March 2025 Flashcards
Consider the following statements regarding Bond Central, recently seen in the news:
- It allows investors to compare corporate bond prices with government securities.
- It was launched by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Markets regulator Sebi recently launched a centralized database portal for corporate bonds, Bond Central.
About Bond Central:
It is a centralized database portal for corporate bonds in India.
It was launched by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in a bid to create a single, authentic source of information on such securities.
It has been developed by the Online Bond Platform Providers Association (OBPP Association) in collaboration with Market Infrastructure Institutions (MIIs) comprising stock exchanges and depositories.
It is intended as an information repository for the public at large and is accessible free of cost.
This database is expected to enhance transparency and facilitate informed decision-making amongst investors and other market participants .
It will be operated by the OBPP Association, which is a not-for-profit entity with support from MIIs.
Features:
Listings: A unified view of corporate bonds across exchanges and issuers, ensuring transparency and comparison.
Price Comparison: Investors can compare corporate bond prices with Government Securities (G-Secs) and other fixed-income indices for better decision-making.
Investor-Centric Information: Access to detailed risk assessments, corporate bond documents, and disclosures, enabling investors to evaluate opportunities effectively.
Enhanced Transparency: The platform standardizes corporate bond-related data, reducing information asymmetry and thereby improving trust in the market.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/finance/news/sebi-launches-centralised-database-portal-bond-central-for-corporate-bonds-125022800672_1.html
Consider the following statements with respect to the Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT):
1.It is one of the remote sensing payloads on board the Aditya-L1.
- Located at the first Lagrange point, SUIT observes the Sun 24x7 without any interruption.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT) instrument onboard Aditya-L1 observed an X6.3-class solar flare recently, one of the most intense categories of solar eruptions.
About Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT):
It is one of the remote sensing payloads on board the Aditya-L1, the first dedicated solar mission of the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO), that was launched on September 02, 2023.
It was developed by Pune’s Inter-University Center for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA) in close collaboration with various ISRO Centres.
SUIT is designed to provide near-simultaneous full-disk and region-of-interest images of the Sun at various heights, slicing through the photosphere and chromosphere.
It employs an array of 11 scientifically calibrated filters (3 broad-band & 8 narrow-band) strategically positioned within the wavelength range of 200 to 400 nanometers.
Located at the first Lagrange point, SUIT observes the Sun 24x7, without any interruption.
The primary scientific objective of SUIT is to scrutinize the dynamic interplay within the magnetized solar atmosphere, delving into the intricacies of energetic phenomena such as jets, flares, filament evolution, and eruptions.
Furthermore, SUIT, for the first time ever, will help scientists to measure and monitor the spatially resolved solar spectral irradiance within the wavelength range crucial to comprehend the intricacies of the sun-climate relationship.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/pune/solar-flares-solar-ultraviolet-imaging-telescope-suit-aditya-l1-9860583/
Consider the following statements regarding the Border Roads Organisation (BRO):
- It develops and maintains road networks in India’s border areas and friendly neighboring countries.
- It works under the Ministry of Defence, Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
At least 14 more Border Roads Organisation (BRO) workers were recently rescued from an avalanche in Mana, a high-altitude village in Uttarakhand’s Chamoli district.
About Border Roads Organisation (BRO):
It is a road construction executive force in India that provides support to the Indian Armed Forces.
It works under the Ministry of Defence.
Establishment: It was formed on 7 May 1960 to secure India’s borders and develop infrastructure in remote areas of the north and north-east states of the country.
It develops and maintains road networks in India’s border areas and friendly neighboring countries.
This includes infrastructure operations in 19 states and three union territories (including Andaman and Nicobar Islands) and neighboring countries such as Afghanistan, Bhutan, Myanmar, Tajikistan, and Sri Lanka.
Over the years, the organisation has diversified into the construction of steel bridges, airfields, townships, tunneling works, and hydroelectric projects.
In order to ensure coordination and expeditious execution of projects, the Government of India set up the Border Roads Development Board (BRDB) with the Prime Minister as Chairman of the Board and the Defence Minister as Deputy Chairman.
Officers and personnel from the General Reserve Engineer Force (GREF) form the parent cadre of the BRO.
It is also staffed by officers and troops drawn from the Indian Army’s Corps of Engineers on extra regimental employment (on deputation).
BRO is also included in the Order of Battle of the Armed Forces, ensuring their support at any time.
The BRO also has an operational role during national emergencies and the outbreak of hostilities,when it provides direct support to the Army in the maintenance of roads in the forward zones and executes other functions specified by the government.
It also provides the workforce for the rehabilitation of certain forward airfields of the Indian Air Force during operations.
One of BRO’s notable achievements is the Atal Tunnel, which holds the distinction of being the world’s longest highway tunnel at 9.02 kilometers.
Motto of the organization: Shramena Sarvam Sadhyam (everything is achievable through hard work).
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.deccanherald.com/india/uttarakhand/uttarakhand-avalanche-14-more-road-construction-workers-rescued-9-still-trapped-chopper-services-begin-3427350
Consider the following statements regarding Auroville, recently seen in the news:
- It is an experimental international township in Karnataka.
- It was founded by Sri Aurobindo.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Auroville celebrated its 57th birth anniversary with bonfire meditation at the Amphitheatre, Matrimandir, recently.
About Auroville:
Auroville is an experimental international township in South India (in Tamil Nadu, near Pondicherry) where thousands of residents from over 60 countries are exploring alternative ways of living, working, and being together peacefully.
It was founded by Mirra Alfassa, known as the ‘Mother’, the spiritual collaborator of Sri Aurobindo, on the 28th of February, 1968, as an international cultural township.
It was designed by the famous architect Roger Anger.
It is the largest and oldest surviving international intentional community in the world.
It has flourished from a barren desert to a 3,000-acre township and bioregion in which more than 3 million trees have been planted, home to rich biodiversity, 9 schools, multiple social enterprises, etc.
Auroville is a growing community of 2,700 people from 50 nations, and the vision for Auroville is that it belongs to nobody in particular but humanity as a whole.
The Aurovilleans, as they call themselves, live together on the principles of peace, harmony, sustainable living, and ‘divine consciousness’ which was the philosophy of the Mother.
UNESCO had endorsed the project of Auroville through four resolutions in 1966, 1968, 1970, and 1983.
The township is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Education since 1980 and is administered as per the provisions of the Auroville Foundation Act, 1988, passed by the Parliament of India.
According to the provisions of the Auroville Foundation Act, the Government of India provides partial funding in the form of grants to the Foundation for meeting its expenditure on the establishment, maintenance, and development of Auroville.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/puducherry/auroville-celebrates-57th-birth-anniversary-with-bonfire-meditation/article69275456.ece
In which Indian states is the Pardhi community primarily found?
Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
Explanation :
Forest rights activists and lawyers across the country expressed their concern over the recent Madhya Pradesh Government order calling for extensive search and surveillance of nomadic tribes, including the Pardhi community, which is classified as a scheduled tribe.
About Pardhi Community:
Pardhis are a nomadic community that, since the time of the Mughal emperors, have been hired to help in shikar (hunting), whether it was for sport for the British or for the royal kitchens of the ‘zamindars’ (landowners).
They reside mainly in Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh, and also in small pockets of Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh.
The word pardhi comes from paradh, which means hunter in the Marathi language.
In 1871, the Pardhis were among the tribes notified as “hereditary and habitual criminals” under the colonial-era Criminal Tribes Act.
After independence, the Indian government “denotified” these communities in 1952.
Occupation: Though the major occupation of the Pardhi tribes is hunting and gathering, some have taken up diverse occupations like cultivation and some other occupations following the traditions of most of the tribes of the country.
Language:
The main language of the Pardhi tribes is their local dialect, which is of the same name.
Many of them also speak a dialect of the Gujarati language.
In the northern parts of the country, they speak a combination of Hindi and Marwari.
Beliefs:
Though they are officially Hindu,most of the Pardhi practice ethnic religions.
They are firm believers in the spirit world and its influence on the physical world.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2025/Feb/25/activists-lawyers-oppose-madhya-pradesh-governments-order-on-tribal-surveillance
Consider the following statements regarding Ocelot Chip:
- It is a new quantum computing chip fabricated by the Amazon.
- It intrinsically suppresses certain forms of errors and reduces the resources required for quantum error correction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Amazon unveiled a prototype of its first-ever in-house quantum computing chip called Ocelot.
About Ocelot Chip:
It is a new quantum computing chip with a nine-qubit chip that has been internally fabricated by Amazon.
It is developed by the team at the Amazon Web Services Center for Quantum Computing at the California Institute of Technology.
AWS used a novel design for Ocelot’s architecture, building error correction in from the ground up and using the ‘cat qubit’. Cat qubits–named after the famous Schrödinger’s cat.
It intrinsically suppresses certain forms of errors, reducing the resources required for quantum error correction.
It has been designed to help Amazon build highly efficient hardware systems.
Components of Chip
The Ocelot chip consists of two integrated silicon microchips with an area of roughly one square centimeter each, bonded one on top of one another in an electrically-connected chip stack.
It has 14 core components: five data qubits (the cat qubits), five ‘buffer circuits’ for stabilizing the data qubits, and four additional qubits for detecting errors on the data qubits.
The cat qubits store the quantum states used for computation, for which it relies on components called oscillators, which generate a repetitive electrical signal along with steady timing.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/tech-news-technology/amazon-first-quantum-chip-ocelot-after-microsoft-9859645/
Exercise Desert Hunt, recently in news, is a:
tri-service special forces exercise
Explanation :
Exercise Desert Hunt 2025 was conducted at Air Force Station Jodhpur from 24 to 28 February 2025.
About Exercise Desert Hunt 2025:
It is an integrated tri-service special forces exercise conducted by the Indian Air Force.
The exercise involved elite Para (Special Forces) from the Indian Army, the Marine Commandos from the Indian Navy along with the Garud (Special Forces) from the Indian Air Force, participating together in a simulated combat environment.
Aim: This high-intensity drill was aimed at enhancing interoperability, coordination and synergy among the three Special Forces units to ensure swift and effective response towards emerging security challenges.
The exercise included airborne insertion, precision strikes, hostage rescue, counter-terrorism operations, combat free falls and urban warfare scenarios wherein the combat readiness of the forces was tested under realistic conditions
Senior military officials supervised the exercise to validate joint doctrines.
Significance: It provided a platform to foster the commitment of the Indian Armed Forces to strengthen national security through seamless inter-service cooperation
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2107177®=3&lang=1
Consider the following statements regarding Naval Anti-Ship missile (NASM-SR):
- It has a Man-in-Loop feature – which allows in-flight retargeting accurately.
- It is developed by the Defence Research & Development Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) and Indian Navy carried out successful flight-trials of first-of-its-kind Naval Anti-Ship missile (NASM-SR) from Integrated Test Range (ITR), Chandipur.
About Naval Anti-Ship missile (NASM-SR):
It has a Man-in-Loop feature – which allows in-flight retargeting accurately.
It was launched in Bearing-only Lock-on after launch mode, selecting a target among several in close vicinity.
It uses an Indigenous Imaging Infra-Red Seeker for terminal guidance.
It also uses an indigenous Fiber Optic Gyroscope-based INS and Radio Altimeter for its Mid-course guidance, an Integrated avionics module, Electro-Mechanical actuators for Aerodynamic and Jet vane control, thermal batteries and PCB warhead.
It uses solid propulsion with an in-line ejectable booster and a long-burn sustainer.
The missile is developed by different labs of DRDO including Research Centre Imarat, Defence Research and Development Laboratory, High Energy Materials Research Laboratory and Terminal Ballistics Research Laboratory.
It has a high-bandwidth two-way datalink system, for real-time transmission of seeker images back to the pilot for in-flight retargeting (Man-in-Loop feature).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2106482
Biodiversity Leakage, recently in news, is a:
process where conservation policies in one region inadvertently drive environmental degradation in another region.
Explanation :
Recently, a study published in Science journal highlighted about biodiversity leakages happening across the globe.
About Biodiversity Leak:
Biodiversity Leakage is a phenomena where the displacement of nature-damaging human activities caused by protecting or restoring areas of land.
In this process conservation policies in one region inadvertently drive environmental degradation in another region.
It occurs when restrictions on agricultural production in conservation areas lead to increased demand for imports from other regions, often rich in biodiversity.
Biodiversity leakage is undermining global efforts to halt biodiversity loss.
There are concerns that large-scale conservation initiatives in regions like Europe and China are causing production shortfalls for agricultural commodities.
Measures to mitigate biodiversity leakage
Tracking changes in food or wood production within intervention areas as part of routine programme monitoring.
Scrutinising projects that report near-zero losses in production to distinguish those with effective leakage mitigation from those with little or no conservation impact.
Including explicit consideration of both local and long-range leakage in national and international conservation policies.
Reducing demand for high-leakage goods and improving efficiencies in line with production decreases.
Targeting conservation efforts in areas where biodiversity restoration will cause minimal displacement of production.
Increasing yields within or near conservation project areas to offset losses.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/conservation-efforts-in-wealthy-nations-may-worsen-biodiversity-loss-in-other-countries-study-warns
With reference to Olive Ridley Turtle, consider the following:
- It is best known for its unique mass nesting called Arribada.
- It is an omnivorous species found only in Atlantic and Indian oceans.
- It is categorized as critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
A 16-year-long assessment of trends in turtle populations in India says the numbers of the Olive Ridley species suggest a “steady or growing” population.
About Olive Ridley Turtle:
They are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.
It gets its name from the olive green colouration of its carapace (shell).
It is best known for its unique mass nesting, called Arribada, where thousands of females come together on the same beach to lay eggs.
Distribution:
They are mainly found in the warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian oceans.
Odisha’s Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary is known as the world’s largest rookery (a colony of breeding animals) of sea turtles.
Features:
They are omnivorous, meaning they feed on both plants and animals.
They are solitary, preferring the open ocean.
These turtles spend their entire lives in the ocean, and migrate thousands of kilometers between feeding and mating grounds in the course of a year.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule 1
CITES: Appendix I
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/olive-ridley-turtle-population-growing-steadily-report/article69270985.ece
Bhagwan Mahavir Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which state?
Goa
Explanation :
The high court recently issued notices to South Western Railway and the Directorate of Survey and Land Records (DSLR) over a PIL challenging acquisition proceedings taking place for land at Bhagwan Mahavir (Mollem) Wildlife Sanctuary.
About Bhagwan Mahavir Wildlife Sanctuary:
Nestled in the Western Ghats, it is located on the eastern border of the state of Goa, near the village of Mollem.
Originally known as the Mollem Game Sanctuary, it was declared a wildlife sanctuary in 1969 and then renamed the Bhagwan Mahavir Wildlife Sanctuary.
The sanctuary includes the Mollem National Park.
It covers an area of 240 sq. km.
It is also home to the famous Dudhsagar waterfall, the Devil’s Canyon, the Tambdi Surla temple, the Tambdi falls, and a number of other historic and religious sites.
Vegetation: West Coast tropical evergreen forests, West Coast semi-evergreen forests, and moist deciduous forests.
Flora: Teak, bamboo, cashew, and eucalyptus trees dominate the landscape.
Fauna: Gaur, Sambar, Leopards, Spotted Deer, Slender Tories, Jungle Cats, Malayan Giant Squirrels, Pythons, and Cobras.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/goa/hc-notice-to-railways-over-land-acquisition-at-mollem/articleshow/118585940.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Meteor Missile:
1.It is an advanced radar-guided, beyond-visual-range air-to-air missile (BVRAAM).
- It was developed by the United States of America.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A US Marine Corps (USMC) F-35B Lightning II recently flew its first-ever test missions with the Meteor air-to-air missile.
About Meteor Missile:
It is an advanced radar-guided, beyond-visual-range air-to-air missile (BVRAAM).
METEOR has been developed by a group of European partners led by MBDA to meet the needs of six European nations: the UK, Germany, Italy, France, Spain and Sweden.
Features:
It has a length of 3.65 m and a diameter of 0.178 m.
Unlike most similar solid-fuel missiles, the Meteor is equipped with a ramjet engine, which allows for controlled flight speed, complex maneuvers, and a range of more than 100 kilometers.
Designed for a speed greater than Mach 4, the missile has a large no-escape zone.
Guided by an advanced active radar seeker, Meteor provides all-weather capability to engage a wide variety of targets from agile fast jets to small UAVs and cruise missiles.
It is equipped with a two-way datalink, which allows the launch platform to provide updates on targets or re-targeting when the missile is in flight.
The datalink is capable of transmitting information such as kinematic status. It also notifies target acquisition by the seeker.
The missile is equipped with a blast-fragmentation warhead.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.eurasiantimes.com/american-marine-stealth-fighters-conducted/
Consider the following statements with reference to Reunion Island:
- It is part of the British Overseas Territories (BOTs).
- It is located in the Western Indian Ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
At least four people died after cyclone Garance struck the French overseas territory of La Reunion recently.
About Reunion Island:
It is a French island in the Western Indian Ocean.
It lies about 680 km east of Madagascar and 180 km southwest of Mauritius.
It covers an area of 2,511 sq. km.
With Mauritius and Rodrigues Islands, they form the Mascarene Archipelago.
The island is entirely volcanic and originates on the ocean floor at a depth of 4,000 meters.
It consists mainly of rugged mountains dissected by torrential rivers.
It is home to the highest peak in the Indian Ocean, the Piton des Neiges, and one of the most active volcanoes on the planet, the Piton de la Fournaise.
The capital is Saint-Denis, on the northern coast.
People:
Réunion was first settled in the 17th century by colonists from France.
Slave labourers were brought in from East Africa to work on plantations, and later Malays, Annamites, Chinese, and Malabar Indians were imported as indentured labourers.
Today the greatest proportion of the population is of mixed descent (African, European, and South Asian).
Its economy is based largely on the export of sugar. Other products include meat and milk products, rum, molasses, tobacco, geranium essence, and vanilla.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://theprint.in/world/four-dead-after-cyclone-garance-hits-french-island-of-la-reunion/2520243/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Green Sea Turtle:
- It is found only in the Indian Ocean Region.
- It is classified as endangered under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The carcass of a green sea turtle washed ashore on Marina beach in Chennai recently.
About Green Sea Turtle:
It is the largest hard-shelled sea turtle.
Scientific Name: Chelonia mydas
They are unique among sea turtles in that they are herbivores, eating mostly seagrasses and algae.
This diet is what gives their fat a greenish color (not their shells), which is where their name comes from.
Distribution:
Green turtles are found throughout the world, mainly in tropical and subtropical waters.
These turtles are found nesting along the coastline of more than 80 countries, with the largest nesting populations found in Costa Rica and Australia.
Similar to other sea turtles, green sea turtles migrate long distances between their feeding grounds and their nesting sites, with recorded distances longer than 1,615 miles (2,600 kilometers).
Features:
They are large in size, attaining about 120 cm in length and weighing about 136-159 kg.
They have a comparatively small head.
The green turtle has a smooth carapace which varies in shape, between sub-circular and heart-shaped, and in colouration between black, grey, green, brown, and yellow. The plastron (bottom shell) is yellowish-white in colour.
The carapace is the turtle’s upper shell, made of large, hard scales called scutes.
They do not have teeth, but their jaws have modified “beaks” suited to their particular diet.
They do not have visible ears but have eardrums covered by skin. They hear best at low frequencies, and their sense of smell is excellent.
Their vision underwater is good, but they are nearsighted out of water.
Their streamlined bodies and large flippers make them remarkably adapted to life at sea.
Lifespan: Estimated to be 60-70 years.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Endangered
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/chennai/green-sea-turtle-carcass-washes-ashore-on-marina-beach/article69278632.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Pandoh Dam, recently seen in the news:
- It is an embankment dam located in Himachal Pradesh.
- It is constructed on Beas river.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Amidst the ongoing heavy rain and snowfall in the higher reaches of Himachal Pradesh, the Bhakra Beas Management Board (BBMB) opened the spillway gates of the Pandoh Dam recently as a precautionary measure.
About Pandoh Dam:
It is an embankment Dam that lies in the Mandi district of Himachal Pradesh.
Constructed on Beas River, the primary purpose of Pandoh Dam is hydroelectric power generation.
It is a concrete gravity dam, standing 76 meters (249 feet) tall.
It was commissioned in 1977 and is located at a distance of 10 km from Manali.
Being a part of a run-of-the-river power design, the Pandoh Dam diverts water from Beas to southwest through a channel of tunnels which are 38 km long.
Before it is discharged into the Sutlej River, the water of the dam is used for power generation at the Dehar Power House (with a capacity of 990 MW).
The dam has also created the Pandoh Lake, a popular tourist spot located 19 km upstream from the town of Mandi on the river Beas.
The dam is under the Bhakra Beas Management Board.
The road that goes over the dam is NH 21.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/chandigarh/himachal-pradesh-heavy-rain-bbmb-spillway-gates-pandoh-dam-9861154/
Consider the following statements regarding Giloy:
- It is a popular herb which grows well in almost all types of soils.
- It is used for the management of gouty arthritis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The data from PubMed, a globally recognised database for biomedical and life sciences research, reveals a staggering 376.5% increase in the number of research publications around Giloy (Tinospora cordifolia) over the past decade.
About Giloy:
It is commonly known as Guduchi and familiar as Amrita in Sanskrit, which translates to the ‘herb of immortality’, because of its abundant beneficial properties.
It is a popular herb and has been used in therapeutics for a long time in Ayush systems.
Distribution: It is large climber with succulent, corky and grooved stems. It is found almost throughout India.
Parts Used: Stem, leaves, root are used for many purposes.
It grows well in almost all types of soils and under varying climatic conditions. The plant is cultivated by stem cutting in the month of May-June.
Uses:
It is commonly used in the management of fevers. It is one of the important herbs for the management of gouty arthritis.
The increasing number of clinical studies and laboratory research suggests that Giloy may have a significant role in cancer therapy, autoimmune disease management, and even inflammatory disorders.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2106960#:~:text
Consider the following statements regarding the Geological Survey of India:
- It under takes functions of creation and updating of national geoscientific information and mineral resource assessment.
- It works under the union Ministry of Earth Science.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Geological Survey of India (GSI), one of the oldest scientific organizations in the country, is set to celebrate its 175th year of geoscientific legacy.
About Geological Survey of India:
It was set up in 1851 by Sir Thomas Oldham, primarily to find coal deposits for the Railways.
Over the years, it has grown into a repository of geo-science information required in various fields in the country.
Role: It includes providing objective, impartial and up-to-date geological expertise and geoscientific information of all kinds, with a focus on policy-making decisions, and commercial and socio-economic needs.
It also emphasises systematic documentation of all geological processes, both surface and subsurface, of India and its offshore areas.
The organisation carries out this work through geological, geophysical, & geochemical surveys using the latest and most cost-effective techniques and methodologies.
The main functions of the GSI relate to the creation and updation of national geoscientific information and mineral resource assessment.
It has played a pioneering role in geological mapping, mineral exploration, disaster studies, and geoscientific research, significantly contributing to India’s industrial and economic growth.
Headquarter: It is headquartered in Kolkata and has six regional offices located at Lucknow, Jaipur, Nagpur, Hyderabad, Shillong and Kolkata. Every state has a state unit.
Nodal Ministry: Presently, GSI is an attached office to the Ministry of Mines.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2106867®=3&lang=1
Consider the following statements regarding Banjara community:
- They are mainly found in Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.
- They speak Gor Boli which belongs to the Indo-Aryan Group of Languages.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Lok Sabha Speaker addressed to the members of Banjara community at the 286th birth anniversary celebration of Sant Sewalal Maharaja at Dr Ambedkar International Centre, New Delhi.
About Banjara Community:
Banjara is made of various groups found throughout India and most of them are found in Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka states.
This community settled across the country with different names, have permanently abandoned their nomadic lifestyle and settled in their settlements called Tandas.
Language: They speak Gor Boli also called Lambadi which belongs to the Indo-Aryan Group of Languages.
Lambadi has no script.
The majority of Banjara in India are Hindu; some have combined Hindu practices with their own animistic beliefs.
Culture:
Banjara people celebrate the festival of Teej during Shravanam (in the month of august). In this festival young unmarried Banjara girls pray for a good groom.
Fire dance and Chari are the traditional dance forms of the banjara people.
Tattoos are very common in banjara community. Like the banjara costume, Tattoo also express their personal style, identity and family connect.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2107150#:~:text
Lankamalleswara Wildlife Sanctuary, is located in:
Andhra Pradesh
Explanation :
Recently, the Archaeological Survey of India’s epigraphical survey in Sri Lankamalleswara Wildlife Sanctuary in Kadapa district has made major findings of three rock shelters and rock paintings along with 30 inscriptions.
About Lankamalleswara Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is located in the Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh.
Rivers: The Sanctuary forms the catchment for river Pennar. The Telugu ganga canal flows into the eastern flank of the Sanctuary draining into the ‘Pennar river’.
Vegetation: It consists of Southern tropical dry deciduous forest in the hills, scrub forest in the plains, Southern dry mixed deciduous forest, Tropical thorn forests and Tropical dry evergreen forest.
Flora:
The rare and endangered plants like Red sanders and Sandalwood are important species found in this area.
The riparian vegetation is very in rich in floristic value, consisting of Terminalia spp, Syzygium spp, (Jamun), Wild mangoes, Anogeissus latifolia, Phoenix spp, Bamboo, Hardwickia binata, etc.
Fauna: It has good representation of species like Common toad, Bull frog, Common Indian skink, Green vine snake etc.
It is the only home and hope for the rare and endangered bird the Jerdons courser.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanchronicle.com/southern-states/andhra-pradesh/andhra-pradesh-asi-finds-ancient-rock-art-inscriptions-in-lankamalleswara-sanctuary-1864329
With reference to Maple Syrup Urine Disease, consider the following:
- It is a disorder characterized by deficiency of an enzyme complex branched-chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase.
- It is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern.
- It affects old age people and damages brain cells.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, scientists have created a new gene therapy for a debilitating genetic disorder called maple syrup urine disease (MSUD).
About Maple Syrup Urine Disease:
It is a rare genetic disorder characterized by deficiency of an enzyme complex (branched-chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase) that is required to break down (metabolize) the three branched-chain amino acids (BCAAs) leucine, isoleucine and valine, in the body.
It’s inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. A child is born with MSUD when both parents are carriers of the specific gene mutation and pass it on.
The loss of this complex prevents the body from properly breaking down several amino acids, eventually leading to neurological symptoms and life-threatening brain damage.
Types:
Classic: It is the most severe and also the most common. Symptoms usually develop within the first three days of birth.
Intermediate: It is less severe than classic MSUD. Symptoms typically appear in children between 5 months and 7 years old.
Intermittent: Children with intermittent MSUD develop as expected until an infection or period of stress causes symptoms to appear. People with intermittent MSUD usually tolerate higher levels of the three amino acids than those with classic MSUD.
Thiamine-responsive: This type of MSUD responds to treatment using high doses of vitamin B1 (thiamine) along with a restricted diet.
Symptoms:
A sweet, syrupy smell in their pee, sweat or earwax
Lethargy (they may move slowly or appear tired or weak)
Irritability or fussiness
Treatment: The main treatment for MSUD is a low-protein diet with low levels of the three amino acids.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/gene-therapy-for-maple-syrup-urine-disease-shows-promise/article69275319.ece
Consider the following statements regarding White Island, recently seen in the news:
- It is an active composite stratovolcano.
- It is located in the Gulf of Mexico.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The owners of New Zealand’s White Island volcano that erupted in 2019, killing 22 tourists and local guides, have had the conviction against them overturned by the country’s High Court recently.
About White Island:
White Island (also known as Whakaari) is an active composite stratovolcano in the Bay of Plenty, New Zealand.
It is currently New Zealand’s most active cone volcano, sitting 48 km off the coast of Whakatāne in the North Island.
Last major eruption: December 9, 2019 (caused fatalities and injuries)
The cone has been built up by continuous volcanic activity over the past 150,000 years.
The island covers an area of around 325 hectares, and this is only about 30 percent of the volcano’s mass-the rest is under the sea.
It is two kilometres in diameter, and its peak rises 321 m above sea level.
The island was sighted and named by Capt. James Cook in 1769.
It has numerous hot springs, geysers, and fumaroles.
It is privately owned. In 1953 it was declared a private scenic reserve and has been the focus of tourism activities along with geological and ecological science.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/owners-of-new-zealand-volcano-island-spared-over-eruption-that-killed-22-7824358
Juanga Tribe primarily resides in which Indian state?
Odisha
Explanation :
The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) recently sought an action taken report from the district magistrate-cum-collector of Keonjhar on alleged human rights violations of the Juanga tribe, a PVTG in the district.
About Juanga Tribe:
Juang is one of the 13 particularly vulnerable tribal groups (PVTGs) of the total 62 tribes found in Odisha.
As per the 2011 census, the Juang population stands at approximately 50,000.
They are primarily concentrated in the current districts of Keonjhar and Dhenkanal in Odisha.
Language: Linguistically, they converse in the Juang language, a member of the Munda family within the Austroasiatic languages.
The Juangs are known for their clan structure and kinship organisations.
Livelihood:
Initially reliant on hunting, gathering, and limited cultivation, the declaration of their forests as reserves during the British colonial era prompted a shift in traditional customs.
Adapting to these changes, the Juang people showcased expertise in basket-weaving, exchanging their products with neighboring caste villages for essentials like salt, oil, and food.
Clothing:
Historically known as Patuas or “leaf-wearers,” Juang women adorned leaf girdles, while men wore small loincloths.
Following contact with neighbouring communities and government agencies, the Juangs were forced to adopt clothing from other communities.
Beliefs:
Although they have some Hindu beliefs, Juangs practice mostly ancient animistic rituals.
Their supreme god is the sun god. However, they have also adopted the Hindu deities in addition to tribal gods and goddesses.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bhubaneswar/nhrc-seeks-govt-report-on-human-rights-violations-of-pvtg-tribe-in-keonjhar/articleshow/118664533.cms
Rushikulya River empty into which water body?
Bay of Bengal
Explanation :
Forest officials recently restricted entry along a 5-km stretch from Gokharakuda to Bateswar near the Rushikulya river mouth in Ganjam district to protect Olive Ridley turtle eggs.
About Rushikulya River:
It is one of Odisha’s prominent rivers, flowing primarily through the districts of Kandhamal, Ganjam, and Boudh.
Course:
Originating at an elevation of approximately 1000 meters from the Daringbadi hills in the Eastern Ghats—often referred to as the ‘Kashmir of Odisha’ for its scenic beauty—the river travels a length of around 165 kilometers before emptying into the Bay of Bengal near the town of Ganjam.
Unlike many other rivers, the Rushikulya River does not form a delta at its mouth, and it flows directly into the Bay of Bengal.
The Rushikulya River basin encompasses a catchment area of roughly 7500 sq.km.
Tributaries: Its tributaries are the Baghua, the Dhanei, and the Badanadi etc.
Olive Ridley Turtle Nesting Site (Rushikulya Beach):
One of the most famous attractions near the river is the Olive Ridley Turtle Nesting Site, located on the coast where the Rushikulya River meets the Bay of Bengal.
Each year, between January and March, thousands of Olive Ridley Turtles come to the shores to lay their eggs, creating a spectacular natural event known as Arribada.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bhubaneswar/entry-curbs-on-5km-stretch-along-rushikulya-river-mouth-to-protect-ridley-eggs/articleshow/118663795.cms
What is the primary objective of the MISHTI scheme, recently seen in the news?
Restoration of mangroves
Explanation :
Gujarat has emerged as the national leader in mangrove afforestation, covering 19,020 hectares in just two years under the Centre’s ‘MISHTI’ scheme.
About MISHTI Scheme:
The Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI) scheme is a government-led initiative aimed at increasing the mangrove cover along the coastline and on salt pan lands.
“MISHTI” comes after India joined the ‘Mangrove Alliance for Climate’ launched during the 27th Conference of Parties (COP27) to the UNFCCC held in Egypt in November 2022.
It was launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change on the occasion of World Environment Day, i.e., 5th June 2023.
MISHTI envisages the restoration/reforestation of mangroves covering approximately 540 sq.km., spreading across 9 states and 3 union territories for a period of five years commencing 2023-24 onwards.
The scheme is primarily focused on the Sundarbans delta, Hooghly Estuary in West Bengal, India, and other bay parts of the country, but also includes other wetlands in the country.
Under the MISHTI scheme, the government is providing financial assistance to local communities to undertake mangrove plantation activities.
The scheme also involves awareness campaigns to educate people about the importance of mangroves and their role in protecting the environment.
The plantation activities are carried out in a participatory manner, involving local communities and NGOs, to ensure sustainability and community ownership of the initiative.
It leverages the strengths and provisions of different government schemes and initiatives such as the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS), the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) Fund and other relevant sources.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2025/Feb/28/gujarat-leads-nation-in-mangrove-afforestation-covers-19020-hectares-under-mishti-scheme
Harpoon Missile is an anti-ship cruise missile developed by which country?
United States of America
Explanation :
The U.S. Air Force is exploring the use of the Harpoon anti-ship missile on its F-16s, signaling a potential shift in its approach to naval warfare.
About Harpoon Missile:
The Harpoon (RGM-84/UGM-84/AGM-84) is a subsonic anti-ship cruise missile developed by Boeing for the U.S. Navy.
It was first introduced in 1977.
It is currently in service with the armed forces of more than 30 countries, including India.
Features:
It is an all-weather, over-the-horizon, anti-ship missile system.
A single missile measures 4.5 m in length and weighs 526 kg.
Propulsion: Turbojet, solid propellant.
Range: 90-240 km
It can be launched from ships, submarines, shore batteries, and aircraft.
It is capable of executing both land-strike and anti-ship missions.
The missile can fly at speeds of up to Mach 0.85 (647 mph or 1,041 km/h) and carry a 221 kg blast warhead.
It incorporates GPS-assisted inertial navigation, which enables the system to have both an anti-ship and a land attack capability.
It uses mid-course guidance and an active radar seeker to track and hit surface targets.
Its active radar guidance, low-level, sea-skimming cruise trajectory, terminal mode sea-skim or pop-up maneuvers, and warhead design assure high survivability and effectiveness.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://interestingengineering.com/military/us-air-force-f16-harpoon-missile
Consider the following statements regarding Blue Ghost Mission:
- It is carrying 10 NASA payloads as part of the Commercial Lunar Payload Services (CLPS) program.
- It aims to enhance our understanding of the lunar environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Firefly Aerospace’s Blue Ghost lunar lander has successfully touched down on the Moon’s Mare Crisium region after a nerve-wracking powered descent.
About Blue Ghost Mission:
Blue Ghost, developed by Firefly Aerospace, is carrying 10 NASA payloads as part of the Commercial Lunar Payload Services (CLPS) program, which aims to stimulate lunar commerce through private-sector competition.
The Blue Ghost mission aims to enhance our understanding of the lunar environment.
The lander carries a vacuum to collect lunar soil samples and a drill capable of measuring temperatures up to 10 feet (3 meters) below the surface.
Objectives of Blue Ghost Mission
The lander will study heat flow from the Moon’s interior, helping scientists understand its thermal evolution.
It will analyse plume-surface interactions to improve landing techniques by examining how lunar regolith reacts to the lander’s engine plumes.
By collecting data on the Moon’s magnetic and electric fields, researchers will gain insights into its geological history.
The lander will operate for approximately 14 Earth days, equivalent to one complete lunar day, conducting scientific investigations and technology demonstrations.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/world/blue-ghost-private-lander-touches-down-moon-nasa-9864809/
Consider the following statements regarding the Neonatal Sepsis:
- It is a blood infection that occurs in an infant younger than 90 days old.
- It cannot be cured by using antibiotics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Lancet Global Health journal study said that more than a third of newborns diagnosed with sepsis could die.
About Neonatal Sepsis:
It is a blood infection that occurs in an infant younger than 90 days old.
It can be caused by bacteria such as Escherichia coli (E coli), Listeria, and some strains of streptococcus.
Classification of Neonatal Sepsis
Early-onset Neonatal Sepsis: Most providers use the term “early-onset neonatal sepsis” to describe sepsis that develops within the first 72 hours of life.
Late-onset Neonatal Sepsis: Most providers refer to “late-onset neonatal sepsis” as sepsis that develops after three days of life.
Symptoms: Body temperature changes Breathing problems and Diarrhea or decreased bowel movements etc
Treatment: Sepsis in newborns is curable. Sepsis must be treated in a hospital, usually through antibiotics transmitted intravenously.
Prevalence: Neonatal sepsis results in more than 5,50,000 deaths globally every year. India accounts for nearly one-fourth of the global burden of infection-related deaths.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/more-than-a-third-of-newborns-diagnosed-with-sepsis-could-die-study/article69270764.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Aadhaar Good Governance Portal:
- It is aimed at streamlining the approval process for Aadhaar authentication requests.
- It is launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, central government launched Aadhaar Good Governance portal to streamline approval process for Aadhaar authentication requests.
About Aadhaar Good Governance Portal:
It is aimed at streamlining the approval process for Aadhaar authentication requests.
It was launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
The platform follows the recent amendments to the Aadhaar Authentication for Good Governance (Social Welfare, Innovation, Knowledge) Rules, 2025, under the Aadhaar Act of 2016.
The new rules are designed to support good governance and improve the delivery of various welfare services and benefits.
This portal is part of ongoing efforts to simplify processes, enhance service delivery, and improve the overall ease of living for citizens.
The portal shall work as a resource rich guide, and offer detailed SOP for authentication seeking entities on how to apply and how to onboard for Aadhaar authentication.
Face Authentication may also be integrated in the customer facing apps of private entities, which will enable anytime anywhere, authentication.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/new-aadhaar-governance-portal-launched-to-enhance-ease-of-living-and-citizen-centric-services/
Epidelaxia falciformis and Epidelaxia palustris, recently seen in news, are:
Spiders
Explanation :
Researchers have discovered two new species of jumping spiders from the Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary and named it as Epidelaxia falciformis sp. nov. and Epidelaxia palustris.
About E. falciformis and E. palustris:
These two species belongs to the genus Epidelaxia.
It was for the first time the genus Epidelaxia has been recorded from India as it was previously considered endemic to Sri Lanka.
Physical Features
These consists prominent yellow triangular-shaped mark on the prosoma (the front part of the body) of females and unique traits of the copulatory organs in both males and females.
Males of E. falciformis have a brown carapace with a yellow-brown stripe, while males of E. palustris feature a pale brown band along the side of their bodies.
The females exhibit similar colouration, with the added feature of white orbital setae around their eyes.
The researchers add that the species vary slightly in size, with E. falciformis measuring 4.39 mm. E. palustris measures 4.57 mm in males and 3.69 mm in females.
These spiders have been described as highly adapted to their environment, inhabiting the dense foliage of the Western Ghats.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/two-new-species-of-jumping-spiders-discovered-in-western-ghats/article69282217.ece#:~:text
With reference to Kawal Tiger Reserve, consider the following:
- It is located in the Telangana state along the banks of river Godavari.
- It is nestled in the Sahyadri Mountain Ranges.
- It consists of mainly of tropical moist evergreen forest.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
In the heart of Kawal Tiger Reserve, a symphony of nature and technology is playing out where technology like solar pumps have been installed near borewells to facilitate easy water supply to tanks, pits and other natural reservoirs.
About Kawal Tiger Reserve:
It is located in the Telangana State along the banks of river Godavari, forming part of the Deccan peninsula-central highlands.
The reserve is nestled in the Sahyadri Mountain Ranges.
The government of India declared Kawal Wildlife Sanctuary a Tiger Reserve in 2012.
Rivers: The reserve is the catchment for the rivers Godavari and Kadam, which flow towards the south of the sanctuary.
Geographically, the reserve is situated at the southernmost tip of the Central Indian Tiger Landscape, having linkages with the Tadoba-Andhari (Maharashtra) and Indravati (Chhattisgarh) tiger reserves.
Habitat: It has diverse habitats comprising dense forests, grasslands, open areas, rivers, streams and water bodies.
Vegetation: Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest.
Flora: It consists of teak along with Bamboo and other species like Anogeissus latifolia, Mitragyna parviflora, Terminalia crenulata, Terminalia arjuna, Boswellia serrata, etc.
Fauna: The major wild animals include: nilgai, chousinga, chinkara, black buck, sambar, spotted deer, wild dog, wolf, jackal, fox, tiger, leopard, and the jungle cat.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/cities/hyderabad/2025/Mar/02/how-tech-is-helping-rewrite-conservation-at-kawal-tiger-reserve
What is the theme for World Wildlife Day 2025?
Wildlife Conservation Finance: Investing in People and Planet
Explanation :
The Prime Minister went on a lion safari at Gir Wildlife Sanctuary in Gujarat’s Junagadh recently, on the occasion of the World Wildlife Day.
About World Wildlife Day:
It is celebrated on March 3 every year to spread awareness about the importance of flora and fauna.
This day encourages people to support conservation efforts, adopt sustainable practices, and coexist peacefully with nature.
History:
It was established by the United Nations in 2013 after Thailand proposed to dedicate a day to raise awareness about wildlife conservation.
On December 20, 2013, the UN General Assembly officially declared March 3 as World Wildlife Day, with the first celebration taking place in 2014.
This date was chosen because, in 1973, the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) was signed on the same day.
CITES is a global agreement to ensure that international wildlife trade does not threaten the survival of animal and plant species.
World Wildlife Day 2025 Theme: Wildlife Conservation Finance: Investing in People and Planet
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/photos/world-wildlife-day-pm-modi-goes-on-lion-safari-in-gujarats-gir-national-park-pics-101740981895085-1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Cities Coalition for Circularity (C-3), recently seen in the news:
- It is a multi-nation alliance for city-to-city collaboration, knowledge-sharing, and private sector partnerships.
- The primary objective of C-3 is to develop new sustainable urban architectural styles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Union Minister for Housing and Urban Affairs, recently announced the Cities Coalition for Circularity (C-3).
About Cities Coalition for Circularity (C-3):
It is a multi-nation alliance for city-to-city collaboration, knowledge-sharing, and private sector partnerships.
It was announced at the 12th Regional 3R and Circular Economy Forum in Asia and the Pacific in Jaipur.
It would act as a catalyst for resource efficiency and a low-carbon economy, strengthening collaboration between policymakers, industry leaders, and researchers to build a sustainable future.
Key Details of the 12th Regional 3R and Circular Economy Forum in Asia and the Pacific:
Theme: Realizing Circular Societies Towards Achieving SDGs and Carbon Neutrality in Asia-Pacific.
Venue: Rajasthan International Centre, Jaipur, Rajasthan, India
Organized by: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (India), United Nations Centre for Regional Development (UNCRD), and Institute for Global Environmental Strategies (IGES).
Supported by: United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP), Japan’s Ministry of Environment, and various other international and regional organizations.
It will adopt the Jaipur Declaration (2025-2034), a nonpolitical, nonbinding commitment that will guide the next decade of efforts towards resource efficiency and sustainable urban growth.
What is a Circular Economy?
The circular economy is a system where materials never become waste and nature is regenerated.
In a circular economy, products and materials are kept in circulation through processes like maintenance, reuse, refurbishment, remanufacture, recycling, and composting.
The circular economy tackles climate change and other global challenges, like biodiversity loss, waste, and pollution, by decoupling economic activity from the consumption of finite resources.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://theprint.in/economy/manohar-lal-announces-c3-multi-stakeholder-partnership-for-knowledge-exchange-for-cities-technical-institutions-and-tech-providers/2528318/
Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which state?
Madhya Pradesh
Explanation :
Madhya Pradesh, with the highest population of wolves, is conducting a study on their ecology at Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary.
About Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is spread across three districts, i.e., Sagar, Damoh, and Narsinghpur, of Madhya Pradesh.
It was declared a wildlife sanctuary in 1975.
It covers nearly 1197 sq.km. area.
It is the largest wildlife sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh.
The entire Sanctuary is situated on a plateau, forming part of the upper Vindhyan range.
It acts as a corridor for Panna Tiger Reserve and Satpura Tiger Reserve while indirectly connecting Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve via Rani Durgawati Wildlife Sanctuary.
The Sanctuary is classified under the Deccan peninsula biogeographic region and forms part of the Ganga and Narmada basins.
Drainage:
Three-fourths of the wildlife sanctuary falls in the basin of the Ganges tributary, the Yamuna River, of which the Ken River is a tributary, and one-fourth of the sanctuary falls in the Narmada basin.
The north-flowing Kopra River, Bamner River, Vyarma River, and Bearma River, which are tributaries of the Ken River, are the major rivers of this protected area.
Vegetation: It is mainly a dry mixed-deciduous forest type.
Flora: Major trees found are teak, saja, dhawda, sal, tendu (Coromandel ebony), bhirra (East Indian satinwood), and mahua.
Fauna: The chief faunal elements include Nilgai, Chinkara, Chital, Sambhar, Black Buck, Barking deer, Common Langur, Rhesus Macaque, Freshwater Turtles, Spotted Grey Creeper, Cranes, Egrets, Lapwings, etc.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.etvbharat.com/en/!state/wolves-in-nauradehi-wildlife-sanctuary-will-be-radio-collared-enn25030303479
Consider the following statements regarding Marbled Cat:
- It is endemic to the Western Ghats of India.
- It is classified as endangered under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The elusive marbled cats have been recently spotted through camera traps at Dehing Patkai National Park in Assam’s Tinsukia district.
About Marbled Cat:
The marbled cat (Pardofelis marmorata) is a small wild cat species that is native to South and Southeast Asia.
It is believed to be closely related to the clouded leopard (Neofelis nebulosa) and the bay cat (Catopuma badia).
Distribution:
This species is found in several countries in the region, including India, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Thailand and Laos.
In India, it is primarily found in the forests of Northeastern states, including Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Meghalaya and Nagaland.
Features:
It is a small wild cat species that has a distinctive marbled pattern on its fur.
The fur is brown or gray with black spots and stripes, which help the cats, blend into its forest environment.
Males are typically larger than females, with males weighing between 4.5 and 9 kg, while females weigh between 2.5 and 5 kg.
It is known to be excellent climbers and is capable of leaping great distance between trees.
The species is territorial and marks its territory with urine and scent marking.
It is a solitary animal that spends most of the time alone.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Near Threatened
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/guwahati/elusive-marbled-cats-spotted-at-dehing-patkai-natl-park/articleshow/118634856.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Gangetic Dolphin:
- It is recognised as the National Aquatic Animal of India.
- It is classified as endangered under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The first ever estimate of Gangetic dolphins, the only riverine dolphins in India, has found 6,327 of them in the river Ganga and its tributaries.
About Gangetic Dolphin:
It is a freshwater species and one of the few river dolphins found in the world.
It inhabits the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems of Nepal, India and Bangladesh.
Common names: Blind dolphin, Ganges dolphin, Ganges susu, hihu, side-swimming dolphin, South Asian River Dolphin
Scientific name: Platanista gangetica
It has been recognized by the government of India as its National Aquatic Animal.
Description:
A long, thin snout, rounded belly, stocky body, and large flippers are characteristics of the Ganges River dolphin.
It weighs up to 150 kg.
The calves are chocolate brown at birth and become grayish brown in adulthood with a smooth and hairless skin.
Females are larger than males. The maximum size of a female is 2.67 m and of a male 2.12 m.
It feeds majorly on fishes and is usually found in counter-current systems of the main river channel.
Its eyes lack lens, and as a result, this species is also referred to as the “blind dolphin”.
They have a highly developed bio-sonar system that facilitates them to hunt for fish even in murky waters.
They emit an ultrasonic sound which reaches the prey. The dolphin then registers this image in its mind and subsequently catches hold of its prey.
It cannot breathe in the water and must surface every 30-120 seconds.
Because of the sound it produces when breathing, the animal is popularly referred to as the ‘Susu’.
Conservation status:
IUCN: Endangered
Wildlife (Protection) Act: Schedule-I
CITES: Appendix I
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/first-estimate-of-gangetic-dolphins-finds-6327-across-four-states/article69286367.ece
Consider the following statements regarding
- It occupies the southern end of the Western Rift Valley in Africa.
- It is bordered by Burundi, Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC), Tanzania and Zambia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the countries which border Lake Tanganyika Basin have launched a five-year project to assess and address transboundary threats to the biodiversity of this lake basin.
About Lake Tanganyika:
It is an ancient lake located in East Africa.
Bordering Countries: Burundi, Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC), Tanzania and Zambia.
It is extremely long, deepest and is the longest lake in the world, measuring over 400 miles long.
It occupies the southern end of the Western Rift Valley, and for most of its length the land rises steeply from its shores.
It is situated on the line dividing the floral regions of eastern and western Africa, and oil palms, which are characteristic of the flora of western Africa, grow along the lake’s shores.
The largest rivers discharging into the lake are the Malagarasi, the Ruzizi, and the Kalambo.
Its outlet is the Lukuga River, which flows into the Lualaba River.
Rice and subsistence crops are grown along the shores, and fishing is of some significance.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.unep.org/news-and-stories/press-release/lake-tanganyika-basin-countries-launch-initiative-protect
Consider the following statements regarding the Ferrihydrite:
- It is formed by rapid oxidation and hydrolysis and exists in varying degrees of structure disorder.
- It cannot trap water and affect the survival of organic molecules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A recent study revealed that the red color of Mars could be due to the presence of an iron-containing mineral called ferrihydrite.
About Ferrihydrite:
It is a poorly crystalline nanomineral built up of about 20% (FeO4) and 80% (FeO6) polyhedra.
Formation: It forms by rapid oxidation and hydrolysis, and exists in varying degrees of structure disorder.
It is one of the initial corrosion products in the oxidation of iron, and is the precursor to the formation of the more stable mineral phases goethite (α-FeO(OH)) and hematite (α-Fe2O3 ).
Occurrence:
It is widespread in the soluble fraction of soils and weathered rock.
In precipitates around cold and hot springs, especially those supporting iron-metabolizing bacteria; in acid mine effluent.
The iron bacteria, especially Gallionella ferruginea, Leptothrix ochracea and Toxothrix trichogenes create ferrihydrite as a waste product of their metabolism.
It is known to trap water and protect organic molecules and forms rapidly in cool water.
It forms a significant proportion of soils, especially soils formed under cool, moist conditions and it occurs as a pre-terrestrial weathering product in meteorites.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/science/space/iron-mineral-reason-for-mars-red-colour-study-suggests-hints-planet-was-once-habitable-3422691
Consider the following statements regarding the Proton Exchange Membrane fuel cell:
- It is an electrochemical device that converts the chemical energy of hydrogen and oxygen into electricity.
- It can be used for powering telecom towers as a backup during grid outages.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Centre for Fuel Cell Technology (CFCT) at the International Advanced Research Centre for Powder Metallurgy and New Materials showcased a mobile Proton Exchange Membrane fuel cell (PEMFC)-based backup power solution for telecom towers using a plug-and-play model.
About Proton Exchange Membrane Fuel Cell:
It is an electrochemical device that converts the chemical energy of hydrogen and oxygen into electricity through a series of redox reactions.
Unlike traditional batteries, which store chemical energy internally, PEM fuel cells require a continuous supply of hydrogen fuel and oxygen (typically from the air) to sustain the chemical reaction and generate electricity.
Working Principle: The working principle involves an electrochemical reaction where hydrogen gas is fed into the anode, oxidized to release protons, which then travel through a polymer membrane to the cathode, where they react with oxygen to produce electricity and water.
They offer an environmentally friendly solution with high power density in a compact size.
They run on hydrogen fuel, which can be stored and transported for refuelling, and require significantly less maintenance than traditional backup power sources.
Applications:
These fuel cells provide reliable electricity with quick start-up times and operate at relatively low temperatures, making them a viable alternative to diesel generators.
An innovative hydrogen fuel cell-based backup power solution for telecom towers, developed using a plug-and-play model can support national renewable energy goals while ensuring seamless connectivity for millions and promoting clean energy in the telecom sector.
Portable power: specific applications include laptops, mobile phones, battery chargers and unmanned aerial vehicles.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2107798
Mission 300, recently in news, is a/an:
initiative to provide electricity to 300 million people in Sub-Saharan Africa by 2030
Explanation :
Recently, the World Bank and the African Development Bank (AfDB), along with key partners have launched Mission 300.
About Mission 300:
It is an ambitious initiative to provide electricity to 300 million people in Sub-Saharan Africa by 2030.
It aims to accelerate the pace of electrification in Sub-Saharan Africa while ensuring that the transition to more diversified and cleaner sources of energy meets growing demand, brings economic growth, and creates jobs.
It is led by the World Bank and the African Development Bank, in collaboration with key partners, Rockefeller Foundation, Global Energy Alliance for People and Planet (GEAPP), Sustainable Energy for All (SE4ALL), and Energy Sector Management Assistance Program (ESMAP).
Key Components:
Expanding the electricity grid and increasing connections in underserved areas.
Deploying mini-grids and standalone solar solutions to bring power to remote, off-grid communities.
Local communities are actively involved in the design and implementation of all World Bank Group supported Mission 300 projects
The significant leap will deliver reliable, sustainable, and affordable electricity to people, businesses, schools, and hospitals all over the continent.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/five-powerful-lessons-from-indias-electrification-success-for-mission-300/
With reference to Narwhals, consider the following:
- It is a medium-sized toothed whale found in Arctic region.
- It has a big horn-like tusk which grows out of the male’s upper jaw.
- It is categorized as critically endangered species under the IUCN Red list.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
In a first, scientists have studied and captured footage of the iconic narwhals of the Arctic using their tusks to hunt.
About Narwhals:
Also known as a narwhale (Monodon monoceros), it is a medium-sized toothed whale.
It has a big horn-like tusk gives them a very distinctive appearance.
Features:
Narwhals change color as they age. Newborns are a blue-gray, juveniles are blue-black and adults are a mottled gray. Old narwhals are nearly all white.
The tusk is, in fact, a tooth that grows out of the male’s upper jaw and has sensory capability and up to 10 million nerve endings inside.
It is believed that the tusk plays a role in competition for mates, including mating displays.
It uses tusks in the wild to investigate, manipulate and influence the behavior of Arctic char (Salvelinus alpinus), including delivering sufficient force with their tusks to stun and possibly kill the fish.
Narwhals are polygynous and mating usually occurs from March to May.
They give birth to a single calf and they are born tail first. The tusks of males do not grow until they are weaned when they are about one year old.
Diet: Narwhals feed on Greenland halibut, Arctic and polar cod, squid and shrimp.
Distribution: They spend their lives in the Arctic waters of Canada, Greenland, Norway and Russia.
Threats: Oil and gas development and climate change pose threats to narwhals.
Conservation Status:
IUCN: Near Threatened
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/sea-unicorns-narwhals-studied-for-the-first-time-using-their-tusks-to-hunt-fish-forage-and-play
Which among the following best describes ‘Taurus KEPD-350’, recently seen in the news?
A long-range, precision-guided, air-launched cruise missile.
Explanation :
Sweden has taken a key step in strengthening its air force’s long-range strike capabilities by selecting the Taurus KEPD-350 air-launched cruise missile for integration with its Gripen fighter jets.
About Taurus KEPD-350:
It is a modular, air-launched, long-range, precision-guided cruise missile.
It is designed and produced by Taurus Systems GmbH, a joint venture between Germany’s MBDA Deutschland GmbH and Sweden’s Saab Bofors Dynamics.
It can penetrate through dense air defence systems and destroy the hard and deeply buried stationary and semi-stationary military targets on ground.
The missile entered operational service in 2005.
The missile is used by air forces in Germany, Spain, and South Korea, among others.
Features:
Measuring 5 meters in length and with a wingspan of 2.1 meters, the missile weighs approximately 1,400 kilograms.
It has a range of more than 500 km.
It is powered by a turbofan engine, which provides the missile with a cruise speed of about Mach 0.6 to 0.95 at very low altitudes.
The missile is made of modular sections which can be configured based on the individual missions.
Its electronic systems are also modular.
It is suitable for day and night and all-weather deployment.
Navigation of the missile is controlled through the Tri-Tec navigation system.
It combines data from an inertial navigation system (INS), MIL-global positioning system (GPS), terrain reference navigation (TRN), and infrared seeker based image based navigation (IBN) sensors.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.eurasiantimes.com/sweden-selects-taurus-cruise-missiles-for-gripen/#google_vignette
Consider the following statements regarding the Gond Tribe:
- They are one of the largest tribal groups in India.
- They belong to the Indo-Aryan ethno-linguistic group.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Gujarat High Court recently sought a response from a power distribution company, the Ahmedabad district collector, and a residential society after 95 families of the Rajgond tribe sought HC directions for electricity connections to their households.
About Gond Tribe:
The Gond or Gondi (Gōndi) or Koitur are a Dravidian ethno-linguistic group.
They are one of the largest tribal groups in India. According to the 2001 census, their population was nearly 11 million.
Distribution:
The states of Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, and Odisha are home to the largest Gond populations.
Gond tribes also live in the states of Uttar Pradesh, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Gujarat.
Gonds are mainly divided into four tribes, namely Raj Gonds, Madia Gonds, Dhurve Gonds and Khatulwar Gonds.
History:
Gonds settled in the Gondwana region in the 9th and 13th century AD.
In the 14th century they ruled several parts of central India.
They built a number of forts, palaces, temples, tanks, and lakes during the rule of the Gonds dynasty.
The Gondwana kingdom survived till the late 16th century.
Gond dynasties ruled in 4 kingdoms - Garha-Mandla, Deogarh, Chanda, and Kherla - in central India.
They also gained control over the Malwa after the decline of the Mughals followed by the Marathas in the year 1690.
During the British regime in India, Gonds challenged the Britishers in several battles.
Language:
The majority of Gond people speak dialects of Gondi, an unwritten language of the Dravidian language family.
Some Gond have lost their own language and speak Hindi, Marathi, or Telugu, depending on which is dominant in their area.
Economy: The basis of the Gond economy is agriculture, but they also practice animal husbandry. Some Gond also gather wild plants to eat.
Religion: The religion of the Gond tribes centers on clan and village gods, together with ancestor worship.
Customs and Festivals:
Keslapur Jathra and Madai are important festivals of the Gonds.
Apart from this, they also celebrate Hindu festival called Dusshera.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/ahmedabad/electricity-denied-tribe-takes-fight-to-court/articleshow/118717156.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Majuli Island:
- It is the world’s largest river island.
- It is located in Arunachal Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A recent six-day survey conducted on the escalating human-wildlife conflict (HWC) in the Majuli River Island district of Assam sparks concern.
About Majuli Island:
Often called the soul of Assam, Majuli is the world’s largest river island.
It lies at the heart of Assam, spreading over an area of 421 sq. km.
The island is formed by the Brahmaputra River in the south and the Kherkutia Xuti, an anabranch of the Brahmaputra, joined by the Subansiri River in the north.
In 2016 it became the first island to be made a district in India.
The island’s landscape is characterised by lush greenery, water bodies, and paddy fields.
The island has also been the hub of Assamese neo-Vaishnavite culture, initiated around the 16th century by the great Assamese saint-reformer Srimanta Sankerdeva and his disciple Madhavdeva.
They initiated the tradition of Satras (monastic institutions), and these Satras have preserved Sattriya dance, literature, bhaona (theatre), dance forms, mask making, and boat-making.
Most of the islanders belong to three tribes-Mishing, Deori, and Sonowal Kachari, with the non-tribal Assamese comprising the rest.
Apart from Satras or Vaishnavite monasteries, Majuli is famous for mask-making and has a tradition of pottery making.
Rice cultivation is the primary livelihood for the residents of Majuli, with several unique varieties of rice, such as Komal Saul and Bao Dhan, grown in the region.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://nenews.in/assam/rising-human-wildlife-conflict-in-assams-majuli-river-island-sparks-concern-study/21226/
Consider the following statements regarding Malabar civet:
- It is endemic to the Western Ghats.
- It is classified as critically endangered under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A rare civet cat, typically found in the Seshachalam forests near Tirumala, was recently spotted near Tadepalli in Guntur district, Andhra Pradesh.
About Civet:
It is any of a number of long-bodied, short-legged carnivores of the family Viverridae.
The Viverridae family includes civets, genets, oyans, and linsangs.
There are about 15 to 20 species, placed in 10 to 12 genera.
Civets are found in Africa, southern Europe and Asia.
There are 8 different species of Wild civets found in India, out of which Common Palm civets and Small Indian civets can be spotted across the country.
The rarest of all civets is the Malabar large-spotted civet (Viverra civettina), also known as the Malabar civet, endemic to the Western Ghats.
It is classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Features:
They have a thickly furred tail, small ears, and a pointed snout, i.e. catlike appearance.
The coloration varies widely among the species but commonly is buff or grayish with a pattern of black spots or stripes or both.
Length ranges from about 40 to 85 cm), with the tail accounting for another 13 to 66 cm, and weight ranges from 1.5 to 11 kg).
Civets are usually solitary and live in tree hollows, among rocks, and in similar places, coming out to forage at night.
They feed on fruits and insects, opportunistically supplemented with small animals.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/vijayawada/rare-civet-cat-spotted-near-tadepalli/articleshow/118667441.cms
Where is Mount Erebus, recently seen in the news, located??
Antarctica
Explanation :
Beneath Antarctica’s Mount Erebus, a hidden world of volcanic ice caves harbors thriving microbial life, offering a glimpse into how life could exist on alien worlds.
About Mount Erebus:
It is the world’s southernmost active volcano.
It is located on the western half of Ross Island, off the coast of Antarctica in the Ross Sea.
It is a glaciated intraplate stratovolcano, part of the Ring of Fire that encircles the Pacific Ocean basin.
It was discovered in 1841 by the British explorer Sir James Clark Ross, who named it after his ship, the Erebus.
Its summit is 12,448 feet (3,794 meters) above sea level, making it the second tallest volcano in Antarctica, after Mount Sidley.
It is also one of only a few volcanoes in the world that contain an active lava lake.
The lava within the lava lake is alkalic in composition. Alkalic lava is common in rift volcanoes.
It has been continuously active since 1972. Most eruptions are small and Strombolian in character, tossing bombs onto the crater rim.
The largest Antarctic settlement—McMurdo Station, operated by the United States—stands within sight of the volcano (about 40 kilometers or 25 miles away).
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indiandefencereview.com/antarcticas-volcano-underground-ecosystem/
Consider the following statements regarding World Food Programme:
- It is a branch of the United Nations that deals with hunger eradication and promotes food security in the world.
- It publishes Global Report on Food Crisis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The UN’s World Food Programme (WFP) is closing its southern Africa office in the wake of the Trump administration’s aid cuts.
About World Food Programme:
It is a United Nations agency that deals with hunger eradication and promotes food security in the world.
It is operating in more than 120 countries, which provides food assistance during emergencies and works with communities to enhance nutrition and generate resilience.
It has been functioning in India since 1963.
It is a member of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
Funding: WFP is funded by voluntary donations from governments, corporates and private donors.
It is the largest humanitarian agency saving lives in emergencies and using assistance to help communities become self-sufficient and resilient to shocks.
Report released by the WFP is Global Report on Food Crisis.
The Global Report on Food Crises describes the scale of acute hunger in the world.
It provides an analysis of the drivers that are contributing to food crises across the globe.
The report is produced by the Global Network against Food Crises, an international alliance working to address the root causes of extreme hunger.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.theguardian.com/world/2025/mar/03/world-food-programme-to-close-southern-africa-office-after-trump-aid-cuts
Consider the following statements regarding the Bollgard-3:
- It is a new pest-resistant genetically-modified (GM) cotton variety developed by the Indian Agricultural Research Institute of India.
- It is effective against lepidopteran pests like pink bollworm.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, there has been an increasing demand for Bollgard-3 in Punjab, ahead of the cotton sowing season.
About Bollgard-3:
It is a pest-resistant genetically-modified (GM) cotton variety.
It was developed by Monsanto more than a decade ago, and shows remarkable resistance to pests.
It contains three Bt proteins Cry1Ac, Cry2Ab and Vip3A that cause insect death by disrupting their normal gut function. This in turn allows for the growth of a healthier cotton crop, and increases yield.
Farmers are demanding the introduction of Bollgard-3, which is particularly effective against lepidopteran pests like pink bollworm.
Bollgard-1 was a Monsanto-developed Bt cotton introduced in India in 2002, followed by Bollgard-2 in 2006. The latter remains prevalent today.
And although these do have some pest-repellent properties, they are not effective against the whitefly and the pink bollworm, which arrived in Punjab in 2015-16 and 2018-19 respectively.
What is Bacillus thuringiensis?
Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is a soil-dwelling bacterium with potent insecticidal properties.
In the past few decades, researchers have successfully inserted certain genes from Bt in various crops, like cotton, providing these with insect-repellent properties.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/cotton-crisis-punjab-bt-cotton-regulatory-bollgard-9866415/
Consider the following statements regarding the Dragon Copilot:
- It is the new healthcare AI tool which is being offered as part of Microsoft Cloud for Healthcare.
- It harnesses the natural language voice dictation and ambient listening technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Microsoft has introduced a new voice-activated AI assistant called Dragon Copilot.
About Dragon Copilot:
It is the new healthcare AI tool which is being offered as part of Microsoft Cloud for Healthcare.
It is designed to help doctors and healthcare professionals transcribe clinical notes and draft paperwork as well as quickly search for information from medical sources.
Features of Dragon Copilot:
It harnesses the natural language voice dictation and ambient listening technology developed by AI voice company Nuance.
These capabilities have been further fine-tuned using generative AI and adapted to incorporate healthcare safeguards.
It is built on top of existing tools such as Dragon Medical One (DMO) and DAX rolled out by speech recognition company Nuance Communications.
It can be used to draft memos and notes in a personalised style and format.
Besides voice-to-text transcription, the Dragon Copilot user interface also allows users to submit prompts or use templates to create AI-generated notes.
Apart from documentation work, the AI assistant allows clinicians to search for general-purpose medical information from trusted sources.
It can also be used to automate key tasks such as conversational orders, note and clinical evidence summaries, referral letters, and after-visit summaries, in one centralised workspace.
It can be accessible through a mobile app, browser or desktop, and it integrates directly with several different electronic health records.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/artificial-intelligence/microsoft-new-ai-assistant-dragon-copilot-potential-benefits-risks-healthcare-9867625/
Ruellia elegans, recently in news, is a:
Invasive Plant Species
Explanation :
A new study has flagged the threat to native biodiversity from a botanical Brazilian beauty Ruellia elegans.
About R. elegans:
It derives its name from its pleasing appearance or elegance.
It is native to Brazil and predominantly thrives in wet tropical biome.
It is commonly known as the Brazilian petunia, Christmas pride, elegant Ruellia, red Ruellia, and wild petunia.
It is one of four invasive plant species of the Acanthoideae sub-family in India, the others being Ruellia ciliatiflora, Ruellia simplex, and Ruellia tuberosa.
It was introduced in the Andaman Islands. Beyond the Andaman Islands, the invasive plant was recorded from Odisha almost a decade ago.
Impacts of Invasive species:
Invasive plant species are problem because they can rapidly spread and outcompete native plants for resources like sunlight, water, and nutrients.
They disrupt ecosystems by altering biodiversity, impacting wildlife habitats and potentially causing the decline or extinction of native species, often leading to significant economic and environmental damage.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/study-flags-threat-to-native-biodiversity-from-brazilian-beauty/article69289626.ece
With reference to Seagrass, consider the following:
- It is a flowering plant that grows submerged in shallow marine waters.
- It acts as a natural barrier, protecting coastal communities from storms and erosion.
- In India it is only found in Gulf of Mannar and Palk Bay.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
According to recent study, seagrass has been declining at a rate of 1-2 per cent per year for the past century and nearly 5 per cent of species are now endangered.
About Seagrass:
It is a flowering plant that grows submerged in shallow marine waters like bays and lagoons.
It is so-named because most species have long green, grass-like leaves.
Characteristics of Seagrass:
Seagrasses have roots, stems, and leaves and produce flowers and seeds.
Like terrestrial plants, seagrass also photosynthesizes and manufactures their own food and releases oxygen.
They evolved around 100 million years ago, and there are approximately 72 different seagrass species that belong to four major groups.
Distribution of Seagrass:
They are found on all continents except Antarctica.
The tropical waters of the Indo-Pacific hold the highest diversity of seagrasses in the world.
India too has vast seagrass meadows, home to 16 species of seagrass with major concentrations in the Gulf of Mannar, Palk Bay, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep Islands and the Gulf of Kutch.
Advantages of Seagrass:
They are better than trees for capturing carbon and providing food for millions of people.
Beyond supporting marine life, seagrass also acts as a natural barrier, protecting coastal communities from storms and erosion.
These underwater plants can store carbon up to 35 times faster than tropical rainforests, locking it away for thousands of years.
Threats: Pollution from cities, industries, and agriculture continues to degrade these meadows, while coastal development and tourism put additional pressure on fragile habitats of seagrass.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/seagrass-conservation-key-to-global-biodiversity-and-climate-targets-studies-show`
Which of the following is a major producing country of ‘Gum Arabic’, recently seen in the news?
Sudan
Explanation :
Gum Arabic, essential in products like Coca-Cola and M&M’s, is being increasingly trafficked from rebel-held Sudanese regions, complicating supply chains for Western companies.
About Gum Arabic:
It is a dried, water-soluble exudate that comes primarily from two species of acacia, Acacia senegal and A. seyal.
Distribution:
The trees are native to North Africa and grow mainly in the sub-Saharan or Sahel zone of Africa and also in Australia, India, and South America.
A. senegal is found in some parts of India, mainly in the dry rocky hills of south east Punjab, in the northern Aravalli hills, and in other drier parts of Rajasthan and Gujarat.
Major producing countries: Cameroon, Chad, Mali, Nigeria, and Sudan (market share of about 70%).
Properties of Gum Arabic:
It is a neutral or slightly acidic salt of a complex polysaccharide containing calcium, magnesium, and potassium cations.
It is non-toxic, odourless, and has a bland taste, and it does not affect the odour, colour or taste of the system in which it is used.
It is somewhat yellowish in colour.
It is insoluble in oils and in most organic solvents, but usually dissolves completely in hot or cold water, forming a clear, mucilaginous solution.
It yields L-arabinose, L-rhamnose, D-galactose, and D-glucuronic acid after hydrolysis.
Humans have in fact used gum arabic for thousands of years; one of its earliest known uses was as an embalming agent in ancient Egypt.
Gum Arabic has numerous applications, particularly in the food industry and in areas such as ceramics, painting, photography, and printmaking.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://brandequity.economictimes.indiatimes.com/amp/news/business-of-brands/how-a-key-ingredient-in-coca-cola-mms-is-smuggled-from-war-torn-sudan/118702593
Consider the following statements regarding Crassolabium dhritiae, recently seen in the news:
- It is a new species of soil-dwelling nematode.
- It was discovered in the Deccan peninsular biogeographic zone.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Scientists from the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), Kolkata, recently announced the discovery of a species of soil-dwelling nematode, named Crassolabium dhritiae, in the Deccan Peninsular biogeographic zone of Odisha’s Keonjhar district.
About Crassolabium dhritiae:
It is a new species of soil-dwelling nematode.
It was discovered in the Deccan peninsular biogeographic zone of Odisha’s Keonjhar district.
It has been named in honour of Dhriti Banerjee, director of ZSI, in recognition of her outstanding contributions to zoology and taxonomic research.
It is characterised by its medium-sized, slender body, rounded lip region, wide odontostyle, long pharynx, distinctive female reproductive structures, and uniquely shaped tail.
While the feeding habits of the Crassolabium genus are still being studied, members of this group are known to exhibit both predatory and omnivorous behaviours.
Crassolabium dhritiae brings the total number of known Crassolabium species worldwide to 39, with nine now recorded in India.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/kolkata/zsi-scientists-discover-soil-nematode-species-in-odisha-9869886/lite/
Consider the following statements regarding Dnipro River:
- It is the longest river in Europe.
- It flows through Russia, Belarus and Ukraine before emptying into the Black Sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Russia is launching repeated “suicidal” assaults to cross the Dnipro River in Kherson, despite heavy casualties, as part of a strategy to seize more territory before potential peace talks.
About Dnipro River:
The Dnipro (Dnieper) River is one of the major transboundary rivers of Europe.
It is the fourth-longest river in Europe (after the Volga, the Danube, and the Ural).
Located in Eastern Europe, the Dnieper River and its many tributaries drain much of Belarus and Ukraine.
Historically, the river was an important barrier dividing Ukraine into right and left banks.
Course:
It originates in Russia, in the low Valday Hills west of Moscow.
It runs a total length of 1,368 miles through western Russia, Belarus, and Ukraine before emptying into the Black Sea.
Approximately 300 miles of the waterway is located in Russia, 430 miles are in Belarus, and 680 miles are within Ukraine.
The Dnipro is a typical river of the plains, sloping gently and flowing slowly. The water level varies considerably, and the riverbed is unstable.
The Dnipro Basin covers 504,000 sq.km, of which 289,000 sq.km. are within Ukraine (48 percent of its area).
It passes through numerous urban centers such as the Russian cities of Smolensk and Dorogobuzh, as well as Mogilev in Belarus and Kiev, Cherkasy, Dnipro, and Zaporizhia in Ukraine.
It is an important navigable waterway for the economy of Ukraine and is connected by the Dnieper–Bug Canal to other waterways in Europe.
Tributaries: It has as many as 32,000 tributaries, including the Sozh, Desna, Trubizh, Bilozerka, Drut, Berezina, and Prypiat Rivers.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/videos/international/russia-makes-rapid-advances-near-nato-territory-putins-deadly-fighters-storm-dnipro-river-areas/videoshow/118707214.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Astra MK-III Missile:
- It is a beyond-visual-range (BVR) air-to-air missile designed to be mounted on fighter aircraft.
- It has a range of more than 1000 kilometers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India’s latest and most advanced air-to-air missile, the Astra MK-III, has now been officially renamed Gandiva, after the legendary bow of Arjuna from the Mahabharata.
About Astra MK-III Missile:
It is a beyond-visual-range (BVR) air-to-air missile designed to be mounted on fighter aircraft.
Still under development by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), this missile is expected to redefine the landscape of aerial warfare, especially in BVR combat.
The missile will be deployed on the IAF’s Sukhoi Su-30MKI jets and the Light Combat Aircraft Tejas.
With the eventual induction of Gandiva, India will possess one of the longest-range BVR air-to-air missiles in the world.
This missile is capable of targeting a variety of aerial threats, including enemy fighter jets, bombers, military transport aircraft, refueling planes, and Airborne Warning and Control System (AWACS) aircraft.
Features:
It has a range of 340 kilometers when the target is at an altitude of 20 kilometers, and 190 kilometers when the target is at a lower altitude of 8 kilometers.
It is powered by a dual-fuel ducted ramjet engine, enabling it to be launched from an IAF jet at sea level or as high as 20 kilometers in altitude.
The missile’s launch speed ranges from 0.8 to 2.2 Mach, with the capability to hit targets at a speed of 2.0 to 3.6 Mach.
One of its most advanced features is its ability to engage highly maneuverable fighter aircraft, with an angle of attack of up to 20 degrees.
Additionally, the Gandiva has a ±10 km snap-up/snap-down capability, allowing it to engage targets at varying altitudes—either higher or lower than the firing aircraft.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/astra-mk-iii-indias-most-advanced-air-to-air-missile-set-to-alter-balance-of-power-with-its-unmatched-range/articleshow/118726844.cms?from=mdr
When the RBI buys securities in the market, what happens?
It lowers interest rates and adds liquidity to the market.
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently announced its plan to infuse Rs 1.9 lakh crore into the banking system through open market purchases of government securities and USD/INR swaps
About Open Market Operations (OMO):
OMOs refer to a central bank selling or purchasing securities in the open market.
It is a monetary policy tool to rein in inflation and money supply in the system.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) uses OMOs in order to adjust the rupee liquidity conditions in the market on a durable basis.
When the RBI feels that there is excess liquidity in the market, it resorts to the sale of government securities, thereby sucking out the rupee liquidity.
Selling securities removes money from the system, raises interest rates, makes loans more expensive, and decreases economic activity.
However, when liquidity is sucked out, it can lead to a spike in bond yields as the RBI will release more government securities into the market, and bond buyers demand more interest rate on these securities.
Similarly, when the liquidity conditions are tight, the central bank buys securities from the market, thereby releasing liquidity into the market.
Buying securities adds money to the system, lowers interest rates, makes loans easier to obtain, and increases economic activity.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/business/india-business/rbi-to-inject-rs-1-9-lakh-crore-liquidity-via-omo-and-forex-swaps/articleshow/118739356.cms
Consider the following statements with respect to Semi-Cryogenic Engine:
It uses liquid oxygen as an oxidizer and refined kerosene as fuel.
The use of kerosene increases the overall mission costs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
ISRO recently successfully conducted the hot test on a semi-cryogenic engine (SE2000), coming closer to finalising the crucial cryogenic stage.
About Semi-Cryogenic Engine:
A semi-cryogenic engine (SCE) is a liquid rocket engine that uses liquid oxygen (LOX) as an oxidizer and refined kerosene as fuel.
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is developing a semi-cryogenic engine with a thrust of 2000 kN to power the booster stages of future heavy-lift launch vehicles. This engine utilizes a combination of liquid oxygen (LOX) and refined kerosene (RP-1) as propellants.
The semi-cryogenic engine offers several advantages over traditional cryogenic engines, including:
Higher Density Impulse: The LOX-kerosene combination provides a higher density impulse compared to LOX-liquid hydrogen, resulting in improved performance.
Cost-Effectiveness: Kerosene is more cost-effective and easier to handle than liquid hydrogen, reducing overall mission costs.
Operational Efficiency: Kerosene can be stored at ambient temperatures, simplifying storage and handling requirements.
The development of this engine is expected to enhance the payload capacity of ISRO’s existing launch vehicles, such as the LVM3, and is also planned for use in future launch vehicles like the Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV).
Difference between Semi-Cryogenic Engine and Cryogenic Engine:
Unlike a cryogenic engine, a semi-cryogenic engine uses refined kerosene instead of liquid hydrogen. The liquid oxygen is used as an oxidiser.
The advantage of using a semi-cryogenic engine is that it requires refined kerosene, which is lighter than liquid fuel and can be stored at a normal temperature.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/bangalore/isro-conducts-crucial-test-semi-cryogenic-engines-9870691/
The theme for World Obesity Day 2025 is
Changing Systems, Healthier Lives
Explanation :
On March 4, 2025, World Obesity Day highlighted alarming projections for India.
About World Obesity Day:
The World Obesity Day is a unified day of action that calls for a cohesive, cross-sector response to the obesity crisis. It takes place on 4 March and is convened by the World Obesity Federation in collaboration with its global members.
Theme: The theme for World Obesity Day 2025 is “Changing Systems, Healthier Lives,” emphasizing the need for systemic changes to address the global obesity epidemic.
Goal: The day aims to increase awareness, encourage advocacy, improve policies, and share experiences related to obesity prevention and treatment.
Since 2015, World Obesity Days have focused on recognizing the root causes of obesity, increasing knowledge of the disease, tackling weight stigma, and improving understanding, prevention, and treatment of obesity.
Obesity in India Trends:
Recent analyses published in The Lancet predict that by 2050, India, China and the United States are projected to have the highest numbers of people who are overweight or live with obesity by 2050
India is expected to have over 440 million obese and overweight people by 2050, ranking second globally after China.
The prevalence of obesity and overweight among boys in India increased from 0.46 crore in 1990, to 1.3 crore in 2021, and is projected to increase to 1.6 crore in 2050.
Among girls, it has increased from 0.45 crore in 1990, to 1.24 crore in 2021, and projected to increase to 1.44 core in 2050, according to the study.
The National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) reveals that nearly 24% of women and 22.9% of men in India are now classified as overweight or obese
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/lifestyle/health/world-obesity-day-2025-doctors-say-offices-can-prioritise-employees-health-with-flexible-hours-wellness-initiatives-101741085605145.html
Consider the following:
It rises from Mansarovar in Tibet.
It drains into the Arabian Sea.
It flows through China, India, and Pakistan.
Which of the following river is described above?
Indus
Explanation :
Pakistan has discovered vast gold reserves worth approximately Rs 80,000 crore in the Indus River bed, potentially boosting the country’s struggling economy.
About Indus River:
The Indus River is one of the longest rivers in Asia. It rises from Mansarovar in Tibet at an elevation of about 5182 m and flows for about 2880 km up to its outfall into the Arabian Sea. The length of the river in India is 800.75 km.
Tributaries: Its principal tributaries are the Sutlej, the Beas, the Ravi, the Chenab and the Jhelum.
It flows through China, India, and Pakistan, serving as a vital water source for agriculture, hydropower, and human consumption.
The Indus flows through India only through the Union Territory of Ladakh.
Drainage: The Indus basin extends over an area of 11,65,500 sq. km and lies in Tibet, India, Pakistan and Afghanistan.
The drainage area in India is 321289 sq. km. which is nearly 9.8% of the total geographical area of the country.
It is bounded on the north by the Karakoram and Haramosh ranges, on the east by the Himalayas, on the west by the Sulaiman and Kirthar ranges and on the south by the Arabian Sea.
Historical Significance: The river has played a crucial role in the development of ancient civilizations, including the Indus Valley Civilization, one of the earliest urban cultures.
Indus River Civilisation:
Indus Valley civilization is the earliest known urban culture of the northwestern regions of the Indian subcontinent.
It is one of the world’s three earliest civilizations along with Mesopotamia and ancient Egypt. This civilization flourished from approximately 3300 BCE to 1300 BCE.
Most of the sites discovered earlier, Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro, are present in the Indus valley which gives the name to it. Harappa was the first excavated site therefore, it is also called Harappan culture.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/pakistan-uncovers-massive-rs-80000-crore-gold-deposit-whats-the-surprising-india-connection/articleshow/118716716.cms#:~:text=In%20a%20surprising%20twist%2C%20Pakistan,nation%20struggling%20with%20financial%20instability
Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to US-Ukraine Mineral Deal?
The deal establishes a joint Reconstruction Investment Fund.
It also includes security guarantees for Ukraine.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 only
Explanation :
U.S. President Donald Trump’s administration and Ukraine plan to sign the much-debated minerals deal following a disastrous Oval Office meeting.
About US-Ukraine Mineral Deal:
The US-Ukraine Mineral Deal is a bilateral agreement aimed at providing the United States access to Ukraine’s vast mineral reserves, particularly critical raw materials.
The deal establishes a joint Reconstruction Investment Fund, managed equally by Kyiv and Washington, to support Ukraine’s post-war rebuilding efforts.
Ukraine will contribute 50% of future revenues from its state-owned mineral resources, oil, and gas to the fund, which will then be reinvested in projects within Ukraine.
The agreement aims to strengthen economic ties between the two nations and help the United States diversify its critical minerals supply chain, reducing dependence on China.
However, the deal does not include explicit security guarantees for Ukraine, focusing primarily on economic cooperation and resource development.
Ukraine Mineral Reserves:
Ukraine possesses significant reserves of rare-earth minerals essential for various high-tech industries, including aerospace, defence, and renewable energy.
According to data from the Ukrainian geologic survey, Ukraine possesses 5% of the world’s mineral resources, including 23 of the 50 materials deemed critical by the U.S. government.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.businesstoday.in/world/us/story/after-trump-zelenskyys-disastrous-oval-office-meet-us-ukraine-plan-to-sign-minerals-deal-466712-2025-03-05
Consider the following statements with respect to Ayushman Arogya Mandir:
It is a selective approach to health care to deliver a comprehensive range of services.
It will deliver free and universal Comprehensive Primary Health Care to users.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Delhi gets three Ayushman Arogya Mandirs, focusing on holistic patient care and disease prevention.
About Ayushman Arogya Mandir:
It is an attempt to move from a selective approach to health care to deliver a comprehensive range of services spanning preventive, curative, rehabilitative and palliative care.
It has two components which are complementary to each other.
Under its first component, 1,50,000 Ayushman Arogya Mandir will be created to deliver Comprehensive Primary Health Care, that is universal and free to users, with a focus on wellness and the delivery of an expanded range of services closer to the community.
The second component is the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY) which provides health insurance coverage of Rs. 5 lakhs per year to over 10 crore poor and vulnerable families seeking secondary and tertiary care.
Ayushman Arogya Mandirs offer a wide array of services, including preventive, promotive, curative, rehabilitative, and palliative care.
As of January 31, 2025, 1,76,141 Ayushman Arogya Mandirs have been operationalised throughout India.
Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY:
Ayushman Bharat, a flagship scheme of the Government of India, was launched as recommended by the National Health Policy 2017, to achieve the vision of Universal Health Coverage (UHC).
It is the largest health assurance scheme in the world which aims at providing a health cover of Rs. 5 lakhs per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization to over 12 crores poor and vulnerable families (approximately 55 crore beneficiaries) that form the bottom 40% of the Indian population.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/delhi/delhi-gets-three-ayushman-arogya-mandirs-focus-on-holistic-patient-care-9871045/#:~:text=Over%20a%20week%20after%20the,Ayushman%20Arogya%20Mandirs%20(AAMs).
Consider the following statements regarding the Parvatmala Pariyojana:
- The main objective is the development of self-sustainable and world-class highways in hilly regions.
- The projects under the programme are being implemented through Public-Private Partnership with around 60% contribution support by the Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The union cabinet recently approved two major ropeway projects- Govindghat to Hemkund Sahib Ji (12.4 km) and Sonprayag to Kedarnath (12.9 km)- in Uttarakhand, which will be developed under National Ropeways Development Programme – Parvatmala Pariyojana.
About Parvatmala Pariyojana:
The National Ropeways Development Programme, known as the ‘Parvatmala Pariyojana’, was announced in the 2022-23 Union Budget.
Under the Parvatmala Pariyojana, the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways envisages the provision of safe, economical, convenient, efficient, self-sustainable & world-class ropeway infrastructure providing first- and last-mile connectivity to improve logistics efficiency in India.
The programme aims to improve connectivity and convenience for commuters in hilly regions and to decongest urban areas where the conventional mode of transport is saturated or not feasible.
The aim is to improve connectivity and convenience for commuters, besides promoting tourism.
For the development of ropeway infrastructure in dense forests, in urban areas, and in difficult terrains, the ministry is collaborating with various state governments/UT administrations.
The Centre has identified more than 200 projects at a cost of Rs 1.25 lakh crore under the programme.
The projects are being implemented through Public-Private Partnership with around 60% contribution support by the Government of India.
Implementing Agency:
The National Highways Logistics Management Limited (NHLML) has been mandated by the ministry to implement the project.
It is a 100% owned SPV of the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI).
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/cabinet-approves-two-ropeway-projects-uttarakhand-parvatmala-pariyojana-9870530/
Which among the following best describes ‘Vitiligo’?
It is a condition that causes loss of skin color.
Explanation :
New research shows gut-friendly bacteria may slow vitiligo progression, offering hope for millions with autoimmune disease.
About Vitiligo:
Vitiligo is a disease that causes loss of skin color in patches.
The condition can affect the skin on any part of the body.
It generally starts on your hands, forearms, feet and face.
The discolored areas usually get bigger with time.
It can also affect hair and the inside of the mouth.
Causes:
The condition occurs when your body’s immune system destroys melanocytes.
Melanocytes are skin cells that produce melanin, the chemical that gives skin its color, or pigmentation.
While research is ongoing to learn more about the causes of vitiligo, studies indicate that about 30% of vitiligo cases are genetic.
Vitiligo affects all races and sexes equally. It’s more visible in people with darker skin tones.
Globally, about 1% of the population has vitiligo.
Treatment:
The condition is not life-threatening or contagious.
Treatment for vitiligo may restore color to the affected skin.
But it doesn’t prevent continued loss of skin color or a recurrence.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/harnessing-the-gut-microbiome-to-halt-vitiligo-patches/article69297680.ece
Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple (BRT) Tiger Reserve lies in which state?
Karnataka
Explanation :
An Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ) monitoring committee meeting held recently decided that new commercial construction shall not be permitted within 1 km from the boundary of the Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple (BRT) Tiger Reserve or up to the ESZ, whichever is nearer.
About Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple (BRT) Tiger Reserve:
It is located in the Chamarajanagar district of Karnataka State.
It is in the middle of the bridge between Western and Eastern Ghats in South India.
It was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2011.
The total area of the Tiger Reserve is 574.82 sq.km.
The reserve gets its name from Biligiri, meaning “white rocky cliff,” which is home to the ancient Rangaswamy Temple dedicated to Lord Vishnu.
It is also believed that the hill range gets its name due to white mist and silvery clouds which cover these lofty hills for a greater part of the year.
The Soliga tribe, an indigenous people, inhabit the area and co-exist with wildlife.
Vegetation: The reserve’s diverse climatic conditions and elevation changes have resulted in a much-diversified mosaic of habitats that includes practically all major forest vegetation types, including scrub, deciduous, riparian, evergreen, sholas, and grasslands.
Flora: TThe major species include Anogeissus latifolia, Dalbergia paniculata, Grewia teliaefolia, Terminalia alata, Terminalia bellirica, Terminalia paniculata, etc.
Fauna: Animals including tiger, elephant, leopard, wild dog, bison, sambar, spotted deer, barking deer, four-horned antelope, sloth bear, wild boar, common langur, bonnet macaque, varieties of reptiles, birds, etc., are found in the Tiger Reserve.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/karnataka/monitoring-committee-rejects-commercial-buildings-near-brt-tiger-reserve-esz-3435106
With reference to D-Voters or Doubtful Voters, consider the following statements:
- D-voters are not allowed to vote in elections.
- D-voters can run for office in elections.
- The D-voter classification is a temporary measure.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Assam’s opposition recently raised concerns over the plight of ‘D’ (Doubtful) voters in Assam, demanding the closure of the state’s only detention centre, now termed a transit camp, and the tabling of the National Register of Citizens (NRC) report in the Assembly.
About D-Voter:
D-voters or doubtful voters, are a category of voters in Assam who couldn’t give evidence to prove their Indian nationality and whose cases are pending with the Foreigners Tribunals or who have been declared foreigners by the Tribunal.
The D-voter category was introduced by the Election Commission of India in 1997.
Because their Indian citizenship has not been verified, doubtful voters are not allowed to vote in elections.
They are also not permitted to run for office in the nation’s elections.
However, ‘doubtful voter’ or ‘doubtful citizenship’ have not been defined in the Citizenship Act, 1955, or the Citizenship Rules of 2003.
The Citizenship Rules, 2003, was framed under the provisions of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003.
The rules framed in 2003 list out the steps to be followed for the preparation of the National Population Register (NPR) and the National Register of Indian Citizens (NRIC).
It has only been stated that the Local Registrar will include the details of individuals whose citizenship is in doubt with an “appropriate remark in the population register for further enquiry” under subsection 4 of section 4, which deals with the production of the National Register of Indian Citizens (NRIC).
A family or individual is notified in a specific pro forma as soon as the verification process concludes, whether they have been classified as a dubious citizen (D-Category).
Before deciding whether or not to add their name to the register, they are also given the opportunity to be heard by the Taluk or Sub-district Registrar of Citizenship.
The Registrar has ninety days to complete and justify his findings.
The marking as a doubtful voter is a temporary measure and cannot be prolonged. Within a specific timeframe, a decision needs to be made.
According to the documentation provided, if it is determined that the individual is a foreign national or an illegal immigrant, they may be deported or placed in a detention centre.
D- Voters can also apply to have their names added to the NRC.
They will be included only after they get clearance from the Foreigners Tribunals and their names are removed from electoral rolls under the ‘D’ category.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatodayne.in/assam/story/assam-opposition-demands-nrc-report-closure-of-detention-centre-over-d-voters-crisis-1179764-2025-03-05
Consider the following statements regarding Panchaganga River, recently seen in the news:
- It is a major tributary of the Krishna River.
- It flows entirely through the state of Maharashtra.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Maharashtra govt recently appointed a panel to investigate the causes of pollution in Panchaganga river.
About Panchaganga River:
It is a major tributary of the Krishna River, flowing through Maharashtra.
Course:
It originates from Prayag Sangam in the Sahyadri mountain ranges.
The birthplace of this river is called Chikhlee Taluka, a small village in the district of Kolhapur, Maharashtra.
It is formed by the confluence of five rivers—Kasari, Kumbhi, Tulsi, Bhogawati, and Saraswati.
From there, the river flows approximately 80 km before eventually joining the Krishna River in Maharashtra.
The Panchganga River holds immense spiritual significance. The banks of the river are adorned with numerous temples and shrines.
The valley of the Panchaganga River is very fertile, and its sloping banks yield rich crops during the winter season.
The waters of all the streams which join to form the Panchaganga are much used for growing sugarcane.
Since the last decade, its pollution level has been increasing fast. The pollution of the Panchaganga River is due to the disposal of untreated municipal sewage from the Kolhapur town.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/kolhapur/maha-appoints-panel-to-probe-pollution-in-panchaganga-river/articleshow/118742994.cms
Which of the following statements best describes Viatina-19, recently in the news?
A genetically superior Nelore breed cow from Brazil
Explanation :
In February 2025, an Ongole cow named Viatina-19 was sold for a record-breaking 4.38 million USD (approximately INR 40 crore) in Brazil’s Minas Gerais.
About Viatina-19
Viatina-19 is a Nelore breed cow (Ongole cattle), renowned for its exceptional genetic qualities. The Nelore breed, originating from India and now prevalent in Brazil, is prized for its adaptability.
They are known for their unique genetic traits, including exceptional physical strength, heat resistance, and superior muscular structure. These qualities make them highly desirable for dairy.
The Nelore breed is well known for its ability to adapt to tropical climates and disease resistance. Due to this, Viatina-19’s embryos are in high demand globally for breeding programs.
However, in India, the original home of the Ongoles, the breed is facing the threat of extinction, its numbers halving from 15 lakh in 1944 to 6.34 lakh in the 2019 Livestock Census.
The price of the cattle, too, is relatively low in India – Rs 1 lakh for a cow and Rs 10 to 15 lakh for a prized bull.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/long-reads/worlds-costliest-cow-booming-in-brazil-but-dwindling-in-india-9872907/#:~:text=In%20February%2C%20an%20Ongole%20purebred,226%20million%20cattle%20are%20Ongoles
Consider the following statements regarding the Pashu Aushadhi Initiative:
It has been modeled after the Pradhan Mantri Bharatiya Janaushadhi Kendras (PMBJK) to provide affordable generic veterinary medicines.
The initiative is part of the Livestock Health and Disease Control Programme (LHDCP).
Pashu Aushadhi Kendras will be operated exclusively by private pharmaceutical companies.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The government will open “Pashu Aushadhi” stores across the country to provide affordable generic veterinary medicines to people engaged in animal husbandry and dairying.
About Pashu Aushadhi Initiative:
The Pashu Aushadhi initiative has been conceptualised on the lines of the existing Pradhan Mantri Bharatiya Janaushadhi Kendras (PMBJK), which provide “quality generic medicines at affordable prices” to people to “bring down the healthcare budget of every citizen of India”.
The Pashu Aushadhi initiative is part of the revised Livestock Health and Disease Control Programme (LHDCP), which was approved by the Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister.
The Pashu Aushadhi stores will be run by cooperative societies and Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samriddhi Kendras (PMKSK).
The Pashu Aushadhi Kendras will also sell ethnoveterinary medicines, based on traditional beliefs and indigenous knowledge and practices, to treat animal diseases.
It has been allocated ₹75 crore to ensure the availability of high-quality, affordable generic veterinary medicines.
These medicines will be distributed through PM-Kisan Samriddhi Kendras and cooperative societies, making essential animal healthcare more accessible to farmers.
Livestock Health and Disease Control Program
The Government of India implements the Livestock Health and Disease Control Programme (LHDCP) across the country with the primary objective of reducing risks to animal health through various measures since 2022.
The program focuses on prophylactic vaccination against key animal diseases, capacity building of veterinary services, disease surveillance, and strengthening veterinary infrastructure.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/pashu-aushadhi-govt-plans-jan-aushadhi-livestock-health-9871542/
Bangus Valley is located in which of the following State/Union Territory?
Jammu and Kashmir
Explanation :
The Jammu and Kashmir government on Thursday (March 6, 2025) announced a new set of rules for Bangus, a far-off tourist spot near the Line of Control (LoC) in north Kashmir, in a bid to promote it as an ecotourism destination.
About Bangus Valley:
Lying within the Trans-Himalayan area, Bangus is a unique ecological combination comprising a mountain biome, which includes a grassland biome with flora at lower altitudes; and Taiga or Coniferous forest.
The valley which lies at an altitude of around 10,000 ft. above sea level is in the northern part of district Kupwara within the Handwara sub District.
Occupying an estimated area of 300 sq. km, the principal valley locally known as Bodh Bangus (Big Bangus) consists of a linear elliptical bowl aligned along the east-west axis.
The valley is surrounded by Rajwar and Mawar in the east, Shamasbury and Dajlungun Mountains in the west and Chowkibal and Karnah Guli in the north.
A smaller valley known as Lokut Bangus (Small Bangus) lies on the north-eastern side of the main valley.
Both the valleys have level green meadows surrounded by low-lying mountains covered with dense Coniferous forests (budloo) and a stream flowing through them.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/jammu-and-kashmir/jk-govt-to-promote-bangus-valley-near-loc-as-ecotourism-destination/article69298562.ece
Consider the following statements regarding AI Kosha:
AI Kosha provides an open-source AI sandbox with an integrated development environment, tools, and tutorials.
It is an initiative by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) launched AI Kosha, a non-personal datasets platform, along with the GPU access portal under the IndiaAI Mission.
About AI Kosha:
AI Kosha is an initiative by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) designed to serve as a unified repository for datasets, tools, and AI models.
It aims to enhance access to datasets and models from various sources to boost AI innovation, support AI solution development with shared toolkits, and showcase use cases to inspire new applications.
It serves as a central repository, offering over 300 datasets, 80+ models, and diverse AI use cases.
AIKosha also features an AI sandbox with an integrated development environment, tools, and tutorials.
Key security measures include content discoverability, AI readiness scoring, permission-based access, data encryption, secure APIs, and real-time firewalls to ensure safe and efficient AI development.
What is the IndiaAI Mission?
The IndiaAI Mission is a comprehensive initiative launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) to build a robust AI ecosystem in India.
The IndiaAI Mission, with an allocation of Rs. 10,300 crore (US$ 1.18 billion) over five years, is building a high-performance computing infrastructure with 18,693 Graphics Processing Units (GPUs) and launching an open GPU marketplace to empower startups, students, and researchers.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2108961
Consider the following statements regarding the Antarctic Circumpolar Current (ACC):
It is the only ocean current that connects the Atlantic, Pacific, and Indian Oceans.
It act as a natural barrier preventing non-native marine species from reaching Antarctica.
The ACC is weaker than the Gulf Stream but plays a significant role in regulating global climate by distributing heat and nutrients.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A groundbreaking study has revealed that the Antarctic Circumpolar Current (ACC)—the world’s most powerful ocean current—is slowing down due to melting ice sheets.
About Antarctic Circumpolar Current
The Antarctic Circumpolar Current (ACC) is the strongest ocean current globally, flowing clockwise (from west to east) around Antarctica and connecting the Atlantic, Pacific, and Indian Oceans.
As the only ocean current connecting the Atlantic, Pacific, and Indian Oceans, the ACC is five times stronger than the Gulf Stream and over 100 times more powerful than the Amazon River.
The Antarctic Circumpolar Current separates the Southern Ocean from the Atlantic, Pacific, and Indian oceans at 60° S latitude, which roughly coincides with the current’s southern boundary.
It plays a critical role in regulating Earth’s climate by distributing heat, water, and nutrients worldwide. Beyond climate regulation, the ACC acts as a natural barrier, preventing non-native marine species from reaching Antarctica.
However, the rapid melting of Antarctic ice due to rising global temperatures is introducing large volumes of freshwater into the ocean, which can disrupt the ACC’s flow.
Potential Impacts of ACC Slowdown
Climate Regulation: A slowdown of the ACC could lead to more extreme climate events and alter weather patterns globally.
Marine Ecosystems: Changes in the ACC can disrupt nutrient distribution, affecting marine biodiversity and fisheries.
Carbon Sequestration: The ocean’s ability to absorb carbon dioxide may decrease, potentially accelerating global warming.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.news18.com/viral/antarctic-ocean-current-slowing-down-due-to-melting-ice-study-warns-of-global-impact-aa-9250406.html
In the context of insider trading, what does UPSI stand for?
Unpublished Price Sensitive Information
Explanation :
Nestle India recently said it received a warning from the country’s markets regulator for a breach of insider trading regulations “by a designated person of the company”.
About Insider Trading:
Insider trading, also known as insider dealing, is the malpractice of selling or buying a company’s securities by the insiders of a company.
Who is an insider?
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) defines an ‘insider’ as someone who has access to price-sensitive information about a particular company’s shares or securities.
An insider can be anyone who has been associated with the company in some way during the six months preceding the insider trade.
That person could be an employee, a director, relative, banker or a legal counsel to the company, or even an official of the stock exchanges, trustees or employees of an asset management company (AMC) that worked with the company.
Insiders, who have access to confidential and exclusive information about the issuer of a particular security or stock, benefit from buying or selling undisclosed securities before they fluctuate in price.
What is Unpublished Price Sensitive Information (UPSI)?
UPSI refers to a piece of exclusive information related to a firm’s stock prices, quarterly results, acquisition deals, mergers, or any kind of sensitive activities that have not been shared with the public at large.
When insiders are able to access the UPSI, they illegally conduct trade dealings for personal gains.
Insider trading is one of the most serious malpractices that exists in the market.
In India, insider trades are regulated by the SEBI under the Insider Trading Regulations, 2015.
To prevent such acts of insider trading and to promote fair trading in the market for the interest of common investors, SEBI has prohibited the firms from purchasing their own shares from the secondary market.
SEBI can impose fines and prohibit individuals or entities from trading in the capital market if found in violation of rules.
For example, a company director informs his friend about a yet-to-be-declared deal, and the latter disseminates that information to his colleagues, who then buy that company’s stocks.
Then, the manager, his friend, and his colleagues are liable to be booked by SEBI for violation of PTI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/nestle-india-receives-warning-from-sebi-for-insider-trading-breach/article69304315.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the World Spice Organisation (WSO):
- It undertakes social responsibility projects beneficial for the industry.
- The primary objective of WSO is facilitating the spice industry in dealing with issues of “Food Safety & Sustainability”.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Chairman of the World Spice Organisation (WSO) recently stated that India holds a meager 0.7% share in the global seasoning market, valued at $14 billion in 2024, compared to China’s 12% and the U.S.A.’s 11%.
About World Spice Organisation (WSO):
It is a not-for-profit organisation established in 2011 in Kochi, Kerala, the spice capital of India.
It is registered under the Travancore Cochin Literary, Scientific, and Charitable Societies Act, 1956.
Objective: Facilitating the spice industry in dealing with issues of “Food Safety & Sustainability”.
WSO seeks to achieve its objectives by involving all its stakeholders—the general public, the industry, academia, and the end-users.
WSO undertakes social responsibility projects beneficial for the industry.
WSO is involved in initiatives promoting sustainability and biodiversity in collaboration with prominent national and international organizations like Spices Board India, Indian Institute of Spice Research (IISR), Rainforest Alliance, GIZ (Germany), and IDH - The Sustainable Trade Initiative (Netherlands).
WSO also interacts with global spice associations like the American Spice Trade Association (ASTA), European Spice Association (ESA), International Pepper Community (IPC), etc to resolve issues facing the spice industry.
WSO takes part in the various national and international standard-setting processes pertaining to spices, such as FSSAI, BIS, ISO, and Codex, in order to ensure that the interests of the industry are considered while setting the standards.
It is the technical partner of the All India Spices Exporters Forum (AISEF).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/indias-share-in-global-seasoning-market-a-paltry-07-despite-being-worlds-largest-producer-wso/article69286921.ece
Which of the following is not a function of the Central Electricity Authority (CEA)?
Setting electricity tariffs for different states.
Explanation :
The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) recently issued guidelines to promote efficient allocation, sharing, and utilisation of optical fibres that will contribute to better resource management across the power sector.
About Central Electricity Authority (CEA):
It is a statutory body established under section 3(1) of the Electricity Supply Act 1948, which was repealed by section 70(1) of the Electricity Act 2003.
It is an “Attached Office” of the Ministry of Power.
Functions: The Authority shall perform such functions and duties as the Central Government may prescribe or direct, and in particular to:
advise the Central Government on matters relating to the national electricity policy, formulate short-term and perspective plans for the development of the electricity system, and coordinate the activities of the planning agencies for the optimal utilisation of resources to subserve the interests of the national economy and to provide reliable and affordable electricity for all consumers;
specify the technical standards for the construction of electrical plants, electric lines, and connectivity to the grid;
specify the safety requirements for the construction, operation and maintenance of electrical plants and electric lines;
specify the grid standards for operation and maintenance of transmission lines;
specify the conditions for the installation of meters for transmission and supply of electricity;
promote and assist in the timely completion of schemes and projects for improving and augmenting the electricity system;
promote measures for advancing the skill of persons engaged in the electricity industry;
advise the Central Government on any matter on which its advice is sought or make recommendations to that Government on any matter if, in the opinion of the Authority, the recommendation would help in improving the generation, transmission, trading, distribution, and utilisation of electricity;
collect and record the data concerning the generation, transmission, trading, distribution and utilisation of electricity and carry out studies relating to cost, efficiency, competitiveness, and such like matters;
make public from time to time the information secured under this Act and provide for the publication of reports and investigations;
promote research in matters affecting the generation, transmission, distribution and trading of electricity;
carry out, or cause to be carried out, any investigation for the purposes of generating, transmitting, or distributing electricity;
advise any State Government, licensees, or the generating companies on such matters, which shall enable them to operate and maintain the electricity system under their ownership or control in an improved manner and, where necessary, in coordination with any other Government, licensee, or the generating company owning or having control of another electricity system;
advise the appropriate Government and the appropriate Commission on all technical matters relating to the generation, transmission, and distribution of electricity; and
discharge such other functions as may be provided under this Act;
Organisation Structure:
It is headed by a Chairman, who is also ex-officio Secretary to the Government of India, and comprises six full-time Members.
They are designated as Member (Thermal), Member (Hydro), Member (Economic and Commercial), Member (Power Systems), Member (Planning) and Member (Grid Operation and Distribution).
In India, state-wise electricity rates per unit are determined by the respective State Electricity Regulatory Commissions (SERCs), guided by the Electricity Act 2003 and the National Tariff Policy.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.cnbctv18.com/energy/central-electricity-authority-optical-fibre-guidelines-power-sector-19569304.htm
In which Indian state does the Tunga River flow?
Karnataka
Explanation :
The Karnataka State Pollution Control Board (KSPCB) recently identified seven sources of pollution in the Tunga river, while the district administration is investigating encroachments along its banks.
About Tunga River:
The Tunga River, also known as the Thunga River, is an important river flowing in the Karnataka state.
Course:
The river originates in the Western Ghats on a hill called Varaha Parvata.
The birthplace of Tunga is called Gangamoola, which is a cave inside Varaha Parvatha.
The river flows for 147 kilometers and then merges with the Bhadra River at Koodli, which is a small town near the city of Shimoga, Karnataka.
From this stage the river becomes the Tungabhadra River, which then starts flowing in the east direction and eventually merges with the Krishna River in the state of Andhra Pradesh.
Tunga River is known for its pure, pristine waters.
It is also well known for housing a number of religious spots on its bank.
Sringeri, a town located in the Chikmagalur district on the banks of the Tunga River has several temples.
The Sarada Temple and the Vidyasankara Temple are the most temples on the bank of the Tunga.
Gajanur (Tunga) is an s-shaped dam constructed over the river.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/karnataka/kspcb-identifies-seven-pollution-sources-in-tunga-river-3435782
Consider the following statements with respect to Brahmastra Missile:
- It is a hypersonic glide missile developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
- It has a range of more than 3000 kilometers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Indian scientists have developed a modern-day ‘Brahmastra’ with an astonishing speed of 12,144 km per hour.
About Brahmastra Missile:
This weapon, named the Long Range Anti-Ship Missile (LRAShM), is a hypersonic glide missile.
It was developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
It outperforms similar missiles like China’s DF-17 in terms of range and technology.
Features:
With a range of 1,500 km, this missile can obliterate an enemy ship or warship within 7 to 8 minutes of being launched.
It can be deployed from both land and sea, offering versatility in combat scenarios
This missile operates at 10 Mach, making it 10 times faster than the speed of sound. This allows it to travel 3.37 km in just one second.
The incorporation of special heat-resistant materials ensures the missile can withstand extreme temperatures without disintegrating during flight, setting a new benchmark in scramjet and glide technology.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.news18.com/india/lrash-missile-with-a-speed-of-12144-km-h-drdo-brings-mahabharata-concept-to-life-ws-ab-9252602.html
Amrut Biodiversity Park, recently seen in news, is located in:
Delhi
Explanation :
Lieutenant Governor VK Saxena recently inaugurated the Amrut Biodiversity Park next to the Commonwealth Games Village.
About Amrut Biodiversity Park:
The Amrut Biodiversity Park, built as part of the Delhi Development Authority’s Yamuna Floodplain Restoration initiative, is a joint venture between the authority and the CSIR-National Botanical Research Institute, Lucknow.
Spanning around 115 hectares, it is located along National Highway 24 and next to the Commonwealth Games Village in Delhi.
The park features 14,500 native plants and tree species and 3,20,000 riverine grasses, including blue panic grass and sarkanda. It aims to provide the people with a clean and refreshing environment while increasing the city’s green spaces.
The project is distinct from the rest of the biodiversity parks in its theme – India’s freedom struggle.
It features tracks named ‘First War of Independence’, ‘Santhal Rebellion’, ‘Champaran Satyagraha’, ‘Dandi March’ and ‘Azad Hind Fauj’.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/delhi/delhi-l-g-saxena-inaugurates-amrut-biodiversity-park-which-is-themed-on-indias-freedom-struggle-9874192/
Consider the following statements with reference to the creation of woolly mice:
Scientists used CRISPR technology to modify some genes in laboratory mice.
The project involved creating genetic modifications that would increase the body fat levels in mice to match those found in mammoths.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Scientists have successfully edited mouse DNA with genes from the woolly mammoth, creating the world’s first furry “woolly mice.” This breakthrough provides insights into how ancient species adapted to extreme cold.
About Woolly Mice:
The woolly mice have been genetically engineered by modifying seven genes that code for traits like hair length, thickness, and colour. These modifications include genes such as FGF5 for longer hair and MC1R for a golden coat.
Purpose: The creation of woolly mice serves as a proof-of-concept for the feasibility of gene editing in de-extinction efforts. It demonstrates the ability to recreate complex genetic combinations that took nature millions of years to develop
How did the scientists create woolly mice?
Identifying Mammoth Genes: Scientists first compared mammoth DNA with their closest living relative, the Asian elephant, to identify genetic differences related to hair length, thickness, texture, colour, and body fat.
Selecting Relevant Traits: They selected 10 mammoth gene variants linked to these traits and matched them with similar known genetic variants in laboratory mice for targeted gene editing.
Gene Editing in Mice: Using CRISPR technology, scientists made eight precise edits to modify seven genes in the mice, incorporating mammoth-like traits responsible for a woolly coat and cold adaptation.
Result: The genetically modified mice were born with thicker, longer fur, confirming that the selected mammoth genes influenced hair growth and cold resistance, as predicted by computational analysis.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/woolly-mammoth-mice-new-research-extinct-9871684/
Consider the following with reference to Ladki Bahin Yojana:
The scheme provides financial assistance of Rs 1,500 per month to eligible women through Direct Benefit Transfer.
The primary objective of the scheme is to support economically disadvantaged women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Maharashtra government disbursed ₹17,500 crore to 2.38 crore women under the Majhi Ladki Bahin Yojana till December 2024, stated the Economic Survey tabled in the State Assembly.
About Ladki Bahin Yojana:
The Mukhyamantri Majhi Ladki Bahin Yojana, commonly referred to as the Ladki Bahin Yojana, is a key welfare program introduced by the Maharashtra Government in 2024.
Objective: It aims to provide financial support to economically disadvantaged women aged 21 to 65, promoting their rehabilitation, economic development, and empowerment.
Eligibility Criteria: To qualify for the Ladki Bahin Yojana, the applicant must be a permanent resident of Maharashtra.
Age Limit: The applicant should be between 21 and 65 years old.
Family Income: The combined annual income of the applicant’s family must not exceed ₹2.5 lakh.
Income Tax: No family member should be an income taxpayer.
Benefits: Under this scheme, eligible women will receive Rs 1,500 per month through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/ladki-bahin-yojana-2-52-crore-women-to-receive-8th-9th-instalments-today-125030700468_1.html
With respect to SpaceX’s Starship spacecraft, consider the following:
1.Starship is a fully reusable super heavy-lift launch vehicle.
- The Starship system is designed to be capable of carrying up to 250 metric tonnes in an expendable configuration.
- Starship utilizes ten engines in total, combining both Raptor and Raptor Vacuum engines for operation in Earth’s atmosphere and space.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
SpaceX’s Starship spacecraft exploded on Thursday minutes after lifting off from Texas, dooming an attempt to deploy mock satellites in the second consecutive failure this year for Elon Musk’s Mars rocket program.
About SpaceX Starship:
Starship is a two-stage fully reusable super heavy-lift launch vehicle under development by American aerospace company SpaceX.
Starship is the collective name for a two-component system consisting of the Starship spacecraft (which carries the crew and cargo) and the Super Heavy rocket.
Super Heavy: It is the first stage, or booster, of the Starship launch system. Powered by 33 Raptor engines using sub-cooled liquid methane (CH4) and liquid oxygen (LOX).
It is the world’s most powerful launch vehicle ever developed, capable of carrying up to 150 metric tonnes fully reusable and 250 metric tonnes expendable.
The vehicle comes in several different configurations, offers an integrated payload section and is capable of carrying crew and cargo to Earth orbit, the Moon, Mars and beyond.
It is also capable of point-to-point transport on Earth, enabling travel to anywhere in the world in one hour or less.
Starship is powered by six engines, three Raptor engines, and three Raptor Vacuum (RVac) engines, which are designed for use in the vacuum of space.
Raptor engine: It is a reusable methane-oxygen staged-combustion engine that powers the Starship system and has twice the thrust of the Falcon 9 Merlin engine.
What is Mechazilla?
It is the nickname for the large 400-ft rocket-catching structure at SpaceX’s Starbase.
It features two enormous mechanical arms, often referred to as “chopsticks.” These arms are designed to catch the Super Heavy booster in mid-air as it returns to Earth.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.theguardian.com/us-news/2025/mar/06/spacex-starship-explodes-musk
World’s oldest known meteorite impact crater has been discovered in
Australia
Explanation :
Scientists in Australia have discovered the world’s oldest known meteorite impact crater in northwestern Australia, estimated to be 3.47 billion years old.
About World’s Oldest Impact Crater:
Scientists in Australia have identified what they believe to be the world’s oldest known meteorite impact crater, a finding that could reshape understanding of Earth’s history and the origins of life.
The crater, discovered in the remote North Pole dome region in northwestern Australia, is estimated to be 3.47 billion years old—more than a billion years older than any previously known impact site.
The crater, named the North Pole Crater, was likely formed by a meteorite striking Earth at more than 36,000 kilometres per hour, creating an impact site over 100 kilometres wide. The collision may have sent debris flying across the planet, with molten droplets possibly landing as far away as South Africa.
This discovery challenges previous assumptions about Earth’s ancient history and suggests that such impacts may have contributed to the origins of life by creating environments suitable for microbial activity.
What is an Impact Crater?
An impact crater forms when a fast-moving asteroid or meteorite crashes into a planet or moon.
The impact is so powerful that it vaporizes the object, creating shockwaves that melt and reshape the ground, leaving a large circular hole with scattered rocks.
Examples: Barringer Crater, Tycho Crater, etc.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/rest-of-world/scientists-discover-worlds-oldest-meteorite-crater-in-australia-that-explain-a-lot-about-how-life-may-have-got-started/articleshow/118766610.cms
With reference to Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS), consider the following statements:
- It is a rare infectious disease that can lead to life-threatening lung and heart problems.
- It is spread through direct person-to-person contact.
- There is no specific treatment for HPS.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Oscar-winning actor Gene Hackman recently died of heart disease a few days after his wife Betsy Arakawa’s death due to hantavirus pulmonary syndrome.
About Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS):
It is a rare infectious disease that begins with flu-like symptoms and progresses rapidly to more severe disease.
It can lead to life-threatening lung and heart problems.
The disease is also called hantavirus cardiopulmonary syndrome.
Several strains of the hantavirus can cause hantavirus pulmonary syndrome.
Transmission:
They are spread mainly by rodents like rats and mice and are not spread from person to person.
Infection is usually caused by inhaling hantaviruses that have become airborne from rodent urine, droppings, or saliva.
Though rare, it can also spread through rodent bites or scratches.
Symptoms:
Symptoms often start with fatigue, fever, and muscle aches, followed by headaches, dizziness, chills, and abdominal issues.
If respiratory symptoms develop, the mortality rate is approximately 38%.
Treatment: There is no specific treatment for hantavirus infection, but early medical care can help if serious disease develops.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/hantavirus-all-about-virus-that-killed-gene-hackmans-wife-betsy-arakawa-7875706
Consider the following statements:
- It is located in the Dibrugarh and Tinsukia districts of Assam.
- It is often referred to as the ‘Amazon of the East‘.
- It is famous for its largest stretch of tropical lowland rainforests in India.
- The climate of the region is mostly tropical with an annual rainfall of more than 4,000 mm.
The above statements correctly describe which one of the following protected areas?
Dehing Patkai National Park
Explanation :
A camera trap inside Dehing Patkai National Park has recorded a rare sighting of a Clouded Leopard (Neofelis nebulosa), a species classified as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.
About Dehing Patkai National Park:
It is located in the Dibrugarh and Tinsukia districts of Assam.
It lies in the Dehing Patkai Landscape, which is a dipterocarp-dominated lowland rainforest.
It is situated at the foothills of Patkai Hill Ranges, on the banks of the River Dehing (Tributary of Brahmaputra), and adjacent to the Namdapha Wildlife Sanctuary.
It is often referred to as the ‘Amazon of the East‘ owing to its expanse and the thick forest.
It is famous for its largest stretch of tropical lowland rainforests in India, covering an area of 231.65 sq.km. of Dehing Patkai rainforest.
It was declared a wildlife sanctuary on 13 June 2004. On 13 December 2020, Government of Assam upgraded it into a national park.
The climate of the region is mostly tropical with an annual rainfall of more than 4,000 mm.
There are more than a dozen different ethnic groups living in the area including the indigenous Assamese communities, particularly Tai Phake, Khamyang, Khampti, Singpho, Nocte, Ahom, Kaibarta, Moran and Motok, Burmese, and non-indigenous Nepali people.
Vegetation: The park is a deciduous rainforest with semi-evergreen and lush green flora.
Flora: It is dominated by species like Hollong, Nahor, Mekai, Paroli, Simul, various orchids, ferns, cane, and bamboo.
Fauna: The rich biodiversity includes diverse species such as slow loris, pig-tailed macaque, stump-tailed macaque, capped langur, Indian leopard, Asian elephant, royal Bengal tiger, gaur, Himalayan black bear, clouded leopard, barking deer, Chinese pangolin, etc.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.northeasttoday.in/2025/03/07/assam-rare-clouded-leopard-captured-on-camera-in-dehing-patkai-national-park/
Consider the following statements regarding the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC):
- It does not undertake new research or monitor climate-related data.
- It was established by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), the global scientific authority on the state of knowledge and challenges from global warming, has begun work on its seventh cycle of assessment report.
About Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC):
The IPCC is the United Nations body for assessing the science related to climate change.
It was established by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) in 1988.
Membership: The IPCC is an organisation of governments that are members of the United Nations or the World Meteorological Organization (WMO). The IPCC currently has 195 members.
Objective: To assess scientific, technical, and socio-economic information relevant to the understanding of human-induced climate change, potential impacts of climate change, and options for mitigation and adaptation.
The IPCC provides governments with scientific information for use in developing climate policies.
The main activity of the IPCC is the preparation of reports assessing the state of knowledge of climate change. These include assessment reports, special reports and methodology reports.
IPCC reports are also key inputs into international climate change negotiations under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
The IPCC does not undertake new research or monitor climate-related data.
Instead, it conducts assessments of the state of climate change knowledge on the basis of published and peer-reviewed scientific and technical literature.
Scientists volunteer their time to assess the thousands of scientific papers published each year to provide a comprehensive summary of what is known about the drivers of climate change, impacts and future risks, and how adaptation and mitigation can reduce those risks.
The IPPC’s first assessment report was released in 1990. The IPCC finished its Sixth Assessment Report cycle in 2023 and has now entered its Seventh Assessment Report cycle.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/ipcc-begins-work-on-new-series-of-climate-reports/article69306740.ece
In which Indian state is the Sharavathi Pumped Storage Hydroelectric Project located?
Karnataka
Explanation :
Karnataka government’s ambitious Sharavathi pumped storage hydroelectric project (PSHP) has ignited fierce debate with environmentalists and locals warning of irreversible ecological damage to the fragile Western Ghats ecosystem
About Sharavathi Pumped Storage Hydroelectric Project (PSHP):
It is a pumped storage power project on the Sharavathi River in Karnataka.
The Sharavathi River serves as a crucial source of hydroelectric power in Karnataka, and this project, with its planned total power generation capacity of 2000 MW, stands as the largest pumped storage power generation unit in the country.
PSHP will be built between two existing reservoirs.
The Talakalale dam, which stands at 62.48 meters tall, will be the upper reservoir.
This dam currently helps balance water for the existing Sharavathy hydroelectric project.
The Gerusoppa dam will be the lower reservoir, and it is about 64 meters tall.
Water will be pumped uphill during the off-season using grid power and released downhill during peak demand to generate electricity.
Modelled on the lines of Telangana’s Kaleshwaram project, it also aims to supply drinking water to Bengaluru.
Five tunnels and eight pumping stations are critical parts of the plan.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://thewire.in/environment/karnataka-ecological-damage-corruption-allegations-mar-sharavathi-hydroelectric-project
Consider the following statements regarding Bar-Headed Goose:
- It is a migratory bird species native to South America.
- It is classified as endangered under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
A bar-headed goose, a rare migratory bird, was sighted for the first time in Morshing village, West Kameng district, Arunachal Pradesh, recently.
About Bar-Headed Goose:
It is a migratory bird species.
Scientific name: Anser indicus
It is known to be one of the highest-flying birds in the world.
It can fly at altitudes of 25,000 feet, while migrating over the Himalayas, where oxygen and temperature levels are extremely low.
Distribution:
Native to central Asia, where the species breeds, Bar-headed Geese are found in countries like India, Pakistan, Nepal, Kazakhstan, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Japan, and other nearby regions.
They migrate to parts of South Asia during winters.
In India, their geographical range extends from the northeast to the southern parts of the country.
Habitat:
They reside near water bodies, preferring high-altitude lakes during the breeding season and freshwater lakes, rivers, and streams in their wintering habitats.
They are also found in rocky regions, farmlands and marshes.
Features:
This species is gray and white with two horseshoe-shaped, brownish-black bars on the back of its white head.
The body is gray overall, and the bill and legs are pink, orange, or yellow.
The wingspan of the bird ranges from 140 to 160 cm.
Although male and female birds appear similar, the male bird is slightly larger than the female.
They usually form monogamous pairs and are seasonal breeders.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://www.northeasttoday.in/2025/03/08/arunachal-rare-bar-headed-goose-spotted-for-the-first-time-in-morshing-village/
Which one of the following statements best defines a Ponzi Scheme?
An investment scam that pays early investors with money taken from later investors
Explanation :
The Enforcement Directorate seized a business jet at Hyderabad airport in a ₹850 crore Ponzi scam probe against a Hyderabad-based company and its promoters.
About Ponzi Scheme:
A Ponzi scheme is an investment scam that pays early investors with money taken from later investors to create an illusion of big profits. A Ponzi scheme promises a high rate of return with little risk to the investor.
Origin: The Ponzi scheme gets its name from a swindler named Charles Ponzi, who in 1920 became a millionaire by promoting a nonexistent investing opportunity.
Working:
It relies on word-of-mouth, as new investors hear about the big returns earned by early investors.
Inevitably, the scheme collapses when the flow of new money slows, making it impossible to keep up the payments of alleged profits.
A Ponzi scheme is similar to a pyramid scheme in that use new investors’ funds to pay earlier backers.
A pyramid scheme usually relies on rewarding early participants to recruit more participants but collapses when the supply of potential participants dwindles.
Notable Ponzi Scams in India:
Saradha Scam (2013): A multi-crore chit fund scam in West Bengal that defrauded lakhs of investors.
Rose Valley Scam: A larger scam than Saradha, involving over Rs 15,000 crore.
SpeakAsia (2011): A pyramid-like scheme posing as an online survey business.
PACL (Pearl Agro Corporation Limited) Scam: Collected Rs 49,100 crore from investors under the guise of land investments.
Safeguards against Ponzi Schemes in India:
Ponzi schemes are banned under the Prize Chit and Money Circulation (Banning) Act, 1978, a Central Act enforced by State governments.
Additionally, the Unregulated Deposit Schemes Act, 2019 explicitly bans Ponzi schemes, further strengthening legal action against such frauds.
These are also dealt with by the Enforcement Directorate under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/probe-agency-seizes-business-jet-at-hyderabad-airport-in-ponzi-scam-case-7877343
T-72, a term recently seen in news is a:
Tank
Explanation :
The Ministry of Defence on Firday signed a contract with Rosoboronexport (RoE), Russian Federation, worth $248 million for procurement of 1000 Horsepower Engines for T-72 Tanks in fully formed, completely knocked down and semi knocked down conditions.
About T-72 Tank:
T-72 is a mainstay of tank fleet of the Indian Army which is at present fitted with 780 HP Engine. Equipping the existing fleet of T-72 Tanks with 1000 HP Engine.
The T-72, a Soviet-designed main battle tank, has been a cornerstone of many armed forces since its introduction in 1971.
Designed by Uralvagonzavod in the Soviet Union, T-72 tanks are locally manufactured and upgraded in India at the Heavy Vehicles Factory, Avadi.
The tank is provided with high-accuracy laying and sighting materiel, and with an automatic loading gear ensuring high effective rate of gun fire.
Features:
The T-72 has greater mobility as its 780 hp engine appears to be remarkably smoke-free and smooth-running, having eliminated the excessive vibration.
The T-72 has better armour protection due to the use of layered armor.
The tank is fitted with a 125mm D-81 smoothbore gun, a 7.62mm co-axial machine gun and a 12.7mm air defence machine gun mounted on the commander’s cupola.
The T-72 carries 44 rounds of 125 mm ammunition, 22 rounds of which are carried on an automatic loading carousel.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/ministry-of-defence-signs-248-mn-deal-with-rosoboronexport-for-procurement-of-engines-for-t-72-tanks-for-indian-army/articleshow/118787474.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding the Loss and Damage Fund (LDF):
The Loss and Damage Fund was established at COP28 in Dubai to support countries facing climate-related economic losses.
The World Bank serves as the interim trustee of the fund for a period of four years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
In a setback to global climate justice efforts, the United States has withdrawn from the loss and damage fund aimed at compensating developing countries for the damages caused by climate change.
About Loss and Damage Fund (LDF):
Loss and damage refers to the negative consequences that arise from the unavoidable risks of climate change, like rising sea levels, prolonged heatwaves, desertification, the acidification of the sea and extreme events, such as bushfires, species extinction and crop failures.
Establishment: The Fund was established at the 2022 UNFCCC Conference (COP27) in Egypt, to provide financial support to regions suffering both economic and non-economic losses caused by climate change.
Developing countries, particularly small island states that face the greatest threats from climate impacts, had been demanding financial assistance in case of climate-related disasters, arguing that they were having to suffer due to a problem created by rich and developed countries.
About $750 million has so far been promised for the fund, of which the US has contributed $17.5 million. The US, in fact, is one of the very few countries to have already transferred its committed amount to the Fund.
The LDF is overseen by a Governing Board that determines how the fund’s resources are disbursed, with the World Bank serving as the interim trustee tasked with hosting the fund for four years.
Paris Agreement:
The Paris Agreement is an international accord that was adopted by nearly every country in 2015 to address climate change and its adverse effects.
Its primary goal is to substantially reduce greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions in a bid to limit global warming in this century to “well below” 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels while pursuing the means to curb warming to 1.5 degrees.
The agreement mentions the safer limit of 1.5 degrees based on a fact-finding report which found that breaching the threshold could lead to “some regions and vulnerable ecosystems” facing high risks, over an extended, decades-long period.
The treaty also requires all Parties (countries which have joined the agreement) to state every five years what they are doing to tackle climate change — what is known as their nationally determined contribution (NDC).
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/us/us-withdraws-from-loss-and-damage-fund-to-compensate-developing-countries-due-to-climate-change/articleshow/118787823.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM):
The convention prohibits the use, production, transfer, and stockpiling of cluster munitions.
India has ratified the convention due to its commitment to international humanitarian law.
The convention aims to mitigate the humanitarian impact of cluster munitions and contributes to achieving the UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Lithuania recently quit the Convention on Cluster Munitions banning cluster bombs, citing security concerns over neighbouring Russia in a move that has drawn criticism from human rights groups.
About Convention on Cluster Munitions:
The Convention on Cluster Munitions is an international treaty of more than 100 states, adopted on 30 May 2008, signed on 3 December 2008 and entered into force on 1 August 2010.
Objective: The Convention prohibits all use, production, transfer and stockpiling of cluster munitions. States Parties are committed to the full universalization of the Convention and to promote its norms, as well as to fully implement it.
Membership Status: The convention has 112 member states and 12 signatories yet to ratify it, while India, the U.S., Russia, China, Ukraine, and Israel have not signed due to military and strategic concerns.
The Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM) was born out of a collective determination to address the humanitarian consequences and unacceptable harm to civilians caused by cluster munitions.
Its implementation contributes to advancing the achievement of the UN Sustainable Development Goals and the promotion of international peace and security, human rights and international humanitarian law.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/lithuania-quits-cluster-bomb-ban-treaty-despite-outrage/article69297603.ece
Dulcibella camanchaca is a recently discovered species of:
Bivalve mollusk
Explanation :
A new deep-sea predator has been discovered in the Atacama Trench, though incredibly small in size, possesses lethal hunting abilities that make it a formidable force in its underwater ecosystem.
About D. camanchaca:
It is a newly discovered amphipod, a shrimp-like marine creature, marking the first known predatory amphipod in the hadal zone—depths exceeding 6,000 meters below the ocean surface.
Unlike most amphipods that feed on detritus, it is an active predator, using specialized appendages to catch and consume other organisms.
This behaviour is rare among deep-sea creatures, which typically rely on scavenging due to the scarcity of food.
D. camanchaca has adapted to freezing temperatures and immense pressure, which exceeds 1,000 times the atmospheric pressure at sea level.
The genus name Dulcibella is inspired by Dulcinea, a character from Don Quixote. However, since this name was already assigned to another species, researchers chose camanchaca, meaning “darkness” in some South American languages—a fitting name for a creature that thrives in total darkness.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/a-new-deep-sea-predator-has-been-discovered-and-its-tiny-but-deadly/articleshow/118802882.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Koch-Rajbongshis, recently seen in the news:
- They are an ancient tribe originally from the ancient Koch kingdom.
- They are classified as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) of Assam.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Ahead of the Home Minister’s three-day visit to Assam, the Koch-Rajbongshis have renewed their demand for Scheduled Tribe (ST) status.
About Koch-Rajbongshis:
Koch Rajbongshi is an ancient tribe originally from the ancient Koch kingdom.
The Rajbongshi tribe is referred to as Koch Rajbongshi, or Rajbanshi, or Rajvanshi.
The word “Rajbongshi” literally means “royal community”.
Considered as indigenous people of South Asia, at present they live in lower Nepal, Northern Bengal, North Bihar, Northern Bangladesh, the whole of Assam, parts of Meghalaya, and Bhutan.
These modern geographical areas were once part of the Kamata kingdom ruled by the Koches for many centuries.
The community is variously designated as OBC (Assam), SC (Bengal), and ST (Meghalaya).
Language:
The Rajbongshi/Rajbanshi language is spoken by one crore people, according to a 2001 census.
It has a complete grammar.
Religion and Beliefs:
They are largely Hindus with lots of their own deities and rituals.
A large section of Koch Rajbanshi became followers of Islam, and the present Muslims of North Bengal, West Assam and Northern Bangladesh are of Koch Rajbanshi origin.
There are also Christian and Buddhist Koch Rajbanshis.
The primary livelihood of the tribe is agriculture and farming. They live very close to nature because of the fact that primitively they were ‘Animist’ and the same significance is still prevailing among the tribe.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/assam/ahead-of-amit-shahs-visit-to-assam-koch-rajbongshis-refresh-demand-for-scheduled-tribe-status/article69309278.ece
The Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action is related to which one of the following?
Gender Equality and Empowerment of Women
Explanation :
Union Minister for Women and Child Development will lead India’s delegation at the 69th session of the Commission on the Status of Women (CSW) at the United Nations headquarters in New York.
About Commission on the Status of Women (CSW):
It is the principal global intergovernmental body exclusively dedicated to the promotion of gender equality, the rights, and the empowerment of women.
It is part of the United Nations, and works to promote women’s political, economic, civil, social, and educational rights.
A functional commission of the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC), it was established by ECOSOC resolution of 21 June 1946.
The CSW is instrumental in promoting women’s and girls’ rights, documenting the reality of their lives throughout the world, and shaping global standards on gender equality and the empowerment of women and girls.
CSW can also highlight urgent problems, such as the situation of women and girls affected by conflict.
In 1996, ECOSOC expanded the Commission’s mandate and decided that it should take a leading role in monitoring and reviewing progress and problems in the implementation of the Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action and in mainstreaming a gender perspective in UN activities.
The Beijing Declaration and the Platform for Action, adopted by 189 countries, is the most comprehensive and transformative global agenda for the achievement of gender equality and the empowerment of women and girls.
Annual Sessions:
During the Commission’s annual two-week session, representatives of UN member states, civil society organizations, and UN entities gather at UN headquarters in New York.
They discuss progress and gaps in the implementation of the 1995 Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action, and the 23rd special session of the General Assembly held in 2000 (Beijing+5), as well as emerging issues that affect gender equality and the empowerment of women and girls.
Member States agree on further actions to accelerate progress and promote women’s and girls’ enjoyment of their rights in political, economic, and social fields.
The outcomes and recommendations of each session are forwarded to ECOSOC for follow-up.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/union-minister-annapurna-devi-to-lead-indias-delegation-at-commission-on-status-of-women-at-united-nations/article69309403.ece
Where is Vanuatu, recently seen in the news, located?
South Pacific Ocean
Explanation :
Fugitive former IPL chief Lalit Modi recently applied to surrender his passport to the Indian High Commission in London, and acquired the citizenship of Vanuatu, a tiny island nation in the South Pacific.
About Vanuatu:
It is an island country located in the South Pacific Ocean.
It is an archipelago made up of 83 islands, of which only 65 are inhabited.
The islands extend north-south for some 400 miles (650 km) in an irregular Y shape.
It lies east of Australia and north of New Zealand, or midway between Australia and Fiji.
Geography:
A diverse relief—ranging from rugged mountains and high plateaus to rolling hills and low plateaus, with coastal terraces and offshore coral reefs—characterizes the islands.
The country is home to several active volcanoes, including Mount Yasur, which is one of the world’s most accessible active volcanoes.
Capital: Its capital and largest city is Port Vila, located on Efate Island.
Currency: The vatu is the currency of Vanuatu.
The population of Vanuatu is 94% indigenous Melanesian.
Language:
The national language of the Republic of Vanuatu is Bislama (a Creole language).
The official languages are Bislama, English, and French.
Government:
Type: Parliamentary democracy.
Independence: July 30, 1980.
Economy:
The economy is based on agriculture, tourism, fishing, and offshore financial services, with kava exports playing a significant role.
Vanuatu does not have income tax, withholding tax, capital gains tax, inheritance tax, or exchange control.
VAT, tourism, and agricultural exports contribute to the national income.
Vanuatu offers a citizenship-by-investment programme, allowing foreigners to obtain citizenship in exchange for a financial contribution, typically for around $1,50,000 USD.
Passports provide a major source of government revenues.
Vanuatu passport holders can travel without a visa to 56 countries, making its citizenship-by-investment programme a highly attractive scheme.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/5-things-vanuatu-lalit-modi-9874830/
What is the cause of Shingles Disease?
Virus
Explanation :
A new global survey shows that 56.6% of Indian participants aged 50 and above know little to nothing about shingles, although more than 90% of adults above 50 years have this virus in their body, and are vulnerable to the disease.
About Shingles Disease:
Shingles (herpes zoster) is a viral infection that causes an outbreak of a painful rash or blisters on the skin.
The rash most often appears as a band of rashes or blisters in one area of your body.
Shingles can occur anywhere on your body.
The risk of shingles goes up as you get older and it is most common in people over age 50.
What Causes Shingles?
It’s caused by the varicella-zoster virus, which is the same virus that causes chickenpox.
When you have chickenpox as a child, your body fights off the varicella-zoster virus and the physical signs of chickenpox fade away, but the virus always remains in your body.
In adulthood, sometimes the virus becomes active again.
This time, the varicella-zoster virus makes its second appearance in the form of shingles.
Is Shingles Contagious?
Shingles is not contagious, but the virus can be spread to someone who has never had chickenpox.
This will cause chickenpox, not shingles.
Symptoms:
The symptoms of shingles can include pain, itching, tingling, and numbness, as well as fever, headache, chills, and fatigue.
Shingles isn’t life-threatening. But it can be very painful.
The most common complication is postherpetic neuralgia. This is a painful condition that causes shingles pain for a long time after your blisters have cleared.
Prevention: There is a vaccine called Shingrix available, which helps in preventing shingles and its complications.
Treatment: There is no cure for shingles. Antiviral medications can reduce the severity and duration of shingles, especially if started early.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/global-survey-shows-most-people-over-50-in-india-unaware-of-shingles-disease-despite-being-at-risk/article69280100.ece
With reference to Preventive Detention in India, consider the following statements:
- It refers to the detention of an individual without a trial or conviction by a court.
- Only parliament has the power to make preventive detention laws in India.
- The detainee has the right to know the grounds of detention, but the state may withhold it in the public interest.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently quashed a preventive detention order by Nagaland’s home department, emphasizing that detaining authorities must independently apply their minds.
About Preventive Detention:
Preventive detention refers to the detention of an individual without a trial or conviction by a court.
The primary objective of preventive detention is not to punish an individual for a past offence but to prevent them from committing an offence in the future.
Preventive detention laws are enacted by governments to ensure public safety and maintain social order.
Constitutional Provisions and Safeguards:
Article 22 of the Constitution of India grants protection to individuals who are arrested or detained.
It has two parts—the first part deals with cases of ordinary law, which includes situations where an individual is detained as part of a criminal investigation.
The second part deals with cases of preventive detention law, which pertains to the detention of individuals without a trial or conviction.
Article 22(4) states that no law providing for preventive detention shall authorise the detention of a person for a longer period than three months unless an Advisory Board reports sufficient cause for extended detention.
The detainee is entitled to know the grounds of his detention. The state, however, may refuse to divulge the grounds of detention if it is in the public interest to do so.
The detaining authorities must give the detainee earliest opportunities for making representation against the detention.
Who can make laws under Preventive Detention?
Parliament has the exclusive power to enact a law for preventive detention for reasons connected with defence, foreign affairs, or security of India.
Both Parliament and State Legislature have powers to enact a law for preventive detention for reasons related to the maintenance of public order or the maintenance of supplies or services essential to the community.
Laws that provide for Preventive Detention:
In India, various laws provide for preventive detention, including the National Security Act (NSA) of 1980, the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) of 1967, and state-specific laws like the Maintenance of Internal Security Act (MISA) and the Public Safety Acts (PSA) in certain states.
Under these laws, authorities can detain an individual for a specific period, typically up to 12 months, without presenting formal charges or conducting a trial.
The detention order is issued by a designated authority or government official and is subject to periodic review by an advisory board.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/preventive-detention-draconian-authorities-must-apply-mind-supreme-court/articleshow/118769327.cms
Consider the following:
It was the hunting ground of Mughal emperors and Maharaja of Gwalior.
Sakhya Sagar and Madhav Sagar are the two lakes in the southern part of the park.
Recently it has become the 58th tiger reserve of India.
Which of the following national parks has been discussed above?
Madhav National
Explanation :
The Union Government recently declared the Madhav National Park in Madhya Pradesh as the country’s 58th tiger reserve.
About Madhav National Park:
The Madhav National Park is situated in the Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh and, on the northern fringe of the Central Highlands of India forming a part of the Upper Vindhyan Hills intermixed with plateaus and valley sections.
The Park was the hunting ground of Mughal emperors and Maharaja of Gwalior. It got the status of a National Park in 1958. The park was established as Madhya Bharat National Park in 1955 and received its present name in 1959.
Originally, the park had an area of 64 square miles (165 square km), but a later extension to the east increased the protected area to 137 square miles (355 square km).
Vegetation: The forests of the park fall within the category of Northern tropical dry deciduous mixed forests as well as Dry Thorn Forests typical of North – Western Madhya Pradesh.
Fauna: It is home to antelopes like Nilgai, Chinkara and Chowsinga and Deer including Chital, Sambar and Barking Deer. Animals like the Leopard, Wolf, Jackal, Fox, Wild Dog, Wild Pig, Porcupine, Python etc are also sighted in the park.
Aquatic Life: The Park is unique in having both lake, meadow and forest ecosystems. Sakhya Sagar and Madhav Sagar are the two lakes in the southern part of the park, providing the aquatic biodiversity and lifeline for the terrestrial species.
Recent developments: With the recent declaration it has become the 58th tiger reserve of India and the 9th tiger reserve of Madhya Pradesh, with home to five tigers including two cubs born recently.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/madhav-national-park-in-mp-indias-58th-tiger-reserve-now/articleshow/118824995.cms
Jalantheeswarar Temple is located in which one of the following states?
Tamil Nadu
Explanation :
The Jalanatheswarar temple at Thakkolam in Ranipet district, a treasure trove of Tamil history, particularly the reign of Cholas, is in bad shape.
About Jalantheeswarar Temple:
Location: Jalantheeswarar Temple (also known as Thiruvooral) is an ancient Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Shiva, situated in Thakkolam village of Ranipet district, Tamil Nadu.
Deity: The presiding deity is Lord Shiva worshipped as Jalantheeswarar, represented by a lingam made of sand (prithvi lingam), known as Theenda Thirumeni.
Construction: The original temple complex was constructed by Pallavas and later expanded by Cholas. The present masonry structure dates back to the Nayak period in the 16th century.
Architectural Features: The temple complex spans approximately 1.5 acres, featuring a three-tiered gopuram (gateway tower) and concentric granite walls. The main sanctum houses the deity Jalantheeswarar in the form of a lingam made of sand.
Religious Significance: It is one of the shrines of the 275 Paadal Petra Sthalams - Shiva Sthalams glorified in the early medieval Tevaram poems by Tamil Saivite Nayanars Sambandar.
Sambandar:
Thirugnana Sambandar, also known as Sambandar, was a 7th-century CE Saiva poet-saint from Tamil Nadu and a contemporary of Appar.
As per Tamil Shaiva tradition, he composed 16,000 hymns in intricate meters, of which 383 (or 384) hymns with 4,181 stanzas have survived.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/ranipet-6th-century-thakkolam-temple-the-treasure-trove-of-tamil-history-in-derelict/article69309488.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Tejas LCA Mk1A:
It features an Active Electronically Scanned Array (AESA) radar, including both an Israeli and an indigenous variant.
The aircraft is equipped with an Advanced Self Protection Jammer pod for enhanced survivability.
Tejas LCA Mk1A is designed and manufactured entirely by the Indian Air Force.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The first rear fuselage for Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Mk1A, produced by private Indian industry, Alpha Tocol Engineering Services Private Limited, was handed over to Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).
About Tejas LCA Mk1A
The Tejas LCA Mk1A is an advanced variant of India’s indigenous Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas, developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).
It incorporates more than 40 improvements over the previous Tejas Mk1 variant, significantly enhancing its combat capabilities and operational efficiency.
Key upgrades include advanced avionics suites centred around Active Electronically Scanned Array (AESA) radars such as the Israeli EL/M-2052 AESA Radar and the indigenously developed Uttam AESA Radar.
The aircraft features an upgraded Digital Fly-by-Wire Flight Control Computer (DFCC Mk1A), a Unified Electronic Warfare Suite (UEWS), and an externally mounted Advanced Self Protection Jammer pod for enhanced survivability.
The Tejas Mk1A is equipped with nine hardpoints capable of carrying a variety of weaponry, including Beyond Visual Range (BVR) missiles, Air-to-Air/Ground missiles, and Advanced Short Range Air-to-Air missiles (ASRAAM).
What is Tejas LCA?
Tejas is India’s indigenously developed Light Combat Aircraft designed by Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) and manufactured by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).
It entered service with the Indian Air Force (IAF) in July 2016. It has three production models: Tejas Mark 1, Mark 1A, and trainer variant.
It aims to replace ageing fighter jets like MiG variants currently in service with the Indian Air Force.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2109660
Kursk region, recently seen in news, is associated with:
Russia-Ukraine
Explanation :
Russian troops have launched a large-scale offensive to retake swaths of the western Kursk region from Ukrainian forces.
About Kursk Region
Kursk is a city and the administrative centre of Kursk Oblast, positioned along Russia’s southwestern border.
It lies in the heart of the European part of Russia, approximately 450 km (280 miles) south of Moscow, along the upper Seym River.
The region is part of the Black Earth territory, known for its highly fertile soil. Kursk experiences a moderately continental climate, characterized by distinct seasonal variations.
History:
One of Russia’s oldest cities, Kursk was first mentioned in historical documents in 1032, highlighting its long-standing role in the region’s development.
The city was completely destroyed by the Tatars in 1240 and remained in ruins until 1586, when it was rebuilt as a military outpost to defend Russian settlers.
World War II & Battle of Kursk: The city witnessed intense fighting during World War II, particularly in the Battle of Kursk (July–August 1943), the largest tank battle of the war, which resulted in a German defeat.
Modern Economy & Industries: Kursk has a diverse industrial base, including machine building, food processing, and the production of electronic equipment and synthetic fibres, contributing to the region’s economic growth.
Recent Developments:
It was captured by Ukrainian troops in the summer of 2024 in an unexpected lightning attack.
Ukraine’s presence in Russia’s Kursk region has deteriorated sharply, with the Russian advance threatening Kyiv’s sole territorial bargaining counter at a crucial time in the war.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.news18.com/videos/world/russia-launches-kursk-ambush-via-gas-pipeline-seizes-sumy-village-advances-in-ukraine-s-east-9255237.html
Consider the following with respect to ICC Champions Trophy:
In 2025th edition, top-eight ranked ODI sides featured in the Champions Trophy.
It has taken place every four years since it was first established in 1998.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
India ended a 12-year wait to clinch a record-extending third Champions Trophy title, beating New Zealand by 4 wickets in the Champions Trophy 2025 final at the Dubai International Cricket Stadium.
About ICC Champions Trophy:
The ICC Champions Trophy is a premier One Day International (ODI) cricket tournament featuring the world’s top eight teams.
The tournament was originally called the ICC Knockout when it began in 1998 in Dhaka (Bangladesh). It was renamed the ICC Champions Trophy in 2002.
It was held every two years until 2009. After that, the event transitioned to a four-year cycle.
Tournament Format:
The format of the competition has endured since 2006. The eight teams are divided into two groups of four teams each.
Each team plays once against every other team in the group.
And then, the top-two teams from each group advance to the semi-finals, determining the two that feature in the summit clash.
What made this year’s team selection different?
Previously the top-eight ranked ODI sides would feature in the Champions Trophy. But for the 2025 edition, the qualification used the results of the 2023 edition of the ICC Men’s Cricket World Cup.
The teams that occupied the top-eight spots in the 10-team points table, including the hosts Pakistan, sealed their place for the Champions Trophy.
Teams in 2025: India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, New Zealand were in Group A while the remaining four teams — Australia, Afghanistan, England, South Africa — were in group B.
International Cricket Council (ICC):
The International Cricket Council (ICC) is the global governing body for cricket. Representing 108 members, the ICC governs and administrates the game and works with our members to grow the sport.
The ICC is also responsible for the staging of all ICC Events. The ICC presides over the ICC Code of Conduct, playing conditions, the Decision Review System and other ICC regulations.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/upsc-current-affairs/upsc-essentials/knowledge-nugget-india-win-champions-trophy-2025-upsc-prelims-exam-9876128/
KHANJAR Exercise, recently seen in the news, is bilateral exercise between India and:
Kyrgyzstan
Explanation :
The 12th edition of the India-Kyrgyzstan Joint Special Forces Exercise Khanjar-XII is set to take place in Kyrgyzstan.
About KHANJAR-XII:
It is the 12th edition of the annual India-Kyrgyzstan Joint Special Forces Exercise.
It was first initiated in December 2011, in Nahan, India.
It is an annual event conducted alternatively in both countries.
The Indian contingent is represented by troops from the Parachute Regiment (Special Forces), and the Kyrgyzstan contingent is represented by the Kyrgyz Scorpion Brigade.
The primary objective of the exercise is to exchange expertise in counterterrorism operations and special forces tactics, particularly in mountainous and high-altitude environments.
Training modules will include advanced sniping, close-quarters combat, complex building interventions, and mountain warfare techniques.
In addition to military drills, the exercise will foster cultural ties through engagements such as celebrating Nowruz, the Kyrgyz New Year festival.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/indian-army-contingent-departs-for-india-kyrgyztan-joint-special-forces-exercise-khanjar-xii/articleshow/118819242.cms?from=mdr
With reference to the recently published Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) report on Global Arms Trade during the period between 2020 and 2024, consider the following statements:
- India is the largest importer of major arms in the world.
- The largest share of Indian arms imports came from Russia.
- The United States is the largest arms exporter in the world.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
India was the second-largest arms importer during the period between 2020 and 2024, though the trade figures decreased by 9.3% between 2015-19 and 2020-24, show the recent data from the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI).
About Global Arms Trade:
Ukraine became the largest importer of major arms in the world during the period between 2020 and 2024, clocking a nearly 100-fold rise in imports compared with the figures for 2015–2019.
Ukraine received 8.8% of global arms imports in 2020-24.
Four countries in Asia and Oceania—India, Pakistan, Japan, and Australia— ranked among the 10 largest arms importers globally in 2020-24.
India was the second-largest arms importer, though the trade figures decreased by 9.3% between 2015-19 and 2020-24.
The largest share of Indian arms imports (36%) came from Russia, a significantly smaller share than in 2015-19 (55%) and 2010-14 (72%).
India was the biggest arms export destination for both Russia and France.
The U.S. further increased its share of global arms exports to 43%, while Russia’s exports fell by 64%, accounting for 7.8% of global arms exports, falling behind France (9.6%), which emerged as the second largest arms exporter in 2020-24.
India received by far the largest share of French arms exports (28%)—almost twice the share that went to all European recipients combined (15%).
Russia delivered major arms to 33 countries in 2020-24, of which two-thirds went to three countries — India (38%), China (17%), and Kazakhstan (11%).
European arms imports overall grew by 155% between the same periods as the continent rearms itself.
China dropped out of the list of top 10 arms importers for the first time since 1990-94, showcasing its expanding domestic industrial base.
Arms imports by Pakistan grew by 61% between 2015-19 and 2020-24.
China became even more dominant as its supplier, accounting for 81% of Pakistan’s arms imports in 2020-24, compared with 74% in 2015–1.
Global transfer volume: The overall volume of arms transfers globally remained at roughly the same level as in 2015-19 and 2010-14 (but was 18% higher than in 2005–2009), as increasing imports in Europe and the Americas were offset by decreases in other regions.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/123426/OPS/GOGE3MB6O.1+GJNE3OMEA.1.html
Consider the following statements with respect to Trade-to-Trade (T2T) Segment in Stock Markets:
- Trade-to-Trade stock means stocks that must be delivered in order to be traded.
- Trade-to-Trade stocks cannot be traded intraday.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is considering a major revamp of short-selling regulations, potentially allowing it for all stocks excluding those in the trade-to-trade (T2T) segment.
About Trade-to-Trade (T2T) Segment:
T2T stocks, or Trade-to-Trade stock means stocks that must be delivered in order to be traded (T+2 settlement).
This implies that such equities cannot be traded intraday or, in the case of Buy Today Sell Tomorrow, on a daily basis.
This means if you acquire T2T stocks today, you won’t be able to sell them until the settlement takes place.
Your order will be refused if you try to sell these shares the same day or before they are in the Demat account.
Stocks are put under the T2T segment by the exchanges based on criteria such as their price-earnings ratio, price variations, market capitalisation, etc.
Stocks that are very volatile or have irregular price movements are monitored by exchanges in cooperation with the market regulator, SEBI.
They put stocks in the T2T section to shield regular investors from being caught up in the volatility and to limit unwarranted speculation on such equities.
On a biweekly basis, exchanges relocate stocks to the T2T section, and they are shifted in and out of the segment depending on quarterly evaluations.
Also evaluated for transfer to the T2T sector are stocks that are not available for trade in the Futures & Options section.
How to identify stocks in the T2T segment? Stocks in the T2T segment can be identified by changes in their scrip names:
National Stock Exchange (NSE): The addition of the word “BE” to the scrip name. For example, “ADANIPOWER” becomes “ADANIPOWER BE” in the T2T segment and reverts to “ADANIPOWER” after normal trading is allowed.
Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE): The addition of the letter “T” to the scrip name. For instance, “ADANIPOWER” changes to “ADANIPOWER T” when moved to the T2T segment.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/123426/OPS/GOGE3MB6P.1+GJNE3OMD0.1.html
With reference to the Sarus Crane, consider the following statements:
- It is the tallest flying bird in the world.
- It is endemic to the Indian subcontinent.
- It is classified as endangered under the IUCN Red List.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
A rare sighting of the Sarus Crane (Grus antigone) has been recently reported in the Saikhowa region of Tinsukia, Assam, attracting numerous bird lovers and wildlife enthusiasts.
About Sarus Crane:
It is the tallest flying bird in the world.
Scientific name: Grus Antigone
Distribution:
They live in Southeast Asia, northern India, and northern Australia.
In India, most sarus cranes are widely distributed along the Gangetic plain and in eastern Rajasthan in the northern states of India. Population densities decrease going to the south.
This species is not known to be migratory.
Habitat: They live mainly in wetlands such as canals, marshes, and ponds, sometimes near humans.
Features:
It is the tallest of flying birds, standing at 152-156 cm tall.
It can have a wingspan of 2.5 m and can weigh anywhere from 5 to 12 kg.
It has a predominantly grey plumage with a naked red head and upper neck and pale red legs.
The very top of the head has a white patch as well as a small white spot behind the eye
They are regarded as the least social crane species, found mostly in pairs or small groups of three or four.
They are monogamous birds and pairs mate for life.
Nests are constructed on water in natural wetlands or in flooded paddy fields.
Lifespan: It has been estimated that cranes in general can live 30 to 40 years, though some species of cranes have been recorded to live up to 80 years.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
CITES: Appendix II
Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972: Schedule IV
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.sentinelassam.com/north-east-india-news/assam-news/assam-rare-sarus-crane-spotted-in-tinsukias-saikhowa-region
With reference to Large Phased Array Radar (LPAR) systems, consider the following:
- India
- China
- Russia
- United States
How many of the above countries have the LPAR system?
Only three
Explanation :
China recently deployed a powerful Large Phased Array Radar (LPAR) in Yunnan province, near the China-Myanmar border.
About Large Phased Array Radar (LPAR):
It was established by China in Yunnan province, near the China-Myanmar border.
It boasts a surveillance range exceeding 5,000 kilometers, allowing China to monitor extensive areas of the Indian Ocean and deep into Indian territory.
It possesses the capability to detect and track ballistic missile launches in real time.
Unlike traditional radars, which rely on mechanical rotation, LPARs use electronically controlled antennas to scan vast areas almost instantly.
This allows them to track multiple targets, including ballistic missiles, with high precision.
Such radars play a critical role in early warning systems and air defence networks.
How does China’s LPAR compare to the world?
Besides China, only the US and Russia have the LPAR system.
The capabilities of China’s LPAR are being compared to the US PAVE PAWS (Precision Acquisition Vehicle Entry Phased Array Warning System), a Cold War-era radar designed to detect long-range missile launches.
The American system has a detection range of approximately 5,600 km and can track multiple projectiles, including submarine-launched ballistic missiles.
Concerns for India:
The Yunnan-based LPAR can monitor deep into Indian territory and track missile tests conducted from Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island off India’s eastern coast.
This site is crucial for testing strategic weapons like the Agni-V intercontinental ballistic missile and the K-4 submarine-launched missile.
By capturing vital data on missile trajectories, speeds, and distances, China gains a strategic advantage, enabling it to analyse and develop countermeasures.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/china-deploys-advanced-radar-lpar-near-myanmar-border-poses-security-threat-to-india-2685985-2025-02-26
North Sea is connected to Atlantic Ocean through:
Dover Starit
Explanation :
Recently, a cargo ship hit a tanker carrying jet fuel for the American military off eastern England, setting both vessels on fire and sending fuel pouring into the North Sea.
About North Sea:
Location: The North Sea is a shallow northeastern arm of the Atlantic Ocean, covering 220,000 square miles (570,000 square km) between the British Isles and northwestern Europe.
Borders and Connections:
Bordered by Great Britain (southwest and west), Orkney and Shetland islands (northwest), Norway (northeast), Denmark (east), Germany and the Netherlands (southeast), and Belgium and France (south).
It is connected to the Atlantic Ocean through the Strait of Dover and the English Channel.
The Skagerrak links the North Sea to the Baltic Sea via the Kattegat and the Danish straits.
Rivers: Major rivers that drain into the North Sea include the Forth, Elbe, the Weser, the Ems, the Rhine and Meuse, the Scheldt, the Thames, and the Humber.
Economic Importance:
It is one of Europe’s most productive fisheries.
Major shipping zone for trade among European countries and between Europe and the Middle East.
Contains significant reserves of petroleum and natural gas beneath the seafloor.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/north-sea-ship-collision-several-casualties-reported-off-united-kingdom/article69313901.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the H1N1 virus (Swine Flu):
It is a respiratory disease of pigs caused by type A influenza viruses.
H1N1 virus spreads primarily through contaminated food products, such as undercooked pork.
Currently, there is no vaccine available to protect against swine flu.
How many of the above countries have the LPAR system?
Only two
Explanation :
Delhi is seeing a significant rise in seasonal flu cases, with Influenza B and H1N1 leading to upper respiratory infections characterized by prolonged symptoms and persistent high fevers.
About H1N1 Virus:
Swine Influenza (swine flu) is a respiratory disease of pigs caused by type A influenza viruses that causes regular outbreaks in pigs. People do not normally get swine flu, but human infections can and do happen.
First case in India: The first confirmed case of H1N1 in India was reported in May 2009. Since then, the virus has caused several outbreaks, with significant case numbers recorded in 2021, 2022, 2023 and now more recently.
Transmission: Flu viruses are spread from person to person mainly through coughing or sneezing. Sometimes people may become infected by touching something with flu viruses on it and then touching their mouth or nose.
Symptoms:
The symptoms of swine flu in people are similar to the symptoms of regular human flu and include fever, cough, sore throat, body aches, headache, chills and fatigue.
Some people have reported diarrhea and vomiting associated with swine flu. In the past, severe illness (pneumonia and respiratory failure) and deaths have been reported with swine flu infection in people.
Treatment: There is no vaccine available right now to protect against swine flu. There are everyday actions that can help prevent the spread of germs that cause respiratory illnesses like influenza.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livemint.com/science/health/delhi-sees-surge-in-seasonal-flu-cases-h1n1-swine-flu-influenza-b-symptoms-precautions-are-you-at-risk-covid-19-11741667575762.html
Which of the following statements regarding the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme is correct?
- The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme is applicable only for crop cultivation.
- It is exclusively implemented by scheduled commercial banks, ensuring financial assistance to farmers across India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
In a sign of stress in the agriculture sector, scheduled commercial banks, excluding regional rural banks (RRBs), have seen a sharp increase of 42 per cent in bad loans Kisan Credit Card (KCC) accounts.
About Kisan Credit Card:
The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme was introduced in 1998 for issue of Kisan Credit Cards to farmers on the basis of their holdings for uniform adoption by the banks so that farmers may use them to readily purchase agriculture inputs such as seeds, fertilizers, pesticides etc. and draw cash for their production needs.
The scheme was extended in 2004 to cover farmers’ investment credit needs for allied and non-farm activities.
In Budget 2018-19, the government extended the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) facility to fisheries and animal husbandry farmers for meeting working capital needs.
Implementation: The Kisan Credit Card Scheme is implemented by Scheduled Commercial Banks, RRBs, Small Finance Banks and Cooperatives.
Objective: The Kisan Credit Card scheme aims at providing adequate and timely credit support from the banking system under a single window with flexible and simplified procedure to the farmers for their cultivation and other needs as indicated below:
To meet the short term credit requirements for cultivation of crops;
Post-harvest expenses;
Produce marketing loan;
Consumption requirements of farmer household;
Working capital for maintenance of farm assets and activities allied to agriculture;
Investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities.
Eligibility:
Farmers - individual/joint borrowers who are owner cultivators;
Tenant farmers, oral lessees & share croppers;
Self Help Groups (SHGs) or Joint Liability Groups (JLGs) of farmers including tenant farmers, share croppers etc.
Kisan Rin Portal:
The portal helps farmers avail subsidised loans under the Kisan Credit Card (KCC).
It was developed in collaboration with multiple government departments.
It offers a comprehensive view of farmer data, loan disbursement specifics, interest subvention claims, and scheme utilisation progress.
It fosters seamless integration with banks for more focused and efficient agriculture credit.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/express-exclusive/farm-lending-kisan-credit-card-bad-loans-rise-by-42-in-four-years-9879584/
Consider the following:
Achieving a safe and soft landing on the Moon.
Conducting rover-based exploration of the lunar surface.
Collecting and bringing back lunar soil samples to Earth.
Performing in-situ scientific experiments through the rover.
How many of the above were the objectives of Chandrayaan-3 Mission of ISRO?
Only three
Explanation :
New findings based on data from India’s Chandrayaan-3 mission suggest that water ice on the Moon may be present beyond its polar regions.
About Chandrayaan-3:
Chandrayaan-3 was the Indian Space Research Organisation’s (ISRO) second attempt, after Chandrayaan-2, to achieve a successful landing and rover operation on the Moon’s surface.
It was launched using ISRO’s LVM3 rocket, designed to place modules into the Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO) at a lower cost.
LVM3 is a three-stage rocket with two solid strap-on boosters and a core liquid stage.
The LVM3 M4 launcher positioned the integrated modules in an elliptical parking orbit of approximately 170 x 36,500 km.
Objectives: The mission aims to explore the presence of water ice, which could support future lunar habitation and provide fuel for interplanetary missions. Key goals include:
Achieving a safe and soft landing on the Moon.
Conducting rover-based exploration of the lunar surface.
Performing in-situ scientific experiments through the rover.
Mission Components: Chandrayaan-3 consists of a Lander Module (LM), a Propulsion Module (PM), and a Rover designed to develop and demonstrate interplanetary mission technologies.
Chandrayaan-3 Recent Findings:
New data from Chandrayaan-3 indicates possible water-ice deposits beyond the Moon’s polar regions.
A study by the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL), Ahmedabad, using data from Chandra’s Surface Thermophysical Experiment (ChaSTE) instrument, supports this finding.
ChaSTE measured a 60°C temperature difference between the lunar surface and 10 cm below it, revealing that the Moon’s surface layer is highly non-conductive, providing insights into its composition and thermal properties.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/life/science-chandrayaan-3-data-hints-at-hidden-water-ice-beyond-moons-polar-regions-3773873/
Which one of the following defines La Nina?
The cooling of surface-ocean waters along the tropical west coast of South America.
Explanation :
Climate change is intensifying, and the cooling effects of La Niña may weaken in a warmer future, climate scientists warn, citing current heat trends across much of the country.
About La Nina:
La Niña is a climate pattern that describes the cooling of surface-ocean waters along the tropical west coast of South America.
It is considered to be the counterpart to El Niño, which is characterized by unusually warm ocean temperatures in the equatorial region of the Pacific Ocean.
Together, La Niña and El Niño are the “cold” (La Niña) and “warm” (El Niño) phases of the El Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO). ENSO is series of linked weather- and ocean-related phenomena.
La Niña events are indicated by sea-surface temperature decreases of more than 0.5 degrees Celsius (0.9 degrees Fahrenheit) for at least five successive three-month seasons.
Causes:
La Niña is caused by a build-up of cooler-than-normal waters in the tropical Pacific, the area of the Pacific Ocean between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
Unusually strong, eastward-moving trade winds and ocean currents bring this cold water to the surface, a process known as upwelling. Upwelling can cause a drastic drop in sea-surface temperature.
Effects:
Impact on Air Pressure and Rainfall: La Niña lowers air pressure over the western Pacific, leading to increased rainfall. South Asia experiences stronger summer monsoons, benefiting agriculture in India and Bangladesh.
Risk of Flooding in Australia: While La Niña supports agriculture in South Asia, strong events can cause severe flooding in northern Australia due to excessive rainfall and low-pressure systems.
Global Rainfall Patterns: La Niña brings more rain to southeastern Africa and northern Brazil. In contrast, it increases air pressure over the central and eastern Pacific, causing dry conditions.
Drier Conditions in Some Regions: Regions like the west coast of tropical South America, the Gulf Coast of the US, and the pampas of South America experience reduced rainfall and dry spells during La Niña.
Boost to the Fishing Industry: Upwelling caused by La Niña brings cold, nutrient-rich waters to the surface, supporting plankton growth. This benefits fish populations and predators like sea bass.
Duration and Seasonal Peak: La Niña events usually last between one and three years, whereas El Niño typically lasts less than a year. Both tend to peak during the Northern Hemisphere winter.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/climate-change-more-robust-now-la-nina-may-not-be-effective-in-warmer-future-scientists/articleshow/118815326.cms?from=mdr
Which among the following best describes ‘INS Imphal’, recently seen in the news?
It is a guided-missile destroyer.
Explanation :
Indian Naval Ship (INS) Imphal arrived at Port Louis, the capital of Mauritius, recently for its maiden port call ahead of the country’s 57th National Day celebrations on March 12.
About INS Imphal:
Commissioned in December 2023, INS Imphal is the third of the four Project 15B Visakhapatnam-class stealth-guided missile destroyers.
The other destroyers in the Visakhapatnam class are INS Visakhapatnam, INS Mormugao, and INS Surat.
INS Imphal is a potent platform capable of undertaking a variety of tasks and missions, spanning the full spectrum of maritime warfare.
The Navy’s Warship Design Bureau designed the ship in-house, and Mazagon Dock Ltd. (MDL) was responsible for its construction.
It is the first warship to be named after a city in the Northeast, Imphal – the capital of Manipur.
It was the first naval warship commissioned with accommodation for women officers and sailors.
Features:
It is among the largest destroyers constructed in India, with an overall length of 164 metres and a displacement of over 7500 tonnes.
Speed: It can achieve a maximum speed of 56 km/hr.
INS Imphal is capable of undertaking anti-submarine warfare operations.
The made-in-India destroyer has a 75 percent high indigenous content, including, medium-range surface-to-surface missile, the BrahMos missile, torpedo tube launchers, and a 76mm super rapid gun mount.
It has modern surveillance radar, which provides target data to the gunnery weapon systems.
It has a total atmospheric control system (TACS) that offers protection to the crew from chemical, biological, and nuclear threats.
The crest design depicts the Kangla Palace on the left and ‘Kangla-Sa’ on the right.
The Kangla Palace is an important historical and archaeological site of Manipur, and was the traditional seat of the past kingdom.
With a dragon’s head and lion’s body, the ‘Kangla-Sa’ is a mythical being from Manipur history, and is symbolic as the guardian/protector of its people. ‘Kangla-Sa’ is also the state emblem of Manipur.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/ins-imphal-to-participate-in-mauritius-national-day-celebrations-2025/
POLG disease primarily affects which cellular structure?
Mitochondria
Explanation :
A 22-year-old young prince of Luxembourg, Prince Frederik, recently died from a rare genetic disease called POLG.
About POLG Disease:
It is a genetic mitochondrial disorder that prevents the body’s cells from producing adequate energy, which in turn can cause multiple organ dysfunctions and failures.
The disease affects multiple organs of the body, primarily the brain, nerves, muscles, and liver.
It could also affect a person’s vision due to the involvement of affected brain structures.
People with POLG “likely end up bedridden and unable to function in so many of those activities of daily living.
Causes:
The condition affects mitochondria, the “powerhouse” of the cell, which converts food into ATP (Adenosine triphosphate), the primary source of energy in living cells of a body.
Mitochondria contain their own DNA, which requires a specific enzyme to replicate, found in the host cell’s POLG and POLG2 genes.
Mutations in these genes therefore impact the ability for mitochondria to replicate.
Symptoms:
A person can see symptoms, from mild to severe, starting from early childhood to adulthood.
The most frequent symptoms include muscle weakness, ophthalmoplegia (weakness or paralysis of the eye), epilepsy, and liver failure.
POLG also affects neurological function and impacts a person’s ability to balance, talk, and walk, and it causes seizures and more.
Treatment:
There is currently no cure for POLG.
Available treatment for the POLG focuses on managing the symptoms and quality of life.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.news18.com/explainers/what-is-polg-the-rare-genetic-disease-that-killed-22-year-old-prince-frederik-of-luxembourg-explained-9257456.html
Where is the Fuego Volcano, recently seen in the news, located?
Guatemala
Explanation :
A powerful eruption of the Volcan de Fuego in Guatemala recently has sent shockwaves through the region, with strong explosions, incandescent material, and pyroclastic flows threatening nearby communities.
About Fuego Volcano:
Volcan de Fuego, which translates to “Volcano of Fire” in Spanish, is one of three large stratovolcanoes overlooking Guatemala’s former capital, Antigua.
Guatemala lies on the Pacific “Ring of Fire” and experiences frequent seismic and volcanic activity.
Fuego is one of Central America’s most active volcanoes.
It has a long history of violent eruptions, with records dating back to the 16th century.
A deadly eruption in 2018 claimed 194 lives and left 234 people missing.
The volcano’s eruptive style is haracterized by explosive events, lava flows, and pyroclastic flows, which pose major threats to nearby populations.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.republicworld.com/world-news/guatemala-fuego-volcano-erupts-threatening-nearby-communities
Consider the following statements with respect to Pratibimb Module, recently seen in the news:
- The primary objective of Pratibimb is to provide analytics based on interstate linkages of crimes and criminals involved in cybercrime complaints across various States/Uts.
- It was launched by the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Pratibimb Module has led to the arrest of 6,046 accused, 17,185 linkages, and 36,296 cyber investigation assistance requests, the Lok Sabha was informed recently.
About Pratibimb Module:
It is a Geographic Information System (GIS)-based software launched by the Union Home Ministry’s Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C).
Objective: To help enforcement agencies, including state police forces, to map cybercriminals in real time and destroy their network.
Pratibimb’ offers a unique advantage of projecting mobile numbers used in cybercrimes across the entire country into a GIS map.
The software also provides a map view to personnel of the law enforcement agencies (LEAs) and service providers to ascertain the actual locations of mobile numbers active in criminal activities.
Samanvaya Platform:
It was launched by the Ministry of Home Affairs as a coordination platform for LEAs for cybercrime data sharing and analytics.
It provides analytics based on interstate linkages of crimes and criminals involved in cybercrime complaints across various States/Uts.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/6-046-cyber-criminals-arrested-with-help-of-pratibimb-module-govt-125031100770_1.html
Sajjangarh Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which state?
Rajasthan
Explanation :
A wildfire has engulfed about 50 hectares of area of Sajjangarh Sanctuary of Udaipur recently.
About Sajjangarh Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is located on the outskirts of Udaipur city in Rajasthan.
It is nestled in the Aravalli hill range, covering an area of approximately 5.19 sq.km.
The Sanctuary lies around the Sajjangarh Fort, built by the erstwhile Maharana Sajjan Singh of Mewar in 1874 on Bansdara Hill.
Bari Lake, popularly known as Tiger Lake, is situated on the western slope of the Sanctuary. This lake was built by Maharana Raj Singh of the Mewar dynasty.
Vegetation: It encompasses a blend of deciduous and semi-evergreen forests.
Flora:
It boasts a lush environment dominated by trees like teak, mango, neem, jamun, khair, and ber.
The presence of abundant bamboo groves further enhances the habitat.
Fauna: It is home to animals like panthers, hyenas, wild boars, jackals, sloth bears, sambar deer, spotted deer, and four-horned antelopes.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.freepressjournal.in/india/rajasthan-massive-wildfire-rages-in-udaipurs-sajjangarh-sanctuary-for-fourth-day-no-casualties-reported
Kukis are an ethnic group including multiple tribes originally inhabiting
Northeastern India
Explanation :
An armoured vehicle of the central security forces came under heavy attacks by protesters from the Kuki tribes in Manipur on the first day of the Centre’s order to ensure free movement of people in the crisis-hit state.
About Kuki Tribe
The Kukis are an ethnic group including multiple tribes originally inhabiting the Northeastern States of India, including Manipur, Mizoram and Assam; parts of Burma (now Myanmar), and Sylhet district and Chittagong hill tracts of Bangladesh.
The Chin people of Myanmar and the Mizo people of Mizoram are kindred tribes of the Kukis and are collectively known as the Zo people.
Notably, Kuki is not a term coined by the ethnic group itself, the tribes associated with it came to be generically called Kuki under the colonial rule, and were further divided by the British into ‘old Kukis’ and ‘new Kukis’.
The Kukis have a rich cultural heritage, with institutions like Sawm and Lawm playing significant roles in their society.
Sawm is a community center for boys where they learn under the guidance of elders, while Lawm is a youth club that fosters social activities and practical skills
The Kukis traditionally engaged in shifting or Jhum cultivation in the forested hills, which allowed them to expand their settlements through the wooded areas over generations.
Their expansionist land ownership patterns due to Jhum cultivation put them at odds with the Nagas, who practised territorial agriculture, and the Meiteis, who lived in the cultivated valley areas.
Kuki Rebellion of 1917-19
The first resistance to British hegemony by the Kuki people was the Kuki Rebellion of 1917-19, after which their territory was subjugated by the British and divided between the administrations of British India and British Burma.
Up until their defeat in 1919, the Kukis had been an independent people ruled by their chieftains.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/video-inside-armoured-vehicle-jawans-push-through-attacks-by-kuki-protesters-in-manipur-7901125
Consider the following statements with respect to Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025:
Under the bill, immigration officers have the authority to arrest foreigners without a warrant if they are suspected of violating immigration laws.
Foreigners with dual citizenship will be treated as citizens of the country whose passport they used to enter India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
About Immigration and Foreigners Bill
The Immigration and Foreigners Bill 2025 aims to streamline immigration laws, strengthen national security, and impose stricter penalties for violations.
The bill proposes to replace four colonial-era laws, including the Foreigners Act, 1946, and the Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920, to create a single, modern legal framework.
Immigration and Foreigners Bill Key features
National Secuirty: The bill prioritises national security and sovereignty, stating that any foreigner posing a threat to India’s integrity will be denied entry or permission to stay.
Powers of Immigration Officers: Immigration officers can arrest without a warrant if they suspect a foreigner of violating immigration laws. They can also restrict movements and name changes.
Registration and Reporting Requirements: Foreigners must register upon arrival and report any changes in movement or identity. Institutions like hospitals and schools must notify authorities about foreigners under their care.
Strict Entry and Stay Regulations: All foreigners need a valid passport and visa to enter or leave India. Carriers are responsible for ensuring passengers have proper documents or face fines and transport seizure.
Penalties for Violations:
No valid documents – Up to 5 years jail, ₹5 lakh fine
Forged documents – 2 to 7 years jail, ₹1–10 lakh fine
Overstaying – Up to 3 years jail, ₹3 lakh fine
Transporting foreigners without papers – ₹5 lakh fine and vehicle seizure
Handling of Dual Citizenship: Foreigners with dual citizenship will be treated as citizens of the country whose passport they used to enter India.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.businesstoday.in/india/story/5-years-in-prison-rs5-lakh-fine-for-arrival-without-valid-documents-immigration-and-foreigners-bill-explained-467585-2025-03-11
Consider the following statements regarding the World Air Quality Report 2024:
It is published annually by the United Nations Environment Programme.
Delhi has been ranked as the most polluted city in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
With an average PM 2.5 concentration of 91.8 μg/m3, Delhi continues to be the most polluted Capital city in the world, according to the 2024 World Air Quality Report.
About World Air Quality Report 2024
World Air Quality Report is published by the Swiss organisation IQAir every year. The 2024 World Air Quality Report evaluates the global state of air quality for the year 2024.
This comprehensive report presents PM2.5 air quality data collected from 8,954 cities across 138 countries, regions, and territories.
India Specific Findings
According to the 2024 World Air Quality Report, with an average PM 2.5 concentration of 91.8 μg/m3, Delhi continues to be the most polluted Capital city in the world.
According to the report, 13 of the 20 most polluted cities in the world are in India, with Byrnihat on the Assam-Meghalaya border being the most polluted.
The other cities include Faridabad, Loni (Ghaziabad), Gurgaon, Greater Noida, Bhiwadi, Noida, Muzaffarnagar, New Delhi (Central Delhi) and Delhi (taking the average from the rest of the city).
India is the fifth most polluted country in the world, with an average Air Quality Index (AQI) of 50.6 μg/m3 – 10 times higher than the World Health Organization’s (WHO) annual PM2.5 guideline value of 5 μg/m3. In 2023, it was the third most polluted country.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/delhi/d
Consider the following:
Oman
United Arab Emirates
Iran
Pakistan
How many of the above countries borders the Gulf of Makran?
All four
Explanation :
Iran, Russia and China have begun joint naval drills in the Gulf of Oman, marking the fifth year the three countries have conducted military drills together.
About Gulf of Oman
The Gulf of Oman, also called the Gulf of Makran, is the western extension of the Arabian Sea in the Middle East, forming the only entrance to the Persian Gulf from the Indian Ocean.
It connects the Arabian Sea to the Strait of Hormuz, which leads into the Persian Gulf.
It borders Iran and Pakistan on the north, Oman on the south, and the United Arab Emirates on the west.
The small ports along the gulf include Ṣuḥār, al-Khābūrah, Muscat, and Ṣūr, in Oman, and Jāsk and Chāh Bahār, in Iran.
Some of the significant islands that are located in the Gulf of Oman include Sheytan Island, Al Fahal Island, Dimaniyat Islands, and the Sawadi Islands.
Some fishing is carried on, but the Gulf’s main importance is as a shipping route for the oil-producing area around the Persian Gulf.
The Gulf of Oman offers the only entrance from the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean into the Persian Gulf.
The world’s major oil exporters and importers have a joint interest in its security. Roughly one-third of the world’s oil is exported via the Strait of Hormuz and the Gulf of Oman.
Marine Security Belt 2025
The Marine Security Belt 2025 is a joint naval exercise involving China, Russia, and Iran. Conducted in the Gulf of Oman, it aims to enhance maritime security, counter piracy, and terrorism in the northern Indian Ocean.
The drills include simulated attacks, search and rescue operations, and damage control exercises
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.aljazeera.com/news/2025/3/12/iran-russia-china-conduct-joint-naval-drills-in-gulf-of-oman
Plastic Ice VII, recently seen in news, refers to:
an exotic phase of ice that forms under extreme conditions
Explanation :
Scientists have confirmed the existence of a fourth form of water, Plastic Ice VII, an exotic phase of ice that forms under extreme conditions.
About Plastic Ice:
Under normal conditions, water exists in three phases: solid (ice), liquid (water), and gas (vapour or steam). Unlike ordinary ice, Plastic Ice VII allows water molecules to rotate freely within a rigid crystalline structure.
This phase was first predicted in 2008, but scientists have now provided solid evidence of its existence using advanced neutron-scattering experiments at the Institut Laue-Langevin in France.
The unique structure of Plastic Ice VII forms at pressures exceeding three gigapascals (GPa), about 30,000 times atmospheric pressure on Earth, and temperatures above 450 Kelvin (177°C).
How Was It Discovered?
Researchers used quasi-elastic neutron scattering (QENS) and diamond-anvil cells to study tiny high-pressure samples. These techniques allowed them to analyze molecular motion at the atomic scale.
Their findings confirm that while Plastic Ice VII retains a crystalline structure, its molecules rotate in specific, preferred directions.
Significance of Plastic Ice Discovery
This discovery has profound implications for planetary science. Ice VII, an earlier known phase, exists deep inside the icy moons of Jupiter and Saturn, such as Callisto, Ganymede, and Titan.
Now, the confirmation of Plastic Ice VII suggests that water in extreme environments behaves in even more complex ways than previously thought.
Understanding this exotic ice could help scientists explore whether extreme planetary conditions could support life and how water influences the structure of celestial bodies.
Scientists believe this discovery could lead to new insights in materials science, planetary exploration, and even the development of futuristic technologies that use extreme pressure conditions.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newsx.com/space-science/what-is-plastic-ice-the-fourth-form-of-water-discovered-by-scientists/
Consider the following statements regarding Ashwini Radar, recently seen in the news:
- It is an active electronically scanned phased array radar.
- It is a fully indigenous radar jointly developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Union Ministry of Defence (MoD) recently signed a ₹2,906 crore contract with Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL), Ghaziabad for the procurement of Low-level Transportable Radar, LLTR (Ashwini).
About Ashwini Radar:
LLTR (Ashwini) is an active electronically scanned phased array radar based on state-of-the-art solid-state technology.
It is capable of tracking aerial targets from high-speed fighter aircraft to slow-moving targets such as Unmanned Aerial Vehicles and helicopters.
The fully indigenous Ashwini radars have been jointly developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and BEL.
These radars feature integrated Identification Friend or Foe (IFF) systems with electronic scanning in azimuth and elevation, enabling 4D surveillance.
Designed for mobility, the radars come with advanced Electronic Counter-Countermeasures (ECCM) capabilities and can operate across various terrains.
They automatically detect and track aerial targets, including fighter jets and slow-moving objects.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/ministry-of-defence-signs-2906-crore-radar-contract-with-bel-for-the-indian-air-force/article69321709.ece
What is the primary objective of Mission Amrit Sarovar, recently seen in the news?
To construct and rejuvenate 50,000 water bodies across India.
Explanation :
The Indian Railways will dig ponds as part of the Union government’s Mission Amrit Sarovar that aims to address the critical issue of water scarcity in the country.
About Mission Amrit Sarovar:
It was launched in April 2022 to construct or rejuvenate 75 Amrit Sarovars (ponds) in each district, totaling 50,000 across the country.
It helps to overcome the water crisis in rural areas of the country.
Every Amrit Sarovar will have a pondage area of at least 1 acre with a water holding capacity of about 10,000 cubic metre.
The site of Amrit Sarovars will be approved by special Gram Sabha, which will also name Panchayat Partinidhi, who will on its behalf supervise the development of Amrit Sarovar.
It focuses on water conservation, people’s participation, and proper utilization of soil excavated from the water bodies to boost infrastructure projects.
It is based on the “Whole of Government” approach with the participation from the Ministry of Rural Development, Ministry of Jal Shakti, Ministry of Culture, Ministry of Panchayati Raj, Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change, and technical organizations.
There is no separate financial allocation for Mission Amrit Sarovar.
Bhaskar Acharya National Institute for Space Application and Geo-informatics (BISAG-N) has been engaged as a technical partner for the Mission.
Amrit Sarovar Portal and Mobile App developed by BISAG-N is used for tracking the progress/ performance of Mission Amrit Sarovar in districts.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/railways-to-dig-ponds-under-mission-amrit-sarovar-to-fight-water-scarcity/article69322003.ece
With reference to Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry (APAAR) ID, consider the following statements:
- It is a unique and permanent 12-digit ID to every student, offering a comprehensive record of their academic achievements.
- APAAR prioritizes data security and confidentiality, sharing information only with necessary government agencies if and when required.
- Consent-based document sharing ensures that students have control over the information shared through APAAR.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Parents and activists worry that the Ministry of Education’s Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry (APAAR) ID for school students could become near impossible to opt out from, even though the programme is supposed to be voluntary.
About APAAR ID:
It is a specialized identification system designed for all students in India.
This initiative is part of the ‘One Nation, One Student ID’ program launched by the Union government, aligning with the new National Education Policy of 2020.
The APAAR ID serves as a lifelong academic passport, consolidating all achievements and credentials of a student in one place.
APAAR assigns a unique and permanent 12-digit ID to every student, offering a comprehensive record of their academic achievements, including degrees, scholarships, awards, and other credits.
This identifier remains with the student throughout their educational career, fostering a seamless transition from one level of education to another.
How APAAR Works:
Schools: Record and manage students’ academic data, achievements, and activities in APAAR.
Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) and Skill Institutes: Access students’ academic history and records for admission and recruitment purposes.
Students: Digitally store and retrieve comprehensive academic records, achievements, and co-curricular accomplishments.
Benefits to Students:
Unified Academic Identity: A single platform to consolidate and showcase academic records.
Streamlining Student Records: Simplifying record-keeping for students, parents, and educators.
Digital Repository: Securely storing academic data and achievements.
Seamless Academic Mobility: Facilitating smooth transitions between educational levels.
Data Security and Confidentiality:
APAAR prioritizes data security and confidentiality, sharing information only with necessary government agencies for privacy and security.
Consent-based document sharing ensures that students have control over the information shared through APAAR.
Academic Progress Tracking:
Students can effortlessly monitor their academic journey, enabling personalized study plans and real-time performance analytics.
The system aids in skill gap analysis and provides industry-relevant content for upskilling programs.
Enrolment process:
The enrollment process will be carried out by the school with the consent of their parents, who will also be able to withdraw their consent at any given point of time.
The government assured that the data will be shared only with concerned government agencies if and when required.
The data collected on each student by the schools will be stored in a centrally functioning District Information for Education portal.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/education/schools/apaar-id-voluntary-but-parents-activists-worry-about-growing-mandates/article69322071.ece
Where does the Brahmani River originate?
Chhotanagpur Plateau
Explanation :
Eight years after construction began, the bridge over the Brahmani river near Brahmabarada remains unfinished, causing inconvenience to residents of over 20 villages under five gram panchayats in Rasulpur and Jajpur blocks.
About Brahmani River:
It is one of the major rivers in eastern India, primarily flowing through the state of Odisha.
The river is known as Dhamra in its lower reaches.
Course:
It is formed by the confluence of the Sankh and South Koel rivers near the major industrial town of Rourkela in Odisha.
Both the sources of the Brahmani River are on the Chota Nagpur Plateau.
The Sankh River has its origins near the Jharkhand-Chhattisgarh border, along with the South Koel River, which also rises in Jharkhand.
The basin flows through Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha states, draining a total area of 39,033 sq.km. before it outfalls into the Bay of Bengal.
Together with the rivers Mahanadi and Baitarani, it forms a large delta before emptying into the Bay of Bengal at Palmyras Point, Odisha.
The Brahmani delta is the site of the Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary, famous for its estuarine crocodiles.
Length: The total length of its run is about 799 km, of which 541 km are in Odisha itself.
The Brahmani River basin is bounded in the north by the Chhotanagpur plateau, in the west and south by the Mahanadi basin, and in the east by the Bay of Bengal.
It is one of the few rivers that cut across the Eastern Ghats and has formed a minor gorge at Rengali in Odisha, where a dam has been built.
Tributaries: The principal tributaries of this river are Sankh, Tikra, and Karo.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/odisha/2025/Mar/13/eight-years-on-bridge-over-brahmani-river-remains-incomplete-in-jajpur
Pilibhit Tiger Reserve lies in which state?
Uttar Pradesh
Explanation :
Pilibhit Tiger Reserve (PTR) is set to become a new sanctuary for rhinos from Nepal, as efforts to establish a permanent habitat for the visiting pachyderms gain momentum
About Pilibhit Tiger Reserve:
It is situated in the Pilibhit district of Uttar Pradesh, forming part of the Terai Arc Landscape, in the upper Gangetic Plain Biogeographic Province.
It lies along the India-Nepal border in the foothills of the Himalayas.
The river Gomti originates from the PTR, which is also the catchment of several others like Sharda, Chuka, and Mala Khannot.
The habitat is characterized by sal forests, tall grasslands, and swamps, maintained by periodic flooding from rivers.
The Sharda Sagar Dam extending up to a length of 22 km. is on the boundary of the reserve.
It has a dry and hot climate, which brings a combination of dry teak forest and Vindhya Mountain soils.
Vegetation: North Indian moist deciduous type.
Flora:
The sal woodland is very dense with good natural regeneration, amounting to almost 76% of the reserve area.
The forest patches are interspersed with grass meadows with several species like Sacchrum, Sclerostachya, Imperata, Themeda, Bothriochloa, Vetiveria, Apluda, Dichanthium, Digitaria, and Cyperus.
Fauna:
It is home to a myriad of wild animals, including the endangered tiger, swamp deer, Bengal florican, hog deer, leopard, etc.
The rich bird life in Pilibhit includes species like Swamp Francolin, Great Hornbill, Bengal Florican, Lesser Florican, Black Francolin, Jungle Bush Quail, Red Junglefowl, Asian Openbill, etc.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bareilly/nepals-rhinos-may-soon-call-ptr-home/articleshow/118979277.cms
Consider the following statement with respect to United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD):
It supports developing countries to access the benefits of a globalized economy more fairly and effectively.
UNCTAD published the World Investment Report, and the Least Developed Countries Report.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
UNCTAD warns of economic fragmentation, and stresses global cooperation to prevent trade disruption and ensure long-term growth.
About UNCTAD:
Headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, UNCTAD is a permanent intergovernmental body established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1964.
It supports developing countries to access the benefits of a globalized economy more fairly and effectively.
It provides economic and trade analysis, facilitates consensus-building and offers technical assistance to help developing countries use trade, investment, finance and technology for inclusive and sustainable development.
It is part of the UN Secretariat. It reports to the UN General Assembly and the Economic and Social Council but has its own membership, leadership, and budget. It is also part of the United Nations Development Group.
Key Developments:
The first United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) was held in Geneva in 1964.
In 1989, the Agreement on the Global System of Trade Preferences among Developing Countries (GSTP) came into force. It provided for the granting of tariff as well as non-tariff preferences among its members. To date, the Agreement has been ratified by 44 countries.
The conclusion of the Uruguay Round of trade negotiations under the GATT resulted in the establishment of the World Trade Organizationin 1995, which led to a strengthening of the legal framework governing international trade.
It highlighted the need for a differentiated approach to the problems of developing countries. Its tenth conference, held in Bangkok in February 2000, adopted a political declaration – “The Spirit of Bangkok” – as a strategy to address the development agenda in a globalizing world.
Reports published by UNCTAD:
Trade and Development Report
World Investment Report
Least Developed Countries Report
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/actions-taken-now-by-govts-businesses-to-shape-trade-resilience-for-years-unctad/article69331340.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri – Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM):
PM-ABHIM is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS).
The scheme aims to establish Block Public Health Units and District Integrated Public Health Labs.
The Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (MoHFW) directly implements the scheme, with limited involvement from State Governments.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Delhi government is set to sign a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare to implement the Pradhan Mantri Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM).
About PM-ABHIM:
It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) with certain Central Sector Components which has total outlay of Rs. 64,180 Crores for the scheme period (2021-22 to 2025-26).
The scheme envisages a new generation of reforms to integrate and strengthen health service delivery and public health action.
The measures under the scheme are aimed at strengthening health systems and institutions in order to provide a continuum of care at all levels, namely primary, secondary, and tertiary, as well as preparing health systems to respond effectively to current and future pandemics and disasters.
The following are the components under CS Component of the scheme:
Construction of 17,788 Building less Sub-Centres as Ayushman Bharat- Health & Wellness centres, now known as Ayushman Arogya Mandir (AAM).
Establishment of 11,024 Health & Wellness Centres, now AAM in Urban areas with a focus on slum and slum-like areas.
Establishment of 3382 Block Public Health Units (BPHUs) at the block level.
Establishment of 730 District Integrated Public Health Labs (IPHL) in the country, wherein each district will have one such lab.
Establishing 602 Critical Care Hospital Blocks (CCBs) in all districts with a population of more than 5 lakhs.
The CSS components of PM-ABHIM are implemented by following the existing framework, institutions and mechanisms of the National Health Mission.
Public Health and Hospital are State subjects, implementation of the scheme lies under the purview of State Government. However, MoHFW provides technical and financial support to the States/Union Territories (UTs) for effective implementation of the scheme.
The scheme is implemented by the State government and awareness generation activities including IEC for the scheme is periodically conducted by the State health department along with other public health programs under the National Health Mission.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/delhi/pm-abhim-delhi-ink-pact-centre-implement-healthcare-project-9886070/
‘Supersolid’, recently seen in news, is related to
Quantum mechanics
Explanation :
In an exciting scientific breakthrough, researchers have successfully turned light into a “supersolid” for the first time ever.
About Supersolid:
Supersolids are a strange state of matter defined by quantum mechanics where particles condense into an orderly, crystalline solid but also move like a liquid that has no viscosity.
Usually, solids don’t move on their own, but supersolids change direction and density depending on particle interactions while maintaining an organized lattice structure.
Why Are Supersolids So Cold?
Supersolids require extremely low temperatures to form — usually very close to absolute zero (minus 459.67 degrees Fahrenheit, or minus 273.15 degrees Celsius).
Most of the particles have to occupy the lowest energy state available, and heat makes particles jump up and down like excitable toddlers in a ball pit.
If a material is cold enough, the temperature no longer obscures how the particles interact with each other. Instead, the tiny effects of quantum mechanics become the defining factors in how the material behaves.
Significance of the Discovery:
Supersolids have traditionally been observed in Bose-Einstein condensates (BECs) of ultracold atoms near absolute zero.
However, this new development expands the scope by coupling light and matter, enabling researchers to study condensed-matter physics under extreme quantum conditions.
The discovery has profound implications for quantum computing, where supersolid-based systems could enhance qubit stability.
It also opens pathways for advancements in optical circuits, photonic devices, and fundamental physics research.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/science/worlds-first-supersolid-created-from-light-a-groundbreaking-discovery-7921269
Nagorno-Karabakh region is related to which of the following countries?
Armenia - Azerbaijan
Explanation :
Armenia and Azerbaijan have agreed to a peace agreement set to end nearly four decades of conflict between over disputed Nagorno-Karabakh region.
About Nagorno-Karabakh:
Nagorno-Karabakh, referred to as Artsakh by Armenians, is a landlocked, mountainous region in the South Caucasus.
The general region includes the northeastern flank of the Karabakh Range of the Lesser Caucasus and extends from the crest line of the range to the margin of the Kura River lowland at its foot.
Nagorno-Karabakh’s environments vary from steppe on the Kura lowland through dense forest of oak, hornbeam, and beech on the lower mountain slopes to birchwood and alpine meadows higher up.
Following the Russian Empire’s collapse in 1917, both Armenia and Azerbaijan asserted claims over this area, leading to enduring tensions.
Internationally recognized as part of Azerbaijan, until recently much of it was governed by the unrecognised Nagorno-Karabakh Republic, also known as the Republic of Artsakh.
Historically, the region’s population was predominantly ethnic Armenian, and it operated a self-established government closely aligned with Armenia, though lacking official recognition from Armenia or other United Nations member states.
Nagorno-Karabakh Conflict Timeline:
The conflict has roots dating back well over a century into competition between Christian Armenian and Muslim Turkic and Persian influences.
1920s: After World War I and the Bolshevik revolution, Soviet rulers created the Nagorno-Karabakh Autonomous Region within Azerbaijan, with an ethnic Armenian majority.
1991: As the Soviet Union collapsed, Karabakh declared independence, and tensions between Armenians and Azerbaijanis led to full-scale war.
1992-94: The First Karabakh War resulted in up to 30,000 deaths. Armenians took control of the region and occupied surrounding Azerbaijani land, creating a buffer zone.
2017: A referendum in Karabakh changed the government to a fully presidential system and renamed the region from Nagorno-Karabakh Republic to Republic of Artsakh.
2020: The Second Karabakh War saw Azerbaijan reclaiming territory around Karabakh, with 3,000 Azerbaijani and 4,000 Armenian soldiers killed in six weeks of fighting.
2022: Clashes broke out between Armenian and Azerbaijani forces, with 100 Armenian and 70 Azerbaijani soldiers killed.
2024: Nagorno-Karabakh was officially dissolved.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ft.com/content/ca92b871-dd65-4980-af01-aaf0f3e38650
Consider the following:
- The SpaDeX mission successfully demonstrated docking, and undocking operations, making India the fourth country to achieve this milestone.
- The primary objective of the mission is to test high-speed interplanetary propulsion technology for deep-space exploration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has successfully completed the undocking of two satellites, part of the Space Docking Experiment (SpaDeX) mission, marking a significant milestone in India’s space exploration journey.
About SpaDeX Mission:
SpaDeX mission is a cost-effective technology demonstrator mission for the demonstration of in-space docking using two small spacecraft launched by PSLV.
The primary objective of the SpaDeX mission is to develop and demonstrate the technology needed for rendezvous, docking, and undocking of two small spacecraft (SDX01, which is the Chaser, and SDX02, the Target, nominally) in a low-Earth circular orbit.
The secondary objectives include:
Demonstration of the transfer of electric power between the docked spacecraft, which is essential for future applications such as in-space robotics,
Composite spacecraft control, and
Payload operations after undocking.
The SpaDeX mission consists of two small spacecraft (about 220 kg each) launched by PSLV-C60.
Recent Developments:
The SPADEX satellites were successfully docked recently. ISRO has now accomplished the pivotal operation of undocking of SPADEX satellites in the very first attempt on 13th March, 2025.
The undocking of the satellites took place in 460 km circular orbit with 45-degree inclination.
The satellites are now orbiting independently and their health is normal.
With this, ISRO has now successfully demonstrated all the capabilities required for rendezvous, docking and undocking operations in a circular orbit.
Significance:
This accomplishment made India the fourth country after USA, Russia and China in the world to achieve the feat.
SpaDEx mission is expected to be a stepping stone for India’s future endeavours in space exploration which include getting rocks and soil from the moon on Earth, the proposed Bharatiya Antariksha Station and landing an astronaut on the lunar surface.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/isro-successfully-undocks-spadex-satellites-paves-way-for-chandrayaan-4-2693074-2025-03-13
What is the causative agent of ‘Melioidosis Disease’, recently seen in the news?
Bacteria
Explanation :
A recent study has revealed that melioidosis disease in Odisha has clear seasonality, with infections peaking during and after the monsoon season.
About Melioidosis:
It is a bacterial infectious disease caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei.
B. pseudomallei lives in surface water (streams, rivers, lakes) and soil, mostly in tropical or subtropical areas.
It is endemic in Southeast Asia, northern Australia, much of the Indian subcontinent, southern China, Hong Kong, and Taiwan.
It is also sometimes called Whitmore’s disease.
It has a high case fatality rate (CFR) ranging from 16% to 50% in known endemic regions.
Transmission:
Both humans and animals can get melioidosis, but people can’t get it from animals.
It’s spread to people and animals through direct contact with soil, air, or water contaminated by the bacteria.
Cases may increase after hurricanes, heavy rain, and other severe weather events because the bacteria rise to the surface of the soil.
In areas where it’s more commonly found, melioidosis usually affects adults 40 to 60 years old with certain underlying conditions. Children under 15 rarely get melioidosis.
Symptoms:
Melioidosis may present with localised infection (such as cutaneous abscess), pneumonia, meningoencephalitis, sepsis, or chronic suppurative infection.
Depending on the site of infection, common symptoms include fever, headache, localised pain or swelling, ulceration, chest pain, cough, shortness of breath, haemoptysis, and swelling of regional lymph nodes.
Treatment:
It can be treated with antibiotics.
Long-term treatment may be necessary for some chronic infection cases.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/environmental-mapping-reveals-melioidosis-in-odisha-peak-during-monsoon/article69330651.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Raisina Dialogue:
- It is India’s flagship conference on geopolitics and geo-economics.
- It is an annual event hosted by the Observer Research Foundation (ORF) in partnership with the Ministry of External Affairs, Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
New Zealand Prime Minister Christopher Luxon, foreign ministers of at least 18 countries, top executives of several global firms and foreign policy experts will converge in the national capital for the annual Raisina Dialogue.
About Raisina Dialogue:
It is India’s flagship conference on geopolitics and geo-economics, committed to addressing the most challenging issues facing the international community.
It is modeled on the lines of the Munich Security Conference and Singapore’s Shangri-La Dialogue.
It is held annually since 2016 in New Delhi.
It is structured as a multi-stakeholder, cross-sectoral discussion, involving heads of state, cabinet ministers, and local government officials, who are joined by thought leaders from the private sector, media, and academia.
The conference is hosted by the Observer Research Foundation (ORF) in partnership with the Ministry of External Affairs, Government of India.
This effort is supported by a number of institutions, organisations, and individuals, who are committed to the mission of the conference.
The theme of Raisina Dialogue 2025 is Kalachakra: People. Peace. Planet.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:
https://theprint.in/india/new-zealand-pm-several-foreign-ministers-to-participate-in-raisina-dialogue/2548478/
With reference Foreign Exchange Reserves, consider the following statements:
- These include foreign marketable securities, monetary gold, special drawing rights (SDRs), and reserve position in the IMF.
- China is the largest foreign exchange reserve holder in the world.
- The biggest contributor to India’s foreign exchange reserves is Gold.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
In the sharpest jump in over two years, the country’s foreign exchange reserves increased by $15.267 billion to $653.966 billion recently.
About Foreign Exchange Reserve:
Foreign Exchange Reserves (also called Forex Reserves) are foreign currency assets held by the central banks of countries.
These assets include foreign marketable securities, monetary gold, special drawing rights (SDRs), and reserve position in the IMF.
These are denominated and expressed in the US dollar, which is the international numeraire for the purpose.
China is the largest foreign exchange reserve holder in the world.
RBI is the custodian of the foreign exchange reserves in India.
India’s foreign exchange reserves comprise of;
Foreign currency assets (FCAs): These are maintained in currencies like the US dollar, euro, pound sterling, Australian dollar, and Japanese yen.
Gold
SDR (Special Drawing Rights): This is the reserve currency with the IMF.
RTP (Reserve Tranche Position): This is the reserve capital with the IMF.
The biggest contributor to India’s Forex reserves is foreign currency assets, followed by gold.
Purpose:
They ensure that the country has sufficient liquidity to carry out foreign exchange transactions or cope with a balance of payments deficit.
A central bank can use its foreign exchange reserves (foreign currencies) to intervene in Forex markets and influence its currency’s exchange rate.
If the value of the Rupee decreases due to an increase in the demand for the foreign currency, then RBI sells the dollar in the Indian money market so that depreciation of the Indian currency can be checked.
A country with a good stock of forex has a good image at the international level because the trading countries can be sure about their payments.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/forex-kitty-jumps-sharpest-in-two-years/article69334838.ece
Where is the headquarters of North East Center for Technology Application and Reach (NECTAR) located??
Shillong, Meghalaya
Explanation :
The Union Minister of Science and Technology recently laid the foundation stone for the North East Center for Technology Application and Reach (NECTAR) permanent campus at Mawdiangdiang, Shillong.
About North East Center for Technology Application and Reach (NECTAR):
It is an autonomous society, set up under the Department of Science & Technology, Government of India, with its headquarters at Shillong, Meghalaya.
It was established in 2012 by merging two missions, viz., the National Mission for Bamboo Application (NMBA) and the Mission for Geospatial Applications (MGA).
The Centre will look at harnessing and leveraging niche frontier technologies available with central scientific departments and institutions.
In order to assist the northeastern region, NECTAR will be ensuring applications of appropriate technologies for development in the areas of biodiversity concerns, watershed management, telemedicine, horticulture, infrastructure planning & development, planning and monitoring, and tele-schooling using cutting-edge MESHNET solutions, employment generation, etc. through utilization of local products/resources and associated skill development.
The Centre is sought to be designed in terms of:
The Role of Solution Designer
Being a Partnership Institution
Technology Assistance to the State Government in North Eastern Region
Assistance to State Government in Technology-Assisted Decision Support Systems Focus on Technology Reach Function
Differentiated Approach from Technology Development Organizations
At present, NECTAR is functioning from the Survey of India Campus, Shillong, having branch offices at Delhi and Agartala.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/guwahati/union-min-laids-foundation-for-nectar-in-shillong/articleshow/118990503.cms
What is the primary aim of the PM-YUVA 3.0 scheme, recently seen in the news?
To train young and budding authors.
Explanation :
The Ministry of Education, Department of Higher Education recently launched PM-YUVA 3.0 -Prime Minister’s Scheme for Mentoring Young Authors.
About PM-YUVA 3.0:
The Prime Minister’s Scheme for Mentoring Young Authors (PM-YUVA 3.0) aims to train young and budding authors below 30 years of age to promote reading, writing, and book culture in the country.
The scheme will help to develop a stream of writers who can write on various facets of India, encompassing the past, present, and future.
PM-YUVA 3.0 intends to bring to the fore the perspectives of the young generation of writers on the following themes:
Contribution of Indian Diaspora in Nation Building;
Indian Knowledge System; and
Makers of Modern India (1950-2025).
Besides, the scheme will also provide a window for the aspiring youth to articulate themselves and present a comprehensive outlook of the contribution of Indians across fields in ancient and present times.
The National Book Trust (NBT), India, under the Ministry of Education as the Implementing Agency, will ensure phase-wise execution of the scheme under well-defined stages of mentorship.
Features:
The contestants will be asked to submit a book proposal of 10,000 words. This includes a synopsis of 2000-3000 words, a chapter plan, two-three sample chapters of 7000-8000 words, a bibliography, and references.
A total of 50 authors will be selected. The selection will be made by a committee to be constituted by NBT.
Applicants who had qualified for the PM-YUVA Scheme 1.0 and PM-YUVA Scheme 2.0 are not eligible for the PM-YUVA 3.0 scheme.
The selected young authors will engage with esteemed writers, participate in literary festivals, and contribute to a diverse body of work that reflects India’s rich heritage and contemporary progress.
The books prepared under this scheme will be published by National Book Trust, India, and translated into other Indian languages, fostering cultural and literary exchange while promoting ‘Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat’.
A consolidated scholarship of Rs. 50,000 per month for a period of six months (50,000 x 6 = Rs. 3 Lakh) per author will be paid under the Mentorship Scheme.
A royalty of 10% will be payable to the authors on successful publications of their books at the end of the Mentorship Program.
They will also be given a platform to promote their books and also to propagate the reading and writing culture on a national scale.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/education/ministry-of-education-launches-pm-scheme-for-mentoring-young-authors-7927503
Consider the following with respect to CAR T-cell Therapy:
- It trains the body’s own immune cells to identify and destroy cancer cells.
- A patient’s immune T-cells are collected by filtering their blood.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The clinical trial results of India’s first CAR T-cell therapy, published in The Lancet, show that it worked for nearly 73 percent of patients.
About CAR T-cell Therapy
CAR T-cell therapy, or chimeric antigen receptor T-cell therapy, trains the body’s own immune cells to identify and destroy cancer cells.
This treatment is designed for specific types of blood cancer and is given to patients whose cancer has either relapsed or not responded to first-line treatment.
How does the therapy work?
For any CAR T-cell therapy, a patient’s immune T-cells are collected by filtering their blood.
These cells are then engineered in a lab to add receptors that can bind with cancer cells. These cells are then multiplied and infused in the patient.
Usually, the cancer cells are adept at evading the unmodified T cells.
The treatment developed in India is meant for patients with two types of blood cancers that affect the B cells — acute lymphoblastic leukemia and large B cell lymphomas.
Side Effects of CAR T Therapy
A serious immune overreaction causing hyperinflammation and organ damage, seen in 12% of participants, resulting in at least one death.
Low red blood cell count, reported in 61% of participants, causing fatigue and weakness.
Thrombocytopenia: Low platelet count, increasing the risk of bleeding, reported in 65% of patients.
Neutropenia: Low neutrophil count, seen in 96% of participants, raising the risk of infections.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/health-wellness/novel-cancer-therapy-works-for-73-per-cent-indian-patients-in-clinical-trials-why-the-lancet-report-is-significant-9888054/
Which one of the following is a part of the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs)?
Assam Riffles
Explanation :
Union Home Minister has recently announced the relocation of Assam Rifles battalions to Mizoram.
About Assam Rifles
Assam Rifles is one of the six Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) that come under the MHA’s administrative control.
It conducts counterinsurgency operations in north-eastern India and other areas where deemed necessary.
Its operational control is with the Indian Army, with an officer of the rank of Lieutenant General commanding the force.
The headquarters of the Director-General of Assam Rifles (DGAR) is in Shillong unlike other Central paramilitary forces, all of which have their headquarters in New Delhi.
Assam Rifles History
Assam Rifles has its origins in 1835 as a militia called the ‘Cachar Levy’ to protect British tea estates and their settlements against tribal raids.
It later became the ‘Frontier Force’ conducting punitive expeditions across the borders of Assam.
In 1870, the existing elements were merged into three Assam Military Police Battalions, sending over 3,000 men as part of the British Army to Europe and West Asia.
In 1917, the name was changed to Assam Rifles.
The force has evolved post-Independence, from combat roles during the Sino-India War 1962 to being a part of the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) in Sri Lanka in 1987, besides performing peacekeeping roles in north-eastern India. From 17 battalions in 1960 it has grown to 46 battalions today.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thestatesman.com/india/relocation-of-assam-rifles-from-aizawl-marks-a-new-era-of-urban-development-amit-shah-1503408310.html
Uniyala keralensis, recently seen in news, is a species of:
shrub
Explanation :
Researchers have named the new shrub species, which is endemic to southwest India, Uniyala keralensis (family Asteraceae) after the State of Kerala.
About Uniyala Keralensis
Uniyala keralensis is a “small to large shrub,” growing up to one to three metres in height and sporting attractive light purple florets, according to the paper.
Uniyala keralensis has, among other things, larger leaves, fairly long petioles - the slender stalk that joins the leaf to the stem - and fewer lateral veins on the leaves.
Flowering and fruiting occurs during August to April.
It is found in open areas of the western mountain slopes of the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve (ABR) at elevations ranging between 700 to 1,400 metres.
The present population consists of nearly 5,000 plants of various ages in four subpopulations occupying an area of 250 square kilometres.
Following the IUCN Red List Criteria (IUCN 2024), Uniyala keralensis is assessed as Data Deficient (DD).
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/plant-species-first-collected-27-years-ago-identified-as-new-species-of-the-genus-uniyala/article69333684.ece
Consider the following with respect to Tuberculosis (TB):
- An individuals who was infected but free of disease cannot transmit the TB.
- It is an infectious disease caused by virus that most often affects the lungs.
- Multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB) occurs when TB become resistant to all available antibiotics, making it untreatable.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Tuberculosis resurges worldwide as Trump’s funding cuts disrupt global treatment programs, threatening progress and increasing infection rates.
About Tuberculosis
Tuberculosis (TB) is an infectious disease caused by bacteria that most often affects the lungs. It spreads through the air when people with TB cough, sneeze or spit.
About a quarter of the global population is estimated to have been infected with TB bacteria. About 5–10% of people infected, eventually get symptoms and develop TB disease.
Transmission: Those who are infected but free of disease cannot transmit it. TB disease is usually treated with antibiotics and can be fatal without treatment.
Symptoms: Active TB symptoms include a persistent cough lasting over two weeks, chest pain, coughing up blood or sputum, fatigue, weakness, loss of appetite, weight loss, chills, fever and night sweats.
Treatment: TB is preventable and curable. TB is treated with a standard 6-month course of 4 antimicrobial drugs that are provided with information, supervision and support to the patient by a health worker or trained volunteer.
Multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB)
Drug resistance emerges when TB medicines are used inappropriately, through incorrect prescription by health care providers, poor quality drugs, or patients stopping treatment prematurely.
MDR-TB is a form of TB caused by bacteria that do not respond to isoniazid and rifampicin, the two most effective first-line TB drugs. MDR-TB is treatable and curable by using other drugs, which tend to be more expensive and toxic.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.nytimes.com/2025/03/11/health/tuberculosis-kenya-us-cuts.html
Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary is located in:
Assam
Explanation :
Drying up of Tamulidoba Beel, a major wetland in Assam’s Pobitora wildlife sanctuary brings to the fore an urgent need for habitat management.
About Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary
Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary, located in the eastern region of Guwahati, Assam, was established in 1998 and covers an area of 48.81 square kilometres.
The Sanctuary consists of the Rajamayong Reserve Forest and Pobitora Reserve Forest.
Flora:
72% of Pobitora consists of the wet savannah of Arundo donax, Erianthus ravennae, Phragmites karka, Imperata cylindrica, and Saccharum spp.
Water hyacinth (Eichornia crassipes) is a major problem, especially to waterfowl, as it forms thick mats on the water surface.
Fauna:
Pobitora is mainly famous for its great Indian One-horned rhinoceros.
Besides rhinoceros, the other animals are leopard, wild boar, barking deer, wild buffalo etc.
It is also home to more than 2000 migratory birds and various reptiles.
History:
Pobitora became a reserved wooded area in the year of 1971 with the approval of the Government of Assam.
The Government of India included Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary with the association of a rhino breeding program named “Indian Rhino Vision 2020”.
Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary is known for holding the highest density of Greater One Horned Rhinoceros in the country.
Tamulidoba Beel
Tamulidoba Beel is a wetland in Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary, near Morigaon, that’s a popular spot for birdwatchers and photographers, especially during winter when it becomes a hub for migratory birds.
It has been an ideal habitat for rhinos and buffaloes in particular, besides hosting wide-ranging water birds.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.etvbharat.com/en/!bharat/major-water-body-dries-up-in-assam-wildlife-sanctuary-enn25031104480
What was one of the primary causes of the ‘End-Permian Mass Extinction’ which led to the elimination of about 90 percent of the species on Earth?
Volcanic eruptions that released large amounts of carbon dioxide
Explanation :
The End-Permian Mass Extinction that killed 80% of life on Earth 250 million years ago may not have been quite so disastrous for plants, new fossils hint.
About End-Permian Mass Extinction (EPME):
The End-Permian Mass Extinction (EPME), also known as the Permian-Triassic Extinction Event or “The Great Dying,” was the most severe extinction event in Earth’s history.
It occurred approximately 252 million years ago and marked the transition from the Permian to the Triassic Period.
The Triassic Period is the first period of the Mesozoic Era, lasting from 252 million to 201 million years ago.
Cause:
At that time, the supercontinent Pangea was in the process of breaking up, but all land on Earth was still largely clustered together, with the newly formed continents separated by shallow seas.
An enormous eruption from a volcanic system called the Siberian Traps seems to have pushed carbon dioxide levels to extremes.
The eruption covered around 2 million square kilometers with lava and was one of the largest volcanic events in Earth’s history.
The eruptions may have caused large amounts of carbon dioxide to be released into the atmosphere and caused a large-scale global warming effect of more than 10°C on land and around 8°C on the ocean surface in a short period of time.
The eruptions may have also caused acid aerosols and dust clouds to be released into the atmosphere, which blocked out the sun and prevented photosynthesis from occurring, effectively causing many food chains to collapse.
This caused global warming and ocean acidification, leading to a massive collapse of the ocean ecosystem.
Impacts:
EPME was characterized by the elimination of about 90 percent of the species on Earth, which included more than 95 percent of the marine species and 70 percent of the terrestrial species.
In addition, more than half of all taxonomic families present at the time disappeared.
It ranks first in severity among the five major extinction episodes that span geologic time.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livescience.com/planet-earth/fossils/refuge-from-the-worst-mass-extinction-in-earths-history-discovered-fossilized-in-china
Phansad Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which one of the following states?
Maharashtra
Explanation :
In what comes as a success and encouragement for conservation experts, naturalists, and tribal communities, the first honey harvest was recently done near the Phansad Wildlife Sanctuary in the scenic coastal Raigad district adjoining the financial capital of Mumbai.
About Phansad Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is located in the Murud region of Raigad district, Maharashtra.
It was created to preserve some of the coastal woodland ecosystem of the Western Ghats and consists of 17,250 acres of forest, grasslands and wetlands.
The area was once part of the hunting reserves of the princely state of Murud-Janjira.
Pockets of open grassland, called “mals” occur throughout the sanctuary.
Flora: Some of the plants which are found in the sanctuary are Ain, Kinjal, Teak, Hirda, Jamba, Mango, Ficus, and many more.
Fauna:
The major species which can be spotted here include leopard, hyena, sambar, and mouse deer.
The region also houses several beautiful species of birds, including Malabar Pied Hornbill, Black Eagle, Yellow Footed Green Pigeon, Pompadour Green Pigeon, and Forest Wagtail.
The White-rumped vulture (Gyps bengalensis), which is noted as critically endangered, is also found in the sanctuary.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:
https://www.deccanherald.com/india/maharashtra/first-honey-harvest-at-maharashtras-phansad-wildlife-sanctuary-3448551
Consider the following statements regarding the Kyushu Island, recently seen in the news:
- It is the southernmost of the four main islands of Japan.
- It is bordered by the East China Sea to the west and the Pacific Ocean to the east.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Japanese government recently announced plans to consider deploying long-range missiles on the southwestern island of Kyushu.
About Kyushu Island:
It is the southernmost and third largest of the four main islands of Japan.
The island has a land area of 35,640 sq.km.
It is bordered by the East China Sea to the west and the Pacific Ocean to the east.
The Eastern Channel, or Tsushima Strait, separates Kyushu from the Korean Peninsula in the northwest.
A series of volcanic ranges, including the world’s largest active volcanic crater, Mount Aso, are located in Kyushu.
Highest Peak: Mount Kuju (1,794 m)
Major parts of Kyushu have a subtropical climate and heavy rainfall, which supports its subtropical vegetation.
The Chikugo (142 km) is the island’s longest river.
The chief cities are the northern industrial complex of Kita-Kyūshū, the commercial centre of Fukuoka, and Nagasaki.
The main crops raised on the island include rice, tea, tobacco, sweet potatoes, and citrus fruit.
Industries, concentrated in northern Kyushu, include iron and steel and chemicals.
Saga ken (prefecture) is famous for porcelain and pottery.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://armyrecognition.com/news/army-news/2025/breaking-news-japan-to-deploy-anti-ship-missiles-on-kyushu-island-amid-growing-china-and-north-korea-threats
Consider the following statements regarding Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE), recently seen in the news:
- It is a bacterial infection that affects the lungs.
- There is no cure for SSPE.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Despite being a rare disease globally, Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE) remains a serious health concern in Lucknow and Uttar Pradesh due to low measles vaccination coverage.
About Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE):
It is a progressive and usually fatal brain disorder related to measles (rubeola) infection.
SSPE tends to occur several years after a person has measles, even though the person seems to have fully recovered from the illness.
Cause:
Normally, the measles virus does not cause brain damage.
However, an abnormal immune response to measles or, possibly, certain variant forms of the virus may cause severe illness and death.
This response leads to brain inflammation (swelling and irritation) that may last for years.
SSPE has been reported in all parts of the world, but in western countries it is a rare disease.
Males are more often affected than females. The disease generally occurs in children and adolescents.
Symptoms:
The first symptoms of SSPE may be poor performance in schoolwork, forgetfulness, temper outbursts, distractibility, sleeplessness, and hallucinations.
Sudden muscular jerks of the arms, head, or body may occur.
Eventually, seizures may occur, together with abnormal uncontrollable muscle movements. Intellect and speech continue to deteriorate.
Later, the muscles become increasingly rigid, and swallowing may become difficult.
The swallowing difficulty sometimes causes people to choke on their saliva, resulting in pneumonia. People may become blind.
In the final phases, the body temperature may rise, and the blood pressure and pulse become abnormal.
Treatment:
High mortality rates are associated with SSPE, and there is no cure for SSPE.
Treatment is generally aimed at regulating symptoms.
Certain antiviral medicines and medicines that boost the immune system may be tried to slow the progression of the disease.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/lucknow/poor-coverage-of-measles-vax-giving-rise-to-fatal-neuro-disease/articleshow/119086890.cms
Bhadra River, recently seen in the news, flows through which one of the following states?
Karnataka
Explanation :
Two youths from Rajasthan drowned in the Bhadra River recently.
About Bhadra River:
It is a river flowing in the Karnataka state.
Course:
It begins at the Western Ghats range and flows east across the Deccan Plateau.
The tributaries Somavahini, Thadabehalla, and Odirayanahalla join it.
The river flows across the Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary.
The Bhadra meets the Tunga River at Koodli, a small town near Shivamogga.
The combined river continues east as the Tungabhadra, a major tributary of the Krishna River.
Tungabhadra joins Krishna at Sangamaleshwaram in Andhra Pradesh.
The Krishna River finally ends in the Bay of Bengal.
The total length of Bhadra is 178 km, and it is sub-montane in character.
Bhadra Dam is a dam built across the Bhadra River near Lakkavalli village.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/mysuru/two-rajasthan-youths-drown-in-bhadra-river/articleshow/119085115.cms
The term “Menhirs” recently seen in the news is related to:
ancient stone tools
Explanation :
The Mudumal Megalithic Menhirs in Telangana’s Narayanpet district, dating back 3,500 to 4,000 years, have been added to India’s Tentative UNESCO World Heritage Sites list.
About Menhirs
Menhirs are large upright standing stones, often part of megalithic burial or ritual sites.
Found across Europe, Africa, and Asia, they are most numerous in Western Europe.
They vary in size, are often uneven and squared, and sometimes taper towards the top.
Menhirs are arranged in circles, semicircles, ellipses, or parallel rows.
The most famous alignment is the Carnac Stones in France, with 2,935 menhirs.
Some menhirs feature engravings, possibly linked to fertility rites and seasonal cycles.
What are Megaliths?
Megaliths are stone structures used as burial sites or commemorative (non-sepulchral) memorials.
Burial Megaliths:
Dolmenoid cists (box-shaped burial chambers).
Cairn circles (stone circles marking graves).
Capstones (mushroom-shaped burial chambers, mainly in Kerala).
Non-burial Megaliths: Menhirs serve as memorials or astronomical markers.
Megalithic Culture in India: Most megaliths in India date back to the Iron Age (1500–500 BCE).
Concentrated in Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana.
Significance of Mudumal Menhirs
Archaeological importance: Considered one of South India’s largest megalithic-era burial sites.
The site covers 80 acres and contains:
80 tall menhirs (10-14 feet high).
3,000 alignment stones in rows (20-25 feet apart), likely linked to ancient funerary rites.
Astronomical Significance: Likely served as an ancient astronomical observatory.
Menhir alignments coincide with solar events such as:
Equinoxes (day and night are equal).
Solstices (longest and shortest days of the year).
A unique menhir with cup marks is considered the earliest known depiction of a constellation in South Asia (Ursa Major/Saptarshi Mandal).
Cultural and Religious Significance: The local population worships some menhirs, calling them “Niluralla Thimmappa” (Thimmappa of the Standing Stones).
A particular menhir is revered as Goddess Yellamma, reflecting living cultural traditions.
Mudumal’s UNESCO Tentative List Status
Telangana currently has only one UNESCO World Heritage Site—Ramappa Temple, inscribed in 2021.
Added to the UNESCO Tentative List in 2025, along with:
Kanger Valley National Park (Chhattisgarh).
Ashokan Edict Sites (Multiple States).
Chausath Yogini Temples (Madhya Pradesh & Odisha).
Gupta Temples (Multiple States).
Palace-Fortresses of the Bundelas (Madhya Pradesh & Uttar Pradesh).
India now has 62 sites on its Tentative UNESCO List, a mandatory step before full inscription.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/india/telangana-mudumal-megalithic-menhirs-tentative-unesco-heritage-list-india-9887184/
Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the Free Trade Agreement (FTA)?
- It aims to reduce or eliminate trade barriers between the countries.
- It excludes intellectual property rights (IPRs), government procurement, and competition policies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 only
Explanation :
India and New Zealand have officially launched negotiations for a comprehensive Free Trade Agreement (FTA).
What is a Free Trade Agreement (FTA)?
Definition: An FTA is a trade pact between two or more countries that aims to reduce or eliminate trade barriers, such as tariffs, import/export restrictions, and non-tariff barriers.
Key Features:
Covers trade in goods (agriculture & industry) and services (banking, IT, construction, etc.).
Advanced FTAs also include investment, intellectual property rights (IPRs), government procurement, and competition policies.
Types of Trade Agreements
Partial Scope Agreement (PSA): Focuses on a limited number of goods.
Free Trade Agreement (FTA): Eliminates/reduces tariffs between member countries but retains independent external tariff policies for non-members.
Customs Union: Members follow a common external tariff for non-members.
Common Market: Allows free movement of goods, services, and production factors (labour & capital).
Economic Union: Coordinates macroeconomic and exchange rate policies among member nations.
India-New Zealand Trade Relations
This marks India’s second bilateral trade agreement in Oceania, following the India- Australia FTA in April 2022.
Trade Growth: In 2023-24, India exported $538 million worth of goods to New Zealand and imported $335 million, creating a trade surplus of $203 million.
Bilateral trade surpassed $1 billion during April-January 2025, indicating steady growth.
In 2024-25 (up to December 31):
Indian exports to New Zealand grew by 21.49% to $496 million.
Imports surged by 78.72% to $463 million, narrowing the trade surplus to $33 million.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/india-new-zealand-launch-negotiations-on-fta-101742150425811.html
Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the Notifiable Diseases?
- They are a group of infections which are generally not reported to public health authorities.
- Meningitis is an example of Notifiable Disease.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2 only
Explanation :
There is an ongoing debate on whether cancer should be designated as a notifiable disease in India.
What Are Notifiable Diseases?
Notifiable diseases are legally mandated to be reported to public health authorities for monitoring, prevention, and control.
Responsibility: The state governments are responsible for implementing and notifying diseases.
Purpose: Early warning of outbreaks, tracking disease burden, and guiding elimination and control programs.
Examples: Cholera, tuberculosis, AIDS, dengue, hepatitis, leprosy, meningitis, plague, and measles.
WHO’s International Health Regulations (1969): Mandates countries to report diseases for global surveillance and advisory purposes.
About National Cancer Registry Programme (NCRP)
Launched in 1981 by ICMR, the National Cancer Registry Programme (NCRP) is India’s primary cancer data collection system.
Objectives:
Generate reliable data on cancer incidence, trends, and survival rates.
Conduct epidemiological studies to understand risk factors.
Support cancer control programs under the National Cancer Control Programme (NCCP).
Train healthcare professionals in cancer registration and epidemiology.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/should-cancer-be-a-notifiable-disease/article69336747.ece#:~:text=Time%20and%20again%2C%20there,non%2Dcommunicable%20and%20not%20infectious.
Consider the following statements with reference to Potti Sriramulu:
- He was a key figure in demanding a separate Telugu-speaking state.
- He laid the foundation for the reorganisation of states on a linguistic basis in post independent India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister announced the installation of a 58-ft statue of Potti Sriramulu in Amaravati, commemorating his 58-day hunger strike for the formation of Andhra State.
About Potti Sriramulu:
Potti Sriramulu (1901-1952) was an Indian freedom fighter and revolutionary best known for his role in demanding a separate Telugu-speaking state.
His death after a 56-day fast on December 15, 1952, led to mass protests, forcing Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru to announce the creation of Andhra State on December 19, 1952.
His sacrifice laid the foundation for the reorganisation of states on a linguistic basis, leading to the formation of linguistic states in India.
Key Contributions of Potti Sriramulu
Role in the Indian Independence Movement: Participated in Salt Satyagraha (1930) and was imprisoned for his role. Took part in the Quit India Movement (1942) against British rule.
A staunch follower of Mahatma Gandhi, he joined the Gandhi Ashram in Komaravolu, established by Yerneni Subrahmanyam.
Fight for Andhra State and linguistic reorganization: Advocated for a separate Telugu-speaking state from Madras Presidency, believing that people should be governed in their own language.
Launched a hunger strike on October 19, 1952, demanding a Telugu-speaking state.
Passed away on December 15, 1952, after 56 days of fasting, triggering nationwide protests.
The protests led to the formation of Andhra State on October 1, 1953, with Kurnool as its capital.
Social reforms: Fought for Dalit rights, undertaking a hunger strike to allow Dalits entry into the Venu Gopala Swamy Temple in Moolapeta, Nellore, which was later granted.
Impact of Potti Sriramulu’s Sacrifice: His death led to the formation of the State Reorganisation Commission (1953), which recommended the reorganization of Indian states based on linguistic lines.
This ultimately resulted in the States Reorganisation Act of 1956, leading to the formation of linguistic states like Maharashtra, Karnataka, Gujarat, and Tamil Nadu.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/vijayawada/58-ft-tall-statue-of-potti-sriramulu-will-be-installed-in-amaravati-naidu/articleshow/119084685.cms
Which one of the following groups of countries shares its land border with Yemen?
Saudi Arabia and Oman
Explanation :
Recently, the U.S. launched airstrikes on Houthi-controlled areas in Yemen, targeting Houthi bases, missile defenses, and leaders.
Geopolitical Importance of Yemen
Borders: Saudi Arabia (North) and Oman (East).
Coastline & Strategic Importance:
Red Sea (West), Gulf of Aden, Arabian Sea, and Guardafui Channel (South).
Controls the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait, a critical passage linking the Indian Ocean to the Red Sea via the Gulf of Aden.
The strait is vital for global oil trade and international shipping.
Who are the Houthis?
The Houthis are a Zaidi Shia sect based in northwestern Yemen, particularly in Sa’dah province.
Origins: The Houthi movement began in the 1990s as a rebellion against the dictatorship of then-Yemeni President Ali Abdullah Saleh.
Role in the Yemen Civil War: The Houthis are a major faction in the Yemen Civil War and currently control western and northwestern Yemen, including the capital Sana’a.
Other factions in the war include:
Yemeni Government (backed by Saudi Arabia and the U.S.).
Al-Qaeda in the Arabian Peninsula (AQAP).
Ansar al-Sharia (a terrorist group in Yemen).
Iranian Backing & Anti-Israel Position: The Houthis are part of “The Axis of Resistance”, an Iran-led anti-Israel and anti-Western alliance.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/us-air-strike-yemen-trump-warning-to-iran-backed-houthi-rebels-live-updates-march-16-2025/article69336044.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Caracal:
- It is a medium-sized wildcat endemic to South Asia.
- It is classified as endangered under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
A rare caracal has been recently spotted in Rajasthan’s Mukundra Hills Tiger Reserve, sending waves of excitement among wildlife enthusiasts.
About Caracal:
It is a medium-sized nocturnal wildcat.
In India, it is called siya gosh, a Persian name that translates as ‘black Ear’.
Scientific Name: Caracal caracal
Distribution:
Caracals live on rocky hills or grasslands in the Middle East, Africa, and South Asia.
Their numbers in India have dwindled to an estimated 50, primarily in Rajasthan and Gujarat.
Habitat: Caracals are adaptable animals that can live in a variety of environments, including grasslands, savannas, scrublands, and forests.
Features:
They have slender bodies and long legs; they are the largest of the African small cats.
They can weigh between 8-18 kg and can reach up to one meter in length. Males usually weigh more and are bigger than females.
The fur is short and dense and is tawny-brown to reddish-tan in colour with whitish underparts.
Their face is marked with dark lines and white spots around their eyes.
It has large, black pointed ears.
It is distinguished by its ability to capture birds by leaping at least two meters into the air from a standstill.
The caracal can reach speeds of up to 50 mph (80 kph) when in full flight.
They live in small herds. and their shy and elusive nature makes them difficult to spot in the wild.
Conservation status
IUCN Red List: Least concern
The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/rare-caracal-spotted-in-rajasthans-mukundra-hills-minister-shares-pic-7943421
Consider the following statements regarding the Bar Council of India (BCI):
- It is a statutory body created by Parliament to regulate and represent the Indian bar.
- The Attorney General of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the BCI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Bar Council of India (BCI) recently issued a strict warning against ‘unethical’ legal advertising and misleading social media promotions leading to professional misconduct by advocates.
About Bar Council of India (BCI):
It is a statutory body created by Parliament to regulate and represent the Indian bar.
It was established under the Advocates Act, 1961, based on the recommendations of the All India Bar Committee.
Its main objective is safeguarding the rights, interests, and privileges of advocates throughout India.
Functions:
It performs the regulatory function by prescribing standards of professional conduct and etiquette and by exercising disciplinary jurisdiction over the bar.
It also sets standards for legal education and grants recognition to Universities whose degrees in law will serve as qualification for enrolment as an advocate.
It conducts the All India Bar Examination (AIBE) to grant a ‘Certificate of Practice’ to advocates practising law in India.
BCI also funds welfare schemes for economically weaker and physically handicapped advocates.
It also recognizes on a reciprocal basis foreign qualifications in law obtained outside India for admission as an advocate under this Act.
Composition:
It comprises members elected from each State Bar Council, the Attorney General of India, and the Solicitor of India, who serve as members automatically.
The members of the State Bar Councils are elected for five years.
The Council has the power to choose its own Chairman and Vice-Chairman from among its members, and they serve for two years.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:
https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/bci-prohibits-advocates-using-actors-influencers-for-promotion-cautions-against-soliciting-legal-work-through-social-media-286663
Kanger Valley National Park (KVNP) lies in which state:
Chhattisgarh
Explanation :
Kanger Valley National Park (KVNP), which is located in the once Maoist-infested pocket of Bastar district in Chhattisgarh, has been recently included in the tentative list of UNESCO world heritage sites under the ‘Natural’ category.
About Kanger Valley National Park (KVNP):
Location: It is located in Jagdalpur in the Bastar district of Chhattisgarh state.
The National Park derives its name from the Kanger River, which flows centrally from the Northwest to the Southeast direction.
Kanger River is a tributary of the Kolab River, which ultimately joins the Godavari River.
Topography: It features low flatlands, gentle slopes, steep inclines, plateaus, deep gorges, valleys, and winding stream courses.
Tirathgarh Falls, which originates from the Kanger River, presents an enchanting view falling from a height of 150 feet.
The national park has more than 15 limestone caves, including the famous Kotumsar, Kailash, and Dandak caves.
Flora: Blend of mixed moist deciduous type of forests with the predominance of Sal, teak, and bamboo.
Fauna:
Major wild animals include tigers, mouse deer, leopards, wildcat, sambar, chital, barking deer, langurs, jackals, rhesus macaque, flying squirrel, etc.
The aerial fauna at the park consists of common hill myna, red jungle fowl, spotted owlet, racket-tailed drongos, parrots, etc.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/former-maoist-bastion-in-chhattisgarh-bags-prestigious-unesco-tag-125031600692_1.html
Consider the following statements with respect to the mathematical constant Pi (π):
- It represents the ratio of the circumference of a circle to its diameter.
- It is an infinitely long, irrational number, and its exact value cannot be known.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
10-year-old Alberto Davila Aragon from Bristol, UK set a new world record by recalling 280 decimal places of Pi in one minute on Pi Day.
About Pi Day:
Pi Day, or International Day of Mathematics, celebrated on March 14 every year, honours the mathematical constant Pi, recognising its significance in mathematics.
Pi Day is celebrated by lovers of mathematics every year through Pi recital competitions and Pi Day workouts to stimulate interest in learning and practising mathematics.
The theme for Pi Day 2025 is ‘Mathematics, Art, and Creativity’.
Why March 14?
The approximate value of Pi is 3.14.
The date, when written in the format of month/day (3/14), matches the first three digits of the mathematical constant.
History of Pi Day:
The first Pi Day was celebrated in 1988 by physicist Larry Shaw at the San Francisco Exploratorium.
In 2009, the United States House of Representatives officially designated March 14 as Pi Day.
Later, in 2019, UNESCO declared Pi Day as the “International Day of Mathematics” during its general conference.
Albert Einstein, the renowned physicist behind the “General Theory of Relativity,” was born on Pi Day in 1879.
What is Pi (π)?
Pi is a mathematical constant that represents the ratio of the circumference of a circle to its diameter.
It is an infinitely long, irrational number, and its exact value cannot be known.
Pi has been calculated to over 50 trillion digits beyond its decimal point.
As an irrational and transcendental number, it will continue infinitely without repetition or pattern.
It is roughly equal to 3.14, or 22/7.
It is represented by the Greek letter ‘π.’
Why that letter? It’s the first Greek letter in the words “periphery” and “perimeter,” and pi is the ratio of a circle’s periphery — or circumference — to its diameter.
History:
Pi has been known for nearly 4,000 years and was discovered by the ancient Babylonians.
One of the first calculations of pi was carried out by Greek mathematician Archimedes of Syracuse (287 B.C. to 212 B.C.).
The symbol π was devised by British mathematician William Jones in 1706.
Applications: It is used in a wide variety of mathematical and scientific calculations, including geometry, trigonometry, calculus, and more.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/life-style/parenting/moments/schoolboy-memorizes-record-breaking-pi-digits-heres-what-kids-should-know-about-this-magical-number/articleshow/119035590.cms
What is the primary purpose of the Sarthi system launched by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
To digitize RBI’s internal workflows.
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India was recently selected for the UK’s Digital Transformation Award 2025 for its tech innovations Sarthi and Pravaah systems.
About Sarthi Initiative:
The Sarthi system, named after the Hindi word for ‘charioteer’, was launched in January 2023 to digitise all of RBI’s internal workflows.
It enables employees to securely store and share documents, improving record management and enhancing data analysis through reports and dashboards.
The online Sarthi Pathshala (‘school’) helps users become familiar with the system, and the Pathshala was rolled out alongside extensive in-person training.
Additionally, Sarthi mitras (‘friends’) are people in each RBI office who know the system well and can help colleagues with any issues.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livemint.com/industry/banking/rbi-wins-digital-transformation-award-2025-by-uks-central-banking-for-tech-innovations-sarthi-pravaah-11741951375842.html
Consider the following statements regarding Human Coronavirus HKU1:
- HKU1 is a species of coronavirus that can affect both humans and animals..
- Unlike COVID-19, HKU1 has a vaccine available and can be treated with antiviral medications.
- HKU1 is primarily associated with mild respiratory infections, but in vulnerable groups, it can lead to severe complications like pneumonia.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A 45-year-old woman from Garia, Kolkata, has been diagnosed with human coronavirus HKU1 (HCoV-HKU1).
About Human Coronavirus HKU1:
Human coronavirus HKU1 is also known as Betacoronavirus hongkonense. It is a species of coronavirus that can affect both humans and animals.
Origin: It was first identified in 2004 by researchers at Hong Kong University, which is how it got its name.
Symptoms: The symptoms of HKU1 include a runny nose, fever, coughing, wheezing, headache, and sore throat. While symptoms are usually mild, untreated cases can sometimes lead to bronchiolitis and pneumonia.
Transmission: It is transmitted during direct contact with the infected person via respiratory droplets (coughing or sneezing), touching contaminated surfaces and then touching the face, mouth, or nose.
Vulnerability: The disease is self-limiting and resolves on its own. But vulnerable groups like the elderly, children, pregnant women, those with immuno-compromised conditions or with co-morbidities need to be vigilant for severe manifestation of the disease.
Treatment: There is no vaccine or specific treatment for human coronaviruses. Most infected individuals get better on their own.
Difference between HKU1 and COVID-19:
HKU1 and COVID-19 are both caused by coronaviruses, but HKU1 is less severe than Covid-19.
HKU1 is one of the four endemic human coronaviruses that cause common cold, while COVID-19 is caused by SARS-CoV-2, a novel coronavirus that can cause severe respiratory illness and has caused a global pandemic.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/health-wellness/what-is-human-coronavirus-detected-in-a-kolkata-woman-heres-all-you-need-to-know-about-this-strain-9890848/
Consider the following with respect to PM Internship Scheme:
- The scheme provides 12-month internships for young individuals aged 21-24 years.
- The scheme prioritizes students from elite institutions like IITs, IIMs, and National Law Universities to ensure the best talent gets internship opportunities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Union Minister Nirmala Sitharaman recently launched a dedicated mobile application for the Prime Minister Internship Scheme and urged more companies to join the programme.
About PM Internship Scheme:
PM Internship Scheme is a remarkable initiative launched by the Indian government, designed to provide valuable internship opportunities for the youth of India.
It aims to provide young individuals aged 21-24 years from low-income households with 12-month internship opportunities in the country’s top 500 companies.
The pilot phase targets 1.25 lakh youth, with a five-year goal to facilitate internships for one crore young individuals.
These internships span 24 sectors, including oil, gas, energy, travel, hospitality, automotive, banking, and financial services.
Eligibility Criteria:
Passed 10th, 12th, ITI, Polytechnic, or Diploma courses.
Fresh graduates from non-premier institutions.
Anyone from a household that includes a person who earned an income of Rs.8 lakh or less in a year.
No family member has a government job.
Note: Students from IITs, IIMs, National Law Universities, and individuals with professional degrees like CA, MBA, MBBS, etc., are excluded to promote inclusivity for underrepresented groups.
The program, part of the larger vision for skill development and employment, aims to bridge the gap between academic learning and real-world experience.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/sitharaman-launches-pm-internship-scheme-app-to-empower-youth/
Mount Fuji is located in located in:
Japan
Explanation :
Japan will introduce climbing fees of US$27 on Mount Fuji’s four main trails this summer to address overcrowding and enhance safety for tourists.
About Mount Fuji:
Mount Fuji, also called Fuji-san, is Japan’s tallest mountain, with a height of 3,776 meters.
It is situated close to the Pacific coast in the Yamanashi and Shizuoka prefectures in the heart of the large island of Honshu, about 100km to the southwest of the Tokyo-Yokohama metropolitan area.
It is part of the Fuji Volcanic Zone, a volcanic chain that extends northward from the Mariana Islands and the Izu Islands through the Izu Peninsula to northern Honshu.
It is a stratovolcano that has been dormant since its last eruption, in 1707, but is still generally classified as active by geologists.
Mount Fuji is one of Japan’s “Three Holy Mountains” along with Mount Tate and Mount Haku.
The mountain is the major feature of Fuji-Hakone-Izu National Park (1936), and it is at the centre of a UNESCO World Heritage site designated in 2013.
Mount Fuji Origin:
According to tradition, the volcano was formed in 286 BCE by an earthquake. The truth is somewhat more complex.
The age of Fuji is disputed, but it seems to have formed during the past 2.6 million years on a base dating from up to 65 million years ago; the first eruptions and the first peaks probably occurred sometime after 700,000 years ago.
The earliest precursors to Mount Fuji were Komitake (which forms the mountain’s north slope) and Ashitaka-yama (which sits southeast of the mountain).
The present-day mountain is a composite of three successive volcanoes: at the bottom is Komitake, which was surmounted by Ko Fuji (“Old Fuji”) about 100,000 years ago and, finally, by the most recent, Shin Fuji (“New Fuji”).
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/mount-fuji-hikers-will-now-be-charged-over-rs-2-000-on-all-trails-7941883
The Shishtachar Squad, an anti-eve-teasing initiative, is launched which one of the following?
Delhi
Explanation :
Delhi Police has formed district-wise dedicated anti-eve-teasing squads (Shistachar squads) across the national capital to check incidents of harassment and ensure the safety of women in public spaces.
About Shishtachar Squad:
The Shishtachar Squad is an anti-eve-teasing initiative by Delhi Police aimed at improving women’s safety in public spaces.
Inspired by Uttar Pradesh’s Anti-Romeo Squads, it adopts a multi-faceted approach involving prevention, intervention, and victim assistance.
Each district will form at least two squads, which will be supervised by the ACP Crime Against Women cell of the concerned district.
Features:
Composition: Each squad includes one inspector, one sub-inspector, five male officers, four female officers, and technical support from the Anti-Auto Theft Squad.
Area Identification: The district DCPs shall identify and compile a list of hotspots and vulnerable areas, that pose risks to women’s safety
Patrolling: The squad will also routinely move around in vulnerable areas and conduct drives in at least two vulnerable points every day.
Surprise Checks: Plain-clothed officers perform surprise checks in public transport and interact with DTC staff to encourage reporting of harassment cases.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Delhi/delhi-police-to-create-shishtachar-squads-to-check-harassment-of-women-in-public-spaces/article69341967.ece
Betwa River is a direct tributary of which one of the following rivers?
Yamuna
Explanation :
River Betwa that once gave life to the Vindhyas, nourished kingdoms, and witnessed the footsteps of sages and warriors alike, lies in silence - gasping, groaning, almost gone.
About River Betwa:
The Betwa River, historically known as Vetravati, is significant in central and northern India, serving as a tributary of the Yamuna River.
It originates from Jhiri village in Raisen district, Madhya Pradesh, in the Vindhya Range, just north of Hoshangabad (now Narmadapuram).
It flows generally northeast through Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh and empties into the Yamuna River just east of Hamirpur after a 610-km course.
Nearly half of its course, which is not navigable, runs over the Malwa Plateau before it breaks into the upland of Bundelkhand.
Tributaries: The Jamni and Dhasan rivers are its major tributaries.
Dams: The Betwa is dammed at Dukwan and Deogarh for irrigation and water management.
Significance:
The Betwa River has been flowing since Vedic times and is mentioned in the Vedas through hymns and verses. In the Mahabharata, it is revered as Vetravati, symbolizing penance, purity, and perseverance.
It is part of the Ken-Betwa Link Project, a major interlinking initiative for irrigation and drinking purposes.
The Indian navy named one of its frigates INS Betwa in honour of the river.
Ken-Betwa Link Project:
The Ken-Betwa Link Project (KBLP) is a river interlinking initiative aimed at transferring surplus water from the Ken River to the Betwa River to irrigate the drought-prone Bundelkhand region.
It is the first project under the National Perspective Plan for the interlinking of rivers, which was prepared in 1980.
The Ken-Betwa Link Project has two phases.
Phase I will involve building the Daudhan Dam complex and its subsidiary units such as the Low-Level Tunnel, High-Level Tunnel, Ken-Betwa Link Canal, and powerhouses.
Phase II will involve three components — Lower Orr Dam, Bina Complex Project, and Kotha Barrage.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/in-madhya-pradesh-river-betwa-suffers-a-slow-death-7944806
Exercise Varuna is a bilateral Naval Exercise between India and which other country?
France
Explanation :
The Indian and French Navies are gearing up for the 23rd edition of their bilateral naval exercise, VARUNA 2025.
About Exercise Varuna:
It is the bilateral Naval Exercise between India and France.
Initiated in 1993, the exercise was christened ‘Varuna’ in 2001 and has become a hallmark of the India-France strategic bilateral relationship.
VARUNA 2025 is the 23rd edition of the exercise and will take place in the Arabian Sea.
It will showcase a series of high-intensity naval drills, emphasizing joint operations across sub-surface, surface, and aerial domains.
The Indian Navy’s aircraft carrier, INS Vikrant, and the French aircraft carrier, Charles de Gaulle, will participate alongside their fighter aircraft, destroyers, frigates, and an Indian Scorpene-class submarine, demonstrating the combined strength and operational capabilities of both naval forces.
One of the key highlights of the exercise will be advanced air defence drills and mock air-to-air combat scenarios between the French Rafale-M and Indian MiG-29K fighter jets.
These exercises aim to enhance tactical coordination and refine combat readiness.
Additionally, anti-submarine warfare drills will focus on strengthening underwater domain awareness, while surface warfare operations will test the ability of both navies to execute synchronized engagements and manoeuvres.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindian.in/indian-french-navies-set-to-strengthen-maritime-ties-in-varuna-2025/
Ana Sagar Lake, recently seen in the news, lies in which state?
Rajasthan
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently directed the state govt to remove replica structures from the ‘Seven Wonders’ park in the wetland area of Ana Sagar lake in six months.
About Ana Sagar Lake:
It is an artificial lake situated in Ajmer, Rajasthan.
It was built by raising a dam across the Luni or Lavanavari River.
The lake was built by Arnoraja Chauhan, the grandfather of Prithviraj Chauhan, in 1135 - 1150 AD and was named after him.
It is spread over 13 km.
The lake also comprises Baradari or pavilions that were built by Shah Jahan in 1637 AD.
The Daulat Bagh Gardens, located on the banks of the lake, was built by Jehangir.
There is an island in the center of the lake which is accessible by boat.
A circuit house is there on a hill near the lake that used to be the British Residency.
The lake gets dry every summer.
Hence option d is the correct anwer.
News:
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/jaipur/sc-gives-6-mthsto-remove-sevenwonders-replicasnear-ana-sagar/articleshow/119130097.cms
In which of the following countries can the Zomi people be found?
A. India B. Myanmar C. Bangladesh
+All of the above
Explanation :
A day after the imposition of restrictions following clashes between the Hmar and Zomi people in Manipur, leaders of the two communities recently agreed to work together to restore peace in Churachandpur district of the State.
About Zomi Tribe:
The word Zomi is used to describe an ethnic group, which is also known as the Chin, the Mizo, the Kuki, or a number of other names based on geographic distribution.
They belong to the Tibeto-Burman group of Mongoloid race.
Distribution:
They are spread throughout the northeastern states of India, northwestern Burma, and the Chittagong Hill Tracts of Bangladesh.
In northeastern India, they are present in: Nagaland, Mizoram, Manipur and Assam.
Language: Natively, they speak one of the fifty or so languages that linguists call the Kukish language group, which is also known as Kuki-Chin (Kuki/Chin), Mizo/Kuki/Chin, or Kuki Naga.
Religion and Beliefs: Traditionally, Zomis followed animism and worshiped nature spirits. Today, Christianity (mainly Baptist and Presbyterian) is the dominant religion.
They have typical Tibeto-Burman features and are generally of short-stature with straight black hair and dark brown eyes.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/manipur/bodies-of-hmar-zo-tribes-in-manipur-decide-to-lift-shutdown-in-violence-hit-churachandpur/article69343397.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA):
- It is an autonomous organization within the United Nations system that works for the safe, secure, and peaceful uses of nuclear science and technology.
- It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) Director recently lauded India’s expanding nuclear sector, calling it one of the ‘most dynamic’ in Asia and the world.
About International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA):
It is the world’s foremost intergovernmental forum for scientific and technical cooperation in the nuclear field.
It works for the safe, secure, and peaceful uses of nuclear science and technology.
An autonomous organization within the United Nations system, the IAEA carries out programmes to maximize the contribution of nuclear technology to society while verifying its peaceful use.
It is widely known as the world’s “Atoms for Peace and Development”organization within the United Nations family.
IAEA reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and Security Council.
Statute:
The Statute of the IAEA was approved on 23 October 1956 by the Conference on the Statute of the International Atomic Energy Agency, which was held at the Headquarters of the United Nations.
It came into force on 29 July 1957.
Headquarters: Vienna, Austria.
Membership: Currently, it has 178 member states.
Structure:
The General Conference, consisting of all members, meets annually to approve the budget and programs and to debate the IAEA’s general policies.
The Board of Governors, which consists of 35 members who meet about five times per year, is charged with carrying out the agency’s statutory functions, approving safeguards agreements, and appointing the director general.
The day-to-day affairs of the IAEA are run by the Secretariat, which is headed by the director general.
Functions of IAEA:
It works with its member states and multiple partners worldwide to promote the safe, secure, and peaceful use of nuclear technologies.
It applies nuclear safeguards – consisting of monitoring, inspection, information analysis, and other activities – to verify that nuclear activities remain peaceful and detect and deter their diversion, including to weapons-related purposes.
In particular, the IAEA implements comprehensive safeguards agreements mandated by the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT), which serve as a first line of defense against nuclear weapons proliferation.
IAEA assists its member states and promotes the exchange of scientific and technical information between them.
IAEA enhances national, regional, and international capacities to respond to nuclear and radiological incidents, which is essential to minimizing their impact.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/indias-nuclear-sector-among-most-dynamic-in-world-un-nuclear-chief-rafael-mariano-grossi-7955866
Consider the following statements regarding the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI):
- It was launched by India to promote cooperation for a free and open Indo-Pacific.
- It is a non-treaty-based voluntary arrangement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Prime Minister recently welcomed New Zealand’s participation in the Indo-Pacific Ocean Initiative, highlighting both nations’ shared interest in maintaining peace and stability in the region.
About Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI):
IPOI was launched by India in November 2019 at the ASEAN-led East Asia Summit (EAS) in Bangkok.
It builds upon the “Security and Growth for All in the Region” (SAGAR) initiative announced by the Prime Minister in 2015.
Its objective was to promote cooperation for a free and open Indo-Pacific and the rules-based regional order, which will contribute towards strengthening safety, stability and development in the maritime domain.
As a non-treaty-based voluntary arrangement, it aims to achieve greater cohesion and integration through common understanding and actions related to shared interests.
It does not envisage a new institutional framework and leans heavily on the EAS mechanism, which includes ASEAN member states and its eight dialogue partners.
The IPOI outlined seven pillars, and it was indicated that one or two countries could take the lead for a pillar with others joining in voluntarily. The seven IPOI pillars are:
Maritime Security: The United Kingdom (UK) and India
Maritime Ecology: Australia and Thailand
Maritime Resources: France and Indonesia
Capacity Building and Resource Sharing: Germany
Disaster Risk Reduction and Management: India and Bangladesh
Science, Technology, and Academic Cooperation: Italy and Singapore
Trade, Connectivity, and Maritime Transport: Japan and the United States (US).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/pm-modi-and-new-zealands-luxon-commit-to-strengthen-ties-and-promote-regional-stability/
Which of the following statements with respect to the Competition Commission of India (CCI) are correct?
- The CCI was established in 2009 under the Competition Act, 2002, replacing the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969.
- It is composed of a Chairperson and six members, each requiring a minimum of 10 years of professional experience.
- It regulates mergers and acquisitions to prevent monopolies and protect consumer rights.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
The CCI raided GroupM, Dentsu, IPG Mediabrands, and the Indian Broadcasting and Digital Foundation (IBDF) for allegedly fixing IPL ad rates and discounts.
About Competition Commission of India:
Established in 2009 under the Competition Act, 2002, the CCI became fully operational on May 20, 2009, when substantive provisions related to anti-trust enforcement and merger regulation came into force.
Initially conceptualised in 2003, it replaced the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act (MRTP), 1969, aligning with India’s post-liberalization economic reforms.
Composition:
It is headed by a Chairperson and six members appointed by the Central Government, ensuring expertise in law, economics, finance, and international trade.
The members must have at least 15 years of professional experience and serve a five-year term, fostering informed decision-making in complex market cases.
Functions of CCI:
Preventing anti-competitive practices: It investigates and penalizes cartels, price-fixing and market manipulation.
In 2022, the CCI imposed a ₹1,337 crore penalty on Google for abusing its dominance in the Android ecosystem.
Regulating abuse of dominance: It also prevents companies from using market power unfairly, such as through predatory pricing or restrictive trade practices.
CCI’s probe into Apple’s in-app payment monopoly.
Controlling mergers & acquisitions: It ensures mergers do not create monopolies or reduce competition.
CCI’s scrutiny of Jio-Star India merger to prevent media dominance.
Ensuring consumer protection: It monitors unfair trade practices to protect consumer rights and market fairness.
Advising the Government: It provides opinions on competition issues when referred by statutory authorities
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/industry-price-collusion-cci-raids-ad-giants-broadcasters-body-3781041/
Consider the following statements with respect to National Wildlife Health Policy (NWHP):
- The NWHP follows the One Health approach, which integrates human, animal, and environmental health.
- It was launched by National Board for Wildlife Board to enhance wildlife health and manage zoonotic diseases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Government of India is drafting a National Wildlife Health Policy (NWHP) to strengthen wildlife disease surveillance, research, and diagnostics.
About National Wildlife Health Policy (NWHP)
The Central Zoo Authority (CZA) initiated this program to enhance wildlife health and manage zoonotic diseases.
This initiative is a key component of the National Wildlife Action Plan (2017-31) and follows the One Health approach, which integrates human, animal, and environmental health.
Key Institutions & Initiatives under NWHP:
National Referral Centre for Wildlife (NRC-W): It was recently inaugurated in Junagadh, Gujarat, and will serve as a key hub for wildlife health management.
It functions as India’s first wildlife disease diagnostic and research centre.
National Wildlife Health Information System: It was proposed under NWHP to streamline disease reporting and surveillance across regions.
It will work alongside the National Animal Disease Referral Expert System and National Animal Disease Reporting System to forecast and prevent outbreaks.
Central Zoo Authority (CZA):
Statutory body under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Established in 1992 under the Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change (MoEF&CC).
It aims to strengthen wildlife conservation efforts and maintain animal health in zoological parks.
National Wildlife Action Plan (2017-31):
Outlines 103 conservation actions and 250 projects.
Includes standard protocols for disease surveillance in tiger reserves and protected areas.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/covid-outbreak-national-wildlife-health-policy-takes-shape-9892080/
Recently, the US President invoked the Alien Enemies Act (1798) for the first time since World War II to deport suspected members of Tren de Aragua (TdA) gang. This gang originated in which of the following countries?
Venezuela
Explanation :
The US President invoked the Alien Enemies Act (1798) for the first time since World War II to deport suspected members of the Venezuelan gang Tren de Aragua (TdA).
About the Tren de Aragua (TdA) Gang:
Origin: Founded in 2014 inside Tocorón Prison, Aragua state, Venezuela.
Expansion: Spread across Colombia, Peru, Chile, and the US, exploiting Venezuelan migrants.
Criminal activities: Engaged in drug trafficking, human trafficking, extortion, murder, and kidnapping.
Political links: Chile accused Venezuelan authorities of colluding with the gang in the murder of a former Venezuelan opposition officer in 2023.
Alien Enemies Act of the USA:
Enacted in 1798 to combat spying and sabotage during tensions with France.
Authorizes the U.S. President to deport, detain, or impose restrictions on individuals who have primary allegiance to a foreign power and pose a national security risk in wartime.
Can be invoked under two conditions:
During a declared war
In case of an invasion or predatory incursion by a foreign power
The act remains in effect until explicitly revoked by the President.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/tren-de-aragua-venezuela-gang-trump-9891065/
Consider the following with respect to Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999:
- Under FEMA, violations are treated as criminal offences.
- The Act facilitate external trade and payments and ensure the orderly development of the foreign exchange market.
- The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has no role in regulating foreign exchange transactions under FEMA.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
ED Raids on Soros-Linked Entities for FEMA Violations.
About the Foreign Exchange Management Act:
The Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999, came into force on June 1, 2000, replacing the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA), 1973.
The act was introduced in the backdrop of India’s economic liberalization to facilitate external trade and payments and ensure the orderly development of the foreign exchange market.
Objectives of FEMA:
Regulation & Management of Foreign Exchange: FEMA governs all aspects of foreign exchange transactions in India, including:
Acquisition & Holding of foreign exchange
Payment & Settlement of foreign exchange transactions
Export & Import of currency.
Liberalizing Foreign Exchange Policies: Unlike FERA, which was restrictive and criminalized violations, FEMA is more transparent and promotes globalization.
Empowerment of RBI: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the key authority under FEMA.
The RBI can frame rules, issue guidelines, and regulate foreign exchange transactions.
Civil nature of offences: Violations under FEMA are civil offences (unlike FERA, where they were treated as criminal offences).
Penalties and fines can be imposed for non-compliance.
Applicability of FEMA:
FEMA applies to the whole of India, including:
Individuals, companies, and firms operating in India.
Indian agencies & offices abroad (owned or managed by Indian citizens).
Entities & Transactions Covered Under FEMA:
Foreign Exchange & Foreign Securities
Export & Import of goods and services
Banking, Financial, and Insurance services
Overseas companies owned by NRIs (where ownership is 60% or more).
Indian citizens residing within and outside India (NRIs).
Enforcement & Violations under FEMA:
The Enforcement Directorate (ED) is the primary agency responsible for investigating violations.
Violations can result in:
Monetary Penalties: Up to three times the amount involved or ₹2 lakh, whichever is higher
Further Penalties: ₹5,000 per day for continued contraventions
Seizure of Assets: In extreme cases, authorities may seize properties linked to FEMA violations
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/ed-conducts-searches-against-george-soros-osf-linked-entities/article69343373.ece
Audible Enclaves, a term recently seen in news, are responsible for which one of the following?
They allow specific individuals to hear a sound privately, even in crowded environments
Explanation :
Audible Enclaves: A New Sound Technology
What are Audible Enclaves?
Audible Enclaves are small pockets of sound that are not disturbed by surrounding noise.
They allow specific individuals to hear a sound privately, even in crowded environments.
The technology is based on sound wave manipulation, ensuring that only intended listeners can hear the transmitted sound.
How Does Sound Work?
Sound consists of waves moving through a medium, causing particles to vibrate back and forth.
The speed of vibration determines the frequency:
Higher frequency = Higher pitch sound.
When sound waves are emitted from a source, they diverge in a process called diffraction.
Higher frequency sounds diverge more than lower frequencies.
How Are Audible Enclaves Created?
Traditional parametric array loudspeakers create focused sound beams using high-frequency waves modulated with an audio signal.
Audible enclaves take this a step further using two high-frequency waves of different frequencies:
These waves are inaudible on their own.
When they intersect, non-linear interactions generate a sound wave audible only at that specific location.
This method, reported in the Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences ensures that only individuals within a defined zone can hear the sound.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/what-are-audible-enclaves/article69344179.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Sansad Bhashini Initiative, recently seen in the news:
- It is an initiative jointly undertaken by the Lok Sabha Secretariat and Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
- The primary objective of the initiative is to improve voting procedures in Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Lok Sabha Secretariat and the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to develop the Sansad Bhashini initiative recently.
About Sansad Bhashini Initiative:
It is an initiative jointly undertaken by the Lok Sabha Secretariat and Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) for the development of a package of in-house AI.
It is designed to integrate AI-powered tools that will facilitate multilingual support, optimize documentation, and improve overall parliamentary operations.
The initiative will deploy cutting-edge AI applications such as real-time speech-to-text transcription, speech-to-speech translation, and interactive AI chatbots.
These technologies will ensure seamless translation of parliamentary debates, committee reports, and legislative documents into multiple Indian languages, thereby fostering inclusivity and broader public engagement.
It will leverage AI to transcribe spoken debates into text in real-time, making parliamentary discussions more accessible and easier to reference.
This transcription system will incorporate features such as background noise reduction, customizable vocabulary, and efficient documentation tools to enhance accuracy and usability.
Additionally, AI-enabled automatic summarization of extensive debates will facilitate quicker decision-making and streamlined record-keeping.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/sansad-bhashini-initiative-to-revolutionize-parliamentary-documentation-and-accessibility-through-ai-and-real-time-translations/
With reference to the Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs), consider the following:
- Chikungunya
- Kala Azar
- Elephantiasis
- Dengue
How many of the above are classified as NTDs?
All four
Explanation :
India is progressing towards eliminating Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs) through political support, community involvement, and regional cooperation.
About Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs):
NTDs are a diverse group of conditions caused by a variety of pathogens (including viruses, bacteria, parasites, fungi, and toxins) and associated with devastating health, social, and economic consequences.
NTDs are mainly prevalent among impoverished communities in tropical areas, although some have a much larger geographical distribution.
They are widespread where people in vulnerable situations live, where water safety, sanitation, and access to health care are inadequate or suboptimal.
These diseases are called “neglected” because they have historically ranked very low on the global health agenda, when they have appeared at all, receiving little attention and funding.
NTDs include Guinea worm, Chikungunya, Dengue, Kala Azar (Visceral Leishmaniasis), and Elephantiasis (Lymphatic Filariasis), among others. India is home to about 12 NTDs.
The epidemiology of NTDs is complex; some have animal and/or human reservoirs, many are vector-borne, and most are associated with intricate life cycles. Preventing or eliminating NTDs is therefore challenging.
It is estimated that NTDs affect more than 1 billion people, while the number of people requiring NTD interventions (both preventive and curative) is 1.5 billion.
Every year on 30th January, the Global community comes together to mark World NTDs Day and renew its commitment to eliminating its burden worldwide.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/life-style/health-fitness/health-news/what-are-neglected-tropical-diseases-and-why-it-is-important-to-control-them/articleshow/119215510.cms
Exercise Bongosagar is a bilateral naval exercise between India and which country?
Bangladesh
Explanation :
The India-Bangladesh naval exercise ‘Bongosagar 2025’ and ‘Coordinated Patrol (CORPAT)’ took place in the Bay of Bengal recently.
About Exercise Bongosagar:
It is a bilateral naval exercise between India and Bangladesh.
It is designed to develop high-level interoperability and operational expertise through a broad spectrum of maritime operations.
Commenced in the year 2019, Bongosagar 2025 is the fifth edition of the exercise.
The exercise saw participation of INS Ranvir from the Indian Navy and BNS Abu Ubaidah from Bangladesh Navy.
The exercise enhanced interoperability between the two navies, facilitating collaborative responses to shared maritime security challenges.
The exercise involved a range of complex operations encompassing surface firing, tactical manoeuvres, underway replenishment, Visit-Board-Search-Seizure (VBSS) cross boarding, communication drills, quiz for Ops team and junior officers on professional topics, and steam past.
The exercise provided the opportunity for both navies to develop closer links in tactical planning, coordination, and information sharing for undertaking seamless maritime operations.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/external-affairs-defence-security/news/india-bangladesh-conduct-naval-exercise-and-patrol-despite-strained-ties-125031400475_1.html
Consider the following statements with respect to Merchant Discount Rate (MDR):
- It is a fee paid by merchants to payment processing companies for accepting digital payments.
- Business owners can pass on the MDR charges to their customers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
As per the recently introduced incentive scheme to promote low-value BHIM-UPI transactions, small merchants will pay no merchant discount rate (MDR) and banks will receive an incentive of 0.15% per transaction.
About Merchant Discount Rate (MDR):
MDR (alternatively referred to as the Transaction Discount Rate or TDR) is a fee that merchants and other businesses must pay to a payment processing company for accepting payments from customers via digital modes like credit cards, debit cards, UPI, etc.
MDR compensates the bank issuing the card, the bank which installs the PoS (Point of Sale) terminal and network providers, and payment gateways for their services.
The MDR sums up all the charges and taxes that electronic or digital payments entail.
The MDR typically comes in the form of a percentage of the transaction amount. It is typically between 1% and 3%.
The rates are dependent on the level of business transactions being processed, the types of cards (debit or credit) used by customers, and the value of the average transaction (also known as average tickets or average sales).
Before accepting debit and credit cards, merchants must set up this service and agree to the rate.
Merchants must consider these fees as part of managing their business costs and setting their prices.
MDR charges are automatically deducted from the merchant’s account at the time of settling the transaction batch.
Under the rules laid down by RBI, business owners cannot pass on the MDR charges to their customers.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/business/india-business/cabinet-okays-1500-crore-incentives-to-boost-upi/articleshow/119236053.cms
Sagareshwar Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which state?
Maharashtra
Explanation :
The Sagreshwar wildlife sanctuary, located in the Sangli district, has 536 sambars and 295 cheetals (spotted deer), making the sanctuary one of the highest in deer population, especially among manmade wildlife sanctuaries.
About Sagareshwar Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is located in the Sangli district of Maharashtra.
It is India’s first manmade wildlife sanctuary.
It is an artificially cultivated forest without a perennial supply of water, and most of the wildlife species were artificially introduced.
It has an area of 10.87 sq.km.
The sanctuary derives its name from an ancient Sagareshwar temple. The sanctuary houses numerous temples dedicated to Lord Shiva.
Vegetation: The forests are southern dry mixed deciduous and southern thorn forest.
Flora: Major flora includes Tamarind, Neem, Eucalyptus, Acacia, Agave, and Khair trees.
Fauna:
Large animals found in the sanctuary include several types of deer (Sambar Deer, Blackbucks, Muntjac, Chital) as well as wild boar and peacocks.
Small carnivores like hyena, fox, and porcupines are also found in the area.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/kolhapur/study-high-population-of-deer-in-sagreshwar-wildlife-sanctuary/articleshow/119085961.cms
Consider the following statements with respect to sonic weapons:
- They can emit audible or inaudible sound waves to disrupt, disorient, or incapacitate people.
2.They work on the principle of conversion of energy into sound waves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Serbian government has been accused of using a banned ‘sonic weapon’ to disperse protesters in Belgrade.
What are Sonic Weapons?
Sonic weapons (Acoustic Weapons) are devices that deliver loud, painful sounds over long distances.
They can emit audible or inaudible sound waves to disrupt, disorient, or incapacitate people.
Some versions act as voice amplifiers, allowing authorities to issue commands over large distances.
First developed for military and crowd control purposes, they were used in Iraq (2004) by the U.S. military.
How Do Sonic Weapons Work?
They use hundreds of transducers (electronic devices that convert energy into sound waves).
The highly concentrated and amplified sound can be directed at specific targets.
Authorities control the frequency, volume, and duration of the sound.
The narrow sound beam can cause extreme discomfort, pain, and disorientation to those exposed.
Types of Sonic Weapons:
Long-Range Acoustic Device (LRAD): Used by law enforcement and military for crowd control. Can project sound over 8,900 meters at up to 160 decibels (dB).
Causes ear pain, hearing damage, nausea, and dizziness.
Mosquito Device: Emits a high-pitched sound that only younger people (below 30 years) can hear. Used to deter loitering in public areas.
Causes irritation and discomfort in young individuals.
Infrasonic Weapon: Emits low-frequency sounds that are inaudible to humans but cause physical pain and disorientation. Still under research.
Potential to cause headaches, nausea, vertigo, and internal organ damage.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/serbia-sonic-weapon-9894409/
Consider the following statements with respect to Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry (APAAR) ID:
- It is part of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 to streamline student records.
- It is linked to Aadhaar and stored in DigiLocker for easy access.
- It is legally mandated that all students must register to the ID.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
APAAR ID: A Digital Student Identification System in India
What is APAAR ID?
APAAR stands for Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry.
It is part of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 to streamline student records.
The initiative is based on the ‘One Nation, One Student ID’ concept.
It is linked to Aadhaar and stored in DigiLocker for easy access.
APAAR is generated through Unified District Information System for Education Plus (UDISE+).
Objectives of APAAR:
To accumulate and store students’ academic achievements in a central database
To facilitate seamless transfer between institutions
To provide standardized digital records for mark sheets and institutional affiliations
To help in educational policymaking and analysis
Is APAAR Mandatory?
Officially, APAAR is voluntary, as per government documents. However, CBSE and certain state government boards (e.g., Uttar Pradesh) are pushing for 100% student enrollment.
Many parents are not explicitly informed about the voluntary nature of the program.
Parliament confirmed in December 2024 that APAAR registration is not legally mandated.
How is an APAAR ID Generated?
Schools collect demographic details (Name, Date of Birth).
Parents sign a consent form to authorize APAAR ID creation.
Schools verify details and authenticate before issuing the ID.
Relation to Other Digital Initiatives:
Academic Bank of Credits (ABC): Introduced under NEP 2020 for credit transfer across institutions. Students’ credits are stored digitally and linked to APAAR ID.
DigiLocker: Cloud-based platform for storing and verifying educational certificates. It is recognised as legally valid under IT Rules, 2016.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/is-the-apaar-id-for-students-mandatory-explained/article69350639.ece
Directorate General of Trade Remedies is under the administrative control of:
Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Explanation :
Trade Ministry Recommends 12% Duty on Steel Imports Amid ‘Trade Diversion’ Concerns
About Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR):
Established: May 17, 2018 (formerly Directorate General of Anti-Dumping and Allied Duties)
Nodal Ministry: Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Purpose: Acts as India’s anti-dumping watchdog, ensuring a level playing field for domestic industries against unfair trade practices like dumping, subsidization, and import surges
Functions of DGTR:
Conducts anti-dumping investigations and makes recommendations to the Government of India (GoI)
Handles anti-subsidy (Countervailing Duty - CVD) investigations and advises the GoI
Examines safeguard measures to protect Indian industries
Manages litigation in CESTAT, High Courts, and the Supreme Court of India
Engages with WTO on trade-related matters
Conducts outreach programs to spread awareness of trade remedies
Reasons for the Proposed 12% Steel Import Duty:
Global Trade Restrictions: The US imposed a 25% additional tariff on steel imports (effective March 12, 2025), revoking earlier exemptions.
129 trade remedy measures have been adopted by the EU, Canada, the UK, and other countries.
This has led to excess steel being diverted to India, threatening domestic producers.
Overcapacity in Steel-Producing Countries:
Japan, South Korea and China produce steel far beyond their domestic consumption.
Excess production is likely to flood export markets, undermining Indian steel prices.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/trump-effect-trade-ministry-arm-pushes-for-12-duty-on-steel-imports-citing-trade-diversion-9895343/
The headquarter of Life Insurance Corporation of India lies in:
Mumbai
Explanation :
LIC Agents Protest Against New Insurance Rules
About LIC:
It is the largest public sector life insurance company and institutional investor in India.
Headquartered in Mumbai, it plays a crucial role in India’s financial market.
Motto: “Yogakshemam Vahamyaham” (From the Bhagavad Gita) – “Your welfare is our responsibility.”
It was established in 1956 through the Life Insurance of India Act, which nationalized the insurance sector by merging 245 private insurers and provident societies into a single entity.
LIC operates through 8 zonal offices in Delhi, Chennai, Mumbai, Hyderabad, Kanpur, Kolkata, Bhopal, and Patna.
Historical Background of Indian Insurance Industry:
1818: Oriental Life Insurance Company, the first life insurance company in India, was established.
1870: Bombay Mutual Life Assurance Society, the first Indian-owned life insurance company, was founded.
1912: Indian Life Assurance Companies Act was enacted to regulate life insurance businesses.
1928: Indian Insurance Companies Act was passed to enable the government to collect statistical data on life and non-life insurance companies.
1938: Insurance Act, 1938, was enacted to protect policyholders’ interests and regulate the sector.
1956: LIC was formed by merging 245 Indian and foreign insurance companies with an initial capital of ₹5 crore from the Government of India.
Meanwhile, General Insurance in India began with the Triton Insurance Company Ltd. in 1850, established by the British in Calcutta.
Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB):
Established in 2022 by the Union Government to recommend appointments of whole-time directors and non-executive chairpersons in public sector financial institutions.
Also advises on personnel management policies in these institutions.
Vision: To promote corporate governance excellence in public sector financial institutions.
Secretariat: Consists of a Secretary and four officers.
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI):
It is a statutory body formed under the IRDAI Act, 1999 for the supervision and regulation of the insurance sector.
Powers & Functions:
Promotes competition to enhance consumer choice and fair pricing
Ensures financial security of the insurance market
Regulates entities under the Insurance Act, 1938, which is the primary law governing the insurance sector
Other relevant laws include:
Marine Insurance Act, 1963 (governing marine insurance).
Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 (covering liability insurance).
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/lics-focus-on-protecting-the-poor-is-changing-rahul-gandhi/article69349581.ece
Consider the following statements with respect to QUAD:
- It is not a military alliance but a diplomatic partnership.
- South Korea is not a part of this strategic forum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Senior defence officers from Quad nations have expressed concerns over China’s growing assertiveness in the Indo-Pacific during a panel on “Deepwater Perils: Securing Trade”.
What is the QUAD?
It is a strategic forum involving India, the US, Japan, and Australia, focusing on maritime security and economic cooperation in the Indo-Pacific.
It is not a military alliance but a diplomatic partnership aimed at maintaining a free, open, and rules-based Indo-Pacific.
It operates through annual summits, foreign ministers’ meetings, and six working groups covering: Health, Climate, Critical & Emerging Technology, Space, Infrastructure and Cybersecurity.
Evolution:
2007: Japan’s Shinzo Abe proposed the idea of Quad during an informal ASEAN meeting.
2012: The Concept of ‘Democratic Security Diamond’ (India, US, Japan, Australia) was introduced.
2017: Quad revitalized due to China’s growing influence; first formal meeting held in Manila.
2020: Malabar naval exercises expanded to include Australia, marking first joint military exercise of Quad.
2021: Quad leaders met virtually and released the joint statement “The Spirit of the Quad”.
What is the Indo-Pacific Region?
The Indo-Pacific refers to the interconnected waters of the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean, a region of strategic, economic, and geopolitical significance.
It serves as a major trade route, facilitating 60% of global maritime trade.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/china-presence-in-indo-pacific-region-is-concerning-say-quad-defence-officers-9895557/
Consider the following statements regarding the Samarth Incubation Programme, recently seen in the news:
- It was launched by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
- The primary objective is to help startups in areas like 5G, artificial intelligence (AI), and Internet of Things (IoT).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DoT) recently launched the ‘Samarth’ incubation programme.
About Samarth Incubation Programme:
It was launched by the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DoT), an autonomous Telecom R&D centre of the Department of Telecommunication (DoT), Government of India.
Objective: To support startups in the areas of telecom software, cybersecurity, 5G and 6G technologies, artificial intelligence (AI), Internet of Things (IoT) applications, and quantum technologies.
The program aims to encourage the development of sustainable and scalable business models, offer access to cutting-edge resources, and help startups bridge the gap from ideation to commercialisation.
C-DoT has selected Software Technology Parks of India (STPI) as the implementation partner.
The program, which will be delivered in a hybrid mode, has a maximum cohort size of 18 startups per program, with a total of 36 startups across two cohorts of six months each.
The applications, under ‘Samarth’ are open to Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) recognised startups.
Selected startups will get a grant of up to Rs 5 lakh each, access to office space for six months at the C-DoT campus, access to C-DoT lab facilities, and mentorship from C-DoT technical leaders and industry experts.
Based on progress the startup will get an opportunity for future collaboration under the C-DoT Collaborative Research Program,”
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://telecom.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/industry/c-dot-launches-program-to-support-startups-in-5g-6g-iot-quantum-tech-sectors/119237026
Why are fake GPS signals able to deceive GPS receivers in GPS Spoofing?
They are stronger than real GPS signals.
Explanation :
As many as 465 GPS interference and spoofing incidents have been reported in the border region, mostly in the Amritsar and Jammu areas, between November 2023 and February 2025, the government said recently.
What is a Spoofing Attack?
A “spoofing attack” is a broad category of cyberattack where fake data is disguised as originating from a trusted source to deceive systems or users.
Kinds of spoofing include GPS Spoofing, IP spoofing—often used to avoid detection while performing Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)—as well as SMS spoofing and caller ID spoofing, where messages or calls appear to be from another number or caller ID.
About GPS Spoofing:
GPS spoofing uses bogus radio signals to imitate legitimate Global Positioning System (GPS) signals, misdirecting GPS-receiving devices about their actual location.
This can result in incorrect navigation data and potentially life-threatening situations, especially in systems that rely heavily on precise location information.
How GPS Spoofing Works?
GPS spoofing exploits the inherent vulnerabilities in the GPS infrastructure – the weak signal strength of GPS satellites.
The GPS functions by sending signals from satellites to GPS receivers on Earth.
These receivers then calculate their position based on the time it takes for these signals to arrive.
However, due to the weak signal strength of the GPS satellites, these signals can be easily overwhelmed by fake signals,resulting in inaccurate location data on the receiving device.
Typically, a GPS spoofer begins by acquiring a basic understanding of the victim’s GPS setup, including the types of signals it uses and how they are processed.
With that information, the attacker then sends counterfeit GPS signals that mimic the real ones.
These fake signals are stronger, causing the receiver to recognize them as authentic signals.
As a result, the victim’s GPS receiver ends up processing these counterfeit signals, leading to erroneous location information.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/several-airlines-operating-aircraft-in-and-around-amritsar-report-gps-interference-government/article69354141.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA):
- It is a statutory regulatory body established under the Ministry of Finance.
- It regulate the National Pension System (NPS) and other pension schemes to which the PFRDA Act applies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) recently issued regulations for the operationalisation of the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) under the National Pension System (NPS), 2025.
About Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA):
It is a statutory regulatory body set up under the PFRDA Act enacted in 2014.
Objective: To promote old-age income security by establishing, developing, and regulating pension funds and to protect the interests of subscribers to schemes of pension funds and related matters.
It comes under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance.
PFRDA is headquartered in New Delhi, with regional offices located around the country.
Composition: Section 4 of the PFRDA Act specifies that the Authority shall consist of the following members, namely:
a Chairperson;
three whole-time members; and
three part-time members,
to be appointed by the Central Government from amongst persons of ability, integrity, and standing and having knowledge and experience in economics or finance or law with at least one person from each discipline.
Functions:
Regulate the National Pension System (NPS) and other pension schemes to which the PFRDA Act applies;
Undertaking steps to educate subscribers and the general public on issues relating to pensions, retirement savings, and related issues, and training intermediaries.
Providing pension schemes not regulated by any other enactment;
Protecting the interests of subscribers of NPS and such other schemes as approved by the authority from time to time.
Approving the schemes and laying down norms of investment guidelines under such schemes;
Registering and regulating intermediaries: NPS Trust, Points of Presence, Central Record-keeping Agency, Trustee Bank, Pension Funds, Custodian for time-bound service to subscribers.
Ensuring that the intermediation and other operational costs are economical and reasonable;
Making the existing grievance redressal process robust and time-bound.
Adjudication of disputes between intermediaries and between intermediaries and subscribers.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/finance/news/pfrda-issues-regulations-for-implementation-of-unified-pension-scheme-125032001551_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding Corbett Tiger Reserve:
- It is located on the foothills of the Himalayas in Himachal Pradesh.
- Corbett is the first national park of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently pulled up the Uttarakhand government for moving at a “snail’s pace” against its senior officers accused of illegal constructions in Corbett Tiger Reserve.
About Corbett Tiger Reserve:
It is located on the foothills of the Himalayas in Uttarakhand.
Establishment:
Corbett is the first national park of India, established in 1936. It was named Hailey National Park then.
In 1957, the park was rechristened Corbett National Park in memory of the late Jim Corbett, a great naturalist and eminent conservationist.
After the addition of areas to the originally declared National Park, the total area of Tiger Reserve extends to 1288.31 sq. km.
The terrain is undulating with several valleys. The rivers Ramganga, Pallaen, and Sonanadi flow through the valleys.
By and large, the reserve is spread over the Bhabar and lower Shivalik regions with a deep-water table.
The tract is porous with boulders and sand deposits.
Flora:
In general, the vegetation comprises sal and mixed forests, interspersed with grass lands and riparian vegetation.
The grasslands are locally known as ‘Chaur’, which are an outcome of abandoned settlements or past clearings.
Evergreen Sal and its combined trees, the Sheesham, and the Kanju are found extensively on the ridges.
One plant, (actually a weed), which is a major irritant to the reserve authorities and is widespread in the jungle, is the Lantana.
Fauna: Tigers and elephants are the charismatic mammals, besides a large array of co-predators (leopards, small carnivores), ungulates (sambar, hog deer, spotted deer), birds, reptiles (gharials, crocodile), and fishes.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/corbett-illegal-construction-sc-raps-u-khand-for-acting-at-snail-s-pace-125031900947_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding Holocene Epoch:
- It is the current period of geologic time.
- It is marked by a significant warming trend and relative climate stability compared to the previous glacial period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Rates of relative sea-level rise during the final stage of the last deglaciation, the early Holocene, are key to understanding future ice melt and sea-level change under a warming climate.
About Holocene Epoch:
It is the current period of geologic time.
The term was introduced by Gervais in 1869 and was accepted as part of valid geological nomenclature by the International Geological Congress in 1885.
Another term that is sometimes used is the Anthropocene Epoch, because its primary characteristic is the global changes caused by human activity.
The Holocene Epoch began 12,000 to 11,500 years ago at the close of the Paleolithic Ice Age and continues through today.
It is marked by a significant warming trend and relative climate stability compared to the previous glacial period.
The sediments of the Holocene, both continental and marine, cover the largest area of the globe of any epoch in the geologic record, but the Holocene is unique because it coincides with the late and post-Stone Age history of humankind.
Among interglacial periods, the Holocene is unique as the period in which more complex human civilisations and agriculture developed.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.nature.com/articles/s41586-025-08769-7
Consider the following statements:
- It is the oldest parliamentary committee in India.
- It ensures money sanctioned by Parliament is spent properly.
- It has total 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha, 7 from Rajya Sabha).
Which of the following committee is discussed above?
Public Accounts Committee
Explanation :
The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) has criticised the Union Ministry of Tourism for the poor implementation of the Swadesh Darshan Scheme.
About the Public Accounts Committee (PAC):
It was established in 1921 as the oldest parliamentary committee in India.
Purpose: It audits the revenue and expenditure of the Government of India to ensure public funds are spent efficiently and legally.
Key functions:
Examines the CAG audit report on government expenditure.
Ensures money sanctioned by Parliament is spent properly.
Investigates financial irregularities, losses, and inefficiencies in government spending.
Membership:
22 members (15 from Lok Sabha, 7 from Rajya Sabha)
Chairperson: A Lok Sabha MP, traditionally from the Opposition
Term: One year
Ministers cannot be members of the PAC
About the Swadesh Darshan Scheme:
Launched: In 2015 by the Ministry of Tourism.
Objective: To develop sustainable and responsible tourism destinations in India by creating thematic tourist circuits.
Funding: 100% centrally funded scheme.
Implementation:
The Ministry of Tourism provides financial assistance to State Governments, UT Administrations, and Central Agencies.
Operation & Maintenance (O&M) is the responsibility of the respective State/UT government.
Key features:
Development of theme-based tourism circuits
Infrastructure development such as roads, signage, parking, and public amenities
Eco-tourism and heritage conservation efforts
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: PAC members flag failure of Swadesh Darshan scheme - The Hindu
Consider the following statements regarding Finance Commission:
- The Finance Commission is constituted in every five years by the Parliament of India.
- It determines the share of states in the central divisible pool of taxes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Bihar reiterates demand for special category status before the 16th Finance Commission.
What is the Finance Commission?
The Finance Commission (FC) is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Constitution of India.
It is constituted in every five years by the President of India.
It consists of:
One Chairperson (Expert in public affairs)
Four Members (Experts in finance, economics, and administration)
It ensures fiscal federalism and advises on public expenditure and economic policies.
16th Finance Commission: Established in 2023, the 16th Finance Commission is responsible for recommending the distribution of finances between the Centre and States for the period April 1, 2026 – March 31, 2031.
Finance Commission Functions:
Vertical devolution: Determines the share of states in the central divisible pool of taxes (e.g., GST, income tax).
Horizontal distribution: Allocates funds among states based on fiscal needs, revenue-generating capacity, and developmental performance.
Grants-in-Aid: Recommends grants to revenue-deficient states and specific sectors in need of financial support.
What is Special Category Status (SCS)?
Special Category Status (SCS) is a classification given to states to provide them with additional central assistance due to economic and geographic disadvantages.
It was introduced in 1969 based on the Gadgil Formula, recommended by the 5th Finance Commission (Mahavir Tyagi).
Criteria for Special Category Status (Based on Gadgil Formula): A State must have:
Hilly and difficult terrain.
Low population density and/or a significant tribal population
Strategic location along international borders
Economic and infrastructural backwardness
Non-viable state finances
Evolution and States with SCS:
It was initially granted only to Assam, Jammu & Kashmir and Nagaland. Currently, 11 States have SCS:
Northeast States: Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram and Sikkim
Hilly states: Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand
Telangana (Granted due to bifurcation from Andhra Pradesh)
States demanding SCS: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Odisha.
Benefits of Special Category Status (SCS):
Higher Central Assistance:
90% of funds as grants and 10% as loans for Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS).
Non-SCS States get only 30% grants and 70% loans.
Special plan assistance: Funding for projects of special importance.
Non-lapsable funds: Unspent funds do not lapse at the end of the financial year.
Tax concessions: Special tax incentives (though many have been subsumed under GST).
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.ptinews.com/story/national/bihar-raises-special-status-demand-before-16th-finance-commission/2390068
Consider the following:
- Tap water connections in urban households
- Promotes greywater treatment
- Special attention to drought-prone regions
How many of the above are features of Jal Jeevan Mission?
Only two
Explanation :
Concerns were raised in Lok Sabha about gaps in the implementation of drinking water schemes under the Jal Shakti Abhiyan (JSA).
About Jal Shakti Abhiyan (JSA):
Launched: In 2019 by the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
Objective: To ensure water conservation, rainwater harvesting, and groundwater recharge in water-stressed regions.
Core strategy: “Catch the Rain – Where it Falls, When it Falls”.
Focus areas: Water conservation & rainwater harvesting, Renovation of traditional water bodies, Reuse and recharge of borewells, Watershed development and Intensive afforestation.
About Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM):
Launched: In 2019 under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
Objective: To provide Functional Household Tap Connection (FHTC) to every rural household by 2024 under the initiative Har Ghar Jal.
The National Rural Drinking Water Program (NRDWP) was restructured and integrated into JJM.
Approach:
Community-driven water management (Jan Andolan for water conservation).
Water source sustainability (rainwater harvesting, point recharge, greywater reuse).
Technology-based monitoring (IoT-based smart water meters).
Features of Jal Jeevan Mission:
Coverage: Aims to cover 19 crore rural households with tap water connections.
Funding pattern: 90:10 (for Himalayan & NE states), 50:50 (for other states), 100% for UTs.
Implementation model: Gram Panchayats, VWSCs (Village Water & Sanitation Committees) to take ownership.
Water quality monitoring: IS 10500:2012 Standards for safe drinking water.
Focus on Water-Stressed Areas: Special attention to drought-prone & water-deficient regions.
Reuse of Water: Promotes greywater treatment & reuse in agriculture.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ptinews.com/story/national/gaps-in-implementation-of-jal-jeevan-mission-opposition-members-in-ls/2387646
Which one of the following countries is part of the native habitat of Iguana?
Paraguay
Explanation :
A recent study published in the Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences suggests that the ancestors of Fijian iguanas travelled nearly 8,000 km across the Pacific Ocean on rafts of floating vegetation from the Americas.
What are Iguanas?
Iguanas are large, stout lizards, primarily found in tropical regions of the Americas.
They have scaly skin covered in warts, spines along their back, and a flap of flesh (dewlap) under their necks.
Iguanas exhibit various color morphs, including green, blue, and grey.
They are herbivores and have adapted to different environments, from deserts to rainforests.
Geographic Range:
Native Habitat: Found throughout Central and South America, from Mexico to Paraguay and Brazil
Introduced regions: Established populations in Florida, Hawaii, and Caribbean islands
Largest Lizard in the USA: It is the largest lizard species found within U.S. borders.
Arboreal Species: Primarily tree-dwelling (canopy layers), rarely descending except for nesting
Preferred Environments:
Forests & Rainforests (terrestrial biomes)
Rivers, Lakes & Coastal Waters (aquatic biomes)
Wetlands (swamps)
Urban & Agricultural Areas (suburban adaptability)
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Not Threatened
CITES Listing: Appendix II (regulated trade)
Threats to Population:
Overexploitation for pet trade & leather industry.
Habitat destruction due to deforestation and urbanization.
How Did Iguanas Reach Fiji?
Theory of Rafting: Rafting is a process where animals hitch a ride on floating vegetation across oceans.
Common among small invertebrates, but rare for large vertebrates due to survival challenges.
Previous Evidence of Iguana Rafting:
1995 Caribbean Observation: Scientists saw 15 green iguanas raft over 300 km on hurricane debris.
Galápagos Iguanas: Likely rafted 1,000 km from South America.
The Fijian crossing was nearly 8 times longer, making it an extraordinary event.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/voyage-of-the-iguanas-how-they-travelled-from-americas-to-fiji-9897398/
The headquarter of International Olympic Committee is located in:
Switzerland
Explanation :
About the International Olympic Committee (IOC):
It was founded in 1894 by Pierre de Coubertin to revive the ancient Greek Olympics.
Headquarters: Lausanne, Switzerland.
Mission: “Building a Better World through Sport.”
Roles & Responsibilities
Governs the Olympic Games (Summer, Winter, and Youth Olympics)
Oversees National Olympic Committees (NOCs) worldwide
Ensures adherence to the Olympic Charter
Decides on:
Amending the Olympic Charter
Electing IOC President and Executive Board
Selecting the host city for future Olympic Games
Process of Selecting the Host Country for the Olympics:
Informal dialogue: IOC engages with interested countries to discuss potential bids.
Targeted dialogue: IOC’s Executive Board invites a “preferred host” to refine its proposal.
No fixed timeframe: The final selection can take years depending on political, economic, and environmental factors.
Key selection criteria:
Funding strategy & financial sustainability
Infrastructure readiness (transport, venues, accommodation)
Alignment with local development goals
Public support and socio-economic factors
Impact on India’s 2036 Olympic Bid:
India is competing with Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and 10 other nations for the 2036 Olympics.
Coventry had welcomed India’s bid but emphasized that strong governance and transparency in the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) are necessary.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/sports/sport-others/kirsty-coventry-becomes-1st-woman-to-be-elected-ioc-president-9897155/
With reference to Exercise Sea Dragon 2025, recently seen in the news:
- United States
- Australia
- India
- South Korea
- Japan
How many of the above countries participated in Exercise Sea Dragon 2025?
All five
Explanation :
The Indian Navy recently participated in the Sea Dragon 2025 exercise.
About Exercise Sea Dragon:
It is a multinational anti-submarine warfare (ASW) drill conducted annually to strengthen maritime security and cooperation among allied nations in the Indo-Pacific region.
Hosted by the United States Navy’s 7th Fleet at Andersen Air Force Base, Guam, this exercise focuses on detecting, tracking, and countering submarine threats, a crucial capability given the rising tensions in the region.
It is an intensive, highly technical military drill that involves both theoretical and practical ASW training.
Participating nations deploy their maritime patrol and reconnaissance aircraft (MPRA), which are equipped with advanced sensors and sonobuoys designed to track submarines.
The training includes mock drills, tactical discussions, and live submarine detection exercises, allowing crews to sharpen their ability to locate and neutralise enemy submarines in real-world scenarios.
Originally a bilateral naval drill between the US and Australia in 2019, the Sea Dragon exercise has expanded to include key allies, including India – which joined in 2021.
Sea Dragon 2025:
This year the exercise focused on improving ASW tactics, interoperability, and multinational coordination in the Indo-Pacific region. The exercise included:
Mobile ASW training target drills using the MK-30 ‘SLED’.
A live ASWEX exercise, where participants tracked a US Navy submarine.
A competitive phase, where aircrews were graded on ASW effectiveness.
It included Australia, Japan, South Korea, and the United States, with India participating for the fourth consecutive year.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/external-affairs-defence-security/news/indian-navy-us-sea-dragon-2025-anti-submarine-warfare-explained-125032000802_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding World Happiness Index 2025:
- Finland is ranked as the happiest country in the world.
- It is an annual report published by the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India ranked 118th in the World Happiness Report 2025 published recently.
About World Happiness Index:
It is an annual report published by the Wellbeing Research Centre at the University of Oxford in partnership with Gallup, the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network.
The rankings are based on people’s self-assessed life evaluations.
The World Happiness Index 2025 ranked countries according to self-assessed life evaluations averaged over 2022-2024 and answers to the Cantril ladder question in the Gallup World Poll.
It asks respondents to think of a ladder with the best possible life for them being a 10 and the worst being a zero.
They are then asked to rate their current lives on that scale.
The study considers 6 explanatory factors for happiness: social support, GDP per capita, health life expectancy, freedom, generosity, and perception of corruption.
The study also maps whether responses indicated positive or negative emotions about the country.
Highlights of World Happiness Index 2025:
Finland is ranked as the happiest country in the world for the eighth consecutive year, and other Nordic countries – Denmark, Iceland, and Sweden, continued to remain in the top four, in that order.
The United Kingdom is in the 23rd position, the US is 24th, and China stands at the 68th position in the list of 147 countries this year.
While Western countries dominated the top 20, especially European nations, Costa Rica and Mexico entered the top 10 for the first time, ranking at 6th and 10th respectively.
Afghanistan is again ranked as the unhappiest country in the world; this year 147th against last year’s 143rd rank (last).
The State of Palestine is ranked 108th (103 in 2024), while Ukraine is at 111 rank (105 in 2024).
India ranked 118 out of 147 countries.
Among India’s neighbouring countries, Sri Lanka was ranked at 133, Bangladesh at 134, Pakistan at 109, Nepal at 92, and China at 68.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:
https://www.deccanherald.com/india/india-ranks-118th-in-world-happiness-report-afghanistan-is-last-3455378
In which Indian state is the Gambhir River primarily located??
Rajasthan
Explanation :
Rajasthan High Court recently sought a reply from chief secretary, divisional commissioner, Bharatpur, principal revenue secretary, district collector, Karauli, and SP, Karauli, in a case of alleged encroachment on the floodplain of Gambhiri river which supplies water to Ghana Bird Sanctuary.
About Gambhir River:
The Gambhir River, also known as the Utangan River, is a significant watercourse in Rajasthan.
It is a seasonal river and flows only in the rainy season.
The Gambhir River Basin is located in the northeastern portion of Rajasthan.
It is bounded by the Banganga river basin in the north, the Banas river basin in the southwest, Chambal and Parbati in the southeast; Uttar Pradesh state constitutes part of the boundary in the northeast.
Course:
Originating in the Aravalli Hills near Hindaun, the river flows through several districts before joining the Yamuna River in Uttar Pradesh.
The river flows in a south-to-north direction, eventually forming the boundary between Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
Its total length is approximately 288 kilometres.
The river is ephemeral, but becomes perennial after its confluence with the Parbati, outside Dhoulpur District.
It supplies water to the Keoladeo National Park, a UNESCO World Heritage Site known for its bird sanctuary.
The important tributaries of the Gambhir River are Sesa, Kher, and Parbati.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/jaipur/hc-seeks-raj-govt-reply-on-of-gambhiri-river-floodplain/articleshow/119271374.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Eurasian Goshawk, recently seen in the news:
- It is distributed across Europe, Asia, and parts of North America.
- It is classified as least concern under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A Eurasian goshawk, a medium-large raptor, was recently spotted at Tansa Wildlife Sanctuary by a forest guard.
About Eurasian Goshawk:
It is a large, powerful bird of prey belonging to the Accipitridae family, which also includes other extant diurnal raptors, such as eagles, buzzards and harriers.
Scientific Name: Accipiter gentilis
It is widely distributed across Europe, Asia, and parts of North America (where it is simply called the Northern Goshawk).
Habitat: Found in dense forests, particularly coniferous and mixed woodlands.
Features:
It has relatively short, broad wings and a long tail.
It is blue-grey above or brownish-grey with dark barring or streaking over a grey or white base color below, but Asian subspecies in particular range from nearly white overall to nearly black above.
Females are significantly larger than males.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.msn.com/en-in/news/techandscience/eurasian-goshawk-spotted-for-the-first-time-at-tansa-wildlife-sanctuary/ar-AA1Bn9dP?apiversion=v2&noservercache=1&domshim=1&renderwebcomponents=1&wcseo=1&batchservertelemetry=1&noservertelemetry=1
With reference to the Armed Forces (Special) Powers Act (AFSPA), consider the following statements:
- It can be applied only after an area has been declared “disturbed” either by the State Government or the Union Government.
- Once declared a ‘disturbed area’, the region is maintained as disturbed for at least one year.
- Armed forces can arrest a person without a warrant under AFSPA.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
At a review meeting chaired by the Union Ministry of Home Affairs recently, the Army sought the inclusion of additional police station limits in Manipur Valley under the ambit of the Armed Forces (Special) Powers Act (AFSPA).
About Armed Forces (Special) Powers Act (AFSPA):
It is a law enacted by the Parliament in 1958 which gives the armed forces special powers and immunity to maintain public order in “disturbed areas”.
When is it applied? It can be applied only after an area has been declared “disturbed” under section 2 of the Act.
Jurisdiction:
Both the State and Union Governments can issue notifications declaring certain areas as “disturbed”, granting the armed forces the authority under AFSPA.
For Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh, the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) issues periodic notifications.
Disturbed Areas under AFSPA: Defined under Section 3 of the Act, a “disturbed area” is where the use of armed forces is deemed necessary to support civil authorities in maintaining law and order.
Declaration of Disturbed Areas:
An area can be declared disturbed due to conflicts or disputes between various religious, racial, linguistic, regional, or caste-based communities.
The central government, Governor of the state, or the administrator of the Union Territory can declare the whole or part of a state or union territory as a disturbed area.
Once declared, the region is maintained as disturbed for at least three months under The Disturbed Areas (Special Courts) Act, 1976.
The scope and duration of AFSPA can vary depending on the region’s security situation.
The ‘special powers’ of armed forces under AFSPA are:
They have the authority to prohibit a gathering of five or more persons in an area, can use force or even open fire after giving due warning if they feel a person is in contravention of the law.
If reasonable suspicion exists, the army can also arrest a person without a warrant, enter or search a premises without a warrant, and ban the possession of firearms.
Any person arrested or taken into custody may be handed over to the officer in charge of the nearest police station along with a report detailing the circumstances that led to the arrest.
These armed forces are immune from prosecution unless the Union Government provides sanction to the prosecuting agencies.
Where is AFSPA in force now? Apart from Nagaland, the AFSPA is currently in force in Jammu and Kashmir, Assam, and Manipur except in Imphal, and Arunachal Pradesh.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/manipur/mha-reviews-afspa-in-the-northeast-army-wants-more-areas-in-manipur-under-act/article69354464.ece
Consider the following:
- Indonesia
- Vietnam
- Singapore
- Myanmar
How many of the above countries are founding members of ASEAN?
Only two
Explanation :
The 14th ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting-Plus (ADMM-Plus) Experts’ Working Group on Counter-Terrorism (EWG on CT) was recently held in New Delhi.
What is ASEAN?
The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is a regional intergovernmental organisation aimed at political, economic, and security cooperation.
It was established on August 8, 1967, in Bangkok, Thailand with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration) by Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand.
Motto: “One Vision, One Identity, One Community.”
Headquarters: Jakarta, Indonesia.
Member States (10 Nations):
Founding Members (1967): Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore and Thailand.
Later Additions: Brunei (1984), Vietnam (1995), Laos & Myanmar (1997), and Cambodia (1999).
Economic & Demographic Strength:
Total Population: 662 million (2022).
Combined GDP: $3.2 trillion (2022).
Institutional Mechanism of ASEAN:
ASEAN Summit: Meets annually to discuss regional issues and set policy directions. Chaired by a rotating presidency.
ASEAN Coordinating Council (ACC): Oversees implementation of ASEAN agreements and decisions.
ASEAN Secretariat: Supports and facilitates ASEAN’s activities and initiatives.
ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF): Platform for dialogue on political and security issues among ASEAN members and their dialogue partners. India joined in 1996.
Decision-Making Process: Based on consultation and consensus.
ASEAN-India Relations:
India became a Sectoral Dialogue Partner of ASEAN in 1992 and a Full Dialogue Partner in 1996.
India joined the ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF) in 1996.
India-ASEAN Free Trade Agreement (FTA) was signed in 2009 (Goods) and 2014 (Services & Investments).
ASEAN-India Strategic Partnership was established in 2012.
India actively participates in ADMM-Plus (ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting-Plus).
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: Table-top exercise on counter-terrorism in Malaysia, field training exercise in India part of ASEAN Defence Ministers plus CT cooperation - The Hindu
Consider the following statements with respect to Demands for Grants:
- It refer to expenditure estimates that require Lok Sabha approval under Article 113 of the Constitution.
- Each Demand is voted on individually, allowing for detailed discussion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Lok Sabha Approves ₹50 Lakh Crore in Demands for Grants for 2025-26.
What are Demands for Grants?
Definition: Demands for Grants refer to expenditure estimates that require Lok Sabha approval under Article 113 of the Constitution.
Scope:
Covers revenue & capital expenditure, grants to states/UTs, and loans & advances.
Each ministry/department presents its own Demand; large ministries may have multiple demands.
Types of Expenditures:
Voted expenditure: Requires approval from the Lok Sabha.
Charged expenditure: Includes President’s salary, judges’ salaries, debt servicing, and does not require voting.
Constitutional Provisions on Demands for Grants:
Article 113: No demand for a grant can be made without the President’s recommendation.
Article 114: Money cannot be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without Parliamentary approval.
Article 115: Allows for supplementary, additional, or excess grants when the original budget allocation is insufficient.
Article 116: Provides for Vote on Account, Vote of Credit, and Exceptional Grants if the budget is not passed before the financial year begins.
Voting on Demands for Grants:
Exclusive power of Lok Sabha (Rajya Sabha cannot vote).
Voting applies only to the votable part of the budget.
Each Demand is voted on separately, allowing for discussion.
If all demands are not discussed within the allocated time, the Speaker applies the Guillotine, approving all remaining Demands without discussion.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: Lok Sabha approves Demands for Grants of ₹50 lakh crore for various Ministries - The Hindu
Challenger 150, recently seen in news, is related to:
global deep-sea research initiative
Explanation :
Scientists have discovered dozens of new species on the newly exposed seafloor left behind by the A-84 iceberg, which broke away from the George VI Ice Shelf on January 13, 2025.
What is an Ice Shelf?
An ice shelf is a floating mass of glacial ice, fed from land by tributary glaciers, and extending over the sea above an ice shelf cavity.
Key Ice Sheets:
Antarctica and Greenland Ice Sheets hold two-thirds of Earth’s freshwater.
The West Antarctic Ice Sheet is one of the largest.
Role in Sea Level Changes:
When ice sheets gain mass, global sea levels fall.
When ice sheets lose mass, global sea levels rise.
Scientific discoveries under George VI Ice Shelf:
Expedition: Conducted as part of Challenger 150, a UNESCO-endorsed global deep-sea research initiative.
Remotely Operated Vehicle (ROV) SuBastian explored the seabed 1,300 meters deep.
Key findings:
Diverse ecosystem: Found icefish, giant sea spiders, corals, sponges, and octopi.
New species: Scientists believe they discovered previously unknown marine species.
Jellyfish discovery: A giant phantom jelly was recorded, growing up to a meter wide.
Unusual nutrient supply: Despite being cut off from surface nutrients for centuries, life thrives—possibly due to ocean currents or glacial melt water transporting essential nutrients.
About George VI Ice Shelf:
Location: Lies between Alexander Island and the Antarctic Peninsula.
Size: Covers 24,000 sq. km, making it the second-largest ice shelf in the region.
Ice flow: Receives ice from both the Antarctic Peninsula and Alexander Island.
Unlike most ice shelves, it is laterally constrained (trapped between landmasses) instead of freely flowing into the ocean.
It blocks epishelf lakes (trapped freshwater bodies between ice shelves and land).
Situated at the -9°C mean annual air temperature isotherm, a critical threshold beyond which ice shelves are prone to collapse.
Susceptible to melting from both atmospheric warming and warm ocean currents.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: Why scientists were surprised to find life under Antarctic ice shelf | Explained News - The Indian Express
Consider the following statements with respect to Section 69A of nformation Technology (IT) Act, 2000:
- It empowers the government to block access to online information.
- In Shreya Singhal vs Union of India (2015), Supreme Court has struck down this provision.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Elon Musk-owned X filed a case against the central government on Thursday for allegedly using the IT Act to block content on the micro-blogging site.
What is the IT Act, 2000?
The Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000 is India’s primary law governing cyber activities, digital transactions, and electronic governance.
It provides a legal framework for:
Cybersecurity and protection against cybercrimes
Digital signatures and electronic authentication
Data protection and regulation of intermediaries (social media platforms, search engines, etc.)
The Act was amended in 2008 and 2015 to address evolving cyber challenges.
Legal Framework:
Section 69A – Content Blocking Power:
Empowers the government to block access to online information in the interest of sovereignty, security, and public order, or to prevent incitement to an offence
Requires written orders and procedural safeguards before action is taken
It was upheld by the Supreme Court in Shreya Singhal vs Union of India (2015), which recognized its safeguards against misuse.
Section 79 – Intermediary Liability (“Safe Harbour” Provision):
Grants immunity to digital platforms (intermediaries) from liability for third-party content, provided they act as neutral hosts
Section 79(3)(b): Intermediaries lose immunity if they fail to remove unlawful content upon government notification.
Shreya Singhal Ruling (2015): The SC clarified that intermediaries must comply with court or government orders based on Article 19(2) restrictions (such as national security, defamation, incitement to violence, etc.).
About Sahyog Portal:
An online platform developed for automating the issuance of content removal notices to intermediaries under the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000.
Ministry Involved: Managed by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
Objectives:
Ensure swift and coordinated action against unlawful digital content
Enhance monitoring and compliance with cyber laws
Create a secure digital environment for Indian citizens
Key functions:
Brings together government agencies and digital intermediaries on a single platform
Facilitates issuance, tracking, and monitoring of content removal notices
Enhances transparency and accountability in digital content regulation
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: IT Act and content blocking: Why X has challenged govt’s use of Section 79 | Explained News - The Indian Express
Which one of the following correctly describes the objective of Production Linked Incentive Scheme?
Increasing manufacturing’s share in India’s GDP to 25% by 2025
Explanation :
India’s $23 billion PLI scheme to rival China factories to lapse after it disappoints.
Why in the News?
The $23 billion Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme, launched in 2020 to boost domestic manufacturing and reduce dependence on China, is set to lapse as many firms failed to meet production targets.
The scheme was aimed at increasing manufacturing’s share in India’s GDP to 25% by 2025, but it has declined from 15.4% to 14.3% instead.
Only 37% of the expected production target was achieved, with $151.93 billion worth of goods manufactured by October 2024.
Delays in subsidy payouts and excessive bureaucracy hampered the scheme’s effectiveness.
About the PLI Scheme:
The Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme was launched to boost domestic manufacturing, increase import substitution, and generate employment.
The scheme initially targeted three industries: Mobile and Allied Component Manufacturing, Electrical Component Manufacturing and Medical devices. Later, it was expanded to 14 key sectors.
Under this scheme, Domestic and Foreign companies receive financial incentives based on a percentage of their incremental revenue for up to five years.
Performance of the PLI Scheme:
Mobile Phones: Major success – Production rose 63% from 2020-24, reaching $49 billion. Apple and Samsung dominate exports.
Pharmaceuticals: Strong growth – Exports nearly doubled to $27.85 billion (2023-24).
Food Processing: Exceeded production targets, but some firms missed subsidy eligibility due to investment non-compliance.
Steel & Solar Panels: Lagging sectors – 14 out of 58 approved steel projects withdrawn, 8 out of 12 solar firms unlikely to meet targets.
Textiles & IT Hardware: Slow growth, struggling to compete with China’s lower production costs.
94% of the $620 million incentives disbursed (April-Oct 2024) went to pharmaceuticals and mobile phones, highlighting uneven sectoral success.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/indias-23-billion-pli-scheme-to-rival-china-factories-to-lapse-after-it-disappoints/article69357682.ece
What is the theme of the United Nations World Water Development Report (WWDR) 2025?
Mountains and Glaciers - Water Towers
Explanation :
The 2025 UN world water development report says that Retreating glaciers threaten the food and water supply of 2 billion people around the world.
About United Nations World Water Development Report (WWDR):
WWDR is UN-Water’s flagship report on water and sanitation issues.
It offers an authoritative and comprehensive assessment of the overall state, use and management of the world’s freshwater resources.
Launched on World Water Day (March 22), the report focuses on a different theme each year and gives policy recommendations to decision-makers by offering best practices and in-depth analyses.
The WWDR is published by UNESCO on behalf of UN-Water and its production is coordinated by the UNESCO World Water Assessment Programme.
Highlight of the WWDR 2025:
Theme: Mountains and glaciers - Water towers
The report says that “all mountain ranges” have shown evidence of warming since the early 20th century.
It warns that, as global temperatures rise, more mountain precipitation will fall as rain instead of snow, causing snowpacks to thin and melt earlier in the year.
It finds that receding snow and ice cover in mountain regions could have“severe” consequences for people and nature.
This acceleration in snowpack melt often causes river flow to increase in glacier-fed water basins and rivers in the short term.
However, once the snow melts beyond a certain threshold, a “peak water” point is passed and river flow declines again.
The report says there is “strong evidence” that this “peak water” point has already been passed in the glacial-fed rivers of the tropical Andes, western Canada and the Swiss Alps.
Meanwhile, many glaciers have disappeared entirely. For example, Colombia has lost 90% of its glacial area since the mid-19th century, according to the report.
It warns that, as the climate warms, many glaciers will “inevitably” disappear over the coming decades. It points to projections that suggest that warming of 1.5-4C will cause glaciers to lose 26-41% of their 2015 mass by 2100.
The report highlights a wide range of impacts, including reduced water for drinking and agriculture, stress on local ecosystems and increased risk of “devastating” glacial lake outburst floods (GLOFs).
Retreating glaciers threaten the food and water supply of 2 billion people around the world.
Two-thirds of all irrigated agriculture in the world is likely to be affected in some way by receding glaciers and dwindling snowfall in mountain regions, driven by the climate crisis.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livescience.com/planet-earth/fossils/refuge-from-the-worst-mass-extinction-in-earths-history-discovered-fossilized-in-china
Which among the following best describes ‘Sheathia rosemalayensis’, recently seen in the news?
A new species of freshwater algae.
Explanation :
In a recent discovery, researchers recently identified a new species of freshwater algae named ‘Sheathia rosemalayensis’, in Rosemala, located in Kollam district, Kerala.
About Sheathia rosemalayensis:
It is a new species of freshwater algae.
It was discovered in Rosemala, located in THE western ghats of Kerala, and has been named after the place where it was found.
This discovery is crucial because Sheathia species are extremely rare in India. Before this, only one other species was reported from the Himalayas.
Sheathia rosemalayensis has so far been documented only in the southern Western Ghats, a geographically distinct region.
In contrast, other species within the Sheathia genus, such as S. assamica, S. indonepalensis, and S. dispersa, have broader distributions spanning Assam, Nepal, Indonesia, Taiwan, and even the Hawaiian Archipelago.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:
https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/kerala/2025/Mar/22/kerala-cm-warns-of-sword-of-damocles-over-delimitation-calls-move-politically-driven
Consider the following statements regarding Dog-Faced Water Snake, recently seen in the news:
- It is endemic to northeast India.
- It is classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
A dog-faced water snake (Cerberus rynchops) has been recorded for the first time in Northeast India, far from its known coastal habitat.
About Dog-Faced Water Snake:
It is a rear-fanged, mildly venomous, semi-aquatic snake.
It belongs to the family Homalopsidae, which refers to Indo-Australian rear-fanged water snakes.
Scientific Name: Cerberus rynchops
Distribution:
It typically resides in mangroves, coastal mudflats, and, and estuarine habitats throughout Southeast Asia and northern Australia.
In India, it has been recorded in coastal regions such as Gujarat, Maharashtra, Kerala, Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
They spend the majority of their life in some type of water. Salt glands are what allow them to live in marine environments because they can expel salt through them in order to survive.
The species hunts fish and crustaceans in shallow waters employing a ‘sit-and-wait’ strategy to ambush prey.
Features:
They can grow to about 1m long.
They are characterized by a wide head and snout, which is where the epithet “dog-faced water snake” comes from.
They are striped and dark brown with a white underbelly.
The snake is adapted for slow-moving, shallow, and murky waters.
It can swim well. On soft mud, it moves quickly by sidewinding.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/assam/northeast-records-first-dog-fa
What is ‘Ratio Decidendi’ in the context of the Doctrine of Precedent?
The legal reasoning that forms the binding part of a judgment.
Explanation :
The Kerala High Court recently reaffirmed that any tax assessment orders passed on ignorance of binding precedents set by higher courts are violative of the doctrine of precedent and thus unsustainable.
About Doctrine of Precedent:
The doctrine of precedent is the custom of the courts to stand by previous decisions, so that once a point of law is decided upon by a court, then the same law must be applied to future cases with materially similar facts.
It is often referred to as ‘stare decisis’.
The lower courts will take account of and follow the decisions made by the higher courts.
It ensures consistency, predictability, and stability by obligating courts to follow the legal principles established in previous decisions.
The foundation of the doctrine of precedent lies in Article 141 of the Indian Constitution.
This article states that the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within India.
Essentially, lower courts must follow the legal interpretations and judgments laid down by the Supreme Court.
Key Aspects:
Ratio Decidendi: The legal reasoning that forms the binding part of a judgment. Courts must follow this in similar cases.
Obiter Dicta: Non-essential remarks made by the court. Although not binding, they can be influential in future cases.
Landmark Judgment:
The State of Orissa v. Mamata Patnaik (1978) case highlighted the significance of following precedent.
The Supreme Court emphasised that adherence to established legal principles ensures consistency in the application of law.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.taxscan.in/orders-ignoring-binding-precedents-are-in-violation-of-the-doctrine-of-precedent-and-cannot-be-countenanced-kerala-hc/500385/
Hemavathi River is a major tributary of which one of the following rivers?
Kaveri
Explanation :
Two youths, who went swimming in the Hemavati River near Henli village in Sakleshpur, drowned recently.
About Hemavathi River:
It is a very important tributary of the Kaveri River.
Course:
The river begins its journey in the Western Ghats at an elevation of about 1219 m above sea level, near Ballala Rayana Durga in the Chikmagalur District of Karnataka.
It flows through Tumkur, Hassan District, where it is joined by its chief tributary, the Yagachi River, and then into Mysore District before joining the Kaveri Krishnarajasagara.
It is approximately 245 km long and has a drainage area of about 5,410 sq km.
The Hemavati Reservoir is a masonry dam with a central spillway and earthen flanks built across the river near Gorur village.
It has a storage capacity of 37.1 tmcft. The water from the reservoir is used to irrigate 6.55 acres of land in Mandya, Hassan, and Tumkur.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/two-drown-in-hemavathi-river-near-sakleshpur/article69361681.ece
Exercise Varuna 2025, recently in the news, is a bilateral naval exercise between India and which country?
France
Explanation :
The 14th ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting-Plus (ADMM-Plus) Experts’ Working Group on Counter-Terrorism (EWG on CT) was recently held in New Delhi.
About Exercise Varuna
Bilateral Naval Exercise between India and France, first initiated in 1993.
Officially named ‘Varuna’ in 2001, it has become a key pillar of Indo-French strategic cooperation.
The 2025 edition saw high-intensity drills across sub-surface, surface, and aerial domains.
Key objectives:
Enhancing combat readiness.
Strengthening joint tactical coordination.
Deepening maritime security cooperation.
Key Highlights of Exercise Varuna 2025
Aircraft carrier operations:
INS Vikrant (India) and Charles de Gaulle (France) participated in joint carrier battle group operations.
The Indian Navy closely observed the Rafale-M fighter jets, which India is set to acquire soon.
Air combat drills:
Advanced air defence and mock air-to-air combat scenarios between:
French Rafale-M fighter jets.
Indian MiG-29K fighter jets.
o These exercises improved dogfighting capabilities and joint operational tactics.
Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) Exercises:
Indian Scorpene-class submarines played the role of an aggressor.
French and Indian frigates protected high-value assets like the French oiler Jacques Chevallier.
Underwater domain awareness and tactics were tested.
Surface warfare operations: Naval fleets executed synchronized engagements and manoeuvres.
Maritime patrol aircraft improved situational awareness.
Logistical cooperation: Replenishment-at-sea exercises strengthened supply chain interoperability.
Other India-France Military Exercises
FRINJEX – Army Joint Exercise.
GARUDA – Air Force Exercise.
France’s Role in the Indo-Pacific
France is a resident nation in the Indian Ocean with military bases in:
United Arab Emirates (UAE).
French territories in the Southern Indian Ocean.
The French Carrier Strike Group (CSG) has been deployed in the Indian Ocean since November 2024 as part of Clémenceau 25 mission to strengthen Indo-Pacific partnerships.
France regularly conducts naval exercises with India to maintain regional stability and freedom of navigation.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: Rafale-M operations, anti-submarine warfare in focus during Indo-France naval exercise - The Hindu
‘Tavasya’, recently in the news, is associated with which of the following?
Krivak-class stealth frigates
Explanation :
Stealth Frigate ‘Tavasya’ Launched at Goa Shipyard.
Why in the News?
‘Tavasya’, the last of the four Krivak-class stealth frigates, was launched at Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL) on March 22, 2025.
It is the second ship under construction at GSL under a technology transfer agreement with Russia.
The launch marks a milestone in India’s naval self-reliance and defence production capabilities.
About Krivak-Class Stealth Frigates
India and Russia signed an Inter-Governmental Agreement (IGA) in October 2016 for four additional Krivak-class stealth frigates.
Under the agreement:
Two ships were imported directly from Russia.
Two ships were manufactured at Goa Shipyard under technology transfer.
Frigate specifications:
Length: 124.8 m | Width: 15.2 m | Draught: 4.5 m.
Displacement: 3,600 tonnes.
Maximum speed: 28 knots.
Engines: Powered by Zorya-Mashproekt (Ukraine) engines.
First ship manufactured in India: Triput, launched in July 2024, set for delivery in 2026.
First ship commissioned from Russia: Tushil, commissioned on December 9, 2024, now based in Karwar.
Second Russian-manufactured frigate: Tamal, in advanced trials, expected to be commissioned in June 2025.
Tavasya is expected to be the last warship built under foreign license, as India transitions to indigenous warship construction.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: Stealth frigate launched into water at Goa Shipyard - The Hindu
Consider the following statements regarding Nano DAP:
- Unlike conventional DAP, which is granular, Nano DAP is in liquid form.
- It has a higher surface area-to-volume ratio.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Parliamentary Committee Warns Against Underfunding of Fertilizer Subsidy Schemes.
What is Nano DAP?
Nano DAP is a liquid nano-fertilizer developed to improve nutrient absorption and enhance plant growth.
It was launched by Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative (IFFCO) in 2023.
It contains 8% Nitrogen and 16% Phosphorus by volume.
Unlike conventional DAP, which is granular, Nano DAP is in liquid form, improving its efficiency and absorption by crops.
Due to its nano-size (less than 100 nm), it has a higher surface area-to-volume ratio, making it more effective than traditional fertilizers.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/agriculture/fertilizers-committee-warns-against-under-funding-of-nutrient-subsidy-schemes/article69361750.ece#:~:text=The%20Committee%20also%20highlighted%20underutilisation,Market%20Development%20Assistance%20(MDA)
With reference to the Chief Justice of India (CJI), consider the following statements:
- S/he is appointed by the President under Article 124(2) of the Constitution.
- S/he is the head of the Collegium System.
- S/he can be removed by the President only on grounds of proven misbehavior or incapacity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
CJI Forms Three-Member Committee to Probe Allegations Against Delhi High Court Judge.
About the Chief Justice of India (CJI)
Qualifications of CJI
A person is eligible to be appointed as Chief Justice of India if they:
Are a citizen of India.
Have served as a Judge of a High Court for at least five years.
Have been an advocate in a High Court for at least ten years.
Are considered a distinguished jurist by the President of India.
Appointment of CJI
The President appoints the CJI under Article 124(2) of the Constitution.
The outgoing CJI recommends their successor based on seniority.
The Union Law Minister forwards the recommendation to the Prime Minister, who then advises the President.
As per the Second Judges Case (1993), the senior-most Supreme Court judge is appointed as the CJI.
Role and Powers of the CJI
Master of the Roster: The CJI allocates cases to Supreme Court benches and decides the composition of benches.
Head of the Collegium System: The CJI leads the Supreme Court Collegium, responsible for appointing and transferring judges.
Administrative Authority: The CJI supervises court administration, staff appointments, and judicial proceedings management.
Judicial Leadership: The CJI is first among equals and does not hold superior judicial power over other judges.
Removal of CJI or Judges
A Supreme Court judge, including the CJI, can be removed by the President after an address by Parliament supported by a special majority.
Grounds for removal (Article 124(4)):
Proven misbehavior
Incapacity
What is the Collegium System?
A mechanism for appointing and transferring judges in the Supreme Court and High Courts.
Not established by an Act of Parliament, but evolved through Supreme Court judgments (Judges Cases).
For SC Appointments: CJI + four senior-most judges.
For HC Appointments:
HC-level Collegium: Chief Justice of HC + two senior judges.
SC-level Collegium: CJI + two senior-most SC judges.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/cji-constitutes-three-member-committee-to-probe-into-allegations-against-justice-yashwant-varma/article69362493.ece
Anthurium, recently seen in the news, is a:
tropical flowering plant with ornamental and air-purifying properties
Explanation :
India successfully exported Anthurium flowers from Mizoram to Singapore for the first time, marking a milestone in the country’s floriculture sector.
What is Anthurium?
Anthurium is a tropical flowering plant known for its ornamental value and air-purifying properties.
It is grown mostly indoors and helps remove toxins like formaldehyde, ammonia, toluene, xylene, and allergens from the air.
Anthurium was included in NASA’s list of air-purifying plants due to its ability to improve indoor air quality.
About APEDA
Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Government of India.
It is responsible for:
Developing and promoting exports of agricultural and processed food products.
Facilitating market linkages for Indian agricultural products worldwide.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: First-ever export of Anthurium Flowers from Mizoram to Singapore, a fillip to India’s Floriculture Potential
The Strait of Hormuz connects:
Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman
Explanation :
Amid tensions with the US, Iran on Saturday flexed its military muscle by installing its missile systems on the three disputed islands (Greater Tunb, Lesser Tunb, and Abu Musa) near the Strait of Hormuz.
About Key Facts about Strait of Hormuz:
It is a narrow waterway between Iran and the Arabian Peninsula, specifically the United Arab Emirates (UAE) and Musandam (Oman).
It connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman.
Iran is located on the north coast, while the UAE is on the south coast.
The Gulf of Oman is on the Strait’s east, while the Persian Gulf is on the west.
The strait is 167 kilometers long, with its width varying from 39 kilometers to 95 kilometers.
Its width narrows towards the north but still allows for the passage of large vessels.
Some of the islands located in the Strait of Hormuz are Hengam, Hormuz, and Qishm.
The Strait of Hormuz is considered one of the world’s most economically important choke points.
About 30% of the world’s liquefied gas and 25% of oil pass through the Strait of Hormuz.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.theweek.in/news/middle-east/2025/03/23/iran-s-open-challenge-to-us-sets-up-missile-systems-at-3-disputed-islands-near-strait-of-hormuz.html
The Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which one of the following cities?
Chandigarh
Explanation :
The Punjab government, in its affidavit submitted before the Supreme Court (SC) recently, stated that the Eco Sensitive Zone (ESZ) around the Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary limit will remain at 100 meters for the Nayagaon municipal committee instead of 1 to 3 km.
About Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is a protected area located in Chandigarh, near the famous Sukhna Lake at the foothills of the Shivalik range.
The lake was created by the architect Le Corbusier in 1958 by diverting the Sukhna Choe, a seasonal stream that flows down from the Shivalik hills.
The sanctuary was developed as a result of afforestation done for soil conservation around Sukhna Lake.
Spreading over an area of 2600 hectares, Sukhna Wildlife Sanctuary was established in 1998.
The place is quite unstable geographically and becomes prone to soil erosion by surface runoff during rains.
It has sandy soil of Shivalik with pockets of clay embedded at places.
Apart from the Sukhna Lake, there are around 150 small and large water bodies in the sanctuary that form its catchment area.
Vegetation: It is characterized by a mix of forests, grasslands, and wetlands, with the Sukhna Lake forming an important part of the ecosystem.
Flora: The common flora of the sanctuary includes Khair, Phulai, Kikar, Shisham, Moonj, Amaltas, Jhingan, Amla, Rati, Vasaka, and many more.
Fauna:
Squirrel, Common-Mongoose, Indian Hare, Porcupine, Jungle Cat, Jackal, Wild boar, etc, are the mammals found in the sanctuary.
Peacock, Hill myna, Jungle crow, Black drongo, Parrots, Doves, and others are the common birds of this region. Migratory birds also flock around this place.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:
https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/chandigarh-news/esz-around-sukhna-sanctuary-to-remain-at-100m-punjab-in-sc-101742411707565.html
With reference to India’s Remittances Survey 2023-24, consider the following statements:
- The highest contribution of remittances to India came from the United States.
- At the national level, Kerala ranks first in terms of remittance inflows.
- The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries contributed more than one-third of the remittance inflow into India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Insights from the Sixth round of India’s Remittances Survey 2023-24 by RBI shows that the US, UK, Singapore, Canada and Australia together accounted for more than half of remittances into India.
About India’s Remittances:
India has consistently received the highest remittance over the years, with the money doubling from $55.6 billion in 2010-11 to $118.7 billion in 2023-24.
The highest contribution came from the United States, accounting for 27.7 percent of the total remittances.
UAE maintained its position as the second largest source of India’s remittances, with its share increasing from 18 percent in 2020-21 to 19.2 per cent in 2023-24.
Share of inward remittances from advanced economies, including the US and the UK, has risen, surpassing that of Gulf economies in 2023-24.
The US and the UK together contributed to nearly 40 percent of total remittances coming to India through banks in FY24.
The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) -the UAE, Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, Qatar, Oman, and Bahrain - contributed 38 percent of the remittances.
At the national level, Kerala ranks second in terms of remittance inflows, following Maharashtra, which accounted for 20.5 percent of total remittances in 2023-24.
Tamil Nadu stands third with 10.4 per cent, followed by Telangana (8.1 percent) and Karnataka (7.7 per cent).
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:
https://www.business-standard.com/economy/news/advanced-economies-overtake-gulf-nations-in-share-of-remittances-to-india-125032100650_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding Anti-Dumping Duty:
- It is a specific form of duty that the government imposes to protect domestic producers by countering the negative impact of import subsidies.
- The WTO permits the imposition of Anti-Dumping Duty by its member countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
India recently has imposed anti-dumping duty on five Chinese goods, including vacuum flasks and aluminium foil.
About Anti-Dumping Duty:
It is a protectionist tariff that a domestic government imposes on foreign imports that it believes are priced below fair market value.
Dumping is a process wherein a company exports a product at a price that is significantly lower than the price it normally charges in its home (or its domestic) market.
The duty is priced in an amount that equals the difference between the normal costs of the products in the importing country and the market value of similar goods in the exporting country or other countries that produce similar products.
It is imposed to protect local businesses and markets from unfair competition by foreign imports.
Thus, the purpose of anti-dumping duty is to rectify the trade distortive effect of dumping and re-establish fair trade.
The use of anti dumping measures as an instrument of fair competition is permitted by the WTO.
While the intention of anti-dumping duties is to protect local businesses and markets, these tariffs can also lead to higher prices for domestic consumers.
In the long-term, anti-dumping duties can reduce the international competition of domestic companies producing similar goods.
In India Anti-dumping and Anti-subsidies are administered by the Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR), which is operated by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, and headed by the “Designated Authority”.
The Department of Commerce recommends the Anti-dumping duty, and the Ministry of Finance levies it.
What is Countervailing duty (CVD)?
It is a specific form of duty that the government imposes to protect domestic producers by countering the negative impact of import subsidies.
CVD is thus an import tax by the importing country on imported products.
The duty nullifies and eliminates the price advantage enjoyed by an imported product.
The WTO permits the imposition of CVD by its member countries.
Countervailing duty v/s Anti-dumping duty:
Anti-dumping duty is imposed to prevent low-priced foreign goods from damaging the local market.
On the other hand, CVD will apply to foreign products that have enjoyed government subsidies, which eventually leads to very low prices.
While the anti-dumping duty amount depends on the margin of dumping, the CVD amount will completely depend on the subsidy value of the foreign goods.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/economy/news/india-imposes-anti-dumping-duty-on-4-chinese-goods-including-aluminium-foil-125032300266_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding Urban Heat Island (UHI):
- It is a climatic phenomenon observed in urban areas, where temperatures are significantly higher than in surrounding rural areas.
- In a UHI, the heat of the sun is absorbed during the day, only to be released very slowly at night, which limits the cooling of the air.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Telangana Socio-Economic Outlook 2025 report reveals that Hyderabad is experiencing increased nighttime heat stress due to the urban heat island effect.
About Urban Heat Island (UHI):
The UHI effect is a climatic phenomenon observed in urban areas, where temperatures are significantly higher than in surrounding rural areas.
This discrepancy in temperature is attributed to human activities and urban development, which alter land surfaces and environments.
It is the result of an accumulation of factors, the main ones being:
Reduced green spaces and natural soils: Urbanization contributes to shrinking vegetation in cities (trees, lawns, etc.), resulting in insufficient shading and evapotranspiration, a process that naturally cools the air.
Density of buildings and infrastructure: Concrete or asphalt buildings and roads store more heat than vegetated areas, thus exacerbating urban warming.
Urban layout: narrow streets and tall buildings create urban canyons where warm air is less able to circulate, amplifying the effect of UHIs.
Heat released by human activities: Road traffic, air conditioning systems, and industrial activities generate heat, which is then trapped by greenhouse gases (such as carbon dioxide) that act as a barrier.
The combined effect of all these factors, together with global warming and increasingly high temperatures, leads to the development of this urban microclimate.
The term “Urban Heat Island” originates from the visual representation of temperature distribution maps, where urban areas are depicted as “islands” of higher temperatures amidst cooler rural “seas.”
The heat of the sun is absorbed during the day, only to be released very slowly at night, which limits the cooling of the air, thus contrasting with the cooling in the outlying rural areas.
Temperature differences at night can be as much as 12°C.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/hyderabad/hyd-trapped-in-heat-island-sizzles-at-night/articleshow/119388645.cms
Consider the following:
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Nagaland
- Mizoram
- Manipur
- Meghalaya
In how many of the above states is the Inner Line Permit (ILP) mandatory for entry?
Only four
Explanation :
Indian Railways Likely to Shelve Projects in Meghalaya Due to Local Opposition.
What is the Inner Line Permit (ILP)?
The Inner Line Permit (ILP) system, originally an offshoot of the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation (BEFR), 1873, remains a crucial tool for protecting indigenous tribal communities in India’s Northeastern states.
ILP is an official travel document issued by the state government to regulate the entry of non-residents into restricted areas of certain states.
It is required for Indian citizens who are not permanent residents of these states.
The system was introduced to protect indigenous communities from exploitation and preserve traditional cultures.
ILP States in India: Currently, four states require an ILP for entry: Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram and Manipur (ILP extended in 2019)
Legal Basis of ILP
Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation (BEFR), 1873: Originally introduced by the British colonial government. It created an “Inner Line” to restrict the movement of outsiders into tribal areas.
Aimed at protecting tribal autonomy and preventing land alienation.
Foreigners (Protected Areas) Order, 1958: Defines the Protected Areas between the Inner Line and the International Border.
Foreigners require a Protected Area Permit (PAP) beyond this point.
Foreigners (Restricted Areas) Order, 1963: Declares Andaman & Nicobar Islands and parts of Sikkim as Restricted Areas.
Current Status of Rail Connectivity in Meghalaya
Meghalaya has only one railway station, Mendipathar (North Garo Hills), operational since 2014.
Daily passenger train service runs between Mendipathar and Guwahati.
Freight services began recently.
The Northeast Frontier Railways (NFR) had planned three additional projects in Meghalaya.
Tetelia-Byrnihat Railway Line
Byrnihat-Shillong Railway Line
Chandranathpur-Jowai Railway Line
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/indian-railways-shelve-projects-meghalaya-9896452/
Derivatives are financial contracts whose value is derived from which of the following?
An underlying asset, index, or rate
Explanation :
IndusInd Bank reported derivative losses of ₹2,100 crore on March 10, 2025, leading to a 23% decline in its share price.
About Derivatives
Financial contracts whose value depends on an underlying asset, index, or rate.
Used for hedging risks, speculation, and portfolio diversification.
Common underlying assets: Stocks, bonds, commodities, currencies, interest rates, and market indexes.
Exchange-Traded Currency Derivatives (ETCDs)
Standardized contracts allow investors to speculate on future currency exchange rate movements.
Traded on stock exchanges, unlike Over-the-Counter (OTC) derivatives which are private.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: This is how IndusInd Bank’s derivative losses unfolded. Should depositors worry? | Explained News - The Indian Express
The Farakka Barrage is located on which river and in which Indian state?
Ganga River, West Bengal
Explanation :
Farakka Barrage was commissioned in 1975, and the 50th anniversary of its operation is being observed in 2025.
About Farakka Barrage
Location: Situated on the Ganga River in Murshidabad district, West Bengal, approximately 18 km from the Bangladesh border.
Commissioning: Began operations on April 21, 1975, after 12 years of construction and an expenditure of ₹130 crores.
Purpose: Diverts 40,000 cusecs of water into the Farakka Feeder Canal to flush out silt from the Bhagirathi-Hooghly River, ensuring smooth navigation for Kolkata Port.
India and Bangladesh have had multiple agreements over Ganga water sharing, including the 1977 Farakka Agreement and the 1996 Ganga Water Treaty.
Hooghly River & Its Significance
Also known as the Bhagirathi-Hooghly or Kati-Ganga River.
A 260 km-long distributary of the Ganges.
Formation: The Ganga splits in Murshidabad, with one branch forming the Padma River (flows into Bangladesh).
The other becomes the Hooghly River, which flows through West Bengal.
Course & Hydrology
Above Kolkata, the Hooghly River is heavily silted.
The Farakka Feeder Canal supplies water, especially during the dry season.
Rivers feeding Hooghly: Haldi, Ajay, Damodar, and Rupnarayan contribute to the lower Hooghly.
Important Cities: Jiaganj, Azimganj, Murshidabad, Baharampur, Kolkata, and Howrah.
Bridges:
Howrah Bridge (Cantilever) between Howrah and Kolkata.
Bally Bridge between Bally and Baranagar.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: From The Hindu, March 24, 1975: Farakka barrage to be commissioned soon.
World Tuberculosis Day is observed annually on which date?
March 24
Explanation :
March 24 is observed as World Tuberculosis (TB) Day to raise awareness about TB and efforts to eliminate it.
Why in the News?
The 2025 theme is “Yes, We Can End TB: Commit, Invest, and Deliver.”
The President of India commended the National TB Elimination Programme (NTEP) for its public awareness initiatives and significant reduction in TB cases over the past decade.
India aims to eliminate TB by 2025, ahead of the global target of 2030 set by the WHO End TB Strategy.
About Tuberculosis (TB):
Tuberculosis (TB) is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which primarily affects the lungs but can also impact other body parts such as the abdomen, glands, bones, and nervous system.
It spreads through airborne transmission, mainly inhaling tiny droplets released from the coughs or sneezes of an infected person.
Symptoms of TB
Persistent cough for more than 3 weeks, often with blood.
Weight loss, night sweats, high fever, fatigue.
Loss of appetite, chest pain, swollen lymph nodes.
Treatment & Prevention
Curable with Antibiotics: Requires 6-18 months of medication.
BCG Vaccine: The Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine provides moderate protection, mainly for severe TB in infants and children.
Key Highlights of TB in India
Declining TB Incidence: Tuberculosis incidence in India has dropped to below 200 per lakh (2022) from 237 per lakh (2015), marking a 16% decline.
Reduction in TB Mortality: TB-related deaths have decreased by 18% since 2015, now at 23 per lakh population.
Improved Treatment Success Rates:
Multi-Drug Resistant TB (MDR-TB) Treatment Success Rate: 74%.
Pre-Extensively Drug-Resistant TB (Pre-XDR-TB) Success Rate: 68%.
Extensively Drug-Resistant TB (XDR-TB) Success Rate: 45%.
State-Wise TB Performance Index:
Best Performing States: Himachal Pradesh, Odisha, Gujarat.
Lowest Performing States: Punjab, Bihar, Karnataka.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: Towards better TB control - The Hindu
The highest-quality lapis lazuli, known for its deep blue color, is primarily mined in which region?
Badakhshan province, Afghanistan
Explanation :
What is Lapis Lazuli?
Lapis lazuli is a vivid blue metamorphic rock, known for its striking colour and semi-precious gemstone value.
It has been highly valued for thousands of years for use in jewellery, ornaments, and pigments.
Etymology:
“Lapis” (Latin) means stone.
“Lazuli” (Persian - Lazward) means blue.
Composition of Lapis Lazuli
The blue colour comes from lazurite (25-40%), a rare mineral.
The shade of blue depends on the amount and structure of sulphur in lazurite.
Other minerals present:
Pyrite (gives golden streaks and sparkle).
Calcite (reduces the blueness).
Diopside and Sodalite (found in smaller quantities).
Where is Lapis Lazuli Found?
Major sources include Afghanistan, Chile, Russia, and the United States.
The highest-quality lapis lazuli is mined in Badakhshan province, Afghanistan, where it has been extracted for over 6,000 years.
Lapis Lazuli in History
Ancient Trade and Use in India: Imported to India from Badakhshan as early as 1000 BCE.
Ornaments made of lapis lazuli have been discovered at Indus Valley Civilization sites (Mohenjo-daro & Harappa).
Ancient Egypt: Used in jewellery and ground into powder for eye shadow.
Renaissance Europe: Ground into ultramarine, a rare and expensive blue pigment used by painters.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: Lapis lazuli: earth’s best blues - The Hindu.
In which state is the Hakki Pikki tribe, recently seen in the news, primarily located?
Karnataka
Explanation :
Twenty-two members of the Hakkipikki tribal community from Channagiri taluk in Davangere, Karnataka, have been penalized and instructed to exit Gabon following recent policy changes implemented by the African nation’s government.
About Hakki Pikki Tribe:
Hakki Pikkis (Hakki in Kannada means ‘bird’ and Pikki means ‘catchers’) are a semi-nomadic tribe, traditionally of bird catchers and hunters.
Hakki-Pikki’ is one of the major tribal communities in Karnataka.
They also reside in the Western and Southern states of India, mostly near forest areas.
According to the 2011 census, the Hakki Pikki population in Karnataka is 11,892 and they live majorly in Davangere, Mysuru, Kolar, Hassan, and Shivmogga districts.
They are recognized as a Scheduled Tribe in India.
Language:
Their mother tongue was designated as ‘Vaagri’ by scholars.
UNESCO has listed ‘Vaagri’ as one of the endangered languages.
Many also speak Kannada, Telugu, Tamil, and Hindi.
Occupation:
After the implementation of stricter wildlife laws, the tribe changed its occupation from hunting to selling spices, flowers, Ayurveda formulations, and herbal oils.
They began doing odd jobs like working in fields and sharpening knives and sickles by riding around towns.
They are renowned for their indigenous medicines. The community resided in the dense jungles for a long time and created its own plant- and herb-based medicine systems.
They now travel globally to sell these products, especially in the African continent, where there is a demand for cheaper alternatives to Western medicine.
Rituals and customs:
The tribe follows Hindu traditions and celebrates Hindu festivals.
They follow a clan-based social structure and practice endogamy within their clan.
The tribe prefers cross-cousin marriages.
The society is matriarchal, where the groom gives dowry to the bride’s family.
The eldest son in a family is not supposed to cut his hair so that he can be identified easily.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/bengaluru-news/karnatakas-hakkipikki-tribe-members-ordered-to-leave-african-country-over-fraudulent-documents-101742782532796.html
With reference to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF), consider the following statements:
- It is an intergovernmental policy-making and standard-setting body dedicated to combating money laundering and terrorist financing.
- Its headquarters is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
- Once a FATF member, a country must endorse and support the most recent FATF recommendations and commit to being evaluated by other members.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
India will host the FATF Private Sector Collaborative Forum 2025 in Mumbai, addressing global priorities such as payment transparency, financial inclusion, and digital financial system transformation.
About the Financial Action Task Force (FATF):
FATF is an intergovernmental policy-making and standard-setting body dedicated to combating money laundering and terrorist financing.
Objective: To establish international standards and to develop and promote policies, both at national and international levels, to combat money laundering and the financing of terrorism.
FATF develops and promotes policies across various countries and jurisdictions.
Origin:
It was established in 1989 during the G7 Summit in Paris in response to a growing concern about money laundering.
In 2001, its mandate expanded to include terrorism financing.
Headquarters: Paris, France.
Members:
To become a member, a country must be considered strategically important (large population, large GDP, developed banking and insurance sector, etc.), must adhere to globally accepted financial standards, and be a participant in other important international organizations.
FATF members include 39 countries, including the United States, India, China, Saudi Arabia, Britain, Germany, France, and the EU as such.
In addition, more than 180 countries worldwide are affiliated with the FATF through a network of FATF-style regional bodies (FSRBs).
India became a member of FATF in 2010. India is also a member of two FATF Style Regional Bodies (FSRBs)-the Asia Pacific Group (APG) and the Eurasian Group of Combating Money Laundering and Financing of Terrorism (EAG).
The FATF researches how money is laundered and terrorism is funded, promotes global standards to mitigate the risks, and assesses whether countries are taking effective action.
FATF regularly publishes reports that raise awareness about the latest money laundering, terrorist financing, and proliferation financing techniques so that countries and the private sector can take the necessary steps to mitigate these risks.
The FATF Recommendations are recognised as the global anti-money laundering (AML) and counter-terrorist financing (CFT) standard.
Once a member, a country or organization must endorse and support the most recent FATF recommendations and commit to being evaluated by (and evaluating) other members.
The FATF holds countries to account that do not comply with the FATF Standards.
If a country repeatedly fails to implement FATF Standards, then it can be named a Jurisdiction under Increased Monitoring or a High-Risk Jurisdiction. These are often externally referred to as “the grey and black lists”.
What are FATF ‘grey list’ and ‘blacklist’?
Black List: Countries known as Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs) are put on the blacklist. These countries support terror funding and money laundering activities. The FATF revises the blacklist regularly, adding or deleting entries.
Grey List: Countries that are considered a safe haven for supporting terror funding and money laundering are put on the FATF grey list. This inclusion serves as a warning to the country that it may enter the blacklist.
Three countries-North Korea, Iran, and Myanmar, are currently on FATF’s blacklist.
Consequences of being on the FATF blacklist:
No financial aid is given to them by the International Monetary Fund (IMF), the World Bank, the Asian Development Bank (ADB), and the European Union (EU).
They also face a number of international economic and financial restrictions and sanctions.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/india-to-host-3-day-fatf-private-sector-collaborative-forum-in-mumbai/articleshow/119432129.cms?UTM_Source=Google_Newsstand&UTM_Campaign=RSS_Feed&UTM_Medium=Referral
Consider the following statements regarding Permafrost:
- It is any ground that remains completely frozen—32°F (0°C) or colder—for at least two years straight.
- It is made of a combination of soil, rocks and sand that are held together by ice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
According to a new study, permafrost covers 64.8% of the total area of J & K and Ladakh.
About Permafrost:
Permafrost is any ground that remains completely frozen—32°F (0°C) or colder—for at least two years straight.
Where are they found?
These permanently frozen grounds are most common in regions with high mountains and in Earth’s higher latitudes—near the North and South Poles.
They can be found on land and below the ocean floor.
It can extend down beneath the earth’s surface from a few feet to more than a mile, covering entire regions, such as the Arctic tundra, or a single, isolated spot, such as a mountaintop of alpine permafrost.
Permafrost covers large regions of the Earth. Almost a quarter of the land area in the Northern Hemisphere has permafrost underneath.
What Is Permafrost Made Of?
Permafrost is made of a combination of soil, rocks and sand that are held together by ice.
The soil and ice in permafrost stay frozen all year long.
Although the ground is frozen, permafrost regions are not always covered in snow.
Near the surface, permafrost soils also contain large quantities of organic carbon—a material leftover from dead plants that couldn’t decompose, or rot away, due to the cold.
Lower permafrost layers contain soils made mostly of minerals.
A layer of soil on top of permafrost does not stay frozen all year. This layer, called the active layer, thaws during the warm summer months and freezes again in the fall.
In colder regions, the ground rarely thaws—even in the summer. There, the active layer is very thin—only 4 to 6 inches (10 to 15 centimeters). In warmer permafrost regions, the active layer can be several meters thick.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:
https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/125361/OPS/GV0E5JR6B.1+GGDE5JRD4.1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Equalization Levy:
- It was introduced with the intention of taxing income accruing to foreign e-commerce companies from India.
- It is a direct tax, which is withheld at the time of payment by the service recipient.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The central government has proposed to abolish the Equalisation Levy, or digital tax, on online advertisements, aiming to benefit advertisers on platforms like Google and Meta.
About Equalization Levy:
The Equalisation Levy was introduced in India in 2016, with the intention of taxing digital transactions i.e. the income accruing to foreign e-commerce companies from India.
It is aimed at taxing business-to-business transactions.
It is also often referred to as the “Google Tax”
It is a direct tax, which is withheld at the time of payment by the service recipient.
The two conditions to be met to be liable to equalisation levy:
The payment should be made to a non-resident service provider;
The annual payment made to one service provider exceeds Rs.1,00,000 in one financial year.
Currently, not all services are covered under the ambit of equalisation Levy. The following services are covered:
Online Advertisement Services (Effective from June 1, 2016).
Any provision for digital advertising space or facilities/services or selling goods to Indian residents, or users accessing services/goods through Indian IP addresses (Effective from April 1, 2020).
It was also mentioned during the introduction of the levy that as and when any other services are notified, these will be included with the aforesaid services.
Equalisation Levy Exclusion:
The non-resident service provider has a permanent office in India, and the requested service is linked to that permanent office/establishment.
The total consideration amount to be paid for the specific service payable or received is less than Rs.1 lakh.
The service described is not intended to be used to pursue a profession or work.
An exemption under section 10(50) of the Act is provided to avoid double taxation for any income arising from specified services provided on which equalisation levy is chargeable.
An income chargeable to tax as fees or royalties for technical services will not be included as income for the equalisation levy purposes.
The tax rate under the equalisation levy depends on the type of service or transaction.
For specified digital services, such as online advertising, the rate is 6% of the gross consideration.
For e-commerce transactions, such as online sale of goods or services, the rate is 2% of the gross consideration.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/business/india-business/government-to-abolish-equalisation-levy-on-online-ads-from-april-1/articleshow/119432434.cms
Nagarjuna Sagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve (NSTR) lies in which state?
Andhra Pradesh
Explanation :
The number of big cats in the Nagarjuna Sagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve (NSTR) in the Nallamala forest area has increased from 74 in 2023 to 76 in 2024, as per the Annual Report on Status of Tigers, Prey and Other Mammals-2024.
About Nagarjuna Sagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve (NSTR):
Location: It is located in the Nallamala hill ranges (an offshoot of the Eastern Ghats) of Andhra Pradesh.
This is the largest tiger reserve in the country, spreading over an area of 5937 sq. km.
It hosts the largest tiger population in the Eastern Ghat landscape.
It is named after two major dams in the area, Nagarjuna Sagar Dam and Srisailam Dam.
Two wildlife sanctuaries, namely Rajiv Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and Gundla Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary (GBM), constitute the NSTR.
The river Krishna traverses through this reserve for a linear distance of around 270 kilometers.
Topography: It consists of plateaus, ridges, gorges, and deep valleys.
Vegetation: Tropical dry deciduous forests have an undergrowth of bamboo and grass.
Flora: The habitat has several endemics like Andrographis nallamalayana, Eriolaena lushingtonii, Crotalaria madurensis Var, Dicliptera beddomei, and Premna hamiltonii.
Fauna:
Top faunal species include Tiger, Leopard, Wolf, Wild Dog and Jackal.
The prey species are represented by Sambar, Chital, Chowsingha, Chinkara, Mouse Deer, Wild boar, and Porcupine.
The river Krishna has Muggers, Otters and Turtles.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.etvbharat.com/en/!bharat/tiger-population-in-nagarjunasagar-srisailam-tiger-reserve-at-76-report-enn25032404195
Consider the following countries:
- India
- Sri Lanka
- Maldives
- Seychelles
- Bangladesh
How many of the above are participating countries of Indian Ocean Ship (IOS) Sagar?
Only four
Explanation :
India’s Maiden India-Africa Naval Exercise: Indian Ocean Ship (IOS) Sagar & AIKEYME.
What is IOS Sagar?
Indian Ocean Ship (IOS) Sagar is a maritime security cooperation initiative in the Southwest Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
Duration: April 5 to May 8, 2025.
Vessel: INS Sunayna, an offshore patrol vessel.
Participants: India + 9 African nations: Comoros, Kenya, Madagascar, Maldives, Mauritius, Mozambique, Seychelles, Sri Lanka and South Africa.
Activities:
Port calls at Dar-es-Salaam (Tanzania), Nacala (Mozambique), Port Louis (Mauritius), Port Victoria (Seychelles), and Male (Maldives).
Joint surveillance of Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs) of Tanzania, Mozambique, Mauritius, and Seychelles.
Training for African personnel at Indian naval institutions in Kochi, covering naval operations, watchkeeping, and security drills.
What is AIKEYME?
AIKEYME stands for ‘Africa-India Key Maritime Engagement’, meaning ‘Unity’ in Sanskrit.
Co-hosts: Indian Navy & Tanzania People’s Defence Force (TPDF).
Location: Dar-es-Salaam, Tanzania.
Participants: India + 10 African nations – Comoros, Djibouti, Eritrea, Kenya, Madagascar, Mauritius, Mozambique, Seychelles, South Africa, and Tanzania.
Duration: Six days in mid-April 2025.
Inauguration: By Defence Minister
Training & Operational Phases:
Harbour Phase: Table-top and command post exercises focusing on piracy and maritime information-sharing.
Seamanship training & Visit Board Search and Seizure (VBSS) operations.
Sea Phase: Search and Rescue (SAR), small arms firing, helicopter operations, and maritime security drills.
What is Security and Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR)?
Launched in 2015, SAGAR aims for a free, open, inclusive, peaceful, and prosperous Indo-Pacific.
Key components:
Countering Chinese Influence: Strengthening ties with IOR nations.
Maritime Security: Tackling piracy, terrorism, and illegal activities.
Capacity Building: Supporting IOR countries in disaster management and infrastructure development.
Economic & Connectivity Projects: Expanding regional trade and investment.
MAHASAGAR (Advancement for Security Across the Regions): Announced by the PM in Mauritius, focusing on maritime security and regional cooperation.
Key Indian Initiatives Supporting SAGAR
South Asia Satellite (SAS): Enhances communication & disaster response among neighbors.
Mission SAGAR: Provided COVID-19 medical assistance to Indian Ocean littoral states.
Vaccine Maitri: Supplied COVID-19 vaccines to nations like Bhutan & Maldives.
Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Project: Improves connectivity between India, Myanmar, and Southeast Asia.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: India Navy announces maiden India-African exercise, Indian Ocean Ship (IOS) Sagar - The Hindu
Consider the following statements regarding Money Bills and Finance Bills in India:
- A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha whereas Finance Bill I and II can be introduced in either House of Parliament.
- The Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations on a Money Bill whereas it can suggest amendments and even reject a Finance Bill.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
About the Finance Bill
The Finance Bill is a crucial part of the Union Budget and is introduced every year to:
Implement the government’s fiscal proposals.
Authorize taxation, expenditure, and revenue adjustments for the upcoming financial year.
Article 110(a) of the Constitution mandates that the Finance Bill be presented with the Budget.
Accompanied by a Memorandum explaining tax provisions.
What is a Money Bill?
Definition (Article 110): A Bill is a Money Bill if it contains provisions related to:
Taxation.
Borrowing of money by the government.
Expenditure from or receipt to the Consolidated Fund of India.
The Speaker of Lok Sabha certifies whether a Bill is a Money Bill.
Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill, only give recommendations, which Lok Sabha may ignore.
What are DNA polymorphisms?
Variations in DNA sequences among individuals
Explanation :
Why in the News?
DNA fingerprints are widely used in forensic science, ancestry tracing, and biological research.
DNA polymorphisms, which are variations in DNA sequences among individuals, form the basis of DNA fingerprinting and are crucial for identifying individuals, solving crimes, and studying genetic relationships.
What is DNA?
DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) is the genetic material present in almost all cells of the human body (skin, blood, bone, teeth, etc.).
Humans have 46 DNA molecules (chromosomes):
23 chromosomes inherited from the father (via sperm).
23 chromosomes inherited from the mother (via the egg).
Chromosomes contain genes, which carry instructions for traits like eye color, height, and susceptibility to diseases.
What are DNA Polymorphisms?
DNA polymorphisms are variations in DNA sequences among individuals.
These genetic differences occur at specific locations in DNA and help differentiate one person from another.
DNA polymorphisms allow scientists to determine:
Parentage (paternal/maternal lineage).
Genetic ancestry.
Identity verification through DNA fingerprinting.
What are Short Tandem Repeats (STRs)?
STRs are short sequences of DNA bases (A, T, C, G) that repeat multiple times.
Example: A repeated sequence like GATCGATCGATC (on the complementary strand, CTAGCTAGCTAG).
Each person has a unique STR pattern, making STRs highly useful for:
Forensic investigations.
Criminal identification.
Parent-child relationship testing.
STRs are inherited, so they provide valuable insights into ancestry and genetic inheritance.
How is DNA Copied for Analysis? (PCR Method)
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is a technique used to amplify DNA segments, making millions of copies.
Steps of PCR:
DNA Extraction: Scientists collect DNA from blood, bones, saliva, or skin cells.
Denaturation (95°C): DNA strands are heated to separate them.
Annealing (60°C): Short DNA primers bind to target sequences.
Extension (72°C): DNA polymerase enzyme adds complementary bases, creating new DNA strands.
Cycling Process: The steps are repeated, rapidly increasing the DNA copies.
PCR is essential for DNA fingerprinting, criminal investigations, and medical research.
What is a DNA Fingerprint?
A DNA fingerprint is a unique genetic profile based on STR variations.
It is created using Capillary Electrophoresis:
DNA fragments move through a capillary under an electric field.
Smaller fragments travel faster, separating different STR patterns.
The final DNA profile is unique to each person (except identical twins).
Sources of DNA for fingerprinting: Teeth, bones, blood, saliva, sweat, semen, skin cells.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: What are DNA polymorphisms and how do they differentiate between people? - The Hindu
Who among the following established Vikramshila University?
Dharmapala
Explanation :
Why in the News?
After Nalanda University, another ancient centre of learning in Bihar—Vikramshila University—is set for revival.
The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is currently developing the ancient site to boost tourism.
The Bihar government has identified 202.14 acres in Antichak village, Bhagalpur, for establishing a Central University at the historic site.
The project was approved by the Centre in 2015 with an initial budget of ₹500 crore, but progress was delayed due to land acquisition issues.
About Vikramshila University
Location: Vikramshila University was situated in Bhagalpur, Bihar, along the banks of the river Ganges, making it a prominent historical site in eastern India.
Founder: The university was established by King Dharmapala of the Pala Dynasty during the late 8th to early 9th century AD, as a response to the perceived decline in educational standards at Nalanda University.
Significance:
Vikramshila University emerged as a leading hub for Tantric Buddhism and Vajrayana Buddhism, playing a pivotal role in the spread of these traditions.
The university distinguished itself by specializing in tantric and occult studies, setting it apart from Nalanda University, which offered a broader curriculum.
During King Dharmapala’s reign, Vikramshila exerted influence over Nalanda’s affairs, highlighting its administrative and academic dominance at the time.
It drew over 1000 students and 100 teachers from across India and beyond, reflecting its international reputation as a center of learning.
The institution produced renowned scholars like Atisa Dipankara, who significantly contributed to establishing Buddhism in Tibet.
Features:
Vikramshila University boasted a central stupa encircled by 208 cells, designed to house student-monks engaged in study and meditation.
It included a library equipped with a unique cooling system, channeling water from a nearby reservoir to preserve delicate manuscripts.
The curriculum encompassed a wide range of subjects, such as theology, philosophy, grammar, metaphysics, logic, and tantras, showcasing its academic diversity.
The university’s administration was overseen by a Kulpati or Mahasthavir, a distinctive leadership role that ensured its smooth functioning.
Decline: Vikramshila University met its end when it was destroyed by Muhammad Bin Bakhtiyar Khalji around 1203 AD, an event that also marked the downfall of Nalanda University.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: After Nalanda, another Bihar university now set to rise from the ruins | India News - The Indian Express
Consider the following countries:
- Russia
- Ukraine
- Turkey
- Bulgaria
- Georgia
How many of the above countries have a coastline along the Black Sea?
All five
Explanation :
Why in the News?
US and Russian officials are engaged in diplomatic talks in Saudi Arabia to advance a broader ceasefire in Ukraine and negotiate a Black Sea maritime ceasefire.
US President Donald Trump has intensified efforts to broker peace, holding prior discussions with Ukrainian officials in Riyadh.
The Black Sea ceasefire agreement aims to restore free navigation for shipping, although it has not been a major military flashpoint in recent months.
The talks are taking place amid continued Russian missile strikes on Ukraine, including a recent attack on Sumy that injured 65 people, including 14 children.
About the Black Sea
Location: A large inland sea situated at the southeastern extremity of Europe.
Type: One of the marginal seas of the Atlantic Ocean.
Area: Covers approximately 436,000 square kilometers (168,000 square miles).
Bordering regions:
West: Balkan Peninsula (Southeastern Europe).
East: Caucasus Mountains.
North: East European Plains (Russia & Ukraine).
South: Anatolia (Turkey, Western Asia).
Bordering Countries:
Russia and Ukraine (North).
Turkey (South).
Bulgaria (West).
Georgia (East).
Romania also has access to the Black Sea.
Key features:
The Crimean Peninsula extends into the Black Sea from the north.
Russia has the longest coastline (2,300 km), followed by Turkey (1,329 km) and Ukraine (1,282 km).
It connects to the Aegean Sea (Mediterranean) via the Bosporus Strait, the Sea of Marmara, and the Dardanelles Strait.
The Kerch Strait links it to the Sea of Azov.
The Black Sea has lower salinity than the world’s oceans due to isolation from the Mediterranean.
Major rivers flowing into it include the Danube, Dnieper, Southern Bug, Rioni, and Dniester.
Environmental and Strategic Importance of the Black Sea
World’s Largest Meromictic Basin: The movement of water between upper and lower layers is rare, leading to unique ecological conditions.
Anoxic zones: One of the largest anoxic basins, meaning low dissolved oxygen in deeper layers, affecting marine biodiversity.
Strategic Geopolitical Importance:
Crucial for global trade, particularly for Russia and Ukraine’s grain and energy exports.
NATO and Russia frequently conduct naval operations in the region.
Russia’s Black Sea Fleet is stationed in Sevastopol, Crimea, making the region highly militarized.
Key Islands: Snake Island (Ukraine); Giresun Island (Turkey); St. Ivan Island (Bulgaria).
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/world/us-russia-talks-in-saudi-arabia-ukraine-war-black-sea-ceasefire-9903812/lite/
Consider the following statements regarding Lyme Disease, recently seen in the news:
- It is caused by a bacterium.
- It is primarily transmitted to humans through water contamination.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Scientists have discovered that the enzyme BbLDH is crucial for the survival and infectivity of the Lyme disease bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi.
About Lyme Disease:
It is caused by the bacteria Borrelia burgdorferi.
The infection can lead to problems with the skin, heart, brain, and joints.
It’s transmitted (spread) to humans through a tick bite.
Transmission:
Not all tick bites cause Lyme disease. Only deer ticks (also called black-legged ticks) can spread the bacteria that cause Lyme disease.
It cannot spread between humans, from pets to humans, through air, food, water, or lice, mosquitoes, fleas, and flies also do not transmit it.
It is prevalent in wooded and grassy areas worldwide, particularly during warmer months. It is most commonly reported in North America, Europe, and some parts of Asia.
Symptoms:
Typical symptoms include fever, headache, fatigue, and a characteristic skin rash called erythema migrans.
If left untreated, infection can spread to joints, the heart, and the nervous system.
Treatment: Treatment with antibiotics usually cures Lyme disease, especially when started early.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/life-style/health-fitness/health-news/what-is-lyme-disease-scientists-uncover-an-enzyme-that-could-revolutionize-the-treatment-of-the-disease/articleshow/119415205.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Water Hyacinth:
- It is a free-floating, aquatic plant native to Africa.
- It can form dense mats that reduce water quality and alter ecosystems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A thick blanket of water hyacinth covers the Mula River near Holkar Bridge, raising alarms among residents about the river’s deteriorating condition.
About Water Hyacinth:
It is a free-floating, aquatic plant in the pickerelweed family.
Scientific Name: Eichhornia crassipes
It is native to tropical regions of South America and is now present on all continents except Antarctica.
It is one of the world’s most serious water weeds because of its aggressive, fast-growing nature.
It can form dense mats that reduce the water quality, change water flows and increase sediment.
It crowds out native aquatic plants and animals, altering ecosystems, destroying habitats, and blocking irrigation systems.
It has thick, glossy green leaves and lavender to violet flowers with a yellow spot.
It was introduced to India during the British colonial rule as an ornamental aquatic plant from South America.
Uses:
The plant has been used as a biofertilizer in some organic agriculture practices.
The plant produces beautiful purple flowers that have high aesthetic value.
It is rich in fibrous stems that can be processed into a wide array of handbags, interior decorative material, table mats, baskets, and other products.
It has been reported that this plant is a good phytoremediation species, suggesting it has the ability to trap and remove toxic metabolites and harmful heavy metals from water.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/pune/chronic-blanket-of-water-hyacinth-smothers-mula-river/articleshow/119440371.cms
What is the primary purpose of the National e-Vidhan Application (NeVA)?
To digitize the legislative processes of state and union territory assemblies.
Explanation :
Delhi recently became the 28th legislature to join the National e-Vidhan Application (NeVA).
About National e-Vidhan Application (NeVA):
It is an online platform designed to digitize the legislative processes of all state and union territory assemblies.
It is a device-neutral and member-centric application created to equip them to handle diverse House Business smartly by putting entire information regarding member contact details, rules of procedure, list of business, notices, bulletins, bills, starred/unstarred questions and answers, papers laid, committee reports, etc.
The app allows all parliamentary members to access all house business information on their phones and tablets, enabling better handling of legislative tasks.
The app allows Ministers and Members to manage all the parliamentary work, like access to house proceedings, replies to questions, etc, through the App.
NeVA helps the government departments to manage operations by creating an inclusive digital department.
Additionally, NeVA assists the Chair of the House in conducting proceedings smoothly while enabling members to fulfill their responsibilities efficiently.
It is being hosted by Meghraj National Cloud, ensuring a secure, disaster-proof, reliable functioning for all legislatures.
The following stakeholders can use the application for different purposes:
The members of the Houses across the country
The Ministers of the concerned Government Ministries/Departments
The Assembly/House Secretariat Staff
The Government department staff
The reporters/media
The citizens/public at large for accessing information,etc.
The following services are provided through NeVA platform to cater to the requirements of the various users:-
List of Business
Papers to be Laid
Bills: for Introduction, Consideration & Passing
Committee Reports
Questions and Answers
Bulletins Part: I & II
Synopsis of Proceedings
Digital Library
Notices
Members Directory
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2114104
Consider the following statements regarding the Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA):
- It is the primary permanent international forum for governments to discuss, negotiate and decide on matters specifically relevant to genetic resources for food and agriculture (GRFA).
- India is not a member of the CGRFA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Parties to the Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture recently gathered in Rome for their 20th meeting (CGRFA-20).
About Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture:
It was initially established by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) in 1983 to address plant genetic resources (PGR).
It became the primary permanent international forum for governments to discuss, negotiate, and decide on matters specifically relevant to genetic resources for food and agriculture (GRFA).
Over time, the mandate of the Commission expanded, and now it deals with all sectors of GRFA – plant, animal, forest, aquatic, and microbial and invertebrate genetic resources, covering the vast scope of biodiversity for food and agriculture.
The Commission also considers a number of cross-cutting topics, including food security, nutrition and human health, mitigation of and adaptation to climate change, access to genetic resources and benefit sharing (ABS), and digital sequence information (DSI) on GRFA and biotechnologies for the characterization, sustainable use, and conservation of GRFA.
Member:
It has 179 countries as its members.
India is also a member of this commission.
The work of the Commission on Animal Genetic Resources (AnGR) initiated in 1997 resulted in the preparation of the first-ever Report on the State of the World’s AnGR in 2007 and led to the negotiation and adoption of the Global Plan of Action for AnGR (GPA), also in 2007.
Some of the Commission’s landmark achievements include: the International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (ITPGRFA).
It was adopted by the Thirty-First Session of the Conference of the FAO of the United Nations on 3 November 2001. The Treaty aims at:
Recognizing the enormous contribution of farmers to the diversity of crops that feed the world.
Establishing a global system to provide farmers, plant breeders, and scientists with access to plant genetic materials.
Ensuring that recipients share benefits they derive from the use of these genetic materials with the countries where they have originated.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/agriculture/countries-to-discuss-conservation-of-genetic-resources-for-food-agriculture-at-cgrfa20
What is the name of the strait that separates the South Island from the North Island of New Zealand?
Cook Strait
Explanation :
A strong 6.7 magnitude earthquake struck off New Zealand’s South Island recently.
About South Island:
It is the larger and southernmost of the two principal islands of New Zealand, in the southwestern Pacific Ocean.
It is separated from North Island to the north by Cook Strait and from Stewart Island to the south by Foveaux Strait.
Mountainous terrain occupies almost three-quarters of South Island, with a central mountain chain, the Southern Alps, trending southwest to northeast and culminating at Mount Cook (3,754 metres).
The Southern Alps separate the narrow coastal strip of the Westland Plain (west) from the broad Canterbury Plains (east).
Fiordland National Park in the southwest is a distinctive area with its numerous coastal fjords (inlets) and high lakes.
The park is part of the Te Wāhipounamu (South West New Zealand) area of protected wilderness along the west side of the island that was designated a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1990.
Lakes: Includes Lake Tekapo, Lake Wakatipu, and Lake Pukaki.
It has several large urban areas—including Christchurch, Dunedin, and Invercargill.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/magnitude-67-quake-shakes-new-zealands-south-island/article69371653.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Gold Monetisation Scheme (GMS):
- Under the scheme, individuals and institutions can deposit their idle gold with banks and earn interest on it.
- Upon maturity, depositors have the option to redeem their gold in its original form, such as jewellery, bars or coins.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Government of India has discontinued Medium-Term and Long-Term Government Deposits (MLTGD) under the Gold Monetisation Scheme (GMS) from March 26, 2025.
What is the Gold Monetisation Scheme?
Launched: November 2015, as an improved version of the existing Gold Deposit Scheme (GDS) and Gold Metal Loan (GML) Scheme.
Allows individuals, institutions, and even government entities to deposit idle gold in banks and earn interest instead of storing it in lockers.
Depositors can redeem the gold deposit in cash, gold bars, or coins upon maturity, but not in the same form (jewellery, bars, or coins).
Objective:
To mobilize idle gold held by households and institutions.
To bring gold into the formal economy and reduce gold imports, thereby helping reduce the Current Account Deficit (CAD).
Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which Indian state?
Karnataka
Explanation :
Karnataka Forest Department to ‘soft release’ captured jumbos into Bhadra sanctuary to mitigate human-elephant conflict in Hassan, Chikkamagaluru and Kodagu.
About Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary (Bhadra Tiger Reserve)
Location: Spread across the Chikkamagaluru and Shivamogga districts of Karnataka. Named after the Bhadra River, which flows through the sanctuary.
Designation:
Declared a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1951.
Became a Project Tiger Reserve in 1998.
First tiger reserve in India to complete a village relocation program by 2002.
Size & Terrain:
Core area: 500.16 sq. km.
Buffer zone: 571.84 sq. km.
Hills and valleys include the Mullayanagiri (the highest peak in Karnataka), Baba Budangiri, and Muthodi ranges.
Flora
Types of Forests:
Southern Moist Mixed Deciduous Forests: Dominated by Teak, Terminalia, and Lagerstroemia species.
Dry Deciduous Forests: Includes Pterocarpus (Honne), Grewia (Tadasalu), and Bamboo species.
Shola Forests: Home to Cinnamon, Mimusops, and Strobilanthes species (Neelakurinji).
Fauna
Mammals: Tigers, leopards, dholes (wild dogs), gaurs, sambar deer, barking deer, elephants.
Birds: Over 250 species, including Grey Junglefowl, Malabar Parakeet, Hill Myna, Malabar Trogon, and Hornbills.
Reptiles: King Cobra, Russell’s Viper, Indian Monitor Lizard, and Marsh Crocodiles.
Butterflies: Yamfly, Baronet, Crimson Rose, Southern Birdwing, and Great Orange Tip.
How Will the Soft-Release Work?
Enclosure Setup: A 20 sq. km enclosure will be created using railway barricades.
The site is carefully selected based on water availability, forage, road connectivity, and minimal human activity.
Monitoring Phase: Elephants will be kept in the enclosure for a few months under veterinary supervision.
Medical assistance (e.g., medicine darts) will be provided when needed.
No human interaction will occur during this period to help elephants readjust to the wild.
Final Release: Once the elephants adapt, the gate to the forest will be opened, allowing them to join the existing population in Bhadra.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: Karnataka Forest Department to ‘soft release’ captured jumbos into Bhadra sanctuary to mitigate human-elephant conflict in Hassan, Chikkamagaluru and Kodagu - The Hindu.
Which one of the following launched Parker Solar Probe to study the Sun?
NASA
Explanation :
Parker Solar Probe: Mission to ‘Touch’ the Sun.
Why in the News?
On March 22, 2025, NASA’s Parker Solar Probe approached the Sun more closely, reaching 6 million km from its surface.
The probe, launched in 2018, has set the record for being the closest spacecraft to the Sun and will continue making 24 close approaches to study solar activity.
About the Parker Solar Probe
Launched by NASA on August 12, 2018, from Cape Canaveral, Florida.
Designed to study the Sun’s corona, solar wind, and magnetic field to understand space weather and its effects on Earth.
Moves in a highly elliptical orbit, using Venus’ gravity assist to spiral gradually closer to the Sun.
Speed: The fastest human-made object, reaching 692,000 km/hr.
Closest approach: It will come as close as 3.83 million miles (6.16 million km) from the Sun’s surface, about 7 times closer than any previous spacecraft.
Scientific Breakthroughs from Parker Solar Probe
Discovery of “Magnetic Switchbacks”: The probe found sudden reversals in the solar wind’s magnetic field, which might help explain how the solar wind accelerates.
Detection of Dust-Free Zones: Contrary to earlier beliefs, the probe found dust-free pockets near the Sun, altering our understanding of solar system dust distribution.
First ‘Touch’ of the Sun (2021): In April 2021, the probe entered the Sun’s corona, crossing the Alfvén surface—a boundary beyond which solar wind escapes into space.
Consider the following statements regarding the Boilers Bill, 2024:
- It repeals the Boilers Act, 1923 and updates regulations to align with modern safety standards.
- It increases criminal penalties for all offences related to boiler regulation to ensure stricter compliance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Boilers Bill, 2024 introduced in Lok Sabha.
Background of the Boilers Bill, 2024
The Boilers Act of 1923 was enacted to regulate the manufacturing, installation, operation, alteration, and repair of steam boilers to ensure safety.
The Act was last amended in 2007 to allow independent third-party inspections, but further reforms were needed.
The Boilers Bill, 2024, aligns with the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023, which focuses on decriminalization and ease of doing business (EoDB).
The Bill is redrafted with modern drafting practices to improve clarity and efficiency.
Key Features of the Boilers Bill, 2024
Replacement of Boilers Act, 1923: The new Bill repeals the century-old Boilers Act, 1923, aligning regulations with modern safety standards.
Ease of Doing Business (EoDB): The Bill enhances business operations by decriminalizing 3 out of 7 offences, reducing legal hurdles.
Categorisation of Offences: 4 major offences (risking life and property): Criminal penalties retained.
Other offences: These are converted into fiscal penalties, handled by an executive mechanism instead of courts.
Modern drafting practices: The Bill is simplified and structured into six chapters, consolidating similar provisions for clarity and accessibility.
Enhanced safety measures: Ensure worker safety inside boilers. Mandates boiler repairs by qualified and competent persons.
Redundant provisions: Outdated sections from pre-constitutional times omitted. New definitions and amendments were added for better clarity.
Jan Vishwas Act, 2023 alignment: Follows the decriminalisation reforms under the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023.
Central & State Government roles: Clearly define powers and functions of the Central Government, State Governments, and Central Boilers Board to avoid confusion.
About Boilers
A boiler is a vessel where steam is generated under pressure.
As of 2024, India has around 40 lakh steam boilers used in industries like power, manufacturing, and chemicals.
Boilers fall under the Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution, meaning both the Centre and States can legislate on them.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
The Euclid Space Telescope, recently seen in the news, has been launched to study which of the following?
Dark matter and dark energy
Explanation :
Galaxies in Different Shapes Captured by Euclid.
About the Euclid Space Telescope
Named After: Euclid of Alexandria, an ancient Greek mathematician known for his contributions to geometry.
Part of: ESA’s Cosmic Vision Programme, which aims to explore the origin, components, and fundamental laws governing the universe.
Launch Vehicle: SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket.
Operational Lifespan: Minimum 6 years.
Orbit: 1.5 million km above Earth, at the Lagrange Point 2 (L2), a stable gravitational point in space.
Size: 4.7 meters tall and 3.7 meters in diameter.
Image Quality: Four times sharper than ground-based telescopes.
Scientific Objectives
Investigate why the universe is expanding at an accelerating rate (a phenomenon attributed to dark energy).
Study the distribution of dark matter by observing how galaxies and cosmic structures have evolved over billions of years.
Map the large-scale structure of the universe in 3D to understand the effects of gravity and cosmic expansion.
Scientific Instruments
Visible-Wavelength Camera (VISible Instrument - VIS): It captures high-resolution images of galaxies.
Helps detect tiny distortions in galaxy shapes caused by gravitational lensing—a method used to study dark matter.
Near-Infrared Spectrometer and Photometer (NISP): It measures how fast galaxies are moving apart, providing insight into the influence of dark energy over time.
Developed with NASA’s contribution, including sensor-chip electronics and detectors.
Key Observations and Data Release
The Deep Field South region, observed for one week, contains 26 million galaxies, some over 10.5 billion light-years away.
The telescope aims to survey 1.5 billion galaxies over its six-year mission, covering a third of the sky.
The first cosmology data release is scheduled for October 2026.
Consider the following statements regarding the Baalpan Ki Kavita Initiative, recently seen in the news:
- It aims to create a comprehensive compendium of nursery rhymes and poems in all Bhartiya Bhashas (Indian languages) as well as in English.
- It was launched by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Union Education Ministry recently launched the “Baalpan ki Kavita” initiative.
About Baalpan Ki Kavita Initiative:
It was launched by the Ministry of Education to revive and restore traditional Indian rhymes and poems for young children.
It aims to create a comprehensive compendium of nursery rhymes and poems in all Bhartiya Bhashas (Indian languages) as well as in English.
The objective is to provide young learners with joyful and contextually relevant learning material, helping them better connect with their cultural roots while making foundational education more engaging.
“The ministry, in collaboration with MyGov, is inviting contributions to the initiative.
The participants of the contest can send existing poems, rhymes popular in folklore or newly composed joyful poems and rhymes under three categories.
The categories are pre-primary (ages three to six), Grade 1 (ages six and seven) and Grade 2 (ages seven and eight).
Entries are invited in all Indian languages and English, and can include regional rhymes or poems that hold cultural significance in Indian context.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://theprint.in/india/education-ministry-launches-baalpan-ki-kavita-
Where are the Senkaku Islands located?
East China Sea
Explanation :
Japan recently voiced serious concerns over a prolonged incursion by Chinese Coast Guard ships near the disputed Senkaku Islands in the East China Sea, marking one of the longest intrusions into Japan’s territorial waters.
About Senkaku Islands:
The Senkaku Islands are an uninhabited group of islands situated in the East China Sea, approximately 90 nautical miles north from the Yaeyama Islands in Japan’s Okinawa Prefecture and 120 nautical miles northeast of the island of Taiwan.
They are also known as the Diaoyu Islands in mainland China, the Diaoyutai Islands in Taiwan, and the Pinnacle Islands by other observers.
The islands comprise Uotsuri Island, Kuba Island, Taisho Island (also called Kumeakashima Island), Kitakojima Island, Minamikojima Island, Tobise Island, Okinokitaiwa Island and Okinominamiiwa Island.
The total land area of all the islands is roughly 6.3 square kilometers, with the largest, Uotsuri Island, being some 3.6 square kilometers in size.
The Senkakus consist of conglomerate sandstone (alternate layers of sandstone and conglomerate in some parts), tuff, andesite, andesitic lava, coral outcroppings elevated above sea level during the Holocene era, and other rocky material.
The surrounding area is highly volcanic and features faults associated with this volcanic activity, and this affects land formation.
Dispute: The islands are the focus of a territorial dispute between Japan and China and between Japan and Taiwan.
Administration:
They were never administered by any other country before Japan incorporated them into its territory in 1895.
Currently, Japan administers and controls the Senkaku Islands as part of the city of Ishigaki in Okinawa Prefecture.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:
https://ddnews.gov.in/en/japan-raises-concern-over-longest-chinese-intrusion-near-senkaku-islands/
‘Gounsa Temple’ is a 1,300-year-old Buddhist temple located in which country?
South Korea
Explanation :
Unprecedented wildfires ripping through South Korea’s southern regions recently destroyed large parts of the Gounsa Temple complex, burning down two buildings that had been designated national treasures.
About Gounsa Temple:
Gounsa Temple, which means “Solitary Cloud Temple”, is a 1,300-year-old Buddhist temple located in South Korea.
It is nestled at the foot of Deungun Mountain in the southeastern town of Uiseong.
It was reportedly built in the 7th century during the Shilla dynasty that ruled the area and other parts of the Korean Peninsula at the time.
While it doesn’t house buildings constructed in the ancient period, it is home to several famous cultural heritages built later.
Unlike so many other major temples on the Korean peninsula, Gounsa Temple avoided being destroyed by the invading Japanese at this time.
After the Imjin War, Gounsa Temple underwent a large-scale reconstruction project that started in 1695.
It is also the Headquarters Temple of the 16th District of the Jogye-jong Order (the largest Buddhist Order in Korea).
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://apnews.com/article/south-korea-wildfires-buddhist-temple-667180ab209a1b2fce58895db49b47af
Consider the following statements regarding the Vertically-Launched Short-Range Surface-to-Air Missile (VLSRSAM), recently seen in the news:
- It was indigenously developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
- It has a range of around 200km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India successfully flight tested the vertically launched short range surface to air missile (VL-SRSAM) from a defence test facility off the Odisha coast recently.
About Vertically-Launched Short-Range Surface-to-Air Missile (VLSRSAM):
It is an indigenously developed Short-Range Surface-to-Air Missile (SRSAM).
It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
It is a quick reaction missile capable of neutralising various aerial threats at close ranges, including sea-skimming targets.
Initially designed for the Indian Navy for a strike range of 40 km, it can now attack targets up to 80 km.
The missile is now being developed for use by the Indian Air Force to protect its air bases.
Features:
Having a diameter of 178 mm and a wingspan of 508 mm, the missile is 3.93 metres long.
It weighs around 170 kg and uses solid propellant.
With a maximum speed of Mach 4.5, the weapon system can reach an altitude of 16 km.
During the mid-course flight, the missile uses a fibre-optic gyroscope-based inertial guidance mechanism, while the terminal phase uses active radar homing.
It comes as an integrated missile and weapon control system (WCS) with a capability to hold multiple missiles in a twin quad-pack canister configuration.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2025/Mar/26/india-successfully-tests-vertically-launched-short-range-missile-with-low-altitude-capability
Bandipur Tiger Reserve lies in which state?
Karnataka
Explanation :
Karnataka recently refused Kerala’s request to increase the number of state-owned buses through Bandipur Tiger Reserve at night, maintaining the status quo of four buses each.
About Bandipur Tiger Reserve.
It is situated in the Mysore and Chamarajanagar revenue districts of southern Karnataka.
It is located at the tri-junction area of the States of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
Geographically, it is an “ecological confluence” of the Western and Eastern Ghats.
It was once a hunting ground for the rulers of the neighbouring kingdom of Mysore.
It is part of the larger Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, which is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
BTR is surrounded by:
Nagarahole Tiger Reserve (Tamil Nadu) in the North West (Kabini Reservoir separates the two).
Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (Tamil Nadu) in the South.
Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) in the South West.
Rivers: It is surrounded by River Kabini in its north and River Moyar in its south.
Climate: Bandipur has a typical tropical climate with distinct wet and dry seasons.
Flora:
It comprises diverse vegetation of dry deciduous to tropical mixed deciduous.
It includes rosewood, Indian kino tree, sandalwood, Indian laurel, clumping bamboo and giant clumping bamboo etc.
Fauna:
It is a shelter for the largest population of wild Asian elephants in South Asia.
It comprises other mammals such as Bengal tiger, gaur, sloth bear, golden jackal, dhole and four-horned antelope etc.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/magnitude-67-quake-shakes-new-zealands-south-island/article69371653.ece
Consider the following:
- Radioactive decay
- Supernova explosions
- Nuclear fusion in the Sun
- Cosmic ray interactions
How many of the above are sources of Neutrinos?
All four
Explanation :
The AMoRE experiment in South Korea has reported no evidence of neutrinoless double beta decay (0νββ).
About Neutrinos
Neutrinos are nearly massless, electrically neutral subatomic particles that interact extremely weakly with matter.
They belong to the lepton family, which is not subject to the strong nuclear force.
Sources: Neutrinos are produced in radioactive decay, supernova explosions, nuclear fusion in the Sun, and cosmic ray interactions.
Abundance: They are the second most abundant subatomic particle in the universe after photons. Every second, 100 trillion neutrinos pass harmlessly through the human body.
Challenges in Detection: Due to their weak interaction with matter, detecting neutrinos requires highly sensitive detectors and long observation times.
Neutrinos and the Majorana Hypothesis
Majorana Particles: Most subatomic particles have distinct anti-particles (e.g., the electron’s anti-particle is a positron). However, Majorana particles are their own anti-particles.
If neutrinos are found to be Majorana particles, it would have profound implications for particle physics and could explain why the universe has more matter than antimatter.
What is Double Beta Decay?
Beta Decay: A process where an unstable atomic nucleus converts a neutron into a proton, emitting an electron and an anti-neutrino.
Double Beta Decay (2νββ): A rare nuclear decay where two neutrons transform into two protons, emitting two electrons and two anti-neutrinos. This process has been observed in certain isotopes.
Neutrinoless Double Beta Decay (0νββ): A hypothetical decay where only two electrons are emitted, and no neutrinos.
This could only happen if neutrinos and anti-neutrinos are the same particle (Majorana particles).
If 0νββ is observed, it could also help determine the absolute mass of neutrinos.
AMoRE Experiment and Its Findings
Location: South Korea.
Method: The experiment observed 3 kg of molybdenum-100 (Mo-100), a nucleus known to undergo double beta decay.
Temperature: The detectors were cooled to fractions above absolute zero to detect tiny energy changes.
Result: No evidence of 0νββ was found, but scientists set an upper limit:
If 0νββ exists, Mo-100 nuclei would decay through this process in at least 10²⁴ years (a trillion times longer than the age of the universe).
The neutrino mass is estimated to be below 0.22-0.65 billionths of a proton’s mass, but not necessarily zero.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/new-finding-forces-search-for-ultra-rare-decay-process-to-continue/article69281791.ece
GSAT-18 is primarily used for:
communication services
Explanation :
GSAT-18 Satellite and Economic Concerns Raised by PAC.
Why in the News?
The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) has raised concerns over the economic viability of GSAT-18 due to the underutilisation of six transponders until 2027.
The committee has recommended that the Department of Space should exercise greater financial prudence in planning satellite projects involving public funds.
The report highlighted a revenue loss of ₹117 crore due to the idle transponders.
About GSAT-18
GSAT-18 is a communication satellite launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) on October 5, 2016.
Launch Vehicle: Heavy-duty Ariane-5 VA-231 rocket from Kourou, French Guiana.
Weight: 3,404 kg at liftoff.
Mission Life: 15 years (until 2032).
Orbit: Injected into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).
Satellite Control: Managed by ISRO’s Master Control Facility (MCF) in Hassan, Karnataka.
Key Features of GSAT-18
Transponders: 48 communication transponders across Upper Extended C-band, Normal C-band, and Ku-band
Services: Provides television, telecommunication, VSAT, and digital satellite news gathering
Fleet enhancement: It strengthens ISRO’s operational fleet of 14 telecommunication satellites
Backup role: It ensures continuity of communication services by replacing ageing satellites
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: GSAT-18 cost: PAC tells space dept to be economically prudent | India News - The Indian Express
What is the impact of Section 44(3) of the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023, on the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005?
Removes the “larger public interest” clause for disclosing personal data
Explanation :
Concerns Over Section 44(3) of the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act.
Why in the News?
Section 44(3) of the DPDP Act, 2023 has sparked controversy as activists claim it weakens the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005.
Congress leader Jairam Ramesh has urged the Minister of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) to repeal this provision, arguing that it would “destroy” the RTI Act.
RTI activists, including Aruna Roy, Nikhil Dey, Prashant Bhushan, and Anjali Bhardwaj, have opposed the amendment, warning that it could restrict access to critical public information.
What is Section 44(3) of the DPDP Act?
The DPDP Act, 2023, received Presidential assent on August 11, 2023 and aims to regulate digital personal data processing while balancing individual privacy rights with lawful data processing needs.
Section 44(3) amends Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act, 2005, expanding the scope of denying information under the pretext of protecting personal data.
The Change:
Previous Section 8(1)(j) (RTI Act): Allowed exemption from disclosure only if the personal information was unrelated to public interest or caused unwarranted privacy invasion, unless larger public interest justified disclosure.
Revised Section 8(1)(j) (DPDP Act): This removes the “larger public interest” clause and broadly exempts all personal information from disclosure under RTI.
How Could This Affect RTI Requests?
Before DPDP Act (RTI Act - Section 8(1)(j))
After DPDP Act (Section 44(3))
Personal information could be disclosed if public interest justified it.
All personal information is exempt from disclosure, regardless of public interest.
Example: A citizen could request details of public officials’ assets if corruption was suspected.
Example: Such a request can now be denied, citing personal data protection.
The balance between privacy and transparency was determined case-by-case.
Blanket exemption for personal data, even if it concerns public officials.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: Why activists are worried about Section 44(3) of new data protection law | Explained News - The Indian Express
What is the primary objective of the PM SHRI Scheme?
Upgrading schools into model schools
Explanation :
Parliamentary Panel Urges Education Ministry to Release Pending Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) Funds.
Why in the News?
A Parliamentary Standing Committee has recommended the immediate release of over ₹4,000 crore in Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) funds to Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and West Bengal.
The funds have been withheld because these states have not signed the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for the PM SHRI scheme.
The report argues that SSA predates PM SHRI and is essential for implementing the Right to Education (RTE) Act.
What is the PM SHRI Scheme?
PM SHRI (PM Schools for Rising India) is a centrally sponsored scheme launched under NEP 2020.
Objective: To establish 14,500 model schools focused on:
Holistic education (experiential and inquiry-driven learning).
21st-century skill development.
Eco-friendly infrastructure (green buildings, water conservation, waste recycling).
Competency-based assessment instead of rote learning.
Key Features of PM SHRI Schools
Enhanced infrastructure: Labs, libraries, art rooms.
Integration of technology: Smart classrooms and digital learning tools.
Holistic learning approach: Play-based learning in the early years, with flexible teaching methods.
School Quality Assessment Framework (SQAF): Regular evaluation to maintain high standards.
Selection through Challenge Mode: Schools apply to become PM SHRI schools based on performance.
Budget: ₹27,360 crore for 5 years (2022-23 to 2026-27), with ₹18,128 crore as central share.
What is Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)?
SSA is a centrally sponsored scheme aimed at ensuring universal access to quality education from pre-primary to higher secondary levels.
It supports States in implementing the Right to Education (RTE) Act, which guarantees free and compulsory education for children aged 6-14 years.
The scheme focuses on:
School infrastructure development.
Teacher training and recruitment.
Learning outcome improvements.
Inclusive education for disadvantaged groups.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/release-samagra-shiksha-dues-to-states-parliamentary-panel-tells-education-ministry/article69378334.ece
Which of the following is a key upgrade in the Tejas Mk1A fighter jet?
Advanced Self-Protection Jammer Pod
Explanation :
Tejas LCA Mk1A: GE Aerospace Begins Engine Deliveries for Delayed Programme.
Why in the News?
GE Aerospace has begun delivering F404-IN20 jet engines to Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) for the Tejas LCA Mk1A fighter jets after a delay.
The first engine was shipped from GE’s facility on March 26, 2025, and is expected to arrive in India in April.
HAL aims to deliver 12 Tejas Mk1A jets in 2025, with production ramping up to 24 jets per year.
The Indian Air Force (IAF) currently operates 31 fighter squadrons, far below the sanctioned 42.5 squadrons, highlighting the urgency of these deliveries.
About Tejas LCA Mk1A
Tejas LCA Mk1A is an upgraded variant of India’s indigenous Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas, developed by HAL.
It features over 40 improvements over the Mk1 variant, enhancing its combat capabilities, survivability, and operational efficiency.
Key Upgrades in Tejas Mk1A
Advanced Avionics: Equipped with Active Electronically Scanned Array (AESA) radars:
Israeli EL/M-2052 AESA Radar.
Indigenously developed Uttam AESA Radar.
Enhanced Electronic Warfare Systems: It features a Unified Electronic Warfare Suite (UEWS) and also includes an Advanced Self-Protection Jammer Pod for improved survivability.
Digital Fly-by-Wire System: Upgraded Flight Control Computer (DFCC Mk1A) for better maneuverability and stability.
Weapons Capability: Nine hardpoints capable of carrying:
Beyond Visual Range (BVR) missiles.
Air-to-Air and Air-to-Ground missiles.
Advanced Short Range Air-to-Air Missiles (ASRAAM).
Operational Efficiency: Reduced weight and improved maintainability, allowing for faster turnaround times during missions.
About the F404-IN20 Jet Engine
The F404-IN20 engine, manufactured by GE Aerospace, powers the Tejas LCA Mk1A.
It was originally selected in 2004 and is a high-thrust variant of the F404 engine family.
Features higher-flow fans, single-crystal turbine blades, and specialized components tailored for the Indian Air Force (IAF).
The engine helped Tejas achieve Mach 1.1 during its first test flight in 2008.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: After delays, GE Aerospace announces delivery of jet engines for Tejas LCA-Mk1A - The Hindu
According to Article 18 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, what rights are included under religious freedom?
All of the above
Explanation :
The US Commission on International Religious Freedom recently recommended targeted sanctions against India’s external spy agency R&AW over alleged involvement in assassination plots against Sikh separatists.
About US Commission on International Religious Freedom (USCIRF):
It is a U.S. federal government commission created by the International Religious Freedom Act of 1998.
Functions: USCIRF reviews the facts and circumstances of violations of religious freedom internationally and makes policy recommendations to the President, the Secretary of State, and Congress.
USCIRF’s nine Commissioners are appointed by either the President or Congressional leaders of each political party.
Their work is supported by a professional, nonpartisan staff.
USCIRF issues an annual report that assesses the US government’s implementation of IRFA, highlights “Countries of Particular Concern” engaging in severe religious freedom violations, documents the conditions of religious freedom in many countries, and provides policy recommendations.
It uses international standards to monitor religious freedom violations globally.
Article 18 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights affirms that:
“Everyone has the right to freedom of thought, conscience, and religion; this right includes freedom to change his religion or belief, and freedom, either alone or in community with others and in public or private, to manifest his religion or belief in teaching, practice, worship, and observance.”
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/us-religious-freedom-panel-recommends-sanctions-against-india-s-raw-over-alleged-assassination-plots-report-101742963356331.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space Applications and Geo-informatics (BISAG-N):
- It is an autonomous scientific society under the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY).
- It provides specialized services and solutions in implementing map-based Geographic Information Systems (GIS).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India recently signed an agreement with the Bhaskaracharya National Institute of Space Application and Geo-informatics (BISAG-N) to leverage advanced technologies in geographic information systems and remote sensing.
About Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space Applications and Geo-informatics (BISAG-N):
It is an autonomous scientific society registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, under the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY), Government of India.
Location: Gandhinagar, Gujarat
Objective: To undertake technology development & management, research & development, facilitate national and international cooperation, capacity building, and support technology transfer & entrepreneurship development in the area of geospatial technology.
BISAG-N has three main domain areas: satellite communication, geo-informatics and geo-spatial technology.
BISAG-N provides specialized services and solutions in implementing map-based Geographic Information Systems (GIS).
BISAG-N undertakes all services for the entire process of implementing an enterprise level GIS system.
These services include GIS database design and development, map creation/updation and finishing, data migration/conversion and format translation, software development and customization, systems integration, and technical consulting.
BISAG-N also provides complete GIS solutions, which bundle hardware and software with GIS systems development services.
BISAG-N offers comprehensive GIS/Photogrammetric solutions over large geographical areas.
These include solutions and services in the areas of mapping, cartography, imaging, photogrammetry, and utility/environment resource management. BISAG-N provides solutions based on Remote Sensing, using multispectral data, for specific applications like agricultural crop monitoring, watershed management, forest fire mapping, etc.
The Institute works in close coordination with GoI Ministries and State Government departments/agencies and has thus emerged as a National level agency to use satellite communication and Space & Geo-spatial technologies for the planning and development activities in various sectors of the Government.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:
https://www.business-standard.com/pti-stories/national/cag-bisag-n-sign-pact-to-leverage-technologies-in-remote-sensing-125032601120_1.html
Which among the following best describes ‘Channa nachi’, recently seen in the news?
A newly discovered species of snakehead fish.
Explanation :
A new species of snakehead, named Channa nachi, was recently discovered in Meghalaya.
About Channa nachi:
It is a new species of snakehead fish.
It was found in a shallow, slow-flowing stream that feeds into the Simsang River system near Chokpot village, Meghalaya, a waterbody with a substrate of sand, leaf litter, and pebbles—an ideal habitat for lesser-known aquatic species.
The stream is also home to other freshwater fish species such as Schistura reticulofasciata, Dario kajal, Pseudolaguvia sp., and Barilius bendelisis, but Channa nachi stands out for its striking appearance and distinct characteristics.
Features:
Medium-sized snakehead species with an attractive bicolor body.
A slender body with a unique creamish-yellow to greyish-blue coloration.
Pale-blue marbling on the ventral area.
10–12 pale brown saddles on the dorsal half.
No spots or blotches.
No transverse markings on the caudal fin.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:
https://hubnetwork.in/meghalaya-fish-hobbyists-find-turns-out-to-be-a-new-species-of-snakehead/
What type of military exercise is Exercise Prachand Prahar, recently seen in the news?
A tri-service integrated multi-domain warfare exercise
Explanation :
The Indian Armed Forces recently conducted a multi-domain exercise, Prachand Prahar, in Arunachal Pradesh.
About Exercise Prachand Prahar:
It is a tri-service integrated multi-domain warfare exercise conducted in the high-altitude terrain of Arunachal Pradesh.
It was conducted ‘deep’ in the high-altitude terrain of Arunachal Pradesh in the eastern sector of the 3,488-km long Line of Actual Control (LAC).
It was carried out under the aegis of the Eastern Army Command.
The exercise involved the Army, IAF and the other combat elements in a synergised combat drill designed to simulate future warfare.
It commenced with the deployment of advanced surveillance resources of all three services, including long-range surveillance aircraft of the IAF and the maritime domain awareness aircraft of the Indian Navy, helicopters, and Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), along with space resources and the Indian Army’s elite special forces to create seamless domain awareness and detect simulated targets.
Once identified, these targets were swiftly destroyed through the synchronised joint firepower of fighter aircrafts, long-range rocket systems, medium artillery, armed helicopters, swarm drones, loitering munitions, and kamikaze drones in an electronically contested environment.
The ‘Exercise Prachand Prahar’ validated integrated planning, command and control, as well as seamless execution of surveillance and firepower platforms across the three services, covering the entire spectrum of conflict.
This exercise is in continuation with ‘Exercise Poorvi Prahar’ held in November 2024, which had focused on the integrated application of aviation assets.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/indian-armed-forces-conduct-tri-services-exercise-prachand-prahar/articleshow/119586911.cms
Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which state?
Odisha
Explanation :
In a first-of-its-kind initiative, Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary hosted the ‘Indian Bison Fest’ to spread the word about its conservation needs and ecological significance.
About Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary:
Location: It is situated in the Bargarh district of Odisha near the Hirakud dam (Mahanadi River).
It finds a special mention because of noted freedom fighter Veer Surendra Sai.
During his rebellion against the British, his base at ‘Barapathara” was located within the sanctuary.
It was declared a wildlife sanctuary in 1985.
Vegetation: Dry deciduous mixed forests.
Flora: Major trees found here are Sal, Asana, Bija, Aanla, Dhaura etc.
Fauna: A huge variety of wild animals reside in the dense forest of the sanctuary, such as Tiger, Sloth Bear, Leopard, Hyena, Spotted Deer, Antelopes, Sambar, Gaur, Nilgai, Bison, Langur Monkeys etc.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/odisha/2025/Mar/27/first-indian-bison-fest-pledges-to-establish-odishas-debrigarh-as-top-breeding-habitat
Which of the following statements regarding the Free Movement Regime (FMR) between India and Myanmar is/are correct?
- The FMR allows unrestricted movement within 16 km on either side of the Indo-Myanmar border.
- Only Indian citizens residing near the border are eligible to use the FMR.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Why in the News?
In February 2024, Union Home Minister Amit Shah announced that the Free Movement Regime (FMR) along the India-Myanmar border would be scrapped.
The decision was reportedly influenced by former Manipur CM N. Biren Singh, who blamed unregulated cross-border movement for fueling ethnic conflict in Manipur.
However, Mizoram and Nagaland opposed the decision, and no official notification or bilateral agreement has been made yet.
The FMR was introduced in 1968 and initially allowed movement up to 40 km, later reduced to 16 km in 2004, with additional regulations enforced in 2016.
About Free Movement Regime (FMR)
The FMR is a bilateral arrangement between India and Myanmar that permits unrestricted movement within 16 km on either side of the 1,643 km Indo-Myanmar border (IMB).
Eligibility: Any member of the hill tribes (whether an Indian or Myanmar citizen) can cross the border with a border pass valid for one year and stay for up to two weeks per visit.
Objective:
To maintain historical, cultural, and social ties between the trans-border communities.
To boost local trade and facilitate familial visits.
To serve as a unique case of cross-border cooperation under India’s Act East Policy.
Implementation:
Introduced formally in 2018, although movement existed informally for centuries.
Inspired by India’s Act East Policy, which aims to strengthen ties with Southeast Asian nations.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/should-the-free-movement-regime-between-india-and-myanmar-remain/article69383147.ece
The Global Astrometric Interferometer for Astrophysics (GAIA) was launched by:
ESA
Explanation :
On March 27, 2025, ESA confirmed that the spacecraft was “passivated” (drained of energy) and placed into a safe “retirement orbit” around the Sun.
About the Gaia Mission
Full Name: Originally named Global Astrometric Interferometer for Astrophysics (GAIA), later simplified to Gaia.
Launched in 2013 by the European Space Agency (ESA), it aimed to create the most precise 3D map of the Milky Way through astrometry (measuring positions and movements of celestial bodies).
Position: Placed at Lagrange Point 2 (L2), 1.5 million km from Earth (behind Earth when viewed from the Sun), ensuring an unobstructed cosmic view.
Scientific Instruments:
Twin Telescopes: Captured light from different directions.
Digital Camera: Nearly 1 billion pixels, the largest ever flown in space.
Three Key Instruments:
Astrometer: Measures precise locations of celestial bodies.
Photometer: Determines brightness and temperature of stars.
Spectrometer: Identifies chemical composition and motion of objects.
Key Discoveries of Gaia
Mapping the Milky Way in 3D: The First precise 3D map of the Milky Way galaxy also helped understand the shape of the galaxy, including:
The central bar and spiral arms.
A warped, wobbly disc, likely caused by past collisions with smaller galaxies.
Ripples in the galaxy from these collisions may have led to the formation of new stars, including the Sun.
Discovery of New Black Holes: A new class of black holes that are invisible and can only be detected by their gravitational effects.
Discovered one of the closest black holes to Earth.
Tracking asteroids and space threats: Gaia identified over 1,50,000 asteroids, tracking their orbits and potential threats to Earth.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/european-space-agency-retires-gaia-9909159/
The Lewis Glacier, which has significantly shrunk due to climate change, is located on:
Mount Kenya
Explanation :
Climate change is rapidly accelerating the melting of glaciers on Mount Kenya, Africa’s second-highest mountain after Kilimanjaro.
Why in the News?
The Lewis Glacier, once a prominent ice mass, has now shrunk significantly, with studies predicting Mount Kenya could become entirely ice-free by 2030.
A 2011 study from Austria’s University of Innsbruck reported that Lewis Glacier lost 90% of its volume between 1934 and 2010.
A 2023 satellite study found that only 4.2% of the ice observed in 1900 remains today.
About Mount Kenya
Location: Central Kenya, just south of the Equator.
Elevation: 5,199 meters (17,058 feet) at its highest peak (Batian).
UNESCO World Heritage Site: Designated in 1997 for its ecological and cultural significance.
Geological Origin: A long-extinct stratovolcano, heavily eroded over time.
Glaciers: Home to Lewis Glacier and Tyndall Glacier, among the last remaining tropical glaciers in Africa.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: Why activists are worried about Section 44(3) of new data protection law | Explained News - The Indian Express
The Nag Anti-Tank Missile System (NAMIS) has been developed by:
DRDO
Explanation :
Defence Ministry Signs ₹2,500 Crore Contracts for NAMIS and Light Vehicles.
About Nag Anti-Tank Missile System (NAMIS)
Developed By:
Defence Research and Development Laboratory (DRDL), DRDO
Production by Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL)
Key Features:
NAMIS is a tracked version of the Nag Anti-Tank Guided Missile (ATGM) mounted on a BMP-2 chassis.
Third-generation ‘fire-and-forget’ missile that locks onto targets using an Imaging Infrared (IIR) Seeker before launch.
Designed to destroy heavily armored enemy tanks, including those equipped with composite and reactive armor.
Night-strike capability for operations in low visibility conditions.
Attack Modes:
Top Attack Mode: Missile climbs after launch and dives onto the target from above.
Direct Attack Mode: The Missile travels at a lower altitude and directly hits the target.
Range: 500 meters to 4 km.
NAMICA (Nag Missile Carrier):
Based on Russian-origin BMP-II Infantry Fighting Vehicle.
Amphibious capability for mobility across varied terrains.
Other Versions of Nag ATGM:
Helina (Helicopter-Launched Version):
Successfully tested in 2018.
Developed for Rudra and Light Combat Helicopters (LCHs).
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: Defence Ministry signs contracts worth ₹2,500 crore for anti-tank missile systems, light vehicles - The Hindu
As of March 2024, which country became the latest member to join NATO?
Sweden
Explanation :
NATO Clarifies Statement on Missing U.S. Soldiers in Lithuania.
Why in the News?
NATO clarified its earlier statement regarding the status of four missing U.S. soldiers in Lithuania, emphasising that “the search is ongoing.”
Initial confusion arose when NATO Secretary-General Mark Rutte suggested that the soldiers had died. Still, later, NATO stated that Rutte was referring to unverified news reports rather than confirming their fate.
The soldiers were part of the U.S. Army’s 1st Brigade, 3rd Infantry Division, conducting training exercises near Pabradė, Lithuania, close to the Belarus border.
Their armored vehicle was found submerged in water, and recovery efforts are underway.
Geopolitical Context
Lithuania, Latvia, and Estonia are NATO members with tense relations with Russia and Belarus.
Russia’s invasion of Ukraine (2022) has further strained regional security dynamics, increasing military exercises and NATO presence in the Baltic region.
Belarus, a close ally of Russia, shares borders with Lithuania, Latvia, and Poland, making NATO operations in these areas strategically significant.
What is Coeliac Disease, recently seen in the news?
An inherited autoimmune disorder
Explanation :
AI could speed up the diagnosis of coeliac disease, according to recent research.
About Coeliac Disease:
It is an inherited autoimmune disorder.
Cause:
It is caused by an immune reaction to eating gluten.
Gluten is a protein found in foods containing wheat, barley, or rye.
If you have celiac disease, eating gluten triggers an immune response to the gluten protein in your small intestine.
Over time, this reaction damages your small intestine’s lining and prevents it from absorbing nutrients, a condition called malabsorption.
Symptoms:
The intestinal damage often causes symptoms such as diarrhea, fatigue, weight loss, bloating, or anemia.
It also can lead to serious complications if it is not managed or treated.
In children, malabsorption can affect growth and development in addition to gastrointestinal symptoms.
People with a first-degree relative with celiac disease (parent, child, sibling) have a 1 in 10 risk of developing celiac disease.
Celiac disease can develop at any age after people start consuming gluten.
It is estimated to affect 1 in 100 people worldwide.
Treatment:
There’s no definite cure for celiac disease.
But for most people, following a strict gluten-free diet can help manage symptoms and help the intestines heal.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
Perm Submarine, recently seen in the news, is developed by which country?
Russia
Explanation :
Russian President Vladimir Putin recently launched the Perm, a Project 885M Yasen-class nuclear-powered submarine, from Murmansk.
About Perm Submarine:
It is a fourth-generation nuclear-powered attack submarine belonging to the Yasen-M class (Project 885M).
Named after the city of Perm in the Urals, it is the sixth vessel in the Yasen/Yasen-M series and the first Russian nuclear submarine to be officially equipped with the 3M22 Zircon hypersonic cruise missile as a standard feature.
It is scheduled to enter service with the Russian Navy in 2026.
Features:
It is powered by a pressurized water-cooled nuclear reactor generating 200 megawatts (approximately 268,204 hp).
It can reach speeds of up to 31 knots underwater and 16 knots on the surface.
It has a 25–30-year core life, eliminating the need for mid-life refueling, and allows natural coolant circulation, contributing to lower acoustic signatures.
With a maximum diving depth of 600 meters and an operational depth of 520 meters, the Perm can remain submerged for up to 100 days.
Its overall length is 130 meters, with a beam of 13 meters and a draft of 9.4 meters, and it accommodates a crew of 64 members.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.firstpost.com/explainers/russia-nuclear-submarine-perm-zircon-missiles-launch-vladimir-putin-13875409.html
What is the primary purpose of the Silvaguard Drone, recently seen in the news?
Enhancing the early detection, location and monitoring of wildfires.
Explanation :
Dryad Networks, a pioneer in ultra-early wildfire detection technology recently introduced the Silvaguard drone, an AI-based technology designed to enhance the early detection, location, and monitoring of wildfires.
About Silvaguard Drone:
It is an AI-based drone designed to enhance the early detection, location and monitoring of wildfires.
It was introduced by Dryad Networks, an environmental IoT startup based in Berlin.
The drone will deliver infrared images, among other things and works in combination with a fire detection system that the company developed earlier and that’s already being used in several countries.
The fire detection system, called Silvanet, is designed to detect wildfires at the smoldering stage using solar-powered gas sensors connected via a wireless network.
Each gas sensor can protect an area the size of a football field and be attached to a tree.
The plan is that once Silvanet detects a fire, it will trigger a nearby Silvaguard drone to fly to the location and provide detailed images.
The information about the fire, including geographic coordinates, video and infrared images, will then be sent to the firefighters who will then know where the fire is spreading and how big it is.
The system aims to enhance firefighting efficiency by delivering precise fire locations and statuses in real-time.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:
https://www.devdiscourse.com/article/technology/3325349-ai-enabled-drones-revolutionize-early-wildfire-detection
Where is Scarborough Shoal, recently seen in the news, located?
South China Sea
Explanation :
China deployed two long-range H-6 bombers around the Scarborough Shoal recently, in Beijing’s latest move to assert sovereignty over the hotly disputed atoll in the South China Sea.
About Scarborough Shoal:
The Scarborough Shoal (also known in English as the Scarborough Reef) is an oceanic coral atoll that developed on top of a seamount into a triangle shape in the eastern part of the South China Sea.
It is located some 220 kilometers west of the Philippines’ Island of Luzon.
It is the largest atoll in the South China Sea, submerged at high tide with few rocks above sea level.
This atoll extends 18 km along its northwest-southeast axis and reaches 10 km along its northeast-southwest axis.
The deep waters around the shoal make it a productive fishing area, rich in marine life, and the lagoon also contains many commercially valuable shellfish and sea cucumbers.
The shoal is the source of an ongoing and, so far, unresolved dispute between the People’s Republic of China and the Philippines, with both countries claiming that the shoal lies within their territory and saying they have exclusive rights to access its waters.
There are no structures built on Scarborough Shoal, but the feature is effectively controlled by China, which has maintained a constant coast guard presence at the feature since 2012.
China, which now refers to the shoal as Huangyan Island, makes a historical claim to the area, stating that they can trace their ownership of the area back to the Yuan Dynasty of the 1200s.
The Philippines claim the area on the basis of geography, as it is much closer to the Philippines’ main island of Luzon, which contains the capital, Manila, but lies over 500 miles from China.
It is considered within the Philippines’ 200-nautical mile exclusive economic zone, based on the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/satellite-images-show-fresh-chinese-bomber-deployment-in-south-china-sea-8032684
Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve lies in which state?
Maharashtra
Explanation :
Maharashtra’s Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve recently introduced new tourist-friendly reforms, including a fast-track safari entry system, relaxed rules for late-night arrivals, and improved full-day safaris.
About Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve:
Location: It is located in the Chandrapur district in Maharashtra.
It is the largest and oldest Tiger Reserve of Maharashtra.
The origin of the name “Tadoba” lies with the name of the god “Tadoba” or “Taru”,worshipped by the tribes that live in the dense forests of the Tadoba and Andhari regions. “Andhari” refers to the Andhari River that meanders through the forest.
The total area of the reserve is 625.4 sq. km. This includes Tadoba National Park, covering 116.55 sq. km, and Andhari Wildlife Sanctuary, covering 508.85 sq. km.
Corridor: The reserve has corridor linkages with Nagzira-Navegaon and Pench Tiger Reserves within the State.
Habitat:
Biogeographically, the reserve falls in the Central Plateau province of the Deccan Peninsula.
The habitat has undulating topography in the north and is rich in biodiversity.
Vegetation: Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous
There are two lakes and one waterway in the reserve, Tadoba Lake, Kolsa Lake, and the Tadoba River.
Flora:
It is blessed with thick forests covered with teak trees and other vegetation such as crocodile bark, salai, tendu, karaya gum, and mahua madhuca.
The reserve is adorned with patches of grass and bamboo shrubberies.
Fauna:
The notable faunal species include the tiger, leopard, sloth bear, wild dog, gaur, chital, and sambar.
As many as 280 species of birds are found, apart from reptiles (54 species), amphibians (11 species) and fish (84 species).
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.outlooktraveller.com/whats-new/new-tourist-friendly-reforms-at-tadoba-andhari-tiger-reserve-in-maharashtra
Which of the following statements regarding seismic waves is/are correct?
- Primary (P) waves are the fastest seismic waves and can travel through solids, liquids and gases.
- Secondary (S) waves travel only through solids and are slower than P-waves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A 7.7-magnitude earthquake struck central Myanmar on March 29, 2025, causing significant destruction in Mandalay and claiming at least 144 lives.
About Earthquakes
Earthquake: Sudden shaking or trembling of the Earth’s surface due to the release of stored energy in the Earth’s crust or upper mantle.
Focus (Hypocentre): The point within the Earth where the earthquake originates.
Epicentre: The point on the surface directly above the focus.
Seismograph: An instrument used to detect and measure earthquakes.
Isoseismic line: A line connecting points on the surface experiencing the same intensity.
Causes of Earthquakes
Fault zones: Most earthquakes occur along fault lines, where stress builds up due to tectonic movements.
Major faults:
Thrust faults (Convergent boundary) → Most powerful quakes (Magnitude 8+).
Strike-slip faults (Transform boundary) → Horizontal movement (e.g., Sagaing Fault, San Andreas Fault).
Normal faults (Divergent boundary) → Less intense quakes (Magnitude <7).
Plate Tectonics: Tectonic movement at plate boundaries can trigger earthquakes:
Convergent Boundaries → Subduction zones, causing megathrust earthquakes (e.g., 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake).
Divergent Boundaries → Spreading ridges generate mild earthquakes.
Transform Boundaries → Horizontal movement of plates leads to strike-slip earthquakes (e.g., Sagaing Fault, San Andreas Fault).
Volcanic activity: Magma movement inside volcanoes can cause volcanic earthquakes.
Myanmar has active volcanoes, contributing to seismic activity.
Human-induced earthquakes: Mining, dam construction, and deep drilling can trigger artificial seismic activity.
Why Does Myanmar Experience Frequent Earthquakes?
Tectonic Setting: Myanmar lies at the junction of three major tectonic plates:
Indian Plate (moving northward)
Eurasian Plate (moving southward)
Burma Microplate (moving eastward)
The Sagaing Fault, a strike-slip fault, runs north-south through central Myanmar, making it highly prone to seismic activity.
Hence both statements are correct.
Kasampatty Sacred Grove, recently seen in the news, lies in which state?
Tamil Nadu
Explanation :
The Tamil Nadu government recently notified Kasampatty (Veera Kovil) sacred grove as a Biodiversity Heritage Site.
About Kasampatty Sacred Grove:
The Kasampatti Sacred Grove, also known as Veera Kovil Sacred Grove, is a revered ecological and cultural site located in Kasampatti village, Dindigul District, Tamil Nadu.
Spanning 4.97 hectares near the Alagarmalai Reserve Forest, this grove is enveloped by lush mango plantations, enhancing its natural beauty and fertility.
It hosts an impressive variety of species - 48 plant species, 22 shrubs, 21 lianas (woody vines), and 29 herbs.
It also shelters more than 12 species of birds, along with small mammals, reptiles, and numerous insects, highlighting the grove’s genetic richness.
The Tamil Nadu government has notified Kasampatti Sacred Grove as the state’s second Biodiversity Heritage Site under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/tamil-nadu-declares-kasampatty-sacred-grove-in-dindigul-as-tn-second-biodiversity-heritage-site/article69381392.ece
What is the primary objective of ‘Operation Brahma’, recently seen in the news?
To provide humanitarian assistance to Myanmar after an earthquake.
Explanation :
After a devastating earthquake ravaged Myanmar recently, India initiated its relief and rescue efforts in the country under the banner ‘Operation Brahma’.
About Operation Brahma:
It is India’s humanitarian mission launched in response to the devastating 7.7-magnitude earthquake that struck Myanmar on March 28, 2025.
The massive earthquake that devastated Myanmar and neighbouring Thailand killed over 1,600 people and caused widespread destruction.
The large-scale humanitarian mission includes rescue teams, medical aid, and relief supplies.
The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) deployed an 80-member team equipped with concrete cutters, drill machines, plasma cutters, and other rescue tools.
The Indian Army has mobilised a specialised medical task force to provide urgent humanitarian assistance.
The Indian Army dispatched a specialized 118-member medical team from the elite Shatrujeet Brigade Medical Responders.
As part of the mission, the Indian Army will set up a 60-bed Medical Treatment Centre to provide immediate care to those injured in the disaster.
The facility will be equipped to handle trauma cases, emergency surgeries, and essential medical services to support Myanmar’s strained healthcare system.
Two Indian naval ships, INS Satpura and INS Savitri, were dispatched carrying 40 tonnes of humanitarian aid to the port of Yangon.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:
https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/myanmar-earthquake-live-thailand-earthquake-live-inside-operation-brahma-indias-mega-aid-plan-for-earthquake-hit-myanmar-8043962
With reference to Chicken’s Neck Corridor, consider the following:
- Nepal
- Bhutan
- Bangladesh
How many of the above countries border Chicken’s Neck Corridor?
All three
Explanation :
Bangladesh has invited China to invest in a river conservation project close to the ‘Chicken’s Neck’ corridor – the link between India’s mainland and its seven northeastern States.
About Chicken’s Neck Corridor:
‘Chicken’s Neck’, also known as the Siliguri Corridor, a narrow strip of land in West Bengal that connects India’s northeastern states to the rest of the country.
The corridor is situated in the northern part of West Bengal, spanning approximately 22 kilometres at its narrowest point.
It is flanked by Nepal to the west, Bhutan to the north, and Bangladesh to the south.
It links the North-eastern Region (NER), comprising eight states—Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura—to mainland India.
Significance of Siliguri Corridor:
It is a strategically significant and geopolitically sensitive region.
It is vital for the movement of military personnel, goods, and supplies.
Any blockade or threat to this corridor could disrupt connectivity to India’s northeast.
The region is close to the India-China border, particularly the Chumbi Valley in Tibet, where China has built significant military infrastructure.
In case of conflict, China could potentially cut off India’s access to its northeastern states by targeting this corridor.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:
https://www.deccanherald.com/world/yunus-invites-china-to-take-part-in-river-conservation-project-close-to-indias-chickens-neck-corridor-3468159
The Ulhas River, recently seen in the news, flows through which one of the following states?
Maharashtra
Explanation :
Taking serious note of citizen activists’ protests against pollution in the Ulhas River, the Maharashtra state government during a special meeting recently, decided to remove water hyacinth from the Ulhas River within the next 15 days.
About Ulhas River:
It is one of the west flowing Rivers in Maharashtra falling into the Arabian Sea.
It rises from the Sahyadri hill ranges in the Raigad district of Maharashtra at an elevation of 600 meters above M.S.L.
The total length of this west-flowing river from its origin to its outfall into the Arabian Sea is 122 km.
The boundary of the basin consists of the main Sahyadri hills on the east, westerly offshoots on the north and south and on the west, a narrow opening at the end leading to the sea.
The Ulhas drains an area of 4,637 sq km, which lies completely in Maharashtra. The Thane, Raigad, and Pune districts fall in the basin.
Tributaries: The important tributaries of the Ulhas River are Pej, Barvi, Bhivapuri, Murbari, Kalu, Shari, Bhasta, Salpe, Poshir, and Shilar.
The Kalu and Bhasta are the major right bank tributaries, which together account for 55.7% of the total catchment area of Ulhas.
The estuary of Ulhas houses several historical ports of Kalyan, Kopri, and Shurparaka.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/mumbai/govt-to-remove-water-hyacinth-to-check-ulhas-river-pollution/articleshow/119724511.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2024:
- It will replace the colonial-era Indian Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, 1925.
- It proposes the formation of the Maritime State Development Council to foster structured growth and development of the port sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Lok Sabha recently passed the Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2024, paving the way for the enactment of modern maritime law in the country
About Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2024:
It will replace the colonial-era Indian Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, 1925.
The Act establishes the responsibilities, liabilities, rights, and immunities in case of goods carried from a port in India to another port in India or any other port in the world.
The Act is in conformance with the International Convention for the Unification of Certain Rules of Law relating to Bills of Lading of August 1924 (Hague Rules) and subsequent amendments to it.
The bill retains all provisions of the act.
The bill is aimed at consolidating laws related to port management, promoting integrated port development, and enhancing the ease of doing business in the maritime sector.
It seeks to optimize the utilisation of India’s vast coastline by establishing and empowering State Maritime Boards to ensure effective management of ports other than major ports.
It also proposes the formation of the Maritime State Development Council to foster structured growth and development of the port sector.
It also addresses critical aspects such as pollution control, disaster management, emergency response, security, safety, navigation, and data management at ports.
It seeks to ensure India’s compliance with international obligations and maritime conventions.
This bill includes provisions for port conservation and introduces adjudicatory mechanisms for resolving port-related disputes efficiently.
Powers of the central government: The Bill empowers the central government to:
Issue directions for carrying out provisions of the Bill;
Amend the schedule specifying rules applicable to bills of lading;
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.livemint.com/news/india/lok-sabha-passes-carriage-of-goods-by-sea-bill-2024-modern-regulations-maritime-sector-sea-shipping-trade-ports-11743161891593.html
Which of the following statements correctly describes a semi-cryogenic rocket engine?
It uses Liquid Oxygen (LOX) as an oxidizer and refined kerosene (RP-1) as fuel.
Explanation :
ISRO’s Breakthrough in Semi-Cryogenic Engine Development for LVM3.
Why in the News?
ISRO has achieved a breakthrough in developing a semi-cryogenic engine (liquid oxygen/kerosene engine) with a high thrust of 2,000 kN (kilonewtons).
The first successful hot test of the Engine Power Head Test Article (PHTA) was conducted at the ISRO Propulsion Complex, Mahendragiri, Tamil Nadu.
This engine will be used in the semi-cryogenic booster stage of the Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (LVM3), enhancing India’s space launch capabilities.
About Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO)
What is a Transfer Orbit?
A Transfer Orbit is used to move a satellite from one circular orbit to another in a fuel-efficient manner.
The Hohmann Transfer Orbit is a commonly used maneuver for such transfers.
Geostationary Transfer Orbit (GTO)
GTO is a highly elliptical orbit with:
Perigee (closest point to Earth): 180-200 km above Earth’s surface.
Apogee (farthest point from Earth): ~35,900 km (near geostationary orbit).
Why is GTO Used?
Satellites are first placed in GTO before they use their own propulsion system to move to a final geostationary orbit (GEO).
This reduces the energy required from the launch vehicle, making it more fuel-efficient.
What is a Semi-Cryogenic Engine?
A semi-cryogenic engine is a type of liquid rocket engine that uses:
Liquid Oxygen (LOX) as an oxidiser (cryogenic component).
Refined kerosene (RP-1) as fuel (stored at ambient temperature).
Significance of ISRO’s Semi-Cryogenic Engine Development
Engine power head test success: The hot test of the Power Head Test Article (PHTA) was conducted for 2.5 seconds to validate the ignition and boost strap mode operation.
All engine parameters performed as expected.
Developed by: Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC) under ISRO.
Upcoming plans: Further series of tests on PHTA before realizing the fully integrated engine.
Replacement for Current LVM3 Core Stage:
The SC120 stage (powered by SE2000 engine) will replace the existing L110 stage in LVM3.
Payload capacity in Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO) to increase from 4 tonnes to 5 tonnes.
What is xenotransplantation?
Transplantation of animal organs into humans
Explanation :
Researchers in China successfully transplanted a gene-modified pig liver into a human diagnosed with brain death to evaluate its survival and function.
What is Xenotransplantation?
Xenotransplantation refers to the transplantation, implantation, or infusion of live cells, tissues, or organs from a non-human animal into a human recipient.
It can also involve human cells, tissues, or organs that have had prior ex vivo (outside the body) contact with non-human animal cells or tissues.
First attempts at xenotransplantation involving the human heart were made in the 1980s.
Genetic modifications are required in animal organs to prevent immune rejection by the human body.
Post-transplantation monitoring is crucial to ensure organ functionality and detect immune responses.
Why Are Pigs Used for Xenotransplantation?
Pig heart valves have been successfully used for human valve replacements for over 50 years.
Anatomical and physiological similarities between pigs and humans make pigs ideal organ donors.
Pigs are widely farmed, making organ availability cost-effective and scalable.
The variety of pig breeds allows organ size to be matched with specific human requirements.
Recent Advancements in Xenotransplantation
First Genetically Modified Pig Heart Transplant (2022): A genetically modified pig heart was successfully transplanted into a human for the first time.
The experiment demonstrated the potential of genetically modified pig organs for human transplantation.
Gene-Modified Pig Liver Transplantation (2025): Chinese researchers from the Fourth Military Medical University, Xi’an successfully transplanted a gene-edited pig liver into a brain-dead human recipient.
Key Genetic Modifications:
Six genes are edited to prevent immune rejection.
Human transgenes are inserted to enhance compatibility.
Observations Over 10 Days:
The pig liver produced bile and albumin, indicating basic functionality.
Stable blood flow was maintained.
No signs of rejection were observed due to immunosuppressants.
The study was published in Nature.
Potential Use: Gene-modified pig livers could serve as a “bridge therapy” for patients awaiting human organ transplants.
However, long-term viability and full liver functionality remain uncertain.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/newsletter/health-matters/transplantation-of-a-gene-modified-pig-liver-shows-promise/article69385833.ece
Which of the following statements regarding Amur Tigers is/are correct?
- They are primarily found in the birch forests of eastern Russia, with some presence in China and North Korea.
- The IUCN Red List categorizes them as Critically Endangered.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 only
Explanation :
A recent study published in Oryx highlights the alarming rise in tiger roadkill incidents, which could impact their long-term survival.
About the Amur Tigers
Scientific name: Panthera tigris altaica
Common name: Amur Tiger / Siberian Tiger
Iucn red list status: Endangered
Population: Estimated 265–486 (2022) in Russia, with a small number in China & possibly North Korea
Habitat: Primarily in eastern Russia’s birch forests, with some presence in China and North Korea
Diet: Carnivore – Preys on elk, wild boar, and other ungulates
Size: 10.75 feet in length, weighing up to 660 pounds
Lifespan: 10-15 years in the wild, up to 20 years in captivity
Unique adaptations: Thick fur, large size, and a lighter coat color for cold climates
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: Roads are taking a toll on Amur tigers in the Russian Far East
Which of the following statements regarding Frankincense is/are correct?
- It is an aromatic resin derived from trees of the Boswellia genus.
- It has been historically used mainly as a food ingredient in various cuisines.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has issued a warning that Frankincense-producing trees (Boswellia species) are at risk of extinction.
Five species on Socotra Island (Yemen) have moved from Vulnerable to Endangered, one species is now Critically Endangered, and three others have been assessed as Critically Endangered for the first time.
What is Frankincense?
Frankincense is an aromatic resin derived from trees of the Boswellia genus.
It has been historically valued for use in incense, perfumes and traditional medicine.
Cultural significance: It was one of the three gifts (Gold, Frankincense, and Myrrh) presented to Jesus by the Magi, as mentioned in the Bible.
Why is Frankincense at Risk?
Habitat destruction & overgrazing: Goats graze on young saplings, preventing tree regeneration.
Traditional rotational grazing practices have declined, leading to overgrazing.
Climate change & extreme weather: Frequent cyclones, flash floods, and landslides (2015, 2018) have damaged and uprooted trees.
Prolonged droughts hinder sapling growth.
Unsustainable Harvesting: Excessive tapping for resin extraction weakens trees and reduces seed production.
Limited conservation measures: Lack of effective protective measures like fencing and regulated harvesting has worsened the crisis.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
The Future Circular Collider (FCC), a proposed $30 billion project, is an initiative of which organization?
CERN
Explanation :
Plans for the Future Circular Collider (FCC), a proposed $30 billion project by CERN, have led to significant divisions within the scientific community.
What is the Future Circular Collider (FCC)?
Project scope: A 91 km circular tunnel beneath the Swiss-French border, designed to accelerate and collide particles at unprecedented energies.
Purpose: To generate Higgs bosons in large numbers (Phase 1, ~2040) and later to collide protons at extreme energies (Phase 2, ~2070).
Estimated cost: $30 billion (initial), with long-term funding implications for the next decades.
Supporters: CERN leadership, senior physicists like Fabiola Gianotti and Mark Thomson, claim it will be the most powerful instrument to study nature.
Critics: Many physicists fear the project will drain funds, limiting investment in other scientific advancements.
Alternative Proposals to FCC
Linear accelerators: Straight-line accelerators could offer a cheaper and more adaptable approach to studying particle physics.
Plasma wave technology: Uses plasma waves to accelerate particles in a compact setup, potentially revolutionizing collider design in the next 20 years.
What is a Hadron?
A hadron is a subatomic particle made of quarks and bound by the strong nuclear force.
Types of Hadrons:
Mesons (e.g., pions, kaons)
Baryons (e.g., protons, neutrons)
What is the Large Hadron Collider (LHC)?
Location: Franco-Swiss border, operated by CERN.
Size: 27 km circular tunnel.
Purpose: Collides protons at high energies to study fundamental forces and particles.
Discoveries: Higgs boson (2012), confirming the Higgs field, which gives particles mass.
Speed: Accelerates particles to 99.999999% the speed of light.
Significance: Helps replicate Big Bang conditions and test theories like supersymmetry and extra dimensions.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: ‘The physics community has never split like this’: row erupts over plans for new Large Hadron Collider
The Teesta River originates from which of the following locations?
Tso Lhamo Lake
Explanation :
Recently, Bangladesh welcomed Chinese participation in the Teesta River Comprehensive Management and Restoration Project.
About the Teesta River:
Geographical significance: The Teesta River is a major transboundary river flowing through India and Bangladesh, serving as a crucial water resource for both nations.
Origin: The river originates from the Tso Lhamo Lake at an elevation of approximately 5,280 meters in North Sikkim, India.
Other sources cited include the Pahunri Glacier, Khangse Glacier, and Chho Lhamo Lake.
Course: The Teesta flows southward through the Sikkim Himalayas, passing towns like Rangpo, and then through West Bengal before entering Bangladesh, where it joins the Brahmaputra River (known as the Jamuna River in Bangladesh).
Historically, the Teesta was a major tributary of the Ganges River.
Length and basin area: The river spans approximately 414 kilometers, with a drainage basin covering around 12,540 square kilometers. Notably, 83% of the basin lies in India, while 17% is in Bangladesh.
Tributaries:
Left-bank tributaries: Lachung Chhu, Chakung Chhu, Dik Chhu, Rani Khola, and Rangpo Chhu.
Right-bank tributaries: Zemu Chhu, Rangyong Chhu, and Rangit River.
Hydroelectric projects and barrages:
In India:
Teesta-V Dam: 510 MW, located in Gangtok district, Sikkim.
Teesta-III Dam: 1,200 MW, situated in Mangan district, Sikkim.
Teesta Low Dam III & IV: 132 MW and 160 MW respectively, both in Kalimpong district, West Bengal.
Gajoldoba Barrage: Primarily for irrigation purposes in West Bengal.
In Bangladesh:
Duani Barrage: Used mainly for irrigation.
Barakhata Teesta Barrage: Another significant irrigation infrastructure.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/bangladesh-welcomes-china-to-participate-in-teesta-project-taiwan-inalienable-part-of-china-yunus-gives-firm-commitment/article69385201.ece
Which one of the following is not the member of BIMSTEC?
Indonesia
Explanation :
The Indian Prime Minister will visit Bangkok, Thailand, from April 3-4, 2025, to participate in the 6th BIMSTEC Summit and hold discussions with the Thai PM.
What is BIMSTEC?
BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) is a regional multilateral organization that connects South Asia and Southeast Asia.
Established through the Bangkok Declaration in 1997, it promotes economic and social progress in the region.
Member Countries
South Asia: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka.
Southeast Asia: Myanmar, Thailand.
Evolution of BIMSTEC
Initially formed as ‘BIST-EC’ (Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand Economic Cooperation).
Renamed ‘BIMST-EC’ after Myanmar joined in 1997.
In 2004, Nepal and Bhutan joined, leading to the current name: BIMSTEC.
Key Features
Bridges South and Southeast Asia, linking the Himalayan region with the Bay of Bengal.
Focuses on economic growth, trade, technology, energy, security, and connectivity.
Acts as an alternative to SAARC for regional cooperation.
India’s Role in BIMSTEC
Leading Initiatives in trade, security, maritime cooperation, and climate action.
Key proponent of BIMSTEC Free Trade Agreement to enhance regional trade integration.
Advocates for stronger physical and digital connectivity between BIMSTEC nations.
India’s Strategic Vision in BIMSTEC
Neighbourhood First Policy: Prioritising economic and security ties with South Asian neighbors.
Act East Policy: Strengthening engagements with ASEAN and Southeast Asia.
MAHASAGAR Vision: Enhancing India’s role in global maritime security and economic growth.
This visit marks India’s continued commitment to its ‘Neighbourhood First’ and ‘Act East’ policies, as well as its MAHASAGAR Vision (Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions).
Hence option b is the answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/pm-modi-thailand-sri-lanka-visit-9910763/
Where is the Pituffik Space Base located?
Greenland
Explanation :
US Vice President JD Vance landed in Greenland amid renewed calls from President Donald Trump to assert control over the territory.
About Greenland
Geographical location: North Atlantic Ocean, between North America and Europe
Capital: Nuuk
Highest point: Gunnbjørn’s Fjeld
Climate: Arctic climate, with temperatures ranging from -50°C in winter to 10–15°C in summer
Natural resources: Minerals, oil, gas, and rare earth elements
Strategic importance: Pituffik Space Base is crucial for US missile defense systems
Historical and Political background: Greenland is an autonomous territory of Denmark but holds strategic significance due to its location between North America and Europe.
The island was a Danish colony until 1979, when it gained home rule; in 2009, it achieved self-governing status, but foreign policy, defense, and monetary matters remain under Denmark’s control.
US Interests in Greenland
Strategic military location: The Pituffik Space Base is crucial for the US ballistic missile warning system due to its position along the shortest route between North America and Europe.
The 1951 Agreement allows the US access to the base but requires prior notification to Greenland and Denmark.
Natural resources and economic interests: Greenland is rich in minerals, oil, and natural gas, including rare earth minerals, which are vital for US economic and technological interests.
Despite this, most mining companies operating in Greenland are Australian, Canadian, or British.
US attempts to acquire Greenland: In 2019, Trump proposed to buy Greenland from Denmark, but the offer was rejected.
In 2025, Trump reaffirmed his belief that the US should control Greenland, arguing it is strategically and economically necessary.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/world/jd-vance-greenland-visit-usha-vance-donald-trump-denmark-9911951/
The Gene Bank initiative, aimed at conserving 10 lakh crop germplasm for future food and nutritional security, is part of which theme of the Union Budget 2025-26?
Investing in Innovations
Explanation :
Why in the News?
The Government of India has announced the establishment of the Second National Gene Bank to conserve 10 lakh crop germplasm for ensuring future food and nutritional security.
This initiative is part of the “Investing in Innovations” theme of the Union Budget 2025-26.
What is a Gene Bank?
A Gene Bank is a storage facility that preserves seeds, pollen, and plant tissues to protect plant species from extinction and ensure their availability for future use.
These stored samples help in crop breeding, scientific research, and biodiversity conservation.
Gene banks play a crucial role in maintaining genetic diversity, essential for climate resilience and food security.
India’s First National Gene Bank
Established: 1996 by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research - National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (ICAR-NBPGR) in New Delhi.
Current Status:
Second-largest Gene Bank globally after the Svalbard Global Seed Vault in Norway.
Houses 4,71,561 accessions of 2,157 species.
Provides plant genetic resources for use by both the public and private sectors involved in crop improvement and genetic conservation.
National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR)
Apex Institution under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
Objective: Conservation, evaluation, and utilization of plant genetic resources for sustainable agriculture and food security.
Headquarters: New Delhi.
National Gene Fund
Established Under: Section 45 of the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act, 2001 (PPVFR Act).
Objective:
Ensures fair distribution of benefits derived from genetic resources.
Supports conservation efforts and promotes sustainable farming practices.
Provides financial incentives to farmers and institutions engaged in biodiversity conservation.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: Establishment of Second National Gene Bank
Where is the Parbati-II Hydroelectric Project located?
Himachal Pradesh
Explanation :
National Hydroelectric Power Corporation Private Limited (NHPC) recently announced the successful completion of the trial run for Unit 2 (200 MW) of the Parbati-II Hydroelectric Project in Himachal Pradesh.
About Parbati-II Hydroelectric Project:
The Parbati Hydroelectric Project (Stage II) is a run-of-the-river project under construction in Sainj, Kullu, Himachal Pradesh.
It proposed to harness the hydro potential of the lower reaches of the Parbati River (major tributary of the Beas River).
The river is proposed to be diverted with a concrete gravity dam at Village Pulga in Parbati Valley through a 31.52 km long head race tunnel and the power house shall be located at village Suind in Sainj Valley.
Total Capacity: 800 MW (four units of 200 MW each)
Once fully commissioned, the Parbati-II project is expected to generate approx. 3,074 million units (MU) of electricity annually.
The project is being developed and currently owned by National Hydroelectric Power Corporation Private Limited (NHPC). The company has a stake of 100%.
The Parbati-II project was initiated in 2003 and was originally scheduled for commissioning in 2010.
However, it faced continuous delays due to various challenges, including tunnelling issues, water and silt seepage, flash floods, cloudbursts, and adverse geological conditions.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.cnbctv18.com/energy/nhpc-stock-price-trial-run-parbati-ii-himachal-19578719.htm
‘INIOCHOS’, a biennial multinational air exercise, is hosted by which one of the following countries?
Greece
Explanation :
Aiming to hone skills against a dozen other counterparts, including the US, Israel, and France, the Indian Air Force (IAF) will be participating in biennial multinational air exercise INIOCHOS-25.
About INIOCHOS:
It is a biennial multinational air exercise hosted by Greece’s Hellenic Air Force.
It serves as a platform for air forces to hone their skills, exchange tactical knowledge, and strengthen military ties.
INIOCHOS-25:
It will take place at Andravida Air Base in the historic region of Elis, Greece.
It will integrate multiple air and surface assets from fifteen countries under realistic combat scenarios, designed to simulate modern-day air warfare challenges.
The IAF contingent will include Su-30 MKI fighters, along with combat-enabling IL-78 and C-17 aircraft.
Apart from the Hellenic Air Force and the IAF, the participants include France with the M-2000, Israel with G-550, Italy with Tornado, Montenegro with B-412, Poland with F-16, Qatar with F-15, Slovenia with 2 PC-9, Spain with F-18, the UAE with M-2000/9, and the US with F-16, KC-46, and KC-135.
It will provide an opportunity to train in planning and executing combined air operations, refine tactics in complex air warfare scenarios, and gain insights into operational best practices.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:
https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/indian-air-force-to-display-skills-in-multinational-exercise-in-greece-8047414
Consider the following statements regarding Tonga:
- It is an archipelago located in the South Indian Ocean.
- It is a constitutional monarchy and is a member of the Commonwealth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A strong 7.1 magnitude earthquake recently hit near Tonga, prompting a tsunami warning for the Pacific island country.
About Tonga:
Tonga, officially the Kingdom of Tonga, also called Friendly Islands, is an archipelago composed of 169 islands, of which only 36 islands are inhabited, and is located in the South Pacific Ocean.
It lies south of Samoa, east of Fiji, and just north of the Tropic of Capricorn.
Tonga’s western islands are volcanic (four with active volcanoes) and sit well above sea level. Those to the east are coral and are more low-lying.
The three largest islands are Tongatapu, Ha’apai, and Vava’u, with Tongatapu being the most populated.
The capital, Nuku‘alofa, is on the island of Tongatapu.
Due to its location within the Pacific Ring of Fire, Tonga experiences relatively frequent volcanic activity.
A former British protectorate, Tonga became fully independent in 1970, although it was never formally colonised.
Political System: It is a constitutional monarchy.
Tonga is a member of the Commonwealth and of the United Nations.
Language: Tongan, English
Currency: Tongan Paʻanga (TOP)
Economy: Tonga has no strategic or mineral resources, and relies on agriculture, fishing and the money sent home by Tongans living abroad.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:
https://www.indiatoday.in/world/story/tonga-hit-by-71-magnitude-earthquake-tsunami-warning-issued-2701384-2025-03-30
Consider the following statements regarding the International Federation of Red Cross and Red Crescent Societies (IFRC), recently seen in the news:
- It is the world’s largest humanitarian network.
- It is headquartered at Geneva, Switzerland.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The pharmaceutical giant Pfizer recently announced it would voluntarily withdraw its sickle cell disease therapy, Oxbryta, from worldwide markets, owing to the emergence of clinical data that links “fatal events” to the drug.
About International Federation of Red Cross and Red Crescent Societies (IFRC):
It is the world’s largest humanitarian network.
Founded in 1919, the Geneva-based Federation brings together 192 Red Cross and Red Crescent societies and some 100 million volunteers.
The IFRC’s mission is to improve the situation of the most vulnerable, coordinating emergency international assistance to people affected by natural and man-made disasters, including the forcibly displaced, and in health crises.
The Federation also helps vulnerable communities to overcome crises and become more resilient through disaster preparedness activities.
Its mandate includes strengthening the capacities of its member Red Cross and Red Crescent Societies to conduct effective emergency relief, disaster preparedness, and health and community care programmes.
It also represents these societies at an international level.
The IFRC also has programs addressing the humanitarian consequences of rapid urbanization, climate change, violence and migration.
Funding: Voluntary contributions from governments, NGOs, corporate donors, and the public.
Relationship with ICRC: Works alongside the International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC), which focuses on humanitarian law and aid in conflict zones.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://theprint.in/world/myanmar-faces-humanitarian-crisis-after-quake-ifrc-says/2571568/
Karimpuzha Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which one of the following states?
Kerala
Explanation :
A recent faunal survey conducted by the Forest Department, has reported 63 new species of odonates, butterflies, and birds in the Karimpuzha Wildlife Sanctuary.
About Karimpuzha Wildlife Sanctuary:
It lies in the Malappuram district in Kerala.
Spanning approximately 227.97 sq.km, the sanctuary is situated on the western slopes of the Nilgiri Hills.
The forest areas of Karimpuzha WLS forms part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (NBR), recognized under the Man and Biosphere Programme of UNESCO.
Karimpuzha WLS shares a boundary with Mukurthi NP (Tamil Nadu) on the eastern side and Silent Valley NP (Kerala) on the southern side.
The name ‘Karimpuzha’ is derived from the Karimpuzha River, a tributary of the River Chaliyar.
The sharp topographical gradient of the hills ranging from 40 m to 2550 m is the primary reason for the unique biodiversity of the Karimpuzha WildLife Sanctuary.
The area merges with landscapes of Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
Steep hills, deep valleys, marshy lands, grasslands, and shola forests with hillocks, and perennial water sources combined with altitudinal variations make it an ideal habitat for a variety of flora and fauna.
The nomadic tribes, Cholanaikans, Cavemen of Kerala, are living inside the Karimpuzha WLS.
They are classified as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) by the Government of India.
Flora: It is the state’s only forest stretch where seven forest types found in the state are all present, including evergreen rainforest, semi-evergreen forest, moist deciduous forest, sub-tropical hill forest, sub-tropical savannah, montane wet temperate forest and montane wet grasslands.
Fauna: It is home to a variety of fauna endemic to the Western Ghats, including the Nilgiri Tahr, Lion-tailed macaque, slender loris, tiger, gaur.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/karimpuzha-wildlife-sanctuary-adds-new-species-to-its-checklist/article69393821.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the green credits:
- They are a unit of incentive provided for engaging in environmentally positive activities.
- They can be traded on a dedicated exchange, similar to carbon credits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Green Credit Programme (GCP), launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC), was rolled out despite concerns from the Law Ministry regarding its legal validity.
About Green Credit (GC):
Green Credit (GC) is a unit of incentive provided for engaging in environmentally positive activities.
These credits can be traded on a dedicated exchange, similar to carbon credits.
The Green Credit Programme (GCP) operates under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Implementation of the Green Credit Programme (GCP)
The Environment Ministry launched the Green Credit Programme (GCP) to enhance forest cover, promote sustainable practices, and incentivize pro-environmental actions.
Who can earn Green Credits?
Individuals, communities, and industries that engage in eco-friendly activities.
Examples include:
Afforestation & reforestation
Water conservation
Sustainable agriculture
How does it work?
Participants receive tradable Green Credits for their contributions.
These credits can be sold to industries that need to fulfill environmental obligations (e.g., compensatory afforestation).
Green credits can be traded on a domestic platform, enabling entities to meet their legal obligations, such as compensatory afforestation for industrial projects.
Since its launch, 384 entities, including 41 Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) like Indian Oil Corporation Ltd, Power Grid Corporation of India Ltd, and NTPC Ltd, have registered under the scheme.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the deep sea mining:
- Seafloor Massive Sulphide Mining involves extraction of deposits of gold and silver from hydrothermal vents.
- Cobalt-Rich Crust Mining involves the stripping of cobalt crusts from underwater mountains.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
About Deep Sea Mining:
Deep sea mining involves the extraction of mineral deposits and metals from the ocean seabed. It is categorized into three types:
These minerals are crucial for battery production, renewable energy technologies, and electronics like mobile phones and computers.
Mining technology is still evolving, with companies developing:
Massive pumps to vacuum materials from the seabed
AI-based deep-sea robots to extract nodules
Advanced machinery for mining near underwater mountains and volcanoes
Governments and corporations view deep sea mining as a strategic necessity due to depleting onshore reserves and increasing demand for critical minerals.
International Seabed Authority (ISA)
About ISA
Established under the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
Came into force in 1994 and became fully operational in 1996.
Headquarters – Kingston, Jamaica.
Functions of ISA
Regulates and manages mineral-related activities in international seabed areas beyond national jurisdiction.
Grants licenses for deep-sea exploration and mining.
Ensures environmental protection while overseeing resource utilization.
ISA recently held a council meeting with 36 countries to discuss whether mining companies should be allowed to extract minerals from the ocean floor.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/deep-sea-mining-impact-9913290/
These minerals are crucial for battery production, renewable energy technologies, and electronics like mobile phones and computers.
Mining technology is still evolving, with companies developing:
Massive pumps to vacuum materials from the seabed
AI-based deep-sea robots to extract nodules
Advanced machinery for mining near underwater mountains and volcanoes
Governments and corporations view deep sea mining as a strategic necessity due to depleting onshore reserves and increasing demand for critical minerals.
International Seabed Authority (ISA)
About ISA
Established under the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
Came into force in 1994 and became fully operational in 1996.
Headquarters – Kingston, Jamaica.
Functions of ISA
Regulates and manages mineral-related activities in international seabed areas beyond national jurisdiction.
Grants licenses for deep-sea exploration and mining.
Ensures environmental protection while overseeing resource utilization.
ISA recently held a council meeting with 36 countries to discuss whether mining companies should be allowed to extract minerals from the ocean floor.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/deep-sea-mining-impact-9913290/
Jharkhand
Explanation :
About Sarhul Festival:
The Sarhul Festival, celebrated by Adivasi communities in Jharkhand and the Chotanagpur region, marks the arrival of spring and the new year.
Meaning: Sarhul means “worship of the Sal tree” and signifies the union of the Sun and the Earth, which is essential for life.
Nature worship: The Sal tree is considered sacred, believed to be the abode of Sarna Maa, the village deity.
Three-Day Festival:
Day 1 – Preparations begin, with homes and Sarna Sthals cleaned, Sal flowers gathered, and the village priest (pahan) observing a strict fast.
Day 2 – Main rituals are performed at Sarna Sthals (Sacred Groves), including sacrifices, prayers for prosperity, and cultural performances.
Day 3 – Concludes with a community feast, featuring Handia (rice beer), ceremonial fishing, and traditional Adivasi cuisine.
Sarhul across regions
The festival is celebrated by several tribes, including the Oraon, Munda, Santal, Khadia, and Ho.
Anthropologist Sarat Chandra Roy (1928) noted that Sarhul evolved from a hunting-based ritual to an agricultural festival, reflecting changes in Adivasi life.
Due to historical migration, Sarhul is now celebrated in Assam, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Nepal, Bangladesh, and Bhutan.
Sarhul and Its Political Significance
1960s: Baba Karthik Oraon, an Adivasi leader advocating for tribal rights and cultural preservation, initiated a Sarhul procession in Ranchi.
Modern Processions: Over the last 60 years, Sarhul processions have become larger, with Siram Toli Sarna Sthal in Ranchi becoming a focal point.
Assertion of Tribal Identity:
Adivasi communities use the festival to reaffirm their distinct identity.
Some groups demand official recognition of the Sarna religion in India’s caste census.
Others, influenced by Hindu organizations, argue that Adivasis are part of Sanatan Dharma (Hinduism).
What Are Sacred Groves?
Sacred Groves are small forest patches protected by local communities due to their religious and cultural significance.
These groves serve as biodiversity hotspots, preserving rare plant and animal species.
Human activities such as hunting and deforestation are restricted, while sustainable practices like honey collection and deadwood gathering are permitted.
Successful Example: Piplantri Village, Rajasthan
Unique Initiative: 111 trees planted for every girl child born.
Impact: Boosted local income, reduced female foeticide, and empowered women’s self-help groups.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:In celebration of tribal festival Sarhul, link to communities’ history, politics | Explained News - The Indian Express
Consider the following statements with reference to the Bodh Gaya Temple:
- It was originally built by King Bindusara of the Mauryan Dynasty.
- It is the location where Lord Buddha attained Enlightenment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
About Bodh Gaya Temple:
Buddhist monks under the All India Buddhist Forum (AIBF) have been protesting since February 2024, demanding the repeal of the Bodh Gaya Temple Act (BTA), 1949.
What is the Bodh Gaya Temple Act (BTA), 1949?
The Act established an eight-member management committee to oversee the temple.
Equal representation was given to Hindus and Buddhists, but the District Magistrate (DM) was made the ex-officio chairperson.
Since the DM historically came from the Hindu community, this created a perceived Hindu majority in temple administration.
Buddhist organizations have long demanded full control over the temple, calling it Bodh Gaya Mahavihara.
Historical Background of the Dispute
Ancient Period: Emperor Ashoka built the original temple at Bodh Gaya in the 3rd century BCE. It remained a Buddhist religious center until the Pala dynasty.
Medieval Period (13th Century):
Bakhtiyar Khilji’s invasion led to the decline of Buddhism in India.
1590: A Hindu monk established the Bodh Gaya Mutt, leading to Hindu control over the temple.
Colonial Period: British-era records refer to Bodh Gaya as a Hindu-controlled site.
Post-Independence (1949): The Bihar Assembly passed the BTA to formalize temple management, transferring control to the new committee instead of a single Hindu authority.
Government Interventions
The BTA, 1949, was passed to resolve ongoing disputes between Hindu and Buddhist religious heads.
2013 Amendment: The Bihar government amended the rule, allowing the ex-officio chairman (DM) to be from any faith.
Early 1990s: Bihar CM Lalu Prasad Yadav drafted the Bodh Gaya Mahavihara Bill, aiming to transfer temple management to the Buddhist community.
The Bill prohibited Hindu idol immersions near the temple and Hindu marriages inside the premises.
However, it was never passed and remains in cold storage.
About the Mahabodhi Temple Complex
The Bodh Gaya Temple is one of the four most sacred sites of Buddhism, marking the location where Buddha attained Enlightenment (Bodhi) along with:
Lumbini (Buddha’s birthplace)
Sarnath (Buddha’s first sermon)
Kushinagar (Buddha’s parinirvana
Location: Bodh Gaya, Bihar, on the banks of the Niranjana River.
The temple is one of the oldest surviving brick structures in India.
Originally built by Ashoka in the 3rd century BCE, the present structure dates to the 5th–6th centuries CE.
UNESCO World Heritage Site since 2002.
Architectural Features
Grand Temple: A 50-meter-high pyramidal shikhara (tower) with intricate engravings and arch motifs.
Four smaller towers, each topped with an umbrella-like dome, surround the central temple.
Sacred Bodhi Tree: Believed to be a direct descendant of the original tree under which Buddha attained Enlightenment.
Vajrasana (Diamond Throne): A stone slab marking the exact spot where Buddha meditated.
Temple Shrine: Houses a yellow sandstone statue of Buddha, encased in glass.
The 4.8-hectare complex includes ancient shrines and modern Buddhist structures built by devotees.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: What is the controversy over the Bodh Gaya temple? | Explained - The Hindu.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Centrifuge:
- It is a device that separates substances based on density using centrifugal force.
- It is typically made of carbon fiber to withstand high speeds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
About Centrifuges:
Iran’s uranium enrichment program has drawn global attention, with thousands of advanced centrifuges being deployed
Centrifuges play a crucial role in uranium enrichment, which is necessary for nuclear power generation and weapons development.
Natural uranium contains 99.3% U-238 and only 0.7% U-235. Since only U-235 is fissile, it must be enriched for use in reactors and weapons.
Nuclear power reactors require uranium with 3-20% U-235, while nuclear weapons need 90% enrichment.
Iran’s uranium enrichment program has drawn global attention, with thousands of advanced centrifuges being deployed.
What is a Centrifuge?
A centrifuge is a device that separates substances based on density using centrifugal force.
Used extensively in scientific research, medical applications, and nuclear technology.
How Centrifuges Work in Uranium Enrichment
Uranium conversion: Uranium is converted into uranium hexafluoride (UF₆) gas.
Centrifugation process: UF₆ gas is introduced into high-speed centrifuges spinning at 50,000 RPM (revolutions per minute).
Heavier U-238 isotopes move outward, while lighter U-235 isotopes concentrate towards the center.
Gradual Enrichment: The U-235-rich fraction is transferred to additional centrifuges to increase purity further.
Over multiple separation stages, uranium is enriched to the desired levels.
Key Components of a Centrifuge
Rotor: The spinning component that creates centrifugal force.
Chamber: Holds the uranium gas for separation.
Material: Typically made of carbon fiber or other lightweight yet strong materials to withstand high speeds.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: Centrifuge: getting to the good uranium - The Hindu.
Consider the following statements regarding Amir Khusrau:
- He is credited with the invention of both the Tabla and the Sitar.
- He introduced Persian and Arabic musical influences into Indian classical music.
- He was associated with the Chishti Sufi order.
- He is often credited with developing Qawwali.
How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
All four
Explanation :
PM Modi, at the 25th Jahan-e-Khusrau festival, described this festival as carrying the “fragrance of the soil of Hindustan.”
Amir Khusrau is traditionally credited with the invention of the Tabla and Sitar through modifications of existing instruments. He developed the Tabla by splitting the Pakhawaj drum and the Sitar by modifying the Persian Sehtar. So, statement 1 is correct.
He played a crucial role in integrating Persian and Arabic musical elements into Indian classical traditions, leading to new forms like Qawwali and Tarana. So, statement 2 is correct.
Amir Khusrau was a devoted disciple of Nizamuddin Auliya and played a crucial role in promoting the teachings of the Chishti Sufi order. So, statement 3 is correct.
Amir Khusrau is often credited with developing Qawwali, a devotional music form used in Sufi gatherings, blending Persian, Arabic, and Indian musical traditions. So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the solar corona:
- The solar corona is much hotter than the Sun’s surface (photosphere).
- Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) from the corona can impact Earth’s magnetic field.
- The corona is best observed in visible light during solar eclipses.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
The solar corona has temperatures of millions of degrees Kelvin, much hotter than the Sun’s surface (~5,500 K). So, statement 1 is correct.
Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) release charged particles that can interact with Earth’s magnetic field, causing geomagnetic storms. So, statement 2 is correct.
The corona is faint compared to the Sun’s brightness and is best observed in visible light during a total solar eclipse. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding childhood obesity:
- It increases the risk of developing type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular diseases later in life.
- Genetic factors alone determine whether a child becomes obese.
- The Body Mass Index (BMI) is commonly used to assess obesity in children.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Prime Minister Narendra Modi, in his recent Mann Ki Baat address, highlighted the rising obesity crisis in India, particularly among children, noting that one in eight Indians is affected.
He urged people to cut oil consumption by 10% each month and emphasized the need to tackle obesity for a healthier nation.
Childhood obesity is linked to long-term health risks like type 2 diabetes, cardiovascular diseases and metabolic disorders. So, statement 1 is correct.
While genetics can play a role, environmental factors such as diet, physical activity and lifestyle are significant contributors to obesity. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Body Mass Index (BMI) is a widely used screening tool to assess obesity in children based on age- and sex-specific percentiles. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the University Grants Commission (UGC) of India:
- The UGC is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament.
- It is responsible for maintaining standards of higher education and providing financial assistance to universities and colleges in India.
- The UGC falls under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Education, Government of India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
The Union government informed the Supreme Court that new UGC regulations will empower it to de-recognise higher education institutions failing to prevent discrimination, particularly based on religion or caste.
The UGC was established under the University Grants Commission Act, 1956, making it a statutory body. So, statement 1 is correct.
It regulates and maintains the quality of higher education institutions and provides financial grants to eligible universities and colleges. So, statement 2 is correct.
The UGC operates under the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development), Government of India. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Dramatic Performances Act, 1876:
- It was enacted by the British government to curb performances that were deemed seditious or against colonial rule.
- The Act empowered the government to prohibit dramatic performances that were considered scandalous, defamatory or threatening public order.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi questioned the continued existence of colonial-era laws, citing the Dramatic Performances Act, 1876, which empowered the British government to ban public performances deemed scandalous, defamatory, seditious, or obscene.
The Dramatic Performances Act, 1876 was introduced by the British to suppress theatre and plays that criticized colonial rule.
The Act granted the government the authority to ban performances that were considered a threat to public order, morality, or government interests. So, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Advance Estimates of GDP in India:
- The advance estimates of GDP are released by the National Statistical Office (NSO).
- These estimates are based on high-frequency economic indicators such as industrial production, inflation and tax collections.
- The first advance estimates of GDP are usually released in early December to help in the preparation of the Union Budget.
- The second advance estimates provide a revised assessment and are published after the end of the financial year.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The Indian government released the latest GDP estimates, measuring the country’s economic growth. GDP represents the market value of all goods and services produced within India over a quarter or financial year.
The National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) releases the advance estimates of GDP. So, statement 1 is correct.
These estimates rely on high-frequency indicators like industrial production, inflation, tax revenue and trade data to project economic growth. So, statement 2 is correct.
The first advance estimates (FAE) are typically released in early January (not December) to assist in Union Budget formulation. So, statement 3 is not correct.
The second advance estimates (SAE), released in February, refine the initial projections by incorporating more data before the end of the financial year. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding copper:
- Copper is a highly conductive metal and is widely used in electrical wiring.
- India is one of the world’s largest producers of copper ore.
- Copper is an essential trace element in the human body and plays a role in enzyme functions.
- The largest copper reserves in India are found in the state of Telangana.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Copper is an excellent conductor of electricity and is widely used in electrical wiring and electronics. So, statement 1 is correct.
India is not among the world’s top producers of copper ore; countries like Chile, Peru, Democratic Republic of the Congo and China lead in production. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Copper is an essential trace element required for enzyme functions, including neurological functions. So, statement 3 is correct.
Rajasthan has the largest copper reserves in India, particularly in the Khetri region. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following best describes the Sensex?
It is a benchmark stock market index that represents 30 well-established companies listed on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE).
Explanation :
The 15% drop in Nifty and Sensex over five months may not be unusual, but its impact is significant due to the growing and widespread investor base across the country.
The Sensex (Sensitive Index) is the benchmark index of the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) and comprises 30 large, financially sound and actively traded companies representing various sectors of the Indian economy.
Consider the following statements regarding riverine dolphins:
- Riverine dolphins are exclusively found in freshwater ecosystems.
- The Gangetic dolphin is India’s national aquatic animal and is primarily found in the Ganges, Brahmaputra and their tributaries.
- Riverine dolphins rely on echolocation for navigation and hunting due to their poor eyesight.
- The Indus and Ganges River dolphins were once considered the same species but are now classified as distinct species.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
Riverine dolphins, such as the Ganges River dolphin and Indus River dolphin, are found only in freshwater environments. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Ganges River dolphin is designated as India’s national aquatic animal and inhabits the Ganges, Brahmaputra and their tributaries. So, statement 2 is correct.
Due to their poor eyesight, these dolphins depend on echolocation to detect prey and navigate murky river waters. So, statement 3 is correct.
The Indus and Ganges River dolphins were once considered a single species but have been classified as separate species due to genetic and ecological differences. So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding quantum computing:
- Unlike classical computers that use bits, quantum computers use qubits, which can exist in multiple states simultaneously due to superposition.
- Quantum entanglement allows qubits to be interconnected, enabling faster computations compared to classical systems.
- Quantum computers are already commercially available and have fully replaced classical supercomputers for complex problem-solving.
- Quantum computing has potential applications in fields such as cryptography, material science and drug discovery.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation :
Policy think tank NITI Aayog has released a comprehensive paper addressing the national security implications of quantum computing.
Qubits can exist in multiple states at once due to superposition, unlike classical bits, which can be either 0 or 1. So, statement 1 is correct.
Quantum entanglement allows qubits to be correlated regardless of distance, improving computational speed and efficiency. So, statement 2 is correct.
Quantum computers have not yet replaced classical supercomputers; they are still in the experimental phase, primarily used for specialized applications. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Quantum computing has significant applications in encryption, optimization, drug discovery and materials science. So, statement 4 is correct.
Which of the following correctly describes the Special and Differential Treatment (SDT) provisions under the World Trade Organization (WTO)?
Under SDT, developing and least-developed countries receive longer timeframes, technical assistance and flexibility in implementing WTO agreements.
Explanation :
US President Donald Trump announced the implementation of reciprocal tariffs on trade partners starting April 2, regardless of their economic status.
Trump highlighted India’s over 100% auto tariffs and claimed that countries like China and South Korea impose significantly higher duties compared to the US. He argued that these disparities have persisted for decades, despite US military and economic support to some of these nations.
The Special and Differential Treatment (SDT) provisions under WTO allow developing and least-developed countries (LDCs) to receive longer transition periods, technical assistance and greater flexibility in trade commitments.
Consider the following statements regarding Pashu Aushadhi Kendras:
- They will be managed by cooperative societies and Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samriddhi Kendras (PMKSK).
- These centers function under the National Animal Disease Control Programme (NADCP) to ensure disease prevention and better livestock health management.
- The initiative aims to enhance farmers’ income by improving animal health, thereby increasing productivity in the dairy and livestock sectors.
- Only state governments are responsible for establishing and managing Pashu Aushadhi Kendras, without any involvement from the central government.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
The government is to launch “Pashu Aushadhi” stores nationwide to provide affordable generic veterinary medicines. This initiative is part of the revised Livestock Health and Disease Control Programme (LHDCP), approved by the Union Cabinet headed by PM Modi.
The Pashu Aushadhi stores will be managed by cooperative societies and Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samriddhi Kendras (PMKSK). The Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying will soon release operational guidelines for these stores. So, statement 1 is correct.
Pashu Aushadhi Kendras are centers that provide affordable veterinary medicines and healthcare products to livestock owners, supporting animal welfare and the rural economy.
These centers are not specifically linked to the National Animal Disease Control Programme (NADCP), which focuses on controlling Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) and Brucellosis. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The initiative helps increase farmers’ income by ensuring better livestock health, leading to improved productivity in the dairy and livestock sectors. So, statement 3 is correct.
Both state and central governments, as well as cooperative organizations, are involved in setting up and managing these centers. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the USAID?
USAID is the primary U.S. government agency responsible for providing foreign aid to support economic development, disaster relief and humanitarian assistance worldwide.
Explanation :
The Trump administration’s Executive Order ends U.S. foreign aid and effectively dismantles USAID, halting several initiatives in India.
Key affected programs include the development of a secure 5G Open Radio Access Network (O-RAN) under the Indo-Pacific strategy, clean air and water projects, sanitation efforts, and numerous health initiatives.
USAID has played a significant role in India’s health and population sectors for over two decades and, since 2022, has supported systems to counter China’s influence in the Indo-Pacific.
In 2022, USAID was the fourth-largest provider of Official Development Assistance to India, contributing $228 million, following Japan, the EU and Germany.
USAID (United States Agency for International Development) is the leading U.S. government agency responsible for foreign aid, economic development, disaster response and humanitarian assistance worldwide.
What is the primary reason for the U.S. government holding Bitcoin reserves?
To store Bitcoin seized from criminal activities, auctions and asset forfeitures.
Explanation :
U.S. President Donald Trump signed an executive order establishing a Strategic Bitcoin Reserve and a US Digital Asset Stockpile.
The Bitcoin reserve will be funded with BTC forfeited in criminal or civil asset seizures, providing the U.S. with a strategic advantage. Other agencies will assess their ability to contribute seized Bitcoin. Similarly, the Digital Asset Stockpile will include other forfeited digital assets.
A significant portion of U.S. Bitcoin reserves comes from law enforcement seizures, mainly through agencies like the FBI and the U.S. Marshals Service. These assets are sometimes auctioned off.
Consider the following statements regarding the Electoral Photo Identity Card (EPIC):
- EPIC is issued by the Election Commission of India (ECI) to eligible voters as an official identification document for elections.
- The possession of an EPIC is mandatory for a person to vote in elections conducted in India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Election Commission (EC) has pledged to resolve the long-standing issue of duplicate voter ID numbers within three months.
The Election Commission of India (ECI) issues the Electoral Photo Identity Card (EPIC) to registered voters as an official identification document for elections. So, statement 1 is correct.
While EPIC is a widely used voter identification document, it is not mandatory for voting. A registered voter can also cast their vote using other approved identity proofs, such as Aadhaar, passport, or driving license, as permitted by the ECI. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Which of the following statements accurately describes AI Kosha, India’s National AI Dataset Platform?
AI Kosha is a platform launched by the Government of India to provide structured access to non-personal datasets, facilitating AI research and innovation.
Explanation :
Recently, the IndiaAI Mission launched AI Kosha, a national dataset platform for collecting non-personal data to develop AI models. It also introduced the Common Compute portal, providing startups and academia access to shared GPUs for AI development.
AI Kosha is an initiative by the Government of India aimed at offering researchers and startups access to non-personal datasets, thereby supporting the development of AI technologies such as large language models (LLMs).
It is part of the broader IndiaAI Mission, which seeks to advance AI research and applications across various sectors.
The platform houses numerous datasets, with a significant focus on enabling the creation and validation of language translation tools for Indian languages, promoting linguistic inclusivity and digital transformation.
Consider the following statements regarding the exercise of police powers:
- These include the authority to prevent crimes, investigate offenses and maintain public order as per legal provisions.
- In India, police powers are exclusively under the jurisdiction of the central government, with policing under List I of the Seventh Schedule
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Police powers involve law enforcement duties, including crime prevention, investigation, maintaining peace, and ensuring public safety. These powers are exercised under constitutional and legal frameworks. So, statement 1 is correct.
In India, policing is a State subject under List II of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, meaning state governments have primary authority over law enforcement. The central government plays a role in certain matters like national security and specialized agencies (e.g., CBI, NIA), but states have primary control over police forces. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following best describes Quick Commerce (Q-Commerce)?
A retail model that ensures super-fast delivery of small orders, typically within 10 to 30 minutes.
Explanation :
Quick Commerce (Q-Commerce) is an ultra-fast delivery model where small-sized essentials like groceries, medicines, and daily-use items are delivered within 10 to 30 minutes.
It mainly caters to B2C (business-to-consumer) needs, not just B2B transactions.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the geographical location of Mauritius:
- It is an island nation located in the Indian Ocean, east of mainland Africa.
- It is a part of the Mascarene Islands, which also include Réunion and Rodrigues.
- The Tropic of Capricorn passes through Mauritius, making it a tropical country.
- Mauritius shares a land border with Madagascar due to its geographical proximity.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Mauritius is an island nation in the Indian Ocean, located east of mainland Africa. So, statement 1 is correct.
Mauritius is part of the Mascarene Islands, a group that also includes Réunion (a French overseas region) and Rodrigues. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Tropic of Capricorn does not pass through Mauritius. It is located slightly north of Mauritius, but it still has a tropical climate. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Mauritius does not share a land border with any country, including Madagascar. It is a completely isolated island nation in the ocean. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the geographical location of Balochistan:
- It is the largest province of Pakistan by area and shares borders with Iran and Afghanistan.
- The province has a coastline along the Arabian Sea, making it strategically important for maritime trade.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Balochistan is the largest province of Pakistan by area and shares international borders with Iran to the west and Afghanistan to the northwest. So, statement 1 is correct.
Balochistan has a coastline along the Arabian Sea, which includes important ports like Gwadar. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Air Quality Index (AQI):
- AQI is a standardized measure used to assess and communicate air pollution levels to the public.
- In India, the AQI categorizes air quality into six levels, ranging from ‘Good’ to ‘Severe.’
- The AQI calculation includes pollutants like PM10, PM2.5, SO₂, NO₂, CO, O₃ and NH₃.
- An AQI value of 100 indicates extremely hazardous air quality requiring immediate health precautions.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The World Air Quality Report 2024 by IQAir highlights severe pollution in India, with 13 of the world’s 20 most polluted cities located in the country.
Byrnihat (Assam) is the most polluted city globally, while Delhi remains the most polluted capital.
AQI is a standardized tool that provides real-time information on air pollution, helping the public and policymakers take necessary actions. So, statement 1 is correct.
In India, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) classifies AQI into six categories—Good, Satisfactory, Moderately Polluted, Poor, Very Poor and Severe. So, statement 2 is correct.
The AQI calculation in India includes major pollutants like PM10, PM2.5, SO₂ (Sulfur Dioxide), NO₂ (Nitrogen Dioxide), CO (Carbon Monoxide), O₃ (Ozone), NH₃ (Ammonia), and Pb (Lead). So, statement 3 is correct.
An AQI value of 100 falls in the ‘Satisfactory’ category and does not indicate an extremely hazardous condition. Hazardous air quality generally corresponds to an AQI above 400. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist):
- ASHA workers are appointed under the National Health Mission (NHM) to act as community health volunteers in rural areas.
- ASHA workers are full-time government employees who receive a fixed monthly salary from the central government.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are not correct?
2 only
Explanation :
ASHA workers are appointed under the National Health Mission (NHM) to serve as a bridge between the healthcare system and rural communities, focusing on maternal and child health, immunization, and awareness programs. So, statement 1 is correct.
ASHA workers are not full-time government employees. Instead, they are honorary volunteers who receive performance-based incentives rather than a fixed monthly salary from the central government. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding NASA’s PUNCH (Polarimeter to UNify the Corona and Heliosphere) Mission:
- The PUNCH mission aims to create a detailed 3D sky map and study the universe’s history.
- PUNCH consists of a single large telescope positioned in Low Earth orbit to capture high-resolution images of the Sun’s outer layers.
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
PUNCH, a solar mission comprising four small satellites, was deployed 10 minutes after launch. It will capture detailed 3D images of the solar corona, study solar winds, and improve space weather predictions.
The PUNCH mission is designed to study the transition of the solar corona into the solar wind, helping scientists understand space weather phenomena like coronal mass ejections (CMEs) and their impact on Earth. So, statement 1 is not correct.
PUNCH does not consist of a single large telescope. Instead, it comprises four small satellites that work together to provide a wide-field view of the solar corona and solar wind. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Minimum Support Price (MSP) in India?
The MSP is recommended by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) and approved by the government.
Explanation :
MSP is not legally binding; it is a government-declared price to ensure farmers get a fair price, but private players are not legally required to follow it.
MSP is announced by the Government of India, specifically the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), based on CACP recommendations, not by the RBI.
The CACP recommends the MSP, which is then approved by the government before being announced.
MSP is not limited to wheat and rice; it is announced for 23 crops, including pulses, oilseeds, and commercial crops.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL):
- The NBWL is a statutory body under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, responsible for wildlife conservation and policy formulation in India.
- The Prime Minister of India serves as the chairperson of the NBWL.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2Explanation :
PM Modi chaired his first-ever National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) meeting at Gir National Park.
This was the first full-body NBWL meeting since, 2012, when it was chaired by then-PM Manmohan Singh.
The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is a statutory body constituted under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 and it plays a crucial role in framing policies, advising on wildlife conservation and approving projects affecting protected areas. So, statement 1 is correct.
The NBWL is chaired by the Prime Minister. The board also includes the Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change as the Vice-Chairperson and several other members, including wildlife experts and government officials. So, statement 2 is correct.
Which of the following best describes a key characteristic of the Creator Economy?
It enables individuals to monetize their content, skills, or influence through digital platforms.
Explanation :
Unlike traditional media, the Creator Economy is decentralized, allowing individuals to distribute content independently through platforms like YouTube, TikTok etc
The Creator Economy empowers independent creators to generate income through sponsorships, ads, subscriptions, merchandise and crowdfunding without depending on traditional institutions.
The Creator Economy is not government-regulated; anyone with internet access can participate.
While corporations do invest in creators, the model primarily benefits individuals and small content businesses by providing direct earning opportunities.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA):
- NTCA was established under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, to strengthen tiger conservation efforts in India.
- It is responsible for implementing Project Tiger and oversees all tiger reserves in the country.
- The Chairman of NTCA is the Prime Minister of India.
- NTCA can approve the relocation of local communities from tiger reserves to reduce human-wildlife conflict.
Which of the statement(s) given above are correct?
1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation :
Recently, Environment Minister announced that Madhav National Park in Madhya Pradesh has been designated as India’s 58th tiger reserve.
The NTCA was established in 2005 under the provisions of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, through an amendment, to enhance tiger conservation efforts. So, statement 1 is correct.
NTCA is responsible for implementing Project Tiger and has the authority to monitor and oversee all tiger reserves in India. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Chairperson of NTCA is the Minister of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change, not the Prime Minister. So, statement 3 is not correct.
NTCA has the authority to approve voluntary relocation of communities living inside tiger reserves to reduce human-wildlife conflict and enhance conservation efforts. So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Electronics:
- Semiconductors act as insulators at absolute zero.
- Ohm’s Law states that the resistance of a conductor is inversely proportional to the voltage applied across it.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Semiconductors, such as silicon and germanium, play a crucial role in transistors, diodes, and integrated circuits, enabling the controlled flow of electrical current in electronic devices.
Semiconductors act as insulators at absolute zero (0 K) but start conducting electricity when the temperature increases. So, statement 1 is correct.
Ohm’s law states that current is directly proportional to voltage but inversely proportional to resistance. The formula is V = IR, meaning resistance remains constant for a given conductor, not proportional to voltage. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Starlink:
- It is a satellite-based internet service developed by SpaceX to provide global broadband connectivity.
- It primarily operates using geostationary satellites placed at an altitude of around 36,000 km.
- It aims to bridge the digital divide by offering high-speed internet access, especially in remote and rural areas.
- Like traditional fiber-optic networks, Starlink’s performance is not affected by weather conditions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Bharti Airtel and Reliance Jio have partnered with SpaceX’s Starlink to provide satellite internet in India, marking a shift from the telecom industry’s earlier resistance to launching Starlink without spectrum auctions.
Starlink is a project by SpaceX designed to provide low-latency, high-speed satellite internet globally. So, statement 1 is correct.
Starlink satellites operate in Low Earth Orbit (LEO) at altitudes of around 550 km, not in geostationary orbit (36,000 km). LEO satellites reduce latency and improve internet speed. So, statement 2 is not correct.
A key goal of Starlink is to provide internet access in underserved and remote areas, addressing the digital divide. So, statement 3 is correct.
Unlike fiber-optic networks, Starlink’s performance can be affected by weather conditions like heavy rain, snow, or cloud cover, which may disrupt satellite signals. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Cancer and its progression:
- Angiogenesis, a process where new blood vessels form, plays a crucial role in tumor growth by supplying nutrients and oxygen to cancerous cells.
- Cancer cells exhibit contact inhibition, meaning they stop dividing when they come into contact with other cells.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Angiogenesis is a key process in tumor development, as tumors stimulate the formation of new blood vessels to sustain their rapid growth by ensuring a steady supply of oxygen and nutrients. So, statement 1 is correct.
Normal cells exhibit contact inhibition, meaning they stop dividing when they come into contact with other cells. However, cancer cells lose this property, leading to uncontrolled proliferation and tumor formation. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding ICF (Integral Coach Factory) and LHB (Linke-Hofmann-Busch) coaches in Indian Railways:
- ICF coaches have better speed and ride quality compared to LHB coaches due to their advanced suspension system.
- LHB coaches have a higher safety standard than ICF coaches as they are designed with anti-climbing features to prevent derailment during accidents.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
LHB coaches have superior speed potential and ride comfort due to better suspension, reduced jerks, and a lightweight stainless-steel body. ICF coaches, on the other hand, are prone to more jerks and are not suitable for high speeds beyond 110 km/h. So, statement 1 is not correct.
LHB coaches are equipped with advanced safety features like anti-climbing mechanisms, better crashworthiness and energy absorption during collisions, making them safer than ICF coaches. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the International Space Station (ISS):
- The ISS is a collaborative project involving space agencies like NASA, Roscosmos, JAXA, ESA and CNSA.
- It orbits the Earth at an altitude of approximately 400 km and completes one orbit in about 90 minutes.
- The ISS is primarily used for scientific research, including microgravity experiments, space medicine and technology testing for future space missions.
- It generates power through a nuclear reactor, ensuring a continuous energy supply for its operations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The International Space Station (ISS) is a joint project of NASA (USA), Roscosmos (Russia), JAXA (Japan), ESA (Europe), and CSA (Canada). CNSA (China’s space agency) is not a participant in the ISS program. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The ISS orbits at approximately 400 km above Earth and completes one full orbit in about 90 minutes, traveling at a speed of roughly 28,000 km/h. So, statement 2 is correct.
The ISS is primarily used for scientific research in microgravity, space medicine, astrophysics, and technology demonstrations for long-duration space missions. So, statement 3 is correct.
The ISS does not use a nuclear reactor for power; instead, it relies on large solar arrays to generate electricity for its systems. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Referral Centre for Wildlife (NRC-W):
- NRC-W functions as India’s apex body for diagnosing and investigating wildlife diseases to support conservation efforts.
- It operates under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) and collaborates with national and international organizations for wildlife health management.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The National Referral Centre for Wildlife (NRC-W) plays a crucial role in diagnosing, monitoring and managing wildlife diseases to aid in conservation and prevent disease transmission between wildlife, livestock and humans. So, statement 1 is correct.
NRC-W functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) and works in collaboration with various national and international organizations to strengthen wildlife health surveillance and research. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Merchant Discount Rate (MDR):
- MDR is a fee paid by the customer to the bank for processing digital transactions made through debit or credit cards.
- The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the government regulate MDR charges to promote digital payments and ensure fair transaction costs for merchants.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
MDR is a fee charged to merchants (not customers) by banks and payment service providers for processing card-based transactions. It covers the costs of transaction processing, payment network usage and fraud prevention. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the government regulate MDR rates to ensure affordability for merchants and encourage cashless transactions in the economy. In some cases, small merchants and certain transactions using RuPay and UPI are exempted from MDR charges to promote digital payments. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Arctic region:
- It is defined by the area within the Arctic Circle, which is located at approximately 66.5° north latitude.
- The Arctic Ocean is the smallest and shallowest of the world’s five major oceans.
- It is governed by an international treaty similar to the Antarctic Treaty.
- The Arctic Council is a formal international organization with binding legal authority over Arctic affairs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The Arctic region is generally defined as the area within the Arctic Circle (approximately 66.5° north latitude). So, statement 1 is correct.
The Arctic Ocean is the smallest and shallowest of the five major oceans. So, statement 2 is correct.
Unlike Antarctica, which is governed by the Antarctic Treaty, the Arctic does not have a similar treaty. Instead, it is subject to national jurisdictions and international agreements. So, statement 3 is not correct.
The Arctic Council is a high-level intergovernmental forum, but it does not have binding legal authority over Arctic affairs. Its decisions are based on consensus and cooperation rather than enforcement.
While the Arctic Council itself isn’t a legally binding entity, it has facilitated the creation of several legally binding agreements among the eight Arctic States, including the Arctic Search and Rescue Agreement and the Agreement on Arctic Marine Oil Pollution Preparedness and Response. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding Plant Load Factor (PLF):
- It is the ratio of the actual energy generated by a power plant to the maximum possible energy it could generate over a given period.
- A higher PLF indicates better efficiency and utilization of the installed capacity of a power plant.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Plant Load Factor (PLF) is calculated as: PLF = (Actual Energy Generated / Maximum Possible Energy Generation) × 100. This measures how efficiently a power plant is being utilized. So, statement 1 is correct.
A higher PLF means that the plant is running closer to its full capacity, improving efficiency and economic viability. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding Grok:
- It is an artificial intelligence chatbot developed by xAI, a company founded by Elon Musk.
- It has direct access to real-time data from X (Twitter), unlike most other AI chatbots that rely on pre-trained datasets.
- It is built on Google’s Tensor Processing Units (TPUs) for faster AI computations.
- Its responses are designed to be more humorous and sarcastic compared to other AI models.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation :
Grok is an AI chatbot developed by xAI, a company founded by Elon Musk. So, statement 1 is correct.
Unlike many other AI chatbots, Grok has real-time access to data from X (formerly Twitter), giving it an edge in responding to trending topics. So, statement 2 is correct.
Grok is not built on Google’s TPUs; it is primarily based on xAI’s proprietary large language models, which run on NVIDIA hardware. So, statement 3 is not correct.
One of Grok’s unique selling points is its humorous, sarcastic and rebellious tone, distinguishing it from other AI models. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
All three
Explanation :
Section 66A: Criminalized sending offensive, false, or menacing messages via electronic means. It was struck down by the Supreme Court in the Shreya Singhal case (2015) for violating free speech.
Section 69A: Grants the government the power to block access to online content on grounds such as sovereignty, national security and public order. This section was upheld by the Supreme Court.
Section 79: Provides safe harbor protection to intermediaries (like social media platforms) from legal liability for user-generated content, provided they follow due diligence and comply with takedown requests from authorities.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
A team of astronauts is returning to Earth after a one-year mission aboard the International Space Station (ISS). Which of the following physiological effects are they most likely to experience immediately upon landing?
- Orthostatic hypotension (difficulty in standing due to blood pooling in the lower body).
- Increased bone density due to prolonged exposure to microgravity.
- Muscle atrophy, especially in weight-bearing muscles.
- Enhanced immune system response due to the body’s adaptation to space conditions.
Which of the effects given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Orthostatic hypotension occurs because, in microgravity, bodily fluids shift towards the upper body. Upon returning to Earth’s gravity, blood pools in the lower body, leading to dizziness and fainting. So, statement 1 is correct.
Bone density decreases (not increases) due to reduced mechanical loading in microgravity, leading to bone loss, particularly in weight-bearing bones. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Muscle atrophy occurs because microgravity reduces the need for muscles to support body weight, leading to loss of muscle mass, particularly in the legs and back. So, statement 3 is correct.
Immune function tends to weaken due to stress, radiation exposure and altered sleep cycles, making astronauts more vulnerable to infections. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Financial Action Task Force (FATF):
- FATF is an intergovernmental organization that sets international standards to combat money laundering, terrorism financing and other related threats.
- The FATF maintains two lists—the Grey List for countries with strategic deficiencies and the Black List for countries that fail to address deficiencies and face financial sanctions.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The FATF is an intergovernmental body established in 1989 to develop policies for combating money laundering, terrorist financing and other financial crimes. It sets global standards and monitors their implementation. So, statement 1 is correct.
FATF maintains two key lists:
Grey List (Increased Monitoring List): Countries with strategic deficiencies in anti-money laundering (AML) and counter-terrorist financing (CTF) measures but committed to reforms.
Black List (High-Risk Jurisdictions): Countries that fail to address deficiencies and face financial sanctions and restrictions from FATF and other global institutions. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
A small Indian pharmaceutical company wants to export its generic medicines to a European country. However, the authorities in that country require extensive clinical trials, additional certifications and compliance with local packaging regulations, significantly increasing costs and delaying market entry.
Which of the following non-trade barriers (NTBs) is the company likely facing?
- Tariff Barriers
- Import Quotas
- Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) Measures
- Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT)
3 and 4 only
Explanation :
Tariff Barriers: The scenario above describes regulatory hurdles and not import taxes. So, point 1 is not correct.
Import Quotas: There is no mention of a fixed limit on the number of medicines that can be imported. So, point 2 is not correct.
Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) Measures: Since the product is a pharmaceutical, compliance with strict health and safety regulations (such as additional clinical trials) may be linked to SPS measures. So, point 3 is correct.
Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT): The requirement for additional certifications, compliance with local regulations, and specific packaging falls under TBT, as these regulations restrict market entry beyond normal safety standards. So, point 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Meghalaya shares its boundary with which of the following Indian states?
- Assam
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Tripura
- Manipur
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 only
Explanation :
Meghalaya shares its borders with one Indian state, Assam and the country of Bangladesh.
Consider the following statements regarding heat waves:
- A heat wave is declared in India when the maximum temperature reaches at least 40°C in plains, 37°C in coastal areas and 30°C in hilly regions for at least two consecutive weeks.
- The India Meteorological Department (IMD) classifies a heat wave based on absolute temperature as well as temperature deviation from normal.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The India Meteorological Department (IMD) defines a heat wave based on temperature thresholds:
Plains: At least 40°C
Coastal areas: At least 37°C
Hilly regions: At least 30°C
These conditions must persist for at least two consecutive days to be officially declared a heat wave. So, statement 1 is not correct.
IMD considers two criteria for declaring a heat wave:
Absolute Temperature Criteria: The temperature must exceed the defined thresholds.
Departure from Normal Criteria: A heat wave is also declared if the temperature is 4.5°C to 6.4°C above normal, and a severe heat wave is declared if it is more than 6.4°C above normal. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the removal of a Judge in India:
- A judge of the Supreme Court or High Court is removed by the President of India on the recommendation of Parliament through an impeachment process.
- The grounds for removal of a judge are proved misbehavior or incapacity, as stated in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?p
pBoth 1 and 2
Explanation :
The removal of a Supreme Court or High Court judge is governed by Article 124(4) (for SC judges) and Article 217 (for HC judges) of the Indian Constitution. The process involves:
A motion passed in both Houses of Parliament by a special majority (a majority of the total membership and two-thirds of the members present and voting).
The President acts only after this recommendation. So, statement 1 is correct.
The only constitutional grounds for removal are “proved misbehavior or incapacity” (Article 124(4)). So, statement 2 is correct.
Given the increasing threat of Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs) in the Himalayas, which of the following measures can help mitigate their impact?
- Strengthening and artificially draining glacial lakes to reduce water volume
- Installing early warning systems using remote sensing and ground-based monitoring
- Increasing hydroelectric dam construction near glacial lakes to store excess water
- Restricting infrastructure development in high-risk GLOF zones
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation :
Artificially lowering water levels in glacial lakes by controlled drainage (e.g., siphoning or outlet channels) reduces the risk of sudden outbursts. So, statement 1 is correct.
Early warning systems using remote sensing, satellite data, and ground-based sensors can help predict and respond to potential GLOFs, minimizing damage. So, statement 2 is correct
Constructing hydroelectric dams near glacial lakes is risky because sudden floods can breach these structures, worsening the disaster. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Zoning laws and restricting development in GLOF-prone areas (e.g., avoiding construction in downstream valleys) reduce infrastructure loss and human casualties. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
A startup is developing an AI-powered drug discovery platform that predicts the effectiveness of new pharmaceutical compounds before human trials. The company uses quantum computing and machine learning to simulate molecular interactions at an unprecedented scale. Based on this, which of the following best classifies the startup’s work?
A deep tech company leveraging advanced technologies for scientific breakthroughs.
Explanation :
Deep tech refers to cutting-edge innovations in fields like AI, quantum computing, biotech, robotics and materials science that create disruptive solutions with high research depth.
The startup’s use of AI, quantum computing and molecular simulations to revolutionize drug discovery aligns perfectly with deep tech characteristics.
Which of the following is the most accurate application of the bioeconomy?
Developing biodegradable plastics from algae and plant-based materials
Explanation :
The India BioEconomy Report 2024, released by the Department of Biotechnology, estimates India’s bioeconomy to be worth over $165 billion, contributing 4.2% of GDP.
Bioeconomy focuses on sustainable production using biological resources like plants, microorganisms and bio-waste to create eco-friendly products.
Developing biodegradable plastics from algae and plants aligns with the principles of the bioeconomy by reducing reliance on fossil fuels and minimizing environmental impact.
The Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is an initiative by the Government of India aimed at transforming e-commerce. How does ONDC differ from traditional e-commerce platforms?
ONDC allows buyers and sellers to interact across multiple platforms rather than being restricted to a single marketplace
Explanation :
ONDC is a decentralized digital commerce network that enables buyers and sellers to interact across different e-commerce platforms rather than being confined to a single marketplace like Amazon or Flipkart.
Consider the following statements regarding the Sagaing Fault:
- It is a major strike-slip fault located in Myanmar.
- Due to its high seismic activity, it poses a significant earthquake threat to cities like Yangon and Mandalay.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Sagaing Fault is a right-lateral (dextral) strike-slip fault running through Myanmar.
It marks the boundary between the Burma microplate and the Sunda plate, accommodating movement caused by the Indian Plate’s northward motion. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Sagaing Fault is seismically active, with historical records of destructive earthquakes affecting Yangon, Mandalay and other regions in Myanmar. It is considered one of Southeast Asia’s most hazardous faults due to its frequent movements. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding asset disclosure norms for election candidates in India:
- As per a Supreme Court ruling, all candidates contesting elections in India are required to declare their assets and liabilities, including those of their spouse and dependents.
- The Election Commission of India (ECI) has the power to reject a candidate’s nomination immediately if their asset disclosure is found to be false or incomplete.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court, in its landmark judgment in 2002 (Association for Democratic Reforms case), made it mandatory for all candidates contesting elections to disclose their assets, liabilities, educational qualifications and criminal records. This includes assets held by their spouse and dependents. So, statement 1 is correct.
At the stage of nomination scrutiny, the ECI, through the Returning Officer, has the power to reject a nomination for incomplete asset disclosure (filing blank particulars).
However, they cannot directly reject a nomination solely based on a suspicion that the declared assets are false.
Allegations of false information are typically addressed through prosecution after filing the affidavit or through an election petition after the election has taken place. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Gold Monetisation Scheme (GMS):
- The scheme allows individuals and institutions to deposit gold and earn interest on it.
- Under GMS, only RBI are authorized to manage gold deposits.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The government has discontinued the Gold Monetisation Scheme’s medium- and long-term deposits, citing market conditions and scheme performance.
However, short-term deposits will continue at the discretion of banks based on commercial viability.
GMS was launched by the Government of India to mobilize idle gold and put it to productive use. The scheme allows individuals and institutions to deposit gold and earn interest on it. So, statement 1 is correct.
There are three types of deposits under GMS:
Short-Term Bank Deposit (STBD) (1-3 years)
Medium-Term Government Deposit (MTGD) (5-7 years)
Long-Term Government Deposit (LTGD) (12-15 years)
Gold deposits can be made through banks, but Collection and Purity Testing Centres (CPTCs) and refineries are also involved in the process. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to the transfer of High Court judges in India, consider the following statements:
- The President of India has the power to transfer a High Court judge after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
- The transferred judge is entitled to a compensatory allowance in addition to their salary.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
As per Article 222(1) of the Indian Constitution, the President has the power to transfer a judge from one High Court to another after consulting the Chief Justice of India (CJI). The Supreme Court has ruled that this consultation must be effective and based on relevant material. So, statement 1 is correct.
Article 222(2) of the Constitution provides that a judge transferred from one High Court to another is entitled to a compensatory allowance in addition to their salary. This is intended to offset any financial disadvantages caused by the transfer. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to Deep Sea Mining, consider the following statements:
- It primarily targets polymetallic nodules, which are rich in metals like manganese, nickel and cobalt.
- The Minerals and Mining Division of the United Nations regulates deep-sea mining activities in areas beyond national jurisdiction.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Deep sea mining involves the extraction of polymetallic nodules, polymetallic sulphides and cobalt-rich crusts from the ocean floor.
These nodules contain valuable metals such as manganese, nickel, cobalt and copper, which are essential for battery production and electronic devices. So, statement 1 is correct.
The International Seabed Authority (ISA), established under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), is responsible for regulating mineral-related activities in the international seabed area, which lies beyond national jurisdictions. So, statement 2 is not correct.
With reference to the festival of Sarhul, consider the following statements:
- It is primarily celebrated by tribal communities in Jharkhand to worship nature and the Sal tree.
- The festival marks the beginning of the sowing season and is associated with the blooming of Mahua flowers.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Sarhul is a major festival of the tribal communities in Jharkhand, particularly the Munda, Oraon and Ho tribes. It is a nature worship festival, where people offer prayers to the Sal tree and the village deity (Gram Devta) for prosperity and a good harvest. So, statement 1 is correct.
Sarhul marks the beginning of the New Year and the sowing season, but it is associated with the blooming of Sal flowers, not Mahua flowers. These flowers are used in rituals, and people carry them in processions to celebrate the festival. So, statement 2 is not correct.
