses, for public feedback.
Digital Postal Index Number (DIGIPIN) is an initiative to establish a standardized, geo-coded addressing system in India, for ensuring simplified addressing solutions for citizen-centric delivery of public and private services.
In this regard, the Department collaborated with IIT Hyderabad to develop this National Addressing Grid.
This system will act as a robust pillar of Geospatial Governance, leading to enhancements in public service delivery, faster emergency response and a significant boost to logistics efficiency.
The DIGIPIN layer will act as the addressing reference system which can be used for logically locating addresses with directional properties built into it due to the logical naming pattern followed in its construction.
It is proposed to be fully available in the public domain and can be easily accessed by everyone. The DIGIPIN Grid system being an addressing referencing system, can be used as the base layer for other ecosystems, including various service providers and utilities, where addressing is one of the processes in the workflow.
This system will act as a strong and robust pillar of Geospatial Governance, leading to enhancements in public service delivery, faster emergency response and a significant boost to logistics efficiency.
The advent of DIGIPIN will mark a revolutionary step in India’s journey towards digital transformation by bridging the crucial gap between physical locations and digital representation.
The Department has released a beta version of the National Addressing Grid ‘DIGIPIN’ for public feedback.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2035219
Consider the following statements regarding the International Mathematical Olympiad (IMO):
- It is the World Championship Mathematics Competition for High School students.
- India participated in the first IMO which was held in Romania.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, six-member student teams from India have secured the country its best performance ever in the International Mathematical Olympiad (IMO) 2024.
It is the World Championship Mathematics Competition for High School students and is held annually in a different country.
The first IMO was held in 1959 in Romania, with 7 countries participating. It has gradually expanded to over 100 countries from 5 continents.
The IMO Board ensures that the competition takes place each year and that each host country observes the regulations and traditions of the IMO.
The IMO is a self-governing autonomous organization, though it is affiliated with UNESCO. Its Council is elected by participating countries and is called the IMO Advisory Board.
The IMO Foundation is a charitable organization which accepts donations from organizations which wish to support the IMO.
This year it was the 65th IMO held at Bath, United Kingdom.
India’s performance
This is the best performance by an Indian in IMO since the country’s debut in 1989 both in terms of a number of gold medals won and the rank achieved.
The Indian contingent of high school students came in fourth rank globally securing four Gold medals, one silver medal and one honourable mention.
India’s previous best rank achieved until 2024 was rank 7, at IMO 1998 and IMO 2001.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/mumbai/international-mathematical-olympiad-united-kingdom-gold-silver-medals-maths-olympiad-9467517/
With reference to the residuary powers, consider the following statements:
- The Parliament has the exclusive power to legislate on residuary subjects.
- The feature of residuary power has been borrowed from the British Constitution.
- Government of India Act of 1935 vested residuary powers in the hands of the Governor-General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
As per Article 248 of the constitution, parliament has been vested with exclusive residuary powers of legislation with respect to any matter not enumerated in the state list and concurrent list. Such power also includes the power to impose any residuary tax. This power has also been enumerated in Entry 97 of List I (Union List) of the 7th Schedule. Thus, only Parliament and not States can legislate on residuary subjects. So, statement 1 is correct.
Canada has a quasi-federal structure with a strong center much like India. The vesting of residuary powers in the center has been borrowed from the Canadian System. The other features borrowed from the Canadian Constitution include the appointment of governors by the Centre and the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme court. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Government of India (GoI) Act of 1935 provided for a three-fold division, viz., federal, provincial and concurrent. The present Constitution follows the scheme of this act but with one difference, that is, under this act, the residuary powers were given neither to the Federal Legislature nor to the Provincial Legislature but to the Governor-General of India. So, statement 3 is correct.
Which of the following is/are not defined in the Constitution of India?
- Religious Minority
- Anglo Indian
- Untouchability
- Martial Law
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
The Constitution of India mentions various terms but has not defined them thus leaving it up to the courts to interpret the meaning of those terms. Article 29 and 30 of the Constitution of India provide special rights to linguistic and religious minorities. However, the word minority has not been defined anywhere by the Constitution. The Government of India has declared Muslims, Jains, Sikhs, Buddhists and Zoroastrians as the religious minorities in India. But there is no clarity on the definition of the word “minority”. So, point 1 is correct.
The term Anglo Indian has been defined by the Constitution under Article 366(2) to mean a person whose father or any male progenitors is or was of European descent but who is domiciled within the territory of India and is or was born within such territory. So, point 2 is not correct.
Article 17 prohibits untouchability. There is no definition of the meaning of Untouchability either in the Constitution nor is it mentioned in the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955. So, point 3 is correct.
Article 34 of the Constitution of India gives Parliament the power to indemnify, by law, any person in service of Union or State or any other person with respect to acts done during operation of martial law in an area. Martial law has not been defined in the Constitution. Moreover, there is no provision in the Constitution authorising proclamation of martial law. So, point 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the answer.
Which of the following languages are included in the Eighth Schedule to the Indian Constitution?
- Nepali
- English
- Urdu
- Sanskrit
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
The Eighth Schedule deals with languages recognized by the Constitution. Originally, it had 14 languages but presently there are 22 languages. They are: Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri (Dongri), Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Mathili(Maithili), Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu. Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967; Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added by the 71st Amendment Act of 1992; and Bodo, Dongri, Maithili and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003. Oriya was renamed as ‘Odia’ by the 96th Amendment Act of 2011. English is not included in Eighth Schedule.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to Padma Awards:
- Padma Awards are not awarded posthumously.
- The Padma Awards Committee is constituted by the President.
- Self-nomination can be made for this award.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3 only
Explanation :
Padma Awards are one of the highest civilian honours of India announced on the eve of Republic Day, annually. Padma Awards constitute – Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri. Padma awards can be awarded posthumously. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Every year, the Prime Minister constitutes a Padma Awards Committee to recommend names for the awards. The committee is headed by the Cabinet Secretary. The recommendations of the committee are submitted to the Prime Minister and the President for approval. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The nomination process is open to the public. Even self-nomination can be made. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Right to Be Forgotten (RTBF):
1. It allows a person to seek deletion of private information from the internet.
2. It is recognized as a statutory right in India under the Information Technology Act, 2000.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
1 only
Explanation :
Right to be Forgotten (RTBF) is the right to have publicly available personal information removed from the internet, search, databases, websites or any other public platforms, once the personal information in question is no longer necessary, or relevant. It has been recognised as a statutory right in the European Union under the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), and has been upheld by a number of courts in the United Kingdom, and in Europe. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Right to Privacy has been recognized as a Fundamental Right in the K S Puttaswamy judgment (2017) and the ‘Right To Be Forgotten’ is evolving in India. The Personal Data Protection Bill, contains provisions to the doctrine of the ‘right to be forgotten’. But at present, it is not a statutory right under the Information Technology Act, 2000. So, statement 2 is not correct.
In Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) and Anr. vs Union of India, the Supreme Court observed that the right of an individual to exercise control over his personal data and to be able to control his/her own life would also encompass his right to control his existence on the Internet.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements about Inequalities:
- Natural inequalities are considered to result from the different characteristics and abilities with which people are born.
- Socially-produced inequalities emerge from inequalities of opportunity or the exploitation of some groups in society by others.
- It is generally assumed that socially produced inequalities cannot be altered.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Natural inequalities emerge between people as a result of their different capabilities and talents. These inequalities are different from socially-produced inequalities that emerge as a consequence of inequalities of opportunity or the exploitation of some groups in society by others. So, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Natural inequalities are considered the result of the different characteristics and abilities with which people are born. It is generally assumed that natural differences cannot be altered. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore option (b) is the correct answer
With reference to secularism in India, consider the following statements:
- The Constitution provides all individuals and communities with the freedom to profess, practice and propagate any religion.
- The Constitution does not give special status to any religion.
- The Constitution allows the State to intervene in matters of religion to ensure equality within religious communities.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
The Constitution provides all individuals and communities with the freedom to profess, practice and propagate any religion or not to follow any. So, statement 1 is correct.
There is no official religion for the Indian state. Unlike the status of Buddhism in Sri Lanka, that of Islam in Pakistan and that of Christianity in England, our Constitution does not give a special status to any religion. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Constitution allows the state to intervene in the matters of religion in order to ensure equality within religious communities. For example, it bans untouchability. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore option (d) is the correct answer.
“This refers to a system of governance that is under military control. The military chiefs assume the control of the state, although they do not impose rules on the citizens. In these states, the Government and the military are constitutionally the same entity. The military’s state role is supported by the constitution and the citizenry.” This is the most likely description of:
Stratocracy
Explanation :
Timocracy refers to a governance system in which only property owners can participate in government and state activities. According to Socrates, timocracy is a government run by individuals who love honor and are allocated state responsibilities according to the degree of honor they command in the society.
Stratocracy refers to a system of governance that is under military control. The military chiefs assume the control of the state, although they do not impose rules on the citizens. It is different from military junta or military dictatorship where the military imposes laws in disregard of the constitution. In stratocratic states, the government and the military are constitutionally the same entity. The military’s state role is supported by the constitution and the citizenry. From 1997 to 2011, Myanmar was a stratocratic state.
Plutocracy or plutarchy is a form of oligarchy in which society is ruled and controlled by a few wealthy citizens. It advocates for the control of the society by the wealthy at the expense of democracy and equality.
Meritocracy is a system of governance where particular sectors of the economy are left to the experts in the sector. This political philosophy is based on the ideology that people are more productive if they engage in what they like and possess knowledge about. State leadership is left to people who excel in their field.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Health?
- Tenth Schedule
- Eleventh Schedule
- Directive Principles of State Policy
- Fundamental Duties
- Fundamental Rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2, 3 and 5 only
Explanation :
Tenth Schedule: This has provisions relating to disqualification of the members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the ground of defection. This schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985, also known as Anti-defection Law. So, point 1 is not correct.
Eleventh Schedule: There are 29 subjects covered under this schedule, these include: 1.Cultural activities; 2. Markets and fairs; 3. Health and sanitation, including hospitals, primary health centres and dispensaries; 4. Family welfare; 5. Women and child development; 6. Social welfare, including welfare of the handicapped and mentally retarded; 7. Welfare of the weaker sections, and in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes; 8. Public distribution system; 9. Maintenance of community assets. So, point 2 is correct.
Directive Principles of State Policy: Article 47 puts a duty on the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health. So, point 3 is correct.
Fundamental Duties: There is no direct mention of health in the fundamental duties. So, point 4 is not correct.
Fundamental Rights: Right to health is protected under Article 21 of the Constitution. So, point 5 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to ‘conjugal rights’ in India, consider the following statements:
- These are available only to married couples in India.
- The laws for such rights are gender-neutral as they allow both wife and husband to seek restitution of conjugal rights.
- Both personal laws and criminal laws recognize the conjugal rights of a person.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Conjugal rights are rights created by marriage that is the right of the husband or the wife to the society of the other spouse. These rights are only available to married couples in India. So, statement 1 is correct.
The law recognises these rights— both in personal laws dealing with marriage, divorce etc., and in criminal law requiring payment of maintenance and alimony to a spouse. Both wife and husband have the legal right to move to court in case the other partner withdraws from marriage without a reasonable cause. The law is gender-neutral since it allows both wife and husband to seek restitution of conjugal rights. So, statement 1 is correct. So, statement 2 is correct.
Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act recognises one aspect of conjugal rights — the right to consortium and protects it by allowing a spouse to move court to enforce the right. The concept of restitution of conjugal rights is codified in Hindu personal law now, but has colonial origins and has genesis in ecclesiastical law. Similar provisions exist in Muslim personal law as well as the Divorce Act, 1869, which governs Christian family law. If a spouse refuses cohabitation, the other spouse can move the family court seeking a decree for cohabitation. If the order of the court is not complied with, the court can attach property.
Both personal laws and criminal laws recognize the conjugal right of a person. For example Rule 32 of Civil Procedure Code allows the court to attach the property of the ‘errant’ spouse if he/she fails to comply with the order to return. Criminal Law requires payment of maintenance to a spouse, etc. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Which of the following is/are the correct reasons for India being a ‘Republic’ unlike Britain?
- In India, the head of the state is always elected for a fixed period.
- India is neither a dependency nor a dominion of any other nation.
- Political sovereignty in India rests with the people.
- There is absence of any privileged class in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
The term ‘republic’ in our Preamble indicates that India has an elected head called the president. He is elected indirectly for a fixed period of five years. In a monarchy, the head of the state (usually king or queen) enjoys a hereditary position, that is, he comes into office through succession, e.g., Britain. In a republic, on the other hand, the head of the state is always elected directly or indirectly for a fixed period, e.g., India. So, statement 1 is correct.
The word ‘sovereign’ implies India is neither a dependency nor a dominion of any other nation, but an independent state. So, statement 2 is not correct.
A republic also means vesting political sovereignty in the people and not in a single individual like a king or queen. So, statement 3 is correct.
In a republic state, there is an absence of any privileged class and hence all the public offices are opened to every citizen without any discrimination. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Right to Equality’ under the Indian Constitution:
- Principle of equality before the law does not involve the idea of absolute equality for all.
- Principle of equal protection of the laws empowers the State to classify people for legitimate purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Equality before law and equal protection of laws are two principles provided under right to equality under Article 14 of the constitution. It states that State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
The principle of equality before law, which is British in origin, is a declaration of equality of all persons within the territory of India, implying thereby the absence of any privilege in favour of any individual. It means that no man is above law of the land and that every person, whatever be his rank or status, is subject to the ordinary law and amenable to the jurisdiction of the ordinary courts.
Thus, to say that men are equal, for example, is not to say that they are identical. Equality implies similarity rather than ‘sameness’. According to this definition, the notion of ‘complete’ or ‘absolute’ equality may be seen as problematic because it would violate the presumption of a difference
The concept of equality before law, under right to equality does not involve the idea of absolute equality amongst all. So, statement 1 is correct.
Equal protection of the laws, which follows the Aristotelian principle, on the other hand, would mean “that among equals, the law should be equal and equally administered, that likes should be treated alike…”. The State can treat unequals differently to create a level playing field in the social, economic etc. spheres.
Thus, Article 14 permits Reasonable Classification of people for state actions. However, it doesn’t allow for Class Legislation. Class Legislation means making improper discrimination by conferring certain privileges upon a class of persons arbitrarily selected from a huge number of people. Thus, Class legislation violates equal protection whereas, reasonable classification is always based on real and substantial distinction. Thus, the principle of Equal protection of the laws does not take away from the State the power of classifying persons for legitimate purposes. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which among the following offices comes under the Second Schedule to the Indian Constitution?
- Judges of the Supreme Court.
- Controller and Auditor General of India.
- Members of the Parliament.
- Attorney General of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The Second Schedule contains provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges of
The President of India
Governors of States
Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in the states
Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council in the States
The Judges of the Supreme Court
The Judges of the High Courts
The Controller and Auditor-General of India
Hence it does not contain the provisions of the Attorney General of India and Members of the Parliament.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the right to counsel in custody:
- Article 22 states that a person cannot be denied the right to consult and to be defended by a legal practitioner of his choice.
- Under this provision, an arrestee is entitled to meet his lawyer throughout the interrogation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The right to counsel springs from Article 22 of the Constitution of India which provides that no person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest nor shall he be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by, a legal practitioner of his choice. So, statement 1 is correct. So, statement 1 is correct.
However, Section 41D of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) states that an accused is entitled to “meet an advocate of his choice during interrogation, though not throughout interrogation”. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Apart from the provisions of Section 41D of the CrPC, courts also rely on the Supreme Court judgment in the D K Basu case of 1997, considered the guiding principles to be followed by investigating agencies in cases of arrest or detention. The judgment states that “an arrestee may be permitted to meet his lawyer during interrogation, though not throughout the interrogation”. Thus, unlike in some countries, lawyers in India are not allowed to be with an accused throughout their investigation.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- Right of an institution run by a minority community to get government aid is a fundamental right under Article 30.
- Government can impose any conditions necessary for the proper utilization of aid to all institutions, including minority educational institutions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently held that the right of an institution, whether run by a majority or minority community, to get government aid is not a fundamental right and both have to equally follow the rules and conditions of the aid. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Whether it is an institution run by the majority or the minority, all conditions that have relevance to the proper utilization of the grant-in-aid by an educational institution can be imposed. All that Article 30(2) states is that on the ground that an institution is under the management of a minority, whether based on religion or language, grant of aid to that educational institution cannot be discriminated against, if other educational institutions are entitled to receive aid.
The judgement clarified that if the government made a policy call to withdraw aid, an institution cannot question the decision as a “matter of right”. A grant of government aid comes with accompanying conditions. An institution is free to choose to accept the grant with the conditions or go its own way. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following techniques can be considered a type of Assisted Reproductive Technology?
- In Vitro Fertilization
- Frozen Embryo Transfer
- Intrafallopian Transfer
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) includes medical procedures used primarily to address infertility. ART techniques involve the manipulation of eggs, sperm, or embryos to increase the likelihood of a successful pregnancy. There are several types of ART procedures that involve different techniques and reproductive cells. These include:
In Vitro Fertilization (IVF)
Intrafallopian Transfer
Frozen Embryo Transfer
Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection
Third-party ART
Therefore option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to Xenotransplantation:
- It is the transplantation of living cells, tissues or organs between two genetically dissimilar individuals of the same species.
- In India, the Transplantation of Human Organs Act, 1994 permits performing Xenotransplantation during extreme emergencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Xenotransplantation is the transplantation of living cells, tissues or organs from one species to another species. Such cells, tissues or organs are called xenografts or xenotransplants. It is contrasted with allotransplantation (A transplant between two genetically different members of the same species is called an allotransplant). A transplant between members of the same species that are genetically identical (inbred animals or identical twins) is called an isotransplant. And a transplant from one person to themselves (for example moving bone from the hip to the back to fix a broken vertebra) is called an autotransplant. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Xenotransplantation triggers deadly immune responses in organ recipients. The presence of foreign animal cells sets off a cascade of molecular signals that can kill patients in a matter of days or even minutes.
In India, performing Xenotransplantation is not legal, since the Transplantation of Human Organs Act, 1994, doesn’t have any provisions for transplanting organs or tissues from a non-human being to humans. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- Increasing the yield of crops.
- Rapid diagnostics tools.
- Curing of HIV and Cancer.
- Organ transplantation.
How many of the above given potential applications is/are achievable through the use of CRISPR-Cas9?
All four
Explanation :
CRISPR (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) - Cas 9 (CRISPR - associated protein 9) system is a gene editing tool researchers can add, remove, or alter specific DNA. This has a significant impact on biology, medicine, and agriculture such as:
Agriculture: The huge potential to edit genes can create a large number of crop variants with improved yield, quality, disease resistance, etc. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Genetic Research: CRISPR can be used to track and boost the functions of the Body’s T-cells leading to superior genetic models for fundamental research, drug screening & rapid diagnostics, etc. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Medical Treatment: CRISPR-Cas9 can lead to the editing of infected genes creating potential for genome editing treatment for diseases such as HIV, Cancer, or Sickle cell disease. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Therapeutic Cloning: Gene editing has the potential benefit of cloning embryonic cells to obtain biological organs for transplantation. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- CRISPR - Cas 9 is a gene editing technology that replicates the natural defense mechanism of the human body to fight virus attacks.
- CRISPR-Cas9 involves the introduction of a new gene from external sources.
- Sickle cell anemia is the first disease for which the Government of India is trying CRISPR-based therapy.
Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?
3 only
Explanation :
CRISPR (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) - Cas 9 (CRISPR - associated protein 9) system is a gene editing tool with which researchers can add, remove or alter specific DNA.
A bad stretch in the DNA sequence, which is the cause of disease or disorder is located, cut and removed and then replaced with the correct sequence.
It replicates the natural defense mechanism in bacteria to fight virus attacks, using a special protein called Cas9. Hence statement (1) is incorrect.
It usually involves the introduction of a new gene or suppressing an existing gene through a process described as Genetic engineering.
However, CRISPR technology does not involve the introduction of any gene from outside rather the gene from the person itself is used. Hence statement (2) is incorrect.
Sickle cell anemia is the first disease for which the Government of India is trying CRISPR-based therapy. Hence statement (3) is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements about CAR T cell therapy:
- It involves extracting a patient’s T cells and modifying them to recognise specific antigens on cancer cells.
- It is a one-time treatment with no need for further monitoring.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 Only
Explanation :
CAR T cell therapy is a promising new approach in cancer treatment that engineers a patient’s T cells to attack their tumours. It involves extracting T cells, genetically modifying them to target cancer antigens, multiplying them, and reinfusing the engineered CAR T cells back into the patient’s body to provoke a potent immune response against cancer cells.
So, statement 1 is correct.
After the engineered T cells are reintroduced into the patient, close monitoring becomes essential. Doctors need to see if the CAR T cells are effectively targeting and eliminating the cancer (effectiveness). Additionally, CAR T cell therapy can cause side effects like cytokine release syndrome, so monitoring allows for prompt management of these complications.
So, statement 2 is not correct.
CAR T cell therapy has achieved remarkable outcomes in certain blood cancers, but limitations like toxicity risks and high costs remain. Understanding the mechanism, applications, and future potential of this novel immunotherapy can provide insights into cutting-edge medical advances against cancer.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following best describes “NexCAR19”?
A CAR-T cell therapy in India targeting B-cell cancers.
Explanation :
The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO), a drug regulatory body, approved NexCAR19 for commercial use in October 2023.
Developed by ImmunoACT with Tata Memorial Hospital and IIT Bombay, it’s the first domestically made CAR-T therapy targeting B-cell cancers like leukaemia and lymphoma. It treats individuals over 15 with B-cell cancers.
The therapy showcased its effectiveness with the remarkable recovery of the first patient. Accessible at a fraction of the cost compared to international alternatives, it emphasises its affordability and potential to significantly impact patients’ lives.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to stem cells, consider the following statements:
- Embryonic stem cells are pluripotent as they can change into any cell in the body.
- Adult stem cells supply new cells in the organism to replace cells that get damaged.
- Induced pluripotent stem cells are multipotent and can only change into a few cells in the body.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
A stem cell is a cell with the unique ability to develop into specialised cell types in the body. They have two unique properties that enable them to do this. First, they can divide over and over again to produce new cells. Second, as they divide, they can change into the other types of cell that make up the body. There are three main types of stem cell: embryonic stem cells, adult stem cells and induced pluripotent stem cells.
Embryonic stem cells supply new cells for an embryo as it grows and develops into a baby. These stem cells are said to be pluripotent, which means they can change into any cell in the body. So, statement 1 is correct.
Adult stem cells supply new cells as an organism grows and to replace cells that get damaged. Adult stem cells are said to be multipotent, which means they can only change into some cells in the body, not any cell. For example, Blood stem cells can only replace the various types of cells in the blood. So, statement 2 is correct.
Induced pluripotent stem cells are made by scientists in the laboratory. ‘Induced’ means that they are made in the lab by taking normal adult cells, like skin or blood cells, and reprogramming them to become stem cells. Just like embryonic stem cells, they are pluripotent so they can develop into any cell type. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
If you travel from the Sea of Azov to the Mediterranean Sea by ship, what is the correct order of the following regions as you come along during the trip?
- Aegean Sea
- Black Sea
- Strait of Bosphorus
- Strait of Dardanelles
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2-3-4-1
Explanation :
If you travel from the Sea of Azov to the Mediterranean Sea by ship, the correct order of regions as you come along during your travel is Black Sea, Strait of Bosphorus, Sea of Marmara, Strait of Dardanelles, Aegean Sea.
Consider the following statements with reference to Denmark:
- It is a Nordic country.
- It borders both the Baltic and north seas.
- Greenland island is a part of Denmark.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
The Nordic countries are a geographical and cultural region in Northern Europe and the North Atlantic. It includes the sovereign states of Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway and Sweden as well as the autonomous territories of the Faroe Islands and Greenland, and the autonomous region of Åland. So, statement 1 is correct.
It is situated on the Jutland peninsula and its main islands of Zealand and Funen. It is located between the North Sea and the Baltic Sea, north of Germany and west of Sweden, across the Kattegat, the maritime link between the North– and the Baltic Sea. So, statement 2 is correct.
Greenland remains a part of the Kingdom of Denmark. However, the island’s home-rule government is responsible for most domestic affairs. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- Uttar Pradesh shares its border with the maximum number of states.
- Sikkim shares its border with one state only.
- Assam shares its border with six states only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Uttar Pradesh is the Indian State which shares its borders with 8 states and 1 union territory, which is maximum. Delhi, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Bihar, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. So, statement 1 is correct.
Sikkim and Meghalaya are the only two states having borders with only one state – Sikkim has borders with West Bengal only, while sharing its international borders with three nations – China, Bhutan and Nepal. So, statement 2 is correct.
Assam shares Inter-State boundaries with 7 states - Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura, Meghalaya and West Bengal. And International border with Bangladesh. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which one of the following is the primary objective of NPS Vatsalya Scheme?
To help parents and guardians plan for their children’s future financial needs.
Explanation :
The finance minister recently announced a new pension scheme under the National Pension Scheme (NPS), called NPS Vatsalya.
About NPS Vatsalya Scheme:
It is a scheme under the National Pension Scheme (NPS).
It is designed to help parents and guardians plan for their children’s future financial needs.
Under this scheme, parents or guardians can open an account for their minor children and make contributions towards their retirement savings.
The funds will accumulate until the child turns 18.
Once the child reaches adulthood, the accumulated amount will be transferred to the standard NPS account.
This plan could be seamlessly converted into a non-NPS plan when the child becomes an adult.
The scheme operates similarly to the existing NPS.
Key Facts about NPS:
It is a voluntary retirement benefit scheme introduced by the Government of India to facilitate regular income post-retirement for all subscribers.
A citizen of India, either a resident, non-resident, or an Overseas Citizen of India, can open an NPS account.
It helps individuals build a retirement corpus by making regular contributions throughout their careers.
NPS contributions are invested in market-linked instruments such as stocks and bonds, providing the potential for higher returns compared to traditional fixed-income options.
Subscribers also have the option to exit this plan before retirement or opt for superannuation.
It is based on a unique Permanent Retirement Account Number (PRAN), which is allotted to every subscriber.
NPS account or PRAN will remain the same irrespective of changes in employment, city, or state. It can be used from any location in India.
PFRDA (Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority) is the governing body for NPS.
Contributions to the NPS are eligible for tax deductions under Section 80C and an additional deduction of up to ₹50,000 under Section 80CCD(1B).
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.wionews.com/india-news/union-budget-2024-govt-introduces-pension-scheme-for-minor-children-know-what-is-nps-vatsalya-743409
Chandrashekhar Azad was involved in which one of the following revolutionary activities to avenge the killing of Lala Lajpat Rai?
The shooting of Saunders at Lahore
Explanation :
The Prime Minister recently paid tributes to Chandra Shekhar Azad on his birth anniversary.
About Chandrashekhar Azad:
He was a great Indian freedom fighter.
Born Chandra Shekhar Tiwari on July 23, 1906, in the small village of Bhavra in Madhya Pradesh, Azad was a beacon of revolutionary fervour from a very young age.
His resolve to fight for India’s independence was ignited early, and by the age of 15, he had already joined the Non-Cooperation Movement initiated by Mahatma Gandhi.
Azad was disappointed by Gandhi’s suspension of the noncooperation movement in February 1922, after several policemen had been murdered by a revolutionary mob at Chauri Chaura.
He became an active member of the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA), an organization dedicated to overthrowing British rule through revolutionary means.
By 1928, he had played a crucial role in transforming the HRA into the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA), which aimed to establish a socialist republic in India.
He worked closely with other notable revolutionaries, including the legendary Bhagat Singh.
Together, they sought to challenge and dismantle the oppressive colonial regime.
Azad’s leadership and strategic acumen were instrumental in several significant revolutionary activities.
He played key a role in the Kakori Train Robbery (1926), the attempt to blow up the Viceroy’s train (1926), and the shooting of Saunders at Lahore (1928) to avenge the killing of Lala Lajpat Rai.
Azad was known for his unwavering resolve and extraordinary bravery. He lived a life on the run, constantly evading capture by the British police, and became a symbol of resistance for the youth of India.
In January 1931, during a fierce encounter with the British police in Alfred Park, Allahabad, Azad fought valiantly but was eventually cornered. Faced with the prospect of capture, Azad chose to end his life on his own terms, declaring that he would never be captured alive.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2035487#:~:text=The%20Prime%20Minister%20posted%20on,people%2C%20particularly%20the%20youth.%E2%80%9D
With reference to Tax Incidence, consider the following statements:
- The initial incidence of a tax is the initial distribution among taxpayers of a legal obligation to remit tax receipts to the government.
- The tax incidence depends upon the price elasticity of supply and demand.
- If a tax is levied on an elastic good, the tax incidence falls on the consumer.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Union government recently said Goods and Services Tax (GST) has decreased tax incidence on the common man.
About Tax Incidence:
Tax incidence (or incidence of tax) is an economic term for understanding the division of a tax burden between stakeholders, such as buyers and sellers or producers and consumers.
There are two forms of tax incidence.
The initial incidence (also called statutory incidence) of a tax is the initial distribution among taxpayers of a legal obligation to remit tax receipts to the government.
It is established by law and tells us which individuals or companies must physically send tax payments to state and local treasuries.
The final incidence (also called economic incidence) of a tax is the final burden of that particular tax on the distribution of economic welfare in society.
It is also referred to as the tax burden faced by individuals in their roles as consumers, workers, and investors.
For example, the legal incidence of corporate income taxes typically falls on companies, but the economic incidence of the tax is shifted forward to others, in the form of higher prices for consumers, lower wages for workers, reduced returns to shareholders, or some combination of the three.
The difference between the initial incidence and the final incidence is called tax shifting.
The tax incidence depends upon the price elasticity of supply and demand.
If the demand for a good changes significantly with a change in price, then a good is elastic—likely a non-necessity like a new car or home goods.
Little to no change in demand in relation to price means the good is inelastic, and consumers will continue to purchase the good as prices go up. Examples of inelastic goods include petrol and cigarettes.
Taxes on inelastic goods like cigarettes shift the tax incidence to the consumer who will continue to purchase the product, despite the price increase from the tax.
Conversely, if a tax is levied on an elastic good, the tax incidence falls on the product because the new price increase is likely to reduce the demand for the good.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thenewsminute.com/news/gst-reduced-tax-incidence-on-common-man-to-be-expanded-to-remaining-sectors
With reference to the Skill Loan Scheme, consider the following statements:
- It offers institutional credit to individuals pursuing skill development courses conducted by training institutes following the National Skill Qualification Framework (NSQF).
- The maximum loan amount that can be availed under the scheme is Rs. 10 lakhs.
- The scheme does not allow for collateral to be charged from the beneficiary.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The finance minister recently announced a revision to the model skill loan scheme, which will now facilitate loans up to Rs 7.5 lakh backed by a guarantee from a government-promoted fund.
About Skill Loan Scheme:
It was introduced in July, 2015, to offer institutional credit to individuals pursuing skill development courses aligned with National Occupations Standards and Qualification Packs.
These courses are conducted by training institutes following the National Skill Qualification Framework (NSQF) and lead to certifications, diplomas, or degrees.
The Scheme applies to all member banks of the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) and other banks and financial institutions as advised by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Features:
Eligibility: Any Indian National who has secured admission in a course run by Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs), Polytechnics, or in a school recognised by Central or State Education Boards or in a college affiliated with a recognised university, training partners affiliated to National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) Sector Skill Councils, State Skill Mission, or State Skill Corporation can avail loan for the purpose.
No specific restriction with regard to age.
Courses: Aligned with NSQF.
Duration of Course: No minimum duration.
Quantum of Finance: Rs. 5,000-1,50,000. Now, increased to Rs 7.5 lakh.
Moratorium: Duration of the course.
Repayment Period:
Loans up to Rs. 50,000: Up to 3 years.
Loans between Rs. 50,000 to Rs. 1 lakh: Up to 5 years.
Loans above Rs. 1 lakh: Up to 7 years.
Coverage: Course fees and expenses for assessment, examination, study material, etc.
Interest Rate: The interest rate to be charged by the bank should not be more than 1.5% p.a. over and above the Repo-Linked-Lending-Rate (RLLR) or any other external benchmark interest rate conforming to RBI guidelines.
Collateral: The scheme does not allow for collateral to be charged from the beneficiary.
Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), through a November 2015 notification, brought into force the Credit Guarantee Fund for Skill Development (CGFSSD) for all skill loans sanctioned on or after 15 July 2015, to be administered by the National Credit Guarantee Trust Company (NCGTC).
Banks can apply to the NCGTC for a credit guarantee against defaults, and the NCGTC will provide this guarantee at a nominal fee which shall not exceed 0.5% of the amount outstanding.
The guarantee cover will be for a maximum of 75% of the outstanding loan amount (including interest, if any).
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.business-standard.com/finance/personal-finance/budget-2024-loan-up-to-rs-10-lakh-for-students-says-sitharaman-know-more-124072300411_1.html
Which one of the following best describes ‘INS Brahmaputra’, recently seen in the news?
It is a guided missile frigate.
Explanation :
The Indian Navy’s INS Brahmaputra warship, docked at Mumbai Dockyard for refitting, overturned under mysterious circumstances after a fire broke out, leading to significant damage, and one sailor reported missing.
About INS Brahmaputra:
INS Brahmaputra is the first of the indigenously built ‘Brahmaputra’ class-guided missile frigates.
The Brahmaputra class, which replaces the Talwar class, is an indigenous upgrade on the Godaviri class of frigates.
The class’s next two ships, INS Betwa and INS Beas, were similarly given river names; INS Brahmaputra is the class lead ship.
It was built by state-run Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Limited (GRSE).
It was commissioned into the Indian Navy in April 2000.
Features:
The ship has a displacement of 5,300 tonnes, a length of 125 metres, and a beam of 14.4 metres
It is capable of speeds of more than 27 knots.
The ship is manned by a crew of 40 officers and 330 sailors.
The ship is fitted with medium-range, close-range and anti-aircraft guns, surface-to-surface and surface-to-air missiles, and torpedo launchers.
The ship has a wide array of sensors covering all facets of maritime warfare and is capable of operating Seaking and Chetak helicopters.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.financialexpress.com/business/defence-mysterious-overturning-of-ins-brahmaputra-an-incident-amidst-a-string-of-naval-accidents-3562939/
Consider the following statements regarding the Vishnupad Temple:
- It is located on the banks of the Godavari.
- It was built on the orders of Queen Ahilyabai Holkar of Ahmadnagar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the finance minister announced during her Union Budget speech that corridor projects will be built for the Vishnupad Temple at Gaya and the Mahabodhi Temple at Bodh Gaya in Bihar.
Vishnupad Temple
It is in the state of Bihar and dedicated to Lord Vishu.
It was built in 1787 on the orders of Queen Ahilyabai Holkar of Ahmadnagar.
It is located on the banks of the Falgu River.
Architecture: Architecturally, the temple is around 100 feet tall and has 44 pillars.
Devotees visit the temple during pitra paksha, a period in the Hindu calendar when people take part in rituals to remember their ancestors.
Key facts about Mahabodhi Temple
The temple stands to the east of the Mahabodhi Tree, where Gautam Buddha is believed to have attained nirvana. The temple has a unique shape and a height of 170 feet.
It is located in Bodh Gaya, in central Bihar, on the banks of the Niranjana River.
The Mahabodhi Temple Complex is the first temple built by Emperor Asoka in the 3rd century B.C., and the present temple dates from the 5th–6th centuries.
It is one of the earliest Buddhist temples built entirely in brick, still standing, from the late Gupta period and it is considered to have had significant influence in the development of brick architecture over the centuries.
It was recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2002.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/budget-bihar-announcements-vishnupad-mahabodhi-gaya-9470812/
Clarion-Clipperton Zone, recently in news, is located in:
Pacific Ocean
Explanation :
India will apply for licences from the International Seabed Authority (ISA) to explore deep-sea minerals in the Pacific Ocean especially plans to focus on the Clarion-Clipperton Zone.
It is a vast plain in the North Pacific Ocean between Hawaii and Mexico.
It is known to hold large volumes of polymetallic nodules containing minerals used in electric vehicles and solar panels including manganese, nickel, copper, and cobalt.
First discovered by British sailors in 1873, the potato-shaped nodules take millions of years to form.
Up to 30 cetacean populations, including globally endangered species like blue whales, can be found in the CCZ, where 17 exploratory deep-sea mining licenses have been granted.
Key facts International Seabed Authority (ISA)
It is an international organization established in 1994 to regulate mining and related activities in the international seabed beyond national jurisdiction, an area that includes most of the world’s oceans.
It came into existence upon the entry into force of the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), which codified international law regarding territorial waters, sea lanes, and ocean resources.
Members: It has 169 Members, including 168 Member States and the European Union.
Functions
It is responsible for granting licenses and regulating activities related to the exploration and exploitation of mineral resources in the international seabed.
It ensures that these activities are carried out in a manner that protects the marine environment and promotes the equitable and efficient utilization of resources.
Headquarters: Kingston, Jamaica
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/india-to-seek-licences-to-scout-pacific-ocean-for-critical-minerals
With reference to ‘Angel Tax’, consider the following statements:
- It was first time introduced in 2012 to prevent black money laundering through share sales.
- It was levied on the capital raised via the issue of shares by unlisted companies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister for Finance proposed to abolish ‘angel tax’ for all classes of investors, while presenting the Union Budget 2024-25 in Parliament.
It was levied on the capital raised via the issue of shares by unlisted companies from an Indian investor if the share price of issued shares is seen in excess of the fair market value of the company.
The excess funds raised at prices above fair value are treated as income, on which tax is levied.
It derives its genesis from section 56(2) (viib) of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
It was first time introduced in 2012 to prevent black money laundering through share sales.
It was levied at a rate of 30.9% on net investments in excess of the fair market value.
In 2019, the Government announced an exemption from the Angel Tax for startups on fulfillment of certain conditions. These are,
The startup should be recognized by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) as an eligible startup.
The aggregate amount of paid-up share capital and share premium of the Startup cannot be more than ₹25 crores. This amount does not include the money raised from Non-Resident Indians (NRIs), Venture Capital Firms, and specified companies.
For angel investors, the amount of investment that exceeds the fair market value can be claimed for a 100% tax exemption.
However, the investor must have a net worth of ₹2 crores or an income of more than ₹25 Lakh in the past 3 fiscal years.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2035599
Consider the following statements regarding the Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme:
- It aims to accelerate the adoption of Electric Vehicles in India.
- It will be applicable to both commercial and privately owned vehicles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the central government said that the Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme (EMPS) 2024 will provide further impetus to the green mobility and development of the electric vehicle (EV) manufacturing ecosystem in the country.
It aims to further accelerate the adoption of Electric Vehicles in the country.
Funding: It is a fund-limited scheme with a total outlay of Rs. 500 crore for 4 months.
It is for faster adoption of electric two-wheeler (e-2W) and three-wheeler (e-3W) to provide further impetus to the green mobility and development of electric vehicle (EV) manufacturing eco-system in the country.
Scheme duration: The Scheme duration is 4 months i.e. April 01, 2024, till July 31, 2024.
Eligible Electric Vehicle categories
Two Wheelers (electric) (e-2W)
Three-wheeler (electric) including registered e-rickshaws & e-carts and L5 (e-3W)
The scheme will be applicable mainly to those e-2W and e-3Ws registered for commercial purposes. Further, in addition to commercial use, privately or corporate-owned registered e-2W will also be eligible under the scheme.
To encourage advanced technologies, the benefits of incentives, will be extended to only those vehicles which are fitted with advanced batteries.
The EVs eligible for incentivization under the EMPS 2024 scheme must be manufactured and registered within the validity period of the EMPS -2024 certificate.
Components
Subsidies: Demand incentives for e-2W & e-3W. Available for consumers in the form of an upfront reduced purchase price (Rs. 5,000 per kWH) of EVs, which will be reimbursed to OEM (Original Equipment Manufacturer) by the Government of India.
Administration of Scheme including IEC (Information, Education and Communication) activities and fees for Project Management Agency (PMA).
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Heavy Industries
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/renewables/electric-mobility-promotion-scheme-to-support-up-to-3-72-lakh-evs-government/articleshow/111964090.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding the Climate finance taxonomy:
- It is a system that classifies which parts of the economy may be marketed as sustainable investments.
- India is the first country in the world which has developed this taxonomy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Presenting the Union Budget for 2024-25, the Finance Minister announced that the government would develop finance taxonomy’.
It is a system that classifies which parts of the economy may be marketed as sustainable investments.
It helps guide investors and banks in directing trillions toward impactful investments to tackle climate change.
Taxonomies are frequently used to set standards for classifying climate-related financial instruments (e.g., green bonds), but, increasingly, they serve other use cases where the benchmarking feature is viewed as beneficial, including in the areas of climate risk management, net-zero transition planning, and climate disclosure.
South Africa, Colombia, South Korea, Thailand, Singapore, Canada, and Mexico are some of the countries which have developed taxonomies. The European Union has done this as well.
Significance
With global temperatures soaring, and the adverse effects of climate change exacerbating, countries need to transition to a net-zero economy — the balance between the amount of greenhouse gas (GHG) that is produced, and the amount that is removed from the atmosphere.
It can play a pivotal role in doing this as they can help ascertain if economic activities are aligned with credible, science-based transition pathways.
They can also give impetus to deployment of climate capital, and reduce the risks of greenwashing.
It will enhance the availability of capital for climate adaptation and mitigation. This will help India achieve its climate commitments and green transition.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/climate-finance-taxonomy-9470655/
Death Valley, recently seen in the news, is located in which one of the following countries?
United States
Explanation :
97 runners pushed off in desolate Death Valley with the launch of a 48-hour annual ultramarathon billed as the world’s toughest foot race—the Badwater 135.
About Death Valley:
It is a desert valley located in the southeastern part of California, United States.
It is the lowest, hottest, and driest portion of the North American continent.
It covers an area of 7,800 sq. km. It is estimated that about 1,425 sq. km of the floor of the valley is located below sea level.
It is a rift valley or a graben that has been formed due to the sinking of a huge expanse of rock located between major block-faulted mountains running parallelly in the east and west.
It lies in the Great Basin to the east of the Sierra Nevada Mountains, in the northern part of the Mojave Desert.
The Death Valley constitutes a major part of the Death Valley National Park as well as the Mojave and Colorado Deserts Biosphere Reserve.
It is bounded by the Grapevine, Funeral, and the Black Mountains of the Amargosa Range on the east and the Panamint and the Cottonwood Mountains of the Panamint Range on the west.
The Valley features a diverse landscape that includes mountain peaks, canyons, sand dunes, salt flats, badlands, and volcanic craters.
Portions of the great salt pan that forms part of the floor of the valley are the lowest land areas of the Americas.
Located in the heart of the Death Valley National Park is an endorheic basin known as the Badwater Basin, is the lowest area in North America.
Highest point: Telescope Peak (3,366m) located in Panamint Range.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.outlookindia.com/sports/death-valley-ultramarathon-runners-set-off-in-toughest-foot-race-in-world-check-pics
Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Greenium’?
The savings an issuer of a green bond realises on the coupon payment because the bond is green.
Explanation :
Chief Economic Advisor recently said that private investors need to “walk the talk” on prioritising sustainable investments, citing the low “greenium” from them on India’s sovereign green bond offerings.
About Greenium:
Greenium, or green-premium, refers to the savings an issuer of a green bond realises on the associated coupon payment because the bond is green.
It is the amount by which the yield on the green bond is lower, compared with the conventional bond.
Green bonds are debt instruments that fund specific projects/activities categorised as ‘green’ under national or international green taxonomies.
Such activities may include renewable energy projects, electric buses, and energy efficiency initiatives.
Each bond has an issuer, i.e., those who want to raise money with a promise of a regular fixed payment and investors, i.e. those who provide that money with a promise of a regular fixed income.
The logic behind a greenium is that because of the appeal of sustainability, green bonds attract investors who are ready to forego some of their returns and accept lower payments (called a lower yield).
Further, long-term green projects are associated with a reduction in both physical and financial risk. Thus, investors settle for lower returns, making green projects financially attractive for the issuers of these debt instruments.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/business/cea-on-low-green-bonds-greenium-pvt-investors-need-to-walk-the-talk-on-sustainable-investment-12775098.html
Which one of the following best describes ‘INS Triput’, recently seen in the news?
It is a Talwar-class frigate.
Explanation :
Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL) recently launched the first indigenously-built Talwar class frigate, ‘Triput’.
About INS Triput:
It is the first indigenously built Talwar-class frigate.
Project:
In October 2016, India and Russia signed a deal to buy four stealth frigates of the Admiral Grigorovich class (also known as Project 1135.6 class).
Two of these frigates, ‘Tushil’ and ‘Tamal’, will be directly imported, and the remaining two frigates will be built in India by GSL through a transfer of technology (ToT).
Triput is the first ship built by GSL under this. The second frigate, ‘Tamal’, will be delivered by February 2025.
The Indian Navy already operates six ships of this class: INS Talwar, INS Trishul, INS Tabar, INS Teg, INS Tarkash, and INS Trikand.
Features of INS Triput:
The 124-m-long and 15.5-m-wide ship is propelled by four gas turbines which are designed to achieve a maximum speed of 28 Knots at a displacement of approx. 3200 tons.
It features a hull design that reduces radar cross-section, contributing to their stealth capabilities.
The ship is being fitted with a potent combination of state-of-the-art weapons and sensors, an Integrated Platform and Bridge Management System, and a host of other advanced features.
The ship’s air defence capability, designed to counter enemy aircraft and anti-ship cruise missiles, will revolve around vertical launch long range Surface to Air missile system.
Further, the ship has been fitted with indigenous power generation and distribution system, AC, Steering System and Stabilisers designed and developed by private industry.
It is armed with the Russian-made Klub-N anti-ship missiles or BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://swarajyamag.com/defence/goa-shipyard-launches-advanced-talwar-class-frigate-triput-as-russia-prepares-to-deliver-first-ship-tushil-in-september
Sangameswara Temple, recently seen in the news, lies on the banks of which one of the following rivers?
Krishna
Explanation :
The Sangameswara temple submerged in the backwaters of the Srisailam project in Nandyal district recently following copious inflow from the Krishna River.
About Sangameswara Temple:
It is a Hindu Temple dedicated to Lord Shiva located in Nandyal district, Andhra Pradesh.
It is located on the Krishna River bank.
It was built in 740 AD by Chalukya ruler Pulakesi II.
The temple was originally located at the point where the Tungabhadra and Krishna Rivers were merged, 10 km away from the current site.
The temple was dismantled and built exactly rock-to-rock in the current site in 1979, as the original site was getting submerged due to the construction of Srisailam Dam.
Features:
Built in Nagara style, the temple is built on an elevated platform with a fortified wall around the temple.
The temple has a large hall with 12 pillars, followed by the sanctum.
There is a circumambulatory path around the sanctum for pradakshinas.
The ceiling has a large relief of Nagaraja, as seen in other Chalukya temples.
The pillars in the hall have nicely engraved images of Lord Vishnu, Brahma, and Kumaraswarmy, and celestial couple.
All four corners of the temple have crocodile carvings.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/sangameswara-shrine-submerges-in-krishna-river/article68441967.ece
Consider the following statements:
- He is known for his slogan, “Swaraj is my birthright, and I shall have it.”
- The British Government termed him the “Father of Indian Unrest”.
- He established the Deccan Education Society in Pune in 1884.
The above statements describe which one of the following personalities?
Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Explanation :
The Prime Minister recently paid tributes to Lokmanya Tilak on his birth anniversary.
About Lokmanya Tilak:
Bal Gangadhar Tilak, commonly known as Lokmanya Tilak, was a prominent Indian nationalist, freedom fighter, social reformer, and political leader during the Indian independence movement.
He was one of the prime architects of modern India and probably the strongest advocate of Swaraj, or Self Rule for India.
He is known for his slogan, “Swaraj is my birthright, and I shall have it.”
He was born as Keshav Gangadhar Tilak, and his followers bequeathed upon him the title of ‘Lokmanya’, meaning he who is revered by the people.
Extremist:
He was considered a radical Nationalist.
The British Government termed him the “Father of Indian Unrest”.
Organisations:
He joined the Indian National Congress Party in 1890.
He also helped found the All India Home Rule League in 1916–18 with G. S. Khaparde and Annie Besant.
Tilak started his Home Rule League in Maharashtra, Central Provinces, and Karnataka and Berar region.
Besant’s League was active in the rest of India.
It aimed to advocate for self-rule and raise public awareness about India’s right to govern itself.
Literary works:
Tilak was a prolific writer and journalist.
He used his newspaper, “Kesari” (meaning Lion) in Marathi and later “Maratha” in English, to disseminate nationalist ideas.
Some of his notable literary works include “The Arctic Home in the Vedas,” where he presented his theory that the Vedas originated in the Arctic region, and “Shrimad Bhagavad Gita Rahasya,” an interpretation of the Bhagavad Gita from a nationalist perspective.
Educationist:
Tilak believed in the power of education and established the Deccan Education Society in Pune in 1884.
The society founded Fergusson College and the New English School, which played crucial roles in promoting modern education in Maharashtra.
Tilak taught mathematics at Fergusson College.
Social Reform: Lokmanya Tilak was also an advocate of social reform. He actively supported the eradication of social evils like untouchability and child marriage and promoted education for women.
Lal-Bal-Pal: He had popular leaders such as Bipin Chandra Pal and Lala Lajpat Rai as his political companions, and the three were popularly known as the ‘Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate.’
Imprisonments: He was arrested for sedition on multiple occasions. His most prolonged incarceration lasted from 1908 to 1914, during which he wrote the famous book “Gita Rahasya” (The Secret of the Bhagavad Gita).
In 1916, he concluded the Lucknow Pact with Mohammed Ali Jinnah, which provided for Hindu-Muslim unity in the nationalist struggle.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://theprint.in/india/pm-modi-pays-tribute-to-lokmanya-tilak-on-birth-anniversary/2187673/
Consider the following statements regarding the Llama 3.1:
- It is a new open source Artificial Intelligence model developed by Meta.
- It can converse in eight languages and write higher-quality computer code.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Meta has unveiled its new open-source AI model Llama 3.1
It is Meta’s largest-ever open-source AI model, and it has outperformed the likes of OpenAI’s GPT-4o and Anthropic’s Claude 3.5 Sonnet on numerous benchmarks.
The new Llama 3.1 models are reportedly far more complex compared to Llama 3 models.
Features
It can converse in eight languages, write higher-quality computer code and solve more complex math problems than previous versions.
It comes with 405 billion parameters, or variables that the algorithm takes into account to generate responses to user queries.
The running inference (a process to train machine learning models) on Llama 3.1 405B is cost-effective as it is around 50 per cent cheaper than closed models like OpenAI’s GPT-4o.
Llama comes with systems like Llama Guard that can be secure against unintentional harms such as bad health advice or unintended self-replication, which he noted as major concerns.
What is an open source AI model?
It is an artificial intelligence technology that is publicly available for both commercial and non-commercial use under several open source licences.
It is characterised by the availability of its components to users under licences that allow them to study how the system works and inspect its components.
These models come with datasets, ready-to-use interfaces, and prebuilt algorithms to help developers embark on their app development journey.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/meta-llama-open-source-ai-explained-9472755/
Consider the following statements regarding the Olympic Order:
- It is the highest award bestowed by the International Olympic Committee.
- It is awarded in three grades namely gold, silver and bronze.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Abhinav Bindra was bestowed with the Olympic Award by the International Olympic Committee.
It is the highest award bestowed by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) for outstanding contributions to the Olympic Movement.
It was established in 1975, it replaced the Olympic Diploma of Merit and is awarded to individuals who have demonstrated exceptional merit in the cause of sport or rendered significant services to the Olympic Movement.
The Olympic Order has three grades: gold, silver and bronze. The gold order is reserved for heads of state and exceptional circumstances.
The insignia of the Olympic Order features a collar or chain with the five Olympic rings and the kotinos emblem, an olive wreath. Recipients also receive a lapel badge in the corresponding grade.
Significance
The Olympic Order is a symbol of recognition for those who have made significant contributions to the Olympic Movement, promoting the ideals of unity, friendship, and fair play that the Olympics embody.
It is a testament to the IOC’s commitment to honouring those who have advanced the cause of sport and the Olympic Movement globally.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/sports/paris-olympics-2024/story/abhinav-bindra-bestowed-with-olympic-order-award-by-ioc-2570357-2024-07-22
Consider the following statements with reference to the Magnetotactic bacteria:
- They are prokaryotic organisms which arrange themselves along the earth’s magnetic field.
- They are only found in marine habitats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers have uncovered fossil remains of magnetic particles, known as magnetofossils produced by magnetotactic bacteria, in rock varnish layers in Ladakh, India.
These are mostly prokaryotic organisms that arrange themselves along the earth’s magnetic field.
These are present in freshwater and marine habitats.
These organisms were believed to follow the magnetic field to reach places that had optimal oxygen concentration.
These bacteria contained “novel structured particles, rich in iron” in small sacs that essentially worked as a compass.
These magnetotactic bacteria create tiny crystals made of the iron-rich minerals magnetite or greigite. The crystals help them navigate the changing oxygen levels in the water body they reside in.
It is believed that these microbes may represent some of Earth’s earliest inhabitants.
Highlights of the research
Researchers are inspired by the similarities between the rock varnish in Ladakh and those observed on Mars by the Perseverance rover.
They identified elevated concentrations of oxidized manganese (Mn4+) and carboxylic acid functionalities on the varnish surface, suggesting the presence of organic signatures.
These findings indicate that the magnetic minerals in the rock varnish are likely biotic in origin.
Significance: By detecting biotic signatures in rock varnish, scientists can better focus on identifying biosignatures on Mars and other celestial bodies.
This information is crucial for future space missions, including those planned by ISRO and other space agencies, aiming to explore Mars and assess its habitability.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2036336
Consider the following statements regarding the Green Climate Fund:
- It was set up at the Conference of Parties-28 (COP) held in Dubai.
- It accelerates transformative climate action in developing countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) received approval of funding of $ 215.6 m from the Green Climate Fund for ‘financing mitigation and adaptation projects’ (FMAP).
It is the world’s largest dedicated climate fund which was set up at COP 16 held in Cancun in 2010.
It is an operating entity of the financial mechanism of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
It accelerates transformative climate action in developing countries through a country-owned partnership approach and the use of flexible financing solutions and climate investment expertise.
The GCF is a legally independent institution with a fully independent secretariat headed by an Executive Secretary.
The Secretariat, located in Songdo South Korea, began its work in December 2013.
What is Financing Mitigation and Adaptation Project?
It would provide “nearly 10,000 concessional loans to MSMEs”, to promote low-emission, climate-resilient technologies.
The FMAP programme is expected to result in a reduction in greenhouse gas emissions to the tune of 35.3 million tonnes.
This is the second GCF-approved project led by SIDBI. The first project is the Avaana Sustainability Fund, which helps startups access climate finance.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/sidbi-to-build-1-b-fund-for-green-financing-with-215-m-from-gcf/article68433273.ece
Tinzaparin drug, recently in the news is used to treat:
blood clots
Explanation :
Researchers found tinzaparin significantly reduced damage to human cells due to spitting cobra venom.
It is a drug used to treat serious blood clots and can reduce damage to cells due to spitting cobra venom.
It is a low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) with antithrombotic properties.
It is used for the treatment of deep venous thrombosis, a condition in which harmful blood clots form in the blood vessels of the legs.
Highlights of the research
Tanzaparin worked by blocking the interaction between the venom and its receptor in the cell by binding to venom molecules.
Snake Venom’s toxicity depended on the biological pathway that synthesised heparan sulphate, artificially stopping this pathway could ameliorate the venom’s toxic effects.
One way of doing so is to introduce molecules that closely resemble heparan sulphate. As the body senses an excess of these molecules, it shuts down the pathways responsible for heparan sulphate synthesis. One such molecule is tinzaparin.
When the team introduced tinzaparin immediately after subjecting cells to the snake venom, the cells survived.
What is heparan sulphate?
It is found on the surface of human and animal cells. Heparin sulfate is released from our cells when our immune systems respond to a threat.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/drug-used-to-treat-clots-can-protect-against-cobra-venom-damage/article68436199.ece
‘Wind Demon’, recently seen in the news, refers to:
an advanced air-to-surface cruise missile
Explanation :
Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI) recently unveiled the country’s new air-to-surface missile dubbed “Wind Demon”.
About Wind Demon:
It is an advanced air-to-surface cruise missile designed for precise, long-range attacks at a low cost.
It was developed by the Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI).
The missile can be launched from a helicopter or aircraft and is capable of striking both mobile and stationary targets according to a predetermined plan without the need for operator intervention.
Features:
With a range of over 200 kilometers and a weight of 140 kg, this missile is distinguished by its remarkable accuracy, with a Circular Error Probable (CEP) of just 1 meter.
Its ability to fly at extremely low altitudes reduces the risk of detection, disruption, and interception, thus enhancing its operational effectiveness.
Operators can choose from various speed profiles—fast/slow/fast—tailored to specific tactical requirements.
The missile operates effectively both day and night and is equipped with an advanced electro-optical seeker with thermal capabilities.
It also features laser spot tracking capabilities, and its warhead weighs over 20 kilograms.
Additionally, it is equipped with a Man-in-the-Loop control system that allows human supervision during critical mission phases.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thedefensepost.com/2024/07/25/israel-wind-demon-missile/
Which one of the following operations was launched by the Indian Army to recapture positions during the Kargil War?
Operation Vijay
Explanation :
Prime Minister is set to visit Kargil on the 25th anniversary of the Kargil Vijay Diwas.
About Kargil Vijay Diwas:
Kargil Diwas, also known as Kargil Vijay Diwas, is celebrated annually on July 26 to commemorate India’s victory over Pakistan in the Kargil War.
The day celebrates the courage and sacrifice of Indian soldiers who valiantly defended the nation’s sovereignty.
The year 2024 marks the 25th anniversary of Kargil Vijay Diwas.
Key Facts about Kargil War:
It was fought between India and Pakistan between May and July 1999 in the Kargil district of Kashmir and along the Line of Control (LOC).
Cause:
To ease these tensions, India and Pakistan signed the Lahore Declaration in February 1999, which aimed for a peaceful resolution to the Kashmir issue.
However, during the winter of 1998-1999, Pakistani forces secretly infiltrated the Drass and Batalik sectors of Kargil in the Ladakh region.
Their objective was to capture positions that would allow them to monitor and potentially control movements along the vital NH 1A highway.
Initially, the Indian military mistook these infiltrators for insurgents. As the scale of the infiltration became apparent, India mobilized nearly 200,000 troops to counter the threat, leading to the onset of the Kargil War.
Operation Vijay: The Indian Army fought bravely and recaptured the famous ‘Tiger Hill’ and other important posts around under ‘Operation Vijay’ by evicting the Pakistani troops in the 1999 Kargil War.
High Altitude Warfare: It was fought at extreme altitudes, with some of the battlegrounds reaching heights of over 18,000 feet.
Duration: It lasted for approximately three months.
Armaments:
The Indian Army employed heavy artillery, airpower, as well as major infantry operations during the Kargil War.
At first, the Indian side used the Bofors FH-77B howitzers to shoot down enemy positions nested at the top of the mountains.
Israel provided their Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) to India during the conflict.
Live on TV: It was the first ever war to be broadcast live on TV channels in India.
The End of Conflict: The war came to an end on July 26, 1999, when India successfully pushed back the Pakistani forces from the occupied positions.
Casualties: As per official figures, around 500 Indian soldiers laid down their lives while at least 1,000 Pakistani troops were also killed.
It was the last war that happened between India and Pakistan.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/pm-narendra-modi-dras-visit-live-kargil-vijay-diwas-2024-kargil-war-545-martyrs-shinkun-la-tunnel-project/liveblog/112029165.cms
Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Dark Oxygen’?
Oxygen produced by electrochemical activity in polymetallic nodules.
Explanation :
Scientists have recently discovered a strange phenomenon, dubbed “dark oxygen” in the deep sea.
About Dark Oxygen:
Oxygen that is being produced in complete darkness thousands of feet below the ocean surface is termed dark oxygen.
Why is the discovery important?
Until now, it was thought that oxygen was created only through photosynthesis, a process that requires sunlight.
Oceanic plankton, drifting plants, algae, and some bacteria are the primary elements attributed to the production of oxygen in the ocean. All these organisms are capable of photosynthesis.
The production of oxygen at such depths is thought to be impossible because there isn’t enough sunlight for plants to do photosynthesis.
However, in this case, oxygen is not being produced by plants.
The oxygen comes out of Polymetallic nodules that are similar in resemblance to lumps of coal.
These nodules, made up of metals like manganese, iron, cobalt, nickel, copper, and lithium, can generate oxygen through electrochemical activity even in the absence of light.
They are splitting H2O molecules into hydrogen and oxygen.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/world-news/us-news/dark-oxygen-is-being-produced-13-000-feet-below-ocean-surface-ground-breaking-study-finds-101721746398231.html
Which one of the following is the primary objective of the NOvA (NuMI Off-axis νe Appearance) Experiment, recently seen in the news?
To study neutrino oscillations and properties
Explanation :
New data from the NOvA experiment deepens the mystery surrounding the mass of Neutrinos.
About NOvA (NuMI Off-axis νe Appearance):
It is an experiment to study neutrino oscillations and properties.
It is managed by the U.S. Department of Energy’s Fermi National Accelerator Laboratory, located outside of Chicago, United States.
Fermilab sends a beam of neutrinos 500 miles north to a 14,000-ton detector in Ash River, Minnesota.
By measuring the neutrinos and their antimatter partners, antineutrinos, in both locations, physicists can study how these particles change their type as they travel, a phenomenon known as neutrino oscillation.
NOvA aims to learn more about the ordering of neutrino masses.
What are Neutrinos?
They are elementary subatomic particles with no electric charge, very little mass, and 1/2 unit of spin.
They travel at near lightspeeds.
Neutrinos belong to the family of particles called leptons, which are not subject to the strong force.
They are often called ‘ghost particles’ because they barely interact with anything else.
Neutrinos are, however, the most common particle in the universe. Approximately 100 trillion neutrinos pass completely harmlessly through your body every second.
Every time atomic nuclei come together (like in the sun) or break apart (like in a fission reactor or particle accelerator), they produce neutrinos.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/new-nova-data-deepens-mystery-of-neutrinos-mass/article68431820.ece
With reference to the State of the World’s Forests 2024 Report, consider the following statements:
- It is published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
- In 2020, forests covered approximately 40% of the global land area.
- More than one-third of the global mangrove area is located in South and Southeast Asia.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
State of the World’s Forests 2024, released by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) recently, has brought both relief and concern regarding the state of the world’s forests.
About State of the World’s Forests 2024 Report:
It is published by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations.
It provides a comprehensive analysis of forest conditions and trends.
Highlights of the Report:
It highlighted a decline in deforestation rates compared to previous decades, with several countries showing significant improvements.
The data also reveals a disturbing picture of the challenges forests face due to climate change.
In 2020, the global forest covered approximately 4.1 billion hectares (ha), or 31 per cent of the land area.
Russia, Brazil, Canada, the United States of America, and China account for 54 per cent of the global forest area, in descending order.
Another 10 countries, including Australia, the Democratic Republic of Congo, Indonesia, Peru, and India, contribute about two-thirds of the global forest area.
The report estimated that between 1990 and 2020, approximately 420 million ha of forest were converted to land use.
However, deforestation rates fell from 15.8 million ha per year between 1990 and 2002 to 10.2 million ha between 2015 and 2020.
Deforestation rates in Africa were 4.41 million ha, 2.95 million in South America, and 2.24 million in Asia.
It also noted 10 countries recording annual gains in forest area in 2020, which include China, Australia, India, Chile, Vietnam, Turkey, the United States of America, France, Italy, and Romania.
India gained 2,66,000 hectares of forest annually from 2010-2020, ranking third globally in forest area gains.
The global mangrove area was recorded to be 14.8 million ha, out of which South and Southeast Asia contributed almost 44 per cent of the total global area.
The rate of gross global mangrove loss decreased by 23 per cent between the two recent decades (2000-2010 and 2010-2020), and the rate of gain in mangrove areas also decreased slightly.
Asia was the major contributor to mangrove loss and gains.
It is estimated that about 340-370 million ha (equivalent to less than half the land area of Australia) of the earth’s land area is impacted by annual fires.
Satellite data revealed that total fires in 2023 emitted 6,687 megatons of carbon dioxide globally, more than double the emissions contributed by the European Union by burning fossil fuels.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/forests/state-of-the-worlds-forests-2024-global-efforts-curb-deforestation-but-threats-to-forests-from-wildfires-and-pests-remain
Consider the following statements regarding the Ketamine Pill:
- It halts the transmission of pain in the spinal cord and activates reward pathways of the brain.
- It is a Schedule X drug in India, which is controlled and monitored on a case-specific basis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Reports have suggested that tablets that release ketamine slowly can improve symptoms of depression with fewer side effects.
Ketamine, also known as Ketalar, is a medicine that doctors use to make people not feel pain during surgeries.
It is sometimes called a “party drug”, and blocks the receptor for an excitatory neurotransmitter — those that cause neurons to fire and send messages — called glutamate.
It is derived from a hallucinogenic drug Phencyclidine (PCP), it works by blocking the NMDA receptor in the brain and spinal cord and increases a brain chemical or neurotransmitter called glutamate.
It halts the transmission of pain in the spinal cord and activates reward pathways of the brain.
It is a dissociative anaesthetic with psychedelic properties and is used under strict medical supervision for anaesthesia and to treat treatment-resistant depression.
Uses: Ketamine therapy is used to treat depression, anxiety, PTSD, end-of-life distress, chronic pain, drug/alcohol problems, and more.
Potential side effects on the body include agitation, depression, cognitive issues, unconsciousness, and memory loss.
Regulation in India: It is a Schedule X drug in India, which means it is tightly controlled and even monitored on a case-specific basis by the prescribing doctor.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/ketamine-pill-offers-hope-and-risks-for-treatment-resistant-depression/article68440888.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Exercise KHAAN QUEST:
- It was first started as a bilateral event between India and the Mongolian Armed Forces in the year 2003.
- It aims to prepare the Indian Armed Forces for peacekeeping missions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Indian Army contingent departed for the Exercise KHAAN QUEST which is scheduled to be conducted from 27th July to 9th August 2024 at Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia.
It is a multinational military exercise which will bring together military forces from around the world to collaborate and enhance their peacekeeping capabilities.
The last edition of Exercise KHAAN QUEST was conducted in Mongolia from 19th June to 2nd July 2023.
Background
The exercise first started as a bilateral event between the USA and Mongolian Armed Forces in the year 2003.
Subsequently, from the year 2006 onwards the exercise graduated to a Multinational Peacekeeping Exercise with the current year being the 21st iteration.
The Indian Army contingent comprising 40 personnel is being represented mainly by troops from a Battalion of the MADRAS REGIMENT along with personnel from other Arms and Services. One Woman Officer and two Women Soldiers will also form part of the contingent.
Exercise KHAAN QUEST aims to prepare the Indian Armed Forces for peacekeeping missions while operating in a multinational environment, thereby increasing interoperability and military readiness in peace support operations under Chapter VII of United Nations Charter.
Tactical drills to be practiced during the exercise will include the establishment of Static and Mobile Check Points, Cordon and Search Operations etc.
The exercise will facilitate the development of inter-operability, bonhomie and camaraderie between soldiers of the participating countries.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2036798
With reference to the MERCOSUR, consider the following statements:
- It was created by signing the Treaty of Asunción in 1991.
- India has signed the Free Trade Agreement (FTA) with MERCOSUR.
- It originally comprised Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay and Uruguay as its members.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, Bolivia became a full-time member of MERCOSUR groupings to increase trade with member countries.
Mercosur (MERCOSUR for its Spanish initials) or the Southern Common Market is an economic and political bloc of Latin America.
Members: It originally comprised Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay, and Uruguay as its members. Bolivia and Venezuela joined it later. (Venezuela has been suspended since December 1, 2016).
It was created in 1991 by signing the Treaty of Asunción, an accord calling for the “free movement of goods, services, and factors of production between countries.”
MERCOSUR aims to promote economic integration, free trade, and the movement of goods, services, and people among member countries.
Governance: The bloc’s highest decision-making body, the Common Market Council, provides a high-level forum for coordinating foreign and economic policy.
Its official working languages are Spanish and Portuguese.
India and MERCOSUR signed the Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA) in 2004, which allowed New Delhi to forge closer economic ties with one of the world’s largest trade blocs.
Headquarters: Montevideo, Uruguay.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/defence-expanding-horizons-in-south-american-regionalism-as-bolivia-joins-mercosur-3564016/
Consider the following statements regarding Listeria:
- It is a type of bacteria found in soil, vegetation and water.
- It causes an infection called listeriosis which affects only children of age below 15 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Two separate outbreaks of listeria, a bacteria which can contaminate food, have been reported in the United States and Canada in recent weeks.
Listeria or Listeria monocytogenes is a type of bacteria found in soil, vegetation, water, sewage and even the faeces of animals and humans.
Listeria-contaminated food can lead to an infection called listeriosis.
Some foods are more likely to have listeria than others, including milk, raw sprouts, deli meats and hot dogs, soft cheeses and smoked seafood.
Symptoms
Most people who ingest listeria-infected food do not fall sick or develop symptoms.
The bacteria can be present in the infected person’s system for up to two months until the symptoms present themselves, making it difficult to establish the connection between what was consumed and the infection.
Symptoms include vomiting, nausea, cramps, severe headache, constipation and fever.
Who is vulnerable to listeriosis?
People with compromised immune systems, pregnant persons and their offspring and the elderly (aged 65 and above) are vulnerable.
The US outbreak has a median age of 75. Listeria can result in hospitalisation and even death for the immunocompromised and the elderly.
According to the CDC, pregnant women are 10 times more likely to develop a listeria infection and risk pregnancy loss, premature birth or even life-threatening infection in the newborn.
Treatment
Treatment depends on the extent of the infection. The treatment is similar to one for a routine stomach infection and could require antibiotics.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-health/2024-listeria-outbreaks-us-canada-explained-9474916/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Sea urchins:
- They belong to a group of marine invertebrates called echinoderms.
- They have hard exoskeletons which are often covered with movable spines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In Japan, researchers are feeding vegetables to hungry sea urchins - a popular sushi ingredient - to try and stop them from eating dwindling stocks of ocean seaweed.
They belong to a group of marine invertebrates called echinoderms, which means spiny-skinned animals.
It includes other well-known marine creatures like starfish and sea cucumbers.
Habitat: They can be found in various marine environments, including rocky shores, coral reefs, seagrass beds, and sandy bottoms. They live on the ocean floor, usually on hard surfaces, and use tube feet or spines to move about.
Appearance: Sea urchins are characterized by their spherical to somewhat flattened, spiny bodies.
The largest urchin (known from a single specimen) is Sperostoma giganteum of deep waters off Japan.
Features
They have a globular body and a radial arrangement of organs, shown by five bands of pores running from mouth to anus over the test (internal skeleton).
The pores accommodate tube feet, which are slender, extensible, and often sucker-tipped.
They have a hard exoskeleton, or test, made up of interlocking plates or ossicles, which are often covered with movable spines.
From nodules on the test arise long, movable spines and pedicellariae (pincerlike organs); these structures may have poison glands.
Food Habit
They are herbivorous, primarily feeding on algae and plant material.
They use their specialized mouthparts, called Aristotle’s lantern, to scrape algae and other food sources from rocks or the seafloor.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/sea-urchins-fed-waste-cabbage-to-spare-japans-seaweed-forests/article68444719.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Hantaviruses:
- They are a family of viruses that can cause severe infections of the lungs or kidneys.
- They are spread from person to person through direct contact with infected bodily fluids or contaminated surfaces.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A health alert has been recently issued in the United States after a rodent-borne hantavirus killed four people.
About Hantavirus:
Hantaviruses are a family of viruses which can cause serious illnesses and death.
The virus can cause severe infections of the lungs (with cough and shortness of breath) or kidneys (with abdominal pain, and sometimes kidney failure).
It causes diseases like hantavirus pulmonary syndrome (HPS) and hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome (HFRS).
Transmission:
They are spread mainly by rodents like rats and mice, and are not spread from person-to-person.
Transmission of the virus to humans occurs through inhalation of infected rodent urine, droppings, or saliva.
Symptoms:
Symptoms of hantavirus infection can be mild or severe, depending on whether a person’s lungs become infected.
The infection starts with sudden fever, headache, muscle aches, and sometimes abdominal symptoms, which may be followed by a cough and shortness of breath or by kidney problems.
The infection gets worse quickly. Lung failure can occur and may lead to death.
Treatment:
There is no specific treatment for hantavirus infection, but early medical care can help if serious disease develops.
More than half of people who have this disease in their lungs die.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/hantavirus-death-in-us-deadly-rat-disease-spreads-to-humans-kills-4-in-us-6186912
Udanti Sitanadi Tiger Reserve is located in which one of the following states?
Chhattisgarh
Explanation :
In the past year, three forest employees have been attacked by encroachers in the Tourenga forest range of Chhattisgarh’s Udanti Sitanadi Tiger Reserve (USTR), with 15% of the forest cleared over the last 15 years.
About Udanti Sitanadi Tiger Reserve (USTR):
Location: It is located in the Dhamtari District of Chhattisgarh.
Udanti and Sitanadi, are two wildlife sanctuaries, combined together to form the reserve.
It covers a total area of 1842.54 sq. km.
It was declared a tiger reserve in the year 2008-09.
Rivers:
The Udanti River flows from west to east in the Udanti Wildlife Sanctuary, and the Sitanadi River originates from the middle of the Sitanadi Wildlife Sanctuary.
There are a few perennial springs, including the famous Deodhara and Godene falls.
Topography: The topography of the area is a broken mass of land traversed by innumerable hill ranges intercepted by strips of plains.
Vegetation: Mixed vegetation is present in the reserve. Dry deciduous forests, tropical and sub-tropical vegetation are also observed here, especially in the area around streams and waterways.
Flora:
It contains various types of forest crops mixed with Sal Forest.
The ground is covered with maze of grass, plants, bushes, and saplings.
Fauna:
All the representative faunal species of Central India are found in the reserve.
The Asiatic Wild Buffalo is the key endangered species found in the Core Area.
Apart from the tiger, other endangered and rare species are the Indian Wolf, Leopard, Sloth Bear, and Mouse Deer.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/raipur/3-deadly-attacks-by-encroachers-on-forest-employees-in-a-year-at-chhattisgarh-tiger-reserve/articleshow/112006959.cms
With reference to the Ahom Dynasty, consider the following statements:
- It was a medieval kingdom in the Brahmaputra valley in Assam.
- The Ahom people constituted more than 90 per cent of the Ahom kingdom.
- With the Treaty of Sagauli, control of the kingdom passed to the British.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The mound-burial system of the Ahom dynasty in Assam—’Moidams’—was included in the UNESCO World Heritage List recently.
About Ahom Dynasty:
The Ahom Dynasty (1228–1826, called Kingdom of Assam in medieval times) was a medieval kingdom in the Brahmaputra valley in Assam that maintained its sovereignty for nearly 600 years and successfully resisted Mughal expansion in North-East India.
It was able to establish its suzerainty over the Brahmaputra valley and had a profound effect on the political and social life in the region.
The Ahom dynasty was established by Sukaphaa, a Shan prince of Mong Mao who came to Assam after crossing the Patkai Mountains.
Though it came to be called the Ahom kingdom in the colonial and subsequent times, it was largely multi-ethnic, with the ethnic Ahom people constituting less than 10% of the population toward the end.
The people of the kingdom used to call them ‘Chaopha’ or ‘Swargadeo’.
The kingdom came under repeated Mughal attacks in the 17th century, and on one occasion in 1662, the Mughals under Mir Jumla occupied the capital, Garhgaon.
The Mughals were unable to keep it, and finally, during the battle of Saraighat in 1671, the Ahoms led by Lachit Borphukan successfully defeated the Mughals.
Borphukan is mainly known for his leadership in this battle.
By 1682, the Mughal influence in the region was completely eradicated.
Following a period of confusion, the kingdom got itself the last set of kings, the Tungkhungia kings, established by Gadadhar Singha.
The kingdom became weaker with the rise of the Moamoria rebellion, and subsequently fell to a succession of Burmese invasions.
With the defeat of the Burmese after the First Anglo-Burmese War and the Treaty of Yandabo in 1826, control of the kingdom passed into British (East India Company) hands.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livemint.com/news/india/assams-ahom-dynasty-moidams-to-world-heritage-list-unesco-ahom-dynasty-mound-burial-site-moidams-11721972727804.html
‘The Perseverance rover’, recently seen in the news, aims to:
search for signs of ancient life on Mars
Explanation :
Nasa’s Perseverance rover recently made an intriguing discovery that could shed light on the ancient history of Mars and the possibility of past microbial life.
About Perseverance Rover:
Perseverance, nicknamed “Percy”, is a semi-autonomous rover the size of a small car designed to explore the surface of Mars.
It is part of NASA’s ongoing Mars 2020 Mission.
Launch: It was launched on July 30, 2020, from Cape Canaveral, Florida.
Landing: Successfully landed on the surface of Mar’s Jezero Crater on February 18, 2021.
Main Job: Seek signs of ancient life and collect samples of rock and regolith (broken rock and soil) for possible return to Earth.
The rover will collect samples of rock and soil, encase them in tubes, and leave them on the planet’s surface to be returned to Earth at a future date.
Features:
It is about 3 metres long, 2.7 metres wide, and 2.2 metres tall.
It is about the size of a car but weighs only about 1,025 kilograms with all instruments on board.
Power source: Multi-Mission Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generator (MMRTG). It converts heat from the radioactive decay of plutonium into electricity.
It has a rectangular body, six wheels, a robotic arm, a drill for sampling rocks, cameras and scientific instruments.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/perseverance-rover-finds-rock-that-could-reveal-if-mars-ever-had-life-2572123-2024-07-26
Consider the following statements with reference to the Yamunotri Dham:
- It is located in the Garhwal Himalayas.
- It is a part of Char Dham, the four most revered Hindu pilgrimages.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Several structures in the Yamunotri Dham area were damaged after water levels of the Yamuna River surged due to heavy rains.
About Yamunotri Dham:
It is a part of Char Dham (along with Gangotri, Kedarnath, and Badrinath), the four most revered Hindu pilgrimages in the Himalayas.
It is situated at an altitude of 3,293 metres (10,804 ft) in the Garhwal Himalayas in District Uttarkashi, Uttarakhand.
It is surrounded by mountains on all sides and lies close to the Indo-China border.
River Yamuna, the second most sacred river of India after the Ganges, originates in Yamunotri.
The small mountain hamlet, with the Yamunotri Temple at its centre, is the commencing point of the Char Dham Yatra pilgrimage, which proceeds from Yamunotri to Gangotri and finally to Kedarnath and Badrinath.
Lodged in a narrow gorge, close to the source of the Yamuna, the Yamunotri Temple is dedicated to Yamuna.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/dehradun-news/structures-near-yamunotri-dham-area-damaged-after-river-swells-due-to-heavy-rain-101721985648614.html
Consider the following statements regarding the GROWTH-India Telescope:
- It is India’s first fully robotic optical research telescope.
- It is located at the Indian Astronomical Observatory site at Hanle, Ladakh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the GROWTH-India Telescope made a remarkable observation, capturing a 116-meter, building-sized asteroid as it made its closest approach to Earth.
It is India’s first fully robotic optical research telescope.
The telescope’s primary mission is to observe explosive transients and variable sources, including near-Earth asteroids.
Location: It is located at the Indian Astronomical Observatory site at Hanle, Ladakh. Situated at 4500 meters above mean sea level, this is one of the highest observatory sites in the world and one of the best telescope locations in the country.
It joins The Himalayan Chandra Telescope (HCT), the gamma-ray array telescope (HAGAR), and the imaging Cherenkov telescope (MACE) at this site.
It was constructed through a partnership between the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) and the Indian Institute of Technology Bombay (IITB), with support from the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and the Indo-US Science and Technology Forum.
GROWTH-India project is part of an international network of observatories, known as the Global Relay of Observatories Watching Transients Happen (GROWTH).
It aims to provide continuous monitoring of interesting celestial events. The network’s collaborative approach ensures that observations are not interrupted by daylight, allowing for comprehensive data collection.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/india-telescope-in-ladakh-captures-building-sized-asteroid-zoom-past-earth-2572233-2024-07-26
Consider the following statements with reference to the Climate Finance Action Fund:
- It will be capitalised with contributions from fossil fuel-producing countries.
- It was initiated as a part of the Conference of Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Azerbaijan, which will host the 29th Conference of Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change, announced a new fund called the ‘Climate Finance Action Fund’.
It will be capitalised with contributions from fossil fuel-producing countries and companies across oil, gas and coal, and Azerbaijan will be a founding contributor.
It was launched within a package of 14 initiatives under the framework of the COP29 thematic days.
It will be a catalytic public-private partnership fund, mobilising the private sector and de-risking investment.
The fund will also contain special facilities with concessional and grant-based support to rapidly address the consequences of natural disasters in developing countries in need.
CFAF will become operational after the initial fundraising round, which seeks to capitalise the fund with $1 billion, and when 10 contributing countries committed as shareholders.
Fifty per cent of the capital will be directed towards climate projects in developing countries that rely on support, across mitigation, adaptation, and research and development.
Fifty percent of the contributions will be allocated to helping meeting members’ the next generation of Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) to keep the 1.5C temperature target within reach.
Twenty percent of the revenues generated from investments will be deposited in a Rapid Response Funding Facility (2R2F) providing highly concessional and grant-based support.
The fund will be headquartered with its secretariat in Baku, Azerbaijan
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/climate-change/un-cop29-azerbaijan-will-the-new-climate-finance-action-fund-cfaf-help-developing-countr
Which one of the following is the only state in Africa which was never subjected to colonial rule and is Africa’s oldest republic
Liberia
Explanation :
A group of senators in Liberia, situated along the coast of western Africa, has proposed to relocate the country’s capital city Monrovia due to recurring flash floods.
Location: Liberia is located along the coast of western Africa.
Liberia is the only state in Africa which was never subjected to colonial rule and is Africa’s oldest republic.
Land Boundary: It is bounded by Sierra Leone to the northwest, Guinea to the north, Côte d’Ivoire to the east, and the Atlantic Ocean to the south and west.
The Atlantic Ocean borders Liberia to the south-southwest.
It has Cape Mount (about 1,000 feet in elevation) in the northwest, Cape Mesurado in Monrovia, and Cape Palmas in the southeast.
Major Rivers: The Mano and Morro Rivers in the northwest and the Cavalla in the east and southeast are major rivers and form sections of Liberia’s boundaries.
Natural resources: It has natural resources like Iron diamonds, gold, lead, manganese, graphite, cyanite
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/liberia-relocate-monrovia-9469359/
Consider the following statements regarding the Steel Import Monitoring System (SIMS):
- It provides detailed steel import data to the domestic industry.
- It was launched by the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister of Steel and Heavy Industries, launched SIMS 2.0, the upgraded Steel Import Monitoring System.
It features API integration with multiple government portals, enhancing quality control and streamlining processes for improved efficiency and effectiveness.
The portal boasts a robust data entry system, ensuring consistent and authentic data, which promotes transparency and accountability. Integration of various databases enables stakeholders to locate areas of risk and, thereby, permits better risk management.
Example: if an import consignment declares a particular source of import, which is not licensed by BIS, then the Ministry will be enabled to not recommend its import. The detailed data will enable Customs to conduct better analysis and risk management of steel imports.
SIMS was introduced in 2019, and has played a crucial role in providing detailed steel import data to the domestic industry.
Based on industry feedback, the Ministry has revamped the portal to develop a more effective SIMS 2.0, a significant step forward in monitoring steel imports and promoting the growth of the domestic steel industry.
Significance: The availability of such detailed data not only provides input for policy making but also signals areas for production and growth to the domestic steel industry.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2037003
Consider the following statements with reference to the Cultural Property Agreement:
- It aims to prevent and curb the illicit trafficking of antiquities.
- It was signed recently between India and Australia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Government of India and the Government of the United States of America (USA) signed the first ever ‘Cultural Property Agreement’ on the sidelines of the 46th World Heritage Committee, at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
It is to prevent and curb the illicit trafficking of antiquities from India to the USA.
It is aligned with the 1970 UNESCO Convention on the Means of Prohibiting and Preventing the Illicit Import, Export and Transfer of Ownership of Cultural Property, to which both countries are state parties.
It restricts the importation into the United States of certain archaeological material ranging in date from 1.7 million years ago through 1770 CE and certain ethnological material, which may include categories of civic, religious, and royal architectural material, religious material and ceremonial items, and manuscripts ranging in date from 2nd century BCE to 1947 CE.
As per the agreement, the United States of America shall offer to return to India any object or material on the Designate List forfeited to the Government of the United States of America.
It is to be noted that the USA has already executed agreement with countries like -Algeria, Belize, Bolivia, Bulgaria, Cambodia, Chile, China, Colombia, Costa Rica, Cyprus, Ecuador, Egypt, El Salvador, Greece, Guatemala, Honduras, Italy, Jordan, Mali, Morocco, Peru and Turkey.
Significance: The Agreement shall be helpful in quick seizure of Indian antiquities at US Customs and their repatriation back to India.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-us-sign-cultural-property-agreement/article68450309.ece
With reference to Lithium, consider the following statements:
- It is an alkali metal and is solid at room temperature.
- It is the lightest of the solid elements.
- China holds the largest reserves of Lithium in the world.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The union minister of state for science and technology recently announced the discovery of 1,600 tonnes of lithium resources in Karnataka.
About Lithium:
It is a chemical element with the symbol Li and atomic number 3.
Classified as an alkali metal, lithium is a solid at room temperature.
It is the lightest of the solid elements.
It is soft, white, and lustrous.
It reacts vigorously with water.
It has a body-centered cubic crystal structure.
Occurrence:
Lithium constitutes about 0.002 percent of Earth’s crust.
Being highly reactive, it does not occur as the metal in nature, but is found combined in small amounts in nearly all igneous rocks and in the waters of many mineral springs.
Spodumene, petalite, lepidolite, and amblygonite are the more important minerals containing lithium.
Major Reserves: Lithium reserves are concentrated in the lithium triangle in South America–Argentina, Bolivia, and Chile, with 50% of the deposits concentrated in these regions.
Production: In 2023, Australia was the world leader in terms of lithium mine production, with Chile and China ranked second and third.
Uses:
The most important use of lithium is in rechargeable batteries for mobile phones, laptops, digital cameras, and electric vehicles.
Lithium is also used in some non-rechargeable batteries for things like heart pacemakers, toys and clocks.
Lithium metal is made into alloys with aluminium and magnesium, improving their strength and making them lighter.
A magnesium-lithium alloy is used for armour plating.
Aluminium-lithium alloys are used in aircraft, bicycle frames and high-speed trains.
Lithium oxide is used in special glasses and glass ceramics.
Lithium chloride is one of the most hygroscopic materials known and is used in air conditioning and industrial drying systems (as is lithium bromide).
Lithium hydride is used as a means of storing hydrogen for use as a fuel.
Lithium carbonate is used in drugs to treat manic depression.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://energy.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/power/1600-tonnes-of-lithium-resources-discovered-in-karnataka/112033810
Consider the following statements regarding the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP):
- It is a decentralized, state-based surveillance programme launched with World Bank assistance.
- It aims to maintain a laboratory-based IT-enabled disease surveillance system for epidemic-prone diseases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A total of 1,862 disease outbreaks were reported to the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme last year, with the highest number being reported from Kerala, the Lok Sabha was informed recently.
About Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP):
It is a decentralized, state-based surveillance programme in the country.
It was launched with World Bank assistance in November 2004 by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
Objectives: To strengthen/maintain a decentralized laboratory-based IT enabled disease surveillance system for epidemic-prone diseases to monitor disease trends and to detect and respond to outbreaks in the early rising phase through trained Rapid Response Teams (RRTs).
Programme Components:
Integration and decentralization of surveillance activities through the establishment of surveillance units at the Centre, State, and District levels.
Human Resource Development: Training of State Surveillance Officers, District Surveillance Officers, RRT, and other medical and paramedical staff on principles of disease surveillance.
Use of Information Communication Technology for collection, collation, compilation, analysis, and dissemination of data.
Strengthening of public health laboratories.
Inter sectoral coordination for zoonotic diseases.
Data Management:
Under IDSP, data is collected on epidemic-prone diseases on a weekly basis (Monday–Sunday).
The information is collected in three specified reporting formats, namely “S” (suspected cases), “P” (presumptive cases), and “L” (laboratory confirmed cases), filled by Health Workers, Clinicians, and Laboratory staff, respectively.
IDSP receives disease outbreak reports from the States/UTs on a weekly basis. Even NIL weekly reporting is mandated, and compilation of disease outbreaks/alerts is done on a weekly basis.
The weekly data gives information on the disease trends and seasonality of diseases.
Whenever there is a rising trend of illnesses in any area, it is investigated by the RRTs to diagnose and control the outbreak.
Data analysis and actions are being undertaken by respective State/District Surveillance Units.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/over-1800-disease-outbreaks-reported-across-country-last-year-govt/articleshow/112041371.cms?from=mdr
With reference to Assam Rifles, consider the following statements:
- While the administrative control of the force is with the Ministry of Home Affairs, its operational control is with the Indian Army.
- It has a dual role of maintaining internal security in the Northeastern region and guarding the Indo-China border.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A forum of several influential organisations representing the Meitei community in conflict-hit Manipur recently issued a call to boycott Assam Rifles.
About Assam Rifles:
It is one of the six central armed police forces (CAPFs).
It is the only paramilitary force with a dual control structure.
While the administrative control of the force is with the Ministry of Home Affairs, its operational control is with the Indian Army, which is under the Ministry of Defence.
It has a dual role of maintaining internal security in the Northeastern region and guarding the Indo-Myanmar Border.
History:
It is the oldest paramilitary force in India.
It came into being in 1835, as a militia called the ‘Cachar Levy’.
With approximately 750 men, this force was formed to primarily protect British Tea estates and their settlements against tribal raids.
Over the period of time, it was expanded and rechristened the Assam Military Police Battalion, with additional battalions.
It was later renamed as Assam Rifles.
The post-independence role of the Assam Rifles continued to evolve, ranging from
conventional combat role during Sino-India War 1962,
operating in foreign land as part of the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) to Sri Lanka in 1987 (Op Pawan)
to peacekeeping role in the North-Eastern areas of India.
Assam Rifles has grown substantially over the years, from 17 battalions in 1960 to 46 battalions at present.
Fondly called ‘Friends of the North East People’, the force is the highest awarded and decorated paramilitary force in both pre-and post-independent India.
The force is commanded by an officer of the rank of Lieutenant General of the Army.
The highest Headquarters (HQ) of the force, known as the HQ Directorate General of Assam Rifles, is located at Shillong.
The HQs of all other Central Para Military Forces are located in Delhi.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/manipur/meitei-groups-forum-issues-call-to-boycott-assam-rifles-cm-biren-singh-leaves-for-new-delhi-3122456
Consider the following statements with reference to the Mako Missile:
- It is an air-launched hypersonic multi-mission missile.
- It was developed by China to be fired from the internal weapons bay of the fifth-generation stealth fighter jets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The US Navy, Navy SEAL commandos, and the US Air Force are set to install the Mako missile in all their military aircraft.
About Mako Missile:
It is an air-launched hypersonic multi-mission missile.
It was developed by Lockheed Martin, an American aerospace and defence manufacturer.
It will be the world’s first hypersonic weapon that could be fired from the internal weapons bay of the fifth-generation stealth fighter jets: the F-35 and the F-22 Raptor.
It can be used for a wide range of missions, including targets at sea, in the air, and on land.
Features:
Named after the fastest shark in the seas, Mako blazes down on time-sensitive targets, and it penetrates advanced air-defence systems to engage these high-value targets at or below hypersonic speeds, depending on mission requirements.
It can achieve speeds over Mach 5 with high maneuverability, making it difficult to intercept.
It represents one of Lockheed Martin’s first generation of missiles designed within an entirely “digital engineering ecosystem”.
It weighs close to 590 kg with a diameter of 13 inches and an approximate length of 4 meters.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/defence-strengthening-us-security-the-introduction-of-the-mako-hypersonic-missile-3566391/
Mettur Dam, one of the largest dams in India, is constructed over which river?
Kaveri River
Explanation :
A warning has been issued to people residing in low-lying areas of the Mettur Dam, following increased inflow into the dam.
About Mettur Dam:
It is one of the largest dams in India, built in 1934.
Location: It is located at Mettur, District Salem in Tamil Nadu.
It is constructed in a gorge, where the Kaveri River enters the plains.
Features:
It is a masonry gravity dam.
The length of the dam is 1700 m with a maximum level of 120 feet and a capacity of 93.4 tmc ft.
The dam creates Stanley Reservoir.
Set at the foot of the dam in 1937 is the Mettur hydroelectric and thermal power plant, with a hydropower generation of 32 MW.
There is a park adjoining the Dam on the opposite side with lawns and fountains and also the Muniappan/Aiyanar statue in the vicinity.
It provides irrigation facilities to parts of Salem, the length of Erode, Namakkal, Karur, Tiruchirappalli, and Thanjavur districts for 271,000 acres (110,000 ha) of farmland.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Coimbatore/inflow-into-mettur-dam-increases-to-118-lakh-cusecs-warning-issued-for-low-lying-areas/article68453463.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Indexation:
- It is the process of adjusting the original purchase price of an asset to neutralise the impact of inflation.
- It applies to only short-term investments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The changes in the long-term capital gains (LTCG) tax regime, particularly the withdrawal of the indexation benefit, have emerged as one of the most contentious decisions announced in the Union Budget for 2024-25.
It is the process of adjusting the original purchase price of an asset or investment in order to neutralise the impact of inflation on it.
Inflation reduces the value of money over time, and therefore when an asset is sold or investment is redeemed, indexation helps in arriving at the cost of acquisition with the impact of inflation over the holding period factored in.
The cost of acquisition thus arrived at, is called the indexed cost of acquisition. It resets the base for calculation of gains or losses from the sale or redemption.
The returns calculated on the indexed cost of acquisition are generally seen as more realistic than absolute gains calculated on the basis of the actual price at the time of purchase.
Indexation is an efficient way of preventing draining of your returns on investments in the form of taxes.
Indexation is applicable to long-term investments, which include debt funds and other asset classes. Indexation helps in adjusting the purchase price of the investments.
What is capital gains tax?
A capital gains tax is a tax imposed on the sale of an asset. It is calculated as the difference between the sale price of the property and its purchase price.
Any gain or loss incurred from the sale of a house property may be subject to tax under the ‘Capital Gains’ head.
Types: Depending of the period an asset is held with the owner, there are two types of capital gains - Short-term Capital Gains and Long-term Capital Gains.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/indexation-capital-gains-tax-9479405/
Tell Umm Amer, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, recently in the news, is located in:
Palestine
Explanation :
The World Heritage Committee (WHC) decided to include the Palestinian site of Tell Umm Amer in both the UNESCO World Heritage Site List and the Lost of World Heritage in Danger during its 46th session in New Delhi.
It is situated on the coastal dunes of the Nuseirat Municipality, just 10 km south of Gaza City.
It is the ancient Christian monastery that was founded in the fourth century by Hilarion the Great (291-371 CE).
It is also known as the ‘Monastery of Saint Hilarion.
It was the first monastic community in the Holy Land, laying the groundwork for the spread of monastic practices in the region.
The monastery occupied a strategic position at the crossroads of major trade and communication routes between Asia and Africa.
Key facts about UNESCO
UNESCO stands for United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
It is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN).
The constitution, which entered into force in 1946, called for the promotion of international collaboration in education, science, and culture.
The agency’s permanent headquarters are in Paris, France.
Parent Organisation - United Nations Economic and Social Council
The primary goals of UNESCO are to contribute to peace and security by promoting collaboration among nations through education, science, and culture, and to promote sustainable development and intercultural dialogue.
UNESCO believes that these areas are crucial for building a more just, peaceful, and inclusive world.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/gaza-tell-umm-amer-hilarion-world-heritage-site-list-matters-9479170/
Consider the following:
- Cyclone
- Drought
- Heat waves
How many of the above are classified as Notified Disasters in India?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Minister of State for the Union Ministry of Science and Technology informed Lok Sabha that the 15th Finance Commission declined to include heatwaves on the notified disaster list.
In India, the Disaster Management Act, 2005, defines a disaster as a “catastrophe, mishap, calamity or grave occurrence” arising from natural or man-made causes that results in substantial loss of life, destruction of property, or damage to the environment.
Currently 12 disasters are classified as Notified Disaster namely: Cyclone, drought, earthquake, fire, flood, tsunami, hailstorm, landslide, avalanche, cloud burst, pest attack and frost and cold wave.
Presently the notified list of disasters eligible for National Disaster Response Fund/State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) assistance.
What are Heat waves?
The basic criteria for IMD to declare a heatwave are when a place’s temperature exceeds 40 degrees Celsius (°C) in the plains, 37°C in coastal areas, and 30°C in the hills.
These temperature values are the thresholds established by the IMD for the declaration of heatwaves in India.
Key facts about National Disaster Management Authority
The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) plays a crucial role in laying down policies, plans, and guidelines for disaster management in India.
It aims to promote a national resolve to mitigate the damage and destruction caused by natural and man-made disasters through sustained and collective efforts.
Hence only 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/natural-disasters/centre-has-no-plans-to-include-heatwave-as-notified-disaster
Consider the following statements regarding the E-Upahaar Portal:
- It was developed by the National Informatics Centre (NIC), Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
- It helps in the auctioning of gift items presented to the Hon’ble President and former Presidents of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Rashtrapati Bhavan will auction selected gift items, presented to the President and former Presidents on various occasions, through an online portal called E-Upahaar.
It is an auction portal of the President’s Secretariat (office of the President of India), Rashtrapati Bhavan for auctioning of gift items presented to the Hon’ble President and former Presidents of India.
The portal was launched by the President of India, on July 25, 2024,
It is conceptualized, designed, developed and hosted by the National Informatics Centre (NIC), Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
The aim of this initiative is not only to increase citizen engagement but also to support a noble cause. All proceeds from the auction will be donated to help children in need.
Key facts about the National Informatics Centre
It was established in the year 1976 to provide technology-driven solutions to Central and State Governments.
It works under the Union Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
The NIC’s primary focus is to provide e-Government solutions and support to various government departments.
NIC, through its ICT Network, “NICNET”, has institutional linkages with all the Ministries /Departments of the Central Government, 36 State Governments/ Union Territories across India.
The following major activities are being undertaken:
Setting up of ICT Infrastructure
Implementation of National and State Level e-Governance Projects/Products
Consultancy to the Government departments
Research & Development
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2037688
Consider the following statements regarding the Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre:
- It helps in implementing disaster risk reduction in Asia and the Pacific region.
- India is a founding member of this organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, India has taken over as the Chair of Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre (ADPC) for 2024-25.
It is an autonomous international organization established in 1986.
It is for cooperation in and implementation of disaster risk reduction and building climate resilience in Asia and the Pacific region.
Vision: Safer communities and sustainable development through disaster risk reduction” and its geographical remit is Asia and the Pacific
Member countries: India, Bangladesh, Cambodia, China, Nepal, Pakistan, Philippines, Sri Lanka and Thailand are the founding members.
Governance: The organs of ADPC, defined in the ADPC Charter include the Board of Trustees, the Executive Committee, the Advisory Council and the Regional Consultative Committee (RCC), which are the governing or advisory bodies of ADPC.
ADPC’s international Charter was signed by nine founding member countries and it was put into effect in 2018 through the ratification by all the founding members.
As of January 2020, ADPC is operating as an autonomous international organization governed by the Board of Trustees.
Headquarters: Bangkok, Thailand and sub-centres in the country of operations are the operational parts of ADPC.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2037441
Consider the following statements regarding National Policy for Rare Disease (NPRD) 2021:
- It has provision for financial support of up to Rs. 50 lakhs to the patients suffering from rare diseases.
- It has provisions for the promotion of research and development for diagnosis and treatment of rare diseases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Only four out of twelve Centres of Excellence (CoEs) for rare diseases have utilised funds provided to them by the Government under the National Policy for Rare Disease (NPRD) in the last three years, according to patient advocacy groups.
About National Policy for Rare Disease (NPRD):
The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India, has launched the National Policy for Rare Diseases (NPRD) in March 2021, for the management of patients havingrare diseases, which is directed towards prevention, early detection, and treatment of such diseases.
The policy has provision of free treatment facilities for persons suffering with such diseases at designated ‘Centres of Excellence’.
The salient features of NPRD 2021 are as under:
The rare diseases have been identified and categorized into 3 groups:
Group 1: Disorders amenabletoone-time curative treatment.
Group-2:Diseases requiring long term/lifelong treatment having relatively lower cost of treatment and benefit has been documented in literature, and annual or more frequent surveillance is required.
Group 3: Diseases for which definitive treatment is available but challenges are to make optimal patient selection for benefit, very high cost,and lifelong therapy.
Centres of Excellence (CoEs) have been identified for the diagnosis, prevention, and treatment of rare diseases.
These COEs will be provided a one-time grant subject to a maximum of Rs 5 crore each for infrastructure development for screening, tests, and treatment if such infrastructure is not available.
Provision for financial support of up to Rs. 50 lakhs to the patients suffering from any category of Rare Diseases and for treatment in any of the CoE mentioned in NPRD-2021, outside the Umbrella Scheme of Rashtriya Arogaya Nidhi (RAN).
RAN provides one-time financial assistance to poor patients living below the State/UT wise threshold poverty line suffering from rare diseases (RD) listed under group 1 for treatment at Government hospitals/institutes having Super Specialty facilities; (Maximum financial assistance is Rs. 20 lakhs).
In order to receive financial assistance for treatment of a rare disease, the patient of the nearby area may approach the nearest CoE to get him assessed and avail the benefits.
Treatment of patients starts immediately after registration with the CoEs.
Nidan Kendras have been set up for genetic testing and counselling services.
It has provisions for the promotion of research and development for diagnosis and treatment of rare diseases; promotion of local development and manufacture of drugs and creation of a conducive environment for indigenous manufacturing of drugs for rare diseases at affordable prices.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.business-standard.com/health/only-4-of-12-coes-for-rare-diseases-utilise-nprd-funds-in-past-3-years-124072800341_1.html
‘INS Tabar’, recently seen in the news, is a:
stealth frigate
Explanation :
The Russian President recently greeted Indian Navy personnel onboard the Indian Naval Ship (INS) Tabar, which is participating in Russia’s Navy Day celebrations.
About INS Tabar:
It is a stealth frigate built for the Indian Navy in Russia.
It is the third of the Talwar-class frigate of the Indian Navy.
The frigate was commissioned on 19 April 2004 in Kaliningrad, Russia.
INS Tabar can handle air/surface/sub-surface missions or defend herself, operating either independently on maritime missions or supporting a larger naval task force.
The ship is part of the Indian Navy’s Western Fleet, which is based in Mumbai under the Western Naval Command.
Features:
Fully loaded, INS Tabar has a displacement of 4,035 tons.
Speed: 30 knots (56 km/h; 35 mph)
Maximum range is 4,850 nautical miles (8,980 km; 5,580 mi) at 14 knots (26 km/h; 16 mph), while at 30 knots (56 km/h; 35 mph), the range lessens to 1,600 nautical miles (3,000 km; 1,800 mi).
The ship is equipped with a versatile range of weapons and sensors.
It is the first vessel in the Talwar class frigate to be armed with supersonic BrahMos (anti-ship cruise missiles).
It is also equipped with Barak-1 missiles.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://theprint.in/world/russian-president-vladimir-putin-greets-ins-tabar-on-russias-navy-day/2195444/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Pollution Under Control (PUC) Certificate:
- It is a validation document that states that the vehicle’s emission levels are within the permissible levels set by the government.
- Only petrol and diesel vehicles are required to possess a valid PUC certificate in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently abolished its own directive issued in 2017 that made valid pollution under control (PUC) certificates mandatory for renewal of third-party insurance policies.
About Pollution Under Control (PUC) Certificate:
The PUC Certificate, often referred to as the pollution certificate, is a mandatory document for every vehicle owner in India.
This certificate states that you can legally ride/drive a vehicle in India concerning meeting environmental standards.
It is a validation document that states that the vehicle’s emission levels are within the permissible levels set by the government.
All vehicles on Indian roads are required to possess a valid PUC certificate under the Central Motor Vehicles Rule 1989.
Usually, a new vehicle is exempt from PUC in the first year. Following this, the vehicle has to undergo mandatory PUC tests at regular intervals to get a validity certificate.
A PUC certificate is usually valid for a year from the date of issue.
Failure to produce a PUC certificate can invite a fine of up to Rs 10,000 or six months of imprisonment or both under the Motor Vehicle Act.
The vehicle owner may also be disqualified from holding their licence for three months.
If the vehicle is found to be emitting fumes beyond the prescribed limit, despite possessing a valid PUC certificate, the certificate will be cancelled. The vehicle owner will have to obtain a new PUC certificate within seven days.
The PUC certificate rule is applicable to CNG-powered vehicles in addition to petrol and diesel vehicles.
How to get a PUC certificate?
A PUC certificate can be obtained from a government-authorised emission test centre with a computerised facility.
The issuance of an emission test certificate involves a thorough examination of the vehicle’s exhaust gas, and the test results are mentioned in the PUC certificate.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/delhi-news/sc-revisits-its-own-order-puc-not-mandatory-to-renew-car-insurance-101722015476799.html
Bohai Gulf, recently seen in the news, is located on the:
coast of Northeastern China
Explanation :
UNESCO recently inscribed China’s Migratory Bird Sanctuaries along the Yellow Sea-Bohai Gulf (Phase II) to its World Heritage List.
About Bohai Gulf:
It is the innermost gulf of the Yellow Sea on the coast of Northeastern and North China.
It is sometimes called the Bohai Sea, or Bo Hai for short; in earlier times it was called the Gulf of Chili or the Gulf of Pechili.
It is approximately 78,000 sq. km in area and its proximity to Beijing, the capital of China, makes it one of the busiest seaways in the world.
It is enclosed by the Liaodong Peninsula (northeast) and the Shandong Peninsula (south).
Among the most important cities in the Bohai Gulf are Dalian and Tianjin; its shores form three of the most famous bays in the country: Liaodong Bay, Bohai Bay, and Laizhou Bay.
The Yellow River, China’s second longest river, discharges into the gulf.
There are both onshore and offshore petroleum deposits, and several oil refineries are located there as well as other industries.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.timesnownews.com/travel/news/new-chinese-migratory-bird-sanctuaries-added-to-unesco-world-heritage-list-article-112057811
Consider the following statements with reference to the Dal Lake:
- It is located in Leh, Ladakh.
- It is surrounded by the Pir Panjal mountains.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The bodies of a woman and two children recovered from the Dal Lake in Srinagar city have been identified recently.
About Dal Lake:
It is a popular lake situated in Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir.
It is surrounded by the Pir Panjal mountains.
It is named the “Jewel in the crown of Kashmir” or “Srinagar’s Jewel”.
It is the second-largest lake in Jammu and Kashmir.
The lake covers an area of 18 square kilometres (6.9 sq mi) and is part of a natural wetland which covers 21.1 square kilometres (8.1 sq mi), including its floating gardens.
The floating gardens, known as “Raad” in Kashmiri, blossom with lotus flowers during July and August.
The wetland is divided by causeways into four basins: Gagribal, Lokut Dal, Bod Dal, and Nagin (although Nagin is also considered an independent lake).
The shoreline of the lake, is about 15.5 kilometres (9.6 mi) and is encompassed by a boulevard lined with Mughal-era gardens, parks, houseboats, and hotels.
Dal Lake is also popular for the floating market where vendors have their own Shikaras/wooden boats and approach tourists.
The depth of water varies from 6 metres at its deepest to 2.5 metres at its shallowest.
During the winter season, the temperature sometimes reaches −11 °C (12 °F), freezing the lake.
Islands:
Dal Lake includes 3 islands, 2 of which are marked with beautiful Chinar trees.
The island located on the Lakut Dal is known as Roph Lank (Silver Island), and is marked by the presence of majestic Chinar trees at the four corners, thus known as Char-Chinari (Four Chinars).
The second Chinar Island, known as Sone Lank (Gold Island), is located on the Bod Dal (Big Dal) and overlooks the holy shrine of Hazratbal.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.tribuneindia.com/news/j-k/three-bodies-found-in-dal-lake-identified-probe-underway-644384#
Consider the following statements regarding the NIPUN Bharat Mission:
- It focuses on children of the age group of 3 to 9 years to acquire Foundational Literacy and Numeracy (FLN) skills.
- It is one of the centrally sponsored schemes of Samagra Shiksha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The new National Education Policy (NEP 2020) was launched four years ago and there are a set of interlinked social and demographic trends which, if leveraged, could provide a boost to the NIPUN Bharat Mission.
The National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy (NIPUN Bharat) Bharat mission was launched by the Ministry of Education.
The mission will focus on children of the age group of 3 to 9 years including pre-school to Grade 3.
A five-tier implementation mechanism will be set up at the National- State- District- Block- School level in all States and UTs, under the aegis of the centrally sponsored scheme of Samagra Shiksha.
The goals and objectives of the mission are required to be achieved by all government Government-aided and Private Schools so that universal acquisition of Foundational Literacy and Numeracy (FLN) skills can be achieved by 2026-27.
It has been launched under the aegis of the centrally sponsored scheme of Samagra Shiksha and will focus on providing
Access and retaining children in foundational years of schooling; teacher capacity building; development of high quality and diversified Student and Teacher Resources/Learning Materials; and tracking the progress of each child in achieving learning outcomes.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/nipun-bharat-mission-nep-2020-implementation-aser-surveys-9481617/
Periyar Tiger Reserve, recently seen in the news, is located in:
Kerala
Explanation :
In a pioneering move, Periyar Tiger Reserve (PTR) in Thekkady has installed a wind turbine to generate power for real-time monitoring cameras and Wi-Fi connectivity within its forests.
It is located in the Western Ghats of Kerala.
It gets its name from the River Periyar which has its origin deep inside the reserve.
Rivers: Two main rivers which drain the reserve are Pamba and Periyar drain the reserve.
It is home to many tribal communities including the Mannans and the Palians.
Vegetation: It consists of tropical evergreen, semi-evergreen and moist deciduous forests.
Flora: Important flora includes teak, mangoes, rosewood, jamun, jacarandas, terminalias, tamarind, royal ponciana, bamboos etc.
Fauna: It includes Elephants, Wild Pigs, Sambar, Gaur, Mouse Deer, Dole or Barking Deer, Indian Wild Dog and Tiger.
The major four species of primates are also found at Periyar - the rare lion-tailed macaque, the Nilgiri Langur, Gee’s Golden Langur, Common Langur and Bonnet Macaque.
It is also being considered as the habitat of the elusive Nilgiri Tahr.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/in-a-first-periyar-tiger-reserve-installs-wind-turbine-in-its-forests-for-power-generation/article68457340.ece
With reference to Agarwood, consider the following statements:
- It is a fast-growing subtropical forest tree.
- It requires sandy loam and slightly acidic soils for its growth.
- It is only found in the Western Ghats region.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
India has successfully prevented the inclusion of Aquilaria malaccensis (agarwood) in the Review of Significant Trade (RST) of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
Agarwood or Gaharu as it is known in many Asian countries is resinous heartwood that occurs in trees belonging to the genus Aquilaria.
It is a fast-growing, subtropical forest tree.
It grows at elevations from a few meters above sea level to about 1000 meters, with approx. 500 meters is ideal.
Distribution: West Bengal and North-Eastern States of India namely Assam, Meghalaya, Manipur, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland.
Required Climatic condition
This is a tropical tree which grows over high rainfall tracts throughout humid regions.
The region experience low temperature variations between 20ºC to 28ºC and relative humidity around 80%.
Soil: It grows over sandy loam and slightly acidic soils.
Application
Highly valued for its traditional uses as incense, the extracts (agarwood oil) of plants are also used in water-based perfumes.
Agarwood is also utilised in numerous applications such as in the aroma industry, in medicine preparations, preparations of air fresheners and purifiers.
The essential oil extracted from agarwood has anti-inflammatory, anti-rheumatic, analgesic and anti-oxidant properties.
Conservation status
IUCN: Critically Endangered
CITES: Appendix II
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/cites-eases-export-of-agarwood-from-india-move-to-benefit-lakhs-of-farmers/article68457796.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Jupiter Icy Moon Explorer Mission:
- It aims to explore the possibilities of life in space and the origins of Jupiter.
- It was launched by the NASA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
European Space Agency’s Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer (JUICE) is gearing up for a pivotal maneuver in its mission to the gas giant and it is scheduled to fly past Earth on August 20, 2024.
It is a European Space Agency (ESA) mission to explore Jupiter and three of its icy moons: Europa, Callisto and Ganymede.
Objective: The probe aims to explore the possibilities of life in space and the origins of Jupiter.
It will monitor Jupiter’s complex magnetic, radiation, and plasma environment in depth and its interplay with the moons.
Approximately four years after its arrival at the Jupiter system, JUICE will move into orbit around the gas giant’s largest moon, Ganymede, to conduct the most extensive exploration of this body, which is larger than the solar system’s smallest planet, Mercury.
It will become the first probe to orbit a planetary moon other than Earth’s.
Features
It has been fuelled with mono-methyl hydrazine (MMH) fuel and mixed oxides of nitrogen (MON) oxidizer, which ignites when the two come in contact. Juice will use this propellant to make critical course manoeuvres on its journey.
It will be packed with 10 instruments and will characterize Jupiter’s ocean-bearing icy moons.
It will be launched onboard the Ariane-5 rocket, a workhorse for the European Space Agency.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/europe-juice-probe-set-close-encounter-earth-before-jupiter-9481517/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Livermorium:
- It is one of the superheavy categories of elements.
- It does not occur naturally in the Earth’s crust.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Scientists at Berkeley Lab’s 88-Inch Cyclotron have successfully created superheavy element 116, also known as livermorium.
It is part of the “superheavy” category of elements.
These are elements that exist beyond the known elements in the periodic table and are typically very unstable.
It is an artificially produced transuranium element of atomic number 116.
In 2000 scientists at the Joint Institute for Nuclear Research in Dubna, Russia, and the Lawrence Livermore National Laboratory in Livermore, California, announced the production of atoms of livermorium when curium-248 was fused with calcium-48.
It does not occur naturally in the Earth’s crust.
How Was Element 116 Created?
Researchers used a powerful particle accelerator to smash together titanium-50 atoms.
They needed to produce a highly intense beam of titanium-50 and target it at a thin layer of plutonium to produce livermorium.
Over 22 days, they managed to create two atoms of livermorium, marking a significant achievement.
Significance: The creation of livermorium is an important step because it demonstrates a new method that could be used to create even heavier elements, such as element 120.
The success of this experiment could provide valuable insights into the behavior of atoms at their heaviest.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.news9live.com/science/scientists-create-element-116-step-towards-element-120-2631914
The term ‘Alderman’, sometimes seen in the news, is associated with which one of the following?
Municipal government
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently said it will soon pronounce its verdict on a plea of the Delhi government challenging the lieutenant governor’s power to nominate aldermen to the Municipal Corporation of Delhi.
About Alderman:
Alderman is a term that originated from the combination of “old” and “man,” indicating an older or experienced person.
Initially, it referred to elders of a clan or tribe but later evolved to denote the king’s viceroys, regardless of age.
Eventually, it took on a more specific meaning as the “chief magistrate of a county” with both civil and military responsibilities.
By the 12th century CE, it began to be associated with municipal governments and used to describe officers of municipal bodies. This usage of the term continues to the present day.
Alderman in India:
In India, a General Body of a Municipality or Municipal Corporation is comprised of elected representatives called Councillors.
Councillors can nominate experts in their disciplines of the city to become members of this body. These nominated members are called ‘Aldermen’.
They cannot, however, cast votes in the mayoral election.
As ward committee members, they have the right to assist the house in taking decisions of public importance.
Case of Delhi:
As per the Delhi Municipal Corporation Act of 1957, the Lieutenant Governor of the National Capital Territory of Delhi has the authority to nominate ten individuals who are above the age of 25 to the corporation.
These individuals are believed to have specialised expertise or experience in municipal administration.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/may-pronounce-verdict-on-delhi-govt-s-plea-against-lg-s-power-to-nominate-aldermen-in-mcd-sc-101722258151358.html
With reference to the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC), consider the following statements:
- It is the highest decision-making body of the defence ministry on procurement.
- The defence minister is the chairman of DAC.
- It gives in principle approval of a 15 years Long Term Integrated Perspective Plan (LTIPP) for defence forces.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) recently approved amendments to the deal for 31 MQ-9B High Altitude Long Endurance (HALE) UAVs from General Atomics of the US.
About Defence Acquisition Council (DAC):
It is the highest decision-making body of the defence ministry on procurement.
The main objective of the DAC is to ensure expeditious procurement of the approved requirements of the armed forces in terms of capabilities sought and time frame prescribed by optimally utilizing the allocated budgetary resources.
Formation: It was formed after the Group of Minister’s recommendations on ‘Reforming the National Security System’, in 2001, post-Kargil War (1999).
Composition:
The defence minister is the chairman of DAC.
Its members include the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) and chiefs of the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
Its functions include:
Give in principle approval of a 15 years Long Term Integrated Perspective Plan (LTIPP) for defence forces.
Accord of acceptance of necessity to acquisition proposals.
Categorisation of the acquisition proposals relating to ‘Buy’, ‘Buy & Make’, and ‘Make’.
Look into issues relating to single vendor clearance.
Take decisions regarding ‘offset’ provisions in respect of acquisition proposals above Rs 300 crore.
Take decisions regarding the Transfer of Technology under the ‘Buy & Make’ category of acquisition proposals.
Field trial evaluation.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/dac-approves-procurement-of-advanced-land-navigation-system-for-army-22-interceptor-boats-for-coast-guard/article68460075.ece
The Mekedatu Project, recently seen in the news, is expected to supply water to which one of the following cities for drinking purposes?
Bengaluru
Explanation :
Karnataka Chief Minister recently said his government was ready to discuss with Tamil Nadu regarding implementation of Mekedatu project across river Cauvery.
About Mekedatu Project:
It is a multi-purpose (drinking water and power) project proposed by Karnataka, which involves building a balancing reservoir near Kanakapura in Ramanagara district, Karnataka.
It is about 90 km away from Bengaluru and 4 km ahead of the border with Tamil Nadu.
The project is proposed at the confluence of the Cauvery River with its tributary Arkavathi.
The plan involves building a 99-metre-high, 735-metre-long concrete gravity dam, an underground powerhouse, and a water conductor system.
The expected capacity of the dam is 66,000 TMC (thousand million cubic feet) of water
Once completed, it is expected to supply over 4 TMC of water to Bengaluru city for drinking purposes.
The estimated cost of completing the project is around Rs 14,000 crores, covering an area of over 5,000 hectares.
Issue:
Tamil Nadu — the lower riparian state — has claimed that the project is against the interest of the state’s water requirement.
Tamil Nadu says, Mekedatu area represents the last free point in Karnataka from where Cauvery water flows unrestricted into Tamil Nadu, and Mekedatu dam project is an attempt by Karnataka to lock this free flow of water.
The lower riparian state has to give its no-objection for any project that comes up on the Cauvery as per the Cauvery tribunal and Supreme Court order.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/ready-to-discuss-mekedatu-project-implementation-with-tamil-nadu-siddaramaiah-6215749
Consider the following statements regarding Wagner Group:
- It is a Russian paramilitary organization.
- It first emerged in 2005 during the Chechen War.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Russia’s Wagner mercenary group said it had suffered severe losses, including a commander, during battles with separatist forces in northeast Mali recently.
About Wagner Group:
The Wagner Group, officially called PMC Wagner, is a Russian paramilitary organization.
It is basically a private military company and a network of mercenaries.
Origin: It first emerged in 2014 during Russia’s annexation of Crimea and has since operated in Syria and at least a half dozen African countries, including Libya, Sudan, Mozambique, Mali, and the Central African Republic.
It was founded by Yevgeny Prigozhin and Dmitry Utkin, a former special forces officer in Russia’s GRU military intelligence.
Although mercenary forces are technically illegal in Russia, Wagner registered as a “private military company” in 2022.
Symbol: It is composed of a solid black roundel with a white image of a human skull in the scope, symbolizing victory over death.
Its operations have been closely tied to the Russian military and intelligence community.
Wagner’s services vary based on the needs of its clients, which include rebel groups and regimes, and its funding ranges from direct payment to resource concessions.
The military units of PMC Wagner numbered varied at different times and according to various sources from 1,350 to 100,000 people.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/russias-wagner-admits-severe-losses-in-mali-battles/article68460406.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the International Labour Organization (ILO):
- It is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN) dedicated to improving labour conditions and living standards throughout the world.
- It is headquartered in Paris, France.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India, a founding member of the International Labour Organization (ILO), is likely to raise a complaint against the UN agency over its India Employment Report 2024.
About International Labour Organization (ILO):
It is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN) dedicated to improving labour conditions and living standards throughout the world.
History:
It was created in 1919, as part of the Treaty of Versailles that ended World War I, to reflect the belief that universal and lasting peace can be accomplished only if it is based on social justice.
In 1946, the ILO became a specialized agency of the newly formed UN.
HQ: Geneva, Switzerland.
It is also a member of the United Nations Development Group (UNDP), a coalition of UN organization aimed at helping meet the Sustainable Development Goals.
Members: The ILO has 187 member states: 186 out of 193 UN member states plus the Cook Islands.
Structure: It is the only tripartite U.N. agency, that brings together governments, employers and workers’ representatives of 187-member States.
It serves its tripartite constituents - and society as a whole - in a variety of ways, including:
Formulation of international policies and programmes to promote basic human rights, improve working and living conditions, and enhance employment opportunities
Creation of international labour standards backed by a unique system to supervise their application
An extensive programme of international technical cooperation formulated and implemented in an active partnership with constituents, to help countries put these policies into practice in an effective manner
Training, education, and research activities to help advance all of these efforts
In recognition of its activities, the ILO was awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace in 1969.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/centre-likely-to-lodge-complaint-against-international-labour-organisations-india-employment-report/article68461476.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Charles Darwin’s frog:
- It is endemic to the Andaman Islands.
- It is listed as critically endangered species under the IUCN Red list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers said the lack of adequate breeding sites due to habitat loss and competition for limited resources may be driving the Charles Darwin’s frog to breed in unnatural sites.
This frog species is endemic to the Andaman Islands.
It belongs to the family Dicroglossidae, a large group of Asian frogs with over 220 species.
It is found both male and female Charles Darwins adopting an inverted position on the walls of tree cavities, keeping their bodies completely above the water while mating as well as laying eggs.
Behaviour: Charles Darwin males produced three types of ‘complex’ calls to woo females.
When the ‘aggressive’ calls fail to ward off competing males, they begin fighting—kicking and boxing, using forelimbs and hind limbs, and biting off body parts or even the entire head.
Conservation status
IUCN: Vulnerable
Concern: The study revealed that these frogs increasingly use artificial objects as breeding sites, such as plastic sapling bags and human trash comprising discarded plastic, glass, and metal containers.
This shift is likely a response to the loss and fragmentation of forest habitats, forcing the frogs to adapt to the rapidly changing environment on these small islands,”
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/charles-darwins-frog-endemic-andaman-species-breeding-in-unnatural-sites-due-to-habitat-loss-competition-for-limited-resources
Consider the following statements regarding Saffron crop:
- It regenerates from the vegetative multiplication of its underground corms.
- It can be grown in dry, moderate and continental climate types.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The erratic weather patterns have led many farmers to convert their saffron fields into apple orchards or to grow mustard crops in Kashmir.
It is one of the costliest herbal spice across the globe and popularly known as Red Gold or the Golden Condiment.
The commercial part of Saffron is Stigma, which is the female part of flower also termed as Saffron filament or Saffron thread or Saffron stigmata.
The seeds of Saffron are called corms or bulbs, and Saffron plant regenerates from the vegetative multiplication of its underground corms.
It contains crocin, picrocrocin and saffranal which are very important constituents for both medicinal and aesthetic purpose.
Distribution: The saffron plant is native to Greece and Asia Minor, but it is now cultivated in many parts of Europe (especially Italy, France, and Spain), China, and India.
In India around 90% of saffron production comes from Kashmir, where it has been grown for centuries.
Required Climatic conditions
It grows at an elevation of 1,500-2,000 m above mean sea level.
Saffron cultivation requires explicit climatic conditions with temperatures ranging from not more than 35oC or 40oC in the summer to about -15oC or -20oC in the winter.
It can be grown in dry, moderate and continental climate types.
Soil: It thrives on loamy, sandy, and calcareous soils.
Saffron grows best on acidic soil. It thrives well when the soil pH is 5.5 to 8.5
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/losing-spice-kashmirs-prized-saffron-crops-hit-by-dry-spells/article68457850.ece
With reference to Oropouche fever, consider the following statements:
- It is caused by the Oropouche Virus.
- It spreads to humans through the bite of an infected midge.
- It was first discovered in Trinidad and Tobago.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Two people in the Brazilian state of Bahia were the first people to die from Oropouche fever, the country’s health ministry reported July 25, 2024.
It is an emerging zoonotic arboviral disease caused by the Oropouche Virus (OROV).
It was first discovered in Trinidad and Tobago in 1955.
Transmission
It spreads to humans through the bite of an infected midge (often through the bite of the Culicoides paraensis midge) or mosquito.
Factors such as urbanization, deforestation, and climate change contribute to the proliferation of its vector, escalating the risk of transmission.
There is no evidence of human-to-human transmission of the disease — to date.
Symptoms
Symptoms of the disease are similar to dengue and typically start between four and eight days after the bite.
The onset is sudden, and symptoms usually include fever, headaches, pain, chills, joint stiffness and sometimes nausea and vomiting.
Treatment
There are no vaccines and specific treatment for Oropouche fever.
Medical care aims to control the symptoms and help with recovery.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-health/brazil-oropouche-fever-symptoms-9483084/
Consider the following statements regarding the National Metallurgist Awards:
- It is given annually only to Indian nationals.
- It is conferred to recognize outstanding contributions in the metallurgical field.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Ministry of Steel, Government of India invited applications for National Metallurgist Awards (NMA)-2024 from Individuals from Industry, Research & Academia.
It was instituted in 1962 by the then Ministry of Steel & Mines to recognise & honour the outstanding contributions of Metallurgists in the metallurgical field covering operation, research, design, education, waste management and energy conservation. The awards are given in annual basis
These awards are conferred to recognize outstanding contributions in the metallurgical field, covering Operations, Research & Development, Waste Management and Energy Conservation.
Nominations for the award shall be invited online on the Ministry of Steel’s Portal or the centralized portal being developed by Ministry of Home Affairs. Nominations will be through companies/ organizations or from the public through self-nomination.
The awards are given on an annual basis, only to Indian nationals.
The Awards will be given in the following four categories:-
Lifetime Achievement Award
National Metallurgist Award
Young Metallurgist Award (Environment and Metal Science)
Award for R&D in Iron & Steel Sector.
The first award was given in 1963 and subsequently every year thereafter.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2038447
Consider the following statements regarding the International Science, Technology, and Innovation Centre for South-South Cooperation
- It is a UNESCO Category 2 Centre which offers sustainable programmes and services.
- It is hosted by India since 2008.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The International Science, Technology, and Innovation Centre for South-South Cooperation (ISTIC), under UNESCO’s auspices, is hosting a significant STI Conclave titled “Traditional Knowledge for Sustainable Livelihoods” from July 29-31, 2024, in New Delhi, India.
The International Science, Technology and Innovation Centre for South-South Cooperation under the Auspices of UNESCO (ISTIC) which is a UNESCO Category 2 Centre.
The Malaysian Government has hosted this since 2008.
The Centre acts as an international platform offering sustainable programmes and services and augmenting sustainable development for South-South Cooperation.
The Centre’s hosting is based on a six-year Agreement between the Malaysian Government represented by the Ministry of Science, Technology and Innovation (MOSTI) and UNESCO.
Its current Agreement is from February 2022 until January 2028.
The Mission of the organization is to be “A leading international platform offering sustainable programmes and services in producing holistic talents towards institutional excellence and augmenting sustainable development for South-South Cooperation.
It aimed to support the exchange of students, researchers, scientists, and technologists among developing countries.
What is UNESCO Category 2 Centre?
These are institutes and centres under the auspices of UNESCO are a global network of institutions of excellence in the Organization’s domains of competence.
These centres are a privileged partner of the Organization with access to UNESCO’s logo and international and intergovernmental bodies and networks and may leverage on UNESCO’s international reach and convening powers.
Category 2 institutes and centres under the auspices of UNESCO are an integral part of the Organization’s Comprehensive Partnership Strategy.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2038392
Which of the following best defines ‘Regenerative medicines?
Medicines that seek to replace tissue or organs that have been damaged.
Explanation :
Regenerative medicine seeks to replace tissue or organs that have been damaged by disease, trauma, or congenital issues. Regenerative medicine is a relatively new field that brings together experts in biology, chemistry, computer science, engineering, genetics, medicine, robotics, and other fields to find solutions to some of the most challenging medical problems faced by humankind. The goal of this approach is to find a way to cure previously untreatable injuries and diseases.
The field of regenerative medicine encompasses the strategies like Tissue Engineering and Biomaterials, Cellular Therapies and Medical Devices and Artificial Organs.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
With reference to Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), consider the following statements:
- Opportunistic Infections occur more frequently and are more severe in people with HIV.
- Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is the initial phase of HIV infection.
- Anti-retroviral therapy can effectively suppress replication of the virus and restore the immune system of the infected person.
- The rights of persons infected with HIV and AIDS in India are protected by statutory provisions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a virus that attacks the body’s immune system. HIV infection in humans came from a type of chimpanzee in Central Africa. HIV can be transmitted via the exchange of a variety of body fluids from infected people, such as blood, breast milk, semen and vaginal secretions. HIV can also be transmitted from a mother to her child during pregnancy and delivery.
Opportunistic infections (OIs): These are illnesses that occur more frequently and are more severe in people with HIV. This is because they have damaged immune systems. A weakened immune system makes it harder for the body to fight off OIs. HIV-related OIs include pneumonia, Salmonella infection, candidiasis, toxoplasmosis, and tuberculosis (TB). So, statement 1 is correct.
AIDS: When people with HIV don’t get treatment, they typically progress through three stages. AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome) is the most severe stage of HIV (Stage 3). People with AIDS have badly damaged immune systems. They get an increasing number of severe illnesses. With the advancements in treatment, progression to Stage 3 is less common today than in the early days of HIV. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Anti-retroviral therapy (ART): It effectively suppresses replication, if taken at the right time. Successful viral suppression restores the immune system and halts the onset and progression of the disease as well as reduces the chances of getting opportunistic infections. Medication thus enhances both quality of life and longevity. So, statement 3 is correct.
The HIV and AIDS (Prevention & Control) Act, 2017: It is central legislation protecting and promoting the rights of persons infected with and affected by HIV and AIDS. The Act came into force on September 10, 2018, with the objective to prevent and control the spread of HIV and AIDS and for reinforcing the legal and human rights of persons infected with and affected by HIV and AIDS. It also seeks to protect the rights of healthcare providers. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- Dementia is the loss of cognitive functioning like thinking, remembering, and reasoning.
- Alzheimer’s Disease is a progressive disease beginning with mild memory loss and can affect a person’s ability to carry out daily activities.
- Dementia is a subtype of Alzheimer’s disease.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Dementia:
Dementia is the loss of cognitive functioning like thinking, remembering, and reasoning to such an extent that it interferes with a person’s daily life and activities. Some people with dementia cannot control their emotions, and their personalities may change. Dementia ranges in severity from the mildest stage, when it is just beginning to affect a person’s functioning, to the most severe stage, when the person must depend completely on others for basic activities of living. Dementia is more common as people grow older but it is not a normal part of aging. So, statement 1 is correct.
Alzheimer’s Disease:
It is a progressive disease beginning with mild memory loss and possibly leading to loss of the ability to carry on a conversation and respond to the environment. Alzheimer’s disease involves parts of the brain that control thought, memory, and language. It can seriously affect a person’s ability to carry out daily activities. So, statement 2 is correct.
Difference between Dementia and Alzheimer’s Disease:
These terms are often used interchangeably, but they actually have different meanings. Dementia is not a specific disease. It’s an umbrella term that describes a wide range of symptoms. These symptoms affect people’s ability to perform everyday activities on their own. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common type of dementia, but it’s not the only one. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
In the context of Nipah Virus, consider the following statements:
- Fruit bats are the intermediate and amplifying host for Nipah virus.
- It can lead to respiratory infection and encephalitis.
- Its first recognized outbreak was in Kerala, India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Nipah virus (NiV) is a zoonotic virus, meaning that it can spread between animals and people. Fruit bats, also called flying foxes, are the animal reservoir for NiV in nature. Pigs are the intermediate and amplifying host for NiV in nature. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Human infections range from asymptomatic infection to acute respiratory infection (mild, severe), and fatal encephalitis. So, statement 2 is correct.
During the first recognized outbreak in Malaysia, which also affected Singapore, most human infections resulted from direct contact with sick pigs or their contaminated tissues. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to Monoclonal antibodies:
- These are artificially created antibodies that aim to aid the body’s natural immune system.
- Monoclonal antibodies were developed for the first time to treat Covid-19.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India faces shortages of the two monoclonal antibody therapies — Itolizumab and Tocilizumab.
Monoclonal antibodies are artificially created antibodies that aim to aid the body’s natural immune system. They target a specific antigen — a protein from the pathogen that induces an immune response. Monoclonal antibodies can be created in the lab by exposing white blood cells to a particular antigen. In the case of Covid-19, scientists usually work with the spike protein of the SARS-CoV-2 virus, which facilitates the entry of the virus into the host cell. So, statement 1 is correct.
Besides Covid-19, monoclonal antibodies have been used in the past for the treatment of cancers as well as Ebola and HIV. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Reverse vaccinology’:
- It involves antigen discovery with the help of computers, without culturing microorganisms.
- It helps in finding vaccine targets more quickly and efficiently than conventional methods.
- Only proteins can be targeted using this technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Reverse Vaccinology (RV) is a widely used approach to identify potential vaccine candidates (PVCs) by screening the proteome of a pathogen through computational analyses. Reverse vaccinology has been used for developing vaccinations for meningococcal and staphylococcal infections.
It involves the use of genomic information with the aid of computers for the preparation of vaccines without culturing microorganisms. So, statement 1 is correct.
The major advantage of reverse vaccinology is finding vaccine targets quickly and efficiently. Traditional methods may take decades to unravel pathogens and antigens, diseases and immunity. However, reverse vaccinology can be very fast, allowing the identification of new vaccines for testing in only a few years. So, statement 2 is correct.
Whereas conventional vaccinology approaches can find other biomolecular targets such as polysaccharides, in reverse vaccinology only proteins can be targeted using this process. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Reverse Transcription Polymerase Chain Reaction Test for SARS-CoV-2, consider the following statements:
- It is a test for the qualitative detection of specific antigens of SARS-CoV-2 present in the human nasopharynx.
- It cannot be used to detect whether an individual was infected previously for the virus or not.
- It’s results can be obtained even before the end of the testing process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Reverse Transcription Polymerase Chain Reaction (RT-PCR), also known as Real-Time Polymerase Chain Reaction, is a molecular test which looks for the genetic material of the virus (not antigens). So, statement 1 is not correct.
It is intended for the qualitative detection of nucleic acid from the 2019-nCoV in upper and lower respiratory specimens. The RT-PCR tests diagnose active infection only; they can’t detect whether an individual was infected previously. So, statement 2 is correct.
Real time RT-PCR technique allows scientists to see the results almost immediately while the process is still ongoing, whereas conventional RT–PCR only provides results at the end of the process. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following viruses are known to be transmitted by Aedes Aegypti mosquitoes?
- Yellow fever
- Zika
3.Chukungunya
- Dengue
- Ebola
Select the correct answer using the code below.
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
Aedes aegypti mosquitoes are carriers of diseases like Dengue, Zika, Chikungunya and yellow fever.
It is thought that fruit bats of the Pteropodidae family are natural Ebola virus hosts. Ebola is introduced into the human population through close contact with the blood, secretions, organs or other bodily fluids of infected animals such as fruit bats, chimpanzees, gorillas, monkeys, forest antelope or porcupines found ill or dead or in the rainforest.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to Hansen’s disease:
- It is a chronic viral disease affecting the skin and marginal nerves.
- It can be transmitted from a mother to her unborn baby during pregnancy.
- It is one of the Neglected Tropical Diseases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3 only
Explanation :
Leprosy, also known as Hansen’s disease (HD), is a chronic infectious disease caused by the bacteria Mycobacterium leprae and Mycobacterium lepromatosis affecting especially the skin and marginal nerves. It is characterised by the formation of nodules or macules that enlarge and spread with loss of sensation and eventually paralysis, wasting of muscle, and production of deformities. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Leprosy can be transmitted when a person with Hansen’s disease coughs or sneezes, and a healthy person breathes in the droplets containing the bacteria. Prolonged, close contact with someone with untreated leprosy over many months is needed to catch the disease. Hansen’s disease is also not passed on from a mother to her unborn baby during pregnancy and it is also not spread through sexual contact. Due to the slow-growing nature of the bacteria and the long time it takes to develop signs of the disease, it is often very difficult to find the source of infection. So, statement 2 is not correct.
NTDs are found in several countries in Africa, Asia, and Latin America. NTDs are especially common in tropical areas where people do not have access to clean water or safe ways to dispose of human waste. Some of the examples are Leprosy, Buruli Ulcer, Rabies, Dengue fever etc. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to Antigens:
- These are substances that cause the body to make an immune response against that substance.
- Allergens are antigens that cause allergic reactions either of the immediate or delayed-type.
- T-Cells are auto-antigens that originate within the body.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Antigen:
It is a substance that causes the body to make an immune response against that substance. Antigens include toxins, chemicals, bacteria, viruses, or other substances that come from outside the body. Body tissues and cells, including cancer cells, also have antigens on them that can cause an immune response. These antigens can also be used as markers in laboratory tests to identify those tissues or cells. So, statement 1 is correct.
In general, two main divisions of antigens are recognized: foreign antigens (or heteroantigens) and autoantigens (or self-antigens). Foreign antigens originate from outside the body. Examples include parts of or substances produced by viruses or microorganisms, as well as substances in snake venom, certain proteins in foods, and components of serum and red blood cells from other individuals. Autoantigens, on the other hand, originate within the body.
Allergens:
Allergens are antigens which cause allergic reactions either of the immediate or delayed type. They may be of widely different origins such as dust, fungi, hair, pollen, bacterial proteins, food or drugs. The immediate-type allergy is induced mainly through a mechanism triggered by IgE class antibodies, whereas the delayed-type allergy is T cell mediated. So, statement 2 is correct.
T-Cells:
T cells are a part of the immune system (They are not antigens) that focuses on specific foreign particles. Rather than generically attack any antigens, T cells circulate until they encounter their specific antigen. As such, T cells play a critical part in immunity to foreign substances. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore option (a) is the correct answer.
The terms `Golden syrup, Rice syrup’ is used in the context of:
Adulterant mixed in honey
Explanation :
Golden syrup is a thick, yellow-coloured liquid that is the by-product of inverting cane or beet sugar in water and adding an acid component such as lemon juice or cream of tartar to the mix. Rice syrup is a plant-based sweetener that is used in cooking and baking to sweeten food.
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has directed importers and state food commissioners that golden syrup, inverted sugar syrup and rice syrup imported into the country was being used for adulteration of honey.
An Investigation by the Centre for Science and Environment (NGO) revealed rampant adulteration in honey sold by major brands in India. Nearly all top brands have failed the Advanced Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy (NMR) test.
To check the adulteration of honey, NMR tests have been made mandatory in India for honey that is meant for export. FSSAI has also written to the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), Department of Revenue, to make the end use declaration mandatory for import of ‘adulterants’ as per HS (harmonized system) codes.
Therefore option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cells:
- Prokaryotic cells are smaller and multiply more rapidly than eukaryotic cells.
- Unlike eukaryotic cells, prokaryotic cells lack a nucleus or other membrane-bound organelles.
- Both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells consist of DNA.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Cells fall into one of two broad categories: prokaryotic and eukaryotic.
Prokaryotic Cells:
The prokaryotic cells are represented by bacteria, blue-green algae, mycoplasma and PPLO (Pleuropneumonia Like Organisms). They are generally smaller and multiply more rapidly than the eukaryotic cells. So, statement 1 is correct.
They may vary greatly in shape and size. The four basic shapes of bacteria are bacillus (rod like), coccus (spherical), vibrio (comma-shaped) and spirillum (spiral).
A prokaryotic cell is a simple, single-celled (unicellular) organism that lacks a nucleus, or any other membrane-bound organelle. So, statement 2 is correct.
Eukaryotic cells
These cells have a membrane-bound nucleus and other membrane-bound compartments or sacs, called organelles, which have specialized functions. The word eukaryotic means “true kernel” or “true nucleus,” alluding to the presence of the membrane-bound nucleus in these cells.
Both Eukaryotic and Prokaryotic cells share four common components:
1) a plasma membrane, an outer covering that separates the cell’s interior from its surrounding environment
2) cytoplasm, consisting of a jelly-like region within the cell in which other cellular components are found
3) DNA, the genetic material of the cell. So, statement 3 is correct.
4) ribosomes, particles that synthesize proteins.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to Malaria:
- It is a disease caused by a virus transmitted via mosquitoes.
- It does not spread directly from person to person.
- India was declared malaria-free by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 2020.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Malaria is a disease caused by the Plasmodium parasite. Plasmodium is a type of protozoa, a single-celled organism that is able to divide only within a host cell. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The parasite is spread to humans through the bites of infected mosquitoes. malaria affects red blood cells, people can also catch malaria from exposure to infected blood, including, from mother to unborn child, through blood transfusions and by sharing needles used to inject drugs. It does not spread directly from person to person. So, statement 2 is correct.
As per the World Malaria Report 2020, India accounted for 88% of malaria cases and 86% of malaria deaths in the Southeast Asia region. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to Chromosomal disorders:
- Down syndrome is the result of an extra X chromosome in the sex chromosome pair.
- Klinefelter’s syndrome arises due to the presence of an extra chromosome 21.
- Turner syndrome condition affects only females.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Chromosomal disorders can be due to structural or numerical abnormalities in the 23 pairs of chromosomes and cause variations in the offspring.
Down’s syndrome: This is due to an extra third chromosome in the 21st pair instead of just normal two chromosomes. It can be caused by an error in the process of cell division. Some of the symptoms are flat face, slanting eye, small mouth, protruding tongue, flattened nose, short neck, short arms and legs. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Klinefelter’s syndrome: Klinefelter syndrome, also known as 47,XXY, is a syndrome where a male has an additional copy of the X chromosome. Klinefelter’s syndrome children are unusually tall for their age, have reduced facial and body hair, smaller testes, enlarged breasts and hoarse voice. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Turner syndrome, also known as 45,X, or 45,X0, is a genetic condition which affects only females, who have completely missing one X chromosome. Turner syndromes are diagnosed by the following features — short stature, webbed neck, small breasts, low set ears, swollen hands and feet. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the answer.
Which of the following are considered as non-tariff barriers to trade?
- General or product-specific quotas
- Quality conditions imposed by the importing country
- Discriminatory rules of origin
- Export subsidies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
Non-Tariff Barriers (NTBs) refer to restrictions that result from prohibitions, conditions, or specific market requirements that make importation or exportation of products difficult and/or costly. NTBs arise from different measures taken by governments and authorities in the form of government laws, regulations, policies, conditions, restrictions or specific requirements, and private sector business practices, or prohibitions that protect the domestic industries from foreign competition.
Non- Non-Tariff Barriers to trade can arise from:
Import bans
General or product-specific quotas
Complex/discriminatory Rules of Origin
Quality conditions imposed by the importing country on the exporting countries
Unjustified Sanitary and Phyto-sanitary conditions
Complex regulatory environment
Export subsidies
Production subsidies
Packaging requirements
Tariff Barriers are taxes imposed on certain imports. They raise the price of imported goods making imports less competitive. Examples of Tariff Barriers are Customs duties, Anti-dumping duty, countervailing duty.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to different levels of economic integration:
- In a Customs Union (CU), there is a free flow of labour and capital among member countries.
- In a Common Market (CM), member countries abolish barriers to trade and service among them and as a whole maintain a common external tariff.
- In an Economic and Monetary Union (EMU), the monetary and fiscal policies are harmonized among member countries.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Customs Union (CU): It is a higher level of economic integration between countries. In this, the member countries abolish barriers to trade and service among them, and as a whole, they maintain a common tariff against third parties.
Common Market (CM): In addition to provisions of CU, a free flow of labour and capital is allowed in the common market. So, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
Economic and Monetary Union (EMU): In this arrangement, in addition to CM’s provisions, the monetary and fiscal policies are harmonized among member countries. The common currency is also an important feature of this union. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answe
Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Anti-dumping duties’:
- It is applicable to both import and export-related goods and services.
- Imposing anti-dumping duties will lead to widening of trade deficit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
An anti-dumping duty is a protectionist tariff that a domestic government imposes on foreign imports that it believes are priced below fair market value and therefore to protect domestic industry from unfair competition. World Trade Organisation allows their member countries to take a specific decision on imposing anti-dumping duties on low priced imports to ensure fair trade.
While the intention of anti-dumping duties is to save domestic jobs, these tariffs can also lead to higher prices for domestic consumers. Anti-dumping duty is applied only on imports and not on exports. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Imposing anti-dumping duties lead to decreased imports from other countries; it will normally cause only a positive impact on the trade balance that is reducing the trade deficit. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to Special Economic Zones (SEZ) in India:
- They can be set up in any Domestic Tariff Area (DTA) as demarcated by the State Government.
- Entities in it are fully exempted from Custom Duties if they are selling within the country.
- Foreign companies are not allowed to set up these areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Special Economic Zone (SEZ) is a specifically delineated duty-free enclave and shall be deemed to be foreign territory for the purposes of trade operations and duties and tariffs.
Domestic Tariff Area (DTA) includes the whole of India (including the territorial waters and continental shelf) but does not include the areas of the SEZ. Hence, all the territory outside the SEZ is the DTA. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The domestic sales of SEZs face a disadvantage as “they have to pay full customs duty”, as compared to the lower rates with the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) countries due to a free-trade agreement (FTA). Hence entities in SEZ are not exempted from customs duty even if they’re selling within the country. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Foreign Companies are allowed to set up SEZs to the extent that FDI upto 100% is allowed through the automatic route for all manufacturing activities in SEZs. The cases not covered by automatic route are considered and approved by the Board of Approvals. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the answer.
Consider the following statements about Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA):
- In this type of agreement, two or more partners give preferential right of entry to all the products.
- The tariffs on selected products are abolished completely.
- There are two lists in PTAs: a positive list & a negative list.
- A PTA reflects is a deeper form of trade engagement between two countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
None of the above
Explanation :
A Preferential Trade Agreement is very basic form of trade deal between countries whereby countries select only limited set of goods to be put in positive list. The tariffs are reduced on the selected goods by the members.
In PTA, tariffs are reduced on only a selected numbers of goods and not on all goods. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The tariffs on selected items (i.e. positive list items) are reduced and not eliminated. So, statement 2 is not correct.
A PTA only consists of a positive list. Positive lists denotes list of items on which tariffs are reduced in a PTA. Negative list generally starts from deeper agreements like Free Trade Agreements. If an item is placed in a negative list, the tariff on that items is neither reduced nor eliminated. So, statement 3 is not correct.
A PTA is one of the most basic forms of a trade agreement between two countries. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Remission of Duties or Taxes on Export Products (RoDTEP) scheme:
- It replaced the Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS).
- It is a WTO compliant scheme applicable to the export of all goods and services.
- Duties and taxes levied at the Central, State and local levels will be refunded to exporters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
RoDTEP is one such reform, based on the globally accepted principle that taxes and duties should not be exported, and taxes and levies borne on the exported products should be either exempted or remitted to exporters. It replaced the Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS), which was declared to be a violation of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) rules, by its Dispute Settlement Body in 2019. So, statement 1 is correct.
It is a WTO compliant scheme, applicable only to the export of goods but not on services. Also, according to the RoDTEP guidelines, sectors such as steel, organic and inorganic chemicals as well as pharmaceuticals have not been included in the scheme. Also, various other categories have been excluded from the purview of the scheme. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Under this Scheme, duties and taxes levied at the Central, State and local levels, such as electricity duties and VAT on fuel used for transportation, which is not getting exempted or refunded under any other existing mechanism will be refunded to exporters in their ledger account with Customs.
The credits can be used to pay basic customs duty on imported goods or transferred to other importers – facilitating ease of transactions for exports. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
The term “Certificates of Origin” is related to which of the following?
It is used in international trade.
Explanation :
Certificate of Origin” (CO) is a document declaring in which country a commodity/ product was manufactured. The CO contains information regarding the product, its destination, and the country of export. It is required by many international treaty/ agreements for cross border trade. CO helps in determining whether certain goods are eligible for free import or it will be subject to duties.
“Rules of Origin” are used in international trade which contains provisions to check the origin of a particular product. For example, if India puts high import duty on goods coming from China but less duty on goods coming from Japan (due to some preferential trade pact), then it may be possible that a product coming from Japan has most of the value addition/ manufacturing being done in China first and then it moved to Japan where hardly 10% of the value addition was done and then it is being imported in India. This is done to avoid high import duty by China and is possible if India do not have any “Rules of Origin” to check the real source of a product. So, generally countries specify “Rules of Origin”, for example import duty will be applicable as per that country where more than 50% of value addition is done. Then such diversion is not possible. To give effect to the “Rules of Origin”, a “Certificate of Origin” is issued.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).
Consider the following statement:
- Inferior goods due to their quality become more desirable as the standard of living of consumers increases.
- Veblen goods are high-quality goods whose demand increases with an increase in price.
- Demand for Giffen goods increases even when their prices rise, regardless of a consumer’s standard of living.
- Demand for Normal goods will rise with the increase in the standard of living of consumers.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
1 only
Explanation :
An inferior good is a type of good whose demand declines when income rises. In other words, the demand for inferior goods is inversely related to the income of the consumer. It has no relation to the quality of goods. For example, there are two commodities in the economy – wheat flour and jowar flour – and consumers are consuming both. If the income of consumers rises, then he would be more inclined towards wheat flour, which is a little more costly than jowar flour. The mindset of the consumer behind this behaviour is that now he can afford wheat flour because of his increase in income. Therefore, he will switch his flour demand from jowar to wheat. Hence jowar, whose demand has fallen due to an increase in income, is the inferior good and wheat is the normal good. So, statement 1 is not correct.
A Veblen good is a type of luxury goods, for which the demand for good increases as the price increases, in apparent contradiction of the law of demand, resulting in an upward-sloping demand curve. These are goods with which people attach pride & serve as a status symbol. For example – possessing the latest iPhone, super-exclusive Nike sneakers, Rolls Royce cars, etc. So, statement 2 is correct.
Giffen goods are a product that people consume more of as the price rises and vice versa—violating the basic law of demand in microeconomics. The concept of Giffen goods focuses on low income, non-luxury products that have very few close substitutes. Giffen goods can be compared to Veblen goods which similarly defy standard economic and consumer demand theory but focus on luxury goods. Examples of Giffen goods can include bread, rice, and wheat. These goods are commonly essentials with few near-dimensional substitutes at the same price levels. So, statement 3 is correct.
A normal good is a good that experiences an increase in its demand due to a rise in consumers’ income. Normal goods have a positive correlation between income and demand. Examples of normal goods include food staples, clothing, and household appliances. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to countervailing duty:
- It is imposed on imported goods to compensate for government subsidies provided by the exporting country.
- The World Trade Organization (WTO) do not permit the imposition of countervailing duty by its member countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Countervailing duties or CVDs are tariffs on imported goods that are imposed to offset subsidies given by the exporting country’s government. CVD is thus an import tax by the importing country on imported products. CVDs are meant to level the playing field between domestic producers of a product and foreign producers of the same product who can afford to sell it at a lower price because of the subsidy they receive from their government. The duty nullifies and eliminates the price advantage (low price) enjoyed by an imported product when it is given subsidies or exempted from domestic taxes in the country where they are manufactured. So, statement 1 is correct.
The World Trade Organization (WTO) permits the imposition of countervailing duty by its member countries. In India, CVD is imposed as an additional duty besides customs on imported products. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The countervailing measures in India are administered by the Directorate General of Anti-dumping and Allied Duties (DGAD), in the commerce and industry ministry’s department of commerce. While the department of commerce recommends the anti-dumping duty, provisional or final, it is the department of revenue in the finance ministry that acts upon the recommendation within three months and imposes such duties.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which one of the following best explains the term ‘Economies of scale’?
Decrease in costs of production due to increase in production volume.
Explanation :
Economies of scale are reductions in average costs attributable to production volume increases. They typically are defined in relation to firms, which may seek to achieve economies of scale by becoming large or even dominant producers of a particular type of product or service.
They are different from Economies of scope, which means the reductions in average costs attributable to an increase in the number of goods produced.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following are the characteristics of ‘perfect competition’ in the market?
- A large number of buyers and sellers
- Heterogenous product is produced by every firm
- Earning of supernormal profits
- Every firms are price makers
- Heavy interference from the government
- Zero advertising cost
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1 and 6 only
Explanation :
Perfect competition describes a market structure where competition is at its greatest possible level. To make it clearer, a market that exhibits the following characteristics in its structure is said to show perfect competition -
1. A large number of buyers and sellers. So, point 1 is correct.
- Homogenous products are produced by every firm. So, point 2 is not correct.
- Each firm earns normal profits and no firm can earn supernormal profits. So, point 3 is not correct
- Every firm is a price taker. It takes the price as decided by the forces of demand and supply. So, point 4 is not correct.
- No government intervention. So, point 5 is not correct.
- Zero advertising cost. So, point 6 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Golan Heights:
- It is a rocky plateau in southwestern Syria.
- It is considered occupied territory under international law and UN Security Council resolutions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A deadly strike on a playing field in the Israeli-occupied Golan Heights has sharply escalated fears of a new war in the region.
About Golan Heights:
It is a rocky plateau in southwestern Syria, about 60km (40 miles) southwest of Damascus (the capital of Syria).
It’s considered occupied territory under international law and UN Security Council resolutions.
It covers an area of 1,000 sq km.
It is bounded by the Jordan River and the Sea of Galilee on the west, Mount Hermon on the north, the seasonal Wadi Al-Ruqqad River on the east, and the Yarmuk River on the south.
History:
Israel seized the Golan Heights from Syria in the closing stages of the 1967 Six-Day War.
Most of the Syrian Arab inhabitants fled the area during the conflict.
An armistice line was established, and the region came under Israeli military control. Almost immediately, Israel began to settle the Golan.
Syria tried to retake the Golan Heights during the 1973 Middle East war, but the attempt was thwarted.
Both countries signed an armistice in 1974, and a UN observer force has been in place on the ceasefire line since 1974.
Israel unilaterally annexed the Golan Heights in 1981. The move was not recognised internationally.
About 20,000 Jewish settlers live on the Golan Heights, which is also home to Israeli military bases and listening posts.
The settlements are considered illegal under international law, though Israel disputes this.
The settlers live alongside some 20,000 Syrians, most of them Druze Arabs, who did not flee when the Golan was captured.
Strategic Importance:
The Syrian capital, Damascus, can be clearly seen from the top of the Golan Hills.
It overlooks northern Israel’s Galilee region and the Sea of Galilee and dominates the route to Damascus on the Syrian-controlled side.
Importantly, the Golan Heights shares a border with Jordan and Lebanon.
The area is also a key source of water for an arid region. Rainwater from the Golan’s catchment feeds into the Jordan River.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.bbc.com/news/articles/c29dwgp3rr7o
With reference to the Zika virus, consider the following statements:
- It is most commonly spread to people by the bite of an infected Aedes species mosquito.
- Infection during pregnancy can cause certain birth defects as well as other neurological disorders in the baby.
- There is currently no vaccine to prevent or medicine to treat Zika.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Union Minister of State for Health and Family Welfare recently said the government of India has formulated an action plan for managing Zika virus Disease.
About Zika virus:
It is a mosquito-borne virus, similar to dengue fever, yellow fever, and West Nile virus.
It is a single-strand ribonucleic acid (RNA) virus.
It was named after the Zika Forest in Uganda, where it was discovered for the first time in 1947, and the first human case of Zika was reported in 1952.
It typically occurs in tropical and subtropical areas of Africa, the Americas, Southern Asia, and the Western Pacific.
Transmission:
It is most commonly spread to people by the bite of an infected Aedes species mosquito.
It can also spread through sexual contact, blood transfusion, and from an infected mother to her baby during pregnancy or childbirth.
Symptoms and Complications:
Many people infected with Zika will not have symptoms or will only have mild symptoms.
The most common symptoms are fever, rash, headache, joint and muscle pain, and red eyes.
Infection during pregnancy can cause certain birth defects, such as microcephaly, as well as other neurological disorders in the baby.
It has also been linked to Guillain-Barré syndrome, a rare autoimmune disorder that can lead to muscle weakness and paralysis.
Treatment: There is currently no vaccine to prevent or medicine to treat Zika.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thestatesman.com/india/action-plan-ready-to-tackle-zika-virus-disease-anupriya-patel-1503326392.html#google_vignette
Achanakmar Tiger Reserve is located in which one of the following states?
Chhattisgarh
Explanation :
Achanakmar Tiger Reserve in Chhattisgarh witnessed a significant increase in Tiger count from 5 to 10, according to the All-India Tiger Estimation (AITE) 2022 census.
About Achanakmar Tiger Reserve:
Location: It is situated in Bilaspur district of Chhattisgarh.
Achanakmar Wildlife Sanctuary was established in 1975 and was declared a tiger reserve in 2009.
It covers an area of 553.286 sq. km.
It is part of the huge Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve.
It has a corridor connecting Kanha and Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve and plays a critical role in the dispersal of tigers among these reserves.
River: The Maniyari River flows right from the centre of this reserve, which is the forest’s lifeline.
Tribe:
It is home to the Baigas, a forest-dwelling tribal community classified as a “Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG)”.
In 626 hectares of the core area of the reserve, there are 25 forest villages, with approximately 75 per cent of the population belonging to the Baiga tribe and the remaining consisting of the Gond and Yadav communities.
Vegetation: Tropical moist deciduous vegetation covers the majority of the area.
Flora: Sal, bija, saja, haldu, teak, tinsa, dhawara, lendia, khamar, and bamboo bloom here, along with over 600 species of medicinal plants.
Fauna: It includes the tiger, leopard, bison, flying squirrel, Indian giant squirrel, chinkara, wild dog, hyena, sambar, chital, and over 150 species of birds.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/raipur/tiger-population-doubles-in-achanakmar-reserve-chhattisgarh/articleshow/112150900.cms
How is the Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) calculated?
(High Quality Liquid Assets) / (Total net cash outflows over the next 30 calendar days)
Explanation :
RBI recently issued the draft guidelines for banks on the Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR), essentially asking them to set aside higher stock of liquid securities as a buffer on deposits.
About Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR):
It refers to the proportion of highly liquid assets held by financial institutions to ensure that they maintain an ongoing ability to meet their short-term obligations (i.e., cash outflows for 30 days).
30 days was selected because, in a financial crisis, a response from governments and central banks would typically take around 30 days.
It is intended to make sure that banks and financial institutions have a sufficient level of capital to ride out any short-term disruptions to liquidity.
LCR in banking resulted from the Basel III agreement, which is a series of measures undertaken by the Basel Committee on Bank Supervision (BCBS).
In India, RBI issued Basel III liquidity guidelines in 2012.
RBI implemented LCR in January 2015, and as per a circular in 2020, banks should maintain sufficient HQLA at all times to meet unexpected withdrawals.
Calculation:
LCR = (High Quality Liquid Assets (HQLA)) / (Total net cash outflows over the next 30 calendar days)
Every asset that can be easily and instantly converted into cash at minimum or no cost of value is an HQLA.
These assets include cash, reserves with central banks, and central government bonds, which can easily be converted into cash.
In India, all Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) eligible assets, which need to be maintained by the banks as per the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, are permitted to be considered HQLA under LCR requirements if they are in excess. This helps maintain and optimise both liquidity requirements.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/business/banks/banking-central-rbis-proposed-norms-on-lcr-could-be-a-dampener-for-some-banks-12780579.html
Which one of the following best describes ‘Vattezhuthu’, recently seen in the news?
Syllabic alphabet
Explanation :
Archaeologists recently discovered a Vattezhuthu and eight Tamil inscriptions from the 1100-year-old Thalikiswarar temple in Tirupur district, Tamil Nadu.
About Vattezhuthu:
Vatteluttu, popularly known as Vattezhuthu, was a syllabic alphabet of south India (Tamil Nadu and Kerala) and Sri Lanka used for writing the Tamil and Malayalam languages.
The name Vatteluttu is thought to mean either ‘rounded script’, ‘northern script’, or ‘chiseled script’.
It first appeared in stone inscriptions in southern India dating from the 4th century AD.
It probably developed from the Tamil-Brahmi script; a variant of the Brahmi script used to write Old Tamil between from about the 3rd century BC until the 1st century AD.
Vatteluttu was used to write Tamil and Malayalam in Tamil Nadu until the 9th century.
In Kerala, Vatteluttu continued to be used until the 15th century. It changed over time to become the Malayalam script, with some letters borrowed from the Grantha script.
Vatteluttu also developed into the Koleluttu script, which was used, especially by Christians and Muslims, in Kerala until the 19th century.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/coimbatore/ancient-vattezhuthu-script-discovered-in-1000-year-old-temple-in-tirupur/articleshow/112151041.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Advanced Land Navigation System:
- It is a Ring Laser Gyro (RLG) based navigation system.
- It provides GPS and Hybrid Navigation data for the navigation requirements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) was accorded to the procurement of Advanced Land Navigation System (ALNS) Mk-II for Armoured Fighting Vehicles (AFVs) of the Indian Army.
It is a Ring Laser Gyro (RLG) based navigation system.
It is used for traversing a path defined by the coordinates of a military map in ESM format.
The system provides Inertial, GPS and Hybrid Navigation data for the navigation requirements.
The system is spoof-proof with high levels of encryption.
It can be operated in three different modes
Inertial Mode: In this, systems operate completely on the Inertial Sensor Inputs.
Hybrid Mode: It takes the inputs from the inertial sensor as well as the GPS receiver and selects the most accurate data for calculations of navigational parameters.
GPS Mode: In this, the system is independent of inertial sensor inputs.
ALNS Mk-II is compatible with Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System, NAVigation using Indian Constellation (IRNSS, NavlC), India in addition to Global Positioning System (GPS) and Global Navigation Satellite System (GLONASS).
The ALNS Mk-II offers compatibility with Defence Series Maps resulting in very high accuracy in navigational applications for AFVs.
This equipment will be procured from Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL), Chennai under Buy [lndian-Indigenously Designed Developed and Manufactured (lDDM)] category.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2038476
Consider the following statements regarding Mission LiFE:
- It is an India-led global mass movement to nudge individual and community action to protect the environment
- It was launched at the 28th UN Climate Change Conference of the Parties (COP26) in Glasgow.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change launched Ideas4LiFE at IIT Delhi.
It was launched to invite ideas related to products and services, which induce behavioral changes related to environment-friendly lifestyles.
This initiative aims to encourage and motivate students, faculty and research scholars to contribute their innovative ideas to the global initiative of Mission LiFE.
It is a remarkable opportunity for inspired minds to participate in a global movement dedicated to environmental sustainability.
Key facts about Mission LiFE
Mission LiFE, or Lifestyle for Environment, is an India-led global mass movement to nudge individual and community action to protect and preserve the environment.
It was launched at the 26th UN Climate Change Conference of the Parties (COP26) in Glasgow in November 2021.
The program hopes to “mobilize one billion Indians as well as people in other countries to become individuals who practice sustainable lifestyles.
It emboldens the spirit of the P3 model, i.e., Pro Planet People.
It aims to follow a three-pronged strategy for changing people’s collective approach towards sustainability,
nudging individuals to practice simple yet effective environment-friendly actions in their daily lives (demand)
enabling industries and markets to respond swiftly to the changing demand (supply)
to influence government and industrial policy to support both sustainable consumption and production (policy).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2038729
With reference to the National Culture Fund, consider the following:
- It was set up under the Charitable Endowment Act, 1890.
- It is administered through a Governing Council chaired by the Prime Minister of India.
- It can receive donations from corporations and Individuals.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister for Culture and Tourism informed Lok Sabha about the National Culture Fund.
It was set up as a Trust on 28th November 1996 under the Charitable Endowment Act, 1890 to mobilize extra resources through Public Private Partnerships (PPP) towards promoting, protecting and preserving India’s tangible & intangible cultural heritage.
Objectives of NCF
To administer and apply the Fund for conservation, maintenance, promotion, protection, preservation and up-gradation of monuments protected or otherwise;
To impart training and facilitate the development of a cadre of specialists and cultural administrators
To facilitate in providing additional space in existing museums & construct new museums to accommodate or create new & special galleries.
Documentation of cultural expressions and forms that have lost their relevance in contemporary scenarios and are either fading out or facing extinction.
Features
It is managed and administered through a Governing Council chaired by the Hon’ble Minister of Culture and has a maximum strength of 25 members to decide the policies.
An Executive Committee headed by Secretary (Culture) and has a maximum strength of 11 Members, to execute those policies.
Donations to the National Culture Fund are eligible for 100% tax benefit under Section 80G (ii) of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
NCF’s activities are covered under Schedule VII No. (v) of the Companies Act, 2013 as a valid receptacle of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) contribution under the protection of national heritage, art and culture including restoration of buildings and sites of historical importance and works of art; setting up public libraries; promotion and development of traditional arts and handicrafts.”
Annual Accounts are audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
NCF can receive donations from Corporations, PSUs, Trusts and Individuals for the maintenance and preservation of Centrally Projected monuments/ cultural projects through NCF. All donors/sponsors have the responsibility to comply with the terms & conditions of the MoU agreed for any particular project.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2038496
Consider the following statements regarding the Nano-MIND Technology:
- It allows for wireless and precise modulation of specific deep brain neural circuits using magnetism.
- It is developed by the Indian Institute of Science (IISC) Bengaluru.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers from the Korean Institute of Basic Science have developed a magnetogenetics technology dubbed Nano Magnetogenetic Interface for NeuroDynamics (Nano-MIND) which has been demonstrated on mice.
Nano-MIND (Magnetogenetic Interface for NeuroDynamics) technology, opens up new possibilities for understanding and manipulating complex brain functions such as cognition, emotion, and motivation.
It allows for wireless, remote, and precise modulation of specific deep brain neural circuits using magnetism.
This innovative approach leverages magnetic fields and magnetized nanoparticles to selectively activate targeted brain circuits, offering a significant advancement over existing methods of brain manipulation.
Highlights of the research
The research team demonstrated the technology’s capabilities by activating specific neurons in different brain regions of mice.
One notable achievement was the activation of inhibitory GABA receptors in the medial preoptic area (MPOA), which is responsible for maternal behaviours.
When these neurons were stimulated in non-maternal female mice, the animals exhibited significantly increased nurturing behaviours, mimicking those of maternal mice.
The researchers also successfully regulated feeding behaviours by targeting motivation circuits in the lateral hypothalamus.
Activation of inhibitory neurons in this area resulted in a remarkable 100% increase in appetite and feeding behaviours in mice. Conversely, when excitatory neurons were activated, the mice showed a more than 50% reduction in appetite and feeding behaviours.
Significance: It represents a significant step forward in neuroscience research and could have far-reaching implications for the development of brain-computer interfaces (BCIs) and the treatment of neurological disorders.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/scientists-use-magnetism-to-mind-control-mice-in-rare-worlds-first-experiment-2573762-2024-07-30
Consider the following statements regarding the PARAKH ((Performance Assessment, Review and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development):
- It is established within the University Grant Commission to standardize all exams in colleges across India.
- It implements activities related to student assessment as mandated by the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A recent report submitted to the Education Ministry by PARAKH recommends incorporating student performance from Classes 9, 10, and 11 into the final Class 12 marks.
PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Review and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development) is a unit established within NCERT in 2023 to standardise school board assessments nationwide.
The PARAKH team will consist of leading assessment experts with a deep understanding of the education system in India and internationally.
Objective: To fulfil the basic objectives of setting norms, standards and guidelines and implement activities related to student assessment along with other tasks as mandated by the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
The mandate of PARAKH is to work on bringing the school boards across the States and the Union Territories to a common platform.
Major areas of focus
Capacity Development in Competency Based Assessment
Large-Scale Achievement Survey
Equivalence of School Boards
Holistic Progress Cards for the Foundational, Preparational, Middle and Secondary Stages.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/education/news/parakh-recommends-including-class-9-11-scores-in-class-12-report-card-124072900832_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Great Indian Bustard:
- It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
- It is primarily found in the grasslands of India and Pakistan.
- The primary threat to its survival is poaching for its meat and feathers.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
GIBs are the largest among the four-bustard species found in India.
The other three being MacQueen’s bustard, lesser florican and the Bengal florican.
The Great Indian Bustard is listed as Critically Endangered on the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List due to its rapidly declining population. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Great Indian Bustard is primarily found in the grasslands of India, particularly in Rajasthan and Gujarat, and it also has a small population in Pakistan. Its habitat includes arid and semi-arid grasslands with scattered scrub or bushes. So, statement 2 is correct.
The primary threats to the Great Indian Bustard are habitat loss and degradation due to agricultural expansion, infrastructure development, and changes in land use. While poaching is a threat to many wildlife species, it is not the main threat to the Great Indian Bustard’s survival. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to the division of powers between the Union and the States in India, consider the following statements regarding education:
- Originally, education was part of the State List under the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
- The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred education from the State List to the Concurrent List.
- Currently, both the Union and the States have the power to legislate on matters related to education.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All three
Consider the following statements regarding speaking rules and time limits in Parliament:
- In the Zero Hour, a three-minute time limit is given to a member and when the three minutes are over the microphone is automatically switched off.
- In cases of debates on bills, time is allocated for each party.
- Only the Lok Sabha Speaker and Rajya Sabha Chairman can direct the switching on and off of mics in special circumstances.
- In the case of Special Mentions, MPs have a limit of reading out 250 words.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All four
Consider the following statements regarding the Bank for International Settlements (BIS):
- The BIS is often referred to as the “central bank for central banks.”
- The BIS was established to facilitate international monetary and financial cooperation among central banks.
- The headquarters of the BIS is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Lord Buddha’s image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called ‘Bhumisparsha Mudra’. It symbolizes
Buddha’s calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara
Explanation :
In his first speech as the Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha, Rahul Gandhi referred to the abhaya mudra, a gesture with a raised open palm that symbolizes reassurance and freedom from fear.
He said that the abhaya mudra was a common thread in the depictions of Lord Shiva, Guru Nanak, and Jesus Christ, and also figured in Islam, Buddhism, and Jainism.
Bhumisparsha mudra symbolizes the moment of inception of the Buddha, when the prince Siddhartha attained enlightenment under the pipal tree (also known as bodhi tree).
Literally translated to “earth touching mudra,” it is also often referred to as the “earth witness”. Buddha’s calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara.
This gesture signifies the state of enlightment after meditating for four weeks and withstanding all the temptations put before him by Mara, the god of evil.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) project:
- The AMCA will be India’s indigenous aircraft.
- It will be manufactured by DRDO.
- AMCA will be the second indigenous fifth-generation aircraft after Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only one
With reference to the World Health Organization’s (WHO) revised air quality guidelines of 2021, consider the following statements:
- The 2021 guidelines introduce stricter limits on air pollutants compared to the previous guidelines set in 2005.
- The revised guidelines address pollutants such as particulate matter (PM2.5 and PM10), ozone (O₃), nitrogen dioxide (NO₂), sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and carbon monoxide (CO).
- The guidelines are legally binding for member countries of the WHO.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The WHO’s revised air quality guidelines of 2021 introduce stricter limits on air pollutants compared to the previous guidelines set in 2005. These updates reflect the latest scientific evidence on the health impacts of air pollution. So, statement 1 is correct.
The revised guidelines cover key air pollutants, including particulate matter (PM2.5 and PM10), ozone (O₃), nitrogen dioxide (NO₂), sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and carbon monoxide (CO), all of which have significant health impacts. So, statement 2 is correct.
The WHO’s air quality guidelines are not legally binding for member countries. They serve as recommendations to help governments and policymakers set air quality standards to protect public health. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
A country X has a system where the head of state is a king who inherits the position, but the government is run by elected officials who are responsible for making laws and policies. The king’s role is largely ceremonial, and he has limited political power. Based on this description, which of the following statements is correct about the type of monarchy in country X?
Country X has a constitutional monarchy where the king’s powers are restricted by a constitution or laws.
Explanation :
The United Kingdom had a crucial general election on July 4.
In a constitutional monarchy, the monarch’s powers are limited by a constitution or laws, and elected officials run the government. The description of country X fits this model, as the king’s role is ceremonial, and elected officials govern.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO):
- SCO was initially formed as a security alliance to address border issues among member countries.
- India and Pakistan became full members of the SCO at the same time.
- SCO’s objectives include promoting economic cooperation, countering terrorism and extremism.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1, 2, and 3
Explanation :
Indian External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar participated in the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Summit in Kazakhstan’s capital Astana.
The SCO was initially formed as the “Shanghai Five” in 1996 by China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, and Tajikistan to address border security and foster regional stability. It later evolved into the SCO with broader objectives. So, statement 1 is correct.
India and Pakistan became full members of the SCO simultaneously in June 2017, during the organization’s annual summit in Astana, Kazakhstan. So, statement 2 is correct.
The objectives of the SCO include promoting economic cooperation, enhancing regional security, and countering terrorism, extremism, and separatism among member countries. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Prime Ministers’ Museum & Library (PMML):
- It is dedicated to showcasing the lives and contributions of all Indian Prime Ministers since independence.
- The Nehru Memorial Museum and Library (NMML) has been renamed as PMML Society.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Prime Ministers’ Museum & Library (PMML) will no longer allow future donors of Private Papers of eminent personalities to impose indefinite conditions on their declassification.
The PMML is dedicated to showcasing the lives, contributions, and achievements of all Indian Prime Ministers since independence, providing a comprehensive view of their leadership and impact on the nation. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Nehru Memorial Museum and Library (NMML) has officially been renamed as the Prime Ministers’ Museum and Library (PMML) Society. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the geographical location of the Red Sea and the countries bordering it:
- The Red Sea is a seawater inlet of the Indian Ocean located between Africa and Asia.
- The countries bordering the Red Sea include Egypt, Sudan and Eritrea on the African side.
- Saudi Arabia and Yemen are the only Asian countries that border the Red Sea.
- The Suez Canal connects the Red Sea to the Mediterranean Sea.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2, and 4 only
Explanation :
The Red Sea is a seawater inlet of the Indian Ocean, located between the northeastern part of Africa and the Arabian Peninsula (Asia). So, statement 1 is correct.
The Red Sea is bordered by Egypt, Sudan, and Eritrea on the African side. So, statement 2 is correct.
In addition to Saudi Arabia and Yemen, the Asian countries of Jordan and Israel also have coastlines on the Red Sea, though Israel has a small stretch of coastline. So, statement 3 is not correct.
The Suez Canal connects the northern end of the Red Sea to the Mediterranean Sea, facilitating maritime trade between Europe and Asia. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY):
- Launched by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, it is an insurance service for farmers for their yields.
- Under PMFBY, uniform premium of only 2% is paid by farmers for all Kharif crops and 1.5% for all Rabi crops.
- In case of annual commercial and horticultural crops, the premium to be paid by farmers will is 5%.
- There is upper limit on Government subsidy under PMFBY.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only three
Explanation :
General insurance companies reduced their exposure to crop insurance under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) during FY24 despite the government’s push to expand the insurance coverage in the farm sector.
A scheme of the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, PMFBY is an insurance service for farmers for their yields, launched in 2016. So, statement 1 is correct.
The new Crop Insurance Scheme is in line with the One Nation One Scheme theme.
The PMFBY replaced the previous two schemes: the National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS) and the Modified NAIS.
There will be a uniform premium of only 2% to be paid by farmers for all Kharif crops and 1.5% for all Rabi crops (winter sown). So, statement 2 is correct.
In case of annual commercial and horticultural crops, the premium to be paid by farmers will be only 5%. So, statement 3 is correct.
The balance premium will be paid by the Government (to be shared equally by central and state government).
There is no upper limit on Government subsidy. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF):
- The USOF was established to provide access to telecommunication services to rural and remote areas of India.
- The fund is managed by the Department of Telecommunications under the Ministry of Electronics.
- The resources for USOF are generated through a levy on the Adjusted Gross revenue of telecom service providers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
In a fresh attempt at increasing telecom connectivity in rural areas, the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) has released draft rules to operationalise the Digital Bharat Nidhi.
Digital Bharat Nidhi will replace the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF). USOF was established to provide access to affordable and quality telecommunication services to people in rural and remote areas of India, aiming to bridge the digital divide. So, statement 1 is correct.
The fund is managed by the Department of Telecommunications under the Ministry of communications. So, statement 2 is not correct.
USOF is a pool of funds generated by a 5 per cent Universal Service Levy charged upon all the telecom service providers on their Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR). So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the characteristics of hurricanes:
- Hurricanes are tropical cyclones that form over warm ocean waters and require a minimum sea surface temperature to sustain them.
- The eye of a hurricane is a region of calm weather surrounded by the eyewall, where the most intense weather occurs.
- Hurricanes are classified into different categories based on their wind speed using the Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale.
- Once hurricanes make landfall, they typically increase in strength due to the heat and moisture provided by the land surface.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Hurricane Beryl became the earliest storm on record during the Atlantic hurricane season to have reached the highest Category 5 classification.
Hurricanes are tropical cyclones that form over warm ocean waters, with a minimum sea surface temperature of approximately 26.5°C (79.7°F) needed to sustain them. Warm water provides the energy required for their development. So, statement 1 is correct.
The eye of a hurricane is the central region characterized by calm weather and clear skies, surrounded by the eyewall, which has the most intense winds and precipitation. So, statement 2 is correct.
Hurricanes are classified using the Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale, which categorizes them from Category 1 to Category 5 based on their sustained wind speeds. So, statement 3 is correct.
Once hurricanes make landfall, they typically weaken due to the lack of heat and moisture from the ocean and increased friction with the land surface, which reduces their energy supply. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS):
- UNCLOS establishes guidelines for the territorial seas, exclusive economic zones, and continental shelves of coastal states.
- According to UNCLOS, the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) extends up to 200 nautical miles from the baseline of a coastal state.
- All member states of the United Nations are signatories to UNCLOS and are legally bound by its provisions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 2 only
Consider the following statements regarding the Safe Harbour Clause under the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000:
- The Clause provides immunity to intermediaries from liability for third-party content on their platforms.
- It applies only to social media platforms and excludes other types of intermediaries.
- To qualify for safe harbour protection, intermediaries must remove unlawful content when notified by the authorities.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Consider the following statements regarding the Census in India:
- Population census is listed in concurrent List of Seventh Schedule in Indian Constitution.
- Census is conducted under the provisions of the Census Act, 1948.
- The first synchronous census was taken under British rule in 1881.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Consider the following statements regarding the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI):
- It is the premier investigative agency of India, originally established as the Special Police Establishment 1946.
- It operates under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
- It can investigate cases, but it requires prior consent from the respective state government to investigate cases within a state.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Which of the following best describes the term “Urban Naxalism”?
It describes the infiltration and support of Naxalite ideology among intellectuals and urban population centers.
Explanation :
The Maharashtra government introduced the Maharashtra Special Public Security Bill, 2024, to address the growing threat of Naxalism in urban areas, particularly through Naxal-affiliated organizations.
The bill proposes strict penalties, including imprisonment, for individuals who may not be direct members of unlawful organizations but engage in activities such as contributing to, receiving or soliciting aid for, harboring members of, or promoting or assisting in the meetings of such groups.
Urban Naxalism is a term used to describe the presence and influence of Naxalite or Maoist ideology among intellectuals, activists, and urban communities.
This concept highlights the spread of radical leftist ideas into urban areas, aiming to garner support from various sections of society.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which one of the following statements best describes a deepwater transshipment port?
A port that handles large ships for transferring cargo to smaller vessels, often situated in deep water to accommodate larger container ships.
Explanation :
India’s first deepwater transshipment port, the Vizhinjam international seaport near Thiruvananthapuram, received its first mothership (a mothership refers to a large cargo vessel that acts as a central hub for the transshipment of goods.).
A deepwater transshipment port is designed to handle large vessels by allowing them to transfer their cargo to smaller vessels, or vice versa, using its deep water to accommodate large container ships. This is important for international trade, where direct docking at smaller ports may not be feasible for large ships.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Computer Emergency Response Team - India (CERT-IN):
- It is the national nodal agency for responding to computer security incidents as and when they occur.
- It operates under the Union Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
- It is responsible for issuing guidelines and advisories to enhance the cybersecurity posture of Indian organizations.
- It collaborates with international cybersecurity agencies to deal with global cyber threats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2, 3, and 4
The Section 19 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002 primarily aims to:
grant authorities the power to arrest a person believed to be guilty of a money laundering offense without a warrant
Explanation :
Recently the Supreme Court has granted interim bail to Delhi Chief Minister. A two-judge bench of SC referred some questions on the ED’s power to arrest under Section 19 of the stringent Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002 to a larger bench.
Section 19 of the PMLA grants the ED Director the authority to arrest individuals.
According to Section 19(1):
if the Director/Deputy Director/ Assistant Director or any other officer authorised in this behalf by the Central Government “has on the basis of material in his possession, reason to believe (that reason for such belief to be recorded in writing) that any person has been guilty of an offence punishable under this Act, he may arrest such person and shall, as soon as may be, inform him of the grounds for such arrest.”
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following is a primary goal of the internationalization of the Indian rupee?
To increase the use of the rupee in global trade and financial transactions, reducing reliance on foreign currencies like the US dollar.
Explanation :
New Delhi aims to enhance bilateral trade with Moscow to $100 billion by 2030 to curb its rising oil import bill and reduce dependence on the US dollar.
However, since the Ukraine war in 2022, India-Russia trade dynamics have become skewed. Russia is now India’s top oil supplier, but Indian exports to Russia have lagged, leading to a $57 billion trade deficit out of a $66 billion bilateral trade in FY24.
The internationalization of the rupee aims to increase its use in international trade and finance, allowing Indian businesses and individuals to conduct transactions in rupees instead of relying on foreign currencies like the US dollar. This helps reduce exchange rate risk and dependency on other currencies.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
What is the main purpose of Section 43B(h) introduced by the Finance Act 2023 in the Income Tax Act?
To allow deductions for payments due to MSMEs registered under UDYAM only if the payment is made within the stipulated time frame.
xplanation :
Industry body SME Chamber of India has urged Union Finance Minister to continue the 45-day MSME payment rule for corporates and other buyers.
According to Section 43B(h) of the Income Tax Act, if a larger company does not pay an MSME on time (within 45 days in case of written agreements) it cannot deduct that expense from its taxable income, leading to potentially higher taxes.
Section 43B(h) mandates that payments due to MSMEs registered under the UDYAM registration must be made within a specified time frame (45 days with an agreement, 15 days without) for the expense to be eligible for a tax deduction. This provision aims to ensure timely payments to MSMEs and thereby supports their financial health.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding Euryale ferox Salisb(Makhana):
- It is an aquatic plant primarily cultivated in Bihar.
- Its seeds are rich in proteins and have a low glycemic index.
- It requires saline water conditions for optimal growth and cultivation.
- It is traditionally used in Indian cuisine and has medicinal properties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2, and 4 only
With reference to the UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Naagrik) scheme, which one of the following statements is not correct?
It allows airlines to operate flights between Tier-1 cities without any restrictions on passenger fares or flight frequency.
Explanation :
UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Naagrik) aims to improve regional air connectivity and make air travel more affordable, especially for citizens in underserved and remote regions of India.
UDAN focuses on developing new airports and upgrading existing ones in remote and underserved areas to enhance regional connectivity.
The UDAN scheme provides financial subsidies to airlines to operate on regional routes. This subsidy is funded through a cess on passenger tickets for flights across the country.
UDAN specifically targets regional connectivity and focuses on connecting Tier-2 and Tier-3 cities. It does not allow unrestricted operations between Tier-1 cities; instead, it provides incentives for routes serving underserved regions and small airports.
Therefore, option (d) is the answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the NITI Aayog:
- It acts as a platform to bring the States to act together in national interest and thereby fosters cooperative federalism.
- Its CEO is appointed by the Prime Minister of India for a fixed tenure.
- Its Governing Council is chaired by the vice-chair of the organization.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Consider the following statements regarding the Money Bill:
- The Rajya Sabha has no power to reject or amend a Money Bill.
- While all Money Bills are Financial Bills, all Financial Bills are not Money Bills.
- The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has no authority in determining whether a bill is a Money Bill.
- It is not subject to the scrutiny and debate as other types of bills and can be passed without any discussion in the Lok Sabha.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Consider the following statements regarding the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP):
- It is largely responsible for reduction of vaccine preventable under-5 mortality rate.
- Rubella vaccine is not included in the UIP.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Only 1
Explanation :
U-Win, a digital platform set to launch on August 15, aims to transform maternal and child healthcare across India.
By digitizing vaccination records, it will replace the current manual system used by ASHA and other healthcare workers, streamlining record-keeping and marking a significant shift in primary healthcare delivery.
UIP is one of the largest public health programmes targeting close of 2.67 crore newborns and 2.9 crore pregnant women annually.
It is one of the most cost-effective public health interventions and largely responsible for reduction of vaccine preventable under-5 mortality rate. So, statement 1 is correct.
A child is said to be fully immunized if child receives all due vaccine as per national immunization schedule within 1st year age of child.
Vaccines covered
Under UIP, immunization is providing free of cost against 12 vaccine preventable diseases:
Nationally against 9 diseases - Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Polio, Measles, Rubella, severe form of Childhood Tuberculosis, Hepatitis B and Meningitis & Pneumonia caused by Hemophilus Influenza type B. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Sub-nationally against 3 diseases - Rotavirus diarrhoea, Pneumococcal Pneumonia and Japanese Encephalitis.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB):
- It is the apex drug law enforcement and intelligence agency of India, established in 1986.
- It works under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
NCB is the apex drug law enforcement and intelligence agency of India, established in 1986 under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act (NDPS Act), 1985. So, statement 1 is correct.
The NCB is responsible for combating drug trafficking and the abuse of illegal substances.
The NCB operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
What are volcanic vortex rings?
Vortex-like structures of hot gases and ash expelled from a volcano’s vent during an eruption.
Explanation :
Volcanic vortex rings, also known as volcanic smoke rings or volcanic toroidal vortices, are circular or vortex-like structures of hot gases and ash expelled from a volcano’s vent during an eruption.
These rings are formed when a burst of gas and ash from the volcano’s crater creates a spinning motion, resulting in the formation of a coherent ring-shaped structure.
Volcanic vortex rings are a fascinating phenomenon observed during explosive volcanic eruptions and have been captured in photographs and videos by scientists and observers.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
A user reports that his computer suddenly shows a blue screen with an error message and then restarts. The screen is commonly referred to as:
Blue Screen of Death (BSOD)
Explanation :
On July 19, a significant outage in Microsoft’s cloud services affected businesses globally, impacting sectors such as airlines, financial services, media, and healthcare.
The disruption caused widespread IT system failures, with many Windows PC users experiencing the “blue screen of death,” a common indicator of a system crash.
The Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) is a common term used to describe a screen that appears when Windows encounters a critical error, causing the system to stop working and restart.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Which of the following is not among the primary functions of the World Heritage Committee?
Recommending international policies on cultural preservation
Explanation :
Assam’s ‘Moidams,’ the mound burial system of the Ahom dynasty, will be considered for inclusion in the World Heritage Sites list at the 46th session of the World Heritage Committee.
The World Heritage Committee primarily evaluates and selects sites for the World Heritage List, monitors the conservation status of these sites, provides guidance on their management and allocates financial assistance upon requests from States Parties. Recommending international policies on cultural preservation is generally outside the scope of its functions.
Therefore, option (d) is the answer.
Which of the following Indian states share a boundary with Bangladesh?
- West Bengal
- Assam
- Meghalaya
- Tripura
- Mizoram
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
Explanation :
Protests against job quotas in Bangladesh have turned violent, resulting in over 100 deaths and leading to a siege of Dhaka. In response, the Bangladesh government has imposed a curfew and an internet shutdown.
All the listed states: West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram—share a boundary with Bangladesh.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Science Congress (ISC):
- The first session of the Indian Science Congress was held in 1914.
- The Prime Minister of India traditionally inaugurates the ISC.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Department of Science and Technology (DST) has instructed top medical institutions, including all AIIMS, not to allow representatives from the Indian Science Congress Association (ISCA) on their boards or committees for now.
In a recent letter to the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, the DST stated that it does not recognize the current Executive Council of ISCA, having suspended all its office-bearers. Consequently, ISCA representatives should be excluded from the boards of medical institutions such as AIIMS and PGI Chandigarh.
ISC is a one-of-its-kind event in the country which brings together the scientific communities on a platform for their interaction with students and the general public on matters related to science.
The event is organized by the Indian Science Congress Association (ISCA).
The first session of the Indian Science Congress was held in 1914 at the premises of the Asiatic Society, Calcutta. So, statement 1 is correct.
It has become a tradition for the Prime Minister of India to inaugurate the Indian Science Congress. The presence of the Prime Minister underscores the importance of science and technology for the country’s development and reflects the government’s commitment to advancing scientific research and innovation. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Hague Convention (IV) respecting the Laws and Customs of War on Land and its annex, 1907:
- The Hague Convention (IV) of 1907 primarily addresses the standards of humane treatment of prisoners of war.
- The Convention established regulations concerning the conduct of hostilities and the protection of civilians in wartime.
- The Convention prohibits the use of poisons or poisoned weapons in warfare.
- The Convention and its annex were the first international treaties to comprehensively address the laws and customs of war on land.
Which of the above statements are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
While the treatment of prisoners of war is an important aspect of international humanitarian law, it is primarily addressed by the Geneva Conventions, not the Hague Convention (IV) of 1907. Geneva Conventions aim to establish minimum protections, standards of humane treatment, and fundamental guarantees of respect to individuals victimized by armed conflicts. The Hague Convention (IV) focuses more on the conduct of hostilities and the means and methods of warfare. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The Hague Convention (IV) and its annex established a comprehensive set of rules regarding the conduct of hostilities, including the protection of civilians and civilian property, during armed conflict. So, statement 2 is correct.
Article 23 of the annex to the Hague Convention (IV) explicitly prohibits the use of poison or poisoned weapons. So, statement 3 is correct.
The first comprehensive international treaty addressing the laws and customs of war on land was the earlier Hague Conventions of 1899. The 1907 Convention built upon and expanded these earlier agreements. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the UN Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC):
- ECOSOC is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations.
- It coordinates the economic, social, and related work of UN specialized agencies, regional commissions, and numerous functional commissions.
- Its member states are elected by the UN General Assembly for three-year terms.
- Its decisions are legally binding on all UN member states.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Recently, a High-Level Political Forum (HLPF) on Sustainable Development was held under the auspices of the U.N. Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC).
The solutions offered by indigenous tribal communities in Rajasthan to global challenges, and their role in the execution of policies were highlighted at this forum.
ECOSOC is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations, as established by the UN Charter. So, statement 1 is correct.
ECOSOC coordinates the work of the 14 UN specialized agencies, ten functional commissions and five regional commissions, receives reports from nine UN funds and programmes and issues policy recommendations to the UN system and to Member States. So, statement 2 is correct.
ECOSOC has 54 member states, and they are elected by the General Assembly for three-year terms. So, statement 3 is correct.
ECOSOC decisions and resolutions are not legally binding on UN member states. They are recommendations and provide guidelines for international cooperation and policy-making. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Economic Survey:
- The survey highlights macroeconomic figures and economic progress of the country.
- The Survey is prepared by the Department of Revenue in the Ministry of Finance.
- The Minister of Finance is responsible for the preparation and presentation of the Survey.
- The first Economic Survey was presented for 1950-51 and until 1964, it was presented along with the Budget.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Economic Survey 2023-24 was tabled in Parliament by Union Minister for Finance and Corporate Affairs, Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman.
The Economic Survey of India is an annual report released by the Finance Ministry. It details the state of the economic performance of the country in the past year.
The survey highlights macroeconomic figures and economic progress of the country. So, statement 1 is correct.
The survey is prepared by the Economic Division of the Department of Economic Affairs in the Ministry of Finance under the supervision of the Chief Economic Advisor of India (CEA). So, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.
The Economic Survey of India is presented every year a day before the Union Budget is announced.
The first Economic Survey was presented for 1950-51 and until 1964, it was presented along with the Budget. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following aspects is not directly assessed by the World Bank’s Logistics Performance Index (LPI)?
Environmental sustainability
Explanation :
The World Bank’s Logistics Performance Index (LPI) evaluates logistics performance using six parameters:
Customs performance
Infrastructure quality
Ease of arranging shipments
Logistics services quality
Consignment tracking and tracing
Timeliness of shipments
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Annual Financial Statement, or Budget Statement:
- Article 112 of the Constitution requires the government to present to Parliament a statement of estimated receipts and expenditure in respect of every financial year.
- The statement is divided into three parts based on how government accounts are kept - Consolidated Fund, Contingency Fund, and Public Account.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Minister of Finance and Corporate Affairs Smt Nirmala Sitharaman presented the Union Budget 2024-25 in Parliament.
Article 112 of the Constitution requires the government to present to Parliament a statement of estimated receipts and expenditure in respect of every financial year, from April 1 to March 31. So, statement 1 is correct.
The statement is divided into three parts based on how government accounts are kept: Consolidated Fund, Contingency Fund, and Public Account. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the e-SHRAM portal:
- It is an initiative by the Ministry of Labour and Employment to create a national database of unorganized workers.
- Registration on the e-SHRAM portal provides workers with a unique identification number.
- The portal is exclusively designed for the manufacturing sector.
- The data collected on the e-SHRAM portal is intended to facilitate the delivery of welfare schemes to informal sector workers.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation :
The e-SHRAM portal is indeed an initiative by the Ministry of Labour and Employment to create a comprehensive database of unorganized workers across the country. So, statement 1 is correct.
Registration on the e-SHRAM portal provides workers with a unique identification number (UAN) and aims to ensure access to various social security benefits. So, statement 2 is correct.
The e-SHRAM portal is not limited to workers in the manufacturing sector; it is designed for all unorganized sector workers, including those in agriculture, construction, domestic work, and other informal sectors. So, statement 3 is not correct.
The data collected through the e-SHRAM portal is intended to facilitate the delivery of welfare schemes and social security benefits to informal sector workers, ensuring that they receive the support they need. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
A company in India imports raw materials from multiple countries to manufacture electronic gadgets. To qualify for preferential tariff treatment under a Free Trade Agreement (FTA) between India and Japan, which of the following scenarios would meet the “Rules of Origin” criteria?
- The raw materials imported from China undergo significant transformation in India, resulting in a new and different product classified under a different tariff heading.
- The final product, assembled in India, contains 50% local content by value, with the remaining components imported from Japan.
- The raw materials from multiple countries are mixed and packaged in India without substantial transformation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The Union Budget 2024 has introduced amendments to the Customs Act, easing compliance with value-addition norms that are usually in place to prevent the misuse of concessions agreed upon in a trade agreement.
Criteria for Determining Origin
Wholly Obtained or Produced: Goods that are completely produced or obtained in a country, such as agricultural products, minerals, and fish. So, point 2 is correct. The product assembled in India contains a significant percentage of local content by value, which is a common requirement under many FTAs to qualify for preferential tariff treatment.
Substantial Transformation: Products that have undergone substantial transformation in a country, typically defined by a change in tariff classification, a specific percentage of value added, or specific manufacturing processes. So, point 1 is correct.
Rules of Origin do not apply if the product has not gone under substantial transformation. So, point 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Budget 2024 and Capital Gains Tax:
- For classifying assets into long-term and short-term capital gains tax, there are now three holding periods - 12 months, 24 months, and 36 months.
- All listed securities with a holding period exceeding 12 months are considered long-term.
- The tax on short-term capital gains for listed equity shares has been increased to 20%.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Consider the following measures:
- Thoroughly cooking raw food from animal sources, such as beef, pork, or poultry.
- Refrigerating ready-to-eat foods at temperatures below 1°C.
- Washing raw vegetables and fruits before consumption.
- Avoiding unpasteurized dairy products and ensuring dairy products consumed are pasteurized.
Which of the above measures might be effective in preventing Listeria contamination in food products?
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
Two separate outbreaks of listeria, a bacteria that can contaminate food, have been reported recently in the United States and Canada.
Cooking at the appropriate temperatures kills Listeria bacteria, reducing the risk of contamination. So, point 1 is correct.
Listeria can grow at refrigeration temperatures, so keeping the temperature below 4°C helps inhibit its growth. So, point 2 is correct.
Washing raw vegetables and fruits before consumption helps remove Listeria and other pathogens that may be present on the surface. So, point 3 is correct.
Pasteurization kills Listeria bacteria, making dairy products safe for consumption. So, point 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
A district magistrate in a city imposes Section 144 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (Section 189 of the BNS, 2023). Under which of the following scenarios would this imposition be justified are per the Supreme Court guidelines?
- There is credible intelligence about a potential terrorist threat.
- A peaceful demonstration is planned by a local NGO to raise awareness about environmental issues.
- There have been reports of escalating communal tensions in a neighborhood, leading to minor clashes.
- A political rally is organized by a registered political party, with proper permissions from local authorities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
In 2012, the Supreme Court established guidelines for exercising power under Section 144 in the ‘In Re: Ramlila Maidan Incident’ case.
The court held that actions by public authorities under statutory power must be tested on two grounds:
whether the action was within the legal authority conferred by law, and
whether it was reasonable.
Imposing Section 144 is justified due to the credible intelligence about a potential terrorist threat, which necessitates preventive measures to ensure public safety. So, statement 1 is correct.
Escalating communal tensions and minor clashes justify the imposition of Section 144 to prevent further violence and maintain peace. So, statement 3 is correct.
It should not be applicable in case of peaceful political and social awareness rallies. So, statements 2 and 4 are not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following is a primary objective of the Sagarmala project initiated by the Government of India?
To enhance the efficiency of port infrastructure and promote port-led development to reduce the logistics costs and boost trade.
A country is considering exporting a specific species of orchid that is listed under Appendix II of CITES. Which of the following steps must the country ensure to comply with CITES regulations, and what are the implications if these steps are not followed?
Obtain an export permit from the CITES Management Authority of the exporting country, failure to do so may result in international trade sanctions and penalties.
Explanation :
India has successfully prevented inclusion of agarwood in the Review of Significant Trade (RST) of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
The CITES also notified a new export quota of highly valuable and aromatic resinous wood and oil of agarwood from India from April 2024.
For species listed under Appendix II of CITES, the exporting country must issue an export permit. This permit is granted only if the specimen was legally acquired and the export will not be detrimental to the survival of the species in the wild. This ensures sustainable trade practices.
Non-compliance with these regulations can lead to significant consequences, including international trade sanctions and penalties, aimed at preserving endangered species.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to UN’s Sustainable Development Goals, consider the following statements:
- The SDGs aim to end poverty and hunger by 2030.
- There are a total of 17 SDGs that address global challenges such as inequality, climate change, and peace.
- The SDGs are legally binding agreements that all member states must comply with.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
One of the primary objectives of the SDGs is to eradicate poverty and hunger by 2030. This includes ensuring food security and promoting sustainable agriculture. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The UN established 17 SDGs in 2015, which cover a wide range of global issues including inequality, climate action, and the promotion of peace and justice. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The SDGs are not legally binding. They are a set of goals and targets adopted by UN member states to guide sustainable development efforts, but compliance is voluntary and not enforceable by law. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to the World Economic Forum (WEF), consider the following statements:
- It is a non-governmental organization founded in 1971.
- The WEF’s annual meeting is held in Davos, Switzerland, and brings together global leaders from various sectors.
- Membership in the WEF is mandatory for all United Nations member states.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The World Economic Forum (WEF) is a non-governmental organization that was founded in 1971. It is known for its commitment to improving the state of the world by engaging leaders in partnerships. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The WEF’s annual meeting is famously held in Davos, Switzerland. This meeting is a key event where global leaders from business, politics, academia, and other sectors gather to discuss major global issues. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Membership in the World Economic Forum is not mandatory for UN member states. The WEF is an independent organization, and membership is voluntary, typically comprising corporations and industry leaders rather than countries. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Chief Information Commissioner, consider the following statements:
- The Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the President of India.
- S/he is responsible for overseeing the implementation of the Information Technology Act, 2000.
- S/he has a fixed tenure of six years.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the President of India. So, Statement 1 is correct.
This appointment is made based on the recommendations of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
The Chief Information Commission is not responsible for overseeing the implementation of the Information Technology Act, 2000. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
It oversees the implementation of the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005.
The Chief Information Commissioner does not have a fixed tenure of six years. According to the RTI Act, the tenure is for a term of five years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to North Eastern States of India, consider the following statements:
- Only three North Eastern states share a border with Bangladesh.
- Sikkim is the largest state in the North Eastern region by area.
- The North Eastern Council (NEC) is headquartered in Shillong, Meghalaya.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
NE states which share borders with Bangladesh are Assam, Tripura, Mizoram, and Meghalaya. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
West Bengal is the only other State.
Sikkim is not the largest state in the North Eastern region by area. Arunachal Pradesh holds the title of the largest state in this region. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The North Eastern Council (NEC) is headquartered in Shillong, Meghalaya. So, Statement 3 is correct.
The NEC is a regional planning body for the North Eastern states, established to foster economic and social development in the region.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to International Labour Organisation (ILO), consider the following statements:
- It was founded in 1919 as part of the Treaty of Versailles.
- ILO’s headquarters are located in New York City, USA.
- ILO received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1969.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The ILO was founded in 1919 as part of the Treaty of Versailles that ended World War I. The original ILO Constitution formed Part XIII of the Treaty. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The headquarters of the ILO are located in Geneva, Switzerland, not New York City. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The ILO received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1969. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
